Category: Class 11

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Living World Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 1 Living World

11th Bio Botany Guide Living World Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part-I

Choose the Right Answer: 

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?
a. Possess their own metabolic system
b. They are the facultative parasites
c. They contain DNA or RNA
d. Enzymes are present
Answer:
b. They are the facultative parasites

Question 2.
Identify the Archaebacterium
a. Acetobacteria
b. Erwinia
c. Treponema
d. Methanobacterium
Answer:
d. Methanobacterium

Question 3.
Identify the correctly matched pair
a. Actinomycete – a) Late blight
b. Mycoplasma  – b) lumpy jaw
c. Bacteria – c) crown gall
d. Fungi – d) sandal spike
Answer:
a. Actinomycete – Lumpy jaw
b. Mycoplasma – sandal spike
c. Bacteria – crown gall
d. Fungi – late blight

Question 4.
Identify the incorrect statement about the gram-positive bacteria.
a. Teichoic acid absent
b. A high percentage of peptidoglycan is found in the cell wall.
c. Cell wall is single-layered
d. Lipopolysaccharide is present in the cell wall.
Answer:
a. Teichoic acid absent

Question 5.
The correct statement regarding Blue Green Algae is
a. Lack of motile structures
b. Presence of cellulose in cell wall
c. Absence of mucilage around the thallus
d. Presence of Floridian starch
Answer:
a. lack of motile structure

Question 6.
Differentiate Homoiomerous and Heteromerous lichens.
Answer:

Homoiomerous	Heteromerous
Here algae cells evenly distributed in the thallus	Heteromerous-a distinct layer of alga and fungi present.

Question 7.
Write the distinguishing features of Monera.
Answer:
Distinguishing Features of Monera:

1. This kingdom includes all prokaryotic organisms. Example: Mycoplasma, bacteria, actinomycetes, and cyanobacteria.
2. These are microscopic. They do not have a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.
   
3. Many other bacteria like Rhizobium, Azotobacter, and Clostridium can fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.
   
4. Some bacteria are parasites and others live as symbionts.

Question 8.
Why do farmers plant leguminous crops in crop rotations/mixed cropping?
Answer:
Rhizobium- Nitrogen-fixing bacteria,
Living in the root modules of leguminous plants has a symbiotic association with it, fix atmospheric nitrogen, and convert it into nitrates, thereby increases the fertility of the soil. Growing legumes alternatively with paddy can help paddy to give high yield- This method of growing paddy, alternatively with leguminous plants is known as crop rotation.

Mixed cropping:
Amidst, other crops. The leguminous crop is also raised as a mixed crop – so that it enriches the soil and increases the yield by fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

Question 9.
Briefly discuss the 5 kingdom system of classification. Add a note on their merits and demerits.
Answer:
a. Proposed by R.H. Whittaker (American taxonomist)
b. Criteria considered – cell structure, Thallus Organization, Mode of Nutrition, Reproduction, and Phytogenitic Relations.
5 kingdom classifications include: –
a. Monera b. Protista c. Fungi d. Plantae e. Animalia

S. No	Merits:	Demerits:
1.	Based on the complexity of cell structure & organization of thallus	Monera & Protista – Include both autotrophic & heterotrophic organisms
2.	Based on mode of nutrition.	Include cell wall lacking & cell wall
3.	Fungi-kept in a separate category from plants	Bearing organisms.
4.	It shows the phylogeny of the organisms	So the group is more heterogeneous

Question 10.
Give a general account of lichens
Answer:
a. Definition: A symbolic association of algae and Fungi helping each other & living together known as lichens.
b. Partners: Algal partner known as Phycobiont & Fungal partner known as Mycobiont
c. Role of Algal partner – Autotrophic prepare food – give nutrition to fungal partner also
d. Role of fungal partner – gives protection- helps in fixing to the substratum by rhizines.
Classification:

	Character	Phycobiont	Mycobiont
1	Asexual reproduction	Akinetes, hormogonia, Aplanospore, etc.	fragmentation soredia, and isidia
2	Sexual reproduction	absent	sexual reproduction by ascocarp & ascospores

	Character	Classification of lichens
1.	Habitat	Corticolous – growing on the bark Lichnicolous – growing on wood Saxicolous – growing on rock Terricolous – growing on the ground Marine – siliceous rock sea Freshwater – siliceous rocks (freshwater habitat).
2.	Morphology of thallus	Leprose – distinct fungal layer absent Crustose – crust like Foliose – Leaf-like Fruticose-branched pendulous shrub-like
3.	On the basis of the distribution of algae cells	Homoiomerous – Algae cells evenly distributed Heteromerous – A distinct layer of Algae and Fungi present
4.	On the basis of the fungal partner	If it is Ascomycetes – Ascolichen If it is basidiomycetes-Basidiolichen

Economic importance:

	Secretion of acids of lichens	Uses
1	Oxalic acid	Weathering of rocks Pioneers in xerosere
2	Usnic acid	Antibacterial

II. a. Pollution Indicators – Lichens sensitive to air pollutants- (pollution indicators)
b. Rocella Montagne – Produces a dye used in litmus paper (acid-base indicator)
c. Cladonia rangiferina – Food for animals in tundra regions

Part – II.

11th Bio Botany Guide Living World Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose The Right Answer:

Question 1.
Earth has formed around billion years ago ……………
(a) 3.3
(b) 5.6
(c) 4.6
(d) 5.9
Answer:
(c) 4.6

Question 2.
The organism that is reproductively sterile is
a. Wasp
b. Worker bees
c. Housefly
d. Drosophila
Answer:
c. Worker bees

Question 3.
Which of the following is NOT a prokaryote?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Blue-green algae
(c) Oedogonium
(d) Nostoc
Answer:
(c) Oedogonium

Question 4.
Recombination is the result of
a. Binary fission
b. Asexual reproduction
c. Sexual reproduction.
d. Vegetative propagation
Answer:
c. sexual reproduction

Question 5.
Vaccination for smallpox was discovered by …………….
(a) W.M. Stanley
(b) Adolf Mayer
(c) Robert Koch
(d) Edward Jenner
Answer:
(d) Edward Jenner

Question 6.
Blister-like pustules occur due to
a. Chickenpox
b. Rust
c. Smut
d. Mumps
Answer:
a. Chickenpox

Question 7.
Expand Bt-toxin
a. Biotechnology
b. Biotoxin
c. Beta-toxin
d. Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer:
d. Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 8.
One nanometer equals to metres …………….
(a) 10^-9
(b) 10^-6
(c) 10^-5
(d) 10^-12
Answer:
(a) 10^-9

Question 9.
Saprophytic angiosperm with mycorrhiza
a. Clostridium
b. Azolla
c. Monotropa
d. Viscum
Answer:
c. Monotropa

Question 10.
The famous roqueforti cheese is produced by employing
a. Aspergillus roquefortic
b. Penicillium camemberti
c. Penicillium notatum
d. Aspergillus terreus
Answer:
b.Penicillium camémberti

Question 11.
Identify the criteria not used in classifying viruses by Baltimore …………….
(a) ss (or) ds
(b) use of RT
(c) capsid
(d) sense or antisense
Answer:
(c) capsid

Question 12.
Both viruses and bacteria contain
a. Plasma membrane
b. Protein wat
c. Peptidoglycan
d. Nucleic acids
Answer:
d. Nucleic acids

Question 13.
Lactobacillus bulgaricus is responsible for the formation of
a. Lactic acid
b. Cheese
c. Yogurt
d. Curd
Answer:
C. Yoghurt

Question 14.
Parvo viruses have …………….
(a) ssDNA
(b) dsDNA
(c) ssRNA
(d) dsRNA
Answer:
(a) ssDNA

Question 15.
Bacterial chlorophyll is also known as
a. Chlorophyll
b. Bilirubin
c. Chromatium
d. Chioridin .
Answer:
Chromatium

Question 16.
This drug is also known as wonder drug.
a. Streptomycin
b. Aureomycin
c. Bacitracin
d. Pencillin
Answer:
Pencillin

Question 17.
The empty protein coat left outside after penetration is …………….
(a) host
(b) ghost
(c) capsid
(d) capsomeres
Answer:
(b) ghost

Question 18.
Among the given 4 – one is not viral diseases- find it out.
a. Cucumber mosaic
b. Citrus canker
c. Ricetungro
d. Potato leaf roll
Answer:
b. citrus canker

Question 19.
Bacillus thuringiensis is an
a. Biofertilizer
b. Bio-fuel
c. Bio-pesticide
d. Bio-medicine
Answer:
c. Bio-pesticide

Question 20.
Mad cow disease is caused by …………….
(a) viroids
(b) virusoids
(c) prions
(d) viruses
Answer:
(c) prions

Question 21.
Bacteria that grow in high salinity condition is known as
a. Methane bacterium
b. Halobacterium
c. Thermos aquaticus
d. Agrobacterium
Answer:
b. Halobacterium

Question 22.
Budding is an unique feature of
a. Schizo saccharomyces
b. Aspergillus
c. Penicillium
d. Neurospora
Answer:
Schizo saccharomyces

Question 23.
Mycophages infect …………….
(a) blue-green algae
(b) bacteria
(c) fungi
(d) cyanobacteria
Answer:
(c) fungi

Question 24.
The colourless cell in Nostoc in the intercalary position is responsible for nitrogen fixation is
a. Holoblast
b. Heterozygote
c. Homocyst
d. Heterocyst
Answer:
d. Heterocyst

Question 25.
Genetic trait carried in the bacterial
a. Cell wall
b. Chromosome
c. Plasmid
d. Cell membrane
Answer:
c. Plasmid

Question 26.
Three kingdom classification was proposed by …………….
(a) Copeland
(b) Theophrastus
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Haeckel
Answer:
(d) Haeckel

Question 27.
Developing a vaccine for SARS is difficult because
a. It spreads through nucleic acid
b. It is an enveloped virus
c. It has RNA
d. It constantly changes its form
Answer:
d. It constantly changes its form

Question 28.
Arrange correctly the following viruses according to the given shape and symmetry, Cuboidal, spherical, helical and complex respectively
I. a. Vaccinovirus b. Influenza, c. HIV, d. Herpes
II. a. Influenza b. HIV c, Herpes d. Vaccinovirus
III. a. Herpes b. HIV, c. Influenza d. Vaccinovirus
IV. a. HIV b. Herpes c. Vaccinio Virus d. Influenza
Answer:
III. a. Herpes, b, HIV, c, Influenza, d, Vaccinovirus

II.Match the following and find the correct answer.

