Category: Class 10

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1829

Question 2.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Whose voice was Rast Goftarl
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das
(b) Baba Ramsingh
(c) Gurunanak
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Baba Ramsingh

Question 6.
Who was Swami Shradhananda?
(a) a disciple of Swami Vivekananda
(b) one who caused a split in the Brahmo Samaj of India
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj
(d) founder of Samathuva Samajam
Answer:
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj

Question 7.
Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Devendranath Tagore
(c) Jvotiba Phule
(d) Ayvankali
Answer:
(a) M.G. Ranade

Question 8.
Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi
(b) Vaikunda Swamy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Swami Shradanatha
Answer:
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi

II. Fill in the blanks

1.  …………….. founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
2. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was ……………..
3. Satyashodak Samaj was launched by ……………..
4. Gulumgir was written by ……………..
5. Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of ……………..
6. Ramakrishna Mission was established by ……………..
7. …………….. was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
8. …………….. brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
9. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by ……………..

Answers:

1. Ramalinga Adigal
2. M.G.Ranade
3. Jyothika Phule
4. Jyothika Phule
5. Vivekanandha
6. Singh Sabha
7. Narayana Guru and Ayyankali
8. Jyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
(ii) He encouraged idolatry
(iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
(iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i),(ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
(ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
(iv) Prarthana Samaj had it’s origin in the Punjab.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care, relief in time of calamities.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
(iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
(iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) alone correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
(b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
Answer:
Maharashi Debendranath Tagore laid down the following four articles of faith –

1. In the beginning, there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created the Universe.
2. He alone is the Good of truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness and Power, eternal, omnipresent, the One without second.
3. Our salvation depends on belief in him and in his worship in this world and the next.
4. Belief consists in loving him and doing his will.

Question 2.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:
Ranade was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and the Deccan Educational Society.

Question 3.
Assess the role of Ayyankali in fighting for the cause of “untouchables.”
Answer:
Ayyankali brought social tremendous changes especially in caste structure. The discrimination he faced as a child turned him into a leader of an anti-caste movement and who later fought for basic rights including access to public spaces and entry to schools. Ayyankali challenged many caste conventions such as clothing style, he wore clothes associated with upper castes that were prohibited for lower castes.

Question 4.
Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
Answer:
Ramalinga Adigal showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants, This he called as Jeevakarunya. He established in 1865, “Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sathya Sanga” which means Society for pure truth in Universal self-hood. He also established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Swami Vivekananda’s activist ideology?
Answer:
Vivekananda’s activist ideology related to the desire for political change among many western eductated young Bengalis. Many of the youths, who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement, following the Partition of Bengal, were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 6.
What are the differences between Reformist Movements and Revival Movements?
Answer:
Reformist movement means a movement to reform (or) bring positive changes in the Social or religious institution of a society.

Revival movement means to give a new life to the social or religious institution of a society which seems to be dying or being diluted.

Question 7.
List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
The Brahmo Samaj raised voice against:

1. Caste system
2. Dowry
3. Ill-treatment of women
4. Polygamy
5. Infanticide

Question 8.
Highlight the work done by -Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor and the marginalized.
Answer:
Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows. He opened the first school for untouchables in 1852 in Poona. He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage.

Question 9.
What was the impact of IyotheeThassar’s visit to SriLanka?
Answer:
Jyothee Thassar went to Sri Lanka in 1898 and converted into Buddhism. In the same year, he founded the Sakya Buddhist Society at Madras to construct the rational religious philosophy through Buddhist religion. He argued that the so-called untouchables were orginally Buddhists who were sligmatised by Brahminism. He stated that the revival of Buddhism could leberate the people from the evil of caste practice that afflicted the Hindu society.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Aligarh Movement

(i) What is the main aim of this Movement?
Answer:
The main aim of this movement, was to improve the community of Muslims by giving them education, especially is western education and take up government services.

(ii) Who is considered the soul-of this Movement?
Answer:
Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan is considered the soul of this movement

(iii) Why were English books translated into Urudu?
Answer:
English books were translated into Urdu. So that the interest of the Muslims would be best served if it is in Urdu and to concentrate on it.

(iv) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
Answer:
The college was raised to the status of a University in 1920 was Aligarh Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental college.

Question 2.
Ramalinga Adigal

(i) What is Jeevakarunya?
Answer:
It is showing compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.

(ii) What are the Songs of Grace?
Answer:
His voluminous songs that were compiled and published under the title Thiruvarupta are called Songs of Grace.

(iii) Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam?
Answer:
‘Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam’ means ‘Society for Pure Truth in Universal self-hood.

(iv) Where did he establish his free feeding house?
Answer:
He established a free feeding houses for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Question 3.
Deoband Movement

(i) Who were the organizers of this Movement?
Answer:
The organizers of Deoband movement was the orthodox Muslim Ulema.

(ii) What were the two main objectives of the Movement?
Answer:
(a) The twin objective of this movement were propagating the pure teaching of the Quran and the Hadith.
(b) Encouraging the spirit of Jihad against the foreign and the un- islamic elements.

(iii) Who founded the school at Deoband?
Answer:
The Ulema under the leadership of Muhammad QasimWanotavi and Rashid Ahamad Gangotri founded the school at Deoband in U.R

(iv) Against whom the fatwa was issued by Deoband Ulema?
Answer:
The Deoband Ulema issued a religious decree (Fatwa) against Syed Ahmed Khan’s organisation called the United Patriotic Association and The Muhammaden Anglo-Oriental Association.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the contributions of Revivalist Movements with that of Reform Movements.
Answer:
The Indian reformists were quite hesitant to subject their old notions and habits to critical scrutiny. Instead they attempted to harmonise both Indian and Western cultures. However, their ideas and their actions helped to mitigate social evils such as sati, female infanticide, and child marriage, and all kinds of superstitious religious beliefs. Reformist movements like the Brahmo Samaj, the Prathana Samaj and the Aligarh Movement. These movements brought considerable reforms in the contemporary society.

Revivalist movements tended to revive former customs or practices and thus take the society back to the glorious past. The Deoband Movement was a revivalist movement, organised by the orthodox Muslim Ulimas other such movements included the Arya Samaj, the Ramakrishna Mission.

Question 2.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:

1. Introduction of English Education made the Indians think that the British aim is to produce English educated middle class clerks.
2. The People came under the influence of Western ideas and thoughts.
3. The Propaganda of Christianity in India which served Britains imperial interests.
4. Many Indian scholars such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Keshab Chandra Sen contributed to bring a change in the social institutions of the country.
5. The Reformists were deeply concerned with the existed social evils like sati, child marriage and Polygamy.
6. Following the organisational structure of Christian missionaries, Indian reformers wanted to establish reform movements.
7. All over India, there set to begin a social awakening on the eradication of terrible caste tyranny.
8. The reformers strived hard to bring back the glorious past of India.

Question 3.
Evaluate the contributions of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and Swami Vivekananda to regenerate Indian society.
Answer:
Ramakrishna Paramhamsa and Vivekananda have played a big role in regenerating the Indian society.

Ramakrishna Paramhamsa: He was a simple priest of Dakshineshwar near Calcutta. He gained popularity in the latter half of the nineteenth century. He emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices such as singing bhagan. He was an ardent worshipper of goddess Kali. In his view, all religions contain the universal elements which, if practised, would lead to salvation. He said, “Jiva in Siva” (all living beings are God). They need service not mercy service for man, must be regarded as God. He attracted educated youth who were dissatisfied with the rational orientation of religious reform organisations such as the Brahmo Samaj.

Swami Vivekananda: He was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramhamsa. He emphasised a cultural nationalism and made a call to Indian youth to regenerate Hindu society. His ideas bred a sense of self-confidence among Indians who felt inferior in relations to the materialistic achievements of the west. He suggested that the lower castes should be allowed to engage in the Hindu rituals from which they were traditionally excluded. His activist ideology rekindled the desire for political change among many western educated young Bengalis. Many of the youths who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 4.
Write an essay on the role played by the 19^th century reformers towards the cause of Women.
Solution:

1. The position of women in India during the 19^th century was miserable. They were not treated equal to men and they were denied rights.
2. The Social reformers of the 19th century played a significant role in bringing an awakening to the people that women’s participation will strengthen the society.
3. The reformers strongly advocated education for women.
4. Raja Ram Mohan Roy with the help of the Governor General of British, William Bentinck abolished Sati in 1829.
5. He advocated the rights of widows to remarry and wanted polygamy to come to an end. He also raised voice against child marriage.
6. Reformer Vidyasagar led a movement by which ‘Widows Remarriage Reform Act’ of 1856 was intended
7. to improve the lot of child widows and save them perpetual widowhood.
8. Reformer Jyothiba Phule opened Orphanages and homes for widows.
9. Sikh Reform movement prohibited the dowry system and child marriage.
10. Reformer Iyothee Thessar considered education as an important tool for empowerment for women and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools for the Untouchables in Tamil Nadu.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Debate Social evils of 19^th century with those of present day.
Answer:
The list below shows the social evil of 19^th century and of the present day. The students should form themselves as separate groups one supporting the 19th century and the other supporting present day. The judgement of the debate can be.

There should be great reformers like that of the 19^th century and eradicate the social evils of today. Education itself is a great reformer that should awaken the minds of the young children of today for not involving themselves in any of the social evil nor they see others doing it.

Social evils of 19^th century: Child Marriage, superstitious beliefs, Sati, not allowing widows to remarry denying education for women, caste differences, untouchability, Brahman domination.

Social evils of present day: Female Infanticide Dowry system, sexual harassment of women, (or) women safety, Domestic violence (or) violence at home . Drug trafficing, pollution (Air, sound and water) Hygiene and sanitation. Disobeying rules,everywhere and anywhere.

Question 2.
Students can write an assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.
Answer:
Assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.

Brahmo Samaj founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy denounces image worship and the caste system. In the 19^th century the society benefitted by this social reform. The movement lost force in the 20^th century its fundamentals are still accepted by the society.

Ramakrishna Mission: The Mission carries out extensive educational and Philanthropic work in India. They work on the principle of selfless work done with dedication to God. As of 2016, the Mission have 182 centers all over the world (136 in India, 13 in USA, 13 in Bangladesh, 2 in Russia) .Besides these, there are private centers all over the world run by the followers of Sri Ramakrishna and Vivekananda. The Mission has received numerous awards throughout its lifetime.

Theosophical society: The Theosophical society at Adyar is a beautiful campus with influence since its founders first arrived here in 1882. The society helps the nation even today by running Olcott Memorial High school in Tamil Nadu. They extend their help by various activities at times of disasters especially Tsunami in 2004. Now in Adyar , open all days except Saturday, Sunday public hoildays.

Arya Samaj: Arya Samaj established a chain of DAV educational institutions for the education of both boys and girls. It represented a form of national awakening of the Indian people. It adopts the programme of mass education, elimination of sub-castes and equality of men and women.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… was one of the earlier reformers influenced by the western ideas to initiate reforms.
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) M.G.Ranade
(d) Atma Ram Pandurang.
Answer:
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 2.
Lord William Bentinck passed an Act in 1829, to abolish “Sati” due to the efforts of
(a) Mrs. Annie Besant
(b) Lala Hansray
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 3.
Arya Samaj movement initiated its movement in ………………
(a) Assam
(b) Punjab
(c) Bihar
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Punjab

Question 4.
The headquarters of the Rama Krishna Mission is at
(a) Kanchipuram
(b) Belur
(c) Melur
Answer:
(b) Belur

Question 5.
Prarthana Samaj was founded in ………………
(a) Bihar
(b) Bombay
(c) Bengal
(d) Madras
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Question 6.
Sir Syed Ahamed Khan started the
(a) Aligarh movement
(b) Muslim League
(c) Theosophical Society
Answer:
(a) Aligarh movement

Question 7.
……………… was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramahansa
(a) Vivekananda
(b) Atma Ram Pandurang
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Keshab Chandra Sen
Answer:
(a) Vivekananda

Question 8.
A great socialist reformer from Kerala is
(a) Sree Narayana Guru
(b) Guru Nanak
(c) Guru Sai
Answer:
(a) Sree Narayana Guru

Question 9.
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha ………………
(a) 1849
(b) 1851
(c) 1850
(d) 1862
Answer:
(b) 1851

Question 10.
The Hindus who had been converted to other religions were reconverted by
(a) Swadeshi movement
(b) Suddhi movement
(c) National movement
Answer:
(b) Suddhi movement

Question 11.
Iyothee Thassar called the ……………… as Sathi Petham Atra Dravidar.
(a) Untouchables
(b) Parsis
(c) Akali
(d) Sikhs
Answer:
(a) Untouchables

Question 12.
……………… criticized the rule of British as the rule of White Devils.
(a) Ramalinga Adigal
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal
(c) Furdunji Naoroji
(d) Iyothee Thassar
Answer:
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 13.
……………… considered education as a powerful tool for empowerment and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools.
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Iyothee Thassar
(c) Vaikunda Swamigal
(d) Sree Narayan Guru
Answer:
(b) Iyothee Thassar

Question 14.
……………… raised funds and campaigned to educate the lower caste of Pulaya people.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Ramalinga Adigal
Answer:
(a) Ayyankali

Question 15.
……………… was called respectfully by his followers as Ayya.
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Namdhari
Answer:
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 16.
……………… launched the Satyashodak Samaj to stir the non-Brahmin masses to self-respect and ambition.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Jyotiba Phule.
(c) Narayana Guru
(d) Annie Besant
Answer:
(b) Jyotiba Phule.

Question 17.
……………… started a number of DAV Schools.
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Theosophical Society
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 18.
……………… worked mainly for the Ezhava community of Kerala.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) M.G. Ranade
Answer:
(b) Sree Narayan Guru

Question 19.
Deoband movement was a ……………… movement.
(a) Reform
(b) Revival
(c) Anti-Reform
(d) Anti-Revival
Answer:
(b) Revival

Question 20.
Rast Goftar was the main voice of ……………… movement.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) Parsi
(d) Vaikundar
Answer:
(c) Parsi

Question 21
……………… condemned the religious custom of animal sacrifice.
(a) Iyothee Thassar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Ramalinga
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Vaikundar

Question 22.
“I saw those people, poor and of unmatched honor, their hearts weary, and I grew weak” who said this”?
(a) Vallalar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Iyothee Thassar
(d) Deoband
Answer:
(a) Vallalar

Question 23.
……………… and ……………… are the Socio-religious movement among the Sikhs.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) (a), (b) and Akaii movement
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b)

Question 24.
……………… was the movement founded in USA and later shifted to India,
(a) Ramakrishna Mission
(b) Theosophical Society
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(b) Theosophical Society

Question 25.
……………… established the Khalsa college for the Sikhs in Amritsar.
(a) Namdhari
(b) Nirankari
(c) Singh Sabha
(d) Akaii
Answer:
(c) Singh Sabha

II. Fill in the blanks

1. English Education was introduced by British with the arm of producing …………….. in India.
2. In the 19th Century …………….. had its effect on the newly emerging middle class.
3. The Indian reformers attempted to harmonize both Indian and …………….. cultures.
4. The two categories of reform movements are: reform movements and …………….. movements.
5. Raja Ram Mohan Roy preached worship of …………….. God.
6. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s ideas forced Bentinck to bring legislation abolishing ……………..
7. Sati was abolished in the year ……………..
8. The Governor General …………….. helped in abolishing Sati in India.
9. Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
10. Brahmo Samaj was taken over by …………….. after the death of Ram Mohan Roy.
11. Keshab Chandra Sen joined the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
12. Widow Remarriage Reform Act was passed in the year ……………..
13. Gulamgiri was an important work written by ……………..
14. …………….. was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association.
15. …………….. was the founder of the Prarthana Samaj.
16. …………….. movement was similar to the Brahmo Samaj.
17. The age for marriage was fixed as …………….. years.
18. The age of marriage was raised to thirteen years in ……………..
19. The age of consent Act was passed in ……………..
20. Arya Samaj was initiated at ……………..
21. …………….. was the founder of Arya Samaj.
22. Strict monotheism was one of the main principle of ……………..
23. Swami Dayananda wrote the book ……………..
24. …………….. started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic Schools and Colleges.
25.  …………….. raised his voice as Go back to Vedas.
26. …………….. accused that the group running he DAV School is too Westernised.
27. …………….. worked as a priest in Kali temple but later became a great reformer.
28. “Jiva is Siva” means ……………..
29. The counter-conversion movement was called as ……………..
30. …………….. means songs of Ignorance.
31. The Theosophical Society was founded by …………….. and ……………..
32. The Theosophical movement was founded in the …………….. in 1875.
33. The Theosophical movement was in India at …………….. in Chennai in 1886.
34. Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas with the help of the newspapers called …………….. and ……………..
35. …………….. opened a first School for untouchables in 1852 in Poona.
36. Jyothi Phule launched the Truth Seekers Society in ……………..
37. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam is an organisation to uplift the ……………..
38. …………….. translated many English books especially Science books into Urdu.
39. …………….. raised funds to educate the lower class pulaya people.
40. …………….. started the Aligarh movement.
41. The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College was founded in the year ……………..
42. The Aligarh Anglo-Oriental College was raised to the status of a University in ……………..
43. …………….. used journalism as tool to make inroads into the print public sphere.
44. Ramalinga Adigal was popularly known as ……………..
45. Mercy to all living beings including plants is called ……………..
46. …………….. opposed both Infant marriages and the use of astrology.
47. …………….. was the founder of the Nirankari movement.
48. Nirankar movement worship the God as ……………..
49. Nirankar means ……………..
50. The Namdhari movement was founded by ……………..
51. …………….. cult was also known as Ayya Vazhi.
52. …………….. founded Samathura Samajam.
53. …………….. was a siddha medicine practitioner who turned into a reformer.
54. …………….. started a weekly journal Oru Paisa Tamilian.

Answers:

1. Clerks
2. Christianity
3. Western
4. Revival
5. One
6. Sati
7. 1829
8. Bentinck
9. 1828
10. Debendranath Tagore
11. 1857
12. 1856
13. JyotibaPhule
14. Ranade
15. Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
16. PrarthanaSamaj
17. Ten
18. 1925
19. 1860
20. Punjab
21. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
22. Arya Samaj
23. Satyartha Prakash
24. Arya Samaj
25. Swami Dayanda Saraswathi
26. Swami Shradhananda
27. Ramakrishna
28. All living beings are God
29. Suddi movement
30. Marutpa
31. Madame H.P Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott
32. USA
33. Adyar
34. New India and Commonweal
35. JyothiPhule
36. 1870
37. Depressed classes
38. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
39. Sadhu Jana paripalanasangam
40. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
41. 1875
42. 1920
43. IyotheeThassar
44. Vallalar
45. Jeeva karanga
46. Parsi Reform movement
47. Baba Dayal das
48. Nirankar
49. Formless
50. Baba Ram Singh
51. Vaikunda Swamigal
52. VaikundaSwamigal
53. Iyothee Thassar
54. Iyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statements

Question 1.
(i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy argued that the ancient texts of the Hindus preached Monotheism.
(ii) Brahmo Samaj failed to attract the people from the lower sections of society.
(iii) Its impact on the culture of modern Bengal and its middle class was quite significant.
(iv) The poet Rabindranath Tagore carried on the work of Brahmo Samaj after Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The age of marriage of initially fixed for 25 years.
(ii) Later it was reduced to thirteen years in 1925.
(iii) It was raised to eighteen in 1891.
(iv) Now, the law remained as twenty as in 1860 Act.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong

Question 3.
(i) Arya Samaj attempted to check the incidence of religious conversion in British India.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with God through the practice of singing bhajans.
(iii) Theosophical Society stimulated the study of the Christianity among people.
(iv) Savitribai Phule devoted her life for the upliftment of the depressed classes.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Narendra Nath Datta was known as Swami Vivekananda.
(ii) He became famous for his address on Hinduism at the Indian Congress of Hindus in Chicago in 1893.
(iii) Narayana Guru inspired Kerala Society especially among the Ezhavas.
(iv) inspired by Sree Narayana Guru, Ayyankali founded the Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas through her newspapers called New India and Commonweal.
(ii) Jyotiba Phule is chiefly known as the earliest leader of the non-Brahmin movement.
(iii) His work Gulamgiri is an important text that summarized many of his radical ideas.
(iv) Thinkers and writers such as Kumaran Asan and Dr. Palpu were influenced by Narayana Guru ideas.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.

Question 6.
(i) Deoband School did not prepare its students for the government jobs but for the preaching of Islamic faith.
(ii) In South Travancore, there were restrictions on lower caste people as to what to wear and not to wear.
(iii) lyothee Thassar established a movement called as Oru, Paisa Tamilian.
(iv) John Rathinam ideas were collected into a text called Akila Thirattu.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Keshab Chandra Sen was greatly influenced by Christianity. Reason (R): He was believing in its spirit, but not in the person of its founder.
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Reform movement Arya Samaj was started in Punjab. Reason (R): Swami Dayananda Saraswathi settled in Punjab to preach his ideas
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The primary achievement of the Ramakrishna was his ability to attract educated youths..
Reason (R): The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo vedic Schools and colleges.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Narayana Guru established a grand temple at Arivupuram and dedicated it to all.
Reason (R): In his days, the people of the depressed classes has no access to temples.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong R is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The School at Deoband encouraged English education. Reason (R): The instruction imparted in the School was the Original Islamic religion.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct.
(c) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Ramaiinga Adigal established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur in 1867.
Reason (R): There was a terrible famine in South India in 1866.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Pandithar lyothee Thassar went to Srilanka in 1898 and converted to Buddhism.
Reason (R): He was disappointed with the Hindi dharma, which served as a base for propogating caste in Hindu Society.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and A is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (vii)
B. (vi)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Prarthana Samaj.
Answer:

1. Prarthana Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1867 by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang.
2. It advocated inter-dining, inter-caste marriage, widow re-marriage, improvement of women and downtrodden classes, abolition of Purdha System and Child marriage.
3. The Samaj is founded night schools, asylum and Orphanages and other such institutions for the downtrodden people.

Question 2.
Write a note on Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
It was a reform movement formed in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy at Calcutta. The Samaj mainly focused on the customs of Sati, Child marriage and Polygamy and wanted to remove them legally. The Samaj was successful by abolishing Sati in 1829, with the help of the Governor General Bentinck. It appealed widow remarriage and followed monotheism.

Question 3.
Mention the main principles of the Theosophical Society.
Answer:

1. To develop the feeding of fraternity.
2. To study ancient religions, philosophy and science.
3. To find out the laws of nature and the development of divine power in India.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna mission. The mission did not restrict itself to religious activities but was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is the practical Vedanta of this mission.

Question 5.
Point out the impacts of Social and Religious reform movements in the 19th Century.
Answer:

1. These movements greatly helped to abolish some of the evils like sati, child marriage and inter and untouchability.
2. It promoted education, encouraged widow re-marriage, inter-caste marriages and inter-dining.
3. It instilled social awakening and spirit of nationalism in the middle of Indians.
4. It made the people to be proud of their culture and glory.
5. It helped the Indians to face problems with scientific approach and outlook.

Question 6.
List out the Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(i) The Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu are Ramalinga Swamigal – emphasising feeding of poor.
(ii) Vaikunda Swamigal – emphasising unity of people of all castes.
(iii) Iyothee Thassar – emphasising Caste less society.

Question 7.
Who is known as Martin-Luthur of Hinduism? Why?
Answer:

1. Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi is known as the Martin Luther of Hinduism.
2. He started Suddhi Movement to reconvert the Hindus who had been converted to other religions earlier.
3. By his efforts, a large number of people were taken back within the fold of Hinduism.

Question 8.
As a student of today, what do you think the social evils present in today’s world and need reform?
Answer:
The Social evils present in today’s world and need reforms are Girl child harassment, female infanticide, Non-observance of societal rules, Adulteration, and above all poverty and pollution.

VII. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Brahmo Samaj

(a) Who founded Brahmo Samaj?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy

(b) What Were the languages learnt by Raja Rammohan Roy?
Answer:
Arabic, Sanskrit, Persian, English, French, Latin, Greek and Hebrew languages.

(c) Name the books written by Raja Rammohan Roy.
Answer:
Precepts of Jesus Christ and Guide to Peace and Happiness were written by Raja Rammohan Roy.

(d) What did Brahmo Samaj believe?
Answer:
It believed in a “Universal religion” based on the principle of one Supreme God.

Question 2.
Arya Samaj

(a) When, where and who founded the Arya Samaj.
Answer:
The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi in 1875, in Punjab.

(b) What was the main idea focused by the Samaj.
Answer:
‘Go Back to Vedas’.

(c) What did the Samaj do in the field of education?
Answer:
The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic schools and colleges to spread education.

(d) What was the name of the school started after dayananda starting OAV schools are westernised?
Answer:
By 1900, Swami Shraddhanada established his own network of schools called Gurukulas emphasising the study of vedas.

Question 3.
The Theosophical Society

(a) Who was the founder of the Theosophical Society?
Answer:
It was founded by Madame Blavatsky and Henry S. Olcott.

(b) Why was it founded?
Answer:
It was founded to preach about God and Wisdom.

(c) Who was the president of this society in 1893?
Answer:
Mrs. Annie Besant.

(d) Where is the headquarters of this society located?
Answer:
The headquarters of this society is at Adyar in Chennai.

Question 4.
Parsi and Sikh Reform Movements

(a) Who founded the Parsis’ Reform Society?
Answer:
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Parsis’ Reform Society in 1851.

(b) What are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements?
Answer:
Nirankaris and Namdharis are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements.

(c) Name the leader from Parsi community who played a big role in early congress?
Answer:
Pherozeshah Mehta and Dinshaw Wacha played a big role in early congress from Parsi community.

(d) Who were the founders of the Sikh Reform movements? What was the objective?
Answer:
Baba Dayal Das was the founder of the Nirankari movement and Baba Ram Singh was the founder of the Namdhari movement Its main objective was to restore the purity of Sikhism and the authority of Guru Nanak.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Elaborate the Early Reform Movements in Bengal.
Answer:
Brahmo Samaj: This was one of the earlier reform movement founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Deeply concerned with the customs of Sati, child marriage and polygamy, raised his voice through the Samaj and abolished sati by legislation in 1829. The Samaj strongly advocated education for women, widow remarriage and western education. It Condemned Idol worship and meaningless rituals and ceremonies.

