Category: Class 10

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 =14]

Question 1.
The range of the relation R = {(x, x²) x is a prime number less than 13} is ………… .
(1) {2, 3, 5, 7}
(2) (2, 3, 5, 7, 11}
(3) {4,9,25,49, 121}
(4) {1, 4, 9, 25, 49, 121}
Answer:
(3) {4,9,25,49, 121}

Question 2.
If g = {(1,1),(2, 3),(3,5),(4,7)} is a function given by g(x) = αx + β then the values of α and β are ……….. .
(1) (-1,2)
(2) (2,-1)
(3) (-1,-2)
(4) (1,2)
Answer:
(2) (2,-1)

Question 3.
The sum of the exponents of the prime factors in the prime factorization of 1729 is ……….. .
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Answer:
(3) 3

Question 4.
The next term of the sequence \(\frac{3}{16}, \frac{1}{8}, \frac{1}{12}, \frac{1}{18}\) is ……….. .
(1) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{81}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)

Question 5.
If (x – 6) is the HCF of x² – 2x – 24 and x² – kx – 6 then the value of k is ……….. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8
Answer:
(2) 5

Question 6.
The solution of (2x – 1)² = 9 is equal to ……….. .
(1) -1
(2) 2
(3) -1,2
(4) None of these
Answer:
(3) -1,2

Question 7.
In a given figure ST || QR, PS = 2 cm and SQ = 3 cm. Then the ratio of the area of ∆PQR to the area of ∆PST is ……….. .

(1) 25 : 4
(2) 25 : 7
(3) 25 :11
(4) 25 : 13
Answer:
(1) 25 : 4

Question 8.
The slope of the line joining (12, 3), (4, a) is \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\). The value of ‘a’ is ……….. .
(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) -5
(4) 2
Answer:
(4) 2

Question 9.
If sin θ + cos θ = a and sec θ + cosec θ = b, then the value of b (a² – 1) is equal to ……….. .
(1) 2 a
(2) 3 a
(3) 0
(4) 2 ab
Answer:
(1) 2 a

Question 10.
The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 16 cm is ……….. .
(1) 60π cm²
(2) 68π cm²
(3) 120π cm²
(4) 136π cm²
Answer:
(4) 136π cm²

Question 11.
The sum of all deviations of the data from its mean is ……….. .
(1) always positive
(2) always negative
(3) zero
(4) non-zero integer
Answer:
(3) zero

Question 12.
If \(\left( \begin{matrix} x+y & x-y \\ 7 & 6 \end{matrix} \right) =\left( \begin{matrix} 10 & 2 \\ 7 & z \end{matrix} \right) \) then x, y, z are ……….. .
(1) 4, 6, 6
(2) 6, 6, 4
(3) 6, 4, 6
(4) 4, 4, 6
Answer:
(3) 6, 4, 6

Question 13.
If the n^th term of a sequence is 100n + 10 then the sequence is ……….. .
(1) an A.P.
(2) a G.P.
(3) a constant sequence
(4) neither A.P. nor G.P.
Answer:
(1) an A.P.

Question 14.
Probability of getting 3 heads or 3 tails in tossing a coin 3 times is ……….. .
(1) \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\)
(2) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(3) \(\frac { 3 }{ 8 }\)
(4) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Let A = {x ∈ W / x < 2}, B = {x ∈ N / 1 < x ≤ 4} and C = {3, 5} find the value of (A × C) ∪ (B × C)
Answer:
A × C = {0,1} × {3,5}
= {(0,3 (0,5) (1,3) (1,5)}
B × C= (2,3,4) × (3,5)
= {(2,3) (2,5) (3,3) (3,5) (4,3) (4,5)}
(A × C) ∪ (B × C) = {(0,3) (0,5) (1,3) (1,5) (2,3) (2,5) (3,3) (3,5) (4,3) (4,5)}

Question 16.
Find k if fof(k) = 5 where f(k) = 2k – 1.
Answer:
fof(k) = f(f(k)) = 2(2k – 1)-1 = 4k – 3.
Thus, fof(k) = 4k – 3
But, it is given that fof(k) = 5
∴ 4k – 3 = 5 ⇒ k = 2.

Question 17.
Find the sum of the following 6 + 13 + 20 +…. + 97
Answer:
Here a = 6, d = 13 – 6 = 7, l = 97
n = \(\frac{l-a}{d}+1\)
= \(\frac{97-6}{7}+1\) = \(\frac{91}{7}+1\) = 13 + 1 = 14
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
S_n = \(\frac{14}{2}\)(6 + 97) = 7 × 103 = 721

Question 18.
Rekha has 15 square colour papers of sizes 10 cm, 11 cm, 12 cm, …,.24 cm. How much area can be decorated with these colour papers?
Answer:
Area of 15 square colour papers
= 10² + 11² + 12² + …. + 24²
= (1² + 2² + 3² + …. + 24²) – (1² + 2² + 9²)
= \(\frac{24 \times 25 \times 49}{6}-\frac{9 \times 10 \times 19}{6}\)
=4 × 25 × 49 – 3 × 5 × 19
= 4900 – 285
= 4615
Area can be decorated is 4615 cm²

Question 19.
Simplify \(\frac{x+2}{4 y} \div \frac{x^{2}-x-6}{12 y^{2}}\)
Answer:

x² – x – 6 = (x – 3) (x + 2)
= \(\frac{x+2}{4 y} \div \frac{x^{2}-x-6}{12 y^{2}}=\frac{x+2}{4 y}+\frac{(x-3)(x+2)}{12 y^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{(x+2)}{4 y} \times \frac{12 y^{2}}{(x-3)(x+2)}\)
= \(\frac{3 y}{x-3}\)

Question 20.
Solve \(\frac{x}{x-1}+\frac{x-1}{x}=2 \frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
Let y = \(\frac{x}{x-1}\) then \(\frac{1}{y}=\frac{x-1}{x}\)
Therefore, \(\frac{x}{x-1}+\frac{x-1}{x}=2 \frac{1}{2}\) becomes \(y+\frac{1}{y}=\frac{5}{2}\)
2y² – 5y + 2 = 0 then, y = \(\frac{1}{2}, 2\)
\(\frac{x}{x-1}=\frac{1}{2}\) we get, 2x = x – 1 implies x = – 1
\(\frac{x}{x-1}=2\) we get, x = 2x – 2 implies x = 2
∴ The roots are x = -1, 2

Question 21.
Construct a 3 × 3 matrix whose elements are given by a_ij = |i – 2j|
Answer:
a_ij = |i – 2j|
The general 3 × 3 matrices is
A = \(\left( \begin{matrix} { a }_{ 11 } & { a }_{ 12 } & { a }_{ 13 } \\ { a }_{ 21 } & { a }_{ 22 } & { a }_{ 23 } \\ { a }_{ 31 } & { a }_{ 32 } & { a }_{ 33 } \end{matrix} \right)\)
a₁₁ = |1 – 2(1)| = |1 – 2| = |-1| = 1
a₁₂ = |1 – 2(2)| = |1 – 4| = |-3| = 3
a₁₃ = |1 – 2(3)| = |1 – 6| = |-5| = 5
a₂₁ = |2 – 2(1)| = |2 – 2| = 0
a₂₂ = |2 – 2(2)| = |2 – 4| = |-2| = 2
a₂₃ = |2 – 2(3)| = |2 – 6| = |-4| = 4
a₃₁ = |3 – 2(1)| = |3 – 2| = |1| = 1
a₃₂ = |3 – 2(2)| = |3 – 4| = |-1| = 1
a₃₃ = |3 – 2(3)| = |3 – 6| = |-3| = 3
The required matrix A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 3 & 5 \\ 0 & 2 & 4 \\ 1 & 1 & 3 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 22.
The length of the tangent to a circle from a point P, which is 25 cm away from the centre is 24 cm. What is the radius of the circle?
Answer:

Let the radius AB be r. In the right ∆ ABO,
OB² = OA² + AB²
25² = 24² + r²
25² – 24² = r²
(25 + 4) (25 – 24) = r²
r = √49 = 7
Radius of the circle = 7 cm

Question 23.
If the straight lines 12y = – (p + 3)x + 12, 12x – 7y = 16 are perpendicular then find ‘p’.
Answer:
Slope of the first line 12y = -(p + 3)x + 12
y = \(-\frac{(p+3) x}{12}+1\) (comparing with y = mx + c)
Slope of the second line (m₁) = \(\frac{-(p+3)}{12}\)
Slope of the second line 12x – 7y = 16
(m₂) = \(\frac{-a}{b}=\frac{-12}{-7}=\frac{12}{7}\)
Since the two lines are perpemdicular.
m₁ × m₂ = -1
\(\frac{-(p+3)}{12} \times \frac{12}{7}=-1 \Rightarrow \frac{-(p+3)}{7}=-1\)
-(p + 3) = -7
– p – 3 = – 7 ⇒ -p = -7 + 3
– p = -4 ⇒ p = 4
The value of p = 4

Question 24.
Prove that 1 + \(\frac{\cot ^{2} \theta}{1+\csc \theta}\) = cosec θ
Answer:

Question 25.
Find the standard deviation of first 21 natural numbers.
Answer:
Here n = 21
Standard deviation of the first ‘n’ natural numbers,
= \(\sqrt{\frac{n^{2}-1}{12}}\)
1,2,3,4, ……. , 21 = \(\sqrt{\frac{21^{2}-1}{12}}=\sqrt{\frac{441-1}{12}}=\sqrt{\frac{440}{12}}\)
= \(\sqrt{36.666}\) = \(\sqrt{36.67}\)
= 6.055 = 6.06
Standard deviation of first 21 natural numbers = 6.06

Question 26.
How many litres of water will a hemispherical tank hold whose diameter is 4.2m?
Answer:
Radius of the tank = \(\frac{4.2}{2}\) = 2.1 m
Volume of the hemisphere = \(\frac{2}{3}\) πr³ cu. unit
= \(\frac{2}{3} \times \frac{22}{7}\) × 2.1 × 2.1 × 2.1 m³
= 19.404 m³
= 19.4o4 × 1000 litre
= 19,4o4 litres

Question 27.
A two digit number is formed with the digits 2, 5, 9 (repetition is allowed). Find the probability that the number is divisible by 2.
Answer:
Sample space (S) = {22, 25, 29, 55, 59, 52, 99, 92, 95}
n(S) = 9
Let A be the event of getting number divisible by 2
A = {22,52,92}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 28.
Solve √x + 5 = 2x + 3 using formula method.
Answer:
\(\sqrt{x+5}\) = 2x + 3
\((\sqrt{x+5})^{2}\) = (2x + 3)²
x + 5 = 4x² + 9 + 12x
4x² + 11x + 4 = 0
Here a = 4, b = 11, c = 5
x = \(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^{2}-4 a c}}{2 a}\)
= \(\frac{-11 \pm \sqrt{121-64}}{8}\)
= \(\frac{-11 \pm \sqrt{57}}{8}\)
∴ x = \(\frac{-11+\sqrt{57}}{8}\) ; x = \(\frac{-11-\sqrt{57}}{8}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
An open box is to be made from a square piece of material, 24 cm on a side, by cutting equal squares from the comers and turning up the sides as shown. Express the volume V of the box as a function of x.

Question 30.
Find the greatest number consisting of 6 digits which is exactly divisible by 24,15,36?

Question 31.
The present value of a machine is ₹40,000 and its value depreciates each year by 10%. Find the estimated value of the machine in the 6th year.

Question 32.
The sum of the digits of a three-digit number is 11. If the digits are reversed, the new number is 46 more than five times the old number. If the hundreds digit plus twice the tens digit is equal to the units digit, then find the original three digit number?

Question 33.
Find the square root of the expression \(\frac{4 x^{2}}{y^{2}}+\frac{20 x}{y}+13-\frac{30 y}{x}+\frac{9 y^{2}}{x^{2}}\)

Question 34.
If α, β are the roots of 7x² + ax + 2 = 0 and if β – α = \(\frac { -13 }{ 7 }\) . Find the values of a.

Question 35.
State and prove Angle Bisector Theorem.

Question 36.
A quadrilateral has vertices at A(-4, -2) , B(5, -1) , C(6, 5) and D(-7, 6). Show that the mid-points of its sides form a parallelogram.

Question 37.
Two ships are sailing in the sea on either side of the lighthouse. The angles of depression of two ships as observed from the top of the lighthouse are 60° and 45° respectively.
If the distance between the ships is 200 \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}+1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\) meters, find the height of the light house.

Question 38.
A shuttle cock used for playing badminton has the shape of a frustum of a cone is mounted on a hemisphere. The diameters of the frustum are 5 cm and 2 cm. The height of the entire shuttle cock is 7 cm. Find its external surface area.

Question 39.
Two dice are rolled together. Find the probability of getting a doublet or sum of faces as 4.

Question 40.
Given f(x) = x – 2 ; g(x) = 3x + 5; h(x) = 2x – 3 verify that (goh) of = go (hof)

Question 41.
A 20 m deep well with inner diameter 7 m is dug and the earth from digging is evenly spread out to form a platform 22m by 14m. Find the height of the platform.

Question 42.
The mean and standard deviation of 20 items are found to be 10 and 2 respectively. At the time of checking it was found that an item 12 was wrongly entered as 8. Calculate the correct mean and standard deviation.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle PQR with its sides equal to \(\frac { 7 }{ 3 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR (scale factor \(\frac { 7 }{ 3 }\)).

[OR]

(b) Draw a circle of diameter 6 cm from a point P, which is 8 cm away from its centre. Draw the two tangents PA and PB to the circle and measure their lengths.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² – 5x – 6 and hence solve x² – 5x – 14 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Solve graphically 2x² + x – 6 = 0.

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Students can download 10th Science Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Man-made radioactivity is also known as;
(a) Induced radioactivity
(b) Spontaneous radioactivity
(c) Artificial radioactivity
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Induced radioactivity

Question 2.
Unit of radioactivity is _____.
(a) roentgen
(b) curie
(c) becquerel
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

Question 3.
Artificial radioactivity was discovered by:
(a) Becquerel
(b) Irene Curie
(c) Roentgen
(d) Neils Bohr
Answer:
(b) Irene Curie

Question 4.
In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place _____.
(i) α decay
(ii) β decay
(iii) γ decay
(iv) neutron decay
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) & (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
……. isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
(a) Radio Iodine
(b) Radio Cobalt
(c) Radio Carbon
(d) Radio Nickel
Answer:
(b) Radio Cobalt

Question 6.
Gaming radiations are dangerous because of _____.
(a) it affects eyes & bones
(b) it affects tissues
(c) it produces genetic disorder
(d) it produces an enormous amount of heat.
Answer:
(c) it produces genetic disorder

Question 7.
……… aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations.
(a) Lead oxide
(b) Iron
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(c) Lead

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) a particles are photons.
(ii) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low.
(iii) Ionization power is maximum for a rays.
(iv) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct

Question 9.
Proton-Proton chain reaction is an example of _____.
(a) Nuclear fission
(b) α – decay
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) β – decay.
Answer:
(c) Nuclear fusion

Question 10.
In the nuclear reaction the value of A and Z.
(a) 8, 6
(b) 8, 4
(c) 4, 8
(d) cannot be determined with the given data
Answer:
(b) 8, 4

Question 11.
Kamini reactor is located at:
(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Koodankulam
(c) Mumbai
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Kalpakkam

Question 12.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
(ii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled
(iii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled
(iv) No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb
(a) (i) only correct
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. One roentgen is equal to ………… disintegrations per second.
2. Positron is an …………
3. Aneamia can be cured by ………… isotope.
4. Abbreviation of ICRP …………..
5. ………… is used to measure exposure rate of radiation in humans.
6. ………. has the greatest penetration power.
7. _ZY^A → _Z+1Y^A + X; Then, X is …………..
8. _ZX^A → _ZY^A This reaction is possible in …………. decay.
9. The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about …………. J.
10. Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of ……….. K.
11. The radio isotope of …………. helps to increase the productivity of crops.
12. If the radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause ………….
Answer:
1. 1.6 × 10¹⁵ disintegrations / second
2. antiparticle [₁e⁰]
3. Radio iron Fe⁵⁹
4. International Commission on Radiological Protection
5. Dosimeter
6. Gama rays
7. X is _-1e⁰
8. gamma
9. 3.84 × 10¹² J
10. 10⁷ to 10⁹ K
11. Radio phosphorus P – 32
12. fatal diseases like leukemia.

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement.

1. Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material.
2. Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
3. Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission.
4. Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
5. If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave as an atom bomb.
6. During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced.
7. Einstein’s theory of mass energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
Answer:
1. True
2. False – Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fission.
3. True
4. False – Natural U – 238 not used as fuel in a nuclear reactor.
5. True
6. True
7. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (i)
(c) – (iv)
(d) – (ii)

Question 2.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (ii)
(c) – (iii)
(d) – (i)

Question 3.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (ii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (iii)

Question 4.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (iii)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

Question 5.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power. Alpha rays, beta rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays
Answer:
gamma rays < beta rays < alpha rays < cosmic rays.

Question 2.
Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery.
Nuclear reactor, radioactivity, artificial radioactivity, discovery of radium.
Answer:
Discovery of radium, Radioactivity, Artifical radioactivity, Nuclear reactor.

VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blank.

1. Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process : ………..
2. Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission : ………..
3. Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart : …………
4. Deflected by electric field : a ray, No Deflection : ………….

Answer:

1. artifical radioactivity
2. higher temperature
3. Radio sodium
4. γ-ray

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
₈₈Ra²²⁶ experiences three a – decay. Find the number of neutrons in the daughter element.
Answer:
Mass number of ₈₈Ra²²⁶ is 266
Atomic number of ₈₈Ra²²⁶ is 88
Mass number of α = 4
Atomic number of α = 2
After 3 a decay
Mass number of the daughter element is
= 266 – (3 × 4)
= 266 – 12
= 254
Atomic number of the daughter element is
= 88 – (3 × 2)
= 88 – 6
= 82
Number of neutrons is
= 254 – 82
= 172

Question 2.
A cobalt specimen emits induced radiation of 75.6 millicurie per second. Convert this disintegration in to becquerel (one curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq).
Answer:
1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq
∴ 75.6 × 10^-3 curie = 75.6 × 10^-3 × 3.7 × 10¹⁰
= 279.72 × 10⁷ Bq
= 279.72 × 10⁷ Becquerel

VIII. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: A neutron impinging on U²³⁵, splits it to produce Barium and Krypton.
Reason: U – 235 is a fissile material.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: In a 3 – decay, the neutron number decreases by one.
Reason: In 3 – decay atomic number increases by one.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Extreme temperature is necessary to execute nuclear fusion.
Reason: In a nuclear fusion, the nuclei of the reactants combine releasing high energy.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Control rods are known as ‘neutron seeking rods’.
Reason: Control rods are used to perform sustained nuclear fission reaction.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

IX. Answer in one or two words (VSA).

Question 1.
Who discovered natural radioactivity?
Answer:
Henri Becquerel

Question 2.
Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende?
Answer:
Uranium is the radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende.

Question 3.
Write any two elements which are used for inducing radioactivity?
Answer:
Boron and aluminium

Question 4.
Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during natural radioactivity.
Answer:
Gamma rays are the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during natural radioactivity.

Question 5.
If A is a radioactive element which emits an α – particle and produces ₁₀₄Rf²⁵⁹. Write the atomic number and mass number of the element A.
Answer:

Mass number A = 259 + 4 = 263
Atomic number Z = 104 + 2 = 106

Question 6.
What is the average energy released from a single fission process?
Answer:
200 MeV

Question 7.
Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disease?
Answer:
γ – ray (Gamma-ray) or any high energy nuclear particle passes through a human being, it disrupts the entire normal functioning of the biological system and the effect may be an either pathological or genetic disease.

Question 8.
What is the amount of radiation that may cause death of a person when exposed to it?
Answer:
600 R.

Question 9.
When and where was the first nuclear reactor built?
Answer:
The first nuclear reactor was built in 1942 at Chicago, USA.

Question 10.
Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
Answer:
The SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel.

Question 11.
Which material protects us from radiation?
Answer:
Lead

X. Answer the following questions in a few sentences.

Question 1.
Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Answer:

Question 2.
Define critical mass.
Answer:
The minimum mass of fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called ‘critical mass (m_c)’. It depends on the nature, density and the size of the fissile material.

Question 3.
Define one roentgen.
Answer:
One roentgen is defined as the quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10^-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.

Question 4.
State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.
Answer:
(i) When a radioactive element emits an alpha particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose mass number is less by 4 units and the atomic number is less by 2 units, than the mass number and atomic number of the parent nucleus.

(ii) When a radioactive element emits a beta particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose mass number is the same and the atomic number is more by 1 unit, than the atomic number of the parent nucleus.

Question 5.
Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have a sustained chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.

Question 6.
In Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases. Why?
Answer:
In Japan, there was a leakage of nuclear radiations in some areas. In those areas, if the new born children handled with careless they are exposed to harmful radiations then they have congenital diseases.

Question 7.
Mr. Ramu is working as an X – ray technician in a hospital. But, he does not wear the lead aprons. What suggestion will you give to Mr. Ramu?
Answer:
The intensity of X-rays is very low. So, X-rays do not produce any severe effects. There are certains clothes that can be used while operating X-ray machines. Ramu can use them and so he may not be severely affected by X-rays, he should avoid eating and drinking when he is working with X-rays.

Question 8.
What is stellar energy?
Answer:
Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called stellar energy.

Question 9.
Give any two uses of radio isotopes in the field of agriculture?
Answer:
The radio isotope of phosphorous (P-32) helps to increase the productivity of crops. The radiations from the radio isotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites and prevent the wastage of agricultural products.

Question 10.
What is stellar energy?
Answer:
Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called as stellar energy.

XI. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Answer:
(i) Controlled chain reaction: In the controlled chain reaction the number of neutrons released is maintained to be one. This is achieved by absorbing the extra neutrons with a neutron absorber leaving only one neutron to produce further fission. Thus, the reaction is sustained in a controlled manner. The energy released due to a controlled chain reaction can be utilized for constructive purposes. Controlled chain reaction is used in a nuclear reactor to produce energy in a sustained and controlled manner.

(ii) Uncontrolled chain reaction: In the uncontrolled chain reaction the number of neutrons multiplies indefinitely and causes fission in a large amount of the fissile material. This results in the release of a huge amount of energy within a fraction of a second. This kind of chain reaction is used in the atom bomb to produce an explosion.

Question 2.
Compare the properties of alpha, beta and gamma radiations.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.
Answer:
A Nuclear reactor is a device in which the nuclear fission reaction takes place in a self-sustained and controlled manner to produce electricity.
Components of a nuclear reactors:
The essential components of a nuclear reactor are

1. fuel,
2. moderator,
3. control rod,
4. coolant and
5. protection wall.

1. Fuel : A fissile material is used as the fuel. The commonly used fuel material is uranium.
2. Moderator : A moderator is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are the commonly used moderators
3. Control rod : Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have sustained chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.
4. Coolant : A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in die reactor core, to produce steam. This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity. Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.
5. Protection wall : A thick concrete lead wall is built around the nuclear reactor in order to prevent the harmful radiations from escaping into the environment.

XII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
The mass number of a radioactive element is 232 and its atomic number is 90. When this element undergoes certain nuclear reactions, it transforms into an isotope of lead with a mass number 208 and an atomic number 82. Determine the number of alpha and beta decay that can occur.
Answer:
\(_{90} \mathrm{x}^{232} \stackrel{4 \beta}{\longrightarrow} 94^{\mathrm{Y}^{232}+4_{-4} \mathrm{e}^{\circ}}\) (4β decay)
From the result of β decay,
\(94^{232} \stackrel{6 \alpha}{\longrightarrow} 82^{\mathrm{Pb}^{208}+6}_{} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) (6α decay)
The number of α decay = 6
The number of β decay = 4.

Question 2.
‘X – rays should not be taken often’. Give the reason.
Answer:
X-rays have some low intensity. Even then if a person undergoes the exposure of X-ray, his skin may be affected. The tissues near by the bones may be damaged.

Question 3.
Cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area – why?
Answer:
From the cell phone towers micro-waves are scattered for a particular area. This may affect small children and aged people. If people are exposed with those rays very often then they may be severly affected.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The elements that undergo spontaneous radioactivity:
(a) Uranium
(b) Radium
(c) Uranium and Radium
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Uranium and Radium

Question 2.
The artificial (or) induced radioactive element is _____.
(a) Uranium
(b) Boron
(c) Radium
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) boron

Question 3.
The nucleons in a nucleus are attracted by:
(a) electrostatic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) nuclear force
(d) magnetic force
Answer:
(c) nuclear force

Question 4.
In p decay by one.
(a) mass number decreases
(b) atomic number decreases
(c) neutron number decreases
(d) proton number decreases
Answer:
(c) neutron number decreases

Question 5.
The charge of the α rays _____.
(a) 2e
(b) -e
(c) 0
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) 2e

Question 6.
In which process positron is emitted?
(a) natural radioactivity
(b) artifical radioactivity
(c) nuclear fission
(d) nuclear fussion
Answer:
(b) artifical radioactivity

Question 7.
The atomic number of the elements that exhibit natural radioactivity is:
(a) less than 83
(b) more than 83
(c) more than 42
(d) more than 82
Answer:
(b) more than 83

Question 8.
The ionising power of the α rays _____.
(a) 100 times greater than the β rays
(b) 1000 times greater than the γ rays
(c) very less ionization
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b).

