Category: Class 12

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 5 PHP Function and Array Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 5 PHP Function and Array

12th Computer Applications Guide PHP Function and Array Text Book Questions and Answers

Part I

Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is the right way of defining a function in PHP?
a) function { function body }
b) data type functionName(parameters) { function body }
c) functionName(parameters) { function body }
d) function functionName(parameters) { function body }
Answer:
d) function functionName(parameters) { function body }

Question 2.
A function in PHP which starts with (double underscore) is known as ……………
a) Magic Function
b) Inbuilt Function
c) Default Function
d) User Defined Function
Answer:
a) Magic Function

Question 3.
PHP’s numerically indexed array begins with position …………….
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) -1
Answer:
c) 0

Question 4.
Which of the following are correct ways of creating an array?
i) state[0] = “Tamilnadu”;
ii) $state[] = array(“Tamilnadu”);
iii) $state[0] = “Tamilnadu”;
iv) $state = array(“Tamilnadu”);
a) iii) and iv)
b) ii) and iii)
c) Only i)
d) ii), iii) and iv)
Answer:
d) ii), iii) and iv)

Question 5.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$a=a rray (“A”,”Cat”,”Dog “,”A”,”Dog “);
$b=a rray C’A” “A” “Cat”,”A”,”Tiger”);
$c=array_combine($a,$b);
print__r(array_count_va!ues($c));
?>
a) Array ([A] => 5 [Cat] = > 2 [Dog] => 2 [Tiger] = >1)
b) Array ([A] => 2 [Cat] => 2 [Dog] => 1 [Tiger] = > 1)
c) Array ( [A] => 6 [Cat] => 1 [Dog] -> 2 [Tiger] = > 1)
d) Array ([A] => 2 [Cat] => 1 [Dog] => 4 [Tiger] = > 1)
e) None of these
Answer:
e) None of these

Question 6.
For finding nonempty elements in array we use
a) is„array () function
b) sizeof () function
c) array_count () function
d) count () function
Answer:
b) sizeof () function

Question 7.
Indices of arrays can be either strings or numbers and they are denoted as
a) $my_array {4}
b) $my_array [4]
c) $my_array | 4 |
d) None of them
Answer:
d) None of them

Question 8.
PHP arrays are also called as
a) Vector arrays
b) Perl arrays
c) Hashes
d) All of them
Answer:
a) Vector arrays

Question 9.
As compared to associative arrays vector arrays are much
a) Faster
b) Slower
c) Stable
d) None of them
Answer:
b) Slower

Question 10.
What functions count elements in an array?
a) count
b) Sizeof
c) Array_Count
d) Count_array
Answer:
a) count

Part II

Short Answers

Question 1.
Define Function in PHP.
Answer:
In most of the programming language, a block of the segment in a program that performs specific operation tasks (Insert, Execute, Delete, Calculate, etc.). This segment is also known as Function. A Function is a type of subroutine or procedure in a program.

Question 2.
Define User define Function.
Answer:

• User-Defined Function (UDF) in PHP gives a privilege to the user to write their own specific: operation inside of existing program module.
• A user-defined function declaration begins with the keyword “function”.
• Users can write any custom logic inside the function block.

Question 3.
What is parameterized Function?
Answer:
Parameterized Function:

1. PHP Parameterized functions are the functions with parameters or arguments.
2. Required information can be shared between function declaration and function calling part inside the program.
3. The parameter is also called as arguments, it is like variables.
4. The arguments are mentioned after the function name and inside of the parenthesis.
5. There is no limit for sending arguments, just separate them with a comma notation.

Question 4.
List out System defined Functions.
Answer:

• is_bool() function -By using this function, we can check whether the variable is a boolean variable or not.
• is_int() function 3y using this function, we can check the input variable is an integer or not.
• is_float() function-By using this function, we can check the float variable is an integer or not.
• is_null() function-By using the is_null function, we can check whether the variable is NULL or not.

Question 5.
Write Syntax of the Function in PHP.
Answer:
SYNTAX:
function functionName()
{
Custom Logic code to be executed;
}

Question 6.
Define Array in PHP.
Answer:
Array is a concept that stores more than one value of the same data type (homogeneous) in the single array variable. They are 3 types of array in PHP.

1. Indexed Arrays
2. Associative Array and
3. Multi-Dimensional Array

Question 7.
Usage of Array in PHP.
Answer:
The array() function is used to create an array.
In PHP, there are three types of arrays:

• Indexed arrays – Arrays with a numeric index
• Associative arrays – Arrays with named keys
• Multidimensional arrays – Arrays containing one or more arrays

Question 8.
List out the types of the array in PHP.
Answer:
They are 3 types of array concepts in PHP.

1. Indexed Arrays,
2. Associative Array and
3. Multi-Dimensional Array.

Question 9.
Define associative array.
Answer:
Associative arrays are a key-value pair data structure. Instead of having storing data in a linear array, with associative arrays you can store your data in a collection and assign it a unique key which you may use for referencing your data.

Question 10.
Write array Syntax in PHP.
Answer:
array(key=>value,key=>value,key=> value,etc.); key = Specifies the key (numeric or string value – Specifies the value)

Part III

Explain in brief answer

Question 1.
Write the features System define Functions.
Answer:
System Defined Functions: A function is already created by system it is a reusable piece or block of code that performs a specific action. Functions can either return values when called or can simply perform an operation without returning any value.

Features of System defined functions:

1. System defined functions are otherwise called as predefined or built-in functions.
2. PHP has over 700 built in functions that performs different tasks.
3. Built in functions are functions that exists in PHP installation package.

Question 2.
Write the purpose of parameterized Function.
Answer:

• Information can be passed to functions through arguments.
• An argument is just like a variable.
• Arguments are specified after the function name, inside the parentheses. We can add as many arguments as you want, just separate them with a comma.

Question 3.
Differentiate user define and system define Functions.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write Short notes on Array.
Answer:
Array is a concept that stores more than one value of same data type (homogeneous) in single array variable. They are 3 types of array concepts in PHP.

1. Indexed Arrays,
2. Associative Array and
3. Multi-Dimensional Array.

Question 5.
Differentiate Associate array and Multidimensional array.
Answer:

Part IV

Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain Function concepts in PHP.
Answer:
Functions in PHP
In most the programming language, a block of segments in a program that performs specific operation tasks (Insert, Execute, Delete, Calculate, etc.). This segment is also known as Function. A Function is a type of subroutine or procedure in a program.

Function will be executed by a call to the Function and the Function returns any data type values or NULL value to called Function in the part of the respective program.
The Function can be divided into three types as follows:

1. User-defined Function,
2. Pre-defined or System or built-in Function, and
3. Parameterized Function.

1. User-Defined Function:
User-Defined Function (UDF) in PHP gives a privilege to the user to write own specific operation inside of existing program module. Two important steps the Programmer has to create for users to define Functions are Function declaration and Function calling.

2. System Define Functions:
A function is already created by system it is a reusable piece or block of code that performs a specific action. Functions can either return values when called or can simply perform an operation without returning any value.

3. Parameterized Function:
PHP Parameterized functions are the functions with parameters or arguments.

Question 2.
Discuss in detail User-defined Functions.
Answer:

• User-Defined Function (UDF) in PHP givesa privilege to user to write own specific operation inside of existing program module.
• Two important steps the Programmer has to cre-ate for users define Functions are:

Function Declaration

• A user-defined Function declaration begins with the keyword “function”.
• User can write any custom logic inside the function block.

Syntax:
function functionName()
{
Custom Logic code to be executed;
}

Function Calling:

• A function declaration part will be executed by a ! call to the function.
• Programmer has to create Function Calling part j inside the respective program.

Syntax:
functionName();

Example:
<?php
function insertMsg() {
echo “Student Details Inserted Successfully!”;
}
insertMsg(); // call the function
?>

Question 3.
Explain the Multidimensional Array.
Answer:
Multidimensional Arrays:

1. A multidimensional array is an array containing one or more arrays.
2. PHP understands multidimensional arrays that are two, three, four, five, or more levels deep.
3. However, arrays more than three levels deep are hard to manage for most people.

Example:
<?php
// A two-dimensional array Sstudent-array
(
array(“Iniyan”, 100,96),
array(“Kavin”,60,59),
array(“Nilani”,1313,139)
);
echo $$student[0][0].“: Tamil Mark: “.$student [0][1]English mark: “.$student [0] [2].”<br>”;

echo $$student[1][0].“: Tamil Mark: “.$student [1][1].”. English mark: “.$student [1] [2].”<br>”;

echo $$student[2][0].“: Tamil Mark: “.$student [2][1]English mark: “.$student [2] [2].”<br>”;
?>

Question 4.
Explain Array concepts and their types.
Answer:
Array is a concept that stores more than one value of same data type (homogeneous) insingle array variable. They are 3 types of array con¬cepts in PHP.

1. Indexed Arrays,
2. Associative Array and
3. Multi-Dimensional Array.

Indexed Arrays

Arrays with numeric index for the available values in array variable which contains keyvalue pair as user / developer can take the values using keys.

Associative Arrays

• Associative arrays are a key-value pair data structure.
• Instead of having storing data in alinear array, with associative arrays you can store your data in a collection and assign it aunique key which you may use for referencing your data.

Multidimensional Arrays

• A multidimensional array is an array containing one or more arrays.
• PHP understands multidimensional arrays that are two, three, four, five, or more levels deep.
• However, arrays more than three levels deep are hard to manage for most people.

Question 5.
Explain Indexed array and Associatearray in PHP.
Answer:
Indexed Arrays:
Arrays with numeric index for the available values in array variable which contains key value pair as user / developer can take the values using keys.
Example:
<?php
$teacher_name=array(“Iniyan”, “Kavin”, “Nilani”);
echo “The students name are “ . $teacher_name[0]. “, “ . $$teacher_name[l]. “ and” . $teacher_name[2].
?>

Associative Arrays:

1. Associative arrays are a key-value pair data structure.
2. Instead of having storing data in a, linear array, with associative arrays you can store your data.

Example:
<?php
$Marks=array(“Student1”=>“35”,“Student2”==>“17”,“Student3”=>“43”);
echo “Student1 mark is” . $Marks[‘Student1’]. “ is eligible for qualification”;
echo “Student2 mark is” . $Marks[‘Student2’]. “ is not eligible for qualification”;

12th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Hypertext Pre-Processor Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part A

Choose The Correct Answers:

Question 1.
A block of the segment in a program that performs specific operation tasks is known as
a) Arrays
b) Segments
c) Functions
d) All of these
Answer:
c) Functions

Question 2.
PHP has over ………………………. built-in functions.
(a) 200
(b) 500
(c) 700
(d) 900
Answer:
(c) 700

Question 3.
is a concept that stores more than one value of the same data type in a single array variable,
a) Arrays
b) Segments
c) Functions
d) All of these
Answer:
a) Arrays

Question 4.
………………….. arrays are a key-value pair data structure.
a) Associative
b) Indexed
c) Multi-dimensional
d) All of these
Answer:
b) Indexed

Question 5.
Find the wrong statement from the following?
(a) pre-defined functions are called built-in functions
(b) pre-defined functions are called system functions
(c) parameterized functions are called system functions
Answer:
(c) parameterized functions are called system functions

Fill in the blanks:

1. PHP has over …………. functions built-in that perform different tasks.
Answer:
700

2. PHP functions are dived into …………. types.
Answer:
three

3. A user-defined Function declaration begins with the keyword ………….
Answer:
function

4. The parameter is also called………….
Answer:
arguments

5. Array defines with the keyword ………….
Answer:
array()

SYNTAX

1. Function Declaration:
function functionName()
{
Custom Logic code to be executed;
}

2. Function Calling:
functionName();

3. Indexed Arrays:
$Array_Variable = array( “valuel”, “value2″”value2”);

4. Associative Arrays
array(key=>value,key=>value,key=>- value,etc.);

Choose the incorrect statements;

1. a) PHP Functions are Reducing duplication of code
b) PHP Functions are Decomposing complex problems into simpler pieces
c) PHP Functions are Improving the clarity of the code
d) PHP Functions are collections of variables.
Answer:
d) PHP Functions are collections of variables.

2. a) PHP Functions are Reuse of code
b) PHP Functions are Information hiding
c) PHP Parameterized functions are the functions without parameters
d) PHP arrays are using For each looping concepts
Answer:
c) PHP Parameterized functions are the functions without parameters

3. a) Array is a collection of heterogeneous data
b) An Array is a block of code that performs a specific action.
c) A function is already created by the system it is a reusable piece
d) An array is a special variable, which can hold more than one value at a time.
Answer:
b) An Array is a block of code that performs a specific action.

Question 4.
a) An array is a block of statements that can be used repeatedly in a program.
b) The index can be assigned automatically in a collection of the data set
c) A multidimensional array is an array containing one or more arrays.
d) Associative arrays are arrays that use named keys that you assign to them.
Answer:
a) An array is a block of statements that can be used repeatedly in a program.

5. a) User Defined Function (UDF) in PHP gives a privilege to the user to write own specific operation inside of existing program module.
b) A user-defined Function declaration begins with the keyword “function”.
c) A Function is a type of subroutine or procedure in a program.
d) A Function will not be executed by a call to the Function
Answer:
d) A Function will not be executed by a call to the Function

Match the following:

1. Indexed Arrays – System function
2. Associative Arrays – Function with arguments
3. Multidimensional Arrays – Key value pair
4. Parameterized function – Array containing one or more array
5. Predefined function – Numeric Index

Answer:
1. Numeric Index
2. Key valued pair
3. Array containing one or more array
4. Function with arguments
5. System Function

Very Short Answers

Question 1.
Classify functions?
Answer:
The Function can be divided into three types as follow:

1. User-defined Function
2. Pre-defined or System or built-in Function, and
3. Parameterized Function.

Question 2.
What is an associative array?
Answer:
Associative arrays are arrays that use named keys that you assign to them.

Question 3.
How index will be assigned in an indexed array?
Answer:
The index can be assigned automatically in a collection of the data set

Question 4.
What is a Multi-Dimensional Array?
Answer:
A multidimensional array is an array containing one or more arrays.

Part B

Short Answers

Question 1.
Write a PHP program for function with one arguments?
Answer:
<?php
function School_Name($sname) {
echo $sname.“in Tamilnadu.<br>”;
}
SchoolName (“Government Higher Secondary School Madurai”);
SchoolName (“Government Higher Secondary School Trichy”);
School Name (“Government Higher Secondary School Chennai”);
School Name (“Government Higher Secondary School Kanchipuram”);
School Name (“Government Higher Secondary School Tirunelveli”);
?>

Question 2.
Give important characteristics of PHP functions?
Answer:

1. PHP Functions are Reducing duplication of code.
2. PHP Functions are Decomposing complex problems into simpler pieces.
3. PHP Functions are Improving the clarity of the code.
4. PHP Functions are Reuse of code.
5. PHP Functions are Information hiding.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Guide Pdf Chapter 12 Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics

12th Economics Guide Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I

Multiple Choice questions

Question 1.
The word ‘statistics’ is used as ……………..
a) Singular
b) Plural
c) Singular and Plural
d) None of above
Answer:
c) Singular and Plural

Question 2.
Who stated that statistics as a science of estimates and probabilities.
a) Horace Secrist
b) R. A Fisher
c) Ya – Lun – Chou
d) Boddington
Answer:
d) Boddington

Question 3.
Sources of secondary data are ……………..
a) Published sources
b) Unpublished sources
c) neither published nor unpublished sources
d) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
d) Both (A) and (B)

Question 4.
The data collected by questionnaires are ………………….
a) Primary data
b) Secondary data
c) Published data
d) Grouped data
Answer:
a) Primary data

Question 5.
A measure of the strength of the linear relationship that exists between two variables is called:
a) Slope
b) Intercept
c) Correlation coefficient
d) Regression equation
Answer:
c) Correlation coefficient

Question 6.
If both variables X and Y increase or decrease simultaneously, then the coefficient of correlation will be:
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) one
Answer:
a) Positive

Question 7.
If the points on the scatter diagram indicate that as one variable increases the other variable tends to decrease the value of r will be :
a) Perfect positive
b) Perfect negative
c) Negative
d) Zero
Answer:
c) Negative

Question 8.
The value of the coefficient of correlation r lies between :
a) 0 and 1
b) -1 and 0
c) -1 and +1
d) -0.5 and +0.5
Answer:
c) -1 and +1

Question 9.
The term regression was used by :
a) Newton
b) Pearson
c) Spearman
d) Galton .
Answer:
d) Galton .

Question 10.
The purpose of simple linear regression analysis is to:
a) Predict one variable from another variable
b) Replace points on a scatter diagram by a straight-line
c) Measure the degree to which two variables are linearly associated
d) Obtain the expected value of the independent random variable for a given value of the dependent variable
Answer:
a) Predict one variable from another variable

Question 11.
A process by which we estimate the value of dependent variable on the basis of one or more independent variables is called:
a) Correlation
b) Regression
c) Residual
d) Slope
Answer:
b) Regression

Question 12.
If Y = 2 – 0.2 X, then the value of Y-intercept is equal to
a)-0.2
b) 2
c) 0.2 X.
d) All of the above
Answer:
b) 2

Question 13.
In the regression equation Y = β₀+ β₁ X, the Y is called
a) Independent variable
b) Dependent variable
c) Continuous variable
d) none of the above
Answer:
b) Dependent variable

Question 14.
In the regression equation X =β₀+ β₁ X, the X is called :
a) Independent variable
b) Dependent variable
c) Continuous Variable
d) none of the above
Answer:
a) Independent variable

Question 15.
Econometrics is the integration of
a) Economics and Statistics
b) Economics and Mathematics
c) Economics, Mathematics, and Statistics
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Economics, Mathematics, and Statistics

Question 16.
Econometric is the word coined by
a) Francis Gal ton
b) RagnarFrish
c) Karl Person
d) Spearsman
Answer:
b) RagnarFrish

Question 17.
The raw materials of Econometrics are :
a) Data
b) Goods
c) Statistics
d) Mathematics
Answer:
a) Data

Question 18.
The term Uiin regression equation is
a) Residuals
b) Standard error
c) Stochastic error term
d) none
Answer:
c) Stochastic error term

Question 19.
The term Uiis introduced for the representation of
a) Omitted Variable
b) Standard error
c) Bias
d) Discrete Variable
Answer:
a) Omitted Variable

Question 20.
Econometrics is the amalgamation of
a) 3 subjects
b) 4 subjects
c) 2 subjects
d) 5 subjects
Answer:
a) 3 subjects

PART-B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
What is Statistics?
Answer:

1. The term‘Statistics’is used in two senses: as singular and plural.
2. In singular form it simply means statistical methods.
3. Statistics when used in singular form helps in the collection, presentation, classification and interpretation of data to make it easily comprehensible.
4. In its plural form it denotes collection of numerical figures and facts.
5. In the narrow sense it has been defined as the science of counting and science of averages.

Question 22.
What are the kinds of Statistics?
Answer:

• Descriptive statistics
• Inferential statistics

Question 23.
What do you mean by Inferential Statistics?
Answer:

1. The branch of statistics concerned with using sample data to make an inference about a population of data is called Inferential Statistics.
2. It draws conclusion for the population based on the sample result.
3. It uses hypotheses, testing and predicting on the basis of the outcome.
4. It tries to understand the population beyond the sample.

Question 24.
What are the kinds of data?
Answer:
Data may be classified Based on characteristics.

1. Quantitative Data
2. Qualitative Data Based on sources:
3. Primary Data
4. Secondary Data.

Question 25.
Define Correlation.
Answer:
Correlation is a statistical device that helps to analyse the covariation of two or more variables. Sir Francis Galton, is responsible for the calculation of correlation coefficient.

Question 26.
Define Regression.
Answer:
Regression means going back and it is a mathematical measure showing the average relationship between two variables.

Question 27.
What is Econometrics?
Answer:
Origin Of Econometrics:

1. Economists tried to support their ideas with facts and figures in ancient times.
2. Irving Fisher is the first person, developed mathematical equations in the quantity theory of money with help of data.
3. Ragnar Frisch, a Norwegian economist and statistician named the integration of three subjects such that mathematics, statistical methods, and economics as Econometrics” in 1926.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
What are the functions of Statistics?
Answer:

Functions of Statistics:

1. Statistics presents facts in a definite form.
2. It simplifies mass of figures.
3. It facilitates comparison.
4. It helps in formulating and testing.
5. It helps in prediction.
6. It helps in the formulation of suitable policies.

(I) Statistics are an aggregate of facts:
For example, numbers in a calendar pertaining to a year will not be called statistics, but to be included in statistics it should contain a series of figures with relationships for a prolonged period.

(II) Statistics are numerically enumerated, estimated and expressed.

(III) Statistical collection should be systematic with a predetermined purpose:
The purpose of the collection of statistics should be determined beforehand in order to get accurate information.

(IV) Should be capable of being used as a technique for drawing comparison:
It should be capable of drawing comparisons between two different sets of data by tools such as averages, ratios, rates, coefficients etc.

Question 29.
Find the Standard Deviation of the following data: 14, 22, 9, 15, 20, 17, 12, 11
(Answer: = 4.18)

Question 30.
State and explain the different kinds of Correlation.

1) Based on the direction of changé of variables:

• Positive correlation
• Negative correlation

2) Based upon the number of variables studied:

• Simple correlation
• Multiple correlations

3) Partial correlation
Based upon the constancy of the ratio of change between the variables:-

• Linear correlation 1
• Non-linear correlation

Question 31.
Mention the uses of Regression Analysis.
Answer:

1. Regression means going back and it is a mathematical measure showing the average relationship between two variables.
2. Both the variables may be random variables.
3. It indicates the cause and effect relationship between the variables and establishes a functional relationship.
4. Besides verification, it is used for the prediction of one value, in relation to the other given value.
5. The regression coefficient is an absolute figure. If we know the value of the independent variable, we can find the value of the dependent variable.
6. In regression, there is no such spurious regression.
7. It has wider application, as it studies linear and nonlinear relationships between the variables.
8. It is widely used for further mathematical treatment.

Question 32.
Specify the objectives of econometrics.
Answer:

1. It helps to explain the behaviour of a forthcoming period that is forecasting economic phenomena.
2. It helps to prove the old and established relationships among the variables or between the variables.
3. It helps to establish new theories and new relationships.
4. It helps to test the hypotheses and estimation of the parameter.

Question 33.
Differentiate the economic model with the econometric model.
Answer:
Economic Model:

1. Economic model is the theoretical construct that represents the complex economic process.
2. Economic model is based on mathematical modeling.
3. Economic model is focused on establishing the logical relationships between the variables in the model.
4. Economic model is applied in stating the theoretical relationship into mathematical equations.
5. Economic model believes that the outcome is certain and exact. So disturbance term is not required.
6. Economic model is deterministic in nature.
7. The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by is the economic model

Econometric Model:

1. Econometric model is the statistical concept that represents the numerical estimate of the variables involved in economic process.
2. Econometric model is based on statistical modeling.
3. Econometric model is focused on estimating the magnitude and direction of relationship between the variables.
4. Econometric model is applied in stating the empirical extent of the economic model.
5. Econometric model believes that outcome is certain but not exact. So disturbance term plays the vital role.
6. Econometric model is stochastic in nature.
7. The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by + µ is the econometric model

Question 34.
Discuss the important statistical organizations (offices) in India.
Answer:

• The Ministry of statistics has two wings, statistics and programme Implementation.
  The statistics wing called the National Statistical office (NSO) consists of the central Statistical office ((SO), the computer center and the National Sample Survey office (NSSO).
• There is also National Statistical commission created through a Resolution of Government of India and an autonomous Institute (ie) Indian Statistical Institute.

Question 35.
Elucidate the nature and scope of Statistics.
Answer:
Nature of Statistics:

1. Different Statisticians and Economists differ in views about the nature of statistics, some call it a science and some say it is an art.
2. Tippett on the other hand considers Statistics both as a science as well as an art.

Scope of Statistics:
Statistics is applied in every sphere of human activity – social as well as physical – like Biology, Commerce, Education, Planning, Business Management, Information Technology, etc.

Statistics and Economics:

1. Statistical data and techniques are immensely useful in solving many economic problems
2. Such as fluctuation in wages, prices, production, distribution of income and wealth and so on.

Statistics and Firms:
Statistics is widely used in many firms to find whether the product is conforming to specifications or not.

Statistics and Commerce:

1. Statistics are the lifeblood of successful commerce.
2. Market survey plays an important role to exhibit the present conditions and to forecast the likely changes in future.

Statistics and Education:

1. Statistics is necessary for the formulation of policies to start new courses, according to the changing environment.
2. There are many educational institutions owned by public and privately engaged in research and development work to test the past knowledge and evolve new knowledge.
3. These are possible only through statistics.

Statistics and Planning:
1. Statistics is indispensable in planning. In the modem world, which can be termed as the “world of planning”, almost all the organisations in the government are seeking the help of planning for efficient working, for the formulation of policy decisions and execution of the same.

2. In order to achieve the above goals, various advanced statistical techniques are used for processing, analyzing and interpreting data.

3. In India, statistics play an important role in planning, both at the central and state government levels, but the quality of data highly unscientific.

Statistics and Medicine:

1. In Medical Sciences, statistical tools are widely used. In order to test the efficiency of a new drug or to compare the efficiency of two drugs or two medicines, a t-test for the two samples is used.
2. More and more applications of statistics are at present used in clinical investigation.

