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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 21 The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 21 The Sale of Goods Act, 1930

12th Commerce Guide The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year
a) 1940
b) 1997
c) 1930
d) 1960
Answer:
c) 1930

Question 2.
Which of the below constitutes the essential element of contract of sale?
a) Two parties
b) Transfer of property
c) Price
d) All of the above
Answer:
d)All of the above

Question 3.
Which of the below is not good?
a) Stocks
b) Dividend due
c) Crops
d) Water
Answer:
b) Dividend due

Question 4.
In case of the sale, the ……………. has the right to sell
a) Buyer
b) Seller
c) Hirer
d) Consignee
Answer:
b) Seller

Question 5.
The property in the goods means the
a) Possession of goods
c) Ownership of goods
b) Custody of goods
d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
c) Ownership of goods

Question 6.
Specific goods denote goods identified upon the time of …………… of sale
a) Agreement
b) Contract
c) Order
d) Obligation
Answer:
b) Contract

Question 7.
In which of the following types, the ownership is immediately transferred to the buyer?
a) When goods are ascertained
b) When goods are, appropriate
c) Delivery to the carrier
d) Sale or return basis
Answer:
c)Delivery to the carrier

Question 8.
…………………….. is a stipulation which is collateral to the main purpose of the contract.
a) Warranty
b) Condition
c) Right
d) Agreement
Answer:
a) Warranty

Question 9.
The unpaid seller can exercise his right of lien over the goods, where he is in possession of the goods as
a) Owner of goods
b) Agent of buyer
c) Bailee for buyer
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 10.
The unpaid seller can exercise his right of stoppage of goods in transit where the buyer
a) Becomes insolvent
b) Refuses to pay the price
c) Payment of the price
d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
a) Becomes insolvent

II. Very Short Answer Question

Question 1.
What is a contract of sale of goods?
Answer:
A contract of sale of goods is a contract whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property (ownership) of the goods to the buyer for a price.

Question 2.
List down the essential elements of a contract of sale.
Answer:

• Two parties
• Goods
• Price
• Transfer [ownership] of property [Goods]
• Includes both ‘Sale’ and ‘Agreement to sell’.

Question 3.
What is meant by Goods?
Answer:
The term goods mean every kind of movable property other than actionable claim and money.

Question 4.
What are contingent goods?
Answer:

• Contingent goods are a part of future goods.
• It is sold by the seller to the buyer, depends upon an event (contingency) which may happen or not happen.
• (e.g) Britto agrees to sell a TAB to Senthuran, provided if he gets from Nallathambi.
• In this TAB is “contingent Goods”.

Question 5.
What do you understand by Warranty?
Answer:
Warranty represents a stipulation which is collateral to the main purpose of the contract. It is of secondary importance to the contract.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the Agreement to sell.
Answer:

• The property (ownership or title) in the goods has to pass (transfer) at a future time
  (or)
• After the fulfillment of certain conditions mentioned in the contract is called “Agreement to sell”.
• It is an executory contract. [Yet to be performed]

Question 2.
Discuss in detail about the Existing Goods.
Answer:
Existing goods are those owned or possessed by the seller at the time of contract of sale. Goods possessed even refer to sale by agents or by pledgers. Existing goods may be either:

1. Specific Goods
2. Ascertained Goods
3. Generic or Unascertained Goods

Question 3.
Discuss the implied conditions and warranties in the sale of goods contract.
Answer:
In every contract of sale, there are certainly expressed and implied conditions and warranties. The term implied conditions means conditions which can be inferred from or guessed from the context of the contract.
Following are the implied conditions:

1. Conditions as to Title
2. Conditions as to Description
3. Sale by Sample
4. Conditions as to Quality or Fitness
5. Conditions as to Merchantability
6. Condition as to Wholesomeness
7. Condition Implied by Trade Usage

Following are the implied warranties:

1. Quiet Possession
2. Free from Any Encumbrances
3. Warranty in the case of Dangerous Goods

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the elements of the contract of sale. [TTGPI]
Answer:
The sale means selling the ownership of the goods to the buyer for a price. Similarly, the purchase means buying the ownership of the goods from the seller for a price. Following essential elements are necessary for a contract of sale:

1. Two Parties: A contract of sale involves two parties – the seller and the buyer. The buyer and the seller should be two different persons.
2. Transfer of Property: To constitute a sale, the seller must transfer or agree to transfer the ownership of the goods to the buyer.
3. Goods: The subject matter of the contract of sale must be goods. It excludes money, actionable claims, and immovable property.
4. Price: The monetary consideration for the goods sold is called price

Question 2.
Distinguish between Sale and Agreement to Sell. [IRONIC]
Answer:

Question 3.
Classify the goods under the Sale of Goods Act.
Answer:
The term goods mean every kind of movable property other than actionable claim and money. The goods are classified as follows:

1. Existing Goods- These goods are owned or possessed by the seller at the time of contract of sale. Existing goods may again be divided as:
   • Specific Goods- It denotes goods identified and agreed upon at the time of contract of sale.
   • Ascertained Goods- The term ‘ascertained goods’ is also used as similar in meaning to specific goods.
   • Unascertained Goods- These are goods which are not identified and agreed upon at the time of contract of sale.
2. Future Goods- These are goods which a seller does not possess at the time of contract of sale, but which will be manufactured or produced or acquired by him after entering into the contract.
3. Contingent Goods- These are the goods, the acquisition of which by the seller depends upon a contingency (an event which may or may not happen).

Question 4.
Distinguish between Conditions and Warranty. [STORM]
Answer:

12th Commerce Guide The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
A contract of sale involves ……………………. parties
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
a) 2

Question 2.
The transferred property takes place at a future date or on fulfillment of certain conditions, it is called.
a) Sale
b) Purchase
c) Agreement
d) All of these
Answer:
c) Agreement

Question 3.
………………………. mean every kind of movable property other than actionable claim and money.
a) Goods
b) Cash
c) LIC policy
d) Buildings
Answer:
a) Goods

Question 4.
………………….. Goods owned and possessed by the seller at the time of contract of sale.
a) Existing
b) Future
c) Un ascertained
d) All of these
Answer:
a) Existing

Question 5.
…………………….. goods denote goods identified and agreed upon at the time of contract of sale
a) Future
b) Specific
c) Generic
d) NOTA
Answer:
b) Specific

Question 6.
Which of the following excluded from goods?
a) Crops
b) Money
c) Claims
d) Stocks and Share
Answer:
b) money

Question 7.
…………………… contract is Sale under Sale of Goods Act:
a) Executed
b) Executory
c) Executable
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) Executed

Question 8.
……………….. represents a stipulation which is collateral to the main purpose of the contract
a) Warranty
b) Condition
c) Valid
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Warranty

Question 9.
Monetary consideration for the goods sold is called ……………………
a) Price
b) Product
c) Goodwill
d) Sales
Answer:
a) Price

Question 10.
Choose the correct statement:
i) Condition is a stipulation is essential to the main purpose of the contract of sale.
ii) Warranty is a stipulation is a collateral to the main purpose of the contract of sale.
iii) There must be three parties to a contract of sale.
a) All the three are correct
b) All the three are incorrect
c) (i) and (ii) are correct
d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
c) (i) and (ii) are correct

II. Match

Question 1.

a) (i) – 4 (ii) – 3 (iii) – 2 (iv) – 1
b) (i) – 4 (ii) – 2 (iii) – 3 (iv) – 1
c) (i) – 4 (ii) – 3 (iii) – 1 (iv) – 2
d) (i) – 3 (ii) – 4 . (iii) – 2 (iv) – 1
Answer:
a) (i) – 4 (ii) – 3 (iii) – 2 (iv) – 1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : A contract of sale involves two parties. The seller and the Buyer,
Reason (R) : The Buyer and seller should be two different persons.
a) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) and (R) are False.
c) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
d) (A) is true and (R) is false.
Answer:
a) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Discuss in detail the right of an unpaid seller against the Buyer personally.
Answer:
i) Suit for price:
The seller can sue against the buyer for the price when the ownership of goods has passed to the buyer and he refuses to pay for the goods.

ii) Suit for damages for non-acceptance:
Where the buyer willfully refuses to accept the goods, the seller can sue him for damages for non-acceptance of the goods.

iii) Suit for cancellation of contract: [Before Due Date]
The seller can sue against the buyer when the buyer cancels the contract before the date of delivery (Due date).

V. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Discuss in detail the rights of an unpaid seller against the goods.
Answer:
Right to Lien:

• He must be in possession of goods.
• The goods must have been sold on credit [No stipulation]
• It must be remembered that the right of lien depends on the actual possession.

Circumstances under which the right of lien is lost:

• When the seller delivers the goods to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer without reserving the right of disposal.
• The buyer took delivery from the carrier. (Booking office)
• When the seller waives his right of lien.

Right to Stoppage in Transit:

• Goods are delivered to carrier or bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer, but the buyer has not acquired them, the seller can stop the goods and regain the possession.

Termination of Right of stoppage:

• The right to stop the goods comes to an end when goods are delivered to the buyer or his agent of the carrier intimates that he is holding the goods on his behalf.

Right to Resale:

• The unpaid seller can resell the goods.
• Where they are of perishable nature.
• The seller has reserved the right to resale in the contract.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 20 Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 20 Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization

12th Commerce Guide Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers
Question 1.
……………………….. is the result of New Industrial Policy which abolished the ‘License System’
a) Globalisation
b) Privatisation
c) Liberalisation
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Liberalisation

Question 2.
………….. means permitting the private sector to setup industries which were previously reserved for public sector.
a) Liberalization
b) Privatization
c) Globalization
d) Public enterprise
Answer:
b) Privatization

Question 3.
…………….. Ownership makes bold management decisions due to their strong foundation in the international level.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Corporate
d) MNCS
Answer:
a) Private

Question 4.
………….. results from the removal of barriers between national economies to encourage the flow of goods, services, capital and labour.
a) Privatization
b) Liberalization
c) Globalization
d) Foreign trade
Answer:
c) Globalization

Question 5.
New Economic Policy was introduced in the year ……….
a) 1980
b) 1991
c) 2013
d) 2015
Answer:
b) 1991

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the branches of new Economic policy
Answer:
There are three dimensions of New Economic Policy.
They are explained as:

1. Liberalization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization

Question 2.
What is privatization?
Answer:

• Public sector units sold to the private sector
• Privatization means permitting the private sector to set up industries which already run by the government.

Question 3.
Mention any two disadvantages of liberalization. [ILU]
Answer:
Disadvantages of Liberalisation:

1. Increase in unemployment
2. Loss to domestic units
3. Increased dependence on foreign nations
4. Unbalanced development

Question 4.
Name the industries which are reserved for the public sector. [AMMA]
Answer:

• Arms and ammunition
• Mineral oils
• Mining ore
• Atomic energy

Question 5.
Give any two advantages of globalization. [TIERI]
Answer:

• Increase in foreign collaboration
• Expansion of market
• Technological development
• Reduction in brain drain

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by liberalisation?
Answer:

• Liberalisation means the laws and rules liberalized or relaxed by the Government
• It means relaxation of various Government restrictions in the areas of social and economic policies in order to make the economics free to enter the market and establish their venture [Business] in the country.

Question 2.
What is meant by Public Sector Units (PSUs)?
Answer:

• A public sector undertaking known as PSU is a company in which the majority of the state is owned by the Government.
• Depending upon where it is owned by Central Government or State Government we call them as central PSU or State PSU.

Question 3.
State any three impacts on globalization. [MGR]
Answer:
Impact of Globalization:

1. Corporations got a competitive advantage from lower operating costs and access to new raw materials and additional markets.
2. Multinational corporations (MNCs) can manufacture, buy and sell goods worldwide.
3. Globalisation has led to a boom in the consumer products market.

Question 4.
Write a short note on New Economic Policy.
Answer:

• India agreed on the conditions of IBRD [World bank] and IMF and announced New Economic Policy [NEP] Which consists of a wide range of economic reforms.
• This new set of economic reforms is commonly known as LPG.
• Liberalization – Relaxation of laws and rules by the Government
• Privatization – PSUs sold to the private sector.
• Globalization – Integration of domestic economy with the world economy.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the Advantages and Disadvantages of Liberalization.
Answer:
Advantages:
Control over price: ’[he removal of Tariff Barriers can lead to lower prices for consumers and benefit
Reduction in external borrowing: It reduces the dependence on external – Commercial borrowings by attracting more FDls.
Increase in Consumption: It increases the number of goods available for consumption within a country due to an increase in production.

Disadvantages (ILU)
Increased dependence on Foreign Countries:

• It will face greater competition from abroad.
• When completion is not automatically enhanced, it can lead to domination by big institutions that has market controlling powers.

Loss to domestic units:
Because of liberalisation more foreign companies entered the market, its threats and make loss to the domestic units.

Unemployment (Increased):

• It leads to shifts in the balance of an economy.
• Some industries grow, some decline.
• Because of declining of some industries creates unemployment.

Question 2.
Explain the Impact of LPG on the Indian Economy.
Answer:
Impact of Liberalisation:

1. Liberalization has opened up new business opportunities abroad and increased foreign direct investment.
2. Newmarket for various goods came into existence and resulted not only in urban but also in rural development.
3. It became very easy to obtain loans from banks for business expansion.

Impact of Privatisation:

1. Privatization has a positive impact on financial growth by decreasing deficits and debts.
2. Increase in the efficiency of government undertakings.
3. Provide better goods and services to the consumers.

Impact of Globalization:

1. Multinational corporations can manufacture, buy and sell goods worldwide.
2. Globalization has led to a boom in the consumer products market.
3. The advent of foreign companies and growth in the economy has led to job creation.

12th Commerce Guide Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
It is a situation in which a country loses its most educated and talented workers to other countries is known as
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Foreign trade
(c) Brain Drain
(d) Nationalisation
Answer:
(c) Brain Drain

Question 2.
………………….. is the incidence or process of transferring ownership of a business enterprise from the Government to the private sector.
a) Nationalization
b) Globalization
c) Liberalization
d) Privatization
Answer:
d) Privatization

Question 3.
refers to laws or rules being liberalised or relaxed by a government.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Nationalisation
(d) Foreign Collaboration
Answer:
(a) Liberalisation

Question 4.
………………… Considered as the architect of Indian Economic Reforms.
a) Dr. Manmohan Singh
b) Dr. Ambedkar
c) Dr. MGR
d) Dr.Munshi
Answer:
a) Dr. Manmohan singh

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched:
a) FDI – Foreign direct investment
b) TRIPS – Trade-related intellectual property rights
c) GATS – General agreement on trade-in service
d) PSU – Public state units
Answer:
d) PSU – Public state units

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
a) BALCO
b) IPCL
c) MFIL
d) CDP
Answer:
d) CDP

Question 7.
Pick out the correct statements.
i. India agreed to the conditions of IBRD and IMF and announced the NEP which consists of a wide range of economic reforms
ii. Privatization has a positive impact on financial growth by decreasing deficits and debts.
iii. Globalization has led to a boom in the consumer products market
a) (i) is correct
b) (ii) is correct
c) (iii) is correct
d) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
Answer:
d) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct

II. Match the following.

Question 1.

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-4, ii-3 iii-1, iv-2
c) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
d) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3
Answer:
a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Many PSU were sold to the private sector
Reason (R): Due to PSU was running in losses.
a) (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) and (R) are incorrect (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) and (R) are correct (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
d) (A) and (R) are not correct (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation means the interaction and integration of the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, and production.

Question 2.
Forms of privatization (MSC):
Answer:
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

• It was introduced in 1991 to raise the productivity and performance of PSUs.
• The main work of MOU is to judge the PSUs and level their performance.

Sale of PSU shares to private sector:

• Indian Government started selling of shares of PSUs to private sector.
• The private sector share increased from 45% to 55% in the year 2011

Contraction of PSUs:
The number of industries reserved for PSU was reduced from 17 to only 8 industries.

Question 3.
Forms of Globalisation (FREE)
Answer:
Foreign Trade policy:
India has signed in many agreements to expand Indian trade worldwide and such agreements are TRIPS – GATS etc.

Reduction in tariffs:
To attract Global investors, tariffs imposed on imports and exports are reduced.

Export promotion:
Globalization promotes Export by reducing tariffs and simplifying trade procedures.

Encouraging open competition:
Domestic companies start their operations at the international level and therefore there is an open competition.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the Highlights? LPG? (SOFI) [MD]
Answer:

• Steps to regulate inflation.
• Opportunities for overseas trade
• Foreign Investments (FDI & FII)
• Introduction of Foreign Trade Agreement
• MRTP Act 1969 (Amended)
• Deregulation

Question 2.
What are the Advantage and Disadvantages of Privatisation?
Answer:
Advantages: (RIP)

• Reduction in the economic burden of Government: Ownership of PSUs transferred to the private sector reduces the burden of the Government.
• Increase in efficiency: Privatisation is associated with improved efficiency due to the profit incentive.
• Professional Management: Private ownership makes bold management decisions due to its strong foundation at the international level.

Disadvantages: (LIP)

• Lack of welfare: Private concern’s main motive is profit and they do not give importance to public welfare.
• Ignores weaker sections: It ignores the public services to weaker sections.
• Political pressure: When it fails to deliver, the public has no right to intervene and Government does not always have the time or expertise to force them to keep its promises.

Question 3.
Explain the highlights of LPG policy.
Answer:
The salient highlights of the Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation Policy in India:

1. Introduction of New Foreign Trade Agreements
2. Foreign Investment (FDI and FII)
3. MRTP Act, 1969 (Amended)
4. Deregulation
5. Opportunities for overseas trade
6. Tax reforms
7. Abolition of License

Question 4.
Explain the concept of Privatization.
Answer:

• Privatization is the incidence or process of transferring ownership of a business enterprise, Agency, PSU from the Government to the private sector.
• PSU sold to the private sector. [HZL-IPCL- MUL]
• The main reason for privatization was that PSUs were running in losses due to mismanagement and political interference.

Question 5.
What are the advantages of disinvestment?
Answer:

• To achieve a greater inflow of private capital
• To sell PSUs which had been running in loss
• To force the companies to become more efficient and survive.
• To increase the overall economic activity.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 19 Environmental Factors Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 19 Environmental Factors

12th Commerce Guide Environmental Factors Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
VUCA Stands for ………….
a) Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity and Ambiguity
b) Value, Unavoidable, Company and Authority
c) Volatility, Uncontrollable, Company and Auction.
d) All of the above
Answer:
a) Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity and Ambiguity

Question 2.
GST stands for ………..
a) Goods and social tax
b) Goods and service tax
c) Goods and sales tax
d) Goods and salary tax
Answer:
b) Goods and service tax

Question 3.
Factors within an organization constitutes ………… environment.
a) Internal Thinker
b) External Thinker
c) Fellow human beings
d) All of the above
Answer:
a) Internal Thinker

Question 4.
The two major types of business environment are and …………
a) Positive and Negative
b) Internal and External
c) Good and Bad
d) Allowable and Un allowable
Answer:
b) Internal & External

Question 5.
…………….. Environment includes weather and climatic conditions.
a) Micro
b) Macro
c) Minimum
d) Maximum
Answer:
b) Macro

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Business environment.
Answer:
According to Bayard O Wheeler, the Business environment is “the total of all things external to firms and industries which affect their organisation and operations”.

Question 2.
What is Internal Environment?
Answer:

• Internal Environment refers to those factors within an organization
• (eg) Policies- organizational structure- Programmes – Employees [POPE]
• It can be controlled and changed
• It is known as controllable factors.

Question 3.
Give the meaning of corporate governance.
Answer:
Corporate governance is a set of rules and policies which govern a company. It provides a framework for managing a company and achieving its objectives.

Question 4.
What is GST?
Answer:

• Goods and services tax [GST] is an indirect tax levied on goods and services across the country.
• It is a comprehensive, multi-stage destination-based tax that is levied on every value addition.
  • Uncertainty
  • Complexity
  • Ambiguity

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the political environment factors?
Answer:

•  Framework for running a business is given by the political and legal environment
•  The legislative, executive and judiciary are the three political institutions which direct and influence a business
• Political stability is reflected by the following parameters like election system, law and order situations, military, police force, civil war etc.
• The image of the leader and the country in the international area.
• Legal framework of business and their degree of flexibility
• The constitution of the nation

Question 2.
Write about any three internal environmental factors of business?
Answer:
Values system:

•  The values of the owner (founder) of the business, percolates down to the entire organization.
•  External associates like suppliers and distributors consider the value system practiced by an organization with a strong culture of ethical standards and values.

Vision and objectives:
The vision and objectives of a business guide its operations and strategic decisions.

Management structure and nature:
The structure of management (Board) and their style of functioning, the professionalism of management, the composition of the board are the various factors which affects the decision making.

Human resource:
The success of an enterprise is solely dependent on the quality, skill competency, right attitude and commitment of its human resources.

Question 3.
State the framework of Corporate Governance in India.
Answer:
The Indian Corporate Governance framework requires listed companies:

1. to have independent directors on the board. At least one-third of the directors have to be independent directors.
2. to have at least one independent woman director.
3. to disclose all deals and payments to related parties.
4. to disclose details of managerial compensation.

Question 4.
What are the functions of the GST council?
Answer:

• The tax cases and surcharges levied by the union, the state, and local bodies may be subsumed in the GST.
• The goods and services that may be subjected to, or exempted from the GST.
• The threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from the GST.
• The rates including floor rates with bands of the GST.
• Any special rates for a specified period, to raise additional resources during any natural calamity or disaster.
• Any other matters relating to the GST, as the council may decide.

Question 5.
What do you know about the technological environment?
Answer:
The development in IT and telecommunications has created a global market. Technology is widely used in conducting market research for understanding the special needs of the customer. This dynamic environment also includes the following:

1. the level of technology available within the country
2. rate of change in technology
3. the technology adopted by competitors
4. technological obsolescence

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the role of the macro Environment of Business.
Answer:
This is the general or overall environment in which the business operates. The success of a business is dependent on its ability to adapt to the macro environment.
Role of Macro-environment:

1. Business is an integral part of the economic system prevalent in a nation.
2. Business is a part of society. Social environment refers to the sum total of factors of the society in which the business is located.
3. The success of a business lies in its ability to adapt and sustain political and legal changes.
4. The legislative, executive, and judiciary are the three political institutions which direct, and influence a business.
5. The natural, geographical and ecological factors have a bearing on the business.

Question 2.
Describe the economic environment of business.
Answer:
Economic Environment:
Business is an integral part of the economic system prevalent in a country
The multiple variables in the macro-environment system which has a bearing on business include:

• The nature of the economy based on the stage of development and categorized on the basis of growth and per capita income as a developed country (USA) Developing country (India) and underdeveloped country, (Somalia)
• The nature of economic systems can be classified as a capitalistic, socialistic and mixed economy.
• Monetary policy, fiscal policy, industrial policy, trade policy, export-import policy etc. are the economic environment.
• The economic indices like GDP.GNP, National income, per capita income etc are an important part of it.
• The organization and development of the monkey market, capital market securities market and, the banking system have a greater impact.
• The Economic structure includes capital formation, investment pattern, the composition of the trade balance, occupational distribution of the workforce, and the structure of the national output.

Question 3.
Explain the micro Environmental factors of the business.
Answer:
Microenvironmental factors are those, which are in the immediate environment of a business affecting its performance. These include the following:

1. Suppliers: In any organisation the suppliers of raw materials and other inputs play a vital role. Timely procurement of materials from suppliers enables continuity in production and reduces the cost of production.
2. Customers: The aim of any business is to satisfy the needs of its customers. The customer is the king of the business.
3. Competitors: All organisations face competition at all levels local, national and global. Competitors maybe for the same product or for similar products.
4. Financiers: The financiers of a business includes the debenture holders and financial
   institutions.
5. Marketing Channel members: The marketing intermediaries serve as a connecting link between the business and its customers. The middlemen like dealers, wholesalers, and retailers ensure the transfer of products to customers.

12th Commerce Guide Environmental Factors Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
…………………… Environment refers to those factors within an organization.
a) External
b) Internal
c) Micro
d) Macro
Answer:
b) Internal

Question 2.
…………………. Environment refers to those factors outside the business
a) Internal
b) External
c) Technological
d) Geophysical
Answer:
b) External

Question 3.
Suppliers, customers, Competitors, financiers, channel members and the public are ………………. Environmental factors.
a) Macro
b) Micro
c) Social
d) logical
Answer:
b) Micro

Question 4.
Economic, Socio-cultural, political and legal, Geophysical Ecological, Technological and global are …………… Environmental factors
a) Micro
b) Minimum
c) Macro
d) Maximum
Answer:
c) Macro

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out.
a) Economical factor
b) Ecological factor
c) Political factor
d) Suppliers
Answer:
d) Suppliers

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out.
a) customers
b) Competitors
c) financiers
d) Socio-cultural
Answer:
d) Socio-cultural

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched:
a) V – Volatility
b) C – Complexity
c) A – Ambiguity
d) U – Uncontrollability
Answer:
d) U – Uncontrollability

Question 8.
The size and composition of the population is part of …………. environment.
a) Socio-cultural
b) Economical
c) Ecological
d) Natural
Answer:
a) Socio-cultural

Question 9.
GST is a.
a) Direct Tax
b) Indirect Tax
c) Income Tax
d) Local Tax
Answer:
b) Indirect Tax

Question 10.
Export-Import policy is related to which business environment?
a) Economic environment
b) Socio-cultural environment
c) Political – legal environment
d) Technological environment
Answer:
a) Economic environment

II. Match the following.
Question 1.

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-4, ii-2 iii-3, iv-1
c) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
d) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3
Answer:
a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

Question 2.

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-1, ii-2 iii-3, iv-4
c) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
d) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

III. Assertion and Reason
Question 1.
Assertion (A) : All organizations face competition at all levels local, national and global.
Reason (R) : The business has to understand its competition and modify its business.
a) (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) and (R) are incorrect
d) (A) correct and (R) incorrect
Answer:
a) (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Social – Cultural environment?
Answer:
Business is a part of society. Social environment refers to the sum total of factors of the society in which the business is located. It affects the business.

Question 2.
What is environmental scanning?
Answer:

• Environment scanning is the gathering of information from an organization.
• Internal and external environments and careful monitoring of these environments to identify future threats and opportunities.

