Category: Class 6

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Geography Chapter 1 Asia and Europe Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Asia and Europe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia and Europe Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is not the Western margin of Asia?
(a) Black Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Red Sea
(d) Arabian Sea
Answer:
(d) Arabian Sea

Question 2.
The Intermontane …………… plateau is found between Elbruz and Zagros.
(a) Tibet
(b) Iran
(c) Deccan
(d) The Yunnan
Answer:
(b) Iran

Question 3.
Equatorial climate:
(i) Uniform throughout the year.
(ii) The average / mean rainfall is 200 mm.
(iii) The average temperature is 10°C.
(iv) Of the statements give above.
(a) i alone is correct
(b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i and ii are correct
Answer:
(a) i alone is correct

Question 4.
Match list I correctly with list II and select your answer from the codes given below.

Codes:
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1
(b) 4, 3 , 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer:
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1

Question 5.
India is the leading producer of ______
(a) Zinc
(b) Mica
(c) Manganese
(d) Coal
Answer:
(b) Mica

Question 6.
The natural boundary between Spain and France is ……………
(a) The Alps
(b) The Pyrenees
(c) The Carpathian
(d) The Caucasus
Answer:
(b) The Pyrenees

Question 7.
The western and north-western Europe enjoys mild and humid climate.
Choose the correct option:
(a) These regions are found near the equator
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift
(c) It is surrounded by mountains
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Europe produces electricity from hydel power.
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps.
(c) Most of the rivers in Europe are used for inland navigation.
(d) The fivers of Europe are perennial in nature.
Answer:
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps.

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) The Meseta – Spain
(b) The Jura – France
(c) The Pennine – Italy
(d) The Black Forest – Germany
Answer:
(c) The Pennines – Italy

Question 10.
Which country in Europe has a very low density of population?
(a) Iceland
(b) The Netherlands
(c) Poland
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(a) Iceland

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the …………….
2. The wettest place in the world is …………….
3. Iran is the largest producer of ……………. in the world.
4. Europe connected with south and south east Asia by …………….
5. The national dance of Philippines is …………….
6. The second highest peak in Europe is …………….
7. The type of climate that prevails in the central and eastern parts of Europe is …………….
8. The important fishing ground in North Sea is ……………..
9. The density of population in Europe is ……………..
10. The river ……………. passes through nine countries of Europe.

Answer:

1. Armenian
2. Mawsynram
3. dates
4. the Suez canal
5. Tinikling
6. the Mont Blanc
7. Continental type
8. Dogger Bank
9. 34 persons/Km²
10. Danube

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – e
4. – b
5. – c

IV. Let us learn

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Italy has dry summers and rainy winters
Reason (R) : It is located in the Mediterranean region
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true

Question 2.
Places marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the given map are noted for the following plains.
(a) Indo – Gangetic plain
(b) Manchurian plain
(c) Mesopotamian
(d) Great plains of China
Match the plains with the notation on the map and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:

Answer:
b) 2 1 3 4

Question 3.
In the given outline map of Asia, the shaded areas indicate the cultivation of ……………..

(a) Sugarcane
(b) Dates
(c) Rubber
(d) Jute
Answer:
(b) Dates

V. Answer in Brief

Question 1.
Name the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.
Answer:
The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran, and the plateau of Tibet are the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the monsoon climate.
Answer:

1. The south, southeast and eastern parts of Asia are strongly influenced by monsoon winds.
2. Summer is hot and humid while winter is cool and dry.
3. The summer monsoon winds bring heavy rainfall to India, Bangladesh, Indo-China, Philippines and Southern China.

Question 3.
How does physiography play a vital role in determining the population of Asia?
Answer:

1. In Asia, the population is unevenly distributed because of various physical features.
2. China and India alone cover three-fifth of Asia’s population.
3. River plains and industrial regions have a high density of population, whereas low density is found in the interior parts of Asia.

Question 4.
Name the ports found is Asia.
Answer:
Tokyo, Shanghai, Singapore, Hong Kong, Chennai, Mumbai, Karachi and Dubai are the important seaports in Asia.

Question 5.
Asia is called the ‘Land of Contrasts – Justify.
Answer:
The biggest continent Asia is called “the land of contrasts”.
Because:

1. Asia is the biggest continent has different types of land features such as mountain, plateau, plain, valley, bay, island etc.
2. It has different climatic conditions from the equator to polar region.
3. Apart from this many races, languages, religions and cultures are followed by people who live in Asia. Therefore, Asia is called ‘the land of contrasts’.

Question 6.
Name the important mountains found in the Alpine system.
Answer:
The important mountain ranges in the Alpine system are the Sierra Nevada, the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the Carpathian.

Question 7.
What are the important rivers of Europe?
Answer:
The important rivers of Europe are Volga, Danube, Dnieper, Rhine, Rhone, Po, and Thames.

Question 8.
Name a few countries which enjoy the Mediterranean type of climate.
Answer:
The Mediterranean and sub-mediterranean climate regions in Europe are found in much of southern Europe, mainly in southern Portugal, most of Spain, the southern coast of France, Italy, the Croatian Coast, much of Bosnia, Montenegro, Kosovo, Serbia, Albania, Macedonia, Greece and the Mediterranean Islands.

Question 9.
Give a short note on the population of Europe.
Answer:

1. Europe is the third-most populous continent, after Asia and Africa. The population density in Europe is.34 persons / km2.
2. High population density is often associated with the coalfields of Europe.
3. Other populous areas are sustained by mining, manufacturing, commerce, offering large market, labour forces and productive agriculture.
4. Monaco, Malta, San Marino, and the Netherlands are the most densely populated countries; Iceland and Norway have a very low density of population.

Question 10.
Name the important festivals celebrated in Europe.
Answer:

1. The Europeans celebrate both religious and holiday festivals.
2. Christmas, Easter, Good Friday, the Saint Day, Redentore, Tomatina and Carnival are the important festivals of Europe.

VI. Distinguish

Question 1.
Intermontane plateaus and southern plateaus.
Answer:
Intermontane plateaus:

1. Intermontane plateaus are found in the mountain ranges.
2. Eg, The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran, and the plateau of Tibet

Southern plateaus:

1. The southern plateaus are relatively lower than the northern plateaus.
2. Eg. Arabian Plateau, Deccan Plateau, Shan Plateau, and the Yunnan Plateau.

Question 2.
Cold desert and hot desert.
Answer:
Cold desert:

1. A barren or desolate area especially sandy region of little rainfall, featuring cold dry winter.
2. Cold deserts are found in the antarctic, Green land, Western China, Turkartan the Gopi crodi desert in Mongolia.

Hot desert:

1. A barren or desolate area often the sandy region of little rainfall.
2. The largest hot desert is the Sahara desert.

Question 3.
Tundra and Taiga.
Answer:

Thunder:

1. The Arctic and northern Scandinavian highland have Tundra type of vegetation.
2. The winters are very long and severe summers are very short and warm.
3. It is the land with few animals like polar bear, reindeer and walrus
4. No trees. Lowest form of vegetation like Mosses and Lichen only available.

Taiga:

1. They are found in the south of the Tundra region in Norway, Sweden, Finland, Germany, Poland and Austria.
2. The winters are long and cold. Summers are short and warm.
3. It is the land of fur bearing animals. Eg. Mink, silver fox, squirrel etc.
4. Pine, fir, spruce and larch are the important tree varieties.

Question 4.
The North-Western highlands and Alpine mountain range
Answer:
The North-Western Highlands:

1. This region includes the mountains and plateaus of Norway, Sweden, Finland, Scotland, and Iceland.
2. This region has a fjord coast. It was created by glaciations.
3. A lot of lakes here serve as reservoirs for producing hydroelectricity.

The Alpine mountain range:

1. The Alpine mountain system consists of a chain of young fold mountains found in the southern part of Europe.
2. The Sierra Nevada, the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the
3. Carpathian is the important mountain ranges.
4. The Pyrenees is a natural boundary between Spain and France.

VII. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Asia is the leading producer of rice.
Answer:
Because:

1. In Asia, India has the largest area of arable lands.
2. Agriculture is intensively practiced in the riverine plains of Asia
3. China and India are the leading producers of rice in the world.

Question 2.
Asia is the largest and most populous continent in the world.
Answer:
Because:

1. Most of the land of Asia in the northern hemisphere has different physical and cultural features.
2. Lofty mountains, plateaus, plains, islands and peninsulas are the major physiographic features.
3. Many perennial rivers flow through different parts. These river valleys are the cradles of ancient civilizations.
4. River plains and industrial regions have high density of population. Population density 143 persons/Km².
5. Asia covers about 30 percent of the world’s population.

Question 3.
Although Western Europe is located in the high latitudes, it has a moderate climate.
Answer:
Because:

1. The western part has a mild, generally humid climate, influenced by the North Atlantic Drift.
2. North Atlantic Drift is a Warm ocean current which brings warmth to the Western Europe.

VIII. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Give an account of the drainage system in Asia.
Answer:

1. The rivers of Asia originate mostly from the central highlands.
2. The Ob, Yenise and Lena are the major rivers flow towards the north and drain into the Arctic Ocean. They remain frozen during winter.
3. Many perennial rivers like Brahmaputra, Indus, Ganga and Irrawaddy originate from the high mountains.
4. They do not freeze during winter.
5. The Euphrates and Tigris flow in west Asia.
6. The Amur, Huang He, Yangtze and Mekong flow in the south and southeastern parts. The Yangtze is the longest river in Asia.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral sources found in Asia.
Answer:

1. Asia has a variety of mineral deposits like Iron, Coal, Manganese, Bauxite, Zinc, Tungsten, Petroleum, Tin etc. Oil and Natural Gas found in the west Asian countries.
2. Iron Ore: Asia has the largest deposits of iron ore in the world. China and India are the important iron ore deposit countries of Asia.
3. Coal: Coal is a fossil fuel. China and India are the largest producers of coal in Asia.
4. Petroleum: Petroleum is a mineral oil. The largest petroleum reserves are found in South West Asia. The important petroleum-producing countries are Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iran, Bahrain, Qatar and UAE.
5. Bauxite is found in India and Indonesia.
6. Mica: India is the largest producer in the world.
7. Tin is found in Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia.

Question 3.
What are fjords? How do they protect harbours from bad weather conditions?
Answer:

1. A fjord is a narrow and deep-sea inlet between steep clifts.
2. Fjords reduce the speed of wind irrespective of their direction.
3. The force of sea waves is also controlled.
4. Fjord coast was created by glaciations in the past.
5. Areas with fjords are best suited for natural harbours. Example : Norway.

Question 4.
Describe the climatic divisions of Europe.
Answer:

1. The climate of Europe varies from the subtropical to the polar climate.
2. The Mediterranean climate of the south has warm summer and rainy winter.
3. The western and northwestern parts have a mild, generally humid climate, influenced by the North Atlantic Drift.
4. In central and eastern Europe, the climate is humid continental-type.
5. In the northeast, subarctic and tundra climates are found.
6. The whole of Europe is subject to the moderating influence of prevailing westerly winds from the Atlantic Ocean.
7. North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current which brings warmth to Western Europe.
8. The westerly wind further transports warmth across Europe.

X. Activity

Question 1.
Complete the following
I belong to ………… district. My district is famous for the following : …………, ………… and ………… . The boundaries of my districts are in the north, in the east, in the south and in the west. It spreads for an area of km². There are ………… taluks and ………… villages in my district. …………, …………, ………… are the important mountain / plain / plateaus (If all, mention all features). The rivers …………, ………… ………… criss – cross my district. …………, …………, ………… are common trees and wildlife such as, are found here. …………, …………, ………… are important minerals available in my district. Based on this …………, ………… industries are located here. The major crops are …………, …………, ………… . (Coastal districts may write the variety of fish). The total population is …………. We celebrate …………, …………, ………… festivals.
Answer:
Tirunelveli, Nellaiyappar Temple, Courttalam, Halwa, Virudhunagar, Tuticorin, Kanyakumari, Western Ghats, 6823sq.kms, 16 taluks, 559 Villages, Thamirabarani, Chittar, Manimuthar, Palm, Neem, Cocount, Monkeys, Tigers, Elephants, Bluemetal, Lime stone, Thorium, Cement, Ginning, Vessels, Paddy, Cotton, Sugarcane, 33, 22, 644, Pongal, Deepavali, Christmas.

Question 2.
If you get a chance to settle in Europe, which country would you choose? List out the reasons why?