Question 1.
I. Five kingdom system of classification
II. Three kingdom system of classification
III. Four kingdom system of classification
IV. Two kingdom system of classification

Answer:
a. C-D-B-A

Question 2.
I. TMV Discovered by world
II. Bacterium word coined by
III. Father of Mycology
IV. Classification virus given by

Answer:
b. B-D-A-C

Question 3.
I. Genophore
II. Bacteria
III. Extra Chromosomal DNA
IV. Fimbrial

Answer:
b. D-A-B-C

Question 4.
I. Plasmid
II. Heterocyst
III. Glycocalyx
IV. Mesosome

Answer:
c. B-A-D-C

III.

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding Prions
a. Prions were discovered by B. Prusiner in 1982
b. They are infectious particles of lipo protein
c. They cause about a dozen fatal degenerative disorders of CNS
d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease(cjD) and bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) are some commonly known diseases
Answer:
b. They are infectious particles of lipoprotein

Question 2.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding Ribosomes
a. Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis
b. The number of ribosomes per cell varies from 1000 to 1500.
c. The ribosomes are 70s type and consists of a 2 subunits (50s and 30s)
d. The nbosomes are held together by mRNA and form polyribosomes or polysomes.
Answer:
b. The number of ribosomes per cell varies from 1000 to 1500.

IV. Find out the True and False statements from the following and on that basis find the correct answer:

Question 1.
(i) Poly-B hydroxybutysate is a microbial plastic which is biodegradable
(ii) Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another is known as transduction
(iii) Micrococcus must have oxygen to survive-known as an obligate aerobe
(iv) Spirulina is rich in carbohydrates so treated as an alternative food.

Answer:
c. True False True False

Question 2.
(i) Toad stools are known as an edible mushroom
(ii) Volvariella volvaceae and Agaricus bisporous are known for their high poisonous nature
(iii) Claviceps purpurea produces ergot-used as vasoconstrictor
(iv) Aspergillus flavus infest dried foods and produce carcinogenic toxin called -aflatoxin

Answer:
B. False False True True

Question 3.
Which one of the following is a correct statement regarding TMV
a. David Baltimore in 1971 discovered TMV
b.First visible symptom of TMV is visible discoloration of leaves along the veins-but with typical yellow and green symptom molting-(mosaic symptom)
c. The plant grow abnormally at the nodal point
d. Infection spread by house flies and mosquitoes
Answer:
b. First visible symptom of TMV is discoloration of leaves along with the veins-but visible with typical yellow and green symptom molting-(mosaic symptom)

V.

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a correct statement regarding bacterial antibiotic
a. Chloromycetin got from Streptomyces venezuelae cure T.B
b. Bactracin is got from bacillus mycoides- used to treat UTI
c. Aurecomycin got from Streptomyces aureofaciens is used to treat whooping cough and eye infections
d. Streptomycin got from Streptmyces griseus cure typhoid fever
Answer:
c. Aurecomycin got from streptomyces aureofaciens is used to treat whooping cough and eye infections

Question 2.
Which one of the following is a correct statement regarding mycoplasma
a.  Mycoplasm are very small (0.1-0.5mm) pleomorphic gram negative micro organisms
b.  The have whole body appear like boiled egg-like structure in culture
c.  Little leaf of tomato Witches broom of solanum.
d.  Mycoplasma is also known as mollicutes
Answer:
Mycoplasm arevery small (0.1- 0.5mm) pleomorphic gram negative micro organisms

VI.

Question 1.
Sac fungi & club fungi are common names of
a.  Ascomycetes
b.  Basidiomycetes
c.  Deuteromycetes
d.  Phycomycetes
(i) a & b
(ii) b & c
(iii) a & c
(iv) c & d
Answer:
(i) a & b

Question 2.
Recurrence of fungal skin disease is due to
a. Resistance to antibiotics
b. Dormant spores become active at the onset of favourable condition
c. Non-availability of specific drugs.
d. Moisture favor fungal mycelium to spread,
(i) a & C
(ii) b & c
(iii) b & d
(iv) c & d
Answer:
(i) b & d

Question 3.
Find out the symbiotic associations from the given options.
a. Nitrogen fixing bacteria on the leguminous plants.
b. Rhizoids of Neprolepis
c. Lichens on rocks
d. Mycorrhizal roots.
(I) ac & d
(II) ab & c
(III) ab & d
(IV) a & b
Answer:

VII. Find out the wrong statement

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding ehemo lithotrophs
a. Sulphur bacteria
b. Iron bacteria
c. Methane bacteria
d. Hydrogen bacteria
Answer:
c. Methane bacteria

Question 2.
Among the following, which one is not viral?
a. Cucumber mosaic
b. Citrus canker
c. Rice tungro
d. Potato leaf roll
Answer:
b. Citrus canker

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a Ribovirus?
a. Tobacco mosaic virus
b. Cauliflower mosaic virus
c. Human immune deficiency virus.
d. Wound tumour virus d. Pilobolus
Answer:
d. Wound tumour virus

Question 4.
Find out from the given, which one is not a Zygomycetes fungi.
a. Mucor
b. Rhizopus
c. Yeast
d. Pilobolus
Answer:
c. yeast

VIII. Read the following Assertion A and Reason R. Find the correct Answer

Question 1.
Assertion ‘A’: Viruses have genetic material but cannot divided on its own. They also don’t have in built metabolic machinery Reason ‘R’: Virus kept between living and non living
(a) A & R correct. R is explaining A
(b) A & R correct R is not explaining A
(c) A is true but R is wrong
(d) A is true but R is not explaining A
Answer:
a. A & R correct R is explaining A.

Question 2.
Assertion ‘A : Some bacteria have the capacity to retain gramstain after treatment with acid alcohol.
Reason ‘R’: Known as gram +ve as attracted towards positive pole under the influence of electric current.
Answer:
c. A is true but R is wrong.

Question 3.
Assertion’A’: Aflatoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus.
Reason ’R’: These toxin are useful to mankind to cure few disease
Answer:
c. A is true but R is wrong

Question 4.
Assertion ’A’: In septal mycelium the septa complete the partition walls between cells Reason
‘R’: There is no cytoplasmic connection between adjacent cells.
Answer:
d. A is true but R is not explaining A.

I. Additional 2 Marks

Question 1.
Define Growth.
Answer:
Growth is an intrinsic property of all living organisms through which they can increase cells both in number and mass.

Question 2.
Tabulate Milestones in Virology
Answer:

Year	Name of the Scientist	Achievement
1796	Edward Jenner	Vaccination for smallpox
1886	Adolf Mayer	Proved infectious nature of- TMV- from mosaic leaves sap
1892	Dimitry Ivanowsky	Viruses are smaller than bacteria

Question 3.
Draw the structure of TMV and label the parts and explain in a word or two
Answer:

Answer:
a. Nucleic acid – It is ss RNA(Single Standed)
b. Capsomere – Protein Units
c. Capsid – Protein Coat.

Question 4.
Define reproduction and Mention its types.
Answer:
Reproduction is the tendency of a living organism to perpetuate its own species. There are two types of reproduction namely asexual and sexual.

Question 5.
Bacteria is a indeed friend- discuss
Answer:
Even though Bacteria cause many diseases to plants animals and human beings they are beneficial to day-to-day life also. Ex: Milk (lactobacillus acidophobus)/(lactobaci llus lacti)
a. Curd b. Butter c. Cheese d. Yogurt These are a few of the beneficial activities.

Question 6.
Draw the ultra structure of bacterial cell.
Answer:

Question 7.
Name the four types of ascocarps produced by ascomycetes.
Answer:
Four Types Of Ascocarps Produced By Ascomycetes:

1. Cleistothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Apothecium and
4. Pseudothecium.

Question 8.
Why is it essential to do classification?
Answer:

• To relate on the basis of common features
• To define, on the basis of salient features
• To know the relationship among different groups.
• To understand evolutionary relationship.

Question 9.
Ruggerio etal’s recent classification-Explain.
Answer:

• Ruggerio etal in 2015-published-7-kingdom system of classification
• It is an extension of Cavalier’s 6 – Kingdom Scheme’Include 2 superkingdom
  

Question 10.
What is Prophage?
Answer:
a. In the lysogenic cycle, the injected phage DNA become circular and integrates into bacterial chromosome by recombination.
b. The integrated DNA of phage and bacteria is known as Prophase.

Question 11.
Distinguish between Cyanophage and Mycophage
Answer:

	Cyanophage	Mycophage
1	Vims infecting blue green Algae are known as Cyanophage	Vims allacking fungi are called Mycovimses or Mycophage
2	1st reported by Safferman and Mores(1963)	1st reported by Holling(1962)
3	Eg. Lyngbuya, Plectonema	Eg. Myc ovims attacking Mushrooms

Question 12.
Differentiate between flagella of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
Answer:

1	Size	20-30mm in diameter 15 pm in length	Bigger in size
2	Structure	Simple made up of single fibril	In C.S flagella contain 9+2 microtubules
3	No of position	Many types	few types
4	Function	Locomotion	Locomotion

Question 13.
Differentiate between Photolithotrophs and Photo organotrophs
Answer:

Photolithotrophs	Photo organotrophs
1 .Hydrogen donor is an in organic substance 2 types – Green sulphur bacteria Hydrogen donor H2S Posses bacterioviridin. E.g chlorobium Purple sulphur bacteria Here hydrogen donor is thiosulphate pigment bacterial chlorophyll in chlorosomes E.g chromatium	2. The hydrogen donor is an organic acid or alcohol e.g purple non sulphur bacteria Rhodospirillum E.g Purple non sulphur bacteria Rhodospirillum

Question 14.
If you think endospore formation not a reproduction method then justify you answer
Answer:
Yes Endospores are formed not during reproduction, but during unfavorable season the thick walled endospores are resting spores when favorable condition comes, they germinate and form bacteria.