Adi Brahmo Samaj: In 1886, a Split occurred in Brahmo Samaj and Keshab Chandra Sen left the Samaj and founded a new organisation called Debendranath’s organisation also called as Adi-Brahmo Samaj, This Samaj also followed the ideas of Brahmo Samaj.

Prarthana Samaj: A movement similar to Brahmo Samaj founded in Bombay was called Prathana Samaj. It was founded by R.C Bhandarkar and Mahadev Govinda Ranade. Inter caste dining, Inter-caste marriage, Widow remarriage, improvement of women and depressed classes were their main activities.

Arya Samaj: The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi. This is a revival movement stating ‘ Go back to Vedas’, The Samaj concentrated on social reforms and education . DAV schools of today were originally started by Arya Samaj.

Ramakrishna Mission: Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda. The mission actively involved in the social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is their slogan which means Service to God.

Theosophical Movement: The Theosophical movement was founded in ‘ USA by Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott. Later the movement laid its foundation headed by Annie Besant in Adyar, Chennai.

She spread her ideas through her newspaper New India and commonweal. This movement played a major role in Indian Nationalist politics.

Question 2.
Explain the activities of the Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:

1. Ramakrishna Mission’s activities cover the areas like educational work, healthcare, cultural activities, rural upliftment, tribal welfare and youth movement.
2. It has its own hospitals, charitable dispensaries, maternity clinics, tuberculosis clinics and mobile dispensaries.
3. It also maintains training centres for nurses.
4. Orphanages and homes for the elderly people are maintained. Rural and tribal welfare works are also going on.
5. It educational activities the Ramakrishna Mission has established many renowned educational institutions in India.
6. It has its own universities, colleges and vocational training centres.
7. It has also involved in disaster relief operations during famine, epidemic, fire, flood, earthquake, cyclones and communal disturbances.
8. It played an important role in the installation of Photo Voltaic (PV) lighting system in the Sundarbans regions of West Bengal. The PV lighting was used to provide electricity to the people, who were traditionally depending on kerosene and diesel.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 3 Thermal Physics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The value of universal gas constant:
(a) 3.81 mol^-1 K^-1
(b) 8.03 mol^-1 K^-1
(c) 1.38 mol^-1 K^-1
(d) 8.31 mol^-1 K^-1
Answer:
(d) 8.31 mol^-1 K^-1

Question 2.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is:
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 3.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of ______.
(a) X or -X
(b) Y or -Y
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)
Hint: When a substance is heated its expansion is positive i,e, can be taken along either +X or +Y direction. But when substance is cooled it’s either length or area or volume decreases i.e. with respect expansion, it is opposite direction i.e. either -X or -Y direction respectively.

Question 4.
Temperature is the average of the molecules of a substance.
(a) difference in K.E and P.E
(b) sum of P.E and K.E
(c) difference in T.E and P.E
(d) difference in K.E and T.E
Answer:
(b) sum of P.E and K.E

Question 5.
In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is:

(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C
(b) A → B, A → C, B → C
(c) A → B, A ← C, B → C
(d) A ← B, A → C, B ← C
Answer:
(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value of Avogadro number ………..
2. The temperature and heat are ……….. quantities.
3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of ……….. of water through
4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of volume is …………

Answer:

1. 6.023 × 10²³
2. Inter convertible
3. 1 gram, 1°C
4. A straight line

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real expansion.
2. Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
3. According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely proportional to volume.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False – According to Charles law, at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to temperature.

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II

Answer:
A. (s)
B. (t)
C. (p)
D. (q)
E. (r)

V. Assertion and Reason type questions.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: There is no effects on other end when one end of the rod is only heated.
Reason: Heat always flows from a region of lower temperature to higher temperature of the rod.

2. Assertion: Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid
Reason: Interatomic or intermolecular distance in the gas is comparably high.
Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)

VI. Answer in briefly.

Question 1.
Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is defined as the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

Question 2.
Distinguish between linear and superficial areal expansion.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the coefficient of cubical expansion?
Answer:
The ratio of increase in the volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called a coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 4.
State Boyle’s law
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
P ∝ 1 / V

Question 5.
State-the law of volume.
Answer:
When the pressure of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.
i.e., V ∝ T.
(or)
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = constant.

Question 6.
Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is co-efficient of real expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of real expansion is defined as the ratio of the true rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume. The SI unit of coefficient of real expansion is the K^-1.

Question 8.
What is the coefficient of apparent expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of apparent expansion is defined as the ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume.
The SI unit of the coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Find the final temperature of a copper rod whose area of cross section changes from 10 m² to 11 m² due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 /K).
Answer:
Change in area ΔA = 11 – 10 = 1 m²
Initial temperature T₁ = 90 K
Let Final temperature be T₂K
A₀ = 10 m²
Coefficient of superficial expansion is
α_A = 0.0021 / k
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
\(\frac{1}{10}\) = 0.0021 ΔT
∴ ΔT = 0.0021 × 10
= 0.021
T₂ – T₁ = 0.021
T₂ – 90 = 0.021
∴ Final temperature T₂ = 90.021 K

Question 2.
Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar. Whose volume is increased 0.25 m³ from 0.3 m³ due to the change in its temperature of 50 K.
Answer:
Initial volume V₀ = 0.25 m³
Final volume = 0.30 m³
Change in volume ΔV = 0.3 – 0.25 = 0.05 m³
Temperature ΔT = 50K
Coefficient of cubical expansion is

∴ Coefficient of Cubical expansion
α_v = 0.004 /K

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Derive the ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law and Avogadro’s law.
According to Boyle’s law, PV = constant ………. (1)
According to Charles’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant ……… (2)
According to Avogadro’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant …….. (3)
After combining equations (1), (2) and (3), you equation. can get the following
\(\frac{V}{nT}\) = constant ……. (4)
The above relation is called the combined law of gases. If you consider a gas, which contains µ moles of the gas, the number of atoms contained will be equal to µ times the Avogadro number, N₀.
i.e., n = µN_A
Using equation (5), in equation (4) can be written as
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = constant
The value of the constant in the above equation is taken to be K_B, which is called as Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10^-23 JK^-1). Hence, we have the following equation:
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = K_B
PV = µN_AK_BT
µN_AK_B = R
which is termed as universal gas constant whose value is 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1.
PV = RT
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 2.
Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.
Answer:

To start with, the liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be determined is poured in a container up to a level. Mark this level as L₁. Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner. Initially, the container receives the thermal energy and it expands. As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to have reduced. Mark this reduced level of liquid as L₂. On further heating, the thermal energy supplied to the liquid through the container results in the expansion of the liquid. Hence, the level of liquid rises to L₃. Now, the difference between the levels L₁ and L₃ is called as apparent expansion, and the difference between the levels L₂ and L₃ is called real expansion. The real expansion is always more than that of apparent expansion.
Real expansion = L₃ – L₂
Apparent expansion = L₃ – L₁

IX. HOT Question

Question 1.
If you keep ice at 0°C and water at 0°C in either of your hands, in which hand you will feel more chillness? Why?
Answer:
The hand consisting of ice at 0°C would feel more chillness because, ice undergoes melting. More amount of energy (chillness) is transferred to hand. In addition ice has latent heat of fusion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The commonly used scales of temperature are:
(a) Kelvin
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Ideal gas equation for n mole of gas ____.
(a) PT = nRV
(b) Pv = nRT
(c) PV = nRT
(d) PT = RV.
Answer:
(b) Pv = nRT
Hint: T represents absolute temperature by t temperature in 0°C.

Question 3.
The value of 27° C in the kelvin scale:
(a) 30 K
(b) 300 K
(c) 327 K
(d) 0 K
Answer:
(b) 300 K

Question 4.
Kelvin scale has zero reading at temperature _____.
(a) 0°C
(b) -100°C
(c) -273°C
(d) -212°C.
Answer:
(c) -273°C
Hint: K = C + 273 or C = K – 273
at K = 0, C = -273°.

Question 5.
The relation between Celsius and kelvin scales of temperature is:
(a) K = 273 – C
(b) K = C + 273
(c) K=
(d) K = C
Answer:
(b) K = C + 273

Question 6.
Linear expansion is related to _____.
(a) area
(b) length
(c) volume
(d) mass.
Answer:
(b) length
Hint: Linear expansion is directly proportional to the original length of rod and rise in temperature.

Question 7.
For any exchange of heat:
(a) Heat gained = Zero
(b) Heat lost = Zero
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost
(d) Heat gained = -heat lost
Answer:
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost

Question 8.
………. is the degree of hotness.
(a) Heat
(b) Calorie
(c) Joule
(d) Temperature
Answer:
(d) Temperature

Question 9.
Avogadro’s Number _____ mol.
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.025 × 10²⁵
(c) 6.24 × 10²⁴
(d) 6.022 × 10²².
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
Hint: N_A = 6.023 × 10²³

Question 10.
If a temperature of 327°C is equivalent to ………. in kelvin scale.
(a) 273 K
(b) 600 K
(c) -527 K
(d) -273 K
Answer:
(b) 600 K

Question 11.
When spirit is poured on our hand, cooling is produced because:
(a) Spirit has cooling effect.
(b) Spirit has boiling effect.
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.
(d) The boiling point of spirit is high.
Answer:
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.

Question 12.
Process of transfer of heat through liquid and gases is _____.
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) convection
Hint: Heat flows by the conventional current is upward direction by convection method.

Question 13.
Heat required to melt 1 kg of ice at 0°C is:
(a) 226 × 10² J
(b) 336 × 10³ J
(c) 353 × 10³ J
(d) 3 × 10⁵ J
Answer:
(b) 336 × 10³ J

Question 14.
Relation between α, β and γ is _____.
(a) α = β = γ
(b) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=3 \gamma\)
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
(d) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{4}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
Hint: (c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\) (or) 6α = 3β = 2γ.

Question 15.
When a certain quantity of ice is melting remains the same.
(a) Volume
(b) Temperature
(c) Mass
(d) Density
Answer:
(b) Temperature

Question 16.
Steam causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature because steam:
(a) is in vapour state
(b) contains less heat than water at the same temperature.
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.
(d) cause bums by nature.
Answer:
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.

Question 17.
Which expansion coefficient (α, β, γ) of a substance has the largest and y smallest magnitude?
(a) α, β
(b) α, γ
(c) γ, α
(d) β, α.
Answer:
(c) γ, α
Hint: As γ is 3 times of α and β is 2 times of α. so α is minimum and γ is maximum.

Question 18.
According to the principle of mixtures, the heat lost by a hot body is equal to:
(a) Heat gained by the surroundings
(b) Heat transferred to the surroundings
(c) Heat gained by the body
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Heat gained by the body

Question 19.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air at high temperature is:
(a) Less
(b) Temperature
(c) More
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) More

Question 20.
In steam heater, solids attain constant temperature because:
(a) Solid should not be heated less
(b) Solid should not be heated more
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C
(d) Volume does not change.
Answer:
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C

Question 21.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air depends on:
(a) Pressure of atmosphere
(b) Temperature of atmosphere
(c) Humidity of atmosphere E
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Temperature of atmosphere

Question 22.
Volume of a gas at t°C is given by:

Answer:
(c) V_t = V_o (1 + \(\frac{t}{273}\))

Question 23.
At a higher temperature to saturate air, ………. quantity of water vapour is required.
(a) Less
(b) Some
(c) More
(d) No
Answer:
(c) More

Question 24.
The relationship between length (L₀) of a body and change in temperature is:

Answer:
(b) L₀ = \(\frac{ΔL}{α_{L}ΔT}\)

Question 25.
The S.l unit of coefficient of linear expansion is:
(a) °C
(b) K^-1
(c) Cal
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) K^-1

Question 26.
Coefficient of superficial expansion:
(a) is same for all materials
(b) is infinity
(c) different for different materials
(d) is zero
Answer:
(c) different for different materials

Question 27.
The ratio of change in area of a metal to its original area is \(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) =
(a) α_A
(b) α_AΔT
(c) \(\frac{α_A}{ΔT}\)
(d) unity
Answer:
(b) α_AΔT

Question 28.
According to Boyle’s law the relation between pressure (P) and volume of a gas is:
(a) P ∝ V
(b) P = V
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)
(d) V ∝ P
Answer:
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 29.
At constant temperature of a gas:
(a) PV = 1
(b) PV = 0
(c) PV = infinity
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 30.
The mathematical form of Charles’s law is:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{T}\)
(b) TV = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) V = T
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

Question 31.
If V is the volume and n is the number of atoms present in it then:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{n}\)
(b) V ∝ n
(c) V = n
(d) \(\frac{n}{V}\) = constant
Answer:
(b) V ∝ n

Question 32.
\(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant is the mathematical form of:
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’s law
(c) Avogadro’s law
(d) Dalton’s law
Answer:
(c) Avogadro’s law

Question 33.
Mathematical form of Boyle’s law is:
(a) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
(b) PT = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 34.
A gas that obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law is called:
(a) Gas
(b) Ideal gas
(c) Perfect gas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Ideal gas

Question 35.
The value of universal gas constant is:
(a) 3.81 J/mol/K
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K
(c) 8.13
(d) 6.81 J/mol/K
Answer:
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 36.
The unit of universal gas constant is:
(a) \(\frac{J}{K}\)
(b) J mol^-1K
(c) J/mol/K
(d) J K^-1 mol
Answer:
(c) J/mol/K

Question 37.
If atoms of a gas do not interact with each other than the gas is:
(a) natural gas
(b) bio gas
(c) real gas
(d) perfect gas
Answer:
(d) perfect gas

Question 38.
Mathematical form of ideal gas equation is:
(a) PV = T
(b) P = RT
(c) PV = RT
(d) PV = R
Answer:
(c) PV = RT

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value if 290K in Celsius scale is ……….
2. The value of 37°C in kelvin scale is ……….
3. The value of 323 K in Celsius scale is ……….
4. Transfer of heat is continued until a ………. is established.
5. ……….. produces the sensation of warm.
6. When a body is heated or cooled its ……….. is not altered.
7. For any exchanges of heat …………. = …………
8. On heating all forms of matter undergo ………..
9. The coefficient of linear expansion is ………. for ……….. metals.
10. The unit of coefficient of superficial expansion is …………
11. The coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid is independent of …………
12. The S.l of unit of coefficient of real expansion is ………..
13. As per Boyle’s law pressure of a gas is …………. proportional to its volume.
14. PV = constant is the mathematical form of ………….
15. As per Charles’s law volume of a gas is ………… to temperature.
16. According Avogadro’s law volume of a gas is directly proportional ………… present in it.
17. The value of Avogadro’s number is …………
18. A gas that obey Boyle’s law is …………
19. A gas that does not obey gas laws then it is …………
20. A gas in which atoms interact with a force then it is a ………..
21. For a given heat, the real expansion is ……….. than that of apparent expansion.
22. The equation of state of a gas is …………
23. Universal gas equation is used to describe the ………….
24. If a gas consists of µ moles then the number of atoms in n = …………
Answer:
1. 17°C
2. 310 K
3.50°C
4. thermal equilibrium
5. Heat
6. mass
7. Heat gained, Heat lost
8. expansion
9. different, different
10. K^-1
11. Temperature
12. K^-1
13. inversely
14. Boyle’s law
15. directly proportional
16. number of atoms or molecules
17. 6.023 × 10²³/mol
18. ideal gas
19. real gas
20. real gas
21. more
22. PV = RT
23. state of any gas
24. µN_A, N_A – Avogadro’s number

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. The relation between Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale of temperature is (K) K = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
2. The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K = C – 273.
3. Thermal energy is also known as heat energy.
4. When a body is heated volume is not altered.
5. All forms of matter undergo expansion on heating.
6. Longitudinal expansion is given by ΔL = L₀α_LΔT
7. Cubical expansion is same for all materials.
8. The S.l unit of coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.
9. As per Boyle’s law PT = constant.
10. According to Avogadro’s law \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
Answer:
1. True
2. False -The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K= C + 273
3. True
4. False – When a body is heated mass is not altered.
5. True
6. True
7. False – Cubical expansion is different for different materials.
8. True
9. False – As per Boyle’s law PV= constant.
10. True

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II.

Question 1.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (s)
B – (t)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 2.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (s)
B – (r)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (t)
B – (s)
C – (p)
D – (q)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: In a pressure cooker, the water starts boiling again on removing its lid.
Reason: The impurities in water bring down its boiling point.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the ’ correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 2.
Assertion: Air at some distance above the fire is hotter than same distance below it.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire carries heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Woolen clothes keys the body warm in winter.
Reason: Air a poor conducts of heat.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Temperature near the sea coast is moderate.
Reason: Water has a high thermal conductivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: It is hotter over the top of fire than at the same distance on the sides.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 6.
Assertion: Perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body. Reason: A thin layer of water on the skin enhance its emissivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

VI. Answer in briefly

Question 1.
Define Temperature.
Answer:
Temperature is defined as the property which determines whether a body is in equilibrium or not with the surroundings.

Question 2.
Why the gas thermometer is more sensitive than Hg thermometer
Answer:
As the thermal (cubical) expansion of gas is much larger than Hg. So gas thermometer is more sensitive than of Hg thermometer.

Question 3.
What is meant by thermodynamic temperature?
Answer:
The temperature measured in relation to absolute zero using the kelvin scale is known as absolute temperature. It is also known as the thermodynamic temperature.

Question 4.
What is the relation between different types of scale of temperature?
Answer:
The relation between the different types of scale of temperature:
Celsius and Kelvin: K = C + 273,
Fahrenheit and Kelvin: [K] = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
0 K = -273°C.

Question 5.
Do all liquids expand on heating? give an example.
Answer:
All liquids do not expand on heating. If water is heated from 0°C to 4°C it contracts.

Question 6.
What will happen if two bodies are at different temperatures brought in contact with one other?
Answer:
There will be a transfer of heat energy from the hot body to the cold body until a thermal equilibrium is established between them.

Question 7.
What will happen if a cold body is placed in contact with a hot body?
Answer:
Some thermal energy is transferred from the hot body to the cold body. As a result, there is some rise in the temperature of the cold body and decrease in the temperature of the hot body. This process will continue until these two bodies attain the same temperature.

Question 8.
Why is invar is used in making a clock pendulum or spring to oscillate?
Answer:
Invar an alloy of Ni and steel has extremely low thermal expansion so the change in length in summer and winter will be a very small change, so the time period of oscillation will be very small. Hence the clock gives almost the correct time.

Question 9.
What is meant by heating?
Answer:
The process in which heat energy flows from a body at a higher temperature to another body at lower temperature is known as heating.

Question 10.
What is the average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas?
Answer:
As the velocity components of molecules of an ideal gas, all three axis time and time axis are equal in magnitude so their vector sum will be zero. So every velocity of an ideal gas is zero.

Question 11.
What changes will occur when heat is given to a substance?
Answer:

1. Temperature of the substance rises.
2. The substance may change its state from solid to liquid or from liquid to gas. (Hi) The substance will expand when heated.

Question 12.
Why does the temperature less than zero on the absolute scale not possible.
Answer:
As the absolute temperature (T) is directly proportioned to KE of molecules of gas, and KE of molecules can never be negative so the absolute scale temperature can never be negative.

Question 13.
What is meant by linear expansion?
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

Question 14.
Write the characteristics of an ideal gas.
Answer:

1. It obeys all gas laws at all values of temperature pressure.
2. Size of molecules is negligibly small.
3. There is no force of attraction or repulsion between its molecule.

Question 15.
Mention the relation between change in length and coefficient of linear expansion?
Answer:
The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = α_LΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 16.
What is meant by superficial expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Question 17.
Define co-efficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 18.
State the relation between change in area and change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Initial area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 19.
What is meant by cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion.

Question 20.
Write the equation relation the change in volume and the change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Initial volume)
V₀ – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_V – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 21.
What is real expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
If a liquid is heated directly without using any container, then the expansion that you observe is termed as real expansion of the liquid.

Question 22.
What is meant by apparent expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
The expansion of a liquid when observed without considering the expansion of the container is called the apparent expansion of the liquid.

Question 23.
State Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
Avogadro’s law states that at constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to number of atoms or molecules present in it.
i.e., V α n
(or) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant

Question 24.
What is Avogadro’s number?
Answer:
Avogadro’s number (N_A) is the total number of atoms per mole of the substance. It is equal to 6.023 × 10²³/mol.

Question 25.
What are real gases?
Answer:
If the molecules or atoms of a gases interact with each other with a definite amount of intermolecular or inter atomic force of attraction, then the gases are said to be real gases.

Question 26.
What is a perfect gas?
Answer:
If the atoms or molecules of a gas do not interact with each other, then the gas is said to be an ideal gas or a perfect gas.

Question 27.
What is an ideal gas equation?
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas.

Question 28.
Why is ideal gas equation called as equation of state?
Answer:
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 29.
Define each unit of a thermodynamic scale of temperature.
Answer:
Each unit of the thermodynamic scale of temperature is defined as the fraction of 1/273.16th part of the thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of water.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Transform 100°C into K.
Answer:
T (kelvin) = (273 + t°C) K
= (273 + 100) K
= 373 K
100°C = 373 K

Question 2.
Convert 23 K into °C.
Answer:
T = 23 K
T°C = K – 273
= 23 – 273
= -250°C
23 K = -250°C

Question 3.
If the gap between steel sails on the railway track of 66 m long is 3.63 cm at 10°C. Then at what value of temperature will just touch of steel is 11 × 10^-6 °C.
Solution:
L₀ = 66 m = 6600 cm
α = 11 × 10^-6 °C.
∆L = L_t – L₀ = 3.63
t₁ = 10°C
t₂ = ?
\(\alpha=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{o}} \Delta \mathrm{T}}\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{0} \times \alpha}} \\ {\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{3.63}{6600 \times 11 \times 10^{-6}}}\end{array}\)
∆T = t₂ – t₁ = 50
⇒ t₂ – 10 = 50
⇒ t₂ = 50 + 10 = 60°C
so final temperature t₂ = 60°C

Question 4.
At what temperature do the ratings of Celsius and Fahrenheit scales coincide?
Answer:
Let T_B = T_B – x

∴ 180x = 100x – 3200
80x = -3200
x = –\(\frac{3200}{80}\) = -40°
x = -40°
∴ Hence -40°C and -40° f are identical Temperature.

Question 5.
On heating a glass block of 10⁵ cm³ from 25°C to 40°C its volume increases by 4 cm³. Calculate the coefficient of
(i) Cubical expansion and
(ii) Linear expansion
Answer:
Volume V₀ = 10⁵ cm³
Change in temperature ΔT = 40 – 25 = 15°C
Change in volume ΔV = 4 cm³
(i) The coefficient of cubical expansion is

α_V = 26.67 × 10^-6/°C

(ii) Coefficient of linear expansion is
α_L = \(\frac{αV}{3}\)
α_L = \(\frac{26.67}{3}\) × 10^-6
α_L = 8.89 × 10^-6/°C

Question 6.
A balloon partially filled with the gas volume 30 m³ at on surface of the earth where pressure is 76 cm of Hg and temperature is 27°C. What will be the increase in the volume of the gas balloon when it rises to a height where the temperature becomes (-54°C) and pressure become 7.6 cm of Hg.
Solution:
Given, P₁ = 76 cm Hg, P₂ = 7.6 cm of Hg
V₁ = 30 m³, V₂ = ?
T₁ = 27 + 273 = 300 K
T₂ = -54 + 273 = 219 K
By gas equation
\(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}\)
\(\mathrm{V}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1} \mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1} \mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{76 \times 30 \times 219}{300 \times 7.6}\) = 219 m³
So increase in volume of gas = 219 – 30 = 189 m³.

Question 7.
If the area of metal changes by 0.22% when it is heated through 10°C, then calculate the coefficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A}\) = 0.22% = \(\frac{0.22}{100}\)
Change in temperature ΔT = 10°C
∴ Coefficient of cubical expansion

= 22 × 10^-6/°C

Question 8.
Using the ideal gas equation determine the value of universal gas constant. It is given that one gram, molecule of a gas at S.T.P occupies 22.4 litres.
Answer:
Pressure P = 1.013 × 10⁵ pa
Volume V = 22.4 lit I
= 22.4 × 10^-3 m³
Temperature T = 273 K
For one mole of a gas
PV = RT
∴ R = \(\frac{PV}{T}\)

= 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 9.
When a gas filled in a closed vessel is heated through 1°C, its pressure increases by 0.4% what is the initial temperature of the gas?
Answer:
Initial pressure P₁ = P

PT + 0.004PT = PT + P
0.004PT = P
∴ T = \(\frac{1}{0.004}\)
= 250 K
∴ Initial Temperature of the gas = 250 K

Question 10.
A vessel of volume 2000 cm³ contains 0.1 mole of O₂ and 0.2 mole of CO₂ . If the temperature of the mixture is 300 K then calculate the pressure exerted by it.
Answer:
n₁ = 0.1; n₂ = 0.2; R = 8.31 J/mol/K;
Temperature T = 300K; Volume V = 2000 × 10^-6 m³
Pressure P = P₁ + P₂

P = 3.74 × 10⁵ pa

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain how the loss of heat (or transfer of heat) due to modes of transfer of heat is minimised in a thermos flask.
Answer:
Transfer of heat is thermos is minimised as under:
(i) By conduction: As in conduction heat can transfer by contact of a material medium. In thermos, the air is evacuated between the walls so heat transfer is stopped by conduction mode.

(ii) By convection: As convection mode also requires material (fluid) medium and there is nothing between the walls of thermos so heat does not transfer by connection mode.

(iii) By Radiation: As Ag polish is coated opaque on inner and outer walls of thermos radiation obeys the laws of refraction and reflection so no refraction takes place through opaque wall.
Reflection of outer radiation goes outside of the inner wall goes inside. So the transfer of heat is minimised by polishing.

Question 2.
Explain linear expansion in Solids.
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion. The SI unit of Coefficient of Linear expansion is K^-1. The value of coefficient of linear expansion is different for different materials.

The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = α_LΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 3.
Write a note on superficial expansion.
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Superficial expansion is determined in terms of coefficient of superficial expansion. The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion. Coefficient of superficial expansion is different for different materials. The SI unit of Coefficient of superficial expansion is K^-1.

