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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Chapter 1 Money, Savings and Investments Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Money, Savings and Investments

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Money, Savings and Investments Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.
1. Which metals were used for metallic money?
a) gold
b) silver
c) bronze
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

2. Who designed the symbol (₹) of Indian rupee?
a) Udayakumar
b) Amartya Sen
c) Abijith Baneijee
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Udayakumar

3. The value of money is
a) Internal value of money
b) External value of money
c) Botha&b
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both a &b

4. Which is the Bank Money?
a) Cheque
b) Draft
c) Credit and Debit cards
d) All the above
Answer:
d) AH the above

5. Pick out the incorrect one: Investment can be made in different vehicle.
a) Stock
b) bonds
c) Mutual fund
d) Pay tax
Answer:
a) stock

6. Among the following who are responsible for Black Money?
a) Tax evaders
b) Hoaders
c) Smugglers
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) AH of the above

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Online Banking is also known as …….
Answer:
Internet banking 2 is what money does.

2. ………………. is what money does.
Answer:
Money

3. Electronic banking is also known as
Answer:
NEFT

4. Credit cards and Debit cards are Money.
Answer:
Plastic

5. In the year Reserve Bank of India was established.
Answer:
1935

III. Match the Following.

1. Barter system	a) tax evaders
2. Reserve Bank act	b) Electronic Money
3. E. Money	c) Consumer’s disposable income
4. Savings	d) Exchanged goods for goods
5. Black money	e)1935

Answer:

1. Barter system	d) Exchanged goods for goods
2. Reserve Bank act	e) 1935
3. E. Money	b) Electronic Money
4. Savings	c) Consumer’s disposable income
5. Black money	a) tax evaders

IV. Write the One Word Answer.
1. The word Money is derived from?
Answer:
The word Money is derived from the Roman word “Moneta Juno”

2. Who Prints and issues paper currencies in India?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India.

V. Choose the Correct Statement:

1. Barter system had many deficiencies like
I. Lack of double coincidence of wants
II. No difficulties of storing wealth
III. Common measure of value
IV. Indivisibility of commodities
a) I and II is correct
b) I and IV is correct
c) I, III and IV is correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
c) I, III and IV is correct

VI. Find out the odd one:

1. Recent forms of money transactions are
a) Credit card
b) Barter system
c) Debit card
d) Online banking
Answer:
b) Barter System

2. Effects of black money on the economy is
a) Dual economy
b) Undermining equity
c) No effects on production
d) lavish consumption spending
Answer:
c) No effects on production

VII. Write Short Answer:

1. What is the Barter System?

• The barter system is exchanging goods for goods without the use of money in the primitive stage.
• It is an old method of exchange.

2. What are the recent forms of money?

• ATM,
• Bank,
• Online Banking
• Mobile Banking

3. Short note on E-Banking and E-Money.
Answer:
E-Money: Electronic Money is money which exists in banking computer systems and is available for transactions through an electronic system.

E-Banking: Electronic banking, also known as National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT), is simply the use of electronic means to transfer funds directly from one account to another rather than by cheque or cash.

4. What are the essentials of Money in your life?
Answer:

• Money is a fundamental need of human beings.
• Money is useful to us to pay for tuition, travel, and communication, to have fun and to buy hundred of different things.
• It also used for transactions, to store wealth etc.

5. What is the Value of Money?
Answer:
The value of money is the purchasing power of money over goods and services in a country.

6. What is Savings and Investment?
Answer:

• Savings represent the part of a person’s income which not used for current consumption rather kept aside for future use.
• Investment refers to the process of investment fund in a Capital asset with the view to generate returns.

7. What is meant by Black Money?
Answer:

1. Savings represents that part of the person’s income which is not used for consumption
2. Investment refers to the process of investing funds in a capital asset, with a view to generating returns

8. What are the effects of black money on the economy?
Answer:
Effects of Black money on Economy are:

• Dual economy.
• undermining equality.
• Effect on production.
• Distribution of scarce resource

VIII. Write Brief Answer.

1. What are the disadvantages of the barter system?
Answer:

1. Lack of double coincidence of wants,
2. Common measure of value
3. Indivisibility of commodities
4. Difficulties of storing wealth

2. Write about the evolution of Money?
Answer:

• The word Money is dervied from Roman word “Moneta Juno”.
• It is the roman godesses and the republic money of roman empire.
• The Indian Rupee is derived from Sanskrit word ‘Rupya’ which means silver coins.
• Today we use paper notes, coins as money.
• But evolution of this stage has not happened overnight.
• It took thousands of year to reach such a stage.
• There are many stages of evolution of money. The earliest and primitive stage is the Barter system.

3. What are the functions of Money? and explain it.
Answer:
Functions of money are classified into Primary or Main function, Secondary function, and Contingent function.

Primary or main functions:
The important functions of money performed in the very economy are classified under main functions:

1. Medium of exchange or means of payment – Money is used to buy goods and services.

2. Measure of value – All the values are expressed in terms of money it is easier to determine the rate of exchange between various type of goods and services.

Secondary functions:
The three important of secondary functions are
1. Standard of deferred payment – Money helps the future payments too. A borrower borrowing today places himself under an obligation to pay a specified sum of money on some specified future date.

2. Store of value or store of purchasing power – Savings were discouraged under barter system as some commodities are perishable. The introduction of money has helped to save it for future as it is not perishable.

3. Transfer of value or transfer of purchasing power – Money makes the exchange of goods to distant places as well as abroad possible. It was therefore felt necessary to transfer purchasing power from one place to another.

Contingent functions:

• Basis of credit
• Increase the productivity of capital
• Measurement and Distribution of National Income

4. Explain the types of Bank Deposits.
Answer:
1. Student Savings Account:
There are savings accounts some banks offer specifically for young people enrolled in high school or college, and they main feature more flexible terms such as lower minimum balance requirements.

2. Savings Deposits:
Savings deposits are opened by customers to save the part of their current income. The customers can withdraw their money from their accounts when they require it. The bank also gives a small amount of interest to the money in the saving deposits.

3. Current Account Deposit:
Current accounts are generally opened by business firms, traders and public authorities. The current accounts help in frequent banking transactions as they are repayable on demand.

4. Fixed Deposits:
Fixed deposits accounts are meant for investors who want their principle to be safe and yield them fixed yields. The fixed deposits are also called as Term deposit as, normally, they are fixed for specified period.

5. What is the difference between savings and investment?
Answer:

Basis for comparison	Savings	Investment
Meaning	Savings represent that part of the person’s income which is not used for consumption.	Investment refers to the process of investing funds in capital asset, with a view to generate returns.
Purpose	Savings are made to fulfill short term or urgent requirements.	Investment is made to provide returns and help in capital formation.
Risk	Low or negligible	Very high
Returns	No or Less	Comparatively high
Liquity	Highly liquid	Less liquid

6. What are the effects of black money on the economy?
Answer:
Effects of Black Money on the economy

1. Dual economy
2. Tax evasion, thereby loss of revenue to the government.
3. Undermining equity
4. Widening gap between the rich and poor
5. Lavish consumption spending
6. Distortion of production pattern
7. Distribution of scarce resource
8. Effects on production.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Money, Savings and Investments Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

1. The word rupee is derived ……………… from
a) Hindi
b) Tamil
c) Malayalam
d) Sanskrit
Answer:
Sanskrit

2. In the sultans period, the gold, silver, and copper coins were known as ………………
a) Panas
b) Karhapanas
c) Tanka
d) Tanka
Answer:
c) Tanka

3. King midas of Lydia invented metal coin in the ……………… century.
a) 5th
b) 6th
c) 7th
d) 8th
Answer:
d) 8th

4. Recent plastic money is ………………
a) Cheques
b) Bondy
c) Paper money
d) Credit card
Answer:
d) credit card

5. Metal coins inverted by ………………
a) Alexander
b) Socrates
c) Midas
d) Ashoka
Answer:
c) Midas

6. The British silver coins were termed as ………………
a) Carolina
b) Angelina
c) Cupperoon
d) tinny
Answer:
b) Angelina

7. The British silver coins were termed as ………………
a) Carolina
b) Angelina
c) Cupperoon
d) tinny
Answer:
c) Cupperoon

8. Credit money or bank money is known as ………………
a) Cheque
b) Near money
c) Plastic money
d) E. money
Answer:
a) cheque

9. Prevention of money laundering act implemented in the year ………………
a) 2002
b) 2004
c) 2006
d) 2008
Answer:
a) 2002

10. Prevention of corporation act implemented in the year ………………
a) 1988
b) 1990
c) 1992
d) 1994
Answer:
a) 1988

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………… Indian coins were minted in the 6th century.
Answer:
Puranas, karshapanas, or panas

2. ……………… kings introduced the Greek custom of engraving portraits on the coins.
Answer:
Indo – Greek Kushan

3. Lower valued coins known as ……………… in sultans period.
Answer:
Jittal

4. 178 gms of silver coin were issued by ………………
Answer:
Shershah Suri

5. The meaning of rupia is ………………
Answer:
Silver coin

6. ……………… gave permission to the British to coin Mughal Money.
Answer:
Farrukhsiyarr

7. Mughal money coined at the ……………… mint.
Answer:
Bombay

8. The British gold coins were termed as ………………
Answer:
Carolina

9. The British tin coins were termed as ………………
Answer:
tinny

10. The advantage of the Barter system is not the involvement of ………………
Answer:
money

11. Exchange of goods for goods was known as ………………
Answer:
Barter Exchange

12. On the basis of storage of gold they were issued by the goldsmith.
Answer:
Receipts

13. Paper money regulated and controlled by the ……………… of the country.
Answer:
Central Bank /Reserve Bank

14. Electronic banking is also known………………
Answer:
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)

15. The Real Estate Regulation and Development Act implemented in the year ………………
Answer:
2016

III. Match the Following

1. Kushan kings	a) Punch marked coins
2. Delhi Sultans	b) Rupiya
3. Mauryas	c) Puranas
4. Shershah Suri	d) Engraving Portraits
5. Mahajana padas	e) Islamic calligraphy

Answer:

1. Kushan kings	d) Engraving Portraits
2. Delhi Sultans	e) Islamic calligraphy
3. Mauryas	a) Punch marked coins
4. Shershah Suri	b) Rupiya
5. Mahajana padas	c) Puranas

IV. Write the one-word Answer.
1. What is inflation.?
Answer:
Inflation refers to the prices are rising the value of money will fall.

2. What is Deflation?
Answer:
Deflation refers to the prices are falling, the value of money will rise.

V. Choose the Correct Statement
1. a) Dual economy
b) Tax evasion
c) Loss of revenue to government
d) Widening gap between the rich and poor
a) a correct. b) All are correct
c) a,b correct d) d correct
Answer:
b) All are correct

2. Different investment Vehicle
a) Revenue b) Bonds c) Insurance
Answer:
a) Revenue

VI. Write Short Answer:

1. Explain – Savings Deposits.
Answer:
Savings deposits are opened by customers to save part of their current income.

2. Explain – symbol of the Rupee.
Answer:

• The Indian Rupee symbol (₹) designed by Mr.Udayakumar, Villupuram District Tamil Nadu.
• It was approved by the Government of India on 15 July 2010.

3. What are the Benefits of Savings?
Answer:

• We will be financially independent sooner.
• We would not have to worry any unforeseen expenses.
• In the future, we will have a financial backup in place if we lose our job.
• We will be prepared if our circumstances change.

4. What are the intention to save among the students?
Answer:

• Teach them about taxes and accounting.
• Involve them in grown-up money decisions.
• Encourage them to apply for scholarships.
• Help them a budget and apply for student loans.
• Teach them personal savings.
• Encourage them to open a student Sanchayeka Scheme.

VII. Write Brief Answer:

1. Explain the different definitions of money.

• Scitovsky states that “Money is a difficult concept to define, partly because it fulfills not one but three functions, each of them providing a criterion of moneyness those of a unit of account, a medium of exchange, and a store of value”.
• Sir John Hicks, says that “Money is defined by its functions, anything is money which is used as money, “Money is what money does”.
• Some economists define money in legal terms saying that “anything which state declares as money is money”.

2. What are the Laws and steps taken by India Government against Black money.
Answer:
a) Some Legislative Framework in India against to Black Money:

• Prevention of money laundering act 2002.
• Lokpal and Lokayukta act.
• Prevention of corruption act- 1988.
• The undisclosed foreign Income and Asset Bill(Imposition of Tax) 2015.
• Benami transactions prohibition act 1988 amended in 2016.
• The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016.

b) Recent steps against Black Money:

• Under pressure from India and other countries, Switzerland has made key changes in its local laws governing assist foreign allegedly stashed in Swiss Banks.
• Special Investigation Team appointed by the government on the directions of Supreme Court on black money.
• Demonetization

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 3 Rural Life and Society Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 3 Rural Life and Society

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Rural Life and Society Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Which system was called by different names like Jagirdari, Malguzari and Biswedari etc.?
a) Mahalwari
b) Ryotwari
c) Zamindari
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Zamindari

2. Under which Governor General did the permanent settlement implemented in Bengal,
a) Lord Hastings
b) Lord Cornwallis
c) Lord Wellesley
d) Lord Minto
Answer:
b) Lord Cornwallis

3. What was the Mahal in the Mahalwari system?
a) House
b) Land
c) Village
d) Palace
Answer:
c) Village

4. In which region was the Mahalwari system imposed?
a) Maharashtra
b) Madras
c) Bengal
d) Punjab
Answer:
d) Punjab

5. Who among the following Governors introduced Mahalwari system?
a) Lord Hastings
b) Lord Cornwallis
c) Lord Wellesley
d) Lord William Bentinck
Answer:
d) Lord William Bentinck

6. In which region was the Ryotwari system not introduce by the British?
a) Bombay
b) Madras
c) Bengal
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Bengal

7. The Indigo revolt was led by whom?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Keshab Chandra Roy
c) DigambarBiswas and BishnuBiswas
d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Answer:
c) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas

8. The Bardoli Satyagraha was led by whom?
a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) DigambarBiswas
d) Keshab Chandra Roy
Answer:
a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

II. Fill in the Blanks:
1. ……………. is the modified version of the Zamindari system.
Answer:
Mahalwari Settlement

2. The Mahalwari system was a Brain child of ……………. .
Answer:
Holt Mackenzie

3. Indigo Revolt took place in ……………. .
Answer:
Bengal

4. Maplah Rebellion was held in ……………. .
Answer:
Malabar

5. The Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in ……………. .
Answer:
May 1918

III. Match the following.

1. Permanent Settlement	a) Madras
2. Mahalwari Settlement	b) Misery of the Indigo cultivators
3. Ryotwari System	c) North west province
4. Nil Darban	d) Bengal
5. Santhal Rebellion	e) First Peasant revolt

Answer:

1. Permanent Settlement	d) Bengal
2. Mahalwari Settlement	c) North west province
3. Ryotwari System	a) Madras
4. Nil Darban	b) Misery of the Indigo cultivators
5. Santhal Rebellion	e) First Peasant revolt

IV. State true or false.
1. Warren Hastings introduced quinquennial land settlement.
Answer:
True

2. Ryotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro.
Answer:
True

3. Pabna revolt originated in the Yusufshahi pargana in Gujarat.
Answer:
False

4. The Punjab land alienation Act was passed in 1918.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the follbwing statement and tick appropriate answer.
1. Which of the following statement is not true about Zamindari system?
a) This settlement was introduced in 1793.
b) The Zamindars became the owner of the land.
c) This system secured a fixed stable income for the cultivators.
d) This practice was applicable to the area of 19% of India.
Answer:
c) This system secured a fixed stable income for the cultivators.

2. Which of the following statement is correct about Peasants revolt in India?
a) The Santhal rebellion was held in Bengal.
b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.
c) The Deccan riots started from a village at Pune in 1873.
d) The Moplah peasants rebellion was held in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. List out any two salient features of the Permanent Settlement?
Answer:
Salient features of the Permanent settlement:

1. The Zamindars were recognized as the owners of the land as long as they paid the revenue to the East India Company regularly.
2. The Zamindars acted as the agent of the Government for the collection of revenue from the cultivators.

2. What were the salient features of the Ryotwari system?
Answer:

• Revenue settlement was done directly with the ryots.
• Measurement of field and an estimate of the product was calculated.
• The government fixed the demand at 45% to 55% of the produce.

3. Bring out the effects of the Mahalwari settlement.
Answer:
Effects of the Mahalwari settlement:

1. The Lambardar enjoyed privileges which were misused for their self – interest.
2. This system brought no benefit to the cultivators.
3. It was a modified version of the Zamindari system and benefited the upper class in villages.

4. What was the cause of the Indigo Revolt in 1859 – 60?
Answer:

• The European indigo planters compelled the tenant farmers to grow indigo at terms highly disadvantageous to the farmers.
• The tenant farmer was forced to sell it cheap to the planter and accepted advances from the planter that benefitted the latter.
• There were also cases of kidnapping, looting, flogging, and burning.
• Led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Charan Biswas, the ryots of the Nadia district gave up indigo cultivation in September 1859.
• Factories were burnt down and the revolt spread.

