Prasanna

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 Geography Chapter 2 Land and Oceans Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Land and Oceans

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land and Oceans Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is the smallest ocean on Earth?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Indian Ocean
(c) The Atlantic Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(d) The Arctic Ocean

Question 2.
The Malacca Strait connects
(a) The Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
(b) The Pacific and Southern Oceans
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans
(d) The Pacific and Arctic Oceans
Answer:
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans

Question 3.
Which of the following oceans is the busiest ocean?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Atlantic Ocean
(c) The Indian Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(b) The Atlantic Ocean

Question 4.
The frozen continent is
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c) Antarctica
(d) Asia
Answer:
(c) Antarctica

Question 5.
A narrow strip of water that connects two large water bodies?
(a) A Strait
(b) An Isthmus
(c) An Island
(d) A Trench
Answer:

B. Fill in the blanks

1. The world’s largest continent is …………….
2. ……………. is the mineral-rich plateau in India.
3. The largest ocean is …………….
4. Deltas are ……………. order landforms ……………..
5. The Island continent is …………….

Answer:

1. Asia
2. Chotanagpur Plateau
3. The Pacific ocean
4. Third
5. Australia

C. Circle the odd one out

D. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – e
5. – c

E. (i) Consider the following statements

1. Plains are formed by rivers.
2. The ‘South Sandwich Trench’ is found in the Indian Ocean.
3. Plateaus have steep slopes.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 3

(ii) Consider the following statements

Statement I : Mountains are second order landforms.
Statement II : The Mariana Trench is the deepest trench in the world.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

F. Answer in a word

Question 1.
Which is the highest plateau in the world?
Answer:
Tibetan Plateau.

Question 2.
Name a second-order landform.
Answer:
Mountains or Plateaus or Plains

Question 3.
Which ocean is named after a country?
Answer:
Indian Ocean.

Question 4.
Name the island located in the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
Lakshadweep islands

Question 5.
What is the deepest part of the ocean called?
Answer:
Trench

G. Answer in brief

Question 1.
What is a continent?
Answer:
The vast landmasses on Earth are called Continents.

Question 2.
Name the continents which surround the Atlantic Ocean.
Answer:
The Atlantic ocean is bounded by North America and South America in the West, and ( Europe and Africa in the East)

Question 3.
What are the oceans?
Answer:
Oceans are a vast expanse of water.

Question 4.
List out the names of continents according to their size
Answer:
From the largest to the smallest, they are Asia, Africa, North America, South America,  Antarctica, Europe, and Australia.

Question 5.
Name the oceans which surround North America and South America.
Answer:
North America: On the west by the Pacific Ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean and on the north by Arctic ocean
South America: On the west by the Pacific Ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean.

H. Distinguish between

Question 1.
A Mountain and a Plateau?
Answer:
Mountains

1. A landform that rises over 600 meters above its surroundings and has steep slopes is called a mountain.
2. Example: Himalayas

Plateaus

1. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes. The elevation of plateaus maybe a few hundred metres or several thousand metre.
2. Example: Chotanagpur Plateau

Question 2.
An ocean and a sea
Answer:

Ocean

1. Oceans are a vast expanse of water.
2. Eg. the Pacific Ocean

Sea

1. Seas are water bodies partially or fully enclosed by land.
2. Eg: Bay of Ben, Arabian Sea.

I. Answer the following questions in detail

Question 1.
Mention the classification of landforms.
Answer:
First-order landforms:

1. Continents and oceans are grouped as first-order landforms.
2. The vast landmasses on Earth are called Continents and huge water bodies are called Oceans.
3. There are seven continents in the world. They are Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Antarctica, Europe and Australia.
4. The five oceans are the Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, Southern, and Arctic Oceans.

Second-order landforms:

1. Mountains, Plateaus, and Plains are grouped as second-order landforms.
2. A landform that rises 600 meters above its surroundings and has steep slopes is called a mountain. Example:
3. The Himalayas, the Rocky Mountains, and the Andes.
4. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes. Example:
5. Tibetan plateau and Deccan plateau.
6. Plains are flat and relatively low-lying lands. These plains are used extensively for agriculture. Example: Indo – Gangetic plain.

Third-order landforms:

1. Third-order landforms are formed on mountains, plateaus, and plains mainly by erosional and depositional activities of rivers, glaciers, winds, and waves.
2. Example: Valleys, beaches, and sand dunes.

Question 2.
Write a note on plateaus.
Answer:
Ocean:

• An ocean is a vast expanse of water.
• Oceans are very deep.
• Example: The Pacific Ocean

Sea:

• A sea is a water body partially or fully enclosed by land.
• Seas are not so deep as oceans
• Example: The Arabian sea

Question 3.
Plains are highly populated. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Plains are flat and relatively low-lying lands.
2. Plains are formed by rivers and their tributaries and distributaries.
3. Plains are used extensively for agriculture due to the availability of water and fertile soil.
4. Plains are most suitable for human inhabitation. Hence, they are highly populated.

Question 4.
Give the important features of the Pacific Ocean,
Answer:

1. The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean on Earth.
2. It covers about one-third of the Earth’s total area.
3. It is bounded by Asia and Australia in its west and North America and South America in its east.
4. On its apex is the Bering Strait. It connects the Pacific Ocean with the Arctic Ocean.
5. The deepest point Mariana Trench is located in the Pacific Ocean.
6. A chain of volcanoes is located around the Pacific Ocean.

Question 5.
Write above the importance of oceans.
Answer:

1. Oceans are the first order landform.
2. 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.
3. Oceans influence man in various ways, from the climate he experiences to the food he eats.
4. Oceans are a major source of salt, valuable minerals, petroleum, pearls, and diamonds.
5. Ocean currents affect the climate of neighbouring areas.
6. Ocean trade plays an important role in the world economy.
7. Ocean currents can be converted into electricity.

J. Picture Study

Question 1.
Name the landform.
Answer:
Sand dune

Question 2.
What order of a landform is this?
Answer:
Third-order landform

Question 3.
By which activity of river is this landform formed?
Answer:
Deposition

K. (i) Activity (Activity to be done by students)

Trip to the nearby area to appreciate the physical features of any kind of landform.
Conduct a quiz on landforms and oceans.

(ii) Activity

Question 1.
Give examples for the following using an Atlas.
Answer:

1. Bay: Hudson Bay, Bay of Bengal, Bay of Biscay
2. Gulf: the Persian Gulf, Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar
3. Island: Srilanka, Australia, Maldives
4. Straits: Palk strait, Bering strait, Magellan strait

Question 2.
Map reading (with the help of an atlas)
Answer:

1. A sea in the east of India – Bay of Bengal
2. Continents in the west of Atlantic Ocean – North America, South America
3. Continents in the south of Arctic Ocean – Europe, Asia
4. A strait between India and Sri Lanka – Palk strait
5. Oceans which surround Australia – Indian ocean, Pacific ocean
6. Find out the Isthmusses – Isthmus of Panama, Isthmus of Avalon, Isthmus of La Dune

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land and Oceans Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
International Mountain Day is ……………..
(a) June 15
(b) April 11
(c) November 11
(d) December 11
Answer:
(d) December 11

Question 2.
Andes mountain is located in
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) South Amei leaf

Question 3.
The highest plateau in the world is …………….
(a) Ladakh plateau
(b) Tibetan plateau
(c) Deccan plateau
(d) Chotanagpur plateau
Answer:
(b) Tibetan plateau

Question 4.
The International Mountain Day is
(a) December 10th
(b) December 11th
(c) December 12th
(d) December 13th
Answer:
(b) December 11th

Question 5.
It connects the Pacific Ocean with the Arctic ocean.
(a) Bering strait
(b) Magellan strait
(c) Gibraltar strait
(d) Palk strait
Answer:
(a) Bering strait

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The sea around Pangea is called ……………….
2. The smallest continent is ……………….
3. The smallest ocean is ……………….
4. ………………. is called the Roof of the world
5. The deepest point in the Indian ocean is ……………….

Answer:

1. Panthalasa
2. Australia
3. Arctic ocean
4. Tibetan Plateau
5. Java trench

III. Answer in brief

Question 1.
What is an Isthmus?
Answer:
A narrow strip of land which connects two large landmasses or separates two large water bodies is called an Isthmus.

Question 2.
What are the Second-order landforms?
Answer:
The Second-order landforms are categorised as mountains, plateaus, and plains.

Question 3.
Bring out the importance of mountains.
Answer:

1. Mountains are the source of rivers.
2. They block the moisture-bearing winds and cause rainfall.
3. They provide shelter to flora and fauna.
4. They promote tourism.
5. During summer people go to mountain regions to enjoy the pleasing cool weather.
6. There are a number of hill stations in the mountains.