Question 15.
What are the 3 different methods by which gene recombination occur in bacteria ? Or write about Sexual reproduction in bacteria?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction is so simple formation and fusion of gametes is absent. However by  Three different methods gene recombination can occur

1. Conjugation
2. Transduction
3. Transformation

2 Marks

Question 16.
Define chemolithotrophs – give examples
Answer:

• The type of bacteria oxidise in organic compound to release energy
• Eg Sulphur bacteria – Thiobacillus thio oxidants
• Iron bacteria – Ferrobacillus ferro oxidants
• Hydrogen bacteria – Hydrogenomonas

Question 17.
Label the given diagram properly
Answer:

Answer:
1. F- plasmid
2. Conjugation pilus
3. Chromosome
4. F+ cell

Question 18.
Write any 2 vitamin yielding bacteria
Answer:

Escherichia coli	Live in human intestine produce large quantities of vitamin K&B – complex
Clostrdiumacctobutylieum	Vitamin B2 is prepared by the fermentation of sugar

Question 19.
Name any 2 bacteria diseases affecting Potato
Answer:

Name of disease	Causative organism
1. Ringrot_____________	Clavi bacter michiganensis sub sp sepedonicus
2. Scab_____________	Streptomyees scabies

Question 20.
What is meant by Probiotics
Answer:

• Microorganism such as lactobacillus bifidobacterium when consume as a dietary supplement help to maintain or restores beneficial bacteria to the digestive tract. They are called friendly or good bacteria. They keep our gut healthy
• They help to increase the immunity of the body
• Eg: Probiotic Yoghurt
• Probiotie tooth paste.

Question 21.
What is the meant by Ray fungi? Give example
Answer:

• Actinomycetes are called as ray fungi due to their mycelia like growth
• They are anaerobic or facultative anaerobic
• They are gram + ve
• Don’t produce aerial mycelium
• DNA contain high guanine and cytosine content Eg strepotmyces

Question 22.
What is this structure?
Answer:
The figure is the structure of mycoplasma

Answer:
1. Cell membrane
2. Ribosome
3. DNA strain
4. Cytoplasm

Question 23.
Name few Renowed mycologists?
Answer:
A. Arthur H.R. Buller, John Webster D.L. Hawksworth, G.C Ainsworth
B. B mundkur, K.C. Meta, C.V. Subramanian and T.S. Sadasivam & Father of Indian Mycology -E.J. Butler-

Question 24.
Identify the diagram and label any three parts.
Answer:

Conidia formation-Penicillium

1. Conidiophores
2. Ramus
3. Metula
4. Sterigma
5. Conidium or Conidiospore

Question 25.
Define Homeostasis. Why it is essential?
Answer:
Property of self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady-state within an external environment which is liable to change is called homeostasis. It is essential for the living organism to maintain internal conditions to survive in the environment.

Question 26.
Name 4 fungi, from which we derive organic acids.
Answer:

1. Citric acid& Gluconic acid – Aspergillus niger
2. Itaconicacid – Aspergillus terreus
3. Kojicacid – Aspergillus oryzae

Question 27.
Name 4 common basidiomycetes
Answer:

1. Puffballs,
2. Toadstools,
3. Birds nest’s fungi,
4. Bracket fungi,
5. Smuts
6. Rusts,
7. Smuts.

Question 28.
Define aflatoxin.
Answer:
Aspergillus, Polyporus, Mucor and Penicillium are involved in spoilage of food material Aspergillus flavus infest dried food & produce caranogenic toxin known as aflatoxin.

Question 29.
Name 3 Dermatophytes
Answer:

1. Trichophyton
2. Tinea
3. Microsporum
4. Epidermophyton are some fungi causing skin problems

3 Marks Additional Questions

Question 1.
State the living and Non-living character of the Virus.
Answer:
(i) Living characters:

• Presence of nucleic acid & protein
• Capable of mutation
• Ability to multiply with living cells
• Able to infect and cause diseases
• Show irritability and host-specific.

(ii) Non-living characters:

• Can be crystallized
• Don’t have metabolic machinery or functional autonomy
• In active outside the host
• Energy producing enzyme system is absent

Question 2.
Draw the ultra structure of bacterial cell. Image Parts:
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the economic importance of Cyanophyceae
Answer:

SNO	NAME OF THE ORGANISM	ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE
1	Microcystis aeruginosa anabaeria Anabaena Flos aquae	Waterbloom-release toxins-affect aqualic organisms
2	Nostoc, Anabaena	Fix atmospheric nitrogen(bio fertilizer)
3	Spirulina	Used to prepare SCP

Question 4.
Explain any 3 asexual method of reproduction in fungi
Answer:

1.	Zoospores	Flagellate structures-produced zoosporangia e.g. chytrids
2.	Conidia	Spores produced on conidiosphores e.g. penicillillium, Aspergillus
3.	Budding	A small out growth of parental cell, gets detached E.g. Saccharomyces.

Question 5.
Tabulate animal diseases caused by bacteria
Answer:

S.NO	Name of the animal	Name of the diseases	Name of the pathogen
1.	Sheep	Anthrax	Bacillus anthracis
2.	Cattle	Brucellosis	Bacillus abortus
3.	Cattle	Bovine Tuberculosis	Mycobacterium bovis
4.	Cattle	Black leg	Clostridium chanvei

Question 6.
Distinguish between Ammonification & Nitrification.
Answer:

Ammonification	Nitrification
1. Convert protein of dead plant animal bodies ↓ Ammonia ↓ Ammonium salt	After Ammonification the ammonium salts converted into Nitrites & nitrates
2. The bacteria bringing forth this conversion is known as  Ammonifying Bacteria.	This conversion of Ammonia into nitrites & nitrates is known as Nitrification.

Question 7.
By drawing diagrams, classify bacteria on the basis of flagellatin
Answer:

Question 8.
What are the prominent symptoms of TMV-affected tobacco plants?
Answer:
The first visible symptom of TMV is discoloration of leaf colour along the veins and show typical yellow and green mottling which is the mosaic symptom. The downward curling and distortion of young apical leaves occurs, plant becomes stunted and yield is affected.

Question 9.
Define Transduction and explain
Answer:
The three types of Transduction

1. Phage mediated DNAtransfer is Transduction
2. Zinder and Lederberg (1952) discovered it in Salmonella typhimurum
3. 2 types – Generalised and Specalised

I. Generalised Transduction:
a. Ability of bacteriophage to carry the genetic material of any region of bacteria DNA is called generalized transduction.

II. Specialised Transduction:
a. Ability of bacteriophage to carry only a specific region of the bacterial DNA is called Specialized or Restricted Transduction.

Question 10.
Identify from the diagram – & table correctly
Answer:
The given diagram is Basidiocarp of Agaricus

Answer:
1. Rhizoids
2. Stipe
3. Pileus
4. Gills

Question 11.
Identify from the diagram & label correctly.
Answer:

The given diagrams sporangium of mucor
1. Rhizoids
2. Sporangiophore
3. Zygosporangium
4. Zygospores

Question 12.
Define biopesticides and give 2 examples from fungi.
Answer:

1. The substances derived from microbes and plants can be used to kill or eradicate pests weeds and diseases causing germs of crops.
2. This is known Bio-pesticide. They are ecofriendly, non hazardous, non phytotoxic, e.g. Beauveria bassiana Metarhizium anisopliae

Question 13.
Write down any 4 uses of Mycorrhiza.
Answer:

• Nutrition – Saprophytic Angiosperm cant prepare food-due to absence of green leaves & it get nutrition via mycorrhiza e.g. Monotropa
• Availability of water and minerals: improve availability of water & minerals
• Protection-help plant to resist drought & attack of plant pathogen

Question 14.
Progametangium is formed at the tip.
Answer:
The fusion occurs & Zygosporangium is formed then undergo meiosis & zygospores These zygospores germinate are formed, during favourable condition into fungal hyphae.

Question 15.
Explain briefly the characteristics of Oomycetes
Answer:

Mycelium Cell wall Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction

Branched & Coenocytic (multinucleate made up of Glucan & Cellulose) Heterokont with one whiplash & one tinsel flagellum Oogamous-in nature E.g. Albugo

Question 16.
Explain briefly the characteristics of zygomycetes
Answer:

Nutrition cell wall Cellwall  Mycelium Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction

Mostly saprophytic Chitin & Cellulose Branched & Coenocylic Zygospore produced in Zygosporangia fusion of gametangia result in zygospores

Question 17.
Planogametic copulation in fungi has 3 types Explain.
Answer:
Planogametic copulation means fusion of motile gametes it has 3 types

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Oogamy
   Isogamy — Morphologically smilar gametes Anisogamy Morphologically dissimilar gametes
   Oogamy – But in Oogamy it is highly advanced anisogamy

Question 18.
Explain gametangial copulation in Rhizopus with the help of diagrams.
Answer:

• In rhizopus & in Mucor there occur heterothallism- there are 2 strains of the hyphae.
• In a sexual copulation only the 2 opposite strains +ve and -ve strains come together.
  

Question 19.
The tea or tobacco is not a result of mere drying process. Explain the value addition in these things?
Answer:
Yes tea & tobacco they are not mere dried leaves of Camellia sinensis (tea) & Nicotiana tobaccum so tea and tobacco to reach the utility stage, they have to be subjected to biological process known as curing, where specific bacteria are added & curing occur by a process of fermentation specific flavor and aroma of tea and tobacco are due to this fermentation process.

Tea – Mycococcus candisans
Tobacco – Bacillus megatherium

Question 20.
Write about the harmful activities of fungi.
Answer:

Amanita phalloides Amanita yema Boletus satanus known as toad stools	Poisonous – toxins are produced
Aspergillus Rhizopus Mucor Penicillum	Cause food spoilage
Aspergillus flavus	infest dried foods produce carcinogenic toxin called aflatoxin
	Patutin ochratoxin A arc other toxins produced by fungi
Diseases	Various diseases are caused to plants animals & human beings.

Question 21.
Mycorrhiza is known as bio fertilizer. Explain
Answer:

• Symbolic association between fungal mycelium and roots of higher plants is known as mycorrhiza.
• Fungi absorbs nutrition from root of higher plant, and intum fungal hyphae helps the paint to absorb water and minerals nutrients from soil.
• Any nutrient of biological orgin is biofertilizer & This is Bio fertilizer it is non hazardous, Non phytotoxic and ecofriendly.

