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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 4 Human Rights and UNO Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Human Rights and UNO

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Human Rights and UNO Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

1. After the Second World War ……………….. has taken several measures to protect the human rights.
a) UNO
b) Supreme Court
c) International Court of Justice
d) none
Answer:
a) UNO

2. In 1995 women from all over the world gathered at ………………..
a) Beijing
b) New York c) Delhi
d) none
Answer:
a) Beijing

3. The National Human Rights Commission was constituted in ………………..
a) 1990
b) 1993 c) 1978
d) 1979
Answer:
b) 1993

4. The UNO declared 1979 as the International year of ………………..
a) Girl Child b) Children c) women
d) none
Answer:
b) Children

5. When is Human Rights Day observed?
a) 9th December
b) 10th December .
c) 11th December
d) 12th December
Answer:
b) 10th December

6. Which one is known as modern International Magna Carta of Human rights?
a) UDHRC
b) NHRC
c) SHRC
d) International year for women
Answer:
a) UDHRC

7. Who can be appointed as the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
a) Retired judge of high court
b) Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court,
c) Any person appointed by the President.
d) Retired Chief Judge of any court.
Answer:
c) Any person appointed by the President

8. How many articles does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights contain?
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
Answer:
b) 30

9. What is the tenure of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
a) 5 years or upto 62 years of age
b) 5 years or upto 65 years of age
c) 6 years or upto 65 years of age
d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age
Answer:
d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age

10. Where is the headquarters of the National Human Rights Commission?
a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Ahmedabad
d) Kolkata
Answer:
a) New Delhi

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Each individual has ……………….. to lead a dignified life.
Answer:
the right

2. Human Rights are ……………….. rights.
Answer:
basic

3. The State Human Rights commission was formed on ………………..
Answer:
17th April 1997

4. Article 24 of Indian Constitution prohibits ………………..
Answer:
Child Labour

5. United Nations Organisation was established in the year ………………..
Answer:
24th October,; 1945

III. Match the Following

1. Eleanor Roosevelt	a) world’s first charter of human rights
2. The Cyrus Cylinder	b)1997
3. Eve Teasing Act	c) freedom from slavery
4. Child help line	d) Human Rights Commission
5. Civil right	e) right to vote
6. Political right	f) 1098

Answer:

1. Eleanor Roosevelt	d) Human Rights Commission
2. The Cyrus Cylinder	a) world’s first charter of human rights
3. Eve Teasing Act	b) 1997
4. Child helpline	f) 1098
5. Civil right	c) freedom from slavery
6. Political right	e) right to vote

IV. State true or false.

1. Human rights and civil rights are the same.
Answer:
False

2. Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was proclaimed in India.
Answer:
True

3. The Human Right Act of 1993 provides the creation of National Human Rights Commission.
Answer:
True

4. National Human Rights Commission has empowered to give punishment to the victims.
Answer:
False

5. Human Rights Commission was empowered to setup commission for the promotion of Human rights
at National and State level. ,
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.

1. Find the wrong statement
a) National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body.
b) National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body.
c) National Human Rights Commission is an independent body.
d) National Human Rights Commission is a multilateral institution.
Answer:
b) National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body

2. Which of the following statement is not correct about the National Human Rights Commission?
a) It was established in 1993.
b) In the cases of human rights violation, the Commission has no rights to punish the culprit.
c) The Chairperson and members are of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court of India.
d) The Commission Sends its annual report to the Central Government and State Governments.
Answer:
c) The Chairperson and members are of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court of India.

3. Assertion : Human Rights day is observed on 1 Oth December.
Reason : It commemorates Eleanor RooseveTs birthday.
a) A is correct but R does not explain A
b) A is correct but R explains A
c) A and R are correct
d) A and R are Wrong
Answer:
a) A is correct but R does not explain A

4. Consider the following statements
1. The State Human Rights commission is a multi-member body.
2. The State Human Rights Commission consists of a chairperson and three members. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
Answer:
b) 2 only

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. What are Human Rights?
Answer:

• Human Rights are rights inherent to all human beings regardless of race, sex, nationality, ethnicity, language, and religion.
• Human rights include freedom from slavery and torture, freedom of opinion, and education.

2. Bring out the importance of UDHR.
Answer:

• UDHR has been translated into more than 500 languages.
• In the world it is the most translated document.
• It describes all men are bom free and all are equal in status and right.
• It promote the spirit of brotherhood.

3. What does Article 45 of Indian Constitution provide?
Answer:
It provides that the state shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

4. Write about Right to Education Act.
Answer:
Article 21A provides that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged six to fourteen years.

5. State any three legislations passed to safeguard the welfare of women.
Answer:

• The Hindu Marriage Act 1955 – States that the marriageable age for women is 21.
• The Eve Teasing Act 1997 – Gives relief to women.
• The Factory Act 1948 – Protects the women workers.

6. Mention some of the political rights.
Answer:
It includes the freedom of expression, and peaceful assembly, the right to take part in the government of one’s country, the right to vote, the freedom of speech and obtain information.

7. Name the five primary categories of Human Rights.
Answer:
i) Civil Rights
ii) Political Rights
iii) Social Rights
iv) Economic Rights
v) Cultural Rights.

VII. Answer the following.in detail.

1. Distinguish between Human rights and Civil rights.
Answer:

Human rights	Civil Rights
Human rights belong to everyone, everywhere, regardless of nationality, sexuality, gender, race, religion or age.	Civil rights are those rights that one enjoys by virtue of citizenship in a particular nation or state.
Human rights are considered universal to all human beings and universal in all countries.	Civil rights vary greatly from country to the country’s or government to government. It is related to the Constitution.
No nation may rightfully deprive human rights to an individual.	Different nations can grant or deny different civil rights and liberties.
Human rights are basic rights inherent with birth.	Civil rights are creation of the society.

2. Describe any five basic characteristics of Human rights. Basic characteristics of Human Rights:
Answer:

• Inherent – They are not granted by any person or authority.
• Fundamental – They are fundamental rights because without them, the life and dignity of man will be meaningless.
• Inalienable – They cannot be taken away from the individual.
• Indivisible – They can’t be denied even when other rights have already been enjoyed .
• Universal – They are universal. They apply irrespective of one’s origin or status. They are enforceable.

3. What are the measures taken by the government to protect the children?
Answer:
The government has take some measures to protect the children from all kinds of exploitation and abuses. There are lows in India to Protecting the rights of the children.
i) Right to Education Act – Article 21 A.
ii) Child labour Act – Prohibition and Regulation Act 1986
iii) The Juvenile Justice Act 2000- Care and Protection of Children
iv) POCSO Act 2012 – Protection of Children from Sexual abuses
v) 1098 Childline – 24 hours emergency phone service for children.

VIII. Hots.

1. To whom does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights apply? Why is it important to you?

• Because these are based on dignity, justice, and equality.
• They are endowed with intelligence and concience and obliged to promote the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all men.
• Universal Declaration of Human Rights is applicable for all men and women in the world without any discrimination.
• So it is very important.

IX. Project and Activity

1. Make a list of 10 rights that you enjoy, and the responsibilities that you have.
Answer:
Rights:
Article 14 – Equality before law.
Article 17 – Abolition of untouchability.
Article 20 – Freedom of speech, assembly movement, residence and profession.
Article 23 – Prohibition traffic human being and forced labour.
Article 28 – Prohibition of employment of Children in factories etc.
Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs
Article 27 – Freedom from payments of taxes for promotion for any religion.
Article 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain education institution.
Article 29 – Protection of languages, script and culture of minorities.
Article 31 – It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

Responsibilities:

1. Tolerate all religions.
2. Do not hurt others.
3. To protect the environment.
4. Respect the elders.
5. Follow the rules of government.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Human Rights and UNO Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. The Magna Carta of England released in the year ………………..
a) 1214
b) 1215
c) 1216
d) 1217
Answer:
b) 1215

2. A document of France Stating the Rights of all citizens declared in the year ………………..
a) 1789
b) 1790
c) 1791
d) 1792
Answer:
a) 1789

3. The US Constitution and Bill of Rights declared in the year ………………..
a) 1768
b) 1769
c) 1790
d) 1791
Answer:
d) 1791

4. UNO has declared the year ……………….. as the international year of women.
a) 1970
b) 1978
c) 1979
d) 1980
Answer:
b) 1978

5. The ……………….. is considered as an important national asset.
a) Resources
b) Education
c) Child
d) Welfare
Answer:
c) child

6. The Juvenile Justice Act implemented in the year ………………..
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2010
d) 2012
Answer:
a) 2000

7. The marriageable age for women is ………………..
a) 20
b) 21
c) 18
d) 22
Answer:
c) 18

8. The ……………….. appoints the chairperson and other members of National Human Rights
Commission.
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Chief Minister
d) Vice – President
Answer:
a) President

9. UDHR has been translated into more than ……………….. languages.
a) 500
b) 510
c) 600
d) 610
Answer:
a) 500

10. National Human Rights Commission has ……………….. divisions.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Answer:
b) 5

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. An act for the better Securing liberty of the subject in England is ………………..
Answer:
The Habeas Corpus Act 1679

2. UNO was established on 24th October of ………………..
Answer:
1945

3. ……………….. is a milestone document in the history of Human rights.
Answer:
UDHR

4. ……………….. the first king of ancient persia, free the slaves.
Answer:
Cyrus the Great

5. The decrees were recorded on a baked clay cylinder in the ……………….. language in ……………….. Script.
Answer:
Akkadian, Cuneiform

6. ……………….. is the most translated document in the world.
Answer:
UDHR

7. ……………….. is known as modem International Magna carta.
Answer:
UDHR

8. ……………….. provides for children to develop in a healthy manner.
Answer:
Article 39(f)

9. Child helpline number is ………………..
Answer:
1098

10. An International bill of rights of women adopted in the year ………………..
Answer:
1979

11. UNIFEM has worked since ……………….. to implement the Beijing Platform for Action.
Answer:
1995

12. In ……………….. the ……………….. world conference of Women held in Beijing.
Answer:
1995, Fourth

13. ……………….. Protects the women workers.
Answer:
The factory Act

14. ……………….. rights are creations of the Society.
Answer:
Civii

15. ……………….. and ……………….. rights are human rights.
Answer:
Women and girl’s

III. Match the following.

1. The Factory Act	a) 1952
2. The Plantation Labour Act	b) 1961
3. The Mines Act	c) 1948
4. The Maternity benefit Act	d) 2005
5. Domestic violence Act	e) 1951

Answer:

1. The Factory Act	c)1948
2. The Plantation Labour Act	e) 1951
3. The Mines Act	a) 1952
4. The Maternity benefit Act	b) 1961
5. Domestic violence Act	d) 2005

State true or false:

1. UNO has declared 1980 as the International Year of Children.
Answer:
False

2. The Act not ensures the right to women to inherit their parental property.
Answer:
False

3. A set of basic right and freedoms has deep roots in European and American countries.
Answer:
True

4. Cyrus the Great, the first king of ancient persia, free the slaves.
Answer:
True

5. Child help line number is 109.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer;

1. 1) The Hindu Widow Remarriage Act 1856 Legalised widow remarriage.
2) The Hindu Successian Act 1956 ensures the right to women to inherit their parental property.
3) The plantation Labour Act protects the men workers.
4) The Factory Act 1998, protects the women workers,
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 2 are correct
d) None of these
Answer:
c) 1 and 2 are correct

2. Assertion: One of the greatest achievements of United Nations is the creation of human rights law.
Reason : To advance this goal, the UN established a commision on Human Rights, a) A is correct but R does not explain A
b) A is correct but R explains A
c) A and R are correct
d) A and R are Wrong
Answer:
c) A and R are correct

3. Consider the following statements
1. UNO has declared 1978 as International year of women.
2. UNO has declared 1979 as the International year of children.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both a and b d) None
Answer:
c) Both a and b

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Define the Preamble of UDHR.
Answer:

• All men are bom free and all are equal in status and rights.
• They are endowed with intelligence and conscience and obliged to promote the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all men..

2. Why December 10th is celebrated as Human Rights Day?
Answer:

• Human Rights Day is celebrated annually on 10th December every year.
• It is to honour the United Nations General Assembly for declaring the human rights universally..

3. Explain about The Cyrus Cylinder’.
Answer:

• Cyrus the Great, the first king of ancient Persia, free the slaves and declared that all people had the right to choose their own religion and established racial equality.
• These and other decrees were recorded on a baked clay cylinder in the Akkadian language in cuneiform script
• It is translated into all six official languages of the United Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

4. Write short note on ‘State Human Rights Commission.
Answer:

• The State Human Rights Commission of Tamil Nadu was formed on 17th April, 1997.
• It functions at the state level. It consists of three members including a Chairperson.
• A state Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights related to subjects
  covered under State list and Concurrent list. .

5. Write three Non- govermental Organisations.
Answer:
Amnesty International, Children’s Defense Fund, Human Rights Watch.

6. What are the Indian Constitution Articles for children?
Answer:

• Article 24 – prohibits child labour.
• Article 39(f) – provides for children to develop in healthy manner.
• Article 45 – provides that the state shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

7. Write Short notes on Welfare of parents and Senior citizen Act?
Answer:

• This Act makes it legal obligation for children and heirs to provide maintenance to senior citizens and parents. Protection and support during old age are envisaged as human rights.
  8. What are the Legislations to protect women rights?
• The Factory Act 1948
• The Plantation Labour Act 1951
• ‘ The Mines Act 1952
• The Maternity benefit Act 1961

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Explain about the written Precursors of Human Rights Documents.
Answer:

• The Magna Carta of 1215 (England) – gave people new rights and made the king subject to the law.
• The Petition of Right 1628 (England) – set out the rights of the people.
• The Habeas Corpus Act of 1679 (England) – an act for the better securing liberty of the subject.
• The English Bill of Rights of 1689 – set out certain basic civil rights.
• The French Declaration on the Rights of Man and Citizen 1789 – a document of France, stating that all citizens are equal under the law.
• The US Constitution and Bill of Rights 1791 – safeguards the rights of the citizens..

