TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 1.
A wire which is in North-South direction is dropped freely, will any emf be induced across its ends?
Answer:
No, because both horizontal and vertical component of Earth is magnetic field are not intercepted by the falling wire.

Question 2.
Does the change in magnetic flux induce emf or current?
Answer:
emf is always induced.

Question 3.
During the change of magnetic flux when will current be induced?
Answer:
Current will be induced only when the circuit is complete.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 4.
A train is moving with uniform speed from north to south. Across which the ends of its axle, will the emf appear?
Answer:
Yes, emf will be appear as the train is { intercepting vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field.

Question 5.
What is meant by induced emf and induced current?
Answer:
Whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit an emf is produced. This emf is known as the induced emf and the current that flows in the closed circuit is called induced current.

Question 6.
State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are:
First law:
Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a closed circuits changes, an emf is induced in the circuit. The induced emf lasts so long as the change in magnetic flux continues.

Second law:
The magnitude of emf induced in a closed circuits is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the circuit.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 7.
Define self inductance. Give its unit.
Answer:
The coefficient of self induction of a coil or self-inductance of a coil is numerically equal to the opposing em/induced in the coil when the rate of change of current through the coil is unity. The unit of self inductance is henry (H).

Question 8.
What are the applications of eddy currents?
Answer:
Eddy currents are used in

  • Induction stove
  • Eddy current brake
  • Eddy current testing
  • Electromagnetic damping.

Question 9.
Define the unit of seif-inductance.
Answer:
One henry is defined as the self-inductance of a coil in which a change in current of one ampere per second produces an opposing emf of one volt.

Question 10.
Define mutual inductance in terms of magnetic flux.
Answer:
Mutual inductance is defined as the flux linkage of the second coil when a current of 1 A flows through the first coil.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 11.
What is the unit of mutual inductance?
Answer:
The unit of mutual inductance is henry. Mutual inductance between two coils is defined as one herny if a current of 1A in one coil produces unit flux linkage in second coil.

Question 12.
Define henry in terms of change of current.
Answer:
Mutual inductance between two coils is one henry if a current changing at the rate of 1 As-1 in the first coil induces an opposing emf of 1 V in another coil.

Question 13.
How are eddy currents used in the application of brake to electrical trains?
Answer:
A metallic drum is coupled to the wheels of a train. The drum rotates along with the wheel when the train is in motion. When the brake is applied, a strong magnetic field is developed f and hence, eddy currents are produced in the drum which oppose the motion of the drum. Hence, the train comes to rest.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 14.
Differentiate between self-inductance and mutual inductance.
Answer:

Self inductance Mutual inductance
Self inductance is numerically equal to the opposing emf induced in the coil when the rate of change of current through the coil is unity. Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the emf induced in one coil, when the rate of change of current through the other coil is unity.
When a current of 1 ampere flows through coil in one second, an emf of e is induced. The self inductance is given by L = – e. When a current of 1 ampere flows through a primary coil in one second and emf induced in the secondary coil is es then the mutual inductance is given bv M = – es.

Question 15.
Explain the operation of motor used in fans.
Answer:
Eddy currents are produced in a metallic cylinder called rotor, when it is placed in a rotating magnetic field. The eddy current initially tries to decrease the relative motion between the cylinder and the rotating magnetic field. As the magnetic field continues to rotate, the metallic cylinder is set into a rotation. These motors are used in fans.

Question 16.
Mention the advantage of three phase alternation.
Answer:

  1. For a given dimension of the generator, three-phase machine produces higher power output than a single-phase machine.
  2. For the same capacity, three-phase alternator is smaller in size when compared to single phase alternator.
  3. Three-phase transmission system is cheaper. A relatively thinner wire is sufficient for transmission of three phase power.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 17.
In a step-up transformer, the primary current is more than the secondary current. Explain why?
Answer:
In any transformer the power in the primary = power in the secondary.
i.e. V1I1 = V2I2

In the step-up transformer the primary voltage is less than the secondary voltage. To maintain the power as constant the primary current in a step-up transformer is more than the secondary current.

Question 18.
Can a transformer be used for stepping up a DC? Support your answer with explanation.
Answer:
The transformer cannot be used for stepping up a DC. When the primary of the transformer is connected to DC there will be a momentary current in the secondary coil as the current in the primary builds up to its final value. Afterwards the primary current will be constant and there is no change of magnetic flux. Thus there will be no current in the secondary of the transformer.

Question 19.
What are the energy losses in a transformer?
Answer:
The energy losses in a transformer are

  • Copper losses,
  • Eddy current losses,
  • Hysteresis losses and
  • Flux leakage losses.

Question 20.
What is known as grid?
Answer:
The main transmission lines from power station to part of a common system called the grid. A large region of the country power from all the power stations in a particular region is fed into the grid. It forms a common pool from which power can be drawn where needed.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 21.
What are pylons?
Answer:
The cables used for transmitting power over long distances are suspended by the large porcelain insulators form large steel structures called pylons.

Question 22.
What do you mean by mutual Induction?
Answer:
The phenomenon of producing an induced emf in a coil due to the change in current in the other coil is known as mutual induction.

Question 23.
State the factors on which, the coefficient of mutual induction depends.
Answer:
The coefficient of mutual induction between a pair of coils depends on the following factors:
(i) Size and shape of the coils, number of turns and permeability of material on which the coils are wound.
(ii) Proximity of the coils.

Question 24.
What is A.C. generator?
Answer:
The ac generator is a device used for converting mechanical energy into electrical energy.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 25.
State and explain the principle of A.C generator.
Answer:
A.C. generator is based on the principle of electromagnetic inducion, according to which an emf is induced in a coil when it is rotated in a uniform magnetic field.

Question 26.
Mention the difference between a step up and step down transformer.
Answer:

Step up transformer Step down transformer
The current in the primary coil is more than that in the secondary coil. The current in the primary coil is less than that in the secondary coil.
The number of turns in the primary coil is less than that in the secondary coil. The number of turns in the primary coil is more than that in the secondary coil.
It is used to convert a low A.C. voltage into a high A.C. voltage. It is used to convert a high A.C. voltage into a low A.C. voltage.

Question 27.
What is a poly phase AC generator?
Answer:
If a number of armature windings are used in the alternator it is known as polyphase alternator. It produces voltage waves equal to the number of windings or phases. Thus a polyphase system consists of a numerous windings which are placed on the same axis but displaced from one another by equal angle which depends on the number of phases.

Question 28.
Why a DC ammeter cannot read AC?
Answer:
For direct current XL = 0 and XC = ∞. Alternating current varies in magnitude and direction periodically. But direct current is a unidirectional current and does not vary periodically. Hence a DC ammeter cannot read AC.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 29.
What is meant by RMS value of AC?
Answer:
The Root Mean Square value of an alternating current is defined as the square root of the mean squares of all currents over one cycle.

Question 30.
What is phasor diagram?
Answer:
The diagram that indicates various phasors and their phase relations is called phasor diagram.

Question 31.
Define alternating current and give its expression.
Answer:
Alternating current is defined as an electric current which is induced when a coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field. Since the induced current varies in magnitude and direction periodically, it is called alternating current.
Alternating current is given by I = I0 sin ωt
Irms = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 32.
What is capacitive reactance?
Answer:
Capacitive reactance is given by XC = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}_{\omega}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi v C}\)

where v is the frequency of the AC supply.
For DC v = 0; XC = ∞

Thus a pure capacitor offers infinite resistance to DC. But in an AC circuit, the reactance of the coil decreases with increase in frequency.

Question 33.
What is inductive reactance?
Answer:
Inductive reactance is given by,
XL = ωL = 2πυL, where υ is the frequency of the AC supply.
For DC υ = 0;
∴ XL = 0
Thus a pure inductor offers zero resistance to DC. But in an AC circuit the reactance of the coil increases with increase in frequency.

Question 34.
What is resonant frequency in LCR circuit?
Answer:
The particular frequency υo at which the impedance of the circuit becomes minimum and therefore the current becomes maximum is called resonant frequency of the circuit.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 35.
Define power factor.
Answer:
The average power dissipated in an AC circuit depends not only on the voltage and . current but also on the cosine of the phase angle Φ between them.
Pav = I2rms Z cos (Φ)
where Irms – RMS value of current
Z – impedance; cos Φ – power factor.
Hence, power factor is defined as the ratio of average power (Pav) dissipated in an AC circuit to the square of rms value of current (I2rms).

Question 36.
What happens to the value of current in RLC series circuit, if frequency of the source is increased?
Answer:
When the frequency of the source is increased, the value of current in RLC frequency, the current will be maximum since the impedance of the circuit is nearly zero.

Question 37.
Define efficiency of a transformer.
Answer:
Efficiency of a transformer is defined as the ratio of output power to the input power, output power
input power
η = \(\frac{\text { output power }}{\text { input power }}\)

= \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{s} \mathrm{I}_{s}}{\mathrm{E}_{p} \mathrm{I}_{p}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 38.
What is efficiency of an ideal transformer? Why?
Answer:
The efficiency of an ideal transformer is 1. i.e., 100% where there is no power loss. Because, when there is no power loss, the output power is equal to input power.

Question 39.
Why the efficiency of transformer is less than one?
Answer:
Practically there are numerous factors leading to energy loss in a transformer and hence the efficiency is always less than one.

Question 40.
What is meant by alternating emf?
Answer:
A rotating coil in a magnetic field, induces an alternating emf and hence an alternating current. Since, the emf induced in the coil varies in magnitude and direction periodically, it is called an alternating emf.

Question 41.
What is the significance of alternating emf?
Answer:
The significance of an alternating emf is that it can be changed to lower or higher voltages conveniently and efficiently using a transformer. Also the frequency of the induced emf can be altered by changing the speed of the coil. This enables us to utilise the whole range of electromagnetic spectrum for one purpose or the other.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 42.
How alternating current can be measured? Give reason.
Answer:
Since alternating current varies continously with time, its average value over one complete cycle is zero. Hence its effect is measured by rms value of AC.

Question 43.
What is acceptor circuit?
Answer:
The series resonant circuit is often called an ‘acceptor’ circuit. By offering minimum impedance to current at the resonant frequency it is able to select or accept most readily this particular frequency among many frequencies.

In radio receivers the resonant. frequency of the circuit is tuned on the frequency of the signal desired to be detected. This is usually done by varying the capacitance of a capacitor.

Question 44.
What is alternating current?
Answer:
When the electric current produced by a generator changes its direction of flow continuously and periodically in a circuit several times in a second, current is known as an alternating current.

Question 45.
Can a transformer be used for stepping up a DC? Support your answer with explanation.
Answer:
The transformer cannot be used for stepping up a DC. When the primary of the transformer is connected to DC there will be a momentary current in the secondary coil as the current in the primary builds up to its final value. Afterwards the primary current will be constant and there is no change of magnetic flux. Thus there will be no current in the secondary of the transformer.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 46.
What is inductive reactance?
Answer:
Inductive reactance plays the same role as the resistance. Hence, the inductance impedes
the flow of current in the circuit. It is given by XL = Lω = 2 π υL.

Question 47.
What is capacitive reactance?
Answer:
The capacitive reactance is the opposition offered by a capacitor to the flow of current through it. It is given by
XC = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}_{\omega}}=\frac{1}{2 \pi v \mathrm{C}}\) .

Question 48.
What is resonance in LCR circuit?
Answer:
The LCR circuit is said to be in resonance when its inductance reactance is equal to its capacitive reactance i.e., XL = XC. The current in the circuit is maximum. The voltage and current are in phase when LCR circuit is in resonance.

Question 49.
What is the application of resonance in radio sets?
Answer:
In radio sets, the antenna circuit contains LCR circuit. Its capacitance is varied until the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is the same as the carrier frequency of any particular radio station. At this state, the current in the LCR circuit is maximum and the receiver responds to the incoming signal.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 50.
What is meant by ‘wattful’ current?
Answer:
The component of current Irms cos (Φ) which is in phase with the voltage is called active component. The power consumed by this current = Vrms Irms cos (Φ). So that it is also known as ‘Wattfui’ current.

Question 51.
Mention various formulae for power factor.
Answer:
(i) Power factor = cos Φ = cosine of the angle of lead or lag.
(ii) Power factor = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{Z}}=\frac{\text { Resistance }}{\text { Impedance }}\)
(iii) Power factor = \(\frac{\mathrm{VI} \cos \phi}{\mathrm{VI}}=\frac{\text { True power }}{\text { Apparent power }}\)

Question 52.
What are the examples of power factors?
Answer:
Some examples for power factors:
(i) Power factor = cos 0° = 1 for a pure resistive circuit because the phase angle <|) between voltage and current is zero. (ii) Power factor = cos (± \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) = 0 for a purely inductive or capacitive circuit because the phase angle c|> between voltage and current is ± \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(iii) Power factor lies between 0 and 1 for a circuit having R, L and C in varying proportions.

Question 53.
State the advantages of AC over DC.
Answer:
(i) The generation of AC is cheaper than that of DC.
(ii) When AC is supplied at higher voltages, the transmission losses are small compared to DC transmission.
(iii) AC can easily be converted into DC with the help of rectifiers.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 54.
What are the disadvantages of AC over DC?
Answer:
(i) Alternating voltages cannot be used for certain applications Eg: charging of batteries, electroplating, electric traction etc.
(ii) At high voltages, it is more dangerous to work with AC than DC.

Question 55.
Draw a diagram to illustrate the construction of a transformer.
Answer:
refer figure P. No: 206 – Q. No: 18

Question 56.
What are copper losses? How are they minimised?
Answer:
Transformer windings have electrical resistance. When an electric current flows through them, some amount of energy is dissipated due to Joule heating. This energy loss is called copper loss that is minimized by using wires of larger diameter.

Question 57.
What is meant by alternating voltage?
Answer:
An alternating voltage is the voltage which changes polarity at regular intervals of time and the direction of the resulting alternating current also changes accordingly.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 58.
Represent squared wave form of alternating current diagramatically.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 2

Question 59.
What is meant by sinusoidal alternating voltage?
Answer:
If the waveform of alternating voltage is a sine wave, then it is known as sinusoidal alternating voltage which is given by the relation.
υ = Vm sin ωt.

Question 60.
Draw curves explaining the variations em/in a three phase generator.
Answer:
refer figure P. No: 205 – Q. No: 17 – (ii)

Question 61.
What is a transformer?
Answer:
Transformer is a stationary device used to transform electrical power from one circuit to another without changing its frequency. The applied alternating voltage is either increased or decreased with corresponding decrease or increase of current in the circuit.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 62.
Draw the phasor and wave diagrams for AC circuit with R.
Answer:
refer figure P. No: 182 – (ii)

Question 63.
Draw the phasor and wave diagrams for A.C. current with L.
Answer:
refer figure P. No: 182 – (iii)

Question 64.
Draw the phasor and wave diagrams for A.C. circuit with C.
Answer:
refer figure P. No: 182 – (iv)

Question 65.
Draw a diagram to indicate the variation of (i) electrical energy and (ii) magnetic energy as a function of time.
Answer:
refer figure P. No: 188

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 66.
As soon as current is switched on in a high voltage wire, the bird sitting on the wire flies away: Give reason.
Answer:
When current is switched on, current is induced in the body of the bird. Its wings experience mutual repulsion, due to the flow of opposite currents in them. So the bird flies away.

Question 67.
Draw the phasor diagram its represent the variation of current with voltage.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 3

Question 68.
Prove that whenever the electric current changes in one circuit changes then the galvanometer shows a deflection using an experiment.
Answer:
Consider two closed circuits. The circuit consisting of a coil P, a battery B and a key K is called as primary circuit while the circuit with a coil S and a galvanometer G is known as secondary circuit. The coils P and S are kept at rest in close proximity with respect to one another. If the primary circuit is closed, then electric current starts flowing in the primary circuit. Due to this, the galvanometer gives a momentary deflection.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 4

After that, when the electric current reaches a certain steady value, no deflection is observed in the galvanometer. Likewise if the primary circuit is broken, the electric current starts decreasing and there is again a sudden deflection but in the opposite direction.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 5

When the electric current becomes zero, the galvanometer shows no deflection. From the above observations, it is concluded that whenever the electric current in the primary circuit changes, the galvanometer shows a deflection.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 69.
Discuss the drawbacks of eddy currrents.
Answer:
When eddy currents flow in the conductor, a large amount of energy is dissipated in the form of heat. The energy loss due to the flow of eddy current is inevitable but it can be reduced to a greater extent with suitable measures. The design of transformer core and electric motor armature is crucial in order to minimise the eddy current loss.

To reduce these losses, the core of the transformer is made up of thin laminas insulated from one another in while for electric motor the winding is made up of a group of wires insulated from one another. The insulation used does not allow huge eddy currents to flow and hence losses are minimized.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 70.
Explain Faraday’s experiments that lead to Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
In the first experiment, when a bar magnet is placed close to a coil, some of the magnetic lines of force of the bar magnet pass through the coil. It infers that the magnetic flux is linked with the coil. When the bar magnet and the coil approach each other, the magnetic flux linked with the coil increases. So this increase in magnetic flux induces an emf
Hence a transient electric current flows in the circuit in one direction.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 6

At the same time, when they recede away from one another, the magnetic flux linked with the coil decreases. The decrease in magnetic flux again induces an emf in opposite direction so an electric current flows in opposite direction.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 7

Hence there is deflection in the galvanometer when there is a relative motion between the coil and the magnet. In the second experiment, when the primary coil P carries an electric current, a magnetic field is established around it. The magnetic lines of this field pass through itself and the neighbouring secondary coil S.

When the primary circuit is open, no electric current flows in it. Hence the magnetic flux linked with the secondary coil is zero.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 8

However, when the primary circuit is closed, the increasing current builds up a magnetic field around the primary coil. Hence, the magnetic flux linked with the secondary coil increases. This increasing flux linked induces a transient electric current in the secondary coil.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 9

When the electric current in the primary coil reaches a steady value, the magnetic flux linked with the secondary coil does not change and the electric current in the secondary coil will disappear.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 10

Similarly, when the primary circuit is broken, the decreasing primary current induces an electric current in the secondary coil, but in the opposite direction So there is deflection in the galvanometer whenever there is a change in the primary current.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 71.
Explain a simple demonstration for the production of eddy current.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 11

Let us consider a pendulum that can be made to oscillate between the poles of a powerful electromagnet (fig (a)).

First the electromagnet is switched off, the pendulum is slightly displaced and released. It begins to oscillate and it executes a large number of oscillations before stopping. The air friction is the only damping force. When the electromagnet is switched on and the disc of the pendulum is made to oscillate, eddy currents are produced in it which will oppose the oscillation.

A heavy damping force of eddy currents will bring the pendulum to rest within a few oscillations (figure (b)). However if some slots are cut in the disc as shown in the (figure (c) eddy currents are reduced. The pendulum now will execute several oscillations before coming to rest. This clearly demonstrates the production of eddy current in the disc of the pendulum.

Question 72.
Drive expression for mutual inductance between two long co-axial solenoids.
Answer:
Consider two long co-axial solenoids of same length l. The length of these solenoids is large when compared to their radii so that the magnetic field produced inside the solenoids is uniform and the fringing effect at the ends may be ignored. Let A1 and A2 be the area of cross section of the solenoids with A1 being greater A2.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 12

The turn density of these solenoids are n1 and n2 respectively.
Let i1 be the current flowing through solenoid 1, then the magnetic field produced inside it is B1 = µ0 n1 i1

As the field lines of \(\vec{B}\)1 are passing through the area bounded by solenoid 2, the magnetic flux is linked with each turn of solenoid 2 due to solenoid 1 and is given by

\(\Phi_{21}=\int_{A_{2}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{1} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\)

= B1 A2 since θ = 0° = (µ0 n1 i1)A2

The flux linkage of solenoid 2 with total turns N2 is
N2 Φ21 = (n2 l) (µ0 n1 i1) A2 since N2 = n2 l

N2 Φ21 = (µ0 n1 n2 A2 l) i1 ………..(1)

From equation.
N2 Φ21 = M21 i1 ………….(2)
Comparing the equation (1) and (2)
M21 = µ0 n1 n2 A2 l ……………..(3)

This is the expression for mutual inductance M21 of the solenoid 2 with respect to solenoid 1. In the same way, we can find mutual inductance M12 of solenoid 1 with respect to solenoid 2 as given below.

The magnetic field produced by the solenoid 2 when carrying a current i2 is
B2 = µ0n2i2

This magnetic field B2 is uniform inside the solenoid 2 but outside the solenoid 2, it is almost zero. Therefore for solenoid 1, the area A2 is the effective area over which the magnetic field B2 is present; not area A1, Then the magnetic flux Φ12 linked with each turn of solenoid 1 due to solenoid 2 is

\(\Phi_{12}=\int_{\mathrm{A}_{2}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{2} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=\mathrm{B}_{2} \mathrm{~A}_{2}=\left(\mu_{0} n_{2} i_{2}\right) \mathrm{A}_{2}\)

The flux linkage of solenoid 1 with total turns N1 is
N1 Φ12 = (n1 l) (µ0 n2 i2) A2 since N1 = n1 l

N1 Φ12 = (µ0 n1 n2 A2 l) i2 since N1 Φ12 = M12 i2

M12 i2 = (µ0 n1 n2 A2 l) i2

Therefore, we get
∴ M12 = µ0 n1 n2 A2 l …………(4)

From equations (3) and (4), we can write
M12 = M21 = M ………..(5)
In general, the mutual inductance between two long co-axial solenoids is given by
M = µ0 n1 n2 A2 l …….(6)
If a dielectric medium of relative permeability µr is present inside the solenoids, then
M = µ n1 n2 A2 l
(or) M = µ0 µr n1 n2 A2 l

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 73.
Explain the applications of series RLC resonant circuit.
Answer:
RLC circuits have many applications like filter circuits, oscillators, voltage multipliers etc.. An important use of series RLC resonant circuits is in the tuning circuits of radio and TV systems. The signals from many broadcasting stations at different frequencies are available in the air.

To receive the signal of a particular station, tuning is done. The tuning is commonly achieved by varying capacitance of a parallel plate variable capacitor, thereby changing the resonant frequency of the circuit. When resonant frequency is nearly equal to the frequency of the signal of the particular station, the amplitude of the current in the circuit is maximum. Thus the signal of that station alone is received.

Question 74.
Prove that in a pure resistive circuit the current is in phase with the applied voltage.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 13

refer figure P. No: 182 – (ii)

Consider a circuit containing a pure resistor of resistance R connected across an alternating voltage source. The instantaneous value of the alternating voltage is given by
υ = Vm sin ωt ………..(1)
An alternating current i flowing in the circuit due to this voltage, develops a potential drop across R and is given by
VR = iR …………(2)
Kirchhoff ’s loop rule states that the algebraic sum of potential differences in a closed circuit is zero. For this resistive circuit,
υ – VR = 0
From equation (1) and (2),
Vm sin ωt = iR
i = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{m}}{\mathrm{R}}\) sin ωt
i = Im sin ωt ……………….(3)

where \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{m}}{\mathrm{R}}\), the peak value of alternating current in the circuit. From equations (1) and (3), it is clear that the applied voltage and the current are in phase with each other in a resistive circuit. It means that they reach their maxima and minima simultaneously. This is indicated in the phasor diagram. The wave diagram also depicts that current is in phase with the applied voltage.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 75.
Determine the phase relationship between voltage and current in a pure capacitive circuit.
Answer:
Let us consider a circuit containing a capacitor of capacitance C connected across an alternating voltage source. The alternating voltage is given by
υ = Vm sin ωt ………….(1)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 14

Let Question be the instantaneous charge on the capacitor. The emf across the capacitor at that instant is \(\frac{q}{\mathrm{C}}\). According to Kirchoff’s loop rule,
υ = \(\frac{q}{\mathrm{C}}\) = 0
Question = CVm sin ωt

By the definition of current,

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 15

From equation (1) and (2)
It is clear that current leads the applied voltage by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) in a capacitive circuit. This is shown pictorially in figure. The wave diagram for a capacitive circuit also shows that the current leads the applied voltage by 90°.
Capacitive reactance XC

The peak value of current Im is given by Im = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{m}}{1 / \mathrm{C\omega}}\).

Let us compare this equation Im = \(\frac{V_{m}}{R}\) with from resistive circuit. The quantity
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C} \omega}\) plays the same role as the resistance R in resistive circuit. This is the resistance offered by the capacitor, called capacitive reactance (XC). It measured in ohm.
XC = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C} \omega}\) …….(3)
Its unit is ohm.

The capacitive reactance (XC) varies inversely as the frequency. For a steady current, f = 0.

XC = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}=\frac{1}{2 \pi f C}=\frac{1}{0}=\infty\)

Thus a capacitive circuit offers infinite resistance to the steady current. So that steady current cannot flow through the capacitor.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 76.
Discuss the effects of series resonance.
Answer:
When series resonance occurs, the impedance of the circuit is minimum and is equal to the resistance of the circuit. As a result of this, the current in the circuit becomes maximum. This is shown in the -resonance curve drawn between current and frequency.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 16

At resonance, the impedence is
Z = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{R}^{2}+\left(\mathrm{X}_{\mathrm{L}}-\mathrm{X}_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}\) = R
since XL = XC

Therefore, the current in the circuit is
Im = \(\frac{V_{m}}{\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{L}-X_{C}\right)^{2}}}\)

Im = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{m}}{\mathrm{R}}\)

The maximum current at series resonance is limited by the resistance of the circuit. For smaller resistance, larger current with sharper curve is obtained and vice versa.

Question 77.
Derive an expression for angular frequency of LC oscillations.
Answer:
Angular frequency of LC oscillations
By differentiating equation
q(t) = Qm cos(ωt + Φ) …………(1)
twice, we get
\(\frac{d^{2} q}{d t}\) = – Qm ω2 cos(ωt + Φ) ………….(2)
Substituting equations
(1) and (2) in equation,
L\(\frac{d^{2} q}{d t^{2}}\) + \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}}\) Question = 0

we obtain
L[-Qm ω2 cos(ωt + Φ)] + \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}}\) Qm
cos (ωt + Φ) = 0
Rearranging the terms, the angular frequency of LC oscillations is given by
ω = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{LC}}}\) ………..(4)
This equation is the same as that obtained from qualitative analogy.

Question 78.
Discuss the oscillations of electrical and magnetic energy.
Answer:
The electrical energy of the LC oscillator is
UE = \(\frac{q^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{m}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}} \cos ^{2}(\omega t+\phi)\)

The magnetic energy is
UB = \(\frac{1}{2} L i^{2}=\frac{Q_{m}^{2}}{2 C} \sin ^{2}(\omega t+\phi)\)

If the two energies are plotted with an assumption of Φ = 0, we obtain

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 17

From the graph, it can be noted that
(i) At any instant UE + UB = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{m}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}}\) = constant
(ii) The maximum values of UE and UB are both \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{m}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}}\)
(iii) When UE is Maximum, UB is zero and vice versa.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 79.
Explain the generation of LC oscillations.
Answer:
Let us assume that the capacitor is fully charged with maximum charge Qm at the initial stage. So that the energy stored in the capacitor is maximum and is given by
UE = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{m}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}}\)
As there is no current in the inductor, the energy stored in it is zero i.e., UB = 0. Therefore, the total energy is wholly electrical (fig (a)).

The capacitor now begins to discharge through the inductor that establishes current i in clockwise direction. This current produces a magnetic field around the inductor and the energy stored in the inductor is given by
UB = \(\frac{\mathrm{L} i^{2}}{2}\). As the charge in the capacitor decreases, the energy stored in it also decreases and is given by UE = \(\frac{q^{2}}{2 C}\). Thus there is a transfer of some part of energy from the capacitor to the inductor. At that instant, the total energy is the sum of electrical and magnetic energies (figure (,b)).

When the charges in the capacitor are exhausted, its energy becomes zero i.e., UE = 0. The energy is fully transferred to the magnetic field of the inductor and its energy is maximum. This maximum energy is given
UB = \(\frac{\mathrm{LI}_{m}^{2}}{2}\)
where Im that is maximum current flowing in the circuit. The total energy is wholly magnetic (figure (c)).

Even though the charge in the capacitor is zero, the current will continue to flow in the same direction because the inductor will not allow it to stop immediately. The current is made to flow with decreasing magnitude by the collapsing magnetic field of the inductor. As a result of this, the capacitor begins to charge in the opposite direction. A part of the energy is transferred from the inductor back to the capacitor.

The total energy is the sum of the electrical and magnetic energies (figure (d)). When the current in the circuit reduces to zero, the capacitor becomes fully charged in the opposite direction. The energy stored in the capacitor becomes maximum. Since the current is zero, the energy stored in the inductor is zero. The total energy is wholly electrical (figure (e)).

The state of the circuit is similar to the initial state but the difference is that the capacitor is charged in opposite direction. The capacitor then starts to discharge through the inductor with anti-clockwise current. The total energy is the sum of the electrical and magnetic energies (figure (f)).

As already explained, the processes are repeated in opposite direction (figure (g) and (h)). Finally, the circuit returns to the initial state (figure (a)). Thus, when the circuit goes through these stages, an alternating current flows in the circuit. As this process is repeated again and again, the electrical oscillations of definite frequency are generated.

These are known as LC oscillations. In the ideal LC circuit, there is no loss of energy. Therefore, the oscillations will continue indefinitely. Such oscillations are called undamped oscillations.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 18

Question 80.
Compare the analogies between electrical and mechanical quantities.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 19

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 81.
The number of turns of a long solenoid is 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it the magnetic flux linked with each , turn of the solenoid ¡s 4 x iO Wb. Calculate the self inductánce of the solenoid.
Answer:
Number of turns N = 1000
Current I = 4A
Magnetic flux = 4 × 10-3
∴ self inductance of the soÌenoid L = \(\frac{\mathrm{N} \phi}{\mathrm{I}}\)
L = \(\frac{1000 \times 4 \times 10^{-3}}{4}\) = 1H

Question 82.
A coil of area of cross section 0.5 m2 with 10 turns is in a plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 Wb/m2. Calculate the flux through the coil.
Answer:
Area of a coil A = 0.5 M2
Number of turns N = 10
Magnetic field B= 0.2 Wb /m2
Magnetic flux (Φ) = ?
Φ = NBA cos θ = NBA
∵ θ = 0°
= 10 × 0.2 × 0.5 = 1 Wb

Question 83.
Air core solenoid having a diameter of 4 cm and length 60 cm is wound with 4000 turns. If a current of 5 A flows in the solenoid, calculate the energy stored in the solenoid.
Answer:
Diameter of a solenoid d = 4 × 10-2 m
Length of the solenoid / = 60 × 10-2 m
Number of turns N = 4000;
Current I = 5 A
Energy stored of a solenoid L = \(\frac{1}{2}\) LI02

Self inductance of a solenoid L = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{~N}^{2} \mathrm{~A}}{l}\)

Self inductance of air solenoid L = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{~N}^{2} \mathrm{~A}}{l}\)

Area of a solenoid = πr² = \(\frac{\pi d^{2}}{4}\)

Self inductance of the solenoid
L = \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times(4000)^{2} \times 4 \pi \times 10^{-4}}{60 \times 10^{-2}}\)

= \(\frac{4 \times 3.14 \times 10^{-7} \times 16 \times 10^{6} \times 4 \times 3.14 \times 10^{-4}}{60 \times 10^{-2}}\)

= 42.067 × 10-7+6-4+2
= 42.067 × 10-3 henry
= 42.067 × 10-3
Energy stored E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) LI02
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 42.067 × 10-3 × (5)2
= 525.8375 × 10-3 J
= 0.5258375 J
Energy stored in the solenoid = 0.5258375 J

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 84.
A magnetic field of induction 20 tesla acts at right angle to a coil of area 20 m2 with 50 turns. Find the flux linked to the coil.
Answer:
N = 50 turns;
B = 20 tesla;
A = 20 m2
Φ = NBA cos θ
= 50 × 20 × 20 × cos 0 = 20000.
Magnetic flux linked with the coil = 2 × 104 Wb.

Question 85.
When a current of 2 ampere is flowing through a coil of 1000 turns, produces a magnetic flux of 0.02 weber. Calculate the self inductance of the coil.
Answer:
I = 2 ampere N = 1000
Φ = 0.02 weber
Self inductance I = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}(\phi)}{\mathrm{I}}\)

= \(\frac{1000 \times 0.02}{2}\) = 10 henry
Self inductance = 10 henry

Question 86.
How much magnetic potential energy is stored in a 20 mH coil when it carries a current of 0.2 A?
Answer:
Magnetic potential energy stored up in the coil = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Li2
Magnetic potential energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 20 × 10-3 × (0.2)2
= 4 × 10-4 joules.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 87.
A coil of resistance 200 Ω is placed in a magnetic field if the magnetic flux Φ linked with the coil varies with time t (sec) is Φ = 50t2 + 4. When t = 2s, calculate the current in the coil.
Answer:
Magnetic flux Φ = 50t2 + 4
Induced emf e = \(\left|-\frac{d \phi}{d t}\right|\)

= \(\frac{d \phi}{d t}\)

= \(\frac{d}{d t}\) (50t2 + 4)
e = 100t
when t = 2s, e = 100 × 2 = 200 V
Resistance of the coil = 200 Ω
∴ Current in the coil = \(\frac{e}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{200}{200}\)
I = 1 A

Question 88.
A 20 cm long solenoid having 500 turns and radius 2 cm is wound over an iron core of relative permeability 100. If the current through it changes from 0.2A to 0.4 A in 0.05 second then calculate the average emf in the solenoid.
Answer:
Length of the solenoid l = 20 cm = 20 × 10-2 m
Radius of the solenoid r = 2 cm = 2 × 10-2 m
Area of the solenoid A = πr²
A = 3.14 × (2 × 10-2)2
= 3.14 × 4 × 10-4
= 12.56 × 10-2 m2
Relative permeability µr = 100
Permeability in free space µ0 = 4π × 10-7
Number of turns of the solenoid = 500 turns
Self inductance of the solenoid

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 20

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 89.
A rectangular coil of 2000 turns of wire has dimensions of 0.2 m × 0.1 m. It rotates at the rate of 4200 rotations per minute with its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field of strength 0.2 Wbm-2. Calculate
(i) maximum value of the emf induced in the coil,
(ii) instantaneous value of the induced emf when the coil has rotated through an angle of 60° from its initial position.
Answer:
Number of turns of the coil N = 2000
Area of the coil A = 0.2 × 0.1 m2
Speed of rotation ω = 4200 rotations per minute
= \(\frac{4200 \times 2 \pi}{60}\) rad s-1
Field strength B = 0.2 Wbm-2
Induced emf e = nAB ω . sin ωt

(a) E is maximum, when sin ωt = 1
Emax = NAB ω
= 2000 × 0.2 × 0.1 × 0.2 × \(\frac{4200 \times 2 \pi}{60}\) = 3517 V

(b) When ω t = 60°
Emax = N AB ω sin ω t
= 3517 × sin 60°
= 3517 × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) = 3045 V

Answer:
(a) Maximum value of em/induced in the coil = 3517 V.
(b) Instantaneous value of induced emf = 3045 V.

Question 90.
A Conducting circular loop having radius of 2 cm is placed in a magnetic field of 0.05 T with its plane perpendicular to the field. If the radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm/s then calculate the induced emf in the circular loop.
Answer:
Magnetic field B = 0.05 T
Radius of the coil dr = 2 × 10-2 m
Change of Time dt = 1 × 10-3 s
∴ Magnetic flux (Φ) = BA = B π r2
∴ Induced emf = \(\left|-\frac{d \phi}{d t}\right|\)

= \(\frac{d \phi}{d t}=\frac{d}{d t}\left(\mathrm{~B} . \pi r^{2}\right)\)

∴ e = 2πBr\(\frac{d r}{d t}\)
= 2 × 3.14 × 0.05 × \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-2}}{1 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 6.28 × 0.10 × 10-2+3
= 0.628 × 101 = 6.28 V
∴ Induced emf e = 6.28 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 91.
Calculate the mutual inductance between two coils when a current of 4 A changing to 8 A in 0.5 s in one coil, induces an emf of 50 m V in the other coil.
Answer:
I1 = 4A; I2 = 8A; dt = 0.5s;
e = 50 mV = 50 × 10-3 V, M = ?
e = – M \(\frac{d \mathrm{I}}{d t}\)
∴ Mutual inductance = \(-\frac{e}{\frac{d I}{d t}}\)

= \(\frac{e}{\left(\frac{I_{2}-I_{1}}{d t}\right)}=-\frac{50 \times 10^{-3}}{\left(\frac{8-4}{0.5}\right)}\)

= – 6.25 × 10-3
∴ M = 6.25 mH
Mutual inductance between two coils is 6.25 mH

Question 92.
An aircraft having a wingspan of 20.48 m flies due north at a speed of 40 ms-1. If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at the place is 2 × 10-5 T. Calculate the emf induced between the ends of the wings.
Answer:
l = 20.48 m; v = 40 ms-1;
B = 2 × 10-5 T; e = ?
e = -B Iv
= -2 × 10-5 × 20.48 × 40
e = – 0.0164 volts

Question 93.
A helicopter rises vertically with a speed of 10 m/s. If the helicopter be a horizontal linear conductor of length 20 m and if the horizontal components of the earth’s magnetic induction be 2 × 10-3 Wb/m2, calculate the potential difference between the tips of the nose and the tail of the helicopter.
Answer:
When the helicopter cuts the magnetic lines of induction, the induced emf
e = Blv
Here B = 2 × 10-3 Wb/m2;
l = 20m; V = 10 m/s
∴ The induced emf (the potential difference between the nose and tail of the helicopter
e = 2 × 10-3 × 20 × 10 = 0.4 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 94.
The co-efficient of mutual inductance is 5 H between the primary and secondary of a coil. A current of 10 A is cut off in 5 sec. Calculate the induced’emf.
Answer:
The induced emf e = – M \(\frac{d \mathrm{I}}{d t}\)
= – 5 × \(\frac{10}{0.5}\) = – 100 V.
The negative sign indicates that the induced emf opposes the cause.

Question 95.
When a current of 2 ampere is flowing through a coil of 1000 turns, produces a magnetic flux of 0.02 weber. Calculate the self inductance of the coil.
Answer:
I = 2 ampere
n = 1000 Φ = 0.02 weber
Self inductance = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}(\phi)}{\mathrm{I}}\)
= \(\frac{1000 \times 0.02}{2}\)
Self inductance =10 henry.

Question 96.
A coil of 160 turns of cross-sectional area 250 cm2 rotates at an angular velocity of 300 rad/sec about an axis parallel to the plane of the coil in a uniform magnetic field of 0.6 weber/meter2. What is the maximum emf induced in the coil? If the coil is connected to a resistance of 2 ohm what is the maximum torque that has to be delivered to maintain its motion?
Answer:
We know that emax = NAB ω.
= 160 × 0.6 × (250 × 10-4) × 300 = 720 volt.
Now imax = \(\frac{e_{\max }}{R}\)
= \(\frac{720}{2}\) = 360 Amp.
τ = NiBA sin θ
τmax = Ni BA
= 160 × 360 × 0.6 × (250 × 10-4)
Maximum torque = 864 newton metre.
This torque opposes the rotation of the coil. Hence to maintain the rotation, an equal torque must be applied in opposite direction.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 97.
A solenoid of self inductance 200 mH carries a current of. 1A. Calculate
(i) the energy stored in the inductance and
(ii) total magnetic flux through the solenoid.
Answer:
Self inductance L = 200 × 103
Current flowing through the solenoid I = 1 A
(i) The total energy stored E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) LI2
.-. E= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 200 × 10-3 × (1.0)2
= 100 × 10-3 J
Energy E = 100 mJ

(ii) Total magnetic flux Φ = LI .
= 200 × 10-3 × 1
= 200 × 10-3 Wb.
Φ = 200 mW

Question 98.
A magnetic field of 2 × 10-2 T acts at right angles to a coil of area 100 cm2 with 50 turn. When the coil is removed from the field in a particular interval of time, the emf induced in the coil is 0.1 V. Then calculate that interval of Time.
Answer:
Magnetic field B = 2 × 10-2 T
Area of the coil = 100 × 10-4 m2
Number of turns of the coil N = 50
Induced emf e = 0.1 V.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 21

t = \(\frac{100 \times 10^{2} \times 100 \times 10^{-4}}{0.1}\)

= 1000 ×10-2 × 100 × 10-4
= 1000 × 10-4 = 0.1 s
∴ Interval of time = 0.1 s.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 99.
The primary of a transformer has 400 turns while the secondary has 2000 turns. If the power output from the secondary at 1100 V is 12.1 kW, calculate the primary voltage. If the resistance of primary is 0.2Ω and that of secondary is 2Ω and the efficiency of the transformer is 90% calculate
(i) heat loss in the primary coil,
(ii) heat loss in the secondary coil.
Answer:
Number of turns of primary Np = 400
Number of turns of secondary Ns = 2000
Secondary voltage Es = 1100 V
Power output Ps = 12.1 kW= 12100 W
Resistance of primary Rp = 0.2 Ω
Resistance of secondary Rs = 2 Ω
Efficiency of transformer

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 22

Primary Voltage Ep = 220 V
Secondary current Is = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{s}}{\mathrm{E}_{s}}=\frac{12100}{1100}\) = 11 A

η = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{s} \mathrm{I}_{s}}{\mathrm{E}_{p} \mathrm{I}_{p}}\)

Ip = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{s} \mathrm{I}_{s}}{\mathrm{E}_{p} \eta}\)

= \(\frac{1100 \times 11 \times 10}{220 \times 9}=\frac{121000}{1980}\) = 61.11 A

(i) Heat loss in the primary coil η = Ip2 R
= (61.11)2 × (0.2)
= 746.88 = 747 W

(ii) Heat loss in the secondary coil = Is2 R
= (11)2 × 2 = 121 × 2 = 242 W
Primary voltage = 220 V;
Heat loss in the primary coil = 747 W
Heat loss in the secondary coil = 242 W

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 100.
A helicopter rises vertically with a speed of 10 m/s. If the helicopter be a horizontal linear conductor of length 20 m and if the horizontal components of the earth’s magnetic induction be 2 × 10-3 Wb/m2, calculate the potential difference between the tips of the nose and the tail of the helicopter.
Answer:
When the helicopter cuts the magnetic lines of induction, the induced emf e = Blv
Here B = 2 × 10-3 Wb/m2;
l = 20 m; v = 10 m/s
∴ The induced emf (the potential difference between the nose and tail of the helicopter)
e = 2 × 10-3 × 20 × 10 = 0.4 V
Potential difference e = 0.4 volts.

Question 101.
A step-up transformer operates on 220 volts and supplies a current of 2 Amp. The ratio of the primary and the secondary windings is 1 : 25. Determine the secondary voltage, primary current and the power output (Assume 100% efficiency).
Answer:
In any transformer

\(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{s}}{\mathrm{I}_{p}}=\frac{\mathrm{E}_{p}}{\mathrm{E}_{s}}=\frac{\mathrm{N}_{p}}{\mathrm{~N}_{s}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{~K}}\)

Here Ep = 220 volts; Is = 2 Amp.

\(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{p}}{\mathrm{~N}_{s}}=\frac{1}{25}\)

∴ Ip = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{s}}{\mathrm{~N}_{p}}\) × I = 25 × 2 = 50
and Es = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{s}}{\mathrm{~N}_{p}}\) × E„ = 25 × 250 = 5500 Volts Power output
= Es × Is
= 5500 × 2 = 11000 watts.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 102.
A step-up transformer is used on 200 volts line to provide a potential difference of 1600 volts at 2 ampere current. Find the number of turns in the secondary when the number of turns in the primary is 100.
Answer:
In any transformer
\(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{s}}{\mathrm{I}_{p}}=\frac{\mathrm{E}_{p}}{\mathrm{E}_{s}}=\frac{\mathrm{N}_{p}}{\mathrm{~N}_{s}}\)

Here Ep = 200 V Np = 100
Es = 1600 V Ns = ?
Is = 2 Amp. Ip = ?

\(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{p}}{\mathrm{E}_{s}}=\frac{200}{1600}=\frac{1}{8}\)

Again \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{s}}{\mathrm{I}_{p}}=\frac{2}{\mathrm{I}_{p}}=\frac{1}{8}\)

Ip = 16 Amp.

\(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{p}}{\mathrm{~N}_{s}}=\frac{100}{\mathrm{~N}_{s}}=\frac{1}{8}\);

Ns = 800
Number of turns in the secondary Ns = 800.

Question 103.
The wings of an aeroplane are 10 m apart. The plane is moving horizontally towards the north at a place where the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is 3 × 10-5 T. Calculate the induced emf set up between the tips of the wings if the velocity of the aeroplane is 720 km/hr.
Answer:
B = 3 × 10-5 T; .
v = 720 km/ hr.
= 720 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) m/s.
l = 10 m.
Induced emf e = – Blv
= – 3 × 10-5 × 10 × 720 × \(\frac{5}{18}\)
= – 600 × 10-4 V = 0.06 V.

Question 104.
A capacitor of capacitance 2 μF is in an AC circuit of frequency 1000 Hz. If the rms value of the applied emf is 10 V, find the effective current flowing in the circuit.
Answer:
C = 2 μF, v = 1000 Hz, Eeff = 10 V
Xc = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C} \omega}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{C} \times 2 \pi \nu}\)

= \(\frac{1}{2 \times 10^{-6} \times 2 \pi \times 10^{3}}\) = 79.6 Ω

Irms = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{e f f}}{\mathrm{X}_{c}}=\frac{10}{79.6}\) = 0.126 A

∴ Irms = 0.126 A

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 105.
A bulb connected to 50 V, DC consumes 20 W power. Then the bulb is connected to a capacitor in an AC power supply of 250 V, 50 Hz. Find the value of the capacitance of the capacitor required so that the bulb draws the same amount of current.
Answer:
P = 20 Ω; V = 50 V; υ = 50Hz; C = ?
V = 250 V
P = VI
∴ I = \(\frac{P}{V}=\frac{20}{50}\) = 0.4 A
∴ Resistance,
R = \(\frac{V}{I}=\frac{50}{0.4}\) = 125 Ω

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 23

= \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \times 50 \times 612.37}\)
Capacitance of the Capacitor C = 5.198 µF

Question 106.
An AC voltage represented by e = 310 sin 314t is connected in series to a 24 W resistor, 0.1 H inductor and a 25 µF capacitor. Find the value of the peak voltage, rms voltage, frequency, reactance of the circuit, impedance of the circuit and phase angle of the current.
Answer:
R = 24 Ω, L = 0.1 H, C = 25 × 10-6 µF
e = 310 sin 314 7 ………….(1)
and e = E0 sin ωt …(2)
Comparing equations (1) and (2)
E0 = 310 V
Erms = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{310}{\sqrt{2}}\) = 219.2 V
ωt = 314 t
2πυ = 314

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 24

Predominance of capacitive reactance signify that current leads the emf by 76°.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 107.
A student connects a long air core coil of manganin wire to a 100V DC source and records a current of 1.5A. When the same coil is connected across 100V, 50 Hz AC source, the current reduces to 1 A. Calculate the value of reactance and inductance of the coil.
Answer:
Electromotive force of a DC source V = 100 V
Current I = 1.5 A;
Electromotive force of an AC source e = 100 V;
Frequency v = 50 Hz;
Current I = 1 A V
Resistance R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
Inductance L = \(\frac{X_{L}}{2 \pi V}\)
Inductance reactance XL = Lω = L × 2πυ
Inductance reactance XL = \(\frac{e}{\mathrm{I}_{0}}\)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 25

Question 108.
An emf e = 100 sin 200 πt is connected to a circuit containing a capacitance of 0.1 μF and resistance of 500 Ω in series. Find the power factor of the circuit.
Answer:
Electromotive force is given by e = 100 sin 200 πt
Capacitance C = 0.1 μF;
Resistance R = 500 Ω
Phase angle Φ = tan-1 \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{X}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{R}}\right)\)
XC = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C} \omega}\)
Power factor = cos (Φ)
Comparing the equation e = 100 sin 200 πt with general equation of emf, e = a sin ωt
we get, ω = 200 π

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 26

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 109.
A radio can tune over the frequency range of a portion of broadcast band (800 kHz to 1200 kHz). If its LC circuit has an effective inductance of 200 µH, what must be the range of its variable capacitance?
Answer:
Frequency range = 800 kHz to 1200 kHz
∴ v1 = 800 × 103 Hz
∴ v2 = 1200 × 103 Hz
Effective inductance L = 200 × 10-6 H

TN State Board 12th Physics Importan

Question 110.
A transformer has an efficiency of 80 %. It is connected to a power input of at 4 KW and 100 V. If the secondary voltage is 240 V. Calculate the primary and secondary currents.
Answer:
Efficiency of a transformer η = 80% = \(\frac{80}{100}\)
Power input P = 4 kW = 4000 W
Primary voltage Ep = 100 V;
Secondary voltage Es = 240 V
Primary current Ip = \(\frac{\text { Power input }}{\text { Primary voltage }}\)

\(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{p}}{\mathrm{E}_{s}}=\frac{\mathrm{I}_{s}}{\mathrm{I}_{p}}\)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 28

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 111.
Why are oscillation of a copper sheet in a magnetic field highly damped?
Answer:
It is because of the development of eddy current in the copper sheet.

Question 112.
Sparking occurs in the switches when light is put off. Given reason.
Answer:
Larger amount of einf is induced at break of circuits. This causes the sparking.

Question 113.
When is the magnetic flux linked with a coil held in a magnetic field zero?
Answer:
The magnetic flux will be zero when the plane of the coil is along the magnetic field.

Question 114.
Can one coil have an inductance without a resistance?
Answer:
No. Every material of the coil has some resistance.

Question 115.
A coil of metal wire is stationary in a non-uniform magnetic field. Will any emf be induced in the coil?
Answer:
No, emf will be induced as magnetic flux linked with the stationary coil is not changing.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Assertion:
In a conductor, free electrons keep on moving but magnetic force does not on the conductor placed in a magnetic field.
Reason:
Force on free electrons due to magnetic field-always are perpendicular to its direction of motion.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are false and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 2.
Assertion:
when a magnetic dipole is placed in a non-uniform magnetic field, torque only i acts on the dipole.
Reason:
Force will also act on the dipole if magnetic field were uniform.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are false and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 3.
Assertion:
If an electron while coming vertically from outerspace enter the earth’s magnetic field, it is deflected towards west.
Reason:
Electrons do not have angular momentum.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are false and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.

Question 4.
Assertion:
If a charged particle is moving in a perpendicular uniform magnetic field, its kinetic energy does not change:
Reason:
Velocity of the particle does not change in a magnetic field.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are false and reason does not explain assertion correctly. .
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 5.
Assertion:
A tangent galvanometer is used for measuring current.
Reason:
As it is direct reading.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are false and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 6.
Assertion:
current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight and thin walled pipe. Then the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero.
Reason:
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} d l=\mu_{0} I\)
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are false and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.

Question 7.
A wire of length 2m carries a current of 1A is bend to form a circle. The magnetic moment * of the coil is: [IIT]
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{2}{\pi}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{\pi}\)
(d) π
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{\pi}\)

Question 8.
A coil of area of cross section 0.5 m2 with 10 turns is in a plane which is perpendicular to an uniform magnetic field of 0.2 Wb/m2. The flux through the coil is:
(a) 100 Wb
(b) 10 Wb
(c) 1 Wb
(d) zero
Answer:
(c) 1 Wb

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 9.
Electromagnetic induction is not used in:
(a) transformer
(b) room heater
(c) AC generator
(d) choke coil
Answer:
(b) room heater

Question 10.
In a uniform magnetic field B, if a conductor having area A is placed, then the magnetic flux linked is given by:-
(a) Φ = AB
(b) Φ = BA sin θ
(c) Φ = BA cos θ
(d) Φ =\(\frac{d \mathrm{~B}}{d t}\)
Answer:
(c) Φ = BA cos θ

Question 11.
The unit of magnetic flux is:
(a) ampere
(b) ohm
(c) weber
(d) volt
Answer:
(c) weber

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 12.
According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction:
(a) the electric field can be produced by time varying magnetic flux
(b) the magnetic field is produced by time varying electric field
(c) charge is conserved
(d) the magnetic field is associated with energy of the charged particle
Answer:
(a) the electric field can be produced by time varying magnetic flux

Question 13.
The induced emf in a conductor is:
(a) inversely proportional to the rate of change of flux
(b) directly proportional to the rate of change of flux
(c) directly proportional to the total flux associated with the conductor
(d) equal to the flux
Answer:
(b) directly proportional to the rate of change of flux

Question 14.
The magnitude of the induced emf produced in a coil when a magnet is inserted into it does not depend upon the:
(a) number of turns in the coil
(b) resistance of the coil
(c) magnetic moment of the magnet
(d) speed of approach of the magnet
Answer:
(b) resistance of the coil

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 15.
A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the j axis of a circular coil. If the magnet is rotated about the axis then will be induced in the coil.
(a) an emf
(b) no emf
(c) an emf whose magnitude depends upon the angular velocity
(d) a high voltage
Answer:
(c) an emf whose magnitude depends upon the angular velocity

Question 16.
Who discovered that current can be produced in a closed conductor whenever there is a relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field?
(a) Newton
(b) Fleming
(c) Oersted
(d) Michael Faraday
Answer:
(d) Michael Faraday

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 17.
When the bar magnet is introduced with any pole into the coil the galvanometer shows:
(a) deflection
(b) permanent deflection
(c) momentary deflection
(d) no deflection
Answer:
(c) momentary deflection

Question 18.
The emf got by varying magnetic field is known as:
(a) Thermo emf
(b) Induced emf
(c) Changing emf
(d) Stable emf
Answer:
(b) Induced emf

Question 19.
Strength of the induced current depends upon the speed with which the:
(a) emf changes
(b) magnetic field changes
(c) emf stops
(d) emf increases
Answer:
(b) magnetic field changes

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 20.
The strength of the magnetic field determines:
(a) strength of induced current
(b) area of the coil
(c) stability of the current
(d) fall of emf
Answer:
(a) strength of induced current

Question 21.
What is the unit of magnetic induction?
(a) ampere
(b) tesla
(c) volt
(d) weber
Answer:
(b) tesla

Question 22.
The strength of the induced emf depends on of the coil.
(a) the number of turns
(b) the resistance of the wire
(c) the specific resistance of the wire
(d) the surface area
Answer:
(a) the number of turns

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 23.
The SI unit of mutual inductance is:
(a) tesla
(b) weber
(c) henry
(d) coulomb
Answer:
(c) henry

Question 24.
The total magnetic flux linked with the solenoid area A, length l, having N turns and a current I flows is given by:
(a) Φ = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}^{2} \mathrm{IA}}{l}\)

(b) Φ = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{~N}^{2} \mathrm{IA}}{l}\)

(c) Φ = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{NA}}{\mathrm{Il}}\)

(d) Φ = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{IA}}{\mathrm{N}^{2} l}\)

Answer:
(b) Φ = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{~N}^{2} \mathrm{IA}}{l}\)

Question 25.
A solenoid has length 1, area A and number of turns N. If it is filled with material of permeability p then its self inductance is:
(a) L = \(\frac{l N^{2} A}{\mu}\)

(b) L = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{N}^{2} \mathrm{~A}}{l}\)

(c) L = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{NA}^{2}}{l}\)

(d) L = \(\frac{\mu l^{2} \mathrm{~A}}{\mathrm{~N}}\)

Answer:
(b) L = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{N}^{2} \mathrm{~A}}{l}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 26.
If a current of 1 A flows through a primary coil and the flux linked with secondary coil is Φs then coefficient of mutual induction is M =
(a) \(\frac{\phi_{s}}{\mathrm{I}}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{\phi_{s}}\)

(c) Φs

(d) \(\frac{\phi_{s}}{\mathrm{~A}}\)

Answer:
(c) Φs

Question 27.
The coefficient of mutual induction between a pair of coils depends upon:
(a) size and shape of the coil
(b) number of turns of the coil
(c) proximity of the coil
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 28.
A square loop of side a is placed in such a way that its plane is the same as that of a very long straight wire carrying a current of I.
The centre O of the loop is at a distance x from the wire. A velocity is given to the loop as shown in the figure. If x > > a, the magnitude of the emf induced in the loop is proportional to:
(a) x
(b) \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\)
(c) x2
(d) \(\frac{1}{x}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\)
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 29

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 29.
A coil of metal wire is kept stationary with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field directed along the positive x-axis. The current induced in the coil.
(a) is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field
(b) zero
(c) circulates in anticlockwise direction when viewed from x-axis.
(d) circulates in clockwise direction when viewed from y-axis.
Answer:
(b) zero
Hint:
Since the coil is kept stationary the magnetic flux linked with the coil does not change. Hence the current induced in the coil is zero

Question 30.
Which of the following statement are not correct?
(i) A capacitor is connected in series with a bulb. When this combination is connected to an A.C. source, the bulb does not glow.
(ii) In a series A.C. circuit the applied voltage is not equal to the algebraic sum of voltages across the different elements
of the circuit.
(iii) A variable capacitor is connected in series with a bulb and this combination is connected to an A.C. source. If the
capacitance of the variable capacitor is decreased then the brightness of the bulb is reduced.
(iv) A capacitor is connected in series with a bulb and this combination is connected to a D.C. source. When the voltage of the source is increased, the brightness of the bulb wifi increase.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)
Hint:
(i) The capacitor will offer finite resistance to A.C. Hence a current will flow in the circuit and the bulb will glow. (iv) Since the capacitor offers infinite resistance to direct current, the bulb will not glow.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 31.
Match the physical quantities given in Column I with their S.I. units given in Column II.

Column – IColumn – II
(i) Magnetic permeability(A) Henry
(ii) Magnetic field(B) Henry / meter
(iii) Magnetic flux(C) Ampere
(iv) Self inductance(D) Weber
(E) Tesla
(F) Couloumb

(a) (i) – (F); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (C); (iv) – (B)
(b) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (B); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (A)
(d) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (F)
Answer:
(c) (i) – (B); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (A)

Question 32.
Two ideal inductors are connected in parallel as shown in the figure. A time varying current flows as shown in the figure. The ratio of \mathrm{I}_{1} / \mathrm{I}_{2} at any time is:
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{L}_{2}}{\mathrm{~L}_{1}}}\)

(b) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{L}_{1}}{\mathrm{~L}_{2}}}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}_{2}}{\mathrm{~L}_{1}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}_{1}}{\mathrm{~L}_{2}}\)

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}_{2}}{\mathrm{~L}_{1}}\)
Hint:
Since the inductors are connected in parallel.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 30

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 33.
Which one of the following curves represents the variation of potential difference V across the inductor L with time t, the key being plugged at t = 0 in the following circuit.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 31

(a) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 32

(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 33

(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 34

(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 35
Answer:
(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 35Hint:
Potential difference across the inductor is V = – L\(\frac{d I}{d t}\)

= – LI0 \(\frac{d}{d t}\left(1-e^{-\mathrm{R} t / \mathrm{L}}\right)\)

= – LI(\(\left.\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{L}} e^{-\mathrm{R} t / \mathrm{L}}\right)\)

|V| = V0 e-t/L
where V0 = I0R
∴ V = V0 at t = 0 and then falls exponentially with time becoming zero at t >> e
The correct graph is d.

Question 34.
In the field of mutual induction, if the coils are wound on a soft iron core, the mutual j induction is:
(a) small
(b) large
(c) very large
(d) zero
Answer:
(c) very large

Question 35.
The generator rule is
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule
(c) Maxwell’s right hand cork rule
(d) Ampere’s swimming rule
Answer:
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 36.
Which one of the following devices is based on Electromagnetic Induction?
(a) Galvanometer
(b) Ammeter
(c) Dynamo
(d) Voltameter
Answer:
(c) Dynamo

Question 37.
When a conductor of length / moving with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field B, the induced emf is given by:
(a) e = NABω
(b) e = – \(\frac{d \phi}{d t}\)
(c) e = \(\frac{d \mathrm{~B}}{d t}\)
(d) e = – Blv
Answer:
(d) e = – Blv

Question 38.
When a coil of area A is oriented through 1 an angle of orientation (0 = tot) in a uniform j magnetic field B, the induced emf is given by:
(a) e = 2 πv NAB sin ωt
(b) e = E0 cos ωt
(c) e = NAB sin θ
(d) e = NAB cos ωt
Answer:
(a) e = 2 πv NAB sin ωt

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 39.
When the angle of orientation ωt = 3\(\frac{\pi}{2}\), the value of induced emf is given by: .
(a) E0
(b) 0
(c) ∞
(d) -E0
Answer:
(d) – E0

Question 40.
An aeroplane having a wingspan of 35m flies due north at speed 90m/s. The potential difference between the end point over a given locality if vertical components of earth’s ; magnetic field is 4 x 10-4 Wb/m2 is:
(a) 1.29 volts
(b) 1.26 volts
(c) 1.06 volts
(d) 1.66 volts
Answer:
(b) 1.26 volts

Question 41.
In a three phase A.C. generator the coils are j displaced from each other by:
(a) 90°
(b) 180°
(c) 120°
(d) 360°
Answer:
(c) 120°

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 42.
When current flows through choke coil, the | dissipation of power is:
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) constant
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 43.
When the current flowing through one coil changes from 11 Ato 5Aduringatime interval of 0.1 sec, an emf of 60 mv is induced in the neighbourhood coil. The mutual inductance of it will be:
(a) 0.1 H
(b) 0.01 H
(c) 0.001 H
(d) 0.002 H
Answer:
(c) 0.001 H

Question 44.
The maximum value of the induced emf is:
(a) e = E0 cos2 ωt
(b) E0 = NABω
(c) e = e sin co t
(d) e = E02 sin ωt
Answer:
(b) E0 = NABω

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 45.
The mutual inductance between two planar concentric rings of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) placed in air is given by:
(a) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \pi r_{1}^{2}}{2 r_{2}}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \pi r_{2}^{2}}{2 r_{1}}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \pi r_{2}}{r_{1}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \pi}{2} \sqrt{\frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}}}\)

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \pi r_{2}^{2}}{2 r_{1}}\)
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 36

Question 46.
An A.C. source of variable frequency f is connected to an LCR series circuit. Which one of the graphs represents the variation of current I in the circuit with frequency?
(a) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 37

(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 38

(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 39

(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 40

Answer:
(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 38

Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 41

where I will be maximum.
At ω > ωc I decreases with increase in . Hence the correct graph is (b).

