Category: Class 6

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Find out the part that is not found in the CPU?
a. MotherBoard
b. SMPS
c. RAM
d. Mouse
Answer:
d. Mouse

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Free and Open source
(b) Free and Traditional software
(c) passive and Open source
(d) Passive and Traditional source
Answer:
(a) Free and Open source

Question 3.
LINUX is a
a. Paid Software
b. Licensed Software
c. Free and Proprietary software
d. Free and Open-source software
Answer:
d. Free and Open-source software

Question 4.
Find out Paid and Proprietary software from the given list
(a) Windows
(b) MAC OS
(c) Adobe Photoshop
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
……….. is an Operating System
a. Android
b. Chrome
c. Internet
d. Pendrive
Answer:
a. Android

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – e
3. – d
4. – c
5. – a

III. Short answer:

Question 1.
What are Hardware and Software?
Answer:
Hardware:

1. Hardware is the parts of the computer which we can touch and feel.
2. Hardware includes input and output devices, Cabinet, Hard disk, Mother Board, SMPS, CPU, RAM, CD Drive, and Graphics card.

Software :

1. Software is programmed and coded application to process the input information.
2. The software processes the data by converting the input information into coding or programmed language.
3. Touching and feeling is not possible. But, we can see the functions of the software in the form of output.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Operating System? How does it work?
Answer:

1. System software (operating system is software that makes the hardware devices process the data inputted by the user and to display the result on the output devices like a monitor. Without the operating system, the computer cannot function on its own. Popular OS are Linux, Windows, Mac, Android, etc.

Question 3.
What is Free and Open Source Software? Give any two examples?
Answer:

1. Free and open software is available free of cost and can be shared with many end-users.
2. Free software is editable and customizable by the user and this leads to the update or development of new software.
3. Examples: 1. Linux, 2. Geogebra.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Email existed before the
(a) Google
(b) Chrome
(c) World Wide Web
(d) Whatsapp
Answer:
(c) World Wide Web

Question 2.
A _____ device helps to enter input information.
(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Monitor
(d) Modem
Answer:
(a) Hardware

Question 3.
Completes one or more than two works of the end-user?
(a) System software
(b) Operating system
(c) Free software
(d) Application software
Answer:
(d) Application software

Question 4.
The _____ can be installed in the hard disk for the usage on a particular computer.
(a) Opening system
(b) Translator
(c) Application program
(d) Image editor
Answer:
(c) Application Program

Question 5.
___________ is an operating system
(a) Linux
(b) Chrome
(c) Google
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(a) Linux

II. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

III. Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the types of software?
Answer:
Software is divided into two types based on the process. They are:

1. System Software (Operating System).
2. Application software.

Question 2.
What is Application software?
Answer:
It is a program or a group of programs designed for the benefit of end-user to work on computers. The application programs can be installed in the hard disk for the usage on a particular computer. This type of application program completes one or more than two works of the end-user.

Question 3.
Give some examples of Application Software.
Answer:
The following are the examples of the application program: Video player, Audio player, Word processing software, Drawing tools, Editing software, etc.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant-pollinator
a. Duck
b. Parrot
c. Hummingbird
d. Dove
Answer:
c. Hummingbird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
(a) Nutmeg
(b) Bamboo
(c) Ginger
(d) Neem
Answer:
(d) Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
a. Potato
b. Carrot
c. Radish
d. Turnip
Answer:
a. Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anti-cancer properties?
(a) Amla
(b) Tulasi
(c) Turmeric
(d) Aloe
Answer:
(c) Turmeric

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
a. Neem tree
b. Jack tree
c. Banyan tree
d. Mango tree
Answer:
c. Banyan tree

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. In every year October ……….is celebrated as world food day.
2. ………… is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I ………… ?
4. The juice of the leaves of ……… plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called …………

Answer:

1. 16
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulsi
5. pulses

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as softwood.
2. Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
3. Cauliflower is used for ornamental purpose.
4. Cotton cloth is not suitable for summer season.
5. Sugarcane is used as biofuel.

Answer:

1. False – Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as ornamental plants.
2. True.
3. False – Cauliflower is used for edible purpose.
4. False – Cotton cloth is only suitable for summer season
5. False – Sugarcane is used to produce sugar.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

V. Analogy:

1. mango : fruit:: maize : ………….
2. coconut: fibre :: rose : …………
3. bees : pollinate insect:: earthworms : …………

Answer:

1. cereal
2. essence
3. vermicompost producer

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:
Any nutritious substance that people or animals eat or drink or that plants absorb in order to maintain life and growth is called Food.

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Some of the plants around us are good in healing our diseases. We call these plants as medicinal plants.

Question 3.
How hardwood differ from softwood?
Answer:

Question 4.
What is Spice?
Answer:
Spices are the aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour food. Bark, roots, leaves, flowers, or stems of certain plants primarily used for flavouring colouring or preserving food.
(Eg.) roots – vetiver,
leaves – curry leaves
seeds – fenugreek
flower bud – clove

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. A timer is used in the construction of buildings, making of furniture
2. It is used in making fibreboard, paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:

1. The relationship between animals and plants, benefiting both of them is known as a symbiotic relationship.
2. (Eg.) Silkworms – feeding on Mulberry leaves – produce silk fibres.
3. Honey bee – feed on pollen and honey of plants – Agents of cross-pollination and form vegetables and fruits along with honey.

Question 2.
Write the uses of Neem?
Answer:

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:

1. Carrot, Beetroot, and radish – Taproots
2. Potato, Ginger, Turmeric – Underground stem
3. Curry leaves, Coriander leaves – Leaves
4. Drum stick – Leaves, Unripe fruit, and bark.
5. Paddy, Wheat, Maize, and Ragi – Seeds

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write short notes on-Timber yielding plants.
Answer:
Wood is used commercially due to its features like durability, stylish finishing, and resistance to temperature changes.
Timbers can be classified into hardwoods and softwoods.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
The relationship between plants and animals, to get food and shelter etc.
This relationship which is economically significant benefits not only animals but also plants.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason.
Answer:

1. Most deserts get less than 10 inches of rainfall each year.
2. The evaporation rate is higher than the rainfall.
3. In the desert, there is little water available for plants (cactus-like) and other organisms.
4. Cactus like plants and animals living in such areas are adapted to save water and to endure drought.
   (Eg.) Cactus Camel etc.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement or not? Explain. Why?
Answer:
False. Because:

1. Even though they are tall, they produce only softwoods.
2. It is resilient and malleable can’t be used in heavy construction and other purposes.
3. So the wood is known as softwood.
4. Wood fibres are used for making hats and other things.

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions.
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria How?

Answer:
1. The droppings and shedding of leaves, fruits, and other dead parts of plants degrade in the soil by bacterial and fungal action to form humus-increase soil fertility.

2. Blue-green Algae and Bacteria are extensively used to fix Nitrogen in the soil and increase biofertilizer in the soil for agriculture.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants Why?

Answer:

1. Honey bees suck nectar from flowers and convert it into honey.
2. During this process, they carry pollen on their bodies and help plants to do cross-pollination and inturn form vegetables and fruits.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Which are the source of food and energy for all living organisms in the world.
(a) Plants only
(b) Plants and animals
(c) Animals only
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Plants only

Question 2.
Aloe ______ is used as a laxative
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Leaves

Question 3.
Leaf fibres are got from
(a) Aloe vera
(b) Agave
(c) Coconut
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Agave

Question 4.
We are planting shrubs such as ________ to decorate houses
(a) Mandara
(b) Mullai
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Allamanda
Answer:
(c) Hibiscus

Question 5.
Plants grown or maintained for its aesthetic features are known as
(a) Fibre plants
(b) Medicinal plants
(c) Plants as food
(d) Ornamental plants
Answer:
(d) Ornamental plants

Question 6.
Bio fuels are less _______ in nature.
(a) Toxic
(b) Economic
(c) Nutrients
(d) Metals
Answer:
(a) Toxic

II. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Give evidence for the fact that Rice, Wheat, and Millets were cultivated and utilised in the ancient days.
Answer:

1. The presence of charred grains in most of the excavation sites is proof of the above fact.
2. Also, ancient literature talks about the existence and usage of several crops of economic importance.

Question 2.
Classify plants on the basis of economic values and uses.
Answer:
They are classified into six varieties. They are:

1. Plants as food.
2. Spice yielding plants,
3. Medicinal plants.
4. Fibre yielding plants,
5. Timber yielding plants.
6. Ornamental plants.

Question 3.
Name the states in India with Jute cultivation?
Answer:
West Bengal, Assam, Orissa, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Tripura, and Meghalaya are the seven states producing jute.
Out of the above seven, West Bengal alone produces 50% jute of India.

Question 4.
Name some of the Indian spices.
Answer:
Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 5.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
The plants that have chemical compounds to destroy disease-causing germs are known as medicinal plants.

Question 6.
Identify the plant part and write about its use?