Question 3.
Choose any region is Asia. In the map of Asia, mark its distribution of natural vegetation and wildlife. Paste related pictures.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia and Europe Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………. separates Asia from Africa
(a) Suez Canal
(b) Bering Strait
(c) Mediterranean Sea
(d) Palk Striat
Answer:
(a) Suez Canal

Question 2.
Shan plateau is located in ______
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Myanmar
(c) India
(d) China

Question 3.
The South Asian rivers
(i) remain frozen during winter
(ii) flow towards the north
(iii) are perennial
Of the statements given above
(a) i alone is correct
(b) iii alone is correct
(c) All the three are correct
(d) All the three are wrong
Answer:
(b) iii alone is correct

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Coal – China
(b) Iron ore – India
(c) Bauxite – Iran
(d) Tin – Myanmar
Answer:
(c) Bauxite – Iran

Question 5.
River yangtze flows in ……………
(a) Inida
(b) Japan
(c) Myanmar
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Question 6.
The light house of the Mediterranean is ______
(a) Mt. Stromboli
(b) Mt. Etana
(c) Mt. Vesuvius
(d) None of the above

Question 7.
Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) Siberian Plain – Ob, Yenisey
(b) Manchurian Plain – Amur
(c) Greet plain of China – Yangtze, Sikiang
(d) Mesopotamian Plain – Irrawaddy
Answer:
(d) Mesopotamian Plain – Irrawaddy

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – e
3. – d
4. – b
5. – a

III. True/False

1. There are two knots found in Asia.
2. Ob, Yensie, Lena remain frozen during winter
3. Teak, Sandal wood are coniferous trees
4. The fjord region has a lot of lakes
5. Wheat is the dominant crop throughout Europe.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True

IV. Answer in Brief

Question 1.
What are the cradles of ancient civilization? Why?
Answer:

1. The river valleys are the cradles of civilizations.
2. Because the ancient civilizations Indus valley, Mesopotamian and Chinese civilizations were born in Asian river valleys.

Question 2.
Mention the Physical divisions of Asia.
Answer:
The physical divisions of Asia are

1. The Northern lowlands
2. The Central High Mountains
3. The Southern Plateaus
4. The Great Plains and
5. The Island Groups.

Question 3.
What are the rare species found in Asia?
Answer:

1. Orang – Utan
2. Komodo Dragon
3. Giant Panda

Question 4.
Mention the Great Plains of Asia.
Answer:
The great plains of Asia are

1. West Siberian plain (Ob and Yenisey)
2. Manchurian Plain (Amur)
3. Great Plain of China (Yangtze and Sikiang)
4. Indo-Gangetic Plain (Indus and Ganga)
5. Mesopotamian plain (Tigris and Euphrates) and
6. The Irrawaddy plain (Irrawaddy)

Question 5.
Name the countries where fishing is a large industry.
Answer:

1. Norway
2. Iceland
3. Russia
4. Denmark
5. The United Kingdom
6. The Netherlands

V. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Europe is a modern and economically developed continent.
Answer:
Avilability of sources, efficient educated work force, research, contact with other nations and innovations are the factors that transformed like this.

Question 2.
Varied patterns of agricultural activities are in use in Europe.
Answer:

1. Europe is an industrially developed continent. It has great diversity in its topography, climate and soil.
2. These interact to produce varied patterns of agriculture activities.

[The varied patterns of agriculture activities in use: Mediterranean agriculture, Dairy farming, mixed livestock, crop farming, horticulture]

Question 3.
There is no winter in the equatorial region.
Answer:
The areas found in and around the equator of Asia have uniform climate throughout the year. There is no winter. Average temperature 27°c. The mean rainfall 1270 mm.

VI. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Describe Industries in Europe.
Answer:

1. Large scale Industries : Steel and Iron are, Ship building, Motor vehicle, Aircraft construction, Pharmaceutical drugs.
2. Small scale Industries that produce nondurable goods are found throughout Europe.
3. Some countries have a reputation for speciality goods.
   • Bicycles – English, Italian and Dutch
   • Glass – Swedish and Finnish
   • Perfumes and fashion goods – Parisian
   • Precision instruments – Swiss

VII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 History Chapter 4 South Indian Kingdoms Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 South Indian Kingdoms

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
Who among the following built the Vaikundaperumal temple?
(a) Narasimhavarma II
(b) Nandivarma II
(c) Dantivarman
(d) Parameshvaravarma
Answer:
(b) Nandivarma II

Question 2.
Which of the following titles were the titles of Mahendra Varma I?
(a) Mattavilasa
(b) Vichitra Chitta
(c) Gunabara
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 3.
Which of the following inscriptions describes the victories of Pulakesin II?
(a) Aihole
(b) Saranath
(c) Sanchi
(d) Junagath
Answer:
(a) Aihole

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement I : Pallava art shows transition from rock – cut – monolithic structure to stone built temple.
Statement II : Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram is an example of Pallava art and architecture.
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 2.
Consider the following statement(s) about Pallava Kingdom.
Statement I : Tamil literature flourished under Pallava rule, with the rise in popularity of Thevaram composed by Appar.
Statement II : Pallava King Mahendravarman was the author of the play MattavilasaPrahasana.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer:
(c) Both I and II

Question 3.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta dynasty and find out which of the following statements are correct.
(1) It was founded by Dantidurga
(2) Amogavarsha wrote Kavirajmarga
(3) Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a correct pair?
Answer:
(a) Ellora caves – Rashtrakutas
(b) Mamallapuram – Narasimhavarma I
(c) Elephanta caves – Ashoka
(d) Pattadakal – Chalukyas
Answer:
(c) Elephanta caves – Ashoka

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Dandin – Dasakumara Charitam
(b) Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba
(c) Bharavi – Kiratarjuneeyam
(d) Amogavarsha – Kavirajamarga
Answer:
(b) Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. defeated Harsha Vardhana on the banks of the river Narmada.
2. ……………….. destroyed Vatapi and assumed the title VatapiKondan.
3. ……………….. was the author of Aihole Inscription.
4. ……………….. was the army general of Narasimhavarma I
5. The music inscriptions in ……………….. and ……………….. show Pallavas ‘interest in music.

Answer:

1. Pulakesin II
2. Narasimhavarma
3. Ravikirti
4. Paranjothi
5. Kudumianmalai, Thiruamayam

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b

V. State True or False

1. The famous musician Rudracharya lived during Mahendravarma I.
2. The greatest king of the Rashtrakuta dynasty was Pulakesin II.
3. Mamallapuram is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
4. Thevaram was composed by Azhwars.
5. The Virupaksha temple was built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha Temple.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the three gems of Kannada literature.
Answer:
The three gems of Kannada literature were Pampa, Sri Ponna, and Raima.

Question 2.
How can we classify the Pallava architecture?
Answer:
Pallava architecture can be classified as

1. Rock-cut temples – Mahendravarman style.
2. Monolithic Rathas and Sculptural Mandapas Mamallan style.
3. Structural Temples – Rajasimhan style and Nandivarman style.

Question 3.
What do you know of Gatika?
Answer:

1. Gatika means monastery or Centre of learning.
2. It was popular during the Pallava times at Kanchi.
3. It attracted students from all parts of India and abroad.
4. Vatsyayana who wrote Nyaya Bhashya was a teacher at Kanchi (Gatika). Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain.

Question 4.
Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain
Answer:

1. Under Mamalla style, the five rathas (chariots), popularly called Panchapandavar rathas, signify the different style of temple architecture.
2. Each ratha has been carved out of a single rock.
3. So they are called monolithic.
4. The popular mandapams here are Mahishasuramardhini mandapam, Thirumoorthi mandapam and Varaha mandapam.

Question 5.
Make a note on Battle of Takkolam.
Answer:

1. Krishna III was the last able ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty,
2. He defeated the Cholas in the battle of Takkolam (presently in Vellore Dt) and captured Thanjavur.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Examine Pallavas’ contributions to architecture.
Answer:
Pallava period is known for architectural splendour. In 1984 Mamallapuram was added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The illustrious examples of Pallava architecture are the Shore Temple, other temples and the Varaha cave.

Mahendra style : (Rock – cut temples)
Mahendravarma style of cave temples are seen at Mandagapattu, Mahendra vadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Trichirapalli, Vallam, Tirukazhukkundram and Siyamangalam.

Mamalla Style : (Monolithic Rathas and Sculptural Mandapas)

1. The last example for Mamalla style monolithic is Panchapandavar rathas. Mahishasuramardhini mandapam, Thirumoorthi mandapam and Varaha mandapam are the popular mandapams.
2. The most important is the open art gallery. The fall of the Ganges from the head of Lord Shiva and the Arjun’s penance are notable sculptures.

Rajasimha Style : (Structural Temples)
Rajasimha (Narasimhavarma II) Style was a structural temple. The best example is the Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram. This temple is called Rajasimheswaram.

Nandivarma Style : (Structural Temples)
Nandivarma style was the last stage of pallava architecture. The best example is Vaikunda Perumal temple at Kanchipuram.

Question 2.
Write a note on Elephanta island and Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
Answer:
Elephanta island:

1. Elephanta is an island near Mumbai. It is originally known as Sripuri and the local people called Gharapuri.
2. The Portuguese named it as Elephanta after seeing the image.
3. The Trimurthi Siva icon and the images of dwarapalakas are seen in the cave temple.

Kailasanatha temple at Ellora:

1. Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple. It was one of the 30 temples carved out at Ellora.
2. The temple covers an area of over 60,000 sq. feet and vimanam rises to a height of 90 feet.
3. It portrays typical Dravidian features and has a resemblance to the shore temple at Mamallapuram.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Give an account of the Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.
Answer:
Western Chalukyas of Kalyani:

1. They were the descendants of Badami Chalukyas ruled from Kalyani (modem day Basavakalyan).
2. In 973, Tailapa II, a feudatory of the Rashtrakuta mling from the Bijapur region, defeated Parmara of Malwa.
3. Tailapa II occupied Kalyani and his dynasty quickly grew into an empire under Someswara I.
4. Someswara I moved the capital from Manyakheta to Kalyani.
5. For over a century, both the Chalukyas and the Cholas fought many fierce battles to control the fertile region of Vengi.
6. In the late 11th century, under Vikramaditya VI, vast areas between the Narmada river in the north and Kaveri river in the South came under Chalukya control.
7. The Kasi Vishwesvara Temple at Lakkundi, the Mallikaijuna temple at Kuruvatti, the Kalleshwara temple at Bagali and the Mahadeva temple at Itagi represent well-known examples of the architecture of Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.

IX. Life Skills (For Students)

1. Collect temple architecture pictures of Pallavas, Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas and identify the distinguishing features of each period.
2. Field Trip : Plan a trip to any place of historical importance.

X. Activity

Question 1.
(a) Sketch the biography of Mahendravarma I and Pulakesin II.
(b) See the picture and write a few sentences on it.
Answer:
Arjuna is fasting in one leg At the centre there is a naga Siva is attended by devaganas Hunters, animals, birds and trees are seen. There is also a herd of elephants.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Give examples for the structural temples of Pallava period.
Answer:
Kailasanatha temple, Vaikunda Perumal temple

Question 2.
Name the new style of architecture developed during Chalukya period.
Answer:
Vesara

Question 3.
What does Aihole inscription mention?
Answer:
Defeat of Harsha Vardhana by Pulakesan II

Question 4.
Who built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora?
Answer:
Krishna I

Question 5.
Name the sculptural mandapas of Mamallan style of architecture.
Answer:
Monolithic

Question 6.
Where do structural temples of Chalukya exist?
Answer:
Aihole, Badami, Pattadakal

Question 7.
Name two Saivite saints and Vaishnavite saints who practised bhakticult during Pallava period?
Answer:
Appar, Manikkavasakar. Nammazhvar, Andal

Question 8.
Who was the founder of Rashtrakuta dynasty?
Answer:
Dantidurga

Question 9.
What were the titles adopted by Narasimhavarma I?
Answer:
Mamallan, Vatapi kondan

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Who was Avanisimha?
(a) Simhavishnu
(b) Pulakesin II
(c) Mahendravarman
(d) Aparajita
Answer:
(a) Simhavishnu

Question 2.
Cave temples of the Pallavas are found at ________
(a) Vallam
(b) Vengi
(c) Badami
(d) Pattadakal
Answer:
(a) Vallam

Question 3.
Mangalesa belonged to Dynasty.
(a) Chalukya
(b) Pallava
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Gupta
Answer:
(a) Chalukya

Question 4.
The new style of architecture Vesara was introduced by
(a) Chalukyas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Rastrakutadas Vakataka
(d) Cave
Answer:
(a) Chalukyas

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement I : The life of Rishabadeva, the first Jain Tirthankara is depicted in Adipurana
Statement II : The Rashtrakutas followed Jainism
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong

Question 2.
Statement I : Appar and Manikkavasakar were Vaishnavites.
Statement II : Nammazhvar and Andal were saivites
(a) Statement I is correct
(b) Statement II is correct
(c) Both the statements are wrong
(d) Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are wrong

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The last Pallava ruler …………..
2. The poet who was patronized by Nandivarman II was …………..
3. The style adopted by Chalukyas in paintings is ……………
4. The last ruler to hold the empire intact was ……………

Answer:

1. Aprajita
2. Perundevanar
3. Vakataka
4. Govinda III

IV. State True or False

1. Rudracharya was a famous musician during Pallava Period
2. Varaha, Narasimha, Vamana are the Avatar of Siva
3. The Rashtrakutas were of Telugu origin
4. The Chalukyas perfected the art of stone building without mortar.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write about ‘Siruthondar’
Answer:

1. The army general of Narasimhavarman I, Paranjothi, led the army during the invasion of Vatapi.
2. After the victory devoted himself to Lord Siva, he was known as Siruthondar (one of the 63 Nayanmars)

Question 2.
Write a note on Simhavishnu.
Answer:

1. Simhavishnu, son of Simhavarman-II, created a strong Pallava kingdom after destroying the Kalabhras.
2. He defeated many kings in the south including the Cholas and Pandyas.
3. His able son was Mahendravarman I.

