Category: Class 6

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Computer – An Introduction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who is the father of computer?
a. Martin Luther King
b. Graham Bell
c. Charlie Chaplin
d. Charles Babbage
Answer:
d. Charles Babbage

Question 2.
Which of the following is another form of computer?
(a) Blackboard
(b) Mobile
(c) Radio
(d) Book
Answer:
(b) Mobile

Question 3.
When was the first computer introduced?
a. 1980
b. 1947
c. 1946
d. 1985
Answer:
c. 1946

Question 4.
Who is the computer’s first programmer?
(a) Lady Wellington
(b) Augusta ado Lovelace
(c) Mary Curie
(d) Mary Comb
Answer:
(b) Augusta ado Lovelace

Question 5.
Pick out the odd one?
a. Calculator
b. Abacus
c. Flash Card
d. Laptop
Answer:
c. Flash Card

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Data is ………… Information.
2. World’s first general purpose computer is ……….
3. Information is ……… data
4. Fifth generation computer has ………. Intelligence.
5. ………… is the device that uses Index number.

Answer:

1. Processed
2. Electronic Numerical Integrator and computer
3. a form of processed
4. Artificial
5. Analog Computer

III. State True or false.

1. The computer is an Electronic device.
2. Sir Isaac Newton invented the Computer.
3. The computer can do calculations fast.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – e
5. – a

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is a Computer?
Answer:
Computer is an electronic device that processes data and information according to our needs.

Question 2.
Who are the pioneers/forerunners of computers?
Answer:
1. Charles Babbage: a professor in mathematics has designed an analog computer. He is known as the father of computers.
2. Augusta Ada Lovelace: the first programmer as she developed essential commands for mathematical operations.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Data.
Answer:

1. Data is the information that has to be processed.
2. They are in the form of numbers, alphabets, and images.

Question 4.
Name any four input devices.
Answer:
Keyboard, Mouse, Bar code reader, Digital camera, etc.

Question 5.
Differentiate Hardware and Software.
Answer:
Hardware: The parts that are available on the computer that helps the software to work.
Software: The commands or programs that are used on a computer.

VI. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Explain in detail the Applications of the computer.
Answer:

1. The computer is used in textile shops for billing purposes.
2. It is used in the railway station for issuing tickets.
3. It is used in the banks for multi-purpose.
4. It is used in ATMs.
5. It is used in the Post office.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Our body needs for muscle-building
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) Protein
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) Protein

Question 2.
Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of _______
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin C

Question 3.
Calcium is an example of a
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) Protein
(d) minerals
Answer:
(d) minerals

Question 4.
We should include fruits and vegetables in our diet, because _______
(a) They are the best source of Carbohydrates
(b) They are the best source of Proteins
(c) They are rich in minerals and Vitamins
(d) They have high water content
Ans:
(c) They are rich in minerals and Vitamins

Question 5.
Bacteria are very small microorganism.
(a) Prokaryotic
(b) Eukaryotic
(c) Protozoa Acellular
(d) Acellular
Answer:
(a) prokaryotic

II. True or False

1. There are three main nutrients present in food.
2. Fats are used as an energy store by our body.
3. All bacteria have flagella.
4. Iron helps in the formation of haemoglobin.
5. Virus can grow and multiply outside host.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Malnutrition leads to …………
2. Iodine deficiency leads to ……… in adults.
3. Vitamin D deficiency causes ………..
4. Typhoid is transmitted due to contamination of ……….. and water.
5. Influenza is a ………. disease.

Answer:

1. Deficiency diseases
2. Goitre
3. Rickets and water.
4. Food
5. Viral

IV. Complete the Analogy

1. Rice: Carbohydrate : : Pulses: …………
2. Vitamin D: Rickets : : Vitamin C: …………..
3. Iodine: Goitre : : Iron: ……………
4. Cholera: Bacteria : : Smallpox: ………….

Answer:

1. Protein
2. Scurvy
3. Anemia
4. Virus

V. Match the Following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – c

VI. Complete the Diagram

Answer:

VII. Write a Short Answer.

Question 1.
Write two examples for each of the following.
(a) Food items rich in fat.
(b) Vitamin deficiency diseases.
Answer:
(a) Food items rich in fat: Meat, fish, egg yolk, milk.
(b) Vitamin deficiency diseases: Night blindness, Beriberi, Scurvy, Rickets.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Carbohydrate and Protein.
Answer:
Carbohydrate:

1. Energy giving component of the food.
2. The sources of carbohydrates are nuts, fruits, rice, and maize.

Protein:

1. It is body building foods.
2. The sources of proteins are pulses, soybean, nuts, egg, and fish.

Question 3.
Define the term “Balanced diet”.
Answer:
A diet which contains a sufficient amount of various nutrients to ensure good health is called a Balanced diet.

Question 4.
Why should the fruits and vegetables not to be washed after cutting? Vitamins are of two types.
Answer:
We should not wash the fruits and vegetables after cutting, because the minerals and protein in the fruits and vegetables will also be washed away.

Question 5.
Write any two viral diseases.
Answer:
Common cold, smallpox, polio are viral diseases.

Question 6.
What are the main features of a microorganism?
Answer:
Microorganism will be seen with the help of a microscope. They are very small in size.

VIII. Long Answers.

Question 1.
Tabulate the vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best options

Question 1.
Name the sunshine Vitamin
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) K
Answer:
(b) D

Question 2.
_______ is a highly rich source of protein.
(a) Nut
(b) Gram
(c) Chicken
(d) Soya bean
Answer:
(d) Soya bean

Question 3.
The minerals are called by this name:
(a) Energy Food
(b) Balance diet
(c) Food for growth
(d) protective food
Answer:
(d) protective food

Question 4.
Ben Ben is caused due to the deficiency of _______
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin B
Ans:
(d) Vitamin B

Question 5.
How much water is needed for a man in a day?
(a) 2L
(b) 3L
(c) 1.5L
(d) 1L
Answer:
(a) 2 lr

II. Matching

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

III. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Define Nutrients.
Answers:
Chemical constituents of food which give us energy, help to build our body, and protect us from diseases are called Nutrients.