Answer:
The given diagram is that of cloves the flower buds used as a spice – to flavour food.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding plants based on use.
Answer:

1. Textile Fibres – Cotton.
2. Cordage Fibres – Coconut Fibre.
3. Filling Fibres – Silk cotton

Question 8.
Write the importance of rubber?
Answer:

1. Rubber is got from the stem latex of the rubber plant.
2. Vehicle tyres, wire insulating covers, and many toys and others are produced out of natural rubber.
3. It satisfies 80% rubber demand of the world.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Identify the freshwater ecosystem.
a. Pond
b. Lake
c. River
d. All of them
Answer:
d. All of them

Question 2.
Producers are ________
(a) Animals
(b) Birds
(c) Plants
(d) Snakes
Answer:
(c) Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
a. Plastic
b. Coconut Shell
c. Glass
d. Aluminium
Answer:
b. Coconut Shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
(a) Recycling
(b) Reuse
(c) Pollution
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(c) Pollution

Question 5.
Usage of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes ……… pollution.
a. Air pollution
b. Water pollution
c. Noise pollution
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Water pollution

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called ……….
2. Temperature, light and wind are ………… factors.
3. ………. is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread …………. and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, ………….. and Recycle.

Answer:

1. herbivores
2. physical
3. Recycle
4. diseases
5. reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. The pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
2. Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
3. Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
4. Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
5. In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.

Answer:

1. True.
2. True.
3. False – Human and animal wastes are examples of bio-degradable waste.
4. False – Excess use of pesticides leads to land pollution.
5. False – In schools waste management rules say that we should separate waste in three categories.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – c

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

1. Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake.
2. Human → Insect → Algae → Fish

Answer:

1. carrot → rabbit → snake → eagle.
2. Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living or biotic and non-living or a biotic things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
They are terrestrial (on land) and aquatic (in water).

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Examples:

1. Old clothes
2. Plastics

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution.

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Land (soil) pollution
4. Noise pollution

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
Food chain in aquatic ecosystem.
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → Fish.

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:
Pollutants:

1. Burning fossil fuel (petrol, coal, oil, etc).
2. Toxic gases, (Carbon monoxide).
3. Dust particles (ash, soot).

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?

1. Loud Speaker
2. Plastic

Answer:

1. Loud Speaker – Noise Pollution.
2. Plastic – Land Pollution.

VII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘Biodegradable’ is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of the sun, microorganisms, etc. (Eg.) Vegetable and fruit peel leftover food, grass, leaves, and twigs.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour leftover oil, old medicines or waste down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Reduce the use of detergents and bleach to wash clothes.
4. Do not litter or dump waste always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:

1. Learning about the food chain help us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. It also help us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem. This enable us to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
Examples of how we can Avoid waste:-
Avoid buying packaged foods. Refuse to buy ‘use-and-throw’ plastic products.

Examples of how we can reduce waste:-

1. Write on both sides of paper
2. Share newspaper and magazines with others.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution affects the environment. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
3. Noise pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
4. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears. Noise pollution also disturbs animals.
5. Birds have to communicate (talk) louder so that, they can hear each other in noisy areas.
6. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

Reduce noise pollution :

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Avoid fireworks.
3. Speak, do not shout.
4. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
5. Lower the volume when you watch TV (or) listen to music.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:
If an organism is removed from the food chain,

1. The food chain will fall apart.
2. The ecosystem will become imbalanced and collapse.
3. For example, Consider a food chain: Plants → grasshoppers → frogs → snakes → hawks.

If frogs were to die off in this chain, (due to disease/pollutants), then, there will be an increase in the number of grasshoppers. This will cause a major problem.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. The substances consist of plastic materials, metal scraps, aluminium cans, and bottles which cannot be broken down or decomposed into the soil by natural agents are labelled as non-biodegradable.
2. When it rains, some of the water never reaches the ground as it collects in the plastic garbage at the dump.
3. Little pools of water let mosquitoes breed and they can spread unwanted diseases like dengue and malaria.
4.  Aedes aegypti is the vector responsible for dengue transmission.
5. It breeds in solid waste mud pots and other junk materials.
6. We must know mosquitoes tend to breed in places which are dirty.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?

Answer:

1. We can see the mixed waste dumped in the open ground.
2. There is a fire in the open dump and the garbage is burning.
3. By the burning of plastic materials, pipes, leather, and garbage smoke and toxins are coming out and pollute the air.
4. The leftover ash from burning waste pollutes the soil.
5. When it rains some of the dangerous chemicals leaching into the soil and groundwater.
6. Thus the unhealthy chemicals from the garbage pollute the ecosystem.

Question 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
The following types of pollution are caused by open dumps:

1. Water pollution
2. Land pollution
3. Air pollution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
The ecosystem that originated without human intervention is called
(a) natural ecosystem
(b) artificial ecosystem
(c) aquarium
(d) terrarium
Answer:
(a) natural ecosystem

Question 2.
An example for artificial aquatic ecosystem is _______
(a) Forest
(b) Pond
(c) Garden
(d) Aquarium
Answer:
(d) Aquarium

Question 3.
Ecosystems created and maintained by humans are called?
(a) lake
(b) river
(c) artificial ecosystem
(d) natural ecosystem
Answer:
(c) artificial ecosystem

Question 4.
Plants are producers because they make their own food by _______
(a) Respiration
(b) Consumer
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Decomposing
Answer:
(c) Photosynthesis

Question 5.
The micro-organisms that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms is called
(a) consumers
(b) decomposers
(c) omnivores
(d) producers
Answer:
(b) decomposers

II. True or False. If False, Give the correct statement.

1. The abiotic factors are the non-living parts such as sunlight, air, water, and minerals in the soil.
2. A Zoo is a natural ecosystem.
3. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.
4. India produces 532 million kilos of solid waste every day.
5. Certain toxic gases from industries mix with raindrops and make rain unusually acidic.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – A Zoo is an artificial ecosystem.
3. True
4. True.
5. True.

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – e
4. – c
5. – b

IV. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence and form a food chain:

Question 1.
Grasshopper → Frog → Grass → Crow.
Answer:
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Crow

Question 2.
Peacock → Rat → Grains → Snake
Answer:
Grains → Rat → Snake → Peacock

V. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give two examples of artificial terrestrial ecosystems?
Answer:

1. Paddy fields
2. Garden

Question 2.
What are called producers?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food.
(Eg) Plants.

Question 3.
What do plants need in order to photosynthesis?
Answer:
Plants need chlorophyll, water, carbon-di-oxide, and sunlight.

Question 4.
What are the two major types of solid wastes?
Answer:

1. Biodegradable
2. Non-biodegradable.

Question 5.
What happens to the dead organisms of animals and plants?
Answer:

1. They are broken down into simple organic substances by decomposers.
2. These substances go into the soil and are used by plants.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when we do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when we watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak do not shout.

Question 2.
Differentiate the artificial ecosystem and natural ecosystem.
Answer:
Natural Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated without human intervention
2. Ex: Sea, River, Lake, Forest

Artificial Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated by human
2. Ex: Paddy field, garden, aquarium

VII. Questions based on higher-order thinking levels:

Question 1.
Are animal bones biodegradable?
Answer:

1. The microorganisms that break down tissues will also cause bones to decompose in a suitable aerated peaty soil.
2. In warm damp environments, bacteria and fungi attack the protein in the skeleton and it will break down in a matter of a decade or so.
3. But in a dry climate, it could take thousands of years
4. So bones do decay at a slower rate than other types of organic material and tissue.

Question 2.
Are all types of clothes biodegradable?
Answer:

1. Not all fabrics are safely biodegradable as they are made with artificial and chemical components.
2. It depends on what fibres or fabric is made from.
3. And also the more chemicals used the longer it takes to biodegrade.
4. Polyester has been introduced since 1951 created not by the textile industry but by American Chemical Company Dupont went on sale.
5. Polyester is a polymer or a long chain of repeating molecular units.
6. That basically means that our clothes are increasingly made of plastic.
7. In theory cotton, silk hemp is biodegradable and polyester is not.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Soaps were originally made from ………
a. proteins
b. animal fats and vegetable oils
c. chemicals extracted from the soil
d. foam booster
Answer:
b. animal fats and vegetable oils.

Question 2.
The saponification of a fat or oil is done using _______ solution for hot process.
(a) Potassium hydroxide
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Sodium chloride
Answer:
(b) Sodium hydroxide

Question 3.
Gypsum is added to the cement for ………..
a. fast setting
b. delayed setting
c. hardening
d. making paste
Answer:
b. delayed setting

Question 4.
Phenol is ……..
a. carbolic acid
b. acetic acid
c. benzoic acid
d. hydrochloric acid
Answer:
a. carbolic acid

Question 5.
Natural adhesives are made from ………..
a. Protein
b. fat
c. starch
d. vitamins
Answer:
c. starch

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………… gas causes tears in our eyes while cutting onions.
2. Water, coconut oil and ……….. are necessary for soap preparation.
3. ………..is called a farmer’s best friend.
4. …………. fertilizer is ecofriendly.
5. ………… is an example for natural adhesive.

