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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Solid State Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Solid State

12th Chemistry Guide Solid State Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I Text Book Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Graphite and diamond are ………..
(a) Covalent and molecular crystals
(b) ionic and covalent
(c) both covalent crystals
(d) both molecular crystals
Answer:
(c) both covalent crystals

Question 2.
An ionic compound Ax By crystallizes in fee type crystal structure with B ions at the centre of each face and A ion occupying centre of the cube, the correct formula of A B is ………..
(a) AB
(b) AB₃
(c) A₃B
(d) A₈B₆
Answer:
(b) AB₃

Question 3.
The rano of close packed atoms to tetrahedral hole in cubic packing is ………..
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:4
Answer:
(b) 1:2

Question 4.
Solid CO₂ is an example of ………..
(a) Covalent solid
(b) metallic solid
(c) molecular solid
(d) ionic solid
Answer:
(c) molecular solid

Question 5.
Assertion: monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic crystal system.
Reason: for a monoclinic system, a \(\neq\) b \(\neq\) c and α = γ = 90° , β \(\neq\) 90°.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

Question 6.
In calcium fluoride, having the flurite structure the coordination number of Ca²⁺ ion and F Ion are ………..
(a) 4 and 2
(b) 6 and 6
(c) 8 and 4
(d) 4 and 8
Answer:
(c) 8 and 4

Question 7.
The number of unit cells in 8gm of an element X (atomic mass 40) which crystallizes in bcc pattern is (NA is the Avogadro number)
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.023 × 10²²
(c) 60.23 × 10²³
(d) \(\left( \frac { 6.023\times { 10 }^{ 23 } }{ 8\times 40 } \right)\)
Answer:
(b) 6.023 × 10²²

Question 8.
In a solid atom M occupies ccp lattice and \(\left( \frac { 1 }{ 3 } \right)\) of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N. Find the formula of solid formed by M and N.
(a) MN
(b) M₃N
(C) MN₃
(d) M₃N₂
Answer:
(d) M₃N₂

Question 9
The ionic radii of A+ and B- are 0.98 × 10^-10 m and 1.81 × 10^-10 m , the coordination number of each ion in AB is ………..
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 10.
CsCl has bcc arrangement, its unit cell edge length is 400pm, its inter atomic distance is ………..
(a) 400pm
(b) 800pm
(c) \(g\sqrt { 3 } \) × 100pm
(d) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 2 } \right)\) × 400 pm
Answer:
(d) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 2 } \right)\) × 400 pm

Quesiton 11.
A solid compound XY has NaCl structure, if the radius of the cation is 100pm , the radius of the anion will be ………..
(a) \(\left( \frac { 100 }{ 0.414 } \right)\)
(b) \(\left( \frac { 0.732 }{ 100 } \right)\)
(c) 100 × 0.414
(d) \(\left( \frac { 0.414 }{ 100 } \right)\)
Answer:
(a) \(\left( \frac { 100 }{ 0.414 } \right)\)

Question 12.
The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is ………..
(a) 48%
(b) 23%
(c) 32%
(d) 26%
Answer:
(c) 32%

Question 13.
The radius of an atom is 300pm, if it crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice, the length of the edge of the unit cell is ………..
(a) 488.5pm
(b) 848.5pm
(c) 884.5pm
(d) 484.5pm
Answer:
(b) 848.5pm

Question 14.
The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms in a simple cubic is ………..
(a) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 4\sqrt { 2 } } \right)\)
(b) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 6 } \right)\)
(c) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 4 } \right)\)
(d) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 3\sqrt { 2 } } \right)\)
Answer:
(b) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 6 } \right)\)

Question 15.
The yellow colour in NaCl crystal is due to ………..
(a) excitation of electrons in F centers
(b) reflection of light from Cl- ion on the surface
(c) refraction of light from Na+ ion
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) excitation of electrons in F centers

Question 16.
If ’a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic system; sc ,bcc, and fcc. Then the ratio of radii of spheres in these systems wilL be respectively.

Answer:
\(\left(\frac{1}{2} a: \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} a: \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}} a\right)\)

Question 17.
If a is the length of the side of the cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one comer atom in the cube will be ………..
(a) \(\left( \frac { 2 }{ \sqrt { 3 } } \right) a\)
(b) \(\left( \frac { 4 }{ \sqrt { 3 } } \right) a\)
(c) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } \right) a\)
(d) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 2 } \right) a\)
Answer:
(d) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 2 } \right) a\)

Question 18.
Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbor distance 4.52 A. its atomic weight is 39. Its density will be ………..
(a) 915 kg m^-3
(b) 2142 kg m^-3
(c) 452 kg m^-3
(d) 390 kg m^-3
Answer:
(a) 915 kg m^-3

Question 19.
Schottky defect in a crystal is observed when ………..
(a) unequal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice
(b) equal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice
(e) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
(d) no ion is missing from its lattice.
Answer:
(b) equal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice

Question 20.
The cation leaves its normal position in the crystal and moves to some interstitial position, the defect in the crystal is known as ………..
(a) Schottky defect
(b) F center
(c) Frenkel defect
(d) non-stoichiometric defect
Answer:
(c) Frenkel defect

Question 21.
Assertion – due to Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline solid decreases.
Reason – in Frenkel defect cation and anion leaves the crystal.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are false

Question 22.
The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is ………..
(a) NaCI
(b) FeO
(c) ZnO
(a) KCI
Answer:
(b) FeO

Question 23.
A two dimensional solid pattern formed by two different atoms X and Y is shown below. The black and white squares represent atoms X and Y respectively. The simplest formula for the compound based on the unit cell from the pattern is ………..

(a) XY₈
(b) X₄Y₉
(c) XY₂
(d) XY₄
Answer:
(a) XY₈

II. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Define unit cell.
Answer:
A basic repeating structural unit of a crystalline solid is called a unit ccli.

Question 2.
Give any three characteristics of ionic crystals.
Answer:

1. Ionic solids have high melting points.
2. These solids do not conduct electricity, because the ions are fixed in their lattice positions.
3. They do conduct electricity in a molten state (or) when dissolved in water because the ions are free to move in the molten state or solution.

Question 3.
Differentiate crystalline solids and amorphous solids.
Answer:
Crystalline solids:

1. A long-range orderly arrangement of constituents
2. Definite shape
3. Generally, crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature
4. They are true solids
5. Definite Heat of fusion
6. They have sharp melting points.
7. Examples: NaCl, diamond etc.,

Amorphous solids:

1. The short-range, random arrangement of constituents
2. Irregular shape
3. They are isotropic like liquids
4. They are considered as pseudo solids (or) supercooled liquids
5. Heat of fusion is not definite
6. Gradually soften over a range of temperatures and so can be moulded.
7. Examples: Rubber, plastics, glass etc

Question 4.
Classify the following solids.
a) P₄
b) Brass
c) Diamond
d) NaCI
e) iodine
Answer:
P₄ – Molecular solid
Brass – Metallic solid
Diamond –
NaCl – Ionic solid
Iodine – Molecular solid

Question 5.
Explain briefly seven types of unit cell.
Answer:
Seven types of unit cell:

Cubic – NaCl
Tetragonal – TiO₂
Orthorhombic – BaSO₄
Hexagonal – ZnO
Monoclinic – PbCrO₄
Triclinic – H₃BO₃
Rhombohedral – Cinnabar Cubic

They differ in the arrangements of their crystallographic axes and angles. Corresponding to the above seven, Bravis defined 14 possible crystal system as shown in the figure.

Question 6.
Distinguish between hexagonal close packing and cubic close packing.
Answer:
Hexagonal close-packing

1. aba arrangement
2. In this case, the spheres of the third layer are exactly aligned with those of the first layer
3. In HCP, tetrahedral voids of the second layer may be covered by the spheres of the third layer

Cubic close packing:

1. abc arrangement
2. In this case, the spheres of the third layer are not aligned with those of the first layer or second layer. Only when the fourth layer is placed, its spheres are aligned with the first layer.
3. In cep third layer may be placed above the second layer in a manner such that its sphere covers the octahedral voids

Question 7.
Distinguish tetrahedral and octahedral voids.
Answer:
Tetrahedral void

1. A single triangular void in a crystal is surrounded by four (4) spheres and is called a tetrahedral void
2. A sphere of second layer is above the void of the first layer, a tetrahedral void is formed
3. This constitutes four spheres, three in the lower and one in upper layer. When the centres of these four spheres are joined a tetrahedron is formed
4. The radius of the sphere which can be accommodated in an octahedral hole without disturbing the structure should not exceed 0.414 times that of the structure forming sphere
5. Radius of an tetrahedral void \(\frac { r }{ R }\) = 0.225

Octahedral void

1. A double triangular void like c is surrounded by six(6) spheres and is called an octahedral void
2. The voids in the first layer are partially covered by the spheres of layer now such a void is called a octahedral void
3. This constitutes six spheres, three in the lower layer and three in the upper layer. When the centers of these six spheres are joined an octahedron is formed
4. The sphere which can be placed in a tetrahedral hole without disturbing the close-packed structure should not have a radius larger than 0.225 times the radius of the sphere-forming the structure
5. Radius of a octahedral void \(\frac { r }{ R } \) = 0.414

Question 8.
What are point defects?
Answer:
If the deviation occurs due to missing atoms, displaced atoms or extra atoms the imperfection is named as a point defect. Such defects arise due to imperfect packing during the original crystallisation or they may arise from thermal vibrations of atoms at elevated temperatures.

Question 9.
Explain Schottky defect.
Answer:
Schottky defect arises due to the missing of equal number of cations and anions from the crystal lattice. This effect does not change the stoichiometry of the crystal.Ionic solids in which the cation and anion are of almost of similar size show schottky defect.
Example: NaCl.

Presence of large number of schottky defects in a crystal, lowers its density. For example, the theoretical density of vanadium monoxide (VO) calculated using the edge length of the unit cell is 6.5 g cm-3 but the actual experimental density is 5.6 gcm3. It indicates that there is approximately 14% Schottky defect in VO crystal. Presence of Schottky defect in the crystal provides a simple way by which atoms or ions can move within the crystal lattice.

Question 10.
Write short note on metal excess and metal deficiency defect with an example. Metal excess defect.
Answer:
Metal excess defect arises due to the presence of more number of metal ions as compared to anions.Alkali metal halides NaCl, KCl show this type of defect.The electrical neutrality of the crystal can be maintained by the presence of anionic vacancies equal to the excess metal ions (or) by the presence of extra cation and electron present in interstitial position.

For example, when NaCl crystals are heated in the presence of sodium vapour, Na⁺ ions are formed and are deposited on the surface of the crystal. Chloride ions (Cl^–) diffuse to the surface from the lattice point and combines with Na⁺ ion.

The electron lost by the sodium vapour diffuse into the crystal lattice and occupies the vacancy created by the Cl^– ions. Such anionic vacancies which are occupied by unpaired electrons are called F centers. Hence, the formula of NaCl which contains excess Na+ ions can be written as Na_1+xCl.

Metal deficiency defect:
Metal deficiency defect arises due to the presence of less number of cations than the anions. This defect is observed in a crystal in which, the cations have variable oxidation states. For example, in FeO crystal, some of the Fe²⁺ ions are missing from the crystal lattice.

To maintain the electrical neutrality, twice the number of other Fe²⁺ ions in the crystal is oxidized to Fe³⁺ ions. In such cases, overall number of Fe2²⁺ and Fe³⁺ ions is less than the O^2- ions. It was experimentally found that the general formula of ferrous oxide is FexO, where x ranges from 0.93 to 0.98.

Question 11.
Calculate the number of atoms in a fee unit cell.
Answer:
Number of atoms in a fee unit cell,
= \(\frac { { N }_{ c } }{ 8 }\) + \(\frac { { N }_{ f } }{ 2 }\)
= \(\frac { 8 }{ 8 } \) + \(\frac { 6 }{ 2 } \) = 1 + 3 = 4

Question 12.
Explain AAAA and ABABA and ABCABC type of three dimensional packing with the help of neat diagram.
Answer:
1. AAAA type of three dimensional packing
This type of three dimensional packing arrangements can be obtained by repeating the AAAA type two dimensional arrangements in three dimensions, i.e., spheres in one layer sitting directly on the top of those in the previous layer so that all layers are identical.

All spheres of different layers of crystal are perfectly aligned horizontally and also vertically, so that any unit cell of such arrangement as simple cubic structure as shown in fig.

In simple cubic packing, each sphere is in contact with 6 neighbouring spheres – Four in its own layer, one above and one below and hence the coordination number of the sphere in simple cubic arrangement is 6.

2. ABABA type of three dimensional packing:
In this arrangement, the spheres in the first layer (A type) are slightly separated and the second layer is formed by arranging the spheres in the depressions between the spheres in layer A as shown in figure.

The third layer is a repeat of the first. This pattern ABABAB is repeated throughout the crystal. In this arrangement, each sphere has a coordination number of 8, four neighbors in the layer above and four in the layer below.

3. ABCABC type of three dimensional packing:
In this arrangement (FCC) second layer spheres are arranged at the dips of first layer. Third layer spheres are arranged in a manner such that it cover the octahedral void. Then no longer third layer is similar to first or second layer.

Third layer gives different arrangement. Fourth layer spheres are similar to first layer. If the first, second and third layer are represented as A,B,C then this type of packing gives the arrangement of layers as ABCABC… (i.e.,), the first three layers do not resemble first, second and third layers respectively and the sequence is repeated.

with the addition of more layers. In this arrangement atoms occupy 74% of the available space and thus has 26% vacant space. The coordination number is 12. Voids – The empty spaces between the three dimensional layers are known as voids. There are two types of common voids possible. They are tetrahedral and octahedral voids.

Tetrahedral void – A void formed by three spheres of a layer in contact with each other and also with a sphere on the top or bottom layer is a hole between four spheres. The spheres are arranged at the vertices of a regular tetrahedron such a hole or void is called tetrahedral void.

Octahedral void:
A hole or void formed by three spheres of a hexagonal layer and another three spheres of the adjacent layer is a hole between six spheres. The spheres are arranged at the vertices of a regular octahedron. Such a hole or void is abc arrangement – ccp structure called octahedral void.

Question 13.
Why ionic crystals are hard and brittle?
Answer:
The ionic compounds are very hard and brittle. In ionic compounds, the ions are rigidly held in a lattice because the positive and negative ions are strongly attracted to each other and difficult to separate. But the brittleness of a compound is now easy to shift the position of atoms or ions in a lattice.

