Category: Class 12

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.4 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.4

Question 1.
Show that each of the following expressions is a solution of the corresponding given differential equation.
(i) y = 2x² ; xy’ = 2y
(ii) y = ae^x + be^-x; y” – y = 0
Solution:
(i) v = 2x² …(1)
Differential equation: xy’ = 2y
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’

On simplifying, 2y = xy’
∴ (1) is solution of the given differential equation.

(ii) y = ae^x + be^-x; y”- y = 0.
y = ae^x + be^-x …(1) Differential equation: y” – y = 0
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y’ = ae^x – be^-x
Again differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y” = ae^x + be^-x
y” = y ⇒ y” – y = 0
∴ (1) is the solution of the given differential equation.

Question 2.
Find the value of m so that the function y = em solution of the given differential equation.
(i) y’ + 2y = 0
(ii) y”- 5y’ + 6y = 0
Solution:
(i) y’ + 2y = 0 ……. (1)
Given y = e^mx ……….(2)
Differentiating equation (2) w.r.t x, we get

∴ comparing equation (1) & (3),
we get m = -2

(ii) y” – 5y’ + 6y = 0 ……. (1)
Given y = e^mx ……… (2)
Differentiating equation (2) w.r.t ‘x’, we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = e^x. m
Again differentiating w.r.t ‘x’, we get
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = e^mx. m²
To find the value of m:
Given y” – 5y’ + 6y = 0 ∵ y = e^mx

m² – 5m + 6 = 0
(m – 2) (m – 3) = 0
∴ m = 2, 3

Question 3.
The Slope of the tangent to the curve at any point is the reciprocal of four times the ordinate at that point. The curve passes through (2, 5). Find the equation of the curve.
Solution:
The slope of the tangent to the curve at any

The equation can be written as
4y dy = dx …….. (1)
Integrating equation (1) on both sides, we get
4∫ ydy = ∫ dx
4(\(\frac { y^2 }{ 2 }\)) = x + c
2y² = x + c …….. (2)
Since the curve passes through at (2, 5), we get
2(5)² = 2 + c
50 = 2 + c
50 – 2 = c
48 = c
∴ Substituting the value of c in equation (2), we get
2y² = x + 48 is the required equation of the curve.

Question 4.
Show that y = e^-x + mx + n is a solution of the differential equation e^x(\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\)) – 1 = 0
Given y = e^-x + mx + n …….. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’, we get

substituting the value of \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) in the given differential equation, we get
e^x(\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\)) – 1
= e^x(e^-x) – 1
= e^n-1 = 1 – 1 = 0
Hence y = e^-x + mx + n is the solution of the given differential equation e^x \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) – 1 = 0

Question 5.
Show that y = ax + \(\frac { b }{ x }\), x ≠ 0 is a solution of the differential equation x²yⁿ + xy’ – y = 0.
Solution:
Given

Again differentiating we get

x² y” + 2xy’ – xy’ – y = 0
x²y” + xy’ – y = 0
∴ y = ax + \(\frac { b }{ x }\) is a solution of the differential equation x²y” + xy’ – y = 0

Question 6.
Show that y = ae^-3x + b, where a and b are arbitrary constants, is a solution of the differential equation \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + 3 \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 0.
Solution:
Given y = ae^-3x + b …… (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’, we get

Therefore, y = ae^-3x + b is a solution of the given differential equation.

Question 7.
Show that the differential equation representing the family of curves y² = 2a(x + a^2/3), where a is a positive parameter, is (y² – 2xy\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))³ = 8(y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))⁵
Solution:
Given y² = 2ax + 2a^5/3 ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’ we get

Hence y² = 2ox + 2 a³ is a solution of the differential equation
(y² – 2xy\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))³ = 8(y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))⁵

Question 8.
Show that y = a cos bx is a solution of the! differential equation \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + b² y = 0.
Solution:
Given y = a cos bx ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’, we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = a(-sin bx)b
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = -ab sin bx
Again differentiating, we get

Therefore, y = a cos bx is a solution of the differential equation \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + b² y = 0

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Capital Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 5 Capital Market

12th Commerce Guide Capital Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Capital market do not provide
a) Short term Funds
b) Debenture Funds
c) Equity Funds
d) Long term Funds
Answer:
a) Short term Funds

Question 2.
When the NSEI was established
a) 1990
b) 1992
c) 1998
d) 1997
Answer:
b) 1992

Question 3.
Primary market is a Market where securities are traded in the
a) First Time
b) Second Time
c) Three Time
d) Several Times
Answer:
a) First Time

Question 4.
Participants in the capital market includes
a) Individuals
b) Corporate
c) Financial Institutions
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

II. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is Capital Market?
Answer:

• “Capital Market” is a market where buyers and sellers engage in the trade of financial securities (Long Term) like Bonds and Stocks.
• It is undertaken by participants such as Individuals and Institutions.

Question 2.
Write a note on OTCEI.
Answer:

• The OTCEI was set up by financial institutions [IDBI, IFCI, SBI, (can Bank), etc.,] to allow the trading of securities across the electronic counters throughout the country.
• Its greatest strengths are transparency of transactions, Quick deals, faster settlements, and better liquidity.

Question 3.
What is Mutual Fund?
Answer:
Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of Small investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’. A mutual fund company invests the funds pooled from shareholders and gives them the benefit of a diversified investment portfolio and a reasonable return.

Question 4.
Who are the participants in a Capital Market?
Answer:
The participants of the Capital Market are Individuals and Institutions such as the corporate sector, Government, and other financial institutions [Banks]

Question 5.
How is price determined in a Capital Market?
Answer :
The price of the securities is determined based on the demand and supply prevailing in the capital market for securities.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the various kinds of Capital Market? Explain.
Answer:
Primary Market:

• Primary Market is a market for new issues or new financial claims.
• Hence it is also called New Issues Market (NIM)
• It deals with those securities which are issued to the public for the first time.

Secondary Market:

• It may be defined as the market for old (second hand) securities, in the sense that securities which are previously issued in the primary market are traded here.
• It covers both the stock Exchange and the counter market.

Question 2.
Explain any two functions of the Capital Market.
Answer :
Ready and Continuous Market: The stock Exchange provides a central and convenient place where Buyers and Sellers can easily Buy and Sell securities.

A reliable guide to performance: The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the performance and financial position of corporate and thereby promotes efficiency.

Question 3.
Write a note on National Clearance and Depository System (NCDS).
Answer:
Under the scriptless trading system, settlement of transactions relating to securities takes place through a book entry. The entire scripless trading system comprises the following three segments:

1. National Trade Comparison and Reporting System which prescribes the terms and conditions of contract for the securities market.
2. National Clearing System which aims at determining the net cash and stock liability of each broker on settlement date.
3. National Depository System which arranges to provide for the transfer of ownership of securities in exchange on payment by book-entry on electronic ledgers without any physical movement of the transfer deed.

Question 4.
Discuss evolution and growth of Indian Capital Market.
Answer :

• The period between 1947 and 1973 marked the development of infrastructure for the capital market.
• During this period Financial institutions such as IFCI, ICICI, IDBI, and UTI, SFCs, and SIDCs were established.
• These institutions strengthened the capital market.
• During the period between 1980 and 1992, debenture emerged as a powerful instrument of resource mobilisation in the primary market.
• A number of Stock Exchanges came into existence.
•  There was tremendous growth in the secondary market.
• SEBI emerged as an effective regulatory body for the primary and secondary markets and give a measure of protection to small investors.
•  New financial services such as credit rating were introduced.

Question 5.
Explain about Factoring and Venture Capital Institutions.
Answer:
“Factoring” is an arrangement whereby a financial institution provides financial accommodation on the basis of assignment/sale of account receivables. The factoring institutions collect the book debts for and on behalf of its clients. Some of the factoring institutions operating in India are SBI Factors and Commercial Services Private Limited, a subsidiary of State Bank of India and Canbank Factors Limited, a subsidiary of Canara Bank.

Venture capital financing is a form of equity financing designed especially for funding new and innovative project ideas. Venture capital funds bring into force the hi-technology projects which are converted into commercial production.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the characters of a Capital Market. (PM) (SPL)
Answer :
Price : The price of the securities is determined based on the demand and supply prevailing in the capital market for securities.

Market for Financial Assets : Capital Market provides a transaction platform for long term financial assets.

Securities Market : The dealings in a capital market done through shares, Debentures etc. [Securities]
The capital market is thus called securities market.

Participants : The participants of capital market include individuals, corporate sectors, government, banks and other financial institutions.

Location : Capital Market is not confined to certain specific locations, although it is true that parts of the market are concentrated in certain well-known centres known as Stock Exchange.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the functions of capital market. FIRES
Answer:

1. Savings and Capital Formation: In capital market, various types of securities help to mobilize savings from various sectors of the population (Individuals, Corporate, Govt., etc.). The twin features of reasonable return and liquidity in stock exchange are definite incentives to the people to invest in securities. This accelerates the capital formation in the country.
2. Permanent Capital: The existence of a capital market/stock exchange enables companies to raise permanent capital. The investors cannot commit their funds for a permanent period but companies require funds permanently.
3. Industrial Growth: The stock exchange is a central market through which resources are transferred to the industrial sector of the economy.
4. Beady and Continuous Market: The stock exchange provides a central convenient place where buyers and sellers can easily purchase and sell securities.
5. Reliable Guide to Performance: The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the
   performance and financial position of corporate, and thereby promotes efficiency.
6. Proper Channelization of Funds: The prevailing market price of a security and relative yield are the guiding factors for the people to channelize their funds in a particular company.
7. Provision of Variety of Services: The financial institutions functioning in the capital market provide a variety of services such as grant of long term and medium-term loans to entrepreneurs.
8. Development of Backward Areas: Capital Markets provide funds for projects in backward areas. This facilitates economic development of backward areas.
9. Foreign Capital: Capital markets make it possible to generate foreign capital. Indian firms are able to generate capital funds from overseas markets by way of bonds and other securities.
10. Easy Liquidity: With the help of the secondary market investors can sell off their holdings and convert them into liquid cash.

Question 3.
Explain the various types of New Financial Institutions. (SON) (VN)
Answer :
Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited [SHCIL]

• SHCI, aims at serving as a central securities depository in of transactions on Stock exchange.
• It also takes up the administration clearing functions at a national level.

Over The Counter Exchange of India [OTCEI]

• The OTCEI was set up by financial institutions [IDBI, IFCI, SBI (can Bank) etc.,] to allow the trading of securities across the electronic counters throughout the country

National Securities Depositories Limited |NSDL]

• The NSDI. was set up in the year 19% tor achieving a time-bound dematerlization as well as rematerialization of shares.
• The NSDI is expected to alleviate the problems of post-trade transactions in the secondary market.

Venture Capital Institution [VCI]

• Venture Capital financing is a form of equity financing designed especially for funding new and innovative project ideas.
• Venture capital Funds bring into force the Mi-Technology projects which are converted into commercial production.

National Stock Exchange of India [NSEI]

• NSEI was established in 1942 to functions as a model stock exchange.
• The Aim of NSEI providing the advantage of a nationwide electronic screen-based “Scripless” and “floorless” trading system in securities.

12th Commerce Guide Capital Market Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The term _________ market refers to the facilities and institutional arrangement through long-term funds.
(a) Capital
(b) Asset
(c) Buyers
(d) Sellers
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 2.
Channeling savings of small investors into productive investment is called
a) Mutual Fund
b) Bond
c) Equity
d) Stocks
Answer :
a) Mutual Fund

Question 3.
How to determine the price of the securities in the capital market
a) Investment
b) Savings
c) Deposits
d) Demand and Supply
Answer :
d) Demand and Supply

Question 4.
NSEI was established in
(a) 1992
(b) 1991
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 5.
Primary Market facilitates…………………….
a) Capital formation
b) Trade
c ) Funds
d) Securities
Answer :
a) Capital formation

Question 6.
The primary market is also called as
(a) Secondary market
(b) Commodity market
(c) Mutual funds
(d) New issues market
Answer:
(d) New issues market

Question 7.
The capital market is also known as …………………….
a) Factoring
b) Commodity market
c) Securities Market
d)Foreign Market
Answer:
c) Securities Market

Question 8.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Mutual Funds
b) Venture Funds
c) OTCEI
d) Reserve Funds
Answer:
d) Reserve Funds

Question 9.
Which one is correctly matched?
a) Foreign Exchange Market – All currencies
b) Deviation Market – Indian Currency
c) Hard Commodities Market -Iron and ore
d) Soft Commodities Market – Coffee and Sugar
Answer:
b)Deviation Market Indian Currency

Question 10.
Which one is correctly matched?
a) Venture Fund – Hi -technology projects
b) Mutual Fund – Sale of account receivables.
c) Factoring – Scripless and floorless
d) NSEI – Savings of Small investors
Answer:
a) Venture Fund – Hi -technology projects

Question 11.
How many times security can be sold in a secondary market?
a) Only One Time
b)Two Time
c) Three Times
d) Multiple Times
Answer :
d) Multiple Times

II. Match the following

1. Match List I with List II

a) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
b) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
c) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
d) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Government has liberalised FDI in the country.
Reason (R): It brings foreign capital and technologies.
a) (A) is true (R) is False.
b) (A) is False (R) is True.
c) Both (A) and (R) are true
d) Both (A) and (R) are False
Answer :
c) Both (A) and (R) are True

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Many specialized financial institutions promoted their own venture capital Funds.
Reason (R): These include IFCI, IDBI, SIDBI Venture Funds.
a) (A) is true (R) is also True.
b) (A) is False (R) is True.
c) (A) is true (R) is False
d) Both (A) and (R) are False
Answer :
a) (A) is true (R) is also True

IV. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is the Derivatives market?
Answer:
The derivatives market facilitates the trading in financial instruments such as futures contracts and options used to help control financial risk.

Question 2.
What are the ways by which a company can raise capital in a primary market?
Answer :

1. Public Issue
2. Rights Issue
3. Private placement

Question 3.
What are the methods of raising capital in a primary market by a company?
Answer:
There are three ways by which a company may raise capital in a primary market. They are:

1. Public Issue
2. Rights Issue
3. Private Placement

Question 4.
What is a Rights Issue?
Answer :
When a company wants to raise additional capital, the securities are first offered to the existing shareholders on proportions of the shares held by them.

Question 5.
What is a private placement?
Answer :
It is a way of securities privately to [Their Clients] to a small group of investors.

Question 6.
Write a note on Foreign Exchange Market.
Answer:
The foreign exchange market abets foreign exchange trading. It is the largest, most liquid market in the world with an average traded value of more than $5 trillion per day. It includes all of the currencies in the world and any individual, company or country can participate in it.

Question 7.
What is Deviative Market?
Answer:
It facilitates the trading in financial instruments such as Future contracts and options used to help control financial risk.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Introduction to Financial Markets Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 4 Introduction to Financial Markets

12th Commerce Guide Introduction to Financial Markets Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Financial market facilitates business firms
a) To rise funds
b) To recruit workers
c) To make more sales
d) To minimize fund requirement
Answer:
a) To rise funds

Question 2.
Capital market is a market for
a) Short Term Finance
c) Long Term Finance
b) Medium Term Finance
d) Both Short Term and Medium Term Finance
Answer:
c) Long Term Finance

Question 3.
Primary market is also called as
a) Secondary market
b) Money market
c) New Issue Market
d) Indirect Market
Answer:
c) New Issue Market

Question 4.
Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs
a) Immediately
b) In the future
c) Uncertain
d) After one month
Answer:
a) Immediately

Question 5.
How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?
a) Only one time
b) Two time
c) Three times
d) Multiple times
Answer:
d) Multiple times

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the components of organized sectors?
Answer:

1. Regulators
2. Financial Institutions
3. Financial Markets
4. Financial Services

Question 2.
Write a note on the financial market.
Answer:
A market where Financial Instrument such as Financial Claims, Assets, Securities and Traded is known as “Financial Market”

Question 3.
What is a spot Market?
Answer:

• Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs immediately.
• (ie) Settlement is completed immediately.

Question 4.
What is debt market?
Answer:
Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt instruments (i.e. Government Bonds or Securities, Corporate Debentures or Bonds).