Answer:

1. Propane Thiol Oxide
2. NaOH
3. Earthworm
4. Artificial
5. Starch

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Concentrated phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. Gypsum is largely used in medical industries.
3. Plaster of Paris is obtained from heating gypsum.
4. Adhesives are the substances used to separate the components.
5. NPK are the primary nutrients for plants.

Answer:

1. False. – Low concentrated Phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. False – Epsum is largely used in medical industry.
3. True.
4. False – Adhesives are substances that are used to join two (or) more components.
5. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer
1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – b
5. – a

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence:

1. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
4. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
5. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.
6. Cover your work area with old newspaper.

Answer:

1. Cover your work area with old newspaper.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
4. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
5. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
6. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.

VI. Analogy:

1. Urea : Inorganic fertilizer :: Vermi Compost: …………
2. ……….. : Natural Adhesives :: Cello tape : Artificial Adhesives

Answer:

1. Natural Fertilizer
2. Starch

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the three main constituents of soap?
Answer:
The three main constituents of soap are Lye (Sodium hydroxide), coconut oil, and water.

Question 2.
What are the two different types of molecules found in the soap?
Answer:
The two types of molecules found in the soap are

1. water-loving
2. water-hating.

Question 3.
Give an example of inorganic fertilizer.
Answer:
The Inorganic fertilizers are Urea, Ammonium sulphate, and Superphosphate.

Question 4.
Mention any three physical properties of phenol.
Answer:
Phenol properties:

1. It is a weak acid.
2. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
3. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.

Question 5.
Explain the uses of plaster of Paris.
Answer:
Uses of plaster of pairs:

1. In making blackboard chalks.
2. In surgery for setting fractured bones.
3. For making casts for statues and toys etc.
4. In the construction industry.

Question 6.
What are the ingredients of the cement?
Answer:
The ingredients of the cement are lime, clay, and gypsum.

Question 7.
Why gypsum is used in cement production?
Answer:
Gypsum is added to control the setting of cement.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Why earthworm is called a farmer’s friend?
Answer:

1. Earthworms take organic wastes as food and produce compost castings.
2. They provide a multitude of services to improve soil health and consequently plant health.
3. So earthworm is called a farmer’s friend.

Question 2.
Explain the process of manufacturing cement.
Answer:
The cement is manufactured by crushing naturally occurring minerals such as limestone, clay, and gypsum through a milling process.

Question 3.
What are the uses of Gypsum?
Answer:

1. Used as fertilizers
2. Used in the process of making cement and plaster of Paris.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
How are detergents manufactured?
Answer:
Manufacture of Detergents:
Materials used:
Acid slurry, Soda ash (or) Sodium Carbonate, Trisodium phosphate (TSP), sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour perfume and brightner.

Preparation:

1. Acid slurry is first neutralised.
2. Then neutralised Acid Slurry is mixed with Soda ash and kept for one hour for completion of reaction.
3. Other ingredients such as Trisodium phosphate (TSP), Sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour, perfume, brightner are then blended to the neutralised Acid Slurry with continuous mixing.
4. Then the mixture is dried.
5. Now we get detergent powder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Ravi is a farmer; he rears many cattle in his farm. His field has many biowastes. Advise Ravi on how to change this biowaste to compost by using vermicomposting techniques. Explain the benefits of vermi castings?
Answer:

1. Make a pit of 30 cm or take a wooden box.
2. Place a thin net on the base of the pit or wooden box.
3. Fill it with sand for about 1-2 cm.
4. Spread some plant wastes (like a dry leaf, flower) and biodegradable wastes on it.
5. Sprinkle some water.
6. Add some earthworms to these substances and cover them with an old cloth or dried coconut leaf.
7. We can find that vermicompost is formed after four weeks.
8. Use this vermicompost as manure for plants and conserve soil fertility.

Advantages of using vermicompost:

1. Vermicompost is an excellent organic manure for sustainable agro-practices.
2. Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients.
3. In improves soil structure texture, aeration, and water holding capacity and prevents soil erosion.
4. Vermicompost is rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment to the soil for farming and terrace gardening.
5. It enhances seed germination and ensures good plant growth.
6. Vermicompost can be prepared easily.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
………. to remove strong strains on the clothes.
(a) Detergents soap
(b) Bathing soap
(c) Bleaching powder
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Bleaching powder

Question 2.
_______ are the substances which can undergo chemical changes to produce certain materials.
(a) Soaps
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Plastics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
If 50 kg of Superphosphate is added to the soil, how much phosphorus would the soil get?
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg
(b) 8 – 9 kg
(c) 12 – 13 kg
(d) 16 – 18 kg
Answer:
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg

Question 4.
All the plants get their _______ from the soil.
(a) Nutrients
(b) Water
(c) Nitrogen
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Nutrients

Question 5.
The molecular formula of Epsom is _______
(a) CaSO₄1/2H₂O
(b) C₆H₅OH
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O
(d) CaSO₄.2H₂O
Answer:
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……… is a natural indicator.
2. ……….. molecules goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth.
3. Fertilizer facilitates the growth of ………….
4. ………….. is used to fix bone fractures.
5. Epsom salt is ………….

Answer:

1. turmeric powder
2. Water hating molecules
3. plants
4. Plaster of Paris
5. Magnesium Sulphate Hydrate

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

IV. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence:

1. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
2. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
3. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
4. Finally, the cloth is clean.
5. The detergent molecules have two sides.
6. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.

Answer:

1. The detergent molecules have two sides.
2. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
3. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.
4. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
5. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
6. Finally, the cloth is clean.

V. Analogy:

1. Black board chalks : ………….. : : Plant growth : Epsum
2. …………. : Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate : : Plaster of Paris : Calcium Sulphate Hemihvdrate
3. ………. : Mortar : : Construction of bridges : Concrete

Answer:

1. Plaster of Paris
2. Gypsum
3. Construction of house walls.

VI. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What are the principal nutrients?
Answer:
Principal nutrients are NPK

1. Nitrogen (N)
2. Phosphorus (P)
3. Potassium (K)

Question 2.
What are fertilizers?
Answer:
Fertilizers are organic (or) inorganic materials that we add to the soil to provide one (or) more nutrients to the soil.

Question 3.
Give two examples of organic fertilizers?
Answer:

1. Compost
2. Vermicompost

Question 4.
Why is called inorganic fertilizers?
Answer:
The fertilizers prepared by using natural elements by making them undergo chemical changes in the laboratories are called inorganic fertilizers.

Question 5.
Why is called Portland cement?
Answer:
It was named “Portland” cement because it resembled the high-quality building stones found in Portland, England.

VII. Answer in details:

Question 1.
What is Epsum? Mention it’s used.
Answer:
Epsum:

1. Epsum salt is magnesium Sulphate Hydrate.
2. Its molecular formula – MgSO₄. 7H₂O

Uses:

1. Eases stress and relaxes the body.
2. Helps muscles and nerves to function properly.
3. Medicine for skin problems.
4. Improving plant growth in agriculture.

Question 2.
Write about the Phenol and its uses.
Answer:
Phenol:

1. Phenol is a Carbolic acid of an organic compound.
2. It’s molecular formula C₆H₅OH
3. It is a weak acid.
4. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
5. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.
6. It irritates when exposed to human skin.

Uses:

1. It’s used industrial.
2. Low concentration of Phenol is used in mouth wash, disinfectant in household cleaners.
3. It is used as a surgical antiseptic since it kills microorganisms.

Question 3.
Tabulate the nutrients present in inorganic fertilizers.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 2 Water Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Around 97% of water available on earth is water.
a. fresh
b. pure
c. salty
d. polluted
Answer:
c. salty

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of the water cycle?
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) rain
(d) distillation
Answer:
(d) distillation

Question 3.
Which of the following processes add water vapour to the atmosphere?
i. Transpiration
ii. Precipitation
iii. Condensation
iv. Evaporation
a. ii and iii
b. ii and iv
c. i and iv
d. i and ii
Answer:
c. i and iv

Question 4.
About 30% of the freshwater is found in?
(a) glaciers
(b) groundwater
(c) other sources of water
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(b) groundwater

Question 5.
Using R.O. plant at home eliminates lot of non-potable water. The best way to effectively use the expelled water of R.O. plant is ……….
a. make the expelled water go and seep near the bore well
b. use it for watering plants
c. to drink the expelled water after boiling and cooling
d. to use for cooking as the water is full of many nutrients
Answer:
b. use it for watering plants

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Only ……… percent of natural water is available for human consumption.
2. The process of changing water into its vapour is called ………..
3. ……….. is built on rivers to regulate water flow and distribute water.
4. Water levels in rivers increase greatly during …………
5. Water cycle is also called as ………..

