Prasanna

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 4th English Guide Pdf Term 2 Poem 1 The Real Wealth Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 4th English Solutions Term 2 Poem 1 The Real Wealth

4th English Guide The Real Wealth Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Parents never let us get _________.
Answer:
Spoilt

Question 2.
Parents help us to overcome our __________.
Answer:
Problems

Question 3.
_________ is next to parents in care.
Answer:
Sister

Question 4.
___________ are the real wealth.
Answer:
Relationships

Question 5.
___________ always stays to the last in our needs.
Answer:
A good friend

B. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Who brought us to this world?
Answer:
Parents brought us to this world.

Question 2.
Which is as important as our health?
Answer:
Relationships are as important as our health.

Question 3.
How does a friend support us?
Answer:
A good friend is with us in all our deeds and stays last for all our needs.

Question 4.
Why relationships are more important than wealth?
Answer:
Relationships are real wealth. So they are more important than our wealth.

C. Match the rhyming words.

Question 1.
Share – dare
Answer:
Share – bear

Question 2.
Bread – rest
Answer:
Bread – ahead

Question 3.
Care – needs
Answer:
Care – dare

Question 4.
Deeds – ahead
Answer:
Deeds – needs

Question 5.
Zest – bear
Answer:
Zest – rest

Additional Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Who will never let us get spoilt?
Answer:
Our parents will never let us.get spoilt.

Question 2.
What do our parents do?
Answer:
Our parents earn our daily bread and wish to see us to grow successfully.

Question 3.
How should we nurture relationships?
Answer:
We should nurture relationships like our health.

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Brother always fights for his ___________
Answer:
Share

Question 2.
If someone hurts us, our brother can’t ___________
Answer:
Bear

Question 3.
Our parents wish to see us __________ ahead.
Answer:
Shoot

Tick (✓) the correct place of the apple

Question 1.

behind / between
Answer:

Question 2.

behind / in front of
Answer:

Question 3.

in front of / between
Answer:

Write the correct prepositions.

Question 1.

The doll is __________ of the box
Answer:
In front of

Question 2.

The doll is __________ the boxes.
Answer:
Between

Question 3.

The doll is __________ the box.
Answer:
Behind

Imagine yourself as the rabbit and tell your friend deer where you are.

Question 1.

I am _________ the rock.
Answer:
In front of

Question 2.

I am _________ the tree.
Answer:
behind

Question 3.

I am _________ the bushes.
Answer:
Between

Fill in the blanks with before or after.

Question 1.
1 is _________ 2.
Answer:
Before

Question 2.
3 is _________ 4.
Answer:
Before

Question 3.
6 is ________ 5.
Answer:
After

Question 4.
A is _________ B.
Answer:
Before

Question 5.
5 is ________ 4.
Answer:
After

Question 6.
E is _________ F.
Answer:
Before

Question 7.
D is ________ C.
Answer:
After

Question 8.
D) B is _________ C.
Answer:
Before

Question 9.

Athithya is standing ________ Devi.
Answer:
Before

Question 10.
Vishali is standing __________ Anish.
Answer:
After

Question 11.

Watermelon is __________ pineapple.
Answer:
Before

Question 12.
Banana is __________ apple.
Answer:
After

Let us listen

Listen to the conversation and answer the following.

Question 1.
How many variety of dosa did the waiter say?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three

Question 2.
Name the special dish.
(a) Adai
(b) Idly
(c) Dosai

Question 3.
How long will it take to make Adai?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 15 minutes

Question 4.
What type of coffee did the customer order?
(a) Instant
(b) Black
(c) Filter
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students

Let us speak

Question 1.
See how they speak at this situation and practise as if you were in that situation.
Answer:

Passenger : Hello sir. Give me ticket to Trichy.
Conductor : How many tickets do you need?
Passenger : Only one ticket sir.
Conductor : It costs 120 rupees
Passenger : Here it is.
Conductor : Here is your ticket and the change.
Passenger : What time does the bus leave?
Conductor : The bus leaves in 5 minutes.
Passenger : Will you stop the bus for breakfast?
Conductor : Yes, we will stop in Alathur for breakfast.
Passenger : When will we reach Trichy?
Conductor : We will reach Trichy by 12:30 pm
Passenger : Thank you sir.

The Real Wealth  Summary in English and Tamil

Parent brings us to this soil,and will never let us get spoilt. They earn our daily bread and wish to see us shoot ahead
நம்மை பூமிக்கு கொண்டு வந்த பெற்றோர். நாம் கெட்டுப் போக எப்போதும் விடமாட்டார்கள். நம் தினசரி உணவிற்கு அவர்கள் சம்பாதிக்கிறார்கள். நாம் வாழ்க்கையில் வளர விரும்புகிறார்கள்.

Brother always fights for his share, but, if someone hurts us, he can’t bear.Sister’s words you never dare, she is next to parents, in care.

சகோதரன் தன் பங்கிற்காக நம்முடன் எப்போதும் சண்டையிடுவான், ஆனால், நம்மை யாராவது காயப்படுத்தினால் அவனால்தாங்க முடியாது. சகோதரியின் வார்த்தைகளை எப்போதும் எதிர்க்காதே, அவள் அக்கறை காட்டுவதில், பெற்றோருக்கு அடுத்தவள்.

A good friend is with you in all deeds and stays last for all your needs. Relationships are the real wealth, nurture them like your health.

உன் எல்லா செயல்களிலும் ஒரு நல்ல நண்பன் துணை நிற்பான் உன் எல்லா தேவைகளுக்கும், இறுதிவரை அவன் உடன்இருப்பான், உறவுகளே நம் உண்மையான செல்வம்உன் ஆரோக்கியம் போல் அதைப் பேணு.

Show care and affection, with all your It will take care of the rest.

அக்கறையையும், அன்பையும் உன் அனுபவத்திலzest, (ஆற்றலில்) காட்டு அது மற்ற அனைத்தையும் கவனித்துக் கொள்ளும்.

The Real Wealth Glossary

Spoilt – destroy the value or quality of (மதிப்பையோ, தரத்தையோ அழித்தல் )
Bear – to withstand (தாக்குபிடித்தல் )
Deeds – an action performed intentionally (தெரிந்து செய்யும் செயல்கள்)
Zest – happiness or energy (சந்தோஷம் (அல்லது) ஆற்றல் )
Nurture – care for and protect (அக்கறை காட்டுதல் மற்றும் பாதுகாத்தல்)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Term 2 Chapter 2 Media and Democracy Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 2 Chapter 2 Media and Democracy

7th Social Science Guide Media and Democracy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following comes under print media?
a) Radio
b) Television
c) Newspaper
d) Internet
Answer:
c) Newspaper

Question 2.
Which one of the following is the broadcast media?
a) Magazines
b) Journals
c) Newspaper
d) Radio
Answer:
d) Radio

Question 3.
Which invention has brought the world closure?
a) Typewriter
b) Television
c) Telex
d) none of these
Answer:
b) Television

Question 4.
Which is mass media?
a) Radio
b) Television
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both a &b

Question 5.
Why is it necessary for media to be independent?
a) to earn money
b) to encourage company
c) to write balanced report
d) none of these
Answer:
c) to write balanced report

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………………have made the world smaller and closer.
Answer:
Mass Media

2. Every individual person is a medium of……………………
Answer:
expression

3. Printing press was invented by……………………
Answer:
Johannes Gutenberg

4. ……………………is a code of values which govern our lives.
Answer:
Mass Media

5. ……………………is the radio broadcast of the Government of India.
Answer:
Akashvani /All India Radio

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Print media has been referred to as people’s university
Reason (R) : They perform the role of public informer, educate, custodian of public interest.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is Correct
d) Both are wrong
Answer:
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Find the odd one
a) newspapers
b) magazine
c) journals
d) twitter
e) posters
Answer:
d) twitter

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
a) Media is generally the agency for interpersonal communication.
b) Media is very powerful entity on the earth.
c) Media plays a prominent role in the formation of public opinion.
d) Media does not have any responsibility
i) a, b and c are correct ii) a, c and d are correct
iii) b, c and d are correct iv) a, b and d are correct
Answer:
i) a, b and c are correct

V. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is media?
Answer:

• Media is the agency for inter-personal communication.
• It includes every broadcasting and narrowcasting medium.
• It allows communicating messages, thoughts, ideas, views, etc.

Question 2.
How does the public get the news about the decision that is taken in the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:

• Media carry every report of the action of the Legislative Assembly.
• Based on the information the people can learn about the functioning of the government and the decision taken in the Legislative Assembly.

Question 3.
What is the importance of local media?
Answer:
Local Media in each locality gives importance to the local problem of the public.

Question 4.
Media is the fourth pillar of democracy. Justify.
Answer:

• The fourth pillar of democracy Media ensures that all the people should aware of happenings in the country.
• It also ensures transparency in the working of all the other three Pillars.

Question 5.
State any two responsibilities of media.
Answer:

• The media has a massive responsibility in providing facts.
• The media should help people to express their opinion on important social issues.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
How can we classify media?
Answer:
Classification of Media:

• Narrowcast Media – Cable Television, Direct mail, Seminar
• Broadcast Media – Films, Television, Radio
• Print Media – Newspapers, Magazine, Journals, Books, Posters, Reports.
• Web Media – Google website and Blogs
• Social Media – Twitter, Facebook, WhatsApp and Instagram

Question 2.
In what ways does the media play an important role in a democracy?
Answer:

• Media is the backbone of democracy.
• In our democratic society mass media is the driving force of public opinion
• Media strengthens democratic value. It enlightens and empowers people.
• It can educate the voters and ensures that government is transparently accountable.
• Media carry every report of the action of administration of the government
• Based on the information, the citizen can learn about the functioning of the government and day to day happenings taking place around them.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of media?
Answer:

• People get the latest news in a very short time
• People get to bring out their hidden talents.
• Great in promoting mass consumer products.
• Serves as a good source of entertainment
• Media leads to the diffusion of different cultures.

VII. HOTs:

Question 1.
Is Media necessary? Why?
Answer:
Yes, Media is necessary. In today’s society, the use of social media has become necessary for daily social interaction and access to news and information and decision making. It is a valuable communication tool with others locally and worldwide, as well as to share, create, and spread information.

Question 2.
What do you know about the term press conference?
Answer:
A press conference is an event organized to officially distribute information and answer questions from the media. Press conferences are held by corporations and other businesses, politicians, and other government officials.

Question 3.
In what ways media affects our daily lives?
Answer:
Media is considered as the best source to know about the happenings of the world. Newspaper, magazine, radio, television and the internet are the different types of media. It greatly affects our lives because media has the power to influence our thoughts. This influence is sometimes positive and sometimes negative.

Question 4.
Media is a boon or bane.
Answer:
The media can be both boon or bane, depending on our usage. If we use it intelligently, it will be useful in gaining knowledge and for the best impact. Also, some stunts in movies and television are copied by people, which leads to major accidents in our society.

Question 5.
Name Some Local Media of your locality.
Answer:
News Papers and magazine:
Deccan Chronicle, The Hindu, Dinamalar, Dina Thanthi, Malai Malar, Kumudam, Ananda Vikadan, etc.