Question 47.
Lenz’s law is in accordance with the law of:
(a) conservation of charges
(b) conservation of flux
(c) conservation of momentum
(d) conservation of energy
Answer:
(d) conservation of energy

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 48.
The self-inductance of a straight conductor is:
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) very large
(d) very small
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 49.
The unit henry can also be written as:
(a) VA s-1
(b) Wb-1 A
(c) Ω s
(d) all
Answer:
(c) Ω s

Question 50.
An emf of 12 V is induced when the current in the coil changes at the rate of 40 A s-1. The coefficient of self induction of the coil is:
(a) 0.3 H
(b) 0.003 H
(c) 30 H
(d) 4.8 H
Answer:
(a) 0.3 H

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 51.
A DC of 5 A produces the same heating effect as an AC of
(a) 50 A rms current
(b) 5 A peak current
(c) 5 A rms current
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) 5 A rms current

Question 52.
Transformer works on:
(a) AC only
(b) DC only
(c) Both AC and DC
(d) AC more effectively than DC
Answer:
(a) AC only

Question 53.
The part of the AC generator that passes the current from the coil to the external circuit is:
(a) fiefld magnet
(b) split rings
(c) slip rings
(d) brushes
Answer:
(d) brushes

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 54.
The efficiency of a transformer is:
(a) η = \(\frac{\text { output power }}{\text { input power }}\)

(b) η = \(\frac{\text { input power }}{\text { output power }}\)

(c) η = input power – output power

(d) η = \(\frac{\text { input voltage }}{\text { output voltage }}\)

Answer:
(a) η = \(\frac{\text { output power }}{\text { input power }}\)

Question 55.
In an A.C circuit the applied emf e = E0 sin (ωt + π/2) leads the current I = I0 sin (ωt – π/2) by:
(a) π/2
(b) π/4
(c) π
(d) 0
Answer:
(c) π

Question 56.
Which of the following cannot be stepped up in a transformer?
(a) Input current
(b) Input voltage
(c) Input power
(d) All
Answer:
(c) Input power

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 57.
The power loss is less in transmission lines when:
(a) voltage is less but current is nun
(b) both voltage and current are more
(c) voltage is more but current is less
(d) both voltage and current are less
Answer:
(c) voltage is more but current is less

Question 58.
Which of the following devices does not allow D.C. to pass through?
(a) Resistor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Capacitor

Question 59.
In an A C. circuit:
(a) the average value of current is zero
(b) the average value of square of current is zero
(c) the average power dissipation is zero
(d) the rms current is time of peak current
Answer:
(a) the average value of current is zero

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 60.
Match the quantities given in Column I with the dimensions given in Column II.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current 42

(a) (i) – (C); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (F)
(b) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (F); (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (D); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)
(d) (i)- (A); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(c) (i) – (D); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)

Question 61.
Select the odd man out of the following:
(a) Wb A-1
(b) Ohm – s
(c) Wb
(d) VAs-1
Answer:
(c) Wb
Hint:
(a), (b), (d) are unit of self inductance but C is not the unit of self inductance.

Question 62.
Assertion:
A spark occurs sometimes when an electric iron is switched off.
Reason:
Sparking is due to large self motived emf in the circuit during manufacture.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and – reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false reason is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 63.
Assertion:
A step up transformer can also he used as a step down transformer.
Reason:
It is because = \(\frac{v_{s}}{v_{p}}=\frac{n_{s}}{n_{p}}\)
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.

Question 64.
Assertion:
If a coil is rotated in an electric field the magnitude of induced current is zero.
Reason:
The electric flux through the loop does not change with time.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason does not explain assertion correctly.
Hint:
A current is induced in a loop only if the magnetic flux linked with the coil changes.

Question 65.
Assertion:
A circular loop and a rectangular loop are moved with a constant velocity from a region of magnetic field out hits a field free region. The field is normal to the loops. A constant emf is induced in the circular loop whereas a time varying emf will be induced in the rectangular loop.
Reason:
The induced emf is constant when magnetic flux changes at a constant rate.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Hint:
In the rectangular loop, the rate of change of area is constant. But in the circular loop rate of change of area varies.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 66.
Assertion:
A Magnetized iron bar is dropped vertically through a hollow region of a thick cylindrical shell made of copper. The bar will fall with an acceleration less than acceleration due to gravity.
Reason:
The emf induced in the bar causes a retarding force to act on the falling bar.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
Hint:
As per Lenz’s law and due to eddy currents the bar is falling.

Question 67.
The effective value of alternating current is:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{0}}{2}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

(c) √2I0
(d) 2I0
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 68.
A fuse is having a current rating of 5 amperes. Then the peak value of the fuse wire is:
(a) 7 amperes
(b) 1 ampere
(c) 707 amperes
(d) 7.07 amperes
Answer:
(d) 7.07 amperes

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 69.
The inductive reactance of the AC circuit is:
(a) XL = ω/L
(b) XL = Lω
(C) XL = L2ω
(d) XL = Lω2
Answer:
(b) XL = Lω

Question 70.
The capacitive reactance of the AC circuit is:
(a) Xc = Cω
(b) Xc = C/ω
(c) Xc = 1/Cω
(d) Xc > 1/Cω
Answer:
(c) Xc = 1/Cω

Question 71.
In a series resonant circuit containing an inductance ‘L’ capacitance ‘C’ and resistance ‘R’ the condition for impedance becomes minimum is:
(a) Lω > 1/Cω
(b) Lω = 1/Cω
(c) Lω < 1/Cω
(d) Lω = Cω
Answer:
(b) Lω = 1/Cω

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 72.
The resonant frequency of an LCR circuit is:
(a) υ0 = 2π/LC

(b) υ0 = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{\mathrm{LC}}}\)

(c) υ0 = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi L C}\)

(d) υ0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{LC}}{2 \pi}\)

Answer:
(b) υ0 = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{\mathrm{LC}}}\)

Question 73.
In a LCR circuit when XL= Xc:
(a) current is minimum impedance is maximum
(b) current is maximum impedance is maximum
(c) current is maximum iiipedance is minimum
(d) current is minimum impedance is minimum
Answer:
(c) current is maximum iiipedance is minimum

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 74.
In a LCR circuit, at the resonating frequency:
(a) XL > XC
(b) XL < XC
(c) XL XC
(d) XL = 0
Answer:
(c) XL XC

Question 75.
The current and the applied emf are in phase in an AC circuit which contains:
(a) Inductance only
(b) Resistance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) All the three
Answer:
(b) Resistance only

Question 76.
The heat energy developed in a resistor is independent of
(a) the direction of flow of current
(b) the magnitude of flow of current
(c) the strength of emf
(d) All the three
Answer:
(a) the direction of flow of current

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 77.
The Q-factor of an AC circuit consisting of resistance R, an inductor L and a capacitor C is given by:
(a) Question = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{LC}}}\)

(b) Question = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}} \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{L}}}\)

(c) Question = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}} \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{C}}}\)

(d) Question = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{LR}}}\)

Answer:
(c) Question = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}} \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{C}}}\)

Question 78.
The apparent power in an AC circuit is given by:
(a) E0 I0
(b) Erms Irms
(c) \(\frac{E_{0} I_{0}}{2}\)
(d) Erms + Irms
Answer:
(b) Erms Irms

Question 79.
The power factor of a choke coil having inductance L and resistance r is given by :
(a) \(\sqrt{r^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}\)

(b) \(\sqrt{\frac{r^{2}+\omega^{2}+L^{2}}{r}}\)

(c) \(\frac{r}{\sqrt{r^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}}\)

(d) r2 + ω 2 L2
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{r}{\sqrt{r^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 80.
The power generated by a choke coil having resistance r, inductance L is given by:
(a) Erms Irms

(b) \(\frac{E_{0} I_{0}}{2}\)

(c) Erms Irms \(\frac{r}{\sqrt{r^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}}\)

(d) E0 I0 \(\frac{r}{\sqrt{r^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}}\)

Answer:
(c) Erms Irms \(\frac{r}{\sqrt{r^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}}\)

Question 81.
Choke coils are commonly seen in:
(a) incandescent bulbs
(b) fluorescent tubes
(c) stabilizer circuits
(d) radio
Answer:
(b) fluorescent tubes

Question 82.
A current of 1 A flowing through ;i oil of inductance 1 henry is switched off in one milli second. Then the induced emf is:
(a) – 100 V
(b) + 100 V
(b) -1000 V
(d) – 10000 V
Answer:
(c) – 1000 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 83.
The coefficient of self induction of a coil by 1000 turns which produces a magnetic flux of 0.5 Wb for a constant current of 2.5 A is:
(a) 0.2 H
(b) 0.4 H
(c) 0.04 H
(d) 0.02 H
Answer:
(d) 0.02 H

Question 84.
The mutual inductance is 4 mH between the primary and secondary of an induction coil. A current of 4 A cuts off in 10-3 s. The magnitude of the induced emf is:
(a) 1.6 V
(b) 16 V
(c) – 1.6 × 10-3 V
(d) – 1.6 V
Answer:
(b) 16 V

Question 85.
An aeroplane having a wingspan of 35 m flies at a speed of 100 m/s. If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is 4 × 10-4 T, then the induced emf across the wingspan is:
(a) 28 V
(b) 2.8 V
(c) 14 V
(d) 1.4 V
Answer:
(d) 1.4 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 86.
The emf in an AC containing only resistance will:
(a lag behind the current by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) have current in phase with the applied voltage
(c) be ahead of current by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) always be out of phase
Answer:
(b) have current in phase with the applied voltage

Question 87.
In an AC circuit with an inductor:
(a) voltage lags current by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) voltage and current are in phase
(c) voltage leads current by TC
(d) current lags voltage by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) current lags voltage by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 88.
The unit of capacitive reactance is:
(a) weber
(b) ohm
(c) volt
(d) tesla
Answer:
(b) ohm

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 89.
The frequency at which a 1 henry inductor has a reactance of 314 Ω:
(a) 500 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 5 Hz
(d) 0.05 Hz
Answer:
(b) 50 Hz

Question 90.
If the frequency of AC is such that XL = XC then the current in the circuit is:
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(c) maximum
(d) negative
Answer:
(c) maximum

Question 91.
The phenomenon of resonance is used in :
(a) Radio
(b) Capacitor
(b) Transformer
(d) Amplifier
Answer:
(a) Radio

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 92.
Inductive reactance to a direct current is:
(a) finite
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) – 1
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 93.
Inductive capacitance to a direct current is
(a) finite
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) unity
Answer:
(b) infinity

Question 94.
The frequency of unidirectional current is:
(a) infinity
(b) zero
(c) unity
(d) finite
Answer:
(b) zero

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 95.
An emf of 12 V is induced when the current in the coil changes from 2 A to 6 A in 0.5 s. The coefficient of self inductance of the coil is;
(a) 1.5 H
(b) 6 H
(c) 0.3 H
(d) 3 H
Answer:
(a) 1.5 H

Question 96.
In LCR series AC circuit,the phase difference between current and voltage is 30°. The reactance of the circuit is 17.32 Ω. The value of resistance is:
(a) 30 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 17.32 Ω
(d) 1.132 Ω
Answer:
(a) 30 Ω

Question 97.
A generator produces an emf given by e = 141 sin 88 t. Then the frequency and the rms value of voltage are:
(a) 50 Hz and 100 V
(b) 1 Hz and 50 V
(c) 14 Hz and 100 V
(d) 50 Hz and 50 V
Answer:
(c) 14 Hz and 100 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 98.
The output voltage of a transformer connected to 240 V mains supply is 24 V. When this transformer is used to operate a bulb with rating 24 V, 24 W, then the current flowing in the primary of the transformer is:
(a) 0.01 A
(b) 1A
(c) 10 A
(d) 0.1 A
Answer:
(d) 0.1 A

Question 99.
The peak values of voltage and current in a circuit contains resistor alone are 240 V and 0.5 amp. Then the power is:
(a) 0.002 watts
(b) 240 watts
(c) 60 watts
(d) 120 watts
Answer:
(d) 120 watts

Question 100.
The number of lines of force crossing unit area normally is:
(a) magnetic flux
(b) magnetic induction
(c) induced emf
(d) total flux
Answer:
(b) magnetic induction

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 101.
Lenz’s law is in accordance with:
(a) conservation of momentum
(b) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of fuel
(d) conservation of angular momentum
Answer:
(b) conservation of energy

Question 102.
A signal voltage V(t) = V0 sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor ‘C’
(a) current I (t) is in phase with voltage V (t)
(b) current I (t) is leads with voltage V (t) by 180°
(c) current I (t) is lags with voltage V (t) by 180°
(d) over a fully cycle, the capacitor does not consume any energy from the voltage source.
Answer:
(d) over a fully cycle, the capacitor does not consume any energy from the voltage source.

Question 103.
A coil has resistance of 30 ω and inductive reactance of 20 ω at 50 Hz frequency. If an AC source of 200V, 100 Hz is connected across the coil, the current to the coil will be:
(a) \(\frac{20}{\sqrt{13}}\) A
(b) 2.0 A
(c) 8.0 A
(d) 4.0 A
Answer:
(d) 4.0 A
Hint:
when f’ = 100 Hz
f’ = 2f i.e., XL‘ = 2 XL
Z’ = \(\sqrt{900+1600}\)
= \(\sqrt{2500}\) = 50 Ω
∴ I = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{0}}{\mathrm{Z}^{\prime}}\)
= \(\frac{200}{50}\) = 4 A

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 104.
An ideal transformer has a power input of 10 kW. The secondary current is 25 A. If the ratio of the number of turns in the primary and the secondary coils is 5 : 1 then the potential difference applied to the primary is:
(a) 100 V
(b) 200 V
(c) 2000 V
(d) 1500 V
Answer:
(c) 2000 V

Question 105.
The frequency at which a 2 henry inductor | has a reactance of 20 nQuestion in an A.C. circuit j with the inductor only is:
(a) 50 Hz
(b) 5 Hz
(c) 15 Hz
(d) 100 Hz
Answer:
(b) 5 Hz

Question 106.
420 kW of electric power is supplied to a small town at a distance of 8 km away from the power plant. The transmission wire has a total resistance of 0.33 ohm. If the power is transmitted at 21,000 V then the power loss is:
(a) 0.825 kW
(b) 0.132 kW
(c) 1.32 kW
(d) 132 kW
Answer:
(b) 0.132 kW

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 107.
In an LCR circuit in series with a 220 V, 50 Hz, AC. it is observed that. L = 0.2 henry, C = \(\frac{1}{2 \times 10^{3} \pi^{2}}\) F and R = 35 ohm. Then in the circuit:
(a) current leads voltage by 60°
(b) voltage leads current by 60°
(c) current leads voltage by 30°
(d) current and voltage are in phase
Answer:
(d) current and voltage are in phase

Question 108.
The average power consumed over one cycle j in an AC. circuit is: j
(a) Erms Irms
(b) Erms Irms cos Φ
(c) Erms Irms sin Φ
(d) E0 I0 cos Φ
Answer:
(b) Erms Irms cos Φ

Question 109.
In LCR circuit when XL = XC the current:
(a) is zero
(b) is in phase with the voltage
(c) leads the voltage
(d) lags behind the voltage
Answer:
(b) is in phase with the voltage

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 110.
In an AC circuit with capacitor only, if the j frequency of the signal is zero, then the j capacitive reactance is : .
(a) infinity
(b) zero
(c) finite maximum
(d) finite minimum
Answer:
(a) infinity

Question 111.
In step-up transformer the output voltage is 11 kV and the input voltage is 220 V. The ratio of number of turns of secondary to primary is:
(a) 20 : 1
(b) 22 : 1
(c) 50 : 1
(d) 1 : 50
Answer:
(c) 50 : 1

Question 112.
The reactance offered by 300 mH inductor to an AC supply of frequency 50 Hz is:
(a) 1046 Ω
(b) 94.2 Ω
(c) 9420 Ω
(d) 104.6 Ω
Answer:
(b) 94.2 Ω

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 113.
The rms value of an AC. voltage with a peak value of 311 V is:
(a) 110 V
(b) 220 V
(c) 50 V
(d) 70.7 V
Answer:
(b) 220 V

Question 114.
In a transformer, eddy current loss is minimised by using:
(a) laminated core made of Mumetal
(b) laminated core made of stelloy
(c) shell type core
(d) thick copper wires
Answer:
(b) laminated core made of stelloy

Question 115.
A power of 11,000 W is transmitted at 220 V. The current through line wires is :
(a) 50 A
(b) 5 A
(c) 500 A
(d) 0.5 A
Answer:
(a) 50 A

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

Question 116.
The dimensional formula of impedance is:
(a) ML2T-3I-2
(b) M-1L2T3I2
(c) M-1 L-2T-3I2
(d) MLT-2I-1
Answer:
(a) ML2T-3I-2
Hint:
|Z| = \(\frac{V}{I}=\frac{M L^{2} T^{-3} I^{-1}}{I}\)
= [ML2T-3I-2] .

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 1.
Which quantities are required to specify the magnetic field of the Earth?
Answer:
(i) Magnetic declination (D)
(ii) Magnetic dip or inclination (I) and
(iii) The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field BH.

Question 2.
What is meant by magnetic declination?
Answer:
Magnetic declination is the angle between magnetic meridian at a point and geographical meridian.

Question 3.
What is dip or magnetic inclination?
Answer:
Magnetic inclination or dip is the angle subtended by the Earth’s total magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with the horizontal direction in the magnetic meridian.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 4.
Where will the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field be
(i) maximum and
(ii) minimum?
Answer:
The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field will be –
(i) Maximum at equator.
(ii) Minimum (zero) at poles.

Question 5.
At (i) equator and (ii) poles what will be vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field?
Answer:
The vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field will be
(i) minimum (zero) at equator
(ii) maximum at poles

Question 6.
What is meant by magnetic field?
Answer:
Magnetic field is the region or space around energy magnet within which its influence can be felt by keeping another magnet in that region.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 7.
What are the unit and dimension of magnetic flux?
Answer:
Unit of magnetic flux is Weber.
Dimension of magnetic flux is M L2 T-2 A-1.

Question 8.
State the unit and dimension of magnetic flux density.
Answer:
Unit of magnetic flux density is Wb m-2 or Tesla
Dimension of magnetic flux density [ML° T-2 A-1].

Question 9.
State the unit dimension of pole strength.
Answer:
Unit of pole strength is newton per Tesla or ampere-metre.
Dimension of pole strength is [M°L T° A]

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 10.
Define magnetic pole.
Answer:
A magnetic pole is defined as that pole which when placed at a distance of 1 metre in air from an equal and similar pole repels with a force of 10-7 N.

Question 11.
What is the value of permeability of free space?
Answer:
Value of permeability of free space is
µ0 = 4π × 10-7 Henry /metre.

Question 12.
What is the nature of magnetic susceptibility?
Answer:
Magnetic susceptibility is a scalar. It is a scalar for isotropic medium. It is a tensor for non-isotropic medium.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 13.
State examples for diamagnetic substances.
Answer:
Bismith, Copper and Water etc.

Question 14.
Mention examples for paramagnetic materials.
Answer:
Aluminium, Platinum, and Chromium etc.

Question 15.
State the relation between relative permeability and susceptibility.
Answer:
The relation is given by µr = 1 + k
µ0 – relative permeability and k – susceptibility

Question 16.
How are the values of relative permeability for dia, para and ferro magnetic materials different?
Answer:
For a diamagnetic material, the relative permeability is less than one µr < 1.
For paramagnetic substances the relative permeability is slightly greater than one, µr > 1
For ferromagnetic materials µr >> 1;
For pure iron µr = 2,00,000.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 17.
State examples for ferromagnets.
Answer:
Iron, Nickel and Cobalt.

Question 18.
How can a galvanometer be converted into an ammeter?
Answer:
A galvanometer is transformed into an ammeter by connecting a low resistance in parallel with the galvanometer.

Question 19.
Why is ammeter always to be connected in series?
Answer:
The ammeter must offer low resistance such that it will not change the current passing through it. So ammeter is connected in series to measure the circuit current.

Question 20.
How is galvanometer converted into voltmeter?
Answer:
A galvanometer is transformed into a voltmeter by connecting high resistance Rh in series with galvanometer.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 21.
Voltmeter is always connected in series. Give reason.
Answer:
Voltmeter must have high resistance and when it is connected in parallel, it will not draw appreciable current. So that it will indicate the true potential difference. So, voltmeter is always connected in series.

Question 22.
Define magnetic field at a point.
Answer:
Magnetic field at a point is defined as the force experienced by the bar magnet of unit pole strength.

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathbf{F}}}{q_{m}}\)

Question 23.
What are artificial magnets?
Answer:
Artificial magnets are magnets that are made by human in order to have desired shape and strength.
Eg: Bar magnets.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 24.
What are magnetic field lines?
Answer:
Magnetic field lines are continuous closed curves. They never intersect each other.

Question 25.
What is meant by magnetic flux?
Answer:
Magnetic flux ΦB is the number of magnetic field lines crossing per unit area.

ΦB = \(\overrightarrow{\text { B }} \cdot \vec{A}\) = BA cos θ

Question 26.
Define Magnetic flux density.
Answer:
Magnetic flux density is defined as the number of magnetic field lines crossing unit area kept normal to the direction of line of force.

Question 27.
When will be the magnetic field said to be uniform? State an example.
Answer:
A magnetic field is said to be uniform, if it has same magnitude and direction at all the points in a given region.
Eg: Local Earth’s magnetic field.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 28.
What is meant by non-uniform magnetic field?
Answer:
In a non-uniform magnetic field, the magnitude or direction or both varies at all its points.
Eg: Magnetic field of a bar magnet.

Question 29.
Why does a freely suspended bar magnet experience only torque in the laboratory?
Answer:
It is because Earth’s magnetic field is locally (laboratory) minimum.

Question 30.
When will the potential energy of a bar magnet be maximum and minimum?
Answer:
The potential energy of a bar magnet will be maximum when the bar magnet is aligned anti-parallel to external magnetic field.
It will be minimum when the bar magnet is aligned along the external magnetic field.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 31.
State Tangent law.
Answer:
When a magnetic needle or magnet is freely suspended in two mutually perpendicular uniform magnetic fields, it will come to rest, in the direction of the resultant of two magnetic fields.

Question 32.
What is meant by magnetising field?
Answer:
The magnetising field is a’magnetic field that magnetizes a specimen kept in that magnetic field.

Question 33.
Define Magnetic permeability.
Answer:
Magnetic permeability is defined as the measure of ability of the material to allow the passage of magnetic field lines through it.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 34.
Define relative permeability.
Answer:
Relative permeability is defined as the ratio between the absolute permeability of the medium to the permeability of free space.

\(\mu_{r}=\frac{\mu}{\mu_{0}}\)

Question 35.
What is meant by intensity of magnetisation?
Answer:
The net magnetic moment per unit volume of material is known as intensity of magnetisation.
M = Magnetic moment / Volume
M = \(\frac{\vec{p}_{m}}{\mathrm{~V}}\)

Question 36.
Derive the relation between total magnetic field (B) and magnetising field H.
Answer:
Let total magnetic field be \(\vec{B}\)
Let magnetic field produced in vacuum be B0
Let magnetic field due to magnetisation be \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}_{m}\)
Then \overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}=\mathbf{\mathbf { B }}_{0}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}_{m}
= µ0 \(\vec{H}\) + µ0I
= µ0 (\(\vec{H}\) + \(\vec{I}\))

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 37.
Two substances A and B have their relative permeabilities slightly greater than and slightly less than unity respectively. To which group do A and B belong?
Answer:
The relative permeability of A is greatef than unity. Therefore, it is a paramagnetic substance. The relative permeability of B is less than unity. Therefore, it is a diamagnetic substance.

Question 38.
What is curie temperature?
Answer:
When a ferro-magnetic material is heated it loses its ferro magnetism slowly and at a particular temperature ferromagnetism vanishes and the material just becomes paramagnetic. This temperature is called the curie temperature. For example, curie temperature of iron about 1000 K.

Question 39.
State Curie’s law.
Curie’s law states that Susceptibility of a magnetic material is inversely proportional to absolute temperature.

χm ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}}\)
χm = \(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{T}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 40.
Draw a graph to show the variation of magnetic susceptibility with absolute temperature.
Answer:

Question 41.
Write the mathematical form forcurie-Weiss law.
Answer:
Curie Weiss law is given in the mathematical forms as
χm = \(\frac{C}{T-T_{C}}\)
when,
C – Curie Constant
T – Temperature in kelvin
Tc – Curie temperature

Question 42.
Mention the graphical representation of Curie – Weiss law.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 43.
How can the loss of heat energy per unit temperature of iron is about 1000 K. 1 volume be calculated during hysteresis?
Answer:
It has been found that loss of heat energy per unit volume of the specimen in each Cycle of magnetisation is equal to the area of the hysteresis loop.

Question 44.
What is the use of studying hysteresis loops of various materials?
Answer:
The shape and size of the hysteresis loop is characteristic of each material because of the differences in their retentivity, coercivity, permeability, susceptibility and energy less, etc., By studying hysteresis loops of various materials, One can select suitable materials for different purposes.

Question 45.
Derive the relation between χm and µr.
Answer:
χm = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{H}}\)
∴ I = χmH
We know B = µ0 (H + I)
B = µ0 (H + χmH)
B = µ0H (I + χm)
If µ is the permeability, we know that
B = µH.
∴ µH = µ0H (l + χm)
\(\frac{\mu}{\mu_{0}}\) = (l + χm)
∴ µr = (l + χm)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 46.
Explain with the help of the domain theory ferromagnetic behaviour of materials.
Answer:
Ferromagnetism is not an atomic property but just a special arrangement of groups of atoms into magnetic domains which are magnetised *to saturation. These are of size (1 – 0.1 mm across). These domains exist throughout the ferromagnetic substance. Bach domain is associated with a strong magnetic moment.

Question 47.
Define retentivity.
Answer:
Retentivity is defined as the ability of the material to retain the magnetism in them even magnetising field vanishes.

Question 48.
Compare the hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials. Comparison of two ferromagnetic material –
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 49.
What is Coercivity?
Answer:
Coercivity is the magnitude of the reverse magnetising field for which the residual magnetism of the material vanishes.

Question 50.
What are the properties of ferromagnetic materials that can be used to manufacture permanent magnets?
Answer:
The ideal material for making permanent magnets should possess high retentivity (residual magnetism) and high coercivity so that the magnetisation lasts for a longer time. Examples of such substances are steel and alnico (an alloy of Al, Ni and Co).

Question 51.
Why is soft iron “preferred for making electromagnets?
Answer:
Soft iron is preferred for making electromagnets as it has a thin hysteresis loop, (small area, therefore less hysteresis loss) and low retentivity. It attains high values of B at low values of magnetising field H.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 52.
State right hand thumb rule.
Answer:
Right hand thumb rule states that “If we hold the current carrying conductor in our encircling the wire points in the direction of the magnetic field lines produced.

Question 53.
Explain the use of ferromagnetic materials in a modern computer.
Answer:
Ferromagnetic materials are used for coating magnetic tapes in a cassette player and for building a memory store in a modem computer.
Ferrites (Fe, Fe2O, MnFe2O4 etc..)

Question 54.
State Maxwell’s right hand cork screw rule.
Answer:
It states that if we rotate a right-handed screw by a screw driver, then the direction of current is same as the direction in which screw advances and the direction of the screw gives the direction of magnetic field.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 55.
Distinguish electric field from magnetic field.
Answer:

Electric field Magnetic field
Produced by a scalar source i.e., an electric charge q Produced by a vector source i.e., current element I \(d \vec{l}\)
It is directed along the position vector joining the source and the point at which the field is calculated It is directed perpendicular to the position vector r and the current element I\(d \vec{l}\)
Does not depend on angle. Depends on the angle between the position vector \(\vec{r}\) and the current element I \(d \vec{l}\)

Question 56.
State similarities between Coulomb’s law and Biot Savart’s law.
Answer:
Electric and magnetic fields

  • Obey inverse square law, so they are long range fields.
  • Obey the principle of superposition and are linear with respect to source. In magnitude,
  • E ∝ q
    B ∝ Idl .

Question 57.
Mention right hand thumb rule.
Answer:
If we curl the fingers of right hand in the direction of current in the loop, then the stretched thumb gives the direction of the magnetic moment associated with the loop.

Question 58.
What is toroid?
Answer:
If we bent a solenoid in a way that both their ends are joined together to form a closed ring shape then it is called a toroid.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 59.
Define Tesla.
Answer:
The strength of the magnetic field is one tesla if unit charge moving in it with unit velocity experiences unit force.
1 T = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{Ns}}{\mathrm{Cm}}\)
= 1 \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{Cm}}\)
= 1NA-1m-1

Question 60.
What is Bohr Magneton?
Answer:
The minimum value of magnetic moment of a revolving electron is eh
1)min = \(\frac{e h}{4 \pi m}\), n = 1
The value of \(\frac{e h}{4 \pi m}\) is called Bohr magneton.

By substituting the values of e, h and m, the value of Bohr magneton is found to be 9.27 × 10-24 Am2.

Question 61.
Define magnetic moment of a current loop.
Answer:
The magnetic moment of a current loop is defined as the product of the current and the loop area. Its direction is perpendicular to the plane of the loop.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 62.
State Right hand palm rule.
Answer:
The coil is held in the right hand so that the fingers point in the direction of the current in the windings. The extended thumb, points in the direction of the magnetic field.

Question 63.
State limitations of cyclotron.
Answer:
(i) the speed of the ion is limited
(ii) electron cannot be accelerated
(iii) uncharged particles cannot be accelerated

Question 64.
State Fleming’s left hand rule.
Answer:
Fleming’s left hand rule states that stretch forefinger, the middle finger and the thumb of the left hand such that they are in mutually perpendicular directions. If forefinger points the direction of magnetic field, the middle finger points the direction of the electric current, then thumb will point the direction of the force experienced by the conductor.

Question 65.
Define ampere.
Answer:
One ampere is defined as that current when it is passed through each of the two infinitely long parallel straight conductors kept at a distance of one meter apart in vacuum causes each conductor to experience a force of 2 × 10-7 newton per meter length of conductor.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 66.
Define figure of merit of a galvanometer.
Answer:
Figure of merit of a galvanometer, is defined as the current which produces a deflection of one scale division in the galvanometer.

Question 67.
Define current sensitivity.
Answer:
Current sensitivity, is defined as the deflection produced per unit current flowing through it. 0
Is = \(\frac{\theta}{I}\)

= \(\frac{\mathrm{NAB}}{\mathrm{K}}\)

⇒ Is = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{G}}\)

Question 68.
How can be the current sensitivity of a galvanometer increased?
Answer:
The current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased
(a) by increasing

  • the number of turns N
  • the magnetic induction B
  • the area of the coil A

(b) by decreasing
the couple per unit twist of the suspension.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 69.
Why phosphor bronze wire is used as suspension wire in moving coil galvanometer?
Answer:
Phosphor bronze wire will produce small couple per unit twist. So current sensitivity of a galvanometer will be increased. Hence phosphor bronze wire is used as suspension ” wire in moving coil galvanometer.

Question 70.
In galvanometer, increasing the current sensitivity does not necessarily increase the voltage sensitivity. Explain.
Answer:
Increasing the current sensitivity does not necessarily, increase the voltage sensitivity. When the number of turns (n) is doubled, current sensitivity is also doubled. But increasing the number of turns correspondingly increases the resistance (G). Hence voltage sensitivity remains unchanged.

Question 71.
Define Voltage Sensitivity.
Answer:
Voltage sensitivity, is defined as the deflection produced per unit voltage applied across it.
Vs = \(\frac{\theta}{\mathrm{V}}\)

Vs = \(\frac{\theta}{\mathrm{IR}_{g}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{NAB}}{\mathrm{KR}_{g}}\)

Vs = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{GR}_{g}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{S}}}{\mathrm{R}_{g}}\)
where Rg is the resistance of galvanometer.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 72.
Write a note on pointer type moving coil galvanometer.
Answer:
Pointer type moving coil galvanometer:
The suspended coil galvanometers are very sensitive. They can measure current of the order of 10-8 ampere. Hence these galvanometers have to be carefully handled. So, in the laboratory, for experiments like Wheatstone’s bridge, where sensitivity is not required, pointer type galvanometers are used. In this type of galvanometer, the coil is pivoted on ball bearings. A lighter aliminium pointer attached to the coil moves over a scale when current is passed. The restoring couple is provided by a spring.

Question 73.
Distinguish ammeter from voltmeter.
Answer:

Ammeter Voltmeter
It is low resistance instrument. It is a high resistance instrument.
It is always connected in series. It is always connected in parallel.
An ideal ammeter has zero resistance An ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 74.
Explain the basic properties of magnets with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
(a) Magnetic dipole moment:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 4

Let us consider a bar magnet. Let qm be the pole strength (it is also called as magnetic charge) of the magnetic pole and let / be the distance between the geometrical centre of bar magnet O and one end of the pole. The magnetic dipole moment is defined as the product of its pole strength and magnetic length It is a vector quantity, denoted by pm.
\(\vec{p}_{m}=q_{m} \vec{d}\) ………..(1)

where \(\vec{B}\) is the vector drawn from South pole to North pole and its magnitude \(|\vec{d}|\) = 2l

The magnitude of magnetic dipole moment is pm = 2qml.

The SI unit of magnetic moment is Am2. It is noted that the direction of magnetic moment is from South pole to North pole.

(b) Magnetic field:
Magnetic field is the region or space around every magnet within which its influence can be felt by keeping another magnet in that region. The magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) at a point is defined as a force experienced by the bar magnet of unit pole strength.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{1}{q_{m}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}\) ………..(2)
Its unit is N A-1 m-1.

(c) Types of magnets:
Magnets are classified into natural magnets and artificial magnets. For example, iron, cobalt, nickel, etc., are natural magnets. Strengths of natural magnets are very weak and the shapes of the magnet are irregular. Artificial magnets are made by us in order to have desired shape and strength Bar magnet is a magnet that exist in the form of rectangular shape or cylindrical shape.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 5

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 6

Properties of bar magnet:
The following are the properties of bar magnet:

(i) A freely suspended bar magnet will always point along the north-south direction. .
(ii) A magnet attracts another magnet or magnetic substances towards itself. The attractive force is maximum near the end of the bar magnet. When a bar magnet is dipped into iron filling, they cling to the ends of the magnet.
(iii) When a magnet is broken into pieces, each piece behaves like a magnet with poles at its ends.
(iv) Two poles of magnet have pole strength equal to one another.
(v) The length of the bar magnet is called geometrical length and the length between two magnetic poles in a bar magnet is called magnetic length. Magnetic length is always slightly smaller than geometrical length. The ratio of magnetic length and geometrical length is \(\frac{5}{6}\)

\(\frac{\text { Magnetic length }}{\text { Geometricál length }}=\frac{5}{6}\) = 0.833.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 75.
Mention the properties of magnetic lines.
Answer:
(i) Magnetic field lines are continuous closed curves. The direction of magnetic field lines is from North pole to South pole outside the magnet and South pole to North pole inside the magnet.
(ii) The direction of magnetic field at any point on the curve is found by drawing tangent to the magnetic line of force at that point. In the tangent drawn at points P, Question and R gives the direction of magnetic field B at that point.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 7

(iii) Magnetic field lines never intersect each other. Otherwise, the magnetic compass needle would point towards two directions, that is impossible.
(iv) The degree of closeness of the field lines determines the relative strength of the magnetic field. The magnetic field is strong where magnetic field lines crowd and weak where magnetic field lines thin out.

Question 76.
Describe principle construction and theory of a Tangent galvanometer.
Answer:
When a magnetic needle or magnet is freely suspended in two piutually perpendicular uniform magnetic fields, it will come to rest in the direction of the resultant of the two fields.
B = BH tan θ ………(1)

Construction:
Tangent Galvanometer (TG) consists of copper coil wounded on a non-magnetic circular frame. The frame is made up of brass or wood which is mounted vertically on a horizontal base table (turn table) with three levelling screws. The TG is provided with two or more coils of different number of turns. Most of the equipments consist of 2 turns, 5 turns and 50 turns which are of different thickness and are used for measuring currents of different strength.

At the centre of turn table, a small upright projection is seen on which compass box is placed. Compass box consists of a small magnetic needle which is pivoted at the centre, such that arrangement shows the centre of both magnetic needle and circular coil exactly coincide. A thin aluminium pointer is connected to the magnetic needle normally and moves over circular scale.

The circular scale is divided into four quadrants and graduated in degrees those are used to measure the deflection of aluminium pointer on a circular degree scale. In order to avoid parallax error in measurement, a mirror is placed below the aluminium pointer.

Theory:
The circuit connection for Tangent Galvanometer (TG) experiment. When no current is passed through the coil, the small magnetic needle lies along horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field. When the circuit is switched ON, the electric current will pass through the circular coil and produce magnetic field. Now there are two fields which are acting mutually perpendicular to each other. They are:
(i) the magnetic field (B) due to the electric current in the coil acting normal to the plane of the coil.
(ii) the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field (BH)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 8

Because of these crossed fields, the pivoted magnetic needle deflects through an angle θ. From tangent law,
B = BH tan θ
It is known that when an electric current is passed through a circular coil of radius R having N turns, the magnitude of magnetic field at the centre is
B = µ0 \(\frac{\mathrm{NI}}{2 \mathrm{R}}\) ………. (2)
From equation (1) and equation (2), we get
µ0 \(\frac{\mathrm{NI}}{2 \mathrm{R}}\) = BH tan θ
The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field can be determined as NT 1
BH = µ0 \(\frac{N I}{2 R} \frac{1}{\tan \theta}\) in tesla ………. (3)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 77.
A bar magnet it placed in a uniforn magnetic field. Obtain an expression for potential | energy of the magnet.
Answer:
When a bar magnet (magnetic dipole) of dipole moment \(\vec{p}_{m}\) is held at an angle θ with the direction of a uniform magnetic field B, the magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is given by
\(\left|\vec{\tau}_{\mathrm{B}}\right|=\left|\vec{p}_{m}\right||\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}| \sin \theta\)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 9

If the dipole is rotated through a very small angular displacement dQuestion against the torque xB at constant angular velocity, then the work done by external torque (Xext) for this small angular displacement is
dW = \(\left|\vec{\tau}_{\text {ext }}\right|\)dQ
Since the bar magnet to be moved at constant angular velocity, it implies

\(\left|\vec{\tau}_{\mathrm{B}}\right|=\left|\vec{\tau}_{\text {ext }}\right|\)

dW = pm B sinθ dθ

Total work done in rotating the dipole from θ’ to θ is

W = \(\int_{\theta^{\prime}}^{\theta}\) τ dθ
= \(\int_{\theta^{\prime}}^{\theta}\) pm B sin θ dθ
= pm B\([-\cos \theta d \theta]_{\theta^{\prime}}^{\theta}\)
W = – pm B (cos θ – cos θ’)
This work done is stored as potential energy in bar magnet at an angle θ when it is rotated from θ’ to θ and it can be written as
U = – pmB(cos θ – cos θ’)
In fact, the above equation above gives the difference in potential energy between the angular position θ’ and θ. We can select the reference point θ’ = 90°, so that second term in the equation becomes zero and the equation above can be written as
U = -pm B(cos θ)
The potential energy stored in a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field is given by
U = \(\vec{p}_{m} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)

Case (i):
If θ = 0°, then
U = – pm B (cos 0°) = – pm B

Case (ii):
If θ = 180°, then
U = – pm B (cos 180°) = pm B
It is inferred from the above two results, the potential energy of the bar magnet is minimum when it is aligned along the external magnetic field and maximum when the bar magnet is aligned anti-parallel to external magnetic field.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 78.
State the properties of diamagnetic materials.
Answer:
(i) Magnetic susceptibility is negative.
(ii) Relative permeability is slightly less than unity.
(iii) The magnetic field lines are repelled or expelled from diamagnetic materials when they are placed in a magnetic field.
(iv) Susceptibility is nearly, temperature independent.

Question 79.
Mention the properties of paramagnetic.
Answer:
(i) Magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnet is positive and small.
(ii) It’s relative permeability is greater than unity.
(iii) The magnetic field lines are attracted into the paramagnetic materials when they are placed in a magnetic field.
(iv) Susceptibility is inversely proportional to the temperature.

Question 80.
What are the properties of ferromagnetic materials?
Answer:
(i) Magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnets is positive and large.
(ii) It’s relative permeability is large.
(iii) The magnetic field lines are strongly attracted into the ferromagnetic materials when placed in a magnetic field.
(iv) Susceptibility is inversely proportional to the temperature.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 81.
With the help of a diagram explain hysteresis loop.
Answer:
A ferromagnetic material (example, Iron) is magnetised slowly by a magnetising field \(\vec{H}\). The magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) of the material increases from point A with the magnitude of the magnetising field and then attains a saturated level. This behaviour of the material is depicted by the path AC. Saturation magnetization is defined as the maximum point up to which the material can be magnetised by applying the magnetising field.

If the magnetising field is now reduced, the magnetic induction also decreases but does not retrace the original path CA. It takes different path CD. When the magnetising field is zero, the magnetic induction is not zero and it has positive value. It is implied that some magnetism is left in the specimen. The residual magnetism AD present in the specimen is called remanence or retentivity. It is defined as the ability of the materials to retain the magnetism in them even magnetising field vanishes.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 10

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 11

In order to demagnetise the material, the magnetising field is gradually increased in the reverse direction. Now the magnetic induction decreases along DE and becomes zero at E. The magnetising field AE in the reverse direction is required to bring residual magnetism to zero. The magnitude of the reverse magnetising field for which the residual magnetism of the material vanishes is called its coercivity.

Further increase of \(\vec{H}\) in the reverse direction, the magnetic induction increases along EF until it reaches saturation at F in the reverse direction. If magnetising field is decreased and then increased with direction reversed, the magnetic induction traces the path FGKC. This closed curve ACDEFGK is called hysteresis loop and it represents a cycle of magnetisation.

In the entire cycle, the magnetic induction B lags behind the magnetising field H. This phenomenon of lagging of magnetic induction behind the magnetising field is called hysteresis.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 82.
Explain applications of hysteresis loop with illustrations.
Answer:
The significance of hysteresis loop is that it provides information such as retentivity, coercivity, permeability, susceptibility and energy loss during one cycle of magnetisation for each ferromagnetic material. Therefore, the study of hysteresis loop will help us in selecting proper and suitable material for a given purpose.

Illustrations:
(i) Permanent magnets:
The materials with high retentivity, high coercivity and high permeability are suitable for making permanent magnets.
Eg: Steel and Alnico

(ii) Electromagnets:
The materials with high initial permeability, low retentivity, low coercivity and thin hysteresis loop with smaller area are preferred to make electromagnets.
Eg; Soft iron and Mumetal (Nickel Iron alloy).

(iii) Core of the transformer:
The materials with high initial permeability, large magnetic induction and thin hysteresis loop with smaller area are needed to design transformer cores.
Eg: Soft iron

Question 83.
Derive the relation between angular momentum and magnetic moment of an electron.
Answer:
Suppose an electron undergoes circular motion around the nucleus. The circulating electron in a loop is like current in a circular loop (since flow of charge is known as current). The magnetic dipole moment due to current carrying circular loop is

\(\vec{\mu}_{\mathrm{L}}=\mathrm{I} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) ………………(1)

In magnitude,
µL = IA

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 12

If T is the time period of an electron, the current due to circular motion of the electron is

I = \(\frac{-e}{\mathrm{~T}}\) ………….(2)

where -e is the charge of an electron. If R is the radius of the circular orbit and v is the velocity of the electron in the circular orbit, then
T = \(\frac{2 \pi R}{v}\) ………….(3)

Using equation (2) and equation (3) in equation (1), we get
µL = \(-\frac{e}{\frac{2 \pi R}{v}} \pi R^{2}=-\frac{e v R}{2}\) ……….(4)

where A = πR2 is the area of the circular loop.
By definition, angular momentum of the electron about O is
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{L}}=\vec{r} \times \vec{p}\)
In magnitude,
L = Rp = mvR ……………(5)
Using the above equations (4) and (5), we get

\(\frac{\mu_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{L}}=\frac{\frac{e v \mathrm{R}}{2}}{m v \mathrm{R}}=-\frac{e}{2 m}\)

⇒ \(\vec{\mu}_{\mathrm{L}}=-\frac{e}{2 m} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{L}}\) ……………..(6)

It is indicated that the magnetic moment and angular momentum are n opposite direction from the negative sign.
In magnitude,

\(\frac{\mu_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{L}}=\frac{e}{2 m}=\frac{1.60 \times 10^{-19}}{2 \times 9.11 \times 10^{-31}}\)
= 0.0878 × 1012

\(\frac{\mu_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{L}}\) = 8.78 × 1010 Ckg-1 = Constant

The ratio \(\frac{\mu_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{L}}\) is a constant and also known as gyro-magnetic ratio . \(\left(\frac{e}{2 m}\right)\). that the gyro-magnetic ratio is a constant of proportionality which connects angular momentum of the electron and the magnetic moment of the electron.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 84.
Obtain exf ions for the magnetic field of a toroid.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 13

(a) Open space interior to the toroid:
Let us calculate the magnetic field B at point P. We construct an Amperian loop 1 of radius r1 around the point P. For simplicity, we take circular ioop so that the length of the loop is its circumference.
L1 = 2πr1
Ampere’s circuital law for the loop 1 is

\(\oint_{\text {loop } 1} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{P}} \cdot \vec{d} l=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{\text {enclosed }}\)

Since, the loop 1 encloses no current,
Ienclosed = 0

\(\oint_{\text {loop } 1} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{P}} \cdot \vec{d} l=0\)

This is possible only if the magnetic field at point P vanishes i.e.,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{P}}\) = 0

(b) Open space exterior to the toroid:
Let us calculate the magnetic field BQ at point Q. We construct an Amperian loop 3 of radius r3 around the point Q. The length of the loop is
L3 = 2πr3
Ampere’s circuital law for the loop 3 is
\(\oint_{\text {loop } 1} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{Q}} \cdot d \vec{l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{\text {enclosed }}\)
Since, in each turn of the toroid loop, current coming out of the plane of paper is cancelled by the current going into the plane of paper. Thus, Ienclosed = 0

\(\oint_{\text {loop } 3} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{Q}} \cdot d \vec{l}=0\)

This is possible only if the magnetic field at point Question vanishes i.e.,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{Q}}\) = 0

(c) Inside the toroid:
Let us calculate the magnetic field BS at point S by constructing an Ampenan loop 2 of radius r2 around the point S. The length of the loop is
L2 = 2πr2
Ampere’s circuital law for the ioop 2 is
\(\oint_{\text {loop } 2} \overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}_{\mathrm{S}} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = µ0Ienclosed
Let I be the current passing through the toroid and N be the number of turns of the toroid, then
Ienclosed = NI

\(\oint_{\text {loop } 2} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{S}} \cdot d \vec{l}=\oint_{\text {loop } 2} \mathrm{~B} d l \cos \theta\) = B2πr2

\(\oint_{\text {loop } 2} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{S}} \cdot d \vec{l}\) = µ0 NI

BS = µ0 \(\frac{\mathrm{NI}}{2 \pi r_{2}}\)

The number of turns per unit length is n = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2 \pi r_{2}}\), then the magnetic field at point S is

BS = µ0nI

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 85.
What do you infer from Lorentz force?
Answer:
When an electric charge Question is moving with velocity \(\vec{v}\) in the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), it experiences a force, called magnetic force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\). After careful experiments, Lorentz deduced the force experienced by a moving charge in the magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\)
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) = Question (\(\vec{v}\) × \(\vec{B}\)) …………(1)
In magnitude,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) = qvB sin θ ……….(2)
The equations (1) and equation (2) imply
(i) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) is directly proportional to the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\).
(ii) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) is directly proportional to the velocity \(\vec{v}\).
(iii) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) is directly proportional to sine of the angle between the velocity and magnetic field.
(iv) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) is directly proportional to the magnitude of the charge q.
(v) The direction of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) is always perpendicular to \(\vec{v}\) and \(\vec{B}\) as \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) in the
cross product of \(\vec{V}\) and \(\vec{B}\).

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 14

(vi) The direction of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) on negative charge is opposite to the direction of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) on positive charge provided other factors are identical as shown Figure.
(vii) If velocity \(\vec{v}\) of the charge Question is along magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) then, \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{m}\) is zero.

Question 86.
Describe the motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field and derive an expression for gyro-frequency.
Answer:
Let us consider a charged particle of charge Question having mass m enters into a region of uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with velocity \(\vec{v}\) such that velocity is perpendicular to the magnetic field. As soon as the particle enters into the field, Lorentz force acts on it in a direction perpendicular to both magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) and velocity \(\vec{v}\).

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 15

As a result, the charged particle moves in a circular orbit.
The Lorentz force on the charged particle is given by
F = q(\(\vec{v}\) × \(\vec{B}\))
Since Lorentz force alone acts on the particle, the magnitude of the net force on the particle is
\(\sum_{i} \mathrm{~F}_{i}\) = Fm = qvB

This Lorentz force acts as centripetal force for the particle to execute circular motion.

∴ qvB = m\(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\)

The radius of the circular path is
r = \(\frac{m v}{Question \mathrm{~B}}=\frac{p}{Question \mathrm{~B}}\) ……………..(1)

where p = mv is the magnitude of the linear momentum of the particle. Let T be the time taken by the particle to finish one complete circular motion, then
T = \(\frac{2 \pi r}{v}\) …………..(2)
By substituting (1) in (2), we have
T = \(\frac{2 \pi m}{Question \mathrm{~B}}\) …………….(3)
Equation (3) is called the cyclotron period. The reciprocal of time period is the frequency f which is
f = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}}\)

f = \(\frac{Question \mathrm{~B}}{2 \pi m}\) ……………(4)
In terms of angular frequency ω,
ω = 2πf = \(\frac{q}{m}\)B …………(5)
Equation (4) and equation (5) are called as cyclotron frequency or gyro-frequency.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 87.
Derive an expression for the force acting between two parallel current carrying conductors.
Answer:
Consider Two long straight parallel current carrying conductors separated by a distance r are kept in air. Let I1 and I2 be the electric currents passing through the conductors A and B in same direction (i.e., along z – direction) respectively. The net magnetic field at a distance r due to current I1 in conductor A is

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{1}=\frac{\mu_{0} I_{1}}{2 \pi r}(-\hat{i})=-\frac{\mu_{0} I_{1}}{2 \pi r} \hat{i}\)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 16

From thumb rule, the direction of magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the paper and inwards (arrow into the page i.e., along negative î direction.

Consider a small elemental length dl in conductor B at which the magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{1}\) is present.
From equation,

\(d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=(\mathrm{I} d \vec{l} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\)
Lorentz force on the element dl of conductor B is

\(d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\left(\mathrm{I}_{2} d \vec{l} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\right)=-\mathrm{I}_{2} d l \frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{1}}{2 \pi r}(\hat{k} \times \hat{i})\)

= \(-\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{1} \mathrm{I}_{2} d l}{2 \pi r} \hat{j}\)

Hence the force on dl of wire conductor B is directed towards the wire W1. So the length dl is attracted towards the conductor A. The force per unit length of the conductor B due to the wire conductor A is

\(\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}}{l}=-\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{1} \mathrm{I}_{2} \vec{j}}{2 \pi r}\)

In the same manner, let us calculate the magnitude of net magnetic induction due to current I2 (in conductor A) at a distance r in the elemental length dl of conductor A is

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{2}=\frac{\mu_{0} I_{2}}{2 \pi r} \hat{i}\)

From the thumb rule, direction of magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the paper and outwards (arrow out to the page 0) i.e., along positive î direction.
Hence, the magnetic force at element dl of wire is W1 is

\(\vec{F}\) = \(\left(\mathrm{I}_{1} \vec{d} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{2}\right)\)

= I1 dl \(\frac{\mu_{0} I_{2}}{2 \pi r}(\hat{k} \times \hat{i})\)

= \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{1} \mathrm{I}_{2} d l}{2 \pi r} \hat{j}\)

Hence the force on dl of conductor A is directed towards the conductor B. So the length dl is attracted towards the conductor B.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 17

The force per unit length of the conductor A due to the conductor B is

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 18

Thus the force experienced by two parallel current carrying conductors is attractive if the direction of electric current passing through them is same.

Current in the opposite direction

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 19
Two parallel conductors carrying current in opposite direction experience a repulsive force.

Thus the force experienced by two parallel current carrying conductors is repulsive if they carry current in the opposite directions.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 88.
Derive an expression for Torque acting on a current loop placed in a magnetic field.
Answer:
Let us consider a single rectangular loop PQRS kept in a uniform magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\). Let a and b be the length and breadth of the rectangular loop respectively. Let n̂ be the unit vector normal to the plane of the current loop. This unit vector n̂ completely describes the orientation of the loop. Let \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) be directed from North pole to South pole of the magnet.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 20Rectangular coil placed in a magnetic field

When an electric current is sent through the loop, the net force acting is zero but there will be net torque acting on it. For the sake of understanding, we shall consider two
configurations of the loop;
(i) unit vector h points perpendicular to the field
(ii) unit vector points at an angle θ with the field.

(i) When unit vector n is perpendicular to the field:
In the simple configuration, the unit vector n̂ is perpendicular to the field and plane of the loop is lying on xy plane. Let the loop be divided into four sections PQ, QR, RS and SP. The Lorentz force on each loop can be calculated as follows:
(a) Force on section PQ
For section PQ,
\(\vec{l}\) = a ĵ and \(\vec{B}\) = B î

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{PQ}}=\mathrm{I} \vec{l} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)

= – IaB(ĵ × î) = IaB k̂
Since the unit vector normal to the plane h is along the direction of k.

(b) The force on section QR
\(\vec{l}\) = bî and \(\vec{B}\) = Bî
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{QR}}=\mathrm{I} \vec{l} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}=\mathrm{I} b \mathrm{~B}(\hat{i} \times \hat{i})=\overrightarrow{0}\)

(c) The force on section RS
\(\vec{l}\) = a ĵ and \(\vec{B}\) = B î
FRS = I\(\vec{l}\) × \(\vec{B}\) = IaB(ĵ × î)
= -IaB k̂
Since, the unit vector normal to the plane is along the direction of -k̂.

(d) The force on section SP
\(\vec{l}\) = -b î and \(\vec{B}\) = B î
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{SP}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{I}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}=-\mathrm{I} b \mathrm{~B}(\hat{i} \times \hat{i})=\overrightarrow{0}\)
The net force on the rectangular loop is
\(\vec{F}_{\text {net }}=\vec{F}_{P Q}+\vec{F}_{Question R}+\vec{F}_{R S}+\vec{F}_{S P}\)

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\text {net }}\) = IaB k̂ + \(\overrightarrow{0}\) – IaB k̂ + \(\overrightarrow{0}\)
⇒ \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\text {net }}\) = \(\overrightarrow{0}\)
Hence, the net force on the rectangular loop in this configuration is zero. Now let us calculate the net torque due to these forces about an axis passing through the centre

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 21

Since, A = ab is the area of the rectangular loop PQRS, therefore, the net torque for this configuration is
\(\vec{\tau}_{\text {net }}\) = ABI ĵ
When the loop starts rotating due to this torque, the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) is no longer in the plane of the loop. So the above equation is the special case.

When the loop starts rotate about z axis due to this torque, the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) is no longer in the plane of the loop. So the above equation is the special case.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

(ii) When unit vector n̂ is at an angle θ with the field:
In the general case, the unit normal vector n̂ and magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) is with an angle θ.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 22

(a) The force on section PQ
\(\vec{l}\) = – aĵ and \(\vec{B}\) = Bî

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{PQ}}=\mathrm{I} \vec{l} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)

= -IaB(ĵ × î) = IaB k̂
Since, the unit vector normal to the is along the direction of k.

(b) The force on section QR
\(\vec{l}\) = b cos(\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) – θ)î – sin(\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) – θ)k̂
and \(\vec{B}\) = Bî

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{QR}}\) = I\(\vec{l}\) × \(\vec{B}\)
= – IbB sin(\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) – θ)ĵ

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{QR}}\) = – IbB cos θ ĵ

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 23

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 

(c) The force on section RS
\(\vec{l}\) = aĵ and \(\vec{B}\) = Bî
\(\vec{F}\)RS = I\(\vec{l}\) × \(\vec{B}\)
= – IaB(ĵ × î) = – IaB k̂
Since, the unit vector normal to the plane is along the direction of – k̂

(d) The force on section SP
\(\vec{l}\) = b cos(\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + θ) î + sin(\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + θ)k̂
and \(\vec{B}\) = Bî
\(\vec{F}\)SP = I\(\vec{l}\) × \(\vec{B}\)
= IlB sin(\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + θ)ĵ
\(\vec{F}\)SP = IbB cos θ ĵ

The net force acting on the rectangular loop is

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\text {net }}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{PQ}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{QR}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{RS}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{SP}}\)

\(\vec{F}\)net = Iab k̂ – IbB cos θ ĵ – IaB k̂ + IbB cos θ ĵ
\(\vec{F}\)net = \(\overrightarrow{0}\)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 24

Hence, the net force on the rectangular loop in this configuration is also zero. Notice that the force on section QR and SP are not zero here. But, they have equal and opposite effects, but we assume that the loop to be rigid, so no deformation. So, no torque produced by these two sections.

Even though the forces PQuestion and RS also are equal and opposite, they are not collinear. So these two forces constitute a couple (Figure (a)). Hence the net torque produced by these two forces about the axis of the rectangular loop is given by

\(\vec{\tau}_{\text {net }}\) = baBI sin θ î = ABI sin θ k̂

From the figurre (c),

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 25

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

The net torque \(\vec{\tau}_{\text {net }}\) = IabB sin θ ĵ …………. (1)

It is noted that the net torque is in the positive y direction which tends to rotate the loop in clockwise direction about the y axis. If the current is passed in the other way (P → S → R → Question → P), then total torque will point in the negative y direction which tends to rotate the loop in anticlockwise direction about y axis.

Another important point is to be noted that the torque is less in this case compared to earlier Case (where the h is perpendicular to the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). It is because the perpendicular distance is reduced between the forces FPQuestion and FRS in this case.

The equation (1) can also be rewritten in terms of magnetic dipole moment
\(\vec{p}\)m = I\(\vec{A}\) = Iab n̂

\(\vec{\tau}_{n e t}=\vec{p} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)

This is analogous expression for torque experienced by electric dipole in the uniform electric field,
\(\vec{\tau}_{n e t}=\vec{p} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)

Special cases:
(i) When θ = 90°, then the torque on the current loop is maximum which is
\(\vec{\tau}\) = abIB ĵ
Note here \(\vec{p}\)m points perpendicular to the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). The torque is maximum in this orientation.

(ii) When θ = 0° or 180° then the torque on the current loop is
\(\vec{\tau}\) = 0
when θ = 0°, \(\vec{p}\)m is parallel to \(\vec{B}\) and for θ = 180°, \(\vec{p}\)m is anti – parallel to \(\vec{B}\). The torque is zero in these orientations.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 89.
Obtain an expression for the force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.
Answer:
When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the force experienced by the wire is equal to the sum of Lorentz forces on the individual charge carriers in the wire. Let us consider a small segment of wire of length dl, cross-sectional area A and current I. The free electrons drift Opposite to the direction of current. So the relation between current I and magnitude of drift velocity vd is
I = neAvd …………….(1)

If the wire is kept in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), then average force experienced by the charge (here, electron) on the wire is
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=-e\left(\vec{v}_{d} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\right)\)

Let n be the number of free electrons per unit volume, therefore

n = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
where N is the number of free electrons in the small element of volume V = A dl.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 26

Hence Lorentz force on the wire of length dl is the product of the number of the electrons (N = nAdl) and the force acting on an electron.

\(d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=-e n \mathrm{~A} d l\left(\vec{v}_{d} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\right)\)

The length dl is along the length of the wire and hence the current element in the wire is Id\(\vec{l}\) = -enA\(\vec{v}\)d dl. Therefore the force on the wire is
\(d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=(I d \vec{l} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\) …………(2)

The force in a straight current carrying conducting wire of length l placed in a uniform magnetic field is
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{I}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\) …………(3)
In magnitude,
F = BIl sin θ
(i) If the conductor is placed along the direction of the magnetic field, the angle between them is θ = 0°. Hence, the force experienced by the conductor is zero.
(ii) If the conductor is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field, the angle between them is θ = 90° Hence, the force experienced by the conductor is maximum, which is F = BIl

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 90.
Two magnetic poles, one of which is twice stronger than the other, repel one another with a force of -2 × 10-5 N, when kept s par d at a ista of 20 cm in air. Calculate the strength of eacl pole.
Answer:
Let the pole strength of first pole = m1 = m
The pole strength of second pole = m2 = 2m
Force between them F = 2 × 10-5 N
Distance between them d= 20 × 10-2 m
Force of repulsion
F = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{d^{2}}\)

= \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7}}{4 \pi} \times \frac{m \times 2 m}{\left(20 \times 10^{-2}\right)^{2}}\)

= 2 × 10-5 N
∴ 2 m2 = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-5} \times 4 \times 10^{-2}}{10^{-7}}\)
m2 = 4
∴ m = 2 Am
∴ 2m = 2 × 2 = 4 Am
Pole strength of first pole m = 2 Am
Pole strength of second pole m = 4 Am

Question 91.
Obtain an expression for the m tic field at the centre (O) of a coil bent in the form of a rare of side 2/ carrying are as shown in the figure.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 27

Answer:
Let Current flows through the arms be I
∴ Magnetic field through one arm of the square
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{4 \pi r}\) (sin 45° + sin 45°)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 28

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 92.
A bar magnet is suspended horizontally by nless ire in magnetic meridian. In order to deflect the magnet through 30° from the magnetic meridian, the upper end of th wire to be rotated by 270°. Now this magnet is replaced by another magnet. In 0rder to deflect the second magnet through the same angle from the magnetic ridi the upper end of the wire has to be rotated by 180°. What is the ratio of the magnetic moments of the two bar magnets.
Hint: (τ = Cθ)
Answer:
Let G be the deflecting torque per unit twist and M1 and M2 be the magnetic moments of the two magnets.
The deflecting torque is τ = Cθ
The restoring torque is τ = MB sin θ
In equilibrium,
deflecting torque = restoring torque
I the Magnet-I
C(270° – 30°) = M1 Bh sin θ ………..(1)
For the magnet – II
C(180° – 30°) = M2 Bh sin θ ………….(2)
Dividing by (1) and (2)
\(\frac{\mathrm{M}_{1}}{\mathrm{M}_{2}}=\frac{240^{\circ}}{150^{\circ}}\) = \(\frac{8}{5}\)

Question 93.
The force acting on each pole of magnet placed in a uniform magnetic induction of 5 × 10-4 T is 6 × 10-3 N. If the length of the magnet is 8 cm, calculate the magnetic moment of the magnet.
Answer:
Force acting on each pole F = 6 × 10-3 N
Uniform magnetic induction B = 5 × 10-4 T
Length of the magnet 2l = 8 × 10-2 m
Pole strength m = \(\frac{F}{B}=\frac{6 \times 10^{-3}}{5 \times 10^{-4}}\) = 12 Am
Magnetic moment M = m × 2l
= 12 × 8 × 10-2 = 0.96 Am2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 94.
Two like poles of unequal pole strength are placed 1m apart. If a pole of strength 4 Am is in equilibrium at a distance 0.2 m from one of the poles, calculate the ratio of the pole strengths of the two poles.
Answer:
Pole strength of one pole = 4 Am
Distance of separation between the poles d = 1 m
The distance of a pole strength 4 Am in equilibrium with the other pole at a distance d1 = 0.2 m
∴ The distance of other pole in equilibrium is d2 = 1 – 0.2 = 0.8 m
Force experienced at a distance d1 between the poles
F1 = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \times \frac{4 m_{1}}{(0.2)^{2}}=\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 4 m_{1}}{4 \pi \times(0.2)^{2}}\)

Force experienced at a distance d2 between the poles
F2 = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \times \frac{4 m_{2}}{(0.8)^{2}}=\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7}}{4 \pi} \times \frac{4 m_{2}}{(0.8)^{2}}\)

= \(\frac{4 m_{2}}{0.64} \times 10^{-7}\) = \(\frac{1 m_{2}}{0.16} \times 10^{-7}\)

In equilibrium, F1 = F2
m1 × 10-5 = \(\frac{m_{2}}{16}\) × 10-5
∴ \(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}=\frac{1}{16}\)
∴ m1 : m2 = 1 : 16
∴ The ratio of pole strengths of the two poles = 1 : 16

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 95.
A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 5.25 × 10-2 Am2 is placed with its axis perpendicular to the Earth’s field direction. At what distance from the centre of the magnet on
(i) its equatorial line and
(ii) its axial line, is the resultant field inclined at 45° with the Earth’s field. Magnitude of the Earth’s field at the place is 0.42 × 10-4 T.
Answer:
M = 5.25 × 10-2 Am-2; θ = 45°;
Bh= 0.42 × 10-4 T; d = ?
From the Tangent Law
\(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{B}_{h}}\) = tan θ
B = Bh tan θ = 0.42 × 10-4 tan45°
B = 0.42 × 10-4 T

(i) For the point on the equatorial line

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 29

(ii) For the point on axial line

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 30

Question 96.
What will be the value of the total magnetic induction of Earth’s field at a place where dip is 60° and horizontal component is 3 × 10-5 T?
Answer:
δ = 60°; Bh = 3 × 10-5 T; B == ?
Bh = B cos δ

B = \(\frac{B_{h}}{\cos \delta}=\frac{3 \times 10^{-5}}{\cos 60^{\circ}}=\frac{3 \times 10^{-5}}{1 / 2}\)

B = 6 × 10-5 T

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 97.
A short bar magnet is placed with its north pole pointing north. The neutral point is 10 cm away from the centre of the magnet. If B = 4 × 10-5 T, calculate the magnetic moment of the magnet.
Answer:
d = 10 × 10-2 m; B = 4 × 10-5 T; M = ?
When the north pole of a bar magnet points north, the neutral points will lie on its equatorial line.
∴ The field of the neutral point on the equatorial line of a short bar magnet is,
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{M}}{d^{3}}\)
∴ M = B × d3 × 107
= 4 × 10-5 (10 × 10-2)3 × 107
M = 0.4 Am2

Question 98.
A magnet of pole strength 24.6 × 10-2 Am and length 10 cm is placed at 30° with a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Find the torque acting on the magnet.
Answer:
Pole strength m = 24.6 × 10-2 Am
Length of a magnet 2l = 10 × 10-2
Angle θ = 30°
Magnetic field B = 0.01 T
Torque acting on the magnet τ = MB sin θ
Magnetic moment M = m × 2l
= 24.6 × 10-2 × 10 × 10-2 = 246 × 10-4 Nm
∴ Torque acting on the magnet = 246 × 10-4 × 0.01 sin 30°
= 246 × 10-4 × 1 × 10-2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 1.23 × 10-4 Nm.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 99.
The magnetic moment of a bar magnet of length 10 cm is 9.8 × 10-1 A m2. Calculate the magnetic field at a point on its axis at a distance of 20 cm from its mid point.
Answer:
Length of the magnet 21 = 10 × 10-2 m
Magnetic moment M = 9.8 × 10-1 Am2
Distance of a point d = 20 × 10-2 m
The magnetic field at a distance of 20cm acting along the axial line of the bar magnet is given by,

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 31

B = Resultant magnetic field = 2.787 × 10-5 Tesla

Question 100.
Two mutually perpendicular lines are drawn on a table. Two small magnets of magnetic moments 0.108 and 0.192 Am2 respectively are placed on these lines. If the distance of the point of intersection of these lines is 30 cm and 40 cm respectively from these magnets, find the resultant magnetic field at the point of intersection.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 32

Answer:
Magnetic moment of magnet 1, M1 = 0.108 Am2
Magnetic moment of magnet 2, M2 = 0.192 Am2
Distance of magnet 1, d1 = 30 × 10-2 m
Distance of magnet 2, d2 = 40 × 10-2 m
Magnetic field at a point on the axial line due to magnet 1

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 33

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 101.
A freely suspended magnet of moment √3 Wb-m is placed at an angle of 60° with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of strength 150 A-turns/metre. Find the moment of the couple acting on the magnet.
Answer:
Moment of the couple = 2 ml × H × sin θ = MH sin θ
M = √3 Wb-m
H = 150 A/m
θ = 60°
∴ Moment of the couple = √3 × 150 × sin 60° = 225 Wb. m

Question 102.
Calculate the current passing through a coil of radius 8 cm having 80 turns, when the field at the centre of the coil is 200 A-turn/ metre.
Answer:
Radius r = 8 × 10-2 m;
No. of turns n = 80;
Field at the centre of the coil H = 200 A/m;
Current I = ?
H = \(\frac{n \mathrm{I}}{2 r}\)

I = \(\frac{2 r}{n}\) × H

= \(\frac{2 \times 8 \times 10^{-2}}{80}\) × 200 = 0.4 A.