Question 9.
In the reaction  is:
(a) ₆C¹³
(b) ₆C¹²
(c) ₇N¹³
(d) ₈O¹⁶
Answer:
(b) ₆C¹²

Question 10.
Ionising power of β rays _____.
(а) 100 times greater than α rays
(b) 100 times less than α rays
(c) comparatively very less ionization power
(d) 1000 times less than γ rays.
Answer:
(b) 100 times less than α rays

Question 11.
During α – decay the mass number of the daughter element is:
(a) more by 2 units
(b) less by 2 units
(c) more by 4 units
(d) less by 4 units
Answer:
(d) less by 4 units

Question 12.
When α – particle is emitted the atomic number of daughter element is:
(a) more by 4 units
(b) less by 4 units
(c) less by 2 units
(d) more by 2 units
Answer:
(c) less by 2 units

Question 13.
Which power has more penetrating power?
(a) α rays
(b) γ rays
(c) β rays
(d) X rays.
Answer:
(b) γ rays

Question 14.
What is the charge of alpha particle?
(a) -e
(b) +e
(c) zero
(d) +2e^–
Answer:
(d) +2e^–

Question 15.
Which of the following has speed from 1/10 to 1/20 times the speed of light?
(a) β
(b) α
(c) γ
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) α

Question 16.
In α – decay _____.
(a) atomic number decreases by 2 and the mass number decreases by 4
(b) atomic number increases by 2 and the mass number decrease by 4
(c) there is no change in atomic and mass number
(d) neutron number decreases by one.
Answer:
(a) atomic number decreases by 2 and the mass number decreases by 4

Question 17.
Which of the following is a fertile material?
(a) Thorium – 232
(b) Uranium – 238
(c) Plutonium – 240
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
If the mass of the fissile material is less than the critical mass, then it is termed as:
(a) supercritical
(b) critical
(c) subcritical
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) critical

Question 19.
1 curie is equal to _____.
(a) the radioactivity of 1 gram of uranium
(b) 1 decay/second
(c) 3.7 × 10¹⁰ becquerel
(d) 1.6 × 10¹² decay / second.
Answer:
(c) 3.7 × 10¹⁰ becquerel

Question 20.
During nuclear fusion which of the following are emitted:
(a) alpha rays
(b) positrons
(c) neutrons
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 21.
Anaemia can be diagonised by:
(a) ₁₅P³²
(b) ₂₆Fe⁵⁹
(c) ₁₁Na²⁴
(d) ₂₈Fe⁵⁹
Answer:
(b) ₂₆Fe⁵⁹

Question 22.
I – 131 is used in the treatment of _____.
(a) cancer
(b) skin disease
(c) disease in the thyroid gland
(d) tumour.
Answer:
(c) disease in the thyroid gland

Question 23.
In which decay atomic number of daughter element is increased by 1 unit?
(a) α – decay
(b) β – decay
(c) γ – decay
(d) neutron decay
Answer:
(b) β – decay

Question 24.
in nuclear fusion ………… is satisfied.
(a) law of conservation of energy
(b) law of conservation of momentum
(c) law of conservation angular momentum
(d) mass energy relation
Answer:
(d) mass energy relation

Question 25.
The safe limit of receiving the radiation is about _____.
(a) 100 R
(b) 600 R
(c) 250 R
(d) 250 mR per week.
Answer:
(d) 250 mR per week.

Question 26.
Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of:
(a) natural radioactivity
(b) induced radioactivity
(c) nuclear fusion
(d) nuclear fission
Answer:
(c) nuclear fusion

Question 27.
Uncontrolled chain reaction yields _____.
(a) nuclear reactor
(b) atom bomb
(c) hydrogen bomb
(d) breeder reactor.
Answer:
(b) atom bomb

Question 28.
In the following reaction.
₁H³ + ₁H² → X + Y + energy X and Y are:
(a) ₂He³, ₀n¹
(b) ₂He⁴, ₀n¹
(c) ₁H², ₀n¹
(d) ₁H³, ₀n¹
Answer:
(b) ₂He⁴, ₀n¹

Question 29.
The number of α and ß particles emitted when ₉₂U²³⁸ decays to ₈₂Pb²⁰⁶ are respectively:
(a) 6, 8
(b) 8, 6
(c) 4, 3
(d) 3, 4
Answer:
(b) 8, 6

Question 30.
The fusion process can be carried out only at a temperature of _____.
(a) 1000°C
(b) 100°C
(c) 104°C
(d) 107 K.
Answer:
(d) 107 K.

Question 31.
Which of the following is used to cure goiter?
(a) Na²⁴
(b) I¹³¹
(c) P³²
(d) Fe⁵⁹
Answer:
(b) I¹³¹

Question 32.
Which radio isotope is used to check the function of heart?
(a) Na²⁴
(b) Fe⁵⁹
(c) Co⁶⁰
(d) I¹³¹
Answer:
(a) Na²⁴

Question 33.
The fuel of the prototype fast breeder reactor is _____.
(a) low enriched uranium
(b) carbides of uranium
(c) high enriched uranium
(d) oxides of plutonium and uranium.
Answer:
(d) oxides of plutonium and uranium.

Question 34.
Which radio isotope is used as a smoke detector?
(a) Cf²³²
(b) I¹³¹
(c) Co⁶⁰
(d) Am²⁴¹
Answer:
(d) Am²⁴¹

Question 35.
The control rod used in a nuclear reactor is _____.
(a) barium
(b) carbon
(c) cadmium
(d) Na.
Answer:
(c) cadmium

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Radium was discovered by ………..
2. The photoelectric effect is an instantaneous process Natural radioactivity is a ………..
3. The elements with atomic number ……… undergo spontaneous radioactivity.
4. In natural radioactivity emission of radiation is due to ………. of a nucleus.
5. One disintegration per second is equal to ………..
6. S.I unit of radioactivity is ………….
7. The speed of ………. can go upto 9/10 times the velocity of light.
8. α ray is …………
9. ……….ray consists of photons.
10. ………… and ………… are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
11. When uranium decays into thorium ……….. particle is emitted.
12. In ………… decay there is no change in the mass number of the product nuclear.
13. The minimum mass of a fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called …………
14. The value of 1MeV in joules is ………..
15. In the transformation ₁H² + ₁H² → X + energy. X is …………
16. Einstein’s mass energy relation is ………….
17. ……….causes the mutation in the human gene.
18. ……….. is also used in treatment of skin cancer.
19. The safe limit for receiving the radiation is ………….
20. The substances that are used as coolants are ………….. and
21. ………… reactors convert non-fissionable material units.
22. The expansion of BARC is ………….
23. The number of nuclear reactor that are operating in India are ……………
24. Identify X in the following transformation ₁₂Mg²⁴ + ₀n¹ → X + ₁n¹. X is ………….
25. In the reaction ₉₂U²³⁸ + ₀n¹ → ₉₃NP²³⁹ + X. X is ………….
Answer:
1. Marie Curie and pierre Curie
2. Spontaneous
3. more than 83
4. self-disintegration
5. Becquerel
6. Becquerel
7. β rays
8. a helium nucleus
9. Gamma
10. Alpha, beta
11. alpha
12. beta
13. critical mass
14. 1.602 × 10^-13 J
15. ₂He⁴
16. E = mc²
17. Gamma radiation
18. Radio-gold Au¹⁹⁸
19. 100 mR per week
20. Water, air and helium
21. Breeder
22. Bhaba Atomic Research Centre
23. 22
24. ₁₁Na²⁴
25. _-1e⁰

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement.

1. Artificial radioactivity is induced in the elements like boron, aluminum etc.
2. Natural radioactivity can be controlled.
3. 1 Rd = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations / second.
4. The S.I units of radioactivity is roentgen.
5. The charge of each beta particle is – e
6. Beta ray travels with velocity of light.
7. Example for alpha decay is ₉₂U²³⁸ → ₉₀Th²³⁴ + ₂He⁴
8. Otto Hann and Strassman discovered nuclear fission.
9. In the mass of the fissile material is more than the critical mass it is termed as supercritical.
10. Hydrogen bomb is based on uncontrolled chain reaction.
11. 1eV = 1.602 × 10^-16 Joule.
12. Hydrogen is based on nuclear fusion.
13. Positrons are emitted in nuclear fusion.
14. To diagnose anaemia P³² is used.
15. Radio phosphorous is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
16. To prevent the leakage of nuclear radiation concrete wall with lead lining is used.
Answer:
1. True
2. False – Artificial radio activity can be controlled.
3. False – 1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰⁶ disintegrations / second.
4. False – The S.l unit of radioactivity is Becquerel.
5. True
6. False – Gamma ray travels with velocity of light.
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False – Atom bomb is based on uncontrolled chain reaction.
11. False – 1eV = 1.602 × 10^-9 Joule
12. True
13. True
14. False – To diagonise aneamia Fe⁵⁹ is used.
15. True
16. True
17. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (v)
(d) – (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (v)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(a) – (v)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (ii)

V. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
A radioactive isotope emits radiation of 7.4 × 10⁴ G Bq per second. Convert this disintegration in terms of curie.
Answer:
One curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Becquerel
Becquerel (1 Bq) = One disintegration / second
∴ 1 Bq = \(\frac{1}{3.7×10^{10}}\) curie
∴ 7.4 × 10⁴ G Bq
= 7.4 × 10⁴ × 10⁹ × \(\frac{1}{3.7×10^{10}}\)
= 2 × 10³ curie
= 2,000 curie

Question 2.
The isotope ₉₂U²³⁸ successfully undergoes three α – decays and two β – decays. What is the resulting isotope?
Answer:
Number and nature of decays = 3α and 2β
Atomic number of isotope is Z = 92
Mass number of isotope is A = 238
Resulting isotope:
After the emission of 3α particles atomic number
Z’ = Z = (3 × 2)
= Z – 6
= 92 – 6
Z’ = 86
After the emission of 2β particles atomic number
Z” = Z – 2 (-1) = 86 + 2 = 88
Mass number after the emission of 3α particles
A’ = A – 3α
= 238 – 3(4)
= 238 – 12
= 226
Mass number after the emission of 2β particles
A” = A’ – 2(0)
= 226
∴ Resulting isotope is ₈₈Ra²²⁶

Question 3.
₈₈Ra²²⁶ experiences one α – decay and one β – decay. Calculate the number of neutrons in the final daughter nucleus that is formed.
Answer:
α particle = ₂He⁴
Atomic number of α particle = 2
Mass number of α particle = 4

Number of neutrons = Mass number – atomic number
= 222 – 87 = 135

Question 4.
State the number of protons, electrons neutrons and nucleons in ₄Be⁹ atom.
Answer:
Atomic number of ₄Be⁹ atom Z = 4
Mass number of ₄Be⁹ atom A = 9
Number of protons = Atomic number Z = 4
Number of neutrons = A – Z = 9 – 4 = 5
Number of nucleons = A = 9

Question 5.
Determine X and Y in the following transformations.
(i) ₄Be⁹ + α → X
(ii) ₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₀Ba¹⁴¹ + Y + 3₀n¹
Answer:
(i) ₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → ₆C¹³ [α = ₂He⁴]
∴ X = ₆C¹³

(ii) ₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₀Ba¹⁴¹ + Y + 3₀n¹
Equating atomic number on both sides we get,
235 + 1 = 141 + A + 3
236 = 144 + A
∴ A = 236 – 144
= 92
Equating atomic number on both sides are get
92 + 0 = 56 + 2 + 0
Z = 92 – 56 = 36
∴ Y is ₃₆Kr⁹²

Question 6.
Calculate the amount energy released when a radioactive element undergoes fusion and results in a mass defect of 4g.
Answer:
Velocity of light = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Mass defect Δm = 4 × 10^-3
By Einstein’s equation, energy released
E = mC²
= (4 × 10^-3) × (3 × 10⁸)²
= 36 × 10¹³ J
= 3.6 × 10¹⁴ J

Question 7.
Identify the radio isotopes in the following reactions.
Answer:
(i) ₁₅P⁸ + ₀n¹ → X + γ
(ii) ₀n¹ → _ZY^A + _-1e⁰ + γ^–
Answer:
(i) ₁₅P³¹ + ₀n¹ → X + γ
Mass number of X = 31 + 1 = 32
Atomic number of Y= 15 + 0 =15
∴ X is ₁₅P³¹

(ii) ₀n¹ → _ZY^A + _-1e⁰ + γ^–
Mass number 1 = A + 0
∴ A = 1
Atomic number 0 = Z – 1
∴ Z = 1
_ZY^A is ₁H¹

VI. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: Natural radioactivity is a spontaneous process.
Reason: It cannot be controlled.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: In artificial radioactivity neutron and positron are emitted. Reason: It can be controlled.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: p rays are electrons.
Reason: p rays travel with speed of light.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 4.
Assertion: Gamma rays have maximum ionising power.
Reason: Alpha rays have low penetrating power.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 5.
Assertion: Critical mass of a fissile material is the mass necessary to sustain chain reaction.
Reason: Critical mass depends on the nature, density and size of the fissile material.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 6.
Assertion: Nuclear fusion takes place in the cores of the sun and other stars.
Reason: Nuclear fusion is called as thermonuclear reaction.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: An alpha particle carries double the positive charge of protons.
Reason: The charge of alpha particle is equal to charge on the helium nucleus.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves.
Reason: Gamma rays travel with speed of light.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VII. Answer in one or two words (VSA).

Question 1.
Who discovered the nucleus?
Answer:
Rutherford

Question 2.
Define ‘Natural Radioactivity’.
Answer:
This phenomenon of spontaneous emission of radiation from certain elements on their own is called ‘Natural radioactivity’.

Question 3.
State elements exhibiting radioactivity with atomic number less than 83.
Answer:
Uranium and radium

Question 4.
What is the nature of radioactive substances?
Answer:
They are earth metals and transition metals.

Question 5.
Define ‘One Rutherford (Rd)’.
Answer:
It is another unit of radioactivity. It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which produces 106 disintegrations in one second.
1 Rd = 10⁶ disintegrations per second.

Question 6.
In ₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → X. What is X?
Answer:
X is ₆C¹³

Question 7.
What is the value of 1 curie?
Answer:
1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations / second.

Question 8.
State the value of Rutherford.
Answer:
1 Rutherford = 10⁶ disintegrations / second.

Question 9.
Explain the term ‘fissile material’ Give an example.
Answer:
Fissionable material is a radioactive element, which undergoes fission in a sustained manner when it absorbs a neutron. It is also termed as ‘fissile material’.
E.g. U²³⁵, plutonium (Pu²³⁹ and Pu²⁴¹)

Question 10.
Which ray has greatest ionising power?
Answer:
Alpha ray

Question 11.
Which ray posses minimum ionising power?
Answer:
Gamma ray

Question 12.
Which ray is not deflected by electric and magnetic fields?
Answer:
Gamma ray

Question 13.
Name the ray that travels with speed about 9/10 times that of light?
Answer:
Beta ray

Question 14.
What is the charge of particle?
Answer:
It’s charge is +2e.

Question 15.
Which particle has a charge of -e?
Answer:
Beta particle

Question 16.
State that the ray consisting of protons.
Answer:
Gamma ray

Question 17.
When uranium emits an alpha particle which element is obtained as daughter element.
Answer:
Thorium ₉₀Th²³⁴

Question 18.
Mention the value of 1eV in terms of joule.
Answer:
1eV = 1.602 × 10^-19 joule

Question 19.
What is the value of 1Mev?
Answer:
1MeV = 10⁶eV = 1.602 × 10^-13 joule

Question 20.
Which radio isotope is used in the treatment of skin diseases?
Answer:
Radio Phosphorus P³²

Question 21.
What is the use of radio iodine?
Answer:
Radio iodine is used to cure goiter.

Question 22.
Which isotope is used in airlines?
Answer:
Califorium Cf²³² is used in airlines.

Question 23.
State the isotope used as a smoke detector.
Answer:
Americium Am²⁴¹

Question 24.
Write down the uses of a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Uses of a nuclear reactor

• Nuclear reactors are widely used in power generation.
• They are also used to produce radioisotopes, which are used in a variety of applications
• Some reactors help us to do research in the field of nuclear physics.
• Breeder reactors are used to convert non-fissionable materials into fissionable materials.

Question 25.
What are gamma rays?
Answer:
Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves consisting of photons.

Question 26.
Who discovered Cathode rays.
Answer:
J.J. Thomson

VIII. Answer the following question in few sentences.

Question 1.
What is radioactivity?
Answer:
The phenomenon of nuclear decay of certain elements with the emission of radiations like alpha, beta, and gamma rays is called ‘radioactivity’.

Question 2.
What is meant by natural radioactivity?
Answer:
This phenomenon of spontaneous emission of radiation from certain elements on their own is called ‘natural radioactivity’.

Question 3.
Define Rutherford.
Answer:
It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which produces 106 disintegrations in one second.
1 Rd = 10⁶ disintegrations per second.

Question 4.
What is the unit of radioactivity? Define it.
Answer:
The SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel. It is defined as the quantity of one disintegration per second.

Question 5.
Define nuclear fission. State an example.
This process of breaking (splitting) up of a heavier nucleus into two smaller nuclei with the release of a large amount of energy and a few neutrons is called ‘nuclear fission’.
Eg: Nuclear fission of a uranium nucleus (U²³⁵)
₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₆Ba¹⁴¹ + ₃₆Kr⁹² + 3₀n¹ + Q (energy)

Question 6.
How a product nucleus is identified in a nuclear reaction?
Answer:
In a nuclear reaction, the element formed as the product nucleus is identified by the atomic number of the resulting nucleus and not by its mass number.

Question 7.
What is fissile material?
Answer:
A fissionable material is a radioactive element, which undergoes fission in a sustained manner when it absorbs a neutron. It is also termed as ‘fissile material’.
Eg: U²³⁵, plutonium (Pu²³⁹ and Pu²⁴¹)

Question 8.
What are fertile materials? Mention examples.
Answer:
There are some radioactive elements, which can be converted into fissionable material. They are called as fertile materials.
Eg: Uranium – 238, Thorium – 232, Plutonium – 240.

Question 9.
What is the composition of natural uranium?
Answer:
Natural uranium consists of 99.28 % of ₉₂U²³⁸ and 0.72 % of ₉₂U²³⁵.

Question 10.
What is nuclear fusion? State an example.
Answer:
The process in which two lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is termed as ‘nuclear fusion’.
Eg: ₁H² + ₁H² → ₂He⁴ + Q (Energy)

Question 11.
What is meant by chain reaction?
Answer:
A chain reaction is a self-propagating process in which the number of neutrons goes on multiplying rapidly almost in a geometrical progression.

Question 12.
What is meant by mass defect?
Answer:
The mass of the daughter nucleus formed during a nuclear reaction (fission and fusion) is lesser than the sum of the masses of the two parent nuclei. This difference in mass is called mass defect.

Question 13.
Nuclear fusion is named as thermonuclear reaction. Why?
Answer:
Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of 10⁷ to 10⁹ K and a high pressure to push the hydrogen nuclei closer to fuse with each other. Hence, it is named as ‘Thermonuclear reaction’.

Question 14.
What are the uses of radio isotopes in industries?
Answer:

1. An isotope of californium (Cf²⁵²) is used in the airlines to detect the explosives in the luggage.
2. An isotope of Americium (Am²⁴¹) is used in many industries as a smoke detector.

Question 15.
What is the age of Earth?
Answer:
It is nearly 4.54 × 10⁹ years (around 45 Crore 40 lakh years).

Question 16.
What do you know about dosimeter?
Answer:
Dosimeter is a device used to detect the levels of exposure of an ionizing radiation.

Question 17.
What is the function of moderator in a nuclear reactor?
Answer:
A moderator is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are the commonly used moderators.

Question 18.
How do coolants function in a nuclear reactor?
Answer:
A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to produce steam. This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity. Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.

Question 19.
Name some operating reactors in India.
Answer:
Cirus, Dhuruva and Pumima.

Question 20.
Define Curie.
Answer:
Curie is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which undergoes 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations in one second. This is actually close to the activity of 1 g of radium-226.

IX. Answer the following question in detail.

Question 1.
Write short notes on induced radioactivity.
Answer:
The phenomenon by which even light elements are made radioactive, by artificial or induced methods, is called ‘artificial radioactivity’ or ‘man-made radioactivity’.

This kind of radioactivity was discovered by Irene Curie and F.Joliot in 1934. Artificial radioactivity is induced in certain lighter elements like boron, aluminium etc., by bombarding them with radiations such as ‘alpha particles’ emitted during the natural radioactivity of uranium. This also results in the emission of invisible radiations and elementary” particles. During such a disintegration, the nucleus which undergoes disintegration is called ‘parent nucleus’ and that which is produced after the disintegration is called a ‘daughter nucleus’. The panicle, which is used to induce the artificial disintegration is termed as projectile and the particle which is produced after the disintegration is termed as ejected panicle. When the projectile hits the parent nucleus, it is converted into an unstable nucleus, which in turn decays spontaneously emitting the daughter nucleus along with an ejected particle.

If you denote the parent and daughter nuclei as X and Y respectively, then the nuclear disintegration is represented as follows: X (P,E) Y. Here, P and E represent the projectile particle and ejected particle respectively.
₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → ₆C^13*
₆C^13* → ₆C¹² + ₀n¹
In the above nuclear reaction, ₆C^13* is unstable and is radioactive. This reaction can be represented as ₄Be⁹ (α, n) ₄C¹²
₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → ₆C¹² + ₀n¹

Question 2.
Explain the concept of ‘Hydrogen bomb’.
Answer:
Hydrogen Bomb:

• This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to a Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fusion.
• A hydrogen bomb is always designed to have an inbuilt atom bomb which creates the high temperature and pressure required for fusion when it explodes.
• Fusion takes place in the hydrogen core and leads to the release of a very large amount of energy in an uncontrolled manner.
• The energy released in a hydrogen bomb (or fusion bomb) is much higher than that released in an atom bomb (or fission bomb).

Question 3.
Explain
(i) alpha decay,
(ii) Beta decay,
(iii) gamma decay
Answer:
(i) Alpha decay : A nuclear reaction in which an unstable parent nucleus emits an alpha particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus, is called, ‘alpha decay’.
Eg: Decay of uranium (U²³⁸) to thorium (Th²³⁴) with the emission of an alpha particle.
₉₂U²³⁸ → ₉₀Th²³⁴ + ₂He⁴ (α – decay)
In α – decay, the parent nucleus emits an a particle and so it is clear that for the daughter nucleus, the mass number decreases by four and the atomic number decreases by two.

(ii) Beta decay : A nuclear reaction, in which an unstable parent nucleus emits a beta particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus, is called ‘beta decay’.
Eg: Beta decay of phosphorous.
₁₅P³² → ₁₆S³² + _-1e⁰(β – decay)
In β – decay there is no change in the mass number of the daughter nucleus but the atomic number increases by one. In a nuclear reaction, the element formed as the product nucleus is identified by the atomic number of the resulting nucleus and not by its mass number.

(iii) Gamma decay: In a γ – decay, only the energy level of the nucleus changes. The atomic number and mass number of the radioactive nucleus remain the same.

Question 4.
What is the principle of atom bomb? Describe its structure.
Answer:
The atom bomb is based on the principle of uncontrolled chain reaction. In an uncontrolled chain reaction, the number of neutrons and the number of fission reactions multiply almost in a geometrical progression. This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to an explosion.

Structure : An atom bomb consists of a piece of fissile material whose mass is subcritical. This piece has a cylindrical void. It has a cylindrical fissile material which can fit into this void and its mass is also subcritical. When the bomb has to be exploded, this cylinder is injected into the void using a conventional explosive. Now, the two pieces of fissile material join to form the supercritical mass, which leads to an explosion. The structure of an atom bomb.

During this explosion tremendous amount of energy in the form of heat, light and radiation is released. A region of very high temperature and pressure is formed in a fraction of a second along with the emission of hazardous radiation like y rays, which adversely affect the living creatures. This type of atom bombs were exploded in 1945 at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan during the World War II.

Question 5.
What precautions are to he took for those, who are working in radiation laboratories?
Answer:

1. Radio – Iodine (I¹³¹) is used to cure goitre.
2. Radioactive materials should be kept in a thick-walled lead container.
3. Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used while working with hazardous radioactive materials.
4. We should avoid eating while handling radioactive materials.
5. The radioactive materials should be handled only by tongs or by a remote control device.
6. Dosimeters should be worn by the users to check the level of radiation.

Question 6.
What do you know about hydrogen bomb?
Answer:
Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fusion. A hydrogen bomb is always designed to have an inbuilt atom bomb which creates the high temperature and pressure required for fusion when it explodes. Then, fusion takes place in the hydrogen core and leads to the release of a very large amount of energy in an uncontrolled manner. The energy released in a hydrogen bomb (or fusion bomb) is much higher than that released in an atom bomb (or fission bomb).

Question 7.
What are the applications of radio isotopes in medicine?
Answer:
Medical applications of radio isotopes can be divided into two parts:

1. Diagnosis
2. Therapy

Radio isotopes are used as tracers to diagnose the nature of circulatory disorders of blood, defects of bone metabolism, to locate tumors, etc., Some of the radio isotopes which are used as tracers are: hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, etc.

1. Radio-sodium (Na²⁴) is used for the effective functioning of heart.
2. Radio-Iodine (I¹³¹) is used to cure goiter.
3. Radio-iron is (Fe⁵⁹) is used to diagnose anaemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
4. Radio-phosphorous (P³²) is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
5. Radio-cobalt (Co⁶⁰) and
6. Radio-gold (Au¹⁹⁸) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
7. Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.

Question 8.
Mention the applications of radio isotopes in agriculture and industries and archeological research.
Answer:
Agriculture : The radio isotope of phosphorous (P-32) helps to increase the productivity of crops. The radiations from the radio isotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites and prevent the wastage of agricultural products. Certain perishable cereals exposed to radiations remain fresh beyond their normal life, enhancing the storage time. Very small doses of radiation prevent sprouting and spoilage of onions, potatoes and gram.