Statistics and Modern applications:

1. Recent developments in the fields of computer and information technology have enabled statistics to integrate their models and thus make statistics a part of the decision-making procedures of many organisations.
2. There are many software packages available for solving simulation problems.

Question 36.
Calculate the Karl Pearson Correlation Co-efficient for the following data

Answer : r = 0.9955

Question 37.
Find the regression equation Y on X and X on Y for the following data:

(Answer : Y = 0.787X + 7.26, and X = 0.87Y + 26.65)

Question 38.
Describe the application of Econometrics in Economics.
Answer:

1. To forecast macroeconomics indicators:
   Econometrical methods are used to forecast macroeconomic indicators, Time – series models can be used to make predictions about economic indicators.
2. To Support Mathematical Economic Model:
   Tinbergen points out that “Econometrics as a result of certain outlook on the role of economics, consists of the application of mathematical statistics to economic data to lend empirical support to the models constructed by mathematical economics and to obtain numerical results.’
3. Econometric methods are used for the firms in a number of ways like to determine minimum wage rate, factors responsible for the firm to remain in the market, Market Functions etc.

12th Economics Guide Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Match the following:

Question 1.
a) Contribution to vital statistics – 1) Kautilya
b) Father of statistics – 2) GP Nelson
c) Arthashastra – 3) Akbar’s rule
d) ‘Am – .e – Akbari – 4) Ronald Fisher

Answer:
c) 3 4 1 2

Question 2.
a) Quantitative Data – 1) Collected for the first time
b) Qualitative Data – 2) Data from NSSO
c) Primary Data – 3) Number of firms
d) Secondary Data – 4) Gender

Answer:
c) 3 4 1 2

II. Choose the correct pair

Question 1.
a) Mean – Special Average
b) Geometric Mean – Simple Average
c) Standard Deviation – Root mean square deviation
d) Dispersion – frequency deviation
Answer :
c) Standard Deviation – Root mean square Deviation

Question 2.
a) Correlation – Irving Fisher
b) Regression – Karl Pearson
c) Quantity theory – Francis Dalton
d) Econometrics – Ragnar Frisch
Answer:
d) Econometrics – Ragnar Frisch

III. Choose the incorrect pair

Question 1.
a) Statistics Day – June 29
b) NSSO – 1960
c) P. C. Mahalanobis – father of statistics in India.
d) Central Statistical office – New Delhi
Answer :
b) NSSO -1960

Question 2.
a) Positive correlation – Y = a – bx
b) Simple correlation – Y = a + bx
c) Non linear correlation – Y = a + bx²
d) Multiple correlation – Qd = f (p, P_c,P_s, t, y)
Answer:
a) Positive correlation – Y = a – bx

IV. Pick the odd one out

Question 1.
a) Scatter diagram method
b) Graphic Method
c) Karl Pearson’s coefficient of regression
d) Method of least squares
Answer:
c) Karl Pearson’s coefficient of regression

Question 2.
a) Simple correlation
b) Multiple correlations
c) Partial correlation
d) Positive correlation
Answer:
d) Positive correlation

V. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
a) Correlation means “stepping back towards the Average”
b) Universal law of regression was given by Karl Pearson
c) Econometrics is concerned with the empirical determination of economic laws.
d) Econometrics is the integration of economics and mathematics.
Answer:
c) Econometrics is concerned with the empirical determination of economic laws

Question 2.
a) Mathematics is a science of estimates and probabilities.
b) Tipett considered statistics as a science.
c) Karl Pearson introduced the concept of standard deviation
d) Correlation is a statistical device that helps to analyse the covariation of two or more variables.
Answer:
d) Correlation is a statistical device that helps to analyse the covariation of two or more variables.

VI. Choose the incorrect statement

Question 1.
a) Sir Francis Galton, is responsible for the calculation of the correlation coefficient.
b) If three variables are taken for study it is called a simple correlation.
c) Indian statistical institute is declared as an Institute of National importance by as Act of parliament.
d) The ministry of statistics and programme Implementation came into existence in 1999
Answer:
b) If three variables are taken for study it is called a simple correlation.

Question 2.
a) Econometrics may be considered as the integration of economics, statistics
and Accountancy
b) Ragnar Frish was awarded the Nobel prize in 1969.
c) The coefficient of correlation is a relative measure.
d) Regression is used for the further mathematical treatment of the variables.
Answer:
a) Econometrics may be considered as the integration of economics, statistics, and Accountancy.

VII. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The term statistics originated in the Latin word known as ………………………….
(a) Statistik
(b) Status
(c) Statistique
(d) Statistics
Answer:
(b) Status

Question 2.
“Statistics is a science of estimates and probabilities” is a statement of …………………
a) Ronald Fisher
b) Boddington
c) Croxton
d) Cowdeg
Answer:
b) Boddington

Question 3.
The first book to have statistics as its title was ………………………….
(a) Contributions to vital statistics
(b) Principles of statistics
(c) Statistics principles
(d) Statistics probabilities
Answer:
(a) Contributions to vital statistics

Question 4.
To test the efficiency of a new drug or to compare the efficiency of two drugs ………….. test in used.
a) t-test
b) f-test
c) chi-test
d) None
Answer:
a) t-test

Question 5.
The branch of statistics devoted to the summarization and description of data is called …………….. statistics.
a) Interential
b) Descriptive
c) hypothetical
d) None
Answer:
b) Descriptive

Question 6.
Who is the father of statistics?
(a) Gottfried Achenwall
(b) Francis GP. Nelson
(c) Ronald Fisher
(d) R.A. Fisher
Answer:
(d) R.A. Fisher

Question 7.
Karl Pearson introduced the concept of standard deviation is ………………….
a) 1891
b) 1892
c) 1893
d) 1894
Answer :
c) 1893

Question 8.
Statistics are the lifeblood of success………………………….
(a) Maths
(b) Datas
(c) Calculations
(d) Commerce
Answer:
(d) Commerce

VIII. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Write five averages?
Answer:

1. There are five averages.
2. Among them mean, median, and mode are called simple averages and the other two averages geometric mean and harmonic mean are called special averages.

Question 2.
What is partial correlation?
Answer:
If there are more than two variables but only two variables are considered keeping the other variables constant, then the correction is said to be a partial correlation.

Question 3.
Write the kinds of dispersion?
Answer:
There are two kinds of measures of dispersion, namely

1. The absolute measure of dispersion
2. A relative measure of dispersion

Question 4.
Mention the methods of studying the correlation.
Answer:

1. Scatter diagram method.
2. Graphic method.
3. Karl person’s coefficient of correlation
4. Method of least squares.

Question 5.
State the formula to compute Karl person co-efficient of correlation.
Answer:

Question 6.
Explain the advantages of the Scatter diagram method?
Answer:
Advantages of the Scatter Diagram method:

1. It is a very simple and non-mathematical method
2. It is not influenced by the size of an extreme item.
3. It is the first step in resting the relationship between two variables.

Question 7.
What are the types of Averages?
Answer:
There are five averages. Mean, median, and mode are called simple averages and geometric mean and harmonic mean are called special averages.

IX. Answer the following question in paragraph

Question 1.
Differentiate Descriptive and Inferential statistics.
Answer:

Question 2.
Briefly explain the kinds of measures of dispersion?
Answer:
There are two kinds of measures of dispersion, namely

1. The absolute measure of dispersion
2. A relative measure of dispersion

The absolute measure of dispersion indicates the amount of variation in a set of values in terms of units of observations. Relative measures of dispersion are free from the units of measurements of the observations. They are pure numbers. They are used to compare the variation in two or more sets, which are having different units of measurements of observations. Standard Deviation is one of the methods of Absolute measure of dispersion.

Karl Pearson introduced the concept of standard deviation in 1893. Standard deviation is also called Root- Mean Square Deviation. The reason is that it is the square – root of the mean of the squared deviation from the arithmetic mean. It provides accurate results. The Square of standard deviation is called Variance.

Question 3.
Explain the Characteristics of statistics.
Answer:

• Statistics are an aggregate of facts.
• Statistics are numerically enumerated, estimated, and expressed.
• The statistical collection should be systematic with a predetermined purpose.
• Should be capable of being used as a technique for drawing a comparison.

Question 4.
What are the limitations of statistics?
Answer:

1. Statistics is not suitable to the study of the qualitative phenomenon
2. Statistical laws are not exact.
3. The statistics table may be misused.
4. Statistics is only one of the methods of studying a problem.

Question 5.
Write a short note on NSSO.
Answer:
The National sample survey organization, now known as the National sample survey office, is an organization under the ministry of statistics of the Government of India. It is the largest organization in India, conducting regular socio-economic surveys. It was established in 1950.
NSSO has four divisions:

• Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD)
•  Field Operations Division (FOD)
• Data processing division (DPD)
• Co-ordination and Publication Division (CPD)

Question 6.
Calculate the standard deviation from the following data by the Actual Mean method.
Answer:

Question 6.
Write the assumptions of the Linear Regression Model?
Answer:
Assumptions of the Linear Regression Model:
The Linear regression model is based on certain assumptions

1. Some of them refer to the distribution of the random variable.
2. Some of them refer to the relationship between U_i and the explanatory variables (x₁, x₂, x₃ given in the above example).
3. Some of them refer to the relationship between U_i the explanatory variables themselves.

X. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between correlation and Regression.
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the difference between correlation and regression?
Answer:
Difference between Correlation and Regression:
Correlation:

1. Correlation is the relationship between two or more variables, which vary with the other in the same or the opposite direction.
2. Both the variables X and Y are random variables.
3. It finds out the degree of relationship between two variables and not the cause and effect relationship.
4. It is used for testing and verifying the relation between two variables and gives limited information.
5. The coefficient of correlation is a relative measure. The range of relationships lies between -1 and +1.
6. There may be a spurious correlation between the two variables.
7. It has limited application because it is confined only to a linear relationship between the variables.
8. It is not very useful for further mathematical treatment.

Regression:

1. Regression means going back and it is a mathematical measure showing the average relationship between two variables.
2. Both the variables may be random variables.
3. It indicates the cause and effect relationship between the variables and establishes the functional relationship.
4. Besides verification, it is used for the prediction of one value, in relation to the other given value.
5. The regression coefficient is an absolute figure. If we know the value of the independent variable, we can find the value of the dependent variable.
6. In regression, there is no such spurious regression.
7. It has wider application, as it studies the linear and nonlinear relationships between the variables.
8. It is widely used for further mathematical treatment.

Question 3.
Find the coefficient of correlation with the actual mean Method for the following data:

Answer:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Introduction to Hypertext Pre-Processor Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 4 Introduction to Hypertext Pre-Processor

12th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Hypertext Pre-Processor Text Book Questions and Answers

Part I

Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1.
What does PHP stand for?
a) Personal Home Page
b) Hypertext Preprocessor
c) Pretext Hypertext Processor
d) Pre-processor Home Page
Answer:
b) Hypertext Preprocessor

Question 2.
What does PHP files have a default file extension?
a) .html
b) .xml
c) .php
d) .ph
Answer:
c) .php

Question 3.
A PHP script should start with………….. and end with …………….
a) <php>
b) < ? php ?>
c) < ? ? >
d) < ?php ? >
Answer:
b) < ? php ?>

Question 4.
Which of the following must be installed on your computer so as to run PHP script?
a) Adobe
b) windows
c) Apache
d) IIS
Answer:
c) Apache

Question 5.
We can use to ………… comment a single line?
i) /?
ii) //
iii) #
iv) /* */
a) Only (ii)
b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
d) Both (ii) and (iv)
e) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
e) Both (ii) and (iii)

Question 6.
Which of the following PHP statement/statements will store 41 in variable num?
(i) $x = 41;
(ii) $x = ’41’;
(iii) (i) $x = “41”;
a) Both (i) and (ii)
b) All of the mentioned,
c) Only (iii)
d) Only (i)
Answer:
d) Only (i)

Question 7.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$num = 1;
$num1 = 2;
print $num . “+‘ $numl ;
a) 3
b) 1+2
c) 1.+.2
d) Error
Answer:
c) 1.+.2

Question 8.
Which of the following PHP statements will output Hello World on the screen?
a) echo (“Hello World”);
b) print (“Hello
World”);
c) printf (“Hello World”);
d) sprintf (“Hello
World”);
Answer:
a) echo (“Hello World”);

Question 9.
Which statement will output $x on the screen?
a) echo “\$x”;
b) echo “$$x”;
c) echo “/$x”;
d) echo “$x;
Answer:
b) echo “$$x”;

Question 10.
Which of the below symbols is a newline character?
a) \r
b) \n
c) /n
d) /r
Answer:
a) \r

Part II

Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the common usages of PHP?
Answer:

• It is a very simple and lightweight open-source server-side scripting language.
• It can easily embed with HTML and other client-side scripting languages like CSS (Cascading Style Sheets) and Javascript.
• It also creates dynamic and interactive Webpages in the red time Web development projects.

Question 2.
What is a Web server?
Answer:

• A Web sewer is Software that uses HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) to serve the files that form Web pages to users
• Web server software that runs on server hardware, governs the server-side scripting compilation into an intermediate bytecode that is then interpreted by the runtime engine,

Question 3.
What are the types of a scripting language?
Answer:
Web scripting languages are classified into two types, client-side and server-side scripting language. PHP is completely different from Client-side scripting language like Javascript. The PHP code entirely executes on Webserver which is installed in the remote machine.

Question 4.
Differentiate between Client and Server?
Answer:

Question 5.
Give few examples of Web Browser?
Answer:

• Internet Explorer
• UC Browser
• Opera
• Google Chrome and
• Mozilla Firefox.

Question 6.
What is a URL?
Answer:

• URL is the abbreviation of Uniform Resource Locator
• It is the address of a specific Web page or fiie on the Internet,
• URL is made up four parts-protocols, hostname, folder name and fiie name,
• Example: http://www.googie.com/

Question 7.
Is PHP a case sensitive language?
Answer:
Yes, smaller case & uppercase letters are different in PHP.

Examples
If you defined a variable in lowercase, then you need to use it in lowercase everywhere In the program.

Question 8.
How to declare variables in PHP?
Answer:

• Variable name must always begin with a $ symbol.
• Variable name can never start with a number,
• Variable names are case-sensitive.

Question 9.
Define Client-Server Architecture.
Answer:
The client-server architecture introduces an application sharing mechanism between two different hardware systems over the network (Internet/intranet).

Question 10.
Define Web server.
Answer:
A Web server is Software that uses HTTP (Hyper-text Transfer Protocol) to serve the files that form
Web pages to users.

Part III

Explain in brief answer

Question 1.
Write the features of server side scripting language.
Answer:

• Server-side scripting offers greater protection for user privacy
• It often reduces the loading rime for web pages
• Some browsers don’t fully support JavaScript, so server-side scripting is essential to run dynamic pages on these browsers.

Question 2.
Write is the purpose of Web servers?
Answer:

1. Webserver is software which is running in server hardware.
2. It takes the responsibilities for the compilation and execution of server-side scripting languages.
3. After receiving the request from the client machine the Web server tries to compile and interpret the PHP code which is available in remote machine.
4. Next a response will be generated and sent back to the client machine over the network from Webserver.

Question 3.
Differentiate Server side and Client Side Scripting language.
Answer:

Question 4.
In how many ways you can embed PHP code in an HTML page?
Answer:

1. PHP script can be written inside of HTML code and save the file with an extension of .php. The embedded PHP file gets executed in the Webserver, the browser receives only the HTML and other client-side files.
2. Php files can also be embedded with css and js files.
3. Using template engines like Smarty, DWOO, Mustache, Blade we can embed PHP files.

Question 5.
Write short notes on PHP operator.
Answer:
An operator is a symbol which is used to perform mathematical and logical operations in programming languages.
Different types of the operator in PHP are:

1. Arithmetic operators
2. Assignment operators
3. Comparison operators
4. Increment/Decrement operators
5. Logical operators and
6. String operators

Part IV

Explain In Detail

Question 1.
Explain client-side and server-side scripting language.
Answer:
Web scripting languages are classified into two types, client-side and server-side scripting language.
Client-side Environment

• The client-side environment used to run scripts is usually a browser.
• The processing takes place on the end-users computer.
• The source code is transferred from the webserver to the user’s computer over the internet and run directly in the browser,
• The scripting language needs to be enabled on the client computer. Sometimes if a user is conscious of security risks they may switch the scripting facility off. .
• When this is the case a message usually pops up to alert the user when the script Is attempting to run.

Server-side Environment

• A server is a computer system that serves as a central repository of data and programs and is shared by clients
• The server-side environment that runs a scripting language is a web server.
• A user’s request is fulfilled by running a script directly on the webserver to generate dynamic HTML pages.
• This HTML is then sent to the client browser.
• It is usually used to provide interactive websites that interface to databases or other data stores on the server.
• This is different from client-side scripting where scripts are run by the viewing web browser, usually in JavaScript.
• The primary advantage to server-side scripting is the ability to highly customize the response based on the user’s requirements, access rights, or queries into data stores.

Question 2.
Discuss in detail Website develop¬ment activities.
Answer:
The process of development also includes Web content generation, Web page designing, Website security, and so on.
PHP Script:

1. Website or Web page is developed by the programmer using PHP script. Finally, the entire Website codes are moved to the Web server path in a remote server machine.
2. From the client-side, the end-user opens a browser, types the URL of the Website or Webpage, and initiates the request to the remote server machine over the network.
3. After receiving the request from the client machine the Web server tries to compile and interpret the PHP code which is available in a remote machine.
4. Next, a response will be generated and sent back to the client machine over the network from Webserver.
5. Finally, the browser which is installed in the client machine receives the response and displays the output to the user.

Question 3.
Explain the process of Webserver installation.
Answer:
The following are the steps to install and config¬ure Apache Httpd Web server and PHP module in windows server machine.
Step 1:
Go to the Apache foundation Website and download the Httpd Web server Software.
https://httpd.apache.org/download.cgi

Step 2:

• After downloading. MSI file from Apache foundation Website, the user launches the. MSI file and clicks next and next button to finish the installation on the server machine.
• The software takes default port number 130 or 130130.
• Once the user finished, the Web server software is installed and configured on the server hardware machine as a service.

Step 3:

• To test the installation of the Apache Http Web server, enter the following URL from your Web browser which is installed in your client machine.
  https://iocalhost:130/ or https:// localhost:130130
• The output page that says “Its works”

Step 4:

• Administrator user can start, stop and restart the Web server service at any time via the Windows Control panel.
• Once the services stops, the client machine will not receive the response message from server machine.

Step 5:

• Webserver’s configuration setting file “httpd. conf ” is located in the conf directory under the apache installation directory.
• Edit this file and enable the PHP module to run PHP scripting language.

Question 4.
Discuss in detail PHP data types.
Answer:
PHP scripting language supports 13 primitive data types.
Data Types plays important role in all programming languages to classify the data according to the logic.
PHP supports the following data types.

1. String
2. Integer
3. Float
4. Boolean
5. Array
6. Object
7. NULL
8. Resource

Question 5.
Explain operators in PHP with examples.
Answer:
The operator is a symbol that is used to perform mathematical and logical operations in programming languages,
Different types of the operator in PHP are:

1. Arithmetic operators,
2. Assignment operators,
3. Comparison operators,
4. Increment/Decrement operators,
5. Logical operators, and
6. String operators,
7. Arithmetic operators

The Arithmetic operators in PHP perform genera! arithmetical operations, such as addition, subtraction, multiplication and division etc

Assignment Operators:

• Assignment operators are performed with numeric values to store a value to a variable.
• The default assignment operator is This operator sets the left side operant value of expression to right side variable.

Comparison Operators:

• Comparison operators perform an action to compare two values.
• These values may contain integer or string data types (Numbers or Strings).

Increment and Decrement Operators:

• Increment and decrement operators are used to perform the task of increasing or decreasing the variable’s value.
• This operator is mostly used during iterations in the program logics.

Logical Operators:
Logical Operators are used to combine conditional statements.

String Operators:
Two operators are used to perform string related operations such as Concatenation and Concatenation assignment (Appends).

12th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Hypertext Pre-Processor Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part A

Choose The Correct Answers:

Question 1.
The variable in PHP begins with a dollar ………… symbol.
a) @
b) #
c) $
d) %
Answer:
c) $

Question 2.
……………………… Scripting languages was introduced to support Internet online business.
(a) Server
(b) Client
(c) Web
(d) Online
Answer:
(c) Web

Question 3.
In PHP, a Variable name can never start with a ………….
a) alphabet
b) number
c) both a and b
d) either a or b
Answer:
b) number

Question 4.
PHP scripting language supports …………. primitive data types.
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
Answer:
d) 13

Question 5.
CSS means
(a) combined script style
(b) cascading style sheets
(c) calculated spreadsheet
(d) consecutive script sheets
Answer:
(b) cascading style sheets

Question 6.
PHP was invented in ………….
a) 1992
b) 1993
c) 1994
d) 1995
Answer:
c) 1994

Question 7.
PHP can embed with ………….
a) HTML
b) CSS
c) Javascript
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

Question 8.
JSP means
(a) Joint Server photographs
(b) Java Server pages
(c) Java Script program
(d) Active script pages
Answer:
(b) Java Server pages

Question 9.
PHP also creates ………… Webpages in thereat time Web development projects,
a) Dynamic
b) interactive
c) both a and b
d) None of these
Answer:
c) both a and b

Question 10.
78.9 % of Website are developed by ………… scripting language.
a) ASP
b) JSP
c) VbScript
d) PHP
Answer:
d) PHP

Question 11.
Which of the following is an assignment operator?
a) =
b) = =
c) = = =
d) ! = =
Answer:
a) =

Question 12.
CGI stands for
(a) Common Gateway Interface
(b) Call Gateway Interrupt
(c) Cold Gateway Interface
(d) Client Gateway Interface
Answer:
(a) Common Gateway Interface

Question 13.
Which of the following is a non-identical operator?
a) =
b) = =
c) = = =
d) ! = =
Answer:
d) ! = =

Question 14.
Which of the following is an equal operator?
a) =
b) = =
c) = = =
d) ! = =
Answer:
b) = =

Question 15.
Find the Correct one
(i) PHP is an open source
(ii) Apache tom cat supports PHP
(iii) MS-ITS Supports PHP
(a) Only (i) is true
(b) (ii), (iii) – True
(c) (i), (ii) – True
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) – True
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) – True

Question 16.
………….is a collection of characters within the double or single quotes
a) String
b) Boolean
c) Integer
d) Float
Answer:
a) String

Question 17.
Boolean is a data type which denotes …………
a) Integer numbers
b) Decimal point numbers
c) True or False state
d) Array
Answer:
c) True or False state

Question 18.
…………is a data type which has multiple values in a single variable.
a) Integer numbers
b) Decimal point numbers
c) True or False state
d) Array
Answer:
d) Array

Question 19.
How many client-server architecture models there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 20.
………… is a data type which contains information about data and function inside the class.
a) Integer numbers
b) Array
c) True or False state
d) Array
Answer:
d) Array

Abbreviations:

• ASP – Active Server Page
• JSP – Java Server page
• CSS – CascadingStyle Sheets
• PHP – Hypertext Pre-processor
• WWW – World Wide Web
• CGI – Common Gatewaylnterface
• OOPs – Object-Oriented Programming

Choose the incorrect sentences:

1. a) 25% of Websites are developed by PHP scripting language.
b) PHP is a Case Sensitive
c) PHP is a Simplicity Program language
d) PHP is an Open Source
Answer:
b) PHP is a Case Sensitive

2. a) PHP is an Efficiency Program language
b) PHP is a Platform dependent Program language
c) PHP is a Security Program language
d) PHP is a Flexibility Program language
Answer:
b) PHP ¡s a Platform dependent Program language

3. a) PHP is a Real-Time Access Monitoring Program
language
b) PHP Script should with “<Tag name>” and closes with “</Tagname>’
c) PHP files have a default file extension is .php.
d) PHP stands for Personal Home Page
Answer:
b) PHP Script should with “<Tag name>” and closes with “</Tagname>’

4. a) PHP can be executed via an interpreter which is installed in the Web servers or CGI.
b) PHP is an open-source community development initiation.
c) Website or Web page is developed by the programmer using PHP script only.
d) Three types of PHP Syntax are available.
Answer:
c) Website or Web page is developed by the programmer using PHP script only.

5. a) PHP script can be written inside of HTML code and save the file with an extension of .php.
b) The embedded PHP file gets executed in the Web server.
c) The browser receives only the HTML and other client-side files.
d) The raw PHP code ¡s visible ¡n browser which means that Compiler
Answer:
d) The raw PHP code ¡s visible ¡n browser which means that Compiler

Find the odd one on the following

1. a) Python
b) C++
c) PHP
d) C
Answer:
a) Python

2. a) Microsoft SQL Server
b) Apache
c) Tomcat
d) Microsoft IIS
Answer:
a) Microsoft SQL Server

3. a) Default Syntax
b) Short open Tags
c) HTML Script embed Tags
d) Open Source
Answer:
d) Open Source

4. a) Array
b) Object
c) Structure
d) NULL
Answer:
d) NULL

5. a) Integer
b) Octal
c) Boolean
d) Float
Answer:
b) Octal

6. a) String
b) Binary
c) Resource
d) Boolean
Answer:
b) Binary

7. a) Arithmetic operators
b) Assignment operators
c) Comparison operators
d) Conditional Operator
Answer:
d) Conditional Operator

8. a) Increment operators
b) Decrement operators
c) Bitwise operator
d) Logical operators
Answer:
c) Bitwise operator

9. a) Ternary Operator
b) String operators.
c) Arithmetic Operator
d) Decrement Operator
Answer:
a) Ternary Operator

10. a) Average
b) Multiplication
c) Addition
d) Modulus
Answer:
a) Average

11. a) XOR
b) XNOR
c) AND
d) OR
Answer:
b) XNOR

12. a) =
b) = =
c) = = =
d) !=
Answer:
a) =

13. a) ! =
b) != –
c) < >
d)()
Answer:
d)()

14. a) &&
b) ||
c) !!
d) !
Answer:
c) !!