Question 3.
What is a mixed economy?
Answer:

• The mixed economy is a combination of both public sector and private sector ownership
• It is a combination of both capitalism and socialism.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the kinds of GST:
Answer:
Central goods and services tax: [CGST]

It is collected by the central government on an intra- nation sale.
[eg] Transactions happening in any states within India.

State goods and services tax: [SGST]
It is collected by the State government on an intra-state sale, [eg] Transactions happening within Tamilnadu.

Integrated goods and services tax: [IGST]
It is collected by the central government on an inter-state sale, [eg] Transactions happening between TamilNadu and Kerala

Union territory goods and services tax: [UGST]
It is collected by the Union territories [eg] Transactions happening within Pondichery

Question 2.
What are the microenvironment factors?
Answer:
Microenvironment factors refer to those factors which are in the immediate environment of a business affecting its performance.
It includes:

• Suppliers
• Customers
• Competitors
• Financiers
• Marketing Channel members
• Public

Question 3.
Write a note on the future environment of business.
Answer:

• The future environment of business in this age of rapid technological advancement has been captured in VUCA
• Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity, and Ambiguity
• It is now important for every business to meet the challenges posed by the environment in order to remain competitive.
• The uncertain conditions and situations require a firm to be prepared to face the volatility by planning
• In a VUCA environment, a firm has to be forward-looking anticipating the change, adaptability will remain essential for the success of business in an ambiguous, uncertain environment.

VI. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Discuss the significance of understanding the business environment and the internal factors affecting business.
Answer:
Significance:

• Helps in formulating strategy and future planning
• Enables to identify the opportunities available
• Environmental scanning
• Business aids
• Public image

Internal factors affecting business:

• Values system
• Vision and objectives
• Management structure and nature
• Internal power relations [human resource]
• Company image
• Other factors- structure- network- physical -resources.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 18 Grievance Redressal Mechanism Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 18 Grievance Redressal Mechanism

12th Commerce Guide Grievance Redressal Mechanism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
The Chairman of the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Council is ……….
a) Serving or retired judge of the supreme court of India.
b) Prime Minister
c) President of India
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Serving or Retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India

Question 2.
The chairman of the state consumer protection council is ……….
a) Judge of a high court
b) Chief minister
c) Finance minister
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Judge of a high court

Question 4.
The state commission can entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services and the compensation if any claimed exceed
a) X 2 Lakhs but does not exceed X 5 Lakhs
b) X 20 Lakhs but does not exceed X 1 crore
c) X 3 Lakhs but does not exceed X 5 Lakhs
d) X 4 Lakhs but does not exceed X 20 Lakhs
Answer:
b) X 20 Lakhs but does not exceed X 1 crore

Question 5.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of goods services complained against and the compensation if any claimed is
a) Exceeding X 1 crore
b) Exceeding X 10 lakhs
c) Exceeding X 5 lakhs
d) Exceeding X 12 lakhs
Answer:
a) Exceeding X 1 crore

Question 6.
The district forum can entertain complaints where the value of goods or services and the compensation, if any, claimed is less than
a) Below X 10,00,000
b) Below X 20,00,000
c) Below X 40,00,000
d) Below X 50,00,000
Answer:
b) Below X 20,00,000

Question 7.
The International Organization of Consumers Unions (IOCU) was first established in
a) 1960
b) 1965
c) 1967
d) 1987
Answer:
a) 1960

Question 8.
Consumer awareness covers the following:
a) Consumer awareness about Maximum Retail Price (MRP)
b) Consumer awareness about Fair Price Shop
c) Consumer awareness about price, quality, and expiry date of the product
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

Question 9.
Complaints can also be filed by the
a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) A group of consumers
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

Question 10.
A consumer has to be protected against
a) Defects of product
b)Deficiencies of product
c) Unfair and restrictive trade practices
d)All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by the Redressal mechanism?
Answer:
Exploitation is common where consumers are unaware of their rights and privileges. The government has also taken necessary steps to save the Consumers. It is in this context grievance redressal mechanism becomes important.

Question 2.
What do you know about the National Commission?
Answer:

• The National Consumer Dispute Redressal commission [NCDRC] is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in the year 1988.
• Its head office is in New Delhi
• It is headed by a serving or retired judge of the supreme court of India
• It is also called as National commission.

Question 3.
State the meaning of the term State Commission.
Answer:
The State Commission is to be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the Centre. The State Consumer Protection Council is also called State Commission.

Question 4.
What is the term district forum?
Answer:

• The district forum is appointed by State Government in each district
• It is headed by a district judge or a person who is qualified to be a judge.
• The District Consumer Disputes Redressal forum is also called as district forum

Question 5.
How to register the complaints?
Answer:
A complaint can be filed by a complainant against the seller, manufacturer, or dealer of goods which are defective or against the provider of services.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Is consumer protection necessary? Why?
Answer:

• Yes. consumer protection is necessary Because
• The consumers are often exploited through duplication, Adulteration, Substandard, etc.
• They are ignorant and illiterate and do not know their rights.
• So that, the consumer must be protected.

Question 2.
Who are the members of the national commission?
Answer:

• It consists of 5 members [1+4]
• 1 President- Judge or retired judge of the supreme court.
• 4 Members -who shall be the persons of Integrity- Ability-Standing [one shall be a woman] – They shall have knowledge in the fields of [PALACE] Public affairs-Administration-Law- Accountancy-Commerce-Economics.

Question 3.
What is the pecuniary jurisdiction of the state commission?
Answer:
The Jurisdiction of the State Commission is as follows:

1. The State Commission can entertain complaints within the territory of the entire state and the compensation if any claimed exceed Rs. 20 lakhs and below Rupees One Crore.
2. The State Commission also has the jurisdiction to entertain appeals against the orders of any District Forum within the State.

Question 4.
Who are the members of the state commission?
Answer:
i) A person who is or has been a Judge of a High Court appointed by the State Government as its president
ii) Two other members who shall be persons of ability, integrity, and standing and have adequate knowledge or experience of or have shown capacity in dealing with problems relating to economics, law, commerce, industry, public affairs or administration of them, one shall be a woman.

Question 5.
Write a note on the voluntary consumer organizations [VCO]
Answer:
Voluntary consumer organisations refer to the organisation formed voluntarily by the consumers to protect their rights and interests.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the overall performance of the National Commission.
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the overall performance of the State Commission.
Answer:

Question 3.
Who can make a complaint?
Answer:
There are certain persons eligible to make a complaint.
They are as follows:

1. A consumer as defined under Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
2. A registered Voluntary Consumer Association.
3. Central Government.
4. State Govemment / Union Territory.
5. Consumers having a common problem.

12th Commerce Guide Grievance Redressal Mechanism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
The number of members in district forum, state commission, and national commission is
a) 3, 3, 5
b) 5, 3, 3
c) 3, 5, 3
d) 3, 3, 7
Answer:
a) 3, 3, 5

Question 2.
The chairman of the national commission is
a) Judge or retired judge of the supreme court
b) Judge or retired judge of the high court
c) the District judge
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Judge or retired judge of the supreme court

Question 3.
The president of the District forum is
a) District judge
b) District judge or qualified to be a District judge
c) retired District Judge
d) All of these
Answer:
b) District judge or qualified to be a District judge

Question 4.
Pick the odd one out.
a) State consumer Disputes Redressal commission
b) National consumer Dispute Redressal commission
c) District forum
d) International Organization of Consumers Union
Answer:
d) International Organization of Consumers Union

Question 5.
Choose the correct statement.
i) A customer is the most important on our premises
ii) He is not dependent on us we are dependent on him.
iii) He is not an outsider of our business. He is a part of it
a) (i) is correct
b) (ii) is correct
c) (iii) is correct
d) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
d) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 6.
NCDRC at the apex is situated at
a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
d) Chennai
Answer:
a) New Delhi

Question 7.
Consumer welfare fund is operated by
a) Department of consumer affairs
b) District forum
c) State Government
d) Central Government
Answer:
a) Department of consumer affairs

Question 8.
Who is the chairman of the state commission?
a) Chief minister
b) Governor
c) Judge or retired judge of High court
d) NOTA
Answer:
c) Judge or retired judge of High court

Question 9.
The main objective of all business enterprises is
a) Providing service
b) providing a better standard of life
c) Providing, necessaries to the society
d) Earn profit
Answer:
d) Earn profit

Question 10.
Document of title to the goods excludes…………
a) Lorry Receipt
b) Railway Receipt
c) Airway Bill
d) Invoice
Answer:
d) Invoice

II. Match the following.

Question 1.

a) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
b) i-2, ii-4 iii-1, iv-3
c) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
d) i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1
Answer:
a) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3

Question 2.

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-3, ii-2 iii-1, iv-4
c) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
d) i-1, ii-4, iii-3, iv-2
Answer:
a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

III. Assertion and Reason
Question 1.
Assertion (A): The state commissions jurisdiction may be original appellate or revision
Reason (R): It may reverse or confirm the orders passed by the district forum
a) (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) and (R) are not correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) and (R) are trued) (A) is false (R) is not correct
Answer:
a) (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
When the complaints can be made?
Answer:

• Loss or damages is caused to the consumer due to the unfair trade practice of a trader.
• If the articles purchased by a consumer are defective.
• If the services availed by a consumer suffer from any deficiency.
• When the price paid by a consumer is in excess of the price displayed on the goods.
• Goods which will be hazardous and dangerous to life and safety when used will be affected.

Question 2.
Who can make complaints?
Answer:

• An aggrieved consumer or by his authorized agent. VCO
• State Government or Central Government
• Group of consumers having the same interest.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
(How can) Steps involving in filing complaint?
Answer:

• The consumer has to collect and keep ready all the evidence needed.
• The mere allegation is not proof.
• Some documentary evidence or witness is needed.
• Details like the name and address of the consumer and the seller
• Action expected from the company
• A written complaint containing the details referred should be kept ready.

Question 2.
What are the particulars that should be furnished along with the complaint?
Answer:

• Name and address of the complainant
• Name and address of the opposite party
• The facts relating to complaint and when (date) and where (place) it arose.
• Amount paid for the goods or services
• The relief which the complainant claims
• All the relevant documents such as invoice, cash receipt, delivery note, guarantee card etc. should be exhibited in the forum.

Question 3.
What is the relief can a consumer claim?
Answer:

• To rectify the goods
• To refund the amount received
• To stop unfair trade practice.

Question 4.
What did Mahatma Gandhi say about the customer?
Answer:

• A customer is the most important visitor on our premises.
• He is not dependent on us. We are dependent on him.
• He is not an interruption of our work. He is the purpose of it.
• He is not an outsider of our business. He is a part of it.
• We are not doing him a favour by serving him. He is doing us a favour by giving us an opportunity to do so.

Question 5.
Does the district forum exceed the claim limit of 20 lakhs? Explain the condition.
Answer:

• No. The district forum does not exceed the claim limit of 20 lakhs.
• It can entertain the claim limit of below 20 lakhs.
• If it exceeds the limit, it should be sent to the state commission.

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the term District Forum and explain the functions of District Forum.
Answer:

Question 2.
How to create consumer awareness?
Answer:

• Create consumer awareness through periodicals Exhibitions, Meetings, Demonstrations through radio and TV.
• To arrange conferences and seminars and workshops.
• To provide special consumer education to women.
• To educate consumers to help themselves.
• Organizing protests against Adulteration.
• Promoting network of consumer Association.
• Extending support to the government.
• Advice the educational institutions on the way to prepare courses of study about consumer education.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids

12th Chemistry Guide Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I Text Book Evaluation

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The correct structure of the product tAt formed in the reaction (NEET)


Answer:

Question 2.
The formation of cyanohydrin from acetone is an example of
a) nucleophilic substitution
b) electrophilic substitution
c) electrophilic addition
d) Nucleophilic addition
Answer:
d) Nucleophilic addition

Question 3.
Reaction of acetone with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic
addition followed by elimination of water. The reagent is
a) Grignard reagent
b) Sn / Hcl
c) hvdrazine in presence of slightly acidic solution
d) hvdrocvanic acid
Answer:
c) hydrazine in presence of slightly acidic solution

Question 4.
In the following reaction,

a) Tollens test
b) Victor meyer test
c) lodoform test
d) Fehiing solution test
Answer:
b) Victor meyer test

(X) reduces Tollens reagent and Fehling solution and it also answers iodoform test.

Question 5.

a) Formaldelyde
b) di acetone ammonia
c) hexamethvlene tetraamine
d) oxime
Answer:
c) hexamethylene tetraarnine
X – HCHO Y — (CH₂)₆ N₄

Question 6.
Predict the product Z in the following series of reactions

a) (CH₃)₂C(OH)C₆H₅
b) CH₃CH(OH)C₆H₅
c) CH₃CH(OH)CH₂-CH₃

Answer:
a) (CH₃)₂C(OH)C₆H₅

Question 7.
Assertion: 2,2 – dimethyl propanoic acid does not give HVZ reaction.
Reason: 2 – 2, dimethyl propanoic acid does not have a – hydrogen atom
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false
d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

Question 8.
Which of the following represents the correct order of acidity in the given compounds
a) FCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH> BrCH₂COOH> ClCH₂COOH
b) FCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH> BrCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH
c) CH₃COOH > C1CH₂COOH > FCH₂COOH> Br-CH₂COOH
d) ClCH₂COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH₂COOH> ICH₂COOH
Answer:
a) FCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH> BrCH₂COOH> ClCH₂COOH
Solution:
I effect increases the acidity. If electronegativity is high, – I effect is also high.

Question 9.
Benzoic acid
a) anilinium chloride
b) 0- nitro aniline
c) benzene diazonium chloride
d) m – nitro ben.zoic acid
Answer:
c) benzene diazonium chloride
Solution:

Question 10.
Ethanoic acid 2 – bromoethanoic acid. This reaction is called
a) Finkeistein reaction
b) Haloform reaction
c) Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky reaction
d) none of these
Answer:
c) Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky reaction

Question 11.

a) acetyichioride
b) chioro acetic acid
c) α- chiorocyano ethanoic acid
d) none of these
Answer:
a) acetyichioride
Solution:

Question 12.
Which one of the following reduces Tollens reagent
a) formic acid
b) acetic acid
c) benzophenone
d) none of these
Answer:
a) formic acid

Question 13.


Answer:

Solution:

Question 14.
The IUPAC name of
a) buy- 3- enoicacid
b) but – 1- ene-4-oicacid
c) hut – 2- ene-1-oic acid
d) but -3-ene-1-oicacicf
Answer:
a) but – 3- enoicacid
Solution:

Question 15.
Identify the product formed in the reaction

Answer:

Solution:

group is reduced to CH₂ – (Wolff – kishner reduction)

Question 16.
In which case chiral carbon is not generated by reaction with HCN

Answer:

Solution:

Question 17.
Assertion : p – N, N – dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde undergoes benzoin condensation
Reason : The aldehydic (-CHO) group is meta directing
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false
d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Solution:

Question 18.
Which one of the following reaction is an example of disproportionation reaction
a) Aldol condensation
b) cannizaro reaction
c) Benzoin condensation
d) none of these
Answer:
b) cannizaro reaction
Solution:

Question 19.
Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to give the corresponding alcohol and acid
a) Phenylmethanal
b) ethanal
c) ethanol
d) methanol
Answer:
a) Phenylmethanal

Question 20.
The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is
a) Tollens reagent
b) Fehling’s solution
c) 2,4 – dinitrophenyl hydrazine
d) semicarbazide
Answer:
b) Fehling’s solution

Question 21.
Phenyl methanal is reacted with concentrated NaOH to give two products X and Y. X reacts with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen X and Y are
a) sodiumbenzoate and phenol
b) Sodium benzoate and phenyl methanol
c) phenyl methanol and sodium benzoate
d) none of these
Answer:
c) phenyl methanol and sodium benzoate
Solution:

Question 22.
In which of the following reactions new carbon – carbon bond is not formed?
a) Aldol condensation
b) Friedel craft reaction
c) Kolbe’s reaction
d) Wolf kishner reduction
Answer:
d) Wolf kishner reduction

Question 23.
Alkene “A” on reaction with O₃ and Zn – H₂O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product “B” is

Answer:

Solution:

Question 24.
Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their (NEET)
a) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
b) formation of carboxylate ion
c) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
d) formation of intermolecular H – bonding
Answer:
d) formation of intermolecular H – bonding

Question 25.
Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?

Answer:

Solution:

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
How is propanoic acid is prepared starting from
a) an alcohol
b) an alkylhalide
c) an alkene
Answer:

Question 2.
A Compound (A) with molecular formula C₂H₃N on acid hydrolysis gives(B) which reacts with thionyichioride to give compound(C). Benzene reacts with compound (C) in presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ to give cornpound(D). Compound (C) on reduction with gives (E). Identify (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) . Write the equations.


Answer:

Question 3.
Identify X and Y
Answer:

Question 4.
Identify A, B and C
Answer:

Question 5.
A hydrocarbon A(molecular formula C₈H₁₀) on ozonolysis gives B(C₄H₆O₂) only. Compound C(C₃H₅Br) on treatment with magnesium in dry ether gives (D) which on treatment with CO₂ followed by acidification gives (C). Identify A, B and C.
Solution:

Question 6.
Identify A, B, C and D

Answer:

Question 7.
An alkene (A) on ozonolysis gives propanone and aldehyde (B), When (B) is oxidised (C) isobtained. (C) is treated with Br₂/ P gives (D) which on hydrolysis gives (E). When propanone is treated with HCN followed by hydrolysis gives (E). Identify A, B, C, D and E.
Answer:
i) Compound (A) is the combination of propanone and (B)
∴ Structure of (A) is

Question 8.
How will you convert benzaldehyde into the following compounds?
(i) benzophenone
(ii) benzoic acid
(iii) a – hydroxyphenylaceticacid
Answer:

Question 9.
What is the action of HCN on
(i) propanone
(ii) 2, 4 – dichlorobenzaldehyde
(iii) ethanal
Answer:

Question 10.
A carbonyl compound A having molecular formula C5H10O forms crystalline predpitate
with sodium bisulphite and gives positive Iodoform test. A does not reduce Fehiing
Solution: Identify A.
Answer:

Question 11.
Write the structure of the major product of the aldol condensation of benzaldehyde with acetone
Answer:

Question 12.
How are the following conversions effected
(a) propanal into butanone
(b) Hex – 3 – yne into hexan – 3 – one
(c) phenylmethanal into benzoic acid
(d) phenylmethanal into benzoin
Answer:

Question 13.
Complete the following reaction

Answer:

Question 14.
Identify A, B and C Benzyl bromide A C NaCN

Answer:

Question 15.
Oxidation of ketones involves carbon – carbon bond clevage. Name the product (s) is / are formed on oxidising 2, 5 dimethylhexan – 2 – one using strong oxidising agent.
Answer:

• The reaction proceeds according to Popoff’s rule.
• Popoff’s rule states that during the oxidation of an unsymmetrical ketone, the (C-CO) bonds cleaved in such a way that the keto group stays with the smaller alkyl group.

Question 16.
How will you prepare
i) Acetic anhydride from acetic acid
ii) Ethyl acetate from methyl acetate
iii) Acetamide from methylcyanide
iv) Lactic acid from ethanol
v) Acetophenone from acetylchloride
vi) Ethane from sodium acetate
vii) Benzoic acid from toluene 13
viii) Malachite green from benzaldehyde
ix) Cinnamic acid from benzaldehyde
x) Acetaldehyde from ethyne
Answer:



The reaction proceeds according to Popoff’s rule.
Popoff’s rule states that during the oxidation of an unsymmetrical ketone, the (C-CO) bonds cleaved in such a way that the keto group stays with the smaller alkyl group.

III. Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
Write the IUPAC name for the following compound
Answer:

Question 2.
Write all possible structural isomers and position isomers for the ketone represented by the molecular formula C₅H₁₀O
Answer:

Question 3.
What happens when the following alkenes are subjected to reductive ozonolysis
1) Propene
2) 1-butene
3) Isobutylene

Question 4.
1) What happens when n-propyl benzene is oxidised using H+ / KMnO₄ ?
2) How will you prepare benzoic acid using Grignard reagent.
Answer:

Question 5.
Why acid anhydrides are preferred to acyl chlorides for carrying out acylation reactions?
Answer:
Acid anhydride are preferred to acyl chloride for carrying out acylation reactions. Because

1. Easily available
2. Cheap
3. Easy to prepare
4. Easily undergo acylation without irritating odours

12th Chemistry Guide Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids Additional Questions and Answers

Part – II – Additional Questions
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The aldehyde derived from vitamin B, which functions as a co-enzyme is
a) retinal
b) pyridoxal
c) cynacobalamin
d) calciferol
Answer:
b) pyridoxal

Question 2.
The IUPAC name of acrolein is
a) ethanal
b) but – 2 – enal
c) prop – 2 – enal
d) but – 1 – enal
Answer:
c) prop – 2 – enal

Question 3.
The IUPAC name of crotonaldehyde is
a) ethanal
b) but – 2 – enal
c) prop – 2 – enal
d) but – 1 enal
Answer:
b) but -2- enal

Question 4.
The IUPAC name of

a) 3-oxopentan – 5- al
b) 3 – oxopentanal
c) 1 – hydroxy – 3 – pentanone
d) 1 – ethylpropanone
Answer:
b) 3 – oxopentanal

Question 5.
The carbon atom of carbonyl group is ……………… hybridised
a) sp
b) sp²
c) sp³
d) dsp²
Answer:
b) sp²

Question 6.
2 – methyl but -2 – ene on ozonolysis gives
a) ethanal
b) propanone
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of the above
Answer:
c) both (a) & (b)

Question 7.
Which among the following on ozonlysis give only ethanal as the product?
a) 1 – butene
b) 2- butene
c) propene
d) ethene
Answer:
b) 2- butene

Question 8.
Which among the following on ozonlysis give only methanal as the product?
a) 1 – butene
b) 2- butene
c) propene
d) ethene
Answer:
d) ethene

Question 9.
Which among the following on ozonlysis give ethanal and methanal as products?
a) 1 – butene
b) 2- butene
c) propene
d) ethene
Answer:
c) propene

Question 10.
Which among the following on ozonolysis give propanal and methanal as products
a) 1 – butene
b) 2- butene
c) propene
d) ethene
Answer:
a) 1 – butene

Question 11.
The role of barium sulphate in Rosenmund reduction is
a) catalyst
b) reducing agent
c) catalytic poison
d) promoter
Answer:
c) catalytic poison

Question 12.
Which among the following can not be prepared by Rosenmund reduction
a) HCHO
b) CH₃CHO
c) C₂H₅CHO
d) C₆H₅CHO
Answer:
a) HCHO

Question 13.
The catalyst used in Stephen’s reaction is
a) Sn/HCl
b) ConcHCl/ anhy.ZnC₂
c) SnCl₂ HCl
d) Zn/ Hg / HCl
Answer:
c) SnCl₂ HCl

Question 14.
Acetyl chloride is converted into acetone by treatment with
a) Pd/BaSO ₄
b) (CH ₃) ₂Cd
c) SnCl ₂/HCl
d) Sn/HCl
Answer:
b) (CH ₃) ₂Cd

Question 15.
Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of reactivity for hydrolysis reaction.
(1) C₆H₅COCl


a) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3
b 2 > 4 > 1 > 1
c) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
d) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
Answer:
a) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3

Question 16.
The correct order of solubility in water is
a) HCHO < CH₃CHO < CH₃CH₂CHO
b) HCHO > CH₃CHO > CH₃CH₂CHO
c) HCHO < CH₃CHO > CH₃CH₂CHO
d) HCHO > CH₃CHO < CH₃CH₂CHO
Answer:
b) HCHO > CH₃CHO > CH₃CH₂CHO
Hint: Solubility decreases with increase in the length of alkyl chain.

Question 17.
In nucleophilic addition reactions, the hybridisation of carbonyl carbon changes from
a) sp to sp²
b) sp to sp³
c) sp² to sp³
d) sp³ to sp²
Answer:
c) sp² to sp³

Question 18.