Question 5.
How is the price decided in a secondary market?
Answer:
Financial markets allow for the determination of the price of the traded financial asset through the interaction of buyers and sellers. They provide a signal for. the allocation of funds in the economy, based on the demand and supply, through the mechanism called price discovery processes.

III. Short answer questions.

Question 1.
Give the meaning and definition of the financial market.
Answer:
Meaning: A market wherein financial instruments such as financial claims, assets and securities are traded is known as a financial market’.

Definition: According to Brigham, Eugene F, “The place where people and organizations wanting to borrow money are-brought together with those having surplus funds is called a . financial market.”

Question 2.
Differentiate spot market from future market. DSP K
Answer:

Question 3.
Write a note on Secondary Market.
Answer:
A Secondary Market is a market for securities that are already issued. Stock Exchange is an important institution in the secondary market.

Question 4.
Bring out the scope of financial market in india. 3-1 BAGS
Answer:
The Financial Market provides short-term and long-term financial assistance to

• Individuals
• Industrial sectors
• Insurance sectors
• Banks [Financial Institutions]
• Agricultural sectors
• Government
• Service sectors

The above-stated individuals, institutions and Government can get the required funds in time.
It leads to overall economic development.

IV. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market.
Answer:

Question 2.
Enumerate the different kinds of financial markets.
Answer:
Financial Markets can be classified in different ways.
(A) On the Basis of Type of Financial Claim

1. Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt instruments (i.e. Government Bonds or Securities, Corporate Debentures or Bonds).
2. Equity Market is the financial market for trading in Equity Shares of Companies.

(B) On the Basis of Maturity of Financial Claim

1. Money Market is the market for short-term financial claim (usually one year or less) E.g. Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit.
2. Capital Market is the market for long-term financial claim more than a year E.g. Shares, Debentures.

(C) On the Basis of Time of Issue of Financial Claim

1. Primary Market is a term used to include all the institutions that are involved in the sale of securities for the first time by the issuers (companies). Here the money from investors goes directly to the issuers.
2. A secondary market is a market for securities that are already issued. Stock Exchange is an important institution in the secondary market.

(D) On the Basis of Timing of Delivery of Financial Claim

1. Cash/Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs immediately, i.e. settlement is completed immediately.
2. Forward or Futures Market is a market where the delivery of assets and payment of cash takes place at a pre-determined time frame in the future.

(E) On the Basis of the Organizational Structure of the Financial Market

1. Exchange-Traded Market is a centralized organization (stock exchange) with standardized procedures.
2. Over-the-Counter Market is a decentralized market (outside the stock exchange), with customized procedures.

Question 3.
Discuss the role of the financial market.
Answer:
Savings mobilisation: Obtaining funds from the savers or surplus units such as

• Individuals
• Industrial sectors
• Insurance sectors
• Banks
• Agricultural sector
• Government
• Service sector

is an important role played by the financial market.

Investment:

• Financial markets play a Key Role
• In arranging investment of funds collected in those units which are in need of the same.

National Growth:

• Flow of Funds for productive purposes and
• Flow of surplus Funds to deficit units.
• It leads to over all economic growth.

Growth of Entrepreneurship:
Financial Market provides financial assistance for the development of Entrepreneurs.

Industrial Development:

• It helps an accelerated growth of Industries, Economic Development of a country.
• It helps to raise the standard of living and society’s well being.

Question 4.
What are the functions of Financial Markets? (IF – STEP – BEL)
Answer:
(I) Intermediary Functions:

1. Transfer of Resources: Financial markets facilitate the transfer of real economic resources from lenders to ultimate borrowers.
2. Enhancing Income: Financial markets allow lenders to earn interest/dividends on their surplus investible funds and thus contributing to the enhancement of the individual and the national income.
3. Productive Usage: Financial markets allow for the productive use of the funds borrowed and thus enhancing the income and the gross national production.
4. Capital Formation: Financial markets provide a channel through which new savings flow to aid the capital formation of a country.
5. Price Determination: Financial markets allow for the determination of the price of, the traded financial asset through the interaction of buyers and sellers.
6. Sale. Mechanism: Financial market provides a mechanism for selling a financial asset by an investor so as to offer the benefits of marketability and liquidity of such assets.
7. Information: The activities of the participants in the financial market result in the generation and the consequent dissemination of information to the various segments of the markets, so as to reduce the cost of the transaction of financial assets.

(II) Financial Functions:

1. Providing the borrowers with funds so as to enable them to carry out their investment plans.
2. Providing the lenders with earning assets so as to enable them to earn wealth by deploying the assets in productive ventures.
3. Providing liquidity in the market so as to facilitate the trading of funds.

12th Commerce Guide Introduction to Financial Markets Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The Indian financial system can be broadly classified into the ______ sector.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Four
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 2.
…………………. Assets are those which can be easily transferred from one person to another.
a) Marketable
b) Non-Marketable
c) Tangible
d) Fixed
Answer:
a) Marketable

Question 3.
…………….. Market is for a long-term financial claim.
a) Money Market
b) Capital Market
c) Future Market
d) Spot Market
Answer:
b) Capital Market

Question 4.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Debt market
(b) Capital market
(c) Secondary market
(d) National Growth
Answer:
(d) National Growth

Question 5.
The building is bought for residence purpose, it becomes……………… Asset.
a) Financial
b) Fixed
c) Physical
d) NOTA
Answer:
c) Physical

Question 6.
The building is bought for hiring purpose, it becomes …………….. Asset.
a) Financial
b) Tangible
c) Physical
d) All of these
Answer:
a) Financial

Question 7.
The stock exchange is an important institution in the ______ market.
(a) secondary
(b) primary
(c) capital
(d) money
Answer:
(a) secondary

Question 8.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Debt Market
b) NIM
c) Equity Market
d) Niche Market
Answer:
d) Niche Market

Question 9.
Stock Exchange Market is also called …………….
a) Spot Market
b) Local market
c) Securities Market
d) National Market
Answer:
c) Securities Market

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match List-I with List-II.

a) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
b) i-2, ii-3i iii-4, iv-1
c) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
d) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3

2. Match List I with List II

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
c) i-3, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1
b) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
d) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
Answer:
b) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Government needs funds to provide goods and services to the people.
Reason (R): Government to raise the needed fund by selling different instruments.
a) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) and (R) are False. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is True (R) is False.
d) (A) is False (R) is True.
Answer:
a) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is the money market?
Answer:
Money Market is the market for short-term financial claims (usually one year or less) e.g. Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit.

Question 2.
Explain the classification of Financial Assets.
Answer:
(a) Marketable Assets:

• Marketable Assets are those which can be easily transferred from one person to another without much hindrance.
• (e.g) shares of – Listed Companies – Government Bonds.

(b) Non- Marketable Assets:

• Non-marketable Assets are those which can not be easily transferred from one person to another person.
• (e.g) Bank Deposits – PF – LIC Policies.

V. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Discuss the various types of Financial markets.
Answer:
On the basis of Type of Financial claim:

• Debt Market – A market Trading in Debt Instruments. [Debentures]
• Equity Market – A market Trading in Equity Shares. [Equity Shares]

On the basis of Maturity of Financial claim:

• Money Market – A market for short – term Financial Claim [Treasury Bills]
• Capital Market – A market for Long – term Financial claims. [Shares]

On the basis of Time of issue Financial claim:

• Primary Market – A market for New Issues of Securities. [First Time]
• Secondary Market – A market for already issued Securities [Resale]

On the basis of Time of delivery of Financial claim:

• Cash/Spot Market – A market where delivery of instruments and payment of cash occurs
  immediately.
• Future/Forward Market – A market where delivery of instruments and payment of cash not
  occur immediately, but take place in the future.

On the basis of Organisational Structure:

• Exchange-Traded Market – It is a centralized organization with standardized procedures.
• Over counter Market – It is a decentralized organization with customized procedures.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.3 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.3

Question 1.
Find the differential equation of the family of (i) all non-vertical lines in a plane
(ii) all non horizontal lines in a plane.
Solution:
(i) The equation of the family of non vertical lines in a plane ax + by = 1, b ≠ 0, a ∈ R
Given equation is ax + by = 1 …….. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to ‘x’ we get
a + b \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 0
∵ 2 arbitrary constant,
∴ Differentiating twice continuously
Again differentiating above equation with respect to ‘x’, we get
0 + b \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 0
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 0 [∵ b ≠ 0]
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 0 is a required differential equation.

(ii) The equation of the family of non horizontal
lines in a,plane ax + by = 1, a ≠ 0 & b ∈ R
Given equation is ax + by = 1 ……… (1)
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to ‘y’, we get
a \(\frac { dx }{ dy }\) + b = 0
∵ 2 arbitrary constant,
∴ Differentiating twice continuously
Again differentiating we get
a \(\frac { d^2x }{ dy^2 }\) = 0 [∵ a ≠ 0]
\(\frac { d^2x }{ dy^2 }\) = 0 is a required differential equation.

Question 2.
Form the differential equation of all straight lines touching the circle x² + y² = r²
Solution:
Given circle equation be x² + y² = r²
Let y = mx + c be all straight lines which towards the given circle x² + y² = r²
The condition for y = mx + c ……. (1)
be a tangent to the circle x² + y² = r²
be c² = r² (1 + m²) ⇒ c = r \(\sqrt { 1+m^2 }\)
Substituting c value in equation (1), we get
y = mx + r \(\sqrt { 1+m^2 }\)
y – mx = r\(\sqrt { 1+m^2 }\) ……. (2)
Differentiating equation (2) w.r.t x, we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – m = 0
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = m …….. (3)
substituting equation (3) in equation (2), we get;

Which is a required differential equation.

Question 3.
Find the differential equation of the family of circles passing through the origin and having their centres on the x-axis.
Solution:
Given the circles centre on x-axis & the circle is passing through the origin.
Let it be (r, 0) & its radius r.

Equation of the circle is
(x – a)² + (y – b)² = r²
(x – r)² + (y – 0)² = r²
x² – 2xr + r² + y² = r²
x² – 2xr + y² = r² – r²
x² – 2xr + y² = 0 ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to ‘x’, we get
2x – 2r + 2y \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 0 dx
2x + 2y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 2r
x + y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = r
Substituting r value in equation (1), we get

Which is a required differential equation.

Question 4.
Find the differential equation of the family of all the parabolas with latus rectum 4a and whose axes are parallel to the x-axis.
Solution:
Given the equation of family of parabolas with latus rectum 4a and axes are parallel to x-axis then
(y – b)² = 4a (x – a), where (a, b) is the vertex of parabola.
y² – 2yb + b² = 4ax – 4a² ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to x, we get

Differentiating equation (2) with respect to ‘x’, we get
yy”+ y’y’ = by”
yy” + y’2 = by” ……. (3)
Substituting the b value in (3), we get

Which is a required differential equation.

Question 5.
Find the differential equation of the family of parabolas with vertex at (0, -1) and having axis along the y axis.
Solution:
Equation of the family of parabolas with vertex at (0, -1) and having axis along the y-axis is
(x – 0)² = 4a(y + 1)
x² = 4a (y + 1) ……. (1)
x² = 4 ay + 4a
Differentiating equation (1) with respect to ‘x’, we get
2x = 4a y’
\(\frac { 2x }{ y’ }\) = 4a
Substituting 4a value in equation (1), we get
x² = \(\frac { 2x }{ y’ }\)(y + 1)
\(\frac { x^2 }{ x }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ y’ }\)(y + 1)
x = \(\frac { 2 }{ y’ }\) (y + 1)
xy’ = 2 (y + 1)
xy’ = 2y + 2
xy’ – 2y – 2 = 0 is a required differential equation.

Question 6.
Find the differential equations of the family of all the ellipses having foci on the y-axis and centre at the origin.
Solution:
The equation of the family of ellipses having centre at the origin & foci on the y-axis, is given by \(\frac { x^2 }{ a^2 }\) + \(\frac { y^2 }{ b^2 }\) = 1 ……… (1)
where b > a & a, b are the parameters or a,b are arbitrary constant.
Differentiating equation (1) twice successively, (because we have two arbitrary constant) we get

Equ (3) – (2) we get

is the required differential equation.

Question 7.
Find the differential equation corresponding to the family of curves represented by the equation y = Ae^8x + Be ^-8x, where A and B are arbitrary constants.
Solution:
Given y = Ae^8x + Be^-8x …….. (1)
where A & B are aribitrary constants differentiating equation (1) twice successively (because we have two arbitrary constant), we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = Ae^8x + Be^-8x (-8)
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 8Ae^8x – 8Be^-8x ……… (2)
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 8Ae^8x (8) – Be^-8x (-8)
= 64Ae^8x + 64Be^-8x
= 64[Ae^8x + Be^-8x] ……….. (3)
Substituting eqn (1) in eqn (3), we get
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = 64 y
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) – 64 y = 0 is the required differential equation.

Question 8.
Find the differential equation of the curve represented by xy = ae^x + be^-x + x²
Solution:
Given xy = ae^x + be^-x + x² ……… (1)
where a & b are aribitrary constant,
differentiate equation (1) twice successively,
because we have two arbitray constant.

From (1), we get xy – x² = ae^x + be^-x …….. (4)
Substituting equation (4) in (3), we get
∴ x \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + \(\frac { 2dy }{ dx }\) – xy + x² – 2 = 0 is the required differential equation.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Management By Objectives (MBO) and Management By Exception (MBE) Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 3 Management By Objectives (MBO) and Management By Exception (MBE)

12th Commerce Guide Management By Objectives (MBO) and Management By Exception (MBE) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…………………… System gives full Scope to the Individual Strength and Responsibility.
a) MBO
b) MBE
c) MBM
d) MBA
Answer:
a) MBO

Question 2.
Which is the First step in Process of MBO?.
a) Fixing Key Result Area
b) Appraisal of Activities
c) Matching Resources with Activities
d) Defining Organisational Objectives
Answer:
d) Defining Organisational Objectives

Question 3.
…………………. keeps Management Alert to Opportunities and Threats by Identifying Critical Problems.
a) MBA
b) MBE
c) MBM
d) MBO
Answer:
b) MBE

Question 4.
Delegation of Authority is Easily Done with the Help of
a) MBM
b) MBE
c) MBO
d) MBA
Answer:
c) MBO

II. Very short answer questions.

Question 1.
Define-MBO
Answer:
MBO is popularised in the USA by George Odiome. According to him, “MBO is a system wherein the superior and the subordinate managers of an organisation jointly identify its common goals, define each individual’s major area of responsibility in terms of the result expected of him and use these measures as guides for operating the unit and assessing the contribution of each of its members”.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of MBO?
Answer:

• To measure and judge performance.
• To relate individual goals to organisation goals.
• To stimulate the subordinate’s motivation.
• To serve as a device for organisational control and integration.

Question 3.
Bring out the meaning of MBE.
Answer:
Management By Exception is an important principle of managerial control suggested by the classical writers on management. It is based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. Management by exception is a style of business management that focuses on identifying and handling cases that deviate from the norm.

Question 4.
Mention any two advantages of MBO?
Answer:

• MBO process helps the managers to understand their role in the total organization.
• Delegation of Authority is easily done with the help of MBO.

Question 5.
What is known as KRA?
Answer:

• Key Result Areas [KRA] are fixed on the basis of organisational objective premises.
• KRA arranged on a priority basis.
• It indicates the strength of an organisation. (Profitability – Market standing – innovation)
• MBE is helpful for the better utilisation of managerial talents.
• MBE facilitates delegation of authority. TOP level Management concentrates on strategic decisions and operational decisions are left to lower-level management.
• MBE keeps management alert to opportunities and threats by identifying critical problems.
• MBE avoids uniform and impulsive action.
• MBE provides better yardsticks for judging results.
• MBE is helpful in objective performance appraisal.
• MBE is a technique of separating important information from unimportant one.
• MBE forces managers to review past history and study-related business data for identifying deviations.

Question 3.
Explain the various disadvantages of MBO.
Answer:

• MBO fails to explain the philosophy; most of the executives do not know how MBO
  works? what is MBO? and why is MBO necessary? and how participants can benefit from MBO.
• MBO is a time-consuming process. Much time is needed by senior people for framing the MBO. Next, it leads to heavy expenditure and also requires heavy paperwork.
• MBO emphasizes only short-term objectives and does not consider long-term objectives.
• The status of subordinates is necessary for proper objectives setting. But, this is not possible in the process of MBO.
• MBO is a rigid one. Objectives should be changed according to the changed circumstances, external or internal. If it is not done, the planned results cannot be obtained.

