Category: Class 11

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 14 Transportation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 14 Transportation

11th Commerce Guide Transportation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Transport removes the hindrance of
a. Time
b. Place
c. Person
d. Knowledge
Answer:
b. Place

Question 2.
Air consignment note is prepared in ……………….. forms
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Answer:
c. Three

Question 3.
…………………… is a document acknowledging the receipt of goods by a carrier.
a. Way bill
b. Consignment note
c. Charter
d. Bill of lading
Answer:
a. Way bill

Question 4.
Which is the fastest means of transport?
a. Rail
b. Road
c. Sea
d. Air
Answer:
a. Rail

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define transport.
Answer:
According to KK Saxena, “the transport system acts with reference to the area it serves in the same way as a candle does in a dark room”.

Question 2.
State any two services rendered by transport.
Answer:

• It is a means to carry men and material from one place to another place.
• It removes the hindrance of place.

Question 3.
Write any two advantages of water transport.
Answer:

1. It is considered the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
2. It is most suitable for heavy loads.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is a bill of lading?
Answer:
It is a document containing the terms and conditions of the contract of carriage. It is issued by the shipping company and signed by the captain of the ship. It acknowledges the receipt of the goods described in it. It is a document of title of goods. If the condition of the packages is good, a clean bill of lading is issued. If some of the packages are found damaged, a foul or clause bill of lading is issued.

Question 2.
What is the charter party?
Answer:
When goods are to be consigned in large quantity, it is advantageous to hire the whole or substantial part of the ship. The document through which this contract is made is known as ‘Charter Party’ may also be known as ‘Voyage Charter’ or ‘Time Charter’. The person who hires the ship is known as ‘Charter’. The charter becomes responsible to the third parties for the acts of the master and crew of the ship.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain different types of transport.
Answer:
Types of transport:

• Land Transport
• Water transport
• Air Transport

(a) Land Transport:
Transport of people and goods by land vehicles is known as Land transport. It is also called ‘Surface Transport’.

1. Pack Animals: Animals like horse, mule, donkey, camel, elephant, etc., are used for carrying small loads in backward areas, hilly traces, forest regions, and deserts known as pack animals.
2. Bullock Carts: It constitutes the predominant form of rural road transport in India for goods traffic and to some extent for passengers’ traffic.
3. Road Transport: Road Transport is one of the most promising and potent means suitable for short and medium distances.
4. Motor lorries and Buses: From the dawn of civilization, people have been endeavoring to form roads and use wheeled vehicles to facilitate the transport of men and materials.
5. Tramways: It made their appearance in the 19th century as a form of transport suitable for big cities. Tramways were initially horse-drawn later steam – power and now electrically operated.
6. Railway Transport: The invention of the steam engine by James Watt, revolutionized the mode of transport all over the world.
7. Recent Trends in Transport: Metro Rail, Monorail, Bullet train, Pipeline Transport, Conveyor Transport, Ropeway transport, and Hyperloop transport.

(b) Water Transport:
“Water is a free gift of nature’. Human civilization through the gradual application of science and technology has utilized water resources for economic, political, and military activities.

1. Inland Waterways: Inland Waterways comprise of rivers, canals, and lakes. It is also known as internal water transport.
2. Ocean or Sea Transport: Ocean transport has been playing a significant role in the development of economic, social, and cultural relations among countries of the world.

(a) Coastal shipping
(b) Overseas shipping

• Liner
• Tramps

(c) Air Transport:
Air transport is the fastest and the costliest mode of transport. Commercial air transport is now one of the most prominent modes of overseas transport. Domestic and International flights are air travel.

Question 2.
Discuss the advantages of transport:
Answer:
It creates a place and time utility.
It increases the efficiency of production:
The object of production is consumption. Effective transport system creates time and place utilities and thereby influences the demand for goods and the value of goods. Thus, transport makes production efficient and purposeful.

It stimulates wants by increasing the quantity and variety of consumer goods:
It helps in getting commodities, which cannot be had or produced in a region due to unsuitable natural conditions. Without adequate and effective transport, goods cannot be had either in the quantities or varieties required in a complex economy.

It develops and expands the market:
The primary function of transport is to enable the physical distribution of goods at the global level. The distribution of goods must take place easily, economically, and speedily. It provides the chance of expanding the national land international market.

It helps in price stability by distributing goods all over the country:
It aids to economic growth The movement of raw materials, fuel, labour, and finished products and the mobility of capital and technical know-how, transport playing a remarkable role in the growth of all industries from agriculture to manufacturing.

It helps in specialization and mass production
Specialization means the division of complex process of production into a number of separate processes so that each person or group specializes in each and every process. It has been extended to the international level too.

It encourages innovations in product production and designing
It provides plenty of opportunities for the producers to produce their product in innovative and creative ways, to catch up with the wider market, and reap more profit.

11th Commerce Guide Transportation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which one is not land transport?
(a) Pack animals
(b) Bullock cart
(c) Tramways
(d) Liner
Answer:
(d) Liner

Question 2.
……………………. is a document prepared by the consignor, handed over to the carrier of goods, while transporting good through airways.
a) Promissory Note
b) Bill of Lading
c) Consignment Note
d) Airway Note
Answer:
d) Airway Note

Question 3.
Who is the inventor of the steam engine?
(a) James Watt
(b) Haney
(c) Wheeler
(d) Thomas
Answer:
(a) James Watt

Question 4.
…………………… is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods for transport by the carrier.
a) Carrier bill
b) Receipt
c) Bill of Lading
d) Waybill
Answer:
d) Waybill

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two disadvantages of air transport.
Answer:

1. It is a very costly mode of transport. The rates and fares charged by which are beyond the reach of common people.
2. Aircraft are not quite suitable for carrying heavy loads and weights.

Question 2.
What are Pack Animals?
Answer:
Animals like horses, mules, donkey camel, and elephants, etc., are used for carrying small loads in backward areas, hilly tracks, forest regions, and deserts known as pack animals.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Ropeway transport?
Answer:
A Ropeway is another means of transport in naval lifting devices. It can be operated in a place where road construction is impractical and costly.

Question 4.
What is Monorail?
Answer:
A monorail is like a train, but instead of having two sets of wheels that balances on a railway track, the monorail is balanced on top of one rail. Monorails are often used to transport people around large cities.

Question 5.
What are Domestic Flights?
Answer:
Flights from one point to another within the same country are called domestic flights.

Question 6.
What are International Flights?
Answer:
Flights from a point in one country to a point in a different country are known as international flights.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by a common carrier?
Answer:
A common carrier is a person who is engaged in the business of carrying goods for hire indiscriminately for all persons. There are organizations transporting goods on designated routes according to a fixed regular schedule, offering to transport goods for hire for all people without discrimination.

Question 2.
Write a note on Indian Railway.
Answer:
Indian Railway is the largest Railway Organization in the world. The Indian Nationwide network, the 4th longest in the world, is owned and operated by State-Owned Indian Railways and includes an operating route length of more than 65,000 Kms. The network carried about 8 billion passengers (the highest in the world) in 2013.

Question 3.
What is the difference between International Shipping and Overseas Shipping?
Answer:
International shipping can be between countries that are connected by land. For Example, Foreign trade between India and Bangladesh. Overseas shipping means the package has to cross the ocean. For Example, International trade between India and South Africa.

Question 4.
Write a note on ‘Air Rescuers’.
Answer:
“Air Rescuers” was established in the year 1999 for superior patient transfer through Air Ambulance and an elevated standard of care and management through Air Ambulance India. The Air Ambulance services are available in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, and Chennai.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Common Carrier?
Answer:
A common carrier is a person who is engaged in the business of carrying goods for hire indiscriminately for all persons.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are all the advantages of Railway Transport?
Answer:

• Railways are well suited for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
• It can provide long-distance travel throughout the day and night with unbroken services.
• It can provide better production and safety to the goods than motor transport. The goods generally carried in closed wagons are not exposed to sun, rain, etc.
• Though the initial investment is large, in the long run, the operating expenses will be very low in railways and it will prove a cheaper mode of transport. It requires less time than motor transport for carrying goods over long distances with greater speed.
• It has a regular schedule of timing and is available throughout the year. 6. It provides unaffected services whether rainy or shinny weather conditions.

Question 2.
Write a note on Inland Waterways.
Answer:
Inland Waterways comprise rivers, canals, and lakes. It is also known as internal water transport. Rivers that are naturally navigable are called natural waterways. Canals and canalized rivers belong to the category of ‘Artificial Waterways’. Generally, small boats and steamers are operated on rivers to transport people and goods. Where rivers are deep enough, large ships can also play on them. Canals are manmade waterways, constructed for the twin purposes of navigation and irrigation.

Question 3.
Explain the advantages of Inland Waterways?
Answer:
The following are the advantages of inland Waterways:

• It is considered the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
• It carries goods smoothly due to the absence of shaking and jolting during transit. It is eminently suitable for the carriage of fragile goods like glassware, earthware, etc., without causing damage.
• It is most suitable for heavy loads.
• There is lesser pollution in water transport.
• Iñitial investment in river services, as well as expenditure on their maintenance, is much lesser as compared to road and rail transport.

Question 4.
Explain the types of Ocean Transport:
Answer:
Ocean transport may be divided into two broad categories, a) Coastal shipping constitutes an important means of transport in all countries having a long coastline. It is a cheap means of transport for the movement of bulky cargoes like coal, iron ore, etc.

to domestic ports of the country. Usually, The coastal shipping trade of a country is reserved for national shipping. In India, the Coastal shipping trade is now exclusively reserved for Indian ships. b) Overseas shipping It means the passengers and goods have to cross the ocean. For Example India export goods to America.

Question 5.
Explain the classification of Ocean-Going Ships:
Answer:
Ocean-going ships may also be divided into two, namely Liners and Tramps:
Liner:
An ocean liner is a passenger ship primarily used as a form of transportation across seas or oceans. Liners may also carry cargo or mail, and may sometimes be used for other purposes (e.g., for pleasure cruises or as hospitals ship).

They sail to schedule, whether they have a full load or not. They follow defined routes with fixed places and times of call. The regularity of service, god sped and luxurious facilities to passengers are the specialties of liners. There are two types of liners, namely, Passenger liners and Cargo liners.

Tramps:
Tramps are essentially cargo vessels. See the picture above. They have no set routes. They do not follow any timetable. They sail only when they get sufficient load. They sail at any time and carry cargoes for almost any ports.

Question 6.
What are all the major types of commercial ships?
Answer:

• General cargo ship
• Oil vessels
• Bulk carriers
• Passengers ships
• Container ships
• Ferryboats
• Auto carrier
• Tow and tug boats
• Tankers
• Specialized ships
• Fishing vessels

Question 7.
Explain any two documents used in Transportation:
Answer:
Way Bill:
The waybill is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods for transport by the carrier. The carrier, accepting goods for transport, issues waybills in the name of the consignors or consignees. It serves as evidence of the contract of transport. It is also a document of title of goods. The ownership of goods represented by a waybill can be transferred by endorsement and delivery of the waybill. If a waybill lost, the consignee will be allowed to clear the goods from the carrier after he executes an indemnity bond.

Railway Receipt:
A railway Receipt is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods by the railway for transporting. It serves as a document of title of goods, viz., it shows the title of its holders of the goods. It may be issued in the name of the consignor or consignee. Only on presentation of the railway receipt, the railways will deliver the goods. If’railway receipt is lost, the consignees can obtain the goods from the railway by executing an indemnity bond. Ownership of the goods can be transferred by endorsement and delivery of the receipt.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

11th Physics Guide Work, Energy and Power Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
A uniform force of (2\(\hat{i}\) + \(\hat{j}\)) N acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. The particle displaces from position (3\(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{k}\) )m to (5\(\hat{i}\) + 3\(\hat{j}\)) m. The work done by the force on the particle is _______. (AIPMT Model 2013)
a) 9 J
b) 6 J
c) 10 J
d) 12 J
Answer:
c) 10 J

Question 2.
A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 2 kg are dropped from a tall building whose height is 80 m. After, a fall of 40 m each towards Earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of _______. (AIPMT model 2004)
a) \(\sqrt{2}\) : 1
b) 1 : \(\sqrt{2}\)
c) 2 : 1
d) 1 : 2
Answer:
d) 1 : 2

Question 3.
A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m s^-1. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (Take g= 10ms^-2 ) (AIPMT 2009)
a) 20 J
b) 30 J
c) 40 J
d) 10 J
Answer:
a) 20 J

Question 4.
An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water of the jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water? (AIPMT 2009)
a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv³
b) mv³
c) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)mv²
d) \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) mv²
Answer:
a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv³

Question 5.
A body of mass 4 m is lying in xy-plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass m move perpendicular to each other with equal speed v. The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is _______. (AIPMT 2014)
a) mv²
b) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)mv²
c) 2 mv²
d) 4 mv²
Answer:
b) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)mv²

Question 6.
The potential energy of a system increases, if work is done _______.
a) by the system against a conservative force
b) by the system against a non-conservative force
c) upon the system by a conservative force
d) upon the system by a non-conservative force
Answer:
a) by the system against a conservative force

Question 7.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
a) \(\sqrt{2gR}\)
b) \(\sqrt{3gR}\)
c) \(\sqrt{5gR}\)
d) \(\sqrt{gR}\)
Answer:
c) \(\sqrt{5gR}\)

Question 8.
The work done by the conservative force for a closed path is _______.
a) always negative
b) zero
c) always positive
d) not defined
Answer:
b) zero

Question 9.
If the linear momentum of the object is increased by 0.1%, then the kinetic energy is increased by _______.
a) 0.1 %
b) 0.2%
c) 0.4%
d) 0.01%
Answer:
b) 0.2%

Question 10.
If the potential energy of the particle is α – \(\frac { β }{ 2 }\)x², then force experienced by the particle is _______.
a) F = \(\frac { β }{ 2 }\)x²
b) F = βx
c) F = – βx
d) F = – \(\frac { β }{ 2 }\)x²
Answer:
c) F = – βx

Question 11.
A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into electric energy. Assume that the generator converts a fixed fraction of the wind energy intercepted by its blades into electrical energy. For wind speed v, the electrical power output will be proportional to
a) v
b) v²
c) v³
d) v⁴
Answer:
c) v³

Question 12.
Two equal masses m₁ and m₂ are moving along the same straight line with velocities 5ms^-1 and -9ms^-1 respectively. If the collision is elastic, then calculate the velocities after the collision of m₁ and m₂, respectively _______.
a) -4ms^-1 and 10 ms^-1
b) 10ms^-1 and 0 ms^-1
c) -9ms^-1 and 5 ms^-1
d) 5 ms^-1 and 1 ms^-1
Answer:
c) -9ms^-1 and 5 ms^-1

Question 13.
A particle is placed at the origin and a force F= kx is acting on it (where k is a positive constant). If U(0)=0, the graph of U(x) versus x will be (where U is the potential energy function) (IIT 2004)

Answer:

Question 14.
A particle which is constrained to move along x-axis, is subjected to a force in the same direction which varies with the distance x of the particle from the origin as F(x) = – kx + ax³. Here, k and a are positive constants. For x > 0, the functional form of the potential energy U(x) of the particle is _______. (IIT 2002)

Answer:

Question 15.
A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that one piece is double the length of the other. Then, the long piece will have a force constant of _______.
a) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) k
b) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) k
c) 3k
d) 6k
Answer:
b) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) k

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain how the definition of work in physics is different from general perception.
Answer:
The term work is used in diverse contexts in daily life. It refers to both physical as well as mental work. In fact, any activity can generally be called work. But in Physics, the term work is treated as a physical quantity with a precise definition. Work is said to be done by the force when the force applied to a body displaces it.

Question 2.
Write the various types of potential energy. Explain the formulate.
Answer:
The energy possessed by the body by virtue of its position is called potential energy.
The various types of potential energies are
1) Gravitational potential energy :
The energy possessed by the body due gravitational force gives gravitational potential energy
u = mgh.
where
u → Gravitational potential energy
m → Mass of the body
g → acceleration due to gravity
h → displacement produced

2) Elastic potential energy :
The energy due to spring force and other similar forces give rise to elastic potential energy
u = 1/2² Where
U → elastic potential energy
K → spring constant
x → elongation produced

3) Electrostatic potential energy
The energy due to electro static force on charges give rise to electrostatic potential energy
U = K \(\frac{\mathrm{q}_{1} \mathrm{q}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) where
K = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) Constant
q₁, q₂ – magnitude of charges
d – displacement made by any one of the charges or by both charges.

Question 3.
Write the differences between conservative and non-conservative forces. Give two examples each.
Answer:
Conservative forces:
A Force is said to be a conservative force if work done by or against the force in moving the body depends only on the initial and final positions of the body and net depend on the nature of the path followed between the two positions
Examples:
Elastic spring force, electrostatic force, magnetic force, gravitational force.

Non-conservative force:
A force is said to be non-conservative if the work done by or against the force in moving a body depends on the path between initial and final positions. This means the value of work-done is different in different paths.

Examples:

1. Frictional forces are non-conservative forces as the work done against friction depends on the length of the path moved by the body.
2. The force due to air resistance, viscous forces are also non conservative forces because work done by or against these forces depends upon the velocity of motion.

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of elastic and inelastic collision Elastic collision:
Answer:
In a collision, the total K.E of the bodies before collision is equal to the total K.E. of the bodies after collision, then it is an elastic collision.
Total K.E. before collision = Total K.E. after collision

Inelastic collision:
In a collision, the total K.E. of the bodies before collision is not equal to total K.E. after collision then it is called as inelastic collision Even though K.E. is not conserved but total energy is conserved. After collision of the two colliding bodies stick together such collision are called as perfectly inelastic a plastic collision.

Question 5.
Define the following
Answer:
a) Coefficient of restitution
b) Power
c) Law of conservation of energy
d) Loss of Kinetic energy in inelastic collision
Answer:
a) Coefficient of restitution :
Coefficient of restitution defined as the ratio of velocity of separation (after collision) to velocity of approach (before collision)
The coefficient of restitution =

b) Power :
Power is defined as the rate of work done or energy delivered
P = \(\frac { W }{ t }\) = \(\vec{F}\).\(\vec{V}\)

c) Law of conservation of energy :
Law states that “Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It may be transformed from one to another but the total energy of an isolated system remains constant”

d) Loss of kinetic energy in inelastic collision
The difference in total K.E. before collision and total K.E. after collision’s is equal to loss of K.E. during collision.
∆Q = Total K.E. before collision – Total K.E. after collision.

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain with graphs the difference between work done by a constant force and by a variable force.
Answer:
a) Work done by a constant force:
When a constant force ‘F’ acts on a body the small work done (dw) by the force in producing a small displacement ‘dr’ is given by dw = (F cos θ) dr.
The total W.D in producing a displacement from initial position r_i, to final position r_f is,

The graphical representation of the W.D by constant force is shown below

The area under the graph shows the work done by constant force.

b) Work done by a variable force :
When the component of a variable force F acts on a body, the small work done (dw) by the force in producing a small displacement dr is given by dw = (F cos θ) dr [ Here F cos 0 is the component of variable forces]. where F and 0 one variables To total W.D for the displacement from initial position r_i to final position r_f is given by the relation.

A graphical representation of the work done by a variable force is shown below. The area under the graph gives the W.D. by variable force.

Question 2.
State and explain work energy principle Mention any three examples for it.
Answer:
Law:
Work done by a force on the body changes the kinetic energy of the body, ie change in K.E. = work done. This is called work energy theorem.
Proof:
Consider a body of mass m at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface. The work done (W) done by the constant force (F) for displacement (S) in the same direction is W = FS → (1)
The constant force is given by F = ma → (2)
We know that v² = u² + 2a

W = 1/2 mv² – 1/2 mu²
Here the term 1/2 mv² indicates K.E.
1/2 mv² – 1/2mu² = ∆K (change in K.E.)
∵ W = ∆K
Hence proved

Examples:

1. A moving hammer drives a nail into the wood. Being in motion, it has K.E. or ability to do work.
2. A fast moving stone can break a windowpane. The stone has K.E. due to its motion and so it can do work.
3. The kinetic energy of air is used to run windmills.

Question 3.
Arrive at an expression for power and velocity. Give some examples for the same.
Answer:
Power is defined as the rate of work done or energy delivered. P = \(\frac { w }{ t }\)
Relation between power and velocity:
The work done by a force F for a displacement \(\overline{dr}\) is dw = \(\overline{F}\).\(\overline{dr}\)

Examples:
1) A 100 Watt bulb consumes 100 joule of electrical energy in one second
2) Electrical motor supply enough power to bring water from a bore well.

Question 4.
Arrive at an expression for elastic collision in one dimension and discuss various cases.
Answer:

Consider two elastic bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ moving in a straight line (along positive direction) on a frictionless horizontal surface. In order to have collision assume m₁ moves faster than m₂.

Let U₁ and ₁ be the initial velocities of m₁ and m₂ respectively. (u₁ > u₂). After collision let the masses m₁ and m₂ moves with velocities v₁ and v₂ respectively.
Incase of elastic collision both linear momentum and kinetic energies are conserved
∴ from law of conservation of linear momentum
Total momentum before (Pi)
collision = Total momentum afer collision (Pf)
m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂ → (1)
m₁(u₁ – v₁) = m₂(v₂ – u₂ → (2)
Further
Total K.E. before collision (KE_i) = Total K.E. after collision (KE_f)

rearranging
u₁ – u₂ = – (v₁ – v₂) → (5)
From this it is dear that for any elastic collision, relative speed of two elastic bodies after the collision has the same magnitude as before collision but in opposite direction.

Rewriting the above equation for v₁ & v₁
v₁ = v₂ + u₂ – u₁ → (6)
(or)
v₂ = v₁ + u₁ – u₂ → (7)
To find velocities of v₁ & v₂
Substituting (7) in (2)
m₁(u₁ – v₁) = m₂(v₁ + u₁ – u₂ – u₂)
m₁(u₁ – v₁) = m₂(v₁ + u₁ – 2u₂)
m₁u₁ – m₁v₁ = m₂v₁ + m₂u₁ – 2m₂u₂
m₁u₁ – m₂u₁ + 2m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₁
u₁(m₁ – m₂) + 2m₂u₂ = v₁(m₁ + m₂)

Case 1:
When bodies have same mass is m₁ = m₂ = m

The velocities get interchanged.

Case 2:
When both bodies have same mass m₁ = m₂ = m, but second body at rest in u₂ = 0
v₁ = 0, v₂ = u₁
After collision the first body comes to rest and the second body moves with the velocity of first body.

Case 3 :
The first body very much lighter than the second body in m₁ << m₂, \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1}}{\mathrm{~m}_{2}}\) << 1.
the ratio \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1}}{\mathrm{~m}_{2}}\) = 0 and also second body at rest, (u₂ = 0)
Dividing numerator and denominator of equation 8 by m₂

Similarly dividing numerator and denominator of equation 9 by m₁

From this, the conclusion arrived is the first body which is lighter returns back (rebounds) in opposite direction with the same initial velocity as it has a negative sign. The second body since it has heavier mars continues to remain at rest even after the collision.

Case 4 :
The second body is very much lighter than the first body.
m₂ << m₁ then the ratio = 0 \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}}\) and also if the target is at rest ie second body at rest (u₂ = 0)
Dividing equation (8) both the numerator and denominator by m₁

This shows that the first body which is heavier continues to move with same velocity and the second body which is lighter will move with twice the initial velocity of the first body, ie lighter body is thrown away from the point of collision.

Question 5.
What is inelastic collision? In which way it is different from elastic collision mention few examples in day to day life for inelastic collision.
Answer:
In a collision, the total K.E. on the bodies before collision is not equal to the total K.E. after collision then it is called as inelastic collision, i.e
Total K.E after collision ≠ Total K.E. before collision
Whereas in case of elastic collision Total K.E. before collison is equal to total K.E after collision.
Example: Collision between two vehicles, collision between a ball and floor.