A and B are respectively
a) 2-hydroxy propanenitrile, 2-hydroxv propanoic acid
b) 2- hydroxy propane nitrile, 2- hydroxy – 1- amino propane
c) 2 – hydroxy propane nitrile, lactic acid
d) acetaldehyde cyano hydrin, lactic acid
Answer:
b) 2- hydroxy propane nitrile, 2- hydroxy -1- amino propane

Question 19.
Carbonyl compounds can be easily separated and purified by reaction with
a) HCN
b) NH₂ – NH₂
c) NaHSO₃
d) NH₂OH
Answer:
c) NaHSO₃

Question 20.
When acetaldehyde is treated with 2 equivalent of methanol in presence of HC1, the product obtained is
a) 1-methoxy ethane
b) 2-methoxy ethane
c) 1,1 – dimethoxy ethane
d) 1, 2 – dimethoxy ethane
Answer:
c) 1,1 – dimethoxy ethane

Question 21.
When hydroxyl amine is added to a carbonyl compound, the product obtained is
a) hydrazone
b) semi carbazone
c) carboxylic acid
d) oxime
Answer:
d) oxime

Question 22.
Aliphatic aldehyde which does not form an aldimine with an ethereal solution of ammonia is
a) methanal
b) ethanal
c) propanal
d) butanal
Answer:
a) methanal

Question 23.
Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form
a) aldimine
b) diacetone amine
c) hexamethylene tetramine
d) formaldehyde ammonia
Answer:
c) hexamethylene tetramine

Question 24.
Hexamethylene tetramine is also known as
a) Aldimine
b) Urotropine
c) Cyclonite
d) RDX
Answer:
b) Urotropine

Question 25.
Benzaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form
a) benzamide
b) hydrobenzamide
c) urotropine
d) aldimine
Answer:
b) hydrobenzamide

Question 26.
Acetone on oxidation with cone. HNO₃ gives
a) formic acid
b) acetic acid
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of the above
Answer:
c) both (a) & (b)

Question 27.
The general order of reactivity of carbonyl compounds towards nucleophilic addition reaction is
a) HCHO > RCHO > C₆H₅CHO > R₂CO > (C₆H₅)₂
b) HCHO > CH₃CHO > C₆H₅CHO > CH₃COCH₃ > C₆H₅COCH₃
c) C₆H₅COC₆H₅ > CH₃COCH₃ > C₆H₅CHO > CH₃CHO > HCHO
d) HCHO > CH₃COCH₃ > C₆H₅ COC₆H₅ > CH3CHO > C₆H₅CHO
Answer:
b) HCHO > CH₃CHO > C₆H₅CHO > CH₃COCH₃ > C₆H₅COCH₃

Question 28.

a) Pt
b) Pd
c) Ni
d) LiAlH₄
Answer:
d) LiAlH₄

Question 29.
The reducing agent used in this reaction is
a) H₂/Ni
b) Zn-Hg/HCl
c) NH₂ – NH₂/C₂H₅ONa
d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
d) both (b) & (c)

Question 30.
The reducing agent used in clemmenson reduction is
a) H₂/Ni
b) Zn-Hg/HC/
c) NH₂ – NH₂/ C₂H₅ONa
d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
b) Zn-Hg/ HCl

Question 31.
The reducing agent used in Wolff kishner reduction is
a) H₂/Ni
b) Zn-Hg/HC/
c) NH₂ – NH₂/ C₂H₅ONa
d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
c) NH₂ – NH₂/ C₂H₅ONa

Question 32.
Acetone on reduction with magnesium amalgam and w ater gives

Answer:

Question 33.
Which among the following will undergo haloform reaction?
a) CH₃CHO
b) CH₃COCH₃
c) CH₃COC₆H₅
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 34.
Aldehydes and ketones which contain ……………….. group undergo haloform reaction

Answer:

Question 35.
Which of the following will not undergo aldol condensation?
a) HCHO
b) C₆H₅CHO
c) (CH₃)₃CCHO
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above
Hint: Aldehydes with no ci-hydrogen atom will not undergo aldol condensation

Question 36.
Which among the following will undergo aldol condensation
a) HCHO
b) C₆H₅CHO
c) (CH₃)₂CHCHO
d) (CH₃)₃CCHO
Answer:
c) (CH₃)₂CHCHO
Hint: Aldehydes that contain cr-hydrogen atom will undergo aldol condensation

Question 37.
Acetaldehyde when warmed with dil NaOH followed by dehydration gives
a) 3 – hydroxv butanal
b) but – 2 – enal
c) 2 – hydroxy butanal
d) but – 3 – enal
Answer:
b) but – 2 – enal

Question 38.
When two molecules of an aldehyde or ketone having a – hydrogen atom react with dilute NaOH or KOH, the product formed is
i) α – hydroxy al4ehyde
ii) α -hydroxy ketone
iii) β – hydroxy aidehyde
iv) β – hydroxy ketone
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (ii) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)

Question 39.
Aldehydes with no α-hydrogen atom when reacted with concentrated aqueous alkali undergo
a) aldol condensation
b) Claisen – schmidt condensation
c) Cannizaro reaction
d) Benzoin condensation
Answer:
c) Cannizaro reaction

Question 40.
The product obtained when formaldehyde reacts with acetaldehyde in presence of dilute NaOH is
a) 3-hvdroxy propanol
b) 3-hydroxy propanal
c) 2-hvdroxy propanol
d) 2-hydroxy propanal
Answer:
b) 3-hydroxy propanal

Question 41.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Answer:
b) LiAlH₄– Wolf-Kishner’s reduction

Question 42.
Which among the following will undergo Cannizaro reaction?
a) HCHO
b) C₆H₅CHO
c) (CH₃)₃CCHO
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above
Hint: Aldehydes with no -hydrogen atom when reacted with concentrated aqueous alkali undergo cannizaro reaction.

Question 43.
Cannizaro reaction is an example of
a) oxidation
b) reduction
c) disporportionation
d) hydrolysis
Answer:
c) disporportionation

Question 44.
In crossed cannizaro reaction between benzaldehyde and formaldehyde, the aldehyde which gets oxidised is
a) benzaldehyde
b) formaldehyde
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of the above
Answer:
b) formaldehyde

Question 45.
Benzaldehyde can be converted into cinnamic acid by
a) Perkin’s reaction
b) Knoevenagal reaction
c) Claisen reaction
d) both (a) & (b)
Answer:
d) both (a) & (b)

Question 46.
Aldehyde reduce Tollens reagent to
a) Ag⁺
b) [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺
c) Ag
d) AgNO₃
Answer:
c) Ag

Question 47.
Tollens reagent is
a) acidified AgNO₃
b) ammoniacal AgNO₃
c) aqueous AgNO₃
d) Solid AgNO₃
Answer:
b) ammoniacal AgNO₃

Question 48.
When an aldehyde is treated with Fehlings solution the colour change is
a) red to blue
b) blue to red
c) colourless to pink
d) pink to colourless
Answer:
b) blue to red

Question 49.
Cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine is known as
a) urotropine
b) bakelite
c) RDX
d) formalin
Answer:
c) RDX

Question 50.
The compound used in leather tanning is
a) CH₃ CHO
b) HCHO
c) CH₃ COCH₃
d) C₆ H₅ CHO
Answer:
b) HCHO

Question 51.
The IUPAC name of malonic acid is
a) Ethane dioic acid
b) Propane dioic acid
c) Butane dioc acid
d) Pentane dioic acid
Answer:
b) Propane dioic acid

Question 52.
In carboxylic acids, the carbon atom and two oxygen atoms of carboxyl group are in …………….. hybridisation respectively
a) sp³, sp² , sp
b) sp³, sp, sp²
c) sp², sp², sp²
d) sp², sp³, sp
Answer:
c) sp², sp², sp²

Question 53.
One sp² hybridised orbital of carboxyl carbon overlaps with ……………. hybridised orbital of alkyl cabron in carboxylic acid.
a) sp
b) sp²
c) sp³
d) dsp²
Answer:
c) sp³

Question 54.
Ethyl Cyanide on acid hydrolysis gives
a) acetic acid
b) propionic acid
c) formic acid
d) butvric acid
Answer:
b) propionic acid

Question 55.
The acid that cannot be prepared by using Grignard reagent is
a) HCOOH
b) CH₃COOH
c) C₆H₅COOH
d) CH₃CH₂COOH
Answer:
a) HCOOH

Question 56.
Methyl magnesium bromide is converted into acetic acid by reacting with
a) CH₃CHO
b) HCHO
c) CO₂
d) CH₃COCH₃
Answer:
c) CO₂

Question 57.
methyl propanoic acid compound A is
a) methyl magnesium bromide
b) isopropyl magnesium bromide
c) n-propyl magnesium bromide
d) butyl magnesium bromide
Answer:
b) iso propyl magnesium bromide

Question 58.
Which among the following is not oxidised to benzoic acid by alkaline KMnO₄
a) Toluene
b) ethyl benzene
c) cumene
d) t-butyl benzene
Answer:
d) t-butyl benzene
Hint: compounds with benzylic hydrogen undergo oxidation forming benzoic acid. In t-butyl benzene there is no benzylic hydrogen, hence it does not undergo oxidation.

Question 59.
When acetic acid reacts with sodium carbonate. The brisk effervescence is due to the liberation of
a) H₂
b) CO
c) CO₂
d) Na₂O
Answer:
c) CO₂

Question 60.
Carboxylic acids turn the colour of litmus paper from
a) Yellow to orange
b) red to blue
c) blue to red
d) red to colourless
Answer:
c) blue to red

Question 61.
Acetic acid is converted into ethane by
a) LiAlH₄
b) HI/Red P
c) NaBH₄
d) H₂/Ni
Answer:
b) HI / Red P

Question 62.
When sodium salicylate is treated with sodalime, the product obtained is
a) salicylic acid
b) benzoic acid
c) phenol
d) benzene
Answer:
c) phenol

Question 63.
Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is electrolysed to give
a) methane
b) ethane
c) ethene
d) ethyne
Answer:
b) ethane

Question 64.
The acid which reduces Tollen’s reagent is
a) HCOOH
b) CH₃ COOH
c) C₆ H₅ COOH
d) C₂H₅COOH
Answer:
a) HCOOH

Question 65.
The correct order of acids with decreasing acid strength is
a) HCOOH < CH₃ COOH < CH₃ CH₂COOH
b) HCOOH > CH₃ COOH > CH₃ CH₂COOH
e) HCOOH < CH₃ COOH > CH₃ CH₂COOH
d) HCOOH > CH₃ COOH < CH₃ CH₂COOH
Answer:
b) HCOOH > CH₃ COOH > CH₃ CH₂COOH

Question 66.
The correct order of incresing acid strength is
a) CH₃COOH < ClCH₂COOH < Cl₂CHCOOH < CCl₃COOH
b) CH₃COOH < CCl₃COOH < Cl₂CHCOOH < ClCH₂COOH
c) CCl₃COOH < Cl₂CHCOOH < ClCH₂COOH < CH₃COOH
d) ClCH₂COOH > CCl₃COOH < Cl₂CHCOOH < CH₃COOH
Answer:
a) CH₃COOH < ClCH2COOH < Cl2CHCOOH < CCl₃COOH

Question 66.
Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
a) Tollen’s Reagent – AgNO₃ + NH₄OH
b) Fehlings solution – CuSO₄ + Rochelle salt
c) Benedict’s solution – CuSO₄ + Sodium Citrate + NaOH
d) Baeyer’s Reagent – Con. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl₂
Answer:
d) Baeyer’s Reagent – Con. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl₂

Question 68.
The correct order of acidic nature is
a) C₂H₅OH > H₂O > C₆H₅OH > HCOOH
b) C₆H₅OH > H₂O > C2H₅OH > HCOOH
c) HCOOH > C₆H5OH > H₂O > C₂H₅OH
d) HCOOH > C₂H₅OH > C6H₅OH > H₂O
Answer:
c) HCOOH > C₆H₅OH > H₂O > C₂H₅OH

Question 69.
The correct order of reactivity of acid derivates is
a) acid chloride < acid anhydride < ester < amide b) acid chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide
c) acid anhydride > add chloride > amide > ester
d) acid anhydride > amide > ester > acid chloride
Answer:
b) acid chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide

Question 70.
The IUPAC name of CH₃COOC₆H₅ is
a) phenyl acetate
b) methyl benzoate
c) phenyl ethanoate
d) phenyl methanoate
Answer:
c) phenyl ethanoate

Question 71.
Ethanoyl chloride reacts with ethanol to form
a) methyl ethanoate
b) ethyl ethanoate
c) methyl acetate
d) ethyl propionate
Answer:
b) ethyl ethanoate

Question 72.
Which among the following does not react with acetyl chloride?
a) methyl amine
b) dimethyl amine
c) trimethyl amine
d) isobutyl amine
Answer:
c) trimethyl amine
Hint: Tertiary amine does not react with acid chloride

Question 73.
Name the product obtained when acetyl chloride is reacted with sodium acetate?
a) Methyl ethanoate
b) ethanoic anhydride
c) ethanamide
d) ethyl methanoate
Answer:
b) ethanoic anhydride

Question 74.
When ethanoic anhydride reacts with ethanol, the product obtained is
a) ethyl ethanoate
b) ethanoic acid
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of the above
Answer:
c) both (a) & (b)

Question 75.
Ethylethanoate on reaction with ammonia gives
a) ethanamide & ethanol
b) methanamide & ethanol
c) ethanamide & methanol
d) methanamide & methanol
Answer:
a) ethanamide & ethanol

Question 76.
Amides are
a) acidic
b) basic
c) amphoteric
d) neutral
Answer:
c) amphoteric

Question 77.
Acetamide on heating with P₂O₅ gives
a) methyl amine
b) methyl cyanide
c) acetic acid
d) methyl amide
Answer:
b) methyl cyanide

Question 78.

A and B are respectively
a) ethyl amine, ethanamide
b) methylamine, ethanamide
c) ethylamine, methylamine
d) methylamine, ethylamine
Answer:
c) ethylamine, methylamine

Question 79.
Which is used in medicine for treatment of gout?
a) formic acid
b) acetic acid
c) benzoic acid
d) acetyl chloride
Answer:
a) formic acid

Question 80.
Which is used in medicine as an urinary antiseptic?
a) formic acid
b) acetic acid
c) benzoic acid
d) acetyl chloride
Answer:
c) benzoic acid

II. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The boiling point of aldehydes and ketones are much lower than those of corresponding alcohols and carboxylic acids.
Reason (R): The dipole – dipole interactions of carbonyl group is stronger than intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
a) Both A and R are correct, R explains A.
b) Both A and R are correct, R does not explain A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
c) A is correct but R is wrong
Correct Reason (R): The dipole – dipole interactions of carbonyl group is weaker than intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Aldol condensation between two different aldehydes or ketones is not very useful.
Reason (R): In crossed aldol condensation the product is usually a mixture of all possible condensation products and cannot be separated easily.
a) Both A and R are correct, R explains A.
b) Both A and R are correct, R does not explain A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
a) Both A and R are correct, R explains A

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : Carboxylic acid do not give the characteristic reaction of carbonyl group.
Reason (R) : Carboxylic acid molecules are associated through intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
a) Both A and R are correct, R explains A.
b) Both A and R are correct, R does not explain A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
b) Both A and R are correct, R does not explain A
Correct Reason (R): Carbonyl group of carboxylic acid is involved in resonance.

III. Pick out the correct statements

Question 1.
(i) All the three sigma bonds around the carbonyl carbon lie on the same plane.
(ii) In carbonyl group, oxygen atom attracts the shared pair of electron between the carbon and oxygen towards itself and hence the bond is polar
(iii) Terminal olefins on ozonolysis give acetaldehyde as one of the product
(iv) Ethyne on hydration gives ethanal which isomerises to give an enol.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
Correct statements :
(iii) Terminal olefins on ozonolysis give formaldehyde as one of the product.
(iv) Ethyne on hydration gives an enol which isomerises to give ethanal

Question 2.
(i) In Gattermann – Koch reaction an intermediate is formed which reacts like acetyl chloride.
(ii) Gattermann – Koch reaction is a variant of Friedel crafts acylation reaction.
(iii) Side chain chlorination of toluene gives benzyl chloride which on hydrolysis gives benzaldehyde
(iv) Friedel crafts acylation is a best method for preparing alkyl aryl ketones or diaryl ketones.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (ii) & (iv)
Correct statements :
(i) In Gattermann – Koch reaction an intermediate is formed which reacts like formyl chloride.
(iii) Side chain chlorination of toluene gives benzal chloride which on hydrolysis gives benzaldehyde.

Question 3.
(i) Ketones restore the red colour of Schiff’s reagent.
(ii) In Fehling’s solution test aldehydes convert CU₂O into Cu₂₊ ions.
(iii) Aldehydes reduce Tollens reagent to metallic silver.
(iv) Benedict’s solution is a mixture of CUSO₄ + sodium citrate + NaOH
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
Correct statements :
(i) Aldehydes restore the red colour of Schiff’s reagent.
(ii) In Fehling’s solution test aldehydes convert Cu₂₊ ions into CU₂O

Question 4.
(i) Esterification reaction is reversible
(ii) Sodium borohyride reduce carboxylic acids to primary alcohols
(iii) Soda lime is a mixture of Na₂O and Ca(OH)₂ in the ratio 3:1 ,
(iv) When treated with HI and red phosphorous, carboxylic acid undergoes complete reduction to give
alkanes.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statements :
(ii) Sodium borohydride does not reduce carboxylic acids to primary alcohols,
(iii) Soda lime is a mixture of NaOH and CaO in the ratio 3:1.

IV. Pick out the incorrect statements

Question 1.
(i) By Rosenmund reduction formaldehyde and ketones cannot be prepared.
(ii) If BaS04 is not used in Rosenmund reduction the product will be an alcohol.
(iii) In Stephen’s reaction alkyl cyanides are reduced to amines which on hydrolysis give corresponding aldehydes.
(iv) In Etard’s reaction chromyl chloride is used as a reducing agent.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
Correct statements:
(iii) In Stephen’s reaction alkyl cyanides are reduced to imines which on hydrolysis give corresponding aldehydes.
(iv) In Etard’s reaction chromyl chloride is used as an oxidising agent.

Question 2.
(i) Aldehydes and ketones have low boiling point as compared to hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular mass.
(ii) There is strong molecular association in aldehydes and ketones arising out of dipole – dipole interactions.
(iii) Formaldehyde is a gas and acetaldehyde is a volatile liquid at room temperature.
(iv) Lower members of aldehydes and ketones are miscible with water because they form hydrogen bond with water
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
Correct statements:
(i) Aldehydes and ketones have high boiling point as compared to hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular mass.
(iv) There is weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones arising out of dipole – dipole interactions.

Question 3.
(i) Nitriles on hydrolysis with an acid or alkali give carboxylic acids.
(ii) The carboxylic carbon is more nucleophilic than carbonyl carbon because of the possible resonance structure.
(iii) In – COOH group, the centre carbon atom and both the oxygen atoms are in sp3 hybridisation.
(iv) Aromatic carboxylic acids can be prepared by vigourous oxidation of alkyl benzene with chromic acid
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
Correct statements :
(ii) The carboxylic carbon is less nucleophilic than carbonyl carbon because of the possible resonance structure.
(iii) In – COOH group, the centre carbon atom and both the oxygen atoms are in sp2 hybridisation.

Question 4.
(i) Benzoic acid undergoes Friedel crafts reaction at meta position.
(ii) Carboxyl group is deactivating and aromatic carboxylic acids undergo electrophilic substitution at meta position,
(iii) Formic acid contains both aldehyde as well as an acid group.
(iv) A stronger acid will have lower Ka value but higher pKa value.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statements :
(i) Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel Crafts reaction.
(iv) A stronger acid will have higher Ka value but lower pKa value.

V. Match the Following

Question 1.

Answers:
i. – d. Methanal
ii. – e. Propanone
iii. – b. Benzophenone
iv. – a. Ethanal
v. – c. Acetophenone

Question 2.

Answers:
i. – d. Oxime
ii. – c. Hydrazone
iii. – b. Phenyl hydrazone
iv. – a. Semi Carbazone

Question 3.

Answers
i. – e. Biological specimen
ii. – f. Urinary infection
iii. – a. Hypnotic
iv. – b. Perspex
v. – c. Hypnone
vi. – d. Benzhydrol

Question 4.

Answers
i. – e. Coagulating agent for rubber latex
ii. – c. Food preservative
iii. – d. Preparation of primary amines
iv. – a. Preparation of aspirin
v. – b. Artificial fruit essences

VI. Two Marks Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Rosenmund reduction
Answer:

• Reactant – Acid chloride
• Catalyst – Palladium
• BaSO₄ stops further reduction of aldehyde into alcohol.
• Formaldehyde and Ketones cannot he prepared by this method.
• Product – Aldehyde
• Catalytic Poison – BaSO₄

Question 2.
Write about Stephen’s reaction
Answer:
Alkyl cyanides are reduced using SnCl₂ / HCl into imines which on hydrolysis gives corresponding aldehydes.

Question 3.
Write a note on Etard reaction
Answer:

• When toluene is oxidised by chromyl chloride benzaldehyde is obtained
• Acetic anhydride and Cr0₃can, also be used.
• This reaction is called Etard reaction

Question 4.
Convert hex -4- ennitrile into hex -4 – enal
Answer:
Di-isobutyl aluminium hydride (DIBAL – H) selectively reduces alkyl cyanides to form imines which on hydrolysis gives aldehydes.

Question 5.
Write about Gattermann – Koch reaction
Answer:

• Gattermann – Koch reaction is a variant of Friedel – Crafts acvlation reaction.
• In this method, reaction of CO and HCl generate an intermediate which reacts like formyl chloride.

Question 6.
Write about the nucleophilic addition of acetaldehyde with HCN
Answer:
Attack of nucleophile CN- on carbonyl carbon followed by protonation gives cyanohydrins.

Question 7.
Illustrate Popoff’s rule
Answer:

• Oxidation of unsymmetrical ketones is governed by Popoffs rule.
• It states that during the oxidation of an unsymmetrical ketone, a (C – CO) bond is cleaved in such a
  way that the keto group stays with the smaller alkvl group.

Question 8.
Write briefly about halofom reaction
Answer:

Question 9.
What is Cannizaro reaction?
Answer:
In the presence of concentrated aqueous or alcoholic alkali, aldehydes with no a- hydrogen atom undergo self oxidation and reduction, (dispropotination) to give a mixture of a salt of carboxylic acid and and alcohol.

Question 10.
What is Crossed Cannizaro reaction?
Answer:

• When Cannizaro reaction takes place between two different aldehydes with no a- hydrogen atom it is called crossed cannizaro reaction.

• In crossed Cannizaro reaction more reactive aldehyde is oxidised and less reactive aldehyde is reduced.

Question 11.
What is Benzoin Condensation?
Answer:
When two molecules of benzaldehyde condenses in presence of alcoholic KCN to give a hydroxy ketone benzoin, the reaction is called Benzoin condensation

Question 12.
Write about Perkin’s reaction?
Answer:

• When an aromatic aldehyde is heated with an aliphatic acid anhydride in presence of the sodium salt of the corresponding acid, condensation takes place to form an α β – unsaturated acid.
• This reaction is known as Perkin’s reaction.

Question 13.
What is Knoevenagal reaction?
Answer:
Benzaldehyde condenses with malonic acid in presence of pyridine to form cinnamic acid. This is
known as Knoevenagal reaction.

Question 14.
Mention the uses of formaldehyde
Answer:

• 40% aqueous solution of formaldehyde is known as formalin and used as a preservative for biological specimens
• Formalin has hardening effect, hence used for tanning.
• Formaldehyde reacts with phenol forming thermosetting plastic known as bakelite.

Question 15.
Write the uses of acetone
Answer:

• As a solvent
• Manufacture of smokeless powder (cordite).
• Nail polish remover
• In the preparation of suiphonal, a hypontic
• Manufacture of thermosetting plastic perspex.

Question 16.
Write the uses of benzaldehyde
Answer:

• As a flavouring agent
• In perfumes
• In dye intermediates
• Starting material for cinnamaldehyde, cinnamic acid benzoyl chloride etc.,

Question 17.
Mention some uses of aromatic ketones
Answer:

• Acetophenone is used in perfumery
• Acetophenone is used as a hypnotic under the name hypnone.
• Benzophenone is used in perfumery
• Benzophenone is used in the preparation of benzhydrol drop .

Question 18.
How are the following conversion effected?
Answer:

Question 19.
What is esterification?
Answer:

• When Carboxylic acids are heated with alcohols in the presence of Conc. H₂SO₄or dry HCl gas, esters are formed
• This is known as esterfication. .
• This reaction is reversible

Question 20.
What is decarboxylation?
Answer:

• When sodium salt of a carboxylic acid is heated with soda lime (NaOH & CaO in the ratio 3 : 1) the carboxylic acid group is removed as CO2.
• This is known as decarhoxylation.

Question 21.
Write about Kolbe’s electrolytic decarboxylation
Answer:

• Aqueous solutions of sodium or potassium salts of carboxylic acid on electrolysis gives alkanes at anode.
• This is known as Kolbe’s electrolysis.

Question 22.
Write notes on Hell – Voihard – Zelinsky reaction (HVZ reaction)
Answer:

• Carhoxylic acids containing α – hydrogen atoms are halogenated at the α – position when treated
  with chlorine or bromine in the presence of small amount of red phosphorous to form a – halo carhoxylic acids.
• This is known as HVZ reaction.

Question 23.
Mention the tests for carboxylic acids
Answer:

• Turn blue litmus to red.
• Gives brisk effervescence with sodium bi carbonate due to the evolution of CO₂
• When warmed with alcohol and Conc. H₂S0₄, gives a fruity odour due to the formation of an ester.

Question 24.
What is transesterification
Answer:

• Esters of an alcohol can react with another alcohol in the presence of a mineral acid to give the ester of second alcohol.
• This interchange of alcohol portions of the esters is termed transesterification.

Question 25.
Write about Claisen condensation
Answer:

• Esters containing at least one a – hydrogen atom undergo self condensation in the presence of a strong base such as sodium ethoxide to form -keto ester.
• This is known as Claisen ester condensation.

Question 26.
Write the IUPAC name of the following compounos.

(ii) CH₂ = CH – CH₂ – CH₂OH
(iii) Neopentyl alcohol
(iv) Glycerol
Answer:

• 2-Methyl-1-phenoxv propane
• But – 3- en-1-ol
• 2,2 – dimethyl propan-1-ol
• propane – 1,2,3-triol

Question 27.
Naine the ester which has the following flavour?
1. Banana
2. Orange
3. Pineapple
4. Apricot
Answer:
1, Amyl acetate
2. Octyl acetate
3. Ethyl butyrate
4.. Amyl butyrate

VII. Three Mark Questions

Question 1.
What notes on Friedel crafts acylation and benzoylation
Answer:

• It is a best method for preparing alkyl aryl ketones or diaryl ketones.
• This reaction succeeds only with benzene and activated benzene derivatives.

i) Acylation:

ii) Benzoylation:

Question 2.
Convert acetaldehyde ito
(i) lactic acid
(ii) 1-amino-2.-hydroxy propane
Answer:

Question 3.
What is Urotropine? How is it prepared? Mention its uses.
Answer:

• Hexamethylene tetramine is called urotropine.
• It is prepared by reacting formaldehyde with ammonia.
• 6HCHO + 4NH3 (CH2)6N4 + 6H20

Structure :

Uses :

• Urinary anteseptic
• Nitration of urotopine under controlled condition gives an explosive RDX also called cyclonite or cyclotrimethylene trinitramine.

Question 4.
Write notes on
(i) Clemmenson reduction
(ii) Wolff – Kishner reduction

Question 5.
Explain crossed aldol condensation
Answer:

• If aldol condensation takes place between two different aldehydes or ketones or between one aldehyde and one ketone, it is known as crossed (or) mixed aldol condensation.
• This reaction is not very useful as the product is usually a mixture of all possible condensation products and cannot be separated easily.

Question 6.
Write about Claisen – Schmidt condensation
Answer:
Benzaldehyde condenses with aliphatic aldehyde or methyl ketone in the presence of dil. alkali at room temperature to form unsaturated aldehyde or ketone.

Question 7.
Write about the reduction of carboxylic acids
Answer:
(i) partial reduction to alcohols
Carboxylic acids are reduced to primary alcohols b’ LiAlH₄ or hydrogen in the presence of copper
chromite as catalyst, sodium borohydride does not reduce – COOH group.