Question 2.
List the six important nutrition.
Answer:

1. Carbohydrate
2. Vitamins
3. Protein
4. Minerals
5. Fat
6. Water.

Question 3.
List out the types of vitamins.
Solution:
Vitamins are classified into six major types. They are Vitamin A, B, C, D, E, and K. In the type,
Vitamin B and C are water-soluble Vitamins
Vitamin A, D, E, K are Fat-soluble vitamins.

Question 4.
Differentiate between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor:
Stunted growth.
Swelling of face and limbs diarrhea.

Marasmus:
Skinny appearance.
slow body growth.

Question 5.
What are food items contain minerals?
Answer:
Green leafy vegetables like spinach, pulses, eggs, milk, fish, and fruits are food items that contain minerals.

IV. Give detailed Answers

Question 1.
Fill ABCDE in this tabular column.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the uses of exercise?
Answer:

1. It improves growth and development.
2. It delays aging.
3. It strengthens muscles and blood circulation.
4. It develops athletic skills and reduces weight.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The study of living things or organisms is called
a. Psychology
b. Biology
c. Zoology
d. Botany
Answer:
b. Biology

Question 2.
Which of the following are characteristics of living beings?
(i) Respiration
(ii) Reproduction
(iii) Adaptation
(iv) Excretion
Choose the correct sequence
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv)only
(d) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (I), (iv), (il) and (iii)

Question 3.
Lizards breathe through their
a. Skin
b. Gills
c. Lungs
d. Trachea
Answer:
c. Lungs

Question 4.
All animals need _______
(a) Food and water only
(b) Water only
(c) Air, food and water
(d) Food only
Answer:
(c) Air, food and water

Question 5.
Which animal has the special organs of breathing called gills
a. Earthworm
b. fox
c. Fish
d. frog
Answer:
c. Fish

Question 6.
Choose the set that represents only biotic components of a habitat.
(a) Tiger, Deer, Grass, Soil
(b) Rocks, Soil, Plants, Air
(c) Sand, Turtle, Crab, Rocks
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects
Answer:
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects

Question 7.
Which of the following cannot be called as a habitat?
a. A desert with camels
b. A pond with fish and snails
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle
d. A jungle with wild animals
Answer:
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle

Question 8.
Birds fly in the air with the help of _______
(a) heavy and strong Bones
(b) Soft and thick Bones
(c) Hollow and light Bones
(d) Flat and thick Bones
Answer:
(c) Hollow and light Bones

Question 9.
Paramecium moves from one place to other with the help of
a. Pseudopodia
b. flagella
c. Foot
d. cilia
Answer:
d. Cilia

Question 10.
Kangaroo rat lives In _______
(a) Aquatic habitat
(b) Desert habitat
(c) Grass land habitat
(d) Mountain habitat
Answer:
(b) Desert habitat

II. Multiple Choice Questions Complete the following with appropriate word(s).

1. Aquatic, deserts, mountains are called ……….
2. Based on the number of cells present animals are classified into ………. and ………..
3. Tail of a bird acts as a rudder which helps to ………..
4. Amoeba moves with the help of …………

Answer:

1. Habitat
2. Unicellular, multicellular
3. control the direction of the movement
4. Pseudopodium.

III. True or False, If False gives the correct answer.

1. A habitat is a living or dwelling place of an organism.
2. The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth remain the same from one place to another.
3. Amoeba is a unicellular organism and moves with pseudopodia.
4. Birds can see only one object at a time.
5. Paramecium is a multicellular organism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth do not remain the same from one place to another.
3. True
4. True
5. False – Paramecium is a unicellular organism.

IV. Complete the following

1. Tropical rain forests, grasslands, and deserts are known as ………..
2. Some living things are made of a single cell, they are called a……….. organism
3. The breathing organ of a fish is known as ………..
4. The lizard ……….. on the ground with its claw on its feet.
5. Camel stores ………… in its hump.

Answer:

1. habitat
2. unicellular
3. gills
4. walk and run
5. fat

V. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How do the birds catch their prey?
Answer:

• The prey-catching process depends on their types.
• The aquatic birds with the help of their beaks get their prey sliding upside down into the water.
• The birds of paddy fields get small insects with the help of sharp claws of their limbs.

Question 2.
Where can we see camels in India?
Answer:
We can see camels in the state of Rajasthan:

1. The dwelling places of camels
2. Jodhpur
3. Pushkar
4. Pikanur
5. Jaisalmer.

Question 3.
Name the locomotory organs of an Amoeba.
Answer:
Amoeba with the help of a finger-like projection called pseudopodia moves from place to place.

Question 4.
What are the body parts of the snake?
Answer:
Snake’s body is divided into-

1. Head
2. body
3. tail
4. Organs on the head-Two eyes, Two nostrils mouth.

Question 5.
Which structure helps the bird to change its direction while flying in the air?
Answer:
The tail helps the bird to change its direction while flying in air.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate between unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the adaptive features of polar bears and penguins.
Answer:
Polar bear:

1. They have short limbs.
2. They have limited body surface to reduce the body temperature
3. They have thick skin.
4. A polar bear has thick skin for protection against the cold climate.
5. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
6. They eat food rich in fat.

Penguin:

1. They have a boat-shaped body
2. Their feathers absorb sunlight
3. They have thick skin.
4. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
5. They have short wings to fly above the water and paddle for swimming.

Question 3.
Mention the feature that helps a bird to fly in the air?
Answer:

1. The streamlined body shape.
2. Their forelimbs are modified into wings.
3. They have hollow and light bones for easy flying.
4. The body of the birds is covered with feathers.