7th Social Science Guide Media and Democracy Additional Important Questions and Answers

 I. Choose the Correct answer.

Question 1.
Television belongs to which media?
a) Broadcast
b) Narrowcast
c) Print
d) Social
Answer:
a) Broadcast

Question 2.
Instagram belonged to which media?
a) Broadcast
b) Narrowcast
c) Print
d) Social
Answer:
d) Social

Question 3.
Printing Press was invented in the year
a) 1400
b) 1450
c) 1453
d) 1460
Answer:
c) 1453

Question 4.
The backbone of Democracy.
a) Media
b) resources
c) Transport
d) Minerals
Answer:
a) Media

Question 5.
……………………media has been referred to as people’s university
a) Broadcast media
b) Print media
c) Social media
d) Web Media
Answer:
b) Print media

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………………… is generally the agency for inter-personal Communication.
Answer:
Media

2. A …………………… or …………………… allows communicating messages, thoughts, ideas, views, etc.
Answer:
medium, media

3. An awakened and free media is very much essential for the function of the
Answer:
government

4. Akashvani means……………………
Answer:
voice from the sky

5. Twitter belongs to ……………………
Answer:
social media

6. …………………… media and …………………… media helps the people to express their opinion on important social issues.
Answer:
Print, electronic

7. Parliamentary democracy can flourish only under the watchful eyes of ……………………
Answer:
media

8. Democracy means ……………………
Answer:
rule by people

9. Films comes under the …………………… media.
Answer:
broadcast

10. …………………… provides transparency of the government.
Answer:
Media

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statement: Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
a) Media does not interfere in democracy
b) Media broadcast national and international News
c) Media is working for the welfare of a particular area
d) Media educates masses in rural areas
i) a, b, and c are correct
ii) a, c and d are correct
iii) b, c, and d are correct
iv) a, b and d are correct
Answer:
iii) b, c, and d are correct

V. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why Print Media referred to as People’s University?
Answer:
Print media has been referred to as People’s university because they perform the role of public informer, educate and custodian of public interest.

Question 2.
What are the Four Pillars of Democracy?
Answer:
The four pillars of Democracy are the Legislature, Executive, Judiciary, and Media.

Question 3.
Define Democracy.
Answer:
Democracy means rule by the people. It combines two Greek words ‘Demos’ refers to citizens. ‘Kratos’ means either power or rule.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the classifications of communication?
Answer:

• Communication can be classified into two types.
• They are personal and mass communication.

Personal communication:

• These are personal use like cell phones, telephones, fax, and letters.

Mass communication:

• These are used for communicating with the masses.
• Ex. T.V. radio and newspaper.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Term 2 Chapter 1 State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 2 Chapter 1 State Government

7th Social Science Guide State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is the minimum age for becoming a member of the State Legislative Council?
a) 18 Years
b) 21 Years
c) 25 Years
d) 30 Years
Answer:
c) 25 Years

Question 2.
How many states does India have?
a) 26
b) 27
c) 28
d) 29 .
Answer:
d) 29

Question 3.
The word state government refers to
a) Government departments in the states
b) Legislative Assembly
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Both a and b

Question 4.
The overall head of the government in the state is the
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
c) Governor

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
c) Governor

Question 6.
Who becomes the Chief Minister?
a) Leader of the majority party
b) Leader of the opposition party
c) Both
d) None
Answer:
a) Leader of the majority party

Question 7.
What are the three branches of the state Government?
a) Mayor, Governor, MLA
b) Panchayat, Municipality, Corporation
c) Village, City, State
d) Legislative, Executive and Judiciary
Answer:
d) Legislative, Executive and Judiciary

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Governor is appointed by the ………………..
Answer:
President

2.The leader of the majority party is appointed as ……………….. in the State Assembly.
Answer:
Chief Minister

3. ………………..is the highest judicial organ of the state.
Answer:
High Court

4. Mia stands for ………………..
Answer:
Member of the Legislative Assembly.

5. ………………..is a particular area form were all the voters living there choose their representatives.
Answer:
Constituency

6. The elected representatives who are not the member of ruling party are called ………………..
Answer:
Opposition party

III. Match the following.

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statement: Tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is/are not correct?
To become a governor, one
a) Should be the citizen of India
b) Should have completed 25 years of age
c) Should have sound mind
d) Should not hold any office of profit,
i) A & b ii) C & d iii) A iv) B
Answer:
iv) B

Question 2.
Consider the following statements and state true or false

a) MLAs are together responsible for the work of government.
Answer:
True

b) All the MLAs of other political party who do not belong to the ruling party are called opposition.
Answer:
True

c) MLAs are not the representatives of people.
Answer: False

Question 3.
Find out the correct meaning of bicameral legislature
a) It means that there are cameras in the legislature.
b) It means that the legislature has men and women members.
c) It means that there are two houses like upper house and lower house.
d) It means that the governor is the leader over the members of the legislature.
Answer:
c) It means that there are two houses like upper house and lower house.

Question 4.
Assertion (A) : India has a federal system of government.
Reason (R) : According to our constitution the power is divided between central and state governments
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) Both are wrong
Answer:
a) A is correct and R explains A

V. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What are the qualifications to become the Governor of a state?
Answer:
A person to be eligible for the post of Governor should be:

• The Governor should be the citizen of India.
• They should have completed 35 years of age.
• The Governor should have a sound mind and should not hold any public office of profit.

Question 2.
Who are called oppositions?
Answer:
The party which gets the total number of seats next to the majority party was called the opposition party.

Question 3.
Write a note on Lok Adalat.
Answer:
Lok Adalat is the people’s court established by the Government of India to settle disputes through conciliation and compromise.

Question 4.
What is a constituency?
Answer:
The constituency is the division in the state on the basis of the population. The entire state divided into several constituencies.

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers?
Answer:
The Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the powers of the Governor.
Answer:

• Governor is the head of the State executive.
• All the administration works are carried out by his name.
• All bills become law only after his assent.
• He appoints important officials of the State Government such as Advocate General, Chairman, State Public Service Commision, State Election Commissioner, Vice-Chancellors of the State Universities etc.

Question 2.
Who is an MLA?
Answer:

1. The Member of the Legislative Assembly is called MLA.
2. They are elected by the people through general election.
3. The candidate who gets the more number of votes becomes MLA.
4. MLAs are the representatives of the people.

Question 3.
What is the role of the Chief Minister and other Council of Ministers at the state level?
Answer:

• The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.
• He allocated the portfolios among the ministers.
• The Chief Minister formulate programmes and policies for the welfare of the people of the state.
  Council of Ministers:
• All the ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
• The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the State Legislature and Legislative Assembly of state.

VII. HOTs.

Question 1.
Name some departments of the government.
Answer:
Some departments of the Government:

1. Agriculture Department
2. Energy Department
3. Health and Family Welfare Department
4. Industries Department
5. Law Department
6. Public works Department
7. School Education Department
8. Transport Department
9. Youth Welfare and Sports Department
10. Finance Department etc.

Question 2.
Tabulate: qualification, appointment and any two powers of Governor, Chief Minister and MLAs
Answer:

VIII. Activity.

Question 1.
Make a list of the name of the Governor, Chief Minister, and other Ministers with their departments
Answer:
State of Tamil Nadu Governor – Banwarilal Purohit
Chief Minister – EdappadiK., Palaniswami

Minsters:

1. Dindigul C. Sreenivasan – Minister for forests
2. SenkottaiyanK.A – Minister of School education
3. SelIur K. Raju – Minister of Co-Operation
4. Thangamani. P – Minister for Electricity
5. Velumani – Minister for Municipal & Rural administration
6. D. Jayakumar – Minister for Fisheries
7. K.P.Anbalagan – Minister of Higher Education
8. V. Saroja – Minister for Social Welfare and Nutritious Noon Meal Programme etc.

Question 2.
Write an essay on ‘If you were the Chief Minister of the state’
Answer:
If I will be the Chief Minister of the state:

1. I would pass a strong law banning the cutting of trees. For cutting every single tree he would be forced to plant 100 trees.
2. All the factory’s manufacturing units would be forced to install smoke and effluent treatment plants.
3. I would implement anti-corruption law.

7th Social Science Guide State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.

Question 1.
Which is our capital territory?
a) Chennai b) Mumbai
c) Newdelhi
d) Calcutta
Answer:
c) Newdelhi

Question 2.
The completed age of the people to cast their note in India
a) 15
b) 18
c) 20
d) 21
Answer:
b) 25

Question 3.
The term of the chief minister office is
a) 4 year
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 7 years
Answer:
b) 5 years

Question 4.
The chief minister should have completed which years
a) 21
b) 23
c) 25
d) 30
Answer:
c) 25

Question 5.
Who appointed the Vice-Chancellors?
a) Governor
b) Chief minister
c) Register
d) High court judge
Answer:
a) Governor

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Fort ………………….. is the first English fortress in India.
Answer:
St.George

2. A Legislative Assembly is the ……………….. house
Answer:
Lower

3 ………………..is the head of the union.
Answer:
President

4. The Member of the Parliament is called………………..
Answer:
MP

5. ………………..parties play a vital role in the election.
Answer:
Political

6 ………………..of India conducts the election.
Answer:
The Election Commission

7. ML A should have completed ……………….. years of age.
Answer:
30

8. Tamil Nadu has ………………..cameral Legislature.
Answer:
Uni

9. The lower house is called ………………..
Answer:
Legislative Assembly

10. The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible for the State ………………..Assembly.
Answer:
Legislative

11. ……………….Courts are to settle disputes relating to marriages.
Answer:
Family

12. Lok Adalat also called as
Answer:
People’s Court

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
1. There was no separate system of administration for the union, states, and union territories.
2. MLA’s are appointed by the governor
3. The central and state government work, together according to the Indian constitution
Answer:
3. The central and state government work together according to the Indian constitution

Question 2.
1. Vellore Fortress is the first English fortress in India.
2. St. George Fort houses the Tamil Nadu legislative assembly and secretariat of Tamil Nadu
3. Redfort is in Chennai
Answer:
2. St George Fort houses the Tamil Nadu legislative assembly and secretariat of Tamil Nadu

V. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Where is Tamil Nadu State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu State Legislative Assembly is at Fort St. George, Chennai.

Question 2.
Define the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
A Legislative Assembly is the Lower house where all the MLAs meet to discuss various matters related to the welfare of the state.

Question 3.
Define the Federal system.
Answer:
The power is divided into two sets of governments – the Central Government and State Government. This is called as Federal system.

Question 4.
Explain Central Government.
Answer:

• India is a parliamentary democratic republic country.
• The President of India is the head of the Indian Union and the Prime Minister and all the ministers are responsible to run the Government. This is called the Central Government.

Question 5.
Who conducts elections in India?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India conducts and monitors the elections.

Question 6.
What is Bi-cameral Legislature?
Answer:
A state has two houses – an Upper house and a Lower house. This is called the Bi-cameral Legislature.

Question 7.
What is Unicameral Legislature?
Answer:

• In India, states have two houses in their Legislature.
• But some states have a Lower house only. This is called Uni-cameral Legislature.
• Ex: Tamil Nadu.

Question 8.
For what purpose courts have been established?
Answer:
The courts have been established to ensure justice to the people without any bias.