2. Explain about National Human Rights Commission.
Answer:

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12th October, 1993. It is an independent statutory, and non-constitutional body.
• Its headquarter is located in New Delhi. NHRC is a multi- member body which consists of a Chairperson and other members.
• The President appoints the Chairperson and other members.
• They are appointed for 5 years or till the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
• NHRC has five divisions. Law Division, Investigation Division, Policy Research & Programmes Division, Training Division and Administrative Division.
  < The National Human Rights Commission is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India.

3. Write an essay about women Rights.
Answer:

• Women and girl’s rights are human rights.
• Women are entitled to the full and equal enjoyment of all of their human rights and to be free from all forms of discrimination.
• This is fundamental to achieve human rights, peace and security and sustainable development.
• The Charter of the United Nations guarantees equal rights to both women and men.
• The Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), adopted in 1979 by the UN General Assembly, is described as an International bill of rights for women.
• In 1995 the Fourth World Conference of Women, held in Beijing, developed a Platform for Action to * recognise women’s rights and improve women’s livelihood worldwide.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 3 Understanding Secularism Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Understanding Secularism

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Understanding Secularism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer.

1. Secularism means
a) State is against to all religions
b) State accepts only one religion
c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful co-existence on the part of citizen belonging any religion
d) None of these
Answer:
c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful coexistence on the part of citizen belonging any religion

2. India is a land of
a) multi-religious faith
b) multi-cultural beliefs
c) Both(l)&(2)
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both (1) & (2)

3. The Preamble of the Constitution was amended in
a) 1951
b) 1976
c) 1974
d) 1967
Answer:
b) 1976

4. Which one of the following describes India as a secular state?
a) Fundamental Rights b) Fundamental Duty
c) Directive Principles of State Policy d) Preamble of the Constitution
Answer:
d) Preamble of the Constitution

5. Right to freedom of religion is related to
a) Judiciary b) Parliament
c) Directive principles of State Policy d) Fundamental rights
Answer:
d) Fundamental rights

6. According to Article 28, which type of education is restricted in state-aided educational institutions?
a) Religious instruction b) Moral education
c) Physical education d) None of the above
Answer:
a) religious instruction

7. The country will be considered as a secular country, if it
a) gives importance to a particular religion.
b) bans religious instructions in the state-aided educational institutions.
c) does not give importance to a particular religion.
d) bans the propagation of any religious belief.
Answer:
c) does not give importance to a particular religion

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Religion does not teach us ……………..
Answer:
animosity

2. Secularism is a part of democracy which grants ………………
Answer:
equal rights

3. …………….. is a lack of belief in god and gods.
Answer:
Atheism

4. The basic aim of our constitution is to promote …………….. and ………………
Answer:
unity & integrity

5. Article 15 …………….. prohibits on the grounds of religion, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Answer:
discrimination

III. Match the following

Column I	Column II
1. Atheism	a) coined the word secularism
2. Children	b) social reformer
3. Din-i-Illahi	c) lack of belief in god
4. Constitution	d) future citizen
5. Holyoake	e) Divine faith
6. Rajaram Mohan Roy	f) 1950

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Atheism	c) lack of belief in god
2. Children	d) future citizen
3. Din-i-Illahi	e) Divine faith
4. Constitution	f) 1950
5. Holyoake	a) coined the word secularism
6. Rajaram Mohan Roy	b) social reformer

IV. State true or false.

1. There is a state religion in India.
Answer:
False

2. The term secularism has been derived from the Greek word.
Answer:
False

3. The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration. Answer:
True

4. Jainism originated in China. –
Answer:
False

5. Government of India declares holidays for all religious festivals.
Answer:
True

V, Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.

1. i) Secularism is invaluable for a society like India which is characterized by religious diversity.
ii) The word secularism was not mentioned in the Constitution when it was adopted in 1950.
iii) Article 26 deals with payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
iv) Akbar’s tomb situated at Sikandara near Agra.
a) i, ii only
b) ii, iii only
c) iv only
d) i, ii, and iv only
Answer:
d) i, ii, iv only

2. Assertion (A): A foreigner can practice his own religious faith in India.
Reason (R): The freedom of religion is guaranteed by the constitution not only for Indians but
also for the aliens also.
a) A is true but R is false.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) A is false but R is true.
d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

3. Assertion (A): Secularism is invaluable in India.
Reason (R): India is a multi-religious and multi-cultural country.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct. ‘
d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. Find out the wrong pair.
Answer:
a) Din-i-lllahi – A book
b) Khajuraho – Hindu temple
c) Ashoka – Rock Edict
d) Iqbal – Poet
Answer:
a) Din-i-Allahi – A book

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Name some of the Indians who contributed to the spreading of secularism.
Answer:

1. Rajaram Mohan Roy
2. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
3. Rabindranath Tagore
4. Mahatma Gandhi and
5. B.R. Ambedkar

2. What does secularism mean?
Answer:
Secularism means an attitude of tolerance towards other religions and the peaceful co-existence of citizens belonging to different faiths.

3. State the objectives of secularism.
Answer:
Objectives of Secularism:

1. One religious group does not dominate another.
2. Some members don’t dominate other members of the same religious community.
3. The state does not enforce any specific religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals.

4. Why is it important to separate religion from the state?
Answer:

• Because there is no state religion in India.
• The state will neither establish a religion of its own nor confer any special patronage upon any particular religion.

5. What are the characteristic features of a secular state?
Answer:

• Principle of Liberty – The state permits the practice of any religion
• Principle of Equality – The state does not give preference to any religion over another.
• Principle of Neutrality – The state remains neutral in religious matters.

6. Mention any three constitutional provisions related to secularism?
Answer:

• Article 15 – prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth, etc.,
• Article 16 – equality of opportunity in public employment.
• Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Why we need secular education?
Secular education is needed

• to remove narrow mindedness and makes dynamic and enlightened view;
• to develop moral and humanistic outlook;
• to train the youth to be a good citizen;
• to strengthen democratic values like liberty, equality, and fraternity, and co-operative living;
• to give a wider vision towards life;
• to develop an attitude of appreciation and understanding of others point of view;
• to develop the spirit of love, tolerance, co-operation, equality, and sympathy;
• to synthesize materialism and spiritualism.

2. Secularism is necessary for a country like India. Justify.

• Yes, Secularism necessary because India is a land of multi-cultural beliefs. ’
• It is the birthplace of four major religions.
  • Hinduism
  • Jainism
  • Buddhism
  • Sikhism
• The main concept of secularism is aimed at creating a society in which people with religious beliefs or people who do not belong to any religion can live together in harmony and peace.

VIII. HOTS

1. Will the Government intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practice human sacrifice?
Answer:
The government will definitely intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practice in infanticide, Ample reason can be given in support of the answer. No religion teaches us to kill any living being, kindness is the root of all religions. Even the law of our country also declares that killing a human being is illegal. It is also against human rights.

IX. Project and Activity.

1. Look at the holidays of your school calendar. How many of them pertain to different religions? List them based on religions. What does it indicate?
June 5 – Ramzan
Sep. 2 – Ganesh Chaturthi
Dec. 25 – Christmas
It indicates we had so many religion and given as government holidays for the religious ceremonies.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Understanding Secularism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Which article provides a ban on discrimination in State-aided educational institution.
a) Article-19
b) Article – 20
c) Article – 29 (2)
d) Article-16
Answer:
b) Article – 29 (2)

2. Which article provides equality of opportunity in public employment.
a) Article – 15
b) Article – 16
c) Article – 17
d) Article – 18
Answer:
b) Article -16

3. Which article guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to process practice, and Propagate religion individually.
a) Article – 25 (1)
b) Article – 29 (2)
c) Article – 28
d) Article – 27
Answer:
a) Article -25(1)

4 is the State Permits the practice of any religion.
a) Liberty
b) Equality
c) Neutrality
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Liberty

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The term Secularism is derived from the Latin word
Answer:
Saeculum

2 coined the term Secularism.
Answer:
George Jacob Holyoake

3. The statement ‘We are Indians and India is our home* illustrated by
Answer:
Poet Iqbal

4 states the Secularism of Ashoka.
Answer:
12th Rock Edict

5. The policy of Akbar which states that ’Peace and harmony among religions’ termed as
Answer:
Sulh-e-kul

6. The freedom of religion is not confined to its citizen alone but extends to aliens also which is pointed in 1954 case.
Islam and Hinduism.
Answer:
Akbar

9. India is the birthplace of four major religions …, and
Answer:
Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism, and Sikhism

10. Secularism is the part of
Answer:
Indian Constitution

11. The State will not accord any
Answer:
Preferential treatment any of them.

12. provides the freedom to manage religious affairs.
Answer:
Article 26

13. Secular education needs to train the
Answer:
Youth to be good citizen.

III. Match the following

1. Secularism	a) is a lack of belief in god and gods
2. Atheism	b) Prohibition of religion, caste, sex
3. Article – 15	c) equlity of opportunity in Public employment
4. Article -16	d) ban on discrimination is State-aided Educational Institutions
5. Article – 29 (2)	e) tolerance towards other religions

Answer:

1. Secularism	e) tolerance towards other religions
2. Atheism	a) is a lack of belief in god and gods
3. Article – 15	b) Prohibition of religion, caste, sex
4. Article -16	c) equlity of opportunity in Public employment
5. Article – 29(2)	d) ban on discrimination is State-aided Educational Institutions

IV. State true or false

1. The Secular Indian State declares Public Holidays to mark the festivals of all religions.
Answer:
True

2. Article 15 gives equality of opportunity in public employment.
Answer:
False

3. The Mughal emperor Akbar does not follow the policy of religious toleration.
Answer:
False

4. State Permits the practice of any religion.
Answer:
True

5. Secularism is not the part of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.

1. i) Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
ii) Article 16 – equality of opportunity in public employment.
iii) Article 28 – The State shall not compel any citizen to promote of any particular religion.
iv) Article 29 (2) – A ban discrimination in State-aided educational institution,
a) i, ii only b) ii, iii only
c) iv only d) i, ii and iv only
Answer:
d) i, ii, iv only

2. Assertion: There is no state religion in India.
Reason: The State will neither establish a religion of its own new confer any patronage upon any particular religion.
a) A is true but R is false.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) A is false but R is true.
d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. Write Short notes on – 12th Rock Edict of Ashoka.

• Emperor Ashoka was the first great emperor to announce as early as 3rd century BC (BCE) that the state would not prosecute any religious sect.
• In his 12th Rock Edict, Ashoka made an appeal not only for the tolerance of all religious sects but also to develop a spirit of great respect towards them.

2. How Akbar followed religious toleration?

• The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration.
• His propagation of Din-i-Illahi (Divine Faith) and Sulh-e-Kul (Peace and harmony among religions) were advocated for religious toleration.

3. What is the importance of the Khajuraho temple?

A 19th-century Hindu temple in Khajuraho, India incorporates a Hindu spire, a Jain cupola, a Buddhist stupa, and Muslim style dome in place of the usual shikara.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Explain the characteristic features of a secular state.
Answer:

1. A secular state is the one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion as the country’s official religion and every religion is treated equally.
2. It gives to every citizen not only the equal right to freedom of conscience but also the right to process practice, and propagate any faith of their own choice.
3. The state observes an attitude of neutrally and impartiality towards all religions.
4. In a secular state, no one is given preferential treatment and the state does not discriminate any person on the basis of their religious practices and beliefs.
5. All citizens are eligible to enter government service irrespective of their faith.
6. There should be absolutely no religious instructions in educational institutions and no taxes to support any particular religion.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 2 Citizens and Citizenship Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Citizens and Citizenship

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Citizens and Citizenship Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
a) Birth
b) acquiring property
c) descent
d) naturalization
Answer:
b) acquiring property

2. _____________ of the Constitution of India deals with Citizenship.
a) Part II
b) Part II Article 5-11
c) Part II Article 5-6
d) Part I Article 5-11
Answer:
b) Part II Article 5-11

3. Who is called the first citizen of India?
a) The Prime Minister
b) The President
c) The Chief Minister
d) The Chief Justice of India
Answer:
b) The President

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. of a state enjoy full civil and political rights.
Answer:
Citizen

2. Our Indian Constitution provides for only citizenship.
Answer:
One

3. An Indian citizen who is residing outside India and holds an Indian passport are called
Answer:
Non-Resident Indian

4. All have a right and responsibility to citizens.
Answer:
Civic

5 is an idea enabling young people to access and participate in shaping modem society.
Answer:
Global Citizenship

III. State true or false.

1. the USA has a single citizenship.
Answer:
False

2. OCI cardholder has voting rights in India.
Answer:
False

3. Citizens of India can enjoy Fundamental Rights guaranteed by our constitution.
Answer:
True

4. Nationality can be change and citizenship can not be changed.
Answer:
False

IV. Consider the following statements. Tick the appropriate answer:

1. Indian Citizen of a person can be terminated if
a) a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.
b) a person who has become a citizen through registration.
c) the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.
d) a citizen who is by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during the war.

a) I and II are correct.
b) I and III are correct
c) I, III, IV are correct.
d) I, II, III are correct.
Answer:
d) I, il, ill are correct.

2. Assertion: When Pondicherry becomes a part of India in 1962, the people who lived there became Indian citizens.
Reason: It was done by one of the provisions of the Act of 1955 – by incorporation of Territory.
a) R is the correct explanation of A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following in one or two sentences

1. Name the types of citizens
Answer:
There are two types of citizens, Natural and Naturalised citizens.

1. Natural citizens: are the citizens by birth.
2. Naturalised citizens: are the one who acquires citizenship.

2. What are the Rights that a citizen can enjoy in our country?
Answer:

• Fundamental Rights
• Right to vote in the election to Lok Sabha and the state Legislature.
• Right to become a Member of Parliament and State Legislature.

