Category: Class 11

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 7 Cooperative Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 7 Cooperative Organisation

11th Commerce Guide Cooperative Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1. Membership in a co-operative organization is …………………
a) Not open to all
b) Selective
c) Open to all
d) None of them
Answer:
c) Open to all

Question 2.
Co-operative fails because of …………..
a) Unlimited membership
b) Cash trading
c) Mismanagement
d) Loss-making
Answer:
c) Mismanagement

Question 3.
All cooperatives are established with …………………….
a) Philanthropic motive
b) Service motive
c) Profit motive
d) Reform motive
Answer:
b) Service motive

Question 4.
Consumers Co-operation was first successful in ……………………..
a) England
b) the USA
c) Swiss
d) India
Answer:
a) England

Question 5.
Rochdale Society of equitable pioneers was started by ……………
a) Robert Owen
b) H.C.Calver
c) Talmaki
d) Lambert
Answer:
a) Robert Owen

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by the co-operative organization?
Answer:
A cooperative is a private business organization that is owned and controlled by the people who use its products, supplies, or services.

Question 2.
Define Cooperatives.
Answer:
According to H.Calvert, “Co-operation is a form of organization in which persons voluntarily associate together as human beings on the basis of equality for the promotion of the economic interests of themselves.”

Question 3.
What are Credit cooperatives?
Answer:
Cooperative credit societies are societies formed for providing short – term financial help to their members. Agriculturists, artisans, industrial workers, salaried employees, etc., form these credit societies.

Question 4.
Is a low tax possible in a cooperative society?
Answer:
Yes, low tax is possible in cooperative societies. Since it is a non-profit enterprise, the law gives preferential treatment and the government provides various exemptions and tax concessions.

Question 5.
Who are Rochdale pioneers?
Answer:
At first, the cooperative movement was started by Robert Owen, in the year 1844. He formed a consumer’s cooperative society in England with 28 workers as members, called “Rochdale Society of Equitable Pioneers”.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the disadvantages of Cooperatives? (Any 3)
Answer:
1. Limited funds:
Since the co-operative societies have limited membership and it is promoted by the weaker section, the membership fees collected is low. They cannot expand their activities beyond a particular level due to the limited financial resources.

2. Over-reliance on Government funds:
Co-operative societies are not able to raise their own resources. Their sources of financing are limited and they depend on government funds. The funding and the number of funds that would be released by the government are uncertain.

3. Conflicts among members:
Cooperative societies are based on the principles of co-operation and therefore harmony among members is important. But in practice, there might be internal politics, differences of opinions, quarrels, etc. among members which may lead to disputes. Such disputes affect the functioning of cooperative societies.

Question 2.
Write a note on Housing cooperatives.
Answer:
The cooperative housing societies are meant to provide residential accommodation to their members on an ownership basis or on rent. People who intend to build houses of their own join together and form housing societies. These societies advance loans to members, repayable over a period of 15 to 20 years.

Question 3.
What is meant by Producers Cooperative society?
Answer:
Producer cooperatives are established and operated by producers. Producers can decide to work together or as separate entities to help increase marketing possibilities and production efficiency. They are organized to process, market, and distribute their own products.
This helps lessen costs and strains in each area with a mutual benefit to each producer. Example, Cooperative weavers’ societies, Co-operative carpeting units.

Question 4.
Write a note on cooperative farming societies.
Answer:
When various farmers in a village pool their land together and agree to treat the pooled piece of land as one big farm for the purpose of cultivation, purchase the necessary inputs for the cultivation, and market the crops jointly, they are assumed to have formed a cooperative farming society. Such a society, for its proper working, elects its office bearers on the basis of one member – one – vote.

Question 5.
Write a note on industrial cooperatives.
Answer:
An industrial cooperative is an association of workers & craftsmen involved in cottage or village industries, who come together to undertake collective production, processing, and marketing of goods manufactured by the members and provide them with the necessary services and assistance.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the principles of cooperatives? (Any 5)
Answer:
1. Voluntary and Open Membership:
Cooperatives are voluntary organisations, open to all people able to use their services and willing to accept the responsibilities of membership, without gender, social, racial, political, or religious discrimination.

2. Democratic Member Control:
Cooperatives are democratic organisations controlled by their members those who buy the goods or use the services of the cooperative who actively participate in setting policies and making decisions.

3. Member’s Economic Participation:
Members contribute equally to and democratically control, the capital of the cooperative. This benefits member in proportion to the business they conduct with the cooperative rather than on the capital invested.

4. Autonomy and Independence:
Cooperatives are autonomous, self-help organisations controlled by their members. If the cooperative enters into agreements with other organisations or raises capital from external sources, it is done so based on terms that ensure democratic control by the members and maintains the cooperative’s autonomy.

5. Education, Training, and Information:
Cooperatives provide education and training for members, elected representatives, managers, and employees so they can contribute effectively to the development of their cooperative. Members also inform the general public about the nature and benefits of cooperatives.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of a cooperative society?
Answer:
1. Consumers Cooperative:
Consumer cooperatives are organized by consumers, that want to achieve better prices or quality in the goods or services they purchase. In contrast to traditional retail stores or service providers, a consumer cooperative exists to deliver goods or services rather than to maximize profit from selling those goods or services.

2. Producers Cooperative:
Producer cooperatives are created by producers and owned & operated by producers. Producers can decide to work together or as separate entities to help increase marketing possibilities and production efficiency.

3. Marketing Cooperative:
Cooperative marketing societies are associations of small producers formed for the purpose of marketing their produce. The marketing cooperatives perform certain marketing functions such as grading, warehousing, advertising, etc.

4. Credit Cooperative:
Cooperative credit societies are societies formed for providing short-term financial help to their members. Agriculturists, artisans, industrial workers, salaried employees, etc., form these credit societies.

5. Housing Cooperative:
These cooperative housing societies are meant to provide residential accommodation to their members on an ownership basis or on rent. People who intend to build houses of their own join together and form housing societies. These societies advance loans to members, repayable over a period of 15 to 20 years.

Question 4.
Write a note on Consumer cooperative society.
Answer:
Consumer cooperatives are organized by consumers that want to achieve better prices or quality in the goods or services they purchase. In contrast to traditional retail stores or service providers, a consumer cooperative exists to deliver goods or services rather than to maximize profit from selling those goods or services.

They also supply essential commodities through Public Distribution System (PDS). Nationally, the most widely used cooperative form is the credit union, with some 90 million members. Credit union assets have grown a hundredfold in three decades. Credit unions are essentially cooperatives of people that use banking services. Students’ cooperative stores, Cooperative provision stores and supermarkets set up in cooperative societies of India are examples of this type.

Question 5.
The misuse of funds is possible in a cooperative society? Give your reasons.
Answer:
Yes, misuse of funds is possible in co-operatives. If the members of the managing committee are corrupt, they can swindle the funds of the cooperative society. Many cooperative societies have been faced financial problems and closed down because of corruption and misuse of funds.

11th Commerce Guide Cooperative Organisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
At first, the cooperative movement was started by Robert Owen, in the year………………
(a) 1935
(b) 1932
(c) 1844
(d) 1884
Answer:
(c) 1844

Question 2.
The first-ever Cooperative Society was started in the year ………………….
a) 1944
b) 1844
c) 1488
d) 1864
Answer:
b) 1844

Question 3.
The minimum number of members to start a cooperative is …………………
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(a) 10

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How do you call a cooperative a democratic control organization?
Answer:
Co-operatives are democratic organizations controlled by their members- those who buy the goods or use the services of the co-operative- who actively participate in setting policies and making decisions.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Cooperation.
Answer:
In the words of H.Calvert, “Cooperation is a form of organization in which persons voluntarily associate together as human beings on the basis of equality for the promotion of the economic interests of themselves.”

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Joint Stock Company Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 6 Joint Stock Company

11th Commerce Guide Joint Stock Company Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The relationship between outsiders and the company is defined in …………………..
a) Prospectus
b) Articles of Association
c) Memorandum of Association
d) Certificate of Incorporation
Answer:
a) Prospectus

Question 2.
Table A of the Companies Act is a ……………..
a) Model minutes book
b) Model form of Balance Sheet
c) Model of AOA
d) Model of MOA
Answer:
c) Model of AOA

Question 3.
Which of the following is created by a Special Act of Parliament or in State Assemblies?
a) Chartered company ,
b) Foreign company
c) Government company
d) Statutory Company
Answer:
d) Statutory Company

Question 4.
The Board of directors of a company is elected by ……………………………..
a) Creditors
b) Debtors
c) Debenture holders
d) Shareholders (members)
Answer:
d) Shareholders (members)

Question 5.
Companies established as a result of aeharter granted by the King or Queen of a country is called ………………..
a) Chartered companies
b) Statutory companies
c) Registered companies
d) Foreign companies
Answer:
a) Chartered companies

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the different types of companies?
Answer:

1. Incorporation
2. Membership
3. Member liability
4. Control
5. Nationality

Question 2.
Define a Company.
Answer:
According to L.H. Haney, “ A company is an artificial person created by law having a separate legal entity with a perpetual succession and a common seal.”

Question 3.
What is meant by Limited liability?
Answer:
The liability of a shareholder is limited. The risk of loss is limited to the unpaid amount on the face value of shares held.

Question 4.
Explain any two characteristics of a company.
Answer:

1. Separate Legal Entity: Under Incorporation, a company becomes a separate legal entity as compared to its members. The company is distinct and different from its members. It is considered an artificial person.
2. Capacity to sue and be sued: A company can sue or be sued in its own name as distinct from its members.

Question 5.
What is meant by Chartered Company?
Answer:
Chartered companies are established by the King or Queen of a country. The powers and privileges of the chartered company are specified in the charter. Power to cancel the charter is vested with King/Queen.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages of Companies? (Any 3)
Answer:
1. Large Capital:
A company can secure large capital compared to a sole trader or partnership. A large amount of capital is necessary for conducting business on a large scale.

2. Limited Liability:
The liability of a shareholder is limited. The risk of loss is limited to the unpaid amount on the face value of shares held. In the case of a company limited by shares, the liability of a shareholder is restricted to the unpaid amount on the shares held by him.

3. Transferability of Shares:
Transaction of Shares between two individuals is easy. So there is the liquidity of the investment. Any shareholder can easily convert his shares into money by selling his shares.

Question 2.
What is meant by a Private Company?
Answer:
Private Limited Company is a type of company which is formed with minimum of two shareholders and two directors. The minimum requirement with respect to authorized or paid-up capital of Rs. 1,00,000 has been omitted by the Companies Act 2015. Maximum 200 persons can become shareholders in a private company.

Question 3.
What is meant by Government Company?
Answer:
A public enterprise incorporated under the Indian Companies Act, 1956 is called a Government company. These companies are owned and managed by the central or the state government.

Section 617 of the Companies Act, 1956 defines “Government Companies” as any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or any State Government or Governments or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments. A subsidiary of a Government company shall also be treated as a Government company.

Question 4.
What is meant by Foreign Company?
Answer:
Foreign company means a company which is incorporated in a country outside India under the law of that country. After the establishment of business in India, the necessary documents must be filed with the Registrar of Companies within 30 days from the date of establishment.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the contents of the Memorandum of Association?
Answer:
1. Name Clause:
The name clause requires you to state the legal and recognized name of the company. You are allowed to register a company name only if it does not bear any similarities with the name of an existing company.

2. Situation Clause:.
The registered office clause requires you to show the physical location of the registered office of the company. You are required to keep all the company registers in this office in addition to using the office in handling all the outgoing and incoming communication correspondence.

3. Objective Clause:
The objective clause requires you to summarize the main objectives for establishing the company with reference to the requirements for shareholding and use of financial resources. You also need to state ancillary objectives; that is, those objectives that are required to facilitate the achievement of the main objectives.

4. Liability Clause:
The liability clause requires you to state the extent to which shareholders of the company are liable to the debt obligations of the company in the event of the company dissolving. You should show that shareholders are liable only for their shareholding and/or to their commitment to contribute to the dissolution costs upon liquidation of a company limited by guarantee.

5. Capital Clause:
The capital clause requires you to state the company’s authorized share capital, the different categories of shares, and the nominal value (the minimum value per share) of the shares. You are also required to list the company’s assets under this clause.

6. Association Clause:
The association clause confirms that shareholders bound by the MOA are willingly associating and forming a company. You require seven members to sign an MOA for a public company and riot less than two people for an MOA of a private company. You must conduct the signing in the presence of witnesses who must also append his signature.

Question 2.
What are the contents in Articles of Association?
Answer:
Meaning:
The Articles of Association (AOA) is a document that contains the purpose of the company as well as the duties and responsibilities of its members.
Contents:

• Amount of shares, capital, value and type of shares
• Rights of each class of shareholders regarding voting, dividend, return of capital
• Rules regarding issue of shares and debentures
• Procedures as well as regulations in respect of making calls on shares.
• Manner of transfer of shares ® Declaration of dividends ® Borrowing powers of the company ® Rules regarding the appointment, remuneration, removal of directors
• Procedure for conducting proxy, quorum, meetings etc.,
• Procedures concerning the keeping of books and audits
• Seal of the company
• Procedures regarding the winding up of the company.

Question 3.
What is meant by Prospectus?
Answer:
According to Section 2(36) of the Companies Act, any document inviting the public to buy its shares or debentures comes under the definition of a prospectus. It also applies to advertisements inviting deposits from the public. A prospectus is “the only window through which a prospective investor can look into the soundness of a company’s venture”. Hence it must specify at least the following matters as per Schedule II:

1. The prospectus contains the main objectives of the company, the name, and addresses of the signatories of the Memorandum of Association, and the number of shares held by them.
2. The name, addresses, and occupation of directors and managing directors.
3. The number and classes of shares and debentures issued.
4. The qualification share of directors and the interest of directors for the promotion of the company.
5. The number, description, and the document of shares or debentures which within the two preceding years have been agreed to be issued other than cash.

Question 4.
What is meant by a Multi-National Company?
Answer:
A Multi-National Company (MNC) is a huge industrial organization which,

• Operates in more than one country
• Carries out production, marketing, and research activities on an international Scale in those countries.
• Seeks to maximize profits the world over.
• A domestic company or a foreign company can be an MNC.

Examples:
Microsoft Corporation, Nokia Corporation, Nestle, Coca-Cola, International Business Machine, Pepsi Co, Sony Corporation.

Question 5.
What is meant by Holding and Subsidiary Company?
Answer:
1. Holding Company:
As per Section 2(87) “subsidiary company” or “subsidiary”, in relation to any other company (that is to say the holding company), means a company in which the holding company:

• Controls the composition of the Board of Directors; or
• Exercises or controls more than one-half of the total share capital either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies:

Provided that such class or classes of holding companies as may be prescribed shall not have layers of subsidiaries beyond such numbers as may be prescribed.

2. Subsidiary Company:
“Subsidiary company” or “Subsidiary”, in relation to any other company (that is to say the holding company), means a company in which the holding company:

• Controls the composition of the Board of Directors; or
• Exercises or controls more than one-half of the total share capital either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies:

Examples:
H Ltd., holds more than 50% of the equity share capital of S Ltd. Now H Ltd. is the holding company of S Ltd., and S Ltd. is the subsidiary of H Ltd.

11th Commerce Guide Joint Stock Company Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The maximum number of members in a private limited company is ……………..
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 200
Answer:
(d) 200

Question 2.
The maximum number of members in a private company is ……………………………….
a. 10
b. 20
c. 50
d. unlimited
Answer:
c. 50

Question 3.
A new class of company is of “One Person Company” and it is included in …………….. Act.
(a) 1956
(b) 1952
(c) 2013
(d) 2015
Answer:
(c) 2013

Question 4.
On the basis of liability, companies are classified in to ………………………………. types.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer:
a. 2

Question 5.
…………….. companies are established by a Special Act made in Parliament/State Assembly.
(a) Chartered
(b) Statutory
(c) Private
(d) Unlimited
Answer:
(b) Statutory

Question 6.
Memorandum Association consists of ……………………. clause.
a.5
b.6
c.7
d.8
Answer:
b.6

Question 7.
The share capital of the government company must not be less than ……………..
(a) 75%
(b) 60%
(c) 95%
(d) 51%
Answer:
(d) 51%

Question 8.
Who has the power to convene the meetings of the Board of Directors?
a) Shareholders
b)Board of Directors
c) Chairman
d) None of these
Answer:
b)Board of Directors

Question 9.
…………….. is a document containing rules and regulations for the internal management of a company.
(a) Table A
(b) Memorandum
(c) Prospectus
(d) Statutory declaration
Answer:
(a) Table A

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Perpetual succession?
Answer:
A company does not cease to exist unless it is specifically wound up or the task for which it was formed has been completed. Membership of a company may keep on changing from time to time but that does not affect the life of the company.

Question 2.
What is meant of Articles of Association?
Answer:
The Articles of Association (AO A) is a document that contains the purpose of the company as well as the duties and responsibilities of its members. It is an important document which needs to be filed with the Registrar of Companies.

Question 3.
What is the Objective clause?
Answer:
The objective clause requires you to summarize the main objectives for establishing the company with reference to the requirements for shareholding and use of financial resources. You also need to state ancillary objectives; that is, those objectives that are required to facilitate the achievement of the main objectives.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Joint and Several Liability?
Answer:
Every partner is jointly and severally liable for all acts of the firm. It means that in case the assets are inadequate for meeting the claims of creditors, even their personal properties should be made available. The creditors can recover their claims from all the partners.

Question 2.
Write a note on one share – one vote.
Answer:
The principle of voting in a company is one share-one vote i.e. if a person has 10 shares; he has 10 votes in the company. This is in direct distinction to the voting principle of a co-operative society where the “One Member – One Vote” principle applies i.e. irrespective of the number of shares held, one member has only one vote.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Classify the Companies According to its Incorporation:
Answer:
1. Chartered Companies:
Chartered companies are established by the King or Queen of a country. The powers and privileges of these companies are specified in the charter. The cancellation of power is in the hands of the King/Queen. E.g East Indian Company, Bank of England, etc.

2. Statutory Companies:
Companies are established by a Special Act made in the Parliament/State Assembly. The Constitution of the company is specified in the Memorandum of Association. The rules are specified in the Articles of Association. Statutory companies enjoy autonomous status. It need not use the word ‘Limited’ next to its name.

3. Association Not for Profit:
According to section 25, the Central Government may, by license, grant that an association may be registered as a company with limited liability, without using the words ‘limited’ or ‘private limited’ as part of its name. The license will be granted only in the case of ‘association not for profit’. Such companies may be public or private companies and may or may not have share capital.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership

11th Commerce Guide Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The firm of Hindu Undivided Family is managed by whom?
a. Owner
b. Karta
c. Manager
d. Partner
Answer:
b. Karta

Question 2.
In the firm of Hindu Undivided Family,how one gets the membership?
a. By Agreement
b. By Birth
c. By Investing Capital
d. By Managing
Answer:
b. By Birth

Question 3.
The members in the joint Hindu family are called ……………
a. Karta
b. coparceners
c. generations
d. partners
Answer:
b. coparceners

Question 4.
‘Only the male members in the family get the right of inheritance by birth’ as …………………
a. Hindu law
b. Mitakshara Law
c. Dayabhaga law
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Mitakshara Law

Question 5.
A partnership is formed by ……………….
a. agreement
b. relationship among persons
c. the direction of government
d. Friendship
Answer:
a. agreement

Question 6.
Registration of partnership is ……………….
a. compulsory
b. optional
c. not necessary
d. none of the above
Answer:
b. optional

Question 7.
A temporary partnership which is formed to complete a specific job doing a specified period of time is called ……………..
a. Partnership-at-will
b. Particular partnership
c. Limited Partnership
d. Joint Venture
Answer:

Question 8.
The partnership deed also called …………………….
a. Articles of Association
b. Articles of Partnership
c. Partnership Act
d. Partnership
Answer:
b. Articles of Partnership

Question 9.
A partnership is registered with ………………………
a. Registrar of Companies
b. Registrar of Co-operatives
c. Registrar of Firms
d. District Collector
Answer:
c. Registrar of Firms

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is called KARTA?
Answer:
All the affairs of a Joint Hindu Family are controlled and managed by one person who is known as ‘Karta’ or ‘Manager’.