Question 9.
What are the duties of the three main branches of Government?
Answer:

• The three main branches or organs of Government are the legislative, executive, and Judiciary.
• The Legislative branch makes laws, the executive branch enforces the laws and the judiciary interprets the laws.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the Judicial System of States in India.
Answer:

• The Hight courts are the highest judicial organ in the state.
• It is an independent body.
• The State high court consists of a Chief Judge and other Judges.
• Chief Judges are appointed by the President and hold office till the age of 62.
• District courts and tribunals, family Courts, and Lok Adalat also ensure justice to the people and settle the disputes through conciliation and compromise.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 2 Chapter 2 Tourism Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 2 Chapter 2 Tourism

7th Social Science Guide Tourism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The oldest type of tourism is …………………
a) Religious
b) Historical
c) Adventure
d) Recreational
Answer:
a) Religious

Question 2.
In which state is the Kaziranga national park located.
a) Rajasthan
b) West Bengal
c) Assam
d) Gujarat
Answer:
c) Assam

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a beach of India?
a) Goa
b) cochin
c) Kovalam
d) Miami
Answer:
d) Miami

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a bird sanctuary in India?
a) Nal sarovor in Gujarat
b) Koonthakulam in Tamil Nadu
c) Bharatpur in Rajasthan
d) Kanha in Madhya pradesh
Answer:
d) Kanha in Madhya pradesh

Question 5.
In which district Courtallam waterfalls is located?
a) Dharmapuri
b) Tirunelveli
c) Namakkal
d) Theni
Answer:
b) Tirunelveli

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The three main components of tourism together known as …………………………….
Answer:
A3 concept

2. Gastronomy refers to an aspect of …………….tourism.
Answer:
cultural

3. Suruli falls is also called as………………..
Answer:
Cloudland falls / Meghamalai Falls

4. The second largest urban beach is
Answer:
Marina Beach, Chennai

5. Expansion of TAAI
Answer:
Travel Agents Association of India

III. Circle the odd one:

1. Transport, Attraction, Accommodation, Amenities
2. Nainital, Shillong, Munnar, Digha
3. Corbett, Sundarbans, Periyar, Mayani
4. Hogenakal, Kumbakkarai, Suruli, Kalakad
5. Rishikesh, Ladakh, Gulmarg, Kotagiri
Answer:

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

V. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer: 

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Tourism is an essential activity for the life of the society.
Reason (R) : Its direct impact on social cultural, education and economic sector of the nation.
a) A and R are correct and A explains R
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : One of the most popular beaches in Goa, Calangute is a treat for the adventure sports activities.
Reason (R) : Foreigners throng the beaches.
a) A and R are correct and A explain R
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and A explain R

VI. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
Define Tourism.
Answer:
Tourism is an essential part of the life of the society because of its direct impact on the social, cultural, educational, and economic sectors of the nation and on their international relations too.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Eco-Tourism.
Answer:

• Ecotourism is travel to destinations where plants and animals thrive in a naturally preserved environment.
• Ex: Amazon rain forest, African forest safari.

Question 3.
What are the basic elements of Tourism?
Answer:
The basic elements of tourism are

• Pleasant weather
• Scenic beauty
• Historical and cultural monuments.

Question 4.
Name any five hill stations in India.
Answer:
Kodaikanal, Darjeeling, Nainital, Mussoorie, Gulmarg, etc.

Question 5.
Name any five beaches in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Kovalam Beach, Marina Beach, Elliot Beach, Mahabalipuram Beach, Silver Beach.

VII. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
International Tourism and Historical Tourism.
Answer:
International Tourism:

1. International tourism refers to tourism that crosses national borders
2. Globalization has made tourism a popular global leisure activity.

Historical Tourism

1. Historical tourism is primarily focused upon historical places.
2. The individuals make visits to these places with the purpose of leisure as well as acquiring information.

Question 2.
Religious Tourism and Adventure Tourism.
Answer:

Religious Tourism:

1. Religious tourism is one of the oldest types of tourism, wherein people travel individually or in groups for a pilgrimage to a religious location such as temples, churches, mosques, and other religious places.
2. Religious tours to Kasi (Varanasi) by Hindus, Jerusalem by Christians, and Mecca by Muslims are a few of examples of religious tourism.

Adventure Tourism:

1. Adventure tourism is a type of tourism involving travel to remote or exotic places in order to take part in physically challenging outdoor activities
2. For e.g. skydive in Australia, Bungee jumping in New Zealand, mountaineering in the peaks of the Himalayas, rafting in the Brahmaputra River at Arunachala Pradesh.

Question 3.
Attraction and Accessibility
Answer:
Attraction:

1. Attractions mainly comprise of two types such as: Natural attraction, Cultural attraction
2. The natural attraction includes landscape, seascape, beaches, climatic condition and forests. Cultural attractions are historic monuments and other intellectual creations. Apart from this, cultural attractions also include fairs and festivals.

Accessibility:

1. Accessibility means reachability to a particular place of attraction through various means of transportation such as road, rail, water and air.
2. Transport decides the cost of travel and the time consumed in reaching or accessing a specific attraction.

VIII. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the geographical components of tourism?
Answer:
There are seven geographical components of tourism They are

1. Landforms: Mountains
2. Water: Waterfalls, hot Springs, geysers
3. Vegetation:  Forest, grasslands, deserts
4. Climate:  Sunshine, clouds, snow
5. Animal life:  Game reserves, zoo, hunting and fishing
6. The settlement features: Historical remains, monuments, towns
7. Culture: Way of life, traditions, folklore, arts.

Question 2.
Write briefly about the waterfalls in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Waterfalls in Tamil Nadu attracts many tourists.
A trek amidst thick green trees steep hills and a bath in the gushing water is most rejuvenating. The  famous waterfalls of Tamil Nadu are:

1. 1. Hogenekal falls in Dharmapuri
   2. Kumbakkarai in Kodaikanal
   3. Monkey falls in Coimbatore
   4. Killiyur falls in Shervarayan hills
   5. Courtallam in Tirunelveli District
   6. Agaya Gangai in Puliancholai
   7.  Suruli falls in Theni District.

Question 3.
Describe the environmental impact of tourism?
Answer:
The tourism industry created several positive and negative impacts on the environment.
Positive Impacts:

1. Direct financial contributions.
2. Contributions to government revenues.
3. Improved environmental management and planning.
4. Increasing environmental awareness.
5. Protection and preservation of the environment.

Negative Impacts:

1. Depletion of natural water local resources and land degradation.
2. Air pollution, noise pollution, solid waste, littering, and sewage.
3. Air, water, and soil destruction and alteration of eco-System.

IX.HOTs:

Question 1.
Why do we like sightseeing so much?
Answer:

• Sightseeing is considered to be one of the most important activities a tourist chooses to take part in reaching a destination.
• Sightseeing gives the tourist a chance to know a destination and experience it.
• Some people like adventures and to escape their normal monotonous life.
• So some people like sightseeing so much.

Question 2.
What are the ways to protect the sanctuaries?
Answer:

• Adopt: From wild animals to wild places, there’s an option for everyone.
• Volunteer: if you don’t have money to give, donate your time.
• Visit zoos, aquariums, national parks, and wildlife refuges that are all home to wild animals.
• Donate
• Speak up
• Buy responsibility
• Pitch in
• Recycle
• Restore
• Join

Question 3.
List any five reasons for travelling.
Answer:

• We travel to learn, whether it’s learning a new language or learning about an area’s history, travel allows us to learn so many different things.
• We travel to escape. Travel provides a momentary break from the humdrum of our daily lives.
• We travel to discover.
• We travel to make new friends.
• We travel to experience.

7th Social Science Guide Tourism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The word Gastronomy refers to
a) Cultural Tourism
b) Medical Tourism
c) adventure Tourism
d) Eco-Tourism
Answer:
a) Cultural Tourism

Question 2.
The largest mountain ranges in India is the
a) Aravallis
b) Vindhya
c) the Himalayas
d) the Western Ghats
Answer:
c) the Himalayas

Question 3.
Which Waterfalls is known as …………….. Niagara fall of India?
a) Aathirapally
b) Jog
c) Kurtallam
d) Monkey falls
Answer:
a) Aathirapally

Question 4.
The length of the coastline of India
a) 7017 Km
b)7217K.m
c) 7417 Km
d) 7517 km
Answer:
d) 7517 km

Question 5.
The princess of Hill stations is
a) Yercaud
b) Ooty
c) Kodaikanal
d) Simla
Answer:
c) Kodaikanal

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The word ‘Tourist’ is derived from ……………..
Answer:
Tourian

2. …………….. tourism is for a fun activity.
Answer:
Recreation

3. The Indian subcontinent has …………….. principal mountain ranges.
Answer:
Seven

4. Gangtok is in the state of ……………..
Answer:
Sikkim

5. Tamil Nadu is popularly known as the land of ……………..
Answer:
Temples

6. There are around …………….. ancient temples in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
33,000

7. Ooty is called as ……………..
Answer:
Queen of Hills

8. In Tamil Nadu …………….. of the land comprises of thick forests.
Answer:
17.6%

9. The total area of Tamilnadu is ……………..
Answer:
130, 058 Sqkm

10. The poor man’s Ooty is ……………..
Answer:
Yercaud

11. Velliangiri Hills is known as ……………..
Answer:
Kailash of the south.

12. Gir National Park in Gujarat is specified for ……………..
Answer:
Lions

13. Kaziranga National Park is in ………………
Answer:
Assam

14. TTDC means ……………..
Answer:
Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation.

15. Horse tail type waterfalls are…………….. falls in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Thalaiyar Water

III. Circle the odd one:

1. Wind, Water, Soil, Computer
2. Attraction, Accessibility, Amenities, Pollution
Answer:

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

V. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Tamil Nadu Tourists achieve more than twenty percent annual growth.
Reason (R) : Exploring new avenues like medical tourism and adventure tourism.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

VI. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
Define Tourist.
Answer:
The word ‘tourist’ is derived from the word ‘tourian’ refers to a person who travels out of his usual environment for not more than one year and less than 24 hours.

Question 2.
What are the Amenities?
Answer:
Amenities are the facilities that cater to the needs of a tourist.

Question 3.
Mention the types of Tourism
Answer:
Religious Tourism, Cultural Tourism, Historical Tourism, Eco-Tourism, Adventure Tourism, and Recreational Tourism.

Question 4.
What is Recreational Tourism?
Answer:

* Recreational tourism aims at enjoyment, amusement or pleasure are mainly for fun activities.
* Waterfalls, hill stations, beaches, and amusement parks are the spots for recreational tourism.

Question 5.
What are the basic elements of Tourism attraction?
Answer:

• Certain elements are fundamental to attract tourists travel destination, They are
• Pleasant weather
• Science beauty
• Historical and cultural monuments.

VII. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Distinguish between Positive impact Negative Impact
Positive Impact

1. Direct financial contribution
2. Improved environmental management and planning
3. Increasing awareness and preservation of the environment

Negative Impact

1. Depletion natural resources
2. Air, noise, Solid waste litering, and savage pollution
3. Destruction and Alteration in Air, water Soil Ecosystem

VIII. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Define VISA. Explain the types of VISA.
Answer:
VISA is a document issued to a person or a stamp marked on the passport of a person who wants to visit another country.
The types of VISA are

1. Tourist VISA – to go for recreation.
2. Student VISA – to go for higher education
3. Employment VISA – to go to work
4. Medical VISA – to go for medical treatment.

Question 2.
Estimate the tourist attractions in India.
Answer:

• India is a country known for its hospitality with spicy food and culture.
• Varied lifestyle, culture, heritage, colourful fairs, and festivals are abiding attractions for the tourists.
• Varied climate, rich resources for eco, adventure, technological parks, science museums* pilgrimage centres with wonderful art and architecture are an added advantage for tourists.
• Yoga, Ayurveda, and health resorts attract tourists from all over the world.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources

7th Social Science Guide Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is renewable resource?
a) Gold
b) Iron
c) Petrol
d) Solar energy
Answer:
d) Solar energy

Question 2.
Where is the largest solar power project situated in India?
a) Kamuthi
b) Aralvaimozhi
c) Muppandal
d) Neyveli
Answer:
a) Kamuthi

Question 3.
Which is one of the first metals known and used by man?
a) Iron
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Silver
Answer:
b) Copper

Question 4.
……………. is one of the indispensable minerals used in electrical and electronics industry.
a) Limestone
b) Mica
c) Manganese
d) Silver
Answer:
b) Mica

Question 5.
Electricity produced from coal is called ……………………
a) Thermal Power
b) Nuclear power
c) Solar power
d) Hydel power
Answer:
a) Thermal Power

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….. is the largest producer of hydroelectricity.
Answer:
China

2. Iron ores found at………………….in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Kanjamalai

3. ………………..is produced from bauxite ore.
Answer:
Aluminum

4. ……………… is used in making electrical batteries.
Answer:
Manganese

5. Petroleum and its derivatives are called …………………..
Answer:
Black gold

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Wind power is clean energy.
Reason (R) : Wind turbines do not produce any emissions.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits.
Reason (R) : It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and R explains A

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define Resource.
Answer:
The things which can be used for satisfying the human need is called resource.

