Category: Class 11

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 22 Types of Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 22 Types of Trade

11th Commerce Guide Types of Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The purchase of goods from a foreign country is called ………………..
a. Import
b. Export
c. Entrepot
d. Re-export
Answer:
a. Import

Question 2.
When goods are imported for the purpose of export it is called as …………..
a. Foreign Trade
b. Home Trade
c. Entrepot
d. Trade
Answer:
c. Entrepot

Question 3.
………………… acts as a connective link between the producer and the consumer.
a. Trade
b. Industry
c. Commerce
d. Business
answer:
a. Trade

Question 4.
The aim of home trade is ……………………
a. To raise the standard of living
b.To provide the essential goods and services economically
c. To raise the national income
d.To obtain all types of goods.
Answer:
b.To provide the essential goods and services economically

Question 5.
Internal trade can be classified into ……………… categories
a. Three
b. Four
c. Two
d. Five
Answer:
c. Two

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the meaning of Trade?
Answer:
The buying and selling of goods and services consist of trade. Trade is conducted in order to earn a profit.

Question 2.
What is Internal Trade?
Answer:
Buying and selling of goods and services within the boundaries of a nation are called internal trade. It takes place between buyers and sellers in the same locality, village, town or city or in different states, but definitely within the same country.

Question 3.
Mr.Vikram who runs a textile industry regularly procures cotton from Germany. Name the type of trade he is engaged in.
Answer:
This is Import trade because Mr. Vikram procures (purchases) cotton from Germany Import means buying of goods from a foreign country for domestic use.

Question 4.
When Vikram of India sells cotton shirts to Amal of England, what type of trade he is engaged in?
Answer:
It is called Export Trade.

Question 5.
How do you classify Trade?
Answer:
On the basis of the geographical location of buyers and sellers, trade can be broadly classified into two categories

1. Internal trade
2. External trade

Question 6.
What are the classifications of internal trade?
Answer:
Internal trade can be classified into Wholesale trade and Retail Trade.

Question 7.
What is import trade?
Answer:
Import trade means buying goods from a foreign country for domestic use.
Example. India imports petroleum products from Gulf Countries.

Question 8.
Explain the meaning of the Entrepot trade.
Answer:
Entrepot trade means importing goods from one country and exporting the same to foreign countries. It is also known as ‘Re-export trade’.

Question 9.
TVS is selling motorbikes in Europe. Under which type of trade can this be classified?
Answer:
TVS is selling motorbikes in Europe. This trade can be classified under Foreign trade.

Question 10.
What is the currency used in India in internal trade?
Answer:
The currency used in India for internal trade is RUPEE.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the classification of Foreign trade?
Answer:
Types of Foreign Trade:

1. Import Trade: Import trade means buying goods from a foreign country for domestic use.
2. Export Trade: Export trade means the sale of domestic goods to foreign countries.
3. Entrepot Trade: Entrepot trade means importing goods from one country and exporting the same to foreign countries.

Question 2.
Give two examples of Entrepot trade.
Answer:
Indian diamond merchants in Surat import uncut raw diamonds from South Africa. They cut and polish the diamonds in their units in India and re-export them to the International Diamond Market in Amsterdam. An Indian Company imports rubber from Thailand and exports it to Japan.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Export trade?
Answer:
Export trade means the sale of domestic goods to foreign countries. Export trade is necessary to sell domestic surplus goods, to make better utilization of resources, to earn foreign exchange, to increase national income, to generate employment, and to increase Government revenue.

Question 4.
What is Wholesale trade?
Answer:
“Purchase of goods in bulk from the manufacturers and selling them in smaller quantities to other intermediaries” is known as wholesale trade.

Question 5.
State the meaning of Retail trade.
Answer:
Retail trade deals with the distribution of goods in small quantities to consumers.

Question 6.
Name any three retail traders in your locality
Answer:
Sree Akshaya Traders, Hari Traders, and Thomas Traders. (Any three)

Question 7.
State the main aim of trade.
Answer:
The essence of trade is to make goods and services available to those persons who need them and are able and willing to pay for them. Trade is conducted in order to earn a profit.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the features of Internal trade?
Answer:

1. The buying and selling of goods take place within the boundaries of the same country.
2. Payment for goods and services is made in the currency of the home country.
3. It involves transactions between the producers, consumers, and middlemen.
4. It consists of a distribution network of middlemen and agencies engaged in an exchange of goods and services.
5. In-home trade, the risk of transportation is very less when compared to foreign trade.
6. In-home trade, the laws prevailing in that country only have to be followed.
7. The aim of home trade is to provide goods and services economically.
8. The goods must be a part of domestic production.
9. Goods must be purchased from an individual or a firm established within a country.
10. Goods can be delivered using locally available modes of transport.
11. It does not involve any custom/import duty, but buyers need to pay the taxes to the Government.

Question 2.
Explain briefly the different types of Foreign trade?
Answer:
Meaning:
Foreign trade is a trade between a seller and buyer of different countries. It involves the exchange of goods and services of one country with another country.
Types of Foreign Trade
A. Import Trade:
Import trade means buying goods from a foreign country for domestic use. Example. India imports petroleum products from Gulf Countries. India imports machinery, equipment, materials, etc. It is necessary to speed-up industrialization, meet consumer demands, and improve the standard of living.

B. Export Trade:
Export trade means the sale of domestic goods to foreign countries.

Examples:

1. Export of Iron ore from India to Japan
2. Selling of Tea from India to England.
3.  Export of jasmine flowers from Madurai to Singapore.

11th Commerce Guide Types of Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer :

Question 1.
……………… trade is a trade between a seller and buyer of different countries.
(a) Foreign
(b) Export
(c) Entrepot
(d) Home
Answer:
(a) Foreign

Question 2.
The internal trade is also called…………….
a. Wholesale Trade
b. Retail Trade
c. Entrepot Trade
d. Home Trade
Answer:
d. Home Trade

Question 3.
Selling of Tea from India to England – What type of trade is this?
Answer:
(a) Export
(b) Import
(c) Entrepot
(d) Home
Answer:
(a) Export

Question 4.
India imports petroleum products from Gulf countries. This is the example for ………………….
a. Wholesale Trade
b. Retail Trade
c. Entrepot Trade
d. Import Trade
Answer:
d. Import Trade

Question 5.
Hero pens produced in China and sold in India is an example for ……………… trade.
(a) Foreign
(b) Home
(c) Export
(d) Entrepot
Answer:
(a) Foreign

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Where does Internal Trade take place?
Answer:
Internal takes place between the buyers and sellers in the same locality, village, town, or city or in different states but with the same country.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write a short note on Entrepot Trade:
Entrepot trade means importing goods from one country and exporting the same to foreign countries. It is also known as ‘Re-export trade’.

E.g. Indian diamond merchants in Surat import uncut raw diamonds from South Africa. They cut and polish the diamonds in their units in India and re-export them to the International Diamond Market in Amsterdam.

IV. Long Answer Questions
Question 1.
Explain the types of Internal Trade
Answer:
Home trade consists of two main subdivisions namely

1. Wholesale trade: “Purchase of goods in bulk from the manufacturers and selling them in smaller quantities .to other intermediaries” is known as wholesale trade.
2. Retail Trade: Retail trade deals with the distribution of goods in small quantities to consumers.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 21 Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs) Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 21 Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs)

11th Commerce Guide Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
MSMED Act was enacted in the year ……………………..
(a) 2004
(b) 2007
(c) 2006
(d) 2008
Answer:
(c) 2006

Question 2.
MSMEs are important for the nation’s economy because they significantly contribute to
(a) Industrial production
(b) exports
(c) employment
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Self-help groups convert the savings into a common fund known as
(a) Common fund
(b) Group corpus fund
(c) Group fund
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) Group corpus fund

Question 4.
There are …………… distinct modes of credit to Self Help Groups.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 5.
Investment limit of a micro enterprise under manufacturing sector does not exceed ……………….. lakhs
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 25
II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by the manufacturing enterprises?
Answer:
Manufacturing Enterprises refer to the enterprises engaged in the manufacturing or production of goods pertaining to any industry specified in the first schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951. The manufacturing enterprises are defined in terms of investment in plant and machinery.

Question 2.
Give some examples for micro-enterprises.
Answer:
SIPCOT and TANSIDCO are the government micro-enterprises in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
What is the aim of NEEDS?
Answer:
The government of Tamil Nadu launched the “New Entrepreneur – cum – Enterprise Development Scheme (NEEDS)” with a view to encouraging the educated youth to become the first generation entrepreneurs. The Scheme usages providing entrepreneurship development training to educated young entrepreneurs, preparing business plans, and helping them to tie up with financial institutions to set up new business ventures besides linking them with major industrial clients.

Question 4.
What is a Self Help Group?
Answer:
Self Help Group is a small informal voluntary association created for the purpose of enabling members to reap economic benefit out of mutual help, solidarity, and joint responsibility.

Question 5.
State the investment limit for small enterprises in the manufacturing and service sectors.
Answer:

• Manufacturing Sector – More than 25 lakhs but not exceeding 5 crores.
• Service Sector – more than 10 lakhs but not exceeding 2 crores.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the investment limit for medium enterprises engaged in the manufacturing and service sector.
Answer:

• Manufacturing Sector – More than 5 crores but not exceeding 10 crores.
• Service Sector – More than 2 crores but not exceeding 5 crores.

Question 2.
List out the products produced by MSME in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, the MSMEs sector produces a wide variety of products in almost all fields. The prominent among them are the textile, electronic products, engineering products, auto ancillaries, leather products, chemicals, plastics, garments, jewellery etc.

Question 3.
What is the role and significance of MSMEs in Indian Economy?
Answer:
The MSME Sector contributes about 8% to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) besides 45% to the total manufacturing output and 40% to the exports from the country on the production of more than 6000 products. This Sector consists of 36 million units and provides employment to over 8 crore people.

Question 4.
Explain any three features of the Self Help Group.
Answer:

1. The motto of every group members should be “saving first – credit later”
2. Self Help Group is homogeneous in terms of economic status.
3. The ideal size of a Self Help Group ranges between 10 and 20 members.

Question 5.
What are the different ways in which banks fund Self Help Groups?
Answer:
There are three different ways by which banks fund SHGs. They are:

1. Banks lend directly to the SHGs. ‘
2. Banks provide loans to the NGOs for onward lending to the SHGs and ultimately to micro-entrepreneurs.
3. Banks extend credit to the SHGs with the NGOs serving as facilitators.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the definition of MSME?
Answer:
In accordance with the provisions of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act 2006, the micro, small and medium enterprises are classified into two classes. Entrepreneurship is the key to the economic development of any country By empowering entrepreneurs, the MSME sector provides more employment opportunities to the people of India. It helps towards the industrialization of rural and backward areas. This sector reduces regional imbalances. It provides an equitable distribution of national income and wealth.

A. Manufacturing Enterprises:
They refer to the enterprises engaged in the manufacturing or production of goods pertaining to any industry specified in the first schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951. The manufacturing enterprises are defined in terms of investment in plant and machinery.

B. Service Enterprises:
They refer to the enterprises engaged in providing or rendering services.

Question 2.
Explain the advantages of MSMEs?
Answer:
1.Employment Potential:
MSMEs generate more employment opportunities than large business concerns.
They are mostly labour intensive, thus they provide more employment opportunities to a larger number of people in India.

2.Low Production Cost:
MSMs do not require skilled labourers or professionals to run the organisation. It employs cheap labor and thus minimizes the overhead. These units are more cost-efficient than large-scale units, thus facilitates the production of goods at low cost.

3. Low Investment:
MSMEs do not require a huge capital to start the unit. h can employ locally available resources within the reach of the owner. They help to perfect and promote traditional family skills and handicrafts. These induštries facilitate the growth of local entrepreneurs and self-employed professionals in small towns and villages.

4. Quick Decision Making:
MSMEs need not hire professional managers to run the management on a day to day basis. In most cases, the owner himself manages the enterprises. license, timely decision making becomes easy and effective.

5. Supplementary Role:
MSMEs pray a complementary role to serve as a feeder to large-scale industries. They supply accessories, spare parts, and components to large scale industries.

6. Establishment of Socialistic Pattern of Society:
MSME sector contributes towards the establishment of socialistic pattern of society by redùcing the concentration of income and. wealth. ¡t enables and empowers people of small means to take up a gainful industrial activity, and thereby helps to achieve equitable distribution of wealth.

7. Balanced Regional Development:
By encouraging MSMEs in industrially backward areas of India, . balanced development can be achieved across all regions. It will also help greatly in preventing people from migrating to cities and towns in pursuit of employment.

8. Promotion of Self Employment and Self Reliance Spirit:
MSMEs help a great deal in developing a class of entrepreneurs. It promotes self-employment and a spirit of self-reliance in society, thereby contributing to an increase in per capita income or economic development.

9. Higher Contribution to Manufacturing and Export:
MSMEs contribute 45% to the total manufacturing output and 40% to the exports from the country. It helps in earning precious foreign exchange in various countries across the world.

Question 3.
What are the objectives of SHGs?
Answer:

1. Focusing on the empowerment of women.
2. Saving people from the clutches of money lenders
3. Building capacity of women and enabling them to participate in generating activities.
4. Creating the habit of saving in the minds of the people who are economically backward.
5. Promoting entrepreneurship skills among women.
6. Creating awareness about the importance of credit circle or revolving credit and the payment of the circle.
7. Elevating the economic standard of the member’s families.
8. Developing skills and facilitating credit linkages for eventual economic empowerment.
9. Promoting awareness among the members about finding solutions for their economic problems.
10. Identifying the common interest of the group members and carrying out their operations in the most efficient and economic way.
11. Enabling the members to overcome all social and economic barriers.
12. Promising and ensuring human rights to women at all stages of their life cycle.

11th Commerce Guide Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs) Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu Corporation for Development of Women Limited (TNCDW) was established in the year …………….
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1995
Answer:
(a) 1983

Question 2.
The process of manufacturing enterprises is specified in the first schedule to the ……….
a. CA2013
b. MSMED 2006
c. IDRA 1951
d. PA1932
Answer:
c. IDRA 1951

Question 3.
MSME supplies …………………………. to large scale industries.
a. Accessories
b. Spare Parts
c. Components
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 4.
The registered number of units of MSMEs in Tamilnadu as of 12.12.2017 ……….
a. 13.24 lakhs
b. 18.86 lakhs
c. 19.24 lakhs
d. 12.94 lakhs
Answer:
d. 12.94 lakhs

Question 5.
Which one of the following regional rural banks provides financial assistance to MSME start-ups.?
a. Pandian Rural Bank
b. Pallavan Rural Bank
c. Vallalar Rural Bank
d. All the above
Answer:
c. Vallalar Rural Bank

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are all the activities engaged by Microenterprises?
Answer:
Micro enterprises are engaged in low-scale activities such as clay pot making, fruits and vegetable vendors, transport (three-wheeler tempos and autos), repair shops, cottage industries, small industries, handlooms, handicraft works, etc.

Question 2.
Give examples for Public Sector Banks.
Answer:
State Bank of India, Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank, Canara Bank.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Self Help Group:
Answer:
National Bank for Agricultural & Rural Development (NABARD) has defined Self Help Group as “a homogenous group of rural poor voluntarily formed to save whatever amount they can conveniently save out of their earnings and mutually agree to contribute to a common fund of the group to be lent to the members for meeting their productive and emergent credit needs”

Question 2.
Write a short note on MUDRA bank:
Answer:
The Government of India has launched MUDRA Bank with a capital amount of 20,000 crores, and a credit guarantee corpus of 3,000 crores, to help Micro Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and startups resolve problems relating to financing. MUDRA Bank refinances micro-Finance Institutions through a PradhanMantriMudraYojana (PMMY).

Question 3.
Write a note on the activities of Self Help Groups in India:
Answer:
In December 2017 there were 45,67,090 SHGs in India. The total number of members in SHGs during the same period stood at 5,02,65,933 at all Indian levels. The five-year plans of the government of India have given due recognition to the relevance of the Self-help group concept to implement developmental schemes at the grassroots level.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the limit of investment by MSME in the Manufacturing sector and Service sector:
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a note on NEEDS:
Answer:
The government of Tamil Nadu launched the “New Entrepreneur-cum-Enterprise Development Scheme (NEEDS)” with a view to encouraging the educated youth to become the first generation entrepreneurs.

The Scheme envisages providing entrepreneurship development training to educated young entrepreneurs, preparing business plans, and helping them to tie up with financial institutions to set up new business ventures, besides linking them .with major industrial clients.

Question 3.
Explain the institutional sources of finance for MSMEs:
Answer:
There are many Banks and Financial institutions which provide financial assistance to Micro Small and Medium Enterprises and start-ups.
A. Commercial Banks

• Public sector banks (e.g) State Bank of India, Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank Canara Bank
• Private sector banks (e.g) ICICI, Axis Bank, City Union Bank, HDFC, KarurVasya Bank, Tamilnadu Mercantile Bank

B. Regional Rural bank

• Pandian Rural bank,
• Pallavan Rural Bank,
• Vallalar Rural Bank.

C.Co operative Banks
TNSC Bank, District Central Co-operative Banks
D. Micro Finance Institutions (e.g) MUDRA Bank
E. Non-Banking Finance Institutions

• National. Small Industries Corporation Ltd (NSIC)
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

Question 4.
Explain the features of Self Help Groups:
Answer:

• The motto of every group members should be “saving first – credit latter”
• Self Help Group is homogeneous in terms of economic status.
• The ideal size of a Self Help Group ranges between 10 and 20 members.
• The groups need not be registered.
• Groups are non-political, voluntary associations and follow a democratic culture. ,
• Each group should have only one member from one single family.
• A group is to be formed with only men or only with women.
• Self Help Group holds weekly meetings mostly during non-working hours, and full attendance is made mandatory for better participation.
• The groups have transparency among themselves and they have collective accountability in respect of financial transactions.
• Every group provides a platform to its members for the exchange of their views and ideas freely.

Question 5.
Explain the functions of Self-help groups:
Answer:

• Developing and enhancing the decision-making capacity of members
• Increasing general awareness on literacy among members.
• Equipping the poor with basic skills for understanding monetary transactions.
• Maintaining books and registers to ensure proper accounts.
• Providing necessary training in the chosen field.
• Submitting the accounts for annual audit by a qualified auditor.
• Deciding the loan amount be sanctioned to the group members.

Question 6.
Write a note on SHGs in Tamil Nadu:
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, Tamil Nadu Corporation for Development of Women Limited (TNCDW) was established in the year 1983 with the prime objective of socio-economic development and empowerment of rural women. The Government of Tamil Nadu spearheaded the Self Help Group concept in the country by forming SHGs in the Dharmapuri district with the assistance of the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) in September 1989. The success of the IFAD project paved way for the now popularly called “MahalirThittam” project.

which was launched during 1997-98 with the State Government funding and was progressively extended to all the 30 districts. The SHG movement has now emerged as a powerful and vibrant movement illuminating the lives of many poor women in the state.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 20 International Finance Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 20 International Finance

11th Commerce Guide International Finance Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
An instrument representing ownership interest in securities of a foreign issuer is called ………………..
a. an ownership certificate
b. a depositary receipt.
c. an ownership receipt
d. None of the above.
Answer:
b. a depositary receipt.

Question 2.
Issuance of DRs is based on the increase of demand in the ……………….
a. International market
b. Local market
c. Existing shareholders
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. International market

Question 3.
ADRs are issued in ……………
a. Canada
b. China
c. India
d. The USA
Answer:
d. The USA

Question 4.
Depositary receipts that are traded in an international market other than the United States are called ……………..
a. Global Depositary Receipts
b. International Depositary Receipts.
c. Open Market Depositary Receipts
d. Special Drawing Rights.
Answer:
a. Global Depositary Receipts

Question 5.
………………….. bond is a special type of bond issued in a currency other than the home currency.
a. Government Bonds
b. Foreign Currency Convertible Bond
c. Corporate Bonds
d. Investment Bonds
Answer:
b. Foreign Currency Convertible Bond

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Who are Foreign Institutional Investors?
Answer:
The Foreign Institutional Investors (FII) can be defined as an investment made by a Non-resident in the equity of a domestic company without the intention of acquiring management control.

Question 2.
What is a Depository Receipt?
Answer:
A depository receipt is a negotiable financial instrument issued by a bank to represent a foreign company’s equity shares or securities.

Question 3.
What is a GDR (Global Depository Receipt)?
Answer:
GDR is an instrument issued abroad by a company to raise funds in some foreign currencies and is listed and traded on a foreign stock exchange.

Question 4.
What is an American Depositary Receipt (ADR)?
Answer:
ADR is a dollar-denominated negotiable certificate representing a non-US company in the US market which allows US citizens to invest in overseas securities.

Question 5.
What is a Foreign Currency Convertible Bond?
Answer:
A foreign currency convertible bond is a special type of bond issued in a currency other than the home currency. In other words, companies issue foreign currency convertible bonds to raise money in foreign currency.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the importance of international finance.
Answer:

• International finance helps in calculating the exchange rates of various currencies of nations and the relative worth of each and every nation in terms thereof.
• It helps in comparing the inflation rates and getting an idea about investing in international debt securities.
• It helps in ascertaining the economic status of the various countries and in judging the foreign market.

Question 2.
What are Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds?
Answer:
A foreign currency convertible bond is a special type of bond issued in a currency other than the home currency. Companies issue foreign currency convertible bonds to raise money in foreign currency.

Question 3.
Explain any three disadvantages of FDI:
Answer:

1. Exploiting Natural Resources: The FDI Companies deplete natural resources like water, forest, mines, etc. As a result, such resources are not available for the usage of the common man in the host country.
2. Heavy Outflow of capital: Foreign companies are said to take away huge tunes in the form of dividends, royalty fees, etc. This causes a huge outflow of capital from the host country.
3. Not Transferring Technology: Some foreign enterprises do not transfer the technology to developing countries. They mostly transfer second-hand technology to the host country.