15. a) +
b) –
c) x
d) /
Answer:
c) x

Match the following:

1. String – Structured Information
2. Integer – Data and Function
3. Float – Database Connection
4. Boolean – Single value
5. Array – True/False
6. Object – Multiple values
7. NULL – Decimal numbers
8. Resource – Non- Decimal numbers
9. Var_dump() – Remainder
10. Modulus – Collection of characters
Answer:
1. Collection of characters
2. Decimal numbers
3. No-Decimal number
4. True/False
5. Multiple values
6. Data and functions
7. Single value
8. Database Connection
9. Structured information
10. Remainder

Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Web-based Internet application ensures the success of critical business in real-world competitions.
Reason (R): The legacy programming languages meet the expectations of the latest Internet concepts and executions.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Web-based Internet application ensures the success of critical business in real-world competitions.
Reason (R): The legacy programming languages meet the expectations of the latest Internet concepts and executions.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
c) (A) is true and (R) is false

Question 3.
Assertion (A): PHP is a competitor and alternative for other server-side scripting languages like HTML and CSS.
Reason (R): Recent statistics of server-side scripting language usage depict that 78.9 % of Websites are developed by PHP scripting language.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
d) (A) is false and (R) is true

Question 4.
Assertion (A): in the evolution of network architecture, various critical networks related problems are getting resolved by the client-server architecture model.
Reason (R): The client-server architecture introduces an application sharing mechanism between two different hardware systems over the network (Internet/intranet).
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): HTTP means HyperText Transfer Protocol. HTTP is the underlying protocol used by the World Wide Web
Reason (R); This protocol defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Part B

Short Answers

Question 1.
Define Web browser?
Answer:

• Web Browser: A Web browser (commonly referred to as a browser) is a software application for accessing information on the World Wide Web.
• Each individual Web page, image, and video is identified by a distinct URL, enabling browsers to retrieve and display them on the user’s device.

Question 2.
Classification of Client-Server Architecture Model.
Answer:
Client-server architecture is classified into three types, as follows

• Single Tier Architecture
• Two-Tier Architecture
• N/Multi/Three tire architecture.

Question 3.
Write a note on HTTP?
Answer:
HTTP:

1. HTTP HyperText Transfer Protocol.
2. HTTP is the underlying protocol used by the World Wide Web.
3. This protocol defines how messages are formatted and transmitted.
4. The actions were taken by web servers and browsers in response to various commands.

Question 4.
Write a note on the var-dump function?
Answer:
Var_dump:

1. The var_dump( ) function is used to dump information about a variable.
2. This function displays structured information such as the type and value of the given variable.
3. Arrays and objects are explored recursively with values intended to show structure.

Part C

Explain in brief answer

Question 1.
Explain important features of PHP?
Answer:

1. PHP is an Open Source
2. PHP is a Case Sensitive
3. PHP is a Simplicity Program language
4. PHP is an Efficiency Program language
5. PHP is a Platform Independent Program language
6. PHP is a Security Program language
7. PHP is a Flexibility Program language
8. PHP is a Real-Time Access Monitoring Program language

Question 2.
Write a short note on Var_dump() function with Example.
Answer:

• The var_dump() function is used to dump information about a variable.
• This function displays structured information such as the type and value of the given variable.
• Arrays and objects are explored recursively with values intended to show structure.

Example;
<?php
$x = “COMPUTER APPLICATION!”;
$x = null; var_dump($x);
?>
OUTPUT; NULL

Question 3.
What do you mean by Resources?
Answer:

• The resource is a specific variable.
• It has a reference to an external resource.
• These variables hold specific handlers to handle files and database connections irrespective PHP program.

Part D

Explain in Detail

Question 1.
What are the three types of syntax in PHP? Explain them in detail.
Answer:
Default Syntax;
The default Syntax begins with “<?php”and closes with”?>”

Short open Tags

• The Short open Tags begins with “<?” and closes with”?>”
• But admin user has to enable Short style tags settings in the php.ini file on the server.

HTML Script embed Tags:
HTML Script embed Tags look just like HTML script tags.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Introduction to Database Management System Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 3 Introduction to Database Management System

12th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Database Management System Text Book Questions and Answers

Part I

Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1.
Which language is used to request information from a Database?
a) Relational
b) Structural
c) Query
d) Compiler
Answer:
c) Query

Question 2.
The …………….. diagram gives a logical structure of the database graphically?
a) Entity-Relationship
b) Entity
c) Architectural Representation
d) Database
Answer:
a) Entity-Relationship

Question 3.
An entity set that does not have enough attributes to form a primary key is known as
a) Strong entity set
b) Weak entity set
c) Identity set
d) Owner set
Answer:
b) Weak entity set

Question 4.
_____ Command is used to delete a database.
a) Delete database database_name
b) Delete database_name
c) drop database database_name
d) drop database_name
Answer:
c) drop database database_name

Question 5.
Which type of below DBMS is MySQL?
a) Object-Oriented
b) Hierarchical
c) Relational
d) Network
Answer:
c) Relational

Question 6.
MySQL is freely available and is open source.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
a) True

Question 7.
……………….. represents a “tuple” in a relational database?
a) Table
b) Row
c) Column
d) Object
Answer:
b) Row

Question 8.
Communication is established with MySQL using
a) SQL
b) Network calls
c) java
d) API’s
Answer:
a) SQL

Question 9.
Which is the MySQL instance responsible for data processing?
a) MySQL Client
b) MySQL Server
c) SQL
d) Server Daemon Program
Answer:
c) SQL

Question 10.
The structure representing the organizational view of the entire database is known as _____ In MySQL database.
a) Schema
b) View
c) Instance
d) Table
Answer:
a) Schema

Part II

Short Answers

Question 1.
Define Data Model and list the types of data model used.
Answer:
Data models define how the logical structure of a database is modeled.
Data models define how data is connected to each other and how they are processed and stored inside the system. The various data models are;

1. Hierarchical Database Model,
2. Network Model,
3. Relational Model and
4. Object-oriented Database Model.

Question 2.
List few disadvantages of the file processing system.
Answer:
Data Duplication – Same data is used by multi¬ple resources for processing, thus created multiple copies of the same data wasting the spaces.

High Maintenance – Access control and verify- ing data consistency needs high maintenance cost.
Security – Less security provided to the data.

Question 3.
Define Single and multi-valued attributes.
Answer:
A single-valued attribute contains only one value for the attribute and they don’t have multiple numbers of values. For Example Age.
A multi-valued attribute has more than one value for that particular attribute. For Example Degree.

Question 4.
List any two DDL and DHL commands with its Syntax.
Answer:
DDL Commands:

DML Commands:

Question 5.
What are the ACID properties?
Answer:
ACID Properties – The acronym stands for Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation and Durability. Atomicity follows the thumb rule “All or Nothing” while updating the data in the database for the user performing the update operation. Consistency ensures that the changes in data value to be constant at any given instance. Isolation property is needed during concurrent action. Durability is defined as the system’s ability to recover all committed actions during the failure of storage or the system.

Question 6.
Which command is used to make permanent changes done by a transaction?
Answer:

• These SQL commands manage the transactions in SQL databases.
• It also helps to save the change into the database permanently.
• COMMIT, ROLLBACK, SET TRANSACTION, and SAVEPOINT commands belong to this category.

Question 7.
What is a view in SQL?
Answer:
Views – A set of stored queries.

Question 8.
Write the difference between SQL and MySQL.
Answer:

Question 9.
What is a Relationship and List its types?
Answer:
One-to-One relationship
One-to-Many relationship
Many-to-Many relationship

Question 10.
State a few advantages of Relational databases.
Answer:

1. High Availability
2. High Performance
3. Robust transfer actions and support
4. Ease of management
5. Less cost

Part III

Explain In Brief Answer

Question 1.
Explain on Evolution of DBMS.
Answer:

1. The concept of storing the data started 40 years in various formats.
2. In earlier days they have used punched card technology to store the data.
3. Then files were used. The file systems were known as the predecessor of the database system.
4. Various access methods in the file system were indexed, random, and sequential access.
5. The file systems have limitations like duplication, less security. To overcome this, DBMS was introduced.

Question 2.
What is a relationship in databases? List its types.
Answer:
There exists a relationship between two tables when the foreign key of one table references the primary key of other tables.
The Entity-Relationship(ER) diagram is based on the three types listed below.

• One-to-One relationship
• One-to-Many relationship
• Many-to-Many relationship

Question 3.
Discuss on Cardinality in DBMS.
Answer:

• It is defined as the number of different values in any given table column
• It Is defined as the number of items that must be II included in a relationship.ie) number of entities | in one set mapped with the number of entities of I another set via the relationship,
• Three classifications in Cardinality are one-to-one, jl one-to-many and Many-to-Many.

Question 4.
List any 5 privileges available in MySQL for the User.
Answer:

Question 5.
Write few commands used by DBA to control the entire database.
Answer:
USE Database
This command is used to select the database in MySQL for working.
Syntax: mysql>use test;

SHOW Databases
Lists all the databases available in the database server,
Syntax: mysql>show databases;

SHOW Tables
Lists all the tables available in the current database we are working in.
Syntax: mysql>show tables;

Part IV

Explain In Detail

Question 1.
Discuss on various database model available in DBMS.
Answer:
The major database models are listed below:

• Hierarchical Database Model
• Network model
• Relational model
• Object-oriented database mode!

Hierarchical Database Model

• In this model each record has information in par-ent/child relationship like a tree structure.
• The collection of records was called as record types, which are equivalent to tables in relational model.
• The individual records are equal to rows.
• The famous Hierarchical database model was IMS (Information Management System), IBM’s first DBMS,

Advantages:

• Less redundant data
• Efficient search
• Data integrity
• Security

Limitations:

• Complex to implement and difficult in handling
• Many to many relationships

Network model

• The network model is similar to the Hierarchical model except that in this model each member can have
  more than one owner.
• The many to many relationships are handled in a better way.
• This model identified the three database components
• Network schema – Defines all about the structure of the database
• Sub schema – Controls on views of the database for the user.
• Language for data management – Basic procedural for accessing the database.

Relational model:

Oracle and DB2 are few commercial relational models in use.
The relational model is defined with two terminologies Instance and Schema.

• Instance – A table consisting of rows and columns
• Schema – Specifies the structure including the name and type of each column.

A relation (table) consists of unique attributes (columns) and tuples (rows).

Object-oriented database model

• This model incorporates the combination of Object-Oriented Programming(OOP’s) concepts and database technologies.
• Practically, this model serves as the base of the Relational model.
• The object-oriented model uses small, reusable software known as Objects.
• These are stored in an object-oriented database.
• This model efficiently manages a large number of different data types.
• Moreover, complex behaviors are handled efficiently using OOP’s concepts.

Question 2.
List the basic concepts of ER Model with suitable examples.
Answer:
The basic concepts of ER model consist of

• Entity or Entity type
• Attributes
• Relationship

These are the general concepts which help to create an ER diagram and produce an ER model.

Entity or Entity type:

• An Entity can be anything a real-world object or animation which is easily identifiable by anyone even by a common man.
• Example: In a company’s database Employees, HR, Manager are considered entities.
• An entity is represented by a rectangular box.

Types of Entity:

1. Strong Entity
2. Weak Entity
3. Entity Instance

Strong Entity

• A Strong entity is the one which doesn’t depend on any other entity on the schema or database
• A strong entity will have a primary key with it.
• It is represented by one rectangle

Weak Entity

• A weak entity is dependent on other entities and it doesn’t have any primary key like the Strong entity.
• It is represented by a double rectangle.

Entity Instance

• Instances are the values for the entity if we consider animals as the entity their instances will be dog, cat, cow… Etc.
• So an Entity Instance denotes the category values for the given entity.

Attributes:

• An attribute is the information about that entity and it will describe, quantify, classify, and specify an entity.
• An attribute will always have a single value, that value can be a number or character or string.

Types of attributes:

1. Key Attribute
2. Simple Attributes
3. Composite Attributes
4. Single Valued Attribute
5. Multi-Valued Attribute

Relationship:
There exists a relationship between two tables when the foreign key of one table references primary key of other table.
The Entity-Relationship(ER) diagram is based on the three types listed below.

• One-to-One relationship
• One-to-Many relationship
• Many-to-Many relationship

Question 3.
Discuss in detail various types of attributes in DBMS.
Answer:
Types of attributes:
1. Key Attribute:
Generally, a key attribute describes a unique characteristic of an entity.

2. Simple Attribute:

• The simple attributes cannot be separated it will be having a single value for their entity.
• For Example: Let us consider the name as the attribute for the entity employee and here the value for that attribute is a single value.

3. Composite Attributes:

• The composite attributes can be sub divided into simple attributes without change in the meaning of that attribute.
• For Example: In the above diagram the employee is the entity with the composite attri¬bute Name which are sub-divided into two simple attributes first and last name.

4. Single Valued Attributes;

• A single valued attribute contains only one value for the attribute and they don’t have multiple numbers of values.
• For Example: Age- It is a single value for a person as we cannot give n number of ages for a single person; therefore it is a single valued attribute.

5. Multi-Valued Attributes:

• A multi valued attribute has more than one value for that particular attribute.
• For Example: Degree – A person can hold n number of degrees so it is a multi-valued attribute.

Question 4.
Write a note on open-source software tools available in MySQL Administration.
Answer:

• MySQL is open source software that allows managing relational databases.
• It also provides the flexibility of changing the source code as per the needs.
• It runs on multiple platforms like Windows, Linux and is scalable, reliable and fast.

PHPMYADMIN (Web Admin)

• This administrative tool of MySQL is aweb application written in PHP. They are used predominantly in web hosting.
• The main feature is providing web interface,- importing data from CSV and exporting data to various formats.
• It generates live charts for monitoring MySQL server activities like connections, processes and memory usage. It also helps in making the complex queries easier.

MySQL Workbench (Desktop Application)

• It is a database tool used by developers and DBA’s mainly for visualization.
• This toolhelps in data modeling, development of SQLServer configuration and backup for MySQLin a better way.
• Its basic release version is 5.0and is now in 8.0 supporting all Operating Systems.
• The SQL editor of this tool is veryflexible and comfortable in dealing multiple results set.

HeidiSQL (Desktop Application)

• This open source tools helps in the administra-tion of better database systems.
• It supports GUI (Graphical User Interface) features for monitoring server host, server connection, Databases, Tables, Views, Triggers and Events.

Question 5.
Explain in detail on Sub Queries with suitable examples.
Answer:

• The SQL query is written within amain Query.
• This is called Nested Inner/SubQuery.
• The sub query is executed first and the results of sub query are used as the condition for main query.

The sub query must follow the below rules:

• Subqueries are always written within the parentheses.
• Always place the Subquery on the right side of the comparison operator.
• ORDER BY clause is not used insub query, since Subqueries cannot manipulate the results internally.

Example: (Consider the Employee tablewith the fields EmpID, Name, Age andSalary.)
SELECT * from Employee WHERE EmpID IN (SE-LECT EmpID from Employee WHERE Salary 20000);
First, the inner query is executed. Then outer query will be executed.

12th Computer Applications Guide Introduction to Database Management System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part A

Choose The Correct Answers:

Question 1.
Expand DBMS?
(a) Database Management System
(b) Data Manipulation Schema
(c) Data Base Management Schema
(d) DataBase Manipulation Schema
Answer:
(a) Database Management System

Question 2.
DBMS provides to ………………… data
a) create
b) retrieve
c) update
d) all of the above
Answer:
d) all of the above

Question 3.
Expand ODBMS.
(a) Object DataBase Management System
(b) Objective Data Base Management System
(c) Object-Oriented DataBase Management System
(d) Objective Data Manipulation System
Answer:
(a) Object DataBase Management System

Question 4.
……………. is defined as the system’s ability to recover all committed transactions during the failure of storage or the system.
a) Durability
b) Consistency
c) Concurrency
d) All of the above
Answer:
a) Durability

Question 5.
Which of the following is a commercial relational models in use.
a) Oracle
b) DB2
c) PostgreSQL
d) Both a and b
Answer:
d) Both a and b

Question 6.
To prevent conflict in database updates, the transactions are isolated from other users and serialized. This is called as ……………………….
(a) Atomicity
(b) Consistency
(c) Isolation
(d) Degree of Consistency
Answer:
(d) Degree of Consistency

Question 7.
A key with more than one attribute to identify rows uniquely in a table is called…………….
a) Candidate Key
b) Super Key
c) Foreign Key
d) Composite Key
Answer:
d) Composite Key

Question 8.
An …………….  can be anything a real-world object or animation
a) Data
b) Entity
c) Instance
d) Relationship
Answer:
b) Entity

Question 9.
Concurrency control and locking are needed
(a) Consistency
(b) data sharing
(c) data hiding
(d) TrAnswer:action
Answer:
(b) data sharing

Question 10.
………… describes a unique characteristic of an entity.
a) Key Attribute
b) Simple Attributes
c) Composite Attributes
d) Single Valued Attribute
Answer:
a) Key Attribute

Question 11.
………… can be subdivided into simple attributes without change in the meaning of that attribute.
a) Key Attribute
b) Simple Attributes
c) Composite Attributes
d) Single Valued Attribute
Answer:
c) Composite Attributes

Question 12.
A …………. contains only one value for the attribute and they don’t have multiple numbers of values.
a) Key Attribute
b) Simple Attributes
c) Composite Attributes
d) Single Valued Attribute
Answer:
d) Single Valued Attribute

Question 13.
IBM’s first DBMS is ……………………..
(a) IMS
(b) IVS
(c) BMS
(d) VMS
Answer:
(a) IMS

Question 14.
A ……………. has more than one value for that particular attribute.
a) Multi-valued attribute
b) Simple Attributes
c) Composite Attributes
d) Single Valued Attribute
Answer:
a) Multi-valued attribute

Question 15.
The parent-child relationship is established in …………………….. database Models.
(a) Hierarchical
(b) Network
(c) Relational
(d) Object
Answer:
(a) Hierarchical

Fill in the Blanks:

1. ………………is known a predecessor of database system
Answer:
File system

2. MySQL is a database management system founded by…………………
Answer:
Monty Widenius

3. ……………who takes care of configuration, installation, performance, security and data backup.
Answer:
Database Administrators

4. …………….. is a web application written in PHP
Answer:
PHPMYADMIN

5. ………………tool of MySQL is a web application written in PHP.
Answer:
PHPMYADMIN

6. ………………….. is a database tool used by developers and DBA’s mainly for visualization.
Answer:
MySQL Workbench

Question 7.
The ……………….. of this tool is very flexible and comfortable in dealing with multiple results set.
Answer:
SQL editor

Question 8.
…………………….. is a program or process of copying table contents into a file for future reference
Answer:
Backup

Question 9.
SQL query is written within a main Query is called as
Answer:
Sub Query

Question 10.
An attribute is the information about that …………………
Answer:
Entity

Abbrevation

1. DBMS – Database Management System.
2. RDBMS – Relation Database Management System.
3. OSBMS – Objective Database Management System.
4. ACID – Automicity, Consistency, Isolation, And Durability.
5. IMS – Information Management System.
6. IDS – Integrated Data Store.
7. OOP’S – Object Oriented Programming.
8. SQL – Structure Query Language.
9. ER – Entity Relationship.
10. DBA – Database Administration.
11. ANSI – American National Standards Institute.
12. ISO – International Organization For Standardization.
13. DDL – Data Definition Language.
14. DML – Data Manipulation Language.
15. DQL – Data Query Language.
16. TCL – Transaction Control Language.
17. DCL – Data Control Language.

Assertion And Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): database management system (DBMS) is system software for creating and managing databases.
Reason (R): The DBMS provides users and programmers with a systematic way to create, retrieve, update and manage data.”
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : In a database, we would be grouping only related data together and storing them under one group name called table.
Reason (R): This helps in identifying which data stored where and under what name.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) ¡s true
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Oracle and DB2 are few commercial relational models in use.
Reason (R): Relational model is defined with two terminologies Instance and Schema.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) ¡s true
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 4.
Assertion (A): A single-valued attribute con¬tains only one value for the attribute and they don’t have multiple numbers of values.
Reason (R): Age – It is a single value for a person as we cannot give n number of ages for a single person, therefore it is a single-valued attribute.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) Is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Cardinality is defined as the number of items that must be included in a relationship.ie) number of entities in one set mapped with the number of entities of another set via the relationship.
Reason (R): Three classifications in Cardinality areMany-to-one, one-to-many and Many-to-Many,
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
c) (A) is true and (R) is false

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The Database Administrator (DBA) frequently uses few commands to control the entire database.
Reason (R): These commands are known as SQL Server Commands.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
c) (A) is true and (R) is false

Question 7.
Assertion (A); Subqueries are always written within the braces.
Reason (R): ORDER BY clause is not used in sub query, since Subqueries cannot manipulate the results internally.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
d) (A) is false and (R) is true

Question 8.
Assertion (A); TCL commands manage the transactions in SQL databases. It also helps to save the change into database permanently.
Reason (R) : CREATE, ALTER, DROP, RENAME and TRUNCATE commands belongs to TCL category.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
c) (A) is true and (R) is false

Question 9.
Assertion (A); A Strong entity is the one which doesn’t depend on any other entity on the schema or database and a strong entity will have a primary key with it
Reason (R): It is represented by one rectangle.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is faise
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 10.
Assertion (A) ; A weak entity is dependent on other entitles and it doesn’t have any primary key like the Strong entity.
Reason (R): It is represented by Diamond,
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
c) (A) is true and (R) is false

Find the odd one on the following:

1. (a) Sorting
(b) Retrieving
(c) Filtering
(d) Aligning
Answer:
(d) Aligning

2. (a) Creating
(b) Updating
(c) Managing
(d) Converting
Answer:
(d) Converting

3. (a) Data Duplication
(b) Data Flexibility
(c) Data Maintenance
(d) Security
Answer:
(c) Data Maintenance

4. (a) Access
(b) SQL
(c) Oracle
(d) Notepad
Answer:
(b) SQL

5. (a) Consistency
(b) Durability
(c) Activity
(d) Isolation
Answer:
(c) Activity

6. (a) DBMS
(b) Network Schema
(c) Subschema
(d) Language
Answer:
(a) DBMS

7. (a) id:int
(b) name:int
(c) Nfname:string
(d) email:string
Answer:
(b) name:int

8. (a) Table
(b) attribute
(c) files
(d) Tuples
Answer:
(c) files

9. (a) Class
(b) Object
(c) Data
(d) Abstraction
Answer:
(c) Data

10. (a) Schema
(b) Key
(c) Tuple
(d) Cell
Answer:
(d) Cell

11. (a) Windows
(b) Linux
(c) MACOS
(d) MSSQLServer
Answer:
(d) MSSQLServer

12. (a) Row
(c) Record
(b) attribute
(d) Tuple
Answer:
(b) attribute

13. (a) Vertical Entity
(b) Attribute
(c) Tuple
(d) column
Answer:
(c) Tuple

14. (a) primary Key
(b) Secondary Key
(c) SuperKey
(d) Foreign Key
Answer:
(b) Secondary Key

15. (a) Strong Entity
(c) Super Entity
(b) Weak Entity
(d) Entity Instance
Answer:
(c) Super Entity

16. (a) Schema
(b) Database
(c) primary Key
(d) Foreign Key
Answer:
(d) Foreign Key

17. (a) Degree
(b) Bank Account
(c) Age
(d) Subjects
Answer:
(c) Age

18. (a) One:Unary
(b) Two: Binary
(c) Three:Ternary
(d) Four: penta
Answer:
(d) Four: penta

19. (a) Rectangle
(b) Square
(c) Rhombus
(d) Ellipse
Answer:
(b) Square

20. (a) DB2
(b) Netfix
(c) SQL Lite
(d) Oracle
Answer:
(b) Netfix

21. (a) Configuration
(b) Installation
(c) Performance
(d) Access
Answer:
(d) Access

22. (a) INSERT
(b) EDIT
(c) SELECT
(d) UPDATE
Answer:
(b) EDIT

23. (a) Select_Priv
(b) Delete_Priv
(c) create_Priv
(d) Edit_Priv
Answer:
(d) Edit_Priv

24. (a) MySQL
(b) Workbench
(c) PHPMYADMIN
(d) HeidiSQL
Answer:
(c) PHPMYADMIN

25. (a) ServerHost
(b) Server Connection
(c) Events
(d) processor
Answer:
(d) processor

26. (a) Dashboard
(b) Reports
(c) Table
(d) Statistics
Answer:
(c) Table

27. (a) Table
(b) Insert
(c) Queries
(d) Views
Answer:
(b) Insert

28. (a) TRUNCATE
(b) RENAME
(c) SELECT
(d) ALTER
Answer:
(c) SELECT

29. (a) DDL
(b) DML
(c) HeidiSQL
(d) DQL
Answer:
(c) HeidiSQL

30. (a) ANY
(b) AND
(c) UNIQUE
(d) XOR
Answer:
(d) XOR

MAtch the following:

1. Hierarchical Database – Sybase
2. Network Database – Rhombus
3. Relational Database – Multivalued Attribute
4. Column – Candidate Key
5. Row – Record
6. Primary key – Attribute
7. Super Key – Unique Key Identifier
8. Double Ellipse – Oracle
9. Relationships – IMS
10. Database – IDS
Answer:
1. IMS
2. IDS
3. Oracle
4. Attribute
5. Record
6. Unique Key
7. Candidate Key
8. Multivalued Attribute
9. Rhombus
10. Sybase

Choose the incorrect statements:

Question 1.
a) SQL It (Structured query Language) is a programming language designed mainly for . managing data in RDBMS
b) Schema Retrieves data from two or more tables, by referencing columns in the tables that hold identical values
c) Query In SQL, all commands are named as query. The query statement is executed against the databases.
d) Record is referred in a table, which are composed of fields.
Answer:
b) Schema Retrieves data from two or more tables, by referencing columns in the tables that hold identical values

Question 2.
a) A Record is the information about that entity and it will describe, quantify, qualify, classify, and specify an entity.
b) Cardinality is defined as the number of items that must be included in a relationship
c) A multi-valued attribute has more than one value for that particular attribute.
d) A single-valued attribute contains only one value for the attribute and they don’t have multiple numbers of values.
Answer:
a) A Record is the information about that entity and it will describe, quantify, qualify, classify, and specify an entity.