Industries : In industries, radioactive isotopes are used as tracers to detect any manufacturing defects such as cracks and leaks. Packaging faults can also be identified through radio activity. Gauges, which have radioactive sources are used in many industries to check the level of gases, liquids and solids.

1. An isotope of californium (Cf ²⁵²) is used in the airlines to detect the explosives in the luggage.
2. An isotope of Americium (Am²⁴¹) is used in many industries as a smoke detector.

Archeological research : Using the technique of radio carbon dating, the age of the Earth, fossils, old paintings and monuments can be determined. In radio carbon dating, the existing amount of radio carbon is determined and this gives an estimate about the age of these things.

Question 9.
Compare the features of nuclear fission with nuclear fusion.
Answer:

Question 10.
Mention the preventive measures to be followed while working with radioactive materials.
Answer:
Radioactive materials should be kept in a thick walled lead container.

1. Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used while working with hazardous radioactive materials.
2. You should avoid eating while handling radioactive materials.
3. The radioactive materials should be handled only by tongs or by a remote control device.
4. Dosimeters should be worn by the users to check the level of radiation.

Question 11.
Write a note on nuclear power plants in India.
Answer:
Indian Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) was established in August 1948 by the Department of Indian Scientific Research committee at Bombay (now Mumbai) in Maharashtra. It is the nodal agency for all the research done in the field of atomic energy. Dr. Homi Jahangir Bhaba was the first chairman of Indian Atomic Energy Commission. Now, it is known as Bhaba Atomic Research Centre (BARC).

Nuclear power is the fifth largest source of power in India. Tarapur Atomic Power Station is India’s first nuclear power station. Now, there are a total of seven power stations, one each in Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and two in Tamilnadu. In Tamilnadu, we have nuclear power stations in Kalpakkam and Kudankulam. Apsara was the first nuclear reactor built in India and Asia. Now, there are 22 nuclear reactors which are operating in India. Some other operating reactors are

1. Cirus
2. Dhuruva
3. Pumima

Question 12.
Distinguish (i) atom bomb from Nuclear reactor,
(ii) Nuclear fission from Nuclear fusion.
Answer:
(i) atom bomb from nuclear reactor:

(ii) Nuclear fission from Nuclear fusion

X. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
A neutron is most effective as bulet in nuclear reactions. Why?
Answer:
This is because a neutron carries no charge. It can hit the nucleus directly without being repelled or attracted by the nucleus or electrons.

Question 2.
Why is \({ _{ 92 } }U^{ 238 }\) not suitable for chain reaction?
Answer:
Only fast-moving neutrons of 12 MeV can cause fission of \({ _{ 92 } }U^{ 238 }\) nuclei. But such neutron has fewer chances of interaction. They escape the fissionable material without causing fission.

Question 3.
Why cadmium is used as control rods in the nuclear reactor?
Answer:
As Cadmium has a high cross section for absorption of neutrons, cadmium is used as control rod.

Question 4.
Why is nuclear fusion not possible in a laboratory (or) Why is nuclear fusion difficult to carry out?
Answer:
Nuclear fusion requires a very high temperature of 10⁶ – 10⁷ K. This temperature is attained by causing an explosion due to the fission process. Moreover, no solid container can withstand such a high temperature.

Question 5.
Why is the penetrating power of a – particle is less than that of β – particle?
Answer:
Ionising power is directly proportional to kinetic energy that varies directly as mass of particle and square of its velocity. Hence ionising power of an alpha particle is more than that of β particle.

Question 6.
Why heavy water is used to slow down the fast moving neutrons?
Answer:
Since heavy water (D₂O) is rich in hydrogen, it is used to slow down the fast moving neutrons.

Question 7.
The penetrating power of α – particle is less than that of β – particle – Why?
Answer:
(i) Penetrating power varies inversely as mass of the particle. But mass of alpha particles is very much greater than mass of beta particles.
(ii) Hence, penetrating power of α – particle is less than that of β – particles.

Question 8.
What are the units of activity of radio active elements?
Answer:
1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations / second
1 rutherford = 10⁶ disintegrations / second

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………….. was the pioneer of social Reformers in India.
(a) C. W. Damotharanar
(b) Periyar
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 2.
…………… established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W.Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Question 3.
…………….. was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement.
(a) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(a) Kudi Arasu

Question 4.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by ………………
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 5.
…………….. founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M.C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in ………….
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
Answer:
(a) 1918

Question 7.
…………….. was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government officials.
(a) Staff Selection Board
(b) Public Service Commission
(c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board
(d) Staff Selection Commission
Answer:
(a) Staff Selection Board

Question 8.
……………. was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in Madras Province.
(a) M. C. Rajah
(b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(c) T.M. Nair
(d) P. Varadarajulu
Answer:
(a) M. C. Rajah

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… was the first non-European language that went into print.
2. The College of Fort St. George was founded by ………………
3. ……………… is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
4. ……………… was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.
5. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as ………………
6. ……………… gave prominence to Tamil music.
7. The first Woman Legislator in India was

Answers:

1. Tamil
2. F.W. Ellis
3. Maraimalai Adigal
4. Justice Party Government
5. Parithimar Kalaignar
6. Abraham Pandithar
7. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru. V. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement.
(a) (i) and (1%) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) anA (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women’s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers or Rationalists Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Hindu Mahasabha.
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival of Brahmins from the North.
(a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in Government from 192CE1937 in Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation

Question 4.
Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the provinces.
(a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are right
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are right

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Tamil Renaissance.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance. Tamil language and culture played a significant role in their identity construction. The introduction of printing press, linguistic research on Dravidian languages, etc., underpinned the process of Tamil renaissance.

Tamil was the first non-European language that went into print. In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics. This provided the Tamil people with a revelation about their heritage. Therefore, the rediscovery of ancient classics and their publication is considered the foundation of Tamil renaissance.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Answer:

1. In 1816, F. W. Ellis who founded the College of Fort St. George, formulated the theory that the south Indian languages belonged to a separate family which was unrelated to the Indo – Aryan family of languages.
2. Robert Caldwell (1814-1891) expanded this argument in a book titled. A comparative grammar of the Dravidian (or) South Indian family of languages in 1856.
3. He established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.

Question 3.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar, F.W. Ellis, Robert Caldwell, Subramania Bharati, Thiru Vi. Kalyanasundaram, Singaraveiar, PanditViar lyotheethassar, Sundaram Pillar and Maraimalai Adigal.

Question 4.
Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justicite Ministry.
Answer:

1. The Justice Party further concentrated on reforms in religious institutions.
2. Tamil Nadu has a large number of temples and these commanded huge resources.
3. In general, the resources were monopolised and exploited by the ‘ dominant caste in the society and led to mismanagement of public resources.
4. The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment (HRE) Act in 1926 and enabled any individual irrespective of their caste affiliation to become a member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 5.
What do you know of the Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam incident?
Answer:
A Gurukulam was established in Cheranmahadevi by V.V.S. Iyer with the financial support of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee. However, students were discriminated on the basis of caste. Brahmin and non-Brahmin students were made to dine separately. Periyar was disturbed to see the discrimination. He questioned the practice, and severely criticized it. Despite his objections, Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam. This disappointed Periyar.

Question 6.
Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal Foundation.
Answer:
Dravidian in Tamil, Justice in English and Andra Prakasika in Telugu to propagate ideals of the Party.

Question 7.
Estimate Periyar as a feminist
Answer:
Periyar was a great feminist. He believed in gender equality and raised voice over the plight of women. He emphasized on women’s right to divorce and property. He objected the terms like “giving in marriage”. This, he said, treats woman as a thing. He wanted it to substitute by “valkaithunai,” (companion) a word for marriage taken from the Tirukkural. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved ? He believed that property rights for women would provide them a social status and protection. He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption.

Question 8.
Explain the proceedings of All India Trade Union Congress Conference held in 1920.
Answer:

1. The first All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) was held on 31st October 1920 in Bombay. The delegates discussed several resolutions.
2. These included a demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes, the maintenance of an unemployment register restriction on exporting food stuffs, compensation for injuries and health insurance.
3. In addition, the delegates demanded that Indian workers be given some representation in the Government just as empolyers had representatives on legislative councils.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Periyar e.v.r

(a) When did Periyar founded the Dravidar Kazhagam?
Answer:
Periyar founded the Dravidar Kazhagam in the year 1944.

(b) What were the Newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
Answer:
Kudi Arasu (Democracy) (1925) Revolt (1928) Puratchi Revolution (1933) Paguth tharivu (Rationalism) (1934) and Viduthalai (Liberation) (1935).

(c) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
Answer:

1. In the name of caste dharma the “lower caste” people were denied access to the temples and the streets surrounding the temple.
2. In Vaikom Catown in the then princely state of Travancore and in present day Kerala, people protest against this practice.
3. People hailed him as Vaikom Virar (Hero of Vaikom) because Periyar led the movement and was imprisoned.

(d) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
Periyar’s most important work on this subject is why the women is enslaved?

Question 2.
Labour Movement in Tamil Nadu

(a) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras.
Answer:
The factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras are

• Retrenchment of workers at the end of the First World War.
• Nationalists’ support to the cause of labour.

(b) Identify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
Answer:
Three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union are B.P. Walia, M. Singaravelar and Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram.

(c) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
Answer:
The first All India Trade Union Conference was held in Bombay.

(d) Who organized the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which year?
Answer:
M. Singaravelar organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras in 1923.

Question 3.
Maraimalai adigal

(a) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigai wrote commentaries.
Answer:
Maraimalai Adigai wrote commentaries on the sangam texts Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.

(b) Name the Journal where he worked as a young man.
Answer:
Siddhanta Deepika.

(c) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
Answer:
He promoted the use of pure Tamil words, impact on Tamil culture especially in language and literature.

(d) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
Maraimalai Adaigal’s teachers such as P. Sundaranar and Somasundra Nayagar were key influences in his life.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19fh Century.
Answer:
(i) In Tamil Nadu, the proliferation of the printing press acted as a catalyst for the publication and spread of secular ancient Tamil literature.

(ii) In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics.

(iii) C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance.

(iv) The transformation not only revived Tamil language and literature but also Tamil culture. It challenged the prevailed caste hierarchy and influenced the rise of Dravidian consciousness and established Tamil as a language of the Dravidian people.

(v) Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of Brahminism. These developments were reflected in art, literature, religion, etc.

Question 2.
Describe the background for the formation of the Justice Party and point put its contribution to the cause of social justice.
Answer:

1. As World War -1 was in progress the British Government was considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the War.
2. Fearing that such political reforms would further strengthen the political power of Brahmins, educated Non – Brahmins decided to organise themselves politically.
3. On 20th, November 1916 around 30 prominent Non – Brahmin leaders including Dr. C. Natesanar Sir, Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal came together to form the South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF).

Programme and Activities:

1. The Justice Party is the fountain head of the Non – Brahmin Movement in the country.
2. The Justicite removed the legal hindrances restricting inter – caste marriages and broke the barriers that prevented Depressed Classes from the use of public wells and tanks.
3. Hostels were established for the students belonging to this social group in 1923.
4. The Justice Party Government was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics in (1921)
5. The Justice Party worked towards legislating provisions for communal representation reservations for various communities.
6. The Justice Party rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of Government officials and encouraged all the communities to share the administrative powers.
7. In 1929, the Government of British India adopted the pattern and established the Public Service Commission.
8. The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment (HRE) Act in 1926 and enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become a member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 3.
Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Periyar was a great social reformer. His contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu is really praise worthy.
(i) He launched ‘Temple entry’ movement to provide the lower caste people easy access to the temples.

(ii) He also started the Self-Respect movement in 1925, with the determination that there ought to be ‘no God; no religion; no Gandhi; no Congress; and no Brahmins’.

(iii) Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child marriage and the Devadasi system. Right from 1929, when the Self-Respect conference began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising on women’s right to divorce and property.

(iv) He advocated atheism as a mode of critique to deconstruct the established practices of faith, culture and custom. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.

(v) He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption. He was strong champion of birth control and contraception.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to distinguish between Labour Movement and Trade Union Movement. Project work on the activities of local trade union organisations may be done by students.
Answer:
Distinguish between Labour Movement and Trade Movement.

Labour Movement:

1. It is a political movement campaigning to improve the rights and conditions of the working people.
2. If originated in U.S.A focussing on rights, interests and protection of employees.
3. Labour movement generally work for better wages, reasonable working hours and safer working conditions.

Trade union Movement:

1. It is an association of workers forming a legal unit to improve their status by united action.
2. It originated in Great Britain focussing to protect and promote the welfare of the employees.
3. Trade Union Movement regulate employer – employee relationship and generally work for better wages, reasonable working hours and safer working conditions.

Activities of a local trade union: Students should visit with few of their classmates (with prior permission from the subject teacher and school authorities and parents) to visit a nearby industry where trade unions are organised by the workers.

They have to meet the trade, union leader and gather information on the activities performed by them in the factory. The collected information should be written down neatly and submit to the subject teacher.

Eg: In general, the following are the few activities performed by the trade union.

1. Negotiate wages.
2. Regulate relationship between workers (employees) and the employers.
3. Raise demand for new uniform, or safer working condition, pure drinking water, sanitary facilities etc.,
4. Protect the workers against discrimination.
5. Protect the workers from exploitation.

Question 2.
Students can compile the activities of the local writers’ associations or women’s collectives.
Answer:
Local writers Association/women collectives: Students should find people who are writers and they write scripts for audio formats, digital media (or) T.V or screenwriters for films. Later, students can collect information about their.

1. Name of their Association.
2. Location.
3. Job site.
4. Nature of work.
5. Year of joining the Association
6. Membership fee
7. Total no. of members
8. Usefulness being the member

and submit in this format to the subject teacher. If students can find women organised themselves as a group, in the above-mentioned format can be used for that also. Eg: Women collectives (self-help group)

They work for their betterment together as a group (Sua Udavi Kuzhu).

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
………………. is also identified as the Indian renaissance.
(a) Historical development
(b) Political development
(c) Economic development
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Historical development

Question 2
Periyar transformed the justice Party into ………….
(a) Akali Dal
(b) Dravidar kazhagam
(c) Swarajya
Answer:
(b) Dravidar kazhagam

Question 3.
The basic inspiration of renaissance is:
(a) Knowledge
(b) Humanism
(c) Painting
(d) Transition
Answer:
(b) Humanism

Question 4.
Vaikom is a place in ……………
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 5.
The introduction of ………………. on Dravidian languages are underpinned the Process of tamil renaissance
(a) Printing press
(b) linguistic research
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) knowledge
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
The Justice Party was established in 1916 by ……………
(a) Periyar
(b) Anna
(c) C. Natesanar, Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal
Answer:
(c) C. Natesanar, Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal

Question 7.
In which year Thirukkural, Tamil literary text to be published?
(a) 1810
(b) 1805
(c) 1808
(d) 1812
Answer:
(d) 1812

Question 8.
Self Respect Movement was started in the year …………….
(a) 1927
(b) 1925
(c) 1930
Answer:
(b) 1925

Question 9.
Who was collected and edited different palm – leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammerand literature?
(a) U.V. Swaminathar
(b) C.W. Damotharanar
(c) Meenakshi Sundaranar
(d) P. Sundaranar
Answer:
(b) C.W. Damotharanar

Question 10.
Devadasi system was abolished by …………..
(a) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy
(b) Ramamirdhan
(c) Dr. S. Dharmambal
Answer:
(a) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy

Question 11.
………………. was popularly known as Vallalar.
(a) Ramalinga Adigal
(b) Parithimar Kalaignar
(c) Thiru.Vi. Ka
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(a) Ramalinga Adigal

Question 12.
Whose name is associated with the ‘Self-Respect’ movement?
(a) Muthulakshmi Reddy
(b) Rajaji
(c) Rettimalai Srinivasan
(d) Periyar
Answer:
(d) Periyar

Question 13.
Who was the first to argue that Tamil is a classical languages?
(a) Parithimar Kalaignar
(b) Maraimalai Adigal
(с) E.V. Ramasamy
(d) M. Singaravelar
Answer:
(a) Parithimar Kalaignar

Question 14.
Whose efforts led to the abolition of the devadasi system?
(a) Muthulakshmi Reddy
(b) Muvalur Ramamirtham
(c) M.C. Rajah
(d) Periyar
Answer:
(a) Muthulakshmi Reddy

Question 15.
Which organisation focused on educating and supporting Non – Brahmin graduates?
(a) Madras Dravidian Association
(b) Tani Tamil Iyakkam
(c) Tamil Isai Iyakkam
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Madras Dravidian Association

Question 16.
Who was the founder of Tani Tamil Iyakkam? (Pure Tamil Movement).
(a) M. Singaravelar
(b) Parithimar Kalaignar
(c) Ramalinga Adigal
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(d) Maraimalai Adigal

Question 17.
In which year Non – Brahmin Manifesto was released?
(a) 1905
(b) 1910
(c) 1912
(d) 1916
Answer:
(d) 1916

Question 18.
In which year the Congress contested the electron for the first time?
(a) 1930
(b) 1933
(c) 1935
(d) 1937
Answer:
(d) 1937

Question 19.
In which year Justice Party Government was the firstto approval participation of women in the electrol politics?
(a) 1910
(b) 1915
(c) 1919
(d) 1921
Answer:
(d) 1921

Question 20.
Which Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment? (HRE)
(a) The Justice Party
(b) The Congress Party
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) The Justice Party

Question 21.
Who was the founder of the Self – Respect Movement?
(a) E.V. Ramasamy
(b) Rajaji
(c) Rettaimalai
(d) none
Answer:
(a) E.V. Ramasamy

Question 22.
In which year Rettaimalai Srinivasan was born?
(a) 1849
(b) 1852
(c) 1855
(d) 1859
Answer:
(d) 1859

Question 23.
Who was one of the prominent leaders from the “depressed class”?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) M.C. Rajah
(c) Rajaji
(d) none
Answer:
(b) M.C. Rajah

Question 24.
Who was a pioneer in the labour movement activities?
(a) M. Singaravelar
(b) M.C. Rajah .
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Rajaji
Answer:
(a) M. Singaravelar

Question 25.
Who was in the forefront of the campaign pressing for legislation to abolish Devadasi system?
(a) Nagammai
(b) Dr. Muthulakshmi
(c) Rukmani
(d) Neelambikai
Answer:
(b) Dr. Muthulakshmi

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. traditions were treated as primitive.
2. ………………. was portrayed as conservative.
3. ………………. brought changes in the socio – cultural life of the Indian sub – continent.
4. Manonmaniam written by ……………….
5. Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of ……………….
6. ………………. an early pioneer in Buddhist revival promoted communism and socialism.
7. ………………. worked in a Journal Siddhanta Deepika.
8. ………………. held high in the radical philosophy.
9. ………………. complied a dictionary that provide pure Tamil equivalent to Sanskirt.
10. The Madras Non – Brahmins Association was founded in ……………….
11. ………………. founded the Madras United League.
12. ………………. won the election and formed the first ever Indian Cabinet in Madras.
13. ………………. later renamed as Madras Dravidian Association to support Dravidian uplift.
14. ………………. became the chief minister of the Madras Presidency during (1920-26).
15. ………………. is the fountain head of the Non – Brahmin Movement in the country.
16. In 1929, the Government of ………………. adopted the pattern and established the public service commission.
17. ………………. proposed a resolution regarding the rights of “Untouchables” to temple entry.
18. ………………. demand for a separate electorates for scheduled castes.
19. ………………. The Chief Minister of Madras State (1952 – 54) introduced to vocational training.
20. ………………. wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.
21. ………………. who had worked for the the progress of the deprived castes.
22. The first All India Trade Union (AITUC) was held in ……………….
23. ………………. demanded abolition of untouchability.
24. ………………. was a pioneer in the Labour Movement Activities.
25. The first Tamil Isai conference was held in ……………….
26. ………………. was one of the important objectives of the Self – Respect Movement.
27. ………………. formed the All India Women’s Conference (AlWC).
28. The Madras ………………. was enacted by the Government.
29. ………………. founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidhya Mahajana Sangam.
30.  ………………. published a Tamil Newspaper Thozhilalan (Worker).

Answers:

1. Indigenous
2. Indian society
3. The rise of Humanism
4. P. Sundaranar
5. Brahminism
6. M. Singaravelar
7. Maraimalai Adigal
8. E.V. Ramasamy
9. Neelambikai
10. 1909
11. C. Natesanar
12. The Justice Party
13. Madras United League
14. A. Subbarayalu
15. The Justice Party
16. British India
17. Periyar
18. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
19. Rajaji
20. Periyar
21. Rettaimalai Srinivasan
22. Bombay
23. M.C. Rajah
24. M. Singaravelar
25. 1943
26. Women’s Liberation
27. Women’s India Association (WIA)
28. Devadasis Act
29. Abraham Pandithar
30. M. Singaravelar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm-leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar.
(ii) Ramalinga Adigal gave prominence to Tamil music.
(iii) Maraimalai Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskirt influence from the Tamil language.
(iv) Muvalur Ramamirtham to became the first women legislator in India in 1926.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Justice Party Rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of Government officials.
(ii) Periyar had a close relationship with Singaravelar who is considered the first communist of South India.
(iii) The anti – Hindi agitation (1932 -1936) had a big impact on Tamil Nadu’s politics.
(iv) Rettaimalai Srinivasan criticised it as Kula Kalvi Thittam and opposed it tooth and nail.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Periyar was keen on the introduction of reservation in representative bodies such as the legislative council for Non – Brahmins.
(ii) All India Women’s Conference (AIWC) in 1937 to address the problem of Non – Brahmins.
(iii) The First World War (1912 -1920) provided stimulus to industrial growth ih India.
(iv) Women’s Liberation was one of the important objectives of Self – Respect Movement.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Rettaimalai Srinivasan who had experienced the horrors of untouchability worked for the progress of the deprive castes.
Reason (R): He served as president of the scheduled castes federations and the Madras Provincial Depressed Classes.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Periyar E.V. Ramasamy was the founder of the Self – Respect movement.
Reason (R): The movement was concerned with the marginalised sections of the society and criticised Brahminism and it advocated a casteless society.
(a) Both A and R are wrong.
(b) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 6.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 7.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 8.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (a)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What are the aims of Self Respect Movement?
Answer:

1. The Self Respect Movement condemned and fought against Brahmin domination over other castes, society, politics and religion.
2. It fought to abolish traditionalism and superstitions.
3. It advocated women education, widow remarriage, inter-caste marriages and opposed child marriage.

Question 2.
Explain about the basic inspiration of renaissance.
Answer:

1. The basic inspiration of renaissance is humanism and questioning the fundamentalist religious practices that denied humans their dignity.
2. This ideology of humanism stimulated creative energy in all spheres of social life and knowledge such as language, literature, philosophy, music, painting, architecture etc.

Question 3.
What were the causes for the failure of the Justice Party?
Answer:

1. The Justice Party came to power when the world was in economic depression.
2. The Nationalist Movement was popular and heading for freedom.
3. Caste and wealth played vital role. Hence the party lost its hold.
4. The rise of congress under the leadership of Ghandhi became a formidable challenge to Jus¬tice Party.

Question 4.
List out a few manuscripts of the Tamil grammar edited by C.W. Damotharanar and U.V. Swaminathar.
Answer:

1. C.W. Domotharanar collected and edited different palm – leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature.
2. His edition included such texts as Tholkappiyam, Viracholiyam, Iraiyanar Akapporul, Illakkana Villakkam, Kaliththokai, and Culamani.
3. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts such as Civakachinthamani, Paththupattu, Chilapathikaram, Purananuru, Purapporul – Venpa – Malai, Manimekalai, Ainkurunuru, and Pathitrupathu.

Question 5.
What was the different official positions hold by Periyar?
Answer:
Periyar held different official positions of Erode that included the chairmanship of Municipal Council, President of the Tamil Nadu Congress and President of the Justice Party.

Question 6.
What was the impact of Tamil language movement in the 20th century?
Answer:
In the 20th century Tamil language movement such as Tani Tamil Iyakkam and Tamil Isai Iyakkam made a significant cultural impact in creating a pure Tamil free from the influence of Sanskrit.

Question 7.
Discuss the work done by the Justice Party towards legislating provisions for communal representation?
Answer:
The Justice Party rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of government officials and encouraged ail the communities to share the administrative powers. This ensured equitable distribution in appointments among various castes and communities as a part of achieving social justice.

Question 8.
Whom was Women’s India Association (WIA) started and what was its work?
Answer:

1. Women’s India Association was started in 1917 by Annie Besant, Dorothy JinaraJadasa and Margaret cousins at Adyar Madras.
2. The Association published pamphlets and bulletins in different languages to detail the problems of personal hygiene, marriage laws, voting rights, child care and women’s role in the public.

Question 9.
Who initiated the Self-Respect movement? What was it about?
Answer:
The Self-Respect movement was initiated by Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy. The movement was concerned with the marginalised sections of the society and criticised Brahminism and the cultural hegemony of the Brahmins. It advocated a casteless society devoid of rituals and difference based on birth. The movement declared rationality and self-respect as the birthright of all human beings and held these as more important than self-rule.

Question 10.
Who worked hard to abolish the Devadasi system?
Answer:
Dr. Muthulakshmi ammaiyar, was in the forefront of the campaign pressing for a legislation to abolish the devadasis system.

The Madras Devasasis (prevention of Dedication) Act 1947 was enacted by the Government.

Question 11.
What was the devadasi system? Why was it abolished?
Answer:
The devadasi system was a custom of dedicating young girls to the Hindu temples as a servant of God. Though intended as a service to God, it soon got corrupted leading to extensive immorality and abuse of the women.

Muthulakshmi Reddi started a campaign pressing for a legislation to abolish this system. Finally, the Madras Devadasis (Prevention of Dedication) was enacted by the government in 1947.