3. Mention any three qualities of a good citizen.
Answer:

1. Loyalty to the Constitution.
2. Obeys laws.
3. Contributes to society and community and performs civic duty.
4. Quality of goodness and justice.
5. Respecting diversity.

4. Name the five ways of acquiring citizenship
Answer:

• By Birth
• By Descent
• By Registration
• By Naturalisation
• By incorporation of Territory

5. What do you know about the citizenship Act of 1955?
Answer:
This act is to provide for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship. The citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship. They are by birth, descent, registration, naturalisation, and incorporation of territory.

VI. Answer the following

1. On what grounds that the citizenship of a person is cancelled?
Answer:
1. Renunciation:
(is a voluntary act) when a person after acquiring the citizenship of another country gives up his/her Indian citizenship.

2. Termination:
(takes place by operation of law) When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country; he/she automatically ceases to be an Indian citizen.

3. Deprivation:
(is a compulsory termination) Citizenship is derived on the basis of an order of the Government of India in cases involving the acquisition of Indian citizenship by fraud, false representation, or being disloyal to the Constitution.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Citizens and Citizenship Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. The word citizen is derived from the ………………… word.
a) English
b) Greek
c) Latin
d) German
Answer:
c) Latin

2. In 1962 ………………… became a part of India
a) Nepal
b) Srilanka
c) Pondicherry
d) Bangladesh
Answer:
c) Pondicherry

3. ………………… country has dual citizenship.
a) Canada
b) Switzerland
c) Australia
d) the UK
Answer:
b) Switzerland

4. ………………… are citizens by birth.
a) Natural Citizens
b) Naturalised citizens
c) Artificial Citizens
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Natural citizens

5. The citizenship act of 1955 prescribes ………………… ways of acquires citizenship.
a) Three
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Ten
Answer:
b) Five

6. A person who has married a citizen in India and he is Ordinarily resident in India for ………………… years.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
Answer:
c) 7

7. An Indian citizen who is residing outside India is called as …………………
a) NRI
b) PIO
c) OCI
d) VRS
Answer:
a) NRI

8. The Government of India issued the Citizenship order in …………………
a) 1960
b) 1961
c) 1962
d) 1965
Answer:
c) 1962

9. ………………… is granted to an individual by the government of the country.
a) Nationality
b) Citizenship
c) Religionship
d) Vetics
Answer:
b) Citizenship

10. ………………… Amendment of our constitution a set of fundamental duties for all citizens.
a) 38
b) 40
c) 41
d) 42
Answer:
d) 42

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………… is the study of government and duties of the citizens.
Answer:
Civics

2. ………………… of a person cannot be changed.
Answer:
Nationality

3. Indian Citizen Act passed in the year …………………
Answer:
1955

4. ………………… of 1955 provides for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship.
Answer:
Indian Citizenship Act

5. The knowledge of 22 languages specified in the Schedule ………………… of the constitution.
Answer:
Eighth

6. By a citizen of any country, renounce the citizenship of that country got …………………
Answer:
Naturalisation

7. Dual citizenship has given in …………………
Answer:
USA

8. A foreign citizen of Indian origin getting ………………… card.
Answer:
Overseas Citizen of India

9. The arrival of Mahatma Gandhi in India from South Africa on …………………
Answer:
January 5

10. Overseas Indian’s Day is celebrated on …………………
Answer:
January 9

III. State true or false:

1. Overseas Indian’s Day is celebrated on the 1st of January.
Answer:
False

2. Nationality of a person cannot be changed but citizenship can be changed.
Answer:
True

3. A Naturalised citizenship granted to a person if he is not a citizen of any country.
Answer:
True

4. India will get citizenship by Registration.
Answer:
False

IV. Consider the following statements. Tick the appropriate answer:

1. The Constitution of India Prescribes three ways of losing citizenship.
2. Part III of the Constitution of India Prescribes loss of citizenship.
3. A person can change Nationality.
4. A person cannot change citizenship.
Answer:
1) The Constitution of India Prescribes three ways of losing citizenship

2. Match

1.Non- Resident Indian	a) DCI
2. Person of Indian origin	b) NRI
3. Cardholder to live in India	c) PIO
4. A non-Citizen residing in a country	d) Immigrant
5. Granted to work Permanently in a country	e) Alien

Answer:

1. Non- Resident Indian	b) NRI
2. Person of Indian origin	c) PIO
3. Cardholder to live in India	a) DCI
4. A non-Citizen residing in a country	e) Alien
5. Granted to work Permanently in a country	d) Immigrant

V. Answer the following.

1. What is citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status given to the citizens which provides them the right to legally live in a country as long as they want.

2. What is Nationality?
Answer:

• Nationality is the status of belonging to a particular nation by origin, birth basically, it’s an ethnic and racial concept.
• Nationality of a person cannot be changed.

3. Explain the Single Citizenship of India.
Answer:
In India, all citizens irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country.

4. Person of Indian Origin – Explain.
Answer:

• A person whose any ancestors was Indian nationals and who is presently holding another country’s citizenship. (other than Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Afghanistan. China and Nepal).
• The PIO scheme was rescinded from 09-01 -2015.

5. Explain Global Citizenship.
Answer:

• Global citizenship is an idea that everyone, no matter where they live is part of a worldwide community rather than as the citizen of a particular nation or place.
• All people have rights and civic responsibilities.

6. Explain – Overseas Indian’s Day.
Answer:

• Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Sponsored by the Ministry of External Affairs of the Government of India is celebrated once every two years, to “mark the contributions of Overseas Indian Community in the development of India”.
• The day (January 9) commemorates the arrival of Mahatma Gandhi in India from South Africa.

VI. Answer the following.

1. Explain the Acquisition of citizenship by Descent.
Answer:

• A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
• A person born in India on or after st July 1987 is considered a citizen of India only if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
• Those born in India on or after 3rd December 2004 are considered citizens of India or one of whose parents is a citizen of India and the other is not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 1 How the State Government Works Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 How the State Government Works

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science How the State Government Works Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by
a) President
b) Vice President
c) Prime Minister
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
a) President

2. The State Council Ministers is headed by
a) The Governor
b) Chief Minister
c) Speaker
d) Home Minister
Answer:
b) Chief Minister

3. Who can summon and prorogue the sessions of the State legislature?
a) Home Minister
b) President
c) Speaker
d) The Governor
Answer:
d) Governor

4. Who does not participate in the appointment of the High Court Judge?
a) Governor
b) Chief Minister
c) Chief Justice of the High Court
d) President of India
Answer:
b) Chief Minister

5. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is
a) 62
b) 64
c) 65
d) 58
Answer:
a) 62

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. ……………. States are there in India at present.
Answer:
29

2. The tenure of the Governor is normally ……………. years.
Answer:
Five

3. The District Judges are appointed by …………….
Answer:
The Governor

4. The Governor is the ……………. Head of the State.
Answer:
Real

5. Minimum age to become an MLA is ……………. years.
Answer:
25

III. Match the Following

1.Governor	a) Lower House
2. Chief Minister	b) Nominal Head
3. Legislative Assembly	c) Upper House
4. Legislative Council	d) Real Head

Answer:

1. Governor	b) Nominal Head
2. Chief Minister	d) Real Head
3. Legislative Assembly	a) Lower House
4. Legislative Council	c) Upper House

IV. State true or false:

1. Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State.
Answer:
True

2. The Governor nominates two members of the Anglo- Indian Community to the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
False

3. The number of judges in the High Courts is not uniform and fixed.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement

1. The State Legislative Assembly participates in the election of
(i) President
(ii) Vice-President
(iii) Rajya Sabha Members
(iv) Members of Legislative Council of the State
a) i, ii & iii are correct
b) i and iii are correct
c) i, iii, & iv are correct
d) i, ii, iii, & iv are correct
Answer:
d) i, ii, iii, & iv are correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. Name the two houses of the State legislature?
Answer:
The State Legislature consists of the Governor and one or two houses. The upper house is called the Legislative Council while the lower house is called the Legislative Assembly.

2. Write the qualifications of the members of the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:

• A person has to be at least 25 years old to contest in the election.
• Even if a person does not belong to any political party, he can contest the election and such a candidate is called an independent candidate.

3. How is the Chief Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister. He is the head of the State Council of Ministers.

4. How is the Council of Ministers formed?
Answer:

• In Tamil Nadu, there are 234 legislative constituencies.
• The party with more than 118 elected candidates (MLA) are invited by the governor to form the Government.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Discuss the powers and functions of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Powers and functions:

1. The Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State. All major decisions of the State Government are taken under his leadership.

2. The Chief Minister plays an important role in the formation of the Council of Ministers. On the advice of the Chief Minister, the Governor appoints the other Ministers.

3. The Chief Minister supervises the activities of different ministries and advises them accordingly. He also coordinates the activities of different ministries.

4. The Chief Minister plays an important role in making policies of the State Government ensuring public interest. His voice is final in the policy decisions of the State Government.

5. The Governor appoints different higher officials of the State Government on the advice of the Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers.

2. Discuss the powers and functions of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The Lower house is called the Legislative Assembly.
Legislative Assembly:

• The people who make the laws of a state government are called ‘Members of the Legislative Assembly’ (MLA).
• MLAs are chosen from different constituencies.
• For the election of MLA’s the entire State is divided into different constituencies
• One MLA is chosen from each legislative constituency to represent the Legislative Assembly.

Election:

• Different political parties compete in the election by nominating candidates from each constituency.
• One person can stand in more than one constituency at the same time.
• Every party has its own symbol.
• People who are above the age of 18 can cast a vote in the legislative assembly election.
• The meetings of the Assembly are presided over by the Speaker and in his absence, the Deputy Speaker conducts its meetings.

3. Write about the powers and functions of the High Court.
Answer:
1. The High Court has been empowered to issue writs of Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights and for other purposes.

2. Every High Court has a general power of superintendence over all the lower courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction.

3. If a case is pending before a subordinate court and the High Court is satisfied that it involves a substantial question of the constitutional law, it can take up the case and decide it itself.

4. The High Court controls all the subordinate courts in the State.

5. Like the Supreme Court, the High Court also acts as a Court of Record.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science How the State Government Works Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

1. ………………… is a permanent house of the state legislative.
a) Lok Sabha
b) Legislative assembly
c) Legislative council
d) RajyaSabha
Answer:
c) Legislative council

2. ………………… is the eligible age to cast a vote.
a) 30
b) 25
c) 21
d) 18
Answer:
d) 18

3. ………………… cannot remove the governor from his post.
a) Prime minister
b) State Government
c) Supreme court
d) President
Answer:
State Government

4. Who presides over The Assembly by meeting?
a) Governor
b) Chief minister
c) Speaker
d) Law minister
Answer:
c) Speaker

5. If the chief minister is not a member of the state Legislative, he must be so within a period of ………………… month.
Answer:
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 10

6. ………………… stands at the apex of the State Judiciary.
a) District court
b) High court
c) Mobile court
d) Family court
Answer:
b) High court

7. The marriage age for a woman is …………………
a) 16
b) 18
c) 21
d) 23
Answer:
b) 18

8. Only ………………… states in India have a legislative council.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 16
Answer:
c) 6

9. A Judge of the high court must have at least ………………… years of experience as an advocate.
a) 10
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
Answer:
a) 10

10. Who plays an important role in making appointments for the state Governments?
a) Governor
b) Chief minister
c) Central Minister
d) MLAs
Answer:
b) Chief minister

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The two sets of the government of India are …………………, …………………
Answer:
Central government, State government

2. There are ………………… state Governments in our country.
Answer:
29

3.  ………………… is a chief executive in a state.
Answer:
Governor

4. The age of Governor completed ………………… years.
Answer:
35

5. President impose emergency in the state through ………………… article.
Answer:
356

6. ………………… acts as the chancellor of State Universities.
Answer:
Governor

7. State laws derived by …………………
Answer:
members of the legislative assembly

8. There are ………………… constituency in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
234

9. The leader of the majority party in the election is chosen as …………………
Answer:
chief minister

10. The legislative assembly meets ………………… times in a year
Answer:
2 or 3

11. The ………………… has control over the state council of ministers.
Answer:
assembly

12. ………………… is the job of the state’s council of ministers
Answer:
Executing

13. The legislative assembly of TamilNadu is located at …………………
Answer:
Chennai

14. The High court stands as the match of the …………………
Answer:
State Judiciary

15. The Chief Justice was appointed by …………………
Answer:
President

III. Match the Following

1. Lower house member	a) 30 years
2. Upper house member	b) 21 years
3. Voting age limit	c) 62 years
4. Men’s marriage age	d) 18 years
5. Retirement age of high court Justice	e) 25 years

Answer:

1. Lower house member	e) 25 years
2. Upper house member	a) 30 years
3. Voting age limit	d) 18 years
4. Men’s marriage age	b) 21 years
5. Retirement age of high court Justice	c) 62 years

IV. State true or false

1. The state governor appoints the chief justice of the high court.
Answer:
False

2. Executing laws is the job of the state’s council of ministers
Answer:
True

3. The Governor can nominate two members from the Anglo Indian community.
Answer:
False

4. The party which got majority seats in the election forms the government.
Answer:
True

5. Two houses of state legislature is present in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements. Tick the appropriate answer:

1. The Governor maintaining the relationship between the central government and the state government.
2. Court act as an agent of the central government.
3. The Governor is the Nominal Executive in a State.
4. Chief minister is the head of the state council of Ministers.
a) 1 and 2 c) 2,4
Answer:
d) 3, 4 correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

1. How the Governor was appointed?
Answer:

• The Constitution provides for the post of the Governor as the head of a state in India.
• He is appointed by the president of India.