Question 4.
Discuss the disadvantages of MBE.
Answer:

1. The main disadvantage of MBE is, only managers have the power over really important decisions, which can be demotivating for employees at a lower level.
2. Furthermore, it takes time to pass the issues to managers. Managing employees who deviate from the normal procedures. Because of compliance failures are considered difficult to manage and typically find themselves with limited job duties and ultimately dismissed/ terminated.

12th Commerce Guide Management By Objectives (MBO) and Management By Exception (MBE) Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
MBO refers to ……………………………
a) Management By Objective
b) Management By Officers
c) Management By Orders
d) Management By Organisation
Answer:
a) Management By Objective

Question 2.
_______ harmonises the goal of an individual with the organisation’s goal.
(a) MBO
(b) MBE
(c) MBA
(d) MBM
Answer:
(a) MBO

Question 3.
It is based on the belief that any attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing.
a) MBA
b) MBM
c) MBO
d) MBE
Answer:
d) MBE

Question 4.
KRA refers to …………………….
a) Key Result Areas
c) Known Result Areas
b) Key Reference Action
d) Knowledge Resource Aim.
Answer:
a) Key Result Areas

Question 5.
“Exception has occured”
(a) MBO
(b) MBE
(c) MBM
(c) Appraisal
Answer:
(b) MBE

Question 6.
The examples of KRA are _______
(a) profitability
(b) loss
(c) market standing
(d) innovation
Answer:
(b) loss

II. Match the following

1. Match List I with List II

a) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
b) i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1
b) i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1
d) i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2
Answer:
a) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): KRA indicates the strength of an organisation.
Reason (R): Objectives are expressed in a meaningful manner.
a) (A) is true (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is true (R) is false but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) and (R) are False.
d) (A) and (R) are true.
Answer:
a) (A) is true (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Appraisal of Activities?
Answer:
At the end of the fixed period for achieving the objectives, there should be a discussion between the superior and subordinates. The discussion is related to subordinates’ performance against I the specified standards. The superior should take corrective action.

Question 2.
What are the processes involved in MBO?

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 28 Company Secretary Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 28 Company Secretary

12th Commerce Guide Company Secretary Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
Mention the status of a Company Secretary in a company.
a) A member
b) A director
c) An independent contractor
d) An employee contractor
Answer:
d) An employee contractor

Question 2.
Who can become a secretary for a company?
a) Individual person
b) Partnership firm
c) Co-operative societies
d) Trade unions
Answer:
a) Individual person

Question 3.
Which meeting will be held only once in the life time of the company?
a) Statutory
b) Annual General .
c) Extra – ordinary
d) Class General
Answer:
a) Statutory

Question 4.
Board Meetings to be conducted minimum ________ times in a year.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
c) 4

Question 5.
Who is not entitled to speak at the annual general meeting of the company.
a) Auditor
b) Shareholder
c) Proxy
d) Directors
Answer:
c) Proxy

Question 6.
Mention the company which need not convene the Statutory Meeting.
a) Widely held public
b) Private Limited
c) Public Limited
d) Guarantee having a share capital
Answer:
b) Private Limited

Question 7.
From the date of its incorporation the First Annual General Meeting is to be conducted
with in …………….. months.
a) Twelve
b) Fifteen
c) Eighteen
d) Twenty one
Answer:
c) Eighteen

Question 8.
What percentage of shareholders is needed to pass special resolution?
a) It must be unanimous
b) Not less than 90%
c) Not less than 75%
d) More than 50%
Answer:
c) Not less than 75%

Question 9.
A special resolution must be filed with the Registrar within
a) 7 days
b) 14 days
c) 30 days
d) 60 days
Answer:
c) 30 days

Question 10.
A special resolution is required to .
a) redeem the debentures
b) declare dividend
c) appoint directors
d) appoint auditor
Answer:
d) appoint auditor

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is a Secretary?
Answer
The person who is responsible for the general performance of an organization is called the company secretary.

Question 2.
What is meant by Meeting?
Answer:
A meeting is a gathering of two or more person that has been convened for the purpose of achieving a common goal through verbal interaction such as sharing information or reaching agreement.

Question 3.
What is Resolution?
Answer:
As per the Companies Act 2013, for taking any decision or executing any transaction, the consent of the shareholders, the Board of Directors and other specified is required. The decisions taken at a meeting are called resolutions

Question 4.
Write a Short note on ‘Proxy’.
Answer:

• “Proxy” means a person is the representative of a shareholder at the meeting of the
• He may be described as the agent of a shareholder to carry out which he has himself decide upon.
• He can be present at the meeting and vote but cannot talk.

Question 5.
What is Vote?
Answer:
The word ‘Vote’ originated from Latin word ‘Votum’ indicating one’s wishes or desire. By casting his vote one formally declares his opinion or wish in favour of or against a proposal or a candidate to be elected for an office.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Special Resolution?
Answer:

• “Special Resolution” is one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority. [3/4^th majority]
• The number of votes cast in favour of the resolution should be three times the number of votes cast against it.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Statutory Meeting?
Answer:

• The First Meeting of the Company.
• This is convened only once in the life time of the company.
• It should hold the meeting of shareholders with in 6 months but not earlier than one month from the date of commencement of business of the company.

Question 3.
Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
Answer:

• To change the name of a company.
• To alter the share capital.
• To redeem debentures.
• To declare dividends.
• To approve annual accounts and Balance Sheet.
• To appoint the Directors.

Question 4.
What resolution requires special notice?

• There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act 2013, which may be discussed at General Meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting.
• The following matters require special notice.
• To remove the director before the expiry of his period.
• To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed.
• To reappoint the retiring Auditor.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Elaborate the Functions of the company secretary.
Answer:
The functions of the Company Secretary may be divided into two types. They are:

1. Statutory functions
2. Non-Statutory functions

Statutory Functions: As the principal officer of the company, the secretary must observe all the legal formalities in respect of the provisions of the Companies Act and other laws, for the activities of the company.
According to Companies Act 2013:

1. To sign document and proceedings requiring authentication by the company
2. To maintain share registers and register of directors and of contracts.
3. TO give notice to register for increase in the share capital
4. To send notice of general meeting to every member of the company
5. To prepare minutes of every general meeting and board meeting within 30 days

Non-Statutory Functions: The secretary has to discharge non-statutory functions in relation to directors, shareholders and office and staff.
Functions in Relation to Directors: A company secretary acts under the full control of the board of directors and carry out the instructions of the directors.

The secretary will arrange board meetings issuing notice, and preparing agenda of meetings, recording the attendance and minutes of meetings.

Functions in Relation to Shareholders: The company secretary must serve in the best interests of the shareholders.
He has to arrange the issue of allotment letters, call letters, letters of regret, share certificates, and share warrants to Shareholders.

Functions in Relation to Office and Staff: The secretary is responsible for the smooth functioning of the office work. He exercises overall supervision, control and co-ordination of all clerical activities in the office.

Question 2.
Briefly state different types of Company Meetings.
Answer:
I. Meeting of Shareholders :
a. Statuary Meeting.
b. Annual General Meeting.
c. Extra Ordinary [Special] General Meeting.

II. Meetings of Directors :
a. Board Meeting.
b. Committee Meeting.

III. Special Meetings:
a. Class Meeting.
b. Creditors Meeting.

I) Meetings of Shareholders :
a) Statutory Meeting:

• The First Meeting of the Company.
• This is convened only once in the life time of the company.
• It should hold the meeting of shareholder within 6 months but not earlier than 1 month from the date of commencement of business of the company.

b) Annual General Meeting:

• Usually it is convened once in a year.
• The first AGM convened within 18 months from the date of Registration.
• The time gap between two consecutive AGM should not exceed 15 months.
• It should be convened where the Registered office situated or in any other place.
• Every AGM shall be held during business hours, on a day which is not a public holiday.

c) Extra-Ordinary [Special] General Meeting:

• All other General Meetings other than Statutory Meeting and AGM are called “Extra – Ordinary [Special] General Meeting”.
• If any meeting convened in between two AGM to deal with some urgent or special nature it is called Extra Ordinary General Meeting.

II) Meetings of Directors :
a) Board Meeting:

• Meetings of the Directors are called “Board Meeting”.
• The First Board Meeting should be convened with in 30 days from the date of incorporation of the company.
• It should be conducted at least 4 times in a year. [Once in 3 months]

b) Committee Meeting:

• The Committee [Audit] meet at least four times in a year. [Listed Companies or public limited company having share capital of ₹ 10 crores or more]
• If the share capital less than ₹ 10 crores, a Director should be appointed by the Board to the “Audit Committee”.

III) Special Meeting:
a) Class Meeting:

•  Meetings, which are held by a particular class of (preference shareholder or Debenture holder) is known as class meeting.

b) Meeting of the Creditor:

• These are not the meetings of the company.
• A situation in which a company may with to arrive at a consensues with the creditor to avoid any crisis or to evolve compromise or to introduce any new proposals.

Question 3.
Explain different Types of Open and Secret Types of Voting.
Answer:
I) Open Procedure:
a) By Voice:

• Voice voting in which the chairman allows the members to raise their voice in favour or against an issue.
  “Yes” for Approval
  “No” for Rejection.
• The chairman announces the results of voice voting on the basis of strength of words shouted.

b) By Show of Hands :

• Under this method, the chairman requests the members to raise their hands of those who are in favour of the proposal or candidate and then requests those are against.
• He announces the result on the basis of hands counted.

II) Secret Procedure:
a) By Ballot:

• Under this method, Ballot Paper Bearing Serial Number a (Symbol) is given to the members to record their opinion by marking with a symbol [S], they have to cast their vote in a secret chamber and put the ballot paper into the ballot box.
• The votes are counted and the results are announced.

b) By Post [Postal Ballot]:

• Big Companies or Big Associations having members scattered all over the country follow this method of voting.
• The members or voters fill in the ballot papers and return them by post in sealed covers which are opened when the ballot box is opened for counting the votes.

c) By Electronic Voting Machine [EVM]:

• It is a new technique of voting.
• Instead of using Ballot paper this machine is used.
• Names and symbols are fixed in the machine.
• The voter has to press the button.
• If green light signal comes it is in favour.
• If red light signal comes it is unfavour.

12th Commerce Guide Company Secretary Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
A statutory meeting can be held within _________ months.
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 2.
The Latin word ‘Secretariats’ means …………….
a) Secret
b) Open
c) Delegate
d) complete
Answer:
a) Secret

Question 3.
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a _________ majority.
(a) simple
(b) special
(c) high
(d) low
Answer:
(a) simple

Question 4.
A notice must be sent to every member to attend meeting …………………. days before the meeting is to be held. .
a) 7
b) 14
c) 21
d) 28
Answer:
c) 21

Question 5.
……………. means a person being the representative of a shareholder to attend a meeting on behalf of him.
a) Proxy
b) Substitute
c) Alternate
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) Proxy

Question 6.
Requisite number of persons at the meeting is called ……………….
a) Quorum
b) Proxy
c) Vote
d) Poll
Answer:
a) Quorum

Question 7.
Quorum for private limited company is ………………….
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer:
b) 2

Question 8.
Quorum for public limited company is …………………
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer:
c) 5

Question 9.
Which meeting will be held only once in the lifetime of the company?
a) AGM
b) Class
c) Board
d) Statutory
Answer:
d) Statutory

Question 10.
A Company Secretary is appointed by …………….
a) Government
b) Institute of Company Secretary
c) Board of Directors
d) Shareholders
Answer:
c) Board of Directors

Question 11.
Statutory meeting hold within …………….. months but not earlier than …………….. month.
a) 6 and 1
b) 6 and 2
c) 1 and 6
d) 6 and 3
Answer:
a) 6 and 1

Question 12.
The AGM convened within …………….. months.
a) 15
b) 18
c) 21
d) 25
Answer:
b) 18

Question 13.
The time gap between two consecutive AGM is ……………… months.
a) 3
b) 6
c) 12
d) 15
Answer:
d) 15

Question 14.
Director is Acting as ………………….
a) Agent
b) Trustee
c) Officer
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 15.
Who can call Extraordinary General Meeting?
a) CLT
b) Board
c) Requisition, Requisitioriists
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 16.
The decisions taken at a meeting are called ………………
a) Resolution
b) Poll
c) Vote
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) Resolution

Question 17.
……………….. resolution is one can be passed by a simple majority.
a) Ordinary
b) Special
c) Requiring Special Notice
d) All of these
Answer:
a) Ordinary

Question 18.
……………….. resolution is one can be passed by three fourth majority.
a) Ordinary
b) Special
c) Requiring Special Notice
d) All of these
Answer:
b) Special

Question 19.
The word vote is derived from the Latin word ………….
a) Votum
b) Voter
c) Voted
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) Votum

Question 20.
An authenticated record of a meeting is known as ………………
a) Agenda
b) Minutes
c) Ledger
d) NOTA
Answer:
b) Minutes

Question 21.
Pick the odd one out:
a) By Ballot
b) By Postal Ballot
c) By EVM
d) By Voice
Answer:
b) By Voice

Question 22.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Statutory Meeting
b) ACM
c) Extra-Ordinary General Meeting
d) Class Meeting
Answer:
d) Class Meeting

Question 23.
Which one of the following not correctly matched?
a) Statutory Meeting – Statutory Report
b) AGM – To appoint directors
c) Class Meeting – Preference shareholders meeting
d) Committee Meeting – Shareholders meeting
Answer:
d) Committee Meeting – Shareholders meeting

Question 24.
Choose the correct statement.
i) Proxy is a person who participates in the meeting on behalf of a shareholder.
ii) He can attend and vote in the meeting.
iii) He cannot speak in the meeting.
a) (i) is correct
b) (ii) is correct
c) (iii) is correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

II Match the following.

Question 1.

Answer:
a) (i) 4, (11) 1, (iii) 2, (iv) 3

Question 2.

Answer:
b) (i) 3, (n) 4, (iii) 1, (iv) 2

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Special Resolution is passed by three fourth majority.
Reason (R): The number of votes cast in favour of the resolution should be three times, the number of votes cast against it.
a) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is True (R) is False
d) (A) is False (R) is True
Answer:
a) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Voice Voting in which the Chairman allows the members to raise their voice in favour or against an issue.
Reason (R): The chairman announces the results of voice voting on the basis of the strength of words shouted.
a) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
b) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) and (R) are False.
d) (A) is False (R) is True
Answer:
b) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Company Secretary.
Answer:
“Secretary means any individual possessing the prescribed qualifications, appointed to perform the duties which may be performed by a secretary under this Act and any other ministry or administrative duties”.
– Companies Act, 2013, Section 2 (24)

Question 2.
What do you understand by “Poll”?
Answer:

•  Poll means tendering or offering a vote by ballot to a specially appointed officer, called the polling officer.
• Under the Companies Act, poll means exercising the voting right in the proportion to shareholders contributions the paid-up capital of a limited company having a share capital.

V. Long Answer Questions 

Question 1.
What are the Qualifications of a Company Secretary?
Answer:
Statutory Qualifications:

• ACS – [Having Share Capital 5 crore or more] [Associates of the company secretary ship]
• B.L – Degree
• C.A. – [Member of Institute of Chartered Accountant]
• M.Com – Degree
• I.C.W.A – [Member of Institute of Cost and Works Accountant]

Other Qualifications:

• Thorough in Companies Act.
• Expertise in Business Laws.
• Know the Economic Laws.
• Having more knowledge of Accounting.
• Expertise in Labour Laws.
• Knowledge in Company Management and HRM.

Question 2.
How the company secretary is appointed?
Answer:
As per section 2 (247, 203, 204) of the companies Act 2013, the provisions are given for the appointment of the company secretary. Only an individual who is a member of the Institute of Company Secretaries of India can be „ appointed as a company secretary. There are two methods of appointment of the company secretary. They are given below:

1. By the Promoters: The first secretary of a company is appointed by the promoters at the pre-incorporation stage.
2. By the First board of Directors: After the company has been registered, the first board of directors appoints the secretary at the first board meeting.