IV. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
Calculate the work done by a force of 30N in lifting a load of 2kg to a height of 10m (g = 10ms^-2)
Solution:
F = 30N
m = 2kg
s = 10 m
g = 10 ms^-2
θ = 0
W.D = ?
W.D = \(\overline{F}\).\(\overline{S}\) = FS cos θ
W.D = 30 x 10
= 300 J

Question 2.
A ball with a velocity of 5 ms^-1 impinges at an angle of 60° with the vertical on a smooth Horizontal plane. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5 find the velocity and direction after the impact.
Solution:

U₁ = 5 ms^-1
θ = 60°
e = 0.5
v = ?
Initial momentum = final momentum along the original line of m of con.
∵ Coefficient of restitution is 0.5 (less than 1) the collision is inelastic
Applying component of velocities. The x component of velocity is
u sin θ = v sin Φ → (1)
But the magnitude of y component is not same using coefficient of restitution

Question 3.
A bob of mass m is attached to one end of the rod of negligible mass and length r, the other end of which is pivoted freely at a fixed center O as shown in the figure. What initial speed must be given to the object to reach the top of the circle?. (Hint: use law of conservation of energy). Is this speed less or greater than speed obtained in the section 4.2.9?
Solution:

T.E. at lowest point (E₁) = Total energy at (E₂)
E₁ = E₂
At the lowest point potential energy = u₁ = 0
Kinetic energy = KE₁ = 1/2 mv₁²
Total energy at lowest point = E₁ = u₁ + KE₁
E₁ = 0 + 1/2 mv² → (1)
∴ E₁ = mv²₁ … (1)
At the top of circle:
Potential energy = u₂ = 2mgr
K.E energy at top = 1/2mv₂²
Total energy at highest
point = 2mgr + 1/2 mv₂² → (2)
According to law of conservation of energy E1 = E2

Question 4.
Two different unknown masses A and B collide. A is initially at rest when B has a speed V. After collision B has a speed V/2 and moves at right angles to its original direction of motion. Find the direction in which A moves after collision.
Solution:

Applying principle of conservation of momentum along x-axis

Applying principle of conservation of momentum along y-axis

Question 5.
A bullet of mass 20g strikes a pendulum of mass 5 kg. The centre of mass of the pendulum rises at a vertical distance of 10 cm. If the bullet gets embedded into the pendulum, calculate its initial speed.
Solution:

mass of bullet m₁ = 20 x 10^-3kg
mass of pendulum m₂ = 5kg
Let the speed of the bullet = u₁
∵ The pendulum at rest u₂ = 0
h = 10 x 10^-2m
Let v be the common velocity after the bullet embedded inside the bob.

This common velocity ‘v’ is the initial velocity of combined bullet and bob.
W.K.T
v² – u² = 2as
Here v = 6; u = 0, a = – g s = h

V. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
A spring which is initially in the unstretched condition is first stretched by a length x and again by a further length x. The work done in the first case w₁ is one-third of the work done in the second case w₂. True or false?
Answer:
True, W.D by the first case will be 1/3 of the second W.D

Question 2.
Which is conserved in inelastic collision? Total energy (or) kinetic energy?
Answer:
In inelastic collision total energy is only conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved. A part of kinetic energy is converted into some other form of energy such as sound, heat energy.
Note: The linear momentum is also conserved.

Question 3.
Is there any network done by external forces on a car moving at a constant speed along a straight road?
Answer:
Since the car is moving at a constant speed along a straight line, displacement is caused. So work in done by the force.

Question 4.
A car starts from rest and moves on a surface with uniform acceleration. Draw the graph of kinetic energy versus displacement. What information you can get from that graph?
Answer:

According to work-energy theorem change in K.E = W.D
K.E is Kept constant slope is constant

Question 5.
A charged particle moves towards another charged particle under what conditions the total momentum and the total energy of the system conserved?
Answer:
Coulomb force is acting in between the charged particles Internal force is a conservative force. If no external forces act or the work done by external forces is zero then the mechanical energy of the system and also total linear momentum also remains constant.

11th Physics Guide Work, Energy and Power Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Thrust and linear momentum
(a) Thrust and linear momentum
(b) Work and energy
(c) Work and power
(d) Power and energy
Answer:
(b) Work and energy

Question 2.
For the surface μ = 0.4, The work done by applied force, frictional force and net force are
a) 50J, -40J, 10J
b) 50J, -20J, 10J
c) 10J, -50J, 40J
d) 50J, -40J, 20J
Answer:
a) 50J, -40J, 10J

Question 3.
The system is released from rest. Find the work done by the force if gravity during first 2 seconds of motion.

a) 80J
b) 20J
c) 40J
d) 100J
Answer:
c) 40J

Question 4.
Dimensional formula for work done is
(a) MLT^-1
(b) ML²T²
(c) M^-1L^-1T²
(d) ML²T^-2
Answer:
(d) ML²T^-2

Question 5.
The variation of force acting on a particle along x ax is is shown. The W.D by the force during the displacement x = 0 to x = 25m is _______.

a) 100J
b) 115J
c) 130J
d) 125J
Answer:
b) 115J

Question 6.
The amount of work done by centripetal force on the object moving in a circular path is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) positive
(d) negative
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 7.
A ball of mass 200g is attached to a string 50 mm and a force F is applied as shown. The W.D by this force if the string makes an angle 60° with vertical is? [at initial and final positions speed of the ball is zero.]

a) 1J
b) 0.5J
c) 0.05J
d) 0.25J
Answer:
b) 0.5J

Question 8.
An object of mass 4kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20m and reaches with velocity 10ms^-1 on ground. The work done by air friction is .
a) 800J
b) – 800J
c) 600J
d) – 600J
Answer:
d) – 600J

Question 9.
If the force and displacement are perpendicular to each other, then the work done is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) maximum
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 10.
What is the power of an engine which can lift 600kg of coal per minute from a mine 20m deep?
a) 2000 w
b) 100 w
c) 1000 w
d) 200 w
Answer:
a) 2000 w

Question 11.
If w₁, w₂ and w₃ represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along 3 different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively as shown in figure, in the gravitational field of a point mass m. Find the correct relation an between w₁, w₂ and w₃ _______.

a) w₁ > w₂ > w₃
b) w₁ = w₂ = w₃
c) w₁ < w₂ < w₃
d) w₂ > w₁ > w₃
Answer:
b) w₁ = w₂ = w₃

Question 12.
A position – depends force F = 7 – 2x + 3x² newton acts on a small body of mass 2kg and displacement if from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in Joule is _______.
a) 70
b) 270
c) 35
d) 135
Answer:
d) 135

Question 13.
The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called as
(a) potential energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) mechanical energy
(d) none
Answer:
(b) kinetic energy

Question 14.
According to the work-energy theorem, the work done by the net force on a particle is equal to change in its _______.
a) kinetic energy
b) potential energy
c) linear momentum
d) angular momentum
Answer:
a) kinetic energy

Question 15.
A block of 2kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force of 10N be acting on the block so that it will acquire a K.E of 10J after moving 2m _______.
a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 45°
d) 90°
Answer:
b) 60°

Question 16.
The K.E acquired by a body of mass m in travelling a certain distance starting from rest under a constant force is _______.
a) directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to \(\sqrt{m}\)
c) inversely proportional to \(\sqrt{m}\)
d) independent of m
Answer:
b) directly proportional to \(\sqrt{m}\)

Question 17.
1-kilowatt hour is equivalent to
(a) 10^-7 J
(b) 1.6 × 10^-19 J
(c) 4.186 J
(d) 3.6 × 10^-6 J
Answer:
(d) 3.6 × 10^-6 J

Question 18.
A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to displacement. Its loss of K.E in any displacement x is proportional to _______.
a) x²
b) e^x
c) x
d) log_ex
Answer:
a) x²

Question 19.
Which one of the following is not a conservative force?
a) gravitational force
b) electrostatic force between the charges
c) Magnetic force between two magnetic dipoles
d) Frictional force
Answer:
d) Frictional force

Question 20.
A spring of force constant 800 N/M has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is _______.
a) 163
b) 8J
c) 32J
d) 24J
Answer:
b) 8J

Question 21.
The kinetic energy of the body is always
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) negative
(d) positive
Answer:
(d) positive

Question 22.
A bullet moving with a speed of 150 m/s strikes a wooden plank. After passing through the plank its speed becomes 125ms^-1. Another bullet of the same mass and size strikes the plank with a speed of 90m/s. Its speed after passing through the plank would be _______.
a) 25 m/s
b) 35 m/s
c) 50 m/s
d) 70 m/s
Answer:
a) 25 m/s

Question 23.
A 2kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a speed of 4 m/s. It strikes on uncompressed spring and compresses it fill the block is motionless. The kinetic friction force is 15N and spring constant is 10⁴N/m. The spring compress by _______.
a) 5.5 cm
b) 2.5 cm
c) 11 cm
d) 8.5 cm
Answer:
a) 5.5 cm

Question 24.
If two objects of masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) are moving with the same momentum then the kinetic energy will be greater for
(a) m₁
(b) m₂
(c) m₁ or m₂
(d) both will have equal kinetic energy
Answer:
(b) m₂

Question 25.
The power of a pump which can pump 200 kg of water to a height if 200m in 10s is _______. (g = 10ms^-2)
a) 40 kW
b) 80 Kw
c) 400 Kw
d) 960 Kw
Answer:
a) 40 Kw

Question 26.
A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to velocity v₀ in a time t₀. The instantaneous power delivered to the body at any time t is _______.

Answer:

Question 27.
particle to mass ‘m’ starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is _______.
a) \(\frac{M V^{2}}{T}\)
b)\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)\(\frac{M V^{2}}{T^{2}}\)
c) \(\frac{M V^{2}}{T^{2}}\)
d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)\(\frac{M V^{2}}{T}\)
Answer:
d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)\(\frac{M V^{2}}{T}\)

Question 28.
A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx is acting on it (where k is the positive constant). If U (o) = 0, the graph u(x) verses x will be _______. (u=potential energy function)

Answer:

Question 29.
The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as in fig _______.

The body in stable equilibrium at
a) x = x₁
b) x = x₂
c) both x₁, and x₂
d) neither x₁ nor x₂
Answer:
b) x = x₂

Question 30.
Non-conservative force is
(a) frictional force
(b) viscous force
(c) air resistance
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 31.
If the K.E of the body is increased by 300% then for the percentage change in momentum will be _______.
a) 100%
b) 150%
c) 265%
d) 73.2%
Answer:
a) 100%

Question 32.
A particle is projected making an angle 45’ with horizontal having kinetic energy k. The K.E at the highest point will be _______.
a) K/\(\sqrt{2}\)
b) K/2
c) 2K
d) K
Answer:
b) K/2

Question 33.
The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly elastic collision is _______.
a) 1
b) 0
c) ∞
d) -1
Answer:
a) 1

Question 34.
A ball moving with a certain velocity hits another identical ball at rest. If the plane is frictionless and collision is elastic, the angle between the directions in which the balls move after collision will be _______.
a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 120°
Answer:
c) 90°

Question 35.
Which of the following is zero at the highest point in vertical circular motion?
(a) velocity of the particle
(b) tension of the spring
(c) potential energy
(d) none
Answer:
(a) velocity of the particle

II. Additional Questions:

Question 1.
The sign of work done by a force on a body is important to understand. State carefully if the following quantities are positive or negative.
(a) Work done by man lifting a bucket out of the well by means of a rope tied to the bucket
Solution:
Work done is positive, because the bucket moves in the direction of force applied by the man.

(b) work done by gravitational of force in the above case.
Solution:
work done by gravitational force in negative because the bucket is moving upwards against gravitational force.

(c) Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane.
Solution:
Work done is negative, as frictional force is opposite to direction of motion.

(d) work done by the applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity.
Solution:
Work done is positive because the applied force acts in the direction of motion of the body

(e) Work done by the resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.
Solution:
Work done is negative, because the resistive force of air acts in a direction opposite to the direction of motion of the vibration pendulum.

Question 2.
Comets move around the sun in highly elliptical orbits. The gravitational force an the comet due to sun is not normal to the comet velocity in general. Yet the W.D by the gravitational force over every complete orbit of the comet is zero why?
Solution:
The gravitational force acting on the comet is a conservative force. The work done by the conservative force over any path is equal to the negative of change in potention energy. Over a complete orbit of any shape, there is no change in P.E of the comet. Hence no work is done by the gravitational force on the comet.

Question 3.
A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. How displacement (S) and time (t) are related?
Answer:
By work energy theorem
W = Pxt = 1/2 mv²
v² = \(\frac { 2pt }{ m }\)

Question 4.
A molecule in a gas container hits a horizontal wall with speed 200 ms^-1 and angle 30° with normal and rebounds with same speed. Is momentum conserved in collision? Is the conserved is elastic or in elastic.
Solution:
Momentum is always conserved, whether collision is elastic or in elastic

Let m be the mars of the molecule and M be the mass of the wall. As the wall is heavy the molecule rebounding with same velocity does not produce any velocity to wall.
K.E. before collision = Ki = 1/2 m(200)² + 0
= 2 x 10⁴ x 1/2m – 3
K.E. after collision = Kf = 1/2 m(200)² + 0
= 1/2 x m x 2 x w⁴
∵ Ki = Kf
Collision is elastic in nature

Question 5.
An elastic spring of force constant K is compressed by a amount x. Show that its potential energy is 1/2 kx².
Answer:
Consider the plot of spring force Fs versus displacement x of the block attached to free end of a spring.

According to Hookes law Fs = – k x_m
The work done by the spring force for an extension x_m is
Ws = Area ∆OBA = 1/2 AB x OB
= 1/2 Fs X_m
= 1/2 (-kx_m) x_m²
Ws = – 1/2 kx_m²
In order stretch the spring slowly an external force F equal to and opposite to Fs has to be applied. So work done by the external force F is
W = – Ws = + 1/2 kx_m²
This work done is stored as P.E of the spring
u = 1/2 kx²

Question 6.
Obtain the relation between momentum and K.E
Answer:
Consider an object of mass on moving with velocity v. Then its linear momentum is \(\overline{p}\) = \(\overline{mv}\) and its kinetic energy
k.E = 1/2 mv²
multiply and divide by m both numerator and denominator

Question 7.
Explain motion of a body in vertical circle.
Answer:
Consider a body of mass m attached to one end of marsless and inextensible string executes circular motion is a vertical plane with other end fixed at 0. The length of the string equal to radius.

There are two forces acting an mass m.
i) Gravitational force (mg) which acts downwards
ii) Tension along the string (T)
Applying Newtons II law
mg sin θ = m a_t
mg sin θ = – m\(\frac { dv }{ dt }\) → (1)
Where a_t = tangential acceleration
In the radial direction
T – mg cos θ = m a_r
T – mg cos θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)
Where a_r = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) = centripetal or radial acceleration from the above 2 equations four important facts to get understood are.

1) The mass is having tangential acceleration (g sin θ) for all values of 0 (expect θ =0°). It is clear that vertical circular motion is not a uniform circular motion

2) From (1) & (2) as the magnitude of velocity is not constant in the course of motion, the Tension in the string is also not constant.

3) From equ(2) T = mg cos θ + \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\), indicates that in section A and D (for – π/2 < θ < π/2) cosθ is five, ie the term mg cos θ is always > 0.
Hence Tension can not vanish even when the velocity vanishes.

4) The equation (2) \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) = T – mg cos θ further indicates that in section B and C
(for π/2< θ < 3π/2) cosθ is negative.
(-mg con θ) is always greater than zero. Hence velocity cannot vanish even tension vanishes.
Consider two positions, lowest position (1) and the highest position 2.

Let v₁ be the velocity at the lowest point 1.
Let v₂ be the velocity at the lowest point 2.
The direction of velocity is always tangential to the circular path at all points.
Let T₁ and T₂ be the Tensions at lowest end highest point respectively. Tension at each point act towards the centre. Tension and Similarly velocity can be determined by applying the law of conservation of energy.
For the lowest point (1)
when the body is at its lowest point (1) the gravitational force mg which acts vertically downwards and Tension (T₁) vertically upwards.

For the highest point:
At the highest point (2) both gravitational force mg and tension T₂ act vertically downwards.

Here the term can (v₁² – v₂²) be found by applying law of conservation of energy at point 1 and 2.
Total energy at 1 = Total energy at 2
E₁ = E₂
P.E at 1, u₁ = 0
K.E at 1, KE₁ = 1/2 mv₁²
T.E at 1 = 1/2 0 + mv₁² = 1/2 mv₁² → (8)
Similarly
P.E at 2, u₂ = mg(2r)
K.E at 2, K.E₂ = 1/2 mv²
T.E at 2 = mg(2r) + 1/2 mv₂₂ → (9)
equating (8) and (9)

(v₁² – v₂²) = 4gr → (10)
Substituting (10) in (7)

Minimum speed at the highest point (2)
In order to loop the circle, the body must have a minimum speed at point 2 – To find minimum speed at 2 consider 2.
Consider T₂ = 0 in equation … (6)

At highest point 2 the body should have a minimum velocity v₂ = \(\sqrt{gr}\) to stay in circular path.
Minimum speed at the lowest point:
From equation 10
v₁² – v₂² = 4gr
v₁² – gr = 4gr
v₁² = \(\sqrt{5gr}\)
The body must have a speed of \(\sqrt{5gr}\) at the lowest point 1.
ie v₁ ≥ \(\sqrt{5gr}\) so that the mars can stay in circular path.
Comparing values of v₁ & v₂ it is clear that minimum speed at the lowest point should be \(\sqrt{5}\) times more than the minimum speed at the highest point, so that the body loops in a vertical circle.

Question 8.
What is perfect in elastic collision?
Answer:
Obtain an expression for velocity after collision. A perfect or complete in elastic collision is the are in which the object stick permanently after collision such that they move with a common velocity.

Expression for common velocity:

Let two bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ move with initial velocities u₁ and u₂ respectively before collision. After perfect inelastic collision both two objects move together with a common velocity v.

Since linear momentum is conserved during collisions.
m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = (m₁ + m₂)v
V = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{u}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{u}_{2}}{\left(\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}\right)}\)
This gives the expression for common velocity.

Question 9.
Obtain an expression for loss of K.E. in perfect elastic collision.
Answer:
Let KE_i be the initial total kinetic energy before collision and KE_f be the total final kinetic energy after collision.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 13 Warehousing Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 13 Warehousing

11th Commerce Guide Warehousing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE
I Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Warehouses remove the hindrance of ………………….
a) Person
b) Time
c) Risk
d) Knowledge
Answer:
b) Time

Question 2.
A warehouse holds goods as a ………………………………… center.
a) Marketing
b) Sorting
c) Distribution
d) Selling
Answer:
c) Distribution

Question 3.
…………………. can be given as collateral security for getting financial assistance from the bank.
a) Dock warrant
b) Warehouse réceipt
c) Dock receipt
d) Warehouse warrant
Answer:
d) Warehouse warrant

Question 4.
……………………. warehouses are licensed by the government and are permitted to accept the goods on bond.
a) Bonded
b) Cold Storage
c) Públid
d) All the Above
Answer:
a) Bonded

Question 5.
……………………………. warehouses are used for storing perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, etc.
a) Bonded
b) Private
c) Cold storage
d) Co-operative
Answer:
c) Cold storage

Question 6.
The document which authorizes to deliver the goods either in part or full is called …………………
a) Warehouse warrant
b) Dock Receipt
ç) Dock warrant
d) None of these
Answer:
ç) Dock warrant

Question 7.
The Institutional warehouse started with the support of the government is ……………..
a) Bonded Warehouse
b) Public Warehouse
c) Food Corporation of India
d) Custom Bonded
Answer:
c) Food Corporation of India

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Warehouse?
Answer:
It is a place where goods are stored for future use and act as distribution centres. Warehouses are designed depending upon the nature of the products to be stored.

Question 2.
List the various types of Warehouses.
Answer:
Warehouses can be classified as follows:

On the basis of Ownership:

• Private Warehouses
• Government Warehouses
• Public Warehouses
• Co-operative Warehouses
• Bonded Warehouses
• Institutional Warehouses
• Distribution Centre Warehouses

On the basis of commodities stored:

• General Warehouses
• Special Commodity Warehouses
• Cold storages or Refrigerated Warehouses
• Climate Controlled Warehouses

Question 3.
Give any three functions of Warehouses.
Answer:

1. Storage: The surplus goods are stored properly for the purpose of supplying them at the right place and at the right time.
2. Price Stabilization: Warehousing ensures price stabilization by supplying goods as and when demanded.
3. Equalization of Demand and Supply: Warehousing equalizes the demand and supply of goods by storing the goods when they are not demanded and releasing them when they are demanded.

Question 4.
Tabulate the three differences between warehouse warrant and warehouse receipt:
Answer:

Question 5.
Give a note on FCI:
Answer:
FCI provides storage facilities for good grains. FCI also hires storage capacity from other sources such as CWC, SWC, and private parties.

III Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate the warehouse warrant from the warehouse receipt.
Answer:

Question 2.
Comment on cold storage warehouse.
Answer:
Goods are transported in refrigerated containers and stored in refrigerated warehouses. These warehouses are used for storing perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, eggs butter, fish, meat, etc. goods stored in cold storage without deterioration in quality, can be made available throughout the year.

IV Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the different types of warehouses?
Answer:

1. Private Warehouses: Private warehouses are built and owned by private business enterprises in order to store the products produced by them.
2. Government Warehouses: They are created and operated by the Government to implement the programmes of the Government.
3. Public Warehouse: It is open to the public at large. Most business organisations, especially small and medium scale units cannot afford to have their own warehouses.
4. Cooperative Warehouses: There are warehouses owned and managed by the marketing co-operative societies or agricultural co-operative societies. They are set up to provide warehousing facilities to their members.
5. Bonded Warehouses: Bonded warehouses are those warehouses, which are licensed by the government to accept the storage of imported goods which are not cleared due to non-payment of customs duty by the importer.

Question 2.
Explain the advantages of warehousing functions.
Answer:
Meaning: Warehousing is the act or the process of storing large quantities of goods so that they can be sold or used at a later date.
The following are the advantages of Warehousing:

• It safeguards the stock of the merchants who do not have to store place.
• Warehouses reduce the distribution cost of the traders by storing the goods in bulk and allow the trader to take the goods in small lots to his shop.
• It helps in the selection of channels of distribution. The producer will prefer whether to appoint a wholesaler or retailer.
• It assists in maintaining continuous sales and avoids the possibility of an “out of stock” position.
• It creates employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers, to improve their standard of living.

11th Commerce Guide Warehousing Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
NCDC is an example of ……………. warehouse.
(a) Private
(b) Government
(c) Public
(d) Cooperative
Answer:
(d) Cooperative

Question 2.
The warehouses where the goods are temporarily stored for one or two days are known as ……………….
a) Co-operative warehouses
b) Public warehouses
c) bonded warehouses
d) Distribution center warehouses
Answer:
d) Distribution center warehouses

Question 3.
CWC was established in
(a) 1964
(b) 1957
(c) 1956
(d) 1956
Answer:
(b) 1957

Question 4.
Food Corporation act was set-up in the year ……………
a) 1964
b) 1946
c) 1955
d) 1978
Answer:
a)1964

Question 5.
The number of warehousing centers across the country under CWC ……………..
a) 500
b) 646
c) 464
d) 201
Answer:
c) 464

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Give a not on SWC.
Answer:
State Warehousing Corporation (SWC): Every state government is given the power to establish its own Warehousing Corporation after getting approval from the CWC. 50% of the capital is contributed by the CWC and the balance 50% contributed by State Government.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Dock Receipt?
Answer:
Dock Receipt is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods issued by dock authorities to the owner of the goods. It is the right of taking of delivery of goods cannot be transferred.

Question 3.
Write a note on State Warehousing Corporation (SWC)?
Answer:
Every state government is given the power to establish its own Warehousing Corporation after getting approval from the CWC. 50% of the capital is contributed by the CWC and the balance 50% contributed by State Government.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Delivery Order?
Answer:
This is the document through which the depositor directs the warehouse keeper to deliver the specified goods either to the party mentioned in the document or to the bearer.

Question 5.
What do you mean by the word Dock?
Answer:
It is a place in the harbour where the goods are kept for loading into the ship.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on Tamil Nadu Warehousing Corporation (TNWC):
Answer:
It was established in 1959. The available storage capacity of TNWC is 6.83 Lakh MT with 7 Regional offices and 256 Godowns across the state. It is one of the biggest public warehouses operating in the state, offering logistic sendees to a diverse group of clients.

Question 2.
Differentiate Warehouse and Warehousing:
Answer:

• A warehouse is a place where goods are stored for future use whereas; warehousing is an arrangement of goods.
• The warehouse is to hold goods for storing purposes only. The warehousing object is to present and protect the goods from deterioration.

Question 3.
What are all the value-added services rendered by the warehouses?
Answer:
Warehouses also provide certain value-added services, such as in transit mixing, grading, packaging, and labelling. Sometimes goods are repacked and labelled again at the time of inspection by prospective buyers.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the warehousing in India.
Answer:
India is an agrarian country but the importance of warehousing was not felt till 1950. Agriculture contributes 16 percent of the overall GDP and accounts for the employment of approximately 52 percent of the Indian population. It is estimated that more than 40 percent of our agricultural .productions wasted due to poor storage facilities.