Answer:

1. 3%
2. Evaporation
3. Dam
4. Rainy days
5. hydrological cycle

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is unfit for use by human beings.
2. Seas are formed when the water table meets the land surface.
3. The evaporation of water takes place only in sunlight.
4. Condensation results in the formation of dew on grass.
5. Seawater can be used for irrigation as such.

Answer:

1. False – Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is fit for use by human beings.
2. True
3. False – The evaporation of water takes place in any source of heat.
4. True
5. False – Sea water can not be used for irrigation as such.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c
5. – d

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence

1. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
2. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
3. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
4. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.
5. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
8. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.

Answer:

1. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
2. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
3. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.
4. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
5. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
6. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
7. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
8. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.

VI. Analogy:

Question 1.
Population explosion : Water scarcity : : Recycle : ………..
Answer:
Water management

Question 2.
Groundwater : ……….. : : Surface-water : Lakes
Answer:
Wells

VII. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Name four different sources of water.
Answer:
Rivers, wells, lakes, glaciers, ponds, etc.

Question 2.
How do people in cities and rural areas get water for various purposes?
Answer:
People get water from wells, canals, tanks, ponds, rivers, water tanks, hand pipes for various purposes.

Question 3.
Take out of cooled bottle of water from refrigerator and keep it on a table. After some time you notice a puddle of water around it. Why?
Answer:
The cooled surface of the bottle cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses. So after some time, a puddle of water can be noticed around the bottle.

Question 4.
We could see clouds almost every day. Why doesn’t it rain daily?
Answer:
When the air around the clouds is cool the clouds then only rain comes. That is the reason why we can’t get rain daily.

Question 5.
Name the places where water is found as ice.
Answer:
Polar ice-caps, Ice sheets, and glaciers in Artie region arid Antarctica.

Question 6.
How do aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
Floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat and does not permit heat to escape from water. So aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic circle.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

1. Collecting water from where it falls.
2. Collecting rainwater by constructing bunds.

VIII. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Differentiate between surface water and groundwater.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a few slogans of your own on the topic “Save Water”.
Answer:

1. “To a thirsty man, a drop of water is worth more than a sack of gold”.
2. “Water covers 2/3 of the surface of the earth. But only 0.002% is drinkable. Save water”
3. “Save water to secure your future”
4. “Don’t make nature cry, keep your water clean”
5. “Store water for dry days”.

Question 3.
About 71% of earth’s surface is covered with water, then why do we face scarcity of water?
Answer:
71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water. The freshwater will be only 3%. It remains the same. But the water useful for plants, animals, and men is increasing day by day. So we face water scarcity.

Question 4.
Give reason for the following statement – Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
Answer:
Sewage contains harmful and toxic chemicals. They can disturb the ecosystem of the living animals, in the rivers or oceans. So it should be treated effectually before disposing into rivers or oceans.

Question 5.
The freshwater available on earth is only 3%. We cannot increase the amount of water. In that case, how can sustain the water level?
Answer:

1. The sewage water treatment is to be adopted.
2. Decrease the usage of pesticides, insecticides, and fertilizers in agriculture.
3. Protect forest and trees.
4. Adopt drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.
5. Rainwater harvesting should be implemented in every building.
6. Create awareness about the impact of throwing wastes into the water bodies.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What is potable water? List down its characteristics.
Answer:
The water which is fit for drinking by human beings is called potable water, characteristics

1. It is transparent.
2. It is odourless and colourless.
3. It is harmless or free from disease-causing bacteria.

Question 2.
Who is known as waterman of India? Browse the net and find the details about the award, the waterman received for water management. State the findings by drafting a report.
Answer:
The ‘Waterman of India’ is Dr. Rajendra Singh. He is a well-known water conservationist and environmentalist from Alwar district, Rajasthan.

Awards:

1. He gets the Ramon Magsaysay award for community leadership in 2001.
2. In 2005, he got the Jamnalal Bajaj Award for Science and Technology for rural development.
3. In 2008, The Guardian named him amongst its list of 50 people who could save the planet.
4. In 2015, he won the Stockholm Water Prize. He runs an NGO called ‘Tarun Bharat Sangh’ (TBS), which was founded in 1975.
5. In 2016, he was bestowed with Ahimsa Award by the Institute of Jainology based in UK.

Question 3.
What is rainwater harvesting? Explain in a few sentences how it can be used in houses.
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting:
Direct collection and use of rainwater are called rainwater harvesting.

There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

(a) Collecting water from where it falls.
Example: Collecting water from the rooftops of the houses or buildings (Roof water harvesting).

(b) Collecting flowing rainwater.
Example: Collecting rainwater by constructing ponds with bund.

X. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
When there is no pond or lake in an area, will there be the formation of clouds possible in that area?
Answer:
When there is no pond or lake in an area formation of clouds will be possible. Transpiration from the aerial parts of all plants and trees will evaporate water and it will form clouds.

Question 2.
To clean the spectacles, people often breathe out on glasses to make them wet. Explain why do the glasses become wet.
Answer:
When we breathe out, the hot air comes out from our mouth which gets condensed and changed into tiny water droplets, and glasses become wet.

XI. Crossword

Down:
1. A method of water conservation.
2. Process of getting water vapour from seawater.
6. Water stored in dams is used for the generation of ………..

Across:
3. ………. is a large body of non -potable water found in nature.
4. In summer, the body loses water as ……..
5. Plants undergo ………….. and contribute to the water cycle.

Answer:

XII. Observe the given graph carefully and answer the questions.

Question 1.

1. What percentage of water is seen in fish?
2. Name the food item that has the maximum amount of water in its content.
3. Name the food item that has a minimum amount of water in its content.
4. The human body consists of about ………. percentage of water.
5. Specify the food item that can be consumed by a person when he / she is suffering from dehydration.

Answer:

1. Fish – 70%
2. Watermelon
3. Fish
4. 60%
5. watermelon, pineapple

Question 2.
Look at the map of Tamilnadu showing annual rainfall and answer the questions given below

a. Identify the districts that get only low annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
northwest zone (Coimbatore, Erode, Namakkal, Karur)

b. Identify the districts that get a medium annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Pudhukottai, Virthunagar, Sivagangai, Salem, Dindigul, Theni, Vellore.

c. State the districts that enjoy high annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Chennai, Vizhupuram, Thiruvallur, Kadalur, Nagapattinam

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
If the total water on earth be 100% the percentage of freshwater is ………..
(a) 97%
(b) 93%
(c) 3%
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(c) 3%

Question 2.
_______ is a transparent, tasteless, odourless, chemical substance.
(a) Petrol
(b) Wax
(c) Water
(d) Kerosene
Ans:
(c) Water

Question 3.
Which one is not an example of groundwater?
(a) hand pump
(b) borewell
(c) wetland water
(d) well
Answer:
(c) wetland water

Question 4.
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds, and rivers evaporates due to the heat of _______
(a) Sun
(b) Pressure
(c) Atmosphere
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Sun

Question 5.
………. are wetlands where water bodies meet the sea.
(a) lake
(b) well
(c) estuary
(d) glacier
Answer:
(c) estuary

II. True or False.

1. Maximum surface water is stored in lakes.
2. The oceanic volcanoes add salts to the sea.
3. Water is a non-transparent chemical.
4. Transpiration takes place in rivers and lakes.
5. Nitrogen is used for the treatment of drinking water.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – v.
2. – iv.
3. – i.
4. – ii.
5. – iii.

IV. Analogy:

1. Low rainfall: Water scarcity : : Recycling Water : ………..
2. Frozen Water : Glaciers : : Surface Water : ………..
3. Evaporation : Sea : : …………. : Trees
4. Filtering : Sand : : ………….. : Ammonia
5. Solid State : ………… : : Gaseous State : Vapour

Answer:

1. Water Management
2. River
3. Transpiration
4. Disinfection
5. Ice

V. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the composition of water?
Answer:

1. Water is composed of two atoms of hydrogen combining with one atom of oxygen gas.
2. The molecular formula of water is H₂O.

Question 2.
What is water?
Answer:
Water is a transparent, tasteless, odourless and nearly colourless chemical substance.

Question 3.
What is saltwater?
Answer:
Water which has more than 3% salt is called saltwater. We can not drink and use this water.

Question 4.
What are the three stages in the water cycle?
Answer:
Evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 5.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
It is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant in vapour form is called transpiration.

VI. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the three stages of the water cycle.
Answer:

1. Water cycle is a continuous process.
2. It is also called the hydrological cycle.
3. The stages are

1. Evaporation :
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds and rivers evaporates due to the heat of the Sun.

2. Condensation:
Water vapour which enters into the atmosphere by evaporation moves upward with air, gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form clouds in the sky.

3. Precipitation:
Millions of tiny droplets collide with each other to form large droplets. The air around the clouds is cool these drops of a waterfall in the form of snow or rain.