2. Who are the Members of the Legislative assembly?
Answer:

• The people who make the laws of a state government are called ‘Members of the Legislative Assembly’
  (MLA).
• MLAs are chosen from different constituencies. For the election of MLAs, the entire state is divided into different constituencies.

3. What are the legislative constitution?
Answer:

• For the election of MLAs, the entire state is divided into different constituencies.
• These constituencies are called the legislative constituencies. One legislative constituency may have one lakh or even more people.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

1. Discuss the powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:

• The Governor is the Chief Executive in a state.
• All the executive powers of the state are vested upon him and decisions is taken in his name.
• He appoints the chief minister and council of ministers.
• The President imposes an emergency in a state under Article 356 on the basis of the Governor.
• The Governor also acts as the Chancellor of state universities.
• Money bills can be introduced in the state Legislative Assembly only with the approval of the Governor.
• The annual budget of the state Government inlaid before the legislature with the approval of the

2. How a bill becomes an Act – Explain the states.
Answer:

• A Bill is presented in the Legislative Assembly.
• Debates and discussions take place on it.
• Changes can be made in the Bill.
• If more than half of the MLAs vote in favour of the Bill, it is said to be passed.
• The Bill to get the assent of the Governor to become an Act.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 8 Status of Women in India through the Ages Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 8 Status of Women in India through the Ages

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Status of Women in India through the Ages Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Society is constantly changing with additions, assimilations and omissions from within and outside.
a) Human
b) Animal
c) Forest
d) Nature
Answer:
a) Human

2. The First women doctor in India was
a) Dharmambal
b) Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
c) Moovalur Ramamirdham
d) Panditha Ramabai
Answer:
b) Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar

3. The practice of sati was abolished in.
a) 1827
b) 1828
c) 1829
d) 1830
Answer:
c) 1829

4. B.M Malabari was a
a) teacher
b) doctor
c) lawyer
d) journalist
Answer:
d) journalist

5. Which of the following was/were the reform movement(s)?
a) Brahma Samaj
b) Prarthana Samaj E
c) Arya Sama
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

6. The Bethune school was founded in by J.E.D. Bethune.
a) 1848
b) 1849
c) 1850
d) 1851
Answer:
b) 1849

7. Which commission recommended to start primary schools for girls in 1882 ?
a) Wood’s
b) Welby
c) Hunter
d) Muddiman
Answer:
c) Hunter

8. Sarada’s child Marriage Bill fixing the minimum marriageable age for girls at.
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
Answer:
d) 14

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. ……………. society was set up by the Christian missionaries in 1819.
Answer:
Alath Pemal Juvenile

2. ……………. of Sivaganga fought bravely against the British.
Ans: Velu nachiyar

3. Servants of India Society was started by ……………..
Answer:
Gopal Krishna Gokhale

4. ……………. was one of the greatest social reformers of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Periyar

5. Kandukuri Veeresalingam published a journal called …………….
Answer:
Vivekavardhini

III. Match the following.

1 Theosophical society	a) Italian traveler
2. Sarada Sadan	b) Social evil
3. Wood’s Despatch	c) Annie Besant
4. Niccolo Conti	d) Pandita Rama Bhai
5. Dowry	e) 1854

Answer:

1. Theosophical society	c) Annie Besant
2. Sarada Sadan	d) Pandita Rama Bhai
3. Wood’s Despatch	e)1854
4. Niccolo Conti	a) Italian traveler
5. Dowry	b) Social evil

IV. State True or False.
1. Women were honoured in Rig Vedic period.
Answer:
True

2. Devadasi system was a social evil.
Answer:
True

3. Raja Rammohan Roy, was the pioneer of the Indian social reform movement.
Answer:
True

4. Reservation of 23 percent to women envisaged an improvement in the socio-political status of women.
Answer:
False

5. The age of marriage was raised for boys and girls by the Sharda Act of 1930.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement.
1. Find out the correct pair.
a) Women’s University – Prof. D.K. Karve
b) Justice Ranade – Arya Samaj
c) Widow Remarriage Act – 1855
d) Rani Lakshmi Bhai – Delhi
Answer:
a) Women’s University – Prof. D.K. Karve

2. Find the odd one out.
a) Child marriage
b) Sati
c) Devadasi system
d) widow remarriage
Answer:
d) widow remarriage

3. Consider the following Statements
i) Begum Hazarat Mahal, Rani Lakshmi Bhai of Jhansi led an armed revolt against the British
ii) Velunachiyar of Sivaganga, Tamil Nadu fought bravely against the British
Which of the statement (s) given above is/or correct?
a) i only
b) ii only
c) i and ii
d) neither i nor ii
Answer:
c) i and ii

4. Assertion: Raja Rammohan Roy is most remembered by all Indians
Reason: He wiped out the evil practice of Sati from the Indian Society
i) A and R are wrong
ii) A is correct and R is Wrong
iii) A is correct and R explains A
iv) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
iii) A is correct and R explains A

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. Name the prominent leaders who fought for the upliftment of women.
Answer:
During the British Raj, many socio-religious reformers like Raja Rammohan Roy, Dayananda Saraswathi, Keshab Chandra Sen, Iswara Chandra Vidya Sagar, Pandita Ramabai, Dr. Muthulakshmi, Jyoti Rao Phule, Periyar E.V.R, Dr. Dharmambal were the prominent leaders who fought for the upliftment of women.

2. List out some social evils?
Answer:
Female infanticide, female foeticide, Child marriage, Sati, and Devadasi system.

3 Who were the notable women during the medieval period?
Answer:
Some of the notable women during the medieval period were Razia sultana, Queen Durgavati, Chand bibi, Nurjahan, Jahan nara, Jijabai, and Mira bai.

4. Mention the important women freedom fighters of India?
Answer:
Vellunachiyar of Sivaganga, Begum Hazarat Mahal, Rani Lakshmi Bhai of Jhansi.

5. Give a note on Sati.
Answer:

1. Sati was a social evil that prevailed in Indian Society especially among the Rajputs.
2. The feudal society of the time encouraged “sati” which meant self-immolation of the widow on the funeral pyre of her husband.
3. Earlier it was a voluntary act but later by the relatives forced the widow to sit on the funeral pyre.

VII. Answer the following.
1. Trace the role of women in the freedom struggle.
Answer:

• The spread of female education led to several other social reforms of great consequences, such as the abolition of the purdah system, participation of women in the freedom struggle.
•  In the early anti-colonial Struggle women played major roles in various capacities,
• Velunachiyar of Sivaganga fought violently against the British and restored her rule in Sivaganga.
•  Begum Hazrat Mahal, Rani Lakshmi Bhai of Jhansi led an armed revolt of 1857* against the British.
• In the freedom struggle, thousands of women came out of their homes, boycotted foreign goods, marched in processions, defied laws, received lathi charges, and Courted jails.

2. Explain the contribution of Social reformers to the eradication of social evils.
Answer:

• The Social reformers have contributed more for the eradication of social evils.
• Raja RamMohan Roy with the help of William Bentinck abolished Sati in 1829. Sati was declared illegal and punishable by law.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar founded several girl’s schools and promoted widow remarriage and polygamy was abolished.
• Kandukuri Veeresalingam opened his first girl’s schools in 1874.
• M. G Ranade promoted widow remarriage and B.M Malabari abolished Child marriage.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale worked for the spread of female education.
• Periyar E.V.R advocated women education and widow remarriage.
• Many women reformers also contributed to eradicate social evils.

3. Give a detailed account of the Impact of the reform movement?
Answer:

• Significant advances were made in the field of emancipation of women.
• It created of national awakening among the masses.
• It created the feeling of sacrifice, service and rationalism.
• The practice of sati and infanticide were made illegal.
• It permitted widow remarriage.
• The following legislations have enhanced the status of women in matters of marriage adoption and inheritance.

Legislation Provisions:

• Bengal regulation of XXI, 1804 – Female infanticide was declared illegal
• Regulation of XVII, 1829 – Practice of sat was declared illegal
• Hindus Widow’s Remarriage Act, 1856 – It permitted widow remarriage
• The Native Marriage Act, 1872 – The Child Marriage was prohibited
• The Sharda Act, 1930 – The age of marriage was raised for boys and girls
• Devadasi Abolition Act, 1947 – It abolished the Devadasi system

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Status of Women in India through the Ages Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. The National Commission for women was set up on January ………………… .
a) 1992
b) 1990
c) 1991
d) 1999
Answer:
a) 1992

2. The Madras Devadasi Act was enacted on ………………… .
a) 9th Oct 1947
b) 9th Oct 1950
c) 9th Sep 1947
d) 9th Sep 1950
Answer:
a) 9th Oct 1947

3. When was the Native Marriage Act passed?
a) 1885
b) 1930
c) 1872
d) 1804
Answer:
c) 1872

4. Who raised a voice against the Devadasi system along with Dr. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar?
a) Dr. S. Dharmabal
b) Rukumani
c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
d) Moovalur Ramamirdham Ammaiyar
Answer:
d) Moovalur Ramamirdham Ammaiyar

5. Sati became popular during the ………………….
a) later Vedic period
b) Medieval period
c) Modem period
d) None of these
Answer:
a) later Vedic period

6. The Indian women’s university was started in ………………… by Prof. D. K Karve
a) 1990
b) 1966
c) 1916
d) 1918
Answer:
c) 1916

7. ………………… is also an in human practice which cuts across the caste, creed, class and regional boundaries,
a) Female foeticide
b) Sati
c) Female infanticide
d) Child marriage
Ans: a) Female foeticide

8. Raja Rammohan Roy published his tracts in
a) 1818-20
b) 1820-25
c) 1855 – 85
d) 1750-57
Answer:
a) 1818 – 20

9. The Child Marriage was prohibited in
a) 1827
b) 1872
c) 1882
d) 1772
Answer:
b) 1872

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. ………………. despatch an education in 1854 laid a great stress on need for female education.
Answer:
Charles Wood

2. The word Devadasi means ………………..
Answer:
Servant of God

3. The Theosophical Society was established at Chennai by ………………..
Answer:
Dr. Annie Besant

4. The National Commission for women was set up on ………………. .
Answer:
January 1992

5. The monogamy was in practice but among the ………………. was prevalent.
Answer:
rich polygamy

6. Among the Rajputs of Rajasthan, the ………………. was practiced
Answer:
Jauhar

7. ………………. established a number of female schools in Poona.
Answer:
D.K. Karve

8. ………………. was started in Delhi.
Answer:
Lady Harding Medical College

9. Female infanticide was afflicting the ………………. century Indian society.
Answer:
nineteenth

10. Akbar prohibited ………………..
Answer:
child marriage

11. ………………. the pioneer of Indian social reform movement.
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy

12. ………………. set an example to others by marrying a widow of his choice.
Answer:
Narayana Chandra

13. The spread of ………………. led to several other social reforms.
Answer:
female education

14. ………………. was another reformer who was very much influenced by the ideas of Periyar.
Answer:
Dr. S. Dharmambal

15. The native Marriage Act was passed in ………………..
Answer:
1872

III. Match the following.

1. Female Infanticide	a) 1947
2. Sati	b) 1872
3. Widow remarriage	c) 1829
4. Child Marriage	d)1856
5. Devadasi System	e) 1804

Answer:

1. Female Infanticide	e) 1804
2. Sati	c) 1829
3. Widow remarriage	d)1856
4. Child Marriage	b) 1872
5. Devadasi System	a) 1947

IV. State True or False.
1. E. V Ramasamy was instrumental in passing the Devadasi abolition Bill
Answer:
True

2. The minimum marriageable age for a girl was only 18 years in 1846
Answer:
False

3. Niccolo Conti, who visited Vijayanagar was a French traveler.
Answer:
False

4. Female infanticide was declared illegal
Answer:
True

5. Female Foeticide was afflicting the 19th Century, Hindi Society.
Answer:
False

V. Choose the correct statement.
1. i) Mughal ruler Akbar attempted to abolish sati.
ii) Raja Rammohan Roy’s efforts led to the abolition of sati in 1829.
iii) Periyar E.V.R, crusade for the improvement in the condition of widows, led to the passing of Widow Remarriage Act in 1856.
a) i only
b) i and ii
c) ii and iii
d) iii only
Answer:
b) i and ii

2. Find the odd one out.
a) Begum Hazrat Mahal
b) Rani Lakshmi Bhai of Jhansi
c) Velunachiyar
d) Dr. S. Dharmambal
Answer:
d) Dr. S. Dharmambal

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. State the condition of women in the Later Vedic age.
Answer:

• The age witnessed a development in it by restricting the role of women in social life.
• Sati was popular Patriarchial system became rigid. Women were denied to study scriptures.

2. What does the term female foeticide mean?
Answer:

• It is an inhuman practise which cuts across the caste, creed, dan and regional boundaries.
• In order to ban the female foeticide and sex – determination the central government passed various acts.

3. Write a short note on Madras Devadasi Act.
Answer:

• The Madras Devadasi Act was a law that was enacted on 9th Dec 1947.
• It gave legal right to marry and made it illegal to dedicate girls to temples.

4. Write a note on Jauhar.
Answer:
Jawhar refers to the practice of collective voluntary immolation by wives and daughters of defeated Rajput warriors, in order to avoid capture and dishonour.

5. What is the role of Akbar in Child marriage?
Answer:
Akbar prohibited child marriage and made it obligatory for the parents to obtain the approval of both male and female before marriage for which girls age was 14 and boys 16.

VII. Answer the following.
1. State the role of women in Independent India?
Answer:

• Women of independent India participated in all activities such as education, politics, medical culture, service sector, science and technology.
• The Constitution of India guarantees equal opportunity and equal pay for equal work.
• The National policy for empowerment of women was passed under the National policy of education, a new programme was launched called Mahila Samakhya which empowered women.
• Reservation of 33 % of women in the socio-political status of women.