Question 4.
Mention some of the early civilizations.
Answer:
The Indus valley civilization, the Mesopotamian civilization, The Egyptian civilization, and the Chinese civilization. Where some of the early civilizations?

Question 5.
Write a few lines about The Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean is the third largest ocean on the earth.
2. It is named after India.
3. It is triangular in shape.
4. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Maldives, Sri Lanka, and Mauritius are the islands located in the Indian Ocean.
5. Java Trench is the deepest point in this ocean.

IV. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 Geography Chapter 1 The Universe and Solar System Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 The Universe and Solar System

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universe and Solar System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Fill in the blanks

1. The Universe was formed after ……………. explosion.
2. …………….. is the unit used to measure the distance between two celestial bodies.
3. …………….. is the centre of the solar system.
4. The word planet means ………………
5. ………………planet has many natural satellites.
6. India’s first ever mission to the moon is ………………
7. Earth is inclined by ……………… degrees.
8. The Equator faces the Sun directly on ………………
9. At the time of Perihelion, the Earth is ………………
10. The line which divides day and night on the Earth’s surface is ……………….

Answer:

1. Big Bang
2. Light year
3. The Sun
4. wanderer
5. Jupiter
6. Chandrayaan
7. 23 1/2
8. 21st March, 23rd Sep to the Sim.
9. Closest
10. Terminator line

B. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
The movement of the Earth on its axis is called _______
(a) Revolution
(b) Seasons
(c) Rotation
(d) Circulation
Answer:
(c) Rotation

Question 2.
The Tropic of Capricorn faces the Sun directly on
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(c) September 23

Question 3.
The galaxy in which our solar system is found is _______
(a) Andromeda
(b) Magellanic clouds
(c) Milky way
(d) Starburst
Answer:
(c) Milky way

Question 4.
The only celestial body where man has successfully landed
(a) Mars
(b) Moon
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
Answer:
(b) Moon

Question 5.
Which of the following planets can float On water?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Answer:
(b) Saturn

C. Circle the odd one out

D. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

E. (i) Consider the following statements

1. Venus rotates from east to west.
2. The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun on June 21.
3. Mars has rings around it.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

(ii) Consider the following statements

Statement I : Earth is called a watery planet.
Statement II. : The rotation of the Earth causes seasons.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(a) I is true; II is wrong

F. Name the following

Question 1.
Cluster of stars.
Answer:
Galaxy

Question 2.
The nearest galaxy to the solar system.
Answer:
Andromeda

Question 3.
The brightest planet.
Answer:
Venus

Question 4.
The living sphere.
Answer:
Biosphere

Question 5.
The year which has 366 days.
Answer:
Leap year

G. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Name the inner planets.
Answer:
The inner planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.

Question 2.
Pluto is no longer a planet, Reason out,

1. In August 2006, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) down-graded the status of Pluto to that of dwarf planet.
2. The three criteria of the IAU for a full sized planet are
   • It is in orbit around the Sun.
   • It has sufficient Mass to assume nearly a round shape.
   • It has cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit.
3. Since Pluto is able to meet only the first two of the criteria, it in no more a planet.

Question 3.
What is perihelion?
Answer:
Perihelion is the Earth’s closest position to the Sun.

Question 4.
How many times in a year would you find the Sun overhead if you lived on 20 N Latitude?
Answer:
Two times. It would be on the 21st March and 23rd September.

Question 5.
Which celestial body shares its orbit with others? Give an example.
Answer:

1. The dwarf planets share their orbits with others.
2. The five dwarf planets of the solar system are Pluto, Ceres, Eris, Makemake, and Haumea.

H. Give reasons

Question 1.
Why is Uranus called the somersaulting planet?
Answer:
It’s axis is tilted so much, that it appears to orbit the Sun on its sides like a rolling ball. So it is called the somersaulting planet.

Question 2.
The surface of the moon has many craters.
Answer:
The craters are formed due to the meteorites which fall on the moon’s surface.

Question 3.
The velocity of Earth’s rotation is zero at poles.
Answer:
It is due to the shape and inclination of the earth.

I. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Distinguish between inner and outer planets.
Answer:
Inner or Terrestrial Planets

1. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars.
2. They are comparatively smaller in size.
3. They are composed of rocks. The surface of the inner planets has mountains, volcanoes and craters.
4. None of the inner planets have rings orbiting them

Outer Planets or Jovian Planets, or Gaseous Giants

1. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
2. They are huge in size.
3. Most of them are made of gas.
4. All of the outer planets have rings orbiting them.

Question 2.
What are the effects of rotation and revolution?
Answer:
Effects of Rotation:

1. It is the spinning movement of the Earth on its axis
2. The time taken by the Earth to complete one rotation is called a day.
3. The rotation of the Earth causes day and night, As the Earth is spherical in shape, only one half of it is illuminated by the Sun at a time.
4. The other half remains dark.
5. The illuminated portion of the Earth experiences day, whereas the darkened part of the Earth experiences night.

Effects of Revolution:

1. It is the movement of the Earth around the Sun on its elliptical path.
2. The Earth takes 36514 days to complete one revolution.
3. It revolves around the Sun at a speed of 30 km per second.
4. The remaining quarter day is added once in every four years in the month of February.
5. The inclination of the Earth on its axis and its revolution around the Sun cause different seasons.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristics of the various spheres of the Earth.
Answer:
Earth is the most suitable planet to support life. It has three major components that we call the realms of the Earth lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere.

(i) Lithosphere: The word lithosphere is derived from the Greek word Lithos, which means rocky. The Lithosphere is the land on which we live.

(ii) Hydrosphere: The word Hydro means water in Greek. The hydrosphere consists of water bodies such as oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, ice caps on mountains, and water vapour in the atmosphere.

(iii) Atmosphere: The word Atmo means the air in Greek. The atmosphere is the envelope of air that surrounds the Earth. Different types of gases make up the atmosphere. The major gases are Nitrogen (78%) and Oxygen (21%).

(iv) Biosphere: The narrow belt of interaction among the lithosphere, the hydrosphere, and the atmosphere, where life exists is known as Biosphere. Bio means life in Greek. It consists of distinct zones.

J. Picture Study

Question 1.
Study the picture and answer the given questions.

Question a.
Which is the closest planet to the Sun?
Answer:
Mercury

Question b.
Which is the largest planet?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question c.
Which is the farthest planet from the Sun?
Answer:
Neptune

Question d.
Which is the second smallest planet?
Answer:
Mars

Question 2.
Look at the picture and answer the questions given below.

Question a.
Identify the planet
Answer:
Uranus

Question b.
What is the colour of the planet?
Answer:
Green

Question c.
Why is it of this colour?
Answer:
Due to the presence of Methane

STUDENT ACTIVITY
K. Solve the puzzle

Across:

2. A dwarf planet.
3. Equal days and nights.
7. I am a gas found in the Sun.
8. I appear once in 76 years.

Down:

1. I am the morning star.
2. India’s first moon mission.
4. I have two natural satellites.
5. I am the farthest planet.
6. An imaginary line passing through the centre of the Earth.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universe and Solar System Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

1. The study of the universe is called ………………
2. A cluster of stars is known as ………………
3. The Roman word ‘Sol’ means ………………
4. The ……………… is at the centre of the solar system.
5. The elliptical path in which the planets move around the Sun is ………………

Answer:

1. Cosmology
2. Galaxy
3. Sun God
4. Sun
5. Orbit

II. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The closest planet to the Sun is _______
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(a) Mercury

Question 2.
The solar system is believed to have formed about _______billion years ago.
(a) 3
(b) 4.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4.5

Question 3.
The ringed planet is _______
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(c) Saturn

Question 4.
The Outer Planets are _______
(a) Jupiter and Mercury
(b) Venus and Earth
(c) Saturn and Mars
(d) Uranus and Neptune
Answer:
(d) Uranus and Neptune

Question 5.
The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun directly on _______
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(b) June 21

III. (i) Consider the following statements

1. The earth is the third planet in the solar system
2. The Sun is made up of hot gases like Hydrogen and Nitrogen
3. Mercury has no natural satellites
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(c) 1 and 3

(ii) Consider the following statements

1. The sun revolves around the earth.
2. Mars is named after the Roman God of war.
3. Uranus appears green
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

(iii) Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I: Jupiter is the fastest spinning planet in the solar system.
Statement II: Neptune is the coldest planet Which of the statement (s) is/are true?
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

(iv) Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I : The earth is inclined at 32 1/2°angle.
Statement II : The specific gravity of Saturn is more than that of water.
Which of the statement (s) is/are true
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both the statement are wrong
Answer:
(d) Both the Statement are wrong

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is meant by light year?
Answer:
A light-year is a distance traversed by light in a year at a velocity of 30,000 km per second.