Question 4.
What are the different types of invertebrates?
Answer:

1. Protozoa ( unicellular)
2. Porifera
3. Coelenterata
4. Platyhelminthes
5. Aschelminthes
6. Annelida
7. Arthropoda
8. Mollusca
9. Echinodermata

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the various features which help Camel dwell well in the desert.
Answer:

1. The long leg of the camel helps to keep its body away from the desert.
2. Camel will drink a large amount of water and store it in the body.
3. Camel produces only a small quantity of urine.
4. The stored fat in the hump can break down for nourishment
5. A camel has large and flat padded feet which help in walking easily on soft sand.
6. The long eyelashes and hairs protect its eyes and ears from flowing dust.
7. It can keep its nostrils closed to avoid dust.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a unicellular organism
(a) Fish
(b) frog
(c) Euglena
(d) Lizard
Answer:
(c) Euglena

Question 2.
Polar bear and Penguins dwell in _______
(a) Cold region
(b) Hot region
(c) Cold and Hot region
(d) Forest region
Answer:
(a) Cold region

Question 3.
The animal lives in water and on land.
(a) Frog
(b) fish
(c) pigeon
(d) camel
Answer:
(a) Frog

Question 4.
Euglena moves with the help of
(a) Flagellum
(b) Cilia
(c) Pseudopods
(d) Legs
Answer:
(a) flagellum

Question 5.
Among the following, which Bird Sanctuary located in Tamilnadu?
(a) Kadalundi
(b) Bharatpur
(c) Vedanthangal
(d) Sultanpur
Answer:
(c) edanthangal

II. True or false. If it is wrong correct it and write.

1. Unicellular organisms grow by mitotic division.
2. The streamlined body of fish helps in swimming.
3. The tail of the bird helps it to control the direction of the movement and balance.
4. The hind limbs of birds are modified into wings
5. The tail of birds help in controlling the direction of the movement

Answer:

1. False – In unicellular organisms, the size of the cell increases as it grows
2. True
3. True
4. False – The forelimbs of birds are modified as wings.
5. True

III. Name the parts in a diagram.

Question 1.
In the given diagram name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. Pseudopodia
B. Nucleus

Question 2.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. cilia
B. Contractile Vacuoles.

Question 3.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts

Answer:
A. Flagella
B. Nucleus.

IV. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
Give some examples of a unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:
Unicellular: Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena
Multicellular: Fish, Frog, Lizard, Birds, Man

Question 2.
What is meant by migration?
Answer:
When an animal moves from its location as the season changes it is called migration.

Question 3.
Define Adaptation.
Answer:
The presence of specific body features, for certain habits, which enable a plant or an animal to live in a particular habitat is called adaptation.

Question 4.
What is hibernation?
Answer:
Spending winters in a dormant condition is called hibernation, (eg) Turtle.

Question 5.
Which part protects the body of fish?
Answer:
Most of the fishes have slippery scales all over the body. It protects the body of fish.

Question 6.
Name any three bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Vedanthangal, Kodiyakkarai, and Koondhankulam are the bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.

V. Detailed answer:

Question 1.
Give an account of adaptations of birds.
Answer:

1. Birds body is covered with feathers that are helpful in flying with reduced weight.
2. The mouth is converted into beaks.
3. They respire through the lungs.
4. Their forelimbs are modified as wings.
5. They have hollow bones.
6. With the help of a pair of clawed feet, birds can hop move, and run.

Question 2.
Describe various adaptive features of fishes.
Answer:

1. The head, trunk, and tail of a fish merge to form a streamlined shape.
2. It helps the fish to move through the water easily.
3. Gill is a special respiratory organ. It is adapted to breathe in water.
4. Most of the fishes have slippery scales. It protects the body.
5. It has fins for swimming.
6. It has a strong tail. It acts as a rudder to change direction and keeps its body balance in the water.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The pond is an example of ………
(a) Marine habitat
(b) Freshwater habitat
(c) Deserts
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(b) Freshwater habitat

Question 2.
The important function of stomata is ______
(a) Conduction
(b) Transpiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Absorption
Answer:
(b) Transpiration

Question 3.
Organs of absorption are ………
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Root

Question 4.
The habitat of water hyacinth is ______
(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Desert
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(a) Aquatic

II. True or False – If false give the correct answer.

1. Plants can live without water.
2. All plants have chlorophyll.
3. Plants have three parts; the root, the stem, and the leaves.
4. Mountain is an example of a freshwater habitat.
5. Root is modified into spines.
6. Green plants need sunlight.

Answer:

1. False – They need water to carry out various functions.
2. False – Only green plants have chlorophyll.
3. True
4. False – Mountain is an example of Terrestrial habitat.
5. False – Spines are usually modifications of leaves.
6. True

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. Earth’s surface is covered by ……….. % of water.
2. The driest places on earth are ……….
3. Fixation and absorption are the main functions of ……….
4. Primary organs of photosynthesis are ………..
5. Taproot system present in ……….. plants.

Answer:

1. 70%
2. Deserts
3. roots
4. leave
5. dicot.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
(i) – d
(ii) – c
(iii) – b
(iv) – e
(v) – a

V. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Leaf – Stem – Root – Flower
Answer:
root – stem – leaf – flower

Question 2.
Transpiration – Conduction – Absorption – Fixation.
Answer:
Fixation, Absorption, Conduction, Transpiration.

VI. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Classify plants on the basis of their habitat.
Answer:
Terrestrial and Aquatic are the 2 habitats

Question 2.
Identify the desert plant from the following – Cactus, Hydrilla, Mango, and Rose.
Answer:
Cactus plants – grow in deserts, and are able to store water in their stem.

Question 3.
Define the term habitat.
Answer:
Each and every organism needs a place to live and reproduce known as habitat.
The dwelling place of any organism is its habitat. Eg. Aquatic habitat

Question 4.
Relate the terms leaves and photosynthesis.
Answer:
Leaves are green in colour, they have chlorophyll and do photosynthesis.

VII. Short answer.

Question 1.
Why do you call Jasmine plants a twiner?
Answer:
Weak plant, cannot stand on its own, must climb on any support to survive.

Question 2.
Compare the taproot and fibrous root systems.
Answer:
Taproot system:

1. Consists of a single root.
2. it grows straight down in the ground
3. Seen in misogynous plants.

Fibrous root system:

1. Consists cluster of roots.
2. It is thin and uniform in size.
3. Seen in monocotyledonous plants.

Question 3.
Distinguish between terrestrial and aquatic habitats.
Answer:

Question 4.
List out the plants present in your school garden.
Answer:
Mango tree, Neem tree, Water lily, Clitoria, Hibiscus

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Make a list of functions of root & stem.
Answer:
Functions of root:
The root,

• Fixes the plant to the soil.
• Absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
• Stores food in some plants like carrots and beetroot.

Functions of stem:
The stem,

• Supports the branches, leaves, flowers, and fruits.
• Transports water and minerals from roots to upper aerial plant parts.
• Transports the prepared food from leaves to other parts.
• Stores food as in the case of sugarcane.