Question 22.
Name the Antibiotics derived from fungi.
Answer:

Organism	Antibiotics	Uses
Penicillium notatum	Penicillin	To treat Pneumonia and throat infections
Penicillium griseofulvum	Grisofulvin	To treat ring worm athletes foot & fungal infections of scalp.
Acremorium chrysogenum	Cephatosporin	To treat respiratory tract infections skin infections & UTI (urinary tract infections)
Claviceps purpurea	Ergotamine	To treat migraine head aches induce uterus contraction at the time of child birth.

5 Marks

Question 1.
Compare the five-kingdom system of classification
Answer:
Kingdom

Question 2.
Ultrastructure of a typical bacterial cell.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain industrial uses of bacteria.
Answer:
Industrial Uses

Question 4.
List out bacterial diseases caused to plants, animals & human brings.
Answer:
Plant diseases caused by bacteria

SNo	Name of the host	Name of the disease	Name of the pathogen
1	Rice	Bacterial blight	Xanthomonas oryzae
2	Apple	Fire blight	Erwinia amylovora
3	Carrot	Soft rot	Erwinia caratovora
4	Citrus	Citrus canker	Xanthomonas citri
5	Cotton	Angular leaf spot	Xanthomonas malvacearum
6	Potato	Ring rot	Clavibacter michiganesis subsp sepdonicus
7	Potato	scab	Sterptomyces scabies

Animal diseases caused by bacteria

S.No	Name of the animal	Name of the diseases	Name of the pathogen
1	Sheep	anthrax	Bacillus anthracis
2	Cattle	brucellosis	Brucella abortus
3	Cattle	Bovine tuberculosis	Mycobacterium bovis
4	Cattle	Black leg	Clostridium chanvei

Human diseases caused by bacteria

S.NO	Name of the disease	Name of the pathogen
1.	Cholera	Vibrio cholerae
2.	Typhoid	Salmonella typhi
3.	Tuberculosis	Mycobacterium tuberculosis
4.	Leprosy	Mycobacterium leprae
5.	Pneumonia	Diplococcus pneumonie
6.	Plague	Yersinia pestis
7.	Diphtheria	Corynebacterium diptheriae
8.	Tetanus	Clostridium tetani
9.	Food poisoning	Clostridium botulinum
10.	Syphilis	Treponema pallidum

Question 5.
Tabulate the salient features of Cyanophyceae?
Answer:

Thallus	Unicellular- Eg. Chroococcus Colonial- Eg. Gleocapsa Filamentous trichome- Eg. Nostoc
Movement	Gliding movement – Eg. Oscillatoria
Protoplasm	Central – centroplasm Peripheral – chromoplast
Photosynthetic pigments	c. phyco cyanin & c. phyco erythrin Myxo xanthum Myxo xanthophyll

Question 6.
Give an account of Mycoplasma as Mollicutes.
Answer:

• Small-(0.1-0.5gm)
• Pieomorphic- gram-negative
• 1 st isolation by Nocard & co in 1898-from pleural fluid of cattle affected with bovine pleuropneumonia.
• Cell wall-absent
• In culture appear as fried egg.
• DNA contains low guanine and cytosine than true bacteria
• Cause disease in Animals / Plants
• Little leaf of brinjal – Witches broom of legumes Phyllody of cloves Sandal spike, -plant diseases
• Pleuropneumonia – animal disease caused by Mycoplasma mycoide.

Question 7.
Differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-Negative bacteria.
Answer:

Question 8.
Explain transformation in bacteria.
Answer:
Definition: Transfer of DNA from one bacteria to another is called transformation.

• 1928 Frederick Griffth demonstrated it in mice using Diplococcus pneumonia.
• 2 strains
  • Smooth colonies – virulent type (S)
  • Rough colonies – Avirulent type (R)
• S type injected – mouse died because it is virulent
• R type injected – mouse lived because R type is Avirulent
• Heat killed S type injected-mouse lived
• Heat killed S type + R type called when injected mixedly} mouse died

 

 

Question 9.
Classify the nitrogen-fixing biological systems.
Answer:

I. Symbiolic Angiosperm:
Leguminous Rhizobium root nodules of Ground nut Peas etc. (soil bacterium) Non-Leguminous (Alnus casuarinas) Frankia actinomycetes (root nodules)
II. Symbiolic gymnosperm Cycas unidentified spices of Blule green algae (corolloid roots)
III. Symbiotic ferns Azolla- Anbaena azollae – leaf pockets
IV. Symbiotic (fungi & Algae) Lichen (phycobiont mycobiont mutually benefited).

Question 10.
Tabulate the human disease caused by bacteria.
Answer:

Question 11.
Explain General characteristics of fungi
Answer:

• Plant body- the plant body is filamentous & branched hyphae No of hyphae interwoven to form – my celium
• Cell wall – made up of chitin (polymer of N acetyl glucose)
• Mycelium 2 types septate cross wall between cells Aseptate hyphae (multi nucleus coenocytic mycelium) E.g Albugo
• Mycelium of higher fungi. Septum present between cells if the hyphae Eg. Fusarium.
  

Types of mycelium
Mycelium organized to compactly interwoven tissue Pletenchyma – 2 Types

• Prosenchyma-hyphae loosely arranged
• Pseudoparenchyma hyphae compactly arranged Holocarpic form- Entire thallus- become reproductive structure.
• In Eucarpic form Some region of thallus reproductive & some other region vegetative Reproduction there are 3 types
  • Anamorph-Asexual
  • Teleomorph -Sexual
  • Holomorph-both sexual & Asexual.

Question 12.
Tabulate various types of Mycorrhizae
Answer:
Mycorrhizae – 3 Types

Ectotropic mycorrhizae	Endotropicmycorrhizae	Ectrndotrophicmycorrhizae
The fungal mycelium forms a dense sheath around the root called mantle. The hypha network penetrate the intercellular spaces of the epidermis, and cortex to form Hartignet. Example pisolithus tinctorius.	The hyphae grows mainly inside the roots, penetrate the outer cortical cells of the plant root. A small portion of the mycelium is found outside the root. This form is also called Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizal fungi (VAM fungi) due to the presence of vesicle or arbuscle like haustoria. 1. Arbuscular mycorrhizae(VAM)- Example Gigaspora 2. Ericoid mycorrhizae- Example liriodendron 3. Orchid mycorrhizae- Example Rhizoctonia	The fungi form both mantle and also penetrates the cortical cells.

Question 13.
List out diseases caused by fungi
Answer:
Diseases caused by fungi

S no	Name of the disease	Causative organism
Plant diseases
1	Blast of paddy	Magnoporthegriesea
2	Red rot of sugarcane	Colletotrichum falcatum
3	Anthracnose of beans	Colletotrichum lindemuthianum
4	White rust of crucifers	Albugo Candida
5	Peach leaf curl	Taphrina deformans
6	Rust of wheat	Puccinia graminis tritici

Human diseases

1	Athlete’s foot	Epidermophyton floccosum
2	Candidiasis	Candida albicans
3	Coccidioidomycosis	Coccidiosis immitis
4	Aspergillosis	Aspergillus fumigatus

Question 14.
Fruit bodies or Ascocarps 4types
Answer:

• Cleistothecium
• Ascothecium(flask shape)
• Apothecium(cup shape)
• Psedothecium
  1. Image structure of cleistothecium
  2. Structure of PeritheciumV.S
  3. Structure of Apothecium

Question 15.
Give an account of Basidiomycetes (club fungi).
Answer:

Fungi included	Puffballs, toadstools, bird nest’s fungi. Bracket fungi- stinkhorns, rusts smuts etc.
Habitat	Mostly terrestrial Saprophytic Parasitic mode of life
Mycelium	Well-developed, septate with a bracket like 3 types Monokaryotic mycelium Dikaryotic mycelium (Primary & Secondary) Tertiary mycelium
Sexual reproduction steps Plasmogamy Karyogamy &Meiosis	Occur – but sex organs absent Somatogamy or – Spermatisation result in Plasmogamy Karyogamy delayed & dikaryotic phase is prolonged followed by meiosis
image	4 nuclei become basidiospores bom on sterigmata -(exogenous) Club-shaped basidium bear basidiospores so-known as club fungi.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation

11th Commerce Guide Indirect Taxation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Right Answer:

Question 1.
Who is the chairman of the GST council?
a) RBI Governor
b) Finance Minister
c) Prime Minister
d) President of India
Answer:
b) Finance Minister

Question 2.
GST Stands for ………………
a) Goods and Supply Tax
b) Government Sales Tax
c) Goods and Services Tax
d) General Sales Tax
Answer:
c) Goods and Services Tax

Question 3.
What kind of Tax the GST is?
a) Direct Tax
b) Indirect Tax
c) Dependence on the Type of Goods and Services
d) All Business Organisations
Answer:
b) Indirect Tax

Question 4.
What is IGST?
(a) Integrated Goods and Service Tax
(b) Indian Goods and Service Tax ‘
(c) Initial Goods and Service Tax
(d) All the Above
Answer:
(a) Integrated Goods and Service Tax

Question 5.
In India, GST became effective from?
a) 1st April 2017
b) 1st January 2017
c) 1 st July 2017
d) 1 st March 2017.
Answer:
d) 1 st March 2017.

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define Indirect tax.
Answer:
Indirect Tax is levied on goods and services. It is collected from the buyers by the sellers and paid by the sellers to the Government. Since it is indirectly imposed on the buyers it is called an indirect tax.

Question 2.
List out any four types of indirect taxes levied in India.
Answer:
Goods and Services Tax, Excise Duty

Question 3.
What do you mean by Goods and Services Taxes?
Answer:
Goods and Services Tax (GST) is the tax imposed on the supply (consumption) of goods and services. It is a destination-based consumption tax and collected on those value-added items at each stage of the supply chain.

Question 4.
Write a note on SGST.
Answer:
State Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the State Governments under State GST Act. (Tamil Nadu GST Act 2017 passed by Tamil Nadu Govt.) SGST means State goods and service tax, replace the existing tax like sales tax, luxury tax, entry tax, etc. and it is levied by the state government.