On the recommendation of the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee, the Agricultural Produce (Development and warehousing) Corporation Act enacted in 1956, authorized the Government to set up National Co-operative Development and Warehousing Board to develop agricultural Co-operatives and warehousing.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the method of Warehousing in India:
Answer:
India is an agrarian country but the importance of warehousing was not felt till 1950. Agriculture contributes 16 percent of the overall GDP and accounts for the employment of approximately 52 percent of the Indian population. It is estimated that more than 40 percent of our agricultural productions wasted due to poor storage facilities.

On the recommendation of the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee, the Agricultural Produce(Development and warehousing) Corporation Act enacted in 1956 authorized the Government to set up National Co-operative Development and Warehousing Board to develop agricultural Co-operatives and warehousing.

Question 3.
What are all the documents used in the process of warehousing?
Answer:
The following are used in connection with the warehousing:
Warehouse Warrants:
It is a document issued in favour of the owner or depositor of goods by the warehouse keeper. This is a document of the title of goods and can be transferred by simple endorsement and delivery. To transfer all the goods the warehouse warrant is sufficient. If only a part of the goods is to be transferred then a delivery order is needed. The delivery order is to be accompanied by the warehouse warrant.

Warehouse Keeper’s Receipt:
It is a document issued by the warehouse keeper, which acknowledges the receipt of goods from the depositor of goods. It also shows the existence of an agreement to keep the goods in the warehouse subject to certain conditions. This is not a document of title of goods and is not transferable.

Dock Warrant:
A dock is a place in the harbor where the goods are kept for loading into the ship. A dock warrant is a document of title of goods issued by dock authorities. This document certifies that the dock authorities hold the goods. To take delivery of the goods this certificate should be given back to dock authorities. The right of getting delivery of goods can be assigned to third parties too.

Dock Receipt:
Dock receipt is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods issued by dock authorities to the owner of the goods. It is not a document of the title of goods. Therefore, the right of taking of delivery of goods cannot be transferred.

Delivery Order:
This is a document through which the depositor directs the warehouse keeper to deliver the specified goods either to the party mentioned in the document or to the bearer. The warehouse keeper delivers the goods as per the instruction. Transfer of ownership takes place through this document.

Question 4.
What are all the drawbacks of Warehousing?
Answer:
Warehousing is not effective because of the following reasons:

• There are no adequate transport facilities between the place of production and warehouses.
• Lack of sufficient storage facilities for different commodities such as perishable and non-perishable commodities.
• Complicated formalities are to be fulfilled at the warehouses. The illiterate and innocent farmers are not able to cope with these procedures.
• The unavoidable delay in obtaining financial assistance may cause loss to the owner of goods.

Question 5.
Explain the functions of Warehouse: (Any Five)
Answer:
The following are the functions of warehouses:

Storage:
There is a time gap between the time of production and the time of consumption and a gap between demand and supply. The surplus goods are stored properly for the purpose of supplying them at the right place and at the right time.

Price Stabilization:
Warehousing ensures .price stabilization by supplying goods as and when demanded. It acts as a cushion to absorb price fluctuations and supplies the goods at more or less uniform prices throughout the year.

Equalization of Demand and Supply:
Warehousing equalizes the demand and supply of goods by storing the goods when they are not demanded and releasing them when there is a demand. Thus the consumers get the commodities regularly even during the off¬season periods.

Business Finance:
Based on the goods deposited in a warehouse, the depositor can get finance from banks and other financial institutions by showing the receipt issued by the warehouse keeper.

Risk bearing:
In case of damage to the goods, the warehouse keeper compensates for the loss caused to the owner of the goods. Thus, warehouses bear the loss of risk involved in the storage of goods.

Question 6.
What are all the needs for Warehousing?
Answer:
Mass production:
Production is based on the anticipated demand for goods. Mass production of goods takes place by establishing big factories and modem production. The market for such goods is spread all over the country. Therefore, warehouses are to be built at different places to store these products and provide prompt supplies when demanded.

Nature of commodities:
Some goods are perishable in nature and therefore it should be consumed in time to avoid deterioration. Storing them in cold storage can extend the life of the goods.

Seasonal production but regular consumption:
The farm products such as wheat, sugar, , pulses, etc. are produced only in seasons. But the consumption of these products is evenly spread throughout the year. If proper storage facilities are not provided, the quality of these goods deteriorates and may become not usable.

Regular production but seasonal consumption:
Certain goods are produced regularly throughout the year. Be they are demanded in seasons only. For example, rain-coats, blankets, umbrellas, etc. require storage for a whole year. They can be released in large quantities to meet the heavy demand in the rainy and winter seasons.

Proximity to production centres:
Productions of goods at specific centers need to be supplied in time and without interruption to consumers throughout the country. For this purpose, goods are regularly fed to the warehouses situated in different market areas.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 12 Functions of Commercial Banks Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 12 Functions of Commercial Banks

11th Commerce Guide Functions of Commercial Banks Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Electronic banking can be done through
a. Computers
b. Mobile phones
c. ATM
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 2.
Minimum how much amount can be transferred through RTGS?
a. Any amount
b. 50,000
c. 2 lakh
d. 5 lakh
Answer:
c. 2 lakh

Question 3.
The largest commercial bank of India
a. ICICI
b. SBI
c. PNB
d. RBI
Answer:
b. SBI

Question 4.
In which kind of account, it is compulsory to deposit certain amount at certain time?
a. Saving deposit
b. Fixed deposit
c. Current deposit
d. Recurring deposit
Answer:
d. Recurring deposit

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a type of advance provided by commercial bank?
a. Collecting and supplying business information
b. Overdraft
c. Cash credit
d. Discounting of bills
Answer:
a. Collecting and supplying business information

I. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Mobile Banking?
Answer:
Most of the commercial banks have designed computer programs called apps which can be downloaded on smartphones. With this app on the smartphone, a customer can operate his account transactions from anywhere. This service is known as mobile banking.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the need for a Debit card.
Answer:
An ATM card is also called a debit card. This card is more useful in the purchase of goods and services anywhere in India, if the shop maintains a swiping machine facility.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the term – Credit card.
Answer:
Banks issue credit cards to customers and other eligible persons. With this card, the holder can purchase goods and services on credit at any shop in India.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ATM?
Answer:
ATM (Automated Teller Machine) card. A customer can withdraw money any time, anywhere in India from the ATM machine using the ATM card given by his / her bank.

Question 5.
Write a note on – ECS.
Answer:
ECS was launched by the RBI in 1995. It is an electronic method of fund transfer from a bank to another bank. ECS credit can be used to credit salary, dividend, interest, pension, etc.

II. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is E-Banking?
Answer:
E-Banking is a method of banking in which the customer conducts transactions electronically via the internet.

Question 2.
Write a short note on – RTGS.
Answer:
The Real-Time Gross Settlement Systems (RTGS) was launched by RBI in 2013.. The transactions are settled on real-time basis. Gross settlement means the transaction is settled between one bank and another bank without adding any other transactions. RTGS facility is available between 9.00 am to 4.30 pm on weekdays and up to 2.00 pm on Saturdays. RTGS transfers are not allowed on Sundays and bank holidays. The minimum limit for RTGS transactions is 2 lakhs.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the Diversified banking services of commercial banks.
Answer:
Competition in the banking industry has reduced their profits. Therefore the commercial banks started identifying and offering new and diversified financial services. They are purely other than banking services. Providing all such banking and other financial services are also called universal banking. Such services are as follows: Bank Assurance, Merchant Banking, Retail Banking (Personal Banking), Housing Finance, Mutual Fund, Venture Capital Fund, Factoring.

Question 4.
Explain NEFT.
Answer:
The National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) was launched by RBI in 2005. Under this electronic funds transfer system, the bulk transfer of transactions is settled in batches during specific timings across India. Individuals and institutions which maintain accounts with an NEFT enabled bank branch are eligible for using NEFT. Transactions do not occur on a real-time basis. Once in every half hour from 8.00 am to 7.30 pm.

23 settlements are allowed in a day. NEFT transfers are not allowed on Sundays and bank holidays. NEFT use IFSC (Indian Financial System Code) -all digit alphanumeric code, to identify a bank branch. IFSC is provided by IDRBT(Institute for Development & Research on Banking Technology), Hyderabad.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Core Banking Solutions?
Answer:
‘CORE’ stands for ‘Centralized Online Real-time Exchange’. In the centralized server of the bank, all the details of all the accounts of all the branches of the bank are available. A customer can withdraw money through a cheque at any branch of that bank throughout the world. Similarly, anyone can deposit money into the account. The entry of the transactions is recorded in the centralized server of the bank in real-time and can be seen in all the branches of the bank. This facility is called Core Banking Solutions.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the various primary functions performed by the commercial banks.
Answer:
The primary functions of a commercial bank are of three types. They are:
1. Accepting Deposits :
The basic deposit accounts offered by commercial banks are listed below. In these days banks compete with each other to attract customers by adding facilities to these deposit accounts. Broadly deposit accounts can be classified into demand deposits and time deposits.

2. Granting Loans and Advances:
The second primary function of commercial banks is lending money in order to earn interest income. Banks provide specific sums as loans which are repayable along with interest. Demand loans should be repaid whenever demanded.Term loans can be repaid after the agreed period. Advances are credit facilities provided for short period (within a year) to business community. But both terms are used interchangeably.

3. Creation of Credit:
Apart from the currency money issued by the RBI, the credit money in circulation created by commercial banks influence economic activities of a country to a large extent. Credit money of commercial banks is far greater in volume than the currency money.

The volume, the purposes and the sector to which this credit money is to be channelised – all these are implemented by commercial banks under the guidance of the RBI.

Question 2.
Explain the various secondary functions of commercial hanks.
Answer:
These services can be broadly classified into agency services and general utility services.

I. Agency Functions:
Banks act as agents of customers and provide certain services. They are called Agency Functions which are as follows:

1. Transfer of Funds: Banks issue demand drafts, bankers cheques, travelers’ cheques, etc., and help in the transfer of funds from one place to another.
2. Periodic Payment of Premiums, Rent, etc.: After instruction from the customers, banks undertake the monthly payment of insurance premium, rent, telephone bills, etc. from the accounts of customers.
3. Collection and Payment of Cheques: On behalf of customers bank collect the cheques deposited into the accounts of customers from other banks and deposit cash in the customers’ accounts.
4. Acting as Executors, Trustees, and Attorneys: Banks act as executors of the will of the customers and implement their will after their death.
5. Conduct Share Market transactions: A Demat account should be opened with Depository Participant and that Demat account should be linked with a savings bank account by the customer.
6. Preparation of Income Tax Return: Banks prepare the annual income tax return on behalf of the customers and provide income tax-related advice to them.
7. Dealing in Foreign Exchange: Banks buy and sell foreign currencies on behalf of customers.
8. Acting as Correspondent: Banks act as correspondents of customers and receive travel tickets, passports, etc.

II. General Utility Functions:

1. Issue of Demand Drafts and Bankers’ Cheques
2. Accepting Bills of Exchange on behalf of Customers
3. Safety Lockers
4. Letters of Credit
5. Travellers Cheques
6. Gift Cheques
7. Reference Service

11th Commerce Guide Functions of Commercial Banks Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The primary functions of a commercial bank are of ……………. types.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 2.
The deposit which has no limitation on deposit of cheques or withdrawals from the account is …………………..
a)’Demand Deposit
b) Current Deposit
c) Fixed deposit
d) Recurring Deposit
Answer:
b) Current Deposit

Question 3.
Overdraft facility is given ……………. account holders.
(a) Savings
(b) Current
(c) Fixed
(d) Recurring
Answer:
(b) Current

Question 4.
…………….. Documents have been notified by the Government of India as ‘Officially Valid Documents’ for proof of identity.
a) Four
b) Five
c) Six
d) Seven
Answer:
c) Six

Question 5.
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) was launched by the RBI in …………….
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c) 2005
(d) 2010
Answer:
(c) 2005

Question 6.
To identify the bank branch banks use ……………… digit alphanumeric code.
a) 11
b) 12
c) 10
d) 6
Answer:
a) 11

Question 7.
National Electronic Funds Transfer was launched by RBI in …………….
a) 2002
b) 2006
c) 2005
d) 2007
Answer:
c) 2005

Question 8.
Indian Financial System Code is provided by ……………….
a) IDRBT
b) IDBI
c) RBI
d) IFC
Answer:
a) IDRBT

Question 9.
The current maximum limit for Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) is ……………….
a) 2 Lakhs
b) 5 Lakhs
c) 8 Lakhs
d) 10 lakhs
Answer:
a) 2 Lakhs

Question 10.
…………………… cards services were launched in March 2012 by the National Payments Corporation of India.
a) VISA
b) Maestro
c) Credit
d) RuPay
Answer:
d) RuPay

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Give the features of Smart card.
Answer:
Nowadays smart card is used for day to day purposes.

1. Strong device security
2. Biometrics

Question 2.
What do you mean by ‘KYC’?
Answer:
KYC means “Know Your Customer”. It is the general rule to be followed by banks to get information regarding the identity and address of the customers. A person willing to open a bank account should submit a ‘proof of identity and proof of address’ together with a recent photograph. Six documents have been notified by the Government of India as ‘Officially Valid Documents’ (OVDs) for proof of identity.

Question 3.
What is Capital Formation?
Answer:
Banks encourage savings habits among people and accumulate their small dormant savings. These funds can be fruitfully channelized for the productive purposes of the economy.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Gift Cheque?
Answer:
In order to present as a Gift, the denomination printed cheques are available in an attractive design. This is known as Gift Cheque.

Question 5.
What is meant by Bank Assurance?
Answer:
The offering of insurance policies or products by a bank in association with another insurance company is known as Bank Assurance.

Question 6.
What is Venture Capital Fund? Give Example.
Answer:
The start-up share- capital to new ventures of little known, unregistered, risky, young and small private business, especially in technology-oriented and knowledge-intensive business in known as Venture Capital Fund. E.g. SBI and Canara Bank have set up venture capital fund subsidiaries.

Question 7.
Write a note on Funds transfer through SMS:
Answer:
*99# is the number for the fund’s transfer from any mobile phone. It was launched in 2014. Every common man in India can transact banking transactions from any comer of India.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are all the notified documents for the proof of identity?
Answer:
Passport, Driving Licence, Voters’ Identity Card, PAN Card, Aadhar Card issued by UIDAI, and NREGA Job Card are the notified documents for the proof of identity.

Question 2.
Define Cheque.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, “the cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker payable on demand”.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Crossing of Cheque?
Answer:
Drawing two parallel transverse lines on the left top of the cheque. It implies that the money will not be paid over the counter but through a bank account only.

Question 4.
Give two examples for Bank Assurance.
Answer:

1. Corporation Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, and Vijaya Bank have tied up with Life Insurance Corporation of India.
2. SBI has joined hands with BNP Paribas Cardif- a French company to sell insurance products.

Question 5.
Explain Factoring.
Answer:
Factoring is a continuing arrangement between financial intermediaries (factor) and a business concern (client) whereby the factor purchase the clients’ accounts receivable. E.g: SBI & Canara Bank.

Question 6.
Write a note on Virtual Banking.
Answer:
Virtual Banking or Internet banking refers to perform banking operations through the internet, using computers and mobile phones. This can be done by a customer from home or office or any part of the world and all 24 hours of 7 days.

Question 7.
Explain BBPS.
Answer:
Bharat Bill Payment System is an RBI-guided system operated by the National Payments Corporation of India from August 2016. It is a one-stop payment platform for all bills providing anytime anywhere bill payment service to all customérs across India with certainty, reliability, and safety of transactions.

Question 8.
Explain BHIM.
Answer:
Bharat Interface for Money is an app that lets a bank customer make simple, easy, and quick payment transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). A bank customer can make instant bank-to-bank payments and Pay and collect money using just a mobile number or virtual payment address (VPA). It was launched in December 2016.

Question 9.
Write a note on Credit Cards.
Answer:
Banks issue credit cards to customers and other eligible persons. With this card, the holder can purchase goods and services on credit at any shop in India. If the dues are paid within the stipulated time no interest is charged. The credit limit is fixed by the issuing bank based on the income of the cardholder.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the Electronic Banking Functions: (Any Five) ‘
Answer:
1. NEFT:
National Electronic Funds Transfer This was launched by the RBI in 2005. Under this electronic funds transfer system, the bulk transfer of transactions is settled in batches during specific timings across India. Individuals and institutions which maintain accounts with an NEFT enabled bank branch are eligible for using NEFT. Transactions do not occur on a real-time basis. Once in every half hour from 8.00 am to 7.30 pm. 23 settlements are allowed in a day.

NEFT transfers are not allowed on Sundays and bank holidays. Both NEFT and RTGS use IFSC (Indian Financial System Code) – an 11 digit alphanumeric code, to identify a bank branch. IFSC is provided by IDRBT (Institute for Development & Research on Banking Technology), Hyderabad.

2. RTGS:
Real-Time Gross Settlement Systems It was launched by the RBI in 2013. The transactions are settled on a real-time basis. The gross settlement means the transaction is settled between one bank and another bank without adding any other transactions. RTGS facility is available between 9.00 am to 4.30 pm on weekdays and up to 2.00 pm on Saturdays.

In one day the RTGS routes about 60,000 transactions worth about ‘ 2,700 billion and covers over 52,000 bank branches located in 10,000 cities and towns. RTGS transfers are not allowed on Sundays and bank holidays. The minimum limit for RTGS transactions is 2 lakhs.

3. Electronic Clearing Services (ECS):
ECS was launched by the RBI in 1995. It is an electronic method of fund transfer from a commerce 1-15.indd 112 24-03- 2018 12:56:55 113 banks to another bank. ECS credit can be used to credit salary, dividend, interest, pension, etc. and ECS debit is used to debit monthly telephone bills, electricity bills, equated monthly installments (EMI) payments.

For this purpose, the account holding individuals and institutions concerned should fill up certain forms and submit them to the banks. ECS transactions between banks are settled in the current account maintained in the clearinghouse.

4. CORE Banking Solutions:
‘CORE’ stands for ‘Centralized Online Real-time Exchange. In the centralized server of the bank, all the details of all the accounts of all the branches of the bank are available. A customer can withdraw money through a cheque at any branch of that bank throughout the world.

Similarly, anyone can deposit money into the account. The entry of the transactions is recorded in the centralized server of the bank in real-time and can be seen in all the branches of the bank. This facility is called core banking solutions.

5. Internet Banking or Virtual Banking:
Internet banking refers to performing banking operations through the internet, using computers and mobile phones. This can be done by a customer from home or office or any part of the world and all 24 hours of 7 days.

Question 2.
Write a note on the types of Loans:
Answer:
Short-term and medium-term loans are provided by commercial banks against eligible collateral to business concerns. It is a definite sum of money lent for a definite period. It is repayable in one lump sum or in installments. Interest is payable on the entire loan amount. The loans are classified as under:

1. Housing Loan:
Taking the title deeds of the house as collateral security, based on the monthly income of the borrowing customer, banks advance medium and long-term loans. The customer repays the loan in equated monthly installments (EMI consists of principal and interest).

2. Consumer Loans:
Consumer durables like refrigerators, air conditioners, laptops, washing machines, television, etc. can be purchased by customers with consumer loans from banks. The product purchased is hypothecated (secured loan arrangement where the movable asset remains with the borrower) as security for the consumer loan amount. The customer pays in equated monthly installments for a specified period.

3. Vehicle Loans:
Two-wheelers, cars, buses, and other vehicles can be purchased by individuals as well as institutions obtaining vehicle loans from the banks. Vehicles are hypothecated to the bank until the entire loan amount is repaid.

4. Educational Loan:
The loan is provided by banks to students for studying undergraduate, postgraduate or professional courses. The loan may be received in installments to pay the educational fees every year. After completion of the course, one year is allowed for the student to get ‘employed.

Afterward, the student should repay the loan with interest for the entire period. Interest is charged from the date, of the first installment of loan amount payment.

5. Jewel Loan:
Customers pledge their gold jewels and obtain loans from banks. The margin (percentage of value per gram that can be given as credit) requirement is fixed by the RBI. Interest should be paid every month. Otherwise, interest on interest is charged.

Within 12 months the customer can redeem or else can re-pledge. Jewels not redeemed even after reminders are sold in auction by banks to recover their dues.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 11 Types of Banks
Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 11 Types of Banks

11th Commerce Guide Types of Banks Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which bank is not an Industrial Bank?
a. ICICI
b. HSBC
c. SIDBI
d. IDBI
Answer:
b. HSBC

Question 2.
The Local Area Banks are promoting ………………….
a. Rural savings
b. Business savings
c. Industrial development
d. Agricultural development
Answer:
a. Rural savings

Question 3.
Foreign banks are begun their operation since
a. 1978
b. 1979
c. 1980
d. 1981
Answer:
c. 1980

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the meaning of Commercial Banks.
Answer:
Banks which accept deposits from the public and grant loans to traders, individuals, agriculture, industries, transport, etc., in order to earn a profit.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Industrial Banks?
Answer:
Industrial banks are- financial institutions deriving funds from the sale of investment certificates and from deposits made by individual savers and investing such funds in personal loans often secured by a mortgage. It is also called a Development banks.

Question 3.
Briefly explain about Correspondent Banks?
Answer:
A bank in a country can appoint another bank in a foreign country to act as a correspondent bank.

Question 4.
What are Foreign Banks?
Answer:
Banks which have registered office in a foreign country and branches in India are called foreign banks. In 2017 there were 42 foreign banks in India and all of them were scheduled banks.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on Local Area Banks, Give two examples.
Answer:
The local Area Bank (LAB) scheme was introduced by the RBI in August 1996. LABs are small private sector banks established in rural and semi-urban areas. Each bank serves two or three adjoining districts only. Their main objective is to mobilize rural savings (accept deposits) and invest them in the same areas.

Examples:

1. Coastal Local Area Bank, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.
2. Subhadra Local Area Bank Limited, Kolhapur, Maharashtra

Question 2.
What are the objectives involved in Regional Rural Banks?
Answer:
The Regional Rural Banks were formed under the Regional Rural Bank Act 1976, jointly by the Central Government, State Government, and a sponsor bank, in the ratio of 50:15:35. Their objectives are as follows:

• To develop the rural economy.
• Play a supplementary role in cooperative societies.
• To mobilize deposits from the rural public
• To provide finance to rural artisans, small entrepreneurs, and farmers.
• Try to avoid the public dependency on money lenders.

Question 3.
Mention the purposes of Agricultural and Co-operative banks
Answer:
Their foremost objective is providing service to its members for rural and agricultural development and not profit earning. They are set up in towns and villages rather than cities. Compared to the commercial banks they offer less variety of services as the bye-laws do not permit all commercial bank activities.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the various types of banks based on the organization with examples
Answer:
On the basis of organization the banking may be classified into the following:
1. Unit Banking:
Unit banking refers to a bank that is a single, usually small bank that provides financial services to its local community. A unit bank is independent and does not have any connecting banks or branches in other areas. Large financial resources are available in one branch. Decision-making is in the same branch.

So time is saved. Since the funds are allocated in one branch and no support of other branches. During financial crises, the unit bank has to close down. Hence it leads to regional imbalances or no balance growth.
E.g: Chase bank in the U.S

2. Branch Banking:
Branch banking refers to a bank that is connected to one or more other banks in an area or outside of it. To its customers, this bank provides all the usual financial services but is backed and ultimately controlled by a larger financial institution.

Loans and advances are based on merit, irrespective of the status. Larger financial resources are available in each branch. There is a delay in the decision-making process as they have to depend on the head office.
E.g. Lloyds Bank in England.

Question 2.
Explain the types of banks based on ownership patterns.
Answer:
Any bank in which not less than 51 percent of shares are owned by the Government is called Government banks or public sector commercial banks. All nationalized banks (19 banks, in 2017), SBI, and IDBI Ltd. are public sector commercial banks. All of them are joint-stock company-type banks. There are corporation-type banks. Each corporation type bank is established by a separate Act of Parliament and is fully owned by the Government of India.

All banking companies owned by private people are called private sector commercial banks. All cooperative banks are owned by members of the public.

1. Nationalized banks: Indian bank, IOB, etc.
2. Public sector banks: State Bank of India, IDBI Bank Ltd.
3. Private sector banks: Lakshmi Vilas Bank, Karur Vysya Bank.