Question 3.
a) Network schema defines all about the structure of the database.
b) Sub schema controls on views of the database for the user
c) The famous Hierarchical database model was IDS
d) Language is the basic procedural for accessing the database.
Answer:
c) The famous Hierarchical database model was IDS

Question 4.
a) A table consisting of rows and columns
b) Schema – Specifies the structure including name and type of each column.
c) A relation consists of unique attributes and tuples.
d) Query is referred in a table, which are composed of fields.
Answer:
d) Query is referred in a table, which are composed of fields.

Question 5.
a) DCL commands manage the transactions
b) The DML commands deals with the manipulation of data present in the database
c) SELECT is the only SQL command used to fetch or retrieve the data from database tables that come under DQL.
d) The DDL commands are used to define database schema (Structure)
Answer:
a) DCL commands manage the transactions

Syntax & Example (Basic Sql Commands)

1) CREATE DATABASE:
Syntax: CREATE database databasename;
Example: mysql> create database studentDB;

2) DROP DATABASE:
Syntax: DROP database databasename;
Example: mysql> drop database studentDB;

3) SELECT DATABASE
Syntax: USE databasename;
Example: mysqi> USE studentDB;

4) INSERT RECORD
Syntax 1: INSERT INTO tablename (columnl, column 2, column 3) Values(vaiue 1, value 2, value 3)
Syntax 2: INSERT INTO tablename
Values(value 1, va!ue2, value3)

5) DELETING RECORD :
Syntax 1; DELETE for tablename WHERE Coiumnname =” value ”
Syntax 2; DELETE for tablename

6) MODIFYING RECORD:
Syntax : UPDATE tablename SET column 1= “newvalue” where column 2= value2

7) SORTING RECORD:
Syntax 1 SELECT * FROM TABLENAME ORDER BY COLUMNNAME;
Syntax 2 select * from tablename ORDER BY columnname DESC;

Part B

Short Answers

Question 1.
Define database?
Answer:
“A database management system (DBMS) is system software for creating and managing databases. The DBMS provides users and programmers with a systematic way to create, retrieve, update and manage data”.

Question 2.
Define DBMS
Answer:
Definition;

• A database management system (DBMS), is system software for creating and managing databases.
• The DBMS provides users and programmers with a systematic way to create, retrieve, update and manage data.

Question 3.
Define degree of consistency?
Answer:
To prevent conflict in database updates, the transactions are isolated from other users and serialized. This is also known as the Degree of Consistency.

Question 4.
What are the limitations of the database?
Answer:

• Data Duplication
• High Maintenance
• Security

Question 5.
Write the various forms of the database.
Answer:

• Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)
• And Object Database Management System (ODBMS).

Question 6.
Define relational database?
Answer:
Any database whose logical organization is based on a relational data model is known as Relational Database.

Question 7.
What do you mean by the table in the Relational database model?
Answer:
In relational database model,

• The table is defined as the collection of data organized in terms of rows and columns.
• The table is the simple representation of relations. The true relations cannot have duplicate rows

Question 8.
Write the types of SQL commands.
Answer:

• Data Definition Language (DDL)
• Data Manipulation Language (DML)
• Data Query Language (DQL)
• Transaction Control Language (TCL)
• Data Control Language (DCL)

Question 9.
Define Primary key?
Answer:

1. The candidate key that is chosen to perform the identification task is called the primary key and any others are Alternate keys.
2. Every tuple must-have, a unique value for its primary key.

Question 10.
What is XAMPP?
Answer:

• XAMPP is a free and open-source package.
• It was developed by Apache.
• It is a software platform for MySQL, PHP and Peri programming languages.

Question 11.
Define Composite key?
Answer:
A key with more than one attribute to identify rows uniquely in a table is called a Composite key. This is also known as Compound Key.

Part C

Explain In Brief Answer.

Question 1.
Explain three database components of the network model?
Answer:
The three database components of Network models are Network schema, Sub schema, and Language.
Network schema – schema defines all about the structure of the database.
Sub schema – controls on views of the database for the user.
Language – basic procedural for accessing the database.

Question 2.
List few commonly used databases.
Answer:

• DB2
• MySQL
• Oracle
• PostgreSQL
• SQLite
• SQL Server
• Sybase

Question 3.
What are the roles of a Database administrator?
Answer:

• Database Administrators (DBA’s) who takes care of configuration, installation, performance, security and data backup.
• DBA’s possess the skills on database design, database queries, RDMS, SQL and networking.
• The primary task is the creation of new user and providing them with access rights.

Question 4.
Define Super key?
Answer:

1. An attribute or group of attributes, which is sufficient to distinguish every tuple in the relation from every other one is known as Super Key.
2. Each super key is called a candidate key.
3. A candidate key is selected from the set of Super Key.

Question 5.
Write a note on MySQL.
Answer:

• The candidate key that is chosen to perform
• MySQL is a database management system founded by Monty Widenius
• MySQL is open-source software that allows managing relational databases.
• It also provides the flexibility of changing the source code as per the needs.
• It runs on multiple platforms like Windows, Linux and is scalable, reliable and fast.

Question 6.
Write a short note on Row (or Record or tuple)
Answer:

• A single entry in a table is called a Row or Record or Tuple.
• Set of related data are represented in a row or tuple.
• The horizontal entity in a table is known as a Record or row.

Question 7.
Give the roles and responsibilities of DBA?
Answer:
Database Administrators (DBA’s) take care of configuration, installation, performance, security, and data backup.
DBA’s possess the skills in database design, database queries, RDMS, SQL, and networking.
The primary task is the creation of new users and providing them with access rights.

Part D

Explain in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the following:

1. Primary Key
2. Foreign Key
3. Candidate Key
4. Super Key
5. Composite key

Answer:
1. Primary Key:

• This key of the relational table identifies each record in the table in a unique way.
• A primary key which is a combination of more than one attribute is called a composite primary key.
• The candidate key that is chosen to perform the identification task is called the primary key

2. Foreign Key:

• A foreign key is a “copy” of a primary key that has been exported from one relation into another to represent the existence of a relationship between them.
• A foreign key is a copy of the whole of its parent primary key i.e if the primary key is composite, then so is the foreign key.
• Foreign key values do not (usually) have to be unique.
• Foreign keys can also be null.
• A composite foreign key cannot have some attribute(s) null and others non-null.

3. Candidate Key:

• Each super key is called a candidate key.
• A candidate key is selected from the set of Super Key.
• While selecting the candidate key, redundant attributes should not be taken.
• The candidate key is also known as minimal super keys.

4. Super Key:
An attribute or group of attributes, which is sufficient to distinguish every tuple in the relation from every other one is known as Super Key.

5. Composite Key (Compound Key): A key with more than one attribute to identify rows uniquely in a table is called a Composite key. This is also known as Compound Key.

Question 2.
Tabulate the ER diagram notations
Answer:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 17 E-Commerce Security Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 17 E-Commerce Security Systems

12th Computer Applications Guide E-Commerce Security Systems Text Book Questions and Answers

Part I

Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1.
In E-Commerce, when a stolen credit card is used to make a purchase it is termed as
a) Friendly fraud
b) Clean fraud
c) Triangulation fraud
d) Cyber squatting
Answer:
b) Clean fraud

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a security element involved in E-Commerce?
a) Authenticity
b) Confidentiality
c) Fishing
d) Privacy
Answer:
c) Fishing

Question 3.
Asymmetric encryption is also called as
a) Secure Electronic Transaction
b) Certification Authority
c) RSA algorithm
d) Payment Information
Answer:
c) RSA algorithm

Question 4.
The security authentication technology does not include
i) Digital Signatures
ii) Digital Time Stamps
iii) Digital Technology
iv) Digital Certificates

a) i, ii & iv
b) ii & iii
c) i, ii & iii
d) all the above
Answer:
b) ii & iii

Question 5.
PGP stands for
a) Pretty Good Privacy
b) Pretty Good Person
c) Private Good Privacy
d) Private Good Person
Answer:
a) Pretty Good Privacy

Question 6.
…………….. protocol is used for securing credit cards transactions via the Internet
a) Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)
b) Credit Card Verification
c) Symmetric Key Encryption
d) Public Key Encryption
Answer:
a) Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)

Question 7.
Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) was developed in
a) 1999
b) 1996
c) 1969
d) 1997
Answer:
b) 1996

Question 8.
The websites secured by Secure Socket Layer protocols can be identified using
a) html://
b) http://
c) htmls://
d) https://
Answer:
d) https://

Question 9.
3-D Secure, a protocol was developed by
a) Visa
b) Master
c) Rupay
d) PayTM
Answer:
b) Master

Question 10.
Which of the following is true about Ransomware
a) Ransomware is not a subset of malware
b) Ransomware deletes the file instantly
c) Typo piracy is a form of ransomware
d) Hackers demand ransom from the victim
Answer:
d) Hackers demand ransom from the victim

Part II

Short Answers

Question 1.
Write about information leakage in E-Commerce.
Answer:
Information leakage:
The leakage of trade secrets in E-Commerce mainly includes two aspects:

1. The content of the transaction between the vendor and customer is stolen by the third party;
2. The documents provided by the merchant to the customer or vice versa are illegally used by another.
3. This intercepting and stealing of online documents is called information leakage.

Question 2.
Write a short note on typo piracy.
Answer:

• Typopiracy ¡s a variant of Cyber Squatting.
• Some fake websites try to take advantage of users’ common typographical errors in typing a websíte address and direct users to a different website.
• Such people try to take advantage of some popular websites to generate accidental traffic for their websites.

Examples:

• www.goggle.com,
• www.facebook.com

Question 3.
Define non-repudiation.
Answer:
Non-repudiation: prevention against violation agreement after the deal.

Question 4.
List the different types of security technologies in E-Commerce
Answer:

• Encryption technology
• Authentication technology
• Authentication protocols

Question 5.
Write about digital signature.
Answer:

1. A digital signature is a mechanism that is used to verify that a particular digital document, message, or transaction is authentic.
2. Digital signatures are used to verify the trustworthiness of the data being sent.

Part III

Explain In Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write a note on certification authorities (CA)
Answer:

• Digital certificates are issued by recognized Certification Authorities (CA).
• When someone requests a digital certificate, the authority verifies the identity of the requester, and if the requester fulfills all requirements, the authority issues it.

Question 2.
List some E-Commerce Security Threats?
Answer:

• Information leakage
• Tampering
• Payment frauds
• Malicious code threats
• Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) Attacks
• Cyber Squatting
• Typopiracy

Question 3.
Differentiate asymmetric and symmetric algorithms.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write a note on PGP.
Answer:
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP): Phil Zimmermann developed PGP in 1991. It is a decentralized encryption program that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication for data communication. PGP encryption uses a serial combination of hashing, data compression, symmetric-key cryptography, and asymmetric-key cryptography and works on the concept of “web of trust”.

Question 5.
Explain 3D secure payment protocols
Answer:

• “3-D Secure is a secure payment protocol on the Internet.
• It was developed by Visa to increase the level of transaction security, and it has been adopted by MasterCard.
• It gives a better authentication of the holder of the payment card, during purchases made on websites.
• The basic concept of this (XML-based) protocol is to link the financial authorization process with an online authentication system.

This authentication model comprises 3 domains (hence the name 3D) which are:

1. The Acquirer Domain
2. The Issuer Domain
3. The interoperability’ Domain

Part IV

Explain In Detail

Question 1.
Write about dimensions of E-Commerce Security.
Answer:
The following are some of the security elements involved in E-Commerce:

1. Authenticity: conforming genuineness of data shared.
2. Availability: prevention against data delay or removal.
3. Completeness: unification of all business information.
4. Confidentiality: protecting data against unauthorized disclosure.
5. Effectiveness: effective handling of hardware, software and data.
6. Integrity: prevention of the data being unaltered or modified.
7. Non-repudiation: prevention against violation agreement after the deal.
8. Privacy: prevention of customers’ personal data being used by others.
9. Reliability: providing a reliable identification of the individuals or businesses.
10. Review ability: capability of monitoring activities to audit and track the operations.

Question 2.
Explain encryption technology.
Answer:

• Encryption technology is an effective information security protection.
• It is defined as converting a Plaintext into meaningless Ciphertext using an encryption algorithm thus ensuring the confidentiality of the data.
• The encryption or decryption process uses a key to encrypt or decrypt the data.

Types:
At present, two encryption technologies are widely used. They are:

• Symmetric key encryption system
• Asymmetric key encryption system.

Symmetric key encryption – Data Encryption Standard (DES):

• It is a Symmetric-key data encryption method.
• It is the typical block algorithm that takes a string of bits of clear text (plaintext) with a fixed length into another encrypted text of the same length.
• It also uses a key to customize the transformation, so that, in theory, the algorithm can only be deciphered by people who know the exact key that has been used for encryption.
• The DES key is apparently 64 bits, but in fact, the algorithm uses only 56. The other eight bits are only used to verify the parity and then it is discarded.
• The key length increased by multiple uses of the DES, described as Triple-DES, also known as TDES, 3DES or DESede,

Asymmetric or Public key encryption

• It is also called as RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) algorithm.
• It uses public-key authentication and digital signatures.
• Each user generates their own key pair, which consists of a private key and a public key.
• A public-key encryption method is a method for converting a plaintext with a public key into a ciphertext from which the plaintext can be retrieved with a private key.

Question 3.
Differentiate digital signatures and digital certificates.
Answer:

Question 4.
Define Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) and its features.
Answer:
There are two kinds of security authentication protocols widely used in E-Commerce, namely Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).

Secure Electronic Transaction:
Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) is a security protocol for electronic payments with credit cards, in particular via the Internet. SET was developed in 1996 by VISA and MasterCard, with the participation of GTE, IBM, Microsoft, and Netscape.

The implementation of SET is based on the use of digital signatures and the encryption of transmitted data with asymmetric and symmetric encryption algorithms. SET also use dual signatures to ensure privacy.

The SET purchase involves three major participants: the customer, the seller, and the payment gateway. Here the customer shares the order information with the seller but not with the payment gateway. Also, the customer shares the payment information only with the payment gateway but not with the seller.

So, with the SET, the credit card number may not be known to the seller and will not be stored in the seller’s files also could not be recovered by a hacker. The SET protocol guarantees the security of online shopping using credit cards on the open network. It has the advantages of ensuring the integrity of transaction data and the non-repudiation of transactions. Therefore, it has become the internationally recognized standard for credit card online transactions.

SET system incorporates the following key features:

• Using public-key encryption and private key encryption ensure data confidentiality.
• Use information digest technology to ensure the integrity of information.
• Dual signature technology to ensure the identity of both parties in the transaction.

Question 5.
Briefly explain SSL.
Answer:

• The most common Cryptographic protocol is Secure Sockets Layers (SSL).
• SSL is a hybrid encryption protocol for securing transactions over the Internet.
• The SSL standard was developed by Netscape in collaboration with MasterCard, Bank of America, MCI, and Silicon Graphics.
• It is based on a public key cryptography process to ensure the security of data transmission over the internet.

Principle:

• To establish a secure communication channel (encrypted) between a client and a server after an authentication step.
• To ensure the security of data, located between the application layer and the transport layer in TCP.

Example:

• A user using an internet browser to connect to an SSL secured E-Commerce site will send encrypted data without any more necessary manipulations.

Advantages:

• Today, all browsers ¡n the market support SSL.
• The secure communications are proceeded, through this protocol.
• SSL works completely hidden for the user, who does not have to intervene in the protocol.
• The URL starts with https:// instead of http:// where the “s” obviously means secured. It is also preceded by a green padlock.

12th Computer Applications Guide E-Commerce Security Systems Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part A

Choose The Correct Answers:

Question 1.
A digital certificate is also known as ………………
a) Public key certificate
b) Asymmetric Key
c) Symmetric Key
d) All of the above
Answer:
a) Public key certificate

Question 2.
…………… is a process of taking down an E-Commerce site by sending continuous
overwhelming request to its server.
a) RSA
b) DES
c) DDoS
d) CA
Answer:
c) DDoS

Question 3.
The stealing of online documents is called …………………….
(a) phishing
(b) virus
(c) Frauds
(d) information leakage
Answer:
(d) information leakage

Question 4.
Typopiracy is a variant of ………….
a) Payment Frauds
b) Tampering
c) Cybersquatting
d) All of the above
Answer:
c) Cybersquatting

Question 5.
How many types of payment frauds are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Abbreviations:

1. DDoS Distributed Denial of Service
2. DES Data Encryption Standard
3. RSA Rivest-Shamir-Adleman
4. CA Certification Authorities
5. PGP Pretty Good Privacy
6. PKI Public Key Infrastructure
7. SET Secure Electronic Transaction
8. SSL Secure Sockets Layers
9. TLS Transport Layer Security
10. MD Message Digest
11. PIN Personal Identification Number
12. OTP One Time Password
13. FIPS Federal Information Processing Standard
14. PKCS Public-key cryptography standards

Assertion And Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A); A digital signature is a mechanism that is used to verify that a particular digital document, message, or transaction is authentic.
Reason (R); A digital certificate is a computer file which officially approves the relation between the holder of the certificate and a particular public key.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Digital signatures are used to verify the trustworthiness of the data being sent.
Reason (R): A digital signature is a mechanism that is used to verify that a particular digital document, message, or transaction is authentic.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 3.
Assertion (A): A digital certificate is created using a Digital Signature Standard (DSS). It uses an SHA-1 or SHA-2 algorithm for encrypting and decrypting the message.
Reason (R); A digital certificate consists of the certificate’s owner name and public key, expiration date, a Certificate Authority’s name a Certificate Authority’s digital signature.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
d) (A) is false and (R) is true

Question 4.
Assertion (A); At present, there are two kinds of security authentication protocols widely used in E-Commerce.
Reason (R): SET is a Cryptographic protocol.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
c) (A) is true and (R) is false

Question 5.
Assertion (A)s URL starts with https://instead of http:// where the “s” obviously means secured.
Reason (R): SSL works completely hidden for the user, who does not have to intervene in the protocol.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Very Short Answers

Question 1.
What is DES?
Answer:
The Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a Symmetric-key data encryption method.

Question 2.
When was DES introduced?
Answer:
It was introduced in America in the year 1976

Question 3.
Who introduced DES?
Answer:
It was introduced by Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS).

Question 4
Who developed PGP? When?
Answer:
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP): Phil Zimmermann developed PGP in 1991.

Question 5.
What is the use of digital certificates?
Answer:
Digital certificates are used to verify the Trust j worthiness of the sender.

Question 6.
What is the use of digital signatures?
Answer:
Digital signatures are used to verify the trustworthiness of the data being sent

Question 7.
Who developed 3D-Secure?
Answer:
3D-Secure was developed by Visa

Question 8.
What is 3D-Secure?
Answer:
3-D Secure is a secure payment protocol on the Internet.

Question 9.
What is the purpose of 3D-Secure?
Answer:
To increase the level of transaction security,

Question 10.
What is the basic concept of 3D-Secure?
Answer:
To link the financial authorization process with an online authentication system.

Question 11.
What is SET?
Answer:
Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) is a security protocol for electronic payments

Question 12.
What is SSL?
Answer:
The most common Cryptographic protocol is Secure Sockets Layers (SSL).

Question 13.
What is the purpose of SSL?
Answer:
To ensure the security of data transmission over the internet.

Question 14.
What are Brute-force attacks?
Answer:
It is the simplest attack method for breaking any encryption.

Question 15.
Who developed SSL?
Answer:
The SSL standard was developed by Netscape

Question 16.
What is a repository?
Answer:
The certificate authority maintains a database of public keys called a repository

Question 17.
How TLS and SSL differ?
Answer:
TLS differs from SSL in the generation of symmetric keys.

Question 18.
How many domains are in the authentication model?
Answer:
There are 3 domains in the authentications model

Question 19.
When SSL renamed as TLS?
Answer:
Secure Sockets Layers (SSL) was renamed as Transport Layer Security (TLS) in 2001.

Question 20.
What is the principle of SSL?
Answer:
To establish a secure communication channel between a client and a server

Question 21.
What is public key infrastructure?
Answer:
Digital signatures use a standard, worldwide accepted format, called Public Key Infrastructure (PKI).

Question 22.
What is the purpose of PKI?
Answer:
To provide the highest levels of security and universal acceptance.

Question 23.
What is the role of security certification in authentication technology?
Answer:
To ensure Authentication, Integrity, and Non-repudiation.

Question 24.
Who are the participants involve in inset purchase?
Answer:

• The customer
• The seller
• The payment gateway.

Question 25.
What is another name of Asymmetric encryption?
Answer:
RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) algorithm.

Important Years To Remember:

Find The Odd One On The Following

1. a) Authenticity
b) Availability
c) Completeness
d) Audacity
Answer:
d) Audacity

2. a) Confidentiality
b) Effectiveness
c) Tampering
d) Reliability
Answer:
c) Tampering

3. a) Cyber Squatting
b) Integrity
c) Non-repudiation
d) Privacy
Answer:
a) Cyber Squatting

4. a) Information leakage
b) Confidentiality
c) Payment frauds
d) Tampering
Answer:
b) Confidentiality

5. a) Malicious code threats
b) DDoS
c) Cyber Squatting
d) Confidentiality
Answer:
d) Confidentiality

6. a) DES
b) AES
c) ECC
d) RC4
Answer:
c) ECC

7. a) DES
b) ECC
c) DSA
d) RSA
Answer:
a) DES

8. a) TDES
b) AES
c) 3 DES
d) DESede
Answer:
b) AES

9. a) Authentication
b) Integrity
c) Non-repudiation
d) Plain Text
Answer:
d) Plain Text

10. a) Asymmetric encryption
b) Symmetric key encryption
c) Data Encryption Standard
d) Federal Information Processing Standard
Answer:
a) Asymmetric encryption

Part B

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is E-commerce Security?
Answer:
E-Commerce security is a set of protocols that safely guide E-Commerce transactions through the Internet.

Question 2.
What is Cyber Squatting?
Answer:
It is s the illegal practice of registering an Internet domain name that might be wanted by another person in an intention to sell it later for a profit

Question 3.
What is meant by cybersquatting?
Answer:
Cyber Squatting: Cybersquatting is the illegal practice of registering an Internet domain name that might be wanted by another person with an intention to sell it later for a profit.

Part c

Explain In Brief Answer

Question 1.
Define Phishing?
Answer:
Phishing is also an E-Commerce threat in which a target is contacted by e-mail, telephone, or text message by someone who pretends himself as a genuine authority. They try to trap individuals to provide sensitive data such as banking and credit card details, OTP, PIN, or passwords. Once they succeed, the results would lead to devastating acts such as identity theft and financial loss.

Question 2.
What are the subsets of Payment frauds?
Answer:

• Friendly fraud (when customer demands false reclaim or refund
• Clean fraud (when a stolen credit card is used to make a purchase)
• Triangulation fraud (fake online shops offering cheapest price and collect credit card data) etc.

Question 3.
Explain various types of payment frauds?
Answer:
Payment frauds: Payment frauds have subsets like Friendly fraud (when customer demands- false reclaim or refund), Clean fraud (when a stolen credit card is used to make a purchase) Triangulation fraud (fake online shops offering the cheapest price and collect credit card data), etc.