Question 5.
What is CGST?
Answer:
CGST – Central Goods and Services Tax – is imposed and collected by the Central Government on all supply of goods within a state (intrastate) under CGST Act 2017.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two differences between direct taxes and indirect taxes.
Answer:

Basis of Difference	Direct Taxes	Indirect Taxes
1. Meaning	If a tax levied on the income or wealth of a person is paid by that person directly to the Government it is called direct tax	If tax is levied on the goods or services of a person is collected from the buyers by another person(seller) and paid by him to the Government it is called an indirect tax
2. Evasion	Tax evasion is possible	Tax evasion is more difficult

Question 2.
What are the objectives of GST?
Answer:

1. To create a common market with uniform tax rate in India. (One Nation, One Tax, One Market)
2. To eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, GST allows set-off of prior taxes for the same transactions as input tax credit.
3. To boost Indian exports, the GST already collected on the inputs will be refunded and thus there will be no tax on all exports.
4. To increase the tax base by bringing more number of tax payers and increase tax revenue.
5. To simplify tax return procedures through common forms and avoidance of visiting tax departments.
6. To provide online facilities for payment of taxes and submission of forms.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the functions of GST council.
Answer:
The GST Council will oversee the implementation of the GST. But the Central Board of Excise and Customs is responsible for administration of the CGST and IGST Acts. The Council makes recommendations on rate of GST, apportionment of IGST, exemptions, model GST laws, etc. The Chairman of the Council is the Union Finance Minister.

The Minister of State in the Finance Ministry and all Finance Ministers of the State Governments shall be its members.The Central Government shall have l/3rd voting power and all State Governments shall have 2/3rd voting powers. All decisions of the Council can be passed only with 3/4h of the total votes. Each state has one vote, irrespective of its size or population. Twenty four council meetings were held until 2017.

Question 4.
Explain IGST with an example.
Answer:
IGST – Inter-State Goods and Services Tax is imposed and collected by the Central Government and the revenue is shared with States under IGST Act 2017.

Question 5.
Write any three demerits of UGST.
Answer:
The demerits of GST are :
Several Economists says that GST in India would impact negatively on the real estate market. It would add up to 8 percent to the cost of new homes and reduce demand by about 12 percent. Another criticism is that CGST, SGST are nothing but new names for Central Excise/Service Tax, VAT and CST.

Hence, there is no major reduction in the number of tax layers. A number of retail products currently have only four percent tax on them. After GST, garments and clothes could become more expensive.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between direct taxes and indirect taxes.
Answer:

Bases of Difference	Direct Taxes	Indirect Taxes
1. Meaning	If a tax levied on the income or wealth of. a person is paid by that person (or his office) directly to the Government, it is called direct tax.	If tax is levied on the goods or services of a person is collected from the buyers by another person (seller) and paid by him to the Government it is called indirect tax
2. Incidence and Impact	Falls on the same person. Imposed on the income of a person and paid by the same person.	Falls on different persons. Imposed on the sellers but collected from the consumers and paid by sellers.
3.Burden	More income attracts more income tax. Tax burden is progressive on people.	Rate of tax is flat on all individuals. Therefore more income individuals pay less and lesser portion of their income as tax. Tax burden is regressive
4.Evasion	Tax evasion is possible.	Tax evasion is more difficult
5.Inflation	Direct Tax helps in reducing the inflation	Indirect tax contributes to inflation
6. Shift ability	Cannot be shifted to others	Can be shifted to others
7.Examples	Income Tax,Wealth Tax, Capital Gains Tax, Securities Transaction Tax, Perquisites Tax	GST, Excise Duty

Question 2.
Discuss the different kinds of GST.
Answer:
GST is of three kinds: CGST, SGST/UGST, and IGST.
1. CGST – Central Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the Central Government on all supply of goods within a state (intra-state) under CGST Act 2017.

2. SGST – State Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the State Governments under State GST Act. (Tamil Nadu GST Act 2017 passed by Tamil Nadu Govt.)

3. UGST – Union Territory Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the five Union Territory Administrations in India under UGST Act 2017.

4. IGST – Inter-State Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the Central Government and the revenue shared with States under IGST Act 2017.

5. IGST on exports – All exports are treated as Inter-State supply under GST. Since exports are zero-rated, GST is not imposed on all goods and services exported from India. Any input credit paid already on exports will be refunded.

Question 3.
Elucidate the merits of GST.
Answer:
A. To the Society and country:

1. A unified common national market will attract more foreign investment. GST has integrated the economy of all States and Union Territories.
2. It brings parity in taxation among imported goods and Indian manufactured goods. All imported goods will be charged with IGST which will be more or less equivalent to the total of CGST and SGST levied on manufactured goods. Removal of several taxes will make the price of Indian products more competitive in the world market.
3. It will boost manufacturing, export, GDP leading to economic growth through an increase in economic activity.
4. The creation of more employment opportunities will result in poverty eradication.
5. It will bring more tax compliance (more taxpayers) and increase revenue to the Governments.
6. It is transparent and will improve India’s ranking in the Ease of Doing Business in the world.
7. Uniform rates of tax will reduce tax evasion and rate arbitrage between States.

B. To Business Community:

1. Simpler Tax System with fewer exemptions. 17 taxes were abolished and one tax exists today.
2. The input tax credit will reduce cascading effect of taxes. Reduction in average tax burden will encourage manufacturers and help the “Make in India” campaign and make India a manufacturing hub.
3. Common procedures, common classification of goods and services, and timelines will lend greater certainty to the taxation system.
4. GSTN facility will reduce multiple record-keeping, lesser investment in manpower and resources and improve efficiency.
5. All interactions will be through a common GSTN portal and will ensure corruption-free administration
6. Uniform prices throughout the country. Expansion of business to all states is made easy.

C. To Consumers:

1. The input tax credit allowed will lower the prices to the consumers.
2. All small retailers will get exemptions and purchases from them will cost less for the consumers.

Question 4.
Compare CGST, SGST, and IGST.
Answer:

Basis of Difference	CGST	SGST	IGST
1.Meaning	CGST means Central goods and service tax to replace the existing tax like service tax, excise, etc. and It is levied by the central government	SGST means State goods and service tax, replace the existing tax like sales tax, luxury tax, entry tax,-etc. and it is levied by the state government	IGST refers to the Integrated Goods and Services Tax and it is a combined form of CGST and IGST and it is levied by the central government
2. Collection of Tax	Central Government	State Government	Central Government
3. Applicability	Intra-State supply	Intra-state supply	Inter-State supply
4.Registration	No registration till the turnover crosses 20 lakhs (10 lakhs for northeastern states)	No registration till the turnover crosses 20 lakhs (10 lakhs for northeastern states)	Registration is mandatory
5.Composition	The dealer can use the benefit upto 75 lakhs under the composition scheme	The dealer can use the benefit up to 75 lakhs under the composition scheme	The composition scheme is not applicable in interstate supply

11th Commerce Guide Indirect Taxation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
GST is a …………….. based tax on consumption of goods and services.
a. duration
b. destination
c. dividend
d. development
Answer:
b. destination

Question 2.
India GST model has …………….. rate structure.
a. 3
b. 5
c.4
d. 6
Answer:
c. 4

Question 3.
What is the maximum rate prescribed under GST?
a. 12
b. 20
c. 28
d. 18
Answer:
b. 20

Question 4.
When does liability to pay GST arise in the case of a supply of goods?
a. on raising of invoice
b. At the time of supply of goods
c. On receipt of payment
d. Earliest of any of above
Answer:
d. Earliest of any of above

Question 5.
Special provisions are there in the GST Act for the …………….. north-eastern states.
a. 8
b. 9
c. 6
d. 18
Answer:
a. 8

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by UGST?
Answer:
Union Territory Goods and Services Tax is formed to impose and collect tax from the five union territory administrations in India under UGST Act 2017.

III. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on GST Council:
Answer:
The GST Council will oversee the implementation of the GST. But the Central Board of Excise and Customs is responsible for the administration of the CGST and IGST Acts. The Council makes recommendations on the rate of GST, apportionment of IGST, exemptions, model GST laws, etc. The Chairman of the Council is the Union Finance Minister.

The Minister of State in the Finance Ministry and all Finance Ministers of the State Governments shall be its members. The Central Government shall have l/3rd voting power and all State Governments shall have 2/3rd voting powers. All decisions of the Council can be passed only with 3/4h of the total votes. Each state has one vote, irrespective of its size or population. Twenty four council meetings were held until 2017.

Question 2.
Who are all the officials involved in GST Secretariat?
Answer:
The following are the officials involved in GST officials:

• The Secretary (Revenue) will be appointed as the Ex-officio Secretary to the GST Council.
• The Chairperson, Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC), will be a permanent invitee (non-voting).
• One post of Additional Secretary to the GST, and
• Four posts of Commissioner in the GST Council Secretariat will also be created.

Question 3.
What are all the limitations of GST?
Answer:
The limitations/disadvantages of GST are stated below:

• Several Economists say that GST in India would impact negatively the real estate market. It would add up to 8 percent to the cost of new homes and reduce demand by about 12 percent.
• Another criticism is that CGST, SGST are nothing but new names for Central Excise/ Service Tax, VAT, and CST. Hence, there is no major reduction in the number of tax layers.
• A number of retail products currently have only four percent tax on them. After GST, garments, and clothes could become more expensive.
• The aviation industry would be affected. Service taxes on airfares currently range from six to nine percent. With GST, this rate will surpass fifteen percent and effectively double the tax rate.
• Adoption and migration to the new GST system would involve teething troubles and learn for the entire ecosystem.

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Book Solutions

• Chapter 1 Living World
• Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom
• Chapter 3 Vegetative Morphology
• Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology
• Chapter 5 Taxonomy and Systematic Botany
• Chapter 6 Cell: The Unit of Life
• Chapter 7 Cell Cycle
• Chapter 8 Biomolecules
• Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System
• Chapter 10 Secondary Growth
• Chapter 11 Transport in Plants
• Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition
• Chapter 13 Photosynthesis
• Chapter 14 Respiration
• Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development

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• Chapter 1 The Living World
• Chapter 2 Kingdom Animalia
• Chapter 3 Tissue Level of Organisation
• Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals
• Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption
• Chapter 6 Respiration
• Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation
• Chapter 8 Excretion
• Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement
• Chapter 10 Neural Control and Coordination
• Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration
• Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

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Students can also read Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers 2020-2021 English & Tamil Medium.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Answers Guide

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Back Answers Solutions Guide Volume 1 and Volume 2.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Book Back Answers

• Chapter 1 The Living World
• Chapter 2 Kingdom Animalia
• Chapter 3 Tissue Level of Organisation
• Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals
• Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption
• Chapter 6 Respiration
• Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation
• Chapter 8 Excretion
• Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement
• Chapter 10 Neural Control and Coordination
• Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration
• Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

We hope these Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi Class 11th Bio Zoology Book Solutions Answers Guide Volume 1 and Volume 2 Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Tamil Medium will help you get through your subjective questions in the exam.