Question 2.
What are the two schools of Hindu law?
Answer:

• Dayabhaga is prevalent in Bengal and Assam.
• Mitakshara is prevalent in the rest of the country.

Question 3.
Who is called a Partner?
Answer:
The persons who enter into partnership are individually called ‘Partners’.

Question 4.
Who is a Sleeping partner?
Answer:
The partner contributes capital and shares in the profits or losses of the firm but does not take part in the management of the business. He is not known as a partner to the outsiders. The liability of the inactive partner is also unlimited.

Question 5.
Who is a Minor?
Answer:
Under the Indian Majority Act, the person who has not completed 18 years of age is a minor.

Question 6.
How many types of Dissolution?
Answer:
The Joint Hindu Family Business is a distinct form of organization peculiar to India. Joint Hindu Family Firm is created by the operation of law. It does not have any separate and distinct legal entity from that of its members.

III Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Joint Hindu Family Business?
Answer:
When two or more families agree to live and work together, invest their resources and labour jointly and share profits or losses together, then it is known as composite family or Joint Hindu Family business.

Question 2.
Write any 3 features of HUF.
Answer:

1. It is controlled and managed under the Hindu law
2. All the affairs of a Joint Hindu Family are controlled and managed by one person known as ‘Karta’ or‘Manager’.
3. In an HUF firm even a new Bombay can be a coparcener.

Question 3.
Explain the nature of the liability of Karta.
Answer:
Karta is not only liable to the extent of his share in the business but his separate property is equally attachable and the amount of debt can be recovered from his personal property.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Coparceners?
Answer:
According to HUF, a coparcener is a person who acquires a right in the ancestral property by birth and a person who has a right to demand partition in the HUF property.

Question 5.
Define Partnership.
Answer:
According to Prof. Haney, “The relations which exist between persons, competent to make contracts, who agree to carry on a lawful business in common with a view to private gain”.

Question 6.
What are the minimum and maximum number of members in the partnership concern?
Answer:
The minimum number of members is two. Maximum is restricted to 10 in the case of banking business and to 20 in all other cases.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of Partnership Deed?
Answer:
Through a partnership agreement need not necessarily be in writing, it is important to have a written agreement in order to avoid misunderstandings; it is desirable to have a written agreement. A carefully drafted partnership deed helps in ironing out differences which may develop among partners and in ensuring the smooth running of the partnership business. It should be properly stamped and registered.

Question 8.
Who is called a Secret partner?
Answer:
Secret Partners are those whose connections with the firm are not known to the public. They will take part in the affairs to the business without disclosing their status in the firm.

Question 9.
What is meant by Joint and Several Liability?
Answer:
Every partner is jointly and severally liable for all acts of the firm. It means that in case the assets are inadequate for meeting the claims of creditors, even their personal properties should be made available. The creditors can recover their claims from all the partners.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the implied authority of Karta?
Meaning:
The head of the Joint Hindu Family whose liabilities are unlimited is known as KARTA. Karta is the senior-most male member of the family.

Implied Authority:
in a joint Hindu Family firm, only Karta is entitled to deal with outsiders. He has the implied authority to enter into a contract for debts and pledge the property of the firm for the ordinary purpose of the businesses of the firm. Karta has the power to borrow loans.

Question 2.
Can a minor be admitted in the Joint Hindu Family business. Why?
Answer:
In a partnership, the minor cannot become a co-partner though he may be admitted to the benefit of the partnership. In a Joint Hindu Family firm, even a newborn baby can be a partner. The membership of the family can be acquired only by birth. As soon as the male child is born in the family, that child becomes a member.

Question 3.
What are the contents of the Partnership Deed?
Answer:
The following are the main contents of the partnership deed.

• Name of the Firm.
• Nature of the proposed business.
• Duration of the partnership business whether it is to be run for a fixed period of time or whether it is to be dissolved after completing a particular venture.
• The capital is to be contributed by the partners. It must be remembered that capital contribution is not necessary to become a partner for one who contributes his organising power, business acumen, managerial skill, etc., instead of capital.
• The amount that can be withdrawn from the firm by each partner.
• The ratio in which the profits or losses are to be shared. If the profit sharing ratio is not specified in the deed, all the partners must share the profits and bear the losses equally.

Question 4.
Explain the types of dissolution of the partnership firm.
Answer:
Dissolution of Partnership is different from the dissolution of the partnership firm. It is due to the fact that when the jurally relation present between all partners, comes to an end, it is known as dissolution of the firm, however, when any one of the partners becomes incapacitated, then the partnership between the concerned partner and other partners of the firm comes to an end, but the firm may continue to operate if other partners desire so.

Question 5.
Write any three differences between Dissolution of Partnership and Dissolution of Firm.
Answer:

Firms along with the necessary registration fee.

Question 6.
Write the procedure for Registration of a Firm.
Answer:
A statement should be prepared to state the following particulars.

1. Name of The firm.
2. The principal place of business.
3. Name of other places where the firm carried on the business.
4. Names and addresses of all the partners.
5. The date on which .each partner joined the firm.
6. The duration of the firm.

This statement signed by all the partners should be produced to the Registrar of Firms along with the necessary registration fee of Rs.3. Any change in the above particulars must be communicated to the Registrar within 14 days of such alteration.

11th Commerce Guide Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………. is that form of business organisation which is ow’ned and controlled by a single individual
(a) Sole trading concern
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Joint Hindu family business
(d) Joint-stock companies
Answer:
(a) Sole trading concern

Question 2.
A Partner who participates only in profit is ……………………
a. Sleeping Partner
b. partner in profit only
c. Minor partner
d. Nominal partner
Answer:
b. partner in profit only

Question 3.
When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts, he has to pay from his personal property.
(a) Unlimited Liability
(b) Flexibility
(c) Small capital
(d) Limited Liability
Answer:
(a) Unlimited Liability

Question 4.
A partner is entitled to interest at the rate of ………………. percent per annum on all advances of money made by him as a loan.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
Answer:
b. 6

Question 5.
Which of the following is under non-corporate enterprise?
(a) Government
(b) Cooperative
(c) Company
(d) Sole trading concern
Answer:
(d) Sole trading concern

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
In Hindu Undivided Family how is the liability of Karta?
Answer:
In Hindu Undivided Family the liability of Karta is unlimited.

Question 2.
Mention any four kinds of Partners?
Answer:

1. Active partner
2. Sleeping partner
3. Nominal partner
4. Partner in profits only

Question 3.
What is the méaning of Ancestral Property?
Answer:
Property inherited upto 4 generations of male lineage(i.e., father, grandfather, etc.) is called ancestral property. The right to a share in such a property accrues by birth itself.

Question 4.
Write any two types of dissolution through court?
Answer:

1. When a partner becomes of unsound mind.
2. Permanent incapacity observed in its formation, management, or in its closure.

Question 5.
What is a limited liability partnership(LLP)?
Answer:
LLP is available in countries like the USA, Singapore, Thailand, and the U.K. It is very popular in the service sector and in small-scale business enterprises. E.g: Chartered Accountants, Lawyers, Architects, Engineers, and Doctors.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is unlimited liability?
Answer:
The liability of a sole trader is unlimited. Since, apart from his business assets, even his private properties are also available for satisfying the claims of creditors. Hence, creditors may give more loans because they can get back the loan from the personal properties of sole traders.

Question 2.
If it is possible to the dissolution of Joint Hindu Family business?
Answer:
Yes. But it can be dissolved only at the will of all the members of the family. Any single member has no right to get the business dissolved. It should be done through a mutually agreed partition deed registered by paying proper stamp duty meant for it.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the rights of a partner? (Any five)
Answer:
1. Right to take part in business: Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.

2. Right to be consultant: Every partner has the right to be consulted in all matters concerning the firm. The decision of the majority will prevail in all the routine matters.

3. Right of access to books, records and documents: Every partner has the right of access to all records and books of accounts, and to examine and copy them.

4. Right to share profit: Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no profit-sharing ratio is specified in the deed, they must be shared equally.

5. Right to receive interest: A partner has the right to receive interest on loans advanced by him to the firm at the agreed rate, and where.no rate is stipulated, interest @ 6% p.a. allowed.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the Rights of partners. (Any 5)
Answer:
The mutual rights and obligations are usually stated in the partnership deed.

1. Right to take part in business: Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.

2. Right to be consulted: Every partner has the right to be consulted in all matters concerning the firm. The decision of the majority will prevail in all the routine matters. But, where the matter is of fundamental importance such as the admission of a new partner, change in the nature of the business, etc., the decision must be unanimous.

3. Right of access to books, records, and documents: Every partner has the right of access to all records and books of accounts, and to examine and copy them.

4. Right to share profit: Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no profit sharing ratio is specified in the deed, they must be shared equally.

5. Right to receive interest: A partner has the right to receive interest on loans advanced by him to the firm at the agreed rate, and where no rate is stipulated, interest @ 6% p.a. allowed.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the duties of the Partners. (Any 5)
Answer:

1. Duty to carry on business: Every partner has to carry on the business of the firm to the maximum advantage of all the partners.
2. Duty to be true: Every partner must be true, just, and faithful to one another. There must be an utmost good faith and fair dealings.
3. Duty to render true accounts: A partner is bound to keep and render true and full accounts of the partnership. He must produce relevant vouchers for the expenses incurred by him and hand over to the firm all amounts which have come into his hands as a partner.
4. Duty to indemnify the firm: Every partner must indemnify the firm for any loss caused by his fraud or wilful negligence in the conduct of the business.
5. Duty to share the loss: Every partner is bound to share the losses in the agreed ratio in the absence of an agreed ratio, it must be borne equally.

Question 4.
Explain the types of Partnerships.
Answer:
1. Partnership at will:
Partnership formed to carry on business for an undefined period is called partnership at will. It is to be dissolved when a partner gives notice of his intention to dissolve the partnership. Thus this type of partnership continues its business activities as long as there are mutual cooperation and confidence among partners. Since it comes to an end at the will of any partner on his giving notice, it is called partnership at will.

2. Partnership for a fixed term:
Where a partnership is formed for a definite period of time, it is known as a partnership for a fixed term. The partnership for a fixed term comes to an end on the expiry of the stipulated period. But if the business is continued even after the original fixed period, it automatically becomes a partnership at will. As such it will be terminated at the will of any partners, giving notice of his intention to do so.

3. Particular partnership:
When a partnership is formed to carry on a particular venture or a business of temporary nature, it is called a particular partnership. Such a firm lasts so long as the business agreed upon is not completed. In other words, it comes to an end on the completion of the particular venture. If such a firm is not dissolved and it begins to undertake new activities not originally contemplated, the rights and obligations of the partners continue to be the same as in the original partnership and it will continue till a partner gives notice of his intention to dissolve the firm.

Question 5.
Limited Liability Partnership (LLP).
Answer:
Limited Liability Partnership is very popular in the service sector and in small-scale business enterprises. Limited liability partnership means for paying the debts of the firm only the assets of the business will be utilized and not the personal properties.

It is prevalent among popular professionals such as Cost Accountants, Company Secretaries, Chartered Accountants, Lawyers, Architects, Engineers, and Doctors. Limited Liability Partnership is available in countries like U.S.A, Singapore, Thailand, and the U.K. It came into existence in India in 2008.

Question 6.
What is meant by Mitakshara Law?
Answer:
Mitakshara is one of the schools belonging to Hindu law. The Mitakshara is a legal treatise on inheritance, written by Vijnaneshwara a scholar in the Western Chaiukya court in the 12th century. It became one of the most influential texts in Hindu law, and its principles regarding property distribution, property rights, and succession are still in practice across most of India except for West Bengal and Assam where the Dayabhaga system is practiced.

A salient feature is the principle of division of ancestral property held by. the Hindu joint family. Partition of such landholding among offsprings is possible even with the father still living, unlike the Dayabhaga system. Inheritance is based on the principle of propinquity i.e.‘the nearest in blood relationship will get the property. The system of devolution of property is by survivorship. The share of coparceners in the joint family property is not definite or ascertainable, as their shares are fluctuating with births and deaths of the coparceners.

Question 7.
What is meant by Dayabhaga Law?
Answer:
The Dayabhaga is a Hindu law treatise written by which primarily focuses on inheritance procedure. The Dayabhaga was the strongest authority in Modern British Indian courts in the Bengal region of India, although this has changed due to the passage of the Hindu Succession Act of 1956 and subsequent revisions to the act. Based on Jimutavahana’s criticisms of the Mitaksara, it is thought that his work is precluded by the Mitaksara.

Question 8.
What is meant by Dissolution of Partnership?
Answer:
Dissolution of partnership means the termination of the original partnership agreement. A partnership is dissolved by the insolvency, retirement, expiry, or completion of the term of the partnership. The business will continue after the dissolution of the partnership.

It takes in the following forms:

• Change in the existing profit sharing ratio
• Admission of a partner.
• Retirement or Death of a partner.
• Insolvency of a partner.
• Expiry of the term of the partnership.
• Completion of the specified venture.
• Dissolution by agreement.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Sole Proprietorship Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 4 Sole Proprietorship

11th Commerce Guide Sole Proprietorship Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is the oldest form of Business organisation?
a. Sole Proprietorship
b. Partnership
c. Co-operative Society
d. Company
Answer:
a. Sole Proprietorship

Question 2.
In which form the owner, establisher and manager is only one?
a. Joint Enterprise
b. Government Company
c. Co-operative Society
d. Sole Proprietor
Answer:
d. Sole Proprietor

Question 3.
A major disadvantage of sole proprietorships …………………….
a.Limited liability
b.Unlimited liability
c.Easy Formation
d.Quick decision
Answer:
b.Unlimited liability

Question 4.
From the following which one is Non corporate form of business?
a. Joint stock company
b. Sole trading business
c. Government company
d. Co-operatives
Answer:
b. Sole trading business

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is called a Sole Trader?
Answer:
Proprietorship is a form of business organisation in which an individual introduces his own capital, uses his own skill and intelligence in the management of its affairs, and is solely responsible for the results of its operations.

Question 2.
What are Non-corporate enterprises?
Answer:
The businesses which have no legal separation from the owners of the business are known as non-corporate enterprises.
E.g Sole proprietorship and Partnership.

Question 3.
What are Corporate enterprises?
Answer:

1. Government – Public Undertakings, Public Utilities.
2. Private – Joint-stock companies
3. Co-operative society

Question 4.
For which of the following types of business do you think a sole proprietorship form of organisation would be more suitable, and why?
Answer:
a. Grocery store
b. Medical store
c. Craft centre
d. Legal consultancy
e. Internet cafe
According to the features of Sole proprietorship, it would be suitable for Grocery Store, Craft centre.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How is it possible to maintain secrecy insole proprietorship?
Answer:
In a sole proprietorship, as the trader is the sole owner of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

Question 2.
What is an unlimited liability?
Answer:
The creditors have the right to recover their dues even from the personal property of the proprietor in case the business assets are not sufficient to pay their debts.

Question 3.
Write any three characteristics of Sole Proprietorship.
Answer:
1. Ownership by one man:
This is owned by a single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.

2. Freedom of work and Quick Decisions: Since an individual is himself as an owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can make quick decisions.

3. Unlimited Liability: When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

Question 4.
Give some examples’ of the Sole trading business.
Answer:
Fruit sellers, Tailoring units, Petty shops, Super Markets.

Question 5.
Define Sole trading business.
Answer:
“Sole proprietorship is that form of business organisation which is owned and controlled by a single individual. He receives all the profits and risks of his property in the success or failure of the enterprise” – Wheeler.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of Sole trading business.
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of a Sole Trader.

1. Ownership by one man:
This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manager of the entire affairs.

2. Freedom of work and Quick Decisions:
Since the individual is himself as an owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.

3. Unlimited Liability:
When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

4. Enjoying Entire Profit:
He strives tirelessly for the improvement and expansion of his business and enjoys all the benefits of his hard work.

5. Absence of Government Regulation:
A sole proprietor concern is free from Government regulations. No legal formalities are to be observed in its formation, management or in its closure.

6. No Separate Entity:
The sole trading concern comes to an end with death, disability, insanity and insolvency of the individual.

7. Maintenance of Secrecy:
Since he/she manages all the affairs of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of the Sole trading business?
Answer:
1. Easy Formation:
No legal formalities are required to initiate a sole trading concern. Any person capable of entering into a contract can start it, provided he has the necessary resources for it.

2. Incentive to Work hard:
There is a direct relationship between effort and reward. The fact that the entire profit can be taken by himself without sharing with anybody else induces him to work ceaselessly.

3. Small Capital:
Small capital is an important as well as the specific advantage of a sole proprietorship. A sole proprietor can start a business with small capital.

4. Credit Standing:
Since his private properties are held liable for satisfying business debts, he can get more financial assistance from others.

5. Personal Contact with the Customers:
Since the sole proprietor knows each and every customer individually he can supply goods according to their taste and preferences. Thus he can cultivate a personal relationship with the customers.

6. Flexibility:
The sole trader can easily adjust himself to the changing requirements of his business.

Question 3.
What are the disadvantages of the Sole trading business?
Answer:
1. Limited Capital:
Since the capital is contributed by one individual only, business operations have necessarily to be on a limited scale.

2. Limited Managerial Skill:
A single person’s intelligence and experience may not help him beyond a certain stage. Since he has to focus on each and every activity, his managerial ability is bound to be limited.

3. Unlimited Liability:
The creditors have the right to recover their dues even from the personal property of the proprietor in case the business assets are not sufficient to pay their debts.

4. Lack of Specialisation:
Since the business unit is small and the financial resources are limited, experts in different fields cannot be employed to secure maximum advantages.

5. Hasty Decisions:
A sole proprietor is more likely to take hasty decisions as he need not consult anybody else.

11th Commerce Guide Sole Proprietorship Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
…………….. is that form of business organisation which is owned and controlled by a single individual.
(a) Sole trading concern
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Joint Hindu family business
(d) Joint-stock companies
Answer:
(a) Sole trading concern

Question 2.
A business run by an individual is known as …………………. business.
a. Sole Trader
b. Partnership
c. Company
d. Co-operatives
Answer:
a. Sole Trader

Question 3.
When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts, he has to pay from his personal property.
(a) Unlimited Liability
(b) Flexibility
(c) Small capital
(d) Limited Liability
Answer:
(a) Unlimited Liability

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How were the decisions taken in sole proprietorship?
Answer:
Since an individual is himself as an owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can make quick decisions.

Question 2.
What is the motive of the business undertaking?
Answer:
All business undertakings which are directly or indirectly engaged in the transfer or exchange of goods are aimed at earning profit and they are exposed to various types of risks.

Question 3.
What is limited managerial skill?
Answer:
A single person’s intelligence and experience may not help him beyond a certain stage. Since he has to focus on each and every activity, his managerial ability is bound to be limited.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Sole Trader.
Answer:
In the words of J.L. Hansen, “ Sole trader is a type of business unit where a person is solely responsible for providing the capital, for bearing the risk of the enterprise and for the management of the business”.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Classification of Business Activities Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 3 Classification of Business Activities

11th Commerce Guide Classification of Business Activities Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
The industries engaged in extraction of iron ore are known as ………………
a. Construction Industries
b. Manufacturing Industries
c. Extraction Industries
d. Genetic Industries
Answer:
c. Extraction Industries

Question 2.
Auxiliaries to trade is also called as ……………
a. Trade
b. Advertisement
c. Warehousing
d. Aids to Trade
Answer:
d. Aids to Trade

Question 3.
Production which involves several stages for manufacturing finished products is known as …………………..
a. Analytical Industry
b. Synthetic Industry
c. Processing Industry
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Processing Industry

Question 4.
Normally high level risk involved in ……………….
a. Industry
b. Commerce
c. Trade
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Industry

Question 5.
Commerce is mainly concerned with ………………….
a. Connecting producer and consumer
b. Pricing of Goods
c. Buying and Selling of goods
d. Manufacturing of goods
Answer:
a. Connecting producer and consumer

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define commerce:
Answer:
According to Evelyn Thomas, “Commercial operations deal with the buying and selling of goods, the exchange of commodities and the contribution of finished products”.