Question 2.
How water is conserved by water management method?
Answer:
Water management consists of the following factors:

1. Bringing awareness about the bad effects of throwing wastes into the water bodies.
2. Recycling of water by separating pollutants.
3. Minimizing the use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture. It reduces the pollution of underground water.
4. Controlling deforestation.
5. Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture. In this way, a lesser amount of water can be used for irrigation.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 1 Magnetism Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Magnetism

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
An object that is attracted by a magnet.
a. wooden piece
b. plain pins
c. eraser
d. a piece of paper
Answer:
b. Plain pins

Question 2.
People who made mariner’s compass for the first time.
(a) Indians
(b) Europeans
(c) Chinese
(d) Egyptians
Answer:
(c) Chinese

Question 3.
A freely suspended magnet always comes to rest in the direction
a. North-east
b. South-west
c. East-west
d. North-south
Answer:
d. North-South

Question 4.
Magnets lose their properties when they are
(a) used
(b) stored
(c) hit with a hammer
(d) cleaned
Answer:
(c) hit with a hammer

Question 5.
Mariner’s compass is used to find the
a. speed
b. displacement
c. direction
d. motion.
Answer:
c. direction

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Artificial magnets are made in different shapes such as ……….., ………… and ………..
2. The Materials which are attracted towards the magnet are called ………..
3. Paper is not a ……….. material.
4. In olden days, sailors used to find direction by suspending a piece of ………..
5. A magnet always has ………. poles.

Answer:

1. Oval shape, Disc Shape, cylindrical shape
2. magnetic materials
3. magnetic
4. lodestone
5. Two

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. A cylindrical magnet has only one pole.
2. Similar poles of a magnet repel each other.
3. Maximum iron filings stick in the middle of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
4. A compass can be used to find East-West direction at any place.
5. Rubber is a magnetic material.

Answer:

1. False – A cylindrical magnet has two poles.
2. True
3. False – Maximum iron fillings stick in the poles of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
4. False – A. compass can be used to find north-south direction at any place.
5. False – Rubber is a non-magnetic material.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

V. Circle the odd ones and give reasons

Question 1.
Iron, nail, pins, rubber tube, needle
Answer:
Iron, nail, pins,  needle
Rubber tube is a non-magnetic substance.

Question 2.
Lift, escalator, electromagnetic train, electric bulb
Answer:
Lift, escalator, electromagnetic train,
Electromagnet is not used in an electric bulb.

Question 3.
Attraction, repulsion, pointing direction, illumination
Answer:
Attraction, repulsion, pointing direction,
Illumination is not a magnetic property.

VI. The following diagrams show two magnets near one another. Use the words, ‘Attract, Repel,Turn around’ to describe what happens in each case:

Answer:
(a) Attract. Opposite poles S – N attracts each other.
(b) Repel. Like poles S – S repel each other.
(c) Attract. Opposite poles N – S attract each other.
(d) Turn around.
(e) Repel. Like poles N – N repel each other.
(f) Turn around.

VII. Write down the names of substances.

Answer:

VIII. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Explain the attraction and repulsion between magnetic poles.
Answer:

1. Like poles (N – N, S – S) repel each other.
2. Unlike poles (N – S, S – N) attract each other.

Question 2.
A student who checked some magnets in the school laboratory found out that their magnetic force is worn out. Give three reasons for that?
Answer:
Magnets lose their properties if they are heated or dropped from a height or hit with a hammer.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
You are provided with an iron needle. How will you magnetize it?
Answer:

1. Place the iron needle on the table.
2. Take a bar magnet and place one of its poles near one edge of the iron needle.
3. Rub from one end to another without changing the direction of the pole of the magnet.
4. Repeat the process 30 to 40 times. The needle will be magnetized.
5. If it will not attract pin or iron fillings continue the same process for some more time.

Question 2.
How does electromagnetic train work?
Answer:

1. Electromagnets are used in electromagnetic trains.
2. Electromagnets are magnetised when current flows through them. When the direction of the current is changed, poles will be changed.
3. Magnets are attached at the bottom of the train and rail tracks.
4. The train is lifted from track up to 10 cm height by the property of the same poles repel each other.
5. By using attraction and repulsion at the same time between the magnets in tracks and bottom of train move forward.
6. The magnets are controlled by electricity.
7. There is no friction. So the train can easily attain a speed of 300 km/ h.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
You are provided with iron filings and a bar magnet without labelling the poles of the magnet. Using this ……….

a. How will you identify the poles of the magnet?
Answer:

1. When we place the bar magnet in iron fillings a large number of iron fillings stick on the two ends of the bar magnet. These ends are poles of the magnet.
2. Poles will attract more iron filings. Because poles have high magnetic strength.

b. Which part of the bar magnet attracts more iron filings? Why?
Answer:
The more iron filings are attracted by the poles of the magnet because the poles have more concentrated magnetic power.

Question 2.
Two bar magnets are given in figure A and B. By the property of attraction, identify the North pole and the South pole in the bar magnet (B)

Answer:
Opposite poles attract each other. The second pole of magnet A is N (north pole). So magnet B has S – N poles. Then only they will attract.

Question 3.
Take a glass of water with a few pins inside. How will you take out the pins without dipping your hands into the water?
Answer:

1. Take a bar magnet.
2. Tie it in a thread.
3. Dip the tied magnet into the glass of water.
4. The pins are attracted by the magnet.
5. Now take out the magnet from the glass of water.
6. Collect the pins from the magnet.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Which is not attracted by a magnet?
(a) Iron
(b) Cobolt
(c) Nickel
(d) Rubber
Answer:
(d) Rubber

Question 2.
Among the following which one is a magnetic substance?
(a) Nickel
(b) Sodium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) Nickel

Question 3.
Who invented leading stone?
(a) Indians
(b) Europians
(c) Chinese
(d) Americans
Answer:
(c) Chinese

Question 4.
Magnets lose their properties if they are _______
(a) dipped in water
(b) dipped in oil
(c) heated
(d) in freezer
Answer:
(c) heated

Question 5.
The maximum speed of electromagnetic train is
(a) 380 km/hr
(b) 600 km/h
(c) 480 km/h
(d) 690 km/h
Answer:
(b) 600 km/h

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Magnets are used to find directions. So they are called as ………..
2. ……….. is the ore with attracting property.
3. Ever silver spoon is a ……….. material.
4. ……….. is used to seperate iron from wastages.
5. The attractive force of magnet is high near …………

Answer:

1. leading stem
2. Magnetite
3. non-magnetic
4. electromagnet
5. Poles

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – v.
2. – iii.
3. – i.
4. – ii.
5. – iv.

IV. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are artificial magnets?
Answer:
Man-made magnets are called artificial magnets.
(Eg.) bar-magnets, horseshoe magnets.

Question 2.
What are the different types of artificial magnets?
Answer:

1. Bar-magnet, Horseshoe magnet, Ring magnet and Needle magnet are generally used artificial magnets.
2. Oval-shape, Disc shape and cylindrical shape magnets are also available.

Question 3.
What are magnetic substances?
Answer:
Substances which are attracted by magnets are called magnetic substances. (Eg.) Iron, Cobolt, Nickel

Question 4.
What are non-magnetic substances?
Answer:
Substances which are not attracted by magnets are called non-magnetic substances. (Eg.) Paper, Plastic etc.

Question 5.
What are the uses of magnets?
Answer:

1. We use various equipment with magnets in day to day life.
2. We use magnets in speakers, small electric motors, some door locks, bags, some toys, compass, pencil boxes, phone covers, pin holders and magnetic crane.

V. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the storage methods of magnets?
Answer:

1. Improper storage can also cause magnets to lose their properties.
2. To keep them safe, bar magnets should be kept in pairs with their unlike poles on the same side.
3. They must be seperated by a piece of wood and two pieces of soft iron should be placed across their ends.
4. For a horse shoe magnet a single piece of soft iron can be used as a magnetic keeper across the poles.

Question 2.
How to find directions with a magnet?
Answer:

1. Tie a piece of thread to the centre of a bar magnet and suspend it freely.
2. Note the direction in which the magnet stops.
3. Draw a line on a cardboard sheet along the direction in which the bar magnet stops, (ie., a line parallel to the bar magnet)
4. Turn the magnet gently and let it come to stop again.
5. Repeat it three or four times. The magnet always comes to rest in north-south direction.

VI. Questions based on higher-order thinking skills:

Question 1.
When iron needle is rubbed with bar magnet the needle get magnetized. But rubber piece is rubbed with magnet it will not get magnetized. Why?
Answer:
Because rubber is a non-magnetic substance.