5. What was the contribution of Mahatma Gandhi on Champaran Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. The European planters of Champaran in Bihar resorted to illegal and inhuman methods of indigo cultivation at a cost which was wholly unjust.
2. The peasants were liable to unlawful extortion and oppression by the planters.
3. Mahatma Gandhi took up their cause. The Government appointed an enquiry commission of which Mahatma Gandhi was a member.
4. The grievances of the peasants were enquired and ultimately the Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in May 1918.

6. Mention the role of Vallabhai Patel in Bardoli Satyagraha.
Answer:

• By the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, in protest against the government’s proposal to increase land revenue by 30%.
• Women have participated in the campaign.
• All the land return to farmers by Congress in 1937.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Discuss the merits and demerits of the Permanent Settlement.
Answer:
Merits:

• Under this system, many of the wastelands and forests became cultivable lands.
• The Zamindars became the owner of the land.
• The Zamindars were made free from the responsibility of providing justice.
• The Zamindars remained faithful to the British Government.
• This system secured a fixed and stable income for the British Government.

Demerits:

• The British Government had no direct contact with the cultivators.
• The rights of the cultivators were ignored and they were left at the mercy of the Zamindars.
• The peasants were almost treated as serfs.
• This system was made the Zamindars lethargic and luxurious.
• Many conflicts between the zamindars and the peasants arose in rural Bengal.

2. What were the impacts of the British Land Revenue system on the cultivators?
Answer:
Impact of the British land revenue system on the cultivators:

• A common feature of all the settlements was the assessment and the maximize income from land. It resulted in increasing land sales and dispossession.
• The peasants were overburdened with taxation and the peasants to seek moneylenders who became rich and acquired lands from the peasants.
• The money lenders, the Zamindars, and lawyers exploited the poor peasants.
• The stability and continuity of the Indian villages were shaken.
• Cottage industries disappeared.
• The British policy proved advantageous only to the government of a privileged section of the society at the cost of cultivators who were the rightful owners of their lands and claimants of the larger share of the produce.

3. Write a paragraph about the Moplah Rebellion?
Answer:
Moplah Rebellion (1921):
1. The Muslim Moplah (or Moplah) peasants of Malabar (Kerala) were suppressed and exploited by the Hindu zamindars (Jenis) and the British government.

2. This was the main cause of this revolt.

3. The Moplah peasants got momentum from the Malabar District Conference, held in April 1920.

4. This conference supported the tenant’s cause and demanded legislation for regulating landlord-tenant relations.

5. In August 1921, the Moplah tenants rebelled against the oppressive zamindars. In the initial phase of the rebellion, the Moplah peasants attacked the police stations, public offices, communications and houses of oppressive landlords and moneylenders.

6. By December 1921, the government ruthlessly suppressed the Moplah rebellion.

7. According to an official estimate, as a result of government intervention, 2337 Moplah rebels were killed, 1650 wounded and more than 45,000 captured as prisoners.

VIII. HOTS:
1. Apart from the exploiting through taxes, how did the British further exploit the land?
Answer:
Apart from the taxes, the British followed the policy of commercialization of Agriculture which was a major setback for Indian farmers. They were forced to grow the soil fertility deteriorating cash crops such as opium. Jute, Indigo, etc., Agricultural prices shot up by 31%. They were threatened if they failed to grow these crops.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Rural Life and Society Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. Permanent settlement introduced in the year ………………
a) 1739
b) 1756
c) 1730
d) 1793
Answer:
d) 1793

2. Ryotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro and Captain …………….. .
a) Captain Read
b) Captain Hawkins
c) Captain Feral
d) Captain William
Answer:
a) Captain Read

3. Poor peasants exploited by ………………
a) Govt officials
b) Money – Lenders
c) Police
d) Judges
Answer:
b) Money – Lenders

4. Lord Cornwallis Settlement was introduced for how many years?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 20
Answer:
a) 10

5. Mahalwari system introduced by Lord ………………
a) Sir – Thomas Munro
b) William Bentinck
c) Wellesley
d) Dalhousie
Answer:
b) William Bentinck

6. The Ryotwari system introduced in the year ………………
a) 1800
b) 1810
c) 1815
d) 1820
Answer:
d) 1820

7. Indigo commission formed in the year ………………
a) I860
b) 1855
c) 1865
d) 1862
Answer:
a) 1860

8. The first revolt which can be regarded as peasants revolt was the ………………
a) Indigo Revolt
b) Santhal Rebellion
c) Pabna Revolt
d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
b) Santhal Rebellion

9. Deccan Riots held in …………….. districts.
a) Punjab
b) Bihar
c) Poona
d) Thanjavur
Answer:
c) Poona

10. No tax movement started in the year ………………
a) 1920
b) 1923
c) 1925
d) 1918
Answer:
d) 1918

II. Fill in the Blanks.
1. Indian economy was predominantly an …………….. economy.
Answer:
Agrarian

2. Robert clive obtained the Diwani of Bengal in the year ………………
Answer:
1765

3. Permanent system introduced by ………………
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis

4. Ryotwari system introduced by …………….. and ………………
Answer:
Thomas Munro and Captain Read

5. Permanent settlement system also known as …………….., …………….., …………….., and ………………
Answer:
Zamindari, Jagirdari, Malguzari and Biswedari

6. In Mahalwari settlement, the tax was collected through ………………
Answer:
Lambardar

7. Dina bandu mitra wrote a drama, ……………..
Answer:
Nil – Darpan

8. …………….. Bengali drama to draw the misery of the indigo – cultivators.
Answer:
Siddhu and Kanhu

9. Pabna Revolt led by ………………
Answer:
Keshab Chandra Roy

10. The Punjab land Alienation act was passed in
Ans: 1900

11. …………….. accepted the leadership of Kheda satyagraha.
Answer:
Gandhi

12. The Moplahs are ………………
Answer:
Muslim Peasants

13. Nil – Darpan drama wrote in …………….. Language
Answer:
Bengali

14. The Government set up an Indico commission in ____________
Answer:
1860

15. In the permanent settlement system, the zamindars would grant to the ryots.
Answer:
Patta

III. Match the following.

1. Bihar	a) Kheda
2. Bengal	b) Pabna
3. Deccan	c) Malabar
4. Gujarat	d) Santhal
5. Kerala	e) Poona

Answer:

1. Bihar	d) Santhal
2. Bengal	b) Pabna
3. Deccan	e) Poona
4. Gujarat	a) Kheda
5. Kerala	c) Malabar

IV. State True or False.
1. The Muslim peasants were called Moplah.
Answer:
True

2. Mahalwari settlement system brought benefit to the cultivators
Answer:
False

3. Champaran has situated in the state of Bihar.
Answer:
True

4. The first revolt which can be regarded as a peasants revolt was the Santhal Rebellion in 1855 – 1656.
Answer:
True

5. In 1876, the peasants revolted in the district of Poona in the Deccan Riots.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.
a) Ryotwari Revenue settlement was done indirectly with the ryots.
b) Measurement of field and an estimate of produce was not calculated.
c) Government fixed the demand at 45% to 55 % of the produce.
d) In most areas the land revenue fixed was less.
Answer:
c) Government fixed the demand at 45% to 55 % of the produce.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What are the three major land revenue systems introduced by the British in India? Who made that system.
Answer:

2. What are the salient features of the Mahalwari settlement?
Answer:

• The Lambardar acted as intermediaries between the Government and the villagers.
• It was a village-wise assessment. One person could hold a number of villages.
• The village community was the owner of the village common land.
• The village land belonged to the village community.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Explain the Permanent Land Revenue settlement.
Answer:

• When Robert Clive obtained the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in 1765, there used to be an annual settlement (of land revenue).
• Warren Hastings changed it from annual to quinquennial (five-yearly) and back to annual again.
• During the time of Cornwallis, a ten years’ (decennial) settlement was introduced in 1793 and it was known as Permanent Settlement.
• The permanent settlement was made in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Varanasi division of U.P., and Northern Karnataka, which roughly covered 19 percent of the total area of British India.
• It was known by different names like Zamindari, Jagirdari, Malguzari, and Biswedari.

2. Give an account of the Santhal Rebellion.
Answer:
1. The first revolt which can be regarded as a peasants’ revolt was the Santhal Rebellion in 1855 – 56.

2. The land near the hills of Rajmahal in Bihar was cultivated by the Santhals.

3. The landlords and money-lenders from the cities took advantage of their ignorance and began grabbing their lands. This created bitter resentment among them leading to their armed uprising in 1855.

4. Consequently, under the belief of divine order, around 10,000 Santals gathered under two Santhal brothers, Siddhu and Kanhu, to free their country of the foreign oppressors and set up a government of their own.

5. The rebellion assumed a formidable shape within a month. The houses of the European planters, British officers, railway engineers, zamindars, and moneylenders were attacked.

6. The rebellion continued till February 1856, when the rebel leaders were captured and the movement was put down with a heavy hand.

7. The government declared the Parganas inhabited by them as Santhal Parganas so that their lands and identity could be safeguarded from external encroachments.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science From Trade to Territory Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The ruler of Bengal in 1757 was ………………… .
a) Shuja-ud-daulah
b) Siraj-ud-daulah
c) Mir Qasim
d) Tipu Sultan
Answeer:
b) Siraj-ud-daulah

2. The Battle of Plassey was fought in ………………… .
a) 1757
b) 1764
c) 1765
d) 1775
Answer:
a) 1757

3. Which among the following treaty was signed after Battle of Buxar?
a) Treaty of Allahabad
b) Treaty of Carnatic
c) Treaty of Alinagar
d) Treaty of Paris
Answer:
c) Treaty of Alinagar

4. The Treaty of Pondichery brought the ………………… Carnatic war to an end.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third d) None
Answer:
b) Second

5. When did Hyder Ali crown on the throne of Mysore?
a) 1756
b) 1761
c) 1763
d) 1764
Answer:
b) 1761

6. Treaty of Mangalore was signed between ………………… .
a) The French and Tipu Sultan
b) Hyder Ali and Zamorin of Calicut
c) The British and Tipu Sultan
d) Tipu Sultan and Marathas
Answer:
c) The British and Tippu Sultan

7. Who was the British Governor General during Third Anglo-Mysore War?
a) Robert Clive
b) Warren Hastings
c) Lord Cornwallis
d) Lord Wellesley
Answer:
c) Lord Cornwallis

8. Who signed the Treaty of Bassein with the British?
a) Bajirao II
b) Daulat Rao Scindia
c) Sambhaji Bhonsle
d) Sayyaji Rao Gaekwad
Answer:
a) Bajirao II

9. Who was the last Peshwa of Maratha empire?
a) Balaji Vishwanath
b) Baji Rao II
c) Balaji Baji Rao
d) BajiRao
Answer:
b) Baji Rao II

10. Who was the first Indian state to join the subsidiary Alliance?
a) Awadh
b) Hyderabad
c) Udaipur
d) Gwalior
Answer:
b) Hyderabad

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed in ………………… .
Answer:
1756

2. The commander in Chief of Sirajuddaulah was ………………… .
Answer:
Mir Jafer

3. The main cause for the Second Carnatic war was ………………… .
Answer:
War of Succession

4. …………… adopted the policy of Doctrine of Lapse to extend the British Empire in India.
Answer:
Dalhousie

5. Tipu Sultan was finally defeated at the hands of ………………… .
Answer:
Cord Wellesley

6. After the death of Tipu Sultan Mysore was handed over to ………………… .
Answer:
British

7. In 1800, ………………… established a college at Fort William in Calcutta.
Answer:
Lord Wellesley

III. Match the follbwing.

1. Treaty of Aix – la – Chapelle	a) The First Anglo Mysore War
2. Treaty of Salbai	b) The First Carnatic War
3. Treaty of Paris	c) The Third Carnatic War
4. Treaty of Srirangapatnam	d) The First Maratha War
5. Treaty of Madras	e) The Third Anglo Mysore War

Answer:

1. Treaty of Aix – la – Chapelle	b) The First Carnatic War
2. Treaty of Salbai	d) The First Maratha War
3. Treaty of Paris	c) The Third Carnatic War
4. Treaty of Srirangapatnam	e) The Third Anglo Mysore War
5. Treaty of Madras	a) The First Anglo Mysore War

IV. State True or False.
1. After the death of Alivardi Khan, Siraj-ud-daulah ascended the throne of Bengal.
Answer:
True

2. Hector Munro, led the British forces in the battle of Plassey.
Answer:
False

3. The outbreak of the Austrian war of succession in Europe was led to Second Carnatic War in India.
Answer:
False

4. Sir Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court at Fort William in Bengal.
Answer:
True

5. The Police system was created by Lord Cornwallis.
Answer:
True

V. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
1. Battle of Adayar – 1748
2. Battle of Ambur – 1754
3. Battle of Wandiwash – 1760
4. Battle of Arcot – 1749
Answer:
3. Battle of Wandiwash -1760

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:
1. Write a short note on Black Hole Tragedy.
Answer:
There was a small dungeon room in the Fort William in Calcutta, where troops of the Nawab of Bengal Siraj – Ud – doula, held 146 British Prisoners of war for one night. The next day morning, when the door was opened 123 of the prisoners found dead because of suffocation.

2. What were the benefits derived by the English after the Battle of Plassey?
Answer:

• The company gained a huge amount of wealth from Bengal. It also got the trade right in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, and 24 Parganas.
• Battle of Plassey marked the initiation of British rule in India for the next two centuries.

3. Mention the causes of the Battle of Buxar.
Answer:
Mir Qasim the son-in-law of the Nawab of Bengal revolted as he was angry with the British for misusing the de stakes (free duty passes).

4. What were the causes of the First Mysore War?
Answer:
Haider Ali and his friendly relations with the French became a matter of concern for the English East India Company.

5. Bring out the results of the Third Maratha War.
Answer:

1. The Maratha confederacy was dissolved and Peshwaship was abolished.
2. Most of the territory of Peshwa BajiRao II was annexed and became part of the Bombay Presidency
3. The defeat of the Bhonsle and Holkar also resulted in the acquisition of the Maratha kingdoms of Nagpur and Indore by the British.
4. The BajiRao II, the last Peshwa of Maratha was given an annual pension of 8 lakh rupees.

6. Name the states signed into Subsidiary Alliance.
Answer:

• The states signed into Subsidiary Alliance was Hyderabad,
• It was followed by Tanjore, Awadh, Peshwa, Bhonsle, Gwalior, Indore, Jaipur, Udaipur, and Jodhpur.

VII. Answer the following in detail.
1. Write an essay on the Second Carnatic War.
Answer:
In the 18th century, three Carnatic Wars were fought between various Indian rulers, British and French East Indian Company on either side.

Second Carnatic War:
1. The main cause of this war was the issue of succession in Carnatic and Hyderabad. Anwaruddin Khan and Chanda Sahib were the two claimants to the throne of Carnatic, whereas Nasir Jang and Muzaffar Jang were claimants to the throne of Hyderabad.

2. The French supported Chanda Sahib and Muzaffar Jang, while the British supported the other claimants with the objective of keeping their interest and influence in the entire Deccan region.

Battle of Ambur (1749):

1. Finally Dupleix, Chanda Sahib, and Muzaffar Jang formed a grand alliance and defeated and killed Anwar-ud-din Khan, the Nawab of Carnatic, in the Battle of Ambur.

2. Muhammad Ali, the son of Anwar – ud – din, fled to Trichinopoly.

3. Chanda Sahib became the Nawab of Carnatic and rewarded the French with the grant of 80 villages around Pondicherry.

4. In the Deccan, the French defeated and killed Nasir Jang and made Muzaffar Jang the Nizam.

5. The new Nizam gave ample rewards to the French.

6. He appointed Dupleix as the governor of all the territories in the south of the river Krishna. Muzaffar Jang was assassinated by his own people.

7. Salabat Jang, brother of Nasir Jang was raised to the throne by Bussy.

8. Salabat Jang granted the Northern Circars to the French.

9. Dupleix’s power was at its zenith by that time.

Battle of Arcot (1751):

1. In the meantime, Dupleix sent forces to besiege the fort of Trichy

2. Chanda Sahib also joined with the French in their efforts to besiege Trichy. Robert Clive’s proposal was accepted by the British governor, Saunders, and with only 200 English and 300 Indian soldiers, Clive has entrusted the task of capturing Arcot. His attack proved successful.

3. Robert Clive defeated the French at Ami and Kaveripak. With the assistance of Lawrence, Chanda Sahib was killed in Trichy. Muhammad Ali was made the Nawab of Arcot under British protection. The French Government recalled Dupleix to Paris.

Treaty of Pondicherry (1755):

1. Dupleix was succeeded by Godeheu who agreed on the treaty of Pondicherry. According to it, both the powers agreed not to interfere in the internal affairs of the native states. They were to retain their old positions. New forts should not be built by either power. The treaty made the British stronger.