The equation relating to the change in area and the change in temperature is given below:

\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Original area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 4.
What do you know about cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion. As in the cases of linear and areal expansion, cubical expansion is also expressed in terms of coefficient of cubical expansion. The ratio of increase in volume of the body ‘ per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion. This is also measured in K^-1.

The equation relating to the change in volume and the change in temperature is given below:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = α_VΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Original volume)
V₀ – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_V – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

IX. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
At what common temperature a block of wood metal appear equally cold or hot when touched?
Answer:
A body appears hot when touched if heat flows from the body to our hand and vice – versa. If there is no flow of heat across the body and hand, the body can not be identified while it is hot or cold as bodies are in thermal equilibrium with our body. So both block of wood and metal must have the temperature of our body i.e., 37°C.

Question 2.
At room temperature water does not sublimate from ice to steam. Give reason.
Answer:
The critical temperature of the water is much above room temperature.

Question 3.
Good conductors of heat are also good conductors of electricity and vice versa why?
Answer:
It is because of the movement of electrons present in the materials.

Question 4.
When does the Charle’s law fail?
Answer:
By Charle’s law at constant pressure
V ∝ T or T ∝ V
At T = 0 K volume must be zero but it is impossible, at low-temperature gases does not obey the characterise of the ideal gas. As the molecules come closer and force of attraction and repulsion takes place.

Question 5.
When sugar is added to tea it gets cooled, why?
Answer:
When sugar is added to tea, its heat gets shared by sugar. So temperature of tea decreases.

Question 6.
A metal disc has a hole in it. What happens to the size of the hole, when the disc is heated.
Answer:
The size of the hole increases. Because expansion takes place on heating.

Question 7.
Can the temperature of a body be negative on the kelvin scale.
Answer:
No, This is because absolute zero on the kelvin scale is the minimum possible temperature.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottomans
(b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
(c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
(d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
Answer:
(a) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottomans

Question 2.
Which quickened the-process of liberation in South America?
(a) Support of US
(b) Napoleonic Invasion
(c) Simon Bolivar’s involvement
(d) French Revolution
Answer:
(d) French Revolution

Question 3.
When was people’s Political consultative conference held in China?
(a) September 1959
(b) September 1948
(c) September 1954
(d) September 1949
Answer:
(d) September 1949

Question 4.
Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of zamins under permanent Settlement?
(a) Santhals
(b) Titu Mir
(c) Munda
(d) Kol.
Answer:
(a) Santhals

Question 5.
Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
(a) 26th January 1930
(b) 26th December 1929
(c) 16th June 1946
(d) 15th January 1947
Answer:
(d) 15th January 1947

Question 6.
The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about …………………
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,400 km
(c) 800 km
(d) 2,200 km
Answer:
(a) 2,500 km

Question 7.
Western disturbances cause rainfall in …………………
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Predesh
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 8.
The soil formed by the river are …………………
(a) Red soils
(b) Black soils
(c) Desert soils
(d) Alluvial soils
Answer:
(d) Alluvial soils

Question 9.
Retreating monsoon wind pick up moisture from …………………
(a) Arabian sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian ocean
(d) Timor sea
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

Question 10.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is …………………
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 11.
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
Answer:
(c) Right to constitutional remedies

Question 12.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 13.
………………… is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
(a) Health
(b) Nutrition
(c) Sanitation
(d) Security
Answer:
(b) Nutrition

Question 14.
Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at lakh crore
in 2018-19.
(a) 91.06
(b) 92.26
(c) 80.07
(d) 98.29
Answer:
(b) 92.26

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Access the role of Ayyankali in fighting for the cause of “Untouchables”.
Answer:
(i) Ayyankali brought tremendous social changes especially in caste structure. The discrimination he faced as a child turned him into a leader of an anti-caste movement and who later fought for basic rights including access to public spaces and entry to schools.

(ii) Ayyankali challenged many caste conventions such as clothing style, he wore clothes associated with upper castes that were prohibited for lower castes.

Question 16.
How did Hitler get the support from the people of germany?
Answer:
(i) Hitler was well aware of the discontent among the Germans. He used his oratorical skills to sway the common people and promised them to return the glorious military past of Germany. He founded the National Socialist Party, generally known as “the Nazis”.

(ii) The fundamental platform on which Hitler built his support was the notion of the racial superiority of the Germans as a pure, ‘Aryan’ race and a deep-seated hatred of the Jews. Hitler came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany for twelve long years.

Question 17.
Why was Heron dismissed from service?
Answer:

• Colonel Heron was urged to deal with Puli Thevar as he continued to defy the authority of the company. Puli Thevar wielded much influence over the western Palayakkarars.
• Heron had to abandon the plan for want of cannon and of supplies and pay to soldiers. He retired to Madurai. He was then recalled and dismissed from service.

Question 18.
Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non- cooperation Movement?
Answer:

• The Non-cooperation Movement started in 1920. It soon became a nation-wide movement because it got support of the people across the country. But in February 1922, a violent incident occurred at Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh.
• In this incident a procession of nationalists provoked by the police turned violent. The police finding themselves outnumbered shut themselves inside the police station.
• The mob burnt the police station in which 22 policemen lost their lives. The incident hurt Gandhiji too much and he immediately withdrew the movement.

Question 19.
What are “Jet Stream”?
Answer:
In the upper layers of the atmosphere, there are strong westerly winds concentrated in a relatively narrow and shallow streams known as “Jet streams” They cause heavy rainfall in North-west India.

Question 20.
State any two characteristics of block cotton soil.
Answer:

• This soil is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, lime and iron but deficient in phosphorous. It is clayey and impermeable which has great capacity to retain moisture for a long time.
• It becomes sticky when wet but develops cracks during dry summer season. The soil is suited for dry farming due to its high moisture retentivity.

Question 21.
Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.
Answer:
Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar and Ramanathi are its main tributaries.

Question 22.
List out the three leads of the relations between the centre and the states.
Answer:
There are –

• Legislative relations
• Administrative relations
• Financial relations.

Question 23.
What do you know about kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport?
Answer:
(i) India is building the Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport, a road-river-port cargo transport project to link Kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar.

(ii) A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho Chi Minh City on the South Sea for the formation of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam and work on the first phase connecting Guwahati with Mandalay is currently underway.

Question 24.
What is national emergency?
Answer:
National emergency is a situation beyond the ordinary. The President declares this emergency if he is satisfied that India’s security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat.

Question 25.
How the state of Jammu and Kashmir differ from the other states of India.
Answer:

• The Constitution of India grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian States, and it is the only state in India to have a separate Constitution.
• The Directive Principles of the State Policy and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Rights to property, which is denied as a Fundamental Right to rest of India is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 26.
what are the factors supporting to develop the Indian economy?
Answer:
Factors supporting to develop the Indian economy :

• A fast growing population of working age.
• India has a strong legal system and many English language speakers
• Wage costs are low here.
• India’s economy has successfully developed highly advanced and attractive clusters of business in the technology space.

Question 27.
What is the main objective of WTO?
Answer:
The main objective of WTO is to set and enforce rules for international trade and to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalisations.

Question 28.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mettur Dam, Amaravathi Dam, Papanasam Dam, Bhavani Sagar Dam.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) ………………… treaty signed on February 7, 1922 created the EU.
(ii) The riverine island of Srirangam is located between …………………and ………………… branches of Cauvery.
(iii) …………………was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
(iv) In the year ………………… National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
(v) Tamil Nadu ranks …………………in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under
operation in the Public Private Partnership (PPP).
Answers
(i) The Maastricht
(ii) Northern, Southern
(iii) Non-Alignment
(iv) 2013
(v) Second

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) North East Monsoon and South West Monsoon
(ii) Rabi and Kharif Crop Season
Answer:
(a) (i) North East Monsoon and South East Monsoon:
North East Monsoon :

1. North east monsoon occurs between October and December.
2. It is Winter Monsoon.
3. The coromandal coast of Tamil Nadu gets, heavy rainfall from north east monsoon.

South West Monsoon :

1. Southwest Monsoon occurs between June to September.
2. It is Summer Monsoon.
3. The districts of Nilgiris, Kanyakumari, Salem, Coimbatore and Erode get rainfall.

(ii) Rabi and Kharif crop season:
Rabi Crop Season :

1. Rabi crops are sown in the beginning of the winter (i.e.) in November.
2. The crops are harvested in the beginning of summer (i.e) in March. days of November.
3. Major crops are wheat, tobacco, mustard, pulses, linseed and grains.

Kharif Crop Season :

1. Kharif crops are sown in the beginning of monsoon (i.e.) in June.
2. The crops are harvested in the early
3. Major crops are paddy, maize, cotton, millets, jute and sugarcane.

(b) Give reason: Alluvial soil is fertile
Answer:
Alluvial soil are formed by the deposition of silt by the rivers. Alluvial soils are generally fertile as they are rich in minerals such as lime, potassium, magnesium, nitrogen and phosphoric acid. It is deficient in nitrogen and humus. It is porous and loamy.

Question 33.
Discuss the main causes of the First World War.
Answer:
The causes of the First World War are given below:

• Formation of European alliances and counter alliances
• Emergence of violent forms of nationalism in countries like England, France and Germany
• Aggressive attitude of the German Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II
• Hostility of France towards Germany
• Opportunity for imperial power politics in the Balkans
• The Balkans wars
• Immediate cause which included the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand,nephew and heir to Franz Joseph, Emperor of Austria-Hungary, by Princip, a Bosnian Serb, on 28 June 1914.

Question 34.
Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The Great Rebellion of 1857 is a unique example of resistance to the British authorities, in India. There were several reasons that triggered the Revolt:

(i) The annexation policy of British India created dissatisfaction among the native rulers. The British claimed themselves as paramount, exercising supreme authority. New territories were annexed on the grounds that the native rulers were corrupt, and inept.

(ii) The British annexed several territories such as Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur through the Doctrine of Lapse. This also angered many Indian rulers.

(iii) Indian sepoys were upset with discrimination in salary and promotion. They were paid much less than their European counterparts. They felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.

Consequences:

• India was pronounced as one of the many crown colonies to be directly governed by the Parliament. This resulted in the transfer of power from the East India company to the British crown.
• Queen Victoria proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters. It was promised that Indians would be absorbed in government services.
• There came significant changes in the Indian army. The number of Indians was reduced. Indians were restrained from holding important ranks and position.
• It was also decided that instead of recruiting soldiers from Rajputs, Brahmins and North Indian Muslims, more soldiers would be recruited from the Gorkhas, Sikhs and Pathans.

Question 35.
Bring out the characteristics of Intensive and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Intensive farming:

• It involves various types of agriculture with higher levels of input, such as capital and labour, per unit of agricultural land area.
• It aims to maximize yields from available land through various means, such as heavy use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers. ,
• Intensive farming is practiced in Punjab, parts of Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh in India.

Plantation farming:

• It is a single crop farming, practised on a large area.
• Crops are mainly grown for the market.
• It is both labour intensive and capital intensive.
• It has an interface of agriculture and industry.
• Developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation processing industries and markets play an important role in the development of plants. Example- tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, etc.

Question 36.
Write an account on river Cauvery.
Answer:

• The main river of Tamil Nadu is Cauvery which originates at Talacauvery in the Brahmragiri hills of Kodagu (Coorg) district of Karnataka in the Western Ghats.
• About 416 km of its course falls in Tamil Nadu. It serves as the boundary between Karnataka
  and Tamil Nadu for a distance of 64 km. A tributary called Bhavani joins Cauvery on the right bank about 45 km from the Mettur Reservoir.
• Thereafter, it takes easterly course to enter into the plains of Tamil Nadu. Cauvery and its distributaries in its lower course drain the districts of Nagapattinam, Thanjavur, Thivarur and Thiruchirapalli.
• The Cauvery, Kollidam and the vellar jointly drain central part of the Tamil Nadu. The head of the Cauvery delta is near the islands of Srirangam. Kollidam branches off from cauvery at Grand Anaicut, also called as Kallanai was built across the river Cauvery.
• After Kallanai, the river breaks into a large number of distributaries and forms a network all over the delta. The network of tributaries within the delta of cauvery in the coast is called as the ‘Garden of Southern India’.
• It merges into Bay of Bengal to the south of Cuddalore. Cauvery along with its tributaries Bhavani, Noyyal, Mayar and Amaravathi is the most important source of canal irrigation.

Question 37.
Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution guarantees six Fundamental Rights to its citizens. It safeguards all these rights by granting us the Right to Constitutional Remedies. It is possible that the Government or private bodies may violate one of our Fundamental Rights.

(ii) Right to Constitutional Remedies protects us from such violations. It allows us to file a case against the Government or private bodies in the High Courts of the States and the Supreme Court of the India.

(iii) Both the Supreme Court and High Courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition two warrants and certiorari to protect the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. That is why the Supreme Court is called the “Guardian of the Constitutions”.

Question 38.
Briefly discuss the Functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the State Legislature are almost the same as that of the Parliament.

• The State Legislature can pass laws on all subjects mentioned in the State List as per the constitutions. It can also pass laws on concurrent subjects.
• The Legislature controls the finances of the State. The Lower House enjoys greater power than the Upper House in money matters. Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lower House of the Assembly.
• The Legislature controls the Executive. The council of Ministers is responsible to the Assembly. The ministers have to answer questions asked by the members of the Legislature.
• The Council cannot vote for grants.
• No new tax can be levied without the sanction and permission of the Assembly.

Question 39.
Briefly explain the evolution of M[NC and its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Multinational companies first started their activities in the extractive industries and controlled raw materials in the host countries during 1920s and then entered the manufacturing and service sectors after 1950s. Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries i.e., USA, UK, France and Germany. However, the largest is America. In 1971, the American Corporations held 52% of the total world stock of foreign direct inverstment.
Great Britain held 14.5% followed by France 5% and Federal Republic of Germany 4.4% and Japan 2.7%.

Advantages of MNCs:

• MNCs produce the same quality of goods at lower cost and without transaction cost.
• They reduce prices and increase the purchasing power of consumers world wide.
• They are able to take advantage of tax variation.
• They spur job growth in the local economy.

Disdvantages of MNCs:

(i) They have led to the downfall of smaller, local business.

(ii) With more companies transferring offices and centering operations in other countries, jobs for the people living in developed countries are threatened.

(iii) MNCs often invest in developing countries where they can take advantage of cheaper labour. Some MNCs prefer to put up branches in these parts of the world where there are no stringent policies in labour and where people need jobs because these MNCs can demand for cheaper labour and lesser healthcare benefits.

Question 40.
Write a note on history of industrialisation in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Industrialisation in the Colonial Period:

• The introduction of cotton cultivation in western and southern Tamil Nadu by the colonial government led to the emergence of a large-scale textile sector in these parts, which involved ginning, pressing, spinning and weaving operations.
• Introduction of railways also expanded the market for cotton yam and helped develop the sector.
• There was increase in trade during this period which led to industrial development. The two active ports in the region were Chennai and Tuticorin.
• In Western Tamil Nadu, the emergence of textiles industries also led to demand and starting of textile machinery industry in the region.

Post-Independence to early 1990s:

• After independence, several large enterprises were set up by both the central and state governments.
• The Integral Coach Factory in Chennai made railway coaches and the Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) in Tiruchirapalli manufactured boilers and turbines.
• Ashok Motors and Standard Motors together helped form an automobile cluster in the Chennai region.
• The 1970s and 1980s saw the setting up of emergence of powerloom weaving clusters in the Coimbatore region as well as expansion of cotton knitwear cluster in Tiruppur and home furnishings cluster in Karur.
• The Hosur industrial cluster is a successful case of how such policy efforts to promote industrial estates helped develop industries in a backward region.

Industrialisation in Tamil Nadu – Liberalization Phase:

• The final phase of industrialisation is the post-reforms period since the early 1990s.
• Because of trade liberalisation measures, exports of textiles, home furnishings and leather products began to grow rapidly.
• Efforts to attract investments led to entry of leading multinational firms (MNCs) into the state, especially in the automobile sector.
• Chennai region also emerged as a hub for electronics industry with MNCs such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung and Flextronics opening plants on the city’s outskirts.
• A significant share of these investments has come up in special economic zones in the districts bordering Chennai.
• The major industries are automobiles, autocomponents, light and heavy engineering, machinery, cotton, etc.
• This diffused process of industrialisation and corresponding urbanisation has paved the way for better rural-urban linkages in Tamil Nadu than in most other states.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1905-1920
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Portugal
(ii) Spain
(iii) Morocco
(iv) France
(v) Great Britian
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Battle of Stalingrad
(i) When did Germany attack Stalingrad?
(ii) What were the main manufactures of Stalingrad?
(iii) What was the name of the plan formulated by Hitler to attack Stalingrad?
(iv) What is the significance of the Battle of Stalingrad?
Answer:
(a) Battle of Stalingrad:
(i) In August 1942, Germany attacked Stalingrad.
(ii) The main manufactures of Stalingrad were armaments and tractors.
(iii) Fall Blau or Operation Blue
(iv) The people of Russia were grateful for Stalin’s conduct of the war. They regarded him as ‘a prodigy of patience, tenacity and vigilance, almost omnipresent, almost omniscient.’

(b) Political developments in South America.
(i) By which year did the whole of South America become free from European domination?
(ii) How many republics came into being from the Central America?
(iii) In which year was Cuba occupied by the USA?
(iv) What made oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America?
Answer:
(b) Political developments in South America:
(i) By 1830 the whole of South America was free from European domination.
(ii) Five republics came into being from the Central America.
(iii) The USA occupied Cuba in the year 1898.
(iv) Economic growth, urbanisation and industrial growth in countries like Argentina, Chile, Brazil, and Mexico helped consolidate the hold of middle class and the emergence of militant working class oganisations. At the same time American power and wealth came to dominate Central and South America. These factors made olgarchic regimes unpopular in South America.

[OR]

(c) Gandhi and Mass nationalism.
(i) Which incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi?
(ii) Name the works that influenced Gandhi?
(iii) How did Gandhi use satyagraha as a strategy in South Africa?
(iv) What do you know about the Champaran Satyagraha?
Answer:
(c) Gandhi and Mass nationalism:
(i) On his journey from Durban to Pretoria, at the Pietermaritzburg railway station, he was physically thrown out of the first class compartment in which he was travelling despite having a first class ticket. This incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi.
(ii) Tolstoy’s The Kingdom of God is Within You, Ruskin’s Unto This Last and Thoreau’s Civil Disobedience.
(iii) Gandhi developed satyagraha (truth-force) as a strategy, in which campaigners went on peaceful marches and presented themselves for arrest in protest against unjust laws.
(iv) The Champaran Satyagraha of 1916 was the first satyagraha movement inspired by Gandhi. It was a farmer’s uprising that took place in Champaran district of Bihar, India during the British colonial period.

(d) Periyar E. V. R.
(i) When did Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam?
(ii) What were the Newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
(iii) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
(iv) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
(d) Periyar E. V. R.
(i) Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.
(ii) The newspapers and journals started by Periyar were – Kudi Arasu, Revolt, Puratchi, Paguththarivu and Viduthalai.
(iii) In Vaikom, people protested against the practice of no access to the temples by the lower caste people. After the local leaders were arrested Periyar led the Temple Entry Movement and was imprisoned. So, people hailed him as Vaikom Virar or hero of Vaikom.
(iv) Right from 1929, when the Self-respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Himalayas
(ii) Nilgiris
(iii) Narmada
(iv) Lakshadweep
(v) Deccan Plateau
(vi) Southwest Monsoon
(vii) Paddy growing area
(viii) Chennai to Mumbai air route
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places are given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Coromandel coast
(ii) Paddy growing area
(iii) Nilgiri Hills
(iv) Nagapattinam
(v) Meenambakkam
(vi) Thamirabarani
(vii) Magnesite region (any one place)
(viii) Vaigai Dam
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Portugal
(ii) Spain
(iii) Morocco
(iv) France
(v) Great Britain
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Himalayas
(ii) Nilgiris
(if) Narmada
(iv) Lakshadwccp
(v) Deccan Plateau
(vi) Southwest Monsoon
(vii) Paddy growing area
(viii) Chennai to Mumbai air route
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Coromandel coast
(ii) Paddy growing area
(iii) Nilgiri Hills
(iv) Nagapattinam
(v) Meenambakkam
(vi) Thamirabarani
(vii) Magnesite region (any one place)
(viii) Vaigai Dam
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) Air warfare
(b) Trench warfare
(c) Submarine warfare
(d) Ship warfare
Answer:
(b) Trench warfare

Question 2.
With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

Question 3.
The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet aggression in
Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(b) NATO

Question 4.
Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 5.
When was the first forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858
(b) 1911
(c) 1865
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1865

Question 6.
…………………………. River is known as “Sorrow of Bihar”.
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 7.
………………………….  helps in quick, ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Nor wester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
Answer:
(c) Mango showers

Question 8.
Which crop is called as “Golden fibre” in India?
(a) cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Jute
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 9.
Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni
(b) Madurai
(c) Thanjavur
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 10.
The transport useful in the inaccessible area is ………………………….
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(c) Airways

Question 11.
How can the fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the supreme court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 12.
Find the odd one ………………………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 13.
…………………………. status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources development.
(a) Health
(b) Nutritional
(c) Economic
(d) Wealth
Answer:
(a) Health

Question 14.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) Land-reform policy
(d) Wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
Answer:
(i) Ramalinga swamigal emphasised the bonds of responsibility and compassion between living beings. He expressed the view that those who lack compassion for suffering of human beings are hard hearted, their wisdom clonded. He showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.

(ii) He established the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam in 1865 and it was renamed in 1872 as ‘Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam’ which means ‘Society for pure truth in universal self-hood’. Ramalinga also estabilished a free feeding house for everyone.

Question 16.
Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.
Answer:
(i) Pearl Harbour incident took place in December 1941 when Japan attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour, Hawaii, without warning to cripple America’s Pacific fleet. Many battle ships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed.

(ii) The US declared war on Japan, with Britain and China. This brought together both the Asia Pacific and the European war into one common cause. Most importantly, it brought the United States with its enormous resources into the war as a part of the Allies.

Question 17.
What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
Answer:
In the Battle of Kalakadu, Mahfuzkhan’s troops were routed by the huge forces of Puli Thevar.

Question 18.
Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
Answer:

• After World War I, the Caliph of Turkey, who was considered the head of Muslims all over the world, was given a very harsh treatment. The Khilafat Movement started in support of the Caliph.
• It was led by Maulana Mohamed Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali, popularly known as the Ali brothers.
• It aimed to restore the prestige and power of the Caliphate. Mahatma Gandhi supported the movement and saw it an opportunity to unite the Hindus and the Muslims.

Question 19.
Define ‘Meteorology’.
Answer:
The branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere, especially as a means of forecasting the weather.

Question 20.
Name the types of soil found in India.
Answer:

1. Alluvial Soils
2. Black soils
3. Red soils
4. Laterite soils
5. Forest and mountain soils
6. Arid and desert soils
7. Saline and alkaline soils
8. Peaty and marshy soils.

Question 21.
Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Answer:
Oil in India is obtained from both from on-shore and off-shore areas.
Western Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Mumbai high oil fields
2. Gujarat Coast
3. Basseim oil field, South of Mumbai high
4. Ankleshwar
5. Cambay-Luni Region
6. Ahemedabad-Kalol Region
7. Aliabet oil feild, south of Bhavanagar

Eastern Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Brahmaputra valley
2. Digboi oil fields
3. Nahoratiya oil fields
4. Moran-Hugrijan oil fields
5. Rudrasagar-Lawa oil fields
6. Surrma valley
7. Offshore of Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Baleshwar coast, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 22.
What is national emergency?
Answer:
National emergency is a situation beyond the ordinary. The President declares this emergency if he is satisfied that India’s security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat.

Question 23.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:

• Brazil
• Russia
• India
• China
• South Africa

Question 24.
Write any five principles of Fair Trade Practices.
Answer:
Five principles of Fair trade practices:

• Creating opportunities for economically disadvantaged producers.
• Transforming and accountability.
• Fair trading practices and payment of fair price.
• Ensuring no child labour and forced labour.
• Respect for the environment.

Question 25.
Define food security according to FAO.
Answer:
The United Nation’s Food and Agriculture Organisation defines food security as follows: “Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.” (FAO, 2009)

Question 26.
What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

• It increase the production and cultivation
• It increase the productivity
• Changes in cropping system
• Industrial development

Question 27.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 28.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

• The new nations that got independence after the long period of colonial struggle found themselves in a very difficult situation with respect to economic development.
• So it was necessary to align with either of the blocs – United States of America (USA) or United Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR).
• Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). So he chose the path of Non-Alignment.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) …………………………. was the headquarters of the Council of Europe.
(ii) …………………………. is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
(iii) …………………………. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
(iv) …………………………. is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
(v) Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ………………………….
Answers
(i) Strasbourg
(ii) Solaikaradu
(iii) Diplomacy
(iv) Underweight
(v) Thenpennai.

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answer

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains
(ii) Marine Fishing and Inland Fishing
Answer:
(a) (i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains:

Western Coastal Plains :

1. It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
2. It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 Km.
3. This plain is drained by less rivers like Narmada and Tapti forming estuaries.
4. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai – Goa), the
5. Central stretch is called the Kannad plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Eastern Coastal Plains:

1. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal Sea.
2. They are wide and level plains with an average width of 80 – 100 Km.
3. This plain is drained by more rivers forming deltas like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
4. It consists of two sections. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern part is known as the Coromandal coast.
5. Lake Chilka is an important feature along the eastern coast.

(ii) Marine Fishing and Inland Fishing:
Marine Fishing :

1. It includes coastal off-shore and deep sea fisheries mainly on the continent shelf.
2. Kerala leads in the marine fish production in India.

Inland Fishing :

1. Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs, ponds, tanks etc.
2. Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer in India.

(b) Give reason: Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Answer:

• It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
• It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50-80 km.
• It is mainly characterised by sandy beaches, coastal sand dunes, mud flats, lagoons, estuary, laterite platforms and residual hills.

Question 33.
Attempt an essay on the rise and fall of Adolf Hitler.
Hitler was great orator. He swayed the people by his impassioned speeches, promising a return to the glorious military past of Germany. He founded the National Socialist Party, known as ‘the Nazis’.

He came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945, with a small group of fanatic followers. He rearmed Germany. He made huge expenditure on the recruitment of armed forces and the manufacture of armaments and machinery for the army, navy and air force. Soon the economic condition of Germany got strengthened and the problem of unemployment came to an end. In 1938, Hitler invaded Austria and Czechoslovakia.

Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia was German-speaking, and Hitler’s claim was that the German-speaking people should be united in one nation. Though Hitler gave an assurance in the Munich Pact that Germany would not attack any other country, but this was broken immediately. In 1939, he invaded Czechoslovakia.

Poland was attacked next, and this was the final act which resulted in declaration of war by Britain and France against Germany. In June 1940, Italy joined Germany, and in September 1940, Japan also joined the Axis Powers.

The German army followed a tactic of ‘lightning strike’ to storm into various countries and overrun them. In June 1941, German army invaded Russia and remained successful in the initial years. But ultimately got defeated due to the resistance by Soviet army, and the fierce Russian winter.

In the Battle of Alamein 1942, the Allied forces counter-attacked and defeated the German and Italian forces in North Africa. The German army was chased across the desert, out of North Africa. The war continued till Hitler’s suicide in April 1945.

Question 34.
Discuss the reasons behind the partition of India.
While the Indian National Congress was calling for Britain to quit India, in 1943, the Muslim League passed a resolution demanding the British to divide and quit. There were several reasons for the separate Muslim homeland in the sub-continent:

• As colonizers, the British had followed a divide-and-rule policy in India. In the census they categorized people according to religion and viewed and treated them as separate from each other.
• The British based their knowledge of the people of India on religious texts and the intrinsic differences they found in them, instead of examining how people of different religions coexisted.
• As soon as the Muslim League was formed, Muslims were placed on a separate electorate.
  Thus, the separateness of Muslims in India was built into the Indian electoral process.
• There was also an ideological divide between the Muslims and the Hindus of India. While there were strong feelings of nationalism in India, by the late 19th century there were also communal conflicts and movements in the country that were based on religious identities rather than class or regional ones.
• Both Hindu Mahasabha and Muslim League claimed that the interests of the Hindus and Muslims were different and hostile to each other.
• The British policy of divide and rule, through measures such as Partition of Bengal, Communal Award, had encouraged the vested interests out to exploit the religious differences.

Question 35.
State the types of soil in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.
Answer:

Question 36.
Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Plateau of Tamil Nadu are located between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
• It is roughly triangular in shape and covers an area of about 60,000 sq. km. .
• Its height increases from east to west. Its height ranges between 150 and 600 m.
• This plateau is broader in the north and very narrow in the south and it has many subdivisions.
• Bharamahal plateau is a part of the Mysore plateau situated in the northwestern part of Tamil Nadu. Dharmapuri and Krishnagiri districts are located in this region.
• Coimbatore plateau lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts. Its height varies from 150 to 450 metres. Moyar river separates this plateau from the Mysore plateau.
• Rivers like Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravathi, which originate from Western Ghats form Valleys in the region. Many intermontane plateaus are found in the region of the Nilgiris. Sigur plateau is one such plateau.
• Madurai plateau found in madurai district extends up to the foothills of the Western Ghats. Vaigai and Thamirabarani basins are located in the zone.

Question 37.
Point out the fundamental Rights.
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. There are six Fundamental Rights –

• Right to Equality It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.
• Right to Freedom It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
• Right against Exploitation It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour. It also prohibits employment of children in factories, etc.
• Right to religion It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion. ,
• Cultural and Educational rights It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 38.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:

• Indian foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalties.
• India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives. ,
• India provides neighbours with support as needed in this form of resources equipment and training.

Question 39.
Explain various terms associated with measuring of national income.
Answer:
Various terms associated with measuring of national income.

(i) Gross National Product or GNP is the total value of goods and services produced and income received in a year by domestic residents of a country. It excludes profits earned from capital invested abroad.

(ii) Gross Domestic Product or GDP is the total value of output of goods and services produced by the factors of production within the geographical boundaries of the country.

(iii) Net National Product or NNP refers to gross national product, i.e., the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the factors of productions of a country or other polity during a given time period, minus depreciation.

(iv) Net Domestic Product or NDP is a part of Gross Domestic Product. It is obtained from the Gross Domestic Product by deducting the Quantum of the wear and tear expenses (depreciation).
NDP = GDP – Depreciation

(v) Per .Capita Income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country.
It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
National Income
Per Capita Income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

(vi) Personal Income or PI is the total money income received by individuals and households of a country from all possible services before direct taxes. Personal income can be expressed as follows:
PI = NI Corporate Income Taxes – Undistributed Corporate Profits – Social Security Contributions + Transfer payment.

(vii) Disposable Income or DI means actual income which can be spent on consumption by individuals and families. It can be expressed as DPI = PI – Direct Taxes.

Question 40.
Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to industrialise?
Industrial Policy of Tamil Nadu:
Tamil Nadu enjoys growth and has excellent infrastructure. A straggly established cluster and political stability are the major advantages. The state government has a pro-active industrial policy and is very encouraging when it comes to SEZs.
Important industrial policies:

• Tamil Nadu Industrial Policy – 2014
• Implementation of Industrial Policy – 2015
• Tamilnadu State Environmental Policy – 2014
• Tamilnadu SEZs Policy -2013
• Tamilnadu Automobiles and Auto Parts Policy – 2014 (/) Tamilnadu Biotechnology Policies – 2014

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
live important events between 1922-1943
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Bosnia
(ii) Romania
(iii) Serbia
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Balkan Wars
(i) Why was Balkan league formed?
(ii) What was the outcome of the first Balkan war?
(iii) Who were defeated in this war?
(iv) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan war?
Answer:
(a) Balkan Wars
(i) Balkan League was formed to attack and defeat Turkish forces in the first Balkan War in 1912-13.
(ii) The new state of Albania was created and the other Balkan states divided up Macedonia between them. Turkey was reduced to the area around Constantinople.
(iii) The Turkish forces were defeated in the first Balkan War.
(iv) The name of the Treaty signed at the end of the second Balkan War was the Treaty of Bucharest.

(b) Deccan Riots
(i) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
(ii) What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
(iii) What did it result in?
(iv) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
Answer:
(b) Deccan Riots
(i) The first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appeared in May 1875, in Supa, a village near Poona.
(ii) Under a new law, the British moneylenders were allowed to attach the mortgaged land of the defaulters and auction it off.
(iii) It resulted in transfer of lands from the cultivators to the non-cultivating classes.
(iv) The violence was directed mostly at the Gujarat moneylenders.

[OR]

(c) Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
(ii) What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
(iii) What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(iv) Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
(c) Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) The objective of Madras Native Association was to promote the interests of its members and reduction of taxes. It also protested against the government’s support to missionary activities.

(ii) The entire press opposed the appointment of the first South Indian judge of the Madras High Court in 1878. This led to a need of a nationalist press to express the Indian perspective. The Hindu was started in 1878 and soon became a vehicle for nationalist propaganda.

(iii) The demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha were to conduct civil services examinations simultaneously in England and India, abolition of India Council in London, reduction of taxes, and reduction of civil and military expenditure.

(iv) Some early nationalists in Tamil Nadu were: V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, P.S. Sivasamy Iyer, V. Krishnasamy Iyer, T.R. Venkatrama Sastri, G.A. Natesan, T.M. Madhava Rao and S. Subramania Iyer.

(d) Labour Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras.
(ii) Identify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
(iii) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
(iv) Who organized the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which year?
Answer:
(d) Labour Movement in Tamil Nadu
(i) The factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras are,

• Retrenchment of workers at the end of the First World War.
• Nationalists’ support to the cause of labour.

(ii) Three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union are B.R Walia, M. Singaravelar and Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram.

(iii) The first All India Trade Union Conference was held in Bombay.
(iv) M. Singaravelar organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras in 1923.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mahanadi
(iii) Malwa Plateau
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Southwest Monsoon
(vi) Black soil region
(vii) Tea growing area
(viii) Hirakud Dam
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) One Lignite producing area
(ii) Neyveli
(iii) Kollidam
(iv) Decidious forest area
(v) Alluvial soil region
(vi) Cuddalore
(vii) Vellore
(viii) River Chittar
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Bosnia
(ii) Romania
(iii) Serbia
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mahanadi
(iii) Malwa Plateau
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Southwest Monsoon
(vi) Black soil region
(vii) Tea growing area
(viii) Hirakud Dam
Answer:

Map for Q.44
(j) One Lignite producing area
(ii) Neyveli
(iii) Kollidam
(iv) Decidious forest area
(v) Alluvial soil regions
(vi) Cuddalore
(vii) Vellore
(viii) River Chittar
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Newton’s III law is applicable ________ .
(a) for a body is at rest
(b) for a body in motion
(c) both a and b
(d) only for bodies with equal masses
Answer:
(c) both a and b

Question 2.
SI unit of resistance is ________.
(a) mho
(b) joule
(c) Ohm
(d) Ohm meter
Answer:
(c) Ohm

Question 3.
Which of the following is the heaviest one?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Alpha
(c) Beta
(d) Gamma
Answer:
(b) Alpha

Question 4.
1 mole of any substance contains ________ molecules.
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.023 × 10^-23
(c) 3.0115 × 10²³
(d) 12.046 × 10²³
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³

Question 5.
In the alumino thermic process the role of Al is ________
(a) Oxidizing agent
(b) reducing agent
(c) hydrogeneration agent
(d) Sulphurising agent
Answer:
(b) reducing agent

Question 6.
Solubility is the amount of solid dissolved in ________ g of solvent.
(a) 10 g
(b) 50 g
(c) 100 g
(d) 1 g
Answer:
(c) 100 g

Question 7.
Heart of heart is called ________.
(a) SA node
(b) Purkinjee fibres
(c) AV node
(d) Bundle of His
Answer:
(a) SA node

Question 8.
Metastasis is associated with ________.
(a) Benign tumour
(b) Malignant tumour
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Crown gall tumour
Answer:
(b) Malignant tumour

Question 9.
Kreb’s cycle takes place in ________.
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Stomata
(c) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) Mitochondrial matrix
Answer:
(d) Mitochondrial matrix

Question 10.
The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of ________.
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaves
(d) flower
Answer:
(b) stem

Question 11.
Palaeontology deals with the study of ________.
(a) fossils
(b) genes
(c) petroleum
(d) homologous organ
Answer:
(a) fossils

Question 12.
Which software is used to create animation?
(a) Paint
(b) PDF
(c) MS word
(d) Scratch
Answer:
(d) Scratch

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
State the principle of Moments.
Answer:
When a number of like or unlike parallel forces act on a rigid body and the body is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of the moments in the clockwise direction is equal to the algebraic sum of the moments in the anti-clockwise direction.

Question 14.
Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
Answer:
When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the blue colour is scattered to a greater extent than the red colour. This scattering causes the sky to appear in blue colour.

Question 15.
What is the audible range of frequency?
Answer:
Audible waves – These are sound waves with a frequency ranging between 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Question 16.
What is meant by binary solution?
Answer:
A solution must at least be consisting of two components. Such solutions which are made of one solute and one solvent are called binary solutions, (e.g.) adding CuSO₄ crystals to water.

Question 17.
Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions.
Answer:
Reversible Reaction:

• Reaction can be reversed.
• It proceeds in both directions.
• It attains equilibrium.
• It is relatively slow.

Irreversible Reaction:

• Reaction cannot be reversed.
• It is unidirectional.
• Equilibrium is not attained.
• It is fast.

Question 18.
What are viviparous animals?
Answer:
The animals which give birth to young ones are called viviparous animals.

Question 19.
Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid (ABA).
Answer:

1. ABA promotes the process of abscission. (Separation of leaves, flowers and fruits from the branch)
2. During water stress and drought conditions ABA causes stomatal closure.

Question 20.
Define triple fusion.
Answer:
The fusion involving two polar nucleus and a sperm nucleus, that occurs in double fertilization in a seed plant and results in the formation of endosperm is called the triple fusion.

Question 21.
Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be connecting link?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil bird. It is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds. It had wings with feathers like a bird. It had long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth, like a reptile.

Question 22.
Calculate the resistance of a conductor through which a current of 5A passes, when the potential difference between its ends is 60V.
Answer:
Given, I = 5A
V = 60 V
From Ohm’s law: R = \(\frac{V}{I}=\frac{60}{5}\) =12 Ω
∴ R = 12 Ω

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
State the universal law of gravitation and derive its Mathematical expression.
Answer:

This law states that every particle of matter in this universe attracts every other particle with a force. This force is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the centres of there masses. The direction of the force acts along the line joining the masses.

Force between the masses is always attractive and it does not depend on the medium where they are placed. Let m₁ and m₂ be the masses of two bodies A and B placed r metre apart in space

Force, F ∝ m₁ × m₂, F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)
On combining the above two expressions,
F ∝ \(\frac{m_{1} \times m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
F = \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
Where G is the universal gravitational constant. Its value in SI unit is 6.674 × 10^-11 N m² kg^-2.

Question 24.
(i) List any five properties of light.
Answer:

• Light is a form of energy.
• Light always travel along a straight line.
• Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through vacuum.
• The speed of light in vacuum or air is C = 3 x 10⁸ ms^-1
• Different coloured light has different wavelength and frequency.

(ii) State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering S ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

Question 25.
(i) A torch bulb is rated at 3V and 600 mA. calculate it’s (a) power (b) resistance (c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hours.
Answer:
Given
V = 3V
I = 600 mA = 600 × 10^-3 A
(a) Power (P) = VI = 3 × 600 × 10^-3 = 1800 × 10^-3
P= 1.8 W (or) watt.

(b) Resistance (R) = \(\frac{V}{I}\)

R = 5 Ω

(c) Power (P) = 1.8 W and t = 4 hours
= 4 × 60 × 60 = 14400 second.
Energy consumed (E) = P × t
= 1.8 × 14400 = 25920 joules
E = 25.9 Wh

(ii) Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases the speed of sound increases. That is why we can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy season.

Question 26.
Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.
Answer:
The Salient features of “Modern atomic theory” are:

• An atom is no longer indivisible.
• Atoms of the same element may have different atomic masses.
• Atoms of different elements may have same atomic masses.
• Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atom of other elements. In other words, atom is no longer indestructible.
• Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
• Atom is the smallest particle that takes part in a chemical reaction.
• The mass of an atom can be converted into energy E = mc².

Question 27.
How is Aluminium extracted from Bauxite?
Answer:
Bauxite is the chief ore of aluminium. The extraction of aluminium from bauxite involves two steps:
(1) Conversion of bauxite into alumina – Baeyer’s process.
The conversion of Bauxite into Alumina involves the following steps:
Bauxite ore is finely ground and heated under pressure with a solution of concentrated caustic soda at 150° C to obtain sodium meta aluminate.

On diluting sodium meta aluminate with water, a precipitate of aluminium hydroxide is formed. The precipitate is filtered, washed, dried and ignited at 1000°C to get alumina.

(2) Electrolytic reduction of alumina – Hall’s process.
Aluminium is produced by the electrolytic reduction of fused alumina (Al₂O₃) in the electrolytic cell.
Cathode: Iron tank linked with graphite
Anode: A bunch of graphite rods suspended in molten electrolyte.
Electrolyte:

Pure alumina + molten cryolite + fluorspar

Temperature: 900 – 950° C
Voltage used: 5 – 6 V
Overall reaction:
2 Al₂O₃ → 4 Al + 3 O₂ ↑

Question 28.
What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
Answer:
The brain, controlling centre of all the body activities is covered by three connective tissue membrane (or) meninges.

• Duramater – is the outermost thick fibrous membrane.
• Arachnoid membrane – is the middle thin vascular membrane providing web-like cushion.
• Piamater – is the innermost thin delicate membrane richly supplied with blood. Meningeal membranes protect the brain from mechanical injury.

Question 29.
(a) Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiment?
Answer:

• The pea plant is self pollinating and so it is very easy to raise pure breeding individuals.
• It has a short life span.
• It is easy to cross pollinate.
• It has deeply defined contrasting characters.
• The flowers are bisexual.

(b) What is the importance of valves in the heart?
Answer:
The valves are the muscular flaps, that regulate the flow of blood in a single direction and prevent backward flow of blood.

Question 30.
Differentiate the following:
(i) Light dependent reaction and Light independent reaction
Answer:
Light dependent reaction:

• It is called Hill reaction or Light reaction.
• The reaction is earned out in Thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast.
• It is carried out in the presence of light.
• Photosynthetic pigments absorb the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH₂.

Light independent reaction:

• It is called Dark reaction or Biosynthetic pathway or Calvin cycle.
• This reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast.
• It is carried out in the absence of light.
• CO₂ is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH₂.

(ii) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
Answer:
Aerobic:

• Occur in the presence of oxygen.
• Carbon dioxide, water and ATP are produced.

Anaerobic:

• Occur in the absence of oxygen.
• Lactic acid, Ethanol and ATP are produced.

Question 31.
(a) What is metastasis?
Answer:
The cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues and this process is called Metastasis.

(b) What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid, obtained by cross breeding is called heterosis or hybrid vigour.
Effects of hybrid vigour:

• Increased production of milk by cattles.
• Increased production of egg by poultry.
• High quality of milk is produced.
• Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 32.
(i) Explain Soddy and Fajan Radioactive displacement law.
Answer:
Alpha decay:
(a) Unstable parent nucleus emits an alpha particle to form stable daughter nucleus.
(b) ₉₂U²³⁸ → ₉₀Th²³⁴ + ₂He⁴ ( α – decay ).
(c) Mass number decreases by 4.
(d) Atomic number decreases by 2.

Beta decay:
(a) Unstable parent nucleus emits a beta particle to form stable daughter nucleus.
(b) ₁₅P³² → ₁₆S³² + _-1e⁰ (β – decay)
(c) Mass number – no change.
(d) Atomic number increased by 1.

Gamma decay:
(a) The atomic number and the mass number remain same.
(b) The energy level of the nucleus change. .

(ii) Calculate the pH of 0.05M H₂SO₄.
[H⁺] = Normality = Molarity × basicity
= 0.05 × 2 = 0.1
= 10^-1 = 1 × 10^-1
pH = -log₁₀ [H⁺]
pH = -log₁₀ 1 × 10^-1
pH = -log₁₀ 1 – log 10^-1
pH = 0 – (- 1 log₁₀ 10) = 1

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]

Question 33.
(a) (i) State the law of volume.
Answer:
When the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.
(i.e.,) V ∝ T .
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

(ii) Derive the ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law, Charles’ law and Avagadro’s law,
According to Boyle’s law
PV = constant ……… (1)
According to Charles’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant …….(2)
According to Avagadro’s law,
\(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant ……(3)
After combining equations (1), (2) and (3)
\(\frac{P V}{n T}\) = constant ……..(4)

The above relation is called combined law of gases. If you consider a gas, which contains μ moles of the gas, the number of atoms contained will be equal to (i times the Avagadro’s number, NA
(i.e.,) n = μ N_A
using equation (5) equation (4) can be written as
PV / μ N_A T = constant

The value of the constant in the above equation is taken to be k_B, which is called as Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10^-23 J K^-1). Hence, we have the following equation,
PV / μ N_A T = kB
PV = μ N_A k_B T
Here μ N_A k_B = R, which is termed as universal gas constant whose value is 8.31 Jmol^-1_1K^-1
PV = RT
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

[OR]

(b) (i) A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 seconds respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Answer:

(ii) A door is pushed, at a point whose distance from the hinges is 90 cm, with a force of 40 N. Calculate the moment of the force about the hinges.
Answer:
The moment of a force M = F × d
F = 40 N
d = 90 cm = 0.9 m
Hence, moment of the force = 40 × 0.9 = 36 Nm

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the mass of 2.5 mole of oxygen atom.
Answer:
Number of moles = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Atomic mass }}\)
∴ Mass = Number of moles × Atomic mass
= 0.5 × 16 = 8 g

(ii) Calculate the number of molecules in 11g of CO₂.
Answer:
Gram Molecular of CO₂ = 44 g.
number of molecules in 44 g of CO₂ = 6.023 × 10²³
number of molecules in 11 g of CO₂ = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{44}\) × 11
= 1.53 × 10²³ molecules

(iii) Calculate the number of moles in 81g of aluminium.
Answer:
Number of moles = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Atomic mass }}\)
= \(\frac{81}{27}\) = 3 moles

[OR]

(b) How is ethanol manufactured from sugar-cane?
Answer:
Molasses is a dark coloured syrupy liquid left after the crystallization of sugar from the concentrated sugarcane juice. It contains 30 % of Sucrose, which cannot be separated by crystallization.

(i) Dilution of Molasses:
Molasses is first diluted with water,to bring down the concentration of sugar to about 8 to 10 percent.

(ii) Addition of Nitrogen Source:
Molasses contains enough nitrogenous matter to act as food for yeast during the fermentation process. If the nitrogenous matter is poor, ammonium sulphate or ammonium phosphate is added.

(iii) Addition of yeast:
This solution kept in large fermentation tank and yeast is added to it kept at about 303K for a few days. During this period, the enzymes invertase and Zymase present in yeast, convert sucrose into ethanol.

The fermented liquid is technically called wash.

(iv) Distillation of wash:
This wash containing 15 to 18% alcohol, is now subjected to fractional distillation. The main fraction drawn is an aqueous solution of ethanol which contains 95.5% of ethanol and 4.5% of water. This is called rectified spirit. This mixture is then refluxed over quicklime for about 5 to 6 hour and then allowed to stand for 12 hours. On distillation of mixture pure alcohol (100%) is obtained. This is called absolute alcohol.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?
Answer:
The formation of Thyroxine (T₄) and Triiodothyronine requires iodine. If there is an inadequate supply of iodine in our diet it leads to enlargement of thyroid gland called goitre.

(ii) What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
The importance of rainwater harvesting is as follows:

• Overcome the rapid depletion of ground water level.
• To meet the increased demand of water.
• Reduces flood and soil erosion.
• Water stored in ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can be used for drinking purposes.

(iii) What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
Answer:
The first fluid which is produced from the mammary gland after child birth is called colostrum. Milk production from alveoli of mammary gland is stimulated by prolactin secreted from anterior pituitary.

[OR]

(b) (i) How does locomotion take place in leech?
Answer:
Locomotion in leech takes place by:

• Looping or crawling movement: Crawling movement is brought about by the contraction and relaxation of muscles. The two suckers serve for attachment during movement.
• Swimming movement: Leeches swim very actively and perform undulating movement in water.

(ii) How does Fossilization occur in plants?
Answer:
Fossilization in plants: The process of formation of fossil in the rocks is called fossilization.
The common methods of fossilization includes:

1. Petrifiction: Minerals like silica slowly penetrate in and replace the original organic tissue. This method can preserve hard and soft parts, (e.g.) wood fossils.

2. Mold and Cast: A replica of a plant or animal is preserved in sedimentary rocks. When the organism get buried in sediment it is dissolved by underground water leaving a hollow depression called Mold. It shows only the original shape and not the internal structure. Minerals or sediments fill the hollow depression and forms a cast.

3. Preservation: The entire plant may be preserved to protect from the organism from decay. Ice or amber (tree sap) can be used for preservation.

4. Compression: When the organism dies, the hard parts settle at the bottom of the sea bed and are covered by sediment. The process goes on continuously and the fossils are formed.

5. Infiltration: The precipitation of minerals takes place which later on infiltrate the cell wall. The process is brought about by several mineral element such as silica, calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

Question 2.
Who was the first Indian judge of the Madras High Court?
(a) T. Muthu Swamy
(b) P. S. Sivasamy
(c) V. S. Srinivasa Sastri
(d) G. A. Natesan
Answer:
(a) T. Muthu Swamy

Question 3.
Which American President followed the policy of containment of communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Truman
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Franklin Roosevelt
Answer:
(b) Truman

Question 4.
Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion
(b) Farazi Movement
(c) Tribal uprising
(d) Kol Revolt
Answer:
(b) Farazi Movement

Question 5.
Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amirtsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Shaifuddin Kitchlew
(c) MohamedAli
(d) Raj Kumar Shukla
Answer:
(b) Shaifuddin Kitchlew

Question 6.
The North-South extend of India is ………………..
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,933 km
(c) 3,214 km
(d) 2,814 km
Answer:
(c) 3,214 km

Question 7.
Meteorology is the science of………………..
(a) Weather
(b) Social
(c) Political
(d) Human
Answer:
(a) Weather

Question 8.
The Soil which is rich in iron oxides is ………………..
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Alkaline
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 9.
The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is………………..
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N
(b) 8°5’S to 13°35’S
(c) 8°0’N to 13°5’N
(d) 8°0’S to 13°05’S
Answer:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N

Question 10.
Pick out the odd one………………..
(a) Inundational canals
(b) Perennial canals
(c) Tanks
(d) Canals
Answer:
(c) Tanks

Question 11.
Under which article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 12.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 13.
…………….. is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 14.
GNP equals………………..
(a) NNP adjusted for inflation
(b) GDP adjusted for inflation
(c) GDP plus net property income from abroad
(d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
Answer:
(c) GDP plus net property income from abroad

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
Answer:
Maharashi Debendranath Tagore laid down the following four articles of faith –

• In the beginning, there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created the Universe.
• He alone is the Good of truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness and Power, eternal, omnipresent, the One without second.
• Our salvation depends on belief in him and in his worship in this world and the next.
• Belief consists in loving him and doing his will.

Question 16.
Mention the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:
Here are the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany:

• Germany was forced to give up territories to the west, north and east of the German border.
• Germany had to disarm and was allowed to retain a very restricted armed force (army, navy and air force);
• As reparations for the War, Germany was expected to pay for the military and civilian cost of the War to the Allied nations. .

Question 17.
What were the duties of a Palayakkarars?
Answer:
The Palayakkarars carried on the following duties:

• They collected revenue, administered the territory control, settled disputes and maintained law and order.
• On many occasions the Palayakkarars helped the Nayak rulers to restore the kingdom to them.

Question 18.
Write a note on Bhagat Singh.
Answer:
1. Bhagat Singh was an Indian socialist revolutionary whose two acts of dramatic violence against the British in India and the execution at the age of 23 made him a folk hero of the Indian Independence Movement.

2. Bhagat Singh along with B. K. Dutt threw a smoke bomb inside the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929. It was not intended to hurt anyone. They threw pamphlets and shouted Tnquilab Zindabad’ and ‘Long Live the Proletariat’.

3. He along with Rajguru was arrested and sentenced to death. Bhagat Singh’s daring act fired the imagination of the youth across India and he became popular.