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• Chapter 1 Living World
• Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom
• Chapter 3 Vegetative Morphology
• Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology
• Chapter 5 Taxonomy and Systematic Botany
• Chapter 6 Cell: The Unit of Life
• Chapter 7 Cell Cycle
• Chapter 8 Biomolecules
• Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System
• Chapter 10 Secondary Growth
• Chapter 11 Transport in Plants
• Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition
• Chapter 13 Photosynthesis
• Chapter 14 Respiration
• Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 32 Direct Taxes Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 32 Direct Taxes

11th Commerce Guide Direct Taxes Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Income Tax is ………………
a) a business tax
b) a direct tax
c) an indirect tax
d) none of these
Answer:
b) a direct tax

Question 2.
Period of assessment year is …………
a) 1 st April to 31 st March
b) 1st March to 28th Feb
c) 1st July to 30th June
d) 1st Jan. to 31st Dec
Answer:
a) 1 st April to 31 st March

Question 3.
The year in which income is earned is known as …………………
a) Assessment Year
b) Previous Year
c) Light Year
d) Calendar Year
Answer:
b) Previous Year

Question 4.
The aggregate income under five heads is termed as ……………….
(a) Gross Total Income
(b) Total Income
(c) Salary Income
(d) Business Income
Answer:
(b) Total Income

Question 5.
Agricultural income earned in India is ……………
a) Fully Taxable
b) Fully Exempted
c) Not Considered for Income
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) Fully Exempted

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Income tax?
Answer:
Income tax is a direct tax under which tax is calculated on the income, gains, or profits earned by a person such as individuals and. other artificial entities (a partnership firm, company, etc.).

Question 2.
What is meant by the previous year?
Answer:
The year in which income is earned is called the previous year. It is also called as financial year.

Question 3.
Define the term person?
Answer:
The term ‘person’ has been defined under the Income-tax Act. It includes individual, Hindu, Undivided Family, Firm, Company, local authority, Association of Person or Body of Individual or any other artificial juridical persons.

Question 4.
Define the term assessed?
Answer:
As per S. 2(7) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, the term “assessee” means a person by whom any tax or any other sum of money is payable under this Act. Assess includes individual, HUF, Firm, Company, Local authority, AOP, BOJ or any other artificial juridical persons.

Question 5.
What is an assessment year?
Answer:
The term has been defined under section 2(9). The year in which tax is paid is called the assessment year. It normally consists of a period of 12 months commencing on 1^st April every year and ending on 31^st March of the following year.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Gross Total Income?
Answer:
According to section 80 B (5) Income computed under the following heads shall be aggregated after adjusting past and present losses and the total so arrived is known as ‘Gross Total income’.

• Income from Salaries
• Income from House Property
• Income from Business or Profession
• Income from Capital Gain
• Income from Other Sources

Question 2.
List out the five heads of Income.
Answer:
The five heads of income are:

1. Income from‘Salaries’ [Sections 15 – 17];
2. Income from ‘House Property’ [Sections 22 – 27];
3. Income from ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’ [Sections 28 – 44];
4. Income from ‘Capital Gains’ [Sections 45 – 55]; and
5. Income from other Sources’ [Sections 56 – 59].

Question 3.
Write a note on Agricultural Income.
Answer:
According to Section 2(1 A) of the Income Tax Act 1961, Agricultural Income includes, “Any rent or revenue derived from land which is situated in India and is used for agriculture purposes”.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Total income?
Answer:
Out of Gross Total Income, Income Tax Act 1961 allows certain deductions under section 80. After allowing these deductions the figure which we arrive at is called ‘Total Income’ and on this figure tax liability is computed at the prescribed rates.

1. Gross Total Income
2. Less: Deductions (Sec. 80C to 80U)
3. Total Income (T.I.)

Question 5.
Write short notes on:
Answer:
a. Direct Tax:
If a tax levied on the income or wealth of a person and is paid by that person (or his office) directly to the Government, it is called direct tax e.g. Income-Tax, Wealth Tax, Capital Gains Tax, Securities Transaction Tax. Fringe Benefits Tax (from 2005), Banking Cash Transaction Tax (for Rs.50,000 and above -from 2005), etc. In India all direct taxes are levied and administered by Central Board of Direct Taxes.

b. Indirect Tax:
If tax is levied on the goods or services of a person (seller). It is collected from the buyers and is paid by seller to the Government. It is called indirect tax. e.g. GST.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Elucidate any five features of Income Tax.
Answer:
Features of Income Tax in India:
1. Levied as Per the Constitution Income tax is levied in India by virtue of entry No. 82 of List I (Union List) of Seventh Schedule to Article 246 of the Constitution of India.

2. Levied by Central Government Income tax is charged by the Central Government on all incomes other than agricultural income. However, the power to charge income tax on agricultural income has been vested with the State Government as per entry 46 of List II, i.e., State List.

3. Direct Tax Income tax is a direct tax. It is because the liability to deposit and ultimate burden are on the same person. The person earning income is liable to pay income tax out of his own pocket and cannot pass on the burden of tax to another person.

4. Annual Tax Income tax is an annual tax because it is the income of a particular year which is chargeable to tax.

5. Tax on Person It is a tax on income earned by a person. The term ‘person’ has been defined under the Income-tax Act. It includes individual, Hindu Undivided Family, Firm, Company, local authority, Association of Person or Body of Individual or any other artificial juridical persons. The persons who are covered under Income-tax Act are called ‘assessees’.

Question 2.
Define Tax. Explain the term direct tax and indirect tax with an example.
Answer:
A tax is a compulsory financial contribution imposed by a government to raise revenue, levied on the income or property of persons or organizations, on the production costs or sales prices of goods and services etc.

a. Direct Tax:
A direct tax is paid directly by an individual or organization to an imposing entity. A taxpayer, for example pays direct taxes to the government for different purposes, including real property tax, personal property tax, income tax or taxes on assets.

b. Indirect Tax:
If tax is levied on the goods or services of a person(seller), it is known as indirect tax. It is , collected from the buyers and is paid by the seller to the government. It is paid to the government by one entity in the supply chain. Example: GST.

Question 3.
List out any ten kinds of incomes chargeable under the head income tax.
Answer:

1. Profits and gains of business or profession.
2. Dividend
3. Voluntary contribution received by a charitable / religious trust or university/education institution or hospital/electoral trust[ w.e.f. 01.04.2010]
4. Value of perquisite or profit in lieu of salary taxable u/s 17 and social allowance or benefit specifically granted either to meet personal expenses or for performance Of duties of an office or employment of profit.
5. Export incentives, like duty drawback, cash compensatory support, sale of licenses, etc.
6. Interest, salary, bonus, commission, or remuneration earned by a partner of a firm from such firm.
7. Capital gains chargeable u/s 45.
8. Profits and gains from the business of banking carried on by a cooperative society with its members.
9. Winnings from lotteries, crossword puzzles, races including horse races, card games, and other games of any sort or from gambling or betting of any form or nature whatsoever.
10. Deemed income u/s 41 or 59.

Question 4.
Discuss the various kinds of assessments.
Answer:
The following are the different types of assesses:

• Individual
• Partnership firm
• Hindu Undivided Family
• Companies
• Association of Persons
• Body of Individual.

11th Commerce Guide Direct Taxes Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
How many heads of income are there to compute Gross total income?
a. Six
b. Five
c. Four
d. Three
Answer:
b. Five

Question 2.
Income Tax Act came into force on ……………
a.1.4.1932
b. 1.4.1962
c. 1.4.1947
d. 1.4.1954
Answer:
b. 1.4.1962

Question 3.
The compensation received for loss of trading asset is a ……………….
a. Capital receipt
b. Revenue receipt
c. a casual receipt
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Capital receipt

Question 4.
The legislative powers of the Union Government and the State Governments are given in the …………………….. of the Indian Constitution.
a. Article 246 (VII schedule)
b. Article 246 (VI schedule)
c. Article 264 (VII schedule)
d. Article 446 (VII schedule)
Answer:
a. Article 246 (VII schedule)

Question 5.
Tax charged on Long Term Capital Gain is ……………..
a. 20%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 30%
Answer:
a. 20%

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Tax?
Answer:
Tax is a compulsory contribution to state revenue by the Government. It is levied on the income or profits from the business of individuals and institutions.

Question 2.
What is the reasoñ for collecting tax?
Answer:
The revenue earned through tax is utilized for the expenses of civil ädministration, internal and external security, building infrastructure, etc.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who do income tax is treated as annual tax?
Answer:
Income tax is an annual tax because it is the income of a particular year which is chargéable to tax.

Question 2.
What are all the tax rates prescribed for LTCG, STCG, and lottery income?
Answer:
The following tax rates have been prescribed under Income Tax Act. ‘

• Tax on long term capital gain @ 20% (Section 112);
• Tax on short term capital gain on shares covered under STT @15% (Section 111A).
• Tax on lottery income @ 30% (Section 11 5BB)

Question 3.
What do you mean by the previous year?
Answer:
According to Section (3) of the Income Tax Act 1961, “The year in which income is earned is called the previous year”. It is also normally consisting of a period of 12 months commencing on 1 st April every year and ending on 31 st March of the following year. It is also called as financial year’ immediately following the assessment year.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the structure of the Indian Taxation system:
Answer:
The Indian taxation system is one of the largest systems in the world. The authority to levy tax is derived from the Indian constitution and is well-structured. The tax administration has a clear demarcation between Central Government and State Governments and then between state Governments and Local Bodies. Article 246 (Seventh Schedule) of the Indian constitution contains the legislative powers (including taxation) of the Union government and the State Governments.