2. The second Carnatic war also proved inconclusive. The English proved their superiority on land by appointing Mohammad Ali as the Nawab of Carnatic. The French were still very powerful in Hyderabad. However, the predominant position of the French in the Deccan peninsula was definitely undermined in this war.

2. Give an account of the Fourth Anglo Mysore war.
Answer:
Fourth Anglo – Mysore war:
Tipu Sultan did not forget the humiliating treaty of Srirangapatnam imposed upon him by Cornwallis in 1790.
Causes:

• Tipu sought help from Arabia, Turkey, Afghanistan and the French.
• Tipu was in correspondence with Napolean who invaded Egypt at that time.
• The French officers came to Srirangapatnam and founded the Jacobin club and planted the Tree of Liberty.

Course:

• Wellesley declared war against Tipu in 1799.
• It was well planned.
• Tipu was forced to retreat from his capital Srirangapatnam.
• On 4th may 1799 it was captured.
• Tipu fought bravely but he was killed finally.
• By the end, the whole Mysore lay prostrate before the British.

Result:

• The English occupied Kanara, Wynad, Coimbatore, Darapuram, and Srirangapatinam.
• Krishna Raja Odayar ascended the throne.
• Tipu’s family was sent to the fort of Vellore.

3. Describe the policy adopted by Lord Dalhousie to expand the British empire in India.
Answer:
The doctrine of Lapse:
1. Lord Dalhousie was one of the chief architects of the British Empire in India. He was an imperialist. He adopted a new policy known as the Doctrine of Lapse to extend the British Empire.

2. He made use of this precedent and declared in 1848 that if the native rulers adopted children without the prior permission of the Company, only the personal properties of the rulers would go to the adopted sons and the kingdoms would go to the British paramount power. This principle was called the Doctrine of Lapse.

3. It was bitterly opposed by the Indians and it was one of the root causes for the great revolt of 1857.

4. How did Lord Wellesley expand the British power in India?
Answer:

• Lord Wellesley introduced the system called as Subsidiary Alliance to bring the princely states under the control of the British.
• The princely state was called ‘the protected state’ and the British became ‘Paramount Power’ to maintain internal peace.

Main features:

• All Indian rulers entering into this alliance with the British had to dissolve their own armed forces and accept British forces.
• All the non – English Europeans should be turn out their state.
• The British would undertake to defend the state from internal trouble as well as external attack.

VIII. HOTS
Explain the causes of the success of the English in India.
Answer:

1. Lack of unity among Indian Stats:
Even though there were powerful kings and who ruled Punjab, Mysore, and Maratha region, they lacked unity and fought with each other for various reasons. They failed to perceive the danger arising from the East India Company.

2. Greater Naval Power:
The British came through the sea and established a strong naval power in the Indian Ocean before coming to the Indian mainland. There was no strong naval power in India to challenge the British.

3. Development of textile:
By the beginning of the 19th century English made cotton textiles successfully ousted Indian goods from their traditional markets.

4. Scientific division of labour:
The production and growth of modem science in India was encouraged by the British with a view to further colonial interests.

5. Economic prosperity:
The British had enough funds to pay its shareholders that compelled them to finance the English wars in India.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science From Trade to Territory Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. The Black Hole tragedy held in the year ………………
a) 1756
b) 1757
c) 1764
d) 1758
Answer:
1756

2. Dual system of Government started in Bengal by ………………
a) Robert Clive
b) Dupleix
c) Sir. Eyre Coote
d) General Joseph Smith.
Answer:
a) Robert Clive

3. Indian Government Act introduced in the year ………………
a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1935
d) 193a
Answer:
c) 1935

4. The police system was created in India by ………………
a) Robert Clive
b) Warren Hastings
c) Sir. Eyre Coote Lord
d) Cornwallis
Answer:
d) Cornwallis

5. The police system established in India as a regular police force in ………………
a) 1790
b) 1791
c) 1792
d) 1793
Answer:
b) 1791

6. The hereditary village police was ………………
a) Chowkidars
b) pabel
c) Jamindhars
d) diwans
Answer:
a) Chowkidars

7. The ’Daroka’ system was extended to Madras in ………………
a) 1801
b) 1802
c) 1803
d) 1805
Answer:
b)1802

8. The Diwani system was ………………
a) Temple in charge
b) Building in charge
c) Tax collection
d) Kuthagai
Answer:
c) Tax collection

9. Who transformed the British Empire in India into the British empire of India?
a) Robert clive
b) Hartings
c) Wellesley
d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer:
c) Wellesley

10. Indian High Court Act introduced in the year ………………
a) 1855
b) 1857
c) 1860
d) 1861
Answer:
d) 1861

II. Fill in blanks.
1. The Black Hole tragedy led by ………………
Ans: Sira] – ud – daula

2. After the Battle of …………….. the company was granted an undisputed visit to have free trade.
Answer:
Plassey

3. The treaty of …………….. signed at the end of the Battle of Buxar.
Answer:
Allahabad

4. The treaty of Allahabad signed in the year ………………
Answer:
1765

5. The Battle of Adayar held in the year ………………
Answer:
1746

6. In Europe …………….., …………….. were opposite camps.
Answer:
English, French.

7. The treaty of Aix-la-Chapple was signed at the end of ………………
Answer: First Carnatic war

8. …………….. was called a Hero of Arcot.
Answer:
Robert Clive

9. Treaty of Pondicherry was signed in the year ………………
Answer:
1755

10. The British General …………….. defeated Haider Ali.
Answer:
Sir Eyre Coote

11. …………….. was signed between Lord Cornwallis and Tipu Sultan.
Answer:
Treaty of Srirangapatnam

12. The french officers founded a …………….. club in Srirangapatnam.
Answer:
Jacobin

13. …………….. was signed at the end of the first Anglo- Maratha war.
Answer:
The treaty of Saibai

14. BajiRao II made the treaty of …………….. with Lord Wellesley.
Answer:
Bassein

15. The Indian Civil service Act passed in the year ………………
Answer:
1861

III. Match the following.

1. Treaty of Surat	a)1755
2. Treaty of Pondicherry	b)1784
3. Treaty of Saibai	c)1769
4. Treaty of Madras	d)1775
5. Treaty of Mangalore	e)1782

Answer:

1. Treaty of Surat	a)1775
2. Treaty of Pondicherry	b)1755
3. Treaty of Saibai	c)1782
4. Treaty of Madras	d)1769
5. Treaty of Mangalore	e)1784

IV. State True or False
1. After tha Battle of Plassey Siraj-ud-daulah was the Nawab of Bengal.
Answer:
False

2. Dupleix as the governor of all the territories south of the river Krishna.
Answer:
True

3. Count de Lally was deputed from France to conduct the third Carnatic War.
Answer:
True

4. The Indian Civil Service Act passed in the year 1857.
Answer:
False

5. In 1870 Surendra Nath Banerjee became successful in the I.C.S examination.
Answer:
False

V. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a. 1. Treaty of Allahabad – 1757
2. Treaty of Srirangapatinam – 1765
3. Treaty of Ali Nagar – 1792
4. Treaty of Bassein – 1802
Answer:
4. Treaty ofBassein – 1802

b. Choose the correct statement:
a) Sir. Thiruvarar Muthusamy Iyyar was the first Indian Chief Justice of the Madras High Court.
b) The subsidiary Alliance was introduced by Lord Dalhousie.
c) Doctrine of Lapse policy introduced in the year 1798.
d) By applying the Doctrine of Lapse policy Delhi was annexed.
Answer:
a) Sir. Thiruvarar Muthusamy was the first Indian Chief Justice of the Madras High Court.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What was the aim of geographical discoveries?
Answer:
The main motive behind those discoveries was to maximize profit through trade and to establish political supremacy.

2. Write short notes on the Battle of Adayar.
Answer:

• The First Carnatic War is remembered for the battle of San Thome (Madras) fought between the French forces and the Carnatic, who appealed to the British for help.
• A small French army under Captain Paradise defeated the strong Indian army under Mahfiiz Khan at Santhome on the banks of the River Adayar.
• This was the first occasion when the superiority of the well-trained and well – equipped European army over the Indian army proved beyond doubt.

3. Write short notes on the Treaty of Paris.
Answer:

• The seven years’ War was concluded by the treaty of Paris.
• The French settlements including Pondicherry were given back to the French.
• But they were forbidden from fortifying those places.
• There were not allowed together armies. The French dominance in India practically came to an end.

4. What are the areas annexed by Dalhousie by applying the Doctrine of Lapse policy?
By applying the Doctrine of Lapse policy, Dalhousie annexed Satara in 1848, Jaipur and Sambalpur in 1849, and Nagpur in 1854.

VII. Answer the following in detail:
1. How the Battle of Plassey marked the initiation of British rule in India?
Answer:

• Alivardi Khan, the Nawab of Bengal died in 1756 and his grandson Siraj-ud-daula ascended the throne of Bengal.
• The British took advantage of the New Nawab’s weakness and unpopularity seized power.
• So, Siraj-ud-daulah decided to teach them (British)a lesson by attacking their political settlement of Calcutta. The Nawab captured their factory at Kasimbazar.
• On 20th June 1756, Fort William surrendered but Robert Clive recovered Calcutta.
• On 9th February 1757, the Treaty of Alinagar was signed, whereby Siraj-ud-daulah conceded practically all his claims.
• British then captured Chandranagore, the French settlement, on March 1757. The battle of Plassey took place between the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies.
• It was fought on 23 June 1757. The English East India Company’s forces under Robert Clive defeated the forces of Siraj-ud-daulah. After the collapse of Bengal, the company gained a huge amount of Wealth from the treasury of Bengal and used it to strengthen its military force.
• The beginning of the British political sway over India may be traced from the battle of Plassey. It was the most decisive battle that marked the initiation of British rule in India for the next two centuries.

2. Explain the Judicial system of the English East India company.
Answer:

• In 1772, the Dual Government was abolished and the Company took over the direct responsibility for the collection of revenue as well as the administration of justice.
• Consequently, a Diwani Adalat and Faujdari Adalat were established.
• By the Regulating Act of 1773, a Supreme Court was set up in Calcutta.
• This court consisted of a chief justice and three puisne judges who were appointed by the Crown.
• This court decided civil, criminal, ecclesiastical, and admiralty cases.
• On the model of the Supreme Court of Calcutta, a Supreme Court was established in Madras in 1801 and in Bombay in 1823.
• In 1832, William Bentinck started the Jury system in Bengal.
• The Indian Law Commission was established to compile the laws.
• The rule of law was established for the whole empire.
• According to the Indian High Courts Act, 1861, three High Courts were set up in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in place of the old Supreme Courts.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf History Chapter 1 Advent of the Europeans Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 1 Advent of the Europeans

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Advent of the Europeans Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Who laid the foundation of Portuguese power in India?
a) Vasco da Gama
b) Bartholomew Diaz
c) Alfonso de Albuquerque
d) Almeida
Answer:
d) Almeida

2. Which of the following European Nation was the foremost attempt to discover a sea route to India?
a) Dutch
b) Portugal
c) France
d) Britain
Answer:
b) Portugal

3. In 1453 Constantinople was captured by ………………. .
a) The French
b) The Turks
c) The Dutch
d) The British
Answer:
b) The Turks

4. Sir William Hawkins belonged to ………………. .
a) Portugal
b) Spain
c) England
d) France
Answer:
c) England

5. The first fort constructed by the British in India was ………………. .
a) Fort William
b) Fort St.George
c) Agra fort
d) Fort St. David
Answer:
a) Fort William

6. Who among the following Europeans were the last to come India as traders?
a) The British
b) The French
c) The Danish
d) The Portuguese
Answer:
b) The French

7. Tranquebar on the Tamil Nadu coast was a trade centre of the ………………. .
a) The Portuguese
b) The British
c) The French
d) The Danish
Answer:
d) The Danish

II. Fill in blanks.
1. National Archives of India (NAI) is located in ……………….
Answer:
New Delhi

2. Bartholomew Diaz, a Portuguese sailor was patronized by ……………….
Answer:
King John – II

3. The printing press in India was set up by ………………. at Goa in 1556.
Answer:
Portuguese

4. The Mughal Emperor ………………. permitted the English to trade in India.
Answer:
Jahangir

5. The French East India Company was formed by ……………….
Answer:
Colbert

6. ………………. the King of Denmark issued a charter to create Danish East India company.
Answer:
Christian IV

III. Match the following.

1. The Dutch	a) 1664
2. The British	b) 1602
3. The Danish	c)1600
4. The French	d) 1616

Answer:

1. The Dutch	b) 1602
2. The British	c) 1600
3. The Danish	d)1616
4. The French	a) 1664

IV. State true or false.
1. Auto biography is one of the written sources.
Answer:
True

2. Coins are one of the material sources.
Answer:
True

3. Ananda Rangam was a translator served under British.
Answer:
False

4. The place where historical documents are preserved is called archives.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick (✓) appropriate answer.
1. i) Governor Nino de Cunha moved Portuguese capital from Cochin to Goa.
ii) Portuguese were the last to leave from India.
iii) The Dutch founded their first factory at Surat.
iv) Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England.
a) i & ii are Correct.
b) ii & iv are Correct,
c) iii is correct.
d) i, ii & iv are correct.
Answer:
d) i, ii & iv are correct.

2. Find out the wrong pair:
1. Francis Day – Denmark
2. Pedro Cabral – Portugal
3. Captain Hawkins – Britain
4. Colbert – France
Answer:
1. Francis Day – Denmark

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. Give a short note on Archives?
Answer:
Archives is the place where historical documents are preserved. The National Archives of India (NAI) is located in New Delhi. It is the chief storehouse of the records of the government of India.

2. Write about the importance of Coins.
Answer:
Coins are a good source to know about administrative history.

3. Why Prince Henry is called ‘Henry the Navigator’?
Answer:
Prince Henry of Portugal, who is commonly known as the “Navigator”, encouraged his countrymen to take up the adventurous life of exploring the unknown regions of the world.

4. Name the important factories established by the Dutch in India.
Answer:
Masulipatnam, Pulicat, Surat, Patna, Chinsura, Kasim bazaar, Nagapatnam, Balasore and Cochin.

5. Mention the trading centers of the English in India.
Answer:
The English had established their trading centres at Surat, Agra, Ahmadabad, and Broach.

VII. Answer the following.
1. Give an account of the sources of Modern India.
Answer:
1. The sources for the history of modem India help us to know the political, socio-economic and cultural developments in the country.

2. The Portuguese, the Dutch, the French, the Danes, and the English recorded their official transactions in India on state papers.

3. History can be written with the help of written sources and material sources.

4. Written Sources:
After the advent of the printing press, books were published in different languages people began to acquire knowledge easily in the fields like art, literature, history, and science.

5. Written sources include Literatures, Travel Accounts, Diaries, Auto Biographies, Pamphlets, Government Documents and Manuscripts.

6. Archives:
It has a main source of information for understanding past administrative machinery as well as a guide to the present and future generations related to all matters.

7. Material Sources:
Paintings and statues are the main sources of modem Indian history which provide information about national leaders and historical personalities and their achievements.

8. Historical buildings and museums preserve and promote our cultural heritage,

9. Coins are a good source to know about administrative history.

2. How did the Portuguese establish their trading centres in India?
Answer:

• During the 16th century, Portuguese succeeded in capturing Goa, Daman, Diu, Salsette, Bassein, Chaul and Bombay on the western coast, Hooghly on the Bengal coast and Santhome on the Madras coast and enjoyed good trade benefits.
• The Portuguese brought the cultivation of tobacco to India. Due to the influence of Portuguese spread Catholic religion spread on India’s western and eastern coasts.
• The printing press was set up by the Portuguese at Goa in 1556.
• A scientific work on the Indian medicinal plants by a European writer was printed at Goa in 1563.

3. How did the British establish their trading centres in India?
Answer:
1. In 1600, Elizabeth, the Queen of England granted a charter to the governor and company of Merchants of London to trade with the East Indies.

2. The Company was headed by a Governor and a court of 24 directors.

3. Captain Hawkins visited Jahangir’s court and secured permission to raise a settlement at Surat which was cancelled later.

4. In 1612, the English Captain Thomas Best, inflicted a severe defeat over the Portuguese in a naval battle near Surat.

5. The Mughal Emperor Jahangir permitted the English to establish their factory in 1613 at Surat, which became the headquarters of the English in western India.

6. Captain Nicholas Downton won another decisive victory over the Portuguese in 1614.

7. This enhanced the British prestige at the Mughal court.

8. In 1615, Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England, who succeeded in concluding a commercial treaty with the emperor

9. Before the departure of Sir Thomas Roe, the English had established their trading centres at Surat, Agra, Ahmadabad, and Broach.