Question 19.
Name the distinct seasons of India.
Answer:

• Winter or cold weather season (Jan-Feb)
• Pre Monsoon or Summer (March-May)
• Southwest Monsoon or rainy season (June-September)
• Northeast Monsoon season (October-December)

Question 20.
Define Agriculture.
Answer:
Agriculture is the process of producing food for people, fodder for cattle, fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated animals.

Question 21.
Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
Answer:

1. Anthracite : contains 80 to 90% Carbon
2. Bituminous : contains 60 to 80% Carbon
3. Lignite : 40 to 90% Carbon
4. Peat : contains less than 40% Carbon

Question 22.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports:

• Chennai International Airport
• Coimbatore International Airport
• Madurai International Airport
• Tiruchirapalli International Airport

Domestic Airports:
Tuticorin and Salem

Sea Port: Major Sea Ports are:

• Chennai
• Ennore
• Tuticorin

Intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports.

Question 23.
List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
Answer:
India is a member of formal groupings like UNO, NAM, S AARC, G20 and the Commonwealth.

Question 24.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:
1.  The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named as a member, but without a right to vote.

2. In the performance of his official duties, Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.

Question 25.
What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
Answer:
Qualifications of the Governor is given below

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed 35 years of age.
• He should not be a member of Parliament or any State legislature.
• He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 26.
Write the name of economic policies of India.
Answer:
Name of economic policies in India are:

• Agriculture Policy
• Industrial Policy
• New Economic Policy
• Trade Policy
• Employment Policy
• Currency and Banking Policy
• Fiscal and Monetary Policy
• Wage Policy
• Population Policy

Question 27.
What is meant by black money?
Answer:
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.

Question 28.
Name any five biosphere reserves in India.
Answer:

1. Agasthyamalai
2. Dibru Saikhowa
3. Dihang Dibang
4. Great Nicobar
5. Gulf of Mannar
6. The Nilgiris
7. Sundarbans

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) In 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was fortned in ………………..University.
(ii) ………………..is the Tamil Nadu state animal.
(iii) ………………..is a small Himalyan Kingdom.
(iv) ………………..is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services
that one unit of money can buy.
(v) The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ………………..
Answers
(i) Peking
(ii) Nilgiri Thar
(iii) Bhutan
(iv) Purchasing power
(v) Balance of trade

Question 30.
Match the following

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Jute industry and Sugar industry.
(ii) Internal Trade and International Trade.
Answer:
(a) (i) Jute industry and Sugar industry:
Jute industry :

1. The Jute industry is concerned mainly with the production of gunny bags, canvas, pack sheets, jute web, carpets, cordage, hessian and twines.
2. West Bengal, Titagarh, Jagatdat, Budge- budge, Haora and Bhadreshwar are the chief centres of jute industry.

Sugar industry :

1. Sugar can be produced from sugarcane, sugar-beets, or any other crop which have sugar content.
2. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Punjab, Gujarat, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh.

(ii) Internal Trade and International Trade:
Internal Trade

1. Internal trade is also known as local trade. It is carried on within the domestic territory of a country.
2. Land transport plays a major role in the movement of goods.
3. This trade is mostly fixed on the nation’s currency.
4. This internal trade helps to promote balanced regional growth in the country. This trade leads to rapid economic progress of a country.

International Tirade :

1. International trade is also known as External trade. It is a trade carried on between two or more countries.
2. Ocean transport plays major role in the movement of goods.
3. This trade is carried on foreign currency.
4. This trade leads to rapid economic progress of a country.

(b) Give reason: Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:
Agriculture, job opportunities and industrial development are the main causes of population density in the cities then the villages.

Question 33.
Assess the structure and the activities of the UN.
Answer:
The United Nations came into existence in the year 1945 to achieve lasting peace among all nations which were inter-dependent. It functions like any government, through its principal organs which are similar to the legislative, executive and judicial wings of a state.

• The General Assembly is the body in which each member state is represented. It meets once a year and issues of interest and points of conflict are discussed in the Assembly.
• The Security Council has fifteen members, five of them (the USA, Britain, France, Russia and China) are permanent members. The other ten temporary members are elected in .rotation from different parts of the world. Each of the permanent members has the right to veto any decision by the other members of the Security Council.
• The UN Secretariat is headed by the Secretary General, who is elected by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.
• The International Court of Justice is the Judicial wing of the United Nations. Its headquarter is at The Hague.
• The fifth organ of the UN is the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). It is responsible for coordinating all the economic and social work of the United Nations.

Activities of the United Nations:
Human rights, the problems of refugees, climate change, gender equality are all within the ambit of the activities of the United Nations. The UN Peace-keeping force has acted in many areas of conflict all over the world.

Question 34.
Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
1. During the Swadeshi movement, public meetings were organised in various parts of Tamil Nadu, and they were attended by thousands of people. Tamil was used for the first time to mobilise people.

2. Many journals came into existence to spread Swadeshi ideals. Students and youth participated widely in the movement. Some lectures were delivered by Bipin Chandra Pal, while Subramania Bharati’s patriotic songs stirred patriotic emotions in people.

Question 35.
Explain the importances of satellite communication in India.
Answer:

1. Satellite images are used for weather forecasting, monitory of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas etc. The communication through satellites emerged as a new era in communication in our country after the establishment of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in 1969.

2. Satellite systems in India can be grouped into two on the basis of two satellites namely
“Indian National Satellite” (INSAT) and “Indian Remote Sensing Satellite” (IRS). These satellites collect data in several spectral band and transmit there to ground stations for various uses.

3. The communication and remote sensing satellites INSAT and IRS have revolutionized India’s communication system. Metrological studies and natural resource management. The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing.

4. There is no doubt that India has irrefatably arrived as a space power in the world. The INSAT series are used for relaying signals to television, telephone, radio, mobile phone.

5. It is also useful in weather detection, internet. The INSAT series GSAT series, GSAT series KALPANA -1, HAMS AT, EDUSAT are the major communication satellite used for communication purpose. GSAT – 7A is the recent launch for communication programs. INSAT – IB launched on 30th August, 1983 is the first communication satellite in INSAT series.

Question 36.
Bring out the types and distribution of soils in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Types of Soils Distribution of Soil in Tamil Nadu
Alluvial Soil :  It is found in river valley regions and coastal plains. Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tirunelveli and Kanniyakumari
Black Soil : Coimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi
Red Soil : Sivagangai and Ramanathapuram
Laterite Soil : Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur and Thanjavur districts and source patches over the mountain region in the Nilgiris
Saline Soil : Saline soils in Tamil Nadu are confined to the Coromandel coast and Vedaranyam

Question 37.
Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries?
Answer:
OPEC’s mission:

• To coordinate oil policies in its member countries
• Help stabilise oil markets
• To secure fair and stable income to petroleum producers
• An efficient, economic and regular supply of oil to consuming nations
• A fair return on capital to those investing in the petroleum industry

How does OPEC help other countries:
The OPEC Fund for International Development (OPID) is an institution that helps finance projects with low interest loans. It also provides grants to social and humanitarian projects. OPEC has an Information Centre with over 20,000 volumes including books, reports, maps and conference proceedings related to petroleum, energy and the oil market. The Information Centre is open to the public and is often used by researchers and students. ,

Question 38.
Write the differences between the growth and development.
Answer:
Differences between the Economic growth and Economic development:
Economic Growth :

1. It is the positive quantitative change in the output of an economy in a particular time period
2. Economic growth is the ‘narrower’ concept.
3. Quantitative in nature.
4. Rise in parameters like, GDP, GNP, FDI, FII etc.
5. Short term in nature.
6. It is applicable in developed nations.
7. It is measured by increase in national income.
8. It occurs in a certain period of time.

Economic Development :

1. It consider the rise in the output in an economy along with the advancement of HDI index which considers a rise in living standards, advancement in technology and overall happiness index of a nation.
2. Economic development is the ‘broader’ concept.
3. Qualitative in nature.
4. Rise in life expectancy rate, infant, improvement in literacy rate, infant mortality rate and poverty rate etc.
5. Long-term in nature.
6. It is applicable in developing co countries.
7. It is measured by increase in real national income, i.e., per capita income.
8. It is a continuous process.

Question 39.
Write the challenges of Globalization.
Answer:
The following are the challenges of globalization.

• To ensure that the benefits of globalization extent to all countries. That will certainly not happen automatically.
• To deal with the fear that globalization leads to stability, which is particularly marked in the developing world. .
• To address the very real fear in the industrial world that increased global competition will lead memorably to a race to the bottom in wages, labour rights, employment practices, and the environment.
• Globalization and all of the complicated problems related to it must not be used as excuses to avoid searching for new ways to cooperate in the over all interest of countries and people.
• People have started consuming more junk foods. This has badly affected their health.

Question 40.
Name some industrial development agencies and explain them.
Answer:
The following are some agencies that have played a key role in industrialization in the state.

SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971:
It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.

TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970:
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of TN established in the year 1970 to promote smallscale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.

TIDCO (Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965:
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

TIIC (Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd.), 1949:
TIIC is intended to provide low-cost financial support for both setting up new units and also for expansion of existing units. Though it is meant to meet the requirements of all types of firms, 90% of support goes to micro, small and medium enterprises.

TANSI (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd.), 1965:
TANSI was formed in 1965 to take over the small scale-units that were set up and run by the Department of Industries and Commerce. It is supposed to be the first industrial corporation operating in the domain for small enterprises.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1920-1940
Year  – Events
1920  – Non Co-operation Movement
1921 – Ahmedabad Congress Session
1922 – Chauri Chaura incident / Suspension of Non Co-operation movement
1923 – Birth of Swaraj Party
1924 – Formation of Hindustan Republican Army
1925 – Death of C.R. Das / Swaraj Party dissolved
1927 – Formation of Simon Commission
1928 – Arrival of Simon Commission to India / The Nehru Report
1929 – Lahore Congress
1930 – Salt Satyagraha / Civil Disobedience Movement / Dandi. March / First Round Table Conference
1931 – Gandhi Irwin Pact / Second Round Table Conference
1932 – Poona Pact / The Communal Award / Third Round Table Conference
1935 – Government of India Act
1937 – Provincial Elections
1939 Second World War started
1940 – Jinnah’s demand for separate nation – Pakistan / August offer

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Norway
(ii) Sweden
(iii) Finland
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43. (a) Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-China (*) Define the concept of decolonisation.
(if) What were the three States that formed Indo-China.
(iii) How did Communist ideas help in developing the spirit of anti-colonialism.
(iv) Which was the mainstream political party in Indo-China?
Answer:
(a) Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-China
(i) Decolonisation is a process through which colonial powers transferred institutional and legal control over their colonies to indigenous nationalist government.
(if). Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam.
(iii) Communist ideas from mainland China helped in developing the spirit of anti-colonalism in Indo-China. Many became convinced that the considerable wealth of Indo-China was benefiting only the colonial power. This aroused the feeling of nationalism which resulted in violence. In 1916 there was a major anti-colonial revolt which was crushed brutally. There were also guerrilla activities in Tongking.
(iv) The mainstream political party in Indo-China was the Vietnam Nationalist Party. It was composed of the wealthy and middle class sections of the population.

(b) Vellore Revolt
(i) When did Vellore Revolt break out?
(ii) Who introduced new military regulation?
(iii) Who was the first victim of the revolt?
(iv) Who was proclaimed by the rebels as their new rules?
Answer:
(b) Vellore Revolt
(i)10th July 1806 .
(ii) Commander in Chief Sir John Cradock.
(iii) Colonel Fancourt
(iv) Fateh Hyder

[OR]

(c) Velunachiyar
(i) Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?
(ii) What were the martial arts in which she was trained?
(iii) Whom did she marry?
(iv) What was the name of her daughter?
(c) Velunachiyar
(i) Gopala Nayaker
(ii) The martial arts in which she was trained were valari, stick fighting and to wield weapons.
(iii) She was married to Muthu Vadugar, the Raja of Sivagangai.
(iv) Her Daughter’s name was Vellachinachiar.

(d) Self Respect Movement
(i) Who started the Self Respect Movement? ’
(ii) Why did he start?
(iii) When was it started?
(iv) Name the laws passed by the government due to the constant struggle of Self Respect Movement.
Answer:
(d) Self Respect Movement
(i) E.V. Ramaswamy Periyar started the self respect movement.
(ii) He started it in order to spread and execute his ideas and policies.
(iii) It was started in 1925.
(iv) Widow Remarriage Act, Women’s Right to property Act and abolition of Devadasi Act.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Aravalli
(ii) Brahmaputra
(iii) Chotanagpur plateau
(iv) West Bengal
(v) Desert soil region
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Machillipatnam
(viii) National Highway NH-7
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu.
(i) International airport
(ii) Madurai
(iii) Paddy growing area
(iv) Atomic power station
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Pulicat lake
(vii) Papanasam
(viii) Ennore
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Norway
(ii) Sweden
(iii) Finland
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Aravalli Range
(ii) River Brahmaputra
(iii) Chotanagpur plateau
(iv) West Bengal
(v) Desert soil region
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Machillipatnam
(viii) National Highway NH-7
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) International airport
(ii) Madurai
(iii) Paddy growing area
(iv) Atomic power station
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Pulicat lake
(vii) Papanasam
(viii) Ennore
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His parents circled around raising a proud cackle.
(a) babble
(b) screech
(c) walk
(d) tackle
Answer:
(a) babble

Question 2.
A reporter, a thin-faced, wispy man, came up to me.
(a) considerable
(b) significant
(c) substantial
(d) frail
Answer:
(d) frail

Question 3.
Nagen uncle’s tea shop stood next to a grocery shop.
(a) erected
(b) erased
(c) expunged
(d) severed
Answer:
(a) erected

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It is about a hurricane force of wind on land.
(a) farce
(b) vigour
(c) weakness
(d) potency
Answer:
(c) weakness

Question 5.
Unlike the developed world, India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) developing
(b) industrialized
(c) established
(d) settled
Answer:
(a) developing

Question 6.
He was a frail man.
(a) weak
(b) feeble
(c) thin
(d) strong
Answer:
(d) strong

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘Rhino’.
(a) rhinos
(b) rhinoes
(c) rhinoses
(d) rhinosses
Answer:
(b) rhinoes

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘flame’.
(a) ity
(b) graphy
(c) able
(d) er
Answer:
(c) able

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation BCCI.
(a) Board of Chess Control in India
(b) Board of Cricket Collector in India
(c) Board of Cricket Control Institute
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India
Answer:
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The advocate …………….. the case cleverly.
(a) dealt in
(b) dealt with
(c) dealt out
(d) dealt on
Answer:
(b) dealt with

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘mail to form a compound word.
(a) send
(b) box
(c) drop
(d) it
Answer:
(b) box

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He seized ………….. the opportunity to construct a solar panel for the school.
(a) seized with
(b) seized over
(c) upon
(d) seized on
Answer:
(c) upon

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form’of the verb given below:
Aditya’s father ……………….. the ancestral home and moved to Kolkata, where he had set up
his own business.
(a) has left
(b) had left
(c) is leaving
(d) were left
Answer:
(b) had left

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
Promise me that you will phone me …………… reach home.
(a) before
(b) as soon as
(c) in case
(d) so that
Answer:
(b) as soon as

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]

Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How did the bird try to reach its parents without having to fly?
Answer:
The young bird trotted back and forth from one end of the ledge to the other with his long grey legs stepping daintily, trying to find some means of reaching his parents without having to fly.

Question 16.
What were the various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors?
Answer:
The various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors was simply because it was warm and bright outside. The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods and the Prussian soldiers were drilling in the open field, behind the sawmill. It was all much more tempting than the rule for participles.

Question 17.
What were the problems they faced during their training voyage? How was it a tutorial to them?
Answer:
As the boat was old, it had minor leaks and repairs. They also ran out of water and food soon. The trip was a tutorial for them on how to manage food, water and even electricity during the big voyage.

Question 18.
From the jeweller’s shop where did Aditya and his friend go? Why?
Answer:
From the jeweller’s shop Aditya went straight to Jogesh Kabiraj’s house where Mr. Sasanka Sanyal whom he met at Nagen uncle’s tea shop lived. Aditya wanted to meet Sasanka Sanyal.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) Is the poet afraid of future?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) No, the poet isn’t afraid of the future.

Question 20.
‘‘The worst thing is that if anyone stays Among them too long, he will learn their ways;”
(a) What is the worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them?
(b) What are the ways of the Grumble family?
Answer:
(a) The worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them is that they too will start complaining and become one with them.
(b) The ‘Grumble Family’ growl at anything and everything so much that they sometimes growl that they have nothing to grumble about.

Question 21.
“Not a crumb to be found On the snow-covered ground
(a) What couldn’t he find on the ground?
(b) Why was the ground covered with snow?
Answer:
(a) He couldn’t find even a single piece of bread on the ground.
(b) The ground was covered with snow because of the onset of winter season.

Question 22.
“ We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit
We were cast and wrought and hammered to design,
We were cut and filed and tooled and gauged to fit”
(a) What metals are obtained from ores and mines?
(b) Mention a few machines which are hammered to design.
Answer:
(a) The metals obtained from ores are iron ores and minerals from mines.
(b) Pulley – Power lift, The Cutting Wedge, The Wheel and Axle are a few machines which are hammered to design.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Cathy is not driving a car.
Answer:
A car is not being driven by Cathy.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
She asked me, “Could you help me with my luggage?”
Answer:
She asked me if I could help her with her luggage.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
i dont know what wed do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities
Answer:
I don’t know what we’d do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
He must work hard otherwise, he will be suspended.
Answer:
He must work hard to avoid suspension.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) Sports / building / physical strength / necessary / are / for
(b) They / sportsmanship / cooperation / include / and
Answer:
(a) Sports are necessary for building physical strength.
(b) They include sportsmanship and cooperation.

Section – IV

Answer of the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Guide an old lady from the bus stand to the nearby Government Hospital (GH). Here you find the road map. Write three instructions by way of helping her.
Answer:

• Go straight and take the first left cut.
• Walk a little distance, you will come across a pharmacy on to your right.
• Walk a little further, you’ll find the Government Hospital on the same side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]

Section -I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Bring out the character of the grandfather and the mother in the lesson, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’.
Answer:
The narrator’s grandfather is an oldtimer of the Union army of the Civil War, which terminated about fifty-two years ago. His bedroom is in the attic. When the police come to the house to search for the burglar, the grandfather thinks that they are militaries who are abandoning because they are losing to the South. The grandfather calls them “cowardly dog” and “lily- livered cattle” and then fetches a policeman’s holster and shoots a man with his own gun.

The police retreat, terrified of the irrational old man but at the breakfast table the next morning, Grandfather seems impeccably conscious of the previous night’s situation, asking why so many police had been “tarryhootin” around the house. On the contraryj the narrator’s mother, Mrs Thurber is a highly excitable woman, scatter brained yet practical at times. Hearing a sound in her house and suspecting a burglar, she thinks of the clever plan of alerting Mrs and Mr.

Bodwell the neighbours by throwing a shoe through his closed window. After he goes to alert the police, she considers throwing the matching shoe, a thrill and fanciful act. She is surprised to hear that Grandfather has shot a policeman, not because of the courageous ferocity of the act, but because the cop was such a nice-looking young man.
“Great powers don’t get angry
Nor do they act in haste”

Question 30.
How do we use technology in our day to day lives?
Answer:
Technology is growing day after day and we all depend on technology. Today we have various developing technologies that impact our lives in different ways. As the world keeps on developing, technology will change. Keeping oneself updated is very important in this modem world. It has totally transformed the life of an individual.

A Refrigerator is programmed to replenish food when the vegetables or milk or eggs are over. Ink cartridges too self-order replacements when it is empty. Technology helps one to manage entertainment and home appliances by voice commands or swapping the finger. When you are bored watching a programme on TV, you can just inform your smart TV your desire to view your social feed. Technology helps you to watch programmes understanding your mood swings.

When caught in traffic, technology permits your kettle to prepare tea for you to sip it hot the moment you reach home. Technology also automates all water and energy management systems. Therefore, accepting it and learning how to use technology in whatever we do is highly important and recommended.
“We are changing the world with Technology.”

Question 31.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past. He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek.

He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members. He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.
“Self-respect permeates every aspect of your life.”

Question 32.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away.

He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk. The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings-
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
In what way do we dispossess, betray and condemn ourselves by hating our brothers and taking up arms against them?
Answer:
By hating our brothers and taking up arms against them, we ‘dispossess’ ourselves as we rob ourselves of their love. When we hate them, they too react destructively and stop loving us. Mutually, we deprive each other of the noble emotion of love. We deceive ourselves as our hatred leads to wars, and wars cause widespread death and devastation.

This leads to the piling up of waste that pollutes our own mother earth. The dust and smoke from war obstruct the air that we breathe. So, hatred of fellow beings, in fact, leads to betrayal of our own selves. Further, this earns us condemnation as we disrupt the purity of the elements of nature. We threaten our own existence by ruining the systems that sustain us. Hence, hating our brothers and taking up arms against them does more damage to us.
“The universal brotherhood of man is our most precious possession.”

Question 34.
What qualities have made women powerful?
Answer:
The woman is made powerful due to her multifaceted personality. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute. They love to explore and venture into new horizons. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Her inner beauty, her supremacy and strength makes her all-powerful. She exhibits her power by showcasing her fearless nature. She is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs.

She is seen as all-powerful because of her determined nature. She may sigh, cry and moan but is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring and one dare not muddle with her. If anyone is a mischief maker, she will not spare them. The woman should be feared cautiously since she would thaw or saw you for your deeds against her.
“A Woman believes in being strong, even when things seem to go wrong.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“The weather is always too hot or cold;
Summer and winter alike they scold.
Nothing goes right with the folks you meet Down on that gloomy Complaining Street. ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines?
(li) Write the rhyme scheme of the poem.
(iii) Give another rhyming word for cold and street.
(iv) Name the poem and the poet.
Answer:
(i) The rhyming words are ‘cold and scold’ as well as ‘meet and street’.
(ii) The rhyme scheme for the above are, ‘aabb’ pattern. .
(iii) COLD – bold; STREET – treat
(iv) The Grumble family by Lucy Maud Montgomery is the name of the poem and the poet respectively.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.
Answer:
The poet again retells us in that people are contaminating this earth by their deeds. The fatal weapons emit fire and ashes that spread all over and pollute the environment. War is futile as it spoils the very earth for which we take up arms against each other. We should protect our atmosphere and keep in mind that this universe is the creation of God and we all are one. It is, therefore, imperative not to consider any human being as foreign and any country as strange.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (iv), (ii), (i)
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room. .
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Answer:
I was just thirty-seven when my Uncle Philip died. A week before that event he sent for me; and here let me say that I had never set eyes on him. He hated my mother, but I do not know why. She told me long before his last illness that I need expect nothing from my father’s brother. He was an inventor, an able and ingenious mechanical engineer, and had much money by his improvement in turbine-wheels.

He was a bachelor; lived alone, cooked his own meals, and collected precious stones, especially rubies and pearls. From the time he made his first money he had this mania. As he grew richer, the desire to possess rare and costly gems became stronger. When he bought a new stone, he carried it in his pocket for a month and now and then took it out and looked at it. Then it was added to the collection in his safe at the trust company.

Questions.
(i) How old was the narrator when his uncle died?
(ii) What did the narrator’s mother tell him about his uncle?
(iii) What was Uncle Philip’s mania?
(iv) When did Uncle Philip call for his nephew to meet him?
(v) What was the profession of Uncle Philip?
Answer:
(i) The narrator was 37 years old when his uncle died.
(ii) The narrator’s mother told that he need expect nothing from his uncle.
(iii) Uncle Philip had the mania of collecting precious stones, especially rubies and pearls.
(iv) Uncle Philip called the narrator one week before he died.
(v) Uncle Philip was a ingenious mechanical engineer.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Singapore and Australia tours – free travel for child or discount.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Kirubakaran / Suganthi. You are interested in doing a short term course in Computer Programming during your summer vacation. Write a letter to the Director, Computer World, Sector-22, Kanchipuram, enquiring about the duration of such a course and the terms and conditions for admission.
Answer:
Kirubakaran / Suganthi
119, 2nd main road
Kanchipuram
10 May 20XX
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram
Sir,
Sub: Short term Course in Computer Programming
Kindly refer to your advertisement in Daily Thanthi dated 8th May 20XX regarding the above mentioned course. I have just passed the A.I. CBSE examination of XII Class with science stream. I am interested in doing a short term course in computer programming during my summer vacation. However, before joining the course, I would like to know the following
details:
(a) Duration of the course and fees
(b) Mode of payment: lump sum/installments
(c) Whether a diploma/certificate is issued
(d) Recognition and its validity
(e) Timings of classes and other relevant information
(f) Individual time on computer

In case you have-some printed material for information kindly send it to me. A self addressed and duly stamped envelope is enclosed for the purpose. An early response will enable me to join your course immediately.

Yours faithfully
Kirubakaran / Suganthi

Address on the envelope
To
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram

Question 41.
Write a notice for the school notice-board inviting volunteers for an N.S.S. Camp. You are Sashilatha/Sashikumar the Group leader of S.D. Sr. Sec. School, Vellore.
Answer:

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Civic sense is not common. A motorist should not cross the dividing concrete wall. He jeopardizes his own life and those who are likely to drive or walk on the road. If each motorist follows rules as per his convenience, there will be total chaos on the road. Let us respect road rules. Let us cross roads only in places where it is allowed.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Economics has become one of the important branches of social sciences. It is of great practical value in our daily life. In pure sciences, we study the subject to arrive at the truth. But an economist is a social scientist. He studies the subject not only to know the truth for its own sake, but to find out a way for many economic and social problems of the society. “Knowledge for knowledge’s sake” is not the goal of an economist.

Economics must be fruit bearing. Of course, an economist has no ready made answer for immediate problems. But he can help the government in making broad economic policies. According to J.M. Keynes, “the theory of economics does not furnish a body of settled conclusions immediately applicable to policy. It is a method, rather than doctrine, an apparatus of the mind, a technique of thinking, which helps its possessor to draw correct conclusions”.