If we apply pressure on the ionic compounds the layers shifts slightly. The same charged ions in the lattice come closer. A repulsive force arises between same charged ions, due to this repulsion the lattice structure breaks down chemical bonding.

Question 14.
Calculate the percentage efficiency of packing in case of a body-centered cubic crystal. Packing efficiency.
Answer:
In the body-centered cubic arrangement, the spheres are touching along the leading diagonal of the cube as shown in the In ∆ABC,
AC2 = AB² + BC²
AC = \(g\sqrt { { AB }^{ 2 }+{ BC }^{ 2 } }\)
AC = \(g\sqrt { { a }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 } }\) = a²

In ∆ACG,
AG² = AC² + CG²
AG =\(g\sqrt { { AC }^{ 2 }+{ CG }^{ 2 } }\)
AG = \(\sqrt { { \left( \sqrt { 2 } a \right) }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 } }\)
AG = \(g\sqrt { { 2a }^{ 2 }+a^{ 2 } }\) = \(g\sqrt { 3a^{ 2 } } \) = \(\sqrt { 3 } a\)
i.e., \(g\sqrt { 3 } \)a = 4r
r = \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } a\)
∴ Volume of the sphere with radius ‘r’
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 } \) πr²
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 } \) π \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } a \right)\)
= \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 6 }\) πa²
Number of spheres belong to a unit cell in bee arrangement is equal to two and hence the total volume of all spheres

i.e., 68% of the available volume is occupied.The available space is used more efficiently than in simple cubic packing

Question 15.
What is the two-dimensional coordination number of a molecule in square close-packed layer?
Answer:
Square close packing – When the spheres of the second row are placed exactly above those of the first row. This way the spheres are aligned horizontally as well as vertically. The arrangement is AAA type. Coordination number is 4.

Question 16.
What is meant by the term “coordination number”? What is the coordination number of atoms in a bcc structure?
Answer:

• Coordination number – The number of nearest neighbours that surrounding a particle in a crystal is called the coordination number of that particle.
• Coordination number of atoms in a bcc structure is 8

Question 17.
An element has bcc structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. the density of the element is 7.2 gcm-3. How many atoms are present in 208g of the element.
Answer:
An elemeñt has bec structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The density of the element is 7.2 gcm^-3. For the Bec structure, n = 2

No. of atoms = No. of moles × Avagadro number
=n × N_A
=4 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 2.4092 × 10²⁴ number of atoms

Question 18.
Aluminium crystallizes in a cubic close-packed structure. Its metallic radius is 125pm. Calculate the edge length of the unit cell.
Answer:
Cubic close packing is based on face centred cubic unit cell.
For fcc structure r = \(\frac{a \sqrt{2}}{4}\)
Given, Radius (r) = 125 pm
Edge length of unit cell (a) = ?

Question 19.
If NaCI is doped with 10^-2 mol percentage of strontium chloride, what is the concentration of cation vacancy?
Answer:
We know that two Na+ ions are replaced by each of the Sr²⁺ ions while SrCl₂, is doped with NaCI. But in this case, only one lattice point is occupied by each of the Sr²⁺ ions and produce one cation vacancy.

Here 10^-2 mole of SrCl₂, is doped with 100 moles of NaCI. Thus, cation vacancies produced by NaCi = 10^-2  mol. Since, 100 moles of NaCl produces cation vacancies after doping = 10^-2 mol. Therefore, I mole of NaCl will produce cation vacancies after doping

= \(\frac { { 10 }^{ -2 } }{ 100 }\)= 10^-4mol
:. Total cationic vacancies,
= 10^-4 × Avogadro’s number
= 10 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 6.023 × 10¹⁹ vacancies

Question 20.
KF crystallizes in fcc structure like sodium chloride, calculate the distance between K⁺  and F^– in KF. (given : density of KF is 2.48 g cm^-3)
Answer:
For fcc structure n = 4
p = 2.48 gcm^-3
For KFM= 39+19= 58g mol^-1
NA = 6.O23 × 10²³; a = ?

a³= 0.1553 × 10^-21 cm³
a= 0.5375 × 10^-7 cm
a = 5375 × 10^-8 cm
Distance between K⁺ and F^– =
1/2 × edge length = 1/2 × a
= 1/2 × 5375 × 10^-8
= 2.6875 × 10^-8 cm
= 2.6875 × 10^-10 m
= 268.75 × 10^-12 m
= 268.75 pm

Question 21.
An atom crystallizes ¡n fcc crystal lattice and has a density of 10 gcm^-3 with unit cell edge length of 100pm. calculate the number of atoms present in 1 g of crystal.
Answer:
ρ = 10cm^-3
N_A = 6.023 × 10²³
a = 100 Pm = 100 × 10¹²m
= 100 × 10¹⁰cm = 1.00 × 10⁸cm
For fcc n = 4 M = ? w = 1g
\(\rho=\frac{n M}{a^{3} N_{A}}\)
\(M=\frac{\rho a^{3} N_{A}}{n}\)
\(\frac{10 \times\left(1.00 \times 10^{-8}\right)^{3} \times 6.023 \times 10^{23}}{4}\)
Molar mass M = 1.51g mol^-1
Numberof moles n = \(\frac{W}{M}=\frac{1}{1.51}\) = 0.6623moles
Number of atoms present inn moles = n x N_A
Number of atoms. present in 0.6623 moles
=0.6623 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 3.989 × 10²³ number of atoms

Question 22.
Atoms X and Y form bcc crystalline structure. Atom X is present at the corners of the cube and Y is at the centre of the cube. What is the formula of the compound?
Answer:
Y – body centre atom 1 × 1/1 = 1
∴ The formula is X₁Y₁ or XY.

Question 23.
Sodium metal crystallizes in bcc structure with the edge length of the unit cell 4.3 × 10^-8 cm. Calculate the radius of sodium atom.
Answer:
Edge length of the unit cell (a) = 4.3 × 10^-8cm
Radius of sodium atom (r) = ?
For bcc structure, r = \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } a\)
= \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } a\) (4.3 × 10^-8cm)
\(\frac { 1.732\times 4.3\times { 10 }^{ -8 } }{ 4 }\)
= \(\frac { 1.732 }{ 4 } \times { 10 }^{ -8 }cm\)
= 1.86 × 10^-8 cm

Question 24.
Write a note on Frenkel defect.
Answer:
This arises due to the dislocation of ions from its crystal lattice.

• The ion missing from the lattice point occupies an interstitial position.
• This is shown by ionic solids in which cation and anion differ in size.
• This does not affect the density of the crystal eg. Ag Br
• Small Ag+ ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial position.

III. Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
An element has a face centered cubic unit cell with a length of 352.4 pm along an edge. The density of the element is 8.9 gcm^-3. How many atoms are present in loo g of an element?
Answer:
a = 352.4 pm 352. 4 × 10^-12 m
= 352. 4 × 10^-12 × 10² cm
= 352.4 × 10^-10 cm
= 3.524 × 10^-8cm
p = 8.9 gcm^-3; NA 6.023 × 10²³
Forfccn=4w= 100g ; M=?

Molar mass M = 58.65 g mol^-1
Number of moles
\(\mathrm{n}=\frac{\mathrm{w}}{\mathrm{m}}=\frac{100}{58.65}\)
= 1.705 moles
No of atoms present in n moles n. NA
No. of atoms present in 1.705 moles
= 1.705 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 10.269 × 10²⁴ number of atoms

Question 2.
Determine the density of CsCl which crystallizes in a bcc type structure with an edge length 412.1 pm.
Answer:
Molar mass of cscl = 168.5 g /mol
Number atoms present in per unit cell for bcc (cscl)
n = 1
Edge length (a) = 412.1 pm
Density (ρ) = ?
ρ = \(\frac { nM }{ { a }^{ 3 }{ N }_{ A } }\)

Question 3.
A face centered cubic solid of an element (atomic mass 60) has a cube edge of 4 Å. Calculate its density.
Answer:
For FCC unit cell n = 4
Edge length (a) = 4Å = 4 × 10^-8cm
Mass (M) = 60 g mol^-1
Density (p) = ?

12th Chemistry Guide Solid State Additional Questions and Answers

Part – II – Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In a crystalline solid the arrangement of its constituents is such that the potential energy of the system is
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) Zero
d) infinity
Answer:
b) minimum

Question 2.
The property of having identical values of physical properties in all directions is called as
a) isotropy
b) anisotropy
c) allotropy
d) isomerism
Answer:
a) isotropy

Question 3.
The property of having different values of physical properties along different directions is called as
a) isotropy
b) anisotropy
c) allotropy
d) isomerism
Answer:
b) anisotropy

Question 4.
The radius of Na+ ion is 95pm and Cl” ion 181
pm. The co-ordination of Na+is f3Z9E3
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 3
Answer:
b) 6

Question 5.
Amorphous solids show
a) isotropy
b) anisotropy
c) isomerism
d) tautomerism
Answer:
a) isotropy

Question 6.
Amorphous solids are
a) anisotropic
b) true solids
c) pseudo solids
d) orderly arranged
Answer:
c) pseudo solids

Question 7.
Crystalline solids are
a) isotropic
b) true solids
c) pseudo solids
d) super cooled liquids
Answer:
b) true solids

Question 8.
In ionic solids, cations and anions are held together by
a) weak vander waals force
b) strong electrostatic force
c) hydrogen bond
d) covalent bond
Answer:
b) strong electrostatic force

Question 9.
Ionic solids conduct electricity in
a) crystalline state
b) solid state
c) amorphous state
d) molten state
Answer:
d) molten state

Question 10.
In covalent solids, the constituents are
a) ions
b) atoms
c) molecules
d) metals
Answer:
b) atoms

Question 11.
Which among the following is a covalent solid?
a) Naphthalene
b) Urea
c) Diamond
d) Glucose
Answer:
c) Diamond

Question 12.
The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is
a) NaCl
b) KCl
c) ZnO
d) FeO
Answer:
d) FeO

Question 13.
In molecular solids the constituents are held together by
a) weak vander waals force
b) strong electrostatic force
c) hydrogen bond
d) covalent bond
Answer:
a) weak vander waals force

Question 14.
In non polar molecular solids the constituents are held together by
a) strong electrostatic force
b) Polar covalent bonds
c) London forces
d) hydrogen bonds
Answer:
c) London forces

Question 15.
In polar molecular solids the constituents are held together by
a) strong electrostatic force
b) Polar covalent bonds
c) London forces
d) hydrogen bonds
Answer:
b) Polar covalent bonds

Question 16.
Solid CO₂ is a
a) Non polar molecular solid
b) Polar molecular solid
c) Hydrogen bonded molecular solid
d) Metallic solid
Answer:
b) Polar molecular solid

Question 17.
Naphthalene is a
a) Non polar molecular solid
b) Polar molecular solid
c) Hydrogen bonded molecular solid
d) Metallic solid
Answer:
a) Non polar molecular solid

Question 18.
The number of close packed spheres is ‘n’. The number of tetrahedral voids generated is equal to ………
a) n
b) 2n
c) 2n2
d) 3n
Answer:
b) 2n

Question 19.
In metallic solids, the lattice points are occupied by
a) anions
b) protons
c) atoms
d) metal ions
Answer:
d) metal ioris

Question 20.
The melting point of metallic solids is
a) low
b)high
c) zero
d) negative
Answer:
b) high

Question 21.
For a rhombohedral crystal which of the following is correct?
a) α = β = γ = 90°
b) α = β = γ ≠ 90°
c) α = β = 90°; γ = 12090°
d) α = γ = 90°; β ≠ 90°
Answer:
b) α = β = γ ≠ 90°

Question 22.
Each atom in the corner of a cubic unit cell is shared by …………….. neighbouring unit cells
a) 6
b) 8
c) 4
d) 2
Answer:
b) 8

Question 23.
The body centred atom in a bcc unit cell is shared by …………….. unit cells
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
Answer:
a) 1

Question 24.
The face centred atom in a fee unit cell is shared by ………….. unit cells
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
Answer:
b) 2

Question 25.
In FCC unit cell of the edge length is 8√2 pm. The radius of the metal atom is.
a) 0.04
b) 0.02
c) 8 × 10^-2
d) 8/√2
Answer:
a) 0.04

Question 26.
In fee, the face centre has a share of…….. of an atom

Answer:
1/2

Question 27.
Total number of atoms present in a simple cubic unit cell is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer:
a) 1

Question 28.
Total number of atoms present in a bcc unit cell is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer:
b) 2

Question 29.
Total number of atoms present in a fee unit cell is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer:
c) 4

Question 30.
of all the metals in the periodic table only …………… crystallizes in simple cubic pattern.
a) Uranium
b) Polonium
c) Titanium
d) Radium
Answer:
b) Polonium

Question 31.
Which of the following is amorphous?
a) Poly Styrene
b) Table salt
c) Silica
d) Diamond
Answer:
a) Poly Styrene

Question 32.
The arrangement of crystallographic axes and angles respectively in hexagonal crystal system is
a) a ≠ b ≠ c α = β = γ = 90°
b) a = b ≠  c α = β = γ = 90°
c) a = b ≠  c α = β = 90°; γ = 120°
d) a = b = c α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90°;
Answer:
c) a = b ≠  c α = β = 90°; γ = 120°

Question 33.
For tetrahedral coordination number, the radius ratio  is
a) 0.732 -1.000
b) 0.414 – 0.732
c) 0.225 – 0.414
d) 0.155 – 0.225
Answer:
c) 0.225 – 0.414

Question 34.
If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic systems, SC, bcc, fee then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively

Answer:
c

Question 35.
The arrangement ABC ABC ABC ……….. is referred as
a) Tetergonal close packing
b) hexagonal close packing
c) Octahderal close packing
d) Cubic close packing
Answer:
d) Cubic close packing

Question 36.
Hexagonal close packed arrangement of ions is described as
a) ABC ABA
b) ABC ABC….
c) AB AB
d) ABB ABB ….
Answer:
c) AB AB

Question 37.
An ionic compound has a unit cell consisting of A ions at the corners of a cube and B ions on the centres of the faces of the cube. The empirical formula of this compound would be
a) AB
b) A₂B
c) AB₃
d) A₃B
Answer:
c) AB₃

Corner atom A \(8 \times \frac{1}{8}=1\)
Face centre atoms B \(6 \times \frac{1}{2}\) = 3
∴ Formula is A₁B₃

Question 38.
In a fee lattice A type atoms are present at the corners while B type atoms are at face centres. If in each unit cell, one of the A type atom is missing from the corner what is the simplest formula of the compound
a) AB₃
b) A₃B
c) A₇B₂₄
d) A₂₄B₇
Ans:
c) A₇B₂₄
Corner atom A (one missing) = 7 x 1/8 = 7/8
Face centre atom B = 6 x 1/2 = 3
∴ Formula is A_7/8 , B₃ (or) A₇ B₂₄

Question 39.
In a face centred cubic lattice, atoms A occupies the corner and B occupies the face centre. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centred position, What is the formula of the compound?
a) A₂B
b) AB₂
c) A₂B₃
d) A₂B₅
Answer:
d) A₂B₅
Corner atom A 8 × 1/8 = 1
Face centre atom B (one missing) 5 × 1/2 = 5/2
∴ Formulais A₁B_5/2 g, (or)A₂B₅

Question 40.
In Bragg’s equation, n represents
a) number of moles
b) Principal quantum number
c) Avogadro’s number
d) Order of reflection
Answer:
d) Order of reflection

II. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
i. Graphite
ii. Dry ice
iii. NaCl
iv. Copper

Question 2.