IX. HOTS.
1. How did the fall of Constantinople affect the European nations?
Answer:

1. The fall of Constantinople was the end of an era for Europe as it severely hurt traders in the European region.
2. The land route between India and Europe was closed. The Turks penetrated into North Africa and the Balkan Peninsula.
3. It became imperative on the part of the European nations to discover new sea routes to the East.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Advent of the Europeans Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. The ……………… of India attracted Europeans to this country.
(a) Technology
(b) Machinery
(c) Wealth
(d) River
Answer:
(c) wealth

2. ……………….. was sent to the first governor for the Portuguese possessions in India.
a) Almeida
b) Vascoda Gama
c) Albu querque
d) Bartholomeu Diaz
Answer:
a) Almeida

3. In Pulicat, the fort built by the Dutch was …………………… .
a) Geldria Fort
b) St. George
c) William Fort
d) Red fort
Answer:
a) Geldria Fort

4. …………….. help to preserve and promote our cultural heritage.
(a) Parks
(b) Books
(c) Beaches
(d) Museums
Answer:
(d) Museums

5. A sailor who reached the southernmost point of Africa
a) Americo vesbuki
b) Bartholomew Diaz
c) Colombus
d) Macallan
Answer:
b) Bartholomew Diaz

6. The national Archives of India (NAI) in located in ……………… .
a) New Delhi
b) Chennai
c) Coimbatore
d) Thanjavur
Answer:
a) New Delhi

7. Who set up a printing press at Tranqueber (Tarangambadi)
a) G.U pope
b) Caldwell
c) John – d – Britto
d) Ziegenbalg
Answer:
d) Ziegenbalg

8. Battle of Plassey in the year ………………… .
a) 1757
b) 1758
c) 1759
d) 1760
Answer:
a) 1757

9. Battle of Buxar in the year ………………….
a) 1762
b) 1764
c) 1766
d) 1768
Answer:
b) 1764

10. Which Europeans came first to India as traders?
a) The French
b) The British
c) The Portuguese
d) The Dutch
Answer:
c) The Portuguese

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. The place where document are presented in ……………….. .
Answer:
Archives

2. …………… was a Translator in Pondicherry to assist French trade in India.
Answer:
Ananda Rangam

3. Ananda Rangam diaries contain the Indo ……………….. relationship.
Ans: French

4. ………………… is one of the largest archives in Asia.
Answer:
NAI, New Delhi

5. …………….. is one of the oldest and largest document repositories in Southern India.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu Archives

6. ………………. called is the Father of National Archives of India.
Answer:
George William Forest

7. Tamil Nadu Archives knew as …………….
Answer:
The Madras Record Office

8. ……………… issued the first calendar of Madras record in 1917.
Answer:
Dodwell f

9. In 1696, Port St. David was built by the ……………… in Cuddalore
Ans: British

10. The Reserve bank of India was setup in ……………….
Answer:
1935

11. The first coinage in modem India was issued in 1862 by ………………. .
Answer:
British

12. In the year ……………… Portuguese claimed the naval supremacy in Asia.
Answer:
1509

13. …………. maintained friendly relations with the Vijayanagar Empire.
Answer:
Alfonso de Albuquerque

14. Vasco da Gama was cordially received by ……………….
Answer:
King Zamorin

15. ……………… Was the first capital of the Portuguese East India company
Answer:
Cochin

III. Match the following.

1. St. Francis Church	a) Madras
2. St. Louis Fort	b) Cuddalore
3. St. George Fort	c) Cochin
4. St. David Fort	d) New Delhi
5. India Gate	e) Pondicherry

Answer:

1. St. Francis Church	c) Cochin
2. St. Louis Fort	e) Pondicherry
3. St. George Fort	a) Madras
4. St. David Fort	b) Cuddalore
5. India Gate	d) New Delhi

IV. State true or false.
1. Vasco da Gama came to India for the second time in 1501 with 20 ships
Answer:
False

2. King Zamorin defeated by the Portuguese.
Answer:
True

3. The wealth of India attracted Americans by the accounts of foreign writers.
Answer:
False

4. Albuquerque maintained friendly relations with the Vijayanagar Empire.
Answer:
False

5. The Catholic religion spread in certain regions in India’s western and eastern coasts.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick(✓) the appropriate answer:
1. The real founder of the Portuguese power in India was Alfonsa de Albuquerque.
2. He captured Goa from the sultan of Bijapur in November 1570.
3. In 1575, he established the Portuguese authority Ormuz in the Persian Gulf.
4. Alfonso de Albuquerque encouraged the marriages of the Portuguese with Indian women.
a) all are correct
b) all are incorrect
c) 3 is correct
d) 2 is incorrect
Answer:
a) all are correct

2. Find out the wrong pair:
1. Zamorin – Calicut
2. Bahadur shah – Gujarat
3. Shaistakhan – Governor of Chennai
4. Sher khan Lodi – Bijapur
Answer:
3. Shaista khan – Governor of Chennai

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.
1. What are written sources?
Answer:
Written sources include literature Travel accounts, Diaries, Auto Biographies, pamphlets, Government Documents, and Manuscripts.

2. What is Bluewater policy?
Answer:

• In 1905, Francisco de Almeida was sent as the first Governor for the Portuguese possessions in India.
• His policy was known as the ” Bluewater policy”
• Almeida had the aim of developing the naval Portuguese in India.

3. What are the factors of the comparative success of the British in India?
Answer:
The comparative success of the British over the Portuguese, the Dutch, the Danish, and the French was Largely due to their commercial competitiveness, Spirit of supreme sacrifice, government support, naval superiority, national character and their ascendency in Europe.

VII. Answer the following:
1. Give an account of the Tamil Nadu Archives.
Answer:

• The Madras Record Office which is presently known as Tamil Nadu Archives (TNA) is located in Chennai. It is one of the oldest and the largest document repositories in southern India. Most of the records are in English. Few documents are in French, Portuguese, Tamil, and Urdu.
• Tamil Nadu Archives has 1642 volumes of Dutch records which relate to the Cochin and Coromandal coast. These records cover the period from 1657-1845. The Danian records cover the periods from 1777-1845.
• Dodwell prepared with great effort and issued the first calendar of Madras records which was published in 1917. He was highly interested in encouraging historical researches. He opened a new chapter in the history of Tamil Nadu Archives.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 8 Map Reading Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 8 Map Reading

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Map Reading Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.
1. The subject which deals with map making process is ……………….. .
a) Demography
b) Cartography
c) Physiography
d) Topography
Answer:
b) Cartography

2. A map that shows the physical features of an area is called ………………. .
a) Cadastral map
b) Relief map
c) Climatic map
d) Resource map
Answer:
a) Cadastral map

3. Shallow water bodies are represented by ……………. colour
a) Yellow
b) Brown
c) Light blue
d) Dark blue
Answer:
c) Light blue

4. The maps which are known as plans are
a) Cadastral maps
b) Topographical maps
c) Isoline maps
d) Transport maps
Answer:
a) Cadastral maps

5. Actual distribution of population can be represented by …………….. .
a) lines
b) Shades
c) Dots
d) Contours
Answer:
b) Shades

II. Fill in blanks.
1. The globe is the true representation of the ……………… .
Answer:
Earth

2. A way of representing the spherical earth on a flat surface is …………….. .
Answer:
Map

3. A line that joins the points of equal elevation is ……………. .
Answer:
Isolines

4. Cadastral maps are usually maintained by…………….. .
Answer:
Thematic map

5. …………… map is focused on a specific theme.
Answer:
Local administrator

III. Choose the option which matches the following correctly.
1. Legend – 45°
2. North East – brown colour
3. Contour Line – thematic map
4. Cadastral map – key of a map
5. Choropleth – taxation
a) 3,5,1,4,2
b) 4,1,2,5,3
c) 2,5,1,3,4
d) 5,2,4,1,3
Answer:
c) 2,5,1,3,4

IV. Match the statement with the reason and select the correct answer.
1. Statement : Small scale maps can show only major features.
Reason : Due to lack of space ,it shows large areas like Continents and countries,
a) Statement is true but reason is wrong.
b) Statement is wrong and reason is correct,
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct
d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct

2. Statement : The conventional signs and symbols are the keys of map reading.
Reason : These symbols give a lots of information in a limited area.
a) Both the statement and reasons are correct.
b) Statement is wrong and reason is correct.
c) Statement is true but reason is wrong.
d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
a) Both the statement and reasons are correct

V. Answer the following in a sentence or two.
1. Define “Map scale”.
Answer:

1. Map scale refers to the relationship (or ratio) between distance on a map and the corresponding distance on the ground.
2. The map scale is stated in words i.e., 1 cm to 1 km.

2. What is a physical map?
Answer:
Map which shows the physical feature of an area is called a physical map.

3. Write a short note on map projection.
Answer:A map projection is a way of representing the spherical earth on a flat surface of a map. The curved surface of the earth cannot be shown accurately on a map. So, cartographers use map projections while mapping the earth surface which would help them to reduce distortions.

4. Name the Intermediate directions.
Answer:
The intermediate directions are northeast, north west, south east, and south west.

5. What are the uses of a cadastral map?
Answer:
Cadastral maps are useful for local administration such as the city survey, taxation, management of estates and to define property in legal documents.

VI. Differentiate.
1. Relief map and thematic map.

Relief Map	Thematic Map
Map that shows the physical features of an area is Usually called Relief map.	Map that focuses on a specific them or subject area.
It shows landforms like rivers, mountains.	It shows phenomena like temperature variation, rainfall distribution and population density.

2. Large scale map and small scale map.

Large scale Map	Small Scale Map
Large scale maps portray the information in detail than the small scale maps.	Small scale maps shows only major feature omitting the minor ones due to lack of space. Large areas like continents or countries small scale maps are used.

3. Globe and Map.

Globe	Map
Globe gives a three-dimensional representation of the entire world and it is a miniature form of the earth.	Map gives a two-dimensional representation of certain regions or the entire world.

VII. Answer in a paragraph.
1. Explain the different types of scales in detail.
Answer:
Scales on maps can be represented in three different ways. They are:

1. Statement or Verbal scale
2. Representative Fraction (RF) or Ratio Scale
3. Graphical or Bar Scale

1. Statement or Verbal scale:

• In this method, the map scale is stated in words i.e., 1 cm to 1 km.
• It means 1 cm distance on the map corresponds to 1 km distance on the ground.
• Thus it is written on the map like 1 cm to 1 km.

2. Representative Fraction (RF) or Numerical Fraction or Ratio Scale:

• It shows the relationship between the map distance and the corresponding ground distance in the same units of length.
• R.F. is generally shown as a fraction.

3. Graphical or Bar Scale or Linear Scale:

• A graphic scale looks like a small ruler drawn at the bottom of the page.
• This line is divided and sub-divided into lengths each of which represents a certain distance on the ground.
• This scale has an added advantage for taking copies of maps as the measurement does not change.

2. Describe the Cadastral map and its importance.
Answer:

• The Cadastral map refers to a map which shows the boundaries and ownership of land within a specified area.
• They are sometimes called plans.
• They show full details of boundaries and buildings.
• They are useful for local administration such as city survey, taxation to define property in legal documents.
• It is maintained by the government as a public record.

Importance:

• It surveys documents boundaries of land ownership, diagrams, sketches plan, and maps.
• They are originally used to ensure reliable facts for land valuation and taxation.

3. Write a paragraph about the conventional signs and symbols.
Answer:
The conventional signs and symbols:

1. Conventional signs are symbols used in maps to represent different features.
2. The symbols are explained in the key of the map.
3. These symbols give a lot of information in a limited space.
4. With the use of these symbols, maps can be drawn easily and the concept of the map can be understood well. There is an international agreement regarding the use of certain symbols.
5. The symbols that fall under this category are Called Conventional Symbols. Another category is called contextual symbols which are decided by the cartographers.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Map Reading Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. A choropleth map is a ………………… Map.
a) Physical
b) Thematic
c) Cadastral
d) All of these
Answer:
b) Thematic

2. Each dot on a dot – density map represents some amount of …………………
a) data
b) water
c) equal
d) All of these
Answer:
a) data

3. Cadastral is derived from ………………… word.
a) french
b) Latin
c) greek
d) English
Answer:
a) french

4. The ………………… surface of the earth cannot be shown accurately on a map.
a) flat
b) curved
c) spherical
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) curved

5. Latitudes and longitudes marked on the map give the ………………… information of the area.
a) Locational
b) Physical
c) Thematical
d) Directional
Answer:
a) Location

6. The ………………… cannot draw maps the same size as the land.
a) Demography
b) Cartography
c) Physiography
d) Topography
Answer:
b) Cartography

7. A ………………… looks like a small ruler drawn at the bottom of the page.
a) Verbal scale
b) Bar scale
c) Legend
d) Direction
Answer:
b) Bar scale

8. A ………………… is included in a map to unlock it.
a) Verbal scale
b) Bar scale
c) Legend
d) Direction
Answer:
c) Legend

9. ………………… is of done by means of an arrow pointing to the north
a) Verbal scale
b) Bar scale
c) Legend
d) Direction
Answer:
d) Direction

10. The ………………… should normally be given outside the frame of the map.
a) Source
b) Bar scale
c) Legend
d) Direction
Answer:
a) Source

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Each map has its own ………………… which is indicated on the map.
Answer:
Scale

2. ………………… tells about the content of the map.
Answer:
Title

3. ………………… shows the relationship between the map distance and the corresponding ground distance.
Answer:
Representative fraction

4. A ………………… looks like a small ruler drawn at the bottom of the page.
Answer:
graphic scale

5. Directions on a map are often given with a symbol called ………………….
Answer:
a Compass rose

6. Maps and globe an important tools for …………………
Answer:
Geographers

7. ………………… is an act of interpreting or understanding the geographic information portrayed on a map.
Answer:
Map reading

8. Globe gives a dimensional Representation of the entire world.
Ans: three

9. ………………… and ………………… marked on maps give the locational information of the area covered in the respective maps.
Answer:
Latitudes, Longitudes

10. ………………… give a lot of information in a limited space.
Answer:
Conventional signs

11. The meaning cadastral, is ………………….
Answer:
Register of Territorial Property

12. ………………… are classified into qualitative and quantitative thematic maps.
Answer:
Thematic maps

13. ………………… is an act of interpreting the geographic information Portuguese on a map
Answer:
Map Reading

14. In the represents ………………… distance
Answer:
1 km

15. In the map Legend symbol denotes …………………
Answer:
camp

III. Choose the option which matches the following correctly.

1. Map	a) Lines connect the same value
2. Cartography	b) Register of Territorial property
3. Map scale	c) Mapmaking
4. Cadastre	d) two-dimensional representation
5. Isoline	e) relationship between distance

Answer:

1. Map	a) Lines connect the same value
2. Cartography	b) Register of Territorial property
3. Map scale	c) Mapmaking
4. Cadastre	d) two-dimensional representation
5. Isoline	e) relationship between distance

IV. Match the statement with the reason and select the correct answer.
1. Statement: A map projection is a way of representing the spherical earth on a flat surface of a map.
Reason: The curved surface of the earth cannot be shown accurately on a map.
a) Statement is true but the reason is wrong.
b) Statement is wrong and the reason is correct,
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct.
d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct

2. Statement: map key or legend is included in a map to unlock it.
Reason: It gives you the information needed for the map to make sense.
a) Statement is true but the reason is wrong.
b) Statement is wrong and the reason is correct.
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct.
d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
c) Both the statement and reasons are correct

V. Answer the following in a sentence or two.
1. Why Is cadastral important?
Answer:
Codastral map survey documents the boundaries of land ownership, by the production of document diagram, sketches, plans, charts, and maps.

2. What are two kinds of Thematic maps?
Answer:
A thematic map is classified into qualitative and quantitative thematic maps.

3. What is a Qualitative map?
Answer:
A qualitative map is in the form of quality and expresses the presence or absence of the subject on a map like the kind of vegetation.

4. What are Isobars?
Answer:
Isobars shows the distribution of atmospheric pressure and isotherms showing the distribution of temperature.

5. State any two uses of maps.

• To find the location of objects and places.
• Display weather conditions.

VI. Differentiate.
1. Conventional signs and Symbols.

Conventional signs	Symbols
Conventional signs are symbols used in maps to represent different features.	The symbols are explained in the key of the map. These symbols give a lot of information in a limited space.

2. Cadastral Map and Thematic Map.

Cadastral Map	Thematic Map
A cadastral map refers to a map that shows the boundaries and ownership of land within a specified area. These maps are sometimes known as plans.	A thematic map is a map that focuses on a specific theme or subject area such as physical phenomena like temperature variation, rainfall distribution and population density in an area.
As they are on large scale, they show full details of the boundaries and buildings.	Thematic maps emphasize spatial variation of human issues like population density or prevalence of diseases.

VII. Answer in a paragraph.
1. What are the uses of maps?
Answer:

• To find location of objects and places.
• To find the transportation routes.
• Maps show strategic location is useful for the military.
• Serve as a tourist guide.
• To find the spatial distribution of different phenomena.
• Display weather conditions.
• Highly helpful in learning geography.
• Represent the real world on small scale.