Question 2.
What do mean by industry?
Answer:
Industry refers to economic activities which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. The term is used for activities in which mechanical appliances and technical skills are involved. E.g Electronic industry would include all firms producing electronic goods, and so on.

Question 3.
What is trade?
Answer:
The term ‘trade’ is used to denote buying and selling. It is an essential part of commerce.

Question 4.
Write a short note on transportation.
Answer:
Transport or transportation is the medium which helps the movement of humans, animals and goods from one location to another. Since all the goods produced cannot be consumed in the place of production, it should be move to the places where they are demanded. The process of moving goods is known an transportation.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Extractive industries and genetic industries.
Answer:
Extractive industries:

• These industries extract or draw out products from natural sources.
• Extractive industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of the geographical or natural environment.

Genetic industries:

• These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction.
• The seeds, nursery companies poultry, dairy, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries, apiary etc.

Question 2.
What do you mean by tertiary industries?
Answer:
The industries which produces utility services and sell them at the profit. These industries help trade, commerce and industry. The auxiliaries to trade like banking, insurance, warehouse, advertisement etc. are included in this.

Question 3.
Write any three characteristics of commerce.
Answer:
1. Economic Activity: Commerce is an economic activity because it consists of activities which are undertaken for earning profits. A trader buys goods with the aim of selling them at a profit.

2. Exchange of Goods and Services: Commerce involves the exchange and distribution of goods and services. Goods may be purchased or produced for sale. Commerce comprises both trade and aids to trade.

3. Profit Motive: The motive of commercial activities is to earn profits. Any activity which does not have the aim of profit will not be a part of commerce.

Question 4.
Narrate commerce with an example.
Answer:
Commerce includes all the activities which help in bringing goods from the producer to the’ ultimate consumer. According to Evelyn Thomas, “Commercial operations deal with the buying and selling of goods, the exchange of commodities and the contribution of finished products”. Commerce includes services such as transport, warehousing, packaging, insurance, banking and sales promotion which are incidental or auxiliaries to trade.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the various kinds of industries on the basis of size.
Answer:
1. Micro Units: A unit wherein investment in plant and machinery is upto Rs. 25 lakhs in case of manufacturing and upto Rs. 10 lakhs in case of service enterprises.

2. Small Units: A manufacturing unit wherein investment in plant and machinery is more than Rs. 25 lakhs but does not exceed Rs.5 crore. In the case of service enterprises, these limits are Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs. 2 crores respectively.

3. Medium Units: A manufacturing unit wherein investment in plant and machinery is more than Rs.5 crore but does not exceed Rs. 10 crore. In the case of service enterprises, these limits are Rs.2 crore and Rs.5 crore respectively.

4. Large Units: A manufacturing unit wherein, investment in plant and machinery exceeds Rs.10 crore. In the case of a service unit investment in equipment exceeds Rs.5 crore.

Question 2.
Compare industry, commerce, and trade.
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of commerce?
Answer:
1. Economic Activity:
Commerce is an economic activity because it consists of activities which are undertaken for earning profits. A trader buys goods with the aim of selling them at a profit.

2. Exchange of Goods and Services:
Commerce involves the exchange and distribution of goods and services. Goods may be purchased or produced for sale. Commerce comprises both trade and aids to trade.

3. Profit Motive:
The motive of commercial activities is to earn profits. Any activity which does not have the aim of profit will not be a part of commerce.

4. Regularity of Transaction:
An isolated transaction does not imply commerce.

5. Creation of Utilities:
Commerce creates several types of utilities. It creates place utility by carrying goods to the place where they are needed. It makes goods available as and when demanded thereby creating time utility. By creating these utilities commerce helps to increase the volume of trade.

Question 4.
Write short notes on:

1. Analytical industry
2. Genetic industry and
3. Construction industry.

Answer:
1. Analytical industry:
These industries are called Secondary industries. These industries analyses and separates different elements from the same material, as in the case of oil refinery. In these industries the raw material is broken down into several useful materials.
E.g an oil industry separates crude oil into keroseñe, gasóline, diesel oil and petrol etc.

2. Genetic Industry:
The word ‘Genetic’ means parentage or hereditary. Genetic industries are concerned mainly with producing  breeding or multiplying of certain species of plants or animals with the object of earning profits from their sale. Examples of these types are nurseries, forestry, cattle-breeding, and commercial kennels. Animal husbandry is one type of Genetic Industry.

3. Construction Industry:
These industries are involved in the construction of building, dams, bridges, roads as well as tunnels and canals.

Question 5.
Briefly explain the auxiliaries to trade.
Answer:
Meaning:

Auxiliaries of trade may be classified into five categories:
1. Transportation:
Selling all the goods produced at or near the production place is not possible. Hence, goods are to be sent to different places where they are demanded.

2. Banking and Finance:
Nowadays we cannot think of a business without a bank. A bank is an organization which accepts deposits of money from the public, withdrawals on demand or otherwise, and lends the same to those who need it. Necessary funds can be obtained by businessmen from a bank. Thus, banking helps business activities to overcome the v problem of finance.

3. Insurance:
Business involves various types of risks. Materials and goods held in stock or in transit are subject to the risk of loss or damage. Insurance provides protection in all such cases. On payment of a nominal premium, the amount of loss or damage and compensation for an injury, if any, can be recovered from the insurance company.

4. Warehousing:
Goods are held in stock to make them available as and when required. Special arrangements must be made for the storage of goods to prevent loss or damage. Warehousing helps business firms to overcome the problem of storage and facilities the availability of goods when needed.

5. Advertising:
Advertising is one of the most important methods of promoting the sale of products, particularly, consumer goods like electronic goods, automobiles, soaps, detergents, etc. Advertising helps in providing information about available goods and services and inducing customers to buy particular items.

11th Commerce Guide Classification of Business Activities Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
All business activities can be classified into ……………. broad categories.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 2.
Manufacturing industries may be categorized into ………………
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Ten
Answer:
c) Four

Question 3.
Horticulture is an example for …………….
(a) Primary industry
(b) Secondary industry
(c) Tertiary industry
(d) Local industry
Answer:
(a) Primary industry

Question 4.
…………………. industries produce utility services and sell them at a profit.
a) Construction Industries
b) Tertiary Industries
c) Analytical Industries
d) Manufacturing Industries
Answer:
b) Tertiary Industries

Question 5.
Professional or specialized skills and high technology are used to provide ……………. type of services.
(a) Personalised
(b) Public
(c) Distributive
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(d) Quaternary

Question 6.
Expand MSME:
a) Major Small Medium Enterprises
b) Micro Scale. Middle Enterprises
c) Micro Small Medium Enterprises
d) Medium Small Micro Enterprises
Answer:
c) Micro Small Medium Enterprises

Question 7.
The service Enterprises with a maximum investment of 5 crores Is known as …………
a) Micro Unit
b) Small Unit
c) Large Unit
d) Medium Unit
Answer:
d) Medium Unit

Question 8.
Special arrangements must be made for goods to prevent loss or damage.
(a) Transportation
(b) Pricing
(c) Storage
(d) Advertising
Answer:
(c) Storage

Question 9.
Which of the following is not categorized as commerce?
a) Buy goods with ‘the aim of selling at profit.
b Exchange and Distribution of goods and services.
c) An individual sells his asset.
d) None of the above.
Answer:
c) An individual sells his asset.

Question 10.
Auxiliaries of trade are also called……………………
a) Trade
b) Advertisement
c) Warehousing
d) Aids to trade
Answer:
d) Aids to trade

Question 11.
The production which Involves several stages for manufacturing finished products Is known as………….
a) Analytical Industry
b) Synthetic Industry
c) Processing Industry
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Processing Industry

Question 12.
Normally high-level risk involved in ………………….
a) Industry
b) Commerce
c) Trade
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Industry

Question 13.
Commerce is mainly concerned with
a) Distribution of Goods
b) Pricing of Goods
c) Buying and Selling of Goods
d) Manufacturing of Goods
Answer:
b) Pricing of Goods

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the Extractive industry?
Answer:
Extractive industries extract or draw out products from natural sources. Extractive industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of the geographical or natural environment.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Tertiary Industries?
Answer:
The industry which produces utility services and sells them at a profit is known as tertiary industries:
They do not produce goods. They help in trade, industry, and commerce. It is also known as the Service industry.
E.g: The tourism and Hospitality industry, banking industries, etc.

Question 3.
What is the Secondary industry?
Answer:
Secondary Industries are concerned with using the materials which have already been extracted at the primary stage. These industries process such materials to produce goods for final consumption or for further processing by other industrial units.

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Write any three categories of Manufacturing industries.
Answer:

1. Analytical Industry analyses and separates different elements from the same materials, as in the case of an oil refinery.
2. The synthetic Industry combines various ingredients into a new product, as in the case of cement.
3. The processing Industry involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products, as in the case of sugar and paper.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write short notes on Primary Industries.
Answer:
These industries concerned with the production of goods with the help of nature. It is a nature-oriented industry, which requires very little human effort, for example, Agriculture, farming, forestry, fishing, horticulture, etc.
These industries are subdivided as follows:

Extractive Industries:
These industries extract or draw out products from natural resources. These industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of the geographical or natural environment. These products are transformed into other manufacturing industries. These industries include farming, mining, lumbering, hunting and fishing operations.

Genetic Industries:
These industries engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction. The seeds, nursery companies, poultry, dairy, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries, apiary, etc are some of the examples of genetic industries.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Secondary Industries.
Answer:
These industries produced goods for final, consumption or for further processing by other industrial units. For example, the mining of iron ore is a primary industry, but the manufacturing of steel is a secondary industry.

It can be categorized as follows:

• Manufacturing Industries: These industries are engaged in producing goods through the processing of raw materials and thus creating from utilities. These industries may be further divided into four categories on the basis of the method of Operation for production.
• Analytical Industry: Which analyses and separates different elements from the same materials, as in the case of an oil refinery.
• Synthetically Industry: Which combines various ingredients into new products, as in the case of cement.
• Processing Industry: Which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products, as in the case of sugar and paper.
• Assembling Industry: Which assembles different component parts to make a new product, as in the case of television, car, computer, etc.
• Construction Industries: These industries are involved in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads as well as tunnels and canals.

Question 3.
Write a note on Tertiary industries.
Answer:
The industries which produce utility services and sell them at the profit. These industries help trade, commerce, and industry. The auxiliaries to trade like banking, insurance, warehouse, advertisement, etc are included in this. These industries are further classified as under:

• Personalized service: The individuals and private institutions selling their services to others is called personalized services. E.g Plumber, servant maid, etc.
• Public service: The government provides services to the people without profit motive through Government hospitals, schools, police, government offices, etc.
• Distributive service: Transportation, sales, warehousing, logistics, salesmanship, etc. come under this type of service.
• Financial service: Banking, factoring, accounting, and insurance, etc. are grouped under this type of service.
• Quaternary service: Professional or specialized skills and high technology are used to provide this type of service. E.g. Software development, Auditing, Research, and Development, etc.
• Quinary service: Selective individual experts create new ideas, implement new technologies and implement new policies. These decisions influenced the growth and development of national and international institutions.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Objectives of Business Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 2 Objectives of Business

11th Commerce Guide Objectives of Business Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The Primary objective of a business is ……………………
a) Making Profit
b) Not Making Profit
c) Special skill
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Making Profit

Question 2.
Occupation of a Doctor is ……………….
a) Employment
b) Business
c) Profession
d) Sole Proprietor
Answer:
c) Profession

Question 3.
The following does not characterize business activity?
a) Production of goods and services
b) Presence of Risk
c) Sale or exchange of goods and services
d) Salary or wages
Answer:
d) Salary or wages

Question 4.
Activities undertaken out of love and affection or with social service motive are termed as:
a) Economic activities
b) Monetary activities
c) Non Economic Activities
d) Financial Activities
Answer:
c) Non Economic Activities

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Economic Activities.
Answer:
Economic activities are those activities which are undertaken to earn money or financial gain for livelihood.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Business?
Answer:
Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale, or purchase of goods and services.

Question 3.
Define Profession.
Answer:
Professions are those occupations which involve rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature. A profession is something which is more than a job. It is a career for someone who is competent in their respective areas.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Employment?
Answer:
The occupation through which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries is known as employment.
E.g. Managers, Clerks, Bank officials, Factory workers etc.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by human activities? Explain.
Answer:
Human activity is an activity performed by a human being to meet his/her needs and wants or maybe for personal satisfaction. Human activities can be categorized into economic and non – economic activities.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:
(a) Business
(b) Profession
Answer:
Business:
Business refers to any human activities undertaken on a regular basis with the objective to earn profit through production, distribution, purchase, and sale of goods and senders. It is connected with raising, producing, or processing goods. Business activities are classified on the basis of size, ownership, and function.

Profession:
The occupation involves the rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature. It is a career for someone who is competent in their respective areas. It includes professional activities which are subject to guidelines or codes of conduct laid down by professional bodies. The persons engaged in the profession are called professionals and they earn income by charging professional fees.

Question 3.
Explain the concept of ‘Business.
Answer:
Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular, basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale, or purchase of goods and services. Business activities are connected with raising, producing, or processing goods. The industry creates form utility to goods by bringing materials into the form which is useful for intermediate consumption or final consumption by consumers.

Question 4.
Briefly state the human objectives of a business.
Answer:
It refers to the objectives aimed at the well being as well as the fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped, and deprived of proper education and training. It includes the economic well-being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees, and the development of human resources.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of Business.
Answer:
1. Production or Procurement of Goods: Goods must be produced or procured in order to satisfy human wants.

2. Sale, Transfer, or Exchange: There must be a sale or exchange of goods or services. When a person weaves cloth for his personal consumption, it is not business because there is no transfer or sale.

3. Dealing in Goods and Services: Goods produced or procured may be consumer goods like cloth, pen, brush, bag, etc., or producer-goods like plant and machinery. Services refer to activities like a supply of electricity, gas or water, transportation, banking, insurance, etc.

4. Regularity of Dealings: An isolated dealing in buying and selling does not constitute a business. The transactions must be regular.

5. Profit Motive: An important feature of the business is profit motive. Business is an economic activity by which human beings make their living.

6. Element of Risk: The profit that is expected in a business is always uncertain because it depends upon a number of factors beyond the control of the businessman.

Question 2.
Compare business with profession and employment.
Answer:

Question 3.
Discuss any five objectives of the business.
Answer:
1. Economic Objectives:
Economic objectives of business refer to the objective of earning profit and also other objectives that are necessary to be pursued to achieve the profit objective, which includes the creation of customers, regular innovations, and best possible use of available resources.

2. Social Objectives:
Social objectives are those objectives of the business, which are desired to be achieved for the benefit of society. Since business operates in society by utilizing its scarce resources, the society expects something in return for its welfare.

3. Organizational Objectives:
The organizational objectives denote those objectives an organization intends to accomplish during the course of its existence in the economy like expansion and modernization, the supply of quality goods to consumers, customers’ satisfaction, etc.

4. Human Objectives:
Human objectives refer to the objectives aimed at the well being as well as the fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped, and deprived of proper education and training.

The human objectives of business may thus include the economic well-being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees, and development of human resources.

5. National Objectives:
Being an important part of the country, every business must have the objective of fulfilling national goals and aspirations.

Question 4.
Distinguish between economic and non-economic activity.
Answer:

11th Commerce Guide Objectives of Business Additional Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Human activities can be categorised into …………….. types.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 2.
Which of the following is not characterized as economic activities?
a) Production of goods by the manufacturer
b) Selling by retailers
c) Medical advice rendered by a physician
d) Celebrating festivals
Answer:
d) Celebrating festivals

Question 3.
Occupations may be classified into ……………. categories.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 4.
Occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration is known as ………………….
a) Profession
b) Business
c) Exchange of services
d) Employment
Answer:
d) Employment

Question 5
………………. refers to the occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries.
(a) Employment
(b) Profession
(c) Business
(d) Industry
Answer:
(a) Employment

Question 6.
Economic activities performed for earning profits is known as ……………
a) Business
b) Employment
c) Profession
d) Avocation
Answer:
a) Business

Question 7.
An enterprise which is owned, managed and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs are known as ……………
a) Public Enterprise
b) Private Enterprise
c) Joint Enterprise
d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
c) Joint Enterprise

Question 8.
Which one of the following is the example for Public Enterprises?
a) State Trading Corporation (STC)
b) Ramesh Bros
c) Maruti Suzuki
d) Sole Trader Concern
Answer:
a) State Trading Corporation (STC)

Question 9.
The National Objectives of business is ……………………
a) Promote Social justice
b) Special skill
c) Making a profit
d) Satisfaction of employees
Answer:
a) Promote Social justice

Question 10.
The primary objective of a business is ……………
a) Making Profit
b) Not Making Profit
c) Special skill
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Making Profit

Question 11.
Occupation of a Doctor is …………..
a) Employment
b) Business
c) Profession
d) Sole proprietor
Answer:
d) Sole proprietor

Question 12.
The following does not characterize business activity …………………….
a) Production of goods and services
b) Presence of Risk
c) Sale or exchange of goods and services
d) Salary or wages
Answer:
c) Sale or exchange of goods and services

Question 13.
Activities undertaken out of love and affection or with social service motive are termed as …………….
a) Economic activities
b) Monetary activities
c) Non-Economic activities
d) Financial activities
Answer:
a) Economic activities

Question 14.
The economic activity which is connected with the conversion of resources into useful goods is known as ……………..
a) Commerce
b) Trade
c) Industry
d) Business
Answer:
a) Commerce

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by non-economic activities?
Answer:
Activities undertaken to satisfy social and psychological needs are called non-economic activities.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Employment?
Answer:
The occupation through which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries is known as employment.

Question 3.
What are Private Enterprises?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a private enterprise where is owned, managed, and controlled by persons other than Government.

Question 4.
What are Joint Enterprises?
Answer:
When an enterprise is owned, managed, and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs, it is known as joint enterprises. E.g. Maruti Suzuki.

Question 5.
What is Joint Enterprise?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a joint enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs. Example – Maruti Suzuki

Question 6.
How do you explain large-scale business?
Answer:
The units which require large capital, employ a large number of workers and produce the goods on large scale is known as Large Scale business.
E.g: Suffola, Sunflower oil industries. (Extraction of edible oil from oilseeds in oil mills.)

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain the Business activities on the basis of Ownership.
Answer:
On the basis of ownership business activities may be broadly grouped into three categories.

D Private Enterprises:
An enterprise is said to be a private enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by persons other than Government.

Sole proprietorship.
Example – Sundar Stationeries
D Partnership firms.
Example – Ramesh Bros.

Public Enterprises:
An enterprise is said to be a public enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by the Government or any of its agencies or both. Public enterprises may be organized in several forms such as

• Departmental undertaking – Public Works Department (PWD)
• Public Corporation – Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
• Government Company – State Trading Corporation (STC)

Joint Enterprises:
An enterprise is said to be a joint enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs.
Example: Maruti Suzuki.

Question 2.
Write any three characteristics of Business.
Answer:
1. Production or Procurement of Goods:
Goods must be produced or procured in order to satisfy human wants.

2. Sale, Transfer, or Exchange:
There must be a sale or exchange of goods or services. When a person weaves cloth for his personal consumption, it is not business because there is no transfer or sale.

