Category: Class 9

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 5 Migration Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Migration

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Migration Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
According to the 2011 census, the total population of India was
(a) 121 crore
(b) 221 crore
(c) 102 crore
(d) 100 crore
Answer:
(a) 121 crore

Question 2.
_______ has recorded the maximum number of emigrants.
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) vellore
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question3.
during 2015,______of illiterates were migrants from Tamil Nadu.
(a) 7%
(b) 175%
(c) 23%
(d) 9%
Answer :
(a) 7%

Question4.
The poorer sections of the population migrate__________
(a) as a survival strategy
(b) to improve their living standards
(c) as a service
(d) to get experience
Answer:
(a) survival strategy

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Migration is enumerated on_______and_____bases.
2. The mobility of population in rural areas is ______than urban areas.
3. In rural india ,as per census 2011,________percent of the population are counted as migrants.
4. ______ is the major reason for female migration.
5. Any migrant stream would consist of______ sub streams.

Answer:

1. place of birth,place of residence
2. greater
3. 37
4. marriage
5. heterogeneous

III. Match the following

1. Migration policy – (a) Work
2. Female migrants – (b) low incidence of out migration
3. Chennai – (c) maximum number of emigration
4. Better off migrants – (d) marriage
5. Salem – (e) to reduce the volume of migration
6. Male migrants – (f) to improve the living standard

Answer:

1. – (e)
2. – (d)
3. – (c)
4. – (f)
5. – (b)
6. – (a)

IV.Give short answers

Question 1.
Enlist the reasons for migration.
Answer:
The reasons for migration include; Work/Employment, Business, Education, Marriage, and other such reasons.

Question 2.
What are the major factors responsible for female migrants in India?
Answer:

1. Among female migrants, 70 % in India and 51 % in Tamil Nadu report marriage as their reason for migration, in 2011.
2. Marriage and the movement associated with marriage appear to be a major factor responsible for women’s mobility in India and in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.
Name four districts in Tamil Nadu which record a low number of migration.
Answer:
Cuddalore, Karur, Thiruvannamalai, Vellore, Namakkal, Salem, Dindigul, Krishnagiri, Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts record low number of emigrants.

Question 4.
What are the factors responsible for the poorer sections and better-off sections to migrate?
Answer:

1. Poorer sections of the population people migrate as a survival strategy.
2. Migrants from better-off sections move to their living standards.

Question 5.
List the four destinations and the percentage of migrants from Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Of the total migrants who go to foreign countries, nearly 20% have chosen to go to Singapore, while 18% to the United Arab Emirates, 16% to Saudi Arabia, 13 % to the United States of America.

Question6.
What does the study reveal about the occupation undertaken by migrants?
Answer:

1. The study clearly reveals a whole range of occupations undertaken by migrants.
2. Highly skilled occupation on the one hand and low skilled occupations on the other with a large number of semi-skilled occupations in between.

V. Answer in detail

Question.1
State the aims of migration policies.
Answer:
Policies to address the problem of migration in developing countries like India essentially aim at the following:
To reduce the volume of migration: As a large part of the migration is a reflection of poverty
and insecurity faced by large sections of the rural people, the focus of intervention has to be in rural areas. Rural development policies to reduce poverty and insecurity would be essential to reduce the rate of migration.

To redirect the migrant streams: Redirection of migrant streams, away from big metropolitan cities is a desirable policy option. This policy can help in reducing spatial inequalities by suitable strategies, such as developing a more dispersed pattern of urbanisation.

Question.2
Discuss the patterns of migration.
Answer:

1. The pattern of migration is very complex, comprising of number of streams.
2. Rural to rural; rural to urban; urban to rural; urban to urban.
3. Short, medium and long distance migration streams.
4. Long-term stable migration and short-term circulatory type of movements.
5. Each of these streams would consist of different types of migrants (from different social classes), each with its own reason for migration.
6. The extent and nature of these rhigrant streams would essentially depend on.
   • Pressures and aspirations experienced hy people at the origin of migration.
   • Constraints imposed on mobility at the origin of migration.
   • Opportunities at the destination and
   • The cost of migration.

Question 3.
Elucidate about some of the interesting findings of migration in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, two out of every five persons is reported to be a migrant in the year 2011. Incidence of migrants is higher in rural areas and larger among women. Tamil Nadu has a history of migration and people have moved for various reasons such as trade, business, employment etc, to various countries. During the colonial period, labourers had moved to other colonies seeking work and wages.

In the more recent period workers from Tamil Nadu have been moving to countries in the Gulf, the United States of America and Australia. In 2015, an independent research study was conducted to understand the level, nature and pattern of migration in Tamil Nadu. This study has made some interesting findings, as discussed below:

• Of the total migrants in Tamil Nadu, 65 percent have migrated or moved abroad while 35 percent have moved within the country.
• Chennai district has recorded the maximum number of emigrants followed by Coimbatore, Ramanathapuram and Tiruchirapalli districts.
  Cuddalore, Karur, Thiruvannamalai, Vellore, Namakkal, Salem, Dindigul, Krishnagiri, Nilgirfs and Dharmapuri districts record low number of emigrants. This study also provides information about the sex and destination of migrants Tamil Nadu.
• Of the total migrants who go to foreign countries, nearly 20% have chosen to go to Singapore, while 18% to the United Arab Emirates, 16% to Saudi Arabia, 13 % to the United States of America; and Malaysia, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Australia and England are also refered as important destinations for migrants from Tamil Nadu in the year 2015.
• Of the international migrants, 15 percent are women, while 85 percent are men.

Question 4.
Analyse the educational qualification of migrants from Tamil Nadu in 2015.
Answer:
On the question of educational qualifications of migrants from Tamil Nadu, the study reveals that in 2015 about 7 % were illiterates; 30 % have completed schooling ie. class 10; 10 % have completed class 12; 15 % had undergone some vocational training; 11 % were graduates; 12% were professionally qualified and 11 % had post graduate degrees.

VI. Write the correct statement.

Question 1.
In recent times workers from Tamil Nadu are moving to Africa.
Answer:
In the more recent period workers from Tamil Nadu have been moving to countries in the Gulf, United States of America and Australia.

Question 2.
In Tamil Nadu, the extent of migration is much higher in urban areas compared to rural areas.
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, the extent of migration is much higher in rural are as compared to urban areas.

Question 3.
Any migrant stream would consist of homogenous sub-streams.
Answer:
Any migrant stream would consist of heterogenous-sub streams.

Question 4.
Two out of even, 10 persons are reported to be a migrant.
Answer:
Two out of every five persons are reported to be a migrant.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Migration Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
In Tamil Nadu, migrants account for percent in rural areas.
(a) 38
(b) 41
(c) 28
(d) 50
Answer:
(b) 41

Question 2.
The driving force among men to migration is _________
(a) work
(b) employment
(c) tourism
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Question 3.
_________ Of the international migrants percent are women.
(a) 85
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 20
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 4.
Pick out the odd man _________
(a) Australia
(b) the USA
(c) Gulf countries
(d) Uganda
Answer:
(d) Uganda

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. During the colonial period, labourers had moved to other colonies seeking ______
2. Coimbatore has recored ______the number of emigrants next to Chennai.
3. _____is the difference in social status, wealth or opportunity between people or groups.
4. The process of moving from one place to another is known as ______
5. Change in populating occurs due to births, deaths and ______

Answer:

1. work and wages
2. maximum
3. Inequality
4. migration
5. migration

III. Match the following

1. Place of birth – (i) Paul Harris Daniel
2. Red Tea – (ii) Heterogeneous
3. Migration – (iii) Destination
4. Migrant stream – (iv) Lifetime migrant
5. Kuwait – (v) trade

Answer:

1.  – (iv)
2. – (i)
3. – (v)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)

IV.Give short answers

Question 1.
Mention the percentage of migrants in India as well as in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The percentage of migrants was 37 percent in the country.
2. It was at a much higher rate in Tamil Nadu at 43 percent.

Question 2.
How to determine the extent and nature of migration?
Answer:

1. The extent and nature of migration in any society is basically determined by the nature of the development process experienced by that society.
2. That is, the type and scale of development achieved by the agricultural and industrial sectors in an economy would determine the migratory patterns.

Question.3
What do the extent and nature of the migrant streams depend?
Answer:
The extent and nature of these migrant streams would essentially depend on:

1. Pressures and aspirations experienced by people at the origin of migration.
2. Constraints imposed on mobility at the origin of migration.
3. Opportunities at the destination and availability of information regarding these opportunities.
4. The cost of migration.

V.Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the concept of migration.
Answer:

1. In any settlement-village or town change in population occurs due to birth, death and migration.
2. Of these three components of population change, birth and death is clearly identifiable events while migration poses the maximum amount of problem with regards to its definition and measurement.
3. As almost everyone keeps moving most of the time, it is not easy to define which of these moves have to be classified as migratory moves.
4. In the Census of India, migration is enumerated on two bases – Place of birth and Place of residence.

Question 2.
Write a short note on “Red Tea”.
Answer:

1. “Red Tea” is a very well known novel written by Paul Harris Daniel.
2. The novel portraits the slavery life of plantation workers in Valparai.
3. This novel depicts the blood-stained history of the workers that is hidden behind the green cover of the hills.
4. This novel has been translated in Tamil by R. Murugavel in the name “Eriyum Panikkaadu” (6TifliL|LD usfilaafi
5. The story starts with Karupan migrating to the hills with his wife in search of survival.
6. The narrator of this story is Dr. Daniel, who comes there to treat the plantation employees.

VI. Write the correct statement

Question 1.
One usually associates mobility with female rather than male.
Answer:
One usually associate mobility with male rather than female.

Question 2.
Of the total migrants in Tamil Nadu, 65 percent have migrated toward rural areas.
Answer:
Of the total migrants in Tamil Nadu, 65 percent have migrated or moved abroad.

Question 3.
Work is the major factor responsible for female migrants in India.
Answer:
Work is the major factor responsible for male migrants in India.

Question 4.
Of the international migrants, 15 percent are men while 85 percent are women.
Answer:
Of the international migrants, 15 percent are women while 85 percent are men.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 4 Tamilnadu Agriculture Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Tamilnadu Agriculture

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Tamilnadu Agriculture Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Irrigated land surface out of cultivable land is __________
(a) 27%
(b) 57%
(c) 28%
(d) 49%
Answer:
(b) 57%

Question 2.
Out of the following which is not a food crop _________
a) Bajra
b) Ragi
c) Maize
(d) Coconut
Answer:
(d) Coconut

Question 3.
The productivity of paddy during the year 2014-2015
(a) 3,039 kg
(b) 4,429 kg
(c) 2,775 kg
(d) 3,519 kg
Answer:
(b) 4,429 kg

Question 4.
Both agricultural productivity and food productivity has ________
(a) decreased
(b) not stable
(c) remained stable
(d) increased
Answer:
(d) increased

Question 5.
The North-East monsoon period in Tamil Nadu
(a) August – October
(b) September – November
(c) October – December
(d) November – January
Answer:
(c) October-December

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The major occupation of people in Tamil Nadu is _________
2. Tamil Nadu receives rainfall all from the _________monsoon.
3. The total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is _________hectares.

Answer:

1. Agriculture
2. North-East
3. one crore 30 lakh and 33 thousand

III. Match the following

1. Non food crops – (i) 79,38,000
2. Dhal – (ii) less than hectare of cultivable land
3. North east monsoon – (iii) October – December
4. Small farmers – (iv) Urad Dal, Toor Dal, Green grams
5. No. of farmers in 2015 – 2016 – (v) Coconut, Channa

Answer:

1.  – (v)
2. – (iv)
3. – (iii)
4. – (ii)
5. – (i)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
Give two examples for each food crop and non-food crops.
Answer:
Example for food crops: Paddy, Maize Example for non-food crops: Coconut, Cotton.

Question 2.
What are the factors responsible for the changes in the cropping area?
Answer:
The size of the land, quality of the land, amount of rainfall received, reliable water source all contribute to a change in the cropping area.

Question 3.
Who monitors the quantity and quality of groundwater?
Answer:
The Union Ground Water Board is constantly monitoring the level and nature of groundwater. This continuous monitoring has categorized the Panchayat Union (blocks) in terms of the amount of groundwater used. 139 blocks in Tamilnadu are identified as excessive users of groundwater and 100 blocks as nearing the stage of excessive usage of groundwater. 11 blocks have been identified with reduced water quality. Only 136 blocks have enough quantity and quality water for usage.

Question 4.
On what factors does crop cultivation depend. List out the factors on which the crop cultivation depend.
Answer:
The crop cultivation depends on the amount of land being cultivated, the productivity of crops, source of water weather, rainfall etc.

Question 5.
Differentiate between small and marginal farmers.
Answer:

1. Marginal farmers cultivate is an area of less than one hectare.
2. Small farmers cultivate 1 – 2 hectares of land.
3. In Tamil Nadu, the number of marginal farmers is decreasing.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Give a note on the water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Northeast monsoon (Oct-Dec) is a major source of water for Tamil Nadu. The Northeast monsoon rains are stored in reservoirs, lakes, ponds, and wells for cultivation. Conventional water bodies like lakes, ponds and canals provide water for agriculture in Tamil Nadu. 2,239 canals run through Tamil Nadu covering a length of 9,750 km. There are 7,985 small lakes, 33,142 large lakes, 15 lakh open wells and there are 3,54,000 borewells in the state where agriculture is carried out with the help of these water resources.

The area of land that is irrigated using water from lakes is very low. Nearly 3.68 lakh hectares of land obtain water from lakes. The canals provide water to 6.68 lakh hectares. Borewells irrigate 4.93 lakh hectares and open wells provide water to 1L91 lakh hectares of land.

Question 2.
What are the problems faced by using groundwater for agriculture?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu agriculture is dependent on groundwater.
2. The use of groundwater for agriculture creates many hardships too.
3. There would be no suffering if the amount of water taken from the underground and the amount of water that goes into the underground during the rainy season are equal.
4. On the contrary, as the amount of water taken increases, the groundwater will go down resulting in complete dryness or change to unusable water.
5. The Union Water Board is constantly monitoring the level and nature of groundwater.
6. This continuous monitoring has categorized the Panchayat Union (Blocks) in terms of the amount of groundwater used.
7. 139 Blocks are identified as excessive users of groundwater and 100 Blocks identified as nearing the stage of excessive usage of groundwater.
8. blocks have been identified with reduced water quality. Only 136 blocks have enough quantity and quality of water for usage.
9. From this, we clearly understand that Tamil Nadu agriculture is dependent on groundwater. It is very urgent and necessary to regulate the usage of underground water. This is very important for fertile farming.

Question 3.
Discuss the source of irrigation for agriculture.
Answer:
There are no perennial rivers in Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu receives the required water from the Northeast and Southwest monsoons. When the southwest monsoon rains are high in the catchment areas of the Cauvery River in Karnataka dams get filled and in turn, the Cauvery river in Tamil Nadu gets water.