Question 12.
What were the titles given to Rettaimalai Srinivasan?
Answer:
Rettaimalai Srinivasan was honoured with such titles as Rao Sahib (1926), Rao Bahadur (1930) and Divan Bahadur (1936) for his selfless social services.

VI. Answer the question given under each caption

Question 1.
Rise Of the Dravidian Movement

(a) In what situation the Dravidian movement emerged?
Answer:
The Dravidian movement emerged as a defence of the Non – Brahmins against the Brahmin dominance.

(b) When was Madras Non – Brahmin Association formed?
Answer:
In 1909.

(c) Who was founded the Madras United League?
Answer:
C. Natesanar, a medical doctor founded the Madras United League.

(d) What is the main aim of the organisation?
Answer:
The organisation focused on educating and supporting Non – Brahmin graduates and conducting regular meetings to share their grievances.

Question 2.
Self Respect Movement:

(a) Who started the Self Respect Movement?
Answer:
E.V. Ramaswamy Periyar started the self respect movement.

(b) Why did he start?
Answer:
He started it in order to spread and execute his ideas and policies.

(c) When was it started?
Answer:
It was started in 1925.

(d) Name the laws passed by the Government due to the constant struggle of Self Respect Movement.
Answer:
Widow Remarriage Act, Women’s Right to property Act and abolition of Devadasi Act.

Question 3.
M.G. rajah

(a) Who was popularly known as M.C. Rajah?
Answer:
Mylar Chinnathambi Raja, popularly known as M.C. Rajah.

(b) What was his demand?
Answer:
He demanded abolition of untouchability and organised a number of political meetings for the “Untouchable castes” to have access to public wells and pathways to burial grounds.

(c) In which year All India Depressed Classes Association was formed?
Answer:
In 1928.

(d) What was the terms he advocated?
Answer:
He advocated the use of such as terms Adi – Dravida and Adi – Andhra.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain briefly about the self- respect movement.
Answer:

1. The Self- Respect Movement introduced a programme of Non – Brahmin uplift in Tamil Nadu.
2. The movement was concerned with the marginalised sections the society and Criticised Brahminism and the cultural hegemony of the Brahmin.
3. It advocated a casteless society devoid of rituals and diffemeces based on birth.
4. The movement declared rationality and Self – Respect as the birth right of all human beings and held these as more important than self – rule.
5. The movement demanded women’s emancipations, deplored superstition and emphasised rationality.
6. The movement also advocated self – respect marriage.
7. The Self – Respect Movement championed not only the cause of the Non – Brahmin Hindus, but also that of the Muslims.
8. The Self Respect Movement extrolled the lofty principles of Islam such as equity and brotherhood.
9. Muslim elite considered the Tamil Muslims as Dravidian.
10. He wanted the Dravidian Muslim to follow Mustapha Kemal Pasha of Turkey and Amanullah of Afghanistan who initiated reforms in Islamic society.

Question 2.
Give an account of Labour Movements in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The first World War (1914 – 18) provided stimulus to industrial growth India.
2. These industries catering to war time needs, had employed a huge number of workers.
3. At the end of the War there were retrenchments across the industries as the War time requirements receded.
4. Combined with high prices, this gave a momentum to the labour movement.
5. The nationalist realising the value of organised labour power began to supported the cause of labour,
6. B.P. Wadia, M. Singaravelar, ThiruVi. Ka and others initiated the formation of labour unions in the Madras presidency.
7. In 1918 India’s first organised trade union the Madras Labour Union, was formed.
8. The first All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) was held on 31st October 1920 in Bombay.
9. These included a demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes, the maintenance of an unemployment register restriction on exporting food stuffs, compensation for injuries and health Insurance.
10. In addition, the delegates demanded that Indian workers be given some representation in the Government, just as employers, had representatives on legislative councils.
11. M. Singaravelar (1860 – 1946) was a pioneer in the Labour Movement activities in the Madras Presidency.
12. He organised the first over celebration of May Day in 1923.
13. He published a Tamil newspaper Thozhilalan (workers) to address the problem of the working class.

VIII. Draw a time line for the following

Question 1.
Write any five important events between 1905 -1927.
Answer:
Given period: 1905 – 1927

Question 2.
Write any five important events between 1920 -1930.
Answer:
Given period: 1920 – 1930

Question 3.
Write any five important events between 1930 -1947.
Answer:
Given period: 1930 – 1947

Question 4.
Write any five important events between 1931 -1945.
Answer:
Given period: 1931 – 1945

Question 5.
Write any five important events between 1937 -1947.
Answer:
Given period 1937 – 1947

Question 6.
Write any five important events between 1906 -1925.
Answer:
Given period: 1906 – 1925

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If {(a, 8),(6, b)} represents an identity function, then the value of a and b are respectively …………. .
(1) (8,6)
(2) (8,8)
(3) (6,8)
(4) (6,6)
Answer:
(1) (8,6)

Question 2.
If the H.C.F of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form of 65m -117, then the value of m is …………. .
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Answer:
(2) 2

Question 3.
In an A.P, the first term is 1 and the common difference is 4. How many terms of the A.P must be taken for their sum to be equal to 120?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Answer:
(3) 8

Question 4.
\(\frac{3 y-3}{y} \div \frac{7 y-7}{3 y^{2}}\) is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{9 y}{7}\)
(2) \(\frac{9 y^{3}}{(21 y-21)}\)
(3) \(\frac{21 y^{2}-42 y+21}{3 y^{3}}\)
(4) \(\frac{7\left(y^{2}-2 y+1\right)}{y^{2}}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{9 y}{7}\)

Question 5.
If the roots of the equation q²x² + p²x + r² = 0 are the squares of the roots of the equation qx² + px + r = 0, then q, p, r are in …………. .
(1) A.P
(2) G.P
(3) Both A.P and G.P
(4) none of these
Answer:
(2) G.P

Question 6.
The two tangents from an external points P to a circle with centre at O are PA and PB. If ∠APB = 70° then the value of ∠AOB is …………. .
(1) 100°
(2) 110°
(3) 120°
(4) 130°
Answer:
(2) 110°

Question 7.
A straight line has equation 8y = 4x + 21. Which of the following is true …………. .
(1) The slope is 0.5 and they intercept is 2.6
(2) The slope is 5 and the y intercept is 1.6
(3) The slope is 0.5 and the y intercept is 1.6
(4) The slope is 5 and they intercept is 2.6
Answer:
(1) The slope is 0.5 and they intercept is 2.6

Question 8.
A tower is 60 m height. Its shadow is x metres shorter when the sun’s altitude is 45° than when it has been 30° , then x is equal to …………. .
(1) 41.92 m
(2) 43.92 m
(3) 43 m
(4) 45.6 m
Answer:
(2) 43.92 m

Question 9.
A frustum of a right circular cone is of height 16 cm with radii of its ends as 8 cm and 20 cm. Then, the volume of the frustum is …………. .
(1) 3328π cm³
(2) 3228π cm³
(3) 3240π cm³
(4) 3340π cm³
Answer:
(1) 3328π cm³

Question 10.
If the standard deviation of x, y,zisp then the standard deviation of 3x + 5, 3y + 5, 3z + 5 is …………. .
(1) 3p + 5
(2) 3p
(3) p + 5
(4) 9p + 5
Answer:
(2) 3p

Question 11.
A purse contains 10 notes of ₹2,000, 15 notes of ₹500, and 25 notes of ₹200. One note is drawn at random. What is the probability that the note is either a ₹500 note or ₹200 note?
(1) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(2) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Question 12.
If f = {(6, 3) (8, 9) (5, 3) (-1, 6)} then the pre-images of 3 are …………. .
(1) 5 and -1
(2) 6 and 8
(3) 8 and -1
(4) 6 and 5
Answer:
(4) 6 and 5

Question 13.
If α and β are the roots of the equation x² + 2x + 8 = 0 then the value of \(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}+\frac{\beta}{\alpha}\) is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(2) 6
(3) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(4) \(\frac{-3}{2}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{-3}{2}\)

Question 14.
If x – y = 3 and x + 2y = 6 are the diameters of a circle then the centre is at the point …………. .
(1) (0,0)
(2) (1,2)
(3) (4, 1)
(4) (1,-1)
Answer:
(3) (4, 1)

PART-II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Let X = {3, 4, 6, 8}. Determine whether the relation
R = {(x, f(x)) |x ∈ X, f(x) = x² + 1} is a function from X to N?
Answer:
f(x) = x² + 1
f(3) = 3² + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10
f(4) = 4² + 1 = 16 + 1 = 17
f(6) = 6² + 1 = 36 + 1 = 37
f(8) = 8² + 1 = 64 + 1 = 65
ves. R is a function from X to N.

Question 16.
Find k if fof f(k) = 5 where f(k) = 2k – 1.
Answer:
fof(k) = f(f(k))
= 2(2k – 1) – 1 = 4k – 3
Thus, fof(k) = 4k – 3
But, it is given that fof (k) = 5
Therefore 4k – 3 = 5 ⇒ k = 2.

Question 17.
Find the least positive value of x such that 98 = (x + 4) mod 5
Answer:
98 ≡ (x + 4) (mod 5)
98 – (x + 4) = 5n , for some integer n.
94 – x = 5n
94 – x is a multiple of 5.
Therefore, the least positive value of x must be 4
Since 94 – 4 = 90 is the nearest multiple of 5 less than 94.

Question 18.
If the first term of an infinite G.P. is 8 and its sum to infinity is \(\frac { 32 }{ 3 }\) then find the common ratio.
Answer:
Here a = 8, S_∞ = \(\frac{32}{3}\)
\(\frac{a}{1-r}=\frac{32}{3}\)
\(\frac{8}{1-r}=\frac{32}{3}\)
32 – 32r = 24 ⇒ 32 r = 8
r = \(\frac{8}{32}=\frac{1}{4}\)
Common ratio = \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 19.
Find the excluded values, of the expression \(\frac{x^{3}-27}{x^{3}+x^{2}-6 x}\)
Answer:
x³ – 27 = x³ – 3³
= (x – 3) (x² + x + 3)

x³ + x² – 6x = x(x² + x – 6) = x (x + 3) (x – 2)
\(\frac{x^{3}-27}{x^{3}+x^{2}-6}=\frac{(x-3)\left(x^{2}+x+3\right)}{x(x+3)(x-2)}\)
The expression \(\frac{(x-3)\left(x^{2}+x+3\right)}{x(x+3)(x-2)}\) is undefined
when x (x + 3) (x – 2) = 0
x = 0 or x + 3 = 0 or x – 2 = 0
x = 0 or x = -3 or x = 2
The excluded values are 0, -3 and 2

Question 20.
Find the square root of \(1+\frac{1}{x^{6}}+\frac{2}{x^{3}}\)
Answer:

Question 21.
Find x and y if \(x\left[ \begin{matrix} 4 \\ -3 \end{matrix} \right] +\quad y\left[ \begin{matrix} -2 \\ 3 \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 4 \\ 6 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:
\(x\left[ \begin{matrix} 4 \\ -3 \end{matrix} \right] +y\left[ \begin{matrix} -2 \\ 3 \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 4 \\ 6 \end{matrix} \right] \)
\(\left[ \begin{matrix} 4x \\ -3x \end{matrix} \right] +\left[ \begin{matrix} -2y \\ 3y \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 4 \\ 6 \end{matrix} \right] \)
4x – 2y = 4
(1) ⇒ 2x – y = 2
(2) ⇒ -3x + 3y = 6
-x + y = 2

Substitute the Value of x = 4 in (2)
-4 + y = 2
y = 2 + 4 = 6
The value of x = 4 and y = 6

Question 22.
Show that in a triangle, the medians are concurrent.
Answer:
Medians are line segments joining each vertex to the midpoint of the corresponding opposite sides. Thus medians are the cevians where D, E, F are midpoints of BC, CA and AB respectively.

Since D is a midpoint of BC, BD = DC so \(\frac{B D}{D C}\) = 1 ….. (1)
Since, E is a midpoint of CA, CE = EA so \(\frac{C E}{E A}\) = 1 ……. (2)
Since, F is a midpoint of AB, AF = FB so \(\frac{A F}{F B}\) = 1 ……. (3)
Thus, multiplying (1), (2) and (3) we get,
\(\frac{\mathrm{BD}}{\mathrm{DC}} \times \frac{\mathrm{CE}}{\mathrm{EA}} \times \frac{\mathrm{AF}}{\mathrm{FB}}\) = 1 × 1 × 1 = 1
And so, Ceva’s theorem is satisfied. Hence the Medians are concurrent.

Question 23.
A cat is located at the point(-6, -4) in xy plane. A bottle of milk is kept at (5, 11). The cat wish to consume the milk travelling through shortest possible distance. Find the equation of the path it needs to take its milk.
Answer:
Equation of the joining the point is

15(x + 6) = 11(y + 4)
15x + 90 = 11y + 44
15x – 11y + 90 – 44 = 0
15x – 11y + 46 = 0
The equation of the path is 15x – 11y + 46 = 0

Question 24.
If the circumference of a conical wooden piece is 484 cm then find its volume when its height is 105 cm.
Answer:
Circumference of the wooden piece = 484 cm
2πr = 484
2 × \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × r = 484 cm
r = \(\frac{484 \times 7}{2 \times 22}\)
r = 77 cm
Height of the wooden piece (h) = 105 cm
Volume of the conical wooden piect = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)πr²h cu. units
= \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{22}{7}\) × 77 × 77 × 105 cm³
= 22 × 11 × 77 × 35 cm³ = 652190 cm³
Volume of the wooden piece = 652190 cm³

Question 25.
The range of a set of data is 13.67 and the largest value is 70.08. Find the smallest value.
Answer:
Range R = 13.67
Largest value L = 70.08
Range R = L – S
13.67 = 70.08 – S
S = 70.08 – 13.67 = 56.41
Therefore, the smallest value is 56.41.

Question 26.
Three rotten eggs are mixed with 12 good ones. One egg is chosen at random. What is the probability of choosing a rotten egg?
Answer:
Number of good eggs = 12
Number of rotton eggs = 3
Totalnumberofeggs = 12 + 3 = 15
Sample space n (S) = 15
Let A be the event of choosirg a rotten egg
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{15}=\frac{1}{5}\)
The Probability is \(\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 27.
Form the quadratic equation whose roots are 3 + √7 ; 3 – √7
Answer:
Sum of the roots = 3 + √7 + 3 – √7
= 6
Product of the roots (3 + √7) (3 – √7 )
= 3² – (√7)²
= 9 – 7
= 2
The required equation is x² (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0
x² – (6)x + 2 = 0
x² – 6x + 2 = 0

Question 28.
If a cos θ – b sin θ = c, then prove that (a sin θ + b cos θ) = ±\(\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}-c^{2}}\)
Answer:
Given a cos θ – bsin θ = c
Squaring on both sides
(a cos θ – b sin θ)² = c²
a²cos²θ + b²sin²θ – 2 ab cosθ sinθ = c²
a² (1 – sin²θ) + b²(1 – cos²θ) – 2ab cos θ sin θ = c²
a² – a² sin² θ + b² – b²cos² θ – 2ab cos θ sin θ = c²
– a² sin ² θ – b² cos² θ – 2ab cos θ sin θ = – a² – b² + c²
a² sin ² θ + b² cos² θ + 2ab cos θ sin θ = + a² + b² – c²
(a sin θ + b cos θ)² = a² + b² – c²
a sin θ + b cos θ = ± \(\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}-c^{2}}\)
Hence it is proved.

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
A function f is defined by f(x) = 2x – 3
(i) find \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}\)
(ii) find x such that f(x) = 0.
(iii) find x such that f(x) = x.
(iv) find x such that f(x) = f( 1 – x).

Question 30.
If f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x and h(x) = 3x. Prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh

Question 31.
If S₁, S₂, S₃, ,…S_3m are the sums of n terms of m A.P.,s whose first terms are 1,2, 3, ……… m and whose common differences are 1, 3, 5 ,………. (2m – 1) respectively, then show that (S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ………. + S_m) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)mn(mn + 1)

Question 32.
In an A.P., sum of four consecutive terms is 28 and their sum of their squares is 276. Find the four numbers.

Question 33.
Simplify \(\frac{12 t^{2}-22 t+8}{3 t} \div \frac{3 t^{2}+2 t-8}{2 t^{2}+4 t}\)

Question 34.
The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 6 m more than twice of the shortest side. If the third side is 2 m less than the hypotenuse, find the sides of the triangle.

Question 35.
Find the equation of a straight line parallel to Y axis and passing through the point of intersection of the lines 4x + 5y = 13 and x – 8y + 9 = 0.

Question 36.
Two ships are sailing in the sea on either side of the lighthouse. The angles of depression of two ships as observed from the top of the lighthouse are 60° and 45° respectively.
If the distance between the ships is 200 \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}+1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\) meters, find the height of the lighthouse.

Question 37.
Nathan, an engineering student was asked to make a model shaped like a cylinder with two cones attached at its two ends. The diameter of the model is 3 cm and its length is 12 cm. If each cone has a height of 2 cm, find the volume of the model that Nathan made.

Question 38.
The rainfall recorded in various places of five districts in a week are given below.

Find its standard deviation.

Question 39.
A bag contains 5 white and some black balls. If the probability of drawing a black ball from the bag is twice the probability of drawing a white ball then find the number of black balls.

Question 40.
If A = \(\left( \begin{matrix} 3 & 2 & 0 \\ 1 & 4 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 5 \end{matrix} \right) \) show that A² – 7A + 10 I₃

Question 41.
Find the values of “a” and “b” given that p(x) = (x² + 3x + 2) (x² – 4x + a) g(x) = (x² – 6x + 9) (x²+ 4x + b) and their G.C.D. is (x + 2) (x – 3)

Question 42.
A container, open from the top made up of a metal sheet is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 16 cm with radii of its lower and upper ends as 8 cm and 20 cm respectively. Find the cost of milk which can completely fill the container at the rate of ₹ 40 per litre and the cost of metal sheet used if the costs ₹ 5 per 100 cm², (use π = 3.14)

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a tangent to the circle from the point P having radius 3.6 cm, and centre at O. Point P is at a distance 7.2 cm from the centre.

[OR]

(b) Construct a ∆PQR such that QR = 6.5 cm, ∠P = 60° and the altitude from P to QR is of length 4.5 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw a graph of y = 2x² + x – 6 and hence solve the 2x² + x – 10 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the graph of y = x² – 5x + 6 and hence solve x² – 5x + 6 = 0.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
To produce a displacement _______ is required.
(a) Acceleration
(b) Force
(c) velocity
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(b) Force

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power
(b) Rate of change of charge is current
(c) Rate of change of energy is current
(d) Rate of change of current is charge
Answer:
(b) Rate of change of charge is current

Question 3.
_______ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations.
(a) Lead oxide
(b) Iron
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(c) Lead

Question 4.
The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is _______.
(a) 16 g
(b) 18 g
(c) 32 g
(d) 17 g
Answer:
(d) 17 g

Question 5.
When pressure is increased at constant temperature the solubility of gases in liquid _______.
(a) No change
(b) increases
(c) Decreases
(d) No reaction
Answer:
(b) increases

Question 6.
The normal pH of human blood is _______.
(a) 7.4
(b) 0.74
(c) 7.04
(d) 70.4
answer:
(a) 7.4

Question 7.
Active transport involves _______.
(a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration
(b) expenditure of energy
(c) it is an uphill task
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenalin. The component causing this could be _______.
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curcumin
(d) Leptin
Answer:
(a) Nicotine

Question 9.
The segments of leech are known as _______.
(a) Metameres
(b) Proglottids
(c) Strobila
(d) Ganglion
Answer:
(a) Metameres

Question 10.
Vomiting centre is located in _______.
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Hypothalamus
Answer:
(c) Medulla oblongata

Question 11.
Which one of the following organ in man is not Vestigeal?
(a) Vermiform appendix
(b) Epiglottis
(c) Nictitating membrane
(d) Ear muscles
Answer:
(b) Epiglottis

Question 12.
Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of _______.
(a) Cow pea
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Cow pea

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define Raman Scattering.
Answer:
Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency”.

Question 14.
How does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
Answer:
An astronaut float in a space shuttle because both are in the state of weightlessness. Both are – experiencing equal acceleration towards earth as free fall bodies. Astronauts are not floating but falling freely.

Question 15.
Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:
Convex lens:

1. The lens which is thicker at the centre that at the edges.
2. It is called as converging lens.

Concave Lens:

1. The lens which is thinner at the centre than at the edges.
2. It is called as diverging lens.

Question 16.
State two condition necessary for rusting of iron.
Answer:

1. The presence of water and oxygen is essential for the rusting of iron.
2. Impurities in the iron, the presence of water vapour, acids, salts and carbon dioxide hastens rusting.

Question 17.
Define combination reaction.
Answer:
A chemical reaction in which 2 or more reactants combine to form a single product, the reaction is known as combination reaction.

Question 18.
Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
Answer:
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth inhibitor which regulate abscission and dormancy. It increases tolerance of plants to various kind of stress. Hence, it is called as stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants.

Question 19.
Distinguish between,
(а) Somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy.
(b) Undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
(a)
Somatic gene therapy:
Somatic gene therapy is the replacement of defective gene in somatic cells.

Germ line gene therapy:
Germ line gene therapy is the replacement of defective gene in germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b)
Undifferentiated cells:
The cells which have not become specialized are called undifferentiated cells.
Eg. Cells in early embryos

Differentiated cells:
The cells which have become specialised for doing certain job.
Eg. Nerve cell

Question 20.
What is Natural selection?
Answer:
During the struggle for existence, the organisms which can overcome the challenging situation, survive and adapt to the surrounding environment. Organism which are unable to face the challenges are unfit to survive and disappear. The process of selection of organisms with favourable variation is called as Natural selection.

Question 21.
What is Heparin?
Answer:
Heparin is an anticoagulating substance produced in leech by its salivary gland.

Question 22.
The refractive index of glass is 1.50, and the speed of light in air is 3 x 10⁸ ms^-1. Calculate the speed of light in glass.
Answer:

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
State the universal law of gravitation and derive its Mathematical expression.
Answer:

This law states that every other particle of matter in this universe attracts every other particle with a force. This force is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the centres of there masses. The direction of the force acts along the line joining the masses.

Derivation: Let m₁ and m₂ be the masses of two bodies A and B placed at r metre apart in space.
Force, F ∝ m₁ x m₂, F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)
On combining the above two expressions,

Where G is the universal gravitational constant. Its value is SI unit is 6.674 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2.

Question 24.
(i) What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
Answer:

• Myopia, also known as short sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of eye ball.
• Nearby objects can be seen clearly but distant objects Cannot be seen clearly.
• The focal length of the eye lens is reduced or the distance between eye lens and retina increases.
• Due to this, the image of distant objects are formed before the retina.

(ii) Draw a ray diagram, a ray is passing parallel to the optic axis of convex lens.
Answer:

Question 25.
(i) State Joule’s law of heating:
Answer:
H = I²RT
Joule’s law of heating states that the heat produces in any resistor is:

• Directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor.
• Directly proportional to the resistance of he resistor.
• Directly proportional to the lime for which the current is passing through the resistor.

(ii) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
Answer:

• It has high resistivity
• It has a high melting point
• It is not easily oxidized.

(iii) What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?
Answer:
The resistance decreases as the conductor is made thicker.
Reason: Resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross section A.
(i.e) R ∝ 1/A – here, A = πr²
Where, r is the radius which determines the thickness.

Question 26.
(i) (a) Identify the bond between H and F in HF molecule.
Answer:
The nature of bond in HF molecule is ionic.

(b) What property forms the basis of identification?
Answer:
Electronegativity

(c) How does the property vary in periods and in groups?
Answer:
Along the period, from left to right in the periodic table the electronegativity increases because of the increase in the nuclear charge which in turn attracts the electrons more strongly. On moving down a group, the electronegativity of the elements decreases because of the increased number of energy level.

(d) Name the acid that renders aluminium passive. Why?
Answer:
Dilute or concentrated nitric acid (HNO₃) renders aluminium passive. Because nitric acid does not attack aluminium but it renders aluminium passive due to the formation of an oxide film on its surface.

Question 27.
What are the methods preventing corrosion?
Answer:
(i) Alloying: The metals can be alloyed to prevent the process of corrosion. E.g: Stainless Steel.

(ii) Surface Coating: It involves application of a protective coating over the metal. It is the following types:

• Galvanization: It is the process of coating zinc on iron sheets by using electric current.
• Electroplating: It is the method of coating one metal over another metal by passing electric current.
• Anodizing: It is an electrochemical process that converts the metal surface into a decorative, durable and corrosion resistant. Aluminium is widely used for anodizing process.
• Cathodic Protection: It is the method of controlling corrosion of a metal surface protected is coated with the metal which is easily corrodible. The easily corrodible metal is called Sacrificial metal to act as anode ensuring cathodic protection.

Question 28.
What are the functions of the following?
(a) Thalamus (b) Hypothalamus (c) Cerebellum (d) Pons
Answer:
(a) Thalamus – acts as relay station
(b) Hypothalamus – Temperature control, thirst, hunger, urination, important link between nervous system and endocrine system.
(c) Cerebellum – Maintenance of posture and balance, co-ordinate voluntary, muscle activity
(d) Pons – Role in sleep – awake cycle

Question 29.
(a) Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
Answer:
In euploidy condition, the individual bears more than the usual number of diploid chromosomes.

1. Triploid plants (3n) and animals are typically sterile.
2. The tetraploid plants, (4n), often result in increased fruit and flower size.

(b) How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
Answer:
Artery:

1. Distributing vessel.
2. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary artery.
3. Arteries are made up of thick walls.
4. Deep location.

Vein:

1. Collecting vessel.
2. Veins carries deoxygenated blood except pulmonary vein.
3. Veins are made up of thin walls.
4. Superficial in location.