3. Dealing in Goods and Services:
Goods produced or procured may be consumer goods like cloth, pen, brush, bag, etc., or producer goods like plant and machinery. Services refer to activities like a supply of electricity, gas or water, transportation, banking, insurance, etc.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Historical Background of Commerce in the Sub-Continent Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 1 Historical Background of Commerce in the Sub-Continent

11th Commerce Guide Historical Background of Commerce in the Sub-Continent Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The place where the goods are sold is ………………
a) Angadi
b) Market .
c) Nalangadi
d) Allangadi
Answer:
a) Angadi

Question 2.
Hindrance of place is removed by ……………………….
a) Transport
b) Warehouse
c) Salesman
d) Insurance
Answer:
a) Transport

Question 3.
Who wrote “Arthasasthra”?
a) Kautilya
b) Chanakiya
c) Thiruvalluvar
d) Elangovadiga
Answer:
a) Kautilya

Question 4.
Trade and Commerce was common to …………………….. Dynasty.
a) pallava
b) Chola
c) Panidya
d) Chera
Answer:
c) Panidya

Question 5.
…………………….. was first sultan who paved way in the dense forest and helped traders to move from one market place to others place for
their commercial caravans.
a) Balban
b) Vascoda Gama
c) Akbar
d) Alauddin Khilij
Answer:
a) Balban

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by the Barter system?
Answer:
Goods were exchanged for goods prior to the invention of money.

Question 2.
What is meant by Nallangadi?
Answer:
According to St.Poet Ilango, in Silapathigaram, a Day Market was called Nalangadi.

Question 3.
What is meant by Allangadi?
Answer:
The night market was called Allangadi according to Saint Poet Ilango in Silapathigaram, Madurai-Kanchi.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the term “Vanigam”.
Answer:
The word vaniyam or vanipam would have had a Dravidian origin. The early Tamils produced their products and goods in their lands and bartered their surplus and that is how the trade came into existence. The word ‘Vanigam is used in Sangam literature like Purananuru and Thirukkural.

Question 2.
State the meaning of Maruvurapakkam and Pattinapakkam.
Answer:
Big cities like Poompuhar had the ‘Maruvurappakam’ (inland town) and ‘Pattinapakkam’ (coastal town), had markets and bazaars where many merchants met one another for the purpose of selling or buying different kinds of commodities and foodstuff.

Question 3.
What is the role of Sangam in trade development of ancient Tamilnadu?
Answer:
Trade in Sangam period was both internal and external. It was conducted by means of barter (Pandamattru). Honey, roots, fruits, cattle and paddy served as a medium of exchange for certain period. Sangam work refers to great traders, their caravans, their security force, markets, marts and guilds of such traders. There was dependence and interdependence among the people in matters of trade and commerce. Coins were used later for the purpose of exchange of goods.

Question 4.
What are the ports developed by Pandiya kingdom?
Answer:
Port towns like Tondi, Korkai, Puhar, and Muziri were always seen as busy with marts and markets with activities related to imports and exports. In such a brisk trade, people of the coastal region engaged themselves in coastal trade and developed their intercontinental trade contacts.

Question 5.
What was focused in Arthasasthra about creation of wealth?
Answer:
Kautilya’s Arthasasthra describes the economy in Mauriyan time. Kautilya gave importance to the state in relation to treasury, taxation,  industry, commerce, agriculture, and conservation of natural resources. Arthasastra focused on the creation of wealth as the means to promote the well-being of the state. It advocated the maintenance of a perfect balance between the state government and people’s welfare through trading activities.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the hindrances of business?
Answer:
Hindrances of business:

1. Hindrance of Person: Manufacturers do not know the place and face of the consumers. It is the retailer who knows the taste, preference, and location of the consumers. The chain of middlemen consisting of wholesalers, agents, and retailers establish the link between the producers and consumers.
2. Hindrance of Place: Production takes place in one centre and consumers are spread throughout the country and world. Rail, air, sea, and land transports bring the products to the place of the consumer.
3. Hindrance of Time: Consumers want products whenever they have money, time, and willingness to buy. Goods are produced in anticipation of such demands.
4. Hindrance of risk of deterioration in quality: Proper packaging and modern air-conditioned storage houses ensure that there is no deterioration in the quality of products.
5. Hindrance of risk of loss: Fire, theft, floods, and accidents may bring huge losses to the business.
6. Hindrance of knowledge: Advertising and communication help in announcing the arrival of new products and their uses to the people.
7. Hindrance of exchange: Money functions as a medium of exchange and enables the buying and selling of any product or service by payment of the right price.
8. Hindrance of finance: Producers and traders may not have the required funds at the time of their need.
9. Hindrance of developing the exact product: Research and development help in developing the exact product or service which can satisfy the specific wants of consumers and thus improve the standard of living of the people.
10. Hindrance of both selection and delivery at doorsteps: E-Commerce enables the consumer to select the product on the website, place online orders, and make payment after receiving the product at the doorstep.

Question 2.
State the constraints in the barter system.
Answer:
The barter system visualises mutual exchange of one’s goods to another without the intervention of money as a medium of exchange. It imposes certain constraints in the smooth flow of trade as given below.

• Lack of double coincidence of Wants: Unless two persons who have surplus have the demand for the goods possessed by each other, barter could not materialize.
  For instance ‘A’ is having a surplus of groundnut and ‘B’ is possessing rice in surplus. In this case A should be in need of rice possessed by B as the latter should
• The non-existence of common measure of value: The barter system could not determine the value of commodities to be exchanged as they lacked commonly acceptable measures to evaluate each and every commodity. It was difficult to compare the values of all articles in the absence of an acceptable medium of exchange.
• Lack of direct contact between producer and consumers: It was not possible for buyers and sellers to meet face to face in many contexts
  for exchanging the commodities for commodities. This hindered the process of barter in all practical sense.
• Lack of surplus stock: The absence of surplus stock was one of the impediments in the barter system. If the buyers and sellers do not have a surplus then no barter was possible.

Question 3.
Explain the development of Commerce and Trade in North India.
Answer:
India was prosperous even during the medieval period from the 12^th to 16^th centuries despite political upheavals. Balban was the first sultan who paved the way in the dense forest and helped traders and their commercial caravans to move from one marketplace to another. Allauddin Khilji brought the price to a very low ebb. He encouraged the import of foreign goods from Persia and subsidized the goods.

Arabs were dominant players in India’s foreign trade. They never discouraged Indian traders like Tamils, Gujaratis, etc. The trade between the coastal ports was in the hands and Marwaris and Gujaratis, The overland trade with central and west Asia was in the hands of Multanis who were Hindus, and Khurasanis who were Afghans, Iranians, and so on.

Question 4.
Briefly explain the coastal trade in ancient Tamilnadu.
Answer:
People of the coastal region engaged themselves in coastal trade and developed their intercontinental trade contacts. Big cities like Poompuhar had ‘Maruvurappakkam’(inland town) and ‘Pattinapakkam’(coastal Town), had markets and bazaars where many merchants met one another for the purpose of selling or buying different commodities and foodstuff. Port towns like Tondi, Korkai, Puhar, and Muziri were involved in imports and exports.

People were engaged in different kinds of fishing pearls, and conches and produced salts, and built ships. Boats like ‘Padagu’,’Thimil’,’Thoni’,’Ambu’, ‘Odampunai’ etc. were used to cross rivers for domestic trade while Kalam, Marakalam, Vangam, Navaietc were used for crossing oceans for foreign trade.

Question 5.
What do you know about the overseas trading partners of ancient Tamilnadu?
Answer:
Foreigners who transacted business were known as Yavanars. Arabs who traded with Tamil were called ‘Jonagar’. Pattinappalai praised Kaveripumpattinam as a city where various foreigners of high civilization speaking different languages assembled to transact business with the support of the then Kingdom.

Many ports were developed during the Sangam period. Kaveripumpattinam was the chief port of the Kingdom of Cholas while Nagapattinam, Marakannam, Arikamedu, etc., were other small ports on the east coast. Similarly, Pandiyas developed Korkai, Saliyur, Kayal, Marungaurpattinam, and Kumari for foreign trade. The State Governments installed check posts to collect customs along the highways and the ports.

11th Commerce Guide Historical Background of Commerce in the Sub-Continent Additional Important Questions and Answers

I Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………….. is part and parcel of human life.
(a) Commerce
(b) Banking
(c) Insurance
(d) Warehousing
Answer:
(a) Commerce

Question 2.
Most of the inland trade in the Sangam period was done in, ………………………………. as a medium of exchange under barter mode.
a) Salt
b) Coin
c) Milk
d) Gold
Answer:
a) Salt

Question 3.
Commerce activities are heading for a cashless system through ……………..
(a) e-commerce
(b) banking
(c) insurance
(d) warehousing
Answer:
(a) e-commerce

Question 4.
The night market was called…………………………..
a) Nalangadi
b) Angadi
c) Iravu Santhai
d) Allangadi
Answer:
d) Allangadi

Question 5.
Day market was called as ……………..
(a) Nalangadi
(b) Angadi
(c) Business
(d) Trade
Answer:
(a) Nalangadi

Question 6.
Foreigners who transacted business were known as ………………..
a) Jonagar
b) Sellers
c) Yavanars
d) Merchants
Answer:
c) Yavanars

Question 7.
Which is called a sleepless city?
(a) Chennai
(a) Allangadi
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Salem
Answer:
(a) Allangadi

Question 8.
………………………………. was the first sultan who paved in the dense forest and helped traders.
a) AlauddinKhilji
b) Balban
c) Suleiman I
d) Abdulaziz I
Answer:
c) Suleiman I

Question 9.
Boats like …………….. were used for crossing oceans for foreign trade.
(a) Vangam
(b) Thimil
(c) Ambu
(d) Thoni
Answer:
(a) Vangam

Question 10.
The hindrance of the place is removed by means of ……………….
a) Warehouse
b) Transport
c) Exchange of money
d) Insurance
Answer:
b) Transport

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the cashless system?
Answer:
Commerce activities are heading for a cashless system through e-commerce which means business activities enabled through electronic modes like Online trading, Mobile banking, and e-marketing.

Question 2.
What do you mean by “Angadi”?
Answer:
The place where the goods were sold was called “ Angadi”.

Question 3.
Which city was called sleepless city?
Answer:
Madurai was called a sleepless city due to round-the-clock business activities.

Question 4.
What was advocated by Kautilya in Arthasasthra with regard to trade?
Answer:
In Arthasasthra Kautilya advocated the maintenance of perfect balance between State management and people’s welfare through trading activities.

Question 5.
What type of boats were used to cross oceans for foreign trade?
Answer:
Boats like ‘Kalam’, ‘Marakalam’, ‘Vangam’, ‘Navai’, etc., were used for crossing oceans for foreign trade.

Question 6.
Which are all considered the important trade centres in the 16th century?
Answer:
In 16th Century Delhi, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Sonar, Sonargoon. Jaunpur and Lahore were considered as important trade centres.

Question 7.
What was the role of the state in trade?
Answer:
The role of the state in trade related to two aspects namely adequate infrastructure to sustain the trade and administrative machinery for taxation.

Question 8.
With whom Cholas had a strong trading relationship?
Answer:
Cholas had a strong trading relationship with the Chinese Song Dynasty.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How has the commerce activities emerged how?
Answer:
The whole of commerce activity has emerged from the barter system into a multi-dimensional and multifaceted scientific system consisting of courses like Monetary system, Mail order business, Hire purchase system, Instalment purchase system and so on.

Question 2.
What are all the conditions under Barter System worked on?
Answer:

• Each party to barter must have surplus stocks for the trade to take place.
• Both the buyers and sellers should require the goods to each other desperately, i.e., double coincidence of wants.
• Buyer and seller should meet personally to affect the exchange.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How did the ancient Tamil country trade with Rome, China, and Europe?
Answer:
Roman and Greek traders frequented the ancient Tamil country and forged trade relationships with ancient Kings of Pandiya, Chola, and Chera dynasties. Cholas had a strong trading relationship with the Chinese Song Dynasty. The Cholas conquered the Sri Vijaya Empire of Indonesia and Malaysia to secure a sea trading route to China. During the 16^th and 18^th centuries, India’s overseas trade expanded due to trading with European companies. The discovery of new all sea routes from Europe to India via the Cape of Good Hope by Vasco da Gama had a far-reaching impact on the civilized world. The arrival of the Portuguese in India was followed by the advent of other European communities. They gained a strong foothold in India’s maritime trade by virtue of their strong naval power.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Kinematics Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Kinematics

11th Physics Guide Kinematics Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Which one of the following Cartesian coordinate systems is not followed in physics?

Answer:

Question 2.
Identify the unit vector in the following _______.

Answer:

Question 3.
Which one of the following quantities cannot be represented by a scalar?
a) Mass
b) length
c) momentum
d) magnitude of the acceleration
Answer:
c) momentum

Question 4.
Two objects of masses m₁ and m₂ fall from the heights h₁ and h₂ respectively. The ratio of the magnitude of their momenta when they hit the ground is _______. (AIPMT 2012)

Answer:

Question 5.
If a particle has negative velocity and negative acceleration, it speeds _______.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) zero
Answer:
a) increases

Question 6.
If the velocity is \(\overline{V}\) = \(2 \hat{i}+t^{2} \hat{j}-9 \hat{k}\) then the magnitude of acceleration at t = 0.5s is _______.
a) 1ms^-2
b) 2 ms^-2
c) zero
d) -1ms^-2
Answer:
a) 1ms^-2

Question 7.
If an object is dropped from the top of a building and it reaches the ground at t = 4s, then the height of the building is (ignoring air resistance) (g = 9.8ms^-2)
a) 77.3m
b) 78.4m
c) 80.5
d) 79.2m
Answer:
b) 78.4m

Question 8.
A ball is projected vertically upwards with a velocity v. It comes back to the ground in time t. Which v-t graph shows the motion correctly? (NSEP 00-01)

Answer:

Question 9.
If one object is dropped vertically downward and another object is thrown horizontally from the same height, then the ratio of vertical distance covered by both objects at any instant t is _______.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 0.5
Answer:
a) 1

Question 10.
A bail is dropped from some height towards the ground. Which one of the following represents the correct motion of the ball?

Answer:

Question 11.
If a particle executes uniform circular motion in the XY plane in a clockwise direction, then the angular velocity is in _______.
a) +y direction
b) +z direction
c) -z direction
d) -x direction
Answer:
c) -z direction

Question 12.
If a particle executes uniform circular motion, choose the correct statement _______. (NEET 2016)
a) The velocity and speed are constant.
b) The acceleration and speed are constant.
c) The velocity and acceleration are constant.
d) The speed and magnitude of acceleration are constant
Answer:
d) The speed and magnitude of acceleration are constant

Question 13.
If an object is thrown vertically up with the initial speed u from the ground, then the time taken by the object to return back to the ground is _______.
(a) \(\frac{u^{2}}{2 g}\)
(b) \(\frac{u^{2}}{g}\)
(c) \(\frac { u }{ 2g }\)
(d) \(\frac { 2u }{ g }\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 2u }{ g }\)

Question 14.
Two objects are projected at angles 30° and 60° respectively with respect to the horizontal direction. The range of two objects are denoted as R_30° and R_60° Choose the correct relation from the following
a) R_30° = R_60°
b) R_30° = 4R_60°
c) R_30° = R_{\(\frac { 60° }{ 2 }\)}
d) R_30° = 2R_60°
Answer:
a) R_30° = R_60°

Question 15.
An object is dropped in an unknown planet from a height of 50m, it reaches the ground in 2s. The acceleration due to gravity in this unknown planet is _______.
a) g = 20ms^-2
b) g = 25ms^-2
c) g = 15ms^-2
d) g = 30ms^-2
Answer:
b) g = 25ms^-2

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain what is meant by the Cartesian coordinate system?
Answer:
At any given instant of time, the frame of reference with respect to which the position of the object is described in terms of position coordinates (x,y,z) is called “Cartesian coordinate system”.

If x, y, and z axes are drawn in an anticlockwise direction, then the coordinate system is called a right-handed Cartesian coordinate system.

Question 2.
Define a vector. Give Example.
Answer:
Vector is a quantity which is described by both magnitude and direction. Geometrically a vector is a directed line segment.
Example – force, velocity, displacement.

Question 3.
Define a Scalar. Give Examples.
Answer:
Scalar is a property of a physical quantity which can be described only by magnitude.
Example: Distance, Mass, Temperature, Speed, Energy, etc.

Question 4.
Write short note on the scalar product between two vectors.
Answer:
The Scalar product of two vectors (dot product) is defined as the product of the magnitudes of both the vectors and the cosine of angle between them.
If \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are two vectors having an angle θ between them, then their scalar or dot product is

Example: W = \(\vec{F}\).\(\vec{dr}\). Work done is a scalar product of force \(\vec{F}\) and \(\vec{r}\)

Question 5.
Write a Short note on vector product between two vectors.
Answer:
The vector product or cross product of two vectors is defined as another vector having a magnitude equal to the product of the magnitudes of two vectors and the sine of the angle between them. The direction of the product vector is perpendicular to the plane containing the two vectors, in accordance with the right hand screw rule or right hand thumb rule. Thus, if\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) are two vectors, then their vector product is written as \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) × \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) which is a vector C defined by \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{c}}\) = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) x \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) = (AB sin 0) \(\hat{n}\)
The direction \(\hat{n}\) of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) x \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) , i.e., \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{c}}\) is perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\).

Question 6.
How do you deduce that two vectors are perpendicular?
Answer:
If the vector product of the two given vectors is having maximum magnitude.
i.e sinθ = 90°, [ (\(\vec{A}\) x \(\vec{B}\))Max = AB\(\hat{n}\) ] then the two vectors are said to be perpendicular.

Question 7.
Define Displacement and distance.
Answer:
Distance is the actual path length traveled by an object in the given interval of time during the motion. It is a positive scalar quantity. Displacement is the difference between the final and initial positions of the object in a given interval of time. It can also be defined as the shortest distance between these two positions of the object. It is a vector quantity.

Question 8.
Define velocity and speed.
Answer:
Velocity – Velocity is defined as the rate of change of position vector with respect to time (or) defined as the rate of change of displacement. It Is a vector quantity.

Speed – Speed is defined as the rate of change of distance. It is a scalar quantity.

Question 9.
Define acceleration.
Answer:
Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity.
Acceleration \(\vec{a}\) = \(\frac{d \vec{v}}{d t}\)
Acceleration is a vector quantity.
Unit – ms^-2
Dimensional formula-[LT^-2]

Question 10.
What is the difference between velocity and average velocity?
Answer:

Question 11.
Define a radian.
Radian is defined as ratio of length of the arc to radians of the arc. One radian is the angle subtended at the center of the circle by an arc that is equal to in length to the radius of the circle.

Question 12.
Define angular displacement and angular velocity.
Answer:

1. Angular displacement: The angle described by the particle about the axis of rotation in a given time is called angular displacement.
2. Angular velocity: The rate of change of angular displacement is called angular velocity.

Question 13.
What is non-uniform circular motion?
Answer:
When an object is moving in a circular path with variable speed, it covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time. Then the motion of the object is said to be a non-uniform circular motion. Here both speed and direction during circular motion change.

Question 14.
Write down the kinematic equations for angular motion.
Answer:
The Kinematic equations for angular motion are ω = ω₀ + αt
θ = ω₀t + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)αt²
ω² = ω₀² + 2αθ
θ = \(\left(\frac{\omega_{0}+\omega}{2}\right)\) x t
ω₀ → initial angular velocity
ω → final angular velocity
α → angular acceleration
θ → angular displacement
t → time interval

Question 15.
Write down the expression for angle made by resultant acceleration and radius vector in the non-uniform circular motion.
Answer:
In the case of non-uniform circular motion, the particle will have both centripetal and tangential acceleration. The resultant acceleration is obtained as the vector sum of both centripetal and tangential acceleration.