2. What are the basic components of a map? Explain any two.
Answer:
The basic components of a map are

• Title
• Scale
• Legend or key
• Direction
• Source
• Map projection and locational information and
• Conventional signs and symbols.

Title:
The title tells about the content of the map and is placed mostly at the top comer or at the bottom comer of the map.

Legend or key:

• A map key or Legend is included to unlock the map.
• It gives us the needed information.
• Maps often use symbols or colours to represent things and the key explains what they mean.
• Symbols are the key might be pictures or icons that represent different things on the map.
• Some examples are map legend.
• Campground.
• Emergency Telephone.
• Gravel Road.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 7 Exploring Continents Africa, Australia and Antarctica Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Exploring Continents Africa, Australia and Antarctica

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Exploring Continents Africa, Australia and Antarctica Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. The southernmost tip of Africa is.
a) Cape Blanca
b) Cape Agulhas
c) Cape of Good Hope
d) Cape Town
Answer:
c) Cape of Good Hope

2. The manmade canal through an isthmus between Egypt and Sinai Peninsula is
a) Panama Canal
b) Aswan Canal
c) Suez Canal
d) Albert Canel
Answer:
c) Suez Canal

3. In respect of the Mediterranean climate, consider the following statements, and choose the correct answer.
(1) The average rainfall is 15cm
(2) The summers are hot and dry, winters are rainy.
(3) Winters are cool and dry, Summers are hot and wet
(4) Citrus fruits are grown
a) 1 is correct
b) 2 and 4 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
b) 2 and 4 are correct

4. The range which separates the west and east flowing rivers in Australia is
a) Great Dividing Range
b) Himalayan Range
c) Flinders range
d) Mac Donnell Range
Answer:
a) Great Dividing Range

5. Kalgoorile is famous for ………. mining.
a) Diamond
b) Platinum
c) Silver
d) Gold
Answer:
d) Gold

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Atlas Mountain is located in ………………. continent
Answer:
African

2. ………………. is the highest peak of Africa.
Answer:
Mt. Kilimanjaro

3. ………………. is the most common tree in Australia.
Answer:
Eucalyptus

4. A temperate grass land of Australia is called ………………. .
Answer:
Downs

5. ………………. is the first Indian research station in Antarctica.
Answer:
Dakshi Gangotri

III. Match the following.

1. Pinnacle	a) Equatorial forest.
2. Krill	b) salt lake
3. Ostrich	c) small red fish
4. Lake Eyre	d) flightless bird
5. Jewel of the Earth	e) Pointed limestone pillar

Answer:

1. Pinnacle	e) Pointed limestone pillar
2. Krill	c) small red fish ‘
3. Ostrich	d) flightless bird
4. Lake Eyre	b) salt lake
5. Jewel of the Earth	a) Equatorial forest

IV. Let us learn.
1. Assertion (A) : Aurora is a curtain of colour lights appear in the sky.
Reason (R) : They are caused by magnetic storms in the upper atmosphere.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) R is true but A is false
Answer:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Assertion (A) : A geological feature of Africa is the Great Rift Valley.
Reason (R) : A Rift valley is a large crack in the earth’s surface formed by tectonic activity.
a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) R is true but, A is false.
Answer:
a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

V. Answer in brief.
1. Why Africa is called a “Mother Continent”?
Answer:
Africa is nicknamed the ‘Mother Continent’ as it was the oldest inhabited continent on Earth.

2. What are the important rivers of Africa?
Answer:
The most important rivers in Africa

• River Nile – father of African rivers.
• River Congo or Zaire – the second largest river.
• River Niger – Major river.
• River Zambezi – fourth largest river and River of life.

3. Name the physical division of Australia.
Answer:
The Physical divisions of Australia are –

1. The Great Western Plateau
2. The Central Low lands
3. The Eastern High lands

4. Write about the nature of the Antarctic continent.
Answer:

• Antarctica is the southernmost and fifth-largest continent in the world.
• As it is located in polar regions it is the coldest continent with a permanent cover of ice.
• Its landform consists of mountains, peaks, valleys, glaciers, and plateau.

5. Mention any four economic activities of Australia.
Answer:
Agriculture, forestry, fishing mining, manufacturing, trade, and services are the major economic activities of Australia.

VI. Distinguish between.
1. Sahel and Sahara

Sahel	Sahara
Sahel means border or margin	Largest hot desert in the world.
It is largely a semi – acid belt of barren, sandy and rocky land.	It covers the area of 11 countries.
This region marks the physical and cultural transition.	Mt. Koussi, an extinct volcano in chad is the highest point in Sahara.

2. Western Antarctica and Eastern Antarctica.

Western Antarctica	Eastern Antarctica
Faces the Pacific Ocean.	Faces the Atlantic and Indian Ocean.
Antarctica Penninsula which points towards South America shows that it is the continuation of the Andes mountain range.	Mt. Erebus is an active volcano. Located in Ross Island. Onlycontinent called white continent because of the ice cap in 4,000 meters deep.

3. Great Barrier Reef and the Artesian Basin.

Barrier Reef	Artesian Basin
1. It is located in the northeast of Australia along the east coast of Queensland in the Pacific Ocean.	The Artesian Basin is a region on the earth’s surface where water gushes out like a fountain.
2. It is formed by the tiny coral polyps.	Largest and deepest basin in the world.
3. It is about 2300 km long.	Located in the west of the Great Dividing range.
4. One of the natural wonders of the world.	Found in arid and Semi-arid parts of Queensland.

VII. Give reasons.
1. Egypt is called the gift of the Nile.
Answer:

• The Nile is the lifeline of Egypt
• Without the Nile, Egypt would have been a desert
• So Egypt in the gift of the Nile.

2. Deserts are found in the western margins of the continents.
Answer:

• Most deserts are found in the Western margins of the subtropics.
• Because the prevailing winds in the tropics are tropical easterly winds.
• The tropical easterly winds become dry by the time they reach the western margins.

3. Antarctica is called the continent of scientists.
Answer:

• Scientists of any country are free to conduct experiments and collect data from Antarctica.
• Hence it is called the ‘continent of Science’.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph each.
1. Give an account of the mineral wealth of Australia.
Answer:

• Minerals are the largest export item in Australia.
• It contributes about 10 % of the country’s GDP.
• Australia is the world’s leading producer of bauxite, limonite, the second-largest producer of gold. lead, lithium, manganese ore, and zinc.
• The third-largest producer of iron ore and uranium and the fourth-largest producer of black coal.
• The Coal belts of the country stretch from New castle to Sydney.
• Iron ores are found mainly in southern and Western Australia.
• Bauxite is mined around the Gulf of Carpentaria.
• Uranium is mined in northern territory.
• Gold is mined in the Western desert at Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

2. Describe the flora and fauna of Antarctica.
Answer:
Flaora and Fauna:

1. Since the temperature is below freezing point almost throughout the year, no major vegetation is found in this continent.
2. Simple plants like algae, mosses, liverworts, lichens, and microscopic fungi can survive and grow in Antarctica.
3. Some algae live in the snow, while other plants grow on the coastal rocky land that is ice-free.
4. A few species of plants, such as plankton, algae, and mosses are seen in and around, Antarctica’s fresh and saltwater lakes.
5. Small redfish called krill are found in large shoals. It is food for many warm-blooded sea animals.
6. The blue whale is the largest animal that feeds on plankton. All these animals and birds have a thick layer of fat called blubber which helps them to withstand the cold condition.
7. Penguin birds in Antarctica cannot fly. They have webbed feet and flippers instead of wings. Small invertebrates are the only land animals which live in the continent.

3. Name the physical divisions of Africa and explain anyone.
Answer:
The physical divisions of Africa are

1. Sahara
2. Sahel
3. Savanna
4. The Great Rift Valley and the Great Lakes of Africa
5. East Africa Highlands
6. Swahili Coast
7. The Congo Basin or Zaire Basin
8. Southern Africa.

Sahel:

• Sahel means border or margin. Sahel is a semi-arid tropical Savannah region that lies between Sahara.
• Desert in the north and grassland into the south.
• It Stretches east-west for a distance of 4000 km and covers an area of 30 million sq Km.
• It is largely a semi-arid belt of barren, sandy, and rocky land.
• This region marks the physical and cultural transition between the more fertile tropical regions in the south and desert in the north.

X. Activity.
1. Find out the hemisphere and season during December for the following countries

Country	Hemisphere	Season
South Africa	Southern	Summer
Morocco	Northern	Winter
Australia	Southern	Summer
Niger	Northern	Winter
Egypt’	Northern	Winter
Tasmania	Southern	Summer
India	Northern	Winter

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Exploring Continents Africa, Australia and Antarctica Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Jasmania is also known as
a) Apple Island
b) Bourke
c) Artesion Basin
d) Sydney
Answer:
a) Apple Island

2. …………….. was discovered by Captian James Cook in 1770
a) Canberra
b) Australia
c) Africa
d) Antarctica
Answer:
b) Australia

3. Tropical rain forest is called the
a) Tropical deserts
b) Jewel of the earth
c) Mother continent
d) Rift Valley
Answer:
b) Jewel of the earth

4. Lake is the largest freshwater body in Africa.
a) Supervisor
b) Victoria
c) Albert
d) Kiva
Answer:
b) Victoria

5. Mount an extinct volcano in chad is the highest point in the Sahara
a) Koussi
b) Kilimanjaro
c) Everest
d) Atlas
Answer:
a) Koussi

6. …………………. is nicknamed the ”mother continent”.
a) Africa
b) Australia
c) South Africa
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Africa

7. the Maghreb means west in language.
a) greek
b) Sanskrit
c) Arabic
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Arabic

8. …………….. is one of the largest hot deserts in the world.
a) Sahara
b) Sahel
c) Savanna
d) Great Rift Valley
Answer:
a) Sahara

9. …………….. flows through West-Central Africa and drains into the Atlantic Ocean.
a) River Nile
b) River Congo
c) River Niger
d) River
Answer:
b) River Congo

10. The Tropic of Capricorn cuts the continent almost into equal halves.
a) three
b) three
c) four
d) two
Answer:
d) two

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. …………… is the largest research station on Antarctica.
Answer:
Mcmurdo

2. Vinson. …………….. is the highest peak in Antarctica.
Answer:
Massif

3. Wool is described as ……………. of Australia.
Answer:
Cash Crop

4. …………… is the longest river in Australia.
Answer:
River Murray

5. Great Barrier Reef is formed by …………………
Answer:
Coral Polyps

6. Sahel means ………………..
Answer:
border or margin

7. …………… is the capital of ghana.
Answer:
Acera

8. …………… was the first to use the term “Dark Continent”.
Answer:
Henry M. Stanly

9. ………….. is the deepest point in Sahara.
Answer:
The Qattara Depression

10. …………… is the highest point in Atlas Mountain.
Answer:
Mount Jaubbakal

11. ………….. is one of the largest plains in Savanna.
Answer:
The Serengeti Plain

12. People of Swahili culture is called ……………….
Answer:
Swahili

13. ………………… Mountain is found in the eastern portion of the escarpment.
Answer:
Drakensberg

14. Nile river is also called ………………
Answer:
Father of African river

15. The country Egypt is called ………………….
Answer:
gift of the Nile

III. Match the following.

1. Bamboo tree	a) Veld
2. Karoo	b) Libya
3. Open air Zoo	c) Africa
4. A1 – ziza	d) Sheep rearing
5. Grassland	e) Savanna

Answer:

1. Bamboo tree	c) Africa
2. Karoo	d) Sheep rearing
3. Open air Zoo	e) Savanna
4. A1 – ziza	b) Libya
5. Grassland	a) Veld

IV. Let us learn.
1. Assertion (A): Antarctica is a unique continent but it does not have a native population. There is no country in Antarctica.
Reason (R): It is located in the polar region, it is the coldest continent with a permanent cover of ice.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) R is true but A is false.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.

2. Assertion (A): A rift valley is a large crack in the earth’s surface formed by the shifting of tectonic plates.
Reason (R): It runs through eastern Africa and contains many lakes.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) R is true but A is false.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.

V. Answer in brief.
1. Write a short note on Xerophytes.
Answer:
The Plants and trees in Australia are adapted to dry conditions and can survive for long period without water called Xerophytes.

2. What is the Political division of Australia?
Answer:

• The political division of Australia are six states and two union territories.
• They are New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Jasmania, Victoria, Western Australia, Northern Territory, and Capital Territory.

3. What do you know about the “Continent of Science”?
Answer:
Scientists of any Country are free to conduct experiments and collect data from Antarctica and so it is called the continent of science.

4. Great Barrier Reef – Explain
Answer:

• Great Barrier Reef is located in the northeast of Australia along the east coast of Queen’s land in the Pacific Ocean.
• It is formed by the tiny coral polyps.

5. State a few minerals found in Antarctica.
Answer:
Few minerals found in Antarctica are gold, Platinium, Nickel, Copper, and petroleum.

VI. Distinguish between.
1. The Great Western Plateau and The eastern highlands.

The Great Western Plateau (Australia)	The eastern highlands
1. It is Australia’s largest physical division. Its area is about 2,700,000 square kilometers.	It extends for about 3860 km along the eastern edge of Australia.
2. It is 863 meters high above sea level. It is one of the natural wonders of Australia.	Australian Alps mountain range is the highest mountain range in Australia. It is covered with ice.
3. The Great Victoria Desert is the largest desert in Australia located in Western, Australia, and South Australia.	The highest peak of this range is Mt. Kosciuszko (2230 m) and is located in New South Wales.

2. River Nile and River Congo or Zaire.

River Nile	River Congo or Zaire
The Nile is the longest river in the world. The Nile is known as the “Father of African Rivers”.	Congo is the second largest river in Africa after the Nile.
Its length is about 6650 km.	Its length is about 4700km.
It flows northward and drains into the Mediterranean-sea.	It flows through West-Central Africa and drains into the Atlantic Ocean.

VII. Give reasons.
1. The Zambezi River is a Southern African “River of Life.
Answer:

• The fourth-largest river system in Africa.
  It drains seven countries and supports millions of people, who make use of its rich fisheries, forests, water, and rich floodplain soils.

2. the Nile is known as the “Father of African Rivers”.

• Nile River the longest river in the world, called the father of African rivers.
• It rises south of the Equator and flows northward through northeastern Africa to drain into the Mediterranean Sea.
• It has a length of about 6,650 kilometers and drains an area estimated at 3,349,000 square kilometers.

1. How is the climatic condition of Africa divided?
Answer:
It is divided into six major climatic zones. They are.
Arid and semi-arid climate:

• Northern & Southern Africa
• Rainfall – scanty Tropical Savanna Climate:
• 100-200 latitude or either side of the equator
• The tropical wet and dry climate
• Equatorial climate
• The equatorial region near the congo basin and east African highlands.
• Temperature and rainfall are high.

Temperature Climate:

• The southern tip of southern Africa.
• Climate Equable
• Mediterranean Climate
• NorthWestern and Southwestern tip of Africa.
• Gets rainfall in winter while in summer it is hot and dry.

Tropical Monsoon Climate:

• Eastern shore of Africa.
• Summer is hot with monsoon winds bringing good rainfall winter is cool and dry.

2. What’s the role of agriculture in Africa?
Answer:

• Agriculture is a major economic activity.
• Wheat is grown in temperate grasslands.
• Rice is cultivated on the Guinea coast.
• Maize and Millets are grown all over the plateau.
• Cotton is the chief cash crop of Africa.
• Coffee is grown in Ethiopia
• Ghana is the chief producer of cocoa.
• Oil palm in west African countries.
• Sugarcane, rubber, tobacco are the major crops of East African countries.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 6 Industries Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Industries

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Industries Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Silk weaving and household industries come under the category of ………………….
a) Small scale industry
b) Large scale industry
c) Marine based industry
d) Capital intensive industry
Answer:
a) Small scale industry

2. On the basis of ownership the industry can be divided into ……………… types
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
c) 4

3. Amul dairy industry is the best example of ……………….. sector.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Co-operative sector
d) Joint sector
Answer:
c) Co-operative sector

4. Iron and Steel and Cement Industries are examples of ………………….. industries.
a) Agro-based
b) Mineral-based
c) Forest-based
d) Marine based
Answer:
b) Mineral-based

5. Tertiary activity is divided into ……………….. types
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5
Answer:
c) 2

II. Fill in the blank.
1. Banking is a ……………. economic activity.
Answer:
Tertiary

2. Tertiary activity is divided into ……………. and ……………..
Answer:
Quaternary, Quinary

3. Government decision-making process comes under the ……………… category of tertiary economic activity.
Answer:
Quinary

4. Raw material based perspective Cotton Textile industry is a ………………. industry.
Answer:
Agro-based

5. Capital required for establishing a large scale industry is more than ………………..
Answer:
One Crore

III. Match the following.

1. Judicial sector	a) Private Sector
2. TV telecasts	b) Non Geographical factor
3. Geographical factor	c) Quaternary activity
4. Capital	d) Raw materials
5. BajajiAuto	e) Quinary activity

Answer:

1. Judicial sector	e) Quinary activity
2. TV telecasts	c) Quaternary activity
3. Geographical factor	d) Raw materials
4. Capital	b) Non Geographical factor
5. Bajaj Auto	a) Private Sector

IV. Distinguish the following.
1. Secondary economic activity and tertiary economic activity.

Secondary economic activity	Tertiary economic Activity
It changes raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing	It provided essential services and support industries to function.
Eg: Bakery	Eg: Education

2. Agro-based and marine-based industries.

Agro-based industry	Marine based industry
Industries which use plant and animal-based products as raw materials.	Industries which use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials.
Eg: Cotton textile	Eg: Seafood processing

3. Large scale industries and small scale industries.

Large Scale Industries	Small Scale Industries
The Capital required for the establishment of an industry is more than one crore	The Capital required for the establishment of an industry is less than one crore
Eg: Iron and Steel	Eg: Silk wearing

V. Answer briefly.
1. Define the industry.
Answer:
The industry is a process by which the raw materials are changed into finished products.