Question 30.
Write a short note on mesophyll.
answer:
The tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into:
(a) Palisade Parenchyma: It is found just below the upper epidermis. The cells are elongated. These cells have more number of chloroplasts. The cells do not have intercellular spaces and they take part in photosynthesis.

(b) Spongy Parenchyma: It is found below the palisade parenchyma tissue. Cells are almost spherical or oval and are irregularly arranged. Cells have intercellular spaces. It helps in gaseous exchange.

Question 31.
(a) Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
Answer:
Lung cancer, bronchitis, pulmonary tuberculosis, emphysema and hypoxia are some of the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.

(b) Name two make hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine rich maize hybrids which are developed in India.

Question 32.
(i) Write the application of echo.
Answer:

1. Some animals communicate with each other over long distance and also locate object by sending the sound signals and receiving the echo as reflected from targets.
2. The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.
3. Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.

(ii) Write the characteristics of hydrocarbons.
Answer:

• Lower hydrocarbons are gases at room temperature.
• Alkanes are least reactive where alkynes are most reactive due to presence triple bond.
• Alkanes are saturated whereas alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated.
• They are insoluble in water.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(i) Explain the construction of simple microscope and derive its magnification power.
Answer:
Simple Microscope: Simple microscope is a convex lens of short focal length. It is held near the eye to get enlarged image of small B’ objects.

Let an object (AB) of height ‘h’ is placed at a point within the principal focus (u < f ) of the convex lens and the observer’s eye is placed just behind the lens. As per this position the convex lens produces an erect, virtual and enlarged image (A’B’). The image formed in the same side of the object and the distance equal to the least distance of distinct vision (D).

Magnification power (M): Ratio of the height of the image produced by the microscope (h₂) to the original height of the object (h₁) is called Magnification.

Magnification can also be defined as the ratio of the distance of image (v) to the distance of object (u).

Since the image is virtual and erect; the magnification (M) is taken as positive,
In simple microscope,
When the image is formed at the near point
M = 1 + \(\frac{D}{f}\)
When the image is formed at infinity
M= \(\frac{D}{f}\)

(ii) Write the uses of simple microscope.
Answer:

• By watch repairers and jewellers.
• To read small letters clearly.
• TO observe parts of flower, insects etc.
• To observe finger prints in the field of forensic science.

[OR]

(b) Find the final temperature of a copper rod. Whose area of cross section changes from 10 m² to 11 m² due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 K)
Answer:
Given:
Area of copper rod, A = 10 m²
After expansion A₂ = 11 m²
Initial temperature T₁ = 90K
Coefficient of superficial expansion α_A= 0.0021/K
Final temperature, T₂ = ?

T₂ = \(\frac{1}{0.021}\) + 90 = 47.6 + 90
Final temperature, T₂ = 137.6 K

(ii) Calculate the energy consumed by 120 W toaster in 4 hours.
Answer:
Given:
Power of toaster P = 120 W
Time t =4 h
Energy consumed by toaster E = P × t
= 120 × 4
E = 480 Wh

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water which weighs 0.18 g.
Answer:
Mass of water = 0.18 g

Number of molecules = Number of moles × Avogadro number
= 0.01 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 0.06023 × 10²³
= 6.023 × 10²¹ molecules

(ii) Calculate the number of moles in 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of NH₄Cl.
Answer:

= 0.25 mole

(iii) Calculate the gram of 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S₈.
Answer:
5 moles of sulphur molecule S₈
Molecular mass of sulphur molecule = 32 × 8 = 256
Mass = No of moles × molecular mass
= 5 × 256
= 1280 g

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the classification based on the direction of the reaction.
Answer:
Reversible reaction : A reversible reaction is a reaction that can be reversed, i.e., the products can be converted back to the reactants.

A reversible reaction is represented by a double arrow with their heads in the direction opposite to each other. Thus a reversible reaction can be represent

Explanation:
The compound ‘AB’ undergoes decomposition to form the products ‘A’ and ‘B’. It is the forward reaction. As soon as the products are formed, they combine together to form ‘AB’. It is the backward reaction.
PCl_5(g) ⇌ PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g)

Irreversible Reactions:
The reaction that cannot be reversed is called irreversible reaction. Consider the combustion of coal into carbon-di-oxide and water.

In this reaction, solid coal bums with oxygen and gets converted into carbon dioxide gas and water. As the product is a gas, as soon as it is formed it escapes out of the reaction container. It is hard to decompose a gas into a solid. Thus, the backward reaction is not possible in this case. So, it is an irreversible reaction.

(ii) What happens during a chemical change?
Answer:

• In a chemical reaction, the atoms of the reacting molecules or elements are rearranged to form new molecules.
• Old chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new chemical bonds are formed.
• Bond breaking absorbs energy where as bond formation releases energy.

Question 35.
(a) (i) What are the hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the tissues on which they exert their effect.
Answer:
Vasopressin and Oxytocin are the hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
In kidney tubules, the vasopressin hormone increases the reabsorption of water. Its deficiency caused Diabetes insipidus.

Oxytocin helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of uterus at the time of child birth and milk ejection from the mammary gland after child birth.

(ii) How are e-wastes generated?
Answer:
E-wastes are generally called as electronic wastes, includes the spoiled, outdated, non-repairable electrical and electronic devices.

(iii) Define fertilization?
Answer:
The process of Fusion of male gamete (sperm) and female gamete (ovum) is known as fertilization. It results in the formation of Zyote.

[OR]

(b) (i) Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell and mention its functions.
Answer:
White blood corpuscles or Leucocytes:
Based on the presence of granules in the cytoplasm of leucocytes it is classified into two categories,
(i) Granulocytes
(ii) Agranulocytes.

(i) Granulocytes: They contain granules in their cytoplasm. Their nucleus is irregular or lobed. They are classified into three types,

1. Neutrophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Basophils

(1) Neutrophils: Their numbers are increased during infection and inflammation.
(2) Eosinophils: Their number increases during conditions of allergy and parasitic infections. It also brings about detoxification of toxins.
(3) Basophils: They release chemicals during the process of inflammation.

(ii) Agranulocytes: Granules are not found in the cytoplasm of these cells. The agranulocytes are of two types: (a) Lymphocytes (b) Monocytes
(a) Lymphocytes: They produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infections.
(b) Monocytes: They are phagocytic and can engulf bacteria.

(ii) Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals.
Example:

1. Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine rich maize hybrids
2. Atlas 66, a protein rich wheat variety.
3. Iron rich fortified rice variety.
4. Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.
5. By this way, Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If the ordered pairs (a + 2, 4) and (5, 2a + b) are equal then (a, b) is …………. .
(1) (2,-2)
(2) (5,1)
(3) (2,3)
(4) (3,-2)
Answer:
(4) (3,-2)

Question 2.
f(x) = (x + 1)³ – (x – 1)³ represents a function which is …………. .
(1) linear
(2) cubic
(3) reciprocal
(4) quadratic
Answer:
(4) quadratic

Question 3.
Using Euclid’s division lemma, if the cube of any positive integer is divided by 9 then the possible remainders are …………. .
(1) 0,1,8
(2) 1,4,8
(3) 0,1,3
(4) 1,3,5
Answer:
(1) 0,1,8

Question 4.
If the sequence t₁, t₂, t₃, are in A.P. then the sequence t₆, t₁₂, t₁₈, …….. is …………….
(1) a Geometric progression
(2) an Arithmetic progression
(3) neither an Arithmetic progression nor a Geometric progression
(4) a constant sequence
Answer:
(2) an Arithmetic progression

Question 5.
\(\frac{3 y-3}{y} \div \frac{7 y-7}{3 y^{2}}\) is ………….
(1) \(\frac{9 y}{7}\)
(2) \(\frac{9 y^{3}}{(21 y-21)}\)
(3) \(\frac{21 y^{2}-42 y+21}{3 y^{3}}\)
(4) \(\frac{7\left(y^{2}-2 y+1\right)}{y^{2}}\)
Answer:
\(\frac{9 y}{7}\)

Question 6.
The solution of (2x – 1)² = 9 is equal to …………. .
(1) -1
(2) 2
(3) -1,2
(4) None of these
Answer:
(3) -1,2

Question 7.
In ∆LMN, ∠L = 60°, ∠M = 50°. If ∆LMN ~ ∆PQR then the value of ∠R is …………. .
(1) 40°
(2) 70°
(3) 30°
(4) 110°
Answer:
(2) 70°

Question 8.
A tower is 60 m height. Its shadow is x metres shorter when the sun’s altitude is 45° than when it has been 30° , then x is equal to…………. .
(1) 41.92 m
(2) 43.92 m
(3) 43 m
(4) 45.6 m
Answer:
(2) 43.92 m

Question 9.
A shuttle cock used for playing badminton has the shape of the combination of …………. .
(1) a cylinder and a sphere
(2) a hemisphere and a cone
(3) a sphere and a cone
(4) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere
Answer:
(4) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
(1) Range
(2) Standard deviation
(3) Arithmetic mean
(4) Variance
Answer:
(3) Arithmetic mean

Question 11.
Variance of first 20 natural numbers is …………. .
(1) 32.25
(2) 44.25
(3) 33.25
(4) 30
Answer:
(3) 33.25

Question 12.
The equation of a straight line having slope 3 and Y intercept -4 is …………. .
(1) 3x – y + 4 = 0
(2) 3x + y – 4 = 0
(3) 3x – y + 4 = 0
(4) 3x – y – 4 = 0
Answer:
(4) 3x – y – 4 = 0

Question 13.
In the given diagram PA and PB are tangents drawn from P to a circle with centre O ∠OPA = 35° then a and b is …………. .

(1) a = 30°, b = 60°
(2) a = 35°, b = 55°
(3) a = 40°, b = 50°
(4) a = 45°, b = 45°
Answer:
(2) a = 35°, b = 55°

Question 14.
If \(\left[ \begin{matrix} -1 & -2 & 4 \end{matrix} \right] \left[ \begin{matrix} 2 \\ a \\ -3 \end{matrix} \right] = -10\) then the value of “a” is …………. .
(1) 2
(2) -4
(3) 4
(4) -2
Answer:
(4) -2

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Show that the function f : N → N defined by f(m) = m² + m + 3 is one-one function.
Answer:
N = {1,2, 3,4, 5,………. }
f(m) = m² + m + 3
f(1) = 1² + 1 + 3 = 5
f(2) = 2²+ 2 + 3 = 9
f(3) = 3² + 3 + 3 = 15
f(4) = 4² + 4 + 3 = 23
f = {(1,5) (2, 9) (3, 15) (4, 23)}
From the diagram we can understand different elements in (N) in domain,
there are different images in (N) co-domain.
∴ The function is one-one function.

Question 16.
If the ordered pairs (x² – 3x, y² + 4y) and (-2, 5) are equal, then find x and y.
Answer:
(x² – 3x, y² + 4y) = (-2, 5)
x² – 3x = -2
x² – 3x + 2 = 0

(x – 2)(x – 1) = 0
x – 2 = 0 or x – 1 =0
x = 2 or 1

y² + 4y = 5
y² + 4y – 5 = o

(y + 5)(y – 1) = o
y + 5 = 0 or y – 1 = 0
y = -5 or y = 1

Question 17.
If x is congruent to 13 modulo 17 then 7x – 3 is congruent to which number modulo 17?
Answer:
Given x ≡ 13 (mod 17) ……. (1)
7x – 3 ≡ a (mod 17) ….(2)
From (1) we get
x – 13 = 17 n(n may be any integer)
x – 13 is a multiple of 17
∴ The least value of x = 30
From (2) we get
7(30) – 3 ≡ a(mod 17)
210 – 3 ≡ a(mod 17)
207 ≡ a(mod 17)
207 ≡ 3(mod 17)
∴ The value of a = 3

Question 18.
How many terms of the series 1 + 4 + 16 + . . . . make the sum 1365?
Answer:
Let n be the number of terms to be added to get the sum 1365
a = 1, r = \(\frac { 4 }{ 1 }\) = 4 > 1
s_n = 1365 gives \(\frac{a\left(r^{n}-1\right)}{r-1}\) = 1365
\(\frac{1\left(4^{n}-1\right)}{4-1}\) = 1365 so, (4ⁿ – 1) = 4095
4ⁿ = 4096 then 4ⁿ = 4⁶
n = 6

Question 19.
Find the LCM of x⁴ – 27a³x, (x – 3a)² whose GCD is (x – 3a)
Answer:
p(x) = x⁴ – 27a³x
= x[x³ – 27a³]
= x[x³ – (3a)³]
= x(x – 3a) (x² + 3ax + 9a²)
g(x) = (x – 3a)²
G.C.D. = x – 3a
L.C.M = \(\frac{p(x) \times g(x)}{\text { G.C.D. }}\)
= \(\frac{x(x-3 a)\left(x^{2}+3 a x+9 a^{2}\right) \times(x-3 a)^{2}}{(x-3 a)}\)
L.C.M = x(x – 3a)²(x² + 3ax + 9a²)

Question 20.
Reduce the given Rational expression to its lowest form \(\frac{x^{3 a}-8}{x^{2 a}+2 x^{a}+4}\)
Answer:
x^3a – 8 = (x^a)³ – 2³
= (x^a – 2) [(x^a)² + x^a × 2 + 2²]
= (x^a – 2) (x^2a + 2x^a + 4)

Question 21.
Find the values of x,y, z if (x y -z z + 3) + (y 4 3) = (4 8 16)
Answer:
[x y – z z + 3] + [y 4 3] = [4 8 16]
x + y = 4 ….(1)
y – z + 4 = 8 ….(2)
z + 3 + 3 = 16
z + 6 = 16
z = 16 – 6 = 10
Sùbstitute the value of z in (2)
(2) ⇒ y – 10 = 4 ⇒ y = 14
Substitute the value of y in (1)
(1) ⇒ x + 14 = 4
x = 4 – 14 = -10
∴ The value of x = -10, y = 14 and z = 10

Question 22.
Suppose AB, AC and BC have lengths 13,14 and 15 respectively. If \(\frac{A F}{F B}=\frac{2}{5}\) and \(\frac{C E}{E A}=\frac{5}{8}\) Find BD and DC.
Answer:

Given that AB = 13, AC = 14 and BC = 15
Let BD = x and DC = y
Using Ceva’s theorem, we have, \(\frac{\mathrm{BD}}{\mathrm{DC}} \times \frac{\mathrm{CE}}{\mathrm{EA}} \times \frac{\mathrm{AF}}{\mathrm{FB}}=1\) ….(1)
Substitute the values of \(\frac{A F}{F B}\) and \(\frac{C E}{E A}\) in (1),
we have \(\frac{B D}{D C} \times \frac{5}{8} \times \frac{2}{5}=1\)
\(\frac{x}{y} \times \frac{10}{40}=1\) we get \(\frac{x}{y} \times \frac{1}{4}=1\). Hence, x = 4y ……. (2)
BC = BD + DC = 15 so, x + y = 15 ……. (3)
From (2), using x = 4y in (3) we get, 4y + y = 15 gives 5y = 15 then y = 3
Substitute y = 3 in (3) we get, x = 12. Hence BD = 12 , DC = 3.

Question 23.
Find the equation of a straight line which has slope \(\frac { -5 }{ 4 }\) and passing through the point (-1,2).
Answer:
Slope of a line (m) = \(\frac{-5}{4}\)
The given point (x₁, y₁) = (-1, 2)
Equation of a line is y – y₁ = m (x – x₁)
y – 2 = \(\frac{-5}{4}\)(x + 1)
5(x + 1) = 4(y – 2) ⇒ 5x + 5 = 4y + 8
5x + 4y + 5 – 8 = 0 ⇒ 5x + 4y – 3 = 0
The equation of a line is 5x + 4y – 3 = 0

Question 24.
A road is flanked on either side by continuous rows of houses of height 4√3 m with no space in between them. A pedestrian is standing on the median of the road facing a row house. The angle of elevation from the pedestrian to the top of the house is 30° . Find the width of the road.
Answer:

Let the mid point of the road AB is “P” (PA = PB)
Height of the home = 4 √3 m
Let the distance between the pedestrian and the house be “x”
In the right ∆ APD, tan 30° = \(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{AP}}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{4 \sqrt{3}}{x}\)
x = 4√3 × √3 = 12 m
∴ Width of the road = PA + PB
= 12 + 12
= 24m

Question 25.
If the standard deviation of a data is 3.6 and each value of the data is divided by 3, then find the new variance and new standard deviation.
Answer:
Standard deviation of the data = 3.6
Each value of the data is divided by 3
New standard deviation = \(\frac{3.6}{3}\) = 1.2
New Variance = (1.2)² [Variance = (S. D)²]
= 1.44
New standard Deviation = 1.2
New variance = 1.44

Question 26.
If -4 is a root of the equation x² + px – 4 = 0 and if the equation x² + px + q = 0 has equal roots, find the values of p and q.
Answer:
Let p(x) = x² + px – 4
-4 is the root of the equation
p(-4)  = 0
16 – 4p – 4 = 0 ⇒ -4p + 12 = 0
-4p = -12
p = \(\frac { 12 }{ 4 }\) = 3
The equation x² + px + q = 0 has equal roots x² + 3x – q = O
Here a = 1,b = 3,c = q
since the roots are real and equal
b² – 4ac = 0 ⇒ 3² – 4(1) (q) = 0
9 – 4q = 0 ⇒ 94q
q = \(\frac{9}{4}\)
∴ The value of p = 3 and q = \(\frac{9}{4}\)

Question 27.
A shopkeeper has one spherical laddoo of radius 5 cm. With the same amount of material how many laddoos of radius 2.5 cm can made?
Answer:
Radius of the larger laddoo (R) = 5 cm
Radius of the smaller laddoo (r) = 2.5 cm


∴ 8 laddoos can be made

Question 28.
If P(A) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) ; P(B) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\) , P(A ∪ B) = 1 find P(A’ ∩ B’)
Answer:
Given P(A) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\), P(B) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\), P(A ∪ B) = 1
P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
1 = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{7}{10}\) – P(A ∩ B)
P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{7}{10}-1=\frac{5+7-10}{10}=\frac{2}{10}=\frac{1}{5}\)
P(A’ ∪ B’) = P(A ∩ B)’
= 1 – P(A ∩ B)
= \(1-\frac{1}{5}=\frac{5-1}{5}=\frac{4}{5}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
If X = {-5, 1, 3, 4} and Y = {a, b, c}, then which of the following relations are functions from X to Y?
(i) R₁ = {(-5, a), (1, a), (3, b)}
(ii) R₂ = {(-5, b), (1, b), (3, a), (4, C)}
(iii) R₃ = {(-5, a), (1, a), (3, b), (4, c), (1, b)}

Question 30.
If f(x) = x², g(x) = 3x and h(x) = x – 2, Prove that (fog)oh = fo(g o h).

Question 31.
The houses of a street are numbered from 1 to 49. Senthil’s house is numbered such that the sum of numbers of the houses prior to Senthil’s house is equal to the sum of numbers of the houses following Senthil’s house. Find Senthil’s house number.

Question 32.
The 104^th term and 4^th term of an A.P are 125 and 0. Find the sum of first 35 terms.

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.

Question 34.
If 9x⁴ + 12x³ + 28x² + ax + b is a perfect square, find the values of a and b.

Question 35.
Find X and Y if X + Y = \(\left( \begin{matrix} 7 & 0 \\ 3 & 5 \end{matrix} \right) \) and X – Y = \(\left( \begin{matrix} 3 & 0 \\ 0 & 4 \end{matrix} \right) \)

Question 36.
In figure ABC is a triangle with ∠B = 90° , BC = 3 cm and AB = 4 cm. D is point on AC such that AD = 1 cm and E is the midpoint of AB. Join D and E and extend DE to meet CB at F. Find BF.

Question 37.
Find the equation of a straight line joining the point of intersection of 3x + y + 2 = 0 and x – 2y -4 = 0 to the point of intersection of 7x – 3y = -12 and 2y = x + 3

Question 38.
A man is standing on the deck of a ship, which is 40 m above water level. He observes the angle of elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of the hill as 30° . Calculate the distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the hill. (√3 = 1.732)

Question 39.
Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 2 mm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.

Question 40.
The following table gives the number of goals scored by 71 leading players in international football matches. Find the standard deviation of the data.

Question 41.
A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 18. When 63 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the numbers.

Question 42.
The sum of 5^th and 9^th term of an AP is 72 and the sum of 7^th and 12^th term is 97. Find the A.P.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle LMN with its sides equal to \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle LMN (scale factor \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\)).

[OR]

(b) Draw the two tangents from a point which is 10 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² – 4 and hence solve x² – x – 12 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Solve graphically (2x + 1) (x -3) = 0

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 7 Atoms and Molecules Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 7 Atoms and Molecules

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Atoms and Molecules Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following has the smallest mass?
(a) 6.023 × 10²³ atoms of He
(b) 1 atom of He
(c) 2 g of He
(d) 1-mole atoms of He
Answer:
(b) 1 atom of He

Question 2.
Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Helium
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen.
Answer:
(c) Carbon dioxide
Hint:
(a) Glucose = C₆H₁₂O₆ (Polyatomic molecule)
(b) Helium = He (Monoatomic molecule)
(c) Carbon dioxide = CO₂ (Triatomic molecule)
(d) Hydrogen = H₂ (Diatomic molecule)
So, (c) is the correct answer.

Question 3.
The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO₂ at S.T.P:
(a) 22.4 litre
(b) 2.24 litre
(c) 0.24 litre
(d) 0.1 litre
Answer:
(b) 2.24 litre

Question 4.
Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is _____.
(a) 28 amu
(b) 14 amu
(c) 28 g
(d) 14 g.
Answer:
(b) 14 amu
Hint: Atomic mass of Nitrogen is 14.00674 grams. It is equal to 1 mole of Nitrogen atoms.
So, answer (b) is correct.

Question 5.
Which of the following represents 1 amu?
(a) Mass of a C – 12 atom
(b) Mass of a hydrogen atom
(c) 1/12 th of the mass of a C – 12 atom
(d) Mass of O – 16 atom
Answer:
(c) 1/12 th of the mass of a C – 12 atom

Question 6.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
(b) One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.
(c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
(d) One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 10²³ electrons.
Answer:
(a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
Hint: 12 g of Carbon contains 6.023 × 10²³ atoms,
1 g of Carbon contain \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{12}\) = 5.018 × 10²² atoms and its is not Avogadro’s number of atoms.
So (a) is the incorrect statement.

Question 7.
The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is:
(a) 11.2 litre
(b) 5.6 litre
(c) 22.4 litre
(d) 44.8 litre
Answer:
(c) 22.4 litre

Question 8.
In the nucleus of ₂₀Ca⁴⁰, there are
(a) 20 protons and 40 neutrons
(b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
(c) 20 protons and 40 electrons
(d) 40 protons and 20 electrons
Answer:
(b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons

Question 9.
The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is_____.
(a) 16 g
(b) 18 g
(c) 32 g
(d) 17 g.
Answer:
(c) 32 g
Hint: By definition, the gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule O₂ is 32 g.
So the answer (c) is correct.

Question 10.
1 mole of any substance contains molecules.
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.023 × 10^-23
(c) 3.0115 × 10²³
(d) 12.046 × 10²³
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Atoms of different elements having ……… mass number, but ………. atomic numbers are called isobars.
2. Atoms of different elements having same number of ………. are called isotones.
3. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other element by ………….
4. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons of an atom is called its …………
5. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known as …………
6. The average atomic mass of hydrogen is ……….. amu.
7. If a molecule is made of similar kind of atoms, then it is called ……….. atomic molecule.
8. The number of atoms present in a molecule is called its ………….
9. One mole of any gas occupies ………… ml at S.T.P
10. Atomicity of phosphorous is …………
Answer:
1. same, different
2. neutrons
3. artificial transmutation
4. mass number
5. standard atomic weight
6. 1.008
7. homo
8. atomicity
9. 22, 400
10. four

III. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Two elements sometimes can form more than one compound.
2. Nobel gases are diatomic.
3. The gram atomic mass of an element has no unit.
4. 1 mole of Gold and Silver contain same number of atoms.
5. Molar mass of CO₂ is 42 g.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Noble gases are Monoatomic.
3. False – The unit of gram atomic mass of an element is gram.
4. True
5. False – Molar mass of CO₂ is 44 g.

V. Assertion and Reason:

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
Question 1.
Assertion: Atomic mass of aluminium is 27
Reason: An atom of aluminium is 27 times heavier than 1/12 th of the mass of the C-12 atom.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: The Relative Molecular Mass of Chlorine is 35.5 a.m.u.
Reason: The natural abundance of Chlorine isotopes are not equal.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Define: Relative atomic mass.
Answer:
Relative atomic mass of an element is the ratio between the average mass of its isotopes to \(\frac{1}{12^{th}}\)part of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. It is denoted as A_r.
[OR]

Question 2.
Write the different types of isotopes of oxygen and its percentage abundance.
Answer:
Oxygen has three stable isotopes. They are

Question 3.
Define Atomicity.
Answer:
The number of atoms present in the molecule is called its ‘Atomicity’.

Question 4.
Give any two examples for heteroatomic molecules.
Answer:
HI, HCl, CO, HBr, HF.

Question 5.
What is Molar volume of a gas?
Answer:
One mole of any gas occupies 22.4 litres.
(or)
22400 ml at S.T.R This volume is called as molar volume.

Question 6.
Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia.
Answer:
Molar mass of NH₃ = 1(14) + 3(1) = 17 g

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water which weighs 0.18 g.
Answer:
The molecular mass of water (H₂O) is 18.
18 g of water molecule = 1 mole.
0. 18 g of water = \(\frac{1}{18} \times 0.18\) = 0.01 mole.
1 mole of water (Avogadro’s number) contains 6.023 × 10²³ water molecules.
0. 01 mole of water contain \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{1} \times 0.01\) = 6.023 × 10²¹ molecules.