Answer:
i. One
ii. Two
iii. Four

Question 3.

Answer:
i. 52.31%
ii. 68%
iii. 74%

Question 4.

Answer:
1. NaCl
2. AgBr
3. NaCl in sodium vapour AgBr
4. FeO

III. Tick the odd man out

1. a) Plastics
b) Rubber
c) NaCl
d) Glass
Answer:
c) NaCl
Reason : NaCl is a crystalline solids while others are amorphous solids.

2. a) Naphthalene
b) Silicon carbide
c) Solid CO₂
d) Urea
Answer:
b) Silicon carbide
Reason : Silicon carbide is a covalent solid while others are molecular solids.

3. a) NaCl
b) AgBr
c) FeO
d) VO
Answer:
c) FeO
Reason : FeO is a crystal with non stoichiometric defect while others are crystals with stoichiometric defect.

IV. Pick out the correct statements.

Question 1.
i) In covalent solids atoms are bound together by covalent bonds.
ii) Covalent solids are hard.
iii) Covalent solids have low melting point
iv) Covalent solids are good thermal and electrical conductors.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
iii) Covalent solids have high melting point.
iv) Covalent solids are poor thermal and electrical conductors.

Question 2.
i) A unit cell that contains only one lattice point is called a primitive unit cell.
ii) There are seven primitive crystal systems.
iii) Based on the seven primitive unit cell, Bravais defined 41 possible crystal systems.
iv) For cubic and rhombohedral crystal systems a b c.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
iii) Based on the seven primitive unit cell, Bravais defined 14 possible crystal systems
iv) For cubic and rhombohedral crystal systems a = b = c.

Question 3.
i) In bcc unit cell the coordination number of each atom is 6.
ii) Density of a unit cell = \(\frac{\mathrm{a}^{3} \mathrm{~N}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{nM}}\)
iii) Packing fraction =
\(\frac{\text { Total volume occupied by atoms } / \text { spheres }}{\text { Volume of the unit cell }} \times 100\)
iv) Stoichiometric defect in ionic solid is also
called as intrinsic or thermodynamic defect,
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
i) In bcc unit cell the coordination number of each atom is 8.
ii) Density of a unit cell = \(\frac{\mathrm{nM}}{\mathrm{a}^{3} \mathrm{~N}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

Question 4.
i) According to the law of nature, crystals must be perfect.
ii) Imperfection in solids affect the physical and chemical properties of the solid.
iii) Doping with impurity leads to a crystal imperfection.
iv) Imperfection decreases the electrical conductivity of a semi conductor
a) (i) & (ii) b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv) d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
i) According to the law of nature crystals need not be perfect.
iv) Imperfection increases the electrical conductivity of a semi conductor

V. Pick out the incorrect statement.

Question 1.
i) Solids have definite volume and shape.
ii) Solids are rigid and compressible
iii) Solids have weak cohesive forces.
iv) Solids have short inter atomic distances,
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
ii) Solids are rigid and incompressible.
iii) Solids have strong cohesive forces.

Question 2.
i) In molecular solids the constituents are neutral molecules.
ii) In molecular solids the constituents are held together by strong electrostatic force.
iii) Molecular solids are hard.
Molecular solids do not conduct electricity,
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i),(ii) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iv)
d) (ii) only
Correct statement:
Answer:
d) (ii) only
(ii) In molecular solids the constituents are held together by weak Vanderwaals force.

Question 3.
i) Crystalline solids have short range, random
arrangement of constituents.
ii) Amorphous solids are isotropic.
iii) Crystalline solids are considered as pseudo solids.
iv) Heat of fusion of amorphous solids is not definite.
a) (i)&(ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
b) (i) & (iii)
i) Crystalline solids have long range orderly arrangement of constituents,
iii) Crystalline solids are considered as true solids.

Question 4.
i) The inter planar distance between two successive planes of atoms can be calculated using Bragg’s equation.
ii) Bragg’s equation is 2d sinθ = nλ.
iii) The coordination number of the sphere in simple cubic arrangement is 8.
iv) If the number of close packed spheres be ‘n’ then the number of octahedral voids is equal to ‘2n’.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
(iii) The coordination number of the sphere in simple cubic arrangement is 6.
(iv) If the number of close packed spheres be ‘n’ then the number of octahedral voids is equal to’n’.

VI. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion A : Ionic solids do not conduct electricity in solid state.
Reason : Ionic solids have high melting points.
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
ii) A is correct but R is wrong. iii) A is wrong but R is correct,
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A.
Answer:
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A. Correct Reason: In ionic solids ions are fixed in the Lattice positions.

Question 2.
Assertion A : Graphite is a component of many lubricants.
Reason R : Graphite is slippery.
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
ii) A is correct but R is wrong. iii) A is wrong but R is correct,
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A.
Answer:
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion A : Metal deficiency defect arises due to the presence of less number of anions than the cations.
Reason R : This defect is observed in a crystal in which, the cations have variable oxidation states.
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
ii) A is correct but R is wrong. iii) A is wrong but R is correct,
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A.
Answer:
iii) A is wrong but R is corrrect
Correct Assertion(A): Metal deficiency defect arises due to the presence of less number of cations than the anions.

Question 4.
Assertion A : In polar molecular solids, the constituents are molecules formed by polar covalent bonds.
Reason R : They are held together by relatively weak dipole – dipole interactions.
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
ii) A is correct but R is wrong.
iii) A is wrong but R is correct.
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A.
Answer:
ii) A is correct but R is wrong.
Correct Reason R : They are hold together by relatively strong dipole – dipole interactions.

VII. Two Mark Questions.

Question 1.
What is a crystalline solid?
Answer:
A crystalline solid is one in which its constituents (atoms,ions or molecules) have an orderly arrangement over a long range.

Question 2.
What is an amorphous solid?
Answer:
An amorphous solid is one in which its constituents (atoms, ions or molecules) have random arrangement over a short range.

Question 3.
Define isotropy.
Answer:

• Isotropy means uniformity in all directions.
• Isotropy means having identical values of physical properties in all directions. (ex): Amorphous solids show isotropy.

Question 4.
What is meant by anisotropy?
Answer:

• Anisotropy means non uniformity in all directions.
• Anisotropy means having different values of physical properties in different directions.
  (ex): Crystalline solids show anisotropy.

Question 5.
What are molecular solids?
Answer:

• Solids in which the structural units are neutral molecules are known as molecular solids.
• The neutral molecules are held together by weak VanderWaals force.
• They are generally soft.
• They do not conduct electricity.

Question 6.
What are non – polar molecular solids?
Answer:

• Molecular solids in which neutral molecules are held together by weak dispersion forces or London forces are known as non – polar molecular solids.
• They have low melting point.
• They are usually liquids or gases at room temperature.
• (ex): naphthalene, anthracene.

Question 7.
What are polar molecular solids?
Answer:

• Solids in which the constituents are molecules formed by polar covalent bonds are called polar molecular solids.
• The molecules are held together by relatively strong dipole – dipole interactions.
• They have higher melting point than non
  polar molecular solids, (ex): Solid CO₂, Solid NH₃.

Question 8.
Outline the classification of the point defects.
Answer:

• To maximize the attractive force, cations are surrounded by as many anions as possible and vice versa.
• They posses definite crystal structure.
• Many ionic solids are cubic close packed, (ex): NaCl crystal.

Question 4.
What are covalent solids?
Answer:

• Solids in which the structural units are atoms are known as covalent solids.
• The atoms are bound together by covalent bonds in a three dimensional network.
• They are very hard.
• They have high melting point.
• They are usually poor thermal and electrical conductors, (ex): Diamond, Silicon Carbide.

Question 5.
Write about simple cubic unit cell.
Answer:

• In the simple cubic unit cell each corner is occupied by identical atoms, ions or molecules.
• They touch along the edges of the cube.
• They do not touch diagonally.
• The coordination number is 6.
• Each atom in the corner is shared by 8 neighbouring unit cells.
• Number of atoms in a SC unit cell

Question 6.
Write about body centred cubic (bcc) unit cell.
Answer:

• In bcc unit cell each corner is occupied by identical atoms, ions or molecules.
• In addition one atom occupies the body centre.
• The atoms in the corners do not touch each other.
• However they all touch the atom present in the body centre.
• Each atom is surrounded by eight nearest neighbours. and coordination number is 8.
• The atom at the body centre belongs to only one unit cell =

Question 7.
Sketch face centred cubic (fee) unit cell and calculate the number of atoms present in it.
Answer:

• In fcc unit cell each corner is occupied by identical atoms, ions or molecules.
• In addition one atom occupies the centre of eachface.
• The atoms in the corners do not touch each other.
• However they all touch the atoms present at the centre of the faces.
• The coordination number is 12.
• Number of atoms in a fee unit cell =

Question 8.
What is radius ratio in ionic solid? Tabulate the relation between radius ratio and structural arrangement in ionic solids.
Answer:
The ratio of radius of cation and anion plays an important role in determining the structure.
Radius ratio = \(\frac{r_{C}+}{r_{A-}}\)

IX. Additional Questions – 5 Mark

Question 1.
What is Bragg’s equation. Using Bragg’s equation how can you calculate the edge of the unit cell.
Answer:
X – ray diffraction analysis is the most powerful tool for the determination of crystal structure.
The interplanar distance (d) between two successive planes of atoms can be calculated using the following Bragg’s equation from ray diffraction data.
2d sinθ = nλ
λ = wave length of x – ray used for diffraction
θ = angle of di fTraction
n = order of reflection (diffraction)
d = interplanar distance
By knowing the values of θ, λ and n we can calculate the value of d.
\(\mathrm{d}=\frac{\mathrm{n} \lambda}{2 \sin \theta}\)
Using those values the edge of the unit cell can be calculated.

Question 2.
How can you calculate the density of the unit cell of a crystal?
Answer:
Using the edge length of a unit cell we can calculate the density of the crystal by considering a cubic unit cell as follows.
Density of unit cell p = \(\frac{\text { mass of the unit cell }}{\text { Volume of the unit cell }}\) ……………1
Mass of the unit cell = Total number of atoms present in the unit cell × Mass of one atom ………….2
Mass of an atom=

For a cubic unit cell all the edge lengths are equal ie ; a = b = c
Volume of the unit cell = a × a × a = a³. …..5
Substituting 4 and 5 in 1
Density of the unit cell p = \(\frac{\mathrm{nM}}{\mathrm{a}^{3} \mathrm{~N}_{\mathrm{A}}}\) …..6
From the values of n, M, a and NA, the density of the unit cell of the crystal can be calculated.

Question 3.
Calculate the percentage efficiency of packing in case of a simple cubic crystal.
Answer:
Let us consider a cube with an edge length ‘a’.
Volume of the cube = a × a × a = a³.
Let ‘r’ is the radius of the sphere.
From the figure a = 2r; r = a/2
Volume the sphere (atom)

ie ; only 52.31% of the available volume is occupied by atoms (spheres) in SC crystal.

Question 4.
Calculate the percentage efficiency of packing in case of face centred cubic crystal.
Answer:
Let us consider a fee crystal.
In ∆ABC AC² = AB² + BC²


ie; only 74% of the available volume is occupied by atoms (spheres) in fee crystal.

X. Additional problems

Question 1.
X – ray diffraction studies show that an element crystallises in an fee unit cell with edge length 360.8pm. If density of the element is 8.92gcm^-3 , calculate its atomic mass.
a 360.8pm = 360.8 × 10^-12 m
= 360.8 × 10^-10cm =3.608 × 10^-8Cm
p = 8.92 g cm^-3 fee unit cell n = 4
NA = 6.023 × 10²³ M=?

Question 2.
Silver forms ccp lattice and x – ray studies of its crystals show that edge length of its unit cell is 408.6 pm. If the atomic mass of silver is 107.9 u calculate its density.
Solution:
Cubic close packing is based on face centred cubic unit cell n = 4
a = 408.6pm = 408.6 × 10^-12
m = 408.6 × 10^-10 cm
= 4.086 × 10^-8 cm
M = 107.9u = 107.9 gmol^-1 N_A=6.023 × 10²³
p = ?

p = 10.50 g cm^-3

Question 3.
An element with molar mass 27 g mol^-1 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405pm. If its density is 2.7 g cm^-3, what is the nature of the cubic unit cell?
Answer:
M = 27 g mol^-1
a = 405pm = 405 × 10^-12 m = 405 × 10^-10cm
= 4.05 × 10^-8cm
p = 2.7 gem^-3N_A = 6.023 × 10²³ n =?

Since one unit cell contains 4 atoms it is face centred cubic unit cell.

Question 4.
Niobium crystallises in body centred cubic structure, if its density is 8.55g cm’3 and atomic mass is 93 u calculate its atomic radius,
Answer:
For bcc n = 2 p = 8.55 g cm^-3
M = 93 gmol^-1 N_A = 6.023 × 10²³

Question 5.
Gold with atomic radius 0.144 nm crystallises in face centred cubic unit cell. What is the length of a side of the cell?
Answer:
r = 0.144 a = ?

Edge length a = 407 pm.