Question 103.
A current of 2 Amp. flows through 5 turn coil of a Tangent Galvanometer having a radius 12.5 cm, if the deflection of the needle at its centre is 45° calculate the horizontal intensity of earth’s field at that place.
Answer:
I = 2A; n = 5; r = 12.5 × 10-2 m;
θ = 45°

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 34

Question 104.
A tangent galvanometer with a coil of 50 turns and mean radius 10 cm is used at a place, when a current 0.095 Amp is passed through the galvanometer, the deflection is 45°. Calculate the horizontal component of the earth’s field.
Answer:
I = 0.095 A; n = 50; r = 10 × 10-2 m;
θ = 45°

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 35

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 105.
A magnetic field of 104 A. turn/m produces a magnetic induction of 47π Wb / m2 in a bar of iron. Calculate the susceptibility.
Answer:
H = 104 A/m; B = 47π Wb/m2;
µ0 = – 4π × 10-7 H/m
∵ µr µ0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{H}}\)

µr = \(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mu_{0} \mathrm{H}}\)

= \(\frac{4 \pi}{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 10^{4}}\)

∴ Susceptibility χm = µr – 1 = 103 – 1 = 999

Question 106.
A magnet of volume 25 × 10-6 m3 has a magnetic moment of 4π× 10-4 Am2. Calculate the intensity of the magnet.
Answer:
M = 4π × 10-4 Am2;
V = 25 × 10-6 m3
∴ Intensity of the magnetisation I = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{V}}=\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-4}}{25 \times 10^{-6}}\) = 16 π Am.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 107.
The pole strength of a bar magnet is 9.872 × 10-6 Am and its length is 10cm. Calculate the magnetic intensity at a point on its axis at a distance of 20 cm from its midpoint.
Answer:
Pole strength m = 9.872 × 10-6 Am2
Length of the magnet 2l = 10× 10-2 m
Distance d = 20 cm
Magnetic moment M = 2 ml
= 2 × 9.872 × 10-6 × 5 × 10-2 Am2
Intensity of the magnetic field

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 36

Question 108.
Calculate the magnetic intensity at a point distance 20 cm from the mid point on the equatorial line of a bar magnet of pole strength of 10-5 Am and length 10 cm.
Answer:
d = 20 × 10-2 m;
l = 5 × 10-2 m;
m = 10-5 Am

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 37

Question 109.
A current of 1.5 A flows through 5 turns coil of a tangent galvanometer having a diameter 0.3 m. If the deflection of the needle at its centre is 45°, calculate the horizontal intensity of earth’s field at that place.
Answer:
By Tangent galvanometer equation,
F = \(\frac{n I}{2 r}\) = Hh tan θ
No. of turns A = 5;
Current I = 1.5 A;
Radius of the coil r = 0.15 m
Angle of deflection θ = 45°
∴ Horizontal intensity of earth’s magnetic field.
Hh = \(\frac{n \mathrm{I}}{2 r \tan \theta}\)

= \(\frac{5 \times 1.5}{2 \times 1.15 \times \tan 45^{\circ}}\)

= 25 A turn / m.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 110.
Calculate the moment of the couple acting on a freely suspended magnet of moment of 0.2 Wb.m. When it is placed at an angle of 30° with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of strength 50 amp. turns/m.
Answer:
Moment of the couple = 2 ml × H × sin θ = MH sin θ
Magnetic moment M = 0.2 Am2
Magnetic field strength H = 50 A/m
Angle of deflection θ = 30°
Moment of the couple = 0.2 × 50 × sin 30°
= 0.2 × 50 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 5 Nm

Question 111.
Find the magnetic field at the centre of a coil of radius 25 cm having 10 turns, when it .carries a current of 5 amperes.
Answer:
r = 25 × 10-2 m; n = 10; I = 5 ampere.
Magnetic field H = \(\frac{n \mathrm{I}}{2 r}\)

= \(\frac{10 \times 5}{2 \times 2.25 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 100 A turn / m.

Question 112.
Find the field at the centre of a coil of radius 16cm having 10 turns when it carries a , current of 8A.
Answer:
By Tangent galvanometer equation H = \(\frac{n \mathrm{I}}{2 r}\)
No. of turns n = 10;
Current I = 8 A;
Radius of coil ‘r’ = 16 × 10-2 m
∴ Field at the centre of the coil = \(\frac{n \mathrm{I}}{2 r}\)

= \(\frac{10 \times 8}{2 \times 16 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 250 Ampere turn / meter.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 113.
A beam of alpha particles and another beam of protons have same velocity enter a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the magnetic field lines. If the particles describe circular path then calculate the ratio of radii of circular path described by two beams.
Answer:
Radius of circular path r = \(\frac{m \mathrm{~V}}{\mathrm{~Bq}}\)
Radius of circular path described by alpha particles rα = \(\frac{m_{\alpha} V}{\mathrm{~B} q_{\alpha}}\)
Radius of circular path described by protons
rp = \(\frac{m_{p} \mathrm{~V}}{\mathrm{~B} q_{p}}\)

∴ \(\frac{r_{\alpha}}{r_{p}}=\frac{\frac{m_{\alpha}}{q_{\alpha}}}{\frac{m_{p}}{q_{p}}}\)

∴ \([latex]\frac{r_{\alpha}}{r_{p}}=\frac{m_{\alpha}}{q_{d}} \times \frac{q_{p}}{m_{p}}\)[/latex] ………(1)

Mass of a particle = 4 × mass of proton

∴ mα = 4 mp

Charge of a particle = 2 × charge of protons

∴ qα = 4 qp

Substituting (2) and (3) in (1)

\(\frac{r_{\alpha}}{r_{p}}=\frac{4 m_{p}}{2 q_{p}} \times \frac{q_{p}}{m_{p}}=\frac{2}{1}\)
∴ rα : rp = 2 : 1
Ratio of radii of circular path described by a particles and proton is rα : rp = 2 : 1

Question 114.
A long straight wire carrying current produces a magnetic induction of 4 × 10-6 T at a point, 15 cm from the wire. Calculate the current through the wire.
Answer:
B = 4 × 10-6 T;
a = 15 × 10-2 m; I = ?
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi a}\)

∴ I = \(\frac{\mathrm{B} \times 2 \pi a}{\mu_{0}}\)

= \(\frac{4 \times 10^{-6} \times 2 \pi \times 15 \times 10^{-2}}{4 \pi \times 10^{-7}}\)

∴ I = 3A

Question 115.
A circular coil of 200 turns and of radius 20 cm carries a current of 5 A. Calculate the magnetic induction at a point along its axis, at a distance three times the radius of the coil from its centre.
Answer:
n = 200; a = 2 0cm = 2 × 10-1; I = 5A
x = 3a; B = ?

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 38

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 116.
Find the magnetic induction at a point, 10 cm from a long straight wire carrying a current of 10 A.
Answer:
Distance of the point a – 10 × 10-2m
Current I = 10 A
Magnetic induction B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi a}\)

Magnetic induction B = \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 10}{2 \pi \times 10 \times 10^{-2}}\)
= 2 × 10-5 T

Magnetic induction B = 2 × 10-5 T

Question 117.
A circular coil of radius 20 cm has 100 turns wire and it carries a current of 5 A. Find the magnetic induction at a point along its axis at a distance of 20 cm from the centre of the coil.
Answer:
Number of turns n = 100
Current I = 5 A
Distance of the coil a = 20 × 10-2 m
Magnetic induction B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} n I a^{2}}{2\left(a^{2}+x^{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}}\)
Magnetic induction B

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 39

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 118.
A straight wire of length one metre and of resistance 2 Ω is connected across a battery of emf 12 V. The wire is placed normal to a magnetic field of induction 5 × 10-3 T. Find the force on the wire.
Answer:
Length of a wire l = 1 m;
Resistance of the wire R = 2 Ω
Electromotive force E = 12 V;
Magnetic induction B = 5 × 10-3 T
Force on the wire F = BIl
Current I = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{12}{2}\) = 6 A
Force on the wire F = 5 × 10-3 × 6 × 1 = 30 × 10~3 N
Force on the wire = 3 × 10-2 N

Question 119.
A circular coil of 50 turns and radius 25 cm carries a current of 6A. It is suspended in a . uniform magnetic field of induction 10-3 T. The normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle 60° with the field. Calculate the torque of the coil.
Answer:
Number of turns of a coil n = 50
Radius of the coil = 25 × 10-2 m
Current I = 6A
Magnetic field of induction in which the coil is suspended
B = 103 T
Angle θ = 60°
Torque τ = nBI.A sin θ
Area = πr2
= 3.14 × (25 × 10-2)2
= 3.14 × 625 × 10-4
= 1962.5 × 10 m2.
∴ Torque = 50 × 10-3 × 6 × 1962.5 × 10-4 × sin 60
= 300 × 1962.5 × 10-7 × \(\frac{1.732}{2}\)
= 509857.5 × 10-7
= 5.09 × 10-2 Nm
= 5.1 × 10-2 Nm
Torque on the coil = 5.1 × 10-2 Nm.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 120.
A uniform magnetic field 0.5 T is applied normal to the plane of the Dees of a Cyclotron. Calculate the period of the
alternating potential to be applied to the Dees to accelerate deuterons
(mass of deuterons = 3.3 × 10-27 kg and Its charge = 1.6 × 10-19 C).
Answer:
Magnetic field B = 0.5 T;
Mass of deuteron m = 3.3 × 10-27 kg
Charge of deuteron Question = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Time period = \(\frac{2 \pi m}{\mathrm{~B} q}\)
Time of period T = \(\frac{2 \times 3.14 \times 3.3 \times 10^{-27}}{0.5 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)

= \(\frac{6.6 \times 3.14 \times 10^{-27}}{80 \times 10^{-21}}\)

= 0.25905 × 10-6 s = 2.59 × 10-7 s = 2.6 × 10-7 s

Question 121.
A solenoid is 2m long and 3 cm in diameter. It has 5 layers of windings of 1000 turns each and carries a current of 5A. Find the magnetic induction at its centre along its axis.
Answer:
l = 2m, N = 5 × 1000 turns, I = 5 A, B = ?
B = µ0 nI = µ0 \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{l}\)
B = \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 5000 \times 5}{2}\)
B = 1.57 × 10-2 T

Question 122.
A current of 4 A flows through 5 turn coil of a tangent galvanometer having a diameter of 30 cm. If the horizontal, component of Earth’s magnetic induction is 4 × 10-5 T, find the deflection produced in the coil.
Answer:
n = 5; I = 4 A; d = 3 × 10-1 m; Bh = 4 × 10-5 T;
a = 1.5 × 10-1 m; θ = ?
I = \(\frac{2 a \mathrm{~B}_{h}}{\mu_{0} n}\) tan θ

∴ tan θ = \(\frac{\mu_{0} n I}{2 a B_{h}}\)

= \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 5 \times 4}{2 \times 1.5 \times 10^{-1} \times 4 \times 10^{-5}}\)

tan θ = 2.093

∴ θ = 64°28′

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 123.
In a tangent galvanometer, a current of 1A produces as deflection of 30°. Find the current required to produce a deflection of 60°.
Answer:
I1 = 1 A; θ1 = 30°; θ2 = 60°; I2 = ?
I1 = k tan θ1
I2 = k tan θ2

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 40

Question 124.
A long solenoid of length 3m has 4000 turns. Find the current through the solenoid if the magnetic field produced at the centre of the solenoid along its axis is 8 × 10-3 T.
Answer:
Length of solenoid l = 3m
Number of turns of solenoid N = 4000
Magnetic field at its centre B = 8 × 10-3 T
B = µ0 nI

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 41

Question 125.
A Song wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. Calculate the magnetic field at the centre of the coil having n turns.
Answer:
Let the length of the wire be l.
When it is bent into a circular loop of radius R, the magnetic field at the centre of the loop is given by

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 42

The magnetic field at the centre of the coil having n turns = n2 × magnetic field at the centre of the coil.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 126.
A square loop ABCD carrying current (I) is placed near and coplanarwith a long straight conductor XY carrying current (I). Calculate the net force on the loop.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 43

Answer:
Force acting on the side AB, due to current (I) flowing through the conductor XY is given by

F1 = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \times \frac{2 I_{i}}{\frac{L}{2}} \times L\)

= \(\frac{\mu_{0} I_{i}}{\pi}\)

Acting towards XY in the plane of the loop.
Force acting on the side CD due to current I in the conductor XY is given by
F2 = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \times \frac{2 \mathrm{I}_{i}}{\left(\frac{3 \mathrm{~L}}{2}\right)} \times \mathrm{L}\)

= \(\frac{\mu_{0} I_{i}}{3 \pi}\)

Acting away from XY in the plane of the loop. .
∴ Net force acting on the loop
F = F1 – F2

= \(\frac{\mu_{0} I_{i}}{\pi}-\frac{\mu_{0} I_{i}}{3 \pi}=\frac{\mu_{0} I_{i}}{\pi}\left[\frac{1}{1}-\frac{1}{3}\right]\)

F = \(\frac{2}{3} \frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{i}}{\pi}\)

∴ Net force on the loop F = \(\frac{2}{3} \frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{i}}{\pi}\)

Question 127.
A long straight wire of radius (a) carries a steady current (I). The current is uniformly distributed over its cross section. Calculate the ratio of The magnetic fields B and B’ at radial distances \(\frac{a}{2}\) and 2a respectively from the axis of the wire.
Answer:
It is given that the current is uniformly distributed over the cross section of the wire. Hence, the magnetic field at a point, inside the wire at a distance r = \(\frac{a}{2}\) from the axis of the wire is given by

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 44

B’ = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}}{4 \pi a}\) ……………(2)
∴ From equation (1) and (2) we get
B = B’
Ratio of magnetic fields is B : B’ = 1 : 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 128.
An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 × 10-2 T.
Answer:
If the value of \(\frac{e}{m}\) is 1.76 × 1011 C kg-1 then calculate the frequency of revolution of the electron.
Magnetic field B = 3.57 × 10-2 T
Since the electron revolves in a circular path of radius r with velocity v, at the point of equilibrium.
Centripetal force = Lorentz’s force
\(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = B qv = Bev

∴ \(\frac{v}{r}=\frac{\mathrm{B} e}{m}\) ………….(1)

Frequency of revolution of the electron is

v = \(\frac{1}{T}=\frac{v}{2 \pi r}\) ……………(2)

Using equation (1) equation (2) can be Written as
∴ v = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{B} e}{m}\)

v = \(\frac{1}{2 \times 3.14}\) × 3.57 × 10-2 × 1.76 × 1011

= \(\frac{6.28}{6.28}\) × 109 Hz = 1 × 109 Hz
∴ Frequency of revolution of an electron v = 1 × 109 Hz = 1 GHz

Question 129.
If a wire of length 1 metres carrying a current ‘l’. ‘A’ is bent in the form of a circle then calculate the magnitude of the magnetic moment.
Answer:
Circumference of the circle = Length of the wire
∴ 2πr = l
r = \(\frac{l}{2 \pi}\)
∴ r2 = \(\frac{l^{2}}{4 \pi^{2}}\)
Let r be the radius of the circle.
Magnetic moment M = AI
∴ M = AI = πr2l …………(2)
Substituting equation (1) in (2) We get
M = \(\pi\left(\frac{l^{2}}{4 \pi^{2}}\right) I=\frac{l^{2} \mathrm{I}}{4 \pi}\).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 130.
An electron of charge e moves in a circular orbit of radius r around a nucleus. The magnetic field due to orbital motion of the electron at the site of the nucleus is B. Calculate the angular velocity of the electron.
Answer:
Let the charge of the electron be e
Let the velocity of the electron be v
Let the time period of the electron be T
Let the magnetic field due to orbital motion of the electron be B
We know that when an electron moving in a circular orbit is equivalent to a current carrying loop.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 45

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
If the magnetic field induction at the centre of a circular coil of radius V carrying current I is B, then the magnetic induction on the axis of the coil at a distance of √8 r is:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{4}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{8}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{9}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{27}\)

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{27}\)
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 46

Question 2.
A magnetic field exerts a force:
(a) If the charged particle is moving along the magnetic field lines.
(b) If the charged particle is moving inclined to the magnetic field lines.
(c) On a charged particle.
(d) On a uncharged particle.
Answer:
(b) If the charged particle is moving inclined to the magnetic field lines.

Question 3.
A current carrying aluminium wire of diameter 2 mm produces a maximum magnetic field of magnitude of 2 × 10-3 T. Then the current flowing through the wire is:
(a) 5 A
(b) 20 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 40 A
Answer:
(c) 10 A
Hint:
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}}{2 \pi \mathrm{R}}\)

2 × 10-3 = \(\frac{4 \times 3.14 \times 10^{-7} \times I}{2 \times 3.14 \times 1 \times 10^{-3}}\)

2 × 10-3 = I × 2 × 10-7+3 = I × 2 × 10-4
∴ I = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-3} \times 10^{4}}{2}\) = 1 × 101 = 10 A

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 4.
Choose the odd than out:
(a) magnetic field
(b) magnetic dipole moment
(c) electric dipole moment
(d) permeability
Answer:
(c) electric dipole moment

Question 5.
The value of µ0 is :
(a) 4π × 107 A/m
(b) 4π × 10-7 H/m
(c) 4π × 10-8 A/m
(d) 4π × 108 H/m
Answer:
(b) 4π × 10-7 H/m

Question 6.
Two magnetic poles kept Separated by a distance d in vacuum experience a force of 10 N. The force they would experience when kept inside a medium of relative permeability 2, separated by the Same distance is:
(a) 20 N
(b) 10N
(c) 5 N
(d) 40 N
Answer:
(a) 20 N

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 7.
A long magnetic needle of length 2l, magnetic moment M and pole strength m is broken into two at the middle. The magnetic moment and pole strength of each piece will be:
(a) M,M
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{2}\), \(\frac{m}{2}\)
(c) M, \(\frac{m}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{2}\), M
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{2}\), M

Question 8.
Magnetic moment is equal to:
(a) 2lm
(b) lm
(c) \(\frac{2 l}{m}\)
(d) 2ml2
Answer:
(a) 2lm

Question 9.
Unit of magnetic flux is:
(a) Weber
(b) Weber/m2
(c) Tesla
(d) Weber/m
Answer:
(a) Weber

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 10.
The magnetic moment of a magnet is 5 Am2. If the pole strength is 25 A m, what is the length of the magnet?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 25 cm
(d) 1.25 cm
Answer:
(b) 20 cm

Question 11.
The magnetic needle of a tangent galvanometer is kept small because the magnetic field is:
(a) very large
(b) considered to be small and uniform at centre only
(c) such that it is convenient to handle small needle
(d) considered to be large
Answer:
(b) considered to be small and uniform at centre only

Question 12.
The ratio of magnetic inductions at a point along the axial line to that at a point on the equatorial line is:
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 3 : 1
Answer:
(b) 1 : 2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 13.
Magnetic induction at a point along the axial line due to a short bar is B =
(a) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathbf{M}}{4 \pi d^{3}}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} 2 \mathrm{M}}{4 \pi d^{3}}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{M}}{4 \pi d^{2}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mu_{0} 2 M}{4 \pi d^{2}}\)

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} 2 \mathrm{M}}{4 \pi d^{3}}\)

Question 14.
Magnetic induction at a point along the equatoriailine of a bar magnet is B =
(a) \(\frac{\mu_{0} 2 \mathrm{M}}{4 \pi d^{3}}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{M}}{4 \pi d^{2}}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathbf{M}}{4 \pi d^{3}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{M}}{d^{3}}\)

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{M}}{4 \pi d^{2}}\)

Question 15.
Select the odd man out:
(a) Permeability
(b) Susceptibility
(c) Intensity of magnetisation
(d) Permittively
Answer:
(d) Permittively

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 16.
A bar magnet of pole strength and magnetic moment M is divided into two equal pieces by cutting it perpendicular to its length. Then,
(a) pole strength is halved and magnetic moment is halved.
(b) pole strength is doubled and magnetic moment is halved.
(c) pole strength remains same and magnetic moment is halved.
(d) pole strength is doubled and magnetic moment is doubled.
Answer:
(c) pole strength remains same and magnetic moment is halved.

Question 17.
The angle of dip is 90° at the:
(a) geographic pole
(b) magnetic pole
(c) magnetic equator
(d) 90° latitude
Answer:
(b) magnetic pole

Question 18.
The vertical component of the earth’s is magnetic field is zero at the:
(a) 45° latitude
(b) magnetic poles
(c) magnetic equator
(d) magnetic axis
Answer:
(c) magnetic equator

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 19.
The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic’ field is √3 times the vertical component. Then the angle of dip at that place is:
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 30°
Answer:
(d) 30°
Hint:
BH = B cos θ; Bv = B sin θ
\(\frac{\mathbf{B}_{\mathbf{V}}}{\mathbf{B}_{\mathbf{H}}}\) = tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
∴ θ = 30°

Question 20.
Which of the following statement is correct for the following situation.
The direction of the force experienced by a charged particle moving with a velocity v in a uniform magnetic field is
(a) parallel to both v and B
(b) perpendicular to both v and B
(c) perpendicular to B and parallel to v
(d) perpendicular to v and parallel to B
Answer:
(b) perpendicular to both v and B

Question 21.
Which of the following statements are incorrect for the following situation. The magnetic field inside a straight solenoid.
(i) is uniform throughout the solenoid
(ii) depends on current in the solenoid
(iii) depends on number of turns of the solenoid
(iv) is perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iii)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 22.
Select the incorrect statement from the following statement for the given situation. The force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field B with a velocity v is zero if:
(a) v is parallel to B
(b) v is anti parallel to B
(c) v is perpendicular to B
(d) v = 0
Answer:
(c) v is perpendicular to B

Question 23.
Select the correct statements for the magnetic field due to a toroidal solenoid depends upon the,
(i) current in the solenoid
(ii) number of toms in solenoid
(iii) permeability of the core of the solenoid
(iv) radius of the toroid
(a) (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Hint:
B = µnI

Question 24.
Choose the incorrect statement from the following case:
The direction of force experienced by a charged particle moving with a velocity in a magnetic field B is
(i) parallel to v and perpendicular to B
(ii) parallel to B and perpendicular to v
(iii) perpendicular to both v and B
(iv) parallel to both v and B
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 25.
Assertion:
If a charged particle enters in the region of non-uniform magnetic field in the direction of magnetic field it will I be accelerated at non-uniform state in the region.
Reason:
The force experienced by a particle of charge Question moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) in a magnetic field B is given by \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{F}}=q(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\)
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
Hint:
If v is parallel to B then force F = 0. Hence it is not accelerated in the region.

Question 26.
The inherent nature of all matter out of the following is:
(a) paramagnetism
(b) ferromagnetism
(c) diamagnetism
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) diamagnetism

Question 27.
The relative permeability can be expressed as:
(a) µr = 1 + µ0
(b) µr = 1 + k
(c) µr = 1 + \(\frac{\boldsymbol{k}}{\mu_{0}}\)
(d) µr = µr + k
Answer:
(b) µr = 1 + k

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 28.
Magnetic susceptibility k is given by the relation:
(a) k = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{H}}\)

(b) k = \(\frac{b}{\mathrm{H}}\)

(c) k = \(\frac{\mathrm{H}}{\mathrm{I}}\)

(d) k = \(\frac{\mathrm{H}}{\mathrm{B}}\)

Answer:
(a) k = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{H}}\)

Question 29.
The ratio of flux density to the magnetic field strength inside the same medium is called:
(a) magnetic permeability
(b) intensity of magnetisation
(c) magnetic susceptibility
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) magnetic permeability

Question 30.
Intensity of magnetisation of material is equal to:
(a) I / H
(b) M / V
(c) I + K
(d) V / M
Answer:
(b) M / V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 31.
The permeabilities of para and ferromagnetic materials are:
(a) greater than unity
(b) lesser than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) negative
Answer:
(a) greater than unity

Question 32.
For which of the following substances, the magnetic susceptibility is independent of temperature?
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) diamagnetic and paramagnetic
Answer:
(a) diamagnetic

Question 33.
At curie point, a ferromagnetic material becomes:
(a) non-magnetic
(b) diamagnetic
(c) paramagnetic
(d) strongly ferromagnetic
Answer:
(c) paramagnetic

Question 34.
Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has:
(a) low susceptibility and low retentivity
(b) high susceptibility and low retentivity
(c) high susceptibility and high retentivity
(d) low permeability and high retentivity
Answer:
(b) high susceptibility and low retentivity

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 35.
The mathematical expression for magnetic flux is:
(a) Φ = \(\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}}{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}}\)

(b) Φ = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\)

(c) Φ = \(\overrightarrow{\text { B }} \cdot \vec{A}\)

(d) Φ = \(\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}}{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}}\)
Answer:
(c) Φ = \(\overrightarrow{\text { B }} \cdot \vec{A}\)

Question 36.
The unit of intensity of magnetisation is:
(a) Am-2
(b) A2m
(c) Am
(d) A/m
Answer:
(d) A/m

Question 37.
Domains are due to:
(a) covalent bonds
(b) doping
(c) spin exchange interaction
(d) hysteresis loss
Answer:
(c) spin exchange interaction

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 38.
Example of paramagnetic substance is:
(a) Bi
(b) Zn
(c) CuSO4
(d) Co
Answer:
(c) CuSO4

Question 39.
Nickel is a __________ material.
(a) diamagnetic
(b) ferromagnetic
(c) paramagnetic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) ferromagnetic

Question 40.
The relation between the magnetic permeability (µ), magnetic susceptibility (K), intensity of magnetisation (I) and magnetic induction (B) is:
(a) µ = \(\frac{\mathrm{BI}}{\mathrm{K}}\)

(b) K = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{I}}\)

(c) I = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{K}}\)

(d) B = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{K}}\)

Answer:
(d) B = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{K}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 41.
For diamagnetism, the value of relative permeability is:
(a) µr < 1
(b) µr = 1
(c) µr << 1
(d) µr >> 1
Answer:
(a) µr < 1

Question 42.
The relative permeability of a specimen is 10001 and magnetising field strength is 2500 Am-1. The intensity of magnetisation is:
(a) 0.5 × 10-7 Am-1
(b) 2.5 ×10-7 Am-1
(c) 2.5 × 10+7 Am-1
(d) 2.5 × 10-1 Am-1
Answer:
(c) 2.5 × 10+7 Am-1

Question 43.
Match the following quantities given in Column I and Column II.

Column I Column II
(i) Magnetising field (H) (A)Vm-1
(ii) Permeability (B) Am-1
(Hi) Electric field (C) N m2 C2
(iv) Permitivity (D) N C-1
 (E) H m-1

(a) (i) – (D); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)
(b) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (A); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (D)
(d) (i) – (A); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (A); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (C)

Question 44.
Which of the following does not depend upon temperature?
(a) ferromagnetism
(b) paramagnetism
(c) diamagnetism
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) diamagnetism

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 45.
Unit of magnetic moment is:
(a) Weber.metre-1
(b) Weber.metre
(c) Weber.metre2
(d) ampere/metre
Answer:
(b) Weber.metre

Question 46.
If the pole strength of a magnet is 12 Am and its length is 8cm then magnetic moment of the magnet is:
(a) 9.6 Am2
(b) 96 × 10-2 Am2
(c) 0.96 × 10-2Am2
(d) 1.98 × 10-2 Am2
Answer:
(b) 96 × 10-2 Am2

Question 47.
The value of total magnetic induction of Earth’s field at a place where dip is 45° and horizontal component is 3 × 10 s T is:
(a) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}\) × 10-5 T
(b) 6 × 10-5 T
(c) 3√2 × 10-5 T
(d) √3 × 10-5 T
Answer:
(c) 3√2 × 10-5 T

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 48.
Two short bar magnets produce null deflection in a magnetometer needle, when their centres are respectively. 30 cm and 40 cm from the needle. The ratio of their magnetic moment is:
(a) 9 : 16
(b) 27 : 64
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 3 : 4
Answer:
(b) 27 : 64

Question 49.
A magnet of volume 25 × 10-6 m3 has a magnetic moment of 4π × 10-4 Am2. The intensity of the magnet is:
(a) 4π Am-1
(b) 8π Am-1
(c) 16π Am-1
(d) 0.4π Am-1
Answer:
(c) 16π Am-1

Question 50.
If relative permeability of a bar of iron is 10,000 then its susceptibility is:
(a) 999
(b) 9999
(c) 10001
(d) 4999
Answer:
(b) 9999

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 51.
The current passing through a coil of radius 8 cm giving 80 turns when the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is 200 A-turn/metre is:
(a) 4 A
(b) 8 A
(c) 0.8 A
(d) 0.4 A
Answer:
(d) 0.4 A

Question 52.
A sample of iron is placed to a magnetic field 100 amp turps pet metre. If the flux density of the sample is 1.2 Tesla; then which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) µ = 1.3 × 10-3 H /m µr = 930, K = 936
(b) µ = 1.2 × 10-3 H/m, µr = 955, K = 954
(c) µ = 1.1 × 10-3 H/ m, µr= 956, K = 955
(d) µ = 1.2 × 10-3 H/ m, µr = 935, K = 934
Answer:
(b) µ = 1.2 × 10-3 H/m, µr = 955, K = 954
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 47

Question 53.
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:
(a) ferromagnetic materials only
(b) paramagnetic materials only
(c) diamagnetic materials only
(d) diamagnetic materials and ferromagnetic materials
Answer:
(c) diamagnetic materials only

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 54.
The dimension of magnetic susceptibility is
(a) ML-1T-1
(b) M°L-2
(c) M°L°T°
(d) M°L°T-1
Answer:
(c) M°L°T°

Question 55.
Which one of the following material is used for making permanent magnet?
(a) bronze
(b) copper
(c) platinum
(d) Alnico
Answer:
(d) Alnico

Question 56.
Which of the following is an artificial magnet?
(a) Magnetic needle
(b) Magnetic compass
(c) Horse shoe magnet
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 57.
A current I flows along the length of an ^ infinitely long straight thin walled pipe. Then the magnetic field:
(a) is different at different points inside the pipe.
(b) at all points inside the pipe is zero.
(c) at any point inside the pipe is zero.
(d) is zero only” on the axis of the pipe.
Answer:
(c) at any point inside the pipe is zero.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 58.
The force experienced by the charged particle in the magnetic field is:
(a) in the Y – Z plane
(b) in the X – Y plane
(c) along the negative Y – direction
(d) along the positive Y – direction
Answer:
(d) along the positive Y – direction

Question 59.
Assertion:
If a charged particle is released from rest enters in a region where uniform electric and magnetic fields act parallel to each other, then it will move along a linear path.
Reason:
The magnetic field exerts a force on the charged particle. The electric field exerts no force on it. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is false and reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true and reason is false
Answer:
(d) Assertion is true and reason is false
Hint:
Electric force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{E}\) = Question \(\vec{E}\)
Magnetic force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{B}\) = v × \(\vec{B}\)
Since \(\vec{E}\) is parallel to \(\vec{B}\)
\(\vec{v}\) is parallel to \(\vec{B}\)
\(\vec{v}\) × \(\vec{B}\) = 0
Motion of the particle is not affected by \(\vec{B}\)

Question 60.
Assertion:
The charge of two particles is equal. They have masses m1 and m2. They are accelerated by the s2tme potential difference (V). So they enter a region of magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii r1 and r2. respectively. Then
\(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}=\frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}}\)
Reason:
Work done to accelerate the charged particle through a potential difference V is equal to the gain in kinetic energy.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(d) Assertion is True but Reason is false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 48

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 61.
__________ effect of electric current is the important physical consequence of electric current.
(a) Chemical
(b) Lighting
(c) Magnetic
(d) Thermoelectric
Answer:
(c) Magnetic

Question 62.
What is produced by a steady electric current in surrounding space?
(a) Gravitational field
(b) Magnetic field
(c) Electric field
(d) Equipotential field
Answer:
(b) Magnetic field

Question 63.
Which of the following effects is a cause and a consequence of electric current?
(a) Magnetic effect
(b) Chemical effect
(c) Thermoelectric effect
(d) Mechanical effect
Answer:
(c) Thermoelectric effect

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 64.
Match Column I with Column II.

Column I Column II
(i) A uniformly charged stationary ring (A) Electric field
(ii) A uniformly charged ring rotating with a constant angular velocity (B) Magnetic field
(iii) A coil carrying a current I = I0 sin ωt (C) Magnetic moment
(iv) A wire carrying a constant current. (D) Induced electric field
 (E) Magnetising field
 (F) Radial magnetic field

(a) (i) – (C); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (C) and (E); (iv) – (A), (E), (F)
(b) (i) – (E); (ii) – (F); (iii) – (B) and (E); (iv) – (B), (C), (D)
(c) (i) – (B); (ii) – (A), (B) and (C); (iii) – (A) (B) and (D); (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (A); (ii) – (E), (B), (C); (iii) – (E) and (F); (iv) – (A), (B), (F)
Answer:
(c) (i) – (B); (ii) – (A), (B) and (C); (iii) – (A) (B) and (D); (iv) – (B)

Question 65.
Which of the following equations represents Biot-savart law?
(a) d\(\vec{B}\) = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{I} d l}{r^{2}}\)

(b) d\(\vec{B}\) = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \mu} \frac{\mathrm{I} d l \sin \theta}{r^{2}}\)

(c) d\(\vec{B}\) = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{I} d \vec{l} \times \vec{r}}{r^{2}}\)

(d) d\(\vec{B}\) = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{I} d l \times \vec{r}}{r^{3}}\)
Answer:
(d) d\(\vec{B}\) = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{I} d l \times \vec{r}}{r^{3}}\)

Question 66.
Magnetic induction (due to an infinitely long straight conductor placed in a medium of permeability p is:
(a) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}}{4 \pi a}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}}{2 \pi a}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{4 \pi a}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{2 \pi a}\)

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{2 \pi a}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 67.
Of the following devices, which has small resistance?
(a) moving coil galvanometer
(b) ammeter of range 0 – 1 A
(c) ammeter of range 0 – 10 A
(d) Voltmeter
Answer:
(c) ammeter of range 0 – 10 A

Question 68.
A galvanometer of resistance G Ω is shunted with SΩ. The effective resistance of the combination is R. Then, which of the following statement is true?
(a) G is less than S
(b) S is less than Ra but greater than G.
(c) Ra is less than both G and S
(d) S is less than both G and Ra
Answer:
(c) Ra is less than both G and S

Question 69.
Nichrome wire is used as the heating element because it has:
(a) low specific resistance
(b) low melting point
(c) high specific resistance
(d) high conductivity
Answer:
(c) high specific resistance

Question 70.
Peltier coefficient at a junction of a thermocouple depends on:
(a) the current in the thermocouple
(b) the time for which current flows
(c) the temperature of the junction
(d) the charge that passes through the thermocouple
Answer:
(c) the temperature of the junction

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 71.
In a thermocouple, the temperature of the cold junction is 20°C, the neutral temperature is 270°C. The temperature of inversion is:
(a) 520°C
(b) 540°C
(c) 500°C
(d) 510°C
Answer:
(a) 520°C

Question 72.
Joule’s law of heating is:
(a) H = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\) t
(b) H = V2 Rt
(c) H = VIt
(d) H = IR2t
Answer:
(c) H = VIt

Question 73.
In a thermocouple peltier coefficient is:
(a) more at hot junction
(b) more at cold junction
(c) same at hot and cold junction
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) same at hot and cold junction

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 74.
Seebeck effect is a ____________ effect.
(a) reversible
(b) irreversible
(c) heating
(d) chemical
Answer:
(a) reversible

Question 75.
The position of the metal in Seebeck series depends upon:
(a) current
(b) electromotive force
(c) temperature
(d) potential
Answer:
(c) temperature

Question 76.
Electric arc and electric welding work on the principle of effect of current.
(a) chemical
(b) heating
(c) lighting
(d) mechanical
Answer:
(b) heating

Question 77.
Joule’s law is verified using:
(a) Magnetometer
(b Calorimeter
(c) Galvanometer
(d) Joule’s calorimeter
Answer:
(d) Joule’s calorimeter

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 78.
Joule heating effect is undesirable in:
(a) galvanometer
(b) calorimeter
(c) transformer
(d) transformer and dynamo
Answer:
(d) transformer and dynamo

Question 79.
Which of the following is not thermoelectric effect?
(a) Seebeck effect
(b) Peltier effect
(c) Joule effect
(d) Thomson effect
Answer:
(c) Joule effect

Question 80.
The appliances that work on the principle of heating effect of current are:
(a) electric iron, torch light
(b) electric iron, electric bell
(c) electric iron, electric heater
(d) electric iron, electric heater and electric toaster
Answer:
(d) electric iron, electric heater and electric toaster

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 81.
In an electric circuit, fuse wire is:
(a) not at all connected
(b) connected in series
(c) connected
(d) connected in parallel
Answer:
(b) connected in series

Question 82.
The constituents of the element by which the fuse wire is made up of are:
(a) Lead 37% zinc63%
(b) Lead 37% tin 63%
(c) Lead 28% tin 72%
(d) Zinc 28% tin 72%
Answer:
(b) Lead 37% tin 63%

Question 83.
According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced is given by :
(a) IR2t
(b) I2Rt
(c) IRt2
(d) I2R2t
Answer:
(b) I2Rt

Question 84.
Heater coils are all made up of an alloy called:
(a) manganin
(b) constantan
(c) nichrome
(d) alloy
Answer:
(c) nichrome

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 85.
Cyclotron was devised by:
(a) Oersted
(b) Faraday
(c) Lawrence
(d) Lorentz
Answer:
(c) Lawrence

Question 86.
The magnetic Lorentz force on a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field, when it is at rest is:
(a) Zero
(b) BqV
(c) BqV cos θ
(d) BqV tan θ
Answer:
(a) Zero

Question 87.
The unit of Thomson coefficient is:
(a) volt
(b) ampere
(c) volt per°C
(d) ohm
Answer:
(c) volt per°C

Question 88.
The plane of T.G coil should be in a direction of:
(a) East-West
(b) Eastern North
(c) North-South
(d) Western North
Answer:
(c) North-South

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 89.
The Torque experienced by a rectangular current loop placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field is:
(a) maximum
(b) zero
(c) finite minimum
(d) infinity
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 90.
The direction of magnetic field:
(a) depends on the direction of the current in the conductors.
(b) does not depend on the direction of the current in the conductors.
(c) does not depend on the direction of the motion of the conductor.
(d) depends on the direction of motion of the conductor.
Answer:
(a) depends on the direction of the current in the conductors.

Question 91.
The unit of magnetic induction is:
(a) weber
(b) ampere/m2
(c) tesla
(d) weber/m2 or tesla
Answer:
(d) weber/m2 or tesla

Question 92.
Which of the following works on the principle of tangent law?
(a) Deflection magnetometer
(b) Moving coil galvanometer
(c) Voltmeter
(d) Tangent galvanometer
Answer:
(d) Tangent galvanometer

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 93.
Which of the following gives the direction of magnetic field?
(a) Faraday’s law
(b) Ohm’s law
(c) Maxwell’s rule
(d) Biot-Savart law
Answer:
(c) Maxwell’s rule

Question 94.
In a tangent galvanometer the angle between the planes of the circular coil and the circular scale is:
(a) 0°
(b) 25°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans
(c) 90°

Question 95.
The magnetic needle of a tangent galvanometer is kept small because the magnetic field is:
(a) very large
(b) considered to be small and uniform at centre only
(c) such that it is convenient to handle small needle
(d) very small
Answer:
(b) considered to be small and uniform at centre only

Question 96.
Tangent galvanometer is used for measuring:
(a) potential
(b) current
(c) resistance
(d) electric power
Answer:
(b) current

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 97.
The tangent galvanometer is most sensitive around a deflection of:
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 30°
(d) 60°
Answer:
(b) 45°

Question 98.
In a tangent galvanometer a current 1 A, produces a deflection of 30°. The current required to produce a deflection of 60° is:
(a) 3 A
(b) 2 A
(c) √3 A
(d) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Answer:
(a) 3 A

Question 99.
An ammeter of resistance 0.8 Ω can measure current upto 1 A. The shunt resistance connected with ammeter so that it can measure current upto 5.0 A is:
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 0.2 Ω
(c) 20 Ω
(d) 4 Ω
Answer:
(b) 0.2 Ω

Question 100.
Fuse wire is an alloy of:
(a) Lead and Tin
(b) Tin and Copper
(c) Lead and Copper
(d) Lead and iron
Answer:
(a) Lead and Tin

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 101.
What is the reduction factor of a tangent galvanometer having 6 turn coil of diameter 30 cm, if the horizontal intensity of earth’s field at the pole is 50 A-tum/m?
(a) 2
(b) 3.5
(c) 1.5
(d) 2.5
Answer:
(d) 2.5

Question 102.
A coil of 50 turns and radius 10 cm and another coil of 25 turns and radius 5 cm are connected in series. If the current flowing through the coil is 3A, then the ratio of magnetic fields at the centre of the first coil to that at the centre of the second coil is:
(а) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
Answer:
(b) 1 : 1

Question 103.
A tangent galvanometer produces deflection of 45° for a current of 0.3 A at a place, where the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 30-A-turn/m. If the diameter of the coil of the tangent galvanometer is 10 cm, then the number of turns of the coil is:
(a) 20
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 14
Answer:
(c) 10

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 104.
Two conductors each of length 12m be parallel to each other at a distance of 15 cm in air. The current in each conductor is 300 A. Then the force tending to pull the conductors together is:
(a) 14.4 N
(b) 2.88 N
(c) 1.44 N
(d) 0.72 N
Answer:
(c) 1.44 N

Question 105.
A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω is shunted with a wire of 10 ohm. The current through the galvanometer when a current of 12 A flows in the circuit is:
(a) 1 A
(b) 4 A
(c) 6 A
(d) 2 A
Answer:
(b) 4 A

Question 106.
The magnetic field of induction applied to a cyclotron is 0.3 T. The frequency of the RF oscillator required to accelerate a particle of mass 1.67 × 10-27 kg is :
(a) 45.7 Hz
(b) 4.57 kHz
(c) 4.57 MHz
(d) 45.7 kHz
Answer:
(c) 4.57 MHz

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 107.
The ratio of time periods of proton and alpha particle kept in a uniform magnetic field is:
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 4 .
Answer:
(b) 2 : 1

Question 108.
Which of the following combination of current and time will produce more heat in a heating element? ,
(a) 4 ampere current flowing for 3 minutes
(b) 2 ampere current flowing for 5 minutes
(c) 2 ampere current flowing for 10 minutes
(d) 5 ampere current flowing for 2 minutes
Answer:
(d) 5 ampere current flowing for 2 minutes

Question 109.
Magnetic flux density at the centre of a circular coil of diameter 20 cm carrying a current of 5 A kept in air is:
(a) 6.28 × 10-5 T
(b) 3.14 × 10-5 T
(c) 10-7 T
(d) 1.57 × 10-5 T
Answer:
(b) 3.14 × 10-5 T

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 110.
The resistance of a wire is 10 ohm at 20°C. The temperature coefficient of the material of the wire is 0.004 per°C. The resistance of the wire at 40°C is:
(a) \(\frac{11.6}{1.08}\) ohm

(b) \(\frac{11.8}{1.04}\) ohm

(c) \(\frac{1.16}{1.08}\) ohm

(d) \(\frac{10.6}{1.08}\) ohm

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{11.6}{1.08}\) ohm

Question 111.
The ratio of the resistance of a conductor at a temperature of 15°C to its resistance at a temperature of 37.5°C is 4 : 5. What is the temperature coefficient of resistance of the conductor?
(a) \(\frac{1}{150}\)

(b) \(\frac{1}{25}\)

(c) \(\frac{1}{50}\)

(d) \(\frac{1}{75}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{25}\)

Question 112.
A current of 2A flows through a resistor for 8 second and a current of 8 A flows through the same resistor for 2 second. The ratio of the heats developed will be:
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
Answer:
(a) 1 : 4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 113.
The expression for Bohr magneton is:
(a) \(\frac{e h}{4 \pi m}\)

(b) \(\frac{4 \pi m}{e h}\)

(c) \(\frac{4 e h}{\pi m}\)

(d) \(\frac{2 \pi m}{e h}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{e h}{4 \pi m}\)

Question 114.
The numerical value of Bohr magneton is:
(a) 9.27 × 1024 Am2
(b) 92.7 × 10-27 Am2
(c) 9.67 × 1024 Am2
(d) 9.27 × 10-24 Am2
Answer:
(d) 9.27 × 10-24 Am2

Question 115.
The magnetic polarity of the current carrying solenoid is given by:
(a) Maxwell’s rule
(b) End rule
(c) Ampere’s rule
(d) Biot-Savart law
Answer:
(b) End rule

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 116.
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot d \vec{l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{0}\) is the mathematical representa-tion of:
(a) Biot-Savart law
(b) Ampere’s swimming rule
(c) Ohm’s law
(d) Ampere’s circuital law
Answer:
(d) Ampere’s circuital law

Question 117.
A long closely wound helical coil is called:
(a) circular loop
(b) coil
(c) solenoid
(d) toroid
Answer:
(c) solenoid

Question 118.
The magnetic field associated with each single turn are almost:
(a) curves
(b) straight lines
(c) parabola
(d) concentric circles
Answer:
(d) concentric circles

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 119.
The value of magnetic field at a point outside of a solenoid is:
(a) finite
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) nearly zero
Answer:
(d) nearly zero

Question 120.
At the interior mid point of a solenoid, the magnetic field is:
(a) weak
(b) strong
(c) weak and along the axis of a solenoid
(d) strong and along the axis of a solenoid
Answer:
(d) strong and along the axis of a solenoid

Question 121.
The magnetic induction at a distance R from a long linear conductor is:
(a) directly proportional to current and distance R
(b) directly proportional to current but inversely proportional to the distance R
(c) directly proportional to the square of the current but inversely to the distance R
(d) directly proportional to the current but inversely to the square of the distance (R2)
Answer:
(d) directly proportional to the current but inversely to the square of the distance (R2)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 122.
Magnetic induction (B) at a point due to a straight conductor carrying current is:
(a) B = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{4 \pi d}\)

(b) B = \(\frac{4 \pi \mu \mathrm{I}}{d}\)

(c) B = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{4 \pi d}\)

(d) B = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{2 \pi d}\)

Answer:
(d) B = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{2 \pi d}\)

Question 123.
A conductor of length 3 m is at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of 0.6 T. A current of 2 A flowing through the conductor produces a force of:
(a) 1.6 N
(b) 1.8 N
(c) 3.6 N
(d) 3.2 N
Answer:
(c) 3.6 N

Question 124.
The number of turns of a coil of radius 10 cm required to produce a magnetic field of 4π × 10-4 T at the centre with a current of 4 A is:
(a) 500
(b) 100
(c) 25
(d) 50
Answer:
(d) 50

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 125.
The magnitude and direction of Lorentz force is:
(a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=q(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}})\)

(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=q(\vec{v} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\)

(c) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\vec{v}(Question \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\)

(d) F = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}(Question \times \vec{v})\)
Answer:
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=q(\vec{v} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\)

Question 126.
The expression for time period of motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field is given by:
(a) T = \(\frac{\mathrm{B} q}{2 \pi m}\)

(b) T = \(\frac{2 \pi m}{\mathrm{~B} q}\)

(c) T = \(\frac{B q}{2 m}\)

(d) T = \(\frac{2 m}{\pi B q}\)
Answer:
(b) T = \(\frac{2 \pi m}{\mathrm{~B} q}\)

Question 127.
The magnetic induction (B) at the centre of a current carrying circular loop is:
(a) \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{2 r}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mu . r}{2 \mathrm{I}}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I} r}{2}\)

(d) \(\frac{2 \mu}{\mathrm{I} r}\)

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{I}}{2 r}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 128.
The relation between current and drift velocity is:
(a) I = nAvd
(b) I = nAvde
(c) I = \(\frac{n \mathrm{~A}}{e v_{d}}\)
(d) I = \(\frac{e v_{d}}{n \mathrm{~A}}\)
Answer:
(b) I = nAvde

Question 129.
The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r carrying current I is:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{2 r}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 r}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I r}{2}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{2 \mu_{0} r}\)

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{2 r}\)

Question 130.
Which one of the following is particle accelerator?
(a) Nuclear reactor
(b) Cyclotron
(c) Geiger counter
(d) Lightning arrester
Answer:
(b) Cyclotron

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 131.
A cyclotron is a device for accelerating:
(a) light particles
(b) heavy particles
(c) charged particles
(d) electrons
Answer:
(c) charged particles

Question 132.
Cyclotron can accelerate particle.
(a) beta
(b) an elementary
(c) alpha
(d) any
Answer:
(c) alpha

Question 133.
Cyclotron cannot accelerate:
(a) electrons
(b) a particles
(c) proton
(d) deuteron
Answer:
(a) electrons

Question 134.
Two parallel wires carrying same current in the same direction will experience:
(a) attractive force
(b) magnetic force
(c) electric force
(d) repulsive force
Answer:
(a) attractive force

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 135.
A galvanometer can be converted into voltmeter by connecting a:
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) low resistance in series
(c) high resistance in parallel
(d) high resistance in series
Answer:
(d) high resistance in series

Question 136.
The voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer is given by:
(a) \(\frac{n \mathrm{BA}}{\mathrm{CG}}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{CG} \theta}{n \mathrm{BA}}\)

(c) \(\frac{n \mathrm{AG}}{\mathrm{A}} \theta\)

(d) \(\frac{n \mathrm{~A} \theta}{\mathrm{CBG}}\)

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{n \mathrm{BA}}{\mathrm{CG}}\)

Question 137.
If A is the loop area and I is the strength of current flowing through it, then magnetic moment is:
(a) \(\frac{I}{A}\)

(b) IA

(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{A}}{\mathrm{I}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{IA}}\)

Answer:
(b) IA

Question 138.
Peltier effect is the converse of:
(a) Joule effect
(b) Raman effect
(c) Thomson effect
(d) Seebeck effect
Answer:
(d) Seebeck effect

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 139.
The unit of reduction factor of tangent galvanometer is:
(a) no unit
(b) tesla
(c) ampere
(d) ampere / degree
Answer:
(c) ampere

Question 140.
In a tangent galvanometer, for a constant current, the deflection is 30°. The plane of the coil is rotated through 90°. Now, for the same current, the deflection will be:
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 0°
Answer:
(d) 0°

Question 141.
Which of the following principles is used in a thermopile?
(a) Thomson effect
(b) Peltier effect
(c) Seebeck effect
(d) Joule’s effect
Answer:
(c) Seebeck effect

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 142.
An ideal voltmeter has:
(a) zero resistance
(b) finite resistance between zero and G;
(c) resistance greater than G but less than infinity
(d) infinite resistance
Answer:
(d) infinite resistance

Question 143.
Which of the following graphs represent the variation of magnetic susceptibility with absolute temperature for a ferromagnetic material?
(a) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 49

(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 50

(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 51

(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 52

Answer:
(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 52
Hint:
As temperature of a ferromagnetic material is increased its susceptibility first remains constant. Then decreases that is shown by the graph (d).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 144.
Which one of the following is not made up of soft iron?
(a) Core of transformer
(b) Core of dynamo
(c) Electromagnet
(d) Magnet of a loudspeaker
Answer:
(d) Magnet of a loudspeaker
Hint:
Magnet of a loudspeaker is made from permanent magnet.

Question 145.
Which one of the following graphs represent the relationship between magnetic moment and temperature of magnet?
(a) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 53

(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 54

(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 55

(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 56

Answer:
(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 55
Hint:
When temperature is increased, the magnetic moment will increase and at critical temperature it becomes zero.

Question 146.
A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform, horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium.
The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\sqrt{3}}\)

(b) √3 W
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3} \mathrm{~W}}{2}\)

(d) \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~W}}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Answer:
(b) √3 W
Hint:
Workdone in rotating the magnet
W = MB(cos θ0 – cos θ) = MB(cos 0° – cos 60°)

W = MB[1 – \(\frac{1}{2}\)] = \(\frac{\mathrm{MB}}{2}\)
∴ MB = 2 W ……….(1)
Torque on a magnet in this position is τ = M × B = M B sin θ = 2 W sin 60°
τ =2W × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) = √3 W

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 147.
When a current flows along length of a long thin cylindrical shell on which charge is uniformly distributed. Match the physical quantities given in Column I and II.

Column I Column II
(i) Magnetiafield at all points lying inside the shell. (A) inversely proportional to the distance from the axis of the coil.
(ii) Magnetic field at any point outside the shell (B) infinity
(iii) Magnetic field is maximum of the shell. (C) inversely proportional to radius of the ‘ shell.
(iv) Magnetic field on the axis of the shell. (D) just outside the shell
 (E) zero

(a) (i) – (E); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (A); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (D)
(c) (i) – (B); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (C); (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (C); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (E); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (C)

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 1.
What is meant by Current electricity?
Answer:
Current electricity is the study of flow of electric charges.

Question 2.
What are free electrons?
Answer:
Atoms in metals have one or more electrons that are loosely bound to the nucleus. They are called free electrons.

Question 3.
What are conductors?
Answer:
Conductors are the substances that have an abundance of free electrons.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 4.
The positive ions will not give rise to current – Why?
Answer:
The positive ions will not move freely within the material like the free electron. So, the positive ions will not give rise to current.

Question 5.
Define one ampere.
Answer:
One ampere of current is defined as one coulomb of charge passing through a perpendicular cross-section in one second.

Question 6.
Define mobility of the electron.
Answer:
Mobility of the electron is defined as the magnitude of the drift velocity per unit electric field.
μ = \(\frac{\left|\vec{v}_{d}\right|}{|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}|}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 7.
State the units of (i) drift velocity and (ii) mobility.
Answer:
(i) Unit of drift velocity m / s
(ii) Unit of mobility m2 / Vs.

Question 8.
What are carbon resistors?
Answer:
Carbon resistors are the resistors containing a ceramic core on which a thin layer of i crystalline carbon is deposited.

Question 9.
What is a thermistor?
Answer:
A thermistor is a semiconductor with a negative temperature coefficient of resistance.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 10.
State the factors on which does the resistivity of material depends?
Answer:
(i) Number density (n) of the electrons.
(ii) The average time between two collisions.

Question 11.
What are super conductors?
Answer:
Super conductors are the materials in which their resistance becomes zero below the transition temperature.

Question 12.
Name the metals that exhibit positive Thomson effect.
Answer:
Silver Zinc and cadmium.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 13.
Mention the metals in which negative – Thomson effect is observed.
Answer:
Platinum, nickel, Cobalt and Mercury.

Question 14.
How is very high temperature produced in the electrical furnace?
Answer:
Very high temperatures up to 1500°C is produced in the electrical furnace by using molybdenum nichrome wire wound over a silica tube.

Question 15.
Define electric current.
Electric current in a conductor is defined as the rate of flow of charges through a given cross-sectional area.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 16.
Define drift velocity.
Answer:
Drift velocity is defined as the average velocity acquired by the electrons inside the conductor when it is subjected to an electric field.

Question 17.
Draw the graphical representation for
(i) Ohmic conductor
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 1

(ii) non ohmic conductor
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 2

Question 18.
Define resistance. State its unit.
Answer:
Resistance is defined as the ratio of potential difference across the given conductor to the current passing through the conductor.
R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
Its unit is Ohm.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 19.
What is meant by transition temperature?
Answer:
Transition Temperature is the temperature below which the resistance of a super conductor becomes zero.

Question 20.
Answer:
Repairing the electrical connections with wet hands is always dangerous. Give reason.
Answer:
For a human body, the resistance of dry skin is high and around 500 k Ω. But the wet skin of hands has less resistance and around 1000 Ω Ohm. Hence a large amount of current can flow through the wet hands. Hence it always dangerous.

Question 21.
Why are household appliance always connected in parallel?
Answer:
They are connected in parallel so that even if one is switched off, the other devices could function properly.

Question 22.
Distinguish electromotive force from the potential difference.
Answer:

Electromotive force Potential difference
It is the difference of potentials between two terminals of a cell in an open circuit. It is the difference in potentials between any two points in a closed circuit.
It is an independent of external resistance of the circuit. It is proportional to the resistance between any two points.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 23.
How ohm’s law is derived from drift velocity relates current formula?
Answer:
The current flowing through a conductor is,

I = nAevd

But vd = \(\frac{e \mathrm{E}}{m} \cdot \tau\)

I = nAe \(\frac{e \mathrm{E}}{m} \cdot \tau\)

I = \(\frac{n \mathrm{~A} e^{2}}{m \mathrm{~L}} \tau \mathrm{V}\)

[∵ E = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{L}}\)]
where V is the potential difference. The quantity \(\frac{m \mathrm{~L}}{n \mathrm{~A} e^{2} \tau}\) is a constant for a given conductor, called electrical resistance (R).
I ∝ V
The law states that, at a constant temperature, the steady current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference between the two ends of the conductor.

Question 24.
In the following circuit, calculate the current through the circuit. Mention its direction.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 3

Answer:
According to kirchhofFs second law,
5i + 7i + 3i + 5i = 10 + 8 – 2
20 i = 16
i = \(\frac{16}{20}\) = \(\frac{4}{5}\) A = 0.8 A

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 25.
State any three difference between electric power and electric energy.
Answer:

Electric power Electric energy
(i) Electric power is defined as the rate of doing electric work. Electric energy is defined as the capacity to do electric work.
(ii) It is the product of potential difference and current strength P = VI. It is the product of potential difference, strength of current and time during which current flows through the conductor.
(iii) In practice it is measured by watt In practice it is measured by watt hour or kilowatt hour.

Question 26.
The colours of a carbon resistor is orange, orange, orange. What is the value of resistor?

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 4

Answer:
The first orange ring corresponds to 3. The next orange ring corresponds to 3. The third orange ring corresponds to 103. Hence the total resistance is 33 KΩ.

Question 27.
What are the special features of an ideal battery?
Answer:
(i) The internal resistance of an ideal battery is zero.
(ii) The potential difference across the battery equals to its emf.

Question 28.
State sign convention followed by Kirchhoff’s current rule.
Answer:

  • Current entering the junction is taken as positive.
  • Current leaving the junction is taken as negative.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 29.
What are the sign conventions followed by Kirchhoff’s loop rule?
Answer:

  • In a loop, the product of current and resistance is taken as positive when the direction of current is followed.
  • If the direction of current is opposite to the direction of the loop then the product of current and resistance across the resistor is negative.

Question 30.
Nichrome is used as a heating element in electric heaters. Give reason.
Answer:
Since nichrome has a high specific resistance. It can be heated to very high temperatures without oxidation.

Question 31.
What is meant by Joule’s heating effect.
Answer:
When current flows through a resistor, some of the electrical energy delivered to the resistor is converted into heat energy and it is dissipated.

Question 32.
What do you know about thermoelectric effect?
Answer:
Conversion of temperature differences into electrical voltage and vice versa is known as thermoelectric effect.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 33.
Explain drift velocity and obtain an expression for it.
Answer:
In a conductor the charge carriers are free electrons. These electrons move freely through the conductor and collide repeatedly with the positive ions.

Suppose a potential difference is set across the conductor by connecting a battery, an electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\) is created in the conductor. This electric field exerts a force on the electrons. Then it produces a current.

The electric field accelerates the electrons, while ions scatter the electrons and change the direction of motion. In this way, we have zigzag paths of electrons. In addition to the zigzag motion due to the collisions, the electrons move slowly along the conductor in a direction opposite to that of E as shown in the Figure.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 5

The drift velocity is the average velocity acquired by the electrons inside the conductor when it is subjected to an electric field. The average time between successive collisions is called the mean free time denoted by τ. The acceleration \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}\) experienced by the electron in an electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\) is given by

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 6

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 34.
Describe the combination of ceils in which cells are connected
(i) in series and
(ii) in parallel. Hence obtain an expression for the current flowing in those combination of cells.
Answer:
(i) Cell in series:
Suppose n cells, each of emf ξ, volts and internal resistance r ohms are connected in series with an external resistance R.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 7

The total emf of the battery = nξ
The total resistance in the circuit = nr + R
By Ohm’s law, the ctitrent in the circuit is

I = \(\frac{\text { total emf }}{\text { total resistance }}\)

= \(\frac{n \xi}{n r+R}\)

Case (a) If r << R, then,

I = \(\frac{n \xi}{R}\) ≈ nI1

where, I1 is the current due to a single cell

(I1 = \(\frac{\xi}{R}\))

Thus, if r is negligible when compared to R the current supplied by the battery is n times that supplied by a single cell.
Case (b):
If r >> R,
I = \(\frac{n \xi}{n r} \approx \frac{\xi}{r}\)

It is the current due to a single cell. That is, current due to the whole battery is the same as that due to a single cell and hence there is no advantage in connecting several cells.