Question 4.
State any three features of ADR:
Answer:
ADRs are denominated only in US dollars. They are issued only to investors who are American residents. The depository bank should be located in the US.

Question 5.
State any three features of GDR:
Answer:

1. It is a negotiable instrument and can be traded freely like any other security.
2. GDRs are issued to investors across the country. It is denominated in any acceptable freely convertible currency.
3. GDR is denominated in any foreign currency but the underlying shares would be denominated in the local currency of the issuer.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe the importance of international finance?
Answer:

1. International finance helps in calculating the exchange rates of various currencies of nations and the relative worth of each and every nation in terms thereof.
2. It helps in comparing the inflation rates and getting an idea about investing in international debt securities.
3. It helps in ascertaining the economic status of the various countries and in judging the foreign market.
4. International Financial Reporting System (IFRS) facilitates comparison of financial statements made by various countries.
5. It helps in understanding the basics of international organisations and maintaining the balance among them.

Question 2.
Distinguish between GDR and ADR.
Answer:

Question 3.
State any five features of FCCB.
Answer:

1. FCCB is issued by an Indian company in foreign currency.
2. These are listed and traded in the foreign stock exchange and similar to the debenture.
3. It is a convertible debt instrument. It carries an interest coupon. It is unsecured.
4. It gives its holders the right to convert for a fixed number of shares at a predetermined price.
5. It can be converted into equity or depository receipt after a certain period.

Question 4.
Explain any five advantages of FDI.
Answer:
International Finance:
1. Achieving Higher Growth in National Income Developing countries get much-needed capital through FDI to achieve a higher rate of growth in national income.

2. Help in Addressing BOP Crisis FDI provides an inflow of foreign exchange resources into a country. This helps the country to solve the adverse balance of payment position.

3. Faster Economic Development FDI brings technology, management, and marketing skills along with it. These are crucial for achieving faster economic development in developing countries.

4. Generating Employment Opportunities: FDI generates a lot of employment opportunities in developing countries, especially in high-skill areas.

5. Encouraging Competition in Host Countries Entry of FDI into developing countries promotes healthy competition therein. This leads to enterprises in developing countries operating efficiently and effectively in the market. Consumers get a variety of products of good quality at a market-determined price which usually benefits the customers.

11th Commerce Guide International Finance Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
…………….. is a section of financial economics that deals with the monetary interactions that occur between two or more countries.
(a) International finance
(b) Business finance
(c) DR
(d) GDR
Answer:
(a) International finance

Question 2.
If the local currency is in variable form and foreign currency is in fixed form quotation will be …………….
a. Indirect
b. direct
c. Local Form
d. Foreign form
Answer:
a. Indirect

Question 3.
………………. is an instrument issued abroad by a company to raise funds in some foreign currencies and is listed and traded on a foreign stock exchange.
(a) GDR
(b) DR
(c) FDI
(d) FII
Answer:
(a) GDR

II. Very Short Answer Questions:
Question 1.
Define Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
Answer:
Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment made by a company or an individual in one country with business interests in another country, in the form of either establishing business operations or acquiring business assets in the other country, such as ownership or controlling interest in a foreign company.

Question 2.
Expand the following:
Answer:

1. GDR: Global Depositary Receipt
2. ODB: Overseas Depository Bank
3. DCB: Domestic Custodian Bank
4. ECB: External Commercial Borrowing

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are International capital markets?
Answer:
Modem organisations including multinational companies depend upon sizeable borrowings in rupees as well as in foreign currencies. Prominent financial instruments used for this purpose are Depository Receipts.

Question 2.
What are all the forms of Foreign Direct Investment?
Answer:
Foreign direct investments take the following forms:
Establishment of a new enterprise in a foreign country. Expansion of existing branch or subsidiary in a foreign country. Acquisition of enterprise located in a foreign country.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are all the disadvantages of FDI?
Answer:
The following are the disadvantages of FDI:
Exploiting Natural Resources:
The FDI Companies deplete natural resources like water. forest, mines, etc. As a result, such resources are not available for the usage of the common man in the host country.
Heavy Outflow of capital:
Foreign companies are said -to take away huge funds in the form of dividends, royalty fees etc. This causes a huge outflow of capital from the host country.

Not Transferring Technology:
Some foreign enterprises do not transfer the technology to developing countries. They mostly transfer second-hand technology to the host country. They keep the fundamental aspects of technology with the parent company. In such a case, the host country may not get the advantage of technology transfer and consequently economic development.

Exploiting Cheap Labour:
Foreign enterprises employ a cheap labour force at lower pay in developing countries. They do not employ local people for higher posts in the management. Further, they do not extend the privileges they usually give to the employees in their home country to the employees of the host country. Thus they are stated to exploit the labour in developing countries.

Creating Monopolistic Environment:
Multi-National Companies (MNCs) which enter the host country through the FDI route create monopolistic conditions in the host countries through their market power. They may not create a competitive environment in the host country. Contrarily they may affect the competition altogether and establish supremacy.

Question 2.
Write a note on FII:
Answer:
The FII can be defined as an investment made by a Non-resident inequity of a domestic company without the intention of acquiring management control. Fils are the investments made by an individual investor or an investment fund, into the financial markets of another nation. Organizations like hedge funds, insurance companies, pension funds, and mutual funds can be called institutional investors.

Foreign Institutional Investors play a very important role in the Indian economy. From 1992, Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) have been allowed to invest in all securities traded on the primary and secondary markets, including shares, debentures, and warrants issued by companies. Over 1450 foreign institutional investors have registered their names with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the regulator for the securities market in India.

Question 3.
Explain the international sources from where funds can be generated?
Answer:
Commercial Banks:
Most of the commercial banks extend foreign currency loans for promoting business opportunities. The loans and services of various types, provided by banks differ from country to country.

International Agencies and Development Banks:
International agencies and Development banks play an important role to promote international trade and business. They provide term loans and grants to promote the development of economically backward areas in the world. International Finance Corporation (IFC), EXIM Bank, and Asian Development Bank are the agencies operating at the International level to meet the needs of international finance.

International Capital Markets:
Modem organisations including multinational companies depend upon sizeable borrowings in rupees as well as in foreign currencies. Prominent financial instruments used for this purpose are Depository Receipts.

Question 4.
Explain the procedure for issuing ADR:
Answer:

• First of all, a company hands over the shares to a Domestic Custodian Bank (DCB)
• Then DCB requests the American Depository Bank (ADB) to issue the shares in the form of ADRs
• ADB converts the issue which are in rupees into US dollars
• Finally, ADB issues them to the intending investors.

Question 5.
Explain the process of issuing GDR:
Answer:

• The company issuing GDRs hands over its shares to one Domestic Custodian Bank (DCB).
• The DCB requests the Overseas Depository Bank (ODB) situated in the foreign country for issuing the shares as GDR.
• The ODB converts the shares shown in rupees into GDR which are denominated in US dollars.
• Finally, ODB issues them to the intending investors.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 19 Sources of Business Finance Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 19 Sources of Business Finance

11th Commerce Guide Sources of Business Finance Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
What is defined as the provision of money at the time when it is required?
a. Finance
b. Bank
c. Cash management
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Finance

Question 2.
Internal sources of capital are those that are ……………
a. Generated through outsiders such as suppliers
b. Generated through loans from commercial banks
c. Generated through the issue of shares
d. Generated within the business
Answer:
d. Generated within the business

Question 3.
Debenture holders are entitled to a fixed rate of …………..
a. Dividend
b. Profits
c. Interest
d. Ratios
Answer:
c. Interest

Question 4.
Public deposits are the deposits which are raised directly from …………………….
a. The public
b. The directors
c. The auditors
d. The owners
Answer:
a. The public

Question 5.
Equity shareholders are the ……………………… of a company
a. Creditors
b. Owners
c. Debtors
d. Employees
Answer:
c. Debtors

Question 6.
Funds required for purchasing current assets is an example for
a. Fixed Capital Requirement
b. Ploughing Back of Profits
c. Working Capital Requirement
d. Lease Financing
Answer:
c. Working Capital Requirement

Question 7.
Which of the following holder is given voting right?
a. Debentures
b. Preference Shares
c. Equity shares
d. Bonds
Answer:
c. Equity shares

Question 8.
It may be wise to finance fixed assets through ……………….
a. Creditors
b. Long term debts
c. Bank Overdraft
d. Bills Discounting.
Answer:
b. Long term debts

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write short notes on debentures:
Answer:
Debentures are an important instrument for raising long term debt capital. A company can raise funds through the issue of debentures which bear a fixed rate of interest.

Question 2.
What do you mean by public deposits?
Answer:
It is a method of inviting public deposits by giving advertisements in the media by the companies. It offers deposit schemes for a longer tenure. The interest rates offered by companies on public companies are higher than the bank.

Question 3.
Name any two sources of funds classified under borrowed funds.
Answer:

1. Debentures
2. Loan from banks

Question 4.
Name any two internal sources of business finance.
Answer:
Capital by the owners (start-up or additional capital); Debt Collection.

Question 5.
State any two factors that affect the choice of source of finance.
Answer:

1. Cost
2. Financial capacity to the firms

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define Business finance.
Answer:
In the words of R.C.Os born, “ The finance function is the process of acquiring and utilizing funds by a business”.

Question 2.
What is a pledge?
Answer:
A customer transfers the possession of an article with the creditor (banker) and receives loan. Till the repayment of loan, the article is under the custody of the borrower. If the debtor fails to refund the loan, creditor (banker) will auction the article pawned and adjust the outstanding loan from the sale proceeds.

Question 3.
List sources of raising long-term and short-term finance
Answer:
Sources of Short-term finance:

1. Loans and Advances
2. Bank Overdraft
3. Discounting Bills of Exchange
4. Trade credit
5. Pledge
6. Hypothecation
7. Mortgage
8. Loans Against the Securities
9. Clear loan
10. Commercial paper (CP)
11. Hire purchase finance.
12. Factoring

Sources of Long – Term Finance:

1. Shares
2. Debentures
3. Retained earnings
4. Public deposits
5. Long term loan from commercial banks
6. The loans from financial institutions

Question 4.
For which purpose fixed capital is needed in business?
Answer:
Business enterprises need finance for fixed and working capital requirements. Fixed capital requirements include the purchase of plant, machinery, furniture, fixtures, vehicles, and so on.

Question 5.
What do you mean by the working capital requirement of a business?
Answer:
Working capital is nothing but the amount which is needed for meeting the day to j day expenses of the business. The working capital requirements include the purchase of I raw materials, payment of salary and wages,  incurring operating expenses like telephone bills, carriage inward and outward, electricity charges, premium, stationery, etc.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
List out the various sources of financing.
Answer:
The various sources of business finance can be classified into three categories on the basis of the following:
Period basis: On the basis of the period, The different sources of finance can be further grouped into three categories on the basis of period

1. Short term finance
2. Medium-term finance
3. Long term finance

Ownership basis: On the Basis of Ownership, Business finance can be divided into two categories based on ownership of funds.

1. Owner’s Fund
2. Borrowed Fund

Source of generation basis: On the Basis of Generation of Funds, The sources of funds can be grouped into two categories based on generation.

1. Internal sources
2. External sources

Question 2.
What are the different types of short term finances given by commercial banks?
Answer:
1. Loans and Advances:
Loan is a direct advance made in a lump sum which is credited to a separate loan account in the name of the borrower. The borrower can withdraw the entire amount in cash immediately.

2. Bank Overdraft:
Bank overdraft refers to an arrangement whereby the bank allows the customers to overdraw the required amount from its current deposit account within a specified limit.

3. Discounting Bills of Exchange:
When goods are sold on credit, the suppliers generally draw bills of exchange upon customers who are required to accept it.

4. Trade Credit:
Trade credit is the credit extended by one trader to another for the purpose of purchasing goods and sendees. Purchaser need not pay money immediately after the purchase.

5. Pledge:
A customer transfers the possession of an article with the creditor (banker) and receives loan. Till the repayment of loan, the article is under the custody of the borrower. If the debtor fails to refund the loan, the creditor (banker) will auction the article pawned and adjust the outstanding loan from the sale proceeds.

6. Hypothecation:
This is a loan taken by depositing a document of title to the property with the banker. Of course, the physical possession of asset property is with the borrower. If the borrower fails to repay the loan amount, the article hypothecated will be sold in auction by the banker concerned.

Question 3.
Write short notes on :
Answer:
Retained Earnings:
Retained earnings refer to the process of retaining a part of net profit year after year and reinvesting them in the business. It is also termed as ploughing back of profit. An individual would like to save a portion of his/ her income for meeting the contingencies and growth needs.

Similarly profit making company would retain a portion of the net profit in order to finance its growth and expansion in near future. It is described to be the most convenient and economical method of finance.

Lease financing:
Lease financing denotes procurement of assets through lease. Leasing here refers to the owning of an asset by any individual or a corporate body which will be given for use to another needy business enterprise on a rental basis. The firm which owns the asset is called ‘Lessor’ and the business enterprise which hires the asset is called ‘Lessee’. The contract is called ‘Lease’.

The terms and conditions like lease period, rent fixed, mode of payment and allocation of maintenance, are mentioned in the lease contract.

Question 4.
Write short notes on

1. Owner’s funds
2. Borrowed funds

Answer:
1. Owner’s Funds:
Owner’s funds mean funds which are provided by the owner of the enterprises who may be an individual or partners or shareholders of a company. The profits reinvested in the business (ploughing back of profit or retained earnings) come under the owner’s funds. These funds are not required to be refunded during the lifetime of a business enterprise. It provides the owner the right to control the management of the enterprise.

2. Borrowed Funds:
The term ‘borrowed funds’ denotes the funds raised through loans or borrowings. For example debentures, loans from banks and financial institutions, public deposits, trade credit, lease financing, commercial papers, factoring, etc., represent borrowed funds.

These borrowed sources of funds provide a specific period before which the fund is to be returned. The borrower is under legal obligation to pay interest at given rate at regular intervals to the lender. Generally borrowed funds are obtained on the security of certain assets like bonds, land, building, stock, vehicles, machinery, documents of title to the goods, and the like.

Question 5.
Explain any four personal investment avenues.
Answer:
1. Public Provident Fund (PPF): It is the safest long-term investment option for investors in India. It is totally tax-free. PPF account can be opened in a bank or post office. The money deposited cannot be withdrawn before 15 years and an investor can earn compound interest from this account. PPF investor can take a loan against PPF account when he/she experiences financial difficulties.

2. Mutual Funds: An individual investor who wants to invest in equities and bonds with a balance of risk and return generally can invest in mutual funds. Nowadays people invest in stock markets through a mutual fund. A systematic investment plan is one of the best investment options in India.

3. Unit Linked Insurance Plans (ULIP): ULIP is a life insurance-linked product, which provides risk cover for the policyholder along with investment options to invest in any number of qualified investments such as stocks, bonds, or mutual funds.

4. Post Office Saving Schemes: There are different types of postal small savings schemes namely Post Office Savings Account, Post Office Recurring Deposit Account (RD), Post Office Fixed Deposit Account (FD/TD), Post Office Monthly Income Account Scheme (MIS), Senior Citizens Saving Scheme (SCSS) Public Provident Fund Account (PPF), National Savings Certificates (NSC), Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP), SukanyaSamriddhi Account (SSA). Investors can choose the appropriate postal schemes as per their needs. Postal investment schemes are the safest investments.

11th Commerce Guide Sources of Business Finance Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Long term finance ………………
(a) more than 5 years
(b) above I year but below 5 years
(c) more than one year but below 3 years
(d) within one year
Answer:
(a) more than 5 years

Question 2.
Funds required for purchasing current assets is an example of ………………
a. Fixed Capital requirement
b. Ploughing back of profit
c. Working capital requirement
d. Lease financing
Answer:
c. Working capital requirement

Question 3.
Business people hypothecate goods or equipment to get ……………… type of loan. It is a loan taken on the security of movable assets.
(a) Hypothecation
(b) Pledge
(c) Trade credit
(d) Bank overdraft
Answer:
(a) Hypothecation

Question 4.
Debentures are treated as ………………………….
a. Fixed Capital
b. Permanent Capital
c. Fluctuating Capital
d. Loan Capital
Answer:
d. Loan Capital

Question 5.
Source of Medium Term Finance is ………………
(a) share
(b) debentures
(c) Bank overdraft
(d) lease finance
Answer:
(d) lease finance

Question 6.
…………………………. is an unsecured money market instrument in the form of the promissory note.
a. Pledge
b. Trade Credit
c. Commercial paper
d. Mortgage
Answer:
c. Commercial paper

Question 7.
Which one are the owner’s funds?
(a) Debentures
(b) Loan from banks
(c) Equity shares
(d) Commercial papers
Answer:
(c) Equity shares

Question 8.
Which of the following holder are not having voting rights?
a. Debentures
b. Equity Shares
c. Preference Shares
d. Bonds
Answer:
c. Preference Shares

Question 9.
Which one of the following is the tax-free investment option?
a. Equity Share Purchase
b. Real Estate.
c. Investments in Gold
d. Public Provident Fund
Answer:
d. Public Provident Fund

Question 10.
The period for opening a Recurring Deposit is …………………
a. 1-10 years
b. 1 year only
c. 5-10 years
d. 10 years only
Answer:
a. 1-10 years

II. Very short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Bonds?
Answer:
Bonds are one of the ideal investment options for those investors who would like to invest their hard-earned money safely. Bonds are issued both by government and public and private sector companies and financial institutions.

Question 2.
What is Trade Credit?
Answer:
Trade credit is the credit extended by one trader to another for the purpose of purchasing goods and services. It is a very simple and convenient method of raising short-term finance.

Question 3.
What is Commercial Paper (CP)?
Answer:
Commercial paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument in the form of a promissory note. It was introduced in India in 1990 under Section 45 W of the Reserve Bank of India Act.

Question 4.
What are the three important terms used in the process of Lease Financing?
Answer:
The firm which owns the asset is called ‘Lessor’ and the business enterprise which hires the asset is called ‘Lessee’. The contract is called ‘Lease’. These are the three important terms used in the process of Lease Financing.

Question 5.
Define Share:
Answer:
The Indian Companies Act 2013 defines a share as “To be a share in the share capital of a company”.

Question 6.
Who is called a shareholder?
Answer:
The person holding a share is called a shareholder who has an interest in the assets and profits of the company.

Question 7.
Define Savings:
Answer:
Saving is defined as the difference between income and consumption.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention any three significance of business finance.
Answer:

1. A firm with adequate business finance can easily start any business venture.
2. Business finance helps the business organization to purchase raw materials from the supplier easily to produce goods.
3. The business firm can meet financial liabilities like prompt payment of salary and wages, expenses, etc., in time with the help of sound financial support.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Commercial paper (CP).
Answer:
Commercial paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument in the form of a promissory note. Corporates, Primary Dealers (PD), and All India Financial Institutions are eligible to issue Commercial Paper. It was introduced in India in 1990 under Section 45 W of the Reserve Bank of India Act. It is issued by a firm to raise funds for a short period. It can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue.

Question 3.
Explain the types of shares:
Answer:
There are two types of shares namely Equity Shares and Preference Shares.

1. Equity Shares: Equity share is the most important source of raising long-term capital by a company. These shares do not carry any special or preferential rights in the matter of payment of annual dividend and repayment of capital at the time of winding up. Equity shareholder enjoys more voting rights in proportion to a number of shares held by them. They took part in the management of the company.

2. Preference Shares: Preference shares are those shares which enjoy priority regarding payment of dividend at a fixed rate out of the net profits of the company. They will get their dividend every year before any dividend is paid to equity shareholders. They will have a right to get their settlement before the claims of equity shareholders are settled at the time of liquidation of the company. They do not have voting rights.

Question 4.
What is meant by preference shares?
Answer:
The fund raised by the issue of preference shares is called preference share capital. Preference shares are those shares which enjoy priority regarding payment of dividend at a fixed rate out of the net profits of the company. They will get their dividend every year before any dividend is paid to equity shareholders.

They will have a right to get their settlement before the claims of equity shareholders are settled at the time of liquidation of the company. However, they do not have voting rights.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the features of Business finance.
Answer:
The following are the main features of Business Finance:

• Business finance comprises of all types of funds namely short, medium and long term used in business.
• The volume of business finance required varies from one business enterprise to another depending upon its nature and size. In other words, small and medium enterprises require a relatively lower level of business finance than large scale enterprises.
• The amount of business finance required differs from one period to another. In other words, the requirement of business finance is heavy during the peak season while it is at a low level during the dull season.
• The amount of business finance determines the scale of operations of business enterprises.

Question 2.
What are the differences between the internal and external sources of raising funds?
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the significance of Business Finance?
Answer:
The following are the importance/significance of Business Finance:

• A firm with adequate business finance can easily start any business venture.
• Business finance helps the business organization to purchase raw materials from the supplier easily to produce goods.
• The business firm can meet financial liabilities like prompt payment of salary and wages, expenses, etc., in time with the help of sound financial support.
• The sound financial support enables the enterprises to meet any unexpected or uncertain risks arising from the business environment efficiently. For example economic slowdown, trade cycles, severe competition, a shift in consumer preference, etc.
• Sound financial position empowers the enterprise to attract talented manpower and introduce the latest technology.

Question 4.
“Saving leads to the economic development of a country” Justify the statement.
Answer:
Yes. The money invested in various attributes helps in the economic development of a country.
The following are the reasons:

• Money invested in bank deposits facilitates employment generation in various sectors of the economy and poverty alleviation.
• The savings invested in bank deposits lead to credit creation in the country which in turn promotes industrial and agricultural development in a country.
• Savings invested in government bonds and various institutions help in great measure in building in strengthening the infrastructure facilities in a country.
• The country with higher savings can easily face the consequences of economic recession.
• The bad consequences of inflation can be met easily with strong savings. As a result, the evil effect of soaring prices can be controlled.