Question 4.
What is Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) Attacks? Or What is network flooding?
Answer:

• It is a process of taking down an E-Commerce site by sending a continuous overwhelming request to its server.
• This attack will be conducted from numerous unidentified computers using a botnet. This attack will slow down and make the server inoperative.
• DDoS attacks are also called network flooding.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions

Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

12th Physics Guide Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – 1:

Text Book Evaluation:

I. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The Wavelength λ_e of an electron and λ_p of a photon of same energy E are related
by
a) λ_p α λ_e
b) λ_p α \(\sqrt{\lambda_{e}}\)
c) λ_p α \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\lambda_{e}}}\)
d) λ_p α λ_e²
Answer:
d) λ_p α λ_e²
Solution:

Question 2.
In an electron microscope, the electrons are accelerated by a voltage of 14 kV. If the voltage is changed to 224 kV, then the de Brogue wavelength associated with the electrons would
a) increase by 2 times
b) decrease by 2 times
c) decrease by 4 times
d) increase by 4 times
Answer:
c) decrease by 4 times
Solution:

Question 3.
A particle of mass 3 × 10^-6 g has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity 6 × 10⁶ m s^-1. The velocity of the particle is
a) 1.82 × 10^-18 ms^-1
b) 9 × 10^-2 ms^-1
c) 3 × 10^-31 ms^-1
d) 1.82 × 10^-15 ms^-1
Answer:
d) 1.82 × 10^-15 ms^-1
Solution:

Question 4.
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
a) 4λ
b) 5λ
c) \(\frac{5}{2}\)λ
d) 3λ
Answer:
d) 3λ
Solution:
hν – hν₀ = eV
\(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}-\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda_{\mathrm{o}}}\) = eV ………(1)
\(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{2 \lambda}-\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda_{\mathrm{a}}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{eV}}{4}\) …………(2)
From (1) and (2)

Question 5.
If light of wavelength 330 nm is incident on metal with work function 3.55 eV, the electrons are emitted. Then the wavelength of the emitted electron is (Take h = 6.6 × 10^-34 Js)
a) < 2.75 × 10^-9 m
b) ≥ 2.75 × 10^-9 m
c) ≤ 2.75 × 10^-12 m
d) < 2.5 × 10^-10 m
Answer:
b) ≥ 2.75 × 10^-9 m
Solution:
hv – Φ₀ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = K.E

Question 6.
A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength λ and λ/2. If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function at the surface of material is
a) \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\)
b) \(\frac{2 h c}{\lambda}\)
c) \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{3 \lambda}\)
d) \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{2 \lambda}\)
Answer:
d) \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{2 \lambda}\)
Solution:

Question 7.
In photoelectric emission, radiation whose frequency is 4 times the threshold frequency of a certain metal is incident on the metal. Then the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be
a) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{hv}_{0}}{\mathrm{~m}}}\)
b) \(\sqrt{\frac{6 h v_{0}}{m}}\)
c) \(2 \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{hv}_{0}}{\mathrm{~m}}}\)
d) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{hv}_{0}}{2 \mathrm{~m}}}\)
Answer:
b) \(\sqrt{\frac{6 h v_{0}}{m}}\)
Solution:
ν = 4ν₀
ν = ?
hν – hν₀ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²

4hν₀ – hν₀ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²

3hν₀ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²

ν² = \(\frac{6 \mathrm{~h} v_{\mathrm{o}}}{\mathrm{m}}\)

⇒ ν = \(\sqrt{\frac{6 h v_{0}}{m}}\)

Question 8.
Two radiations with photon energies 0.9 eV and 3.3 eV respectively are falling on a metallic surface successively. If the work function of the metal is 0.6 eV, then the ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
a) 1 : 4
b) 1 : 3
c) 1 : 1
d) 1 : 9
Answer:
b) 1 : 3
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\)
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv₁² = 0.9 – 0.6 = 0.3 ……………….(1)
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv₂² = 3.3 – 0.6 = 2.7 ……………….(2)
eqn (1) / (2)
\(\frac{v_{1}^{2}}{v_{2}^{2}}\) = \(\frac{0.3}{2.7}=\frac{1}{9}\)

\(\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{1}{9}}=\frac{1}{3}\)
ν₁ : ν₂ = 1 : 3

Question 9.
A light source of wavelength 520 nm emits 1.04 × 10¹⁵ photons per second while the second source of 460 nm produces 1.38 × 10¹⁵ photons per second. Then the ratio of power of second source to that of first source is
a) 1.00
b) 1.02
c) 1.5
d) 0.98
Answer:
c) 1.5
Solution:

Question 10.
The mean wavelength of light from the sun is taken to be 550 nm and its mean power is 3.8 × 10²⁶ W. The number of photons received by the human eye per second on average from sunlight is of the order of
a) 10⁴⁵
b) 10⁴²
c) 10⁵⁴
d) 10⁵¹
Answer:
a) 10⁴⁵
Solution:
Power P = En = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\).n
n = \(\frac{P \lambda}{h c}\)
= \(\frac{3.8 \times 10^{26} \times 550 \times 10^{-9}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}\)
= 105.5 × 10⁴³
n = 1.055 × 10⁴⁵

Question 11.
The threshold wavelength for a metal surface whose photoelectric work function is 3.313 eV is
a) 4125 Å
b) 3750 Å
c) 6000 Å
d) 2062.5 Å
Answer:
b) 3750 Å
Solution:
Φ = hν₀ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda_{\mathrm{o}}}\)

λ₀ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\phi}\)
= \(\frac{6.64 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{500 \times 10^{-9}}\)
λ₀ = 3.757 × 10^-7
λ₀ = 3750 Å

Question 12.
Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a sensitive plate of photoelectric work function 1.235 eV. The kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted is (Take h = 6.6 × 10^-34 Js)
a) 0.58 eV
b) 2.48 eV
c) 1.24 eV
d) 1.16 eV
Answer:
c)1.24 eV
Solution:
λ = 500 nm;
φ = 1.235 eV
hν = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\)

hν = \(\frac{6.64 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{500 \times 10^{-9}}\)
= 0.0396 × 10^-17
hν = 3.96 × 10^-19 J
hν = \(\frac{3.96 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 2.475 evacuated
K.E = hν – φ
= 2.475 – 1.235
= 1.24 eV

Question 13.
Photons of wavelength λ are incident on a metal. The most energetic electrons ejected from the metal are bent into a circular arc of radius R by a perpendicular magnetic field having magnitude B. The work function of the metal is
a) \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}-\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}+\frac{\mathrm{e}^{2} \mathrm{~B}^{2} \mathrm{R}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\)

b) \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}+2 \mathrm{me}\left[\frac{\mathrm{eBR}}{2 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\right]^{2}\)

c) \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}-\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{C}^{2} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{2} \mathrm{~B}^{2} \mathrm{R}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\)

d) \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}-2 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}\left[\frac{\mathrm{eBR}}{2 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\right]^{2}\)
Answer:
d) \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}-2 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}\left[\frac{\mathrm{eBR}}{2 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\right]^{2}\)
Solution:

Question 14.
The work functions for metals A, B and C are 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5.0 eV respectively. The metals which will emit photoelectrons for radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are
a) A Only
b) both A and B
c) all these metals
d) none
Answer:
b) both A and B
Solution:
Energy in eV = \(\frac{12375}{\lambda}\)
\(\frac{12375}{4100}\) =3.01 eV
Work functions at A and B are less than 3.01 eV so both A and B emit.

Question 15.
Emission of electrons by the absorption of heat energy is called ________ emission
a) photoelectric
b) field
c) thermionic
d) secondary
Answer:
c) thermionic

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Why do metals have a large number of free electrons?
Answer:
In metals, the electrons in the outermost shells are loosely bound to the nucleus. Even at room temperature, there are a large number of free electrons which are moving inside the metal in a random manner.

Question 2.
Define the work function of a metal. Give its unit.
Answer:

• The minimum energy needed for an electron to escape from the metal surface is called the work function of a metal.
• It is denoted by Φ₀ and its unit is eV

Question 3.
What is the photoelectric effect?
Answer:
The ejection of electrons from a metal plate when illuminated by light or any other electromagnetic radiation of suitable wavelength (or) frequency.

Question 4.
How does photocurrent vary with the intensity of the incident light?
Answer:
Photocurrent – the number of electrons emitted per second is directly proportional to the intensity of the incident light.

Question 5.
Give the definition of intensity of light and its unit.
Answer:

• The intensity is the power of light commonly referred to brightness.
• Its unit is candela (cd).

Question 6.
How will you define threshold frequency?
Answer:
For a given metallic surface, the emission of photoelectrons takes place only if the frequency of the incident light is greater than a certain minimum frequency called the threshold frequency.

Question 7.
What is a photocell? Mention the different types of photocells.
Answer:
photocells: Photoelectric cell or photocell is a device which converts light energy into electrical energy. It works on the principle of the photoelectric effect.
Types:

• Photo emissive cell
• Photovoltaic cell
• Photoconductive cell

Question 8.
Write the expression for the de Broglie wavelength associated with a charged particle of charge q and mass m, when it is accelerated through a potential V
Answer:

• De Broglie wavelength λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{qmv}}}\)
• Where q = ne, h= Planck’s constant

Question 9.
State de Broglie hypothesis.
Answer:
De Broglie’s hypothesis, all matter particles like electrons, protons, neutrons in motion are associated with waves.

Question 10.
Why we do not see the wave properties of a baseball?
Answer:
Since the momentum of a baseball is very low and the wavelength is of the order of 10^-34 m the wave properties cannot be seen in a baseball.

Question 11.
A proton and an electron have the same kinetic energy. Which one has a greater de Brogue wavelength? Justify.
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)
i.e. λ ∝ \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { m } } \)
As m_e << m_p, so λ_e >> λ_p
Hence protons have greater de-Broglie wavelength.

Question 12.
Write the relationship of de Broglie wavelength \ associated with a particle of mass m in terms of its kinetic energy K.
1. De Broglie wavelength h h
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{m} \cdot \mathrm{v}}\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{emV}}}\)

2. Since kinetic energy of the electron K = eV then the de Broglie wavelength is given by
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mK}}}\)

Question 13.
Name an experiment which shows wave nature of the electron. Which phenomenon was observed in this experiment using an electron beam?
Answer:

• Davisson – Germer experiment confirmed the wave nature of electrons.
• They demonstrated that electron beams are diffracted when they fall on crystalline solids.

Question 14.
An electron and an alpha particle have same kinetic energy. How are the de Broglie wavelengths associated with them related?
Answer:
1. De Broglie wavelength is given by
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mK}}}\)
2. Since m_α > m_e
λ α \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{m}}}\) then
λ_α < λ_e
3. An α particle having a greater mass than electron so it is having lesser de Broglie wavelength.

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by electron emission? Explain briefly various methods of electron emission.
Answer:
The liberation of electrons from any surface of a metallic substance is called electron emission.
There are mainly four types of electron emission.
i) Thermionic emission:
1. When a metal is heated to a high temperature, the free electrons on the surface of the metal get sufficient thermal energy so that they are emitted from the metallic surface.
2. The intensity of the thermionic emission depends on the metal used and its temperature.
(Examples: Cathode ray tubes, electrons microscopes, X-ray tubes, etc.)

Electrons in the (a) metal (b) heated metal

ii) Field emission:
1. Electron field emission occurs when a very strong electric field is applied across the metal.
2. This strong field pulls the free electrons and helps them to overcome the surface barrier of the metal.
Examples:
Field emission scanning electron microscopes, Field emission display, etc….

Field emission

iii) Photoelectric emission :
1. When electromagnetic radiation of suitable frequency is incident on the surface of the metal, the energy is transferred from the radiation to the free electrons.
2. Hence the free electrons get sufficient energy to cross the surface barrier and the photoelectric emission takes place.
3. The number of electrons emitted depends on the intensity of the incident radiation.
Examples: Photodiodes, Photoelectric cells, etc.

Photoelectric emission

iv) Secondary emission:
1. When a beam of fast-moving electrons strikes the metal surface, the kinetic energy of the striking electrons is transferred to the free electrons on the metal surface.
2. Thus the free electrons get sufficient kinetic energy so that the secondary emission occurs.
Example: Image intensifiers, Photomultiplier tubes, etc..

Secondary emission of electrons

Question 2.
Briefly discuss the observations of Hertz, Hallwachs, and Lenard.
Answer:
Hertz Observation:
1. In 1887, Hertz generated and detected electromagnetic waves with his high voltage induction coil to cause a spark discharge between two metallic spheres.
2. When a spark is formed, the charges will oscillate back and forth rapidly and the electromagnetic waves are
produced.
3. The electromagnetic waves thus produced were detected by a detector that has a copper wire bent in the shape of a circle
4. But the tiny spark produced in the detecter cannot be explained by hertz.

Hallwach Observation:

Irradiation of ultraviolet light on

• uncharged zinc plate
• negatively charged plate
• positively charged plate

1. In 1888, Hallwach confirmed that the strange behaviour of the spark is due to the action of ultraviolet light.
2. A clean circular plate of zinc is mounted on an insulating stand and is attached to a gold leaf electroscope by a wire.
3. When the uncharged zinc plate is irradiated by ultraviolet light from an arc lamp, it becomes positively charged and the leaves will open.
4. If the negatively charged zinc plate is exposed to ultraviolet light, the leaves will close as the charges leaked away quickly.

Lenard’s observation:

1. In 1902, Lenard constructed an apparatus consists of two metallic plates A and C placed in an evacuated quartz bulb.
2. The Galvanometer G and battery B are connected in the circuit.
3. When ultraviolet light is incident there is a deflection in the galvanometer.
4. If anode A is exposed to ultraviolet light, no current is observed.
5. The electron emission observed when ultraviolet light falling on the negative plate called photoelectric emission.

Experimental setup for the study of the photoelectric effect

Question 3.
Explain the effect of potential difference on photoelectric current.
Answer:
1. The effect of potential difference on photoelectric current can be studied by keeping the frequency and the intensity of the incident light constant.

Variation of photocurrent with a potential difference

2. If the cathode is irradiated the potential of A is increased thereby increase in the photocurrent.
3. When all the photoelectrons from C are collected by A the photocurrent reaches a maximum called saturation current.
4. When a negative (retarding) potential is applied to A with respect to C the photoelectrons start to decrease because more and more photoelectrons are being repelled away.
5. The photocurrent becomes zero at a particular negative potential V₀ called stopping or cut off potential.
6. The negative potential applied to anode A which is just sufficient to stop the most energetic photoelectrons to make photocurrent zero is called stopping potential.
7. The kinetic energy of the fastest electron (K_max) is equal to the work done by the stopping potential to stop it (eV₀)
K_max = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv_max² = eV₀ …………..(1)
where ν_max is the maximum speed of the photo electrons
ν_max = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{eV}_{\mathrm{o}}}{\mathrm{m}}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 1.602 \times 10^{-19}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}} \times V_{\mathrm{O}}}\)
ν_max = 5.93 × 10⁵ \(\sqrt{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{O}}}\) …………….(2)
K_max = eV₀ (in Joule) or K_max = V₀ (in eV)
8. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is independent of the intensity of the incident light.

Question 4.
Explain how the frequency of incident light varies with stopping potential.
Answer:
1. The effect of frequency of incident light on stopping potential can be studied by keeping the intensity of the incident light constant
2. The electrode potential varies for different frequencies of the incident light.
3. As the frequency is increased the photoelectrons are emitted with greater kinetic energies so that the retarding potential needed to stop the photoelectrons is also greater.

variation or photocurrent with corrector electrode potential for different frequencies of the incident radiation

4. From the graph between frequency and stopping potential, the stopping potential varies linearly with the frequency of the incident light.
5. The stopping potential is zero when no electrons are emitted below a certain frequency called threshold frequency.

Variation of stopping potential with frequency of the incident radiation for two metals

Question 5.
List out the laws of the photoelectric effect.
Answer:

1. For a given frequency of incident light, the number of photoelectrons emitted is directly proportional to the intensity of the incident light.
2. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is independent of the intensity of the incident light.
3. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons from a given metal is directly proportional to the frequency of incident light.
4. For a given surface, the emission of photoelectrons takes place only if the frequency of incident light is greater than a certain minimum frequency called the threshold frequency.
5. There is no time lag between the incidence of light and emission of photoelectrons.

Question 6.
Explain Why the photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of the wave nature of light.
Answer:
Failures of classical wave theory:
From Maxwell’s theory, light is an electromagnetic wave consisting of coupled electric and magnetic oscillations that move with the speed of light and exhibit typical wave behaviour. Let us try to explain the experimental observations of the photoelectric effect using wave picture of light.

1. When light is incident on the target, there is a continuous supply of energy to the electrons. According to wave theory, light of greater intensity should impart greater kinetic energy to the liberated electrons (Here, the Intensity of light is the energy delivered per unit area per unit time). But this does not happen. The experiments show that the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons does not depend on the intensity of the incident light.

2. According to wave theory, if a sufficiently intense beam of light is incident on the surface, electrons will be liberated from the surface of the target, however low the frequency of the radiation is. From the experiments, we know that photoelectric emission is not possible below a certain minimum frequency. Therefore, the wave theory fails to explain the existence of threshold frequency.

3. Since the energy of light is spread across the wavefront, the electrons which receive energy from it are large in number. Each electron needs considerable amount of time (a few hours) to get energy sufficient to overcome the work function and to get liberated from the surface. But experiments show that photoelectric emission is almost instantaneous process (the time lag is less than 10“9 s after the surface is illuminated) which could not be explained by wave theory.

Question 7.
Explain the quantum concept of light.
Answer:
Planck’s concepts of quantum :

1. Max Planck proposed the quantum concept in 1900 in order to explain the thermal radiations emitted by a black body and the shape of the radiation curves.
2. If an oscillator vibrates with frequency ν, its energy can have only certain discrete values.
   E = nhν n = 1,2,3…………
3. Where h is Planck’s constant.
4. The oscillators emit or absorb energy in small packets or quanta and the energy of each quantum is E = hν
5. Energy is quantized and it is not continuous as believed in the wave nature. This is called the quantization of energy.

Einstein’s concept of quantum:

1. Einstein extended Planck’s quantum concept to explain the photoelectric effect in 1905.
2. According to Einstein, the energy in light is not spread out over wavefronts but is concentrated in small packets called energy quanta.
3. The light of frequency ν from any source having energy E = hν
4. The light quanta having the magnitude of linear momentum
   p = \(\frac{\mathrm{hv}}{\mathrm{c}}\)

Question 8.
Obtain Einstein’s photoelectric equation with the necessary explanation.
Answer:
When a photon of energy hν is incident on a metal surface, it is completely absorbed by a single electron and the electron is ejected. In this process, a part of the photon energy is used for the ejection of the electrons from the metal surface (photo electric work function Φ₀) and the remaining energy is imparted as kinetic energy of the ejected electron.
hν = Φ₀ + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² ………………….(1)
Where m is the mass and v is the velocity.
At threshold frequency, ν₀
There is no ejection of electrons hence zero kinetic energy then,
hν₀ = Φ₀ …………………(2)
eqn (1) => hν = hν₀ + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² ……………(3)
This is Einsteins photo electric equation.
If the electron does not lose energy by internal collisions, then it is emitted with maximum
kinetic energy K_max. Then
K_max = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv_max²
Where ν_max maximum velocity of the electron ejected
K_max = hν – Φ₀ ……………..(4)

Emission of photoelectrons

A graph between K_max maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron and frequency ν of the incident light is a straight line.

K_max vs ν graph

Question 9.
Explain experimentally observed facts of the photoelectric effect with the help of Einstein’s explanation.
Answer:

1. The experimentally observed facts of the photoelectric effect can be explained with the help of Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
2. As each incident photon liberates one electron, then the increase of intensity of the light (the number of per unit area per unit time) increases the number of electrons emitted thereby increasing the photocurrent.
3. From K_max = hν – Φ₀ it is evident that K_max is proportional to the frequency and independent of the intensity of the light.
4. From hν = hν₀ + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv², there must be minimum energy equal to the work function of the metal to liberate electrons from the metal surface. Below which the emission of electrons is not possible.
5. There exists a minimum frequency called threshold frequency below which there is no photoelectric emission.
6. The transfer of photon energy to the electrons is instantaneous so that no time lag between the incidence of photons and ejection of electrons.
7. Thus the photoelectric effect is explained on the basis of the quantum concept of light.

Question 10.
Give the construction and working of a photoemissive cell.
Answer:
Photo emissive cell:
Construction:

Construction of photo cell

1. It consists of an evacuated glass or quartz bulb in which two metallic electrodes, cathode and anode are fixed.
2. The cathode C is Semi cylindrical in shape and is coated with a photo-sensitive material.
3. anode A is a thin rod or wire kept along the axis of the semi-cylindrical cathode.
4. A potential difference is applied between the anode and the cathode through a galvanometer G.

Working:
When cathode is illuminated, electrons are emitted from it. These electrons are attracted by anode and hence a current is produced which is measured by the galvanometer. For a given cathode, the magnitude of the current depends on (i) the intensity of incident radiation and (ii) the potential difference between anode and cathode.

Question 11.
Derive an expression for de Broglie wavelength of electrons.
Answer:
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. The kinetic energy aquired by the electron is given by
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = eV
Therefore, the speed ν of the electron is
ν = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{eV}}{\mathrm{m}}}\) …………..(1)
From de Broglie equation
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 \mathrm{emV}}}\) ……………(2)
Substituting the known values

When electron is accelerated with 100 V, then
λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{100}}\) = 1.227 Å
Since the kinetic energy of the electron, K = eV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with electron is given by
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mK}}}\) …………..(4)

Question 12.
Briefly explain the principle and working of an electron microscope.
Answer:
Principle:

(a) Optical Microscope
(b) Electron Microscope

1. The wave nature of the electron is used in the construction of an electron microscope.
2. The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the radiation used.
3. Since the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is much smaller than the visible light, the resolving power and the magnification are high.
4. Electron microscopes giving magnification more than 2,00,000 times than the optical microscope.

Working:

1. The construction and working of an electron microscope are similar to the optical microscope.
2. Focussing of electron beam is done by the electrostatic or magnetic lenses.
3. The divergence and convergence can be done by adjusting electric and magnetic fields.
4. The accelerated electrons from the source with high potential are made parallel by a magnetic condenser lens.
5. With the help of a magnetic objective lens and magnetic projector lens system, the magnified image is obtained.
6. These electron microscopes are being used in almost all branches of science.

Question 13.
Describe briefly Davisson – Germer experiment which demonstrated the wave nature of electrons.
Answer:

Experimental set up of Davisson – Germer experiment

1. De Broglie hypothesis of matter waves was experimentally confirmed by Clinton Davisson and Lester Germer in 1927.
2. They demonstrated that electron beams are diffracted when they fall on crystalline solids.
3. Since crystals can act as a three-dimensional diffraction grating for matter waves, the electron waves incident on crystals are diffracted off in certain specific directions.
4. The filament F is heated by a low tension battery, electrons are emitted from the hot filament by thermionic emission.
5. Electrons are accelerated due to-the potential between the filament and the anode aluminium cylinder by a high tension battery.
6. The electron beam is collimated and it is allowed to strike a single crystal of nickel by two thin aluminum diaphragms.
7. The electron detector measures the intensity of the scattered electron beam.
8. The intensity of the scattered beam is measured for various incident angles θ.
9. For accelerating voltage of 54 V, the scattered wave shows a peak at an angle of 50° to the incident beam.
10. The constructive interference of diffracted electrons for various atomic layers obtained known as interplanar spacing of Nickel.
11. The de-Broglie wavelength for V = 54 V is given by,

Variation of intensity of diffracted electron beam with the angle
λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{\mathrm{V}}}\) Å
λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{54}}\)
= 1.67 Å

IV. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
How many photons per second emanate from a 50 mW laser of 640 nm?
Answer:
Given:
P = 50 × 10^-3 W
λ = 640 × 10^-9 m
N = ?
N => Number of photons emitted per second.