Thus series connection of cells is advantageous only when the effective internal resistance of the cells is negligibly small compared with R.

(ii) Cells in parallel:
Let n cells be connected in parallel between the points A and B and a resistance R is connected between the points A and B. Let ξ be the emf and r the internal resistance of each cell.

The equivalent internal resistance of the battery is

\(\frac{1}{r_{e q}}=\frac{1}{r}+\frac{1}{r}+\frac{1}{r}+\ldots+\frac{1}{r}(n \text { terms })=\frac{n}{r}\)

So req = \(\frac{r}{n}\) and the total resistance in the circuit = R + \(\frac{r}{n}\). The total emf is the potential difference between the points A and B, which is equal to ξ. The current in the circuit is given by,

I = \(\frac{\xi}{\frac{r}{n}+R}\)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 8

I = \(\frac{n \xi}{r+n R}\)

Case (a) If r >> R,

I = \(\frac{n \xi}{r}\) = nI1
where I1 is the current due to a single cell and is equal to \(\frac{\xi}{r}\) when R is negligible. Thus, the current through the external resistance due to j the whole battery is n times the current due | to a single cell.

Case (b) If r << R,
I = \(\frac{\xi}{r}\)
The above equation, It is implied from j that current due to the whole battery is the same as that due to a single cell. Hence it is advantageous to connect cells in parallel when the external resistance is very small compared to the internal resistance of the cells.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 35.
Describe the potentiometer and explain its principle.
Answer:
Potentiometer is used for the accurate measurement of potential differences, current and resistances.
Description:
It consists of ten meter long uniform wire of manganin or constantan (-) an stretched in parallel rows each of 1 meter length, on a wooden board. The two free ends A and B are brought to the same side and fixed to copper strips with binding screws. A meter scale is fixed parallel to the wire.

A jockey is provided for making contact. The principle of the potentiometer is illustrated in Figure. A steady current is maintained across the wire CD by a battery Bt. The battery, key and the potentiometer wire are connected in series forms the primary circuit. The positive terminal of a primary cell of emf ξ, is connected to the point C and negative terminal is connected to the jockey resistance HR. This forms the secondary circuit.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 9

Procedure:
Let contact be made at any point J on the wire by jockey. If the potential difference across CJ is equal to the emf of the cell ξ, then no current will flow through the galvanometer and it will show zero deflection. CJ is the balancing length /. The potential difference across CJ is equal to Irl where I is the current flowing through the wire and r is the resistance per unit length of the wire.
Hence ξ = Irl ………(1)

Principle:
since I and r are constants, ξ ∝ l. The emf of the cell is directly proportional to the balancing length.

Question 36.
Explain the method of measuring internal resistance using a potentiometer.
Answer:
The end C of the potentiometer wire is connected to the positive terminal of the battery B and the negative terminal of the battery is connected to the end D through a key K1. This forms the primary circuit.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 10

The positive terminal of the cell ξ, whose internal resistance is to be determined is also connected to the end C of the wire. The negative terminal of the cell ξ is connected to a jockey through a galvanometer and a high resistance. A resistance box R and key K2 are connected across the cell ξ. With K2 open, the balancing point J is obtained and the balancing length CJ = l1 is measured. Since the cell is in open circuit, its emf is
ξ ∝ l1 …….(1)

A suitable resistance (say, 10 Ω) is included in the resistance box and key K2 is closed. Let r be the internal resistance of the cell. The current passing through the cell and the resistance R is given by
I = \(\frac{\xi}{\mathrm{R}+r}\)

The potential difference across R is

V = \(\frac{\xi \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{R}+r}\)

When this potential difference is balanced on the potentiometer wire, let l2 be the balancing length.
Then \(\frac{\xi \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{R}+r}\) ∝ l2 …………(2)
From equations (1) and (2)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 11

Substituting the values of the R, l1 and l2, the internal resistance of the cell is determined. The experiment can be repeated for different values of R. It is found that the internal resistance of the cell is not constant but increases with increase of external resistance connected across its terminals.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 37.
Explain Peltier effect.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 12

In 1834, Peltier discovered that when an electric Current is passed through a circuit of a thermocouple, heat is evolved at one junction and absorbed at the other junction. This is known as Peltier effect.In the Cu-Fe thermocouple the junctions A and B are maintained at the same temperature. Let a current from a battery flow through the thermocouple (Figure (a)).

At the junction A, where the current flows from Cu to Fe, heat is absorbed and the junction A becomes cold. At the junction B, where the current flows from Fe to Cu heat is liberated and it becomes hot. When the direction of current is reversed, junction A gets heated and junction B gets cooled as shown in the Figure (b). Hence peltier effect is reversible.

Question 38.
Explain Thomson effect.
Answer:
Thomson showed that if two points in a conductor are at different temperatures, the density of electrons at these points will differ and as a result the potential difference is created between these points. Thomson effect is also reversible.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 13

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 14

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

If current is passed through a copper bar AB which is heated at the middle point C, the point C will be at higher potential. This indicates that the heat is absorbed along AC and evolved along CB of the conductor. In this way, heat is transferred due to the current flow in the direction of the current. It is called positive Thomson effect.

Similar effect is observed in metals like silver, zinc, and cadmium. When the copper bar is replaced by an iron bar, heat is evolved along CA and absorbed along BC. Thus heat is transferred due to the current flow in the direction opposite to the direction of current. It is called negative. Similar effect is observed in metals like platinum, nickel, cobalt, and mercury.

Question 39.
A resistor is made by joining two wires of the same material. The radii of two wires are 1 mm and 3 mm white their lengths are 3 cm and 5 cm respectively. A battery of emf 16 V and negligible resistance is connected across the resistor.
Calculate the potential difference across the shorter wire.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 15

Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 16

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 17

∴ Potential difference across shorter wire = 13.5 V

Question 40.
A Copper wire is stretched to make 0.1 % longer. What is the percentage change in its resistance?
Answer:
Resistance R = \(\frac{\rho l}{\mathrm{~A}}\) ………….(1)

ρ – Specific resistance
Let V be the volume

A = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{l}\) …………….(2)

Sub (2) in (1) we get,

R = \(\frac{\rho l^{2}}{\mathrm{~V}}\)

Change in resistance is given by

∴ \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{2 \Delta l}{100}\)

Here ρ and V are constants.

∴ \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{R}}\) × 100 = \(\frac{2 \Delta l}{l}\) × 100

= 2 × \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 100 = 0.2

Percentage change in resistance = 0.2.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 41.
What is the drift velocity of an electron in a copper conductor having area 10 × 10-6 m2, carrying a current of 2A. Assume that there are 10 × 1028 electrons/ m3.
Answer:
Area = 10 × 10-6 m2;
Current = 2 A;
Number of electrons / m3 = 10 × 1028

Drift velocity
vd = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{n \mathrm{~A} e}\)

Drift velocity,
vd = \(\frac{2}{10 \times 10^{28} \times 10 \times 10^{-6} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)

= \(\frac{2}{1.6 \times 10^{5}}\) = 1.25 × 10 5 ms-1

Dirft velocity = 1.25 × 10 5 ms-1

Question 42.
Two wires of same material and length have resistances 5 v and 10 Ω respectively. Find the ratio of radii of the two wires.
Answer:
Resistance of first wire R1 = 5 Ω;
Radius of first wire = r1
Resistance of second wire R2 = 10 Ω;
Radius of second wire = r2
Length of the wires = l;
Specific resistance of the material of the wires = ρ

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 18

Question 43.
The resistance of a field coil measures 50 Ω at 20°C and 65 Ω at 70°C. Find the temperature coefficient of resistance.
Answer:
R20 = 50 Ω; 70°C; RTO = 65 Ω; α = ?
Rt = R0(1 + αt)
R20 = Ro (1 + α20)
50 = R0(1 + α20) ………….(1)
R70 = R0(1 + α70)
65 = R0(1 + α70] ………….(2)
Dividing (2) by (1)

\(\frac{65}{50}=\frac{1+70 \alpha}{1+20 \alpha}\)

65 + 1300 α = 50 + 3500 α
2200 α = 15
α = \(\frac{0.0068}{{ }^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}\)
= 0.0068 / °C

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 44.
A wire has resistance of 2.0 Ω at 25°C and 2.50 at 100°C. Calculate the temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire.
Answer:
Rt = R0 (1 + αt)
When t = 25°C Rt = 2.0 Ω
∴ 2.0 = R0 (1 + 25α) ……..(1)
When t = 100°C R100 = 2.5
∴ 2.5 = R0(1 + 100 α) …(2)
\(\frac{(1)}{(2)} \Rightarrow \frac{2.5}{2.0}=\frac{1+100 \alpha}{1+25 \alpha}\)
∴ 2.5(1 + 25 α) = 2(1 + 100 α)
2.5 + 62.5 α = 2 + 200 α
2.5 – 2 = 2o0 α = 62.5 α
∴ 137.5 α = 0.5
α = \(\frac{0.5}{137.5}\)
α = 0.003636 / °C

Question 45.
A 10 Ω resistance is connected in series with a cell of emf 10 V. A voltmeter is connected in parallel to a cell, and it reads 9.9 V. Find internal resistance of the cell.
Answer:
R = 10 Ω;
E = 10 V;
V = 9.9 V;
r = ?

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 19

r = \(\left(\frac{E-V}{V}\right) R\)

= \(\left(\frac{10-9.9}{9.9}\right) \times 10\) = 0.101 Ω.

Question 46.
In the given circuit, what is the total resistance and current supplied by the battery.
Answer:
The value of the resistances are
R1 = 2 Ω; R2 = 3 Ω; R3 = 3 Ω; R4 = 3 Ω
The effective resistance of the resistances R2, R3 and R4 that are connected in parallel.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 20

∴ Rp = 1 Ω
The effective resistance of the resistances R1, R2, R3, and R4 is given by
Rs = 2 + 1 = 3 Ω
Potential difference V = 6V
Resistance R = 3 Ω
∴ Current I = \(\frac{V}{R}=\frac{6}{3}\) = 2 A

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 47.
Three resistors are connected in series with 10 V supply as shown in the figure. Find the voltage drop across each resistor.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 21

Answer:
R1 = 5 Ω, R2 = 3 Ω, R3 = 2 Ω; V = 10 volt
Effective resistance of series combination,
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 = Rs = 10 Ω
Current in circuit I = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}_{s}}=\frac{10}{10}\) = 1A

Voltage drop across R1, V1 = IR1 = 1 × 5 = 5 V
Voltage drop across R2, V2 = IR2 = 1 × 3 = 3 V
Voltage drop across R3, V3 = IR3 = 1 × 2 = 2 V
Voltage drop across each resistor are V1 = 5 V; V2 = 3 V; V3 = 2 V.

Question 47.
Find the effective resistance between A and B in.the given circuit.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 22

Answer:
The value of resistances are
R1 = 2 Ω; R2 = 1 Ω; R3 = 2 Ω; R4 = 2 Ω; and R5 = 1 Ω
The effective resistance of R1 and R2 which are connected in. parallel is
\(\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{p_{1}}}=\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}}\)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 23

Question 48.
In the given network, calculate the effective resistance between points A and B.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 24

The network has three identical units. The simplified form of one unit is given below:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 25

The equivalent resistance of one unit is
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{p}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\)

= \(\frac{1}{15}+\frac{1}{15}\) or Rp = 7.5 Ω

Each unit has a resistance of 7.5 Ω. The total network reduces to

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 26

The combined resistance between points A and B is
R= R’ + R’ + R’
(∵ Rs = R1 + R2 + R3)
R = 7.5 + 7.5 + 7.5 = 22.5 d

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 49.
The resistance of a platinum wire at 0°C is 4 Ω. What will be the resistance of the wire at 100°C if the temperature coefficient of resistance of platinum is 0.0038 /°C.
Answer:
The resistance of a platinum wire at 0° C
R0 = 4 Ω
Temperature coefficient of resistance \
α = 0.0038 /° C
Resistance at 100°C is
R100 = Rt = R0(1 + αt)
Resistance at 100°C is R100 = Rt
Rt = 4 [1 + 0.0038 × 100]
= 4(1 + 0.38)
= 4 × 1.38 = 5.52 Ω
Resistance at 100°C is R100 = 5.52 Ω

Question 50.
A cell has a potential difference of 6 V in an open circuit, but it falls to 4 V when a current of 2A is drawn from it. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
Answer:
Initial potential difference E = 6 V
Final potential difference V = 4 V;
Current I = 2A
Internal resistance of the cells r = \(\frac{E-V}{I}\)
Internal resistance of the cell r = \(\frac{6-4}{2}=\frac{2}{2}\) = 1 Ω
Internal resistance of the cell = 1 Ω

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 51.
Find the voltage drop across 18 Ω resistor in the given circuit.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 27

Answer:
The emf of the source = 30 V
The values of resistances are 18 Ω, 12 Ω, 6 Ω and 6 Ω
Two resistances 12 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in series.
Rs = 12 + 6= 18 Ω
R2 = 6 Ω; R3 = 18 Ω
The resistances R2 and R3 are connected in parallel.
The effective resistance is given by

\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{p}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{3}}=\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{18}\)

= \(\frac{3+1}{18}=\frac{4}{18}=\frac{2}{9}\)

∴ Rp = \(\frac{9}{2}\) Ω
The resistances R1 and Rp are connected in series.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 28

R1 = 18 Ω; Rp = \(\frac{9}{2}\) Ω

Rs = 18 + \(\frac{9}{2}\) = \(\frac{36+9}{2}=\frac{45}{2}\)

∴ Effective resistance of the circuit = \(\frac{45}{2}\) Ω

Electromotive force V = 30 V
∴ Current I = \(\frac{V}{R}=\frac{30}{\frac{45}{2}}=\frac{30 \times 2}{45}\)

= \(\frac{60}{45}=\frac{4}{3}\) amp.

The voltage drop across 18 Ω is V = IR
V = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 18 = 24 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 52.
Find the current flowing acrossthree resistors 3 Ω, 5 Ω and 2Ω connected in parallel to a 15 V supply. Also find the effective resistance and tot al current drawn from the supply.
Answer:
R1 = 3 Ω; R2 = 5 Ω; R3 = 2 Ω;
Supply voltage V = 15 volt.
Effective resistance of parallel combination

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 29

Current through R1,
I1 = \(\frac{V}{R_{1}}=\frac{15}{3}\) = 5 A

Current through R2,
I2 = \(\frac{V}{R_{2}}=\frac{15}{5}\) = 3 A

Current through R3,
I3 = \(\frac{V}{R_{3}}=\frac{15}{2}\) = 7.5 A

Question 53.
Calculate the current I1, I2 and I3 in the given electric circuit.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 30

According to Kirchhoff’s first law, at the function F,
I3 = I1 + I2
Applying Kirchhoff’s second law to the closed mesh BFGHECB we get
(I1 + I2)10 + I1 × 1 = 3 ………(1)
Applying Kirchhoff’s second law to the closed mesh AFGHEDA we get
(I1 + I2) 10 +I2 × 2 = 2 ………..(2)
Subtracting Equation (2) from equation (1) we get
I1 – 2 I2 = 1 ……..(3)
∴ I1 = 1 + 2 I2 …….(4)
Subtracting Equation (4) from equation (2) we get
(1 + 2 I2 + I2) × 10 + I2 × 2 = 2
10 + 30 I2 + 2 I2 = 2
32 I2 = 2 – 10 = – 8
∴ I2 = – \(\frac{8}{32}\) = – \(\frac{1}{4}\)
I2 = – 0.25 A
From Equation (4)
I1 = 1 + 2 I2 = 1 + 2 (- 0.25)
= 1 – 0.5 = 0.5 A
∴ I1 = 0.5 A
We know I3 = I1 + I2
= 0.50 + (-0.25)
I3 = 0.25 A
Current I1 = 0.5 A;
I2 = – 0.25 A;
I3 = 0.25 A.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 54.
Find the electric current flowing through the given circuit connected to a supply of 3 V.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 31

Answer:
R1 = 5 Ω;
R2 = 5 Ω;
R3 = 5 Ω;
Potential difference of supply V = 3V
Current I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
When resistances are connected in parallel, effective resistance is given by

\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{p}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\)

When resistances are connected in series, effective resistance is given by
Rs = R1 + R2
= 5 + 5 = 10 Ω

When the resistances Rs and R3 are connected in parallel, effective resistance is

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 32

Question 55.
To balance The Wheatstone’s bridge shown in figure, determine an additional resistance that has to be connected with 3 Ω.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 33

Answer:
P = 5 Ω; Question = 10 Ω; R = 8 Ω; S = 32 Ω;

\(\frac{P}{Q}=\frac{R}{S}\) \(\frac{5}{10}=\frac{8}{32}\)

∴ S = \(\frac{10 \times 8}{5}\) = 16
Hence the value of resistance (s) has to be transformed into 16 Ω as follows:
When another resistance of 32 Ω is connected in parallel with 32 Ω then
\(\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{p}}=\frac{1}{32}+\frac{1}{32}\)

= \(\frac{1+1}{32}=\frac{2}{32}\)

∴ Rp = \(\frac{32}{2}\) = 16 Ω
The wheatstone bridge can be balanced by connecting a resistance of 32 Ω is to be connected in parallel with it. The circuit is transformed into P = 5 Ω; Question = 10 Ω.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 56.
With an unknown resistance the balancing length obtained in a metre bridge is 20 cm. When 6 Question resistance is connected in series with the unknown resistance., the balancing length changes to 50cm. Calculate the unknown resistance.
Answer:
Balancing lengths for unknown resistance are
l1 = 20 cm = 2 × 10-2 m;
l2 = 100 – 20 = 80 cm = 80 × 10-2m.
When unknown resistance is connected in series with 6 Ω the balancing lengths are
l1 = 50 × 10-2 m;
l2 = 50 × 10-2 m
\(\frac{\mathbf{P}}{\mathrm{Q}}=\frac{l_{1}}{l_{2}}\)
Let the unknown resistance be P Ω
P = Question × \(\frac{20}{80}\) …………..(1)
P + 6 = Question × \(\frac{50}{50}\) = Question …………(2)
By dividing equation (2) by equation (1) we get
\(\frac{P+6}{P}=\frac{Q}{Q} \times \frac{80}{20}\) = 4
P + 6 = 4P
∴ 6 = 4P – P = 3P
∴ P = \(\frac{6}{3}\) = 2 Ω
∴ The value of unknown resistance = 2 Ω

Question 57.
In the given circuit, find the current through each branch of the circuit and the potential drop across the 10Question resistor.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 34

Answer:
Resistance R1 = 2 Ω;
R2 = 4 Ω
R3 = 10 Ω
Electromotive forces E1 = 4 V and E1 = 5 V
Application of Kirchhoff’s second law to the closed mesh CDEB we get
– 4 + I1 × 2 – I2 × 4 + 5 = 0
2I1 – 4I2 = – 1 ……….(1)
Applying Kirchhoff’s second law to the closed mesh BEFA we get,
– 5 + 4 I2 + 10 (I1 + I2) = 0
– 5 + 4 I2 + 10 I1 + 10 I2 = 0
10 I1 + 14 I2 = 5 ………..(2)
Equation (2) —>10 I1 + 14 I2 = 5 ………(3)
(1) × 5 => 10 I1 – 20 I2 = – 5 ………(4)
(3) + (4) => 34 I2 = 10
∴ I2 = \(\frac{10}{34}\)
I2= 0.2941 A
From equation (1) We get
2 I1 = – 1 + 4 I2
= – 1 + 4 (0.2941)
= – 1 + 1.1764 = 0.1764
∴ I1= \(\frac{0.1764}{2}\)
I1 = 0.0882 A
I1 + I2 = 0.0882 + 0.2941 = 0.3823
Potential drop across 10 Ω resistor is
V = (I1 + I2) R
= 0.3823 × 10 = 3.823 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 58.
Find the effective resistance of the given circuit.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 35

The value of resistances that are connected in series is
R1 = 1 Ω;
R2 = 2 Ω;
R3 = 3 Ω;
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
The effective resistance is given by
Rs = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 Ω

Question 59.
Calculate the value of current I min the circuit.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 36

Answer:
Applying Kirchhoff’s First law at the junction we get
3.25 + 3.25 – 3.5 – 1.5 + 3.75 + I = 0
6.5 – 5 + 3.75 + I = 0
∴ I = – 5.25

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 60.
In a Wheatstone’s bridge a battery of 2 V and a resistance of 2 Ω is used. Find the current through the galvanometer in the unbalanced position of the bridge when P = 1 Ω, Question = 2 Ω, t R = 2 Ω, S = 3 Ω and G = 4 Ω.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 37

In loop ABDA,
I1 + 4 Ig – 2(I – I1) = 0
I1 + 4 Ig – 2I + 2 I1 = 0
4 Ig + 3 I1 – 2I = 0 ……………..(1)
Along the loop BCDB,
2(I1 – Ig) – 4Ig – 3(I – I1 + Ig) = 0
2I1 – 2Ig – 4Ig – 3I + 3I1 – 3Ig = 0
– 9Ig + 5I1 – 3I = 0 …………(2)
Along the path ABCEA,
2I + 1I1 + 2 (I1 – Ig) = 2
2I + I1 + 2I1 – 2Ig = 2
– 2 Ig + 3I1 + 2I = 2 ……………(3)
4Ig + 3I1 – 2I = 0 ………….(1)
(3) + 1 ⇒ 2Ig + 6I1 = 2 …………(4)
(1) × 3 ⇒ 12 Ig + 9I1 – 6I1 = 0 ………(5)
(2) × 2 ⇒ – 18 Ig + 10 I1 – 6I = 0 ………(6)
(5) – (6) ⇒ 30Ig – I1 = 0 ………….(7)
(7) × 6 ⇒ 180 Ig – 6I1 = 0 …………(8)
2 Ig + 6 I1 = 2
(8) + (4) ⇒ 182 Ig = 2
∴ Ig = \(\frac{2}{182}\) = 0.010989 Amp.
Current through the galvanometer = 1.099 × 10-2 Amp.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 61.
The resistance of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 Ω, 30 Ω, 30 Ω and 90 Ω respectively. The emf and interna! resistance of the cell are 7 V and 5 Ω respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 Ω, then calculate the current drawn from the cell.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 38

If the bridge is balanced then no current flows through the galvanometer.
RS1 = 10 + 30 = 40 Ω
RS2 = 30 + 90 = 120 Ω
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{p}}=\frac{1}{40}+\frac{1}{120}=\frac{3+1}{120}\)
= \(\frac{4}{120}\) = \(\frac{1}{30}\)
∴ Rp = 30 Ω
External resistance R = 30 Ω
Current I = \(\frac{E}{R_{p}+R}\)
E = 7 V Rp = 30 Ω R = 5 Ω
∴ I = \(\frac{7}{30+5}=\frac{7}{35}\) = 0.2 A
∴ Current drawn from the cell = 0.2 A

Question 62.
The resistances in the two arms of a metre bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω respectively. When the resistance R is shunted with equal resistance the new balancing point is at 1.6l. Calculate the value of the resistance R.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 39

1.6 (100 – l1) = 2(100 – 1.6l1)
160 – 1.6 l1 = 200 – 3.2 l1
1.6 l1 = 40
l1 = \(\frac{40}{1.6}\) = 25 cm.
\(\frac{5}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{l_{1}}{100-l_{1}}\)

\(\frac{5}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{25}{100-25}=\frac{25}{75}\)

25 R = 5 × 75
R = \(\frac{5 \times 75}{25}\) = 15 Ω
Resistance R = 15 Ω

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 63.
In the following circuit, two ceils have negligible resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500 Ω and R = 100 Ω, the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. Calculate the potential of VB.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 40

Since there is no deflection in the galvanometer
Current I = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{R}_{1}+\mathrm{R}}\)
VA = 12 V
R1 = 500
R = 100
∴ I = \(\frac{12}{500+100}\)
= \(\frac{12}{600}\) A
∴ Potential of VB = IR
R = 100 Ω
∴ VB = \(\frac{12}{600}\)
∴ VB = 2 V

Question 64.
If the power dissipated in 9 Ω resistor in the given circuit is 36 W, then calculate the potential difference across the 2Ω resistor.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 41

Answer:
Current through 9 Ω resistor is given by
P = I2R
I12 = \(\frac{36}{9}\) = 4
∴ I1 = 2 A
Since 9 Ω and 6 Ω are in parallel connection
9 1 = 6 I1
∴ I2 = \(\frac{9}{6}\) × I1
I1 = 2 A
∴ I1 = \(\frac{9}{6}\) × 2 = 3 A
∴ I = I1 + I2 = 2 + 3 = 5 A
∴ Potential difference across 2 Ω resistors is 5 × 2 = 10 V.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 65.
An electric iron has a resistance of 80 Ω and is connected to a source of 200 V. If it is used for two hours then Calculate the electrical energy spent.
Answer:
Resistance R= 80 Ω
Potential difference V = 200 V
∴ Power = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
= \(\frac{200 \times 200}{80}\)
P = 500 W
∴ Time t = 2 hour
∴ Electrical energy E = P × t
E = 500 × 2 = 1000 W = 1 kW
∴ Electrical energy spent = 1 kW

Question 66.
Sixteen cells each of emf 3 V are connected in series and kept in a box- External the combination shows an emf of 12 V. Calculate the number of cells reversed in the connection.
Answer:
Number of cells x = 16
emf of each cell E = 3 V
Total emf = nE = 16 × 3 = 48 V
Let the number of cells in reversed direction be n
Total emf -2nE = Effective emf
48 -2n × 3 = 12 V
-6 n = 12 – 48 = -36
Number of cells = \(\frac{-36}{-6}\) = 6
Number of cells reversed in the connection is n = 6

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 67.
Calculate the value of current I in the following figure at the junction A.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 42

Answer:
Applying Kirchhoff’s current law (I law) we get
1 – 2 + 4 + I = 0
3 + I = 0
∴ I = -3 A
∴ The current flows away from the junction I = – 3 A.

Question 68.
A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 2 Ohm is connected to a resistor. The current flowing in the circuit is 0.5 A.
When the circuit is closed. What is the value of Terminal voltage of the battery?
Answer:
emf E = 12 V
Internal resistance r = 2 Ω
Current I = 0.5 V
Terminal voltage of the battery is given by
V=E – Ir
= 12 – 0.5 × 2 = 12 – 1 = 11 V
∴ Terminal Voltage = 11 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
When current I flows through a wire, drift velocity of the electrons is v. When a current 21 flows through another wire of the same material having double the length and area of cross-section, the drift velocity of the electron will be:
(a) 2 v
(b) \(\frac{v}{2}\)
(c) v
(d) \(\frac{v}{4}\)
Answer:
(c) v

Question 2.
A wire of resistance 4 Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of the stretched wire would be:
(a) 8 Ω
(b) 16 Ω
(c) 2 Ω
(d) 4 Ω
Answer:
(b) 16 Ω
Hint:
R = \(\frac{\rho^{\prime} l}{A}\) = 4 Ω
Since the volume of the wire remains constant
l A = l’ A’
∴ A’ = \(\frac{l \mathrm{~A}}{l}\)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 49

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 3.
If the length of a wire is doubled and its area is also doubled then its resistance will:
(a) become halved
(b) become two times
(c) become four times
(d) remain unchanged
Answer:
(d) remain unchanged

Question 4.
Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section a constant potential difference is applied.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Along the conductor,
(a) drift velocity remains constant
(b) current remains constant
(c) electric field remains constant
(d) current density remains constant
Answer:
(b) current remains constant

Question 5.
Match the following quantities given in column I and II.

Column I Column II
(i) Current (A) mho m-1
(ii) Resistance (B) Volt
(Hi) Potential difference (C) mho
(iv) Conductivity (D) ohm
 (E) ampere

(a) (i) – (E); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (D); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (C); (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (A); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (C); (iv) – (D)
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 6.
According to Faraday’s law of electrolysis, when a current is passed, the mass of ions deposited at the cathode is independent of:
(a) current
(b) charge
(e) time
(d) resistance
Answer:
(d) resistance

Question 7.
The chance of collision of electron on the atom depends on:
(a) length only
(b) radius only
(c) both length and radius
(d) neither the length nor the radius
Answer:
(c) both length and radius

Question 8.
The specific resistance of the material of a conductor of length 3m area of cross-section 0.2 mm2 having a resistance of 2 ohm is:
(a) 1.6 × 10-8 mho m-1
(b) 7.5 × 10-8 mho m-1
(c) 1.33 × 10-7 mho m-1
(d) 1.5 × 10-8 mho m-1
Answer:
(b) 7.5 × 10-8 mho m-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 9.
Resistance of a metal wire of length 10cm is 2 OE if the wire is stretched uniformly to 50 cm, the resistance is:
(a) 25 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 5 Ω
(d) 50 Ω
Answer:
(d) 50 Ω

Question 10.
The brown ring at one end of a carbon resistor indicates a tolerance of:
(a) 1 %
(b) 2 %
(c) 5 %
(d) 10 %
Answer:
(a) 1 %

Question 11.
The material through which electric charge can flow easily is:
(a) quartz
(b) mica
(c) germanium
(d) copper
Answer:
(d) copper

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 12.
The unit of conductivity is:
(a) mho
(b) ohm
(e) ohm-m
(d) mho-m-1
Answer:
(d) mho-m-1

Question 13.
The colour code on a carbon resistor is red- red-black. The resistance of the resistor is:
(a) 2.2 Ω
(b) 22 Ω
(c) 220 Ω
(d) 2.2 kΩ
Answer:
(b) 22 Ω

Question 14.
The unit of resistivity is:
(a) ohm metre
(b) (ohm metre)-1
(c) ohm/metre
(d) mho metre-1
Answer:
(a) ohm metre

Question 15.
The drift velocity does not depend upon:
(a) the magnetic field
(b) mass of the electron
(c) charge of the electron
(d) relaxation time
Answer:
(a) the magnetic field

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 16.
The specific resistance of a wire will depend on:
(a) its length
(b) its radius
(c) the type of material of the wire
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) the type of material of the wire

Question 17.
When η resistor of equal resistance (R) are connected in series, the effective resistance is:
(a) \(\frac{n}{\mathrm{R}}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{n}\)

(c) \(\frac{1}{n \mathrm{R}}\)

(d) nR
Answer:
(d) nR

Question 18.
When two 2 Ω resistances are in parallel, the effective resistance is:
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 4 Ω
(c) 1 Ω
(d) 0.5 Ω
Answer:
(c) 1 Ω
Hint:
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{p}}=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{1}\)
Rp = 1 Ω

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 19.
The current flowing in a conductor is proportional to:
(a) drift velocity
(b) 1 / area of cross-section
(c) 1 /no. of electrons
(d) square of the area of cross-section.
Answer:
(a) drift velocity

Question 20.
If the length of a copper wire has a certain resistance R, then on doubling the length its specific resistance:
(a) will be doubled
(b) will become \(\frac{1}{4}\)th
(c) will become 4 times
(d) will remain the same
Answer:
(d) will remain the same

Question 21.
A charge of 60 C passes through an electric lamp in 2 minutes. Then the current in the lamp is:
(a) 30 A
(b) 1 A
(c) 0.5 A
(d) 5 A
Answer:
(c) 0.5 A

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 22.
The flow of electrons in a conductor constitutes:
(a) potential
(b) electric current
(c) resistance
(d) charge
Answer:
(b) electric current

Question 23.
Current is _____ quantity.
(a) a vector
(b) a scalar
(c) not a scalar
(d) a physical
Answer:
(b) a scalar

Question 24.
The resistance of a wire on increasing its temperature will ________ with rise in temperature.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase and decrease
Answer:
(a) increase

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 25.
The current density of a conductor consisting of n electrons moving with drift velocity vd and having charge of e is given by:
(a) evd

(b) \(\frac{n e v_{d}}{\tau}\)

(c) nevd

(d) \(\frac{e v_{d}}{n}\)
Answer:
(c) nevd

Question 26.
The unit of mobility of free electron is:
(a) m2 Vs
(b) m2 V-1 s-1
(c) m2 Vs-1
(d) Vm2 s-1
Answer:
(b) m2 V-1 s-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 27.
An electric bulb is rated as 220-100W. If the rated value drops by 2.5 % then the percentage of drop in power will be:
(a) 10 %
(b) 5 %
(c) 20 %
(d) 2.5 %
Answer:
(b) 5 %
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 43

Question 28.
Which of the following pair of expressions for drift velocity vd is correct?

(a) vd = \(\frac{e \mathrm{E}}{m} \tau\) and vd = \(\frac{I}{n A e}\)

(b) vd = \(\frac{e \mathrm{E}}{m} \tau\) and vd = IR

(c) vd = \(\frac{-e \mathrm{E}}{m} \tau\) and vd = \(\frac{\mathrm{J}}{n \mathrm{~A} e}\)

(d) vd = \([latex]\frac{-e^{2} E}{m}\)[/latex] and vd = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{n^{2} \mathrm{~A} e}\)

Answer:
(a) vd = \(\frac{e \mathrm{E}}{m} \tau\) and vd = \(\frac{I}{n A e}\)

Question 29.
Three conductors draw currents Of 1 A, 2 A and 4 A respectively, when they are connected in series across the same battery, the Current drawn will be:
(a) \(\frac{3}{7}\) A

(b) \(\frac{5}{7}\) A

(c) \(\frac{2}{7}\) A

(d) \(\frac{4}{7}\) A

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{4}{7}\) A
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 44

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 30.
For which of the following dependences, of drift velocity vd on electric field E, is ohm’s law obeyed?
(a) vd ∝ E2
(b) vd ∝ √E
(c) vd ∝ E
(d) vd = constant
Answer:
(c) vd ∝ E

Question 31.
The relationship between Current density J, conductivity a and Electric field intensity E is:
(a) J = σ2 E
(b) J = σ
(c) J = σE
(d) J = \(\frac{E}{\sigma}\)
Answer:
(c) J = σE

Question 32.
The specific resistance of a wire:
(a) varies with its mass
(b) varies with its area
(c) varies with its length
(d) is independent of mass, area and length of the wire.
Answer:
(d) is independent of mass, area and length of the wire.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 33.
Select the incorrect statement from the following statement:
(a) A wire carrying current stays electrically neutral.
(b) A high resistance volt meter is used to measure the emf of a cell.
(c) A 6000 V power Supply must have very high internal resistance.
(d) A 6V power supply must have very low internal resistance.
Answer:
(d) A 6V power supply must have very low internal resistance.

Question 34.
Ohm’s law does not hold good for:
(I) current flowing through a diode valve.
(II) current flowing through a triode valve.
(III) current flowing through a NPN Transistor.
(IV) current flowing through a PN junction diode

Which two of the above are correct?
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (II) and (III)
Answer:
(b) (I) and (III)

Question 35.
Select the incorrect statement from the following statement is:
(a) When cells are connected in series external resistance is greater than internal resistance.
(b) When cells are connected in parallel, external resistance is less than internal resistance.
(c) If n identical cells are connected in parallel, emfis E / n and internal resistance is r / n
(d If n identical cells are connected in series, emfis nE and internal resistance is nr.
Answer:
(c) If n identical cells are connected in parallel, emfis E / n and internal resistance is r / n

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 36.
Which one of the following pairs of quantities remain constant when a steady current flows through a metallic conductors of non-uniform cross-section:
(a) drift speed and current
(b) electric field and current
(c) resistivity and current
(d) resistivity and resistance
Answer:
(b) electric field and current

Question 37.
Which one of the following pairs of quantities is correct for the specific resistance of a wire?
(a) material and length
(b) material and temperature
(c) length and temperature
(d) area and temperature
Answer:
(b) material and temperature

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 38.
Match the following quantities given in | column I and Column II:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 45

(a) (i) – (B); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (A)
(b) (i) – (C); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (F)
(c) (i) – (A); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (F); (iv) – (E)
(d) (i) – (F); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (F); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (A)

Question 39.
Superconductors are used in:
(a) power generators
(b) computers
(c) launching satellites
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 40.
The temperature at which the material changes from normal conductor to a super conductor is called:
(a) absolute temperature
(b) transition temperature
(c) normal temperature
(d) superconducting temperature
Answer:
(b) transition temperature

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 41.
The temperature at which the resistance of mercury becomes zero is:
(a) 0 K
(b) 0° C
(c) 4.2 K
(d) 4.2 K
Answer:
(c) 4.2 K

Question 42.
The silver ring on the resistor represents ………. tolerance.
(a) 20 %
(b) 10 %
(c) 5 %
(d) 1 %
Answer:
(b) 10 %

Question 43.
For a resistor, the gold coloured ring represents ______ tolerance of it.
(a) 10 %
(b) 5 %
(c) 2 %
(d) 1 %
Answer:
(b) 5 %

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 44.
1 % tolerance of a resistor is represented by _______ ring drawn on it.
(a) silver
(b) gold
(c) red
(d) brown
Answer:
(d) brown

Question 45.
On the resistor if there is no coloured ring at its end then the tolerance is:
(a) 10 %
(b) 5 %
(c) 20 %
(d) 2 %
Answer:
(c) 20 %

Question 46.
At the transition temperature, the conductivity becomes:
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) finite
(d) half of its initial value
Answer:
(b) infinity

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 47.
The colours of a carbon resistor is yellow, violet and orange. What is the value of the resistor?
(a) 33 kΩ
(b) 4.7 kΩ
(c) 47 kΩ
(d) 22 kΩ
Answer:
(c) 47 kΩ

Question 48.
If a charge of 60 C passes through an electrical equipment in 4 minutes, then the current flowing through it is:
(a) 0.5 A
(b) 0.25 A
(c) 1 A
(d) 2 A
Answer:
(b) 0.25 A

Question 49.
The conductivity of a conductor depends on the _________ of the conductor.
(a) length
(b) material
(c) resistance
(d) area of cross-section
Answer:
(b) material

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 50.
The resistance of a:
(a) thick conductor is less than that of a thin conductor
(b) thin conductor is less than that of a thick conductor.
(c) short conductor is more than that of a long conductor.
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) thick conductor is less than that of a thin conductor

Question 51.
If a wire of resistance R is stretched to twice its original length, the new resistance of the
wire will be:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2}\)
(b) 2R
(c) 4R
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{4}\)
Answer:
(c) 4R

Question 52.
The temperature coefficient of resistance of alloys is:
(a) positive and small
(b) negative and small
(c) positive and large
(b) negative and large
Answer:
(a) positive and small

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 53.
The temperature coefficient of manganin is:
(a) small and positive
(b) small and negative
(c) large and positive
(d) large and negative
Answer:
(a) small and positive

Question 54.
The current drawn by 1.5 kW operated at 220 V water heater is:
(a) 6.9 A
(b) 14.6A
(c) 15 A
(d) 6.82 A
Answer:
(d) 6.82 A
Hint:

Question 55.
If two resistors of resistance 3 Ω and 1 Ω are connected in parallel, then the effective i resistance of the system is:
(a) \(\frac{2}{3}\) Ω
(b) .75 Ω
(c) 4 Ω
(d) 5.1 Ω
Answer:
(b) .75 Ω
Hint:
\(\frac{1}{R_{p}}=\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{1}=\frac{4}{3}\)

∴ Rp = \(\frac{3}{4}\) = 0.75 Ω

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 56.
If R1 and R2 are resistances of a given coil at temperatures t1 and t2, then temperature coefficient of resistance of the material is:
(a) \(\frac{R_{1}-R_{2}}{R_{1} T_{2}-R_{2} T_{1}}\)

(b) \(\frac{R_{2}-R_{1}}{R_{1} T_{2}-R_{2} T_{1}}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{R}_{2}-\mathbf{R}_{1}}{\mathbf{R}_{2} \mathrm{~T}_{1}-\mathrm{R}_{1} \mathrm{~T}_{2}}\)

(d) \(\frac{R_{1}-R_{2}}{R_{2} T_{1}-R_{1} T_{2}}\)

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{R_{2}-R_{1}}{R_{1} T_{2}-R_{2} T_{1}}\)

Question 57.
Kirchhoffs second law is the consequence of conservation of:
(a) charges
(b) current
(c) energy
(d) potential
Answer:
(c) energy

Question 58.
Kirchhoff’s first law is the consequence of conservation of:
(a) current
(b) potential
(c) charges
(d) resistance
Answer:
(b) potential

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 59.
According to the principle of potentiometer, the emf of the cell is:
(a) inversely proportional to its balancing length
(b) directly proportional to its balancing length
(c) directly proportional to its resistance
(d) inversely proportional to its resistance
Answer:
(b) directly proportional to its balancing length

Question 60.
If the strength of current flows through a resistor is I having resistance R and potential difference between its ends is V then the power dissipated is:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
(b) IR
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
(d) VI
Answer:
(d) VI

Question 61.
The energy equivalence of 1 kWh is:
(a) 3.6 × 105 J
(b) 36 × 105 J
(c) 0.36 × 1044 J
(d) 36 × 106 J
Answer:
(b) 36 × 105 J

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 62.
The ratio of the emf of two cells when their balancing lengths on a potentiometer are 614.8 cm and 824.4 cm respectively is:
(a) 1.7456
(b) 1.313 J
(c) 0.7456
(d) .8456
Answer:
(c) 0.7456

Question 63.
The resistances in cyclic order of the four arms of Wheatstone’s network at balance is:
(a) 8, 6, 16, 12
(b) 8, 6, 12, 16
(c) 8, 12, 6, 16
(d) 8, 16, 6, 12
Answer:
(b) 8, 6, 12, 16

Question 64.
Two copper wires of length lm and 9m have equal resistances. Then their diameters are in the ratio:
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 1 : 9
(d 1 : 3
Answer:
(d) 1 : 3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 65.
At transition temperature, the resistance of a super conductor:
(a) increases slowly
(b) decreases slowly
(c) increases rapidly
(d) drops to zero
Ans :
(d) drops to zero

Question 66.
Assertion:
The drift speed of electrons in metals is of the order of few mm s and charge of an electron is very small ; (1.6 × 10-19 C). Yet a large amount of current is obtained.
Reason:
At room temperature, the thermal speed of electron is very high (107 times the drift speed).
Which one of the following statements is j correct?
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explains assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true and reason is false,
(d) Assertion is false and reason is true.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explains assertion correctly.
Hint:
Current depends on
(i) Charge
(ii) drift speed
(iii) area and
(iv) no. of free electrons per unit volume of a metal.

Question 67.
Assertion:
In a meter bridge experiment, the balancing length AC corresponding to null deflection of the galvanometer is x.
If the radius of the wire is doubled then the balanced length becomes 4x.
Reason:
The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to the square of its radius.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reasons does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and reason is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false and reason is true.
Hint:
If the radius, is doubled the ratio of resistance will remain unchanged.
But, \(\frac{\mathbf{R}_{1}}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}=\frac{l_{1}}{l_{2}}\) = constant
Hence the balancing length will remain same.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 68.
Choose the odd man out from the following:
(a) Silver
(b) Mercury
(c) Zinc
(d) Cadmium
Answer:
(b) Mercury
Hint:
Negative Thomson effect is observed only in mercury.

Question 69.
Choose die odd man out.
In which one of die following negative Thomson effect is not observed.
(a) Mercury
(b) Platinum
(c) Nickel
(d) Cadmium
Answer:
(d) Cadmium

Question 70.

Match the following:

Column I Column II
(i) Positive Thomson effect (A) Cu – Fe thermocouple.
(ii) Negative Thomson effect (B) Iron
(iii) Zero Thomson effect (C) Copper
(iv) Peltier effect (D) Mercury
 (E) Zinc
 (F) Lead

(a) (i) – (A); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (C); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (B); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (F)
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (F); (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (F); (iv) – (A)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 71.
Assertion:
In the potentionmeter circuit, if the experimental wire AB is not changed then the value of resistor R that is connected to the cell in the primary circuit will be decreased.
Reason:
At the balancing point, the potential difference between A and D to cell C1 =? emf of E2 of cell 2.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 46

Which one of the following statement is correct:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Hint:
If the diameter of wire AB is increased, the resistance will decrease.
So, the potential difference due to cell Question will be decreased.
Hence the null point will be obtained at a higher value of x.

Question 72.
When a resistance of 2 Ohm is connected across the terminals of a cell, the current is 0.5 A. If a resistance of 5 Ohm is connected across the cell then the current is 0.25 A then the emf of the cell is:
(a) 2V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 1 V
(d) 0.5 V
Answer:
(b) 1.5 V
Hint:
E = I(R + r)
= IR + Ir
∴ r = \(\frac{E}{I}\) – R
∴ \(\frac{E}{0.5}\) – 2 = \(\frac{E}{0.25}\) – 5
∴ E = 1.5 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 73.
5 rows of 10 identical cells, connected in series, send a current I through an external resistance of 20 Ohm.
If the emf and internal resistance of each cell is 1.5 V and 1 Ohm respectively then, value of current (I) is:
(a) 0.25 A
(b) 0.14 A
(c) 0.68 A
(d) 0.75 A
Answer:
(c) 0.68 A
Hint:
Equivalent emf E = 15 V
Equivalent internal resistance r = 2 Ω
I = \(\frac{\dot{E}}{\mathrm{R}+r}\)

= \(\frac{15}{20+2}=\frac{15}{22}\) = 0.68 A

Question 74.
When 115 V is applied across a wire of length 10m and radius 0.3 mm, the current density is 1.4 x 104 A m2. The resistivity of the wire is:
(a) 4.1 × 104 Ωm
(b) 8.2 × 10-4 Ωm
(c) 16.4 × 104 Ωm
(d) 2.1 × 104 Ωm
Answer:
(b) (b) 8.2 × 10-4 Ωm
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 47

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity

Question 75.
If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1 % longer, the percentage change in its resistance would be:
(a) Zero
(b) 0.1%
(c) 0.2%
(d) 0.4 %
Answer:
(c)
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Current Electricity 48

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics

Question 1.
What is meant by electrostatics?
Answer:
Electrostatics is the branch of physics that deals with stationary charges.

Question 2.
What do you know about tritoelectric charging?
Answer:
Tritoelectric charging is the process of charging the objects by a way of rubbing.

Question 3.
How many electrons make up a charge of 3 coulomb?
Answer:
Number of electrons that make up a charge of 3 coulomb
= 3 × 6.25 × 1018 = 18.75 × 1018

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 4.
Mention the properties of charges.
Answer:
(i) Nature of charges
(ii) Conservation of charges
(iii) Quantisation of charges

Question 5.
What happens when an ebonite rod is rubbed with wool?
Answer:
The ebonite rod acquires a negative charge, when wool acquires an equal positive charge.

Question 6.
Why an ebonite rod gets negatively charged when it is rubbed with fur?
Answer:
It is happened because electrons in fur are less tightly bound than electrons in an ebonite rod.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 7.
State the value of
(i) proportionality in Coulomb’s law
(ii) the permittivity of free space.
Answer:
(i) The value of the constant k in coulomb’s law
k = 9 × 109 N m2C-2

(ii) The permittivity of free space
ε0 = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi k}\) = 8.85 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2

Question 8.
What is meant by uniform electric field?
Answer:
Uniform electric field will have the same direction and constant magnitude at all points in space.

Question 9.
What is non-uniform electric field?
Answer:
Non-uniform electric field will have different directions or different magnitudes or both at different points in space.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 10.
What are the units of
(i) electric field and
(ii) electric flux.
Answer:
(i) Unit of electric field is N / C
(ii) Unit of electric flux is N m2 C-1

Question 11.
What is a dielectric? State examples.
Answer:
A dielectric is a non – conducting material that has no free electrons.
Eg: Ebonite, glass and mica.

Question 12.
What is a Capacitor?
Answer:

  1. A capacitor is a device in which electric energy is stored by using a dielectric.
  2. A capacitor consists of two plates one of which is charged and the other is insulated metal plate.

Question 13.
Mention the principles of Van de graff generator.
Answer:
(i) Electrostatic induction
(ii) Action at points.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 14.
State the principles of conservation of total charges of a body.
Answer:
“The total electric charge in the universe is constant. The charges can neither be created nor be destroyed”. In any physical process, the net change in a charge will always be zero.

Question 15.
State Coulomb’s law.
Answer:
Coulomb’s law states that the electrostatic force is directly proportional to the product of the magnitude of two point charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the two point charges.

Question 16.
Define one Coulomb.
Answer:
One coulomb is defined as the quantity of charge which when placed at a distance of one metre in air or vacuum from an equal and similar charges, experience a repulsive force of 9 × 109 N.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 17.
Obtain the value of electric field due to a system of charges.
Answer:
If there are a number of stationary charges, the net electric field at a point is the sum of individual electric fields due to each charge.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 1

i.e.,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)net = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \sum_{i=1}^{n}\left[\frac{q_{i}}{r_{i}^{2} p} r_{i p}\right]\)

Question 18.
State coulomb’s law in terms of electric field. If the electric field at a point P is E then the force experienced by the test charge placed at that point.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}\) = q0E

Question 19.
State any three properties of electric field lines.
Answer:
(i) The electric field lines start from a positive charge and end at negative charge or at infinity.
(ii) The number of electric field lines passing through a given surface area perpendicular to the lines is proportional to the magnitude of the electric field in that region.
(iii) They never intersect with each other.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 20.
Mention the principle of super position of electric fields.
Answer:
The electric field due to a collection of point charges at an arbitrary point is simply equal to the vector sum of the electric fields created by the individual point charges.

Question 21.
How does water act as a good solvent?
Answer:
When common salt is added to water it acts as a good solvent.

When common salt (NaCl) is added to water, the electrostatic force between Na and Cl irons is reduced to the high relative permitivity of water.

Question 22.
Why is it safer to be inside a bus than standing under a tree on in open ground during lightning?
Answer:
The metal body of the bus provides electrostatic shielding since the electricfield inside the bus is zero.
During lightning, the electric charges flow through the body bus to the ground without affecting the person inside that bus.

Question 23.
State Gauss Law.
Answer:
Gauss Law states that the electric flux of the electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}\) over any closed surface is equal to \(\frac{1}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) times the net charge enclosed by the surface.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 24.
What are non-polar molecules? State examples.
Answer:
In a non-polar molecule, the centres of positive and negative charges coincide.
Eg: H2, O2, CO2 etc.

Question 25.
What are polar molecules? Mention few examples.
Answer:
A polar molecule is one in which the centres of the positive and negative charges are separated even in the absence of an external electric field.
Eg: H2O, N2O, HCl, NH3 etc..

Question 26.
Define Polarisation \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{p}}\).
Answer:
Polarisation \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{p}}\) is defined as the total dipole j moment per unit volume of the dielectric.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{p}}\) = χe \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{e x t}\)

Question 27.
What is meant by dielectric break down?
Answer:
When a very large external electric field is applied to a dielectric so that the bound electric, charges become free charges. Then electricity is conducted by the dielectrics. This is known as dielectric break down.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 28.
Define capacitance of a capacitor.
Answer:
The Capacitance of a capacitor is defined as the ratio of the magnitude of charge on either of the conductor plates to the potential difference existing between the conductors.

C = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{V}}\)

Question 29.
Sometimes/the bladps of the ceiling fan do not start rotating when it is switched on. Give reason from Physics.
Answer:
For the ceiling fan, the initial torque is given by the capacitor (condenser). If the capacitor is faulty than the initial torque required to the rotate the blades when the ceiling fan is switched on is not provided to the blades of the fan.

Question 30.
What are the applications of a capacitor?
Answer:
A capacitor is used
(i) In the digital camera to emit flash of light.
(ii) In heart defibrillator to give a sudden surge of a large amount of electric energy to the patient’s chest. In this way the normal heart function is retrieved.
(iii) In the ignition system of automobile engine to eliminate sparking.
(iv) In power supplies to reduce power fluctuations so that the efficiency of power transmission can be increased.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 31.
Where is the principle of corona discharge used?
Answer:
Corona discharge is used in
(i) Lightning arrester.
(ii) Van de graff generator and other electrostatic machines.

Question 32.
State and explain the properties of electric field lines with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
The properties of electric field lines are:
The electric field lines start from a positive charge and end at negative charges or at infinity. For a positive point charge the electric field lines point radially outward and for a negative point charge, the electric field lines point radially inward. (Fig. (a) and (b)).

(a) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 2

(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 3

Note that for an isolated positive point charge the electric field line starts from the charge and ends only at infinity. For an isolated negative point charge the electric field lines start at infinity and end at the negative charge.
The electric field vector at a point in space is tangential to the electric field line at that point.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 4

The electric field lines are denser (more close) in a region where the electric field has larger magnitude and less dense in a region where the electric field is of smaller magnitude. In other words, the number of lines passing through a given surface area perpendicular to the lines is proportional to the magnitude of the electric field in that region.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 5

Figure shows electric field lines from a positive point charge. The magnitude of the electric field for a point charge decreases as the distance increases (\(|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}| \propto \frac{1}{r^{2}}\)). So the
electric field has greater magnitude at the surface A than at B.

Therefore the number of lines crossing the surface A is greater than the number of lines crossing the surface B. Note that at surface B the electric field lines are farther apart compared to the electric field lines at the surface A.

No two electric field lines intersect each other. If two lines cross at a point, then there will be two different electric field vectors at the same point.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 6

As a consequence, if some charge is placed in the intersection point, then it has to move in two different directions at the same time, which is physically impossible. Hence, electric field lines do not intersect.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 7

The number of electric field lines that emanate from the positive charge or end at a negative charge is directly proportional to the magnitude of the charges.

For example in the Figure, the electric field lines are drawn for charges +q and -2q. Note that the number of field lines emanating from the +q is 8 and the number of field lines ending at -2q is 16. Since the magnitude of the second charge is twice that of the first charge, the number of field lines drawn for – 2q is twice in number than that for charge +q.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 33.
Explain the nature of electric flux for uniform electric field.
Answer:
Electric flux for orm Electric field:
Let us consider a uniform electric field in a region of space. Let us select an area A normal to the electric field lines. (Fig. (a)). The electric flux for this case is

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 8

If the same area A is kept parallel to the uniform electric field, then no electric field lines pierce through the area A. (Fig. (b)). The electric flux for this case is zero.

ΦE = 0 ………….(2)

If the area is inclined at an angle θ with the field, then the component of the electric field perpendicular to the area alone contributes to the electric flux. The electric field component parallel to the surface area will not contribute to the electric flux. (Fig. (c)). For this case, the electric flux

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 9

Further, θ is also the angle between the electric field and the direction normal to the area. Hence in general, for uniform electric field, the electric flux is defined as
ΦE = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) = EA cos θ ………… (4)

Here, note that \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) is the area vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) = A n̂. Its magnitude is simply the area A and the direction is along the unit vector n̂ perpendicular to the area. Using this definition for flux, ΦE = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\), equations (2) and (3) can be obtained as special cases.

In Figure (a), θ = 0° so ΦE = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) = EA
In Figure (b), θ = 90° so ΦE = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) = 0

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 34.
Discuss nature of electric flux in a non uniform electric field and arbitrarily shaped area.
Answer:
If the electric field is not uniform and the area A is not flat (Figure), then the entire area is divided into n small area segments
\(\Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_{1}, \Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_{2}, \Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_{3} \ldots \ldots . \Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_{n}\) such that each area
element is almost flat and the electric field through each area element is considered to be uniform.
The electric flux for the entire area A is approximately written as

\(\begin{aligned}
\phi_{\mathrm{E}} &=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{1} \cdot \Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_{1}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{2} \cdot \Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_{2}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{3} \cdot \Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_{3} \ldots \ldots . \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{n} \cdot \Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_{n} \\
&=\sum_{i=1}^{n} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_{1}
\end{aligned}\) ………… (1)

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 10

By taking the limit ∆Ai → 0 (for all i) the summation in equation (1) becomes integration. The total electric flux for the entire area is given by
ΦE = \(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) ……..(2)

From Equation (2), it is clear that the electric flux for a given surface depends on both the electric field pattern on the surface area and orientation of the surface with respect to the electric field.

Question 35.
Derive an expression for electric field due to two parallel charged infinite sheets.
Answer:
Electric field due to two parallel charged infinite sheets:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 11

Let us consider two infinitely large charged plane sheets with equal and opposite charge densities +σ and -σ which are placed parallel to each other as shown in the Figure.

The electric field between the plates and outside the plates is found using Gauss law. The magnitude of the electric field due to an infinite charged plane sheet is \(\frac{\sigma}{2 \varepsilon_{0}}\) and it points perpendicularly outward if σ > 0 and points inward if σ < 0.

At the points P2 and P3, the electric field due to both plates are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction (Figure). Hence the electric field at a point outside the plates is zero. But inside the plate, electric fields are in same direction i.e., towards the right, the total electric field at a point P1

Einside = \(\frac{\sigma}{2 \varepsilon_{\theta}}+\frac{\sigma}{2 \varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)

The direction of the electric field inside the plates is directed from positively charged plate to negatively charged plate and is f uniform everywhere inside the plate.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 36.
Explain the application of capacitor.
Answer:
(i) The applications of capacitor are capacitors is used in most people are now familiar with the digital camera to emit a flash. The flash which comes from the camera when we take photographs is due to the energy released from the capacitor, called a flash capacitor.
(ii) Capacitor is used in the 20 heart defibrillator that is used to give a sudden surge of a large amount of electrical energy to the patient’s chest to retrieve the normal heart function. This defibrillator uses a capacitor of 175 µF charged to a high voltage of around 2000 V.
(iii) Capacitors are used in the ignition system of automobile engines to eliminate sparking.
(iv) Capacitors are used to reduce power fluctuations in power supplies and to increase the efficiency of power transmission.

Question 37.
An oil drop of 12 excess electrons is held stationary under a constant electric field of 2.55 × 104 Vm-1. If the density of the oil is 1.26 g cm-3 then calculate the radius of the drop.
Answer:
Number of electrons = 12
Electric field = 2.55 × 104 Vm-1
Density ρ = 1.26 × 103 kg m-3
As the drop is stationary,
Weight of droplet = force due to electric field
\(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3 ρ g = Eq = E r e

r3 = \(\frac{3 \text { Ere }}{4 \pi \rho g}\)

= \(\frac{3 \times 2.55 \times 10^{4} \times 12 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{4 \times 3.14 \times 1.26 \times 10^{3} \times 9.8}\)

r3 = 0.94 × 10-18
∴ r = (0.94 × 10-18)1/3.
= 9.81 × 10-7 m
∴ Radius of the drop = 9.81 × 10-7 m

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 38.
An electric dipole of charges 2 × 10-6 C, – 2 × 10-6 C are separated by a distance 1 cm. Calculate the electric field due to dipole at a point on its.
(i) axial line 1 m from its centre
(ii) equatorial line 1 m from its centre.
Answer:
Charges are q1 = 2 × 10-6 C;
q2 = – 2 × 10-6 C;
Distance of separation r = 1 cm = 10-2 m.
Electric field due to dipole at a point on the axial line is

E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 p}{r^{3}}\); P = q × 2d

Electric field due to dipole at a point on the equatorial line is

E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \times \frac{P}{r^{3}}\)

Electric field due to dipole at a point on the axial line

E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \mathrm{P}}{r^{3}}\)

P = q × 2 d = 2 × 10-6 × 10-2 = 2 × 10-8

E = \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 2 \times 2 \times 10^{-8}}{1^{3}}\)
= 36 × 101
= 360 NC-1

Electric field due to dipole at a point 1m from its center on the equatorial line is

E = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r^{3}}\)

P = q × 2d = 2 × 10-6 × 1 × 102
= 2 × 10-8 cm

E = \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 2 \times 10^{-8}}{1^{3}}\)

= 18 × 10-1 = 180 N+C-1

Electric field along axial line = 360 N+C-1.
Electric field along equatorial line = 180 NC-1.

Question 39.
A spherical conductor of radius 0.12 m has a charge of 1.6 × 10-7 C distributed uniformly on its surface. What is the electric field
(i) inside the sphere
(ii) on the sphere
(iii) at a point 0.18 m from the centre of the sphere?
Answer:
Radius of a sphere r = 0.12 m;
Charge of a sphere q = 1.6 × 10-7 C.
(i) Electric field inside the sphere = 0
(ii) Electric field on the sphere

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 12

(iii) Electric field at a point 0.18 m from the centre of the sphere

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 13

Electric field inside the sphere = 0
Electric field on the sphere = 105 NC-1
Electric field at a point 0.18 m from the centre of the sphere = 4.44 × 104 NC-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 40.
An electric charge 1.6 × 10-19 C is situated in a uniform field of intensity 120000Vm-1. Find the force on it, its acceleration and the time it takes to travel 20mm from rest. (Electron mass m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg)
Answer:
Given:
E = 120000 Vm-1;
e = 1.6 × 10-19 C

Working: .
∴ F = Ee;
F = 1.6 × 10-19 × 1.2 × 105
= 1.92 × 10-14 N
Acceleration a = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m}=\frac{1.92 \times 10^{-4}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\)
= 2.12 × 1016 ms-2

Time taken to travel 20 mm or 0.02 m is given by
s = \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2

t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 s}{a}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 0.02}{2.12 \times 10^{16}}}\)

= 1.37 × 10-9 s

Force F = 1.92 × 10-14 N
Acceleration a = 2.12 × 10×16 ms-2
Time taken to travel 20 mm from rest t = 1.37 × 10-9 s

Question 41.
Calculate the electric potential energy of electron-protonsystemofhydrogenatom.The radius ofthe electron orbit r = 5.92 × 10-10 m; Electron charge e = 1.6 × 10-19 C.
Answer:
r = 5.92 × 10-10 m;
e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
The electric potential energy of electron- proton system

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 14

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 42.
Two fixed point, charges + 4q and + q are separated by a distance d. Where should the third point charge be placed for it to be in equilibrium?
Answer:
The charges are q1 = +4q and q2 = +q.
Distance between the charges = d
Force between the charges

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 15

AB = d, AC = q; CB = d – x
Let a charge q be placed between two charges.
Force on the charge C exerted by A is given by

F1 = \(\frac{q(4 q)}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} x^{2}}\) directed away from A (4q)

Force on the charge C exerted by B is given by

F2 = \(\frac{q(q)}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}(d-x)^{2}}\) directed away from B (q).

For the charge q to be in equilibrium,
F1 = F2

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 16

The charge q should be placed at a distance from charge 4q.

Question 43.
A charged particle of mass 1.0 g is suspended through a silk thread of length 40 cm in a horizontal electric field of 4 × 10 4 N/C. If the particle stays at a distance of 24 cm from the wall in equilibrium, calculate the charge on the particle.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 17

Answer:
Mass of the particle m = 10-3 kg
Length of a silk thread OA = 40 cm = 0.4 m;
Electric field E = 4 × 104 N/C
Distance AB = 0.24 m
In equilibrium,
F = T sin θ ………..(1)
mg = T cos θ …………(2)
Dividing equation (1) by (2) we get

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 18

Charge q = 1.8 × 10-7 C.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 44.
Calculate the electric potential energy of the system of charges shown in the figure.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 19

Answer:
Let the charges -q, -q, +q and +q are located at the comers of a square A, B, C and D.