Most of the problem of the modern state are economic in nature. So economists play an important role in the affairs of the state. During World War II, the German economy was damaged heavily. There was inflation, shortage of goods and mass unemployment. But the German economy recovered quickly by following the advice of an economist Ludwig Erhard. The German recovery is considered an economic miracle. Similarly, J.M. Keynes had great influence on the economic policies of the American government when it was in great economic trouble during the 1930s. In economics, we study about things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxation. All these affect every person in one way or the other. It has been rightly said, “you cannot be in any real sense a citizen, unless you are also in some degree an economist.”

Notes
Title: Importance of Economics

• one of the important branches of social sciences – economics
• Economist find out a way for many economical and social problems
• helps the government in making broad economic policies.
• During World War II heavy damage to German economy
• recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, – considered a miracle.
• American economic trouble – economist J.M. Keynes.
• we study things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxatidn
• Economic affects every individual

Summary

Title: Importance of Economics
Rough Draft

Economics one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist not only studies, but find out a way for more many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad-ecopomic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. Similarly in 1930, American government economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. In economics, we study about thmgsTiko-pirices, rent, wages,interest, profits and taxation.

Fair Draft:
Title: Importance of Economics

Economics is one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist find out solutions for many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad economic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. In 1930, American government’s economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. A citizen must be an economist to some degree.
No. of words: 79

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) The workers formed an union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advises.
(c) Mohan is one of the best student in his class.
(d) Though his mother tongue is Tamil but he always speaks in English.
(e) If he had known of your arrival, he would come to receive you.
Answer:
(a) The workers formed a union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advice.
(c) Mohan is one of the best students in his class.
(id) Though his mother tongue is Tamil, he always speaks in English.
(.e) If he had known of your arrival, he would have come to receive you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Not hurrying …………… that pays its toll.
Answer:
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal;
Not mourning for the things that disappear
In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

(a) Men and Women created equal – man differentiates jobs – Mulan takes a stand – takes a stand – frail father – comfort and pride – responsibilities – martial art, Kung Fu inborn traits head of the family – times of crisis – rises to situations – powers of a woman – knowledge, experience – gender equality far and wide.
Answer:
The Story of Mulan portrays the legendary Chinese warrior Hua Mulan. This old Chinese folktale is about the story of the young Chinese maiden who learns that her wizened, old and frail father is to be called up into the army in order to fight the invading Huns by the Chinese Emperor. When the Huns invade China, one man from every family is called to arms. She hears of the order that every family must send one man to the army while washing clothes. Mulan’s father, who is frail and aged decides to fight for his country though it is clear that he will not survive an enemy encounter.

He decides to go to war but is prevented by her daughter with her outrageous decision. Knowing her father’s frail state, she decides to disguise herself and join in his place without second thoughts. In the army, Mulan proves to be a brave soldier who is later put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles goes so well that more soldiers are added. After a few years, Mulan becomes the General of the entire army. Suddenly, bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers including Mulan become a prey. The arrival of the doctor brings to light the hidden truth.

Many soldiers disprove such a thought, though some soldiers see the winning chances. Just then a soldier announces the surprise attack by the enemies. With no time to debate, the soldiers spring to action at the command of the General who hears this from inside her tent. She gets dressed and though not strong, she stands tall. She instructs the soldiers to attack knowing very well her strategic planning that all her soldiers acknowledge and win the battle. It was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last. The war was over, and China was saved! The Emperor forgives Mulan and was glad that Mulan had ended the long war.

He wanted Mulan to stay with him in the palace and be an advisor but as She chose to go to her family, the emperor gave her six horses and six fine swords so that her people will know that he thinks of her.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate, ‘With the crown, there cometh wisdom’ by developing the following hints. Saying – the crown of snow – elders – shapes our society – age – experiences to be intelligent – Theoretical knowledge – superficial – impact – wisdom-incomparable – learns from mistakes – elders optimistic – different challenges – survivors.
Answer:
In the saying “With the crown of snow, there cometh wisdom” – the crown of snow is pertaining to the eiders. It underlines the importance of the elders in shaping our society. The word, “there cometh wisdom” explains that as we get old our everyday experiences makes us to be intelligent. Theoretical knowledge is always superficial.

The impact is made only by experienced persons. The wisdom one gets from experience can never be compared to one who is learned theoretically. A person learns from Mistakes. Elders are generally optimistic and are ready to learn from their mistakes. They also remember it for their lifetime and never repeat them. The elders who have faced different challenges in life and had survived them braving all storm serve as our guiding path because their varied experiences teach us to become wise. They are wise enough to know what is right from wrong.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Environmentalist are worried at the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and also at the disappearance of forests. The trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere. In a way much heat is released in the atmosphere, the larger part of that being Carbon Dioxide. ‘The green house effect’ occurs. This is the initial stages of global warming.

The ill effects of accumulated Carbon Dioxide can be minimized by trees and ample vegetation as they absorb it by photosynthesis and make Carbohydrates. Therefore, a well stocked ecosystem exercises. Considerable beneficial effects on human environment by moderating the climate, regulating the water supplies, purifying the air and helping in abating noise.

The most important environmental factors are micro – climate soil characteristics, moisture availability and interaction of animals and insects. Micro – climate is governed by solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature. Soil temperature is also influenced by the forests.

Questions.
(a) What are the two reasons which make the environmentalists worried?
(b) How does “green house effect” occur?
(c) How can trees counter the ill effects of carbon dioxide?
(d) What are the factors that govern the micro – climate?
Answer:
(a) The two reasons which make the environmentalists worried are the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and the disappearance of forests as a result.
(b) ‘The green house effect’ occurs because the trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere releasing much heat in the atmosphere.
(c) The ill effects of accumulated Carbon dioxide can be minimized by trees through their absorbing it by photosynthesis and making Carbohydrates.
(d) The factors that govern the micro – climate are solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature which is also influenced by the forests.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Bigot
The bigot insults his own religion When he slays a man of another faith.
Conduct the judges, not in the light of reason;
In the temple, he raises the blood-stained banner And worships the devil in the name of God.
All that is shameful and barbarous through the Ages,
Has found a shelter in their temples—
Those they turn into prisons;
O’ I hear the trumpet call of Destruction!
The time comes with her great broom Sweeping all refuse away.
That which should make man free,
They turn into fetters;
That which should unite, they turn into a sword;
That which should bring love From the fountain of the Eternal,
They turn into a prison
And with its waves, they flood the world.
They try to cross the river In a bark riddled with holes;
And yet, in their anguish, whom do they blame Oh Lord, breaking false religion,
Save the blind!
Break, O break
The altar that is drowned in blood.
Let your thunder strike Into the prison of false religion,
And bring to this unhappy land The light of knowledge

Questions.
(a) Who is a bigot?
(b) What does the word ‘Refuse’ refer to?
(c) What do the followers of false religion do?
(d) What is meant by the phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’?
Answer:
(a) A bigot is a human being who is narrow-minded in his religious views. In general he is an extremist.
(b) The word ‘Refuse’ refers to all the infirmities such a dirt and filth found in false religions.
(c) The followers of false religion turn religion into prison, fetters and swords to destroy one another.
(d) The phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’ means God Almighty who is everlasting.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion
(b) Farazi Movement
(c) Tribal uprising
(d) Kol Revolt
Answer:
(b) Farazi Movement

Question 2.
‘Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 3.
Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent Settlement?
(a) Santhals
(b) Titu Mir
(c) Munda
(d) Kol
Answer:
(a) Santhals

Question 4.
Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 5.
When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905
(b) 18 July 1906
(c) 19 August 1907
(d) 16 October 1905
Answer:
(a) 19 June 1905

Question 6.
What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
(a) Kol Revolt
(b) Indigo Revolt
(c) Munda Rebellion
(d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
(c) Munda Rebellion

Question 7.
Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
(a) Annie Basant
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(d) Tilak

Question 8.
Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play Nil darpanl
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra
(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Birsa Munda
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra

II. Fill in the blanks

1. In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by ……………….. the moneylenders of Bengal.
2. ……………….. was an anti-imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in and around 1827.
3. The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was ………………..
4. The ……………….. Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
5. Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ………………..
6. The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion was ………………..
7. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ………………..
8. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year ………………..

Answers:

1. Jagat Seth
2. The Wahhabi rebellion
3. Kol revolt
4. Chota Nagpur Tenancy
5. Birsingh
6. Major General Hugh Wheeler
7. 1908
8. 1885

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against government officers and moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, ledtheSanthal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that “Land belongs to God”.
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian rulers were to be annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to judge and take the lives of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indjan princes and zamindars remained loyal to the British.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and are correct

Question 3.
(i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that religious exploitation in India was the primary reason for the growing poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of the Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
(a) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified?
Answer:
There were nearly a hundred peasant uprisings during British rule. They can be classified into the following categories –

• Restorative rebellions
• Religious movements
• Social Banditry
• Mass insurrection

Question 2.
Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Answer:

1. The seige of Kanpur was an important episode in the 1857 Rebellion.
2. The rebel forces under Nana Sahib besieged the Company forces and civilians in Kanpur.
3. They were unprepared for the extended besiege.
4. It forced them to surrender to the rebel forces under Nana Sahib, in return for a safe passage to Allahabad.
5. The boats in which they were proceeding were burned and most of them were killed including Major General Hugh Wheeler the British Commander of Kanpur.

Question 3.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur.

Question 4.
What do you mean by drain of wealth?
Answer:
India was economically subjugated and transformed into a supplier of raw materials. It became a market to dump English manufactures and for the investment of British Capital. So the colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favourable returns back to India. This is referred as “the drain of wealth”.

Question 5.
Explain the concept of constructive swadeshi?
Answer:
Under Constructive Swadeshi, the self-defeating modest approach of moderates was rejected and self-help was focused on through swadeshi industries, national schools, arbitration courts and constructive programmes in the village. It was totally non-political in nature.

Question 6.
Highlight the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
Answer:
Objectives of the Home Rule Movement:

1. To attain self Government within the British empire by constitutional means.
2. To obtain the status of dominion a political position.
3. To use non-violence constitutional methods to achieve their goals.

Question 7.
Summarise the essence of Lucknow Pact.
Answer:
In the Lucknow Pact that took place in 1916, the Congress Party and the Muslim League agreed that there should be self-government in India as soon as possible. In return of this gesture from the Muslim League, the congress leadership accepted the concept of separate electorate for Muslims. This created a new sense of enthusiasm among the people.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Deccan riots

(a) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
Answer:
In May 1875 in Supa, a village near Poona the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appeared.

(b) What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
Answer:
Under the new law of the British the moneylenders were given the right to attach the mortgaged land of the defaulters auction it off.

(c) What did it result in?
Answer:
It resulted in the transfer of land from the cultivators to the non-cultivating classes.

(d) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
Answer:
In the Deccan riots violence was directed against the Gujarat money lenders.

Question 2.
The Revolt of 1857
(a) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
Answer:
Mangal Pandey assaulted his officer.

(b) Who was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi?
Answer:
The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi.

(c) Who was the correspondent of London Times to report on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
Answer:
The correspondent’s name was William Howard Russell.

(d) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
Answer:
The Queen proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters.

Question 3.
Indian National Congress

(a) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed ?
Answer:
The congress to get its grievances redressed adopted the techniques by way of appeals petitions and delegations.

(b) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadara Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal called as Lai – Bal – Pal.
Lai – Bal – Pal triumvirate were the prominent Congress leaders of militiant nationalists.

(c) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
Answer:
The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.

(d) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi Movement. Revolutionaries were hanged. Press was crushed and prominent leaders were arrested and imprisoned for long terms.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The Great Rebellion of 1857 is a unique example of resistance to the British authorities, in India. There were several reasons that triggered the Revolt:
(i) The annexation policy of British India created dissatisfaction among the native rulers. The British claimed themselves as paramount, exercising supreme authority. New territories were annexed on the grounds that the native rulers were corrupt, and inept.

(ii) The British annexed several territories such as Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur through the Doctrine of Lapse. This also angered many Indian rulers.

(iii) Indian sepoys were upset with discrimination in salary’ and promotion. They were paid much less than their European counterparts. They felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.

Consequences:
(i) India was pronounced as one of the many crown colonies to be directly governed by the Parliament. This resulted in the transfer of power from the East India company to the British crown.

(ii) Queen Victoria proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters. It was promised that Indians would be absorbed in government services.

(iii) There came significant changes in the Indian army. The number of Indians was reduced.
Indians were restrained from holding important ranks and position.

(iv) It was also decided that instead of recruiting soldiers from Rajputs, Brahmins and North Indian Muslims, more soldiers would be recruited from the Gorkhas, Sikhs and Pathans.

Question 2.
How did the people of Bengal respond to the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
Answer:

1. In 1899 Lord Curzon was appointed as the Viceroy of India.
2. Curzon resorted to repressive measures to undermine the idea of local Government, autonomy of higher educational Institutions and gag the press.
3. The idea of partition was planned to suppress the political activities against the British rule in Bengal by creating a Hindu-Muslim divide.
4. It was openly stated that the main notion of partition was to curtail Bengali mfluence and to weaken the nationalist movement.
5. Bengal was Partitioned into two units Bengali Hindus (West Bengal) and Muslims (East Bengal).
6. Partition of Bengal in 1905 led to widespread protests all across India, starting a new phase of the Indian National movement.
7. The partition instead of dividing, united the people of Bengal.
8. People marched on the streets of Calcutta in thousands singing Bande mataram.
9. The partition led to the Boycott of the British goods and Swadeshi movement.

Question 3.
Attempt a narrative account of how Tilak and Annie Besant by launching Home Rule Movement sustained the Indian freedom struggle after 1916?
Answer:
(i) The Indian National Movement was revived and also radicalised during the Home Rule , League Movement that lasted from 1915 to 1918. It was led by Lokamanya Tilak and Annie Besant.

(ii) The objective of the Home Rule Movement was to attain self-government within the British Empire.

(iii) Tilak set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916. In September 1916, after repeated demands of her followers, Annie Besant decided to start the Home Rule League without the support of the Congress. Both the Leagues worked independently.

(iv) The Home Rule Leagues were utilised to carry extensive propaganda through press, speeches, public meetings, lectures, discussions and touring in favour of self government.

(v) Both the leagues succeeded in enrolling young people in large numbers and extending the movement to the rural areas.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Identify the Acts passed in British India from 1858 to 1919, with a brief note on each.
Answer:
Government of India Act (1858):

1. It was passed to end the rule of the East India Company and transfer the power to the British Crown.
2. The British Governor General Post was designated as viceroy of India, who became the representative of the British Monarch.

Indian Council Act – 1892:

1. The British Parliament introduced various amendments to the composition and functions of legislative council, increased the number of additional members to be represented both in central and provinces.
2. The members were given the right to ask questions on budget.
3. This Act laid the foundation of parliamentary system in India.
4. It is a landmark in the constitutional development.

Indian Council Act of 1909:

1. Popularly known as Minto – Morley Reforms.
2. This Act directly introduced the elective principle to membership in the imperial and local legislative councils.
3. It increased the involvement of Indians limitedly in the British Governance.

Montagu – Chelmsford Reform (1919):

1. The British Parliament passed this Act to expand participation of Indians in the division of executive branch of each provincial Government in to authoritarian and popularly responsible section for the provinces of British India.
2. Embodied reforms recommended in the report of the secretary of state of India.
3. This Act promised gradual progress of India towards self – Government.

Dy Archy (1919):

1. This Act introduced dual Government for the provinces of British India. One is accountable and the other one non accountable.
2. It marked the 1st introduction of democratic principle into the executive branch of British administration.
3. It was the association of Indians with the legislation work.
4. Introduced Port – folio system.

Question 2.
Mark the important centres of 1857 Revolt on an outline map.
Answer:

Question 3.
Prepare an album with pictures of frontline leaders of all the anti-colonial struggles launched against the British.
Answer:
Pictures of Moderates

Tribal Rebellion and other movement

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Nawab of Bengal ……………….. was defeated by the East India company at the Battle of Plassey.
(a) Shuja-ud-daullah
(b) Siraj-ud-daullah
(c) Mirjafar
(d) Mir Kasim
Answer:
(b) Siraj-ud-daullah

Question 2.
Indian Historians describes the revolt of 1857 as ……………….
(a) Sepoy mutiny
(b) First war of Indian Independence
(c) Military revolt
Answer:
(b) First war of Indian Independence

Question 3.
The collective farming of the tribals of Ranchi was known as:
(a) Jhum
(b) Bethbegari
(c) Khunkatti
(d) Ryotwari
Answer:
(c) Khunkatti

Question 4.
The peasants had to pay heavy …………….
(a) land taxes
(b) tariffs
(c) service taxes
Answer:
(a) land taxes

Question 5.
The ……………….. had leased out to moneylenders the job of revenue collection.
(a) Raja of Chota Nagpur
(b) European officers
(c) Nawab of Bengal
(d) Birsaite Raj
Answer:
(a) Raja of Chota Nagpur

Question 6.
The sepoys broke into open revolt at …………..
(a) Meerut
(b) Kanpur
(c) Barrackpore
Answer:
(a) Meerut

Question 7.
On ……………….. a band of sepoys from Meerut marched to the Red Fort in Delhi.
(a) 1^st May 1858
(b) 11^th May 1852
(c) 11^th May 1857
(d) 19^th September 1916
Answer:
(c) 11^th May 1857

Question 8.
After the  1857 revolt the Governor-General of India was designated as …………….
(a) Viceroy of India
(b) Ruler of India
(c) Minister of India
Answer:
(a) Viceroy of India

Question 9.
……………….. led the Revolt at Bareilly.
(a) Bahadur Shah – II
(b) Khan Bahadur
(c) Nana Sahib
(d) Kunwar Singh
Answer:
(b) Khan Bahadur

Question 10.
Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at …………….
(a) Kanpur
(b) Central India
(c) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Central India

Question 11.
The play “Nil Darpan” by ……………….. did much to draw attention in India and Europe to the plight of the indigo growers.
(a) Dina Bandhu mitra
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Lockmanya Tilak
(d) Ranajit Guha
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu mitra

Question 12.
In 1858, the Royal Durbar was held at …………..
(a) Meerut
(b) Allahabad
(c) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Allahabad

Question 13.
The Madras Native Association was formed in the year:
(a) 1806
(b) 1852
(c) 1884
(d) 1852
Answer:
(b) 1852

Question 14.
Which one was not a trading company?
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The French
(c) The Japanese
Answer:
(c) The Japanese

Question 15.
……………….. lent his services to facilitate the formation of Indian National Congress.
(a) A.O.Hume
(b) W.C.Baneijee
(c) Mrs. Annie Besant
(d) V.O.Chidambarampillai
Answer:
(a) A.O.Hume

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The ………………….. helped to unite the Congress party after the Surat split.
2. The ………………….. movement enhanced to participation of masses in Nationalist Politics.
3. The British mainly responded to political activities of nationalists by repression and …………………..
4. The Indian National Movement was revived and ………………….. during the Home Rule movement.
5. ………………….. launched the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in Tuticorin.
6. One of the common goals of the extremist leaders was to achieve …………………..
7. For ………………….. Swaraj was the attainment of complete autonomy and total freedom from foreign rule.
8. ………………….. decided to started the Home Rule League without the support of the Congress.
9. The Home Rule Movement in India borrowed much of its principles from the …………………..
10. In the ………………….. session of Indian National Congress (1916) decided to admit the militant faction in to the party.
11. Pherozeshah Metha and Gokhale two main voices of opposition against militant faction had died in …………………..
12. Bengal was officially partitioned on ………………….. by Lord Curzon.
13. The official declaration of partition of Bengal was observed as a day of …………………..
14. In a divided Bengal Curzen made the Bengali speaking people to a …………………..
15. In the year 1899 ………………….. was appointed as the viceroy of India.
16. Early Indian Nationalists advocated …………………..
17. The formation of the ………………….. in 1885 was intended to establish an All India Organisation.
18. The early leaders felt that ………………….. was the main obstacle to the India’s Economic Development.
19. One of the key demand of the Indian National Congress was creation of ………………….. at provincial and central level.
20. ………………….. played a significant role in propagating the ideas of Nationalism.
21. Under British rule peasants were forced to pay revenue directly to the …………………..
22. Vicious cycle of debt forced the peasants to abandon ………………….. in 1875.
23. The British planters forced the cultivators to grow ………………….. rather than food crops.
24. ………………….. was appointed by the British Parliament to look into the Indian affairs after 1857 revolt.
25. In November 1858 the power to govern India was transferred from ………………….. to the British Crown.
26. The ………………….. was an important episode in the rebellion of 1857.
27. The Kingdom of Jhansi was annexed under …………………..
28. De throning of many Indian rulers affected the livelihood of ………………….. due to lose of patronage.
29. ………………….. of the people against the British took the form of a people’s revolt.
30. Thousands of weavers were thrown out of employment due to the dumping of …………………..
31. By the beginning of June 1857 except ………………….. and ………………….. British Rule in North India had disappeared because of the mutineers.
32. The precursor to the revolt was the introduction of new ………………….. of the Enfiled Rifles.
33. The ………………….. claimed themselves as paramount power.
34. The ………………….. was the first major revolt of armed forces accompanied by civilian rebellion.
35. In the 1890’s ………………….. offered resistance against the alienation of tribal people from their land.
36. The ………………….. prompted the British to formulate a policy on Tribal land.
37. The Munda people were forcefully recruited as ………………….. to work on plantations.
38. The Munda rebellion movement received an impetus when ………………….. declared himself as the messenger of God.
39. The disillusionment with ………………….. aggravated the miseries of Munda people.
40. One of the prominent tribal rebellion in Ranchi was known as …………………..
41. After the battle of ………………….. the British adopted a policy of territorial expansion.
42. The British ………………….. was rapidly mechanized with the money received by the company from Mir Jafar.
43. India was led to the path of because of Britsh manufactured goods.
44. ………………….. was forced to create a market for the products from Britain.
45. The plunder of India by the ………………….. continued for nearly 190 years.
46. There were nearly a hundred ………………….. during the British rule.
47. The leaders of ………………….. movements were looked upon by their people as heroes of their cause.
48. The ………………….. are usually leaderless and spontaneous uprising.
49. The subletting of land by the zamindars increased the ………………….. on the peasants.
50. Wahhabi Rebellion originated in 1827 in and around ………………….. of Bengal.

Answer:

1. Home Ruler Movement
2. Swadeshi
3. Reconciliation
4. Radicaliszed
5. V.O.Chidambaranar
6. Swaraj or Self Rule
7. Tilak
8. Mrs. Annie Besant
9. Irish Home Rule Movement
10. Lucknow session
11. 1915
12. 16^th October 1905
13. Mourning
14. Linguistic minority
15. Lord Curzon
16. Industrialisation
17. Indian National Congress
18. Colonialism
19. Legislative councils
20. Print media
21. Government
22. agriculture
23. Indigo plant
24. Secretary of State
25. English East India Company
26. Seige of Kanpur
27. Doctrine of Lapse
28. Artisans and handicrafts persons
29. Collective anger
30. British manufacture
31. Punjab and Bengal
32. greased cartridges
33. British
34. Great Rebellion of 1857
35. Tribal chiefs
36. Munda rebellion
37. Indentured labourers
38. Birsa Munda
39. Christian missionaries
40. Ulugalan rebellion
41. Plassey
42. Textile industry
43. De. industrialisation
44. India
45. East India company
46. Peasant uprisings
47. Social banditry
48. Mass insurrection
49. Tax burden
50. Barasat

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The urban elite of India was busy responding to the western ideas through socio – religious reform movements.
(ii) The traditional elite and peasantry wanted to restore pre – colonial order by revolts.
(iii) The practice of letting out and subletting of land complicated the industrial relations.
(iv) Changes introduced in the land tenures significantly altered the agrarian relations.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The commercialisation of forest led to the disintegration of the traditional tribal system.
(ii) The usury and forcible eviction of tribals from their land led to the resentment of kols.
(iii) The pushed out santhals were forced to rely on the moneylenders for their subsistence.
(iv) Santhals felt secured under the British.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii)-and(iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii)-and(iii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) The British annexed more territories through two major policies.
(ii) Indian sepoys accepted the new dress code and overseas service.
(iii) Before loading into Enfiled Rifle the cartridges had to be bitten off.
(iv) The Indian Sepoys felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The mutiny was equally supported by an aggrieved rural society of North India.
Reason (R): Sepoys working in British army were infact peasants in uniform.
(a) Both A and R are wrong.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is the not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): India extended its support to the British in world war I. Reason (R): Hoping for the attainment of self – Government after the war.
(a) A is correct R is wrong.
(b) Both A and R are wrong.
(c) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (vi)
F. (vii)

V. Answer the following question briefly

Question 1.
What caused huge loss of revenue in Bengal?
Answer:
Aurangzeb’s farman had granted the company only the right to trade duty free. But the officials of the company, who were carrying on private trade on side also stopped paying duty. This caused a huge loss of revenue for Bengal.

Question 2.
Mention some of the issues of peasants that added to the sense of resentment against the British.
Answer:

1. The concept of private property rights in land.
2. Rigorous collection of land revenue.
3. Encroachment of tribal land by non-tribal people.
4. Interference of Christian Missionaries in the socio – religious life of the local people.

Were some of the issues of resentment against the British.

Question 3.
Why did the Battle of Plassey become famous?
Answer:
It was the first major victory the company won in India.

Question 4.
What were the reasons for Tribal upraising?
Answer:

1. Under colonial rule the Government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
2. The commercialisation of forests led to the disintegration of the traditional tribal system.
3. It encouraged the incursion of tribal areas by non-tribal people such as contractors, moneylenders traders, land grabbers.
4. This led to the wide spread loss of adivasi land and their displacement from their traditional habitats. So Tribal resistance arose.

Question 5.
What were the grievances of the company regarding the Nawabs of Bengal?
Answer:
The company declared that the unjust demands of the local officials were ruining the trade of the company. Trade could flourish only if the duties were removed. It was also convinced to expand trade, it had to enlarge its settlements, buy up villages and rebuild its forts.

Question 6.
Name the early leaders who criticized about colonial economy.
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji, Justice Ranade and Romesh Chandra Dutt strongly criticised about the colonial economy.

They clearly stated that the prosperity of the British lay in the economic and political subjugation of India.

They concluded that the colonialism was the main obstacle to the India’s economic development.

Question 7.
Which battle did Robert Clive fight in 1757 and against whom?
Answer:
In 1757, he fought the Battle of Plassey against Siraj-ud-daulah.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Political causes for the Revolt of 1857.