(ii) Complete reduction to alkanes
Carboxylic acids are completely reduced to alkanes with same number of carbon atoms by HI and red phosphorous.

Question 8.
Explain the reducing nature of formic acid
Answer:

• Formic acid contains both an aldehyde as well as an acid group.
• Hence formic acid can be easily oxidised.
• Therfore formic acid acts as a strong reducing agent.

• Formic acid reduces Fehlings solution into red coloured cuprous oxide

• Formic acid reduces Tollen’s reagent to metallic silver.

Question 9.
Write briefly about the acidic nature of carboxylic acids
Answer:

• Carboxylic acids dissociate to give W ions and carboxylate ions in aqueous solution.
• Carboxylate ion is resonance stabilished.
• Hence carboxylic acids readily donate H ₊ions which makes them acidic

• The dissociation constant K_a is called acidity constant PK_a= – log K_a
• For a stronger acid K_a value is larger but PKa value is smaller.

Question 10.
Write about the effect of substituents on the acidic natue of carboxylic acids.
Answer:
(i) Electron releasing alkyl groups decreases the acidic nature.

• Electron releasing groups (+ I groups) increase the negative charge on the carboxylate ion and destabilise it.
• Hence the loss of proton becomes difficult
• As the length of alkyl groups increases, the acidic nature decreases
  ∴ HCOOH > CH₃COOH > CH₃-CH₂-COOH

(ii) Electron withdrawing groups increases the acidic nature.

• Electron withdrawing groups (-I groups) decrease the negative charge on the carboxylate ion and stabilise it.
• Hence the loss of proton becomes relatively easy.
• Acidic nature increases with increase in electronegativity of substituents
  ∴ F-CH₂COOH > Cl-CH₂COOH > Br – CH₂COOH > I – CH₂COOH
• Acidic nature increases with increase in the number of electron withdrawing groups present in a – carbon.
  ∴ CCl₃COOH > CHCl₂COOH > CH₂ClCOOH > CH₃COOH

Question 11.
An organic compound C₃H₄ (A) on hydration with Hg²⁺/H₂ S0₄ gives compound (B) which gives positive iodoform test. Compound (B) heated with NH₂ – NH₂ / C₂ H₅ ONa to give hydrocarbon (C). (B) also treated with HCHO in the presence of dil NaOH gives compound (D). Identify A, B, C and D. Write the chemical reactions involved.
Answer:
An organic compound C₃H₄ (A) is Propyne on hydration to give Compound (B) is Acetone it is undergoes positive iodoform test.
Hydration of alkynes, other than acetylene gives ketones.
Compound (A)

Question 12.
Convert acetamide into
(i) methyl amine
(ii) ethyl amine
Answer:
i) Hoffmans degradation

Amides undergo Hoffman’s degradation to give amines with one carbon less than the parent amide.
ii) Reduction

Amides undergo reduction with LiAlH₄ or Na/alcohol to form amines with same number
of carbon as parent amide.

Question 13.
How will you prepare acetyichioride from CH₃COOH
Answer:

VIII. Five Mark Questions

Question 1.
Write the mechanism of addition of alcohol to acetaldehyde Addition of alcohol
Answer:
When aldehydes / ketones is treated with 2 equivalents of an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst acetals are formed.
For example
When acetaldehyde is treated with 2 equivalent of methanol in presence of HCl, 1,1, – dimethoxy ethane is obtained.

Question 2.
Explain the addition of ammonia derivatives to carbonyl compounds
Answer:
i) Reaction with hydroxyl amine
Aldehyde and ketones react with hydroxylamine to form oxime.
Example:

ii) Reaction with hydrazine
Aldehydes and ketones react with hydrazine to form hydrazone.
Example:

iii) Reaction with phenyl hydrazine
Aldehydes and ketones react with phenyl hydrazine to form phenyl hydrazone

Question 3.
What is the action of ammonia on
(Iacetaldehyde (ii) acetone (iii) Benzaldehyde
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the mechanism of aldol condensation
Answer:

In presence of dilute NaOH or KOH, two molecules of an aldehyde or ketone having α- hydrogen atoms add together to give β- hydroxy aldehyde (aldol) or β- hydroxy ketone (ketol)
This is known as aldol condensation
Aldol or ketol readily loses water to form α, β – unsaturated aldehyde or ketone.
Mechanism
The mechanism of aldol condensation of acetaldehyde takes place in three steps.
Step 1:
The carbanion is formed as the α – hydrogen atom is removed as a proton by the base.

Step 2:
The carbanion attacks the carbonyl carbon of another unionized aldehyde to form an alkoxide ion.

Step 3 :
The alkoxide ion formed is protonated by water to form aldol.

The aldol rapidly undergoes dehydration on heating with acid to form O – R unsaturated aldehyde.

Question 5.
Explain the mechanism of cannizaro reaction
Answer:

• Reactant – Two molecules of aldehyde with no o – hydrogen atom.
• Reagent – Concentrated aqueous or alcoholic alkali
• Reaction – Self oxidation and reduction (disproportionation)
• Products – Salt of carboxylic acid and an alcohol

Cannizaro reaction is a characteristic of aldehyde having no a hydrogen.

Question 6.
Convert benzaldehyde into
(i) Schiff’s base,
(ii) Malachite green dye
Answer:
i) Benzaldehyde reacts with primary amines (aliphatic or aromatic) in presence of an acid to form schiff’s base.

ii) Benzaldehyde condenses with tertiary aromatic amines like N, N – dimethyl aniline in the presence of strong acids to form triphenyl methane dye.

Question 7.
How can you identify aldehydes
Answer:
i) Tollens reagent test:

• Tollens reagent is ammonical silver nitrate.
• When an aldehyde is warmed with Tollens reagent, a bright silver mirror is produced due to the formation of silver metal.
• This is also known as silver mirror test.

ii) Fehlings Solution test:

• Fehlings Solution A – aqueous copper sulphate
• Fehlings Solution B – alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartarate (Rochelle salt)
• When an aldehyde is warmed with a mixture of Fehlings A & B solutions deep blue colour solution is changed to red precipitate of cuprous oxide.

iii) Benedict’s solution test:

• Benedict’s solution is a mixture of CUSO₄+ sodium citrate + NaOH.
• An aldehyde reduces Cu2+ ion into red precipitate of cuprous oxide.

iv)

• Schiff’s reagent is Rosaniline hydrochloride dissolved in water and its red colour is decolourised by passing SO₂.
• Aldehydes restore the red colour of Schiff’s reagent.

Question 8.
What happens when ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of con.H₂SO₄. Give its complete mechanism,
Answer:

Question 9.
An Organic compound (A) C₂H₄O reduce Tollen’s and Fehling’s solution. (A) react with methanol and HCl to give compound (B) C₄H₁₀O₂ (A) on reaction with Methanal in the presence of dilute NaOH to give compound (C) C₃H₆O₂. Identify compounds A, B, C with necessary reactions.
Answer:
Compound (A) is Acetaldehyde (CH3-CHO)
When acetaldehyde is treated with 2 equivalent of methanol in presence of HCl, 1,1-dimethoxy ethane is obtained.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th History Guide Pdf Chapter 1 இந்தியாவில் தேசியத்தின் எழுச்சி Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th History Solutions Chapter 1 இந்தியாவில் தேசியத்தின் எழுச்சி

12th History Guide இந்தியாவில் தேசியத்தின் எழுச்சி Text Book Questions and Answers

I. சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுக்கவும்

Question 1.
காந்தியடிகள் தென்னாப்பிரிக்காவிலிருந்து எந்த ஆண்டு இந்தியா திரும்பினார்?
அ) 1915
ஆ) 1916
இ) 1917
ஈ) 1918
Answer:
அ) 1915

Question 2.
இந்தியாவில் ஆங்கிலக் கல்வி எந்த ஆண்டு அறிமுகப்படுத்தப்பட்டது? (மார்ச் 2020 )
அ) 1825
ஆ) 1835
இ) 1845
ஈ) 1855
Answer:
ஆ) 1835

Question 3.
மாறுபட்ட ஒன்றைத் தேர்வு செய்க.
அ) வில்லியம் ஜோன்ஸ்
ஆ) சார்லஸ் வில்கின்ஸ்
இ) மாக்ஸ் முல்லர்
ஈ) அரவிந்த கோஷ்
Answer:
ஈ) அரவிந்த கோஷ்

Question 4.
“சுயராஜ்யம் எனது பிறப்புரிமை, அதை அடைந்தே தீருவேன்” – எனக் கூறியவர்.
அ) பாலகங்காதர திலகர்
ஆ) தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி
இ) சுபாஷ் சந்திர போஸ்
ஈ) பாரதியார்
Answer:
அ) பாலகங்காதர திலகர்

Question 5.
பின்வருவனவற்றை பொருத்தி சரியான விடையைத் தேர்வு செய்க.

அ) பாலகங்காதர திலகர் – 1 இந்தியாவின் குரல்
ஆ) தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி – 2. மெட்ராஸ் டைம்ஸ்
இ) மெக்காலே – 3. கேசரி
ஈ) வில்லியம் டிக்பை – 4 இந்தியக் கல்விக் குறித்த குறிப்புகள்

அ) 2, 4, 1, 3
ஆ) 3, 1, 4, 2
இ) 1, 3, 2, 4
ஈ) 4, 2, 3,1
Answer:
ஆ) 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 6.
பின்வரும் எது ஒன்று சரியாகப் பொருந்தியுள்ளது?
அ)  ஆங்கிலக் கல்விச் சட்டம் – 1843
ஆ)  அடிமைமுறை ஒழிப்பு – 1859
இ) சென்னைவாசிகள் சங்கம் – 1852
ஈ) இண்டிகோ கலகம் –  1835
Answer:
இ) சென்னைவாசிகள் சங்கம் – 1852

Question 7.
பின்வரும் அமைப்புகள் தொடங்கப்பட்ட சரியான கால வரிசையைத் தேர்வு செய்க.
(i) கிழக்கிந்தியக் கழகம்
(ii) மெட்ராஸ் மகாஜன சங்கம்
(iii) சென்னைவாசிகள் சங்கம்
(iv) இந்தியச் சங்கம்
அ) ii, i, iii, iv
ஆ) ii, iii, i, iv
இ) iii, iv, i, ii
ஈ) iii, iv, ii, i
Answer:
இ) iii, iv,i,ii

Question 8.
இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸை நிறுவியவர் –
அ) சுபாஷ் சந்திர போஸ்
ஆ) காந்தியடிகள்
இ) A.O.ஹியூம்
ஈ) பாலகங்காதர திலகர்
Answer:
இ) A.O.ஹியூம்

Question 9.
இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸின் முதல் தலைவர் (மார்ச் 2020 )
அ) சுரேந்திரநாத் பானர்ஜி
ஆ) பத்ருதீன் தியாப்ஜி
இ) A.O.ஹியூம்
ஈ) W.C.பானர்ஜி
Answer:
ஈ) W.C.பானர்ஜி

Question 10.
“இந்தியாவின் முதுபெரும் மனிதர் ” என அழைக்கப்படுபவர்
அ) பாலகங்காதர திலகர்
ஆ) M.K.காந்தி
இ) தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி
ஈ) சுபாஷ் சந்திர போஸ்
Answer:
இ) தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி

Question 11.
“வறுமையும் பிரிட்டனுக்கொவ்வாத இந்திய ஆட்சியும் ” (Povertyand Un-British Rule in India) என்ற நூலை எழுதியவர்
அ) பால கங்காதர திலகர்
ஆ) கோபால கிருஷ்ண கோகலே
இ) தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி
ஈ) எம்.ஜி.ரானடே
Answer:
இ) தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி

Question 12.
கூற்று : ஆங்கில அரசாங்கம் தடையற்ற வணிகக் கொள்கையைப் பின்பற்றியது. –
காரணம்: இங்கிலாந்தின் தடையற்ற வணிகக் கொள்கையினால் இந்தியா நன்மையைப் பெற்றது.
அ) கூற்று சரி, ஆனால் காரணம் கூற்றை விளக்கவில்லை .
ஆ) கூற்று சரி, காரணம் கூற்றை விளக்குகிறது.
இ) கூற்று சரி; காரணம் தவறு
ஈ) கூற்று காரணம் இரண்டும் தவறு
Answer:
இ) கூற்று சரி; காரணம் தவறு

Question 13.
ஒரிசா பஞ்சம் குறித்த பின்வரும் கூற்றுக்களில் சரியானவை எவை/எது?

கூற்று 1: 1866 ஆம் ஆண்டில் ஒன்றரை மில்லியன் மக்கள் ஓரிசாவில் பட்டினியால் இறந்தனர்.
கூற்று 2: பஞ்ச காலத்தில் 200 மில்லியன் பவுண்ட் அரிசியை பிரிட்டனுக்கு ஆங்கில அரசு ஏற்றுமதி செய்தது.
கூற்று 3: ஓரிசா பஞ்சமானது தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜியை இந்திய வறுமை குறித்து வாழ்நாள் ஆய்வை மேற்கொள்ள தூண்டியது.

அ) 1, 2
ஆ) 1, 3
இ) இவற்றுள் எதுவுமில்லை
ஈ) இவை அனைத்தும்
Answer:
ஈ) இவை அனைத்தும்

Question 14.
கூற்று : தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸின் தலைவராக மூன்று முறை தேர்வு செய்யப்பட்டார்.
காரணம் : 1905 ஆம் ஆண்டு வரையில் இந்திய விடுதலை இயக்கம் அரசமைப்;பஸவாதிகளின்
கட்டுபாட்டிலிருந்தது.
அ) கூற்று காரணம் இரண்டும் சரி, காரணம் கூற்றை விளக்குகிறது
ஆ) கூற்று காரணம் இரண்டும் சரி, ஆனால் காரணம் கூற்றை விளக்கவில்லை
இ) கூற்று சரி ஆனால் காரணம் தவறு
ஈ) கூற்று தவறு ஆனால் காரணம் சரி
Answer:
இ) கூற்று சரி ஆனால் காரணம் தவறு

II. சுருக்கமான விடையளிக்கவும்

Question 1.
தேசியம் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:

• தேசியம் என்பது ஒரு நாட்டிற்கு விசுவாசமாகவும், பக்தியோடும் இருத்தல் எனப்பொருள்.
• தனது நாட்டை ஏனைய நாடுகளைக் காட்டிலும் உயர்வான இடத்தில் வைத்து பார்ப்பது அல்லது
• ஏனைய நாடுகளுக்கு போட்டியாக தனது நாட்டின் பண்பாடு மற்றும் விருப்பங்களின் வளர்ச்சியில் சிறப்பு கவனம் செலுத்தும் ஒரு தேசிய உணர்வு ஆகும்.

Question 2.
புதிய நிலவுடைமை உரிமைகளால் ஏற்பட்ட பாதிப்புகளை எழுதுக?
Answer:

• இந்தியாவின் மரபு சார்ந்த நிலவுடைமை முறையை ஆங்கிலேயர் சிதைத்தனர்.
• நிலத்தை விற்பனை பொருளாக்குவது, இந்தியாவில் வேளாண்மையை வணிகமயமாக்குவது ஆகியவற்றால் விவசாயிகளின் வாழ்க்கை நிலையில் எந்த ஒரு முன்னேற்றத்தையும் ஏற்படுத்தவில்லை.
• ஒரு புதுவகையான நிலபிரபுக்கள் வர்க்கம் உருவானது.
• விவசாயிகளிடையே மன நிறைவின்மையை ஏற்படுத்தி அமைதி இழந்தவர்களாகவும், கட்டுப்பாடுகளை மீறுபவர்களாகவும் ஆக்கியது.

Question 3.
” அவுரி கலகம்” குறித்து குறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:

• 1859-60ல் நடைபெற்ற இண்டிகோ புரட்சியே அவுரி புரட்சியாகும்.
• ஐரோப்பியர்களுக்குச் சொந்தமான நிலங்களில் இந்திய குத்தகை விவசாயிகள் அவுரியை பயிரிட கட்டாயப்படுத்தப்பட்டனர்.
• சிறிய தொகையை முன்பணமாக பெற்றுக் கொண்டு, சாதகமற்ற ஒப்பந்தங்களை ஏற்றுக் கொள்ள விவசாயிகள் கட்டாயப்படுத்தப்பட்டனர்.
• அவரிபண்ணையார் விவசாயிகளுக்கு சந்தை விலையை விட குறைவாக கொடுத்தனர். இது நிலங்களுக்கான வரி பாக்கியை கூட விவசாயிகளால் செலுத்த முடியவில்லை .
• ஆட்சியாளர்கள் தங்களது குறைகளை நிவர்த்தி செய்வார்கள் என பலமுறை மனுக்கள் எழுதுவதன் மூலம் தங்களது எதிர்ப்புகளை தெரிவித்தனர்.
• அமைதியான முறையில் போராடி பயனற்று போனதால் முன் பணம் பெறவும், புது ஒப்பந்தக் போடவும் மறுத்து கலகத்தில் இறங்கினர்.
• இப்புரட்சியின் மூலம் விவசாயிகள் பண்ணையார்களை வடக்கு வங்காளத்திலிருந்து விரட்டினர்

Question 4.
இல்பர்ட் மசோதாவின் முக்கியத்துவத்தை விவாதி?
Answer:

• 1833ல் இல்பர்ட் மசோதாவிற்கு ஆதரவாக 1883ல் கிளர்ச்சிகள் நடைபெற்றன.
• இப்போராட்டங்களும் கிளர்ச்சிகளும் ஒருங்கிணைக்கப்படாமல் அங்கொன்றும் இங்கொன்றுமாகவே நடைபெற்றன.
• தேசிய அளவிலான ஒரு அரசியல் சார் அமைப்பு உருவாக்கப்படாத நிலையில் ஆட்சியாளர் மீது தாக்கத்தை ஏற்படுத்தாது என கிளர்ச்சியாளர்கள் உணர்ந்தனர்.
• இந்த உணர்வில் இருந்து உதித்ததே இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸ் இந்தியா ஒரே நாடு என்னும் கருத்து இவ்மைப்பின் பெயரில் உதித்தது.

Question 5.
நவீன கல்வியில் சமயப்பரப்புக் குழுக்களின் பங்கினை விளக்குக?
Answer:

• இந்திய மக்களிடையே நவீனக் கல்வியைக் கற்றுக் கொடுக்க கிறித்துவ சமய பரப்பு நிறுவனங்களால் முன்னெடுக்கப்பட்டது.
• நவீன மதமாற்ற கல்வியின் மூலமாக கிறித்துவத்தை போதிப்பது என்பதை சமய பரப்புக்குழுக்கள் கையாண்டன.
• மரபு சார்ந்த கல்வி முறையில், கல்வி கற்பதற்கான உரிமைகள் மறுக்கப்பட்ட அடித்தட்டு மக்களும் விளிம்பு நிலை மக்களும் கல்வி பெறுவதற்கான வாய்ப்பை இவை வழங்கின.

Question 6.
ஆங்கிலப் பாராளுமன்றத்திற்குச் சென்னைவாசிகள் சங்கத்தினர் அளித்த கோரிக்கைகள் என்ன?
Answer:

• 1852 பிப்ரவரி 26ல் சென்னைவாசிகள் சங்கம்’ என்னும் அமைப்பு உருவாக்கப்பட்டது.
• இவ்வமைப்பு தனது குறைகளை இங்கிலாந்து பாராளுமன்றத்தின் முன் வைத்தது.
• 1852 டிசம்பரில் சமர்ப்பித்த மனுவில் ரயத்துவரி, ஜமீன்தாரி முறைகள் வேளாண் வர்க்கத்தினரை கடும் துன்பங்களுக்கு உள்ளாக்கியதை சுட்டிக் காட்டியது.
• பண்டைய கிராமமுறையை மீட்டெடுக்கப்பட வேண்டும் என வற்புறுத்தியது.
• வட்டார மொழிகளில் திறமையின்மையினால் நீதிபதிகளின் தாமத செயல்பாடு பற்றியும், நீதித்துறையின் – திறமை பாதிக்கப்படுவதையும் சுட்டிக் காட்டியது.

Question 7.
இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரசுக்கு முன்னர் தொடங்கப்பட்ட அமைப்புகளின் பட்டியலைத் தயார் செய்க.
Answer:

• 1852 பிப்ரவரி 26 – சென்னைவாசிகள் சங்கம்
• சென்னை மகாஜன சங்கம் – 1884
• இந்திய சீர்திருத்த கழகம்
• கிழக்கிந்தியக் கழகம் – 1866
• லண்டனில் இந்திய சங்கம்’ – 1865

ஆகிய அமைப்புகள் இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரசுக்கு முன்னர் தொடங்கப்பட்டவைகளாகும்.

Question 8.
தொடக்க கால முக்கிய தேசியவாதிகளைக் கண்டறிக?
Answer:

• தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி
• கோபாலகிருஷ்ண கோகலே
• பிபின்சந்திரபால்
• லாலாலஜபதிராய்
• பால கங்காதரதிலகர்
• சுரேந்திர நாத்பானர்ஜி
• பெரோஷா மேத்தா ஆகியோர் தொடக்ககால தேசிய வாதிகள் ஆவர்.

III. குறுகிய விடையளிக்கவும்

Question 1.
மெக்காலேயின் ‘இந்தியக் கல்வி’ குறித்த குறிப்புகளை ஆய்க.
Answer:

• 1835ல் தனது புகழ் பெற்ற “இந்திய கல்வி குறித்த குறிப்புகள்” என்பதை வெளியிட்டார்.
• இக்குறிப்பு, “ஆங்கில வழியில் மேற்கத்தியக் கல்வி கற்பிக்கப்பட வேண்டும்.
• ரத்தத்திலும் நிறத்திலும் இந்தியராகவும் விருப்பத்தில், கருத்தில் ,  ஒழுக்கநெறிகளில், அறிவில் ஆங்கிலேயராய் இருக்கும் ஒருமக்கள் பிரிவினரை இந்தியாவிற்குள்ளேயே உருவாக்கவேண்டும். எனகுறிப்பிடப்பட்டுள்ளது.

Question 2.
1853ல் இந்தியச் சீர்திருத்தக் கழக தலைவரின் சென்னை வருகையைக் குறித்து நீ அறிந்தது என்ன?
Answer:

• சென்னைவந்த இந்திய சீர்திருத்தக் கழக தலைவரான H.D செய்மோர் குண்டூர், கடலூர், திருச்சிராப்பள்ளி, சேலம், திருநெல்வேலி ஆகிய இடங்களை பார்வையிட்டார்.
• 1853 ஆம் ஆண்டு பட்டயச்சட்டம் ஆங்கில கிழக்கிந்திய கம்பெனியின் ஆட்சி தொடர அனுமதி வழங்கியது.
• இதனை இக்கழகம் எதிர்த்தது. இந்தியாவில் உள்ள ஆங்கிலேயருக்குசொந்தமான பகுதிகள் மகாராணியாரின் நேரடிகட்டுப்பாட்டில் வரவேண்டும் என போராடியது.
• இந்தியாவில் கம்பெனியின் ஆட்சி ஒழிக்கப்படவேண்டும் என கோரியது.

Question 3.
பிரிட்டிஷ் இந்தியாவில் தேசிய உணர்வினை உருவாக்கியதில் பத்திரிக்கைகளின் பங்கினை எழுதுக. (மார்ச் 2020 )
Answer:

• பத்திரிக்கைகள் நாட்டினை பாதிக்கும் பல்வேறு பிரச்சனைகள் மற்றும் அரசியல் குறித்து மக்களிடம் பேசின.
• ராஜாராம் மோகன்ராயின் சம்வத் கௌமுதி, மிராத்-உல்-அக்பர் ஆகியவை மக்கள் நலன் காக்க முற்போக்காக செயல்பட்டன.
• மக்கள் கருத்தை உருவாக்க எண்ணற்ற தேசிய, பிராந்திய மொழி பத்திரிக்கைகள் தொடங்கப்பட்டன.
• தேசிய உணர்வைப் பேணுவதில் அவை மிகப்பெருந்தொண்டாற்றின.
• அவைகளுள் அமிர்தபஜார்பத்திரிகா, தி பாம்பே கிரானிக்கல், திட்ரிப்யூன், தி இண்டியன் மிர்ரர், தி இந்து, சுதேசமித்திரன் ஆகியவை முக்கியமானவையாகும்.

Question 4.
பிரிட்டிஷ் இந்தியாவில் ஒப்பந்தக் கூலி தொழிலாளர் முறை எவ்வழியில் ஏற்படுத்தப்பட்டது?
Answer:

• ஆங்கிலேயப் பேரரசின் காலணிநாடுகளில் பெரும் தோட்டப்பயிர்களான காபி, தேயிலை. கரும்பு, ஆகியனஅறிமுகமானபோது பணி செய்ய அதிக தொழிலாளர்கள் தேவைப்பட்டனர்.
• உழைப்புடன் கூடிய கடுங்காவல் தண்டனை போன்ற இவ்வொப்பந்தக் கூலித்தொழிலாளர் முறையின் கீழ் தொழிலாளர்கள் 5 வருட காலத்திற்கு ஒப்பந்தம் செய்யப்பட்டனர்.
• வறுமையில் உழன்றபல விவசாயிகளும் நெசவாளர்களும் ஓரளவுப்பணம் சம்பாதிக்கும் நம்பிக்கையுடன் சென்றனர். ஆனால் அது அடிமைத் தொழிலைவிடவும் மோசமாக அமைந்தது.

Question 5.
மே 1884இல் நடைபெற்ற சென்னை மகாஜன சங்கத்தின் தொடக்கவிழாவில் பங்கேற்ற முக்கியத் தலைவர்களின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• 1884 மே 16ல் நடைபெற்ற சென்னை மகாஜனசங்கம் தொடக்கவிழாவில் பங்கேற்ற முக்கிய தலைவர்கள்,
• G.சுப்பிரமணியம், விஜயராகவாச்சாரி. அனந்தாசார்லு. ரங்கையா, பாலாஜிராவ், சேலம் ராமசாமி ஆகியோராவர்.