2. What is meant by economic activity?
Answer:
Any action that involves the production, distribution, consumption, or service is an economic activity.

3. Name the major economic activities.
Answer:
The major economic activities are:

• Primary Economic Activities (e.g., Raw cotton production)
• Secondary Economic Activities (e.g., Spinning mill)
• Tertiary Economic Activities (e.g., Trade, Transport)

4. What are the secondary economic activities? Give some examples.
Answer:
The activity which changes raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing
eg: Bakery, factory.

5. What is the Quinary activity? Elucidate with an example.
Answer:

1. Quinary economic activities refer to the high-level decision making processes by executives in industries, business, education, and government.
2. This sector includes top executives or officials in the fields of science and technology, universities health care, etc.
3. In our house, our parents make decisions by themselves in some situations.
4. Similarly, the Council of Ministers takes decisions to introduce various people welfare schemes in the state.
5. These two are examples of quinary activities.

6. Name the factors responsible for the location of industries.
Answer:
Raw material, Labour, Capital, Market, Power, Land, Transport

7. Write a short note on the following
Answer:
1. Large scale Industries:
The capital required for the establishment of an industry is more than one crore the industry is called a large scale industry.
Eg: Iron & steel, Oil refineries, Cement and Textile industries, etc.

2. Small scale industries:
The capital required for the establishment of an industry is less than one crore, the industry is called a small scale industry.
Eg: Silk weaving and household industries.

VI. Write in detail.
1. Classify and explain the industries based on the source of raw materials.
Answer:
Industries are classified on various bases in the following ways. On the basis of raw materials.
1. Agro Based Industries:

• These industries use plant and animal-based products as their raw materials.
• Example; Food Processing, Vegetable Oil, Cotton Textile, Dairy Products, etc.

2. Mineral-Based Industries:

• These are the industries that use mineral ores as their raw materials.
• Iron made from iron ore is the product of a mineral-based industry. Cement, Machine Tools, etc. are the other examples of mineral-based industries.

3. Marine Based Industries:

• These industries use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials.
• Example; Processed Sea Food, Fish Oil manufacturing units, etc.

4. Forest-Based Industries:

• These industries use forest products as raw materials.
• Example; Pulp and Paper, Furniture and Some Pharmaceuticals industries, etc.

2. Explain the Geographical factors which affect the location of industries?
Answer:
The geographical factors which affect the location of industries
Raw material:
Materials cannot be transported for long distances, so industries are located near the raw material availability.

Power:
Power is the basic for the industry so it’s generated from conventional sources which should be located near the industries.

Labour:
Availability of cheap and skilled labour is more important.

Transport:
Availability of easy transportation always influences the industry location.

Storage and warehousing:
Finished products should be stored at a suitable storage or warehouse till the goods are taken to the market.

Topography:
The selected site should be flat; which is supported by different transport

Climate:

• Extreme climate condition is not suitable for successful industrial growth. Water Resources:
• Many industries are established near rivers, canals, and lakes for proper functioning.

3. Classify the industries through a flow chart.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Industries Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Industries are ………………. Economic Activities.
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
Answer:
b) Secondary

2. …………………… is mostly generated from conventional Sources like mineral oil and water.
a) Thermal Power
b) Water Resources
c) Power
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Power

3. Service sector contributing around …………………… of the Indian Gross Domestic Product.
a) 63%
b) 53%
c) 55%
d) 73%
Answer:
b) 53%

4. …………………… is served by different modes of Transport.
a) Labour
b) Power
c) Topography
d) Climate
Answer:
c) Topography

5. The factors affecting the location of Industries are …………………….
a) Raw materials
b) Land
c) Water
d) all of these
Answer:
d) all of these

6. …………………… Sector is owned and operated by individuals.
a) Public
b) Private
c) both
d) none
Answer:
b) Private

7. Example for Mineral Based Industries is …………………….
a) Vegetable oil
b) Machine Tools
c) Cotton industry
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Machine Tools

8. Example for Forest-Based Industries is ……………………
a) Paper Industry
b) Processed Seafood
c) Cotton Industry
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Paper Industry

9. …………………… is a Private Sector Industry.
a) BHEL
b) HAC
c) SAIC
d) Reliance
Answer:
d) Reliance

10. …………………… is a Joint Sector Industry.
a) Amul
b) BHEL
c) Bajaj Auto
d) Maruti Udyog
Answer:
d) Maruti Udyog

II. Fill in blanks.
1. Many …………….. are not fit for human consumption.
Answer:
raw materials

2. The economic strength of a country is always measured by the development of ………….
Answer:
manufacturing industries

3. …………….. is one of the largest sectors of India.
Answer:
Service Sector

4. The Service sector is the …………….. of the Indian economy.
Answer:
Backbone

5. …………….. is base and essential to run the entire industry.
Answer:
Power

6. …………….. climate is ideal for the cotton textile industry.
Answer:
Cool – humid

7. …………….. is not suitable for successful industrial growth.
Answer:
Extreme Climate

8. …………….. investment is needed for the establishment of industries.
Answer:
Capital

9. Detroit city in …………….. is known as the world’s traditional automotive centre.
Answer:
Michigan in the USA

10. …………….. is known as Detroit of India.
Answer:
Chennai

11. Creation and transfer of information is …………….. activity.
Answer:
quaternary

12. …………….. is an Example of Marine Based Industries.
Answer:
Fish oil manufacturing units

13. BHEL ……………..
Answer:
Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd

14. HAL ……………..
Answer:
Hindusthan Aeronautics Limited

15. SAIL ……………..
Answer:
Steel Authority of India

III. Match the following.

1. Primary economic activity	a) transportation
2. Secondary economic activity	b) Science and technology
3. Tertiary economic activity	c) Forestry
4. Quaternary economic activity	d) flour into bread
5. Quinary economic activity	e) television

Answer:

1. Primary economic activity	c) Forestry
2. Secondary economic activity	d) flour into bread
3. Tertiary economic activity	a) transportation
4. Quaternary economic activity	e) television
5. Quinary economic activity	b) Science and technology

IV. Distinguish the following.
1. Primary economic activity and Secondary economic activity.

Primary economic activity	Secondary economic activity
1. These are the economic activities which have been originated in the very beginning.	Secondary activities are those that change raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing.
2. It includes activities such as forestry, grazing, hunting, food gathering, fishing, agriculture, mining, and quarrying.	Bakeries that make flour into bread and factories that change metals and plastics into vehicles are examples of secondary activities.

2. Private Sector Industries and Public Sector Industries.

Private Sector Industries	Public Sector Industries
These types of industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals.	These types of industries are owned and operated by the Government.
Eg: Bajaj Auto, Reliance, etc.	HAL, BHEL, SAIL are examples of Public sector industries.

V. Answer briefly.
1. What is Primary economic activity?
Answer:
The activities which have been originated in the very beginning.

2. What do you know about the service sector?
Answer:
It is one of the largest sectors of India and its the backbone of the Indian economy.

3. What are the non-geographical factors responsible for the location of industries?
Answer:
Capital, Availability of Loans, Government policies or regulation.

4. How are industries classified on the basis of raw materials.
Answer:

• Agro-based industries,
• Mineral-based industries,
• Marine – based industries and
• Forest-based industries.

5. Give a short note on forest-based industries.
Answer:
The industries which use forest products as their raw materials.

6. How does climate become a factor responsible for a location for industries?
Answer:
Extreme Climatic condition is not suitable for the successful industrial growth few industries require specific climate.

7. What is co-operative sector industries.
Answer:
Industries of this kind are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials of workers or both.

VI. Write in detail.
1. Classify and explain the industries based on the source of raw materials.
Answer:
On the basis of ownership, industries are
Private Sector Industries:

• Owned and operated by individuals or groups
• BajajAuto.

Public Sector Industries:

• Owned and operated by the Government.
• BHEL, SAIL.

Joint Sector Industries:

• Owned and operated jointly by the government and Individuals groups.
• Indian Synthetic Rubber Ltd.

Co-operative Sector Industries:

• Owned and operated by the producers.
• AMUL.

2. State the major and fundamental economic activities.
Answer:
Primary Economic Activity:

• Originated from the forest.
• Hunting, Grecizing.

Secondary Economic Activity:

• Changes raw material into usable products through processing and manufacturing.
• Bakery industries.

Tertiary Economic Activity:

• Provides essential services and support industries to function.
• Education, medical.

Quaternary Economic Activity:

• Creation and transfer of information, including research and training.
• Program telecasted in T.V.

Quinary Economic Activity:

• High-level decision-making process by executives.
• Top executives, Judiciary.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 5 v Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Hazards

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Hazards Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. ………………. percentage of nitrogen is present in the air.
a) 78.09%
b) 74.08%
c) 80.07%
d) 76.63%
Answer:
a) 78.09%

2. Tsunami in the Indian Ocean took place in the year ………………. .
a) 1990
b) 2004
c) 2005
d) 2008
Answer:
b) 2004

3. The word tsunami is derived from ………………. language.
a) Hindi
b) French
c) Japanese
d) German
Answer:
c) Japanese

4. The example of surface water is
a) Artesian well
b) Groundwater
c) Subsurface water
d) Lake
Answer:
d) Lake

5. Event that occurs due to the failure of monsoons.
a) Condensation
b) Drought
c) Evaporation
d) Precipitation
Answer:
b) Drought

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Hazards may lead to …………….
Answer:
affect the community most severely

2. Landslide is an example of …………… hazard.
Answer:
geologic

3. On the basis of origin, the hazard can be grouped into …………… categories.
Answer:
8 (or) eight

4. Terrorism is an example of …………… hazard.
Answer:
human-induced

5. Oxides of nitrogen are …………… pollutants which affect human beings.
Answer:
primary

6. Chernobyl nuclear accident took place in
Answer:
26th April 1986

III. Match the following.

List I	List II
1. Primary pollutant	a. Terrorism
2. Hazardous waste	b. Tsunami
3. Earthquake	c. Outdated drugs
4. Meteorological drought	d. Oxides of sulphur
5. Human induced hazard	e. Reduction in rainfall

Answer:

List I	List II
1. Primary pollutant	d. Oxides of sulphur
2. Hazardous waste	c. Outdated drugs
3. Earthquake	b. Tsunami
4. Meteorological drought	e. Reduction in rainfall
5. Human induced hazard	a. Terrorism

IV. Answer in brief.
1. Define ‘hazard’?
Answer:
‘Hazards are defined as a thing, person, event or factor that poses a threat to people, structures or economic assets and which may cause a disaster.’

2. What are the major types of hazards?
Answer:

• Natural hazards
• Human-made hazards
• Socio-natural hazards

3. Write a brief note on hazardous wastes.
Answer:
The wastes that may or tend to cause adverse health effects on the ecosystem and human beings are called hazardous wastes.

4. List out the major flood-prone areas of our country.
Answer:
Punjab, West Bengal, Odisha are the region which is also prone to flood often.

5. Mention the types of drought.
Answer:
Drought could be classified into three types. They are:

1. Meteorological drought
2. Hydrological drought
3. Agricultural drought

6. Why should not we construct houses in foothill areas?
Answer:
Because of the presence of steep slopes and heavy rainfall we should not construct houses at the foothills areas.

V. Distinguish the following.
1. Hazards and disasters.

Hazards	Disasters
Hazards occur frequently and threaten people.	It is a hazardous event that occurs over a limited time span.
Ex: Natural hazards, Earthquake.	Ex: Flood

2. Natural hazards and human-made hazards.

Natural hazard	Human-made hazard
Man has no role to play in such hazards.	These are caused by the undesirable activities of humans.
Ex: Flood, drought, etc.	Ex: Pollution of air and water

3. Flood and drought.

Flood	Drought
It occurs through heavy rainfall.	It occurs through no rainfall.
It is often held in the coastal Andhra Pradesh & Odisha.	The dry region has seen in the leeward side of Western ghats.

4. Earthquake and tsunami.

Earthquake	Tsunami
The violent tremor of the earth’s crust is called an Earthquake.	Tsunami refers to huge ocean waves caused by landslides.
The study of earthquakes is called Seismograph.	The study of the Tsunami is called Oceanography.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.
1. Write an essay on air pollution.
Answer:
Pollution of Air:

1. Air is a mixture of several gases.
2. The main gases are nitrogen (78.09%) for forming products such as fertilizers for plants and for making the air inert, oxygen (20.95%) for breathing and carbon dioxide (0.03%) for photosynthesis.
3. Some other gases like argon, neon, helium, krypton, hydrogen, zenon and methane are also present.
4. Air pollution is the contamination of indoor or outdoor air by a range of gases. Air pollution can be categorized into primary and secondary pollutants.
5. A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source.
6. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted.
7. Primary pollutants are as follows:
   • Oxides of Sulphur
   • Oxides of Nitrogen
   • Oxides of Carbon
   • Particulate Matter and
   • Other primary pollutants
8. Secondary pollutants are as follows:
   • Ground Level Ozone
   • Smog

2. Define earthquake and list out its effects.
Answer:
Earthquakes:

• Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.
• Earthquake-prone regions of the country have been identified on the basis of scientific inputs relating to seismicity, earthquakes that occurred in the past, and the tectonic setup of the region.
• Based on these inputs, the Bureau of Indian Standards has grouped the country into four seismic zones: Zone II, Zone III, Zone IV, and Zone V (No area of India is classified as Zone I).
  

  Seismic Zones	Level of Risk
  Zone V	Very High
  Zone IV	High
  Zone III	Moderate
  Zone II	Low

3. Give a detailed explanation of the causes of landslides.
Answer:

1. Landslide is a rapid downward movement of rock, soil, and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity.

2. The causes of landslides are wide-ranging, They have two aspects in common.

3. Force of gravity and

4. Failure of Soil

5. Landslides are considered of two types. They are:

• Naturally occurring disaster.
• Human-induced changes in the environment.

6. Natural causes of landslides are:

• Climatic changes
• Seismic activities
• Weathering
• Soil erosion
• Forest fires
• Gravity and
• Volcanic eruption

7. Human causes of landslides include deforestation mining, construction of roads, and railways over the mountain.

4. Elaborately discuss the effects of water pollution.
Answer:

• It may cause a harmful effect on any living thing that drinks or uses or lives in it.
• It may be defined as alternation in the physical, chemical, and biological characteristics of water, which may cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.