Question 3.
Name the distinct but closely related and independent Chalukya dynasties.
Answer:

1. Chalukyas of Badami
2. Chalukyas of Vengi (Eastern chalukyas)
3. Chalukyas of Kalyani (Western chalukyas)

Question 4.
Who were Chalukyas?
Answer:

1. There were three distinct but closely related and independent Chalukya dynasties,
2. They were:
   • Chalukyas of Badami
   • Chalukyas of Vengi (Eastern Chalukyas)
   • Chalukyas of Kalyani (Western Chalukyas).
3. These Chalukyas held Harsha in the north, the Pallavas in the south and Kalinga (Odisha) in the east.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Explain – ’Pattatakal’
Answer:

1. Pattatakal is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
2. Here are 10 temples. Out of them 4 were in Nagara style and 6 were in Dravida style.
3. Dravida style – Virupaksha Temple, Sangameshwara Temple.
4. Nagara style – Papanatha Temple.
5. Pattatakal is one of the UNESCO World Heritage sites.

Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Rashtrakutas?
Answer:

1. Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin. They ruled not only the Deccan but parts of the far south and the Ganges plain during 8 – 10 centuries.
2. Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty. He was an official of high rank under the Chalukyas of Badami.
3. Krishna I was the successor of Dantidurga and he built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
4. The greatest king of Amogavarsha. Krishna III was the last able ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
5. Capital: Malkhed (Manyakheta). Port: Broach.

VIII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 History Chapter 3 The Age of Empires: Guptas and Vardhanas Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 The Age of Empires: Guptas and Vardhanas

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age of Empires: Guptas and Vardhanas Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
………………. was the founder of Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Vishnu Gopa
(d) Vishnugupta
Answer:
(b) Sri Gupta

Question 2.
Prayog Prashasti was composed by ________
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarasimha
(c) Harisena
(d) Dhanvantri
Answer:
(c) Harisena

Question 3.
The monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at ………………
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari
(c) Gadhva
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(a) Mehrauli

Question 4.
________ was the first Indian to explain the process Of surgery.
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Dhanvantri
(d) Agnivasa
Answer:
(b) Sushrutal

Question 5.
……………… was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin II
Answer:
(a) Sasanka

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Chandragupta I crowned himself as a monarch of a large kingdom after eliminating various small states in Northern India.
Reason (R) : Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of Lichchavi family.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Chandragupta II did not have cordial relationship with the rules of South India.
Statement II : The divine theory of kingship was practised by the Gupta rulers.
(a) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct.
(b) Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct.

Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in chronological order?
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
(b) Chandragupta I – Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta
(c) Srigupta – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya – Chandragupta I
(d) Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta – Chandragupta I
Answer:
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta -Vikramaditya

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statements (s) is/are correct.
(1) Lending money at high rate of interest was practised.
(2) Pottery and mining were the most flourishing industries,
(a) 1. is correct
(b) 2. is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
(a) 1. is correct

Question 5.
Circle the odd one

Answer:
Samudragupta.

Answer:
Harshacharita.

III. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. ……………., the king of Ceylon, was a contemporary of Samudragupta.
2. A Buddhist monk from China ……………., visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
3. ……………. invasion led to the downfall of the Gupta Empire.
4. ……………. was the main revenue to the Government.
5. The official language of the Guptas was …………….
6. ……………., the Pallava king was defeated by Samudragupta.
7. ……………. was the popular king of the Vardhana dynasty.
8. Harsha shifted his capital from ……………. to Kanauj.

Answer:

1. Reign of
2. Fahien
3. Huns
4. Land tax
5. Sanskrit
6. Vishnugopa
7. Harsha Vardhana
8. Thaneswar

IV. State whether True or False

1. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
2. The structural temples built during the Gupta period resemble the Indo – Aryan style.
3. Sati was not in practice in the Gupta Empire.
4. Harsha belonged to the Hinayana school of thought.
5. Harsha was noted for his religious intolerance.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. False

V. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
b) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

Question 2.

Answer:
c) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Who was given the title Kaviraja? Why?
Answer:

1. The title Kaviraja was given to Samudragupta.
2. He was a great lover of poetry and music.
3. In one of the gold coins, he is portrayed playing the harp (Veenai)

Question 2.
What were the subjects taught at Nalanda University?
Answer:

1. At Nalanda University Buddhism was the main subject of study.
2. Other subjects like Yoga, Vedic literature, and medicine were also taught.

Question 3.
Explain the Divine Theory of Kingship.
Answer:

1. The divine theory of Kingship meant that the king is the representative of God on earth.
2. He is answerable only to God and not to anyone else.

Question 4.
Highlight the achievements of Guptas in metallurgy.
Answer:

1. Mining and metallurgy were the most flourishing industries during the Gupta period.
2. The most important evidence of development in metallurgy was the Mehrauli Iron Pillar installed by King Chandragupta in Delhi.
3. This monolithic iron pillar has lasted through the centuries without rusting.

Question 5.
Who were the Huns?
Answer:

1. Huns were the nomadic tribe, who under their great Attila were terrorizing Rome and Constantinople.
2. They came to India through Central Asia, defeated Skandagupta, and spread across central India.
3. Their chief Toromana crowned himself asking.
4. After him, his son Mihirakula ruled and got finally defeated by Yasodharman, ruler of Malwa.

Question 6.
Name the three kinds of tax collected during Harsha’s reign.
Answer:
A Bhaga, Hiranya, and Bali were three kinds of tax collected during Harsha’s reign.

Question 7.
Name the books authored by Harsha.
Answer:
The books authored by Harsha were Ratnavali, Nagananda, and Priyadharshika.

VII. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Prashasti.
Answer:

1. Prashasti is a Sanskrit word, meaning communication or in praise of.
2. Court poets flattered their kings listing out their achievements.
3. These accounts were later engraved on pillars so that the people could read them.

Question 2.
Give an account of Samudragupta’s military conquests.
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was a great general and he carried on a vigorous campaign all over the country.
2. He defeated the Pallava king Vishnugopa.
3. He conquered nine kingdoms in northern India.
4. He reduced 12 rulers of southern India to the status of feudatories and to pay tribute.
5. He received homage from the rulers of East Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part of Punjab, and various tribes of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Describe the land classification during the Gupta period.
Answer:
Classification of land during the Gupta period.

1. Kshetra – Cultivable land
2. Khila – Wasteland
3. Aprahata – Jungle (or) Forest land
4. Vasti – Habitable land
5. Gapata saraha – Pastoral and

Question 4.
Write about Sresti and Sarthavaha traders.
Answer:

1. Sresti: Sresti traders were usually settled at a standard place.
2. Sarthavaha: Sarthavaha traders caravan traders who carried their goods to different places.

Question 5.
Highlight the contribution of Guptas to architecture.
Answer:

1. From the earlier tradition of rock – out shrines, the Guptas were the first to construct temples.
2. These temples, adorned with towers and elaborate carvings, were dedicated to all Hindu deities.
3. The most notable rock-cut caves are found at Ajanta and Ellora, Bagh, and Udaygiri.
4. The structural temples built during this period resemble the Dravidian style.

Question 6.
Name the works of Kalidasa.
Answer:

1. Kalidasa’s famous dramas were Sakunthala, Malavikagnimitra and Vikramaoorvashiyam.
2. Other significant works were Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambava and Ritusamhara

Question 7.
Estimate Harshvardhana as a poet and a dramatist.
Answer:

1. Harsha himself was a poet and dramatist.
2. Around him gathered the best of poets and artists.
3. His popular works are Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadharshika
4. is royal court was adorned by Banabhatta, Mayura, Hardatta, and Jayasena.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
The gold coins issued by Gupta kings indicate ………………
Answer:
(a) the availability of gold mines in the kingdom
(b) the ability of the people to work with gold
(c) the prosperity of the kingdom
(d) the extravagant nature of kings.
Answer:
(c) the prosperity of the kingdom

Question 2.
The famous ancient paintings at Ajanta were painted on __________
a. walls of caves
b. ceilings of temples
c. Rocks
d. papyrus
Answer:
a. walls of caves

Question 3.
Gupta period is remembered for ……………….
(a) renaissance in literature and art
(b) expeditions to southern India
(c) invasion of Huns
(d) religious tolerance
Answer:
(a) renaissance in literature and art

Question 4.
What did Indian scientists achieve in astronomy and mathematics during the Gupta period?
Answer:

1. The invention of zero and the consequent evolution of the decimal system was the legacy of Guptas to the modem world.
2. Aryabhatta, Varahamihira, and Brahmagupta were the foremost astronomers and mathematicians of the time.
3. Aryabhatta, in his book ‘ Surya Siddhanta’, explained the true causes of solar and lunar eclipses.
4. He was the first Indian astronomer to declare that the earth revolves around its own axis.
5. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
6. He was a specialist in Ayurveda.
7. Charaka was a medical scientist.
8. Susruta was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.

IX. Student activity (For Students)

1. Stage any one of the dramas of Kalidasa in the classroom.
2. Compare and contrast the society of Guptas with that of Mauryas.

X. Life Skills (For Students)

1. Collect information about the contribution of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira and Brahmagupta to astronomy.
2. Visit a nearby ISRO centre to know more about satellite launching.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Who was Toromana?
Answer:
Toromana was the chief of White Huns.

Question 2.
Name the high-ranking officials of the Gupta Empire.
Answer:
Dandanayakas and Maha dandanayakas.

Question 3.
Name the Gupta kings who performed AsVamedha yagna.
Answer:
Samudragupta and Kumaragupta I

Question 4.
Name the book which explained the causes for the lunar and solar eclipses,
Answer:
Surya Siddhanta

Question 5.
Name the first Gupta king to find a place on coins.
Answer:
Samudragupta

Question 6.
Which was the main source of information to know about the Samudragupta’s reign?
Answer:
Allahabad Pillar

Question 7.
Harsha was the worshipper in the beginning.
Answer:
Shiva

Question 8.
University reached its fame during the Harsha period.
Answer:
The Nalanda

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Post-Mauryan India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
The successor of Sri Gupta ……………
(a) Kumaragupta I
(b) Skandagupta
(c) Vishnugupta
(d) Ghatotkacha
Answer:
(d) Ghatotkacha

Question 2.
Sri Gupta was succeeded by _______
(a) Chandra Gupta
(b) Samundra Gupta
(c) Ghatotkacha
(d) Skanda Gupta
Answer:
(c) Ghatotkacha

Question 3.
The Huhs chief crowned himself as king.
(a) Yasodharman
(b) Attila
(c) Mihirakula
(d) Toromana
Answer:
(d) Toromana

Question 4.
Srimeghavarman was the ruler of _______
(a) Singapore
(b) Ceylon
(c) Malaysia
(b) Hansena
Answer:
(b) Ceylon

Question 5.
The place Harsha went to participate in the great Kumbhamela held.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Kasi
(c) Ayodhya
(d) Prayag
Answer:
(d) Prayag

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The last of the great Guptas Narasimha Gupta I was paying tribute to Mihirakula.
Reason (R) : He stopped paying tribute to Mihirakula’s hostility towards Buddhism.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Criminal law was not more severe than that of the Gupta age.
Statement II : Death punishment was the punishment for violation of the laws and for plotting against the king.
(a) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct
(b) Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
d) Both the statements are wrong

III. Fill in the blanks

1. In the assembly at ……………. Harsha distributed his wealth.
2. The capital of China ……………. was a great center of art and learning.
3. ……………. was the wife of Chandragupta I.
4. The military campaigns of kings were financed through revenue ……………..
5. The peasants were required to pay various taxes and were reduced to the position of ……………..

Answer:

1. Prayag
2. Xian
3. Kumaradevi
4. Surpluses
5. serfs

IV. Match the following

Answer:
b) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a note on ‘Lichchhavi’.
Answer:

1. Lichchhavi was an old gana – Sanga and its territory lay between the Ganges and the Nepal Terai.
2. Chandragupta, I married Kumaradevi of the famous and powerful lichchhavi family.

Question 2.
How did Chandragupta I crown himself the monarch of a larger kingdom?
Answer:

1. Chandragupta, I married Kumaradevi of the famous and powerful Lichchhavi family.
2. With the support of this family, Chandragupta eliminated various small states and| crowned himself the monarch of a larger kingdom.