Question 2.
Study the given concept map. Connect them correcting by drawing arrow marks. Complete the map by filling in the blanks.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Maize has ……….
(a) taproot
(b) fibrous root
(c) Adventitious root
(d) Fasciculate root
Answer:
(b) fibrous root

Question 2.
The underground part of the main axis of a plant is known as ______
(a) shoot
(b) node
(c) root
(d) leaf
Answer:
(c) root

Question 3.
The stalk of the leaf is known
(a) peduncle
(b) rachis
(c) pedicel
d) petiole
Answer:
(d) petiole

Question 4.
On the lower side of the leaf, there are tiny pores or openings known as ______
(a) Leaf base
(b) midrib
(c) petiole
(d) stomata
Answer:
(d) stomata

Question 5.
The diameter of the leaf of Victoria amazonica is
(a) 2 meters
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 3 meters
(d) 1 meter
Answer:
(c) 3 meters

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Special features in plants which help them to survive in the habitats they live are known as ……….
2. The Great Indian Desert is an arid region of rolling sandhills on the Indian sub continent is known as ……….
3. ………. is the main vein of the lamina of the leaf.
4. A change in an organism caused by environmental factors is known as ………

Answer:

1. Adaptations
2. Thar desert
3. Midrib
4. Modification

III. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Sea – Lake – River – Pond
Answer:
Pond – Lake – River – Pond.

Question 2.
Internode – Node – Axillary Bud – Terminal Bud
Answer:
Terminal Bud – Axillary Bud – Node – Internodes.

IV. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Draw the structure of a leaf and neatly label the parts.
Answer:

Question 2.
List the main part of a flowering plant.
Answer:
The flowering plant consists of two main parts. They are

1. Root system
2. Shoot system

Question 3.
Differentiate between Gymnosperm and Angiosperm.
Answer:
Both groups produces seeds.
Gymnosperms – Non flowering but produce naked seeds Eg. Pinus, Cycas.
Angiosperms – Flowering and produce closed seeds Eg. Mango – Rose

Question 4.
Give some examples of monocotyledonous plants and dicotyledonous plants.
Answer:
Monocotyledonous plant – Grass, Paddy, Maize
Dicotyledonous plant – Bean, Mango, Neem

Question 5.
Notes on Thorns or Spines.
Answer:
Some plants leave – modified into sharp structures known as Thorns or Spines help to reduce water loss.
Eg – Agave – (leaf apex & margin modified into spines).

V. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Explain Tendril climber.
Answer:
Tendril a twining climbing organ of some weak stemmed plants.
It coils around support and helps the plant to climb.

1. Sweet peas – Here leaflets are modified into tendrils.
2. Bitter gourd – Axillary buds of plant-modified into tendril, help climb up.

Question 2.
Write about Desert Habitat.
Answer:

1. Dry places on earth
2. Less rainfall – less than 25 cm annually.
3. Deserts cover 20% of the earth’s surface.
4. Plants – Adapted to withstand severe heat.

Thick leaves help them to store water and minerals. Eg. Aloe

1. Stems modified to store water. Eg. Cactus
2. Leaves – modified into spines – Opuntia.

Question 3.
Study was given concept map. Connect them by drawing marks- for example, the map by filling the blanks.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
………. is not made of matter
(a) Gold ring
(b) iron nail
(c) light ray
(d) oil drop
Answer:
(a) light ray

Question 2.
200 ml of water is poured into a bowl of 400ml capacity. The volume of water now will be _____
(a) 400 ml
(b) 600 ml
(c) 200 ml
(d) 800 ml
Answer:
(c) 200 ml

Question 3.
Seeds from water-melon can be removed by method.
(a) Hand-picking
(b) filtration
(c) magnetic separation
(d) decantation
Answer:
(c) Hand picking

Question 4.
Lighter impurities like dust, when mixed with rice or pulses, can be removed by _____
(a) filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) decantation
(d) winnowing
Answer:
(d) winnowing

Question 5.
………… of is essential to perform winnowing activity
(a) Rain
(b) Soil
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Question 6.
Filtration method is effective in separating _____ mixture.
(a) solid – solid
(b) solid – liquid
(c) liquid – liquid
(d) liquid – gas
Answer:
(b) solid – liquid

Question 7.
From the following ………. is not a mixture
(a) Coffee with milk
(b) lemon juice
(c) Water
(d) ice cream embedded with nuts.
Answer:
(c) Water

II. State whether the following statements are True or False. If false give the correct statement

1. Air is not compressible.
2. Liquids have no fixed volume but have fixed shape.
3. Particles in solids are free to move.
4. Then pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of filtration.
5. Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a liquid from solid
6. Grain and husk can be separated by winnowing
7. Air is a pure substance
8. Butter from curds is separated by sedimentation.

Answer:

1. False. Air is Compressible.
2. False. Liquids have no fixed shape but have fixed volume.
3. False Particles in solids are not free to move.
4. False. When pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of Decantation.
5. False. Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a solid from liquid.
6. True.
7. False. Air is a mixture. (Or) Air is not a pure substance.
8. False. Butter from curds is separated by churning.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
1. – d
2. – e
3. – b
4. – c
5. – a

Question 2.

Answer:

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. Matter is made up of ………
2. In solids, the space between the particles is less than in ……….
3. Grains can be separated from their stalks by ……….
4. Chillies are removed from ‘upma’ by ……… method.
5. The method employed to separate clay particles from water is ……….
6. Among the following items: Safety pins, pencil and rubber band, ………. will get attracted to a magnet.
7. Water obtained from tube wells is usually ………. water

Answer:

1. Atoms
2. An Liquids
3. Threshlng
4. Hand picking
5. Filtration
6. Safety pins
7. Impure

V. Complete the given analogy

1. Solid: rigidity :: gas: …………
2. Large Inter-particle space: gas:: ………. : solid
3. Solid : definite shape :: ……… : shape of the vessel.
4. Husk-grains: winnowing:: Sawdust-chalk piece: ………..
5. Murukku from hot oil: ………. :: coffee powder residue from decoction
6. Iron-sulphur mixture: ……….. :: Mustard seeds from Urad-dhal: Rolling

Answer:

1. Compressibility
2. Little inter-particle space
3. Liquids
4. Sedimentation and Decantaium
5. Hand picking; Filtralion.
6. Magnetic Separation.