(a) Who introduced subsidiary Alliance?
Answer:
Lord Wellesley introduced subsidiary Alliance.

(b) Name the policy introduced by Lord Balhousie.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie introduced the policy of “Doctrine of Lapse”.

(c) What was the order issued by the British against the Mughal emperor?
Answer:
The British Government had ordered that the Mughal emperor had to give up their ancestral palace and Red fort.

(d) Why did Nana Saheb develop a grudge against the British.
Answer:
The British stopped the pension to Nana Saheb. So he developed a grudge against the British.

Question 2.
Great Rebellion of 1857

(a) What was the biggest challenge witnessed by the British in 1857?
Answer:
The Great Rebellion by the Sepoys and the civilians.

(b) What was witnessed by both sides during the revolt?
Answer:
Unprecedented violence

(c) What were the causes of the revolt?
Answer:

1. Annexation policy of the British in India.
2. Insensitivity of the British to Indian cultural sentiments.

(d) What was the people’s opinion on the new regulations of the British.
Answer:
There was always a suspicion among the people regarding British new regulations intention.

Question 3.
Wahhabi Rebellion in Barasat

(a) Who led the Wahhabi Rebellion? Write a few lines about him.
Answer:
Titu Mir, an Islamic preacher led this rebellion. He was deeply influenced by the Wahhabi teachings. He became an important figure among the predominantly Muslim peasantry oppressed under the zamindari system.

(b) How did this movement acquire an anti-Hindu complexion?
Answer:
The majority of zamindars were Hindus. Thus, the movement acquired an anti-Hindu complexion.

(c) what happened on 6 November 1831?
Answer:
On 6 November 1831, the first major attack was made in the town of Pumea. Titu Mir immediately declared freedom from British Rule.

(d) How did the British respond to this rebellion?
Answer:
The British sent a large number of Troops to Narkelberia. Titu Mir along with his soldiers were killed in the staiggle.

Question 4.
Peasant and Tribal Resistance

(a) What was the nature of the resistance against the British rule emerged in rural India?
Answer:
More aggressive response emerged in rural India.

(b) Who revolted against the British in rural areas?
Answer:
Traditional elite and peasants along with tribals revolted.

(c) What did they seek for?
Answer:
They sought for the restoration of the Pre-colonial order and not the removal of the British.

(d) What was the outlook of the tribals on British?
Answer:
The tribal people started looking at the British as invaders and encroachers.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Enumerate the cause for the failure of the Great Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Administrative changes:

1. Disunity among the Indians was the first and the foremost cause.
2. A large number of rulers of the Indian states and the big zamindars did not join the movement,
3. The rulers of the Indian states, who did not support the movement, remained neutral.
4. The educated Indians did not support the movement.
5. The telegraph and postal communication proved very helpful to the British for proper military actions and sending their reinforcements at the earliest time.
6. The rebellious soldiers were short of modem weapons and other materials of war.
7. The rebellious soldiers had to fight with traditional weapons which were no match to modem weapons possessed by the British forces.
8. The revolt was not extended beyond North.
9. The Indian leaders like Nana Saheb, Tantia Tope, Rani Lakshmi Bai where no match to the British generals.
10. The revolt broke out prematurely and the preparations for the revolt remained incomplete.
11. The organization and the planning of the rebels was very poor.
12. The Indian leaders were brave and selfless but they lacked unity of command and discipline.
13. The revolutionaries had no common idea.
14. The Muslims wanted to revive Mughal rule and the Hindus wanted to receive the Peshwa Raj.
15. The British diplomacy of Divide and Rule prevented most of the Indian mlers to join together for a common cause.

Question 2.
What was the objective of the partition of Bengal (1905) and what was its result?
Answer:

1. The main objective of partition of Bengal was to divide the Hindu – Muslim unity and to influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
2. Bengal was partitioned into two administrative units.
3. Reduced the Bengali – speaking people to a linguistic minority in a divided Bengal.
4. Curzon assured Muslims that in the new province of East Bengal Muslim would enjoy a unity.

Result:

1. Curzon thought the partition would divide the Bengali people on religious line.
2. Instead the partition united the people of Bengal.
3. The growth of the vernacular newspapers played a vital role in building a sense of proud Bengali identity.
4. The day Bengal was officially partitioned (16th Oct 1905) was declared as a day of mourning.
5. Thousands of people took bath in Ganga and marched on the streets of Calcutta singing Bande Mataram.

Question 3.
Throw light on the Farazi Movement.
OR
Highlight the different phases of the Farazi Movement under Haji Shariatullah and his son Dudu Mia.
Answer:
Farazi Movement under Haji Shariatullah:
The Farazi Movement was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818, in the parts of eastern Bengal. The movement advocated the participants to keep themselves away from conflict with the zamindars and subsequently with the British, who favoured the zamindars to suppress the peasant uprising.

Farazi Movement under Dudu Mian:
After the death of Shariatullah in 1839, the movement was led by his son Dudu Mian. He called upon the peasant not to pay tax. The movement became popular on a simple doctrine that land and all wealth should be equally enjoyed by the common mass. Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of religion and declared that “Land belongs to God’’ and collecting rent or levying taxes on it was therefore against the divine law. The movement spread far and wide and was joined by a huge number of peasants. There were violent crashes throughout 1840s and 1850s with the zamidars and planters. The movement continued to resist even after the death of Dudu Mian in 1862.

Question 4.
What were the main objectives and key demands of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
The main objectives of Indian National Congress were to develop and consolidate the sentiments of national unity and loyalty to Britain.

Some of the key demands were:

1. Creation of legislative councils at provincial and central level.
2. Reducing military expenditure.
3. Holding civil services exams in India as well as in England.
4. Promotion of Indian industries and an end to unfair tariffs and an end to unfair tariffs and excise duties.
5. Extension of trial by jury.
6. Increasing the number of elected members in the legislative council.
7. Police reforms
8. Reduction of Home charges.
9. Reconsideration of forest laws.
10. Separating Judicial and executive functions.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 2.
Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt
(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
Answer:
(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 3.
Who was the first director of Whanpoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-shek

Question 4.
Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 5.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Lucknow
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(c) Lucknow

Question 6.
The Southern most point of India is …………………..
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira point
(d) Kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira point

Question 7.
We wear cotton during …………………..
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Question 8.
Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Soil Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
Answer:
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Question 9.
The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is …………………..
(a) 76°18’E to 80°20’E
(b) 76°18’Eto 80°20’W
(c) 86° 18’E to 10°20’E
(d) 86° 18’E to 10°20’W
Answer:
(a) 76°18’E to 80°20’E

Question 10.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is …………………..
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 11.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to …………………..
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme Court of India

Question 12.
Non-military issues are …………………..
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in …………………..
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 14.
India is ………………….. large producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1st
(b) 3rd
(c) 4th
(d) 2nd
Answer:
(d) 2nd

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:

• Mahadev Govind Ranade was a great social reformer. He advocated for inter-caste dining, inter-caste marriage, widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes.
• He founded the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and Decean Education society.

Question 16.
Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?
The three prominent dictators of the post-World War I were Mussolini (Italy), Hitler (Germany) and Franco (Spain).

Question 17.
Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Answer:
Among the 72 Palayakkarars, there were two blocks namely the eastern and the western Palayams. ‘

• The eastern Palayams were – Sattur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram and Panchalam Kurichi.
• The western Palayams were – Uttrumalai, Thalavankottai, Naduvakurichi, Singampatti and Seithur.

Question 18.
What was the conflict between the Swarajists and no-changers?
Answer:
1. In due course of time the Congress got divided into two groups—pro-changers (swarajists) and no-changers. Some of the Congressmen led by Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature.

2. They argued that the national interest could be promoted by working in the Legislative Councils under Dyarchy and weakening the colonial government from within. These Congressmen were called the pro-changers.

3. On the other hand, no-changers like Vallabhbhai Patel, C Rajagopalachari and other followers of Gandhi wanted to continue non-cooperation with the government.

Question 19.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon Wind’.
Answer:

• The word ‘monsoon’ has been derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ which means
  ‘season’.
• These winds appear to blow from southwest for six months and from northeast for another
  six months.
• In India it is used to refer to the winds which reverse their directions in summer and winter.

Question 20.
What is Multipurpose project?
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multipurpose project”.

Question 21.
Define: Disaster Risk Reduction.
Answer:
The concept and practice of disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyse and manage the causal factors of disasters including thorough reduced exposure to hazards, lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and environment and improved preparedness for adverse events.

Question 22.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

• The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State Executive. The administration of a State is carried on in the name of the Governor.
• He directly rules a State when there is the imposition of the President’s rule in the State. He is an integral part of the State legislative.

Question 23.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:

• A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan and Iran, which has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port.
• This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 24.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
1. TRIPs – Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights – is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). It sets down minimum standards for the regulation by national Governments of many forms of intellectual property as applied to nationals of other WTO member nations. TRIPs was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) between 1989 and 1990 and is administered by the WTO.

2. TRIMS – Trade Related Investment Measures – The Uruguay Round Agreement on TRIMs referes to certain conditions or restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries to develop.

Question 25.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:

• As an economy grows and incomes increase, consumers tend to spend a lesser share of their income on products from the agricultural sector.
• There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land.
• Due to this, there is a need for an economy’s production and employment base to diversify away from agriculture.

Question 26.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the fishermen?
Answer:
1. During disturbed weather over the seas, the ports likely to be affected are warned by concerned ACWCs / CWCs by advising the port authorities through port warnings to hoist appropriate Storm Warning Signals. The Department also issue “Fleet forecast” for Indian Navy.

2. Coastal Bulletins for Indian coastal areas covering up to 75 km from the coast line and sea area bulletins for the sea areas beyond 75 km. The special warnings are issued for fishermen four times a day in normal weather and every three hourly in accordance with the four stage warning in case of disturbed weather.

3. The general public, the coastal residents and fishermen are warned through state government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Television telecast programmes in national and regional hook up.

4.  A sytem of warning dissemination for fishermen through World Space Digital Based radio receiver is being planned.

Question 27.
Mention any three industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971 : It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.
TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970 :
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of Tamil Nadu established in the year 1970 to promote small-scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.
TIDCO: (TamilNadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965 :
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

Question 28.
Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Purachi Thalaivar M.G.R. Nutrition Meal Programme
• National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education
• General ICDS Projects and World Bank Assisted Integrated Child Development Services
• Pradhan Manthri Gramodaya Yojana Scheme (PMGYS)
• Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme
• Mid-Day Meal Programme

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
Answer:
(i) ………………was known as the “Father of modem China”.
(ii) ………………soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
(iii) Our tradition and national ethos is to practice………………
(iv) ………………play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to common
people.
(v) ………………is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
Answers
(i) Dr. Sun-yat-sen
(ii) Laterite
(iii) Disarmament
(iv) Consumer co-operatives
(v) Chennai International Airport

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Agro based industry and Mineral based industry
(ii) Roadways and Railways
Answer:
(a) (i) Agro based industry and Mineral based industry:
Agro based industry :

1. Agro based industries use agricultural products as their basic raw materials
2. The major agro based industries of our country are cotton textile industry, Jute industry, sugar industry etc.
3. These industries are located near the areas of cultivation.

Mineral based industry :

1. Minerals based industries use both metallic minerals and Non-metallic minerals as their raw materials.
2. The major minerals based industry, of our country is the iron and steel industry.
3. These industries are located either near the coalfields or iron ore mines.

(ii) Roadways and Railways:
Roadways:

1. Roadways are cost efficient and the most popular dominant mode of transport.
2. They link different part of our country.
3. They are used by all sections of the people.
4. Construction of roads is less expensive.
5. The roads are classified into village roads, District Roads, State Highways, National Highways, Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways, Express Ways, Broad roads and International Highways.

Railways:

1. Indian Railways provide the principal mode of transport for freight and passengers.
2. It brings people from the farthest comers of our country.
3. They promote trade, tourism, education and national integrations.
4. Construction of railway is highly expensive.
5. Railway lines are classified into three categories namely, Broad gauge, Meter gauge and Narrow gauge.

(b) Give reason: Karur is called the Textile capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is a well known industrial centre. The city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles.
It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 33.
Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa.
Answer:

• There were two major political parties in South Africa – the unionist party which was mainly British, and the South Africa Party which had largely Afrikaners (Boers).
• The first Prime Minister, Botha belonged to the South Africa Party. He ruled in cooperation with the British. But a militant section of the South Africa Party formed the National Party under Herzog.
• Herzog wanted a twin policy of supremacy of whites over Blacks and Afrikaners over British.
• In the 1920 elections, the National Party gained forty-four seats. The South Africa Party, now led by
• Smuts, secured forty-one seats.
• The British dominated Unionist Party now merged with the South Africa Party. This gave Smuts a majority over the militant Afrikaner-controlled National Party.

Question 34.
Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian movement.
Answer:
1. Programmes such as no-base campaigns caught the imagination of the peasants. Gandhi announced a no-tax campaign in Bardoli in February 1922. These movements greatly enhanced Gandhi’s reputation as a national leader, especially the peasants.

2. Gandhi made a nation-wide tour. Wherever he visited there was a bonfire of foreign clothes. Thousands left government jobs, students gave up their studies in large numbers and the lawyers gave up thriving practices.

3. Boycott of British goods and institutions were effective. The boycott of the Prince of Wales’ visit to India was successful. During this boycott trade unions and workers participated actively.

4. However, Gandhi suddenly withdrew the movement because of the Chauri Chaura incident. On 5 February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in present-day Uttar Pradesh provoked by the police turned violent.

5. The mob burnt the police station 22 policemen lost their lives. Gandhi immediately withdrew the movement. Gandhi was arrested and was released only in 1924.

Question 35.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.

Impacts of urbanization:

• Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to
  each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development. ‘
• Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
• Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.

The following are the major problem of urbanization in India:

• It creates urban sprawl.
• It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
• It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
• It leads to the formation of slums.
• It increases traffic congestion in cities. ‘
• It creates water scarcity in cities. ,
• It creates drainage problems.
• It poses the problem of solid waste management.
• It increases the rate of crime.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Summer Seasons:

• The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May results in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator.
• Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer, experiences high temperature. Generally the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C.
• During this season particularly in the month of May, southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:

• During January and F ebruary, the vertical ray s of the sun fal 1 between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun. So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months.
• The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally.
• Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 37.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the constitution. He performs the following functions.

1. Original Jurisdiction :- The cases which are brought directly in the first instance to the Supreme Court come under original jurisdiction. These may be – (a) dispute between the government of India and one or more States, (b) dispute between two or more States and (c) the cases involving fundamental rights come under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction :- The Supreme Court is the final appellate Court in the country. It hears appeals against the decisions of High Court in “civil, criminal and constitutional” cases with a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Advisory Jurisdiction :- The Constitution confers on the President the power to refer to the Supreme Court any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of public importance.

4. The Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

5. The Supreme Court also enjoys the power of judicial review.

Question 38.
Trace the reason for the formation of BR1CS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS:

• To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
• To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.

Objectives of BRICS :

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states.
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 39.
Write about the composition of GDP in India.
Answer:
Indian economy is broadly divided into three sectors which contribute to the GDP –

• Primary Sector – It includes agriculture based allied activities, production of raw materials such as cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry etc. It is also called agricultural sector.
• Secondary Sectqr – It includes industries that produce a finished, usable product or are involved in construction. This sector generally takes the output of the primary sector and manufactures finished goods. It is also called industrial sector.
• Tertiary Sector – It is known as service sector and includes transport, insurance, banking, trade, education, health care etc.

Question 40.
Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. The increase in food grain production need not result in increase in access to food for all. Given the unequal distribution of income and the level of poverty that persists in Indian economy, the government took steps to distribute food grains at subsidised rates through the Public Distribution System (PDS).

2. The nature, scope and functioning of PDS varies from state to state. While Tamil Nadu has adopted an ‘Universal’ PDS, the rest of the states in India had a ‘Targeted’ PDS. Under universal PDS all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.

3. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving out the rest. Both the Union and the State governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS. The level and quantum of subsidy also varied across states.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1870-1907
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i)Germany
(ii) Hungary
(iii) Romania
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Italy
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) General Assembly and Security Council
(i) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
(ii) What is the Holocaust?
(iii) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
(iv) What is meant by veto?
Answer:
(a) General Assembly and Security Council:
(i) The United States, Britain, France, Russia and China.
(ii) The word ‘holocaust’ is used to describe the genocide of nearly six million Jews by the Germans during the Second World War.
(iii) The widow of US President Franklin Roosevelt was the chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights.
(iv) A veto is the power to unilaterally stop an official action, especially the enactment of legislation.

(b) Organs of the EU
(i) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
(ii) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
(iii) What is the function of the European commission?
(iv) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
(b) Organs of the EU
(i) The European Parliament
(ii) Luxemburg
(iii) It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.
(iv) The European central bank.

[OR]

(c) Dheeran Chinnamalai
(i) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
(ii) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
(iii) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.
(iv) Why and where was he hanged to death?
(c) Dheeran Chinnamalai
(i) Dheeran Chinnamalai was bom in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of Palayakottai.

(ii) Once when Tipu’s diwan Mohammed Ali was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked his way and took back all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by instructing him to tell his Sultan that ‘Chinnamalai; who is between Sivamalai and Chinnamalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus, he gained the name ‘Dheeran Chennamalai’.

(iii) Mohammed Ali

(iv) He was hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort on 31 July 1805 because he refused to accept the rule of the British.

(d) Indian National Congress:
(i) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed?
(ii) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
(iii) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
(iv) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
(d) Indian National Congress:
(i)The techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed included appeals, petition and delegation to Britain.
(ii) Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal were three prominent leaders during the Swadeshi period. They are often referred to as Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.
(iii) The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.
(iv) The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi movement by arresting prominent leaders and putting them into the prison.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) North east monsoon
(iii) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(iv) Kolkata
(v) Tea growing area
(vi) Deccan plateau
(vii) Andaman and Nicobar
(viii) Cochin
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Palar
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest area
(iii) Alluvial soil
(iv) Thanjavur
(v) Kanniyakumari
(vi) Cotton growing area
(vii) Limestone area
(viii) Pamban
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Germany
(ii) Hungary
(iii) Romania
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Italy
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) North east monsoon
(iii) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(iv) Kolkata
(v) Tea growing area
(vi) Deccan plateau
(vii) Andaman and Nicobar
(viii) Cochin
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Palar
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest area
(iii) Alluvial soil
(iv) Thanjavur
(v) Kanniyakumari
(vi) Cotton growing area
(vii) Limestone area
(viii) Pamban
Answer:

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 4 Electricity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power.
(b) Rate of change of charge is current.
(c) Rate of change of energy is current.
(d) Rate of change of current is charge.
Answer:
(b) Rate of change of charge is current.

Question 2.
SI unit of resistance is:
(a) mho
(b) joule
(c) ohm
(d) ohm meter
Answer:
(c) ohm

Question 3.
In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
(a) The switch produces electricity.
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.
(c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit.
(d) The bulb is getting charged.
Answer:
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit

Question 4.
Kilowatt hour is the unit of:
(a) resistivity
(b) conductivity
(c) electrical energy
(d) electrical power
Answer:
(c) electrical energy

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. When a circuit is open, ……….. cannot pass through it.
2. The ratio of the potential difference to the current is known as ……….
3. The wiring in a house consists of ………… circuits.
4. The power of an electric device is a product of ……… and ………..
5. LED stands for ………..

Answer:

1. current
2. resistance
3. parallel
4. potential difference, current
5. Light Emitting Diode

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage.
2. MCB is used to protect house hold electrical appliances.
3. The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb.
4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt hour.
5. The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Answer:

1. False – Ohm’s law states that the relationship between current and voltage.
2. True
3. False – The SI unit for electric current is ampere.
4. False – One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1 kilowatt hour.
5. False – The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is greater than the highest of the “individual resistance.

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (c)
(v) – (d)

V. Assertion and reason type Questions.

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: Electric appliances with a metallic body have three wire connections.
Reason: Three pin connections reduce heating of the connecting wires.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of highest potential is the positive terminal of the battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the highest potential.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs.
Reason: LED bulbs consume less power than incandescent bulbs.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very short answer questions.

Question 1.
Define the unit of current.
Answer:
The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 coulomb}{1 second}\)

Question 2.
What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?
Answer:
If the conductor is made a thicker area of cross-section of conduction increases that will decrease the resistance.

Question 3.
Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?
Answer:
Tungsten metal is used in bulbs because its melting point is the greatest.
But it is not used in fuse wires. When a current more than 5A flows tungsten wire will be melted. Hence tungsten is not used in fuse wire.

Question 4.
Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric current.
Answer:
The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron and electric toaster.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define electric potential and potential difference.
Answer:
Electric Potential: It is the amount of work done in moving unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.
Electric potential

Potential difference : It is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric force.
Potential difference V_A – V_B = \(\frac{W_{A}-W_{B}}{Q}\)

Question 2.
What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:

1. The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
2. The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.
3. Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 3.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
According to Ohm’s law, at a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor.
I ∝ V. Hence, = \(\frac{1}{V}\) = constant.
The value of this proportionality constant is found to \(\frac{1}{R}\)
Therefore, I = (\(\frac{1}{R}\)) V
V = IR

Question 4.
Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.
Answer:

Question 5.
What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
Answer:

1. In the domestic appliance, it is used as a parallel connection to avoid short circuit and breakage.
2. It has an alternative current (AC). Not DC current as it is from cables, so high potential flows through this.
3. One more advantage of the parallel connection of circuits is that each electric appliance gets an equal voltage.

VIII. Long answer Questions.

Question 1.
With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected:
(a) in series and
(b) in parallel
Answer:
(a) Resistors in series : A series circuit connects the components one after the other to form a ‘single loop’. A series circuit has only one loop through which current can pass. If the circuit is interrupted at any point in the loop, no current can pass through the circuit and hence no electric appliances connected in the circuit will work. Series circuits are commonly used in devices such as flashlights. Thus, if resistors are connected end to end, so that the same current passes through each of them, then they are said to be connected in series.

Let, three resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃ be connected in series. Let the current flowing through theorem be I. According to Ohm’s Law, the potential differences V₁,V₂ and V₃ across R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively, are given by:
V₁ = I R₁ ………. (1)
V₂ = I R₂ ……… (2)
v₃ = I R₃ ………. (3)
The sum of the potential differences across the ends of each resistor is given by:
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V = I R₁ + I R₂ + I R₃ …….. (4)
The effective resistor is a single resistor, which can replace the resistors effectively, so as to allow the same current through the electric circuit. Let, the effective resistance of the series-combination of the resistors, be R_S.
Then,
V = I R_S ……….(5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), we get,
I R_S = I R₁ + I R₂ + I R₃
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ ……….. (6)
Thus, you can understand that when a number of resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance or effective resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is ‘n R’.
i.e., R_S = n R
The equivalent resistance in a series combination is greater than the highest of the individual resistances.

(b) Resistors in Parallel : A parallel circuit has two or more loops through which current can pass. If the circuit is disconnected in one of the loops, the current can still pass through the other loop(s). The wiring in a house consists of parallel circuits.

Consider that three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ are connected across two common points A and B The potential difference across each resistance is the same and equal to the potential difference between A and B. This is me sured using the voltmeter. The current I arriving at A divides into three branches I₁, I₂ and I₃ passing through R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively.
According to the Ohm’s law, you have,

The total current through the circuit is given by
I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), you get
I = \(\frac{V}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_2}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_3}\) ……… (4)
Let the effective resistance of the parallel combination of resistors be R_P Then,
I = \(\frac{V}{R_P}\) ……… (5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), you have

Thus, when a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances is equal to the reciprocal of the effective or equivalent resistance. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistances R are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is \(\frac{R}{n}\)

The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by electric current? Give its direction?
(b) Name and define its unit.
(c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be r connected in a circuit?
Answer:
(a) (i) Electric current is often termed as ‘current’ and it is represented by the symbol ‘I’. It is defined as the rate of flow of charges in a conductor.
(ii) The electric current represents the number of charges flowing in any cross-section of a conductor (say a metal wire) in unit time.

(b) The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).
The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 \text { coulomb }}{1 \text { second }}\)

(c) (i) The ammeter is used to measure the current.
(ii) An Ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.
(iii) The Ammeter is a low impedance device connecting it in parallel with the circuit would cause a short circuit, damaging the Ammeter or the circuit.

Question 3.
(a) State Joule’s law of heating.
(b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
(c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
Answer:
(a) Joule’s law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is:

1. directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor.
2. directly proportional to the resistance of the resistor.
3. directly proportional to the time for which the current is passing through the resistor.

(b) Because,

1. It has high resistivity,
2. It has a high melting point,
3. It is not easily oxidized.

(c) When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage.

Question 4.
Explain about domestic electric circuits, (circuit diagram not required)
Answer:

1. Electricity is distributed through the domestic electric circuits wired by the electricians.
2. The first stage of the domestic circuit is to bring the power supply to the main-box from a distribution panel, such as a transformer.
3. The important components of the main-box are: (i) a fuse box and (ii) a meter. The meter is used to record the consumption of electrical energy.
4. The fuse box contains either a fuse wire or a miniature circuit breaker (MCB).
5. The function of the fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current.

Question 5.
(a) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?
(b) List the merits of LED bulb.
Answer:
(a) Advantages of LED TV:

1. It has brighter picture quality.
2. It is thinner in size.
3. It uses less power and consumes very less energy.
4. Its life span is more.
5. It is more reliable.

(b) Advantages of LED bulb:

1. As there is no filament, there is no loss of energy in the form of heat.
2. It is cooler than the incandescent bulb.
3. In comparison with the fluorescent light, the LED bulbs have significantly low power requirement.
4. It is not harmful to the environment.
5. A wide range of colours is possible here.
6. It is cost-efficient and energy efficient.
7. Mercury and other toxic materials are not required. One way of overcoming the energy crisis is to use more LED bulbs.