Potential energy P.E. = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r}\)

Taking zero of potential energy at infinity we get P.E. of the system of charges.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 20

Potential energy = \(\frac{-18 q^{2}}{a \sqrt{2}}\) × 109 J.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 45.
A square of side 1.3 m has charges +12 nC, -24nC, +31 nC and +17 nC at its corners. Calculate the electric potential at the centre of the square.
Answer:
q1 = +12 nC;
q2 = -24 nC;
q3 = +31 nC;
q4 = +17 nC;
d = 1.3 m

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 21

Total charge = q1 + q2 + q3 + q4
= (12 – 24 + 31 + 17) × 10-9
q = 36 × 10-9
∴ V = \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 36 \times 10^{9}}{0.919}\)

V = 352.6 V

Question 46.
Two charges of -4 µC and +4 µC are placed at the points A(1, 0, 4) and B (2, -1, 5) located in an electric field E = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=0.20 \hat{i}\) V / cm. Calculate the torque acting on the dipole.
Answer:
As A(1, 0, 4), B (2, -1, 5)
∴ 2a = A\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
= [(2 – 1)î + (- 1 – 0)ĵ + (5 – 4)k̂]
= [î – ĵ + k̂]
Charge q = ± 4 × 10-6 C
Electric field E = 0.20 î V / cm = 20 î V / m
Torque acting on the dipole
τ = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)
τ = q(2\(\vec{a}\)) × E
= 4 × 10-6 (î + ĵ + k̂) × 20 î
= 8 × 10-5 (k̂ + ĵ)

Magnitude of torque
τ = 8 × 10-5 \(\sqrt{1^{2}+1^{2}}\)
= 8 × 10-5 × √2
= 8 × 10-5 × 1.414
= 11.312 × 10-5 N m

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 47.
An infinite number of charges each numerically equal to q and of the same sign are placed along x – axis at x = 1, x = 2, x = 4, x = 8 and so on.
Calculate the electric potential at x = 0.
Answer:
From, super position principle, we get electric potential at the origin (x – 0) due to various charges as, q

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 22

Question 48.
If one of the two electrons of a hydrogen molecule is removed, we get a molecular ion (H2+). In the ground state of H2+, the two protons are separated by 1.5 Å and electron is 1 Å from each proton. Determine the potential energy of the system.
Answer:
q1 = Charge on electron = 1.6 × 10-19 C
q2, q3 – Charge on two protons = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Distance between q1 and q2 is
r12 = 1 Å = 1 × 10-10 m
Distance between q2 and q3 is
r23 = 1.5 Å = 1.5 × 10-10 m
Distance between q3 and q1 is
r31 = 1 Å = 10-10 m
Potential energy

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 23

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 49.
The electric field in a region is given by \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{3}{5} \mathrm{E}_{0} \hat{i}+\frac{4}{5} \mathrm{E}_{\alpha} \hat{j}\) with E0 = 2 × 103 N / C.
Calculate the electric flux of this field through a rectangular^surface of area 0.2 m2 parallel to the Y – Z plane.
Answer:
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{3}{5} \mathrm{E}_{0} \hat{i}+\frac{4}{5} \mathrm{E}_{\alpha} \hat{j}\)
Where E0 = 2 × 103 N / C.
Area = 0.2 m2 parallel to YZ plane.
Normal to the area will be along x – axis
electric flux is Φ = Ex × A
= \(\frac{3}{5}\) E0 × 0.2
= \(\frac{0.6}{5}\) × 2 × 103
Electric flux Φ = 240 N m2 C-1

Question 50.
Find the electric flux through each face of a hollow cube of side 10 cm, if a charge of 8.85 μC is placed at the centre.
Answer:
The side of a hollow cube = 10 × 10-2 m;
Charge q = 8.85 × 10-6 C

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 24

Total number of sides of a hollow cube = 6
According to Gauss’s theorem the electric flux through each force is given by,

Φ = \(\frac{1}{6} \frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{8.85 \times 10^{-6}}{8.85 \times 10^{-12}}\)

= \(\frac{1 \times 10^{6}}{6}\) = 1.6 × 105 Nm2 C-1
Electric flux through each face = 1.6 × 105 Nm2 C-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 51.
Two positive charges of 12 μC and 8 μC respectively are 10 cm apart. Find the work done in bringing them 4 cm closer, so that, they are 6 cm apart.
Answer:
The charges are q1 = 12C; q2 = 8C
Distance between the charges rB = 10 × 10-2 m
Distance between the charges rA = 6 × 10-2 m

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 25

= 12 × 10-6 × 8 × 10-6 × 9 × 1011 × \(\frac{4}{60}\)

= \(\frac{96 \times 36}{60}\) × 1011 × 10-12
= 57.6 × 1011 × 10-12
= 57.6 × 10-1 = 57.6
work = 57.6

Question 52.
Find the work done in bringing a charge of +10 × 10-4 µC from infinity to apart 25 cm from the charge of +3 × 10-2 µC.
Answer:
q1 = 10 × 10-4 µC;
q2 = 3 × 10-2 µC;
r = 25 × 10-2 m
Work done represents the electric potential energy (U) of the system of charge q1 and q2.
U = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r^{2}}\)

U = \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 10 \times 10^{-4} \times 10^{-6} \times 3 \times 10^{-2} \times 10^{-6}}{25 \times 10^{-2}}\)
= 10.8 × 10-7 joules

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 53.
The electrostatic force on a small sphere of charge 0.4 µC due to another small sphere of charge – 0.8 µC in air is 0.2 N. Calculate the distance between two spherical charges. What is the force on the second sphere due to the first?
Answer:
The charges are q1 = 0.4 × 10-6 C;
q2 = – 0.8 × 10-6 C.
Force between the two charges F = 0.2 N
Force between the charges F = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
Distance between two spherical charges is given by
r2 = \(\frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{~F}}\)

= \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 0.4 \times 10^{-6} \times 0.8 \times 10^{-6}}{0.2}\)
= 16 × 9 × 10-4
∴ r = 4 × 3 × 10-2 m = 0.12 m
Distance between two charges = 0.12 m
Force on second sphere is same F2 = 0.2 N.

Question 54.
The electric field outside a charged long straight wire is given by E = \(\frac{1000}{r}\) V m-1, and is directed outwards.
(a) What is the sign of the charge on the wire.
(b) If two points A and B are situated in such a way that rA = 0.2 m and rB = 0.4 m then Calculate the value of (VB – VA).
Answer:
(a) The charge on the wire must be positive

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 26

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 55.
A parallel plate capacitor consists of two identical circular plates of radius 3cm which are separated by 2.5mm. Calculate the capacitance. What will be its capacitance if the separation is reduced to half the initial value?
Answer:
Radius of each plate
r = 3 cm = 3 × 10-2 m
∴ Area of each plate A = πr²
= π (3 × 10-2)2 = 28.27 × 10-4 m2
Distance between plates d = 2.5 mm = 2.5 × 10-3 m
Absolute permittivity of air
ε0 = 8.854 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2
Capacitance of the capacitor
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{~A}}{d}\)

= \(\frac{8.854 \times 10^{-12} \times 28.27 \times 10^{-4}}{2.5 \times 10^{-3}}\)

= 100 × 10-13 F
= 10 × 10-12 F
= 10 pF

Question 56.
A parallel plate air capacitor has the same capacity as that of a spherical conductor of diameter 1.2 m. If the plates of the parallel plate capacitor are separated by a distance of 0.2 m, calculate the area of the plates.
Answer:
Diameter D = 1.2 m
Radius r = 0.6 m
Distance between plates d = 0.2 m
Capacity of parallel plate capacitor = Capacity of spherical conductor
\(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{~A}}{d}\) = 4πε0r
where A = area of the plates
A = 4πrd = 4π × 0.6 × 0.2
Area of the plates = 1.51 m2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 57.
A parallel plate condenser is made up of 26 metal strips each 3 cm by 4 cm separated by sheets of mica of dielectric constant 6 and uniform thickness of 0.2mm. Calculate it capacity.
Answer:
A= 0.03 × 0.04 = 12 × 10-4 m2
n = (26 – 1) = 25
εr = 6
ε0 = 8.854 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2
d = 0.2 mm = 2 × 10-4 m

C = \(\frac{n \varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{r} \mathrm{~A}}{d}\)

= \(\frac{25 \times 8.854 \times 10^{-12} \times 6 \times 12 \times 10^{-4}}{2 \times 10^{-4}}\)
= 7.965 × 10-9 F
Capacity = 7.965 × 10-9 F

Question 58.
Two capacitors of capacity 200 pF and 600 pF are connected in parallel and then charged to a potential of 120 V. Determine
(a) the charge on each capacitor;
(b) the total charge and
(c) the effective capacity of the combination.
Answer:
Here C1 = 200 × 10-12 F;
C2 = 600 × 10-12 F;
V = 120 V
(a) Charge on first capacitor,
q1 = C1 V
= 200 × 10-12 × 120 = 24 × 10-9 C
Charge on second capacitor,
q2 = C2V
= 600 × 10-12 × 120 = 72 × 10-9 C

(b) Total charge
q = q1 + q2
= (24 × 10-9) + (72 × 10-9)
= 96 × 10-9 C

(c) Let the effective capacity be C.
Capacitors are connected in parallel.
C = C1 + C1
= 200 × 10-12 + 600 × 10-12
= 800 × 10-12 F
C = 800 μ F = 800 pF

(a) q1 = 24 × 10-9 C;
q2 = 72 × 10-9 C
(b) Total charge q = 96 × 10-9 C
(c) Effective capacitance C = 800 pF

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 59.
A 4 μF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to another uncharged 2 μF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy of the capacitor is dissipated in the form of heat?
Answer:
Capacitance of first Capacitor
C1 = 4 × 10-6 F
V1 = 200 V
Initial electrostatic energy is C1 is
E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) C1V12
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 4 × 10-6 (200)2
E1 = 8 × 10-2 J ……….(1)
Capacitance of another capacitor
C2 = 4 p F
When C2 is connected to C1, charge flows and both acquire a common potential

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 27

From equation (1) and (2) we get energy dissiputedintheformofheat
= E1 – E2 = 8 × 10-2 – 5.33 × 10-2
= 2.67 × 10-2 J

Question 60.
Three capacitors of 1 µF, 2 µF and 3 µF are joined in series first and then in parallel. Calculate the ratio of equivalent capacitance in two cases.
Answer:
C1 = 1 µF, C2 = 2 µF, C3 = 3 µF Series:
Series:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 28

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 29

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 61.
A dielectric of relative permittivity 3 fills up only three fourth of the space between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor. Calculate the percentage of energy stored in the dielectric.
Answer:
C1 = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{~A}}{d}\)

Energy stored in a capacitor E1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}_{1}}\)

An introducing the dielectric of thickness t = \(\frac{3}{4}\) d and k = 3
The new capacitance,

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 30

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements gives correct reason for ‘The charge given to any conductor resides on its outer surface only:
(a) the free charge tends to be in its state of maximum potential energy.
(b) the free charge tends to be in its state of minimum potential energy.
(c) the free charge tends to be in its state of minimum kinetic energy.
(d) the free charge tends to be in its state of maximum kinetic energy.
Answer:
(c) the free charge tends to be in its state of minimum kinetic energy.

Question 2.
Assertion:
For practical purpose, the earth is used as a reference at zero potential in electrical circuits.
Reason:
The electrical potential of a sphere of radius R with charge Q uniformly distributed on the surface is given by \(\frac{Q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} R}\)
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 3.
Consider the points lying on a straight line joining two fixed opposite charges. Between the charges there is:
Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) No point where electric field is zero.
(ii) Two points where electric potential is zero.
(iii) No point where electric potential is zero.
(iv) Three points where electric field is zero.

(a) statements (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) statements (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) statements (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) statements (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) statements (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
When an electron is sent in electric field of 9.1 × 106 N/C, the acceleration produced is ………….. m/s2.
(a) 0.8 × 1018
(b) 1.6 × 10-18
(c) 3.2 × 1018
(d) 1.6 × 1018
Answer:
(d) 1.6 × 1018
Hint:
Fe = eE
∴ ma = eE
a = \(\frac{e \mathrm{E}}{m}\)

= \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 9.1 \times 10^{6}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\)
= 1.6 × 1018

Question 5.
Choose the odd man out of the following:
(a) dipole moment
(b) electric potential
(c) electric field
(d) electric flux
Answer:
(c) electric field
Hint:
Electric field is a vector and others are scalars.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 6.
A conducting sphere of radius 20 cm gives a charge of 16pC. The electric field at its centre will be:
(a) 1.8 × 104 N / C
(b) 3.6 × 104 N / C
(c) Zero
(d) 0.9 × 104 N/C
Answer:
(c) Zero
Hint:
Electric field inside a conductor is zero.

Question 7.
Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. The net charge on the sphere is then:
(a) negative only a point on the sphere.
(b) zero
(c) negative and distributed uniformly over the surface of the sphere.
(d) negative and distributed non – uniformly over the surface of the sphere.
Answer:
(b) Zero
Hint:
When a positive point charge is placed outside, the neutral conducting sphere having no charge. Hence the net charge on the sphere is zero.

Question 8.
If a system consists of three charges 3q, 4q and -5q, then total charge of the system is:
(a) – 2q
(b) 2q
(c) 5q
(d) -3q
Answer:
(b) 2q

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 9.
If a proton is moved against the Coulomb force of an electric field:
(a) work is done by the electric field
(b) energy is used from some outside source
(c) the strength of the field is decreased
(d) the energy of the system is decreased
Answer:
(b) energy is used from some outside source

Question 10.
The unit of permittivity is:
(a) C2 N-1 m-2
(b) N m2 C-2
(c) N m-1
(d) N C-2 m-2
Answer:
(a) C2 N-1 m-2

Question 11.
The number of electric lines of force originating from a charge of 1 C is:
(a) 1.129 × 1011
(b) 1.6 × 10-19
(c) 6.25 × 1018
(d) 8.85 × 1012
Answer:
(a) 1.129 × 1011

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 12.
Which of the following quantities is scalar?
(a) Dipole moment
(b) Electric force
(c) Electric field
(d) Electric potential
Answer:
(d) Electric potential

Question 13.
The permittivity of vacuum ε0 equals:

(a) 9 × 109 Nm2C-2

(b) \(\frac{1}{9 \times 10^{9}} \mathrm{C}^{2} \mathrm{~N}^{-1} \mathrm{~m}^{-2}\)

(c) \(\frac{1}{9 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{C}^{2} \mathrm{~N}^{-1} \mathrm{~m}^{-2}} \mathrm{C}^{2} \mathrm{~N}^{-1} \mathrm{~m}^{-2}\)

(d) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \times 9 \times 10^{9}} \mathrm{C}^{2} \mathrm{~N}^{-1} \mathrm{~m}^{-2}\)

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \times 9 \times 10^{9}} \mathrm{C}^{2} \mathrm{~N}^{-1} \mathrm{~m}^{-2}\)

Question 14.
A bullet of mass 2g has a charge of 2 µC. The potential difference through which it must be accelerated from rest to acquire a speed of 10 ms-1 is:
(a) 5 V
(b) 50 V
(c) 5 kV
(d) 50 kV
Answer:
(d) 50 kV
Hint:
Work done = kinetic energy

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 31

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 15.
If an ebonite rod is rubbed with fur, it:
(a) becomes positively charged
(b) becomes negatively charged
(c) loses negative charge
(d) becomes uncharged
Answer:
(b) becomes negatively charged

Question 16.
An example of conductor is:
(a) nonmetal
(b) human body
(c) dry wood
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) human body

Question 17.
Coulomb’s inverse square law deals with:
(a) The force between two point charges
(b) The force of attraction between two or three charges
(c) The force of attraction between two charges
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) The force between two point charges

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 18.
When two point charges + 6 C and – 5 C experiences a force of 2.7 × 1011 N, the distance between them is:
(a) 0.5 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 10 cm
Answer:
(b) 1 m

Question 19.
Force between the charges is given by the equation
(a) F = \(\frac{k q_{1} q_{2}}{r^{2}}\)

(b) F = \(\frac{k q_{1} q_{2}}{r^{3}}\)

(c) F = \(\frac{k q_{1} q_{2}}{q 2^{r}}\)

(d) F = \(\frac{\mathrm{K} q_{1} q_{2}}{q_{1} r}\)
Answer:
(a) F = \(\frac{k q_{1} q_{2}}{r^{2}}\)

Question 20.
If the distance between two charges is doubled the electrostatic force between the charges will be:
(a) four times more
(b) four times less
(c) two times more
(d) two times less
Answer:
(b) four times less

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 21.
A given charge is situated at a certain distance from an electric dipole in the end-on position experiences a force F.
If the distance of the charge is doubled, then the force acting on the charge will be:

(a) \(\frac{F}{2}\)

(b) 2F

(c) \(\frac{F}{8}\)

(d) \(\frac{F}{4}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{F}{2}\)
Hint:
F = qE = q × k × \(\frac{2 p}{r^{3}}\)

∴ F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{3}}\)

when r is doubled,

F1 ∝ \(\frac{1}{(2 r)^{3}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{8}\) times F

F1 = \(\frac{F}{8}\)

Question 22.
An isolated point charge is given a charge q. The potential at a distance r is:

(a) \(\frac{q^{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{\theta} r}\)

(b) \(\frac{q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)

(c) \(\frac{q}{8 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)

(d) \(\frac{q^{2}}{8 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 23.
An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10-9 cm is kept at 30° with the direction of uniform electric field of magnitude 5 × 104 NC-1. The magnitude of torque on the dipole is:
(a) 10-4 Nm
(b) 10-5 Nm
(c) 104Nm
(d) 2 × 10-5 Nm
Answer:
(a) 10-4 Nm

Question 24.
(a)The electric field E and potential V at a point are related to one another as:

(a) E = – \(\frac{d r}{d V}\)

(b) E = \(\frac{d V}{d r}\)

(c) E = – \(\frac{d V}{d r}\)

(d) E = + \(\frac{d r}{d V}\)

Answer:
(c) E = – \(\frac{d V}{d r}\)

Question 25.
When a point P lies on the axial line of the dipole on the side of the positive charge then the potential is:

(a) V = \(\frac{P}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r^{2}}\)

(b) V = – \(\frac{P}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r^{2}}\)

(c) V = 0

(d) V = \(\frac{P}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r^{3}}\)
Answer:
(a) V = \(\frac{P}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r^{2}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 26.
The strength at any point inside the electric field is defined by:
(a) Force experienced by a unit positive charge
(b) Force of repulsion experienced by a unit negative charge
(c) Force experienced by a positive charge
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Force experienced by a unit positive charge

Question 27.
Lines of forces is represented by the path followed by …………. in an electric field.
(a) positive charge
(b) unit positive charge
(c) unit negative charge
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) unit positive charge

Question 28.
The surface charge density will be greater if:
(a) greater the radius of curvature at any point
(b) smaller the radius of curvature at any point
(c) the surface is plain
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) greater the radius of curvature at any point

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 29.
The electric field due to jlipole at a point on the equatorial line given by:
(a) E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \mathrm{P}}{r^{3}}\)

(b) E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{P}{r^{3}}\)

(c) E = \(\frac{P}{\pi \varepsilon_{0} r^{2}}\)

(d) E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{P}}{r^{3}}\)

Answer:

(b) E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{P}{r^{3}}\)

Question 30.
The electric potential energy U of the system of charges and q2 is:

(a) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{d}{q_{1} q_{2}}\)

(b) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{d}\)

(c) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{d^{2}}{q_{1} q_{2}}\)

(d) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{d^{2}}\)

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{d^{2}}\)

Question 31.
An electric dipole placed at an angle 0 in a non-uniform electric field experiences:
(a) neither a force nor a torque
(b) torque only
(c) both force and torque
(d) force only
Answer:
(c) both force and torque

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 32.
The law that governs the force between electric charges is:
(a) Ampere’s law
(b) Faraday’s law
(c) Coulomb’s law
(d) Ohm’s law
Answer:
(c) Coulomb’s law

Question 33.
Electric dipole consists of:
(a) two similar charges, separated by a small distance
(b) two dis-similar charges separated by a small distance
(c) two similar charges separated by a large distance
(d) many charges
Answer:
(b) two dis-similar charges separated by a small distance

Question 34.
According to Gauss theorem:
(a) Φ q = ε0

(b) Φ = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)

(c) ε0 = \(\frac{\phi}{q}\)

(d) Φ = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0}}{q}\)
Answer:
(b) Φ = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 35.
Two point charges A and B of + 5nC and + 3nC are kept at 6 cm apart in air medium. The work required to more charge B towards charge A through 1cm is:
(a) 3.5 × 10-7 J
(b) 4.5 × 10-7 J
(c) 4.5 × 10-11 J
(d) 3.5 × 10-10 j
Answer:
(b) 4.5 × 10-7 J
Hint:
work = change in P.E

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 32

Question 36.
Match the given physical quantities in Column I with the units given in Column II:

Column I Column II
(i) Electric field (A) N C-1 m2
(ii) Electric potential (B) C-2 N-1 m2
(iii) Electric permittivity (C) volt
(iv) Electric flux (D) N C-1

(a) (i) – (A); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (D); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (D); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (A); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(b) (i) – (D); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)

Question 37.
Choose the scalar quantity (odd man out) from the following:
(a) Electric field
(b) Electric potential
(c) Electric force
(d) Dipole moment
Answer:
(b) Electric potential

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 38.
The electric field lines of a positive charge and a negative charge are shown in the following figure.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 33

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Potential energy at A is greater than that at B.
(b) Potential energy at P is less than that at Q.
(c) Potential at A is greater than that at B.
(d) Potential at P is greater than that at Q.
Answer:
(c) Potential at A is greater than that at B.

Question 39.
A sphere of radius R is made up of a conducting material and carries a charge Q. Select the correct statements from the following:
(i) The electric field is zero inside the sphere.
(ii) The electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the sphere.
(iii) No work is done to move a charge from one point to another.
(iv) Charge Q resides on the surface of the sphere.

(a) statements (i) and (ii)
(b) statements (ii) and (iii)
(c) statements (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) statements (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) statements (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 40.
The magnitude of the electric field at a point P at a distance of 3 m from a point charge Q is 100 V m-1:
(i) Q = 4.0 µC
(ii) The value Q = 10-7 C
(iii) The value V = 1.8 × 104V
(iv) The electric potential at P is V = 3 × 104 V
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) statements (ii) and (iv)
(b) statements (iii) and (iv)
(c) statements (i) and (ii)
(d) statements (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) statements (i) and (ii)
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 34

V = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)

= \(\frac{10^{-7} \times 9 \times 10^{9}}{3}\)

= 3 × 102 V

Question 41.
Which one of the following is correct for the following situation for the given surface S, Gauss law states that the electric field E is due to all the charges placed:
(a) On the surface S
(b) inside the surface S
(c) outside the surface S
(d) inside and outside surface S
Answer:
(d) inside and outside surface S

Question 42.
Assertion:
If electric field is zero at a point then electric potential also be zero at that point.
Reason:
Electric field is equal to the negative gradient of potential.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and reason is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false and reason is true.
Hint:
Since E = \(\frac{-d \mathrm{~V}}{d r}\)
If E = 0 then V = constant but not necessarily equal to zero.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 43.
Assertion:
When a test charge is released in a uniform electric field* then it will moves along the fixed line passing through that point
Reason:
The tangent at a point on the electric field gives the direction of the electric field at that point.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is false and reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true and reason is false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is false and reason is true.

Question 44.
Assertion:
A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery, when battery is disconnected, if the space between the plates is filled with a dielectric, then energy stored will increase.
Reason:
Due to the introduction of dielectric the capacitance will be increased.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(b) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(c) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explain assertion correctly.
(d) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
Hint:
Energy U = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}}\)
As battery is disconnected the charge Q remains same. Hence C increases and energy will be decreased.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 45.
The inner and outer radii of a spherical capacitor are r1 and r2 respectively. When the inner surface is earthed. The outer sphere is given a charge +Q, then the charge on the inner surface of the outer sphere is Q” is:

(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}\left(r_{a}-r_{b}\right)}{r_{b}}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}\left(r_{b}-r_{a}\right)}{r_{a}}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{Q} r_{b}}{r_{a}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{Q} r_{a}}{r_{b}}\)

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{Q} r_{a}}{r_{b}}\)

Hint:
Q” = Q – Q’

= Q – \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}\left(r_{b}-r_{a}\right)}{r_{b}}\)

Q” = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q} r_{a}}{r_{b}}\)

Question 46.
Select the correct pair of the following:
(a) Dipole moment and electric field
(b) Dipole moment and electric potential
(c) Electric permittivity and electric potential
(d) Electric pepnityivity and electric field
Answer:
(c) Electric permittivity and electric potential

Question 47.
Match the given quantities in both column J I and II: I

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 35

(a) (i) – (A); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (B)
(b) (i) – (D); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (C); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (E)
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 48.
Which one of the following pairs’is a correct pair.
(a) Electric field and dielectric constant
(b) Electric field and dipole moment
(c) Electric flux and dielectric constant
(d) Electric potential and dielectric constant
Answer:
(b) Electric field and dipole moment
Hint:
They are vectors.

Question 49.
The effective capacitance of the following circuit is:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 36

(a) \(\frac{3}{4}\) µF
(b) \(\frac{8}{3}\) µF
(c) \(\frac{4}{3}\) µF
(d) \(\frac{2}{3}\) µF
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{4}{3}\) µF
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 37

Question 50.
If a charge of q coulomb is placed at a point and a force F Newton is experienced by a unit positive charge then the electric field:
(a) E = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{q}\)

(b) E = \(\frac{q}{\mathrm{~F}}\)

(c) E = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{q^{2}}\)

(d) E = \(\frac{q^{2}}{\mathrm{~F}}\)
Answer:
(a) E = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{q}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 51.
Inverse square law enables to define unit of:
(a) charge
(b) positive charge
(c) electric field
(d) neutral charges
Answer:
(a) charge

Question 52.
The equation for permittivity of medium is:.
(a) ε = εr ε0

(b) ε = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0}}{\varepsilon_{r}}\)

(c) ε = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{r}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)

(d) ε = εr – εo
Answer:
(a) ε = εr ε0

Question 53.
Equation of electric charges is:
(a) q = ne
(b) q = Cv
(c) e = qn
(d) e = vC
Answer:
(a) q = me

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 54.
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases from 5 µF to 60 µF when a dielectric is filled between the plates. The dielectric constant of the dielectric is:
(a) 65
(b) 55
(c) 12
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 12
Hint:
εdielectric = \(\frac{\mathrm{C}_{\text {dielectric }}}{\mathrm{C}_{\text {air }}}\)

= \(\frac{60}{5}\) = 12

Question 55.
A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge produces no electric field at points:
(a) outside the sphere
(b) on its surface
(c) inside the sphere
(d at a distance more than twice
Answer:
(c) inside the sphere

Question 56.
The electrostatic force between two point charges kept at a distance d apart, in a medium εr = 6, is 0.3 N. The force between them at the same separation in vacuum is:
(a) 20 N
(b) 0.5 N
(c) 1.8 N
(d) 2 N
Answer:
(c) 1.8 N

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 57.
Electric field intensity is 400 V m-1 at a distance of 2 m from a point charge. It will be 100 V m-1 at a distance:
(a) 50 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 4 m
(d) 1.5 m
Answer:
(c) 4 m

Question 58.
Two point charges + 4q and +q are placed 30 cm apart. At what point on the line joining them the electric field is zero?
(a) 15 cm from the charge q
(b) 7.5 cm from the charge q
(c) 20 cm from the charge 4q
(d) 5 cm from the charge q
Answer:
(c) 20 cm from the charge 4q

Question 59.
The work done in moving 500 µC charge between two points on equipotential surface is:
(a) zero
(b) finite positive
(c) finite negative
(d) infinite
Answer:
(a) zero

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 60.
The direction of electric field at a point on the equatorial line due to an electric dipole is:
(a) along the equatorial*line towards the dipole.
(b) along the equatorial line away from the dipole.
(c) parallel to the axis of the dipole and opposite to the direction of dipole moment.
(d) parallel to the axis of the dipole and in the direction of dipole moment.
Answer:
(c) parallel to the axis of the dipole and opposite to the direction of dipole moment.

Question 61.
The equivalent capacitance of two capacitors in series is 1.5 µF. The capacitance of one of them is 4 µF. The value of capacitance of the other is:
(a) 2.4 µF
(b) 0.24 µF
(c) 0.417 µF
(d) 4.17 µF
Answer:
(a) 2.4 µF
Hint:
\(\frac{1}{C_{s}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}_{2}}\)

\(\frac{1}{1.5}=\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{c_{2}}\)

∴ C2 = 24 µF

Question 62.
A hollow metallic spherical shell carrying an electric charge produces no electric field at points:
(a) on the surface of the sphere
(b) inside the sphere
(c) at infinite distance from the centre of the sphere
(d) outside the sphere
Answer:
(b) inside the sphere

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 63.
Potential energy of two equal negative point charges of magnitude 2pC placed 1m apart in air is:
(a) 2 J
(b) 0.36 J
(c) 4 J
(d) 0.036 J
Answer:
(b) 0.36 J

Question 64.
The workdone in moving 4 µC charge from one point to another in an electric field is 0.012 J. The potential difference between them is:
(a) 3000 V
(b) 6000 V
(c) 30 V
(d) 48 × 103 V
Answer:
(a) 3000 V

Question 65.
The total flux over a closed surface enclosing an electron is:
(a) 12.8 π × 10-19
(b) 36 π × 106
(c) 57.6 π × 10-10
(d) 36 π × 109
Answer:
(c) 57.6 π × 10-10

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 66.
The capacitance of a capacitor that should be connected along with two capacitors, having capcitances 4 µF and 8 µF all in series to produce effective capacitance of \(\frac{24}{11}\) µF is:
(a) 6 µF
(b) 2 µF
(c) 110 µF
(d) 12 µF
Answer:
(d) 12 µF
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 38

Question 67.
When a number of capcitors of equal capacitances are connected in series, the effective capacitance is 0.4 µF and when they are connected in parallel, the effective capacitance is 90 µF. What is the capacitance Of each capacitor?
(a) 9 µF
(b) 10 µF
(c) 6 µF
(d) 3 µF
Answer:
(c) 6 µF
Hint:
Cs = \(\frac{c}{n}\) = 0.4 µF
Cp = nc = 90 µF
∴ C = 12 µF

Question 68.
The capacitance of a capacitor with a dielectric slab:
(a) decreases
(b) first decreases and then increases
(c) increases
(d) is infinity
Answer:
(c) increases

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 69.
The capacitance of a capacitor, when a dielectric is introduced, is:
(a) \(\frac{\varepsilon_{r} \cdot \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{~A}}{(d-t)+t}\)

(b) \(\frac{(d-t)+A}{\varepsilon_{0}+t / \varepsilon_{r}}\)

(c) \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0}(d-t)}{\mathrm{A}+t / \varepsilon_{r}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{(d-t)+t / \varepsilon_{r}}\)

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{(d-t)+t / \varepsilon_{r}}\)

Question 70.
Two identical metal spheres have charges +15 µC and +25 µC and are separated by a distance. If the spheres are first brought into contact and then separated to the Original
distance, then the ratio of the. new force between them to the previous force is:
(a) 3 : 5
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 5 : 3
(d) 16 : 15
Answer:
(d) 16 : 15

Question 71.
Two charges + 4 C and + 1 C are separated by a distance of 3m. To keep these charges in equilibrium, a third charge is to be placed at:
(a) 2.5 m from the charge 1 C
(b) 1.5 m from the charge 4 C
(c) 2 m from the charge 4 C
(d) 2 m from the charge 1 C
Answer:
(c) 2 m from the charge 4 C

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 72.
Two charges – q and + 2q are placed at A and B respectively. The distance between A and B is 12 m. At a point P between A and B, the potential is zero. Then, the distance of AP is:
(a) 3 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8 m
Answer:
(b) 4 m

Question 73.
If two capacitors of capacitances 2 µF and 4 µF are connected in parallel, the effective capacitance of the system is:
(a) 6 µF
(b) \(\frac{3}{4}\) µF
(c) \(\frac{4}{3}\) µF
(d) 2 µF
Answer:
(a) 6 µF

Question 74.
If two capacitors of capacitances 2 µF and 6 µF are put in series, the effective capacitance of the system is:
(a) 8 µF
(b) 2 µF
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\) µF
(d) \(\frac{2}{3}\) µF
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{2}{3}\) µF

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 75.
Two capacitors each of 4 µF capacitance are joined in parallel. The effective capacitance is:
(a) 4 µF
(b) 8 µF
(c) 2 µF
(d) 6 µF
Ans :
(b) 8 µF

Question 76.
The leakage of electric charge from the sharp points on a charged conductor is known as:
(a) action of points
(b) electric field strength
(c) electric potential
(d) electrostatic induction
Answer:
(a) action of points

Question 77.
What is the use of Van de Graaff generator?
(a) To produce very high voltage
(b) To produce high current
(c) To produce high electric field strength
(d) To produce high electric power
Answer:
(a) To produce very high voltage

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 78.
Select the correct pair of polar molecules:
(a) H2O and H2
(b) HCl and O2
(c) CO2 and NH3
(d) HCl and NH3
Answer:
(d) HCl and NH3

Question 79.
Choose the odd man out from the following:
(a)N2O
(b) CO2
(c) HCl
(d) H2O
Answer:
(b) CO2

Question 80.
Select correct pair of the following j non – polar molecules:
(a) H2 and HCl
(b) O2 and CO2
(c) O2 and N2O
(d) CO2 and NH3
Answer:
(b) O2 and CO2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 81.
Match the following quantities in Column I ! with the given quantities in Column II.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 39

(a) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B)
(b) (i) – (C); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (F); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B)

Question 82.
Choose the correct statements from the following for the given situation.
The dielectric can be inserted into the plates of a capacitor when,
(i) the capacitor is connected to the battery
(ii) the capacitor is disconnected from the battery
(iii) the capacitor is discharging and plates are removed
(iv) the capacitor is charging without the j plates
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(d) (i) and (ii)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 83.
Match the quantities given in Column I and II:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 40

(a) (i) – (D); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (C); (iv) – (F)
(b) (i) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (A); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (C); (iv) – (F)
(d) (i) – (F); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (F); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B)

Question 84.
Match the following quantities given in Column I and Column II.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 41

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostatics 42

(a) (i) – (A); (ii) – (F); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (D)
(b) (i) – (B); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (D)
(c) (i) – (F); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (F); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (E); (ii) – (F); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (C)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Electrostaticsy

Question 85.
The electric field intensity due to n cylinders having charge q per unit length and radius R at a distance r that is greater than R from its j axis is:
(a) directly proportional to r
(b) directly proportional to r2
(c) inversely proportional to r
(d) inversely proportional to r2
Answer:
(c) inversely proportional to r
Hint:
By Gauss law
Φ × E ds = \(\frac{q l}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
When E is constant
Φ . E ds = E × 2 π rl
∴ E × 2 π rl = \(\frac{q }{\varepsilon_{0}}\) l

∴ E = \(\frac{q}{2 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)

∴ E ∝ \(\frac{1}{r}\)

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 1.
Define Environmental Chemistry.
Answer:
Environmental chemistry is a branch of chemistry which deals with the study of chemicals and chemical processes occurring in the environment by direct human activities, It also deals with sources, causes and methods of controlling air, water and soil pollution.

Question 2.
Explain the term:
(i) Environmental pollution
(ii) Pollutants.
Answer:
(i) Any undesirable change in our environment ; that has harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings is called environmental pollution.
(ii) The substances which cause pollution of environment are called pollutants.

Question 3.
Give the composition of air.
Answer:
Air contains roughly 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.93% argon, 0.04% carbon dioxide, trace amounts of other gases and little amount of water vapour.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 4.
Explain various regions of atmosphere.
Answer:
The lowest layer of the atmosphere is called the troposphere and it extends from 0 – 10 km from the earth surface. About 80% of the mass of the atmosphere is in this layer. This troposphere in further divided as follows.

(i) Hydrosphere:
It includes all types of water sources like oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, streams, underground water, polar icecaps, clouds etc., It covers about 75% of the earth’s surface. Hence the earth is called as a blue planet.

(ii) Lithosphere:
It includes soil, rocks and mountains which are solid components of earth.

(iii) Biosphere:
It includes the lithosphere hydrosphere and atmosphere integrating the living organism present in the , lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

Question 5.
Explain the term air pollution and mention the causes of air pollution.
Answer:
Any undesirable change in air which adversely affects living organisms is called air pollution. Air pollution is limited to troposphere and stratosphere. Air pollution is mainly due to the excessive discharge of undesirable foreign matter into the atmospheric air.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 6.
Give examples for gaseous air pollutants.
Answer:
Oxides of sulphur, oxides of nitrogen, oxides of carbon, and hydrocarbons are the gaseous air pollutants.

Question 7.
Briefly outline the sources of air pollution? How are the gaseous air pollutants produced?
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 8.
Mention the harmful effect of the gaseous air pollutants.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 2

Question 9.
Explain briefly ‘acid rain’. How is it caused?
Answer:
(i) Acid rain refers to any precipitation which has pH less than 5.6. The pH of acid rain ranges between 5.6 to 3.5 and in some cases evenupto 2.
(ii) Acid rain results from the presence of two strong acids in polluted air i.e., H2SO4 and to a lesser extent HNO3.
(iii) The presence of nitric acid in air is explained by the chemical reactions indicated below.

N2 + O2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 3 2NO
2 NO + O2 → 2 NO2
2 NO2 + H2O → HNO3 + HNO2

i.e., Nitric oxide is formed from its elements in air at high temperatures (i.e., during lightening). This is oxidised to NO2 which dissolves in H2O (from rain) to form nitric acid.

(iv) The sulphur dioxide present in air as a pollutant dissolves in water (i.e., rain) forming sulphuric acid as follows.
2 SO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 2H2SO4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 10.
Give examples for (i) viable particulate (ii) non-viable particulate.
Answer:
(i)Viable particulate:
Bacteria, fungi, moulds, algae etc…
(ii)Non-viable particulate:
Smoke, dust, mist, fumes, etc…

Question 11.
How the non-viable particulates pollute the air? Briefly explain.
Answer:
(i) Smoke:
Cigarette smoke, oil smoke, smokes from burning of fossil fuel, garbage and dry leaves mix in air and pollute the atmosphere.

(ii)Dust:
Sand from sand blasting, saw dust from wood works, cement dust from cement factories and fly ash from power generating units mix with atmosphere and pollute the air.

(iii) Mists:
They are formed by particles of spray liquids and condensation of vapours in air. Sulphuric acid mist, herbicides and insecticides sprays can form mists.

(iv)Fumes:
Organic solvents, metals and metallic oxides form fume particles.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 12.
Briefly outline the harmful health effects of particulate pollutants.
Answer:
(i) Effect on human beings:
Small sized particulates can pass through the nose and enter into lungs. These particulates in lungs adsorbs the particulates and produce lung diseases such as lung cancer, bronchital asthma etc., Different types of particulates cause different types of lung diseases.
(a) Coal mines suffer from black lung disease.
(b) Textile workers suffer from white lung disease.
(c) Lead particulates affect children’s brain.

(ii) Effect on plants:
Particulates deposit on the leaves of the plants. They destroy chlorophyll and retards the process of photosynthesis.

(iii) Effect on visibility:
Particulates cause scattering and absorption of sunlight and reduce visibility. This affects the free movement of vehicles and aircrafts.

(iv) Formation of artificial rain:
Particulates provide nuclei for cloud formation and induce the formation of fog and rain.

Question 13.
How will you reduce particulate pollutants in air? [OR] Outline the techniques to reduce particulate pollutants in air.
Answer:
The particulates from air can be removed by using electrostatic precipitators, gravity settling chambers, and wet scrubbers or by cyclone collectors. These techniques are based on washing away or settling of the particulates.

Question 14.
What are the effects of
(i) Classical smog,
(ii) Photochemical smog.
Answer:
(i)Effects of classical smog:
It decreases visibility and is responsible for breathing troubles like bronchitis and asthma. It produces irritation to eyes, nose and throat.

(ii) Effect of photochemical smog:
(a) It causes irritation to eyes, skin and lungs. Ozone causes reduction in plant growth. High concentration of ozone damage forests.
(b) Photochemical smog causes eye irritation, cough, chest discomfort, fatigue in humans.
(c) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate (PAN) affects vegetation.
(d) Metal surfaces, building materials and ‘ painted surfaces get corroded by the smog.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 15.
Explain how photochemical smog be controlled.
Answer:
Use of catalytic convertors: This method involves the use of efficient catalytic converters in the automobiles. The harmful gases are converted to harmless gases. A catalytic converter minimize the release of oxides of nitrogen and hydrocarbons to the atmosphere.

Question 16.
Mention the pollutants that cause the depletion of ozone layer.
Answer:
The pollutants that cause ozone depletion in the atmosphere are oxides of nitrogen (NO2), chlorofluoro carbon (CFC). The oxides of nitrogen deplete ozone concentration by photochemical reactions. CFC’s reduce the ozone concentration by photochemical decomposition of O3.

Question 17.
Explain by means of a chemical equation. How nitric oxide cause the depletion of ozone layer? Nitrous oxide present in the stratosphere is photo chemically converted to nitric oxide.
Answer:
N2O + hv → NO + N
The nitric oxide thus formed undergoes the following chain reactions.
NO + O3 → NO2 + O2
O3 + hv → O2 + [O]
NO2 + [O] → NO + O2

The net reaction is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 18.
Discuss the environmental impact of ozone depletion.
Answer:
(i) As a result of ozone depletion, move uv , rays from the sun will reach the earth’s surface. As a result of this exposure, humans are prove to develop skin cancer and decrease in immunity level.
(ii) Exposure to UV radiations affect plants and retard their growth and harmful mutation of plant cells.
(iii) Exposure to uv radiation affect the growth of phytoplankton, as a result ocean chain is disturbed and even damages fish productivity.

Question 19.
Define water pollution.
Answer:
Water pollution is defined as “The addition of foreign substances or factors like heat which degrades the quality of water, so that it – becomes health hazard or unfit to use.”

Question 20.
Mention the sources of water pollution.
Answer:
The source of water pollution is from
(i) point and
(ii) non point sources.

(i) Point source is the one which can be easily identify the place of pollution.
eg: municipal and industrial discharge.

(ii) Non-point source cannot be identified easily.
eg: agricultural run off, mining wastes, acid rain, storm, water drainage and construction sediments.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 21.
Give a brief account of water pollution caused by (i) Microbiological organisms (pathogen) (ii) Organic wastes.
Answer:
(i) Microbiological (Pathogens):
Disease causing microorganisms like bacteria, viruses and protozoa are most serious water pollutants. They come from domestic sewage and animal excreta. Fish and shellfish can become contaminated and people who eat them can become ill. Some serious diseases like polio and cholera are water borne diseases. Human excreta contain bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis which cause gastrointestinal diseases.

(ii) Organic wastes:
Organic matter such as leaves, grass, trash etc., can also pollute water. Water pollution is caused by excessive phytoplankton growth within water. Microorganisms present in water decompose these organic matter and consume dissolved oxygen in water.

Question 22.
What is Eutrophication?
Answer:
Eutrophication is a process by which water bodies receive excess nutrients that stimulates excessive plant growth (algae, other plant weeds) .This enhanced plant growth in water bodies is called as algae bloom.

Question 23.
What is the role of fluoride ion in the drinking water? What will happen if one drinks water in which the fluoride ion concentration exceeds 2 ppm?
Answer:
The Fluoride ions make the enamel on teeth much harder by converting hydroxyapatite, [3(Ca3(PO4)2.Ca(OH)2], the enamel on the surface of the teeth, into much harder fluorapatite, [3(Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2].

However, Fluoride ion concentration above 2 ppm causes brown mottling of teeth. Excess fluoride causes damage to bone and teeth.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 24.
What are the acceptable level of (i) Lead, (ii) Sulphate, (Hi) Nitrate in drinking water? Mention the harmful effects of these if present in excess of acceptable level in drinking water.
Answer:
(i) Lead:
The acceptable level of lead to be present in drinking water is less than 50 ppm. Excessive amount present in drinking water cause damage to liver, kidney and reproductive system.

(ii) Sulphate:
The acceptable level of sulphate ion concentration in drinking water is less than 500 ppm. Excess of sulphate ion concentration in drinking water produces laxative effect.

(iii) Nitrate:
The acceptable level of nitrate ion concentration in drinking water is less than 45 ppm. Anything in excess of their value causes methemoglobinemia disease in children.

Question 25.
What do you understand by the term Total , Dissolved Solid (TDS) in drinking water? What is the maximum concentration of these in drinking water? Mention the effect of excess concentration of TDS in drinking water if one drinks such water?
Answer:
A total dissolved solid (TDS) is a measure of the combined total of organic and inorganic substances contained in water. These solids are primarily minerals, salts and organic matter that can be general indicator of water quality.

For drinking water, the maximum concentration level is 500 mg/L or 500 ppm. This is the acceptable limit of total dissolved solids in drinking Water.

The dissolved salts contain cations like Ca+2, Mg+2, Na+, K+ and anions like CO3-2, HCO3-1, Cl SO42, PO4-3 and NO3 The other substances that cause harmful effects if present in drinking water are fluoride in lead salts.

(a) If fluoride ions are present in drinking water (exceeding 2 ppm to 10 ppm), teeth and bones are affected.
(b) The presence of lead salts exceeding 50 ppm can damage liver, kidney and reproductive system.
(c) Sulphate ion concentration exceeding 500 ppm cause laxative effect and hyper tension.
(d) Excess nitrate ion concentration (> 50 ppm) can cause methemoglobinemia (blue baby syndrome).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 26.
Define soil pollution.
Answer:
Soil pollution is defined as the buildup of persistent toxic compounds /radioactive materials, chemical salts and disease causing agents in soils which have harmful effects on plant growth and animal health.

Question 27.
What is the effect of soil pollution?
Answer:
Soil pollution affects the structure and fertility of soil, groundwater quality and food chain in biological ecosystem.

Question 28.
Briefly outline the sources of soil pollution.
Answer:
Artificial fertilizers:
Phosphate fertilizers, NPK fertilizers are added to the soil to ensure good yield.

Pesticides:
These are chemicals which are used to kill or stop the growth of unwanted organisms. They, are
(i) insecticides like DDT, BHC,
(ii) fungicide eg: Organo mercury compounds,
(iii) herbicides which is also known as weed killer, eg: Sodium chlorate.

Industrial wastes:
Large number of toxic wastes like cyanides, chromates, acids, alkalis, and metals like mercury, copper, zinc, cadmium and lead etc., are released from industries. These waste lie in the soil for a long time and prevents the growth of the plants.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 29.
Explain with an example how to produce eco- friendly compounds.
Answer:
Styrene is produced both by traditional and greener routes.
Traditional route:
This method involves two steps. Carcinogenic benzene reacts with ethylene to form ethyl benzene. Then ethyl benzene on dehydrogenation using Fe2O3 / Al2O3 gives styrene.
Greener route:
To avoid carcinogenic benzene, greener route is to start with cheaper and environmentally safer xylenes.

Question 30.
Give a brief account of Green chemistry in – day-to-day life.
Answer:
(i) For dry cleaning of clothes, the solvents used (eg: tetra chloro methane) pollute the ground water and it is also carcinogenic. This is replaced by liquid carbondioxide with a suitable detergent, which acts as a solvent, to prevent the harmful effect of carcinogenic substances.
(ii) In the bleaching of paper, chlorine is used as a bleaching agent. This is replaced by H2O2 in the presence of a catalyst.
(iii) Synthesis of chemicals:
Acetaldehyde is now commercially prepared by one step oxidation of ethene in the presence of ionic catalyst in aqueous medium with 90%

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 5

(iv) Instead of petrol, methanol is used as a fuel in automobiles.
(v) Neem based pesticides have been synthesised, which are more safer than the chlorinated hydrocarbons.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is the upper most region of the atmosphere?
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Ionosphere
Answer:
(c) Exosphere
Hint:
There is one region above thermosphere. It is called exosphere and is considered to be the highest region of the atmosphere. It lies in the range of 500 – 1600 km. Mesosphere and thermosphere are collectively known as ionosphere.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not considered to be a pollutant?
(a) CO
(b) CO2
(c) O3
(d) CxRy
Answer:
(b) CO2

Question 3.
Ozone in the stratosphere is depleted by:
(a) CF2Cl2
(b) C7F16
(c) C6H6C16
(d) C6H6
Answer:
(a) CF2Cl2
Hint:
Chlorofluorocarbons deplete the ozone layer.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 4.
Which of the following is not involved in the formation of photochemical smog?
(a) NO
(b) O3
(c) CxHy
(d) SO2
Answer:
(d) SO2
Hint:
(a) NO is formed by the action of N2 and O2.
(b) O3 is formed by the reaction

2NO + O2 → 2 NO2
NO2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 6 NO + (O)
(O) + O2 → O3

(c) Hydrocarbons are also present in the atmosphere.

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Photochemical smog causes irritation to eyes.
(b) London smog is a mixture of smoke and fog.
(c) Photochemical smog results in the formation of PAN.
(d) London smog is oxidising in nature.
Answer:
(d) London smog is oxidising in nature.

Question 6.
Identify the wrong statement in the following:
(a) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the Sun to reach the Earth.
(b) Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone depletion.
(d) Green house effect is responsible for global warming.
Answer:
(a) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the Sun to reach the Earth.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 7.
The process ‘Eutrophication’ is due to:
(a) increase in concentration of insecticide in water.
(b) increase in concentration of fluoride ion in water.
(c) the reduction in concentration of the dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate pollution in water.
(d) attack of younger leaves of a plant by peroxyacetyl nitrate.
Answer:
(c) the reduction in concentration of the dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate pollution in water.

Question 8.
Excess of nitrate in drinking water can cause:
(a) methemoglobinemia
(b) kidney damage
(c) liver damage
(d) laxative effect
Answer:
(a) methemoglobinemia

Question 9.
The three main components of photo chemical smog are:
(a) nitrogen oxide, ozone and peroxy acetyl nitrate
(b) oxides of sulphur, oxides of nitrogen and ozone
(c) carbondioxide, ozone, acrolein
(d) formaldehyde, ozone, carbon monoxide
Answer:
(a) nitrogen oxide, ozone and peroxy acetyl nitrate

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 10.
Highly polluted water has a BOD value of:
(a) 17 ppm or more
(b) 5.6 ppm
(c) 10 ppm
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) 17 ppm or more

Question 11.
DDT is a/an:
(a) fungicide
(b) herbicide
(c) insecticide
(d) fertilizer
Answer:
(c) insecticide

Question 12.
CFCl3 is responsible for decomposition of ozone to form oxygen. Which of the following reacts with ozone to form oxygen?
(a) Cl2
(b) Cl
(c) F
(d) Cl.
Answer:
(d) Cl.
Hint:
CFCl3 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 7 CFCl2 + Cl.
Cl. + O3 → ClO. + O2
ClO. + O. → Cl. + O3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 13.
An object is located at a height of 5 km from the surface of the Earth. The object is located in which part of the atmosphere?
(a) Thermosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Troposphere
Answer:
(d) Troposphere

Question 14.
Lead is considered as:
(a) water pollutant
(b) soil pollutant
(c) air pollutant
(d) radioactive pollutant
Answer:
(a) water pollutant

Question 15.
If there was no carbondioxide in Earth’s atmosphere, the temperature of the Earth’s surface would be:
(a) same as present
(b) less than the present
(c) more than the present
(d) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
Answer:
(b) less than the present
Hint:
CO2 present in normal concentration helps to maintain the temperature of the Earth for living organisms. A balance of CO2 is maintained in the air because CO2 produced from respiration, burning of fossil fuels and decomposition of lime stone but at the same time it is consumed by the green plants for photosynthesis.

If CO2 was not present in atmosphere global warming could not take place and the temperature of the Earth is lowered.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 16.
Catalytic converter is used in automobiles to control:
(a) water pollution
(b) soil pollution
(c) air pollution
(d) noise pollution
Answer:
(c) air pollution
Hint:
Catalytic converters remove particulates from air.

Question 17.
BOD5 meAnswer:
(a) water decomposed in 5 days
(b) oxygen used in 5 days
(c) micro organisms killed in 5 days
(d) dissolved oxygen left after 5 days
Answer:
(b) oxygen used in 5 days

Question 18.
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of organic material present in water. BOD value less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be:
(a) rich in dissolved oxygen
(b) poor in dissolved oxygen
(c) highly polluted
(d) not suitable for aquatic life
Answer:
(a) rich in dissolved oxygen

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 19.
The pollutants which come directly in the air from sources are, called primary pollutants. Primary pollutants are sometimes converted into secondary pollutants. Which of the following belongs to secondary air pollutants?
(a) CO
(b) Hydrocarbon
(c) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate (PAN)
(d) NO
Answer:
(c) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate (PAN)
Hint:
The following reactions occur in the presence of sun light.
NO2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 8 NO + [O]
(in atmosphere)

O + O2 → O3
(in atmosphere)

O3 + NO → NO2 + O2

If hydrocarbons were present in atmosphere, they combine with the oxygen produced by reaction (1) to form free radicals as intermediates (RCO.). These free radicals j initiate a variety of reactions.

eg: RCO + O2 → RCO3
RCO3 + hydrocarbon → RCHO + R2C = O
RCO3– + NO → RCO2 + NO2
RCO3– + O2 → O3 + RCO2
RCO3– + NO2 → RCO3– NO2
(peroxy acetyl nitrate, PAN)

Question 20.
Assertion:
Green house effect was observed in houses used to grow plants and these are made of green glass.
Reason:
Green house name has been given because glass houses are made of green glass.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(d) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
Hint:
Correct A: Green house effect was observed in frouses used to grow plants and these are not made of green glass but transparent glass.
Correct R: Green house name was given because it was used to grow plants.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 21.
Assertion:
The pH of acid rain is 5.6
Reason:
Carbon dioxide present in atmosphere dissolves in rain water and forms carbonic acid.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(d) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Hint:
Correct Explanation: CO2 as well as oxides of nitrogen and sulphur (NO2 and SO2) dissolves in water to form acid rain which has pH < 5.6.

Question 22.
Assertion:
Photochemical smog is oxidising in nature.
Reason:
Photochemical smog contains NO2 and O3 which are formed during the sequence of reactions.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(d) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 23.
Assertion:
Carbondioxide is one of the important green house gases.
Reason:
It is largely produced by respiratory function of animals and plants.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(d) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Hint:
Correct Explanation Itis largely produced by combustion of fossil fuels like coal, natural gas, petroleum etc.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 24.
Assertion:
Ozone is destroyed by chloro fluorocarbons and nitric oxide.
Reason:
Thinning of the ozone layer allows excessive UV radiations to reach the surface of the Earth.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(d) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Answer:
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Question 25.
Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climates. One of the following is not amongst the components of photochemical smog. Identify it.
(a) NO2
(b) O3
(c) SO2
(d) unsaturated hydrocarbons
Answer:
(c) SO2

Question 26.
The pollutants which come directly in the air from sources are called primary pollutants. Primary pollutants are sometimes converted into secondary pollutants. Which of the following belongs to secondary air pollutants?
(a) CO
(b) hydrocarbon
(c) peroxy acetyl nitrate
(d) NO
Answer:
(c) peroxy acetyl nitrate

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 27.
The presence of which of the following cause smog?
(a) O2 and O3
(b) O2 and N2
(c) SO2 and NO2
(d) O3 and N2
Answer:
(c) SO2 and NO2

Question 28.
Which of the following pairs of compounds does not cause depletion of ozone layers?
(a) NO and CF2Cl2
(b) NO2 and O3
(c) O2 and N2
(d) CF2Cl2 and CFCl3
Answer:
(c) O2 and N2

Question 29.
Assertion:
The temperature in the stratosphere . increases with altitude.
Reason:
Ozone present absorbs the ultra violet radiation.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 30.
Assertion:
For green house effect, presence of green plants is essential.
Reason:
Chlorophyll of the green plants cause green house effect.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Hint:
Correct Assertion: Green house effect is due to presence of CO2 and water vapour near the earth’s surface.
Correct Reason: CO2 and H2O vapour present near the earth’s surface cause green house effect.

Question 31.
Assertion :
The catalytic converter in the car exhaust system converts polluting exhaust gases into non-toxic gases.
Reason Catalytic converter contains a mixture of transition metals and their oxides embedded in the inner support.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 32.
Assertion:
The pH of acid rain is 4 – 5.
Reason:
Normal rain water has a pH value of about 5 – 6 due to dissolution of carbon dioxide.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 33.
Assertion:
London smog is found in summerduring morning time.
Reason:
Photochemical smog is formed in winter during morning time.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Hint:
Correct Assertion: Condon smog is found in winter during morning time.
Correct Reason: photochemical smog is formed in summer during day time.

Question 34.
Which one of the following statements is false?
(a) Photochemical smog causes irritation in eyes.
(b) London smog is a mixture of smoke and fog.
(c) Photochemical smog results in the formation of PAN.
(d) London smog is oxidising in nature.
Answer:
(d) London smog is oxidising in nature.
Hint:
London smog is reducing in nature.

Question 35.
Pick up the correct statement:
(a) CO which is a major pollutant resulting from combustion of fuels in automobile plays a major role in photochemical smog.
(b) Classical smog has an oxidising character while photochemical smog is reducing in character.
(c) Classical smog is good for health but not photochemical smog.
(d) Photochemical smog occurs in a day time, while classical smog occurs in the morning time.
Answer:
(d) Photochemical smog occurs in a day time, while classical smog occurs in the morning time.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 36.
Identify the incorrect statement in the following:
(a) Ozone layer does not permit infra red radiations from the Sun to reach the earth.
(b) Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion.
(d) Green house effect is responsible for global warming.
Answer:
(a) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiations from the Sun to reach the earth.

Question 37.
Choose the correct statement:
The process of eutrophication is due to:
(a) increase in concentration of insecticide in water.
(b) increase in concentration of fluoride ion in water.
(c) attack of younger leaves of a plant by j peroxy acetyl nitrate.
(d) the reduction of yi concentration of dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate pollution in water.
Answer:
(d) the reduction of yi concentration of dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate pollution in water.

Question 38.
Which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant.
(b) pH of drinking water should be 5.5 to 9.5.
(c) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for growth of fish.
(d) Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm.
Answer:
(c) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for growth of fish.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 39.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

Column I Column II
(i) Acid rain (A) CHCl2CHF2
(ii) Photochemical smog (B) CO
(iii) Combination with haemoglobin (C) CO2
(iv) Depletion of ozone layer (D) unsaturated hydrocarbon

(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(d) (i) – (A), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)

Question 40.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

Column I Column II
(i) Inorganic pollutants (A) Municipal waste water coming from slums, hotels and residential area
(ii) Organic pollutants (B) laundry waste
(iii) Synthetic detergents (C) Food processing industries, chemical industries
(iv) Infectious agents (D) Acid and alkalis from chemical industries

(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(b) (i)- (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 1.
Give an example each for:

(i) a primary alkyl halide
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 1

(ii) a secondary alkyl halide
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 2

(iii) a tertiary alkyl halide
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 2.
The common names of certain alkyl halides are given below. Write their structure and their IUPAC names.

(i) n-propyl fluoride
Answer:
Structure:CH3CH2CH2F
IUPAC Name: 1 -Fluoropropane

(ii) A-butyl chloride
Answer:
Structure: CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — Cl
IUPAC Name: 1-Chlorobutane

(iii) sec-butyl chloride
Answer:
Structure: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 6
IUPAC Name: 2 – Chlorobutane

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

(iv) tert-butyl chloride
Answer:
Structure: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 4
IUPAC Name: 2 – Chloro – 2 – methyl propane

(v) neo pentyl bromide
Answer:
Structure: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 5
IUPAC Name: 1 – Bromo – 2, 2 – dimethyl propane

(vi) vinyl chloride
Answer:
Structure: CH2 = CH — Cl
IUPAC Name: Chloroethene

(vii) allyl bromide
Answer:
Structure: CH2 = CH — CH2 — Br
IUPAC Name: 3 – Bromopropene

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 3.
Classify the following alkyl halides as primary, secondary and tertiary or vinyl / allyl halides.
(i) Bromoethane:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 7

(ii) 2 – chloropropane:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 8

(iii) 2-iodo-2-methyl propane:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 9

(iv) 2-fluoro propane:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 10

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

(v) 1 – chloro – 2 – methyl propane:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 11

(vi) 2 – chloro butane
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 12

(vii) 1-bromo-2, 2, dimethyl propane:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 13

(viii) Chloro ethane:
Answer:

CH2 = CH – Cl – Vinyl halide

(ix) 3-bromo propen e:
CH2 = CH — CH2 – Br – Allyl halide

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 4.
Give examples for:

(i) a dichloroalkane
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 14

1, 1, dichloroethane

(ii) a tribromoalkane.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 15

1, 2, 3 tribromopropane

Question 5.
Write the IUPAC names of the following:

(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 16

Answer:
1, 2 dichloroethane

(ii) CH3CHCl2
Answer:
1, 1 dichloroethane

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 17

Answer:
1 – bromo – 2, 3, dichlorobutane

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 18

Answer:
2-bromo – 3 – chloro – 2, 4 dimethyl pentane

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 6.
What is Lucas reagent? How does it react with tertiary butyl alcohol? Give equation for the reaction.
Answer:
Mixture of con.HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 is called Lucas reagent.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 19

Question 7.
Complete the following equations.

(i) CH3CH2OH (Ethanol) + PCl5
Answer:
CH3CH2Cl (Chloroethane) + POCl3 + HCl

(ii) 3 CH3CH2OH (Ethanol) + PCl3
Answer:
3 CH3CH2Cl (Chloroethane) + H3PO3

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 20

Answer:
CH3CH2I (Iodo ethane) + NaBr

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 22

Answer:
CH3CH2F (Flouoroethane) + AgBr

(v) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 21

Answer:
CH3CH2Br (Bromoethane) + CO2 + AgBr

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 8.
Give equations for: (i)Finkelstein reaction, (ii) Hunsdiecker reaction, (iii) Swartz reaction.
Answer:
(i) Finkelstein reaction:
Chloro or bromoalkane on heating with a concentrated solution of sodium iodide in dry acetone gives iodo alkanes. This reaction is called Finkelstein reaction, (SN2 reaction).

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 23

(ii) Hunsdiecker reaction:
Silver salts of fatty acids when refluxed with bromine in CCl4 gives bromo alkane.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 24

(iii) Swartz reaction:
Chloro or bromo alkanes on heating with metallic fluorides like AgF, SbF3 or Hg2F2 gives fluoroalkanes. This reaction is called Swarts reaaction.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 25

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 9.
Chlorination of methane gives different products. How are they Separated?
Answer:
Chlorination of methane gives different products,
(i) Chloromethane,
(ii) Dichloromethane,
(iii) Trichloro methane,
(iv) Tetraohloro methane which have differences in their boiling points. Hence, these can be separated by fractional distillation.

Question 10.
Identify the products, (major organic product)

(i) CH3CH = CH2 + HBr →
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 26

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 27

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 28

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 29

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 30

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 31

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 32

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 11.
Starting from propene, how will you prepare:

(i) 1 – bromopropane
Answer:
CH3 CH = CH2 + HBr TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 33 CH3CH2CH2Br
(1 – Bromopropane)

(ii) 2 – bromopropane
Answer:
CH3 CH = CH2 + HBr → TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 34

(iii) 1 – propanol
Answer:
CH3 CH = CH2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 35 CH3CH2CH2Br TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 36 CH3CH2CH2OH (1 – Propanol)

(iv) propyl amine
Answer:
CH3 CH = CH2 + HBr TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 33 CH3CH2CH2Br TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 37 CH3CH2CH2NH2 (Propylamine)

(v) propyl cyanide
Answer:
CH3 CH = CH2 + HBr TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 33 CH3 CH2 CH2 Br TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 38 CH3CH2CH2CN (Propyl cyanide)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 12.
Identify the reagent used in the following conversions.