VI. Very short answer

Question 1.
Define the term matter.
Answer:
The matter is defined as anything that has mass and takes up space. The matter is found in solid, liquid, and gas.

Question 2.
How can husk or fine dust particles be separated from rice before cooking?
Answer:
Before cooking, the husk or fine dust particles in rice are being separated by ‘Sedimentation’. The lighter impurities float while heavier rice grains sink to the bottom.

Question 3.
Why do we separate mixtures?
Answer:
A mixture is an impure substance and contains more than one kind of particles. So, we have to separate mixtures.

Question 4.
Give an example for mixture and justify your answer with reason.
Answer:
An example of a mixture is 22 Carat Gold. This is composed of Gold and Copper (or) Gold and Cadmium.

Question 5.
Define Sedimentation.
Answer:
Sedimentation is the deposition process of setting down of heavy solids in a mixture of liquid and an insoluble solid.

Question 6.
Give the main difference between a pure substance and an impure substance.
Answer:
Pure Substance :
Made up of only one kind of particles.
Cannot be separated by physical means.

Impure Substance :
Has particles of other Substance mixed in it.
Can be separated by physical means.

VII. Short Answer.

Question 1.
A rubber ball changes its shape on pressing. Can it be called a solid?
Answer:
Yes. A solid has a certain shape and size. The shape of a rubber ball changes only if we squeeze it.

Question 2.
Why do gases not have fixed shape?
Answer:
Gases do not have a fixed shape due to the weak forces of attraction between the gaseous particles. Hence, they can flow and take shape of the container.

Question 3.
What method will you employ to separate cheese (paneer) from milk? Explain.
Answer:
“Churning followed by Coagulation” is employed to separate cheese (Paneer) from milk. There are six important steps in making cheese (Paneer) from milk:

1. Acidification
2. coagulation
3. separating curds and whey
4. Salting
5. shaping
6. ripening

Question 4.
Look at the picture given below and explain the method of separation illustrated.

Answer:
The given picture shows the ‘Sieving’ method of separation. It is used to separate the solid particles of different sizes. Example: Bran from flour; Sand from gravel.

Question 5.
How can you separate a mixture of a large number of tiny bits of paper mixed with pulses/dal?
Answer:
We can separate the mixture of a large number of tiny bits of paper and pulses/dal by “Winnowing”. The lighter papers will be carried by wind and heavier pulses/dais will fall closer and form a separate heap.

Question 6.
What is meant by food adulteration?
Answer:
The process of mixing harmful and unwanted substances with the foodstuffs that we buy in the market is called food adulteration

Question 7.
Mr. Raghu returns home on a hot summer day and wants to have buttermilk. Mrs. Raghu has only curds. What can she do to get buttermilk? Explain.
Answer:
Mrs. Raghu has to take half a cup of curd, add half a cup of water to it, and mix well. Now, she can serve buttermilk.

VIII. Answer In Detail.

Question 1.
Distinguish between properties of solid, liquid, gas. Draw a suitable diagram.
Answer:

Question 2.
Using a suitable apparatus from your laboratory, separate the mixture of chalk powder, mustard oil, water, and coins. Draw a flow chart to show the separation process.
Answer:

HOTS

Question 1.
Malar’s mother was preparing to cook dinner. She accidentally mixed ground nuts with urad-dhal. Suggest a suitable method to separate the two substances so that Malar can have ground nuts to eat.
Answer:
The groundnuts shall be separated by hand-picking method because they are in a different size When compared with urad-dhal.

Question 2.
In a glass containing some water, tamarind juice and sugar is added and stirred well. Is this a mixture-can you tell why? Will this solution be sweet? Or sour? Or both sweet and sour?
Answer:

1. A glass containing some water, Tamarind juice, and sugar is a mixture.
2. Because it is made up of two or more ingredients that are physically separable.
3. This mixture is both sweet and sour.

Question 3.
Justify your answer.
An arrangement of particles in three different phases of matter is shown above.

(a) Which state is represented by fig. I?
Answer:
Figure 1 represents a gas.

(b) In which will be the interparticle attraction maximum?
Answer:
Inter Particle attraction is maximum in solids (fig. 3)

(c) Which one of them cannot be contained in an open vessel?
Answer:
A gas (fig. 1) cannot be contained in an open vessel.

(d) Which one can take the shape of its container?
Answer:
Liquid (fig.2) can take the shape of its container.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following are homogeneous in nature?
(i) ice
(ii) wood
(iii) soil
(iv) Air
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 2.
A standard sheet of paper is about atoms thick.
(a) Thousands
(b) Crores
(c) Lakhs
(d) Million
Answer:
(d) Million

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a matter?
(a) Electron
(b) Blood
(c) Moonrock
(d) Humidity
Answer:
(a) Electron

Question 4.
One dot that you make with your pen has more than ______ lakh molecules.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Three
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 5.
Pure rava, when adultered with wheat flour, is separated by
(a) Sieving
(b) Filtration
(c) Winnowing
(d) Threshing
Answer:
(a) Sieving

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – a
4. – c

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……… particles are tightly packed into a definite shape.
2. The tendency of particles to spread out in order to occupy the available space is ………..
3. The purest form of gold is denoted by ………..
4. Milk is a ………..
5. The principle of ………. is used in washing machines.

Answer:

1. Solid
2. diffusion
3. 24 carat
4. mixture
5. centrifugation

IV. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Name the two microscopes which are used to identify the structure of the atom.
Answer:

1. SEM – Scanning Electron Microscope
2. TEM – Tunnelling Electron Microscope

Question 2.
What type of matter glass is?
Answer:
Glass is looking like a solid, but not. It is actually a very slow-moving liquid.

Question 3.
Give two examples of diffusion.
Answer:

1. Spread of a drop of ink in a glass of water.
2. Spread of the smell of an incense stick.

Question 4.
Mention the method of separation of Bran from flour. Explain.
Answer:
Bran from flour is separated by ‘sieving’.
Solid particles of different sizes can be separated by sieving.