Northeast monsoon (Oct-Dec) is a major source of water for Tamil Nadu. The Northeast monsoon rains are’ stored in reservoirs, lakes, ponds, and wells for cultivation. Conventional water bodies like lakes, ponds, and canals provide water for agriculture in Tamil Nadu. 2,239 canals run through Tamil Nadu covering a length of 9,750 km. There are 7,985 small lakes, 33,142 large lakes, 15 lakh open wells and there are 3,54,000 borewells in the state where agriculture is carried out with the help of these water resources.

The area of land that is irrigated using water from lakes is very low. Nearly 3.68 lakh hectares of land obtain water from lakes. The canals provide water to 6.68 lakh hectares. Borewells irrigate 4.93 lakh hectares and open wells provide water to 11.91 lakh hectares of land.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Tamilnadu Agriculture Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Cholam cultivation takes place in TamilNadu is __________
(a) 7% land area
(b) 1% land area
(c) 12% land area
(d) 9% land area
Answer:
(a) 7% land area

Question 2.
Krishi Karman award in related to __________
(a) cotton textile
(b) industrial growth
(c) food grain production
(d) educational growth
Answer:
(c) food grain production

Question 3.
Manila (groundnut) is grown in percent if the cultivated land.
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 4.
The third largest river in India __________
(a) Cauvery
(b) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadhi
Answer:
(a) Cauvery

Question 5.
In 2011, nearly of the women were involved in agriculture __________
(a) 35%
(b) 55%
(c) 25%
(d) 45%
Answer:
(b) 55%

II. Fill the blanks

1. Most of the cultivations in Tamil Nadu are __________farmers
2. A major portion of the employee involved in agricultural activities are __________labourers.
3. In India the total land area under agriculture is __________fast.
4. If there is good water for a land, it can be cultivated more than __________in a year.
5. Nammaalvar believed in __________the’future generation of India.

Answer:

1. marginal
2. Landless
3. shrinking
4. one crop
5. youth

III. Match the following

1. Mettur Dam – (i) Tony Allen
2. Maize – (ii) Kallanai
3. Virtual water – (iii) Vanagam farm
4. Cauvery – (iv) Highest – storage
5. Nammaalvar – (v) Second

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (v)
3. – (i)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
Write a note river Cauvery.
Answer:

1. River Cauvery is the third largest river in India. Its length is 765 km.
2. Cauvery passes Thiruchirapalli, Tanjavur, Srirangapattinam, Kumbakonnam.
3. The dams constructed across Cauvery in Tamil Nadu are Mettur Dam, Kallanai

Question 2.
What Is National Ayush Movement?
Answer:

1. The National Ayush Movement scheme is implemented by the central government.
2. Its main aim is to save and extend the life of many medicinal herbs that grow only in the forest.
3. This scheme is carried out with 60:40 shares from the central and state governments.

Question 3.
Write a note on Krlshi Karman award to TamllNadu.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has the highest GDP in India according to 2017
2. Tamil Nadu tops in food grain production in 2015 – 2016 Prime Minister presented the Krishi Karman award to Tamil Nadu.
3. Mettur dam has the highest storage of water in Tamilnadu for agricultural Purpose.

Question 4.
Write a note on Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) in TamilNadu.
Answer:

1. Small and marginal farmers in Tamil Nadu will be benefited from FPOs.
2. Each of the producers’ groups have been given an investment grant of ?5 lakh to purchase farm equipment.
3. Apart from using the equipment within the group, these can also be rented out to other farmers.
4. The government also has a contract farming policy.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write about Nammaalvari journey towards Organic farming?
Answer:

1. When Green Revolution was spreading throughout the nation, Nammalvar started his life journey towards organic farming.
2. He resigned his regional Agricultural Developmental Officer post for this purpose.
3. He believed in the youth the future generation of India.
4. Nearly 6000 youth had completed training in organic farming in his Vanagam Farm.
5. He spent most of his days in struggles for organic farming and travels campaigning for the same.
6. He used only public transport.
7. He felt that this was his small role in reducing environmental pollution.

Question 2.
Explain the term Virtual water.
Answer:

1. The term virtual water was introduced by Tony Allen in 1990.
2. The water consumed in the production process of an agriculture or industrial product has been called the virtual water.
3. It is a hidden flow of water when food or other commodities are traded from one place to another..
4. For instance it takes 1340 cubic meters of water to produce one metric ton of wheat.
5. That is, if one metric ton of wheat is exported to another country, then, it means that 1340 cubic metre of water used to cultivate this amount of wheat is also being exported.
6. India is the largest global freshwater user.
7. India has been the fifth largest exporter of virtual water in the world.

Question 3.
Write a note on Micro Irrigation.
Answer:

1. Micro irrigation technology is a very good remedial to tackle shortage in irrigational water.
2. This irrigation technology helps to have a higher yield when compared to the traditional irrigational methods.
3. As only required amount of water is supplied at regular intervals, it increases the ability of water usage and productivity of the crop resulting in reduction of labour expenses and weed growth in the field.
4. The government has taken many measures to implement micro irrigation for proper distribution of water to crops that require more water.

Question 4.
What are Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs)?
Answer:

1. In April 2013, the Government of India issued a National Policy and Process Guidelines on formation of FPOs.
2. The year 2014 was observed as the “Year of Farmer Producer Organisations” by the Government of India.
3. Its main idea of promoting and strengthening member based institutions of farmers.
4. It aimed at engaging the farmer companies to procure agricultural products and sell them.
5. Supply of inputs such as seed, fertilizer and machinery, market linkages, training & networking and financial and technical advice are also among the major activities of FPO

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 3 Money and Credit Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Money and Credit Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

1. Certain metals like ______ (gold/iron) were used as a medium of exchange in ancient times.
2. The Head Quarters of the RBI is at __________ (Chennai /Mumbai).
3. International trade is carried on in terms of ________ (US Dollars / Pounds).
4. The currency of Japan is ______ (Yen/Yuan)

Answer:

1. Gold
2. Mumbai
3. US Dollars
4. Yen

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ________ System can be considered as the first form of trade.
2. money supply is divided into _______.
3. The first printing press of the RBI was started at_________
4. ________act as a regulator of the circulation of money
5. the thesis about money by B.R. Ambedkar is _________

answer:

1. barter
2. four
3. nasik
4. reserve bank of india
5. the probiem of the rupee – its origin and solutio

III. Match the following:

1. US Dollar – (i) Automatic Teller Machine
2. Currency in circulation – (ii) Substitute of money
3. ATM – (iii) Universally accepted currency
4. Salt – (iv) Saudi Arabia
5. Riyal – (v) 85%

Answer:

1. – (iii)
2. – (v)
3. – (i)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iv)

IV. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Why was money invented?
Answer:

1. If there were no money, we would be reduced to a barter economy.
2. In the market, we don’t barter for individual goods.
3. Instead, we exchange for goods (or) services for a common medium of exchange that is money.

Question 2.
What is ancient money?
Answer:

1. The metals can be termed as first form of currency.
2. Gold, Silver and Copper wefe the metals used first.
3. They were called ancient currency.

Question 3.
What were the items used as barter during olden days?
Answer:
Leather beads, shells, tobacco, salt, com, and even slaves were the items used as barter during the olden days.

Question 4.
What is spice route? Why was it called so?
Answer:

1. Spice route was an ancient trade route followed by merchants, importers and exporters.
2. The merchants followed spice routes of both land and sea from Malabar in India as far west as Morocco.
3. Pepper, Spices, Pearls, Gems, Rubies and Muslin clothes were exported from the eastern sea of Tamil Nadu.
4. Pepper and spices took a major share of the exports.
5. Thus this route was called the spice route.

Question 5.
What is natural money?
Answer:
The metals such as silver and gold gained importance gradually all over the world. So, these metals were used as a standard value in the exchange of goods. This was called natural money.

Question 6.
Why were coins of low value printed in large quantities?
Answer:

1. There were insufficient reserves of gold and silver.
2. Mines also had a limited reserve of these metals.
3. An alternative was found and coins were made using metals with lesser value.
4. These were used to buy and sell goods of lesser value.
5. It was used as the money of the poor people.

Question 7.
What is meant by foreign exchange?
Answer:

1. It is the conversion of one country’s currency into another. A country’s currency value may also be set by the country’s government.
2. It is a system of trading in and converting the currency of one country into that of another.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain how money is transacted in the digital world.
Answer:

1. One has to visit the bank and fill in a challan or produce a cheque to withdraw money from his account.
2. Now this practice is gradually vanishing.
3. Instead, one can easily withdraw the necessary amount from an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), with the help of an ATM debit card.
4. One can easily withdraw the money needed at any time at ATMs located everywhere.
5. A person can deposit money in their account without visiting the branch.
6. Similarly, credit cards are also available, through which things are bought on credit and the amount can be paid later.
7. Now a days, instead of using cheques or Demand Drafts (DDs), online transactions through net banking are carried out.
8. Through this, money is transacted to anyone who lives anywhere across the globe.
9. Technology has advanced sci much that even mobile banking is widely used nowadays.

Question 2.
Explain in detail about the role of RBI in the country.
Answer:
A government has the responsibility to regulate money supply and oversee the monetary policy. Hoarding of money must be avoided at all costs in a country’s economy. Only then money can be saved in banks.

A major portion of the savings in banks are used for the development of industries, economic growth and various development schemes for the welfare of the poor.
All the major and important banks were nationalised (1969) in India. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates the circulation of currency in India.

The Reserve Bank of India started its operations on 1st April 1935. It was permanently moved to Mumbai from the year 1937. RBI was nationalised in 1949. 85% of the printed currency is let for circulation. According to the statistics available as on August 2018, currency worth of 19 lakh crore are in circulation.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the various functions of money.
Answer:

1. When money replaced the barter system, a lot of practical issues were solved.
2. Money acts a medium of exchange, a unit of measurement, a store in value and a standard of deferred payments.
3. plays an important role in transactions.
4. Medium of Exchange – Money should be accepted liberally in exchange of goods and services in a country.
5. Unit of Account – Money should be the common, standard unit of calculating a country’s total consumer goods, products, services etc. For example, if a book costs 50, it means that the price of the book is equal to 50 units of money. Money is used to measure and record financial transactions in a country.
6. A Store of Value – Money is used as a store of purchasing power. It can be used to finance future payments.

VI. Write the correct statement

Question (a)

1. The barter system flourished wherever civilizations thrived.
2. This was the initial form of trade.

(i) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong
(ii) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(iii) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
(iv) 1 is wrong; 2 is correct
Answer:
(ii) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Question (b)

1. Most of the international trade transactions are carried out in US dollars.
2. No other country except the US carries out trade in the world.

(i) Both the statements are correct.
(ii) Both the statements are wrong.
(iii) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong
(iv) 1 is wrong; 2 is correct
Answer:
(iii) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Visit a local museum and collect information about the coins displayed there.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 2.
Imagine you are going abroad for a Post Graduation course in architecture. Write a letter to the Branch Manager regarding an education loan.
Answer:
Date: 12th June 20xx.
From
xxxx yyyy
Chennai – 600 xxx.
To
The Branch Manager,
State Bank of India, xxx Branch,
Chennai – 600 xxx
Sir,
Sub: Request to sanction Educational Loan

I submit the following for your kind perusal.

I have completed my B.Arch. degree in Anna University. I have applied for a Post graduation course in architecture, that is, M. Arch at Kingston University in Australia. I have got the admission card also. But the cost of studies is too high. I request you to kindly sanction an educational loan for Rs.8 lakhs.

I am an account holder of your bank here. My SB Account No. is xxxx xxxx xxxxx.

I will be much obliged if you kindly consider my application and sanction the Educational Loan. Expecting your favourable reply.

Thanking you.
Yours faithfully,
[Signature]

VIII. Life Skills

Question 1.
Observe at a 20 rupee note. What is written on it?
Answer:
The following lines are written on it in Hindi and English.
Reserve Bank of India.
Guaranteed by the Central Government.
I promise to pay the bearer the sum of twenty rupees.
(Singend)
Governor

Question 2.
Prepare a family budget for a month.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves based on the monthly income.

Intext HOTS

Question 1.
How important is foreign exchange to one’s country?
Answer:
The foreign exchange market is merely a part of the money market in the financial centres. The buyers and sellers of claim on foreign money and the intermediaries together constitute a foreign exchange market. It is not restricted to any given country or geographical area.

There is a wide variety of dealers in the foreign exchange market. Banks dealing in foreign exchange have branches with substantial balances in different countries. Through their branches and correspondents, the services of such banks, usually called “Exchange Banks,” are available all over the world.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Money and Credit Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

1. Barter system involved the exchange of ______ (Goods/Money)
2. NFC was introduced in Britain in the year ______ (2016/2008)
3. The Chinese made coins out of ______ (Bronze/Copper)
4. In 1999 mobile banks were used in ______ (USA/Europe)
5. In educational loans the ______
6. One rupee and two rupee notes were first printed in India in the year ______ (1917/1927)
7. Security Priting and Minting Corporation of India Ltd. was started in ________(Mumbai/Dewas)

Answer:

1. Goods
2. 2008
3. Bronze
4. Europe
5. Student
6. 1917
7. Dewas

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Exchange of goods means _____
2. Countries bordering the Indian ocean used ______
3. Paper money spread to Europe through the travels of __________
4. A gold plated coin called the was introduced in Europe __________
5. The Credit card was invented by __________
6. In 2016 NFC got introduced in __________
7. All the major and important banks were nationalised in India in __________
8. There is no security required for the loan amount upto _________
9. The relationship between money and price is connected with the policy __________
10. Trades and small entrepreneurs need for their needs __________
11. When the metal supply got limited 2 currency was introduced __________
12. The medium of exchange in a country is __________

Answer:

1. Barter System
2. Shells
3. Marco Polo
4. Florin
5. John Biggins
6. India
7. 1969
8. 4 lakhs
9. Monetary
10. Credit
11. Paper
12. currency

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. European union – (i) Pound
2. England – (ii) Ringgit
3. China – (iii) Dollar
4. Malaysia – (iv) Euro
5. Australia – (v) Yuan

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (i)
3. – (v)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is ATM?
Answer:

1. ATM means Automated Teller Machine, with the help of an ATM debit card.
2. One can easily withdraw the money needed at any time at ATMs located everywhere.

Question 2.
How is the major portion of the savings in banks used?
Answer:
A major portion of the savings in banks are used for the development of industries, economic growth and various development schemes for the welfare of the poor.

Question 3.
What phenomenon increased the importance of the market and money?
Answer:

1. Growing crops and production are done on a commercial basis, rather than on a subsistence level.
2. This phenomenon also increased the importance of the market and money.

Question 4.
What type of currency notes was available till 1947?
Answer:

1. Till 1947, the currency notes with the image of King George VI were in circulation.
2. After Independence, the Government of India issued currency notes.

Question 5.
Why do we say that money, a store of value?
Answer:

1. Money is used as a store of purchasing power.
2. It can be used to finance future payments.

Question 6.
What is meany by SHG?
Answer:
People who live in a particular place or those who are involved in a certain work join together as a group and start saving. These are called Self Help Groups (SHG).