(i) CH3CH2OH TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 39 CH3CH2I
Answer:
X = HI

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 40

Answer:
X = HI

(iii) CH3CH2OH TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 41 CH3CH2Cl
Answer:
X = PCl5 or PCl3or SOCl2

(iv) CH3CH2Br TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 41 CH3CH2I
Answer:
X = NaI

(v) CH3CH2Br TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 41 CH3CH2F
Answer:
X = AgF

Question 13.
Account for the following:

(i) Ethyl bromide has a higher boiling point than ethane.
Answer:
Haloalkanes have higher boiling point than those of corresponding alkanes because of the polarity of C – X bond. As a result, strong dipole-dipole attractions exist in alkyl halides. Such kind of attractions are absent in alkanes.

(ii) The boiling poinj of methyl halides decrease in the order CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
Answer:
This is because, with increase in size and mass of halogen atom, the magnitude of Vander Waals force of attraction increases.

(iii) The boiling point of CCl4 is greater than CCl3.
Answer:
With the increase in number of halogen atoms, the Vander Waals force of attraction increases. Hence, the alkyl halide which has more number of halogen atoms has a higher boiling point.

(iv) n – propyl chloride has a higher boiling point in methyl chloride.
Answer:
For the same halogen atom, boiling points of haloalkanes increase with the size of alkyl groups. Larger the size of the alkyl group, greater is the Vander Waals force of attraction.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 14.
Tertiary butyl chloride has the lowest boiling point compared to its isomers. Explain why?
Answer:
This is because of branching of the chain makes the molecule more compact and therefore decreases the surface area of haloalkanes and so the magnitude of Vander Waals force of attraction decreases, n – butyl chloride > isobutyl chloride > tert – butyl chloride.

Question 15.
Explain why?

(i) Ethyl bromide is insoluble in water.
Answer:
Ethyl bromide is insoluble in water because it cannot form hydrogen bonding with water.

(ii) The densities of haloalkanes are of the order RI > RBr > RCl > RF.
Answer:
The density increases with increasing number and atomic mass of halogen.

Question 16.
Name the reagents used to convert bromo ethane into:

(i) ethyl nitrate –
Answer:
KNO2

(ii) nitro ethane –
Answer:
Ag NO2

(iii) propane nitrite –
Answer:
KCN

(iv) ethyl carbyl amines –
Answer:
AgCN

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

(v) ethane thiol –
Answer:
NaSH or KSH

(vi) ethoxy ethane –
Answer:
Ag2O or C2H5ONa

(vii) diethyl amine –
Answer:
C2H5 NH2

(viii) tri-ethyl amine –
Answer:
(C2H5)2NH

(ix) ethyl acetate –
Answer:
CH3COOAg

(x) 1 – butyne –
Answer:
HC ≡ C.Na

(xi) butane –
Answer:
Na/ether

(xii) ethene –
Answer:
alc.KOH

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 17.
Give equations for the conversions in:

(i) CH3CH2Br + KNO2
Answer:
CH3CH2ONO + KBr

(ii) CH3CH2Br + AgNO →
Answer:
CH3CH2NO2 (nitroethane) + AgBr

(iii) CH3CH2Br + KCN →
Answer:
CH3CH2CN (propane nitrite) + KBr

(iv) CH3CH2Br + AgCN →
Answer:
CH3CH2CN (ethyl carbylatnines (or) ethyl isocyanide) + AgBr

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

(v) CH3CH2Br + NaSH →
Answer:
CH3CH2SH (Sodium ethoxide) + NaBr

(vi) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 42

Answer:
CH3CH2OCH2CH3 (ethoxy ethane) + NaBr

(vii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 43

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 44

(viii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 45

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 46

(ix) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 47

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 48

(x) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 49

Answer:
NaBr + CH3CHC≡CH (1 – butyne)

(xi) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 50

Answer:

2 NaBr + CH3CH2CH2CH3 (n – butane)

(xii) CH3CH2Br + alc KOH →
Answer:
CH2 = CH2 + KBr + H2O

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 18.
What is ammonolysis? Why this method is not recommended for the preparation of mono alkyl amines?
Answer:
Reaction of an alkyl halide with alcoholic ammonia to give a mixture of amines is known as ammonolysis.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 51

This method is not recommended because the product is a mixture of amines.

Question 19.
What are ambident nucleophiles? Give two examples.
Answer:
Nucleophiles which attack the nucleophilic sites from two sides are called ambident nucleophiles. For example, cyanide ion, CN ion can attack the reaction site through carbon or nitrogen atom depending upon the reagent and reaction condition, eg: CN and NO2

Question 20.
When ethyl bromide is treated with KCN, the product is ethyl cyanide while, when treated with AgCN, the product is ethyl isocyanide. Explain why?
Answer:
When ethyl bromide is treated with KCN, the nucleophile is CN (the negative charge on carbon) and hence ethyl cyanide is formed. KCN is an ionic compound. It ionizes to give CN as a nucleophile.

whereas AgCN is a covalent compound. It gives NC (negative charge on nitrogen) as a nucleophile. Hence ethyl isocyanide is formed.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 21.
Give equation for the reaction between ethyl bromide with
(i) KNO2 and
(ii) AgNO2 and write their nucleophiles.
Answer:
(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 52

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 53

Nucleophiles:
If potassium nitrite is used as a reagent, the nucleophile is ONO with the negative charge on the oxygen atom. Hence alkyl nitrite is formed. If silver nitrite is used as a reagent, NO2 (the negative charge on nitrogen) is the nucleophile and the product is nitroalkane.

Question 22.
What is Williamson’s ether synthesis? Explain with an equation.
Answer:
Haloalkane, when boiled with sodium alkoxide gives corresponding ethers.
eg: This method can be,used to prepare mixed (unsymmetrical) ethers also.
CH3CH2Br (Bromoethane ) + NaOCH2CH3 (Sodiumethoxide) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 54CH3CH2OCH2CH3 (diethylether) + NaBr

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 23.
Briefly outline SN2 mechanism with an example.
Answer:
(i) The reaction follows second order kinetics and the rate equation is
rate = R2 [RX] [Nucleophile].
Generally primary alkyl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction by SN2 mechanism.

(ii) This reaction involves the formation of a transition state in which both the reactant molecules are partially bonded to each other. The attack of nucleophile occurs from the back side (i.e., opposite to the side in which the halogen is attacked). The carbon at which substitution occurs has inverted configuration during the course of reaction just as an umbrella has tendency to invert in a wind storm. This inversion of configuration is called Walden inversion; after paul walden who first discovered the inversion of configuration of a compound in SN2 reaction.

(iii) When 2 – Bromo octane is heated with sodium hydroxide, 2 – Octanol is formed with inversion of configuration. (-) 2 – Bromo octane is heated with sodium hydroxide (+) 2 – Octanol is formed in which OH group occupies a position opposite to what bromine had occupied,

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 55

(a) (-) 2 – Bromo octane
(b) Transition State
(c) (+) 2 – Octanol (product)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 24.
Explain SN1 mechanism with an example.
Answer:
(i) The rate of the following SN1 reaction depends upon the concentration of
alkyl halide (RX) and is independent of the concentration of the nucleophile (OH).
Hence Rate of the reaction = k [alkyl halide]

R — Cl + OH → R — OH + Cl

This SN1 reaction follows first order kinetics and occurs in two steps.

We understand SN1 reaction mechanism by taking a reaction between tertiary butyl bromide with aqueous KOH.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 56

This reaction takes place in two steps as shown below:
Step-1:
Formation of carbocation: The polar C – Br bond breaks forming a carbocation and bromide ion. This step is slow and hence it is the rate determining step.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 57

The carbocation has 2 equivalent lobes of the vacant 2p orbital, so it can react equally rapidly from either face.

Step-2:
The nucleophile immediately reacts with the carbocation. This step is fast and hence does not affect the rate of the reactions.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 58

As shown above, the nucleophilic reagent OH can attack carbocation from both the sides.

(ii) If haloalkane substrate is optically active then, the product obtained will be optically inactive racemic mixture. As nucleophilic reagent OH- can attack carbocation from both the sides, to form equal proportion of dextro and laevorotatory optically active isomers which results in optically inactive racemic mixture.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 25.
Explain Saytzeff ‘s Rule with an example.
Answer:
In a dehydrohalogenation reaction, the preferred product is that alkene which has more number of alkyl groups attached to the doubly bonded carbon (more substituted double bond is formed), eg:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 59

Question 26.
Explain E2 mechanism with an example.
Answer:
The rate of E2 reaction depends on the concentration of alkyl halide and base
Rate = k [alkyl halide] [base]
It is therefore, a second order reaction. Generally primary alkyl halide undergoes this reaction in the presence of alcoholic KOH. It is a one step process in which the abstraction of the proton from the |3 carbon and expulsion of halide from the a carbon occur simultaneously. The mechanism is shown below.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 60

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 27.
Explain E1 mechanism with an example.
Answer:
E1 mechanism means elimination unimolecular. It follows first order kinetics conversion oftert-butyl chloride to isobutylene by alcoholic potash is an exertic for E1 reaction. The mechanism is given below:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 61

Step-1:
Heterolytic fission to yield a carbo – cation.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 62

Step-2:
Elimination of a proton from the β – carbon to produce an alkene.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 63

Question 28.
Complete the following equations:

(i) CH3CH2Br (Ethyl bromide) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 64
Answer:
CH3CH2MgBr (Ethyl magnesium bromide)

(ii) CH3CH2Br (Ethyl bromide) + 2Li TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 64
Answer:
CH3CH2Li (Ethyl Lithium) + LiBr

(iii) 4CH3CH2Br (Ethyl bromide) + 4Na/Pb (Sodium-lead alloy) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 64
Answer:
(CH3CH2)4 Pb (Tetra ethyl lead (TEL)) + 4 NaBr + 3 Pb

(iv) CH3CH2Br (Bromoethane) + H2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 65
Answer:
CH3 – CH3 (Ethane) + HBr

(v) CH3CH2I (lodoethane) + HI TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 66
Answer:
CH3 — CH3 (Ethane) + I2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 29.
Mention the uses of
(i) chloroform
(ii) iodoform
(iii) carbon tetrachloride.
Answer:
(i) Chloroform:
It is used as a solvent in pharmaceutical industry and for producing pesticides and drugs as an anesthetic. As a preservative for anatomical specimens.

(ii) Iodoform:
Iodoform is used as an antiseptic for dressing wounds.

(iii) Carbon tetrachloride:
Carbon tetrachloride is used as dry cleaning agent. It is used as a solvent for oils, fats and waxes. As the vapour of CCl4 is non-combustible, it is used under the name pyrene for extinguishing the fire in oil or petrol.

Question 30.
What are organo metallic compounds? Give example.
Answer:
Organo metallic compounds are organic compounds in which there is a direct carbon -metal bond.
eg: CH3 MgI – Methyl magnesium iodide
CH3CH2Mg Br – Ethyl magnesium bromide.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 31.
Briefly outline the nature of carbon-magnesium bond in alkyl magnesium halide.
Answer:
The carbon-magnesium bond in Grignard reagent is covalent but highly polar, The carbon atom is more, electronegative than magnesium. Hence, the carbon atom has partial negative charge and the magnesium atom has partial positive charge,

Rδ- ………. MgXδ+

Question 32.
Mention the uses of Grignard reagent.
Answer:
Grignard reagents are synthetically very useful compounds. These reagents are converted to various organic compounds like alcohols, carboxylic acids, aldehydes and ketones. The alkyl group being electron rich acts as a carbanion or a nucleophile. They would attack polarized molecules at a point of low electron density.

Question 33.
Using a suitable Grignard reagent, write equations for the synthesis of:

(i) Ethyl alcohol:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 67

(ii) Tertiary butyl alcohol:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 68

(iii) Acetaldehyde:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 69

(iv) Ethyl methyl ether:
Answer:
CH3 – 0 – CH2Cl (Chloro dimethyl ether) + CH3MgI → CH3 – O – CH2CH3 (Ethyl methyl ether) + TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 70

(v) Methane:
CH3MgI+HO – H → CH4 + MgI (OH)
CH3MgI + C2H5OH (Ethylalcohol) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 71 CH4 (Methane) + MgI(OC2H5)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 34.
Briefly outline the nature of carbon-halogen (X) bond in haloarenes.
Answer:
In haloarenes the carbon atom is sp2 hybridised. The sp2 hybridised orbitals are shorter and holds the electron pair of bond more tightly. Halogen atom contains P – orbital with lone pair of electrons which interacts with π – orbitals of benzene ring to form extended conjugated system of π – orbitals. The delocalisation of these electrons give double bond character to C – X bond. The resonance structure of halobenzene is given as:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 72

Due to this double bond character of C — X bond in haloarenes, the C — X bond is shorter in length and stronger than in haloalkanes.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 35.
Haloarenes undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions less readily compared to halo alkanes. Explain why?
Answer:
Because of resonance, the carbon-halogen bond gets a double bond character.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 73

Thus, C — X bond is shorter in haloarenes compared to that of haloalkenes i.e., The halogen atom is more firmly held, by the benzene ring, breaking of C — X bond is difficult. Hence haloarenes undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction under drastic conditions.

Question 36.
How is chlorobenzene prepared from
(i) benzene
(ii) benzene diazonium chloride?
Answer:
(i) Chlorobenzene is prepared by the direct chlorination of benzene in the presence of lewis acid catalyst like FeCl3.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 74

(ii) When aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chloride is warmed with Cu2Cl2 in HCl gives chlorobenzene.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 75

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 37.
How is chlorobenzene prepared by
(i) Sandmeyer reaction
(ii) Gattermann reaction?
Answer:
(i) Sandmeyer reaction:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 76

(ii) Gattermann reaction:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 77

Question 38.
How is (i) iodobenzene and (ii) fluorobenzene prepared?
Answer:
(i) Iodobenzene is prepared by warming benzene diazonium chloride with aqueous KI solution.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 78

(ii) Fluorobenzene is prepared by treating benzene diazonium chloride with fluoro boric acid. This reaction produces diazonium fluoroborate which on heating produces fluorobenzene. This reaction is called Balz-schiemann reaction.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 79

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 39.
Give equation for Wurtz-Fittig reaction.
Answer:
Haloarenes reacts with haloalkanes when heated with sodium in ether solution to form alkyl benzene. This reaction is called Wurtz Fittig reaction.

C6H5Cl + 2 Na + ClC2H5 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 80 C6H5C2H5 + 2 NaCl

Question 40.
How are (i) benzene, (ii) ortho and para chloro toluene, (iii) ortho and para nitro toluene prepared from toluene.
Answer:
Toluene to benzene:
C6H5CH3 (chloro benzene) + 2(H) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 82 C6H6 (Benzene) + HCl

(ii) Ortho and para chloro toluene:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 81

(iii) Ortho and paranitro toluene:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 83

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 41.
Mention the uses of chlorobenzene.
Answer:
(i) Chlorobenzene is used in the manufacture of pesticides like DDT.
(ii) It is used as high boiling solvent in organic synthesis.
(iii) It is used as fibre – swelling agent in textile processing.

Question 42.
What are ‘gem’ and vicinal dihalides? Give examples.
Answer:
In ‘gem’ dihalides, the halogen atoms attached to the same carbon atom.
eg: CH3CH2Cl2 – Ethylidene chloride (or) 1, 1 dichloro ethane.
In ‘vic’ dihalides, the halogen atoms are attached to adjacent carbon atoms.
eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 84

Question 43.
How will you prepare
(i) ethylidene chloride from acetaldehyde,
(ii) ethylidene chloride from acetylene,
(iii) ethylene dichloride from ethylene,
(iv) ethylene dichloride from ethylene glycol.
Answer:
(i) CH3CHO (Acetaldehyde) + PCl5 → CH3CHCl2 (Ethylidene dichloride) + POCl3

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 85

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 86

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 87

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 44.
Give the chemical reaction that is used to distinguish ‘gem’ and ‘vic’ dihalides.
Answer:
Gem-Dihalides, on hydrolysis with aqueous KOH give an aldehyde or a ketone vic-Dihalides, on hydrolysis with aqueous KOH gives glycols.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 88

This reaction can be used to distinguish the gem- Dihalides and vie- Dihalides.

Question 45.
What is the action of zinc dust in methanol on ethylidene chloride and ethylene chloride? Give equation.
Answer:
Gem- Dihalides and vic – Dihalides on treatment with zinc dust in methanol give alkenes.
(i) CH3 — CHCl2 (Ethylidene dichloride) + Zn TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 89 CH2 = CH2 (Ethylene) + ZnCl2

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 90

Question 46.
How is acetylene prepared from ethylidene chloride and ethylene chloride? Give equation.
Answer:
Gem-Dihalides and vic-Dihalides on treatment with alcoholic KOH give alkynes.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 91

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 47.
What is the action of (i) zinc and HCl (ii) H2/Ni on chloroform? Give equation.
Answer:
(i) Reduction of chloroform in the presence of Zn + HCl gives methylene chloride.

CHCl3 (chloroform) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 92 CH2Cl2 (methylene chloride) + HCl

(ii) CHCl3 (chloroform) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 93 CH2Cl2 (methylene chloride) + HCl

Question 48.
How is methylene chloride prepared from chloroform?
Answer:
Chloroform undergoes reduction with zinc and HC1 in the presence of ethyl alcohol to form methylene chloride.
CHCl3 (Methylene chloride) + 2(H) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 94 CH2Cl2 + HCl

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 49.
Complete the following by writing the structures of (A) and (B).

(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 95

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 96

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 97

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 98

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 99

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 100

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 101

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 102

(v) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 103

Answer:
A = CH2 = CH2 (ethylene)
B = Two molecules of HCHO (formaldehyde)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 50.
Mention the uses of methylene chloride.
Answer:
Methylene chloride is used as:
(i) Aerosol spray propellant.
(ii) Solvent in paint remover.
(iii) Process solvent in the manufacture of drugs. .
(iv) A metal cleaning solvent.

Question 51.
What is phosgene? How is it prepared?
Answer:
Phosgene is a poisonous gas (COCl2) and is prepared by the oxidation of chloroform in the presence of light and air.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 104

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The IUPAC name of the compound is:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 105

(a) 1 – fluoro – 4 – methyl – 2 – nitrobenzene
(b) 4 – fluoro – 1 – methyl – 3 – nitrobenzene
(c) 4 – methyl – 1 – fluoro – 2 – nitrobenzene
(d) 2 – fluoro – 5 – methyl – 1 – nitrobenzene
Answer:
(a) 1 – fluoro – 4 – methyl – 2 – nitrobenzene

Question 2.
In the addition of HBr to propene, the first step involves, the addition of
(a) H+
(b) Br
(c) H.
(d) Br.
Answer:
(a) H+
Hint:
The reaction is electrophilic addition i.e., H+.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 106

Question 3.
The intermediate during the addition of HCl to propene in the presence of a peroxide is:
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 109

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 107

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 110

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 108
Answer:

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 107

Hint:
Anti Markovnikoff‘addition is observed only with HBr. Therefore with HCl, even in the presence of peroxides, the reaction occurs through a more stable carbocation intermediate.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 4.
In the presence of peroxides hydrogen chloride and hydrogen iodide do not give anti Markovnikoff’s addition to alkenes because:
(a) both are highly ionic.
(b) one is oxidising and the other is reducing.
(c) one of the steps is endothermic in both cases.
(d) all the steps are endothermic in both reactions.
Answer:
(c) one of the steps is endothermic in both cases.
Hint:
Anti Markovnikoff’s addition is a free radical addition. The first step in generation of free radical, the second is a propagation step and the third is termination. The propagation step is

(i) X. + CH2 = CH — CH3 → XCH2 — CH — CH3
(ii) XCH2 — CH — CH3 + HX → XCH2CH2CH3 + X.

with X being bromine, both steps are. exothermic and hence peroxide effect is observed with HI and HCl, the step
(ii) is endothermic with HI, both steps are endothermic i.e., energy has to be supplied. Hence peroxide effect is not observed with HCl and HI.

Question 5.
Identify the set of reagent / reaction conditions X and Y in the following set of transformations. CH3CH2CH2Br TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 132 Product  TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 133 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 134

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 111

(a) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20°C.
Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20°C.

(b) X = cone, alcoholic NaOH, 80°C.
Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20°C.

(c) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20°C.
Y = Br2 / CHCl3 at 0°C.

(d) X- cone, aqueous NaOH, 80°C.
Y = Br2 / CHCl3, 0°C.
Answer:
(b) X = cone, alcoholic NaOH, 80°C.
Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20°C.
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 112

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 6.
Predict the product (C) obtained in the following reactions of butyne-1.

CH3CH2 C ≡ CH + HCl → B TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 113 C

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 114

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 115

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 116

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 117

Answer:

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 114

Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 118

Question 7.
The reaction between toluene with chlorine in the presence of FeCl3 gives ‘X’ and the reaction in the presence of light gives ‘Y’. Thus ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are:
(a) X =benzyl chloride; Y = m – chlorotoluene
(b) X = benzal chloride; Y = o – chlorotoluene
(c) X = – m – chlorotoluene; Y = p – chlorotoluene
(d) X = o and p chlorotoluene;
Y = trichloromethyl benzene.
Answer:
(d) X = o and p chlorotoluene;
Y = trichloromethyl benzene.
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 119

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 8.
Which of the following in a nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(a) 2RX + 2Na → R – R + 2 NaX
(b) RX + H2 → RH + HX
(c) RX + Mg → RMgX
(d) RX + KOH → ROH + KX
Answer:
(d) RX + KOH → ROH + KX

Question 9.
For the following (a) I (b) Cl (c) Br, the increasing order of nucleophilicity is:
(a) Br < Cl < I
(b) I < Br < Cl
(c) Cl < Br < I
(d) I < Cl < Br
Answer:
(c) Cl < Br < I

Question 10.
Consider the following Bromides.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 120

The correct order of SN1 reactivity is:
(a) C > B > A
(b) A > B > C
(c) B > C > A
(d) B > A > C
Answer:
(c) B > C > A
Hint:
The reactivity of SN1 reactions depends upon the stability of the intermediate carbocation. The stability of carbocations derived from A, B, C follows the order

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 121

the reactivity follows the order B > C > A.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 11.
The major product formed in the following reaction is:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 122

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 123

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 124

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 125

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 126

Answer:

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 125

Hint:
Dehydrohalogenation. Strong bases like -OCH3 also used for the reaction.

Question 12.
The correct prder of increasing reactivity of C – X bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds are:

I. TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 127

II. TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 128

III. (CH3)3 C – X

IV. (CH3)2 CH – X

(a) III < II < I < IV
(b) I < II < IV < III
(c) II < III < I < IV
(d) IV < III < I < II
Answer:
(b) I < II < IV < III
Hint:
Alkyl halides are more reactive than aryl halides. Among alkyl halides 3° alkyl halide (III) are more reactive than 2° alkyl halide (IV). Among aryl halides having electron with drawing groups at ortho and para positions are more reactive than sirnplp aryl halides (I). Thus the overall reactivity increases in the order.
I < II < III < IV

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 13.
The reagent used to convert ethyl bromide to ethyl fluoride is/are.:
(a) cone NaOH ; HF
(b) HF
(c) AgF
(d) F2
Answer:
(c) AgF
Hint:
CH3CH2Br + AgF → CH3CH2F + AgBr

Question 14.
Among the following, the alkyl halide which has the highest boiling point is:
(a) CH3Cl
(b) CH3CH2Cl
(c) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(d) CH3F
Answer:
(c) CH3CH2CH2Cl
Hint:
Between CH3Cl and CH3F, CH3Cl has a higher boiling point. Among CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, CH3CH3CH3Cl, the boiling point increases with increasing number of carbon atoms.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 15.
Choose the correct statement.
I. Among methyl chloride, ethyl chloride . and butyl chloride, methyl chloride has the least boiling point.
II. Among the methyl halides, methyl iodide has the highest boiling point.
III. Both I and II are correct.
IV. Both I and II are wrong.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(c) III
Hint:
(i) The boiling point and melting point of mono haloalkane increase with the increase in the number of carbon atoms.
(ii) The boiling point and melting point of haloalkanes decreases with respect to the halogen in the following order.

Question 16.
Which of the following are ambident nucleophiles? .
(a) OH
(b) SH
(c) CN
(d) Br
Answer:
(c) CN
Hint:
CN and CN have two nucleophilic sites, where the carbon atom of the cyanide ion attacks the reaction site and CN ion, the nitrogen atom attacks the reaction site. Such nucleophiles are ambident nucleophiles.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 17.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 129

The products A and B are:
(a) A = CH3CH2CN; B = CH3CH2NC
(b) A = CH3CH2NC ; B = CH3CH2CN

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 130

(d) A = CH3CH2CN; B = C3CH2CN
Answer:
A = CH3CH2CN; B = CH3CH2NC
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 131

Question 18.
The major product in the following reaction:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 135 is:

(a) CH2 = CH CH2CH3
(b) CH3CH CH2 CH3
(c) CH3CH = CH CH3
(d) CH3CH = CH2
Answer:
(c) CH3CH = CH CH3
Hint:
The product follows Saytzeff’s rule: In a dehydrohalogenation reaction, the preferred product is that alkene which has more number of alkyl groups attached to the doubly bonded carbon (more substituted double bond is formed).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 19.
Which of the following is used to prepare propanol – 1 from formaldehyde?
(a) CH3MgI
(b) CH3CH2MgI
(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 136
(d) CH3MgBr
Answer:
(b) CH3CH2MgI
Hint:
Propanol – 1 contains three carbon atoms. Alkyl magnesium halides teact with HCHO, to give primary alcohol. Thus RMgX, should contain two carbon atoms, i.e., CH3CH2MgI.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 137

Question 20.
The correct sequence of reactions involved -for the formation of isopropyl alcohol is/are:
(a) CH3CHO, CH3MgI, H2O/H+
(b) HCHO, CH3MgI, H2O/H+
(c) CH3Mg I, CH3CHO, H+/ H2O
(d) CH3COCH3, CH3CHO, H+/ H2O
Answer:
(a) CH3CHO, CH3MgI, H2O/H+
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 138

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 21.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 139
The product is:

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 140

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 141

(c) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 142

Answer:

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 141

Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 143

Question 22.
Which of the following reaction is known as Sandmeyer reaotion?
(a) Benzene diazonium chloride TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 144 Chloro benzene
(b) Benzene diazonium chloride + HBF4 → Fluoro benzene
(c) Benzene + Chlorine TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 145 Chloro benzene
(d) Benzene + Nitric acid TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 146 Nitro benzene
Answer:
(a) Benzene diazonium chloride TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 144Chloro benzene
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 147

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 23.
Which one of the following is/are ‘gem’ dihalide?

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 148

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 149

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 150

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 151

Answer:

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 148

Question 24.
Chloropicrin is:
(a) trichloro nitro ethane
(b) trichloro nitro methane
(c) nitro methane
(d) nitro ethane
Answer:
(b) trichloro nitro methane

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 25.
The reagents used to test primary amines are:
(a) chloroform and KOH
(b) mixture of conc H2SO4 and HNO3
(c) aqueous KOH
(d) bromine water
Answer:
(a) chloroform and KOH
Hint:
Chloroform reacts with aliphatic or aromatic primary amine and alcoholic caustic potash, to give foul smelling alkyl isocyanide (carbylamines).

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 152

This reaction is used to test primary amine.

Question 26.
SWARTZ reaction is used to prepare:
(a) Chloro benzene
(b) Toluene
(c) DDT
(d) Freon 12
Answer:
(d) Freon 12
Hint:
Freon – 12 is prepared by the action of hydrogen fluoride on carbon tetrachloride in the presence of catalytic amount of antimony pentachloride. This is called swartz reaction.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 153

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 27.
Assertion:
Chlorination of methane gives different products having differences in boiling points.
Reason:
Chlorination of methane gives a mixture of chloromethane, dichloromethane, tri-chloro methane and carbon tetra chloride.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 28.
Assertion:
Bromo ethane reacts with ammonia in the molar ratio 1 : 1 gives ethyl amine.
Reason:
The reaction follows SN1 mechanism.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
Being a primary alkyl halide bromo ethane undergoes nucleophilic substitution by SN2 mechanism.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 29.
Assertion:
SN2 reaction of an optically active haloalkane is always accompanied -by inversion of configuration at the asymmetric carbon atom.
Reason:
In the transition state, the nucleophile and the leaving group are attached to the asymmetric carbon atom opposite to each other.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 30.
Assertion:
E1 (elimination, unimolecular) follows first order kinetics.
Reason:
Primary alkyl halides undergo elimination reaction by E1 mechanism.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
Primary alkyl halides undergo elimination reaction by E2 mechanism.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 31.
Identify a tertiary alkyl halide from the following.
(a) CH3CH2Br ‘
(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 154

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 155

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 156

Answer:

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 156

Question 32.
Which among the following will have the least boiling point?
(a) CH3Cl
(b) CH3 CH2 Cl
(c) CH3(CH2)2Cl
(d) CH3 (CH2)3 Cl
Answer:
(a) CH3Cl
Hint:
For the same halogen atom, the boiling points will increase with the size of the alkyl group.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 33.
Which of the following pairs, will undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction by SN2 mechanism only?
(a) CH3 Br and CH3 CH2 Br
(b) (CH3)2 CH Br and CH3 CH2 Br

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 157

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 158
Answer:
(a) CH3 Br and CH3 CH2 Br
Hint:
Only primary alkyl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction by SN2 mechanism.

Question 34.
Identify the pair of compounds which contain a chiral carbon atoms.
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 159

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 160

(c) (CH3)3 C – Br and (CH3)2 CH2 Br
(d) CH3CH2Br and CH3CH2I
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 160

Hint:
Chiral carbon atoms are those to which form different atoms or groups attached to Cl.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 35.
Assertion:
Benzyl chloride when kept in acetone-water, produces, benzyl alcohol.
Reason:
The reaction follows SN2 mechanism.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
Hint:
Correct reason: Benzyl halides undergo hydrolysis by SN1 mechanism.

Question 36.
Assertion:
The presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reactions in aryl halides.
Reason:
The intermediate carbanion is- stabilised due to the presence of the nitro group.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 37.
Assertion:
Nucleophilic substitution reactions on an optically active alkyl halide gives a mixture of enantiomer.
Reason:
The reaction occurs through SN2 mechanism.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Hint:
The reaction occurs through SN1 mechanism.

Question 38.
Assertion:
1 – Butene on reaction with HBr in the presence of peroxide produces 1-bromobutane.
Reason:
It involves the formation of primary free radical.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
Hint:
The reaction occurs through the formation of more stable 2° free radical.

Question 39.
Assertion:
Chloral reacts with phenyl chloride to form DDT.
Reason:
It is an electrophilic substitution reaction.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 40.
Consider the following reaction:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 161

Which statements are correct about the above reaction?
(a) I and V both are nucleophile.
(b) In III carbon atom is sp3 hybridised.
(c) In IV carbon atom is sp2 hybridised.
(d) I and V both are electrophile.
Answer:
(a) I and V both are nucleophile.

Question 41.
Choose the incorrect statement with regard to SN1 reactions:
(a) The order of reactivity depends on the stability of intermediate carbocations.
(b) Among the isomeric butanes, 1 – bromo butane undergo SN1 reactions.
(c) Among the isomeric butanes, (CH3)3 C — Br undergo SN1 reactions.
(d) The carbocation (CH3)3 C+ is most reactive.
Answer:
(b) Among the isomeric butanes, 1 – bromo butane undergo SN1 reactions.
Hint.
The increasing reactivity of the four isomeric butanes towards SN1 reaction is
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 Br < (CH3)2 CH CH2 Br < (CH3)3 C – Br < TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 162

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 42.
The incorrect statement is the carbon atom is:
(a) The C – Cl bond is chlorobenzene is shorter than C – Cl bond in methyl chloride.
(b) The C – Cl bond in both chloro benzene and methyl chloride is sp3 hybridised.
(c) In chloro benzene, the lone pair of electrons on chlorine enters into conjugation with tho benzene ring.
(d) There is no resonance in methyl chloride, whereas, chloro benzene exhibits resonance.
Answer:
(b) The C – Cl bond in both chloro benzene and methyl chloride is sp3 hybridised.
Hint:
The carbon atom in C – Cl bond in aryl halides is sp2 hybridised whereas in methyl chloride it is sp3 hybridised.

Question 43.
Ethylene chloride and ethylidene chloride are isomers. Identify the correct statements.
(a) Both compounds form same products on treatment with alcoholic KOH.
(b) Both compounds form same products on treatment with aqueous KOH.
(c) Both compounds form the same product on reduction.
(d) Both compounds are optically active.

(a) I, II
(b) I, III
(c) II, IV
(d) I, IV
Answer:
(b) I, III

Question 44.
Choose the incorrect statement:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 163

(a) The electrophile in this reaction is NO2+
(b) Chlorine deactivates the benzene ring, by -I effect while activates the benzene ring by + M effect.
(c) Chlorine is an ortho paradirecting group. Nitration is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
(d) Nitration is a nucleophilic subctitution reaction.
Answer:
(d) Nitration is a nucleophilic subctitution reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 45.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

Column I Column II
(i) DDT (A) pesticide
(ii) chloroform (B) refrigerant
(iii) BHC (C) insecticide
(iv) Freon – 12 (D) anaesthetic

(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (A), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (D)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 46.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 164

(a) (i)- (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (D)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (A), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (D)
Answer:
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 1.
Write the IUPAC names of the following:

(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 1

Answer:
2 – Methyl pentane

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 2

Answer:
2, 4- Dimethyl pentane

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 3

Answer:
3, 3 – Dimethyl pentane

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 4

Answer:
3 – Ethyl – 2 – methylpentane

(v) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 5

Answer:
3 – Ethyl – 4, 5 – dipropyl octane

(vi) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 6

Answer:
2, 3 – Dimethylpentane

(vii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 7

Answer:
4 – Ethyl – 2, 6 – Dimethylheptane

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 2.
How will you prepare
(i) Propane from propene
(ii) Propane from propyne
(iii) Methane from sodium acetate
(iv) Propane from chloropropane
(v) Ethane from methyl bromide Give equations.
Answer:
(i)Propane from propene:
By hydrogenation
CH3CH = CH2 + H2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 8 CH3CH2CH3

(ii) Propane from propyne:
By hydrogenation
CH3 C ≡ CH + 2H2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 8 CH3CH2CH3 .
propyne-1

(iii)Methane from sodium acetate:
By decarboxylation i.e., heating sodium acetate with soda lime.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 9

(iv) Propane from chloropropane:
By reduction using Zinc and HCl.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 10

(v) Ethane from methyl bromide:
By Wurtz reaction.

CH3 Br + 2 Na + Br – CH3 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 11 Ch3 – CH3 (ethane) + 2 NaBr

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 3.
How do you prepare ethane by Kolbe.’s electrolytic method?
Answer:
Electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of either sodium or potassium salts
of acetic acid yields ethane at anode.
2 CH3COOK + 2H2O TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 12 CH3 — CH3 + 2 CO2 + 2 KOH + H2

Question 4.
What are the reducing agents used in reduction of alkyl halides to alkanes?
Answer:
The hydrogen for reduction may be obtained by using any of the following reducing agents:
Zn + HCl, Zn + CH3COOH, Zn-Cu couple in ethanol, LiAlH4 etc…

Question 5.
How propane is prepared by Corey- House synthesis?
Answer:
An alkyl halide and lithium di alkyl cuprate are reacted to give higher alkane.
eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 13

Question 6.
What are Grignard’reagents? blow do you prepare (i) ethane (ii) benzene from a suitable Grignard reagent?
Answer:
Halo alkanes reacts with magnesium in the presence of dry ethers to give alkyl magnesium halide which is known as Grignard reagents.
(i) Ethane is prepared from ethyl magnesium

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 14

(ii) Benzene is prepared from phenyl magnesium bromide with water.
C6H5 Mg Br + H. OH TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 15 C6H6 (benzene) + Mg(Br) . OH

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 7.
The straight chain isomers have higher boiling point compared to branched chain isomers. Explain Why?
Answer:
The straight chain isomers have the most extended structure and larger surface area in comparison to branched chain isomers, which have compact structure. Thus the intermolecular forces are weaker in branched chain isomers. Hence they have lower boiling point Compared to straight chain isomers.

Question 8.
Whaf are conformers?
Answer:
The different arrangement of atoms or groups in space that result from the free rotation of carbon-carbon single bond axis are called conformations or conformational isomers or conformers.

Question 9.
Briefly outline conformation of ethane.
Answer:
(i) The free rotation about C — C bond in ethane results in infinite number of readily interconvertible three dimensional arrangements called conformers.
(ii) Of the various conformers possible, the skew form, eclipsed form and the staggered forms are important.
(iii) In the eclipsed conformation, the hydrogens of one carbon are directly bonded to the other. The repulsions between the atoms is maximum and it is the least stable conformer.
(iv) In the staggered conformation, the hydrogens of the both the atoms are few apart from each other. The repulsions
between them is minimum and it is the most stable conformer.
(v) Skew conformations are the infinite number of possible between the eclipsed and staggered conformations.
(vi) The stabilities of the various conformations are staggered > skew > eclipsed.

(vii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 16

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 10.
Give equations for (i) complete combustion and (ii) incomplete combustion of methane.
Answer:
(i) Complete combustion of methane gives CO2 and H2O.

CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (g) ∆H = – 890 kJ

(ii) Incomplete combustion of methane gives carbon monoxide and carbon.

CH4 + 3 O2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 17 2 CO + 4H2O
CH4 + O2 → C + 2 H2O

Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of light or when heated as follows:

CH4 + Cl2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 18 CH3Cl (methyl chloride) + HCl

CH3Cl + Cl2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 18 CH2Cl2 (methylene chloride) + HCl

CHCl3 + Cl2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 18 CCl4 (carbontetrachloride) + HCl

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 11.
Explain free radical mechanism with a suitable example.
Answer:
The mechanism involves three steps
(i) Initiation: (generation of free radical)
The chain is initiated by UV light leading to homolytic fission of chlorine molecules j into free radicals (chlorine atoms).

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 19

(ii) Propagation: It proceeds as follows,
(a) Chlorine free radical attacks the methane molecule and breaks the C – H bond resulting in the generation of methyl free radical.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 20

(b) The methyl free radical thus obtained attacks the second molecule of chlorine to give chloromethane (CH3Cl) and a chlorine free radical as follows.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 21

(c) Both step (a) and (b) are repeated several and this is known as propagation.

(iii) Termination:
The free radicals are destroyed during this step as follows.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 22

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 12.
Explain aromatisation with an example.
Answer:
The conversion of aliphatic compounds into aromatic compounds is known as aromatisation. Alkanes having 6 to 10 carbon atoms are converted to benzene or its homologous at high temperatures in the presence of a catalyst.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 23

Question 13.
What is steam reforming process? Give an example.
Answer:
(i) Production of H2 gas from methane is known as steam reforming process.
(ii) Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of Nickel and decomposes to form carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas.
CH4 (g) + H2O (g) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 24 CO (g) + 3 H2 (g)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 14.
Define pyrolysis. Explain with an example.
Answer:
Pyrolysis is defined as the thermal decomposi-tion of organic compound into smaller fragments in the absence of air through the application of heat.

In the absence of air, when alkane vapours are passed through red-hot metal it breaks down into simpler hydrocarbons.
(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 25

(ii) 2 CH3 — CH3 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 26 CH2 = CH2 + 2 CH4

Question 15.
Explain isomerisation with an example.
Answer:
Isomerisation is a chemical process by which a compound is transformed into any its isomeric forms. Normal alkanes can be converted into branched alkanes in the presence of AlCl3 and HCl at 298 K.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 27

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 16.
Mention the uses of alkanes.
Answer:
(i) Alkanes are used as fuels. Methane present in natural gas is used for home heating.
(ii) Mixtures of propane and butane(LPG) is used for domestic cooking purposes.
(iii) Gasoline, is a complex mixture of several hydrocarbons used as a fuel for internal combustion engines.
(iv) Carbon black is used in the manufacture . of ink, printer ink and black pigments.

Question 17.
Write the IUPAC names of the following.
(i) CH3CH = CH2

(ii) CH3 — CH2 — CH = CH3

(iii) CH3 — CH = CH — CH3

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 28

(v) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 29

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 30

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 18.
Write the structures and IUPAC names of different structural isomers of alkenes corresponding to C5H10.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 31

Question 19.
Explain geometrical isomerism with an example.
Answer:
(i) Geometrical isomerism arises due to restricted rotation across TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 32 double bond.
(ii) When similar groups lie on the same side of C = C double bond, it is known as ‘cis’ isomer.
(iii) When similar groups lie on the opposite side of C=C double bond, it is known as trans isomer.

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 33

(iv) The melting point of a trans isomer is higher than that of its cis isomer.
(v) The solubility of a cis isomer is higher than that of its trans isomer in a given solvent.
(vi) cis isomer of an alkene is found to be more polar than its trans isomer.
(vii) The boiling point of the cis isomers are higher than those of their corresponding trans isomer.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 20.
What is dehydrohalogenation? Give an example.
Answer:
Removal of a hydrogen and halogen atom from adjacent carbon atom in an alkyl halide to form an alkene is known as dehydro halogenation.
eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 34

Question 21.
Give equations for the following reactions.
(i) 1 – bromo butane is treated with alcoholic potash.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 35

(ii) 1,2 di bromo propane.is heated with zinc and methyl alcohol.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 36

(iii) Potassium succinate is electrolysed using platinum electrodes.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 37

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 22.
Starting from ethene, how will you prepare
(i) ethane
(ii) ethyl bromide
(iii) ethanol
(iv) formaldehyde
(v) poly ethylene. Give equations.
Answer:
(i) Ethene from ethane:
By treating ethene with hydrogen in the presence of nickel as catalyst.

CH2 = CH2 + H2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 38 CH3 – CH3

(ii) Ethyl bromide from ethene:
By treating ethene with HBr.

CH = CH + HBr → CH3CH2HBr (ethyl trioxide)

(iii) Ethanol from ethene:
By treating ethane with cold dilute sulphuric acid and hydrolysing the product formed.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 39

(iv) Formaldehyde from ethene: By treating ethene with ozone. The ozonide formed is decomposed by zinc and water.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 40

This reaction is known as ozonolysis.

(v) Polyethylene from ethene:
Ethene undergoes polymerisation when heated in a red hot tube at 873 K.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 41

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 23.
Complete the following equations:

(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 42

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 43

(ii) CH3CH = CH2 + HBr →
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 44

(iii) CH3CH = CH.CH2 + HBr →
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 45

(iv) CH3CH = CH2 + HBr TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 46
Answer:
CH3 = CH2 + HBr TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 46 CH3CH2CH2Br
(Anti – Markovnikoff’s addition)

(v) CH3CH = CH2 + H2SO4
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 47

Question 24.
Discuss the mechanism of addition of HBr to propene.
Answer:
Step – 1:
HBr → H+ + Br (formation of electrophile)

Step – 2:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 48

Step – 3:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 49

In Step 2 the pi electrons are attacked by the electrophile and form a more stable secondary earbocation, which is further attacked by Br to form the product.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 25.
Addition of HBr to 3 – methyl – 1 – butene gives 2 – bromo – 2 – methyl butane as a major product. Explain Why?
Answer:
This is explained by the mechanism of the reaction.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 50

Since 2° carbocation is less stable than 3° carbocation, the hydrogen from the 3rd carbon atom migrates to the 2nd carbon atom with its bond pair of electrons. This is known as 1, 2 hydride shift.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 51

Step-3:
The Br attacks the tertiary carbon atom carrying the positive charge and forms the product.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 52

Question 26.
Predict the major product formed in the following reactions.
(i) CH3CH = CH2 + HBr →
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 53

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 54

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 55

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 56

Answer:
Follow the same mechanism as (i).

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 58

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 57

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 59

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 27.
Give the mechanism for the addition of HBr to propene in the presence of a peroxide.
Answer:
The addition of HBr to .propene in the presence of a peroxide occurs by a free radical mechanism. It consists of 3 steps.
(a) Initiation:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 60

(b) Propagation:
During the first step, a bromine free radical adds to the double bond in such a way to give a more stable free radical. In the second step, the free radical thus produced abstracts a H from

(i) CH3 — CH = CH2 + Br → CH3CHCH2 Br 2° radical (more stable)

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 61

(c) Termination:

(i) 2 Br → Br2

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 62

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 63

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 28.
Peroxide effect is not observed with HCl or HI. Explain Why?
Answer:
This is due to the following reasons:
(i) H — Cl bond (103 k.cal/mol) is stronger than H — Br bond (87.5 k.cal/mol). HCl is not decomposed by the peroxide to a free radical.
(ii) H — I bond is weaker than H — Br or H — Cl bond and it can form iodine free radical readily, but the iodine free radicals readily combine together to form iodine molecules rather than attacking the double bond.

Question 29.
What is Baeyer’s reagent? How is it used to detect the presence of a multiple bond in alkenes/alkyne?
Answer:
(i) Cold, dilute alkaline potassium permanganate solution is known as Baeyer’s reagent.
(ii) When added to an alkene or alkyne the purple solution becomes dark green and then produces a dark brown precipitate. This indicates the presence of a double/ triple bond.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 30.
Complete the following equations:

(i) CH2 = CH2 + H2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 64
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 65

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 66

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 67

(iii) CH3CH = CH CH3 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 69
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 68

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 31.
Explain the term ozonolysis with an example.
Answer:
Ozonolysis is a reaction between ozone and an alkene or an alkyne. In this reaction, ozone adds across the multiple bond to form an ozonide which decomposes to give one or more carbonyl compound, depending on the alkene/alkyne taken.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 70

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 71

Question 32.
Predict the products of ozonolysis of the following compounds.
(i) CH3CH = CH2

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 72

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 73

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 74

Answer:
To predict the product of ozonolysis draw a line across C = C, and add one oxygen atom on either side.

(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 75

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 76

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 77

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 78

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 33.
Explain the term polymerisation.
Answer:
Polymerisation is a process which involves the combination of several simple molecules (known as monomers) to form a giant molecule (known as polymer) under suitable experimental conditions.
eg: ethylene polymerises to polythene.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 79

Question 34.
Mention the uses of the following:

(i) Polyethylene terephthalate (PET):
Answer:
Soft drinks bottles, jars, vegetable oil bottle.

(ii) High density polyethylene (HDPE):
Answer:
Milk, water and juice containers.

(iii) Polyvinyl chloride (PVC):
Answer:
Shampoo bottles, plastic pipes.

(iv) Low density polyethylene (LDPE):
Answer:
Sandwich bags, grocery bags.

(v) Polypropylene (PP):
Answer:
Straws, diaper, toys.

(vi) Polystyrene (PS):
Answer:
Disposable utensils, foam cups.

(vii) Multilayer plastics:
Answer:
Various flexible item.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 35.
Mention the uses of alkenes.
Answer:
(i) As a starting material in the synthesis of alcohol, plastics, liquors, detergents and fuels.
(ii) Used in the manufacture of floor tiles, shoes, synthetic fibres, rain coats, pipes etc.

Question 36.
Write the IUPAC name and carbon skeleton formula for
(i) CH3 — C ≡ CH
(ii) CH3 — CH2 C ≡ CH
(iii) CH3 C ≡ C CH3
(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 80
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 81

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 37.
How will you prepare the following? Give equations:
(i) Acetylene from ethylene:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 82

(ii) Prop – 1 – yne from 1, 2 dichloro propane:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 83

(iii) Acetylene from potassium succinate:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 84

Question 38.
Briefly outline the acidic nature of alkynes.
Answer:
(i) An acidic substance should contain an ionisable hydrogen. Alkynes which contain a hydrogen atom (terminal alkyne) attached to an ‘sp’ hybridised atoms are acidic in nature, eg: Ethyne (CH ≡ CH), propyne (CH3C ≡ CH) etc. An ‘sp’ hybridised carbon is more electronegative than an sp2 or sp3 hybrid orbitals. Hence it pulls the electron pair towards itself resulting in the ionisation of alkane as follows:
HC ≡ CH → HC ≡ C (acetylide ion) + H+

Hence, terminal alkynes are acidic.
(ii) Terminal alkynes undergo the following reactions which the non-terminal alkynes do not
(a) They produce a while precipitate on treatment with ammoniacal silver nitrate.
CH3CH2C (but-l-yne) ≡ CH + 2 AgNO3 + 2 NH4OH → CH3CH2C ≡ CAg (Silver butynide) ↓+ 2 NH4NO3 + 2H2O

(b) They produce a red precipitate on treatment with ammonical cuprous chloride.

2 CH3 – CH2 – C ≡ CH (but-l-yne) + Cu2Cl2 + 2 NH4OH → CH3 – CH2 – C ≡ C – Cu ↓(Copper butynide) + 2 NH4Cl + 2 H2O

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 39.
Give equation for the reaction of propyne with:

(i) H2 in the presence of Pt as catalyst:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 85

(ii) Bromine in carbon tetrachloride:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 86

(iii) Hydrogen chloride:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 87

(iv) Mercuric sulphate and dilute sulphuric acid at 333 K:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 88

(v) Ozone followed by Zn / H2O:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 89

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 40.
Distinguish by means of a chemical test.
(i) but-l-ene and but-l-yne:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 90

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 91

(ii) butane and but-1 -ene:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 92

(iii) but-2-yne and but-1 -yne:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 93

Question 41.
Give equation for the reaction of propyne with:

(i) Br2
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 94

(ii) HgSO4 / H2SO4:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 95

(iii) O3 / HOH:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 96

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 42.
Give a brief account on polymerisation of alkynes.
Answer:
Acetylene undergoes polymerisation producing different pr&lucts under different conditions.
(i) Cyclic poIymerisation:
When acetylene is passed brouh a red hot metallic tube at 873 K, cyclic polyrnerisaiion occurs with the formation of beniene.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 97

(ii) When acetylene is treated with cuprous chloride solution containing ammonium chloride, linear polymerisation occurs forming mono vinyl acetylene and divinyl acetelene.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 98

Question 43.
Give two examples each for monocyclic and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons.
Answer:
Monocyclic aromatic hydrocarbons:
Benzene(C6H6) and toluene(C6H5 CH3)

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons:
Naphthalene (C6H5 – C6H5) and

Anthracene:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 99

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 44.
Write the structures of the following:

(i) Toluene
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 100

(ii) Ethyl benzene
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 101

(iii) Isopropyl benzene
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 102

(iv) o – xylene
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 103

(v) m – xylene
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 104

(vi) p – xylene
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 105

Question 45.
Mention the conditions for an organic compound to be classified as aromatic. [OR] Explain Huckel’s rule.
Answer:
Huckel proposed that aromaticity is a function of electronic structure. A compound may be aromatic, if it obeys the following rules:
(i) The molecule must be co – planar
(ii) Complete delocalization of n electron in the ring
(iii) Presence of (4n + 2)π electrons in the ring where n is an integer (n = 0,1,2….)
This is known as Huckel’s rule.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 46.
Predict the following compounds are aromatic or not.
(i) Benzene

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 106

Answer:
(a) The benzene is a planar molecule.
(b) It has six delocalised π electrons.
(c) 4n + 2 = 6
4n = 6 – 2
4n = 4
n = 1
It obeys Huckel’s (4n + 2) π electron rule with n = 1.
Hence, benzene is aromatic.

(ii) Naphthalene

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 107

Answer:
(a) Naphthalene has a planar ring structure.
(b) It has 10 delocalised it electrons.
(c) 4n + 2 = 10
4n = 10 – 2
4n = 8
n = 8/4 = 2
Hence, naphthalene is aromatic.

(iii) Anthracene:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 108

Answer:
It has a planar ring structure with 14 delocalised n electrons. Applying Huckel’s rule 4n + 2 = 14π electrons. n = 3 Hence it is an aromatic compound.

(iv) Cyclo penta diene:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 109

Answer:
(a) It has planar structure.
(b) It has four π electron but the π electrons are not delocalised and hence it is not an aromatic compound.

(v) Cyclooctatetraene

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 110

Answer:
Molecule is non-planar and hence it is not an aromatic compound.

(vi) Cyclopropenylcation

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 111

Answer:
(a) Cyclopropenylcation has planar structure.
(b) It has 2 delocalised π electron.
(c) 4n + 2 = 2
4n = 0
n = 0 (an integer) and hence it is aromatic compound.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 47.
Briefly explain the structure of benzene based on resonance.
Answer:
(i) On the basis of resonance, benzene is believed to be a resonance hybrid of the I and II are called Kekule structures and contribute more towards resonance hybrid than the rest of the structures.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 112

(ii) The two Kekule structures are equivalent and hence the stability of the resonance hybrid is high. Because of resonance, all the C — C bond lengths are equal which is intermediate to C = C and C — C bond lengths.
(iii) Resonance can occur only if the molecule is planar. Thus, benzene is a planar molecule, where all the six carbon and six hydrogen atoms lie in the same plane.
(iv) All the pi electrons are delocalised. This is represented by a circle inside the benzene ring. For convenience, Benzene is represented as

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 113

(Note: The resonance hybrid cannot be represented on paper.)

Question 48.
Briefly explain the molecular orbital structure of benzene.
Answer:
(i) All the six carbon atoms in benzene are ‘sp2‘ hybridised. The sp2 hybrid orbitals overlap with each other and with ‘s’ orbitals of the six hydrogen atoms forming C — C and C — H bonds.
(ii) Since, the bond results from the overlap of ‘sp2’ planar hybrid orbitals, all carbon and hydrogen atoms in benzene lie. in the same plane and all the bond angles are 120° as shown below:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 114

(iii) The unused ‘2p’ orbitals of each carbon atom which lie above and below the plane overlap laterally producing 3π molecular orbitals containing six electrons as shown in (a) and (b) below:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 115

(iv) As the overlapping on both sides are equal, all the six ‘‘p’ orbitals unite to form a continues n molecular orbitals containing six electrons as shown below:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 116

The formation of continuous molecular orbital suggests that all the six pi electrons are common to all the six carbon atom. The participation of pi electrons in more than one bond is called delocalisation of pi electrons.

(v) The molecular orbital picture of benzene explains all the known facts of about benzene, i.e., planarity of the molecule, bond angle, equal C — C bond lengths and stabilisation of the molecule.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 49.
How is benzene obtained from coal tar?
Answer:
Coal tar is a viscous liquid obtained by the pyrolysis of coal. During fractional distillation, coal tar is heated and distills away its volatile compounds namely benzene, toluene, xylene in the temperature range of 350 to 443 K. These vapours are collected at the upper part of the fractionating column.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 117

Question 50.
Give equations for the following reactions.

(i) Sodium benzoate is heated with soda lime.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 118

(ii) Phenol vapours are passed over zinc dust.
Answer:

C6H5OH + Zn → C6H6 + ZnO

(iii) Bromo benzene and iodo methane is heated with metallic sodium in the presence of ether.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 119

(iv) Benzene is treated with methyl chloride m the presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride. .
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 120

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 51.
Identify the products in the following equations.

(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 121

Answer:

A = TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 122

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 123

Answer:

B = TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 124

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 125

Answer:

C = TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 126

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 127

Answer:

D = TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 128

Question 52.
Explain the mechanism of chlorination of benzene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 129

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 53.
How do you get the following from benzene.

(i) cyclohexane
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 130

(ii) benzene hexachloride
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 131

(iii) maleic anhydride
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 132

(iv) 1, 4 cyclo hexane
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 133

Question 54.
Give examples for Ortho and para directing groups.
Answer:
All the activating groups are ‘ortho-para’ directors.
eg: — OH, — NH2, — NHR, — NHCOCH3, — OCH2 — CH3 — C2H5 etc.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 55.
What are metadirecting groups? Give example.
Answer:
Generally all deactivating groups are meta-directors,
eg: — NO2, — CN, — CHO,— COR, — COOH, — COOR, — SO3H etc.

Question 56.
Phenol on bromination gives a mixture of ortho and para bromo phenol but not m-bromo phenol. Explain why?
Answer:
The actual structure of phenol is a resonance hybrid of the following structures.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 134

The ‘OH’ group in phenol is an ortho para orienting group. It activates the benzene orienting ring through its +M effect. As a result, the ortho and para position became electron rich compared to the meta position and the electrophile i.e., Br+ attacks the ortho and para positions. Hence bromination of benzene gives a mixture of ortho and para bromo phenols.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 135

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 57.
The halogen atom is halo benzene, has deactivate the benzene ring, yet ortho and para products are formed during electrophilic substitution reactions. Explain why?
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 136

In aryl halides, the strong – I effect of the halogens (electron Withdrawing tendency) decreases the electron density of benzene ring, thereby deactivating for electrophilic attack.

However the presence of lone pair on halogens involved in the resonance with pi electrons of benzene ring, increases electron density at ortho and para position.

Thus the electrophile attacks the ortho and para position.

Question 58.
Explain how a meta directing group facilitate the meta substituents in benzene ring. [OR] “CHO” group in meta directing in electrophilic substitutions reaction. Explain why?
Answer:
Meta directing groups deactivate the benzene ring through their -M effect. As a results the electron density at ortho and para positions become electron deficient compared to the meta position. Or the meta position is relatively electron rich compared to ortho and para positions. Hence the electrophile attacks the meta position. For example the.aldehyde group (-CHO) is meta directing. The actual structure of benzaldehyde is a resonance hybrid of the following structures.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 137

Because of -M effect, a positive charge is created at ortho and para position. This means the electron density at the meta position is relatively higher than ortho and para positions. Hence, meta directing groups favours meta substitution.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 59.
Write a short note on Carcinogenity and toxicity.
Answer:
Poly nuclear hydrocarbons are toxic and said to possess cancer producing (carcinogenic) property. These polynuclear hydrocarbons are produced by incomplete combustion of organic matter such as coal, petroleum, tobacco etc., They enter into the human body and undergo various biochemical reaction and finally damage DNA to cause cancer. Examples of polynuclear hydrocarbons having carcinogenic activity are 1, 2 benzanthracene, 1, 2, benzpyrene, 1, 2, 5, 6 dibenzanthracene.

Question 60.
Complete the following reactions:

(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 138

Answer:
A = CH3CH2MgBr; B = CH3CH3

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 139

Answer:
A = CH3 – CH3; B = CH3 CH2Br;
C = CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 140
Answer:
A = CH3COONa; B = CH4; C = CH3Br

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 141

Answer:
A = CH3COONa; B = CH3 – CH3

(v) CaC2 + H2O —> A + B .
Answer:
A = C2H2 ; B = Ca(OH)2

(vi) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 142

Answer:
A = CH3 CHO; B = (CH3)2CO

(vii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 143

Answer:
A = CH3CH2 C = C.Na;
B = CH3CH2C = C. CH2 CH3

(viii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 144

Answer:
A = C6H6

(ix) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 145

Answer:
A = C6H5CO CH2 CH3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 61.
An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentan-3-one. Write the structure and IUPAC name of A.

Write the structures of the products of ozonolysis side by side with their oxygen atoms pointing towards each other. Remove the oxygen atom and join the two carbon atoms by a double bond.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 146

Question 62.
Bring out the following conversions:

(i) ethyl bromide to butane:
Answer:
CH3CH2Br TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 147 CH3CH3

(ii) benzoic acid to benzene:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 148

(iii) ethyl bromide to butane:
Answer:
CH3CH2Br TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 149 CH3CH2CH2CH3

(iv) propene to 2-bromoprppane:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 150

(v) ethyl bromide to ethylene glycol:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 151

(vi) 2-methyl prop-l-ene to propan-2-ol:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 152

(vii) ethane to ethyne:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 153

(viii) acetylene to methanoic acid.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 154

(ix) Toluene to o – bromo toluene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 155

(x) benzene to m – dinitro benzene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 156

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 63.
Bring out the following conversions:

(i) Benzene to o – dichloro benzene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 157

(ii) Benzene to o – nitro toulene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 158

(iii) Benzene to m – nitro toulene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 159

(iv) Benzene to p – nitro toulene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 160

(v) Benzene to m – di nitro benzene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 161

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Isopropyl bromide on wurtz reaction gives:
(a) hexane
(b) propane
(c) 2, 3 dimethyl butane
(d) neohexane
Answer:
(c) 2, 3 dimethyl butane
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 162

Question 2.
Heating a mixture of sodium benzoate with soda lime gives:
(a) benzene
(b) methane
(c) benzoic acid
(d) calcium benzoat
Answer:
(a) benzene
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 163

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 3.
Which of the following alkane has the lowest boiling point and highest melting point?
(a) w-pentane
(b) iso pentane
(c) neo pentane
(d) n-hexane
Answer:
(c) neo pentane
Hint:
Due to least surface area, neo pentane has the lowest boiling point, but due to high symmetry it has the highest melting point.

Question 4.
On mixing certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with ultraviolet light, one forms only one monochloro alkane. The alkane could be:
(a) neopentane
(b) propane
(c) pentane
(d) isopentane
Answer:
(a) neopentane
Hint:
Neopentane, has only one type carbon atoms attached to the carbon atom as

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 164

All hydrogen atoms are equivalent and hence it forms only one monochloro derivative.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 5.
Which one of the following exhibit geometrical ‘ isomerism?
(a) 1 – phenyl – 2 – butene
(b) 3 – phenyl – 1 – butene
(c) 2 – phenyl – 1 – butene
(d) 1, 1 diphenyl – 1 – propane
Answer:
(a) 1 – phenyl – 2 – butene
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 165

Question 6.
Give the IUPAC name of
(a) 3 – methyl-4-propyl-3-octene
(b) 4- butyl-3-methyl-3-heptene
(c) 2 – ethyl-3-propyl-2-heptene
(d) 2 – ethyl-2-propyl-2-heptene
Answer:
(a) 3 – methyl-4-propyl-3-octene
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 166

Question 7.
1-chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives:
(a) 1 – Butene
(b) 1 – Butanol
(c) 2 – Butene
(d) 2 – Butanol
Answer:
(a) 1 – Butene
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 167

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 8.
Butene – 1 – may be converted to butane on reaction with:
(a) Pd / H2
(b) Zn / HCl
(c) Sn / HCl
(d) Zn – Hg
Answer:
(a) Pd / H2
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 168

Question 9.
Which of the following gives an ozonolysis both aldehydes and ketones?
(a) (CH3)2C = CH CH3

(b) (CH3)2C = C.(CH3)2

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 169

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 170
Answer:
(a) (CH3)2C = CH CH3
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 171

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 10.
Identify the compounds A and B in the following reaction sequence.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 172

(a) A is ethylene; B is acetaldehyde
(b) A is acetylene; B is propionaldehyde
(c) A is ethane; B is ethanol
(d) A is acetylene; B is acetaldehyde
Answer:
(d) A is acetylene; B is acetaldehyde
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 173

Question 11.
A gas decolourises alkaline KMnO4 but does not give a precipitate with AgNO3 is:
(a) CH4
(b) C2H4
(c) C2H2
(d) C2H6
Answer:
(b) C2H4
Hint:
Ethylene decolourises KMnO4but does not give a precipitate with AgNO3.

Question 12.
The ortho-para directing group among the following is:
(a) COOH
(b) CN
(c) COCH3
(d) NHCOCH3
Answer:
(d) NHCOCH3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 13.
The number of structural isomers of C6H14 is:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(d) 6
Hint:
n-hexane : CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
2 – methyl pentane:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 174

3 – methyl pentane:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 175

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 176

Question 14.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 177

What is the major product ‘P’ in the above reaction?