Question 6.
தொடக்க காலத்தில் இலங்கைக்குத் தொழிலாளர்களை அனுப்பிவைக்கப்பட்டது குறித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• ஆங்கிலேயப் பேரரசின் காலனி நாடான இலங்கையில் காபி, தேயிலை, கரும்பு ஆகிய தோட்டப்பகுதிக்கு பணியாளர்கள் தேவைப்பட்டனர்.
• 1815ல் சிலோன் ஆளுநர் சென்னை மாகான ஆளுநருக்கு எழுதிய கடிதத்தில் பெருந்தோட்டங்களில் வேலைசெய்யக் கூலிகளை” அனுப்பிவைக்கக் கேட்டுக்கொண்டார்.
• ஒப்பந்த கூலித் தொழிலாளர் முறையின் கீழ் இலங்கையின் காபி, தேயிலை தோட்டங்களில் இந்தியர்கள் கூலிகளாக வேலை செய்யச் சென்றனர்.
• 1843ல் பிரிட்டிஷ் இந்தியாவில் அடிமை முறை ஒழிக்கப்பட்டதால் பேரரசின் காலணிகளுக்கு குடிபெயரும்
  செயல்பாடுகள் ஊக்கம் பெற்றனர்.
• 1873ல் தமிழகத்திலிருந்து இலங்கைக்கு கூலித் தொழிலாளியாக சென்றவர்கள் 10,000 பேர். 1846ல் 80,000 பேர், 1855ல் 1,28,000 பேர், 1877ல் 3,80,000 பேர், இலங்கையில் கூலித் தொழிலாளர்களாக அமர்த்தப்பட்டனர்.

Question 7.
இந்திய நிர்வாகச் செலவின விவரங்களைக் கூறுக.
Answer:
எந்த நாடாக இருந்தாலும் வசூலிக்கப்பட்ட வரியை அந்நாட்டு மக்களின் நல்வாழ்விற்காகவே செலவழிக்கவேண்டும். ஆனால் பிரிட்டிஷ் இந்தியாவில் ஆங்கிலேயர் வசூலிக்கும் வரி இங்கிலாந்தின் நலனுக்காகச் செலவு செய்யப்பட்டது.

1835 முதல் 1872 முடிய ஒவ்வொரு ஆண்டும் சராசரியாக 13 மில்லியன் பவுண்டுகள் மதிப்புடையப் பொருட்கள் இங்கிலாந்திற்கு ஏற்றுமதி செய்யப்பட்டதாகவும் ஆனால் அந்த அளவிற்கானப் பணம் இந்தியா வந்து சேரவில்லை.

லண்டனில் வாழும் கம்பெனியின் பங்குதாரர்களுக்கு லாபத்தில் வழங்கப்பட வேண்டிய பங்கு, இருப்புப்பாதைத் துறையில் (Railways) முதலீடு செய்தவர்களுக்கு உத்திரவாதம் அளிக்கப்பட்டவாறு தரப்பட வேண்டிய வட்டி, பணி நிறைவு பெற்றுவிட்ட அதிகாரிகளுக்கும் தளபதிகளுக்கும் வழங்கப்பட வேண்டிய ஓய்வூதியம் இந்தியாவிலும் இந்தியாவிற்கு வெளியிலும் நாடுகளைக் கைப்பற்ற மேற்கொள்ளப்பட்டப் போர்களுக்காக இங்கிலாந்திடமிருந்து பெற்ற கடனுக்கு செலுத்த வேண்டிய வட்டி ஆகிய இவையனைத்துக்கும் பதிலாகவே அப்பொருட்கள் ஏற்றுமதி செய்யப்பட்டது.

இவையனைத்தும் தாயகக் கட்டணம் (Home Charges) எனும் பெயரில் ஆண்டொன்றுக்கு 30 மில்லியன் பவுண்டுகள் நஷ்டம் ஏற்படுத்துவதாக நௌரோஜி உறுதிபடக் கூறினார்.

IV. விரிவான விடையளிக்கவும்

Question 1.
இந்திய நடுத்தர வர்க்கத்தில் மேற்கத்தியக் கல்வியின் தாக்கத்தையும், பின்னர் அது இந்திய சமூகத்தைச் சீர்திருத்தவும் மற்றும் மீட்டுருவாக்கம் செய்திட ஆற்றிய பங்கினை விவாதிக்கவும்.
Answer:

• மேற்கத்திய கல்வியின் வளர்ச்சி ஒரு நவீன இந்திய கற்றறிந்தோம் பிரிவை உருவாக்கியது.
• இந்த நவீன சமூக வர்க்கம் “இந்தியாவின் வணிக வர்த்தக சமூகங்கள், நிலபிரபுக்கள், பேவாதேவி செய்யவும்,
  ஆங்கிலம் பயின்ற ஏகாதிபத்திய அரசில் நிர்வாகப்பிரிவில் பணி
• அமர்த்தப்பட்டோர், மருத்துவர்கள், வழக்கறிஞர்கள் ஆகியோரை உள்ளடக்கியதால் இருந்தது.
• ஆரம்பகாலத்தில் இவர்கள் ஆங்கிலேய நிர்வாகத்தோடு இனக்கமான அணுகுமுறையை கொண்டிருந்தனர்.
• மக்களிடையே நாட்டுப்பற்றை வளர்ப்பதில் சிறப்பாக பங்காற்றினர்.
• நவீன இந்திய கற்றறிந்தோம் பிரிவைச்சார்ந்த ராஜாராம் மோகன்ராய். ஈஸ்வரசந்திர வித்யாசாகர் சுவாமி விவேகானந்தர், அரவிந்தகோஷ், கோபாலகிருஷ்ண கோகலே. பிபிபாய் நௌரோஜி, பெரோஷா மேத்தா, சுரேந்திரநாத்பானர்ஜி ஆகியோரும் மற்றோரும் இந்திய அரசியல். சமுதாய மத இயக்கங்களுக்கு தலைமையேற்றனர்.
• மேலைநாட்டு அறிஞர்களான ஜான்லாக், ஜேம்ஸ் ஸ்டுவர்ட்மில், மாஜினி, கரிபால்டி, ரூசோ, தாமஸ்பெயின், மார்க்ஸ் ஆகியோராளும் மற்றவர்களாலும் கூறப்பட்ட தேசியம், மக்களாட்சி, சோசலிசம் போன்ற தத்துவக் கருத்துக்களைக் கற்றறிந்த இந்தியர்கள் அறிந்து கொண்டனர்.
• சுதந்திரமான பத்திரிகை உரிமை, பொதுக்கூட்டங்களில் சுதந்திரமாய் பேசும் உரிமை, சுதந்திரமாக ஒன்று கூடும் உரிமை ஆகிய இயக்கையான உரிமைகளை கற்றறிந்த இந்தியரின் ஐரோப்பியக் கூட்டாளிகள் தங்கள் நெஞ்சுக்கு நெருக்கமாக வைத்து கடைபிடிக்கவிரும்பினர்.
• அதற்கு பல அமைப்புகள் உருவாக்கப்பட்டன.
• இச்செயல் போக்குவரத்து வசதியின் மிகப்பெரும் விரிவாக்கம்.
• இந்தியாமுழுவதும் நிறுவப்பட்ட அஞ்சல், தந்தி சேவைகள் ஆகியன இதுபோன்ற விவசாயங்களை சாத்தியமாக்கின.

Question 2.
பிரிட்டிஷ் இந்தியாவில் தேசிய உணர்வு தோன்ற காரணமான சமூகப் பொருளாதார காரணிகளை ஆய்க.
Answer:
சமூகம்:

• அரசியல் செயல்பாடுகளில் மக்களை ஈடுபடுத்தும் முன்னர் சமூகத்தை சீர்திருத்த வேண்டியதை ஆங்கிலக் கல்வியை கற்றறிந்தோம் உணர்ந்தனர்.
• 19ஆம் நூற்றாண்டை சேர்ந்த சீர்திருத்தவாதிகள் மூலம் தூண்டப்பட்ட சிந்தனையின் விளைவே இந்திய – தேசிய உணர்வு உதயமானது.
• காலப்போக்கில் அரசியல் தன்மை கொண்ட அமைப்புகளும் கழகங்களும் பிரிட்டிஷ் இந்தியாவின் பல 1 பகுதிகளில் தோன்றி மக்களின் குறைகளைப் பேசத் தொடங்கினர்.

பொருதாதாரக் காரணங்கள்:

• ஆங்கிலேயர் இந்தியாவிலிருந்து கச்சாப் பொருள்களை மிகக்குறைந்த விலையில் பெற்றனர் இவை செய்பொருளாக மாற்றப்பட்டு இந்தியாவில் மீண்டும் அதிக விலைக்கு விற்கப்பட்டன
• இறக்குமதி பொருள்களுக்கு சுங்கவரி விதிக்கப்படவில்லை. ஆனால் இந்தியாவிலிருந்து ஏற்றுமதி செய்யப்படும் பொருளுக்கு அதிக சுங்கவரி விதிக்கப்பட்டது.
• இந்தியாவில் ஆங்கிலேயர் பின்பற்றிய நிலவரித்திட்டம் இந்திய விவசாயிகளை பெரிதும் பாதித்தது.
• புதிய நிலவுடமை உரிமைகளால் ஏற்பட்ட பாதிப்புகள்
• ஆங்கில அரசு கட்டுபாடுகளற்ற சுதந்திர வணிகத்தை பின்பற்றியது.
• இங்கிலாந்தின் தொழிற்சாலைகளுக்குத் தேவையான தொழிற்சாலை பயிர்களான அவரி மற்றும் ஏனைய பயிர்களை உற்பத்தி செய்ய விவசாயிகள் வற்புறுத்தப்பட்டனர். இதன் விளைவாக இந்தியர்களிடையே பொருளாதாரம் பாதிக்கப்பட்டது.
  இது பிரிட்டிஷ் இந்திய பகுதியில் தேசிய உணர்வை ஏற்படுத்தியது.

Question 3.
இந்தியாவில் தேசிய விழிப்புணர்வுக்குப் பிரிட்டிஷாரின் அடக்குமுறை மற்றும் இனவெறிக் கொள்கைகள், எந்த அளவிற்குக் காரணமாக இருந்தன? (மார்ச் 2020 )
Answer:
அ) இந்தியர்களுக்கு எதிரான அடக்குமுறை:

• அரசுக்கு எதிரான வெறுப்புணர்வைத் தூண்டும் முயற்சிகளை மேற்கொள்வோரை தண்டனைக்குள்ளாக்கும் இந்திய தண்டனைச் சட்டம் (1870) பிரிவு 124A அடக்கு முறைச் சட்டம்
• பத்திரிகைகளைத் தணிக்கைக்கு உட்படுத்திய பிராந்திய மொழிச் சட்டம் (1878) ஆகியன எதிர்ப்புகளைத் தூண்டின.
• இங்கிலாந்திலிருந்து இறக்குமதி செய்யப்படும் பருத்தியிழைத் துணிகளின் மீதான சுங்கவரி குறைக்க பட்டதும், இந்தியாவில் உற்பத்தி செய்யப்படும் பருத்தியிழைத் துணிகள் மீதான உள்நாட்டுத் தீர்வை உயர்த்தப்பட்டதும் நாடுமுழுவதும் மனநிறைவின்மையை ஏற்படுத்தியது.

ஆ) இனவெறிக் கொள்கைகள்:

• ஆங்கிலேயர் இனப்பாகுபாட்டுக் கொள்கையைப் பின்பற்றினர்.
• அரசு உயர்பதவிகளில் இந்தியர்களைப் பணியமர்த்தாமல் திட்டமிட்டு விலக்கி வைக்கப்பட்டதை மக்கள் இந்திய எதிர்ப்புக் கொள்கையின் நடவடிக்கையாக கருதினர்.
• இதன் விளைவாக இந்திய உயர் வகுப்பாரிடையே ஏற்பட்ட வெறுப்பு ஆங்கிலேயர் ஆட்சிக்கு எதிராக
  இந்தியர்கள் புரட்சி செய்ய இட்டுச் சென்றது.
• குடிமைப் பணிக்காணத் தேர்வுகள் அறிமுகமானபோது இந்தியர்கள் அத்தேர்வுகள் அதிகம் பேர் வெற்றிபெற்றனர்.
• இதனைத்தடுக்கும் விதமாக வயது வரம்பு 21லிருந்து 19 ஆகக் குறைந்தது.
• இதைப்போலவே குடிமைப் பணித்தேர்வுகளை ஒரே நேரத்தில் இந்தியாவிலும் நடத்த வேண்டுமேன இந்தியாவின் கற்றறிந்த நடுத்தர வர்க்கம் வைத்த வேண்டுகோளை ஆங்கில அரசு ஏற்றுக் கொள்ள மறுத்தது.

Question 4.
இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரசின் நோக்கங்களையும் பிரிட்டிஷ் ஆட்சியிலிருந்து விடுதலை பெறுவதற்கு ஆரம்ப கால தேசியவாதிகள் அளித்த பங்கினையும் விளக்குக.
Answer:
இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸின் நோக்கங்கள்:

• நாடெங்குமுள்ள தேசிய உணர்வுள்ள தொண்டர்களை இணைத்து நட்புறவை வளர்த்தல்.
• இனம், மதம் மற்றும் வாழுமிடம் ஆகிய வேறுபாடு இல்லாது தேசிய உணர்வை பெருக்குதல் மற்று ஒருமைபாட்டுணர்வை வளர்த்தல்.
• திட்டங்களை முறையுடன் வகுத்து மக்களின் தேவைகளை அரசு அறியும்படி செய்தல்.
• நீதித்துறையையும், நிர்வாகத்துறையையும் தனித்தனியாகப்பிரித்தல் .
• இந்திய மாகாணங்களில் பிரதிநிதித்துவ சட்டசபை நிறுவி சுயாட்சி வளர்த்தல்.
• இராணுவ செலவினங்களைக் குறைத்தல், பத்திரிக்கைகளுக்குச் சுதந்திரம் வழங்குதல்.
• சட்ட சபைகளை விரிவுபடுத்துதல், ஆகியனவாகும்.

தொடக்ககால தேசியவாதிகளின் பங்களிப்பு:

• நாம் ஒரே நாடாக என்ற கருத்து வடிவம் பெற உதவியவர்கள் இத்தொடக்ககால தேசியவாதிகளே.
• அவர்கள் உண்மையாகவே இம்மண்சார்ந்த காலணிய எதிர்ப்புச் சித்தாந்தத்தையும் தாங்களாகவே தங்களுக்கென ஒரு செயல்திட்டத்தையும் உருவாக்கி கொண்டனர்.
• பிபின் சந்திரபால், பாலகங்காதரதிலகர், லாலா லஜபதிராய் போன்ற தலைவர்கள் தீவரமான அணுகுமுறைகளை பரிந்துரைந்தனர். இவர்கள் தீவிரதேசியவாதிகள்’ என்று அழைக்கப்பட்டனர்.
• “சுயராஜ்ஜியம் எனது பிறப்புரிமை அதை அடைந்தே தீருவேன்” என திலகர் முழங்கினார்.
• 1905 இல் வங்கப்பரிவினையை ஆவேசமாக எதிர்த்தனர். சுதேசியக்கம் ஆங்கிலேய ஆட்சியை நேரடியாக எதிர்த்ததோடு, சுதேசித்தொழில்கள், தேசியக்கல்வி, சுய உதவி, இந்திய மொழிகளை பயன்படுத்துதல் ஆகிய கருத்துகளை ஊக்குவித்தது.
• மித தேசியவாதிகள், தீவிர தேசியவாதிகள் ஆகிய இருதரப்பினரும் அவர்கள் வழிகாட்டிகளாகப் பொறுப்புவகித்து பத்திரிக்கைகள் முதலான பல்வேறு வகைகளில் தேசிய உணர்வை ஊட்டினர்.

V. செயல்பாடுகள் (மாணவர்களுக்கானது)

1. இந்தியாவில் மேற்கத்தியக் கல்வி அறிமுகப்படுத்தப்படாமலிருந்தால் என்ன நடந்திருக்கும் என்பதை விவரிக்கவும்.
2. தமிழ்நாட்டிலிருந்த ஆரம்ப கால தேசியவாதிகளின் வாழ்க்கை வரலாறு மற்றும் உருவப் படங்களைத் தொகுக்கவும்.

VI. வரைபடம்

Question 1.
இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸ் மாநாடுகள் நடைபெற்ற பின்வரும் இடங்களை இந்திய வரைபடத்தில் குறிக்கவும்.
1. பம்பாய் 2. கல்கத்தா 3. சென்னை |4. அகமதாபாத் 5. லக்னோ 6. கான்பூர் 7. சூரத் 8. லாகூர் 9. பூனா 10. அலகாபாத்
Answer:

12th History Guide இந்தியாவில் தேசியத்தின் எழுச்ச Additional Questions and Answers

1. சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுக்கவும்

Question 1.
“இந்தியாவின் குரல் என்ற பத்திரிக்கையின் ஆசிரியர் ………..
அ) சுரேந்திர நாத் பானர்ஜி
ஆ) அன்னி பெசன்ட் அம்மையார்
இ)தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி
ஈ) லோகமான்ய திலகர்
Answer:
இ) தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி

Question 2.
இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸ் உருவாக்கப்பட்டது …………….
அ) 1885 டிசம்பர் 28
ஆ) 1885 நவம்பர் 28
இ)1885 அக்டோபர் 28
ஈ) 1884 டிசம்பர் 26
Answer:
அ) 1885 டிசம்பர் 28

Question 3.
மாறுபட்ட ஒன்றை தேர்வு செய்க.
அ) டல்ஹௌசி பிரபு
ஆ) கானிங் பிரபு
இ)வாரன் ஹேஸ்டிங்ஸ்
ஈ) சுப்பிரமணிய பாரதியார்
Answer:
ஈ) சுப்பிரமணிய பாரதியார்

Question 4.
பாலகங்காதர திலகர் வெளியிட்ட பத்திரிக்கை …………
அ) இந்தியாவின் குரல்
ஆ) பெங்காலி
இ)ஆனந்தமடம்
ஈ) மராட்டா
Answer:
ஈ) மராட்டா

Question 5.
பின்வருவன பொருத்தி சரியான விடையைத் தேர்வு செய்க …….
அ) சூரத்பிளவு – 1878
ஆ) வங்கப் பரிவினை – 1852
இ)  வட்டார மொழி பத்திரிக்கை சட்டம் – 1907
ஈ) சென்னை வாசிகள் சங்கம் – 1905
அ) 3,2,1,4
ஆ) 3,4,1,2
இ) 4,3,1,2
ஈ) 4,1,3,2
Answer:
ஆ) 3,4,1,2

Question 6.
பின்வரும் எது ஒன்று சரியாகப் பொருந்தியுள்ளது?

அ) சென்னை மகாஜன சங்கம் – 1852
ஆ) இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸ் – 1884
இ) திலகர் கைது – 1897
ஈ) இலபர் மசோதா கிளர்ச்சி – 1885
Answer:
இ) திலகர் கைது – 1897

Question 7.
பின்வரும் அமைப்புகள் தொடங்கப்பட்ட சரியான காலவரிசையை தேர்வு செய்க.
அ) இன்டிகோ புரட்சி
ஆ) பிரிட்டிஷ் இந்தியா அடிமை முறை ஒழிப்பு
இ) சென்னை பல்கலைக்கழகம்
ஈ) இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸ்
அ) iv, ii, iii, i
ஆ) iv, iii, ii, i
இ) ii, iii, i, iv
ஈ) i, iii, ii, iv
Answer:
இ) ii, iii, i, iv

Question 8.
இராஜாராம் மோகன்ராயின் வங்க மொழி பத்திரிக்கை
அ) மிராத்-உல்- அக்பர்
ஆ) சம்வத்கௌமதி
இ)மராத்தா
ஈ) சுதேசமித்திரன்
Answer:
ஆ) சம்வத்கௌமதி

Question 9.
‘மெட்ராஸ் டைம்ஸ்’ பத்திரிக்கையின் ஆசிரியர்
அ) T.B மெக்காலே
ஆ) பாரதியார்
இ) கேசவசந்திரசென்
ஈ) வில்ப்பா டிக்பை
Answer:
ஈ) வில்லியம் டிக்பை

Question 10.
‘பெங்காலி’ என்னும் நூலின் ஆசிரியர் ……………
அ) தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி
ஆ) சுரேந்திரநாத் பானர்ஜி
இ)W.C. பானர்ஜி
ஈ) திலகர்
Answer:
ஆ) சுரேந்திரநாத் பானர்ஜி

Question 11.
1835ல் புகழ்பெற்ற இந்தியக் கல்வி குறித்த குறிப்புகள்” எனும் குறிப்புகளை வெளியிட்டவர் …….
அ) சார்லஸ் உட்ஸ்
ஆ) வில்லியம் டிக்பை
இ)T.B. மெக்காலே
ஈ) எல்பின்ஸ்ட ன்
Answer:
இ) T.B.மெக்காலே

Question 12.
1856-57ல் கல்கத்தாவிலிருந்து டிரினிடாட் சென்ற கப்பலில் பயணம் செய்தவர்கள் குறித்த
பின்வரும் கூற்றுகளில் சரியானவை எவை/எது?
கூற்று 1 : நீண்ட கடல் பயணத்தில் தொழிலாளர்கள் பலர் வழியிலேயே இறந்தனர்.
கூற்று 2 : ஆண்கள் 12.3 விழுக்காட்டினரும், பெண்களில் 18.5 விழுக்காட்டினரும் இறந்துவிட்டனர்.
கூற்று 3 : சிறுவர்கள், சிறுமிகள், குழந்தைகள் 40 விழுக்காட்டினர் இறந்துவிட்டனர்.
அ) 1,2
ஆ) 1,3
இ) 2,3
ஈ) இவை அனைத்தும்
Answer:
அ) 1,2

Question 13.
கூற்று : இல்பர்ட் மசோதாவிற்கு ஆதரவாக 1883ல் கிளர்ச்சிகள் நடைபெற்றன.
காரணம் : ஆனால் இப்போராட்டங்களும் கிளாச்சிகளும் ஒருங்கிணைக்கப்படாமல் அங்கொன்றும்
இங்கொன்றுமாகவே நடைபெற்றன.
அ) கூற்று காரணம் இரண்டும் சரி. காரணம் கூற்றை விளக்குகிறது. ஆ)கூற்று காரணம் இரண்டும் சரி. ஆனால் காரணம் கூற்றை விளக்கவில்லை.
இ) கூற்று சரி. காரணம் தவறு
ஈ) கூற்று தவறு ஆனால் காரணம் சரி
Answer:
ஆ) கூற்று காரணம் இரண்டும் சரி. ஆனால் காரணம் கூற்றை விளக்கவில்லை

II. சுருக்கமான விடையளிக்கவும்

Question 1.
இந்திய தேசிய இயக்கம் மிகப்பெரும் மக்கள் இயக்கமாக எப்போது மாறியது?
Answer:
1915ல் மோகன்தாஸ் கரம்சந் காந்தி தென்னாப்பிரிக்காவிலிருந்து இந்தியா திரும்பி தலைமையேற்றதிலிருந்து இந்திய தேசியம் மிகப்பெரும் மக்கள் இயக்கமாக மாறியது.

Question 2.
1857ல் ஆங்கிலப் படைகளால் டெல்லி முற்றுகை குறித்து பம்பாய் மாகாண முன்னாள் ஆளுநர் எல்பின்ஸ்டனின் கூற்றுகளை ஆய்க.
Answer:

• 1857 ஜூன் – செப்டம்பர் மாதங்களில் ஆங்கிலப்படைகளால் டெல்லி முற்றுகையிடப்பட்டது.
• இதனைகுறித்து பம்பாய் மாகாணத்தின் முன்னாள் ஆளுநர் எல்பின்ஸ்டன் அப்போதைய இந்தியாவின் எதிர்கால வைஸ்ராய் சார்ஜான் லாரன்சுக்கு கீழ்க்கண்டவாறு எழுதியிருக்கிறார்.
• நண்பன் பகைவன் என்று வேறுபாடின்றி முழுவீச்சிலான பழிவாங்குதல் மேற்கொள்ளப்பட்டுள்ளது.
• கொள்ளையடிப்பதைப் பொறுத்தமட்டில் நாம் உண்மையாகவே நாதிர்ஷாவை மிஞ்சிவிட்டோம்” என – கூறியுள்ளார்.

Question 3.
இந்தியாவின் பழம் பெருமையை வணங்குதல் – ஆய்க.
Answer:
வில்லியம் ஜோன்ஸ் சார்லஸ் வில்கின்ஸ், மேக்ஸ்முல்லம் போன்ற கீழையுலக அறிஞர்கள் ஆய்வுகளை மேற்கொண்டு அராபிய, பாரசீக சமஸ்கிருத மொழிகளிலிருந்து மத வரலாற்று இலக்கிய நூல்களை ஆங்கிலத்தில் மொழிபெயர்த்தனர்.

இந்தியாவின் மரபு, புலமை ஆகியவற்றின் செழுமையால் கவரப்பட்ட பல தொடக்க கால தேசியவாதிகள்
இந்தியாவின் பண்டையப் பெருமையை மீட்டெடுக்க ஆர்வத்துடன் வேண்டினர்.

“தேசியத்தின் குறிக்கோளானது இந்தியச் சிந்தனையை, இந்திய குறைநலன்களை, இந்திய உணர்வுகளை, இந்திய ஆற்றலை, இந்தியாவின் உன்னதத்தை மீட்டெடுப்பதாகும்.

மேலும் உலகைத் தடுமாறச் செய்யும் பிரச்சனைகளை இந்திய மனப்பாங்குடன் இந்திய நிலைப்பாட்டில் தீர்த்து வைப்பதாகும்” என அரவிந்கோஷ் எழுதியுள்ளார்.

III. குறுகிய விடையளிக்கவும்

Question 1.
ஆங்கிலேயருக்கு முந்தைய இந்தியாவில் கல்வியின் நிலை எவ்வாறு இருந்தது?
Answer:

• காலனிய காலத்திற்கு முந்திய இந்தியாவில் கல்வியானது சாதி, மத அடிப்படையில் இருந்தது.
• இந்துக்களிடையே பிராமணர்கள் உயர்நிலை சார்ந்த சமய, தத்துவ அறிவினைப்பெறும் தனி உரிமை பெற்றிருந்தனர்.
• புனிதமான மொழி என கருதப்பட்ட சமஸ்கிருத மொழி வழியில் கல்விகற்றனர்.
• கட்டடக்கலை – உலோகவியல் சார்ந்த அறிவுத்திறன் பரம்பரை ஆக்கப்பட்டது.
• பெண்களும் ஒடுக்கப்பட்டோரும் ஏனைய ஏழை மக்களும் கல்வி கற்க தடை இருந்தது.