Question 2.
What will happen when we place magnets near cell phone, computer and DVD?
Answer:

1. Magnets will lose their property.
2. These objects also will get affected.

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 7 Parts of Computer Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 7 Parts of Computer

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is an output device?
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Speaker
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Speaker

Question 2.
Name the cable that connects CPU to the Monitor
(a) Ethernet
(b) VGA cable
(c) HDMI
(d) USB
Answer:
(b) VGA cable

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an input device?
(a) Speaker
(b) Keyboard
(c) Monitor
(d) Printer
Answer:
(b) Keyboard

Question 4.
Which one of the following is an example for wireless connections?
(a) Wi-Fi
(b) Electric wires
(c) VGA
(d) USB
Answer:
(a) Wi-Fi

Question 5.
Pen drive is ……… device.
(a) Output
(b) Input
(c) Storage
(d) Connecting cable
Answer:
(c) Storage

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – Connecting Cable
2. – wireless connection
3. – Output device
4. – Input device
5. – LDMI

III. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Name the parts of a computer.
Answer:
The computer has three parts like,
1. Input unit
2. Central Processing Unit
3. Output

Question 2.
Answer:

Activity

Look at the magic of connecting cables to desktop computer with 4,3,2,1 formula, start from 4 proceed till 1. Now your computer is ready to use.

By connecting the various parts of a computer we can assemble a computer. For the construction activity, students have to use 4-3-2-1 formula.

A system consist of mouse, key board, monitor, CPU, power cables, and connecting cables Students has to connect the four parts of a computer in row 4, using the cables in row 3, through the power cables in row 2 to construct a system.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not important part of computer?
(a) Input device
(b) Output device
(c) Mouse
(d) Central Processing Unit
Answer:
(c) Mouse

Question 2.
The page on the monitor can be moved up and down using the _______
(a) Right button
(b) Scroll ball
(c) Left button
(d) Number key
Answer:
(b) Scroll ball

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an example for wireless connection.
(a) USB
(b) power cord
(c) HDMI
(d) wi-fi
Answer:
(d) wi-fi

Question 4.
The data is measured in units which is called as _______
(a) micron
(b) meter
(c) millimeter
(d) Bit
Answer:
(d) Bit

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………, ……….. plays a role of data in computer.
2. …….. controls the functions of all parts of the computer.
3. Memory unit divided into ………. types.
4. The data is measured in units which is called as ………..
5. Mouse is connected with the computer using ………..

Answer:

1. Numbers and alphabets
2. control unit
3. 2
4. Bit
5. USB cord or cable

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 6 Human Organ Systems Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 6 Human Organ Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Human Organ Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The circulatory system transports these throughout the body
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nutrient
(c) Hormones
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 2.
Main organ of respiration in human body is
(a) Stomach
(b) Spleen
(c) Heart
(d) Lungs
Answer:
(d) Lungs

Question 3.
Breakdown of food into smaller molecules in our body is known as
(a) Muscle contraction
(b) Respiration
(c) Digestion
(d) Excretion
Answer:
(a) Digestion

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. A group of organs together make up an ………. system.
2. The part of the skeleton that protects the brain is …………
3. The process by which the body removes waste is ………..
4. The ………. is the largest sense organ in our body.
5. The endocrine glands produce chemical substances called …………

Answer:

1. Organ
2. Skull
3. Excretion
4. Skin
5. hormones

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. Blood is produced in the bone marrow.
2. All the waste products of the body are excreted through the circulatory system.
3. The other name of the food pipe is an alimentary canal.
4. Thin tube-like structures which are the component of the circulatory system are called blood vessels.
5. The brain, the spinal cord, and nerves form the nervous system.

Answer:

1. False – RBC’s are produced in the bone marrow.
2. False – All the waste products are transported through the circulatory system.
3. False – The other name of the digestive tract is an alimentary canal.
4. True
5. True

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – e
3. – b
4. – a
5. – d

V. Arrange in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Stomach → Large intestine → Oesophagus → Pharynx → Mouth → Small Intestine → Rectum → Anus
Answer:
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Rectum

Question 2.
Urethra → Ureter → Urinary Bladder → Kidney
Answer:
Kidney → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra

VI. Analogy

1. Arteries : Carry blood from the heart:: ……….. : Carry blood to the heart.
2. Lungs : Respiratory system :: ……….. : Circulatory system.
3. Enzymes : Digestive glands :: ………… : Endocrine glands

Answer:

1. Veins
2. Heart
3. Hormones

VII. Give a Very short answer:

Question 1.
Describe the skeletal system.
Answer:

1. The skeletal system consists of bones, cartilages and joints.
2. Bones provide a framework for the body.
3. Bones along with muscles help in movements such as walking, running, chewing and dancing etc.

Question 2.
Write the functions of epiglottis?
Answer:

1. It prevents the entry of food into the windpipe.
2. It opens when the air enters the windpipe.

Question 3.
What are the three types of blood vessels?
Answer:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Capillaries

Question 4.
Define the term “Trachea”
Answer:

1. The trachea commonly called “Windpipe” is a tube supported by cartilaginous rings.
2. It connects the pharynx and larynx to the lungs.
3. Allowing the passage of air.

Question 5.
Write any two functions of the digestive system.
Answer:

1. The digestive system is involved in the conversion of complex food substances into simple forms.
2. Absorption of digested food.

Question 6.
Name the important parts of the eye?
Three main parts.
Answer:

1. Cornea
2. Iris
3. Pupil

Question 7.
Name the five important sense organs.
Answer:

1. Eyes
2. Ears
3. Nose
4. Tongue
5. Skin

VIII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
Write a short note on the rib cage.
Answer:

1. The rib cage is made up of 12 pairs of curved, flat rib bones.
2. It protects the delicate vital organs such as the heart and lungs.

Question 2.
List out the functions of the human skeleton.
Answer:

1. The skeletal system gives shape to the body.
2. Bones provide a framework for the body.
3. Bones along with muscles help in movements such as walking, running, chewing and dancing, etc.
4. It protects the soft internal organs.

Question 3.
Differentiate between the voluntary muscles and involuntary muscles.
Answer:

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
List out the functions of the Endocrine system and Nervous system.
Answer:

1. Endocrine system regulates various functions of the body and maintains the internal environment.
2. Endocrine glands produce chemical substances called “Hormones’ which control various activities of the body.
   Eg. Growth hormone controls growth, the Adrenalin hormone acts at the time of fear stress, etc.

Functions of the nervous system:

1. Sensory input: The conduction of signals from sensory receptors.
2. Integration: The interpretation of the sensory signals and the formulation of responses.
3. Motor output: The conduction of signals from the brain and spinal card to effectors such as muscle and gland cells.

Question 2.
Label the diagram given below to show the four main parts of the urinary system and answer the following questions.

a. Which organ removes extra salts and water from the blood?
b. Where is the urine stored?
c. What is the tube through which urine is excreted out of the body?
d. What are the tubes that transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder called?
Answer:
a. The functional units of the kidney are called Nephrons which filter the blood and form the urine.
b. Urine is stored in the urinary bladder.
c. Urine is expelled out through the urethra.
d. The ureters that transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What will happen if the diaphragm shows no movement?
Answer:

1. The diaphragm is the primary organ of breathing.
2. The movement of the diaphragm expands the lungs and creates a vacuum.
3. Due to this, the air is sucked in.
4. If the diaphragm does not move the lungs do not expand or contract and breathing stops.
5. The person will die.

Question 2.
Why is the heart divided into two halves by a thick muscular wall?
Answer:

1. The ventricles of the heart have thicker muscular walls than the atria.
2. The left ventricle also has a thicker muscular wall than the right ventricle.
3. This is due to the higher forces needed to pump blood through the systemic circuit compared to the pulmonary circuit.

Question 3.
Why do we sweat more in summer?
Answer:

1. Sweating plays an important health role as it helps to maintain constant body temperature by cooling us down.
2. When it is hot and we sweat that moisture evaporates and cools us immediately.
3. This is why we sweat more when the summer is very hot.

Question 4.
Why do we hiccup and cough sometimes when we swallow food?
Answer:
Reasons for hiccup and cough :

1. Eating too – quickly and swallowing air along with foods.
2. Eating too – many fatty or spicy foods in particular.
3. Drinking too much-carbonated beverages or alcohol can distend the stomach and irritate the diaphragm which can cause hiccups.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Human Organ Systems Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
A newborn baby has ……….. bones.
(a) 206
(b) More than 200
(c) More than 300
(d) 210
Answer:
(c) More than 300

Question 2.
_______ connect bone to muscle.
(a) Skeleton
(b) Tendons
(c) Cartilages
(d) Ligaments
Answer:
(b) Tendons

Question 3.
The walls of the heart is made up of
(a) Voluntary muscles
(b) Cardiae muscles
(c) Involuntary muscles
(d) Biceps muscle
Answer:
(b) Cardiac muscles

Question 4.
_______ muscles are found in the walls of the digestive tract, urinary bladder arteries, and other internal organs.
(a) Bone
(b) Smooth
(c) Cardiac
(d) triceps
Answer:
(b) Smooth

Question 5.
The bronchi divide further and end in small air sacs called
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Thymus
(c) Alveoli
(d) Pinna
Answer:
(c) Alveoli

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The adult human skeletal system consists of 206 bones and a few ………., ……… and ………..
2. The brain is covered by a three-layered tissue covering called………..
3. When we are walking, running or climbing the balance of the body is maintained by ………….
4. The endocrine gland present in the chest is …………..
5. The ………. brings blood containing oxygen and urea from the aorta to the kidneys.
6. connects the brain to a different part of the body through nerves.