Question 5.
Explain any five factors influencing the choice of Business Finance:
Answer:
The factors influencing the choice of business finance are as follows:
1. Cost: Business enterprises have to analyze the cost of mobilizing and utilizing the funds. For instance, where the interest rate is relatively lower, public deposits, debentures, term loan,s etc. may be desirable options.

2. Financial Capacity of the Firm: Financially sound enterprises have the capacity to pay interest promptly and return the capital at the stipulated time. Such enterprises can go for borrowed sources. On the other hand, if the firm is not financially stable, it has to depend on owned sources of funds.

3. Time Period: The period for which business finance is required determines the suitable source. For instance, where funds are required for a shorter period, bank finance like an overdraft, cash credit, bill discounting, mortgage, pledge, leasing, hire purchase, factoring, and so on, are suitable sources. Funds required for a longer period can be tapped from the issue of shares, debentures, bonds, term loans and the like.

4. Control: Equity shareholders are real owners of corporate enterprises. They exercise complete control over the management of the company. If the existing shareholders do not like to lose their control, they must not issue more equity shares to supplement the financial resources. Contrarily borrowed sources of funds will not disturb the control exercised by the company management. Hence borrowed source is suitable for maintaining the administrative control of the company.

5. Stage of Development: A new business enterprise finds it hard to mobilize business finance than an established firm. Therefore it may have to rely on owned sources in the initial stage. Once the business enterprise has established itself in the business world, it can tap borrowed sources of funds and offer its assets as security therefor.

6. Credit Worthiness of Firms: Some sources of funds like debentures and creditors require the business firms to mortgage the assets. This hurts the creditworthiness of the business concern in the financial market,  Contrarily business concerns do not have to mortgage their assets when they mobilize funds through sources like share capital, retained; earnings, unsecured loans, etc., and thereby maintaining a good image in the financial market.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

11th Physics Guide Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon, _______. [AIPMT 1997, AIEEE 2004]
a) position of particles
b) relative distance between particles
c) masses of particles
d) force acting on particle
Answer:
d) force acting on particle

Question 2.
A couple produces, _______. [AIPMT 1997]
a) pure rotation
b) pure translation
c) rotation and translation
d) no motion
Answer:
a) pure rotation

Question 3.
A particle is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to positive x-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum with respect to the origin is, _______. [IIT 2002]
a) zero
b) increasing with x
c) decreasing with x
d) remaining constant
Answer:
d) remaining constant

Question 4.
A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force 30 N? [NEET 2017]
a) 0.25 rad s^-2
b) 25 rad s^-2
c) 5 m s^-2
d) 25 m s^-2
Answer:
b) 25 rad s^-2

Question 5.
A closed cylindrical container is partially filled with water, At the container rotates in a horizontal plane about a perpendicular bisector, its moment of inertia, _______. [IIT 1998]
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) depends on direction of rotation.
Answer:
a) increases

Question 6.
A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum L. If its kinetic energy is halved, the angular momentum becomes, _______. [AFMC 1998, AIPMT 2015]
a) L
b) L/2
c) 21
d) L/\(\sqrt{2}\)
Answer:
d) L/\(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 7.
A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. The angular momentum of the particle remain conserved about, _______ [IIT 2003]
a) the center point of the circle.
b) the point on the circumference of the circle.
c) any point inside the circle.
d) any point outside the circle.
Answer:
a) the center point of the circle.

Question 8.
When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along, _______. [AIPMT 2012]
a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
b) the line making an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation
c) the radius
d) tangent to the path
Answer:
a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation

Question 9.
Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through center and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities ω1 and ω2. They are brought in to contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is, _______ [NEET 2017]
a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)(ω₁ – ω₂)²
b) I(ω₁ – ω₂)²
c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\)(ω₁ – ω₂)² I
d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)(ω₁ – ω₂)² I
Answer:
a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)(ω₁ – ω₂)²

Question 10.
A disc of moment of inertia I_a is rotating in a horizontal plane about its symmetry axis with a constant angular speed ω. Another discinitially at rest of moment of inertia I_b is dropped coaxially on to the rotating disc. Then, both the discs rotate with same constant angular speed. The loss of kinetic energy due to friction in this process is, _______.

Answer:

Question 11.
The speed of the center of a wheel rolling on a horizontal surface is vo. A point on the rim in level with the center will be moving at a speed of speed of, _______.
a) 5:7
b) 2:3
c) 2:5
d) 7:5
Answer:
d) 7:5

Question 12.
From a disc of radius R a mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the center is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis passing through it _______. [NEET 2016]
a) 15MR²/32
b) 13MR²/32
c) 11MR²/32
d) 9MR²/32
Answer:
b) 13MR²/32

Question 13.
The speed of a solid sphere after rolling down from rest without sliding on an inclined plane of vertical height h is, _______.

Answer:

Question 14.
The speed of the center of a wheel rolling on a horizontal surface is v_o. A point on the rim in level with the center will be moving at a speed of speed of, _______. [PMT 1992, PMT 2003, IIT 2004]
a) zero
b) v₀
c) \(\sqrt{2}\)v₀
d) 2v₀
Answer:
c) \(\sqrt{2}\)v₀

Question 15.
A round object of mass M and radius R rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane. The fractional force, _______.
a) dissipates kinetic energy as heat.
b) decreases the rotational motion.
c) decreases the rotational and transnational motion
d) converts transnational energy into rotational energy
Answer:
d) converts transnational energy into rotational energy

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define center of mass.
Answer:
The center of mass of a body is defined as a point where the entire mass of the body appears to be concentrated.

Question 2.
Find out the center of mass for the given geometrical structures.
Answer:

b) Cylinder:

The center of mass in case of the cylinder lies on the vertical axis and at the centre of the cylinder.

Question 3.
Define torque and mention its unit.
Answer:
Torque is defined as the moment of the external applied force about a point or axis of rotation. The expression for torque is,
\(\vec{\tau}\) = \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\)

Question 4.
What are the conditions in which force cannot produce torque?
Answer:
1) The torque is zero when r and P are either parallel or anti parallel
i.e θ = 0, if parallel sin θ = 0, τ = 0
θ = 180°, if anti parallel sin 180 = 0, τ = 0

2) The torque is zero if the force acts at the reference point as \(\vec { r }\) = 0, τ = 0

Question 5.
Give any two examples of torque in day-to-day life.
Answer:

• The opening and closing of a door about the hinges.
• Turning of a nut using a wrench.

Question 6.
What is the relation between torque and angular momentum?
Answer:
Rate of change in angular momentum is equal to torque.
τ = \(\frac { d(L) }{ dt }\)

Question 7.
What is equilibrium?
Answer:
A rigid body is said to be in mechanical equilibrium where both its linear momentum and angular momentum remain constant.

Question 8.
How do you distinguish between stable and unstable equilibrium?
Answer:

Question 9.
Define couple.
Answer:
A pair of forces which are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction and separated by a perpendicular distance so that their lines of action do not coincide that causes a turning effect is called a couple.

Question 10.
State principle of moments.
Answer:
Principle of moments states that the sum of the clockwise moments is equal to sum of the anti-clockwise moments about the axis rotation.
d₁f₁ = d₂f₂

Question 11.
Define center of gravity.
Answer:
The center of gravity of a body is the point at which the entire weight of the body acts, irrespective of the position and orientation of the body.

Question 12.
Mention any two physical significance of the moment of Inertia.
Answer:

• For rotational motion moment of Inertia is a measure of rotational Inertia.
• The Moment of Inertia of a body is not a variable quantity.

It depends not only on the mass of the body but also on the way the mass is distributed around the axis of rotation.

Question 13.
What is the radius of gyration?
Answer:
The radius of gyration of an object is the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation to an equivalent point mass, which would have the same mass as well as the same moment of inertia of the object.

Question 14.
State conservation of angular momentum?
Answer:
When no external torque acts on a body, the net angular momentum of a rotating rigid body remains constant.

Question 15.
What are the rotational equivalents for the physical quantities?

1. mass
2. force

Answer:
The rotational equivalents for (i) mass and (ii) force are moments of inertia and torque respectively.

Question 16.
What is the condition for pure rolling?
Answer:
In the case of pure roiling, for all points on the edge, the magnitude of V_t Translation is V rotational are equal (V_tr = V_rot).
As V Trans = V_cm and V_rot = Rω, the condition
for pure rolling without slipping is Vcm = Rω.

Question 17.
What is the difference between sliding and slipping?
Answer:
Sliding:

• Velocity of center of mass is greater than Rω i.e. V_CM > Rω.
• Velocity of transnational motion is greater than velocity of rotational motion.
• Resultant velocity acts in the forward direction.

Slipping:

• Velocity of center of mass is lesser than Rω. i.e. V_CM < Rω
• Velocity of translation motion is lesser than velocity of rotational motion.
• Resultant velocity acts in the backward direction.

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the type of equilibrium with suitable examples.
Answer:
The different types of equilibrium are:
i) Translational equilibrium – The body is set to be in translational equilibrium, when the linear momentum remains constant. The net force acting on body is zero

Example: Let F1, F2, F3 …… Fn be n forces acting on body in different directions, and the net force on the body is the vector sum of different forces is the resultant, which is equal to zero, then the body is in translational equilibrium.

ii) Rotational equilibrium – The body is said to be in rotational equilibrium when the angular momentum is constant. Net Torque on the body is equal to zero

Example: If a metre scale is balanced by a knife edge at its center then the body is in rotational equilibrium as clockwise moment is equal to Anticlockwise moment.

iii) Static equilibrium – When the linear momentum and angular momentum on body are zero , where no net force and no net torque, the body is in static equilibrium.
Example: A book kept in the table

iv) Dynamic equilibrium – Here linear momentum and angular momentum are kept constant. Net force and Net torque on a body is equal to zero.

v) Stable equilibrium:
Consider a china dish in which a small sphere is placed. It comes to rest at the bottom of the dish, said to be in stable equilibrium where potential energy is minimum. If displaced, the sphere tries to attain it original position after released. So the body is in stable equilibrium. In stable equilibrium.

a) Linear momentum and angular momentum are zero
b) The body tries to come back to equilibrium if slightly disturbed and released.
c) The centre of mass of the body shifts slightly higher if disturbed from equilibrium.
d) Potential energy is minimum and it is increased if disturbed.

Unstable equilibrium:
Consider an inverted china dish and place the sphere on the top of the dish. The body roll down to a new position if disturbed. It never returns to its original position stating unstable equilibrium. Incase of unstable equilibrium

a) Linear momentum and angular momentum are zero.
b) The body cannot come back to its original equilibrium if slightly disturbed and released.
c) The centre of mass of the body shifts slightly lower if disturbed from equilibrium.
d) potential energy is not minimum and it decreases if disturbed.

Neutral equilibrium:
Consider the sphere placed in a plane surface. The position of center of mass never changes, potential energy never changes if disturbed. So the equilibrium is said to be neutral equilibrium. In case of neutral equilibrium.

a) Linear and angular momentum are zero.
b) The body remains at same equilibrium if slightly disturbed and released.
c) The center of mass of the body does not shift higher or lower if disturbed from equilibrium
d) Potential energy remains same even if disturbed.

Question 2.
Explain the method to find the center of gravity of an irregularly shaped lamina.
Answer:
The center of gravity of an irregularly shaped lamina by pivoting it at various points by trail and error. The lamina remains horizontal when pivoted at the point where the net gravitational force acts, which is the centre of gravity shown figure.

When the body is supported at the centre for gravity, the sum of torques acting on all point masses of the rigid body becomes zero. Moreover the weight is compensated by the normal reaction force exerted by the pivot. The body in static equilibrium and hence it is horizontal.

Question 3.
Explain why a cyclist bends while negotiating a curve road. Arrive at the expression for angle of bending for a given velocity.
Answer:

Consider a cyclist negotiating a circular level road of radius ‘r’ with a velocity v. Cycle and cyclist are taken to be one system with mass m. The centre of gravity of the system is c and it goes in circle of radius r with centre o.
Consider OC as x – axis, vertical through 0 is z axis.
The system as a frame is rotating about z axis.
The system is at rest in the rotating frame.
centrifugal force on the system = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)
This force will act through centre of gravity.
The forces acting on the system are

1. Gravitational force (mg)
2. Normal force (N)
3. Frictional force (f)
4. Centrifugal force \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)

As the system is in equilibrium in the rotational frame of reference, the net external force and external torque must be zero. Consider all torques about point A for rotational equilibrium.
τ_net = 0.

Tongue due to gravitational force about point A = mg AB. Taken as negative as it produces clockwise momentum.
Torque due to centripetal force = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)(BC)
Taken as positive as it produces an anticlockwise moment.
-mg AB + \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) BC = 0
g AB = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) BC
from ∆ ABC
AB = AC sin θ
BC = AC cos θ

Question 4.
Derive the expression for moment of inertia of a rod about its center and perpendicular to the rod.
Answer:

Consider a uniform red of mass (m) and length \((\ell)\). Consider an axis passing through the geometric centre of the rod perpendicular to its length. Consider an infinitesimally small mass (dm) at a distance x from 0 origin of length dx. THe moment of Inertia (dl) of this mass (dm) about the axis is
dl = (dm)x²
As the mass is uniformly distributed, the mass per unit length (λ) if rod = λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\).
The mass of infinitesimally small length dx as
dm = λ dx = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\) dx
Moment of Inertria (I) of the entire rod can be obtained by integrating dl.
I = ∫ dI = ∫(dm) x² = ∫ \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\)x²dx
I = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\) ∫x² dx
As the mass is distributed on either side of the origin the limits for integration are taken from

Question 5.
Derive the expression for moment of Inertia of a uniform ring about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane.
Answer:
Consider a uniform ring of mass ‘M’ and radius R

Consider an axis passing through the center of the ring 0 and perpendicular to its plane take an infinitesimally small mass (dm) of length (dx) of the ring dm is located at a distance R from 0. The moment of Inertia (dl) of this small mass dm is
dI = (dm) R²
The length of the ring = Circumference of the ring \((\ell)\) = 2πR
As the mass is distributed uniformly
mass per unit length – λ = \(\frac {Mass}{length}\) = \(\frac { MR }{ 2πR }\)
The mass of infinitesimally small length is

Question 6.
Derive the expression for moment of inertia of a uniform disc about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane.
Answer:

Consider a disc of mass M and Radius R. This disc is made up of many infinitesimally small rings each of mass (dm) and thickness dr.
The moment of Inertia (dl) of this small ring is dl = (dm) r²
As the mass is uniformly distributed. The mass per unit area.
σ = \(\frac { Mass }{ Area }\) = \(\frac{M R}{\pi R^{2}}\)
The mass of infinitesimally small ring is
dm = σ (2π r. dr) \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\pi \mathrm{R}^{2}}\) 2 π r.dr
Where 2 π r.dr is the area of the elemental ring
∵ dm = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) rdr
∵ dI = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)r³dr
∵ The moment of Inertia of the entire disc is

Question 7.
Discuss the conservation of Angular momentum for example.
Answer:
When no external torque acts on a body, the net angular momentum of a rotating rigid body remains constant. This is known as the law of conservation of angular momentum.
τ = \(\frac { dL }{ dt }\)
If τ = 0
then L is a constant.
As angular momentum L = Iω, the conservation of angular momentum can be written as
I_iω_i = I_fω_f
Iω = constant
The above equation indicates if I increase ω will decrease and vice versa, to keep angular momentum constant.

Example:
Let us consider an ice dancer. The dancer spins slowly when the hands are stretched out and spins faster when the hands are brought close to the body.

Stretching the hands away from body increases the moment of Inertia, thus angular velocity decreases resulting in a slower spin. When the hands are brought to the body the moment of Inertia decreases and thus angular velocity in-creases resulting in faster spin.

Question 8.
State and prove parallel axes theorem.
Answer:
Law:
Parallel axes theorem states that the moment of Inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of its moment of Inertia about a parallel axis through its center of mass and the product of the mass of the body and the square of the perpendicular distance between two axis.

Let I_c be the moment of Inertia of the body of mass m about an axis (AB) passing through the center of mass.
Let I be the moment of Inertia of a parallel axis (DE) at a distance d from AB is
I = Ic + Md²
Proof:
Consider a rigid body as in figure. Let Ic be the moment of Inertia of the body about an axis AB passing through center of mass c.
DE is another axis parallel to AB at a perpendicular distance d from AB. Let I be the moment of Inertia about the axis DE.
Consider a point P of mass ‘m’ on the body at a distance, x from c.
The moment of Inertia of the point mass about the axis DE = m(x+d)².
The moment of Inertia I of the whole body about
DE = I = ∑ m (x+d)²
I = ∑ m (x² + d² + 2xd)
I = ∑ mx² + md² + 2mxd
I = ∑ mx² + ∑ md² + 2d ∑ mx
Here ∑ mx² = moment of Inertia of the body about the center of mass
∴ I_c = ∑ mx²
The term ∑mx = 0, because x can take positive and negative values w.r. to the axis AB.
I = I_c + Imd²
but ∑m = M
∵ I = I_c + Md²
Hence proved

Question 9.
State and prove perpendicular axis theorem.
Statement:
Perpendicular axes theorem states that moment of Inertia of a plane laminar body about an axis perpendicular to its plane is equal to the sum of moments of Inertia about two perpendicular axes lying in the plane of the body such that all the three axes are mutually perpendicular and have a common point.
Let x, y axes lie in the plane and Z-axis perpendicular to one plane of the laminar object. If the moment of inertia of the body about x and y axes are lx and Iy respectively and Iz is the Moment of Inertia about the z-axis, then the perpendicular axes theorem can be expressed as Iz = Ix + Iy
Proof:

Consider a plane laminar objects of negligible thickness on which lies the origin o. X and Y axes lie on the plane and Z-axis is perpendicular to the plane. The lamina is considered to be made up of large number of particles of mass m. Let us consider one such particle at a point P which has co-ordinates (x,y) at distance r from o.
The moment of Inertia of the particle about the z-axis is I_z = mr².
The summation of the above equation gives the Moment of Inertia of the entire lamina about z-axis = I_z = I mr².
Here r² = x² + y²

Hence proved.

Question 10.
Discuss rolling on an inclined plane and arrive at the expression for the acceleration.
Answer:

Consider a round object of mass m and radius R is rolling down an inclined plane without slipping.
There are two forces acting on the object along the inclined plane.
One is the component of gravitational force mg sin θ and the other is the static frictional force ‘f’.
The other component of gravitational force mg cos θ is cancelled by the normal force N exerted by the plane.
Considering free body diagram for the inclined plane.
For translational motion, mg sin 0 is the supporting force and f is the opposing force
mg sin θ – f = ma → (1)
For rotational motion, we have to consider the torque w.r. to the centre of the object. Here mg sin 0 cannot cause torque is it passes through it, so frictional force causes the torque.
τ = I∝ = fR → (2)
W.K.T a =R∝ and moment of Inertia I = mk²

IV. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
When a tree is cut, the cut is made on the side facing the direction in which the tree is required to fall why?
Answer:
The weight of the tree exerts a torque about the point where the cut is made. This causes the rotation of the tree about the cut. So the reason why the cut is made on the side facing the direction of fall.

Question 2.
Why does a porter bend forward while carrying a sack of rice on his back?
Answer:
When porter is carrying a sack of rice, on his back, the position of center of gravity changes. In order to bring it in the middle for stable equilibrium, porter bends forward.

Question 3.
Why is it much easier to balance a meter scale on your fingertip than balancing on a match stick?
Answer:
It is much easier to balance a meter scale on your finger than balancing on a match stick. While balancing the meter scale in stable equilibrium. The vertical line passes through the center of gravity of scale should pass through the base of supporting material. The finger has more base over than a match stick.

Question 4.
Two identical water bottles one empty and the other filled with water are allowed to roll down an inclined plane. Which one of them reaches the bottom first? Explain.
Answer:
Empty water bottle has large moment of Inertia than filled water bottle. So least value of radius of gyration is for bottle filled with water. So the water bottle filled with water reaches bottom first.

Suggests that for a given angle of inclination, the object with least value of radius of gyration k reach the bottom of incline first.

Question 5.
Write the relation between angular momentum and rotational K.E. Draw a graph for the same. For two objects of same angular momentum compare the moment of Inertia using the graph.
Answer:
Angular momentum = L = Iω
Rotational K.E = K_R = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)Iω²
By comparing

The shape of the graph is a straight line. The \(\frac { 1 }{ slope }\) of the curve gives the value of the moment of Inertia I. If angular momentum of two objects are same, rotational K.E one same having same moment of Inertia.

Question 6.
A rectangle block rests on a horizontal table. A horizontal force is applied on the block at a height h above the table to move the block. Does the line of action of the normal force N exerted by the table on the block depend on h?
Answer:

Yes, the normal force is concentrated at the center of mass. When force F is applied normal reaction of the floor shifts to right the block topples when N reaches edge.

Question 7.
Three identical solid spheres move down through three inclined planes A, B, and C all same dimensions. A is without friction, B is undergoing pure rolling and C is rolling with slipping compare the kinetic energies E_A, E_B and E_c at the bottom.
Answer:
A possesses translational K.E
B possesses sum of rotational K.E + Translational K.E
C possesses more rotation than translational KE

Question 8.
Give an example to show that the following statement is false. “Any two forces acting on a body can be combined into single force that would have same effect”
Answer:
Any two forces acting an a body can be combined to form a single force then it is called a resultant. In some cases effect of resultant is not same as the effect of the two forces acting

Example: A large body can be considered as made of a number of mass particles and all mass particles interact with each other. But the vector sum of all these internal forces is zero.

V. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
A uniform disc of mass 100g has a diameter of 10cm. Calculate the total energy of the disc when rolling along a horizontal table with a velocity of 20 cms^-1. (take the surface of the table as reference)
Solution:
m = 100 x 10^-3 kg = 100g
2r = 10 x 10^-2 m r = 5 cm
r = 5 x 10^-2 m v = 20 cm/s
V = 20 cms^-1= 20 x 10^-2 m/s
E = ?
for rolling body total K.E is
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv² + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) Iw²

K.E = 3/4 x 100 x 20 x 20 x 10^-3 x 10^-4
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) x 10^-3 x 4
= 3 x 10^-3 J

Question 2.
A particle of mass 5 units in moving with a uniform speed of v = 3\(\sqrt{2}\) units in the xoy plane alone the line y = x+4. Find the magnitude of angular momentum
Solution:
y = x + 4
Comparing it with straight line equation y = mx + c
m = tan θ = 1 θ = 45°
A line makes an angle θ = 45° with five x axis and intercepts on the y axis is + 4.

Draw a ⊥ r from 0 to the line y = x + 4
OA = d = 4sing 45 = \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Angular momentum about 0 = Linear momentum x ⊥ r distance from 0

Question 3.
A fly wheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. If its angular velocity increases form 20 π rad /s to 40 π rad/s in 10 seconds. Find the number of rotations in that period.
Solution:
w = θ/t
θ = wt

Question 4.
A uniform rod of mass m and length l makes a constant angle θ with an axis of rotation which passes through one end of the rod. Find the moment of Inertia about this axis.
Solution:

Here mass is distributed on length taking an element of small length dx at a distance x as in figure.
dm = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\).dx
Moment of Inertia of small element

Question 5.
Two particles P and Q of mass 1 kg and 3 kg respectively start moving towards each other from rest under mutual attraction. What is the velocity of their center of mass?
Solution:

Since external force acting as them is zero, the velocity of cm is constant and hence Vcm =0, whenever the separation.

Question 6.
Find the moment of Inertia of a hydrogen molecule about an axis passing through its center of mass and perpendicular to the inter atomic axis. Given mass of H₂ atom = 1.7 x 10^-27 kg and inter atomic distance is equal to 4 x 10^-10 m

Solution :
Mass of each H₂ atom = 1.7 x 10^-27 kg
Distance of each H₂ atom from the axis of rotation = 2 x 10^-10 m
Moment of Inertia about the axis = I = mr² + mr²
I = 2mr²
I = 2 x 1.7 x 10^-27 x (2 x 10^-10)mr²
= 13.6 x 10^-47 kgm²
I = 13.6 x 10^-47 kgm²
I = 1.36 x 10^-46 kgm²

Question 7.
On the edge of a wall, we build a brick tower that only holds because of the bricks own weight. Our goal is to build a stable tower whose overhang d is greater than the length l of a single brick. What is the minimum number of bricks you need?
(Hint: find the center of mass for each brick and add)
Solution:

Question 8.
The 747 being plane is landing at a speed of 70 m/s. Before touching the ground the wheels are not rotating. How long a skid mark do the wing wheel leave (assume their mass is 100 kg which is distributed uniformly radius is 0.7m. Weight supported by back wheel is 232KN and coefficient of friction with the ground is 0.5?)
Solution:

Force acting on the wheel after the plane touches the surface.
(Note: 747 has 16 wheels below wings and 2 wheels below nose)
If the wheel is not accelerating
N = W
Torque about certain wheel
τ = fR
But f = µN = µW
τ = µWR
Angular acceleration x = \(\frac { τ }{ I }\) = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{WR}}{\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{MR}^{2}}\)
∵ τ = Iα
= \(\frac { 2 µ W }{ MR }\)
The time taken by the bowing wheel to stop skidding.

Part – II:

11th Physics Guide Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The changes produced by the deforming forces in a rigid body are
(a) very large
(b) infinity
(c) negligibly small
(d) small
Answer:
(c) negligibly small

Question 2.
Particles of masses m, 2m, 3m …………. nm are placed on the same line at distances L, 2L, 3L ………… nL from 0. The distance of centre of mass from 0 is _______.

Answer:

Question 3.
For bodies of regular shape and uniform mass distribution, the center of mass is at –
(a) the comers
(b) inside the objects
(c) the point where the diagonals meet
(d) the geometric center
Answer:
(d) the geometric center

Question 4.
Look at the drawing given in the figure which has been drawn with ink of uniform line thickeners. The mass of ink used to draw each of the two inner circles and each of the two line segments is m. The mass of ink used to draw outer circle is 6m. The coordinates of the centres of different parts are outer circle (0, 0), left inner circle (-a, a) right inner circle (a, a) vertical line (0, 0) and horizontal line (o, -a). The ‘y’ co-ordinate of the centre of mass ink in this drawing is _______.

a) \(\frac { a }{ 10 }\)
b) \(\frac { a }{ 8 }\)
c) \(\frac { a }{ 12 }\)
d) \(\frac { a }{ 3 }\)
Answer:
a) \(\frac { a }{ 10 }\)

Question 5.
Center of mass may lie-
(a) within the body
(b) outside the body
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only at the center
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
The mass per unit length of a non uniform rod of length L is given by μ = λx² Where A. is a constant and λ is the distance from one end of the rod. The distance of mass of rod from this end is _______.
a) L/2
b) L/4
c) \(\frac { 3L }{ 4 }\)
d) L/3
Answer:
c) \(\frac { 3L }{ 4 }\)

Question 7.
The motion of center of mass of a system of two particles is unaffected by their internal forces-
(a) irrespective of the actual directions of the internal forces
(b) only if they are along the line joining the particles
(c) only if acts perpendicular to each other
(d) only if the acting opposite
Answer:
(a) irrespective of the actual directions of the internal forces

Question 8.
A cubical block of ice of mass m and edge L is placed on a tray of mass M. If the ice melts, by what distance the center of mass (ice + tray) system descend?

a) \(\frac { mL }{ m+m }\)
b) \(\frac { mL }{ 2(m+m) }\)
c) \(\frac { mL }{ m }\)
d) \(\frac { ML }{ m }\)
Answer:
b) \(\frac { mL }{ 2(m+m) }\)

Question 9.
The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend on
(a) masses of particles
(b) position of the particles
(c) distribution of masses
(d) forces acting on the particles
Answer:
(d) forces acting on the particles

Question 10.
Two bodies with K.E in the ratio 4:1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of their masses is _______.
a) 1:2
b) 1:1
c) 1:1
d) 1:4
Answer:
b) 1:1

Question 11.
Three particles A, B and C of masses m, 2m and 3m are placed on a straight line of length 2L as shown. The moment of inertia about an axis passing through B and perpendicular to line AC is _______.

a) ML²
b) 2ML²
c) 3ML²
d) 4ML²
Answer:
d) 4ML²

Question 12.
Three thin, uniform, identical rods each of mass M and length L are Joined as shown. The moment of inertia about an axis passing through 0 and perpendicular to plane is _______.

a) 3ML²
b) ML²
c) \(\frac{M L^{2}}{3}\)
d) zero
Answer:
b) ML²

Question 13.
The distance between the center of carbon and oxygen atoms in the gas molecule is 1.13 A. The center of mass of the molecule relative to the oxygen atom is-
(a) 0.602 Å
(b) 0.527 Å
(c) 1.13 Å
(d) 0.565 Å
Answer:
(b) 0.527 Å
Given,
Inter atomic distance = 1.13 Å
Mass of carbon atom = 14
Mass of oxygen atom = 16
Let C.M. of molecule lies at a distance of X from oxygen atom-
i.e. m₁r₁ = m₂r₂
16 X = 14(1.13 – X)
30 X = 15.82
X = 0.527 Å

Question 14.
From a thin uniform disc of radius 2R, another disc of diameter 2R is removed. The mass of the remaining portion is m. Find the moment of Inertia of the shaded portion about an axis passing through 0 and perpendicular to the plane.
a) \(\frac{8 M R^{2}}{13}\)
b) \(\frac{ M R^{2}}{6}\)
c) \(\frac{13 M R^{2}}{6}\)
d) \(\frac{8 M R^{2}}{6}\)
Answer:
c) \(\frac{13 M R^{2}}{6}\)

Question 15.
The sum of moments of masses of all the particles in a system about the center of mass is-
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 16.
The radius of gyration of a system of particle about an axis passing through the center of mass and perpendicular to the line joining the particles. The system consists of two particle of masses m1 and m2 placed at separation r is _______.

Answer:

Question 17.
A fly wheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. Its angular displacement increases from 2 n radians to 10 n radians in 4s. The number of revolutions is this period _______.
a) 10
b) 12
c) 6
d) 5
Answer:
b) 12

Question 18.
The reduced mass of the system of two particles of masses 2 m and 4 m will be –
(a) 2 m
(b) \(\frac {2 }{ 3 }\)y m
(c) \(\frac {3}{ 2 }\)y m
(d) \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)m
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)m

Question 19.
A pulley has the shape of a uniform solid disc of mass 2kg and radius 0.5m. A string is wrapped over its rim and is pulled by force of 2.5N. The pulley is free to rotate about its axis. Initially the pulley is at rest. Find the angular velocity and angle rotated by pulley in 10S _______.
a) 100 rad
b) 200 radians
c) 150 rad
d) 250 rad
Answer:
d) 250 rad

Question 20.
A solid sphere of radius R lies on a smooth horizontal surface. It is pulled by a horizontal force acting tangentially from the highest point. Find the distance travelled by the sphere during the time it make one rotation?

Answer:

Question 21.
From a circular disc of mass M and radius R a part of 60° is removed. The M.I of the remaining portion of disc about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of disc is _______.

a) 5/6 MR²
b) 5/12 MR²
c) 5/3 MR²
d) 5/24 MR²
Answer:
b) 5/12 MR²

Question 22.
If I₀ is the Moment of Inertia of a body about an axis passing through its centre of mass. The M.I. of the parallel axis and at a distance d is I = I₀ + Md². The variation of I with d is _______.

Answer:

Question 23.
A rod of length L and mass M₀ is bent to form a semi-circular ring as shown. The M. I. about XX¹

Answer:

Question 24.
Infinitesimal quantity means –
(a) collective particles
(b) extremely small
(c) nothing
(d) extremely larger
Answer:
(b) extremely small

Question 25.
A particle performs uniform circulation motion with an angular momentum L. If the frequency of the particle motion is doubled and its kinetic energy is halved the angular momentum becomes _______.
a) 2L
b) 4L
c) L/2
d) L/4
Answer:
d) L/4

Question 26.
A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its center. An insect is at rest at the point near the rim of the disc. The insect now moves along a diameter of the disc to reach other end. During the journey of the insect the angular speed of the disc.
a) remains unchanged
b) continuously decreases
c) continuously increases
d) first increases and then decreases
Answer:
d) first increases and then decreases

Question 27.
A solid disc rolls clockwise without slipping over a horizontal path with a constant speed V. Then the magnitude of velocities of points A, B & C (in figure) with respect to a standing observer are respectively _______.

a) V, V and V
b) 2V, \(\sqrt{2}\), zero
c) 2V, 2V, zero
d) 2V, \(\sqrt{2}\), \(\sqrt{2}\) V
Answer:
b) 2V, \(\sqrt{2}\), zero

Question 28.
Torque is given as –
(a) \(\vec{r}\) . \(\vec{F}\)
(b) \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\)
(c) \(\vec{F}\) x \(\vec{r}\)
(d) r F cos θ
Answer:
(b) \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\)

Question 29.
A solid sphere of mass m and radius R rolls without slipping an the horizontal surface such that V_cm = V₀
a) The K.E of rotation is 1/5 mV₀
b) The total K.E in 7/10 mV₀²
c) The mechanical energy is mgh + 7/10 mV₀²
d) All are correct
Answer:
d) All are correct

Question 30.
The direction of torque ácts –
(a) along \(\vec{F}\)
(b) along \(\vec{r}\) & \(\vec{F}\)
(c) Perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\)
(d) Perpendicular to both \(\vec{r}\) & \(\vec{F}\)
Answer:
(d) Perpendicular to both \(\vec{r}\) & \(\vec{F}\)

II. Additional Questions:

Question 1.
Explain center of mass for distributed point masses.
Answer:
A point mass is a hypothetical point particle has non zero mass and no size or shape.

Let m₁, m₂, m₃ …. m_n be the point masses with coordinates as x₁, x₂, x₃ ………. x₄ as co-ordinates of
particle of these point masses in the x-direction from origin. The equation for x coordinate of the center of mass is
X_cm = \(\frac{\sum m_{i} x_{i}}{\sum m_{i}}\)
X_mi is the total mass ‘M’ of all particles ∑mi = m.
Hence
X_cm = \(\frac{\sum \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
for y and z coordinates of the center of mass for these distributed point masses
Y_cm = \(\frac{\sum \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{y}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Z_cm = \(\frac{\sum \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{z}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Hence the position of center of mass of these point masses in Cartesian coordinate system is (x_cm + y_cm + z_cm )
In general the position of center of mass can be written in vector from as

is the position vector of center of mass and r_i = x_i\(\hat{i}\) + y_i\(\hat{j}\)+z_i\(\hat{k}\) is the position vector of distributed masses where i, j, k are unit vectors along x, y and z axis respectively.

Question 2.
Explain center of mass of a two-particle system under different cases. Let us consider two-particle system having masses m₁ and m₂ at positions x₁ and x₂ respectively along x-axis. The center of mass can be determined in the following 3 ways based on the choice of the coordinate system.
Answer:
1) When the masses are an the positive x-axis.

The origin in taken arbitrarily so the masses m₁ and m₂ are at positions x₁ and x₂ on positive x-axis. Then the center of mass will also be in the positive x-axis at x cm given by
X_cm = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{x}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{x}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)

2) When the origins coincides with any one of the masses:
When the origin coincides with the point mass m₁ its position x₁ = 0 then

3) When the origin coincides with the center of mass it self

If the origin is made to coincide with center of mass then x_cm = 0.
The mass m₁ is on the negative x-axis
Hence position of x₁ is negative.

This equation is known as principle of moments.

Question 3.
Show that in the absence of any external force the velocity of center of mass remains constant.
Answer:
Suppose an external force F_ext acts an a system of mass M and produces an acceleration. a_cm in its centre of mass. Then
\(\vec { \tau }\)_ext = Ma_{\(\overline { cm }\)}
in the absence of external forces

∴ \(\vec { V }\)_cm = constant. Where \(\vec { V }\)_cm is the velocity at the center of mass

Question 4.
Write expressions for velocity and acceleration at the center of mass.
Answer:
Let \(\vec { V }\)_cm and a_{\(\overline { cm }\)} be the velocity and acceleration at the center of mass respectively

Question 5.
Obtain the relation between torque and angular acceleration.
Answer:

Consider a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis. A point mass’m’ in the body will execute circular motion about the fixed axis. Let ‘f’ be the force acting on the point mass, produces necessary, torque for this rotation. This force \(\vec { f }\) is perpendicular to \(\vec { r }\).
The torque produced by the force on the point mass m about the axis
τ = \(\vec { r }\) x \(\vec { f }\) = rf sin 90
τ = rf
τ = r.ma
= r m (r∝)
= mr²∝
But mr² = I = moment of Inertia
Since a rigid body is made up of many such point masses, the moment of Inertia is the sum of moment of Inertia of all such individual point masses
I = ∑m_ir_i² i
τ = ( ∑m_ir_i²).∝
τ = I∝

Question 6.
Explain principle of moments and state mechanical advantage.
Answer:

Consider a light rod of invisible mass which is pivoted at a point along its length. Let two parallel force f₁ and f₂ act at the two ends at distances, d₁ and d₂ from the point of pivot and normal reaction force N at the point of Pivot. In order to make the red stationary in horizontal position in should be in translational and rotational equilibrium ie both net force and net torque must be zero.
For Net force zero
N-f₁f₂ = 0
N = f₁ + f₂ → (1)
For net torque to be zero
f₁d₁ – f₂d₂ = 0
f₁d₁ = f₂d₂ → (2)
The equation represents principle of moments, ie sum of clockwise moments. Should be equal to sum of anticlockwise moments
Equation (2) can be written as
\(\frac{f_{1}}{f_{2}}\) = \(\frac{d_{2}}{d_{1}}\)
Here the radio \(\frac{d_{2}}{d_{1}}\) = Mechanical advantage.
F₁ is called load and F₂ taken as effort. M.A should be always greater than 1 in F₁ > F₂ so that for less amount of effort, large load can be lifted.

Question 7.
What is a rigid body?
Answer:
A rigid body is one which maintains its definite and fixed shape even when an external force acts on it.

Question 8.
Why do we prefer to use a wrench of longer arm?
Answer:
The torque applied as the nut by the wrench is equal to the force multiplied by the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation. Hence to increase torque a wrench of longer arm is preferred.

Question 9.
A cat is able to land on its feet after a fall. Which principle of physics is being used? Explain.
Answer:
A cat is able to land on its feet after a fall. This is based on the law of conservation of angular momentum. When the cat is about to fall, it curls its body to decrease the moment of inertia and increase its angular velocity. When it lands it stretches out its limbs. By which it increases its moment of inertia and inturn decreases its angular velocity. Hence, the cat lands safely.

Question 10.
The bottom of the ship is made heavy. Why?
Answer:
The bottom of the ship is made heavy so that the centre of gravity remains low. This ensures stability.

Question 11.
What is the advantage of fly wheel?
Answer:
In case of a fly wheel the whole mass is practically near the nm which is situated for away from the axis of rotation. This is done to increase the moment of inertia of the wheel there by making the motion smooth and less Jerkey.

Question 12.
There is a stick half of which is wooden and half is of steel. It is pivoted at the wooden end and a force is applied at the steel end at right angles to the length. Next it is pivoted at steel end and same force is applied at the wooden end. In which case it the angular acceleration more and why?
Answer:
The distribution of mass faster away in first case compared with second case. So moment of Inertia is more in first case than second case. Applied torque is same in both cases. As τ =I∝, ∝ = τ/I, and ∝ = 1/I. So angular acceleration is less in first case than second.

Question 13.
Can the couple act on a rigid body produce translator motion?
Answer:
No. It can produce only rotatory motion.

Question 14.
A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. what will be new angular momentum if its angular frequency is doubled.
Answer:
Kinetic energy halved?
Rot K.E = k = 1/2 Iw²
∵ I = \(\frac{2 k}{w^{2}}\)
Angular momentum
L = Iw = \(\frac{2 k}{w^{2}}\) w = \(\frac { 2k }{ w }\)
when the angular frequency in doubled and K.E is halved the angular momentum becomes.

Question 15.
How will you distinguish between a hand boiled egg and a raw egg by spinning it on a table top?
Answer:
Hand boiled egg acts just like a rigid body while rotating while not in the case of raw egg to the liquid matter present in it. In raw egg the liquid water tries to go away from the center, there by increasing moment of Inertia. As the moment of inertia increases the raw egg will spin with less angular acceleration provided same torque applied in both cases thus hand boiled egg will spin faster.

Question 16.
From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular disc of radius R / 2 is cut out. The center of the hole is at R / 2 from the center of original disc. Locate the center of gravity of the resultant flat body.
Answer:
Center of mass of resulting portion lies at R/6 from the center of the original disc in a direction opposite to the center of the cutout portion.

Question 17.
Two identical cylinders run a race starting from rest at the top of an inclined plane, one slides without rolling, other rolls without slipping. Assuming that no mechanical energy is dissipated as heat which are will win?
Solution:
(1) When cylinder slides without rolling E = 1/2 mv²
∵ v = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 E}{m}}\)

(2) When the cylinder rolls with out slipping.

As v = v¹ therefore the sliding cylinder will win the race.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 18 Business Ethics and Corporate Governance Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 18 Business Ethics and Corporate Governance

11th Commerce Guide Business Ethics and Corporate Governance Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE
I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following helps in maximising sale of goods to society?
a) Business success
b) laws and regulations
c) Ethics
d) Professional management
Answer:
c) Ethics

Question 2.
Ethics is important for ………….
a) Top management
b) Middle level managers
c) Non managerial employees
d) All of them
Answer:
d) All of them

Question 3.
Which of the following does not ensure effective ethical practices in a business enterprise
a) Publication of a code
b) involvement of employees
c) Establishment of compliance mechanisms
d) none of them
Answer:
a) Publication of a code

Question 4.
The role of top management is to guide t entire organisation towards ………….
a) General behaviour
b) Organisavtion behaviour
c) Ethically upright behaviour
d) Individual behaviour
Answer:
c) Ethically upright behaviour

Question 5.
The ethical conduct of employees leading to standard practices results in
a) good behaviour
b) bad behaviour
c) ethical behaviour
d) correct decision making
Answer:
d) correct decision making

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is ethics?
Answer:
Ethics is derived from the Greek word ‘ethos’ which means a person’s fundamental orientation towards life. It governs the behaviour, derived from the moral standards which help to determine right or wrong, good or evil.

Question 2.
What do you mean by code?
Answer:
The organisation principles are defined in the written document called code. Code of ethics documents, the generally accepted principles of ethical conduct. It includes the values and principles which define the purpose of an organization. It gives a clear picture of the standards the employees should follow. It helps in the process of decision making.

Question 3.
State two ways by which ethics influence behavior:
Answer:
Ethical behaviour is the acts consistent with the moral standards or codes of conduct established by society.

Question 4.
What is the need for Corporate Governance?
Answer:
The concept of Corporate Governance maintains a balance among individual goals, societal goals, economic goals, and social goals. It lays emphasis on ethics, fair business practices, transparency, disclosure, and conduct of business for the benefit of the stakeholders. This is the need for corporate governance.