Question 5.
Define the term ‘Liquefaction of gases’.
Answer:
The process by which substances in their gaseous state are converted to the liquid state is called Liquefaction of gases.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What are the similarities between a gas and a liquid?
Answer:

1. Neither gas nor a liquid has a definite shape.
2. The particles of gases and liquids can move. We call this movement diffusion.
3. Liquids can evaporate into gases and the gases can condense into liquids.
4. They can have the property of compressibility to some extent.

Question 2.
How do decantation and filtration differ and which is faster?
Answer:

Note: Normally filtration will give a better separation than decantation.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Unit of speed is
a. m
b. s
c. kg
d. m/s
Answer:
d. m/s

Question 2.
Oscillatory motion among the following is
(a) Rotation of the earth about its axis
(b) Revolution of the moon about the earth
(c) To and fro movement of a vibrating string
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) To and fro movement of a vibrating string

Question 3.
The correct relation among the following is
a. speed = distance × time
b. Speed = distance / time,
c. speed = time / distance
d. Speed = 1 / (distance × time)
Answer:
b. Speed = distance / time

Question 4.
Gita rides with her father’s bike to her uncle’s house which is 40 km away from her home. She takes 40 minutes to reach there.
Statement 1 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/minute.
Statement 2 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/hour
(a) Statement 1 alone is correct.
(b) Statement 2 alone is correct.
(c) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 alone is correct

II. Find whether the following statements are true or false. – if false give the correct Answer.

1. To and fro motion is called oscillatory motion.
2. Vibratory motion and rotatory motion are periodic motions.
3. Vehicles moving with varying speeds are said to be in uniform motion.
4. Robots will replace human in future.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. Non-uniform.
4. False, Robots can never be conscious.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. A bike moving on a straight road is an example of ……… motion.
2. Gravitational force is a ………… force.
3. Motion of a potter’s wheel is an example of ………… motion.
4. When an object covers equal distances in equal interval of time, it is said to be in ……….. motion.

Answer:

1. Linear
2. non-contact
3. Rotatory
4. Uniform

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – e

V. Analogy:

1. Kicking a ball: contact force :: falling of leaf : …………
2. Distance : metre :: Speed : ………….
3. circulatory motion : a spinning top oscillatory motion : …………

Answer:

1. non contact forces
2. m/s
3. Pendulum

VI. Given below is the distance – travelled by an elephant across a forest with uniform speed. 

Complete the data of the table given below with the idea of uniform speed.

Answer:

VII. Complete the web chart.

Answer:

VIII. Give one word for the following statements.

Question 1.
The force which acts on an object without Physical contact with it.
Answer:
Non-contact force.

Question 2.
A change in the position of an object with time.
Answer:
Motion.

Question 3.
The motion which repeats itself after a fixed interval of time.
Answer:
Oscillatory motion.

Question 4.
The motion of an object travels equal distances in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
Uniform motion.

Question 5.
A machine capable of carrying out a complex series of actions automatically.
Answer:
Robots.

IX. Answer the following in a sentence or two:

Question 1.
Define force.
Answer:
Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.

Question 2.
Name different types of motion based on the path.
Answer:

1. Linear motion.
2. Curvilinear motion.
3. Circular motion.
4. Rotatory motion.
5. Oscillatory motion.
6. Zigzag (irregular) motion.

Question 3.
If you are sitting in a moving car will you be at rest or motion with respect to your friend sitting next to you?
Answer:
I am at rest with respect to my friend, sitting inside the car.

Question 4.
The rotation of the earth is a periodic motion. Justify.
Answer:
Motion repeated in equal intervals of time is called periodic motion. The earth rotates on its axis once in 24 hours. The duration of time is fixed as 24 hours. Therefore the rotation of the earth is a periodic motion.

Question 5.
Differentiate between rotational and curvilinear motion
Answer:

Rotational motion:

1. A body moves along a circular path.
2. Without changing its position, about its own (fixed) axis.
3. Eg. Rotation of a spinning top.

Curvilinear motion:

1. A body moves along a curved path.
2. Changes its position with motion.
3. Eg. Throwing paper airplanes or paper darts.

X. Calculate.

Question 1.
A vehicle covers a distance of 400 km in 5 hours calculate its average speed.
Answer:
Average speed = \(\frac{distence}{time}\)
= \(\frac{400}{5}\) = 80 km per hour

XI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is motion? classify different types of motion with examples.
Answer:
Motion: The change of position of an object with respect to time is known as motion.

1. Based on Path:

• Linear motion. – Ex.: Parade of the soldiers.
• Curvilinear motion. – Ex.: Paper flight moving.
• Circular motion. – Ex.: Swirling stone tied to the rope.
• Rotatory motion. – Ex.: Rotating top.
• Oscillatory motion. – Ex.: Clock pendulum.
• Zigzag (irregular) motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bee.

2. Based on Duration :

• Periodic motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bob of simple Pendulum.
• Non-periodic motion. – Ex.: Swaying of the branches of a tree.

3. Based on Speed:

• Uniform motion. – Ex.: Hour hand of a clock.
• Non – uniform motion. – Ex.: Motion of a train, as it leaves a station.

XII. Fill with Examples

Answer:
Linear motion – A man walking in a straight road
Curvilinear motion – motion of paper Aeroplane
Self rotatory motion – Motion of wheel in a cart
Circular motion – Motion of moon a round earth.
Oscillatory motion – Motion of pendulum
Irregular motion – Motion of honey bee.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
How earth revolves?
(a) From west to east
(b) east to west
(c) From north to south
(d) south to west.
Answer:
(a) From west to east

Question 2.
People walking in a crowded street is an example of _______ motion.
(a) linear
(b) circular
(c) rotatory
(d) zigzag
Answer:
(d) zigzag

Question 3.
What is the unit of average speed in SI system?
(a) metre / second
(b) kilometre/ seconds
(c) kilometre/ time
(d) Metre/ Time.
Answer:
(a) metre / second

Question 4.
Usain Bolt crossed 100 metre in _______ seconds and made a world record.
(a) 9.58
(b) 9.83
(c) 9.85
(d) 9.38
Answer:
(a) 9.58

Question 5.
The motion of the moon which revolves around the earth is
(a) Oscillatory motion
(b) Periodic motion
(c) curvilinear
(d) b and c
Answer:
(b) Periodic motion

II. Correct Answer: If it is wrong give the correct answer.

1. Change of position of an object with respect to time is motion
2. Swirling stone tied to the rope is an example of rotatory motion.
3. The children flying in a swing is a periodic motion.
4. All the oscillatory movements are periodic motions.
5. The SI unit of speed is kilometer

Answer:

1. correct
2. wrong.
   A swirling stone tied to the rope is an example of circular motion.
3. correct
4. correct
5. wrong, The SI unit of speed is meter.