Question 2.
What are the uses of iron?
Answer:

• Iron is used to make steel.
• It is usable in engineering applications such as the construction of machinery and machine tools, automobiles, large ships, structural components of buildings, bridges etc.

Question 3.
What are the major utilizers of solar energy in the world?
Answer:
India, China, Japan, Italy and the United States of America are the major utilizers of solar energy in the world.

Question 4.
Name the types of coal-based carbon content.
Answer:
Coal is classified into four types based on carbon content. They are:

1. Anthracite
2. Bituminous
3. Lignite
4. Peat.

Question 5.
Give a short note on Duralumin.
Answer:

• Duralumin is a strong, hard, lightweight alloy of aluminum widely used in aircraft construction.
• It is produced by the addition of small quantities of other metals to aluminium, it creates a superior Alloy than pure aluminium.

VI. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Biotic resources and abiotic resources
Answer:
Biotic resources:

1. Biotic resources are found in the biosphere which is obtained from living and organic materials.
2. Biotic resources depend on abiotic resources for their survival.
3. Example: Plants, trees, animals, microorganisms etc.

Abiotic resources :

1. Abiotic resources are the non-living parts of an environment.
2. Abiotic resources do not depend on biotic resources for their survival.
3. Example: Sunlight, temperature, water, soil, air, etc.

Question 2.
Renewable resources and non-renewable resources
Answer:
Renewable resources:

1. Renewable resources can be used again and again throughout its life.
2. These resources are present in unlimited quantity.
3. These resources are pollution-free
4. Example: Solar energy, wind energy, and hydropower.

Non-renewable resources:

1. Non-renewable resources cannot be used again and again as it is limited which can be depleted one day.
2. These resources are present in a limited quantity only.
3. These resources are not pollution-free.
4. Example: Fossil fuels, iron, copper, gold silver etc.

Question 3.
Metallic resources and non-metallic resources.
Answer:
Metallic resources:

1. Metallic resources are the types of resources that are composed of metals.
2. These are hard substances, which are good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of metallic resources are iron, copper, gold, bauxite, silver, manganese, etc.

Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of metals.
2. These are not hard substances and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite, phosphate, etc.

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Aluminium has a wide range of uses compared to other metals.
Answer:

• Aluminium is light in weight, tough and cheaper, which makes it popular metal for constructional purpose.
• It is mainly used in the construction of aircrafts, ship, automobiles, railway coaches and etc.
• So, Aluminium has wide range of use compared to other metals.

Question 2.
Water is considered a great source of energy.
Answer:
At present, water is used for producing hydroelectric power. Hydroelectricity is generated from moving water with high velocity and great falls with the help of turbines and dynamos. So water is considered a great source of energy.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the different types of renewable resources.
Answer:
Solar energy:

1. The sun produces energy in the form of heat and light. Solar energy is not harmful to the environment.
2. Photovoltaic devices or solar cells, directly convert solar energy into electricity.
3. India, China, Japan, Italy, and the States of America are major utilizers of solar energy in the world.

Hydropower:

1. Hydroelectricity power is the cheapest and most versatile source of energy out of all the know energy. Hydroelectric power is a renewable resource.
2. China, Canada, Brazil, the United States of America, Russia, India, Norway, and Japan are some countries producing hydroelectricity. China is the largest producer of hydroelectricity.

Wind energy :

1. Wind power is clean energy since wind turbines do not produce any emission.
2. In recent years, wind energy has become one of the most economical and renewable energy technologies.
3. Major wind energy-producing countries are United States, China, Germany, Spain, India, United Kingdom, Canada and Brazil.

Question 2.
Describe the non-metallic resources.
Answer:
Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of metals.
2. These are not hard substances and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite, phosphate, etc.

Mica:

1. Muscovite and Biotite are the common ores of Mica.
2. It is one of the indispensable minerals used in the electrical and electronics industry.
3. In powder form, it is used for making lubricating oils and decorative wallpapers.

Limestone:

1. Limestone is a sedimentary rock, composed mainly by skeletal fragments of marine organisms such as coral, foraminifera and molluscs.
2. About 10% of sedimentary rocks are limestones. Mostly limestone is made into crushed stone and used as a construction material.
3. It is used for facing stone, floor tiles, stair treads, windows sills, and many other purposes.
4. Crushed limestone is used in smelting and other metal refining process. Portland cement is made from limestone.

Question 3.
What are the different types of fossil fuel resources? Explain them.
Answer:
Fossil fuel resources:

1. Fossil fuel resources are normally formed from the remains of dead plants and animals.
2. They are often referred to as fossil fuels and are formed from hydrocarbon.

Coal:

1. This is the most abundantly found fossil fuel that forms when dead plant matter is converted into peat.
2. It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries such as iron and steel, steam engines to generate electricity.

Petroleum:

1. Petroleum is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil fields located in Offshore and coastal areas.
2. Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black Gold as they are very valuable.

Natural gas:

1. Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface.
2. It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.

IX. Activity:

2. Crossword puzzle

Across
2. The leading coal producers of the world.
Answer:
China

4. Considered as a great source of energy.
Answer:
Water
5. Precious metal like gold.
Answer:
Silver

6. Used as an insulating material in the electrical industry.
Answer:
Mica

Down

1. Used in making electrical batteries.
Answer:
Manganese

2. Good conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
Copper

3. The largest producer of gold in India.
Answer:
Karnataka

5 . Produces energy in the form of heat and light.
Answer:
Sun

7th Social Science Guide Resources Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Bhatra Nangal Dam is situated in
a) Punjab
b) Hariyana
c) Gujarat
d) Orissa
Answer:
a) Punjab

Question 2.
Which is the fourth most element in Earth’s crust?
a) Silica
b) Zypsum
c) Iron
d) Copper
Answer:
c) Iron

Question 3.
Aluminium is produced from which ore?
a) Maganese
b) mica
c) Bauxite
d) Anthraxite
Answer:
c) Bauxite

Question 4.
Which is the world’s leading silver producer?
a) India
b) Mexico
c) South Africa
d) Srilanka
Answer:
b) Mexico

Question 5.
Which is steel, greyed hard, shiny and brittle metal?
a) Manganese
b) Mercury
c) Silver
d) Zinc
Answer:
a) Manganese

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. …………….. energy is not harmful to the environment.
Answer:
Solar

2. Hydroelectricity is generated from…………………water.
Answer:
moving

3. ………………..resources that are once consumed and cannot be replaced.
Answer:
Non – renewable

4. ………………..is the world’s number one country in the production of copper.
Answer:
Chile

5. ………………..is a rare and precious metal.
Answer:
Gold

6. …………….. field is one of the deepest mines of the world located in India.
Answer:
Kolar Gold

7. ………………… is the world’s leading bauxite producer.
Answer:
Australia

8. …………………is the world’s leading producer of manganese.
Answer:
South Africa

9. …………………and…………………are the common ores of mica.
Answer:
Muscovite and Biotite

10. ………………… is the world’s top producer of Mica.
Answer:
China

11. Fossil fuels are formed from…………………
Answer:
hydro carbon

12. ………………..in china is the largest hydroelectricity project in the world.
Answer:
Three Gorges Dam

13. Tehri Dam is situated in ………………… in India.
Answer:
Uttarakhand

14. The leading coal producers of the world is …………………
Arts:
China

15. ……………………..energy is not harmful to the environment
Answer:
Solar

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Wind Aluminum is a popular metal for construction purposes.
Reason (R) : Aluminium light in weight tough and cheaper,
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the importance of resources?
Answer:

• Natural resources satisfy the daily needs of man such as food, clothing, and shelter.
• It also contributes to boosting up a nation’s economy.

Question 2.
Name major wind farms in India.
Answer:

• Muppandal
• Jaisalmer
• Brabmanvel
• Jalgaon
• Damanjodi.

Question 3.
Which is the clean energy? Why?
Answer:
Wind power is clean energy because wind turbines do not produce any emissions.

Question 4.
Point out any 5 Hydroelectricity projects.
Answer:

1. Tehri dam
2. Srisilam Dam
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. Sardar Sarovar Dam
5. BhakraNangalDam.

Question 5.
What is limestone?
Answer:
Limestone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of skeletal fragments of marine organisms such as coral, foraminifera and mollusks.

VI. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Differences between Manganese and Mica
Answer:
Manganese

1. Manganese is a steel greyed, hard, shiny, and brittle metal
2. The common ores of manganese are pyrolusite Manganese Psilomelane and Rhodochrosite
3. Manganese is used in electrical batteries disinfecting liquids bleaching powder, Fertilizer, etc.
4. South Africa is the world’s leading producer of Manganese

Mica:

1. Insulting soft metal
2. The common ores of mica are muscovite and Biotite
3. Mica is used in the electrical industry making lubricating oil and decorative wallpapers
4. China is the world’s top producer of Mica

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Wind power is clean energy.
Answer:
Wind Turbines do not produce any emissions. In react years, wind energy is one of the most economical and renewable energy technologies so wind power is clean energy.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Classify and explain the resources based on origin.
Answer:
On the basis of origin, resources may be divided into two types. They are

1. Biotic resources
2. Abiotic resources

Biotic resources:

• Biotic resources are found in biosphere materials.
• It includes forests, crops, birds, animals, fishes, man and fossil fuels.

Abiotic resources:

• Abiotic resources that come from non-living, nonorganic material.
• Ex: land, water, air, sunlight, gold, copper, silver, etc.

Question 2.
Which is called Black Gold? Describe it.
Answer:

• Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black Gold. It is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil fields located near coastal areas. It produces a variety of products like diesel, petrol, kerosene, wax, plastics, etc.
• The chief petroleum-producing countries are Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, and Qatar.
• Digboi in Assam, Bombay High are the leading producers of petroleum in India.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 4th English Guide Pdf Term 2 Prose Chapter 2 A Lesson To Save Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 4th English Solutions Term 2 Prose Chapter 2 A Lesson To Save

4th English Guide A Lesson To Save Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Say whether the statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Amir left the tap opened earlier.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Amir switched off the fan when he walked out.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Moles trap worms and store them.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Leafcutter ants grow fungus.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Amir realised his mistakes.
Answer:
True

B. Choose the correct option.

1. Moles dig ___________ to catch worms.
(a) Worm trap
(b) Tunnel
(c) Burrows
Answer:
(a) Worm trap

Question 2.
Leafcutter ants can carry leaves that weigh ___________ times of their body weight.
(a) Two
(b) Twenty
(c) Thirty
Answer:
(b) Twenty

Question 3.
Moles bite and __________ the worms.
(a) Eat
(b) Store
(c) Paralyze
Answer:
(c) Paralyze

Question 4.
Leafcutter ants drink _________.
(a) leaf sap
(b) Honey
(c) Dew
Answer:
(a) leaf sap

Question 5.
Humans give importance to save __________
(a) Food
(b) Money
(c) Water
Answer:
(b) Money

C. Answer the questions

Question 1.
Why should we close the tap after using it?
AnsWer:
We should close the tap after using it to save water for the future generations.

Question 2.
Where do the moles save their food?
Answer:
The moles save their food in the tunnel.

Question 3.
Why do the leafcutter ants grow the fungus?
Answer:
The leafcutter ants grow the fungus to feed their babies.

Question 4.
List the things that humans should save.
Answer:
Human should save water, fuel, food, electricity, and forests.

Question 5.
What are things that we can save? Why should we save them?
Answer:
We can save water, food, electricity, food, money and fuel because our future generations can use them.

Additional Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What did Amir see on the way to the playground?
Answer:
Amir saw dirt thrown out of a pit on the ground.

Question 2.
What did the mole tell him?
Answer:
The mole told him that it was digging a burrow to catch the earthworms and save them for the winter.

Question 3.
What was the ant carrying?
Answer:
The ant was carrying a big leaf.

Question 4.
What do the leafcutter ants drink?
Answer:
They drink the leaf sap.