Question 5.
What are MNCs?
Answer:
MNC is defined to be an enterprise operating in several countries but managed from one country. A multinational corporation is an organization doing business in more than one country.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define business ethics.
Answer:
Business ethics may be defined as a set of moral standards to be followed by owners, managers, and business people. These standards determine the conduct and behaviour of business people. Business ethics reflects the conduct in the context of business.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the concept of business ethics?
Answer:
Ethics is derived from the Greek word ‘ethos’ which means a person’s fundamental orientation towards life. It governs the behaviour, derived from the moral standards which help to determine right or wrong, good or evil. Ethical behaviour is the act consistent with the moral standards or codes of conduct established by society. It may change over time and differ from culture to culture. For example, political bribes or payoffs may be acceptable in one culture but not in other. Ethical issues are inevitable in business.

Question 3.
Why is ethics necessary in business?
Answer:
All business units have realized that ethics is vitally important for the existence and progress of the business as well as the society. It is very important as it improves the public image, earns public confidence, and leads to greater success. Ethics and profits go together in the long run. It enhances the quality of life, the standard of living, and business.

Question 4.
What is the benefit of Corporate Governance to Share Holders?
Answer:
The following are the benefits of Corporate Governance.

• It ensures the stable growth of organizaions.
• It helps in improving the investors’ confidence and enables the raising of capital.
• It has a positive impact on the share price.
• Helps in creating a strong brand as an ethical business.

Question 5.
Illustrate with an example the working of an MNC.
Answer:
Any company is referred to as a multinational company or corporation (M. N. C.) when that company manages its operation or production or service delivery from more than a single country. It has its headquarters based in one country with several other operating branches in different other countries. IBM, Microsoft, Pepsi Co., Sony, etc. are examples of MNC’s.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the different key elements of business ethics.
Answer:
1. Top Management Commitment:
The top management has a very important role to guide the entire organization towards ethical behaviour. The top-level personnel in any organisation should work openly and strongly committed towards ethical conduct and guide people working at middle and low level to follow ethical behaviour.

2. Establishment of Compliance Mechanism:
To make sure that actual decisions match with a firm’s ethical standards, suitable mechanisms should be established..

3. Publication of a “Code”:
Generally, organisations formulate their own ethical codes for the conduct of the enterprise; it should be followed by the employees of the organisation. The organisation principles are defined in the written document called code.

4. Involving Employees at All Levels:
It is the employees at different levels who implement ethics policies to make the ethical business a reality. Therefore, their involvement in ethics programmes becomes a must.

5. Measuring Results:
The organisations from time to time keep a check on ethical practices followed. Although it is difficult to accurately measure the end results of ethics programmes, the firms can certainly audit to monitor compliance with ethical standards.

Question 2.
Describe the code of business ethics.
Answer:
Code of ethics documents the generally accepted principles of ethical conduct. They are statements of values and principles which define the purpose of an organization. It gives a clear picture of the standards that employees should follow It guides them in decision making. The code of business ethics can include the following:

• To offer goods at fair prices.
• To supply quality goods and not to deal in spurious and substandard products.
• To listen to consumer’s complaints and to reduce them.
  Not to raise the price of its products unjustifiably.
• Not to resort to hoarding and black marketing.
• Not to issue advertisement containing false information or exaggerated claims.
• To pay fair wages to its employées and not to exploit them.
• To provide congenial work atmosphere.
• To design production process in such a way as to reduce environmental pollution.
• To keep proper books of accounts and records and to pay taxes regularly of the enables economic.

Question 3.
Explain the significance of Corporate Governance from the point of Stakeholders The following are the significance of Corporate Governance:
Answer:
Balanced economic development is made possible through transparent management under corporate governance. All stakeholders’ interests are protected and promoted through corporate governance. Some of the benefits of corporate governance are as follows.

1. Good corporate governance enables corporate success and economic development.
2. Ensures stable growth of organizations.
3. Aligns the interests of various stakeholders.
4. Improves investors’ confidence and enables raising of capital.
5. Reduces the cost of capital for companies.
6. Has a positive impact on the share price
7. Provides incentives to managers to achieve organizational objectives.
8. Eliminates waste, corruption, risks, and mismanagement.
9. Improves the image of the company.
10. The organization is managed to benefit the stakeholders.
11. Ensures efficient allocation of resources
12. Creates a strong brand as an ethical business.

Question 4.
Discuss the role of International Benchmarking on the working of Companies in India:
Answer:
Benchmarking is comparing one’s business processes and performance metrics to industry bests and best practices from other companies. There are four primary types of benchmarking: internal, competitive, functional, and generic. Internal benchmarking is a comparison of a business process to a similar process inside the organization. Competitive benchmarking is a direct competitor-to-competitor comparison of a product, service, process, or method.
The generic concept is related to the overall performance of the chosen unit of MNC or business. How Benchmarking works:

• Select a product, service, or process to benchmark.
• Identify the key performance metrics.
• Choose companies or internal areas to benchmark.
• Collect data on performance and practices.
• Analyze the data and identify opportunities for improvement.

Question 5.
Describe the benefits of increasing the number of MNCs.
Answer:

1. Considers opportunities throughout the globe though they do the business in a few countries.
2. To invest a considerable portion of their assets internationally.
3. They are a huge industrial / business organisation.
4. It engages in international production and operates plants in a number of countries.
5. They take managerial decisions from a global perspective.
6. They produce in one or a few countries and sell them in most of the countries.
7. Their international operations are integrated into the corporation’s overall business.

The entry of MNC’s into India has proved quite beneficial for the growth and development of the Indian economy providing employment Opportunities for the young generation.

11th Commerce Guide Business Ethics and Corporate Governance Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Ethics governs the ……………..
(a) Behaviour
(b) Ethos
(c) Life
(d) Payoffs
Answer:
(a) Behaviour

Question 2.
What is meant by the phrase CSR?
a) Corporate Social Responsibility
b) Company Social Responsibility
c) Corporate Society
d) Company Society Responsibility
Answer:
a) Corporate Social Responsibility

Question 3.
…………….. has its Headquarters based in one country with several other operating branches in different other countries.
(a) MNC
(b) GDP
(c) Company
(d) Business
Answer:
(a) MNC

Question 4.
The Corporate governance structure of a company reflects the individual companies’……………….
a) Cultural and economic system
b) Legal and business system
c) Social and regulatory system
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

Question 5.
…………….. bench making is a direct competitor-to-competitor comparison of a product, service process, or method.
(a) Internal
(b) Competitive
(c) Functional
(d) Generic
Answer:
(b) Competitive

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of the Greek word ‘ethos’?
Answer:
Ethics is derived from the Greek word ‘ethos’ which means a person’s fundamental orientation towards life.

Question 2.
Define Corporate Governance:
Answer:
According to World Bank, “Corporate governance is about promoting fairness, transparency, and accountability.”

Question 3.
What do you mean by benchmarking?
Answer:
Benchmarking is nothing but a measurement of the quality of an organization’s policies, products, programs, strategies, etc., and their comparison with standard measurements, or similar measurements of its peers.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Corporate Governance?
Answer:
Corporate Governance is the system by which businesses are directed and controlled in the best interests of ah stakeholders. Corporate Governance lays emphasis on ethics, fair business practices, transparency, disclosure, and conduct of business for the benefit of all stakeholders.

Question 2.
Define MNC:
Answer:
In the words of Neil H. Jacoby, “A multinational corporation owns and manages the business in two or more countries”

Question 3.
Explain the types of Benchmarking:
Answer:
There are four primary types of benchmarking: internal, competitive, functional, and generic. Internal benchmarking is a comparison of a business process to a similar process inside the organization. Competitive benchmarking is a direct competitor-to-competitor comparison of a product, service, process, or method.

Functional benchmarking is a comparison to similar or identical practices within the same or similar functions outside the immediate industry. The generic concept is related to the overall performance of the chosen unit of MNC or business.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the benefits of Corporate Governance:
Answer:
The following are the benefits of corporate governance:

• Good corporate governance enables corporate success and economic development.
• Ensures stable growth of organizations.
• Aligns the interests of various stakeholders.
• Improves investors’ confidence and enables raising of capital.
• Reduces the cost of capital for companies.
• Has a positive impact on the share price
• Provides incentives to managers to achieve organizational objectives.
• Eliminates waste, corruption, risks, and mismanagement.
• Improves the image of the company.
• The organization is managed to benefit the stakeholders.
• Ensures efficient allocation of resources.
• Creates a strong brand as an ethical business.

Question 2.
Explain the elements/features of MNCs:
Answer:
The main features or elements of MNCs are as follows:

• Considers opportunities throughout the globe though they do the business in a few countries.
• To invest a considerable portion of their assets internationally.
• They are a huge industrial/business organization.
• It engages in international production and operates plants in a number of countries.
• They take managerial decisions from a global perspective.
• They produce in one or a few countries and sell them in most of the countries.
• Their international operations are integrated into the corporation’s overall business.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 17 Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 17 Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics

11th Commerce Guide Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which type of Responsibility gives the benefit to the Society out of its profits earned?
a) Legal
b) Ethical
c) Moral
d) Economic
Answer:
c) Moral

Question 2.
The Stakeholders of Socially Responsible business units are except
a) Share Holders
b) Employees
c) Government
d) Company
Answer:
d) Company

Question 3.
Assuming Social Responsibility of business helps the enterprise in
a) Increase profit
b) Decrease profit
c) Sustainability
d) Equilibrium
Answer:
c) Sustainability

Question 4.
Socially Responsible business provides goods at
a) high price
b) low price
c) reasonable price
d) moderate price
Answer:
c) reasonable price

Question 5.
Social Responsibility towards employees represents the following except
a) Reasonable remuneration
b) proper facilities
c) Social security
d) exploitation
Answer:
d) exploitation

II. Very Short Answer Question

Question 1.
What do you mean by Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The term social responsibility is defined in various ways. Every businessman earns prosperity from business and should give back the benefit of this prosperity to society.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of Social Power.
Answer:
The decisions and actions taken by the businessmen affect the lives and fortunes of society. All the businessmen have considerable social power. The important matters as level of employment, rate of economic progress, and distribution of income among the various groups are determined by the business people. This is known as social power.

Question 3.
What is a free enterprise?
Answer:
A business enterprise which accepts and discharges social obligations enjoys greater freedom. Thus, social responsibilities are essential for avoiding governmental action against business. Such action will reduce the freedom of decision making in business.

Question 4.
Who are called Stakeholders?
Answer:
A business organization is a combination of several interest groups or stakeholders. Shareholders, customers, employees, suppliers, government and its agencies unions, and the community from which the business draws its resources, etc. are called stakeholders.

Question 5.
What is ethical Responsibility?
Answer:
Ethical Responsibility includes the behaviour of the firm that is expected by society but not codified in law. For example, respecting the religious sentiments and dignity of people while advertising for a product. There is an element of voluntary action in performing this responsibility.

III. Short Answer Question

Question 1.
Define the Concept of Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The term social responsibility is defined in various ways. Every businessman earns prosperity from business and should give back the benefit of this prosperity to society. This is voluntary. This benefit is the moral responsibility of business. As this benefit is supposed to be passed on to society, it can be said to be the social responsibility of business.

Question 2.
Why you do think the Social Responsibility of business is needed?
Answer:
1. Self – Interest: A business unit can sustain itself in the market for a longer period only by assuming some social obligations. Normally businessmen recognize that they can succeed better by fulfilling the demands and aspirations of society.

2. Creation of Society: Business is a creation of society and uses the resources of society. Therefore, it should fulfill its obligations to society.

Question 3.
What are the benefits derived by employees of a Socially Responsible business enterprise?
Answer:
The benefits derived by employees of a socially responsible business enterprise include:

• Timely and regular payment of wages and salaries.
• Proper working conditions and welfare amenities.
• Opportunity for better career prospects.
• Job security as well as social security like facilities of provident fund, group insurance, pension, retirement benefits, etc.
• Better living conditions like housing, transport, canteen, arches, etc.
• Timely training and development.

Question 4.
Enumerate the points relating to why business units are Socially Responsible?
Answer:

1. Protection of Stakeholders Interest
2. Promotion of Society
3. Assessment of Social Impact

Question 5.
List the kinds of Social Responsibility.
Answer:
The following are the various kinds of social responsibility:

• Economic Responsibility
• Legal Responsibility
• Ethical Responsibility
• Discretionary Responsibility

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the concept and need for Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The term social responsibility is defined in various ways. Every businessman earns prosperity from business and should give back the benefit of this prosperity to society. This is voluntary. This benefit is the moral responsibility of business. As this benefit is supposed to be passed on to society, it can be said to be the social responsibility of business.

Need:

1. Self – Interest: A business unit can sustain in the market for a longer period only by assuming some social obligations. Normally businessmen recognize that they can succeed better by fulfilling the demands and aspirations of society.
2. Creation of Society: Business is a creation of society. Therefore, it should fulfill its obligations to society.
3. Social Power: Businessmen have considerable social power. Their decisions and actions affect the lives and fortunes of society.
4. Image in the Society: A business can improve its image in public by assuming social obligations, good relations with workers, consumers, and suppliers help in the success of the business.

Question 2.
Illustrate with examples the arguments for Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The following are the main arguments for social responsibility:

Protection of Stakeholders Interest:
A business organization is a coalition of several interest groups or stakeholders. Example — shareholders, customers, employees, suppliers, etc. The business should, therefore, work for the interest of áll of them rather than for the benefit of shareholders/owners alone.

Promotion of Society:
Business is a sub-system of society. It draws support and šustenance from society in the form of inputs. Socially responsible behavior is essential to sustain this relationship between business and society. During the course of its functioning, a business enterprise makes several decisions and actions. Its activities exercise a strong influence on the interests and values of society. Businesses must fulfill social obligations as compensation for undermining the legitimate interests of society.

Organized Social Power:
Large corporations have acquired tremendous social power through their multifarious operations. Social power may be misused in the absence of social responsibility. There should be an equilibrium between social power and social responsibility.

Legitimacy:
It is in the enlightened self-interest of businesses to assume social responsibility. Social responsibility legitimizes and promotes the economic objectives of the business. By improving social life, businesses can obtain better customers, employees, and neighbors. Social responsibility thus builds good citizenship as well as good business.

Competence:
Business organizations and their managers have proved their competence and leadership in solving economic problems. Society expects them to use their competence to solve social problems and thereby play a leadership role.

Professional Conduct:
Professional managers are required to display a keen social sensitivity and serve society as a whole. Social responsibility is one of the professional demands on managers. They adhere to the code of conduct and ethics applicable to their respective area of operation.

Public Opinion:
Adoption of social responsibility as an objective will help to improve the public opinion of the business. A good public image is a valuable asset for the business. For example maintaining parks, traffic islands, and organizing awareness camps, etc.

Question 3.
What are the arguments against Social Responsibility?
Answer:
Critics of the Social Responsibility concept put forward the following arguments:

Lack of Conceptual Clarity:
The concept of Social responsibility is very vague and amenable to different interpretations. There is no consensus on its meaning and scope. In such a situation, it would be futile as well as risky to accept social responsibility.

Dilution of Economic Goals:
By accepting social responsibility, businesses will compromise with economic goals. Business is an economic institution and its only responsibility is to make maximum possible profits for its owners. It would endanger its economic viability by accepting any other responsibility.

Lack of Social Skill:
Business organisations and their managers are not familiar with social affairs. There are special social service organisations such as Government and Non-Governmental Agencies which can better deal with social problems.

The burden on Consumers:
If a business deals with social problems, the cost of doing business would increase. These costs will be passed on to consumers in the form of higher prices or will have to be borne by owners. This would lead to taxation without representation.

Responsibility:
Without Power, Business organisations possess only economic power and not social power. It is unjust to impose social responsibilities with social power. If the business is allowed to intervene in social affairs it may perpetuate its own value system to the detriment of society.

Misuse of Responsibilities:
Acceptance of social responsibilities will involve the diversion of precious managerial time and talent on social action programs. It may result in the dilution of valuable corporate resources.

Lack of Yard-stick:
Profitability is the common criteria for decision-making in business. Tampering it with social responsibility would make the decision-making process quite complex and controversial.

Improper Role:
The proper role of a business is to use its resources and energies efficiently so as to earn the best possible return on investment within the confines of law and ethics. The business should concentrate on economic performance leaving social service to other organisations.

Over Loading:
Responsibility Business organisations are already serving society by providing goods and services, generating employment, developing technology, and contributing to the public exchequer through tax payments. It would be unjust to overburden them with further responsibilities.

Question 4.
Discuss the different groups that benefited from the Social Responsibility of business?
Answer:

1. Lack of Conceptual Clarity: The concept of Social responsibility is very vague and amenable to different interpretations.
2. Dilution of Economic Goals: By accepting social responsibility, the business will compromise with economic goals.
3. Lack of Social Skill: Business organisations and their managers are not familiar with social affairs.
4. The burden on Consumers: If a business deals with social problems, the cost of doing business would increase.
5. Responsibility without Power: Business organisations possess only economic power and not social power. It is unjust to impose social responsibilities with social power.
6. Misuse of Responsibilities: Acceptance of social responsibilities will involve the diversion of precious managerial time and talent on social action programmes.
7. Lack of Yardstick: Profitability is the common criteria for decision-making in business.
8. Improper Role: The proper role of a business is to use its resources and energies efficiently so as to earn the best possible return on investment within the confines of law and ethics.
9. Over Loading Responsibility: Business organisations are already serving society by providing goods and services, generating employment, developing technology, and contributing to the public exchequer through tax payments.

Question 5.
How do you classify Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The social responsibility of business can be broadly divided into four categories. They are as follows:
Economic responsibility:
Businesses are meant to be economic units. A business enterprise is basically an economic entity and, therefore, its primary social responsibility is economic. Economic activities include the activity of production of goods and services that society wants and sell at a profit.

Legal Responsibility:
Every business has a responsibility to operate within the laws of the land. Since these laws are meant for the good of society, a law-abiding enterprise is a socially responsible enterprise as well.

Ethical Responsibility:
This includes the behaviour of the firm that is expected by society but not categorized in law. For example, respecting the religious sentiments and dignity of people while advertising for a product. There is an element of voluntary action in performing this responsibility.

Discretionary Responsibility:
This refers to the purely voluntary obligation that an enterprise assumes, for instance, providing charitable contributions to educational institutions or helping the affected people during floods or earthquakes. It is the responsibility of the company management to safeguard the capital investment by avoiding speculative activity and undertaking only healthy business ventures which give good returns on investment.

11th Commerce Guide Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Management of business enterprises is being
(a) Professionalism
(b) Law and order
(c) Free enterprise
(d) Public awareness
Answer:
(a) Professionalism

Question 2.
Ethics are moral principles and values which …………………
a) guide a firm’s behaviour
b) govern the actions of an individual
c) provide employees with rules on how to behave
d) are legally enforceable.
Answer:
b) govern the actions of an individual

Question 3.
The management today is usually sensitive to issues of social responsibility and ethical behaviour because of ……………..
a) Interest Groups
b) Legal and governmental concerns
c) Medical coverage
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Legal and governmental concerns

Question 4.
Business ethics deals primarily with …………………
a) social responsibility
b) the pricing of products and services
c) moral obligation
d) being unfair to the competition
Answer:
c) moral obligation

Question 5.
The factors causing ethical behaviour in business are …………….
a) Government Law
b) Government Policies
c) Public Awareness
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

Question 6.
The word Ethics is derived from the Greek word ……………
a) ethos
b) eccos
c) ethicos
d) ehos
Answer:
a) ethos

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is Legal responsibility?
Answer:
Every business has a responsibility to operate within the laws of the land. Since these laws are meant for the good of society, a law-abiding enterprise is a socially responsible enterprise as well.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define Social Responsibility:
Answer:
In the words of Peter F.Drucker, “Social Responsibility requires managers to consider whether their action is likely to promote the public good, to advance the basic beliefs of our society, to contribute to its stability, strength, and harmony”.

Question 2.
What are all the facilities that should be provided to the customers?
Answer:

• Products and services must be able to take care of the needs of the customers.
• Products and services must be qualitative.
• There must be regularity in the supply of goods and services.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain Corporate Social Responsibility in India with an example:
Answer:
Tata Group is the best example of corporate social responsibility in India. The Tata Group conglomerate in India carries out various CSR projects, most of which are community improvement and poverty alleviation programs. Through self-help groups, it is engaged in women empowerment activities, income generation, rural community development, and other social welfare programs. In the field of education, the Tata Group provides scholarships and endowments for numerous institutions.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 16 Emerging Service Business in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 16 Emerging Service Business in India

11th Commerce Guide Emerging Service Business in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A continuing relationship which provides a licence privileges to do business and provides training, merchandising for a consideration is called ………..
a) Franchising
b) Factoring
c) Supply Chain Management
d) Exchange
Answer:
a) Franchising

Question 2.
A condition where a factor agrees to provide complete set of services like financing, debt collection, and consultancy is called …………….
a) Maturity factoring
b) National Factoring
c) Full service Factoring
d) Recourse Factoring
Answer:
c) Full service Factoring

Question 3.
Buying and selling of goods through electronic network is known as ………
a) E-commerce
b) internet
c) Website
d) Trade
Answer:
a) E-commerce

Question 4.
An organization carrying out activities to move goods from producer to consumer is …………….
a) Transport
b) Logistics
c) Channels
d) Marketing
Answer:
a) Transport

Question 5.
The role of government in logistics management is through ……………….
a) Legislations
b) Governance
c) Transport
d) Distribution
Answer:
d) Distribution

Question 6.
The main benefit of Logistics is ……………….
a) Productivity
b) Cost Minimisation
c) Profitability
d) Storage
Answer:
b) Cost Minimisation

Question 7.
What aims for an effective management response over the longer run ……………………
a) Logistics
b) Supply Chain Management
c) Demand
d) Supply
Answer:
a) Logistics

Question 8.
The model that identifies alternatives, criteria for decision making and analyse alternatives to arrive at the best choice is
a) Routing Model
b) Scheduling Model
c) Inventory Model
d)Altemative Analysis
Answer:
b) Scheduling Model

Question 9.
A company under outsourcing tránsfers activities which are ……………….
a) Core
b) Non-core
c) Business
d) Non business
Answer:
b) Non-core

Question 10.
Business units can reduce expenditure by outsourcing front office work like ……………
a) Paper work
b) File work
c) Billing
d) Manufacturing
Answer:
b) File work

Question 11.
Outsourcing job is given to developing countries specifically for ……………….
a) Cheap labour
b) Land
c) Capital
d) Factors
Answer:
a) Cheap labour

Question 12.
Outsourcing is carried out for the benefit of ……….
a) Global village
b) Transport
c) Factor
d) Time and money
Answer:
d) Time and money

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is a franchisee?
Answer:
The individual who acquires the right to operate the business or use the trademark of the seller is known as a tire franchisee.