Question 2.
பாலகங்காதர திலகரின் ஆங்கிலேய ஏகாதிபத்திய எதிர்ப்பு பற்றி கூறுக.
Answer:

• தேசிய இயக்கத்தில் மத்தியதர வகுப்பினரும் விவசாயிகளும், கைவினைஞர்களும் தொழிலாளர்களும் ப மிக முக்கியமான பங்கினை வகிக்கமுடியும் என பாலகங்காதரதிலகர் உறுதியாக நம்பினார்.
• இந்தியாவில் ஆங்கிலேயரின் ஏகாதிபத்திய ஆட்சிக்கு எதிராக தேசந்தழுவிய எதிர்ப்புக்கு அவர் அழைப்பு விடுத்தார்.
• “சுயராஜ்ஜியம் எனது பிறப்புரிமை அதை அடைந்தே தீருவேன்” என முழங்கினார்.
• 1897 ஜூலை 27ல் திலகர் கைது செய்யப்பட்டு இந்திய தண்டனைச் சட்டம் பிரிவு 124A யின் கீழ் குற்றம் சாட்டப்பட்டார்.
• திலகர் தீவிர காங்கிரஸ் தேசவாதியாக இருந்தாலும் இவர் கைது செய்யப்பட்டதை அனைவரும் எதிர்த்தனர்.
• கருத்துச் சுதந்திரம், பத்திரிக்கைச் சுதந்திரம் ஆகிய இரு உரிமைகளும் இந்திய விடுதலைப்போராட்டத்தின் முக்கிய கூறுகளாய் விளங்கின.

Question 3.
சமூக, சமய சீர்திருத்த இயக்கங்களின் வகைகளை கூறுக.
Answer:
1. சீர்திருத்த இயக்கங்கள் :

1. ராஜாராம் மோகன்ராயால் நிறுவப்பட்ட பிரம்ம சமாஜம்,
2. டாக்டர் ஆத்மராம் பாண்டுரங் உருவாக்கிய பிரார்த்தனை சமாஜம்
3. சர் சையத் அகமது கானால் பிரதிநிதித்துவம் பட்ட அலிகார் இயக்கம் ஆகியவை சீர் திருத்த இயக்கங்கள் ஆகும்.

II. மீட்பு இயக்கங்கள் :

1. ஆரியசமாஜம்
2. ராமகிருஷ்ண இயக்கங்கள்
3. தியோபந்த் இயக்கங்கள்

III. சமூக இயக்கங்கள் :

1. புனேயில் ஜோதிபா பூலே,
2. கேரளாவில் நாராயணகுரு, அய்யன்காளி
3. தமிழ்நாட்டில் இராமலிங்க அடிகள், வைகுண்டசாமிகள்
4. அயோத்திதாசர்

IV. விரிவான விடையளிக்கவும்

Question 1.
“தாதாபாய் ” நௌரோஜியும் அவர் முன்வைத்த சுரண்டல் கோட்பாடும் பற்றி விவரி?
Answer:
முதுபெரும் தலைவர்:

• இந்திய தேசியத்தின் முதுபெரும் தலைவர் என அறியப்படும் தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜி தொடக்க கால
• தேசிய இயக்கத்தின் முக்கியத் தலைவர்களில் ஒருவர் ஆவார்.
• 1870 இல் பம்பாய் நகராட்சி கழகத்திற்கும், நகரசபைக்கும் தேர்ந்தெடுக்கப்பட்டார்.
• 1892 ல் இங்கிலாந்து பாராளுமன்றத்திற்கு தேர்ந்தெடுக்கப்பட்ட நிலையில் அவர் லண்டனில் ‘இந்தியச்சங்கம்’ (1865), ‘கிழக்கிந்திய கழகம்’ (1866) எனும் அமைப்புகளை உருவாக்கினார்.
• மூன்று முறை இந்திய தேசிய காங்கிரஸின் தலைவராக தேர்ந்தெடுக்கப்பட்டார்.

செல்வச்சுரண்டல் கோட்பாடு:

• 1901ல் “வறுமையும் பிரிட்டனுக்கொவ்வாத இந்திய ஆட்சியும்” என்னும் புத்தகமே இந்திய
  போராட்டத்திற்கு அவர் செய்த முக்கிய பங்களிப்பு ஆகும்.
• இதில் செல்யச் சுரண்டல் எனும் கோட்பாட்டை முன் வைத்தார்.
• வசூலிக்கப்பட்டவரியை அந்நாட்டு மக்களின் நல்வாழ்விற்கே செலவழிக்கவேண்டும் ஆனால் பிரிட்டிஷ் இந்தியாவில் வசூலிக்கப்பட்டவரி இங்கிலாந்தின் நலனுக்காகச் செலவு செய்யப்படுகிறது என்றார்.
• 1835 முதல் 1872 முடிய ஒவ்வொரு ஆண்டும் சராசரியாக 13 மில்லியன் பவுண்டுகள் மதிப்புடையப்
  பொருட்கள் இங்கிலாந்திற்கு ஏற்றுமதி செய்யப்பட்டது.
• ஆனால் அந்த அளவிற்கு பணம் இந்தியா வந்து சேரவில்லை எனவும் கூறினார்.
• லாபத்தில் வழங்கப்பட வேண்டியபங்கு இருப்பு பாதைத் துறையில் முதலீடு செய்தவர்களுக்கு உத்திரவாதம் அளிக்கப்பட்டவாறு தரப்படவில்லை .
• பணிநிறைவு பெற்றுவிட்ட அதிகாரிகளுக்குள் தளபதிகளுக்கும் வழங்கப்பட வேண்டிய ஓய்வூதியம், இந்தியாவிலும் இந்தியாவிற்கு வெளியிலும் நாடுகளைக் கைப்பற்ற நடைபெற்ற போர்களுக்காக இங்கிலாந்திடம் செலுத்த வேண்டிய வட்டி எல்லாவற்றிற்கும் பதிலாகவே பொருட்கள் ஏற்றுமதி
  செய்யப்பட்டதாக கூறினார்.
• தாயகக்கட்டணம் என்னும் பெயரில் ஆண்டொன்றுக்கு 30 மில்லியன் பவுண்டுகள் நஷ்டம் ஏற்படுத்துவதாக நௌரோஜி உறுதிபடக் கூறினார்.
• தாதாபாய் நௌரோஜியால் முன்வைக்கப்பட்ட செல்வச் சுரண்டல் கோட்பாடு இந்தியாவின் செல்வவளத்தை ஆங்கிலேயர் கொள்ளையடிப்பதை வெட்ட வெளிச்சமாக்கியது.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 17 Rights, Duties & Responsibilities of Consumers Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 17 Rights, Duties & Responsibilities of Consumers

12th Commerce Guide Rights, Duties & Responsibilities of Consumers Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answers.

Question 1.
The final aim of modern marketing is …………….
a. Maximum profit
b. Minimum profit
c. Consumer satisfaction
d. Service to the society
Answer:
c. Consumer satisfaction

Question 2.
…………………. is the king of modern marketing.
a. Consumer
b. Wholesaler
c. Producer
d. Retailer
Answer:
a. Consumer

Question 3.
As the consumer is having the rights, they are also having …………….
a. Measures
b. Promotion
c. Responsibilities
d. Duties
Answer:
c. Responsibilities

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy
a. Right to safety
b. Right to choose
c. Right to consume
d. Right to informed
Answer:
c. Right to consume

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write short notes on “Right to be informed”
Answer:
Consumers should be given all the relevant facts about the product. This implies that the manufacturer and the dealer are expected to disclose all the material facts relevant and relating to the product.

Question 2.
What do you understand about the “Right to safety”?
Answer:
“Right to safety” or “right to protection” against the marketing of goods which are hazardous and dangerous to consumer health, lives, and property.

Question 3.
What are the rights of consumers according to John F. Kennedy?
Answer:
The former president of U.S.A Mr. John F. Kennedy defined the basic consumer rights as “The Right of Safety“ the Right to be informed, the Right to choose and the Right to be heard.”

Question 4.
Which is the supreme objective of a business?
Answer:
The prime and supreme objective of the business is to satisfy the consumer’s wants.

Question 5.
What are the important aspects to be kept in mind by consumers while purchasing goods related to the quality of goods?
Answer:
The consumer has to have the knowledge about the quality from his own experiences or from the experiences of other persons who used the product or by browsing the website.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by “Right to redressal”?
Answer:

•  Right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation of consumers.
• The complaints and protests of the aggrieved consumer is to be settled and compensated within a reasonable time.
• There should be fair and just settlement of deserving claims in a definite time frame.

Question 2.
What do you understand about “Right to protection of health and safety”?
Answer:

•  Right to safety or right to protection against marketing of goods which are hazardous and dangerous to consumers health, lives and property.
• The health hazards which are likely to arise have to be eradicated.
• Both life saving and life sustaining safety is to be guaranteed in case of food items drugs.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the rights of consumers? [HIS] [CR|
Answer:
Right to be heard:
Consumers have right to show and register their dissatisfaction.
Right to be heard and to be assured that the consumer’s interest will receive due consideration b\ the sellers

Right to be informed:
The manufacturers and the sellers are expected to disclose (inform ) all the material facts regarding to the products [Quality, Quantity, potency, purity, price etc.|

Right to safety:[Right to protection of health and safety]
Right to safety or right to protection against marketing of goods which are hazardous and dangerous to consumer health, lies and properly.

Right to choose:
Right to access [choose] variety of goods [quality and brands] at reasonable price.

Right to redressal:

• Right to seek redress against unfair trade practices or unscrupulous exploitations or
• The complaints and protests of the aggrieved consumer is to be settled and compensated
• There should be fair and just settlement of deserving claims in a definite lime frame.

Right to consumer education:
The Consumer has to acquire knowledge and stay well informed although his life
He should be aware about his rights and the reliefs granted to him where a product or service falls short or his expectations.

Question 2.
Explain the duties of consumers. [BEEBI] [N]
Answer:
Apart from rights, there are certain duties imposed on the consumer. The following are the duties of consumers

1. Buying Quality Products at Reasonable Price: It is the duty of a consumer to purchase a product after gaining a thorough knowledge of its price, quality, and other terms and conditions.
2. Ensure the Weights and Measurement before Purchase: The consumer should ensure that he/she is getting the product of exact weight and measure.
3. Reading the Label Carefully: It is the duty of the consumer to read the label of the product thoroughly.
4. Beware of False and Attractive Advertisements: It is the prime duty of the consumer about the genuineness of the advertisement, before purchasing the product.
5. Ensuring the Receipt of Cash Bill: It is a legitimate duty of consumers to get the cash receipt and warranty card supplied along with the bill.

Question 3.
What are the responsibilities of consumers?
Answer:

• The consumer must pay the price of the goods according to the terms and conditions of the sale contract.
• The duty of the consumer to apply to the seller for the delivery of goods. Otherwise, goods will not be delivered
• He is responsible to take delivery of goods on the due date and time.
• The consumer has to bear any loss which may arise to the seller when the consumer refuses to take delivery or delays in taking delivery in time.
• The consumer is bound to pay any interest or special damages caused to the seller in case if there is a delay in the payment.
• The consumer must ask and collect the invoice, cash receipt, delivery note, guarantee card.
• The consumer has to follow and observe strictly the instruction and precautions while using the products.
• He has to follow the prescriptions and directions of Doctors and such other professionals.
• He has a responsibility to tell the seller of his requirements and expectations from the product.
• He must file a complaint with the seller concerned about defects or shortcoming noticed in their products and services.
• The consumer should never compromise on the quality of goods. He must watch for ISO, Agmark, FPO, the standard quality certification marks on the label.

12th Commerce Guide Rights, Duties & Responsibilities of Consumers Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
The consumer is to be protected against any __________
(a) unfair practices of trade
(b) family functions
(c) profit-making firm
(d) loss in business
Answer:
(a) unfair practices of trade

Question 2.
…………………………. Should be conscious of his duties.
a. Producer
b. Consumer
c. Seller
d. NOTA
Answer:
b. Consumer

Question 2.
The consumer is the __________ of the modem marketing.
(a) Manager
(b) Director
(c) King
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) King

II. Match the following.

Question 1.

a. i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
b. i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
c. i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
d. i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
Answer:
a. i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Every consumer has a right to get basic necessities of life such as food, clothing, water and a pure and healthy environment.
Reason (R) : Community life should be free from various modes of pollution
a. Both (A) and (R) are true
b. Both (A) and (R) false
c. (A) is true (R) is false
d. (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true

IV. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Rights to quality of life?
Answer:

• Quality of life refers to the perceived well-being of people in groups and individually and well being of the environment in which these people live.
• Consumerism has been defined as an improved quality of life.

Question 2.
How the consumer got the basic needs, as per the right of the consumer?
Answer:
Every consumer has a right to get basic necessities of life such as food, clothing, and water, and the right to pine and a healthy environment. It is the latest addition to the consumer bill of rights.

Question 3.
Define “consumer rights”.
Answer:

• The Right to have information about the Quality, Quantity, potency, purity, price and standard of goods or services.
• It is mandatory for the consumer to know these rights.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 16 Consumerism Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 16 Consumerism

12th Commerce Guide Consumerism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Questions 1.
The term ‘consumerism’ came into existence in the year …………
a) 1960
b) 1957
c) 1954
d) 1958
Answer:
a) 1960

Question 2.
Who is the father of consumer movement?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Mr.John F. Kennedy
c) Ralph Nader
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
c) Ralph Nader

Question 3.
Sale of goods act was passed in the year?
a) 1962
b) 1972
c) 1930
d) 1985
Answer:
c) 1930

Question 4.
The main objective of all business enterprises is ………….
a) Providing service
b) Providing better standard of life
c) Providing necessities to the society
d) Earn profit
Answer:
d) Earn profit

Question 5.
The consumer protection act came into force with effect from
a) 1.1.1986
b) 1.4.1986
c) 15.4.1987
d) 15.4.1990
Answer:
c) 15.4.1987

Question 6.
……………………… of every year is declared as a consumer protection day to educate the public about their rights and responsibilities.
a) August 15
b) April 15
c) March 15
d) September 15
Answer:
c) March 15

Question 7.
Any person who buys any goods or avails services for personal use, for a consideration is called as …………..
a) Customer
b) Consumer
c) Buyers
d) User
Answer:
b) Consumer

Question 8.
The General Assembly of United Nations passed resolution of consumer protection guidelines on
a) 1985
b) 1958
c) 1986
d) 1988
Answer:
a) 1985

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is a consumer?
Answer:
A consumer is one who consumes goods manufactured and sold by others or created (air, water, natural resources) by nature and sold by others.

Question 2.
Define consumerism.
Answer:
“Consumerism is an attempt to enhance the rights and powers by buyers in relation to sellers”. L. Massie.

Question 3.
Give two examples of adulteration.
Answer:

1. Powdered rice/wheat is adulterated with starch.
2. Coffee powder is adulterated with tamarind seed.

Question 4.
What is caveat emptor?
Answer:
‘Caveat emptor’ is a Latin term that means “let the buyer beware.” Similar to the phrase”sold as is” this term means that the buyer assumes the risk that a product fails to meet expectations or have defects.

Question 5.
What is Caveat Venditor?
Answer:

• “Caveat Venditor” or “let the seller Beware” means by which goods are covered by an implied warranty of merchantability.
• Unless or otherwise advertised [sold as is ] with the buyer nearly all consumer products are guaranteed to work if used for their intended purpose.

Question 6.
Write short notes on Consumer Protection Act, 1986
Answer:
The Central Government enacted a comprehensive law called the Consumer Protection Act in 1986. This Act came into force with effect from 15.04.1987. This Act was further amended in 1993. The Act is referred to in short as ‘COPRA’.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the important legislations related to consumerism in India?
Answer:

•  Sale of goods act -1930
•  The agricultural products grading and marketing act -1937
•  The drugs and cosmetics act -1940
•  The prevention of food Adulteration act -1954
•  The essential commodities act -1955
•  Weight and measures act -1958

Question 2.
What is meant by artificial scarcity?
Answer:

• Even in times of plenty of stock, the sellers create artificial scarcity in the market to push up the prices to earn more profit.(e.g) “No stock” – Board in front of shops. “House full” – Board in front of theaters.
• But goods and cinema tickets are available at a higher price in the black market.

Question 3.
Write the importance of consumerism. [APP DEAD]
Answer:
Consumer Legislation:

1. The Indian Contract Act, 1982
2. The Sale of Goods Act, 1982
3. The Essential Commodities Act, 1955
4. The Agricultural Products Grading and Marketing Act, 1937
5. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
6. Weights and Measures Act, 1958
7. The Trademark Act, 1999

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How consumers are Exploited? [FD PASS]
Answer:
False advertisement:
Producers make false claims and bogus presentations about their products in the media, [quality, price, grade etc.]
With a view to mislead the consumers [eg] A ‘pinch of Rin’ ad ’23 components of complaint ad

Duplication [Spurious goods]:

•  Duplicates of popular brands of products are produced and sold.
•  A consumer is not in a position to differentiate the duplicate from the original thus consumer is exploited.
•  [eg] Watches – TITAN – TITTAN
•  Shoes – ADIDAS – ADITAS

Product risk:

•  Harmful and banned drugs, Electrical appliances with inadequate safety provisions are sold in the market.
•  Such goods are dangerous and injurious to the lives of the customers.
•  eg: Electrical Gadgets with inadequate insulation.

Adulteration:

•  Adulteration is quite common in food articles.
•  It means mixing or substituting undesirable materials in food
•  It spoils the health of the consumer
•  It is a crime which cannot be pardoned
•  eg: Mixing of stone with rice
•  Mixing of water with milk
•  Mixing of brick powder with chilli powder
•  Papaya seeds added to black pepper.

Selling at a higher price:

• The price charged by the seller for a product or service is not proportionate to the quality but at times it is more than the fair price.
• eg: Price printed in the book X 200
• But it is sold for X 240

Sub-standard:

•  On opening a packed and sealed container one finds the contents with poor quality and quantity [damaged and low weight]
  eg: Ice creams -Zandubalm – Colgate paste.

Question 2.
Explain the role of business in consumer protection?
Answer:
Business enterprises should do the following towards protecting consumers.

1. Avoidance of Price Hike: Business enterprises should desist from hiking the price in the context of acute shortage of goods.
2. Avoidance of Hoarding: Business enterprises should not indulge in hoarding and black marketing to earn maximum profit.
3. Guarantees for Good Quality: Business enterprises should not give false warranty for the products.
4. Product Information: Business enterprises should disclose correct, complete and accurate information about the product viz. size, quality, quantity, weight etc.
5. The in advertising: Business enterprises should not convey false, untrue, bogus information relating to the product through the advertisement.
6. Money Refund Guarantee: Where the product becomes defective, business enterprises should replace it with new one or refund the purchase price.

Question 3.
What are the needs for consumer protection?
Answer:
Though consumer is said to be the king of modern marketing his interests are virtually

•  Shortage of goods makes the consumers to be content with whatever is offered for sales, v Quality is sacrificed.
•  Warranty of performance has no meaning. v Health hazard is never considered.
•  The main aim of business concerns is to earn more profit.
•  In such a context consumer protection remains a vital importance.

Question 4.
Explain the role of consumers in Consumer Protection.
Answer:

• The consumer who alone can put an end to all their unethical trade practices.
• Consumer action councils established at village levels should educate consumers of the
• It should regulate business enterprises according to the rules of the industry.
• It should organize movement against the mal practice of manufacturers and traders.
• It should contact the legislators to raise consumer issues in Assembly and Parliament,
• VCO should publicise the malpractices of manufacturers and traders.
• Consumers cooperatives need to be strengthened.

Question 5.
What are the objectives of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
Answer:
The Central Government enacted a comprehensive law called the Consumer Protection Act in 1986. This Act came into force with effect from 15.04.1987. It is in short, called as ‘COPRA’.
Objectives:

1. Consumer Protection Act protects the interests of the consumers.
2. This Act provides safeguards against defective goods and deficient services, untrade practices.
3. It also gives settlement of consumer disputes.
4. It is applicable to the public sector, financial and co-operative enterprises.

Question 6.
Write about five important consumer legislation.
Answer:
To protect the consumers from unfair traders, the government passed various legislative Acts.
They are as follows:

1. The Indian Contract Act, 1982 was passed to bind the people on the promise made in the contract.
2. The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 protects the consumers against artificial shortages created by the sellers by hoarding the goods.
3. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 checks the adulteration of food articles and ensures the purity of goods supplied.
4. Weights and Measures Act, 1958 protects the consumer against malpractices of underweight or under measurement.

12th Commerce Guide Consumerism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
In the practical world, a ……………………………….. is a slave and not the sovereign as described.
a) Consumer
b) Producer
c) Wholesaler
d) Retailer
Answer:
a) Consumer

Question 2.
The consumer protection act was amended in the year …………………
a) 1986
b) 1987
c) 1993
d) 2000
Answer:
c) 1993

Question 2.
The term ‘Caveat emptor’ is a Latin term, which means _________
(a) Let the seller beware.
(b) Let the buyer beware
(c) Consumer
(d) Marketer
Answer:
(b) Let the buyer beware

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not the correct method?
a) The trademark act – 1999
b) The essential commodities act – 1955
c) ISI act – 1952
d) The drugs and cosmetics act – 1900
Answer:
d) The drugs and cosmetics act – 1900

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out.
a) Adulteration
b) Sub-standard
c) False advertisement
d) Sold as is
Answer:
d) Sold as is

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out.
a) The drugs and magic remedies act -1954
b) The Indian companies act -1956
c) Public liability insurance act -1991
d) The Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act -1985
Answer:
b) The Indian companies act-1956

Question 7.
Choose the correct statement.
i) Significance of consumerism – Awakening and uniting consumers
ii) Encouraging unfair trade practices
iii) Awakening the government.
a) (i) is correct
b) (i) and) (ii) are correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is incorrect
d) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
Answer:
c) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is incorrect

II. Match The Following

Question .1

a) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
b) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3
c) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
d) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
Answer:
a) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3

Question 2.

a) i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2
c) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
d) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Duplicate products of popular products are illegally produced and sold.
Reason (R) : A consumer is not in a position to distinguish duplicates from the originals
a) (A) and (R) are true
b) (A) and (R) false
c) (A) is true (R) is false
d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
a) (A) and (R) are true

IV. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on False Advertisements.
Answer:
The main motive of advertisements is to educate the consumers regarding various aspects of the products and services. Sometimes it makes a false representation of the quality, price, grade, composition, and utility of products. Often the products are not as attractive as shown in the advertisement by the sellers. Consumers who buy the products on the faith of claims made in advertisements are cheated.

Question 2.
Which are the three constituent elements of business?
Answer:

•  Government
•  Business
•  Consumer

Question 3.
What is the role of the Government in consumer protection?
Answer:

• The government should assure an active role in safeguarding the consumers.
• Governments [central and state] have brought out more legislation to protect the consumers in the country.
• Most of the consumers [ including educated] are illiterate about their rights and passive
• Mere statute book [law book] will not address the problems.
• Law enforcement authorities should sting the offenders mercilessly.

V. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the Evolution and growth of consumerism
Answer:
Evolution:
The major causes of consumerism in India have been identified as rising prices, poor product performance and service quality product shortages, and deceptive advertising and inflation.

Growth:

• Consumerism or consumer movement is an outcome of the sufferings and exploitations of consumers.
• It intends to shield the consumers from commercial terrorism and exploitative practices.
• Its aim is to safeguard consumer interests by establishing their rights and powers in relation to products and sellers.
• Ralph Nader fought against the monopoly and unethical trade practices of large companies in the USA.
• He is considered to be the father of the consumer movement.
• He initially fought against the automobile industry for violating safety standards and pollution control norms
• Countries like Britain, Sweden, Demark, Netherlands, and even in Kenya have stringent laws against consumer exploitation in their respective countries.
• The united nations general assembly has adopted a set of general guidelines for consumer protection.

Question 2.
What are the salient features of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
Answer:

• Protecting consumers against products and services which are harmful to the health of consumers.
• Protecting consumers from the breach of contract by sellers /manufacturers.
• Ensuring consumers with a supply of goods at fair quality.
• Ensuring that consumers are charged a fair price.
• Ensuring an uninterrupted supply of goods.
• Protecting the consumers against unfair trade practices of unscrupulous traders.
• Protecting the consumers against pollution of various kinds
• Protecting consumers against the effect of competition.

Question 3.
What are the objectives of the united nations Guidelines for consumer protection?
Answer:

• To facilitate production and distribution patterns responsive to the needs and desires of consumers.
• To facilitate the development of independent consumer groups.
• To encourage high levels of ethical conduct for those engaged in the production and distribution of goods and services to the consumers.
• To encourage the development of market conditions that provide consumers with greater choice at lower prices.
• To further international co-operative in the field of consumer protection.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers

12th Chemistry Guide Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I Text Book Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
An alcohol (x) gives blue colour in victormayer’s test and 3.7g of X when treated with metallic sodium liberates 560 mL of hydrogen at 273 K and 1 atm pressure what will be the possible structure of X?
(a) CH₃ CH (OH) CH₂CH₃
(b) CH₃ – CH(OH) – CH₃
(c) CH₃ – C (OH) (CH₃)₂
(d) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH (OH) – CH₂ – CH₃
Answer:
(a) CH₃ CH (OH) CH₂CH₃
Hint:
2R – OH + Na → 2RONa + 2H₂ ↑ 2 moles of alcohol gives 1 mole of H₂ which occupies
22.4L at 273K and 1 atm
number of moles of alcohol = \(\frac{2 \text { moles of } \mathrm{R}-\mathrm{OH}}{22.4 \mathrm{L} \text { of } \mathrm{H}_{2}}\) x 560 mL = 0.05 moles
number of moles = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { molar mass }}\)
= molar mass = \(\frac{3.7}{0.05}\) = 74 g mol^-1
General formula for
R – OH C_n H_2n+1 – OH
n(12) + (2n+1) (1) + 16 +1 = 74
14n = 74 – 18
14n = 56
n = \(\frac { 56 }{ 4 }\) = 4
The 2° alcohol which contains 4 carbon is CH_n CH(OH)CH₂ CH₃

Question 2.
Which of the following compounds on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide will give tertiary alcohol.
(a) benzaldehyde
(b) propanoic acid
(c) methyl propanoate
(d) acetaldehyde
Answer:
(c) methyl propanoate
Solution:

Question 3.