Question 3.
What did the travel accounts of Fahien provide information about the condi¬tions of the people of Magadha?
Answer:

1. According to Fahien the people of Magadha were happy and prosperous.
2. Gaya was desolated. Kapilvasthu had become a jungle, but at Pataliputra people were rich and prosperous.

VII. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Name the officials employed by the Gupta rulers.
Answer:

1. High – ranking officials were called dandanayakas and mahadandnayakas.
2. The provinces known as deshas or bhuktis were administered by the governors designated as Uparikas. The districts such as vaishyas, were controlled by vishyapatis. At the village level, gramika and gramadhyaksha were the functionaries.
3. The military designations.
4. Baladhikrita (Commander of infantry)
5. Mahabaladhikrita (Commander of the cavalry)
6. Dutakas (spies)

Question 2.
Mention the importance of Fahien’s travel accounts.
Answer:

1. During the reign of Chandragupta II, the Buddhist monk Fahien visited India.
2. His travel accounts provided us information about the socio-economic, religious and moral conditions of the people of the Gupta age.
3. According to Fahien, the people of Magadha were happy and prosperous.
4. Justice was mildly administered and there was no death penalty.
5. Gaya was desolated, Kapilavasthu had become a jungle, but at Pataliputra, people were rich and prosperous.

VIII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 History Chapter 2 The Post-Mauryan India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 The Post-Mauryan India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Post-Mauryan India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The last Mauryan emperor was killed by ……………
(a) Pushyamitra
(b) Agnimitra
(c) Vasudeva
(d) Narayana
Answer:
(a) Pushyamitra

Question 2.
___________ was the founder Of Satavahana dynasty.
(a) Simuka
(b) Satakarani
(c) Kanha
(d) Sivasvati
Answer:
(a) Simuka

Question 3.
…………… was the greatest of all the Kushana emperors.
(a) Kanishka
b) Kadphises I
(c) Kadphises II
(d) Pan – Chiang
Answer:
(a) Kanishka

Question 4.
The Kantara School of Sanskrit flourished in the
(a) Deccan
(b) North-west India
(c) Punjab
(d) Gangetic valley
Answer:
(a) Deccan

Question 5.
Sakas ruled over Gandhara region …………… as their capital.
(a) Sirkap
(b) Taxila
(c) Mathura
(d) Purushpura
Answer:
(a) Sirkap

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Colonies of Indo – Greeks and Indo – Parthians were established along the north-western part of India.
Reason (R) : The Bactrian and Parthian settlers gradually intermarried and intermixed with the indigenous population.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Indo – Greek rulers introduced die system and produced coins with inscription and symbols, engraving figures on them.
Statement II : Indo – Greek rule was ended by the Kushanas.
(a) Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
(b) Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct

Question 3.
Circle the odd one

Answer:
Kanishka

Question 4.
Answer the following in a word:

Question 1.
Who was the last Sunga ruler?
Answer:
Devabhuti

Question 2.
Who was the most important and famous king of Sakas?
Answer:
Rudradaman

Question 3.
Who established Kanva dynasty in Magadha?
Answer:
Vasudeva

Question 4.
Who converted Gondophemes into Christianity?
Answer:
St.Thomas

III. Fill in the blanks

1. …………… was the founder of Indo – Parthian Kingdom.
2. In the South, Satavahanas became independent after …………… death.
3. Hala is famous as the author of ……………
4. …………… was the last ruler of Kanva dynasty.
5. Kushana’s later capital was ……………

Answer:

1. Arsaces
2. Susarman
3. Sattasai (Saptasati)
4. Susarman
5. Peshawar(Purushpura)

IV. State whether True or False Answer

1. Magadha continued to be a great centre of Buddhist culture True even after the fall of the Mauryan Empire.
2. We get much information about Kharavela from Hathigumba True inscription.
3. Simuka waged a successful war against Magadha.
4. Buddhacharita was written by Asvaghosha.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

V. Match the following

Answer:
b) 3451 2

VI. Find out the wrong statement from the following

(1) The Kushanas formed a section of the yueh-chi tribes who inhabited north-western China.
(2) Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.
(3) The Great Stupa of Sanchi and the railings which enclose it belog to the Sunga period.
(4) Pan – Chiang was the Chinese general defeated by Kanishka.
Answer:
2) Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.

VII. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What happened to the last Mauryan emperor?
Answer:

1. The last Mauryan emperor was Brihadratha.
2. He was assassinated by his own general, Pushyamitra Sunga.

Question 2.
Write a note on Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra.
Answer:

1. Pushyamitra’s son Agnimitra is said to be the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra.
2. This drama also refers to the victory of Vasumitra, Agnimitra’s son, over the
   Greeks on the banks of the Sindhu river.

Question 3.
Name the ruler of Kanva dynasty.
Answer:

1. Vasudeva
2. Bhumi Mitra
3. Narayana
4. Susarman.

Question 4.
Highlight the literary achievements of Satavahanas.
Answer:

1. The Satavahana king Hala was himself a great scholar of Sanskrit.
2. The Kantara school of Sanskrit flourished in the Deccan in Second Century B.C.
3. Hala is famous as the author of Sattasai (Saptasati), 700 stanzas in Prakrit.

Question 5.
Name the places where Satavahana’smounments are situated.
Answer:

1. Gandhara
2. Madhura
3. Amaravati
4. BodhGaya
5. Sanchi
6. Bharhut

Question 6.
Give an account of the achievements of Kadphises
Answer:

1. Kadphises I was the first famous military and political leader of the Kushanas.
2. He overthrew the Indo-Greek and Indo-Parthian rulers.
3. He established himself as a sovereign ruler of Bactria.
4. He extended his power in Kabul, Gandhara and up to the Indus.

Question 7.
Name the Buddhist saints and scholars who adorned the court of Kanishka
Answer:

1. Asvaghosha
2. Vasumitra
3. Nagarjuna

VIII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Who invaded India after the decline of the Mauryan empire.
Answer:

1. The break-up of the Mauryan empire resulted in the invasions of Sakas, Scythians, Parthians, Indo-Greeks or Bactria Greeks, and Kushanas from the north-west.
2. In the South, Satavahanas became independent after Asoka’s death.
3. There were Sunga and Kanvas in the north before the emergence of the Gupta dynasty.
4. Chedis (Kalinga) declared their independence.
5. Though Magadha ceased to be the premier state of India, it continued to be a great center of Buddhist culture.

Question 2.
Give an account of the conquests of Pushyamitra Sunga.
Answer:

1. The last Mauryan emperor, Brihadratha, was assassinated by his own general, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. He established his Sunga dynasty in Magadha. His capital was Pataliputra.
3. Pushyamitra successfully repulsed the invasion of Bactria king Menander. He also conquered Vidarbha.
4. He was a staunch follower of Vedic religion. He performed two Asvamedbayagnas (horse sacrifices) to assert his imperial authority.

Question 3.
Write a note on GautamiputraSatakarni
Answer:

1. GautamiputraSatakarni was the greatest ruler of the family.
2. In the Nasik prashasti, published by his mother GautamiBalasri, Gautamiputra Satakami is described as the destroyer of Sakas, Yavanas (Greeks), and Pahlavis (Parthians).
3. The extent of the empire is also mentioned in the record.
4. Their domain included Maharashtra, north Konkan, Berar, Gujarat, Kathiawar, and Malwa.
5. His ship coins are suggestive of Andhras’ skill in seafaring and their naval power.
6. The Bogor inscriptions suggest that South India played an important role in the process of early state formation in Southeast Asia.

Question 4.
What do you know of the Gondopharid dynasty?
Answer:

1. Indo-Parthians came after the Indo-Greeks and the Indo-Scythians who were, in turn, defeated by the Kushanas in the second half of the first century A.D.
2. Indo-Parthian kingdom or Gondopharid dynasty was founded by Gondophemes.
3. The domain of Indo-Parthians comprised Kabul and Gandhara.
4. The name of Gonodophemes is associated with the Christian apostle St. Thomas.
5. According to Christian tradition, St.Thomas visited the court of Gondophemes and converted him to Christianity.

Question 5.
Who was considered the best known Indo-Greek king? Why?
Answer:

1. Menander was one of the best known Indo-Greek kings.
2. He is said to have ruled a large kingdom in the north-west of the country.
3. His coins were found over an extensive area ranging from Kabul valley and Indus river to western Uttar Pradesh.
4. MilindaPanha, a Buddhist text, is a discourse between Bactrian king Milinda and the learned Buddhist scholar Nagasena.
5. This Milinda is identified with Menander.
6. Menander is believed to have become a Buddhist and promoted Buddhism.

Question 6.
Who was Sakas?
Answer:

1. The Indo-Greek rule in India was ended by the Sakas. Sakas as nomads came in huge number and spread all over northern and western India.
2. The Sakas were against the tribe of Turki nomads.
3. Sakas were Scythians, nomadic ancient Iranians, and known as Sakas in Sanskrit.
4. Saka rule was founded by Maos or Mogain in the Gandhara region and his capital was ‘Sirkap’. His name is mentioned in Mora inscription. His coins bear images of Buddha and Siva.
5. Rudradaman was the most important and famous king of Sakas. His Junagadh/ Gimar inscription was the first inscription in chaste Sanskrit.
6. In India, the Sakas were assimilated into Indian society. They began to adopt Indian names and practice Indian religious beliefs.
7. The Sakas appointed kshetras or satraps as provincial governors to administer their territories.

Question 7.
Give an account of the religious policy of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka was an ardent Buddhist.
2. His empire was a Buddhist empire.
3. He adopted Buddhism under the influence of Asvaghosha, a celebrated monk from Pataliputra.
4. He was as equal as the exponent and champion of Mahayanism.
5. He made Buddhism the state religion.
6. He built many stupas and monasteries in Mathura, Taxila, and many other parts of his kingdom.
7. He sent Buddhist missionaries to Tibet, China, and many countries of Central Asia for the propagation of Buddha’s gospel.
8. He organised the fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalavana near Srinagar to sort out the differences between the various schools of Buddhism. It was only in this council that Buddhism was split into Hinayanism and Mahayanism.

IX. HOTS

Question 1.
The importance of the Gandhara School of Art.
Answer:

1. The Gandhara School of Indian Art is heavily indebted to Greek influence.
2. The Greeks were good cave builders.
3. The Mahay ana Buddhists learnt the art of carving out caves from them.
4. They became skilled in rock-cut architecture.
5. This Gandhara art flourished during Kanishka time. The most favourite subject was the carving of Sculptures of Buddha.

Question 2.
Provide an account of trade and commerce during the Post-Mauryan period in South India.
Answer:

1. Kadphises II maintained a friendly relationship with the emperors of China and Rome.
2. He encouraged trade and commerce with foreign countries.
3. His coins contained the inscribed figures of Lord Siva and his imperial titles.
4. The inscriptions in the coins were in the Kharosthi language.

X. Activity (For Students)

1. Prepare an album with centres of archaeological monuments of Satavahanas and Kushanas.
2. Arrange a debate in the classroom on the cultural contribution of Indo-Greeks, Sakas, and Kushanas.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Who wrote Brihastkatha?
Answer:
Gunadhya

Question 2.
Name the Satavahana ruler who performed two Asvamedha sacrifices.
Answer:
Satakarni

Question 3.
How many years did the Satavahanas rule the Deccan?
Answer:
450 years

Question 4.
Who laid the foundation of the Saka era?
Answer:
Mao’s (or) Mogain

Question 5.
What was the favourite subject of Gandhara artists?
Answer:
Carving of Sculptures of Buddha

Question 6.
Where did Kanishka organise the fourth Buddhist Council?
Answer:
Kundalavana (near Srinagar)

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Post-Mauryan India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
The Chinese Buddhist monk and traveller who wrote si-yu-ki …………….
(a) Fahien
(b) Hiuen Tsang
(c) Yuch – Chi
(d) Pan – Chiang
Answer:
(b) Hiuen Tsang

Question 2.
Asvahosha wrote
(a) Brihastkatha
(b) Mahabhasya
(c) Buddhacharita
(d) Harshacharita
Answer:
(c) Buddhacharita

Question 3.
During the Sunga period stone was replaced by railings.
(a) wood
(b) iron
(c) copper
(d) brick
Answer:
(a) wood

Question 4.
MilindaPanha is a Buddhist
(a) Statue
(b) Cave
(c) Text
(d) Monastry
Answer:
(c) Text

Question 5.
……………. gradually gained ascendancy and became the court language.
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Kharasthi
(c) Kannada
(d) Prakrit
Answer:
(a) Sanskrit

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Greek rulers of Bactria and Parthia started encroaching into the northwestern borderlands of India.
Reason (R): There was a decline in the Mauryan empire.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I: The Mahayana Buddhists learned the art of carving out caves from the Greeks.
Statement II: The Greeks were good cave builders.
(a) Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
(b) Statement II is wrong, but the statement I is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct.

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Simuka’s successor was his brother …………….
2. A bronze statue of the standing Buddha was discovered in …………….
3. The Indo – Greek rule in India was ended by the ……………..
4. The Saka ruler Mogain’s capital was ……………..
5. Rudradaman’s ……………. inscription was the first inscription in chaste Sanskrit.