This resultant acceleration makes an angle 6 with a radius vector, which is given by

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain in detail the triangle law of addition.
Answer:
Let us consider two vector \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) as shown In fig.

Law: To find the resultant of two vectors, the triangular law of addition can be applied as follows.
A and B are represented as the two adjacent sides of a triangle taken in the same order. The resultant is given by the third side of the triangle taken in reverse order.

Magnitude of the resultant vector:
from figure
Let θ be the angle between two vectors.
from ∆ ABN, Sin θ = \(\frac { BN }{ AB }\) ⇒ ∴ BN = B sinθ
Cos θ = \(\frac { AN }{ AB }\) ⇒ ∴ AN = B Cos θ

Which is the magnitude of the resultant \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\).

The direction of the resultant vector:
If \(\vec{R}\) makes an angle α with \(\vec{A}\) then

Question 2.
Discuss the properties of scalar and vector products.
Answer:
Properties of scalar product:
formula : \(\vec{A}\).\(\vec{B}\) = ABCosθ

1. The product quantity \(\overline{A}\).\(\overline{B}\) is always a scalar. It is positive if the angle between the vectors is acute (θ< 90°) and negative if angle between them is obtuse (90 < θ < 180)

2. The scalar product is commutative \(\overline{A}\).\(\overline{B}\) = \(\overline{B}\).\(\overline{A}\)

3. The scalar product obey distributive law. \(\overline{A}\).( \(\overline{B}\) + \(\overline{C}\) ) = \(\overline{A}\).\(\overline{B}\) + \(\overline{A}\).\(\overline{C}\)

4. The angle between the vector is θ = Cos^-1\(\frac{\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}}{A B}\)

5. The scalar product of two vectors will be maximum when cos θ = 1 i.e θ = 0 ie when they are parallel.
[ ( \(\overline{A}\).\(\overline{B}\) ) max = AB.]

6. The scalar product of two vectors will be minimum when cos θ = -1 ie θ = 180°
( \(\overline{A}\).\(\overline{B}\))_mm = – AB [the vector are anti-parallel]

7. If two vector \(\overline{A}\) & \(\overline{B}\) are perpendicular to each other then \(\overline{A}\).\(\overline{B}\) = O. Because cos 90 = 0. Then vectors A & B are mutually orthogonal.

8. The scalar product of a vector with it self is termed as self or dot product and is given by
( \(\overline{A}\) )² = \(\overline{A}\).\(\overline{A}\) = AA cos θ = A²
Here 0=0
The magnitude or norm of the vector \(\overline{A}\) is
|A| = A = \(\sqrt{\bar{A} \cdot \bar{A}}\) = A.

9. Incase of orthogonal unit vectors
\(\hat{n}\).\(\hat{n}\) = 1 x 1cos0 = 1
for eg \(\hat{i}\).\(\hat{i}\) = \(\hat{j}\).\(\hat{j}\) = \(\hat{k}\).\(\hat{k}\) = 1

10. Incase of orthogonal unit vectors \(\hat{i}\), \(\hat{f}\), \(\hat{k}\) then \(\hat{i}\).\(\hat{j}\) = \(\hat{j}\).\(\hat{k}\) = \(\hat{k}\).\(\hat{j}\) = 1.1 cos 90 = 0.

11. In terms of components the scalar product of A and B can be written as

Properties of cross product:
Formula \(\vec{A}\) x \(\vec{B}\) = ABsinθ

1. The vector product of any two vectors is always an another vector whose direction perpendicular to the plane containing these two vectors, ie. Orthogonal to \(\overline{A}\) & \(\overline{B}\) even though \(\overline{A}\) & \(\overline{B}\) may not be mutually orthogonal.

2. Vector product is not commutative
\(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) = – \(\overline{B}\).\(\overline{A}\)
\(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) ≠ \(\vec{B}\) x \(\vec{A}\)
Here magnitude | \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) | = | \(\overline{B}\).\(\overline{A}\) | are equal but opposite direction.

3. The vector product of two vector is maximum when sine = 1, ie θ = 90°
ie. when \(\overline{A}\) and \(\overline{B}\) are orthogonal to each other.
( \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) ) max = AB \(\hat{n}\).

4. The vector product of two non zero vectors is minimum if |sinθ| = 0. ie. θ = 0 or 180°
( \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) ) m in = 0
Vector product of two non zero vectors is equal to zero if they either parallel or anti parallel

5. The self cross product ie product of a vector with itself is a null vector \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) = AA sinθ = 0

6. The self-vector product of the unit vector is zero
i.e. \(\hat{i}\).\(\hat{j}\) = \(\hat{j}\).\(\hat{j}\) = \(\hat{k}\).\(\hat{k}\) = 0

7. In case of orthogonal unit vectors \(\hat{i}\), \(\hat{j}\), \(\hat{k}\) in accordance with right hand cork screw rule \(\hat{i}\).\(\hat{j}\) =\(\hat{k}\), \(\hat{i}\).\(\hat{k}\) = \(\hat{i}\), \(\hat{k}\).\(\hat{i}\) = \(\hat{j}\) also since cross product is not commutative

9. If two vectors \(\overline{A}\) & \(\overline{B}\) form adjacent sides of a parallelogram then the magnitude of |\(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\)| will give area 0f parallelogram.

10. Since one can divide a parallelogram into two equal triangles, the area of the triangle is \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) |\(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\)|.

Question 3.
Derive the kinematic equations of motion for constant acceleration.
Answer:
Consider an object moving in a straight line with uniform or constant acceleration ‘a’. Let u be the initial velocity at t = 0, and v be the final velocity after a time of t seconds

(i) Velocity time relation:
The acceleration of the body at any instant is given by first derivative of the velocity with time
a = \(\frac { dv }{ dt }\)
dv = adt
integrating both sides

Displacement time relation:

(ii) The velocity of the body is given by the first derivative of the displacement with respect to time
But v = ds/dt
∴ dv = v dt
v = u + at
ds = (u + at)dt
ds = udt + atdt
Integrating both sides

Velocity-displacement relation:

also we can derive from the relation v = u + at
v – u = at
Substituting in equation s = ut + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)at²

Question 4.
Derive the equations of motion for a particle (a) falling vertically (b) projected vertically.
Answer:
For a body falling vertically from a height ‘h’:
Consider an object of mass m falling from height h.
Neglecting air resistance, the downward direction as the positive y-axis.
The object experiences acceleration ‘g’ due to gravity which is constant near the surface of the earth.
In kinematic equations of motion \(\vec{a}\) = g\(\hat{i}\)
By comparing the components a_x = 0, a_g = 0, a_y= g

Case – 1
If the particle is thrown with initial velocity ‘u’ downward then
v = u + gt
y = ut + 1/2gt²
v² – u² = 2gy

Case – 2
Suppose the particle starts from rest,
u = 0
v = gt
y = 1/2gt²
v² = 2gy
For a body projected vertically: Consider an object of mass m thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity u. Ne-glect air friction. The vertical direction as positive y axis then the acceleration,
a = – g
The kinematic equation of motion are v = u – gt
v = u – gt
s = ut – 1/2 gt²

Question 5.
Derive the equations of motion, range, and maximum height reached by a particle thrown at an oblique angle θ with respect to the horizontal direction.
Answer:
Consider an object thrown with an initial velocity u at an angle θ with horizontal.

Then initial velocity is resolved into two components
u_x = u cos θ horizontally and
u_y = u sin θ vertically
At maximum height u_y = 0 (since acceleration due to gravity is opposite to the direction of the vertical component).
The Horizontal component of velocity
u_x = u cos θ remains constant throughout its motion.
hence after the time t the velocity along the horizontal motion
V_x = U_x + a_xt
= ux = cos θ
The horizontal distance travelled by the projectile in a time ‘t’ is S_x = u_xt + 1/2 a_xt².
Here S_x = x u_x = u cos θ
a_x = 0
∴ x = u cos θt ____ (1)
∴ t = \(\frac { x }{ u cos θ }\) ____ (2)
For vertical motion
V_y = u_y + a_yt
Here v_y = v_y
u_y = u sin θ
a_y = – g
v_y = u sin θ – gt
The vertical distance travelled by the projectile in the same time ‘t’ is
S_y = U_y t + a_y t²
S_y = y, U_y = u sin θ a_y = – g
y = u sin θ t – 1/2 gt² ____ (4)
Substituting the value of t in (4) we get equation:

Which indicates the path followed by the projectile is an inverted parabola.

Expression for Maximum height:
The maximum vertical distance travelled by the projectile during its motion is called maximum height.
We know that
v_y² = u_y² + 2a_ys
Here u_y = u sin 0, a_y = – g, s = h_max
v_y = 0

Expression for horizontal range:
The maximum horizontal distance between the point of projection and the point on the horizontal plane where the projectile hits the ground is called horizontal range.
Horizontal range = Horizontal component of velocity x time of flight
R = u cos θ x t_f → (1)
Time of flight (t_f) is the time taken by the projectile from point of projection to point the projectile hits the ground again
w.k.t = S_y = u_y t_f + 1/2 a_y t²_f)
Here S_y = 0 u_y = u sin θ, a_y = – g
0 = u sin θ t_f – 1/2g t²_f
1/2 gt t²_f = u sin θ t_f

Question 6.
Derive the expression for centripetal acceleration.
Answer:
In uniform circular motion the velocity vector turns continuously with out changing its magnitude. ie speed remains constant and direction changes. Even though the velocity is tangential to every point is a circle, the acceleration it acting towards the centre of the circle along the radius. This is called centripetal acceleration

Expression:
The centripetal acceleration is derived from a simple geometrical relationship between position and velocity vectors. Let the directions of position and velocity vectors shift through same angle θ in a small time interval ∆t
For uniform circular motion r = \(\left|\bar{r}_{1}\right|\) = \(\left|\bar{r}_{2}\right|\)
and v = \(\left|\bar{v}_{1}\right|\) = \(\left|\bar{v}_{2}\right|\)
If the particle moves from position vector \(\bar{r}_{1}\) to \(\bar{r}_{2}\) the displacement is given by \(\overrightarrow{\Delta r}\) = \(\bar{r}_{2}\) – \(\bar{r}_{1}\)

and change in velocity from \(\bar{v}_{1}\) to \(\bar{v}_{2}\) is given ∆\(\bar { v }\) = \(\bar{v}_{2}\) – \(\bar{v}_{1}\)

The magnitudes of the displacement ∆r and ∆v satisfy the following relation

Here negative sign indicates that ∆v points radially inwards, towards the centre of the circle

For uniform circular motion v=rω where ω is the angular velocity of the particle about the center
The centripetal acceleration a = ω²r.

Question 7.
Derive the expression for total acceleration in the non-uniform circular motion.
Answer:
If the velocity changes both in speed and direction during circular motion, then we get non-uniform circular motion. Whenever the speed is not the same in a circular motion then the particle will have both centripetal and tangential acceleration.

The resultant acceleration is obtained by the vector sum of centripetal and tangential acceleration
Let the tangential acceleration be a_t.
Centripetal acceleration is v²/r.
The magnitude of the resultant acceleration is a_R = \(\sqrt{a_{t}^{2}+\left(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\right)^{2}}\)

IV. Exercises:

Question 1.
The position vector particle has a length of 1m and makes 30° with the x-axis what are the lengths of x and y components of the position vector?
Solution:

Question 2.
A particle has its position moved from \(\left|\bar{r}_{1}\right|\) = 3\(\hat{i}\) + 4\(\hat{j}\) to r\(\left|\bar{r}_{2}\right|\) = \(\hat{i}\)+ 2\(\hat{j}\) calculate the displacement vector ( ∆ \(\vec{r}\) ) and draw the \(\left|\bar{r}_{1}\right|\), \(\left|\bar{r}_{2}\right|\) and ( ∆ \(\vec{r}\) ) vector in a two dimensional Cartesian co-ordinate system.
Solution:

Question 3.
Calculate the average velocity of the particle whose position vector changes from \(\left|\bar{r}_{1}\right|\) = 5\(\hat{i}\) + 6\(\hat{j}\) to \(\left|\bar{r}_{2}\right|\) = 2\(\hat{i}\) + 3\(\hat{j}\) in a time 5 seconds.
Solution:

Question 4.
Convert the vector \(\overline{r}\) = 3\(\hat{i}\) + 2\(\hat{j}\) into a unit vector.
Solution:
A vector divided by its magnitude is a unit vector

Question 5.
What are the resultants of the vector product of two given vector given by
\(\overline{A}\) = 4\(\hat{i}\) – 2\(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{k}\) and \(\overline{B}\) = 5\(\hat{i}\) + 3\(\hat{j}\) – 4\(\hat{k}\)?
Solution:

Question 6.
An object at an angle such that the horizontal range is 4 times the maximum height. What is the angle of projection of the object?
Solution:
Incase of obliging projection

Question 7.
The following graphs represent velocity-time graph. Identify what kind of motion a particle undergoes in each graph.

Solution:
(a) When the body starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration is constant

(b) This graph represents, for a body moving with a uniform velocity or constant velocity. The zero slope of curve indicates zero acceleration.

(c) This v-t graph is a straight line not passing through origin indicates the body has a constant acceleration but greater than fig(i) as slope is more than the first one (more steeper)

(d) Greater changes in velocity (velocity variations are taking place in equal as travels of time. The graph indicates increasing acceleration.

Question 8.
The following velocity-time graph represents a particle moving in the positive x-direction. Analyse its motion from o to 7s calculate the displacement covered and distance traveled by the particle from 0 to 2s.

Solution:
From o to A(o to Is):
At t = os the particle has a zero velocity at t > 0 the particle has a negative velocity and moves in positive x-direction the slope dr/dt is negative. The particle is decelerating. Thus the velocity decreases during this time interval.

From A to B (Is to 2s):
From time Is to 2s the velocity increase and slope dv/dt becomes positive. The particle is accelerating. The velocity increases in this time interval.

From B to C (2s to 5s):
From 2s to 5s the velocity stays constant at 1 m/s. The acceleration is zero.

From C to D (6s to 7s):
From 5s to 6s the velocity decreases. Slope dv/dt is negative. The particle is decelerating. The velocity decreases to zero. The body comes to rest at 6s.

From D to E (6s to 7s)
The particle is at rest during this time interval.

Displacement: in 0 – 2s:
The total area under the curve from 0 to 2s displacement = 1/2bh + 1/2bh
=1/2 x 1.5 x (- 2) + 0.5 x 1
= – 1.5 + 0.25
= – 1.25 m

Distance: is 0 – 2s
The distance covered is = 1.5 + 0.25 = 1.75 m

Question 9.
A particle is projected at an angle of θ with respect to the horizontal direction. Match the following for the above motion.
(a) v_x – decreases and increases
(b) V_y – remains constant
(c) Acceleration – varies
(d) Position vector – remains downwards
Solution:
(a) V_x – remains constant
(b) V_y – decreases and increases
(c) Acceleration (a) – remains downwards
(d) Position vector (r) – varies

Question 10.
A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all around it. If the speed of the water coming out of the fountains is V. Calculate the total area around the fountain that gets wet.
Solution :
Speed of water = V
(Range)_max = radius = u₂/g = v²/g
This range becomes the radius = (v²/g) of the circle where water sprinkled.
Area covered = Area of circle
= πr² = π\(\left(\frac{v^{2}}{g}\right)\)²
= π \(v^{4} / g^{2}\)

Question 11.
The following table gives the range of the particle when thrown on different planets. All the particles are thrown at the same angle with the horizontal and with the same initial speed. Arrange the planets in ascending order according to their acceleration due to gravity (g value)

Solution:
R = – (sin 2θ)
∵ the initial velocity and angle of projection are constants
R ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ g }\)
g ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ R }\)

According to acceleration, due to gravity In ascending order, the solution is. Mercury, Mars, Earth, Jupiter

Question 12.
The resultant of two vectors A and B is perpendicular to vector A and its magnitude is equal to half of the magnitude of vector B. Then the angle between A and B is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 150°
(d)120°
Solution:
Let two vectors be A & B

Magnitude of B = B
Magnitude of A = A
∝ = 90°
Given:

Question 13.
Compare the components for the following vector equations.
(a) T\(\hat{j}\) – mg\(\hat{j}\) = ma\(\hat{j}\)
(b) \(\overline{T}\) + \(\overline{F}\) = \(\overline{A}\) + \(\overline{B}\)
(c) \(\overline{T}\) – \(\overline{F}\) = \(\overline{A}\) – \(\overline{B}\)
(d) T\(\hat{j}\) + mg\(\hat{j}\) = ma\(\hat{j}\)
Solution:
We can resolve all vectors in x, y, z components w.r.t. Cartesian co-ordinate system. After resolving the components separately equate x components on both sides y components on both sides and z components on both side we get.
(a) T\(\hat{j}\) – mg\(\hat{j}\) = ma\(\hat{j}\)
T – mg = ma

(b) \(\overline{T}\) + \(\overline{F}\) = \(\overline{A}\) + \(\overline{B}\)
T_x + F_x = A_x + B_x

(c) \(\overline{T}\) – \(\overline{F}\) = \(\overline{A}\) – \(\overline{B}\)
T_x – F_x = A_x – B_x

(d) T\(\hat{j}\) + mg\(\hat{j}\) = ma\(\hat{j}\)
T + mg = ma

Question 14.
Calculate the area of the triangle for which two of its sides are given by the vectors \(\overline{A}\) = 5\(\hat{i}\) – 3\(\hat{j}\) \(\overline{B}\) = 4\(\hat{i}\) + 6\(\hat{j}\).
Solution:

Question 15.
If the earth completes one revolution in 24 hours, what is the angular displacement made by the earth in one hour? Express your answer in both radian and degree.
Solution:
ω = θ/t θ = wt
In 24 hours, angular displacement made
θ = 360° (or) 2π rad
In 1 hours, angular displacement
θ = \(\frac { 360° }{ 24 }\)
θ = 15°
In radian θ = \(\frac { 2π }{ 24 }\) = \(\frac { π }{ 12 }\) radians.
θ = \(\frac { π }{ 12 }\) rad.

Question 16.
An object is thrown with initial speed of 5ms^-1 with an angle of projection of 30°. What is the height and range reached by the particle?
Solution:
u = 5 m/s
θ = 30°
h_max = ?
R = ?
Height reached

Range:

Question 17.
A football player hits the ball with a speed 20m/s with angle 30° with respect to as shown in the figure horizontal directions. The goal post is at a distance of 40 m from him. Find out whether the ball reaches the goal post.

Solution :
In order to find whether the ball is reaching the goal post the range should be equal to 40m so range

= \(\frac { 692.8 }{ 19.6 }\)
= 35.35 m.
Which is less than the distance of the goal post which is 40 m away so the ball won’t reach the goal post.

Question 18.
If an object is thrown horizontally with an initial speed 10 ms^-1 from the top of a building of height 100 m. What is the horizontal distance covered by the particle?
Solution:
u = 10 m/s
h = 100 m
x = ?
x = u x T

x = 45.18 m.

Question 19.
An object is executing uniform circular motion with an angular speed of π/12 radians per second. At t = 0 the object starts at an angle θ = 0. What is the angular displacement of the particle after 4s?
Solution :
ω = π/12 rad/s
ω = θ/t
θ = w x t = π/12 x 4
θ = π/3 radian
θ = \(\frac { 180° }{ 3 }\)
= 60°

Question 20.
Consider the x-axis as representing east, the y-axis as north, and the z-axis as vertically upwards. Give the vector representing each of the following points.

(a) 5m northeast and 2m up.
(b) 4m southeast and 3m up.
(c) 2m northwest and 4m up.
Solution:
5m northeast and 2m up.
(a) The vector representation of 5m N-E and 2m up is (5i + 5j) Cos 45° + 2\(\hat{k}\)

(b) 4m south east and 3m up.

The vector representing 4m south east and 3m up is
(4i – 4j) cos 45 + 3\(\hat{k}\)
\(\frac{4(i-j)}{\sqrt{2}}\) + 3\(\hat{k}\)

(c) 2m north west and 4m up.