Answer:
a
Solution:
hydro boration – Anti markownikoff product
i.e CH₃ – CH₂ – CH – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH

Question 4.
In the reaction sequence, Ethane

Ethan – 1, 2 – diol. A and X respectively are ………….
(a) Chioroethane and NaOH
(b) ethanol and H₂SO₄
(c) 2 – chloroethan – 1 – ol and NaHCO₃
(d) ethanol and H₂O
Answer:
(c) 2 – chloroethan – 1 – ol and NaHCO₃\

Solution:

Question 5.
Which one of the following is the strongest acid ………..
(a) 2 – nitrophenol
(b) 4 – chlorophenol
(c) 4 – nitrophenol
(d) 3 – nitrophenol
Answer:
(c) 4 – nitrophenol

Question 6.

on treatment with Con. H₂SO₄, predominately gives ……………..


Answer:
b
Solution:

Question 7.
Carbolic acid is …………..
(a) Phenol
(b) Picric acid
(c) benzoic acid
(d) phenylacetic acid
Answer:
(a) Phenol

Question 8.
Which one of the following will react with phenol to give salicyladehyde after hydrolysis …………..
(a) Dichioro methane
(b) trichioroethane
(c) trichloro methane
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) trichloro methane (Riemer Tiemann reaction)

Question 9.

(a) (CH₃)₃ CCH = CH₂
(b) (CH₃)₂ C = C (CH₃)₂
(c) CH₂ = C(CH₃)CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
(d) CH₂ = C (CH₃) – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
Answer:
(b) (CH₃)₂ C = C (CH₃)₂
Solution:

Question 10.
The correct IUPAC name of the compound,

(a) 4 – chloro – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentan – 1 – ol
(b) 2, 3 – dimethyl – 4 – chloropentan – 1 – ol
(c) 2, 3, 4 – trimethyl – 4 – chiorobutan – 1 – ol
(d) 4 – chioro – 2, 3, 4 – trimethyl pentan – 1 – ol
Answer:
(a) 4 – chloro – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentan – 1 – ol

Question 11.
Assertion: Phenol is more acidic than ethanol
Reason: Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 12.
In the reaction Ethanol

is ………………
(a) ethane
(b) ethoxyethane
(c) ethylbisuiphite
(d) ethanol
Answer:
(d) ethanol
Solution:

Question 13.
The reaction

can be classified as
(a) dehydration
(b) Williams on alcohol synthesis
(c) Williamson ether synthesis
(d) dehydrogenation of alcohol
Answer:
(c) Williamson ether synthesis
Solution:
Cyclic alcohol → sodium cyclic alkoxide → Williamson ether synthesis

Question 14.
Isoprophylbcnzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives …………
(a) C₆H₅COOH
(b) C₆H₅COCH₃
(c) C₆H₅COC₆H₅
(d) C₆H₅ – OH
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅ – OH (phenol)

Question 15.
Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction
Reason: In the case of phenol. the intermediate arenium ion is more stabilized by resonance.
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false,.
Answer:
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 16.
HO CH₂ CH₂ – OH on heating with periodic acid gives ………..
(a) methanoic acid
(b) Glyoxal
(c) methanol
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) methanol

Question 17.
Which of the following compound can be used as artireeze in automobile radiators?
(a) methanol
(b) ethanol
(c) Neopentyl alcohol
(d) ethan -1, 2-diol
Answer:
(d) ethan -1, 2-diol

Question 18.
The reaction

is an example of …………..
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) cyclic reaction
(c) Williamson reaction
(d) Kolbe reactions
Answer:
(c) Kolbe reactions

Question 19.
One mole of an organic compound (A) with the formula C₃H₈O reacts completely with two moles of HI to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers the iodoform test. The compound (A) is ……………
(a) propan – 2 – ol
(b) propan- 1- ol
(c) ethoxy ethane
(d) methoxy ethane
Answer:
(d) methoxy ethane
Solution:

Question 20.
Among the following ethers which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot HI?

Answer:
a
Solution:

Question 21.
Williamson synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is a / an
(a) SN¹ reactions
(b) SN² reaction
(c) electrophilic addition
(d) electrophilic substitution
Answer:
(b) SN² reaction

Question 22.
On reacting with neutral ferric chloride, phenol gives
(a) red colour
(b) violet colour
(c) dark green colour
(d) no colouration
Answer:
(b) violet colour

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
IdentIfy the product (s) is/are formed when 1 – methoxy propane is heated with excess HI. Name the mechanism involved in the reaction.
Answer:

Ethers having primary alkyl group undergo \(\mathrm{S}_{\mathrm{N}}^{2}\) reaction

Question 2.
Draw the major product formed when 1 – ethoxyprop – 1 – ene is heated with one equivalent of HI
Answer:

Question 3.
Suggest a suitable reagent to prepare secondary alcohol with an identical groups using a Grignard reagent.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is the major product obtained when two moles of ethyl magnesium bromide is treated with methyl benzoate followed by acid hydrolysis
Answer:

Question 5.
Predict the major product, when 2-methyl but – 2 – ene is converted into alcohol in each of the following methods.

1. Acid-catalyzed hydration
2. Hydroboration
3. Hydroxylation using bayers reagent

Answer:

Question 6.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their boiling point and give a reason for your ordering

1. Butan – 2 – ol, Butan – 1 – SI, 2 – methylpropan – 2 – ol
2. Propan – 1 – ol, propan – 1, 2, 3 – triol, propan – 1, 3 – diol, propan – 2 – ol

Answer:
1. Boiling points increases regularly as the molecular mass increases due to a corresponding increase in their Van der Waal’s force of attraction. Among isomeric alcohols, 2° – alcohols have lower boiling points than 1° – alcohols due to a corresponding decrease in the extent

of H-bonding because of steric hindrance. Thus the boiling point of Butan – 2 – ol is lower than that of Butan – 1 – ol. Overall increasing order of boiling points is, 2 – methyl propane – 2 – ol < Butan – 2 – ol < Butan – 1 – ol

2. 2°-alcohols have lower boiling points than 1° – alcohols due to a corresponding decrease in the extent of H – bonding because of steric hindrance. Therefore Propan – 1 – ol has higher boiling point than Propan – 2 – ol. The hydrogen group increases, boiling point also increases. Overall increasing order of boiling points is, propan – 2 – ol < Propan – 1 – ol < propan – 1, 3 – diol < propan -1, 2, 3 – triol

Question 7.
Can we use nucleophiles such as NH₃, CH₃O for the Nucleophilic substitution of alcohols
Answer:
1. Increasing order of nucleophilicity,
NH₃ < – OH^⊕ < CH₃O^⊖-

2. Higher electron density will increase the nucleophilicity.

3. Negatively charged species are almost always more nucleophiles than neutral species.

4. RO^⊖ has an alkyl group attached, allowing a greater amount of polarizability. This means oxygen’s lone pairs will be more readily available to reach in RO^⊖ than in OH^⊖. Hence CH₃O – is the better nucleophile for the nucleophilic substitution of alcohols. NH₃ cannot act as nucleophiles for the nucleophilic substitution of alcohols.

Question 8.
Is it possible to oxidise t – butyl alcohol using acidified dichromate to form a carbonyic compound.
Answer:
3° – alcohols do not undergo oxidation reaction under normal conditions, but at elevated temperature, under strong oxidising agent cleavage of C – C bond takes place to give a mixture of carboxylic acid.

Yes, it is possible. t – butyl alcohol is readily oxidsing in acidic solution (K₂Cr₂O₇ / H₂SO₄) to a mixture of a ketone and an acid each containing lesser number of carbon atoms than the original alcohol. The oxidation presumably occur via alkenes formed through dehydration of alcohols under acidic conditions.

Question 9.
What happens when 1 – phenyl ethanol is treated with acidified KMnO₄.
Answer:
1 – phenyl ethanol reacts with acidified KMnO₄ to give Acetophenone.

Question 10.
Write the mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol to give ethene.
Answer:

Question 11.
How is phenol prepared form

1. chloro benzene
2. isopropyl benzene

Answer:

Question 12.
Explain Kolbe’s reaction
Answer:
Kolbe’s (or) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction:
In this reaction, phenol is first converted into sodium phenoxide which is more reactive than phenol towards electrophilic substitution reaction with CO₂. Treatment of sodium phenoxide with CO₂ at 400K, 4 -7 bar pressure followed by acid hydrolysis gives salicylic acid.

Question 13.
Writes the chemical equation for Williamson synthesis of 2 – ethoxy – 2 – methyl pentane starting from ethanol and 2 – methyl pentan – 2 – ol
Answer:
A tertiary alkoxide and primary alkyl halide easily undergo williamson ether synthesis

Question 14.
Write the structure of the aldehyde, carboxylic acid and ester that yield 4 – methylpent – 2 – en – 1 – ol.
Answer:

Question 15.
What is metamerism? Give the structure and IUPAC name of metamers of 2 – methoxy propane
Answer:
Metamerism:
It is a special type of isomerism in which molecules with same formula, same functional group, but different only in the nature of the alkyl group attached to oxygen.

Question 16.
How are the following conversions effected

1. benzyl chlorjde to benzyl alcohol
2. benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid

Answer:

Question 17.
Complete the following reactions

Answer:

Question 18.
O.44g of a monohydric alcohol when added to methyl magnesium iodide in ether liberates at STP 112 cm³ of methane with PCC the same alcohol form a carbonyl compound that answers silver mirror test. Identify the compound.

C_nH_2n+1+OH
⇒ n x 12+ (2n + 1) x 1 + 1 x 16 + 1 x 1 = 88
12n + 2n + 1 + 16 + 1 = 88
14n + 18 = 88
14n = 88 – 18
14n = 70
n = 70/14 = 5
Answer:

Question 19.
Complete the following reactions

Answer:

(According to Saytzeff s rule, during intramolecular dehydration, if there is a possibility to form C = C bond at different locations, the preferred location is the one that gives the more substituted alkene je, the stable alkene).

Question 20.
Phenol is distilled with Zn dust gives (A) followed by Friedel – crafts alkylation with propyl chloride to give a compound B, B on oxidation gives (C). Identify A,B and C.
Answer:

Note:
Carbon directly attached to the aromatic riñg is called benzylic carbon.
If there is hydrogen attached to benzylic carbon it will undergo oxidation.

Question 21.

Identify A, B, C, D and write the complete equation.
Answer:

Question 22.
What will be the product for the following reaction

Answer:

Question 23.
How will you convert acetylene into n – butyl alcohol.
Answer:

Question 24.
Predict the product A, B, X and Y in the following sequence of reaction

Answer:

Question 25.
3,3 – dimethyl butane – 2 – ol on treatment with conc. H₂SO₄ to give tetramethyl ethylene as a major product. Suggest suitable mechanisms.
Answer:

III. Evaluate yourself

Question 1.
Classify the following alcohols as 1⁰, 2⁰, and 3⁰ and give their IUPAC Names.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write all the possible isomers of alcohol having the molecular formula C₁₅H₁₂O and their IUPAC names.
Answer:
Eight isomers are possible for C₁₅H₁₂O. They are,

Question 3.
Suggest a suitable carbonyl compound for the preparation of pent – 2 – en – 1 ol using LiAlH₄.
Answer:

Question 4.
2 – methylpropan – 2 – ene

Answer:

Question 5.
How will you prepare the following using a Grignard reagent?

1. t – butyl alcohol
2. allyl alcohol

Answer:

Question 6.
Identify the products in the following reactions. Write their IUPAC names and mention the mechanism involved in the reactions.

Answer:

Question 7.
What is the major product obtained when 2, 3 – dimethyl pentan – 3 – ol is heated in the presence of H₂SO₄
Answer:

Question 8.
Which of the following set of reactants will give 1 – methoxy – 4 – nitrobenzene.

Answer:

Question 9.
What happens when m – cresol is treated with an acidic solution of sodium dichromate?
Answer:

Question 10.
When phenol is treated with propan – 2 – ol in the presence of HF, Friedel – Craft reaction takes place. Identify the products.
Answer:

Question 11.
Given the IUPAC name for the following ethers and classify them as simple or mixed.
Answer:

Question 12.
1. Which of the following reaction will give 1 – methoxy – 4 – nitrobenzene.

1. 4 – nitro – 1 – bromobenzene + sodium methoxide.
2. 4 – nitrosodium phenoxide + bromomethane

Answer:
4-nitrosodium phenoxide + bromo methane → 1 – methoxy – 4 – nitrobenzene

Reason: 4 – nitro -1- brornobnzene + sodium methoxide can not be used, because bromine is strongly bonded to carbon atom of hcnzcne ring and it can not be replaced easily.

Question 13.
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their acid strength. propan – 1 – ol, 2, 4, 6 – trinitroptienol, 3 – nitrophenol, 3,5 – dinitrophenol, phenol, 4 – methyl phenol.
Answer:
Phenols are stronger acids than alcohols because the phenoxide ion left after the removal of proton is stabilized by resonance while the alkoxide ion left after the removal of a proton from alcohol is not stabilized. Thus propan – 1 – ol is much weaker acid than any phenol.

Thus propan- 1 – ol is a much weaker acid than any phenol. We know that electron-donating groups decrease the acidic character and stronger is the electron-donating group, weaker is the phenol.

Compare to propan – 1 – ol, 4 – methyl phenol is a stronger acidic character. But comparing phenol and 4-methyl phenol, phenol is stronger acidic. Since electron-withdrawing groups increase the acidic character of phenols and the effect is more pronounced at the para position than at the meta position.

Therefore 4 – nitrophenol is a stronger acid than 3 – nitro phenol. Further as the number of electron-withdrawing groups increases the acidic strength further increases. Therefore 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol is a stronger acid than 3, 5 – dinitrophenol. It may be noted here that although the two nitro groups in 3, 5 – dinitrophenol are at m – position with respect to OH group,

their combined effect is however greater than one nitro group at p – position. Therefore 3, 5 – dinitrophenol is a stronger acid than 4-nitro phenol. Thus, the overall increasing order of acid strength is. Propan – 1 – 01 < 4 – methyl phenol < phenol < 3 – nitrophenol < 3, 5 – dinitrophenol < 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol.

Question 14.
1 mole of HI is allowed to react with t – butyl methylether. Identify the product and write down the mechanism of the reaction.
Answer:

The reaction involves the protonation of oxygen which is followed by the SN1 mechanism.
The products are t-butvl iodide and methyl alcohol.

12th Chemistry Guide Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Additional Questions and Answers

Part – II – Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In ethanol the – OH group is attached to hybridised carbon
a) sp
b) sp²
c) sp³
d) dsp²
Ans :
c) sp³

Question 2.
In Vinyl alcohol the -OH group is attached to hvbridised carbon
a) sp
b) sp²
c) sp³
d) dsp²
Ans :
b) sp²

Question 3.
Sorbitol is
a) monohydric alcohol
b) dihydric alcohol
c) trihydric alcohol
d) hexa hydric alcohol
Answer:
d) hexa hydric alcohol

Question 4.
The IUPAC name of sorbitol is
a) Ethan -1, 2 – diol
b) Propan – 1, 2, 3 – triol
c) Hexan – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 – hexol
d) Ethenol
Answer:
c) Hexan – 1, 2, 3,4, 5, 6 – hexol

Question 5.

a) prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol
b) 2 – methyl but – 3 – en – 2 ol
c) 3 – methyl but – 1 – en – 3 – ol
d) 1,1 – di methyl prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol
Answer:
b) 2 – methyl but – 3 – en – 2 ol

Question 6.
The C – O – H bond angle in methanol is
a) 107°
b) 109°.5°
c) 108.9°
d) 104°
Answer:
c) 108.9°

Question 7.
CH₃-CH₂-a + NaOH → CH₃-CH₂-OH + NaCl This reaction follows mechanism
a) \(S_{N}^{1}[latex]
b) [latex]S_{N}^{2}\)
c) E¹
d) E²
Answer:
b) \(S_{N}^{2}\)

Question 8.
Conversion of isobutyl chloride and isopropyl chloride into isobutyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol respectively using dilute aquous NaOH follow the mechnisms

Answer:
c)
Reason : Isobutylchloride – Primary alkyl halide – \(S_{N}^{2}\) mechanism.
Iso propyl chloride – Secondary alkyl halide – Sjsj mechanism.
\(S_{N}^{1}\)

Question 9.
Addition of water across the double bond
of an unsymmetrical alkene follows
a) Saytzeffs rule
b) Markownikoff’s rule
c) anti Markownikoff’s rule
d) Popoff’s rule
Answer:
b) Markownikoff’s rule

Question 10.
Hydroboration of an alkene follows
a) Saytzeff’s rule
b) Markownikoff’s rule
c) anti Markownikoff’s rule
d) Popoff’s rule
Answer:
c) anti – Markownikoff’s rule

Question 11.
Addition of water to 2-methyl propene in
presence of cone, sulphuric acid gives
a) 2-propanol
b) 2 – methyl – 2 – propanol
c) 2 – methyl – 1 – propanol
d) 2 – butanol
Answer:
b) 2 – methyl – 2 – propanol

Question 12.
2 – methyl propene reacts with diborane followed by H2O2 in presence of NaOH gives
a) 2 – proponol
b) 2 – methyl – 2 – propanol
c) 2 – methyl – 1 – propanol
d) 2 – butanol
Answer:
c) 2 – methyl -1 – propanol

Question 13.
To prepare a primary alcohol a Grignard reagent must be reacted with
a) HCHO
b) RCHO
c) RCOR
d) RNH₂
Answer:
a) HCHO

Question 14.
To prepare a secondary alcohol a
Grignard reagent must be reacted with
a) HCHO
b) RCHO
c) RCOR
d) RNH₂
Answer:
b) RCHO

Question 15.
To prepare a tertiary alcohol a Grignard reagent must be reacted with
a) HCHO
b) RCHO
c) RCOR
d) RNH₂
Ans:
b) RCOR

Question 16.
Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with formaldehyde followed by hydrolysis gives
a) phenol
b) Benzyl alcohol
c) Benzaldehyde
d) Benzoic acid
Answer:
b) Benzyl alcohol

Question 17.
Name the product obtained when 1 mole of methyl magnesium bromide reacts with ethyl methanoate
a) propan -2- ol
b) propan – 1 – ol
c) ethanal
d) ethanol
Answer:
c) ethanal

Question 18.

The reducing agent X is
a) Ramey Ni
b) NaBH₄
c) LiA/H₄
d) Na – Hg
Answer:
b) NaBH₄

Question 19.
The best reducing agent to prepare unsaturated alcohols from unsaturated carbonyl compounds is
a) Raney Ni
b) NaBH₄
c) LiA/H₄
d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
d) both (b) & (c)

Question 20.
Ethene is converted into ethylene glycol by treating with
a) acidified potassium dichromate
b) alkaline potassium permanganate
c) Chromyl chloride
d) nitric acid
Answer:
b) alkaline potassium permanganate

Question 21.
Cold dilute alkaline potassium permanganate is called as
a) Fenton’s reagent
b) Tollen’s reagent
c) Baeyer’s reagent
d) Schiff’s reagent
Answer:
c) Baeyer’s reagent

Question 22.
Glyceryl palmitate on alkaline hydrolysis gives
a) glycerol and soap
b) glycerol and sodium palmitate
c) glycerol and sodium hexadentate
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 23.
The preparation of glycerol and soap from oils and fats is known as
a) esterification
b) saponification
c) hydroboration
d) transesterification
Answer:
b) saponification

Question 24.
Lucas reagent is
a) dil HCl & ZnCl₂
b) Cone. HCl & anhydrous ZnCl₂
c) dil H₂SO₄ & AlCl₃
d) Conc. H2SO4 & anhydrous AlCl3
Answer:
b) Cone. HCl & anhydrous ZnCl₂

Question 25.
Which among the following will give immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent?
a) propan – 2 – ol
b) propan – 1 – ol
c) 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol
d) 2 – methyl propan – 1 – ol
Answer:
c) 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol
Hint: A teritary alcohol gives immediate turbidity

Question 26.
In Victor Meyer’s test, the alcohol which
gives blue colour is
a) propan – 2 – ol
b) propan – 1 – ol
c) 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol
d) 2 – methyl propan – 1 – ol
Answer:
a) propan – 2 – ol
Hint: A secondary alcohol gives blue colour.

Question 27.
In the given equation


Answer:
c

Question 28.
Among butyl alcohols which one have the lowest boiling point?
a) n-butyl alcohol
b) isobutyl alcohol
c) sec-butyl alcohol
d) ter – butyl alcohol
Answer:
d) ter – butyl alcohol Hint: Increasing order of boiling point is 30 < 2° < 1°

Question 29.
Which among the alcohol has a higher boiling point?
a) n-butyl alcohol
b) n-propyl alcohol
c) ethyl alcohol
d) methyl alcohol
Answer:
a) n-butyl alcohol
Hint: As molecular weight of the alcohol increases, boiling point increases.

Question 30.
Which among the following is less soluble in water?
a) n-butyl alcohol
b) n-propyl alcohol
c) ethyl alcohol
d) methyl alcohol
Answer:
a) n-butyl alcohol Hint: As the molecular weight increases, the solubility of alcohol decreases.

Question 31.
Conversion of alcohols into alkyl halide is an example of
a) Nucleophilic addition
b) Nucleophilic substitution
c) Electrophilic addition
d) Electrophilic substitution
Answer:
b) Nucleophilic substitution

Question 32.
Conversion of 2 – methyl – 1 – propanol into 2 – methyl – 1 – bromopropane is …………. reaction
a) SN²
b) SN¹
c) E²
d) E¹
Answer:
a) SN²

Question 33.
Primary alcohols undergo dehydration by mechanism
a) SN²
b) SN¹
c) E²
d) E¹
Ans:
d) E¹

Question 34.
2 – methyl – 2 – propanol when reacted with cone. H₂SO₄ gives 2 – methyl propene. This reaction follows mechanism
a) SN²
b) SN¹
c) E²
d) E¹
Answer:
d) E¹

Question 35.
During intramolecular dehydration of 3, 3 – dimethyl – 2 – butanol the major product obtained is
a) 2, 3 – dimethyl but – 1 – ene
b) 2, 3 – dimethyl but – 2 – ene
c) 3, 3 – dimethyl but – 1 – ene
d) 3, 3 – dimethyl but – 2 – ene
Answer:
b) 2, 3 – dimethyl but – 2 – ene

Question 36.
The major product obtained when phenol reacts with con.H₂SO₄ at 280 K is
a) Salicyclic acid
b) picric acid
c) o-phenol sulphonic acid
d) p-phenol sulphonic acid
Answer:
c) o-phenol sulphonic acid

Question 37.
During intramolecular dehydration of alcohols say tzeff’s rule favours the formation of
a) unstable alkenes
b) less substituted alkenes
c) more substituted alkenes
d) none of the above
Answer:
c) more substituted alkenes

Question 38.
To stop the oxidation reaction of alcohols at the aldehyde / ketone stage…………..is used as an oxidising agent
a) Pottassium permanganate
b) Py ridinium chloro chromate (PCC)
c) Potassium di chromate
d) Sodium di chromate
Answer:
b) pyridinium chloro chromate (PCC)

Question 39.
In Swern oxidation of alcohols into aldehydes/ketones the oxidising agent used is
a) Pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC)
b) Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
c) Alkaline potassium permanganate (Baeyer’s reagent)
d) Ferrous sulphate / H2O2 (Fenton’s reagent)
Answer:
b) Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)

Question 40.
To detoxify the alcohol produced in animals by the fermentaion of food, the oxidising agent used is
a) ADH
b) ADP
c) NAD
d) ATP
Answer:
c) NAD

Question 41.
The catalyst which catalyses the oxidation of toxic alcohols into non-toxic aldehyde in animals is
a) ADH
b) ADP
c) NAD
d) ATP
Answer:
a) ADH

Question 42.
When ethan-1, 2-diol is heated with anhydrous ZnCl₂ under pressure it gives
a) Ethanol
b) Ethanal
c) Ethanoic acid
d) Ethene
Ans:
b) Ethanal

Question 43.
Glycerol can be oxidised to meso oxalic acid by
a) dii HNO₃
b) HIO₄
c) Bismuth nitrate
d) Fenton’s reagent
Answer:
c) Bismuth nitrate

Question 44.
The alcohol used in the manufacture of dynamite is
a) methanol
b) ethanol
c) ethv lene glycol
d) glycerol
Answer:
d) glycerol

Question 45.
The correct order of acidic nature of alcohols is
a) Ethanol < propan – 2 – ol < 2 – methyl propan – 2- ol
b) Propan – 2 – ol < Ethanol < 2 – methyl propan — 2 — ol
c) 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol < Ethanol < propan – 2 – ol
d) 2 – methyl propan – 2 — ol Answer:
d) 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol

Question 46.
1, 3 – dihydroxy benzene is commonly
known as
a) Cresol
b) Catechol
c) Resorcinol
d) Quinol
Answer:
c) Resorcinol

Question 47.
The JUPAC name of pyrogallol is
a) 1, 2, 3 — trthydroxy benzene
h) 1, 2, 4 — trihydroxy beneze
c) 1, 3, 5 — trihydroxv benzene
d) 1, 4, 5 — tri hydroxy benzene .
Answer:
a) 1, 2, 3 — trihydroxy benzene

Question 48.
Oricinol is
a) 1, 2 – dihydroxy benzene
h) 3 — methyl phenol :
c) 3, 5 — dihydroxy toluene
d) 3, 5 — dimethyl toluene
Answer:
c) 3, 5 – dihydroxy toluene

Question 49.
Which of the following reaction will give ether?