Answer:

1. Krishna
2. OC – EO
3. Sakas
4. Sirkap
5. Junagadh / Girnar

IV. True or False

1. Satakarni was Simuka’s nephew.
2. A stone seal discovered in Nakhon Pathom was in Thailand.
3. Mao’s name is mentioned in the Mora inscription.
4. The Kushanas appointed satraps as provincial governors.
5. Kushana rulers were Buddhists.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a short note on king Kharavela of Kalinga
Answer:

1. King Kharavela was a contemporary of the Sungas.
2. Hathigumba Inscription gave information about Kharavela.

Question 2.
Who laid the foundation of the Satavahana dynasty?
Answer:

1. The last Kanva ruler Susarman was assassinated by his powerful feudatory chief of Andhra named Simuka.
2. Simuka laid the foundation of the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 3.
How did the Sakas assimilate into Indian Society?
Answer:

1. The Sakas began to adopt Indian names.
2. They practiced Indian religious beliefs.

Question 4.
Under whom did the satrapies Bactria and Parthia become independent,
Answer:
Satrapies Bactria became independent under the leadership of Diodotus I and Parthia under Arsaces.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write a note on the Conquests of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka conquered and annexed Kashmir.
2. He waged a successful war against Magadha.
3. He also waged a war against a ruler of Parthia to maintain safety and integrity in his vast empire on the western and south-western border.
4. After the conquest of Kashmir and Gandhara, he turned his attention towards China.
5. He defeated the Chinese general Pan-Chiang and safeguarded the northern borders of India from Chinese intrusion.
6. His empire extended from Kashmir down to Benaras, and the Vindhya mountain in the south. It included Kashgar, Yarkand touching the borders of Persia and Parthia.

VIII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 History Chapter 1 Society and Culture in Ancient Tamizhagam: The Sangam Age Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Society and Culture in Ancient Tamizhagam: The Sangam Age

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Society and Culture in Ancient Tamizhagam: The Sangam Age Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Pattini cult in Tamil Nadu was introduced by …………….
(a) PandyanNeduncheliyan
(b) CheranSenguttuvan
(c) IlangoAdigal
(d) Mudathirumaran
Answer:
(b) CheranSenguttuvan

Question 2.
Which dynasty was not in power during the Sangam Age?
(a) Pandyas
(b) Cholas
(c) Pallavas
(d) Cheras
Answer:
(c) Paliavas

Question 3.
The rule of Pandyas was followed by ……………..
(a) Satavahanas
(b) Cholas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(c) Kalabhras

Question 4.
The lowest unit of administration during the Sangam Age was
(a) Mandalam
(b) Nadu
(c) Ur
(d) Pattinam
Answer:
(c) Ur

Question 5.
What was the occupation of the inhabitants of the Kurinji region?
(a) Plundering
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Hunting and gathering
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Hunting and gathering

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The assembly of the poets was known as Sangam.
Reason (R) : Tamil was the language of Sangam literature.
(a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R is not true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are not true?
a. Karikala won the battle of Talayalanganam.
b. The Pathitrupathu provides information about Chera Kings.
c. The earliest literature of the Sangam age was written mostly in the form of prose
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 only
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 only

Question 3.
The ascending order of the administrative division in the ancient Tamizhagam was
(a) Ur < Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam
(b) Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam
(c) Ur < Mandalam < Kurram < Nadu
(d) Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam < Ur
Answer:
(b) Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam

Question 4.
Match the following dynasties with the Royal Insignia

Answer:
A) 3 2 1

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The battle of Venni was won by ………………
2. The earliest Tamil grammar work of the Sangam period was ………………
3. ……………… built Kallanai across the river Kaveri.
4. The chief of the army was known as ……………….
5. Land revenue was called ………………

Answer:

1. Karikal Valavan
2. Tholkappiyam
3. Karikalan
4. Thanai thalaivan
5. Irai

IV. True or False

1. Caste system developed during the Sangam period.
2. Kizhar was the village chief.
3. Puhar was the general term for city.
4. Coastal region was called Marudham.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. False

V. Match

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name any two literary sources to reconstruct the history of ancient Tamizhagam?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam, Ettuthogai, and Patthupattu are some of the literary sources to reconstruct the history of ancient Tamizhagam.

Question 2.
What was Natukkal or Virakkal?
Answer:

1. The ancient Tamils had great respect for the heroes who died on the battlefield.
2. The hero stones were created to commemorate heroes who sacrificed their lives in war. These hero stones were known as Natukkal or Virakkal.

Question 3.
Name five things mentioned in the Sangam literature.
Answer:

1. Kurinji.
2. Mullai.
3. Marutham.
4. Neithal.
5. Palai.

Question 4.
Name any two archaeological sites related to Sangam period.
Answer:
The excavated materials from Adichanallur, Arikamedu, Kodumanal, Puhar, Korkai, Alankulam, Urariyur etc.

Question 5.
Name the seven patrons (KadaiyeluVallalgal).
Answer:
The seven patrons were

1. Pari
2. Kari
3. Ori
4. Pegan
5. Ay
6. Adiyaman
7. Nalli

Question 6.
Name any three Tamil poetic works of Kalahhra period.
Answer:
Periapuranam, Seevakachinthamani, and Kundalakesi were written during the Kalabhra

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Discuss the status of women in the Sangam Society.
Answer:

1. In the Sangam Society, there were learned and wise women.
2. Forty women poets had lived
3. Marriage was a matter of choice.
4. Chastity (Karpu) was considered the highest virtue.
5. In their Parents’ property sons and daughters had equal shares.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
KarikalValavan is regarded as the greatest Chola king. Justify.
Answer:

1. KarikalValavan or Karikalan was the most famous of the Chola kings.
2. He defeated the combined army of the Cheras, Pandyas and the eleven Velir Chieftains who supported them at Venni, a small village in the Thanjavur region.
3. He converted forests into cultivable lands.
4. He built Kallanai across the river Kaveri to develop agriculture.
5. Their port Puhar attracted merchants from various regions of the Indian Ocean.
6. The Pattinapaalai a poetic work in the pathinenkeezhkanakku gives elaborate information of the trading activity during the rule of Karikalan.

Question 2.
The period ilabhra is not a dark age. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Following the Sangam period, the Kalabhras had occupied Tamil Country for about two and half centuries.
2. There is evidence of their rule in literary texts.
3. The literary sources for this period include Tamil Navalar Charithai, Yapemkalam and Periapuranam.
4. Seevakachinthamani and Kundalakesi were also written during this period.
5. In Tamizhagam, Jainism and Buddhism became prominent during this period
6. Introduction of Sanskrit and Prakrit languages had resulted in the development of a new script called Vattezhuththu.
7. Many works under Pathinenkeezhkanakku were composed.
8. Trade and commerce continued to flourish during this period.
9. So the Kalabhra period is not a dark age, as it is portrayed.

X. Life skill (For Students)

Collect and paste the pictures of landscape and find out the eco – region to which belongs. Write the important crops grown and occupation of the people there.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Mention two epics of the Sangam period.
Answer:

1. Silapathikaram
2. Manimegalai

Question 2.
Name the two groups of officials who assisted the king.
Answer:

1. Aimperunguzhu
2. Enberayam

Question 3.
Name any two women poets of the Sangam period.
Answer:

1. Awaiyar, Velli
2. Veethiyar

Question 4.
Name any three major ports of Sangam age.
Answer:

1. Musiri
2. Tondi
3. Korkai

Question 5.
What constituted Muthamizh?
Answer:

1. Iyal
2. Isai
3. Naatakam

Question 6.
Silapathikaram was written by ……………
Answer:
Ilango Adigal

Question 7.
Talayalanganam is related to whish Pandya king?
Answer:
Nedunchezhiyan

Question 8.
Which ecoregion was called menpulam?
Answer:
Marutham

Question 9.
The lighthouses in the ports are called ……………
Answer:

1. Kalangari
2. flangu Sudar

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Society and Culture in Ancient Tamizhagam: The Sangam Age Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
According to Prof.George L.Hart Tanial is as old as ……………
(a) Chinese
(b) Greek
(c) Latin
(d) English
Answer:
(c) Latin

Question 2.
The epic character from Silappathikaram
(a) Pallavas
(b) Cheras
(c) Pandyas
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(d) Cholas

Question 3.
…………… is the port of Pandvas.
(a) Puhar
(b) Korgai
(c) Muziri
(d) Tondi
Answer:
(b) Korgai

Question 4.
Bow and arrow as the symbol of
(a) Kalabhras
(b) Cholas
(c) Cheras
(d) Pandyas
Answer:
(c) Cheras

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Kalabhra period is not a dark age.
Reason (R) : It is known about the literary sources, new script and flourishing of trade and commerce.
(a) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R is not true.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are not true?
(1) Pandyas garlanded Fig (Athi) flower.
(2) The deity of the kurinji people is Indiran.
(3) The author of ‘Natural History’ is Pliny the younger
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 2 and 3

III. Answer the following

Question 1.
What were the ornaments made of?
Answer:

1. Gold
2. Silver
3. Pearls
4. Precious stones
5. Conch shells
6. Beads

Question 2.
What were the main imports?
Answer:

1. Topaz
2. Tin
3. Wine
4. Glass
5. Horses

Question 3.
What do you know about Indian silk?
Answer:

1. The silk supplied by Indians, merchants to the Roman Empire was very important. .
2. The Roman emperor Aurelian declared it to be worth its weight in gold.

Question 4.
What is the Royal Insignia?
Answer:

1. Sceptre
2. Drum
3. White umbrella

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Explain the Religious Beliefs and Social Divisions in the Sangam Society. The primary deity of the Tamils was Seyon or Murugan.
Answer:

1. The other worshipped gods were Sivan, Mayon (Vishnu), Indiran, Varunan and Kotravai.
2. The Hero stone (natukkal) worship was in practice
3. Buddhism and Jainism also co-existed.
4. As it did in northern India caste did not develop in Tamizhagam.
5. Varuna system came to the Dravidian south comparatively late.

Question 2.
What was said by George L Hart about the Tamil language?
Answer:

1. George L. Hart, Professor of Tamil language at the University of California, has said that Tamil is as old as Latin.
2. The language arose as an entirely independent tradition with no influence of other languages.

VII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 Economics Chapter 1 Economics-An Introduction Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Economics-An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics-An Introduction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

1. The producers of food grains are ……………..
2. Collection of honey is a …………….. occupation.
3. The conversion of raw materials into finished goods is called ……………..
4. According to Gandhiji the villages are …………….. of the nation.
5. The percentage of population in the cities of Tamil Nadu is ……………..

Answer:

1. Farmers
2. Primary
3. Secondary activities
4. backbone
5. 47%

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b
5. – d

III. Match and find the odd pair

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

IV. Choose the correct answer

1. Agriculture is a (primary / Secondary) occupation.
2. Economic activities are divided on the basis of (ownership / use)
3. Sugar Industries are (Primary / Secondary) activity.
4. Agro based industry (Cotton / Furniture)
5. Dairy farming is a (Public sector/Co-operative sector)

Answer:

1. Primary
2. use
3. Secondary
4. Cotton
5. Co-operative sector

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Sandhai – Define
Answer:
In villages once in a week or month, all things are sold in a particular place at a specific time to meet the needs of the people. That is called Sandai.

Question 2.
What is called the barter system?
Answer:
A system of exchanging goods for other goods is called a barter system. Example: Exchange a bag or rice for enough clothes.

Question 3.
What is trade?
Answer:
Trade involves the transfer of goods or services from one person to another often in exchange of money.

Question 4.
What is Savings?
Answer:
The amount from the income which is left for future needs after consumption is called sayings.

Question 5.
What was the necessity for the invention of money?
Answer:

1. When traders exchange commodities there arises a difference in the value of the commodity.
2. To solve this problem people invented money.

Question 6.
What was the reason for the development of settlements near water bodies?
Answer:

1. Rivers act as the main source for the cultivation of crops.
2. So early man settled permanently near the rivers.

Question 7.
What are called secondary occupation?
Answer:
The raw materials obtained from the primary activities are converted into finished products is called a secondary occupation.

Question 8.
Name the city-centered industries.
Answer:
Cement, iron, and Aluminium industries, seafood processing are some of the city centered industries.

VI. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
List out the important primary occupations of your district.
Answer:

1. Agriculture
2. Cattle rearing
3. Collection of fruits, nuts, honey, and medicinal herbs.

Question 2.
Mention the manufacturing industries found in your district.
Answer:

1. Cotton textiles
2. Spinning and weaving
3. Food processing industries
4. Beedi production
5. Wind power generations

Question 3.
How are the industries classified on the basis of raw materials?
Answer:
On the basis of raw materials industries are classified as

1. Agro-Based Industries – Cotton textiles, Sugar mills, and Food processing.
2. Forest-Based Industries – Paper mills, Furniture making, Building materials.
3. Mineral Based Industries – Cement, Iron, Aluminium Industries.
4. Marine Based Industries – Seafood processing.