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What are educational loans?
Answer:

1. Educational loan attempts to meet the educational aspirations of the society.
2. A student is the main borrower.
3. A parent, spouse, or sibling can be the co-applicant.
4. It is offered to students who want to pursue higher education in India or overseas.
5. It can be taken for a full-time, part-time or vocational course, and Graduation or Post Graduation.
6. There is no security required for the loan amount up to 4 lakhs
7. The loan is repaid by the student generally after the employment.
8. Students can apply through “Vidya Lakshmi Portal Education Loan Scheme”

Question 2.
Explain the relationship between Money and Price.
Answer:

1. The relationship between money and price is connected with the Monetary policy.
2. There is a close relationship between the growth of money supply and inflation.
3. Price controls play a very important role in a country’s economic stability.
4. This role is played by RBI.
5. Currency is the medium of exchange in a country.
6. The Indian currency is called the Indian Rupee (INR).
7. In a country the foreign currency is called foreign exchange.
8. Purchasing capacity of all currencies in the world are compared using the US dollar as the standard currency.
9. This value differs from country to country.
10. Most of the international trade transactions are carried out in US dollar.

Question 3.
How is currency printed in India?
Answer:

1. In 1925, the British government established a government press at Nasik in Maharashtra
2. Currencies were printed three years later.
3. In 1974, a press was started in Dewas, Madhya Pradesh.
4. In the 1990’s two more presses were started in Mysuru, Karnataka, and Salboni in West Bengal to print bank notes.
5. The Reserve Bank of India has the authority to decide the value of currency to be printed and how the amount should reach its destination safely.
6. Though the RBI has the power to print up to ten thousand rupee notes, at present a maximum of upto rupees two thousand is printed.

Question 4.
Write a note on credit.
Answer:

1. Farmers avail credit during monsoons for buying seeds, agricultural input and other expenses.
2. Traders and small entrepreneurs need credit for their needs.
3. Even large industries receive a credit to take up their new projects.
4. Credit is available from:
   • Formal financial institutions like nationalised and private banks and co-operative banks
   • Informal financial institutions
   • Micro credit is received through Self Help Groups (SHG).
5. As far as nationalised banks and co-operative banks are concerned the interest to credit is comparatively lesser and there is a guarantee for the pledged, goods.

Question 5.
What is an informal financial institution?
Answer:

1. Informal financial institutions are easily approachable to customers with flexible procedures.
2. But there are issues like the safety of items pledged high rates of interest and modes of recovery.
3. The nationalised banks provide help to these groups through micro-credit.
4. Credit is given through SHG for street vendors, fishermen, especially women, and the poor.
5. In Tamil Nadu, all the banks have 10,612 branches, across the state.

Question 6.
Why is foreign exchange important?
Answer:

1. Without the ability to trade in different currencies, companies’ prospects would be limited.
2. As a result, global economic growth would suffer.
3. Investors also use the forex market.
4. Those who seek international diversification benefits need to trade currencies to buy and sell foreign assets and securities.
5. Foreign exchange reserve increases the confidence in the monetary and exchange rate policies of the government.
6. Foreign exchange reserves come to the rescue of any country to absorb the distress related to such a crisis.
7. In doing so the foreign exchange market is the mechanism that transfers purchasing power from one country to another.

VI. Write the correct statement

Question 1.
1. Mobile banking is not used.
2. Pepper and Spices took a major share of exports.
(i) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(ii) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
(iii) 1 is correct, 2 is wrong
(iv) 1 is wrong, 2 is correct
Answer:
(iv) 1 is wrong, 2 is correct

Question 2.
1. Reserve Bank of India was permanently moved to Mumbai from 1935
2. Gold, silver and copper were called ancient money.
(i) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(ii) 1 is correct, 2 is wrong
(iii) 1 is wrong, 2 is correct
(iv) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
(iii) 1 is wrong, 2 is correct

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 2 Employment in India and Tamilnadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Employment in India and Tamilnadu

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Employment in India and Tamilnadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
We take age group ______ years for computation of the workforce.
(a) 12 – 60
(b) 15 – 60
(c) 21 – 65
(d) 5 – 14
Answer:
(b) 15 – 60

Question 2.
Which is the correct sequence of various sectors in GDP of India in the descending order?
(a) Primary sector, Secondary sector, Tertiary sector
(b) Primary sector, Tertiary sector, Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector, Secondary sector, Primary sector
(d) Secondary sector, Tertiary sector, Primary sector
Answer:
(c) Tertiary sector, Secondary sector, Primary sector

Question 3.
Which one of the following sectors is the largest employer in India?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Public sector
Answer:
(a) Primary Sector

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not in Primary Sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Mining
(d) fishery
Answer:
(a) manufacturing

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not in the Secondary Sector?
(a) Construction
(b) manufacturin
(c) Small Scale Industry
(d) forestry
Answer:
(a) Forestry

Question 6.
Tertiary Sector include/s
(a) Transport
(b) insurance
(c) banking
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) all of these

Question 7.
Which sector is not included in the occupational pattern?
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Private sector
answer :
(a)private sector

Question 8.
Match List I with List II using the codes given below:

(1) Agriculture, Forestry, Fishery and Mining – a. Unorganised sector
(2) Manufacturing, Electricity, Gas and Water Supply – b. Service Sector
(3) Trade, Transport and Communication – c. Secondary sector
(4) Unincorporated Enterprises and Household industries – d. Primary Sector
Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)

Question 9.
Which Delhi Sultan of medieval India formed ‘Employment Bureau’ to solve the unemployment problem.
(a) Muhamad Bin Tugluq
(b) Allauddin Khilji
(c) Feroz Shah Tugluq
(d) Balban
Answer:
(d ) Feroz Shah Tugluq

Question 10.
_____sector is registered and follows government rules.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Organised
(c) Unorganised
(d)private
answer:
(b)organised

Question 11.
_______sector provides job security and higher wages.
(a) Public sector
(b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) Private sector
answer :
(b) organised sector

Question 12.
Find the odd one
(a)banking
(b) Railways
(c)insurance
(d) Small Scale Industry
Answer:
(d) Small Scale Industry

Question 13.
The sectors are classified into Public and Private sectors on the basis of
(a) number of workers employed
(b) nature of the economic activity
(c) ownership of enterprises
(d) employment conditions
Answer :
(c) ownership of enterprises

Question 14
Assertion (A): The unorganised sector of the economy characterised by household manufacturing activity and small-scale industry.
Reason (R): Jobs here are low paid and often not regular
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)]

Question 15.
People who employ workers and pay rewards for their work is termed as
(a) employee
(b) employer
(c) labour
(d) caretaker
Answer:
(b) employer

Question 16.
_____ continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Banking
(d) Small Scale Industry
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

II. Fill in the blanks

1. In _____ sector, the employment terms are not fixed and regular
2. Economic activities are classified into_____ and____ sectors.
3. _____ has always featured as an important element of development policy in India.
4. Employment pattern changes due to_________
5. The nature of employment in India is__________
6. _______of the economy is the number of people in the country, who work and also capable of working
7. public sector means________

Answer:

1. unorganised
2. public, private
3. employment
4. the lifestyle of the people
5. multi-dimensional
6. labour force
7. government undertaking

III. Match the following

1. Public sector – a. Banking
2. Private sector – b. Poultry
3. Primary sector – c. Profit motive
4. Tertiary sector – d. Service motive

Answer:

1. – (d)
2. – (c)
3. – (b)
4. – (a)

IV. Give Short answers

Question 1.
What is labour force of the economy?
Answer:
Labour force of the economy is the number of people in the country who work and also capable of working.

Question 2.
Why are children and old age (above 60 years) are not considered for the computation of the workforce?
Answer:

1. Persons less than 15 years are considered as children.
2. Persons above 60 years of age are excluded as they are not physically fit to take productive
   occupation
3. If larger percentage of population is accounted for by children and old age persons, then the progress of the country would be very slow as the working force is very small.

Question 3.
What are the three sectors of an economy?
Answer:
The economy is classified into three sectors. Primary (or) Agriculture sector, Secondary (or) Industrial sector, and Tertiary (or) Service sector.

Question 4.
Agriculture, despite a sharp decline in Gross Domestic Product, continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Agriculture despite a sharp decline in Gross Domestic Product continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu.
2. This is because the Non – agriculture sectors have not generated enough employment to affect a shift of labour force.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain: (a) primary sector; (b) secondary sector; (c) tertiary sector.
Answer:
The structure of employment denotes the number of workers engaged in different sectors of the economy.

Primary Sector: Agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, poultry, dairy farming, fishing, etc.

Secondary Section: Manufacturing, small and large scale industries, and constructional activities.

Tertiary Sector: Transport insurance banking, trade, communication, real estate, government, and non-government services.
In developing countries like India that a large workforce will be engaged in the Primary Sector, while a small proportion in Secondary and Tertiary sectors.

Question 2.
Explain the employment structure of India.
Answer:

1. The nature of employment in India is multi-dimensional.
2. Some get employment throughout the year, some others get employed for only a few months in a year.
3. The economy is classified into three sectors. Primary or agricultural sector, secondary or industrial sector, tertiary or service sectors.
   • Primary Sector – Agriculture, animal husbandry, poultry, dairy farming etc.
   • Secondary Sector – Manufacturing, small and large scale industries and constructional activities.
   • Tertiary Sector – Transport, Insurance, Banking, Trade, Communication, Government and Non-government.
4. In developing countries like India, large workforce will be engaged in primary sector while a small proportion in secondary and tertiary sectors.
5. Employment growth in India has however not been adequate in view of faster growth in recent years.
6. Employment has always featured as an important element of development policy in India.
7. Employment growth has increased at an average rate of 2% during the past four decades since 1972-1973.

Question 3.
Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unorganised sectors
Answer:
Organised Sector:

1. It is incorporated with the appropriate authority or government with specific rules and regulations.
2. The employers in the sectors are provided with job security and receive higher wages than those of the unorganised sectors.
3. Employees of Central and State government, Banks, Railways, Insurance, Industry are called orgasnised sector.
4. They have fixed working hours, good salary, paid holidays and provides medical allowance and Insurance also.

Unorganised Sector:

1. It is characteristic the household manufacturing activity and small-scale industry without proper rules and regulations.
2. Employment is not secure, when there is no work, people are asked to leave the job.
3. This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own doing small jobs such as selling on the street, doing repair work and so on.
4. The employment terms are not fixed and regular. They do not enjoy any special benefit or job security. These enterprises are not registered with the government.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the Public sector and the Private sector.
Answer:
Public Sector:

1. Service motive.
2. The government owns the assets.
3. Wages are paid by Government.
4. Preserves national wealth.
5. Eg: NLC, SAIL, BSNL

Private Sector:

1. Profit motive.
2. Private individuals own the assets.
3. Wages are paid by the owner of Private enterprises.
4. Exploitation of natural resources like forest, mines for their personal benefit.
5. Eg: TVS Motors, Ashok Leylnd, TATA steel.

VI. Projects and Activities

Question 1.
Make a long list of all kinds of work that you find adults around you. In what way can you classify them?
Answer:

• Agriculture, Food & Natural resources.
• Business, Management & Administration.
• Communication & Information Systems.
• Engineering, Manufacturing & Technology.
• Health Science Technology.
• Human Services.

Question 2.
A research scholar looked at the working people in the city of Chennai and found the following
Answer:

Answer:

Question 3.
Classify the following list of occupations under primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors. Milk vendor, tailor, teacher, doctor, farmer, postman, engineer, potter, fisherman, artisans, policeman, banker, driver, carpenter.
Answer:

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
the tertiary sector is in top position in the world now justify.
Answer:

1. In a direct sense, the tertiary sector is mostly independent.
2. This sector primarily includes those activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.
3. They aid and support the production process.
   e.g., The transport sector, that uses trucks to transport finished products from factory to the retail stores.
4. The service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods.
   e.g., Teachers, doctors, washermen, barbers, etc.
5. The tertiary sector actually caters to the excess income in a person’s hand after he is successful in acquiring his basic needs. This sector will remain a chief engine for future growth.

VIII. Life Skill

Question 1.
Discuss the sectors of your village economy.
Answer:

1. The teacher will make the students gain knowledge of the Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary sectors.
2. The students will be asked to collect information regarding the three sectors.
3. The students will be advised to classify the jobs available under the Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary sectors in their village.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Employment in India and Tamilnadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In India the nature of employment in India is _______
(a) agriculture-oriented
(b) industry-oriented
(c) skill-oriented
(d) multi-dimensional
Answer:
(d) multi-dimensional

Question 2.
The organised sector provides _________
(a) good salary
(b) medical allowance
(c) paid holidays
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 3.
Government plays a major role in sector _________
(a) agricultural
(b) private
(c) Public
(d) unorganised
Answer:
(c) Public

Question 4.
Iruvelpattu is a village in _________
(a) Erode
(b) Chengelpet
(c) Villupuram
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(c) Villupuram

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Those who are engaged in economic activities are called _________
2. In well-developed countries, the proportion of workforce engaged in agriculture will be _________
3.  In unorganized sector the employment terms are not _________
4. In recent times there has been a growth in _________
5. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in the year _________

Answers:

1. Employees
2. Very small
3. Fixed and Regular
4. Part-time employment
5. 2005

II. Match the following

1. Unorganised Sector – (i) Job security
2. Organised Sector – (ii) Iruvelpattu
3. Recent years – (iii) No fixed terms
4. Slater village – (iv) Increasing self-employment

Answer:

1. – iii
2. – i
3. – iv
4. – ii

IV. Write short answers

Question 1.
What is the basic need in the present world?
Answer:

1. The basic needs of every human being are food, clothes, and shelter
2. In the present world, one more thing also needs to be added to this list, is employment
3. To survive in the world, we all need employment to earn money.

Question 2.
Define the terms employer and employee.
Answer:

1. Those who are engaged in economic activities, in whatever capacity, are called employees.
2. People who employ these workers and pay rewards for their work in termed as employers.

Question 3.
In recent years what are the types of more flexible working patterns seen among the employees?
Answer:

1. In recent years, there has been a change in employment patterns.
2. This has helped the employer to develop more flexible working patterns among their employees.
3. The trends are
   • increasing self-employment
   • firms using fewer full-time employees and tending to offer more short term contracts
4. There has been a growth in part-time employment.
5. This may be due to the lifestyle of the people.

Question 4.
Mention the importance of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
Answer:

1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee of 2005 is able to provide work in rural areas for 100 days of employment in a year.
2. It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas.

V. Answer in a detail

Question 1.
Write a note on the case study of Employment in Iruvelpattu.
Answer:

1. Iruvelpattu is a village in Villupuram District, Tamil Nadu.
2. This village has been studied for more than 100 years by many scholars.
3. This village is also called Slater village as Gilbert Slater was the first scholar working in the University of Madras went with his students to study this village in 1916.
4. Over the years, many scholars surveyed the occupations of villagers and collected many more details of each person in the village.
5. The government brought social security awareness among the people of the village through their primary health care, provision of schools, maintenance of public distribution system.
6. Though this village underwent many changes, is still depended on agriculture as the main occupation
7. In the following chart we can notice that during 1981, out of 100 families, 24 were engaged in non-agriculture employment.
8. In 2008, the percentage of families engaged in such employment increased to 41.