Question 2.
N₂ + 3 H₂ → 2 NH₃
(The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14, and that of hydrogen is 1)
1 mole of nitrogen (……..g) +
3 moles of hydrogen (………g) →
2 moles of ammonia (………g)
Answer:
1 mole of nitrogen (28 g) +
3 moles of hydrogen (6 g) →
2 moles of ammonia (34 g)

Question 3.
Calculate the number of moles in
(i) 27 g of Al;
(ii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of NH₄Cl.
Answer:
(i) 27 g of Al
Given mass atomic mass = \(\frac{Given Mass}{Atomic Mass}\) = \(\frac{27}{27}\)
= 1 mole

(ii) 1.51 x 10²³ molecules of NH₄Cl
Number of moles

Question 4.
Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.
Answer:
The salient features of “Modem atomic theory” are,

1. An atom is no longer indivisible.
2. Atoms of the same element may have different atomic mass.
3. Atoms of different elements may have the same atomic masses.
4. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements. In other words, an atom is no longer indestructible.
5. Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole-number ratio.
6. Atom is the smallest particle that takes part in a chemical reaction.
7. The mass of an atom can be converted into energy [E = mc²].

Question 5.
Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
Answer:
Relative molecular mass : The relative molecular mass of a gas or vapour is the ratio between the mass of one molecule of the gas or vapour to mass of one atom of hydrogen.
Vapour density : Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen, measured under the same conditions of temperature and pressure.

According to Avogadro’s law equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.
Let the number of molecules in one volume = n, then

When cancelling ‘n’ which is common at STP, we get

Since hydrogen is diatomic,

2 × Vapour density = Relative Molecular mass of a gas
[OR]
Relative Molecular Mass = 2 × Vapour density

VIII. HOT Question:

Question 1.
Calcium carbonate is decomposed on heating in the following reaction
CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

1. How many moles of Calcium carbonate is involved in this reaction?
2. Calculate the gram molecular mass of calcium carbonate involved in this reaction.
3. How many moles of CO₂ are there in this equation?

Answer:
CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

1. 1 mole of CaCO₃ is involved in this reaction.
2. Gram molecular mass of calcium carbonate
   CaCO₃ = (40 + 12 + 3 × 16) = 52 + 48 = 100 g
3. 1 mole of CO₂ is in this equation.

IX. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
How many grams are there in the following?
(i) 2 moles of a hydrogen molecule, H₂
(ii) 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl₂
(iii) 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S₈
(iv) 4 moles of a phosphorous molecule, P₄
Solution:
(i) 2 moles of a hydrogen molecule, H₂
Mass of 1 mole of hydrogen molecule = 2 g
Mass of 2 moles of hydrogen molecule = 2 × 2 = 4 g.

(ii) 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl₂
Mass of 1 mole of chlorine molecule = 71 g
Mass of 3 moles of chlorine molecules = 71 × 3 = 213 g.

(iii) 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S₈
Mass of 1 mole of sulphur molecule = 32 g
Mass of 5 moles of sulphur molecules = 32 × 5 = 160 g.

(iv) 4 moles of the phosphorous molecule, P₄
Mass of 1 mole of phosphorous molecule = 30.97 g
Mass of 4 moles of phosphorous molecules = 30.97 × 4 = 123.88 g.

Question 2.
Calculate the % of each element in calcium carbonate. (Atomic mass: C – 12, O – 16, Ca – 40)
Answer:
Formula to find % of each element

Question 3.
Calculate the % of oxygen in Al₂(SO₄)₃.
(Atomic mass: Al – 27, O – 16, S – 32)
Answer:
Formula:

Molar mass of Al₂(SO₄)₃ = [2(Atomic mass of Al) + 3(Atomic mass of S) + 12(Atomic mass of O)]
= 2(27) + 3(32) + 12(16) = 342 g
% of Oxygen = \(\frac{12(16)}{342}\) × 100 = 56.14%.

Question 4.
Calculate the % relative abundance of B – 10 and B – 11, if its average atomic mass is 10.804 amu.
Answer:
% of relative abundance can be calculated by the formula.
Average atomic mass of the element
= Atomic mass of 1st isotope × abundance of 1st isotope + Atomic mass of 2nd isotope × abundance of 2nd isotope
∴ Average atomic mass of Boron
= Atomic mass of B – 0 × abundance of B -10 + Atomic mass of B – 11 × abundance of B – 11
Let the abundance of B – 10 be ‘x’ and B – 11 be (1 – x)
So, 10.804 = 10 × x + 11 (1 – x)
10.804 = 10x + 11 – 11x
x = 11 – 10.804
x = 0.196
1 -x = 1 – 0.196 = 0.804
Therefore % abundance of B – 10 is 19.6% and B – 11 is 80.4%
[OR]
Let the % of the isotope B – 10 = x
Then the % of the isotope B – 11 = 100 – x

1100 – x = 1080.4
x = 19.6
% abundance of B – 10 = 19.6%
% abundance of B – 11 = 80.4%

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Atoms and Molecules Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first scientific theory of an atom was proposed by:
(a) Ruther Ford
(b) Newland
(c) John Dalton
(d) Neils Bohr
Answer:
(c) John Dalton

Question 2.
Identify the pair that indicates isobars among the following _____.
(a) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2},_{1} \mathrm{H}^{3}\)
(b) \(_{17} \mathrm{Cl}^{35},_{17} \mathrm{Cl}^{37}\)
(c) \(\text { (c) }_{18} \mathrm{Ar}^{40},_{18} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\)
(d) \(_{6} \mathrm{C}^{13},_{7} \mathrm{N}^{14}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\text { (c) }_{18} \mathrm{Ar}^{40},_{18} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\)

Question 3.
Which one of the following represents 180 g of water?
(a) 5 moles of water
(b) 90 moles of water
(c) 6.023 × 10²⁴ molecules of water
(d) 6.023 × 10²² molecules of water
Answer:
(c) 6.023 × 10²⁴ molecules of water

Question 4.
The isotope of Carbon-12 contains _____.
(a) 6 protons and 7 electrons
(b) 6 protons and 6 neutrons
(c) 12 protons and no neutrons
(d) 12 neutrons and no protons.
Answer:
(b) 6 protons and 6 neutrons

Question 5.
Which contains the greatest number of moles of oxygen atoms?
(a) 1 mol of water
(b) 1 mole of NaOH
(c) 1 mole of Na₂CO₃
(d) 1 mole of CO
Answer:
(c) 1 mole of Na₂CO₃

Question 6.
The mass of proton or neutron is approximately _____.
(a) 1 amu
(b) 1.609 × 10^-19 g
(c) 1 g
(d) 6.023 × 10^-23 g.
Answer:
(a) 1 amu

Question 7.
The natural abundance of C-12 and C-13 are 98.90% and 1.10% respectively. The average atomic mass of carbon is:
(a) 12 amu
(b) 12.011 amu
(c) 14 amu
(d) 12.90 amu
Answer:
(b) 12.011 amu

Question 8.
The relative atomic mass of magnesium-based on C – 12 scale is _____.
(a) 24 g
(b) 24
(c) 24 amu
(d) 24 kg
Answer:
(b) 24

Question 9.
If 1.5 moles of oxygen combine with Al to form Al₂O₃, the mass of Al in g (atomic mass of Al = 27) used in the reaction is:
(a) 2.7
(b) 54
(c) 40.5
(d) 81
Answer:
(b) 54

Question 10.
The atomicity of methane is:
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6
Answer:
(a) 5

Question 11.
Find the odd one out _____.
(a) \(_{8} \mathrm{O}^{16}\)
(b) \(_{8} \mathrm{O}^{17}\)
(c) \(_{6} \mathrm{O}^{12}\)
(d) \(_{8} \mathrm{O}^{18}\).
Answer:
(c) \(_{6} \mathrm{O}^{12}\)

Question 12.
The volume occupied by 3 moles of HCl gas at STP is:
(a) 22.4 L
(b) 44.8 L
(c) 2.24 L
(d) 67.2 L
Answer:
(d) 67.2 L

Question 13.
The mass percentage of hydrogen in ethane (C₂H₆) is:
(a) 25%
(b) 75%
(c) 80%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(d) 20%

Question 14.
Which one of the following is a homo diatomic molecule?
(a) H₂
(6) CO
(c) NO
(d) O₃.
Answer:
(a) H₂

Question 15.
The percentage of nitrogen in urea is about:
(a) 38.4
(b) 46.6
(c) 59.1
(d) 61.3
Answer:
(b) 46.6

Question 16.
Out of the following the largest number of atoms are contained in:
(a) 11 g of CO₂
(b) 4 g of H₂
(C) 5 g of NH₃
(d) 8 g of SO₂
Answer:
(b) 4 g of H₂

Question 17.
Which of the following is an example of a homo triatomic molecule?
(a) Phosphorous
(b) Sulphur
(c) Bromine
(d) Ozone.
Answer:
(d) Ozone.

Question 18.
For the reaction A + 2B → C, 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce:
(a) 5 moles of C
(b) 4 moles of C
(c) 8 moles of C
(d) 13 moles of C
Answer:
(b) 4 moles of C

Question 19.
The vapour density of a gas is 32. Its relative molecular mass will be:
(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 64
(d) 96
Answer:
(c) 64

Question 20.
Find the odd one out _____.
(a) Silver
(b) Potassium
(c) Iron
(d) Phosphorous.
Answer:
(d) Phosphorous.

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The volume occupied by 16 g of oxygen is ………..
2. One mole of a triatomic gas contains ………… atoms.
3. Equal volume of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of …………
4. The mass of an atom can be converted into energy by using the formula …………
5. The percentage composition is useful to determine the ………… formula and ………… formula.

Answer:

1. 11.2 L
2. 3 × 6.023 × 10²³
3. molecules
4. E = me²
5. empirical, molecular

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Atoms always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
2. 2 × RMM = VD
3. The average atomic mass of Beryllium is 9.012 because of the presence of isotopes.
4. The noble gases are diatomic.
5. The number of atoms present in one mole of phosphorus(P₄) is 4 × 6.023 × 10²³

Answer:

1. False -Atoms may not combine always in a simple whole number ratio.
2. False – 2 × VD = RMM
3. True
4. False – The noble gases are mono atomic.
5. True

V. Assertion and Reason:

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
Question 1.
Assertion: The standard unit for expressing mass of atom is amu.
Reason: Atomic mass unit is one-twelth of the mass of a C-12 atom
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: The volume occupied by 44 g of CO₂ is 22.4 L
Reason: The volume occupied by one mole of any gas is 22.4 L
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Define vapour density.
Answer:
Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen measured under the same condition of temperature and pressure.
[OR]

Question 2.
What are isobars? Give an example.
Answer:
Atoms of different elements that have same atomic masses but different atomic numbers are called isobars.
e.g., \(_{18} \mathrm{Ar}^{40}\), \(_{20} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\).

Question 3.
Write the differences between an atom and a molecule.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is artificial transmutation?
Answer:
Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements. In other words, the atom is no longer indestructible. It is known as artificial transmutation.

Question 5.
Classify the following based on atomicity.
Answer:
(i) Bromine
2 – Diatomic

(ii) Argon
1 – Monoatomic

(iii) Ozone
3 – Triatomic

(iv) Sulphur
8 – Polyatomic

Question 6.
Define atomic mass unit.
Answer:
Atomic mass unit is one-twelfth of the mass of carbon – 12 atom, as an isotope of carbon which contains 6 protons and 6 neutrons. It is amu.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Explain how Avogadro hypothesis is used to derive the value of atomicity.
Answer:
(i) The Avogadro’s law states that “equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain the equal number of molecules”.

(ii) Let us consider the reaction between hydrogen and chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas.
H_{2 (g)} + Cl_{2 (g)} → 2HCl _(g)
⇒ 1 volume + 1 volume → 2 volumes.

(iii) According to Avogadro’s law, 1 volume of any gas is occupied by “n” number of molecules,
“n” molecules + “n” molecules → “2n” molecules
If “n” = 1, then
1 molecule + 1 molecule → 2 molecules.
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule → 1 molecule.

(iv) 1 molecule of hydrogen chloride gas is made up of \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule of hydrogen and \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule of chlorine.

(v) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule of hydrogen contains 1 atom.
So, 1 molecule of hydrogen contains 2 atoms.
So, hydrogen atomicity is 2. Similarly, chlorine atomicity is also 2.
So, H₂ and Cl₂ are diatomic molecules.

Question 2.
Write a note on the following,
(i) Isotopeos
(ii) Isobars
(iii) Relative atomic mass.
Answer:
(i) Isotopes : Atoms of same element with different mass number. Eg: ₁₇Cl³⁵, ₁₇Cl³⁷.
(ii) Isobars : Atoms of different elements with same mass number. Eg: ₁₈Ar⁴⁰, ₂₀Ca⁴⁰
(iii) Relative Atomic Mass (RAM) :

Question 3.
Sodim bicarbonate breaks down on heating as follows:
2NaHCO₃ → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂
(Atomic mass of Na = 23, H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)
(i) How many moles of NaHCO₃ are there in the equation?
Answer:
2 moles.

(ii) What is the mass of CO₂ produced in the equation?
Answer:
44 g

(iii) How many moles of water molecules are produced in the equation?
Answer:
1 mole.

(iv) What is the mass of NaHCO₃ used in this equation?
Answer:
= 2[23 + 1 + 12 + 3(16)]
= 2[84]
= 168 g

(v) What is the volume occupied by CO₂ in this equation?
Answer:
22.4 lit.

VIII. Hot Questions

Question 1.
Why do we take an atomic mass of Carbon – 12 as standard?
Answer:
Carbon – 12 is the standard while measuring the atomic masses. Because no other nuclides other than C – 12 have exactly whole-number masses in this scale. This is due to the different mass of neutrons and protons acting to change the total mass in nuclides with proton/neutron ratio other than 1 : 1 ratio of carbon – 12.

Question 2.
The cost of common salt (NaCl) is Rs 18 per kg. Calculate the cost of the salt per mole.
Answer:
Gram molar mass of NaCl = 23 + 35.5
= 58.5 g
1000 g of NaCl costs = Rs 18
∴ 58.5 g of NaCl costs = \(\frac{18}{1000}\) × 58.5
= Rs 1.053
The cost of one mole of NaCl = Rs 1.053

Question 3.
What will be the mass of one \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) atom in g?
Answer:
1 mol of \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) atoms = 6.022 × 10²³ atoms = 12 g
Thus, 6.022 × 10²³ atoms of \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) have mass = 12 g
∴ 1 atom of \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) will have mass = \(\frac{12}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\) g = 1.9927 × 10^-23 g.

IX. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
Calculate the average atomic mass of carbon, if the natural abundance of C – 12 and C – 13 are 98.90% and 1.10% respectively.
Solution:
Average atomic mass of carbon
\(=\left(12 \times \frac{98.9}{100}\right)+\left(13 \times \frac{1.1}{100}\right)\)
= (12 × 0.989) +(13 × 0.011)
= 11.868 + 0.143
= 12.011 amu.

Question 2.
Find how many moles are there in
(a) 98 g of H₂SO₄
Answer:
(a) 98 g of H₂SO₄
GMM of H₂SO₄ = 2(1) + 32 + 4(16)
= 98 g
Number of moles = \(\frac{Given Mass}{Mol. Mass}\)
= \(\frac{98}{98}\)
= 1 mole

(b) 18.069 × 10²³ atoms of calcium
Answer:
Number of moles

= 3 moles

(c) 4.48 L of CO₂
Answer:
Number of moles

Question 3.
Calculate the number of moles in
(i) 12.046 × 10²³ atoms of copper
(ii) 27.95 g of iron
(iii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of CO₂
Answer:
(i) 12.046 × 10²³ atoms of copper
6.023 × 10²³ atoms of copper = 1 mole
12.046 × 10²³ atoms of copper = \(\frac{1 \times 12.046 \times 10^{23}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\) = 2 moles of copper

(ii) 27.95 g of iron
55.9 g of iron = 1 mole
27.95 g of iron = \(\frac{1}{55.9}\) × 27.95 = 0.5 mole of iron.

(iii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of CO₂
No of moles = \(\frac{\text { No. of molecules }}{\text { Avogadro number }}\)
= \(\frac{1.51 \times 10^{23}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\)
= 0.25 mole of CO₂

Question 4.
Calculate the number of atoms of mercury present in 1 kg of Mercury. [Atomic mass of Hg = 200.6]
Answer:
200.6 g of Hg contains 6.023 × 10²³ Hg atoms
∴ 1 Kg of Hg will contain = \(\frac{6.023×10^{23}}{200.6}\) × 1000
= 30.02 × 10²³ Hg atoms

Question 5.
How many molecules are present in 7 × 10^-3 m³ of NH₃ at STP?
Answer:
Molar volume = 22.4 dm³ = 2.24 × 10^-2 m³
2.24 × 10^-2 m³ of NH₃ at STP contains 6.023 × 10²³ NH₃ molecules.
:. 7 × 10^-3 m³ of NH₃ will contain
= \(\frac{6.023×10^{23}}{2.24×10^{-2}}\) × 7 × 10^-3
18.82 × 10²² NH₃ molecule

Question 6.
What is the mass in grams of the following?
(a) 3 moles of NaOH
(b) 6.023 × 10²² atoms of Ca
(c) 224 L of CO₂
Answer:
Formula:

(a) 3 moles of NaOH
Mass of 3 moles of NaOH = 3 × mol. mass of NaOH
GMM of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40 g
Mass of 3 moles of NaOH = 3 × 40 = 120 g

(b) 6.023 × 10²² atoms of Ca = n × atomic mass of ca

= 4 g

(c) 224 L of CO₂
Mass of 224 L of CO₂

= 10 × 44
= 440 g

Question 7.
How many grams are therein:
(i) 5 moles of water
(ii) 2 moles of Ammonia
(iii) 2 moles of Glucose
Solution:
(i) 5 moles of water.
Mass of 1 mole of water (H₂O) = 18 g (2 + 16)
Mass of 5 moles of H₂O = 18 × 5 = 90 g.

(ii) 2 moles of ammonia.
Mass of 1 mole of ammonia (NH₃) = 17 g (14 + 3)
Mass of 2 moles of ammonia = 17 × 2 = 34 g.

(iii) 2 moles of glucose.
Mass of 1 mole of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) = 180 g (72 + 12 + 96)
Mass of 2 moles of glucose = 180 × 2 = 360 g.

Question 8.
Calculate tbe molar mass of the following compounds.
(a) Urea (NH₂CONH₂)
(b) Ethanol(C₂H₅OH);
(c) Boric acid (H₃BO₃)
[Atomic mass of N – 14, H – 1, C – 12, B – 11, O – 16]
Answer:
(a) Urea (NH₂CONH₂) = 2(14) + 4(1) + 1(16) + 1(12)
= 28 + 4 + 16 + 12
= 60 g

(b) Ethanol(C₂H₅OH) = 2(12) + 6(1) + 1(16)
= 24 + 6 + 16 = 46 g

(c) Boric acid (H₂BO₃) = 3(1) + 1(11) + 3(16)
= 3 + 11 + 48
= 62 g

Question 9.
Mass of one atom of an element is 6.645 × 10^-23 g. How many moles of element are there in 0.320 kg.
Answer:
Mass of one atom of an element = 6.645 × 10^-23 g
∴ Mass of 1 mol of atom = 6.645 × 10^-23 × 6.023 × 10²³ = 40 g
Number of moles =

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Meteorology is the science of:
(a) Weather
(b) Social
(c) Political
(d) Human
Answer:
(a) Weather

Question 2.
We wear cotton during ……….
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Question 3.
Western disturbances cause rainfall in:
(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 4.
………. helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Norwester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
Answer:
(c) Mango showers

Question 5.
……………. is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitudes
Answer:
(a) Isohyets

Question 6.
The climate of India is labelled as ………
(a) Tropical humid
(b) Equatorial Climate
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate
(d) Temperate Climate
Answer:
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate

Question 7.
The monsoon forests are otherwise called as
(a) Tropical evergreen forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Mangrove forest
(d) Mountain forest
Answer:
(b) Deciduous forest

Question 8.
……. forests are found above 2400 m Himalayas.
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Alpine forests
(c) Mangrove forests
(d) Tidal forests
Answer:
(b) Alpine forests

Question 9.
Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(b) Andhra Pradesh

Question 10.
………… is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO .
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
Answer:
(a) Nilgiri

II. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon. Reason(R): Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the origin of monsoons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A.
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian Sub-continent warm.(Give option for this questions)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A.
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A

IV. Choose the inappropriate answer

Question 1.
Tidal forests are found in and around ……..
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
Answer:
(a) Desert

Question 2.
Climate of India is affected by:
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Altitude
(c) Distance from the sea
(d) Soil
Answer:
(d) Soil

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Define ‘Meteorology’.
Answer:
The branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere, especially as a means of forecasting the weather.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘normal lapse rate’?
Answer:
Temperature decreases when the altitude increases .Normal Lapse rate is a phenomenon in which temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000mts of ascent. Hence places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plain.

Question 3.
What are ‘jet streams’?
Answer:
In the upper layers of the atmosphere, there are strong westerly winds concentrated in a relatively narrow and shallow stream known as “Jet streams” They cause heavy rainfall in North-west India.

Question 4.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon wind’.
Answer:

1. The Word ‘Monsoon’ is derived from the Arabic word “Mausim” which means season.
2. Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon .
3. These winds originates due to the seasonal migration of planetary winds and pressure belts following the position of the sun.
4. During summer they blow from South west to North east ( South West monsoon) June-September and from the North east to South west (North East monsoon) October and November.

Question 5.
Name the four distinct seasons of India.
Answer:

1. Winter or cold weather season (Jan-Feb)
2. Pre Monsoon or Summer (March-May)
3. Southwest Monsoon or rainy season (June-September)
4. Northeast Monsoon season (October-December)

Question 6.
What is ‘burst of monsoon’?
Answer:

1. Prior to the onset of the Southwest monsoon the temperature in North India reaches up to 46°C.
2. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over South India with lightning and thunder is termed as the “break or burst of monsoon”.

Question 7.
Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.
Answer:

1. Middle Ganga Valley
2. Western Ghats
3. Eastern Maharashtra
4. Madhya Pradesh and Odisha

Question 8.
State places of mangrove forest in India.
Answer:

1. Mangrove forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influences.
2. In India they are found in deltas of Ganga, Brahmaputra (largest), the deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna rivers.

Question 9.
Name the trees of tropical evergreen forest.
Answer:
The most important trees are rubber, mahogany, ebony, rosewood, coconut, bamboo, cinchona, candes, palm, iron wood and cedar.

Question 10.
Write any five Biosphere Reserves in India.
Answer:

1. Biosphere Reserves are the protected areas of land coastal environments where in people are an integral component of the system.
2. The Indian Government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves. Gulf of Mannar Nilgiris, Agasthiamalai, Kanjanjunga, Great Nicobar etc.

Question 11.
What is ‘Project Tiger’?
Answer:
Project Tiger was launched in April 1973 with the aim to conserve tiger population in specifically constituted “Tiger Reserves” in India. This project is benefited tremendously, with an increase of over 60% – the 1979 consensus put the population at 3,015.

VI. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Weather and Climate.
Answer:
Weather:

1. State of the atmosphere of a place at a given point of time.
2. Weather changes occur daily.
3. Temperature, wind pressure, humidity duration of sunlight and rainfall decides the weather.

Climate:

1. Accumulation of daily and seasonal weather events of a given location over a period of time.
2. It is an average of weather condition over a period of 30-35 years.
3. Climate of a place is determined by Latitude, altitude, distance from the seas, relief features etc.

Question 2.
Tropical Evergreen Forest and Deciduous Forest.
Answer:
Tropical Evergreen forest:

1. These forests are found in the areas where the annual rainfall is 200 cm and more.
2. The tress of these forests do not shed their leaves.
3. Rubber, iron wood, Mahogony are some of the main trees.

Deciduous Forest:

1. These forests are found in the areas with 100 to 200cm annual rainfall.
2. The trees of these forests shed their leaves in spring and early summer.
3. Sandalwood, teak, sal, padak are some of the main trees.

Question 3.
North East Monsoon and South West Monsoon.
Answer:
North East Monsoon:

1. These monsoon winds blow from North-east to South west.
2. They blow during the month of October-November.
3. TamilNadu and Andhra Pradesh gets rainfall from this monsoon.

South West Monsoon:

1. These monsoon winds blow from South west towards North east.
2. They blow during the month of June-September.
3. 75% of India’s rainfall is from this monsoon winds.

VII. Give reasons for the following topics

Question 1.
Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Answer:
It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 km. It is mainly characterised by sandy beaches, coastal sand, dunes, mud flats, lagoons, estuary, laterite platforms and residual hills.

Question 2.
India has a tropical monsoon climate.
Answer:
Latitudinally India lies between 8°4′ N and 37°6’N latitudes. Tropic of Cancer (23° 30’N) divides the country into two equal halves . Most parts of the country’ lie in the Tropical Zone and receives rainfall from monsoon winds which is the dominating climatic factor. Hence India has Tropical monsoon climate.

Question 3.
Mountains are cooler than the plains.
Answer:
When the altitude increases, the temperature decreases. Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 metres of ascent. Hence, places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plains. That is why the places located at higher altitudes even in South India have cool climate. Ooty and several other hill stations of South India and of the Himalayan ranges like Mussoorie, Shimla, etc., are much cooler than the places located on the Great Plains.