Question 3.
What are the powers and Rights of the Company Secretary?
Answer:

• Excercising Power : He has the right to exercise powers as granted by Board.
• Claiming Salary : As per contract, he has the right to claim his salary and other allowances.
• Preferential Creditor : During winding up of a company, he can claim his legal dues on a preferential basis.
• Attending Meeting : He has the right to be physically present in the meeting of shareholders and Directors.
• Supervision and Control : As a head, he has a right to supervise, direct and control all office activities of the subordinates.
• Signing authority : Being a principal officer he can sign contracts

Question 4.
Discuss the Liabilities of Company Secretary.
Answer:
I. Statutory Liabilities:

• Register all files and documents of the company.
• Arrange AGM in due time.
• Sending notice of meeting to all the participants.
• Maintaining Minute Books.
• Issuing share certificate, share warrant to the shareholders.

II. Contractual Liabilities:

• Abide by all terms and conditions of service contract.
• Act as per the directions of Board.
• Maintain secretary of the company affairs.
• Perform duties with due care and skills.
• Never act beyond his authority.
• Not to earn secret profit through illegal activity.

Question 5.
Describe the different types of Resolutions which company may pass with suitable matters required for each type of resolution.
Answer:
Ordinary Resolution:

• An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority. [Not less than 51 %]
• The votes cast in favour of resolution is more than the votes cast against the resolution.

Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters :

• To change the name of a company.
• To alter the share capital.
• To redeem debentures.
• To declare dividends.
• To approve annual accounts and Balance Sheet.
• To appoint the directors.

Special Resolution:

• “Special Resolution” is one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority. [3/4th majority]
• The number of votes cast in favour of the resolution should be three times the number of votes cast against it.

Special Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change the Registered office from one state to another.
• To change the objectives of the company.
• To alter the AOA.
• To commence any new business.
• To appoint auditor.

Resolution requiring special notice :

•  There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act 2013, which may be discussed at meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting.
• The following matters require special notice.
• To remove the director before the expiry of his period.
• To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed.
• To re-appoint the retiring Auditor.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Functions of Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 2 Functions of Management

12th Commerce Guide Functions of Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which is the primary function of management?
a) Innovating
b) Controlling
c) Planning
d) Decision-making
Answer:
c) Planning

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a main function?
a) Decision-making
b) Planning
c) Organising
d) Staffing
Answer:
a) Decision making

Question 3.
………………. is included in every managerial function.
a) Co-ordinating
b) Controlling
c) Staffing
d) Organising
Answer:
a) Co-ordinating

Question 4.
Which of the following is verification function?
a) Planning
b) Organising
c) Staffing
d) Controlling
Answer:
d) Controlling

II. Very short answer

Question 1.
Write a short note about planning.
Answer:
Planning is the primary function of management. Nothing can be performed without planning. Planning is a constructive review of future needs so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goal.

Question 2.
What is meant by Motivation?
Answer:

• The goals are achieved with the help of motivation.
• It includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers.
• It may be monetary (cash) or non-monetary (kind).

Question 3.
What is meant by Controlling?
Answer:
Controlling is performed to evaluate the performance of employees and deciding increments and promotion decisions. The control function helps in identifying underperformers and arranging remedial training for them. It is the control function that facilitates synchronization of actual performance with predetermined standards.

Question 4.
List the subsidiary functions of management.
Answer:

• Innovation
• Representation
• Decision – making
• Communication

Question 5.
What is the Traditional Proverb used in planning?
Answer:
“Thinking before doing” or “Look Before you Leap” are some of the usual traditional proverbs.

III. Short answer questions.

Question 1.
List out the main functions of management?

• Planning
• Organising
• Staffing
• Directing
• Motivation
• Controlling
• Co-ordination

Question 2.
State the importance of staffing.
Answer:
Staffing refers to the placement of the right persons in the right jobs. Staffing includes a selection of right persons, training to those needy persons, promotion of best persons, the retirement of old persons, performance appraisal of all the personnel, and adequate remuneration of personnel. The success of any enterprise depends upon the successful performance of the staffing function.

Question 3.
What is meant by Innovation?
Answer:

• Innovation refers to the preparation of personal and organization to face the changes made in the business world.
• Continuous changes are being made in the business.
• It includes developing new products, new materials, new’ techniques in production, new package, the new design of a product, and cost and reduction.

Question 4.
What is meant by co-ordination?
Answer:
Coordination is the synchronization of the actions of all individuals, working in the enterprise in different capacities. So as Lo leads the most successful attainment of the common objectives.
Co-ordination is included in every managerial function.

Eg:

• Planning and co-ordination
• Organisation and Co-ordination
• Staffing and co-ordination
• Directing and Co-ordination
• Motivation and co-ordination and
• controlling and co-ordination.

Question 5.
How the employees are informed about important matters in a company?
Answer:
Employees are kept informed of all necessary matters by circulars, instructions manuals, newsletters, notice – boards, meetings, participative mechanisms, etc.

IV. Long answer questions.

Explain the various functions of management.
Answer:
Main Functions:

1. Planning:- Planning is the primary function of management. Planning is a constructive review of future needs so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goal.
2. Organising:- Organising is the process of establishing harmonious relationships among the members of an organization and the creation of a network of relationships among them.
3. Staffing:- Staffing function comprises the activities of selection and placement of competent personnel.
4. Directing:- Directing denotes motivating, leading, guiding, and communicating with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.
5. Controlling:- Controlling is performed to evaluate the performance of employees and deciding increments and promotion decisions.
6. Co-ordination:- Co-ordination is the synchronization of the actions of all individuals, working in the enterprise in different capacities.
7. Motivating: The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers.

Subsidiary Functions:

1. Innovation:- Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, the new design of a product, and cost reduction.
2. Representation:- A manager has to act as a representative of a company. It is the duty of every manager to have good relations with others.
3. Decision-making:- Every employee of an organization has to take a number of decisions every day. Decision-making helps in the smooth functioning of an organization.
4. Communication:- Communication is the transmission of human thoughts, views or opinions from one person to another person. Communication helps the regulation of the job and co-ordinates the activities.

12th Commerce Guide Functions of Management Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which is the Secondary Function of Management?
a) Innovation
b) Planning
c) Motivation
d) Controlling
Answer:
a) Innovation

Question 2.
“Look Before you Leap” is a usual traditional proverb which provides a basis or logic for
a) Organising
b) Planning
c) Controlling
d) Decision Making
Answer:
b) Planning

Question 3.
Choose the odd one out.
(a) Directing
(b) Motivating
(c) Staffing
(d) Decision-making
Answer:
(d) Decision-making

Question 4.
Selection and placement of competent personnel is known as …………..
a) Communicating
b) Innovating
c) Motivating
d) Staffing
Answer:
d) Staffing

Question 5.
……………….. is performed to evaluate the performance of employees.
a) Staffing
b) Controlling
c) Selecting
d) Training
Answer:
b) Controlling

Question 6.
There are ______ subsidiary functions of management.
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Seven
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) Four

Question 7.
Nothing can be performed without………….
a) Planning
b) Motivating
c) Controlling
d) Co-ordination
Answer:
a) Planning

Question 8.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a) Planning – Work assigned
b) Representation – Right man for the right job
c) Motivation – Fair treatment
d) Co-ordination – Communication
Answer:
c) Motivation – Fair treatment

Question 9.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a) Controlling – Remedial Training
b) Innovation – New Techniques
c) Communication – Representative
d) Staffing – Selection
Answer:
c) Communication – Representative

Question 10.
Distribution of work in GroupWise or sections is called as …………………..
a) Co-ordinating
b) Controlling
c) Staffing
d) Organising
Answer:
d) Organising

Question 11.
Find the odd one out:
a) Primary Function
b) Harmonious Relationship
c) Evaluate the performance
d) Developing new materials
Answer:
d) Developing new materials

Question 12.
Find the odd one out:
a) Representative of a company
b) Opinion from one person to another
c) Synchronization of the actions of all individuals
d) Decision makings
Answer:
c) Synchronization of the actions of all individuals

II. Match the following

1. Match List I with List II

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2
c) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3
d) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
Answer:
a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

2. Match List I with List II

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
b) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-2
c) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
d) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
Answer:
a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

3. Match List I with List II

a) i-1, ii-4, iii-2, iv-4
b) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
a) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
c) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3
Answer:
b) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Placement of the right person in the right jobs.
Reason (R): The success of any enterprise
depends on the performance of staffing,
a) (A) is true (R) is False
b) (A) is False (R) is True
c) Both (A) and (R) are True
d) Both (A) and (R) are False
Answer:
c) Both (A) and (R) are True

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Planning is a function of management.
Reason (R) : Anything can be performed
without planning.
a) (A) is true (R) is False
b) (A) is False (R) is True
c) Both (A) and (R) are True
d) Both (A) and (R) are False
Answer:
a) (A) is true (R) is False

IV. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
How the functions of management can be classified?
Answer:
The functions of management can be classified into two categories. They are as follows:

• Main functions of Management
• Subsidiary functions of Management

V. Short Answer

Question 1.
State the importance of Motivation.
Answer:

• The goals are achieved with the help of motivation.
• It includes the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers.
• It may be monetary [cash] or non-monetary [kind]
• This is done by a resourceful leader.
• The workers expect favorable climate conditions to work, fair treatment, incentive, effective communication, and a gentlemanly approach.

Question 2.
Bring out the subsidiary functions of management.
Answer:

Question 1.
What do you mean by communication?
Answer:
Communication is the transmission of human thoughts, views, or opinions from one person to another person. Workers are informed about what should be done, where it is to be done, how it is to be done, and when it is to be done. Communication helps the regulation of the job and co-ordinates the activities.

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Principles of Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 1 Principles of Management

12th Commerce Guide Principles of Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Management is what a……………..does?
a) Manager
b) Subordinate
c) Supervisor
d) Superior
Answer:
a) Manager

Question 2.
Management is an …………………
a) Art
b) Science
c) Art and Science
d) Art or Science
Answer:
c) Art and Science

Question 3.
Scientific management is developed by
a) Fayol
b) Taylor
c) Mayo
d) Jcob
Answer:
b) Taylor

Question 4.
Dividing the work into small tasks is known as
a) Discipline
b) Unity
c) Division of work
d) Equity
Answer:
c) Division of work

Question 5.
With a wider span, there will be …………… hierarchical levels.
a) More
b) Less
c) Multiple
d) Additional
Answer:
b) Less

II. Very short answer questions.

Question 1.
What is Management?
Answer:
Management is part and parcel of our day to day life. So management is goal oriented and it is an art of getting things done with and through others.

Question 2.
List out the management tools. (BASED)
Answer:

1. Business Law
2. Accounting
3. Statistics
4. Economics
5. Data processing

Question 3.
Who is a manager?
Answer:
A manager is a dynamic and life giving element in every business. Without efficient management it cannot be possible to secure the best allocation and utilisation of human, material and financial resources.

Question 4.
State the meaning of Authority.
Answer:
“Authority” means the right of a superior given to his subordinate to get work from him.

Question 5.
What do you mean by the span of management?
Answer:
The Span of Management refers to the number of subordinates who can be managed efficiently by a superior. Simply, the manager having the group of subordinates who report him directly is called as the span of management.

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define the term management.
Answer:
“Management is a multi-purpose organ that manages a business, and manages manager and manages workers and work”. – PETER F. DRUCKER.

Question 2.
Is management an Art or Science?
Answer:
Management is neither a science nor an art, but a combination of both requiring people holding managerial positions to apply the scientific management principles and displaying popular managerial skills to accomplish the organizational goals as efficiently and as quickly as possible so as to be competitive in the globalized environment of business.

Question 3.
Differentiate management from Administration. MA CARD
Answer:

Question 4.
What are the principles of Taylor?
Answer:

• Science, not a Rule of Thumb.
• Harmony, not Discord.
• Mental Revolution
• Cooperation, not Individualism
• Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity.

Question 5.
What determines the span of management?
Answer:
The Span of Management has two implications:

1. Influences the complexities of the individual manager’s job.
2. Determine the shape or configuration of the organization.
3. There is a wide and a narrow span of management.

IV. Long answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the concept of management.
Answer:

The substance of management should be identified as a process. A process is something that what a person does in the context of his individual duties and responsibilities assigned by his or her immediate higher authority.
There are twin purposes of the management process:

1. Maximum productivity or profitability
2. Maximum human welfare and satisfaction.

There are five parts of management as a process:

1. Co-ordination of resources: The manager of an enterprise must effectively coordinate all activities and resources of the organization, namely, men, machines, materials, and money, the four M’s of management.
2. Management is a Process: The manager achieves proper coordination of resources by means of the managerial functions of planning, organizing, staffing, directing (or leading and motivating), and controlling.
3. Management is a Purposive Process: It is directed toward the achievement of predetermined goals or objectives. Without an objective, we have no destination to reach or a path to follow to arrive at our destination, i.e., a goal, both management, and organization must be purposive or goal-oriented.
4. Management is a Social Process: It is the art of getting things done through other people.
5. Management is a Cyclical Process: It represents a planning-action-control-replanning cycle, i.e., an ongoing process to attain the planned goals.

Question 2.
Explain the management process in detail.

Question 3.
Describe the principles of scientific management. (S) (HM) (CD)
Answer:
Science, not Rule of Thumb:

• Rule of thumb means decisions taken by managers as per their personal judgements.
• Taylor says, even a small production activity like loading – iron sheets into box cars can be scientifically planned.
• It saves time and energy of human.

Harmony, not Discard:

• Taylor emphasized that there should be complete harmony between the workers and the management.
• If there is any conflict between the two, it will not be beneficial either for workers or for management.

Mental Revolution:

• Taylor suggested complete mental revolution on the part of both workers and Management.
• It means that there should be complete change in the attitude and out look of both workers and management.
• It becomes possible – Teamwork – Sharing profits – Division of work etc.

Co-operation, not Individualism:

• It is an extension of principle of “Harmony, not discord”.
• It lays stress on mutual co-operation between workers and the management.
• Both workers and management should realize the importance of each other.

Development of Each and Every person:

• Efficiency of any organisation also depends on the skills and capabilities of its employees to a great extent.
• Thus, providing to the workers was considered essential in order to learn the best method.
• It helps to attain the efficiency and property for both workers and management.

Question 4.
Explain the principles of modern management.
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr.Henry Fayol, and according to him, there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organization.

1. Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks. This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.
2. Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.
3. Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc. It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organizations.
4. Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.
5. Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.
6. Subordination of Individual Interest to Mutual Interest: The management must put aside personal considerations and put company objectives firstly.
7. Remuneration: Workers must be paid sufficiently as this is a chief motivation of employees and therefore greatly influences productivity.
8. The Degree of Centralization: The amount of power wielded with the central management depends on company size.
9. Line of Authority/Scalar Chain: This refers to the chain of superiors ranging from top management to the lowest rank.
10. Order: Social order ensures the fluid operation of a company through the authoritative procedure.
11. Equity: Employees must be treated kindly, and justice must be enacted to ensure a just workplace.
12. Stability of Tenure of Personnel: Stability of tenure of personnel is a principle stating that in order for an organization to run smoothly, personnel (especially managerial personnel) must not frequently enter and exit the organization.
13. Initiative: Using the initiative of employees can add strength and new ideas to an organization.
14. Esprit de Corps/Team Spirit: This refers to the need of managers to ensure and develop morale in the Workplace; individually and communally.