Employment details of Households in Iruvelpattu (in %)

VI. HOTS

Question 1.
Suggest your views to increase agricultural productivity
Answer:

1. To facilitate the farmers to produce new farm inputs and enable them to sell their product in markets, villages should be linked with man dies.
2. Canals, Tube wells should be constructed to provide better irrigation facilities for the security of crops.
3. Adequate credit facilities should be made available at reasonable cheap rates in rural areas.
4. Marketing infrastructure should be widened and strengthened to help farmers to sell their products at better prices.
5. Efforts should be made towards completing the consolidation work with a specific period of time
6. Guidelines and advise could be given to the farmers regarding the adoption of new technology.
7. A proper climate should be generated to encourage the farm people to start employment in the subsidiary occupations. It will help to reduce the population pressure on land.
8. The farmers should be made familiar with the advantage of chemical fertilizer through exhibitions and these inputs should be made easily available through co-operative societies and panchayats.
9. To check up the subdivision and fragmentation of holding, the movement of co-operative farming should be launched.
10. In rural areas, more emphasis should be made to set up cottage and small scale industries.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 1 Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Development increases the quality of life.
Reason (R): People will have higher incomes, better education, better health and nutrition, less poverty.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
The term ‘Human resources’ refers to ___________
(a) investment on poor people
(b) expenditure on agriculture
(c) investment on assets
(d) collective abilities of people
Answer:
(d) collective abilities of people

Question 3.
For comparing development between countries, their is considered to be one of the most important attributes.
(a) growth
(b) income
(c) expenditure
(d) savings
Answer:
(b) income

Question 4.
___________ is considered a true measure of national income.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(c) NNP

Question 5.
The income is also called per capita income. ___________
(a) average
(b) total
(c) people
(d) monthly
Answer:
(a) average

Question 6.
Which one of the following country is not a G-8 country?
(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Russia
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 7.
Which one of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(c) China

Question 8.
Assertion (A): The Net National Product (NNP) is considered as a true measure of national output.
Reason (R): It is also known as national income.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Human resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
Reason (R): Investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate of returns in the future for a country.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 10.
The Human Development Index (HDI) does not take into account the following dimension in its calculation
(a) Gender
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) Income
Answer:
(a) Gender

Question 11.
Among the following states which state have the literacy rate (2011) higher than national average
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
Sex-ratio means
(a) the ratio between adult-male and adult female in a population
(b) the ratio between female and male in a population
(c) the relationship between male of female
(d) the number of females per thousand males
Answer:
(d) the number of females per thousand males

Question 13.
Inter-generational equality is ensured under the process of
(a) Industrial Progress
(b) Economic development
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Economic growth
Answer:
(c) Sustainable development

Question 14.
Find the odd one
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Paper
(d) Natural gas
Answer:
(c) Paper

Question 15.
________ is the state with highest installed solar capacity in India.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 16.
________ resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
(a) Natural
(b) Renewable
(c) Non-Renewable
(d) New
Answer:
(c) Non-Renewable

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Economic progress of any country is known as __________
2. The head quarters of HRD Ministry is in __________
3. The state having the highest literacy rate in India is __________
4. Human Development Report of the world prepared and released by __________
5. Groundwater is an example of resource __________
6. The book An Uncertain Glory was written by __________

Answer:

1. Economic Development
2. Shastri Bhavan, New Delhi
3. Kerala
4. UNDP (United Nation Development Programme)
5. Renewable
6. Prof. Amartya Sen

III. Match the following

1. Development – (i) Wild life Protection Act
2. Human resource – (ii) Renewable resources
3. Solar energy – (iii) Part of daily life
4. 1972 – (iv) Education

Answer:

1. – (iii)
2. – (iv)
3. – (ii)
4. – (i)

IV. Give Short answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by development?
Answer:

1. The word ‘development’ refers to the progress of a particular field (or) a particular person.
2. Similarly, the economic progress of a country is known as ‘economic development’.
3. However, the interpretation of the concept development keeps On changing from time to time, from person to person.

Question 2.
What are the indicators of development?
Answer:

Question 3.
Why NNP is not considered as a useful measure to compare a country’s development with other countries?
Answer:

1. For measuring a country’s development, its income is considered to be one of the most important factors.
2. NNP is considered a true measure of National output.
3. So NNP is not considered a useful measure to compare a country’s development with other countries.

Question 4.
Why human resources is considered the foremost resource of any country?
Answer:

1. Human resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
2. Human resource refers to people who have the manpower which can be utilized in the production sector.
3. Therefore investment in human resource (education and health) can give a high rate of returns in the future.
4. Now the economists have realised that investment in human capital is as important as investment in physical capital.

Question 5.
Expand the following:

1. PPP
2. HDI

Answer:

1. PPP – Purchasing Power Parity.
2. HDI – Human Development Index.

Question 6.
Expand the following:

1. NNP
2. PCI

Answer:

1. NNP – Net National Product.
2. PCI – Per Capita Income.

Question 7.
What is ‘Solar Power’?
Answer:
Solar power is the conversion of energy from sunlight into electricity either directly using photovoltaic cells (or) indirectly using concentrated solar power.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the policies for sustainable development.
Answer:

1. India depends on thermal and hydropower plants to meet its power needs. Both these sources have an adverse environmental impact.
2. Thermal power plants emit large quantities of carbon dioxide, which pollute the environment.
3. Solar power is the conversion of energy from sunlight into electricity either directly
   using photovoltaic cells or indirectly using concentrated solar power.
4. Solar panels absorb sunlight as a source of energy to generate electricity. A solar electric system can reliably produce electricity for our homes and offices.
5. These distributed solar systems are often installed by home and business owners to reduce their electricity costs. Solar power in India is a fast-developing industry.
6. Tamil Nadu is the state with the highest installed solar capacity in India.
7. Tamil Nadu is one of the leading solar power producing states in India. As of 31 July 2017, the total installed capacity in Tamil Nadu is 1,697 MW.

Question 2.
Describe in detail environmental policies in India. Ans:
Answer:

1. Environmental policies in India have been evolved considerably over the past three decades.
2. These policies have covered a wide range of issues such as air, water pollution, waste management, and biodiversity conservation.
3. India faces challenges in economic development, which has to be achieved with limited resources, minimum externalities, and in the presence of an uncertain climate.
4. One of the approaches to overcome this challenge is through the path of sustainable development.
5. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted and introduced new changes in environmental protection through a series of directions and judgments.

Question 3.
Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources.
Answer:
Renewable Resource:

1. These resources cannot be exhausted.
2. It can be used again and again.
3. Eg: Solar Energy, wind energy, tidal energy and hydroelectric, etc.,
4. It has low carbon emission and hence environment friendly.
5. The cost is low.
6. These resources are pollution-free.
7. The life of resource is infinite.

Non-Renewable Resource:

1. These resources can be exhausted one day.
2. Cannot be used repeatedly.
3. Eg: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, etc.,
4. It has a high carbon emission and damages the environment.
5. The cost is high.
6. Non-renewable resources pollute the environment.
7. The life of resources is finite and vanishes one day.

Question 4.
Mention any five environmental acts and their action. Ans:
Answer:
Act:

1. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
2. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
3. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
4. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
5. Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1974
6. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

Action:

1. Environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
2. To provide for the conservation of biological diversity.
3. Providing for the protection and improvement of the environment.
4. Check deforestation and encourage afforestation of non-forest areas.
5. Provides maintenance and restoration and quality of all types of surface and groundwater.
6. Providing protection to wild animals and birds.

VI. Projects and Activities

Question 1.
List the various ways in which the problems of garbage and emissions are being dealt with around the world.
Answer:

Plastic bags, broken glass, obsolete cell phone (or) used battery cells, they are all used products that require appropriate disposal to limit their harm to the environment.
The various ways in which the problem of garbage and emissions are being dealt with:

1. Collection
2. transportation
3. dumping
4. recycling (or) sewage treatment.

Various waste disposal problems:

1. Production of too much waste.
2. Most of the waste is toxic.
3. Landfills are a problem as well.
4. Regulations are based on vested interests.
5. Reliance on dying technologies to reduce and recycle waste.
6. Some of the technologies marked as ‘green’ are not true in an actual sense.

You can do this project with the help of your teacher.

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
Write in detail what kind of environmental problems you face in your locality
Answer:
We face the following environmental problems in our locality:

1. Pollution of the air, water, soil, and others by chemicals.
2. Flood, an increased number of low-pressure depressions, cyclones, etc. from October to December.
3. The gradual caving in or sinking of areas near coastal land.
4. Usage and dumping of radioactive materials from hospital wastes.
5. Burning of garbage waste in open areas.
6. Increase of UV rays due to depletion of the Ozone Layer.
7. Insufficient energy, water, food, and other resources.
8. Other pollutions (noise, vibration, smell, radio wave damage, light pollution).
9. The extensive killing of animals and destroying of plants.
10. Rapid Global Warming.

VIII. Life Skill

Question 1.
How is the Per Capita income calculated?
Answer:
The average income is calculated by dividing the country’s total income by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income. Calculations on the per capita income of all countries are calculated only in the US dollar in order to compare the International level.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
India in said to be a _________ country.
(a) developed
(b) rich
(c) poor
(d) developing
Answer:
(d) developing

Question 2.
Development increases in the _________ of life.
(a) quantity
(b) quality
(c) nature
(d) style
Answer:
(b) quality

Question 3.
Which one of the following does not contribute to development?
(a) Stagnant
(b) Progress
(c) Improvement
(d) Bettering ourself
Answer:
(a) Stagnant

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The enrolment for higher education in Tamil Nadu is the highest in India.
Reason (R): Tamil Nadu’s literacy rate is higher than the national average.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Scientists, Economists, philosophers, and other social scientists are working together.
Reason (R) : Sustainable development means development should take place without damaging the environment and preserve it for the future.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Development refers to the __________ of a particular field or a particular person.
2.  __________ initiated bold social programmers such as midday meals in schools.
3. For the progress of any country __________ resource is necessary.
4. A rise in per capita income will always mean a rise in __________

Answer:

1. progress
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Human
4. aggregate real output

III. Match the following

1. Sustainable Development – (i) Progress
2. Human Resource – (ii) Per capita Income
3. Economic Development – (iii) Protect
4. Conserve – (iv) No damage to the Environment

Answer:

1. – iv
2. – i
3. – ii
4. – iii

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is meant by the term economic development?
Answer:

1. The term economic development refers to the overall growth of all sectors of the economy by the adoption of new technologies.
2. The development improves the living standards of the people as well as the status of the country.

Question 2.
What is meant by the average Income?
Answer:

1. The average income is also called per capita income (PCI)
2. The average income is calculated by dividing a country’s total income by its total population.

Question 3.
We need to balance economic, social and environmental sustainability in equal harmony Why?
Answer:

1. Let us take the example of Ground water. It is an example of a renewable resource.
2. These resources are replenished by nature as in the case of crops and plants. If these resources are overused, more than what is being replenished by rain, then would raise the question – How sustainable development is possible?
3. Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
4. These resources cannot be replenished.
5. Therefore to achieve true sustainability we need to balance economic, social, and environmental sustainability in equal harmony.

Question 4.
Why is LPG subsidy being provided?
Answer:

1. In rural areas, people use wood, cow dung cake, or other bio mass as fuel.
2. This practice brings deforestation, wastage of cattle dung, and air pollution.
3. To rectify this situation, LPG subsidy is being provided, which is a clean fuel and reduce pollution to a large extent.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a note on the indicators of economic development.
Answer:
(a) sentence:

1. The major indicators to measure the level of economic development are Net National
   Product (NNP), Per Capita Income (PCI), Purchasing Power Parity (PPP), Human Development Index (HDI).
2. Among these indicators, we shall discuss Per Capita Income and Net National Product.

(b) Per Capita Income:

1. For comparing a country’s development, there is considered to be one of the most important attributes.
2. Countries with higher income are more developed than with less income.
3. So income itself considered being one of the indicators of economic development.

(c) Net National Product:

1. Net National Product is considered as a true measure of national output.
2. It is also known as National Income.
3. A rise in per capita income will always mean a rise in aggregate real output. Hence this is better than that of National Income.
4. Since countries have different populations, comparing total income will not be suggestive of what an average person is likely to earn.
5. Hence we compare average income (Total income of the country divided by total population).
6. This average Income is also called Per Capita Income.

(d) Sentense:

1. According to the World Bank report, countries having more than 12,235 US dollars as Per Capita Income are called as rich countries.
2. India’s GDP per capita is 1,99,000 US dollars.
3. India is said to be a developing country.

VI. HOTS

Question 1.
What can a common man do to improve the economy of India?
Answer:
Some of the suggestions are given below:

1. Pay taxes.
2. Ask for bills whenever you purchase anything.
3. Do not buy gold and keep in lockers. Keep your money in circulation.
4. Use less electricity. Install solar panels.
5. Walk or use cycle whenever you can.
6. Do not indulge in corrupt practices.
7. Teach underprivileged children, the future citizens of India.
8. If possible start your own company, creating job opportunities.
9. Treat women properly by recognizing their efficiency.
10. Use your vote rightly and wisely.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 6 Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following.

Question 1.
What are the benefits of wearing a helmet while driving?
Answer:
First of all, wearing a helmet helps to reduce traffic accidents. People will pay enough attention while they are driving their motors if they wear helmets. More over it helps us in protecting our eyes from the dust or terrible lights from other vehicles because we don’t need to use our hands or fingers to clean it while we are controlling our vehicles.

Question 2.
List out the factors of road accidents.
Answer:
Different factors to road accidents

1. Drivers
2. Pedestrians
3. Passengers
4. Vehicles
5. Road conditions
6. Weather conditions

Question 3.
Which colour in the signal means ‘stop?
Answer:
Red colour in the signal means ‘stop’

Question 4.
List out any three road safety rules:
Answer:

1. Know your signals
2. Stop, look and cross
3. Don’t run on roads

II. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the factors involved in road accidents.
Answer:
The different factors that contribute to road accident are,

1. Drivers: Over speeding, rash driving, violation of rules, failure to understand signs, fatigue, alcohol.
2. Pedestrians: Carelessness, illiteracy, crossing at wrong places, jaywalkers.
3. Passengers: Projecting their body parts outside vehicles, talking to drivers, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side, traveling on foot boards, catching a running bus, etc.,
4. Vehicles : Failure of brakes or steering, tire burst, insufficient headlights, overloading.
5. Road Condition: Potholes, damaged roads, eroded roads merging of rural roads with highways, and illegal speed breakers.
6. Weather conditions: Fog, snow, heavy rainfall, wind storms, hail storms.