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 178

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 179

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 180

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 181
Answer:

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 181

Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 182

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 15.
3 – phenyl propene on reaction with HBr gives as a major product:

(a)TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 183

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 184

(c) C6H5 CH2 CH2 CH2 Br

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 185

Answer:

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 184

Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 186

Question 16.
CHCHCH = CH + HBr TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 187 [X] (major) + [Y] (minor) [X] and [Y] respectively are:
(a) BrCH2CH2CH = CH2 and C2H5CH(Br) . CH3
(b) C2H5 CH2 CH2 Br and – CH2 CH2 – CH = CH2
(c) C2H5 CH2 CH2 Br and C2H5 CH (Br) . CH3
(d) C2H5 CH (Br) . CH3 and C2H5 CH2 CH2 Br
Answer:
(c) C2H5 CH2 CH2 Br and C2H5 CH (Br) . CH3
Hint:
X is formed by the anti Markovnikoff’s addition. i.e., CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 Br (X) as the major product. C2H5 CH (Br). CH3 is fonned as a minor product.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 17.
Which of these will not react with acetylene?
(a) NaOH
(b)ammonical AgNO3
(c)Na
(d)HCl
Answer:
(a) NaOH
Hint:
HC ≡ CH + NaOH (weaker base) → HC ≡ CNa (Stroinger base) + H2O
A weaker base cannot displace a stronger base.

Question 18.
Predict the product (c) in the following reaction of butyne – 1

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 188

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 189

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 190

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 191

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 192

Answer:

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 189

Hint:
Addition of both HCl and HI occurs in accordance with Markovniff’s rule.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 193

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 19.
When 2 – butyne is treated with dilute H2SO4 / HgSO4, the product formed is:
(a) butanol – 1
(b) butanol – 2
(c) 2 – butanone
(d) butanal
Answer:
(c) 2 – butanone
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 194

Question 20.
Which of the following reagents will be able to j distinguish between 1 -butyne and 2-butyne?

(a) NaNH2
(b) HCl
(c) O2
(d) Br2
Answer:
(a) NaNH2
Hint:
1 – Butyne being a terminal alkyne has an acidic hydrogen. Hence reacts with sodium in liquid ammonia (NaNH2) to evolve NH3 gas but 2 – butyne does not.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 21.
The molecular formula of diphenyl methane is C13H12. It is represented as

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 195

How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogens are replaced by chlorine atom?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 4
Hint:
One hydrogen in CH2, ortho, meta and para hydrogens. Hence 4.

Question 22.
Which of the following compounds is not aromatic?

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 196

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 197

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 198

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 199

Answer:

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 198

Hint:
Has a cyclic cloud of 2π electrons and hence aromatic, (b) and (c) have a cyclic cloud of six pi electrons and hence aromatic, (c) has 4π electrons and hence anti-aromatic.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 23.
The radical, TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 200 is aromatic because it has:
(a) seven ‘p’ orbitals and seven unpaired electrons
(b) six ‘p’ orbitals and seven unpaired electrons
(c) six ‘p’ orbitals and six unpaired electrons
(d) seven ‘p’ orbitals and six unpaired, electrons
Answer:
(c) six ‘p’ orbitals and six unpaired electrons
Hint:
six ‘p’ orbitals and six pi- electrons from a cyclic electron cloud containing 6π i.e.,(4n + 2) π electron which is responsible for aromatic character. The seventh electron as such has nothing to do with the aromatic character of benzyl radical.The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order of:

Question 24.
Given

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 201

The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order of:
(a) II > III > I
(b) II > I > III
(c) I > II > III
(d) III > II > I
Answer:
(d) III > II > I
Hint:
The enthalpy of hydrogenation is inversely proportional to its stability.
i.e., Lower the stability, greater is its enthalpy of hydrogenation.
(I) is aromatic and hence most stable.
(II) is less stable than (I) because it is a cyclic conjugated diene.
(III) is least stable because it is neither aromatic nor a cyclic conjugated diene. Hence, the stability of alkenes decrease in the order I > II > III and the enthalpy of hydrogenation in the order III > II > I.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 25.
Among the following compounds, the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is: 2012)
(a) benzoic acid
(b) nitrobenzene
(c) toluene
(d) benzene
Answer:
(c) toluene
Hint:
Toluene has electron releasing methyl group while others have electron with -drawing groups. Hence toluene is most reactive among others towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

Question 26.
Find the major product in the following reaction:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 202

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 203

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 204

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 205

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 206

Answer:

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 204

Hint:
– CCl3 is meta directing.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Assertion-Reason type Questions:

Question 27.
Assertion:
Boiling points of cis isomers are higher than those of trans isomers.
Reason:
Dipole moments of cis isomers are higher than these of trans isomers.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reasons are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 28.
Assertion:
Propene is more reactive thanethene towards electrophilic addition reactions.
Reason:
Hyper conjugation effect of the methyl group increases the electron density in the double bond.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reasons are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 29.
Assertion:
The C – H bond in ethyne is shorter than C – H bond in ethane.
Reason:
The hydrogen atoms in ethyne are acidic.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reasons are false.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
The C – H bond in ethyne is sp2 hybridised and that in ethane sp3 hybridised. The sp2 hybridised carbon is more electronegative than sp3 hybridised carbon.

Question 30.
Assertion:
Benzene does not decolorise bromine water.
Reason:
Benzene contains three double bonds.
(a) Both assertion and reason are .true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reasons are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
The correct reason is that the pi electrons of benzene are delocalised.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 31.
Assertion:
Friedel – Craft’s reaction is used to introduce an alkyl or allyl group into the benzene ring.
Reason:
Benzene is a solvent for the Friedel – Craft’s alkylation of bromo benzene.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
Benzene is more reactive than bromobenzene. Hence, Friedel-Craft’s reaction will occur preferentially in benzene rather than bromo benzene and hence benzene cannot be used as a solvent in this reaction.

Question 32.
Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism?

(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 207

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 208

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 209

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 210

Answer:

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 210

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 33.
Pick out the alkanes which differs from the other members of the group.
(a) 2, 2, dimethyl propane
(b) pentane
(c) 3, methyl butane
(d) 2, 2, dimethyl butane
Answer:
(d) 2, 2, dimethyl butane
Hint:
(a), (b), (c) are all isomers but ‘d’ is not.

Question 34.
Methane can be converted into ethane by the following reactions:
(a) chlorination followed by the reaction with alcoholic KOH.
(b) Chlorination followed by the reaction with aq. KOH.
(c) Chlorination followed by wurtz reaction.
(d) Chlorination followed by decarboxylation.
Answer:
(c) Chlorination followed by wurtz reaction.
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 211

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 35.
Which of the following pairs of alkynes contain only acidic hydrogen atoms?
(a) CH ≡ CH and CH3 C . CH3
(b) CH3 C ≡ CH and CH ≡ CH
(c) CH3C = C . CH3 and CH3CH2C = C CH3
(d) CH2 = CH2 and CH ≡ CH.
Answer:
(b) CH3 C ≡ CH and CH ≡ CH

Question 36.
Among the following, the pair of alkynes which show position isomerism is:
(a) But – 1 – yne and But – 2 – yne
(b) Pent – 1 – yne and 3 methyl but – 1 – yne
(c) But – 1 – yne and But – 3 – diene
(d) Propyne and Cyclopropene.
Answer:
(a) But – 1 – yne and But – 2 – yne
Hint:
CH3CH2C = CH and CH3C ≡ C . CH3 are position isomers.
TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 212 are chain isomers.
CH3CH2 C ≡ CH and CH2 = CH — CH = CH2 are functional isomers.
CH3C ≡ CH and TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons 213 are ring chain isomers.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 37.
Assertion:
Melting point of neopentane is higher than that of n – pentane but the boiling point of n – pentane is higher than that of neopentane.
Reason:
Melting point depends upon packing of molecules in the crystal lattice while boiling point depends upon the surface area of the molecule.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 38.
Assertion:
The C — H bond in ethyne is shorter than C — H bonds in ethene.
Reason:
Carbon atoms in ethene is sp hybridised while it is sp2 hybridised in ethyne.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
Hint:
Correct reason: carbon atom in ethene is sp2 hybridised while it is sp in ethyne.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 39.
Assertion :
Acetylene on treating with NaNH2 gives sodium acetylide and ammonia.
Reason : sp hybridised carbon atoms | of acetylene are considerably
electronegative.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
Correct reason: Acetylene is a stronger acid than ammonia.

Question 40.
Assertion:
Friedel crafts reaction is used to introduce an alkyl or alyl group in benzene nucleus.
Reason:
Benzene is a software for the Friedel-crafts alkylation of bromo benzene. (AIIMS – 2008)
(a) If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
Hint:
Correct reason: Since benzene is more reactive than bromobenzene Friedel – crafts reaction occur preferential in benzene, rathar than in bromobenzene and hence benzene cannot be used as a solvent in this reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 41.
Assertion:
The reaction of conc.HNO3 and conc.H2SO4 on nitrobenzene gives m-dinitrobenzene.
Reason:
The nitro group in benzene ring decreases the electron density in the benzene ring.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
Correct reason:
The nitro group in nitro benzene decreases the electron density at ortho and para positions. Hence the meta position in relatively high in electron density, i.e., NO2 group is theta directing.

Question 42.
Choose the correct statements from the following sentences.
Presence of a nitro group in a benzene ring.
(a) Deactivates the ring towards electrophilic substitution reaction.
(b) Activates the ring towards electrophilic Substitution reactions.
(c) Renders the ring basic.
(d) Deactivates the ring toward nucleophilic substitution ring.
Answer:
(a) Deactivates the ring towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 43.
Identify the incorrect statement with regard to the structure of benzene.
(a) Benzene is a planar molecule.
(b) All C — C bonds in benzene have equal bond length due to resonance.
(c) Benzene exhibits resonance.
(d) Benzene contains three double bonds and three single bonds.
Answer:
(d) Benzene contains three double bonds and three single bonds.
Hint:
Benzene has delocalised pi electrons.

Question 44.
Which of the following reactions does not produce methane as a product?
(a) Decarboxylation of sodium acetate
(b) Electrolysis of potassium acetate
(c) Reduction of methyl bromide with zinc and hydrochloric acid.
(d) Hydrolysis of aluminium carbide.
Answer:
(b) Electrolysis of potassium acetate
Hint:
Electrolysis of CH3COOK produces ethane.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 45.
Choose the correct statement with regard to the boiling points of alkenes.
(a) The boiling point of straight chain alkane decreases regularly with their molecular mass.
(b) The branched chain alkane has a higher boiling point than the corresponding n – alkane.
(c) The boiling point of 2, 2, dimethyl propane is lower than these of 2 – methyl butane.
(d) The increase in boiling point of alkanes is
Answer:
(c) The boiling point of 2, 2, dimethyl propane is lower than these of 2 – methyl butane.
Hint:
Among isomeric alkanes, the branched chain isomer has a lower boiling point than the corresponding n-alkane. This is because, with branching the shape of the molecule tends to approach that of a sphere. Hence, surface area j of branched chain isomer decreases and so, magnitude of vanderwaals forces decrease.

As a result ion energy is required to break the force of attraction. 2, 2, dimethyl propane with two branches has a lower boiling point than that of 2-methyl butane which has one branch chain.

Question 46.
Choose the incorrect state with respect to electrophilic substitution reactions of benzene.
(a) In the bromination of benzene, a Lewis acid is used to generate the electrophile.
(b) In the nitration reactions, the electrophile is NO2+ (nitronium ion).
(c) In sulphonation reactions, the electrophile, SO3 is produced by the reaction.
2 H2SO4 ⇌ SO3 + HSO4 + H3O+
(d) The pi electrons of the benzene ring are tightly held and acts as a source for nucleophiles.
Answer:
(d) The pi electrons of the benzene ring are tightly held and acts as a source for nucleophiles.
Hint:
The pi electrons of the benzene ring are loosely held and easily available for electrophilic attack.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 47.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II

Column I Column II

Column I Column II
(i) Formation of methane by heating sodium ethanoate with soda lime (A) Dehydration
(ii) Formation of ethene by distilling ethane with cone H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (B) Hydration
(iii) Formation of propan-2-ol by heating propene with conc. H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (C) Polymerisation
(iv) Formation of polythene from ethene(D) Decarboxylation

due to increase in molecular mass.
(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (A), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (B ),(ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons

Question 48.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II

Column I Column II
(i) n-Butane and 2-methyl propane (A) position isomers
(ii) But – 1 – ene and But – 2 – ene (B) geometrical isomers
(iii) cis butene and trans butene (C) functional isomers
(iv) Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether (D) chain isomers

(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (A), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (B), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (C), (iv)- (A)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 1.
Explain with example, homolytic and heterolytic cleavage of a covalent bond.
Answer:
(i) Homolytic cleavage:
In this type of cleavage a covalent bond breaks symmetrically such that each of the bonded atom retains one electron.

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 1

(ii) Heterolytic cleavage:
In this type of cleavage, a covalent bond breaks unsymmetrically such that one of the bonded atoms retains the bond pair of electrons.

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 2.
Explain the formation of tetra-butyl carbonium ion from tert butyl bromide.
Answer:
The carbon-bromine (— C — Br) bond is k polar covalent bond in tert-butylbromide due to greater electronegativity of bromine compound to that of carbon, i.e., As a result, the bromine atom acquires a slight negative charge and carbon atom a slight positive charge.

The — C — Br bond undergoes heterolytic fission, during a substitution reaction to form . tert-butyl carbocation which is more stable.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 3

Question 3.
Give an example for the formation of carbanion.
Answer:
Carbanions are negatively charged carbon atom in an organic compound formed by the heterolytic cleavage of a C — H bond.

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 4

Carbanions are reaction intermediates formed during organic reactions.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 4.
Explain the hybridization of carbon in carbocation.
Answer:
The carbon atom in a carbocation has a positive charge, and is sp2 hybridised. Hence, it has a planar structure. It is formed during an organic reaction as an intermediate.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 5

In the above structure, the three C — H bonds are formed by the overlap of the sp2 hybrid orbital of the carbon atom and Is orbital of hydrogen atom, each having one unpairedelectrons. The unhybridised ‘p’ orbital lies above and below the plane. The angle between H — C — H bond is 120°.

Question 5.
What is the shape of carbanion?
Answer:
The negatively charged carbon (carbanion) is sp3 hybridised. The hybrid orbitals are directed towards the comers of a tetrahedron. Three hybrid orbitals are involved in the formation of three sigma bonds with other atoms. While the fourth hybrid orbital contain lone pair of electrons. The lone-pair, bond-pair repulsion results in a pyramidal shape for the carbanion.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 6

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 6.
Briefly mention the types of electron movements which are used to explain organic reactions.
Answer:
There are three types of electron movement viz.,
Type 1:
A lone pair to a bonding pair:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 7

Type 2:
A bonding pair to a lone pair:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 8

Type 3:
A bonding pair to an another bonding pair:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 9

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 7.
What is a free radical? How is it formed? Indicate the type of hybridization in an alkyl free radical.
Answer:
(i) Free radicals are neutral species.
(ii) They are formed by the homolytic fission of a covalent bond in such a way that each bonded atom retains one of the bond pair of electrons.
eg: H – H → H. + H.
H3C – H → H3C . + .H

(iii) The carbon atom in an alkyl free radical is sp2 hybridised. An alkyl free radical may be either planar or pyramidal. The odd electron present in the unhybridised ‘p’ orbital.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 10

Question 8.
Explain inductive effect with an example.
Answer:
(i) Inductive effect is defined as the change in the polarisation of a covalent bond – due to the presence of adjacent bonds atoms or groups in the molecule. This is a permanent phenomenon.
(ii) The C – Cl bond in ethyl chloride is a polar covalent bond because chlorine is more electronegative than carbon. As a result, Chlorine acquires a small negative charge and the carbon atom acquires small
positive charge.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 11

The positively charged carbon atom (1), draws the shared pair of electrons between itself and C2. This type of polarization effect is called inductive effect.

(iii) The electron displacement in inductive effect is permanent.
(iv) Groups which draws electrons away from the carbon chain but towards the substituents are said to exert -I effect.
eg: F, Cl, COOH, NO2, NH2.

(v) If the electron displacement is towards the carbon chain and away from the substituent, it is known as +1 effect. The groups which cause +I effect are CH3O, C2H5O, COO etc…

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 9.
Explain how the electromeric effect explains the nucleophilic addition in a carbonyl compound.
Answer:
The carbon-oxygen bond in a carbonyl group contains a σ and π bond. When a nucleophile approaches the carbonyl compound, the pi (π) electron are shifted towards the oxygen atom there by creating a positive charge on the carbon atom, which forms a new bond between the electron deficient carbon atom .and the nucleophile.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 12

The electro-positive part of the hueleophile forms a bond with the oxygen atom to form the addition product.

Question 10.
Write the resonance structure for 1, 3 butadiene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 13

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 11.
Explain +M (positive mesomeric) effect with an example.
Answer:
+M (positive mesomeric) effect arises, when the π electron shift occurs away from the substituent but towards the conjugated system.

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 14

Generally, electron releasing substituents exert +M effect. In the above example, the lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom, of the hydroxyl group through +M effect moves to the carbon atom which gains a positive charge.

Question 12.
Explain -M (negative mesomeric) effect with an example.
Answer:
When the n electrons shift towards the substituent but away from the conjugated system, it is known as -M (negative mesomeric) effect, eg:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 15

In this case, the nitro group (electron withdrawing group), through its -M effect pulls the π electron pair towards itself across the conjugated system, giving rise to the resonance structure as shown.
Electron withdrawing substituents like CHO, COOH, CN etc exert -M effect.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 13.
Draw the resonance structures of phenol and phenoxide ion.
Answer:
(i) In phenol, the lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom of the phenolic group enters into conjugation with the benzene ring resulting in the following canonical structures.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 16

(ii) Phenoxide ion contains a negative charge on the oxygen atom attached to the benzene ring. This negative charge is dispersed throughout the benzene ring by resonance. This enhances the stability of phenoxide ion. The various canonical structures for phenoxide ion is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 17

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 14.
Account for the stability of the tertiary, secondary and primary carbocations based on hyper conjugation.
Answer:
The stability of the earbocation decreases in the order.

3° earbocation > 2° earbocation > 1° carbocation

Greater the number of alkyl groups attached to the carbon bearing positive charge, greater is number of the hyper conjugate structure.

Question 15.
Give an example for nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Answer:
In a nucleophilic substitution, a nucleophile (negatively charged reagent or a neutral molecule in which the central atom has a lone pair of electrons) attack a positively charged reactions site, and expel an atom or a group – from the substrate as a negative ion.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 18

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 16.
Give an example for electrophilic substitution reaction.
Answer:
Nitration of benzene, in the presence of a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated sulphuric acid gives nitro benzene. This is an example of electrophilic substitution reaction.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 19

In this reaction, NO2+ ion (nitronium ion) acts an electrophile, attacks the electron rich carbon atom of the benzene molecule, and expel the hydrogen atom as H+ ion.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 20

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 17.
Explain free radical substitution reaction with an example.
Answer:
A free radical substitution reaction is one in which a free radical (reagent) replaces an atom or a group from the substrate molecule, with an odd electron (free radical). Chlorination of methane is an example of free radical substitution reaction.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 21

In this reaction, the chlorine free radical, replaces hydrogen atom from CH4 as shown above.
Free radical substitution reactions occur through a chain reaction, which involves the following steps.
(i) initiation
(ii) propagation and
(iii) termination.

Question 18.
Give a brief account of addition reactions.
Answer:
Addition reactions are those in which the attacking species adds up to the substrate molecule to give a single product molecule. Usually, double or triple bonded compounds undergo addition reactions. In these reactions, a triple bond is converted to a double bond, and double bonds are converted to single bonds. For each pi(π) bond of the molecule, two sigma(σ) bonds are formed and the hybridisation of the carbon atom changes from sp to sp2 and sp2 to sp3.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 22

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 19.
Give an example for electrophilic addition reaction.
Answer:
In an electrophilic addition reactions, an electrophile approaches, the double or triple bond in the first step forms a covalent bond with one of the carbon atoms resulting in the formation of a carbocation, which then takes nucleophile to result in the addition product.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 23

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 24

Question 20.
Give an example for (i) free radical addition reaction, (ii) nucleophilic addition reaction.
Answer:
(i) Free radical addition reaction:
Photo chemically catalysed addition of chlorine to ethylene is an example of free radical addition reactions.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 25

The mechanism involves the following steps:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 26

(ii) Nucleophilic addition reaction:
When a nucleophile attacks an electron deficient reaction site, the reaction is known as a nucleophilic addition reaction. Aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic addition reaction.

The carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones gets polarised due to the presence of highly electronegative oxygen atom as shown below:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 27

The nucleophile, attacks for the electron deficient carbon atom and forms an intermediate, which is further attacked by the electrophile on the negatively charged oxygen atom to form the addition product.
eg: Addition of HCN.to acetone.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 28

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 29

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 21.
What are elimination reactions? Give an example.
Answer:
An elimination reaction is one which involves the loss of two atoms or groups from the same or adjacent carbon atom resulting in the formation of π bonds (double or triple). In an elimination reactions, the hybridised state of carbon get changed. Whenever an elimination reaction involves the formation of alkene, the sp3 hybridised state of carbon is changed to sp2 hybridised state.

eg: Base catalysed dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide to give an alkene.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 30

Question 22.
Write a short note on oxidation reduction reaction in organic chemistry.
Answer:
Organic reactions involving addition of oxygen to a substrate are known as oxidation reaction and these involve addition of hydrogen to the substrate is known as reduction reaction. They are brought about by oxidising and reducing agents. General oxidising agents used are acidified KMnO4, acidified K2Cr2O7, H2SO4 etc., Mostly used reducing agents are sodium and ethanol, Lithium aluminium hydride, Zn and HCl, Sn and HCl etc.

eg: Oxidation

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 31

eg: Reduction

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 32

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 23.
How will you convert
(i) an alcohol to aldehyde
(ii) an alcohol to Ketone
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 33

Question 24.
What are the various steps involved in the conversion of an alkyl cyanide to a carboxyl acid?
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 34

Question 25.
How will you convert (i) an alkyl halide to alcohol (ii) an alkene to alcohol (iii) an alkyl halide to alkene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 35

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Homolytic fission of a covalent bond produces:
(a) cation
(b) anion
(c) both cation and anion
(d) free radical
Answer:
(d) free radical

Question 2.
In the compound, CH,C – Cl, the TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 36 bond undergoes heterolytic fission. The species formed are:
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 37

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 38

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 39

(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 40

Hint:
depending on the energy supplied to break the bond.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) The carbon atom in an alkyl free radical is sp3 hybridised.
(b) The carbon atom in a carbocation is sp3 hybridised.
(c) The carbocation has a planar structure.
(d) The carbon atom in an alkyl carbanion is sp2 hybridised.
Answer:
(c) The carbocation has a planar structure.
Hint:
The carbon atom in an alkyl carbon cation is sp2 hybridised and has a planar structure.

Question 4.
Choose the correct statement:
The stability of:
(a) Carbocation is achieved by decreasing the positive charge on the carbon.
(b) The stability of the carbocation is achieved by increasing the positive charge on the carbon atom.
(c) Among (CH3)3 C+ and (CH3)2CH+, the latter is more stable.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Carbocation is achieved by decreasing the positive charge on the carbon.
Hint:
The stability of carbocation is influenced by both resonance and inductive effects. An alkyl group has electron releasing inductive effect. An alkyl group attached to the positively charged carbon atom tends to release electrons towards that carbon atom.

In doing so, it reduces the positive charge, on the carbon. In other words, the positive charge gets dispersed as a result, the alkyl group becomes somewhat positively charged itself. The dispersal of charge stabilizes the cafbocation. More the number of alkyl groups, more is the stability of the carbonation.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 5.
Which of the following Carbocation would have the greatest stability?
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 41

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 42

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 43

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 44
Answer:
(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 42
Hint:
The lone pair of electrons present in s is present in 3p orbital, while these of N, O and F are present in 2p orbital. Further the carbon atom bearing the positive charge has an empty 2p orbital. Effective resonance stabilisation occurs between orbitals of similar sizes. Hence, least resonance stabilisation occurs between S and C atoms. Among N, O and F, Nitrogen is least electronegative. Hence most effective resonance stabilisation occurs between N and C.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 45

Question 6.
In which of the following compounds, C – Cl bond ionization shall give most stable carbonium ion?
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 46

(b) O2NCH2 – CH2 – Cl

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 47

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 48
Answer:
(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 48
Hint:
It gives most stable tertiary carbonium ion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 7.
The ascending order of stability of the carbanion:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 49

(a) P < R < S < Q
(b) R < P < S < Q
(c) R < P < Q < S
(d) P < R < Q < S
Answer:
(b) R < P < S < Q
Hint:
The stability of carbanion increases with -increase in ‘s’ Character of the carbon atom carrying the negative charge.

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 50

In general, the stability of various carbanions decrease in the order.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 51

Question 8.
Arrange the carbanions:
(CH3)3C, Cl3C, (CH3)2 CH, C6H5CH2 in order of their decreasing stability.

(a) (CH3)2CH > Cl3C > C6H5CH2 > (CH3)3C

(b) Cl3C > C6H5CH2 > (CH3)2CH > (CH3)3 C

(c) (CH3)3C > (CH3)2CH > C6H5CH2 > Cl3C

(d) C6H5CH2 > Cl3C > (CH3)3C > (CH3)2CH
Answer:
(b) Cl3C > C6H5CH2 > (CH3)2CH > (CH3)3 C
Hint:
Due to -I effect of the three chlorine atoms Cl3C is the most stable. This is followed by C6H5 CH2, which is stabilised by resonance. Out of (CH3)3C and (CH3)2CH, (CH3)2 CH is more stable due to + I effect.
Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 9.
The lone pair of electrons in a carbanion is present in:
(a) sp3 hybrid orbital
(b) sp2 hybrid orbital
(c) empty orbital
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) empty orbital

Question 10.
The relative stability of alkyl free radical is in the order:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 52

Answer:
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 53

Hint:
The order of stability of free radicals can be explained on the basis of hyper conjugation. Greater the number of alkyl groups attached to the carbon atom carrying the odd electron, greater is the delocalisation of the electron and hence more stable the free radical.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 11.
Which of the following pairs of species are neutral electrophiles?
(a) NH3 and CI+
(b) CO2 and H3O+
(c) dichloro carbene (: CCl2) and proton
(d) carbon dioxide and dichloro carbene
Answer:
(d) carbon dioxide and dichloro carbene

Question 12.
Three sets of charged species are given. Which one of the following sets act as a nucleophile?
(a) H2O, AlCl3, H+
(b) AlCl3, H3O+, OH
(c) CH3 NH2, CH3OH, I
(d) CH3O, CH3COO, CH3+
Answer:
(c) CH3 NH2, CH3OH, I
Hint:
CH3NH2 and CH3OH are neutral nucleophile, I is negative nucleophile.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 13.
The relative stability of alkyl carbanion decreases in the order:
CH3 > 1° > 2 ° > 3°. This is explained by:
(a) inductive effect
(b) resonance effect
(c) both inductive and resonance effect
(d) hyper conjugative effect
Answer:
(a) inductive effect
Hint:
When an alkyl group is attached to a negatively charged carbon atom of the carbanion, it tends to release electrons towards that carbon. Thus it increases the electron density (- ve charge) on the carbon and destabilizes the carbanion. i.e., lesser the negative charge on the carbon atom, greater is its stability.

More the number of alkyl groups around the carbon atom carrying the negative charge, more is the destabilization and hence less stable the carbanion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 14.
The group which show -I effect are:
(a) (CH3)3C
(b) CH3
(c) COO
(d) SO3H
Answer:
(d) SO3H
Hint:
Higher the electronegativity of the substituent, greater is it’s -I effect.

Question 15.
Arrange the following groups in the decreasing order of -I effect.
NO2 (I), CHO (II), F (III), H (IV)
(a) CHO > F > H > NO2
(b) F > CHO > NO2 > H
(c) H > F > CHO > NO2
(d) NO2 > CHO > F > H
Answer:
(d) NO2 > CHO > F > H
Hint:
Higher the electronegativity of the substituent, greater is it’s -I effect.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 16.
Among the following which is most acidic?
(a) CH3COOH
(b) ClCH2 COOH
(c) Cl2CHCOOH
(d) Cl3CCOOH
Answer:
(d) Cl3CCOOH
Hint:
When a halogen atom is attached to the carbon which is nearer to the carboxylic acid group, its -I effect withdraws the bonded electrons towards itself and makes the ionisation of H+ easy. The acidity of various chloro acetic acid is in the following order. The strength of the acid increases with increase in the -I effect of the group attached to the carboxyl group.
Trichloro acetic acid > Dichloro acetic acid > Chloro acetic acid > acetic acid

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 54

Question 17.
Which does not represent the correct order of -I effect of the substituent?
(a) I < Cl < Br < F
(b) RS < R2N < RO
(c) R2O+ < R2N+ > R2S
(d) R2O+ > RO > C6H5O
Answer:
(a) I < Cl < Br < F
Hint:
The -I effect of halogens follows the order I < Br < Cl < F.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 18.
In which of the following compounds, nucleophilic substitution reaction takes place at a faster rate?
(a) (CH3)3CF
(b) (CH3)3CCl
(c) (CH3)3CBr
(d) (CH3)3CI
Answer:
(a) (CH3)3CF
Hint:
When a highly electronegative atom such as halogen is attached to a carbon then it makes the C — X bond polar. In such cases the – I effect of halogen facilitates the attack of an incoming nucleophile at the polarised carbon, and hence increases the reactivity. The – I effect of halogen follow the order I < Br < Cl < F

Question 19.
The following order of acidity of the carboxylic acids

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 55
is due to
(a) + I Inductive effect
(b) – I Inductive effect
(c) Resonance effect
(d) Both inductive and resonance effect
Answer:
(a) + I Inductive effect
Hint:
The acidity of carboxylic acid to the ionisation of – COOH group as
RCOOH ⇌ RCOO + H+
The + I effect of alkyl groups, increase the electron density around carboxyl carbon, which makes O – H bond stronger and the removal of proton more difficult. Greater the number of alkyl groups attached to the carbon atoms carrying the COOH group, lesser its acidity.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 20.
In which of the following, the electron displacement is due to +E electromeric effect?
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 56

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 57

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 58

(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 56

Hint:
If the electrons due to pi (π) bond are transferred to that atom of the double bond to which the reagent gets finally attached, the effect is called +E effect.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 59

Question 21.
Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophile reaction to take place?
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 60

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 61

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 62

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 63
Answer:
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 60

Hint:
In, nucleophilic displacement reactions the flow of electron occurs in such a way to break the C – Cl bond and expel Cl as Cl.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 22.
Which of the following electron displacement refer to + R or + M effect?
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 64

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 65

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 66

(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 64

Hint:
Groups which withdraw electrons from the double bond or from a conjugated system towards themselves due to resonance are said to have +R or +M effect.

Question 23.
Resonance effect involves:
(a) Delocalisation of pi – electrons along a conjugated system.
(b) Delocalisation of n – electrons along a conjugated system.
(c) Delocalisation of π – electrons along a conjugated system.
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above
Hint:
Resonance effect involves delocalisation of non-bonding pi and sigma electrons (hyper conjugation) to the adjacent π bond.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 24.
1, 3 – butadiene has the structure TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 67
Choose the correct statement.
(1) The bonds between C1 – C2 and C3 – C4 are shorter than that of C2 – C3.
(2) The bond length between all the carbon atoms are the same.
(3) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 68 are the canonical structure of the compound.
(4) The actual structure is a resonance hybrid of the contributing structures

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 69

(a) all
(b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 3, 4
Answer:
(c) 2, 3, 4
Hint:
1, 3 butadiene exhibits resonance. The actual structure is the resonance hybrid of all the contributing structures. Because of resonance all C — C bonds in the compound are equal.

Question 25.
The effect that makes 2, 3 dimethyl 2 butene more stable than 2-butene is:
(a) resonance
(b) hyper conjugation
(c) electromeric effect
(d) inductive effect
Answer:
(b) hyper conjugation
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 70

more hyper conjugative structures are possible for 2, 3 dimethyl 2 – butene than 2 butene. Hence it is more stable.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 26.
Which of the following compounds show hyper conjugation?
(a) CH2CHCl
(b) CH2CHCN
(c) CH3 CH = CH2
(d) all
Answer:
(c) CH3 CH = CH2
Hint:
In propene, the o-electrons of C – H bond of methyl group can be delocalised into the π – orbital of doubly bonded carbon as represented below.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 71

In the above structure the sigma bond is involved in resonance and breaks in order to supply electrons for delocalisation giving rise to 3 new canonical forms. In the contributing canonical structures: (II), (III) & (IV) of propene, there is no bond between an a-carbon and one of the hydrogen atoms. Hence the hyperconjugation is also known as “no bond resonance” or “Baker-Nathan effect”. The structures (II), (III) & (IV) are polar in nature.

(ii) Hyper conjugation effect is also observed when atoms / groups having lone pair of electrons are attached by a single bond, and in conjugation with a n bond. The lone pair of electrons enters into resonance and displaces 71 electrons resulting in more than one structure.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 72

(iii) When electronegative atoms or group of atoms are in conjugation with a 71 -bond, they pull % – electrons from the multiple bond.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 73

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 27.
CH3 CH2 Br + aqueous KOH → CH3 CH2 OH + KBr. This is an example of:
(a) nucleophilic substitution reaction
(b) free, radical substitution reaction
(c) electrophilic substitution reaction
(d) nucleophilic addition reaction
Answer:
(a) nucleophilic substitution reaction
Hint:
TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 74 (nucleophilic)
OH replaces in CH3CH2 Br. Hence it is nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Question 28.
Which of the following is an example for an elimination reaction?
(a) CH3CH2Br + aq KOH → CH3CH2OH + KBr + H2O
(b) CH3CH2Br + alc. KOH → CH2 = CH2 + KBr + H2O
(c) CH3 – CHO TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 75 CH3COOH
(d) CH2 = CH2 + HBr → CH3CH2Br
Answer:
(b) CH3CH2Br + alc. KOH → CH2 = CH2 + KBr + H2O
Hint:
The hydrogen and bromine atom from adjacent carbon atoms are eliminated and a new double bond is created between the two carbon atoms.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 29.
Assertion:
Tertiary carbocations are generally formed more easily than primary carbocations.
Reason :
Hyper conjugation as well as inductive effect due to additional alkyl groups stabilise tertiary carbocations. .
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 30.
Assertion:
Alkyl carbanion have pyramidal shape.
Reason :
The carbon atom carrying negative charge has an octet of electrons.
(a) Both assertion and season are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
Correct Reason.
Because of lone pair – bond pair repulsion.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 76

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 31.
Assertion:
The Chlorine atom attached to 1 – Chloropropane exerts -I effect.
Reason:
Chlorine being more electronegative pulls the electron pair towards itself from the carbon atom to which it is attached.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are fals
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 32.
Assertion:
Phenol is acidic because the phenoxide ion is more stabilized than phenol by resonance.
Reason:
The ‘OH’ group in phenol exerts -M effect.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
The ‘OH’ group in phenol exerts +M effect.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 33.
Assertion:
The compound propene CH3CH = CH2 gives three hyper conjugative structures.
Reason:
The pi electron in propene are involved in hyper conjugation.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
The TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 77 group, adjacent to C = C, is involved hyper conjugation (σ electrons).

Question 34.
Among the following structures, the one which is not the resonating structures of others in:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 78

(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(d) IV

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 79
Hint:
Thus, IV is not the resonating structures of I, II, and III.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 35.
Which of the following compounds does not contain sp3 hybridised carbons?
(a) Cyclo alkanes
(b) Single chain alkanes
(c) Branched chain alkanes
(d) Benzene
Answer:
(d) Benzene

Question 36.
Out of the following, the one containing only nucleophiles is:
(a) AlCl3, BF3, NH3
(b) NH3, CN, CH3OH
(c) AlCl3, NH2 , H2O
(d) RNH2, CX2, H
Answer:
(b) NH3, CN, CH3OH

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 37.
In which of the following pairs of carbocations, the first carbocation is more stable than the second.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 80

(a) II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(b) I, II and IV

Question 38.
Among the following pairs, the one which will exhibit +I effect only?
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 81
(b) CO, COOH
(c) Cl and OH
(d) F and Cl
Answer:
(d) F and Cl

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 39.
Which of the following will neither act as an electrophile nor a nucleophile.
(a) H+, OH
(b) +NO2, Cl
(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 82
(d) CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH2
Answer:
(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 82
Hint:
H3O+ has a lone pair of electrons but due to the presence of the positive charge it cannot donate the electron pair and have does not act as a nucleophile. has a lone pair of electrons but due to the presence of the positive charge it has 8 electrons in its valence shell of oxygen atom.

It cannot expand its valence shell beyond 8 electrons and hence, it cannot act an electrophile TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 83 does not have a lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom. Hence it cannot act as a nucleophile. Similarly TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 83 also has 8 electrons around nitrogen atom. It also cannot expand its valence shell beyond 8 electrons and hence cannot act as electrophile.

Question 40.
Assertion (A):
In carbonyl compounds, in the presence of an attacking reagent, the carbonyl group is polarised as

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 84

Reason (R):
Electromeric effect .involves the complete transfer of electrons of a multiple bond to one of the bonded atoms in the presence of an attacking reagent.
(a) both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(a) both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 41.
Assertion (A):
Among the resonance structures of 1, 3 Butadiene, structure I is more stable, than structures II and III.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 85

Reason (R):
Structure with greater number of covalent bonds contributes more towards resonance hybrid.
(a) both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Hint:
Since the formation of a bond is accompanied by release of energy, the structure (I) with two π bonds is more stable than II and III, which contain one π bond in each. Hence, structure (I) makes more contribution towards resonance hybrid than structure II and III.

Question 42.
Assertion (A):
The relative stability of carbocations follow the sequence:
tertiary > secondary > primary
Reason (R):
The order of reactivity of carbpcation follows the sequence
primary > secondary > tertiary
(a) both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
The relative stability of carbocation is .explained as the basis of hyper conjugation greater the number of α – hydrogen atoms, greater is the hyper conjugative structures and greater is its stability.
The order of reactivity is reverse of their stability.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 43.
Assertion (A):
The reaction, between an alkyl halide and sodium hydroxide is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Reason (R):
In all nucleophilic substitution is a stronger nucleophile displaces a weaker nucleophile.
(a) both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are correct but ‘ reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Hint:
OH is a stronger nucleophile and it displaces X ion which is a weaker nucleophile.

Question 44.
Assertion (A):
All the carbon oxygen bonds in carbon dioxide have the same bond length of 1.15 Å.
Reason (R):
Carbon dioxide is a linear molecule.
(a) both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
The correct reason for assertion is the structure of carbon dioxide is a resonance hybrid of

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 86

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 45.
Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to carbanion?
(a) The carbon atom in a carbanion posses eight electrons in its valence shell.
(b) The carbon atom in a carbanion contain a lone pair of electrons in its one of the sp3 hybrid orbitals.
(c) The stability of carbanion be explained by inductive and resonance effects.
(d) Greater the negative charge on the carbon atom of the carbanion, the more stable it is.
Answer:
(d) Greater the negative charge on the carbon atom of the carbanion, the more stable it is.
Hint:
The correct statement is lesser the negative charge on the carbon atom of the carbanion more stable it is.

Question 46.
Consider the following reaction:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 87

Choose the correct statement with regard to the above reaction.
I. The reaction is a nucleophilic substitutions reaction.
II. The reaction is a nucleophilic addition reaction.
III. The nucleophile is CN ion.
IV. The nucleophile is NC ion.
(a) I & III
(b) II & III
(c) II & IV
(d) I & IV
Answer:
(b) II & III
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 88

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 47.
Choose the correct statement from among the following.
(a) The order of stability of carbocations is
(CH3)3C+ > (CH3)2 CH > +CH3CH2 > +CH3
(b) The carbocation are pyramidal in shape
(c) The stability of carbocations decreases in the order 1° > 2° > 3°
(d) In carbocation, bond pair of electrons are present in an unhybridised ‘p’ orbital
Answer:
(a) The order of stability of carbocations is
(CH3)3C+ > (CH3)2 CH > +CH3CH2 > +CH3

Question 48.
Choose the correct statement from the ‘ following, regarding eliminations reactions.
(a) Elimination reactions are these which involves the ion of two atoms or groups from the same or adjacent atoms of a substance to form a multiple bond.

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 89 is an example of substitution reaction.
(c) The two atoms groups, of removed from two from the same atom of the molecule it is called p – elimination.
(d) If two atoms or groups, if removed from the adjacent carbon atoms, of a-molecule, it is called a – elimination.
Answer:
(a) Elimination reactions are these which involves the ion of two atoms or groups from the same or adjacent atoms of a substance to form a multiple bond.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions

Question 49.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions 90

(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (A)
(d) (i) – (A), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)

Question 50.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

Column I Column II
(i) Neutral electrophile (A) Nitronium ion
(ii) Positive electrophile (B) Boron tri fluoride
(iii) Neutral nucleophile (C) Carboxylate ion
(iv) Negative nucleophile (D) Amines

(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (A), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (D)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 1.
Name the organic compounds found in living things?
Answer:
DNA — Deoxyribonucleic acid, glycolipids, glycogen, lipoproteins, phospolipids etc…

Question 2.
Write the state of hybridization of all atoms in CH2 = C = CH2.
Answer:
The compound is known as alkene.
3 2 1
CH2 = C = CH2
All the three carbon atoms are joined by double bonds. Hence all of them are sp2 hybridised.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
Why does carbon undergo hybridisation prior to bond formation?
Answer:
Carbon forms four covalent bonds which of equal length and a bond angle of 109°28′ in alkanes, 120° in alkenes and 180° in alkynes. Overlapping of V and / or ‘p’ orbitals does not explain the bond length and bond angles. Hybridisation involves the formation of hybrid orbitals of equal energy and oriented in space in specific directions. It explains the experimentally observed bond angles and bond length in organic compounds.

Question 4.
What is the type of hybridisation of each carbon in the following compounds?
(i) CH3Cl
(ii) (CH3)2CO,
(iii) CH3CN,
(iv) HCONH2
(v) CH3CH = CHCN
Write partly condensed formula of the above compounds and indicate the type of hybridisation in each compound.
Answer:
(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 1

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 2

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 3

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 4

(v) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 5

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 5.
Expand each of the following condensed formulae into their complete structural formulae,

(i) CH3CH2COCH2CH3
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 6

(ii) CH3CH==CH(CH2)3 CH3
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 7

Question 6.
For each of the following write their condensed formula and also their bond line formula.
(i) HO CH2 CH2 CH2 CH(CH3) CH(CH3) CH3
(ii) NaC ≡ CH — C = N
Answer:
Condensed formulae:
(i) HO.(CH2)3 CH(CH3)CH(CH3)2
(ii) HO CH(CN)2

Bond line formulae:

(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 8

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 9

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 7.
What are alicyclic compounds? Give two examples with their names.
Answer:
Carbocyelic compounds which resemble aliphatic compounds in most of their properties are called alicyclic compounds.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 10

Question 8.
What are homocyelic and heterocyclic compounds? Give an example of each type along with its name.
Answer:
Homocyelic compounds contains rings which are made up of only one kind of atoms i.e., carbon atoms.
eg: cyclo hexane or benzene.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 11

Heterocyclic compounds contain one or more hetero atoms (i.e., atoms other than carbon and hydrogen, eg: Oxygen, Sulphur, Nitrogen) in the ring.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 12

Question 9.
Write the functional groups of the following.

(i) alcohol
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 13

(ii) mono carboxylic
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 14

(iii) aldehyde
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 15

(iv) ketone
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 16

(v) ester
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 17

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 10.
Indicate primary prefix, root word, primary suffix and secondary suffix in the following compounds and write their IUPAC name.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 18

Question 11.
Explain the terms (i) Root word (ii) Prefix and (Hi) Suffix’in writing the name of an organic compound.
Answer:
The IUPAC name of an organic compound consists of three parts.
prefix + root word + suffix .
(i) Root word denotes the number of carbon atoms in the longest continuous chain in molecules
(ii) Prefix denotes the group(s) attached to the main chain which is placed before the root.
(iii) Suffix denotes the functional group and is placed after the root word.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 12.
Write the IUPAC names for the following compounds:

(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 19

Answer:
Rule 1:
Select the largest continuous chain of carbon atoms in the molecule. This is called the parent chain while all other carbon atom which are not included in the parent chain are regarded as prefixes i.e., side chain or substituents. The largest chain contains 6 carbon atoms and it is named as a derivative of hexane.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 20

Rule 2:
Numbering of the carbon atom containing the substituent.
The numbering of the carbon atom containing the substituent is done in sucha way that the carbon atom containing the substituent should bear a lower number.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 21

Now the primary prefix is 3-methyl. Root word is hex; primary suffix is ‘ane’; IUPAC name 3-methyl hexane.

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 22

Answer:
Rule 1:
If the organic compound contains two or more functional groups, one of the functional groups is selected as principal functional group while all the remaining functional groups are heated as substituents. The principal functional group in this compound is aldehyde group.

Rule 2:
When a chain terminating functional group such as —CHO,—COOH,—COOR, – CONH2,—COCl,—C ≡ N, etc is present, it is always given number 1.
Hence the numbering of the above compound is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 23

Prefix : 2-methyl; Root word is but; Primary prefix – an£; Secondary prefix = al; IUPAC name: 2-methyl butanal.

(iii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 24

Answer:
The principal functional group is —COOH (carboxylic acid group) and it should be always numbered as 1 and followed by double bond, triple bond and substituents in that order. Hence naming is done in the order and group, double bond and substituent.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 25

Prefix: 2-ethyl; Root word is but; primary prefix = 3 – en; secondary suffix is oic acid. Here the IUPAC name is 2-ethyl-3-enoic acid.

(iv) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 26

Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 27

Rule as given in (iii)
Primary prefix = 4- methyl;
Root word = hex;
Primary suffix = an;
Secondary suffix – nitrile.
IUPAC name = 4-methyl hexane nitrile.

(v) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 28

Answer:
Rule as given in (iii)
Primary functional group = CONH2
Substitution CH2 = CH

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 29

Primary prefix = 2-methyl;
Root word = but;
Primary suffix = 3- en;
Secondary suffix – amide.
IUPAC name = 2-methyl but-3-enamide.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 13.
Write the condensed structural formula for the following compounds. Identify the prefix with position number, root word, primary prefix, secondary suffix and write them in the same order.

(i) 3-methyl hepta-1, 3, 5 triene;
Answer:
The root word is ‘hept’. This means the carbon chain contains 7 carbon atoms.
C — C — C — C — C — C — C
Number them from either end

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 30

The primary prefix is 3 methyl i.e., methyl group is present as a substituent in the 3rd carbon atom. .

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 31

The primary suffix is 1, 3, 5 triene, i.e., similarly the carbon atom 1, 3, 5 contain double bonds.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 32

Now complete the valencies of carbon by single bond with hydrogen.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 33

(ii) 2-methyl pentan-1-ol:
Answer:
The root word is ‘pent’. This means the carbon chain contains 5 carbon atoms,
—C—C—C—C—C
Number the carbon atom from any end. The primary prefix with position number is 2-methyl. Hence put the methyl group on a substituent in 2nd carbon atom.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 34

The primary suffix is ane and the secondary suffix is ‘ol’.
Hence put the ‘OH’ group in the second carbon atom and fill up the necessary hydrogen atom.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 35

(iii) Propanoic acid:
Answer:
The root word is ‘prop’ i.e., the carbon chain contains 3 carbon atoms.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 36

Since the primary suffix is ang and secondary suffix is ‘oic acid’, number the carbon atom from either end and place TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 37 group at the terminal carbon atom

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 38

Fill up the hydrogen atom. Hence the structure is CH3CH2COOH.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

(iv) Pentan-3-one:
Answer:
Root word is pent. Draw the carbon chain containing 5 carbon atoms.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 39

Since secondary suffix is 3-one, put C = O in the third carbon atom.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 40

Fill the hydrogen atoms.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 41

(v) 2-cyclopentyl propanal:
Answer:
Primary prefix = 2 cyclo pentyl;
Root word = prop;
Primary suffix = an£;
Secondary suffix = al.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 42

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 14.
Draw the condensed structure and bond line structure of the following;

(i) 1 – 3 – butadiene:
Answer:
Condensed structure:
CH2 = CH — CH = CH2
Bond line structure:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 43

(ii) tert-butyl alcohol:
Answer:
Condensed structure formula:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 44

Bond line structure:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 45

(iii) 4-ethyl-2-4-dimethyl hept-1-ene:
Answer:
Condensed structure formula:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 46

Bond line structure:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 47

(iv) 3 methyl but – 1 – yne:
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 48

Bond line structure:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 49

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

(v) 3 chloro – 1 – phenyl prop – 1 – ene
Answer:
Condensed structure formula:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 50

Bond line structure:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 51

(vi) 1 – bromo but 1- 1 – ene:
Answer:
Condensed structure formula:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 52

Bond line structure:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 53

(vii) 2 chloro-3-ethyl penta 1,4 diene:
Answer:
Condensed structure formula:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 54

Bond line structure: Cl

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 55

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 15.
What type of isomerism is exhibited by the following compounds? Write the structure of isomers,
(i) Pentane
(ii) but-1-ene
(iii) butan-1 -ol
(iv) Pentanal
(v) pent-1 -yne
Answer:
All of them exhibit chain isomerism i.e., chain isomer differ in the arrangement of carbon atom in the chain.
(i) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3; n – pentane

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 56

(ii) CH3 CH2 CH = CH3;

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 57

(iii) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH ; CH3 CH- CH2 OH

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 58

(iv) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CHO ; pentanal

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 59

(v) HC ≡ C CH2 CH2 CH3; pent-1-yne

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 60

Question 16.
Select the pair of chain isomers among the following:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 61

Answer:
(ii) and (iii), (iv) and (vi); (v) and (vi); (i) and (viii).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 17.
Write down all the structural isomers of C6H14. Indicate the chain and position isomers among them.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 62

Chain isomers: (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
Position isomers:
(a) (ii) and (iii),
(b) (iv) and(v).

Question 18.
Explain the term position isomerism with an example.
Answer:
It arises due to the difference in positions occupied by the substitu ents or due to different positions of double bond or triple bond in the case of alkenes and alkynes respectively.

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 63

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 19.
Write the structures of the isomers having the molecular formulae.

(i) C4H8
Answer:
CH3CH2CH = CH2;
But – 1 – ene

CH3 CH = CHCH3
But – 2 – ene

(ii) C4H6
Answer:
CH3CH2C ≡ CH ;
But – 1 – yne

CH3C ≡ C CH3
But – 2 – yne

(iii) C3H7Cl
Answer:
CH3CH2CH2Cl;
1 – Chloropropane

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 64

(iv) C6H4Cl2
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 65

(iii)C8H10
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 66

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 20.
Explain the term stereoisomerism.
Answer:
(i) Stereoisomerism arises due to the difference in spatial arrangement of atoms or groups in the same molecule.
(ii) There are two types of stereo isomerism. They are geometrical and optical isomerism.
(iii) Restricted rotation of C = C in alkenes results in the formation of two isomers where in ‘cis’ isomer, two identical groups are present on the same side of C = C double bond. In ‘trans’ isomer the two identical groups lie opposite to each other across C = C double bond.

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 67

(iv) These isomers have different physical properties.
(v) Optical isomerism arises due to molecular asymmetry. Compounds which possess non-super impossible object-mirror image relationship exhibit optical isomerism.
(vi) Dextro and laevo isomers (also known as enantiomers) rotate the plane of the plane polarised light to the right and left respectively.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 68

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 21.
Trans isomer is more stable than cis isomer. Explain why?
Answer:
The trans isomer is more stable than the corresponding cis isomers. This is because in the cis isomer, the bulky groups are on the same side of the double bond. The steric repulsion of the groups makes the cis isomers less stable than the trans isomers in which bulky groups are on the opposite side.

Question 22.
Explain the geometrical isomerism exhibited oximes.
Answer:
Restricted rotation around C = N (oximes) gives rise to gieometrical isomerism in oximes. Here ‘syn’ and ‘anti’ are used instead of cis and trans respectively. In the syn isomer the H atom of a doubly bonded carbon and – OH group of doubly bonded nitrogen lie on the same side of the double bond, while in the anti isomer, they lie on the opposite side of the double bond.
For eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 69

Question 23.
What are enantiomers? Give an example.
Answer:
Enantiomers are optically active substances, which possess a chiral carbon atom and possess non-super impossible object-mirror image relationship.
eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 70

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 24.
Explain the term qualitative analysis of an organic compound.
Answer:
The elements present in the organic compound mainly carbon and hydrogen and other elements like halogen, sulphur, phosphorous and nitrogen. The presence of these elements are detected by performing chemical tests. This process is known as qualitative analysis, i.e., analyzing the compound and identifying them by their chemical properties.

Question 25.
Mention the principle involved in the detection of carbon and hydrogen in an organic compound.
Answer:
The carbon present in an organic is oxidised to carbon-dioxide and the hydrogen is oxidised to water. By cupric oxide the reactions involved are

C + 2 CuO → CO2 + 2 Cu
2 H + CuO → H2O + Cu

The carbon-dioxide is tested by passing the gas through lime water, which is turned milky. This indicates the presence of carbon.

The water formed in the above reaction, when sprinkled into white anhydrous copper sulphate, it turns blue. This indicates the presence of hydrogen in an organic compound.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 26.
Describe the preparation of sodium fusion extract, to detect presence of nitrogen in an organic compound.
Answer:
A freshly dried piece of sodium metal is taken in with the organic compound in fusion tube and heated strongly till it become red hot. The red hot fusion tube is suddenly dipped into cold water taken in a china dish. The contents are boiled for 10 minutes and then filtered. The filtrate is known as sodium fusion extract and used for detection of nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorous and halogen. The extract is also known as Lassaigne extract.

Question 27.
Why is it necessary to heat the organic compound with sodium metal, while preparing sodium fusion extract?
Answer:
The organic compounds being polar are insoluble in water. By heating the organic compound with sodium, the elements form soluble ionic compounds with sodium. This makes analysis in aqueous solution easier VIZ, NaCN, Na2S, NaCl, etc…

Question 28.
How will you detect nitrogen present in an organic compound?
Answer:
To 2 ml of sodium fusion extract, freshly prepared ferrous sulphate is added. A green precipitate of ferrous hydroxide appears. The mixture is boiled for 2 minutes, cooled and acidified with dilute sulphuric acid (H2SO4 dissolves ferrous hydroxide). Appearance of a green or prussian blue confirms the presence of nitrogen in the compound. (Alternatively, FeCl3 and dil HCl may be added).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 29.
Brief explain with equations the chemistry of Lassaigne test for detecting nitrogen in an organic compound.
Answer:
Lassaigne’s filtrate solution consists of sodium cyanide and sodium hydroxide
Na + ((C + N) Trans org. compound) → NaCN (Sodium cyanide)

2 Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2
When the filtrate is boiled with ferrous sulphate solution, the following reactions take place. FeSO4 + 2NaOH

FeSO4 + 2 NaOH → Fe(OH)2 (Ferrous hydroxide (green)) + Na2SO4

Fe(OH)2 + 6NaCN → Na4[Fe(CN)6] (sodium ferro cyanide) + 2NaOH

At the same time, ferrous sulphate is converted to ferric sulphate. This reacts with sodium ferro cyanide to form ferric ferro Cyanide which gives green or prussian blue colour ro precipitate.

3 Na4[Fe(CN)6] + 2 Fe2(SO4)3 → Fe4[Fe(CN)6] (ferric ferro cyanide (Prussian blue)) + 6 Na2SO4

Question 30.
What happens when both nitrogen and sulphur in the organic compound. How will they be detected by Lassaigne’s test?
Answer:
In case if both N & S are present, a blood red color is obtained due to the following reactions.
Na + C + N + S TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 71 NaCNS (sodium sulphocyanide)

3 NaCNS + FeCl3 → Fe(CNS)3 (ferric sulphocyanide (Blood red color)) + 3 NaCl

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 31.
If sulphur Or nitrogen is present in an organic compound along with halogens, how will you detect the halogens.
Answer:
If sulphur is present along with nitrogen and halogens, the sodium fusion extract will contain Na2S (Sodium sulphide) along with NaCN. Both NaOH and Na2S, will react with silver nitrate (added to detect halogen) and form a white precipitate of AgCN and a black precipitate of Ag2S. Thus, the halogens in the compound cannot be detected.

Hence, to remove NaCN and Na2S, Sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated nitric acid which decomposes NaCN and Na2S.

NaCN + HNO3 → NaNO2 + HCN↑
Na2S + 2 HNO3 → 2NaNO3 + H2S↑

The solution free from NaCN and Na2S is cooled, and silver nitrate is added after acidifying with dilute nitric acid. A white precipitate (AgCl), soluble in ammonia indicates presence of chlorine. A pale yellow precipitate, sparingly soluble in ammonia indicates the presence of bromine. A yellow precipitate insoluble in ammonia indicates the presence of iodine in the organic compound.

Question 32.
Give the reaction involved in the detection of halogen in an organic compound.
Answer:
Na + X (from organic compound) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 71 Na X (where x = Cl, Br, I, F)

NaX + AgNO3 → AgX + NaNO3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 33.
Explain how sulphur is detected in an organic cojnpound by qualitative analysis.
Answer:

Experiment Observation and inference
Sodium fusion extract + freshly prepared sodium nitro prusside solution. A deep violet colour indicates the presence of sulphur.
Sodium fusion extract + acetic acid + lead acetate solution. A black precipitate indicates the presence of sulphur.
Organic substance + KNO3 + Na2CO3 6186 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 72 fused mass + H2O. Acidified with dil HCl + BaCl2. A white precipitate of BaSO4 indicates the presence of sulphur.

Question 34.
Explain how the chlorine, bromine and iodine present in an organic compound is detected.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 73

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 35.
Explain how will you detect phosphorous in an organic compound.
Answer:
The organic compound is fused with a mixture of sodium carbonate and potassium nitrate (fusion mixture). The phosphorus present in the compound is converted to sodium phosphate. The fused product is extracted with water and the aqueous solution obtained is boiled with concentrated nitric acid and ammonium molybdate. A yellow precipitate or yellow colouration indicates the presence of phosphorus. The yellow precipitate is due to the formation of ammonium phosphomolybdate (NH4)3 PO4.12MoO3.

Question 36.
Explain the principle involved in the estimation of carbon and hydrogen in an organic compound.
Answer:
Both carbon and hydrogen are estimated by the same method. A known weight of the organic substance is burnt in excess of oxygen and the carbon and hydrogen present in it are oxidized to carbon-dioxide and water, respectively.
Cx Hy + O2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 74 xCO2 + y H2O

The weight of carbon-dioxide and water thus formed are determined and the amount of carbon and hydrogen in the organic substance is calculated.
The percentage of carbon and hydrogen are calculated by the following formulae:
Percentage of Carbon = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × (Weight of CO2 formed / Weight of organic substance) × 100

Percentage of carbon = \(\frac{2}{8} \times \frac{\text { Weight of } \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O} \text { formed }}{\text { Weight of the organic compound }} \times 100\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 37.
Explain the principle involved in the estimation of sulphur in an organic compound (by carius method).
Answer:
A known mass of the organic substance is heated strongly with fuming HNO3. C & H get oxidised to CO2 & H2O while sulphur is j oxidised to sulphuric acid as per the following j reaction.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 75

The resulting solution is treated with excess of BaCl2 solution H2SO4 present in the solution in quantitatively converted into BaSO4, from the mass of BaSO4, the mass of sulphur 1 and hence the percentage of sulphur in the compound Can be calculated.

The percentage of sulphur is calculated by using the formula

Percentage of Sulphur = \(\frac{32}{233} \times \frac{\text { Weight of } \mathrm{BaSO}_{4} \text { formed }}{\text { Weight of the organic compound }} \times 100\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 38.
How will you estimate the halogens present in an organic compound?
Answer:
A known mass of the organic compound is heated with fuming HNO3 and AgNO3. C, H & S get oxidised to CO2, H2O & SO2 and halogen combines with AgNO3 to form acipitate of silver halide.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 76

The ppt of AgX is filtered, washed, dried and weighed. From the mass of AgX and the mass
of the organic compound taken, percentage of halogens are calculated.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 77

Question 39.
Explain how phosphorus in an organic compound is estimated?
Answer:
A known mass of the organic compound is heated with fuming HNO3 in a sealed tube. The carbon and hydrogen are oxidized to CO2 and H2O respectively. While phosphorus
present in the organic compound is oxidised to phosphoric acid (H3PO4). This is precipitated as ammonium phospho molybdate by heating with Conc.HNO3 and then adding ammonium molybdate. From the weight of ammonium phospho molybdate, the percentage of phosphorus can be determined.

In an alternative method, the phosphoric acid is precipitated as magnesium-ammonium
phosphate by adding magnesia mixture (a mixture containing MgCl2, NH4Cl and ammonia) This ppt is washed, dried and ignited to get magnesium pyrophosphate which is washed, dried a weighed.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 78

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 40.
Explain the princ iple involved for the preparation of nitrogen man organic compound by Dumas method.
Answer:
A known mass of the organic compound j is heated with excess of cupric oxide in an atmosphere of CO2. Carbon, hydrogen and sulphur if present are oxidised to CO2, H2O and SO2 respectively, while nitrogen gas is set free. Any oxide of nitrogen that may be formed is reduced to free N2 by passing over heated copper.

If the organic compound assigned the molecular formula Cx Hy Nz, the combustion ) equation is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 79

The nitrogen formed is collected over KOH and from the volume of N2 formed, the percentage can be calculated.
Percentage of N2 = \(\frac{28}{22.4} \times \frac{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{N}_{2} \text { formed at NTP }}{\text { Weight of the organic compound }} \times 100\)

Note:
The volume of N2 formed at the experimental temperature and pressure should by using the formula
\(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{2} V_{2}}{T_{2}}\)

Question 41.
Explain the principle involved in Kjeldahls method of estimation of nitrogen.
Answer:
(i) Kjeldahls method is based on the fact that when an organic compound containing nitrogen is heated With cone. H2SO4, the nitrogen in it is quantitatively converted to ammonium sulphate. The resultant liquid is then treated with excess of alkali \ and then liberated ammonia gas absorbed in excess of standard acid. The amount of ammonia (and hence nitrogen) is determined by finding the amount of acid neutralized by back titration with same standard alkali.
From the volume and the normality of the acid used to react with NH3, the percentage of nitrogen present in the organic compound can be determined by using the formula,

Percentage of Nitrogen = \(\frac{14 \times \mathrm{N} \times \mathrm{V}}{1000 \times \mathrm{w}} \times 100\)

Where N is the strength of H2SO4 used to neutralize NH3 and V in the volume of H2SO4 required for the complete neutralisation of evolved ammonia and ‘ w’ is the weight of the organic compound.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 42.
0.92 g of an organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen was analysed by combustion method. The increase in mass of the U tube and the potash bulbs at the end of the experiment was found to>be 1.08g and 1.76g respectively. Determine the percentage composition of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in the compound.
Answer:
Increase in mass of ‘U’ tube = 1.08 g
i.e., mass of water formed = 1.08 g
Since, 18 g of H2O contain = 2 g of hydrogen
1.08 g of H2O contain = \(\frac{2}{18}\) × 1.08 g of hydrogen
percentage of hydrogen = \(\frac{2}{18}\) × \(\frac{1.08}{0.92}\) × 100 = 13.04
Increase in mass of potash bulbs = 1.76 g
Mass of carbon-dioxide formed = 1.76 g
Since, 44 g of CO2 = 12 g of Carbon
1.76 g of CO2 = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × 1.76 g of carbon
percentage of carbon = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × \(\frac{1.08}{0.92}\) × 100 = 52.17
percentage of oxygen = 100 – (%C + % H)
= 100 – (52.17 + 13.04) = 34.79

Question 43.
On complete combustion of 0.246 g of an organic compound gave 0.198 g of carbondioxide and 0.1014 g of water. Determine the percentage combustion of carbon and hydrogen in the compound.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 80

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 44.
An organic compound was analysed by Duma’s method. The 0.45 g of the organic compound, gave 48.6 ml of nitrogen at 27°C and 756 mm pressure. Calculate the percentage of nitrogen.
Answer:
V1 = 48.6 mL
V2 = ?
P1 = 756 mm
P2 = 760 mm
T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
T2 = 273 K
Applying the formula,

\(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{~V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\)

Volume of N2 at NTP (V2) = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}} \times \frac{\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{756 \times 48.6 \times 273}{300 \times 760}\) = 43.99 mL

Mass of organic compound = 0.45 g

percentage of notrogen in the compound = \(\frac{28}{22400} \times \frac{\text { Vol. of } \mathrm{N}_{2} \text { at } \mathrm{NTP}}{\text { Mass of the compound }} \times 100\)

= \(\frac{28}{22400} \times \frac{43.99}{0.45} \times 100\) = 12.22 %

Question 45.
On complete combustion of 0.246 g of an organic compound gave 0.198 g of carbondioxide and 0.1014 g of water. Determine the percentage combustion of carbon and hydrogen in the compound. (Vapour pressure of water aqueous tension at 300 K is 15 mm)
Answer:
Pressure of the gas (N2) = 715 – 15 = 700 mm
Converting the volume of N2 measured at 300 K and 715 mm pressure to the volume corresponding to NTP.