The vector representing 2m northwest and 4m up

Question 21.
The moon is orbiting the earth approximately once in 27 days. What is the angle transversed by the moon per day?
Solution :
Angle described in 27 days = 2π rad = 360° days
Angie described in one day = 2π/27 radian
= \(\frac { 360° }{ 27 }\)
θ = 13.3°

Question 22.
An object of mass m has an angular acceleration ∝ = 0.2 rad/s². What is the angular displacement covered by the object after 3 seconds? (Assume that the object started with angle zero with zero angular velocity)
Solution:
∝ = 0.2 rad/s²
θ = ? t = 3s.
w₀ = 0
w.k.T θ = ω₀t + 1/2 ∝ t²
θ = 0 + 1/2 x 0.2 x 9
θ = 0.9 rad
θ = 0 = 0.9 x 57.295° = 51°
The magnitude of the resultant vector R is given by

11th Physics Guide Kinematics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
A particle moves in a circle of radius R from A to B as in the figure.

Answer:

Question 2.
The branch of mechanics which deals with the motion of objects without taking force into account is –
(a) kinetics
(b) dynamics
(c) kinematics
(d) statics
Answer:
(c) kinematics

Question 3.
A particle moves in a straight line from A to B with speed v₁ and then from B to A with speed v₂. The average velocity and average speed are _______.

Answer:

Question 4.
A particle is moving in a straight line under constant acceleration. It travels 15m in the 3^rd second and 31m in the 7^th second. The initial velocity and acceleration are _______.
a) 5 m/s, 4 m/s²
b) 4 m/s, 5 m/s²
c) 4 m/s, 4 m/s²
d) 5 m/s, 5 m/s²
Answer:
a) 5 m/s, 4 m/s²

Question 5.
If an object is moving in a straight line then the motion is known as –
(a) linear motion
(b) circular motion
(c) curvilinear motion
(d) rotational motion
Answer:
(a) linear motion

Question 6.
A car is moving at a constant speed of 15 m/s. Suddenly the driver sees an obstacle on the road and takes 0.4 s to apply the brake. The brake causes a deceleration of 5 m/s². The distance traveled by car before it stops _______.
a) 6 m
b) 22.5 m
c) 28.5 m
d) 16.2 m
Answer:
c) 28.5 m

Question 7.
A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate (3 to come to rest. If the total time lapses in ‘t’ seconds, then the maximum velocity reached is _______.

Answer:

Question 8.
Spinning of the earth about its own axis is known as –
(a) linear motion
(b) circular motion
(c) curvilinear motion
(d) rotational motion
Answer:
(d) rotational motion

Question 9.
A particle is thrown vertically up with a speed of 40m/s, The velocity at half of the maximum height _______.
a) 20 m/s
b) 20\(\sqrt{2}\)m/s
c) 10 m/s
d) 10\(\sqrt{2}\)m/s
Answer:
b) 20\(\sqrt{2}\)m/s

Question 10.
The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity and the average speed of the body is always _______.
a) unity
b) unity or less
c) unity or more
d) less than unity
Answer:
b) unity or less

Question 11.
The motion of a satellite around the earth is an example for –
(a) circular motion
(b) rotational motion
(c) elliptical motion
(d) spinning
Answer:
(a) circular motion

Question 12.
One car moving on a straight road covers one-third of the distance with 20 km/h and the rest with 60 km/h. The average speed is _______.
a) 40 km/h
b) 80km/h
c) 46\(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) km/hr
d) 36 km/h
Answer:
d) 36 km/h

Question 13.
A 150m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time taken by the train to cross a bridge of length 850m is _______.
a) 56s
b) 68s
c) 80s
d) 92s
Answer:
c) 80s

Question 14.
A particle moves in a straight line with constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 m/s to 20 m/s while passing through a distance of 135 m in ‘t’ seconds. The value of t is _______.
a) 12s
b) 9s
c) 10s
d) 1.8s
Answer:
b) 9s

Question 15.
If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with a speed u the distance covered during the last ‘t’ seconds of its ascent is _______.
a) 1/2 gt²
b) ut – 1/2gt²
c) (u – gt)t
d) ut
Answer:
a) 1/2 gt²

Question 16.
A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement ‘s’ at any time ‘t’ is given by s = t³ – 6t² + 3t + 4 meters, t being in second. The velocity when acceleration is zero is _______.
a) 3 m/s
b) -12m/s
c) 42 m/s
d) -9 m/s
Answer:
d) – 9 m/s

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a scalar?
(a) Volume
(b) angular momentum
(c) Relative density
(d) time
Answer:
(b) angular momentum

Question 18.
Vector is having –
(a) only magnitude
(b) only direction
(c) bot magnitude and direction
(d) either magnitude or direction
Answer:
(c) both magnitude and direction

Question 19.
The displacement-time graph of a moving particle is shown below.

The instant velocity of the particle is negative at the point
a) D
b) F
c) C
d) E
Answer:
d) E

Question 20.
If two vectors are having equal magnitude and the same direction is known as –
(a) equal vectors
(b) col-linear vectors
(c) parallel vectors
(d) on it vector
Answer:
(a) equal vectors

Question 21.
The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown below _______.

Which are of the following represents its acceleration-time graph?

Answer:

Question 22.
Indicate which of the following graph represents the one-dimensional motion of particle?

Answer:

Question 23.
The variation of velocity of a particle with time moving along a straight line is illustrated in the following figure. The distance travelled by the particle in 4s is _______.

a) 60m
b) 55m
c) 25m
d) 30m
Answer:
b) 55m

Question 24.
An object is moving with a uniform acceleration which is parallel to its instantaneous direction of motion. The displacement (s), velocity (v) graph of this object is _______.

Answer:

Question 25.
A unit vector is used to specify –
(a) only magnitude
(b) only direction
(c) either magnitude (or) direction
(d) absolute value
Answer:
(b) only direction

Question 26.
A vector is not changed if _______.
a) It is rotated through an arbitrary angle
b) It is multiplied by an arbitrary scalar
c) It is cross multiplied by a unit vector
d) It is parallel to itself.
Answer:
d) It is parallel to itself.

Question 27.
Two forces each of magnitude ‘F’ have a resultant of the same magnitude. The angle between two forces
a) 45°
b) 120°
c) 150°
d) 60°
Answer:
b) 120°

Question 28.
The magnitude of a vector can not be-
(a) positive
(b) negative
(e) zero
(cl) 90
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 29.
Six vectors \(\vec{a}\) through \(\vec{f}\) have magnitudes and directions as indicated in figure. Which of the following statement is true?

a) \(\overline{b}\) + \(\overline{e}\) = \(\overline{f}\)
b) 3\(\hat{i}\) – 2\(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{k}\) \(\hat{b}\) + \(\hat{c}\) = \(\hat{f}\)
c) \(\hat{d}\) + \(\hat{c}\) = \(\hat{f}\)
d) \(\hat{d}\) + \(\hat{e}\) = \(\hat{f}\)
Answer:
d) \(\hat{d}\) + \(\hat{e}\) = \(\hat{f}\)

Question 30.
A force of 3 N and 4 N are acting perpendicular to an object, the resultant force is-
(a) 9 N
(b) 16 N
(c) 5 N
(d) 7 N
Answer:
(c) 5 N

Question 31.
The figure shows ABCDEF as regular hexagon. What is the value of
\(\overline{AB}\) + \(\overline{AC}\) + \(\overline{AD}\) + \(\overline{AE}\) + \(\overline{AF}\)?

a) \(\overline{A0}\)
b) 2 \(\overline{A0}\)
c) 4 \(\overline{A0}\)
d) 6 \(\overline{A0}\)
Answer:
d) 6 \(\overline{A0}\)

Question 32.
One of the two rectangular components of a force is 20N. And it makes an angle of 30° with the force. The magnitude of the other component is _______.
a) 20/\(\sqrt{3}\)
b) 10/\(\sqrt{3}\)
c) 15/V\(\sqrt{3}\)
d) 40\(\sqrt{3}\)
Answer:
a) 20/\(\sqrt{3}\)

Question 33.
The angle between (\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) + \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)) and (\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) – \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)) can be –
(a) only 0°
(b) only 90°
(c) between 0° and 90°
(d) between 0° and 180°
Answer:
(d) between 0° and 180°

Question 34.
If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector the magnitude of the difference is _______.
a) \(\sqrt{2}\)
b) \(\sqrt{3}\)
c) 1/\(\sqrt{2}\)
d) \(\sqrt{5}\)
Answer:
b) \(\sqrt{3}\)

Question 35.
If P = mV then the direction of P along-
(a) m
(b) v
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither m nor v
Answer:
(b) v

Question 36.
If \(\overline{A}\) = 2\(\hat{i}\) + \(\hat{j}\) – \(\hat{k}\), \(\overline{B}\) = \(\hat{i}\) + 2\(\hat{j}\) + 3\(\hat{k}\) and \(\overline{C}\) = 6\(\hat{i}\) – 2\(\hat{j}\) – 6\(\hat{k}\) then angle between \(\overline{A}\) + \(\overline{B}\) and \(\overline{C}\) will be _______.
a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°
Answer:
d) 90°

Question 37.
The scalar product \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\).\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)is equal to-
(a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) +\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\). \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
(c) AB sin θ
(d) (\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) x \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\). \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)

Question 38.
If \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) = \(\overline{C}\) then which of the following statement is wrong?
a) \(\overline{C}\) ⊥\(\overline{A}\)
b) \(\overline{B}\) ⊥\(\overline{B}\)
c) \(\overline{C}\) ± ( \(\overline{A}\) + \(\overline{B}\) )
d) \(\overline{C}\) ± ( \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) )
Answer:
d) \(\overline{C}\) ± ( \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) )

Question 39.
The scalar product of two vectors will be minimum. When θ is equal to –
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 180°
(d) 60°
Answer:
(c) 180°

Question 40.
If | \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) |, then value of | \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) | is _______.

Answer:
d) (A² + B² + AB)\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)

Question 41.
The angle between vectors \(\overline{A}\) and \(\overline{B}\) is A. The value of the triple product \(\overline{A}\) ( \(\overline{A}\) x \(\overline{B}\) ) is _______.
a) A² B
b) zero
c) A² B sinθ
d) A² B cos θ
Answer:
d) A² B cos θ

Question 42.
Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are represented by the two vectors \(\hat{i}\) + 2\(\hat{j}\) + 3\(\hat{k}\) and 3\(\hat{i}\) – 2\(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{k}\). The area parallelogram _______.
a) 8
b) 8\(\sqrt{3}\)
c) 3\(\sqrt{8}\)
d) 192
Answer:
b) 8\(\sqrt{3}\)

Question 43.
If \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) are two vectors, which are acting along x, y respectively, then \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) lies along-
(a) x
(b) y
(c) z
(d) none
Answer:
(c) z

Question 44.
Galileo writes that for angles of the projectile (45 + θ) and (45 – θ) the horizontal ranges described by the projectile are in the ratio of (if θ ≤ 45)
a) 2:1
b) 1:2
c) 1:1
d) 2:3
Answer:
c) 1:1

Question 45.
A projectile is thrown into the air so as to have the minimum possible range equal to 200. Taking the projection point as the origin the Coordinates of the point where the velocity of the projectile is minimum are _______.
a) 200,50
b) 100,50
c) 100,150
d) 100,100
Answer:
b) 100,50

Question 46.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) x \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) isequal to –
(a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) x \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\)
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) + \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
(c) –\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) x \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\)
(d) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) – \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
Answer:
(c) –\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) x \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\)

Question 47.
The vector product of any two vectors gives a –
(a) vector
(b) scalar
(e) tensor
(d) col-linear
Answer:
(a) vector

Question 48.
A 150 m long train is moving the north at a speed of 10 m/s. A parrot flying towards the south with a speed of 5 m/s crosses the train. The time taken would be _______.
a) 30s
b) 15s
c) 8s
d) 10s
Answer:
d) 10s

Question 49.
A boat is moving with a velocity of 3i+4j with respect to the ground. The water in the river is moving with a velocity of -3i-4j with respect to the ground. The relative velocity of the boat with respect to water _______.
a) 8j
b) -6i -8j
c) 6i + 8j
d) 5\(\sqrt{2}\)
Answer:
c) 6i + 8j

Question 50.
The vector product of two non-zero vectors will be minimum when O is equal to-
(a) 0°
(b) 180°
(e) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(e) both (a) and (b)

II. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the different types of motion? State one example for each & explain.
Answer:
The different types of motions are:
a) Linear motion: An object is said to be in linear motion if it moves in a straight line.
Example: An athlete running on a straight tack.

b) Circular motion: It is defined as a motion described by an object traveling a circular path.
Example: The motion of a satellite around the earth

C) Rotational motion: If any object moves in a rotational motion about an axis the motion is rotational motion. During rotation, every point in the object traverses a circular path about an axis.
Example: Spiring of earth about its own axis

D) Vibratory motion: If an object or a particle executes to and fro motion about the fixed point it is said to be in vibratory motion. Sometimes called oscillatory motion.
Example: Vibration of a string on a Guitar.

Question 2.
How will you differentiate motion in one dimension, two dimensions, and in three dimensions?
Answer:
Motion in one dimension: One-dimensional motion is the motion of a particle moving along a straight line.
Example: An object falling freely under gravity close to the earth.

Motion in two dimensions: If a particle is moving along a curved path in-plane, then it is said to be in two-dimensional motion.
Example: Motion of a coin in a carom board.

Motion in three dimensions: A particle moving in usual three-dimensional space has three-dimensional motion.
Example: A bird flying in the sky.

Question 3.
State and define different types of vectors.
Answer:
The different types of vectors are:
1. Equal vectors:
Two vectors \(\vec{A}\) & \(\vec{B}\) are said to be equal when they have equal magnitude and same direction and represent the same physical quantity.

(a) Coilinear vectors: Collinear vectors are those which act along the same line. The angle between them can be 0° or 180°

(i) Parallel vectors – If two vectors \(\vec{A}\) & \(\vec{B}\) act in the same direction along the same line or in parallel lines. Angle between them is equal to zero

(ii) Antiparallel vectors:
Two vectors \(\vec{A}\) & \(\vec{B}\) are said to be antiparallel when they are in opposite direction along the same line or in parallel lines. The angle between them is 180°

2. Unit vector:
A vector divided by its own magnitude is a unit vector.
The unit vector of \(\vec{A}\) is represented as \(\hat{A}\)
Its magnitude is equal to 1 or unity

3. Orthogonal unit vectors:
Let \(\hat{i}\), \(\hat{j}\), \(\hat{k}\) be three unit vectors which specify the direction along positive x-axis, positive y-axis and positive z-axis respectively. These three unit vectors are directly perpendicular to each other
The angle between any two of them is 90°. Then \(\hat{i}\), \(\hat{j}\), \(\hat{k}\) are examples of orthogonal vectors. Two vectors which are perpendicular to each other are called orthogonal vectors.

Question 4.
Explain how two vectors are subtracted when they are inclined to an angle θ.

Let \(\overline{A}\) and \(\overline{B}\) be non zero vectors inclined at an angle θ.
The difference \(\overline{A}\) – \(\overline{B}\) can be obtained as follows.
First obtain – \(\overline{B}\)
The angle between \(\overline{A}\) – \(\overline{B}\)
= 180 – θ.
The difference \(\overline{A}\) – \(\overline{B}\) is the same as the resultant of \(\overline{A}\) – – \(\overline{B}\)

[∵ cos 180 – θ = – cos θ]
(cos 180 – θ = – cos θ)
The gives the resultant magnitude. The resultant is inclined by an angle α₂ to \(\overline{A}\)

This gives the direction of the resultant. \(\vec{A}\) – \(\vec{B}\)

Question 5.
Write short notes on relative velocity.
Answer:
When two objects A and B are moving with uniform velocities then the velocity of one object A with respect to another object B is called the relative velocity of A with respect to B.

Case 1:
Consider two objects A and B moving with uniform velocities \(\overline{V}\)_A and \(\overline{V}\)_B along straight line in same direction with respect to ground.
The relative velocity of object A with respect to object B is \(\vec{V}\)_AB = \(\vec{V}\)_A – \(\vec{V}\)_B
The relative velocity of object B with respect to object A is \(\vec{V}\)_BA = \(\vec{V}\)_B –\(\overline{V}\)_A
Thus, if two objects are moving it’s the same direction the magnitude of the relative velocity of one object with respect to another is equal to the difference in magnitude of the two velocities.

Case 2:
Consider two objects A and B moving with uniform velocities VA and VB along the same track in the opposite direction

The relative velocity of object A with respect to B is
\(\overline{V}\)_AB = \(\overline{V}\)_A – ( – \(\overline{V}\)_B) = \(\overline{V}\)_A + \(\overline{V}\)_B
The relative velocity of object B with respect to A is
\(\vec{V}\)_BA = – \(\vec{V}\)_B – \(\vec{V}\)_A) = – ( \(\vec{V}\)_A + \(\vec{V}\)_B )
Thus if two objects are moving in opposite directions the magnitude of relative velocity of one object with respect to other is equal to the sum of magnitudes of their velocities.

Case 3:
Consider two objects A&B moving with velocities VA and VB at an angle 0 between their directions, then the relative velocity of A with respect to B

tan θ = (β is the angle between \(\overline{V}\)_AB and VB)

Special cases:
(i) When θ = 0, the bodies move along parallel straight lines in the same direction.
V_AB = (V_A – V_B) in the direction of V_A.
V_BA = (V_B – V_A) in the direction of V_B

(ii) When θ = 180° the bodies move along parallel straight lines in opposite direction.
V_AB = V_A – (- V_B) = (V_A + V_B) in the direction of V_A
V_BA = ( V_B + V_A) in the direction of V_B

(iii) If the two bodies are moving at right angles to each other, then θ = 90°
V_AB = \(\sqrt{V_{A}^{2}+V_{B}^{2}}\)

(iv) Consider a person moving horizontally with velocity \(\vec{V}\)_m Let the rain fall vertically with velocity \(\overline{V}\)_R.

An umbrella is held to avoid the rain.
Then relative velocity \(\overline{V}\)_M of rain with respect to man is

Question 6.
Explain Horizontal projection. Derive the equation for its motion, horizontal range & time of flight.
Answer:

Consider an object thrown horizontally with an initial velocity u, from atop of a tower of height h. The horizontal velocity remains constant throughout its motion and the vertical component of velocity go on increases. The constant acceleration acting along the downward direction is g. The horizontal distance travelled is x(t) = x and the vertical distance travelled is y(t)=y. since the motion is two-dimensional the velocity will have both horizontal (u_x) and vertical (u_y) components.

Motion along horizontal direction:
The particle has zero acceleration along the x-direction and so initial velocity ux remains constant throughout its motion.
The distance travelled by projectile in a time’t’ is given by
x = ut+1/2 at²
x = u_xt → (1)
Motion along vertical direction
Here uy =0, a = g, s = y
S = ut + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) at²
y = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) gt² → (2)
from (1) t = x/u_x sub in equation (2)
y = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) g (x/ux)²
y = k x² Where k = \(\frac{g}{2 u_{x}^{2}}\) .x²
This equation resemble the equation of a parabola. Thus the path followed by the projectile is a parabola.

Expression for time of flight:
The time taken for the projectile to complete its trajectory is called the time of flight.
Let h be the height of the tower or the vertical distance traversed.
Let T be the time of flight w.k. S = ut + 1/2 at²
here s = y = h, u = u_y, t = T, a = g

T depends on height of tower or vertical distance & independent of Horizontal velocity.