Question 2.
Explain in detail: The road safety rules.
Answer:
It is important for children to know about road safety rules and regulations. Here are a few basic

1. Know Your Signals
2. Stop, Look and Cross
3. Pay Attention – Listen
4. Don’t Run on Roads
5. Always Use Sidewalks
6. Never Stick Hands outside the Vehicle
7. Never cross Road at Bends
8. Don’t Rush.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Road Safety Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Answer in a word

1. This is required by law to drive _____________
2. A life saving _____________
3. They are ehere to key system safe _____________
4. A large vechicle to take precaution _____________ around
5. How the driver indicate which _____________ way they are turning
6. Something you should avoid while driving
7. Watch for there to even the road _____________
8. You apply this to stop your vechicle _____________
9. A pace by which you must abide by _____________
10. This indicates of how quickly you are travelling _____________
11. People, the driver is responsible for _____________
12. The part of your vehicle that meet the road _____________
13. An area where traffic fines double _____________
14. You should turn these on for safety _____________
15. A digital aid in navigating _____________

Answer:

1. licence
2. seat belt
3. Police
4. wide load
5. Blinker
6. Distractions
7. Pedestrian
8. Break
9. speed limit
10. speedo meter
11. Passengers
12. Tyre
13. work zone
14. Lights
15. GPS

II. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the direct consequences of accidents?
Answer:
The direct consequences of Accidents are:

1. Fatality (Death)
2. Injury
3. Damage to Property

Question 2.
What are the preventive measures for accidents?
Answer:
Preventive measures for accidents are,

1. Education and awareness about road safety.
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design
   • Road infrastructure.

Question 3.
Mention the major reasons for road accidents.
Answer:
The major reasons for road accident are

1. Negligence in driving
2. Drunk and drive
3. Overlooking the other vehicles
4. High speed
5. Improper driving training and
6. Non-stop long driving

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 5 Local Self Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Local Self Government

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Local Self Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which committee was appointed by the planning commission in 1985
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) G V K Rao
(d) L M Singhvi
Answer:
(c) G V K Rao

Question 2.
The Uthiramerur stone inscription show evidences of prevelant local self government during the period in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chola
(b) Chera
(c) Pandiya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(a) Chola

Question 3.
The 73rd and 74,h constitutional Amendment Acts, was enacted during the year in __________
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 1990
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 4.
act as the inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) Commissioner
(b) District Collector
(c) Councillors
(d) Mayor
Answer:
(b) District Collector

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ______ was known as the “Father of Local Governments”.
2. Restoration of ______ has become an article of faith during our freedom struggle.
3. ______ was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the village councils during the Chola period.
4. Local Government which are function in the villages are called ______
5. ______ will look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.

Answer:

1. Lord Ripon
2. Panchayats
3. Kuda Olai Murai
4. Village Panchayat
5. Executive Officer

III. Match the following

1. Zilla Parishad – (a) Villages
2. Gram Sabhas – (b) Mayor
3. Ward Committees – (c) Chairman
4. Panchayat Union – (d) District Collector
5. Corporation – (e) Municipalities

Answer:

1. – (d)
2. – (a)
3. – (e)
4. – (c)
5. – (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Panchayat Union is formed by grouping of Districts.
(ii) District Panchayat is constituted in each village.
(iii) The Municipal Commissioner will be a person from the Indian Administration Service (IAS)
(iv) In Village Panchayat the President and ward members are elected by the people.
Answer:
(iii) and (iv) are correct

V. Give a short note

Question 1.
Name the taxes levied by the Village Panchayat.
Answer:

• Property Tax
• Professional Tax
• House Tax
• Taxes for connection of drinking water
• Land Tax
• Taxes levied on shops

Question 2.
List out the salient features of Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj Act 1994.
Answer:
The salient features of the Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj Act of 1994.

1. A three-tier system
2. Gram Sabha
3. Establishment of Election Commission
4. Constitution of Finance Commission
5. Reservation of Seats for SS/ST’s proportionate to their population.
6. One-third reservation of seats for women and
7. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

Question 3.
Mention the important functions of the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Functions of the Village Panchayat

• Supply of drinking water
• Maintenance of street lights
• Maintenance of roads.
• Maintenance of village libraries
• Maintenance of small bridges
• Granting permission to the housing plots
• Maintenance of drainage
• Construction of group houses
• Cleaning of streets
• Maintenance of burial grounds
• Maintenance of common lavatory facilities

Question 4.
Which are the voluntary functions of the local governments?
Answer:
Voluntary functions of the local governments are

1. Maintenance of street light in the villages
2. Maintenance of markets and fairs
3. Implantation of trees
4. Maintenance of playgrounds
5. Maintenance of parking vehicles, slaughterhouses, and Cattle shed
6. Control over places of exhibition

Question 5.
Name the Urban local governments.
Answer:

1. Urban local governments are Corporation, Municipality and Town Panchayat
2. The area where more than 10,000 people are living is called a Town Panchayat
3. Municipalities were constituted in India for the first time in Chennai in 1688
4. Municipal Corporation is established in big cities.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write in detail about the salient features of the 73rd & 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992).
Answer:
Salient features of the 73rd and 74lh Constitutional Amendment Act (1992)

1. Panchayats and Municipalities will be “Institutions of Self Government”.
2. Basic Units of Democratic System – Grama Sabhas (Villages) and Ward Committees (Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered.
3. The three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate block/taluk/Mandal, and district levels. Smaller states with a population below 2 million only two tiers.
4. Seats at all levels filled by direct election.
5. Seats reserved for SCs and STs at all levels in proportion to their population.
6. One-third of the total number of seats reserved for women. One-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs also reserved for women. One-third of officers of Chairpersons at all levels reserved for women.
7. Uniform five-year term and election to constitute new bodies to be completed before the expiry of the term.
8. In the event of dissolution, elections compulsorily within six months.

Question 2.
Describe the major problems & challenges faced by the local self-government.
Answer:
Problems and challenges facing the local self-government.

1. Local self-governments are the crucial basis for our democracy.
2. The Constitutional status of local self-governments adds more significance to their functioning.
3. There are a few critical concerns in the working of local self-government in India.
4. Major problems and challenges may be mentioned as below.
   • Lack of clear demarcation of powers and functions of local bodies.
   • Allocation of funds and needs assessment are not matched.
   • Combined with accountability, the local self-governments demand for more autonomy and economic freedom may be addressed.
   • Role of caste, class, and religion in decision making at the local self-government.
   • Poor accountability of elected members and officials at the grassroots of democracy.

VII. Activity

Question 1.
Meet your Panchayat President / Municipal Chairman and discuss with him how the local self-government is being administered.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Local Self Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In India local self government was introduced in 1882 by Lord __________
(a) Ripon
(b) Richard
(c) William
(d) Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Ripon

Question 2.
James Munroe was the Governor of __________
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Madras
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Madras

Question 3.
The Community Development Programme was introduced in the year __________
(a) 1950
(b) 1952
(c) 1953
(d) 1954
Answer:
(b) 1952

Question 4.
Panchayats are constituted wherever the population of the village is __________
(a) 2000
(b) 200
(c) 500
(d) 1000
Answer:
(c) 500

Question 5.
The Village Councils functioned very well under the __________
(b) Pallavas
(c) Cheras
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(d) Cholas

Question 6.
According to the GVK Rao Committee post of to be created acting as the Chief Executive Officer of the Zilla Parishad.
(a) District Development Commissioner
(b) Chairman of Panchayat Raj
(c) Grama Munisif
(d) Councillors
Answer:
(a) District Development Commissioner

Question 7.
government’s term the 73rd and 74th constitutional Amendment Acts, 1992 became a reality.
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Janata
(c) Narasimha Rav
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
(c) Narasimha Rav

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Local bodies provide ___________ to the local Comunity.
2. After independence, the creation of Village Panchayats became a _________ movement.
3. In a Village Panchayat, the President and Ward members are _________ elected by the people.
4. In Tamil Nadu local government Act was passed in the year _________.
5. According to Mahatma Gandhi, ‘India’s soul lives in the _________.
6. E.V. Ramasamy Periyar was the _________ of the Erode Municipality.
7. Election to the local self government are conducted by the _________
8. The “Lanchashirse of the Eastern World” was _________
9. Under the permanent settlement the cultivators more at the mercy of _________
10. Malayans, Sahukars and bohras were _________
11. _________ was the Governor of Madras rejuvenated the Village Panchayat system in British India.

Answer:

1. Services
2. Social
3. directly
4. 1994
5. Village
6. Chairman
7. State Election Commission
8. Zamindars
9. Moneylenders
10. Thomas Munroe

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Gram Sabha – (i) Five years
2. Local Self Government – (ii) Three-tier system
3. Ashok Mehta – (iii) Planning Commission
4. Balwant Rai Mehta – (iv) Basic Limit
5. GVK Rao – (v) Two-Tier system

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (i)
3. – (v)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)

IV. Find out the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Provincial Autonomy was introduced in India in 1942.
(ii) Munroe was all for administration in the local language.
(iii) The Community development programme and National Extention Service became a basis for “Great charts on Panchayat Raj” in 1957.
(iv) There are no problems and challenges facing the local self-government in India.
Answer:
(ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Village Panchayats have a variety of functions to be carried out.
Reason (R): Village Panchayats are empowered to levy taxes.
(a) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is correct, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Ashok Mehta Committee was constituted by the Janata government.
Reason (R): The committee was formed at that time to study Panchayat Raj Institutional.
(a) A is wrong. R is correct.
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Who was Balwant Rai Mehta?
Answer:

1. Balwant Rai Mehta was an Indian Politician.
2. He served as the Second Chief Minister of Gujarat.
3. He is considered as the “Architect of Panchayati Raj” due to his contribution towards democratic decentralization which finally came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

Question 2.
Mention the importance of the Ashok Mehta Committee.
Answer:

1. In December 1977, The Jana government appointed a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions under the Chairmanship of Ashok Mehta.
2. The main recommendation of the Committee was a Two-tier system with Zila Parishad at the district level and below it the Mandal Panchayat.
3. It also insisted that all political parties should participate at all levels in elections.

Question 3.
Write about GVK Rao Committee on Panchayat Raj Institutions.
Answer:
The GVK Rao Committee was appointed by the

1. Planning Commission in 1985 to look at various aspects of Panchayat Raj Institution.
2. It recommended that Panchayat Raj Institution should be activated and provided with all the required support to become an effective organisation.
3. Panchayati Raj at the district level and below should be assigned the work of Planning, Implementation, and Monitoring of rural development programmes.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Local Self Government?
Answer:

1. Local Self Governments are institutions that look after the administration of an area or a small community, such as a village, a town, or a city.
2. It operates at the lowest level of society.
3. It works at the grassroots level, close to the people.
4. It manages the local affairs by local bodies elected by the people.
5. These local bodies provide services to the local community.

Question 5.
What does Article 40 of the Indian Constitution
Answer:
Article 40 was incorporated in the Constitution, which read as: “the state should take steps to organise panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as the units of self-governments.”

Question 6.
Why are meetings conducted in Gram Sabha?
Answer:

1. In each and every village, the people living within its jurisdiction will be the members of Panchayat.
2. The President of the Panchayat will preside over its meetings.
3. In the meetings of the Gram Sabha, the income and expenditure and the beneficiary of the schemes in the village are discussed.

Question 7.
When are the meetings of the Gram Sabha conducted?
Answer:
The meetings of the Gram Sabha are conducted four times a year. They are given below:

1. January 26 – Republic Day
2. May 1 – Labourers Day
3. August 15 – Independence Day
4. October 2 – Gandhi Jayanthi

Question 8.
What are the functions of Panchayat Union?
Answer:
The functions of the Panchayat Union are :

1. Supply of drinking water
2. Maintenance of Village Health Centres
3. Maintenance of the roads
4. Establishment of Maternity Homes
5. Establishment of Public fair
6. Establishment of Veterinary hospitals
7. Maintenance of Social forest
8. Repairing of Primary School buildings

Question 9.
Who is empowered to supervise the developmental functions of the Panchayat Union?
Answer:

1. District Collector
2. Planning Officer
3. concerned Block development officers is empowered to supervise the developmental function of the Panchayat Union.

Question 10.
What are the functions of District Panchayat?
Answer:
The functions of the District Panchayat are :

1. Advising the government about the developmental schemes of the Village Panchayat and Panchayat Union.
2. Supervising the functions of District Planning Commission.

Question 11.
Explain the term Town Panchayat.
Answer:

1. The area where more than 10,000 people are living is called as Town Panchayat.
2. Members and President of the Town Panchayat are directly elected by the people.
3. There is one Executive Officer to look after the administration of the Town Panchayat and their term of office is five years.

Question 12.
What Is a Corporation?
Answer:

1. Municipal corporations are established in big cities where the population of the city is many lakhs.
2. The municipal commissioner is the Administrative Officer.
3. Mayor is the Chairman of the corporation.
4. The term of the Mayor and other members holds office for a period of five years.

Question 13.
Mention important functions of the Mayor.
Answer:

1. He is elected by the people.
2. He is a link between the members of the corporation and the government.
3. He presides over the meeting of the corporation council.
4. He receives dignitaries from foreign countries.

Question 14.
Mention the types of their Urban Panchayat.
Answer:
The types of other urban Panchayat are,

1. Notified area committee
2. Town area committee
3. Cantonment Board
4. Township
5. Port Trust and
6. Special Purpose Agency

Question 15.
How are the elections to the local government in Tamil Nadu conducted?
Answer:

1. The State Election Commission conducts the elections to the local government like general elections.
2. The electoral roll is prepared ward wise.
3. Seats are reserved for the SC and ST and also for the women in proportion to the population by rotation basis.

Question 16.
List out the 12 corporations in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, there are 12 Corporations. They are:

1. Chennai
2. Kovai
3. Madurai
4. Trichy
5. Tirunelveli
6. Salem
7. Erode
8. Vellore
9. Tuticorin
10. Tirupur
11. Tanjore
12. Dindigul.

Question 17.
Give the two important recommendations of the L.M. Singhri Committee (1986).
Answer:

1. Rajiv Gandhi’s government in 1986 appointed a committee on “Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj institutions for Democracy and Development”.
2. It was under the Chairmanship of L.M. Singhri.
3. Its recommendations were
   • Constitutional recognition to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
   • a new chapter should be added to the constitution of India.
   • Nyaya Panchayats should be created for a cluster of villages.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Mention the Role of Ripon and Munroe in Madras Presidency.
Answer:
(a) Ripon

1. Lord Ripon was the one who introduced the Local Self Government in 1882.
2. He was advocating for the decentralization of administration.
3. He tried to remove obstacles in the sphere of Local Self government by his resolution of 1882.
4. Under him, a large number of tahsildars had quasi-judicial powers in their sub-districts, along with revenue collection.

(b) Munroe

1. He was all for administration in the local language.
2. He was against the practice of appointing administrative posts and the judiciary those who were not fluent with the-local lexicon (language).
3. He felt that Indians ought to be allowed to dispense justice by themselves.