11th Commerce Guide Types of Banks Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Patru, Varavu, Selavu, Laabam, Nashtam which all collectively known as ‘Iynthogai’ is otherwise called ……………..
(a) Trial Balance
(b) Ledger
(c) Journal
(d) Transaction
Answer:
(a) Trial Balance

Question 2.
In which year IDBI was transformed into a public sector commercial bank?
a. 1964
b.1694
c.2004
d.2000
Answer:
c.2004

Question 3.
The General Bank of India was established in ……………..
(a) 1786
(b) 1796
(c) 1766
(d) 1787
Answer:
(a) 1786

Question 4.
The first land Mortgage bank was established in the year …………………….
a. 1920
b. 1945
c. 1930
d. 1960
Answer:
a. 1920

Question 5.
World bank otherwise called ……………..
(a) IBRD
(b) IMF
(c) RBI
(d) SBI
Answer:
(a) IBRD

Question 6.
The share capital contributed by the central government, state government and sponsor bank is in the ratio of …………..
a. 50:15:35
b. 25:25:35
c. 35:25:15
d. Equal
Answer:
a. 50:15:35

Question 7.
The state bank of India came into being in ……………..
(a) 1995
(b) 1945
(c) 1955
(d) 1965
Answer:
(c) 1955

Question 8.
The bank which helps in promote housing finance institutions is known as ……………
a. EXIM Bank
b. RRB
c. NHB
d. SBI
Answer:
c. NHB

Question 9.
Which of the following is the example of a payment bank?
a. EXIM Bank
b. Indian Bank
c. NABARD
d. Paytm
Answer:
d. Paytm

Question 10.
…………………………. was established to serve exclusively for women members.
a. Dena Bank
b. Bharatiya MaIìila Bank
c. Women Bank
d. SBI
Answer:
b. Bharatiya MaIìila Bank

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Cooperative banks?
Answer:
All cooperative banks in India are owned by their customers or members who are farmers, small traders, and others. Cooperative banks in India are either urban-based or rural-based.

Question 2.
What do you mean by private sector banks?
Answer:
All banking companies owned by private people are called private sector commercial banks. E.g Lakshmi Vilas Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank.

Question 3.
Explain Islamic banking:
Answer:
Islamic banking is a system of banking based on Islamic principles of bank or Sharia. It is practiced in UAE, Qatar, Pakistan, Kuwait, Bahrain, etc.

Question 4.
What are the two principles of Islamic Banking?
Answer:

• No interest is charged on loans
• No interest is charged on deposits

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Scheduled Banks:
Answer:
All the banks which satisfied the norms and included in the second schedule to the RBI Act, 1934 are called scheduled banks.

Question 2.
What are non-scheduled Banks?
Answer:
The banks which are not listed in the second schedule of the RBI act, 1934 are known as non-scheduled banks.
Banks with a reserve capital of less than 5 lakh rupees are qualified as non-scheduled banks. There are five urban cooperative banks and three local area banks which function as non-scheduled banks in India.

Question 3.
Write a note on Moneylenders:
Answer:
An individual, as well as an institution, lends money in rural and urban areas. Certain community-based businessmen provided loans for interest in different parts of India. The reasons for their indispensable existence are:

• They disburse loans at doorstep at any time of the day with or without security.
• They provide the required amount and at the required time.
• Very little documentation and procedures.
• Banks are not willing to advance loans to farmers or labourers with less income levels.

Question 4.
How does the interest is calculated by Moneylenders?
Answer:
Moneylenders charge exorbitant rates as high as 20 percent per day. (12.16 percent per annum). It is called ‘Kandhuvatti’ or ‘flight Vatti’ in Tamil. The Usurious Loans Act 1918 of the Government of India and the Tamil Nadu Prohibition of Charging Exorbitant Interest Act 2003 prohibit charging such interest rates.

5. Write a note on Nidhi Companies:
Nidhi companies promote thrift and savings habit among members and they are registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Only Nidhi companies fulfilling certain norms are registered and regulated by the RBI. Others are not regulated.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the types of banks on the basis of their functions: (Any 5)
Answer:
Based on the Functions the banks can be classified into the following:
1.Central Bank:
According to the Bank of International Settlement (BIS), “A Central Bank is the bank in any country to which has been entrusted the duty of regulating the volume of currency and credit in that country.” Central banks are known by different names in different countries.

Their functions also vary from country to country. A Central bank is set up as an autonomous or quasi-autonomous body. Stability and growth of the country’s economy are the main goals of a central bank. In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank.

2.Commercial Bank:
Banks which accept deposits from the public and grant loans to traders, individuals, agriculture, industries, transport, etc. in order to earn a profit. They also provide other services like remittance of funds, safekeeping of valuables, collection of cheques, issue of letters of credit, etc. They operate with a head office and a network of branch offices spread throughout the country. E.g: State Bank of India, Karur Vysya Bank.

3.Development Banks:
Huge finance required for investment, expansion, and modernization of big industries and others are granted by a separate type of bank called development Banks. They are also called industrial banks. The objectivé of development banks is not profit.

Their aim is to develop the country and create employment opportunities. Finance is provided for medium and long terms ranging from five to twenty years. E.g. Industrial Finance Corporation of India- IFCI; MUDRA bank (fõr the development of micro industries)

4. Cooperative Banks:
All the agriculture and cooperative banks in India are owned by their customers and members who are farmers, small traders and others. These banks are either urban-based or rural-based. Their main objective is to provide’ service to its members for rural and agricultural development and not profit earning.

Compared to the commercial banks they offer less variety of services as the bye-laws do not permit all commercial bank activities. National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) concentrates on providing loans and grants to State Governments for financing cooperative societies. NCDC concentrates on projects like water conversation, irrigation, Agri insurance, rural sanitation, etc.

5.Foreign Banks:
Banks which have registered office in a foreign country and branches in India are called foreign banks. These banks open their offices in big cities and port towns only. Their profitability is higher than Indian banks. 1n20 17, there were 42 Foreign Banks in India and all of them were scheduled banks. Eg: Bank of America — USA, Deutsche Bank – Germany.

Question 2.
Write a note on small Finance Banks:
Answer:
Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are private sector banks set up in unbanked and underbanked regions of the country to achieve a financial conclusions. E.g: Ujjivan SFB Limited, Bengaluru, Karnataka. The objectives of Small Finance Banks are Mobilising rural savings (accepting deposits) and Providing credit to small and marginal farmers, to micro and small industries, and other unorganized sector entities.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Payment Bank?
Answer:
Payment Banks are formed to widen the spread of payment and financial services to small businesses, low-income households, and migrant labourers. These banks should be fully networked from the beginning. They offer doorstep banking payment for a small fess prescribed on the basis of the amount. They issue ATM/Debit cards, Internet banking and third-party fund transfers. But they can’t lend money and issue credit cards. In August 2015, the RBI gave ‘in principle’ licenses to Payment Banks.

Question 4.
Is there India that needs large-sized banks?
Answer:
Yes. India is in need of large-sized banks. Because Industrial and Commercial bank of China is the first ranked bank in the world with an asset size of USD 3,893.23 billion. Punjab National Bank, the largest nationalized bank in India has an asset base of USD 100 billion and its rank is 717. SBI a public sector bank merged with its five associates and Bharatiya Mahila Bank with effect from April 1, 2017, and after the merger, its asset size is USD 573 billion. This will boost it among the top 50 banks(SBI earlier rank 272).

National Bank of Australia has an asset base of USD 578.46 billion and its rank is 49. To compete with large-sized banks in the world India needs more large-sized banks. Therefore merger of many nationalized banks is under consideration.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Reserve Bank of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 10 Reserve Bank of India

11th Commerce Guide Reserve Bank of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which bank has the power to issue bank notes?
a. Central bank
b. Commercial bank
c. Co-operative banks
d. foreign banks
Answer:
b. Commercial bank

Question 2.
The Central bank of India is
a. PNB
b. SBI
c. ICICI
d. RBI
Answer:
a. PNB

Question 3.
The Reserve Bank of India commenced its operations from April 1,
a. 1936
b. 1935
c. 1934
d. 1933
Answer:
b. 1935

Question 4.
Bankers are not only dealers of money but also leaders in
a. Economic development
b.Trade development
c. Industry development
d. Service development
Answer:
a. Economic development

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a function of a central bank?
a. Guiding and regulating the banking system of a country
b. Deal with the general public
c. Acts essentially as Government banker
d. Maintains deposit accounts of all other banks
Answer:
b. Deal with the general public

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the services included in Service businesses?
Answer:
Educational, Medical, Hospitality, and banking are the services included in service businesses. Bank service is the nerve center of industry and commerce in a country.

Question 2.
Write the meaning of ‘Bank.
Answer:
Bank is a financial institution which accepts deposits from the public and creates credit.

Question 3.
Briefly explain about Central Bank.
Answer:
Every nation has one central bank. It is owned by the Government of the country. The control over the entire banking system of a country is vested with this apex bank. Central banks are known by different names in different countries. In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention the importance of banking services.
Answer:
Banking service is the nerve center of industry and commerce in a country. It plays a vital role by providing the money required for their regular functioning and development.

Question 2.
Explain the origin of RBI.
Answer:
In 1926 the Hilton – Young Commission or the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance (J.M. Keynes and Sir Ernest Cable were its members) made a recommendation to create a central bank. RBI Act 1934 was passed and RBI launched its operations from April 01, 1935. After independence, the Government of India passed the RBI Act, 1948 and took over RBI after paying compensation to the private shareholders. According to the recommendations from January 1, 1949, RBI started functioning as a government-owned central bank of India.

Question 3.
Who are the persons involved in RBI administration?
Answer:
The RBI is governed by the central board of directors. The 21 members board is appointed by the Government of India. It consists of:

1. One Governor and four deputy governors appointed for a period of four years.
2. Ten Directors from various fields
3. Two Government officials
4. Four Directors – one each from local boards.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Classify the various functions of Reserve Bank of India.
Answer:
The functions of the RBI can be grouped under three heads:

• Leadership and Supervisory Functions
• Traditional Functions
• Promotional Functions

(i) Leadership and Supervisory Functions:

• India’s Representative in World Financial Institutions
• Regulator and Supervisor of Indian Banking System
• Monetary Authority
• Closely Monitoring Economic Parameters
• Promptly Responding to New Challenges

(ii) Traditional Functions:

• Banker and Financial Advisor to the Government
• The monopoly of Note Issue
• Banker’s Bank
• Controller of Credit and Liquidity
• Quantitative Methods of Credit Control
• Qualitative Credit Control Measures
• Lender of the Last Resort
• Clearing House Services
• Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves
• Maintenance of Foreign Exchange Rate
• Collection and Publication of Authentic Data

(iii) Promotional Functions:

• Nurturing Banking Habits among the Public
• Grievance Settlement Measures
• Agricultural Development
• Promotion of Small Scale Industries
• Facilitates Foreign Trade
• Supports Cooperative Sector

Question 2.
Explain the organizational structure of RBI.
Answer:
The head office of the RBI is situated in Mumbai. This Central office has 33 departments in 2017. It has four zonal offices in Mumbai, Delhi, Calcutta, and Chennai functioning under local boards with deputy governors as their heads. It also has 19 regional offices and 11 sub-offices. The RBI is governed by a Central Board Director. The 21 members board is appointed by the Government of India. It consists of;

• One governor and four deputy governors appointed for a period of four years.
• Ten directors from various fields
• Two Government officials
• Four directors – one each from local boards

11th Commerce Guide Reserve Bank of India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The head office of the RBI is situated in …………….
(a) Calcutta
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 2.
………………… ‘ was the first bank in India established in 1770.
a. Audh Bank
b. Bank of Calcutta
c. Bank of Bombay
d. Bank of Hindustan
Answer:
d. Bank of Hindustan

Question 3.
When did India become a member of IBRD and IMF?
(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1945
(d) 1946
Answer:
(c) 1945

Question 4.
………………. banks were nationalised in India in the year 1969.
a. 15
b. 14
c. 20
d. 41
Answer:
a. 15

Question 5.
Currency notes are printed at …………….
(a) Nasik
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Kolkatta
Answer:
(a) Nasik

Question 6.
RBI is governed by…………………. central board of directors.
a. 15
b. 12
c. 21
d. 20
Answer:
c. 21

Question 7.
Among global currencies, the Indian rupee is given the code ……………….
(a) INR
(b) Rs.
(c) NRI
(d) IRN
Answer:
(a) INR

Question 8.
RBI is also called as …………….. Bank.
a. World
b. Central
c. National
d. Banker’s
Answer:
d. Banker’s

Question 9.
The rupee symbol was changed from Rs. 10 by the government of India on ………………..
a. July 15, 2010
b. May 21, 1998
c. January 1, 1969
d. December 15, 2010
Answer:
a. July 15, 2010

Question 10.
The number of clearinghouses maintained by SBI is………………
a. 480
b. 840
c. 860
d. 680
Answer:
b. 840

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)?
Answer:
It is the ratio of money and money equivalents kept within the bank in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

Question 2.
Write a note on the first bank in India.
Answer:
Bank of Hindustan was the first bank in India established in 1770 and was closed in 1932.

Question 3.
Expand NABARD.
Answer:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

Question 4.
What are all ‘Presidential Banks’?
Answer:
Bank of Bombay, Bank of Madras, and Bank of Bengal are called Presidential Banks.

Question 5.
What do you mean by CRR?
Answer:
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) means it is the ratio of cash reserves with the RBI kept by Scheduled banks in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

Question 6.
Explain SLR.
Answer:
It is the ratio of money and money equivalents kept within the bank in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

Question 7.
How did the remonetization carried out in India in the year 2016?
Answer:
The remonetization was carried out by issuing new 2000 and 500 currency notes.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Repo rate?
Answer:
Repo rate is the repurchase rate at which the RBI repurchases the Government securities (other securities also) from the Scheduled banks and gives loans.

Question 9.
What do you mean by reverse repo rate?
Answer:
Reverse repo rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from Commercial banks by giving back those Government securities.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define Bank.
Answer:
According to Banking Regulation Act 1949, “Banking means the accepting for the purpose of lending or investment of deposits of money from the public, repayable on demand ór otherwise and withdrawable by cheque, draft, pay order or otherwise”.

Question 2.
Define Central Bank.
Answer:
According to the Bank of International Settlement (BIS), “A Central Bank is the bank in any country to which has been entrusted the duty of regulating the volume of currency and credit in that country.”

Question 3.
Write a note on Demonetisation.
Answer:
The government of India on the recommendation of the RBI carried out demonetization on November 8, 2016, in order to;

• To crack a whip against black money,
• Drive out counterfeit currency in circulation.
• Formalization of cash-dependent business, and
• Dismantling the financial strength of terrorism and Naxalism.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the historical development of banking in India:
Answer:

• Bank of Hindustan was the first bank in India established in 1770 and was closed in 1932.
• The General Bank of India was established in 1786 and was also liquidated in 1791.
• Bank of Calcutta was the first joint-stock bank established in 1806. It was renamed the Bank of Bengal in 1809.
• Bank of Bombay in 1840 and Bank of Madras in 1843 were established. “ These banks are called Presidential Banks.
• In the year 1881 ‘Audh Bank’ was started and it was renamed Punjab National Bank in 1894.
• These Presidential banks were amalgamated into the Imperial Bank of India on 27 January 1921.
• It confined its operations to the urban sector and the rural sector was completely neglected in those days.
• After Independence, an Act was passed in the Parliament to take over the Imperial Bank of India by the Government and the State Bank of India came into being on July 1, 1995.

Question 2.
Explain the credit-control methods
Answer:
a) Quantitative Methods of Credit Control
The methods which influence the total volume of credit in the Indian economy are called quantitative or general methods. An increase in the first three measures will reduce the volume of money in circulation in India and vice versa.

i. Bank Rate Policy:
Bank rate refers to the rate at which the RBI re-discounts the bills given by the Scheduled banks.

ii. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
It is the ratio of cash reserves with the RBI kept by Scheduled banks in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

iii. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
It is the ratio of money and money equivalents kept within the bank in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

iv. Open Market Operations:
The RBI directly buys or sells the securities and bills in the money market either to decrease or to increase the total volume of money.

b) Qualitative Credit Control Measures:
These methods influence the volume of money in selected or particular sectors of the economy.

i. Rationing of credit:
The maximum limit is fixed for lending to certain sectors or specific purposes, in order to include more people to avail banking services. It has also taken up the task of extending the banking system territorially and functionally to the unbanked areas.

ii. Moral Suasion:
The RBI puts pressure on the banks towards liberal or restricted lending during certain periods.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Laws of Motion Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

11th Physics Guide Laws of Motion Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
When a car takes a sudden left turn in the curved road, passengers are pushed towards the right due to _______.
a) inertia of direction
b) inertia of motion
c) inertia of rest
d) absence of inertia
Answer:
a) inertia of direction

Question 2.
An object of mass m held against a vertical wall by applying horizontal force F as shown in the figure. The minimum value of the force F is _______ (IIT JEE 1994)

a) Less than mg
b) Equal to mg
c) Greater than mg
d) Cannot determine
Answer:
c) Greater than mg

Question 3.
A vehicle is moving along the positive x-direction, if a sudden brake is applied, then _______.
a) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along negative x-direction
b) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along the positive x-direction
c) no frictional force acts on the vehicle
d) frictional force acts in a downward direction
Answer:
a) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along the negative x-direction

Question 4.
A book is at rest on the table which exerts a normal force on the book. If this force is considered as a reaction force, what is the action force according to Newton’s third law?
a) Gravitational force exerted by Earth on the book
b) Gravitational force exerted by the book on Earth
c) Normal force exerted by the book on the table
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Normal force exerted by the book on the table

Question 5.
Two masses m₁ and m₂ are experiencing the same force where m₁ < m₂. The ration of their acceleration a₁/a₂ is _______.
a) 1
b) less than 1
c) greater than 1
d) all the three cases
Answer:
c) greater than 1

Question 6.
Choose an appropriate free body diagram for the particle experiencing net acceleration along the negative y-direction. (Each arrow mark represents the force acting on the system).

Answer:

Question 7.
A particle of mass m sliding on the smooth double inclined plane (shown in the figure) will experience _______.

a) greater acceleration along the path AB
b) greater acceleration along the path AC
c) same acceleration in both the paths
d) no acceleration in both the paths
Answer:
b) greater acceleration along the path AC

Question 8.
Two blocks of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth horizontal surface as shown. In the first case, only a force F₁ is applied from the left. Later only a force F₂ is applied from the right. If the force acting at the interface of the two blocks in the two cases is the same, then F₁ : F₂ is _______. (Physics Olympiad 2016)

a) 1 : 1
b) 1 : 2
c) 2 : 1
d) 1 : 3
Answer:
c) 2 : 1

Question 9.
Force acting on the particle moving with constant speed is _______.
a) always zero
b) need not be zero
c) always non zero
d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
b) need not be zero

Question 10.
An object of mass m begins to move on the plane inclined at an angle θ. The coefficient of static friction of inclined surface is us. The maximum static friction experienced by the mass is _______.
a) mg
b) μ_s mg
c) μ_s mg sin θ
d) μ_s mg cos θ
Answer:
d) μ_s mg cos θ

Question 11.
When the object is moving at a constant velocity on the rough surface _______.
a) net force on the object is zero
b) no force acts on the object
c) only external force acts on the object
d) only kinetic friction acts on the object
Answer:
a) net force on the object is zero

Question 12.
When an object is at rest on the inclined rough surface _______
a) static and kinetic frictions acting on the object is zero
b) static friction is zero but kinetic friction is not zero.
c) static friction is not zero and kinetic friction is zero.
d) static and kinetic frictions are not zero.
Answer:
c) static friction is not zero and kinetic friction is zero.

Question 13.
The centrifugal force appears to exist _______.
a) only in inertial frames
b) only in rotating frames
c) in an accelerated frame
d) both in inertial and non-inertial frames
Answer:
b) only in rotating frames

Question 14.
Choose the correct statement from the following.
a) Centrifugal and centripetal forces are action-reaction pairs.
b) Centripetal forces is a natural force.
c) Centrifugal force arises from the gravitational force.
d) Centripetal force acts towards the center and centrifugal force appears to act away from the center in a circular motion.
Answer:
d) Centripetal force acts towards the center and centrifugal force appears to act away from the center in a circular motion.

Question 15.
If a person moving from pole to equator, the centrifugal force acting on him
a) increase
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) increase and then decreases
Answer:
a) increase

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the concept of Inertia. Write two examples each for Inertia of motion, inertia of rest and inertia of direction.
Answer:
The inability of objects to move on its own or change its state of motion is called inertia. Inertia means resistance to change its state. There are three types of inertia:
1. Inertia of rest:
The inability of an object to change its state of rest is called inertia of rest.
Example:

• When a stationary bus starts to move, the passengers experience a sudden backward push.
• A book lying on the table will remain at rest until it is moved by some external agencies.

2. Inertia of motion:
The inability of an object to change its state of uniform speed (constant speed) on its own is called inertia of motion.
Example:

• When the bus is in motion, and if the brake is applied suddenly, passengers move forward and hit against the front seat.
• An athlete running is a race will continue to run even after reaching the finishing point.

3. Inertia of direction:
The inability of an object to change its direction of motion on its own is called inertia of direction.
Example:

• When a stone attached to a string is in whirling motion, and if the string is cut suddenly, the stone will not continue to move in circular motion but moves tangential to the circle.
• When a bus moving along a straight line takes a turn to the right. The passengers are thrown towards left.

Question 2.
State Newton’s second law:
Answer:
Newton second law state that” The force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum:
F = \(\frac { dp }{ dt }\)
If m is the mass_of the object, and v its velocity of motion then \(\overline{p}\) = m\(\overline{v}\):
The above equation can be written as
F = \(\frac { dp }{ dt }\)(m\(\overline{v}\) ) = m\(\frac { dv }{ dt }\)
∴ F = ma

Question 3.
Define one newton:
Answer:
One newton is defined as the force which acts on 1 kg of mass to give an acceleration 1 ms^-2 in the direction of the force.

Question 4.
Show that impulse is the change of momentum.
Answer:
If a very large force acts on an object for a very short time, then the force is impulsive force or impulse. If a Force (F) acts on an object in a very short time (∆t), then from Newton’s second law dp = f.dt
Integrating \(\int_{i}^{f} d p=\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}} f d t\)
P_f – P_i =F[t₁ – t₂]
P_i – initial momentum of the object at time t₁
P_f – Final momentum of the object at time t₂
P_f – P_i = ∆P = > Change is momentum
(t₂ – t₁) = ∆t = > Time interval
The above equation can be written as
∴ ∆P = F ∆ t.
ie \(\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}} F d t\) = J is called the impulse and t₁ it is equal to change in momentum of the object is ∆P = F ∆ t. When F is kept constant

Question 5.
Using free body diagram, show that it is easy to pull an object than to push it.
Answer:
It is easier to pull on object than to push it.
An object pushed at a angle θ.

Case 1:
When a body is pushed at an arbitrary angle θ (0 to π/2) the applied force. F is resolved into two components
F sin θ = Horizontally – parallel to surface
F cos θ = Vertically – perpendicular to surface
The total downward force = mg + F cos 0 This is equal to normal force (reaction)
N_Push = mg + F cos θ … (1)
The static friction is equal to
P^s_(max) = μS N_push = μ_s (mg + F cos θ) … (2)

Case 2:
An object pulled at an angle θ

When an object is pulled at an angle 0 the applied force is resolved into two components.
F sin θ – Horizontally – parallel to the surface
F cos θ – Vertically – perpendicular to the surface
The total downward force = mg – F cos θ
This is equal to the normal force (reaction)
N_pull = mg – F cos θ … (3)
The static friction is equal to
F_s^(max) = μ_s N_pull = μ_s (mg – F cos θ) … (4)
Conclusion:
From equations (1) & (3) (or) from (2) and (4) it is clear that normal force or reaction due to pulling is less than that of push. So it is easier to pull an object than push it out.

Question 6.
Explain the various types of friction suggest a few methods to reduce friction.
Answer:
There are two types of Friction:
(1) Static Friction:
Static friction is the force which opposes the initiation of motion of an object on the surface. The magnitude of static frictional force f_s lies between
\(0 \leq f_{s} \leq \mu_{s} \mathrm{N}\)
where, µ_s – coefficient of static friction
N – Normal force

(2) Kinetic friction:
The frictional force exerted by the surface when an object slides is called as kinetic friction. Also called as sliding friction or dynamic friction,
f_k – µ_kN
where µ_k – the coefficient of kinetic friction
N – Normal force exerted by the surface on the object

Methods to reduce friction:
Friction can be reduced

• By using lubricants
• By using Ball bearings
• By polishing
• By streamlining

Question 7.
What is the meaning of “Pseudo force”?
Answer:
“A force which does not actually act on particles but appears due to acceleration of the frame is called – Pseudo force”. In order to use Newton I & II law in the rotational frame of reference, one needs to include a “Pseudo force” called “Centrifugal force”. A pseudo force has no origin, It arises due to the non-inertial nature of the frame considered. In order to solve circular motion problems from a rotating frame of reference, pseudo force is necessary.