Question 2.
Mention the hierarchy of the universe.
Answer:

1. Universe
2. Galaxy
3. Solar system
4. Planets
5. Satellites

Question 3.
How many planets are there in the solar family? Name them.
Answer:
There are eight planets in the solar family. They are

1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Earth
4. Mars
5. Jupiter
6. Saturn
7. Uranus and
8. Neptune.

V. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 History Chapter 4 Ancient Cities of Tamilagam Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Ancient Cities of Tamilagam

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Ancient Cities of Tamilagam Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following region has a city more than 6500 years old?
(a) Iraq
(b) Indus valley
(c) Tamilagam
(d) Thondaimandalam
Answer:
(a) Iraq

Question 2.
Which one of the following is a Tamil city?
(a) Iraq
(b) Harappa
(c) Mohenjo-Daro
(d) Kancheepuram
Answer:
(d) Kancheepuram

Question 3.
Which city is not related to the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Poompuhar
(b) Thondi
(c) Korkai
(d) Kancheepuram
Answer:
(b) Madurai

Question 4.
The water management system of Tamils are known from
a. Kallanai
b. Tanks in Kancheepuram
c. Prakirama Pandyan Tank
d. River Cauvery
(a) (a) is correct
(b) (b) is correct
(c) (c) is correct
(d) (a) and (b) are correct
Answer:
(d) (a) and (b) are correct

Question 5.
Which is not the oldest city among the following ones?
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Poompuhar
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Madurai

Question 6.
Which city is related to Keezhadi excavation?
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Poompuhar
(d) Harappa
Answer:
(a) Madurai

II. Tick the appropriate answer. Match the statement with the reason

Question 1.
Statement: Goods were imported and exported from the city of Poompuhar.
Reason: the Bay of Bengal was suitable for trading with neighbouring countries.
(a) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and its reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong, but the reason is correct.
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and its reason are correct.

Question 2.
(a) Thirunavukkarasar said “kalviyil karaiillatha”. This statement refers to the city of Kancheepuram.
(b) Hieun Tsang said, “Kancheepuram is one among the seven sacred places of  India”.
(c) Kalidasa said, “Kancheepuram is the best city among the cities”
(a) only a is correct (b) the only b is correct
(c) the only c is correct (d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct!

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement
(a) Naalangadi – Night shop
(b) Allangdi – Day -time shop
(c) Ancient Roman coin factory was found at Poompuhar.
(d) Pearls were exported from Uvari near Korkai.
Answer:
(d) Pearls were exported from Uvari near Korkai

Question 4.
Find out the wrong statement.
(a) Megasthanese has mentioned Madurai in his account.
(b) Hien Tsang came to the Tamil city of Kancheepuram.
(c) Kovalan and Kannagi lived in Kancheepuram.
(d) Iraq is mentioned in Pattinapalai.
Answer:
(c) Kovalan and Kannagi lived in Kancheepuram.

Question 5.
Find out the correct pair
(a) Koodal Nagar – Poompuhar
(b) Thoonga Nagaram – Harappa
(c) City of Education – Madurai
(d) City of Temples – Kancheepuram
Answer:
(d) City of Temples – Kancheepuram

Question 6.
Find out the wrong pair
(a) Vadamalai – Gold
(c) Southern Sea – Pearls
(b) Western Ghats – Sandal
(d) Eastern Sea – Ahil
Answer:
(d) Eastern Sea – Ahil

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Kanchi Kailasanathar temple was built by ……………..
2. …………….. is known as the city of temples.
3. Masathuvan means ……………..

Answer:

1. Raja Simh
2. Kanchi
3. A big trader

IV. State True or False:

1. Cultural relationship with the outside world developed in Poompuhar because of its trade relationship with it.
2. Women also purchased from Allangadi of Madurai without fear.
3. Many rock-cut temples were made during the Pallava period.
4. Bodhi Dharma belonged to Kancheepuram.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

V. Answer in one word

Question 1.
What do you know about the term ‘export’?
Answer:
Exports are goods and services produced in one country and purchased by the citizens of another country.

Question 2.
Mention the epic and the Sangam poem you read in this lesson.
Answer:

1. The epic is Silapthikaram (or) Manimegalai.
2. Sangam Literature is Pattinappaalai.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest city in Thondai Nadu?
Answer:
Kanchi is the oldest city in Thondai Nadu.

Question 4.
Point out anyone difference between a village and a city.
Answer:
A village will have a small group of settlements whereas a city will have a large group of settlements.

Question 5.
Which civilization is associated with the city Lothal?
Answer:
The Indus Valley Civilisation is associated with the city Lothal.

Question 6.
Name the oldest civilization of the world
Answer:
Mesopotamian civilization is the earliest civilization in the world.

VI. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write a brief note on ancient cities in India?
Answer:

1. Harappa and Mohenjodaro were prominent cities of ancient India.
2. They developed along the banks of the river Indus.
3. They were the symbol of urban civilization.
4. They had very good town planning, a well-constructed house, well-maintained drainage system.
5. They had very good civic sense.
6. They developed pottery, ornaments as well as a script which is yet to be deciphered.

Question 2.
Mention the ancient cities of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. In Tamizhagam the well-known cities were Madurai, Kanchi, and Poompuhar.
2. Poompuhar is one of the oldest towns in ancient Tamizhagam.
3. Madurai has been one of the oldest cities in India.
4. It is known as “Sangam Valartha Nagaram”
5. Kanchi is the oldest town in Thondai Nadu.
6. Scholars like Dharmabalar, Jothibalar, Sumathi, and Bodhi Dharma were born in Kanchi.

Question 3.
Discuss the sources available to know about Tamil cities?
Answer:

1. Tamil literature, accounts of foreign travellers, and archaeological finds provide information about the ancient towns of Tamizhagam.
2. Sangam Tamil Literature Pattinappaalai and Tamil epics Silappathikaram and Manimegalai have references about Poompuhar.
3. Madurai is proudly associated with three Sangams.
4. The fame of Madurai can be attested from the accounts of the Greek historian Megasthenes.
5. Chanakya mentions Madurai in his famous work Arthashastra.
6. The Chinese Traveller Hieun Tsang writes about the greatness of Kanchi.
7. Poet Kalidasa refers to Kanchi as the best of the towns.

Question 4.
Write about the kings who ruled Madurai.

1. Pandyas, the Cholas and later the Kalabras ruled Madurai in the ancient
2. During medieval times, later Cholas and later Pandyas followed by the Nayaks ruled this historic town.

Question 5.
Mention the other names of Madurai?
Answer:

1. Sangam Valartha Nagaram
2. Thoonga Nagaram (the city that never sleeps).
3. Koodal Nagar are the other names of Madurai

Question 6.
What is the difference between Naalaugadi and Allangadi?
Answer:
Naalangadi

1. It is Day Marget.
2. It works only in the day time.

Allangadi

1. It is the evening Market.
2. It works only in the Evening,

Question 7.
Name the scholars who were born at Kancheepuram
Answer:
Scholars like Dharmabalar, Jothibalar, Sumathi, and Bodhi Dharma were bom in Kanchi.

Question 8.
Which is known as the city of lakes? Why?
Answer:

1. Water management played an important role in the agrarian society of those times.
2. Hundreds of lakes were created for storing water around the town of Kanchi.
3. These lakes were well connected with canals.
4. During the later period, Kanchi came to be known as the district of lakes.

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
Write a short note on Iraq.
Answer:

1. Modem Iraq was called Mesopotamia in the ancient period. It was the birthplace of Sumerian civilization.
2. Iraq is watered by two rivers namely Euphrates and Tigris.
3. It is an important trading centre.
4. Pattinappaalai speaks about the trade relations of Iraq With other countries.

Question 2.
Write a paragraph about the city of Poompuhar with special reference to trade.
Answer:

1. Poompuhar was a port.
2. Big traders and sea traders had settled down there.
3. Numerous merchants from foreign countries such as Greece and Rome landed at Poompuhar.
4. Brisk seaborne trade took place in Puhar.
5. Foreign traders stayed on indefinitely at Puhar.
6. There is evidence of foreign settlements in the town.

Question 3.
Write about the accounts given by scholars about Kanchi.
Answer:

1. Poet Kalidasa says “Kanchi is the best of the towns”.
2. Poet Thirunavukarasar praises Kanchi as “Kalviyil Karaiillatha Kanchi.
3. Hieun Tsang has said,”Kanchi can be counted as one among the seven sacred places like Budh Gaya and Sanchi”.