Question 2.
Write about Gandhi’s Concept of Gram Swaraj.
Answer:

1. Gandhi really wanted ‘Swaraj’, The self-rule by the people of India who represent the rural mass.
2. He observed, “India’s soul lives in the village”.
3. He dreamt of village republics in term of Panchayat in free India.
4. Mahatma Gandhi advocated Panchayat Raj, a decentralized form of government where each village is responsible for its own affairs.
5. Gandhi’s ideal village should be basically self-reliant, making provision for all necessities of life, food clothing, clean water, sanitation, housing, education, and other requirements, including government and self-defense.
6. According to Gandhi Gram Swaraj should be a complete republic, independent of its neighbor.
7. Every village should be a democracy in which they will not depend even on neighbors for major needs.

Question 3.
Write a Note on Periyar.
Answer:

1. E.V. Ramasamy Periyar was the Chairman of the Erode Municipality for many years from 1917.
2. During his tenure in Erode Municipality, EVR worked effectively for drinking water supply and provision and Health facilities to the people.
3. He only provided the piped water supply first in India.
4. He was a member of the District Board and Secretary of the Water Works Committee and Plague Committee.
5. He gave a proposal to expand the municipality by adjoining Neighboring areas but it came into existence only in 1980.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 4 Forms of Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Forms of Government

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Forms of Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

1. _________, __________ are a few examples for unitary form of government.
2. The parliamentary government is also known as __________
3. In the parliamentary fonn of government __________is the leader of the majority party.

Answer:

1. England, France
2. Cabinet government
3. Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.

Answer:

III. Distinguish Between

Question 1.
Unitary and federal forms of government. Ans
Answer:
Unitary form of government:

1. Only one level of government or sub units
2. Subunits cannot operate independently
3. E.g. England, France, Japan, Srilanka

Federal form of government:

1. Two levels of government
2. Federal units are answerable to central government
3. E.g.U.S, Australia, Canada.

Question 2.
Parliamentary and presidential forms of government.
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government:

1. Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party.
2. Central Legislature is supreme E.g.Canada, India, Japan

Presidential form of government:

1. President is directly selected by the people.
2. President is supreme E.g. Rassia, Brazil, U.S.A

IV. Give a short note on

Question 1.
Unitary form of government
Answer:
A unitary system of government or unitary state is a sovereign state governed as a single entity. The central government is supreme and the administrative divisions exercise only powers that the central government has delegated to them. England, France, Japan and Sri Lanka are examples of the Unitary Form of government. In a Unitary form of government, all the authority and power is vested in a single-center, whereas in a federal form of government authority and power is distributed between the center and the constituent units. Even in a Unitary form of Government, there might be a lot of decentralization of authority, but we cannot claim it as a federal system.

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
List out the types of constitution.
Answer:
Types of Constitution

Question 2.
What are the merits of a federal government?
Answer:
The merits of the federal government are

1. Reconciliation of local autonomy with national unity.
2. Division power between centre and states leads to administrative efficiency.
3. It gives rise to big states.
4. Distribution powers check the despotism of central government.
5. More suitable for bigger countries
6. It is good for economic and cultural progress.

Question 3.
Write down the differences between the unitary form of government and the federal form of government.
Answer:
Unitary form of government:

1. Only one Level of Government or subunits
2. Mostly Single Citizenship
3. Sub Units cannot operate Independently
4. No Division of Power
5. Centralization of Power

The federal form of government:

1. Two Levels of Government
2. Dual Citizenship
3. Federal Units are answerable to Central Government
4. Division of Power
5. Decentralization of Power

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write about the merits of a unitary form of government
Answer:
Merits of a unitary form of government

• Suitable for small countries.
• There is no conflict between authority and responsibility.
• A unitary government will make prompt decisions and take speedy action.
• A unitary government is less expensive.
• Amendments to the constitution are easy.
• There is unity, uniformity of law, policy, and administration.

Question 2.
Write about the presidential form of government and what is the difference between presidential and parliamentary forms of government.
Answer:
Presidential form of government:

1. The American President is both the head of the state and the head of government. As the head of state, he occupies a ceremonial position.
2. The president is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years.
3. He governs with the help of a cabinet or a smaller body called ‘Kitchen Cabinet’. It is only an advisory body.
4. The President and his secretaries are not responsible to Congress for their acts.
5. The legislative, executive and judicial powers of the government are separated.
6. It is also known as the non-responsible or non-parliamentary or fixed executive system of government.

Difference between Presidential and Parliamentary form of government Presidential Form of Government:

1. President is directly elected by the people.
2. President is supreme
3. Separation of Powers
4. Independent branches
5. President-head of the Government
6. Separation of Powers
7. Independent branches
8. Individual Leadership
9. President is not accountable to Congress

Parliamentary form of Government:

1. Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party.
2. Central Legislature is supreme
3. Absence of Separation Powers Centralisatiion
4. Independent branches with Overlapping functions
5. Prime Minister-head of the Government
6. Centralisation
7. Independent branches with Overlapping functions
8. Collective leadership
9. Collective and Individual Responsibility.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Forms of Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. The government in the main ______ of the state.
2. There are ______ organs in a Government.
3. Sri Lanka is an example of ______ form of government.
4. Unitary form of government suitable ______ for Countres.
5. U.S. represents form, ______ of government.
6. The constitution is the ______ of the land.
7. The Name of the Parliament in Israel in ______
8. In India we have ______ form government.
9. Brazil has ______ form of governments.
10.  In Bhutan king Jigme is a ______ monarch.
11. The Gross National Happiness (GNH) was first mentioned in the constitution of ______
12. The term GNH was coined by ______

Answer:

1. Agency
2. Three
3. unitary
4. small
5. Federal
6. Supreme law
7. Knesset
8. Parliamentary
9. Presidential
10. Constitutional
11. Bhutan
12. Jigme Singye Wangchuck – King of Bhutan

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.

Answer:

III. Distinguish Between

Question 1.
Dictatorship and Monarality
Dictatorship

1. Dictatorship is an office that has been taken through force.
2. A Dictatorship is termed as a government rule by one person or commands who is know as the Dictator. E.g. Uganda, Zimbawe

Monarchy

1. Monarchy is resigned that passed from one generation to another.
2. Monarchy is the rule of the king or green as an emperor. E.g. Britain, Australia.

Question 2.
Democracy and Communism
Answer:
Democracy:

1. Democracy is based on the principle of equality and Freedom.
2. Private ownership is allowed citizens; have certain legislature and freedom which are protected by the constitution, E.g. India.

Communism:

1. Communism is based on common ownership mainly concerned with equality and fairness.
2. Here the government has complete control over the production and distribution of goods and all the resources shared equally in the society. E.g. China, North Korea.

IV. Give a short note on

Question 1.
Historic Transition in Bhutan.
Answer:

1. The fourth king of Bhutan Jigme Singye Wangchuck travelled to all the 20 districts of the tiny kingdom.
2. The purpose of the travel is to explain the importance of the historic transition to the people of Bhutan.
3. The transition from the hereditary monarchy to the Parliamentary Democracy.
4. In 2006 the king abdicated the throne 34 years after ascending it. Now Bhutan is a Parliamentary Democracy and King Jigme a constitutional monarch.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of good governance?
Answer:
Characteristics of Good governance

1. Participation
2. Rule of Law
3. Transparency
4. Responsiveness
5. Consensus Orientation
6. Equity
7. Effectiveness And Efficiency
8. Accountability

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
What are the demerits of federal form government?
Answer:
De-merits of the federal form of government are,

1. Federal government is weaker when compared to the unitary government.
2. Federal government is more expensive.
3. Provincial tendencies are very common
4. Lack of uniformity in Administration
5. Threat to national unity
6. Distribution powers between centre and states lead to conflict
7. Double Citizenship
8. Rigid constitution cannot be amended easily for the changing needs.
9. The state governments sometimes place hindrances in foreign policy.

Question 2.
Mention about the Unitary features of Indian constitution
Answer:
Unitary features of Indian constitution are

1. Strong Centre
2. Central Government’s control over state territory
3. Single Constitution
4. The flexibility of the Constitution
5. Unequal representation of states
6. Emergency Provisions
7. Single citizenship
8. Single Integrated Judiciary
9. All India Services
10. Appointment of Governor by the central government.

Question 3.
What are the Federal features of the Indian constitution?
Answer:
Federal features of the Indian constitution are

1. Dual Government
2. Written constitution
3. Division of Powers
4. The supremacy of the Constitution
5. the constitution is the supreme law of the land.
6. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must conform to its provisions.
7. Rigid Constitution
8. Independent Judiciary
9. Bicameralism

Question 4.
Write about the demerits of a unitary form of government
Answer:
De-merits of a unitary form of government

1. It is not suitable for big countries.
2. The central government will have to tackle so many complex problems that lead to administrative delays.
3. The central government will not concentrate on local problems, local interest and initiative.
4. The concentration of powers .may pave way for the despotism of the central government.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write note the Parliamentary form of Government
Answer:
Parliamentary form of Government:

1. The parliamentary system of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
2. It is also known as cabinet government or responsible government or Westminister model of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan, Canada, India among others.

Features of Parliamentary form of government:

1. Nominal and Real Executives.
2. Majority Party Rule
3. Collective Responsibility
4. Double Membership
5. The leadership of the Prime Minister

Merits of the parliamentary form of government:

1. Harmony between Legislature and Executive.
2. Responsible Government
3. Prevents Dictatorship.
4. Wide Representation.

Demerits of the parliamentary form of government:

1. Unstable Government.
2. No Continuity of Policies.
3. The dictatorship of the Cabinet.
4. Against Separation of Powers.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 3 Human Rights Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Human Rights

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Human Rights Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Apartheid’was followed by ____________
(a) South Sudan
(b) South Africa
(c) Nigeria
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) South Africa

Question 2.
____________ right exercises in the formation and administration of a government.
(a) Social
(b) Economic
(c) Political
(d) Cultural
Answer:
(c) Political

Question 3.
A 10 year old boy is working in a shop. Which right can you use to recover him?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against child labour exploitation
(d) Right to freedom of Religion
Answer:
(c) Right against child labour exploitation

Question 4.
What is the time limit to get the information from RTI Act 2005?
(a) 20 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 35 days
Answer:
(c) 30 days

Question 5.
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The state Human Rights commission was established in 1993.
(ii) It has the power of a civil court.
(iii) It’s power extend beyond the state.
(iv) It can also recommend compensation to victims.
(a) i and ii are true
(b) i and iii are true
(c) i, ii and iii are true
(d) ii, iii and iv are true
Answer:
(ii), (ii) and (iv) are true

Question 6.
Consider the following statements.
Assertions (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin.
Reason (R): We have a right to freedom of religions. We have to promote harmony and
the spirit of the people of other religions.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 7.
According to the UNO, a child is a person who has not completed the age of ________ years
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer:
(d) 18

Question 8.
Kailasta Satyarthi and Malala have been awarded Nobel Prize for ____________
(a) Literature
(b) Peace
(c) Physics
(d) Economics
Answer:
(b) Peace

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights Contains ____________ articles.
2. The fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution by ____________ Amendment Act.
3. The National Human Rights commission was established on ____________
4. Indian state to implement women ancestral property Act in 1989 was ____________

Answer:

1. 30
2. 42nd
3. 12th October 1993
4. Tamil Nadu

III. Match the following

1. Right to Vote – (i) Cultural Rights
2. Right to form union – (ii) Right against exploitation
3. Right to preserve tradition – (iii) Political Rights
4. The Hindu Succession Act – (iv) Right to freedom
5. Child labour – (v) 2005

Answer:

1. – (iii)
2. – (iv)
3. – (i)
4. – (v)
5. – (ii)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is Human Right?
Answer:
The U.N.O defines Human rights as “The right inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, gender, nationality, ethnicity, language, religion or any other status. Everyone is entitled to these rights without discrimination”.

Question 2.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:
The fundamental rights are :

1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right against Exploitation
4. Right to Freedom of Conscience and Religion
5. Cultural and Educational Rights for minorities
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 3.
What are the Child Rights defined by the UNO?
Answer:

• Right to life
• Right to the family environment
• Right to Education
• Right to benefit from Social security
• Right against sexual exploitation
• Right against sale or trafficking
• Right against other forms of exploitation like Child labour.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the Right to Constitutional Remedies,
Answer:

1. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution.
2. By this right, a person can adopt Constitutional means and approach a court if he is denied the Fundamental Rights.
3. The court then issues orders which are called ‘Writs’ to the government to restore the rights to the citizen.
4. The Constitutional Remedies put to right anything which may be wrong in terms of the Constitution.
5. This right, therefore, protects and safeguards all other rights.

Question 5.
Define: POCSO
Answer:

1. The state should protect children from sexual exploitation and abuse when they are forced or persuaded to take part in sexual activities physically or mentally.
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012.
3. Regards the best interest of the child as being of paramount importance at every stage.

Question 6.
Why do children need special attention?
Answer:

1. Children are the future citizens of a nation.
2. They should grow with warmth and interest.
3. It helps the child feel secure and valued.
4. From birth children need experiences and relationships that show them they are valued, capable human beings, who bring pleasure to others.
5. Due special attention, the child’s image builds up overtime in a positive manner.

Question 7.
What are the contributions to labourers by B.R, Ambedkar?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s contribution to labourers.

• Reduction in Factory Working Hours (8 hours a day)
• Compulsory Recognition of Trade Unions
• Employment Exchange in India
• Employees State Insurance (ESI)
• Minimum Wages
• Coal and Mica Mines Provident Fund

Question 8.
‘All are equal before law’. But we have enacted a separate law for women – Justify
Answer:

1. We have enacted a separate law for women to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for woman.
2. It recommends remedial measures.
3. Advises the government on all matters of policy affecting the welfare and development of women in the country.
4. Women’s rights under the Constitution of India mainly include equality, dignity and freedom from discrimination.

Question 9.
Write about the Right against exploitation.
Answer:
It is against the law to employ children below 14 years of age in mines, factories, or other occupations. Neither contractor nor an employer can force a worker to do a job against their will.

Question 10.
Differentiate Fundamental Rights and Human Rights.
Answers:
Fundamental Rights:

1. The elemental rights of the citizens of a country, which are listed in the constitution and enforceable under the law is known as fundamental rights.
2. Fundamental rights include only those rights which are basic to a normal life.
3. Fundamental rights are guaranteed under the constitution of the country.

Human Rights:

1. The rights that a human being deserves to survive with respect and freedoms.
2. Human rights include those rights which are basic to real life and are absolute, i.e. it cannot be taken away.
3. Human rights are recognised at the international level.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
A paragraph about UDHR.
Answer:

1. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights is a milestone document in the history of human rights.
2. The Declaration was proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly in Paris on 10th December 1948.
3. The first time it sets out the fundamental human rights to be universally protected and the UDHR has been translated into many languages.
4. There are 30 articles in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and it guarantees freedom of expression as well as civil, political, social, economic and cultural rights. These rights apply to all people, irrespective of their race, gender and nationality, as all people are born free and equal.

Question 2.
What are the fundamental duties? How would you follow these in your school premises?
Answer:
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976. The Constitution states eleven Fundamental Duties. They are,

1. Respect for the Constitution and its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To follow and cherish the noble ideals which inspired our National Struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India, transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and have compassion on living creatures.
8. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure from violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievements.
11. To provide opportunities for education by the parent and guardian to their child or ward upto the age of 14 years.
12. I would follow the relevant fundamental duties with determination and discipline.