2. State the position of women in British period.
Answer:

• Numerous individuals reform societies and religious organisations worked hard to spread education among women, to encourage widow remarriage, to improve the living conditions of widows, to prevent marriage of young children, to bring women out of the Purdah, to enforce monogamy.
• To enable middle-class women to take up professions or public employment.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 7 Urban Changes During the British Period Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 Urban Changes During the British Period

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Urban Changes During the British Period Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Ancient town are
a) Harappa and Mohenjadaro
b) Delhi and Hyderabad
c) Bombay and Calcutta
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Harappa and Mohenjadaro

2. Coastal towns developed by the British were
a) Surat
b) Goa
c) Bombay
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

3. A new trend of urbanisation began in the latter half of 19th century as a result of
a) Opening of Suez Canal
b) Introduction of steam navigation
c) Construction of railways
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

4. The British arrived India for
a) for trading
b) for preaching their religion
c) for working
d) for ruling
Answer:
a) for trading

5. Fort St. George was constructed by the British in
a) Bombay
b) Cuddalore
c) Madras
d) Calcutta
Answer:
c) Madras

6. Which of the following port was the East India Company’s principal settlement until 1774?
a) Fort William
b) Fort St. David
c) Fort St. George
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Fort St. George

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The network of railroads in India was introduced in ……………. .
Answer:
1853

2. ……………. rightly regarded as the Father of Local Self – Government in India.
Answer:
Lord Ripon

3. The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced ……………. in the provinces.
Answer:
Dyarchy

4. ……………. was responsible for the formation of the corporation.
Answer:
Sis Josiah child

5. Francis Day and Andrew Cogan got permission to establish a factory cum trading post at Madrasapatnam in …………….
Answer:
1639

III. Match the following.

1. Bombay	a) Religious centres
2. Cantonment towns	b) Hill stations
3. Kedamath	c) Ancient town
4. Darjeeling	d) Seven islands
5. Madurai	e) Kanpur

Answer:

1. Bombay	d) Seven islands
2. Cantonment towns	e) Kanpur
3. Kedamath	a) Religious centres
4. Darjeeling	b) Hill stations
5. Madurai	c) Ancient town

IV. State true or false.
1. Towns flourished since pre-historic times in India.
Answer:
True

2. British acquired political control after the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
True

3. Fort William is in Madras.
Answer:
False

4. Army people began to live in cantonments.
Answer:
True

5. Madras was officially renamed as Chennai in 1998.
Answer:
False

V. Choose the correct statement.
1. Assertion : India became the agricultural colony of Britain.
Reason : The one-way free trade policy followed by British and the Industrial revolution destroyed Indian indigenous industries.
a) A is correct and R is Wrong
b) A is wrong and R is Correct
c) A is correct and R explains A
d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
c) A is correct and R explains A

2. Which of the following statements) is/are not true?
i) Srirangarayalu gave the English the grant of Madrasapatnam.
ii) Day and Cogan were jointly responsible for the construction of Fort St. George.
iii) In 1969 the state of Madras was rechristened as Tamil Nadu

a) i only
b) i and ii
c) ii and iii
d) iii only
Answer:
c) ii and iii

3. Assertion: British built up their alternative capitals in hilly areas.
Reason: They found the Indian summer inhospitable.
a) A is correct and R is Wrong
b) A is wrong and R is Correct
c) A is correct and R explains A
d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
c) A is correct and R explains A

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What is an urban area?
Answer:
An urban area is one that has a high population density engaged in occupations other than food production, living in a highly built environment.

2. Hilly areas were distinctive features of colonial urban development. Why?
Answer:
Hilly areas were few and had a small population and were often visited for specific purposes.

3. Name the three Presidency cities?
Answer:
In the late 18th century Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras rose as Presidency cities.

4. State any four reasons for the new trend of urbanization in the 19,h century.
Answer:

• Opening of Suez Canal
• Introduction of steam navigation
• Banking
• Shipping and insurance

5. Write a short note on Cantonment towns.
Answer:

• Since the British needed strong military camps and established the cantonment towns.
• Army people began to live in these places and gradually they were grown up in a city.
• E.g. Kanpur and Lahore.

6. What were the regions covered in the Madras presidency during the British regime?
Answer:
Modem day Tamilnadu, the Lakshwadeep island, Northern Kerala, Rayalaseema, Coastal Andhra, Districts of Karnataka, and various districts of southern Odisha.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Describe colonial urban development.
Answer:
(i) Port cities:

• The British arrived in India for trading. Madras, Calcutta, and Bombay became the important ports. They played important role in trade. These cities became prominent commercial areas with tall European – styled buildings.
• Fort St. George in Madras and Fort St. William in Calcutta were the best examples.

(ii) Cantonment towns:

• The British occupied the Indian territory and political power by their military force. So they needed strong military camps and established the cantonments
• For e.g, Kanpur, Lahore.

(iii) Hill Stations:

• Hill stations were distinctive features of colonial urban development. Although Hill stations were not unknown, prior to their founding by the British in India, they were few and had a small population, and were often visited for a specific purpose.
• For e.g. Srinagar was a Mughal recreational centre, Kedamath and Badrinath were Hindu religious Centres.

(iv) Railway towns:

• Railway towns were also a type of urban settlements and were established in 1853 after the introduction of railways by the British.
• By the nature of railway transport, all the towns were located on the plains.

2. Trace the origin and growth of Madras.
Answer:

• The English East India Company was started in 1600.
• When famine struck Masulipatnam English looked for a new site.
• Francis Day chose Madrasapatnam in 1637 and set up factory.
• In 1639 the deed was signed by Francis Day and Andrew Cogan to establish a factory aim trading port and fortified it and called fort St. George.
• Fort St. George was called the white town and the nearby villages were called Black town which was collectively called Madras.

3. India became an agricultural colony of Britain. How?
Answer:

1. In the beginning, the policies of the British proved harmful to the process of urbanisation.
2. Later the economic policies followed by the British led to the rapid transformation of India’s economy into a colonial economy and the development of cities.
3. The one-way free trade predominance of British, Indian manufacturing industries was destroyed.
4. There was a sudden collapse of the urban handicrafts industry.
5. Towns and cities long famed for their specialized products gazed continually shrinking market.
6. The manufacturing towns lost their previous importance.
7. The industrial revolution, high import duties, and other restrictions imposed on the import of Indian goods into Britain and Europe led to the decline of Indian industries.
8. Thus, India became the agricultural colony of Britians.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Urban Changes During the British Period Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. ……………….. was an alternative capital for Calcutta.
a) Dehradun
b) Darjeeling
c) Shimla
d) Bombay
Answer:
b) Darjeeling

2. ……………….. was founded during the Gurkha war.
a) Dehradun
b) Delhi
c) Shimla
d) Bombay
Answer:
c) Shimla

3. ……………….. established municipal administration in the three presidency towns.
a) The Character Act of 1793
b) The Character Act of 1773
c) The Character Act of 1813
d) The Character Act of 1833
Answer:
a) The Character Act of 1793

4. The English East India Company was started in AD.
a) 1600
b) 1500
c) 1556
d) 1608
Answer:
a) 1600

5. ……………….. is the power centre of the Tamilnadu state government.
a) Fort St. George
b) Fort St. William
c) Fort St. David
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Fort St. George

6. The white and Black towns were collectively called …………………
a) Madras
b) Delhi
c) Shimla
d) Bombay
Answer:
a) Madras

7. Madras was the East India Companys principal settlement until …………………
a) 1664
b) 1774
c) 1556
d) 1600
Answer:
b) 1774

8. A town or district that has local government is …………………
a) Municipality
b) corporation
c) Panchayat
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Muncipality

9. The chief of the Masulipatnam factor,
a) Andrew cogon
b) Francis
c) David
d) Jar
Answer:
a) Andrew Cogan

10. Making of Chennai in the year …………………
a) 1640
b) 1641
c) 1638
d) 1639
Answer:
1639

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The introduction of the railways resulted in the diversion of …………………
Answer:
trade routes

2. The Presidency cities were earlier ……………….. Villages.
Answer:
fishing and wearing

3. The port cities became prominent commercial areas with fall ……………….. buildings.
Answer:
European – styled

4. The ……………….. were an entirely new kind of urban centre.
Answer:
containment

5. ……………….. was a Mughal recreational centre.
Answer:
Srinagar

6. ……………….. and ……………….. were Hindu religious centres.
Answer:
Kedarnath, Badrinath

7. ……………….. was an alternative capital for Calcutta.
Ans: Darjeeling

8. ……………….. was an alternative for Delhi.
Answer:
Dehradun

9. ……………….. was founded during the ……………….. war.
Answer:
Simla, Gurkha

10. The chief of the Armagon factors was ……………….. .
Answer:
Francis Day

11. The Government of India 1935 introduced …………………
Answer:
Provincial Autonomy

12. The official interpreter of chandragiri was …………………
Answer:
Beri Thimmappa

13. ……………….. was well protected from monsoon winds.
Answer:
Masulipatnam .. f

14. In 1690, the English merchants founded a settlement at …………………
Answer:
Sultanate

15. Srirangarayalu issued a new grant to English in 1645 called …………………
Answer:
Srirangarayapatnam

III. Match the Following.

1. Cantonment towns	a)1853
2. Port cities	b) Headquarters of principalities
3. Hill stations	c) Military forces
4. Medieval towns	d) Colonial urban development
5. Railway towns	e) European-styled

Answer:

1. Cantonment towns	c) Military forces
2. Port cities	e) European-styled
3. Hill stations	d) Colonial urban development
4. Medieval towns	b) Headquarters of Principalities
5. Railway towns	a) 1853

IV. True or False.
1. Dalhousie Square in Chennai was close to the commercial area.
Answer:
False

2. Dyarchy is a Government by two independent authorities.
Answer:
True

3. Bombay was initially six islands.
Ans: False

4. The company established Fort William at Calcutta.
Answer:
True

5. Chennai was once a group of villages.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement.
1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true?
i) Harappa, Mohenjadaro, Varanasi, Allahabad, and Madurai are well- known modem towns.
ii) Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra, and Nagpur are fort city or port city.
iii) Three main cities are – Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkatta as the administrative headquarters and trading centres.
a) i only
b) i and ii
c) ii and iii
d) iii only
Answer:
c) ii and iii

2. Assertion: The British occupied the Indian territory and political power by their military force.
Reason: They needed strong military camps and established the cantonments.
a) A is correct and R is Wrong
b) A is wrong and R is correct
c) A is correct and R explains A
d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
c) A is correct and R explains A

3. i) Bombay was initially seven islands. It was under the control of the Portuguese from 1534 onwards.
ii) Charles II of England King leased it to the East India Company.
iii) The English East India Company transferred its headquarters from Calcutta to Bombay, a) i only b) i and ii c) ii and iii d) iii only
Answer:
b) i and ii

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. Name a few ancient towns of India.
Answer:
Harappa, Mohenjadaro, Varanasi, Allahabad, and Madurai are the ancient towns of India.

2. What are the fort cities in the Medieval towns of India.
Answer:
Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra, and Nagpur.

3. Name the coastal town which was developed first.
Answer:
Surat, Daman, Goa, and Pondicherry were developed first.

4. Mention a few manufacturing towns which lost importance because of de – industralisation
Answer:
Dacca, Murshidabad, Surat, and Lucknow

5. What are Presidency cities?
Answer:
The Britishers divided colonial India for administrative purposes into three presidency cities. There are Calcutta, Bombay, Chennai.

6. How were Hill stations useful for the Britishers?
Answer:
It became strategic places for billeting troops, guarding frontiers, and launching campaigns.

7. What does the term ‘Sanatorioums’ mean?
Answer:
‘Sanatoriums’ are places for soldiers for rest and recovery from illness.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. What do you know about Bombay.
Answer:

• Bombay was initially seven islands that were under the Portuguese from 1534.
• Portuguese king gave Bombay as dowry to Charles II, in 1661. King gave to the company.
• The city began to grow when the company used it as its main port.
• In 1687 the company transferred its headquarters from Surat to Bombay.