Question 6.
Aluminium crystallises in cubic close packed structure. Its metallic radius is 125pm. (i) Calculate the edge length of the unit cell, ii) How many unit cells are there in 1cm3 of aluminium?
Answer:
r = 125pm a = ?
Cubic dose packed structure is based on face centred cubic unit cell.
For fee n =4

Edge length a = 353.61pm

ii) 22400cm³ contain 6.023 × 10²³ number of atoms
1 cm³ contains = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{22400} \times 1\)
= 2.689 × 10¹⁹ number of atoms,
In fcc
4 atoms occupy 1 unit cell
2.689 × 10¹⁹ atoms occupy 1/4 × 2.689 × 10¹⁹ unit cells
=6.723 × 10¹⁸ unit cells
1 cm³ of aluminium contains 6.723 × 10¹⁸ unit cells

Question 7.
The diffraction of crystal of Barium with x – ray of wave length 2.29Å gives a first order reflection at 27°8¹ . What is the distance between the diffracted planes?
n = 1 λ= 2.29Å
θ = 27°8¹
d = ?

Question 8.
A certain solid crystallises in SC lattices first order x – ray ( λ = 0.154nm) reflection maximum from a set of (200) planes was observed at 16°6¹. Calculate the edge of the unit cell.
Answer:
n = 1 = 0.154 = 16°6¹, d = ?

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Money Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 6 Money Market

12th Commerce Guide Money Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
The money invested in the call money market provides high liquidity with ………………
a) Low Profitability
b) High Profitability
c) Limited Profitability
d) Medium Profitability
Answer :
a) Low Profitability

Question 2.
A major player in the money market is the ……………..
a) Commercial Bank
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) State Bank of India
d) Central Bank
Answer :
a) Commercial Bank

Question 3.
Money Market provides………………
a) Medium – term Funds
b) Short – term Funds
c) Long – term Funds
d) Shares
Answer :
b) Short – term Funds

Question 4.
Money Market Institutions are …………………..
a) Investment Houses
b) Mortgage Banks
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses
Answer :
d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses

Question 5.
Risk in the Money Market is ……………….
a) High
b) Market Risk
c) Low Credit and Market Risk
d) Medium Risk
Answer :
c) Low Credit and Market Risk

Question 6.
Debt Instruments are issued by Corporate Houses are raising short-term financial resources from the money market are called …………………..
a) Treasury Bills
b) Commercial Paper
c) Certificate of Deposit
d) Government Securities
Answer :
b) Commercial Paper

Question 7.
The market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills of Exchange is known as a …………………. .
a) Commercial Paper Market
b) Treasury Bill Market
c) Commercial Bill Market
d) Capital Market
Answer :
c) Commercial Bill Market

Question 8.
A marketable document of title to a time deposit for a specified period may be referred to as a …………………
a) Treasury Bill
b) Certificate of Deposit
c) Commercial Bill
d) Government Securities
Answer :
b) Certificate of Deposit

Question 9.
Treasury Bill commands ……………
a) High Liquidity
b) Low Liquidity
c) Medium Liquidity
d) Limited Liquidity
Answer :
a) High Liquidity

Question 10.
Government Securities are issued by agencies such as ……………..
a) Central Government
b) State Governments
c) Semi-government Authorities
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

II. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define the term “Money Market”.
Answer:
According to Crowther, ’’the money market is the collective name given to the various firms and institutions that deal in the various grades of near money”.

Question 2.
What is a CD market?
Answer:
The Certificate Deposit market is a market where buying and selling of certificate deposits is known as “CD market”.

Question 3.
What is Government Securities Market?
Answer:
Certificate of Deposits is a short-term deposit instrument issued by banks and financial institutions to raise large sums of money. The Certificate of Deposit is transferable from one party to another. Due to their negotiable feature, they are also known as negotiable certificates of deposit.

Question 4.
“What do you mean by Auctioning?
Answer :

• “Auctioning” is a method of trading by merchants.
• Whereby merchants bid against one another.
• The securities are sold to the highest bidder.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Switching?
Answer:

1. Treasury Bills in the Treasury Market
2. Money at Call and Short Notice in the Call Loan Market
3. Commercial Bills and Promissory Notes in the Bill Market

Now in addition to the above, the following new instruments come into existence:

1. Commercial Papers
2. Certificate of Deposits
3. Inter-Bank Participation Certificates
4. Repo Instruments

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What are the features of Treasury Bills? (FILM V)
Answer:
Features:

1. Issuer
2. Finance Bills
3. Liquidity
4. Vital Source
5. Monetary Management

Question 2.
Who are the participants of the Money Market?
Answer:

• Central Banks of different countries.
• Government of different countries.
• Private and Public Banks.
• Mutual Funds Institutions.
• Public.
• RBI and SBI.
• Insurance Companies.
• Non-Banking Financial Institutions.
• Commercial Banks.
• State Governments.

Question 3.
Explain the types of Treasury Bills.
Answer:
Treasury Bills are issued to the public and other financial institutions for meeting the short term financial requirements of the Central Government.
Treasury Bills may be classified into three. They are:

1. 91 days Treasury Bills
2. 182 days Treasury Bills
3. 364 days Treasury Bills

Question 4.
What are the features of a Certificate of Deposit? (TINDU)
Answer:

•  Transfer freely by endorsement and delivery.
•  Issued at discount to face value.
•  No grace days. Repayable on a fixed date.
•  Document of title to Time Deposit.
•  Unsecured negotiable instruments.

Question 5.
What are the types of Commercial Bill?
Answer:

1. Demand and Usance Bills
2. Clean bills and documentary Bills
3. Inland bills and Foreign Bills
4. Indigenous Bills
5. Accommodation and supply Bills

IV. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Differentiate between the Money Market and Capital Market.
Answer :
Money Market – Definition :
“The Money Market is the collective name given to the various firms and institutions that deal in the various grades of near money”. – CROWTHER

Capital Market – Definition :
“A complex of institutions investments and practices with established links between the demand for and supply of different types of capital gains”. – ARUN K. DATTA RURALD

Question 2.
Explain the characteristics of the Money Market? (SMS WED)
Answer:

1. Short-term Funds: It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.
2. Maturity Period: It deals with financial assets having a maturity period upto one year only.
3. Conversion of Cash: It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost.
4. No Formal Place: Generally, transactions take place through phone, i.e., oral communication. Relevant documents and written communications can be exchanged subsequently.
5. Sub-markets: It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises several sub-markets each specialising in a particular type of financing.
6. Role of Market: The components of a money market are the Central Bank, Commercial Banks. Commercial banks generally play a dominant role in this market.
7. Highly Organized Banking System: The Commercial Banks are the nerve centre of the whole money market. They are the principal suppliers of short-term funds.
8. Existence of Secondary Market: There should be an active secondary market for these instruments.
9. Demand and Supply of Funds: There should be a large demand and supply of short-term funds.
10. Wholesale Market: It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the market is very large.
11. Flexibility: Due to greater flexibility in the regulatory framework, there are constant endeavors for introducing new instruments.
12. Presence of a Central Bank: The central bank keeps their cash reserves and provides them financial accommodation in difficulties by discounting their eligible securities.

Question 3.
Explain the Instruments of the Money Market.
Answer :
Instruments of Money Market:

• Treasury Bills.
• Money at call and short notice.
• Commercial Bills and Promissory Notes.
• Inter-Bank participation certificate.
• Commercial papers.
• Certificate of Deposit.
• Repo instruments.

Treasury Bills:

• Treasury Bills are very popular and enjoy a higher degree of liquidity since they are issued by the Government.
• It is nothing but a promissory note issued for a specific period stated therein.
• The Government promises to pay the specified amount mentioned there to the bearer of the instrument on the due date.
• The period does not exceed a period of one year.

Commercial Bill:

•  A Bill of Exchange issued by a commercial organization to raise money for short-term needs.
•  These bills are of 30 days, 60 days, and 90 days maturity.
•  It is drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods.

Certificate of Deposits[CD]:

• Certificate of Deposits is short-term deposit instruments issued by Banks and financial institutions to raise large sums of money.
• These are issued in the form of usance promissory notes.
• They are easily convertible having face value and maturity.
• They are also known as Negotiable Certificate of Deposits.

Question 4.
Explain the features and types of Commercial Bills.
Answer:
The features of the Commercial Bills are as follows:

1. Drawer
2. Acceptor
3. Payee
4. Discounter
5. Endorser
6. Assessment
7. Maturity
8. Credit Rating

Types:

1. Demand and Usance Bills: A demand bill is one wherein no specific time of payment is mentioned. So, demand bills are payable immediately when they are presented to the drawee.
2. Clean Bills and Documentary Bills: Bills that are accompanied by documents of title to goods are called documentary bills. Clean bills are drawn without accompanying any document.
3. Inland Bills and Foreign Bills: Bills that are drawn and payable in India on a person who is resident in India are called inland bills.
4. Indigenous Bills: The drawing and acceptance of indigenous bills are governed by native custom or usage of trade.
5. Accommodation and Supply Bills: Accommodation bills are those which do not arise out of genuine trade of transactions.

Question 5.
What are the characteristics of Government Securities? (SMART IG)
Answer:

1. Agencies: Government securities are issued by agencies such as Central Government State Governments, semi-government authorities like local Government authorities.
2. RBI Special Role: RBI takes a special and active role in the purchase and sale of these securities as part of its monetary management exercise.
3. Nature of Securities: Securities offer a safe avenue of investment through guaranteed payment of interest and repayment of principal by the Government.
4. Liquidity Profile: The liquidity profile of gilt-edged securities varies. Accordingly, the liquidity profile of securities issued by the Central Government is high.
5. Tax Rebate: A striking feature of these securities is that they offer a wide range of tax incentives to investors.
6. Market: As each sale and purchase has to be negotiated separately, the Gilt-Edged Market is an Over-The-Counter Market.
7. Forms: The securities of Central and State Government take such forms as inscribed stock or stock certificate, promissory note, and bearer bond.
8. Participants: The participants in the Government securities market include the Government sector comprising Central and State Governments
9. Trading: Small and less active, banks and corporate holders who purchase and sell Government securities on the stock exchanges participate in trading.
10. Issue Mechanism: The Public Debt Office (PDO) of the RBI undertakes to issue government securities.
11. Issue opening: A notification for the issue of the securities is made a few days before the public subscription is open.
12. Grooming Gradual: It is the acquisition of securities nearing maturity through the stock exchanges by the RBI.
13. Switching: It is the purchase of one security against the sale of another security carried out by the RBI in the secondary market as part of its open market operations.
14. Auctioning: A method of trading whereby merchants bid against one another and where the securities are sold to the highest bidder.

12th Commerce Guide Money Market Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
The money market is a market for purely ______
(a) Short-term funds
(b) Long-term funds
(c) Medium-term funds
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Short-term funds

Question 2.
Government of different countries is the participants of ……………..
a) Capital Market
b) Money Market
c) Securities Market
d) All of these
Answer :
b) Money Market.

Question 3.
Which is dealt with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily?
(a) Capital market
(b) Money market
(c) Stock exchange
(d) Bank
Answer:
(b) Money market

Question 4.
………………..Bills are governed by native custom or usage of Trade.
a) Accommodation
b) Inland
c) Supply
d) Indigenous
Answer :
d) Indigenous.

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Endorser
b) Endorsee
c) Grace days
d) Creditor
Answer :
d) Creditor

Question 6.
The issuers of the certificate of deposits are ______
(i) commercial banks
(ii) cooperative banks
(iii) private company
(iv) financial institutions
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

II. Match The Following.

Question 1.
Match List I with List II

Answer:
a) (i) 4, (ii) 3, (iii) 1, (iv) 2

Question 2.

Answer:
a) (i) 3, (ii) 1, (iii) 2,(iv) 4.

III. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Treasury Bills enjoy a higher degree of liquidity since they are issued by Government.
Reason (R): The Government promises to pay the specific amount on the due date
a) (A) is true (R) is False
b) (A) is False (R) is True
c) Both (A) and (R) are False
d) Both (A) and (R) are True
Answer :
d) Both (A) and (R) True

Question 2.
Assertion (A): A demand bill is one wherein no specific time of payment is mentioned.
Reason (R): So, it has to be payable immediately on demand.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
b) Both (A) are (R) are incorrect
c) A is correct
d) R is incorrect
Answer :
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

IV. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is Grooming Gradual?
Answer:
Acquisition of securities nearing maturity through the stock exchanges by the RBI in order to facilitate redemption is described as ‘grooming’.

Question 2.
What is the commercial bill market?
Answer:
It is a market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills (of exchange) is known as “Commercial Bill Market”.

Question 3.
What is Liquidity Profile?
Answer:
The liquidity profile of gilt-edged securities varies. Accordingly, the liquidity profile of securities issued by the Central Government is high.

Question 4.
Explain the two oldest money markets.
Answer:

•  The oldest, most developed, and leading Money Market in the world is the “London Money Market”.
•  The second well-developed and ranked Money Market in the world is the “New York Money Market”.

V. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What are sub-markets?
Answer:
It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises several sub-markets each specializing in a particular type of financing. E.g, Call Money Market, Acceptance Market, Bill Market.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.6 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.6

Question 1.
Solve the following differential equations.
[x + y cos(\(\frac { y }{ x }\))] dx = x cos (\(\frac { y }{ x }\)) dy
Solution:
The given equation can be written as

On integration we obtain

which gives the required solution.

Question 2.
Solve (x³ + y³)dy – x² ydx = 0
Solution:
The given equation can be written as

Question 3.
Solve ye^{\(\frac { x }{ y }\)} dx = (x^{\(\frac { x }{ y }\)} + y)dy
Solution:
The given equation can be written as

Question 4.
Solve 2xy dx + (x² + 2y²)dy = 0
Solve ye^{\(\frac { x }{ y }\)} dx = (x^{\(\frac { x }{ y }\)} + y)dy
Solution:
The given differential equation can be written as


\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) log (3v + 2v³) + log x = log |C₁|
log (3v + 2v³) + 3log (x) = 3 log (C₁)
log (3v + 2v³) + log (x)³ = log (C₁)³
log (3v + 2v³)x³ = log C₁³
(3v + 2v³)x³ = C₁³

3x²y + 2y³ = C₁³
3x²y + 2y³ = C is a required solution.