12th Commerce Guide Principles of Management Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1
_______ is a global and universal concept.
(a) Management
(b) Process
(c) Art
(d) Science
Answer:
(a) Management

Question 2.
To manage is to forecast, to plan, to organize, to command, to co-ordinate and to control said by ……………………
a) Henry Fayol
b) Peter F. Drucker
c) Taylor
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) Henry Fayol

Question 3.
“To manage is to forecast, to plan, to organise, to command, to co-ordinate and to control.” said by _______
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Peter F. Drucker
(c) Walker
(d) Carter
Answer:
(a) Henry Fayol

Question 4.
What should be done? and when is should be done decided by ……………
a) Management
b) Supervisor
c) Director
d) Administrator
Answer:
d) Administrator

Question 5.
Executive and governing functions are done by ……………..
a) Manager
b) Supervisor
c) Worker
d) Administrator
Answer:
a) Manager

Question 6.
The father of Modem Management is _______
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Peter F. Drucker
(d) Louis A. Allen
Answer:
(b) Henry Fayol

Question 7.
The Authority of Top-level is ………………
a) Management
b) Administration
c) Both
d) NOTA
Answer:
b) Administration

Question 8.
One employee should receive an order from only one boss is known as ………………
a) Unity of command
b) Unity of objective
c) Unity of direction
d) Unity of strength
Answer:
a) Unity of command

Question 9.
Superiors ranging from top management to the lowest rank is called …………….
a) Responsibility
b) Authority
c) Remuneration
d) Scalar chain
Answer:
d) Scalar chain

Question 10.
With the narrow span, the hierarchical levels……………..
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Ups and downs
d) Stagnant
Answer:
b) Increases

Question 11.
Find the odd one out:
a) Harmony, Not Discord
b) Mental Revaluation
c) Cooperation, not individualization
d) Order
Answer:
d) Order

Question 12.
Find the odd one out:
a) Division of work
b) Scalar chain
c) Equity
d) Science not thum of Rule
Answer:
d) Science not thum of Rule

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Business law – Management Tool
b) Specialisation – Highly qualified
c) Code of conduct – Social conscience
d) Behavioural school – Process of planning
Answer:
d) Behavioural school – Process of planning

Question 14.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a) Cyclical process – Ongoing process
b) Purposive process – Co-ordinate
c) Social process – Goal-oriented
d) Not Individualisation – Separation
Answer:
a) Cyclical process – Ongoing process

Question 15.
Which is the correct statement?
i) Division of work is whole work divided into small tasks.
ii) Discipline is obedience and respect for authority.
iii) Unity of direction is related activities put under many groups.
a) (i) is correct
b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) All are correct
d) All are wrong
Answer:
b) (i) and (ii) are correct

II. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match List I with List II

a) iv-1, iii-2, ii-3, i-4
b) iv-2, iii-1, ii-3, i-4
c) iv-3, iii-4, ii-1, i-1
d) iv-4, iii-3, ii-2, i-1
Answer:
a) iv-1, iii-2, ii-3, i-4

Question 2.
Match List I with List II

a) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
b) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
c) i-1, ii-4, iii-3, iv-2
d) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): line employees should recei\e orders from one superior.
Reason (R): If the receives orders from more superiors, it creates confusion and conflict,
a) both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) both (A) and (R) are false. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) Roth (A) and (R) are I rue. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
d) (A) is true (R) is False
Answer:
a) both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : All related activities should be put under one group.
Reason (R) : There should be under the control of one manager.
a) (A) is true (R) is False
b) (A) is False (R) is True
s) Both tA) and (R) are True
d) Moth (A) and iR) are False
Answer:
c) Both (A) and (R) arc True.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Equity must be treated kindly and justice.
Reason (R): Managers should be fair and partial.
a) (A) is true (R) is False
b) (A) is False (R) is True
c) t A) and (R) are I rue
d) (A) and (R’ are False
Answer:
a) (A) is True (R) is False

IV. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is a Scalar chain or Line of Authority?
Answer:
This refers to the chain of superiors ranging from top management to the lowest rank. The principle suggests that there should be a clear line of authority from top to bottom linking all managers at all levels.

V. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Who is a Professional Manager?
Answer:
“A professional manager is one who specializes in the work of planning, organising, leading and controlling the efforts of others and does so through the systematic use of classified knowledge, a common vocabulary, and principles and who subscribes to the standards of practice and code of ethics established by a recognized body.” – Louis A. Allen.

VI. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Formulate a new policy relating to the timing of employees.
Answer:
It has always been a struggle for people to maintain a work-life balance. Working excessive hours poses a danger to workers’ health and to their families. Earlier all the work was done manually. However, with the help of machinery and computers, in modem times certain industries don’t require as many working hours anymore. Technology has introduced new ways to increase productivity. More recently, the global trend leans toward a four-day workweek (counting one workday as eight hours).

Even the ILO standards on working time provide the framework for regulated hours of work, daily and weekly rest periods, and annual holidays. These instruments ensure high productivity while safeguarding workers’ physical and mental health. If the workers earn enough to pay for their necessities, they may opt to spend more time at home or in leisure. Countries around the globe are already experimenting and implementing shorter workweeks in varying degrees. So, in my opinion, the new policy relating to the timing of employees should be a four-day workweek.

We hope the information prevailed in this article is helpful for all the students of Class 12th. The Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 12th Chapter 1 Principles of Management Questions and Answers And Pdf enhance your skills and score good marks in the exams. Stay tuned to get the latest information about the Samacheer Kalvi Class 12th Chapter 1 Principles of Management Solutions.

Question 2.
Discuss the implications of the span of management.
Answer:
Can a superior effectively manage, supervise and control how many subordinates.
It is known as “Span of Control” or “Span of Management” or “Span of Supervision”.

The span of management has two implications:

1. Influences the complexities of the individual Manager’s job.
2. Determine the shape or configuration of the organization.

It has two horizontal levels of span of management.

1. Wider-Span
2. Narrow Span

Wider-Span:

• Wider-Span-Less hierarchical levels – More subordinates – Less expensive.
• It imposes more challenges.
• It is very difficult for a superior to manage a large number of subordinates.
• In this structure, managers get reduced and remuneration saved.

Narrow Span:

• Narrow Span- more hierarchical levels – fewer subordinates – more expensive.
• With more levels of hierarchy the communication sutlers drastically.
• It takes a lot of time to reach the appropriate points and hence the actions delayed.
• In this structure, less number of subordinates under one superior requires more managers to be employed

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Coordination Chemistry Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 Coordination Chemistry

12th Chemistry Guide Coordination Chemistry Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I Text Book Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

1. The sum of primary valence and secondary valance of the metal M in the complex [M(en))₂ (Ox)] Cl is L
a) 3
b) 6
c) -3
d) 9
Answer:
d) 9

2. An excess of silver nitrate is added to 100ml of aO.OlM solution of pentaaquachlori- dochromium (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be
a) 0.02
b) 0.002
c) 0.01
d) 0.2
Answer:
b) 0.002

3. A complex has a molecular formula MSO₄Cl.6H₂O. The aqueous solution of it gives white precipitate with Barium chloride solution and no precipitate is obtained when it is treated with silver nitrate solution. If the secondary valence of the metal is six, which one of the following correctly represents the complex?
a) [M(H₂O)₄Cl] SO₄.2H₂O
b) [M(H₂O)₆] SO₄
c) [M(H₂O)₅Cl]SO₄.H₂O
d) [M (H₂O)₃Cl] SO₄.3H₂O
Answer:
c) [M(H₂O)₅Cl]SO₄.H₂O

4. Oxidation state of Iron and the charge on the ligand NO in [Fe (H₂O)₅ NO] SO₄ are
a) +2 and 0 respectively
b) +3 and 0 respectively
c) +3 and -1 respectively
d) +1 and +1 respectively
Answer:
d) +1 and +1 respectively

5. As per IUPAC guidelines, the name of the complex [Co(en)2 (ONO)Cl] Cl is
a) chlorobisethylenediaminenitritocobalt(III) chloride
b) chi or id obis (e thane-1, 2-diamine) nitrito K-Ocobaltate(III) chloride
c) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diammine) nitrito K -Ocobalt(II) chloride
d) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) nitrito K -Ocobalt(III) chloride
Answer:
d) chloridobis (ethane-1,2-diamine) nitro K -Ocobalt(III) chloride

6. IUPAC name of the complex K₃[Al(C₂O₄)₃] is
a) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminium(III)
b) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate(II)
c) potassiumtrisoxalatoaluminate(III)
d) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate(III)
Answer:
d) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate(III)

7. A magnetic moment of 1.73BM will be shown by one among the following (NEET)
a) TiCl₄
b) [CoCl₆]^4-
c) [CU(NH₃)₄]²⁺
d) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-
Answer:
c) [CU(NH₃)₄]²⁺

8. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d⁵ octahedral complex is
a) -0.6∆₀
b) 0
c) 2(P – ∆₀)
d) 2(P + ∆₀)
Answer:
b) 0

9. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of ∆₀ will be maximum?
a) [Co(CN)₆]^3-
b) [Co(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
c) [Co(H₂O)₆]³⁺
d) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
Answer:
a) [Co(CN)₆]^3-

10. Which one of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?
a) [Cr(NH₃)₆][Co(CN))₆]
b) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]Cl
c) [Pt(NH₃)₄][FtCl₄]
d) [CO(NH₃)₄Cl₂]NO₂
Answer:
b) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]Cl

11. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]?
a) Coordination isomerism
b) Linkage isomerism
c) Optical isomerism
d) Geometrical isomerism
Answer:
d) Geometrical isomerism

12. How many geometrical isomers are possible for [Pt(Py)(NH₃)(Br)(Cl)]?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 0
d) 15
Answer:
a) 3

13. Which one of the following pairs represents linkage isomers?
a) [Cu(NH₃)₄] [PtCl₄] and [Pt (NH₃)₄] [CuCl₄]
b) [Co(NH₃)₅ (NO₃)] SO₄ and [CO(NH₃)₅ (ONO)]
c) [Co(NH₃)₄ (NCS)₂] Cl and [Co(NH₃)₄ (SCN)₂]Cl
d) both (b) and (c)
Ans:
c) [Co(NH₃)₄ (NCS)₂] Cl and [Co(NH₃)₄ (SCN)₂]Cl

14. Which kind of isomerism is possible for a complex [Co(NH₃)₄Br₂]Cl? (PTA -3)
a) geometrical and ionization
b) geometrical and optical
c) optical and ionization
d) geometrical only
Answer:
a) geometrical and ionization

15. Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism?
a) [Ni(NH₃)₄ (H₂O)₂]²⁺
b) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
c) [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Cl
d) [FeCl₆ ]^3-
Answer:
d) [FeCl₆]^3-

16. A complex in which the oxidation number of the metal is zero is
a) K4 [Fe(CN)₆]
b) [Fe(CN)₃ (NH₃)₃]
c) [Fe(Co)₅]
d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
c) Fe(CO)s]

17. Formula of tris(ethane-l,2-diamine) iron (II) phosphate
a) [Fe(CH₃ – CH(NH₂)₂)₃](PO₄)₃
b) [Fe(H₂N – CH₂ – CH₂ – NH₂)₃] (PO₄)
c) [Fe(H₂N-CH₂-CH₂-NH₂)₃](PO₄)₂
d) [Fe(H₂N-CH₂-CH₂-NH₂)₃]₃(PO₄)₂
Answer:
d) [Fe(H₂N-CH₂-CH₂-NH₂)₃]₃(PO₄)₂

18. Which of the following is paramagneticin nature? (PTA -5)
a) [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺
b) [CO (NH₃)₆]³⁺
c) [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺
d) [Ni (CN)₄]^2-
Answer:
c) [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺

19. Fac-mer isomerism is shown by
a) [Co (en)₃]³⁺
b) [Co(NH₃)₄(Cl)₂]⁺
c) [Co (NH₃)₃ (Cl)₃]
d) [Co (NH₃)₅ Cl]SO₄
Answer:
c) [Co (NH₃)₃ (Cl)₃]

20. Choose the correct statement.
a) Square planar complexes are more stable than octahedral complexes
b) The spin only magnetic moment of [Cu (Cl)₄]₄^2- is 1.732 BM and it has square planar structure.
c) Crystal field splitting energy (∆_o) of [FeF₆]^4- is higher than the (Ao) of [Fe (CN)6]4
d) Crystal field stabilization energy of [V(H₂O)f₆]²⁺ is higher than the crystal field stabilization of [Ti(H₂O)₆]²⁺
Answer:
d) Crystal field stabilization energy of [V(H₂O)f₆]²⁺ is higher than the crystal field stabilization of [Ti(H₂O)₆]²⁺

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Write the IUPAC names for the following complexes. (PTA -3)

1. Na₂ [Ni (EDTA)]
2. [Ag(CN)₂]^–
3. [Co(en)₃]₂ (SO₄)₃
4. [Co (ONO) (NH₃)₅]²⁺
5. [Pt(NH₃)₂ Cl(NO₂)]

Answer:

1. Sodium 2, 2¹, 2¹¹, 2¹¹¹-(ethane-1, 2-diyldinitrilo) tetra acetato nickelate (II)
2. Dicyanido k-c argentate (I) ion
3. Tris (ethane -1, 2 – diamine) cobalt (III) sulphate
4. Pentaammine nitrito _ kO cobalt (III) ion
5. Diammine chlorido nitrito – kN Platinum (II)

Question 2.
Write the formula for the following coordination compounds.

1. Potassiumhexacyanidoferrate(II)
2. pentacarbonyl iron(O)
3. pentaamminenitrito -k -Ncobalt(III)ion
4. hexaamminecobalt(III) sulphate
5. sodium tetra fluoridodi hydroxidochromate (III)

Answer:

1. K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
2. [Fe(CO)₅]
3. [CO(NH₃)₅ (NO₂)]²⁺
4. [CO[NH₃)₆]₂ (SO₄)₃
5. Na₃[CrF₄(OH)₂]

Question 3.
Arrange the following in order of increasing molar conductivity
i) Mg[Cr(NH₃)(Cl)₅]
ii) [Cr(NH₃)₅Cl]₃[CoF₆]₂
iii) [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃]
Answer:


iii) [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃] – Neutral complex – No ions Molar conductivity increases as the number of ions increase
∴ Molar conductivity is in the increasing order. [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃] < Mg (Cr(NH₃)Cl₅] < [Cr(NH₃)₅Cl]₃[CoF₆]₂

Question 4.
Give an example of a coordination compound used in medicine and two examples of biologically important coordination compounds.
Answer:
Medical uses of coordination compounds:

1. Ca-EDTA chelate is used in the treatment of lead and radioactive poisoning. That is for removing lead and radioactive metal ions from the body.
2. Cis-platin is used as an antitumor drug in cancer treatment.

Biological importance of coordination compounds:

1. A red blood corpuscles (RBC) is composed of heme group, which is Fe²⁺ Porphyrin complex.it plays an important role in carrying oxygen from lungs to tissues and carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs.

2. Chlorophyll, a green pigment present in green plants and algae, is a coordination complex containing Mg²⁺ as a central metal ion surrounded by a modified Porphyrin ligand called corrin ring. It plays an important role in photosynthesis, by which plants convert CO, and water into carbohydrates and oxygen.

3. Vitamin B₁₂ (cyanocobalamin) is the only vitamin consist of a metal ion. it is a coordination complex in which the central metal ion is CO⁺ surrounded by Porphyrin ligand.

4. Many enzymes are known to be metal complexes, they regulate biological processes. For example, Carboxypeptidase is a protease enzyme that hydrolytic enzyme important in digestion contains a zinc ion coordinated to the protein.

Question 5.
Based on VB theory explain why [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is paramagnetic, while [Ni(CN)₄]^2- is diamagnetic.
Answer:

Question 6.
Draw all possible geometrical isomers of the complex [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺ and identify the optically active isomer.
Answer:

Question 7.
[Ti (H₂O)₆]³⁺ is coloured, while [Sc (H₂O)₆]³⁺ is colourless – Explain. (PAT -4; MARCH 2020)
Answer:

• In [Ti (H₂O)₆]³⁺ the – outer electronic configuration of metal ion Ti³⁺ is 3d¹.
• This single electron present in lower energy t_2g orbitals in the octahedral aqua ligand field absorbs light and excited to higher energy eg level.
• This is known as d-d transition.
• For this excitation absorption maximum is at 20000 cm^-1 corresponding to the CFSE ∆₀ 239.7 KJ mol^-1
• The transmitted colour associated with this absorption in purple and hence the complex appears purple in colour. [Ti(H20)6]³⁺
• But in [Sc(H₂O)₆]³⁺, the outer electronic configuration of metal ion Sc³⁺ is 3d°
• Since there is no electron in d orbital, d-d transition is not possible.
• Hence [Sc(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is colourless.