Question 5.
Did Amir change, after the interaction with the mole and the leafcutter ants?
Answer:
Yes, Amir changed his ways and always cared and saved the resources Pin around him.

II. State True or False.

Question 1.
We usually give importance to save money.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Amir saw the ant first.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The mole eats all the earthworms.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Near the mole’s burrow, Amir saw a leaf moving.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The ant was collecting leaves for his colony.
Answer:
True

A. Match the following and write the new word.

Question 1.
Pre – continue
Answer:
Preview

Question 2.
Dis – familiar
Answer:
Discontinue

Question 3.
Un – open
Answer:
unfamiliar

Question 4.
re – view
Answer:
Reopen

B. Tick in the correct prefix and write the new word.

Question 1.

Answer:
Un happy

Question 2.

Answer:
Preread

Question 3.

Answer:
Dishonest

Question 4.

Answer:
Remix

C. Add a prefix to each word so it matches the new definitions.

prefix
un, re, dis, pre

word
lucky, check, view, approve

Question 1.
Make sure the things are correct _________
Answer:
Recheck

Question 2.
A person who got no luck __________
Answer:
Unlucky

Question 3.
Do not approve
Answer:
Disapprove

Question 4.
A chance to view before ___________
Answer:
Preview

A Lesson To Save Summary in English and Tamil

On the way to the playground, in the fields, Amir saw dirt thrown out of a pit on the ground. He went near it and saw a smallcreature. He called out, rat-like “Hey! Who are you? What are you doing in there?” மைதானத்திற்கு செல்லும் வழியில், வயல்களில் ஒரு குழியிலிருந்து (அழுக்கு மண் வெளிவந்திருப்பதை அமீர் கண்டான். அதனருகே சென்று பார்க்கையில் ஒரு எலி போன்ற உயிரினத்தை கண்டான். அவன் அதனிடம் “யார் நீ? இங்கு நீ என்ன செய்கிறாய்?” என்று கேட்டான்.

The creature came out and took a glance at the boy and said “I am a mole. I am digginga burrow to catch the earthworms and save them for the winter.”
வெளியே வந்த அந்த உயிரினம் அந்த சிறுவனை பார்த்து, “நான் ஒரு எலி. நான் ஒரு ‘வளை தோண்டிமண்புழுக்களை பிடித்து, குளிரிலிருந்து அவற்றை காப்பாற்றுகிறேன்” என்றது.

“Interesting, how do you catch and save them?”
“சுவாரஸ்யமாக உள்ளதே? எப்படி அவற்றை பிடித்து நீ காப்பாற்றுகிறாய்?”

The mole replied, “I dig ‘worm traps’ along the tunnels, when the earthworms cross it they fall into it. I will bite and paralyze them and store in the tunnel to eat later.”
அதற்கு பதில் அளித்த எலி, “நான் புழு பிடிக்கும் பொறிகளை குழிகளுக்கு அருகில் தோண்டுவேன். மண்புழுக்கள் இவற்றை கடக்கையில் விழுந்து விடும். அவற்றை நான் கடித்து முடமாக்கி குழிக்குள் சேமித்து பிறகு உண்ணுவேன்” என்றது.

The boy asked, “How many earthworms will you store?”
“எத்தனை மண்புழுக்களை நீ சேமிப்பாய்?” என சிறுவன் கேட்டான்.

The mole replied, “As many worms as I can get. I don’t eat all of them. I save them for using later. Now, I don’t have any time to waste. I must build a lot of worm traps. See you later.” The mole went inside the burrow.

அதற்கு பதிலளித்த எலி “கிடைக்கும் புழுக்கள் எவ்வளவோ, அவ்வளவையும் தான்! எல்லாவற்றையும் நான் உண்ண மாட்டேன். பின்னர் உண்பதற்காக சிலவற்றை சேமித்து வைப்பேன்.எனக்கு வீணாக்க இப்போது நேரமில்லை . நான் நிறைய புழு பிடிக்கும் பொறிகளை உருவாக்க வேண்டும். உன்னை பிறகு பார்க்கிறேன்” என்றுகூறிவிட்டு பொந்திற்குள் சென்று விட்டது.

Just then, near the mole’s burrow, Amir saw a leaf moving. He went near it and saw a small ant. The ant was carrying a big leaf.

அப்போது எலி பொந்திற்கு அருகே, ஒரு இலை அசைந்து செல்வதை அமீர் கண்டான். அதனருகில் சென்ற அவன் ஒரு சிறு எறும்பைக் கண்டான். அந்த எறும்பு ஒரு பெரிய இலையை சுமந்து சென்று கொண்டிருந்தது.

The ant yelled, “Get out of my way. It will take too long to go around your feet.”

“என் பாதையை விட்டு விலகு. உன் பாதத்தை சுற்றிச் செல்ல எனக்கு வெகு நேரமாகும்” என்று எறும்பு சிறுவனிடம் கூறியது.

He asked the ant “Hey! Why are you carrying this big leaf? Isn’t it easy to eat it

“நீ ஏன் இவ்வளவு பெரிய இலையை தூக்கிச் செல்கிறாய்? இதை சாப்பிட்டு விட்டு பிறகு வீட்டிற்குச் and then go home?” செல்வது எளிதல்லவா?” என்றான் அவன்.

The ant dropped the leaf and replied, “I am a ‘leafcutter ant’. I am collecting leaves for my colony. I can carry leaves that weigh nearly twenty times my weight.” Amir was surprised. He asked, “Do you eat leaves?”

இலையை கீழே போட்ட எறும்பு “நான் இலை வெட்டி எறும்பு, நான் என் குடியிருப்புக்காக இலைகளை சேகரிக்கிறேன். என் எடையை விட 20 மடங்கு சுமையை என்னால சுமக்க இயலும்” என்றது. இதைக் கேட்ட அமீர் ஆச்சரியமடைந்து “நீ இலைகளை உண்பாயா?” என்றான்.

The ant replied, “No, we don’t eat leaves! We drink the leaf sap. We also use the leaves to grow fungus. We need the fungus to feed our babies. We also store the leaves for the winter.”
அவனுக்கு பதிலளித்த எறும்பு “நாங்கள் இலைகளை உண்பதில்லை . நாங்கள் இலையின் பசையை உண்ணுவோம். இலையை உபயோகித்து நாங்கள் பூஞ்சனத்தை வளர்ப்போம். அதை எங்கள்குழந்தைகளுக்கு அளிப்போம். இலைகளை நாங்கள் குளிர்காலத்திற்காக சேமிப்போம்” என்றது.

The ant asked, “By the way, do you, the humans save the food that you need?” Amir replied, “Yes we also save food in granaries, but we need money to buy it,so we usually give importance to save money. What else do we have to save?” “Don’t you have anything other than money to save?”, asked the ant

“மனிதர்களாகிய நீங்கள் உங்களுக்கு தேவையான உணவை நீங்கள் சேமிப்பீர்களா?” என்றுஎறும்பு கேட்டது. அமீர் “ஆம் நாங்கள் மளிகைப் பொருட்களாக சேமிப்போம். மேலும் அவற்றை வாங்க பணம் தேவைப்படுவதால், சேமிப்பிற்கு நாங்கள் முக்கியத்துவம் கொடுப்போம்”, என்றான்.அதற்கு எறும்பு “பணத்தை தவிர வேறு ஏதேனும் .நீங்கள் சேமிப்பீர்களா?”, என்று கேட்டது.

After taking some time to think. Amir answered, “My mom asks me to save water food electricity forest and fuel. we have a lot of thinas to save to make sure that future generations can use these.” This interaction with the mole and the ant changed the way Amir thought about the things around him. Earlier, he let the fan run as he left the room. He let the water drip as he never closed the tap tightly. Now, he always care and save the resources around him.

சிறிது நேரம் யோசித்த அமீர் “என் அன்னையார் என்னை நீர், உணவு, மின்சாரம், காடுகள் மற்றும் எரிபொருள் ஆகியவற்றை சேமிக்கும்படி கூறுவார். ஏனெனில் பிற்கால சந்ததியருக்கு உபயோகிக்க, அவற்றை காக்க வேண்டும்”. எலியுடனும்,எறும்புடனும் அமீர் நடத்திய இந்த உரையாடல்கள்,
அமீர் தன்னைச் சுற்றி உள்ள பொருட்களை பற்றிய அணுகுமுறையை மாற்றியது. முன்பெல்லாம் அவன் அறையை விட்டு வெளியேறிய போதும், மின் விசிறியை சுழலவிட்டுக் செல்வான், குழாயை இறுக மூடாமல் நீர் வீணாக சொட்டிக் கொண்டிருக்கும்படி விட்டு விடுவான். இப்போது அவன் தன்னைசுற்றியுள்ள வளங்களை பாதுகாப்பதில் அக்கறை கொண்டுள்ளான்.

A Lesson To Save Glossary

Digging – break up and move earth (நிலத்தை துண்டாக்கி, மண்ணை அகற்றுதல் )
Traps – enclosure designed to catch and retain animals (விலங்குகளை பிடிக்க அமைக்கப்படும் பள்ளம் ‘ )
Paralyze – incapable of movement (நகர முடியாது இருத்தல் (முடமாகுதல்) )
Sap – plant fluid (தாவர பசை)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 4th English Guide Pdf Term 2 Prose Chapter 1 Appa Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 4th English Solutions Term 2 Prose Chapter 1 Appa

4th English Guide Appa Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Meena’s village was hit by waves on a _________.
Answer:
Sunday morning

Question 2.
Meena was transferred to a __________.
Answer:
Rehabilitation centre

Question 3.
The official’s family visited the rehabilitation center for _________ years.
Answer:
Five

Question 4.
The official and his wife liked __________.
Answer:
Meena

Question 5.
Meena studied in _________ standard.
Answer:
twelfth

B. Read the statements and write True or False

Question 1.
Meena’s father was a fisher man.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
People ran off when the seawater receded.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Three waves hit the village.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The official visited the rehabilitation center daily.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The official was transferred to another district.
Answer:
True

C. Answer the questions.

Question 1.
Where is Keeraikuppam located?
Answer:
Keeraikuppam was located near Nagapattinam.

Question 2.
What were the people excited about?
Answer:
The people were excited about the wave raising high in the sea.

Question 3.
Which disaster had hit the village?
Answer:
Two powerful waves hit the village.

Question 4.
Who showed love and care to the children ?
Answer:
The incharge of the rehabilitation centre and his wife showed love and care to the children.

Question 5.
Why did Meena call the official ‘Appa’? Do you think we need to be a family to care for others?
Answer:
Meena had no parents. They were washed away by the waves. So, she called the official as ‘Appa’. No, we don’t need to be a family to care for others.

Additional questions

I. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
On which day did the powerful wave hit the village?
Answer:
The powerful wave hit the village on a Sunday morning.

Question 2.
Where did the children play in the village?
Answer:
The children played under the numerous coconut trees in the village.

Question 3.
What was the duty of the bell caretaker?
Answer:
The duty of the bell caretaker was to ring the bell at a particular time.

Question 4.
Who felt that there was something wrong?
Answer:
Meena’s mother felt that there was something wrong.

Question 5.
Was Meena separated from her mother?
Answer:
Yes, Meena was separated from her mother.

Question 6.
What happened to Meena’s mother?
Answer:
Meena’s mother was washed away by the wave.

Question 7.
What happened to Meena?
Answer:
Meena whirled through the water, struggling to breathe. The wave banged her to the trunk of a coconut tree. She wrestled the wave and hugged the tree. Soon she fainted.

Question 8.
Where was Meena, when she woke up?
Answer:
Meena was in the hospital, when she woke up.

Question 9.
How many children were housed by the rehabilitation centre?
Answer:
The rehabilitation centre housed nearly 99 boys and girls.

Question 10.
Who was very kind to the children at the centre?
Answer:
A kind-hearted official of the centre was always very kind to the children.