VIII. Write in detail

Question 1.
Write about South West Monsoon.
Answer:

1. Southwest monsoon season is also known as the rainy season in India.
2. The onset of Southwest monsoon season takes place over the southern tip of the country’ by the first week of June, advances along the Konkon coast in early June and covers the whole country by 15th July.
3. Jet stream and ELNino are the two factors that determine the occurrence of Southwest monsoon.
4. Due to the high temperature over north India creates a low-pressure trough which draws the moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean towards the Indian landmass.
5. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over south India with ‘ lightning and the thunder indicates the onset of south-west monsoon.
   This is also known as “break or burst of monsoon”.
6. The monsoon winds strike against the southern tip of the Indian landmass and get divided into two branches.
   • (a) Arabian sea branch (of Southwest monsoon)
   • (b) The Bay of Bengal branch (of Southwest monsoon)

(a) Arabian sea branch of South west monsoon:

• The Arabian sea branch of south west monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west coast of India as it is located in the wind wards side of the Western Ghats.
• The other part which advances towards north strikes against the Himalayan mountains results in heavy rainfall in north.

As Aravalli mountains lie parallel to the wind direction. Rajasthan and the western parts do not get much rainfall.

(b) Bay of Bengal branch of south west monsoon:

• The Wind from Bay of Bengal moves towards north east India and Myanmar.
• This wind is trapped by Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills and gives the heaviest rainfall to Meghalaya (at Mawsynram).
• This wind gets deflected towards west.
• When the wind moves from east to west rainfall decreases as it looses its moisture.
• Tamil Nadu receives only a meager rainfall as the state is located on the leeward side.

About 75% of India’s rainfall is from the south west monsoon.

Question 2.
Describe the forests of India.
Answer:
Natural Vegetation refers to a plant community which has grown naturally without human aid
and has been left undisturbed by human for a long time.

Tropical Evergreen Forest:
These forests are found in areas with 200 cm or more annual rainfall.The annual temperature is about more than 22°C and the average annual humidity exceeds 70 percent in this region. Western Ghats in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, Andaman-Nicobar Islands, Assam, West Bengal, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur and Meghalaya states have this type of forests. The most important trees are rubber, mahogany, ebony, rosewood, coconut, bamboo, cinchona, candes, palm, iron wood and cedar.

Tropical Deciduous Forest:
It covers a large area of the Peninsula and northern India, where the rainfall is from 100 to 200 m. These trees of the forests shed their leaves for a few weeks in early summer. The main trees are teak, Sandalwood, deodars, sisam, sal and redwood.

Tropical Dry Forest:
These are found in the areas with 50 to 100 cm. annual rainfall.They represent a transitional type of forests. These are found in east Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, Western Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Eastern Maharashtra, Telangana, West Karnataka and East Tamilnadu. The important species are mahua, banyan, amaltas, palas, haldu, kikar, bamboo, babool, khair etc.,

Mountain or Montane Forest:
These forests are classified on the basis of altitude and amount of rainfall. Accordingly two different types of forests namely Eastern Himalayas Forests and Western Himalayas Forests. Eastern Himalayan Forest: These are found on the slopes of the mountains in north-east states. They receive rainfall of more than 200 cm. The vegetation is of evergreen type. Sal, oak, laurel, amura, chestnut, cinnamon are the main trees from 1200 to 2400 m altitude oak, birch, silver, fir, fine, spruce and juniper are the major trees from 2400 to 3600 m height. Western Himalayan Forest: The rainfall of this region is moderate. They are found n the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. In altitude from 900 to 1800 m, chir tree is the most common tree. The other important trees of this region are sal, semal, dhak, jamun and jujube.

Alpine Forest:
It occurs all along the Himalayas with above 2400 m altitude. These are purely having coniferous trees. Oak, silver fir, pine and juniper are the main trees of these forests. The eastern parts of Himalayas has large extent of these forests.

Tidel Forest:
These forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influences and as such are also known as delta or swamp forests. The delta of the Ganga-Brahmaputra has the largest tidal forest. The deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna rivers are also known for tidal forests. These are also known as mangrove forest.

Coastal Forest:
These are littoral forests. Generally, coastal areas have these types of forests. Casurina, palm and coconut are the dominant trees. Both the eastern and western coasts have this type of forests.

Riverine Forest:
These forests are found along the rivers on Khadar areas. These are known for tamarisk and tamarind trees. The rivers of Great Plains are more prominent for this type of natural vegetation.

Question 3.
Write the names of biosphere reserves and their location in India.
Answer:
The Indian Government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves which protect larger areas of natural habitat and often include one or more national parks along with the buffer zones that are open to some economic uses.

IX. Map

Mark the following on the outline map of India.

Question 1.
Direction of South West Monsoon wind.
Answer:

Question 2.
Direction of North East Monsoon wind.
Answer:

Question 3.
Areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:

Question 4.
Mountain forests.
Answer:

Question 5.
Panna biosphere reserve
Answer:

Question 6.
Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
Answer:

TB. PNo: 99
Find Out

Question 1.
Find out the temperature of Ooty (2240m). If it is 35°C in Chennai (6.7 m).
Answer:
For every 1000 mt altitude temperature decreases by 6.5°C . So the temperature of Ooty is nearly 15°C.

TB. PNo: 102
HOTS

Question 1.
Why is Mawsynram, the wettest place in the world?
Answer:
Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the highest rainfall (1141 cm) in the world. Almost daily it rains. Thus make this place a swampy and the wettest due to very dense vegetation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is:
(a) Relief
(b) Monsoon winds
(c) Temperature
(d) Soil
Answer:
(b) Monsoon winds

Question 2.
The Local storms in the north eastern part of India during the weather seasons are called
(a) Loo
(b) Norwesters
(c) Mangoshowers
Answer:
(a) Loo

Question 3.
Seventy-five percentage of Indian rainfall is from this wind:
(a) Western Disturbance
(b) North East monsoon
(c) Norwesters
(d) South West monsoon
Answer:
(d) South West monsoon

Question 4.
The mountain which stands parallel to the direction of the south-west monsoon wind ….
(a) Vindhya
(b) Aravalli
(c) Satpura
Answer:
(b) Aravalli

Question 5.
The ……………. forests are found in the region where the rainfall is 200 cm and above.
(a) Tropical evergreen
(b) Tidal
(c) Tropical deciduous
(d) Alpine
Answer:
(a) Tropical evergreen

Question 6.
……… experience continental climate.
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 7.
The term ……………. includes animals of any habitat in nature.
(a) Mammals
(b) Forests
(c) Insects
(d) Wild life
Answer:
(d) Wild life

Question 8.
In India, 85% of the rain is received from the ……….
(a) North-east
(b) South-west
(c) South-east
Answer:
(b) South-west

Question 9.
In the year ……………. United nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) recognizes the sovereign rights of the states to use their own Biological Resources.
(a) 1992
(b) 1982
(c) 1979
(d) 1929
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 10.
The ……… prevents the cold polar winds blowing from Central Asia.
(a) Aravalli Hills
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Himalayas
Answer:
(c) Himalayas

Question 11.
The highest rainfall region in India is located in this state:
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Manipur
Answer:
(c) Meghalaya

Question 12.
There is a peculiar uniformity in the climate of India due to its unique ……..
(a) Geography
(b) Physiography
(c) Demography
Answer:
(b) Physiography

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)
F. (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (vi)
E. (iv)
F. (iii)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Peninsular India enjoys equable climate.
Reason(R): The peninsular region is surrounded by the seas on three sides, not very far from the sea.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Two different types-of mountain forests are in India namely Eastern Himalayan forests and Western Himalayan forests.
Reason(R): Mountain forests are classified on the basis of altitude and amount of Rainfall.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A

Question 3.
Assertion(A): Systematic change in the direction of planetary winds is known as monsoons.
Reason(R): Monsoon winds originates due to the seasonal migration of planetary winds and pressure belts following the position of the Sun.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Rajasthan remains as desert.
Reason(R): As Aravalli mountain is located parallel to the Arabian Sea branch South west Monsoon winds the western part (Rajasthan) do not receive much rainfall. To the Bay of Bengal Branch of South west Monsoon wind it is located on the leeward side.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A

IV. Choose the inappropriate answer

Question 1.
The pre-monsoon showers are known as mango showers in:
(a) Kerala and Karnataka
(b) Punjab and Haryana
(c) Hot weather season
(d) Helps quick ripening of mangoes
Answer:
(b) Punjab and Haryana

Question 2.
Tropical deciduous forests trees are of economic importance:
(a) Have valuable trees like teak, sal.
(b) To make fragnant oil, varnish, perfumes.
(c) Do not shed their leaves.
(d) Found in rainfall areas of 100 to 200 cm.
Answer:
(c) Do not shed their leaves.

Question 3.
Tidal forests are also known as swamp or delta forests.
(a) These forests are not prone to tidal waves.
(b) Known as mangrove forests.
(c) Occur in and around deltas, estuaries.
(d) Prone to tidal influences.
Answer:
(a) These forests are not prone to tidal waves.

Question 4.
Biosphere Reserves are protected areas of coastal and land environment.
(a) Indian Government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves.
(b) Do not protect areas of natural habitat.
(c) People are an integral component of the system.
(d) One or more National parks preserves along with buffer zone.
Answer:
(b) Do not protect areas of natural habitat.

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Name the classification of Natural vegetation.
Answer:
Natural Vegetation can be classified as:

1. Tropical Evergreen forests
2. Tropical deciduous forests
3. Tropical dry forests
4. Desert and semi-desert
5. Mountain forests
6. Alpine forests and
7. Tidal forests

Question 2.
Name the factors affecting the climate of India.
Answer:
Climate of India is affected by the factors of latitude, distance from the seas, Monsoon wind, relief features and jet stream.

Question 3.
The climate and weather conditions in India are governed by the three-atmosphere conditions. Name them.
Answer:

1. The Pressure and Surface winds.
2. Upper air Circulation
3. Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical conditions

Question 4.
What is ElNino? How does it affect the climate of India?
Answer:
ElNino is a complex global phenomena of weather that appears once eveiy five to ten years. It is a cause for the delay of onset of the southwest monsoon in India.

Question 5.
What is the Characteristic features of monsoon rains in India?
Answer:

1. The Monsoon rains are pulsating in nature
2. They can cause heavy rainfall in one part and drought in the other.
3. They are known for their uncertainties.

Question 6.
What is the role of Jet stream regarding the climate of India?
Answer:

1. The arrival and departure of monsoon winds is determined by Jet stream.
2. Cause tropical depressions both during South west monsoon and North east monsoon.
3. Plays a vital role in bringing western disturbances to India there by helping winter wheat cultivation.

Question 7.
What values are associated with the monsoon in India?
Answer:

• Monsoon acts as unifying bond for India.
• The unifying influence of the monsoon on the Indian Subcontinent is quite perceptible.
• The Seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons.
• The Indian landscape, its animal and plant life, its entire agricultural calender and the life of the people, including their festivities, revolve around this phenomenon.
• Year after year, people of India from North to South and from east to west, eagerly await the arrival of the monsoon. These monsoon winds binds the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion.
• The rivers valleys which carry this water also unite as a single river valley unit.

Question 8.
Give a brief note on the Indian Board for Wild life:
Answer:

1. The Indian Board for wild life was constituted in 1952 to suggest means of protection, conservation and management of wild life to the Government of India.
2. The Government of India enacted wild life (protection) Act in 1972 with the objective of effectively protecting the wild life.

Question 9.
Explain the steps taken to conserve wildlife.
Answer:
The Wild Life Act Of India protects and conserves this grest heritage of nation. The first weak of October is observed as Wild life Week Of India.

Question 10.
Give the Full form of these abbreviations.

1. IBWL
2. CBD
3. ITCZ

Answer:

1. IBWL : Indian Board for Wild Life.
2. CBD: Convention on Biological Diversity.
3. ITCZ : Inter Tropical Convergence Zone.

Question 11.
Why does the coromandal coast face frequent cyclones?
Answer:
The north east monsoon winds by crossing the Bay of Bengal absorbs moisture and gives heavy rain to the coromandal coast. These are frequent cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal and they cause heavy damage to life and property along the coromandal coast.

Question 12.
Give a brief description of the Mangrove forests.
Answer:

• The mangrove tidal forests are found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Hence, mangroves are the common varities with roots of the plants submerged under water. The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation. In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta sundari trees are found which provides durable hard timber.
• Palm, coconut, Keora agar also grow in some parts of the delta.
• Royal Bengal Tiger is the famous animal in these forests. Turtles, crocodiles, gharials and snakes are also found in these forests.

VI. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Winter/Cold weather and Summer/Hot weather season.
Solution:
Winter or Cold weather season:

1. In India,winter weather period is January-February.
2. The mean temperature increases from North to South.
3. Western Disturbances occurs in this season.
4. Generally fine weather and low tempertaure.

Summer or Hot weather season:

1. The summer season is from March- May.
2. The mean tempertaure increases from South to North.
3. Mango showers, Norwesters or Kalbaisakhi occurs in this season.
4. Generally hot and dry weather.

Question 2.
Heavy rainfall and less/low rainfall region.
Answer:
Heavy rainfall region:

1. These areas get annual rainfall of 200 cms and above.
2. Western coast, Assam, South Meghalaya are heavy rainfall areas.

Less or low rainfall region:

1. These areas get annual rainfall less than 100 cms.
2. Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Western and South western parts of Uttar Pradesh, plateau region gets less rainfall.

Question 3.
Windward side and Leeward side.
Answer:
Windward side:

1. The slope of the mountain that lie on the path of rain bearing winds.
2. The windward side gets more rainfall.
3. Western slopes of Western Ghats – West coastal plains.

Leeward side:

1. The slope of the mountain that do not face the rain bearing winds.
2. The Leeward side gets less or no rainfall.
3. Eastern slopes of Western Ghats – Deccan Plateau.

Question 4.
Eastern and Western Himalayan forests.
Answer:
Eastern Himalayan forests:

1. The vegetation of this forest is’ evergreen as these forests receive more than 200cm rainfall.
2. Pine, Sal Fir, Oak, Laurel are some of the main trees of these forests.
3. These forests are found in the North Eastern states.

Western Himlayan forests:

1. The rainfall of this region is moderate and have varied vegetation regards to altitude.
2. Upto 900m altitude semi desert vegetation from 900m – 1800m chir tree and sal, at 1800m conifer trees.
3. These forests are found in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and UttaraKhand.

VII. Give reasons for the following topics

Question 1.
Kolkatta receives more rainfall than Bikaner in Rajasthan.
Answer:
Air near the coast has more moisture and greater potential to produce precipitation. Due to this fact Kolkatta near the coast receives more rainfall (119cm) than Bikaner (24cm) which is located in the interior part.

Question 2.
In India Conservation and management of Biodiversity is necessary why?
Answer:
Hunting, Poaching, deforestation and encroachments in the natural habitats have caused extinction of some species and many are in the danger of extinction. The role of wild life in maintaining the ecological balance made it necessary for conservation and management of Biodiversity.

Question 3.
Relief of India has a great bearing on climate.
Answer:
The elements of climate such as temperature, atmospheric pressure, direction of winds and the amount of rainfall are affected by the presence of relief features as they act as a climatic barrier like the Himalayas and Western Ghats.

VIII. Write in detail

Question 1.
What are the major determinants of climate of a place? Explain them.
Answer:
The major determinants of climate of a place are,

1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Distance from the seas
4. Monsoon winds
5. Relief features (Mountains)
6. Jet Streams

1. Latitude:
Latitudinally, India lies between 8°4’N and 37°6’N latitudes. The Tropic of cancer divides the country into two equal halves. The area located to the south of Tropic of cancer experiences high temperature and no severe cold season throughout the year whereas, the areas to the north of this parallel enjoys subtropical climate. Here, summer temperature may rise above 40°C and it is close to freezing point during winter.

2. Altitude:
As one goes from the surface of the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense and temperature decreases. The hills are therefore cooler during summer.

3. Distance from the seas:
Distance from the sea does not cause only temperature and pressure variations but also affects the amount of rainfall. As the distance from the sea increased its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions. This condition is known as continentality.(i.e.) Very hot during summers and very cold during winter.

4. Monsoon winds:
The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is the monsoon winds. These are seasonal reversal winds and India remains in the influence of these winds for a considerable part of a year. Though, the sun’s rays are vertical over the central part of India during the mid-June, the summer season ends in India by the end of May. It is because the onset of southwest monsoon brings down the temperature of the entire India and causes moderate to heavy rainfall in many parts of the country. Similarly, the climate of southeast India is also influenced by northeast monsoon.

5. Relief features (Mountains):
Relief of India has a great bearing on major elements of climate such as temperature, atmospheric pressure, direction of winds and the amount of rainfall. High mountains act as barriers for cold or hot winds; they may also cause precipitation if they are high enough and lie in the path of rain-bearing winds. The leeward side of mountains remains dry.

6. Jet Streams:
Jet streams are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere. According to the Jet stream theory, the onset of southwest monsoon is driven by the shift of the sub tropical westerly jet from the plains of India towards the Tibetan plateau. The easterly jet streams cause tropical depressions both during southwest monsoon and retreating monsoon.

Question 2.
Write about the factors that affect the climate of India.
Answer:
Climate of India is affected by the factors of latitude, altitude, distance from the seas, monsoon winds and jet streams.

Latitude:

1. Latitudinally India is located in the Tropical belt between 8°4’N and 37°6’N latitudes.
2. The tropic of cancer divides the country into two equal halves.
3. This enables the places south of Tropic of cancer (23°30’N) to experience high temperature and no severe cold.
4. The places north of Tropic of cancer enjoy sub tropical climate.

Altitude:

1. When the altitude increases, temperature decreases as per the phenomena. “Normal Lapse rate”. For every 1000 mts of ascent the temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C.
2. Hence the places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plains.
3. Even in South India places at higher altitude have cool climate.

Distance from the sea:

1. Distance from the sea not only causes temperature and pressure variations but also affects the amount of rainfall.
2. The entire area of peninsular region as it is surrounded by seas on three sides having the temperature equable throughout the year.
3. Areas of central and north India experiences much seasonal variation in temperature due to the absence of seas.

Monsoon winds:

1. The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is the. monsoon winds.
2. India is influenced by the South west monsoon and North east monsoon from June to September and October, November respectively.
3. Indian agriculture is at the mercy of monsoons.
4. India experiences Tropical monsoon climate.

Relief:

1. Relief of India has a great bearing on major elements of climate such as temperature, atmospheric pressure direction of wind and amount of rainfall.
2. The mighty Himalayas in the north act as a climatic barrier preventing the freezing cold winds from central Asia away from India.
3. The Western ghats act as the barrier for south west monsoon winds causing rainfall to the western slopes, and the eastern slopes remain as rain shadow region.

Jet Stream:

1. Jet streams are the fast moving winds blowing in the narrow zone of upper layers of atmosphere.
2. These air currents play a dominant role in bringing the onset of South west monsoon and withdrawal of monsoon winds.
3. More over they are the main reason in bringing the Western Disturbances to the North Western part of Punjab and Haryana causing rainfall and enable the cultivation of winter wheat.
4. It causes snow fall in Jammu and Kashmir region.

Thus the Tropical monsoon = climate of India revolve around these factors

IX. Map Work

Mark the following on the outline map of India.

Question 1.
Areas of low rainfall
Answer:

Question 2.
Any 4 Biosphere Reserve
Answer:

Question 3.
Any 5 National parks
Answer:

Question 4.
Any 3 Wild animal sanctuary
Answer:

Question 5.
Any 2 Bird Sanctuary
Answer:

Question 6.
Top 5 states having maximum forest cover
Answer:

Question 7.
Top 5 states where forest cover is decreased
Answer:

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 1 India: Location, Relief and Drainage Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 1 India: Location, Relief and Drainage

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Location, Relief and Drainage Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The north-south extent of India is:
(a) 2,500km
(b) 292,933 km
(c) 3,214km
(d) 2,814km
Answer:
(c) 3,214km

Question 2.
The Southern most point of India is ……….
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

Question 3.
The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about:
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,400 km
(c) 800 km
(d) 2,200 km
Answer:
(a) 2,500 km

Question 4.
……… River is known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 5.
Deccan Plateau covers an area of about sq.km.
(a) 8 lakh
(b) 6 lakh
(c) 5 lakh
(d) 7 lakh
Answer:
(d) 7 lakh

Question 6.
A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as ………
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) Strait
Answer:
(c) Peninsula

Question 7.
The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from:
(a) Goa
(b) West Bengal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Maldives
Answer:
(c) Sri Lanka

Question 8.
The highest peak in South India is …………
(a) Ooty
(b) Kodaikanal
(c) Anaimudi
(d) Jindhagada
Answer:
(c) Anaimudi

Question 9.
Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
(a) Bhabar
(b) Tarai
(c) Bhangar
(d) Khadar
Answer:
(c) Bhangar

Question 10.
Pulicat Lake is located between the states of ………….
(a) West Bengal and Odisha
(b) Karnataka and Kerala
(c) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

II. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

III. Give Reasons

Question 1.
The Himalayas are called young fold mountains.
Answer:
The Himalayas are called young fold mountains. Because they have been formed only few million years ago and also they were formed because of the folding of the Earth crust due to tectonic activity’.
[OR]
High pointed peaks and parallel ranges is the features of young fold mountains. Since the Himalayas have these features they are called young fold mountains.

Question 2.
North Indian Rivers are perennial.
Answer:
Most of the North Indian Rivers are perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year. These rivers receive water from rain as well as from melted snow from the lofty mountains.

Question 3.
Chottanagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.
Answer:
This region is a part of the ancient Gondwana region. So, Chotanagpur plateau is rich in mineral resources like iron ore and coal.

Question 4.
The great ludian desert ii called Marusthall.
Answer:
The Thar desert, also known as the Great Indian desert is a large arid region in the north
western part of the Indian Subcontinent that covers an area of 2,00,000 Km² and forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan.
Marusthali means sand-dune. It covered eastern portion of the Great indian Thar Desert in western Rajasthan. It extends over about 24,000 square miles north of the Luni River.

Question 5.
The Eastern states are called seven sisters.
Answer:
The Eastern states in India are the continuous seven states. Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya. “A paradise unexplored” named by a journalist Jyothi Prakash Salkia in 1972 during the inaugural foundation of North East states.

Question 6.
The river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga.
Answer:

1. The Godavari is India’s second longest river after Ganga.
2. It rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra.
3. It covers a large number of states as the Ganga does. Because of its large size and extend among the peninsular rivers, the river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga.

IV. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
Himalayan Rivers:

1. Originate from the Himalayas.
2. Perennial in nature.
3. Long and Wide.
4. Middle and Lower courses are navigable.
5. Unsuitable for hydropower generation.

Peninsular Rivers:

1. Originate from Western ghats.
2. Non-perennial in nature.
3. Short and narrow.
4. Not useful for navigation.
5. Suitable for hydro-power generation.

Question 2.
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Western ghats:

1. Western ghats forms the Western edge of the peninsular plateau.
2. It runs parallel to the Arabian sea coast.
3. They are continuous range.
4. Anaimudi is the highest peak.

Eastern ghats:

1. Eastern ghats form the Eastern edge of the peninsular plateau.
2. It runs parallel to the Bay of Bengal coast.
3. They are not continuous dissected by east flowing rivers.
4. Mahendragiri is the highest peak.

Question 3.
Himadri and Himachal.
Answer:
Himadri:

1. Northern most range of the Himalayas.
2. Known as the Greater Himalayas.
3. Lofty peaks like Mt.Everest, Kanchenjunga etc., are located in this range.
4. Region of permanent snow cover.

Himachal:

1. Middle range of the Himalayas.
2. Known as the lesser Himalayas.
3. Major hill stations like Shimla, Daijeeling etc., are located in this region.
4. Subjected to extensive erosion.

Question 4.
Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Western Coastal plains:

1. Lies between Western ghats and Arabian Sea.
2. It extends from Rann of Kutch in the North to Kanyakumari in the South.
3. Dotted with sandy beaches, lagoons and estuary.
4. It is known as Konkan plains in the North Kanara in the middle and Malabar in the South.

Eastern Coastal plains:

1. Lies between Eastern ghats and the Bay of Bengal.
2. It stretches along the states of West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
3. Has regular shoreline and composed of alluvial deposits.
4. Northern part (Mahanadhi-Krishna) called as Northern circars and Southern part (Krishna-Kaveri) is called Coromandal coast.

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:
The neighbouring countries of India are Pakistan in the West, Afghanistan in the North-West, China, Nepal and Bhutan in the North and Bangladesh and Myanmar in the East and Srilanka in the South.

Question 2.
Give the importance of IST.
Answer:
To avoid the confusion of time in different states of India. One meridian is taken to have a uniform time for a whole country. Therefore 80° 30′ E has been chosen as the Standard Meridian of India which is almost passing from the centre of India.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

1. Deccan plateau is the largest part of the peninsular plateau.
2. It is roughly triangular in shape.
3. It covers an area of 7 lakh sq km.
4. The height ranges from 500 to 1000m above sea level.
5. It extends from Rajmahal hills on the East to Kanyakumari in the South. Satpura range in the West to Kanyakumari in the South. Bordered by Western Ghats on the West and Eastern ghats on the East.

Question 4.
State the west-flowing rivers of India.
Answer:

• The Narmada and the Tapi are the west flowing rivers of the Peninsular India.
• These rivers drain into the Arabian Sea.
• These rivers form estuaries on the west coast.
• These rivers are devoid of an large tributary system.
• Narmada river is the largest among the west flowing rivers of peninsular India. Its principal tributaries are Bushner, Halon, Heran, Banjar, Dudhi, Shakkar, Tawa, Bama and Kolar.
• Tapti river is one of only the three rivers in peninsular India that run from east to west. The others being the Narmada and the Mahi.
• The major tributaries are Vaki, Gomai, Arunavati, Aner, Nesu, Buray Panjhra and Bori. It outfall into the Arabian sea through the Gulf of Cambay.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshadweep.
Answer:

1. The Lakshadweep islands of India are located off the West coast of India.
2. These islands are of coral origin.
3. It covers an area of 32 sq km and consists of 27 islands.
4. Kavaratti is the administrative capital of Lakshadweep.
5. Earlier it had three divisions namely Laccadives, Minicoy and Aminidivi and was named as Lakshadweep in 1973.
6. “Pitt Island” of this group has a bird sanctuary and it is uninhabited.