Question 8.
State of the empirical laws of static and kinetic friction.
Answer:

Question 9.
State Newton’s third law.
Answer:
Newton’s third law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Question 10.
What are inertial frames?
Answer:
A frame of reference in which Newton’s I law of motion holds good is called an inertial frame of reference. In such a frame if no force acts on a body it continues to be at rest or in uniform motion. So it is called as an inertial frame.

Question 11.
Under what condition will a car skid on a leveled circular road?
Answer:
On a leveled circular road, if the static friction is not able to provide enough centripetal ’force to turn, the vehicle will start to skid \(\mu_{s}<\frac{v^{2}}{r g}\)

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Prove the law of conservation of linear momentum. Use it to find the recoil velocity of a gun when a bullet is fired from it.
Answer:
Law: If there are no external forces acting on the system, then the total linear momentum of the system ( ^–_tot) is always a constant vector. In other words, the total linear momentum of the system is conserved in time.
Proof:
By combing Newton’s second and third laws the law of conservation of total linear momentum can be proved. When two particles interact with each other, they exert equal and opposite forces on each other
Consider two particles 1 & 2.
Let F₂₁ be the force exerted on 2 by 1
Let F₁₂ be the force exerted on 1 by 2
According to Newtons III law
\(\bar { F }\)₂₁ = – \(\bar { F }\)₁₂ → (1)
In terms of momentum, according to Newtons II Law,
F₁₂ = \(\frac { d }{ dt }\)\(\bar { P }\)₁ → (2)
F₂₁ = \(\frac { d }{ dt }\)\(\bar { P }\)₂ → (3)
Where is the momentum of p₁ particle P₂ is the momentum of II particle Sub (2) & (3) in (1)

This implies that (P₁ + P₂) = constant vector
\(\bar { P }\)₁ + \(\bar { P }\)₂ = \(\bar { P }\)_tot– is the total linear momentum of the two particle system.
F₁₂ & F₂₁ are internal force and no external force acting on the system form outside. So total linear momentum is conserved.

Question 2.
What are concurrent forces? State Lamis theorem.
Answer:
Concurrent forces:
A collection of forces is said to be concurrent if the lines of forces act at a common point. If the concurrent forces are in same plane they are coplanar also, in additional to concurrent forces.

Lamis is a theorem:
If a system of three concurrent and coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then Lamis theorem states that ” the magnitude of each force of the system is proportional to sine of the angle between other two forces”.

Proof:
Let F1, F2 and F3 be three coplanar and concurrent forces act at a common point 0 as in figure.

If the point 0 is in equilibrium then according to Lamis theorem.

Question 3.
Explain the motion of blocks connected by a string in 1) vertical motion 2) horizontal motion.
Answer:
When blocks are connected by strings and force F is applied vertically or horizontally, it produces Tension (T) in the string which affects acceleration to some extent. Let us discuss vertical and horizontal motion here

Case 1:
1) Vertical motion of connected bodies:

Consider two blocks to masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) connected by light and in an extensible string that passes over the pulley.

Let T be the tension in the string and a be the acceleration. When the system is released m₂ move vertically up and m₁ move vertically down with acceleration a. The gravitational force m₁g on m₁ is used to lift m₂. The upward direction is chosen as y. The free body diagram of both masses can be drawn as

Applying Newton II law for mass m₂
T\(\hat{j}\) – m₂g\(\hat{j}\) = m₂a\(\hat{j}\) → (1)
By comparing the components on both sides We get
T – m₂g = m₂a
Similarly for mass m₁

If m₁ = m₂ ie both masses are equal, a = 0 This shows that if masses are equal, there is no acceleration, and the system as a whole will be at rest.

Tension on the string:
Substitute the value of ‘a’ from (4) in (1)

Equation (4) gives the magnitude of acceleration for m₁ the acceleration vector is
For m₁ the acceleration vector is

Case 2:
2) Horizontal motion of connected masses:
Let mass m₂ kept on the horizontal surface or table and m₁ is hanging through a small pulley.

Assume there is no friction on the surface. As both the blocks are connected to the unstretchable string, m₁ moves with an acceleration downward then m₂ also moves with the same acceleration ‘a’ horizontally.

The forces acting on m₂ are

1. Downward gravitational force (m₂ g)
2. Upward normal force (N) exerted by the surface.
3. Horizontal Tension (T) exerted by the string.

Free body diagram

i) Downward gravitational force m₁g
ii) Tension ‘T’ – upwards.
Applying II Law for m₁.
T\(\hat{j}\) – m₁g\(\hat{j}\) = – m₁a\(\hat{j}\)
m₁g\(\hat{j}\) – T\(\hat{j}\) = m₁a\(\hat{j}\)
By comparing components
m₁g – T = m₁a → (1)
Apply Newton’s II Law for m₂
T\(\hat{i}\) = m₂a\(\hat{i}\) (along x)
Comparing components
N = m₂ → (2)
There is no acceleration along y direction
N = m₂a → (3)
Substituting (2) in (1)

Tension can be got by substituting (4) in (2)

Conclusion: By comparing motion in both cases it is clear that the tension in the string for horizontal motion is half of the tension for vertical motion for same set of masses and strings.

Question 4.
Briefly explain the origin of friction show that in an inclined plane, angle of friction is equal to angle of repose.
Answer:
Frictional is an opposing force exerted by the surface on the object which resists it motion. This force is frictional force. Friction force always opposes the relative motion between two surfaces which are in contact.

“when a force parallel to the surface is applied on the object, the force tries to move the object with respect to the surface. This relative motion is opposed by the surface by exerting a frictional force on the objects in a direction opposite to the applied force. Frictional force always act on the object parallel to surface on which the object is placed”.

To show angle of repose = angle of friction in an inclined plane.

Angle of friction = tan θ = F_s/N
Consider an inclined plane on which an object is placed.
Let θ be the angle of inclination of the plane with horizontal.
“Angle of repose is the angle of inclined plane with horizontal such that an object placed on it begins to slide”.
The gravitational force mg is resolved into two components.
mg sin θ – parallel to inclined plane.
mg cos θ – perpendicular to inclined plane.
The component mg sin θ parallel to inclined plane tries to move the object down.
The component mg cos θ perpendicular to inclined plane is balanced by normal reaction N.
N = mg cos θ … (1)
When the object just begins to slide static friction attains its maximum value

tan θ = angle of repose = angle of friction.
Which is equal to tan θ = μ_s
Hence proved.

Question 5.
State Newton’s three laws and discuss their significance.
Answer:

1. I law: Every object continues to be in the state of rest or off uniform motion unless there is external force acting on it.
2. II law: The force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum F = \(\frac{d(\bar{p})}{d t}\)
3. III law: For every action there in an equal and an opposite reaction.

Discussion:
1) Newton’s laws are vector laws. The equation \(\bar { F }\) = \(\bar { ma }\) is a vector equation and it is essentially equal to three scalar equations. In Cartesian co-ordinate this equation can be written as
F_x\(\hat{i}\) + F_y\(\hat{i}\) + F_y\(\hat{k}\) = ma_x\(\hat{i}\) + ma_y\(\hat{j}\) + ma_z\(\hat{k}\) From this we can infer Fz cannot affect a_y and a_z and vice versa.

2) The acceleration experienced at a time ‘t’ depends on the force and the body at that instant does not depend on the force which acted on the body before F(t) = ma(t) In general direction of force may be different form direction of motion.

Case 1: Force and motion in same direction:
Example: when an apple falls towards earth the direction of motion and the force are in same downward direction.

Case 2: Force and motion are not in same direction
Example: The moon experiences a force towards the earth. But if actually moves in an elliptical orbit. In this case direction of motion and force are different.

Case 3: Force and motion in opposite direction:
If an object is thrown vertically upwards direction of motion is upward, but a gravitational force is downward.

Case 4: Zero net force, but there is motion:
Example: When a raindrop gets detached from the cloud it experiences both downward gravitational force and upward air drag force. As it descends the upward drag force increases and cancels the downward force. So the raindrop moves with a constant velocity called terminal velocity till it touches the surface of the earth, Hence the raindrop comes with zero net force and therefore with zero acceleration but with non zero terminal velocity.

Case 5: if multiple forces
\(\bar { F }\)₁, \(\bar { F }\)₂, \(\bar { F }\)₃, …… \(\bar { F }\)_n act on the same body, then the total force \(\bar { F }\) net is equal to vector sum of individual forces, which provides the acceleration.

\(\bar { F }\)_net = \(\bar { F }\)₁, \(\bar { F }\)₂, \(\bar { F }\)₃, …… \(\bar { F }\)_n
\(\bar { F }\)net = m\(\bar { a }\)
Example: Bow & arrow

Case 6: Newtons II Law can be written as
F = m\(\frac { dv }{ dt }\) = m.\(\frac{d^{2} r}{d t^{2}}\)
Newtons II law is basically a second order derivative of position vector, which is not zero, there must be a force acting on it.

Case 7: if no force acts an a body then
m. \(\frac{d \bar{v}}{d t}\) = 0
Which implied \(\bar { V }\) = constant. If is essentially a I law. So Newtons II law is consistent with I law, but cannot be derived form each other. Newton II law is a cause and effect relation. Force is the cause and effect is the acceleration,
(effect) ma = F(cause)
\(\frac{d \bar{p}}{d t}\) = F.

Question 6.
Captain the similarities and differences of between centripetal and centrifugal forces.
Answer:

Question 7.
Briefly explain centrifugal force with suitable examples.
Answer:
Circular motion can be analyzed from two different frames of reference. One is the Inertial frame where Newton’s laws are obeyed. The other is the rotating frame of reference which is noninertial as it is accelerating. To use Newton’s I and II law in the rotational frame of reference the pseudo force called as centrifugal force is needed.

The centrifugal forces appear to act on objects with respect to rotating frames. To explain consider an example, In the case of a whirling motion of a stone tied to a string, assume the stone has angular velocity ω in an inertial frame. If the motion of the stone is observed from a frame which is also rotating along with the stone with the same angular velocity ω then the stone appears to be at rest.

This implies that in addition to the inward centripetal force (-mrω²) there must be an equal and opposite force that acts on outwards equal to (+ mrω₂). So the total force acting on the stone in the rotating frame is equal to zero (- mrω² + mrω² = 0) This outward force acting on the stone + mrω² is called centrifugal force.

Question 8.
Briefly explain ‘rolling friction’.
Answer:
When an object moves on a surface essentially it is sliding on it. But the wheels move on the surface through rolling motion. In case of rolling motion when a wheel moves on a surface the point of contact is always at rest. Since the point of contact is at rest, there is no relative motion between the wheel and the surface. Hence the frictional force is very less.

At the same time if an object moves without a wheel, there is a relative motion between the object and the surface. As a result frictional force is larger. This makes it difficult to move the object.

Ideally in pure rolling, motion of point of contact with the surface should be at rest, but in practice it is not so. Due to elastic nature of the surface at the point of contact there will be same deformation on the wheel or on the surface. Due to this deformation there will be minimal friction between wheel and surface. It is called rolling friction. In fact rolling friction if much smaller than kinetic friction.

Question 9.
Describe the method of measuring angle of repose.
Answer:
Angle of repose is the minimum angle that an inclined plane makes with horizontal when a body placed on it just begins to slide. Consider a body of mass m placed on an inclined plane. The angle of inclination 0 of the inclined plane is adjusted that the body on the plane begins to slide down. Thus 0 is the angle of repose.

Various forces acting on the body are:
(a) Weight mg of the body acting vertically downwards

(b) The limiting friction fs (max) in upward direction along the inclined plane. It balances the component mg sin θ of the weight mg along the inclined plane.
∴ mg sin θ = f_s(max) …. (1)

(c) The normal reaction ‘N’ perpendicular to the inclined plane. It is balanced by the component mg cos θ, perpendicular to the inclined plane.

Where θ is the angle of repose.

Question 10.
Explain the need for banking of tracks.
Answer:
In a leveled circular road skidding mainly depends on the co-efficient of static friction n_s. The coefficient of static friction depends on the nature of surface which has a maximum limiting value. To avoid this usually “the outer edge of the road is slightly raised compared to inner edge”. This is called banking of roads or tracks. The angle of inclination called banking angle.

Let the surface of the road make angle θ with horizontal surface. Then the normal force makes an angle θ with vertical. When the car takes a turn, two forces are acting on the car.
(a) Gravitational force mg (downwards)
(b) Normal force N (Perpendicular to surface).
Normal force ‘N’ can be resolved into two components N cos θ and N sin θ and balances downward gravitational force.
N sin θ provides necessary centripetal acceleration, According to II law
N cos θ = mg
N sin θ = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
Dividing the above equations,
tan θ = \(\frac{v^{2}}{r g}\)
V = \(\sqrt{r g \tan \theta}\)
∴ The banking angle θ and radius of curvature of the road or track determines the safe speed of car at the turning.
If the speed exceeds this safe limit, then it starts to skid outward but the frictional force comes into effect and provides an additional centripetal force to prevent outward skidding. But at the same time if the speed is less than the safe limit it starts to skid inward and again frictional force come into effect which reduces centripetal force to prevent inward skidding

However if the speed of the vehicle is sufficiently greater than the correct speed the frictional force cannot stop the car from skidding. So to avoid skidding in circular road or tracks they are banked.

Question 11.
Calculate the centripetal acceleration of moon towards the earth.
Answer:
The moon orbits the earth once in 27.3 days in an almost circular orbit.
Radius of earth = 6.4 x 10⁶ m.

Solution:
The centripetal accelerations given by a = \(\frac{ v^{2}}{r}\)
This can be related with moon a_m = R_mω²
ω → angular velocity
a_m → centripetal acceleration of the moon due to earths gravity to angular velocity
R_m → Distance between the center of earth to moon. Which is 60 times the radius of the earth.

IV. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
Why it is not possible to push a car from inside?
Answer:
While trying to push a car from outside, he pushes the ground backward at an angle. The ground offers an equal reaction in the opposite direction, so car can be moved. But the person sits inside means car and the person becomes a single system, and the force given will be a internal force. According to Newton’s third law, total internal force acting on the system is zero and it cannot accelerate the system.

Question 2.
There is a limit beyond which the polishing of a surface increases frictional resistance rather than decreasing it. Why?
Answer:
When surfaces are highly polished the area of contact between them increases. As result of this a large number of atoms and molecules lying on both surfaces start exerting strong attractive forces on each other. Therefore the frictional force increases.

Question 3.
Can a single isolated force exist in nature? Explain your answer?
Answer:
No. According to Newton’s third law, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. So, whatever case we consider, if there is an action there is always a reaction. So it is impossible.

Question 4.
Why does a parachute descend slowly?
Answer:
When a parachute is descending down in the atmosphere an equal and opposite force to motion of parachute is acting due to air resistance. As the area of the parachute is large the air resistance resists the motion and so it descends slowly.

Question 5.
When walking on ice one should take short steps. Why?
Answer:
When a person is walking on ice he presses the ice downward with his feet and in turn the ice pushes the person with an equal force. Since ice slippery the person is not able to press it hardly. So the action legs and so the reaction which is also less. So by making small steps, with larger normal force one can walk without slipping.

Question 6.
When a person walks on a surface the frictional force exerted by the surface on the person is opposite to the direction of motion. True or false.
Answer:
False. In frictional force exerted by the surface on the person is in the direction of his motion. The frictional force acts as an external force to move the person. When the person trying to move, he gives a push to ground on the backward direction and by Newton’s third law he is pushed by the ground in the forward direction. Hence frictional force acts along the direction of motion.

Question 7.
Can the coefficient of friction be more than one?
Answer:
No, it cannot be more than 1 for normal plane surfaces. But when surfaces are so irregular that they have sharp minute projections and cavities on them. Then the coefficient of friction may be more than one.

Question 8.
Can we predict the direction of motion of a body from the direction of force on it?
Answer:
Yes. The direction of motion is always opposite to the force of kinetic friction. By using the principle of equilibrium, the direction of force of static friction can be determined. When the object is in equilibrium, the frictional force must point in the direction which results as a net force is zero.

Question 9.
The momentum of a system of particles is always conserved. True or false.
Answer:
True: The Linear momentum of the system is always a constant vector, as long as no external force are acting on it.

V. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
A force of 50N acts on the object of mass 20kg shown in the figure. Calculate the acceleration of the object in x and y-direction.

Solution:
m = 20kg, F = 50N
Force can be resolved into 2 components.
m = 20kg
F_x = F cos θ = 50 cos 30 = \(\frac{50 \sqrt{3}}{2}\)\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
F_y = F sin θ = 50 sin 30 = 50 x \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 25N

Question 2.
A spider of mass 50 g is hanging on a string of a cobweb as shown in the figure. What is the tension in the string?
Solution:

Question 3.
What is the reading shown in spring balance?
Solution:

∵ Forces on both sides are equal the reading in the spring balance is zero.

(ii)

The spring is pulled by a force along the inclined plane so.
F = mg sin θ
= 2 x 9.8 x sin 30
= 9.8 x 2 x 1/2
F = 9.8 N

Question 4.
The physics books are stacked on each other in the sequence +1 volumes 1 and 2, +2 volumes 1 and 2 on a table, a) identify the forces acting on each book and draw the free body diagram, b) Identify the forces exerted by each books on the other.
Solution:

Force on book A
1) Downward gravitational force exerted by earth (m_A g)
2) Upward normal force (N_B) exerted by book B (N_B).

Force on book B
i) Downward gravitational force exerted by earth (m_B g)
ii) Downward force exerted by books A (N_A)
iii) Upward normal force exerted by book C (Nc).

Force on book C
i) Downward gravitational force exerted by earth (m_C g)
ii) Downward force exerted by books B (N_B)
iii) Upward normal force exerted by book D (N_D).

Force on book D

i) Downward gravitational force exerted by earth (m_D g)
ii) Downward force exerted by books C (N_c)
iii) Upward force exerted by the N_Table.

Question 5.
A bob attached to the string oscillates back and forth. Resolve the forces acting on the bob into components. What is the acceleration experience by the bob at an angle 0?
Solution:

(i) Gravitational force(mg) acting downwards.
(ii) Tension (T) exerted by the string on the bob whose position determines the direction of T.
The bob is moving is a circular arc and so it has centripetal acceleration. At points A and C bob comes to rest momentarily and then its velocity increases when move towards B.
Hence tangential acceleration is along the arc.

The gravitational force can be resolved into two components.
mg cos θ along the string
mg sin θ perpendicular to the string
At point A & C T=mg cos θ and at all other points T is greater than mg cos θ.
∴ Centripetal force = T – mg cos θ
∴ ma_c = T- mg cos θ
Centripetal acceleration
a_c = \(\frac { T – mg cos θ}{ 2 }\)m

Question 6.
Two masses m₁ and m₂ are connected with a string passing over a frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of the table as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction of mass m₁ with the table is µ_s. Calculate the minimum mass m₃ that may be placed on m₁ to prevent it from sliding. Check if m₁ = 15kg, m₂ = 10kg, m₃ = 25kg and µ_s = 0.2.

Solution:
(1) The mass m₁ and m₂ provides maximum static friction on the table
fS_(max) = µ_sN
= µ_s(m₁ + m₃)g
fS_(max) = 0.2(m₁ + m₃)g …. (1)
Tension T in the string provided by
= T = m₂g …. (2)
T < fs_(max) then m₁ and m₂ won’t move.
If m₃ is not present
T = fs (for just sliding)
When m₃ is placed on m₁ it won’t slide

(2) If m₁ = 15kg
m₂ = 10kg
m₃ = 25kg
µ_s = 0.2.
Then µ(m₁+m₃)g = 0.2(15±10)g
= 2.5 x 0.2g = 5 g =5g N
= 5g N
But m₂ g = 10g N
∵ m₂g = 10g N = T >µ_s(m₁ + m₃)g
∵ T > µs (m₁ + m₃)
m₁ + m₃ will slide on the table.

Question 7.
Calculate the acceleration of the bicycle of mass 25 kg as shown in fig 1 & 2.

Solution:
Case 1:
Resultant force =
forward force – Frictional force
= 500 – 400
F_R = 100N
F_R = ma = 100N
a = \(\frac { 100 }{ 25 }\)
a = 4 ms^-2

Case 2:
Resultant force = forward force – Frictional force = 400 – 400 = 0 N
a = 0.

Question 8.
Apply Lamis theorem on sling shot and calculate the Tension in each string?

Solution:

Question 9.
A foot ball player kicks a 0.8 kg ball and imparts it a velocity 12 ms^-1. The contact between foot and ball is only for one sixtieth of a second find the average kicking force.
Solution:
m = 0.8 kg
v = 12 ms^-1
t = \(\frac { 1 }{ 60 }\)S
F = ?
Change in momentum = impulse
P_f – P_i = F_t
mv – 0 = Ft

Question 10.
A stone of mass 2kg is attached to a string of length 1m. The string can withstand a maximum tension of 200N, What is the maximum speed that stone can have during the whirling motion.
Solution:
m = 2 kg
I = 1 m = r
T = F = 200 N
V = ?
During whirling motion, the force acting on the stone is a centripetal force which provides the necessary Tension in the string.
T = F = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
200 = \(\frac{2 \times v^{2}}{1}\)
V_max = 10 ms^-1

Question 11.
Imagine that the gravitational force between Earth and Moon is provided by an invisible string that exists between the Moon and Earth. What is the tension that, exists in this invisible string due to earth’s centripetal force?
Solution:
Mass of moon = 7.34 x 10²² kg
Distance between the moon and earth = 3.84 x 10⁸ m

Question 12.
Two bodies of masses 15kg and 10kg are connected with light string kept on a smooth surface. A horizontal force F = 500N is applied to a 15kg as shown in the figure. Calculate the tension acting in the string.
Answer:

Let m₁ = 15kg
m₂ = 10kg
F = 500N
All the two blocks move with a common acceleration (a) under the force F = 500 N.
F = (m₁+m₂)

Question 13.
People often say “for every action there is an equivalent opposite reaction”. Here they meant ‘action of a human’. Is it correct to apply Newton’s third law to human actions? What is mean by ‘action’ in Newton’s third law? Give your arguments based on Newton’s laws.
Solution:
Newton’s third law is applicable to only humans actions that involve physical force. Third law is not applicable to humans’ psychological actions or thoughts.

Question 14.
A car takes a turn with velocity 50ms^-1 on the circular road of the radius of curvature 10m. Calculate the centrifugal force experienced by a person of mass 60kg inside the car?
Solution :
V = 50 ms^-1
r = 10m
centrifugal reaction = ?
m = 60kg
F = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
= \(\frac { 60×50×50 }{ 10 }\)
= 3 x 5 x 10³
F = 15,000 N

Question 15.
A long stick rests on the surface. A person standing 10m away from the stick with what minimum speed an object of mass 0.5 kg should he threw so that it hits the stick. (Coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.7)

Solution:
Force on the mass = μ_kN = μ_k mg
F = 0.7 x 0.5 x 9.8
F = 3.43 N
But F = ma
a = \(\frac { 3.43 }{ 0.5 }\)
= 6.86ms^-2
m = 0.5kg
W.K.T
v² – u² = 2as
|u²| = 2as
u = \(\sqrt{2 \times 6.86 \times 10}\)
= 11.71 ms^-2
Velocity with which the mass is thrown = 11.71 ms^-1

11th Physics Guide Laws of Motion Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The concept “force causes motion” was given by –
(a) Galileo
(b) Aristotle
(c) Newton
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) Aristotle

Question 2.
A body of 5 kg is moving with a velocity of 20m/s. If a force of 100 N is applied on it for 10s in the same direction as its velocity, what will now be the velocity of the body _______.
a) 2000 m/s
b) 220 m/s
c) 240 m/s
d) 260 m/s
Answer:
b) 220 m/s

Question 3.
The inability of objects to move on their own or change their state of motion is called as –
(a) force
(b) momentum
(c) inertia
(d) impulse
Answer:
(c) inertia

Question 4.
A force vector applied on a mass is represented as \(\vec { f }\) = 6\(\vec { i }\) – 8\(\vec { j }\) + 10\(\vec { k }\) and accelerates with 1ms^-2, what will be the mass of the body in kg _______.
a) 10\(\sqrt{2}\)
b) 20
c) 2\(\sqrt{10}\)
d) 10
Answer:
a) 10\(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 5.
A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at time t = 0. It is subjected to force F(t)= F₀e^-bt in the x direction. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which of the following curves?