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
She stared at him ______ for a few seconds.
Answer:
blankly

Question 2.
Meena dashed towards him calling ______
Answer:
“Appa”

Question 3.
She caught Meena by her hand and started running towards their ______.
Answer:
home

III. Write True or False .

Question 1.
The teacher was singing a song.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Meena heard a familiar voice.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
After five years, the official was transferred.
Answer:
False

Let us build

Punctuation

Rewrite the sentences with punctuation marks.

Question 1.
where is my cat
Answer:
Where is my cat?

Question 2.
jain ate an apple
Answer:
Jain ate an apple.

Question 3.
the book is on the table
Answer:
The book is on the table.

Question 4.
ravi wants book pen and pencil
Answer:
Ravi wants book, pen and pencil.

Question 5.
do you play football
Answer:
Do you play football?

Question 6.
my favourite colour is blue
Answer:
My favourite colour is blue.

Question 7.
Teema is a good singer
Answer:
Leema is a good singer.

Question 8.
do you like pet animals
Answer:
Do you like pet animals?

Question 9.
he likes shirt pants and shorts
Answer:
He likes shirt, pants and shorts.

Question 10.
how are you
Answer:
How are you?

Appa Summary in English and Tamil

Keeraikuppam was a small coastal village near Nagapatinam. Even though the people in the village toiled in the seas every day, they lived happily. It was a pleasant Sunday morning in December.Just like any other day, the villagers had started their routine. A few of them had already left to the sea, and the others were preparina to go to sea. Meena’s family was also at the shore to see off her father going to the sea. After the men sailed into the sea, the women would return to other tasks that need their attention. The children would play under the many
coconut trees in the village.

கீரைகுப்பம் என்பது நாகப்பட்டினத்திற்கு அருகே உள்ள சிறுகடற்கரை கிராமம் ஆகும். அந்த கிராமத்து மக்கள் தினமும் கடலில் சென்று உழைத்து கஷ்டப்பட்டாலும் மகிழ்வோடு வாழ்ந்த னர். ஒரு ரம்மியமான ஞாயிற்றுக்கிழமை காலையில் வழக்கம் போல கிராம மக்கள் தங்கள் தினப்படி வேலைகளைத் தொடங்கினர். ஒரு சிலர் ஏற்கனவே கடலுக்கு சென்று விட்டனர், மற்றவர்கள் கடலுக்கு செல்ல தயாராகிக் கொண்டிருந்தனர். கடலுக்கு செல்லும் தன் தந்தையை வழியனுப்புவதற்காக மீனாவின் குடும்பமும் கடற்கரையில் இருந்தது. ஆண்க ள் கடலுக்கு சென்றதும் பெண்கள் தாங்கள் செய்ய வேண்டிய பணிகளைதொடருவர். கிராமத்தில் நிறைந்துள்ள தென்னை மரங்களின் அடியில் குழந்தைகள் விளையாடுவர்.

The village bell was about to strike eight times. The bell caretaker was ready to ring the bell. Just then, he saw that the sea water had receded a few hundred metres. Soon, many in the village noticed the same. All the children and the villagers started running towards the sea. Meena and her mother were also with them. The seawater continued to recede. All had gathered along the shore to see it.

கிராமத்தில் உள்ள மணி (மணிக்கூண்டு எட்டுமுறை அடிக்க தயாரானது. அந்த மணியடிப்பவரும் தயாராக இருந்தார். அப்பொழுது கடல் நீர் சில நூறு மீட்டர்கள் உள்வாங்கக் கண்டார். விரைவில், கிராமத்தில் உள்ள அனைவரும் அதைக் கண்டனர். குழந்தைகளும், பெரியவர்களும் கடலை நோக்கி ஓடினர். அவர்களில் மீனாவும் அவள் தாயாரும் அடங்குவர். கடல்நீர் மேலும் உள் வாங்க ஆரம்பித்தது. அனைவரும் அதைக் காண

The bell hit eight times. People now saw a wave far away in the sea. Excitedly, they pointed to the wave that was raising high in the sea. It was common for people to be excited by big waves in Keeraikuppam. Everyone was getting ready to brace the big wave that was coming towards them. Little did they know that the wave was increasing in height and would seem to touch the sky as it neared them. It was now getting closer to the shore with a roar.

மணி எட்டு அடித்தது. அப்போது கடலில் தூரத்தில் ஓர் அலையை கண்டனர். கடலில் வெகு உயரத்திற்கு எழும்பிய அந்த அலையைக்கண்டுஉற்சாகமடைந்தனர். கீரைக்குப்பத்தில் இது போன்ற பெரிய அலைகளைக் கண்டு உற்சாகமடைவது மக்களுக்கு பழக்கப்பட்ட ஒன்று தான். தங்களை நோக்கிவரும் அலையை எதிர்கொள்ள தயாராயினர். ஆனால் அந்த அலை உயரமாய் வளர்ந்து கொண்டே வானத்தையே தொடுமளவு உயரமாகுமென நினைக்கவில்லை . இப்போது அது பெரும் இரைச்சலுடன் கரையை நோக்கி வந்தது.

Gazing at the wave far away, Meena’s mother felt a sudden fear gripping her.She felt that something was wrong. She caught Meena by her hand and started running towards their home. The wave came closer to the shore had crushed the fishina boats. Before they reached their home, the powerful wave had hit the village. Meena and her mother could hear their friends and family screaming all around them. The seawater entered the village and washed out the huts and boats. The water hit their hut too. Meena and her mother were separated and thrown off.

தூரத்தில் அலையை கண்டதுமே மீனாவின் தாயாருக்கும் ஒரு திடீர் அச்சம் ஏற்பட்டது. ஏதோ தவறு நடக்கப் போவது அவருக்கு புலப்பட்டது. அவர் மீனாவின் கையை பற்றி இழுத்துக் கொண்டு வீட்டை நோக்கி ஓடினார். கரையை நெருங்கி தொட்ட அலை, அங்கிருந்த மீன்பிடி படகுகளை நொறுக்கியது. மீனாவும் அவள் தாயாரும் வீட்டை அடையும் முன்பே அந்த சக்திவாய்ந்த அலை கிராமத்தை தாக்கிவிட்டது. தங்கள் நண்பர்களும், நண்பர்களின் குடும்பமும் கூக்குரலிடுவதை மீனாவும் அவள் தாயாரும் கேட்க முடிந்தது. கிராமத்திற்குள் நிறைந்த கடல்நீர் குடிசைகளையும், படகுகளையும் துடைத்தெறிந்து விட்டது. அவர்களுடைய குடிசையும் தாக்கப்பட்டு விட்டது. மீனாவும் அவளுடைய தாயாரும்
தனித்தனியாக தூக்கி எறியப்பட்டனர்.

Then, slowly, the water receded again into the sea. Meena’s mother gathered herself and searched for Meena. It was then that the second massive wave hit the village. Meena’s mother was washed away by the wave. Meena, whirled through the water, struggling to breathe. One moment she was inside the water, and all was dark around her. In the next, she could see the sky. The wave banged she could see the sky. The wave banged her to the trunk of a coconut tree. She wrestled the wave and firmly hugged the tree. Soon, she fainted.

மெதுவாக நீர் வடிந்து மறுபடியும் கடலுக்குள் சென்றது. மீனாவின் தாயார் அவளைத் தேடினார். அப்போது இரண்டாவது மிகப்பெரிய அலை கிராமத்தை தாக்கியது. மீனாவின் தாயார் அந்த அலையில் அடித்து செல்லப்பட்டார். நீரால் சுழற்றப்பட்ட மீனா மூச்சுவிட திண்டாடினாள். ஒரு சமயம் நீரில் மூழ்கி எங்கும் இருட்டை கண்ட அவள், அடுத்து வானத்தை கண்டாள். மீனாவை அந்த அலை தென்னைமரத்தின் மீது தூக்கியடித்தது. அவள் அலையுடன் போராடி, தென்னைமரத்தினை இறுக பற்றிக் கொண்டாள். விரைவில் அவள் மயக்கமடைந்தாள்.

When she woke up, she was in the hospital. After she recovered, they transferred her to a rehabilitation centre. The centre housed nearly 99 boys and girls. A kind- 99 hearted official of the centre was always very kind to the children. He often used to visit them with his family. Meena was . the youngest of all and soon was loved by all.

அவள் கண் விழித்து பார்க்கையில், மருத்துவமனையில் இருந்தாள். அவள் குணமானதும், அவளை மறுவாழ்வு மையத்திற்கு அனுப்பி வைத்தனர். அந்த மையத்தில் சிறுவர், சிறுமியர் இருந்தனர். அன்பு மனம் கொண்ட அந்த மையத்தின் அதிகாரி, குழந்தைகளிடம் எப்போதும் கனிவுடன் நடந்து கொள்வார். அவர் தன் குடும்பத்தினருடன் அடிக்கடி அவர்களைச் சந்திப்பார் அவர்கள் அனைவரிலும் இளையவளான மீனா எல்லோராலும் நேசிக்கப்பட்டாள்.

The incharge and his wife often carried Meena while they played with other children. All children used to call them Amma and Appa. After three years the official was transferred. He and his family continued to visit the centre once a year for the next five years.

மற்ற குழந்தைகளுடன் விளையாடும்பொழுது மீனாவை அந்த அதிகாரியும் அவருடைய மனைவியும் தூக்கிக் கொள்வர். – எல்லா குழந்தைகளும் அந்த அதிகாரியையும், அவர் மனைவியையும் அப்பா, அம்மா என்று அழைத்தனர். மூன்றுவருடங்களுக்குப்பிறகு அந்த அதிகாரி மாற்றப்பட்டார். ஆனாலும் அவரும், அவருடைய மனைவியும் அந்தமையத்திற்கு வருடத்திற்கு ஒரு முறை என அடுத்த ஐந்து வருடங்களுக்கு விஜயம் செய்தனர்.

Meena now opened her eyes. Her cheeks were moist. All this seemed like it. happened yesterday. The school bell rang and, Meena wiped her cheeks toget readyfor her English class. Meena was good at studies and now was in the twelfth standard. The teacher was teaching, and Meena was writing her notes. She then heard a familiar voice calling her,”Meenu”. She raised her head to see. She was surprised to see her father, the official standing at the entrance.

மீனா இப்போது கண்களைத் திறந்தாள். அவளுடைய கன்னங்கள் ஈரமாய் இருந்தன. இவை அனைத்தும்நேற்று தான் நடந்தது போல இருந்தது. பள்ளி மணி ஒலித்ததும் தன் கன்னங்களை துடைத்துக் கொண்டு ஆங்கில வகுப்புக்கு தயாரானாள். படிப்பில் சிறந்த மீனா தற்போது 12வது படித்துக் கொண்டிருந்தாள். ஆசிரியர் பாடம் நடத்திக் கொண்டிருந்தார். மீனா அவளுடைய பாடங்களை எழுதிக் கொண்டிருந்தாள். அப்போது வித்தியாசமாய் ஒரு குரல் “மீனூ” என்று அழைத்தது. அவள் தன் தலையை உயர்த்திப் பார்த்தாள். அங்கு அவள் தந்தை (அந்த அதிகாரி) வகுப்பின் வாசலில் நிற்கக் கண்டாள்.

He was smiling at her. She stared at him blankly for a few seconds, with tears rolling down her cheeks. She jumped out of her bench of her bench and dashed towards him, calling “Appa!”

அவர் அவளை நோக்கி புன்னகைத்துக் கொண்டிருந்தார் சில விநாடிகள் சலனமின்றி வெறுமையாய்) அவரைக் கண்ட அவள், கன்னங்களில் நீர் வழிந்தோட, தனது நீண்ட இருக்கையிலிருந்து குதித்து “அப்பா”என்றழைத்தபடி அவரை நோக்கி ஓடினாள்.