Question 2.
Calculate the maximum kinetic energy and maximum velocity of the photoelectrons emitted when the stopping potential is 81 V for the photoelectric emission experiment.
Answer:
Given:
V = 81 V
E_K = ?
E_K maximum kinetic energy
v_K maximum velocity
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = eV
E_K = 1.6 × 10^-19 × 81
= 129.6 × 10^-19
E_K = 1.3 × 10^-17 J

Question 3.
Calculate the energies of the photons associated with the following radiation
(i) violet light of 413 nm,
(ii) X-rays of 0.1 nm,
(iii) radio waves of 10 m
Answer:
E = hν
E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) in Joule

E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda \mathrm{e}}\) in eV
(i) Violet light of 413 nm
E = \(\frac{6.625 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{413 \times 10^{-9} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= \(\frac{19.875}{660.8}\) × 10^-26 × 10²⁸
= 0.032 × 10²
E = 3 eV

(ii) X-rays of 0.1 nm
= \(\frac{6.625 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{0.1 \times 10^{-9} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)

= \(\frac{19.875 \times 10^{-26}}{0.16 \times 10^{-28}}\)
= 124.24 × 10²
E = 12424 eV

(iii) radio waves of 10 m
E = \(\frac{6.625 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{10 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= \(\frac{19.875}{1.6}\) × 10^-26 × 10^-1 × 10¹⁹
E = 1.24 × 10^-7 eV

Question 4.
A 150 W lamp emits light of mean wavelength of 5500 A. If the efficiency is 12%, find out the number of photons emitted by the lamp in one second.
Answer:
P = 150 W
λ = 5500 × 10^-10 m
Eff = 12%
N = \(\frac{\mathrm{P} \lambda}{\mathrm{hc}}\)

= \(\frac{150 \times 5500 \times 10^{-10}}{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}\)

= \(\frac{825 \times 10^{-7}}{19.878 \times 10^{-26}}\)
= 41.5 × 10¹⁹
Number of photons emitted is with 12% efficiency = 41.5 × 10¹⁹ × \(\frac{12}{100}\)
N = 4.98 × 10¹⁹

Question 5.
How many photons of frequency 10¹⁴ Hz will make up 19.86 J of energy?
Answer:
E = 19.86 J
ν = 10¹⁴ Hz
E = nhν
n = \(\frac{E}{h v}\)
= \(\frac{19.86}{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \times 10^{14}}\)
= 2.997 × 10²⁰
Number of Photons N = 3 × 10²⁰

Question 6.
What should be the velocity of the electron so that its momentum equals that of 4000 Å wavelength photon.
Answer:
Given:
λ = 4000 × 10^-10 m

Question 7.
When a light of frequency 9 × 10¹⁴ Hz is incident on a metal surface, photoelectrons are emitted with a maximum speed of 8 × 10⁵ ms^-1. Determine the threshold frequency of the surface.
Answer:
Given:
ν = 9 × 10¹⁴ Hz
ν = 8 × 10⁵ms^-1
From Einstein’s photo electric equation
hν = hν₀ – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
hν₀ = hν – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
ν₀ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hv}-1 / 2 \mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{~h}}\)
ν₀ = ν – \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{~h}}\)
= 9 × 10¹⁴ – \(\frac{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 64 \times 10^{10}}{2 \times 6.626 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= 9 × 10¹⁴ – \(\frac{582.4 \times 10^{-21}}{13.252 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= 9 × 10¹⁴ – 4.39 × 10¹⁴
= (9 – 4.39) × 10¹⁴
ν₀ = 4.61 × 10¹⁴ Hz

Question 8.
When a 6000 A light falls on the cathode of a photocell and produced photoemission. if a stopping potential of 0.8 V is required to stop the emission of an electron, then determine the
(i) frequency of the light
(ii) the energy of the incident photon
(iii) the work function of the cathode material
(iv) threshold frequency and
(v) the net energy of the electron after it leaves the surface.
Answer:
Given:
λ = 6000 × 10^-10 m;
eV₀ = 0.8 eV
i) ν = \(\frac{C}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{6 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 0.5 × 10¹⁵
ν = 5 × 10¹⁴ Hz

(ii) E = hν
= \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \times 5 \times 10^{14}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= \(\frac{53.13}{1.6}\) × 10^-20 × 10¹⁹
E = 2.07 eV

(iii) eν₀ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = 0.8 eV
W = hν – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
= (2.07 – 0.8) eV
W = 1.27 eV

(iv) W = hν₀
ν₀ = \(\frac{1.27 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= \(\frac{2.032}{6.626}\) × 10¹⁵
ν₀ = 3.06 × 10¹⁴ Hz

(v) Net Energy = E = hν – hν₀
E = (2.07 – 1.27) ev = 0.8 eV
E = 0.8 eV

Question 9.
A 3310 Å photon liberates an electron from a material with energy 3 × 10^-19 J while another 5000 Å photon ejects an electron with energy 0.972 × 10^-19 J from the same material. Determine the value of Planck’s constant and the threshold wavelength of the material.
Answer:
Given:
λ₁ = 3310 × 10^-10 m
λ₂ = 5000 × 10¹⁰ m
K.E₁ = 3 × 10^-19 J
K.E₂ = 0.972 × 10^-19 J
i) ν₁ = \(\frac{C}{\lambda_{1}}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{3310 \times 10^{-10}}\)
= 9.06 × 10¹⁴ Hz
ν₂ = \(\frac{C}{\lambda_{2}}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{5000 \times 10^{-10}}\)
= 6 × 10¹⁴ Hz
hν₁ = W + K.E₁ …………….(1)
hν₁ = W + K.E₂ …………….(2)
eqn (1) – (2)
h(ν₁ – ν₂) = K.E₁ – K.E₂
h(9.06 – 6) × 10¹⁴ = 3 × 10^-19 – 0.972 × 10^-19
h(3.06 × 10¹⁴) = 2.028 × 10^-19
h = \(\frac{2.028 \times 10^{-19}}{3.06 \times 10^{14}}\)
= 0.662 × 10^-33
h = 6.62 × 10^-34 Js

ii)

Question 10.
At the given point of time, the earth receives energy from the sun at 4 cal cm min^-1. Determine the number of photons received on the surface of the Earth per cm^-2 per minute. (Given: Mean wavelength of sunlight = 5500 Å)
Answer:
Given:
E = 4 cal cm^-2 min^-1
λ = 5500 × 10^-10m
We know that 1 cal = 4.2 J
E = hnν

Number of photons n = 4.652 × 10¹⁹ per cm² per minute

Question 11.
UV light of wavelength 1800 Å is incident on a lithium surface whose threshold wavelength 4965 Å. Determine the maximum energy of the electron emitted.
Answer:
Given:
λ = 1800 × 10^-10 m
λ₀ = 4965 × 10^-10 m
hν = hν₀ +K.E
h\(\frac{c}{\lambda}\) =h\(\frac{c}{\lambda_{o}}\) + K. E
K.E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) – \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda_{\mathrm{o}}}\)
hc = 6.625 × 10^-34 × 3 × 10⁸
hc = 19.86 × 10^-24
K.E = \(\frac{19.86 \times 10^{-26}}{1800 \times 10^{-10}}\) – \(\frac{19.86 \times 10^{-24}}{4965 \times 10^{-10}}\)
= 0.0110 × 10^-16 – 0.004 × 10^-16
K.E in eV = \(\frac{7 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 4.375 eV
K.E = 4.4 eV

Question 12.
Calculate the de Brogue wavelength of a proton whose kinetic energy is equal to 81.9 x 1O’ J. (Given: mass of proton is 1836 times that of electron).
Answer:
Given:
K.E = 81.9 × 10^-15 J
m_p = 836 m_e

Question 13.
A deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated with the same potential. Which one of the two has
i) greater value of de Broglie wavelength associated with it and
ii) less kinetic energy? Explain.
Answer:
Given:
deutron => e → 1e \(\left({ }_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2}\right)\)
m → 2m
alpha => e → 2e (2He⁴)
m → 4m
i)

ii) \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = eV
K_d = eV
K_α = 2 eV
K_α = 2 K_d
K_d = \(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{\alpha}}{2}\)

Question 14.
An electron is accelerated thorugh a potential difference of 81 V. What is the de Brogue wavelength associated with it? To which part of electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength correspond?
Answer:
Given:
V = 81 V
λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{\mathrm{V}}}\) Å
λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{81}}\) ⇒ λ = \(\frac{12.27}{9}\)
λ = 1.36 Å

Question 15.
The ratio between the de Brogue wavelengths associated with protons. accelerated through a potential of 512 V and that of alpha particles accelerated through a potential of X volts is found to be one. Find the value of X.
Answer:
Given:
For proton charge = e
mass = m
For charge = 2e
mass = 4m

Part II:

12th Physics Guide Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Additional Questions and Answers

I. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
A. b
B. d
C. a
D. c

Question 2.

Answer:
A. b
B. c
C. d
D. a

Question 3.

Answer:
A. c
B. a
C. d
D. b

Question 4.

Answer:
A. d
B. c
C. b
D. a

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The liberation of electrons from any surface of a substance is called _______.
Answer:
electron emission

Question 2.
1 eV is equal to ___________ Joule.
Answer:
1.602 × 10^-19

Question 3.
The stopping potential is independent of ________ of the incident light.
Answer:
intensity

Question 4.
The quality of X-rays is measured in terms of their _______.
Answer:
penetrating power

Question 5.
The graph between maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron and frequency of the incident light is ________.
Answer:
straight line

Question 6.
Einstein’s photoelectric equation was experimentally confirmed by ________.
Answer:
Millikan

III. Choose the odd man out:

Question 1.
a) Field emission display
b) Photodiodes
c) Photomultiplier tubes
d) Electron microscope
Answer:
d) Electron MicroScope

Question 2.
a) Work function
b) Discharge tube
c) Threshold frequency
d) Stopping potential
Answer:
b) Discharge tube

Question 3.
a) mass
b) frequency
c) Intensity
d) wavelength
Answer:
a) mass

Question 4.
a) neutrons
b) tungsten
c) particles
d) x-rays
Answer:
a) tungsten

Question 5.
a) Photon
b) electron
c) proton
d) neutron
Answer:
a) photon

IV. Choose the incorrect pair:

Question 1.

Answer:
D) Intensity of X-rays – Constant for all substances

Question 2.

Answer:
D) Emission of photoelectrons – does not depend upon the potential of the electrodes

Question 3.

Answer:
B) Stopping potential – maximum potential between the electrodes

V. Choose the correct pair:

Question 1.

Answer:
B) de – Broglie wavelength – 1.67 Å

Question 2.

Answer:
D) V = \(\frac{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{em}}}{\mathrm{V}}\)

VI. Assertion and Reason:

Question 1.
Assertion:
The resolving power of the electron microscope is high.
Reason:
The wavelength of electrons is very much lesser than the visible light.
i) Assertion is true but reason is false
ii) The assertion and reason both are false
iii) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
iv) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Answer:
(iii) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion:
The oscillators emit or absorb energy in small packets or quanta.
Reason:
Energy is not discrete, the energy posses wave nature.
i) The assertion and reason both are false
i) The assertion is true but reason is false
iii) The assertion is false but reason is true
iv) Both the assertion and reason are true
Answer:
(ii) The assertion is true but the reason is false

VII. Choose the correct statement:
Question 1.
a) Particle cannot be localised in space and time
b) Wave can be localised in space and time
c) Black body radiation can be explained by wave nature.
d) The minimum energy needed for an electron to escape from the metal surface is called the work function.
Answer:
d) The minimum energy needed for an electron to escape from the metal surface is called the work function.

Question 2.
a) When the momentum of the particle increases de-Broglie wavelength also increases.
b) A photon of energy 2E is an incident on a photosensitive surface of photoelectric work function E. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron emitted is 2E.
c) The number of de-Broglie waves of an electron in the nth orbit of an atom is n.
d) The resolving power of the electron microscope is 100 times greater than an optical microscope.
Answer:
b) A photon of energy 2E is an incident on a photosensitive surface of photoelectric work function E. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted is 2E.

VIII. Choose the incorrect statement:

Question 1.
a) Wave mechanical concept of the atom was based on the de-Broglie hypothesis
b) Maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons varies linearly with the frequency of incident radiation.
c) The stopping potential of a metal surface is independent of the intensity of the incident radiation.
d) The graph drawn by taking the frequency of the radiation along the x-axis and stopping potential along the y-axis for a photo-sensitive metal is a parabola.
Answer:
d) The graph drawn by taking the frequency of the radiation along the x-axis and stopping potential along the y-axis for a photo-sensitive metal is a parabola.

Question 2.
a) Photoelectric emission is an instantaneous process.
b) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation.
c) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is indirectly proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation.
d) Photoelectron emission is not possible below a minimum frequency of the incident radiation.
Answer:
c) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is indirectly proportional to the intensity of incident radiation.

IX. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of
energy 3 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential, in volt, is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10
Answer:
(b) 4
Hint:
Stopping potential, V₀ = \(\frac { { K }_{ max } }{ e } \) = \(\frac { 4eV }{ e }\) = 4v

Question 2.
The threshold frequency is constant with respect to _______.
a) type of the metal
b) Velocity of electrons
c) Voltage applied
d) intensity of the incident light.
Answer:
a) type of the metal

Question 3.
In a photoemissive cell, the anode is made up of _______.
a) copper
b) gold
c) platinum
d) zinc
Answer:
c) platinum

Question 4.
The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately
(a) 540 nm
(b) 400 nm
(c) 310 nm
(d) 220 nm
Answer:
(c) 310 nm
Hint:
λ₀ = \(\frac { hc }{ W }\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{4.0 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = m = 310 x 10^-9 m = 310 nm

Question 5.
Duane-Hunt law is ________.
a) λ = \(\frac{12400}{\mathrm{v}}\) m
b) λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\mathrm{V}}\) m
c) λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\sqrt{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{k}}}}\) m
d) none of the above
Answer:
a) λ = \(\frac{12400}{\mathrm{v}}\) m

Question 6.
The resolving power of the electron microscope is _____ times greater than the resolving power of the optical
microscope
a) 10²
b) 10⁴
c) 10⁵
d) 10³
Answer:
c) c) 10⁵

Question 7.
4 eV is the energy of the incident photon and the work function is 2 eV. The stopping potential will be
(a) 2V
(b) 4V
(c) 6V
(d) 2√2V
Answer:
(d) 2√2V
Hint:
eV₀= hv- W₀ = 4eV – 2eV = 2eV
∴ V₀= \(\frac { 2ev }{ e }\) = 2v

Question 8.
Which of the following graph represents the variation of the particle momentum and associated de Broglie wavelength.
a)

b)

c)

d)
Answer:
c)

Question 9.
The radiation produced from decelerating electron is called ________.
a) reverse radiation
b) Photon emission
c) black body radiation
d) breaking radiation
Answer:
d) breaking radiation

Question 10.
If the striking electrons knocks of an electron in n = 2 state, the resulting transition give ________.
a) K-lines
b) L-lines
c) M-lines
d) N-lines
Answer:
b) L-lines

Question 11.
When a proton is accelerated through IV, then its kinetic energy will be
(a) 1 eV
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) 1840 eV
(d) 0.54 eV
Answer:
(a) 1 eV
Hint:
K = qV = e x 1V= 1 eV

Question 12.
The work function of a photoelectric material is 3.3 eV. The threshold frequency will be equal to
a) 8 × 10¹⁴ Hz
b) 8 × 10¹⁰ Hz
c) 5 × 10²⁰ Hz
d) 4 × 10¹⁴ Hz
Answer:
a) 8 × 10¹⁴ Hz
Solution:

Question 13.
The momentum of the electron having wavelength of 4 Å is
a) 1.6 × 10²⁴ kg ms^-1
b) 1.65 × 10^-24 kg ms^-1
c) 3.3 × 10²⁴ kg ms^-1
d) 3.3 × 10^-24 kg ms^-1
Answer:
b) 1.65 × 10^-24 kg ms^-1
Solution:
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{p}}\)
p = \(\frac{h}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}{4 \times 10^{-10}}\)
p = 1.65 × 10^-24 kgms^-1

Question 15.
The number of photo-electrons emitted for the light of a frequency υ (higher than the threshold frequency υ₀) is proportional to
(a) Threshold frequency (υ₀)
(b) Intensity of light
(c) Frequency of light (υ)
(d) υ – υ₀
Answer:
(b) Intensity of light
Hint:
The photoelectric current of Intensity of incident light

Question 15.
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted in a photoelectric effect phenomenon is 3.2eV What is the value of stopping potential to stop the electrons not to reach the anode?
a) 1.6 eV
b) -3.2 eV
c) -1.6 eV
d) -6.4 eV
Answer:
b) -3.2 eV
Solution:
K.E_max = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
V₀ = \(\frac{\mathrm{K} . \mathrm{E}}{e}\)
= \(\frac{3.2 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
V₀ = -3.2 eV

Question 16.
Radiation of energy 6.2 eV is incident on the metal surface of work function 4.7eV. Find the kinetic energy of the
electrons emitted.
a) 3 × 10^-19 J
b) 1.6 × 10^-19 J
c) 2.4 × 10^-19 J
d) 3.2 × 10^-19 J
Answer:
c) 2.4 × 10^-19 J
Solution:
hν = 6.2 eV
W = 4.7 eV
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = hν – W
= (6.2 – 4.7) eV
= 1.5 ev
= 1.5 × 1.6 × 10^-19
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = 2.4 × 10^-19 J
K.E = 2.4 × 10^-19 J

Question 17.
The de-Broglie wavelength of electrons moving with a speed of 500 km/s
a) 1.45 nm
b) 1.45 Å
c) 1.45 m
d) 4.6 × 10²⁴ HZ
Answer:
a) 1.45 nm
Solution:
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\)
= \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 500 \times 10^{3}}\)
λ = 1.45 × 10^-19 ;
λ = 1.45 nm

Question 18.
Electron volt is a unit of
(a) Energy
(b) potential
(c) current
(d) charge
Answer:
(a) Energy
Hint:
An electron volt is a unit of energy

Question 19.
The work function of iron is 4.7 V. calculate the cut-off wavelength for this metal.
a) 2633 Å
b) 26.4 × 10^-7 m
c) 13.2 × 10^-10 m
d) 1320 Å
Answer:
a) 2633 Å
Solution:
hν₀ = W;
h\(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\lambda_{0}}\) = W;
λ₀ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\mathrm{W}}\)
= \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{4.7 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= 2633 × 10^-10
λ₀ = 2633 Å

Question 20.
The time taken by a photoelectron to come out after photon strikes is approximately
(a) 10^-14 s
(b) 10^-10 s
(c) 10^-16 s
(d) 10^-1 s
Answer:
(b) 10^-10 s
Hint:
The time lag between the incident of photon and the emission of photoelectrons is 10^-10 s approximately.

Question 21.
A Coolidge tube operates at 37200 V maximum frequency of x rays emitted is _______.
a) 9 × 10²⁸ Hz
b) 100 Hz
c) 9 × 10¹⁸ Hz
d) 3 × 10¹⁸ Hz
Answer:
c) 9 × 10¹⁸ Hz
Solution:

Question 22.
De – Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerating by 100 V
a) 1.227 Å
b) 122.7 μm
c) 0.2227 m
d) 12.27 Å
Answer:
a) 1.227 Å
Solution:
λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{\mathrm{V}}}\)
= \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{100}}\)
= \(\frac{12.27}{10}\)
λ = 1.227 Å

Question 23.
The energy of photon of wavelength λ is
(a) \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
(b) hλc
(c) \(\frac { λ }{ hc }\)
(d) \(\frac { hλ }{ c }\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
Hint:
E = hυ = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)

X. Two Mark Questions:

Question 1.
Why electron is preferred over X-ray in the microscope?
Answer:

1. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is very less compared to X-rays.
2. We can build a high resolving power microscope using electrons.
3. Resolving power of a microscope inversely proportional to the wavelength
   r₀ α \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)

Question 2.
What are photoelectrons?
Answer:
These are the electrons emitted from a metal surface when it is exposed to electromagnetic radiations of a suitable frequency.

Question 3.
What are matter waves?
Answer:
The moving elementary particles behave as waves under suitable conditions. These waves associated with particles are called matter waves or de-Broglie waves.

Question 4.
What are continuous x rays?
Answer:
Continuous x-ray spectrum consists of radiations of all possible wavelengths from a certain lower limit to higher values continuously as in the case of visible light.

Question 5.
Why is a photo-cell also called an electric eye?
Answer:
Like an eye, a photo-cell can distinguish between weak and intense light. But a photocell gives a measure of light intensity in terms of photoelectric current. So it is also called an electric eye.

Question 6.
What is a photoemissive cell?
Answer:
Its working depends on the electron emission from a metal cathode due to irradiation of light and other radiation.

Question 7.
What are X-ray spectra?
Answer:
X-rays are produced when fast-moving electrons strike the metal target. The intensity of the X-rays when plotted against its wavelength gives a curve called X-ray spectrum.

Question 8.
What are photoconductive cells?
Answer:
The resistance of the semiconductor changes in accordance with the radiation energy incident on it.

Question 9.
Define resolving power of the microscope.
Answer:
The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the radiation used.

Question 10.
Who invented the particle nature of light?
Answer:
Hertz confirmed that the light is an electromagnetic wave. But the same experiment also produced the first evidence for particle nature of light.

Question 11.
Define intensity of light.
Answer:
Intensity denotes power of light means brightness.

Question 12.
What is diffraction?
Answer:
The bending of light waves round the edges of obstacles is called diffraction.

Question 13.
When light behaves like waves and matter?
Answer:
Light behaves as a wave during its propagation and behaves as a particle during its interaction with matter.

XI. Three Marks Questions:

Question 1.
What is nature of light?
Answer:
The wave nature of light explains phenomena such as interference, diffraction, and polarisation. Certain phenomenon like black body radiation and photoelectric effect light behaves as particles. Thus light posses dual nature, that is particle and wave.

Question 2.
Define one electron volt.
Answer:
One electron volt is defined as the kinetic energy gained by an electron when accelerated by a potential difference of 1 V.
1 eV = K.E gained by the electron or workdone by the electric field
1 eV = qv = 1.602 × 10^-19 C × 1 V
1 eV = 1.602 × 10^-19 J

Question 3.
Differentiate particle and wave.
Answer:
Particle is a material object which is considered as a tiny concentration of matter localized in space and time whereas wave is a broad distribution of energy not localized in space and time.

XII. Five Mark Questions:

Question 1.
What are the applications of the photocells?
Answer:

1. Photocells have many applications especially switches and sensors.
2. Automatic switching ON and OFF ordinary lights as well as street lights
3. They are used for the reproduction of sound in motion pictures.
4. Photocells are used as timers to measure the speeds of athletes during a race.
5. Photocells are used to measure the intensity of the given light and to calculate the exact time of exposure.

Question 2.
Write down the characteristics of photons.
Answer:
Characteristics of photons:
According to the particle nature of light, photons are the basic constituents of any radiation and possess the following characteristic properties:

• The photons of light of frequency v and wavelength λ will have energy, given by E = hυ = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\).
• The energy of a photon is determined by the frequency of the radiation and not by its intensity and the intensity has no relation with the energy of the individual photons in the beam.
• The photons travel with the velocity of light and its momentum is given by p
• Since photons are electrically neutral, they are unaffected by electric and magnetic fields.
• When a photon interacts with matter (photon-electron collision), the total energy, total linear momentum, and angular momentum are conserved. Since photon may be absorbed or a new photon may be produced in such interactions, the number of photons may not be conserved

Question 3.
Write a note on characteristic X-rays. Give the applications of X-rays in medical therapy and industry.
Answer:
Characteristic X-ray Spectra:
1. X-ray spectra snow some narrow peaks at some, well-defined wavelengths when the target is hit by fast electrons. The line spectrum showing these peaks is called the characteristic X-ray spectrum.
2. When an energetic electron removes electrons from K-shell electrons then the electrons from the outer orbit jump to fill the vacancy.
3. Energy difference between the levels is given out as X-ray photon of definite wavelength.

Origin of characteristics X-ray Spectra

K-Series (K_α and K_β): This line is due to electronic transitions from L, M, and N shells to K-level.
L-Series (L_α and L_β): It arises due to electronic transitions from M, N, and O shells.

Uses of X-rays:

1. Medical diagnosis: used to detect fractures, foreign bodies, diseased organs, etc.
2. Medical therapy: To kill diseased tissues, they are employed to cure skin diseases, malignant tumors.
3. Industry: To check for flaws in welded joints, motor tires, tennis balls, and wood. At the customs post, they are used for the detection of contraband goods.
4. Scientific research: To study crystalline structure i.e. arrangement of atoms and molecules in crystals.

XIII. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
Are other particles, other than electrons having a wave nature?
Answer:
The particles like neutrons and alpha particles are also associated with waves. They undergo diffraction when they scattered by suitable crystals.

Question 2.
Why diffraction effects of ordinary light is very small?
Answer:
The wavelength of light is high compared to the spacing between the lattice planes so that the diffraction pattern of ordinary light is less pronounced.

Question 3.
Why crystals are used for three-dimensional grating?
Answer:
The wavelength of X-rays are in the order of 10^-10 m which is comparable to the spacing between the crystal lattice planes. Since the crystals can serve as three-dimensional grating.

XIV. Additional Problems:

Question 1.
Calculate the momentum and the de- Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy 25 eV.
Solution
i) Momentum of the electron:
p = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mk}}\)
= \(\sqrt{2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 25 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= \(\sqrt{728 \times 10^{-50}}\)
= 26.98 × 10^-25 kgms^-1

ii) de Broglie wavelength:
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{p}}\)
= \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}{26.98 \times 10^{-25}}\)
= 0.2455 × 10^-34 × 10²⁵
= 0.2455 ×10⁹
λ = 2.455 Å

Question 2.
Monochromatic light of frequency 6 x 10¹⁴ Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 x 10^-3w.
(i) What is the energy of each photon in the light?
(ii) How many photons per second, on average, are emitted by the source?
Solution:
(i) Energy of each photon,
E = hυ = 6.6 x 10^-34 x 6 x 10¹⁴
E = 3.98 x 10^-19J
(ii) If N is the number of photons emitted per second by the source, then
Power transmitted in the beam = N x energy of each photon
P = N
N = \(\frac { P }{ E }\) = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-3}}{3.98 \times 10^{-19}}\)
N = 5 x 10¹⁵ Photons per second.