Answer:

Question 6.
If the brake is applied in the moving bus suddenly, passengers move forward is an example for –
(a) Inertia of motion
(b) Inertia of direction
(c) Inertia of rest
(d) back pull
Answer:
(a) Inertia of motion

Question 7.
Two masses m₁ and m₂ are connected by a light string passing over a smooth pulley. When set free m₁ moves down by 2m in 2s the ratio of m₁/m₂ is _______.
a) 9/7
b) 11/ 9
c) 13/11
d) 15/13
Answer:
b) 11/ 9

Question 8.
Two blocks are connected by a string as shown in the figure. The upper block is hung by another string. A force ‘F’ applied on the upper string produces an acceleration of 2ms^-2. in the upward direction in both the blocks. If T and T¹ in both parts of the string then _______.

a) T = 84N; T¹ = 50N
b) T = 70N; T¹ = 70N
c) T = 84N; T¹ = 60N
d) T = 70N; T¹ = 60N
Answer:
c) T = 84N; T¹ = 60N

Question 9.
Four identical blocks each of mass m linked by threads as shown. IF the system moves with constant acceleration under the influence of force F, the Tension T² _______.

a) F
b) F/2
c) 2F
d) F/4
Answer:
b) F/2

Question 10.
Rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to –
(a) acceleration
(b) work done
(c) force
(d) impulse
Answer:
(c) force

Question 11.
A block of mass 10 kg is pushed on a smooth inclined plane of inclination 30°, so that it has an acceleration 2ms^-2. The applied force is _______.
a) 50 N
b) 60 N
c) 70 N
d) 80 N
Answer:
c) 70 N

Question 12.
Two blocks of masses 6 kg and 3 kg are connected by the string as shown over a frictionless pulley. The acceleration of the system is _______.

a) 4 ms^-2
b) 2 ms^-2
c) Zero
d) 6 ms^-2
Answer:
c) Zero

Question 13.
The acceleration of the systems shown in the figure is _______.

a) 1 ms^-2
b) 2 ms^-2
c) 3 ms^-2
d) 4 ms^-2
Answer:
a) 1 ms^-2

Question 14.
A uniform rope of length L is pulled by constant force P as shown, The Tension in the rope at a distance x from the end where the force is applied _______.

a) P
b) p[a – \(\frac { x }{ L }\) ]
c) px/L
d) p(1 + \(\frac { x }{ L }\) )
Answer:
b) p[a – \(\frac { x }{ L }\) ]

Question 15.
The law which is valid in both inertial and non-inertial frame is –
(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Newton’s third law
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Newton’s third law

Question 16.
One end of a string of length / is connected to a particle of mass m and the other to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed v the net force on the particle (directed towards centre) is _______.
a) T
b) T – \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
c) T + \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
d) 0
Answer:
a) T

Question 17.
A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with the angle of inclination α. The incline is given an acceleration ‘a’ to keep the block stationary. Then a is equal to _______.

a) g
b) g tan α
c) g / tan α
d) g cosec α
Answer:
b) g tan α

Question 18.
The action and reaction forces acting on –
(a) same body
(b) different bodies
(c) either same or different bodies
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) different bodies

Question 19.
If an elevator moving vertically up with an acceleration g, the force entered on the floor by a passenger of mass M is _______.
a) mg
b) 1 / 2 mg
c) zero
d) 2 mg
Answer:
d) 2 mg

Question 20.
A man of weight 80 kg, stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms^-2. What would be the reading on the scale? [g = 10 ms^-2].
a) 400 N
b) 1200 N
c) 800 N
d) zero
Answer:
b) 1200 N

Question 21.
A person is standing in an elevator in which situation he find his weight more than the actual weight _______.
a) the elevator moves upwards with constant acceleration
b) the elevator moves downwards with constant acceleration
c) the elevator moves upwards with uniform velocity
d) the elevator moves downwards with uniform velocity
Answer:
b) the elevator moves downwards with constant acceleration

Question 22.
Newton’s second law gives –
(a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \propto \frac{d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\frac{d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
(c) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=m \vec{a}\)
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 23.
A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a string. Another string C is connected to its lower end (as in the figure). If a sudden jerk is given to c, then _______.

a) The portion AB of the string break
b) The portion BC of the string will break
c) The mass will be rotating
d) none of the above
Answer:
a) The portion AB of the string break

Question 24.
In the above questions, if the string c is stretched slowly then _______.
a) The portion AB of the string break
b) The portion BC of the string will break
c) The mass will be rotating
d) none of the above
Answer:
a) The portion AB of the string break

Question 25.
As shown in the figure, the tension in the horizontal card is 30N. The weight w and the tension in the string OA in Newton are _______.

a) 30, \(\sqrt{3}\), 30
b) 30\(\sqrt{3}\), 60
c) 60\(\sqrt{3}\), 30
d) none of the above
Answer:
b) 30\(\sqrt{3}\), 60

Question 26.
A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed of 15 ms^-1. How long does the body take to stop?
(a) 0.75 s
(b) 1.33 s
(c) 6 s
(d) 35 s
Answer:
Acceleration a = \(\frac{-F}{m}\) = \(\frac{50}{20}\) = – 2.5 ms^-2
u = l5 ms^-1
v = 0
t = ?
v = u + at
0 = 15 – 2.5t
t = \(\frac{15}{2.5}\) = 6s

Question 27.
A block of mass 10 kg is suspended through two light spring balances as in figure.

a) both scales will read 10 kg
b) both scales will read 5 kg
c) the upper scale will read 10 kg and the lower zero
d) the reading may be anything but their sum will be 10 kg
Answer:
a) both scales will read 10 kg

Question 28.
Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as in figure. The magnitude of the acceleration of A and B after the string is cut, are respectively.

a) g, g/2
b) g/2, g
c) g, g
d) g/2, g/2
Answer:
b) g/2, g

Question 29.
Choose the correct statement _______.
a) The frictional forces are dependent on the roughness of the surface.
b) The kinetic friction is proportional to normal reaction
c) The friction is independent of area of contact
d) All statements are correct
Answer:
d) All statements are correct

Question 30.
When an object of mass m slides on a frictionless surface inclined at an angle θ, then the normal force exerted by the surface is-
(a) g cos θ
(b) mg cos θ
(c) g sin θ
(d) mg tan θ
Answer:
(b) mg cos θ

Question 31.
Two cars of unequal masses are similar types. If they are moving at the same initial speed, the minimum stopping distance _______.
a) is smaller for the heavier car
b) is smaller for the lighter car
c) is same for both car
d) depends on volume of the car
Answer:
c) is same for both car

Question 32.
An ice block is kept on an inclined plane of angle of 30°. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the inclined plane is \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\). The acceleration of the block is _______.
a) zero
b) 2 ms^-2
c) 1.5 ms^-2
d) 5 ms^-2
Answer:
d) 5 ms^-2

Question 33.
Starting from rest a body slides down at 45° inclined plane in twice the time, it takes to slide down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane is __________.
a) 0.33
b) 0.25
c) 0.75
d) 0.80
Answer:
c) 0.75

Question 34.
A uniform metal chain if placed on a rough table such that the one end of the chain hangs down over the edge of the table. When one-third of its length hangs over the edge, the chain starts sliding. Then the coefficient of static friction is _______.
a) 3/4
b) 1/4
c) 2/3
d) 1/2
Answer:
d) 1/2

Question 35.
If two masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) tied to string moving over a frictionless pulley, then the acceleration of masses –
(a) \(\frac{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g
(b) \(\frac{m_{1}+m_{2}}{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}\) g
(c) \(\frac{2 m_{1} m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g
(d) \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{2 m_{1} m_{2}}\) g
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g

Question 36.
While walking on ice one should take small steps to avoid slipping. This is because smaller steps ensure _______.
a) large friction
b) smaller friction
c) larger normal force
d) smaller normal force
Answer:
c) larger normal force

Question 37.
A box is placed on inclined plane and has to be pushed down. The angle of inclination is _______.
a) equal to angle of friction
b) more than angle of friction
c) equal to angle repose
d) less than angle of repose
Answer:
d) less than angle of repose

Question 38.
Three masses in contact is as shown above. If force F is applied to mass m₁ then the contact force acting on mass m₂ is –
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
(b) \(\frac{m_{1} F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(c) \(\frac{\left(m_{2}+m_{3}\right) F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(d) \(\frac{m_{3} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\left(m_{2}+m_{3}\right) F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)

Question 39.
A block B is placed on block A. The mass block B is less than the mass of block friction that exists between the blocks whereas the ground on which block A is placed is taken to be smooth. A horizontal force ‘F’ increasing linearly with time beings to act on B. The acceleration a_A and a_B of blocks A and B respectively are plotted against Y. The correctly plotted graph is _______.

Answer:

Question 40.
Two blocks of mass m₁ 6 kg and m₂ = 3 kg as in figure coefficient of friction between m₁, and m₂ and between m₁ and surface is 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The maximum horizontal force to can be applied to the mass m₁ so that they move without separation is _______.

a) 41 N
b) 61 N
c) 81 N
d) 101 N
Answer:
c) 81 N

II. Additional Questions:

Question 1.
Identify the internal and external forces acting on the following systems.
a) Earth alone as a system
b) Earth and sun as a system
c) Our body as a system white walking
d) our body and earth as a system
Solution:
(a) Earth alone as a system:

Earth orbits the sun due to the gravitational attraction of the sun. If we consider earth as a system, then the sun’s gravitational force is an external force. If the moon is also taken into account, it also exerts an external force on earth.

(b) (Earth + sun) as a system:

In this case, there are two internal forces which form action and reaction pair, i.e gravitational force on the sun by earth & vice versa.

(c) Our body as a system:
While walking, we exert a force on earth and earth exerts an equal and opposite force on our body. If our body is considered as a system then the force exerted by the earth on our body is external.

(d) Our body + earth as a system.
In this case, there are two internal forces present in the system one is the force exerted by our body on earth and the other is the equal and opposite force exerted by the earth on our body.

Question 2.
When a cricket player catches the ball he pulls his hands gradually is the directions of the ball’s motion. Why?
Answer:
If the man stops his hands soon after catching the ball the ball comes to rest quickly. It means that the momentum of the ball is brought to rest very quickly. So the average force acting on the body will be very large. Due to the large average force, the hands will get hurt. To avoid this the player brings the ball to rest slowly.

Question 3.
An impulse is applied to a moving object with a force at an angle of 20° w.r.t. velocity vector, what is the angle between the impulse vector and change in momentum vector?
Answer:
Impulse and change in momentum are in the same direction. Therefore the angle between these two vectors is zero.

Question 4.
Why a high jumper after crossing the bar made to fall on a spongy floor instead of the cemented floor.
Answer:
After high jumping, landing on a cemented floor is more dangerous than jumping on a spongy surface. A spongy surface brings the body to rest slowly than the cemented floor So that the average force experienced by the body will be lesser.

Question 5.
Obtain an expression for centrifugal force acting on a man on the surface of the earth.
Answer:

Even though earth is treated as an inertial frame, it is actually not so. Earth spins about its own axis with an angular velocity co Any object at the surface of the earth (rotational frame) experiences a centrifugal force. The centrifugal force appears to act exactly in opposite direction from the axis of rotation.

The centrifugal force on a man standing on the surface of earth is = mrω² where r is the perpendicular distance of man from the axis of rotation. From fig. r = R cos θ where R= radius of earth.
θ = latitude of the earth where man is standing

Question 6.
A stone when thrown on a glass window smashes the window pane to pieces, but a bullet from the gun passes through, by making a clean hole. Why?
Answer:
Due to small speed the stone remains in contact with the window pane for a long time. It transfer its motion to the pane and break them into pieces. But the particles of window pane near a hole are unable to share the fast motion of the bullet and so remain undisturbed.

Question 7.
China wares are wrapped in a straw paper before packing why?
Answer:
The straw paper between the china-wares increases the time of experiencing the jerk during transportation. Hence they strike against each other with less force and are less likely to get damaged.

Question 8.
Why it is necessary to bend knees while jumping from greater height?
Answer:
During the jump, our feet comes to rest at once and for this smaller time a larger force a acts on feet. If we bend the knees slowly, the value of time impact increases and less force acts on our feet. So we get less hurt.

Question 9.
Why is it difficult to drive a nail into a wooden block without supporting it?
Answer:
When we hit the nail with the hammer the nail and unsupported block together move forward as a single system. There is no force of reaction. When the block is rested against support, the reaction of the support holds the 14. block in position and nail is driven into the block.

Question 10.
Why is static friction called a self-adjusting force?
Answer:
As applied force increases, the static friction also increases and becomes equal to the applied force. That is why static friction is called a self-adjusting force.

Question 11.
Carts with rubber tyres are easier to fly than those with iron wheels. Why?
Answer:
The coefficient of friction between rubber tyres and road is much smaller than that between iron wheels and road.

Question 12.
Why ball bearings are used in machinery?
Answer:
By using ball bearings between the moving parts of the machinery the sliding friction gets converted into rolling friction. The rolling friction is much lesser than the sliding friction. This reduces power dissipation.

Question 13.
A bird is sitting on the floor of a closed glass cage and the cage is in the hand of a girl. Will the girl experience any change in weight of the cage when the bird –
(i) starts flying in the cage with a constant velocity
(ii) flies upwards with acceleration
(iii) fies downwards with acceleration.
Solution:
In a closed cage, the inside air is bound with a cage.
(i) As the acceleration is zero, there is no change in the weight of the cage.
(ii) while flying upwards R – Mg = Ma
R = M (a+g)
The cage will appear heavier

(iii) while flying downwards
Mg – R – Ma
R = M (g – a)
The cage will appear lighter.

Question 14.
A long rope is hanging, passing over a pulley. Two monkeys of equal weight climb up from the opposite ends of the rope. One of them climbs up more rapidly relative to rope. Which monkey will reach the top first? Pulley is frictionless and the rope is mass less and inextensible.
Answer:
There is no external force which may provide momentum to any monkey. The monkeys themselves give equal momenta to each other. Therefore two monkeys will climb up the rope at the same rate relative to earth. As their masses are equal they will reach the top simultaneously.

Question 15.
A light string passing over a smooth pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (vertically). If the acceleration of the system is g/8. Find the ratio of the two masses.
Answer:

Question 16.
Briefly explains how a horse is able to pull a cart?
Answer:

Consider a cart connected to a horse by a string. The horse while pulling the cart produces a Tension T in the string in their forward direction (action). The cart in turn pulls the horse by an equal force T in opposite direction.

Initially, the horse presses the ground with a force ‘F’ in an inclined direction. The reaction ‘R’ of the ground acts on the horse in the opposite direction.

The reaction ‘R’ can be resolved into two perpendicular components.
1) The vertical components ‘V balances the weight of the horse.
2) The horizontal components ‘H’ helps the horse to move forward.
Let F be the force of friction.
The horse moves forward if H > T.
In that case net force acting on horse = H – T
If m is mass of horse and ‘a’ be its acceleration.
H – T = ma → (1)
The cart moves forward if T > F.
In this case, net force acting on the cart = T – F.
The weight of the cart is balanced by the reaction of the ground acting on it.
If M is the man of cart and a is its acceleration T-F = Ma -»(2).
Adding (1) & (2)
H – F = (M+m)a
a = \(\frac { H-F }{ M+m }\)
obviously a is positive of H-F is positive or H > F. Thus the system moves.

Question 17.
A man of mass m is standing on the floor of a lift. Find his apparent weight when the lift is (i) moving upwards with uniform acceleration ‘a’ (ii) moving downwards with uniform acceleration a (iii) at rest or moving with uniform velocity (v) (iv) falling freely. Take acceleration due to gravity as g.
Answer:
Consider a man of mass ‘m’ standing on a weighing machine placed in a lift. The actual weight of the man is mg. It acts vertically downwards through center of gravity ‘G’ of the man, which acts in a weighting machine which offers a normal reaction ‘R’ read by a machine.
So R is the apparent weight of the man.

Case 1:
When the lift moves upwards with an acceleration ‘a’
The net upward force on the man = R – mg = ma
Apparent weight R = m(g+a)
So when the lift accelerates upwards, the apparent weight of man increases

Case 2:
When lift moves downwards with acceleration ‘a’ Net downward force: mg – R = ma R = m(g – a)
So when lift accelerates down, the apparent weight of man decreases.

Case 3:
When lifting at rest or moving with uniform velocity.
So acceleration ‘a’ = 0
Net force on man is R – mg = mx 0
R – mg = 0
R = mg
Apparent weight = actual weight

(iv) when lift falls freely a = g
the net downward force mg – R = ma
mg – R = mg
R = 0
The apparent weight of the man equal to zero.
Hence the person develops a feeling of weightlessness when he falls freely under gravity.

Question 18.
Derive the law of conservation of linear momentum from Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:
Consider two bodies A and B of masses m₁ and m₂ moving in the same directions along the same line with velocities u₁ and u₂ respectively (U₁>u₂).
They collide for a time At. After the collision, their velocities be v₁ and v₂

During collision the body A exerts a force F^BA on B and the body B exerts a force F^AB on A such that
F^BA = – F^AB
Impulse of F^AB = \(\overline{F}\)_AB ∆t = change in momentum is A
\(\overline{F}\)_BA ∆t = m₁\(\overline{v}\)₁ – m₁\(\overline{u}\)₁
Impulse of F_BA = \(\overline{F}\)_BA ∆t = change in momentum

Total linear momentum after collision = Total linear momentum before collision
This proves the law of conservation of linear momentum.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 9 Government Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 9 Government Organisation

11th Commerce Guide Government Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The share capital of the government company must not be less than ……………
a) 49%
b) 51%
c) 50%
d) 25%
Answer:
b) 51%

Question 2.
Airport Authority of India is a public enterprise ………………… Identify the form of organisation
a) Statutory Corporations
b) Departmental Undertakings
c) Multi-National Corporations
d) State Owned Company
Answer:
b) Departmental Undertakings

Question 3.
The oldest form of organisation in public sector ……………
a) Public Sector Undertakings
b) Departmental Undertakings
c) Multi National Corporations
d) Statutory Corporation
Answer:
b) Departmental Undertakings

Question 4.
A Government company purchases shares in the name of …………….
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Chief Justice of India
d) State Chief Minister
Answer:
b) President

Question 5.
The primary objective of the state enterprises is to …………………….
a) Earn profit
b) Provide Employment
c) Serve the People
d) All the Above
Answer:
c) Serve the People

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the different types of public sector enterprises.
Answer:

• Departmental Undertakings
• Public Corporation
• Government Company

Question 2.
What is the basic feature of a Departmental undertaking?
Answer:

1. Formation: A departmental undertaking is established either as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a sub-division of a ministry (i.e. department) of the Government.
2. No Separate Entity: A departmental undertaking does not have an independent entity distinct from the Government.

Question 3.
Give two examples for each of the following.
Answer:

1. Private sector enterprises – Reliance Industries & Hindustan Lever Limited
2. Global enterprises – Tata; Mahindra & Mahindra
3. Public enterprises – Coal India Ltd &Steel Authority of India

Question 4.
State the form of public enterprises which is most suitable for projects related to National Security.
Answer:
Strategic industries like defence, and atomic power cannot be better managed other than government departments. Departmental undertakings can maintain secrecy in their work.

Question 5.
The Industrial Policy Resolution 2001 exclusively reserved for few industries for the public sector. Name these industries.
Answer:
Arms, ammunition and allied items of defence equipment, Atomic energy, Coal and lignite, Mineral oils, Minerals specified in the schedule to the Atomic Energy order 1953, Railway transport.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
List the areas where the state or central ownership is a preferred form of business organisation. Justify your choice of areas.
Answer:

1. Coal Miners Authority Ltd.
2. Steel Authority of India Ltd.
3. Indian Telephone Industries
4. Tamil Nadu State Corporation Ltd.

A company owned by the central and/or State Government is called a Government Company. Either whole of the capital or the majority of the shares is owned by the Government.

Question 2.
List the names of some enterprises under the public sector and classify them.
Answer:

Question 3.
Define Departmental undertakings.
Answer:
The department form of organisation is the oldest form of organisation. Under the departmental form of organisation, a public enterprise is run as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a major subdivision of a department of the Government. For example, the Indian Railways are managed by the Ministry of Railways.

Question 4.
What is meant by Government Company?
Answer:
The departmental form of organisation of managing state enterprises is the oldest form of organisation. Under the departmental form of organisation, a public enterprise is run as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a major subdivision of a department of the Government.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Departmental undertaking?
Answer:
Meaning:
Department form of organisation of managing state enterprises is the oldest form of organisation.
Advantages:
Following are the advantages of the departmental undertaking.
Easy Formation:
It is easy to set up a departmental undertaking. The departmental undertaking is created by an administrative decision of the Government, involving no legal formalities for its formation.

Direct and Control of Parliament or State Legislature:
The departmental undertaking is directly responsible to the Parliament or the State legislature through its overall head i.e. the minister concerned.

Secrecy Maintained:
Strategic industries like defence and atomic power cannot be better managed other than government departments. Department undertakings can maintain secrecy in their work.

Lesser Burden of Tax on Public Earnings:
Departmental undertakings are entirely paid into the Government treasury, resulting in a lesser tax burden on the public.

Instrument of Social Change:
The government can promote economic and social justice through departmental undertakings. Hence, a departmental undertaking can be used by the Government, as an instrument of social change.

Lesser Risk of Misuse of Public Money:
As the departmental undertaking is subject to budgeting, accounting and procedures of the government; the risk of misuse of public money is relatively less.

Guided by Rules and Regulations of the Ministry:
The officers of the departmental undertaking are under the supervision of the direct administrative control of the ministry. They are guided by the rules and regulations of the ministry, framed with a focus on public welfare.

Disadvantages:
Following are the major limitations of the departmental undertaking.

Red-tapism:
There are too many procedures which result in a delay. The commercial organisation cannot afford delay in taking decisions.

Incidence of Additional Taxation:
Losses incurred by a departmental enterprise are met out of the treasury. This very often necessitates additional taxation the burden of which falls on the common man.

Lack of Competition:
Civil Servants are given control of these undertakings who may not have a business outlook or commercial experience. So, they run the undertaking in their own fashion without considering the sovereignty of the
consumers.
Casual Approach to Work:
As officers of a departmental undertaking are subject to frequent transfers; they develop a sense of a casual approach to work. As a result, the operational efficiency of the undertaking suffers a lot.

Government Interference:
There are excessive government interference and control in department organisation. These undertakings are not given the freedom to decide their own policies. Centralised control leads to delay in action. Red-tapism and bureaucracy have become the limiting features of these organizations.

Lack of Professional Management and Fear of Criticism:
A departmental undertaking is managed by civil servants, who do not possess professional management skills. Moreover, these managers could not afford to be innovative, because of a fear of criticism by the minister or the Parliament.

Financial Dependence:
A departmental undertaking is economically and financially dependent on the Government’s budgetary allocations. As such, it cannot have its own independent long-range investment decisions, which may bring enormous prosperity to the undertaking.

Question 2.
What are the features of a public corporation? (Any 5)
Answer:
1. Special Statute:
A public corporation is created by a special Act of the Parliament or the State Legislature. The Act defines its powers, objectives, functions, and relations with the ministry and the Parliament (or State Legislature).

2. Separate Legal Entity:
A public corporation is a separate legal entity with perpetual succession and a common seal. It has an existence, independent of the Government. It can own property; can make contracts and file suits, in its own name.

3. Capital Provided by the Government:
The capital of a public corporation is provided by the Government or by agencies controlled by the government.- However, many public corporations have also begun to raise money from the capital market.

4. Financial Autonomy:
A public corporation enjoys financial autonomy. It prepares its own budget; and has the authority to retain and utilize its earnings for its business.

5. Management by Board of Directors: Its management is vested in a Board of Directors, appointed or nominated by the Government. But there is no Governmental interference in the day-to-day working of the corporation.

Question 3.
What are the features of a Government Company? (Any 5)
Answer:
Registration:
Under the Companies Act A Government company is formed through registration under the Companies Act, 1956; and is subject to the provisions of this Act, like any other company. However, the Central Government may direct that any of the provisions of the Companies Act shall not apply to a Government company or shall apply with certain modifications.

Executive Decision of Government:
A Government company is created by an executive decision of the Government, without seeking the approval of the Parliament or the State Legislature.

Separate Legal Entity:
A Government Company is a legal entity separate from the Government. It can acquire property; can make contracts and can file suits, in its own name.

Whole or Majority Capital Provided by Government:
The whole or majority (at least 51%) of the capital of a Government company is provided by the Government, but the revenues of the company are not deposited into the treasury.