Question 4.
City of temple Gives short notes.
Answer:

1. Kanchi is also known as the Temple city.
2. The famous Kailasanathar temple is at Kanchi.
3. There are a large number of cave temples in Kanchi. So Kanchi is known as the Temple city.

Question 5.
Kancheepuram was famous for education. Prove this statement
Answer:

1. Several schools were established in great numbers in Kanchi.
2. There were Jainpallis and Viharas.
3. The Chinese traveller Hieun Tsang visited Kanchi Kadigai to continue his studies
4. Tamil poet saint Thirunavukarasar praises Kanchi as’Kalviyil karaiillatha Kanchi’.

VIII. Student Activity

1. Make an album about Keezhadi excavations.
2. Poompuhar was famous for trading activities. Discuss.
3. Collect the pictures of Pallava temple architecture.
4. Prepare a Booklet describing the famous lakes of Tamilnadu.
5. Make a booklet about the famous cities of Tamilnadu.
6. Go to the library and find out the places of importance in your district.

IX. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Poompuhar was located on which riverbank?
Answer:
Cauvery

Question 2.
Name the ancient city which had Tamil Sangam.
Answer:
Madurai

Question 3.
Name a Sangam literary work.
Answer:
Pattinappaalai

Question 4.
Which Greek historian gave accounts about the Pandya kingdom?
Answer:
Megasthanese

Question 5.
To which the Tamil Kingdom did the southern districts of Tamil Nadu belong to during the Sangam Age?
Answer:
Pandyas.

Question 6.
Name the Chinese traveller who stayed and studied in Nalanda University.
Answer:
Hieun Tsang

Question 7.
Thirunavukarasar mentioned Kanchi as _______
Answer:
Kalviyil karaiillatha Kanchi

Question 8.
What is the name of the evening market during the Sangam Age?
Answer:
Allangadi

Question 9.
Name the temple built by Pallava king Rajasimha at Kanchi.
Answer:

1. Kailasanathar
2. Temple.

Question 10.
Which district is known as the district of lakes?
Answer:
Kanchi

Question 11.
What is trade?
Answer:
The act of buying and selling goods and services is called trade.

Question 12.
Name a port located on the shore of the Bay of Bengal
Answer:
Chennai.

X. Life Skill (For Students)

1. Make a handout that shows the importance of the place where you live.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Ancient Cities of Tamilagam Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The earliest civilization in the world is …………….
(a) Egyptian Civilization
(b) Chinese civilization
(c) Indus valley civilization
(d) Mesopotamian civilization
Answer:
(d) Mesopotamian civilization

Question 2.
Name the place related to the export of Sandal.
(a) the Western Ghats
(b) Southern Sea
(c) Eastern Sea
(d) Elam
Answer:
(a) the Western Ghats

Question 3.
Kailasanathar temple was built by …………….
(a) Mahendra varman
(b) Narasimha Varman
(c) Raja Simha
(d) Aparajitha
Answer:
(c) Raja Simha

Question 4.
Ahil was a
(a) Port
(b) Fragrant wood
(c) Educated centre
(d) Ornament
Answer:
(b) Fragrant wood

Question 5.
Puhar served as the port of ……………
(a) Chera kingdom
(b) Chola kingdom
(c) Pandya kingdom
(d) Kalabras
Answer:
(b) Chola kingdom

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Sea traders are known by the name ……………
2. Chanakya was Chandragupta’s ……………
3. The Buddhist monk Manimegalai spent the last part of her life at ……………

Answer:

1. Maanaigan
2. Minister
3. Kanchi

III. State True or False

1. The lead female character of Silappathikaram is Manimegalai
2. The present-day Thanjavur was once part of Chera Nadu
3. Poompuhar served as the port of the early Chola kingdom
4. Silappathikaram speaks about the greatness of Poompuhar
5. Many cave temples were built during the Pallava period

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

IV. Answer the following

Question 1.
How was Poompuhar different from other towns?
Answer:
Each social group had a separate settlement
Streets were broad and straight, dotted with well-designed houses.
There was also a dockyard

V. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 History Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What metals were known to the people of Indus Civilisation?
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron
(b) Copper, silver, iron, but not bronze
(c) Copper, gold, iron, but not silver
(d) Copper, silver, iron, but not gold
Answer:
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron

Question 2.
Indus Civilisation belonged to.
(a) Old Stone age
(b) Medieval stone age.
(c) New stone age
(d) Metal age
Answer:
(d) Metal age

Question 3.
River Valleys are said to be the cradle of civilisation because ………………..
(a) Soil is very fertile.
(b) They experience good climate.
(c) They are useful for transportation.
(d) Many civilizations flourished on river valleys.
Answer:
(d) Many civilizations flourished on river valleys.

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : Harappan civilisation is said to be an urban civilisation.
Reason : It has well planned cities with advanced drainage system.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is true, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement : Harappan civilization belongs to BronzeAge.
Reason : Harappans did not know the use of iron.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct

Question 3.
Statement : The engineering skill of Harappans was remarkable.
Reason : Building of docks after a careful study of tides, waves and currents.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 4.
Which of the following statement about mohanjadaro is correct?
(a) Gold ornaments were unknown.
(b) Houses were made of burnt bricks.
(c) Implements were made of iron.
(d) Great Bath was made water tight with the layers f natural bitumen.
Answer:
(b) Houses were made burnt brick.
(d) Greal Bath was made water tight with thc laye of natural bitnmen.

Question 5.
Consider the following statements.
1. Uniformity in layout of town, streets, and brick sizes
2. An elaborate and well laid out drainage system
3. Granaries constituted an important part of Harappan cities Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1&2
(b) 1&3
(c) 2&3
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 6.
Circle the odd one.
Answer:

1. Oxen
2. Sheep
3. Buffaloes
4. Pigs
5. Horses

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) ASI – John Marshall
(b) Citadel – Granaries
(c) Lothal – dockvard
(d) Harappan Civilisation – River Cauvery
Answer:
(d) Harappan – River Cauvery

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… is the oldest civilisation.
2. Archaeological Survey of India was founded by ………………
3. ……………… were used to store grains.
4. Group of people form ………………

Answer:

1. Mesopotamian civilisation.
2. Alexander Cunningham.
3. Granaries.
4. Community.

IV. State True or False

1. Mehergarh is a Neolithic site.
2. Archaeological survey of India is responsible for preservation of cultural monuments in the country.
3. Granaries were used to store grains.
4. The earliest form of writings was developed by the Chinese.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – a
4. – b

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the uses of metal?
Answer:

1. Gold and Silver were used to make ornaments.
2. They used copper and bronze to make weapons and vessels.
3. Bronze was used to make statues. ( Example: Statue of a dancing girl.)

Question 2.
Make a list of baked and raw foods that we eat.
Answer:

1. Baked foods: Rice, wheat, vegetables, greens, roots, mutton, fish etc
2. Raw Foods: Fruits, some vegetables and nuts

Question 3.
Do we have the practice of worshipping animate and trees?
Answer:
Yes, people belonging to some religions worship animals and trees.

Question 4.
River valleys are cradles of civilization. Why?
Answer:

1. In the river valleys, the soil is fertile.
2. Freshwater is available for drinking, watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods is possible.

So people settled in the river valleys. Many civilizations flourished on river valleys. Florence river valleys are called cradles of civilization.

Question 5.
Just because a toy move doesn’t mean instead batteries?
Answer:
They used wheels.

Question 6.
Dog was the first animal to be tamed. Why?
Answer:

1. Dogs prevented the entry of dangerous animals by its sniffing skill.
2. Dogs helped the people in their hunting activities.

Question 7.
If you were an Archaeologist, what will you do?
Answer:
If I were an archaeologist I would go to Adichanallur which is located in our district and do excavation there.

Question 8.
Name any two Indus sites located on the Indian border
Answer:

1. Kalibangan
2. Lothal

Question 9.
In Indus civilization, which features you like the most? Why?
Answer:

1. I like the drainage system very much.
2. Most of the drains were covered with slabs or bricks. Even after nearly 5000 years many of the modern cities don’t have covered drains.
3. It is said that each house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain. I like this system very much.

Question 10.
What instrument is used nowadays to weigh things?
Answer:
Electronic weighing machine.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What method is used to explore buried buildings nowadays?
Answer:

1. To see under the ground, the archaeologists may uSe a magnetic scanner.
2. The presence and absence of archaeological remains can be detected by the Radar and Remote Sensing Method.

Question 2.
Why Indus Civilisation Is called Bronze Age civilization?
Answer:

1. Bronze is an alloy.
2. This period is characterized by the articles made of bronze?
3. So Indus Valley Civilization is also known as bronze age civilization.