Question 3.
How does the National Human Rights Commission protect our rights?
Answer:

• To inquire into the violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant
• To intervene in court proceedings relating to human rights
• To undertake and promote research in the field of human rights
• To engage in human rights education among various sections of society
• To encourage the effects of NGOs and institutions working in the field of human rights.

Question 4.
What are the benefits for workers provided by labour law?
Answer:
(a) Due to Labour law, workers enjoy the following benefits,

1. Reduction in Factory Working Hours (8 hours a day)
2. Compulsory Recognition of Trade Unions
3. Employment Exchange in India
4. Employees State Insurance (ESI)
5. Minimum Wages
6. Coal and Mica Mines Provident Fund

(b) Women workers benefit the following,

1. Mines Maternity Benefit Act
2. Women Labour Welfare Fund
3. Women and Child Labour Protection Act
4. Maternity Benefit for Women Labour
5. Restoration of Ban on Employment of Women on Underground Work in Coal Mines.

Question 5.
How do you enjoy the fundamental rights in your life?
Answer:
Right to Equality before the law and equal protection of the law. Prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of religion, caste, race, gender, or place of birth is offensive and one can seek justice from the court.
Right to Freedom: Six different types of freedom are mentioned in the Constitution. They are

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms.
• Freedom to form associations and unions.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to practice any profession and carry on any occupation, trade, or business.

Right against Exploitation:
It is against the law to employ children below 14 years of age in mines, factories, or other occupations. Neither contractor nor an employer can force a worker to do a job against their will.

VI. Project and Activity

Question 1.
How do you protect yourself from child abuse / sexual exploitation and trafficking.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 2.
Write an article titled “My country, My Rights”.
Answer:
My Country, My Rights
Our country is a democratic country. We live independently with self-respect. We have lots of rights and responsibilities of our country. Rights and responsibilities are two sides of a coin and both go side by side. If we have rights we must have their corresponding responsibilities too. The rights and duties of each citizen are very valuable and inter-related.

Fundamental rights are given to each and every citizen for the basic and essential conditions of good life for the citizens’ welfare. Without such rights, no Indian citizen can develop his/her personality and confidence. These fundamental rights are preserved in the Indian Constitution.

There are six fundamental rights of the Indian citizens without which no one can live in the democratic manner. It means that democracy in the country can work only if its citizens have rights. Such rights prevent the government from being dictatorial and cruel. Fundamental rights help people in their moral, material and personality development. In case of rights violations of someone, courts can protect and safeguard the citizens.

Our country provides to all our citizens the necessary fundamental civil rights such as Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Conscience and Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights for minorities, Right to Constitutional Remedies. As being the citizen of the country, our responsibilities and duties are:

We must respect the National Flag and National Anthem.

We should respect and obey the laws of our country.

We should enjoy rights and freedom under the limit without interfering with freedom and rights of others.

We should be ready to protect our country whenever required.

We should respect and protect national property and public property (such as railways, post offices, bridges, roadways, schools, colleges, historical buildings, places, forests, etc).

We should pay our taxes with honesty in the stipulated time.

We should not waste electricity, water, natural resources, public property, etc.

So, we have to perform our duties sincerely to be a honest citizen, which is necessary for the development of our country.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Human Rights Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
UDHR played a crucial role in promoting ___________
(a) Individual Rights
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Human Rights
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Human Rights

Question 2.
The life of people became meaningful through ___________
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Civics Rights
(c) Political Rights
(d) Cultural Rights
Answer:
(a) Fundamental Rights

Question 3.
Fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution in the year ___________
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1950
Answer:
(c) 1976

Question 4.
Childline in India is ___________
(a) 100
(b) 108
(c) 1098
(d) 1028
Answer:
(c) 1098

Question 5.
NCW was constituted to safeguard ___________
(a) Children
(b) Labourers
(c) Students
(d) Women
Answer:
(d) Women

Question 6.
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The general explanations of Human Rights by UDHR is not a legally binding document.
(ii) UDHR has political and moral importance.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) (i) is wrong (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 7.
Consider the following statements-
Assertion (A): Child marriages should be avoided.
Reason (R) : When girls get married early, they lose many privileges thereby affecting the society as a whole.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Gandhi was evicted from a first class compartment on the night of ___________
2. UNO was established in the year ___________
3. UNO was formed after ___________
4. In 1994 ___________ became the President of South Africa.
5. The milestone document in the history of human rights is ___________
6. Political rights are given to the citizens by ___________
7. The written order from the court or other legal authority is called a ___________
8. Protection and promotion of human rights is India in the responsibility of ___________
9. Malala shared the Nobel Peace prize with ___________
10. One of the RTI activists is ___________

Answer:

1. 7th June 1893
2. 1945
3. Second world war
4. Nelson Mandela
5. the Universal Declaration of Human rights
6. Law
7. Writ
8. NHRC
9. Kailash Satyatarathi
10. Aruna Roy / Nikil Dey

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. F. W. de Klerk – (i) Fundamental duty
2. To defend the country – (ii) Fundamental Right
3. Freedom of Speech – (iii) SHRC
4. Recommend compensation to victims – (iv) Child Right
5. Family Environment – (v) President

Answer:

1. – (v)
2. – (i)
3. – (ii)
4. – (iii)
5. – (iv)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What are Extended rights?
Answer:
The Child rights, SC and ST rights, Women rights, Right to Information Act (RTI) and Labour laws come under Extended rights.

Question 2.
What is Apartheid?
Answer:
Apartheid means social discrimination. Apartheid was the highest form of discrimination that existed in South Africa. Places of residences were determined by racial classification. It was the governing policy in the country by the minority whites over the majority non-whites. The people of South Africa protested against racial discrimination.

Question 3.
What is Apartheid?
Answer:

1. Apartheid means social discrimination.
2. Apartheid was the highest form of discrimination that existed in South Africa.
3. Places of residences were determined by racial classification.
4. It was the governing policy in the country by the minority whites over the majority non-whites.
5. The people of South Africa .protested against racial discrimination.

Question 4.
Write a note on Nelson Mandela.
Answer:

1. Nelson Mandela raised his voice against Apartheid.
2. When he organised defiant campaigns against the government, he was imprisoned.
3. He was released in 1990 by President F.W. de Klerk.
4. The efforts taken by Mandela and de Klerk put an end to apartheid.
5. In 1994, a general election was held and Nelson Mandela, the leader of the African National Congress, became President.

Question 5.
What do the 30 articles of UDHR guarantee?
Answer:

1. There are 30 articles in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
2. It guarantees freedom of expression as well as Civil, Political, Social, Economic and Cultural Rights.
3. These rights apply to all people, irrespective of their race, gender and nationality, as all people are bom free and equal.

Question 6.
What are the social and economic rights assured by UDHR?
Answer:

1. Social rights are necessary for full participation in society.
2. Economic rights guarantee every person to have conditions under which they are able to meet their needs.
3. They are a part of a range of legal principles through which economic equality and freedom are preserved in a State.

Question 7.
What are the cultural rights assured by UDHR?
Answer:
Cultural rights are human rights that aim at assuring the enjoyment of culture and its components in conditions of equality, human dignity and non-discrimination.

Question 8.
What does the term Civil rights refer to?
Answer:

1. The term ‘Civil rights’ refers to the basic rights afforded by laws of the government.
2. It is guaranteed to every person regardless of race, nationality, colour, gender, age, religion etc.

Question 9.
What Is meant by political rights?
Answer:

1. Political rights exercised in the formation and administration of a government.
2. They are given to the citizens by law.
3. These rights give power to the citizens to participate either directly or indirectly in the administration.

Question 10.
Write a note on the Right to Equality.
Answer:

1. Right to Equality refers to equality before the law and equal protection of the law.
2. Prohibition or discrimination on the grounds of religion, caste, races, gender or place of birth is offensive.
3. One can seek justice from the court if such a situation does arise.

Question 11.
Explain the Right against exploitation.
Answer:

1. It is against the law to employ children below 14 years of age in mines, factories, or other occupations.
2. Neither contractor nor an employer can force a worker to do a job against their will.

Question 12.
How are people assure of freedom of religion?
Answer:

1. The right to freedom of conscience and religion gives the citizens freedom to follow and practice a religion of their choice.
2. All citizens have the freedom of conscience or ideas.
3. The citizens also have the freedom to follow their own ways of practicing any religion.

Question 13.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
Writ is a written order from the court or other legal authority ordering to do an act or not to do it.

Question 14.
How are senior citizens legally protected?
Answer:

1. Senior citizens Act was passed in 2007 by the Government of India to maintain the welfare of parents.
2. This Act is a legal obligation for children and heirs to provide maintenance to senior citizens and parents.

Question 15.
What is NHRC?
Answer:

1. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is an autonomous body constituted on 12th October 1993 under the protection of the Human Rights Act, 1993.
2. It consists of a chairman and a few other members.
3. NHRC is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India.
4. The Act defines the right relating to life, liberty, equality, and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the international covenants.

Question 16.
What is SHRC?
Answer:

1. SHRC refers to State Human Rights Commission.
2. Every state in India has a State Human Rights Commission established in accordance with the power conferred on the state under section 21 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
3. The protection and promotion of human rights constitute the principal concern of the Commission.

Question 17.
When were the Rights of the child accepted by the UNO?
Answer:

1. A child is a person who has not completed the age of 18 years i.e. a minor as per UNO.
2. This principle is exhibited in Articles 25 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
3. Based on these principles, the declaration of the Rights of the child was accepted and adopted in the UN General Assembly on 20th November, 1989.

Question 18.
What is Childline?
Answer:

1. Child line (1098) is India’s first 24 hours free emergency phone service for. children in need of assistance.
2. Special care is given for vulnerable children like those affected by child labour, child marriage and children affected by any abuse.

Question 19.
Where do we find Child Rights in the Indian constitution?
Answer:

1. Article 24 – No child below the age of 14 must be employed in hazardous employment.
2. Article 45- Free and compulsory education for all children until they attain the age of 14 years.

Question 20.
Children are the foundation of any nation.
Answer:

1. Children are the foundation of any nation
2. When girls get married early, they lose many privileges like childhood happiness, availing education and a healthy life.
3. The society in turn gets affected by child marriage.
4. Thus child marriage should be avoided at any cost.

Question 21.
Why is the National Commission for Women a council?
Answer:

1.  The National Commission for Women (NCW) is constituted in India to review the Constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
2. It recommends remedial measures and advises the government on all matters of policy affecting the welfare and development of women in the country.

Question 22.
What are Women’s Rights?
Answer:

1. Women’s Rights are under the Indian Constitution mainly includes equality, dignity and freedom from discrimination.
2. Additionally, India has various statutes governing the right of women.

Question 23.
Mention about Women Labourers’ Welfare and Dr. B.R.Ambedkar.
Answer:

1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar framed many laws for women workers in India.
2. They are
   • ‘Mines Maternity Benefit Act’,
   • ‘Women Labour Welfare Fund’,
   • ‘Women and Child Labour Protection Act’,
   • ‘Maternity Benefit for Women Labour’,
   • ‘Restoration of Ban on Employment of Women on Underground Work in Coal Mines’.

Question 24.
What are SC and ST Rights?
Answer:

1. In order to ensure the dignity and security of Adi Dravidars (mostly referred as Scheduled Castes in other States) their rights are ensured.
2. They remove all forms of exclusion, marginalization, untouchability and discrimination
3. The Government formulate policies, plans, budgets, schemes and programmes.
4. This is done to ensure their right to social equity, access to entitlements and right to dignity.
5. These rights facilitate the betterment of their socio-economic conditions as well as conferring democratic and political rights.

Question 25.
What is RTI?
Answer:

1. RTI refers to the Right to Information Act.
2. It is a revolutionary act that aims to promote transparency in the government institutions in India.
3. This act was enacted in October 2005.
4. A common man can demand any government organization to provide information.
5. The information must be provided within thirty days.
6. If not, a fee will be collected as a penalty from the concerned official.

Question 26.
What are Labour Rights?
Answer:

1. The Constitution ensures right to equality, equality of opportunity in public employment, right to form associations and unions, right to livelihood.
2. It prohibits trafficking, forced labour and child labour.
3. Article 39(d) ensures equal wages to male and female workers for equal work.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What are the functions of SHRC?
Answer:
The functions of SHRC are

1. The SHRC shall enquire into violation of human rights in respect of matters specified in the state and concurrent lists.
2. Its objectives and duties are the same as NHRC, but confined only to the state. It has a chairman and two members.
3. It has the power of a civil court and can take cognizance of cases if received.
4. It can also recommend compensation to victims.

Question 2.
Democracy, Development and Fundamental Rights can you establish a positive link among these three factors.
Answer:

1. Democracy has an important role to play in promoting sustainable development.
2. Free and fair elections, independent media, accountable government as well as other basic democratic principles are all critical components of an environment and conducive to growth.
3. In a direct democracy, the people decide on the policy initiatives directly.
4. Democracy is very much responsible and important for the development of a nation.
5. In a democratic country the citizens are force to express their views and opinions on decisions taken by government.
6. This makes the government take more responsible decisions and they go with majority people.
7. All these actions can be carried on with the help of the fundamental rights generated by the constitution of India with legal background.

Question 3.
Explain Child Rights.
Child Rights are,
(a) Right to life:

1. A child has the right to survive even before its birth.
2. The right to survival also includes the right to be bom, the right to basic needs of food, shelter and clothing and a dignified living.

(b) Right to the Family environment:

1. A child has the right to live a normal childhood in a family environment.
2. Children who have been left destitute, abandoned or orphaned also have the right to live.
3. These children can be given for adoption to caring families.

(c) Right to benefit from Social security:

1. Children should get financial support from the country when their parents or guardians are unable to provide them with a good standard of living by themselves, due to any illness, disability or old age.

(d) Right to Education:

1. Right to Education Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in 2009 for free and compulsory education for children from 6 to 14 years of age as under Article 21A of the Constitution.

(e) Right against sale or trafficking:

1. Children should be treated as individuals with fundamental human rights.
2. They are subj ected to sale or trafficking for various reasons like economic exploitation, sexual exploitation, sexual abuse, drug trafficking and child labour.

(f) Right against sexual exploitation:

1. The state should protect children from sexual exploitation and abuse.
2. This is done through POCSO Act – Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act in 2012.

(g) Right against other forms of exploitation like Child labour:

1. Children are often employed in several industries.
2. These children are deprived of their childhood, health, and education.

Question 4.
Explain the Right to Information Act (RTI).
Answer:

1.  The Right to Information Act is a revolutionary act that aims to promote transparency in the government institutions in India.
2. This act was enacted in October 2005.
3. A common man can demand any government organization to provide information.
4. The information must be provided within thirty days.
5. If not, a fee will be collected as penality from the concerned official
   It is one of the most powerful laws of the country.
6. This act is people-friendly; even an illiterate person can ask any Public Information Officer to write it down for him.
7. All government agencies like Municipal Corporations, Government departments, Government Schools, Road Authorities, etc., come under this Act.