Ans:
d) All of the above

Question 50.
Phenol on oxidation with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇gives
a) 1, 4 – dihydroxy benzene
b) 1,4- benzoquinone
c) cyclohexanol
d) cumene
Answer:
b) 1,4- benzoquinone

Question 51.
Which among the following is a simple ether?
a) 1 – methoxy propane
b) 2 – methoxy propane
c) methoxy methane
d) methoxv benzene
Answer:
c) methoxy methane

Question 52.
The oxygen atom of ether is
hybridised
a) sp
b) sp²
c) sp³
d) dsp²
Answer:
c) sp³

Question 53.
Williamson’s synthesis is an example of
a) nucleophilic addition
b) nucleophilic substitution
c) electrophilic addition
d) electrophilic substitution
Answer:
b) nucleophilic substitution

Question 54.
Which among the following is more reactive
towards ethers?
a) HF
b) HCl
c) HBr
d) HI
Answer:
d) HI

Question 55.
The products obtained when methoxy
ethane reacted with one mole of HI are
a) methanol & iodoethane
h) iodomethane & ethanol
c) iodomethane & jodo ethane
d) Methanol & ethanol
Answer:
b) iodomethane & ethanol

Question 56.
Which is used as a precursor to the synthesis of perfumes and insecticide pheromones?
a) Phenol
b) Phenoxy methane
c) methoxy benzene
d) Ethoxy benzene
Answer:
c) methoxy benzene

Question 57.
According to Lewis concept of acids and bases an ether is
a) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) amphoteric
Answer:
b) basic

Question 58.

a) CH₃COCH₃
b) C₂H₅OH
c) CH₃-CH(OH)CH₃
d) CH₃CHO
Answer:
c) CH₃-CH(OH)CH₃

Question 59.

a)Propan-1,3-diol
b) Ethan -1,2- diol
c) Propan -1,2,3- Triol
d) Ethanal
Answer:
b) Ethan -1,2- diol

Question 60.
Which of the following has lowest boiling point?
a) phenol
b) O-nitro phenol
c) m-nitro phenol
d) p-nitro phenol
Answer:
b) O-nitro phenol
Hint: O – nitrophenol has intramolecular hydrogen bonding while others intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

II. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion : Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration more readily than primary alcohol.
Reason : Tertiary alcohols are less acidic than primary alcohol.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Alcohols can act as Bronsted acids
Reason (R) : It is due to the presence of unshared electron pairs on oxygen which make them proton acceptors.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R explain A.
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R does not explain A.
c) (A) is correct but R is correct.
d) (A) is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
d) (A) is wrong but R is correct Correct Reason (A) : Alcohols can act as Bronsted bases.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : Phenol is more acidic than aliphatic alcohols
Reason (R) : Alkyl substituted phenols show a decreased acidity due to the electron releasing +1 effect of alkyl group.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R explain A.
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R does not explain A.
c) (A) is correct but R is correct.
d) (A) is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R does not explain A.
Correct Reason (R) : The phenoxide ion is more stabilised by resonance than phenol.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Orthonitro phenol is slightly soluble in water and more volatile whereas p – nitro phenol is more soluble in water and less volatile.
Reason (R) : Orthonitro phenol forms intramolecular hydrogen bonding and p-nitro phenol forms intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R explains A.
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R does not explain A.
c) (A) is correct but R is correct.
d) (A) is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R explains A.

III. Pick out the correct statements

Question 1.
(i) The structure of – OH group attached to a sp³– hybridised carbon in alcohol is similar to the structure of – OH group attached to a hydrogen in water.
(ii) Due to lone pair – lone pair repulsion, the – C – O – H bond angle in methanol is reduced to 104° from the regular tetrahedral bond angle of 109.5°.
(iii) With Grignard reagent formaldehyde gives primary alcohol and other aldehydes give secondary alcohols.
(iv) Reaction of Grignard reagent with aldehydes and ketones to form alcohols is an example for nucleophilic substitution reaction.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (i) & (iii)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (i) & (iii)
Correct statements : (ii) Due to lone pair – lone pair repulsion, the – C – O – H bond anlge in methanol is reduced to 108.9° from the regular tetrahedral bond angle of 109.5°.
(iv) Reaction of Grignard reagent with adlehydes and ketones to form alcohols is an example for nucleophilic addition reaction.

Question 2.
(i) Lower alcohols are waxy solids and the higher members are colourless liquids.
(ii) Due to the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding alcohols have higher boiling point than the corresponding alkanes, aldehydes, ethers etc.
(iii) Due to the formation of intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water lower alcohols are highly soluble in water.
(iv) Among isomeric alcohols primary alcohols have lower boiling point and tertiary alcohols have higher boiling points.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
Correct statements : (i) Lower alcohols are colourless liquids and the higher members are waxy solids.
(iv) Among isomeric alcohols primary alcohols have higher boiling point and the tertiary alcohols have lower boiling points.

Question 3.
(i) In Swern Oxidation DMSO, oxalyl chloride and triethylamine are used to convert alcohols into aldehydes / ketones.
(ii) Vapours of primary alcohol passed over heated copper at 573 K undergoes dehydration. .
(iii) Methanol reacts with ethanoic acid in presence of an acid to form ethylethanoate.
(iv) Vapours of tertiary alcohols react with heated copper at 573 K to give alkenes.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statements : (ii) Vapours of primary alcohol passed over heated copper at 573 K undergoes dehydrogenation.
(iii) Methanol reacts with ethanoic acid in presence of an acid to form methyl ethanoate. (or)
Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in presence of an acid to form ethyl ethanoate.

Question 4.
(i) Glycerol contains two primary alcoholic group and one secondry alcoholic group.
(ii) Oxidation of glycerol with cone. HNO₃ gives mainly formic acid.
(iii) Glycerol is used in making printing inks, and stamp pad ink.
(iv) Glycerol is used as a preservative for biological specimens
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (i) & (iii)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (i) & (iii)
Correct statements : (ii) Oxidation of glycerol with cone. HNO3 gives mainly glyceric acid
(iii) Ethanol is used as a preservative for biological specimens

IV. Pick out the incorrect statements

Question 1.
(i) The overall reaction of hydroboration is hydration of an alkene.
(ii) Hydroboration reaction occurs according to Markownikoff’s rule.
(iii) Raney Ni does not reduce the Carbon – Carbon double bond present in the Carbonyl compound to form unsaturated alcohols.
(iv) When two or more functional groups are present in a molecule sodium borohydride to used as a reducing agent to reduce the more reactive group
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
Correct statements : (ii) Hydroboration reaction occurs against Markownikoff’s rule.
(iii) Lithium aluminium hydride does not reduce the Carbon – Carbon double bond present in the Carbonyl compound to form unsaturated alchols.

Question 2.
(i) Ethanol forms a turbidity with Lucas reagent within 10 minutes.
(ii) 2 – Methyl propan – 2 – ol forms immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent due to the formation of insoluble 2 – chloro – 2 – methyl propane.
(iii) Ehanol forms red colour in Victor Meyer’s test.
(iv) 2 – 2 – dimethyl propan – 1 – ol gives a colourless solution in victor Meyer’s test,
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statements : (i) Ethanol forms no tubridity with lucas reagent at room temperature.
(iv) 2,2 – dimethyl propan -1 – ol gives red colour in victor mayer’s test.

Question 3.
(i) Alcohols undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with hydrohaloacids to form alkyl halides.
(ii) Alkyl halide formation from primary alchols follow E2 mechanism.
(iii) Alkyl halide formation from tertiary alcohols follow SN2 mechanism.
(iv) The conversion of methanol into chloromethane with thionyl chloride in the presence of pyridine follows SN2 mechanism.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
Correct statements : (ii) Alkyl halide formation from primary alcohols follow \(\mathrm{S}_{\mathrm{N}}^{2}\) mechanism.
(iii) Alkyl halide formation from tertiary alcohols follow \(\mathrm{S}_{\mathrm{N}}^{1}\) mechanism.

Question 4.
(i) In phenol the carbon bearing the – OH group is sp2 hybridised.
(ii) Unlike alcohols phenol reactswith sodium hydroxide to form sodium phenoxide.
(iii) In substituted phenols, the electron with drawing groups decreases the acidic nature of phenol.
(iv) Alkyl substituted phenols show increased acidity due to electron releasing +1 effect of alkvl group.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
Correct statements: (iii) In substituted phenols, the electron withdrawing groups increases the acidic
nature of phenol.
(iv) Alkyl substituted phenols show a decreased acidity due to electron releasing + I effect of alkyl
group.

V. Match the Following

Question 1.

Answer:
i) d glyceric acid & tartronic acid
ii) e glyceric acid
iii) a meso oxalic acid
iv) f glycerose
v) b formaldehyde & formic acid
vi) c oxalic acid

Question 2.

Answer:
i) d Substituted phenol
ii) c Dihydric phenol
iii) a Monohydric phenol
iv) b Trihydric phenol

Question 3.

Answer:
i) c Carbolic soaps
ii) e Cordite
iii) a Antifreeze
iv) b Perfumery
v) d Refrigerant

Question 4.

Answer:
i) e Neo pentyl alcohol
ii) d Isopropyl alcohol
iii) f 2-phenyl propan-2-ol
iv) c Ethylene glycol
v) a Glycerol
vi) b Sorbitol

VI. Two Marks Questions

Question 1.
Illustrate Markownikoff’s rule in the addition of water to an alkene
Answer:
Markownikoff’s rule states that the negative part of the adding molecules gets attached with the carbon containing least number of hydrogen atoms across the double bond.

Question 2.
Write a note on hydroboration reaction
Answer:
Diborane reacts with an alkene to form trialkyl borane which on treatment with H2O2 in presence of NaOH gives an alcohol.
The overall reaction is hydration of an alkene.
This reaction gives an anti MarkowniKoff’s product

Question 3.
Convert crotonaldehyde into crotylalcohol
Answer:
LiAlH₄ does not reduce C = C bond present in the carbonyl compound.
Hence it is the best reagent to prepare unsaturated alcohols.

Question 4.
An organic compound (A) – C₃H₈O₃ used as sweetening agent, which on oxidation with Fenton’s reagent gives a mixture of compounds B and C. Identify A, B & C. Write possible reactions.
Answer:
An organic compound (A) – C₃H₈O₃ is glycerol.
Oxidation of glycerol with Br₂/H₂O (or) NiaOBr (or) Fenton’s reagent (FeSO₄ + H₂O₂) gives a mixture of glyceraldehvde and dihydroxv acetone ( This mixture is named as glvcerose)

Question 5.
What is saponification?
Answer:
The alkaline hydroysis of naturally occurring oils and fats into glycerol and soap is called saponification.

Question 6.
What is Saytzeff’s rule
Answer:
During intramolecular dehydration of an alcohol if there is a possibility to form a carbon- carbon double bond at different locations, the preferred location is the one that gives the more substituted alkene ie., the stable alkene.

Question 7.
Convert propan -1 – ol to propanal.
Answer:
To stop the oxidation reaction of alcohols at the aldehyde / ketone stage, pyridinium chloro chromate (PCC) is used as an oxidising agent.

Question 8.
Write a note on Swern Oxidation
Answer:
In Swern oxidation dimethvl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as the oxidising agent.
It converts alcohols to ketones / aldehydes.
Alcohol is treated with DMSO and oxah I chloride followed by the addition of triethylarnine.

Question 9.
Write note on biological oxidation that occurs in animals.
Answer:

• The fermentation of the food consumed by an animal produces alcohol.
• To detoxify the alcohol, liver produces an enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
• Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) present in animals acts as an oxidising agent.
• ADH catalyses the oxidation of toxic alcohols into non-toxic aldehyde.

Question 10.
What happens when ethylene glycol is reacted with PI₃ ?
Answer:

Question 11.
What happens when ethylene glycol is heated with conc. HNO₃ and conc. H₂SO₄?
Answer:

Question 12.
How is nitroglycerine prepared
Answer:
Glycerol reacts with nitric acid in the presence of cone. H₂SO₄ to form nitroglycerine (TNG)

Question 13.
Write about the dehydration of glycerol
Answer:
When glycerol is heated with dehydrating agents such as H₂SO₄, KHSO₄ etc., it undergoes dehvration to form acrolein.

Question 14.
Convert aniline into phenol
Answer:

Question 15.
What is Schotten – Baumann reaction
Answer:
Benzovlation of phenol with benzoyl chloride in presence of NaOH is known as Schotten Baumann reaction.

Question 16.
Write a note on williamson ether synthesis?
Answer:
Methyl iodide undergoes nucleophilic substitution by phenoxide ion to form anisole

Question 17.
Convert phenol into (i) 1, 4 – benzoquionone (ii) cyclo hexanol
Answer:

Question 18.
How is picric acid prepared?
Answer:
Phenol undergoes nitration with cone HNO₃ and cone H₂SO₄ at 298 K to form 2, 4/ 6 – trinitrophenol known as picric acid

Question 19.
Differentiate phenol and ethanol
Answer:

Question 20.
Give four uses or diethyl ether.
Answer:

1. Diethyl ether is used as a surgical anaesthetic agent in surgery.
2. It is a good solvent for organic reactions and extraction.
3. It is used as a volatile starting fluid for diesel and gasoline engine.
4. It is used as a refrigerant.

Question 21.
Write the mechanism of intermolecular dehydration of alcohols?
Answer:

Question 22.
Write the mechanism of nucleophilic substitution of ethers
Answer:
Mechanism:
Ethers having primary alkyl group undergo SN2 reaction while tertiary alkyl ether undergo SN1 reaction.Protonation of ether is followed by the attack of halide ion.The halide ion preferentially attacks the less sterically hindered of the two alkyl groups which are attached to etherial oxygen.

When excess HBr or HI is used, the alcohol formed will further react with HBr or HI to form alkyl halides.

Question 23.
What is autooxidation of ethers?
Answer:

• Ethers stored in the presence of atmospheric oxygen slowly oxidise to form hydroperoxides and dialkyl peroxides.
• These are explosive in nature.
• This spontaneous oxidation by atmospheric oxygen is called auto oxidation

Question 24.

Answer:

Question 25.
Complete the reaction

Answer:

The bond of oxygen with phenyl ring is strong, hence it can not be broken and iodo benzene is not formed.

VII. Three Mark Questions

Question 1.
Explain the structure of the functional group of alcohol
Answer:

• The structure of – O – H group attached to a SP³ hybridised carbon is similar to the structure of – O – H group attached to a hydrogen in water, ie., ‘V! shaped.
• In such alcohols, one of the sp³ hybridised orbital of oxygen linearly overlap with the sp3 hybridised orbital of carbon to form a C – O, ‘σ’ bond.
• Another SP3 hybridised orbital linearly overlap with IS orbital of hydrogen to form a O-H, a’ bond.
• Remaining two sp3 hybridized orbitals of oxygen are occupied by two lone pairs of electrons.
• Due to lone pair – lone pair repulsion, the C – O – H bond angle in methanol is reduced to 108.9C from the regular tetrahedral bond angle of 109.5°.

Question 2.
Convert acetaldehyde into crotyl alc0hol
Answer:

LiAlH₄ selectively reduces the carbonyl group leaving the C = C bond.

Question 3.
Explain Lucas test of differentiating three types of alcohols
Answer:

The alkyl chloride formed in this reaction is insoluble in water, hence it appears as turbidity.

Question 4.
Write a note on catalytic dehydrogenation of three types of alcohols.
Answer:
Catalytic dehydrogenation :
When the vapours of a primary or a secondary alcohol are passed over heated copper at 573K, dehydrogenation takes place to form aldehyde or ketone.

Question 5.
Write about the oxidation of ethylene glycol
Oxidation of glycol
Answer:
On oxidation, glycol gives a variety of products depending on the nature of oxidizing agent and
other reaction conditions.
i) When nitric acid (or) alkaline potassium permanganate is used as the oxidizing agent, the following products are obtained.

ii) Oxidation of glycol with periodic acid :
Ethylene glycol on treatment with periodic acid gives formaldehyde. This reaction is selective for vicinal 1,2 – diols and it proceeds through a cyclic periodate ester intermediate.

Question 6.
Why is C-O-C bond angle in ether slightly greater than the tetrahedral bond angle.
Answer:

• Structure of ethereal oxygen attached to two alkyl groups is similar to the structure of – O – H group of alcohol.
• Oxygen atom is sp³ hybridised.
• Two sp3 hybridised orbitals of oxygen linearly overlap with two sp³ hybrid orbitals of the two carbon atoms attached directly to the oxygen forming two C – O ‘o ‘ bonds.
• C-O-C bond angle is slightly greater than the tetrahedral bond angle due to the repulsive interaction between the two bulkier alkyl group.

Question 7.
For the preparation of mixed ether having primary and tertiary alkyl group, primary alkyl halide and alkoxide are used. Why?
Answer:
Primary alkyl halides are more susceptible for SN2 reaction.
Hence for the preparation of mixed ether having primary and tertiary alkyl group, primary alkyl halide

On the other hand, if tertiary’ alkyl halide and primary alkoxide are used elimination reaction dominates and succeeds over substitution reaction to form an alkene.

Question 8.
How do you convert anisole into (i) Methoxy toluene (ii) methoxy acetophenone
Answer:

Question 9.
375 mg of an alcohol reacts with required amount of methyl magnesium bromide and releases 140 mL of methane gas at STP. What is the formula of the alcohol?
Solution:

(1 mole) 22,400 mL of methane can be produced from 1 mole of alcohol.
140 ml of methane is liberated from 1/22400 x 140 mole of alcohol = 6.25 x 10^-3 mole of alcohol
w = 375 mg = 375 x 10^-3 g; n = 6.25 x 10^-3

Molar mass of alcohol is 60 gmol^-1
CnH2n+1 -OH=>nxl2 + (2n + 1)xl + lxi6+1xl=60
12n + 2n + 1 + 16 + 1 = 60 14n + 18 = 60
14n = 60 – 18
Hence the formula of the alcohol is C₃H₇OH .
n = 42/14 ⇒ n = 3

Question 10.
How will you convert methanol into ethanol?
Answer:

VIII. Five Mark Questions

Question 1.
Convert methyl magnesium iodide into
(i) ethanol
(ii) propan – 2 – ol
(iii) 2 – methyl propan – 2 – ol
Answer:

Question 2.
Bring about the following conversion using Grignard reagents
i) Methanal into phenyl methanol
ii) Ethanal into butan – 2 – ol
iii) Propanone into 2 – methyl hexan – 2 -ol
iv) Ethyl methanoate into propan – 2 – ol
v) Formaldehyde into propan-l-ol
Answer:

Question 3.
A ether (A) C₅H₁₂O when heated with excess of hot concentration HI, produced two alkyl halides, which on hydrolysis forms compound (B) and (C). Oxidation of (B) gives an acid (D) where as oxidation of (C) gives ketone (E). Identify A, B, C, D and E and write the chemical equation.
Answer:
A ether (A) C₅H₁₂O when heated with excess of hot concentration HI, produced two alkyl halides.

Question 4.
Explain E₁mechanism involved in the dehydration of tertiary butyl alcohol
Answer:
Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration by E₁ mechanism. It involves the formation of a carbocation.
Protonation of alcohol

Question 5.
An organic compound C₂H₆O (A) heated with Cone. H₂SO₄ at 443K to give and unsaturated hydrocarbon C₂H₄ (B), which on treatment with Baeyer’s reagent to give compound C₂H₆O₂ (C). Which is used as antifreeze in automobile radiator. Compound (C) distilled with cone. H₂SO₄ to give cyclic compound (C₄H₈O₂) (D). Compound (A) is heated with cone H₂SO₄ at 413K to give compound C₄H₁₀O (E). Identify compounds (A) to (E) and write equations Compound (A) is Ethanol heated with Cone. H₂SO₄ at 443K to give compound (B) is Ethene
Answer:

Compound (B) on treatment with Baeyer’s reagent to give compound (C) is Ethylene glycol

Compound ( C) distilled with cone. H₂SO₄ to give cyclic compound (D) 1,4- dioxene

Compound (A) is heated with cone. H₂SO₄ at 413K to give compound (E) is diethylether

Question 6.
Explain the oxidation of glycerol
Answer:

Question 7.
Write a note on (i) Riemer Tiemann reaction (ii) Phthalein reaction (iii) coupling reaction
Answer:
i) Riemer Tiemann Reaction:
On treating phenol with CHCl₃ /NaOH, a -CHO group is introduced at ortho position This reaction proceeds through the formation of substituted benzal chloride intermediate.

(ii) Phthalein reaction:
On heating phenol with phthalic anhydride in presence of con.H₂SO₄ phenolphthalein is obtained.

iii) Coupling reaction:
Phenol couples with benzene diazonium chloride in an alkaline solution to form p-hydroxy azobenzene (a red-orange dye).

Question 8.
Write any three methods of preparing ethers
Answer:
(i) Intermolecular dehydration of alcohol
Ethanol undergoes intermolecular dehydration with conc. H₂SO₄ at 413 K to form diethyl ether. Conc. H₂SO₄

(ii) Williamson ether synthesis
When an alkyl halide is heated with an alcoholic solution of sodium alkoxide, the corresponding ether is obtained. This involves SN² mechanism.

(iii) Methylation of alcohol
Methyl ethers can be prepared by treating alcohol with diazomethane in presence of catalyst fluoroboric acid

Question 9.
How does diethylether react with the following
(i) Cl₂/light
(ii) PCl₅
(iii) dilH₂SO₄
(iv) CH₃COCl/anhy.ZnCl₂
Answer:

Question 10.
Convert
(i) methanol into tertiary butyl alcohol
(ii) ethanol into 1- butanol
Answer:

Question 11.
Complete the reaction

Answer:

(y) Reduction to pinacols: Ketones, on reduction with magnesium amalgam and water, are reduced to symmetrical diols known as pinacol.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 15 Recent Trends in Marketing Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions 15 Recent Trends in Marketing

12th Commerce Guide Recent Trends in Marketing Mix Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Selling goods/ services through internet is
a) Green marketing
b) E- business
c) Social marketing
d) Meta marketing
Answer:
b) E-business

Question 2.
Which is gateway to internet?
a) Portal
b) CPU
c) Modem
d) Webnaire
Answer:
c) Modem

Question 3.
Social marketing deals with:
a) Society
b) Social Class
c) Social change
d) Social evil
Answer :
c) Social change

Question 4.
Effective use of Social media marketing increase conversion rates of –
a) Customer to buyers
b) Retailer to customers
c) One buyer to another buyers
d) Direct contact of marketer
Answer:
a) Customer to buyers

Question 5.
A company’s products and prices are visually represented by
a) Shopping cart
b) Web portal
c) Electronic catalogue
d) Revenue model
Answer:
c) Electronic catalogue

Question 6.
Pure play retailers are called
a) Market creators
b) Transaction brokers
c) Merchants
d) Agents
Answer:
b) Transaction brokers

II. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is E-Business?
Answer:
If all the business transactions are carried out through the internet and other online tools, it is called E-business.

Question 2.
What is green marketing?
Answer:

• It refers to a holistic marketing concept with growing awareness about the implications of Global warming, non -biodegradable solid waste, the harmful impact of pollutants, etc.
• It is also known as “Environmental marketing”, “Ecological marketing” Eco-friendly marketing and sustainable marketing”.

Question 3.
What is service marketing?
Answer:
Service marketing denotes the processing of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking, insurance, car rentals, healthcare, tourism, professional services, repairs etc.

Question 4.
Define E-Marketing.
Answer:
“E-Marketing refers to the application of a broad range of information technology for creating more customer value through more effective segmentation, targeting differentiation and positioning strategies, planning more efficiently and executing the conception distribution, promotion and pricing of goods, services and ideas and creating exchanges that satisfy individual consumer and organization’s consumer objectives”. _ JUDY STRAUSS

Question 5.
What is E-Tailing?
Answer:
E-tailing or electronic retailing refers to the selling of goods and services through a shopping website (internet) or through a virtual Store to the ultimate consumer.

Question 6.
What is social marketing?
Answer:

• Social marketing is a new marketing tool
• It is the systematic application of marketing philosophy and techniques to achieve specific behavioural goals that ensure social good
• [Eg] Asking people- Not to smoke in a public place.

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What are the advantages of E-Marketing?
Answer:

• Any time market: E-Marketing provides 24 hours and 7 days “24/7” Service to its users. So consumer can shop or order the product anytime from anywhere.
• Direct contact of end consumer by the manufacturer cuts down the substantially intermediation cost. Thus products bought through e-marketing become cheaper.
• Customers can buy whatever they want / need just by browsing the various sites.

Question 2.
Discuss the objectives E-Marketing (EARS)
Answer:

• Expansion of market share.
• Achieving higher brand awareness.
• Reduction of distribution and promotional expenses
• Strengthening database.

Question 3.
Explain in detail Niche marketing. [Nitch] [Neesh]
Answer:

• “Niche marketing “ denotes a strategy of directing all marketing efforts towards one well-defined segment of the population.
•  Actually, there is no market in a niche market.
•  It is found by the company, by identifying the need of customers who are not served or underserved by the competitors.
• It involves a specific target audience with a specialized offering.
•  It aimed at being a big fish in a small pond instead of being a small fish in a big pond.
•  [eg] Not everybody wants to watch the movie by paying 5x-6xtimes the cost of the normal tick.

IV. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Explain in detail how traditional marketing differ from E-marketing [FEETS].
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of E-marketing.
Answer:
E-tailing or electronic retailing refers to the selling of goods and services through a shopping website:
Advantages:

1. Customer can buy the product at any time from anywhere.
2. Direct contact of end consumer by the manufacturer cuts down the cost.
3. Customer can buy whatever they want by browsing the various sites.

Disadvantages:

1. E-tailing needs a strong advertisement and for which it has to spend large amount.
2. It is not suitable for small size business.

Question 3.
Discuss any two new methods of marketing with their advantages.
Answer:|
1. Rural Marketing:
Rural marketing is a process of developing pricing, promoting, and distributing rural specific goods and services leading to exchange with rural customers. There is an inflow of goods into rural markets for production and consumption and there is also an outflow of products to urban areas. the rural to urban flow consists of agricultural products like rice, wheat and sugar, etc.

2. Service Marketing:
Service marketing is a special branch of marketing. It denotes the processing of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking, insurance, healthcare, tourism, and professional services. The service products are mostly intangible. The unique feature of services marketing warrants different strategies compared with the marketing of physical goods.