Question 4.
Write down the occupations in the service sector.
Answer:
The service sector serves the people to fulfill their daily needs like:

1. Transport – Roadways, Railways, Waterways, Airways.
2. Communication – Post, Telephone, Information Technology.
3. Trade – Procurement of goods, selling.
4. Banking – Money Transaction, Banking Services.

Question 5.
What do you know about the features of cities?
Answer:

1. A city is a large human settlement.
2. The high density of population.
3. Four-way roads, flyovers, skyscrapers, parks.
4. Educational institution, hospital, Government offices.
5. Private and public industries and technological institutions.
6. Employment opportunities permanent monthly income, basic requirements are

VII. Fill in the tabular column given below

Activity:
Write the lyrics of Bharathiyar’s Analyze the lyrics and write down the commodities which were exchanged in yesteryears with the help of the teacher.

(1) Wheat
(2) Betel
(3) Tusk

VIII. Stick picture

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics-An Introduction Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. The permanent settlements near the rivers were called ……………
2. More than …………… percentage of the world’s population live in cities.
3. The …………… sector serves the people to fulfill their daily needs.
4. One who uses the products is called ……………
5. …………… are the real shadow of cities.

Answer:

1. Villages
2. 50
3. Service
4. Consumer
5. Villages

II. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Tertiary activities are also called as sector ……………
(a) Private
(b) Service
(c) Public
Answer:
(b) Service

Question 2.
Secondary and tertiary activities are …………… centred activities.
(a) City
(b) Town
(c) Village
Answer:
(a) City

Question 3.
…………… is the main occupation in villages.
(a) Mining
(b) Fishing
(c) Farming
Answer:
(c) Farming

III. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Sandhai – Define
Answer:
In villages, once in a week or month, things are sold in a particular place at a specific time to meet the needs of the people. That is called Sandhai.

Question 2.
What is called the barter system?
Answer:

1. A system of exchanging goods for other goods is called a barter system.
2. Example: Exchange a bag or rice for enough clothes.

Question 3.
What are consumer goods?
Answer:
The finished goods which are brought from the market to fulfill the daily needs of the consumers are called consumer goods.

Question 4.
Who are cultivators?
Answer:
Persons who are involved in farming and grazing are called cultivators or farmers.

Question 5.
How are industries classified?
Answer:
Industries are classified on the basis of the:

1. Availability of raw materials
2. Capital
3. Ownership

Question 6.
Name the sectors that are helpful in the economic development of our country.
Answer:
Agriculture and Industries are helpful in the economic development of our country.

IV. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 Civics Chapter 2 The Constitution of India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 The Constitution of India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
The Constitution Day is celebrated on ……………..
(a) January 26
(b) August 15
(c) November 26
(d) December 9
Answer:
(c) November 26

Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly accepted the Constitution of India in the year
(a) 1946
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 3.
There are …………….. amendments made in the Constitution of India till 2016.
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 78
(d) 46
Answer:
(a) 101

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to education
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Question 5.
An Indian citizen has the right to vote at ……………..
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 18 years

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………….. was selected as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
2. The farther of the Constitution of India is ……………..
3. …………….. protects our fundamental rights.
4. The Constitution of India came into existence on ……………..

Answer:

1. Mr. Rajendra Prasad
2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3. Law of the country
4. 26th January 1950

III. Match the following

Answer:
b) c d a b

IV. Answer the question given under the caption (Constituent Assembly)

Question 1.
In which year was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly was formed in the year 1946.

Question 2.
How many members were in the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
There are eight members in the Drafting Committee.

Question 3.
How many women were part of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
There were fifteen women participants in the constituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When was the Constitution of India completed?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was completed on 26th November 1949.

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Why was January 26 adopted as Republic day?
Answer:

1. When the Congress met at Lahore in 1929, the members of the Congress unofficially declared the same day as the Day of Pooma Swaraj or the Day of complete self-governance.
2. The next year, 26th January 1930 was celebrated as Independence Day. That day has been observed as our Republic Day.

Question 2.
What is the Constitution of India?
Answer:

1. The constitution of India is the ultimate law.
2. We have to abide by it.
3. It explains the fundamental concepts of structure, methods, powers, and duties of Government bodies.
4. It also lists the fundamental rights and duties of the citizens.
5. Directive Principles are also mentioned in the constitution.
6. So it is holistic in nature.

Question 3.
List out the special features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. The preface of the constitution is the Preamble.
2. According to it, India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular democratic republic.
3. The constitution has granted people the right to rule. Sovereignty refers to the ultimate power of the country.
4. The term secular refers to the freedom of worship.
5. The Constitution provides a Parliamentary form of Government, both at the center

Question 4.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:
Fundamental rights are the basic human rights of all citizens. They are

• Right to Equality
• Right to Freedom
• Right against exploitation
• Right to freedom of Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights
• Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 5.
List out the fundamental duties that you would like to fulfill.
Answer:

1. Respecting the National flag and National Anthem.
2. Respect and protect the Constitution.
3. Readiness to serve our country if the need arises.
4. Treating everyone as brothers and sister
5. Avoid violence.
6. Protect government property etc.

Question 6.
What is Preamble?
Answer:

1. The Preamble of our constitution stresses justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
2. The preface of the constitution is the preamble. According to it, India is a sovereign, socialists, secular democratic republic.

Question 7.
What do you understand by Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity?
Answer:

1. The preamble of the Indian constitution clearly says that
2. To achieve Justice-social, economic and political
3. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
4. Equality of status and opportunity.
5. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

Question 8.
Define: Sovereign
Answer:

1. The Constitution of India has granted the people the right to vote.
2. The members of the Parliament and the Legislative Assembly are elected by the people.
3. The right to decide is only in the hands of the representatives.
4. Sovereignty refers to the ultimate power of the country.
5. Sovereignty refers to India as an independent country.
6. India is not subject to any external power of influence.

VI. Projects and Activities

Question 1.
Let the students work individually or in a group to prepare rules for their class. From them discuss and form a list of rules and regulations for their class.
Answer:

1. Listen to the teacher
2. Respect each other
3. Respect other people’s property
4. Listen to others
5. Take care of our equipment

Question 2.
List your duties at
(a) School
(b) Home and
(c) Society
Answer:
(a) At School:

1. Participate in learning opportunities
2. Attend school regularly on time

(b) at Home:

1. Honour your father and mother
2. Simple hygiene – brush teeth, wash and dry hands, and brush hair.

c) At Society:

1. Teach the illiterate to read and write.
2. Take an active role in literacy campaigns

Question 3.
Discuss these topics:

1. Equality
2. Child labour
3. Right to Education

Answer:

1. Equality means equal rights for all the people and the abolition of all special rights and privileges.
2. Child labour refers to the employment of children in any work that deprives the children of their childhood.
3. The right to education is a fundamental human right. Every individual irrespective of race, gender, social origin, religion, or age are entitled to free elementary education.

Question 4.
Kailash Satyarti (India) and Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan) have been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace (2014) Find out the reason why?
Answer:
“For their struggle against the suppression of children and young people and for the right of all children to education.

VII. Life Skill

Question 1.
Which of the fundamental rights do you like the most? Why?
Answer:
Fundamental rights and duties are guaranteed by the constitution. Look at the picture and share your opinions. Right against Exploitation. Traffic in Human beings and all forms of forced labour are prohibited.

Question 2.
Fundamental rights and duties are guaranteed by the constitution. Look at the picture and share your opinions. (For Students)
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution of India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. The Constitutions of nearly …………….. countries have been adopted by our Constitution.
2. …………….. refers to the ultimate power of the country.
3. …………….. is collectively responsible to the legislature.
4. The chief architect of the Drafting Committee was
5. The Constitution of India provides a …………….. form of government both at the centre and the state.

Answer:

1. 60
2. Sovereignty
3. Executive
4. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
5. Parliamentary

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise is every Indian citizen’s right to vote when they attain 18 years of age.

Question 2.
What are the Directive Principles?
Answer:
Directive Principles are certain guidelines to be followed while the government frame law.

Question 3.
What is Democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is a type of government in which representatives are elected by the people of that country.

Question 4.
What is Secular?
Answer:
Secular is a state which does not discriminate against anyone on a religious ground.

III. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 Civics Chapter 1 National Symbols Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 National Symbols

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by …………….
(a) Pingali Venkayya
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 2.
Which is the National Anthem of India?
(a) Jana Gana Mana
(c) Amar Sonar Bangla
(b) Vande Mataram
(d) Neerarum kaduluduththa
Answer:
(a) Jana Gana Manal

Question 3.
Who wrote the most famous novel Anand Math?
(a) Akbar
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 4.
_______ birthday is celebrated as the International Day of non violence.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 5.
The colour of the Asoka chakra found in our National flag is ……………..
(a) sky blue
(b) navy blue
(c) blue
(d) green
Answer:
(b) navy blue

Question 6.
The first flag ever flown after the Independence is stored in _______
(a) Chennai fort Museum
(c) Saranath Museum
(b) Delhi Museum
(d) Kolkata Museum
Answer:
(a) Chennai fort Museum

Question 7.
The National Anthem was written by ……………..
(a) Devandranath Tagore
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Bala Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(c) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 8.
The time taken to play the National Anthem is _______
(a) 50 seconds
(c) 52 seconds
(b) 52 minutes
(d) 20 seconds
Answer:
(c) 52 seconds

Question 9.
“Vande Mataram” was first sung by at the 1896 session of the National Congress.
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 10.
_______ hoists the flag on Independence day in Delhi
(a) The Prime Minister
(c) Vice President
(b) The President
(d) Any Political leader
Answer:
(a) The Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The National emblem was adopted from the Ashoka pillar of ……………..
2. The National fruit of India is ……………..
3. The National Bird of India is ……………..
4. Our National tree is the ……………..
5. The flag which was flown in 1947 Independence day was weaved in ……………..
6. The Indian National Flag was designed by ……………..
7. …………….. Started the Saka Era.
8. The longest river in India is ……………..
9. The Indian Rupee symbol was designed by ……………..
10. The Chakra of the National Flag has …………….. spokes.

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. Mango
3. Peacock
4. Banyan tree
5. Gudiyatham
6. Pinglivenkayya
7. Kanishka
8. The Ganges
9. D. Udhaya Kumar
10. 24

III. Choose the Correct Answer

1. The Lion Capital is now in the _______ museum (Kolkata / Sarnath)
2. The National Anthem was adopted in _______ (1950 / 1947)
3. _______ is declared as our National Microorganism (Lactobacillus / Rhizobium)

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. 1950
3. Lactobacillus

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. Saffron – Courage; White – ……………..
2. Horse – Energy; Bull – ……………..
3. 1947 – Independence day; 1950 – ……………..

Answer:

1. Honestly
2. Hard work
3. Republic day

V. Choose the Correct Option

Answer:
c) d a b c

VI. Match and Choose the Wrong pair

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b

VII. Choose the wrong sentence

Question 1.
The ratio of our National Flags length and breadth is 3:2
e. The Chakra has 24 spokes
f. The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour
Answer:
f. The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour

Question 2.
The National Flag was designed by pingali Venkayya
g. The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum.
h. The First National Flag was weaved in Gudiyattam.
Answer:
g. The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum.

VII. Choose the Correct sentence

(a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day.
(b) November 26 is celebrated as the Republic day
(c) October 12 is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti.
Answer:
(a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day

IX. Answer the following

Question 1.
What do the colours in our National Flag represent?
Answer:

1. The saffron at the top represents valour and sacrifice.
2. The green at the bottom represents fertility and prosperity.
3. The white band in between represents honesty, peace, and purity.
4. The Ashoka Chakra or the wheel in navy blue represents truth and peace.

Question 2.
What are the parts of our National emblem?
Answer:

1. The four lions on top of the Ashoka Pillar at Samath was chosen to be our National emblem.
2. ‘Satyameva Jayate” has been inscribed at its bottom. It means truth alone triumphs.
3. The National emblem consists of two parts the upper and lower parts.
4. The upper part has four lions facing the North, South, East and West. This is on a circular pedestal. One can see only three lions at a time.
5. The lower part has an elephant, a horse, a bull and a lion. The ‘Wheel of righteousness’ is placed between them.

Question 3.
What are the salient features of the National Anthem?
Answer:

1. ‘Jana Gana Mana’ is our National anthem.
2. It symbolizes the sovereignty and integrity of our Nation.
3. This anthem was written by Rabindranath Tagore in Bengali.

Question 4.
Draw and define the Indian Rupee symbol.
Answer:

1. The Indian currency is the Indian rupees.
2. The symbol of rupees is ?.
3. This was designed by D. Udhayakumar from Tamil Nadu in the year 2010

Question 5.
Where do we use our National emblem?
Answer:
The National emblem is found at the top of the Government Communication, Indian Currency and passport.