Question 3.
A proton is moving at a speed of 0.900 times the velocity of light. Find the kinetic energy in Joules and Mev.
Answer:
Given:
ν = 0.9 × 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
Mass of proton m = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1.673 × 10^-27 × 2.7 × 2.7 × 10¹⁶
= \(\frac{6.098 \times 10^{-11}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= 3.811 × 10⁸ eV
K.E = 3.81 MeV

Question 4.
Calculate the momentum of an electron with kinetic energy 2 eV.
Answer:
Given:
K.E = 2 eV
p = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mk}}\)
p = \(\sqrt{2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 2 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
p = 7.63 × 10^-25 kgms^-1

Question 5.
Calculate the cut-off wavelength and cut off frequency of X-rays from an X-ray tube of accelerating potential 20,000 V.
Answer:
The cut-off wavelength of the characteristic X-rays is
λ₀ = \(\frac{12400}{\mathrm{v}}\) Å = \(\frac{12400}{20000}\) Å
= 0.62 Å
The corresponding frequency is
ν₀ = \(\frac{c}{\lambda_{0}}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{0.62 \times 10^{-10}}\)
= 4.84 × 10¹⁸ Hz

Question 6.
What is the (a) momentum, (b) speed, and (c) de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with the kinetic energy of 120 eV.
Solution:
Kinetic energy, K.E = 120 eV = 120 x 1.6 x 10^-19
K = K.E = 1.92 x 10^-17 J
(a) Momentum of an electron, P = \(\sqrt { 2mK } \)
P = \(\sqrt{2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 1.92 \times 10^{-17}}\)
P = 5.91 x 10^-24 kg ms^-1
(b) Speed of an electron,
v = \(\frac { p }{ m }\) = \(\frac{5.91 \times 10^{-24}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\) = 6.5 x 10⁶ kg ms^-1
(c) de-Broglie wavelength,
λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}{5.91 \times 10^{-24}}\) = 1.117 x 10^-10 = 0.112 x 10^-9 m
λ = 0.112 nm

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Guide Pdf Chapter 2 An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 2 An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker

12th Computer Applications Guide An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker Text Book Questions and Answers

Part I

Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1.
DTP stands for ……………….
(a) Desktop Publishing
(b) Desktop Publication
(c) Doctor To Patient
(d) Desktop Printer
Answer:
(a) Desktop Publishing

Question 2.
________ is a DTP software,
(a) Lotus 1-2-3
(b) PageMaker
(c) Maya
(d) Flash
Answer:
(b) PageMaker

Question 3.
Which menu contains the Newoption?
(a) File menu
(b) Edit menu
(c) Layout menu
(d) Type menu
Answer:
(a) File menu

Question 4.
In PageMaker Window, the areaoutside of the dark border is referredto as …………….
(a) page
(b) pasteboard
(c) blackboard
(d) dashboard
Answer:
(b) pasteboard

Question 5.
Shortcut to close a document in PageMaker is …………..
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + W
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + W

Question 6.
A …………………… tool is used for magnifying the particular portion of the area.
(a) Text tool
(b) Line tool
(c) Zoom tool
(d) Hand tool
Answer:
(c) Zoom tool

Question 7.
…………………. tool is used for drawing boxes.
(a) Line
(b) Ellipse
(c) Rectangle
(d) Text
Answer:
(c) Rectangle

Question 8.
Place option is present in ………………….menu.
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Layout
(d) Window
Answer:
(a) File

Question 9.
To select an entire document using the keyboard, press …………….
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + D
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + A

Question 10.
Character formatting consfstsof which of the following textproperties?
(a) Bold
(b) Italic
(c) Underline
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
Which tool lets you edit text?
(a) Text tool
(b) Type tool
(c) Crop tool
(d) Hand tool
Answer:
(a) Text tool

Question 12.
Shortcut to print a document in Pagemaker is ……………….
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + P
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + V
Answer:
(b) Ctrl + P

Question 13.
Adobe PageMaker is a ware………………… software.
Answer:
Page Layout

Question 14.
…………….. Bar is the topmost part of the PageMaker window.
Answer:
Title

Question 15.
…………… is the process of movingup and down or left and right through the document window.
Answer:
Scrolling

Question 16.
___________ tool is used to draw acircle.
Answer:
Ellipse

Question 17.
The Insert pages option is available on clicking the………………menu.
Answer:
Layout

Question 18.
Match the following.
Cut – (i) Ctrl + Z
Copy – (ii) Ctrl + V
Paste – (iii) Ctrl + X
Undo – (iv) Ctrl + C
Answer:
Match: iii, iv, ii, i

Question 19.
Choose the odd man out.
i) Adobe PageMaker, QuarkXPress, Adobe InDesign, Audacity
ii) File, Edit, Layout, Type, Zip
iii) Pointer Tool, Line Tool, Hide Tool, Hand Tool
iv) Bold, Italic, Portrait, Underline
Answer:
(i) Audacity, (ii) Zip, (iii) Hide Tool, (iv) Portrait

Question 20.
Choose the correct statement.
i. (a) Text can be selected using mouse only.
(b) Text can be selected using mouseor the keyboard.
ii. (a) DTP is an abbreviation for Desktop publishing, (b) DTP is an abbreviation for Desktop publication.
Answer:
(i)-b, (ii)-a

Question 21.
Choose the correct pair
(a) Edit and Cut
(b) Edit and New
(c) Undo and Copy
(d) Undo and Redo
Answer:
(a) Edit and Cut

Part II

Short Answers

Question 1.
What is desktop publishing?
Answer:
Desktop publishing (abbreviated DTP) is the creation of page layouts for documents using DTP software.

Question 2.
Give some examples of DTP software.
Answer:
Some of the popular DTP software are Adobe PageMaker, Adobe InDesign, QuarkXPress, etc.

Question 3.
Write the steps to open PageMaker.
Answer:
In the Windows 7 operating system, we can open Adobe PageMaker using the command sequence
Start →All Programs → Adobe → Pagemaker 7.0 → Adobe PageMaker 7.0.

Question 4.
How do you create a New document in PageMaker?
Answer:
To create a new document in. PageMaker:

• Choose File > New in the menu bar. (or) Press Ctrl + N in the keyboard. Document Setup dialog box appears.
• Enter the appropriate settings for your new doc¬ument in the Document Setup dialog box.
• Click on OK.

Question 5.
What is a Pasteboard in PageMaker?
Answer:
A document page is displayed within a dark border. The area outside of the dark border is referred to as the pasteboard. Anything that is placed completely in the pasteboard is not visible when you print the document.

Question 6.
Write about the Menu bar of PageMaker.
Answer:
It contains the following menus File, Edit, Layout, Type, Element, Utilities, View, Window, Help. When you click on a menu item, a pull down menu appears. There may be sub-menus under certain options in the pull-down menus.

Question 7.
Differentiate Ellipse tool from Ellipse frame tool.
Answer:

Question 8.
What is text editing?
Answer:
Editing encompasses many tasks, such as inserting and deleting words and phrases, correcting errors, and moving and copying text to different places in the document.

Question 9.
What is text block?
Answer:
A text block contains text you type, paste, or import. You cannot see the borders of a text block until you select it with the pointer tool.

Question 10.
What is threading text blocks?
Answer:
A Text block can be connected to other text blocks so that the text in one text block can flow into another text block. Text blocks that are connected in this way are threaded. The process of connecting text among Text blocks is called threading text.

Question 11.
What is threading text?
Answer:
The process of connecting text among Text blocks is called threading text.

Question 12.
How do you insert a page in PageMaker?
Answer:
To insert pages

1. Go to the page immediately before the page you want to insert.
2. Choose Layout > Insert Pages in themenu bar. The Insert Pages dialog box appears.
3. Type the number of pages you want to insert.
4. To insert pages after the current page, choose ‘after’ from the pop-up menu.
5. Click on Insert.

Part III

Explain In Brief Answer

Question 1.
What is PageMaker? Explain its uses,
Answer:
Adobe PageMaker is a page layout software. It is used to design and produce documents that can be printed. You can create anything from a simple business card to a large book.

Page layout software includes tools that allow you to easily position text and graphics on document pages. For example, using PageMaker, you could create a newsletter that includes articles and pictures on each page. You can place pictures and text next to each other, on top of each other, or beside each other wherever you want them to go.

Question 2.
Mention three tools in PageMaker and write their keyboard shortcuts.
Answer:

1. Pointer Tool F9
2. Rotating Tool Shift + F2
3. Line Tool Shift + F3

Question 3.
Write the use of arty three tools in PageMaker along with symbols.
Answer:

Question 4.
How do you rejoin split blocks?
Answer:
Rejoining split blocks
To rejoin the two text blocks

1. Place the cursor on the bottom handle of the second text.block, click and drag the bottom handle up to the top.
2. Then place the cursor on the bottom handle of the first text block, and click and drag the bottom handle down if necessary.

Question 5.
How do you Sink frames containing text?
Answer:

• Draw a second frame with the Frame tool of your choice.
• Click the first frame to select it.
• Click on the red triangle to load the text icon.
• Click the second frame. PageMaker flows the text into the second frame.

Question 6.
What is the use of Master Page?
Answer:
Any text or object that you place on the master page will appear on the entire document pages to which the master is applied. It shortens the amount of time because you don’t have to create the same objects repeatedly on subsequent pages. Master Pages commonly contain repeating logos, page numbers, headers, and footers. They also contain non-printing layout guides, such as column guides, ruler guides, and margin guides.

Question 7.
How to you insert page numbers in Master pages?
Answer:

• Click on Master Pages icon.
• Then click on Text Tool. Now the cursor changes to I – beam.
• Then Click on the left Master page where you want to put the page number.

Part IV

Explain In Details

Question 1.
Explain the tools in PageMaker toolbox,
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the steps to place the text in a frame.
Answer:
Placing Text in a Frame
You can also use frames to hold the text in place of using text blocks.
To place text in a Frame

1. Click on one of a Frame tool from the Toolbox.
2. Draw a frame with one of PageMaker’s Frame tools (Rectangle frame tool or Ellipse Frame Tool or Polygon frame Tool). Make sure the object remains selected.
3. Click on File. The File menu will appear.
4. Click on Place. The Place dialog box will appear.
5. Locate the document that contains the text you want to place, select it.
6. Click on Open.
7. Click in a frame to place the text in it. The text will be placed in the frame.

Question 3.
How can you convert text in a text block to a frame?
Answer:
After created text in a text block, if you want to convert it to a frame. You can do this by using these steps.

• Draw the frame of your choice using one of the PageMaker’s Frame tool.
• Select the text block you want to insert in the frame.
• Click the frame while pressing the Shift key. Now both elements will be selected.
• Choose Element > Frame > Attach Content on the Menu bar.
• Now the text appears in the frame.

Question 4.
Write the steps to draw a star using polygon tool?
Answer:
Drawing a Star using Polygon tool
To draw a Star

1. Click on the Polygon tool from the toolbox. The cursor changes to a crosshair.
2. Click and drag anywhere on the screen. As you drag, a Polygon appears.
3. Release the mouse button when the Polygon is of the desired size.
4. Choose Element > Polygon Settings in the menu bar. Now Polygon Settings dialogue box appears.
5. Type 5 in the Number of the sides text box.
6. Type 50% in Star inset textbox.
7. Click OK. Now the required star appears on the screen.

12th Computer Applications Guide An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part A

Choose The Correct Answers:

Question 1.
Which of the following is DTP software?
a) page maker
b) in design
c) quark x press
d) all of the above.
Answer:
d) all of the above.

Question 2.
The main components of the page maker windows are
a) title bar, the menu bar
b) toolbar, ruler
c) scroll bars and text area
d) all of the above.
Answer:
d) all of the above.

Question 3.
…………………. is the topmost part of the windows.
a) title bar
b) menu bar
c) toolbar
d) toolbox.
Answer:
a) title bar

Question 4.
How many control buttons are present in the title bar?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 5.
There are ………………… ruler bar.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer:
b) 2

Question 6.
When you move the mouse pointer on a button in the toolbar, a short text that appears is called ……………………………..
(a) Tooltip
(b) Text
(c) Show text
(d) Short text
Answer:
(a) Tooltip

Question 7.
To select a paragraph, press ………….. with I – Beam.
a) select click
b) right-click
c) double click
d) triple-click.
Answer:
d) triple-click.

Question 8.
………………… tool is used to select .move and resize text objects and graphics.
a) pointer tool
b) text tool
c) rotating tool
d) cropping tool.
Answer:
a) pointer tool

Question 9.
The ………………… key is used to press down and
the movements keys.
a) Ctrl
b) shift
c) alt
d) tab
Answer:
b) shift

Question 10.
In page maker, the text of the document can type inside a …………………
a) text tool
b) text area
c) text block
d) text box
Answer:
c) text block

Question 11.
How many scroll bars are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 12.
Text can be contained …………………
a) text blocks
b) text frame
c) either a (or) b
d) both a and b
Answer:
c) either a (or) b

Question 13.
Master pages commonly contain …………………
a) repeating logos, page numbers
b) headers and footers
c) both a and b
d) none of these.
Answer:
c) both a and b

Question 14.
A new document in page maker is called…………………
a) Untitled-1
b) Document-1
c) New Document
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Untitled-1

Question 15.
The flashing verticle bar is called ……………………………
(a) scroll bar
(b) ruler
(c) Footer
(d) Insertion point
Answer:
(d) Insertion point

Fill in The Blanks:

1. DTP expands
Answer:
Desktop publishing,

2. Adobe page Is a layout software,
Answer:
page

3. To make an adobe page make in windows is
Answer:

4. The area outside of the border is referred to as the
Answer:
pasteboard

5. In the toolbar a short text will appear as its description called
Answer:
Tooltip

6. The command is used to reverse the action of the last command.
Answer:
undo

7. The short cut key for undo is
Answer:
ctrl + z

8. A contains the text you type, paste, or import in Pagemaker.
Answer:
text block

9. The two handles are seen above and below of the text, the block is called _________
Answer:
window shades

10. Generate a new page by selecting in the menu bar.
Answer:
layout → insert pages.

11. All text in page maker resides inside containers called
Answer:
text blocks.

12. In page maker, text and graphics that you draw or import is called
Answer:
objects.

13. The process of connecting text among text blocks is called text
Answer:
threading.

14. Text the flows through one or more .threaded blocks is called a
Answer:
story,

15. The palette is especially useful when you are doing lot of formatting
Answer:
control palette.

16. Page maker has a line tool
Answer:
2

17. As the characters are typed, the flashing vertical bar called the
Answer:
insertion point

18. is the process of changing the general arrangement of text.
Answer:
Formatting

19. means making changes to the text.
Answer:
Editing

20. Reversing the Undo command is known as.
Answer:
Redo

Short Cut Keys

1. Ctrl+N – Create New Document
2. F9 – Pointer Tool
3. Shift+F2 – Rotating Tool
4. Shift+F3 – Line Tool
5. Shift*F4 – Rectangle Too!
6, Shift+F5 – Ellipse Too!
7. Shift+F6 – Polygon Too!
8. Shift+Alt +Drag Left Mouse Button- Hand Tool
9. Shift +Ait+ FI – Text Tool
10. Shift +Ait +F2 – Cropping Too!
11. Shift+Alt +F3 – Constrained Line Tool
12, Shift+Alt +F4 – Rectangle Frame Too!
13. Shift + <– – One Character To Left
14. Shift +→ – One Character To The Light
15. Shift +^ – One Line Up
16. Shift* – One Line Down
17. Shift +End “ To End Of The Current Line
18. Shift+Home – To The Beginning Of The Current Line
19. Ctrl* A – Select Entire Document
20. Ctrl+Z – Undo
21. Ctrl+X – Cut
22. Ctri+V – Paste
23. Ctri+C – Copy
24. Ctri+S – Saving A Document
25. Ctri+W – Closing A Document
26. Left Arrow (←) – One Character To The Left
27. Right Arrow (→) – One Character To The Right
28. One Word To The Left – Ctrl +Left Arrow
29. One Word To The Right – Ctrl + Right Arrow
30. Up Arrow – Up One Une
31. Down Arrow- Down One Line
32. End – ToThe End Of A Line
33. Home – To The Beginning Of A Line
34. Ctrl + Up Arrow – Up One Paragraph
35. Ctrl + Down – Down One Paragraph
36. Ctrl + Q – Opening An Existing Document
37. Ctrl + Space Bar – to zoom in
38. Ctrl + Alt + Space Bar-ar- To Zoom Out
39. Ctrl+ T – Character Formatting
40. Ctrl+ – Control Palette
41. Alt+ Ctrl+ G – Going To Specific
42. Ctrl4- Alt+ P – Page Number Displays
43. Ctri+ P – Print

Assertion And Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Adobe PageMaker is a page layout software.
Reason (R): It is used to design and produce documents that can be printed,
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): A document pageis displayed within a dark border.
Reason (R): The area outside of the dark border is referred to as the Margin.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
c) (A) is true and (R) is false

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Menu bar ¡s the topmost part of the window.
Reason (R): Title bar shows the name of the software and the name ofthe document at the left, and the control buttons (Minimize, Maximize and Close) at theright.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) Is true
Answer:
d) (A) is false and (R) Is true

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Editing means creating the text. Reason (R); Editing encompasses many tasks, such as inserting and deleting words and phrases, correcting errors, and moving and copying text to different places in the document. a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false d) (A) is false and (R) is true Answer: d) (A) is false and (R) is true

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Text blocks that are connected the way are threaded.
Reason (R): A Text block can be connected to another text block so that the text in one text block can flow into another text block.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true and (R) is false
d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Match The Following

1. One character to the left a) Ctrl + Left Arrow
2. One character to the right b) Ctrl + Right Arrow
3. One word to the left c) Left Arrow
4. One word to the right d) Right Arrow
5. Up one line e) Ctrl +Up Arrow
6. Down one line f) Ctrl +Down Arrow
7. To the end of a line g) End
8. To the beginning of a line h) Home
9. Up one paragraph i) Up Arrow
10. Down one paragraph j) Down Arrow
Answer:
1. c 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. I 6. j 7. g 8. h 9. e 10. f

Find The Odd One On The Following

1. (a) Page Maker
(b) Indesign
(c) QuarkXpress
(d) Ubuntu
Answer:
(d) Ubuntu

2. (a) File
(b) Tool Tip
(c) Elements
(d) Utilities
Answer:
(b) Tool Tip

3. (a) Type
(b) Paste
(c) Import
(d) Print
Answer:
(d) Print

4. (a) Text Block
(b) Ruler
(c) Text Tool
(d) InsertionPoint
Answer:
(b) Ruler

5. (a) Ctrl+Z
(b) Ctrl+Y
(c) Ctrl+T
(d) Ctrl+C
Answer:
(c) Ctrl+T

6. (a) Text Tool
(b) Line Tool
(c) HandTool
(d) Window
Answer:
(d) Window

7. (a) Type
(b) Select
(c) zoom
(d) edit Answer:
(c) zoom

8. (a) Shift+end
(b) Shift+home
(c) Shift +→
(d) shift+F1
Answer:
(d) shift+F1

9. (a) Threaded
(b) Text
(c) Threading Text
(d) story
Answer:
(b) Text

10. (a) Save
(b) Element
(c) Frame
(d) Delete
Answer:
(a) Save

Choose The In Correct Pair

1. (a) Edit and Paste
(b) Layout and Go to Page
(c) Window and Hide tools
(d) Element and Cascade
Answer:
(d) Element and Cascade

2. a) File → Print and Ctrl + P
b) Centre Alignment and Ctrl+C
c) Window→ Show colors and Press Ctrl + J
d) Type → Character and Press Ctrl + T
Answer:
b) Centre Alignment and Ctrl+C

3. a) File →New and Edit → Paste
b) Ctrl + X → to Cut and Ctrl + V → to Paste
c) Ctrl + C → to Copy and Ctrl + V → to Paste
d) Up one line, Press Up Arrow and Down one line, press Down Arrow
Answer:
a) File →New and Edit → Paste

4. a) Draw Star; Polygon tool
b) Draw Rounded corner, Rectangle tool
c) Draw Dotted line, the Pointer tool
d) Draw Rectangle, Ellipse tool
Answer:
c) Draw Dotted line, the Pointer tool

5. a) Zoom tool, Magnify
b) Hand tool, Scroll
c) Rotating tool. Trim
d) Ellipse tool, Circles
Answer:
c) Rotating tool. Trim

Part B

Short Answers

Question 1.
What is the purpose of the page layout tool?
Answer:
Page layout software includes tools that allow you to easily position text and graphics on document pages.

Question 2.
Write a note on scroll bars?
Answer:
Scrolling is the process of moving up and down or left and right through the document window. There are two scroll bars namely Vertical and Horizontal scroll bars for scrolling the document vertically or horizontally.

Question 3.
What is the title bar?
Answer:

• It is the topmost part of the window.
• It shows the name of the software and the name of the document at the left, and the control buttons (Minimize, Maximize and Close) at the right.

Question 4.
What is the use of entering key?
Answer:
The Enter key should be pressed only at the end of a paragraph or when a blank line is to be inserted.

Question 5.
What is a tooltip?
Answer:
If you place the mouse pointer on a button in the Toolbar, a short text will appear as its description called ‘Tool Tip’

Question 6.
Write the steps to show toolbox in page maker,
Answer:

1. Click on Window. The Window menu will appear.
2. Click on Show tools.

Question 7.
What are the two ways of creating text blocks?
Answer:

1. Click or drag the text tool on the page or pasteboard, and then type
2. Click a loaded text icon in an empty column or page.

Question 8.
Write the steps to show ruler in page maker.
Answer:

1. Click on View. The View menu will appear.
2. Click on Show Rulers. Rulers appear along the top and left sides of the document window.

Question 9.
Write the steps to hide ruler in page maker.
Answer:

1. Click on View, The View menu will appear.
2. Click on Hide Rulers to hide the rulers.

Question 10.
What is the purpose of Undo command?
Answer:

• The Undo command is used to reverse the action of the last command.
• To reverse the last command, click on Edit Undo in the menu bar
  (or)
• Press Ctrl + Z on the keyboard.

Question 11.
What are the two-line tools in page maker?
Answer:
PageMaker has two Line tools. The first one creates a straight line at any orientation. The second is a constrained Line tool that draws only at increments of 45 degrees.

Question 12.
Write a short note on the Text block in the page maker.
Answer:
A text block contains the text you type, paste, or im¬port. You can’t see the borders of a text block until you select it with the pointer tool.
You create text blocks in two ways:

1. Click or drag the text tool on the page or pasteboard, and then type.
2. Click a loaded text icon in an empty column or page.

Question 13.
How will you rejoin the split blocks?
To rejoin the two blocks

• Place the cursor on the bottom handle of the sec¬ond text block, click and drag the bottom handle up to the top.
• Then place the cursor on the bottom handle of the first text block, and ciick and drag the bottom handle down if necessary.

Question 14.
What do you mean by threading text?
Answer:

• Text blocks that are connected in this way are threaded.
• The process of connecting text among Text blocks is called threading text.

Question 15.
How will you close a document?
Answer:
The document can be closed using the File > Close command in the menu bar (or) Ctrl +W in the keyboard.

Question 16.
How will you create a text block with a text tool?
Answer:
To create a text block with the text tool:
(i) Select the text tool (T) from the toolbox. The pointer turns into an I-beam.

(ii) On an empty area of the page or pasteboard, do one of the following:
Click the I-beam where you want to insert text. This creates a text block the width of the column or page. By default, the insertion point jumps to the left side of the text block.

(iii) Type the text you want.
Unlike with a text frame, you do not see the borders of a text block until you click the text with the pointer tool.

Question 17.
How to Hide the Master Items?
Answer:
To make the master items invisible on a particular page, switch to the appropriate page, then choose View> Display Masteritems (which is usually ticked).

Part C

Explain In Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write the steps to resize a text block.
Answer:

• Click on the Pointer tool.
• Click either the left or right corner handle on the bottom of the text block and drag. When you release the mouse button, the text in the text: block will reflow to fit the new size of the text block.
• A red triangle in the bottom windowshade means there is more text In the text block than is visi¬ble on the page. Drag the window shade handle down to show more text.

Question 2.
Write the steps to Seles® Text using the mouse
Answer:
To select text using a mouse, follow these steps :

• Place the insertion point to the left of the first character to be selected.
• Press the left mouse button and drag the mouse to a position where you want to stop selecting.
• Release the mouse button.
• The selected text gets highlighted.

Question 3.
Differentiate copying and moving the text
Answer:

Question 4.
Write the steps to delete a character or word or block of text
Answer:
Deleting Text
You can easily delete a character, or word, or block of text.
To delete a character, do the following :

1. Position the insertion point to the left of the character to be deleted.
2. Press the Delete key on the keyboard.
   (or)
3. Position the insertion point to the right of the character to be deleted.
4. Press the Backspace key on the keyboard.

To delete a block of text, do the following :

1. Select the text to be deleted.
2. Press Delete or Backspace in the keyboard (or) Edit → Clear command.

Question 5.
How will you create a text box with the text tool?
Answer:
To create a text block with the text tool:
1. Select the text tool (T) from the toolbox. The pointer turns into an I-beam.

2. On an empty area of the page or pasteboard, do one of the following:

• Click the I-beam where you want to insert text.
• This creates a text block the width of the column or page. By default, the insertion point jumps to the left side of the text block.

3. Type the text you want.
Unlike with a text frame, you do not see the borders of a text block until you click the text with the pointer tool.

Question 6.
Write the steps to resize a text block.
Answer:

1. Click on the Pointer tool.
2. Click either the left or right corner handle on the bottom of the text block and drag.
3. When you release the mouse button, the text in the text block will reflow to fit the new size of the text block.
4. A red triangle in the bottom window shade means there is more text in the text block than is visible on the page.
5. Drag the window shade handle down to show more text.

Question 7.
Write the steps to split a textbox into two.
Answer:
To split a text block into two

1. Place the cursor on the bottom handle, click and drag upwards. When you release the bottom handle will contain a red triangle.
2. Click once on this, and the cursor changes to a loaded text icon.
3. Position this where the second part of the text is to be, and click.