Question 5.
(y² – 2xy) dx = (x² – 2xy) dy
Solution:
Given equation is (y² – 2xy) dx = (x² – 2xy) dy
y² – 2xy = (x² – 2xy) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\)
∴ The equation can written as


log (3v² – 3v) = – 3 log x + log C
log (3v² – 3v) = – log x³ + log C
= log c – log x³

Question 6.
x \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = y – x cos²(\(\frac { y }{ x }\))
Solution:
Given x \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = y – x cos² \(\frac { y }{ x }\)
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = \(\frac { y-cos^2 \frac { y }{ x } }{ x }\) …….. (1)
This is a homogeneous differential equation.
y = vx
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = v (1) + x \(\frac { dv }{ dx }\)
Substituting \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) value in equation (1), we get

Integrating on both sides, we get
∫ sec² v dx = -∫ \(\frac { dx }{ x }\)
tan v = – log x + log C
tan v = log C – log x
tan v = log(\(\frac { C }{ x }\))
e^{tan v} = \(\frac { C }{ x }\)
C = x e^{tan v}
C = x e^{tan \(\frac { y }{ x }\)}
Is a required equation.

Question 7.
Solve (1 + 3e^{\(\frac { y }{ x }\)}) dy + 3e^{tan \(\frac { y }{ x }\)} (1 – \(\frac { y }{ x }\)) dx = 0, given that y = 0 when x = 1.
Solution:
The given differential equation may be


Given that y = 0 when x = 1
0 + 3(1) e° = c
3 = c
∴ y + 3xe^y/x = 3 is a required solution.

Question 8.
(x² + y²) dy = xy dx. It is given that y (1) = y(x₀) = e. Find the value of x₀.
Solution:
The given differential equation is of the form

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.5 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.5

Question 1.
If F is the constant force generated by the motor of an automobile of mass M, its velocity V is given by M \(\frac { dV }{ dt }\) = F – kV, where k is a constant. Express V in terms of t given that V = 0 when t = 0.
Solution:
Given differential equation is M \(\frac { dV }{ dt }\) = F – kV
The given equation can be written as
\(\frac { dV }{ F-kV }\) = \(\frac { dt }{ M }\)
Now Integrating, we get

Initial condition:
Given V = 0 When t = 0
C = e^{\(\frac { k(0) }{ M }\)} [F – k (0)]
= e° [F – 0]
C = F
∴ (1) ⇒ F = (F – kV)e^{\(\frac { kt }{ M }\)}

Question 2.
The velocity v, of a parachute falling vertically satisfies the equation v\(\frac { dv }{ dx }\) = g(1 – \(\frac { v^2 }{ k^2 }\)) where g and k are constants. If v and are both initially zero, find v in terms of x.
Solution:

Initial condition:
Given V = 0 when x = 0, we get
k²(0)² = Ce^{\(\frac { -2g(0) }{ k^2 }\)}
k² = Ce°
k² = C
(1) ⇒ k² – v² = k² e^{\(\frac { -2gx }{ k^2 }\)}
k² – k² e^{\(\frac { -2gx }{ k^2 }\)} = v²
k² [1 – e^{\(\frac { -2gx }{ k^2 }\)}] = v²

Question 3.
Find the equation of the curve whose slope is \(\frac { y-1 }{ x^2+x }\) and which passes through the point (1, 0).
Solution:

1 = A(x + 1) + B(x)
Put x = -1; Put x = 0
1 = A (0) + B (-1) ; 1 = A(0 + 1) + B(0)
1 = -B; 1 = A
B = -1; A = 1
∴ \(\frac { 1 }{ x^2+x }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ x+1 }\) ……. (2)
Substituting equation (2) in equation (1), we get
\(\frac { dy }{ y-1 }\) = \(\frac { dx}{ x }\) + \(\frac { dx }{ x+1 }\)
Taking integrating on both sides, we get
log (y – 1) = log x – log (x + 1) + log C
log (y – 1) = log C + log x – log (x + 1)
= log Cx – log (x + 1)

Question 4.
Solve the following differential equations:
(i) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = \(\sqrt { 1-y^2 }{ 1-x^2 }\)
(ii) ydx + (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy = 0
(iii) sin \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = a, y (0) = 1
(iv) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\)e^x+y + x³, e^y
(v) (e^y + 1) cos x dx + e^y sin x dy = 0
(vi) (ydx – xdy) cot (\(\frac { x }{ y }\)) = ny² dx
(vii) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – x\(\sqrt { 25-x^2 }\) = 0
(viii) x cos y dy = e^x (x log x + 1) dx
(xi) tan y \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = cos (x + y) + cos (x – y)
(x) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = tan² (x + y)
Solution:
(i) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = \(\sqrt { 1-y^2 }{ 1-x^2 }\)
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ \sqrt {1-y^2} }\) = \(\frac { dx }{ \sqrt {1-x^2} }\)
Taking Integration on both sides, we get
∫ \(\frac { dy }{ \sqrt {1-y^2} }\) = ∫ \(\frac { dx }{ \sqrt {1-x^2} }\)
sin^-1y = sin^-1 x + C

(ii) ydx + (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy = 0
ydx = – (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy
Take t = tan^-1 x
dt = \(\frac { 1 }{ 1+x^2 }\) dx
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dx }{ (1+x^2)tan^{-1}x }\) = –\(\frac { dy }{ y }\)
\(\frac { dt }{ t }\) = –\(\frac { dy }{ y }\)
Taking Integration on both sides, we get
∫ \(\frac { dt }{ t }\) = ∫ \(\frac { dy }{ y }\)
log t = – log y + log C
log (tan^-1 x) = – log y + log C
log (y(tan^-1 x)) + log y = log C
y tan^-1 x = C

(iii) sin \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = a, y (0) = 1
sin \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = a
sin \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = sin^-1 (a)
The equation can be written as
dy = sin^-1 (a) dx
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ dy = ∫ sin^-1 (a) dx
y = sin^-1 a ∫ dx
y = sin^-1 (a) x + C ……… (1)
Initial condition:
Since y (0) = 1, we get
y = sin^-1 (a) x + C
1 = sin^-1 (a) (0) + C
0 + C = 1
C = 1
Equation (1) ⇒ y = sin^-1 (a) x + 1
y – 1 = sin^-1 (a) x
\(\frac { y-1 }{ x }\) = sin^-1 (a)
sin(\(\frac { y-1 }{ x }\)) = a

(iv) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\)e^x+y + x³, e^y
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\)e^x+y + x³, (e^y)
= e^y [e^x + x³]
\(\frac { dy }{ e^y }\) = dx(e^x + x³)
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ e^y }\) = (e^x + x³) dx
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ e^-y dy = ∫ (e^x + x³) dx
\(\frac { e^y }{ -1 }\) = e^x + \(\frac { x^4 }{ 4 }\) + C
[Where – C = C, Which is also constant].
∴ e^x + e^-y + \(\frac { x^4 }{4 }\) = -C = C
∴ e^x + e^-y + \(\frac { x^4 }{4 }\) = C

(v) (e^y + 1) cos x dx + e^y sin x dy = 0
Solution:
(e^y + 1) cos x dx + e^y sin x dy = 0
e^y sin x dy = – (e^y + 1) cos x dx

log (e^y + 1) = – log sin x + log c
log [(e^y + 1) + log sin x = log c
log (e^y +1) sin x] = log c
(e^y+ 1) sin x = c

(vi) (ydx – xdy) cot (\(\frac { x }{ y }\)) = ny² dx
equation can be written as

Substituting these values in equation (1), we get
dt cot t = ndx
cot t dt = ndx
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ cot t dt = n∫ dx
log (sin t) = n x + c
sin t = e^nx+c
∴ sin(\(\frac { x }{ y }\)) = e^nx+c [∵ t = \(\frac { x }{ y }\) ]

(vii) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – x\(\sqrt { 25-x^2 }\) = 0
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – x\(\sqrt { 25-x^2 }\) …….. (1)
Take 25 – x² = t
-2x dx = dt
x dx = –\(\frac { dt }{ 2 }\)
Substituting these values in equation (1), we get
dy = x\(\sqrt { 25-x^2 }\) dx
dy = -√t \(\frac { dt }{ 2 }\)
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ dy = –\(\frac { dt }{ 2 }\) ∫ t^{\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)} dt

(viii) x cos y dy = e^x (x log x + 1) dx
The equation can be written as

Substituting in (1), we get
sin y = e^y log x + C

(ix) tan y \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = cos (x + y) + cos (x – y)
The equation can be written as
tan y \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = cos (x + y) + cos (x – y)
[W.K.T cos (A + B) + cos (A – B) = 2 cos A cos B
Here A = x, B = y]
∴ tan y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 2 cos x cos y
\(\frac { tany }{ cosy }\) dy = 2 cos x dx
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ \(\frac { tany }{ cosy }\) dy = 2 ∫ cos x dx
2 ∫ tan y sec y dy = 2 ∫ cos x dx
sec y = 2 sin x + C

(x) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = tan² (x + y)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 27 Company Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 27 Company Management

12th Commerce Guide Company Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
A person Shall hold office as a director in …………… companies as per the Companies Act, 2013.
a) 5 companies
b) 10 companies
c) 20 companies
d) 15 companies
Answer:
c) 20 companies

Question 2.
Which …………… Director is appointed by a Financial Institution.
a) Nominee
b) Additional
c) Women
d) Shadow
Answer:
a) Nominee

Question 3.
A Private Company shall have a minimum of ………………….
a) Seven directors
b) Five directors
c) Three directors
d) Two directors
Answer:
d) Two directors

Question 4.
A Public Company shall have a minimum of …………….. Directors.
a) Twelve
b) Seven
c) Three
d) Two
Answer:
c) Three

Question 5.
A Public Company having a paid up Share Capital of Rs. ………………. or more may have a directter, elected by such small shareholders.
a) One crore
b) Three crores
c) Five crores
d) Seven crores
Answer:
c) Five crores

Question 6.
Under the companies Act, which one of the following powers can be exercised by the Board by Directors?
a) Power to sell the company’s undertakings.
b) Power to make call.
c) Power to borrow money in excess of the paid up capital.
d) Power to reappoint an auditor.
Answer:
b) Power to make call.

Question 7.
Which director need not hold qualifying shares.
a) Directors appointed to Central Government.
b) Directors appointed to Shareholders.
c) Directors appointed to Managing Director.
d) Directors appointed to Board of Directors.
Answer:
a) Directors appointed to Central Government

Question 8.
What is the statue of Directors who regulate money of the company.
a) Banker
b) Holder
c) Agent
d) Trustees
Answer:
d) Trustees

Question 9.
According to Companies Act, the Directors must be appointed by the
a) Central Government
b) Company Law Tribunal
c) Company in General Meeting
d) Board of Directors
Answer:
c) Company in General Meeting

Question 10.
The Board of Directors can exercise the power to appoint directors in the case of.
a) Additional Directors
b) Filling up the Casual vacancy
c) Alternate Directors
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Director.
Answer:
The Companies Act 2013 section 2 (34) defines a director appointed to the board of a Company is:
“A person who is appointed or elected member of the Board of Directors of a company and has the responsibility of determining and implementing policies along with others in the board.

Question 2.
Name the companies required to appoint KMP.
Answer:

• Every Listed Company.
• Every Public Company [Paid up capital ₹ 10 crores and more]

Question 3.
Who is a Whole Time Director?
Answer:
A whole-time Director is one who devotes the whole of his time of working hours to the company and has a significant personal interest in the company as the source of his income.

Question 4.
Who is called Managing Director? [M.D]
Answer:

• A Managing Director is one who is employed by the company.
• He has substantial powers of management over the affairs of the company subject to superintendence, direction control of the Board.

Question 5.
Who can be an Executive Director?
Answer:
An executive director is a Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or Managing Director of an organization, company, or corporation, who is responsible for making decisions to complete the mission and for the success of the organisation.

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
When are Alternative Directors Appointed?
Answer:

• Alternate Directors are appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute to a (original) Director who may be absent from India, for a period which is not less than 3 months.
• It is authorised by AOA or by passing a resolution in the Annual General Meeting.
• He is not a representative or agent of Original Director.

Question 2.
Who is a Shadow Director?
Answer:
A shadow director is a person who is not a member of the Board but has some power to run it and can be appointed as the director but according to his/her wish.

Question 3.
State the minimum number of Directors for a Private Company.
Answer:
Under section 149 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013 states that the requirement of Minimum/ Maximum Number of Directors in a Company.,

Private company:
In the case of One Person Company: The requirement of directors is one.
Other Private Companies: The minimum requirement of Directors is two.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is the KMP?
Answer:
Key Managerial Personnel – Section 2 (51) of Companies Act 2013,

• CEO – Chief Executive Officer
• MD – Managing Director or Manager
• Company – Secretary
• WTD – Whole Time Director
• CFO – Chief Financial Officer
• Such other officers as may be prescribed.

Question 2.
Bring different types of Directors. [RASIAN]
Answer:

1. Residential Director: According to Section 149 (3) of the Companies Act 2013, every company should appoint a director who has stayed in India for a total period of 182 days.
2. Independent Director: An independent director is an alternate director other than a Managing Director who is known as a Whole-time director or Nominee director.
3. Small shareholder’s Director: Small shareholders can appoint a single director in a listed company.
4.  Nominee Director: A director nominated by any financial institution in pursuance of the provisions of law.
5. Additional Directors: Any Individual can be appointed as Additional Directors by a company.
6. Alternate Directors: Alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute who may be absent from India, for a period of 3 months.

Question 3.
State the Qualification of Directors.
Answer:
Qualifications of Director: As regards to the qualification of directors, there is no direct provision in the Companies Act, 2013. In general, a director shall possess appropriate skills, experience and knowledge in the fields of finance, law, management, sales, marketing, research, and other disciplines related to the business. The following are the qualifications:

1. A director must be a person of sound mind.
2. A director must hold share qualification if the article of association provides such.
3. A director must be an individual.
4. A director should be a solvent person.
5. A director should not be convicted by the Court for any offense, etc.