Question 8.
Give an example for complex of the type [Ma₂b₂C₂] where a, b, c are monodentate ligands and give the possible isomers.
Answer:

• Example for the complex of the type [Ma₂b₂c₂] is [Cr(NH₃)₂ (H₂O)₂Br₂]⁺
• There are totally 6 isomers possible Geometrical isomers – 5

Question 9.
Give one test to differentiate [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄ and [Co(NH₃)₅ SO₄]Cl
Answer:

• [CO(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄ → [CO(NH₃)₅Cl]⁺² + SO₄^2-
• [CO(NH₃)₅SO₄] Cl → [CO(NH₃)₅Cl] SO₄

1. Aqueous solution of (a) gives sulphate ion. When the addition of BaCL, solution (a) gives a white precipitate of BaS04. But (b) does not give any precipitate.

2. Aqueous solution of (b) gives chloride ion. When the addition of AgNO₃ solution (b) gives curdy white precipitate of AgCl. But (a) does not give any precipitate.

Question 10.
In an octahedral crystal field, draw the figure to show the splitting of d orbitals.
Answer:

Question 11.
What is linkage isomerism? Explain with an example.
Answer:

Linkage isomerism arises when an ambidentate ligand is bonded to the central metal atom/ion through either of its two different donor atoms.
(eg) [Co(NH₃)₅NO₂]²⁺
[Co(NH₃)₅NO₂]²⁺
Pentaammine nitrito – kN Cobalt (III) ion – Nattached [CO(NH₃)₅ONO]²⁺
Pentaammine nitrito – kO Cobalt (III) ion – O attached

Question 12.
Classify the following ligand based on the number of donor atoms,
a) NH₃
b) en
c) ox^2-
d) triaminotriethylamine
e) pyridine
Answer:

Question 13.
Give the difference between double salts and coordination compounds.
Answer:

Question 14.
Write the postulates of Werner’s theory?
Answer:
In a complex, every metal atom possesses two types of valency.
(i) Primary Valency
(ii) Secondary Valency

15. Why tetrahedral complexes do not exhibit geometrical isomerism.
Answer:
Cis-trans isomerism is not possible in tetrahedral complexes because all the four ligands are adjacent to one another [Ma₂b₂]

Question 16.
Explain optical isomerism in coordination compounds with an example.
Answer:

• Coordination compounds which possess chirality exhibit optical isomerism similar to organic compounds.
• The pair of two optically active isomers which are mirror images of each other are called enantiomers.
• Their solutions rotate the plane of the plane polarised light.
• If the rotation is in the clockwise direction the isomer is called dextro rotatory ‘d’ form.
• If the rotation is in the anti-clockwise direction the isomer is called laevo rotatory T form.
• The octahedral complexes exhibit optical isomerism.
• Examples: [CoCl₂(en)₂]⁺

Two Cis isomers are optically active. One trans isomer is optically inactive

Question 17.
What are hydrate isomers? Explain with an example. (PTA- 6; March 2020)
Answer:

• The exchange of free solvent molecules such as water, ammonia, alcohol etc., in the crystal lattice with a ligand in the coordination entity will give Solvate isomers.
• If the solvent molecule is water, then these isomers are called hydrate isomers.
• Example: CrCl₃.6H₂O has three hydrate isomers

Question 18.
What is crystal field splitting energy?
Answer:
The orbitals lying along the axes dx²-y² and dz² orbitals will experience strong repulsion and raise in energy to a greater extent than the orbitals with lobes directed between the axes (d_xy, d_yz and d_zx). Thus the degenerated orbitals now split into two sets and the process is called crystal field splitting.

Question 19.
What is crystal field stabilization energy? (CFSE)? (PTA -1)
Answer:
Crystal field stabilisation energy (CFSE) is defined as the energy difference of electronic configurations in the ligand field (E_LF) and the isotropic field/barycentre (E_iso).
CFSE (∆Eo) = {FLF}-{Eiso} = {[nt2g(-0.4)+neg(0.6)] ∆o + npP} – {n’p P}
Where
nt_2g = No. f electrons in t_2g orbitals
n_eg = No. of electrons in e_g orbitals
n_p = No. of electron in the ligand field
n¹_p = No. of electron pairs in the isotropic field (barycentre)
P = pairing energy

Question 20.
A solution of [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is green, whereas a solution of [Ni(CN)₄]^2- is colorless – Explain.
Answer:

• In [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺, the Ni²⁺ ion has two unpaired electrons that do not pair up in presence of weak ligand H₂O.
• Hence d-d-the transition is possible.
• Red colour is absorbed and complementary colour green is emitted. So it is green in colour.
• In [Ni(CN)₄]^2-, the Ni²⁺ ion has no unpaired electrons because of the strong ligand CN^– pairs up the electrons.
• Hence no d-d transition is possible.
• So [Ni(CN)₄]^2- is colourless

Question 21.
Discuss briefly the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls. (PTA – 2)
Answer:

• In metal carbonyls, the bond between metal atom and the carbonyl ligand consists of two components.
• The first component is an electron pair donation from the carbon atom of carbonyl ligand into a vacant d-orbital of central metal atom.
• This electron pair donation forms M←CO sigma bond.
• This sigma bond formation increases the electron density in metal d-orbitals and makes the metal electron-rich.
• In order to compensate for this increased electron density, a filled metal d-orbital interacts with the empty π* orbital on the carbonyl ligand and transfers the added electron density back to the ligand.
• This second component is called n-back bonding.
• Thus in metal carbonyls, electron density moves from ligand to metal through sigma bonding and from metal to ligand through pi bonding.
• This synergic effect accounts for a strong M←CO bond in metal carbonyls.
• This is shown diagrammatically as follows.

Question 22.
What is the coordination entity formed when an excess of liquid ammonia is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate?
Answer:
When excess liquid ammonia is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate tetraammine copper (II) sulphate is formed.
CuSO₄ + 4NH₃ → [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄. The Coordination entity is [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺.

Question 23.
On the basis of VB theory explain the nature of bonding in [Co(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
Answer:

Question 24.
What are the limitations of VB theory?
Answer:
Limitations of VB – Theory:
1. It does not explain the colour of the complex

2. It considers only the spin only magnetic moments and does not consider the other components of magnetic moments.

3. It does not provide a quantitative explanation as to why certain complexes are inner orbital complexes and the others are outer orbital complexes for the same metal. For example, [Fe(CN)₆]^4- is diamagnetic (low spin) whereas [Fe(CN)₆]^4- is paramagnetic (high spin).

Question 25.
Write the oxidation state, coordination number, nature of ligand, magnetic property and electronic configuration in octahedral crystal field for the complex K₄[Mn(CN)₆].
Answer:

III. Evaluate yourself

Question 1.
When a coordination compound CrCl₃.4H₂O is mixed with silver nitrate solution, one mole of silver chloride is precipitated per mole of the compound. There are no free solvent molecules in that compound. Assign the secondary valence to the metal and write the structural formula of the compound.
Answer:
Since 1 mole of silver chloride is precipitated only one Cl^– ion is present outside the coordination sphere.
∴ The formula is [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]Cl
Secondary valence of the metal is 6

Question 2.
In the complex, [Pt(NO₂)(H₂O)(NH₃)₂]Br, identify the following
i. Central metal atom/ion
ii. Ligand(s) and their types
iii. Coordination entity
iv. Oxidation number of the central metal ion
v. Coordination number
Answer:
[Pt(NO₂)(H₂O)(NH₃)₂]Br
Central metal atom/ ion : Pt (II)
Ligands and their types :
NO₂^– nitrito-k N – Anionic ligand
H₂O aqua – Neutral ligand
NH₃ ammine – Neutral ligand
Coordination entity: [Pt(NO₂)(H₂O)(NH₃)₂]⁺
Oxidation number of the central metal ion x + (-1) + 0 + 2 (0) = +1; x = +2
Coordination number = 4

Question 3.
Write the IUPAC name for the following compounds.
(i) K₂[Fe(CN)₃(Cl)₂(NH₃)]
(ii) [Cr(CN)₂(H₂O)₄][Co(OX)₂(en)]
(iii) [Cu(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(iv) [Cr(NH₃)₃(NC)₂(H₂O)]⁺
(v) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-
Answer:
(i) K₂[Fe(CN)₃(Cl)₂(NH₃)]
Potassium amminedichloridotricyanido- kC ferrate (III)
(ii) [Cr(CN)₂(H₂O)₄][Co(OX)₂(en)]
Tetra aqua dicyanido kc chromium (III) (ethane -1,2-diamine) dioxalato cobaltate (III)
(iii) [Cu(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
Diammine dichlorido copper (II)
(iv) [Cr(NH₃)₃(NC)₂(H₂O)]⁺
Triammine aqua dicyanido -kN chromium (III) ion
(v) [Fe(CN)₆]^4- Hexacyanido-kc ferrate (II) ion

Question 4.
Give the structure for the following compounds.
Answer:
(i) diamminesilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
(ii) Pentaammine nitrito-KNcobalt (III) ion
(iii) hexafluorido cobaltate (III) ion
(iv) dichloridobis (ethylenediamine)
Cobalt (III) sulphate
(v) Tetracarbonylnickel (0)
Answer:
(i) diamminesilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I) : [Ag(NH₃)₂] [Ag(CN)₂]
(ii) Pentaammine nitrito-KNcobalt (III) ion : (CO(NH₃)₅ (NO)₂]²⁺
(iii) hexafluorido cobaltate (III) ion : [CoF₆]^3-
(iv) dichloridobis (ethylenediamine) Cobalt (III) sulphate : [Co(en)₂Cl₂]₂SO₄
(v) Tetracarbonylnickel (0): [Ni(CO)₄]

Question 5.
A solution of [Co(NH₃)₄I₂]Cl, when treated with AgNO3, gives a white precipitate. What should be the formula of isomer of the dissolved complex that gives yellow precipitate with AgNO₃. What are the above isomers called?
Answer:

• Since yellow precipitate is obtained with AgN03 iodide ion is present outside the coordination sphere.
• Hence the formula is [Co(NH₃)₄I Cl]I
• This complex is an ionisation isomer of the complex [Co(NH₃)₄I₂]Cl

Question 6.
Three compounds A, B and C have empirical formula CrCl₃.6H₂O. They are kept in a container with a dehydrating agent and they lost water and attaining constant weight as shown below.
Answer:

Question 7.
Indicate the possible type of isomerism for the following complexes and draw their isomers,
i) [Co(en)₃][Cr(CN)₆]
ii) [Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)]²⁺
iii) [Pt(NH₃)₃(NO₂)]Cl
Answer:
i) [Co(en)₃][Cr(CN)₆] and [Cr(en)₃][Co(CN)₆] are coordination isomers
ii) [CO(NH₃)₅(NO₂)]²⁺ and [Co(NH₃)₅ONO]²⁺ are linkage isomers
iii) [Pt(NH₃)₃(NO₂)]Cl and [Pt(NH3)3Cl] N02 are ionisation isomers
iv) [Pt(NH₃)₃(NO₂)] and [Pt(NH₃)₃ONO)]Cl are linkage isomers.

Evaluate yourself: 8
Question 1.
Draw all possible stereoisomers of a complex Ca[Co(NH₃)Cl(Ox)₂]
Answer:

Evaluate yourself: 9
Question 1.
The spin-only magnetic moment of the Tetrachloridomanganate(II)ion is 5.9 BM. On the basis of VBT, predict the type of hybridisation and geometry of the compound.
Answer:

Question 2.
Predict the number of unpaired electrons in [C0Cl₄]^2- ion on the basis of VBT. [C0Cl₄]^2-
Answer:

Question 3.
A metal complex having composition Co(en)₂Cl₂Br has been isolated in two forms A and B. (B) reacted with silver nitrate to give a white precipitate readily soluble in ammonium hydroxide. Whereas A gives a pale yellow precipitate. Write the formula of A and B. state the hybridization of Co in each and calculate their spin only magnetic moment. [Co(en)₂Cl₂Br.
Answer:
Since B gives white precipitate with AgNO₃, it contains free Cl^– ion outside the Coordination sphere. Hence B is [Co(en)₂Cl Br]Cl

Since A gives pale yellow precipitate with AgNO₃ it contains free Br^– ion outside the coordination sphere. Hence A is [Co(en)₂Cl₂]Br

Evaluate yourself: 10
Question 1.
The mean pairing energy and octahedral field splitting energy of [Mn(CN)₆]^3- are 28,800 cm^-1 and 38500 cm^-1 respectively. Whether this complex is stable in low spin or high spin?
Answer:
High spin Mn³⁺ complex

Question 2.
Draw energy level diagram and indicate the number of electrons in each level for the complex [Cu(H₂O)₆]²⁺. Whether the complex is paramagnetic or diamagnetic?
Answer:
[Cu(H₂O)₆]²⁺

Since one unpaired electron is present, the complex is paramagnetic and C.N is 6 the geometry is Octahedral.

Question 3.
For the [CoF₆]^3- ion the mean pairing energy is found to be 21000 cm^-1. The magnitude of ∆₀ is 13000cm^-1. Calculate the crystal field stabilization energy for this complex ion corresponding to low spin and high spin states. [CoF₆]^3-
Answer:

Since the high spin complex possesses a large nature CFSE value. It is more favoured.

12th Chemistry Guide Coordination Chemistry Additional Questions and Answers

Part II – Additional Questions

I. Choose the best answer.

1. A theory of co-ordination compounds was proposed by …………….
a) Rutherford
b) J.J.Thomson
c) Alfred Werner
d) Neils Bohr
Answer:
c) Alfred Werner

2. The primary valence of a metal ion refers to …………….
a) atomic number
b) oxidation state
c) atomic mass
d) Co-ordination number
Answer:
b) oxidation state

3. The secondary valence of a metal ion refers to …………….
a) atomic number
b) oxidation state
c) atomic mass
d) Co-ordination number
Answer:
d) Co-ordination number

4. Primary valence of a metal ion is always satisfied by …………….
a) Positive ions
b) negative ions
c) neutral molecules
d) all of the above
Answer:
b) negative ions

5. Among the following complexes, which one shows Zero Crystal field stability: energy (CFSE) is (PTA- 6)
a) [Mn(H₂O)₃]³⁺
b) [Fe(H₂O)₆]3³⁺
c) [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺
d) [CO(H₂O)₆]³⁺
Answer:
b) [Fe(H₂O)₆]3³⁺

6. The sphere in which the metal ion and ligands are firmly attached is called
a) outer sphere
b) ionization sphere
c) Coordination sphere
d) none of the above
Answer:
c) Coordination sphere

7. The sphere in which the metal ion and other ions are loosely bound is called
a) Inner sphere
b) Ionization sphere
c) Coordination sphere
d) none of the above
Answer:
b) ionization sphere

8. The groups which satisfy the secondary valence are called
a) Central metal ion
b) ligands
c) Complexion
d) Complex
Answer:
b) ligands

9. In a complex a central metal ion acts as a
a) Lewis acid
b) Lewis base
c) Bronsted acid
d) Bronsted base
Answer:
a) Lewis acid

10. In a complex a ligand acts as a
a) Lewis acid
b) Lewis base
c) Bronsted acid
d) Bronsted base
Answer:
b) Lewis base

11. In a complex primary valence of a metal ion is
a) ionizable
b) non-ionisable
c) directional
d) Coordination number
Answer:
a) ionizable

12. In a complex secondary valence of a metal ion is
a) ionizable
b) non-ionisable
c) non-directional
d) Oxidation state
Answer:
b) non – ionisable

13. In a complex primary valence of a metal ion is
a) non-ionizable
b) directional
c) non-directional
d) Co-ordination number
Answer:
c) non-directional

14. According to spectrochemical series which of the following ligand produces strongest field and cause maximum splitting? (PTA -1)
a) F^–
b) CO
c) H₂O
d) C^–
Answer:
b) CO

15. In the complex K₄[Fe(CN)₆] the central metal ion is
a) K⁺
b) Fe²⁺
c) Fe³⁺
d) CN^–
Answer:
b) Fe²⁺

16. In the complex K₄[Fe(CN)₆] the ligand is
a) K⁺
b) Fe²⁺
c) Fe³⁺
d) CN^–
Answer:
d) CN^–

17. In the complex K₄[Fe(CN)₆] the primary valence of the central metal ion is
a) +2
b) +3
c) +4
d) +6
Answer:
a) +2

18. In the complex K₄[Fe(CN)₆] the secondary valence of the central metal ion is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
Answer:
d) 6