Question 3.
Indus civilization is called urban civilization. Give reasons.
Answer:
The reasons are.

1. Well conceived town planning.
2. Astonishing masonry and architecture.
3. Priority for hygiene and public health.
4. Standardized weights and measures.
5. Solid agricultural and artisanal base.

Question 4.
Can you point out the special feature of their drainage system?
Answer:

1. They had well-covered drains. The drains were covered with slabs or bricks,
2. Each drain had a gentle slope, so that water could flow.
3. Manholes were provided at regular intervals to clear the drains.
4. House drains passed below many lanes before finally emptying into the drains.
5. Every house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain.

Question 5.
What do you know about the Great Bath?
Answer:

1. The Great Bath is one of the earliest public tanks.
2. It is a waterproof structure.
3. The bath was lined with bricks.
4. It was made watertight using layers of natural bitumen.
5. There were rooms on three sides.
6. The water was drained after use.
7. There were steps on both sides of the pool.

Question 6.
How do you know that Indus people trade with other
Answer:

1. King Naram – the sin of the Akkadian empire has written about buying jewellery from the land of Melukha which is a region of the Indus valley.
2. The same types of seals found in Mesopotamia have been also found in the Indus area.
3. A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal in Gujarat. All these things show that the Indus people traded with other countries.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Observe the following features of Indus civilization and compare that with the present day.
Answer:
(a) Lamp post:

1. In the Indus cities, street lights were an important feature. The lamp posts were made of stones.
2. Now we have iron lamp posts and cement lamp posts.

(b) Burnt bricks:

1. The houses were built using burnt brick. The bricks were of uniform size.
2. The bricks were burnt because burnt bricks are strong, hard, durable, resistant to fire, and will not dissolve in water.
3. The present-day buildings are also constructed with burnt bricks.

(c) Underground drainage system:

1. The Indus cities had an underground drainage system. They were covered with slabs or bricks. Holes were provided at regular intervals to clean the drains.
2. Even in some of the modern cities, there is no underground drainage system. This system is being introduced gradually now. In Tamil Nadu, there is an underground drainage system almost in all the corporations.

(d) Weights and measurements:

1. Standardized weights and measures were used by the Indus valley people. They used sticks with marks to measure length.
2. Now we have various types of weighing machines and scales.

(e) Dockyard:

1. Lothal was a port in Gujarat. There was a naval dockyard in Lothal. It shows the maritime activities of the Indus people.
2. Now, dockyards are found almost in all ports. Apart from loading, unloading and repairing of ships new ships are built in these yards.
3. Example: Mazagaon dock at Mumbai.

Question 2.
Agriculture was one of their occupations, How can you prove this? (with the findings)
Answer:

1. Agriculture might have been their main occupation since they settled near the Indus river bank.
2. We find the terracotta plough which might have been used for agriculture.
3. They used granaries to store food grain.
4. A granary with walls made of mud, bricks, which are still in good condition, has been discovered in Rakhigarhi, a village in Haryana belonging to the Mature Harappan phase.

Question 3.
Many potteries and their pieces have been discovered from Indus sites. What do you know from that?
Answer:

1. It shows that they know the art of making pottery.
2. The broken pieces of pottery have animal figures on them.
3. It shows that they reared various animals. It also shows their skill in painting.

Question 4.
A naval dockyard has been discovered In Lothal, What does it convey?
Answer:

1. The Dockyard at Lothal is considered as the first naval dockyard of the world,
2. It has favourable features in terms of height, width, and length compared to the modem dockyards of Mumbai and Visakhapatnam.
3. Boats of 60-75 tonnes capacity and 20-25 metres in length could enter Lothal DOCK.
4. It was designed in such a manner as to ensure berthing 20-30 boats, a fairly large size.
5. Large foreign and Indian ships could enter the harbour without any difficulty

Question 5.
Can you guess what happened to the Harappans?
Answer:
The Harappans might have disappeared due to the following reasons.

1. Repeated floods.
2. Ecological changes.
3. Invasions.
4. Natural calamity.
5. Climatic changes.
6. Deforestation.
7. An epidemic.

IX. Activity (For Students)

1. Prepare a scrapbook. (Containing more information about objects collected from Mohenjo – Daro, and Harappa.)

2. You are a young archaeologist working at a site that was once an Indus city. What will you collect?

3. Make flashcards.
(Take square cards and stick a picture in one card and the information for the same picture in another card. Circulate among the groups and tell them to match the picture with information.)

4. Draw your imaginary town planning in a chart.

5. Make a model of anyone structure of Indus Civilisation using clay, broken pieces of bangles, matchsticks, woollen thread, and ice cream sticks.

6. Can you imagine how toys have changed through the ages?
Collect toys made of Clay → stone → wood → metal → plastic → fur → electric → electronic → ???

7 . Crossword puzzle

Top to Bottom:

1. Director-General of ASI
2. Is older than Mohenjo – Daro
3. This is age civilization
4. Each house had a

Left to Right

5. Place used to store grains
6. A dockyard has been found
7. is unknown to Indus people
8. It is used to make watertight.

Right to Left

9. From this we can get a lot of information
10. This is responsible for research

X. Rapid Fire Quiz (Do it in groups)

Question 1.
Which crop did Indus people use to make clothes?
Answer:
Cotton.

Question 2.
Which was the first Indus city discovered?
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 3.
Where was the Indus civilization?
Answer:
The Indus valley.

Question 4.
Which animal was used to pull carts?
Answer:
Bullocks.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron

Question 6.
What was used to make pots?
Answer:
Wheel.

Question 7.
Which is considered the largest civilization among four ancient civilizations of the world?
Answer:
The Indus valley civilization.

XI. Life skill

1. Making an animal or a pot out of clay.
2. Making terracotta toy with movable limbs.
3. Pot painting (with geometric pattern).
4. Make informational charts and posters.

X. Answer Grid

Question 1.
What did Charles Masson see?
Answer:
Some mysterious brick mounds

Question 2.
List three things people used which we use today?
Answer:

1. Toys
2. Carts
3. Jewels

Question 3.
What else has been found?
Answer:
Burnt bricks

Question 4.
Can you say three things unknown to Indus people?
Answer:

1. Gun.
2. Paper.
3. Ink.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron.

Question 6.
Which is the oldest civilization in the world?
Answer:

1. Mesopotamian
2. Civilization

Question 7.
Why the dog was the first animal to be tamed?
Answer:
It helped them in hunting.

Question 8.
Who were the first people to grow cotton?
Answer:
Sumerians.

Question 9.
Which institution is responsible for archaeological research?
Answer:
The Archaeological Survey of India

Question 10.
Was there any river valley civilization found in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
No

Question 11.
Name any two Harappan sites which were found on the Indian border?
Answer:

1. Lothal
2. Kalibangan

Question 12.
Can we say the Indus cities as cities of children?
Answer:
Yes.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The headquarters of the Archaeological Survey of India is located in ……………
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(d) Delhi

Question 2.
The dancing girl statue was made out of
(a) gold
(b) silver
(c) bronze
(d) iron
Answer:
(c) bronze

Question 3.
The word ‘civilization’ comes from the ancient Latin word ‘civis’ which means ……………
(a) City
(b) Village
(c) People
(d) Govern
Answer:
(c) People

Question 4.
The first metal discovered and used by humans was ……………..
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Bronze
(d) Silver
Answer:
(b) Copper

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is true.
(a) Copper was the first metal used by humans.
(b) Horse was used by the Indus people to pull carts.
(c) Mohenjo – Daro was older than Harappa.
(d) Harappan civilization is a rural civilization.
Answer:
(a) Copper was the first metal used by humans.

Question 2.
Consider the following statements.
1. The streets of the Indus area have a grid pattern.
2. There is no evidence of the presence of palaces.
3. There are evidence of the presence of places of worship. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All the three
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

Question 3.
Circle the odd one:
Answer:

1. Harappa
2. Mohenjodaro
3. Lahore
4. Lothal
5. Kalibangan

III. Fill in the blanks

1. In 1924, the Director-General of ASI was ……………..
2. The Archaeological Survey of India was started in ……………..
3. The earliest form of writing was developed by the ……………..
4. The great pyramid of Giza was built by king ……………..
5. Granaries were used to store.

Answer:

1. Sir John Marshall
2. 1861
3. Sumerians
4. Khufu
5. Foodgrains

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Why did people settle near rivers?
Answer:
People settled near rivers because

1. The soil is fertile.
2. Freshwater is available for drinking, watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods is possible.