Appa Glossary

Receded – go or move back (பின் வாங்குதல் )
Massive – large or heavy (பெரிய (அல்லது) கனமான )
Whirled – to move rapidly round and round (வேகமாய் சுழலுதல் )
Banged – to strike forcefully and noisly (வேகமாய், சத்தத்துடன் மோதுதல் )
Fainted – to lose consciousness (நினைவை இழத்தல்)
Rehabilitation – the action of restoring someone after a damage (ஒரு பாதிப்பிற்குபின் ஒருவருக்கு மறுவாழ்வளித்தல் )
Blankly – without expression

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Term 1 Chapter 1 Production Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Economics Term 1 Chapter 1 Production

7th Social Science Guide Production Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Production refers to ………….
a) destruction of utility
b) creation of utilities
c) exchange value
d) none of these
Answer:
b) creation of utilities

Question 2.
Utilities are in the nature of ……………
a) form utility
b) time utility
c) place utility
d) all of these
Answer:
d) all of these

Question 3.
Primary factors are ……………..
a) land, capital
b) capital, labour
c) land, labour
d) none of these
Answer:
c) land, labour

Question 4.
The entrepreneur is also called …………….
a) exchanger
b) Agent
c) organizer
d) communicator
Answer:
c) organizer

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….. means want satisfying power of a product.
Answer:
Utility

2. Derived factors are ………….. and ……………..
Answer:
Capital,Organisation

3. …………. is a fixed in supply.
Answer:
Land

4. …………….. is the human input into the production process.
Answer:
Labour

5. ………………… is the man made physical goods used to produce other goods and services.
Answer:
Capital

III. Match the following:

Question

Answer:

IV. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is production?
Answer:
Production is a process of combining various material inputs and immaterial inputs in order to make something for consumption.

Question 2.
What is utility?
Answer:
Utility means want satisfying power of a product.

Question 3.
Name the types of utility.
Answer:
Utilities are in the nature of form utility, time utility, and place utility.

Question 4.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
The factors of production

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital
4. Organization

Question 5.
Define Labour.
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines labour as, ‘the use of body or mind, partly or wholly, with a view to secure an income apart from the pleasure derived from the work’.

Question 6.
Define Division of labour.
Answer:
Division of labour means dividing the process of production into distinct and several component processes and assigning each component in the hands of labour or a set of labourers, who are specialists in that particular process.

Question 7.
Write the forms of capital.
Answer:

1. Physical Capital or Material Resources, Ex. Machinery, tools, buildings, etc.
2. Money capital or Monetary resources, Ex. Bank deposits, shares and securities, etc.
3. Human capital or Human Resources Ex. Investments in education, training, and health

Question 8.
Write the three characteristics of an entrepreneur?
Answer:

• Identifying profitable investible opportunities.
• Deciding the location of the production unit.
• Making Innovations
• Deciding the reward payment.
• Taking risks and facing uncertainties.

V.Give brief answer:

Question 1.
Explain the types of production?
Answer:
There are three types of production

1. Primary production
2. Secondary production
3. Tertiary or service production

1. Primary Production:

• Primary production is industries that are extracting the gifts of nature from the earth’s surface and oceans.
• Ex: fishing, mining, agriculture.

2. Secondary Production:

• It is the manufacturing industry, conversion of raw material into finished good.
• Ex: Manufacture of clothes, cars and chemicals.

3. Tertiary production:

•  In the tertiary sector, all those services enable the finished goods to be put in the hands of consumers.
• Ex: Banking, transport, and communications.

Question 2.
What is the land? What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:
Land is a factor of production and natural resource.

Characteristics of Land:
Land is a Free Gift of Nature:

• Land is not the outcome of human labour.
• It existed even long before the evolution of man.

Land is fixed in supply:

• The land quantity does not undergo any change and no alteration can be made.
• It is limited, increased or decreased by human efforts.

Land is imperishable
The land is not destructible and imperishable.

Land is a primary factor of production
In any kind of production process, start with land. Land provides raw materials and crops for industry.

Land is immovable:
Land cannot be transported from one place to another place.

Land has some original Indestructible powers
The indestructible powers of land cannot be destroyed by man.

Land Differs in Fertility:

• Fertility of land differs on different places of land.
• One piece of land may produce more and the other less.

Question 3.
Explain the merits and demerits of division of labour.
Answer:
Merits of the division of labour

• Division of Labour improves the efficiency of Labour.
• Time and Materials are put to the best and most efficient use.
• Use of Machinery in production, resulting in inventions.

Demerits:

• Repetition of the same work makes labour to feel monotonous and stale.
• Narrow Specialization reduces to find alternative avenues of employment. This results in increased unemployment.
• Reduce the growth of handicrafts and the worker losed satisfaction.

Question 4.
Describe the characteristics of capital.
Answer:

• Capital is a passive factor of production
• Capital is manmade
• Capital is not an indispensable factor of production
• Capital has the highest mobility
• Capital is productivity
• Capital lasts over time.
• Capital involves a present sacrifice to get future benefits.

7th Social Science Guide Production Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Banking conies under which production?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) tertiary
d) mixed
Answer:
Tertiary

Question 2.
The father of Economics is
a) Adam smith
b) John Marshall
c) Malthus
c) John Renier
Answer:
a) Adam Smith

Question 3.
A wealth of Nations book written in the year
a) 1770
b) 1774
c) 1776.
d) 1789
Answer:
c) 1776

Question 4.
The concept Division of Labour was introduced by
a) Adam smith
b) John Marshall
c) M.N Roy
d) Dadabhai Nauroji
Answer:
a) Adam Smith

Question 5.
Most of the Gross Domestic Product of our country is contributed by the
a) Primary sector
b) Secondary sector
c) Tertiary sector
d) mixed sector
Answer:
c) tertiary sector

II.Fill in the blanks:

1. There are two kinds of people ……………….. and ……………….
Answer:
producers, consumers

2. Indian Economy is a ………………. economy.
Answer:
mixed

3. …………….. of Land differs in different places of the land.
Answer:
Fertility

4. Capital means ………………
Answer:
money

5. The entrepreneur is also called ………………..
Answer:
organizer

6. ………….are called factors of production.
Answer:
Inputs

7. The concept ‘Division of labour’ was introduced by ……………………..
Answer:
Adam Smith

8. The factors for production are …………….., ………….., ………………..
Answer:
land, labour, capital

9. ………….means want satisfying power of a product.
Answer:
utility.

10. In the Secondary production …………………. getting more importance.
Answer:
Manufacturing

11. Secondary production is also known as ……………………..
Answer:
Construction

12. Tertiary production is also known as ………………………
Answer:
Service production

13. …………….. cannot be separate for the labourer.
Answer:
labour

14. …………… is a passive factor of production.
Answer:
Capital

15. Sugarcane is a ……………..plant.
Answer:
money

III. Match the following:

Question

Answer:

IV.True of False:

Question 1.
The total quantity of land does not undergo any change.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Manufacture of cars comes under the primary sector.
Answer
False

V. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

1. Land is movable
2. Land differs infertility.
3. Land has some original Indestructible powers.
4. Land is perishable.

Question a)
Consider which of the above
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 4 and 1
Answer:
b) 2 and 3

VI. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is place utility? Give example.
Answer:

• Place utility is the commodity transported from one place to another.
• So the utility may increase.
• Ex: If rice is transported to Tamil Nadu from Kerala, its utility will be more.

Question 2.
What is the mixed economy?
Answer:

• The private and public sectors are existing together is known as a Mixed Economy.
• Ex: Indian Economy.

Question 3.
Point out the feature of form utility.
Answer:

• The physical form of a commodity is changed, its utility also increases.
• Ex: Cotton increases, if it is converted into clothes.

VII. Give a brief answer:

Question 1.
Explain the factors of production?
Answer:
There are two kinds of factors responsible for production.

1. Primary factors
2. Derived Factors

Primary Factors:
The primary Factors are land and labour. These are naturally given and without them, no goods can be produced.

Derived Factors:
Derived factors are capital and organization. These derived factors, when combined with the primary factors of production raise total production.

Question 2.
Describe the characteristics of Labour.
Answer:

• Labour is not homogenous. Skill and dexterity vary from person to person.
• Labour cannot be separated from labourer.
• Labour is like mobile moving from one place to another for occupation.
• Individual labour has only limited bargaining power. In the Trade union, Labour power increases.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Term 1 Chapter 2 Political Parties Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 1 Chapter 2 Political Parties

7th Social Science Guide Political Parties Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is meant by Bi-party system?
a) Two parties run the government
b) Two members run a party.
c) Two major political parties contest election.
d) None of these.
Answer:
a) Two parties run the government.

Question 2.
Which system of government does India have?
a) Single-party system
b) Bi-party system
c) Multi-party system
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Multi-party system

Question 3.
Recognition of a political party is accorded by……………..
a) The Election commission
b) The president
c) The supreme court
d) A committee
Answer:
a) The Election commission

Question 4.
Political parties are generally formed on the basis of.
a) Religious principles
b) Common interest
c) Economic principles
d) Caste
Answer:
b) Common interest

Question 5.
Single-party system is found in
a) India
b)U.S.A
c) France
d) China
Answer:
d) China

II. Fill in the blacks:

1. ……………. form the back bone of democracy.
Answer:
Politicai parties

2. Every party in our country has to register with…………….
Answer:
Election Commission of India

3. Political parties serve as intermediaries between the …………….  and …………….
Answer:
citizen,policy makers

4. A registered but ……………. political party cannot contest election on its own symbol.
Answer:
unrecognised

5. The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of…………….
Answer:
Cabinet minister

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓)  appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
a) Every party in the country has to register with the election commission.
b) The commission treats all the parties equally.
c) Election commission allots a separate symbol for recognized parties.
d) All the above.
Answer:
d) All the above.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Majority party plays a decisive role in making laws for the country.
Reason (R) : The number of candidates elected is more than the others in the election. ;;
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) R is wrong A is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

V. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the basic components of a political party?
Answer:
The basic components of the party are the leader, the active members and the followers.

Question 2.
Name the three major types of party systems.
Answer:
There are three major types of the party system:

1. Single party system,
2. Bi – party System,
3. Multiparty system.

Question 3.
Name the countries which follow the Bi – party system.
Answer:
Bi- party system can be seen in UK and USA.

Question 4.
Write a note on Coalition Government.
Answer:
Without a majority, some parties join together to form the government, known as Coalition Government.

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write any four functions of a political party?
Answer:

• The political parties provide loyal opposition to accountability and stability.
• They put forward different policies and programmes for the welfare of the people.
• They connect the society and the state.
• They form and run the government and develop public policy.

Question 2.
When is a political party recognized as a National Party?
Answer:
Criteria for A political party to be recognised as a National Party

1. The party that secures should atleast 6% of the valid votes in the Lok Sabha election or assembly elections in four states.
2. They must win 4 seats in Lok sabha from any State/States
3. It has to win 2% of seats in Lok sabha from atleast 3 different states in the latest general election.

VII. HOTs:

Question 1.
Are political parties are necessary for a democratic country?
Answer:
Yes political parties are necessary for a democratic country because

1. They are the backbone of democracy.
2. They are essential elements to form the government.
3. Citizens can elect their representatives.
4. Citizens also vote for the party of their choice and thus influence Government formation.

Question 2.
Give any three names of National party, Regional party, and Registered but unrecognized party.
Answer:

1. National Party: Indian National Congress, Bharatiya Janata Party, Communist party of India.
2. Regional Party: All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, Desiya Murpokku Dravidar Kazhagam, Pattali Makkal Katchi
3. Registered but unrecognized party: Labour party of India, Bhartiya Panchayat party, Indian Indira Congress.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Write an election manifesto (if you were a party leader).
Answer:

1. Take measures to give a corruption-free Government.
2. The agriculture sector would be given prior importance.
3. Students will be taught technical skills at school which would enhance their scope for employment.
4. Free and quality medical care would be made available to all needy people.