Expression for Horizontal Range:
The horizontal distance covered by the projectile from the foot of the tower to the point where the projectile hits the ground it called horizontal range.
w. k. t, S = ut + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) at²
Here,
t = T, a = 0, S = x = R, u = u_x

Hence R ∝ u ∝ & R ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{g}}\)

Question 7.
Obtain an expression for resultant velocity and the speed of the projectile when it hits the ground in case of a horizontal projection.
Answer:

At any instant t, the projectile has velocity components along both the x and y-axis.
The velocity component at any time t along with horizontal component V_x = u → (1)

Speed of the projectile when it hits the ground:
When the projectile hits the ground after thrown horizontally from top of tower of height h, the time of flight is T = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)
The horizontal component of velocity V_x = u
The vertical component of velocity

Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
Can a body have a constant speed and still have varying velocity?
Answer:
Yes, a particle in uniform circular motion has a constant speed but varying velocity because of the change in its direction of motion at every point.

Question 2.
When an observer is standing on earth appear the trees and houses appear stationary to him. However, when he is sitting in a moving bus or a train all objects appears to move in a backward direction why?
Answer:
For a stationary observer, the relative velocity of trees and houses is zero. For the observer sitting in the moving train, the relative velocity of houses and trees are negative. So these objects appear to move in the backward direction.

Question 3.
Draw position-time graphs for two objects having zero relative velocity?
Answer:

As relative velocity is zero the two bodies A and B have equal velocities. Hence their position-time graphs are parallel straight lines, equally inclined to the time axis.

Question 4.
Can a body be at rest as well as in motion at the same time? Explain.
(OR)
Rest and motion are relative terms. Explain.
Answer:
Yes, the object may be at rest relative to one object and at the same time if maybe in motion relative to another object.

For example, a passenger sitting in a moving train is at rest with respect to his fellow passengers but he is in motion with respect to the objects outside the train. Hence rest and motion are relative terms.

Question 5.
Use integration technique to prove that the distance travelled in-the n^th second of motion is S_th =u + \(\frac { a }{ 2 }\) (2n – 1)
Answer:
By definition of velocity v = \(\frac { ds }{ dt }\)
ds = Vdt = (u + at) dt → (1)
when t = (n – 1) second, let distance travelled = S_n-1
when t = n, second, let distance travelled = S_n

Question 6.
An old lady holding a purse in her hand was crossing the road. She was feeling difficulty in walking. A pickpocket snatched the purse from her and started running away. Can seeing this incident Suresh decided to help that old lady. He informed the police inspector who was standing nearby the inspector chased the pickpocketed and caught hold of him. He collected the purse from the pickpocket and gave back the purse to the old lady.
a) What were the values displayed by Suresh?
b) A police jeep is chasing with a velocity of 45 km/h. A thief in another jeep is moving at 155 km/hr. Police fire a bullet strike the jeep of the thief?
Answer:
The values displayed by Suresh are the presence of mind, helping tendency, and also a sense of social responsibility.
Relative velocity of the bullet with respect to thief’s Jeep = (Vb + Vp)-Vt.
= 180 m/s + 45 km/hr – 155 km/hr
= 180 m/s – 110 x 5/18 m/s
= 180 – 30.5
= 149.5 m/s.

Question 7.
A stone is thrown vertically upwards and then it returns to the thrower. Is it projective?
Answer:
No. It is not a projectile. A projectile should have two-component velocities in two mutually perpendicular directions. But in this case, body has a velocity in only one direction.

Question 8.
Can two non-zero vectors give zero resultant when they multiply with each other?
Answer:
If yes condition for the same. Yes. for example, the cross product of two non-zero vectors will be zero when θ = 0 or θ = 180°.

Question 9.
Justify that a uniform motion is an accelerated motion.
Answer:
In a uniform circular motion, the speed of the body remains the same but the direction of motion changes at every point.

Fig. shows the different velocity vectors at different positions of the particle. At each position, the velocity vector V is perpendicular to the radius vector. Thus the velocity of the body changes continuously due to the continuous change in the direction of motion of the body. As the rate of change is of velocity is acceleration a uniform circular motion is an accelerated motion.

Question 10.
State polygon law of vector addition.
Answer:
If a number of vectors are represented both in magnitude and direction by the sides of an open polygon taken in the same order then their resultant is represented both in magnitude arid direction by the closing side of the polygon taken in the opposite order.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Nature of Physical World and Measurement Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Nature of Physical World and Measurement

11th Physics Guide Nature of Physical World and Measurement Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
One of the combinations from the fundamental physical constants is \(\frac { hG }{ G }\), The unit of this expression is.
(a) Kg²
(b) m³
(c) S^-1
(d) m
Answer:
(a) Kg²

Question 2.
If the error in the measurement of radius is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will be:
(a) 8%
(b) 2%
(c) 4%
(d) 6%
Answer:
(d) 6%

Question 3.
If the length and time period of an oscillating pendulum have errors of 1% and 3% respectively then the error in measurement of acceleration due to gravity is: [Related to AMPMT 2008]
(a) 4%
(b) 5%
(c) 6%
(d) 7%
Answer:
(d) 7%

Question 4.
The length of a body is measured as 3.15m, if the accuracy is 0.01m, then the percentage error in the measurement is:
(a) 351%
(b) 1%
(c) 0.28%
(d) 0.035%
Answer:
(c) 0.28%

Question 5.
Which of the following has the highest number of significant figure?
(a) 0.007 m²
(b) 2.64 x 1024 Kg
(c) 0.0006032 m²
(d) 6.3200 J
Answer:
(d) 6.3200 J

Question 6.
If π = 3.14, then the value of π² is:
(a) 9.8596
(b) 9.860
(c) 9.86
(d) 9.9
Answer:
(c) 9.86

Question 7.
Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have same dimension?
(a) force and power
(b) torque and energy
(c) torque and power
(d) force and torque
Answer:
(b) torque and energy

Question 8.
The dimensional formula of planck’s constant h is _____________. [AMU, Main, JEE, NEET]
(a) [ML² T^-1]
(b) [ML²T^-3]
(c) [MLT^-1]
(d) [ML³T^-3]
Answer:
(a) [ML² T^-1]

Question 9.
The velocity of a particle v at an instant t is given by v = at + bt² the dimension of b is _____________
(a) [L]
(b) [LT^-1]
(c) [LT^-2]
(d) [LT^-3]
Answer:
(d) [LT^-3]

Question 10.
The dimensional formula for gravitational constant G is _____________. [Related to AIPMT 2004]
(a) [ML³T^-2]
(b) [M^-1L³T^-2]
(c) [M^-1 L^-3T^-2]
(d) [ML^-3T²]
Answer:
(b) [M^-1L³T^-2]

Question 11.
The density of a material is CGS system of units Is 4 g cm^-3. In a system of units in which unit of length is 10cm and unit of mass is 100g, then the value of density of material will be:
(a) 0.04
(b) 0.4
(c) 40
(d) 400
Answer:
(c) 40

Question 12.
If the force is proportional to square of velocity, then the dimension of proportionality constant is _____________. [JEE 2000]
(a) [ML T⁰]
(b) [ML T^-1]
(c) [ML^-2T]
(d) [ML^-1T⁰]
Answer:
(d) [ML^-1T⁰]

Question 13.
The dimension of (µ⁰ε⁰)^{\(\frac { -1 }{ 2 }\)} is _____________. [Main AIPMT 2011]
(a) length
(b) time
(c) velocity
(d) force
Answer:
(c) velocity

Question 14.
Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are takers as three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length? [NEET 2016 (phase II)]

Answer:

Question 15.
A length-scale (l) depends on the permittivity (c) of a dielectric material Boltzmann constant (Kb), the absolute temperature (T), the number per unit volume (n) of certain charged particles, and the charge (q) carried by each of the particles. Which of the following expression for L is dimensionally correct? [JEE (advance(d) 2016 ]

Answer:

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the types of physical quantities?
Answer:
Physical quantities are classified into two types. There are fundamental and derived quantities. Fundamental or base quantities are quantities which cannot be expressed in terms of any other physical quantities. These are length, mass, time, electric current, temperature, luminous intensity, and amount of substance.
Quantities that can be expressed in terms of fundamental quantities are called derived quantities. For example, area, volume, velocity, acceleration, force.

Question 2.
How will you measure the diameter of the moon using the parallax method?
Answer:
In order to determine the diameter of the moon, initially, a distance of the moon is calculated using the parallax method. Let D be the distance of the moon from the earth. Let d be the diameter of the moon. Let ∝ be the angular size of the angular diameter of the moon (ie) the angle subtended by d at the earth.

We have ∝ = d/D
d = ∝ D
The angle ∝ can be measured from the same location on the earth. When two diametrically opposite points of the moon are viewed through a telescope, the angle between the two directions gives the angular size or angular diameter. Since D is the known to size or diameter d of the moon can be determined.

Question 3.
Write the rules for determining significant figures.
Answer:
(1) All non zero digits are significant
Example: 1342 has 4 significant figures

(2) All zeros between two non-zero digits are significant
Example: 2008 has four significant figures

(3) All zeros to the right of non-zero digit but to the left of the decimal point are significant.
Example: 3070.00 has 4 significant figures.

(4) The trailing zeros are not significant, ie in the number without a decimal point. All zeros are significant if they come from the measurement.
Example: 4000 has one significant figure.

(5) If a number is less than 1, the zero (s) on the right of the decimal point but to the left of the first non-zero digit are not significant.
Example: 0.0034 has 2 significant figures.

(6) All zeros to the right of the decimal point and to the right of non zero digits are significant
Example: 40.00 has four significant figures.

(7) The number of significant figures does not depend on the system of units used.
Example: 1.53cm, 0.0150cm, 0.0000153 Km all have three significant figures.

(8) The power of 10 is irrelevant to the determination of significant figures
Example: 5.7 x 10² cm has two significant figures.

Question 4.
What are the limitations of dimensional analysis?
Answer:
(1) This method gives no information about the dimensionless constants in the formula. Like 1, 2,7i, e etc. ie they can not be determined using this analysis.

(2) This method can not decide whether the given quantity is a scalar or a vector.

(3) Using this method one cannot derive relations involving trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions.

(4) It cannot be applied to an equation involving more than three physical quantities.

(5) It can be used to check whether a given physical relation is dimensionally correct or not. The physical correctness can not be checked using this
For example:
s = ut + 1/3 at² is dimensionally correct were as physically not correct, as the correct equation is s = ut + 1/2at².

Question 5.
Define precision and accuracy. Explain with one example.
Answer:
The accuracy of a measurement is a measure of how close the measured value is to the true value of the quantity. The precision of measurement is the closeness of two or more measured values to each other.

The true value of a certain length is near 5.678 cm. In one experiment, using a measuring instrument of resolution 0.1 cm, the measured value is found to be 5.5 cm. In another experiment using a measuring instrument of greater resolution, say 0.01 cm, the length is found to be 5.38 cm. We find that the first measurement is more accurate as it is closer to the true value, but it has lesser precision. On the contrary, the second measurement is less accurate, but it is more precise.

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
State the principle of homogeneity and explain with an example.
Answer:
The principle of homogeneity of dimensions states that the dimensions of all the term in the physical expression should be same. This principle is used to check the correctness of the equation
For example
V² = U² + 2as
Writing dimensions on both sides
[LT^-1]² = [LT^-1]² + [LT^-1]²
[L² T²] = [L² T²] + [L²T^-2]
Here the dimensions of all the terms in the expression are same and equal to[L²T^-2]
So the equation is dimensionally correct.

Question 2.
Write short notes on the following.
(a) unit
(b) rounding off
(c) dimensionless quantity
Answer:
(a) Unit:
Unit of a physical quantity is defined as an arbitrarily chosen standard of measurement of a quantity which is accepted internationally.

The units in which the fundamental quantities are measured are called fundamental or base units and the units of measurement of all other physical quantity which can be obtained by a suitable multiplication or division of powers of fundamental units are called as derived units, example area, volume.

(b) Rounding off:
While doing calculations, the result got should not has too many figures. If no case the result have more significant figures than the figures involved in the data used for calculating. The result of calculation with numbers containing more than one uncertain digits should be rounded off.

Example :
18.35 when rounded off to 3 digits 18.4
19.45 when rounded off to 3 digits 19.4
101.55 x 10⁶ when rounded off to four digits 101.6 x 10⁶.

(c) Dimensionless quantity:
There are two types of dimensionless quantities – (i) dimensionless variable and (ii) dimensionless constant.

• Dimensionless variables – Physical quantities which have no dimensions but have variable values are called dimensionless variables.
  Examples: specific gravity, strain, refractive index, etc.
• Dimensionless constants – Quantities which have constant values and also have no dimension are called dimensionless constants.
  Example: π, e, numbers, etc.

Question 3.
What do you mean by the propagation of errors? Explain the propagation of errors in addition and multiplication.
Answer:
A number of measured quantities may be involved in the final calculation of an experiment. Different types of instruments might have been used for observation.

So the errors in the final result depends on –
(i) The error in individual measurements.
(ii) On the nature of mathematical operations.

The various possibilities of the propagation or combination of errors in different arithmetical operations are called propagation of errors.

Error in addition (or) sum of two quantities:
Let ∆A and ∆B be the absolute errors in measuring two quantities A and B respectively. Then
Measured value of A = A ± AA
Measured value of B = B ± AB
Consider sum A + B = Z
The error ∆Z in Z is given by
Z + ∆Z = (A ± ∆A) + (B ± ∆B).
= (A + B ) ± (∆A + ∆B)
Z + ∆Z = Z ± (∆A + ∆B)
∆Z = ∆A + ∆B
The maximum possible error in the sum of two quantities is equal to the sum of the absolute errors in the individual quantities.

Errors in multiplication (or) product of two quantities:
Let ∆A and ∆B be the absolute errors in the two quantities A and B respectively. Consider the product Z = AB
The error ∆Z in z given by
Z ± ∆Z = (A ± ∆A) (B ± ∆B)
= (AB) ± (A ∆ B) ± (B ∆ A) ± (∆A . ∆B)
Z ± ∆ Z = Z ± (A ∆ B) (B ∆ A) + (∆A . ∆B)
LHS by Z & RHS by AB = Z.
1± \(\frac { ∆ Z }{ Z }\) = 1 ± \(\frac { ∆ B }{ B }\) ± \(\frac { ∆ A }{ A }\) ± \(\frac { ∆A.∆B }{ AB }\)
Here \(\frac { ∆A.∆B }{ AB }\) can be neglected as \(\frac { ∆A}{ A }\) & \(\frac { ∆B }{ B }\) are small
∴ The maximum fractional error in Z is
\(\frac { ∆ Z }{ Z }\) = ±\(\frac { ∆A }{ A }\) x \(\frac { ∆B }{ B }\)
∴ The maximum fractional error in the product of two quantities is equal to the sum of fractional errors is the individual quantities.

Question 4.
Explain in detail various types of errors.
Answer:
The uncertainty in a measurement is called an error.
There are 3 types of errors namely –

1. Random error
2. Systematic error
3. Gross error.

1. Systematic errors – These are reproducible inaccuracies that are consistently in the same direction. These occur often due to problem that persists throughout the experiment. Systematic errors are further classified as

• instrumental error
• imperfection in experimental technique or procedure
• personal errors
• errors due to external causes
• least count error.

(a) Instrumental error: When an instrument is not calibrated properly at the time of manufacture instrumental errors may occur.

Example: If the measurement is made with a meter scale whose end is worn out the result obtained will have errors.

Correction – These errors can be corrected by choosing the instrument carefully.

(b) Imperfections in experimental technique or procedure: These errors arise due to limitations in the experimental arrangement.

Example: While performing experiments with a calorie meter, if there is no proper insulation, there will be radiation losses. This results in an error.

Correction – Necessary steps and corrections should be applied and followed while performing experiments.

(c) personal errors: These errors are due to individuals performing the experiments., maybe due to incorrect initial setting up of the experiment or carelessness of the individuals making the observation due to improper precautions.

(d) Errors due to external causes: The change in external conditions during experiments can cause error in measurement.

Example: Changes in temperature, humidity or pressure during measurement may affect the result of the measurement.

(e) Least count error: Least count is the smallest value that can be measured by the measuring instrument and the error due to this measurement is the least count error. The instrument’s resolution is the cause of the error. The error is half of the least value measured by the device.

Correction – Least count error can be reduced by using a high precision instrument for measurement.

(2) Random errors – Random errors may arise due to random and unpredictable variations is experimental conditions like pressure, temperature voltage supply etc., Errors may also due to persona! errors by the observer. Random errors are sometimes called “Chance errors”.

Example: While measuring the thickness of a wire using a screw gauge, different readings are taken in different trails.

Correction – By taking the arithmetic mean of all readings observed may reduce the random error and the mean value is taken as best possible true value.

(3) Gross errors – The error caused due to sheer carelessness of an observer is called gross error.
Examples: Improper setting of the instrument Making wrong observations without bothering about the sources of errors and precautions. Using wrong values in calculation Recording wrong observations

Correction – This error can be minimized only when the observer is careful and mentally alert.

Question 5.
(i) Explain the use of screw gauge and vernier calipers in measuring smaller distances:
(ii) Write a note a triangular method and radar method to measure large distances.
Answer:
Measurement of small distances by screw gauge and vernier calipers screw gauge : The screw gauge is an instrument used for measuring accurately the dimensions of objects up to a maximum of about 50 mm. The principle of the instrument is the magnification of linear motion using the circular motion of a screw. The least count of screw gauge is 0.01 mm.

Vernier calipers: A vernier caliper is a versatile instrument for measuring the dimensions of an object namely diameter of a hole or the depth of a hole. The least count of vernier caliper is a 0.01 cm.

Measurement of larger distances: For measuring larger distance such as height of a tree, distance of a moon or a planet from earth, the triangulation method, parallax method and radar method are used.

(a) Triangulation method for the height of an accessible object:

Let AB = h, be the height of a tree, to be measured. Let C be the point of observation at a distance X from B. Using a range finder placed
at C, ∠ACB = θ is measured.
∴ Considering ∆ ABC,
tan θ = \(\frac { AB }{ BC }\)
h = x tan θ
By knowing x, h can be calculated.

(b) Radar method:
RADAR is an acronym of Radio detection and ranging. A RADAR can be used to measure the distance of near planet, moon, enemy planes, moving as well as stationary targets etc. In this process, Radio signals are transmitted from the transmitter and after reflection from target, the radio signals are received by the receiver.

The time interval is recorded between the two instants i.e from time of transmission to time of reception. By knowing velocity and time, distance can be measured.

IV. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
In a submarine equipped with sonar the time delay between the generation of a pulse and its echo after reflection form an enemy submarine is observed to be 80s. If the speed of sound in water is 1460 ms^-1. What is the distance of enemy submarine?
Solution:
Time taken = 80s
Velocity of sound = V = 1460 m/s
Distance of enemy submarine d = ?
V = \(\frac{2d}{t}\)
d = \(\frac{Vt}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1460×80}{2}\)
= 1460 x 40
= 58400 m
d = 58.4k m

Question 2.
The radius of the circle is 3.12 m calculate the area of the circle with regard to significant figures.
Solution:
Given: radius: 3.12 m (Three significant figures)
Solution:
Area of the circle = πr² = 3.14 × (3.12 m)² = 30.566
If the result is rounded off into three significant figure, the area of the circle = 30.6 m²

Question 3.
Assuming that the frequency γ of the vibrating string may depend up on
(i) applied force (F)
(ii) Length (l)
(iii) mass per unit length (m) prove that γ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ l }\)\(\sqrt{\frac{F}{m}}\) using dimensional analysis.
Solution:
γ ∝ F^a l^bm^c
Writing dimension on both sides

Hence Proved.