Majority of Government Directors:
Being in possession of a majority of share capital, the Government has the authority to appoint a majority of directors, on the Board of Directors of a government company. vi. Own Staff A Government company has its own staff; except Government officials who are sent to it on deputation. Its employees are not governed by civil service rules.

Question 4.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of a public corporation?
Answer:
Advantages:
1. Bold Management due to Operational Autonomy:
A public corporation enjoys internal operational autonomy; as it is free from Governmental control. It can, therefore, run in a business-like manner. Management can take bold decisions involving experimentation in its lines of activities, taking advantage of business situations.

2. Legislative Control:
Affairs of a public corporation are subject to scrutiny by Committees of Parliament or State Legislature. The Press also keeps a watchful eye on the working of a public corporation. This keeps a check on the unhealthy practices on the part of the management of the public corporation.

3. Qualified and Contented Staff:
The public corporation offers attractive service conditions to its staff. As such it is able to attract qualified staff.

Disadvantages:
1. Autonomy and Flexibility, Only in Theory:
Autonomy and flexibility advantages of a public corporation exist only in theory. In practice, there is a lot of interference in the working of a public corporation by ministers, government officers, and other politicians.

2. Misuse of Monopolistic Power:
Public corporations often enjoy a monopoly in their field of operation. As such, on the one hand, they are indifferent to consumer needs and problems; and on the other hand, often do not hesitate to exploit consumers.

Question 5.
What are the features of the Departmental Organisation? (Any 5)
Answer:
1. Formation: A departmental undertaking is established either as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a sub-division of a ministry (i.e. department) of the Government.

2. No Separate Entity: A departmental undertaking does not have an independent entity distinct from the Government.

3. Ultimate Responsibility: The ultimate responsibility for the management of a departmental undertaking lies with the minister concerned who is responsible to the Parliament or State Legislature for the affairs of the departmental undertaking. The minister, in turn, delegates his authority downwards to various other management levels, in the departmental undertaking.

4. Governmental Financing: The departmental undertaking is financed through annual budget appropriations by the Parliament or the State Legislature. The revenues of the undertaking are paid into the government treasury.

5. Accounting and Audit: The departmental undertaking is subject to the normal budgeting, accounting, and audit procedures, which are applicable to all Government departments.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers

11th Computer Science Guide Introduction to Computers Text Book Questions and Answers

Section A

Book Evaluation

Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
First generation computers used
a) Vacuum tubes
b) Transistors
c) Integrated circuits
d) Microprocessors
Answer:
a) Vacuum tubes

Question 2.
Name the volatile memory
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) RAM
d) EPROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 3.
Identify the output device
a) Keyboard
b) Memory
c) Monitor
d) Mouse
Answer:
c) Monitor

Question 4.
Identify the- input device
a) Printer
b) Mouse
c) Plotter
d) Projector
Answer:
b) Mouse

Question 5.
________ Output device is used for printing building plan, flex board, etc.
a) Thermal printer
b) Plotter
c) Dot matrix
d) inkjet printer
Answer:
b) Plotter

Question 6.
In ATM machines, which one of the following is used
a) Touch Screen
b) Speaker
c) Monitor
d) Printer
Answer:
a) Touch Screen

Question 7.
When a system restarts, which type of booting is used?
a) Warm booting
b) Cold booting
c) Touch boot
d) Real boot
Answer:
a) Warm booting

Question 8.
Expand POST
a) Post on self Test
b) Power on Software Test
c) Power on Self Test
d) Power on Self Text
Answer:
c) Power on Self Test

Question 9.
Which one of the foUowing is the main memory?
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Flash drive
d) Hard disk
Answer:
b) RAM

Question 10.
Which generation of computer used IC’s?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer:
c) Third

Section – B

Book Evaluation

Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
Computer is an Electronic Machine, capable of performing basic operations like addition, multiplication, division etc. Computer accepts data as input, process it, produce output and stores it for future.

Question 2.
Distinguish between data and information
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the components of a CPU?
Answer:
The Components of the CPU are:

1. Control Unit
2. Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
3. Memory Unit.

Question 4.
What is the function of an ALU?
Answer:
The ALU performs operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations.

Question 5.
Write the functions of control unit.
Answer:
The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory I/O devices. It also controls the entire operations of a computer.

Question 6.
What is the function of memory?
Answer:
The memory is used to store the data for processing and for future reference.

Question 7.
Differentiate Input and output unit.
Answer:
Input unit:

• An input device feeds information to a computer system for processing.
• Input devices only allow for the input of data to a computer.
• It is a peripheral device used to provide data and control signals to an information processing system such as a computer.
• Example: keyboard, mouse.

Output unit:

• The output device reproduces or displays the results of that processing.
• Output devices only receive the output of data from another device.
• It is a unit which sends data from the computer to another device.
• Example: printer, monitor.

Question 8.
Distinguish Primary and Secondary memory.
Answer:
The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data to execute currently. It is
volatile in nature.
The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently. It is non-volatile.

Section – C

Book Evaluation

Explain in brief

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of a computer?
Answer:
Characteristics of Computer

• Speed : Very high speed ie. more than 1G“12 second.
• Accuracy : Very high accuracy even with high speed.
• Storage ; Computer can store any volume of data for a long time.
• Diligence : Computer can work for hours without any break and creating error. It is suitable for repetitive jobs.
• Versatility : Computer can perform variety of task.
• Power of remembering : It can remember data for us.
• No IQ : Computer itself having no thinking power. It works based on the given instruction.
• No Feeling : Computer does not have emotions, knowledge, experience, feeling.

Question 2.
Write the applications of computer.
Answer:
The various applications of computers are:

• Business – It is used in. business for Payroll preparation, Sales analysis, Budgeting, Financial forecasting, Managing employees database and Maintenance of stocks etc.
• Education – It is used for online teaching with CBTs and WBTs,
• Marketing – It is used for Selling & Promoting product.
• Banking – It is used for Home banking with internet,- ATM etc.
• Insurance – It is used to transact insurance operation.
• Communication – Email, chatting etc,
• Health Care – ECG’s, radiotherapy like monitoring devices.
• Military – It builds the links between the soldiem and commanders through the satellite.
• Engineering Design – Machine design, building plan, Interior design etc.

Question 3.
What is an input device? Give two examples.
Answer:

• Input device is used to feed any form of data to the computer for further processing.
• Keyboard – To feed text, numbers, special characters etc..
• Mouse – Pointing device ie. to select an item on the screen.
• Bar Code Reader – Scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the computer.

Question 4.
Name any three output devices.
Answer:

• Monitor – To display the information.
• Printer – It is used to print the information on papers.
• Plotter – It is used to produce graphical output like building plan on paper.
• Speaker – It produces voice output.

Question 5.
Differentiate optical and Laser mouse.
Answer:

Question 6.
Write short note on impact printer.
Answer:
The impact printers print with striking of hammers or pins on ribbon. These printers can print on multi-part papers. Dot Matrix printers and Line matrix printers are impact printers.

Question 7.
Write the characteristics of sixth generation.
Answer:
The characteristics of sixth generation computers are:

• Parallel and Distributed computing
• Computers have become smarter, faster and smaller
• Development of robotics
• Natural Language Processing
• Development of Voice Recognition Software.

Question 8.
Write the significant features of monitor.
Answer:
Monitor is the most commonly used output device to display the information. Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called Pixels.
Monitors may either be Monochrome or can be color Types of monitors:

• CRT (Cathode Ray Tube)
• LCD (Liquid Crystal Display)
• LED (Light Emitting Diodes).

Section – D

Book Evaluation

Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the basic components of a computer with a neat diagram.
Answer:
The computer is the combination of hardware and software. Hardware is the physical component of a computer while software is the set of programs or instructions. Both hardware and software together make the computer system to function. Every task given to a computer follows an Input- Process- Output Cycle (IPO cycle).

The functional components of a computer

i) Input Unit ; Input unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer. Example: Keyboard, mouse, etc.
ii) Central Processing Unit: CPU is the major component which interprets and executes software instructions. It also controls the operation of all other components such as memory, input and output units.

The CPU has three components which are Control unit, Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) and Memory unit.

iii) Arithmetic and Logic Unit : The ALU is. a part of the CPU where various computing functions are performed on data. The ALU performs arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations.

iv) Control Unit : The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices. It also controls the entire operation of a computer.

v) Output Unit: An Output Unit is any hardware component that conveys information to users in an understandable form. Example: Monitor Printer etc.

vi) Memory Unit : The Memory Unit is of two types which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute. The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently.

The Primary Memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. The Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of a main memory.

The Secondary memory is non volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM are examples of secondary memory.

Question 2.
Discuss the various generations of computers.
Answer:
 

Question 3.
Explain the following
a) Inkjet Printer
b) Multimedia projector
c) Bar code / QR code Reader
Answer:
a) Inkjet Printers : Inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionised ink at a sheet of paper. The speed of Inkjet printers generally range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute).

They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles. An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

b) Multimedia Projectors : Multimedia projectors are used to produce computer output on a big screen. These are used to display presentations in meeting halls or in classrooms.

c) Bar Code Reader: A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

QR Code Reader : The QR (Quick response) code is the two dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image.

11th Computer Science Guide Introduction to Computers Additional Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Natural language processing is a component of ………………
(a) ULSI
(b) AI
(c) ENIAC
(d) OCR
Answer:
(b) AI

Question 2.
The Analytical Engine was invented in the year ________
a) 1837
b) 1937
c) 1847
d) 1873
Answer:
a) 1837

Question 3.
The main component of second-generation ………………
(a) vacuum tubes
(b) microprocessor
(c) integrated circuits
(d) transistor
Answer:
(d) transistor

Question 4.
Which led to the development of general-purpose computers?
a) Napier’s Bone
b) Analytical Engine
c) Slide Rule
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Analytical Engine

Question 5.
Period of fourth-generation ………………
(a) 1975 – 1980
(b) 1964 – 1975
(c) 1955 – 1964
(d) 1942 – 1955
Answer:
(a) 1975 – 1980

Question 6.
________ is the first known calculating device.
a) Napier’s Bone
b) Slide Rule
c) Punched Card
d) Abacus
Answer:
d) Abacus

Question 7.
Which word can be related to the inkjet printer ………………
(a) Airlines
(b) Piezoelectricity
(c) matrix
(d) plotter
Answer:
(b) Piezoelectricity

Question 8.
Based on various stages of development, computers can be categorized in to ________generations.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer:
d) 6

Question 9.
Which printer using the carbon papers ………………
(a) laser printer
(b) non – impact printers
(c) Impact printer
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) Impact printer

Question 10.
The period of second generation is ________
a) 1942- 1955
b) 1955- 1964
c) 1964 – 1975
d) 1975-1980
Answer:
b) 1955- 1964

Question 11.
The retinal scanner uses the technique of ………………
(a) GUI
(b) UI
(c) Biometric
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Biometric

Question 12.
The period of fourth generation is ________
a) 1942- 1955
b) 1955- 1964
c) 1964- 1975
d) 1975- 1980
Answer:
d) 1975- 1980

Question 13.
The components of CPU ………………
(a) control unit
(b) ALU
(c) Memory unit
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 14.
The period of sixth generation is________
a) 1980 – till date
b) 1975 – 1980
c) 1964 – 1975
d) In future
Answer:
d) In future

Question 15.
Computer monitor displays the information in the form of ……………….
(a) vertical
(b) pictorial
(c) horizontal
(d) numeric
Answer:
(b) pictorial

Question 16.
________is a second-generation computer.
a) IBM 1401
b) IBM 1620
c) UNIVAC 1108
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 17.
Who invented analytical engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) John von Newman
(c) Blaise pascal
(d) Dennis Richard
Answer:
(a) Charles Babbage

Question 18.
The weight of ENIAC was ________tons.
a) 27
b) 37
c) 28
d) 17
Answer:
a) 27

Question 19.
In which generation UNIVACI was used?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(a) First

Question 20.
The ENIAC conusmed ________watts of power.
a) 150
b) 100
c) 1500
d) 15
Answer:
a) 150

Question 21.
IBM 1620 belongs to which computer generation of computers?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(b) II

Question 22.
The main component used in second-generation computer is________
a) Transistors
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Vacuum Tube
d) Microprocessor
Answer:
a) Transistors

Question 23.
Honeywell 6000 series belongs to ……………… generation.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(c) Third

Question 24.
The main component used in fourth-generation computer is________
a) Transistors
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Vacuum Tube
d) Microprocessor
Answer:
d) Microprocessor

Question 25.
NLP is a component of ………………
(a) AI
(b) Hardware
(c) Circuit
(d) Electronics
Answer:
(a) AI

Question 26.
The first operating system was developed during ________generation of computers.
a) first
b) second
c) third
d) fourth
Answer:
b) second

Question 27.
Which input device is a pointing device?
(a) Keyboard
(b) Monitor
(c) Mouse
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(c) Mouse

Question 28.
________language was used in first-generation computer.
a) Machine
b) Assembly
c) High Level
d) English
Answer:
a) Machine

Question 29.
Arithmetic and logical computation are done by ………………
(a) CU
(b) ALU
(c) BUS
(d) memory
Answer:
(b) ALU

Question 30.
________language was used in third generation computer.
a) Machine
b) Assembly
c) High Level
d) English
Answer:
c) High Level

Question 31.
Which conveys information to the user in an understandable form?
(a) Input unit
(b) CU
(c) Output unit
(d) Bus
Answer:
(c) Output unit

Question 32.
Portable computers were introduced in __________ generation.
.a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 33.
CD – ROM, DVD – ROM, DVD – ROM are examples of which of the following memory.
(a) read / write
(b) volatile
(c) primary
(d) non-volatile
Answer:
(d) non-volatile

Question 34.
Artificial Inegeiligence introduced in ________generation.
a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) Second
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 35.
Which one of the following is true?
(a) The no. of keys in any keyboard is always the same.
(b) All keyboard have strictly has the same layout.
(c) All keyboards are wired keyboards.
(d) All keyboards have alphabet and numeric keys.
Answer:
(d) All keyboards have alphabet and numeric keys.

Question 36.
_________ generation computers are capable of solving complex problems including decision making and logical reasoning,
a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) Second
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 37.
Mechanical, optical and laser are types of which input device.
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Scanner
(d) Printer
Answer:
(b) Mouse

Question 38.
The ENIAC was invented by________
a) J.Presper
b) John Mauchly
c) Both A and B
d) Charles Babbage
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 39.
Which one of the following mouse type has more than 3 buttons and can be programmed?
(a) Mechanical
(b) Optical
(c) Laser
(d) 3D
Answer:
(c) Laser

Question 40.
The ENIAC was developed in the year ________
a) 1947
c) 1942
b) 1943
d) 1843
Answer:
c) 1942

Question 41.
The device that reads the information directly into the computer’s memory and works like a Xerox machine is ………………
(a) plotter
(b) scanner
(c) touch screen
(d) trackball
Answer:
(b) scanner

Question 42.
________is a component of Artificial Intelligence.
a)Natural Language Processing
b) Parallel Processing
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a)Natural Language Processing

Question 43.
The output device is similar to the upside-down design of a mouse ………………
(a) laser mouse
(b) optical mouse
(c) mechanical mouse
(d) trackball
Answer:
(d) trackball

Question 44,
The term “computer” is derived from the word ________
a) compute
b) calculate
c) process
d) None of these
Answer:
a) compute

Question 45.
Which of the following uses biometrics and a unique pattern of retinal blood vessels?
(a) Retinal track
(b) Fingerprint scanner
(c) Optical scanner
(d) Retinal scanner
Answer:
(d) Retinal scanner

Question 46.
Before 19th century, the person who performs calculation is called as ________
a) Computer
b) Calculator
c) Abacus
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Computer

Question 47.
The input device that detects characters printed or written on paper is ………………
(a) Voice input system
(b) Trackball
(c) Optical character reader
(d) 3D mouse
Answer:
(c) Optical character reader

Question 48.
________will not give meaning.
a) information
b) datum
c) data
d) None of these
Answer:
c) data

Question 49.
CCD stands for ………………
(a) Code Converting Device
(b) Code Change Device
(c) Change Code Device
(d) Charge-Coupled Device
Answer:
(d) Charge-Coupled Device

Question 50.
________is a processed fact.
a) information
b) datum
c) data
d) None of these
Answer:
a) information

Question 51.
……………… are picture elements.
(a) Picture Point
(b) Monitor
(c) Routers
(d) Pixels
Answer:
(d) Pixels

Question 52.
The________is the combination of hardware and software.
a) computer
b) analytical engine
c) calculator
d) all the above
Answer:
a) computer

Question 53.
The ……………… printer uses the same technology used by the photocopier.
(a) Inkjet
(b) dot matrix
(c) line
(d) laser
Answer:
(d) laser

Question 54.
________is the set of programs or instructions.
a) software
b) hardware
c) freeware
d) Malware
Answer:
a) software

Question 55.
Printer are of types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 56.
Every task given to the computer follows ________ cycle.
a) Input-Process-Output
b) Output-Process-Input
c) Process-Output-Input
d) Input-Output-Process
Answer:
a) Input-Process-Output

Question 57.
Who is considered to be the father of computers?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) John Von Nuemann
(c) John Napier
(d) Dennis Ritchie
Answer:
(a) Charles Babbage

Question 58.
________of a computer interprets and executes software instructions,
a) Input unit
b) Main Memory
c) Central Process Unit
d) Secondary Memory
Answer:
c) Central Process Unit

Question 59.
Who invented ENIAC?
(a) J. Presper Eckert
(b) J. Napier
(c) J. Van Neuman
(d) J. Mauchaley
Answer:
(a) J. Presper Eckert

Question 60.
The CPU has ________components.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 2
Answer:
b) 3

Question 61.
Which is used as a component of second generation computers?
(a) Vacuum Tubes
(b) Transistor
(c) IC
(d) VLSI
Answer:
(b) Transistor

Question 62.
In ________ unit, various computing functions are performed on data.
a) Control unit
b) ALU
c) Memory unit
d) All the above
Answer:
b) ALU

Question 63.
Expand CPS.
(a) Correction Per Second
(b) Characters Per Second
(c) Calculations Per Second
(d) Cording Per Second
Answer:
(b) Characters Per Second

Question 64.
The ________ operations of ALU promote the decision-making ability of a computer.
a) arithmetic
b) logical
c) relational
d) increment/decrement
Answer:
b) logical

Question 65.
Which is the first known calculating device?
(a) Slide rule
(b) Rotating wheel calculator
(c) Abacus
(d) Daisywheel
Answer:
(c) Abacus

Question 66.
The ________ unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory, and I/O devices.
a) Control unit
b) ALU
c) Memory unit
d) Ali the above
Answer:
a) Control unit

Question 67.
Artificial Intelligence was introduced in which generation of computers?
(a) V
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) V

Question 68.
The memory is of ________ types
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
a) 2

Question 69.
The ________ memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute.
a) Primary memory
b) Output unit
c) Secondary memory
d) Ali the above
Answer:
a) Primary memory

Question 70.
Identify which is true?
(a) Portable computers were introduced in the fourth generation.
(b) ULSI was used in the fifth generation.
(c) High-level languages were used in IIIrd generations.
(d) All the above statements are true.
Answer:
(d) All the above statements are true.

Question 71.
The ________ memory is volatile.
a) Primary memory
b) Output unit
c) Secondary memory
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Primary memory

Question 72.
OCR stands for ………………
(a) Optimal Compiler Recorder
(b) Optimal Character Recorder
(c) Optimum Charge Recorder
(d) Optimal Character Resolution
Answer:
(b) Optimal Character Recorder

Question 73.
________ is an example of a main memory.
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) RAM
D) EEPROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 74.
Which is not a hardware component?
(a) Information
(b) Monitor
(c) Motherboard
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(a) Information

Question 75.
In ________ memory, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off.
a) Primary memory
b) RAM
c) Secondary memory
d) Either A or B
Answer:
c) Secondary memory

Question 76.
Identify the statement which is wrong?
(a) ALU performs addition, subtraction
(b) ALU controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory, and I/O devices
(c) Control unit controls the entire operation of the computer
(d) The logical operation of ALU promotes the decision making
Answer:
(b) ALU controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory, and I/O devices

Question 77.
________ is the most common input device,
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) bar code reader
d) None of these
Answer:
b) keyboard

Question 78.
Which of the following input device scan the book?
(a) OMR
(b) OCR
(c) ECR
(d) OVR
Answer:
(b) OCR

Question 79.
________ is a pointing device.
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) mouse
d) None of these
Answer:
c) mouse

Question 81.
Which of the following input devices are classified as tactile, ergonomic, gaming?
(a) Keyboard
(b) Printer
(c) Monitor
(d) Mouse
Answer:
(d) Mouse

Question 81.
________ device is used to select icons, menus, command buttons or activate something on a computer.
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) mouse
d) None of these
Answer:
c) mouse

Question 82.
The main advantage of using the light pen is ……………….
(a) easy to use
(b) accurate
(c) easy to detect the characters
(d) drawing directly onto the screen
Answer:
(d) drawing directly onto the screen

Question 83.
________ is a mouse type.
a) Mechanical
b) Optical
c) Laser
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 84.
The individual keys for letters, numbers, and special characters are collectively called ………………. keys.
(a) character
(b) functional
(c) lock
(d) special
Answer:
(a) character

Question 85.
The mechanical mouse was developed and introduced in the year ________
a) 1968
b) 1966
c) 1978
d) 1969
Answer:
a) 1968

Question 86.
Wired, wireless and virtual are the categories of ……………….
(a) mouse
(b) keyboard
(c) printer
(d) monitor
Answer:
(b) keyboard

Question 87.
The optical mouse was developed introduced in the year ________
a) 1968
b) 1966
c) 1978
d) 1988
Answer:
d) 1988

Question 88.
Which one of the following are the main characteristics of laser printer?
(a) Speed
(b) Resolution
(c) Reliability
(d) Durability
Answer:
(b) Resolution

Question 89.
________ mouse is highly sensitive and able to work on any hard surface.
a) optical
b) mechanical
c) laser
d) all the above
Answer:
c) laser

Question 90.
Expand DPI ……………….
(a) Dots Per Inch
(b) Dark Pen Ink
(c) Dark Page Ink
(d) Double Part ink
Answer:
(a) Dots Per Inch

Question 91.
Who assists Douglas Engel bard to invent moused?
a) Bill English
b) Steve Krish
c) Richard Lyon
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Bill English

Question 92.
________ is used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory.
a) Mouse
b) Scanner
c) Light Pen
d) all the above
Answer:
b) Scanner

Question 93.
The ________ device works like a Xerox machine.
a) Mouse
b) Scanner
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Scanner

Question 94.
The______ device Is used for computer security.
a) Fingerprint Scanner
b) Scanner
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Fingerprint Scanner

Question 95.
________ device uses biometric technology.
a) Fingerprint Scanner
b) Trackball
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Fingerprint Scanner

Question 96.
________ scanner uses unique patterns of a person’s retinal blood vessels.
a) Retinal
b) Trackball
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Retinal

Question 97.
________ is used to draw directly onto the screen.
a) Mouse
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) MICR
Answer:
b) Light Pen

Question 98.
________ is a pointing device.
a) Mouse
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 99.
________ is a device which detects characters printed or written on paper.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) OCR

Question 100.
The document scanned through_________device can be edited using a word processor.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) OCR

Question 101.
A user can scan a page from a book using ________ and can be edited using a word processor.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) OCR

Question 102.
The ________ is a two-dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) QRcode
Answer:
d) QRcode

Question 103.
The ________ system gives fast and error-free entry of information into the computer.
a) Bar Code
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) QR code
Answer:
a) Bar Code

Question 104.
________ serves as a voice input device.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) OCR
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Microphone

Question 105.
________ captures images / videos directly in the digital form.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
c) Digital Camera

Question 106.
________ uses a CCD electronic chip.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Microphone

Question 107.
CCD means ________
a) Charge-Coupled Device
b) Change-Coupled Device
c) Close Circuit Device
d) Charge-Coupled Data
Answer:
a) Charge-Coupled Device

Question 108.
________ converts light rays into digital formats.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Microphone

Question 109.
A ________ is a display device that allows the user to interact with a computer by using the finger.
a) Touch Screen
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
a) Touch Screen

Question 110.
________ is an alternative to a mouse or keyboard for navigating a Graphical User Interface.
a) Touch Screen
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Microphone

Question 111.
Touch screen is used on ________ .
a) Smartphone
b) Information kiosks
c) Cash registers
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 112.
________ is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches.
a) Touch Screen
b) Keyer
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Keyer