2. How did Calcutta become a Presidency city in India?
Answer:

• In 1690, the English merchants founded a settlement at Sultanate.
• In 1698 they secured zamindari rights over Sutanuti, Calcutta, and Gobindpur.
• The Company established Fort William at Calcutta.
• Thus Calcutta became president with a Governor and Council to manage its affairs.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 5 Educational Development in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 5 Educational Development in India

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Educational Development in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. The word ‘Veda’ is derived from …………… .
a) Sanskrit
b) Latin
c) Prakrit
d) Pali
Answer:
a) Sanskrit

2. Which of the following was an important centre for the learning in the ancient period?
a) Gurukula
b) Viharas
c) Pali
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

3. Nalanda, the oldest university in India was located in …………… .
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Maharashtra
c) Bihar
d) Punjab
Answer:
c) Bihar

4. When did the UNESCO declare Takshashila as world heritage site?
a) 1970
b) 1975
c) 1980
d) 1985
Answer:
c) 1980

5. Which European country were the first to start Modern System of Education in India?
a) British
b) Danish
c) French
d) Portuguese
Answer:
d) Portuguese

6. Which of the following Charter Act made a provision for an annual grant one lakhs Rupees for the promotion of Education in India?
a) Charter Act of 1813
b) Charter Act of 1833
c) Charter Act of 1853
d) Charter Act of 1858
Answer:
a) Charter Act of 1813

7. Which of the following Commission recommended to constitute the University Grants Commission?
a) Sergeant Report, 1944
b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948
c) Kothari Commission, 1964
d) National Education Policy, 1968
Answer:
b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948

8. In which year the New Education Policy was introduced in India?
a) 1992
b) 2009
c) 1986
d) 1968
Answer:
c) 1986

II. Fill in blanks.
1. The word ‘Veda’ means …………… .
Answer:
Knowledge

2. Taxila ruins were discovered by …………… .
Answer:
Alexander Cunningham

3. …………… was the first ruler to establish a madrasa at Delhi.
Answer:
lltutmish

4. The New Education Policy was revised in …………… .
Answer:
1992

5. …………… is the primary vehicle for implementing the provisions of the Right to Education Act of (RTE) 2009.
Ans: Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)

6. Mid-day meal program was introduced in schools in
Answer:
1956

III. Match the following.

1. I – Tsing	a. Saraswathi mahal
2. Francis Xavier	b. Magna carta of Indian Education
3. Wood’s Despatch	c. Western Education in Madras
4. Sarafoji II	d. University at Kochin
5. Sir Thomas Munro	e. Chinese scholar

Answer:

1. I – Tsing	e. Chinese scholar
2. Francis Xavier	d. University at Kochin
3. Wood’s Despatch	b. Magna carta of Indian Education
4. Sarafoji II	a. Saraswathi mahal
5. Sir Thomas Munro	c. Western Education in Madras

IV. State True or False.
1. The writings of Charaka and Sushrutha were the sources of learning of medicine.
Answer:
True

2. Temples were the centers of learning and played an active role in the promotion of knowledge.
Answer:
True

3. The Jataka tales tell us that the kings and society took an active interest in promoting education.
Answer:
True

4. Women education in India was not prevalent during the medieval period.
Answer:
False

5. The RMS A scheme was implemented during tenth Five Year Plan.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.
1. i) The Nalanda University was founded in fifth century C.E
ii) In ancient India teachers had complete autonomy in all aspects from selection of students to designing their syllabi
iii) In ancient times the teacher was called Kanakkayar. iv) The famous college during the Chola period was Kandhalur salai.
a) i and ii are correct
b) ii and iv are correct
c) iii and iv are correct
d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
d) i, ii and iii are correct

2. Find out the Correct Pair
a) Maktabs – Secondary School
b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835 – English education
c) Operation Blackboard – Secondary Education Commission
d) Salabogam – Lands were given to temples
Answer:
b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835 – English education

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. Write about the importance of Gurukulas.
Answer:

1. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas Guru/Acharya.
2. Many of these Gurukulas were named after the sages. Situated in forests, in service and peaceful surroundings, hundreds of students used to learn together in Gurukulas.
3. This was known as the ‘Gurukula System’ of education.

2. Name the most notable universities that evolved in ancient India?
Answer:
The most notable universities are Taxila and Nalanda.

3. Write a short note on Taxila?
Answer:

1. Taxila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in north-western Pakistan.
2. It is an important archaeological site and the UNESCO declared it as a world heritage site in 1980.
3. Its fame rested on the university where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra.

4. Mention the education centres flourished in the Cholas period?
Answer:
Rajaraja Chaturvedi Mangalam was the famous seat of a Vedic college Tirubuvanai Vedic college Tiruvidaikkalai Library and Thiruvaduthurai a medical school

5. Expand SSA and RMSA.
Answer:

1. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
2. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)

6. What do you know about RTE.
Answer:
RTE (Right To Education) provides for free and compulsory education to all children from the age of 6 to 14 years.

VII. Answer the following.
1. What were the sources of education in ancient India?
Answer:
Education in Ancient India:

1. The historical Sources provide the information that from very early times, the tradition of teaching and learning had been in vogue in India.
2. The concept of Education might have originated from the Vedas.
3. The literal meaning of the Sanskrit word ‘Veda’ is knowledge and the word derived from the word Vid, which means ‘to know’.

Gurukula system in ancient India:

1. In ancient India, both formal and informal education existed.
2. There were people in homes, villages, and temples who guided young children in imbibing pious ways of life.
3. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas Guru / Acharya.

2. Write a paragraph about education under British rule?
Answer:
Education in British rule can be divided into four periods:

1. Before 1813: Charter of Act of 1813 grant a sum of 1 lakh rupees for the promotion of Indian education.
2. 1813 to 1853: Macaulay’s minutes of 1835. Higher education was de-orientalized encouraging English education for the upper classes.
3. 1854 to 1920: The Third phase of British influenced education may be called the period of an All India Educational Policy. It commenced with Sir Charles Wood’s Despatch in 1854.
4. 1921 to 1947: The fourth phase may be called the period of provincial autonomy.

3. Describe the National Policy on Education.
Answer:
1. The First National Educational Policy of 1968, marked a significant step in the history of education in post-independent India.

2. It aimed to promote national progress, culture, and to strengthen national integration.

3. In 1986, the Government of India introduced a New Education Policy.

4. The aim of New Education Policy (NEP) was to transfer a static society into a vibrant one with a commitment to development and change. It emphasized equal opportunities for marginalized – sections of the country and the removal of disparity through scholarships, adult education, and open universities, especially for rural India.

5. The New Education Policy called for a child-centered approach in primary education.

6. This policy launched the operation of Blackboard to improve primary schools nationwide.

7. The New Education Policy has revised again in 1992.

8. It envisaged the formulation of the National Curriculum Framework, emphasis on in-service education, improvement of facilities, and streamlining of the evaluation system at the secondary stage.

4. Give a detailed account of education under Cholas. Education under Cholas:
Answer:

• The Chola period was the most brilliant and creative period in Tamil literature.
• Tamil education enjoyed a greater connection with religion and temple.
• Inscription denotes the salary of a teacher, method of teaching, food provided to the students, and land given to the schools.
• Rajaraja Chaturvedi Mangalam was the famous seat of a Vedic college.
• Tiruvaduthurai inscription of Virarajendra refers to a medical school of this period.

VIII. HOTS
1. How does the flagship programme of SSA achieve Universal Elementary Education?
Answer:
The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is the Government of India’s flagship programme that was launched in 2000 – 01 to achieve Universal Elementary Education (UEE). SSA is now the primary vehicle for implementing the provisions of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (2009) (RTE). Right To Education (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to all children from the age of 6 to 14 years. The SSA initiates a variety of innovations and activities related to schools.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Educational Development in India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. The arrival of the English East India company in the year ……………….
a. 1600
b. 1610
c. 1620
d. 1630
Answer:
a) 1600

2 Elphinstone college located in ……………….
a. Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Goa
d. Kolkatta
Answer:
b) Mumbai

3. Wardha scheme of Education evolved by ……………… in 1937
a. Gandhiji
b. Nehru
c. Ambedkar
d. Dr.Radha Krishnan.
Answer:
a) Gandhiji

4. Dr.Middleton, started a missionary college at ……………….
a. Calcutta
b. Delhi
c. Chennai
d. Mumbai
Answer:
a) Calcutta

5. In schools all subjects were taught in Tamil from ……………….
a. 1937
b. 1938
c. 1939
d. 1940
Answer:
b) 1938

II. Fill in blanks.
1. The system of Students at an advanced stage of learning guided younger studied younger students known as ……………….
Answer:
Peer learning

2. The family of Guru acts as the ……………… or ……………….
Answer:
School, Ashram

3. Nalanda university located in ………………
Answer:
Rajgir

4. The Muslim Primary schools were called as ……………….
Answer:
Maktabs

5. Secondary schools, under Muslim rule were called as ……………….
Answer:
Madrasas

6. Iltutmish was the fist ruler to establish a madrasa at ……………….
Answer:
Delhi

7. Shahjahanabad Madrasa started by ………………
Answer:
Maulana

8. An education commission under the chairmanship of ……………… was appointed by the Government of India.
Answer:
Dr.S. Kothari

9. Francis Xavier, a ……………… started a university at Cochin.
Ans: Jesuit

10. The educational institution in Kanchi called……………….
Answer:
Ghatika

11. The Vedic College of the Chola period located at ……………….
Answer:
Ennayiram

12. …………… was established during the Nayak rule.
Answer:
Thinnappalli koodam

13. ……………. Chola inscription mentions a library.
Answer:
Tiruvidaikkalai

14. Tiruvidaikkalai inscription belongs to ……………… period.
Answer:
Virarajendra Chola

15. ……………… established the primary schools in Madurai during in Veerappa Nayak period.
Answer:
Fernandez

III. Match the following.

1. The wood’s Despatch	a. 1968
2. Education Commission	b.1975
3. First National Education policy	c.1854
4. Gandhi gram,Rural college	d.1956
5. Midday Meal Programme	e.1948

Answer:

1. The wood’s Despatch	a. 1854
2. Education Commission	b.1948
3. First National Education policy	c.1968
4. Gandhi gram Rural college	d.1975
5. Midday Meal Programme	e.1956

IV. State True or False.
1. Equable learning Programme is Samaria Siksha.
Answer:
True

2. Sir. Thomas Munro had a printing press with Devanagari Type
Answer:
False

3. The new Nalanda University is not envisaged as a centre of the inter-civilizational dialogue.
Answer:
False

4. In Gurukula system, the home of Guru used as the school.
Answer:
True

5. The Madras university was founded in 1854.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer.
1. Choose the correct statement:
1. History of education in British rule can be divided into 4 periods.
a. From the early days of the British rule upto 1813
b. Period from 1813-1853
c. Period from 1854-1920
d. Period from 1921-1947
a. i and iii correct
b. ii and iv correct
c. ii incorrect
d. All are correct
Answer:
d) AH are correct

2. Choose the correct pair:
1. 1834 – Western type education
2. 1855 – Woods Despatch
3. 1856 – Chennai university
4. 1882 – Local Boards Act
Answer:
4.1882 – Wood’s despatch

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. Write short notes at Nalanda University.
Answer:

• The ancient Naianda University was a centre of learning from the 5th century AD (CE) to 12th century AD (CE). Located in present-day Rajgir, Bihar.
• Nalanda was one of the oldest universities of the world and UNESCO declared the runis of Nalanda Mahavihara a world heritage site.

2. Explain education development in the medieval period.
Answer:

• The medieval period saw the founding of many religious mutt or monasteries which also took up the cause of education.
• The Ahobila mutt in Srirangam was one among them where is Sri Ramanuja has made distinctive
  contribution to the cause of education.
• Besides mutts, Jain pallis and Buddhist vihars played a vital role in educating people where ever the existed. They had large libraries of books in all branches of learning.

3. Write the short notes an Wardha scheme of Education.
Answer:

• In 1937,Gandhiji evolved a scheme popularly known as the Wardha Scheme of Basic National Education.
• His system of Education wanted to root out exploitation and centralization in society and create a non-violent social order.

4. Explain the significant development of education in Pallava.
Answer:

• A significant development took place in the field of education during the Pallava period.
• Ghatika was an educational institution.
• The Pallava kings supported those educational institutions through endowments.
• The Vaishnava ans Saiva mutts provided boarding and lodging facilities to all students and teachers.
• Kanchi was considered as the main centre of learning.

5. Explain the service of Sir Thomas Munro in education.
Answer:

• Sir Thomas Munro the Governor of Madras presidency (1820-27) was highly responsible for the introduction of Western education in Madras presidency.
• He appointed a committee to conduct a statistical survey of the condition of education.

VII. Answer the following.
1. Explain about Gurukula system?
Answer:

• In ancient India, both formal and informal education existed. Indigenous education was imparted at home, in temples, patashalas, and gurukulas.
• There were people in homes, villages, and temples who guided young children in imbibing pious ways of life. Temples played a vital role in imparting education and served the centres of learning.
• Students went to viharas and universities for higher studies. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas. Many of these Gurukulas were named after die sages.
• Situated in forests, in serene and peaceful surroundings, hundreds of students used to learn together in Gurukulas.
• During the early period education was imparted by the teacher (Guru/Acharya) to the pupils who gathered around him and came to live in his house as members of his family. This was known as the Gurukula system of education.