Life Skills

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 2 Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Question, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
India has adapted the electoral system followed in the ___________
(a) USA
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Canada
(d) Russia
Answer:
(b) United Kingdom

Question 2.
The Election Commission of India is a / an ___________
(a) Independent body
(b) Statutory body
(c) Private body
(d) Public corporation
Answer:
(a) Independent body

Question 3.
Which Article of the Constitution provides for an Election Commission?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 324
(d) Article 325
Answer:
(c) Article 324

Question 4.
Which part of the constitution of India says about the election commission?
(a) Part III
(b) Part XV
(c) Part XX
(d) Part XXII
Answer:
(b) Part XV

Question 5.
Who accords recognition to various political parties as national or regional parties?
(a) The President
(b) The Election Commission
(c) The Parliament
(d) The President in consultation with the Election Commission
Answer:
(b) The Election Commission

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Indian Constitution provides for an independent Election Commission
Reason (R): To ensure free and fair elections in the country.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 7.
NOTA was introduced in the year ___________
(a) 2012
(b) 2013
(c) 2014
(d) 2015
Answer:
(c) 2014

Question 8.
The term pressure group original in _______
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) India
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 9.
Assertion (A): A large number of pressure groups exist in Tndia.
Reason (R): Pressure Groups are not developed in India to the same extent as in the USA
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Election Commission of India is a body of ______ members.
2. National Voters day has been celebrated on _______
3. In India, the _____ party system is followed.
4. In 2017, there were _____ recognised national parties.
5. Narmada Bachao Andolan is a ______

Answer:

1. Three
2. 25th January
3. Multi
4. Seven
5. Pressure Group

III. Match the following

1. National party – a. Trade union
2. Single-party system – b. USA
3. Two-party system – c. China
4. Pressure groups – d. Seven

Answer:

1. – (d)
2. – (c)
3. – (b)
4. – (a)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
Explain the electoral system in India.
Answer:

1. The electoral system in India has been adapted from the system followed in the United Kingdom.
2. India is a socialist, secular, democratic, republic, and the largest democracy in the world.
3. The modem Indian nation-state came into existence on 15th August 1947.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of a political party.
Answer:

1. A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government.
2. A political party has three components: a leader, an active member, and followers.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the two-party system and the multi-party system.
Answer:
Bi Party system:

1. The two-party system in which two major parties exist.
2. Eg. USA, UK

Multi-party system:

1. The multi-party system in which there are more than two political parties
2. Eg. India, Sri Lanka, France, Italy.

Question 4.
What is a pressure group?
Answer:

1. A pressure group is a group of people who are organised activities for promoting and defending their common interest. It is so-called as it attempts to bring a change in the public policy by exerting pressure on the government.
2. The pressure groups are also called ‘interest groups’ or vested groups.
3. They are different from the political parties in that they neither contest elections nor try to capture political power.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the merits and demerits of direct elections.
Answer:
Merits:

1. As the voters elect their representatives directly, direct elections are considered to be a more democratic method of election.
2. It educates people regarding government activities and helps in choosing the appropriate candidates. Also, it encourages people to play an active role in politics.
3. It empowers people and makes the rulers accountable for their actions.

Demerits:

1. Direct elections are very expensive.
2. Illiterate voters sometimes get misguided by false propaganda and sometimes campaigning based on caste, religion and various other sectarian considerations spose serious challenges.
3. Since conducting direct elections is a massive exercise, ensuring free and fair elections at every polling station is a major challenge to the Election Commission.
4. There are instances of some political candidates influencing the voters through payments in the form of cash, goods, or services.
5. Election campaigns sometimes result in violence, tension, law and order problems and affect the day-to-day life of people.

Question 2.
What are the functions of political parties?
Answer:

1. Parties contest elections. In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties.
2. Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them.
3. Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Formally, laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
4. Parties form and run the governments.
5. Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the parties in power, by voicing different views and criticising the government for its failures and wrong policies. Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues.
6. Parties function as a useful link between people and the government machinery.

Question 3.
What is the function of Pressure groups in India?
Answer:
Pressure groups are the interest groups that work to secure certain interests by influencing public policy. They are non-aligned with any political party and work as an indirect yet powerful group to influence the policy decisions. Pressure groups carry out a range of functions including representation, political participation, education, policy formulation, and policy implementation.

Political Participation: Pressure groups can be called the informal face of politics. They exert influence precisely by mobilising popular support through activities such as petitions, marches, demonstrations, and other forms of political protest. Such forms of political participation have been particularly attractive to young people.

Education: Many pressure groups devote significant resources by carrying out research, maintaining websites, commenting on government policy, and using high-profile academics, scientists, and even celebrities to get their views across, with an emphasis to cultivate expert authority.

Policy Formulation: Though the pressure groups themselves are not policy-makers, yet it does not prevent many of them from participating in the policy-making process. Many pressure groups are vital sources of information and render advice to the government and therefore they are regularly consulted in the process of policy formulation.

VI. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Compare the policies, programmes, and achievements of a national party and a state party.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
“Elections are considered essential for any representative democracy”. Why?
Answer:

1. Democracy is defined as a government of the people, for the people, and by the people.
2. India which is the largest democracy in the world in terms of vastness and population government both at the centre and in the constituent states are elected for five-year terms.
3. The electorate of so many crores of people in this sub continent participate in the election, held on the basis of universal adult franchise.
4. They send their representatives to both the Parliament and the State Legislative expecting that these representatives will safeguard their interests.
5. And they believe that these representatives will work to attain the goal of progress, prosperity, unity, and integrity of India.
6. When people exercise their franchise, constitute the real source of power in the elections as they make their choice and elect only those in whom they have faith.

Question 2.
What is the principle of the universal adult franchise? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. Universal adult franchise means that the right to vote should be given to all adult citizens (18 years and above) without discrimination of caste, class, colours, religion, or gender. It is based on equality, which is the basic principle of democracy.
2. Under this system, a government is elected that is accountable to the people it governs.
3. Because every vote counts, issues in society receive their appropriate weight in terms of importance and urgency.
4. Indian Constitution Article 326″ mentions about the Elections to the House of the people and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.

Question 3.
Discuss the merits and demerits of democracy.
Answer:
Merits of democracy:

1. The chief merit of democracy is t&at it safeguards the intersects of the people. The real power lies in the hands of people.
2. Democracy is based on the principle of equality. All members of the state are equal in the eyes of law.
3. Democracy is known for its stability, firmness, and efficiency. The administration is conducted with a sense of responsibility.
4. Democracy serves as a training school for citizens. People get important to take part in the affairs of the state.
5. Since democracy is based on public will, there is no chance of public revolt.
6. It is more stable than other forms of government.
7. Democracy creates a proper environment for the development of personality and cultivating good habits.
8. Democracy is based on public opinion.

Demerits of democracy:

1. It is not based on quality but on quantity. The majority party holds the reigns of government inefficiently and corrupt persons get themselves elected.
2. Democracies are run by incompetent persons. A few are intelligent. But universal Adult Franchise grants the right to vote to everybody.
3. The concept of Equality is enshrined in democracy. It is against the law of nature. Individual’s talents differ.
4. Voters do not cast their votes in a spirit of duty as democracy requires them to be.
5. In order to win the elections, the candidates employ underhand practices and unethical ways are adopted.
6. Modem democracy in the role of capitalists. The rich candidates purchase votes.
7. Democracy is a huge waste of time and resources. A lot of money is spent during elections.
8. When no party gets an absolute majority, a coalition government is formed. In case of a clash of interests among the parties in the coalition government, the government crumbles down.

Question 4.
Discuss the multi-party system.
Answer:

1. A multi-party system is a system in which multiple political parties across the political ’ spectrum run for a national election. All have the capacity to gain control of government
   offices, separately or in a coalition.
2. Multi-party systems tend to be more common in parliamentary systems and presidential systems. Here the representation is proportional.
3. In a multi-party system, there may be greater voter participation in elections because people can usually identify with at best one political party that shares their views and goals.
4. In India, the multi-party system suits to express the views of people in the decision-making process.
5. It offers a greater as well as a better choice to people among the candidates.
6. At the same time, this system makes Indian politics unstable and weak.
7. The best is to have a multiple-party system consisting of a central party, a left-wing party, and a right-wing party to prevent the formation of the coalition, which is against the nation’s interest.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
Kudavolai was the system of voting followed during the time of __________
(a) Cheras
(b) Cholas
(c) Pandyas
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(b) Cholas

Question 2.
The National Voters Day is _________
(a) December 31st
(b) January 25th
(c) November 23rd
(d) April 10th
Answer:
(b) January 25th

Question 3.
Bi Party system exists in _________
(a) Italy
(b) USA
(c) Cuba
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Italy

Question 4.
The leader of the ________ occupies a prominent place in a democracy
(a) Multi party
(b) Bi party
(c) Opposition party
(d) National party
Answer:
(c) Opposition party

Question 5.
The Pressure groups are also called ________ groups.
(a) business
(b) linguistic
(c) professional
(d) interest
Answer:
(d) interest

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The constitution provides for an independent _____ to ensure free and fair elections in the country
2. The National Voters Day started from ______
3. NOTA was introduced in the General Election in
4. Direct elections are very _____
5. Indirect elections are more suited to _____ Countries.
6. State parties are otherwise known as ______ parties
7. Political parties shape _____

Answer:

1. Election Commission
2. January 25th, 2011
3. 2014
4. Expensive
5. Large
6. Regional
7. Public opinion

II. Match the following

Question 1.

1. LokSabha – (i) MLA
2. Legislative Assembly – (ii) Corporation
3. Local governing Body – (iii) Delhi
4. National Capital Territory – (iv) MP

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (i)
3. – (ii)
4. – (iii)

Question 2.

1. Pressure groups – (i) 2006
2. Polio – (ii) Animal welfare
3. Six National Parties – (iii) Vested groups
4. Blue cross – (iv) Immunization

Answer:

1. – (iii)
2. – (iv)
3. – (i)
4. – (ii)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is NOTA?
Answer:

1. If the people in a democratic country are not willing to elect any candidate, they can vote for the option called NOTA (None of the Above)
2. Rule 49 – O in the conduct of election Rules, 1961 of India describes this procedure.
3. NOTA was introduced in the General Elections in 2014
4. India is the 14th country to introduce NOTA

Question 2.
What is VVPAT?
Answer:

1. VVPAT – Voters Verified Paper Audit Trail is the way forward to enhance credibility and transparency of the election process.
2. This system was first introduced in the 2014 General Election

Question 3.
Bring out the merits and demerits of indirect elections.
Answer:
(a) Merits

1. Indirect elections are less expensive.
2. It is more suited to elections in large countries. .

(b) Demerits

1. If the number of Voters is very small, there exists a possibility of corruption, bribery, horse-trading, etc.
2. It is less democratic because people do not have the direct opportunity to elect, but they instead do it through their representatives.
3. So, this may not reflect the true will of the people.

Question 4.
How is the President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected by the member of an Electoral college consisting of a) the elected members of both houses of parliament and b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states.

Question 5.
What are the National Parties?
Answer:

1. A party which is recognized as a state party in at least four states is recognized as a National Party.
2. Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission while the commission treats all parties equally it offers some special facilities to State and National parties.
3. These parties are given a unique symbol
4. Only the official candidate of the party can use that election symbol
5. In 2016, there were seven nationally recognized parties.

Question 6.
Explain the types of Political parties with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

Question 7.
What are State parties?
Answer:

1. Most of the major parties of the country are classified by the Election Commission as State Parties.
2. These are commonly referred to as regional parties.
3. A party is recognised as a state party by the Election commission of India based on certain percentage of votes secured or a certain number of seats won with Assembly or Lok Sabha Elections

Question 8.
How are the parties recognised at National level?
Answer:
For getting recognition as ‘National Party’, a party has to fulfill any one of the following criteria.

1. At least 6% votes in at least four states and members to the Lok Sabha.
2. In the election of Lok Sabha at least 2% members from at least 3 states are elected to Lok Sabha.
3. Recognition as state party at least four states.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What is the role of opposition parties in a Democratic government.
Answer:

1. In a democracy there may be a two party system like in USA or Multiparty system like in India and France.
2. The Ruling party may have received the mandate of the majority people, the opposition party represent the remaining people.
3. The leader of the opposition party occupies a prominent place in all democratic form of government.
4. He enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister.
5. He opposes the wrong policy of the Ruling party which affects the general public.
6. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee questions the functioning of the government and examines the public money used for the well being of the people.
7. Similarly he plays an important role to select the Chairman and members of the CVC, Chairperson and members of the Information Commission.
8. The Opposition Parties reflect genuine demands/concem of the people to play in constructive role in democracy.

Question 2.
Discuss the various pressure groups in India.
Answer:

1. A large member of pressure groups exist in India Types of Actions
2. But they are not developed to the same extent as in USA or the Western countries like Britain, France, Germany and so on
3. The pressure groups in India can be broadly classified into the following categories
4. These groups are
   • Business groups
   • Trade Unions
   • Agrarian groups
   • Professional associations
   • Student organisations
   • Religious organisations
   • Tribal organisations
   • Linguistic groups
   • Ideology based groups and
   • Environmental Protection groups.

Question 3.
Explain the term mobilization in a democratic country.
Answer:

1. It is essential in any country to get people’s support and co – operation for collective action.
2. This is especially time in developing countries engaged in developing new systems of administration and modes of economic and political action.
3. Mobilizing people towards socially productive activities that lead to the overall betterment of people’s lives in essential,
4. Sometimes earthquakes, Tsunamis, floods and other such natural disasters on a massive scale occur and people’s immediate mobilisation for evacuation and emergency relief becomes most essential.

VI. HOTS

Question 1.
Do you feel democracy is successful in India? Give reasons.
Answer:
Working of democracy in India can be analysed on two forms: (a) institutional and (b) substantive

(a) institutional:

1. India forms well on the institutional front of democracy.
2. There have been a peaceful transfer of power after elections,
3. Elections have been held in a free and fair manner and reforms are introduced from time to time.

(b) substantive

1. On the substantive front of democracy, the result has been mixed
2. India has been able to lift a considerable quantum of the rising population out of poverty, lower social evils, improve employment rates, improve maternal mortality, in fast mortality rates.
3. Yet India continues to face caste-based discrimination, unrest, militancy in Kashmir and North east, poor access to health care, formal jobs, higher education etc.

(c) Sentence

1. Thus it can be said that while Indian democracy is largely a success, grave challenges need to be tackled in a fast and effective manner.

VII. Re arrange the Jumbled words

Question 1.

1. AICNPMGA
2. OERLCETLA
3. NTSOCUONITTI
4. INOTPSOIPO
5. GOLENRAI

Answer:

1. CAMPAIGN
2. ELECTORAL
3. CONSTITUTION
4. OPPOSITION
5. REGIONAL

Question 2.

1. CPLOITLAI
2. TPYRA
3. EPRNTENTEOISAR
4. OENLCISET
5. MSLOYB

Answer:

1. POLITICAL
2. PARTY
3. REPRESENTATION
4. ELECTIONS
5. SYMBOL