Question 2.
Why do we say that the Indus people were the first to make cotton clothes?
Answer:

1. Cotton fabrics were in common use.
2. Clay spindles unearthed suggest that yam was spun.

Question 3.
Write about the occupations of the Indus people.
Answer:

1. Agriculture, handicrafts, pottery making, jewellery making, weaving, carpentry, and trading were practiced.
2. There were merchants, traders, and artisans.
3. They reared cattle and other animals.

Question 4.
Who built the Pyramid of Giza?
Answer:

1. The Pyramid of Giza was built by King Khufu in 2500 BCE.
2. It was built with limestone (15 tons each)

V. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Social Science History Term 1 Chapter 2 Human Evolution Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Human Evolution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The process of evolution is …………….
(a) direct
(b) indirect
(c) gradual
(d) fast
Answer:
(c) gradual

Question 2.
Tanzania is situated in the continent of ________.
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : Migration of man of different parts of the world resulted in changes of physic and colour
Reason : Climatic changes.
(a) Statement is correct.
(b) Reason is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason are correct.
(d) Statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Statement and Reason are correct

III. Find out the right pair

(a) Australopithecus – Walked on both legs
(b) Homo habilis – Upright man
(c) Homo erectus – Wise man
(d) Homo sapiens – Less protruding face
Answer:
(c) Homo erectus – Wise man

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. unearthed the footprints of humans in Tanzania.
2. Millions of years ago, our ancestors led a ………………. life.
3. The main occupations of the ancient humans were ………………. and ……………….
4. The invention of ………………. made farming easier.
5. Rock paintings are found at ………………. in Nilgiris.

Answer:

1. Anthropologist.
2. Nomadic.
3. hunting, gathering.
4. Plough.
5. Porivarai cave.

V. State True or False

1. Anthropology is the study of coins.
2. Homo erectus (Java man) had the knowledge of fire.
3. The first scientific invention of humans was wheel.
4. Goat was the first animal to be domesticated by humans.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

VI. Answer in one word

Question 1.
What method is used to find out the age of the excavated materials?
Answer:
Radio Carbon dating method.

Question 2.
What did early humans wear?
Answer:
Hides of animals and barks of trees and leaves.

Question 3.
Where did early humans live?
Answer:
In caves.

Question 4.
Which animal was used for ploughing?
Answer:
Oxen

Question 5.
When did humans settle in one place?
Answer:
When people began to practice agriculture, life became an organised one. It made the people settle in one place.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is evolution?
Answer:
Evolution is the process through which humankind changes and develops towards an advanced stage of life.

Question 2.
Write any two characteristics of Homo sapiens,
Answer:

1. Homo sapiens were wise men.
2. They migrated out of Eastern Africa settled in different parts of the world.
3. Their lifestyle also evolved and they made it suitable to the environs in which they lived.

Question 3.
Why did humans move from place to place?
Answer:
Humans kept on moving in search of food.

Question 4.
Describe the ancient methods of hunting,
Answer:

1. Collective hunting: Went as a group and hunted the prey
2. They dung a pit and trapped the animals and hunted.

Question 5.
Why were axes made?
Answer:
The axes were made to cut trees, remove barks, dig pits, hunt animals and remove the skin of animals.

Question 6.
How would you define archaeology?
Answer:

1. Archaeology is the study of pre-historic humans.
2. Excavated material remains are the main source for archaeological studies.

Question 7.
What do you know about anthropology?
Answer:
Anthropology is the study of humans and evolutionary history.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Importance of invention of the wheel from the ancient period to the modern period
Answer:

1. Early homosapiens realised that round objects could be easily moved by rolling them.
2. Their descendants advanced this rolling technique into the transportation of large objects on cylindrical logs.
3. The invention of the wheel and axle allowed a rolling log to be placed through a hole in the wheel to create a cart.
4. Chariot racing was influential in the evolution of the spoked wheel as it allowed chariots to move much faster.
5. The invention of air-filled rubber tyres allowed wheels to be much faster, sturdier, and stronger.

IX. Activity ( For Student)

Prepare an album collecting the pictures of ancient humans of different ages.

X. Answer Grid

Question 1.
The invention of …………….. made pot making it easier.
Answer:
Wheel

Question 2.
Barter system means ……………..
Answer:
Exchanging one thing for another.

Question 3.
Name any two weapons used by early humans for hunting.
Answer:
Stones, bones, and horns of animals.

Question 4.
Which is the best stone for making weapons?
Answer:
chikki – mukki – kal

Question 5.
Towns and cities emerged because ……………. of …………….. and.
Answer:
trade, commerce

Question 6.
Which was the first scientific invention of humans?
Answer:
Wheel.

Question 7.
Identify the pictures in rock paintings.
Answer:
Hunting and dancing pictures

Question 8.
Which was the main occupation of early humans? What do cave paintings tell us?
Answer:
Information about the past.

Question 9.
Where did the early humans live?
Answer:
In caves.

Question 10.
…………….. is related to the field of archaeology.
Answer:
Anthropology

Question 11.
Name any two animals domesticated by an early humans.
Answer:
Dogs and Oxen

XI. Life Skill (For Students)

1. Make pots and tools by using clay.
2. Collect different types of moving dolls and tell them to change the wheels with different shapes like square, triangle, etc., and find out how it moves.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The word ‘anthropology’ is derived from two …………….. words.
(a) Greek
(b) Latin
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Prakrit
Answer:
(a) Greek

Question 2.
Harpoons and spear throwers were used by _______
(a) Homo erectus
(b) Homo sapiens
(c) Cromagnons
(d) Homo habilis

II. Match the statement with the reason

Question 1.
Statement: Early humans decided to use guns for hunting.
Reason: It was difficult for them to kill big animals with a stick or stone.
a. Both statement and reason are correct
b. Both statement and reason are the wrong
c. The statement is wrong and the reason is correct.
d. Statement is correct and the reason is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Statement is wrong and the reason is correct.

III. Find out the wrong pair

(a) Homo sapiens – Africa
(b) Homo habits – South Africa
(c) Homo erectus – Asia
(d) Cro – magnons – China
Answer:
(d) Cro – magnons – China

IV. State True or False

1. The Neanderthal people buried the dead.
2. During the prehistoric period, horses were used to draw carts. Homo sapiens were wise.
3. Flintstones were easily available.
4. Coins made of iron were used by prehistoric people.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on the mode of transport in 1850.
Answer:

1. There were no buses or cycles.
2. A cart pulled by mules and bullocks were seen on the roads.
3. A horse-drawn cart was a rare occurrence.

Question 2.
What is meant by the barter system?
Answer:
The early men exchanged the surplus grains with other groups for the other things they were in need of. This is called the barter system.

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on the mode of transport in 1850.
Answer:

1. There were no buses or cycles.
2. A cart pulled by mules and bullocks were seen on the roads.
3. A horse-drawn cart was a rare occurrence.

Question 2.
What is meant by the barter system?
Answer:
The early men exchanged the surplus grains with other groups for the other things they were in need of. This is called the barter system.

VI. Mind map

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 1 Chapter 1 What is History?Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Solutions History Term 1 Chapter 1 What is History?

6th Social Science Guide What is History? Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What was the step taken by the early man to collect his food?
(a) trade
(b) hunting
(c) painting
(d) rearing of animals
Answer:
(b) hunting

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement: Pre historic man went along with the dog for hunting.
Reason: Dogs with its sniffing power would find out other animals.
(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong, but reason is correct.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: The objects used by the early man are excavated. They are preserved to know the lifestyle of the people.
Find out which of the following is related to the statement.
(a) Museum
(b) Burial materials
(e) Stone tools
(d) Bones
Answer:
(a) Museum

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Old stone age – Stone tools
(b) Rock paintings – Walls of the caves
(c) Copper plates – A source of history
(d) Cats – First domesticated
Answer:
(d) Cats – First domesticated

Question 4.
Find the odd one:
(a) Paintings were drawn on rocks and caves.
(b) There were paintings depicting hunting scenes.
(c) It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.
(d) The paintings were painted by using many colours.
Answer:
(c) It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The Old Stone age man lived mostly in ………………
2. ……………… is the Father of history.
3. ………………was the first animal tamed by Old Stone Age man.
4. Inscriptions are ……………… sources
5. Ashoka Chakra has ……………… spokes.

Answer:

1. Caves
2. Herodotus
3. Dog
4. archaeological
5. 24

IV. State True or False

1. Stone tools belonging to the Old Stone age have been excavated at Athtirampakkam near Chennai.
2. The materials used by the ancient people are preserved in the museums by the Archaeological Department.
3. During the period of Ashoka, Buddhism spread across the country.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True

V. Match the following

1. – d
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c

VI. Answer in one word

Question 1.
Can you say any two advantages of writing a diary?
Answer:

1. Diary writing helps to record the events.
2. It reveals the lifestyle of people of that period.

Question 2.
How do we know the people’s lifestyle of the Old Stone Age?
Answer:
We understand the lifestyle of people of the Old Stone Age from used stone tools, their paintings on the rocks and walls of the caves.