III. Fill up the blanks:

1. People walking in a crowded street is ……….. type of motion.
2. Object moves not at a constant speed then the motion is ………..
3. If Priya in her cycle travels 40 km in 2 hours then what is her average speed?
4. Motion is of ………… types.
5. The movement of a body about its own axis is ………….

Answer:

1. Irregular
2. on- uniform motion
3. 20 km /hr
4. four
5. Rotatory motion

IV. Matching

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – a
4. – c

V. Fill up the blanks in accordance with their relation:

1. The Motion of train – uniform motion. The motion of vehicles ………..
2. Periodic motion – The motion of the moon revolves around the earth. Oscillatory motion ………..

Answer:

1. non – uniform motion.
2. Motion of simple pendulum.

VI. Fill up the missing statement.

VII. Fill up the blanks with the help of examples:

1. The motion of the needle of a clock.
2. The motion of an athlete of 100 m race
3. The motion of flag wagging
4. The motion of a car that goes in a circular path.
5. The motion of a needle in a sewing machine.

Answer:

1. Oscillatory motion.
2. Linear motion.
3. Non- periodic motion
4. circular motion
5. periodic motion or uniform motion.

VIII. Two Mark Questions: Short answers:

Question 1.
Define motion.
Answer:
When there is a change of position of an object with respect to time, then it is called motion.

Question 2.
What are the types of Force?
Answer:

1. Contact Force;
2. Non-Contact Force

Question 3.
List out the types of forces on the basis of contact.
Answer:
There are two types:

1. Contact force,
2. Non-contact force.

Question 4.
What is the average speed of the object?
Answer:
The distance travelled by an object in unit time is called the average speed of the object.

Question 5.
Define non-periodic motion.
Answer:
When a motion is not in uniform interval, then such motion is called non-periodic motion.

IX. Give Detailed Answers:

Question 1.
What is a force? What are its types?
Answer:
Forces: Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.
Types of Forces:

1. Contact forces;
2. Non – Contact forces.

1. Contact forces: The force that is executed by touching the body is a contact force Eg. Kicking the football
2. Non – Contact forces: The force is applied. Without touching the object then it is called noncontact force.
Forces can
(i) Change the states of the body from rest to motion or motion to rest.
(ii) Either change the speed or direction or both of the body.
(iii) Change the shape of the body.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 1 Measurements Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Measurements

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The girth of a tree can be measured by
(a) Metre scale
(b) Metre rod
(c) plastic ruler
(d)Measuring tape.
Answer:
(d) Measuring tape.

Question 2.
The conversion of 7 m into cm gives
(a) 70 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 700 cm
(d) 7000 cm
Answer:
(c) 700 cm

Question 3.
Quantity that can be measured is called ………
(a) Physical quantity
(b) Measurement
(c) Unit
(d) Motion.
Answer:
(b) Measurement

Question 4.
Choose the correct one
(a) km > mm > cm > m
(b) km> mm> m > cm
(c) km>m>cm>mm
(d) km > cm > m > mm
Answer:
(c) km > m > cm > mm

Question 5.
While measuring length of an oject using a ruler, the position of your eye should be
(a) Left side of the point.
(b) Vertically above the point where the measurement is to be taken.
(c) Right side of the point.
(d) Anywhere according to one’s convenience.
Answer:
(b) Vertically above the point where the measurement is to be taken.

II. True or false.

1. We can say that mass an object is 126 kg
2. Length of one’s chest can be measured by using metre scale.
3. Ten millimetres makes one centimetre.
4. A hand span is a reliable measure of length.
5. The SI system of units is accepted everywhere in the world.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

III. Fill up the blanks:

1. SI unit of length is symbolically represented as ………..
2. 500 gm = …………. kilogram.
3. Distance between Delhi and Chennai can be measured in ……….
4. 1 m = ………. cm.
5. 5 km = ………. m.

Answer:

1. metre
2. 0.5
3. Kilometre
4. 100
5. 5000

IV. Analogy

Sugar: Beam Balance, Lime Juice?
Answer:
Graduated cylinders.

Height of a person: Cm: Length of your sharpened pencil lead?
Answer:
mm

Milk: Volume; vegetables?
Answer:
Weight

V. Match the following:

Answer:
1. Cubit
2. metre
3. 10^-9
4. second
5. 10³

VI. Complete the given table:

Answer:

VI. Arrange in increasing order of unit

1 Metre, 1 Centimetre, 1 Kilometre, and 1 Millimetre.
Answer:
1 Millimetre, 1 Centimetre, 1 Metre, 1 Kilometre.

VIII. Find the answer for the following questions within the grid:

1. 10^-3 is one _______
2. SI unit of time ______
3. Cross view of reading for measurement leads to ______
4. _______ is the one what a clock reads.
5. ______ is the amount of substance present in an object.
6. _______ can be taken to get the final reading of the recordings of different students for a single measurement.
7. ______ is a fundamental quantity.
8. _______ shows the distance covered by an automobile.
9. A tailor use _______ to take measurements to stitch a cloth.
10. Liquids are measured with this physical quantity ______

Answer:

1. millimeter
2. Second
3. Parallax
4. Time
5. mass
6. Accurate
7. Length
8. Odometer
9. tape
10. litres

IX. Answer in a word or two.

Question 1.
What is the full form of the SI system?
Answer:
An International System of unit

Question 2.
Name any one instrument used for measuring mass.
Answer:
Beam Balance

Question 3.
Find the odd one out: Kilogram, Millimetre, Centimetre, Nanometre
Answer:
Kilogram.

Question 4.
What is the SI unit of mass?
Answer:
Kilogram

Question 5.
What are the two parts present in a measurement?
Answer:

1. multiple
2. sub

X. Answer in a sentence or two:

Question 1.
Define measurement.
Answer:
The comparison of an unknown quantity with some known quantity is known as measurement.