Answer:

1. cartilages, ligaments, and tendons
2. meninges
3. Ears
4. Thymus Gland
5. renal artery
6. spinal cord

III. Match the Following:

Answer
1. – iii.
2. – i.
3. – iv.
4. – v.
5. – ii.

IV. Arrange in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Trachea → Bronchi → Pharynx → Lungs → Larynx → Nasal cavity → Nostrils → Bronchiole → Alveolus
Answer:
Nostrils → Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchiole → Alveolus

Question 2.
Middle ear → Pinna → Outer ear → Inner ear
Answer:
Pinna → Outer ear → Middle ear → Inner ear.

V. Analogy

1. Skull: Made up of cranial bones and facial bones :: ………… : Made up of 12 pairs of curved flat rib bones
2. Biceps : Bends the arm at the elbow :: ……….. : Straightens the elbow

Answer:

1. Ribcage
2. Triceps

VI. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the two major divisions of the skeletal system?
Answer:
The two major divisions of the skeletal system are.

1. Axial skeleton
2. Appendicular skeleton.

Question 2.
Name the auditory ossicles.
Answer:

1. Malleus
2. Incus
3. Stapes

Question 3.
Which is the longest bone in our body?
Answer:
The thigh bone (femur) is the longest bone.

Question 4.
What is the name of the muscles in the heart?
Answer:
Cardiac muscle.

Question 5.
What is the length of the Alimentary canal?
Answer:
9 metres.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Tabulate the differences between arteries and veins.
Answer:
Arteries:

1. Carry blood from the heart to all parts of the body.
2. Carry oxygenated blood (Except pulmonary artery).
3. They have thick elastic muscular walls.
4. Valves are absent.
5. Blood flows under high pressure.

Veins:

1. Carry blood from all parts of the body back to the heart.
2. Carry deoxygenated blood (Except pulmonary vein).
3. They have thin non-elastic valves.
4. Valves are present to prevent the backward flow of blood.
5. Blood flows under low pressure.

Question 2.
Differentiate arteries from a vein and tabulate your answer.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The unit of measurement used for expressing dimension (size) of cell is
(a) centimeter
(b) millimeter
(c) micrometer
(d) meter
Answer:
(c) micrometer

Question 2.
Under the microscope, Priya observes a cell that has a cell wall and a distinct nucleus. The cell that she observed is
(a) a plant cell
(b) an animal cell
(c) a nerve cell
(d) a bacteria cell
Answer:
(d) a bacteria cell

Question 3.
A ‘control centre’ of the eukaryotic cell is
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nucleus
(c) Vacuoles
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(b) Nucleus

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not a unicellular organism?
(a) Yeast
(b) Amoeba
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(c) Spirogyra

Question 5.
Most organelles in a eukaryotic cell are found in the
(a) Cell wall
(b) cytoplasm
(c) nucleus
(d) Vacuole
Answer:
(b) cytoplasm

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The instrument used to observe the cell is ………..
2. I control the food production of a cell. Who am I? ………..
3. I am like a policeman. Who am I ………?
4. The Term “cell” was coined by ………..
5. The egg of an Ostrich is the ……….. single cell.

Answer:

1. Microscope
2. Chloroplast
3. Cell membrane
4. Robert Hooke
5. Largest

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. A cell is the smallest unit of life.
2. Nerve cell is the longest cell
3. Prokaryotes were the first form of life on earth.
4. The organelles of both plants and animals are made up of cells. (Organelles – Found inside the cell)
5. New cells are produced from existing cells.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – b

V. Arrange in a correct sequence

Question 1.
Elephant, Cow, Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant.
Answer:
Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant, Cow, Elephant.

Question 2.
Hen Egg, Ostrich egg, Insect egg.
Answer:
Insect egg, Hen egg, Ostrich egg

VI. Analogy

1. Prokaryote : Bacteria :: Eukaryote : ………..
2. Spirogyra : Plant cell :: Amoeba : ………….
3. Food producer : Chloroplasts :: Power house : …………

Answer:

1. Plants, Animals
2. Animal cell
3. Mitochondria

VII. Give a Very short answer:

Question 1.
Who discovered the cell in 1665?
Answer:
The English scientist Robert Hooke discovered the cell in 1665 from cork slices kept under a microscope.

Question 2.
What type of cells do we have?
Answer:
We have a Eukaryotic type of cells.

Question 3.
What are the essential components of a cell?
Answer:
A typical cell consists of three major parts.

1. An outer cell membrane
2. A liquid cytoplasm
3. Nucleus

Question 4.
What are the organelles found only in plant cells?
Answer:

1. Cell wall
2. Chloroplast

Question 5.
Give any three examples of eukaryotic cells.
Answer:

1. Plant cells
2. Animal cells
3. Most of fungi and Algae

Question 6.
Which one is called as “Area of movement”?
Answer:
The cytoplasm is a watery, gel-like material in which cell parts move. So it is known as an “Area of movement”.

Question 7.
Shiva said, “Bigger onion has larger cells when compared to the cells of the smaller onion”! Do you agree with his statement or not? Explain why?
Answer:
No, the big onion and small onion both of them have plant cell and the size of every cell remains the same whether it is of a small onion or big one. The shape is larger means that the number of cells is more in bigger onion.

VIII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
Why cells are called building blocks of life?
Answer:
A brick is a basic building block of a wall, likewise, the cells are the basic structural and functional unit of every living organism. So the cells are called as building blocks of life.

Question 2.
Identify any four parts of the plant cell?

Answer:
A – Cell Wall,
B – Cytoplasm,
C – Nucleus,
D – Mitochondria

Question 3.
Distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Answer:

Question 4.
Make sketches of animal and plant cells which you observe under the microscope.
Answer:

Cell Wall & Chloroplasts – Absent in Animal Cells
Centrioles – Absent in Plant Cells

Question 5.
Write about the contribution of Robert Hooke in cell biology
Answer:
Robert Hooke was a scientist and inventor. He improved the microscope and built a compound microscope. One day he made thin sections of the cork and observed many small identical chambers through his microscope. They were hexagonal in shape. Based on these observations Hooke published a book named Micrographia in the year 1665, where he first used the term Cell. He describes the structure of tissue using the term cell.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Tabulate any five cell organelles and their function.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.
Answer:

X. Project (For Students)

Question 1.
Use your imagination and create a 3-D model of a plant cell?

Question 2.
You can use numerous food materials such as jelly and some cake to make a cell body. Cell organelles can be made using nuts and dry fruits. You can display the model in your classroom and invite teachers or students from other classes to rise questions on the project and try to give answers.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
The first cell formed in the earth
(a) Eukaryotic cell
(b) Algal cell
(c) Fungal cell
(d) Prokaryotic cell
Answer:
(d) Prokaryotic cell

Question 2.
Robert Hooke published a book named ______ in the year 1665.
(a) Cellula
(b) Micrographia
(c) Cell biology
(d) Organelles
Answer:
(b) Micrographia

Question 3.
The pigment present in leaf to absorb light is
(a) chlorophyll
(b) chloroplast
(c) chromoplast
(d) leucoplast
Answer:
(a) chlorophyll

Question 4.
The largest cell is the egg of an ______ with 170-millimeter width.
(a) Ostrich
(b) viper
(c) tortoise
(d) Hen
Answer:
(a) Ostrich

II. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Chloroplast is a cell organelle
Reason (R) : An organelle is a distinct part of the cell which has a particular structure and Function.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R – true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A True but R False
(d) A False but R True
Answer:
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Mitochondria is an important organ cell of the cell
Reason (R) : Mitochondria is involved in food preparation
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R – true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A True but R False
(d) A False but R True
Answer:
(c) A True but R False

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – B
2. – D
3. – E
4. – C

IV. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Arrange the following cells in the order of their size.
(a) Bacteria cell
(b) Frogs egg
(c) Hen’s egg
(d) Human egg.
Answer:
(a) Bacterial cell
(b) Human egg
(c) Frogs egg
(d) Hen’s egg

Question 2.
How do you distinguish between living and dead cells?
Answer:
Living cells have a nucleus (Eg.) Onion peel cells.
Non-Living cells don’t have a nucleus (Eg.) Cork ceils.

Question 3.
Name the largest Angiosperm cell
Answer:
The largest Angiosperm cell is citrus reticulata (clearly visible in orange pulp) & citrus maxima.

Question 4.
Name the organelle without membrane.
Answer:
Ribosomes are the cell organelle in which the membrane is absent.