The major causes of water pollution in India are:

• Urbanisation
• Industrial effluents
• Sewages etc.
• Agricultural runoff and improper agricultural practices
• Seawater intrusion
• Solid wastes

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Hazards Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. The content of Oxygen in the air is …………….
a) 20.95%
b) 21.95%
c) 22.95%
d) 23.95%
Answer:
a) 20.95%

2. The word ‘hazard’ Originated from the ……………. language.
a) French
b) Telugu
c) Malayalam
d) Kannada
Answer:
a) French

3. National Institute of Disaster Management located in ……………..
a) Britain
b) New Delhi
c) France
d) Japan
Answer:
b) New Delhi

4. In Tamil Nadu ……………. coastal districts are frequently affected by Storm Surges.
a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16
Answer:
a) 13

5. The areas that receive an annual rainfall of less than ……………. are the drought zone regions of India.
a) 60 cm
b) 50 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 45 cm
Answer:
a) 60 cm

6. The meaning of Tsunami is ……………..
a) Wave
b) Harbour wave
c) Storm
d) Storm wave
Answer:
b) Harbour wave

7. In ……………. the Ukraine part of Exclusion Zone was declared as a radiogical and environmental biosphere.
a) 2013
b) 2014
c) 2015
d)2016
Answer:
d) 2016

8. In India about ……………. of the land mass is prone to landslide hazard.
a) 15%
b) 18%
c) 19%
d) 20%
Answer:
a) 15%

9. In Trophical Cyclones the wind Speed may reach upto ……………. per hour.
a) 200 km
b) 100 km
c) 300 km
d) 400 km
Answer:
a) 200 km

10. High-Pressure Zone is mentioned in the Geographical map as ……………. letter.
a) L
b) P
c) H
d) S
Answer:
c) H

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The meaning of hazard is ………………..
Answer:
a game of dice

2. ………………. may be worsened by the destruction of mangroves.
Answer:
Storm Surge hazard

3. ………………. is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust.
Answer:
Earthquake

4. ………………. is a strong wind circulating around a low-pressure area in the atmosphere.
Answer:
Cyclonic Storm

5. During Cyclonic the wind speed may reach upto …………. km and rainfall may record up to …………… cm.
Answer:
200, 50

6. A sudden rise of sea water due to trophical cyclone is called ………………..
Answer:
Storm Surge

7. ………………. and ………………. are the major causes of landslides.
Answer:
Steep slope, heavy rainfall

8. In Tamil Nadu ………………. and ………………. are frequently affected by landslides.
Answer:
Kodaikanal, Ooty

9. The gas used for Photosynthesis is ………………..
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

10. A ………………. pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a Source.
Answer:
Primary

11. ………………. may be defined by alteration is the physical, chemical, and biological characteristics of water.
Answer:
Water Pollution

12. In India ………………. is perhaps the most critical components in Managing Disasters.
Answer:
prevention

13. Example for Biological hazard is ………………..
Answer:
Chicken Box

14. ………………., ………………. are Human-made hazards.
Answer:
Explosions, hazardous waste

15. Primary Pollutant example ………………..
Answer:
oxides of Sulphur

III. Match the following.

1. Geological hazard	a) Floods, Coastal erosion
2. Hydrologic hazard	b) Eruptions and Lava flows
3. Volcanic hazard	c) Chickenpox, Smallpox
4. Environmental hazard	d) Earthquakes, Tsunami
5. Biological hazard	e) Soil, air

Answer:

1. Geological hazard	d) Earthquakes, Tsunami
2. Hydrologic hazard	a) Floods, Coastal erosion
3. Volcanic hazard	b) Eruptions and Lava flows
4. Environmental hazard	e) Soil, air
5. Biological hazard	c) Chickenpox, Smallpox

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. Tsunami means Stormy Surge.
Answer:
False

2. A Secondary Pollutant is not directly emitted.
Answer:
True

V. Assertion and Reasons.
1. Assertion: Landslides are generally Sudden and infrequent.
Reason: The presence of Sleep Slope and heavy rainfall are the major causes of landslides.
a) A is correct but R is incorrect
b) Both A and R are incorrect
c) A is incorrect and R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
d) Both A and R are correct

VI. Answer in brief.
1. Define Catastrophe.
Answer:
A catastrophe is a massive disaster that requires a significant expenditure of money and a long time for recovery.

2. What are the major causes of floods?
Answer:
The major causes of floods are:
Meteorological factors

• Heavy rainfall
• Tropical cyclones
• Cloudburst Physical factors
• Large catchment area
• Inadequate drainage arrangement

Human factors

• Deforestation
• Siltation
• Faulty agricultural practices
• Faulty irrigation practices
• Collapse of dams
• Accelerated urbanisation.

3. Write short notes on Indian Ocean Tsunami?
Answer:

• On December 26, 2004, at 7:59 a.m. local time, an undersea earthquake with a magnitude of 9.1 struck off the coast of the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
• The tsunami killed at least 2,25,000 people across a dozen countries, with Indonesia, Sri Lanka, India, Thailand, Somalia and Maldives, sustaining massive damage.

4. Explain Prevention Measures.
Answer:
Prevention is defined as the activities taken to prevent a natural calamity or potential hazard from having harmful effects on either people or economic assets.

VII. Distinguish the following.
1. Geologic hazard and Environmental hazard.

Geologic hazard	Environmental hazard
Earthquakes, Tsunami, Landslide and Land subsidence.	Pollution of soil/ air/water, Desertification, Global warming and Deforestation.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph.
1. Explain about Socio – natural hazards.
Answer:
Socio-natural hazards:
These are caused by the combined effect of natural forces and misdeeds of human. Some of the examples are:

• The frequency and intensity of floods and droughts may increase due to indiscriminate felling of trees, particularly in the catchment areas of the rivers.
• Landslides are caused by natural forces and their frequency, and impact may be aggravated as a result of construction of roads, houses etc., in mountainous areas, excavating tunnels and by mining and quarrying.
• Storm surge hazards may be worsened by the destruction of mangroves.
• Smog is a serious problem in most big urban areas. The emissions from vehicles and industries, combustion of wood and coal together combined with fog leads to smog.

2. Explain the Hazards based on their origin.
Answer:
Hazards can be grouped into eight categories
1. Atmospheric hazard:
Tropical storms, Thunderstorms, Lightning, Tornadoes, Avalanches, Heat waves, Fog and Forest fire.

2. Geologic/Seismic hazard:
Earthquakes, Tsunami, Landslide and Land subsidence.

3. Hydrologic hazard:
Floods, Droughts, Coastal erosion and Storm surges.

4. Volcanic hazard:
Eruptions and Lava flows.

5. Environmental hazard:
Pollution of soil/ air/water, Desertification, Global warming and Deforestation.

6. Biological hazard:
Chickenpox, Smallpox, AIDS [HIV] and Killer bees.

7. Technological hazard:
Hazardous material incidents, Fires, Infrastructure failures [Bridges, Tunnels, Dams, Nuclear and Radiological accidents].

8. Human-induced hazard:
Terrorism, Bomb blast, War, Transportation accidents and Civil disorder.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 4 Migration and Urbanisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Migration and Urbanisation

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Migration and Urbanisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. People move from ……………. to ……………. mainly in search of better jobs.
a) Rural to Urban
b) Urban to Rural
c) Hills to plains
d) Plains to hills
Answer:
a) Rural to Urban

2. A person moves from his own country to another country is known as ……………. .
a) Immigrant
b) Refugee
c) Emigrant
d) Asylum seeker
Answer:
c) Emigrant

3. The migration in search of fertile agricultural land is ……………. migration.
a) Rural to Rural
b) Rural to Urban
c) Urban to Rural
d) Urban to Urban
Answer:
a) Rural to Rural

4. War is one of the causes of human migration.
a) Demographic
b) Socio-cultural
c) Political
d) Economic
Answer:
c) Political

5. The main reason for the development of urbanisation in the pre-historic period was
a) Production of food grains
b) Domestication of cattle
c) Fishing
d) hunting
Answer:
b) Domestication of cattle

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. Urbanisation is determined by ……………. the number of factors.
Answer:
three

2. ……………. is the major push factor operating in rural areas.
Answer:
Migration

3. ……………. Metropolitan city in India has the second-highest urban population in the world.
Answer:
Delhi

4. The movement of a person based on his free will and desire to live in a better place is called ………… migration.
Answer:
Voluntary

5. In modem time urban growth was accelerated by the development of …………….
Answer:
New trade route

III. Match the following:

1. Emigration	a) In-migration
2. Immigration	b) Outmigration
3. Pull factor	c) Unemployment
4. Push factor	d) Socio-cultural migration
5. Marriage	e) Employment opportunity

Answer:

1. Emigration	b) Outmigration
2. Immigration	a) In-migration
3. Pull factor	e) Employment opportunity
4. Push factor	c) Unemployment
5. Marriage	d) Socio-cultural migration

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. Slums are generally found in cities.
Answer:
True

2. Mass migration is absent in the modem period.
Answer:
True

3. The process of urbanisation has a short history.
Answer:
False

4. Cities and towns are the major polluters of the environment.
Answer:
True

5. Transhumance is also referred to as seasonal migration.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given ones.
1. Statement (A): Urbanisation is mainly due to the movement of people from rural to cities.
Reason (R): Rural to urban migration is not a predominant one.
a) A is correct but R is incorrect
Both A and R are incorrect
c) Both A and R are correct
d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
c) Both A and R are correct

VI. Answer the following questions in brief:
1. Define “Migration”.
Answer:
Migration has been defined differently by different experts. In general, migration is defined as the permanent or semi permanent change of residence of an individual or group of people over a significant distance. So, the term migration refers to the movement of people from one place to another.

2. What are the causes of rural to urban migration?
Answer:
The main causes are

• Searching for jobs
• Education
• Recreation facilities.

3. State the causes of ecological or natural migration.
Answer:

1. Natural causes include volcanic eruption, mankind changed considerably.
2. At this stage, people continued to move from one region to another in search of fertile land for cultivation.

4. Name any two pull factors of migration.
Answer:

• Employment opportunities
• Education.

5. What is Urbanisation?
Answer:
Urbanization refers to the process in which there is an increase in the proportion of the population living in towns and cities.

6. List out any four most populous cities in the world.
Answer:
Tokyo, Delhi, Mexico City, Sao Paulo.

VII. Answer the following questions in detail.
1. What are the different types of migration? Explain.
Answer:
Migration can be classified in several ways. They are:
1. Based on the movement associated with administrative limits.

(a) Internal Migration
(b) International Migration

2. Based on the willingness of the migrants for migration.

(a) Voluntary Migration
(b) Involuntary Migration

3. Based on the duration of stay of migrants in the place of destination.

(a) Short term Migration
(b) Long term Migration
(c) Seasonal Migration

1. Based on the movement associated with administrative limits.
(a) Internal Migration:

1. The movement of people within a country is known as internal migration.
2. Further internal migration is classified into four types. They are,
   • Rural to Urban migration
   • Urban to Urban migration
   • Rural to Rural migration and
   • Urban to Rural migration

(b) International Migration:
Migration that occurs across the national boundaries is known as international migration.

2. Based on the Willingness of the migrants for migration:
(a) Voluntary migration:

1. If the migration takes place on perspus free will, initiative, and desire to live in a better place.

(b) Involuntary migration:

1. If the migration takes place against the will of migrants is known as involuntary migration.

3. Based on the duration of stay of migrants in the place of destination:
(a) Short term migration:

1. The migrants stay outside only for a short duration before returning to the place of origin.

(b) Long term migration:

1. The migrants stay outside at least for a few years.

(c) Seasonal migration:

1. Usually, a group of people migrates from their native places during a particular season and return after end of that season.
2. Transhumance is another example of seasonal migration.

2. Explain in detail the various causes of migration?
Answer:

• The favourable factors which attract people towards a location are called pull factors.
• The unfavourable factors which make the people move out from a location are called push factors.
• Human migration can be categorized under five groups are
  • Ecological or natural causes of migration
  • Economic causes of migration
  • Socio-cultural causes of migration
  • Demographic causes of migration
  • Political causes of migration.

3. Discuss the problems of urbanisation.
Answer:

1. Housing and Slums:

• There is a lack of space for housing and a marked reduction in the quality of housing in the urban areas due to increase in population.

2. Over Crowding:

• Over – crowding leads to unhealthy environment in the urban areas.
• It also the cause of many diseases and riots.

3. Water Supply, Drainage and Sanitation:

• No city has round a clock water supply in the world.
• The drainage situation is equally bad.
• The removal of garbage is a Himalayan task for urban local bodies.

4. Transportation and Traffic:

• The absence of planned and adequate arrangements for traffic and transport is another problem in urban centers.
• The increasing number of two-wheeler and cars make the traffic problem worse.

5. Pollution:

• Towns and cities are the major polluters of the environment.
• Several cities discharge their entire sewage and industrial effluents untreated into the nearby rivers. Industries in and around the urban centers pollute the atmosphere with smoke and toxic gases.

IX. Activities
1. List out and analyze the reason for the migration of people in your locality.
Answer:
People migrate for a number of reasons. The reasons and causes for migration would normally fall under these areas:

1. Environmental – Better climate, calamities, and natural disasters are examples of environmental causes or reasons.
2. Economic – Moving to find work or moving to follow a particular career path is an example of economic cause or reason.
3. Cultural – Religious freedom and education is an example of cultural cause or reason.
4. Political – Civil war or escaping from political persecution is an example of a political cause.
5. Social – Moving for a better quality of life or moving closer to a family member or friend is an example of a social cause or reason.

2. Collect the pictures and information regarding the effects of urbanization and make an album.
Answer:

• Slums and Housing
• Overcrowding
• Transportation and traffic
• Pollution.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Migration and Urbanisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. The movement of an individual or group to the new country is termed as ………………..
a) Destination
b) Migration
c) Emigrant
d) Immigrant
Answer:
a) Destination

2. Migration is more in ………………. region of the world population.
a) Japan
b) Asia
c) Australia
d) Africa
Answer:
b) Asia

3. In 2017, ………………. was the largest country of origin of international migrants.
a) India
b) America
c) Delhi
d) Asia
Answer:
a) India

4. In ………………., the global urban population exceeded the global rural population.
a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 200
d) 2008
Answer:
c) 2007

5. During the beginning of the ………………. itself many cities were found near the Aegean sea.
a) 6th century
b) 7th century
c) 8th century
d) 5th century
Answer:
b) 7th century

6. In the ancient period the migration was mainly for ………………..
a) Environment
b) Health
c) Food
d) Place
Answer:
c) Food

7. The industrial revolution in the century accelerated the growth of towns and cities.
a) 17^th
b) 18^th
c) 19^th
d) 20^th
Answer:
c) 19^th

8. In 1950, ………………. of the world’s population was urban.
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
Answer:
b) 30%

9. ………………. is the world’s Highest Population city.
a) Masco (Russia)
b) Shangai (China)
c) Delhi (India)
d) Tokyo (Japan)
Answer:
d) Tokyo (Japan)

10. Migration that occurs the national boundaries are known as
a) Internal migration
b) Voluntary migration
c) International migration
d) Involuntary migration
Answer:
c) international migration

II. Fill in the blank:
1. ………………. is a form of geographical mobility of population between a geographical unit to another.
Answer:
Migration

2. Climatic disasters are ………………. factors.
Answer:
push

3. The movement of people within a country is known as ………………..
Answer:
Internal migration

4. If the migration takes place against the will of migrants is known as ………………..
Answer:
Involuntary migration

5. The migration of agricultural workers during Saving sources is known as ………………..
Answer:
Seasonal migration

6. ………………. is another example of Seasonal migration.
Answer:
Transhumance

7. The number of international migrants in 2017 was ………………..
Answer:
258 million

8. Skilled people from economically backward countries move to developed Countries called ………………..
Answer:
Backwash effect

9. ………………. is the process in which there is an increase in the proportion of population living in towns and cities.
Answer:
Urbanisation

10. The excess production of ………………. was the major reason for urbanisation.
Answer:
foodgrains

11. The ………………. revolution in the 19th century accelerated the growth of towns and cities.
Answer:
industrial

12. Rapid rate of urbanisation results in the development of ………………..
Answer:
Slums

13. In ………………., ………………. regions migrants are predominantly men.
Answer:
Asia, Africa

14. The ………………. factors which attract people towards a location.
Answer:
favourable

15. ………………. is a natural cause of migration.
Answer:
Ecology

III. Match the following:

1. Natural cause	a) War
2. Economic cause	b) Social Discrimination
3. Socio-cultural Cause	c) Unemployment
4. Political Cause	d) Scarcity of food

Answer:

1. Natural cause	d) Scarcity of food
2. Economic cause	c) Unemployment
3. Socio-cultural Cause	b) Social Discrimination
4. Political Cause	a) War

IV. State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. The number of vehicles increase is not the cause of air pollution.
Answer:
False

2. The favourable factors which attract people towards a location.
Answer:
True

3. The movement of people within a country is known as internal migration.
Answer:
True

4. Migration develops both the areas of origin of migration and the areas of destination.
Answer:
False

5. After the 11th century, the European Countries, increased their overseas trade.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given ones.
1. Statement: Migration may influence the occupational Structure of the Population of an area through this it will certainly affect the economy of the regions also.
Reason: Brain drain refers to the migration in which skilled people from economically backward countries move to developed countries in search of better opportunities,
a) A is correct but R is incorrect
b) Both A and R are incorrect
c) Both A and R are correct
d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
c) Both A and R are correct

2. Assertion: At the end of the 13th century, Paris London, Geneva, Milan, and Venice were the important cities found in Europe.
Reason: The European countries increased their overseas trade.
a) A is correct but R is incorrect
b) Both A and R are incorrect
c) Both A and R are correct
d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
c) Both A and R are correct

3. i) Migration that occurs across the national boundaries are known as Internal migration.
ii) If the migration takes place of a person’s free will is known as voluntary migration.
iii) The migration of agricultural workers during Sowing Seasons is known as Seasonal migration.
iv) The migration from rural areas to growing towns and cities mainly in search of employment, education, and recreation facilities.
a) i, iv correct
b) ii correct,
c) ii and iv correct
d) all are correct
Answer:
c) ii and iv correct

VI. Answer the following questions in brief.
1. What are the two factors of migration?
Answer:

• The favourable factors which attract people towards a location are called pull factors.
• The unfavourable factors which make the people to move out from a location are called push factors.