19. The geometry of the complex K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is
a) Square planar
b) tetrahedral
c) Octahedral
d) trigonal bipyramidal
Answer:
c) Octahedral

20. K [PtCl₃(C₂H₄)] was called as
a) Wilkinson Catalyst
b) Zeiglar Natta catalyst
c) Magnus’s green salt
d) Zeise’s salt
Answer:
d) Zeise’s salt

21. Which among the following is not a neutral ligand?
a) aqua
b) ammine
c) Oxalato
d) Pyridine
Answer:
c) Oxalato

22. Which is a monodentate ligand?
a) Carbonato
b) Oxalato
c) Cyanido
d) en
Ans :
c) Cyanido

23. [Co (NH₃)₅ NO₂]²⁺ ion exhibits
a) Ionisation isomerism
b) Linkage isomerism
c) Coordination isomerism
d) solvate isomerism
Answer:
b) Linkage isomerism

24. [Pt (NH₃)₄] [Pd(Cl)₄] complex exhibits
a) Ionisation isomerism
b) Linkage isomerism
c) Coordination isomerism
d) solvate isomerism
Answer:
c) Coordination isomerism

25. [Cr(NH₃)₄ClBr] NO₂ and [Cr(NH₃)₄ClNO₂] Br are
a) Linkage isomers
b) Ionisation isomers
c) Coordination isomers
d) solvate isomers
Answer:
b) Ionisation isomers

26. Which among the following gives a curdy white precipitate with silver nitrate solution?
a) [Co (NH₃)₄ Cl Br] Br
b) [Co (NH₃)₄ Br₂] Cl
c) [Cr (NH₃)₄ Cl Br] NO₂
d) [Cr (NH₃)₄ ClNO₂] Br
Answer:
b) [Co (NH₃)₄ Br₂] Cl

27. Which among the following gives three moles of silver chloride with silver nitrate solution?
a) [Cr(H₂O)₄ Cl₂]Cl. 2H₂O
b) [Cr(H₂O)₅ Cl]Cl₂. 2H₂O
c) [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃
d) [Cr(H₂O)₃ Cl₃]. 3H₂O
Answer:
c) [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃

28. Which among the following gives a white precipitate with barium chloride solution?
a) [Co (NH₃)₅ Cl] Cl₂
b) [Cu(NH₃)₄] SO₄
c) [Ag (NH₃)₂] Br
d) [Co (NO₂)₃ (NH₃)₃]
Answer:
b) [Cu (NH₃)₄] SO₄

29. According to VBT, in a Coordination complex the bonding between central metal ion and ligands is
a) ionic
b) covalent
c) metallic
d) vander waals force
Answer:
b) covalent

30. In which of the following complexes the central metal ion undergoes SP3 hybridisation
a) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-
b) [Pt(NH₃)₄]²⁺
c) [NiCl₄]^2-
d) [Cu (NH₃)₄]²⁺
Ans :
c) [[NiCl₄]^2-

31. If the (n-1) d orbitals are involved in hybridisation, the complex is called as
a) Outer orbital complex
b) Spin paired complex
c) High spin complex
d) Spin free complex
Answer:
b) Spin paired complex

32. If the n d orbitals are involved in hybridisation, the complex is called as
a) Inner orbital complex
b) low spin complex
c) high spin complex
d) spin paired complex
Answer:
c) high spin complex

33. Which statement is incorrect?
a) [Ni(CO)₄] – Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic
b) [Ni(CN)₄]^2- – Square planar, diamagnetic
c) [Ni(CO)₄] – Tetrahedral, diamagnetic
d) [Ni(Cl)₄]^2- – Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic
Answer:
a) [Ni(CO)₄] – Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic

34. In [Ni(CO)₄], the hybridisation of central metal ion is
a) dsp²
b) sp³
c) d²sp³
d) dsp³
Answer:
b) Sp³

35. Co-ordination number of Ni in [Ni(C₂O₄)₃]^4- is (PTA – 4)
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 2
Answer:
b) 6

36. According to CFT, the bonding between central metal ion and ligands is
a) ionic
b) covalent
c) metallic
d) Vanderwaal’s force
Answer:
a) ionic

37. Which is a strong field ligand?
a) I^–
b) CN^–
c) Cl^–
d) S^2-
Answer:
b) CN^–

38. Which is a weak field ligand?
a) NO^–₂
b) NH³
c) CO
d) SCN^–
Answer:
d) SCN^–

39. The observed colour of a coordination compound can be explained using
a) Valence bond theory
b) Werner’s theory
c) Crystal field theory
d) Molecular orbital theory
Answer:
c) Crystal Field theory

40. Which among the following is a mononuclear carbonyl?
a) [C0₂(C0)₈]
b) [Fe₃(CO)₁₂]
c) [Fe(CO)₅]
d) [Fe₂(CO)₉]
Answer:
c) [Fe (CO)₅]

41. If the instability constant value of [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺ is 1.0 × 10^-12, its stability constant value is:
a) 1.0 × 10^-12
b) 1.0 × 10¹²
c) 12
d) -12
Answer:
b) 1.0 × 10¹²

42.

From the above table which of the following complex is most stable?
a) [Cu (NH₃)₄]²⁺
b) [Fe (SCN)]²⁺
c) [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺
d) [Ag(CN)₂]^–
Answer:
c) [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺

43. Phthalo blue – a bright blue pigment is a complex of
a) Ni²⁺
b) Co³⁺
c) Cu²⁺
d) Ag⁺
Ans:
c) Cu²⁺

44. For removing lead poisoning, the chelating ligand used is
a) DMG
b) EDTA
c) en
d)CO
Answer:
b) EDTA

45. The process in which coordination complexes are used in the extraction of silver and gold from their ores is
a) Mond’s process
b) Alumino thermic process
c) Mac – Arthur – Forrest cyanide process
d) Bessimerisation
Answer:
c) Mac- Arthur – Forrest cyanide process

46. Ni ions present in nickel chloride solution is estimated accurately using the ligand
a) DMG
b) EDTA
c) en
d) CO
Ans:
a) DMG

47. Catalyst used for hydrogenation of alkenes is
a) Ziegler – Natta Catalyst
b) Zeise’s Salt
c) Wilkinson’s catalyst
d) Magnus’s green Salt
Answer:
c) Wilkinson’s Catalyst

48. The catalyst used in the polymerization of ethene is
a) Ziegler – Natta Catalyst
b) Zeise’s Salt
c) Wilkinson’s catalyst
d) Magnus’s green Salt
Answer:
a. Ziegler – Natta Catalyst

49. The complex used as an antitumor drug in cancer treatment is
a) Ca – EDTA Chelate
b) Cisplatin
c) Trans – Platin
d) Cyano cobalamine
Answer:
b) Cis – Platin

50. RBC is composed of
a) Mg²⁺
b) Fe²⁺
c) Fe³⁺
d) Co⁺
Answer:
b) Fe²⁺

51. In RBC and chlorophyll, the ligand is
a) EDTA
b) DMG
c) Porphyrin
d) en
Answer:
c) Porphyrin

II. Match the following
Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:

III. Pick the odd man out

1. Pick the odd man out w.r.t complexion
a) [CO(NH₃)₆] Cl₃
b) [Fe (H₂O)₆] Cl₂
c) [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄
d) K₄ [Fe(CN)₆]
Answer:
K₄ [Fe(CN)₆] – Anionic complex others are cationic complexes

2. Pick the odd man out w.r.t geometry
a) [CO(NH₃)₆] Cl₃
b) [Fe (H₂O)₆] Cl₂
c) [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄
d) K₄ [Fe(CN)₆]
Answer:
c) [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄

3. Pick the add man out w.r.t primary valence of the metal ion
a) [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
b) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
c) [Fe(CO)₅]
d) [CO(NH₃)₃ Cl₃]
Answer:
c) [Fe(CO)₅] – Primary valence is zero, in other complexes the primary valence is +3

4. Pick the odd man out w.r.t the nature of the ligand
a) aqua
b) carbonyl
c) nitrosyl
d) nitrato
Answer:
d) nitrato – negative ligand others are neutral ligand

IV. Pick the wrong statement

Question 1.
i) The secondary valence of a metal ion is satisfied by ligands.
ii) The secondary valence determines the geometry of the complex.
iii) The secondary valence is oxidation state of the metal ion.
iv) If the secondary valence is six, the geometry is tetrahedral.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iii)
d) (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
d) (iii) & (iv)
Correct statement : (iii) The secondary valence is the coordination number of the metal ion (iv) If the secondary valence is six, the geometry is octahedral.

Question 2.
i) Central metal ion and ligands are bonded through ionic bond.
ii) Central metal ion accepts electron pairs donated by ligands.
iii) Ligands act as lewis acids
iv) Charge on the coordination sphere is the net change inside the coordination sphere.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iii)
d) (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
b) (i) & (iii)
Correct statement: (i) Central metal ions and ligands are bonded through a coordinate covalent bond, (iii) Ligands act as Lewis bases.

Question 3.
i) Trans [Co Cl₂ (en)₂]⁺ is optically active.
ii) In octahedral complexes if nd orbitals are involved in hybridisation, they are called as low spin complexes.
iii) In a complex if all the electrons are paired, it is diamagnetic
iv) Ligands which cause the pairing of electrons are called strong field ligands.
a) (i) &(ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iii)
d) (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
Correct statement:
i) Trans [Co Cl₂ (en)₂]⁺ is optically inactive.
ii) In octahedral complexes if nd orbitals are involved in hybridisation, they are called high spin complexes.

Question 4.
i) The ligands present on the right side of the spectrochemical series are called strong field ligands.
ii) The ligands present on the left side of the spectrochemical series are called weak field ligands.
iii) CFSE (∆E₀ = E_iso – E_LF
iv) \(\mu_{S}=\sqrt{n(n-2)}\)
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iii)
d) (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
Correct statement: (iii) CFSE (∆E₀) = E_LF – E_iso
iv) \(\mu_{s}=\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)

V. Pick the Correct statement

Question 1.
i) The primary valence of a metal ion is positive in most cases and zero in certain cases.
ii) The primary valences are directional
iii) The primary valence is satisfied by ligands in certain cases.
iv) The primary valence is co-ordination number.
a) (i) &(ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iii)
d) (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
b) (i) & (iii)
Correct statement: (ii) The primary valences are non – directional
(iv) The primary valence is oxidation state.

Question 2.
i) Coordination entity consists of central metal ion and ligands.
ii) In K₄[Fe(CN)₆], the coordination entity is [Fe(CN)₆]^4-
iii) The groups present inside the coordination entity can be ionised
iv) The coordination entity is not responsible for the geometry of the complex.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iii)
d) (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
Correct statement : (iii) The groups present inside the coordination entity can not be ionised.
(iv) The coordination entity is responsible for the geometry of the complex.

Question 3.
i) In thiocyanate ligand if sulphur forms a coordination bond with metal, the ligand is named thiocyanato-KN
ii) The ligand NH₃ is named amine.
iii) Ethylenediamine is a neutral ligand.
iv) The name of cationic ligand ends with – ium
a) (i) &(ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
Correct statement : (i) In thiocyanate ligand if sulphur forms a coordination bond with metal, the ligand is named thiocyanato-kS.
(ii) The ligand NH₃ is named as ammine.

Question 4.
i) Linkage isomer is not possible with nitrite ligand.
ii) Coordination isomerism is found in coordination compounds in which both cation and anion are complexions.
iii) Ionisation isomer arises when an ionisable counter ion itself can act as a ligand.
iv) In solvate isomer if the solvent molecule is alcohol it is called a hydrate isomer.
a) (i) &(ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
Correct statement : (i)Lingake isomer is possible with nitrite ligand (ii) In solvate isomer if the solvent molecule is water it is called as hydrate isomer.

VI. Assertion and Reason

i) Both A and R are correct, R explains A.
ii) A is correct, R is wrong
iii) A is wrong, R is correct
iv) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A.

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : [Co(NH₃)₄ Br₂] Cl and [CO(NH₃)₄ Cl Br] Br are ionisation isomers.
Reason (R) : In solution, they give free Cl^– and Br^– ions respectively
Answer:
i) Both A and R are correct, R explains A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Geometrical isomerism exists in homoleptic complexes.
Reason (R): Geometrical isomerism is due to different possible three-dimensional spatial arrangements of the ligands around the central metal atom.
Answer:
iii) A is wrong, R is correct.
Correct Assertion (A): Geometrical isomerism exists in heteroleptic complexes.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : According to VBT the ligand → metal bond in a coordination complex, is covalent in nature.
Reason (R) : Mutually shared electrons are provided equally by the central metal atom and the ligand
Answer:
ii) A is correct, R is wrong Correct Reason: Mutually shared electrons are provided by ligands to the central metal atom.

VII. Two Mark Questions

Question 1.
Write any two medicinal uses of coordination compounds? (PTA – 6)
Answer:
Ca-EDTA chelate is used in the treatment of lead and radioactive poisoning. That is for removing lead and radioactive metal ions from the body.
cisplatin is used as an antitumor drug in cancer treatment.

Question 2.
What is a central metal ion?
Answer:
The metal ion which accepts electron pair donated by ligands is called the central metal ion of a complex.
Central metal ions are electron-pair acceptors.
Central metal ions are Lewis acids.

Question 3.
What are ligands?
Answer:
In a complex, the negative ions, neutral molecules positive ions which donate pair of electrons to the central metal ion are called ligands.
Ligands are electron-pair donors.
Ligands are Lewis bases.

Question 4.
[Fe(CN₆)]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ are of different colours in dilute solutions, why? (PTA – 2)
Answer:

• [Fe(CN₆)]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ show different colours in dilute solution because
• CN^– is a strong field ligand and H₂O is a weak ligand hence magnitude of CFSE is different
• both CN^– and H₂O absorb same wavelength of energy.
• complexes of weak field ligands are generally colourless
• the sizes of CN^– and H₂O are different hence their colours are also different.

Question 5.
Define coordination number.
Answer:
The number of ligand donor atoms bonded to a central metal ion in a complex is called the coordination number of the metal.

Question 6.
What is the coordination sphere?
Answer:
The complexion containing the central metal atom/ion and the ligands attached to it is collectively called a coordination sphere or inner sphere.

Question 7.
What are inert and labile complexes? (PTA – 4)
Answer:
In some cases, complexes can undergo rapid ligand substitution, such complexes are called labile complexes. However, some complexes undergo ligand substitution very slowly (or sometimes no substitution), such complexes are called inert complexes.

Question 8.
What is d-d transition?
Answer:
The excitation of d – electrons of central metal ion from the lower energy t_2g level to the higher energy eg level by the absorption of light is known as d-d transition.

Question 9.
What are metallic carbonyls?
Answer:
Metal carbonyls are the transition metal complexes of carbon monoxide containing metal-carbon bond.

Question 10.
What is stability constant? (PTA – 5)
Answer:
The reciprocal of dissociation equilibrium constant or instability constant (∝) of a complex is called as the formation equilibrium constant or stability constant (β)

Question 11.
Calculate the magnetic moment and magnetic property of [CoF₆]^3- (MARCH 2020)
Answer:

VIII. Three Mark questions

Question 1.
Explain geometrical isomerism in square planar complexes.
Answer:

• Geometrical isomerism exists in heteroleptic complexes due to different possible three-dimensional spatial arrangements of the ligands around the central metal atom.
• In square planar complexes of the form [MA₂B₂]^n± and [MA₂BC]^n±, if similar groups present on the same side of the metal atom it is called Cis – isomer and if they are on the opposite sides of the metal atom it is called trans isomer.
• Square planar complex of the type [M(xy)₂]^n± where XY is a bidentate ligand with two different coordinating atoms and of the type [MABCD]^n± by considering anyone ligands as a reference, the rest can be arranged in three different ways also show Cis – trans isomerism.