Question 4.
State the Criminal Liabilities of Directors.
Answer:
Directors will be liable with a fine and imprisonment or both for fraud of non-compliance of any statutory provisions in the following situations where:

1. There is a misstatement in Prospectus
2. There is a failure to file a return on the allotment with the registrar
3. Failure to give notice to the registrar for the conversion of share into stock
4. Failure to issue Share Certificate and Debenture Certificate
5. There is the default in holding Annual General Meeting
6. There is a failure to provide Financial Statements

12th Commerce Guide Company Management Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
A director who is appointed in the place of an original director during the latter’s absence from the country is known as ……………….. Director.
a) Alternate
b) Additional
c) Women
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) Alternate

Question 2.
The aggregate nominal value of Qualification shares shall not exceed ………………….
a) ₹ 6000
b) ₹ 5000
c) ₹ 4000
d) ₹ 3000
Answer:
b) ₹ 5000

Question 3.
When a company has issued shares of ₹ 6000 each only, the minimum number of Qualification shares that a Director should hold is ………………….
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer:
a) One

Question 4.
The overall managerial remuneration should not exceed ……….. percent in the net profit.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Answer:
c) 11

Question 5.
The most important document of a company for External Management is ………………..
a) MOA
b) AOA
c) Prospectus
d) Prospectus in lieu of prospectus
Answer:
a) MOA

Question 6.
The maximum number of Directors in a public limited company is …………………
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 15
Answer:
d) 15

Question 7.
Pick the odd one out:
a) MO
b) CEO
c) MFO
d) DEO
Answer:
d) DEO

Question 8.
First Director is mentioned in ………………
a) AOA
b) MOA
c) Register
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) AOA

Question 9.
Director Act as ……………………
a) Agent
b) Trustee
c) Officer
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 10.
An ……………. can be appointed as Director.
a) Individual
b) Firm
c) HOF
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) Individual

Question 11.
The first Board meeting should be held within ………………… days of the date of incorporation,
a) 15
b) 30
c) 45
d) 60
Answer:
b) 30

II Match the following.
Question 1.

Answer:
a) (i) 2, (ii) 4, (iii) 1, (iv) 3

Question 2.

Answer:
a) (i) 4, (ii) 3,(iii) 2, (iv) 1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Term Remuneration means any money or its equivalent is given or passed to any person for services rendered by him.
Reason (R): It includes Rent-free, Sweat Equity shares, Concessions, Free of cost etc.
a) (A) and (R) are True
b) (A) and (R) False
c) (A) is true (R) is False
d) (A) is False (R) is True
Answer:
a) (A) and (R) are True

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Director.
Answer:

• “A person who is appointed or elected member of the Board of Directors of a company and has the responsibility of determining and implementing policies with others in the Board.
• It is not necessary to hold any shares in the company or be an employee.
• Director act on the basis of resolutions made in the Board of Directors meeting according to their powers stated in the Articles of Association of the Company”. – The companies Act 2013, Section 2(34)

Question 2.
What are the Minimum and Maximum number of Directors and the Number of Directorship?
Answer:
Minimum:

• One Person Company – ONE
• Private Company – TWO
• Public Company – THREE

Maximum:

• A company can appoint maximum 15 Directors out of which one must be Resident Director.
• By passing the resolution and approval of the Central Government, a company can appoint more than 15 Directors.

Directorship:

• A person can hold the position of Directorship in different companies up to a maximum of 20.
• Holding or subsidiary of a public company shall be limited to 10.

V. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Differentiate Executive and Non-Executive Directors. [DR]
Answer:

Question 2.
When are alternative directors appointed?
Answer:
An alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute to a director who may be absent from India, for a period which is not less than three months.

VI. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish Manager and Director. [NIL] [R]
Answer:

Question 2.
Difference between Managing Director and Whole Time Director. [P] [PAD]
Answer:

Question 3.
Who is the KMP?
Answer:
Companies Act, 2013 has introduced many new concepts and Key Managerial Personnel (KMP) is one of them. KMP covers the traditional roles of managing director and whole-time director and also includes some functional heads.
Key Managerial Personnel: The definition of the term Key Managerial Personnel is contained in Section 2(51) of the Companies Act, 2013. This Section states:

1. The Chief Executive Officer
2. The Managing Director or Manager
3. The Company Secretary
4. The Whole-time Director
5. The Chief Financial Officer
6. Such other officer as may be prescribed

Question 4.
Explain the Composition of the Board of Directors.
Answer:
a) General Optimum Combination:
Board of Directors Comprises:

• Executive Directors.
• Non – Executive Directors.
• Atleast one Women Director.
• Not less than 50 % of the Board – shall comprise Non – Executive Directors.

b) When the Non – Executive Director is the Chairperson:

• 1/3 of the Board Comprises of Independent Directors. [ID].
• Where the company does not have a regular non – executive chairperson at least 1/2 of the Board Shall Comprise Independent Directors.

c) When the non-executive chairperson is a promoter – Relatives of promoter or person occupying management position or at one level below the Board of Directors :

• In this case 1/2 of the Board of Directors shall consist of Independent Directors.
• Whole Time Director.
• Managing Director.
• Executive Director.
• Non – Executive Directors.

Question 5.
List the disqualification of a director.
Answer:
Disqualifications of a Director: Section 164 of Companies Act, 2013, has mentioned the disqualification as follows:
A person shall not be capable of being appointed director of a company if the director is

• Of unsound mind
• An undercharged insolvent
• Has been convicted by a court for any offense
• Has not paid any calls in respect of shares of the company held by him
• An order disqualifying him for appointment as director has been passed by a court
• He has not got the Director Identification Number

Question 6.
Explain How the Director of a company can be removed from the office?
Answer:
A Director of a company can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term by:

• Shareholders
• Central Government
• Company Law Board.

a) Removed by Shareholders: [Section 169]
In Annual General Meeting the shareholders of a company [Public or Private] by giving special notice and passing ordinary resolution can remove the director before the expiry of his period of office without the proof of Mismanagement, Breach of Trust, Misfeasance, Misconduct and the policies pursued by the Director are not appropriate.

b) Removed by Central Government:
The Central Government can remove the Director from office on the recommendation of the Company Law Board under the following circumstances.

• If cause injury or damage to the interest of the business.
• If conduct and management affairs are Guilty of Fraud, Misfeasance, Persistent negligence in carrying out his obligations.
• If the business has not been conducted and managed with sound business principles.

c) Removal by the Company Law Board:
If an application has been made to the CLB against the oppression and mismanagement of the company’s affairs by a Director, then the CLB may order for the termination.

Question 7.
What is the maximum limit for the Managerial Remuneration?
Answer:

• When a company has only one MD (or) WTD (or) Manager the – remuneration payable shall not exceed 5% of Net profit.
• If it is more than one MD or WTD or Manager [The overall] the remuneration payable should not exceed 11% of Net profit.

Maximum Remuneration Payable to its Managerial Personnel:
Remuneration payable by the company in case there is no profit or inadequacy of profit without central Government
and to pay remuneration in excess of the above limit is detailed below:

Question 8.
What are the duties of a director?
Answer:
Directors act as agents of the shareholders and act as a trustee of shareholders. The following are the duties of directors:

Collective Duties of Directors: Directors as apart of the Board perform certain duties collectively. The duties are as follows:

1. Approval of annual accounts and authentication of annual accounts
2. Appointment of First Auditors
3. Passing of resolutions at board meetings
4. Directors report to shareholders highlighting the performance of the company.

General duties of Directors:

1. Delegating power to any committee
2. Issuing instructions to employees for implementation of policy
3. Appointing their subordinates like Managing director, Manager, Secretary and other employees
4. Actin Good faith in order to promote the objectives of the company.

Question 9.
State the powers of the Directors.
Answer:
Statutory powers:

• To issue Debentures.
• To make Loans.
• To Borrow money other than Debenture.
• To diversify the company business.
• To Approve Financial Statement and Board Report.

Managerial powers:

• To Appoint MD, Manager and Secretary.
• To control and supervise the work of coordinates.
• To contract with the third party.
• To Allot – Forfeit and Transfer shares.
• To decide terms and conditions to issue debentures.

Powers only with a Resolution :

• To sell or lease any asset of the company.
• To appoint a sole Agent for more than 5 years.
• To allow time to the director for repayment of the loan.
• To Issue Bonus Shares.
• To Borrow money in excess of paid-up capital and free reserves.

Other powers:

• To Fill Casual Vacancy.
• To Appoint Alternate and Additional Directors and KMP.
• To Appoint the first Auditor of the company.
• To remove KMP.
• To Declare Solvency Position of the company.

Question 10.
Mr.Raghu is appointed as a Director in a company. Is he personally liable to third parties? If so, under what circumstances is he liable?
Answer:
Liability to outsiders:

• The directors are not personally liable to outsiders if they act within the scope of powers vested in them.
• The general rule in this regard in that wherever an agent is liable, those directors would be liable, but where the liability would attach to the principal only, the liability is the liability of the company.
• The directors are personally liable to third parties of contracts in the following cases:
  a. They contract with outsiders in their personal capacity
  b. They contract as agents of an undisclosed principal
  c. They enter into a contract on behalf of a prospective company.
  d. When the contract is ultra-vires the company.

In default of statutory duties, the directors shall be personally liable to third parties in the following cases:

• Mis-statement in the prospectus.
• Irregular allotment.
• Failure to repay application money if the minimum subscription is not received.
• Failure to repay application money if allotment of shares and debentures is not dealt in on the stock exchange as specified in the prospectus.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.4 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.4

Question 1.
Show that each of the following expressions is a solution of the corresponding given differential equation.
(i) y = 2x² ; xy’ = 2y
(ii) y = ae^x + be^-x; y” – y = 0
Solution:
(i) v = 2x² …(1)
Differential equation: xy’ = 2y
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’

On simplifying, 2y = xy’
∴ (1) is solution of the given differential equation.

(ii) y = ae^x + be^-x; y”- y = 0.
y = ae^x + be^-x …(1) Differential equation: y” – y = 0
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y’ = ae^x – be^-x
Again differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y” = ae^x + be^-x
y” = y ⇒ y” – y = 0
∴ (1) is the solution of the given differential equation.

Question 2.
Find the value of m so that the function y = em solution of the given differential equation.
(i) y’ + 2y = 0
(ii) y”- 5y’ + 6y = 0
Solution:
(i) y’ + 2y = 0 ……. (1)
Given y = e^mx ……….(2)
Differentiating equation (2) w.r.t x, we get

∴ comparing equation (1) & (3),
we get m = -2

(ii) y” – 5y’ + 6y = 0 ……. (1)
Given y = e^mx ……… (2)
Differentiating equation (2) w.r.t ‘x’, we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = e^x. m
Again differentiating w.r.t ‘x’, we get
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = e^mx. m²
To find the value of m:
Given y” – 5y’ + 6y = 0 ∵ y = e^mx

m² – 5m + 6 = 0
(m – 2) (m – 3) = 0
∴ m = 2, 3

Question 3.
The Slope of the tangent to the curve at any point is the reciprocal of four times the ordinate at that point. The curve passes through (2, 5). Find the equation of the curve.
Solution:
The slope of the tangent to the curve at any

The equation can be written as
4y dy = dx …….. (1)
Integrating equation (1) on both sides, we get
4∫ ydy = ∫ dx
4(\(\frac { y^2 }{ 2 }\)) = x + c
2y² = x + c …….. (2)
Since the curve passes through at (2, 5), we get
2(5)² = 2 + c
50 = 2 + c
50 – 2 = c
48 = c
∴ Substituting the value of c in equation (2), we get
2y² = x + 48 is the required equation of the curve.

Question 4.
Show that y = e^-x + mx + n is a solution of the differential equation e^x(\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\)) – 1 = 0
Given y = e^-x + mx + n …….. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’, we get

substituting the value of \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) in the given differential equation, we get
e^x(\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\)) – 1
= e^x(e^-x) – 1
= e^n-1 = 1 – 1 = 0
Hence y = e^-x + mx + n is the solution of the given differential equation e^x \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) – 1 = 0

Question 5.
Show that y = ax + \(\frac { b }{ x }\), x ≠ 0 is a solution of the differential equation x²yⁿ + xy’ – y = 0.
Solution:
Given

Again differentiating we get

x² y” + 2xy’ – xy’ – y = 0
x²y” + xy’ – y = 0
∴ y = ax + \(\frac { b }{ x }\) is a solution of the differential equation x²y” + xy’ – y = 0

Question 6.
Show that y = ae^-3x + b, where a and b are arbitrary constants, is a solution of the differential equation \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + 3 \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 0.
Solution:
Given y = ae^-3x + b …… (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’, we get

Therefore, y = ae^-3x + b is a solution of the given differential equation.

Question 7.
Show that the differential equation representing the family of curves y² = 2a(x + a^2/3), where a is a positive parameter, is (y² – 2xy\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))³ = 8(y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))⁵
Solution:
Given y² = 2ax + 2a^5/3 ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’ we get

Hence y² = 2ox + 2 a³ is a solution of the differential equation
(y² – 2xy\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))³ = 8(y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))⁵

Question 8.
Show that y = a cos bx is a solution of the! differential equation \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + b² y = 0.
Solution:
Given y = a cos bx ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’, we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = a(-sin bx)b
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = -ab sin bx
Again differentiating, we get

Therefore, y = a cos bx is a solution of the differential equation \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + b² y = 0

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Capital Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 5 Capital Market

12th Commerce Guide Capital Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Capital market do not provide
a) Short term Funds
b) Debenture Funds
c) Equity Funds
d) Long term Funds
Answer:
a) Short term Funds

Question 2.
When the NSEI was established
a) 1990
b) 1992
c) 1998
d) 1997
Answer:
b) 1992

Question 3.
Primary market is a Market where securities are traded in the
a) First Time
b) Second Time
c) Three Time
d) Several Times
Answer:
a) First Time

Question 4.
Participants in the capital market includes
a) Individuals
b) Corporate
c) Financial Institutions
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

II. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is Capital Market?
Answer:

• “Capital Market” is a market where buyers and sellers engage in the trade of financial securities (Long Term) like Bonds and Stocks.
• It is undertaken by participants such as Individuals and Institutions.

Question 2.
Write a note on OTCEI.
Answer:

• The OTCEI was set up by financial institutions [IDBI, IFCI, SBI, (can Bank), etc.,] to allow the trading of securities across the electronic counters throughout the country.
• Its greatest strengths are transparency of transactions, Quick deals, faster settlements, and better liquidity.

Question 3.
What is Mutual Fund?
Answer:
Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of Small investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’. A mutual fund company invests the funds pooled from shareholders and gives them the benefit of a diversified investment portfolio and a reasonable return.

Question 4.
Who are the participants in a Capital Market?
Answer:
The participants of the Capital Market are Individuals and Institutions such as the corporate sector, Government, and other financial institutions [Banks]

Question 5.
How is price determined in a Capital Market?
Answer :
The price of the securities is determined based on the demand and supply prevailing in the capital market for securities.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the various kinds of Capital Market? Explain.
Answer:
Primary Market:

• Primary Market is a market for new issues or new financial claims.
• Hence it is also called New Issues Market (NIM)
• It deals with those securities which are issued to the public for the first time.