Question 3.
Is inscription a written record?
Answer:
Yes. The inscription is a written record.

Question 4.
What is proto history?
Answer:
Protohistory is the period between prehistory and history.

Question 5.
Name an epic.
Answer:
Silapadhikaram.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is history?
Answer:

1. History is a record of past events in chronological order.
2. The term History has been derived from the Greek word Istoria which means learning by enquiry.

Question 2.
What do you know about the prehistoric period?
Answer:

1. The period between the use of the first stone tools and the invention of writing systems is pre-history.
2. Stone tools excavated materials, and rock paintings are the major sources of pre-history

Question 3.
What are the sources available to know about the prehistoric period?
Answer:
Paintings on the rocks and the walls of the caves, stone tools, excavated materials are the sources available to know about the pre-historic period.

Question 4.
Mention the places from where we got pre-historic tools.
Answer:
We find the pre-historic tools at Kondapur, Nevasa, Mehrgash, Rock shelters of Bhimbetka, and Edakkal caves in India. In Tamilnadu Attirampakkam, Ariyalur, Perambulur, Adichanalur are the places where we came across the pre-historic tools.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of a museum?
Answer:

1. Museums are community centres designed to inform and teach the public.
2. The educational benefit of a museum is academic learning.
3. Museums are the caretakers of history as much as they offer connections to history.
4. Museums are full of stories, and it is interesting for students to hear these stories.
5. Museums offer opportunities for children to compare and contrast leading to critical thinking skills.
6. Children’s curiosity comes out in the form of questions.
7. Students are exposed to new ideas and concepts.
8. Museums inspire students to wonder, imagine, and dream Of possibilities that are beyond what they know.
9. Students are exposed to opportunities that spark creative moments.

Question 6.
Name some tools used by early man to hunt animals.
Answer:

1. Blade cores were used. These were chunks of Sharp rocks.
2. An end scraper is a tear-drop shaped piece of stone used to scrap fur and fatty tissue from the hides of animals.
3. Burins were stone tools with a rounded grasping end and at the sharp, razor-like working end.
4. Awls were small circular stone flakes.

Question 7.
Why were paintings drawn on rocks?
Answer:

1. Paintings could have been drawn or rocks to convey their lifestyles to future generations.
2. They might have wished to record their activities through their paintings.

Question 8.
Name any two artifacts.
Answer:
Potteries, Toys, Tools, and Ornaments.

1. An artefact is something made or given shape by men, such as a tool or a work of art, especially an object of archaeological interest.
2. Some of the artefacts are potteries, toys, tools, and ornaments.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
How dogs were useful to prehistoric man?
Answer:

1. Dogs with their sniffing power helped them find out other wild animals.
2. Dog helped them prevent the entry of dangerous animals.
3. Thus dogs helped them in hunting and protection.

Question 2.
Compare the lifestyle of Old. Stone Age man with present-day lifestyle.
Answer:
Old Stone age man

1. He was a nomad.
2. Took shelter on branches of trees, in holes and caves.
3. Wore dresses made out of leaves, the skin of animals, and barks of trees.
4. Ate vegetables, fruits, and roots which he gathered from jungles.
5. Not civilized.

Present-day man:

1. Settled in villages and towns.
2. Lives in well-built houses.
3. Wears dresses made out of cotton and other materials.
4. Eats all kinds of food grains.
5. Well civilized.

IX. Activity (For Students)

1. Write down the important events of your family with years. Draw a timeline with the help of your teacher of with your classmates.
2. Early man used stones as a weapon. Make an album showing the various uses of stone.
3. Identify the category of the following sources of history.
   • Urns excavated from Adhichanallur.
   • Copper plates of Velvikudi.
   • Mahabharatha.
   • Sanchi Stupa
   • Pattinappaalai.
   • The earthernwares form keezhadi
   • Toys of Indus Civilisation.
   • Big Temple of Thanjavur.

X. Life Skill (For Students)

1. Make some weapon models used by the old stone Age man using clay.
2. Discuss with your grandpa, grandma, neighbours, and teachers and collect information about your street, villages, town or school. With the collected data, try to write its history titling your writing as “I am a Historian”.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Early men scribbled and painted on me Today they used me to build houses and lay roads. Who am I?
Answer:
Rock.

Question 2.
Name any two archaeological sources?
Answer:

1. Coins
2. Inscriptions

Question 3.
Name the types of literary sources?
Answer:

1. Secular literature
2. Religious literature

Question 4.
Expand BC (BCE).
Answer:
Before the common era

Question 5.
What is the meaning of the Greek word “Istoria”?
Answer:
Learning by enquiry

Question 6.
Expand AD (CE).
Answer:
Common era

Question 7.
…………….. is the study of inscriptions..
Answer:
Epigraphy

Question 8.
…………….. is the study of coins.
Answer:
Numismatics

Question 9.
I can help you to talk, see, hear, write, and read. There is no world without me. Who am I?
Answer:
Mobile Phone

6th Social Science Guide What is History? Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Dhamma is a word.
(a) Prakrit
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Latin
(d) Greek
Answer:
(a) Prakrit

II. Match the statement with the reason

Question 1.
Statement: Ashoka was the first ruler to give up war after victory.
Reason: He was upset and grief-stricken at the sight of the war.
(a) Statement is true but the reason is wrong.
(b) Both statement and reason are correct.
(c) Both statement and reason are wrong.
(d) Statement is wrong but the reason is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
(a) Statement: Archaeological sources help to know about the early man.
Find out which of the following is related to the statement.
(a) Monuments
(b) Pictures
(c) Metals
(d) Books
Answer:
(a) Monuments

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Numismatics – The study of coins
(b) Epigraphy – The study of Inscription
(c) Epic – Pattinapaalai
(d) Copper plates – Velvikudi
Answer:
(c) Epic – Pattinapaalai

Question 4.
Find the odd one.
(a) The dharma chakra has 24 spokes.
(b) It is seen in our National Flag.
(c) It was taken from Sanchi Stupa.
(d) It belongs to the Mauryan period
Answer:
(c) It was taken from Sanchi Stupa

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The Big Temple is in ……………
2. The most famous ruler of ancient India was ……………
3. Istoria means ……………

Answer:

1. Thanjavur.
2. Ashoka.
3. Learning by enquiry.

IV. State True or False

1. The term History has been derived from the Latin word ‘Istoria’.
2. We understand the lifestyle of old stone age people from used stone tools.
3. Thirumalai Nayakkar Mahal is in Thanjavur.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

VI. Mind Map

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If A = {1,2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5,6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8} then state which of the following statement is true ………….. .
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)
(2) (B × D) ⊂ (A × C)
(3) (A × B) ⊂ (A × D)
(4) (D × A) ⊂ (B × A)
Answer:
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)

Question 2.
If f(x) = 2x² and g(x) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3x }\), then jog is ………….. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{2 x^{2}}\)
(2) \(\frac{2}{3 x^{2}}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{6 x^{2}}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)

Question 3.
Given F₁ = 1,F₂ = 3 and F_n = F_n-1 + F_n-2  then F₅ is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11
Answer:
(4) 11

Question 4.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ +. . . .+ 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 +….+ 15) is ………….. .
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280

Question 5.
The solution of the system x + y – 3z = -6 , – 7y + 7z = 7, 3z = 9 is ………….. .
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
(2) x = -1, y = 2, z = 3
(3) x = -1, y = -2, z = 3
(4) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
Answer:
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3

Question 6.
If number of columns and rows are not equal in a matrix then it is said to be a ………….. .
(1) diagonal matrix
(2) rectangular matrix
(3) square matrix
(4) identity matrix
Answer:
(2) rectangular matrix

Question 7.
The slope of the line which is perpendicular to a line joining the points (0, 0) and (-8, 8) is ………….. .
(1) -1
(2) 1
(3) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(4) -8
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 8.
If sin θ + cos θ = a and sec θ + cosec θ = 6, then the value of b (a² – 1} is equal to ………….. .
(1) 2 a
(2) 3 a
(3) 0
(4) 2 ab
Answer:
(1) 2 a

Question 9.
If two solid hemispheres of same base radius r units are joined together along their bases, then curved surface area of this new solid is ………….. .
(1) 4π r² sq. units
(2) 6π r² sq. units
(3) 3π r² sq. units
(4) 8π r² sq. units
Answer:
(1) 4π r² sq. units