Question 2.
Explain geometrical isomerism in octahedral complexes.
Answer:

• Octahedral complexes of the type [MA₂B₄]^n±, [M(XX)₂B₂]^n± show Cis- trans isomerism Here A and B are monodentate ligands and XX is a bidentate ligand with two same kind of donor atoms.
• In the above diagram the positions (1,2), (1.3) (1,4) (1,5), (2,3) (2,5), (2,6) (3,4) (3,6), (4,5), (4,6) and (5,6) are identical and if two similar groups are present in any one of these positions, the isomer is called as Cis isomer.
• Similarly, positions (1, 6), (2,4) and (3, 5) are identical and if two similar groups are present in these positions, the isomer is called as trans-isomer.
  (ex) [Co (NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺

Question 3.
Write about facial and meridional isomers.
Answer:

• Octahedral complex of the type [MA₃B₃]^n± shows geometrical isomerism
• If the three similar ligands (A) are present in the corners of one triangular face of the octahedron and the other three ligands (B) are present in the opposing triangular face, then the isomer is called as a facial isomer (fac isomer)
• If the three similar ligands are present around the meridian which is an imaginary semicircle from one apex of the octahedron to the opposite apex, the isomer is called as a meridional isomer (mer isomer)
• This is called meridional because each set of ligands can be regarded as lying on a meridian of an octahedron

Question 4.
In a tetrahedral crystal field, draw the figure to show splitting of d-orbitals (PTA – 6)
Answer:

Question 5.
Write the use of complex formation in photography.
Answer:
In photography, when the developed film is washed with sodium thiosulphate solution (hypo), the negative film gets fixed. Undecomposed AgBr forms a soluble complex called
sodiumdithiosulphatoargentate(I) which can be easily removed by washing the film with water.
AgBr + 2Na₂S₂O₃ → Na₃[Ag (S₂O₃)₂] + 2NaBr

Question 6.
Write the use of metal complexes in biological systems.
Answer:

• RBC is composed of heme group which is a complex of Fe²⁺ and Porphyrin ligand. It carries oxygen from lungs to tissues.
• Chlorophyll, a green pigment present in green plants, algae is a complex of Mg²⁺ and corrin ring, a modified porphyrin ligand. It is responsible for the photosynthesis and the conversion of CO₂ and water into carbohydrates and oxygen.
• The only vitamin with a metal ion Vitamin B₁₂ (Cyanocobalamine) is a complex of Co⁺ and porphyrin ligand.
• Many enzymes which regulate biological processes are metal complexes.
  (ex) Carboxypeptidase is a protease enzyme that hydrolytic enzyme important in digestion is a zinc complex with protein-ligand.

Question 7.
How is Cisplatin used as an antitumour drug in cancer treatment?
Answer:

• C is platin is a square planar coordination complex Cis – [Pt (NH₃)₂ Cl₂]
• It is a platinum-based anti-cancer drug
• This drug undergoes hydrolysis and reacts with DNA to produce various cross-links.
• These cross-links hinder the DNA replication and transcription, which results in cell growth inhibition and ultimately cell death.
• It also cross-links with cellular proteins and inhibits mitosis.

IX. Five Mark Questions

Question 1.
How are coordination complexes classified?
Answer:
Coordination complexes are classified into two types.
I. Classification based on the net charge on the complex
A coordination compound in which the complexion
(i) Carries a net positive charge is called a cationic complex. (Ex). [Ag(NH₃)2]⁺
(ii) Carries a net negative charge is called an anionic complex. (Ex). [Ag(CN)₂]^–
(iii) Bears with no net charge is called a neutral complex. (Ex). [Ni(CO)₄]

II. Classification based on kind of ligands.
A coordination compound in which
(i) The central metal ion/ atom is coordinated to only one kind of ligand is called a homoleptic complex. (Ex). [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺
(ii) The central metal ion/ atom is coordinated to more than one kind of ligands is called a heteroleptic complex. (Ex). [Co (NH₃)₅ Cl]²⁺

Question 2.
Write the steps involved in the IUPAC nomenclature of coordination compounds.
Answer:
i) The cation is named first, followed by the anion regardless of whether the ion is simple or complex.
ii) The simple ions are named as in other ionic compounds.
iii) To name a complexion, the ligands are named first followed by the central metal atom/ ion. If more than one ligand is present they are named in alphabetical order.

(a) Naming the ligands:

• Name of anionic ligands end with the letter ‘O’.
  Name of cationic ligands end with ‘ium’.
• Neutral ligands are usually called with their molecular names with fewer exception namely H₂O (aqua), NH₃ (ammine) etc.,
• K-term is used to denote an ambidentate ligand in which more than one coordination mode is possible.
• If the coordination entity contains more than one ligand of a particular type, the multiples of ligand (2,3,4, …..) is indicated by adding Greek prefixes (di,tri,tetra ….) to the name of the ligand.
• If the name of the ligand contains a Greek prefix (eg. ethylene diamine) alternate prefixes (bis, tris, tetrakis ) can be used.
• These numerical prefixes are not taken into account for alphabetising the name of ligands.

(b) Naming the central metal atom/ion.

• In cationic/neutral complexes, the element name is used as such for naming the central metal atom/ion.
• In anionic complexes a suffix ‘ate’ is used along with the element name or its Greek or Latin name if any.

Question 3.
Explain structural isomerism exhibited by coordination compounds.
Answer:

• The coordination compounds with same formula, but have different connections among their constituent atoms are called structural isomers or constitutional isomers.
• It is of four types.

i) Linkage isomers:
This type arises when an ambidentate ligand is bonded to the central metal atom/ion through either of its two different donor atoms.
(ex). [Co (NH₃)₅ NO₂]²⁺ – nitritoK-N ligand N – attached.
[Co (NH₃)₅ ONO]²⁺ – nitrito K-O ligand O – attached.

ii) Coordination isomers:
This type arises in the coordination compounds having both the cation and anion as complex ion.

The interchange of one or more ligands between the cationic and the anionic coordination entities result in different isomers.
(ex). [Co (NH₃)₆] [Cr (CN)₆] &
[Cr (NH₃)₆] [CO (CN)₆]

iii) Ionisation isomers:

• This type arises when an ionisable counter ion itself can act as a ligand.
• The exchange of such counterions with one or more ligands in the coordination entity will result in ionisation isomers.
• These isomers will give different ions in solution.
  (ex). [Co (NH₃)₄ Br₂] Cl &
  [Co (NH₃)₄ Cl Br] Br.

iv) Solvate isomers:
This arises by the exchange of free solvent molecules such as water, ammonia, alcohol etc., in the crystal lattice with a ligand in the coordination entity.

If the solvent molecule is water, these isomers are called hydrate isomers. (ex).[Cr(H20)6]Cl3;
[Cr (H₂O)₅ Cl] Cl₂ H₂O;
[Cr (H₂O)₄ Cl₂] Cl 2H₂O.

Question 4.
Explain the main assumption of VBT of coordination compounds (PTA – 1)
Answer:

• The ligand → Metal bond in coordination complex is an aicnl in nature, it is formed by sharing ol electrons between theienlrul metal atom and the ligand.
• Each ligand should have at least one filled orbital containing a lone pair of electrons.
• To accept the electron pairs donated by the ligands, the central metal ion must contain vacant orbitals equal to its coordination number.
• This vacant orbital of central metal atom undergo hybridisation.
• The vacant hybridized orbitals of central metal ion linearly overlap with filled orbital of the ligands forming coordinate covalent sigma bonds.
• The hybridized orbitals are directional and give definite geometry to the complexion.
• In octahedral complexes, if (n-1) d orbitals are involved in hybridisation, they are called inner orbital complexes or low spin complexes or spin paired complexes. If nd orbitals are involved in hybridisation, they are called as outer orbital complexes, or high spin complexes or spin-free complexes.
• If the metal ion contains unpaired electrons the complex is paramagnetic, if the electrons are paired, the complex is diamagnetic.
• Ligands such as CO, CN^–, en and NH₃ which cause pairing of electrons are called strong field ligands.
• Ligands such as, F^–, Cl^–, Br^– which do not cause pairing of electrons are called weak field ligands.
• Greater the overlapping between the ligand orbitals and the hybridised metal orbital, greater is the bond strength.
• The relation between crystal field splitting energies of octahedral and tetrahedral field is \(\Delta t=\frac{4}{9} \Delta 0\)

Question 5.
Write the salient features of Crystal Field Theory.
Answer:

• Crystal field theory assumes that the bond between the ligand and the central metal atom is purely ionic, ie. the bond is formed due to the electrostatic attraction between the electron-rich ligand and the electron-deficient metal.
• In case of charged metal ions or ligands, they are considered as point charges and in case of neutral metal atoms or ligands they are considered as electric dipoles.
• The complex formation is considered as the following series of hypothetical steps.

Step-1:
In an isolated gaseous state, all the five ‘d’ orbitals of the central metal ion are degenerate. Initially, the ligands form a spherical field of negative charge around the metal. In this field the energies of all the five d orbitals will increase due to the repulsion between the electrons of the metal and the ligand.

Step-2:
The ligands are approaching the metal atom in actual bond directions. In an octahedral field the central metal ion is located at the origin and the six ligands are coming from +x, -x, +y, -y, +z and -z directions.
Orbitals lying along the axes d_x²-y² and d_z² (e_g) will experience strong repulsion and raise in energy to a greater extent than the orbitals with lobes directed between the axes (d_xy/ d_yz, d_zx) (t_2g). This splitting of degenerated orbitals into two sets is called crystal field splitting.

Step-3:
Upto this point the complex formation would not be favoured. When the ligands approach further, there will be an attraction between the negatively charged electron and the positively charged metal ion resulting in a net decrease in energy. This decrease in energy is the driving force for the complex formation.

In the case of the tetrahedral complex, none of these orbital is directly pointing to the ligands. The d_xy, d_yz, d_zx (t_2g) orbitals are nearer to the ligands and hence they interact to a greater extent with the ligand orbitals, therefore d_xy, d_yz, d_zx (t_2g) orbitals become high energy orbitals than d_x²-y² and d_z² (e_g) orbitals in a tetrahedral complex.
Thus the mode of splitting of d orbitals in an octahedral complex is just the reverse of that observed in a tetrahedral complex.

Question 6.
Explain the classification of metallic carbonyls.
Answer:
Metallic carbonyls are classified in two different ways.

I. Classification based on the number of metal atoms present
a) Mononuclear carbonyls:
These contain only one metal atom.
(ex). [Ni (CO)₄]

b) Polynuclear carbonyls
These contain two or more metal atoms. They may be homonuclear or heteronuclear.
(ex). [Co₂ (CO)₈]; [MnCo (CO)₉]

II. Classification based on the structure:
a) Non bridged metal carbonyls.
These do not contain any bridging carbonyl ligands.
Those contain only terminal carbonyls.
(ex)
Those contain terminal carbonyls and metal-metal bonds

b) Bridged carbonyls:
These contain one or more bridging carbonyls along with terminal carbonyl ligands and one or more metal-metal bonds, (ex).

Question 7.
Write the IUPAC names for the following complexes. (MARCH 2020)

1. [Co (NH₃)₅Cl]²⁺
2. K₃ [Fe (C₂O₄)₃]
3. [Co <NH₃)₆] [Cr(CN)₆]
4. [Cr (H₂O)₄ Cl₂] Cl 2H₂O
5. [Ft (Py)₄] [Pt Cl₄]
6. [Zn(NCS)₄]^2-
7. [Ag(NH₃)₂]²⁺

Answer:

1. Pentaamminechloridocobalt (III)ion
2. Potassium trioxalato ferrate (III)
3. Hexaammine Cobalt (III) hexa cyanido K-C chromate (III)
4. Tetra aqua dichlorido chromium (III) chloride dihydrate
5. Tetrapyridine platinum (II) tetra chloridoplatinate (II)
6. Tetrathiocyanato – kN Zincate (II) ion
7. Diammine Silver (I) ion

Question 8.
Write the formula for the following coordination compounds.

1. Tris (ethylenediamine) Chromium (III) Chloride
2. Potassium tetracyanido K-C nickelate (II)
3. Ammine bromido chlorido nitrito – kN platinate (II) ion
4. Dichlorido bis (ethane -1, 2 – diamine) Platinum (IV) nitrate
5. Hexa aqua manganese (II) Phosphate

Answer:

1. [Cr (en)₃] Cl₃
2. K₂[Ni(CN)₄]
3. [Pt (NH₃) BrCl No₂]^–
4. [Pt (en)₂ Cl₂] (N0₃)₂
5. [Mn (H₂O)₆]₃ (PO₄)₂

Question 9.
What will be the correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region and explain for the following (PTA – 3)
[Ni(NO₂)₆]^4-; [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺; [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺
Answer:
The central metal ion in all three complexes is the same. Therefore, absorption in the visible region depends on the ligands. The order in which the CFSE values of the ligands increases in the spectrochemical series is as follows:
H₂O < NH₃ < NO₂^–
Thus, the amount of crystal-field splitting observed will be in the following order.
∆_0(H2O) < ∆_0(NH3) < ∆_0(NO2^–)
Hence, the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region will be in the order.
[Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ >[Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺ > [Ni(NO₂)₆]^4-

Question 10.
Answer all the questions for the complex [Fe(en)₂Cl₂]Cl₂ (PTA -6)

1. Oxidation number of Fe
2. Hybridisation and shape
3. Magnetic behaviour
4. Number of geometric isomers
5. Whether there may be optical isomer also?
6. IUPAC name

Answer:

1. Oxidation number of Fe is +3
2. Hybridisation and shape is -d²sp³
3. Paramagnetic due to presence of three unpaired electrons
4. Two cis and trans isomers
5. Yes, cis isomer will also show optical isomerism
6. Dichlorido bis (ethane 1, 2 diamine) iron (III) chloride (or)
7. Dichloro bis (ethylenediamine) iron (III) chloride.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.2 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.2

Question 1.
Express each of the following physical statements in the form of differential equation.
(i) Radium decays at a rate proportional to the amount Q present.
(ii) The population P of a city increases at a rate propotional to the product of population and to the difference between 5,00,000 and the population.
(iii) For a certain substance, the rate of change of vapor pressure P with respect to temperature T is proportional to the vapor pressure and inversely proportional to the square of the temperature.
(iv) A saving amount pays 8% interest per year compound continuously. In addition, the income from another investment is credited to the amount continuously at the rate of Rs 400 per year.
Solution:
(i) If at anytime t, The amount of Radium present is Q. The rate at which Q is decreasing is \(\frac { dQ }{ dt }\) and this is negative. This rate of decrease or decay is found to be proportional to Q itself. Hence we have the law, \(\frac { dQ }{ dt }\) = -kQ where k is a positive constant. Therefore \(\frac { dQ }{ dt }\) + kQ = 0 which is a differential equation.

(ii) The rate of change of population increases with respect to time t, is \(\frac { dP }{ dt }\) & the rate of population is proportional to the product of population is \(\frac { dP }{ dt }\) = kP & the also the difference between 5,00,000 & the population is \(\frac { dP }{ dt }\) = kP(5,00,000 – P) is required differential equation.

(iii) The rate of change of vapor pressure P with respect to time t is \(\frac { dP }{ dt }\) & the rate of increase vapor pressure is P at time T is proportibnal to the vapor pressure and also is inversely proportional to the square of the temperature is \(\frac { dP }{ dt }\) = \(\frac { kP }{ T^2 }\)
since \(\frac { k }{ T^2 }\) = α
\(\frac { dP }{ dt }\) = α P ⇒ \(\frac { dP }{ dt }\) – α P = 0 is a required differential equation.

(iv) Let x be the amount. Amount varies from every year, (ie) Amount varies with respect to time t is \(\frac { dx }{ dt }\) & in addition the income from other source credited Rs.400 continuously for every year.
∴ \(\frac { dx }{ dt }\) = \(\frac { 8 }{ 100 }\) × x + 400
⇒ \(\frac { dx }{ dt }\) = \(\frac { 2x }{ 25 }\) + 400
⇒ ⇒ \(\frac { dx }{ dt }\) – \(\frac { 2 }{ 25 }\)x – 400 = 0 is a required differential equation.

Question 2.
Assume that a spherical rain drop evaporates at a rate proportional to its surface area. Form a differential equation involving the rate of change of the radius of the rain drop.
Solution:
The rate of change of the radius of the rain drop evaporates with respect to time t is \(\frac { dx }{ dt }\) = -k i.e The drop is decreasing so put negative sign. Therefore \(\frac { dx }{ dt }\) = -k is a required differential equation.