2. Explain the education in Tamil Nadu since independence.
Answer:

• Free education at the secondary school level was introduced in 1964-65. The Gandhigram Rural College was established in 1975. Since 1971, Distance education has also been introduced in Tamilnadu to educate those who could not go to colleges.
• In 1956, Midday Meal Programme was introduced in schools. Later, it was extended as a Nutrition Meal Scheme in 1982 to avoid drop-outs in schools.
• Since 1986 several changes have taken place in the society, in keeping with the National Policy of Education.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 4 People’s Revolt Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 4 People’s Revolt

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science People’s Revolt Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The Palayakkarar system was instituted in
a) 1519
b) 1520
c) 1529
d) 1530
Answer:
c) 1529

2. Which of the following Palayakkarar of Tamil Nadu was the pioneer against the English rule
a) Pulithevar
b) Yusuf Khan
c) Kattabomman
d) Marudhu brothers
Answer:
a) Pulithevar

3. Colin Jackson was the collector of
a) Madurai
b) Tirunelveli
c) Ramanathapuram
d) Tuticorin
Answer:
c) Ramanathapuram

4. Veera Pandiya Kattabomman was hanged at
a) Panchalamkurichi
b) Sivagangai
c) Tiruppathur
d) Kayathar
Answer:
d) Kayathar

5. Velu Nachiyar was a queen of
a) Nagalapuram
b) Sivagiri
c) Sivagangai
d) Virupachi
Answer:
c) Sivagangai

6. Tiruchirapalli proclamation was issued by
a) Marudhu Pandiyars
b) Krishnappa Nayak
c) Velu Nachiyar
d) Dheeran Chinnamalai
Answer:
a) Marudhu Pandiyars

7. Which of the following place was associated with Dheeran Chinnamalai?
a) Dindigul
b) Nagalapuram
c) Pudukottai
d) Odanilai
Answer:
d) Odanilai

8. Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at
a) Central India
b) Kanpur
c) Delhi
d) Bareilly
Answer:
a) Central India

II. Fill in the Black.
1. The Eastern Palayams were ruled under the control of ………………
Answer:
Kattabomman

2. Vishwanatha Nayakar instituted the Palayakarar system with the consultation of his minister ………………
Answer:
Ariyanatha Mudaliyar

3. The ancestors of Kattabomman belonged to ………………
Answer:
Andhra

4. ……………… was known by Tamils as Veeramangai and Jhansi Rani of south India.
Answer:
Velu Nachiyar

5. ……………… was called as ‘Lion of Sivagangai’.
Answer:
Periya Maruthu

6. ……………… was described the revolt of 1857 as the First War of India Independence.
Answer:
V.D. Savarkar

III. Match the following.

1. Delhi	a) Kunwar Singh
2. Kanpur	b) Khan Bahadur Khan
3. Jhansi	c) Nana Saheb
4. Bareilly	d) Lakshmi Bai
5. Bihar	e) Bahadur Shah II

Answer:

1. Delhi	e) Bahadur Shah II
2. Kanpur	c) Nana Saheb
3. Jhansi	d) Lakshmi Bai
4. Bareilly	b) Khan Bahadur Khan
5. Bihar	a) Kunwar Singh

IV. State true or false.
1. The Vijayanagar rulers appointed Nayaks in their provinces.
Answer:
True

2. Sivasubramania was the minister of Marudhu Pandiyas.
Answer:
False

3. Kattabomman was hanged on 17th October 1799.
Answer:
True

4. Fettah Hyder was the elder son of Tipu Sultan.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick(✓) the appropriate answer.
i) The Vellore revolt was held in 1801.
ii) The family members of Tipu were imprisoned at Vellore fort after the fourth Mysore war.
iii) At the time of the Vellore revolt, the Governor of Madras was Lord William Gentinck.
iv) The victory of the revolt of Vellore against the British was one of the significant events in the history of India.
a) i & ii are Correct b) ii & iv are Correct
c) ii &iii are correct ‘ d) i, ii & iv are correct
Answer:
c) ii & iii are correct

a) Find out the wrong pair
1. Marudu Pandiyar – a. Ettayapuram
2. Gopala Nayak – b. Dindigul
3. Kerala Varma – c. Malabar
4. Dhoondaji – d. Mysore
Answer:
1. Marudu Pandiyar-a. Ettayapuram

b) Find out the odd one
Kattabomman, Oomaithurai, Sevathaiah, Tipusultan

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What you know about the Palayakarars? Name some of them.
Answer:
1. Palayakkarar was the holder of a territory or a Palayam. These Palayams were held in military tenure and extended their full cooperation to be need of the Nayaks. The Palayakkarars collected taxes, of which one-third was given to the Nayak of Madurai another one-third for the expenditure of the army, and the rest was kept for themselves.

2. Kattabomman, Pulithevan, Marudu Brothers, Dheeran Chinnamalai.

2. What was the part of Velu Nachiyar in the Palayakkarar revolt?
Answer:

• Velu Nachiyar organised an army and employed her intelligent agents to find where the British stored their ammunition.
• She recaptured Sivagangai and was again crowned as a queen with the help of the Marudu brothers.

3. Who were the leaders of the Palayakkarar confederacy in the south Indian rebellion?
Answer:
Marudu Pandiar of Sivaganga, Gopala Nayak of Dindugal, Kerala Varma of Malabar and Krishnappa Nayak, and Dhoondaji of Mysore.

4. What was the importance of Tiruchirappalli proclamation?
Answer:

• The marudu Pandyas issued a proclamation of Independence called Tiruchirappalli Proclamation in June 1801,
• It was the first call to the Indians to unite against the British.

5. Bring out the effects of the Vellore revolt.
Answer:
Effects of the Vellore Revolt:

1. The new methods and uniform regulations were withdrawn.
2. The family of Tippu as a precautionary measure was sent to Calcutta.
3. William Cavendish Bentinck was removed from his service.

6. What was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The immediate cause was the introduction of new Enfield Riffles in the army. For loading it, we want to use our mouth to remove the cartridge of the rifle.The cartridges were greased by the fat of cow and the pig.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. What do you know about the Pulithevar?
Answer:
1. Pulithevar was the pioneer in Tamil Nadu, to protest against the English rule in India. He was the Palayakkarar of the Nerkattumseval, near Tirunelveli.

2. During his tenure he refused to pay the tribute neither to Mohammed Ali, the Nawab of Arcot nor to the English. Further, he started opposing them. Hence, the forces of the Nawab of Arcot and the English attacked Pulithevar. But the combined forces were defeated by Pulithevar at Tirunelveli.

3. Pulithevar was the first Indian king to have fought and defeated the British in India. After this victory, Pulithevan attempted to form a league of the Palayakkars to oppose the British and the Nawab.

4. In 1759, Nerkattumseval was attacked by the forces of Nawab of Arcot under the leadership of Yusuf Khan.

5. Pulithevar was defeated at Anthanallur and the Nawabs forces captured Nerkattumsevval in 1761.

6. Pulithevar who lived in exile recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764. Later, he was defeated by Captain Campell in 1767. Pulitzer escaped and died in exile without fulfilling his purpose, although his courageous trail of a struggle for independence in the history of South India.

2. Explain the events that led to conflict between Dheeran Chinnamalai and the british.

• Dheeran Chinamalai was trained by French militray in modem welfare.
• He was along the side Tipu Sultan to fight against the British East India Company and got victories against the British.
• After Tipu Sulthan’s death, Chinnamalai settled down at Odanilai and constructed a fort there to continue his struggle against the British.
• He sought the help of Marathas and Maruthu Pandiyar to attack the British at Coimbatore in 1800.
• Chinnamalai was forced to attack Coimbatore on his own.
• His army was defeated the British in battles at Cauvery, Odanilai, and Arachalur.
• During the final battle, Chinnamalai was betrayed by his cook Nallapan and was hanged in Sankagiri Fort in 1805.

3. What were the causes of the Great revolt of 1857?
Answer:
1. The most important cause of revolt in 1857 was a popular discontent of the British policy of economically exploiting India. This hurt all sections of society. The peasants suffered due to high revenue demands and the strict revenue collection policy.

2. Policies of the doctrine of lapse, subsidiary alliance, and policy of Effective Control created discontentment among people. The annexation of Oudh proved that even the groveling loyalty can’t satisfy British greed for territories.

3. The conversion activities of Christian missionaries were looked upon with suspicion and fear. The priests and the maulavis showed their discontent against the British rule.

4. Abolition of practices like sati, female infanticide, support to widow remarriage, and female education was seen by many as interference in their Indian culture by the Europeans.

5. The Indian sepoys were looked upon as inferior beings and treated with contempt by their British officers. They were paid much less than the British soldiers. All avenues of the promotion were closed to them as all the higher army posts were reserved for the British.

4. What were the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857?
Causes for the failure of the Revolt of 1857:
Various causes were responsible for the failure of the revolt.

• Lack of organisation, discipline common plan of action, centralised leadership, modem weapons, and techniques.
• The rebel leaders were no match to the British Generals. Rani Lakshmi Bai, Tantia Tope, and Nana Saheb were courageous but not good generals.
• Non-participation of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Western Punjab, and Rajputana.
• The modem educated Indians did not support the revolts because the English rule could reform the Indian society and modernize it.
• The British managed to get the loyalty of the Sikhs, Afghans, and Gurkha regiments who helped in the suppression of the revolt.
• The British had better weapons, better generals, and good organisation.

VIII. HOTS
1. Prove that there was no common purpose among the leaders of the Great revolt of 1857.
Answer:

1. The revolt did not have a clear leader. Bahadur Shah II was old and exhausted. He lacked military leadership.
2. At Kanpur, Nana Sahib was proclaimed a Peshwa, who was the adopted son of the exited Peshwa Baji Rao II.
3. He believed that he was entitled to a pension from the British.
4. When he was refused to be given, he was compelled to revolt against them. Rani Lakshmi Bai and Tantia Tope fought for Jhansi and Gwalior.
5. Begun of Awadh wanted to safeguard her territory.
6. Khan Bahadur Khan fought against the British when they subjugated his government in Bareilly.
7. As such, they lacked unity and gave way for the easy victory of the British.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science People’s Revolt Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.
1. The Governor ordered Kattabomman to surrender
a) Canning
b) Robert Clive
c) Edward Clive
d) Correnwalis
Answer:
c) Edward Clive

2. Dheeran Chinnamalai was trained by the military is the modern welfare
a) Netherland
b) British
c) Germany
d) French
Anwer:
French

3. Puli Thevar was defeated by ……………. in 1767
a) Yusuf Khan
b) Jackson
c) Arcot Newab
d) Captain Campbell
Answer:
d) Captain Campbell

4. After the 1857 Revolt, the Governor-General was called as ……………..
a) Viceroy
b) Major
c) Carnal
d) Sir
Answer:
a) Viceroy

5. In 1858, the proclamation released by Queen ……………..
a) Elizabeth
b) Victoria
c) Mary Ann
d) Isabellah

Answer:
b) Victoria

6. Delhi was recaptured by ………………… in 1857 Revalt
a) Nicholson
b) Gilesphey
c) Camphell
d) Canning
Answer:
a) Nicholson

7. The Mughal emperor ………………… as the symbol of the Revolt 1857
a) Akbar
b) Shajahan
c) Aurangazeb
d) Bahadur shah II
Answer:
d) Bahadur shah II

8. Vellore Revolt held in the year ………………….
a) 1806
b) 1805
c) 1801
d) 1800
Answer:
a) 1806

9. The ………………… rulers appointed Nayak in their Provinces.
a) Chola
b) Pallava
c) Pandya
d) Vijayanagara
Answer:
d) Vijayanagara

10. Dheeran Chinnamalai fought against the ………………… East India company
a) French
b) British
c) Dutch
d) Denish
Answer:
b) British

II. Fill in the Blanks.
1. ………………… was the pioneer for protest against the English role of India.
Answer:
Puli Thevar

2. The whole country was divided into ………………… palayams under the Palayakkarar system.
Answer:
72

3. ………………… asked Kattabomman to pay the tribute arrears.
Answer:
Coiin Jackson

4. The minister of Kattabomman was ………………….
Answer:
Siva subramanian

5. The Tiruchirappali proclamation released in the year ………………….
Answer:
1801

6. ………………… also known as Jansi Rani of South India.
Answer:
Velunatchiyar

7. ………………… died in 1772 Sivaganga battle.
Answer:
Muthu Vaduga Nathar

8. The Thiruchirappalli Proclamation was placed on the walls of the ………………… temple.
Answer:
Srirangam vaishnava Temple

9. ………………… System was abolished by the Treaty of kamataka in 1801
Answer:
Palayakkarar

10. Military General Agnew introduced a new turban known as ………………….
Answer:
‘Agnew’s turban

11. The immediate cause of sepoy revolt was the introduction of ………………….
Answer:
Enfield Riffles

12. Due to the terrorist activities of Chinna maruthu against British called as ………………….
Answer:
Lion of Sivaganga

13. The Revolt of 1857 headed by ………………… in Kanpur.
Answer:
Nana Saheb

14. The Revolt in Delhi controlled by the British General ………………….
Answer:
John Nicholson

15. The sepoy Revolt was led by ………………… in Gwalior.
Answer:
Tantia Tope

III. Match the following.

1. Canning	a) Commander
2. Kuyili	b) Governor
3. Edword Clive	c) Colonel
4. Colin Jackson	d) Govemer General
5. Agnew	e) Collector

Answer:

1. Canning	d) Gevemor General
2. Kuyili	a) Commander
3. Edword Clive	b) Gevemor
4. Colin Jackson	e) Collector
5. Agnew	c) Colonel

IV. State True or False.
1. Dheeran Chinnamalai was bom at Melapalayam in Chennimalai near Erode
Answer:
True

2. The Maratha brothers were executed in the port of Tirupatur in Ramanathapuram District on 10th October 1801.
Answer:
False

3. The Palayakkarar of Sivagiri was not a tributory to the company.
Answer:
False

4. The British military policy came to be dominated by the idea of’divide and counterpoise’
Answer:
True

V. Considder the following statements and tick (✓) the appropriate answer.
1. Choose the correct statement
1) Velu Nachiyar was a queen of Sivagangai.
2) At the age of 16, She was married to Muthu Vaduganathar, the Raja of Sivagangai.
3) In 1772, the Nawab of Arcot and the British troops invaded Sivagangai
4) They killed Muthu Vaduganathar in the battle of Kalayarkoil.
a) 3 is correct
b) 2 is correct
c) All are correct
d) All are incorrect
Answer:
c) All are correct

a) Find out the wrong pair:
1. Dheeran Chinnamalai – Nallapan
2. 1800-1801 – Second Palayakkarar war
3. Velu Nachiyar – Kuyili
4. Kattabomman – John Cradock
Answer:
4. Kattabomman – John Cradock

b) Find out the odd one
1. a) Kattabomman
b) Siva Subramanian
c) Vijaya Ragunatha Thondaiman
d) Oomathurai
Answer:
c) Vijaya Ragunatha Thondaiman

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What were the two blocs of Palayakkarars? who ruled those blocs?.
Answer:

• There were two blocs of Palayams Eastern Palayam and western Palayam.
• The Palayams were ruled by Poligars.

2. What was the immediate cause of the 1806 Vellore Revolt?.
Answer:

• In June 1806, military General Agnew introduced a new turban, resembling a European hat with a badge of the cross on it.
• It was popularly known as ‘Agnew’s turban’. Both the Hindu and Muslim soldiers opposed it
• So the soldiers were severely punished by the English.
  This was the immediate cause of the 1806 Vellore revolt.