Question 8.
Write the steps to Select Text Using the Keyboard
Answer:
To select text using a keyboard, follow these steps:

1. Place the insertion point to the left of the first character you wish to select.
2. The Shift key is pressed down and the movement keys are used to highlight the required text.
3. When the Shift key is released, the text is selected

Question 9.
Write the steps to split a textbox into two.
Answer:
To split a text block into two

1. Place the cursor on the bottom handle, click and drag upwards. When you release the bottom handle will contain a red triangle.
2. Click once on this, and the cursor changes to a loaded text icon.
3. Position this where the second part of the text is to be, and click.

Question 10.
Write the steps to import the text.
Answer:

1. Choose File → Place. The Place dialog box will appear.
2. Locate the document that contains the text you want to place and select it.
3. Click on the Open in the Place dialog box. The pointer changes to the loaded text icon.
4. Make a text block to place the text. (Or) Click on the page to place the text. The text will be placed on the page.
5. If the text to be placed is too big to fit on one page, PageMaker allows you to place it on several pages. This can be done manually or automatically.

Question 11.
What are the various options to save a document?
Answer:

1. Choose File > Save in the menu bar. (or)
2. The file name is given in the File name list box.
3. Then click on the Save button to save the document.
4. The document is now saved and a file name appears in the title bar.

Once a file is saved under a name, to save it again the name need not be entered again. The file can be saved simply by selecting the File > Save command or by clicking the Save button (or) clicking Ctrl + S on the keyboard.

Question 12.
Write the steps to save a document with a new name or in a different location
Answer:
You can save a document with a new name or in a different location using Save AS command. Save AS command creates a new copy of the document. So, two versions of the document ex¬ist. The versions are completely separate, and the work you do on one document has no effect on the other.

To save a document with a new name or in a different location:

1. Choose File > Save As in the menu bar. (or) Press Shift + Ctrl + S on the keyboard. Now Save Publication dialog box will appear.
2. Type a new name or specify a new location.
3. Click the Save button.

Question 13.
How will you open an existing document?
Answer:

1. Choose File > Open in the menu bar (or)Click on the Open icon () in the Tool bar (or) Press Ctrl + 0 in the Keyboard. An open Publication dialog box as shown that appears on the screen.
2. The file name is given in the File name list box. The name of the file to be opened can be chosen from the list, which is displayed.
3. Then click on the Open button. Now the required file is opened.

Question 14.
Write the procedure to scroll the document.
Answer:
The scrolling procedure is as follows:

1. To scroll left and right the left and right arrow respectively should be clicked.
2. To scroll up and down the up and down arrow respectively should be clicked.
3. To scroll a relative distance in the document the scroll box should be drawn up or down.

Question 15.
Write the steps to draw a line.
Answer:

1. Select the Line tool from the toolbox. The cursor changes to a crosshair.
2. Click and drag on the screen to draw your line. As you drag, a line appears. 44
3. Release the mouse button and the line will be drawn and selected, with sizing handles on either end. Resize the line by clicking and dragging the handles, if necessary.

Question 16.
Write the steps to Draw Rectangles or Ellipses.
Answer:
You can also draw rectangles and ellipses shapes by using the same technique as used in line drawing.

To draw a rectangle or ellipse:

1. Click on the Rectangle or Ellipse tool from the toolbox. The cursor changes to a crosshair.
2. Click and drag anywhere on the screen. As you drag, a rectangle or ellipse appears.
3. Release the mouse button when the rectangle or ellipse is of the desired size.
4. Press the Shift key while you’re drawing to constrain the shape to a square or circle.

Question 17.
Write the steps to Draw Polygon
Answer:
To draw a Polygon

1. Click on the Polygon tool from the toolbox. The cursor changes to a crosshair.
2. Click and drag anywhere on the screen. As you drag, a Polygon appears.
3. Release the mouse button when the Polygon is of the desired size.

Question 18.
Write the steps to Draw a star with given number of sides and required inset.
Answer:

1. The value of ‘Star inset’ is 50% The number of sides is 15
2. The value of ‘Star inset’ is 25% The number of sides is 25
3. The value of ‘Star inset’ is 35% The number of sides is 70

Question 19.
Write a short note on Master Page.
Answer:

• Master Pages commonly contain repeating logos, page numbers, headers, and footers. They also contain nonprinting layout guides, such as column guides, ruler guides, and margin guides.
• A master item cannot be selected on a document page.
• You can create, modify, and delete objects on master pages just like any other objects, but you must do so from the master pages themselves.

Question 20.
Write the steps to create a new Master Page
Answer:

1. Click the New Master Page icon in the Master Pages palette. The New Master Page dialog box appears.
2. Enter the name of the new master page in the Name field.
3. Make the appropriate changes in the Margins and Column Guides fields.
4. Click on OK. A new Master Page appears in the Master Pages palette.

Part D

Explain In Detail.

Question 1.
What are the different ways of selecting the text?
Answer:
Selecting Text:
Text can be selected using the mouse or the keyboard.
Selecting Text using the mouse:
To select text using a mouse, follow these steps :

1. Place the insertion point to the left of the first character to be selected.
2. Press the left mouse button and drag the mouse to a position where you want to stop selecting.
3. Release the mouse button.
4. The selected text gets highlighted.

To Select Press:

1. A Word Double-click with I-beam
2. A Paragraph Triple-click with I-beam

Selecting Text using the Keyboard:
To select text using a keyboard, follow these steps :

1. Place the Insertion point to the left of the first character you wish to select.
2. The Shift key is pressed down and the movement keys are used to highlight the required text.
3. When the Shift key is released, the text is selected.

To Select – Press
One character to the left – Shift + ←
One character to the right – Shift + →
One line up – Shift + ↑
One line down – Shift + ↓
To the end of the current line – Shift +End
To the beginning of the current line – Shift + Home,
Entire Document – Ctrl + A

Question 2.
Write the steps to place text in a frame
Answer:

1. Click on one of a Frame tool from the Toolbox.
2. Draw a frame with one of PageMaker’s Frame tools (Rectangle frame tool or Ellipse Frame Tool or Polygon frame Tool). Make sure the object remains selected.
3. Click on File. The File menu will appear.
4. Click on Place. The Place dialog box will appear.
5. Locate the document that contains the text you want to place, select it.
6. Click on Open.
7. Click in a frame to place the text in it. The text will be placed in the frame.

Question 3.
Explain the magnifying and reducing with the zoom tool.
Answer:
Use the zoom tool to magnify or reduce the display of any area in your publication

To magnify or reduce with the zoom tool:
1. Select the zoom tool. The pointer becomes a magnifying glass with a plus sign in its center, in¬dicating that the zoom tool will magnify your view of the image. To toggle between magnification and reduction, press the Ctrl key.

2. Position the magnifying glass at the center of the area you want to magnify or reduce, and then click to zoom in or out. Continue clicking until the publication is at the magnification level you want. When the publication has reached its maximum magnification or reduction level, the center of the magnifying glass appears blank.

To magnify part of a page by dragging:

1. Select the zoom tool.
2. Drag to draw a marquee around the area you want to magnify.

To zoom in or out while using another tool:
Press Ctrl+Spacebar to zoom in. Press Ctrl+Alt+Spacebar to zoom out.

Question 4.
Explain how will you draw a dotted line?
Answer:
To draw a Dotted line:

1. Double click the Line tool from the toolbox. A Custom Stroke dialogue box appears.
2. Select the required Stroke style in the drop-down list box.
3. Then click the OK button. Now the cursor changes to a crosshair.
4. Click and drag on the screen to draw your dotted line. As you drag, the line appears.
5. Release the mouse button and the line will be drawn and selected, with sizing handles on either end.
   Resize the line by clicking and dragging the handles, if necessary.

Question 5.
Write the steps To draw a Dotted line
Answer:

1. Double click the Line tool from the toolbox. A Custom Stroke dialogue box appears.
2. Select the required Stroke style in the drop-down list box.
3. Then click the OK button. Now the cursor changes to a crosshair.
4. Click and drag on the screen to draw your dotted line. As you drag, the line appears.
5. Release the mouse button and the line will be drawn and selected, with sizing handles on either end.
6. Resize the line by clicking and dragging the handles, if necessary.

Question 6.
Write the steps to Drawing a Rounded Corner Rectangle
Answer:
To draw a rounded-corner rectangle:

1. Double-click the Rectangle tool in the toolbox. The Rounded Corners dialog box appears.
2. Choose a corner setting from the preset shapes.
3. Click on OK. The cursor changes to a crosshair.
4. Click and drag anywhere on the screen.
5. Release the mouse button when the rectangle is the desired size.
6. Press the Shift key as you draw to constrain the shape to a rounded corner square.

Question 7.
Write the steps to Fill Shapes with Colors and Patterns
Answer:
Filling Rectangle with colour:

1. Draw a rectangle using the Rectangle tool.
2. Select the rectangle.
3. Choose Window → Show colors in the menu bar (or) Press Ctrl + J. Now Colors palette appears.
4. Click on the required colour from the Colors Palette.
5. The rectangle has been filled with colour.

Question 8.
Write all the methods to go to a specific page.
Answer:
Pagemaker provides several methods for navigating the pages in your publication.

Method 1:
You can move from one page to another by using the Page up and Page down keys on your key- i 10. board. These is probably the navigation methods you will use most often.
Method 2;
You can move from one page to another by using the page icons at the left bottom of the screen.
Click on the page icon that corresponds to the page that you want to view. The page is displayed,

Method 3:
Using the Go to Page dialog box.
To go to a specific page in a document

1. Choose Layout → Go to Page in the menu bar (or) Press Alt + Ctrl + G in the keyboard. Now the Go to Page dialog box appears.
2. In the dialog box, type the page number that you want to view
3. Then click on OK, The required page is displayed on the screen.

Question 9.
What are the various methods to the inset page numbers in PageMaker Software?
Answer:
To make page numbers appear on every page

1. Click on the Master Pages icon.
2. Then dick on Text Tool. Now the cursor changes to I – beam.
3. Then Click on the left Master page where you want to put the page number,
4. Press Ctrl + Ait + P.
5. The page number displays as ’LM’ on the left master page.
6. Similarly, click on the right Master page where you want to put the page number.
7. Press Ctrl + Alt + P.
8. The page number displays as ‘RM’ on the right master page, but will appear correctly on the actual pages.

Question 10.
Write the steps to print a document.
Answer:
1. Choose File → Print in the menu bar (or) Press Ctrl + P on the keyboard.
The Print Document dialog box appears.
2. Choose the settings in the Print Document dialog box as

• Select the printer from the Printer drop-down list box,
• Choose the pages to be printed in the Pages group box by selecting one of the following available options

All This option prints the whole document.
Ranges: This option prints individual pages by the page number or a range of pages.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Guide Pdf Chapter 11 Economics of Development and Planning Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Economics of Development and Planning

12th Economics Guide Economics of Development and Planning Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice questions

Question 1.
“Redistribution with Growth” became popular slogan under which approach?
a) Traditional approach
b) New welfare oriented approach
c) Industrial approach
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) New welfare oriented approach

Question 2.
Which is not the feature of economic growth?
a) Concerned with developed nations
b) Gradual change
c) Concerned with quantitative aspect
d) Wider concept
Answer:
d) Wider concept

Question 3.
Which among the following is a characteristic of underdevelopment?
a) Vicious circle of poverty
b) Rising mass consumption
c) Growth of Industries
d) High rate of urbanization
Answer:
a) Vicious circle of poverty

Question 4.
The non-economic determinant of economic development
a) Natural resources
b) Human resource
c) Capital formation
d) Foreign trade
Answer:
b) Human resource

Question 5.
Economic growth measures the ……………………
a) Growth of productivity
b) Increase in nominal income
c) Increase in output
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Increase in output

Question 6.
The supply side vicious circle of poverty suggests that poor nations remain poor because
a) Saving remains low
b) Investment remains low
c) There is a lack of effective government
d) a and b above
Answer:
d) a and b above

Question 7.
Which of the following plan has focussed on the agriculture and rural economy?
a) People’s Plan
b) Bombay Plan
c) Gandhian Plan
d) Vishveshwarya Plan
Answer:
c) Gandhian Plan

Question 8.
Arrange following plans in correct chronological order
a) People’s Plan
b) Bombay Plan
c) Jawaharlal Nehru Plan
d) Vishveshwarya Plan
Answer choices
a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b) (iv) (hi) (ii) (i)
c) (i) (ii) (iv) (ii)
d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer:
b) Bombay Plan

Question 9.
M. N. Roy was associated with …………..
a) Congress Plan
b) People’s Plan
c) Bombay Plan
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) People’s Plan

Question 10.
Which of the following country adopts indicative planning?
a) France
b) Germany
c) Italy
d) Russia
Answer:
b) Germany

Question 11.
Short-term plan is also known as ……………………
a) Controlling Plans
b) De-controlling Plans
c) Rolling Plans
d) De-rolling Plans
Answer:
a) Controlling Plans

Question 12.
Long-term plan is also known as …………
a) Progressive Plans
b) Non-progressive Plan
c) Perspective Plans
d) Non-perspective Plans
Answer:
c) Perspective Plans

Question 13.
The basic philosophy behind long – term planning is to bring ………………. changes in the economy?
a) Financial
b) Agricultural
c) Industrial
d) Structural
Answer:
c) Industrial

Question 14.
Sarvodaya Plan was advocated by ……………..
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) J.P. Narayan
c) S. N Agarwal
d) M. N. Roy
Answer:
b) J.P. Narayan

Question 15.
Planning Commission was set up in the year ………….
a) 1950
b) 1951
c) 1947
d) 1948
Answer:
a) 1950

Question 16.
Who wrote the book ‘The Road to Serfdom’?
a) Friedrich Hayek
b) H. R. Hicks
c) David Ricardo
d) Thomas Robert Malthus
Answer:
a) Friedrich Hayek

Question 17.
Perspective plan is also known as ………….
a) Short-term plan
b) Medium-term plan
c) Long-term plan
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Long-term plan

Question 18.
NITI Aayog is formed through ……………
a) Presidential Ordinance ‘
b) Allocation of business rules by President of India
c) Cabinet resolution
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Cabinet resolution

Question 19.
Expansion of NITI Aayog?
a) National Institute to Transform India
b) National Institute for Transforming India
c) National Institution to Transform India
d) National Institution for Transforming India
Answer:
d) National Institution for Transforming India

Question 20.
The Chair Person of NITI Aayog is
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Vice – President
d) Finance Minister
Answer:
a) Prime Minister

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define economic development
Answer:

1. Economic development is regarded as a process whereby there is an increase in the consumption of goods and services by individuals.
2. From the welfare perspective, economic development is defined as a sustained improvement in health, literacy and standard of living.

Question 22.
Mention the indicators of development.
Answer:

• Gross National product (GNP)
• GNP Per capita
• Welfare
• Social Indicators

Question 23.
Distinguish between economic growth and development
Answer:

Question 24.
What is GNP?
Answer:
Gross National Product (GNP):

1. GNP is the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a nation in a particular year, plus income earned by its citizens (including income of those located abroad), minus income of non – residents located in that country.
2. GNP is one measure of the economic condition of a country, under the assumption that a higher GNP leads to a higher quality of living, all other things being equal.

Question 25.
Define economic planning.
Answer:
Economic planning is “collective contral or suppression of private activities of production and exchange”. – Robbins.

Question 26.
What are the social indicators of economic development?
Answer:
Social Indicators:

1. Social indicators are normally referred to as the basic and collective needs of the people.
2. The direct provision of basic needs such as health, education, food, water, sanitation, and housing facilities check social backwardness.

Question 27.
Write a short note on NITI Aayog.
Answer:

1. NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was formed on January 1, 2015, through a Union Cabinet resolution.
2. NITI Aayog is a policy think-tank of the Government of India. It replaced the Planning Commission from 13th August 2014.
3. The Prime Minister is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog and Union Ministers will be Ex – officio members.
4. The Vice-Chairman of the NITI Aayog is the functional head and the first Vice-Chairman was Arvind Panangariya.

PART-C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Elucidate major causes of vicious circle of poverty with diagram
Answer:
The vicious circle of Poverty

A country is poor because of low capital income. The vicious circle of poverty operates both on the demand side and the supply side.
It is associated with low rate of saving and investment on the supply side and low level of income leads to low level of demand on the demand side.

Question 29.
What are the non-economic factors determining development?
Answer:

1. Human Resource
2. Technical Know-how
3. Political Freedom
4. Social Organization
5. Corruption free administration
6. Desire for Development
7. Moral, ethical and social values
8. Casino Capitalism
9. Patrimonial Capitalism

Question 30.
How would you break the vicious circle of poverty?
Answer:

• In the demand side Nurkse suggested the strategy of balanced growth to break vicious circle of poverty.
• The balanced growth (i.e.,) simultaneous investment in large number of industries creates mutual demand.
• Thus, through the strategy of balanced growth, vicious circle of poverty operating on the demand side of capital formation can be broken.
• In the supply side to break the circle a country has to keep its marginal rate of savings higher than its average rate of savings.

Question 31.
Trace the evolution of economic planning in India.
Answer:
The evolution of planning in India is stated below:

(I) Sir M. Vishveshwarya (1934):
A prominent engineer and politician made his first attempt in laying the foundation for economic planning in India in 1934 through his book, “Planned Economy of India”. It was a 10-year plan.

(II) Jawaharlal Nehru (1938):
Set-up “National Planning Commission” by a committee but due to the changes in the political era and Second World War, it did not materialize.

(III) Bombay Plan (1940):
The 8 leading industrialists of Bombay presented the “Bombay Plan”. It was a 15 Year Investment Plan.

(IV) S.N Agarwal (1944):
Gave the “Gandhian Plan” focusing on the agricultural and rural economy.

(V) M.N. Roy (1945):
Drafted ‘People’s Plan”. It was aiming at the mechanization of agricultural production and distribution by the state only.

(VI) J.P. Narayan (1950):
Advocated, “Sarvodaya Plan” which was inspired by the Gandhian Plan and with the idea of Vinoba Bhave. It gave importance not only for agriculture but encouraged small and cottage industries in the plan.

Question 32.
Describe the case for planning.
Answer:

The economic planning is justified on the following grounds:-

• To accelerate and strengthen market mechanism.
• To remove unemployment ‘
• To achieve balanced development
• To remove poverty and inequalities.
  Arthur lewis says, ‘planning is more necessary in backward countries to devise ways and means and to make concentrated efforts to raise national income.

Question 33.
Distinguish between functional and structural planning.
Answer:
Functional planning refers to that planning which seeks to remove economic difficulties by directing all the planning activities within the existing economic and social structure.
The structural planning refers to a good deal of changes in the socioeconomic framework of the country.
This type of planning is adopted mostly in under developed countries.

Question 34.
What are the functions of NITI Aayog?
Answer:
Functions of NITI Aayog:
(I) Cooperative and Competitive Federalism:
To enable the States to have active participation in the formulation of national policy.

(II) Shared National Agenda:
To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities and strategies with the active involvement of States.

(III) Decentralized Planning:
To restructure the planning process into a bottom-up model.

(IV) Vision and Scenario Planning:
To design medium and long – term strategic frameworks towards India’s future.

(V) Network of Expertise:
To mainstream external ideas and expertise into government policies and programmes through collective participation.

(VI) Harmonization:
To facilitate harmonization of actions across different layers of government, especially when involving cross-cutting and overlapping issues across multiple sectors; through communication, coordination,
collaboration, and convergence amongst all the stakeholders.

(VII) Conflict Resolution:
To provide a platform for mutual consensus to inter-sectoral, interdepartmental, interstate as well as center-state issues for all speedy execution of the government programmes.

(VIII) Coordinating Interface with the World:
It will act nodal point to harness global expertise and resources coming from International organizations for India’s developmental process.

(IX) Internal Consultancy:
It provides internal consultancy to Central and State governments on policy and programmes.

(X) Capacity Building:
It enables to provide capacity building and technology up-gradation across government, benchmarking with latest global trends and providing managerial and technical know-how.

(XI) Monitoring and Evaluation:
It will monitor the implementation of policies and progammes and evaluate the impacts.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
Discuss the.economic determinants of economic development.
Answer:
Economic factors:

1. Natural Resource:-
The existence of natural resources in abundance is essential for development.
A country deficient in natural resources may not be in a position to develop rapidly.

2. Capital Formation:-
Capital formation refers to the net addition to the exist¬ing stock of capital goods which are either tangible like plants and machinery or intangible like health, education and research.

3 Size of the Market:-
Large size of the market would stimulate production,increase employment and raise the National per capita income.

4. Structural change:-
Structural change refers to change in the occupational structure of the economy.

5. Financial System:-
Financial system implies the existence of an efficient and organized banking system in the country.

6. Marketable Surplus :-
Marketable surplus refers to the total amount of farm output cultivated by farmers over and above their family consumption needs. This is a surplus that can be sold in the market for earning income.

7. Foreign Trade:-
The country which enjoys favourable balance of trade is always developed. It has huge forex reserves and stable exchange rate.

8. Economic system:-
The countries which adopt free market mechanism enjoy better growth rate compared to controlled economics.

Question 36.
Describe different types of Planning.
Answer:
(I) Democratic Vs Totalitarian:
A form of rule in which the government attempts to maintain ‘total’ control over society, including all aspects of the public and private lives of its citizens.

(II) Centralized Vs Decentralized:

1. Under centralized planning, the entire planning process in a country is under a central planning authority.
2. This authority formulates a central plan, fixes objectives, targets and priorities for every sector of the economy.
3. In other words, it is called ‘planning from above’.

(III) Planning by Direction Vs Inducement:
Under planning by direction, there is a central authority which plans, directs and orders the execution of the plan in accordance with pre-determined targets and priorities.

(IV) Indicative Vs Imperative Planning:

1. Indicative planning is peculiar to the mixed economies. It has been in practice in France since the Monnet Plan of 1947-50.
2. In a mixed economy, the private sector and the public sector work together.
3. Under this plan, the outline of plan is prepared by the Government.
4. Then it is discussed with the representatives of private management, trade unions, consumer groups, finance institutions and other experts.

(V) Short, Medium and Long term Planning:

1. Short-term plans are also known as ‘controlling plans’.
2. They encompass the period of one year, therefore, they are also known as ‘annual plans’

(VI) Financial Vs Physical Planning:
Financial planning refers to the technique of planning in which resources are allocated in terms of money while physical planning pertains to the allocation of resources in terms of men, materials and machinery.

(VII) Functional Vs Structural Planning:
Functional planning refers to that planning seeks to remove economic difficulties by directing all the planning activities within the existing economic and social structure.

(VIII) Comprehensive Vs Partial Planning:
General planning which concerns itself with the major issues for the whole economy is known as comprehensive planning whereas partial planning is to consider only a few important sectors of the economy.

Question 37.
Bring out the arguments against planning.
Answer:
The prime goals of economic planning are stabilization in developed countries and growth in LDCS But the economic planning also is not free from limitations.
The arguments against planning are,

1. Loss of Freedom:
The absence of freedom in decision making may acts as an obstacle for economic growth. Under planning, the crucial decisions are made by the central planning Authority. The consumers, producers and the workers enjoy no freedom of choice. Therefore, Hayek explains, that centralized planning leads to loss of personal freedom and ends in economic stagnation. The decisions by the Government are not always rational Freedom to private producers will be misused, Profit will be given top priority, welfare will be relegated.

2. Elimination of Initiative:
Under centralized planning, there will be no incentive for initiatives and innovations. Planning follows routine procedure and may cause stagnation in growth.

• The absence of private ownership and profit motive discourages entrepreneurs from taking bold decisions and risk taking.
• Equal reward to all discourages interested in undertaking new and risky ventures.
• The bureaucracy and red tapism which are the features of planned economy.

3. High cost of Management:
The cost of management of the economic affairs outweights the benefits of planning. Inadequate data, faulty estimations and improper implementation of plans result in wastage of resources and cause either surplus or shortages.

Difficulty in advance calculations :
Advance calculation in a precise manner are impossible to make decisions regarding the consumption and production. It is also very difficult to put the calculations into practice under planning.

12th Economics Guide Economics of Development and Planning Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Match the following:
Question 1.
A) Development- 1) Narrow concept
B) Todaro – 2) Wider concept
C) Economic Growth – 3) Structural change
D) Economic Development – 4) Development

Answer:
b) 3 4 2 1

Question 2.
a) Innovation – 1) Dadabai Naoroji
b) Poverty and un British Rule- in India – 2) Douglas c. North
c) Moral and social values – 3) Thomas Piketty
d) Casino capitalism – 4) Schumpeter

Answer:
d) 4 1 2 3

II. Choose the correct pair

Question 1.
a) Patrimonial capitalism – Douglas c. North
b) Vicious circle of poverty – Thomas Piketty
c) Great Depression – 1930
d) Planning commission – 1951
Answer:
c) Great Depression – 1930

Question 2.
a) M.N. Roy – People’s plan
b) J.P. Narayan – Gandhian plan
c) S. N. Agarwal – Sarvodaya plan
d) Jawaharlal Nehru – Bombay plan
Answer:
a) M.N. Roy – People’s plan

III. Choose the incorrect pair

Question 1.
a) Planning commission – March 15,1950
b) Plan era – April 1,1951
c) First five-year plan – 1951-56
d) Planning – Gandhi
Answer:
d) Planning – Gandhi

Question 2.
a) Underdeveloped country – high percapita Income
b) Low-Income countries – $ 906 and below
c) Middle Income countries – Between $ 906 and $ 11,115
d) High Income countries – $ 11,116 or more
Answer:
a) Underdeveloped country – high percapita Income