Question 113.
________ number of keys available in Keyer.
a) 4 to 50
b) 4 to 500
c) 14
d) 50
Answer:
a) 4 to 50

Question 114.
In ________ device, the keys are arranged in a cluster.
a) Touch Screen
b) Keyer
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Keyer

Question 115.
________ is the most commonly used output device to display the information.
a) Plotter
b) Monitor
c) Speaker
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Monitor

Question 116.
Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called. ________
a) Pixels
b) Points
c) Dots
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Pixels

Question 117.
________ is a monitor type.
a) CRT
b) LED
c) LCD
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 118.
CRT stands for ________
a) Cathode Ray Tube
b) Carbon Ray Tube
c) Cathode Ray Terminal
d) Cathode Ray Tunnel
Answer:
a) Cathode Ray Tube

Question 119.
LED stands for ________
a) Light Emitting Diodes
b) Light Emitting Device
c) Liquid Emitting Diodes
d) Light. Extracting Device
Answer:
a) Light Emitting Diodes

Question 120.
LCD stands for
a) Liquid Crystal Display
b) Light Crystal Display
c) Large Crystal Display
d) Liquid Circuit Display
Answer:
a) Liquid Crystal Display

Question 121.
The monitor works with ________
a) CGA
b) VGA
c) MGA
d) None of these
Answer:
b) VGA

Question 122.
VGA stands for ________
a) Video Graphics Array
b) Video Generation Array
c) Video Graphics Adapter
d) Vector Generation Array
Answer:
a) Video Graphics Array

Question 123.
________ acts as an interface between the computer and display monitor.
a) CGA
b) VGA
c) MGA
d) None of these
Answer:
b) VGA

Question 124.
The first computer monitor was released on ________
a) March 1, 1973
b) March 31, 1973
c) March 21, 1973
d) March 1, 1963
Answer:
a) March 1, 1973

Question 125.
The first computer monitor was part of the ________ computer system.
a) Alto Xerox
b) Xerox Alto
c) Xerox
d) Alto
Answer:
b) Xerox Alto

Question 126.
The ________ helps the keyboard to communicate with the screen.
a) Video Graphics Card
b) Video Graphics Channel
c) Video Group Card
d) Video Generation Card
Answer:
a) Video Graphics Card

Question 127.
________ is an output device that is used to produce graphical output on papers.
a) Monitor
b) Plotter
c) Speaker
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Plotter

Question 128.
Printers are divided into ________ categories.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
a) 2

Question 129.
________ printers print with striking of hammers or pins on the ribbon.
a) Non-impact
b) Impact
c) plotter
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Impact

Question 130.
________ printer is an impact printer.
a) Dot matrix
b) Line
c) Laser
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) Laser

Question 131.
A ________ printer prints using a fixed number of pins or wires.
a) Dot matrix
b) Line
c) Laser
d) Both A and B
Answer:
a) Dot matrix

Question 132.
The printing speed of a Dot matrix printer is ________ CPS.
a) 300 to 1550
b) 30 to 1550
c) 30 to 1555
d) 30 to 1505
Answer:
b) 30 to 1550

Question 133.
________ printer uses a fixed print head for printing.
a) Dot matrix
b) Line matrix
c) Laser
d) Both A and B
Answer:
b) Line matrix

Question 134.
The printing speed of a Line printer is ________ LPM.
a) Less than 1000
b) More than 1000
c) 300
d) less than 500
Answer:
b) More than 1000

Question 135.
CPS stands for-
a) Character Printing Speed
b) Character Per Second
c) Character Per Stroke
d) Character Per Session
Answer:
b) Character Per Second

Question 136.
________ printers do not use striking mechanism for printing.
a) Non-impact
b) Impact
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Non-impact

Question 137.
________ printer is a Non-impact printer,
a) Laser
b) Inkjet
c) Line
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 138.
The chief characteristics of laser printer is their ________
a) printing speed
b) resolution
c) cost
d) all the above
Answer:
b) resolution

Question 139.
The resolution of a laser printer is measured in the unit ________
a) LPM
d) None of these
b) Dots Per Instance
d) None of these
Answer:
a) LPM

Question 140.
DPI stands for –
a) Dots Per Inch
b) Dots Per Instance
c) Darkness Per Inch
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Dots Per Inch

Question 141.
The available resolution range of a laser printer around _______ DPI.
a) 1024
b) 12000
c) 1200
d) 1020
Answer:
c) 1200

Question 142.
The printing speed of a Laser printer is approximately_______ PPM.
a) 100
b) 1000
c) 1200
d) 1024
Answer:
a) 100

Question 143.
Inkjet printer uses_______ colour inks to create colour tones,
a) Magenta
b) Yellow
c) Cyan
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 144.
PPM stands for ._______
a) Paper Per Minute
b) Paper Per Moment
c) Pixels Per Minute
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Paper Per Minute

Question 145.
_______ produces voice output.
a) Plotter
b) Speaker
c) Mic
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Speaker

Question 146.
_______ is used to produce computer output on a big screen.
a) Speaker
b) Plotter
c) Multimedia projector
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Multimedia projector

Question 147.
A(n) _______ is the basic software that makes the computer work.
a) Application software
b) Compiler
c) Loader
d) Operating system
Answer:
d) Operating system

Question 148.
POST sequence check the device _______
a) RAM
b) Keyboard
c) Monitor
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 149.
If POST sequence is successful then _______ gets executed.
a) BIOS
b) Application program
c) Compiler
d) None of these
Answer:
a) BIOS

Question 150.
BIOS means –
a) Basic Input Output System
b) Basic Input Output Scheme
c) Best Input Output System
d) Beginners Input Output System
Answer:
a) Basic Input Output System

Question 151.
After POST sequence, BIOS gets execute is called _______
a) booting
b) shutdown
c) hibernate
d) login
Answer:
a) booting

Question 152.
Booting process is of _______ types,
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer:
d) 2

Question 153.
When the system starts from the initial state when the computer is switched on is called_______ booting.
a) Warm
b) Cold
c) Hard
d) Either B or C
Answer:
b) Cold

Question 154.
When the user presses the power button, the instructions are read from the _______ to initiate the booting process.
a) RAM
b) CD-RAM
c) Hard disk
d) ROM
Answer:
d) ROM

Question 155.
When the system restarts or when the Reset button is pressed_______ booting initiated.
a) Warm
b) Soft
c) Hard
d) Either A or B
Answer:
d) Either A or B

Question 156.
During _______ booting, there are chances of data loss and system damage as the data might not have been stored properly.
a) Warm
b) Soft
c) Hard
d) Either A or B
Answer:
d) Either A or B

Question 157.
_________interprets and executes software instructions.
a) ALU
b) CPU
c) Cache memory
d) None of these
Answer:
b) CPU

Question 158.
There are totally_______ Symbols /Graphemes / Characters in the Indus Script.
a) 417
b) 407
c) 471
d) 147
Answer:
a) 417

Question 159.
_______ is a sub-field of Artificial Intelligence,
a) Neural Network
b) Nature Network
c) GUI
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Neural Network

Question 160.
Expand USB
a) Universal Serial Bus
b) Unique Serial Bus
c) Universal Serial Board
d) Universal Serial Booting
Answer:
a) Universal Serial Bus

Question 161.
Transistor means _______
a) Transfer resistance
b) Transfer register
c) Track resistance
d) Tangent resistance
Answer:
a) Transfer resistance

Question 162.
LPM stands for_______
a) Lines Per Minute
b) Lines Per Moment
c) Line Print Machine
d) Line Print Mechanism
Answer:
a) Lines Per Minute

Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Expand ANN, OCR
Answer:
ANN – Artificial Neural networks; OCR – Optical Character Recognition.

Question 2.
Write a note on ENIAC.
Answer:
The ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator And Calculator) was invented by 1 Presper Eckert and John Mauchly at the University of Pennsylvania and began construction in 1943 and was not completed until 1946. It occupied about 1,800 square feet and used about 18,000 vacuum tubes, weighing almost 50 tons. ENIAC was the first digital computer because it was fully functional.

Question 3.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of light pen?
Answer:

1. Advantage: Drawing directly on to the screen.
2. Disadvantage: Hard to use and not accurate.

Question 4.
Define Data.
Answer:
Data is defined as an un-processed collection of raw facts, suitable for communication, interpretation, or processing.

Question 5.
Name some mouse actions.
Answer:
Move, click, double click, right-click, drag, and drop are some of the mouse actions.

Question 6.
Define Hardware.
Answer:
Hardware is the physical component of a computer like a motherboard, memory devices, monitor, keyboard, etc.

Question 7.
What is NLP?
Answer:
NLP stands for Natural Language Processing which is a component of Artificial Intelligence (AI). It provides the ability to develop a computer program to understand human language.

Question 8.
Write a note on the IPO cycle.
Answer:
Every task given to a computer follows an Input- Process- Output Cycle (IPO cycle). It needs certain input, processes that input, and produces the desired output. The input unit takes the input, the central processing unit does the processing of data and the output unit produces the output.

Question 9.
Write note on Input unit.
Answer:
Input unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer, which can be stored in the memory unit for further processing. Example: Keyboard, mouse, etc.

Question 10.
Write note on output unit.
Answer:
An Output Unit is any hardware component that conveys information to users in an understandable form. Example: Monitor, Printer etc.

Question 11.
Write note on primary memory.
Answer:
The primary memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. Ex. Random Access Memory (RAM),

Question 12.
Write note on secondary memory.
Answer:
The secondary memory is non-volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Ex. Hard disk, CD-ROM, DVD ROM etc.

Question 13.
Who invented Mouse?
Answer:
The computer mouse was invented and developed by Douglas Engelbart, with the assistance of Bill English, during the 1960’s and was patented on November 17, 1970.

Question 14.
What is the use of a scanner?
Answer:
Scanners are used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory. This device works like a Xerox machine. The scanner converts any type of printed or written Information including photographs into a digital format, which can be manipulated by the computer.

Question 15.
What are the types of keyboards?
Answer:
The keyboard types are:

1. Wired keyboard.
2. Wireless keyboard.
3. Virtual keyboard.

Question 16.
Write a short note on Trackball.
Answer:
Track bail is similar to the upside-down design of the mouse. The user moves the ball directly, while the device itself remains stationary. The user spins the bail-in various directions to navigate the screen movements.

Question 17.
What is the use of a Retinal scanner?
Answer:
This performs a retinal scan which is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person s retinal blood vessels.

Question 18.
Write short note on Barcode reader.
Answer:
A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error-free entry of information into the computer.

Question 19.
Write short note on QR code reader.
Answer:
The QR (Quick response) code is the two-dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image.

Question 20.
What is the use of a Voice Input System?
Answer:
The microphone serves as a voice Input device. It captures the voice data and sends it to the computer. Using the microphone along with speech recognition software can offer a completely new approach to input information into the Computer,

Question 21.
Write a short note on Digital Camera.
Answer:
It captures images/videos directly in digital form. It uses a CCD (Charge Coupled Device) electronic chip. When light falls on the chip through the lens, it converts light rays into digital format.

Question 22.
Write about Plotter.
Answer:
The plotter is an output device that is used to produce graphical output on papers. It uses single color or multi-color pens to draw pictures,

Question 23.
Write a short note on the printer.
Answer:
Printers are used to print the information on paper.
Printers are divided into two main categories:

• Impact Printers,
• Non Impact printers.

Question 24.
Write about Multimedia Projectors.
Answer:
Multimedia projectors are used to produce computer output on a big screen. These are used to display presentations in meeting halls or in classrooms.

Question 25.
What do you mean by natural language processing?
Answer:
It is a method used in artificial intelligence to process and derive meaning from the human language.

Question 26.
Write about Robotics.
Answer:
Robot is a term coined by Karel Capek ¡n 1921 to play RUR (Rossurn’s Universal Robots). It is used to describe a computerized machine designed to respond to input received manually or from its surroundings.

Question 27.
Write note on Nanotechnology.
Answer:
Nanotechnology is an engineering, science and technology that develops machines or works with one atom or one molecule that is 100 nanometers or smaller.

Question 28.
Write note on Bioengineering.
Answer:
It is a discipline that applies engineering principles of design and analysis to biological systems and biomedical technologies.

Question 29.
What is high-level language?
Answer:
A high-level language is a computer programming language that is not limited by the computer, designed for a specific job and is easier to understand.

Question 30.
Write, about Integrated Circuits.
Answer:
The integrated circuit is a package containing many circuits, pathways, transistors, and other electronic components all working together to perform a particular function or a series of functions.

Question 31.
Write note on the punched card.
Answer:
It is also known as a Hollerith card is a paper card containing several punched or perforated holes that were punched by hand or machine to represent data.

Explain in brief

Question 1.
Differentiate warm booting and cold booting?
Answer:
Cold Booting:
When the system starts from initial state i.e. it is switched on, we call it cold booting or Hard Booting. When the user presses the Power button, the instructions are read from the ROM to initiate the booting process.

Warm Booting:
When the system restarts or when Reset button is pressed, we call it Warm Booting or Soft Booting. The system does not start from initial state and so all diagnostic tests need not be carried out in this case. There are chances of data loss and system damage as the data might not have been stored properly.

Question 2.
What is the purpose of the Fingerprint scanner?
Answer:
Fingerprint Scanner is a fingerprint recognition device used for computer security, equipped with the fingerprint recognition feature that uses biometric technology. Fingerprint Reader / Scanner is a very safe and convenient device for security instead of using passwords, which is vulnerable to fraud and is hard to remember.

Question 3.
Define Keyer?
Answer:
A Keyer is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches. Modem keyers have a large number of switches but not as many as a full-size keyboard. Typically, this number is between 4 and 50. A keyer differs from a keyboard, which has “no board”, but the keys are arranged in a cluster.

Question 4.
What is the purpose of Optical Character Reader?
Answer:
It is a device which detects characters printed or written on a paper with OCR, a user can scan a page from a book. The Computer will recognize the characters on the page as letters and punctuation marks and stores them. The Scanned document can be edited using a word processor.

Question 5.
List out the input and output devices of a computer?
Answer:
Input Devices:

1. Keyboard
2. Mouse
3. Scanner
4. Fingerprint Scanner
5. Track Ball
6. Retinal Scanner
7. Light Pen
8. Optical Character Reader
9. Bar Code / QR Code Reader
10. Voice Input Systems
11. Digital Camera
12. Touch Screen
13. Keyer

Output Devices:

1. Monitor
2. Plotter
3. Printers

Question 6.
Write about Keyer.
Answer:
A Keyer is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches. Modern keyers have a large number of switches but not as many as a full-size keyboard. Typically, this number is between 4 and 50. A keyer differs from a keyboard, which has “no board”, but the keys are arranged in a cluster.

Question 7.
Explain fingerprint scanner and retinal scanner?
Answer:
Fingerprint Scanner:
Fingerprint Scanner is a fingerprint recognition device used for computer security, equipped with the fingerprint recognition feature that uses biometric technology. Fingerprint Reader / Scanner is a very safe and convenient device for security instead of using passwords, which is vulnerable to fraud and is hard to remember.

Retinal Scanner: This performs a retinal scan which is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person’s retinal blood vessels.

Question 8.
Write about the speaker? Where it is mostly used?
Answer:
Speakers produce voice output (audio). Using a speaker along with speech synthesis software, the computer can provide voice output. This has become very common in places like airlines, schools, banks, railway stations, etc.

Question 9.
Compare assembly language and machine language.
Answer:
An assembly language is a low-level programming language.
Machine language is a collection of binary digits or bits that the computer reads and interprets directly.

Question 10.
Write a note on

1. Transistor
2. Vacuum tube

Answer:

1. Transistor: The transistor (transfer resistance) is made up of semiconductors. It is a component used to control the amount of current or voltage used for amplification/modulation of an electronic signal.
2. Vacuum Tube: It contains electrodes for controlling electron flow and was used in early computers as a switch or an amplifier.

Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the types of Mouse.
Answer:
Different types of mouse available are: Mechanical Mouse, Optical, Laser Mouse, Air Mouse, 3D Mouse, Tactile Mouse, Ergonomic Mouse and Gaming Mouse.

Question 2.
Explain input devices of a computer?
Input Devices:
Keyboard : Keyboard (wired / wireless, virtual) is the most common input device used today. The individual keys for letters, numbers and special characters are collectively known as character keys. This keyboard layout is derived from the keyboard of original typewriter.

Mouse:
Mouse (wired/wireless) is a pointing device used to control the movement of the cursor on the display screen.

Types of Mouses:

1. Mechanical Mouse
2. Optical Mouse.
3. Laser Mouse

Scanner : Scanners are used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory. This device works like a Xerox machine. The scanner converts any type of printed or written information including photographs into a digital format, which can be manipulated by the computer.

Track Ball : Track ball is similar to the upside – down design of the mouse. The user moves the ball directly, while the device itself remains stationary. The user spins the ball in various directions to navigate the screen movements.

Retinal Scanner : This performs a retinal scan which is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person’s retinal blood vessels.

Light Pen : A light pen is a pointing device shaped like a pen and is connected to a monitor. The tip of the light pen contains a light-sensitive element which detects the light from the screen enabling the computer to identify the location of the pen on the screen. Light pens have the advantage of ‘drawing’ directly onto the screen, but this becomes hard to use, and is also not accurate.

Optical Character Reader : It is a device which detects characters printed or written on a paper with OCR, a user can scan a page from a book. The Computer will recognize the characters in the page as letters and punctuation marks and stores. The Scanned document can be edited using a word processor.

Bar Code / QR Code Reader : A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

QR (Quick Response) Code: The QR code is the two dimensional bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image

Voice Input Systems: The microphone serves as a voice Input device. It captures the voice data and sends it to the Computer. Using the microphone along with speech recognition software can offer a completely new approach to input information into the Computer.

Digital Camera: It captures images/videos directly in the digital form. It uses a CCD (Charge Coupled Device) electronic chip. When light falls on the chip through the lens, it converts light rays into digital format.

Touch Screen: A touch screen is a display device that allows the user to interact with a computer by using the finger. It can be quite useful as an alternative to a mouse or keyboard for navigating a Graphical User Interface (GUI). Touch screens are used on a wide variety of devices such as computers, laptops, monitors, smartphones, tablets, cash registers, and information kiosks. Some touch screens use a grid of infrared beams to sense the presence of a finger instead of utilizing touch-sensitive input.

Keyer: A Keyer is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches. Modem keyers have a large number of switches but not as many as a full-size keyboard. Typically, this number is between 4 and 50.

Question 3.
Explain briefly about non-impact printers.
Answer:
These printers do not use striking mechanism for printing. They use electrostatic or laser technology. Quality and speed of these printers are better than Impact printers. Ex: Laser printers and Inkjet printers.

Laser Printers :
Laser printers mostly work with similar technology used by photocopiers. It makes a laser beam scan back and forth across a drum inside the printer, building up a pattern. It can produce very good quality of graphic images. One of the chief characteristics of laser printer is their resolution – how many Dots per inch (DPI). The available resolution range around 1200 dpi. Approximately it can print 100 pages per minute (PPM).

Inkjet Printers:
Inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionized ink on a sheet of paper. The speed of Inkjet printers generaly range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute).
They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles or by using piezoelectricity in which tiny electric currents controlled by electronic circuits are used inside the printer to spread ink in jet speed) An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 8 Multi-National Corporations (MNCs) Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 8 Multi-National Corporations (MNCs)

11th Commerce Guide Multi-National Corporations (MNCs) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A Multinational Corporation can bedefined as a firm which …………….
a) is beyond the control of any government
b) is one of the top 200 firms in the world
c) owns companies in more than one country
d) All the above
Answer:
c) owns companies in more than one country

Question 2.
Centralised control in MNC’s implies control exercised by ………………
a) Branches
b) Subsidiaries
c) Headquarters
d) Parliament
Answer:
c) Headquarters

Question 3.
Enterprises operating in several countries but managed from one country is termed as ………………….
a) Government company
b) Multinational Company
c) Private company
d) Joint Venture
Answer:
b) Multinational Company

Question 4.
Dispersal of decision making power tobranches/affihiates/subsidiaries by head office represents ………..
a) Centralisation
b) Decentralisation
c) Power
d) Integration
Answer:
b) Decentralisation

Question 5.
Coca-Cola Company is an example of ………………
a) MNC
b) Government company
C) Joint Venture
d) Public company
Answer:
a) MNC

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Multinational Company.
Answer:
“A multinational corporation owns and manages the business in two or more countries.” – Neil H. Jacoby

Question 2.
Write any two advantages of MNC.
Answer:

1. End of Local Monopolies
2. Quality product

Question 3.
Give two examples of MNC.
Answer:

1. Coca – Cola Corporation
2. Unilever

Question 4.
Name the type of business enterprise which operates in more than one country.
Answer:
Multi-National Corporation can be operated in more than one country.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages of MNC’s?
Answer:
1. Low-Cost Labour:
MNC set up their facilities in low-cost countries and produce goods/services at a lower cost. It gains a cost advantage and sells its products and services of good quality at low cost.

2. Quality Products:
The resource, experience, and expertise of MNCs in the sphere of research and development enables the host country to establish its research and development system which helps it in producing quality goods and services at the least possible cost.

3. Proper Use of Idle Resources:
Because of their advanced technical knowledge, MNCs are in a position to properly utilise the idle physical and human resources of the host country. This results in an increase in the National Income of the host country.

4. Improvement in Balance of Payment Position:
MNCs help the host countries to increase their exports. As such, they help the host country to improve upon its Balance of Payment position.

5. Technical Development:
MNCs carry the advantages of technical development to hosting countries. In fact, MNCs are a vehicle for the transference of technical development from one country to another. Because of MNCs poor host countries also begin to develop technically.

Question 2.
What are the disadvantages of MNC’s?
Answer:

• Domestic Industries cannot face the challenges posed by MNCs.
• It does not give any benefit to poor people.
• It creates a danger to Independence.
• There is a chance of careless exploitation of natural resources.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are all the Advantages, of MNC?
Answer:
1. Low-Cost Labour:
MNC set up their facilities in low-cost countries and produce goods/services at a lower cost. It gains a cost advantage and sells its products and services of good quality at low cost. This is not available to smaller companies which operate at the regional level.

2. Quality Products:
The resource, experience, and expertise of MNCs in the sphere of research and development enables the host country to establish its research and development system which helps it in producing quality goods and services at the least possible cost.

3. Proper Use of Idle Resources:
Because of their advanced technical knowledge, MNCs are in a position to properly utilise the idle physical and human resources of the host country. This results in an increase in the National Income of the host country.

4. Improvement in Balance of Payment Position MNCs help the host countries to increase their exports. As such, they help the host country to improve upon its Balance of Payment position.

5.Technical Development:
MNCs carry the advantages of technical development in 10 host countries. In fact, MNCs are a vehicle for the transference of technical development from one country to another. Because of MNCs poor host countries also begin to develop technically.

6. Managerial Development
MNCs employ the latest management techniques. People employed by MNCs do a lot of research in management. In a way, they help to professionalize management along the latest lines of management theory and practice. This leads to managerial development in host countries.

7. Promotion of international brotherhood and culture MNCs integrate economies of various nations with the world economy. Through their international dealings, MNCs promote international brotherhood and culture; and pave way for world peace and prosperity.

Question 2.
What are all the Disadvantages of MNC?
Answer:
The danger for Domestic Industries
MNCs, because of their vast economic power, pose a danger to domestic industries; which are still in the process of development. Domestic industries cannot face challenges posed by MNCs. Many domestic industries have to wind up, as a result of threats from MNCs. Thus MNCs give a setback to the economic growth of host countries.

Transfer of Outdated Technology
Where MNCs transfer outdated technology to the host nation, it serves no purpose

No Benefit to Poor People
MNCs produce only those things, which are used by the rich. Therefore, poor people of host countries do not get, generally, any benefit, out of MNCs.

Danger to Independence
Initially MNCs help the Government of the host country, in a number of ways; and then gradually start interfering in the political affairs of the host country. There is, then, an implicit danger to the independence of the host country, in the long-run. Deprivation of Job Opportunity of Local People MNCs may not generate job opportunities for the people of their home country.

Misuse of Mighty Status
MNCs are powerful economic entities. They

Selfish Promotion of Alien Culture
MNCs tend to promote alien culture in the host country to sell their products. They make people forget about their own cultural heritage. In India, e.g. MNCs have created a taste for synthetic food, soft drinks, etc. This promotion of foreign culture by MNCs is injurious to the health of people also.

Neglect of Industrial and Economic Growth of Home Country
An investment in host countries is more profitable, MNCs may neglect home countries’ industrial and economic development.