Secondary Market:

• It may be defined as the market for old (second hand) securities, in the sense that securities which are previously issued in the primary market are traded here.
• It covers both the stock Exchange and the counter market.

Question 2.
Explain any two functions of the Capital Market.
Answer :
Ready and Continuous Market: The stock Exchange provides a central and convenient place where Buyers and Sellers can easily Buy and Sell securities.

A reliable guide to performance: The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the performance and financial position of corporate and thereby promotes efficiency.

Question 3.
Write a note on National Clearance and Depository System (NCDS).
Answer:
Under the scriptless trading system, settlement of transactions relating to securities takes place through a book entry. The entire scripless trading system comprises the following three segments:

1. National Trade Comparison and Reporting System which prescribes the terms and conditions of contract for the securities market.
2. National Clearing System which aims at determining the net cash and stock liability of each broker on settlement date.
3. National Depository System which arranges to provide for the transfer of ownership of securities in exchange on payment by book-entry on electronic ledgers without any physical movement of the transfer deed.

Question 4.
Discuss evolution and growth of Indian Capital Market.
Answer :

• The period between 1947 and 1973 marked the development of infrastructure for the capital market.
• During this period Financial institutions such as IFCI, ICICI, IDBI, and UTI, SFCs, and SIDCs were established.
• These institutions strengthened the capital market.
• During the period between 1980 and 1992, debenture emerged as a powerful instrument of resource mobilisation in the primary market.
• A number of Stock Exchanges came into existence.
•  There was tremendous growth in the secondary market.
• SEBI emerged as an effective regulatory body for the primary and secondary markets and give a measure of protection to small investors.
•  New financial services such as credit rating were introduced.

Question 5.
Explain about Factoring and Venture Capital Institutions.
Answer:
“Factoring” is an arrangement whereby a financial institution provides financial accommodation on the basis of assignment/sale of account receivables. The factoring institutions collect the book debts for and on behalf of its clients. Some of the factoring institutions operating in India are SBI Factors and Commercial Services Private Limited, a subsidiary of State Bank of India and Canbank Factors Limited, a subsidiary of Canara Bank.

Venture capital financing is a form of equity financing designed especially for funding new and innovative project ideas. Venture capital funds bring into force the hi-technology projects which are converted into commercial production.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the characters of a Capital Market. (PM) (SPL)
Answer :
Price : The price of the securities is determined based on the demand and supply prevailing in the capital market for securities.

Market for Financial Assets : Capital Market provides a transaction platform for long term financial assets.

Securities Market : The dealings in a capital market done through shares, Debentures etc. [Securities]
The capital market is thus called securities market.

Participants : The participants of capital market include individuals, corporate sectors, government, banks and other financial institutions.

Location : Capital Market is not confined to certain specific locations, although it is true that parts of the market are concentrated in certain well-known centres known as Stock Exchange.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the functions of capital market. FIRES
Answer:

1. Savings and Capital Formation: In capital market, various types of securities help to mobilize savings from various sectors of the population (Individuals, Corporate, Govt., etc.). The twin features of reasonable return and liquidity in stock exchange are definite incentives to the people to invest in securities. This accelerates the capital formation in the country.
2. Permanent Capital: The existence of a capital market/stock exchange enables companies to raise permanent capital. The investors cannot commit their funds for a permanent period but companies require funds permanently.
3. Industrial Growth: The stock exchange is a central market through which resources are transferred to the industrial sector of the economy.
4. Beady and Continuous Market: The stock exchange provides a central convenient place where buyers and sellers can easily purchase and sell securities.
5. Reliable Guide to Performance: The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the
   performance and financial position of corporate, and thereby promotes efficiency.
6. Proper Channelization of Funds: The prevailing market price of a security and relative yield are the guiding factors for the people to channelize their funds in a particular company.
7. Provision of Variety of Services: The financial institutions functioning in the capital market provide a variety of services such as grant of long term and medium-term loans to entrepreneurs.
8. Development of Backward Areas: Capital Markets provide funds for projects in backward areas. This facilitates economic development of backward areas.
9. Foreign Capital: Capital markets make it possible to generate foreign capital. Indian firms are able to generate capital funds from overseas markets by way of bonds and other securities.
10. Easy Liquidity: With the help of the secondary market investors can sell off their holdings and convert them into liquid cash.

Question 3.
Explain the various types of New Financial Institutions. (SON) (VN)
Answer :
Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited [SHCIL]

• SHCI, aims at serving as a central securities depository in of transactions on Stock exchange.
• It also takes up the administration clearing functions at a national level.

Over The Counter Exchange of India [OTCEI]

• The OTCEI was set up by financial institutions [IDBI, IFCI, SBI (can Bank) etc.,] to allow the trading of securities across the electronic counters throughout the country

National Securities Depositories Limited |NSDL]

• The NSDI. was set up in the year 19% tor achieving a time-bound dematerlization as well as rematerialization of shares.
• The NSDI is expected to alleviate the problems of post-trade transactions in the secondary market.

Venture Capital Institution [VCI]

• Venture Capital financing is a form of equity financing designed especially for funding new and innovative project ideas.
• Venture capital Funds bring into force the Mi-Technology projects which are converted into commercial production.

National Stock Exchange of India [NSEI]

• NSEI was established in 1942 to functions as a model stock exchange.
• The Aim of NSEI providing the advantage of a nationwide electronic screen-based “Scripless” and “floorless” trading system in securities.

12th Commerce Guide Capital Market Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The term _________ market refers to the facilities and institutional arrangement through long-term funds.
(a) Capital
(b) Asset
(c) Buyers
(d) Sellers
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 2.
Channeling savings of small investors into productive investment is called
a) Mutual Fund
b) Bond
c) Equity
d) Stocks
Answer :
a) Mutual Fund

Question 3.
How to determine the price of the securities in the capital market
a) Investment
b) Savings
c) Deposits
d) Demand and Supply
Answer :
d) Demand and Supply

Question 4.
NSEI was established in
(a) 1992
(b) 1991
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 5.
Primary Market facilitates…………………….
a) Capital formation
b) Trade
c ) Funds
d) Securities
Answer :
a) Capital formation

Question 6.
The primary market is also called as
(a) Secondary market
(b) Commodity market
(c) Mutual funds
(d) New issues market
Answer:
(d) New issues market

Question 7.
The capital market is also known as …………………….
a) Factoring
b) Commodity market
c) Securities Market
d)Foreign Market
Answer:
c) Securities Market

Question 8.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Mutual Funds
b) Venture Funds
c) OTCEI
d) Reserve Funds
Answer:
d) Reserve Funds

Question 9.
Which one is correctly matched?
a) Foreign Exchange Market – All currencies
b) Deviation Market – Indian Currency
c) Hard Commodities Market -Iron and ore
d) Soft Commodities Market – Coffee and Sugar
Answer:
b)Deviation Market Indian Currency

Question 10.
Which one is correctly matched?
a) Venture Fund – Hi -technology projects
b) Mutual Fund – Sale of account receivables.
c) Factoring – Scripless and floorless
d) NSEI – Savings of Small investors
Answer:
a) Venture Fund – Hi -technology projects

Question 11.
How many times security can be sold in a secondary market?
a) Only One Time
b)Two Time
c) Three Times
d) Multiple Times
Answer :
d) Multiple Times

II. Match the following

1. Match List I with List II

a) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
b) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
c) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
d) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Government has liberalised FDI in the country.
Reason (R): It brings foreign capital and technologies.
a) (A) is true (R) is False.
b) (A) is False (R) is True.
c) Both (A) and (R) are true
d) Both (A) and (R) are False
Answer :
c) Both (A) and (R) are True

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Many specialized financial institutions promoted their own venture capital Funds.
Reason (R): These include IFCI, IDBI, SIDBI Venture Funds.
a) (A) is true (R) is also True.
b) (A) is False (R) is True.
c) (A) is true (R) is False
d) Both (A) and (R) are False
Answer :
a) (A) is true (R) is also True

IV. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is the Derivatives market?
Answer:
The derivatives market facilitates the trading in financial instruments such as futures contracts and options used to help control financial risk.

Question 2.
What are the ways by which a company can raise capital in a primary market?
Answer :

1. Public Issue
2. Rights Issue
3. Private placement

Question 3.
What are the methods of raising capital in a primary market by a company?
Answer:
There are three ways by which a company may raise capital in a primary market. They are:

1. Public Issue
2. Rights Issue
3. Private Placement

Question 4.
What is a Rights Issue?
Answer :
When a company wants to raise additional capital, the securities are first offered to the existing shareholders on proportions of the shares held by them.

Question 5.
What is a private placement?
Answer :
It is a way of securities privately to [Their Clients] to a small group of investors.

Question 6.
Write a note on Foreign Exchange Market.
Answer:
The foreign exchange market abets foreign exchange trading. It is the largest, most liquid market in the world with an average traded value of more than $5 trillion per day. It includes all of the currencies in the world and any individual, company or country can participate in it.

Question 7.
What is Deviative Market?
Answer:
It facilitates the trading in financial instruments such as Future contracts and options used to help control financial risk.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Introduction to Financial Markets Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 4 Introduction to Financial Markets

12th Commerce Guide Introduction to Financial Markets Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Financial market facilitates business firms
a) To rise funds
b) To recruit workers
c) To make more sales
d) To minimize fund requirement
Answer:
a) To rise funds

Question 2.
Capital market is a market for
a) Short Term Finance
c) Long Term Finance
b) Medium Term Finance
d) Both Short Term and Medium Term Finance
Answer:
c) Long Term Finance

Question 3.
Primary market is also called as
a) Secondary market
b) Money market
c) New Issue Market
d) Indirect Market
Answer:
c) New Issue Market

Question 4.
Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs
a) Immediately
b) In the future
c) Uncertain
d) After one month
Answer:
a) Immediately

Question 5.
How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?
a) Only one time
b) Two time
c) Three times
d) Multiple times
Answer:
d) Multiple times

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the components of organized sectors?
Answer:

1. Regulators
2. Financial Institutions
3. Financial Markets
4. Financial Services

Question 2.
Write a note on the financial market.
Answer:
A market where Financial Instrument such as Financial Claims, Assets, Securities and Traded is known as “Financial Market”

Question 3.
What is a spot Market?
Answer:

• Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs immediately.
• (ie) Settlement is completed immediately.

Question 4.
What is debt market?
Answer:
Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt instruments (i.e. Government Bonds or Securities, Corporate Debentures or Bonds).

Question 5.
How is the price decided in a secondary market?
Answer:
Financial markets allow for the determination of the price of the traded financial asset through the interaction of buyers and sellers. They provide a signal for. the allocation of funds in the economy, based on the demand and supply, through the mechanism called price discovery processes.

III. Short answer questions.

Question 1.
Give the meaning and definition of the financial market.
Answer:
Meaning: A market wherein financial instruments such as financial claims, assets and securities are traded is known as a financial market’.

Definition: According to Brigham, Eugene F, “The place where people and organizations wanting to borrow money are-brought together with those having surplus funds is called a . financial market.”

Question 2.
Differentiate spot market from future market. DSP K
Answer:

Question 3.
Write a note on Secondary Market.
Answer:
A Secondary Market is a market for securities that are already issued. Stock Exchange is an important institution in the secondary market.

Question 4.
Bring out the scope of financial market in india. 3-1 BAGS
Answer:
The Financial Market provides short-term and long-term financial assistance to

• Individuals
• Industrial sectors
• Insurance sectors
• Banks [Financial Institutions]
• Agricultural sectors
• Government
• Service sectors

The above-stated individuals, institutions and Government can get the required funds in time.
It leads to overall economic development.

IV. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market.
Answer:

Question 2.
Enumerate the different kinds of financial markets.
Answer:
Financial Markets can be classified in different ways.
(A) On the Basis of Type of Financial Claim

1. Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt instruments (i.e. Government Bonds or Securities, Corporate Debentures or Bonds).
2. Equity Market is the financial market for trading in Equity Shares of Companies.

(B) On the Basis of Maturity of Financial Claim

1. Money Market is the market for short-term financial claim (usually one year or less) E.g. Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit.
2. Capital Market is the market for long-term financial claim more than a year E.g. Shares, Debentures.

(C) On the Basis of Time of Issue of Financial Claim

1. Primary Market is a term used to include all the institutions that are involved in the sale of securities for the first time by the issuers (companies). Here the money from investors goes directly to the issuers.
2. A secondary market is a market for securities that are already issued. Stock Exchange is an important institution in the secondary market.

(D) On the Basis of Timing of Delivery of Financial Claim

1. Cash/Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs immediately, i.e. settlement is completed immediately.
2. Forward or Futures Market is a market where the delivery of assets and payment of cash takes place at a pre-determined time frame in the future.

(E) On the Basis of the Organizational Structure of the Financial Market

1. Exchange-Traded Market is a centralized organization (stock exchange) with standardized procedures.
2. Over-the-Counter Market is a decentralized market (outside the stock exchange), with customized procedures.

Question 3.
Discuss the role of the financial market.
Answer:
Savings mobilisation: Obtaining funds from the savers or surplus units such as

• Individuals
• Industrial sectors
• Insurance sectors
• Banks
• Agricultural sector
• Government
• Service sector

is an important role played by the financial market.

Investment:

• Financial markets play a Key Role
• In arranging investment of funds collected in those units which are in need of the same.

National Growth:

• Flow of Funds for productive purposes and
• Flow of surplus Funds to deficit units.
• It leads to over all economic growth.

Growth of Entrepreneurship:
Financial Market provides financial assistance for the development of Entrepreneurs.

Industrial Development:

• It helps an accelerated growth of Industries, Economic Development of a country.
• It helps to raise the standard of living and society’s well being.

Question 4.
What are the functions of Financial Markets? (IF – STEP – BEL)
Answer:
(I) Intermediary Functions:

1. Transfer of Resources: Financial markets facilitate the transfer of real economic resources from lenders to ultimate borrowers.
2. Enhancing Income: Financial markets allow lenders to earn interest/dividends on their surplus investible funds and thus contributing to the enhancement of the individual and the national income.
3. Productive Usage: Financial markets allow for the productive use of the funds borrowed and thus enhancing the income and the gross national production.
4. Capital Formation: Financial markets provide a channel through which new savings flow to aid the capital formation of a country.
5. Price Determination: Financial markets allow for the determination of the price of, the traded financial asset through the interaction of buyers and sellers.
6. Sale. Mechanism: Financial market provides a mechanism for selling a financial asset by an investor so as to offer the benefits of marketability and liquidity of such assets.
7. Information: The activities of the participants in the financial market result in the generation and the consequent dissemination of information to the various segments of the markets, so as to reduce the cost of the transaction of financial assets.