Question 2.
State two disadvantages of franchising?
Answer:

1. Reduced risk: The franchisee will acquire the right of running an already established business, thus eliminating the risk of starting a new business.
2. Operational support: The franchisee is provided assistance not only in obtaining finance but also in deciding the business location, decor/design, staff training,’ and handling day-to-day operations.

Question 3.
Who is a factor?
Answer:
The factor is an agent who buys the accounts receivables (Debtors and Bills Receivables) of a firm and provides finance to a firm to meet its working capital requirements.

Question 4.
Define outsourcing.
Answer:
Outsourcing is a business practice used by companies to reduce costs or improve efficiency by shifting tasks, operations, jobs, or processes to an external contracted third party for a significant period of time.

Question 5.
What is the need for outsourcing?
Answer:

1. To focus on a key function
2. The benefit of specialization/efficiency
3. Cost-cutting
4. Economic growth and development
5. Increasing profit
6. Catering to the dynamic demand

Question 6.
State the importance of BPO.
Answer:
BPO refers to outsourcing in all fields. It usually administers and manages a particular commercial enterprise process for the employer. It is an important component of the business strategy of major organizations worldwide. It helps in cost reduction, productivity growth, and innovative capabilities.

Question 7.
What are the benefits of KPO?
Answer:
In short, KPO firms get knowledge related, information related, work done from the outside firm and it involves high-value work carried a highly skilled staff.

Question 8.
Define Logistics.
Answer:
The logical extension of transportation and related areas to achieve an efficient and effective goods distribution system is known as logistics. According to the council of supply chain management professionals, “Logistics is the process of planning, implementing and controlling procedures for the efficient and effective transportation of the products.

Question 9.
What is the need for Logistics?
Answer:
Logistics Management is defined as ‘Design and operation of the physical, managerial, and informational systems needed to allow goods to overcome time and space (from the producer to the consumer)’.

Question 10.
Write about the importance of Logistics.
Answer:

• It is a most basic form
• It has the control and supervision of “the movement of the goods.
• It helps in improving customer service.
• It increases the revenue
• It helps in reducing overall transportation costs.
• It helps in improving the operating cost structure.

Question 11.
What are the types of Logistics Applications?
Answer:
Logistics Management can be classified on the basis of applications from various dimensions in the process of examining and evaluating alternatives. They are

• Decision-wise
• Inbound logistics
• Actor-wise
• Outbound logistics

Question 12.
What do you mean by e-commerce?
Answer:
E-commerce or Electronic commerce is the buying and selling of goods and services through electronic networks like the internet.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the types of franchising?
Answer:

1. Product/trade name franchising: In this type, the franchisee exclusively deals with a manufacture’s product, for example, Kidzee, French Loaf outlets.
2. Business format franchising: When a franchisor awards rights covering all business aspects as a complete business package to the franchisee it is called business format franchising, for example, McDonald’s, Pizza Hut.

Question 2.
List the steps in the factoring process.
Answer:
The following are the process in factoring:

The firm enters into a factoring arrangement with a factor, which is generally a financial institution, for invoice purchasing.
Whenever goods are sold on a credit basis, an invoice is raised and a copy of the same is sent to the factor.

The debt amount due to the firm is transferred to the factor through the assignment and the same is intimated to the customer. On the due date, the amount is collected by the factor from the customer. After retaining the service fees, the remaining amount is sent to the firm by the factor.

Question 3.
Describe the benefits of Logistics.
Answer:
Generally, good transportation, storage, handling, and information infrastructure help inefficient logistics management. All firms are viewed as a collection of primary and secondary activities.

Question 4.
Explain the points of differences between Logistics and Supply Chain Management.
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the impact of e-commerce on buyers?
Answer:

1. Buyers could have global access to information about a variety of products and services available in the market.
2. They could buy the products/services round the clock from anywhere in the world.
3. The prices of products bought through e-commerce tend to be relatively lower than those purchased physically in the conventional shops due to offers, discounts, etc.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Enumerate the characteristics of franchising.
Answer:

1. A franchise relationship is based on an agreement which lays down the terms and conditions of this relationship.
2. The term of the franchise may be for 5 years or more. The franchise agreement may be renewed with the mutual consent of the parties.
3. The franchisee gives an undertaking not to carry any other competing business during the term of the franchise, and the franchiser gives an undertaking not to terminate the franchise agreement before its expiry except under situations that may justify the termination of the franchise agreement.
4. The franchisee agrees to pay specified royalty to the franchiser, as per the terms of the franchise agreement.
5. Franchise means selling the same product and maintaining a similar type of shop decor (i.e. style of interior decoration) for which the franchiser provides assistance to the franchisee in organizing, merchandising, and management.

Question 2.
Elucidate the features of factoring.
Answer:
Meaning: Factoring implies a financial arrangement between the factor and client, in which the firm (client) gets advances in return for receivables, from a financial institution (factor).
Features of Factoring:

• Maintenance of book-debts: A factor takes the responsibility of maintaining the accounts of debtors of a business institution.
• Credit coverage: The factor accepts the risk burden of loss of bad debts leaving the seller to concentrate on his core business.
• Cash advances: Around eighty percent of the total amount of accounts receivables is paid as advance cash to the client.
• Collection service: Issuing reminders, receiving part-payments, collecting cheques form part of the factoring service.
• Advice to clients: From the past history of debtors, the factor is able to provide advice regarding the creditworthiness of customers, perception of customers about the products of the client, etc.

Question 3.
Describe the benefits of Outsourcing.
Answer:

1. Focusing on Core Activities: Companies can focus on their core competence, a few areas, where the company has a distinct capability. The rest of the activities (non – core) can be outsourced to outside agencies.
2. To Fillip Economic Development: Outsourcing stimulates entrepreneurship, encourages employment opportunities, expands exports, enables tremendous growth of the economy.
3. Encourages Employment Opportunities: Companies that are outsourcing their non-core activities provide chances for other small business units to take up the activities. This paves way for more job opportunities and new employment avenues.
4. Reduction in Investment: Companies through outsourcing avails the services of outsiders which in turn reduces the investment requirements. The amount so available can be utilized productively and this increases the profits.
5. Quest for Excellence: Outsourcing enables the firms to pursue excellence in two ways namely excelling themselves in the activities they do and excel outsiders by extending their capabilities through contracting out.

Question 4.
Explain the points of differences between BPO and KPO?
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing:
BPO refers to the outsourcing of non-primary activities of the organization to an external organization to minimize cost and increase efficiency It provides services related to marketing, human resources, customer support, and technical support, etc.

Knowledge Process Outsourcing:
KPO is another kind of outsourcing whereby, functions related to knowledge and information are outsourced to third-party service providers It is a process that involves knowledge-related work handed over to the outside party. The fine line difference between BPO and KPO is explained in the following table.

Question 5.
Write a note on e-commerce models.
Answer:
1. Business to customers (B2C):
This is the fastest-growing segment in e-commerce spare. Under this model, business concern sells directly to consumers.

2. Business to Business (B2B):
Under the model, business concerns transact with one another through the internet. For instance, Snapdeal, Flipkart, Alibaba, Indiamart, Tradelndia.com, etc.

3. Consumer to consumer (C2C):
Under this model, customers sell directly to other customers through online classified advertisement or through auction or through mobile or through market places. For example, Indian ventures in C2C are Kraftly App (buying and selling anythings) which deals in handmade products of a wide range. Onceagainstore.com is a website that buys pre-owned women’s fashion products. Other players are Quikr, OLX, ebay, etc.

4. Customer to Business (C2B):
This model is reverse to the auction model. Products like automobiles, electronic items furniture, and similar product are traded by customers through websites. Naukri.com and Monster.com are examples of Indian Companies operating in this domain.

5. Business to Government (B2G):
This model envisages selling products and services by the business consumers to Government organizations. For instance, TCS operates the passport application process for the Government of India as a part of offline process.

11th Commerce Guide Emerging Service Business in India Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
There are …………….. parties to a franchising agreement.
(a) two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(a) two

Question 2.
The Factoring Regulation act was established in the year …………..
a) 2014
b) 2013
c) 2016
d) 2011
Answer:
d) 2011

Question 3.
Factoring means ……………..
(a) to make or do
(b) to work
(c) for credit
(d) for debit
Answer:
(a) to make or do

Question 4.
‘Facere’ means
a) to make or do
b) to produce
c) to assemble
d) to receive
Answer:
a) to make or do

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is E-Business?
Answer:
E-Business is a broader term which includes an internal and external transaction of an organization across the internet.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Maturity factoring?
Answer:
The factor agrees to finance the firm only after collecting the amount on maturity from debtors.

Question 3.
Mention any two advantages of franchising.
Answer:

1. Reduces risk
2. Business expansion.

III. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
What is the impact of e-commerce on vendors?
Answer:

1. Vendors could have wider access to customers across the globe.
2. This helps minimize the cost of operating business due to direct distribution of goods to end consumers thanks to the minimum invention of intermediaries.
3. The vendor could interact with multiple buyers and sellers.

Question 2.
What are the elements of Logistics Cost?
Answer:
The important elements of logistics cost are Product Inventory at source, Pipeline Inventory, Product Inventory at warehouses and dealers, Transit Losses/Insurance, Storage Losses/ Insurance, Handling and Warehouse operations, Packaging, Transportation, Customer’s Shopping.

Question 3.
Explain Core and Non-Core activities:
Answer:
A core activity involves experience, expertise, efficiency, and even investment in the field of specialization. Non- Core activities can be outsourced to outsiders who are specialists in their area of operation.

Question 4.
What is the impact of E-Commerce on Vendors?
Answer:

• Vendors could have wider access to customers across the globe.
• This helps to minimize the cost of operating
• business due to direct distribution of goods to end consumers thanks to the minimum invention of intermediaries.
• The vendor could interact with multiple buyers and sellers.
• Business concerns could orient marketing efforts towards targeted customers.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the advantages of Franchising:
Answer:
Reduced risk:
The franchisee will acquire the right of running an already established business, thus eliminating the risk of starting a new business.

Business expansion:
Franchising provides an opportunity to expand business at regional, national and global levels without incurring additional expenditure. Thus rapid growth of the franchisor’s business is facilitated.

Cost of advertising:
The cost of advertising for the franchisor will be reduced since this cost will be shared by the franchisee. Moreover, it enables the franchisor to reap the benefits of increased visibility across regional and national boundaries.

Operational support:
The franchisee is provided assistance in not only obtaining finance, but also in deciding the business location, decor /design, staff training, and handling day-to-day operations.

Question 2.
What are the disadvantages of franchising?
Answer:
Franchising fees:
The initial franchising fee and the subsequent renewal fees can be very high in the case of successful businesses. From the franchisee’s point of view, this may be a deterrent.

Fixed royalty payment:
The franchisee has to make payment of royalty to the franchiser on a regular basis. This considerably reduces the income of the franchisee.

The danger of image tarnishing:
If the franchisee does not maintain standards of quality and service; there is a danger that the goodwill and image of the reputed franchiser will be adversely affected.

Lack of freedom:
The franchisee does not have the freedom to run his business in an independent manner. He has to abide by the management and operational policies of the franchiser, Which may serve as a deterrent whether suitable to him or not.

Limitation on a range of products:
The franchisee cannot introduce new product lines into the business, except those permitted by the franchiser. This may mean loss of business to franchisee amidst demands based on local conditions.

Question 3.
Compare Factoring with Forfeiting:
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the features of Outsourcing:
Answer:
Transferring Non-Core Activities to Outsiders:
Companies can outsource those non-core activities functions like maintenance, housekeeping, gardening, etc. to outsiders, depending upon the nature of the business and the activities are identified as core or non-core activities.

Outsourcing Involves Contracting:
As the companies start outsourcing their activities focusing on their main business, the outside agencies enter into an agreement with the company to perform the routine activities on a contractual basis.

Operational Efficiency through Outsourcing:
Companies specialize in their business system as the time available at their disposal can be utilized for the core activities leading to efficiency improving the quality of the product.

Improved Customers Satisfaction:
The number of customers can be increased through timely delivery and high-quality services. Outsourcing helps in customer satisfaction and results in repetitive purchases of the same product.

Cost Reduction:
The only way to survive and earn a profit is through global competitiveness by fixing a competitive price. Division of labour and specialization along with good quality product reduces the cost. For example outsourcing of research and development, manufacturing, software development, etc.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Computer Organization Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 3 Computer Organization

11th Computer Science Guide Computer Organization Text Book Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose the correct, answer :

Question 1.
Which of the following is said to be the brain of a computer?
a) Input devices
b) Output devices
c) Memory device
d) Microprocessor
Answer:
d) Microprocessor

Question 2.
Which of the following is not the part of a microprocessor unit?
a) ALU
b) Control unit
c) Cache memory
d) register
Answer:
c) Cache memory

Question 3.
How many bits constitute a word?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) determined by the processor used
Answer:
d) determined by the processor used

Question 4.
Which of the following device identifies the location when address is placed in the memory address register?
a) Locator
b) encoder
c) decoder
d) multiplexer
Answer:
c) decoder

Question 5.
Which of the following is a CISC processor?
a) Intel P6
b) AMD K6
c) Pentium III
d) Pentium IV
Answer:
c) Pentium III

Question 6.
Which is the fastest memory?
a) Hard disk
b) Main memory
c) Cache memory
d) Blue-Ray dist
Answer:
c) Cache memory

Question 7.
How many memory locations are identified by a processor with 8 bits address bus at a time?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d)
Answer:
c) determined by the processor used

Question 8.
What is tW? capacity of 12 cm diameter DVD with single bided and single layer?
a) 4.7 GB
b) 5.5 GB
c) 7.8 GB
d) 2.2 GB
Answer:
a) 4.7 GB

Question 9.
What is the smallest size of data represented in a CD?
a) blocks
b) sectors
c) pits
d) tracks
Answer:
c) pits

Question 10.
Display devices are connected to the computer through.
a) USB port
b) Ps/2 port
c) SCSI port
d) VGA connector
Answer:
d) VGA connector

Part II

Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the parameters which influence the characteristics of a microprocessor?
Answer:
It depends on (a) Clock speed (b) Instruction set (c) Word size

Question 2.
What is an instruction?
A command which is given to a computer to perform an operation on data is called an instruction.

Question 3.
What is a program counter?
Answer:
A program counter (PC) is a CPU register in the computer processor which has the address of the next instruction to be executed from memory. It is a digital counter needed for faster execution of tasks as well as for tracking the current execution point.

Question 4.
What is HDMI?
Answer:
High-Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/ video interface which transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television, etc.

Question 5.
Which source is used to erase the content of an EPROM?
Answer:
Ultra violet rays are used to erase the contents of EPROM. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents making it possible to reprogram the memory.

Part III

Explain in brief.

Question 1.
Differentiate Computer Organization from Computer Architecture.
Answer:
Differences between computer organization and Computer Architecture:
Computer Organisation:

• Often called microarchitecture (low level).
• Transparent from programmer
• For example a programmer does not worry much about how addition is implemented in hardware
• Physical components (Circuit design. Adders, Signals, Peripherals).

Computer Architecture:

• Computer architecture (a bit higher level)
• Programmer view file. The programmer has to be aware of which instruction set used)
• Logic (Instruction set, Addressing modes, Data types, Cache optimization)

Question 2.
Classify the microprocessor-based on the size of the data.
Answer:
Depending on the data width, microprocessors can process instructions. The microprocessors can be classified as follows:

• 8-bit microprocessor
• 16-bit microprocessor
• 32-bit microprocessor
• 64-bit microprocessor

Question 3.
Write down the classifications of microprocessors based on the instruction set.
Answer:
Classification of Microprocessor-based on the Instruction set:

1. RISC- Reduced Instruction Set Computers.
2. CISC- Complex Instruction set Computers.

Question 4.
Differentiate PROM arid EPROM.
Answer:
An EPROM differs from a PROM. PROM can be written only once and cannot be erased. EPROMs are used widely in personal computers because they enable the manufacturer to change the contents of the PROM to replace with updated versions or erase the contents before the computer is delivered.

Question 5.
Write down the interfaces and ports available In a computer.
Answer:
Interfaces are HDMI interface port, USB 3.0 port, Ports available in the computer: Serial Port. Parallel port, USB ports, VGA connector. Audio plugs, PS/2 port, SCSI Port.

Question 6.
Differentiate CD and DVD.
Answer:

Question 7.
How will you differentiate a flash memory and an EEPROM?
Answer:

Part IV

Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of a microprocessor.
Answer:
(a) Clock speed – Each microprocessor has an internal clock that regulates the speed at which it executes instructions. The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called clock speed. It is measured in MHz or in GHz.

(b) Instructions set – The set of machine-level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called an instruction set. This carries 4 types of operations. They are

• Data transfer
• Arithmetic operations
• Logical Operations
• Control flow
• Input/output

(c) Word size – The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its word size. It determines the amount of RAM that can be accessed at one time and the total number of pins on the microprocessor. The total number of input and output pins in turn determines the architecture of the microprocessor.

Question 2.
Hew the read and write operations are performed by a processor? Explain.
Answer:
The Central Processing Unit(CPU) has a Memory Data Register (MDR) and a Memory Address Register (MAR). The Memory Data Ster (MDR) keeps the data which is transferred between the memory and the CPU.

The Program Counter (PC) is a special register in the CPU which always keeps the address of the instruction to be executed. The Arithmetic [Logic unit of CPU places the address of the |ory to be fetched, into the Memory Address.

A bus is a collection of wires used for communication between the internal components of the computer. The address bus is used to point to a memory location. A decoder, a digital circuit is used to point to the specific memory location where the word can be located.

The address register is connected with the address bus, which provides the address of the instruction. A data bus is used to transfer data between the memory and the CPU. The data bus is bidirectional and the address builds unidirectional.

The control bus controls both read and write operations. The read operation fetches data from memory and transfers to MDR. A single control line performs two operations like Read/Write using 1 or Also, the write operation transfers data from the MDR to memory. This organization is shown in the following Figure.

If the size of the MDR is eight bits, which can be connected with a word in the memory which is also eight bits size. The data bus has eight parallel wires to transfer data either from MDR to word or word to MDR based on the control(Read or write). This control line is labeled as R/W, which becomes 1 means READ operation and 0 means WRITE operation.

The read operation transfers the data(bits) from word to Memory Data Register. The write operation transfers the data(bits) from Memory Data Register to the word.

Question 3.
Arrange the memory devices ¡n ascending order based on the access time.
Answer:
Different memory devices are arranged according to the capacity, speed, and cost as shown in the following Figure.

The memory devices in ascending order based on the access time:

• Hard disk
• Main memory (RAM)
• Cache memory

Question 4.
Explain the types of ROM.
Answer:
Read-Only Memory (ROM):

1. Read-Only Memory refers to special memory in a computer with pre-recorded data at manufacturing time that cannot be modified.
2. The stored programs that start the computer and perform diagnostics are available in ROMs. ROM stores critical programs such as the program that boots the computer.
3. Once the data has been written onto a ROM chip, it cannot be modified or removed and can only be read.
4. ROM retains its contents even when the computer is turned off. So, ROM is called non-volatile memory.

Programmable Read-Only Memory (PROM):

1. Programmable read-only memory is also a non-volatile memory on which data can be written only once. Once a program has been written onto a PROM, it remains there forever.
2. Unlike the main memory, PROMs retain their contents even when the computer is turned off.
3. The PROM differs from ROM. PROM is manufactured as blank memory, whereas a ROM is programmed during the manufacturing process itself.
4. A PROM programmer or a PROM burner is used to write data to a PROM chip. The process of programming a PROM is called burning the PROM.

Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EPROM):

1. Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of memory which serves as a PROM, but the content can be erased using ultraviolet rays.
2. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents, making it possible to reprogram the memory.
3. An EPROM differs from a PROM, PROM can be written only once and cannot be erased.
4. EPROMs are used widely in personal computers because they enable the manufacturer to change the contents of the PROM to replace with updated versions or erase the contents before the computer is delivered.

Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EEPROM):

1. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electrical charge.
2. Like other types of PROM, EEPROM retains its contents even when the power is turned off.
3. Comparing with all other types of ROM, EEPROM is slower in performance.

11th Computer Science Guide Computer Organization Additional Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose the correct, answer.

Question 1.
The ………………. is the major component of a computer, which performs all taks.
(a) CPU
(b) MDR
(c) MAR
(d) RISC
Answer:
(a) CPU

Question 2.
Computer organization includes __________
a) Input / Output devices
b) Central Processing Unit
c) storage devices and primary memory
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 3.
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called ……………….
(a) word size
(b) CPU
(c) Data transfer
(d) CISC
Answer:
(a) word size

Question 4.
__________ deals with the hardware components that are transparent to the programmer.
a) Computer organization
b) Computer architecture
c) Computer Science
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Computer organization

Question 5.
………………. is a magnetic disk on which you can store data.
(a) compact disc
(b) hard disk
(c) DVD
(d) flash memory devices
Answer:
(b) hard disk

Question 6.
In a computer, __________ performs all tasks.
a) ALU
b) CPU
c) Input devices
d) All the above
Answer:
b) CPU

Question 7.
………………. connect the hard disk drives and network connectors.
(a) PS/2 port
(b) SCSI port
(c) USB port
(d) serial port
Answer:
(b) SCSI port

Question 8.
The first general-purpose microprocessor, 4004 was developed by __________
a) Intel Inc
b) Apple Inc
c) BBC Micro
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Intel Inc

Question 9.
The microprocessors were first introduced in early ……………….
(a) 1976
(b) 1975
(c) 1970
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1970

Question 10.
__________ is driven by clock pulses,
a) Transistor
b) Vacuum tube
c) Microprocessor
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Microprocessor

Question 11.
Which one of the following deals with hardware components of a computer system.
(a) Computer organisation
(b) Computer architecture
(c) System software
(d) Application software
Answer:
(a) Computer organisation

Question 12.
__________ is the main unit of a microprocessor.
a) ALU
b) registers
c) control unit
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 13.
The first general-purpose microprocessor was ……………….
(a) IBM 2002
(b) IBM 1620
(c) Intel 4004
(d) Intel 4002
Answer:
(c) Intel 4004

Question 14.
_________ control the overall operations of the computer through signals.
a) ALU
b) registers
c) control unit
d) All the above
Answer:
c) control unit

Question 15.
Which of the following temporarily holds the instructions and data for the execution of the processor.
(a) ALU
(b) CU
(c) Registers
(d) RAM
Answer:
(c) Registers

Question 16.
The __________is able to communicate with the memory units and the Input / Output devices.
a) transistor
b) vacuum tube
c) microprocessor
d) None of these
Answer:
c) microprocessor

Question 17.
The system bus is a collection of ……………….
(a) address bus
(b) data bus
(c) control bus
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 19.
MHz arid GHz are the units of ……………….
(a) clock speed
(b) instruction set
(c) Word size
(d) system bus
Answer:
(a) clock speed

Question 19.
A Microprocessor’s performance depends on the __________ characteristic.
a) Clock speed
b) Instruction set
c) Word size
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 20.
Hertz – abbreviated as __________.
a) Hz
b) Htz
c) Hrz
d) Hez
Answer:
a) Hz

Question 21.
One hertz is equal to ………………. cycles per second.
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 20
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 22.
Hertz is commonly used to measure __________wave frequency.
a) sound waves
b) light waves
c) radio waves
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 23.
The architecture of the microprocessor is determined by ……………….
(a) total no. of input and output pins
(b) clock speed
(c) word size
(d) instruction set
Answer:
(a) total no. of input and output pins

Question 24.
Sound waves close to 20 Hz have a low pitch and are called __________ frequencies.
a) treble
b) bass
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) bass

Question 25.
Intel 8085 is a ………………. bit processor.
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 26.
__________is also used to measure the speed of computer processors.
a) Hours
b) Seconds
c) Bytes
d) Hertz
Answer:
d) Hertz

Question 27.
Which bus is unidirectional?
(a) Control
(b) System
(c) Data
(d) Address
Answer:
(d) Address

Question 28.
__________indicates how many instruction cycles the processor can perform in every second.
a) clock speed
b) bus speed
c) wave speed
d) None of these
Answer:
a) clock speed

Question 29.
How many classifications of microprocessors are there based on data width?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 30.
The clock speeds are typically measured in __________
a) megahertz
b) gigahertz
c) megahertz or gigahertz
d) None of these
Answer:
c) megahertz or gigahertz

Question 31.
Which one of the following is not a CISC processor?
(a) Pentium II
(b) Pentium III
(c) Pentium IV
(d) Pentium
Answer:
(c) Pentium IV

Question 32.
The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called the __________
a) cycle speed
b) clock speed
c) transfer rate
d) None of these
Answer:
b) clock speed

Question 33.
Which of the following needs refreshing very often?
(a) ROM
(b) Static RAM
(c) Dynamic RAM
(d) EPROM
Answer:
(c) Dynamic RAM

Question 34.
Basic set of machine level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called as a(n) __________ .
a) algorithm
b) pseudo-code
c) code
d) instruction set
Answer:
d) instruction set

Question 35.
Identify the wrong statement.
(i) Dynamic RAM has to be refreshed frequently.
(ii) SRAM is faster.
(iii) SRAM is cheap.
(iv) SRAM is to be refreshed less often.
(a) (iv)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (i)
Answer:
(b) (iii)

Question 36.
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its __________
a) word size
b) clock speed
c) program execution
d) None of these
Answer:
a) word size

Question 37.
CD data represented as tiny indentations are called ………………….
(a) tracks
(b) sectors
(c) stacks
(d) pits
Answer:
(d) pits

Question 38.
Total number of __________pins determines the architecture of the microprocessor.
a) input
b) output
c) input and output
d) None of these
Answer:
c) input and output

Question 39.
A 12 cm diameter DVD with a single-sided, single-layer has the storage capacity of ………………….
(a) 4.7 GB
(b) 8.7 GB
(c) 8.5 GB
(d) 1.5 GB
Answer:
(a) 4.7 GB

Question 40.
The microprocessor Intel 4004 is a __________bit processor.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4
Answer:
d) 4

Question 41.
Which type of disc is used for playing High-Definition movies?
(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) Flash Devices
(d) Blu – Ray Disc
Answer:
(d) Blu – Ray Disc

Question 42.
A microprocessor which consists of 4 input pins and 4 output pins can process __________ bit at a time.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4
Answer:
d) 4

Question 43.
Blu – ray uses a …………………. laser to write data.
(a) red
(b) green
(c) blue – violet
(d) violet
Answer:
(c) blue – violet

Question 44.
Intel 8085 is a(n) __________bit processor.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4
Answer:
c) 8

Question 45.
Intel 8086 is a(n) __________bit processor.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4
Answer:
b) 16

Question 46.
Which port is used for the LCD projector?
(a) SCSI
(6) PS/2
(c) Audio
(d) VGA port
Answer:
(d) VGA port

Question 47.
The CPU has a __________.
a) MDR
b) MAR
c) MDR and MAR
d) None of these
Answer:
c) MDR and MAR

Question 48.
Which one of the following uses a magnetic disk to store the data?
(a) DVD
(b) HD
(c) CD
(d) FD
Answer:
(b) HD

Question 49.
MAR stands for __________
a) Memory Access Register
b) Memory Accumulator Register
c) Memory Assign Register
d) Memory Address Register
Answer:
d) Memory Address Register

Question 50.
Which of the following interface transfers the uncompressed audio and video data to monitor, projector?
(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) HDMI
(d) FDD
Answer:
(c) HDMI

Question 51.
__________is a special register in the CPU which always keeps the address of the next instruction to be executed.
a) Page counter
b) Program counter
c) Program cycle
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Program counter

Question 52.
The __________places the address of the memory to be fetched, into the Memory Address Register,
a) Control unit
b) Arithmetic and Logic unit
c) Memory unit
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Arithmetic and Logic unit

Question 53.
A __________is a collection of wires used for communication between the internal components of a computer.
a) driver
b) microprocessor
c) cable
d) bus
Answer:
d) bus

Question 54.
The __________ bus is used to point a memory location.
a) data
b) address
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) address

Question 55.
A digital circuit is used to point to the specific memory location where the word can be located is called a __________.
a) decoder
b) encoder
c) locator
d) pointer
Answer:
a) decoder

Question 56.
A __________bus is used to transfer data between the memory and the CPU.
a) address
b) data
c) instruction
d) word
Answer:
b) data

Question 57.
The __________bus is bidirectional.
a) address
b) data
c) instruction
d) control
Answer:
b) data

Question 58.
The __________bus is unidirectional.
a) address
b) data
c) instruction
d) control
Answer:
a) address

Question 59.
The __________bus controls both read and write operations.
a) address
b) data
c) instruction
d) control
Answer:
d) control

Question 60.
The __________operation fetches data from memory and transfers to MDR.
a) write
b) read
c) input/output
d) None of these
Answer:
b) read

Question 61.
The __________operation transfers data from the MDR to memory.
a) write
b) read
c) input/output
d) None of these
Answer:
a) write

Question 62.
The word in the __________has the same size (no. of bits) as the Memory Data Register (MDR).
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) RAM

Question 63.
If the processor is an 8-bit processor like Intel 8085, it’s MDR and the word in the RAM both have __________
a) 4 bits each
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bits
d) None of these
Answer:
b) 8 bits

Question 64.
The microprocessors can be classified based on the __________criteria.
a) width of data that can be processed
b) instruction set
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 65.
__________is one of the microprocessors
classifications.
a) 8/16 bit microprocessor
b) 32-bit microprocessor
c) 64-bit microprocessor
d) All the above
Answer:
b) 32 bit microprocessor

Question 66.
__________ is classification of Microprocessors based on Instruction Set.
a) RISC
b) CISC
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) both A and B

Question 67.
RISC stands for __________
a) Random Instruction Set Computers
b) Rich Instruction Set Computers
c) Reduced Instruction Sequence Computers
d) Reduced Instruction Set Computers
Answer:
d) Reduced Instruction Set Computers

Question 68.
CISC stands for __________
a) Complex Instruction Set Computers
b) Compulsory Instruction Set Computers
c) Common Instruction Sequence Computers
d) Critical Instruction Set Computers
Answer:
a) Complex Instruction Set Computers

Question 69.
Identify the True statement from the following.
a) RISC processors have a small set of highly optimized instructions.
b) Computers supporting CISC can accomplish a wide variety of tasks, making them ideal for personal computers.
c) Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored)
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 70.
__________is a RISC processor.
a) Pentium IV
b) Intel P6 and AMD K6
c) K7
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 71.
__________ is a CISC processor.
a) Intel 386 & 486
b) Pentium II and III
c) Motorola 68000
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 72.
A __________ is just like a human brain.
a) memory
b) processor
c) bus
d) none of these
Answer:
a) memory

Question 73.
__________ is used to store data and instructions.
a) memory
b) processor
c) bus
d) None of these
Answer:
a) memory

Question 74.
There are __________ types of accessing
methods to access the memory.
a) four
b) three
c) two
d) None of these
Answer:
c) two

Question 75.
__________ is the memory operation.
a) read
b) write
c) read and write
d) None of these
Answer:
c) read and write

Question 76.
__________ is a memory accessing method.
a) sequential
b) random
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) both A and B

Question 77.
In __________ access, the memory is accessed in an orderly manner from start to end.
a) sequential
b) random
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) sequential

Question 78.
In __________ access, any byte of memory can be accessed directly without navigating through previous bytes.
a) sequential
b) random
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) random

Question 79.
The main memory is otherwise called __________
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) storage device
d) None of these
Answer:
b) RAM

Question 80.
RAM is available in computers in the form of
a) integrated circuits
b) internal circuits
c) information circuits
d) None of these
Answer:
a) integrated circuits

Question 81.
The Operating System, Application Programs and the data in current use are kept in
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) DVD
d) RAM
Answer:
d) RAM

Question 82.
The processor can access data and program available in
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) DVD
d) RAM
Answer:
d) RAM

Question 83.
The smallest unit of information that can be stored in the memory is called as a
a) Byte
b) Bit
c) Nibble
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Bit

Question 84.
The memory can be accessed by a collection of 8 bits which is called as a
a) Byte
b) Bit
c) Nibble
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Byte

Question 85.
1 megabyte of memory, then it can store characters.
a) 10,48,576
b) 12,48,576
c) 10,24,576
d) 10,48,286
Answer:
a) 10,48,576

Question 86.
1 megabyte of memory, then it can store ___________ of information.
a) 10,48,576 bytes
b) 10,48,576 bits
c) 10,24,576 bytes
d) 10,48,286 bytes
Answer:
a) 10,48,576 bytes

Question 87.
_______________ is a volatile memory.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 88.
The information stored in is not
permanent.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 89.
As soon as the power is turned off, whatever data that resides in ________is lost.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 90.
___________ allows operations. both read and write
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) RAM

Question 91.
There are_________basic types of RAM.
a) 2
b) 3
C) 4
d) More than 4
Answer:
a) 2

Question 92.
_______ is a type of RAM.
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 93.
SRAM means ,_______
a) Static RAM
b) Simple RAM
c) Serial RAM
d) Sensitive RAM
Answer:
a) Static RAM

Question 94.
DRAM means
a) Dynamic RAM
b) Dual RAM
c) Digital RAM
d) Discrete RAM
Answer:
a) Dynamic RAM

Question 95.
________ RAM being a common type needs to be refreshed frequently.
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) DRAM

Question 96.
________ RAM needs to be refreshed less often, which makes it faster.
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) SRAM

Question 97.
RAM is more expensive.
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) SRAM

Question 98.
_________ memory in a computer with pre-recorded data at manufacturing time which cannot be modified.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 99.
The stored programs that start the computer and perform diagnostics are available in_________
a) ROM
c) RAM
b) EPROM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 100.
________ stores critical programs such as the program that boots the computer.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 101.
________ retains its contents even when the computer is turned off.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 102.
____________ is called as a non-volatile memory.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 103.
____________ is manufactured as a blank memory.
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) PROM

Question 104.
____________ is programmed during the manufacturing process itself.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
C) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 105.
____________ is used to write data to a PROM chip.
a) PROM programmer
b) PROM burner
c) A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) A or B

Question 106.
The process of programming a PROM is called ____________ the PROM.
a) writing
b) storing
c) recording
d) burning
Answer:
d) burning

Question 107.
____________ serves as a PROM, but the content can be erased using ultraviolet rays.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) CD-ROM
d) None of these
Answer:
a) EPROM

Question 108.
____________ retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) CD-ROM
d) None of these
Answer:
a) EPROM

Question 109.
____________ is a special type of PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electrical charge.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) EEPROM
d) None of these
Answer:
c) EEPROM

Question 110.
Comparing with all other types of ROM, ____________ is slower in performance.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) EEPROM
d) None of these
Answer:
c) EEPROM

Question 111.
The ____________ memory is a very high speed.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) EEPROM
d) Cache
Answer:
d) Cache

Question 112.
The ____________ memory is an expensive memory.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) EEPROM
d) Cache
Answer:
d) Cache

Question 113.
____________ memory is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) DVD
d) Cache
Answer:
d) Cache

Question 114.
____________ memory helps to achieve the fast response time.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) DVD
d) Cache
Answer:
d) Cache

Question 115.
____________ refers to how quickly the memory can respond to a read/write request.
a) Access time
b) Fetch time
c) Execute time
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Access time

Question 116.
____________ memory is expensive and volatile.
a) Main memory
b) Secondary memory
c) Axillary memory
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Main memory

Question 117.
To store data and programs permanently, ____________ devices are used.
a) Main memory
b) Secondary storage
c) ROM
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Secondary storage

Question 118.
____________ devices serve as a supportive storage to main memory.
a) ROM
b) Secondary storage
c) printing
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Secondary storage

Question 119.
devices are non-volatile in nature.
a) Main memory
b) Secondary storage
c) Cache memory
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Secondary storage

Question 120.
_____________ device is also called Backup storage.
a) Main memory
b) Secondary storage
c) Cache memory
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Secondary storage

Question 121.
_________ is a magnetic disk on which you can store data.
a) Hard disk
b) CD-ROM
c) RAM
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Hard disk

Question 122.
The _______________ has the stacked arrangement of disks accessed by a pair of heads for each of the disks.
a) Hard disk
b) CD-ROM
c) RAM
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Hard disk

Question 123.
The_________ come with a single or double
sided disk.
a) Hard disk
c) RAM
Answer:
a) Hard disk

Question 124.
CD-ROM is made from_________ millimeters thick, polycarbonate plastic material.
a) 1.2
b) 1.4
c) 0.2
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 1.2

Question 125.
CD data is represented as tiny indentations known as _________ .
a) pixels
b) bits
c) block
d) pics
Answer:
d) pics

Question 126.
The areas between pits are known as_________
a) fields
b) rings
c) blocks
d) lands
Answer:
d) lands

Question 127.
The capacity of an ordinary CD – ROM is _________MB.
a) 720
b) 700
c) 320
d) 640
Answer:
b) 700

Question 128.
DVDstands for _________
a) Digital Versatile Disc
b) Digital Video Disc
c) Digital Virtual Disc
d) Either A or B
Answer:
a) Digital Versatile Disc

Question 129.
_________are often used to store movies at a better quality.
a) Hard disk
b) DVD
c) Floppy
d) All the above
Answer:
b) DVD

Question 130.
_________are read with a laser.
a) CD
b) DVD
c) RAM
d) both A and B
Answer:
d) both A and B

Question 131.
The DVD can have _________of data per side.
a) one or two sides
b) one or two layers
c) both A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) both A or B

Question 132.
The _________ determines how much it can hold in a DVD.
a) number of sides
b) layers
c) number of sides and layers
d) None of these
Answer:
c) number of sides and layers

Question 133.
A12 cm diameter DVD with single sided, single layer has_________GB capacity.
a) 4.7
b) 8.5
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 4.7

Question 134.
A 12 cm diameter DVD with single sided, double layer has _________GB capacity.
a) 4.7
b) 8.5
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) 8.5

Question 135.
The 8 cm DVD has_________GB capacity.
a) 4.7
b) 8.5
c) 1.5
d) None of these
Answer:
c) 1.5

Question 136.
The capacity of a DVD-ROM can be visually determined by noting the number of _________of the disc.
a) data sides
b) concentric rings
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) data sides

Question 137.
DVDs with Double-layered sides are usually_________coloured.
a) silver
b) gray
c) blue
d) gold
Answer:
d) gold

Question 138.
DVDs with Single-layered sides are usually_________coloured.
a) silver
b) gray
c) blue
d) gold
Answer:
a) silver

Question 139.
_________memory is an electronic nonvolatile computer storage medium that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed.
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Flash
d) DVD
Answer:
c) Flash

Question 140.
Flash memory is_________
a) EEPROM
b) EPROM
c) Either EEPROM or EPROM
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either EEPROM or EPROM

Question 141.
Example for Flash memory is_________
a) pen drives
b) memory cards
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 142.
Flash memories can be used in _________
a) Personal Computers and Personal Digital Assistants (PDA)
b) digital audio players and digital cameras
c) mobile phones
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 143.
Flash memory offers fast _________
a) access time
b) evaluation time
c) completion time
d) None of these
Answer:
a) access time

Question 144.
The time taken to read or write a character in memory is called_________
a) access time
b) evaluation time
c) completion time
d) None of these
Answer:
a) access time

Question 145.
The capacity of the flash memories vary from_________
a) 1GB to 2 TB
b) 1 GB to 4 TB
c) 1 MB to 2 MB
d) 1 MB to 2 GB
Answer:
a) 1GB to 2 TB

Question 146.
_________disc is a high-density optical disc similar to DVD.
a) Hard
b) Floppy
c) Blu-Ray
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Blu-Ray

Question 147.
Blu-Ray is the type of disc used for _________
a) Play Station games
b) Playing High-Definition (HD) movies.
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 148.
A double-layer Blu-Ray disc can store up to _________ GB of data.
a) 150
b) 50
c) 100
d) 5
Answer:
b) 50

Question 149.
A double-layer Blu-Ray disc can store more than_________ times the capacity of a DVD.
a) 5
b) 15
c) 70
d) 72
Answer:
a) 5

Question 150.
A double-layer Blu-ray disc can store more than_________ times the capacity of a CD.
a) 5
b) 15
c) 70
d) 72
Answer:
c) 70

Question 151.
The Blu-Ray disc format was developed to_________ enable of high-definition video.
a) recording
b) rewriting
c) playback
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 152.
The _________ format was developed for storing a large amount of data.
a) Bly-Ray disc
b) Flash memory
c) CD
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Bly-Ray disc

Question 153.
_________ uses a red laser to read and write data.
a) Blu-Ray disc
b) Flash memory
c) DVD
d) None of these
Answer:
c) DVD

Question 154.
_________ uses a blue-violet laser to write.
a) Blu-Ray disc
b) Flash memory
c) DVD
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Blu-Ray disc

Question 155.
The external devices can be connected to the_________
a) ports
b) interfaces
c) ports and interfaces
d) None of these
Answer:
c) ports and interfaces

Question 156.
_________ is used to connect the external devices, found in old computers.
a) Serial port
b) USB port
c) Parallel port
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
a) Serial port

Question 157.
_________ is used to connect the printers, found in old computers.
a) Serial port
b) USB port
c) Parallel port
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
c) Parallel port

Question 158.
_________ is used to connect external devices like cameras, scanners, mobile phones, external hard disks, and printers to the computer.
a) Serial port
b) USB port
c) Parallel port
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
b) USB port

Question 159.
USB means _________
a) Universal Serial Bus
b) Unique Serial Bus
c) Universal Serial Board
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Universal Serial Bus

Question 160.
_________ is the third major version of the Universal Serial Bus stadium.
a) USB 0.3
b) USB 3.0
c) USB 3.3
d) USB 0.33
Answer:
b) USB 3.0

Question 161.
USB 3.0 can transfer data up to _________ Giga byte/second.
a) 3
b) 3.5
c) 5.3
d) 5
Answer:
d) 5

Question 162.
Recently released USB version is _________
a) USB 3.1
b) USB 3.2
c) USB 3.3
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 163.
_________ is used to connect a monitor or any display device like an LCD projector.
a) GVA Connector
b) AGV connector
c) VGA Connector
d) None of these
Answer:
c) VGA Connector

Question 164.
_________ is used to connect sound speakers, microphone and headphones.
a) VGA connector
b) Audio Plugs
c) SCSI port
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Audio Plugs

Question 165.
_________ is used to connect mouse and keyboard to PC.
a) VGA connector
b) Audio Plugs
c) SCSI port
d) PS/2 Port
Answer:
d) PS/2 Port

Question 166.
_________ is used to connect the hard disk drives and network connectors,
a) VGA connector
b) Audio Plugs
c) SCSI port
d) PS/2 Port
Answer:
c) SCSI port

Question 167.
HDMI means _________
a) High Definition Multimedia Interleave
b) High Definition Multipurpose Interface
c) High Definition Multitech Interface
d) High Definition Multimedia Interface
Answer:
d) High Definition Multimedia Interface

Question 168.
___________ is an audio/videc interface.
a) HDMI
b) VGA connector
c) SCSI port
d) None of these
Answer:
a) HDMI

Question 169.
_________ transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller, to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television etc.
a) HDMI
b) VGA connector
c) SCSI port
d) None of these
Answer:
a) HDMI

Question 170.
___________ is an American multinational corporation and technology company involving in hardware manufacturing, especially motherboard and processors.
a) Microsoft
b) Intel Corporation
c) Sun Micro System
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Intel Corporation

Question 171.
_______ means moving data from one component to another.
a) Data transfer
b) Data migration
c) Data Mitigation
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Data transfer

Question 172.
Match the following:
A. Logical operator – 1. Motherboard
B. Computer Hardware – 2. Speaker
C. Catch memory – 3. NOT
D. Output device – 4. High Speed
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 3, 1, 4, 2
c) 4, 2, 1, 2
d) 3, 1, 2, 4
Answer:
b) 3, 1, 4, 2

Part II

Short Answers

Question 1.
Which is the first commercial microprocessor?
Answer:
Intel 4004 is a 4-bit processor.