2. What is Backwash Effect?
Answer:

• Brain drain refers to the migration in which skilled people from economically backward countries move to developed countries in search of better opportunities.
• Eventually, this leads to backwardness in source regions. This is called a “backwash effect”.

3. What are the Environmental Consequences that occured during Migration?
Answer:
The overpopulation in urban areas leads to the pollution of air, water, and soil. Scarcity of drinking water, lack of space for housing, traffic congestions, and poor drainage are the common environmental problems that prevail in urban areas.

4. What are the causes of urbanisation?
Answer:

• Urbanisation is driven by three factors: natural population growth, rural to urban migration, and the reclassification of rural areas into urban areas.
• Present-day urbanisation includes changes in demographics, land cover, economic processes, and characteristics of geographic area.

5. What are the noted Prehistoric cities of the world?
Answer:

• Ur and Babylon in Mesopotamia
• Thebes and Alexandria in Egypt
• Athens in Greece
• Harappa and Mohenjodaro in India were noted prehistoric cities of the world.

6. What are the major cities in Africa?
Answer:
Major cities in Africa are Cairo, Nairobi, Mombasa, Bulawayo, Duala, Abidian, Logos, Accra, Addis Abba, Leopoldville, Luanda, Cape Town, Natal, Pretoria.

VII. Distinguish.
1. Short term migration and Long term migration.

Short term migration	Long term migration
1. In this kind of migration, the migrants stay outside only for a short duration before returning to the place of origin.	It is a kind of migration in which the migrants stay outside at least for a few years.
2. The duration may be from a few days to a few months.	The migrants stayed a long time.

VIII. Answer the following questions in detail.
1. Explain Pull factors and Push factors of migration.

Pull factors	Push factors
1. Least hazard-prone zones.	Hazard prone zones.
2. Favourable climate.	Climate change (including extreme weather events).
3. Abundance of natural resources and minerals (e. g. water, oil, uranium).	Crop failure and scarcity of food.
4. Social Unification.	Social Discrimination.
5. Under population.	Overpopulation.
6. Political security.	War, civil, unrest.

2. What are the Consequences of Migration?
a) Demographic consequences:

• It changes the age and sex composition of the population.
• Migration of females after their marriage leads to a decline in sex ratio in the source regions and increases in the sex ratio in the regions of destinations.
• The migration of male workers in search of jobs decreases the independent population of the source regions which increases the dependency ratio.

b) Social consequences:

• The migration of people from different regions towards an urban area leads to the formation of a plural society.
• It helps the people to come out of narrow mindedness and people become generous.

c) Economic consequences:

• The migration of more people from overpopulated to underpopulated regions results in the imbalance of the resource-population ratio.
• In some cases, the regions of over and under population may become the regions of optimum population.
• Migration may influence the occupational structure of the population of an area.
• Through this, it will certainly affect the economy of the regions also.
• Brain drain is a consequence of migration.
• Brain drain refers to the migration in which skilled people from economically backward countries move to developed countries in search of better opportunities
• Eventually, this leads to backwardness in source regions. This is called a “backwash effect”.

d) Environmental consequences:

• Large scale movement of people from rural to urban areas causes overcrowding in cities and puts heavy pressure on resources.
• It leads to the rapid growth of cities.
• The overpopulation in urban areas leads to the pollution of air, water, and soil.
• Scarcity of drinking water, lack of space for housing, traffic congestion, and poor drainage are the common environmental problems that prevail in urban areas.
• The lack of space for housing and the rising land cost lead to the formation of slums.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 3 Hydrologic Cycle Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Hydrologic Cycle

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Hydrologic Cycle Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.
1. The process in which the water moves between the oceans, atmosphere and land is called
a) River Cycle
b) Hydrologic Cycle
c) Rock Cycle
d) Life Cycle
Answer:
b) Hydrologic Cycle

2. The percentage of fresh water on the earth is
a) 71
b) 97
c) 2.8
d) 0.6
Answer:
c) 2.8

3. The process of changing of water from gaseous to liquid form is known as
a) Condensation
b) Evaporation
c) Sublimation
d) Rainfall –
Answer:
a) Condensation

4. Water that flows in the sub-soil or through the ground into the streams, rivers, lakes and oceans is termed as
a) Condensation
b) Evaporation
c) Transpiration
d) Runoff
Answer:
d) Runoff

5. The evaporation of water from the leaves of plants is called
a) Transpiration
b) Condensation
c) Water vapour
d) Precipitation
Answer:
a) Transpiration

6. Water that is good enough to drink is called
a) Groundwater
b) Surface water
c) Potable water
d) Artesian water
Answer:
c) Potable water

II. Fill in blank:
1. The degree of water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as …………………
Answer:
weather

2. There are ………………… phases in the water cycle.
Answer:
Three

3. The falling of water towards the earth surface from the atmosphere in any form is known as …………………
Precipitation

4. The precipitation with a rain drop size of <0.5mm in diameter is known as ………………….
Answer:
drizzle

5. Mist is denser than ………………….
Answer:
Clouds

III. Match the following:

1. Vegetation	a) Clouds
2. Condensations	b) Sleet
3. Snow and raindrops	c) At the surface
4. Infiltration	d) Transpiration

Answer:

1. Vegetation	d) Transpiration
2. Condensations	a) Clouds
3. Snow and raindrops	b) Sleet
4. Infiltration	c) At the surface

IV. Choose the correct statement:
1. Evaporation refers to
I. The process in which the gaseous form of water changes into liquid form.
II. It refers to the process in which the liquid form of water changes into a gaseous form.
III. Water boils at 100°C temperature but, it actually begins to evaporate at 0°C.
IV. It is responsible for the formation of clouds.
a) I, IV, and V are correct
b) II only correct
c) II and III are correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
c) II and III are correct

V. State whether thefollowing^statements are True or False:
1. Water boils at 212°F temperature but, it begins to evaporate at 32°F.
Answer:
True

2. Mist is not the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
Answer:
False

3. The sub-surface runoff is usually referred to as interflow.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in brief:
1. Write a short note on the aquifer.
Answer:
An aquifer is an underground layer of water-bearing rock.

2. Define “ hydrological cycle”.
Answer:
The hydrological cycle is a global sun-driven process where water is transported from oceans to the atmosphere, from the atmosphere to land, and from land back to oceans

3. How is the dew formation takes place?
Answer:
Dew is a water droplet formed by the condensation of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object. It forms when the temperature of an object drops below the dew point temperature.

4. Write a short note on surface run-off.
Answer:
Surface Runoff is the portion of rainfall, which enters the stream immediately after the rainfall. It occurs when the rainfall is longer, heavier, and exceeds the rate of infiltration. In this condition, the excess water makes a head over the ground surface, which tends to move from one place to another following land gradient and is known as overland flow. When the overland flow joins the streams, channels or oceans, it is termed as surface runoff or surface flow.

VII. Give reasons:
1. Infiltration of water is low in the region of non-porous soil.
Answer:
Because percolation moves the infiltrated water through the soil profile and rock layers to form groundwater.

2. Freshwater is less on the earth.
Answer:
Most of the water on the earth is saline and is found in seas and oceans, which constitutes about 97.2%.

3. Snowfall is common in the polar region and mountainous regions.
Answer:
Often water vapour in a cloud is converted directly into snow pieces due to lowering of temperature and so it is common in the polar and mountainous regions.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:
1. Explain the different stages involved in the hydrological cycle.
Answer:
The three important phases of the hydrologic cycle are:

• Evapotranspiration,
• Precipitation and
• Runoff.

1. Evapotranspiration:
It is defined as the total loss of water from the earth through evaporation from the surface water bodies and the transpiration from vegetation. In cropped areas, it is difficult to determine the evaporation and transpiration separately. Therefore it is collectively called evapotranspiration.

2. Precipitation:
It refers to all forms of water that fall from clouds and reaches the earth’s surface. For the occurrence of precipitation, cloud droplets or ice crystals must grow heavy enough to fall through the air. When the droplets grow large in size, they tend to all. While moving down, by collecting some small droplets, they become heavy enough to fall out of the cloud as raindrops.

3. Runoff:
Runoff is the water that is pulled by gravity across the land’s surface. It replenishes groundwater and surface water as it percolates into an aquifer (it is an underground layer of water-bearing rock) or moves into a river, stream, or watershed. It comes from unabsorbed water from rain, snowmelt, irrigation or other sources, comprising a significant element in the water cycle as well as the water supply when it drains into a watershed. Runoff is also a major contributor to erosion which carves out canyons, gorges, and related landforms.

2. Distinguish between evaporation and transpiration.

Water boils at 100°C temperature but, it actually begins to evaporate at 0°c. Much of the water taken up by the plants is released through transpiration.

Evaporation	Transpiration
1. The process in which the liquid form of water changes into gaseous form.	The process by which the water content in the plant are released into the atmosphere in the form of water vapour.
3. The amount of water gets evaporated is about the same as the amount of water delivered to earth as precipitaion.	The soil water content and the ability of the soil to conduct water the roots and the nature of the plant parts also determine the transpiration rate.
4. The rate of evaporation is low during the periods of calm winds than during windy times.	The rate of transpiration is affected by the temperature, wind and humidity.

3. Give a detailed explanation on different forms of precipitation.
The form of precipitation in a region depends on the kind of weather or the climate of the region. The Precipitation in the warmer parts of the world is always in the form of rain or drizzle.
In colder region, precipitation may fall as snow or ice.
Common types of precipitation include rain, sleet, freezing rain, hail & snow.

Rain:

• The most common kind of precipitation is rain.
• The precipitation in the form of water droplet is rain.
• Below 0.5 mm in diameter is known as drizzle and above 0.5 mm in diameter is known as rain.

Sleet:
The precipitation which takes place in the form of a mixture of water droplets and tiny particles of ice is known as sleet.

Freezing Rain:

• Raindrops falling through cold air near the ground do not freeze in the air.
• Instead, the raindrops freeze when they touch a cold surface.
• This is called freezing rain.

Hail:
The precipitation which consists of round pellets of ice which are larger than 5mm in diameter is called as hail or hailstones.
Snow:
The precipitation in form of a powdery mass of ice is known as snowfall which is common in the polar and high mountainous regions.

4. Explain the run-off and its types.

Runoff is the water that is pulled by gravity across the land’s surface. It replenishes groundwater and surface water as it percolates into an aquifer (it is an underground layer of water-bearing rock) or moves into a river, stream, or watershed.

Types of Runoff:
Based on the time interval between the instance of rainfall and generation of runoff, the runoff may be classified into the following three types

1. Surface Runoff:
It is the portion of rainfall, which enters the stream immediately after the rainfall. It occurs when the rainfall is longer, heavier, and exceeds the rate of infiltration. In this condition, the excess water makes a head over the ground surface, which tends to move from one place to another following a land gradient and is known as overland flow. When the overland flow joins the streams, channels, or oceans, it is termed as surface runoff or surface flow.

2. Sub – Surface Runoff:
The water that has entered the subsoil and moves laterally without joining the water-table to the streams, rivers or oceans is known as sub-surface runoff. The subsurface runoff is usually referred as interflow.

3. Base Flow:
It is a flow of underground water from a saturated groundwater zone to a water channel. It usually appears at a downstream location where the channel elevation is lower than the groundwater table. Groundwater provides the streamflow during dry periods of small or no precipitation.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Hydrologic Cycle Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.
1. The process of change of water into gaseous form is called ………………….
a) Evaporation
b) Evapotranspiration
c) Precipitation
d) Condensation
Answer:
a) Evaporation

2. …………… is the prime element which affects the rate of evaporation.
a) Temperature
b) Rain
c) Air
d) Mist
Answer:
c) Air

3. The quantity of water present on the earth is about ………………. million cubic miles.
a) 236
b) 263
c) 326
d) 362
Answer:
c) 326

4. …………………. Saturation occurs when the temperature drops down.
a) Air
b) Water
c) Land
d) Soil
Answer:
a) Air

5. ……………… of the moisture form plants through transpiration.
a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 80%
d) 90%
Answer:
a) 10%

6. The evaporation is more than precipitation in the …………………..
a) Oceans
b) Land side
c) Desert land
d) Water Source
Answer:
a) Oceans

7. The process of change of gaseous form of water into liquid form is called as ______________
a) Vapourisation
b) Transpiration
c) Condensation
d) Infiltration
Answer:
c) Condensation

8. An air layer next to the earth’s Surface to 1000 m or lower is called as _____________
a) Dew
b) Frost
c) Fog
d) Mist
Answer:
c) Fog

9. Water entering the soil at the Surface of the ground is termed as _____________
a) Infiltration
b) Percolation
c) Condensation
d) Vaporisation
Answer:
a) Infiltration

10. The flow of water from the unsaturated zone to the Saturated zone is termed as
a) Infiltration
b) Percolation
c) Condensation
d) Vaporisation
Answer:
b) Percolation

II. Fill in the blanks:
1. Water in India is available in Sources.
Answer:
Three

2. Hydrology is the science which deals with the various aspects of water such as ………………, ……………… and ……………….
Answer:
Occurrence, distribution, movement

3. Hydrologic cycle is a global …………….. process.
Answer:
Sun-driven

4. ………………… refers to all forms of water that fall from clouds and reaches the earth’s Surface.
Answer:
Precipitation

5. The three important phases of the hydrologic cycle are …………….., ………………., and ……………..
Answer:
Evapotranspiration, Precipitation, Run off

6. The Sleet falls, the raindrops freeze into solid particles of ………………….
Answer:
ice

7. Most of the water on the earth is …………… in the surface water.
Answer:
Saline

8. ……………….. is available in the form of glaciers.
Answer:
2.15%

9. ……………….. is a continuous process and takes place naturally.
Answer:
Hydrologic cycle

10. Water boils at
Answer:
100PC

11. The water content in salt water oceans is
Answer:
97.2%

12. The amount of Icecaps and glaciers in Fresh water is
Answer:
68.7%

13. The Ground water content in Fresh water is
Answer:
30.1%

14. The boiling point of water is
Answer:
2129F

15. There is a relationship between temperature and evaporation.
Answer:
positive

III. Match the follpwing:

1. Runoff	a) Rain
2. Precipitation	b) Snow
3. Polar region	c) Water springs
4. Infiltration	d) less than 0.5mm
5. Drizzle	e) river

Answer:

1. Runoff	e) river
2. Precipitation	a) Rain
3. Polar region	b) Snow
4. Infiltration	c) Water springs
5. Drizzle	d) less than 0.5mm

IV. Choose the correct statement:
1. a) Water entering the soil at the surface of the ground is termed as infiltration
b) Rain water Soaks into the ground, through the soil and underlying rock layers.
c) Some of the water remains underground and is called ground water.
d) The terms infiltration and percolation are other used inter changeably.
a) I, IV, and V are correct
b) II only correct
c) II and III are correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
d) AH are correct

V. State whether the following statements are True or False:
1. Water in India is available in three sources.
Answer:
True

2. Rain is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
Answer:
False

3. Saturation occurs when the temperature increases.
Answer:
False

4. Evaporation is the process in which the liquid form of water changes into a gaseous form.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in brief:
1. What are the Sources of water available in India.
Answer:

• Water in India is available in three sources.
• They are precipitation, surface water, and groundwater.

2. What is hydrology?
Answer:
Hydrology is the science which deals with the various aspects of water such as its occurrence, distribution, movement and properties on the planet earth.

3. What are the factors that increase the rate of evaporation?
Answer:

• Increase in wind speed
• Increase in temperature
• Decrease in humidity and
• Increase in the areal extent of surface water bodies.

VII.Give reasons:
1. Availability of water on the earth is not uniform. Why?
Answer:
The availability of water on the earth is not uniform because Some places are very rich and some places are poor in water resources.

2. Distinguish between Frost and Mist.
Answer:

Frost	Mist
1. The ice crystals formed by the deposition of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object are known as frost.	Mist is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
2. Density increased	Mist is less dense than fog.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

1. Water on the Earth – Explain.
Answer:

• About 71 % of the earth’s surface is covered by water.
• The quantity of water present on the earth is about 326 million cubic miles.
• It is hard to visualise this massive quantity of water.
• Most of the water on the earth is saline and is found in seas and oceans.
• The salt water constitutes about 97.2% and the fresh water is only about 2.8%.
• Out of this 2.8%, about 2.2% is available as surface water and the remaining 0.6% is groundwater. From this 2.2% of surface water, 2.15% is available in the form of glaciers and icecaps, 0.01% in lakes and streams and the remaining 0.04% is in other forms.
• Only about 0.25% of the total ground water of 0.6% can be economically extracted with the present drilling technology.

2. Explain the forms of condensation.
Answer:
Dew, fog, and Clouds are the three major forms of condensation.

• Dew: It is a water droplet formed by the condensation of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object.
• Frost: The ice crystals formed by the deposition of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object is known as frost.
• Fog: Fog is the suspended tiny water droplets or ice crystals in an air layer next to the earth’s surface.
• Mist: Mist is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
• Clouds: Clouds consist of tiny water droplets/ice particles which are so small and light in weight.