\(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{~V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\)
P1 = 700 mm
P2 = 760 mm
V1 = 50 mL
V2 = ?
T1 = 300 K
T2 = 273 K
V2 = \(\frac{700 \times 50}{300} \times \frac{273}{760}\) = 41.9 mL
Weight of the organic compound = 0.30 g
22400 mL of N2 at NTP = 28 g
41.9 mL of N2 at NTP = \(\frac{28}{22400}\) × 41.9 g

0.30 g of the organic compound contain = \(\frac{28}{22400}\) × 41.9 g of N2

100 g of the organic compound will contain 28 = \(\frac{28}{22400} \times \frac{41.9}{0.30} \times 100\) = 17.46 %

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 46.
0.2 g of an organic compound was analysed by Kjeldahls method. Ammonia evolved was absorbed in 60 mL of N/5 H2SO4 unused acid required 40 mL of N/10 NaOH for complete neutralisation. Find the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
Answer:
Mass of organic compound = 0.2 g
Unused acid required = 40 mL \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\) NaOH

i.e., 40 mL. \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\) NaOH = 40 mL \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\) H2SO4

i.e., 40 mL \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\) H2SO4 = 20 mL of \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{5}\) H2SO4

Acid used in the absorption of ammonia = (60 – 20) \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{5}\) H2SO4

= 40 mL of \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{5}\) H2SO4

Percentage of N2 = \(\begin{gathered}
1.4 \times \text { Normality of the acid used } \\
\quad \times \text { Volume of the acid used } \\
\hline \text { Weight of Substance }
\end{gathered}\)

= \(\frac{1.4 \times \frac{1}{5} \times 40}{0.2}=\frac{1.4 \times 40}{0.2 \times 5}\) = 56 %

Question 47.
During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahls method, the ammonia evolved from (15g of the organic compound, neutralised 10 mL of 1M H2S04. Find the percentage of nitrogen in the cornpound.
Answer:
10 mL of 1M H2SO4 10 mL of 2N H2SO4.
Volume of acid required to react with NH3 = 10 mL .
Normality of the acid used = 2 N
Weight of the compound = 0.58

Percentage of N2 = \(\begin{gathered}
1.4 \times \text { Normality of the acid used } \\
\times \text { Volume of the acid used } \\
\hline \text { Wt. of substance }
\end{gathered}\)

= \(\frac{1.4 \times 2 \times 10}{0.5}\) = 56 %

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 48.
1.216 of an organic compound was reacted under Kjeldahls method and the ammonia evolved was absorbed in 100 mL of N H2SO4. The remaining acid solution was made upto 50 mL by the addition 0f water. 20 mL ot the acid solution required 32 mL of \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\) caustic soda solution br complete neutralisation. Calculate the percentage composition of nitrogen in the organic compound.
Answer:
20 mL of diluted unreacted acid solution required = 32 mL of NaOH
500 mL of dilute unreacted acid solution required= \(\frac{32}{50}\) × 50 mL of \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\) NaOH solution
= 80 mL of \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\) NaOH solution
i.e., 80 mL \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\) NaOH = 80 mL of \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\) H2SO4
Acid used for neutralisation of NH3 = (100 – 80) mL of N H2SO4
= 20 mL of N H2SO4

Percentage of nitrogen = \(\frac{1.4 \times \mathrm{N}(\text { acid used }) \times \mathrm{V} \text { (acid used) }}{\text { Weight of organic compound }}\)

= \(\frac{1.4 \times 1 \times 20}{1.216}\) = 23.03 %

Question 49.
0.5264 g of silver bromide is obtained from 0.5124 g of m organic compound. Calculate the percentage of bromine in the compound.
Answer:
mass of the compound (W) = 0.5124 g
mass of silver bromide (w) = 0.524 g
1 mole of AgBr = 1 mole of Br
188 g of AgBr = 80 g of Bromine
0.5264 g of AgBr = \(\frac{80}{188}\) × 0.5264 g of Br

0.5124 g of organic compound = \(\frac{80}{188}\) × 0.5264 g of Br

100 g of the organic compound = \(\frac{80}{188}\) × \(\frac{80}{188}\) ×100 g = 43.71 %

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 50.
0.156g of an organic compound on heating with fuming HNO3 and AgNO3 gives 0.235g of silver iodide. Calculate the percentage of iodine in the compound.
Answer:
Mass of organic compound = 0.156 g
Mass of AgI formed = 0.235 g
1 mol of AgI = 1 mol of I
235 g of AgI = 127 g of I

0.235 g AgI will contain = \(\frac{127}{235}\) × 0.235 g of iodine

0.156 g of the compound contain = \(\frac{127}{235}\) × 0.235 g of iodine

100 g of the compound contain = \(\frac{127}{235}\) × \(\frac{0.235}{0.156}\) × 100 = 81.41 %

Question 51.
0.1170 g of an organic compound on heating with conc. HNO3 and AgNO3 in a carius furnace gave 0.42g of silver chloride. Find the percentage of chlorine in the organic compound.
Answer:
Mass of organic compound = 0.1170 g
Mass of silver chloride formed = 0.42 g
1 mol of AgCl = 1 mol of Cl
143.5 g of AgCl = 35.5 g of chlorine
0.42 g of AgCl = \(\frac{35.5}{143.5}\) × 0.42 of g chlorine

0. 1170 g of organic compound contain = \(\frac{35.5}{143.5}\) × \(\frac{0.42}{0.1170}\) g of chlorine
100 g of the organic compound will contain = \(\frac{35.5}{143.5}\) × \(\frac{0.42}{0.1170}\) × 100 = 88.80 %

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 52.
In sulphur estimation, 0.157 g of an organic compound gave 0.4813 g of barium sulphate. What is the percentage of sulphur in the compound?
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.157 g
Weight of barium sulphate formed = 0.4813 g
BaSO4 = S
1 mol of BaSO4 = 1 mol of sulphur
233 g of BaSO4 = 32 g of sulphur
0.4813 g of BaSO4 = \(\frac{32}{233}\) × 0.4813 g of sulphur

0.157 g of the compound contains = \(\frac{32}{233}\) × 0.4813 g of sulphur

100 g of the compound contains = \(\frac{32}{233}\) × \(\frac{0.4813}{0.157}\) × 100 = 42.10%

Question 53.
On heating 0.32 g of an organic compound with concentrated nitric acid and barium chloride, 0.932 g of barium sulphate was obtained. Calculate the percentage of sulphur in the compound.
Answer:
Mass of organic compound = 0.32 g
Mass of barium sulphate formed = 0.932 g
1 mol of BaSO4 = 1 mol of S
i.e., 233 g of BaSO4 = 32 g of S
0.932g of BaSO4 = \(\frac{32}{233}\) × 0.932

0.32g of the compound contain = \(\frac{32}{233}\) × 0.932

100g of the compound will contain = \(\frac{32}{233}\) × \(\frac{0.932}{0.32}\) × 100 = 40 %

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 54.
0.12 g of an organic compound containing phosphorous gave 0.22 gram Mg2P2O7 by the usual analysis. Calculate the percentage of phosphorus in the compound.
Answer:
Mass of organic compound = 0.12 g
Mass of Mg2P2O7 = 0.22 g
Now 1 mol of Mg2P2O7 = 2 mol of ‘P’ atom
i.e., 222 g of Mg2P2O7= \(\frac{62}{222}\) g of P

0.22 g of Mg2P2O7 = \(\frac{62}{222}\) × 0.22 g of P

0.12 g of the compound contain = \(\frac{62}{222}\) × 0.22 g of P

100 g of the compound contain = \(\frac{62}{222}\) × \(\frac{0.22}{0.12}\) × 100 = 51.20 %

Question 55.
What is the need for purification of an organic compound?
Answer:
In order to study the structure, physical properties, chemical properties and biological properties of organic compounds they must be in the pure state. Hence, to get the compound in pure state, organic compound have to be purified.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 56.
Mention the principle invoked in the separation and purification of organic compound by the following methods. (i) Crystallisation,
(ii) Sublimation,
(iii) Distillation,
(iv) Fractional distillation,
(v) Steam
distillation,
(vi) Azeotropic distil laLion and
(vii) Chromatography.
Answer:
(i) Crystallisation:
It is used to purif’ organic solids by dissolving them in a suitable solvent, followed by filtration of the hot solution and cooling down to separate the solid as crystals.

(ii) Sublimation:
It is a process which a solid is directly converted to its vapour statewithout passing through the liquid state. It is useful to separate volatile and a non volatile solid. eg: dimphor, Benzoic acid, Naphthalene etc.

(iii) Distillation:
This method is to purify liquids from non-volatile impurities, and used for separating the constituents of a liquid mixture which differ in their boiling points.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

(iv) Fractional distillation:
The process of separation of the components in a liquidmixture at their respective boiling points in the form of vapours and the subsequent condensation of those vapours is called fractional distillation.

(v) Steam distillation:
It is applied for the separation and purification of liquids which is appreciably volatile in steam, partially immiscible with water but the impurities are non volatile.

(vi) Azeotropic distillation:
Azeotropes are constant boiling mixtures which distil as a single compound at a fixed temperature.
eg: Ethanol and water mixture in the ratio 95.87 : 4.13. In this type of distillation a third component like C6H6, CCl4, ether, glycerol, glycol is added which act as a depressing agent and depress the partial pressure one component so that the boiling point of that component is raised sufficiently and thus the other component will distil over.

(vii) Chromatography:
Chromatography is defined as a technique for the separation of a mixture brought about by differential movement of the individual compound through porous medium under the influence of moving solvent.

Question 57.
Suggest a method to purify
(i) Camphor containing traces of common salt,
(ii) Kerosene oil containing water,
(iii) A liquid which decomposed its boiling point.
Answer:
(i) Sublimation:
Camphor sublimes white common salt remains as a residue in the China dust.

(ii) The two liquids are immiscible. They can be separated by using a separating funnel. Kerosene being lighter than water forms the upper layer, while water forms the lower layer. The lower layer of water is run off white kerosene oil is obtained. It is dried over anhydrous CaCl2 or MgCl2 and distilled to give pure kerosene.

(iii) Distillation under reduced pressure:
Since, the boiling point of the liquid depends on the pressure acting on it, the boiling point of the liquid is lowered when the pressure is lowered. Thus, a liquid which decomposes at its boiling point can be purified safely at a lower temperature.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 58.
A mixture contains two components A and B. The solution of A and B in water near their boiling points are 10 gram per 100 mL and 2 gram per 100 mL respectively. How will youseparate A and B from the mixtures?
Answer:
Fractional crystallization, when the saturated hot solution is allowed to cool the less soluble substance, B crystallises first leaving the more soluble component A in the mother liquor. Crystals of B are separated by filtration and on further cooling crystals of A appear and can be seperated.

Question 59.
Suggest methods of separation of the following mixtures.
(i) A mixture of liquid (A) (boiling point 365 K) and liquid B (boiling point 345 K).
(ii) A mixture of liquid (C) (boiling point 353 K) and liquid D (boiling point 413 K).
Answer:
(i) Fractional Distillation
(ii) Simple Distillation

Question 60.
The Rf values of A and B in a mixture by TLC in a solvent mixture are 0.65 and 0.42 respectively. 1f the mixture is separated by: column chromatography using the same solvent mixture as a mobile phase which of the two components A or B will elude first. Explain.
Answer::
Since, Rf value of A is 0.65, it is less strongly adsorbed as compared to component B with Rf. value of 0.42. Therefore, on extraction of the column A will elude first.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 61.
How will you separate a mixture of urea and sodium chloride?
Answer:
Both urea and sodium chloride are soluble in water but urea is soluble in alcohol but sodium chloride is insoluble in alcohol. The mixture is shaken with alcohol, when urea goes into the solution while sodium chloride remains undissolved. The sodium chloride is separated by filtration, evaporation of the filtrate gives urea. on further cooling crystals of A appear and can be separated.

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
A compound with molecular formula C4H40 has all the four carbon atoms and the oxygen atom in the ring. It also has double bonds. The compound is:
(a) Homocyclic and aromatic
(b) Heterocyclic and aromatic
(e) Homocyclic but not aromatic
(d) Heterocyclic but not aromatic
Answer:
(b) Heterocyclic and aromatic
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 81

The five membered ring contains an oxygen atom in the ring. Hence, Heterocyclic. It is also aromatic because the pi electrons are delocalised.

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
The members of homologous series of alkanes:.
(a) are all straight chain compounds
(b) have the general molecular formula CnH2n + 2
(c) have similar chemical properties
(d) show regular gradation of physical properties.
Answer:
(a) are all straight chain compounds
Hint:
Alkanes have straight chain and branched chain structures.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 3.
The enolic form of ethyl aceto acetate is shown below has:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 82

(a) 9 sigma bonds and two pi bonds
(b) 9 sigma bonds and one pi bond
(c) 18 sigma bonds and two pi bonds
(d) 16 sigma bonds and one pi bond
Answer:
(c) 18 sigma bonds and two pi bonds
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 83

no. of σ bonds = 18
no. of π bonds = 2

Question 4.
Considering the state of hybridisation of carbon atom, find out the molecule among the following which is linear?
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(b) CH3 CH=CH.CH3
(c) CH3C ≡ C.CH3
(d) CH2 = CH.CH2C ≡ CH
Answer:
(c) CH3C ≡ C.CH3
Hint:
All carbon atoms are sp3 hybridised – tetrahedral.
(b) It is an alkene. Contain a double bond sp2 hybridised – plane triangle,
(c) It is an alkyne. sp hybridised – linear.
(d) It contains a double and triple bonded carbon sp2 and sp hybridised.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 5.
The correct IUPAC name of CH3CH2CH(CH3) CH(C2H5)2 is: ;
(a) 4 – Ethyl – 3- methyl hexane
(b) 3- Ethyl – 4 – methyl hexane
(c) 4 Methyl – 3 – ethyl hexane
(d) 2, 3 dimethyl pentane
Answer:
(b) 3- Ethyl – 4 – methyl hexane
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 84

Question 6.
Which of the following structures represents 2,2,3, trimethyl hexane?
(a) CH3C (CH3)2 CH2 CH2 CH . (CH3)2
(b) CH3CH (CH3) CH2 CH (CH3) CH2 CH3
(c) CH3 C (CH3)2 CH (CH3) CH2 CH2 CH3
(d) CH3 C (CH3)2 CH2 C(CH3)2 CH3
Answer:
(b) CH3CH (CH3) CH2 CH (CH3) CH2 CH3
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 85

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 7.
The IUPAC name of the compound with the structural formula CH3 CH = CH — C = CH is:
(a) Pent – 2 – en – 4 yne
(b) Pent – 1 – yn – 3 ene
(c) Pent – 3 – en – 1 yne
(d) Pent – 2 – en – 5yne
Answer:
(c) Pent – 3 – en – 1 yne
Hint:
While naming unsaturated hydrocarbons the locant of the double bond or the triple bond
is place before the suffix ‘ene’ or ‘yne’.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 86

Question 8.
The IUPAC name of the following compound is:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 87

(a) 3, 4, Dimethyl – 3 – n – propyl octane
(b) 6, 7, Dimethyl – 2 – n – propyl octane
(c) 6, 7, Dimethyl – 7 – ethyl decane
(d) 4 – Ethyl- 4, 5 dimethyl decane
Answer:
(d) 4 – Ethyl- 4, 5 dimethyl decane
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 88

Question 9.
An organic compound contains

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 89

groups. Which of these will be considered as the principal functional group while giving
(a) — C ≡ C —
(b) — OH
(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 90
(d) — CH = O
Answer:
(d) — CH = O
Hint:
The order of preference is aldehyde, ketones, alcohols, alkynes.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 10.
Given

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 91

Which of the following compounds can exhibit tautomerism?
(a) II and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and II
(d) I and III
Answer:
(b) I, II and III
Hint:
Keto enol tautomerism involves migration ofa hydrogen atom either from a (1, 3) or γ (1, 5)or ∈ (1, 7) position to the oxygen atom of the keto group.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 92

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Thus I, II abd III all will exhibit tautomerism.

Question 11.
Structures CH3COOH and CH2 = CH.(OH).CH3 represent:
(a) metamerism
(b) functional isomerism
(c) keto-enol tautomerism
(d) position isomerism
Answer:
(c) keto-enol tautomerism
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 93

Question 12.
Fisher projection indicates:
(a) Horizontal substituents above the plane.
(b) Vertical substituents above the plane.
(c) Both horizontal and vertical substituents below the plane.
(d) Both horizontal and vertical substituents above the plane.
Answer:
(a) Horizontal substituents above the plane.

Question 13.
An organic compound which produces a bluish green coloured flame on heating in the presence of copper is:
(a) chlorobenzene
(b) benzaldehyde
(c) aniline
(d) benzoic acid
Answer:
(a) chlorobenzene
Hint:
Any organic compound which contains chlorine when heated in flame in the presence of copper produces a bluish blue flame due to the formation of volatile cupric chloride.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 14.
0.28 g of a nitrogeneous compound was Kjeldahlised to produce 0.17 g of NH3. The percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is:
(a) 5
(b) 30
(c) 50
(d) 80
Answer:
(c) 50
% N = \(\frac{14}{7}\) × \(\frac{0.17}{0.28}\) × 100 = 50 %

Question 15.
Which of the following structures permit cis-trans isomerism?
(a) X2C = CY2
(b) XYZ = CZ
(c) X2C = CXY
(d) XYC = CXZ
Answer:
(a) X2C = CY2
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 94

Question 16.
Assertion :
Alkanes containing more than three carbon atoms exhibit chain isomerism.
Reason :
All carbon atoms in alkanes are sp3 hybridised.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 17.
Assertion:
All the carbon atoms in but-2-ene lie in one plane.
Reason :
All the carbon atoms in but-2-ene re sp2 hybridised,
(a) Both the assertion and reason are true andthe reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false,
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 95

The correct statement for the reason, carbon atoms 2, 3 alone are sp2 hybridised.

Question 18.
Assertion:
Simple distillation can help in separating a mixture of propan- l-ol (boiling point 97°C) and propanone (56°C).
Reason :
Liquids with a difference of more than 20°C in their boiling point can be separated by simple distillation.
(a) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b Both the assertion and the reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 19.
Assertion:
A sulphur present in an organic compound can be estimated quantitatively by carius method.
Reason :
Sulphur can be easily separated from other atoms in the molecule and gets precipitated as yellow solid.
(a) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
Sulphur is oxidised to H2SO4 and then estimated as barium sulphate.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 20.
Assertion:
Components of a mixture and red and blue inks can be separated by distributing the components between stationary and mobile phase.
Reason :
The coloured components of inks migrate at different rates because paper selectively retains different components according to difference in their position between two phases,
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 21.
Select the odd man out of the following j represents a homologous series.
(a) ethane, ethylene,ethyne
(b) methane, methanol, methanal
(c) methane, ethane, propane
(d) 1-hexane,2-hexane,3-hexane
Answer:
(c) methane, ethane, propane

Question 22.
In which of the following functional isomerism | is not possible? .
(a) Alcohols
(b) Aldehydes
(c) Alkyl halides
(d) Alkyl cyanides
Answer:
(c) Alkyl halides

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 23.
Among the following pairs the pair that ! illustrates functional isomerism is:
(a) 1 – butanol and 2 – butanol
(b) dimethyl ether and ethanol
(c) cis – 2 – butene and trans – 2 – butene
(d) ethanal and ethanol
Answer:
(b) dimethyl ether and ethanol

Question 24.
Consider the following four compounds:
I. CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
II. CH3CH2CH2COCH3
III. CH3CH2COCH2CH3
IV. TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 96
(i) Which of the following pairs are position isomers?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) II and IV
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(b) II and III

(ii) Which of the following pairs are not functional ; isomers?
(a) II and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I and II
(d) I and IV
Answer:
(a) and (d)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 25.
Assertion:
Butane and 2 methyl butane are homologous.
Reason :
Butane is a straight chain alkane, while 2 – methyl butane is a branched chain alkane.
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 26.
Assertion:
A mixture of ortho nitro phenol and para nitro phenol can be separatedn by steam distillation.
Reason:
Pata nitro phenol is steam volatile while ortho nitro phenol is not.
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 27.
Assertion:
NH2 — C — NH2 gives red colour in Lassaigne’s test.
Reason :
Compounds having nitrogen and carbon gives red colour in Lassaigne’s test.
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
Correct Reason: Compounds containing N, S and C give red colour in Lassaigne’s test.

Question 28.
Assertion:
Lassaigne’s test is not shown by diazonium salts.
Reason :
Diazonium salts lose N2 on heating much before they have a chance to react with fused sodium.
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 29.
Assertion:
All the carbon atoms of but-2-ene lie in one plane.
Reason :
All the carbon atoms in but-2-ene are sp2 hybridised.
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 30.
Choose the correct statement from the following:
(a) Cyclo butane is an aromatic compound.
(b) Naphthalene is a hetero cyclic compound.
(c) Pyrole is a non-benzenoid compound.
(d) Thiophene is a homocyclic compound.
Answer:
(c) Pyrole is a non-benzenoid compound.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 31.
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to alicyclic compound?
I. They are closed chain compounds.
II. Cyclo propane is an alicyclic compound.
III. Benzene is also an alicyclic compound.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III only
(d) I and III
Answer:
(a) I and II

Question 32.
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) Pent – 1 – ene and pent – 2 – ene are position isomers.
(b) Propanal and propanone are functional isomers.
(c) Methyl propyl ether and diethyl ether are metamers.
(d) Pentan- 2 – one and pentan – 3 – one are position isomers.
Answer:
(d) Pentan-2 – one and pentan – 3 – one are position isomers.
Hint:
They are metamers.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 33.
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) Camphor containing traces of common salt can be purified by sublimation.
(b) Kerosene oil containing water can be separated by using a separating funnel.
(c) A mixture of liquid A(b.pt 365 K) and liquid B(356 K) can be separated by fractional distillation.
(d) A mixture of water (b.pt 373 K) and aniline (b.pt 457 K) at 760 mm can be separated by fractional distillation.
Answer:
(d) A mixture of water (b.pt 373 K) and aniline (b.pt 457 K) at 760 mm can be separated by fractional distillation.
Hint:
They are separated by steam distillation.

Question 34.
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to cis-trans isomerism?
(a) It arises due to restricted rotation aeron C=C double bond.
(b) They have different physical properties.
(c) The ‘cis’ isomer is more polar than the ‘trans’ isomer.
(d) The ‘trans’ isomer is less stable than the ‘cis’ isomer.
Answer:
(d) The ‘trans’ isomer is less stable than the ‘cis’ isomer.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 35.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry 97

(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (B), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(a)(i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry

Question 36.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

Column I Column II
(i) Two solids have different solubilities in a solvent and which do not undergo reaction when dissolved (A) Simple distillation
(ii) Liquid that decomposes at its boiling point (B) Crystallisation
(Hi) Two volatile liquids which have boiling points close to each other. (C) Distillation under reduced pressure
(iv) Two liquids which have large difference in their boiling points. (D) Fractional distillation

(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(b) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 1.
State Octet rule.
Answer:
“The atoms transfer or share electrons so that all atoms involved in chemical bonding obtain 8 electrons in their outer shell (valence shell)”.

Question 2.
Write the Lewis structure for
(i) HCl O4:
Step 1:
Draw the skeletal structure.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 1

Step 2:
Total number of valence electrons = 1 × 1 (hydrogen) + 1 × 7 (chlorine) + 4 × 6 (oxygen)
= 1 + 7 + 24 = 32 = 16 pairs

Step 3:
Draw single bonds between all atoms.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 2

Five single bonds mestas 10 electrons are used for bonding. The remaining (32 – 10) = 22 electrons are to be distributed among all atoms so that their octet is complete.

Step 4:
Distribute the 11 electron pairs starting from oxygen.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 3

Step 5:
Check whether all atoms have 8 electrons around them.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

(ii) H3PO4
Answer:
Step 1:
Draw the skeletal structure. Hydrogen should always be placed at terminal position.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 5

Step 2:
Draw single bonds between the atoms.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 6

Step 3:
Total number of valence electrons = 1 × 5(P) + 4 × 6(O)1 + 3 × 1(H) = 5 + 24 + 3 = 32 = 16 pairs

Of the 32 electrons, 14 electrons (7 pairs) are used for covalent bond. The remaining electrons 32-14 = 18 (9 pairs) have to be distributed among all atoms so that they complete their octet.

Step 4:
The 18 electrons (9 pairs) are distributed among all atoms starting from oxygen.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 7

Step 5:
Check all atom have a complete octet.
The correct Lewis structure is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 8

(iii) O2-2
Answer:
Step 1:
Draw the skeletal structure.
O O

Step 2:
Total number of valence electrons = 2 × 6 (oxygen) + 2 (-2 ve charge) = 12 + 2 = 14

Step 3:
Draw single bonds between the two oxygen atoms.
O — O
i.e., of the 14 electrons, 2 are used for bond formation.
The remaining number of electrons is 14 – 2 = 12

Step 4:
These 12 electrons (6 pairs) are distributed on the oxygen atom as lone pair, so that their octet is complete.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 9

(iv) H3O+
Answer:
Step 1:
Draw the skeletal structure.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 10

Step 2:
Total number of valence electrons = 3 × 1 (hydrogen) + 1 × 6 (oxygen) – 1(+ve charge)
= 3 + 6 – 1 = 8

Step 3:
Draw single bonds between the atoms.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 11

i.e., out of 8 e1ecrons, 6 electrons are used for bonding. The remaining number of electrons is two.

Step 4:
The two electrons are distributed on the oxygen atom as lone pair so that its octet is complete.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 12

Step 5:
Check all atoms have an octet and hydrogen has 2 electrons. Hence the Lewis structure is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 13

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 3.
Explain the term formal charge with an example.
Answer:
The formal charge for the atom in a molecule or ion is the charge calculated for that atom based on the Lewis structure of the molecule or ion by using the equation.
Formal charge of the atom in a molecule = number of valence electrons in free atoms – (number of lone pair or non bonding electrons + \(\frac{1}{2}\) number of bonding electrons)
Formal charge = Nv – \(\left(\mathrm{N}_{l}+\frac{\mathbf{N}_{b}}{2}\right)\)

eg: TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 14

Formal charge on carbon = Nv – \(\left(\mathrm{N}_{l}+\frac{\mathbf{N}_{b}}{2}\right)\)

= 4 – \(\left[0+\frac{8}{2}\right]\) = 0
Formal charge on oxygen = 6 – \(\left[4+\frac{4}{2}\right]\) = 0 (for both oxygen)

Question 4.
Calculate the formal charge on each oxygen atom inO3 molecule.
Answer:
The Lewis structure is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 15

Formal charge (FC) = Nv – \(\left(\mathrm{N}_{l}+\frac{{\mathrm{N}}_{b}}{2}\right)\)
Nv – Number of valence electron of atom in its isolated state.
Nl – Number of electro us present as lone pairs around the atom in the Lewis structure.
Nb – Numbe of electrons present in bonds around the atõm (bond pairs) in the Lewis structure.

For oxygen atom (1):
Nv = 6; Nl = 4; Nb = 4
FC = 6 – \(\left[4+\frac{4}{2}\right]\)
= 6 – 6 = 0.

For oxygen atom (2):
Nv = 6; Nl = 2; Nb = 6
FC = 6 – \(\left[4+\frac{4}{2}\right]\)
=6 – 6 = 0

For oxygen atom (3):
Nv = 6; Nl = 6; Nb = 2
FC = 6 – \(\left(6+\frac{2}{2}\right)\)
= 6 – 7 = – 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 5.
Calculate the formal charge on
(i) Sulphur in HSO4 ion
(ii) Chlorine in HClO4
Answer:
(i) The Lewis structure for HSO4 is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 16

Formal charge on Sulphur atom:
Nv = 6; Nl = 0; Nb = 8
Formal charge = 6 – (0 + \(\frac{8}{2}\))
= 6 – 4 = + 2
Formal charge on sulphur in HSO4 is +2.

(ii) The Lewis structure for HC104 is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 17

Formal charge on Chlorine atom:
Nv = 7; Nl = 0; Nb = 8
Formal charge – 7 – (0 – \(\frac{8}{2}\)) = 7 – 4 = +3
Formal charge on chlorine in HClO4 is +3.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 6.
Write foimal charges on atoms in
(i) Carbonate ion
(ii) Nitrite ion
(iii) Carbon dioxide.
Answer:
(i) Carbonate ion:
The Lewis structure for Carbonate ion is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 18

Formal charge on Carbon atom:
Nv = 4; Nl= 0; Nb = 8
Formal charge = 4 – (0 – \(\frac{8}{2}\)) = 4 – 4 = 0

Formal charge on double bonded oxygen atom;
Nv = 6; Nl = 4; Nb = 24 .
Formal charge = 6 – (4 + \(\frac{4}{2}\)) = 6 – 6 = 0

Formal charge on single bonded oxygen atom:
Nv = 6; Nl = 6; Nb = 2
Formal charge = 6 – (6 + \(\frac{2}{2}\)) = 6 – 7 = -1

Thus, formal charge on carbon atom = 0
Double bonded oxygen atom = 0
Single bonded oxygen atom = -1

(ii) The Lewis structure for Nitrite ion is (NO2)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 19

Formal charge on nitrogen atom:
Nv = 5; Nl = 2; Nb = 6
Formal charge = 5 – (2 + \(\frac{6}{2}\)) = 5 – 5 = 0

Formal charge on double bonded oxygen atom:
Nv = 6; Nl = 4; Nb = 2
Formal charge = 6 – (6 + \(\frac{2}{2}\)) = 6 – 6 = 0

Formal charge on single bonded oxygen atom:
Nv = 6; Nl = 6; Nb = 2
Formal charge = 6 – (6 +\(\frac{2}{2}\)) = 6 – 7 = -1

(iii) The Lewis structure for C02 is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 20

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 7.
What are electron deficient compounds? Give an example for an electron deficient molecule. Write its Lewis structure. Find the formal charge on the central atom.
Answer:
Molecules in which the central atom has only six electrons and two short of its octet are called electron deficient compounds.
eg: Boron tri fluoride BF3
The Lewis structure is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 21

Formal charge on Boron:
Nv = 3; Nl = 0; Nb = 6 .
Formal charge = 3 – (0 + \(\frac{6}{2}\)) = 3 – 3 = 0

Question 8.
Give two examples of molecules with expanded valence shells.
Answer:
In molecules such as sulphur hexafluoride (SF6), phosphorous pentachloride (PCl5) the central atom has more than eight valence electrons around them. Here the central atom can accommodate additional electron pairs by using outer vacant d orbitals. In SF6 the central atom sulphur is surrounded by six bonding pair of electrons or twelve electrons.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 22

Question 9.
What are odd electron molecules? Give an example.
Answer:
There are number of stable molecules in which double bonds are formed by sharing of an odd number of electrons i.e., one, three, five etc., between two bonded»atoms. The bonds of these type are called odd electron molecules. In these bonds also, octet rule is violated.
eg:
He2+ ion, O2 molecule, nitric oxide, nitrogen dioxide molecules are examples of three electron bonds.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 23

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 10.
Mention the conditions for the two atoms to form ionic bond.
Answer:
(i) The electronegativity difference between the two combining atoms should be large.
(ii) The least electro negative atom should have lower ionization enthalpy and the other atom should have higher electron gain enthalpy.
(iii) The lattice energy of formation should be high.

Question 11.
Explain the formation of potassium chloride.
Answer:
The electronic configuration of potassium and chlorine are
Potassium (K): [Ar] 4s1
Chlorine (Cl) : [Ne] 3s2, 3p5

Potassium has one electron in its valence shell and chlorine has seven electron in its valence shell. By loosing one electron potassium attains the inert gas electronic configuration of argon and becomes a unipositive cation (K+) and chlorine accepts this electron to become uninegative chloride ion (Cl) there by attaining the stable electronic configuration of argon. These two ions combine to form an ionic crystal in which they are held together by electrostatic attractive force.

Question 12.
Define Lattice energy.
Answer:
The energy released when the requisite number of gaseous positive and negative ions combine to form one mole of an ionic compound is known as lattice energy.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 13.
Explain the formation of coordinate covalent bond with an example.
Answer:
In the formation of coordinate covalent bond, one of the combining atom donates a pair of electrons (also known as donor atom) to an electron deficient acceptor atom and these atoms share their pair of electrons.

For example,In boron tri fluoride, boron atom is electron deficient and in ammonia the nitrogen has a lone pair of electron. In the formation of an adduct BF3 NH3, the nitrogen acts as a donor atom and boron acts as an acceptor atom. The bond formed between nitrogen and boron is a coordinate covalent bond.

Question 14.
Define the following (i) bond length (ii) bond angle (iii) bond order.
Answer:
(i) Bond length:
The distance between the nuclei of the two covalently bonded atoms is called bond length.

(ii) Bond angle:
The angle made by two covalent bonds is known as bond angle.

(iii) Bond order:
The number of bonds formed between the two bonded atoms in a molecule is called the bond order.

Question 15.
Define average bond enthalpy of’a bond. Explain with an example.
Answer:
The arithmetic mean of the bond energy values of the same type of bonds is considered as average bond enthalpy. For example in water, there are two OH bonds present and the energy needed to break them are not same.
H2O (g) → H(g) + OH(g) ∆H1 502 kJ mol-1
OH(g) → H(g) + 0(g) ∆H2 = 427 kJ mol-1

The average bond enthalpy of OH bond in water = \(\frac{502+427}{2}\) = 464.5 kJ mol-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 16.
Mention the characteristics of resonance.
Answer:
(i) The contributing structures do not have real existence. Only resonance hybrid has the real existence.
(ii) As a result of resonance, the bond lengths become equal.
(iii) The resonance hybrid has the lowest energy and hence morè stable than the contributing structure.
(iv) Greater the resonance energy, greater is the stability of the molecule.
(v) Greater the number’ of qanonical forms, with nearly the same energy, greater is the stability of the molecule.

Question 17.
Write the resonance structures of the following:
(i) CO2
(ii) Carbonate ion (CO3-2)
(iii) Sulphur trioxide (SO3)
(iv) Nitrate ion (NO3)
(v) Carbon monoxide(CO)
(vi) Nitrous acid (HNO2)
(vii) Sulphate ion (SO4-2)
Answer:
(i) CO2

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 24

(ii) Carbonate ion (CO3-2)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 25

(iii) Sulphur trioxide (SO3)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 26

(iv) Nitrate ion (NO3)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 27

(v) Carbon monoxide(CO)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 28

(vi) Nitrous acid (HNO2)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 29

(vii) Sulphate ion (SO4-2)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 30

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 18.
Define Resonance energy.
Answer:
The difference in energy between the most stable canonical structure and that of resonance hybrid is called resonance energy.

Question 19.
Diatomic molecules like H2, O2 etc have zero dipole moment. Explain why?
Answer:
In these diatomic molecules, the shared pair of electrons lie in between the nucleus of the two bonded atom. Hence, no separation of charges occur, i.e., these molecules have zero dipole moment.

Question 20.
Give examples for non polar molecule.
Answer:
Molecules which have a fixed value of dipole moment are known as non polar molecules, eg: HF, HCl, CO, NO etc…

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 21.
Explain the formation of a polar covalent bond with an example.
Answer:
A polar covalent bond is formed between two atoms having a large difference in their electronegativities. In such a ease, the highly electronegative atom attracts the shared pair of electrons towards itself. As a result, a partial negative charge is developed on the electronegative atom arid a partial positive charge is developed on the electropositive atom, eg: Hδ+ – Fδ-. Thus apolarity is created between the two atoms. This type of covalent bond is known as polar covalent bond.

Question 22.
Explain why the dipole moment of carbon dioxide is zero.
Answer:
In CO2, the dipole moments of two polar bonds (CO) are equal in magnitude but have opposite direction. Hence, the net dipole moment of the CO2 is, p = µ1 + µ2
= µ1 + (-µ1) = 0.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 31

Question 23.
Water has a dipole moment of 1.85 D. Explain.
Answer:
Incase of water net dipole moment is the vector sum of µ1 + µ2 as shown.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 32

Dipole moment in water is found to be 1.85D.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 24.
How will you determine the extent of ionic character in a covalent bond?
Answer:
The extent of ionic character in a covalent bond can be related to the electro negativity difference to the bonded atoms. In a typical polar molecule, Aδ+ – Bδ, the electronegativity difference (χA – χB) can he used to predict the percentage of ionic character as follows.

If the electronegativity difference (χA – χB)> is equal to 1.7, then the bond A – B has 50% ionic – character if it is greater than 1.7, then the bond A – B has more than 50% ionic character and if it is lesser than 1.7, then the bond A – B has less than 50% ionic character.

Question 25.
Explain the term polarization.
Answer:
In an ionic compound, there is an electrostatic attractive force, between the cation and anion. The positively charged cation attracts the valence electrons of anion while repelling the nucleus. This causes a distortion in the electron cloud of the anion and its electron density drifts towards the cation, which results in some sharing of the valence electrons between these ions. Thus, a partial covalent character is developed between them. This phenomenon is called polarization.

Question 26.
SnCl2 is ionic but SnCl4 is covalent. Explain.
Answer:
The size of Sn+4 is smaller than Sn+2. Hence, polarization or distortion of electrons charge cloud of chloride ion is more. Hence SnCl4 is covalent.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 27.
Among NaCl, MgCl2, AlCl3, AlCl3 is covalent, while others are ionic. Explain.
Answer:
Greater the charge of the ion greater is its polarisability. Hence greater is its covalent character. Among the cation, Al+3 ion has a smaller size and greater charge. Hence it could polarise the chloride ion to a greater extent and so AlCl3 is covalent.

Question 28.
Lithium chloride is more covalent than sodium chloride. Explain why?
Answer:
The size of the Li+ ion is smaller than Na+ ion. Hence the polarizing power of Li+ ion is more, i.e., it polarizes the chloride ion more that of Na+ ion. Hence LiCl is covalent.

Question 29.
Lithium iodide is more covalent than Lithium chloride. Explain why?
Answer:
Lithium iodide is more covalent than lithium chloride as the size of I is larger than the Cl. Hence I will be more polarised than Cl by the cation, Li+.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 30.
CuCl is more covalent than NaCl. Explain why?
Answer:
Cu+ ion is smaller in size, compared to that of Na+ ion and has 3s2 3p6 3d10 configuration. According to Fajan’s rule, cations having ns2 np6 nd10 configuration exercise greater polarising power. Therefore Cu+ ion polarizes chloride ion to a greater thafi Na+ ion. Hence, CuCl is covalent while NaCl is ionic.

Question 31.
The shape of SF4 is see saw and that of XeF2 is linear. Explain on the basis of VSEPR theory.
Answer:
Shape of SF4:
The Lewis structure for SF4 is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 33

Sulphur atom has 5 electron pairs in it. i.e., 4 bond pairs and one lone pair. Hence it belongs to AB3L4. The expected shape is see-saw.

Shape of XeF2:
The Lewis structure for XeF2 is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 34

It has 3 lone pair and 2 bond pair. According to VSEPR theory, this belongs to AB2L3 type which has linear geometry.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 35

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 32.
Based on the VSEPR theory, predict the shapes of the following molecules,
(i) NH3
(ii) H2O
(iii) CIF3
Answer:
(i) Shape of NH3 molecule:
The Lewis structure for NH3 is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 36

It has 3 bond pair and one lone pair of electron. According to VSEPR theory, this belongs to AB3L type. The l.p -l.p repulsion is greater than b.p – b.p repulsion. The shape is pyramidal with the bond angle 107°. ’

(ii) Shape of water molecule:
The Lewis structure for water molecule is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 37

It has 2 bond pair and 2 lone pairs of electrons, According to VSEPR theory, this belongs to AB3L2 type, i.e., the shape is V shaped.

(iii) Shape of CIF3 molecule:
The Lewis structure for CIF3 is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 38

It has three bond pairs and one lone pair of electrons. The l.p – l.p repulsion is greater than b.p – b.p (or) b.p – l.p repulsions. Minimum repulsion between the electron pairs, when the lone pairs are at equatorial position, i.e., it has T shape.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 39

The lone pairs are present in equatorial positions and the bond pairs in axial position. According to VSEPR theory, this belongs to AB3L2 type, i.e., it has T shape.

Question 33.
Explain the salient features of valence bond theory.
Answer:
(i) This theory explains the formation of a covalent bond.
(ii) A covalent bond is formed by the overlapping of two atomic orbitals of the bonded atom.
(iii) For the formation of the strong covalent bond, the following conditions are to be met.
(a) The overlapping atomic orbital must contain one impaired electron and possess almost equal energy.
(b) In the region of maximum overlap the two electrons get paired.
(c) Greater the extent of overlap, stronger is the covalent bond formed.
(d) For maximum overlap, atomic orbital (except ‘s’ orbital) must approach along the same inter-nuclear axis.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 34.
Explain the formation of hydrogen molecule based on valence bond theory.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of hydrogen atom is lx1. During the formation of H2 molecule, the »lx orbitals of two hydrogen atoms containing one unpaired electron overlap with each other along the intemuclear axis. As the orbitals overlap with each other, the electrons get paired. This overlap is called x-x overlap. Such axial overlap results in the formation of a o- covalent bond.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 40

Question 35.
Explain the formation of fluorine molecule based on valence bond theory.
Answer:
Valence shell electronic configuration of fluorine atom : 2s2 2px2, 2py2, 2pz1

When the half filled pz orbitals of two fluorine overlaps along the z-axis, a a- covalent bond is formed between them.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 41

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 36.
Explain the formation of (i) hydrogen fluoride and (ii) oxygen based on valence bond theory.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of hydrogen atom is 1s1

(i) Valence shell electronic configuration of fluorine atom:
2s2 2px2, 2py2, 2pz1. When half filled 1s orbital of hydrogen linearly overlaps with a half filled 2pz orbital of fluorine, a σ – covalent bond is formed between hydrogen and fluorine.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 42

(ii) Valence shell electronic configuration of oxygen atom:2×2 2p2, 2py\ 2pzl

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 43

When the half filled pz orbitals of two oxygen overlaps along the z-axis (considering molecular axis as z axis), a o-covalent bond is formed between them. Other two half filled py orbitals of two oxygen atoms overlap laterally (sideways) to form a 7i-covalent bond between the oxygen atoms. Thus, in oxygen molecule, two oxygen atoms are connected by two covalent bonds (double bond). The other two pair of electrons present in the 2s and 2px orbital do not involve in bonding and remains as lone pairs on the respective oxygen.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 44

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 37.
Briefly explain the shape of BeCl2 molecule based on hybridisation.
Answer:
The electronic configuration of Be is 1s2 2s2 and that of chlorine is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5.

Electronic configuration of Be in ground state:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 45

To form two covalent bonds, two atomic orbitals with one unpaired electron must be available.

Electronic configuration of Be in excited state:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 46

To explain the equivalence of two Be — Cl bonds, one ‘2s’ and one ‘2p’ orbitals undergo sp hybridisation.
Electronic configuration of Be in hybridised state:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 47

The two sp hybrid orbital orient in space in opposite direction making an angle of 180°. These sp hybrid orbitals overlap with 2pz orbital of chlorine and form two sigma bond.

Formation of BeCl2:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 48

Thus the shape is linear. Cl – Be – Cl

Question 38.
Explain the shape of BF3 molecule based on hybridisation.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 80

(i) In the ground state boron has only one unpaired electron in the valence shell. In order to form three covalent bonds with fluorine atoms, three unpaired electrons are electrons in the 2s orbital is promoted to the 2py orbital in the excite state. In boron, the s orbital and two p orbitals (px and py) in the valence shell hybridses, to generate three equivalent sp2 orbitals as shown in the Figure.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 50

(ii) These three orbitals lie in the same xy plane and the angle between any two orbitals is equal to 120°.
(iii) The three sp2 hybridised orbitals of boron now overlap with the 2pz orbitals of fluorine (3 atoms). This overlap takes place along the axis as shown below.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 51

(iv) Formation of BF3 molecules:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 52

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 39.
Explain the sp3 hybridisation taking the formation of methane as example.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 53

In order to form four covalent bonds with the four hydrogen atoms, one of the paired electrons in the 2s orbital of carbon is promoted to its 2pz orbital in the excite state.configuration of carbon in the excited stateThe one 2s orbital and the three 2p orbitals of carbon mixes to give four equivalent sp2 hybridised orbitals. The angle between any two sp3 hybridised orbitals is 109°28′.of carbon in the ?

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 54

The one 2s orbital and the three 2p orbitais of carbon mixes to give four equivalent sp3 hybridised orbitais. The angle between any two sp3 hybridised orbitais is 109°28′.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 55

The 1s orbitals of the four hydrogen atoms overlap linearly with the four sp3 hybridised orbitals of carbon to form four C – H σ – bonds in the methane molecule, as shown below.

Formation of CH4 molecule:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 56

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 40.
Explain the hybridisation in PCl5.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 57

To form five covalent bonds one of the 2s electron is produced to vacant 3dz2 orbital.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 58

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 59

The orbital geometry of sp3 hybridised orbitals is trigonal bi-pyramidal as shown in the figure.

The 3pz orbitals of the five chlorine atoms linearly overlap along the axis with the five sp2d hybridised orbitals of phosphorous to form the five P – Cl σ – bonds, as shown below.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 60

Formation of PCl5 molecule:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 ChemicalTN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 61 Bonding 61

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 41.
Explain the sp3d2 hybridisation with an example.
Answer:
(i) In sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) the central atom sulphur extend its octet to undergo sp3d2 hybridisation to generate six sp2cf hybridised orbitals which accounts for six equivalent S – F bonds. The ground state electronic configuration of sulphur is [Ne] 3s2 3px2 3py1 3pz1.

(ii) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 62

(iii) One electron each from 3s orbital and 3p orbital of sulphur is promoted to its two vacant 3d orbitals (dz2 and dx2 – y2) in the excite state.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 63

(iv) A total of six valence orbitals from sulphur (one 35 orbital, three 3p orbitals and two 3d orbitals) mixes to give six equivalent sp3d2 hybridised orbitals. The orbital geometry is octahedral as shown in the figure.

(v) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 64

(vi) The six sp3d2 hybridised orbitals of sulphur overlaps linearly with 2pz orbitals of six fluorine atoms to form the six S – F bonds in the sulphur hexafluoride molecule.

 

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 42.
Explain the salient features of molecular orbital theory.
Answer:
(i) When atoms combines to form molecules, their individual atomic orbitals lose their identity and forms new orbitals called molecular orbitals.

(ii) The shapes of molecular orbitals depend upon the shapes of combining atomic orbitals.

(iii) The number of molecular orbitals formed is the same as the number of combining atomic orbitals. Half the number of molecular orbitals formed will have lower energy than the corresponding atomic orbital, while the remaining molecular orbitals will have higher energy.

The molecular orbital with lower energy is called bonding molecular orbital and the one with higher energy is called antibonding molecular orbital. The bonding molecular orbitals are represented as σ (Sigma), π (pi), δ (delta) and the corresponding antibonding orbitals are denoted as σ*, π* and δ*.

(iv) The electrons in a molecule are accommodated in the newly formed molecular orbitals. The filling of electrons in these orbitals follows Aufbau’s principle, Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule as in the case of filling of electrons in atomic orbitals.

(v) Bond order gives the number of covalent bonds between the two combining atoms. The bond order of a molecule can be calculated using the following equation,

Bond order = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{b}-\mathrm{N}_{a}}{2}\)

Where Nb = Total number of electrons present in the bonding molecular orbitals.
Na = Total number of electrons present in the antibonding molecular orbitals and A bond order of zero value indicates that the molecule doesn’t exist.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 43.
Explain the formation of bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals in terms of linear combination of atomic orbitals.
Answer:
The wave function for molecular orbitals are obtained by linear combination of atomic orbitals.
(i) Two atomic orbitals represented by the wave function ψA and ψB with comparable energy, combines to form two molecular orbitals.

One is bonding molecular orbital(ψbonding) and the other is antibonding molecular orbital(ψantibonding). The wave functions for these two molecular orbitals can be obtained by the linear combination of the atomic orbitals ψA and ψB as below.

ψbonding = ψA + ψB
ψantibonding = ψA – ψB

(ii) The formation of bonding molecular orbital can be considered as the result of constructive interference of the atomic orbitals and the formation of antibonding molecular orbital can be the result of the destructive interference of the atomic orbitals.

Bonding molecular orbitals have lower energy compared to that of the atomic orbitals and antibonding molecular orbitals have higher energy compared to the atomic orbitals, node

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 79

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 44.
Bring out the difference between q molecular orbital and it molecular orbital.
Answer:

σ molecular orbital π molecular orbital
It is formed by head to head overlap of atomic orbitals along inter nuclear axis. It is formed by the sideways overlap of atomic orbitals perpendicular to inter nuclear axis.
The extent of overlap is maximum The extent of overlap is minimum.
It leads to the formation of a strong covalent bond. It leads to the formation of a weak covalent bond.

Question 45.
Draw the energy level diagrams indicating the energy of the molecular orbitals.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 66

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 46.
Draw the Molecular orbital diagram for
(i) H2 molecule
(ii) Li2 molecule
(iii) B2 molecule. Find their bond order. Indicate whether they are paramagnetic or diamagnetic. Answer:
(i) Molecular orbital diagram of hydrogen molecule (H2)
Electronic configuration of H atom 1s1
Electronic configuration of H2 molecule σ1s2

Bond order = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{b}-\mathrm{N}_{a}}{2}=\frac{2-0}{2}\) = 1

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 67

(ii) Molecular orbital diagram of lithium molecule (Li2)
Electronic configuration of Li atom 1s2 s1
Electronic configuration of Li2 molecule σ1s2, σ1s*2, σ2s2

Bond order = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{b}-\mathrm{N}_{a}}{2}=\frac{4-2}{2}\) = 1

Molecule has no unpaired electrons hence it is diamagnetic.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 68

(iii) Molecular orbital diagram of boron molecule (B2)
Electronic configuration of B atom 1s2 2s2 2P1
Electronic configuration of B2 molecule σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2py1, π2pz1

Bond order = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{b}-\mathrm{N}_{a}}{2}=\frac{6-4}{2}\) = 1

Molecule has two unpaired electrons hence it is paramagnetic.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 69

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 47.
Give a brief account of metallic bonding.
Answer:
The force that keeps the atoms of the metal in a metallic crystal is known as metallic bond.

According to the theory of Drude and Lorentz, metallic bond is due to the positive charged metal ions and the free electrons produced by the ionisation of the metal atom. The free electrons are shared by all the ions in the crystal. These free electrons are uniformly distributed around the metal ions.

According to Molecular orbital theory the atomic orbitals of the metal combine to form molecular orbitals, which are-so close in energy to each other as to form a bond. The lowest lying empty bond is called conduction bond and the outer most filled bond is called valence bond.
(i) In metals, the energies of conduction bond and valence bond are close to each other, that there is no gap between them.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 70

Thus electrons pass easily from valence bond to conduction bond when a potential difference is applied. This is the reason why metals are good conductors of electricity.
(ii) Metals are also good conductors of heat. This is due to excitation of electrons from the valence bond to conduction bond on heating (thermal excitation).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3 and NH4+ respectively are j expected to be:
(a) sp, sp3 and sp2
(b) sp, sp2 and sp3
(c) sp2, sp and sp3
(d) sp2, sp3 and sp
Answer:
(b) sp, sp2 and sp3
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 71

Question 2.
In NO3 ion the number of bond pairs and lone j pairs of electrons mid nitrogen atoms are:
(a) 2, 2
(b) 3, 1
(c) 1, 3
(d) 4, 0
Answer:
(d) 4, 0
Hint:
The Lewis structure of NO3 is

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 72

Thus it has 4 bond pair and no lone pair.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 3.
In which of the following central atom is sp2 hybridised?
(a) BH4
(b) NH2
(c) CO3-2
(d) H3O+
Answer:
(c) CO3-2
Hint:
In BH4, NH2 and H3O+, the central atom in sp3 hybridised.
Step 1:
For CO3-2, the total no. of electron = 4+18 + 2 = 24
Step2:
Divide 24 by 8: The quotient (Q) = 3 and no remainder.
x = 3 or In CO3-2, C is sp2 hybridised.

Question 4.
Which molecule / ions, of the following does not contain unpaired electrons?
(a) N2+
(b) O2
(c) O2-2
(d) B2
Ans.
(c) O2-2
Hint:
The molecular orbital configuration of

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 73

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 5.
The H – H baond energy is 43.6 kJ mol-1 and Cl – Cl band energy is 242 kJ mol-1. H – Cl bond energy is 431 kJ mol-1
Choose the correct statement:
(a) The H – H bond length is the shortest among the molecules given.
(b) The H – Cl bond length is the shortest among the molecules given.
(c) The Cl – Cl bond length is the shortest among the molecules given.
(d) The H – H bond length is the highest among the molecules given.
Answer:
(a) The H – H bond length is the shortest among the molecules given.
Hint:
If bond enthalpy increases, bond length decreases.

Question 6.
The correct order of polarising power of the cations is:
(a) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(b) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
(c) Li+ > K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(d) K+ > Li+ > Rb+ > Na+ > Cs+
Answer:
(a) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
Hint:
When the size of the cation is smaller than the other cations with the same charge the smaller cation causes greater extent of polarisation.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 7.
Which of the following represents the correct bond order?
(a) O2 > O2 > O2+
(b) O2 < O2 < O2+
(c) O2 > O2 > O2+
(d) O2 > O2 > O2+
Answer:
(b) O2 < O2 < O2+
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 74

Question 8.
Which of the following has the most covalent j character?
(a) LiCl
(b) CsCl
(c) RbCl
(d) KCl
Answer:
(a) LiCl
Hint:
A small cation can polarise the large anion to a greater extent. Greater the extent of polarisation, greater is the covalent characters.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 9.
A molecule processing dipole moment is:
(a) CH4
(b) H2O
(c) BF3
(d) CO2
Answer:
(b) H2O
Hint:
In all other cases, the bond moments cancel each other and have zero dipole moment.

Question 10.
The type of overlapping of atomic orbitals involved in the formation of lithium hydride is:
(a) s – s overlap
(b) s – p overlap
(c) p – p overlap
(d) p – d overlap
Answer:
(a) s – s overlap
Hint:
The ‘2 s’ orbital of lithium and ‘1s’ orbital of hydrogen, each containing one unpaired electron overlap and form a sigma bond.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 11.
Which of the following species contain three bond pairs and one lone pair around the central atom?
(a) H2O
(b) BF3
(c) NH2
(d) PCl3
Answer:
(d) PCl3
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 75

Question 12.
Which of the following is a polar molecule?
(a) BF3
(b) SF4
(c) SeF4
(d) FeF4
Answer:
(b) (b) SF4
Hint:
SF4 has a distorted geometry due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons and hence polar. All the others are symmetrical and have zero dipole moment.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 13.
Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
(a) SO3-2, NO3
(b) CIO3, SO3-2
(c) CO3-2, SO3-2
(d) CrO3, CO3-2
Answer:
(b) CIO3, SO3-2
Hint:
SO3-2 – sp3 – pyramidal: 16 + 24 + 2 = 42e
CIO3 – sp3 – pyramidal: 17 + 24+ 1 = 42e
CO3-2 – sp2 – Triangular planar: 6 + 24 + 2 = 32e
NO3 – sp2 – Triangular planar: 7 + 24 + 1 = 32e

Question 14.
Some of the properties of the two species, NO3 and H3O+ are described below: Which one of them is correct?
(a) Dissimilar in hybridisation for the central atom with the different structures.
(b) so structural with the same hybridisation for the central atony
(c) so structural with the different hybridisation for the central, atom.
(d) Similar in hybridisation for the central atom with the different structures.
Answer:
(a) Dissimilar in hybridisation for the central atom with the different structures.
Hint:
NO3: 5 + 18 + 1 = 24
\(\frac{24}{8}\) = 3 = sp2 hybridisation plane triangular structure.

H3+: 3 + 6 – 1 = \(\frac{8}{2}\) = 4 = sp3 hybridisation square pyramidal.
Thus hybridisation as well as structure are different.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 15.
The O – N – O bond angle is maximum in:
(a) NO3
(b) NO2
(C) NO2
(d) NO2+
Answer:
(d) NO2+
Hint:
NO3 has sp2 hybridisation and three resonating structures.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 76

Hence the bond angle is 120°
NO2+ has no unshared electron. It has one bond pairs of electrons in two directions

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 77

The shape is linear with bond angle 120°.
NO2 has one unshared electron. Whereas NO2 has one unshared electron pair. Hence in N2 the repulsions on the bond pairs are more and the angle is less.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 78

Question 16.
Assertion:
LiCl is covalent whereas NaCl is ionic.
Reason :
Greater the size of the- cation, greater is its polarising power.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
Correct statement of reason: Smaller the size of the cation, greater is its polarising power.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 17.
Assertion:
The H — S — H bond angle in H2S is closer to 90° but H — O — H bond angle in water is 104.5°
Reason :
l.p – l.p repulsion is stronger in H2S than in H2O.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
Hint:
Correct Explanation: Bond pair—Bond pair repulsions are greater in water than that in H2S because ‘O’ atom is smaller than ‘S’ atom.

Question 18.
Assertion:
NO3 ion is planar while NH3 is pyramidal.
Reason :
N in NO3 is sp2 hybridised and in NH3 it is sp3 hybridised.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 19.
Assertion:
The resonance hybrid is more stable than any of the contributing structures.
Reason :
The contributing structures contain the same number of unpaired electrons and have real existence.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
Correct statement of reason: The contributing structures contain the same number of unpaired electron but do not have . real existence.

Question 20.
Assertion:
Molecular nitrogen is less reactive than molecular oxygen.
Reason :
The bond length of N2 is shorter than that of O2
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 21.
Select the odd man out from the following: The pair of molecules having identical geometry is:
(a) BCl3, PCl3
(b) BF3, NF3
(c) CCl4, CH4
(d) CHCl3, CH3Cl
Answer:
(c)
Hint:
CCl4 and CH4 have four bond pairs and have tetrahedral geometry whereas BCl3 is planar but PCl3 is pyramidal. BF3 is planar but NF3 is pyramidal. Both CHCl3 and CH3Cl have sp3 hybridisation but have different geometries because CHCl3 has three polar C — Cl bonds while in CH3Cl has only one C — Cl polar covalent bond.

Question 22.
In homonuclear molecules which of the following set of orbitals are degenerated?
(a) σ2s and σ1s
(b) π2px and π2py
(c) π2px and σ2pz
(d) σ2pz and π*2px
Answer:
(b) π2px and π2py

Question 23.
Among the following choose the one which have 2 bond pair and two lone pair of electrons on the central atom.
(a) BeCl2 and HgCl2
(b) CH4 and CCl4
(c) H2O and OF2
(d) PCl5 and AgF5
Answer:
(c) H2O and OF2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 24.
Which of the following pairs of compounds that cannot form hydrogen bond?
(a) HCl and HF
(b) H2O and HF
(c) CO2 and H2O
(d) CO2 + H2O2
Answer:
(d) CO2 + H2O2

Question 25.
Assertion:
Ionic compounds are non volatile.
Reason :
Intermolecular forces in these compounds are weak.
(a If both assertion and reasons are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reasons are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 26.
Assertion:
LiCl is predominantly a covalent compound.
Reason :
Electronegativity difference between Li nd Cl is too small.
(a) If both assertion ánd reasons are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reasons are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but rason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but rason is false.
Hint:
Electronegativity difference between Li and Cl is quite large covalent compound is formed due to high ionisation energy of Li.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 27.
Assertion:
Overall electron affinity to form O-2 is negative.
Reason :
First electron affinity of oxygen is negative while the second electron affinity is positive. The former is greater in magnitude than the latter.
(a) If both assertion and reasons are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reasons are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reasons are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 28.
Assertion:
O2 and N2 have the same bond order.
Reason :
O2 and N2 have the same number of electrons and same molecular orbital configuration.
(a) If both assertion and reasons are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reasons are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
In O2, σ(2pz) is filled first before π(2px) and π(2py) while in N2 π(2px) and π(2py) are filled first.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 29.
Assertion:
Na2SO4 is soluble in water while BaSO4 is insoluble.
Reason :
Lattice energy of BaSO4 exceeds its hydration energy.
(a) If both assertion and reasons are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reasons are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reasons are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 30.
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding bonding molecular orbitals?
(a) Bonding molecular orbitals posses less energy than atomic orbitals from which they are formed.
(b) Bonding molecular orbitals have low electron densities between the two nuclei.
(c) Every electron in bonding molecular orbitals contributes to attraction between the atoms.
(d) They are formed when the lobes of combining atomic orbitals have the same sign.
Answer:
(b) Bonding molecular orbitals posses less energy than atomic orbitals from which they are formed.

Question 31.
Mark the incorrect statement in the following.
(a) The bond order in the species O2, O2+ and O2 decreases as O2+ > O2 > O2.
(b) The bond energy in a diatomic molecule always increases when an electron is lost.
(c) Electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals contribute to repulsion between two atoms.
(d) With increase in bond order, bond length decreases and bond strength increases.
Answer:
(b) The bond energy in a diatomic molecule always increases when an electron is lost.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 32.
Choose the correct statement with regard to oxygen molecule.
(a) It is diamagnetic with no unpaired electrons.
(b) It is diamagnetic with two unpaired electrons.
(c) It is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons.
(d) It is paramagnetic with no unpaired electrons.
Answer:
(c) It is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons.

Question 33.
Polarisation is the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. Which j of the following statements is correct?
(a) Maximum polarisation is brought about by a cation of high charge.
(b) Maximum polarisation is brought about j by a cation of low radius.
(c) A huge cation is likely to bring about a lai c . degree of polarisation.
(d) Polarising power of a cation is less than that of an anion.
Answer:
(a) Maximum polarisation is brought about by a cation of high charge.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 34.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) HCl is covalent both in aqueous solution and in the gaseous state.
(b) HCl is covalent in the gaseous state but ionic in aqueous solution.
(c) HCl is ionic both in the gaseous state and in aqueous solution.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) HCl is covalent in the gaseous state but ionic in aqueous solution.

Question 35.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

Column I (molecule/ ion) Column II (shape)
(i) SnCl<sub>2</sub> (A) linear
(ii) CO<sub>3</sub><sup>-2</sup> (B) V – shape (bent)
(iii) HgCl<sub>2</sub> (C) Trigonal pyramidal
(iv) H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> (D) Triangular planar

(a) (i) – (A), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(c) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding

Question 36.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

Column I (molecule/ ion) Column II (Bond order)
(i) O2+ (A) 1.5
(ii) O2 (B) 1.0
(iii) O2 (C) 2.5
(iv) O2-2 (D) 2.0

(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (A), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (D)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions