Category: Class 10

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed ________.
(a) behind the retina
(b) on the retina
(c) infront of the retina
(d) on the blind spot
Answer:
(c) infront of the retina

Question 2.
Gas laws state the relationship between ______ properties of gas.
(a) pressure
(b) volume
(c) temperature and mass
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
LED stands for ________.
(a) Light Enter Diode
(b) Liquid Emitting Diode
(c) Light Emitting Diode
(d) Liquid Enter Diode
Answer:
(c) Light Emitting Diode

Question 4.
Which of the following has the smallest mass?
(a) 6.023 x 10²³ atoms of He
(b) 1 atom of He
(c) 2 g of He
(d) 1 mole atoms of He
Answer:
(b) 1 atom of He

Question 5.
________ group contains the member of halogen family.
(a) 17^th
(b) 15^th
(c) 18^th
(d) 16^th
Answer:
(a) 17^th

Question 6.
A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given temperature is called ______.
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Unsaturated solution
(c) Super saturated solution
(d) Dilute solution
Answer:
(a) Saturated solution

Question 7.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ________.
(a) cortex
(b) epidermis
(c) xylem
(d) phloem
Answer:
(c) xylem

Question 8.
Which type of cancer affects lymphnodes and spleen?
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukemia
(d) Lymphoma
Answer:
(d) Lymphoma

Question 9.
The process of splitting glucose molecules into pyruvic acid is called ________.
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Kreb’s cycle
(c) Electron transport chain
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Glycolysis

Question 10.
The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is ________.
(a) Onion
(b) Neem
(c) Ginger
(d) Bryophyllum
Answer:
(d) Bryophyllum

Question 11.
Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
(a) Pancreas
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Lungs
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Question 12.
All files are stored in the ________.
(a) Box
(b) Folder
(c) pai
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(b) Folder

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define inertia.
Answer:
The inherent property of a body to resist any change in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion, unless it is influenced upon by an external unbalanced force, is known as ‘inertia’.

Question 14.
State Charle’s law.
Answer:
When the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature of the gas.
(i.e) V ∝ T, \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

Question 15.
Differentiate stokes line and antistokes lines.
Answer:
Stokes lines:
The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines

Anti-stokes lines:
The lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 16.
What is aqueous solution:
Answer:
The solution in which water act as a solvent is called aqueous solution. In general, ionic compounds are soluble in water and form aqueous solutions more readily than covalent compounds. E.g. Common salt in water.

Question 17.
How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation?
Answer:
Ethanoic acid can be prepared by oxidation of ethanol in the presence of alkaline potassium permanganate of acidified potassium dichromate.

Question 18.
How does the leech suck blood from the host?
Answer:
The leech makes a triradiate or Y shaped incision in the skin of the host by the jaws protruded through the mouth. The blood is sucked by muscular pharynx and the salivary secretion is poured.

Question 19.
Match the following.

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)

Question 20.
How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
Answer:

• Sanitary pads should be changed regularly, to avoid infections.
• Use of warm water to clean genitals helps to get rid of menstrual cramps.
• Wearing loose clothing rather than airflow around the genitals and prevent sweating.

Question 21.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are known as transgenic organisms.

Question 22.
The potential difference between two conductors is 110 V. How much work is moving 10 C charge from one conductor to the other?
Answer:
Potential difference,V = 110 V
Charge, q = 10 C
Work done, W = ?
V = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{q} \) ∴ q × V = W
W = q × V
= 10 × 110 = 1100 J

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
(i) Differentiate mass and weight.
(ii) While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards. Why?
Answer:
(i)
Mass:

• It is the quantity of matter contained in the body.
• Mass is a Scalar quantity.
• It’s Unit is kg.
• Mass of a body remains the same at any point on the earth.
• Mass can be measured using a physical balance.

Weight:

• It is the gravitational force exerted on a body due to the Earth’s gravity along.
• Weight is a Vector quantity.
• Its Unit is N.
• Weight of the body varies from one place to another place on the earth.
• Weight can be measured using a spring balance.

(ii) While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards, so increase the time during which the velocity of the cricket ball decreases to zero. Therefore the impact of force on the palm of the fielder will be reduced.

Question 24.
(i) Explain the sign conventions of lenses.
Answer:

1. The object is always placed on the left side of the lens.
2. All the distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens.
3. The distances measured in the same direction as that of incident light are taken as positive.
4. The distances measured against the direction of incident light are taken as negative.
5. The distances measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as positive.
6. The distances measured downward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as negative.

(ii) Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 25.
(i) What is meant by electric current? Give its direction?
Answer:

• Electric current is often termed as ‘current’ and it is represented by the symbol ‘I’. It is defined as the rate of flow of charges in a conductor.
• The electric current represents the amount of charges flowing in any cross section of a conductor in unit time.

(ii) Name and define its unit.
Answer:
The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A). The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 \text { coulomb }}{1 \text { second }}\)

(iii) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be connected in a circuit?
Answer:

• Ammeter is used to measure the current.
• An Ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.
• The Ammeter is a low impedance device connecting it in parallel with the circuit would cause a short circuit, damaging the Ammeter or the circuit.

Question 26.
Explain how Avogadro hypothesis is used to derive the value of atomicity.
Answer:
(i) The Avogadro’s law states that “equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules”.
(ii) Let us consider the reaction between hydrogen and chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas.

(iii) According to Avogadro’s law, 1 volume of any gas is occupied by “n” number of molecules. “n” molecules + “n” molecules → “2n” molecules
If “n” = 1, then
1 molecule + 1 molecule → 2 molecules.
1/2 molecule + 1/2 molecule → 1 molecule
(iv) 1 molecule of hydrogen chloride gas is made up of 14 molecule of hydrogen and 14 molecule of chlorine.
(v) 1/2 molecule of hydrogen contains 1 atom.
So, 1 molecule of hydrogen contains 2 atoms.
So, hydrogen atomicity is 2. Similarly chlorine atomicity is also 2. So, H₂ and Cl₂ are diatomic molecules.

Question 27.
Explain the manufacture of soap.
Answer:
Manufacture of soap: KETTLE PROCESS:
This is the oldest method. But, it is still widely used in the small scale preparation of soap. There are mainly, two steps to be followed in this process.
(1) Saponification of oil:
The oil, which is used in this process, is taken in an iron tank (kettle). The alkaline solution (10%) is added into the kettle, a little in excess. The mixture is boiled by passing steam through it. The oil gets hydrolysed after several hours of boiling. This process is called Saponification.

(2) Salting out of soap:
Common salt is then added to the boiling mixture. Soap is finally precipitated in the tank. After several hours the soap rises to the top of the liquid as a ‘curdy mass’. The neat soap is taken off from the top. It is then allowed to cool down.

Question 28.
Distinguish between bipolar neuron an multipolar neuron.
Answer:

Question 29.
(i) What are okazaki segments?
(ii) Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant root to the time it escapes into the atmosphere from a leaf.
Answer:
(i) During the replication of a DNA molecule, the new strand is synthesized in short segments which are called okazaki fragments.

Question 30.
(i) Draw and label a Radial Vascular bundle.
(ii) What are the differences between dicot leaf and monocot leaf.
Answer:
(i)

(ii)

Question 31.
(a) Expand the following abbraviations.
(i) CHD (ii) BMI (iii) AIDS (iv) IDDM
(b) Name the two types of stem cells.
Answer:
(a) 1. CHD – Coronary Heart Disease
2. BMI – Body Mass Index
3. AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
4. IDDM – Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus

(b) The two types of stem cells are

1. Embryonic stem cells
2. Adult or somatic stem cells

Question 32.
(i) With an illustration, explain the method of calculation for areal expansion of an object.
Answer:

If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Superficial expansion is determined in terms of coefficient of superficial expansion. The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion. Coefficient of superficial expansion is different for different materials. The SI superficial expansion unit of Coefficient of superficial expansion is K^-1

The equation relating to the change in area and the change in temperature
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{A}}{\mathrm{A}_{0}}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final arqa – Initial area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion

(ii) What is gram atomic mass? Given example.
Answer:
If the atomic mass of an element is expressed in grams. It is known as gram atomic mass.
Eg. Gram atomic mass of hydrogen = 1 g
Gram atomic mass of oxygen = 16 g

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) What is mean by reflection of sound?
Answer:
When sound waves travel in a given medium and strike the surface of another medium, it can be bounced back into the first medium is called as reflection.

(ii) Explain the refraction at the boundary of a rarer and denser medium?
Answer:
(a) Reflection in rarer medium:

• Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air.
• The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium.
• As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any deformation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards.
• As the particle of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, a compression is reflected as a rarefaction and the rare faction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection in denser medium:

• A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rare fractions.
• Suppose a compression travelling in air from left to right reaches a rigid wall.
• In turn, the wall exerts an equal and opposite I reaction R = – F on the air molecules. This results in a compression near the rigid wall.
• Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(OR)

(b) (i) At what height from the centre of the earth the acceleration due to gravity will be 1/4th its value as at the earth.
Answer:
Given: Height from the centre of the Earth, R’ = R + h
The acceleration due to gravity at that height, g’ = g/4 GM


or h = R
R’ = 2R
From the centre of the Earth, the object is placed at twice the radius of the earth.

(ii) How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5A.
Answer:
Current I = 5 A
Time t = 1 second
Charge of electron (e) = 1.6 × 10^-19 C

n = 3.125 x 10¹⁹

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the number of molecules in 10 mole of H₂.
Answer:
n = 10 mole; NA= 6.023 x 10²³
Number of molecules = 10 x 6.023 x 10²³
= 6.023 x 10²⁴ H₂ molecules

(ii) Calculate the number of moles in 1 kg of CaCO₃.
Answer:

W = 1 kg = 1000 g;
M = 100 g mol^-1; n = ?
n = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{M}}=\frac{1000}{100}\) = 10 mol

(iii) Calculate the volume of 14 g of N₂ gas.
Answer:
28 g (1 mole) of N₂ gas occupies 22.4 litres
14 g of N₂ gas occupies
\(\frac{22.4}{28}\) × 14 = \(\frac{22.4}{2}\)
= 11.2 litres

(OR)

(b) (i) Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
(ii) A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?
Answer:
(i) (a) The Relative Molecular Mass of a gas or vapour is the ratio between the mass of one molecule of the gas or vapour to mass of one atom of Hydrogen.
(b) Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of a certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen, measured under the same conditions of temperature and pressure.

(c) According to Avogadro’s law, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.
Thus, let the number of molecules in one volume = n, then

(f) By comparing the definition of relative molecular mass and vapour density we can write as follows.

(g) By substituting the relative molecular mass value in vapour density definition, we get Vapour density (V.D.) = Relative molecular mass / 2
2 × vapour density = Relative molecular mass of a gas

(ii) The capability of a solution to maintain a certain concentration of solute is temperature dependent. When a saturated solution of copper sulphate at above room temperature is allowed to cool, the solution becomes super-saturated and in the absence of stirring or the return of the previous solution temperature, the solute starts to precipitate out. i.e., crystal formation occurs.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
(ii) What is Anemophily?
(iii) What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
(i) Estrogen, the female sex hormone Is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.
Role of estrogen:

• It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
• It initiates the process of oogenesis.
• It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary.
• It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters (breast development and high pitched voice, etc).

(ii) Pollination with the help of wind is known as Anemophily

(iii) Consequences of deforestation:
It gives rise to ecological problems like,

• Floods
• Soil erosion
• Extinction of species
• Loss of wild life
• Desertification
• Changes in climatic condition

[OR]

(b) (i) What is Fossilization?
(ii) Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
(i) The process of formation of fossil in the rocks is called fossilization.

(ii) Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is the process by which genetic variation are created which inturn brings about changes in the organisms. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.

The factor which induce mutations are known as mutagens. Mutagens are of two types:

1. Physical mutagens such as X rays, α, β, γ rays, UV rays, temperature etc.
2. Chemical mutagens such as mustard gas and nitrous acids.
   The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.

Achievements of mutation breeding:

• Sharbati sonora, wheat produced from sonora – 64 by using gamma rays.
• Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance.
• Groundnuts with thick shells.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 5 Acoustics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acoustics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction.
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion.
(d) do not vibrate.
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms^-1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is _____.
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 660 ms^-1
(c) 156 ms^-1
(d) 990 ms^-1.
Answer:
(a) 330 ms^-1
Hint: Pressure has no effect on the velocity of sound in the gas. So velocity of sound remains unchanged.

Question 3.
The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is:
(a) 50 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 15000 kHz
(d) 10000 kHz
Answer:
(b) 20 kHz

Question 4.
The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 ms^-1. What will be its value when the temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 165 ms^-1
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
(d) 320/√2 ms^-1.
Answer:
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
Hint: As there is no effect of change in pressure on the velocity of sound in air, and v ∝ √T therefore, when the temperature is doubled, so the velocity becomes 330√2 m/s.

Question 5.
If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 10⁴ Hz at 344 ms^-1, the wavelength will be:
(a) 27.52 m
(b) 275.2 m
(c) 0.02752 m
(d) 2.752 m
Answer:
(c) 0.02752 m

Question 6.
The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were incident. Which of the following changes?
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 7.
The velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms^-1. The minimum distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle to hearing the echo should be ______.
(a) 17 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 50 m.
Answer:
(c) 25 m
Hint: The minimum distance of the source of the sound and hear the echo,
\(d=\frac{v t}{2}\)
t = 0.1 s, \(d=\frac{500 \times 0.1}{2}\) = 25 m.

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called …………
2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the medium would be vibrating in …………
3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 ms^-1. The frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 ms^-1) ………..
4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer is …………

Answer:

1. Wave
2. South to north
3. 500 Hz
4. 2067-3 Hz

III. True or false: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum.
2. Waves created by Earthquake are Infrasonic.
3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature.
4. The Velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids.

Answer:

1. False – Sound cannot travel through vacuum.
2. True
3. False – The velocity of sound depends on temperature.
4. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions.

Question 1.
Assertion : The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason : The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the square of the pressure.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 2.
Assertion : Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
Reason : Solid posses a greater density than that of gases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer very briefly:

Question 1.
What is a longitudinal wave?
Answer:
In longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of the wave.

Question 2.
What is the audible range of frequency?
Answer:
Audible waves: These are sound waves with a frequency ranging between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz.

Question 3.
What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
Answer:
The minimum distance needed for an echo is 17.2 metre.

Question 4.
What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength when it travels with a speed of 331 ms^-1?
Answer:
Frequency of sound = \(\frac{\text { velocity of sound }}{\text { wavelength of sound }}\)
\(n=\frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{331}{0.20}\)
n = 1655 Hz.

Question 5.
Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
The animals are dogs, bats and dolphins.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. Hence, sound travels faster on a rainy day than a dry day.

Question 2.
Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
Answer:
The intensity of sound is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibration. I ∝ A² since, the amplitude of vibration of air molecules (empty vessel) is greater than liquid molecules (filled vessel), therefore empty vessel produces a louder sound than the filled vessel.

Question 3.
Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (V_o = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
Velocity of sound at 0°C is V_o = 331 ms^-1
Let the sound at 46°C is be v_t
\(\frac{v_t}{v_o}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{273+T}{273}}\)
where temperature is T = 46°C

= 1.080
v_t = 331 × 1.080 = 357.48 m/s.
∴ Velocity of sound in air at that temperature = 357.48 m/s.

Question 4.
Explain why the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
Answer:

1. These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface.
2. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

Question 5.
Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
Answer:

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.

VIII. Problem Corner:

Question 1.
A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a speed of 400 ms-1 in a medium. Find the wavelength of the sound wave.
Answer:
Speed of sound wave v = 400 m/s
Frequency of sound wave n = 200 Hz
∴ Wavelength sound wave λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\)
= \(\frac{400}{200}\) = 2 m
∴ Wavelength = 2 m

Question 2.
The thunder of the cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 ms^-1, what will be the height of the cloud?
Solution:
The height of the cloud (distance) = speed of sound × time
d = v × t = 330 × 9.8 = 3234 m
The height of the cloud is 3234 m.

Question 3.
A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m from a source of sound is listening to a sound of 600 Hz. Find the time period between successive compressions from the source?
Answer:
Distance of the observer = 400 m
Frequency of sound n = 600 Hz
Let velocity of sound be v = 330 \(\frac{m}{s}\)
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\) = \(\frac{330}{600}\)
= 55 × 10^-2 = 0.55 m
Distance between two successive compressions is \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
Time period successive compressions is = \(\frac{1}{\frac{λ}{2}}\)
= \(\frac{2}{λ}\) = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\)
T = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\) = 3.6363 second
Time period = 3.6363 second.

Question 4.
An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the transmission and reception of the wave is 1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 ms^-1?
Answer:
Time interval t = 1.6 s
Velocity of sound in water = 1400 m/s.
Depth of the sea = \(\frac{v×t}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1400×1.6}{2}\)
= 1120 m
Depth of the sea = 1120 m

Question 5.
A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 second respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Answer:
Distance between two walls λ = 680 m.
Time periods T₁ = 0.9 s
T₂ = 1.1 s
∴ Frequencies n₁ = \(\frac{1}{T_1}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.9}\) = \(\frac{10}{9}\)
= 1.11 Hz
n₂ = \(\frac{1}{T_2}\)
= \(\frac{1}{1.1}\) = \(\frac{10}{11}\)
= 0.9090 Hz.
Difference x₁ – x₂ = 1.11 – 0.9090
= 0.201 Hz
Speed of sound = (n₁ – n₂)λ
= 0.201 × 680 = 136.68

Question 6.
Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, underwater, reaches the other after 3 seconds. What is the speed of sound in the water?
Solution:
Distance between the two boats, d = 4.5 km
d = 4500 m
Time, t = 3 seconds
Speed of sound in the water = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Time taken }}\) = \(\frac{4500}{3}\)
v = 1500 ms^-1.

Question 7.
A strong sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is received back after Is.What is the depth of sea given that the speed of sound in water 1450 ms^-1?
Answer:
Speed of sound in water v = 1450 m/s
Time taken t = 1 + 1 = 2 s.
Depth of the sea d = \(\frac{v}{t}\)
= \(\frac{1450}{2}\)
= 725 m
Depth of the sea = 725 m.

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:
Effect of density:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
\(v \propto \sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Effect of temperature:
(i) The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
(ii) The velocity of sound in gas increases with the increase in temperature,
v ∝ √T Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
v_T = (v₀ + 0.61 T) ms^-1
Here, v₀ is the velocity of sound in the gas at 0° C. For air, v₀ = 331 ms^-1.
Hence, the velocity of sound changes by 0.61 ms^-1 when the temperature changes by one – degree celsius.

Effect of relative humidity: When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why we can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 2.
What is mean by reflection of sound? Explain:
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium.
(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium.
(c) Reflection at curved surfaces.
Answer:
When sound waves travel in a given medium and strike the surface of another medium, they can be bounced back into the first medium. This phenomenon is known as reflection.
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium :

Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air. The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium. As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any defonnation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards. As the particles of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, a compression is reflected as a rarefaction and a rarefaction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium :

A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rarefactions. Suppose a compression travelling in air from left to right reaches a rigid wall. The compression exerts a force F on the rigid wall. In turn, the wall exerts an equal and opposite reaction R = – F on the air molecules.

This results in a compression near the rigid wall. Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(c) Reflection at curved surfaces :
When the sound waves are reflected from the curved surfaces, the intensity of the reflected waves is changed. When reflected from a convex surface, the reflected waves are diverged out and the intensity is decreased. When sound is reflected from a concave surface, the reflected waves are converged and focused at a point. So the intensity of reflected waves is concentrated at a point.

Question 3.
(a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
(b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
(c) Name three animals which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
(a) Ultrasonic Vibration: The vibrations whose frequencies are greater than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic vibrations.

(b) (i) They are used in SONAR to measure the depth of the sea (or ocean) and to locate underwater objects.
(ii) It is used for scanning and imaging the position and growth of a foetus and presence of stones in the gall bladder and kidney.
(iii) It is used for homogenising milk in milk plants where fresh milk is agitated with the desired quantity of fat and powdered milk to obtain toned milk.

(c) Mosquito, Dogs and Bats are the three animals that can hear ultrasonic vibrations.

Question 4.
What is an echo?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound wave.

(a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
(b) What are the medical applications of echo?
(c) How can you calculate the speed of sound using echo?
Answer:
(a) (i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that you can hear two sound waves clearly, if the time interval between the two sounds is at least 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:

Since, t = 0.1 second, then
d = \(\frac{v×0.1}{2}\) = \(\frac{v}{20}\)
Thus the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 1/20^th part of the magnitude of the velocity of sound in air. If you consider the velocity of sound as 344 ms^-1, the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.

(b) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or foetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(c) The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver. The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of sound wave is given by:
Speed of sound

X. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave have the same frequency, then which one has a longer wavelength?
(a) Sound, (b) Light, (c) both a and b, (d) data not sufficient
Answer:
(b) Light: Since the velocity of light (C = 3 × 10⁸ m/s) is greater than the velocity of sound, light wave has a longer wavelength.

Question 2.
When sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day? Justify your answer.
Answer:
An echo can only be heard if it reaches the ear after 0.1 secs.
\(\text { Time taken }=\frac{\text { Totaldistance }}{\text { Velocity }}\)
As on a hotter day, the velocity of sound is more. So if the time taken by the echo is less than 0.1 sec than it won’t be heard.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Sound waves are:
(a) Transverse waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Waves
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Longitudinal waves

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in air is ______.
(a) faster in dry air than in moist air
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
(c) directly proportional to pressure.
(d) Slower in dry air than in moist air.
Answer:
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
Hint: v ∝ √T

Question 3.
Which of the following does not affect the velocity of sound?
(a) mass of the gas
(b) density of the gas
(c) temperature of the gas
(d) pressure of the gas
Answer:
(d) pressure of the gas

Question 4.
The apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect does not depend upon.
(a) Speed of the listener.
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
(c) Speed of the source.
(d) Frequency of the source.
Answer:
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
Hint: Apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect depends on frequency of the source, direction and velocity of source and listener. It does not depend on the distance between the listener and the source.

Question 5.
Sound of frequency 256 Hz passes through a medium. The maximum displacement is 0.1 m. The maximum velocity is:
(a) 60π m/s
(b) 30π m/s
(c) 51.2π m/s
(d) 512π m/s
Answer:
(c) 51.2π m/s

Question 6.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 760 ms^-1. If 3600 waves the medium in 2 min, then its wavelength is ______.
(a) 13.8 m
(b) 41.5 m
(c) 25.3 m
(d) 57.2 m.
Answer:
(c) 25.3 m
Hint: Number of waves crossing a point per second.
\(\begin{array}{l}{n=\frac{3600}{2 \times 60}=30} \\ {\lambda=\frac{v}{n}=\frac{760}{30}=25.3 \mathrm{m}}\end{array}\).

Question 7.
Two waves are propagating with same amplitude and nearly same frequency in opposite they result in:
(a) longitudinal wave
(b) transverse wave
(c) stationary wave
(d) resonance wave
Answer:
(c) stationary wave

Question 8.
Of these properties of a sound wave, the one that is independent of others is its:
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) amplitude
Answer:
(d) amplitude

Question 9.
No echo will be heard if the distance between the reflecting obstacle and the source is:
(a) greater than 17.2 m
(b) less than 17.2 m
(c) less than 34.4 m
(d) greater than 34.4 m
Answer:
(b) less than 17.2 m

Question 10.
The velocity of sound in a gas is independent of:
(a) temperature
(b) density
(c) humidity
(d) pressure
Answer:
(d) pressure

Question 11.
The velocity of sound increases for every degree rise of temperature by:
(a) 1 ms^-1
(b) 330 m/s
(c) 0.61 ms^-1
(d) 6.1 m/s
Answer:
(c) 0.61 ms^-1

Question 12.
Longitudinal waves are characterised by:
(a) crest and troughs
(b) compressions and rarefactions
(c) nodes and antinodes
(d) wavelength and frequency
Answer:
(b) compressions and rarefactions

Question 13.
If the frequency of waves lies between 20 Hz and 20 KHz then, they are:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) audible waves
(d) transverse waves
Answer:
(c) audible waves

Question 14.
The frequency of an infrasonic wave is:
(a) 20 Hz
(b) below 20 Hz
(c) above 20 Hz
(d) above 20 KHz
Answer:
(b) below 20 Hz

Question 15.
The sound waves having frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) infrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 16.
Which of the following waves cannot be detected by human ear?
(a) audible wave
(b) infrasonic wave
(c) ultrasonic wave
(d) mechanical wave
Answer:
(c) ultrasonic wave

Question 17.
Which waves are generated by stretched strings?
(a) audible waves
(b) sound waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) infrasonic waves
Answer:
(a) audible waves

Question 18.
The waves produced during earthquake, ocean waves are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) infrasonic waves

Question 19.
Sound wave belong to:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) electromagnetic waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(a) mechanical waves

Question 20.
The waves produced by bats are called:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 21.
At N.T.P speed of sound waves in air is about:
(a) 3 x 108 m/s
(b) 3 x 10″8 m/s
(c) 340 cm/s
(d) 340 m/s
Answer:
(d) 340 m/s

Question 22.
Sound waves are:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) longitudinal waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(b) longitudinal waves

Question 23.
The velocity of sound is least in ………. medium.
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gaseous
(d) water
Answer:
(c) gaseous

Question 24.
Velocity of sound ……… as the density of the solid increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) changes
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 25.
Velocity of sound at a temperature T is given by:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)
(b) V_T = \(\frac{V_0}{273}\)
(c) V_T = (V₀ – 0.61 T)
(d) V_T = V₀(0.61T)
Answer:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)

Question 26.
In the case of reflection of sound waves angle of incidence is:
(a) less than angle of incidence
(b) equal to angle of incidence
(c) greater than angle of incidence
(d) greater than angle of refraction.
Answer:
(b) equal to angle of incidence

Question 27.
The direction of compression is reversed during:
(a) refraction
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium
(c) reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium
(d) reflection at the boundary of a curved surface
Answer:
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium

Question 28.
Which of the following property of sound waves is used in ultrasonography?
(a) Reflection of sound
(b) Refraction of sound
(c) Echo sound
(d) Doppler effect sound
Answer:
(c) Echo sound

Question 29.
Which of the following is application of reflection of sound?
(a) Mega phone
(b) Ear trumpet
(c) Sound board
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 30.
In Doppler effect when the source and listener move away from each other, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(a)

Question 31.
When a listener approaches a stationary source, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(b)

Question 32.
If a source and a listener move towards each other, then the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(c)

Question 33.
When a source recedes from a stationary listener the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(a)

Question 34.
When a source moves towards a stationary listener the ratio of apparent frequency to the original frequency is:

Answer:
(b)

Question 35.
When source and listener move one behind the other the apparent frequency is

Answer:
(c)

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The vibrating bodies produce waves in the form of ………
2. For the propagation of sound, a ………. is required.
3. The frequency range of audible waves is ………..
4. The frequency of infrasonic waves is …………
5. The sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as ………..
6. The wavelength of sound waves ranges from ………..
7. Sound waves are ……….
8. If wavelength of a wave is λ and its time period is T, then velocity of sound wave is ………..
9. If n is the frequency and λ is the wavelength of sound wave then is velocity of wave is given by …………
10. The ascending order of velocity of sound in solids, liquids and gases is given by …………
11. Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the ………… of the medium.
12. Velocity of sound in solid is directly proportional to the square root of the ……….. of the medium.
13. Sound can be heard from long distances clearly during …………..
14. When the temperature of a gas changes by one degree Celsius, the velocity of sound changes by ………..
15. In the case of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to ………….
16. When sound waves undergo reflection by convex surface, its intensity is ………..
17. ……….. are used when sound waves have to be focused at a point.
18. In ……….. surfaces, sound from one focus will always be reflected to the other focus.
19. The reproduction of sound due to the reflection of sound is known as …………
20. The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be ………..
21. Echo is used to determine the velocity of ………… in any medium.
22. A horn-shaped device works on the principle of ………….
23. The phenomenon in which the frequency of sound heard by a listener is different from that of sound emitted by the source due to ……….. between a source and a listener is known as Doppler effect.
24. When the distance between the source and listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………..
25. Apparent frequency in Doppler effect depends on the ……….. of the source and the listener.
26. When a listener moves away from a source at rest, the apparent frequency is n’ = ………..
27. When distance between source listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………. than ……….. frequency.
28. If the medium moves with a velocity W in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound then, velocity of sound v becomes ………..
29. If the apparent frequency is n’ = (\(\frac{V}{V+V_{S}}\))n then source moves ………….. the ……….. listener.
30. If a listener moves towards the ………. source, the apparent frequency n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n.
Answer:
1. sound waves
2. medium
3. From 20 Hz to 20 KHz
4. below 20 Hz
5. ultrasonic waves
6. 1.65 cm to 1.65 m
7. longitudinal
8. V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
9. V = nλ
10. V_S > V_L > V_G
11. density
12. elastic modulus
13. rainy seasons
14. 0.61 m/s
15. the angle of reflection
16. decreased
17. parabolic surface
18. elliptical
19. echo
20. 0.1 second
21. sound waves
22. echo
23. relative motion
24. n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V-V_{S}}\))n
25. velocities
26. (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n
27. more, actual
29. [V – W]
29. away from, stationary
30. stationary

III. True/False Questions: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound waves are transverse waves by nature.
2. Longitudinal waves are characterised by compressions and rarefactions.
3. Medium is not required for the propagation of light.
4. Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency about 20 KHz.
5. Velocity of sound is the greatest in gas.
6. Velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
7. According to law of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
8. When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.
9. Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. The principle of SONAR is Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. False – Sound waves are longitudinal waves by nature.
2. True
3. True
4. False – Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz.
5. False – Velocity of sound is the least in gas.
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False – Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. True

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (B)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (A)
(iii) – (B)
(iv) – (E)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (E)
(ii) – (F)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (C)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (C)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (D)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions:

Question 1.
Assertion: Sound waves cannot be propagated through vacuum but light can be transmitted.
Reason: Sound waves cannot be polarised but light wave can be polarised.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Ocean waves hitting a beach are always found to be nearly normal to the shore.
Reason: Ocean waves hitting a beach are assumed to be plane waves.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Speed of a wave is the ratio between wavelength and time period of a wave.
Reason: Wavelength is the distance between two nearest particles in phase.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: When a people moves along the sand within few centimetres of a sand scorpion, the scorpion immediately turns towards the people and dashes towards it.
Reason: When a people disturbs the sand, it sends pulses along the sand’s surface. One set of pulses is longitudinal and other set is transverse.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: Light waves are transverse.
Reason: Light waves travel in air with a velocity of 3 × 10⁸ m/s .
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the density of a gas.
Reason: When humidity increases the velocity of sound increases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Echo is produced due to the reflection of sound from walls, mountains etc.
Reason: Echo is used in ultrasonography.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Doppler effect is due to relative motion between the source and listener.
Reason: Echo is used in RADAR and SONAR.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

VI. Answers very briefly:

Question 1.
What is the nature of sound waves?
Answer:
Sound waves travel through any medium in the form of longitudinal waves.

Question 2.
How is the sound produced?
Answer:
By touching a ringing bell or a musical instrument while it is producing music, we conclude that sound is produced by vibrations.

Question 3.
A wave travelling in a medium has time period T and wavelength λ. How T and λ are related?
Answer:
Wave velocity v = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
(or) λ = vT

Question 4.
Why don’t we hear sounds when our ears are closed?
Answer:

• We hear the sound even when we close our ears but its magnitude and frequency is very less due to the obstruction of our hands.
• It also depends upon the frequency and loudness of the sound.

Question 5.
What is the relation between frequency and wavelength?
Answer:
Wave velocity = Frequency × Wavelength
v = vλ

Question 6.
What do you understand by the term ‘infrasonic vibration’?
Answer:
Infrasonic waves: These are sound waves with a frequency below 20 Hz that cannot be heard by the human ear. E.g., waves produced during an earthquake, ocean waves, the sound produced by whales, etc.

Question 7.
What is the range of audible frequency?
Answer:
The audible range of frequency is from 20 Hz to 20 KHz.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
State the differences between sound and light.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is meant by particle velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the particles of the medium vibrate in order to transfer the energy in the form of a wave is called particle velocity.

Question 3.
What do you know about wave velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the wave travels through the medium is called wave velocity. In other words, the distance travelled by a sound wave in unit time is called the velocity of a sound wave.
∴ velocity = \(\frac{Distance}{Time taken}\)

Question 4.
Define wave velocity.
Answer:
Wave velocity is defined as the distance travelled per second by a sound wave. Since,
Frequency (n) = 1/T, V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\) can be written as V = nλ.

Question 5.
What is the effect of density of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
V ∝\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Question 6.
What is the effect of temperature of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature. The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in temperature.
V ∝ √T . Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.61T) ms²

Question 7.
What are the factors affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:

• Effect of density
• Effect of temperature
• Effect of humidity

Question 8.
What do you know about reflection of sound from a plane surface?
Answer:
When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the reflected waves travel in a direction, according to the law of reflection. The intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.

Question 9.
Write a note on whispering gallery.
Answer:
One of the famous whispering galleries is in St. Paul’s cathedral church in London. It is built with elliptically shaped walls. When a person is talking at one focus, his voice can be heard distinctly at the other focus. It is due to the multiple reflections of sound waves from the curved walls.

Question 10.
How is echo of sound produced?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc…

Question 11.
Write short notes about mega phone.
Answer:
A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks . at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 12.
Define Doppler effect.
Answer:
When ever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

Question 13.
How Doppler effect is used to measure the speed of an automobile?
Answer:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

Question 14.
How is Doppler effect utilised in tracking a satellite?
Answer:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

Question 15.
How is the location of aircrafts found out?
Answer:
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

Question 16.
How is the speed of submarine estimated?
Answer:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

VIII. Numerical problems:

Question 1.
How far does the sound travel in air when a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz makes 64 vibrations? Velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s².
Answer:
Velocity of sound in air v = 340 m/s
Frequency v = 256 Hz
Distance travelled by the wave in one vibration is equal to its wavelength. Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
= \(\frac{340}{256}\) = 1.328 m
Distance travelled by the wave in 64 vibrations
= 1.328 × 64
= 84.992 m = 85 m

Question 2.
A train moving with velocity 30 ms^-1 blows a whistle of frequency 516 Hz. Find the pitch of the sound heard by a passenger ¡n another train approaching the first at a speed of 15 ms^-1, the velocity of sound = 330 ms^-1.
Solution:
It both the trains are approaching each other.
The apparent frequency, \(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{o}}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{330+15}{330-30}\right) \times 516} \\ {n=\frac{345}{300} \times 516=1.15 \times 516} \\ {n^{\prime}=593.4 \mathrm{Hz}}\end{array}\).

Question 3.
A body generates waves of 100 mm long through medium A and 0.25 m long in medium B. If the velocity of waves in medium A is 80 cm s^-1. Then, calculate the velocity of waves in medium B.
Answer:
In medium A wavelength λ_A = 100 mm
= 0.1 m
In medium A velocity v_A = 80 m/s
= 0.8 m/s
In medium B let velocity be v_B
In medium B, wavelength λ_B = 0.25 m
As the frequency of the wave remains same in the two media, so

= 2 m/s
∴ Velocity of waves in the medium B = 2 m/s

Question 4.
A radio station broadcasts its programme at 219.3 m wavelength. Determine the frequency of radio waves if velocity of radio waves 3 × 10⁸ m/s.
Answer:
Velocity of radio waves v = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Wavelength of radio waves λ = 219.3 m
∴ Frequency of radio waves v = \(\frac{v}{λ}\)
v = \(\frac{3×10^8}{219.3}\)
= 0.013679 × 10⁸
= 13679 × 10² Hz
= 1.36 79 × 10³ Hz
Frequency v = 1.3679 KHz

Question 5.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 960 m/s. If 3600 waves are passing through a point in the medium in 1 minute, then calculate its wavelength.
Answer:
Speed of a wave v = 960 m/s
Frequency of the wave v = 3600 m^-1
\(\frac{3600}{60}\) = 60 s^-1
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
\(\frac{960}{60}\) = 16 m
Wavelength = 16 m

Question 6.
If a splash is heard 4.23 second after a stone is dropped into a well 78.4 m deep then calculate the speed of sound in air.
Answer:
For downward motion of the stone,
Initial velocity u = 0
Acceleration a = 9.8 m/s²
Distance S = 74.8 m.
Time t = ?
S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
78.4 = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 t²
= 4.9 t²
∴ t² = \(\frac{78.4}{4.9}\) = 16
∴ t = 4 s
Let ‘t’ be the time taken by the splash of sound to reach the top of the well.
Then,
t + t’ = 4 +t’ = 4.23 s
∴ t = 4.23 – 4 = 0.23 s
∴ Speed of sound in air
\(\frac{distence}{Time}\)
= \(\frac{78.4}{0.23}\)
= 340.87 m/s

Question 7.
At what temperature will the speed of sound be double its value at 273 K?
Answer:
We know that velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to square root of its temperature

T₁ = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K
v₁ = 2v₁ T₂ = ?

∴ T₂ = 4 × 273 = 1092 K
Required temperature = 1092 K

Question 8.
A listener moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?
Answer:
Hence listener moves towards the source.
V_L = –\(\frac{V}{5}\), V_S = 0
V_L – Velocity of listener
V_S – Velocity of source
V – Velocity of sound
Apparent frequency = n’

The percentage increase in apparent frequency

= 20%

Question 9.
A siren is fitted on a car going towards a vertical wall at a speed of 36 Kmph. A person standing on the ground behind the car, listens to the siren sound coming directly from the source as well as that coming after reflection from the wall. Calculate the apparent frequency of the wave coming directly from the siren to the person.
Answer:
Velocity of source = 36 Kmph
V_S = 36 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity of sound v = 340 m/s
Frequency n = 500 Hz
For the sound coming directly from the siren to the listener, source (siren) is moving away from the listener so
V_S = -10 m/s V₂ = 0
Apparent frequency of the wave

= 485.7 Hz

Question 10.
The sirens of two fire engines have a frequency of 600 Hz each. A man hears the sirens from the two engines, one approaching him with a speed of 30 Kmph and the car going away from him at a speed of 54 Kmph. What is the difference in frequency of two sirens heard by the man?
Answer:
Velocity of sound be 340 m/s
Frequency n = 600 Hz
Velocity of sound
V = 340 m/s
Velocity of source
Vs = 36 Kmph
\(\frac{36×5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity listener
V_S = 0
For the engine approaching man

= 618.2 Hz
For the engine going away from the man
V_S = -54 Kmph
= -54 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = -15 m/s
Velocity of listener V_L = 0
Apparent frequency

Difference in frequencies = n’ – n” = 618.2 – 574.6
= 43.6 Hz

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the nature of sound waves.
Answer:
Sound waves are longitudinal waves that can travel through any medium (solids, liquids, gases) with a speed that depends on the properties of the medium. As sound travels through a medium, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the wave. This displacement involves the longitudinal displacements of the individual molecules from their mean positions. This results in a series of high and low pressure regions called compressions and rarefactions.

Question 2.
Explain in the details of measuring the velocity of sound by the Echo method.
Answer:
Apparatus required:
A source of sound pulses, a measuring tape, a sound receiver, and a stopwatch.
Procedure:

• Measure the distance d between the source of sound pulse and the reflecting surface using the measuring tape.
• The receiver is also placed adjacent to the source. A sound pulse is emitted by the source.
• The stopwatch is used to note the time interval between the instant at which the sound pulse is sent and the instant at which the echo is received by the receiver. Note the time interval as ‘t’.
• Repeat the experiment for three or four times. The average time taken for the given number of pulses is calculated.

Calculation of speed of sound:

• The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver.
• The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of the sound wave is given by:
  \(\text { Speed of sound }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { Time taken }}=\frac{2 d}{t}\)

Question 3.
Explain laws of reflection with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
The following two laws of reflection are applicable to sound waves as well.
(i) The incident wave, the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
(ii) The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the angle of reflection ∠r.
These laws can be observed from figure

In the above Figure, the sound waves that travel towards the reflecting surface are called the incident waves. The sound waves bouncing back from the reflecting surface are called reflected waves. For all practical purposes, the point of incidence and the point of reflection is the same point on the reflecting surface.

A perpendicular line drawn at the point of incidence is called the normal. The angle which the incident sound wave makes with the normal is called the angle of incidence, ‘i’. The angle which the reflected wave makes with the normal is called the angle of reflection, ‘r’.

Question 4.
Explain applications of echo.
Answer:
(i) Some animals communicate with each other over long distances and also locate objects by sending the sound signals and receiving the echo as reflected from the targets.

(ii) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(iii) Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.

Question 5.
Explain various applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. To measure the speed of an automobile:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

2. Tracking a satellite:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

3. RADAR (Radio Detection and Ranging):
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircraft are tracked.

4. SONAR:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 6.
Describe (i) Soundboard
(ii) Ear trumpet and
(iii) Megaphone.
Answer:
(i) Sound Board: These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

(ii) Ear trumpet: Ear trumpet is a hearing aid, which is useful by people who have difficulty in hearing. In this device, one end is wide and the other end is narrow. The sound from the sources fall into the wide end and are reflected by its walls into the narrow part of the device. This helps in concentrating the sound and the sound enters the eardrum with more intensity. This enables a person to hear the sound better.

(iii) MegaPhone: A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 7.
What is the Doppler effect? Explain it in several situations.
Answer:
Whenever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

For simplicity of calculation, it is assumed that the medium is at rest, That is the velocity of the medium is zero. Let S and L be the source and the listener moving with velocities v_S and v_L respectively. Consider the case of source and listener moving towards each other. As the distance between them decreases, the apparent frequency will be more than the actual source frequency.

Let n and n’ be the frequency of the sound produced by the source and the sound observed by the listener respectively. Then, the expression for the apparent frequency n’ is
n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_L}{V-V_S}\))n
Here, v is the velocity of sound waves in the given medium. Let us consider different possibilities of motions of the source and the listener. In all such cases, the expression for the apparent frequency is given in table

Suppose the medium (say wind) is moving with a velocity W in the direction of the propagation of sound. For this case, the velocity of sound, ‘v’ should be replaced with (v + W). If the medium moves in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound, then ‘v’ should be replaced with (v – W).

Question 8.
Describe the applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
(i) To measure the speed of an automobile : An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

(ii) Tracking a satellite : The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

(iii) RADAR (RAdio Detection And Ranging) : In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

(iv) SONAR (SOund Navigation And Ranging) : In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 9.
Explain the conditions for no Doppler effect.
Answer:
Under the following circumstances, there will be no Doppler effect and the apparent frequency as heard by the listener will be the same as the source frequency.

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.
3. When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular directions.
4. If the source is situated at the center of the circle along which the listener is moving.

IX. Hot questions:

Question 1.
Why is frequency the most fundamental property of a wave?
Answer:
When a waves travels from one medium to another, its velocity and wavelength may change. But the frequency does not change hence the frequency is the most fundamental property of a wave.

Question 2.
Which properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound?
Answer:
Elasticity and inertia are the properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound.

Question 3.
What does cause the rolling sound of thunder?
Answer:
The multiple reflections of sound of lightning produce the rolling sound of thunder.

Question 4.
On the surface of moon, two astronauts can not talk to each other. Give reason.
Answer:
Sound waves require material medium for their propagation. As there is no ‘ atmosphere, on the moon, hence the sound wave can not propagate on the moon.

Question 5.
If a person places his ear to one end of a long iron pipeline, he can distinctly hear two sound waves when a workman hammers the other end of the pipeline. How?
Answer:
Sound waves travel sixteen times faster in iron than in air. Hence the person hears two sounds, the first one travelling through the iron pipeline and the second travelling through air.

Question 6.
Sound waves travel faster in solids than in liquids and gases. Why?
Answer:
Sound waves travel faster in solids with greatest speed. Because the coefficient of elasticity of solids is much greater than coefficient of elasticity of liquids and gases.

Question 7.
If an explosion takes place at the bottom of a lake, will the shock waves in water be longitudinal or transverse?
Answer:
An explosion in a lake produces shock waves there by creating enormous increase in pressure in water.
A shock wave is thus a longitudinal wave travelling at a speed that is greater than that of a longitudinal wave of ordinary intensity.

Question 8.
Sound can be heard over longer distances on a rainy day. Give reason.
Answer:
On a rainy day, air contains a large amount of water vapour. This decreases the density of air. Hence, sound travels faster in air and can be heard over longer distances.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART -1

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {4, 8, 9, 10}. A function f : A → B given by f = {(1,4),(2, 8),(3,9),(4,10)} is a ………………… .
(1) Many-one function
(2) Identity function
(3) One-to-one function
(4) Into function
Answer:
(3) One-to-one function

Question 2.
If g = {(1,1),(2, 3),(3,5),(4,7)} is a function given by g(x) = αx + β then the values of α and β are ………………… .
(1) (-1,2)
(2) (2,-1)
(3) (-1,-2)
(4) (1,2)
Answer:
(2) (2,-1)

Question 3.
The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive) is ………………… .
(1) 2025
(2) 5220
(3) 5025
(4) 2520
Answer:
(4) 2520

Question 4.
If the sequence t₁, t₂, t₃, are in A.P. then the sequence t₆ ,t₁₂,t₁₈,… is ………………… .
(1) a Geometric progression
(2) an Arithmetic progression
(3) neither an Arithmetic progression nor a Geometric progression
(4) a constant sequence
Answer:
(2) an Arithmetic progression

Question 5.
\(\frac{x}{x^{2}-25}-\frac{8}{x^{2}+6 x+5}\) gives ………………… .
(1) \(\frac{x^{2}-7 x+40}{(x-5)(x+5)}\)
(2) \(\frac{x^{2}+7 x+40}{(x-5)(x+5)(x+1)}\)
(3) \(\frac{x^{2}-7 x+40}{\left(x^{2}-25\right)(x+1)}\)
(4) \(\frac{x^{2}+10}{\left(x^{2}-25\right)(x+1)}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{x^{2}-7 x+40}{\left(x^{2}-25\right)(x+1)}\)

Question 6.
The values of a and b if 4x⁴ – 24x³ + 76x² + ax + b is a perfect square are ………………… .
(1) 100,120
(2) 10,12
(3) -120,100
(4) 12,10
Answer:
(3) -120,100

Question 7.
If ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle with ∠C = 90° and AC = 5 cm, then AB is ………………… .
(1) 2.5 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 5√2 cm
Answer:
(4) 5√2 cm

Question 8.
The area of triangle formed by the points (- 5, 0), (0, – 5) and (5, 0) is ………………… .
(1) 0 sq.units
(2) 25 sq.units
(3) 5 sq.units
(4) none of these
Answer:
(2) 25 sq.units

Question 9.
The value of sin²θ + \(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) is equal to ………………… .
(1) tan²θ
(2) 1
(3) cot²θ
(4) θ
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 10.
If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved keeping the same height, then the ratio of the volume of the cylinder thus obtained to the volume of original cylinder is ………………… .
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 6
(4) 1 : 8
Answer:
(2) 1 : 4

Question 11.
If the mean and coefficient of variation of a data are 4 and 87.5% then the standard deviation is ………………… .
(1) 3.5
(2) 3
(3) 4.5
(4) 2.5
Answer:
(1) 3.5

Question 12.
If α and β are the roots of the equation x² + 2x + 8 = 0 then the value of \(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}+\frac{\beta}{\alpha}\) is ………………… .
(1) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(2) 6
(3) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)
(4) \(\frac { -3 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{-3}{2}\)

Question 13.
If the points (k, 2k) (3k, 3k) and (3, 1) are collinear, then k is ………….. .
(1) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(2) \(\frac { -1 }{ 3 }\)
(3) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)
(4) \(\frac { -2 }{ 3 }\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{-1}{3}\)

Question 14.
If the variance of 14, 18, 22, 26, 30 is 32 then the variance is 28, 36, 44, 52, 60 is ………………… .
(a) 64
(b) 128
(c) 32√2
(d) 32
Answer:
(b) 128

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Represent the given relation {(x, y) |y = x + 3 are natural numbers < 10} by
(i) an arrow diagram (ii) a set in roster form, wherever possible
Answer:
(i)

(ii) R = {(1, 4) (2, 5) (3, 6) (4, 7) (5, 8) (6, 9)}

Question 16.
If f: R → R and g : R → R are defined by f(x) = x⁵ and g(x) = x⁴ then check if f, g are one – one and fog is one – one?
Answer:
f(x) = x⁵ – It is one – one function
g(x) = x⁴ – It is one – one function
fag = f[g{x)] = f(x⁴) = (x⁴)⁵
fog = x²⁰
It is also one-one function.

Question 17.
Find the first five terms of the following sequence.
a₁ = 1, a₂, a_n = \(\frac{a_{n-1}}{a_{n-2}+3}\) ; n ≥ 3 ; n ∈ N
Answer:
The first two terms of this sequence are given by a₁ = 1, a₂ = 1. The third term a₃ depends on the first and second terms.

Similarly the fourth term a₄ depends upon a₂ and a₃.

In the same way, the fifth term a₅ can be calculated as

Therefore, the first fie terms of the sequence are 1,1, \(\frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{16}, \frac{1}{52}\)

Question 18.
If 1³ + 2³ + 3³ +. . . .+ k³ = 44100 then find 1+ 2 + 3 + …. + k
Answer:
1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ………. + K³ = 44100
\(\left[\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\right]^{2}\) = 44100
\(\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\) = \(\sqrt{44100}\) = 210
1 + 2 + 3 + …….. + k = \(\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\)

Question 19.
Find the LCM of the polynomials a² + 4a – 12, a² – 5a + 6 whose GCD is a – 2
Answer:
p(x) = a² + 4a – 12
= a² + 6a – 2a – 12

= a (a + 6) – 2(a + 6)
= (a + 6) (a – 2)
g(x) = a² – 5a + 6
= a² – 3a – 2a + 6

= a(a – 3) – 2 (a – 3)
= (a – 3) (a – 2)
L.C.M. = \(\frac{p(x) \times g(x)}{\text { G.C.D. }}\)
= \(\frac{(a+6)(a-2) \times(a-3)(a-2)}{(a-2)}\)
= (a + 6) (a – 3) (a – 2)

Question 20.
Find the value of ‘k’ whose roots of the equation kx² + (6k + 2)x + 16 = 0 are real and equal.
Answer:

Here a = k, b = 6k+ 2 ; c = 16
Since the equation has real and equal roots .
A = 0
b² – 4ac = 0
(6k + 2)² – 4(k)(16) = 0
36k² + 4 + 24k – 4(k) (16) = 0
36k² – 40k + 4 = 0
(÷ by 4) ⇒ 9k² – 10k + 1 = 0
9k² – 9k – k + 1 = 0
9k(k – 1) – 1(k – 1) = 0
(k – 1) (9k – 1) = 0
k – 1 = 0 or 9k – 1 = 0 ⇒ k = 1 or k = \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\)
The value of k = 1 or \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\)

Question 21.
Find the value of a, b, c, d, x, y from the following matrix equation.
\(\left( \begin{matrix} d & 8 \\ 3b & a \end{matrix} \right) +\left( \begin{matrix} 3 & a \\ -2 & -4 \end{matrix} \right) =\left( \begin{matrix} 2 & 2a \\ b & 4c \end{matrix} \right) +\left( \begin{matrix} 0 & 1 \\ -5 & 0 \end{matrix} \right) \)
Answer:
First, we add the two matrices on both left, right hand sides to get
\(\left( \begin{matrix} d+3 & 8+a \\ 3b-2 & a-4 \end{matrix} \right) =\left( \begin{matrix} 2 & 2a+1 \\ b-5 & 4c \end{matrix} \right) \)
Equating the corresponding elements of the two matrices, we have
d + 3 = 2 gives d = -1
8 + a = 2a + 1 gives a = 7
3b – 2 = b – 5 gives b = \(\frac { -3 }{ 2 }\)
Substituting a = 7 in a – 4 = 4c gives c = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)
Therefore, a = 7, b = \(\frac { -3 }{ 2 }\) ,c = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) , d = -1.

Question 22.
To get from point A to point B you must avoid walking through a pond. You must walk 34 m south and 41m east. To the nearest meter, how many meters would be saved if it were possible to make a way through the pond?
Answer:

In the right ∆ABC,
By Pythagoras theorem
AC² = AB² + BC² = 34² + 41²
= 1156 + 1681 = 2837
AC = √2837
= 53.26 m
Through A one must walk (34m + 41m) 75 m to reach C.
The difference in Distance = 75 – 53.26
= 21.74 m

Question 23.
If the points A(-3, 9), B(a, b) and C(4, -5) are collinear and if a + b = 1, then find a and b.
Answer:
Since the three points are collinear
Area of a ∆ = 0
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)[(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃)]

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)[(-36 – 5a 4- 36) – (9a + 46 + 15)] = 0
-36 – 5a + 36 – 9a -4b – 15 = 0
-7b – 14a + 21=0
(÷ by 7) – b – 2a + 3 = 0
2a + b – 3 = 0

Subtract (1) and (2) ⇒ a = 2
Substitute the value of a = 2 in (2) ⇒ 2 + 6 = 1
b = 1 – 2 = -1
The value of a = 2 and b = -1

Question 24.
Prove that \(\frac{\sin A}{1+\cos A}+\frac{\sin A}{1-\cos A}\) = 2 cosec A.
Answer:

Question 25.
The probability that atleast one of A and B occur is 0.6. If A and B occur simultaneously with probability 0.2, then find P(Ā) + P(B̄).
Answer:
Here p(A ∪ B) = 0.6, p(A ∩ B) = 0.2
p(A ∪ B) = p(A) + p(B) – p(A ∩ B)
0.6 = p(A) + P(B) – 0.2
∴ p(A) + p(B) = 0.8
P(Ā) + P(B̄) = 1 – p(A) + 1 – p(B)
= 2 – [p(A) + p(B)]
= 2 – 0.8 = 1.2

Question 26.
If n = 10, X̄ = 12 and Σx² = 1530, then calculate the coefficient of variation.
Answer:
Given that n = 10, X̄ = \(\frac{\Sigma x}{n}\) = 12, Σx² = 1530

(σ) = 3
coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}} \times 100\) ⇒ \(\frac{3}{12} \times 100=25\)
∴ coefficient of variation = 25

Question 27.
Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube whose edge is 14 cm.
Answer:
Given, Edge of the cube = 14 cm
The largest circular cone is cut out from the cube.
Radius of the cone (r) = \(\frac { 14 }{ 2 }\) = 7 cm
Height of the cone (h) = 14 cm
Volume of a cone = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) πr²h cu. units
= \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 7 × 14 cm³
= \(\frac{22 \times 7 \times 14}{3}\) cm³
∴ Volume of a cone = 718.67 cm³

Question 28.
Find the sum of the first 40 terms of the series 1² – 2² + 3² – 4² + …..
Answer:
The given series is 1² – 2² + 3² – 4² + …. 40 terms
Grouping the terms we get,
(1² – 2²) + (3² – 4²) + (5² – 6²) + ………… 20 terms
(1 – 4) + (9 – 16) + (25 – 36) + …………. 20 terms
(-3) + (-7) + (-11) + ………… 20 term
This is an A.P
Here a = – 3, d = – 7 – (- 3) = – 7 + 3 = -4, n = 20
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
S₂₀ = \(\frac { 20 }{ 2 }\)[2(-3) + 19(-4)]
= 10 (- 6 – 76) = 10 (- 82) = – 820
∴ Sum of 40 terms of the series is = 820.

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Find x if gff(x) = fgg(x), given f(x) = 3x + 1 and g(x) = x + 3.

Question 30.
In a G.P the product of three consecutive terms is 27 and the sum of the product of two terms taken at a time is \(\frac{57}{2}\).Find the three terms.

Question 31.
The 13th term of an A.P. is 3 and the sum of first 13 terms is 234. Find the common difference and the sum of first 21 terms.

Question 32.
If Sn = (x + y) + (x² + xy + y²) + (x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) + ………… n terms then prove that (x – y)S_n = \(\left[\frac{x^{2}\left(x^{n}-1\right)}{x-1}-\frac{y^{2}\left(y^{n}-1\right)}{y-1}\right]\)

Question 33.
Two women together took 100 eggs to a market, one had more than the other. Both sold them for the same sum of money. The first then said to the second: “If I had your eggs, I would have earned ₹15”, to which the second replied: “If I had your eggs, I would have earned ₹6 \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) ”. How many eggs did each had in the beginning?

Question 34.
If the roots of (a – b)x² + (b – c)x + (c – a) = 0 are real and equal, then prove that b, a, c are in arithmetic progression.

Question 35.
A circle is inscribed in AABC having sides 8 cm, 10 cm and 12 cm as shown in figure, Find AD, BE and CF.

Question 36.
The line joining the points A(0,5) and B(4,1) is a tangent to a circle whose centre C is at the point (4, 4) find
(i) the equation of the line AB.
(ii) the equation of the line through C which is perpendicular to the line AB.
(iii) the coordinates of the point of contact of tangent line AB with the circle.

Question 37.
If sin θ (1 + sin²θ) = cos²θ , then prove that cos⁶θ – 4 cos⁴θ + 8 cos²θ = 4

Question 38.
A toy is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a hemisphere. The height of the toy is 25 cm. Find the total surface area of the toy if its common diameter is 12 cm.

Question 39.
Find the coefficient of variation of 24, 26, 33, 37, 29, 31.

Question 40.
The probability that A, B and C can solve a problem are \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\), \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) and \(\frac { 3 }{ 7 }\) respectively. The probability of the problem being solved by A and B is \(\frac { 8 }{ 15}\),B and C is \(\frac { 2 }{ 7 }\) , A and C is \(\frac { 12 }{ 13 }\) . The probability of the problem being solved by all the three is \(\frac { 8 }{ 35 }\). Find the probability that the problem can be solved by atleast one of them.

Question 41.
Verify that (AB)_T = B_TA_T if A = \(\left( \begin{matrix} 2 & 3 & -1 \\ 4 & 1 & 5 \end{matrix} \right) \) and B = \(\left( \begin{matrix} 1 & -2 \\ 3 & -3 \\ 2 & 6 \end{matrix} \right) \)

Question 42.
A function f(-3, 7) → R is defined as follows

Find (i) 5f(1) -3f(-2) (ii) 3f(-3) + 4 f(4) (iii) \(\frac{7 f(3)-f(-1)}{2 f(6)-f(1)}\)

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a ∆PQR such that QR = 6.5 cm, ∠P = 60° and the altitude from P to QR is of length 4.5 cm.

[OR]

(b) Draw a tangent to the circle from the point P having radius 3.6 cm, and centre at O. Point P is at a distance 7.2 cm from the centre.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² + x and hence solve x² + 1 = 0

[OR]

(b) Solve graphically (x + 2) (x + 4) = 0

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 3

நேரம்: 3.00 மணி 
மதிப்பெண்கள் : 100

(குறிப்புகள்:

• இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க – வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. காக
• பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்குத் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வினா எண். 1 முதல் 15 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து குறியீட்டுடன் எழுதவும்.
• வினா எண் 16 முதல் 28 வரை பகுதி-IIல் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன: ஏதேனும் 9 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 29 முதல் 37 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் மூன்று மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  ஏதேனும் 6 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 38 முதல் 42 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஐந்து மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஏதேனும் 5 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 43 முதல் 45 வரை பகுதி-Vல் எட்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.

பகுதி – 1 (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 15)

(i) அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
(ii) கொடுக்கப்பட்ட நான்கு விடைகளில் சரியான விடையினைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதுக. [15 × 1 = 15]

(குறிப்பு: விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் உள்ளன.)

Question 1.
காசிக்காண்ட ம் என்பது …………………
(அ) காசி நகரத்தின் பெருமையைப் பாடும் நூல்
(ஆ) காசி நகரத்தைக் குறிக்கும் மறுபெயர்
(இ) காசி நகரத்தின் வரலாற்றைப் பாடும் நூல்
(ஈ) காசி நகரத்திற்கு வழிப்படுத்தும் நூல்
Answer:
(அ) காசி நகரத்தின் பெருமையைப் பாடும் நூல்

Question 2.
தொல்காப்பியம் குறிப்பிடும் இசைக்கருவி …………………
(அ) ஜால்ரா
(ஆ) உறுமி
(இ) பறை
(ஈ) நாகசுரம்
Answer:
(இ) பறை

Question 3.
அஃறிணையில்………….க் குறிப்பது ஒன்றன்பால் ஆகும்.
(அ) ஒன்றினை
(ஆ) இரண்டினை
(இ) மூன்றினை
(ஈ) நான்கினை
Answer:
(அ) ஒன்றினை

Question 4.
ஜெயகாந்தன் படைப்புகளில் சாகித்திய அகாதெமி விருதுபெற்ற நூல். …………………
(அ) யாருக்காக அழுதான்
(ஆ) சில நேரங்களில் சில மனிதர்கள்
(இ) உன்னைப் போல் ஒருவன்
(ஈ) ஒரு நடிகை நாடகம் பார்க்கிறாள்
Answer:
(ஆ) சில நேரங்களில் சில மனிதர்கள்

Question 5.
மெய்க்கீ ர்த்திகள்………..
(அ) புலவர்களால் எழுதப்பட்டுக் கல்தச்சர்களால் கல்லில் பொறிக்கப்பட்டவை
(ஆ) மக்களின் எண்ணங்களாகப் புகழ்ந்து பாடப்பட்டவை
(இ) இலக்கியங்களாக ஓலையில் எழுதப்பட்டவை
(ஈ) புகழைப் பரப்பும் வகையில் துணியில் எழுதப்பட்டவை
Answer:
(அ) புலவர்களால் எழுதப்பட்டுக் கல்தச்சர்களால் கல்லில் பொறிக்கப்பட்டவை

Question 6.
செய்தி 1 – ஒவ்வோர் ஆண்டும் ஜுன் 15 ஐ உலகக் காற்று நாளாகக் கொண்டாடி வருகிறோம்.
செய்தி 2 – காற்றாலை மின் உற்பத்தியில் இந்தியாவில் தமிழகம் இரண்டாமிடம் என்பது எனக்குப் பெருமையே.
செய்தி 3 – காற்றின் ஆற்றலைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கடல் கடந்து வணிகம் செய்து அதில் வெற்றி கண்டவர்கள் தமிழர்கள்.
(அ) செய்தி 1 மட்டும் சரி
(ஆ) செய்தி 1, 2 ஆகியன சரி
(இ) செய்தி 3 மட்டும் சரி
(ஈ) செய்தி 1, 3 ஆகியன சரி
Answer:
(இ) செய்தி 3 மட்டும் சரி

Question 7.
இலக்கண முறையுடன் பிழையின்றிப் பேசுவதும் எழுதுவதும்………….. எனப்ப டும்.
(அ) வழு
(ஆ) வழாநிலை
(இ) தொடர்நிலை
(ஈ) அறிமுகநிலை
Answer:
(ஆ) வழாநிலை

Question 8.
கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள குறிப்புகளுக்குப் பொருத்தமான தலைப்பு எது?
குறிப்பு: (i) கண்காணிப்புக் கருவி, அசைவு நிகழும் பக்கம் தன் பார்வையைத் திருப்புகிறது.
(ii) திறன் பேசியில் உள்ள வரைபடம் போக்குவரத்திற்குச் சுருக்கமான வழியைக் காண்பிக்கிறது.
(அ) இணையம்
(ஆ) மடிக்கணினி
(இ) கணினி
(ஈ) செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவு
Answer:
(ஈ) செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவு

Question 9.
“வீட்டில் தக்காளி இல்லை, நீ கடைக்குச் செல்கிறாயா?” என்று அக்கா தம்பியிடம் கேட்பது …. வினா. அதற்கு, நான் போக மாட்டேன் எனத் தம்பி கூறுவது …………………விடை
(அ) அறிவினா, இனமொழி விடை
(ஆ) ஏவல் வினா, நேர்விடை
(இ) ஏவல்வினா, மறை விடை
(ஈ) ஐயவினா, சுட்டுவிடை
Answer:
(இ) ஏவல்வினா, மறை விடை

Question 10.
செய்யுளில் எழுவாய்களை வரிசைப்படுத்தி, அவை ஏற்கும் பயனிலைகளை எதிர் எதிராகக் கொண்டு பொருள் கொள்ளுதல்……………… ஆகும்.
(அ) கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள்
(ஆ) எதிர் நிரல்நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்
(இ) ஆற்றுநீர்ப் பொருள்கோள்
(ஈ) நிரல்நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்
Answer:
(ஆ) எதிர் நிரல்நிறைப் பொருள்கோள்

Question 11.
காலக்கணிதம் கவிதையில் இடம்பெற்ற தொடர் …………………
(அ) இகழ்ந்தால் என்மனம் இறந்துவிடாது
(ஆ) என்மனம் இகழ்ந்தால் இறந்துவிடாது
(இ) இகழ்ந்தால் இறந்துவிடாது என்மனம்
(ஈ) இறந்துவிடாது இகழ்ந்தால் என்மனம்
Answer:
(அ) இகழ்ந்தால் என்மனம் இறந்துவிடாது

பாடலைப் படித்துப் பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு (12, 13, 14, 15) விடை தருக.
“வண்ணமும் சுண்ணமும் தண்நறுஞ் சாந்தமும்
பூவும் புகையும் மேவிய விரையும்
பகர்வனர் திரிதிரு நகர வீதியும்;
பட்டினும் மயிரினும் பருத்தி நூலினும்
கட்டு நுண்வினைக் காருகர் இருக்கையும்;
தூசும் துகிரும் ஆரமும் அகிலும்”

Question 12.
பாடலில் அமைந்துள்ள மோனைச் சொற்கள் …………………
(அ) பகர்வனர், பட்டினும்
(ஆ) காருகர், துகிரும்
(இ) பட்டினும், மயிரினும்
(ஈ) நூலினும், அகிலும்
Answer:
(அ) பகர்வனர், பட்டினும்

Question 13.
இப்பாடலில் காணப்படும் நறுமணப் பொருள் ……………….
(அ) துகிர், தூசு
(ஆ) ஆரம், அகில்
(இ) சுண்ண ம், அகில்
(ஈ) பட்டு, பருத்தி
Answer:
(ஆ) ஆரம், அகில்

Question 14.
பாடலில் அமைந்துள்ள எதுகைச் சொற்கள் …………………
(அ) பட்டினும், கட்டு
(ஆ) தூசும், துகிரும்
(இ) ஆரமும், அகிலும்
(ஈ) மயிரினும், நூலினும்
Answer:
(அ) பட்டினும், கட்டு

Question 15.
பாடலில் அமைந்துள்ள இயைபுச் சொற்களை எழுதுக.
(அ) பட்டினும், கட்டு
(ஆ) பருத்தி, காருகர்
(இ) விரையும், வீதியும்
(ஈ) காருகர், மேவிய
Answer:
(இ) விரையும், வீதியும்

பகுதி – II (மதிப்பெண்க ள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் நான்கு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க.
21 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 16.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினா அமைக்க.
(அ) கண்ணதாசனின் கவிதைத் தொகுப்பில் இடம் பெற்ற பகுதியின் பெயர்
காலக்கணிதம் ஆகும்.
(ஆ) தொல்காப்பியர், ‘உலகம் என்பது ஐம்பெரும் பூதங்களால் ஆனது’ என்கிறார்.
Answer:
விடை:
(அ) கண்ணதாசனின் கவிதைத் தொகுப்பில் இடம் பெற்ற பகுதியின் பெயர் என்ன?
(ஆ) தொல்காப்பியர் உலகம் எவற்றால் ஆனது என்கிறார்?

Question 17.
பெருஞ்சித்திரனார் எழுதிய நூல்கள் யாவை?
Answer:

•  உலகியல் நூறு
• பாவியக்கொத்து
• நூறாசிரியம்
• கனிச்சாறு
• எண்சுவை எண்பது
• மகபுகுவஞ்சி
• பள்ளிப்பறவைகள் முதலியனவாகும்.

Question 18.
மெய்க்கீர்த்தி பாடப்படுவதன் நோக்கம் யாது?
Answer:
அரசர்கள் தங்கள் வரலாறும் பெருமையும் காலம் கடந்தும் நிலைக்க விரும்பினார்கள்; அழியாத வகையில் அதனைக் கல்லில் செதுக்கினார்கள். சங்க இலக்கியமான பதிற்றுப்பத்துப் பாடல்களின் இறுதியிலுள்ள பதிகங்கள் இதற்கு முன்னோடி! பல்லவர் கல்வெட்டுகளிலும் பாண்டியர் செப்பேடுகளிலும் முளைவிட்ட இவ்வழக்கம், சோழர் காலத்தில் மெய்க்கீர்த்தி எனப் பெயர் பெற்றது; செப்பமான வடிவம் பெற்றது; கல் இலக்கியமாய் அமைந்தது.

Question 19.
நிகழ்கலை என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:

• சிற்றூர் மக்களின் வாழ்வியல் நிகழ்வுகளில் பிரித்துப் பார்க்க இயலாக் கூறுகளாகத் திகழ்பவை நிகழ்கலைகள்.
• மக்களுக்கு மகிழ்ச்சியெனும் கனி கொடுத்துக் கவலையைப் போக்குகின்றன.
• சமுதாய நிகழ்வுகளின் ஆவணங்களாகவும் செய்திகளைத் தரும் ஊடகங்களாகவும் . திகழ்கின்றன
• பழந்தமிழ் மக்களின் கலை, அழகியல், புதுமை ஆகியவற்றின் எச்சங்களை அறிவதற்குத் தற்காலத்தில் நிகழ்த்தப்படும் கலைகள் துணைசெய்கின்றன .

Question 20.
தலைப்பு: மொழிபெயர்ப்பு
Answer:
குறிப்பு: எப்பொழுது உலகத்தில் நான்கைந்து மொழிகள் உருவாயினவோ அப்பொழுதே மொழி பெயர்ப்பும் வந்து விட்டது கருத்துப்பரிமாற்றம் தகவல் பகிர்வு அறநூல் அறிதல், இலக்கியம், தத்துவம் என்பன எல்லாம் மொழி பெயர்ப்பு வழியாகவே சர்வதேசத்தன்மை பெறுகின்றன.

Question 21.
‘எப்பொருள்’ எனத் தொடங்கும் குறள் எழுதுக.
Answer:
எப்பொருள் எத்தன்மைத் தாயினும் அப்பொருள் ]
மெய்ப்பொருள் காண்ப தறிவு.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் ஐந்து வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க. [5 × 2 = 10]

Question 22.
உவமையைப் பயன்படுத்திச் சொற்றொடர் உருவாக்குக. சிலை மேல் எழுத்து போல
Answer:
விடை: நான் கூறிய அனைத்தும் சிலை மேல் எழுத்துப் போல் நிதர்சனமான உண்மையே ஆகும்.

Question 23.
எழுத்துப் பிழைகளைத் திருத்தி எழுதுக.
(அ) விலக்கு நன்றாக எறிந்தது.
Answer:
விடை:
விளக்கு நன்றாக எரிந்தது.

(ஆ) பரவை இறையாகப் பயிரு வகைகளைத் தின்னும்.
Answer:
விடை:
பறவை இரையாகப் பயிறு வகைகளைத் தின்னும்.

Question 24.
இரு சொற்களையும் ஒரே தொடரில் அமைக்கவும்.
கொள் – கோள்
Answer:
விடை:
கோள்களைப் பற்றிய ஆய்வினை விரைவில் மேற்கொள்ள வேண்டும்.

Question 25.
கலைச்சொற்கள் தருக. Irrigation – பாசனம்
Answer:
Territory – நிலப்பகுதி

Question 26.
கொடுக்கப்பட்ட இரு சொற்களைப் பயன்படுத்தி ஒரு தொடர் அமைக்க.
வளி – வழி
Answer:
வளிமண்டலத்திற்குச் செல்லும் வழியில் புகைமண்டலம்.

Question 27.
பொருத்தமான நிறுத்தற் குறிகளை இடுக.
தமிழகத்தில் மதுரை திண்டுக்கல் திருச்சி தஞ்சாவூர் கோயம்புத்தூர் திருநெல்வேலி
முதலிய மாவட்டங்களில் நிகழ்த்தப்படுகிறது
Answer:
விடை:
தமிழகத்தில் மதுரை, திண்டுக்கல், திருச்சி, தஞ்சாவூர், கோயம்புத்தூர், திருநெல்வேலி முதலிய மாவட்டங்களில் நிகழ்த்தப்படுகிறது.

Question 28.
எவையெவை, கட்டிய – இலக்கணக்குறிப்பு தருக.
Answer:
எவையெவை – அடுக்குத்தொடர்
கட்டிய – பெயரெச்சம்

பகுதி – III (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 29.
இலக்கியங்களில் காற்று எப்படி நீங்கா இடத்தைப் பிடித்திருக்கிறது?
Answer:
தென்றலாகிய காற்று, பலவித மலர்களின் நறுமணத்தை அள்ளி வரும்பொழுது கூடவே வண்டுகளையும் அழைத்து வருவதால், இளங்கோவடிகள் காற்றை,

“வண்டொடு புக்க மணவாய்த் தென்றல் ”
என நயம்பட உரைக்கிறார்.
பலபட்டடைச் சொக்கநாதப் புலவர் எழுதிய பத்மகிரிநாதர் தென்றல் விடுதூது என்னும் சிற்றிலக்கியத்தில் பெண்ணொருத்தி,

“நந்தமிழம் தண் பொருநை நன்னதியும் சேர் பொருப்பிற் செந்தமிழின் பின்னுதித்த தென்றலே”

எனத் தூது செல்ல காற்றை அன்போடு அழைக்கிறாள். அதுமட்டுமல்ல

“நதியில் விளையாடிக் கொடியில் தலைசீவி நடந்த இளந்தென்றலே”

எனப் பலவாறாக இன்றளவும் இலக்கியப் படைப்புகளிலும், திரையிசைப் பாடல்களிலும் காற்று நீங்கா இடம் பிடித்திருக்கிறது.

Question 30.
தாவரத்தின் அடிப்பகுதியைக் குறிப்பதற்கான சொற்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:
ஒரு தாவரத்தின் அடிப்பகுதியைக் குறிப்பதற்கான சொற்கள்.
நெல், கேழ்வரகு முதலியவற்றின் அடி : தாள்
கீரை, வாழை முதலியவற்றின் அடி : தண்டு
நெட்டி, மிளகாய்ச்செடி முதலியவற்றின் அடி : கோல்
குத்துச்செடி, புதர் முதலியவற்றின் அடி : தூறு
கம்பு, சோளம் முதலியவற்றின் அடி : தட்டு அல்லது தட்டை
கரும்பின் அடி : கழி
மூங்கிலின் அடி : கழை
புளி, வேம்பு முதலியவற்றின் அடி :அடி

Question 31.
உரைப்பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை தருக.
சீனநாட்டில் தமிழ்க் கல்வெட்டு!
Answer:
சீனநாட்டில் ‘கர்ண்டன்’ நகருக்கு 500 கல் வடக்கே சூவன்சௌ என்னும் துறைமுக நகர் உள்ளது. பண்டைய காலத்திலும் இது சிறந்த துறைமுகமாக விளங்கிற்று. அந்தக் காலத்தில் தமிழ் வணிகர்கள் இந்நகருக்கு அடிக்கடி வந்து சென்றுள்ளனர். அதன் காரணமாக சீனாவில் சிவன் கோவில் ஒன்று கட்டப்பட்டது. அது சீனப் பேரரசரான குப்லாய்கானின் ஆணையின் கீழ் கட்டப்பட்டது என்பதைக் குறிக்கும் தமிழ்க் கல்வெட்டு இன்றும் இக்கோயிலில் உள்ளது. இக்கோயிலில் சோழர்காலச் சிற்பங்கள் அமைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன.

(அ) சீனநாட்டில் உள்ள துறைமுகத்தின் பெயர் என்ன?
Answer:
‘காண்டன்’ நகருக்கு 500 கல் வடக்கே சூவன்சௌ ‘ என்னும் துறைமுக நகர் உள்ளது.

(ஆ) சீன நாட்டில் உள்ள கோவில் எது?
Answer:
சிவன் கோவில் (இ) சீனநாட்டில் உள்ள கல்வெட்டில் எவ்வரசரின் சிறப்புள்ளது? சோழர்காலச் சிற்பங்கள்

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க.
34 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 32.
மலைபடுகடாம் குறிப்பு எழுதுக.
Answer:

• பத்துப்பாட்டு நூல்களுள் ஒன்று ‘மலைபடுகடாம்’ 583 அடிகளைக் கொண்ட இது கூத்தராற்றுப்படை எனவும் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.
• மலையை யானையாக உருவகம் செய்து மலையில் எழும் பலவகை ஓசைகளை அதன் மதம் என்று விளக்குவதால் இதற்கு மலைபடுகடாம் எனக் கற்பனை நயம் வாய்ந்த பெயர் சூட்டப்பட்டுள்ளது.
• நன்னன் என்னும் குறுநில மன்னனைப் பாட்டுடைத் தலைவனாக் கொண்டு இரணிய முட்டத்துப் பெருங்குன்றூர் பெருங்கௌசிகனார் பாடியது மலைபடுகடாம்,

Question 33.
செய்குதம்பிப் பாவலன் குறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:

• ‘சதாவதானம்’ என்னும் கலையில் சிறந்து விளங்கிய செய்குதம்பிப் பாவலர் (1874 – 1950), கன்னியாகுமரி மாவட்டம் இடலாக்குடி என்னும் ஊரைச் சேர்ந்தவர்.
• பதினைந்து வயதிலேயே செய்யுள் இயற்றும் திறன் பெற்றவர்; சீறாப்புராணத்திற்கு உரை எழுதியவர்.
• 1907 மார்ச் 10 ஆம் நாளில் சென்னை விக்டோரியா அரங்கத்தில் அறிஞர் பலர் முன்னிலையில் நூறு செயல்களை ஒரே நேரத்தில் செய்து காட்டி ‘சதாவதானி’ என்று பாராட்டுப்பெற்றார்.
• இவர் நினைவைப் போற்றும் வகையில் இடலாக்குடியில் மணிமண்டபமும் பள்ளியும் ‘ உள்ள ன.
• இவரது அனைத்து நூல்களும் நாட்டுடைமை ஆக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன.

Question 34.
அடிபிறழாமல் எழுதுக.
அ) “நவமணி வடக்கயில் போல்” எனத் தொடங்கும் ‘தேம்பாவணி’ பாடல். Answer:
நவமணி வடக்க யில்போல்
நல்லறப் படலைப் பூட்டும்
தவமணி மார்பன் சொன்ன
தன்னிசைக்கு இசைகள் பாடத்
துவமணி மரங்கள் தோறும்
துணர் அணிச் சுனைகள் தோறும்
உவமணி கானம்கொல் என்று
ஒலித்து அழுவ போன்றே (- வீரமாமுனிவர்)

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) “தண்டலை” எனத் தொடங்கும் ‘கம்பராமாயணம்’ பாலகாண்டம் பாடல்.
Answer:
தண்டலை மயில்களாட தாமரை விளக்கந் தாங்க
கொண்டல்கள் முழவினேங்க குவளைகண் விழித்து நோக்க,
தெண்டிரை யெழினி காட்ட தேம்பிழி மகரயாழின்
வண்டுகளினிதுபாட மருதம் வீற்றிருக்கும்மாதோ. (- கம்பர்.)

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க.  [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 35.
வஞ்சித்திணையும், காஞ்சித்திணையும் விளக்குக.
Answer:
வஞ்சித்திணை, மண் (நாடு) சொத்தாக மாறிய காலத்தில் மண்ணைக் கவர்தல் போராயிற்று. மண்ணாசை காரணமாகப் பகைவர் நாட்டைக் கைப்பற்றக் கருதி வஞ்சிப்பூவைச் சூடிப் போருக்குச் செல்வது வஞ்சித்திணை. வட்கார் மேல் செல்வது வஞ்சி தன் நாட்டைக் கைப்பற்ற வந்த மாற்றரசனோடு, காஞ்சிப்பூவைச் சூடி எதிர்த்துப் போரிடல் காஞ்சித்திணை. உட்காது எதிருன்றால் காஞ்சி

Question 36.
‘பொருளென்னும் பொய்யா விளக்கம் இருளறுக்கும்
எண்ணிய தேய்த்துச் சென்று ‘ – இக்குறட்பாவினை அலகிட்டு வாய்பாடு தருக.
Answer:

Question 37.
பிறிதுமொழிதல் அணி – விளக்குக.
Answer:
அணிவிளக்கம்:
கவிஞர் ஒரு செய்யுளில் உவமையை மட்டும் கூறி உவமேயத்தைப் பெற வைப்பது பிறிதுமொழிதல் அணியாகும்.

(எ.கா.) “பீலிபெய் சாகாடும் அச்சிறு அப்பண்டம்
சால மிகுத்துப் பெயின் .

உவமை:
மிக மென்மையான மயிலிறகை அளவுக்கு அதிகமாய் வண்டியில் ஏற்றினால் மிக வலிமையான அவ்வண்டியின் அச்சு முறிந்து விடும்,

உவமேயம்:
ஒருவன் வலியனே ஆயினும் அவன் எளியர் என்று பகைவர் மேல் செல்வானாயின் அவர்கள் ஒன்று கூடினால் அவன் வலியறிந்து கெட்டுப்போக நேரிடும் என்னும் உவமேயப் பொருள் பெறப்படுகிறது. அதனால் இது பிறிது மொழிதலணியாகும்.

பகுதி – IV (மதிப்பெண்க ள்: 25)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்க. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 38. (அ) ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் என்பது அன்றைக்குப் புலவர்களையும் கலைஞர்களையும் வள்ளல்களை நோக்கி நெறிப்படுத்துவதாக இருந்தது. அது இன்றைய நிலையில் ஒரு வழிகாட்டுதலாக மாறியிருப்பதை விளக்குக.
Answer:

• ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் என்பது வள்ளலை நாடி எதிர்வருபவர்களை அழைத்து யாம்
  இவ்விடத்தேச் சென்று இன்னவெல்லாம் பெற்று வருகின்றோம்.
• நீயும் அந்த வள்ளலிடம் சென்று வளம் பெற்று வாழ்வாயாக என்று கூறுதல் ஆற்றுப்படை ஆகும்.
• ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் என்பது இன்றைய நிலையில் ஒரு வழிகாட்டுதலாக இருக்கிறது.
• தன்னிடம் இல்லை என்றோ அல்லது தெரியாது என்றோ கூறாமல் யார் வந்தாலும் அவர்களுக்கு வழிகாட்டுதலாகவும் இருக்கிறது.
• அவர்களுக்கு அறிவுரை கூறி அவர்களை வழிகாட்டுகின்றனர். அன்றைய ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் இன்றைய வழிகாட்டுதலாக மாறியுள்ளது.
• இது ஒவ்வொரு நிலையிலும் மாற்றம் அடைந்துள்ளது. உதவி தேவைப்படுபவர்களுக்கு பெரும் உதவியாக இருந்து வருகிறது.
• இதுவே இன்றைய ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் ஆகும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) காலக்கணிதம் கவிதையில் பொதிந்துள்ள நயங்களைப் பாராட்டி எழுதுக.
Answer:
கவிஞன் யானோர் காலக் கணிதம்
கருப்படு பொருளை உருப்பட வைப்பேன்!
புவியில் நானோர் புகழுடைத் தெய்வம்
பொன்னினும் விலைமிகு பொருளென் செல்வம்!
இவைசரி யென்றால் இயம்புவதென் தொழில்
இவைதவ றாயின் எதிர்ப்பதென் வேலை!
ஆக்கல் அளித்தல் அழித்தல் இம் மூன்றும்
அவனும் யானுமே அறிந்தவை, அறிக! (- கண்ணதாசன் )

கருத்து:
நான் தான் காலக் கணிதன் கருப்படும் பொருளை உருப்படவைப்பேன்! புவியில் நல்லவர்கள் பலபேர் இருக்கின்றனர். பொன்னும் விலைமிகு பொருளும் இருக்கிறது. அது செல்வம், இதுசரி, இது தவறு என்று சொல்வது என் வேலை, செய்வது தவறாயின் எதிர்ப்பது என் வேலை சரி என்றால் புகழ்வது என் தொழில். ஆக்கல் காத்தல், அழித்தல் இம்மூன்றும் இறைவனும் நானும் மட்டுமே அறிந்த தொழில்களாகும்.

எதுகை: செய்யுளின் இரண்டாம் எழுத்து ஒன்றிவரத் தொடுப்பது எதுகை.
கவிஞன், புவியில்

மோனை: செய்யுளில் முதல் எழுத்து ஒன்றிவரத் தொடுப்பது மோனை.
கவிஞன், காலம், கணிதம், கருப்படு

முரண்: சரி x தவறு, ஆக்கல் x அழித்தல்

சொல் நயம்: கவிஞன் யானோர் காலக் கணிதம்
கருப்படு பொருளை உருப்பட வைப்பேன்

என்ற சொற்றொடர்களை அமைத்துப் பாடலுக்குச் சிறப்புச் சேர்த்துள்ளார்.
(எ.கா) தெய்வம் எனத் தன்னைக் கூறும் கவிஞர் புகழுடைத் தெய்வம் என்ற சொற்றொடரைக் கையாளும் நயம் படித்து இன்புறத்தக்கது.

பொருள் நயம்: ஆக்கல் அளித்தல் அழித்தல் இம்மூன்றும்
அவனும் யானுமே அறிந்தவை

என்றும் ஆழ்ந்த பொருள் சுவை உடையது (எ.கா) தன் செல்வம் எது எனக் கூற வந்த கவிஞர், பொன் விலை உயர்ந்தது. அதைக் காட்டிலும் விலை உயர்ந்த கவிதைப்பொருளே என் செல்வம் எனக் கூறியிருக்கும். இக்கவிதையின்
பொருள்நயம் போற்றுதற்குரியது.

Question 39.
(அ) அலுவலக உதவியாளர் பணிக்கு தன்விவரப் பட்டியல் ஒன்றைத் தயார் செய்க.
Answer:

மேற்கண்ட விவரங்கள் அனைத்தும் உண்மையென உறுதி கூறுகிறேன். தங்கள்’ நிறுவனத்தில் உதவியாளர் பணி தந்தால் என் பணியைச் சிறப்பாகச் செய்வேன் என உறுதி கூறுகிறேன்.

நன்றி,
இடம் : மதுரை
தேதி : 18.04.2019

இங்ஙனம்,
தங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள,
கவிமணி.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) உங்கள் பள்ளியில் நடைபெறும் நாட்டுநலப்பணித்திட்ட முகாமின் தொடக்க விழாவில் மாணவர்களுக்கு வாழ்த்துரை வழங்க உரை ஒன்றை உருவாக்கித் தருக.
Answer:
இங்கு வந்திருக்கும் அனைவருக்கும் வணக்கம்.
எம்பள்ளியின் நாட்டு நலப்பணித் திட்டமுகாம் தொடக்க விழாவிற்கு வந்திருக்கும் அனைவரையும் வணங்குகிறேன்.

மாணவர்களின் மனதில் நாட்டை பற்றிய அக்கறை வளர வேண்டும். “ கடமையைச் செய் பலனை எதிர்பாராதே” அவர்களின் கடமைகளை உணரச் செய்ய வேண்டும். அப்போதுதான் பொறுப்பான சமுதாயம் வளரும். மாணவர்களின் எண்ணங்கள் உயர்ந்ததாக இருக்க வேண்டும். நாட்டின் மீது அக்கறைக் கொள்ள வேண்டும். சுற்று சூழலை சுத்தமாக வைத்துக் கொள்ள வேண்டும். இந்த நாட்டுநலப்பணித் திட்டத்தில் பங்கு கொண்ட மாணவர்கள் அனைவரும் மிக சிறப்பாக தங்கள் பணிகளைச் செய்து காட்டினர். ஒவ்வொரு மாணவனும் ஆர்வமாகவும் சுறுசுறுப்பாகவும் இருப்பதைப் பார்த்தால் நம் நாடு விரைவில் வல்லரசாகும் என்பதில் ஐயமில்லை. வாய்ப்புக்கு வழிகொடுத்த அனைவருக்கும் வணக்கம்.

Question 40.
படம் உணர்த்தும் கருத்தை நயமுற ஐந்து தொடர்களில் எழுதுக.
Answer:
விருப்புடன் செய்திடு ஈகை
வெறுப்புகள் வேண்டாம் தம்பி
ஒரு பிறவியில் செய்திடும் நன்மை
ஏழு பிறவிகள் தொடர்ந்திடுமாமே!
வாழ்த்துவோர் வாழ்த்தட்டும்
வானமும் வையமும் என்றும்
உன் குணம் போற்றட்டுமே!

Question 41.
நூலக உறுப்பினர் படிவம் நிரப்புக.

Question 42.
(அ) ஒவ்வொரு சூழலிலும் ஒருவருக்கு ஒருவர் உதவி செய்தபடி இருக்கிறார்கள்; உதவி பெற்றபடியும் இருக்கிறார்கள்; சில உதவிகள் அவர்கள் மீதுள்ள அன்பினால் செய்கிறோம்; சில உதவிகள் இரக்கத்தால் செய்கிறோம். தொடர்வண்டியில் பாட்டுப் பாடிவரும் ஒருவருக்கு நம்மையறியாமல் பிச்சை போடுகிறோம். தொல்லை வேண்டாம் என்று கருதி, வேண்டாவெறுப்போடு சில இடங்களில் உதவி செய்கிறோம்!
நீங்கள் செய்த, பார்த்த உதவிகளால் எய்திய மனநிலையை எழுதுக.
Answer:
உதவி

1. வகுப்பறையில் எழுதுகோல் கொடுத்து உதவியபோது
2. உறவினருக்கு என் அம்மா பணம் அளித்து உதவியபோது
3. முதியவருக்குக் காசுகொடுத்து உதவியது

மனநிலை :

1. இக்கட்டான சூழலில் செய்த உதவியால் எனக்கு மனநிறைவு ; அவருக்கு மனமகிழ்ச்சி!
2. கல்லூரிப் படிப்பைத் தொடர முடிந்ததால் உறவினருக்கு ஏற்பட்ட நன்றியுணர்வு !
3. ஒரு வேளை உணவு உண்ட மனநிறைவு

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) மொழிபெயர்க்க.
Today women in India occupy challenging positions. There are women pilots and women serve the armed forces too. There are successful IAS and IPS officers. Kiran Bedi is an example for successful police officer. There are women chief ministers, M.P.s and M.L.A.S. Our constitution guarantees equal rights to women. In Tamil Nadu, the right of inheritance has been given to women. Education and employment has been made a basic necessity for women. Though there are many progresses in the lives of women, still the other side of the coin is noteworthy and terrific. Dowry death and Eve teasing still prevails. Female baby is still considered a burden and female infanticide is still in existence. Male chauvinism is hurting women. Sania Mirza, Kalpana Chawla, Sunitha Williams and many such women add glory to womanhood. Government must give 50% reservations to women in higher education and career choice.
Answer:
விடை :
இன்றைய பெண்கள் சவாலை எதிர் கொள்ளும் பணிகளைப் புரிகின்றனர். விமான
ஓட்டியாகவும் போர்ப்படையிலும் பணி புரிகின்றனர். IAS மற்றும் IPS அதிகாரிகளாக வெற்றி வாகை சூடியுள்ளனர். உதாரணமாக கிரன் பேடி என்பவர் சாதனை படைத்த காவல் பெண் அதிகாரி ஆவார். முதலமைச்சராகவும், M.P மற்றும் M.L.A ஆகவும் உள்ளனர். நம் தேசத்தின் அரசியல் திட்ட சட்டம் பெண்களுக்கு சம உரிமை அளிக்கிறது. தமிழ் நாட்டில் பெண்களுக்குச் சொத்துரிமை அளிக்கப்பட்டு உள்ளது. கல்வியும், பணியும், பெண்களுக்கு இன்றியமையாததாக இன்று உள்ளது. பெண்களுக்குச் சம உரிமையும் முன்னேற்றமும் இருப்பினும் மறுபக்கம் இன்றளவும் கவனத்துக்குரியதாகவும், பயங்கரமாகவும் இருக்கிறது. வரதட்சணை தொல்லைகளும், பெண்களை ஏளனம் செய்வதும் நடந்த வண்ணமே உள்ளன. பெண் குழந்தையைப் பாரமாகக் கருதி அதைக் கொலைசெய்யும் நிலை இன்றளவும் உள்ளது. ஆண் ஆதிக்கம் பெண்களை காயப்படுத்திக் கொண்டு தான் இருக்கிறது. P.V. சிந்து, கல்பனா சாவ்லா, சுனிதா வில்லியம்ஸ் போன்ற பெண்களினால் பெண் குலத்திற்குப் பெருமை சேர்க்கும் வகையில் உள்ளனர். பெண்களுக்கு அரசாங்கம் 50% சலுகையைக் கல்வியிலும் மற்றும் வேலை வாய்ப்புகளிலும் அளிக்க வேண்டும்.

பகுதி – V (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 24)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விரிவாக விடையளிக்க. [3 × 8 = 24]

Question 43.
அ) சங்க இலக்கியங்கள், காட்டும் அறங்கள் இன்றைக்கும் தேவையானவையே
என்பதற்குச் சில எடுத்துக்காட்டுகள் தருக.
Answer:
அறத்தில் வணிக நோக்கம் கொள்ளாமை:
அறம் செய்வதில் வணிக நோக்கம் இருக்கக்கூடாது என்பது சங்ககால மக்களின் கருத்தாக இருந்தது. இப்பிறப்பில் அறம் செய்தால் அதன் பயனை மறுபிறப்பில் பெறலாம் என்ற வணிக நோக்குக் கூடாது எனக் கூறப்பட்டது.

“இம்மைச் செய்தது மறுமைக்கு ஆம் எனும்
அறவிலை வணிகன் ஆஅய் அல்லன்” – புறம்

எனச் சங்ககால வள்ளல்களில் ஒருவரான ஆய்பற்றி ஏணிச்சேரி முடமோசியார் குறிப்பிட்டுள்ளார். நோக்கமின்றி அறம் செய்வதே மேன்மை தருவது என்பது இதில் உணர்த்தப்பட்டுள்ளது.

அரசியல் அறம் :
மன்னர்களுடைய செங்கோலும் வெண்கொற்றக்குடையும் அறத்தின் குறியீடுகளாகப் போற்றப்பட்டன. அரசன் செங்கோல் போன்று நேரிய ஆட்சியை மேற்கொள்ள வேண்டும் என்பது பல பாடல்களில் வலியுறுத்தப்பட்டுள்ளது. நீர்நிலை பெருக்கி நிலவளம் கண்டு உணவுப்பெருக்கம் காண்பதும் அதனை அனைவருக்கும் கிடைக்கச் செய்வதும் அரசனின் கடமையாகச் சொல்லப்பட்டது. குற்றங்களை, அறத்தின் அடிப்படையில் ஆராய்ந்து தண்டனை வழங்க வேண்டும் என்கிறார் ஊன் பொதிப் பசுங்குடையார். அரசன் அறநெறியில் ஆட்சிசெய்வதற்கு அமைச்சரும் உதவினர். நன்றும் தீதும் ஆய்தலும், அன்பும் அறனும் காத்தலும் அமைச்சர் கடமை என்கிறது மதுரைக்காஞ்சி.. ‘செம்மை சான்ற காவிதி மாக்கள்’ என்று அமைச்சர்களை மாங்குடி மருதனார் போற்றுகிறார்.

போர் அறம்:
தமிழர், போரிலும் அறநெறிகளைப் பின்பற்றினர். போர் அறம் என்பது வீரமற்றோர். புறமுதுகிட்டோர், சிறார், முதியோர் ஆகியோரை எதிர்த்துப் போர் செய்யாமையைக் குறிக்கிறது. போரின் கொடுமையிலிருந்து பசு, பார்ப்பனர், பெண்கள், நோயாளர், புதல்வரைப் பெறாதவர் ஆகியோருக்குத் தீங்கு வராமல் போர் புரிய வேண்டும் என்று ஒரு பாடல் கூறுகிறது. தம்மைவிட வலிமை குறைந்தாரோடு போர் செய்வது கூடாது என்பதை ஆவூர் மூலங்கிழார் குறிப்பிட்டிருக்கிறார்.

“எறியார் எறிதல் யாவணது எறிந்தார்
எதிர்சென்று எறிதலும் செல்லான்” – புறம்

இத்தகைய அறநிலைகள் இன்றைக்கும் தேவையானவை ஆகும்.

(அல்லது)

ஆ) தமிழின் சொல்வளம் பற்றியும் புதிய சொல்லாக்கத்திற்கான தேவை குறித்தும் தமிழ் மன்றத்தில் பேசுவதற்கான உரைக் குறிப்புகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
கால வெள்ளத்தில் கரைந்துபோன மொழிகளுக்கிடையில் நீந்தி தன்னை நிலை நிறுத்திக் கொண்டுள்ளது தமிழ். சொல்வளம் இலக்கியச் செம்மொழிகளுக்கெல்லாம் பொது என்றாலும் தமிழ் மட்டுமே அதில் தலை சிறந்ததாகும். தமிழின் சொல் வளத்தை நாம் பலதுறைகளிலும் காணலாம்.

தமிழின் சொல் வளம்:
ஆங்கிலம் போன்ற மொழிகளில் இலையைக் குறிக்க ஒரே ஒரு சொல் மட்டுமே உள்ளது. ஆனால் தமிழ்மக்கள் இலையை அதன் வன்மை, மென்மை, இவற்றைக் கொண்டு இலை, தோகை, ஓலை என பாகுபாடு செய்துள்ளனர். இதுமட்டுமன்றி தாவரங்கள், மணிவகை, இளம்பயிர்வகை, காய்கனி வகை, அடி, கிளை கொழுந்து என அனைத்து உறுப்புகளுக்கும் சொற்களைப் பகுத்து வைத்துள்ளனர்.

பூவின் நிலைகளைக் குறிக்கும் சொற்கள்:
அரும்பு: பூவின் தோற்றநிலை போது, பூ விரியத் தொடங்கும் நிலை மலர், பூவின் மலர்ந்த நிலை, வீ: மரம், செடியிலிருந்து பூ கீழே விழுந்த நிலை செம்மல், பூ வாடின நிலை.

தமிழின் பொருள் வளம்:
தமிழ்நாடு எத்துணைப் பொருள் வளமுடையது என்பது அதன் வினை பொருள் வகைகளை நோக்கினாலே விளங்கும். தமிழ் நாட்டு நெல்லில் செந்நெல் வெண்ணெல், கார்நெல் என்றும், சம்பா, மட்டை, கார் என்றும் பல வகைகள் உள்ளன. அவற்றில் சம்பாவில் மட்டும் ஆவிரம் பூச்சம்பா, ஆனைக் கொம்பன் சம்பா, குண்டு சம்பா, குதிரை வாலிச்சம்பா, சிறுமணிச்சம்பா, சீரகச்சம்பா முதலிய அறுபது. உள் வகைகள் உள்ளன. இவற்றோடு வரகு, காடைக்கண்ணி குதிரைவாலி முதலிய சிறு கூலங்கள் தமிழ் நாட்டிலன்றி வேறெங்கும் விளைவதில்லை.

முடிவுரை:
பண்டைத் தமிழ் மக்கள் தனிப்பெரும் நாகரிகத்தை உடையவராக இருந்திருக்கின்றனர். ஒரு நாட்டாரின் அல்லது இனத்தாரின் நாகரிகத்தை அளந்தறிவதற்கு உதவுவது மொழியேயாகும். ஆகவே “நாடும் மொழியும் நமதிரு கண்கள்” என்ற கூற்றின்படி பொருட்களைக் கூர்ந்து நோக்கி நுண்பொருட் சொற்களை அமைத்துக் கொள்வது நம் தலையாய கடமையாகும்.

Question 44.
(அ) அனுமான் ஆட்டத்தைக் கூறுக.
Answer:

• திடீரென்று மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் துரித கதியில் ஒலிக்கத் தொடங்கின.
• எதற்கென்று தெரியாமல் கூட்டம் திகைத்துப் பந்தலை நோக்குகையில் பெருங்குரல் எழுப்பியபடி அனுமார் பந்தல் கால் வழியாகக் கீழே குதித்தார்.
• அனுமார் வாலில் பெரிய தீப்பந்தம். ஜ்வாலை புகைவிட்டுக் கொண்டு எரிந்தது. கூட்டம் தானாகவே பின்னால் நகர்ந்தது.
• அனுமார் கால்களைத் தரையில் பதித்து உடம்பை ஒரு குலுக்குக் குலுக்கினார்.
•  தீயின் ஜ்வாலை மடிந்து அலை பாய்ந்தது. கைகளைத் தரையில் ஊன்றி அனுமார் கரணமடித்தார்.
• சுருண்ட வால் இவன் பக்கமாக வந்து விழுந்தது.
• கூட்டம் அச்சத்தோடு கத்தியபடி அலைக்கழிந்தது.
• அனுமார் பெரிதாகச் சிரித்துக்கொண்டு நின்றார். அனுமார் நின்றதும் கூட்டம் கொஞ்சம் அமைதியுற்றது.
• முன்நோக்கி நகர்ந்து வந்தது. அனுமார் நேசப்பான்மையோடு சிரித்து வாலை மேலே தூக்கிச் சுற்றினார்.
• தீ வட்டமாகச் சுழன்றது. வேகம் கூடக்கூட, கூட்டம் இன்னும் முன்னால் நகர்ந்து வந்தது.
• இவன் நெருங்கி அனுமார் பக்கம் சென்றான்.
• அனுமார் இன்னொரு பாய்ச்சல் பாய்ந்து வேகமாக ஆட ஆரம்பித்தார்.
  வர வர ஆட்டம் துரிதகதிக்குச் சென்றது. பதுங்கியும் பாய்ந்தும் ஆடினார்.
• ஆட ஆட, புழுதி புகை போல எழுந்தது. கழுத்துமணி அறுந்து கீழே விழுந்தது. • ஒன்றையும் பொருட்படுத்தாமல் ஆட்டத்தில் தன்னை இழந்தவராக ஆடினார்.
• மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் அவர் ஆட்டத்தோடு இணைந்து செல்ல முடியவில்லை.
  தடுமாறிவிட்டது
• மேல் மூச்சு வாங்க அனுமார் ஆட்டத்தை நிறுத்தினார். மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் நின்றன.
• அயர்ச்சியோடு மேளக்காரன் தோளிலிருந்து தவுலை இறக்கிக் கீழே வைத்தான்.
• ஆட்டம் முடிந்தது. தீர்மானமாகியது போல எஞ்சி இருந்த கூட்டமும் அவசர அவசரமாகக் கலைய ஆரம்பித்தது.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) உரைநடையின் அணிநலன்களை சுருக்கி எழுதுக.
Answer:

முன்னுரை:
சங்க இலக்கியம் நம் பாட்டனார் தோப்பு. இடைக்கால இலக்கியம் நம் தந்தையார் தோட்டம். இக்கால இலக்கியம் நம் பூங்கா. இவை அனைத்தின் நயங்களையும் ஒன்று சேர்த்து உரைநடையின் அணிநலன்களாகக் காண்போம்.

உரைநடையில் உருவகம் இணை ஒப்பு:
தற்பொழுது முகநிலவில் வியர்வை முத்துகள் துளிர்த்தன என்று உருவகமாக எழுதுகிறார்கள். களம்புகத் துடித்து நின்ற உனக்கு வெற்றிச்சாறு கிடைத்துவிட்டது, உண்டு மகிழ்ந்தாய், உன் புன்னகைதான் அதற்குச் சான்று இது அறிஞர் அண்ணாவின் உரைநடை.

எடுத்துக்காட்டு உவமை அணியை உரைநடையில் பயன்படுத்துகையில் இணை நட்பு என்கிறோம். ஊர் கூடிச் செக்குத் தள்ள முடியுமா? எனக் கேட்கிறார்கள் ஊர் கூடின பிறகுதான் செக்குத் தள்ள வேண்டும் என்று காத்திருப்பவர்களின் காரியம் கைகூடாது. புரோகிதருக்காக அமாவாசை காத்திருப்பதில்லை என்று எழுத்தாளர் வ. ராமசாமி மழையும் புயலும் என்ற நூலில் குறிப்பிட்டுள்ளார்.

உரைநடையில் இலக்கணை:
“சோலையில் புகுவேன்; மரங்கள் கூப்பிடும்; விருந்து வைக்கும், ஆலமர நிழலில் அமர்வேன்; ஆல், ‘என் விழுதைப் பார். அந்த அரசுக்கு இஃது உண்டா ?’ என்னும். அரசு கண்ணிற்படும். ‘யான் விழுதின்றி வானுற ஓங்கி நிற்கிறேன், என்னை மக்கள் சுற்றிச் செல்கிறார்கள், காண்’ என்னும், வேம்பு, என்நிழல் நலஞ்செய்யும். என் பூவின் குணங்களைச் சொல்கிறேன் வா’ என்னும், அத்தி, நாகை, விளா, மா, வில்வம் முதலிய மரங்கள் விளியாமலிருக்குமோ? சிந்தனையில் அவைகளின் நுட்பங்கள் விளங்கும். மலை என்னை அடிக்கடி அழைக்கும். மலைமீது இவர்வேன், ஓரிடத்தில் அமர்வேன்; மேலும் கீழும் பார்ப்பேன்; சுற்றுமுற்றும் பார்ப்பேன். மனம் அமைதி எய்தும் “. எங்கள் காலத் தமிழ்த்தென்றல் திரு. வி. கலியாணசுந்தரனார் இப்படி எழுதியிருக்கிறார்.

உரைநடையில் எதுகை மோனை:
“தென்றல் அசைந்துவரும் தென்தமிழ் நாட்டில் அமைந்த திருக்குற்றாலம், மலைவளம் படைத்த பழம்பதியாகும். அம்மலையிலே, கோங்கும் வேங்கையும் ஓங்கி வளரும்; குரவமும் முல்லையும் இத்தகைய மலையினின்று விரைந்து வழிந்திறங்கும் வெள்ளருவி வட்டச் சுனையிலே வீழ்ந்து பொங்கும்பொழுது சிதறும் நீர்த் திவலைகள் பாலாவிபோற் பரந்தெழுந்து மஞ்சினோடு சேர்ந்து கொஞ்சிக் குலாவும் ” என்று சொல்லின் செல்வர் இரா. பி. சே. தமிழின்பம் என்னும் நூலில் எழுதியுள்ளார்.

உரைநடையில் எதிரிணை:
அமைத்து எழுதுவோம்…. இதனை எதிரிணை இசைவு என்கிறோம். குடிசைகள் ஒரு பக்கம்; கோபுரங்கள் மறுபக்கம்; பசித்த வயிறுகள் ஒருபக்கம். புளிச்சேப்பக்காரர்கள் மறுபக்கம்; மெலிந்த எலும்புக்கூடுகள். ஒருபக்கம் பருத்த தொந்திகள் மறுபக்கம்; கேடுகெட்ட இந்தச் சமுதாயத்திற்கு என்றைக்கு விமோசனம்? தோழர்களே, சிந்தியுங்கள்!’ என்று தோழர் ப. ஜீவானந்தம் எழுதியிருப்பது இதற்கு நல்ல எடுத்துக்காட்டு!’ முடிவுரை:
பேசினால் உரையாடல், எழுதினால் உரைநடை, இன்றைய உரைநடையின் வளர்ச்சியோ அளவற்றது. கட்டுரை, சிறுகதை, புதினம் இவையெல்லாம் இன்றைய உரைநடையின் இலக்கிய வடிவங்களாகத் திகழ்கின்றன. இவற்றைப் படித்து நம் அறிவை வளப்படுத்திக் கொள்வோம்.

Question 45.
(அ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று தருக.
முன்னுரை – இளமைப் பருவம் – கல்வி – கனவு நனவானது – முதல் பயணம் – கல்பனாவின் ஆர்வம் – இரண்டாம் பயணம் – முடிவுரை.
Answer:
விண்வெளியும் கல்பனா சாவ்லாவும்
முன்னுரை:
விண்வெளிக்குப் பயணம் செய்த இந்தியாவின் முதல் பெண்மணி என்ற பெருமைக்குரியவர் கல்பனா சாவ்லா. நடுத்தரக் குடும்பத்தில் பிறந்து உலகமே வியந்த விண்வெளி வீராங்கனையாக வாழ்ந்த கல்பனா சாவ்லா அமெரிக்காவின் கொலம்பியா ஓடத்தில் இருந்து விண்வெளிக்குப் பறந்து ஆராய்ச்சிகளை மேற்கொண்டவர்.

இளமைப் பருவம்:
இந்தியாவின் ஹரியானா மாநிலத்தில் 1961 ம் ஆண்டு ஜுலை 1 ஆம் தேசி கர்னாஸ் என்ற ஊரில் பிறந்தார் கல்பனா. வீட்டின் நான்கு பிள்ளைகளில் அவர்தான் கடைக்குட்டி அவர் தந்தை ஒரு வியாபாரி, தாய் இல்லத்தரசி பொம்மை வைத்து விளையாடும் வயதில் கல்பனாவுக்குப் பிடித்த பொழுதுபோக்கு விமான ஓவியங்கள் தீட்டி அழகு பார்ப்பது விமானங்களின் சத்தம் கேட்டாலே வீட்டில் இருந்து தெருவுக்கு ஓடிவந்து அந்த அலுமினியப் பறவை, புள்ளியாக மறையும் வரை கண்கள் சுருக்கிப் பார்த்துக்கொண்டே நிற்கும் குழந்தைகளில் ஒருவர்தான் கல்பனாவும்.

கல்வி :
கர்னாவில் உள்ள அரசுப் பள்ளியில் ஆரம்பக் கல்வியை முடித்த கல்பனாவுக்கு அந்த வயதிலேயே விண்வெளி வீரராக வேண்டும் என்ற இலக்கு மனதில் பதிந்துவிட்டது. சண்டிகரில் உள்ள பஞ்சாப் பொறியியல் கல்லூரியில் விமானப் பொறியியல் பயில விரும்பினார். ஆனால் அது அப்போது ஆண்களின் படிப்பாக இருந்ததால் பெற்றோர் அனுமதிக்கவில்லை என்றாலும் கல்பனாவின் பிடிவாதத்தை அவர்களால் மாற்ற முடியவில்லை. அந்தக் கல்லூரியில் பொறியியல் பட்டம் பெற்ற கல்பனாவை 1982 ல் அமெரிக்கா வரவேற்றது. 1984 ஆம் ஆண்டு டெக்காஸ் விண்வெளி பொறியியல் துறையில் முதுகலைப்பட்டம் பெற்றார் கல்பனா. நான்கு ஆண்டுகள் கழித்துக் கொலோரடோ பல்கலைக்கழகத்தில் விமானப் பொறியியல் துறையில் முனைவர் பட்டம் பெற்றார்.

கனவு நனவானது:
1993 ம் ஆண்டு ஒரு தனியார் நிறுவனத்தில் ஆய்வு விஞ்ஞானியாகச் சேர்ந்தார். அதற்கு அடுத்த ஆண்டே அவரின் விண்வெளி வீரர் கனவு நனவாகத் தொடங்கியது. நாஸாவில் விண்வெளி வீரர் பயிற்சி பெறுவதற்கு விண்ணப்பித்திருந்த சுமார் 3000 பேரில் ஆறு பேர் மட்டும் தேர்வானார்கள். அவர்களுள் கல்பனாவும் ஒருவர். ஜான்ஸன் விண்வெளி தளத்தில் பல்வேறு உடல் மருத்துவ பரிசோதனைகள், கடுமையான நேர்காணல்கள் ஆகியவற்றைக் கடந்து வெற்றிகரமாகத் தேர்ச்சிப் பட்டியலில் இடம் பிடித்தார்.

முதல் பயணம்:

1995 ஆம் ஆண்டு பயிற்சிகள் முடிந்து விண்வெளி வீராங்கனையாகத் தகுதி பெற்ற கல்பனாவின் முதல் விண்வெளிப் பயணம் 1997 ஆம் ஆண்டு நவம்பர் 19 ஆம் தேதி நிகழ்ந்தது. ஆறு வீரர்களுடன் கொலம்பிய விண்வெளி ஊர்தியான எஸ்.டி.எஸ் 87-ல் பயணம் செய்வதற்குத் தேர்வு செய்யப்பட்ட கல்பனாவுக்கு அதில் ஆராய்ச்சி குறித்த முக்கியப் பொறுப்புகளும் தரப்பட்டன. பூமியை சுமார் 252 தடவை சுற்றிய அந்த விண்கலத்தில் சுமார் 10 மில்லியன் மைல் தொலைவு பயணித்த கல்பனா. சகவிண்வெளி வீரர்களுடன் வெற்றிகரமாகப் பூமிக்குத் திருப்பினார்.

கல்பனாவின் ஆர்வம்:
விமானம் மற்றும் கிளைடர்களை ஓட்டக் கற்றுக் கொடுக்க தகுதிச் சான்றிதழ் பெற்றதோடு மட்டுமல்லாமல் ஓட்டவும் அனுமதி பெற்றிருந்தார் கல்பனா. கொலம்பியா விண்வெளிப் பயணம் மேற்கொள்ளும் முன் கல்பனா முழுமனதோடு ஒரு காரியத்தில் ஈடுபடுபவர்களைப் பார்த்தால் எனக்கும் ஊக்கம் ஏற்படும் என்றார். ஆராய்ச்சியாளர்களின் சுயசரிதைகளை விரும்பிப் படிக்கும் அவர், தன் ஆசிரியர்களுக்கு எப்போதும் தன் நன்றிகளைத் தெரிவித்தபடி இருப்பார்.

இரண்டாம் பயணம்:
முதல் பயணத்தை வெற்றிகரமாக முடித்த கல்பனா. பிறகு அதே கொலம்பியா விண்கலத்தில் 2003 ஜனவரி 16 ஆம் தேதி ஆறு விண்வெளி வீரர்களுடன் மீண்டும் விண்ணுக்குப் பயணித்தார். பல விண்வெளி ஆராய்ச்சிகளை மேற்கொண்ட அவர்கள் பயணத்தை முடித்துக் கொண்டு வெற்றிகரமாக திட்டமிட்டபடி பிப்ரவரி ஒன்றாம் தேதி தரையிறங்க ஆயத்தமானார்கள். பூமியைத் தொட 16 நிமிடங்களே இருந்த நிலையில் அந்த சோக சம்பவம் நிகழ்ந்தது. கொலம்பியா விண்கலம் வெடித்துச் சிதறியது 41 வயது கல்பனா தேவதையாக விண்ணில் கலந்தார்.

முடிவுரை:
இந்திய அரசு கல்பனா சாவ்லாவின் சாதனைகளை நினைவு கூறும் வகையில் 2011 ம் ஆண்டு முதல் ஆண்டு தோறும் வீரதீரச் சாதனைகள் புரிந்த பெண்களுக்குக் கல்பனா சாவ்லா விருது வழங்கி கவுரவப்படுத்துகிறது. அந்த விண்வெளி தேவதை நம் வீட்டின் பல குட்டி தேவதைகளுக்குப் பிரியமான ரோல்மாடல்!

(அல்லது)

ஆ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று தருக.
பொதுமை – தகைமை – முறைமை – நிறையுடைமை – சுட்டுந்தன்மை – அறிவாண்மை – வளமை – மறுமை.
Answer:
உலகப் பொதுமறை பொதுமை :
இது தமிழிற்குக் கிடைத்த அரிய நீதி நூல். கரும்பென்றால் அடி இனிக்கும் எனக் கூறலாம். இதுவோ கற்கும் இடமெல்லாம் சுவையினைத் தருவதாகும்.

“எம்மதமும் எவ்வினமும் எந்நாளும்
சம்மதம் என்று ஏற்கும் தமிழ் வேதம்”

எனும் சுத்தானந்தரின் கூற்றின்படி எக்காலத்திற்கும் பொருத்தமுற அமைக்கப்பட்ட அழியாக் காவியம்.

தகைமை:
சிறு அடிகளில் உலகளந்த தகைமை இதன் பெருமையாகும். திருக்குறள் பல்வேறு அடைமொழிகளால் உத்தரவேதம், பொய்யாமொழி, வாயுறை வாழ்த்து, தமிழ்மறை எனக் குறிக்கப்படுகிறது. திருவள்ளுவரின் வேறு பெயர்கள் நாயனார், தேவர், முதற்பாவலர், மாதானுபங்கி, தெய்வப்புலவர், செந்தாப்போதார், பெருநாவலர் எனப் பலவாகும்.

முறைமை :
திருக்குறளானது 10 குறளினுக்கு ஒரு அதிகாரமாக 133 அதிகாரங்களைக் கொண்டது. அதிகார வரிசைகள் எல்லாம் பிற்காலத்தில் அமைக்கப்பட்டவை. மூன்று பிரிவுகளாக அறம், பொருள், இன்பம் எனப் பிரிக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. அறத்துப்பால் 38 அதிகாரமும், பொருட்பால் 70 அதிகாரமும், காமத்துப்பால் 25 அதிகாரமுமாக அமைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன. திருக்குறளின் உரையாக மணக்குடவர், காளிங்கர், பரிமேலழகர், பரிதியார், பரிப்பெருமாள் என்பவர்கள் உள்பட பதின்மர் உரை எழுதியுள்ளார். இதில் பரிமேலழகர் உரையே சிறப்பாகக் கருதப்படுகிறது.

நிறையுடைமை:
வாழ்க்கையின் நோக்கங்களைச் செய்யுளுக்கு இலக்காக்கி வைத்த பெருந்தகையார். உயர்ந்த தத்துவங்களை ஈரடியினில் அடக்கியவர். அதனால் பாரதியார்,

“வள்ளுவன் தன்னை உலகினுக்கே தந்து
வான்புகழ் கொண்ட தமிழ்நாடு” – எனப் போற்றுகின்றார்.

உலக மொழிகளில் பைபிளுக்கு அடுத்தபடியாக பல மொழிகளில் மொழி பெயர்க்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. முதன் முதலில் இலத்தீன் மொழியில் மொழி பெயர்க்கப்பட்டது. ஆங்கிலத்தில் மொழி பெயர்த்தவர் ஜி.யு.போப் ஆவார். தமிழின் முதல் எழுத்தாகிய அ ‘ என்பதில் அகர முதல ‘ எனும் குறளில் தொடங்கி தமிழின் இறுதி எழுத்தாகிய ‘ன்’ என்பதற்கு 1330-வது குறளின் இறுதிச் சொல்லாகப் பெறின்’ எனும் சொல் முடிவுச் சொல்லாக அமைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.

சுட்டுந்தன்மை :
சங்க காலமானது பொற்காலமாகச் சொல்லப்படினும், கள் குடித்தல், பரத்தையர் தொடர்பு இவை தவறெனக் கூறப்படவில்லை . ஆனால் சங்கம் மருவிய காலத்தில் எழுந்த நூற்களில் நீதி நூற்கள் மிகுதியாயின. நீதி நூற்களில் திருக்குறள் சிறப்பானதாக அமைந்துள்ளது. பொதுவான கருத்துகளான ‘நீரின்றி அமையாது உலகு’ என்பது முதல் ‘ஈன்றாள் பசி காண்பாள் ஆயினும் செய்யற்க சான்றோர் பழிக்கும் வினை’ என்பது வரை மனிதனை வழிநடத்தும் நெறிகளாய் அமைந்துள்ளன.

அறிவாண்மை :
குடியினால் மக்கள் சிறுமைப்படுபவர் என்பதை ‘கள்ளுண்ணாமை’ எனும் அதிகாரத்தில் தந்து ‘உண்ணற்க கள்ளை’ என அறிவுறுத்தியும், பிறன் பொருளை எடுத்தல் நல்லதல்ல என்பதற்கு ‘கள்ளாமை’ எனும் அதிகாரத்திலும் சுட்டிக் காட்டுகின்றனர். புலால் உண்ணுவதால் யாது பயன் என்பதை,

“தன்னூன் பெருக்கத்திற்குத்தான் பிறிது ஊனுண்பான்
எங்ஙனம் ஆளும் அருள்” – எனக் கூறி

உடலை வளர்க்க பிற ஊனும் தேவையா என வினா எழுப்புகிறார்.
சூதினால் இவ்வுலகம் தவறான வழியில் சென்று பொருளிழப்பதை ‘சிறுமை பல செய்து சீரழிக்கும் சூது’ என அறிவுறுத்துகிறார்.

நெறிமுறைகளைக் கடைப்பிடித்து உணவினை உண்டோமானால் மருந்தென ஒன்று வேண்டாம் என்பதை, ‘மிகினும் குறையினும் நோய் செய்யும்’ எனக்கூறி விழிப்புணர்வினைத் தருகிறார்.
நட்பு பற்றிக் கூறும்போது, ‘உடுக்கை இழந்தவன் கைபோல’ எனும் குறளில், தம் உடையானது அவிழும்போது தன்னுடைய கை நம்மை அறியாமலே சரியாக்குவதைப்போல நட்புடையோர் துன்பப்படும்போது உதவுவது நண்பனின் கடமை என வலியுறுத்துகிறார்.
கல்வி பற்றி கூறும்போது “தொட்டனைத்தூறும் மணற்கேணி” என்கிறார். ஒருவன் படிக்கப் படிக்க அறிவு பெருகும். எதைப்போல எனில் கிணற்றிலிருந்து நீர் எடுத்த பின்னும் சுரப்பது போல காதலாக என உதாரணம் காட்டுகின்றார். இப்பரந்த உலகம் உனதாக ஆக வேண்டுமானால் கிடைத்து விடும். எவ்வாறெனில்,

“ஞாலம் கருதினும் கைக்கூடம் காலம்
கருதி இடத்தாற் செயின்” (- எனச் சொல்லி )

உள்ளுணர்வுகளைத் தட்டி எழுப்புகிறார்.
மேலும் ஆளுகின்ற மன்னன் எப்போது மதிக்கப்படுவான் எனக் கூறும்போது ‘குடிதழீஇ கோலோச்சும் போது’. அதாவது குடிகளை எண்ணி அவர்களின் கருத்திற்கிணங்க ஆட்சி புரியும் போது மன்னவன் மதிக்கப்படுவான் என்றார்.

பெண்மையைக் கூறும்போது, ‘இல்லதென் இல்லவள் மாண்பு’ என இயம்புகின்றார்.
இவ்வாறு பல்வேறு நிலைகளினில் மக்களுக்கு அறிவாண்மை வெளிப்பட ஆதாரமாய் நிற்கின்றார்.

வளமை :
காலங்களைக் கடந்தாலும் அன்றாட வாழ்விலும், பல இடங்களிலம் பயன்படுத்தும் கருத்துகளாய் அமைந்துள்ளன. சட்டசபையிலும், பாராளுமன்றத்திலும் வரவு-செலவு திட்டத்தினைக் கூறும்போது,

“இயற்றலும் ஈட்டலும் காத்தலும் காத்த
வகுத்தலும் வல்லது அரசு” – என இக்குறளினை

கையாளும் அளவிற்குப் பிற்காலத்தோடு பொருத்தமுற எழுதப்பட்ட ஒப்பற்ற நூலாகும்.
நடைமுறை வாழ்விலும்கூட இவர் கருத்துகள் எண்ணற்குரியது. ‘தொழுத கையுள்ளும் படை ஒடுங்கும்’ எனும் குறள் மூலம் காந்தியடிகளின் இறப்பினை, நமது இழப்பினை நாம் அறியாமலில்லை.

பழமையில்கூட புதுமை காட்டி, குறளினைச் சொல்லும்போது உதடுகள் ஒட்டாத குறளும் உள்ளன. அவை, ‘யாதெனின்’, ‘வசையொழிய’ எனும் குறள்களைக் கூறலாம்.

மறுமை:
இம்மை மாறி மறுமையாயினும் குறளானது காலங்களைக் கடந்து நிற்கும். இக்காலத்தில் பல்வேறு ஆராய்ச்சி நூல்கள் திருக்குறளிலிருந்து எழுந்துள்ளன. இணையத்தில் (Internet) திருக்குறள் பதிவு செய்யப்பட்டுள்ளது. தமிழக அரசு முன்பு சென்னையில் ‘வள்ளுவர் கோட்டம்’ அமைத்து குறள்களை கற்களில் பொறித்து சிலைகளையும் செதுக்கி வைத்தது. தற்போது குமரிக் கடற்கரையில் திருவள்ளுவருக்கு 133 அடியில் சிலை வைத்துள்ளது. திருவள்ளுவர் பெயரில் விருதுகள் வழங்கி வருகின்றனர். நாணயத்தின் ஒருபுறம் திருவள்ளுவரின் உருவமானது பொறிக்கப்பட்டு வெளியிடப்பட்டுள்ளது. இவ்வாறு காலத்தால் அழியாத புகழைப் பெற்றுள்ளது திருக்குறள்.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandisement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
Answer:
(b) Puli Thevar

Question 2.
Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars ?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Nawab of Arcot
(d) Raja of Travancore
Answer:
(c) Nawab of Arcot

Question 3.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 4.
Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(b) Nagalapuram

Question 5.
Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Veerapandya Kattabomman
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Marudhu brothers

Question 6.
When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
(a) 24 May 1805
(b) 10 July 1805
(c) 10 July 1806
(d) 10 September 1806
Answer:
(c) 10 July 1806

Question 7.
Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt
(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
Answer:
(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 8.
Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mysore
Answer:
(a) Calcutta

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by …………….
2. Except the Palayakkarars of ……………. all other western Palayakkarars supported Puli Thevar.
3. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of ……………. for eight years.
4. Bennerman deputed ……………. to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.
5. Kattabomman was hanged to death at …………….
6. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the …………….
7. ……………. was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
8. ……………. suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.

Answers:

1. Viswanatha Nayaka of Madurai
2. Sivagiri
3. Gopala Nayakar
4. Ramalinganar
5. Kayathar
6. Second Palayakarar war
7. Fateh Hyder (the eldest son of Tipusultan)
8. Colonel. Gillespie

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
(ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
(iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
(iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) UnderColonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
(ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in restoring the throne to her.
(iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
(iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the Marathas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable was the addition of a leather cockade in the turban.
Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.
(a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
What were the duties of the Palayakkarars?
Answer:
The Palayakkarars carried on the following duties:

1. They collected revenue, administered the territory control, settled disputes and maintained law and order.
2. On many occasions the Palayakkarars helped the Nayak rulers to restore the kingdom to them.

Question 2.
Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Answer:
The two prominent blocs were Eastern and Western Palayams:

Eastern Palayams:

1. Sattur
2. Nagalapuram
3. Ettayapuram
4. Panchalamkurichi.

Western Palayams:

1. Uthumalai
2. Thallawankottai
3. Naduvakurichi
4. Singampatti
5. Seithur.

Question 3.
Why was Heron dismissed from service?
Answer:
Colonel Heron was urged to deal with Puli Thevar as he continued to defy the authority of the company. Puli Thevar wielded much influence over the western Palayakkarars. Heron had to abandon the plan for want of cannon and of supplies and pay to soldiers. He retired to Madurai. He was then recalled and dismissed from sendee.

Question 4.
What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
Answer:

1. With the support of the East India company Arcot Nawab Mohamed Ali wanted to bring Madurai and Tirunelveli regions which were under the command of Nawab Chandra Sahib’s agents.
2. These agents got the support of Tamil Palayakkarars and had close relationship with Puli Thevar.
3. An army was sent under the head of Mahfiizkhan to capture Tirunelveli.
4. Before he station his troops near Kalakadu 2000 soldiers from Travancore joined the forces of Puli Thevar.
5. In the Battle of Kalakadu Mahfiizkhan troops were routed.
6. The organized resistance of the Palayakkarars under Puli Thevar gave an opportunity to the English to interfere directly in the affairs of Tirunelveli.

Question 5.
What was the bone of contention between the Company and Kattabomman?
Answer:
The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the palayams. The collectors humiliated the Palayakkarars and adopted force to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Question 6.
Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Proclamation of 1801.
Answer:

1. The proclamation of 1801 was an early call to the Indians to unite against the British.
2. Many Palayakkars rebelled together, especially Chinna Maruthu collected nearly 20,000 men to challenge British.
3. But the Rajas of Pudukkottai, Ettayapuram and Thanjavur supported British.
4. So, in May 1801, English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Trichy rebels failed.
5. Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generation.
6. The rebellion of Marudhu brothers is a land mark event in the history of Tamil Nadu.
7. It is also known as “South Indian Rebellion”.

Question 7.
Point out the importance of the Treaty of 1801.
Answer:
Under the terms of the Carnatic Treaty of 31 July 1801, the British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakkarar system came to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Velunachiyar

(a) Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?
Answer:
The military chief of Velunachiyar was ‘Thandavarayanar’.

(b) What were the martial arts in which she was trained?
Answer:
Velunachiyar had training in martial arts like valari, stick fighting and to wield weapons.

(c) Whom did she marry?
Answer:
She married Muthu Vadugar the Raja of Sivagangai.

(d) What was the name of her daughter?
Answer:
Her daughter name was Vellachinachiyar.

Question 2.
Dheeran Chinnamalai
(а) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
Answer:
Dheeran Chinnamalai was born in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of Palayakottai.

(b) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
Answer:
Once when Tipu’s diwan Mohammed Ali was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked his way and took back all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by instructing him to tell his Sultan that ‘Chinnamalai; who is between Sivamalai and Chinnamalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus, he gained the name ‘Dheeran Chennamalai’.

(c) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.
Answer:
Mohammed Ali

(d) Why and where was he hanged to death?
Answer;
He was hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort on 31 July 1805 because he refused to accept the rule of the British.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay of the heroic fight Veerapandya Kattabomman conducted against the East India Company.
Answer:
Several events led to the conflicts between Veerapandiya Kattabomman and the East India Company.
Event 1:

1. Under the provisions of a treaty signed in 1781 with Mysore Sultan the East India Company gained the right to collect taxes from Panchalamkurichi where Veerapandiya Kattabommman was the ruler.
2. The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the Palayams.
3. The collectors adopted force and humiliated the Palayakaras to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Event 2: Collector Jackson against the wish of the Madras Government wanted to send an army to collect the revenue dues from Kattabomman.

1. The arrogant English collector ordered Kattabomman to meet him in. Ramanathapuram. But Kattabomman’s attempts became futile as Jackson refused to meet him.
2. At last Kattabomman was made to stand for three hours before the haughty collector in Ramanathapuram.
3. Sensing danger Kattabomman with his brother’s help escaped from that place.
4. Kattabomman on his return to Panchalamkurichi represented to the Madras Council about his ill treatment by the collector Jackson.
5. Kattabomman appeared before the committee on 15th December 1798 and proved that he was not committed any offence.
6. He cleared almost all the revenue arrears.
7. Jackson was dismissed from his service.

Event 3: Inspired by the Marudhu brothers Tiruchirapaili proclamation Kattabomman was interested to join the confederacy.

1. Kattabomman and Marudhu brothers jointly decided on a confrontation with the English.
2. Kattabomman advanced towards Sivagiri who was a tributary to the company.
3. So the company considered Kattabomman’s expedition as a challenge to their authority.
4. Under the command of Bannerman on 1st September 1799 an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.
5. The evasive reply of Kattabomman made Bannerman to attack the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.
6. Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai.
7. The Britsh put a prize on his head.
8. Betrayed by the Rajas of Ettayapuram and Pudukottai Kattabomman was arrested.
9. During the trial before all the Palayakkarars he bravely admitted all the charges levelled against him.
10. He was hanged to death at Kayatharu near Tirunelveli on 16th October.
11. His courageousness and bravery was enacted as ballads by Indian folks.

Question 2.
Highlight the tragic fall of Sivagangai and its outcome.
Answer:
In May 1801, the English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Tiruchirappalli. The rebels went to Piranmalai and Kalayarkoil. But they were defeated by the forces of the English. In the end, the able commanders of the English company helped. Unfortunately, the rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.
Outcomes

• The Marudhu brothers were executed in the fort of Tirupathur near Ramanathapuram on 24 October 1801.
• Oomaithurai and Sevathaiah were captured and beheaded at Panchalamkuruchi on 16 November 1801.
• Seventy-three rebels were exiled to Penang in Malaya.
• Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generations.

Question 3.
Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806.
Answer:
Causes for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806:

1. The Sepoys in the British Indian Army had a strong sense of resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.
2. The English officers disrespect for the social and religious sentiments of the Indian sepoys also angered them.
3. Many sepoys families were in dire economic straits due to out break of famine in 1805 and the unsettled conditions caused by new land tenures.
4. The imprisonment of Tipu’s sons and the family members in Vellore Fort.

The immediate cause for the revolt was triggered by the new military regulations introduced by the Commander in Chief Sir John Cradock.

1. The Indian soldiers were not allowed to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform.
2. They were asked to shave their beard and trim the moustache to look smart.
3. The most resented cause was the leather cockade made of animal skin.
4. The sepoys were compelled to wear the turban and those who refused were severely punished.
5. In 10^th July 1806 in the early hours guns were booming and the Indian sepoys of the regiments 1^st and 23^rd raised their standard of revolt.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Teacher can ask the students to prepare an album of patriotic leaders of early revolts against the British rule in Tamil Nadu. Using their imagination they can also draw pictures of different battles in which they attained martyrdom.
Answer:
Few names of the patriotic leaders of the’early revolt against the British mle in Tamil Nadu are listed below.

1. Subramaniya Bharathiyar
2. Kumaraswamy Mudaliar (popularly known as Tiruppur Kumaran)
3. Velunachiyar
4. Vanchinathan
5. Veerapandia Kattabomman
6. V.O. Chidambaram
7. Dheeran Chinnamalai
8. Subramaniya Siva
9. The Maruthu Pandiyar brothers (Periya Maruthu, Chinna Maruthu)
10. Puli Thevar

Students can collect pictures of the above mentioned patriotic leaders and paste it in a notebook, prepare an album and submit to the teacher. Below the picture, student should also write the name of the patriotic leader below the picture.

If the student is very good in drawing skills, then instead of pasting pictures, they can also draw two or three of the patriotic leaders images and write their name below and prepare an album. Students can also use their creativity, imagine a battle field and can portrait that also.

Question 2.
Stage play visualising the conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman be attempted by students with the help of teachers.
Answer:
Stage play – Conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman.
Participants: Characters – Kattabomman, Subramanianar, Oomaithurai, Collector Jackson, Company officials soldiers.

Scence – 1 Kattabomman’s Court.

A company official reading the notice issued by collector Jackson. (Kattabomman’s soldier asking permission to let in the company official)

Sepoy : Maharaja, English East India Company’s servant brought a message for you. Shall I ask him to let in. I seek your permission.

Kattabomman : Allow him. (Servant entry)

Kattabomman: What message you have brought?

Servant : Maharaja (Reading the message)
I, “The collector of Ramnad” issuing order to Kattabomman to meet in person.

Kattabomman : yes you can go

Scene – 2

Kattabomman and his Minister and some soldiers going to meet Jackson after hearing he was camping at placard showing courtallam.

Collector has gone Srivilliputtur (Voice)

Placard showing Srivilliputur (You are asked to come to Ramanathapuram)

Scene – 3 (Ramanathapuram Fort)

Kattabomman waiting outside the gate to meet the Collector. After lhour he was asked to get inside the court of collector Jackson.

Jackson: Not noticing him wantedly I am
Kattabomman: I am kattabomman who is collector Jackson.
Jackson: Got angry Hay who are you nian calling me by name?
Kattabomman: I am Kattabomman wants to know who you are? Asking me the question.
(Further got irritated)
Jackson: I am collector Jackson. Are you the defiant Kattabomman.
Kattabomman: I want to know for what reason I was asked to come over here. As a coward ran and came to Ramanathapuram Mr. Jackson.
Jackson: Shut up man. You have the charge on you that you didn’t pay neither the tribute not the tax arrears.
(Irritated by his command)
Kattabomman: Whom do you expect to pay tribute or Taxes. Me? Why I should pay taxes. It’s our land the nature is giving water to the field. We the people till the land, sow the seeds plant the saplings watered the field, nurtured the plants, removed the weeds. What work you have done for asking the tax.
Jackson: Hay man Kattabomman you are talking too much, Your region belong to us.
Kattabomman: (Laughing) Is it so? Who gave you the right of possession?
Jackson: (Furiated yelling) Guards arrest him.
(Guards entry)
Kattabomman: Sensing the danger took out the sword (fighting and escaping from that place)
(screen)

Question 3.
A comparative study of Vellore Revolt and 1857 Revolt by students be tried enabling them to find out to what extent Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.
Answer:
Common causes for the Revolt at Vellore and Revolt of 1857.

Vellore Revolt:

1. Most of the soldiers in the British army were well trained soldiers from various Palayams. Hindus and Muslims majority Indian Troops.
2. Resentment over low salary promotion prospects
3. New dress code, rules and regulations affected the religions sentiments.
4. Uprising was well planned and raised by the soldiers at Vellore Fort shot down many colonels
5. Immediate cause introduction of Agnew Turban- a leather hat made of animal skin.
6. Soldiers were forced to wear the Turban.
7. Spread to other areas Bellary, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Sankagiri, Walajabad, Nandy durg.
8. Fateh hyder Tipu’s son was declared as their leader.

Revolt of 1857:

1. Most of the soldiers were from Sikhs, Hindus and Muslims. Out numbered the English officers.
2. Same point of view low salary inferior out look of the English officers.
3. Conversion activities interference in the Indian culture affected their sentiments.
4. Revolt originated from Bengal regiment.
5. Introduction of Greased cartridges smeared with animal fat.
6. Indian soldiers were compelled to use the cartridges.
7. Spead to Kanpur, Delhi, Oudh, Jhansi, Lucknow, Bihar etc.
8. Emperor Bahadhur Shah II of Delhi was made to sit on the throne and declared as the emperor of India.

These points clearly shows that the Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions And Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Palayakkarars in Tamil refers to the:
(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.
(b) Revenue collectors of the British
(c) Rebels of the Carnatic region
(d) Commanders of Nawab of Arcot
Answer:
(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.

Question 2.
Palayakkarars police duties were known as ……………….
(a) Padikaval
(b) Village Kaval
(c) Irravu Kaval
Answer:
(a) Padikaval

Question 3.
The first female ruler of Sivagangai who resisted the colonial power of the British:
(a) Jhansi Rani Lakshmibai
(b) Rani Mangammal
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Kuyili
Answer:
(c) Velunachiyar

Question 4.
Puli Thevar was defeated by …………… in 1767.
(a) Khan Sahib
(b) Captain Campbell
(c) Hyder Ali
Answer:
(b) Captain Campbell

Question 5.
The British commander who put down the Vellore revolt was:
(a) Bannerman
(b) William Bentinck
(c) Sir John cradock
(d) Colonel Gillespie
Answer:
(d) Colonel Gillespie

Question 6.
Who was Mahfuzkhan?
(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot
(b) Minister of the Nawab of Arcot
(c) Brother of Yusuf Khan
(d) Indian sepoy in the British army
Answer:
(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot

Question 7.
Veerapandiya Kattabomman was the Palayakkarar of :
(a) Sivagangai
(b) sivagiri
(c) Madurai
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(d) Panchalamkurichi

Question 8.
Where did Kattabomman escape?
(a) Ettayapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Pudukottai
(d) Tarapuram
Answer:
(c) Pudukottai

Question 9.
On his return to Panchalamkurichi ………………….. represented to the Madras council.
(a) Kattabomman
(b) Marudhu brothers
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Dheeran chinnamalai
Answer:
(a) Kattabomman

Question 10.
Which city was annexed at the end of the Anglo-Mysore War in 1799?
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Panchalamkuruchi
(d) Pudukottai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 11.
Jackson was dismissed from service and a new collector ………………….. was appointed.
(a) Syed
(b) Clarke
(c) William Brown
(d) S.R Lushington
Answer:
(d) S.R Lushington

Question 12.
Kattabomman cleared all the revenue arrears leaving only a balance of ………………….. pagodas.
(a) 1180
(b) 1080
(c) 1801
(d) 1108
Answer:
(b) 1080

Question 13.
Yadhul Nayak was the Palayakkarar of:
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Dindigul
(c) Anamalai
(d) Kamudhi
Answer:
(c) Anamalai

Question 14.
Oomathurai and Sevathaiah the two brothers of Kattabomman escaped from the Palayamkottai prison to:
(a) Kamudhi
(b) Sivagangai
(c) Kerala
(d) Thiruchirappalli
Answer:
(a) Kamudhi

Question 15.
………………….. involved in setting the disputes in the Kongu region.
(a) Dheeran chinnamalai
(b) Velunachiyar
(c) Oomathurai
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Dheeran chinnamalai

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The word ………………….. means a domain a military camp or a little kingdom.
2. The Palayakkararsystem was in practice during the rule of ………………….. of warangal in the Kakatiya kingdom.
3. The police duties of Palayakkarars were known as …………………..
4. The Palayakkarars of Sivagiri, Ettayapuram and Panchalamkurichi did not join the confederacy of …………………..
5. The unity of the Palayakkarars began to break with the …………………..
6. In 1772 under the command of ………………….. stormed the kalaiyar kovil palace.
7. The South Indian confederacy was organised by
8. The forces of Diwan of Mysore and Chinnamalai fought at
9. The failed because there was no immediate help from outside.
10. The was the predecessor of the great Revolt of 1857.
11. Under poligar system was given for valuable military services rendered by any individual.
12. The began to consolidate and extend its influence after the three carnatic wars in Tamil Nadu.
13. ………………….. the Minister of viswanatha Nayaka helped him to introduce Palayakkarar system in Tamil Nadu.
14. The Palayakkarar system lasted for from ………………….. the Nayaks of Madurai.
15. Within their respective Palayams Palayakkarars function as ………………….. authorities.
16. Traditionally there were ………………….. Palayakkarars created by Nayak rulers.
17. Many Palayakkarars refused to pay taxes to the company as their lands handed down to them over …………………..
18. The company branded ………………….. as rebels.
19. Mahfuzkhan was the brother of …………………..
20. ………………….. was sent with a contingent army under colonel Heron to capture Tirunelveli and Madurai.
21. Mahfuzkhan had the support of ………………….. and ………………….. from the carnatic to capture Tirunelveli.
22. Two thousand soldiers from ………………….. joined the forces of Puli Thevar at kalakad.
23. The Palayakkarars of Tirunelveli under Puli Thevar constantly rebelled against
24. Yusufkhan’s (Khan sahib) original name was ………………….. before his conversion to Islam.
25. The ………………….. from Tiruchirappalli arrived in September 1760 to assist Yusufkhan to attack Puli Thevar.
26. The battering of ………………….. by Yusufkhan took two months.
27. Expel of French power from Pondicherry made Travancore, ………………….., Uthumalai and ………………….. to support the English.
28. The ………………….. was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764 by the company.
29. Captain ………………….. defeated Puli Thevar in 1767.
30. Puli Thevar escaped and died in …………………..
31. Velunachiyar was under the protection of Gopala Nayak for ………………….. years.
32. At the age of 16 ………………….. was married to Muthuvadugar of Sivagangai.
33. Dalavay means …………………..
34. In behalf of Velunachiyar Dalavai ………………….. wrote a letter to Sultan Hyder AN seeking military assistance.
35. Hyder Ali ordered his commandant ………………….. in Dindigul Fort to provide required military assistance to Velunachiyar.
36. Kuyili faithful friend of Velunachiyar led a unit of women soldiers named after …………………..
37. ………………….. was the shepherd girl who was killed by the company for not divulging information on kuyili the commander.
38. The company’s administrators ………………….. and ………………….. considered Kattabomman a man of peaceful disposition.
39. To meet out the expenses of Nawab and his family ………………….. of the revenue (taxes) collection was allowed.
40. The land revenue arrear from Kattabomman was ………………….. pagodas in 1798.
41. The did not give permission to collector Jackson to send an army to Panchalamkurichi to collect dues from Kattabomman.
42. Kattabomman’s Minister ………………….. accompanied him to Ramanathapuram to met collector Jackson.
43. In a clash at the gate of Ramanathapuram Fort English officer ………………….. was killed.
44. In may 1799 ………………….. issued orders from Madras for the advance of forces to Tirunelveli.
45. Bannerman moved his entire army to Panchalamkurichi on …………………..
46. ………………….. gathered all the secrets of the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.
47. In a clash at ………………….. Sivasubramanianar was taken a prisoner.
48. Kattabomman escaped to …………………..
49. ………………….. was executed at Nagalapuram on 13th September.
50. Kattabomman was hanged from a ………………….. in the old Fort of Kayathar.

Answers:

1. Palayam
2. Prataba Rudhra
3. Padikaval or Arasukaval
4. Puli Thevar
5. elimination of French power from Pondicherry
6. Lt. Col Bon Jour
7. Marudhu brothers of Sivagangai
8. Noyyal river bed
9. Vellore Revolt
10. Vellore Revolt
11. Palayam
12. English East India Company
13. Ariyanathar
14. two hundred years
15. independent sovereign
16. 72
17. sixty generations
18. defiant Palayakkarars
19. Nawab of Arcot
20. Mahfuzkhan
21. cavalry and foot soldiers
22. Travancore
23. Nawab’s authority
24. Marudhunayagam
25. artillary
26. Nerkkatumseval Fort
27. Seithur, Surandai
28. Yusufkhan
29. Campbell
30. exile
31. eight
32. Velunachiyar
33. Military chief
34. Thandavarayanar
35. Syed
36. Udaiyal
37. Udaiyal
38. James London, Colin Jackson
39. one- sixth
40. 3310
41. Madras Government
42. Sivasubramanianar
43. Lietenant Clarke
44. Lord Wellesley
45. 5th September 1799
46. Ramalinganar
47. Kallarpatti
48. Pudukottai
49. Sivasubramanianar
50. Tamarind tree

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Velunachiyar organised an army and succeeded in securing an alliance with Hyder Ali.
(ii) Hyder Ali provided the required military assistance to Velunachiyar
(iii) A fierce battle was fought at Devadanampatti.
(iv) Velunachiyar escaped with her daughter and lived in Ramanathapuram.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dheeran chinnamalai was trained by the French.
(ii) He launched Gwerilla attack and evaded capture by the British.
(iii) He was born at Coimbatore,
(iv) He refused to accept the rule of the British.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Coimbatore was annexed at the end of the Anglo – Mysore was in 1799.
(ii) The status of Raja of Thanjavur had been reduced to that of a vassal.
(iii) English East India company acquired the revenue districts of salem and Dindigul from Tipu.
(iv) A treaty was forced on Marudhu brothers on the charge of disloyalty.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Kattabomman took an expedition to Sivagiri to influence to join Marudhu brothers.
Reason (R): Palayakkarars of Sivagiri was a tributory to the company of the British. They refuse to join.
(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is Wrong
(c) A is wrong ans R is correct
(d) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Chinna Marudhu collected 20,000 men to challenge the English army and many Palayakkarars joined, but failed.
Reason (R): Divide and Rule Policy of the British split the forces of the Palayakkarars.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The Nawab of Arcot gave the power of collecting revenue to the English East India company from southern Palayakkarars.
Reason (R): The company branded the defiant Palayakkarars as rebels.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation to A.
Answer:
(a) A is correct R is wrong

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Carnatic treaty.
Answer:
The suppression of the Palayakkarar rebellions of 1799 and 1800-1801 resulted in the liquidation of all the local chieftains of Tamil Nadu. Under the terms of the Carnatic treaty of 31 July 1801. The British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakarar system to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

Question 2.
Why was the Revenue collection of the southern Palayakkarars was given to the company Rule?
Answer:

1. Nawab of Arcot had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the camatic wars.
2. When the debts exceeded his capacity to pay, he gave the Revenue Collection Authority to the company rule.

Question 3.
Write a note on Hyder Ali.
Answer:
Hyder Ali was the ruler of Mysore. He was a bitter enemy of England. He was born in 1772. Though he started his career as a soldier, he rose to the position of commander-in-chief. In 1766, when the Raja of Mysore died, Hyder Ali proclaimed himself as the ruler and became the Sultan of Mysore. Tipu Sultan was the son of Hyder Ali.

Question 4.
Name the three major ports of Puli Thevar. When did these forts come under the control of Yusuf Khan?
Answer:
The three major ports of Puli Thevar were Nerkattumseval, Vasudevanallur and Panayur. In 16th May 1761 they came under the control of Yusufkhan.

Question 5.
What does the word ‘Palayam’ mean? What does the Palayakkarar in Tamil refer to?
Answer:
The word ‘Palayam’ means a domain, military camp, or a little kingdom. The Palayakkarar in Tamil refers to the holder of a little Kingdom as a feudatory to a greater sovereign.

Question 6.
Write about the brave act of Kuyili the friend of Velunachiyar.
Answer:

1. Kiyili was a faithful friend of velunachiyar.
2. She led the unit of women soldiers.
3. Kuyili is said to have walked in to the British arsenal (1780) after setting herself on fire, destroying all the ammunition.

Question 7.
Why did the Nawab of Arcot borrow money from the East India company? What happened when his debts exceeded his capacity to pay?
Answer:
The Nawab of Arcot borrowed money from the East India company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars. When his debts exceeded his capacity to pay, the power of collecting the land revenue dues from southern Palayakkarars was given to the East India company.

Question 8.
How the Rebellion of Marudhu brothers referred as and who participated in the rebellion?
Answer:
In the British records the rebellion of Marudhu brothers (1800) is referred as the “Second Palayakkarar war”.

Those who participated in the Rebellion were: Marudhu Pandiyar of Sivagangai, Gopala Nayak of a Dindigul, Kerala verma of Malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaj i of Mysore.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Siege of Panchalamkuruchi
(a) Why did Lord Wellesley issue orders in May 1799?
Answer:
Lord Wellesley issued orders in May 1799 for the advance of forces from Tiruchirapalli, Thanjavur, and Madurai to Tirunelveli.

(b) Who commanded the troops?
Answer:
Major Bannerman commanded the troops.

(c) What commanded the troops?
Answer:
On 1st September 1799, an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) Why did Bannerman depute Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort?
Answer:
Bannerman deputed Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort so that he could convey a message asking him (Kattabomman) to surrender.

Question 2.
Consequences of Vellore Revolt

(a) Where was Tipu’s sons imprisoned after the revolt?
Answer:
Tipu’s sons were sent to Calcutta after the revolt.

(b) What was the reward given to the people who suppressed the revolt?
Answer:
Col. Gillespie was given 7,000 pagodas. The officers and men engaged in the suppression were rewarded with prize money and promotion.

(c) Name the English Generals who were removed from their office?
Answer:
Col. Sir John Cradock, Adjutant General Agnew and Governor William Bentinck were removed from their office.

(d) What was withdrawn after the revolt?
Answer:
The military regulations were withdrawn after the revolt.

Question 3.
New Military Regulations
(a) What were the Indian soldiers asked to do according to new’ military regulation?
Answer:
According to the new military regulation the Indian soldiers were asked not to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform. They were to be cleanly shaven on the chin and maintain uniformity how their moustache looked.

(b) How did the new turban add fuel to fire?
Answer:
The new turban was the leather cockade made of animal skin.

(c) How did the sepoys react to the new turban?
Answer:
The sepoys refused to wear the new turban.

(d) What was the Company’s reaction?
Answer:
The company remained silent. It did not pay any notice to the sepoys grievances.

Question 4.
The Seige of Panchalamkurichi

(a) From which regions forces were sent to Tirunelveli?
Answer:
From the regions of Tiruchirappali, Thanjavur and Madurai sent to Tirunelveli.

(b) Which troops joined the British later?
Answer:
The Travancore troops joined the British later.

(c) What was served on Kattabomman and for what purpose?
Answer:
An ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) What was the response of Kattabomman?
Answer:
Kattabomman refused to surrender.

Question 5.
Proclamation of 1801

(a) Who issued the proclamation of 1801?
Answer:
Marudhu pandiyar issued the proclamation of Independence 1801.

(b) Why did they issue the proclamation?
Answer:
The proclamation was an early call to the Indians to unite.

(c) Where was the copies of proclamation pasted?
Answer:
The proclamation was pasted on the walls of Nawab’s palace in Tiruchirappalli Fort and on the walls of Srirangam temple.

(d) From where did the forces reinforced to fight with the revolters?
Answer:
British reinforcements were rushed from Bengal, Ceylon and Malaya.

Question 6.
Grievances of Indian Soldiers

(a) Who deliberate on the future course of action against the company Government?
Answer:
The dispossessed little kings and feudal chieftains.

(b) What was the culmination of the Palayakkarar wars?
Answer:
The Vellore Revolt of 1806

(c) What were the resentment of British Indian army?
Answer:
The British Indian army had a strong resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.

(d) What bothered the Indian sepoys much?
Answer:
The new recruitment of the sepoys to the army.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a brief note on Vellore Mutiny.
Answer:

• The British administration prohibited the Hindu soldiers from smearing religious marks on their foreheads.
• They ordered the Muslims to shave their beard and trim their moustache.
• This created a strong resentment among the soldiers.
• Instigated by the sons of Tipu, the revolting soldiers gathered in the Vellore fort, under the pretext of a marriage function.
• At midnight the soldiers surrounded the fort and killed most of the Europeans.
• They unfurled the flag of Tipu over the fort.
• Fateh Hyder, the second Son of Tipu was declared as the ruler.
• But the revolt was crushed by the British.

Question 2.
How did Velunachiyar able to get back her territory (Sivagangai)?
Answer:

1. Velunachiyar during her period of hiding organised an army.
2. She succeeded in securing an alliance with not only Gopala Nayakar (Virupachi near Dindigul) but Hyder Ali as well.
3. She was affluent in Urdu. Velunachiyar explained in detail in urdu all the problems she had with East India Company.
4. She conveyed her strong determination to fight the English.
5. Impressed by her courage, Hyder Ali ordered his commandant Syed in Dindigal fort to provide the necessary military assistance.
6. Velunachiyar employed agents for gathering intelligence to find where the British had stored ammunition.
7. With military assistance from Gbpala Nayakar and Hyder Ali she recaptured Sivagangai.
8. She was crowned as queen with the help of Marudhu brothers.
9. She was the first female ruler to resist the British colonial power in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Dindigul League.
Answer:

1. The famous Dindigul league was headed by Gopala Nayak, the Palayakkarar of virupachi.
2. He formed the league with Lakshmi Nayak of Manaparai and poojai Nayak of Devadanapatti.
3. He drew the inspiration from Tipu Sultan, who sent a deputation to show his camaraderie.
4. He led the resistance against the British from Coimbatore and later joined Oomaidurai, Kattabomman’s brother.
5. He put up a fierce fight at Aanamalai hills.
6. The local peasants gave him full support.
7. But Gopala Nayak was overpowered by the British forces in 1801.

Question 4.
Give an account of Marudhu brothers Rebellion of 1800.
Answer:

1. Despite the suppression of Kattabomman’s revolt in 1799 rebellion broke out again in 1800.
2. In the British records it is referred to as the second Palayakkarar war.
3. In April 1800 the confederacy consisting of Marudhu Pandiyars of Sivagangai, GopalaNayak of Dindigul, Kerala verma of malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaji of Mysore met at Virupachi and decided to organise an uprising against the company.
4. The Uprising, which broke out in Coimbatore in June 1800, soon spread to Ramanathapuram and Madurai.
5. The company got wind of it and declared war on Krishnappa Nayak of Mysore, Kerala Verma of Malabar and others.
6. The Palayakars of Coimbatore, Sathyamangalam, and Tarapuram were caught and hanged.
7. In February 1801, the two brothers of Kattabomman, Oomathurai and Sevathaiah escaped from Palayamkottai prison and Chinna Marudhu took them to Siruvayal his capital.
8. The English demanded the Marudhu Pandiyars to hand over fugitives but they refused.
9. Col.Agnew and Col.Innes marched on Sivagangai.
10. In June 1801 Marudhu Pandyars issued a proclamation of independence the Tiruchirappalli proclamation.
11. The rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.

VIII. Map Study

Mark important centres of Early revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu.

Map: Centres of Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

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Question 1.
Which country after the World War I took to a policy of isolations?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) USA
Answer:
(a) Britain

Question 2.
Name the president who made amendment to Monroe Doctrine to justify American intervention in the affairs of Latin America.
(a) Theodore Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Eisenhower
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt

Question 3.
Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 4.
When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905
(b) 18 July 1906
(c) 19 August 1907
(d) 16 October 1905
Answer:
(d) 16 October 1905

Question 5.
On 8th January 1933 which day was observed ………………….
(a) Temple Entry Day
(b) Day of Deliverance
(c) Direct Action Day
(d) Independence Day
Answer:
(a) Temple Entry Day

Question 6.
Deccan Plateau covers an area of about …………………. sq. km.
(a) 8 lakhs
(b) 6 lakhs
(c) 5 lakhs
(d) 7 lakhs
Answer:
(d) 7 lakhs

Question 7.
…………………. is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitudes
Answer:
(a) Isohyets

Question 8.
The state which leads in the production of coffee is ………………….
(a) West Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Odisha
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(b) Karnataka

Question 9.
The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is ………………….
(a) Dharmapuri
(b) Vellore
(c) Dindugal
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Dharmapuri

Question 10.
…………………. Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
(a) Bhabar
(b) Tarai
(c) Bhangar
(d) Khadar
Answer:
(c) Bhangar

Question 11.
The Directive Principles can be classified into ………………….
(a) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
Answer:
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.
Non-Alliance means ………………….
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(e) demi I itari sat ion
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently

Question 13.
Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched …………………. service at free of cost.
(a) 106 ambulance
(b) 108 ambulance
(c) 107 ambulance
(d) 105 ambulance
Answer:
(b) 108 ambulance

Question 14.
India economy is ………………….
(a) Developing Economy
(b) Emerging Economy
(c) Dual Economy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
What was the impact of Swami Vivekananda’s activist ideology?
Answer:

• Vivekananda’s activist ideology related to the desire for political change among many ‘ western eductated young Bengalis.
• Many of the youths, who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement, following the Partition of Bengal, were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 16.
What are the objectives of IMF?
Answer:
The objectives of the IMF are to:

• Foster global monetary cooperation,
• Secure financial stability,
• Facilitate international trade,
• Promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and
• Reduce poverty around the world.

Question 17.
What was the bone of contention between the Company and Kattabomman?
Answer:
The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the palayams. The collectors humiliated the Palayakkarars and adopted force to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Question 18.
Describe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
Answer:
1. On 13 April 1919, a public meeting was organised at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar in defiance of the Rowlatt Act. As it happened to be Baisaki Day, thousands of villagers had gathered there to enjoy the day together.

2. General Reginald Dyer, on hearing the assemblage, surrounded the place with his troops and an armoured vehicle. He blocked the only entrance to the park and ordered his troops to fire without any warning.

3. The firing continued for ten minutes in which about 370 were killed and more than thousand injured. However, an unofficial estimates put the death toll at more than thousand. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre is a big scar on the British Indian history.

Question 19.
What is meant by ‘normal lapse rate’?
Answer:
Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 metres of ascent. It is called normal lapse rate.

Question 20.
Define soil.
Answer:
Soil is the uppermost layer of the land surface, usually composed of minerals, organic matter, living organisms, air and water. Its formation is mainly related to the parent rock material, surface relief, climate and natural vegetation.

Question 21.
Mention the major areas of Jute production in India.
Answer:
West Bengal, Andhra pradesh, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Chattisgarh, Odisha are the major jute producing area.

Question 22.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
There are six classical languages namely – Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 23.
Write a short note on Strategic partnership Agreement (SPA).
Answer:
Indo-Afghan relation was strengthened by the Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA). SPA provides assistance to re-build Afghan’s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture, water, education, health and providing duty-free access to the Indian market.

Question 24.
What is Fair trade ?
Answer:

• Fair trade is an industrial arrangement designed to help producers in developing countries achieve better trading conditions.
• Fair trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for farmers and workers.

Question 25.
Name the sectors contribute to the GDP with example.
Answer:
Name of the sectors are :

• Primary sector
• Secondary sector and
• Tertiary sector.

Question 26.
Write any five principles of Fair Trade Practices.
Answer:
Five principles of Fair trade practices:

• Creating opportunities for economically disadvantaged producers.
• Transforming and accountability.
• Fair trading practices and payment of fair price.
• Ensuring no child labour and forced labour.
• Respect for the environment.

Question 27.
What is Entrepreneurship?
Answer:
Entrepreneurship is a process of an action of an entrepreneur who undertakes to establish his entreprise. It is the ability to create and build something.

Question 28.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the fishermen?
Answer:
1. During disturbed weather over the seas, the ports likely to be affected are warned by concerned ACWCs / CWCs by advising the port authorities through port warnings to hoist appropriate Storm Warning Signals. The Department also issue “Fleet forecast” for Indian Navy.

2. Coastal Bulletins for Indian coastal areas covering up to 75 km from the coast line and sea area bulletins for the sea areas beyond 75 km. The special warnings are issued for fishermen four times a day in normal weather and every three hourly in accordance with the four stage warning in case of disturbed weather.

3. The general public, the coastal residents and fishermen are warned through state government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Television telecast programmes in national and regional hook up. A sytem of warning dissemination for fishermen through World Space Digital Based radio receiver is being planned.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 26.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) Germany joined the NATO in ………………….
(ii) The plateau which his between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri district is ………………….
(iii) At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate ………………….for domestic growth
and development.
(iv) ………………….foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.
(v) Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ………………….economy.
Answers:
(i) 1955
(ii) Bharamahal
(iii) inward investment
(iv) FORD
(v) 21%

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest
Answer:
(a) (i) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats:

Western Ghats :

1. They run parallel to the western coast and form the western boundary of the Deccan Plateau
2. They are continuous and can be crossed only through the passes like Pal Ghat, Thai Ghat, Bhor Ghat.
3. The highest peak of this region is Anaimudi with a height of 2,659 m.
4. These Ghats are higher and their average height is 900 – 1600 meters
5. They face the rain bearing winds and cause orographic rainfall.

Eastern Ghats :

1. They run parallel to the eastern coast and form the eastern boundary of the Deccan Plateau
2. These are more discontinuous and irregular.
3. The highest peak of this region is Mahendragiri with a height of 1,051 m.
4. These Ghats are lower than the western ghats with an average height of about 600 meters
5. It is almost parallel to monsoon winds originating from the Bay of Bengal and does not cause much rainfall.

(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest:

Tropical Evergreen forest :

1. These forests are located in regions of heavy rainfall more their 200 cm of rainfall.
2. The trees in these forests are evergreen.
3. These forest are very dense and composed of tall trees reaching up to the height of above 60 metres.
4. The important trees of these forests are Rosewood, Ebony, Mahogany,and . Chinchona, Bamboo and Lianas.

Deciduous forest :

1. These forests are located in regions of rainfall between 70-200 cm.
2. The trees in the deciduous forests shed their leaves due to dryness during the spring and early summer.
3. The tropical deciduous forests are commercially important as they yeild valuable timber and other forest products.
4. The main trees of these forests are Teak, Sal, Sisam, Sandalwood, Wattle and Neem.

(b) Give reason: The great Indian desert is called Marusthali.
Answer:
The Thar desert, also known as the Great Indian desert is a large arid region in the north western part of the Indian Subcontinent that covers an area of 2,00,000 Km2 and forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan.

Marusthali means sand-dune. It covered eastern portion of the Great Indian Thar Desert in Western Rajasthan. It extends over about 24,000 square miles north of the Luni River.

Question 33.
Estimate the role of Mao Tse tung in making China a communist country.
Answer:
1. Mao was greatly influenced by the ideas of Max and Lenin. He wanted to make China a communist country. So, he became active in the political activities of Hunan from the year 1912.

2.  After the death of Sun Yat-Sen in 1925, The Kuomintang was organised under the leadership of Chang Kai-Shek. Being an avowed critic of communists, Chiang removed all the important position holders in the Communist Party including Mao Tse Tung to weaken the party. However, the communists continued to influence the workers and peasants the Kuomintang represented the interests of landlords and capitalists.

3. Mao had understood that the Kuomintang grip on the towns was too strong. So, he started organising the peasantry. When the relationships between Kuomintang and Communist Party broke, a few hundred Communist led by Mao retreated into the wild mountains on the border between the provinces of Kiangsi and Hunan. The Kuomintang could not penetrate the mountains.

4.  Meanwhile, the campaign against the communists got distracted as Chiang Kai-Shek had to deal with the constant threat from Japan.

5. By 1933 Mao had gained full control of the Chinese Communist Party. In 1934, he set out on a long march with the help of about 100,000 communist army. He also got support of other communist armies.

6. By 1937, Mao had become the leader of over 10 million people. He organised workers and peasants councils in villages of Shensi and Kansu and finally got success in making China a communist country.

Question 34.
Describe the background for the formation of the Justice party and point out its contribution to the cause of social justice.
Answer:
1. It was the period of World War I. The British government thought to introduce representative institutions for Indians after the war. Fearing that such political reforms would further strengthen the political power of Brahmins, educated non-Brahmins decided to organise themselves politically.

2. So, in 1916, some prominent non-Brahmin leaders came together from South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF). It later came to be known as the Justice Party. It was a political party in the Madras Presidency of British India.

Contribution of the Justice Party to the cause-social justice:

• The Justice Party government widened education and employment opportunities for the majority of the population and created space for them in the political sphere.
• The Justices removed the legal hindrances restricting inter-caste marriages and broke the barriers that prevented Adi Dravidars from the use of public wells and tanks.
• In 1921, the Madras legislature under the Justice Party government was the first to approve participators of women in the electoral politics.

Question 35.
Explain the divisions of Northern Mountains and its importance to India.
Answer:

• The Himalayas geologically young and structurally fold mountains stretch over the northern borders of India.
• The Himalayas represent the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain harries of the world.
• The mountain ranges run in a west-east direction from the India to the Brahmaputra.
• They form an arc, which covers a distance of about 2,400 km. Their width varies from 1,400 km in Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh.

Division of Himalayas:

1. Himadri or Inner Himalayas:

• The Northern most range is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas or the “Himadri”.
• It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres.
• It contains all the prominent Himalayan peaks.
• The core of this past of Himalayas is composed of granite.
• It is perennially snow bound, and a number of glaciers descend from this range.

2. Himachal or Lesser Himalayas:

• Below Himadri is the most rugged mountain system and is know as Himachal or lesser Himalaya.
• They range are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks.
• The altitude varies between 3,700 and 4,500 metres and the average width is of 50 km.
• While the Pir Pangal range forms the longest and the most important range. The Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges are also prominent ones.
• This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and Kullu valley in Himachal Pradesh.
• This region is well known for its hill stations.

3. Siwaliks:
The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the Siwaliks.

• They extend over a width of 10 – 50 km and have an altitude varying between 900 and 1100 metres.
• These range are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges located further north.
• These valleys are covered with thick gravel and alluvium.
• The longitudinal valley lying between lesser Himalayas and the Siwaliks are known as Duns. Dehra Dun, Kofli Dun and Pati Dun are some of the well-known Duns.

Importance of Himalayas:

• Himalayas blocks southwest monsoon winds and cause heavy rainfall to north India.
• It forms a natural barrier to the Sub-continent.
• It is the source for many perennial rivers like Indus, Ganges, Brahmaputra etc.
• The Northern Mountains are described as paradise of tourists due to its natural beauty.
• Many hill stations and pilgrim centres like Amarnath, Kedarnath, Badrinath and Vaishnavidevi temples situated here.
• It provides raw materials for many forest based industries.
• It prevents the cold winds blowing from the central Asia and protects India from severe cold.
• Himalayas renowned for the rich biodiversity.

Question 36.
Explain the factors responsible for the concentration of jute industries in the hooghly region.
Most of the Jute mills of India are centralised in “Hooghly Basin” of the West Bengal. The factors responsible for the concentration of Jute industry in Hooghly Basin region are:

• Ganga, Brahmaputra delta regions grow about 90% of India’s Jute and provides raw materials in jute mills.
• Coal for power is obtained from Raniganj coalfields.
• Hooghly River provides cheap water transport and soft water for washing, processing, retting and dyeing jute.
• Humid climate is favourable for spinning and weaving.
• Cheap labour is available from West Bengal, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
• Conductive port facility of Kolkata for export and import at Kolkata.
• In addition to West Bengal, Jute mills are also located in Andhra pradesh, Uttar pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.
• India exports jute products to Australia, U.K, Thailand, U.S.A, Canada, Argentina, East Africa, New Zealand and Indonesia.

Question 37.
Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Here are the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
S.No. Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy

1. It was derived from the Constitution of the USA.
2. These Rights cannot be taken away even by the Government.
3. These Rights are enforceable by a Court of Law.
4. These have legal sanctions.
5. These rights strengthen political democracy in the country.
6. These are natural rights.

Directive Principles of State Policy :

1. It was drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland
2. These are mere instructions to the Government.
3. These are not enforceable in any court.
4. These have moral and political sanctions.
5. The implementation of these principles ensures social and economic democracy.
6. These lead to protect human rights.

Question 38.
Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.
Answer:

• The Green Revolution was bom in the country paving way for self-sufficiency in food grain production.
• Increased food grain production was made possible by an increase area cultivated with HYV of rice and wheat as also an increase in the yield of these major cereal crops.
• Area under food grains was a little more than 98 million hectares during early 1950s. The country was producing just 54 million tonnes of food grains then with an average yield of food grains of 547 kg per hectare.
• The food situation has steadily improved over a period of 65 years. Area under food grain ‘ cultivation has grown to 122 million hectares, with an increase of five-fold increase in
  food grain production.
• Yield of food grains has increased four-fold between the time of independence and at present.

Question 39.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:

• Geographical position and size of territory
• Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis
• Natural resources
• The compulsion of economic development
• Political stability and structure of government ‘
• The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
• Military strength
• International milieu

Question 40.
Describe the powers and functions of the High Court.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the High Court:

• The High Court enjoys original jurisdiction in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of court.
• It hears appeals in both civil and criminal cases against the decisions of the subordinate courts and can review their judgments.
• It can issue writs such as habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari not only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights but also for other purposes.
• It has the power of supervision over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction (except military courts or tribunals).
• It controls and supervises the working of the lower courts and maintains records of its proceedings and decisions.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1828-1875
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) San Fransico
(ii) Hawai Island
(iii) Hiroshima
(iv) Moscow
(v) Nagasaki
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Imperialism
(i) What do you know of monopoly capitalism?
(ii) How did Japan emerge as an imperial power?
(iii) Why did the industrial countries need colonies in the nineteenth century?
(iv) What were the contrasts capitalism produced?
Answer:
(a) Imperialism
(i) Monopoly capitalism is a capitalist system typified by tread monopolies in the hands of a few people. After 1870, the capitalism of free competition (based on the principle of free trade without any control or regulation by the state) became the capitalism of monopolies.

(ii) Japan took to Western education and machinery with a modem army and navy had emerged as an advanced industrialised power. It also followed the imperialistic aggression policy of the European powers faithfully. It surprised the world by giving a crushing defeat to China in the Sino-Japanese War during the period of 1894-95. Japan also defeated Russia in Russo- Japanese War in 1904 and got back Port Arthur from it. In this way it emerged as an imperial power.

(iii) An ever-growing demand for markets and raw materials made the industrial countries hungry for colonies in the nineteenth century.

(iv) Capitalism produced huge contrasts. Those contrasts were: extreme poverty and extreme wealth, slum and skyscraper, empire-state and dependent exploited colony.

(b) Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)
(i) When and where was the first conference on Non-Aligned Movement held?
(ii) Who were the prominent personalities present in the first conference?
(iii) What were the objectives of NAM?
(iv) List out any two basic principles of Non-Alignment Movement enunciated in the Belgrade Conference.
Answer:
(b) Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)
(i) The first conference on NAM was held at Belgrade in 1961.
(ii) The prominent personalities present in the first conference were Tito (Yugoslavia), Nasser (Egypt), Nehru (India), Nkrumah (Ghana) and Sukarno (Indonesia).
(iii) To fight all forms of colonialism and imperialism.
(iv) Two basic principles of NAM eximiated in the Belgrade conference were:

• peaceful cooperation, commitment to peace and security
• no military alliance with any super power.

[OR]

(c) Non-Brahmin Movement
(i) Why was the South Indian Liberal Federation formed?
(ii) What is the Non-Brahmin Manifesto?
(iii) Why did EVR join the Non-Brahmin Movement?
(iv) What do you know about anti-Hindi agitation?
Answer:
(c) Non-Brahmin Movement
(i) The South Indian Liberal Federation was formed to promote the interests of non-Brahmins.

(ii) The Non-Brahmin Manifesto had objectives such as reservation of jobs for non-Brahmins in government service and seats in representative bodies. It opposed the Home Rule Movement and criticised Congress as a party of Brahmins.

(iii) EVR joined the non-Brahmin movement because he felt the Congress was promoting the
interests of Brahmins alone.

(iv) A massive campaign was led by EVR against the introduction of Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools. The anti-Hindi agitation was popular because Hindi was considered a form of Aryan and North Indian imposition. EVR organised an anti-Hindi conference. More than 1200 protesters were arrested at a rally. The subject was later removed after protests.

(d) Maraimalai Adigal
(i) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
(ii) Name the Journal where he worked as a young man.
(iii) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
(iv) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
(i) Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu
(ii) Siddhanta Deepika
(iii) Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influences from Tamil language. He painted out that Tamil language would suffer with the introduction of Hindi.
(iv) His teachers P. Sundaram Pillai and Somasundara Nayagar were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Eastern Ghats
(ii) Gulf of Mannar
(iii) Sundarban
(iv) Desert soil region
(v) Mumbai
(vi) Chennai to Kolkata Air route
(vii) Goa
(viii) River Ganga
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Tuticorin
(ii) Salt region
(iii) Raghi growing area
(iv) Gomukhi dam
(v) Vaigai river
(vi) Kanniyakumari
(vii) One international airport
(viii) One major sea port
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium – 8

Map for Q. 42
(i) San Francisco
(ii) Hawai Island
(iii) Hiroshima
(iv) Moscow
(v) Nagasaki
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Eastern Ghats
(ii) GulfofMannar
(iii) Sundarban
(iv) Desert soil region
(v) Mumbai
(vi) Chennai to Kolkata Air route
(vii) Goa
(viii) River Ganga
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(I) Tuticorin
(ii) Salt region
(iii) Ragi growing area
(iv) Gomukhi dam
(y) Vaigai river
(vi) Kanniyakumari
(vii) One international airport
(viii) One major sea port
Answer:

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1829

Question 2.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Whose voice was Rast Goftarl
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das
(b) Baba Ramsingh
(c) Gurunanak
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Baba Ramsingh

Question 6.
Who was Swami Shradhananda?
(a) a disciple of Swami Vivekananda
(b) one who caused a split in the Brahmo Samaj of India
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj
(d) founder of Samathuva Samajam
Answer:
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj

Question 7.
Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Devendranath Tagore
(c) Jvotiba Phule
(d) Ayvankali
Answer:
(a) M.G. Ranade

Question 8.
Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi
(b) Vaikunda Swamy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Swami Shradanatha
Answer:
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi

II. Fill in the blanks

1.  …………….. founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
2. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was ……………..
3. Satyashodak Samaj was launched by ……………..
4. Gulumgir was written by ……………..
5. Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of ……………..
6. Ramakrishna Mission was established by ……………..
7. …………….. was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
8. …………….. brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
9. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by ……………..

Answers:

1. Ramalinga Adigal
2. M.G.Ranade
3. Jyothika Phule
4. Jyothika Phule
5. Vivekanandha
6. Singh Sabha
7. Narayana Guru and Ayyankali
8. Jyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
(ii) He encouraged idolatry
(iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
(iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i),(ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
(ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
(iv) Prarthana Samaj had it’s origin in the Punjab.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care, relief in time of calamities.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
(iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
(iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) alone correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
(b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
Answer:
Maharashi Debendranath Tagore laid down the following four articles of faith –

1. In the beginning, there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created the Universe.
2. He alone is the Good of truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness and Power, eternal, omnipresent, the One without second.
3. Our salvation depends on belief in him and in his worship in this world and the next.
4. Belief consists in loving him and doing his will.

Question 2.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:
Ranade was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and the Deccan Educational Society.

Question 3.
Assess the role of Ayyankali in fighting for the cause of “untouchables.”
Answer:
Ayyankali brought social tremendous changes especially in caste structure. The discrimination he faced as a child turned him into a leader of an anti-caste movement and who later fought for basic rights including access to public spaces and entry to schools. Ayyankali challenged many caste conventions such as clothing style, he wore clothes associated with upper castes that were prohibited for lower castes.

Question 4.
Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
Answer:
Ramalinga Adigal showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants, This he called as Jeevakarunya. He established in 1865, “Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sathya Sanga” which means Society for pure truth in Universal self-hood. He also established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Swami Vivekananda’s activist ideology?
Answer:
Vivekananda’s activist ideology related to the desire for political change among many western eductated young Bengalis. Many of the youths, who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement, following the Partition of Bengal, were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 6.
What are the differences between Reformist Movements and Revival Movements?
Answer:
Reformist movement means a movement to reform (or) bring positive changes in the Social or religious institution of a society.

Revival movement means to give a new life to the social or religious institution of a society which seems to be dying or being diluted.

Question 7.
List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
The Brahmo Samaj raised voice against:

1. Caste system
2. Dowry
3. Ill-treatment of women
4. Polygamy
5. Infanticide

Question 8.
Highlight the work done by -Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor and the marginalized.
Answer:
Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows. He opened the first school for untouchables in 1852 in Poona. He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage.

Question 9.
What was the impact of IyotheeThassar’s visit to SriLanka?
Answer:
Jyothee Thassar went to Sri Lanka in 1898 and converted into Buddhism. In the same year, he founded the Sakya Buddhist Society at Madras to construct the rational religious philosophy through Buddhist religion. He argued that the so-called untouchables were orginally Buddhists who were sligmatised by Brahminism. He stated that the revival of Buddhism could leberate the people from the evil of caste practice that afflicted the Hindu society.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Aligarh Movement

(i) What is the main aim of this Movement?
Answer:
The main aim of this movement, was to improve the community of Muslims by giving them education, especially is western education and take up government services.

(ii) Who is considered the soul-of this Movement?
Answer:
Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan is considered the soul of this movement

(iii) Why were English books translated into Urudu?
Answer:
English books were translated into Urdu. So that the interest of the Muslims would be best served if it is in Urdu and to concentrate on it.

(iv) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
Answer:
The college was raised to the status of a University in 1920 was Aligarh Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental college.

Question 2.
Ramalinga Adigal

(i) What is Jeevakarunya?
Answer:
It is showing compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.

(ii) What are the Songs of Grace?
Answer:
His voluminous songs that were compiled and published under the title Thiruvarupta are called Songs of Grace.

(iii) Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam?
Answer:
‘Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam’ means ‘Society for Pure Truth in Universal self-hood.

(iv) Where did he establish his free feeding house?
Answer:
He established a free feeding houses for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Question 3.
Deoband Movement

(i) Who were the organizers of this Movement?
Answer:
The organizers of Deoband movement was the orthodox Muslim Ulema.

(ii) What were the two main objectives of the Movement?
Answer:
(a) The twin objective of this movement were propagating the pure teaching of the Quran and the Hadith.
(b) Encouraging the spirit of Jihad against the foreign and the un- islamic elements.

(iii) Who founded the school at Deoband?
Answer:
The Ulema under the leadership of Muhammad QasimWanotavi and Rashid Ahamad Gangotri founded the school at Deoband in U.R

(iv) Against whom the fatwa was issued by Deoband Ulema?
Answer:
The Deoband Ulema issued a religious decree (Fatwa) against Syed Ahmed Khan’s organisation called the United Patriotic Association and The Muhammaden Anglo-Oriental Association.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the contributions of Revivalist Movements with that of Reform Movements.
Answer:
The Indian reformists were quite hesitant to subject their old notions and habits to critical scrutiny. Instead they attempted to harmonise both Indian and Western cultures. However, their ideas and their actions helped to mitigate social evils such as sati, female infanticide, and child marriage, and all kinds of superstitious religious beliefs. Reformist movements like the Brahmo Samaj, the Prathana Samaj and the Aligarh Movement. These movements brought considerable reforms in the contemporary society.

Revivalist movements tended to revive former customs or practices and thus take the society back to the glorious past. The Deoband Movement was a revivalist movement, organised by the orthodox Muslim Ulimas other such movements included the Arya Samaj, the Ramakrishna Mission.

Question 2.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:

1. Introduction of English Education made the Indians think that the British aim is to produce English educated middle class clerks.
2. The People came under the influence of Western ideas and thoughts.
3. The Propaganda of Christianity in India which served Britains imperial interests.
4. Many Indian scholars such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Keshab Chandra Sen contributed to bring a change in the social institutions of the country.
5. The Reformists were deeply concerned with the existed social evils like sati, child marriage and Polygamy.
6. Following the organisational structure of Christian missionaries, Indian reformers wanted to establish reform movements.
7. All over India, there set to begin a social awakening on the eradication of terrible caste tyranny.
8. The reformers strived hard to bring back the glorious past of India.

Question 3.
Evaluate the contributions of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and Swami Vivekananda to regenerate Indian society.
Answer:
Ramakrishna Paramhamsa and Vivekananda have played a big role in regenerating the Indian society.

Ramakrishna Paramhamsa: He was a simple priest of Dakshineshwar near Calcutta. He gained popularity in the latter half of the nineteenth century. He emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices such as singing bhagan. He was an ardent worshipper of goddess Kali. In his view, all religions contain the universal elements which, if practised, would lead to salvation. He said, “Jiva in Siva” (all living beings are God). They need service not mercy service for man, must be regarded as God. He attracted educated youth who were dissatisfied with the rational orientation of religious reform organisations such as the Brahmo Samaj.

Swami Vivekananda: He was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramhamsa. He emphasised a cultural nationalism and made a call to Indian youth to regenerate Hindu society. His ideas bred a sense of self-confidence among Indians who felt inferior in relations to the materialistic achievements of the west. He suggested that the lower castes should be allowed to engage in the Hindu rituals from which they were traditionally excluded. His activist ideology rekindled the desire for political change among many western educated young Bengalis. Many of the youths who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 4.
Write an essay on the role played by the 19^th century reformers towards the cause of Women.
Solution:

1. The position of women in India during the 19^th century was miserable. They were not treated equal to men and they were denied rights.
2. The Social reformers of the 19th century played a significant role in bringing an awakening to the people that women’s participation will strengthen the society.
3. The reformers strongly advocated education for women.
4. Raja Ram Mohan Roy with the help of the Governor General of British, William Bentinck abolished Sati in 1829.
5. He advocated the rights of widows to remarry and wanted polygamy to come to an end. He also raised voice against child marriage.
6. Reformer Vidyasagar led a movement by which ‘Widows Remarriage Reform Act’ of 1856 was intended
7. to improve the lot of child widows and save them perpetual widowhood.
8. Reformer Jyothiba Phule opened Orphanages and homes for widows.
9. Sikh Reform movement prohibited the dowry system and child marriage.
10. Reformer Iyothee Thessar considered education as an important tool for empowerment for women and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools for the Untouchables in Tamil Nadu.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Debate Social evils of 19^th century with those of present day.
Answer:
The list below shows the social evil of 19^th century and of the present day. The students should form themselves as separate groups one supporting the 19th century and the other supporting present day. The judgement of the debate can be.

There should be great reformers like that of the 19^th century and eradicate the social evils of today. Education itself is a great reformer that should awaken the minds of the young children of today for not involving themselves in any of the social evil nor they see others doing it.

Social evils of 19^th century: Child Marriage, superstitious beliefs, Sati, not allowing widows to remarry denying education for women, caste differences, untouchability, Brahman domination.

Social evils of present day: Female Infanticide Dowry system, sexual harassment of women, (or) women safety, Domestic violence (or) violence at home . Drug trafficing, pollution (Air, sound and water) Hygiene and sanitation. Disobeying rules,everywhere and anywhere.

Question 2.
Students can write an assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.
Answer:
Assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.

Brahmo Samaj founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy denounces image worship and the caste system. In the 19^th century the society benefitted by this social reform. The movement lost force in the 20^th century its fundamentals are still accepted by the society.

Ramakrishna Mission: The Mission carries out extensive educational and Philanthropic work in India. They work on the principle of selfless work done with dedication to God. As of 2016, the Mission have 182 centers all over the world (136 in India, 13 in USA, 13 in Bangladesh, 2 in Russia) .Besides these, there are private centers all over the world run by the followers of Sri Ramakrishna and Vivekananda. The Mission has received numerous awards throughout its lifetime.

Theosophical society: The Theosophical society at Adyar is a beautiful campus with influence since its founders first arrived here in 1882. The society helps the nation even today by running Olcott Memorial High school in Tamil Nadu. They extend their help by various activities at times of disasters especially Tsunami in 2004. Now in Adyar , open all days except Saturday, Sunday public hoildays.

Arya Samaj: Arya Samaj established a chain of DAV educational institutions for the education of both boys and girls. It represented a form of national awakening of the Indian people. It adopts the programme of mass education, elimination of sub-castes and equality of men and women.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… was one of the earlier reformers influenced by the western ideas to initiate reforms.
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) M.G.Ranade
(d) Atma Ram Pandurang.
Answer:
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 2.
Lord William Bentinck passed an Act in 1829, to abolish “Sati” due to the efforts of
(a) Mrs. Annie Besant
(b) Lala Hansray
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 3.
Arya Samaj movement initiated its movement in ………………
(a) Assam
(b) Punjab
(c) Bihar
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Punjab

Question 4.
The headquarters of the Rama Krishna Mission is at
(a) Kanchipuram
(b) Belur
(c) Melur
Answer:
(b) Belur

Question 5.
Prarthana Samaj was founded in ………………
(a) Bihar
(b) Bombay
(c) Bengal
(d) Madras
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Question 6.
Sir Syed Ahamed Khan started the
(a) Aligarh movement
(b) Muslim League
(c) Theosophical Society
Answer:
(a) Aligarh movement

Question 7.
……………… was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramahansa
(a) Vivekananda
(b) Atma Ram Pandurang
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Keshab Chandra Sen
Answer:
(a) Vivekananda

Question 8.
A great socialist reformer from Kerala is
(a) Sree Narayana Guru
(b) Guru Nanak
(c) Guru Sai
Answer:
(a) Sree Narayana Guru

Question 9.
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha ………………
(a) 1849
(b) 1851
(c) 1850
(d) 1862
Answer:
(b) 1851

Question 10.
The Hindus who had been converted to other religions were reconverted by
(a) Swadeshi movement
(b) Suddhi movement
(c) National movement
Answer:
(b) Suddhi movement

Question 11.
Iyothee Thassar called the ……………… as Sathi Petham Atra Dravidar.
(a) Untouchables
(b) Parsis
(c) Akali
(d) Sikhs
Answer:
(a) Untouchables

Question 12.
……………… criticized the rule of British as the rule of White Devils.
(a) Ramalinga Adigal
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal
(c) Furdunji Naoroji
(d) Iyothee Thassar
Answer:
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 13.
……………… considered education as a powerful tool for empowerment and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools.
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Iyothee Thassar
(c) Vaikunda Swamigal
(d) Sree Narayan Guru
Answer:
(b) Iyothee Thassar

Question 14.
……………… raised funds and campaigned to educate the lower caste of Pulaya people.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Ramalinga Adigal
Answer:
(a) Ayyankali

Question 15.
……………… was called respectfully by his followers as Ayya.
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Namdhari
Answer:
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 16.
……………… launched the Satyashodak Samaj to stir the non-Brahmin masses to self-respect and ambition.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Jyotiba Phule.
(c) Narayana Guru
(d) Annie Besant
Answer:
(b) Jyotiba Phule.

Question 17.
……………… started a number of DAV Schools.
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Theosophical Society
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 18.
……………… worked mainly for the Ezhava community of Kerala.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) M.G. Ranade
Answer:
(b) Sree Narayan Guru

Question 19.
Deoband movement was a ……………… movement.
(a) Reform
(b) Revival
(c) Anti-Reform
(d) Anti-Revival
Answer:
(b) Revival

Question 20.
Rast Goftar was the main voice of ……………… movement.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) Parsi
(d) Vaikundar
Answer:
(c) Parsi

Question 21
……………… condemned the religious custom of animal sacrifice.
(a) Iyothee Thassar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Ramalinga
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Vaikundar

Question 22.
“I saw those people, poor and of unmatched honor, their hearts weary, and I grew weak” who said this”?
(a) Vallalar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Iyothee Thassar
(d) Deoband
Answer:
(a) Vallalar

Question 23.
……………… and ……………… are the Socio-religious movement among the Sikhs.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) (a), (b) and Akaii movement
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b)

Question 24.
……………… was the movement founded in USA and later shifted to India,
(a) Ramakrishna Mission
(b) Theosophical Society
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(b) Theosophical Society

Question 25.
……………… established the Khalsa college for the Sikhs in Amritsar.
(a) Namdhari
(b) Nirankari
(c) Singh Sabha
(d) Akaii
Answer:
(c) Singh Sabha

II. Fill in the blanks

1. English Education was introduced by British with the arm of producing …………….. in India.
2. In the 19th Century …………….. had its effect on the newly emerging middle class.
3. The Indian reformers attempted to harmonize both Indian and …………….. cultures.
4. The two categories of reform movements are: reform movements and …………….. movements.
5. Raja Ram Mohan Roy preached worship of …………….. God.
6. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s ideas forced Bentinck to bring legislation abolishing ……………..
7. Sati was abolished in the year ……………..
8. The Governor General …………….. helped in abolishing Sati in India.
9. Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
10. Brahmo Samaj was taken over by …………….. after the death of Ram Mohan Roy.
11. Keshab Chandra Sen joined the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
12. Widow Remarriage Reform Act was passed in the year ……………..
13. Gulamgiri was an important work written by ……………..
14. …………….. was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association.
15. …………….. was the founder of the Prarthana Samaj.
16. …………….. movement was similar to the Brahmo Samaj.
17. The age for marriage was fixed as …………….. years.
18. The age of marriage was raised to thirteen years in ……………..
19. The age of consent Act was passed in ……………..
20. Arya Samaj was initiated at ……………..
21. …………….. was the founder of Arya Samaj.
22. Strict monotheism was one of the main principle of ……………..
23. Swami Dayananda wrote the book ……………..
24. …………….. started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic Schools and Colleges.
25.  …………….. raised his voice as Go back to Vedas.
26. …………….. accused that the group running he DAV School is too Westernised.
27. …………….. worked as a priest in Kali temple but later became a great reformer.
28. “Jiva is Siva” means ……………..
29. The counter-conversion movement was called as ……………..
30. …………….. means songs of Ignorance.
31. The Theosophical Society was founded by …………….. and ……………..
32. The Theosophical movement was founded in the …………….. in 1875.
33. The Theosophical movement was in India at …………….. in Chennai in 1886.
34. Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas with the help of the newspapers called …………….. and ……………..
35. …………….. opened a first School for untouchables in 1852 in Poona.
36. Jyothi Phule launched the Truth Seekers Society in ……………..
37. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam is an organisation to uplift the ……………..
38. …………….. translated many English books especially Science books into Urdu.
39. …………….. raised funds to educate the lower class pulaya people.
40. …………….. started the Aligarh movement.
41. The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College was founded in the year ……………..
42. The Aligarh Anglo-Oriental College was raised to the status of a University in ……………..
43. …………….. used journalism as tool to make inroads into the print public sphere.
44. Ramalinga Adigal was popularly known as ……………..
45. Mercy to all living beings including plants is called ……………..
46. …………….. opposed both Infant marriages and the use of astrology.
47. …………….. was the founder of the Nirankari movement.
48. Nirankar movement worship the God as ……………..
49. Nirankar means ……………..
50. The Namdhari movement was founded by ……………..
51. …………….. cult was also known as Ayya Vazhi.
52. …………….. founded Samathura Samajam.
53. …………….. was a siddha medicine practitioner who turned into a reformer.
54. …………….. started a weekly journal Oru Paisa Tamilian.

Answers:

1. Clerks
2. Christianity
3. Western
4. Revival
5. One
6. Sati
7. 1829
8. Bentinck
9. 1828
10. Debendranath Tagore
11. 1857
12. 1856
13. JyotibaPhule
14. Ranade
15. Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
16. PrarthanaSamaj
17. Ten
18. 1925
19. 1860
20. Punjab
21. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
22. Arya Samaj
23. Satyartha Prakash
24. Arya Samaj
25. Swami Dayanda Saraswathi
26. Swami Shradhananda
27. Ramakrishna
28. All living beings are God
29. Suddi movement
30. Marutpa
31. Madame H.P Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott
32. USA
33. Adyar
34. New India and Commonweal
35. JyothiPhule
36. 1870
37. Depressed classes
38. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
39. Sadhu Jana paripalanasangam
40. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
41. 1875
42. 1920
43. IyotheeThassar
44. Vallalar
45. Jeeva karanga
46. Parsi Reform movement
47. Baba Dayal das
48. Nirankar
49. Formless
50. Baba Ram Singh
51. Vaikunda Swamigal
52. VaikundaSwamigal
53. Iyothee Thassar
54. Iyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statements

Question 1.
(i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy argued that the ancient texts of the Hindus preached Monotheism.
(ii) Brahmo Samaj failed to attract the people from the lower sections of society.
(iii) Its impact on the culture of modern Bengal and its middle class was quite significant.
(iv) The poet Rabindranath Tagore carried on the work of Brahmo Samaj after Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The age of marriage of initially fixed for 25 years.
(ii) Later it was reduced to thirteen years in 1925.
(iii) It was raised to eighteen in 1891.
(iv) Now, the law remained as twenty as in 1860 Act.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong

Question 3.
(i) Arya Samaj attempted to check the incidence of religious conversion in British India.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with God through the practice of singing bhajans.
(iii) Theosophical Society stimulated the study of the Christianity among people.
(iv) Savitribai Phule devoted her life for the upliftment of the depressed classes.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Narendra Nath Datta was known as Swami Vivekananda.
(ii) He became famous for his address on Hinduism at the Indian Congress of Hindus in Chicago in 1893.
(iii) Narayana Guru inspired Kerala Society especially among the Ezhavas.
(iv) inspired by Sree Narayana Guru, Ayyankali founded the Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas through her newspapers called New India and Commonweal.
(ii) Jyotiba Phule is chiefly known as the earliest leader of the non-Brahmin movement.
(iii) His work Gulamgiri is an important text that summarized many of his radical ideas.
(iv) Thinkers and writers such as Kumaran Asan and Dr. Palpu were influenced by Narayana Guru ideas.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.

Question 6.
(i) Deoband School did not prepare its students for the government jobs but for the preaching of Islamic faith.
(ii) In South Travancore, there were restrictions on lower caste people as to what to wear and not to wear.
(iii) lyothee Thassar established a movement called as Oru, Paisa Tamilian.
(iv) John Rathinam ideas were collected into a text called Akila Thirattu.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Keshab Chandra Sen was greatly influenced by Christianity. Reason (R): He was believing in its spirit, but not in the person of its founder.
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Reform movement Arya Samaj was started in Punjab. Reason (R): Swami Dayananda Saraswathi settled in Punjab to preach his ideas
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The primary achievement of the Ramakrishna was his ability to attract educated youths..
Reason (R): The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo vedic Schools and colleges.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Narayana Guru established a grand temple at Arivupuram and dedicated it to all.
Reason (R): In his days, the people of the depressed classes has no access to temples.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong R is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The School at Deoband encouraged English education. Reason (R): The instruction imparted in the School was the Original Islamic religion.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct.
(c) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Ramaiinga Adigal established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur in 1867.
Reason (R): There was a terrible famine in South India in 1866.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Pandithar lyothee Thassar went to Srilanka in 1898 and converted to Buddhism.
Reason (R): He was disappointed with the Hindi dharma, which served as a base for propogating caste in Hindu Society.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and A is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (vii)
B. (vi)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Prarthana Samaj.
Answer:

1. Prarthana Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1867 by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang.
2. It advocated inter-dining, inter-caste marriage, widow re-marriage, improvement of women and downtrodden classes, abolition of Purdha System and Child marriage.
3. The Samaj is founded night schools, asylum and Orphanages and other such institutions for the downtrodden people.

Question 2.
Write a note on Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
It was a reform movement formed in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy at Calcutta. The Samaj mainly focused on the customs of Sati, Child marriage and Polygamy and wanted to remove them legally. The Samaj was successful by abolishing Sati in 1829, with the help of the Governor General Bentinck. It appealed widow remarriage and followed monotheism.

Question 3.
Mention the main principles of the Theosophical Society.
Answer:

1. To develop the feeding of fraternity.
2. To study ancient religions, philosophy and science.
3. To find out the laws of nature and the development of divine power in India.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna mission. The mission did not restrict itself to religious activities but was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is the practical Vedanta of this mission.

Question 5.
Point out the impacts of Social and Religious reform movements in the 19th Century.
Answer:

1. These movements greatly helped to abolish some of the evils like sati, child marriage and inter and untouchability.
2. It promoted education, encouraged widow re-marriage, inter-caste marriages and inter-dining.
3. It instilled social awakening and spirit of nationalism in the middle of Indians.
4. It made the people to be proud of their culture and glory.
5. It helped the Indians to face problems with scientific approach and outlook.

Question 6.
List out the Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(i) The Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu are Ramalinga Swamigal – emphasising feeding of poor.
(ii) Vaikunda Swamigal – emphasising unity of people of all castes.
(iii) Iyothee Thassar – emphasising Caste less society.

Question 7.
Who is known as Martin-Luthur of Hinduism? Why?
Answer:

1. Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi is known as the Martin Luther of Hinduism.
2. He started Suddhi Movement to reconvert the Hindus who had been converted to other religions earlier.
3. By his efforts, a large number of people were taken back within the fold of Hinduism.

Question 8.
As a student of today, what do you think the social evils present in today’s world and need reform?
Answer:
The Social evils present in today’s world and need reforms are Girl child harassment, female infanticide, Non-observance of societal rules, Adulteration, and above all poverty and pollution.

VII. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Brahmo Samaj

(a) Who founded Brahmo Samaj?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy

(b) What Were the languages learnt by Raja Rammohan Roy?
Answer:
Arabic, Sanskrit, Persian, English, French, Latin, Greek and Hebrew languages.

(c) Name the books written by Raja Rammohan Roy.
Answer:
Precepts of Jesus Christ and Guide to Peace and Happiness were written by Raja Rammohan Roy.

(d) What did Brahmo Samaj believe?
Answer:
It believed in a “Universal religion” based on the principle of one Supreme God.

Question 2.
Arya Samaj

(a) When, where and who founded the Arya Samaj.
Answer:
The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi in 1875, in Punjab.

(b) What was the main idea focused by the Samaj.
Answer:
‘Go Back to Vedas’.

(c) What did the Samaj do in the field of education?
Answer:
The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic schools and colleges to spread education.

(d) What was the name of the school started after dayananda starting OAV schools are westernised?
Answer:
By 1900, Swami Shraddhanada established his own network of schools called Gurukulas emphasising the study of vedas.

Question 3.
The Theosophical Society

(a) Who was the founder of the Theosophical Society?
Answer:
It was founded by Madame Blavatsky and Henry S. Olcott.

(b) Why was it founded?
Answer:
It was founded to preach about God and Wisdom.

(c) Who was the president of this society in 1893?
Answer:
Mrs. Annie Besant.

(d) Where is the headquarters of this society located?
Answer:
The headquarters of this society is at Adyar in Chennai.

Question 4.
Parsi and Sikh Reform Movements

(a) Who founded the Parsis’ Reform Society?
Answer:
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Parsis’ Reform Society in 1851.

(b) What are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements?
Answer:
Nirankaris and Namdharis are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements.

(c) Name the leader from Parsi community who played a big role in early congress?
Answer:
Pherozeshah Mehta and Dinshaw Wacha played a big role in early congress from Parsi community.

(d) Who were the founders of the Sikh Reform movements? What was the objective?
Answer:
Baba Dayal Das was the founder of the Nirankari movement and Baba Ram Singh was the founder of the Namdhari movement Its main objective was to restore the purity of Sikhism and the authority of Guru Nanak.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Elaborate the Early Reform Movements in Bengal.
Answer:
Brahmo Samaj: This was one of the earlier reform movement founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Deeply concerned with the customs of Sati, child marriage and polygamy, raised his voice through the Samaj and abolished sati by legislation in 1829. The Samaj strongly advocated education for women, widow remarriage and western education. It Condemned Idol worship and meaningless rituals and ceremonies.

Adi Brahmo Samaj: In 1886, a Split occurred in Brahmo Samaj and Keshab Chandra Sen left the Samaj and founded a new organisation called Debendranath’s organisation also called as Adi-Brahmo Samaj, This Samaj also followed the ideas of Brahmo Samaj.

Prarthana Samaj: A movement similar to Brahmo Samaj founded in Bombay was called Prathana Samaj. It was founded by R.C Bhandarkar and Mahadev Govinda Ranade. Inter caste dining, Inter-caste marriage, Widow remarriage, improvement of women and depressed classes were their main activities.

Arya Samaj: The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi. This is a revival movement stating ‘ Go back to Vedas’, The Samaj concentrated on social reforms and education . DAV schools of today were originally started by Arya Samaj.

Ramakrishna Mission: Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda. The mission actively involved in the social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is their slogan which means Service to God.

Theosophical Movement: The Theosophical movement was founded in ‘ USA by Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott. Later the movement laid its foundation headed by Annie Besant in Adyar, Chennai.

She spread her ideas through her newspaper New India and commonweal. This movement played a major role in Indian Nationalist politics.

Question 2.
Explain the activities of the Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:

1. Ramakrishna Mission’s activities cover the areas like educational work, healthcare, cultural activities, rural upliftment, tribal welfare and youth movement.
2. It has its own hospitals, charitable dispensaries, maternity clinics, tuberculosis clinics and mobile dispensaries.
3. It also maintains training centres for nurses.
4. Orphanages and homes for the elderly people are maintained. Rural and tribal welfare works are also going on.
5. It educational activities the Ramakrishna Mission has established many renowned educational institutions in India.
6. It has its own universities, colleges and vocational training centres.
7. It has also involved in disaster relief operations during famine, epidemic, fire, flood, earthquake, cyclones and communal disturbances.
8. It played an important role in the installation of Photo Voltaic (PV) lighting system in the Sundarbans regions of West Bengal. The PV lighting was used to provide electricity to the people, who were traditionally depending on kerosene and diesel.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 3 Thermal Physics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The value of universal gas constant:
(a) 3.81 mol^-1 K^-1
(b) 8.03 mol^-1 K^-1
(c) 1.38 mol^-1 K^-1
(d) 8.31 mol^-1 K^-1
Answer:
(d) 8.31 mol^-1 K^-1

Question 2.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is:
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 3.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of ______.
(a) X or -X
(b) Y or -Y
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)
Hint: When a substance is heated its expansion is positive i,e, can be taken along either +X or +Y direction. But when substance is cooled it’s either length or area or volume decreases i.e. with respect expansion, it is opposite direction i.e. either -X or -Y direction respectively.

Question 4.
Temperature is the average of the molecules of a substance.
(a) difference in K.E and P.E
(b) sum of P.E and K.E
(c) difference in T.E and P.E
(d) difference in K.E and T.E
Answer:
(b) sum of P.E and K.E

Question 5.
In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is:

(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C
(b) A → B, A → C, B → C
(c) A → B, A ← C, B → C
(d) A ← B, A → C, B ← C
Answer:
(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value of Avogadro number ………..
2. The temperature and heat are ……….. quantities.
3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of ……….. of water through
4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of volume is …………

Answer:

1. 6.023 × 10²³
2. Inter convertible
3. 1 gram, 1°C
4. A straight line

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real expansion.
2. Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
3. According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely proportional to volume.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False – According to Charles law, at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to temperature.

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II

Answer:
A. (s)
B. (t)
C. (p)
D. (q)
E. (r)

V. Assertion and Reason type questions.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: There is no effects on other end when one end of the rod is only heated.
Reason: Heat always flows from a region of lower temperature to higher temperature of the rod.

2. Assertion: Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid
Reason: Interatomic or intermolecular distance in the gas is comparably high.
Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)

VI. Answer in briefly.

Question 1.
Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is defined as the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

Question 2.
Distinguish between linear and superficial areal expansion.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the coefficient of cubical expansion?
Answer:
The ratio of increase in the volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called a coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 4.
State Boyle’s law
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
P ∝ 1 / V

Question 5.
State-the law of volume.
Answer:
When the pressure of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.
i.e., V ∝ T.
(or)
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = constant.

Question 6.
Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is co-efficient of real expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of real expansion is defined as the ratio of the true rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume. The SI unit of coefficient of real expansion is the K^-1.

Question 8.
What is the coefficient of apparent expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of apparent expansion is defined as the ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume.
The SI unit of the coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Find the final temperature of a copper rod whose area of cross section changes from 10 m² to 11 m² due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 /K).
Answer:
Change in area ΔA = 11 – 10 = 1 m²
Initial temperature T₁ = 90 K
Let Final temperature be T₂K
A₀ = 10 m²
Coefficient of superficial expansion is
α_A = 0.0021 / k
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
\(\frac{1}{10}\) = 0.0021 ΔT
∴ ΔT = 0.0021 × 10
= 0.021
T₂ – T₁ = 0.021
T₂ – 90 = 0.021
∴ Final temperature T₂ = 90.021 K

Question 2.
Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar. Whose volume is increased 0.25 m³ from 0.3 m³ due to the change in its temperature of 50 K.
Answer:
Initial volume V₀ = 0.25 m³
Final volume = 0.30 m³
Change in volume ΔV = 0.3 – 0.25 = 0.05 m³
Temperature ΔT = 50K
Coefficient of cubical expansion is

∴ Coefficient of Cubical expansion
α_v = 0.004 /K

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Derive the ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law and Avogadro’s law.
According to Boyle’s law, PV = constant ………. (1)
According to Charles’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant ……… (2)
According to Avogadro’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant …….. (3)
After combining equations (1), (2) and (3), you equation. can get the following
\(\frac{V}{nT}\) = constant ……. (4)
The above relation is called the combined law of gases. If you consider a gas, which contains µ moles of the gas, the number of atoms contained will be equal to µ times the Avogadro number, N₀.
i.e., n = µN_A
Using equation (5), in equation (4) can be written as
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = constant
The value of the constant in the above equation is taken to be K_B, which is called as Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10^-23 JK^-1). Hence, we have the following equation:
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = K_B
PV = µN_AK_BT
µN_AK_B = R
which is termed as universal gas constant whose value is 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1.
PV = RT
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 2.
Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.
Answer:

To start with, the liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be determined is poured in a container up to a level. Mark this level as L₁. Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner. Initially, the container receives the thermal energy and it expands. As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to have reduced. Mark this reduced level of liquid as L₂. On further heating, the thermal energy supplied to the liquid through the container results in the expansion of the liquid. Hence, the level of liquid rises to L₃. Now, the difference between the levels L₁ and L₃ is called as apparent expansion, and the difference between the levels L₂ and L₃ is called real expansion. The real expansion is always more than that of apparent expansion.
Real expansion = L₃ – L₂
Apparent expansion = L₃ – L₁

IX. HOT Question

Question 1.
If you keep ice at 0°C and water at 0°C in either of your hands, in which hand you will feel more chillness? Why?
Answer:
The hand consisting of ice at 0°C would feel more chillness because, ice undergoes melting. More amount of energy (chillness) is transferred to hand. In addition ice has latent heat of fusion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The commonly used scales of temperature are:
(a) Kelvin
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Ideal gas equation for n mole of gas ____.
(a) PT = nRV
(b) Pv = nRT
(c) PV = nRT
(d) PT = RV.
Answer:
(b) Pv = nRT
Hint: T represents absolute temperature by t temperature in 0°C.

Question 3.
The value of 27° C in the kelvin scale:
(a) 30 K
(b) 300 K
(c) 327 K
(d) 0 K
Answer:
(b) 300 K

Question 4.
Kelvin scale has zero reading at temperature _____.
(a) 0°C
(b) -100°C
(c) -273°C
(d) -212°C.
Answer:
(c) -273°C
Hint: K = C + 273 or C = K – 273
at K = 0, C = -273°.

Question 5.
The relation between Celsius and kelvin scales of temperature is:
(a) K = 273 – C
(b) K = C + 273
(c) K=
(d) K = C
Answer:
(b) K = C + 273

Question 6.
Linear expansion is related to _____.
(a) area
(b) length
(c) volume
(d) mass.
Answer:
(b) length
Hint: Linear expansion is directly proportional to the original length of rod and rise in temperature.

Question 7.
For any exchange of heat:
(a) Heat gained = Zero
(b) Heat lost = Zero
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost
(d) Heat gained = -heat lost
Answer:
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost

Question 8.
………. is the degree of hotness.
(a) Heat
(b) Calorie
(c) Joule
(d) Temperature
Answer:
(d) Temperature

Question 9.
Avogadro’s Number _____ mol.
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.025 × 10²⁵
(c) 6.24 × 10²⁴
(d) 6.022 × 10²².
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
Hint: N_A = 6.023 × 10²³

Question 10.
If a temperature of 327°C is equivalent to ………. in kelvin scale.
(a) 273 K
(b) 600 K
(c) -527 K
(d) -273 K
Answer:
(b) 600 K

Question 11.
When spirit is poured on our hand, cooling is produced because:
(a) Spirit has cooling effect.
(b) Spirit has boiling effect.
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.
(d) The boiling point of spirit is high.
Answer:
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.

Question 12.
Process of transfer of heat through liquid and gases is _____.
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) convection
Hint: Heat flows by the conventional current is upward direction by convection method.

Question 13.
Heat required to melt 1 kg of ice at 0°C is:
(a) 226 × 10² J
(b) 336 × 10³ J
(c) 353 × 10³ J
(d) 3 × 10⁵ J
Answer:
(b) 336 × 10³ J

Question 14.
Relation between α, β and γ is _____.
(a) α = β = γ
(b) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=3 \gamma\)
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
(d) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{4}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
Hint: (c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\) (or) 6α = 3β = 2γ.

Question 15.
When a certain quantity of ice is melting remains the same.
(a) Volume
(b) Temperature
(c) Mass
(d) Density
Answer:
(b) Temperature

Question 16.
Steam causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature because steam:
(a) is in vapour state
(b) contains less heat than water at the same temperature.
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.
(d) cause bums by nature.
Answer:
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.

Question 17.
Which expansion coefficient (α, β, γ) of a substance has the largest and y smallest magnitude?
(a) α, β
(b) α, γ
(c) γ, α
(d) β, α.
Answer:
(c) γ, α
Hint: As γ is 3 times of α and β is 2 times of α. so α is minimum and γ is maximum.

Question 18.
According to the principle of mixtures, the heat lost by a hot body is equal to:
(a) Heat gained by the surroundings
(b) Heat transferred to the surroundings
(c) Heat gained by the body
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Heat gained by the body

Question 19.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air at high temperature is:
(a) Less
(b) Temperature
(c) More
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) More

Question 20.
In steam heater, solids attain constant temperature because:
(a) Solid should not be heated less
(b) Solid should not be heated more
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C
(d) Volume does not change.
Answer:
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C

Question 21.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air depends on:
(a) Pressure of atmosphere
(b) Temperature of atmosphere
(c) Humidity of atmosphere E
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Temperature of atmosphere

Question 22.
Volume of a gas at t°C is given by:

Answer:
(c) V_t = V_o (1 + \(\frac{t}{273}\))

Question 23.
At a higher temperature to saturate air, ………. quantity of water vapour is required.
(a) Less
(b) Some
(c) More
(d) No
Answer:
(c) More

Question 24.
The relationship between length (L₀) of a body and change in temperature is:

Answer:
(b) L₀ = \(\frac{ΔL}{α_{L}ΔT}\)

Question 25.
The S.l unit of coefficient of linear expansion is:
(a) °C
(b) K^-1
(c) Cal
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) K^-1

Question 26.
Coefficient of superficial expansion:
(a) is same for all materials
(b) is infinity
(c) different for different materials
(d) is zero
Answer:
(c) different for different materials

Question 27.
The ratio of change in area of a metal to its original area is \(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) =
(a) α_A
(b) α_AΔT
(c) \(\frac{α_A}{ΔT}\)
(d) unity
Answer:
(b) α_AΔT

Question 28.
According to Boyle’s law the relation between pressure (P) and volume of a gas is:
(a) P ∝ V
(b) P = V
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)
(d) V ∝ P
Answer:
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 29.
At constant temperature of a gas:
(a) PV = 1
(b) PV = 0
(c) PV = infinity
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 30.
The mathematical form of Charles’s law is:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{T}\)
(b) TV = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) V = T
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

Question 31.
If V is the volume and n is the number of atoms present in it then:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{n}\)
(b) V ∝ n
(c) V = n
(d) \(\frac{n}{V}\) = constant
Answer:
(b) V ∝ n

Question 32.
\(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant is the mathematical form of:
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’s law
(c) Avogadro’s law
(d) Dalton’s law
Answer:
(c) Avogadro’s law

Question 33.
Mathematical form of Boyle’s law is:
(a) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
(b) PT = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 34.
A gas that obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law is called:
(a) Gas
(b) Ideal gas
(c) Perfect gas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Ideal gas

Question 35.
The value of universal gas constant is:
(a) 3.81 J/mol/K
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K
(c) 8.13
(d) 6.81 J/mol/K
Answer:
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 36.
The unit of universal gas constant is:
(a) \(\frac{J}{K}\)
(b) J mol^-1K
(c) J/mol/K
(d) J K^-1 mol
Answer:
(c) J/mol/K

Question 37.
If atoms of a gas do not interact with each other than the gas is:
(a) natural gas
(b) bio gas
(c) real gas
(d) perfect gas
Answer:
(d) perfect gas

Question 38.
Mathematical form of ideal gas equation is:
(a) PV = T
(b) P = RT
(c) PV = RT
(d) PV = R
Answer:
(c) PV = RT

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value if 290K in Celsius scale is ……….
2. The value of 37°C in kelvin scale is ……….
3. The value of 323 K in Celsius scale is ……….
4. Transfer of heat is continued until a ………. is established.
5. ……….. produces the sensation of warm.
6. When a body is heated or cooled its ……….. is not altered.
7. For any exchanges of heat …………. = …………
8. On heating all forms of matter undergo ………..
9. The coefficient of linear expansion is ………. for ……….. metals.
10. The unit of coefficient of superficial expansion is …………
11. The coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid is independent of …………
12. The S.l of unit of coefficient of real expansion is ………..
13. As per Boyle’s law pressure of a gas is …………. proportional to its volume.
14. PV = constant is the mathematical form of ………….
15. As per Charles’s law volume of a gas is ………… to temperature.
16. According Avogadro’s law volume of a gas is directly proportional ………… present in it.
17. The value of Avogadro’s number is …………
18. A gas that obey Boyle’s law is …………
19. A gas that does not obey gas laws then it is …………
20. A gas in which atoms interact with a force then it is a ………..
21. For a given heat, the real expansion is ……….. than that of apparent expansion.
22. The equation of state of a gas is …………
23. Universal gas equation is used to describe the ………….
24. If a gas consists of µ moles then the number of atoms in n = …………
Answer:
1. 17°C
2. 310 K
3.50°C
4. thermal equilibrium
5. Heat
6. mass
7. Heat gained, Heat lost
8. expansion
9. different, different
10. K^-1
11. Temperature
12. K^-1
13. inversely
14. Boyle’s law
15. directly proportional
16. number of atoms or molecules
17. 6.023 × 10²³/mol
18. ideal gas
19. real gas
20. real gas
21. more
22. PV = RT
23. state of any gas
24. µN_A, N_A – Avogadro’s number

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. The relation between Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale of temperature is (K) K = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
2. The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K = C – 273.
3. Thermal energy is also known as heat energy.
4. When a body is heated volume is not altered.
5. All forms of matter undergo expansion on heating.
6. Longitudinal expansion is given by ΔL = L₀α_LΔT
7. Cubical expansion is same for all materials.
8. The S.l unit of coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.
9. As per Boyle’s law PT = constant.
10. According to Avogadro’s law \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
Answer:
1. True
2. False -The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K= C + 273
3. True
4. False – When a body is heated mass is not altered.
5. True
6. True
7. False – Cubical expansion is different for different materials.
8. True
9. False – As per Boyle’s law PV= constant.
10. True

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II.

Question 1.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (s)
B – (t)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 2.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (s)
B – (r)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (t)
B – (s)
C – (p)
D – (q)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: In a pressure cooker, the water starts boiling again on removing its lid.
Reason: The impurities in water bring down its boiling point.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the ’ correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 2.
Assertion: Air at some distance above the fire is hotter than same distance below it.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire carries heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Woolen clothes keys the body warm in winter.
Reason: Air a poor conducts of heat.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Temperature near the sea coast is moderate.
Reason: Water has a high thermal conductivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: It is hotter over the top of fire than at the same distance on the sides.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 6.
Assertion: Perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body. Reason: A thin layer of water on the skin enhance its emissivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

VI. Answer in briefly

Question 1.
Define Temperature.
Answer:
Temperature is defined as the property which determines whether a body is in equilibrium or not with the surroundings.

Question 2.
Why the gas thermometer is more sensitive than Hg thermometer
Answer:
As the thermal (cubical) expansion of gas is much larger than Hg. So gas thermometer is more sensitive than of Hg thermometer.

Question 3.
What is meant by thermodynamic temperature?
Answer:
The temperature measured in relation to absolute zero using the kelvin scale is known as absolute temperature. It is also known as the thermodynamic temperature.

Question 4.
What is the relation between different types of scale of temperature?
Answer:
The relation between the different types of scale of temperature:
Celsius and Kelvin: K = C + 273,
Fahrenheit and Kelvin: [K] = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
0 K = -273°C.

Question 5.
Do all liquids expand on heating? give an example.
Answer:
All liquids do not expand on heating. If water is heated from 0°C to 4°C it contracts.

Question 6.
What will happen if two bodies are at different temperatures brought in contact with one other?
Answer:
There will be a transfer of heat energy from the hot body to the cold body until a thermal equilibrium is established between them.

Question 7.
What will happen if a cold body is placed in contact with a hot body?
Answer:
Some thermal energy is transferred from the hot body to the cold body. As a result, there is some rise in the temperature of the cold body and decrease in the temperature of the hot body. This process will continue until these two bodies attain the same temperature.

Question 8.
Why is invar is used in making a clock pendulum or spring to oscillate?
Answer:
Invar an alloy of Ni and steel has extremely low thermal expansion so the change in length in summer and winter will be a very small change, so the time period of oscillation will be very small. Hence the clock gives almost the correct time.

Question 9.
What is meant by heating?
Answer:
The process in which heat energy flows from a body at a higher temperature to another body at lower temperature is known as heating.

Question 10.
What is the average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas?
Answer:
As the velocity components of molecules of an ideal gas, all three axis time and time axis are equal in magnitude so their vector sum will be zero. So every velocity of an ideal gas is zero.

Question 11.
What changes will occur when heat is given to a substance?
Answer:

1. Temperature of the substance rises.
2. The substance may change its state from solid to liquid or from liquid to gas. (Hi) The substance will expand when heated.

Question 12.
Why does the temperature less than zero on the absolute scale not possible.
Answer:
As the absolute temperature (T) is directly proportioned to KE of molecules of gas, and KE of molecules can never be negative so the absolute scale temperature can never be negative.

Question 13.
What is meant by linear expansion?
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

Question 14.
Write the characteristics of an ideal gas.
Answer:

1. It obeys all gas laws at all values of temperature pressure.
2. Size of molecules is negligibly small.
3. There is no force of attraction or repulsion between its molecule.

Question 15.
Mention the relation between change in length and coefficient of linear expansion?
Answer:
The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = α_LΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 16.
What is meant by superficial expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Question 17.
Define co-efficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 18.
State the relation between change in area and change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Initial area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 19.
What is meant by cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion.

Question 20.
Write the equation relation the change in volume and the change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Initial volume)
V₀ – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_V – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 21.
What is real expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
If a liquid is heated directly without using any container, then the expansion that you observe is termed as real expansion of the liquid.

Question 22.
What is meant by apparent expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
The expansion of a liquid when observed without considering the expansion of the container is called the apparent expansion of the liquid.

Question 23.
State Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
Avogadro’s law states that at constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to number of atoms or molecules present in it.
i.e., V α n
(or) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant

Question 24.
What is Avogadro’s number?
Answer:
Avogadro’s number (N_A) is the total number of atoms per mole of the substance. It is equal to 6.023 × 10²³/mol.

Question 25.
What are real gases?
Answer:
If the molecules or atoms of a gases interact with each other with a definite amount of intermolecular or inter atomic force of attraction, then the gases are said to be real gases.

Question 26.
What is a perfect gas?
Answer:
If the atoms or molecules of a gas do not interact with each other, then the gas is said to be an ideal gas or a perfect gas.

Question 27.
What is an ideal gas equation?
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas.

Question 28.
Why is ideal gas equation called as equation of state?
Answer:
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 29.
Define each unit of a thermodynamic scale of temperature.
Answer:
Each unit of the thermodynamic scale of temperature is defined as the fraction of 1/273.16th part of the thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of water.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Transform 100°C into K.
Answer:
T (kelvin) = (273 + t°C) K
= (273 + 100) K
= 373 K
100°C = 373 K

Question 2.
Convert 23 K into °C.
Answer:
T = 23 K
T°C = K – 273
= 23 – 273
= -250°C
23 K = -250°C

Question 3.
If the gap between steel sails on the railway track of 66 m long is 3.63 cm at 10°C. Then at what value of temperature will just touch of steel is 11 × 10^-6 °C.
Solution:
L₀ = 66 m = 6600 cm
α = 11 × 10^-6 °C.
∆L = L_t – L₀ = 3.63
t₁ = 10°C
t₂ = ?
\(\alpha=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{o}} \Delta \mathrm{T}}\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{0} \times \alpha}} \\ {\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{3.63}{6600 \times 11 \times 10^{-6}}}\end{array}\)
∆T = t₂ – t₁ = 50
⇒ t₂ – 10 = 50
⇒ t₂ = 50 + 10 = 60°C
so final temperature t₂ = 60°C

Question 4.
At what temperature do the ratings of Celsius and Fahrenheit scales coincide?
Answer:
Let T_B = T_B – x

∴ 180x = 100x – 3200
80x = -3200
x = –\(\frac{3200}{80}\) = -40°
x = -40°
∴ Hence -40°C and -40° f are identical Temperature.

Question 5.
On heating a glass block of 10⁵ cm³ from 25°C to 40°C its volume increases by 4 cm³. Calculate the coefficient of
(i) Cubical expansion and
(ii) Linear expansion
Answer:
Volume V₀ = 10⁵ cm³
Change in temperature ΔT = 40 – 25 = 15°C
Change in volume ΔV = 4 cm³
(i) The coefficient of cubical expansion is

α_V = 26.67 × 10^-6/°C

(ii) Coefficient of linear expansion is
α_L = \(\frac{αV}{3}\)
α_L = \(\frac{26.67}{3}\) × 10^-6
α_L = 8.89 × 10^-6/°C

Question 6.
A balloon partially filled with the gas volume 30 m³ at on surface of the earth where pressure is 76 cm of Hg and temperature is 27°C. What will be the increase in the volume of the gas balloon when it rises to a height where the temperature becomes (-54°C) and pressure become 7.6 cm of Hg.
Solution:
Given, P₁ = 76 cm Hg, P₂ = 7.6 cm of Hg
V₁ = 30 m³, V₂ = ?
T₁ = 27 + 273 = 300 K
T₂ = -54 + 273 = 219 K
By gas equation
\(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}\)
\(\mathrm{V}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1} \mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1} \mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{76 \times 30 \times 219}{300 \times 7.6}\) = 219 m³
So increase in volume of gas = 219 – 30 = 189 m³.

Question 7.
If the area of metal changes by 0.22% when it is heated through 10°C, then calculate the coefficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A}\) = 0.22% = \(\frac{0.22}{100}\)
Change in temperature ΔT = 10°C
∴ Coefficient of cubical expansion

= 22 × 10^-6/°C

Question 8.
Using the ideal gas equation determine the value of universal gas constant. It is given that one gram, molecule of a gas at S.T.P occupies 22.4 litres.
Answer:
Pressure P = 1.013 × 10⁵ pa
Volume V = 22.4 lit I
= 22.4 × 10^-3 m³
Temperature T = 273 K
For one mole of a gas
PV = RT
∴ R = \(\frac{PV}{T}\)

= 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 9.
When a gas filled in a closed vessel is heated through 1°C, its pressure increases by 0.4% what is the initial temperature of the gas?
Answer:
Initial pressure P₁ = P

PT + 0.004PT = PT + P
0.004PT = P
∴ T = \(\frac{1}{0.004}\)
= 250 K
∴ Initial Temperature of the gas = 250 K

Question 10.
A vessel of volume 2000 cm³ contains 0.1 mole of O₂ and 0.2 mole of CO₂ . If the temperature of the mixture is 300 K then calculate the pressure exerted by it.
Answer:
n₁ = 0.1; n₂ = 0.2; R = 8.31 J/mol/K;
Temperature T = 300K; Volume V = 2000 × 10^-6 m³
Pressure P = P₁ + P₂

P = 3.74 × 10⁵ pa

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain how the loss of heat (or transfer of heat) due to modes of transfer of heat is minimised in a thermos flask.
Answer:
Transfer of heat is thermos is minimised as under:
(i) By conduction: As in conduction heat can transfer by contact of a material medium. In thermos, the air is evacuated between the walls so heat transfer is stopped by conduction mode.

(ii) By convection: As convection mode also requires material (fluid) medium and there is nothing between the walls of thermos so heat does not transfer by connection mode.

(iii) By Radiation: As Ag polish is coated opaque on inner and outer walls of thermos radiation obeys the laws of refraction and reflection so no refraction takes place through opaque wall.
Reflection of outer radiation goes outside of the inner wall goes inside. So the transfer of heat is minimised by polishing.

Question 2.
Explain linear expansion in Solids.
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion. The SI unit of Coefficient of Linear expansion is K^-1. The value of coefficient of linear expansion is different for different materials.

The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = α_LΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 3.
Write a note on superficial expansion.
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Superficial expansion is determined in terms of coefficient of superficial expansion. The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion. Coefficient of superficial expansion is different for different materials. The SI unit of Coefficient of superficial expansion is K^-1.

The equation relating to the change in area and the change in temperature is given below:

\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Original area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 4.
What do you know about cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion. As in the cases of linear and areal expansion, cubical expansion is also expressed in terms of coefficient of cubical expansion. The ratio of increase in volume of the body ‘ per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion. This is also measured in K^-1.

The equation relating to the change in volume and the change in temperature is given below:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = α_VΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Original volume)
V₀ – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_V – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

IX. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
At what common temperature a block of wood metal appear equally cold or hot when touched?
Answer:
A body appears hot when touched if heat flows from the body to our hand and vice – versa. If there is no flow of heat across the body and hand, the body can not be identified while it is hot or cold as bodies are in thermal equilibrium with our body. So both block of wood and metal must have the temperature of our body i.e., 37°C.

Question 2.
At room temperature water does not sublimate from ice to steam. Give reason.
Answer:
The critical temperature of the water is much above room temperature.

Question 3.
Good conductors of heat are also good conductors of electricity and vice versa why?
Answer:
It is because of the movement of electrons present in the materials.

Question 4.
When does the Charle’s law fail?
Answer:
By Charle’s law at constant pressure
V ∝ T or T ∝ V
At T = 0 K volume must be zero but it is impossible, at low-temperature gases does not obey the characterise of the ideal gas. As the molecules come closer and force of attraction and repulsion takes place.

Question 5.
When sugar is added to tea it gets cooled, why?
Answer:
When sugar is added to tea, its heat gets shared by sugar. So temperature of tea decreases.

Question 6.
A metal disc has a hole in it. What happens to the size of the hole, when the disc is heated.
Answer:
The size of the hole increases. Because expansion takes place on heating.

Question 7.
Can the temperature of a body be negative on the kelvin scale.
Answer:
No, This is because absolute zero on the kelvin scale is the minimum possible temperature.