(II) Financial Functions:

1. Providing the borrowers with funds so as to enable them to carry out their investment plans.
2. Providing the lenders with earning assets so as to enable them to earn wealth by deploying the assets in productive ventures.
3. Providing liquidity in the market so as to facilitate the trading of funds.

12th Commerce Guide Introduction to Financial Markets Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The Indian financial system can be broadly classified into the ______ sector.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Four
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 2.
…………………. Assets are those which can be easily transferred from one person to another.
a) Marketable
b) Non-Marketable
c) Tangible
d) Fixed
Answer:
a) Marketable

Question 3.
…………….. Market is for a long-term financial claim.
a) Money Market
b) Capital Market
c) Future Market
d) Spot Market
Answer:
b) Capital Market

Question 4.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Debt market
(b) Capital market
(c) Secondary market
(d) National Growth
Answer:
(d) National Growth

Question 5.
The building is bought for residence purpose, it becomes……………… Asset.
a) Financial
b) Fixed
c) Physical
d) NOTA
Answer:
c) Physical

Question 6.
The building is bought for hiring purpose, it becomes …………….. Asset.
a) Financial
b) Tangible
c) Physical
d) All of these
Answer:
a) Financial

Question 7.
The stock exchange is an important institution in the ______ market.
(a) secondary
(b) primary
(c) capital
(d) money
Answer:
(a) secondary

Question 8.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Debt Market
b) NIM
c) Equity Market
d) Niche Market
Answer:
d) Niche Market

Question 9.
Stock Exchange Market is also called …………….
a) Spot Market
b) Local market
c) Securities Market
d) National Market
Answer:
c) Securities Market

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match List-I with List-II.

a) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
b) i-2, ii-3i iii-4, iv-1
c) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
d) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3

2. Match List I with List II

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
c) i-3, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1
b) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
d) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
Answer:
b) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Government needs funds to provide goods and services to the people.
Reason (R): Government to raise the needed fund by selling different instruments.
a) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) and (R) are False. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is True (R) is False.
d) (A) is False (R) is True.
Answer:
a) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is the money market?
Answer:
Money Market is the market for short-term financial claims (usually one year or less) e.g. Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit.

Question 2.
Explain the classification of Financial Assets.
Answer:
(a) Marketable Assets:

• Marketable Assets are those which can be easily transferred from one person to another without much hindrance.
• (e.g) shares of – Listed Companies – Government Bonds.

(b) Non- Marketable Assets:

• Non-marketable Assets are those which can not be easily transferred from one person to another person.
• (e.g) Bank Deposits – PF – LIC Policies.

V. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Discuss the various types of Financial markets.
Answer:
On the basis of Type of Financial claim:

• Debt Market – A market Trading in Debt Instruments. [Debentures]
• Equity Market – A market Trading in Equity Shares. [Equity Shares]

On the basis of Maturity of Financial claim:

• Money Market – A market for short – term Financial Claim [Treasury Bills]
• Capital Market – A market for Long – term Financial claims. [Shares]

On the basis of Time of issue Financial claim:

• Primary Market – A market for New Issues of Securities. [First Time]
• Secondary Market – A market for already issued Securities [Resale]

On the basis of Time of delivery of Financial claim:

• Cash/Spot Market – A market where delivery of instruments and payment of cash occurs
  immediately.
• Future/Forward Market – A market where delivery of instruments and payment of cash not
  occur immediately, but take place in the future.

On the basis of Organisational Structure:

• Exchange-Traded Market – It is a centralized organization with standardized procedures.
• Over counter Market – It is a decentralized organization with customized procedures.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.3 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.3

Question 1.
Find the differential equation of the family of (i) all non-vertical lines in a plane
(ii) all non horizontal lines in a plane.
Solution:
(i) The equation of the family of non vertical lines in a plane ax + by = 1, b ≠ 0, a ∈ R
Given equation is ax + by = 1 …….. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to ‘x’ we get
a + b \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 0
∵ 2 arbitrary constant,
∴ Differentiating twice continuously
Again differentiating above equation with respect to ‘x’, we get
0 + b \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 0
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 0 [∵ b ≠ 0]
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 0 is a required differential equation.

(ii) The equation of the family of non horizontal
lines in a,plane ax + by = 1, a ≠ 0 & b ∈ R
Given equation is ax + by = 1 ……… (1)
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to ‘y’, we get
a \(\frac { dx }{ dy }\) + b = 0
∵ 2 arbitrary constant,
∴ Differentiating twice continuously
Again differentiating we get
a \(\frac { d^2x }{ dy^2 }\) = 0 [∵ a ≠ 0]
\(\frac { d^2x }{ dy^2 }\) = 0 is a required differential equation.

Question 2.
Form the differential equation of all straight lines touching the circle x² + y² = r²
Solution:
Given circle equation be x² + y² = r²
Let y = mx + c be all straight lines which towards the given circle x² + y² = r²
The condition for y = mx + c ……. (1)
be a tangent to the circle x² + y² = r²
be c² = r² (1 + m²) ⇒ c = r \(\sqrt { 1+m^2 }\)
Substituting c value in equation (1), we get
y = mx + r \(\sqrt { 1+m^2 }\)
y – mx = r\(\sqrt { 1+m^2 }\) ……. (2)
Differentiating equation (2) w.r.t x, we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – m = 0
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = m …….. (3)
substituting equation (3) in equation (2), we get;

Which is a required differential equation.

Question 3.
Find the differential equation of the family of circles passing through the origin and having their centres on the x-axis.
Solution:
Given the circles centre on x-axis & the circle is passing through the origin.
Let it be (r, 0) & its radius r.

Equation of the circle is
(x – a)² + (y – b)² = r²
(x – r)² + (y – 0)² = r²
x² – 2xr + r² + y² = r²
x² – 2xr + y² = r² – r²
x² – 2xr + y² = 0 ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to ‘x’, we get
2x – 2r + 2y \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 0 dx
2x + 2y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 2r
x + y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = r
Substituting r value in equation (1), we get

Which is a required differential equation.

Question 4.
Find the differential equation of the family of all the parabolas with latus rectum 4a and whose axes are parallel to the x-axis.
Solution:
Given the equation of family of parabolas with latus rectum 4a and axes are parallel to x-axis then
(y – b)² = 4a (x – a), where (a, b) is the vertex of parabola.
y² – 2yb + b² = 4ax – 4a² ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to x, we get

Differentiating equation (2) with respect to ‘x’, we get
yy”+ y’y’ = by”
yy” + y’2 = by” ……. (3)
Substituting the b value in (3), we get

Which is a required differential equation.

Question 5.
Find the differential equation of the family of parabolas with vertex at (0, -1) and having axis along the y axis.
Solution:
Equation of the family of parabolas with vertex at (0, -1) and having axis along the y-axis is
(x – 0)² = 4a(y + 1)
x² = 4a (y + 1) ……. (1)
x² = 4 ay + 4a
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to ‘x’, we get
2x = 4a y’
\(\frac { 2x }{ y’ }\) = 4a
Substituting 4a value in equation (1), we get
x² = \(\frac { 2x }{ y’ }\)(y + 1)
\(\frac { x^2 }{ x }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ y’ }\)(y + 1)
x = \(\frac { 2 }{ y’ }\) (y + 1)
xy’ = 2 (y + 1)
xy’ = 2y + 2
xy’ – 2y – 2 = 0 is a required differential equation.

Question 6.
Find the differential equations of the family of all the ellipses having foci on the y-axis and centre at the origin.
Solution:
The equation of the family of ellipses having centre at the origin & foci on the y-axis, is given by \(\frac { x^2 }{ a^2 }\) + \(\frac { y^2 }{ b^2 }\) = 1 ……… (1)
where b > a & a, b are the parameters or a,b are arbitrary constant.
Differentiating equation (1) twice successively, (because we have two arbitrary constant) we get

Equ (3) – (2) we get

is the required differential equation.

Question 7.
Find the differential equation corresponding to the family of curves represented by the equation y = Ae^8x + Be ^-8x, where A and B are arbitrary constants.
Solution:
Given y = Ae^8x + Be^-8x …….. (1)
where A & B are aribitrary constants differentiating equation (1) twice successively (because we have two arbitrary constant), we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = Ae^8x + Be^-8x (-8)
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 8Ae^8x – 8Be^-8x ……… (2)
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 8Ae^8x (8) – Be^-8x (-8)
= 64Ae^8x + 64Be^-8x
= 64[Ae^8x + Be^-8x] ……….. (3)
Substituting eqn (1) in eqn (3), we get
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 64 y
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) – 64 y = 0 is the required differential equation.

Question 8.
Find the differential equation of the curve represented by xy = ae^x + be^-x + x²
Solution:
Given xy = ae^x + be^-x + x² ……… (1)
where a & b are aribitrary constant,
differentiate equation (1) twice successively,
because we have two arbitray constant.

From (1), we get xy – x² = ae^x + be^-x …….. (4)
Substituting equation (4) in (3), we get
∴ x \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + \(\frac { 2dy }{ dx }\) – xy + x² – 2 = 0 is the required differential equation.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Management By Objectives (MBO) and Management By Exception (MBE) Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 3 Management By Objectives (MBO) and Management By Exception (MBE)

12th Commerce Guide Management By Objectives (MBO) and Management By Exception (MBE) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…………………… System gives full Scope to the Individual Strength and Responsibility.
a) MBO
b) MBE
c) MBM
d) MBA
Answer:
a) MBO

Question 2.
Which is the First step in Process of MBO?.
a) Fixing Key Result Area
b) Appraisal of Activities
c) Matching Resources with Activities
d) Defining Organisational Objectives
Answer:
d) Defining Organisational Objectives

Question 3.
…………………. keeps Management Alert to Opportunities and Threats by Identifying Critical Problems.
a) MBA
b) MBE
c) MBM
d) MBO
Answer:
b) MBE

Question 4.
Delegation of Authority is Easily Done with the Help of
a) MBM
b) MBE
c) MBO
d) MBA
Answer:
c) MBO

II. Very short answer questions.

Question 1.
Define-MBO
Answer:
MBO is popularised in the USA by George Odiome. According to him, “MBO is a system wherein the superior and the subordinate managers of an organisation jointly identify its common goals, define each individual’s major area of responsibility in terms of the result expected of him and use these measures as guides for operating the unit and assessing the contribution of each of its members”.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of MBO?
Answer:

• To measure and judge performance.
• To relate individual goals to organisation goals.
• To stimulate the subordinate’s motivation.
• To serve as a device for organisational control and integration.

Question 3.
Bring out the meaning of MBE.
Answer:
Management By Exception is an important principle of managerial control suggested by the classical writers on management. It is based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. Management by exception is a style of business management that focuses on identifying and handling cases that deviate from the norm.

Question 4.
Mention any two advantages of MBO?
Answer:

• MBO process helps the managers to understand their role in the total organization.
• Delegation of Authority is easily done with the help of MBO.

Question 5.
What is known as KRA?
Answer:

• Key Result Areas [KRA] are fixed on the basis of organisational objective premises.
• KRA arranged on a priority basis.
• It indicates the strength of an organisation. (Profitability – Market standing – innovation)
• MBE is helpful for the better utilisation of managerial talents.
• MBE facilitates delegation of authority. TOP level Management concentrates on strategic decisions and operational decisions are left to lower-level management.
• MBE keeps management alert to opportunities and threats by identifying critical problems.
• MBE avoids uniform and impulsive action.
• MBE provides better yardsticks for judging results.
• MBE is helpful in objective performance appraisal.
• MBE is a technique of separating important information from unimportant one.
• MBE forces managers to review past history and study-related business data for identifying deviations.

Question 3.
Explain the various disadvantages of MBO.
Answer:

• MBO fails to explain the philosophy; most of the executives do not know how MBO
  works? what is MBO? and why is MBO necessary? and how participants can benefit from MBO.
• MBO is a time-consuming process. Much time is needed by senior people for framing the MBO. Next, it leads to heavy expenditure and also requires heavy paperwork.
• MBO emphasizes only short-term objectives and does not consider long-term objectives.
• The status of subordinates is necessary for proper objectives setting. But, this is not possible in the process of MBO.
• MBO is a rigid one. Objectives should be changed according to the changed circumstances, external or internal. If it is not done, the planned results cannot be obtained.

Question 4.
Discuss the disadvantages of MBE.
Answer:

1. The main disadvantage of MBE is, only managers have the power over really important decisions, which can be demotivating for employees at a lower level.
2. Furthermore, it takes time to pass the issues to managers. Managing employees who deviate from the normal procedures. Because of compliance failures are considered difficult to manage and typically find themselves with limited job duties and ultimately dismissed/ terminated.

12th Commerce Guide Management By Objectives (MBO) and Management By Exception (MBE) Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
MBO refers to ……………………………
a) Management By Objective
b) Management By Officers
c) Management By Orders
d) Management By Organisation
Answer:
a) Management By Objective

Question 2.
_______ harmonises the goal of an individual with the organisation’s goal.
(a) MBO
(b) MBE
(c) MBA
(d) MBM
Answer:
(a) MBO

Question 3.
It is based on the belief that any attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing.
a) MBA
b) MBM
c) MBO
d) MBE
Answer:
d) MBE

Question 4.
KRA refers to …………………….
a) Key Result Areas
c) Known Result Areas
b) Key Reference Action
d) Knowledge Resource Aim.
Answer:
a) Key Result Areas

Question 5.
“Exception has occured”
(a) MBO
(b) MBE
(c) MBM
(c) Appraisal
Answer:
(b) MBE

Question 6.
The examples of KRA are _______
(a) profitability
(b) loss
(c) market standing
(d) innovation
Answer:
(b) loss

II. Match the following

1. Match List I with List II

a) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
b) i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1
b) i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1
d) i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2
Answer:
a) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): KRA indicates the strength of an organisation.
Reason (R): Objectives are expressed in a meaningful manner.
a) (A) is true (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is true (R) is false but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) and (R) are False.
d) (A) and (R) are true.
Answer:
a) (A) is true (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Appraisal of Activities?
Answer:
At the end of the fixed period for achieving the objectives, there should be a discussion between the superior and subordinates. The discussion is related to subordinates’ performance against I the specified standards. The superior should take corrective action.

Question 2.
What are the processes involved in MBO?