Question 2.
Define mass.
Answer:
Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in an object.

Question 3.
The distance between the two places is 43.65 km. convert it into meter and cm.
Answer:
(a) Convert km into metre
1 km = 1000m
∴ 43.65 km = 43.65 × 1000 = 43650.00 = 43650
= 43650 m.

(b) Convert km into cm.
1 km = 1000 m
1 m = 100 cm
1 km = 1000 × 100 cm
1 km = 100000 cm
∴ 43.65 km = 43.65 × 100000 = 4365000.00
= 4365000 cm.

Question 4.
What are the rules to be followed to make an accurate measurement with scale?
Answer:

1. Take care to write the correct submultiple.
2. Always keep the object in parallel to the scale.
3. Start the measurement from ‘0’ of the scale.

XI. Solve the following:

Question 1.
The distance between your school and your house is 2250 m. Express this distance in kilometre.
Answer:
Distance between school and house is 2250 m.
1000 m = 1 km
∴ 2250 m = 2250 ÷ 1000 = 2.25 km.

Question 2.
While measuring the length of a sharpened pencil, the reading of the scale at one end is 2.0 cm and at the other end is 12.1 cm. What is the length of the pencil?
Answer:
Sharpened pencil Reading at one end = 2.0 cm.
Sharpened pencil Reading at the other end = 12.1 cm.
Length of the pencil = Difference between two ends.
= 12.1 cm. – 2.0 cm.
= 10.1 cm.

XII. Write in detail:

Question 1.
Explain two methods that you can use to measure the length of a curved line.
Answer:
Measuring the length of a curved line, by two methods.
First method – using a string.

1. Draw a curved line AB on the paper.
2. Place a string along the curved line.
3. Make sure that the string covers every bit of the curved line.
4. Mark the points where the curved line begins and ends on the string.
5. Now stretch the string along the length of a meter scale.
6. Measure the distance between two markings of the string.
7. This will give the length of a curved line.

Second method – using a divider.

1. Draw a curved line AB on a paper.
2. Separate the legs of the divider by 0.5 cm or 1 cm using a ruler.
3. Place it on the curved line starting from one end. Mark the position of the other end.
4. Move it along the line again and again cutting the line into a number of segments of equal lengths.
5. The remaining parts of the line can be measured using a scale.
6. Count the number of segments.
7. Length of the line = (No. of segments × length of each segment) + length of the leftover part.

Question 2.
Fill up the following chart.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
What is 7 m in mm?
(a) 0.7 mm
(b) 700 mm
(c) 7000 mm
(d) 70 mm
Answer:
(c) 7000 mm

Question 2.
The distance between one end and the other end is called _____
(a) mass
(b) length
(c) time
(d) None
Answer:
(b) length

Question 3.
What is the unit of length?
(a) metre
(b) litre
(c) second
(d) kilogram.
Answer:
(a) metre

Question 4.
Five kilometre is equal to _____
(a) 500 cm
(b) 500 m
(c) 5000 m
(d) 5000 cm
Answer:
(c) 5000 m

Question 5.
These are the instruments used in measuring the volume of objects with irregular shapes.
(a) Balance
(b) Electronic balance
(c) Displacement of water method
(d) sand clock.
Answer:
(c) Displacement of water method.

II. True or false:

1. The comparison of a known quantity with the unknown quantity is the mass.
2. The area can be calculated by using the two lengths and width.
3. Using electronic balance weight can be measured accurately.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False.

III. Fill in the Blanks.

1. 78.75 cm = ______ m ______ cm
2. 1195 m = ______km ______ m
3. 15 cm 10 mm = ______ mm
4. 45 km 33 m = ______ m.
5. The metric system of unit is developed in the year ______ by French.

Answer:

1. -78 m, 75 cm
2. -1 km, 195 m
3. -160 mm
4. -45033 m
5. -1790

IV. Matching

Question 1.

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

Question 2.

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

V. Write the following unit in ascending order.

Question 1.
Ton – gram – kilogram – Metric ton
Answer:
Gram – kilogram – ton – metric ton.

VI. Very Short Answer (2 marks)

Question 1.
What is the length?
Answer:
The distance between one end and the other desired end is called length.

Question 2.
Differentiate mass from weight:
Answer:
Mass :
Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in an object.
Unit – kilogram

Weight :
Weight is the gravitational pull experienced by the mass.
Unit – Newton.

Question 3.
List the SI units of length, mass, and time.
Solution:

1. Length is measured by metre (m)
2. Mass is measured by the kilogram (kg)
3. Time is measured by second (s).

Question 4.
What is the basic quantity of physics?
Answer:

1. Length
2. Mass
3. Time.

Question 5.
Differentiate of Mass and Weight.
Answer:
Mass:

• Amount of matter in an object
• The measuring instrument is Beam balance

Weight:

• Gravitational pull experienced by the mass
• The measuring instrument is an electronic balance

Question 6.
What is the clock used to measure the time accurately?
Answer:

1. Electronic clock
2. Stop clock

Question 7.
Hold a sheet paper in one hand and a book in one hand. Which hand feels heavy? Why?
Solution:
The hand, which holds the book, will feel heavy. The mass of the book is more than that of a single sheet of paper. Therefore, the pull on the book is more than that of the paper. Hence our hand has to give more force to hold a book than a paper.

VII. Give detailed answers: (5 marks)

Question 1.
What are the features that we must give importance in measuring?
Answer:
The object should match with the ‘o’ of the scale.
The object should be in parallel with the scale.
Always start from ‘O’.
Measure the bigger division (m) first and then measure the smaller (mm) division. When we measure the bigger division it should be measured initially and then mark a point and then measure the smaller division (eg) if the length of the pencil is 6 cm 2 mm and then it is 6.2 cm.

Question 2.
How will you measure the weight of the object with irregular shapes?
Answer:
Fill a graduated measuring cylinder with 50 ml of water.
Tie the stone with a piece of fine thread and immerse the stone completely in the water. As the stone is immersed the water level will increase. And show 75 ml of rising. The stone displaces water and hence the rise. The amount of water displaced will be the volume of the stone.