Question 2.
Write a note on computer architecture.
Answer:
Computer architecture deals with the engineering considerations involved in designing a computer.

Question 3.
What is Program counter?
Answer:
Program counter is a special Register in the CPU which always keeps the address of the next instruction to be executed.

Question 4.
What is “bass”?
Answer:
Sound waves close to 20 Hz have a low pitch and are called “bass” frequencies.

Question 5.
What is the use of cache memory?
Answer:

1. Cache memory is a very high-speed and expensive memory.
2. It is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.
3. Cache memory comes in a smaller size.

Question 6.
Write a note on Hertz.
Answer:
The hertz can be used to measure wave frequencies. It is also used to measure the speed of computer processors.

Question 7.
Write notes on Blu-Ray Disc.
Answer:

1. Blu – Ray Disc is a high-density optical disc used for PlayStation games and HD movies.
2. A double-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 50 GB of data.
3. Blu – Ray disc uses a blue-violet laser to write data.

Question 8.
What is clock speed? How it is measured?
Answer:
The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called the clock speed. Clock speed is measured in MHz.

Question 9.
What is meant by word size?
Answer:

1. The number of hits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its Word Size.
2. Word size determines the amount of RAM that can be accessed by a microprocessor at one time and the total number of pins on the microprocessor.

Question 10.
What is an instruction set?
Answer:
A basic set of machine-level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called an instruction set.

Question 11.
What is Cache Memory?
Answer:
The cache memory is a very high-speed and expensive memory, which is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.

Question 12.
Define Word Size.
Answer:
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its word size.

Question 13.
What are the main units of a microprocessor.
Answer:
The three major units of a microprocessor are:

1. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU): To perform arithmetic and logical instructions.
2. Control Unit (CU): To control the overall operation of the computer through signals.
3. Registers (Internal Memory): They are used to hold the data and instruction for the execution of the processor.

Question 14.
What is the function of the Memory Data Register?
Answer:
The Memory Data Register (MDR) keeps the data which is transferred between the memory and the CPU.

Question 15.
Mention the criteria on which microprocessors are classified.
Answer:
Microprocessors are classified based on the following criteria:

1. The width of the data that can be processed.
2. The instruction set.

Question 16.
What is a bus?
Answer:
A bus is a collection of wires used for communication between the internal components of a computer.

Question 17.
What is CISC?
Answer:
CISC stands for Complex Instruction Set Computers. They support hundreds of instructions. It is ideal for personal computers. Example Intel 386486, Pentium, Pentium II and III, Motorola 68000.

Question 18.
What is the function of the decoder?
Answer:
It is a digital circuit that is used to point to the specific memory location where the word can be located.

Question 19.
What is the function of a data bus?
Answer:
A data bus is used to transfer data between the memory and the CPU. The data bus is bidirectional.

Question 20.
Write notes on secondary storage devices.
Answer:
To store data and programs permanently, secondary storage devices are used. Secondary storage devices serve as supportive storage to main memory and they are non-volatile in nature. Secondary storage is also called backup storage.

Question 21.
Draw diagram to represent Bus connectivity between CPU and Memory..
Answer:
Bus connectivity between CPU and Memory

Question 22.
What is read operation?
Answer:
The read operation transfers the data(bits) from word to Memory Data Register.

Question 23.
What is write operation?
Answer:
The write operation transfers the data (bits) from Memory Data Register to the word.

Question 24.
What are the criteria to classify the microprocessor?
Answer:
Microprocessors can be classified based on the following criteria:

• The width of data that can be processed.
• The instruction set.

Question 25.
What is computer memory?
Answer:
Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored.

Question 26.
What is a silicon chip?
Answer:
A silicon chip is an integrated set of electronic circuits on one small flat piece of semiconductor material, silicon.

Question 27.
What are the types of RAM?
Answer:
RAM types are

1. Static RAM
2. Dynamic RAM

Question 28.
Write note on SRAM.
Answer:
Static RAM needs to be refreshed less often, which makes it faster. Hence, Static RAM is more expensive than Dynamic RAM.

Question 29.
Write note on DRAM.
Answer:
Dynamic RAM being a common type needs to be refreshed frequently. Less expensive than the SRAM.

Question 30.
What programs are stored in ROM?
Answer:
ROM stores critical programs such as the program that boots the computer.

Question 31.
What are the characteristics of ROM?
Answer:
Once the data has been written onto a ROM chip, it cannot be modified or removed and can only be read.
ROM retains its contents even when the computer is turned off.

Question 32.
Write short note on PROM.
Answer:
Programmable read-only memory is also a non-volatile memory on which data can be written only once. Once a program has been written onto a PROM, it remains there forever.

Question 33.
What is the difference between ROM and PROM?
Answer:
PROM is manufactured as blank memory, whereas a ROM is programmed during the manufacturing process itself.

Question 34.
What is the use of the PROM burner?
Answer:
A PROM programmer or a PROM burner is used to write data to a PROM chip.

Question 35.
What do you mean by burning the PROM?
Answer:
The process of programming a PROM is called burning the PROM.

Question 35.
Write a note on EPROM.
Answer:
Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of memory which serves as a PROM, but the content can be erased using ultraviolet rays. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents, making it possible to reprogram the memory.

Question 36.
Write note on EEPROM.
Answer:
Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electrical charge. EEPROM is slower in performance.

Question 37.
Write about cache memory.
Answer:
The cache memory is a very high-speed and expensive memory, which is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.

Question 38.
What is access time?
Answer:
It refers to how quickly the memory can respond to a read/write request.

Question 39.
Draw a diagram to indicate the arrangement of cache memory between the CPU and the main memory.
Answer:
Cache Memory Arrangement

Question 40.
What is the purpose of using secondary storage devices?
Answer:
To store data and programs permanently, secondary storage devices are used.

Question 41.
Write about Hard disk.
Answer:
Hard disk is a magnetic disk on which you can store data. The hard disk has the stacked arrangement of disks accessed by a pair of heads for each of the disks. The hard disks come with a single or double-sided disk.

Question 42.
Write note on serial port.
Answer:
Serial Port : To connect the external devices, found in old computers.

Question 43.
Write note on parallel port.
Answer:
Parallel Port: To connect the printers, found in old computers.

Question 44.
Write note on VGA Connector.
Answer:
VGA Connector: To connect a monitor or any display device like an LCD projector.

Question 45.
Write about Audio Plugs.
Answer:
Audio Plugs: To connect sound speakers, microphones, and headphones.

Question 46.
Write about PS/2 port.
Answer:
PS/2 Port: To connect mouse and keyboard to PC.

Question 47.
Write about SCSI port.
Answer:
SCSI Port: To connect the hard disk drives and network connectors.

Question 48.
Justify the name of the Blu-Ray disc.
Answer:
Blu-ray uses a blue-violet laser to write. Hence, it is called as Blu-Ray.

Question 49.
How external devices are connected to the CPU?
Answer:
The external devices can be connected to the ports and interfaces.

Part III

Explain in brief.

Question 1.
What is memory?
Answer:
A memory is just like a human brain. It is used to store data and instructions. Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored.

Question 2.
Explain how Microprocessors interconnecting with other devices.
Answer:
The microprocessor is able to communicate with the memory units and the Input / Output devices as shown in the following Figure.

The system bus is a bunch of wires which is the collection of the address bus, data bus, and control bus that serves as communication channels between the Microprocessor and other devices.

Question 3.
Draw a diagram to represent the content of MDR and the word after the READ operation.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is a control unit?
Answer:
Control unit: To control the overall operations of the computer through signals.

Question 5.
Write a note on Main Memory.
Answer:
The main memory is otherwise called as Random Access Memory. This is available in computers in the form of Integrated Circuits (ICs). It is the place in a computer where the Operating System, Application Programs and the data in current use are kept temporarily so that they can be accessed by the computer’s processor.

RAM is a volatile memory, which means that the information stored in it is not permanent. As soon as the power is turned off, whatever data that resides in RAM is lost. It allows both read and write operations.

Question 6.
Compare Bit and Byte.
Answer:
Bit:
The smallest unit of information that can be stored in the memory is called as a bit. 0 or 1 represents a bit. Bit stands for Binary Digit.

Byte;
The memory can be accessed by a collection of 8 bits which is called as a byte.

Question 7.
What is the impact of cache memory?
Answer:
Without cache memory, every time the CPU requests the data, it has to be fetched from the main memory which will consume more time. The idea of Introducing a cache is that, this extremely fast memory would store data that is frequently accessed and if possible, the data that is closer to it. This helps to achieve a fast response time.

Question 8.
Write about the USB port.
Answer:
USB Ports: To connect external devices like cameras, scanners, mobile phones, external hard disks, and printers to the computer.

USB 3.0 is the third major version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard to connect computers with other electronic gadgets. USB 3.0 can transfer data up to 5 Gigabytes/second.
USB 3.1 and USB 3.2 are also released.

Question 9.
Explain about HDMX.
Answer:
High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)
High-Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/ video interface which transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television, etc.

Question 10.
Draw the diagram of Ports and Interfaces.
Answer:

Part IV

Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the ports and interfaces.
Answer:
Ports and Interfaces: The Motherboard of a computer has many I/O sockets that are connected to the ports and interfaces found on the rear side of a computer. The external devices can be connected to the ports and interfaces. The various types of ports are given below:

Serial Port: To connect the external devices, found in old computers.

Parallel Port: To connect the printers, found in old computers.

USB Ports: To connect external devices like cameras, scanners, mobile phones, external, hard disks and printers to the computer. USB 3.0 is the third major version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard to connect computers with other electronic gadgets. USB 3.0 can transfer data up to 5 Gigabytes/second. USB 3.1 and USB 3.2 are also released.

SCSI Port: To connect the hard disk drives and network connectors.

VGA Connector: To connect a monitor or any display device like an LCD projector.

Audio plugs: To connect sound speakers, microphone, and headphones

PS/2 Port: To connect mouse and keyboard to PC.

High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI): High Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/video interface which transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television.

Question 2.
Explain Flash memory in detail.
Answer:
Flash memory is an electronic (solid-state) non-volatile computer storage medium that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed. They are either EEPROM or EPROM. Examples for Flash memories are pendrives, memory cards etc.

Flash memories can be used in personal computers, Personal Digital Assistants (PDA), digital audio players, digital cameras and mobile phones. Flash memory offers fast access times.
The time taken to read or write a character in memory is called access time. The capacity of the flash memories vary from 1 Gigabytes (GB) to 2 Terabytes (TB).

Question 3.
Explain various types of microprocessors.
Answer:
Microprocessors can be classified based on the following criteria:

1. The width of data that can be processed
2. The instruction set

Classification of Microprocessors based on the Data Width
Depending on the data width, microprocessors can process instructions. The microprocessors can be classified as follows:

1. 8-bit microprocessor
2. 16-bit microprocessor
3. 32-bit microprocessor
4. 64-bit microprocessor

Classification of Microprocessors based on Instruction Set:
The size of the instruction set is another important consideration while categorizing microprocessors. Initially, microprocessors had very small instruction sets because complex hardware was expensive as well as difficult to build. As technology had developed to overcome these issues, more and more complex instructions were added to increase the functionality of microprocessors. Let us learn more about the two types of microprocessors based on their instruction sets.

Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC):
RISC stands for Reduced Instruction Set Computers. They have a small set of highly optimized instructions. Complex instructions are also implemented using simple instructions, thus reducing the size of the instruction set.
Examples of RISC processors are Pentium IV, Intel P6, AMD K6, and K7.

Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC):
CISC stands for Complex Instruction Set Computers. They support hundreds of instructions. Computers supporting CISC can accomplish a wide variety of tasks, making them ideal for personal computers.
Examples of CISC processors are Intel 386 & 486, Pentium, Pentium II and III, and Motorola 68000.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 15 Insurance Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 15 Insurance

11th Commerce Guide Insurance Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The basic principle of insurance is …………………………………..
a) Insurable Interest
b) Co-Operation
c) Subrogation
d) Proximatecausa
Answer:
a) Insurable Interest

Question 2.
……………….. is not a type of general insurance
a) Marine Insurance
b) Life Insurance
c) Fidelity Insurance
d) Fire Insurance
Answer:
b) Life Insurance

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of insurance?
a) Lending Funds
b) Risk sharing
c) Capital formation
d) Protection of life
Answer:
d) Protection of life

Question 4.
Which of the following is not applicable insurance contract?
a) Unilateral contract
b) Conditional contract
c) Indemnity contract
d) Inter-personal contract
Answer:
c) Indemnity contract

Question 5.
Which one of the following is a type of marine insurance?
a) Money back
b) Mediclaim
c) Hull insurance
d) Corgo insurance
Answer:
d) Corgo insurance

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
List any five important types of policies.
Answer:

1. Life Insurance
2. General Insurance
3. Fire Insurance
4. Marine Insurance
5. Health Insurance

Question 2.
What is health insurance?
Answer:
A health insurance policy is a contract between an insurer and an individual or group, in which the insurer agrees to provide specified health insurance at an agreed-upon premium. It provides risk coverage against unforeseen health expenditures that may result in financial hardship.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Insurance.
Answer:
According to John Merge, is a plan by themselves which large number of people associate and transfer to the shoulders of all, the risk that attacks to individuals”

Question 2.
Give the meaning of crop insurance.
Answer:
This policy is to provide financial support to farmers in case of crop failure due to drought or flood. It generally covers all risks of loss or damages relating to the production of rice, wheat, millets, oilseeds and pulses etc.

Question 3.
Write a note on IRDAI.
Answer:
IRDAI – Insurance Regulatory Development and Authority is the statutory, independent, and apex body that governs and supervises the Insurance Industry in India. It was constituted in 2000 by the Parliament of India Act called IRDAI Act, 1999. Presently IRDAI headquarters is in Hyderabad.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the various types of Insurance
Answer:
The insurance covers different types of risks. All contracts of insurance can be broadly classified as follows:
Life Insurance:
Life Insurance may be defined as a contract in which the insurance company called insurer undertakes to ensure the life of a person called assured in exchange for a sum of money called a premium which may be paid in one lump sum or monthly, quarterly, half-yearly, or yearly and promises to pay a certain sum of money either on the death of the assured or on expiry of a certain period.

Non – Life Insurance:
It refers to insurance not related to humans but related to properties.

Fire Insurance:
Fire insurance is a contract whereby the insurer, in consideration of the premium paid, undertakes to make good any loss or damage caused by a fire during a specified period upto the amount specified in the policy. an interest in the preservation of the thing or life insured so that they will suffer financially on the happening of the event against which they are insured.

Marine Insurance:
Marine insurance is a contract of insurance under which the insurer undertakes to indemnify the insured in the manner and to the extent thereby agreed against marine losses. The insured pays the premium in consideration of the insurer’s (underwriter’s) guarantee to make good the losses arising from marine perils or perils of the sea.

Health insurance:
Health insurance policy is a contract between an insurer and an individual or group, in which the insurer agrees to provide specified health insurance at an agreed upon price (premium).Disability resulting from illness or accident may be peril to family because it not only cuts off income but also creates large medical expenses. Health insurance is taken as safeguard against rising medical costs. It provides risk coverage against unforeseen health expenditure that may result in financial hardship.

Miselleaneous Insurance:
It includes the insurance which are made on the following terms:
Motor vehicle Insurance, Burglary Insurance, Crop Insurance, Sports Insurance, Amartya Sen Siksha Yoj ana,
Rajeswari Mahila Kalyan Bima Yojana are the miscellaneous Insurance.

Question 2.
Explain the principles of insurance.
Answer:
1. Utmost Good Faith:
According to this principle, both insurer and insured should enter into a contract in good faith. Insured should provide all the information that impacts the subject matter. The insurer should provide all the details regarding the insurance contract.

2. Insurable Interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means some pecuniary interest in the subject matter of the insurance contract.

3. Indemnity:
Indemnity means security or compensation against loss or damages. In insurance, the insured would be compensated with the amount equivalent to the actual loss and not the amount exceeding the loss. This principle ensures that the insured does not make any profit out of the insurance. This principle of indemnity is applicable to property insurance alone.

4. Causa Proxima:
The word ‘Causa Proxima’ means ‘nearest cause’. According to this principle, when the loss is the result of two or more causes, the proximate cause, i.e. the direct. The direct, the most dominant, and most effective cause of a loss should be taken into consideration. The insurance company is not liable for the remote cause.

5. Contribution:
The same subject matter may be insured with more than one insurer then it is known as ‘Double Insurance’. In such a case, the insurance claim to be paid to the insured must be shared on contributed by all insurers in proportion to the sum assured by each one of them.

6. Subrogation:
Subrogation means ‘stepping the shoes on others’. According to this principle, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the ownership right of the subject matter of insurance passes on to the insurer.

7. Mitigation:
In case of a mishap, the insured must take off all possible steps to reduce or mitigate the loss or damage to the subject matter of insurance.

Question 3.
Discuss the causes of risk.
Answer:
Business risk arises due to a variety of causes which are classified as follows:
1. Natural Causes:
Human beings have little control over natural calamities like floods, earthquakes, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc. These result in heavy loss of life, property, and income in the business.

2. Human Causes:
Human causes include such unexpected events as dishonesty, carelessness or negligence of employees, stoppage of work due to power failure, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.

3. Economic Causes:
These include uncertainties relating to demand for goods, competition, price, collection of dues from customers, change of technology or method of production, etc. Financial problems like rising interest rates for borrowing, levy of higher taxes, etc., also come under this type of causes as they result in the higher unexpected cost of operation of the business.

4. Other Causes:
These are unforeseen events like political disturbances, mechanical failures such as the bursting of the boiler, fluctuations in exchange rates, etc. which lead to the possibility of business risks.

11th Commerce Guide Insurance Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Presently IRDAI headquarters is in ……………..
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(a) Hyderabad

Question 2.
………………….. is the basic principle behind every Insurance contract.
a) Co-operation
b) Consolidation
c) Co-Current
d) Convenience
Answer:
b) Consolidation

Question 3.
When a ship ¡s insured against any type of danger it is known as ……………..
a) Cargo Insurance
b) Marine Insurance
c) Hull Insurance
d) Voyage Insurance
Answer:
c) Hull Insurance

Question 4.
Insurance Act was established in the year…………
a) 1938
b) 1966
c) 1983
d) 1984
Answer:
d) 1984

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Cargo Insurance?
Answer:
When a marine insurance policy is taken by the cargo owner to be compensated for loss caused to his cargo during the journey, it is known as cargo insurance.

Question 2.
What do you mean by surrender value?
Answer:
The surreñder value is the cash value of the policy which is payable to the policyholder if he decides to terminate the contract.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the objectives of IRDAI?
Answer:

1. To promote the interest and rights of policyholders.
2. To promote and ensure the growth of the Insurance Industry.
3. To ensure speedy settlement of genuine claims and to prevent frauds and malpractices.

Question 2.
What is Annuity Policy?
Answer:
Under this policy, the assured sum or policy money is payable in monthly or annual installments after the assured attains a certain age. The policy is useful to those who prefer a regular income after a certain age.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Amartya Sen Siksha Yojana:
Answer:
The General Insurance Company offers to secure the education of dependent children under this policy. If the assured parent/legal guardian goes through any bodily injury resulting solely and directly from an accident due to external, violent, and visible means and if such injury shall within twelve calendar months of its occurrences be the only direct cause of his/ her death or permanent total disablement, the insurer shall indemnify the insured student in respect of all covered expenses to be incurred from the date of occurrence of such accident till the expiry of policy or completion of the duration of covered course whichever occurs first and such indemnity shall not exceed the sum assured as stated in the policy schedule.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the claim settlement.
Answer:
There are two ways by which health insurance claims are settled:
Cashless:
The claim amount needs to be approved by the TPA and the hospital settles the amount with the TPA. (TPA or Third Party Administrator is a middleman between Insurer and the Customer)

Reimbursement:
The insured avails himself or herself of the treatment and settles the hospital bills directly at the hospital. The insured can claim reimbursement later on by submitting relevant bills/documents for the claimed amount to the TPA.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the Duties and Function of IRDAI:
Answer:
Section 14 of IRDAI Act, 1999 lays down the duties and functions of IRDAI:

• It issues the registration certificates to Insurance Companies and regulates them.
• It provides a license of insurance to intermediaries such as agents and brokers after specifying the required qualifications and set norms/code of conduct for them.
• It promotes and regulates the professional organizations related to the insurance business to promote efficiency in the insurance sector.
• It regulates and supervises the premium rates and terms of insurance covers.
• It specifies the conditions and manners, according to which the insurance companies and other intermediaries have to make their financial reports.
• It regulates the investment of policyholder’s funds by insurance companies.
• It also ensures the maintenance of solvency margin (the company’s ability to pay out claims) by insurance companies.