7th Social Science Guide Political Parties Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Who was the supreme head of the legislative, Executive, and Judiciary in ancient India?
a) King
b) Queen
c) Prince
d) Cheif minister
Answer:
a) King

Question 2.
India became a democratic country in
a) 1946
b) 1947
c) 1950
d) 1952
Answer:
c) 1950

Question 3.
A recognised party should secure how much of total votes in the last general election?
a) 4%
b) 5%
c) 6%
d) 10%
Answer:
c) 6%

Question 4.
Which party system is existence in India France, Sweden, and Norway?
a) Single party
b) Two-party
c) Triple party
d) Multiparty
Answer:
Multiparty

Question 5.
The headquarter of the election commission in India is located in
a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkatta
d) Chennai
Answer:
New Delhi

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. A Vibrant democracy needs a strong …………………Party.
Answer:
Opposition

2. In Cuba …………………party system existed.
Answer:
Single

3. …………………is an autonomous statutory body.
Answer:
Election commission

4. Recognised parties are given a unique …………………by the election commission.
Answer:
Symbol

5. A free symbol is reserved for …………………party.
Answer:
unrecognized

6. A …………………symbol for a recognised political party.
Answer:
reserved

7. The party which gets the second largest number of seats is called …………………party.
Answer:
opposition

8. The symbols are excepted by the election commission are the ………………… and the …………………
Answer:
Lion, elephant

9. …………………commission is responsible for free and fair elections in India.
Answer:
Election

10 commission is a body for the implementation of election procedures.
Answer:
Election

11. …………………Minister is a member of parliament or legislative assembly cabinet.
Answer:
Cabinet

12. A political party must have at least …………………members.
Answer:
100

13. …………………has the largest number of political parties in the world
Answer:
India

14. The election commission of India has some …………………for the recognition of political parties in India.
Answer:
Criteria

15. State parties need to win a minimum of …………………in the legislative assembly
Answer:
3%

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Some parties join together to form the coalition government.
Reason (R) : A single party may not secure the majority to form the government,
a) A and R correct R explains A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) R is wrong A is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) A and R correct R explains A

V. True or false:

1. National parties are political parties which participate in different elections in only two states of India.
Answer:
False

2. In India, the election symbols order was. passed on 1968.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
How the political party is to be recognised?
Asnwer:
A party is recognised if ‘

• It has been engaged in political activity for five years.
• Its candidates secure atleast six percent of total votes in the last general election.

Question 2.
What is the party ’Manifesto’?
Answer:
Before the election, the candidates announce the programmes and policies that their party will undertake if voted to power.

Question 3.
Define the majority Party?
Answer:
The Political party whose number of candidates elected is more than the other is called the majority party forms and runs the government.

Question 4.
How to form a political party?
Answer:

• Must be registered with the Election commission of India.
• Must have atleast 100 members.
• Each member needs to hold a voting card.

Question 5.
What are the criteria for a regional party?
Answer:

• A party that secures atleast 6% of the valid votes in the state legislative assembly election.
• They must win one Lok sabha seat for every 25 seats or atleast 2 seats in the Legislative assembly.
• Need to win a minimum of 3 % of the total number of seats in Legislative Assembly.ff

Question 6.
What is Free symbols ‘Poll Panel’?
Answer:

• As per the Election symbols order 1968, symbols are either reserved or free.
• A reserved symbol is for a recognised political party and
• A free symbol is for unrecognised party.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the party system in India.
Answer:

• India’s party system originated in the late 19th century.
• In fact, India has the largest number of political parties in the world.
• They are national parties, Regional parties, and Registered but unrecognised parties (independent candidates).
• Every party in the country has to register with the Election commission.

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are political parties? Explain.
Answer:

• Political parties are the voluntary associations of individuals with broad ideological identities who agree on some policies, formulate an agenda and programme for society.
• They seek to implement their policies by winning people’s support through elections.

There are 3 types of political parties.

1. Single party – China, Cuba
2. Bi r Party – UK, USA
3. Multi-party – India, France, Sweden.

Question 2.
What is the role of the opposition party in Democracy?
Answer:

• The party which gets the second largest number of seats next to the majority party in the election is called the opposition party.
• They are as important as that of the ruling party.
• They critically examine the policies and bills introduced by the government.
• They raise their voice on the failures and wrong policies.
• They highlight important issues which are not acted upon by the Government.
• The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of Cabinet Minister.

Question 3.
What are the differences between the National Party and the Regional Party?
Answer:
National party Regional Party

• National parties are political parties which participate in different elections in India. State parties that participate in different elections within one State.
• It should be strong enough in atleast four states. It should be strong enough in at least one or two states.
• It has an exclusive symbol throughout the country. A symbol is reserved for it in the state in which it is recognized. But the same symbol can be allotted to different parties in different states.
• It resolves the state’s National and International issues. It promotes regional and states interest.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 1 Chapter 1 Equality Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 1 Chapter 1 Equality

7th Social Science Guide Equality Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following does not come under Equality?
a) Non discrimination on the basis of birth, caste, religion, race, colour, gender.
b) Right to contest in the election.
c) All are treated equal in the eyes of law.
d) Showing inequality between rich and poor.
Answer:
d) Showing inequality between rich and poor

Question 2.
Which one of the following is comes under political Equality?
a) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy.
b) Removal of inequality based on race, colour, sex and caste.
c) All are equal before the law.
d) Prevention of concentration of wealth in the hands of law.
Answer:
a) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy

Question 3.
In India, right to vote is given to all the citizens at the age of ………………….
a) 21
b) 18
c) 25
d) 31 .
Answer:
b) 18

Question 4.
Inequality created by man on the basis of caste, money, religion etc is called as ………………….
a) Natural inequality
b) Manmade inequality
c) Economic inequality
d) Gender inequality
Answer:
b) Manmade inequality

Question 5.
In Switzerland, the right to vote is given to women in the year
a) 1981
b) 1971
c) 1991
d) 1961
Answer:
b) 1971

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Civil equality implies equality of all before ………………….
Answer:
Law

2. The Indian constitution deals about the Right to equality from Article …………………. to ………………….
Answer:
14,18

3. Right to contest in the election is a ………………….Right.
Answer:
political

4. Equality means, absent of ………………….privileges.
Answer:
Social

III. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is Equality?
Answer:
Equality is ensuring individuals or groups are not treated differently or less favourably on the basis of caste, gender, disability, religion or belief, etc.

Question 2.
Why is gender Equality needed?
Answer:

• Women are considered as weak as compared to men.
• Their rights, responsibilities, and opportunities depend on males.
• So women need Gender Equality to the equal rights of both men and women to have access to opportunities and resources.

Question 3.
What is civil Equality?
Answer:

• Civil equality is the enjoyment of civil rights by all citizens.
• There should not be any discrimination of Superior or inferior, the rich or the poor, caste or creed.

IV. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the importance of Equality.
Answer:

• Equality is a powerful moral and political ideal that has inspired and guided human society.
• The concept of equality in votes the idea all are equal regardless of their caste, colour, gender, race or nationality.
• Democratic ideals are meaningful and effective only when they are implemented with equal justice.

Question 2.
What is political Equality?
Answer:
Political Equality includes

• Right to vote
• Right to hold public Office
• Right to criticise the government

1. Citizens should have an equal opportunity to actively participate in political life.
2. In India, the voting right is given to all the citizens who have attained 18years of age ’ without any discrimination.
3. Any person who has completed the age of 25 years can contest in the election.
4. Right to criticise the government is also a very important right and the people can express their resentment through demonstrations.
5. The value of the vote of the Prime Minister and the value of the vote of the common man in the general election is the same which denotes political equality.

Question 3.
How does the Constitution of India protect the Right to Equality?
Answer:

1. The constitution of India has also guaranteed equality to all citizens by providing Articles form 14-18.
   • Article 14 – guarantees to all the people equality before the law.
   • Article 15 – deals with the prohibition of discrimination.
   • Article 16 – provides equality of opportunity in matters relating to employment.
   • Article 17 – abolishes the practice of untouchability.
   • Article 18 – abolishes the titles conferred to citizens.
2. Equality before the law and equal protection of the law has been further strengthened in the Indian constitution under Article 21.

HOTs:

Question 1.
How can we eliminate inequality at the school level?
Answer:

1. Students should be given admission in school without any discrimination of superior or inferior. The rich or the poor, caste, or creed.
2. The Government has taken several measures to ensure that students from a different state of society get an opportunity to study in private schools too through RTE (Right to Education) Act.
3. Wearing a uniform helps to nip off the social and economical discrimination that may arise among students. Students should be encouraged to develop feelings of oneness among themselves.

I. Life Skills.

Write the correct answer.

Answer:

7th Social Science Guide Equality Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Which equality should not be any discrimination of caste, creed, color and race?
a) civil
b) Social
c) economic
d) political
Answer:
b) Social

Question 2.
The Rule of law is in force in
a) Britain
b) France
c) Ireland
d) the USA
Answer:
a) Britain

Question 3.
Which is the first country to give the right to vote to women in 1st general election?
a) Canada
b) the USA
c) Britain
d) India
Answer:
d) India

Question 4.
The first general election ¡n India was held in the year?
a) 1950
c) 1951
e) 1952
d) 1953
Answer:
c) 1952 .

Question 5.
The reservation has been given to women in Local bodies are
a) 33%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 66%.
Answer:
c) 50%

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Liberty and equality are …………….. ideals.
Answer:
democratic

2. …………….. equality means that all citizens enjoy equal status in society.
Answer:
Social

3. ……………..equality is the enjoyment of civil rights by all citizens.
Answer:
Civil

4. Rule of law was advocated by ……………..the British Legalist.
Answer:
A.V Dicey

5. All democratic countries guaranteed the rights ……………..to all citizens.
Answer:
political

6. ……………..is given the voting right to all citizens has attained 18 years of age.
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise

7. ……………..preserves the dignity of an individual.
Answer:
Equality

8. Any person who has completed the age of ……………..can contest in the election.
Answer:
25 years

9. ……………..Equality is equal opportunities and resources given to men and women equally.
Answer:
Gender

10. In 2017, UNO declared ……………..equality is the fifth sustainable goal.
Answer:
Gender

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. True or false:

1. Rule of law was advocated by Dr. Ambedkar.
Answer:
False

2. Article 21 strengthened the equality before the law in the Indian constitution
Answer:
True

IV. Consider the following statement and (✓) Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Equality is an important principle for a society to function.
Reason (R) : Equality preserves the dignity of an individual
a) A and R are correct and explains A.
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
A and R are correct and explains A.

V. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is social equality?
Answer:

• Social equality is all citizens are entitled to enjoy equal status in society.
• There should not be any discrimination of caste, creed, colour and race.
• All have equal opportunity.

Question 2.
What are the kinds of Equality?
Answer:
There are four kinds of Equality as follows:

• Social Equality
• Civil Equality
• Political Equality
• Gender Equality

Question 3.
What is the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The voting right is given to all the citizens who have attained 18 years of age without any discrimination is known as Universal Adult Franchise.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Gender equality given by UNICEF?
Answer:

• According to UNICEF, Gender Equality means that “women and men, and girls and boys, enjoy the same rights, resources, opportunities and prolictions.
• It does not require that they be treated exactly alike”.

Question 5.
What is human dignity?
Answer:

• Human dignity is the most important human right. Dignity is the quality of being honourable, noble, and excellent.
• Every human being regarded as a valuable member of the community.

IV. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How can we promote Equality?
Answer:

• We can promote equality by
• Treating all fairly
• Creating an inclusive culture
• Ensuring equal access to opportunities
• Enabling to develop full potential
• Making Laws and policies
• Education.

Question 2.
What are the kinds of inequalities? Give examples.
Answer:

• There are two kinds of inequalities Nature and man-made in equalities.
• Nature has made man equal in colour, height, talent, physical strength, etc.,
• Man-made in equalities on the basis of caste, money, religion, etc.,