Question 6.
Who wrote the National pledge?
Answer:

1. “India is my country. All Indians are my brothers and sisters” is our national pledge.
2. The pledge was written by Pydimarri Venkata Subba Rao in Telugu.

Question 7.
What are the animals found at the bottom of the emblem?
Answer:
At the bottom of the emblem, we see an elephant, a horse, a bull, and a lion.

Question 8.
What are the natural national symbols?
Answer:
Tiger, Elephant, River dolphin of Ganges, Peacock, King cobra, Banyan tree, Mango, The Ganges, and Lotus are the natural national symbols.

Question 9.
Where is the peacock sanctuary located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
There is a peacock sanctuary at Viralimalai in the district of Pudukottai (Tamil Nadu).

X. Activities

Question 1.
Draw the natural National symbols as scenery / Frame a story. (For Students)

Question 2.
Prepare a logo for your class/school of your own. (For Students)

Question 3.
What should we do to protect endangered plants and animals? Discuss?
Answer:

1. Educate your family about endangered plants and animals in your area.
2. Recycle and buy sustainable products.
3. Reduce water consumption.
4. Do not buy plastic products.

Question 4.
Celebrate the national events in your school and prepare a news item for a local newspaper.
Answer:
A feast for the eyes:

1. Marchpastl drills and entertainment programme were part of the Independence day celebration held in
2. Angel public school R. T. Nagar.
3. Dances were choreographed to spread the message of unity in diversity and peace.

XI. Life Skill Activity

Question 1.
Why are certain organisms adopted as natural National symbols? Analyse.
Answer:

1. To cultivate a deep sense of pride in the hearts of Indian citizens.
2. To represent a quality unique to India and its citizens.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. Our government has released a postal stamp of Tirupur Kumaran to remember his ……………… and Sacrifice and dedication ……………… to the nation.
2. The first Indian flag was hoisted by ……………… on 15th August 1947 at Red fort (Delhi)
3. The currency released by Shershahsur in the sixteenth century was ………………
4. ……………… is known for its digestive quality and cooling capacity.
5. From August 1947 to 26th January 1950, the ……………… was the honorary head ot India.
6. ……………… a variety of mango was cultivated during the Mughal reign for the royal family.

Answer:

1. Sacrifice and dedication
2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Rupiya
4. Curd
5. Queen of Britain
6. Imam pasand

II. Answer the following

Question 1.
What are the rules to be observed while singing the Anthem?
Answer:

1. Everyone should stand erect while singing the national anthem.
2. One should understand the meaning while singing.

Question 2.
List out Tamil Nadu’s Natural symbols.
Answer:

1. Animal – Nilgiritahr Bird
2. Flower – Gloriosa Superba Tree

Question 3.
Who has been given the right to manufacture the National flag?
Answer:
As of 2009, the Karnataka Khadi Gramodyoga Samyukta Sangha has been the sole manufacturer of the flag.

III. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 Geography Chapter 1 Resources Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Match the following

B. Fill in the blanks

1. Sugarcane is processed to make ……………..
2. Conservation of resources is …………….. use of resources.
3. Resources which are confined to certain regions are called ……………..
4. …………….. resources are being used in the present.
5. …………….. resources are the most valuable resources.
6. Collection of resources directly from nature is called ……………..

Answer:

1. Sugar
2. Careful
3. Localized resources
4. Actual
5. Commercial
6. Primary activities

C. Write short notes on the following

Question 1.
Renewable resources
Answer:
After consumption, resources can be renewed with the period of time is called renewable resources.
Example: Air, Water, Sunlight

Question 2.
Human resources.

1. Human resources are groups of individuals who use nature to create more resources.
2. Though human beings are basically natural resources, we classify human beings separately.

Question 3.
Individual resources.
Answer:

1. Individual resources are resources privately owned by individuals.
2. Example: Apartments

Question 4.
Tertiary activities.
Answer:
Tertiary activities are basically concerned with the distribution of primary and secondary products through a system of transport and trade.
(e.g.) Banking, Trade, and Communications.

D. Give brief answers for the following

Question 1.
What are the resources?
Answer:

1. The resource is anything that fulfills human needs. When anything is of some use it becomes valuable.
2. All resources have value.
3. The value can be either commercial or non-commercial.

Question 2.
What are the actual resources?
Answer:
Actual resources are resources that are being used and the quantity available is known, (eg) Coal mining at Neyveli Lignite Corporation.

Question 3.
Define abiotic resources.
Answer:
Abiotic resources are non-living things. Land, Water, Air, and Minerals are abiotic resources.

Question 4.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:

1. Development is necessary without affecting the needs of future generations.
2. If the present needs of resources are met and the conserving of resources for the future is balanced, we call it sustainable development.

E. Give short answers to the following questions

Question 1.
Differentiate universal and localized resources.
Answer:
Universal Resources

1. Universal resources are present everywhere.
2. Eg. Sunlight and air

Localized Resources

1. Localized resources are present in specific regions.
2. Eg. Minerals

Question 2.
Though human beings are natural resources, why are they classified separately?
Answer:

1. Though human beings are basically natural resources, we classify human beings separately.
2. Education, health, knowledge, and skill have made them valuable resources. Eg. Doctors, Scientists, and Teachers

Question 3.
Compare National and International Resources.
Answer:
National resources

1. National resources are resources within the political boundaries and oceanic areas of a country.
2. Eg. Tropical Forest Region of India

International resources

1. International resources are all oceanic resources found in the open ocean. Resources found in the region can be utilized only after an international agreement.
2. Eg. Ambergris.

Question 4.
What is the difference between man-made resources and human resources?
Answer:
Man-made resources

1. Natural resources are modified or processed by technology into man-made resources.
2. Eg. Sugarcane processed to get Sugar
3. All structures built by man can also be called man-made resources.
4. Eg. Bridges, Houses, Road.

Human Resources

1. Human resources are groups of individuals who use nature to create more resources.
2. Through human beings are basically natural resources, we classify human beings separately.
3. Education health knowledge and skill have made them a valuable resource.
4. Eg. Doctors, Teachers, Scientists.

Question 5.
Write the Gandhian thought on conservation of resources.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi blamed “human beings” for the depletion of resources because of

1. overexploitation of resources
2. Unlimited needs of human beings. So, conservation is very important.

F. Give detailed answers to the following questions. (100 – 120 words)

Question 1.
How are natural resources classified? Explain any three with examples.
Answer:
Natural resources are classified according to theirs.

1. Origin
2. Development
3. Renewability
4. Distribution
5. Ownership

Question I.
On the basis of origin – Biotic Resources and Abiotic Resources
Answer:

1. All living resources are Biotic resources. Example: Plants, Animals, Microorganisms.
2. Non-living resources are abiotic resources. Example: Land, Water, Air, Minerals

Question II.
On the basis of development – Actual Resources and Potential Resources
Answer:

1. The resources that are being used at present are Actual resources. The quantity is known. Example: Coal at Neyveli.
2. The resources that are not utilized at present are potential resources. The quantity and location are not known.
3. Example: Marine yeast (in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea)

Question III.
On the basis of Renewability – Renewable Resources and Non – renewable Resouces?
Answer:

1. After consumption, resources can be renewed with the period of time is called renewable resources. Example: Air, Water, Sun Light
2. Natural resources that have limited stock are non – renewable resources. Example: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, Minerals

Question 2.
How can resources be conserved?
Answer:

1. Careful use of resources is the conservation of resources.
2. Due to the rapid increase in population the resources are being utilized at a very fast rate.
3. To avoid this we need sustainable development. Sustainable development can take place when
   1. • Wastage and excess consumption is prevented
      • Reusable resources are recycled
      • Pollution is prevented
      • Environment is protected
      • Natural vegetation and wildlife are preserved.
4. The easiest way to conserve resources is to follow the “3R”s: Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle.

Question 3.
What is resource planning and why is it necessary?
Answer:

1. The technique or skill of proper utilization of resources is Resource Planning. Resource Planning is necessary because
2. Resources are limited and we have to use them properly. Also, we have to save the resources for our future generation.
3. Resources are unevenly distributed over the different parts of the world.
4. It is also essential for the production of resources to protect them from overexploitation.

Question 4.
Explain Primary secondary and tertiary activities.
resources, (eg.) Sunlight and air.

(a) Primary Activities

1. They are concerned with the production of raw materials for foodstuff and industrial use.
2. Primary activities include agriculture, cattle rearing, fishing, mining, collection of fruits, nuts, honey, rubber, resin, and medical herbs, etc.

(b) Secondary Activities

1. The raw materials obtained from the primary activities are converted into finished products through machinery on a large scale.
2. These activities are called secondary activities.

(c) Tertiary activities:

1. Tertiary activities are basically concerned with the distribution of primary and secondary products through a system of transport and trade.
2. (Eg): Banking, Trade, and communication.

G. Statements and inferences

Question 1.
Statement: Solar energy is the best substitute for thermal energy in tropical regions.
Inference 1: Coal and petroleum resources are receding.
Inference 2: Solar energy will never deplete.
Now choose the right answer.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow
Answer:
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow

Question 2.
Statement : If you don’t conserve resources, the human race may become extinct.
Inference 1 : You need not conserve resources.
Inference 2 : You need to conserve resources.
Now choose the right answer.
a) Only conclusion 1 follows.
b) Only conclusion 2 follows,
c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows.
d) Both 1 and 2 follow.
Answer:
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows

Question 3.
Statement : Man switched over to agriculture.
Inference 1 : Food gatherers experienced scarcity of food.
Inference 2 : Food gathered was not nutritious.
Now choose the right answer.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow
Answer:
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows

H. Given are three suggestions to conserve resources: Write the 3Rs in suitable places.

1. Giving your childhood cycle to your neighbour
2. Using a flush that consumes less water
3. Melting used plastic to lay roads

Answer:

1. Reuse
2. Reduce
3. Recycle

I. Cross word puzzle

Across left to right:

1. A development that balances time
2. Energy from the sun
3. All resources that belong to a country

Down:

1. A resource found everywhere
2. An international resource
3. A resource provided by nature
4. A resource restricted to specific areas

Across right to left:

1.  One of the 3Rs

Answer:
Across left to right :

1. SUSTAINABLE
2. SOLAR
3. NATIONAL

Down:

1. UNIVERSAL
2. AMBERGRIS
3. NATURAL
4. LOCALIZED

Across right to left:

1. REUSE

K. Identify the different economic activities and fill the table given below

L . Teacher’s Activities

1. Observe “Save Energy Day” Once a month at school/class level
2. Try making wall hangings with waste materials to decorate your school corridors.
3. Find out if there are any industries near your school. A field trip may be arranged.
4. Collect pictures based on
   • Fishing
   • Hunting
   • Food – gathering
   • Forestry
   • Mining
   • Agriculture
   • Cattle – rearing
   • Lumbering

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Resources Additional Important Questions and Answers

A. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. ……………… are two important factors that determine Time and Technology whether a substance is a resource or not.
2. All resources that have been directly provided by Natural resources nature are called ………………
3. Man mined precious metals simultaneously for making ………………
4. The non – renewable resources become ……………… after use and the time they take to replace does not match the life cycle.
5. Ambergris is used in ……………… industries.
6. Marine yeast has greater potential than ……………… yeast.

Answer:

1. Time and Technology
2. Natural resources
3. ornaments
4. exhausted
5. perfume
6. terrestrial

B. Write short notes on the following

Question 1.
Non – renewable resources.
Answer:

1. Natural resources that have limited stock are non – renewable resources.
2. Example: Goal, Petroleum

Question 2.
Community-owned Resources.
Answer:

1. Community-owned resources are resources which can be utilised by all the members of the community.
2. Eg. Public Parks.

Question 3.
World’s largest Pharmacy.
Answer:

1. Tropical rain forests are called the world’s largest pharmacy.
2. 25% of the natural vegetation are medicinal plants. Example: Cinchona.