Question 5.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C, D

Answer:
The diagram is the structure of the chloroplast
A – outer membrane
B – inner membrane
C – Thylakoid
D – stroma

Question 6.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C

Answer:
A – Outer Membrane
B – Cristae
C – Matrix

Question 7.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C

Answer:
Structure of Nucleus
A – Nuclear membrane
B – Nuclear pore
C – Nucleolus
D – Chromatin reticulum

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 2 Electricity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Electricity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The device which converts chemical energy into electrical energy is
(a) fan
(b) solar cell
(c) cell
(d) television
Answer:
(c) cell

Question 2.
Electricity is produced in
(a) transformer
(b) power station
(c) electric wire
(d) television
Answer:
(b) power station

Question 3.
Choose the symbol for battery

Answer:

Question 4.
In which among the following circuits does the bulb glow?

Answer:

Question 5.
_______ is a good conductor
(a) silver
(c) rubber
(b) wood
(d) plastic
Answer:
(a) silver

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………. are the materials which allow electric current to pass through them.
2. Flow of electricity through a closed circuit is …………
3. ……… is the device used to close or open an electric circuit.
4. The long perpendicular line in the electrical symbol represents its ………… terminal.
5. The combination of two or more cells is called a ………..

Answer:

1. Conductors
2. electric current
3. Key
4. positive
5. battery

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. In a parallel circuit, the electricity has more than one path.
2. To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the other cell.
3. The switch is used to close or open an electric circuit.
4. Pure water is a good conductor of electricity.
5. Secondary cell can be used only once.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – The negative terminal of one cell is connected to positive terminal of other cell.
3. True
4. False – Pure water is an insulator.
5. False – Secondary cells can be used many times.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – Battery
2. – Bulb does not glow
3. – Open key
4. – Bulb glows
5. – Cell

V. Arrange in Sequence

Answer:
A DEVICE THAT CONVERTS CHEMICAL ENERGY INTO ELECTRICAL ENERGY IS CALLED A CELL.

VI. Give Very Short Answers

Question 1.
In the given circuit diagram, which of the given switches) should be closed. So that only the bulb A glows.

Answer:
K₁ and K₂ should be connected to glow bulb A in the circuit

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : It is very easy for our body to receive electric shock.
Reason (R) : Human body is a good conductor of electricity.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is wrong but R is correct.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation for A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.

Question 3.
Can you produce electricity from a lemon?
Answer:

1. We can produce electricity from the lemon.
2. Take lemon as an electrolyte, copper plate as positive terminal, and small hairpin as the negative terminal. This setup will work as a cell.
3. If we connect the electric bulb with it bulb will glow.

Question 4.
Identify the conductor from the following figures.

Answer:
Metallic chain is a conductor.

Question 5.
What type of circuit is there in a torchlight?
Answer:
Simple circuit system is used in a torchlight.

Question 6.
Circle the odd one out. Give a reason for your choice.
Answer:
Switch, Bulb, Battery, Generator.
Generator is the source of electricity. Others are parts of a circuit.

VII. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
Draw the circuit diagram for the series connection.
Answer:

Question 2.
Can the cell used in the clock give us an electric shock? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. The cell used in the clock will not give us an electric shock because the voltage of that cell is very low nearly 1.5 v.
2. So it will not affect our body.

Question 3.
Silver is a good conductor but it is not preferred for making electric wires. Why?
Answer:

1. Silver is a costly metal.
2. So economically we can not use it in electric wires.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is the source of electricity? Explain the various power stations in India.
Answer:

1. In thermal power stations, thermal energy is generated by burning coal, diesel, or gas to produce steam.
2. Steam is used to rotate the turbine to generate electricity.
3. Here heat energy is converted into electric energy.

Hydel power stations:

1. In hydel power stations, the turbine is made to rotate by the flow of water from dams.
2. Here kinetic energy is converted into electric energy.

Atomic power station:

1. Here nuclear energy is used to boil water
2. The steam thus produced is used to rotate the turbine, as a result, electricity is produced.
3. Here nuclear energy is converted into mechanical energy.

Windmills:

1. In windmills, wind energy is used to rotate turbines to produce electricity.
2. Here kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy.

Question 2.
Tabulate the different components of an electric circuit and their respective symbols.
Answer:

Question 3.
Write short notes on conductors and insulators.
Answer:
Conductors:
The rate of flow of electric charges in a circuit is called electric current. The materials which allow electric charges to pass through them are called conductors.
Examples: Copper, iron, aluminum, impure water, earth, etc.,

Iniulaton (Non-Conductors):
The materials which do not allow electric charges to pass through them are called insulators or non-conductors.
Examples: plastic, glass, wood, rubber, china clay, ebonite, etc.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Rahul wants to make an electric circuit. He has a bulb, two wires, a safety pin, and a piece of copper. He does not have any electric cell or battery. Suddenly he gets some idea. He uses lemon instead of a battery and makes a circuit. Will the bulb glow?
Answer:
1. Yes, the bulb will glow.
2. Insert a piece of copper on one side of lemon, safety pin on another side. This system will work as a battery.
3. Copper rod – Positive terminal
Safety pin – Negative terminal, Lemon – Electrolyte
4. Connect the connecting wire in both the terminals and finally connect to the bulb.
5. The current produced is passed through the circuit and the bulb will glow.

X. Search ten words in the given word grid and classify them as conductors and insulators

Question 1.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Electricity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Here heat energy is converted into electric energy
(a) Thermal power station
(b) Atomic power station
(c) Hydel power station
(d) Windmills
Answer:
(a) Thermal power station

Question 2.
In atomic power station, ________ is used to rotate the turbine.
(a) water
(b) steam
(c) Air
(d) diesel
Answer:
(b) steam

Question 3.
Which one of the following is using secondary using cells?
(a) Hand watch
(b) Robo toy
(c) Laptop
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Laptop

Question 4.
If two or more ________ are connected in series in a circuit, then it is called a series circuit.
(a) keys
(b) cells
(c) connecting wires
(d) bulbs
Answer:
(d) bulbs

Question 5.
……….. fish is able to produce an electric current.
(a) Goldfish
(b) Electric Eel
(c) Katla
(d) Salamon fish
Answer:
(b) Electric Eel

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Any device from which electricity is produced is called ………..
2. The place in Kanyakumari district that has more windmills is ………..
3. ……….. have long economic lives and low operating cost.
4. A chemical solution that produces positive and negative ions is used as ………….
5. ……….. invented the electric bulb.

Answer:

1. Source of electricity
2. Aralvaimozhi
3. Hydel power stations
4. electrolyte
5. Thomas Alva Edison

III. Say True of False.

1. Atomic power stations convert nuclear energy into electric energy.
2. The cell can be used only once is called secondary cells.
3. We can produce electricity from potatoes.
4. An ammeter is connected in parallel in circuits.
5. The voltage of the torchlight battery is 1.5 v.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. 3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – iii
2. – i
3. – iv
4. – ii
5. – v

V. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Experiments with electricity should only be performed with torch or radio batteries.
Reason (R) : Household electric supply will have high voltage and dangerous
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is wrong but R is correct.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation
Answer:
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Primary cells can not be recharged, they can be used only once.
Reason (R) : In vehicles, we use primary cells.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
b. A is true but R is not correct.
c. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct reason for A
d. A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
b. A is true but R is not correct

VI. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the places in which atomic power stations located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Kalpakkam, Kanchipuram district.
2. Koodankulam, Tirunelveli district.

Question 2.
List out the parts required to make an electric circuit
Answer:
A key, connecting wires, dry cell or battery, and electric bulb.

Question 3.
How to connect the cells in torchlight to glow bulbs?
Answer:
1. Connect the positive terminal of one cell with the negative terminal of another cell.
2. The bulb will glow.

Question 4.
How electric current is produced in Thermal power stations?
Answer:
The thermal energy generated by burning coal is used to produced steam. The steam thus produced is used to rotate the turbine. While the turbine rotates, the coil of wire kept between the electromagnet rotates. Due to electromagnetic induction, electricity is produced.

Question 5.
What is meant by a battery or collection of cells?
Answer:
Two or more cells are combined together to make a battery or collection of cells.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is a cell? Explain the types of cells.
Answer:
A device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called a cell. Cells are classified, in two types. They are-

1. Primary cells,
2. Secondary cells.

1. Primary cells:

• They can not be recharged.
• They can be used only once.
• They are small in size.
• Eg. Cells used in clocks, watches, and toys, etc.

2. Secondary cells:

• A cell that can be recharged many times is called secondary cells.
• Depending upon usage size may vary.
• Eg. Secondary cells are used in mobile phones, laptops, emergency lamps, and vehicle batteries.

Question 2.
What are the safety measures to safeguard a person from electric shock?
Answer:
Safety measures to safeguard a person from electric shock:

1. Switch off the power supply.
2. Remove the connection from the switch.
3. Push him away using non-conducting materials.
4. Give him first aid and take him to the nearest health centre.