3. Name the places of the 1857 Revolt.
Answer:
Delhi, Lucknow, Kanpur, Jhansi & Gwalior, Bareilly, Bihar.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Explain the consequences of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

• The Revolt of 1857 marked a turning point in the history of India. It led to changes in the system of administration and the policy of the Government.
• The administration of India was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown through the ‘Queen’s Proclamation’ in 1858. The governor-general was given the title of viceroy.
• The Board of Directors and the Board of Control were replaced by the Council of 15 members headed by the Secretary of State to supervise Indian affairs.
• The Indian Army was thoroughly reorganized. More Britishers were employed in the army.
• The British military policy came to be dominated by the idea of divide and counterpoise’. In fact, the Revolt of 1857 played an important role in bringing the Indian people together and imparting them the consciousness of belonging to one country.
• The Revolt paved the way for the rise of the modem national movement century that the 1857 Revolt came to be interpreted as a “planned war of national independence by the Historian V.D. Savarkar in his book, ‘First War of Indian Independence.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 2 Public and Private Sectors Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Public and Private Sectors

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Public and Private Sectors Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Public and Private Sectors

I. Choose the Correct Answer:
1. The public sector in India owes its origin in the ……………… industrial policy resolution of the Government of India.
a) 1957
b) 1958
c) 1966
d) 1956
Answer:
1956

2. Mixed economy is the mixture of ……………… .
a) Capitalism
b) Socialism
c) a& b are correct
d) A & B are incorrect
Answer:
c) a & b are correct

3. …………………… is governed by a company law and controlled by the Government as principal major share holders.
a) Private Sector
b) Joint Sector
c) Public Sector.
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Joint Sector

4. Public sector is on ……………… motive.
a) Profit Motive
b) Service Motive
c) Speculative Motive
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Service Motive

II. Fill in the Blanks
1. The …………………… and …………………… are allotted their respective roles in promoting the economic welfare of all sections of the community.
Answer:
Pubiic sector, Private sector

2. The private sector is on …………………… motive.
Answer:
profit

3. …………………… is the process of social and economic development in a society.
Answer:
Socio-economic development

4. The main function of the private sector is to create …………………… and ……………………
Answer:
innovation, modernisation

5. The government is committed to strengthening …………………… and cooperation among the citizens.
Answer:
Community business

III. Match the Following

1. Think Tank	a) Primary Sector
2. Agriculture	b) Gross Domestic Product
3. Industries	c) NITI Aayog
4. GDP	d) Secondary Sector

Answer:

1. Think Tank	c) NITI Aayog
2. Agriculture	a) Primary Sector
3. Industries	d) Secondary Sector
4. GDP	b) Gross Domestic Product

IV. Which is the Odd one.
1. Which one of the following is not the indicator of Socio-Economic Development.
a) Black Money
b) Life Expectancy
c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
d) Employment
Answer:
a) Black Money

V. Which of the following is a correct answer.
1. i) The Industries which would be exclusively owned by the state are referred to as Schedule-A
ii) The industries in which the private sector could supplement the efforts of the state sector, with the state taking the sole responsibility for starting new units which are specific in Schedule-B.
iii) The remaining industries which were in the private sector are not mentioned in the Schedule.
a) All are Correct
b) i and iii are correct
c) i and ii are correct
d) None of these
Answer:
c) i and ii are correct

VI. Short Answer:
1. Write a short note on public sectors?
Answer:

1. The sector, which is engaged in the activities of providing government goods and services to the general public is known as the Public Sector.
2. The enterprises, agencies, and bodies are fully owned, controlled, and run by the government whether it is central government, state government, or a local government.

2. What does society want?
Answer:

• Society wants the state to play an extensive role in developing the country.
• The economic growth may be sustained at a maximum rate if the private sector and public sector join hands.

3. Write the objectives of the Public Sector?
Answer:
The objectives of the Public Sector:

1. To promote rapid economic development through the creation and expansion of infrastructure
2. To generate financial resources for development
3. To promote redistribution of income and wealth
4. To create employment opportunities

4. What are the three organs of public sectors?
Answer:
The three organs of the public sector are

• Administration by a government Department.
• The Joint sector companies
• Public corporation

5. Name some indicators that measure socio-economic development.
Answer:
Socioeconomic development is measured with indicators, such as GDP, life expectancy, literacy and levels of employment.

6. Write a short note on the Private sector?
Answer:
The segment of a national economy that is owned, controlled, and managed by private individuals or enterprises is known as the Private sector.

7. Name any three Major Private Sector industries?
Answer:

• National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
• Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC)
• Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)

VII. Brief Answer.
1. Explain the organs of public sector.
Answer:
The organs of Public sector are
Administration by a Government Department:

• It is very common in all most countries.
• Eg: Post and Telegraph, Railways.

The Joint Sector companies:

• It is governed by a company law and controlled by the Government as principal major share holders.
• Eg: Indian Synthetic Rubber Limited.

Public Corporation:

• This type of organization is the establishment of public corporation by the state of the Parliament of legislative.
• Eg: LIC, Air India.

2. Write briefly explain the history of public sector?
Answer:
History of Public Sector:

1. When India achieved independence in 1947, it was primarily an agricultural country with a weak industrial base. It is established for their own economic interest and rule the subcontinent with brute force.
2. The first Industrial Policy Resolution announced in 1948 laid down broad contours of the strategy of industrial development.
3. The Planning Commission was formed in March 1950 and the Industrial Act was enacted in 1951.
4. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru believed that the establishment of basic and heavy industry was fundamental to the development and modernisation of the Indian economy.
5. His vision was carried forward by Dr. V. Krishnamurthy and the Indian statistician Mahalanobis.
6. The 1991 industrial policy allowed greater freedom to the private sector and foreign direct investment was invited from business houses outside india.
7. Thus, multinational corporations gained entry into the Indian economy.
8. Thus, we have public sector units, private sector enterprises and multinational Coexisting in Indian economy.

3. Explain any five measured indicators of socio-economic development?
Answer:
Gross Domestic Product:

• GDP supports in developing socio-economic development. The proportion of GDP by the industrial sector both private and public sector has been increased.
• It results in increasing government funds and increase public spending.

Life Expectancy:

• According to Health Ministry statistics, the life expectancy for male is 67. 3 year and 69. 5 for female.
• The government many schemes to serve poor and vulnerable families.
  Literacy:
• Educational Skill plays a vital role in the socio-economic development Sarva Siksha Abhiyan is government of India’s flagsup programme.

Employment:

• A growing number of people moved to urban areas in search of employment.
• It increased urban population, hence government started the ‘Smart city’ scheme which provides the city with many facilities.

Provision of House, Clean Drinking Water, and Sanitation:
Government sector provides housing facilities, clean drinking water facilities, and sanitary facilities under clean India Planning.

4. What are the importance of public sector?
Answer:
Public sector plays a major role in the development of any economy. It has following importance:
1. Public Sector and Capital Formation:

• The role of public sector in collecting, saving and investing them during the planning period has been very important.

2. Economic Development:

• Economic development mainly depends upon industrial development.
• Heavy and basic industries like Iron and steel, shipping, mining, etc. are required for supplying raw materials to small industries.

3. Balanced Regional Development:

• Public enterprises have developed the backward areas thereby bringing about a complete transformation in the socio-economic life of the people in these regions.

4. Employment generation:

• Public sector has created millions of jobs to tackle the unemployment problem in the country.
• The number of persons employed during the year 2011 was 150 lake.

5. Export Promotion and Foreign Exchange Earnings:

• Some public enterprises have done much to promote India’s export.
• The State Trading Corporation (STC). The Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC) have done very well in export promotion.

6. Protection to Sick Industries:

• Public sector takes over the sick industries and prevent many people from getting unemployed.
• It also prevents unnecessary locking of capital, land, building, machinery,etc.

7. Import Substitution:

• Some public sector enterprises were started specifically to save foreign exchange.
• The ONGC, the Indian Oil Corporation Ltd., the Bharat Electronics Ltd., etc., have saved foreign exchange by way of import substitution.

5. Difference between the public and private sector.
Answer:

Public Sector	Private Sector
1. Ownership of industries is with government.	Ownership of industries is with private individuals.
2. Public revenue depends upon levy of taxes on income and commodities and services.	Issuing shares and debentures or by taking loan.
3. Public sector ensures the proper wage.	Private sector exploits the workers.
4. It does not allow to concentrate huge wealth in few hands or rich people.	It allows concentrated of huge wealth in few hands or rich people.
5. Public sector industries include Police, Army Mining, Health, Manufacturing, Electricity Banking, etc.	Private sector industries include finance, Mining, Transport, Education, etc.
6. No tax evasion.	Tax evasion is high.
7. It is service oriented.	It is purely profit-oriented.
8. Reservations are implemented. Priority is given to the socially backward people.	It does not care the socially backward class people. Reservation is not followed.

6. Write the functions of private sector?
Answer:
Functions of Private Sector are given below:

1. The main function of private sector is to create innovation and modernization.
2. Develop and maintain infrastructure and services.
3. Promote and expand existing businesses.
4. Promote human capital development, to help vulnerable groups.
5. Promote small, micro and medium enterprises (SMME) through supply side measures, and demand side measures and attract investment in the city.
6. The Government has fixed a specific role to the private sector in the field of industries, trade and services sector.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Public and Private Sectors Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:
1. The Industrial act was enacted in ………………..
a) 1948
b) 1950
c) 1951
d) 1956
Answer:
c) 1951

2. ……………….. is an example for the public sector which serves as a consultancy.
a) MECON
b) Railways
c) Hotel
d) FCI
Answer:
a) MECON

3. What is the full form of GDP?
a) Grain Domestic Product
b) Gross Development Product
c) Gross Domestic Project
d) Gross Domestic Product
Answer:
d) Gross Domestic Product

4. ……………….. supports in developing socio – Economic Development.
a) GDP
b) GST
c) GNP
d) none
Answer:
a) GDP

5. The city which provides the city with many facilities like hospitals, schools, and facilities are called ………………..
a) Clean city
b) White city
c) Smart city
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Smart city

6. The largest public sector employer in India is
a) Indian Railways
b) Infosys
c) WIPRO Limited
d) ICICI bank
Answer:
a) Indian Railways

7. ……………….. removes regional inequality.
a) Employment
b) Literacy
c) GDP
d) none
Answer:
a) Employment

8. Example for export Promotion Earning industry is
a) ONGC
b) Indian oil corporation Ltd
c) The State of Trading corporation
d) None of these
Answer:
c) The State of Trading corporation

9. India’s five year plan emphasized the development of public sector enterprises.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) none
Answer:
b) Second

10. The activities of providing government goods and services to the general public is known as Sector.
a) Public
b) private
c) both
d) none
Answer:
a) Public

II. Fill in the Blanks
1. ……………….. is the mixture of merits of both capitalism and Socialism.
Answer:
Mixed economy

2. ……………….. is the key of economic development of a country.
Answer:
Rapid industraiisation

3. Nehru’s vision was carried forward by ………………..
Answer:
Dr.VKrishnamurthy

4. NHPS means ………………..
Answer:
National Health Productive Scheme

5. The public sector of the full growth is an ………………..
Answer:
Economy

6. Administration by a Governor Department – Example ………………..
Answer:
Port Trust

7. The Joint sector companies – Example
Answer:
Indian Synthetic Rubber Limited

8. Public corportation – Example ………………..
Answer:
Air India

9. STC is a ………………..
Answer:
State Trading corporation

10. ……………….. save foreign exchange by way of import substitution
Answer:
The oil and Natural Gas commission

III. Match the Following.

1. Joint sector companies	a) Private company
2. State Industries	b) Import substitution
3. ONGC	c) Gas Authority of Indian Ltd
4. GAIL	d) Schedule A
5. Tata group	e) Gas Authority of India Ltd

Answer:

1. Joint sector companies	a) Private company
2. State Industries	b) Import substitution
3. ONGC	c) Gas Authority of Indian Ltd
4. GAIL	d) Schedule A
5. Tata group	e) Gas Authority of India Ltd

IV. Which is the Odd one:
1. Public Sector
2. Balanced Regional Development
3. Import Substitution
4. Life Expectancy
Answer:
4. Life Expectancy

V. Which of the following is the correct Answer.
1. i) The segment of a national economy that is owned, controlled and managed by Private sector.
ii) The Private sector is a part of country”s economic system that is run by individuals and companies, rather than the government.
iii) The contribution of the products of cottage, and village industries and the small, scale industries is the major portion of the wholesale and retail trade.
a) All are Correct
b) i and iii are correct
c) i and ii are correct
d) None of these
Answer:
a) All are Correct

VI. Short Answer.
1. What is mixed economy?

• Mixed economy is the mixture of capitalism and socialism.

2. What is the life expectancy revealed by Health Ministry?

• In India for male life expectancy is 67.3 years and for female it is 69.5 years.

VII. Brief Answer:
1. How are industries classified?
Answer:
Industries are classified as the public sector in India owes its origin in the 1956 industrial policy resolution of the government of India. According to it industries were classified as
Schedule A:
The industries which would be exclusively owned by the state are refered as schedule A.

Schedule B:
The industries in which the private sector could supplement the efforts of the state taking the responsibility for starting new units are called schedule B.

Schedule C:
The remaining industries which were in the private sector are mentioned as schedule C.

2. How is the Public sector divided?
Answer:
The Public sector is divided into nine categories. They are

• Supply essential infrastructure for economic development called primary public ability.
• Control of the commanding height of the economy.
• Entrepreneurial role or capital intensive industries.
• Under government monopoly exclusive meant for high technology industries.
• Consumer-oriented
• Taking over the sick private units.
• Set up as trade corporation. ,
• Serves as consultancy and engineering services.

3. Give a brief account of NITI Aayog.
Answer:

• NITI Aayog replaced 65 years old planning commission.
• Planning commission has power to allocate funds to ministries and states, this function will be now at finance ministry.
• NITI Aayog was formed on January 1st, 2015.