C. Give brief answers for the following

Question 1.
How can natural resources be classified depending on?
Answer:

1. Origin
2. Development
3. Renewability
4. Distribution
5. Ownership

Question 2.
What is an abiotic resource?
Answer:

1. Abiotic resources are non-living things.
2. Land, Water, Air, and minerals are abiotic resources.

D. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 History Chapter 3 From Chiefdoms to Empires Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 From Chiefdoms to Empires

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science From Chiefdoms to Empires Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Kingdom which was most powerful among the four Mahajanapadas …………….
(a) Anga
(b) Magadha
(c) Kosala
(d) Vajji
Answer:
(b) Magadha

Question 2.
Among the following who was the contemporary of Gautama Buddha?
(a) Ajatasatru
(b) Bindusara
(c) Padmanabha Nanda
(d) Brihadratha
Answer:
(a) Ajatasatru

Question 3.
Which of the following are the sources of Mauryan period?
(a) Artha Sastra
(b) Indica
(c) Mudrafakshasa
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

Question 4.
Chandra Gupta Maurya abdicated the thrown and went to Sravanbelgola along with Jina Saint ; .
(a) Badrabahu
(b) Stulabahu
(c) Parswanatha
(d) Rushabhanatha
Answer:
(a) Badrabahu

Question 5.
……………. was the ambassador of Seleucus Nicator.
(a) Ptolemy
(b) Kautilya
(c) Xerxes
(d) Megasthenese
Answer:
(d) Megasthenese

Question 6.
Who was the last emperor of the Mauryan Dynasty?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Brihadratha
(d) Bindusara
Answer:
(c) Brihadratha

II. Match the Statement with the reason/ Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement (A) : Ashoka is considered as one of India’s greatest rulers.
Reason (R) : He ruled according to the principle of Dhamma.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Statement 1 : Chandragupta Maurya was the first ruler who unified entire India under one political unit.
Statement 2 : The Arthashastra provides information about the Mauryan administration.
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(b) only 2

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct.
1. Chandragupta Maurya was the first king of Magadha.
2. Rajagriha was the capital of Magadha.
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(c) both 1 and 2

Question 4.
Arrange the following dynasties in chronological order.
(a) Nanda – Sishunaga – Haryanka – Maurya
(b) Nanda – Sishunaga – Maurya – Haryanka
(c) Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya
(d) Sishunaga – Maurya – Nanda – Haryanka
Answer:
(c) Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya

Question 5.
Which of the following factors contributed to the rise of Magadhan Empire?
(1) Strategic location
(2)Thick forest supplied timber and elephant
(3) Control over sea
(4) Availability of rich deposits of iron ores
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) 1,2 and 4 only

III. Fill in the blanks

1. …………….. was the earliest capital of Magadha.
2. Mudrarakshasa was written by …………….
3. ……………. was the son of Bindusara.
4. The founder of the Maurya Empire was …………….
5. ……………. were appointed to spread Dhamma all over the empire.

Answer:

1. Rajagriha
2. Visakadatta
3. Ashoka
4. Chandragupta Maurya
5. Dhamma – mahamattas

IV. State True or False

1. The tittle Devanam Piya was given to Chandragupta Maurya.
2. Ashoka gave up war after his defeat in Kalinga.
3. Ashoka’s Dhamma was based on the principle of Buddhism.
4. The lions on the currency notes is taken from the Rampurwa bull capital.
5. Buddha’s relics were placed in the centre of the Stupas.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Match the following

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention any two literary sources of the Mauryan period.
Answer:

1. Secular Literature
2. Religious Literature: Vedic, Jain, Buddhist texts and Puranas

Question 2.
What is a stupa?

1. A Stupa is a semi-spherical dome-like structure constructed on brick or stone.
2. The Buddha’s relics were placed in the centre of the dome.

Question 3.
Name the dynasties of Magadha.
Answer:
Four dynasties ruled over Magadha Empire.

1. The Haryanka dynasty
2. The Shishunaga dynasty
3. The Nanda dynasty
4. The Maurya dynasty

Question 4.
What were the sources of revenue during the Mauryan period?
Answer:
(i) The land was the most important source of revenue for the state. Ashokan inscription at Lumbini mentions Bali and bagha as taxes collected from people. The land tax (Bhaga) collected was 1/6 of the total produce.
(ii) Revenue from taxes on forests, mines, salt, and irrigation provided additional revenue to the government.

Question 5.
Who assisted Nagarika in the administration of towns?
Answer:
Sthanika and Gopa assisted Nagarika in the administration of towns.

Question 6.
What do you know from the Rock Edicts II and XIII of Ashoka?
Answer:

1. The horror of the Kalinga war was described by the king himself in the Rock Edict XIII.
2. The Rock Edicts II and XIII of Ashoka refer to the names of the three dynasties namely Pandyas, Cholas, the Keralaputras, and the Sathyaputras.

Question 7.
Which classical Tamil poetic works have the reference of Mauryans?
Answer:
Mamulahar’s poem in Agananuru gives the reference of the Mauryans.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What did Ashoka do to spread Buddhism? (Write any three points)
Answer:

1. Ashoka sent his son Mahinda and daughter Sanghamitta to Srilanka to propagate Buddhism.
2. He also sent missionaries to West Asia, Egypt, and Eastern Europe to spread the message of Dhamma.
3. The Dhamma-mahamattas was a new cadre of officials created by Ashoka.
4. Their job was to spread dhamma all over the empire.
5. Ashoka held the third Buddhist council at his capital pataliputra.

Question 2.
Write any Hire causes for the rise off Mapdk
Answer:
The Causes for the Rise of Magadha

1. Magadha was located on the lower part of the Gangetic plain.
2. The plain was fertile which ensured the rich agricultural yield.
3. This provided regular and substantial income to the state.
4. The thick forests supplied timber for the construction of buildings and elephants for the army.
5. The abundance of natural resources especially iron enabled them to equip themselves with weapons made of iron.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Kalinga war became a turning point in Ashoka’s life. How?
Answer:

1. In the war of Kalinga, many people died.
2. He understood that war only brings destruction to families.
3. The Kalinga war had incredible influence over the personal life and policy of Ashoka.
4. Hence Kalinga war proved to be a turning point in the life of Ashoka.
5. He found his consolation in Buddhism.
6. He was representing for his deeds. He embraced Buddhism and took the vow of inculcation ‘Dhamma’ to all men throughout his life.
7. He gave up the policy of Dig Vijay and adopted the policy of Dharma Vijay.

Question 2.
Write any five welfare measures you would do If you were a Mug like Ashoka?
Answer:
If I were a king like Ashoka

1. First I would have taken proper steps to help the cultivations, especially storing j the excess water available in rainy season for agriculture.
2. Monetary compensation would have been given during natural calamities.
3. Child protection act would be passed very effectively.
4. Stringent punishments would be given against corruption.
5. Suggestions would have been taken from the general public for quality improvement.

IX. Picture Study

This is the picture of Ashokan edicts.

Question a.
What are edicts?
Answer:
Edicts are official proclamations issued by authority or a king.

Question b.
How are Ashokan edicts useful?
Answer:
Ashokan edicts showed his belief in peace, righteousness, justice, and his concern for the welfare of his people.

Question c.
Where were these edicts inscribed?
Answer:
Edicts were inscribed on the pillars, boulders and cave walls.

Question d.
Name the script used in Sanchi Inscription.
Answer:
Brahmi

Question e.
How many Rock Edicts are there?
Answer:
33 Edicts

X. Who am I

Question 1.
I belonged to Haryanka dynasty. I extended territory by matrimonial alliances. My son is Ajatasatru – Who am I?
Answer:
Bimbisara

Question 2.
I played a significant role in the transformation of society. I am used to making ploughshare – Who am I?
Answer:
Iron

Question 3.
I was known as Devanampiya. I embraced the path of peace – Who am I?
Answer:
Ashoka

Question 4.
I established the first largest empire in India. I performed Sallekhana – Who am I?
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya.

Question 5.
I am found in the Lion Capital of Ashoka. I am at the centre of our national flag – Who am I?
Answer:
The Ashoka Chakra

XI. Decipher the code – The Mauryan Empire

Answer:

1. The first dynasty that ruled over Magadha was ……………… (8, 1, 18, 25, 1, 14, 11, 1)
2. ………………empire was the first largest empire. (13, 1, 21, 18, 25, 1)
3. ……………… laid the foundation of the new capital at Pataliputra. (21, 4, 1, 25, 9, 14)
4. ……………… was one of the main exports (19, 16, 9, 3, 5, 19)
5. ……………… bacame later the most renowned seat of learning. (14, 1, 12, 1, 14, 4, 1)
6. Revenue from agricultural produce was called ……………… (2, 8, 1, 7, 1)
7. The horror of war was described in ……………… (18, 15, 3, 11, 5, 4, 9, 3, 20)
8. Greeks called Bindusara as ………………  (1, 13, 9, 20, 18, 1, 7, 1, 20, 8.1)
9. The crowning element in Saranath Pillar is ……………… (4, 8, 1, 18, 13, 1, 3, 8, 1, 11, 18, 1)
10. Council of ministers were known as ……………… (13, 1, 14, 4, 18, 9, 16, 1, 18, 9, 19, 8, 1, 4)

Answer:

1. Haryanka
2. Maurya
3. Udayin
4. Spices
5. Nalanda
6. Rhaga
7. Rockedict
8. Amitragatha
9. Dharma Chakra
10. Mantriparishad

XII. Activity (For Students)

1. Field trip to Museum
2. Movie show – about Ashoka and Chandragupta

XIV. Life Skill (For Students)

1. Make a model of Ashoka Chakra
2. Make a model of Sanchi Stupa
3. Draw and colour our National Flag.

XV. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Name the two kinds of government in North India during 6th century B.C. (BCE)
Answer:
Gana – Sanghas and Kingdoms

Question 2.
Who conducted second Buddhist Council at Vaishali?
Answer:
Kalasoka

Question 3.
What is the modern name for Kalinga?
Answer:
Odisha

Question 4.
Town was administrated by …………….
Answer:
Nagarika

Question 5.
Where was the third Buddhist council convened by Ashoka?
Answer:
Pataliputra

Question 6.
Name any two major Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
Magadha, Avanti

Question 7.
Which inscription records the Construction of Sudarshana lake?
Answer:
Junagath Girnar

Question 8.
Who was the last Nanda ruler?
Answer:
Dhana Nanda Maurian period.

Question 9.
Name the silver coin which was in use during the Mauryan Period.
Answer:
Panas

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science From Chiefdoms to Empires Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Mahajanapadas dotted the Indo – Gangetic plain in sixth century BC.
(a) Ten
(b) Fourteen
(c) Sixteen
(d) eighteen
Answer:
(c) Sixteen

Question 2.
Kosala, one of the Mahajanapadas belonged to
(a) Eastern Uttar Pradesh
(b) Allahabad
(c) Bihar
(d) Ujjain
Answer:
(a) Eastern Uttar Pradesh

Question 3.
The horror of the Kalinga war was described in the Rock Edict …………….
(a) X
(b) XI
(c) XII
(d) XIII
Answer:
(d) XIII

Question 4.
The Source of information about the Mauryan Empire is from
(a) Puranas
(b) Edicts of Ashoka
(c) Bihar
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

II. Match the statement with the Reason / Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement (A) : Magadha’s gradual rise to political supremacy began with Bimbisara.
Reason (R) : Bimbisara extended the territory by conquests and matrimonial alliances.
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are true

Question 2.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct.
(1) Board of 40 members divided into eight committees. Each had 5 members to manage the administration of the city.
(2) Town administration was under Nagarika.
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(b) only 2

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Chandragupta Maury a overthrew …………….
2. ……………. convened the first Buddhist council at Rajagriha.
3. The meaning of ……………. is explained in Ashoka’s – Pillar Edict II.
4. Council of ministers known as ……………. assisted the King.

Answer:

1. Dhana Nanda
2. Ajatasatru
3. Dhamma
4. Mantriparishad

IV. State True or False

1. Gold played a significant role in this transformation of society.
2. Magadha was located on the lower part of the Gangetic plain.
3. Mahapadma Nanda and his eight sons were known as Navanandas.
4. Ashoka held the third Buddist council at Kashmir.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following

Answer:
b) 4 3 2 1

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What were the two kinds of government in North India during the sixth century BC?
Answer:

1. Gana – Sanghas (Non-monarchical states)
2. Kingdoms (Monarchies)

Question 2.
How were Mahajanapadas formed?
Answer:

1. Janapadas were the earliest gathering places of men.
2. Later, Janapadas became republics or smaller kingdoms. The widespread use of iron in the Gangetic plain created conditions for the formation of larger territorial^ units transforming the janapadas into Mahajanapadas.

Question 3.
What did Ashoka lay stress on?
Answer:

1. Compassion
2. Charity
3. Purity
4. Saintliness
5. Self – control
6. Truthfulness
7. Obedience and respect

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Give reasons for the decline of the Mauryan Empire.
Answer:

1. Ashoka’s successors were very weak.
2. Continuous revolts in different parts of the empire.
3. Invasion by the Bactrian Greeks weakened the empire.
4. Last Maurya ruler Brihadratha was killed by his commander Pushyamitra Sungha.
5. He established the Sungha dynasty.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Royal Art of Mauryan?
Answer:
Royal Art consists of palaces and public buildings, Monolithic pillars, Rock-cut Architecture and Stupas.

Stupas:

1. It is a semicircle dome constructed on brick or stone.
2. The Buddha’s relics were placed in the centre.
3. We can see the stupa at Sanchi near Bhopal.

Monolithic Pillar:

1. The crowning element in this pillar is ‘Dharma Chakra’.
2. We can see the pillar at Samath.

Rock cut Architecture:

1. Rock cut caves are in Barabar hills and Nagarjuna hills
2. They are to the north of Bodh Gaya.
3. 3 caves in Barabar hills have Ashoka’s inscriptions.
4. 3 caves in Nagarjuna hills have Dasharatha Maurya’s inscriptions, (grandson of Ashoka).

VII. Mind map