Question 10.
The standard deviation of a data is 3. If each value is multiplied by 5 then the new variance is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) 225
Answer:
(4) 225

Question 11.
Kamalam went to play a lucky draw contest. 135 tickets of the lucky draw were sold. If the probability of Kamalam winning is \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\), then the number of tickets bought by Kamalam is ………….. .
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
Answer:
(3) 15

Question 12.
If α and β are the zeros of the polynomial p(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …… .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(-\frac{7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)

Question 13.
The common ratio of the G.P. a^m-n, a^m, a^{m + n} is ………….. .
(1) a^m
(2) a^-m
(3) aⁿ
(4) aⁿ
Answer:
(3) aⁿ

Question 14.
If the circumference at the base of a right circular cone and the slant height are 120π cm and 10 cm respectively, then the curved surface area of the cone is equal to ………….. .
(1) 1200 π cm²
(2) 600 π cm²
(3) 300 π cm²
(4) 600 π m²
Answer:
(2) 600 π cm²

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Let A = {1,2, 3, 4} and B = N . Let f: A → B be defined by f(x) = x³ then,
(i) find the range of f
(ii) identify the type of function
Answer:
A = {1,2,3,4}
B = (1,2,3,4,5, ………}
f(x) = x³
f(1) = 1³ = 1
f(2) = 2³ = 8
f(3) = 3³ = 27
f(4) = 4³ = 64
(i) Range = {1, 8,27, 64)
(ii) one -one and into function.

Question 16.
If f(x) = 2x -1, g (x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\), show that fog = gof = x
Answer:
f(x) = 2x – 1 : g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\)
fog = f[g(x)]
= \(f\left[\frac{x+1}{2}\right]\)
= \(2\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)-1\)
= x + 1 – 1
= x

gof = g[f(x)]
= g (2x – 1)
= \(\frac{2 x-1+1}{2}\)
= \(\frac{2 x}{2}\)
= x
∴ fog = gof = x
Hence it is proved.

Question 17.
Determine the general term of an A.P. whose 7^th term is -1 and 16^th term is 17.
Answer:
Let the AP. be t₁, t₂, t₃, t₄, ………
It is given that t₇ = -1 and t₁₆ = 17
a + (7 – 1)d = -1 and a + (16 – 1) d = 17
a + 6d = – 1 ……. (1)
a + 15d = 17 ……… (2)
Subtracting equation (1) from equation (2), we get 9d = 18 ⇒ d = 2
Putting d = 2 in equation (1), we get a + 12 = -1 So, a = -13
Hence, general term t_n = a + (n – 1) d = -13 + (n – 1) × 2 = 2n – 15

Question 18.
Find x so that x + 6, x + 12 and x + 15 are consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression.
Answer:
\(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{x+12}{x+6}\), \(\frac{t_{3}}{t_{2}}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
Since it is a G.P.
\(\frac{x+12}{x+6}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
(x + 12)² = (x + 6) (x + 15)
x² + 24x + 144 = x² + 21x + 90
3x = -54 ⇒ x = \(\frac{-54}{3}\) = – 18

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x+8}{x^{2}+x-2}\)
Answer:
x² + 6x + 8 = (x + 4)(x + 2)
x² + x – 2 = (x + 2)(x – 1)


The expression \(\frac{x+4}{x-1}\) is undefined
when x – 1 = 0 ⇒ x = 1
The excluded value is 1

Question 20.
Solve 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 by formula method.
Answer:
Compute 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 with the standard form ax² + bx + c = O
a = 3, b = 2√5, c = -5
p = \(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^{2}-4 a c}}{2 a}\)
Substituting the values of a, b and e in the formula we get,

Therefore, x = \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{3},-\sqrt{5}\)

Question 21.
Write the expression \(\frac{\alpha+3}{\beta}+\frac{\beta+3}{\alpha}\) in terms of α + β and αβ.
Answer:

Question 22.
Rhombus PQRB is inscribed in ∆ABC such that ∠B is one of its angle. P, Q and R lie on AB, AC and BC respectively. If AB = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, find the sides PQ, RB of the rhombus.
Answer:
Let the side of the rhombus be “x”. Since PQRB is a Rhombus PQ || BC
By basic proportionality theorem
\(\frac{A P}{A B}=\frac{P Q}{B C} \Rightarrow \frac{12-x}{12}=\frac{x}{6}\)
12x = 6(12 – x)
12x = 72 – 6x
12x + 6x = 72
18x = 72 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 72 }{ 18 }\) = 4
Side of a rhombus = 4cm
PQ = RB = 4cm

Question 23.
Find the equation of a straight line which is parallel to the line 3x – 7y = 12 and passing through the point (6,4)
Answer:
Equation of the straight line, parallel to 3x – 7y – 12 = 0 is 3x – 7y + k= O
Since it passes through the point (6,4)
3(6) – 7(4) + k = 0
k = 28 – 18= 10
Therefore, equation of the required straight line is 3x – 7y + 10 = 0.

Question 24.
Prove that \(\frac{\tan ^{2} \theta-1}{\tan ^{2} \theta+1}\) = 1 – 2 cos² θ
Answer:

= sin² θ – cos² θ = 1 – cos² θ – cos² θ
= 1 – 2 cos²θ
L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved.

Question 25.
The standard deviation and coefficient of variation of a data are 1.2 and 25.6 respectively. Find the value of mean.
Answer:
Standard deviation (σ) = 1.2
Coefficient of variation = 25.6
\(\frac{\sigma}{x} \times 100\) = 25.6
\(\frac{1.2}{\bar{x}} \times 100\) = 25.6 ⇒ 25.6 × x̄ = 1.2 × 100
x̄ = \(\frac{120}{25.6}=\frac{120 \times 10}{256}\) = 4.687 = 4.69
Value of mean = 4.69

Question 26.
Three dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting the same number.
Answer:
Sample space = {(1, 1, 1) (1, 1,2) (1, 1,3). .. . (6,6, 6)}
n(S) = 216
Let A be the event of getting the same number on all the three dice
A = {(1,1,1),(2,2,2),(3,3,3),(4,4,4)(5,5,5)(6,6,6fl
n(A) = 6
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{6}{216}=\frac{1}{36}\)

Question 27.
If the curved surface area of a solid hemisphere is 2772 sq. cm, then find its total surface area.
Answer:
Curved surface area ofa hemisphere = 2772 sq.cm
2πr² = 2772
πr² = \(\frac{2772}{2}\) = 1386
T.S.A of the hemisphere = 3πr² sq. units
= 3 × 1386 cm²
= 4158 cm²

Question 28.
Which term of the geometric sequence 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\) ?
Answer:
The given G.P is 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\)
Here a = 5, r = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)
t_n = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)
a.r_n-a = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let f: A → B be a function defined by f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1, where A = {2,4,6,10,12}, B = {0,1,2,4,5,9} . Represent f by
(i) set of ordered pairs
(ii) a table
(iii) an arrow diagram
(iv) a graph
Answer:
(i) f = {(2,0)(4, 1)(6,2)(10,4)(12,5)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Question 30.
Given f(x) = x – 1, g(x) = 3x + 1 and h(x) = x² show that (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
The product of three consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression is 343 and their sum is \(\frac{91}{3}\) Find the three terms.

Question 32.
Find the sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4?

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.

Question 34.
A passenger train takes 1 hr more than an express train to travel a distance of 240 km from Chennai to Virudhachalam. The speed of passenger train is less than that of an express train by 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of both the trains.

Question 35.
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P,Q are points on AD and BC respectively, such that PQ || DC if PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, find AD.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(-4,2) and B(6, -4).

Question 37.
From the top of a tower 50 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tree and observed to be 30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the tree. ( √3 = 1.732)

Question 38.
A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with juice. The juice is poured into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both the bowl and the cylinder then find the percentage of juice that can be transferred from the bowl into the cylindrical 1 vessel.

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7,9,… 35,37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.

Question 40.
The function f: [-7, 6] → R is defined as follows.

Question 41.
The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. When both the numerator and denominator are decreased by 6, then the denominator becomes 12 times the numerator determine the fraction.

Question 42.
If for distribution Σx – 7 = 3 ; (Σx – 7)² = 57 and total number of the item is 20; find the mean and standard deviation.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of diameter 6 cm from a point P, which is 8 cm away from its centre. Draw the two tangents PA and PB to the circle and measure their lengths.

[OR]

(b) Construct a triangle ∆PQR such that QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 30° and the altitude from P to QR is of length 4.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² and hence solve x² – 4x – 5 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve the equation x² + 2x + 4 = 0.