Question 2.
Write a note on Heads of Income under Income Tax Act:
Answer:
Section 14 of the Income Tax Act 1961 provides for the computation of the total income of an assessee which is divided into five heads of income. Each head of income has its own method of computation. These five heads are;

1. Income from ‘Salaries’ [Sections 15-17]
2. Income from ‘House Property’ [Sections 22-27]
3. Income from ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’ [Sections 28- 44]
4. Income from ‘Capital Gains’ [Sections 45-55] and
5. Income from ‘Other Sources’ [Sections 56-59].

Question 3.
Write a note on slab raite of Income-tax charged on Individual:
Answer:
According to the Assessment year 2018-2019 the following rates will be charged:

Total Income (Rs)	Income Tax Rate
Up to 2,50,000	Nil
2,50,001 – 5,00,000	5%
5,00,000 – 10,00,000	20%
Above 10,00,000	30%

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract

11th Commerce Guide Discharge and Breach of a Contract Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
On the valid performance of the contractual obligation by the parties, the contract
a. Is discharged
b. Becomes enforceable
c. Becomes void
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Is discharged

Question 2.
An agreement to do an act impossible in itself under Section.56 is
a. Void
b. Valid
c. Voidable
d. Unenforceable
Answer:
a. Void

Question 3.
Any agreement which becomes impossible to perform under various circumstances
a. Voidable
b. Void
c. Valid
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Void

Question 4.
Discharge by mutual agreement may involve
a. Novation
b. Rescission
c. Alteration
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 5.
The compensation given for breach of contract is
a. Damage
b. remuneration
c. Money
d. Cheque
Answer:
a. Damage

II Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the kinds of consent?
Answer:
The consent may be of the following types:

1. Express
2. Implied

Question 2.
What are the types of Impossibility of Performance?
Answer:
There are two types of the impossibility of performance such as

1. Impossibility existing at -the time of the agreement.
2. Impossibility arising subsequent to the formation of the contract.

Question 3.
What is Quantum merit?
Answer:
The meaning of the phrase quantum merit is ‘as much as earned’.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the different modes of discharge by implied consent?
Answer:
The different modes of discharge by implied consent are: .

• Novation
• Alteration
• Recession
• Remission
• Accord and Satisfaction
• Waiver and
• Merger

Question 2.
Define discharge by Performance.
Answer:
Performance implies carrying out the obligation of the contract. Performance must be completed according to the real intentions of the agreement. Performance must be done according to the time and manner prescribed.

Question 3.
What are the reasons for impossibility arising after the formation of a contract?
Answer:
A contract may be discharged if its performance becomes impossible. The rule of the impossibility of performance is based on the following maxims

• The law does not recognize what is impossible and
• What is impossible does not create an obligation

Question 4.
What are the various rules regarding damages?
Answer:
Generally in the following cases, the court grants specific performance:

1. When the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for its non – performance is not sufficient.
2. When it is probable that compensation in money cannot be received for the non – performance of the act agreed to be done.
3. When there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non – performance of the act agreed to be done.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the ways of discharge of Contract?
Answer:
Meaning:
Discharge of contract implies termination of the contractual relationship between the parties. A contract is discharged if it ceases to operate and when the rights and obligations created by it come to an end.

Discharge by Performance:
Performance implies carrying out the obligation of the contract. Performance must be completed according to the real intentions of the agreement. Performance must be done according to time and manner prescribed. Performance of contract may be of two types namely (i) Actual . performance (ii)Attempted performance

By Agreement on Consent:
Agreement between the parties comes to an end by mutually agreeing for it. Any contract is created by an agreement, hence in the same way, it can be discharged by an agreement. In this connection, the rule of law is as follows. “Eodemmodoqus and quide constitution, eodemmododestruitur,” the meaning of which is that a thing may be destroyed in the same manner, in which, it is constituted. The consent may be of the following types

• Express
• Implied.

By Impossibility of Performance:
A contract may be discharged if its performance becomes impossible. According to the Section 56 of the Act, all acts to do impossible acts are void. There are two types of impossibility of performance such as

1. Impossibility existing at the time of agreement,
2. Impossibility arising subsequent to the formation of contract.

By Lapse of Time:
According to the Limitation Act, 1963 a contract must be performed within a specified time. If it is not performed within this specified time limit and against which if no action is taken by the promisee in the Court of Law within specified time, then the promisee is deprived of his remedy at law. In such cases, the contract is discharged.

A contract can be discharged by the operation of law:
The operation of law by which contract can be discharged are as follows :

• By Death
• By Merger
• By Insolvency
• The unauthorised alteration of terms of a contract
• Rights and liabilities vesting in the same person

Question 2.
Write about the various remedies for breach of contract:
Answer:
There are various types of remedies for the injured parties listed as follows:

1. Recission of Contract – In case of breach of contract by one party, then the other parties may rescind the contract, and thereby the party is absolved from all obligations under the contract.

2. Claim for Specific Performance – In some specific cases if the damages are not an adequate remedy, then the court can direct the party in breach for the specific performance of the contract. In such a case, the promise is carried out as per the terms and conditions of the contract.

3. Claim for Injunction – Injunction is an order passed by a competent Court restraining a person from doing some act. An injunction can be defined as a mode of securing the specific performance of the negative terms of a contract.

4. Claim for Quantum Merit – The claim for quantum merit may arise if a contract performed by one party has become discharged by breach of the other party. The meaning of the phrase quantum merit is as much as earned’.

5. Claim for Damages – The claim for quantum merit may arise if a contract performed by one party has become discharged by breach of the other party. The meaning of the phrase quantum merit is as much as earned.

Question 3.
Discuss the different types of damages awarded to the injured party.
Answer:
Damages are monetary compensation awarded by the court to the injured party for the loss or injury suffered by him. As per the contract, one party can claim damages if the other parties breach the contract. The main purpose of awarding the damages is to make good the loss suffered by him. It is known as the doctrine of restitution.

Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with the compensation for loss or damages caused by a party for breach of contract. There are mainly four types of damages, such as

1. Ordinary damages
2. Special damages
3. Vindictive or exemplary damages; and
4. Nominal damages

11th Commerce Guide Discharge and Breach of a Contract Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
In case of breach of contract, which of the following remedies is not available to the aggrieved party?
a. suit for rescission
b.suit for damages
c. suit for specific performance
d. a suit under Indian Penal Code
Answer:
d. suit under Indian Penal Code

Question 2.
The time of limitation for enforcement of contractual rights is ………………..
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
Answer:
b. 3 years

Question 3.
If a new contract is replaced in the place of a prevailing contract is called …………………
a. alteration
b. novation
c. waiver
d. remission
Answer:
b. novation

Question 4.
Discharge by mutual agreement involves which of the following?
a. Novation
b. Rescission
c. Alteration
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 5.
Which of the following is the usual law remedy?
a. Injunction
b. Specific Performance
c. Damages
d. Penalty
Answer:
c. Damages

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the discharge of a contract?
Answer:
Discharge of contract implies termination of the contractual relationship between the parties. A contract is discharged if it ceases to operate and when the rights and obligations created by it come to an end.

Question 2.
What are all the types of performance of a contract?
Answer:
Performance of the contract is under two types namely,

1. Actual Performance and
2. Attempted Performance.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
State some cases, in which the court grants specific performance:
Answer:

• When the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for its non-performance is not sufficient.
• When it is probable that compensation in money cannot be received for the non-performance of the act agreed to be done.
• When there is no standard for ascertaining the .actual damage caused by the non-performance of the act agreed to be done.

Question 2.
At what circumstances the court may order an injunction at the time of claim?
Answer:
The court may order injunction in the following cases:

• If the contract is voidable
• If the contract becomes void or
• On discovering the contract as void.

IV Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the ways by which a contract can be discharged by operation of law:
Answer:
The operation of law by which contract can be discharged are as follows:
By Death:
If the contracts depend on the personal skill or ability, then such contract may be discharged on the death of the promisor.

By Merger:
Merger will take place when an inferior right accruing to the same party either under the same or another contract.

By Insolvency:
An insolvent is discharged from all liabilities incurred prior to his adjudication.

Unauthorized Alteration of the Terms of a Contract:
If one party makes any material alteration in the contract without the consent of the other party, then the other party can avoid the contract.

Rights and liabilities vesting in the same person:
Where the right and liability become vested in the same person, the other parties are discharged.

Question 2.
What are all the reasons for not granting the specific performance by the court?
Answer:
The court does not grant specific performance in the following cases:

• Damages are an adequate remedy
• The contract is not certain
• The contract is inequitable to either party
• The contract is of revocable nature
• The contract is made by the trustee in breach of trust
• The contract is of personal nature i.e., contract to marry
• The contract made by a company ultra-vires of its Memorandum of Association
• The court cannot supervise it’s carrying out.

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TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Papers 2020 2021 English Tamil Medium

Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers English Medium 2020-2021

• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium
• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium
• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium
• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium
• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers Tamil Medium 2020-2021

• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 Tamil Medium
• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 Tamil Medium
• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 3 Tamil Medium
• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 4 Tamil Medium
• Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 Tamil Medium

11th Economics Model Question Paper Design 2020-2021 Tamil Nadu

Types of Questions	Marks	No. of Questions to be Answered	Total Marks
Part-I Objective Type	1	20	20
Part-II Very Short Answers (Totally 10 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)	2	7	14
Part-Ill Short Answers (Totally 10 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)	3	7	21
Part-IV Essay Type	5	7	35
Marks			90
Internal Assessment			10
Total Marks			100

Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper Weightage of Marks

Purpose	Weightage
1. Knowledge	30%
2. Understanding	40%
3. Application	20%
4. Skill/Creativity	10%

It is necessary that students will understand the new pattern and style of Model Question Papers of 11th Standard Economics Tamilnadu State Board Syllabus according to the latest exam pattern. These Tamil Nadu Plus One 11th Economics Model Question Papers State Board Tamil Medium and English Medium are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for TN HSLC Board Exams and Score More marks.