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 420 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 180 W when heating is at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is 220 V. What is the current in each case?
Answer:
(i) When heating is maximum, the power
P₁ = 420 W
Applied voltage V = 220 V
P = VI
Current I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
I = \(\frac{420}{220}\) = 1.909 A
I = 1.909 A

(ii) When heating is minimum
Power P₂ = 180 W
Applied voltage V = 220 V
P = VI
∴ Current I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
I = \(\frac{180}{220}\) = 0.8181 A
I = 0.8181 A

Question 2.
A 100-watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for 5 hours daily. Calculate the energy consumed (in kWh) in the month of January.
Solution:
100 W = 100 joules per second
1 watt hours = 3600 joules
The electric bulb is lighted for 5 hours daily,
100 W × 5 = 500 watt hours
500 watt hours = 1800000 joules
1 kWh = 3600000 joules
Units consumed per day = \(\frac{1800000}{3600000}\) = 0.5 units
Untis consumed in month = 0.5 × 31 = 15.5 units …. (1)
Now, Sum of power of four 60 watt bulbs = 240 W
240 W × 5 hours = 1200 watt hours
1200 watt hours = 4320000 joules
Energy consumed per day = \(\frac{4320000}{3600000}\) = 1.2 units
Energy consumed in a month = 1.2 × 31 = 37.2 units …. (2)
Total energy consumed in a month = 15.5 + 37.2 = 52.7 units
1 unit = 1 kWh
The energy consumed in the month of January = 52.7 kWh.

Question 3.
A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA. Calculate it’s
(a) power
(b) resistance
(c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hour.
Answer:
Voltage V = 3 V
Current I = 600 mA
(a) Power = VI
= 3 × 600 × 10^-3
= 1800 × 10^-3
= 1.8 W

(c) Time = 4h
Energy consumed E = P × t
E = 1.8 × 4
= 7.2 W

Question 4.
A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.
(a) How will the resistance of each part of the wire change compared with the original resistance?
(b) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the combination change?
(c) What will be ratio of the effective resistance in series connection to that of the parallel connection?
Answer:
(a) Original resistance
R = \(\frac{l}{A}\)
∴ R α l
After cutting length of each piece
r = \(\frac{l}{5}\)
New resistance
R’ = \(\frac{l’}{A}\)
R’ α l’

R : R’ = 5 : 1

(b) When five parts of the wire are placed in parallel.
Effective Resistance

Resistance of the combinations
R_P = \(\frac{R}{25}\)

(c) When resistance are connected in series

R_S = R
When resistance are connected in parallel
R_P = \(\frac{R}{25}\)
R_S : R_P = R : \(\frac{R}{25}\)
= 25 R : R_1
R_S : R_P = 25 : 1

X. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Two resistors when connected in parallel give the resultant resistance of 2 ohm; but when connected in series the effective resistance becomes 9 ohm. Calculate the value of each resistance.
Answer:
Let the resistance be R, and R2 when two resistances are connected in series
R_S = R₁ + R₂
= 9
R₁ + R₂ = 9 ……….(1)
When two resistance are connected in parallel

Using (1) equation (2) becomes
\(\frac{9}{R_{1}R_2}\)
R₁ R₂ = 18 ……….(3)
(R₁ – R₂)² = (R₁ + R₂)² – 4R₁R₂
= (9)² – 4 × 18
= 81 – 72 = 9
∴ (R₁ – R₂) = √9 = 3 ………(4)
From (1)
R₁ + R₂ = 9
2R₁ = 12
∴ R₁ = \(\frac{12}{2}\) = 6 ohm
From (1)
R₂ = 9 – R₁
= 9 – 6 = 3Ω
The values of resistances are
R₁ = 6 ohm
R₂ = 3 ohm

Question 2.
How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5 A?
Solution:
Current I = 5A
Time (t) = 1 second
Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
\(\mathbf{I}=\frac{q}{t}=\frac{n e}{t}\)
Number of electron, n = \(\frac{\mathrm{I} t}{e}\) = \(\frac{5 \times 1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
n = 3.125 × 10¹⁹.

Question 3.
A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Answer:
Resistance R = 10Ω
Let l be the length of the wire R ∝ 1
When the length is increased to three times,
l’ = 3l
∴ New Resistance
R’ ∝ l’ ∝ 3l
∴ \(\frac{R}{R’}\) = \(\frac{l}{3l}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
∴ R’ = 3R
New resistance = 3 times the original resistance.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of:
(a) energy
(b) power
(c) mass
(d) charge
Answer:
(d) charge

Question 2.
The S.I. unit of electric current is _____.
(a) Volt
(b) Power
(c) Ampere
(d) newton.
Answer:
(c) Ampere

Question 3.
The unit of electric current is:
(a) ampere
(b) volt
(c) watt
(d) kilo-watt
Answer:
(a) ampere

Question 4.
The work done in moving a charge of 2 C across two points in a circuit is 2 J. What is the potential difference between the points?
(a) 1 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 100 V
(d) 0.
Answer:
(a) 1 V

Question 5.
The amount of work done to move a unit charge from one point to the other is:
(a) resistance
(b) current
(c) Potential
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Potential

Question 6.
Ohm’s law gives the relative between potential difference and:
(a) emf
(b) temperature
(c) resistance
(d) current
Answer:
(d) current

Question 7.
The unit of resistance is _____.
(a) volt
(b) volt ampere^-1
(c) ampere
(d) Joule.
Answer:
(b) volt ampere^-1

Question 8.
The symbol of battery is:

Answer:
(b)

Question 9.
Electrical resistivity for a given material is ______.
(a) zero
(b) constant
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (b).
Answer:
(b) constant

Question 10.
The potential difference required to pass a current 0.2 A in a wire of resistance 20 ohm is:
(a) 100 V
(b) 4 V
(c) 0.01 V
(d) 40 V
Answer:
(b) 4 V

Question 11.
The unit of electrical conductivity ______.
(a) ohm^-1 metre
(b) ohm^-1 metre^-1
(c) Volt Ampere^-1
(d) ohm.
Answer:
(b) ohm^-1 metre^-1

Question 12.
Kilowatt-hour is the unit of:
(a) potential difference
(b) electric power
(c) electric energy
(d) charge
Answer:
(c) electric energy

Question 13.
The resistivity of a material is 4 × 10^-8 Ωm and its conductivity ______.
(a) 25 × 10^-8 mho m^-1
(b) 0.25 × 10^-8 mho m^-1
(c) 25 × 10⁸ mho m^-1
(d) 0.25 × 10⁸ mho m^-1.
Answer:
(d) 0.25 × 10⁸ mho m^-1.

Question 14.
The commonly used safely fuse wire is made of:
(a) nickel
(b) lead
(c) an alloy of tin and lead
(d) copper
Answer:
(c) an alloy of tin and lead

Question 15.
The value of one horse power is:
(a) 746 kW
(b) 746 W
(c) 3.6 × 10⁵ W
(d) 3.6 × 10⁶ kW
Answer:
(b) 746 W

Question 16.
When ‘n’ number of resistors are connected in series, the effecive resistance for series is ______.
(a) nR
(b) \(\frac{n}{\mathrm{R}}\)
(c) \(\frac{\mathbf{R}}{n}\)
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) nR

Question 17.
Name the physical quantity which is measured in kW:
(a) electric energy
(b) electric power
(c) electric current
(d) electric potential
Answer:
(b) electric power

Question 18.
What is the amount of current, when 20 C of charges flows in 4 s through a conductor? [l = \(\frac{q}{v}\)]
(a) 5 A
(b) 80 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 2 A
Answer:
(a) 5 A

Question 19.
Nichrome is ______.
(a) a conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) an alloy
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) an alloy

Question 20.
The main source of biomass energy is:
(a) coal
(b) heat energy
(c) thermal energy
(d) cow-dung
Answer:
(d) cow-dung

Question 21.
The value of one ampere is:
(a) \(\frac{1second}{1coulomb}\)
(b) 1 coulomb × sec
(c) \(\frac{1coulomb}{1second}\)
(d) 1 coulomb
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1coulomb}{1second}\)

Question 22.
The heat produced in an electric heater of resistance 2 Ω is connected to an electric source, when a current of 6 A flows for 5 minutes _____.
(a) 216 × 10² J
(b) 2160 J
(c) 900 J
(d) 150 J.
Answer:
(a) 216 × 10² J
Hint: Formula H = I²Rt Joule.

Question 23.
The value of \(\frac{1joule}{1coulomb}\)
(a) 1 kWh
(b) 1 Wh
(c) ampere
(d) volt
Answer:
(d) volt

Question 24.
The mathematical from of Ohm’s law is given by:
(a) V = IR
(b) I = VR
(c) R = \(\frac{I}{V}\)
(d) I = \(\frac{R}{V}\)
Answer:
(a) V = IR

Question 25.
One kilowatt hour is _____.
(a) 3.6 × 10⁶ J
(b) 36 × 10⁶ J
(c) 3.6 × 10⁵ J
(d) 36 × 10⁵ J.
Answer:
(a) 3.6 × 10⁶ J

Question 26.
If the length and radius of a conductor is doubled then its specific resistance will:
(a) be doubled
(b) be halved
(c) be tripled
(d) remain the same
Answer:
(d) remain the same

Question 27.
The value of resistivity of nichrome is:
(a) 1.5 × 10⁶ Ωm
(b) 1.5 × 10^-6 Ωm
(c) 5.1 × 10⁶ Ωm
(d) 5.1 × 10^-6 Ωm
Answer:
(b) 1.5 × 10^-6 Ωm

Question 28.
Due to short circuit, effective resistance in the circuit becomes _____.
(a) large
(b) very small
(c) very large
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) very small

Question 29.
if a conductor has a length of 1 m and area of 1 m² then its resistivity is equal to its:
(a) resistance
(b) conductance
(c) length
(d) conductivity
Answer:
(a) resistance

Question 30.
When resistors are connected in parallel, potential difference across each resistor will be:
(a) different
(b) same
(c) vary
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) same

Question 31.
LED TV screen was developed by James P. Mitchell in _____.
(a) 1797
(b) 1977
(c) 2009
(d) 1987.
Answer:
(b) 1977

Question 32.
Heat developed across a conductor H =
(a) IRt
(b) VR
(c) I²Rt
(d) I²R
Answer:
(c) I²Rt

Question 33.
Expression for electric energy is:
(a) W = \(\frac{V}{I}\)
(b) W = VIt
(c) W = Vt
(d) W = \(\frac{V}{It}\)
Answer:
(b) W = VIt

Question 34.
In our home, fuse box consists of:
(a) fuse wire
(b) MCB
(c) fuse wire or MCB
(d) switches
Answer:
(c) fuse wire or MCB

Question 35.
Which of the following is a semi conductor device?
(a) LED bulb
(b) fuse
(c) MCB
(d) switch
Answer:
(a) LED bulb

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The flow of charge: Electric current. A continuous closed path of an electric current is ………. The unit of charge: Coulomb then-current ……….
2. Electric current I: Charge (Q)/ ………. while electric potential V is ……….
3. A resistor of resistance R:  Then variable resistance and ……….. rheostat ……….
4. In series connection of resistors: ………. Then for parallel connection of resistors: ………..
5. The transformation of energy in Electric oven: ………… Electric cell ………..
6. The expression obtained from Ohm’s law ………… joule’s law
7. The unit of electric power …………. then electric energy ………..
8. The equivalent of 1 volt ………. then for 1 ohm ………..
9. The tap-key is used to ……… and ……….. an electric circuit.
10. The opposition to flow of current is called ………. and its unit is ………..
11. The heat developed in a conductor is directly proportional to the square of ………… and ………. of flow.
12. The S.I unit of electric current is ……….
13. The S.l unit of resistance is ……….
14. ……….. is the S.l unit of potential difference.
15. From Ohm’s law \(\frac{V}{I}\) =
16. If a current 2A flows through conductor having a potential difference of 6 V then its resistance is ……….
17. If R is the resistance of a conductor then its conductance is G = ……….
18. Conductivity is ……… for ……….. than insulators.
19. When resistors are connected in series the equivalent resistance is …………. than the highest resistance of individual resistors.
20. In series connection ……….. is less as effective resistance is more.
21. Tungsten is used as heating element because its resistance is ……….
22. Tungsten is used as filament in the electric bulb because its melting points is …………
23. If a current of 6A flows through a 5Ω resistance for 10 minutes than heat developed in the resistance is ……….
24. When a current of IA flows through a conductor having potential difference of IV, the electric power is ………..
25. 746 watt is equivalent to ………..
26. In displays are used ………….
Answer:
1. Electric circuit, Ampere
2. Time (t), Work done (W)/charge (Q)
3.
4. Current is same, Potential difference is same
5. electrical into heat energy, chemical into electrical energy
6. V = IR, H = I²Rt
7. Kilowatt, want hour
8. \(\frac{1joule}{1coulomb}\), \(\frac{1volt}{1ampere}\)
9. open, close
10. resistance, ohm
11. current, time
12. ampere
13. Ohm 15. R
14. Volt
15. R
16. 3 ohm
17. \(\frac{I}{R}\)
18. more, conductors
19. greater
20. Current
21. high
22. high
23. 108 kJ
24. 1 W
25. 1 horse power
26. LED bulbs

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

1. Current is the rate of flow of charges
2. The symbol of diode is

3. Potential = \(\frac{charge}{time}\)
4. Mathematical form of ohm’s law is V = IR
5. Nichrome is used in electric bulb.
6. The unit of conductance is mho.
7. The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistance.
8. In parallel connection the effective resistance is R_P = \(\frac{R_{1}+R_{2}}{R_{1}R_{2}}\)
9. Heat produced in a conductor is H = l²Rt
10. 1 kWh = 3.6 J.
11. An MCB is a switching device.
12. LED means Light Emitting Diode.
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False – Potential = \(\frac{Workdone(W)}{Charge(Q)}\)
4. True
5. False – Nichrome is used in heating device.
6. True
7. True
8. False – In parallel connection, the effective resistance is R_P = \(\frac{R_{1}R_{2}}{R_{1}+R_{2}}\)
9. True
10. False – 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ J
11. True
12. True

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 2.
Match the components with symbols

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (c)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 5.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 6.
Match the column I with column II:

Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (e)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 7.
Match the column I with column II:

Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (d)
(iv) – (c)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: In a series system, equivalent resistance is the sum of the individual resistance.
Reason: The current that passes through each resistor is the same.
(a) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion,
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion
Answer:
(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion: In a parallel system, the total current is equal to the sum of the current through each resistor.
Reason: The potential difference across each resistor is the same.
(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.
(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(d) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: The unit of power watt is not frequently used in practice. Reason: it cannot be converted into Joule.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 4.
Assertion: A wire carrying a current has electric field around d.
Reason: A wire carrying current is stays electrically neutral.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason a re true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: In order to pass current through electric circuit, it must be closed.
Reason: In our home, the switch is ON, then the current flows through the bulb. So, the bulb glows.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: Resistance of a material opposes the flow of charges.
Reason: It is different for different materials.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Electrical conductivity is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity. Reason: The unit of conductivity is Ohm.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 8.
Assertion: One end of the earthing wire is connected to a body of the electrical appliance and its other end is connected to a metal tube that is burried into the Earth.
Reason: The earth wire provides low resistance path to the electric current.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 9.
Assertion: The passage of electric current through a wire results in the production of heat.
Reason: The heating effect is used in electric heater electric iron etc.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 10.
Assertion: One kilowatt hour is known as one unit of electrical energy.
Reason: 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶J
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very short answer type Questions

Question 1.
If a charge of QC flows through a conductor in time t second then what is the value of current?
Answer:
Charge = \(\frac{Charge}{time}\)
I = \(\frac{Q}{t}\)

Question 2.
What is the electric circuit?
Answer:
An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop.
(or)
path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow. This path is made using electrical wires so as to connect an electric appliance to a source of electric charges (battery).

Question 3.
If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross-section is also doubled than what happens its resistance?
Answer:
Resistance of a wire
R = \(\frac{pl}{A}\) ………. (1)
l’ = 2l
A’ = 2A
∴ New Resistance
R’ = l × \(\frac{2l}{2A}\)
R’ = \(\frac{pl}{A}\) …….. (2)
Form (1) and (2) it is found that resistance remains unchanged.

Question 4.
What is the unit of resistance and resistivity of a conductor?
Answer:
(i) The unit of resistance is ohm.
(ii) The unit of resistivity is ohm meter.

Question 5.
Define the unit of resistance? (or) Define one ohm.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor is said to be one ohm if a current of one ampere flows through it when a potential difference of one volt is maintained across its ends.
\(\text { Ohm }=\frac{1 \text { volt }}{1 \text { ampere }}\).

Question 6.
What is the unit of conductivity?
Answer:
The unit of conductivity is mho meter.

Question 7.
What is the value of one kilo watt hour?
Answer:
One kilowatt hour = 1000 W hr
1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶J

Question 8.
What is the heating effect of electric current?
Answer:
The passage of electric current through a wire resulting in the production of heat. This phenomenon is called the heating effect of current. This heating effect of current is used in devices like electric heater, electric iron, etc.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is an electric circuit?
Answer:
An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop (or) path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow.

Question 2.
Draw a circuit diagram to represent a simple electric circuit.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the direction of conventional current?
Answer:
By convention, the direction of current is taken as the direction of flow of positive charge (or) opposite to the direction of flow of electrons.

Question 4.
Define electric potential.
Answer:
The electric potential at a point is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.

Question 5.
What is meant by overloading?
Answer:
(i) Overloading happens when a large number of appliances are connected in series to the same source of electric power. This leads to a flow of excess current in the electric circuit.

(ii) When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 6.
What is meany by short circuit?
Answer:

1. When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short circuit’.
2. This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force.
3. Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires.
4. This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

Question 7.
Draw an electric circuit to understand Ohm’s law.
Answer:

Question 8.
Define resistance of a conductor.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.

Question 9.
Define Resistance. Give its unit and conductance.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.
Conductance: It is defined as the reciprocal of its resistance (R). Hence, the conductance ‘G’ of a conductor is given by
\(\mathrm{G}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Its unit is ohm^-1. It is also represented as ‘mho’.

Question 10.
Define electrical resistivity of a material.
Answer:
The electrical resistivity of a material is defined as the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross section. Its unit is ohm metre.

Question 11.
What is meant by electrical conductivity?
Answer:
The reciprocal of electrical resistivity of a material is called its electrical conductivity.
σ = \(\frac{1}{p}\)

Question 12.
Mention the differences between the combination of resistances in series and parallel.
Answer:

Question 13.
Write short notes about filament in electric bulbs.
Answer:
In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Question 14.
What is meant by electric power?
Answer:
The electric power is the product of the electric current and the potential difference due to which the current passes in a circuit.

Question 15.
What is meant by overloading of an electric circuit?
Answer:
When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 16.
What is meant by LED bulb?
Answer:
An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used.

Question 17.
W hat is meant by seven segment display? state its uses.
Answer:
(i) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text.
(ii) It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, microwave ovens, etc.

Question 18.
What do you know about LED television.
Answer:
LED Television is one of the most important applications of Light Emitting Diodes. An LED TV is actually an LCD TV (Liquid Crystal Display) with LED display. An LED display uses LEDs for backlight and an array of LEDs act as pixels. LEDs emitting white light are used in monochrome (black and white) TV; Red, Green and Blue (RGB) LEDs are used in colour television.

Question 19.
What is fuse wire?
Answer:
The function of fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from excess current due to overloading or a short circuit.

Question 20.
Draw a group between potential difference and current.
Answer:

Question 21.
Write short note about short circuit?
Answer:
When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short ‘ circuit’. This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force. Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires. This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

VIII. Long answer questions.

Question 1.
Tabulate various components used in electrical circuit and their uses?
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain series connection of parallel resistors.
Answer:

If we consider the connection of a set of parallel resistors that are connected in series, you get a series – parallel circuit. Let R₁ and R₂ be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of R_p1. Similarly, let R₃, and R₄ be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of R_p2. Then, both of these parallel segments are connected in series. Using equation we get

We get = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ ……….(1)
Finally, using equation (1), the net effective resistance is given by
R_total = R_P1 + R_P2

Question 3.
Explain parallel connection of series resistors.
Answer:
If you consider a connection of a set of series resistors connected in a parallel circuit, you get a parallel-series circuit. Let R₁ and R₂ be connected in series to give an effective resistance of R_S1. Similarly, let R₃ and R₄ be connected in series to give an effective resistance of R_S2. Then, both of these serial segments are connected in parallel.

Using equation
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
We get R_S1 = R₁ + R₂, R_S2 = R₃ + R₄
Finally, using equation
\(\frac{1}{R_P}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_2}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_3}\)
the net effective resistance is given by
\(\frac{1}{R_{total}}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_{S1}}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_{S2}}\)

Question 4.
Explain applications of heating effect.
Answer:
Electric Heating Device: The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron, electric toaster, electric oven, electric heater, geyser, etc. In these appliances Nichrome, which is an alloy of Nickel and Chromium is used as the heating element. Because:
(i) it has high resistivity,
(ii) it has a highmelting point,
(Hi) it is not easily oxidized.

Fuse Wire : The fuse wire is connected in series, in an electric circuit. When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage. The fuse wire is made up of a material whose melting point is relatively low.

Filament in bulbs : In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Question 5.
Write short notes about
(i) LED bulb
(ii) Seven segment display
Answer:
(i) An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used. With the help of the chemical compounds like Gallium Arsenide and Gallium Phosphide, the manufacturer can produce LED bulbs that radiates red, green, yellow and orange colours. Displays in digital watches and calculators, traffic signals, street lights, decorative lights, etc., are some examples for the use of LEDs.

(ii) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text. It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, micro wave ovens, etc. It consists of 7 segments of LEDs in the form of the digit 8. These seven LEDs are named as a, b, c, d, e, f and g. An extra 8th LED is used to display a dot.

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
An electric iron draws a current of 0.5 A when the voltage is 220 volts. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through it in one hour.
Answer:
I = \(\frac{Q}{t}\)
Charge Q = ?
Charge I = 0.5 A
Time = 1 hour
= 60 × 60 s
Q = It
= 0.5 × 3600
= 1800 C
The amount of electric charge flowing = 1800 C

Question 2.
A current of 5A flows through a heater for 10 minutes. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through the electric circuit.
Answer:
Q = I × t
Current I = 5A
Time t = 10 × 60 = 600 s
= 5 × 600 = 3000 C

Question 3.
A torch bulb draws a current 0.6 A, when glowing from a source of 6 V. Calculate the resistance of the bulb when glowing.
Answer:
V = IR
Current I = 0.6A
Potential V = 6V
R = ?
R = \(\frac{V}{I}\) = \(\frac{6}{0.6}\) = 10Ω
The resistance of the bulb = 10Ω

Question 4.
Find the potential difference required to pass a current of 0.2 A in a wire of resistant 20Ω.
Answer:
V = IR
Current I = 0.2A
Resistance R = 20Ω
Potential difference V = ?
V = 0.2 × 20 = 4V
The potential difference in a wire = 4V

Question 5.
Calculate the amount of work done in moving charge of 25 C across two points having potential difference of 20V.
Answer:
W = QV
Charge Q = 25 C
Potential difference V = 20 V
W = 25 × 20 = 500 J

Question 6.
Three resistances are connected in an electrical circuit as shown in the circuit diagram. Determine the potential difference across resistance R₂.
Answer:

For series connection, the effective resistance
R_S = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
= 1 + 2 + 3 = 6Ω
Total potential = 12V
Amount of current flowing through the circuit
I = \(\frac{V}{R_{S}}\) = \(\frac{12V}{6Ω}\) = 2A
Potential difference across resistance R₂
V = I × R₂
= 2 × 2 = 4V
The potential difference across the resistance R₂ = 4 V

Question 7.
In the given network, find the equivalent resistance between A and B.
Answer:

An equivalent of the given network is drawn in the relevant parts as follows: Resistance of the combination R₁ and R₂ is
R_S = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R₁, R₂ and R₃ is

The resistance of series combination R_P1 and R₄ is R_S1 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S1 and R₅ is

Resistance of the series combination R_P2 and R₆ is
R_S2 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S2 and R₇ is

Resistance of the series combination R_P3 and R₈ is
R_P3 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S3 and R₉ is

Resistance of the series combination R_P4 and R₆ is
R_S4 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R_S4 and R₈ is

∴ Resistance between A and B is 5Ω

Question 8.
For a given circuit calculate
(i) the total effective resistance of the circuit.
(ii) the total current in the circuit
(iii) the current through each resistor.
Answer:

For parallel connection, the effective resistance

(i) Total effective resistance of the circuit
R_P = 0.588Ω

(ii) Total current in the circuit
I = 10.2 A

(iii) Current through R₁ = 6A
Current through R₂ = 3A
Current through R₃ = 1.2A

Question 9.
An electric iron a rating of 750 W, 220 V.
(i) Calculate current passing through it and
(ii) Its resistance when in use.
Answer:
P = VI
I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
Ohm’s law V = IR

(i) The amount of current passing
I = 3.4A
(ii) Resistance
R = 64.7Ω

Question 10.
Following graph was plotted between V and I values. What would be the values of \(\frac{V}{I}\) ratios when the potential difference is 0.8 V and 1.2 V?
Answer:

V₁ = 0.8V, I₁ = 32A; V₂ = 1.2V; I₂ = 48A

Question 11.
Three resistors of 2Ω, 4Ω and 8Ω are connected in parallel with a battery of 3 V. Calculate
(i) Current through each resistor and
(ii) Total current in the circuit.
Answer:

Potential difference across each resistor is same.
(i) Current through each resistor:

(ii) Total current in the circuit: I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
I = 1.5 + 0.75 + 0. 375
I = 2.625 A

Question 12.
Two bulbs of 40 W and 60 W are connected in series to an external potential difference. Which bulb will glow brighter? Why?
Answer:
Let the external potential difference be 230 V

For 40 W bulb resistance is R

For 60 W bulb resistance is R

According to Ohm’s law
I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
Current flowing through 40 W bulb is
\(\frac{230}{1322.5}\) = 0.1739 A
Current flowing through 60 W bulb is
\(\frac{230}{881.6}\) = 0.2608 A
When bulbs are connected in series effective resistance is
R_S = R₁+ R₂ = 1322.5 + 881.6
R_S = 2204.1Ω
Net current
I = \(\frac{230}{2204.1}\) = 0.1043 A
Using power equation P = I²R
For 40 W bulb P = I²R
= (0.1043)² × 1322.5
= (0.01087) × 1322.5 = 14.386 W
For 60 W bulb P = I²R
= (0.1043)² × 881.6
= (0.01087) × 881.6 = 9.5904 W
In a series system, higher the resistance, higher the brightness so, 40 W bulb glows brighter.