Question 4.
Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million Km from the earth. Its angular diameter is measured to be 35.72″ calculate the diameter of Jupiter
Solution:

Given Distance of Jupiter = 824.7 × 10⁶ km = 8.247 × 10¹¹ m
angular diameter = 35.72 × 4.85 × 10^-6rad = 173.242 × 10^-6 rad = 1.73 × 10^-4 rad
∴ Diameter of Jupiter D = D × d = 1.73 × 10^-4 rad × 8.247 × 10¹¹ m
= 14.267 × 1o⁷ m = 1.427 × 10⁸ m (or) 1.427 × 10^{5 Km}

Question 5.
The measurement value of length of a simple pendulum is 20 cm known with 2mm accuracy. The time for 50 oscillations was measured to be 40s with in Is resolution. Calculate the percentage accuracy in the determination of acceleration due to gravity g from the above statement.
Solution:
l = 20 x 10^-2m = 20 cm
∆l = 2mm = 0.2 cm
Time for 50 oscillations = 40s
Time for 1 oscillation = T = \(\frac { 40 }{ 50 }\)
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\)s
∆T = 1s.
∆T = \(\frac { 1 }{ 50 }\)S

= 1% + 5%
= 6%

11th Physics Guide Nature of Physical World and Measurement Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The unit of surface tension ……
(a) MT^-2
(b) Nm^-2
(c) Nm
(d) Nm^-1
Answer:
(d) Nm^-1

Question 2.
One astronomical unit is equal to _______.
(a) 1.510 x 10¹²m
(b) 1.5 x 10¹²Km
(c) 1.5 x 10¹¹m
(d) 1.5 x 10¹²Cm
Answer:
(c) 1.5 x 10¹¹m

Question 3.
One light-year is ……
(a) 3.153 × 10⁷ m
(b) 1.496 × 10⁷ m
(c) 9.46 × 10¹² km
(d) 3.26 × 10¹⁵ km
Answer:
(c) 9.46 × 10¹² km

Question 4.
The dimensional formula for the coefficient of viscosity is _______.
(a) M⁰ L^-1T^-1
(b) M¹ L¹T¹
(c) M¹ L^-1T¹
(d) M² L²T⁰
Answer:
(c) M¹ L^-1T¹

Question 5.
One parsec is …..
(a) 3.153 × 10⁷ m
(b) 3.26 × 10¹⁵ m
(c) 30.84 × 10¹⁵ m
(d) 9.46 × 10¹⁵ m
Answer:
(c) 30.84 × 10¹⁵ m

Question 6.
The dimensional formula for (ε₀) permittivity of free space _______.
(a) M^-1 L³ T⁴ A²
(b) M^-1 L³ A²
(c) M^-1L^-3T⁴A²
(d) M¹L³T^-4A^-2
Answer:
(c) M^-1L^-3T⁴A²

Question 7.
One Angstrom is ………
(a) 10^-9 m
(b) 10^-10m
(c) 10^-12 m
(d) 10^-15 m
Answer:
(b) 10^-10 m

Question 8.
In the formula x = 3yz², x and y have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction respectively what are the dimensions of y?
(a) M³ L² T² Q⁴
(b) M³ L^-2T⁴Q⁴
(c) M³ L² T⁴ Q⁴
(d) M³L^-2T⁴Q⁴
Answer:
(d) M³L^-2T⁴Q⁴

Question 9.
\(\frac{1}{12}\) of the mass of carbon 12 atom is …..
(a) 1 TMC
(b) mass of neutron
(c) 1 amu
(d) mass of hydrogen
Answer:
(d) mass of hydrogen

Question 10.
The resistance of a conductor R = V/I where v = (50±2)v and I = (9 ± 0.3) A find the percentage error in R.
(a) 8.5%
(b) 3.7%
(c) 7.8%
(d) 7.3%
Answer:
(d) 7.3%

Question 11.
The study of forces acting on bodies whether at rest or in motion is …..
(a) classical mechanics
(b) quantum mechanics
(c) thermodynamics
(d) condensed matter physics
Answer:
(a) classical mechanics

Question 12.
In the measurement of pressure if maximum errors in the measurement of force and length of a square plate are 3% and 2% respectively. The maximum error is _______.
(a) 7%
(b) 8%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Answer:
(a) 7%

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a dimensionless physical quantity?
(a) Mechanical equivalent of heat
(b) volumetric strain
(c) atomic mass unit
(d) Avogadro’s number
Answer:
(c) atomic mass unit

Question 14.
The study of production and propagation of sound waves …..
(a) Astrophysics
(b) Acoustics
(c) Relativity
(d) Atomic physics
Answer:
(b) Acoustics

Question 15.
The physical quantities not having the same dimensions are _______.
(a) torque and work
(b) Linear momentum and planks constant
(c) stress and youngs modulus
(d) speed and (ε₀μ₀)^-1/2
Answer:
(a) torque and work

Question 16.
Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimension?
(1) energy density
(2) refractive index
(3) dielectric content
(4) youngs modulus
(5) magnetic field

(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 5
Answer:
(a) 1 and 4

Question 17.
The astronomers used to observe distant points of the universe by …….
(a) Electron telescope
(b) Astronomical telescope
(c) Radio telescope
(d) Radar
Answer:
(c) Radio telescope

Question 18.
The youngs modulus of a material of the wire is 12.6 x 10¹¹ dyne/cm². Its value is MKS system is _______.
(a) 12.6 x 10¹² N/M²
(b) 12.6 x 10¹⁰ N/M²
(c) 12.6 x 10⁶ N/M²
(d) 12.6 x 10⁸ N/M²
Answer:
(a) 12.6 x 10¹² N/M²

Question 19.
The dimensionless quantity _______.
(a) never has a unit
(b) always has a unit
(c) may has a unit
(d) does not exist
Answer:
(c) may has a unit

Question 20.
Which one of the following is not a fundamental quantity?
(a) length
(b) luminous intensity
(c) temperature
(d) water current
Answer:
(d) water current

Question 21.
The time dependence of a physical quantity p is givers by \(p_{0} e^{-\alpha t^{2}}\) = P, where α is a constant and t is time. The constant α is _______
(a) a dimensionless
(b) has the dimension of T²
(c) has the dimension as that of P
(d) has the dimension equal to dimensions of PT^-2
Answer:
(a) a dimensionless

Question 22.
A force F is given F = at + bt² Where t is time. What are the dimensions of a & b?
(a) ML T^-3 and ML²T^-4
(b) MLT^-3 and MLT^-4
(c) MLT^-1 and MLT⁰
(d) MLT^-4and MLT^-1
Answer:
(a) ML T^-3 and ML²T^-4

Question 23.
The triple point temperature of the water is ……
(a) -273.16 K
(b) 0K
(c) 273.16 K
(d) 100 K
Answer:
(d) 100 K

Question 24.
The force F on a sphere of radius ‘a’ moving in a medium with a velocity v is given by F = 6 π av. The dimension of η are
(a) ML^-1T^-2
(b) MT^-1
(c) MLT^-2
(d) ML^-3
Answer:
(d) ML^-3

Question 25.
The unit of moment of force ……
(a) Nm²
(b) Nm
(c) N
(d) NJ rad
Answer:
(b) Nm

Question 26.
If the orbital velocity of a planet is given by v = G^aM^bR^c then _______.
(a) a = 1/3, b = 1/3, c = – 1/3
(b) a = 1/2, b =1/2, c = – 1/2
(c) a = 1/3, b = – 1/2, c = 1/2
(d) a = 1/2, b = – 1/2, c = – 1/2
Answer:
(a) a = 1/3, b = 1/3, c = – 1/3

Question 27.
The period T of a soap bubble under SHM given by T = P^aD^bS^c where P is the pressure, d is the density of water and E is the total energy of the explosion, then the value of a, b and c are:
(a) -3/2, 1/2, 1
(b) -5/6, 1/2, 1/3
(c) 5/6, 1/2, 1/3
(d) -5/6, -1/2, 1/3
Answer:
(a) -3/2, 1/2, 1

Question 28.
One degree of arc is equal to …….
(a) 1.457 × 10² rad
(b) 1.457 × 10^-2 rad
(c) 1.745 × 10² rad
(d) 1.745 × 10^-2 rad
Answer:
(b) 1.457 × 10^-2 rad

Question 29.
Frequency is the functions of density p length ‘l’ and tension T. The period of oscillation is proportional to _______.
(a) ρ^1/2 λ² T^-1/2
(b) ρ^1/2 λ^3/2T^-1/2
(c) ρ^1/2 λ^3/2 T^-3/4
(d) ρ^1/2 λ^1/2 T^3/2
Answer:
(a) ρ^1/2 λ² T^-1/2

Question 30.
The frequency of vibration of string is given by γ^l = \(\frac{p}{2 \ell} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\) Here l is the length, P is the number of segments in the string. T is tension is the string, the dimensional formula for ‘m’ will be.
(a) M⁰ L T^-1
(b) M L⁰ T^-1
(c) M L^-1 T⁰
(d) M⁰ L⁰ T⁰
Answer:
(c) M L^-1 T⁰

Question 31.
1 second of arc is equal to ………………..
(a) 0.00027°
(b) 1.745 × 10^-2 rad
(c) 2.91 × 10^-4 rad
(d) 4.85 × 10^-6 rad
Answer:
(a) 0.00027°

Question 32.
If force (f), length (L) and time (T) are assumed to be fundamental units then the dimensional formula of the mass will be _______.
(a) FL^-1T²
(b) FL^-1T²
(c) FL^-1 T^-1
(d) FL²T²
Answer:
(a) FL^-1T²

Question 33.
If pressure ‘p’ velocity v and time T are taken as fundamental physical quantities the dimensional formula for force is _______.
(a) [PV² T²]
(b) [P^-1V²T^-2]
(c) [PV T²]
(d) [P^-1V T²]
Answer:
(a) [PV² T²]

Question 34.
The range of distance can be measured by using direct methods is …..
(a) 10^-2 to 10^-5 m
(b) 10^-2 to 10² m
(c) 10² to 1(T5 m {d) 10″2 to 105 m
Answer:
(b) 10^-2 to 10² m

Question 35.
The speed of light (c) gravitational constant G and planks constant h are taken as fundamental units. The dimension of time in the new system will be _______.
(a) G^1/2 h^1/2 C^-5/2
(b) g^1/2 h^1/2 C^1/2
(c) G^1/2 h^1/2 C^-3/2
(d) G^1/2 h^1/2 C^1/2
Answer:
(a) G^1/2 h^1/2 C^-5/2

Question 36.
The rate of flow(Q) (volume of liquid flowing per unit volume through a pipe depends on radius r, Length f of pipe, pressure difference P across the ends of pipe and coefficient of viscosity of liquid η as Q α r^aρ^b η^cL^dthen _______
(a) a = 4, b = 1, c = – 1, d = – 1
(b) a = 4, b = – 1, c = 1, d = – 1
(c) a = 4, b = 1, c = 1, d = – 1
(d) values of a,b,c and d cannot be determined
Answer:
(d) values of a,b,c and d cannot be determined

Question 37.
The dimensions of universal gas constant is _______
(a) ML²T^-2θ^-1
(b) ML²T^-2θ
(c) ML³ T^-1 θ^-1
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) ML²T^-2θ^-1

Question 38.
Find odd one out.
(a) Newton
(b) metre
(c) candela
(d) Kelvin
Answer:
(a) Newton

Question 39.
Which of the following combinations have the dimensions of time? L, C, R represent inductance, capacitance, and resistance respectively.
(a) RC
(b) \(\sqrt{LC}\)
(c) L/R
(d) C/L
Answer:
(b) \(\sqrt{LC}\)

Question 40.
The dimensions of mobility are _______
(a) M^-1 LA T^-2
(b) ML A^-1T^-2
(c) MA^-1T^-2
(d) M^-1A T²
Answer:
(d) M^-1A T²

Question 41.
The smallest physical unit of time is
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) microsecond
(d) shake
Answer:
(d) shake

Question 42.
The length, breadth and thickness of strip are given by l = (10.0±0.1)cm, h=(1.00±0.01)cm t = (0.100±0.001)cm the most probable error in volume will be _______
(a) 0.03 cm³
(b) 0.111 cm³
(c) 0.012 cm³
(d) 0.12 cm³
Answer:
(a) 0.03 cm³

Question 43.
The measured mass and volume of a body are 22.42g and 4.7cm³ respectively with possible errors of 0.01 g and 0.1cm³. The maximum error in density is _______.
(a) 0.2%
(b) 2%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
Answer:
(b) 2%

Question 44.
Half the lifetime of a free neutron is in the order of ……
(a) 10°
(b) 10¹ s
(c) 10² s
(d) 10³ s
Answer:
(d) 10³ s

Question 45.
An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and y is calculated from a formula. y = \(\frac{a b^{2}}{c^{3}}\) If the percentage errors in a,b and c are ± 1%, ± 3%, ± 2% respectively, the percentage error in calculating y is _______
(a) ± 13%
(b) ± 7%
(c) ±4%
(d) ± 1%
Answer:
(a) ± 13%

Question 46.
A student measures the distance traversed in a free fail of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If maximum percentage error in measurement of the distance and the time are e₁ and e₂ respectively the percentage error in the estimation of g is _______
(a) e₂ – e₁
(b) e₁+ 2e₂
(c) e₁ + e₂
(d) e₁ – 2e₂
Answer:
(b) e₁+ 2e₂

Question 47.
The heat generated in a circuit is given by Q = I²Rt. Where I is current, R is the resistance and t is the time. If an error in measuring current, resistance, and time are 2%, 1%, and 1% respectively. The maximum error in measuring heat will be _______
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Answer:
(c) 6%

Question 48.
Imperfections in experimental procedure give ……………….. error.
(a) random
(b) gross
(c) systematic
(d) personal
Answer:
(c) Systematic

Question 49.
A student performs an experiment for determination of g = \(\frac{4 \pi^{2} l}{T^{2}}\) an error of ∆l. For that, he takes the time of n oscillations with the stopwatch of least count ∆T and he commits a human error of 0.1s. For which of the following data, the measurement of g will be most accurate? ∆l, ∆T, n
(a) 5m, 0.2s, 10
(b) 5mm, 0.2s, 20
(c) 5mm, 0.1s, 20
(d) 1mm, 0.1s, 50
Answer:
(d) 1mm, 0.1s, 50

Question 50.
A Screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of the wire.
Main scale reading = 0.
Circular scale reading = 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on the main scale corresponds to 100 division on a circular scale. The diameter of the wire is _______.
(a) 0.52 cm
(b) 0.052 cm
(c) 0.0026 cm
(d) 0.005 cm
Answer:
(b) 0.052 cm

Question 51.
The error caused due to the sheer carelessness of an observer is called as ……………. error.
(a) Systematise
(b) Gross
(c) Random
(d) Personal
Answer:
(b) Gross

Question 52.
The force (F) velocity(v) and time “T” are taken as fundamental units then the divisions of mass are _______.
(a) [FVT²]
(b) [FV^-1T^-1]
(c) [FV T^-1]
(d) [FV^-1T]
Answer:
(d) [FV^-1T]

Question 53.
Attempting to explain diverse physical phenomenon with few concepts and law is _______.
(a) unification (or) reductionism
(b) neither unification nor reductionism
(c) unification
(d) reductionism
Answer:
(c) unification

Question 54.
An attempt to explain a microscopic system in terms of its microscopic constituents _______.
(a) unification
(b) reductionism
(c) neither unification or reductionism
(d) neither unification nor reductionism
Answer:
(b) reductionism

Question 55.
The study of nature of particles is _______ a branch of physics.
(a) nuclear physics
(b) quantum mechanics
(c) condensed another physics
(d) high energy physics
Answer:
(d) high energy physics

Question 56.
The ratio of the mean absolute error to the mean value is called …………….
(a) absolute error
(b) random error
(c) relative error
(d) percentage error
Answer:
(c) Relative error

Question 57.
1″ is equal to _______ radian.
(a) 1.745 x 10^-2 rad
(b) 1.78 x 10^-3 rad
(c) 2.91 x 10^-4 rad
(d) 4.847 x 10^-6 rad
Answer:
(d) 4.847 x 10^-6 rad

Question 58.
From a point on the ground, the top of a tree is seen to have an angle of elevation of 60°. The distance between the tree and a point is 50 m. The height of the tree is _______.
(a) 86.6 m
(b) 90.6 m
(c) 92.8 m
(d) 80.6 m
Answer:
(a) 86.6 m

Question 59.
The maximum possible error in the sum of two quantities is equal to …….
(a) Z = A + B
(b) ∆Z = ∆A + ∆B
(c) ∆Z = ∆A/∆B
(d) ∆Z = ∆A – ∆B
Answer:
(b) ∆Z = ∆A + ∆B

Question 60.
Number of a significant digit in 0.030400
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 5

II. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in a vacuum is unity. What is the distance between the sun and the earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min and 20 s to cover this distance?
Answer:
Speed of light in vacuum, c = 1 new unit of length s^-1
t = 8 min. 20 sec, = 500 s
x = ct= 1 new unit of length s^-1 × 500s
x = 500 new unit of length

Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
Why it is convenient to express the distance of stars in terms of light-year (or) parsec rather than in Km?
Solution:
One light-year = 9.46 x 10¹⁵ m = 9.46 x 10¹² Km. As the distance of stars is extraordinarily large, so it is convenient to express them in light-year rather than in meters or in kilometers.

Question 2.
Show that a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions is more precise than a vernier caliper with 20 divisions on the sliding scale.
Solution:
The device that has a minimum least count is said to be more precise.
In case of screw gauge: Least count

= 0.05 mm
Out of this screw, gauges is having the minimum least count. So screw gauge is more precise.

Question 3.
What is the difference between mN, Nm, and nm?
Answer:
mN means milli newton, 1 mN = 10^-3 N, Nm means Newton meter, nm means nanometer.

Question 4.
Having all units in atomic standards is more useful. Explain.
Answer:
It became necessary to redefine all units in atomic standards because the prototype offers the following difficulties.

1. It is difficult to preserve prototype models.
2. It is difficult to produce replicas of prototypes for their use in different countries.
3. The techniques used for producing replicas are not of very high accuracy.
4. Atomic standard units can be reproduced anywhere and at any time.
5. It is variant in time and space.
6. It is unaffected by environmental conditions like temperature, pressure, etc.
7. It has an accuracy of 1 part in 10⁹.

Question 5.
Why dimensional methods are applicable only up to three quantities?
Answer:
The dimensional analysis is not applicable on more than 3 physical quantities because the equating powers of M, L & T, we get three unknowns. Similar constraints are present for electrical or other non-mechanical quantities also

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Answers Guide

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Back Answers Solutions Guide.

Unit 1 Fundamentals of Business

• Chapter 1 Historical Background of Commerce in the Sub-Continent
• Chapter 2 Objectives of Business
• Chapter 3 Classification of Business Activities

Unit 2 Forms of Business Organisation

• Chapter 4 Sole Proprietorship
• Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership
• Chapter 6 Joint Stock Company
• Chapter 7 Cooperative Organisation
• Chapter 8 Multi-National Corporations (MNCs)
• Chapter 9 Government Organisation

Unit 3 Service Business – I

• Chapter 10 Reserve Bank of India
• Chapter 11 Types of Banks
• Chapter 12 Functions of Commercial Banks
• Chapter 13 Warehousing
• Chapter 14 Transportation
• Chapter 15 Insurance

Unit 4 Service Business – II

• Chapter 16 Emerging Service Business in India

Unit 5 Service Business – II

• Chapter 17 Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics
• Chapter 18 Business Ethics and Corporate Governance

Unit 6 Business Finance

• Chapter 19 Sources of Business Finance
• Chapter 20 International Finance
• Chapter 21 Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs)

Unit 7 Trade

• Chapter 22 Types of Trade
• Chapter 23 Channels of Distribution
• Chapter 24 Retailing

Unit 8 International Business

• Chapter 25 International Business
• Chapter 26 Export and Import Procedures
• Chapter 27 Facilitators of International Business
• Chapter 28 Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments

Unit 9 The Indian Contract Act

• Chapter 29 Elements of Contract
• Chapter 30 Performance of Contract
• Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract

Unit 10 Direct and Indirect Taxes

• Chapter 32 Direct Taxes
• Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation

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