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 29 Elements of Contract Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 29 Elements of Contract

11th Commerce Guide Elements of Contract Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
An agreement enforceable by law is a ………………..
(a) Enforceable acceptance
(b) Accepted offer
(c) Approved promise
(d) Contract
Answer:
(d) Contract

Question 2.
Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an
(a) Agreement
(b) Contract
(c) Offer
(d) Acceptance
Answer:
(a) Agreement

Question 3.
Void agreement signifies ……………….
(a) Agreement illegal in nature
(b) Agreement not enforceable by law
(c) Agreement violating legal procedure
(d) Agreement against public policy
Answer:
(b) Agreement not enforceable by law

Question 4.
Acceptance to be valid must ………………….
(a) Be absolute
(b) Be unqualified
(c) Both be absolute & unqualified
(d) Be conditional
Answer:
(c) Both be absolute & unqualified

Question 5.
A contract with or by a minor is a ……………
(a) Valid contract
(b) Void contract
(c) Voidable contract .
(d) Voidable at the option of either party
Answer:
(d) Voidable at the option of either party

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is law?
Answer:
Law means a ‘set of rules’ which governs our behaviour and relating in a civilized society.

Question 2.
Why should one know the law?
Answer:
One should know the law to which he/she is subjected to hecausç ignorance of law is no excuse.

Question 3.
Can a minor enter into a Contract?
Answer:
As per the Indian Contract Act 1872, a contract entered by or with a minor is void as well as void-abinitio. Which means it has no legal effect from the very beginning.

Question 4.
Who can enter into a Contract?
Answer:
The Indian Contract Act specifies that every person is competent to contract provided he/she

• Is of the age of majority according to the law which he/she is subject to, and
• Who is of sound mind and
• Is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject to, an alien enemy, foreign sovereigns and accredited representative of a foreign state, insolvents, and convicts are not competent to contract.

Question 5.
Define Contract
Answer:
Contract 2(h) An agreement enforceable by Law is a Contract.

III Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Offer:
Answer:
According to section 2(a) of Indian Contract Act Offer is defined as “When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other person either to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal”.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Agreement?
Answer:
An “agreement” means ‘a promise or a set of promises’ forming consideration for each other. A promise arises when a proposal is accepted. By implication, an agreement is an accepted proposal. In other words, an agreement consists of an ‘offer’ and its ‘acceptance’.
Agreement = offer / Proposal + Acceptance

Question 3.
Define a Voidable Contract:
Answer:
According to Section 2 (i) of the Indian Contract Act 1872, a voidable contract is, “An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more parties but not at the option of the other or others is a voidable contract”.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Revocation?
Answer:
The Revocation means the withdrawal of an offer power of attorney.

Question 5.
Who is a promisor, promisee?
Answer:
Promisor: The person who has become obliged through a promise is known as a promisor
Promisee: The person to whom the promise has been made is known as the promisee.

IV Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the essentials of a Valid Contract:
Answer:

1. Offer and Acceptance: There must be two parties to an agreement namely one party making the offer and the other party accepting it.
2. Legal Relationship: The parties must have the intention to create legal relations between them. An agreement of Social or domestic nature is not at all a contract.
3. Lawful Consideration (quid pro quo) : As per Contract Act under Sec.2(d) Consideration means something in return. A contract without consideration becomes invalid.
4. Lawful Object (Section 23) : The object of the agreement should be lawful and legal. It must not be immoral, illegal or opposed to public policy.
5. Free Consent (Section 13 & 14) : Consent of the parties must be free and genuine. Consent means agreeing upon the same thing in the same sense at the same time i.e. there should be a consensus – ad – idem. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation, or mistake.
6. The capacity of Parties (Section 11): The parties to a contract must have the capacity (legal ability) to make a valid contract.
7. The certainty of Terms (Section 29): The agreement should be clear to the parties of the agreement. The agreement must be precise.
8. Possibility of Performance (Section 56) : The terms of the agreement should be capable of performing. An agreement to do an act, impossible in itself cannot be enforced.
9. Not declared Void: The agreement should be such that it should be capable of being enforced by law. Certain agreements have been expressly declared illegal or void by the law.
10. Necessary Legal Formalities: A contract may be oral or in writing. Where a particular type of contract is required by law to be in writing and registered, it must comply with necessary formalities as to writing, registration, and attestation.

Question 2.
Difference between Contract and Agreement.
Answer:

Basis of Difference	Contract	Agreement
1. Definition	A contract is an agreement enforceable by law	An agreement is every promise or every set of promises forming consideration
2. Enforceability	Every contract is enforceable	Every promise is not enforceable
3. Interrelationship	A contract includes an agreement	An agreement does not include a contract
4. Validity	Only legal agreements are called contracts	An agreement may be both legal or illegal
5. Legal Obligation	Every contract contains a legal ‘ obligation.	It is not necessary for every agreement to have a legal obligation.

Question 3.
Explain the classification of Contract on the basis of the Validity.
Answer:

1. Valid Contract: An agreement which fulfills all the essentials prescribed by law on the basis of its creation. For example, S offers to sell his car for Rs.2,00,000 to T. T agrees to buy it. It is a Valid Contract.
2. Void Contract 2(j): A contract which ceases to be enforceable by law. A contract which does not satisfy any of the essential elements of a valid contract is said to be Void.
3. Voidable Contract 2(i): An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more parties but not at the option of the other or others is a voidable contract.
4. Illegal Contract: It is a contract which is forbidden by law. All illegal agreements are Void but all void agreements or contracts are not necessarily illegal. A contract that is immoral or opposed to public policy is illegal in nature.
5. Unenforceable Contract: Where a contract is unenforceable because of some technical defect i.e. absence in writing barred by imitation etc. If the parties perform the contract it will be valid, but the court will not compel them if they do not.

Question 4.
Explain the classification of Contract on the basis of the Formation.
Answer:
Express Contract:
A contract made by the word spoken or written. According to Section.9, in so far as the proposal or acceptance of any promise is made in words, the promise is said to be express. For example, P says to Q ‘will you buy my bicycle for Rs.l,000?” Q says to P “Yes”.

Implied Contract:
The implied contract is one, which is not expressly written but understood by the conduct of parties. Where the proposal or acceptance of any promise is made otherwise than in words, the promise is said to be implied. For example, A gets into a public bus, there is an implied contract that he will pay the bus fare.

Quasi Contract:
It is a contract created by law. Actually, there is no contract. It is based on the principle that “a person shall not be allowed to enrich himself unjustly at the expense of the other”. In other words, it is an obligation of one party to another imposed by law independent of an agreement between the parties.

Tacit Contract:
A contract is said to be tacit when it has to be inferred from the conduct of the parties. For example, obtaining cash through an automatic teller machine, sale by fall of the hammer of an auction sale.

Question 5.
Explain the classification of Contract on the basis of the Performance.
Answer:
1. Executed Contract: A contract in which both the parties have fulfilled their obligations under the contract. For example X contracts to buy a car from Y by paying cash, Y instantly delivers his car.

2. Executory Contract: A contract in which both the parties are yet to fulfill their obligations, is said to be an executory contract. For example, A agrees to buy B’s cycle by promising to pay cash on 15th June. B agrees to deliver the cycle on 20th June.

3. Unilateral Contract: A unilateral contract is a one-sided contract in which only one party has performed his promise or obligation, the other party has to perform his promise or obligation.

For example, X promises to pay Y a sum of Rs. 10,000 for the goods to be delivered by Y. X paid the money and Y is yet to deliver the goods.

4. Bilateral Contract: A contract in which both the parties commit to performing their respective promises is called a bilateral contract. For example, R offers to sell his fiat car to S for Rs. 10,00,000 on acceptance of R’s offer by S, there is a promise by R to Sell the car and there is a promise by S to purchase the car, there are two promises.

11th Commerce Guide Elements of Contract Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Contracts classified on the basis of performance are
a. executed contracts
b. executory contracts
c. partly executed or partly executory contracts
d. all of the above
Answer:
d. all of the above

Question 2.
A contract in which, under the terms of a contract, nothing remains to be done by either party is known as
a. executed contract
b. executory contract
c. unilateral contract
d. none of the above
Answer:
a. executed contract

Question 3.
All illegal agreements are void, but all void agreements are not illegal.
a. True
b. Partly true
c. False
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. True

Question 4.
A appoints B as his agent, by way of a power of attorney. This is an example of
a. express contract
b. implied contract
c. tacit contract
d. unlawful contract
Answer:
a. express contract

Question 5.
A contract creates
a. rights in person
b. rights in parties
c. no obligations
d. only obligations and no rights
Answer:
a. rights in person

Question 6.
The Contract Act came into force
a. from 1 September 1972.
b. before 1 September 1882.
c. from 1 September 1872.
d. after 1 September 1872.
Answer:
c. from 1 September 1872.

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is meant by Tacit Contract?
Answer:
A Contract is said to be tacit when it has to be inferred from the conduct of the parties. For example, obtaining cash through an automatic teller machine, sale by fall of the hammer of an auction sale.

Question 2.
What are all the two parts of the Indian Contract Act?
Answer:

1. General Contract
2. Special Contract

Question 3.
What do you mean by Acceptance?
Answer:
According to section 2(b) of the Indian Contract Act 1872, When the person to whom the proposal is made, signifies his assent thereto. the proposal is said to be accepted.

III Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Write a short note on Bilateral Contract.
Answer:
A contract in which both the parties commit to performing their respective promises is called a bilateral contract. For example, R offers to sell his fiat car to S for Rs. 10,00,000 on acceptance of R’s offer by S, there is a promise by R to Sell the car and there is a promise by S to purchase the car, there are two promises.

Question 2.
What are all the types of agreements?
Answer:
Agreements are all in the following types: Agreement no enforceable by law – Any essential of a valid contract is not available. An agreement enforceable by law – All essentials of a valid contract are available.

Question 3.
Explain the term Consideration:
Answer:
As per section 2(d) When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or abstained from doing something or does or abstains from doing something or promises to do or abstain from doing something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise.

IV Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on the Indian Contract Act.
Answer:
The Indian Contract Act occupies the most important place in Commercial Law. Without Contract Act, it would have been difficult to carry on a trade or any other business activity. The main object of the contract action is to assure that the rights and obligations which arise out of the contract are carried out and in case of failure to do so, the remedies are made available to the affected party. The Indian Contract Act is so much infused in the daily lives that it affects all.

Every purchase that one does, or a loan taken from a banker, or a ride one takes in a bus and many other transactions of daily life have its impact by Contract Act. The English common law is the basis for the development of the Indian Contract Act 1872. The Act came into force on 1st September 1872 and applies to the whole of India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir. This Act applies to the usage of trade and lays down the general principles.

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