VI. Answer In a paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the divisions of the Northern Mountains and its importance to India.
Answer:

• The Himalayas geologically young and structurally fold mountains stretch over the northern borders of India.
• The Himalayas represent the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain barriers of the world.
• The mountain ranges run in a west-east direction from India to the Brahmaputra.

Question 2.
Give an account on the major peninsular rivers of India.
Answer:

1. The rivers in South India are called the Peninsular rivers.
2. Most of these rivers originate from the Western ghats.
3. These rivers are seasonal and are mainly fed by rain.
4. Based on the direction of flow the Peninsular rivers are divided into East flowing rivers and West flowing rivers.

East flowing rivers:

1. Mahanadi: Originates near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chattisgarh.
   • Flows through Odisha, Jharkand, Chattisgarh (851 km in length)
   • Major tributaries: Seonath, Telen, Sandur and lb.
   • Distributaries: Paika, Birupa, Chitartala, Genguti and Nun.
   • These distributaries forms the Delta of Mahanadhi, one of the largest delta in India.
   • This river flows into Bay of Bengal.

(ii) Godavari:

• It is the longest river (1,465km) among the peninsular rivers covers 3.13 lakh km2 area.
• Originates in Nasik district of Maharashtra.
• Flows through the States of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh ends into Bay of Bengal.
• Major distributaries: Puma, Penganga, Pranitha, Indravathi, Tal and Salami.
• Distributaries: Near Rajahmundry divides into two channels. Vasishta and Gautami and form one of the largest delta.
• Fresh water lake: Kolleru is located in the deltaic region of Godavari.

(iii) Krishna:

• It is the second longest peninsular river (1400 km) covers 2.58 lakh sq km area.
• Originates from a spring in Mahabaleshwar in the Western ghats of Maharashtra.
• Flows through Andhra Pradesh.
• Major tributaries: Bhima, Peddavagu, Musi, Koyna and Thungabhadra.
• Joins in Bay of Bengal at Hamasaladevi.

(iv) Kaveri:

• Originates at Talakaveri – Kudagu hills of Karnataka (800km).
• It is also known as Dakshin Ganga or Ganga of the South.
• Main Tributaries: Hemavathi, Kabini, Bhavani, Arkavathy, Amaravathi, Harangi etc.
• Distributary – Coleroon
• Sacred lslands made by river Kaveri: Sri ranagpattinam(Kamataka) Srirangam (TamilNadu) Waterfalls – Sivasamudram.
• Flows through Karnataka and TamilNadu.
• Enters TamilNadu through Hoghenekkal Falls (Dharmapuri).
• Drains into Bay of Bengal at Poompuhar.

West Flowing Rivers:

(i) Narmadha:

• Origin: Araarkantak Plateau (Madhya Pradesh)
• Length: 1312 km covers an area of 98,796 sq km.
• Largest among the West flowing rivers.
• Tributaries: Burhner, Halon, Heran, Banjar, Dudhi, Shakkar, Tawa, Bama, Kolar.
• States benefited: Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra.
• Ends into Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Cambay.
• Forms 27 km long estuary.

(ii) Tapti:

• Rises near Multani in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.
• Length: 724 km. Covers an area of 65,145 sq km.
• Tributaries: Vaki, Gomai, Arunnavati, Aner, Nesu, Buray, Panjhra and Bori.
• Outfalls into the Arabian Sea through Gulf of Cambay.
• States: Flows through Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
• Since all these rivers flow in the plateau region they are swift and are useful for hydro power generation.

Question 3.
Give a detailed account on the basin of the Ganga.
Answer:

• On the basis of deposition of Sediments by various rivers and topographical characteristics, the Northern plains of India is divided into the four major regions. Ganga plains is one among them.
• It extends from the Yamuna River in the West to Bangladesh in the East.
• The extensive plain is the largest plain of India covers 3.75 lakh sq. km.
• It is watered by the River Ganga and its tributaries such as Ghaghra, Gandak, Kosi, Yamuna, Chambal, Betwa etc.
• It is formed by the sediments of these rivers and is fertile in nature.
• The general slope of the entire plain is towards East and South-East.
• Ganga plains covers the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal.

VII. Map exercises

Mark the following in the outline map of India

Question 1.
Major mountain ranges – Karakoram,Ladakh, Zaskar, Aravaili, Western Ghats,Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Question2.
Major rivers – Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Narmada, Tapti, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
Answer:

Question 3.
Major plateaus – Malwa, Chotanagpur, Deccan.
Answer:

VIII. Activities

Question 1.
Observe the Peninsular Plateau map of India and mark the major plateau divisions of India.
Answer:

Question 2.
Prepare a table showing the major West flowing and East flowing rivers of peninsular India.
Answer:
West flowing rivers:

1. Narmada, Tapti, Mahi.
2. Flows into Arabian Sea through Gulf of cambay.
3. Do not make deltas but form estuary.

East flowing rivers:

1. Mahanadhi, Godhavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
2. Flows into Bay of Bengal.
3. Make deltas at their lower courses.

Question 3.
Assume that you are travelling from West Bengal to Gujarat along the beautiful coasts of India. Find out the states which you would pass through?
Answer:
From West Bengal, if we travel along the East coast we could pass through Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu states from North to South and from South to North along the West Coast we would pass through the states of Kerala, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and reach Gujarat.

Question 4.
Find out the states through which the river Ganga flows.
Answer:
River Ganga flows through the States of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal.

Question 5.
Prepare a table showing the major rivers in India and findout it’s tributaries, origin, length and area.
Answer:

TB. PNo: 83
Find Out

Question 1.
The number of Union Territories along the western coast and eastern coast.
Answer:
Union Territories along the western coast are:

1. Diu and Daman
2. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
3. Mahe and Lakshadweep.

Union Territories along eastern coast are:

• Pondicherry and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 2.
Area wise which is the largest and the smallest state?
Answer:

1. Area wise Rajasthan is the largest state (3,42,239 sq.km).
2. The smallest state is Goa (3,702 sq km).

Question 3.
The states which do not have an international border or lie on the largest state.
Answer:
Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh.

Question 4.
Classify into four groups each having common frontiers with

1. Pakistan
2. China
3. Myanmar
4. Bangladesh.

Answer:

1. Pakistan – Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat.
2. China – Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarkhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh.
3. Myanmar – Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland Manipur, Mizoram.
4. Bangladesh – Meghalaya, Assam, West Bengal, Tripura.

TB. PNo: 85
Find Out

Question 5.
Find the Hill stations which are located in the Himalayan Mountains.
Answer:
Major hill stations of the Himalayas are Shimla, Mussoorie, Nainital, Almora, Ranikhet and Darjeeling.

TB. PNo: 95
Find Out

Question 6.
In which river the Gerosappa (jog) fall is found?
Answer:
In the river Sharavathi is the Gerosappa (jog) falls (830m). Second highest waterfalls in India.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Location, Relief and Drainage Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
India is the ………………… largest country in Asia.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) fourth
(d) third
Answer:
(b) second

Question 2.
Along with Hindukush and Karakoram range ……… provide a natural boundary in the
north.
(a) Aravalli
(b) Satpura
(c) Himalayas
Answer:
(c) Himalayas

Question 3.
The ………………… latitude passes through the middle of the country.
(a) 0°
(b) 23°.30’N
(c) 66°.30’N
(d) 23°.30’S
Answer:
(b) 23°.30’N

Question 4.
The coconut bearing coastal plains are on the ………
(a) east
(b) west
(c) south
Answer:
(c) south

Question 5.
The ………………… is known as the “Roof of the World”.
(a) Armenian knot
(b) Anaimudi
(c) Pamirknot
(d) Mt.Everest
Answer:
(c) Pamirknot

Question 6.
The …….. land gets abundance sunshine from the sun.
(a) mediterranean
(b) tropical
(c) equatorial
Answer:
(b) tropical

Question 7.
The Great Northern plains covers an area of over sq.km.
(a) 5 lakh
(b) 6 lakh
(c) 7 lakh
(d) 8 lakh
Answer:
(c) 7 lakh

Question 8.
The …… divides India into two halves.
(a) tropic of Cancer 231/2° N
(b) equator 0°
(c) tropic of Capricorn 231/2° S
Answer:
(a) tropic of Cancer 231/2° N

Question 9.
The ………………… desert is the world 9th largest sub tropical desert.
(a) Gobi
(b) Atacama
(c) Kalahari
(d) Thar
Answer:
(d) Thar

Question 10.
India is …….. times bigger than Pakistan.
(a) two
(b) five
(c) four
Answer:
(c) four

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

III. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Peninsular Rivers are Non-Perennial.
Answer:
Peninsular rivers originate from the Western Ghats. They have a large seasonal fluctuation in the volume of water as they are solely fed by the rain. So these Rivers are seasonal and non-perennial.

Question 2.
Andaman and Nicobar islands have dense forests.
Answer:
Since these islands lie close to the equator, the climate remains hot and wet throughout the year and has dense forests.

Question 3.
India has close contact with the countries of the West and the East.
Answer:
India’s Southward extension along the Indian ocean and the trans Indian . ocean routes provide a strategic position to India connecting the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia. Thus, India has close contact with the countries of the West and the East.

Question 4.
India is geographically vibrant and incredible country.
Answer:
The majestic Himalayan peaks in the North, beautiful beaches in the South, the Great Indian desert in the West and the breathtaking natural heritage in the East make India geographically vibrant and an incredible country.

IV. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

1. Located in Bay of Bengal.
2. These islands are of volcanic origin.
3. Port Blair is the administrative capital.
4. Consists of nearly 572 islands.

Lakshadweep Islands:

1. Located in Arabian Sea off the West coast of India.
2. These islands are mainly coral origin.
3. Kavaratti is the administrative capital.
4. Consists of nearly 27 islands.

Question 2.
Bhangar plains and Khadar plains.
Answer:
Bhangar plains:

1. Upland alluvial tracts of Great plains.
2. Formed by the older alluvium.
3. Soil is dark, rich in humus.
4. Well drained and fit for agriculture.

Khadar plains:

1. Plains along the courses of the rivers of Great plains.
2. Formed by the newer alluvium.
3. Soil is sandy, silt, clay and mud.
4. Highly fertile.

Question 3.
West flowing rivers and East flowing rivers.
Answer:
West flowing rivers:

1. Flow into Gulf of Cambay.
2. Form estuaries
3. Narmadha, Tapti and Mahi are the major west flowing rivers.

East flowing rivers of Peninsular plateau or South India:

1. Flow into Bay of Bengal.
2. Form Deltas
3. Mahanadhi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri are the major east flowing rivers.

Question 4.
Tributary and Distributary.
Answer:
Tributary:

1. A river or stream that joins with the main river.
2. Contributes water to the main river.
3. Eg: Yamuna tributary of river Ganga.

Distributary:

1. A branch or outlet that leaves the main river.
2. Carries water to the sea or lake.
3. Eg: River Coleroon a distributary of river Kaveri.

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Mention the tributaries of Godavari.
Answer:
Ghatprabha, Malaprabha, Manjira, Penganga and Neingarga.

Question 2.
Name the boundaries of India.
Answer:
India is bounded by Bay of Bengal on the East, Arabian sea on the West, Indian ocean in the South and the lofty Himalayas in the North

Question 3.
Why do we need a Standard Meridian for India?
Answer:
To avoid time gap of two hours between east and west part of India which may create confusion in working, it is essential to have a Standard Meridian.

Question 4.
How India is politically divided?
Answer:
India is politically divided into 29 states and 7 union territories (Delhi being the National Capital territory) for administrative convenience.

Question 5.
Why is India called a Sub-continent? How it is separated?
Answer:

1. India is called a Sub-continent because it is big landmass, which stands out as a distinct geographical unit from the rest of the continent.
2. It is separated by natural features like mountains and rivers.
3. India is also separated from rest of the continent by the mighty Himalayas.

Question 6.
Name the three major divisions of the Northern Mountains.
Answer:
The three major divisions of the Northern mountains are:

1. The Trans-Himalayas (or) The Western Himalayas
2. The Himalayas
3. Eastern Hills or Purvanchal Hills

Question 7.
Why is Northern Plain most productive part of India?
Answer:
With a rich soil cover combined with an adequate water supply and favourable climate Northern plain is agriculturally a very productive part of India.

Question 8.
How has Northern Plain become a fertile Plain?
Answer:
The plain is formed of alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a large basis lying at the foothills of the Himalayan over millions of years make northern plains fertile.

VI. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
India is a Sub-Continent. Prove it.
Answer:

1. Physical features
2. Climate conditions
3. Natural vegetation
4. Cultural norms
5. Ancient ethic and linguistic groups
6. Huge area

All these distinctive continental characteristic are found in India. Hence we consider India as a Sub-Continent.

Question 2.
Name the old fold mountain in India and write a brief note on it.
Answer:

1. Aravalli range is the old fold mountain in India.
2. These mountains are the relies and are reduced into hills due to erosional features.
3. The Aravalli hills form the North-Western and Western boundary of the Central Highlands a sub division of Peninsular plateau.
4. These hills extends from Gujarat through Rajasthan to Delhi in the North westerly direction (700km).
5. The height of these hills is about 1500m in South west and near Delhi hardly 400m.
6. Gurushikar (1722m) is the highest peak of this range.

Question 3.
Write a note on Purvanchal Hills.
Answer:

1. They are the eastern off-shoot of Himalayas.
2. It extended in the north-eastern states of India.
3. Most of these hills are located along the border of India and Myanmar while others are inside India.
4. Dafla Hills, Abor Hills, Mishmi Hills, Patkai Bum Hills, Naga Hills, Manipur Hills, Mizo Hills, Tripura Hills, Mikir Hills, Garo Hills, Khasi Hills and Jaintia Hills are the hills which are collectively known as Purvanchal Hills.

Question 4.
Write in general about the structure of the Peninsular plateau.
Answer:

1. The peninsular plateau lies to the south of the Great Northern plains.
2. This is the largest physiographic division covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km.
3. It is made up of old rocks and consists of series of plateaus and hill ranges interspersed with river valleys.
4. The average height of a large portion of this plateau is more than 600m.
5. Anaimudi is the highest point of this place located in Anaimalai.
6. The plateau slopes towards east and is a part of ancient Gondwana.
7. River Narmada divides the Plateau region into two. The region lying to the north of Narmada is called Central Highlands and South of Narmada is called Deccan plateau.

VII. Map exercises

Question 1.
Mark the following in the outline map of India.

Set 1:

1. Mark the boundaries of India
2. Latitudinal Extent
3. Longitudinal Extent
4. Tropic of cancer
5. Lakshadweep Islands
6. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
   
7. Central Meridian of India
   

Set 2:
Peaks: Anaimudi, Mt. Everest, Mt.K2 Mahendragiri, Gurushikhar. NamchaBarwa, Nanga parbat, Kanchenjunga. Dhaulagiri, Makalu. Nandadevi, Dodabetta.

Hill stations: Shimla, Mussourie Ranikhet, Nainital, Almora, Darjeeling.

Hills: Aravalli, Vindhya. Satpura, Naga hills, Mizo hills, Garo hills, Khasi hills, Jaintia hills, Nilgiri hills, Anaimalai hills, Cardomom hills, Raj Mahal hills, Gir hills.

Gulf: Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Rann of Kutch, Palk Strait, Gulf of Cambay.

Set 3:
Seven Union Territories:

1. Delhi
2. Chandigarh
3. Diu and Daman
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
5. Pondicherry
6. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
7. Lakshadweep.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 2

நேரம்: 3.00 மணி 
மதிப்பெண்கள் : 100

(குறிப்புகள்:

• இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க – வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. காக
• பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்குத் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வினா எண். 1 முதல் 15 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து குறியீட்டுடன் எழுதவும்.
• வினா எண் 16 முதல் 28 வரை பகுதி-IIல் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன: ஏதேனும் 9 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 29 முதல் 37 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் மூன்று மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  ஏதேனும் 6 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 38 முதல் 42 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஐந்து மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஏதேனும் 5 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 43 முதல் 45 வரை பகுதி-Vல் எட்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.

பகுதி – 1 (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 15)

(i) அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
(ii) கொடுக்கப்பட்ட நான்கு விடைகளில் சரியான விடையினைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதுக. [15 x 1 = 15]

(குறிப்பு: விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் உள்ளன.)

Question 1.
செய்தி 1 – ஒவ்வோர் ஆண்டும் ஜுன் 15 ஐ உலகக் காற்று நாளாகக் கொண்டாடி
வருகிறோம்.
செய்தி 2 – காற்றாலை மின் உற்பத்தியில் இந்தியாவில் தமிழகம் இரண்டாமிடம் என்பது எனக்குப் பெருமையே.
செய்தி 3 – காற்றின் ஆற்றலைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கடல் கடந்து வணிகம் செய்து அதில் வெற்றி கண்டவர்கள் தமிழர்கள்!
(அ) செய்தி 1 மட்டும் சரி
(ஆ) செய்தி 1, 2 ஆகியன சரி
(இ) செய்தி 3 மட்டும் சரி
(ஈ) செய்தி 1, 3 ஆகியன சரி
Answer:
(இ) செய்தி 3 மட்டும் சரி

Question 2.
காசிக்காண்டம் என்பது …………..
(அ) காசி நகரத்தின் வரலாற்றைப் பாடும் நூல்
(ஆ) காசி நகரத்தைக் குறிக்கும் மறுபெயர்
(இ) காசி நகரத்தின் பெருமையைப் பாடும் நூல்
(ஈ) காசி நகரத்திற்கு வழிப்படுத்தும் நூல்
Answer:
(இ) காசி நகரத்தின் பெருமையைப் பாடும் நூல்

Question 3.
‘படித்து வந்தேன், வேலை தேடினேன்’ எனும் தொடரின் வகை …………..
(அ) பெயரெச்சத் தொடர்
(ஆ) வினையெச்சத் தொடர்
(இ) எழுவாய்த் தொடர்
(ஈ) முற்றெச்சத் தொடர்
Answer:
ஆ) வினையெச்சத் தொடர்

Question 4.
மலர்கள் தரையில் நழுவுதல், எப்போது?
(அ) அள்ளி முகர்ந்தால்
(ஆ) தளரப் பிணைத்தால்
(இ) இறுக்கி முடிச்சிட்டால்
(ஈ) காம்பு முறிந்தால்
Answer:
(ஆ) தளரப் பிணைத்தால்

Question 5.
இருநாட்டு அரசர்களும் தும்பைப் பூவைச் சூடிப்போரிடுவதன் காரணம் …………..
(அ) நாட்டைக் கைப்பற்றல்
(ஆ) ஆநிரைக் கவர்தல்
(இ) வலிமையை நிலைநாட்டல்
(ஈ) கோட்டையை முற்றுகையிடல்
Answer:
(இ) வலிமையை நிலைநாட்டல்

Question 6.
சுதந்திர இந்தியாவின் மகத்தான சாதனையும் சவாலுமாக ஜெயகாந்தன் கருதுவது …………..
(அ) அரசின் நலத்திட்டங்களைச் செயல்படுத்தல்
(ஆ). பெற்ற சுதந்திரத்தைப் பேணிக் காத்தல்
(இ) அறிவியல் முன்னேற்றம்
(ஈ) வெளிநாட்டு முதலீடுகள்
Answer:
(ஆ). பெற்ற சுதந்திரத்தைப் பேணிக் காத்தல்

Question 7.
குறிஞ்சித் திணையின் சிறு பொழுது …………..
(அ) யாமம்
(ஆ) மாலை
(இ) எற்பாடு
(ஈ) நண்ப கல்
Answer:
(அ) யாமம்

Question 8.
“உனக்குப் பாட்டுகள் பாடுகிறோம்
உனக்குப் புகழ்ச்சிகள் கூறுகிறோம்” – பாரதியின் இவ்வடிகளில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள நயங்கள் யாவை?
அ) உருவகம், எதுகை
(ஆ) மோனை, எதுகை
(இ) முரண், இயைபு
(ஈ) உவமை, எதுகை
Answer:
(ஆ) மோனை, எதுகை

Question 9.
பின்பனிக்காலத்தை பெரும் பொழுதாய்க் கொண்ட திணை ………………… ஆகும்.
(அ) முல்லை
(ஆ) மருதம்
(இ) நெய்தல்
(ஈ) பாலை
Answer:
(ஈ) பாலை

Question 10.
இரவு 2 மணி முதல் காலை 6 மணி வரையுள்ள காலம் …………..
(அ) வைகறை
(ஆ) மாலை
(இ) நண்பகல்
(ஈ) எற்பாடு
Answer:
(அ) வைகறை

Question 11.
‘விருந்தினரைப் பேணுவதற்குப் பொருள் தேவைப்பட்டதால், தன் கருங்கோட்டுச் சீறியாழைப் பணையம் வைத்து விருந்தளித்தான் என்கிறது புறநானூறு’. இச்செய்தி உணர்த்தும் விருந்து போற்றிய நிலை …………..
(அ) நிலத்திற்கேற்ற விருந்து
(ஆ) இன்மையிலும் விருந்து
(இ) அல்லிலும் விருந்து
(ஈ) உற்றாரின் விருந்து
Answer:
(ஆ) இன்மையிலும் விருந்து

பாடலைப் படித்துப் பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு (12, 13, 14, 15) விடை தருக.

“அலங்கு கழை நரலும் ஆரிப்படுகர்ச்
சிலம்பு அடைந் திருந்த பாக்கம் எய்தி
நோனாச் செருவின் வலம்படு நோன்தாள்
மான விறல்வேள் வயிரியம் என்னே

Question 12.
பாடலடியில் குறிப்பிடப்படும் மன்னர் …………..
(அ) சோழன்
(ஆ) பாண்டியன்
(இ) நன்னன்
(ஈ) சேரன்
Answer:
(இ) நன்னன்

Question 13.
பாடலின் ஆசிரியர் …………..
(அ) நன்ன ன்
ஆ) கூத்தர்
(இ) பெருங்கௌசிகனார்
(ஈ) பெருங்குன்றூர் கிழார்
Answer:
(இ) பெருங்கௌசிகனார்

Question 14.
வயிரியம் – பொருள் தருக.
(அ) வைரம்
(ஆ) பாணர்
(இ) சோறு
(ஈ) கூத்தர்
Answer:
(ஈ) கூத்தர்

Question 15.
இப்பாடலில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள மோனைச் சொற்களை எழுதுக.
(அ) சிலம்பு, நரலும்
(ஆ) அலங்கு , அடைந்திருந்த
(இ) மான, நோனா
(ஈ) வயிரியம், நோன்தாள்
Answer:
(ஆ) அலங்கு , அடைந்திருந்த

பகுதி – II (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் நான்கு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க.
21 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 16.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினா அமைக்க.
அ) வியாஸர் தர்மார்த்தங்களை உபதேசிக்கவே பாரதத்தை எழுதினார்.
(ஆ) சிலப்பதிகாரத்தையும், மணிமேகலையையும் இரட்டைக் காப்பியங்கள் என
வழங்குவர்.
Answer:
விடை:
அ) வியாஸர் பாரதத்தை எழுதிய நோக்கம் யாது?
ஆ) இரட்டைக் காப்பியங்கள் என வழங்கப்படும் நூல்கள் எவை? 150 5 Swaa20 தமிழ் – X RARE சாக்கமாக அSைents காக்கலை

Question 17.
“மன்னும் சிலம்பே! மணிமே கலைவடிவே!
முன்னும் நினைவால் முடிதாழ வாழ்த்துவமே!” – இவ்வடிகளில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள ஐம்பெருங் காப்பியங்களைத் தவிர எஞ்சியுள்ள காப்பியங்களின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• சீவகசிந்தாமணி
• வளையாபதி
• குண்டலகேசி

Question 18.
வறுமையின் காரணமாக உதவி கேட்டு வருபவரின் தன்மானத்தை எள்ளிநகையாடுவது குறித்துக் குறளின் கருத்து என்ன?
Answer:
இகழ்ந்து ஏளனம் செய்யாமல் பொருள் கொடுப்பவரைக் கண்டால், இரப்பவரின் உள்ளத்தின் உள்ளே மகிழ்ச்சி பொங்கும்.

Question 19.
“நேற்று நான் பார்த்த அருச்சுனன் தபசு என்ற கூத்தில் அழகிய ஒப்பனையையும் சிறந்த நடிப்பையும் இனிய பாடல்களையும் நுகர்ந்து மிக மகிழ்ந்தேன்!” என்று சேகர் என்னிடம் கூறினான். இக்கூற்றை அயற்கூற்றாக எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னாள் தான் பார்த்த அருச்சுனன் தபசுக் கூத்தில் அழகிய ஒப்பனையையும் சிறந்த நடிப்பையும் இனிய பாடல்களையும் நுகர்ந்து மகிழ்ந்ததாகச் சேகர் என்னிடம் (அவனிடம்)
கூறினான்.

Question 20.
மொழிபெயர்ப்புக் குறித்து மணவை முஸ்தபா குறிப்பிடுவது யாது?
Answer:
“ஒரு மொழியில் உணர்த்தப்பட்டதை வேறொரு மொழியில் வெளியிடுவது மொழிபெயர்ப்பு ” என்கிறார் மணவை முஸ்தபா.

Question 21.
‘கண்’ என முடியும் குறள் எழுதுக.
Answer:
பண்என்னாம் பாடற் கியைபின்றேல் கண்என்னாம் கண்ணோட்டம் இல்லாத கண்.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் ஐந்து வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க. [5 x 2 = 10]

Question 22.
சொற்களை இணைத்துப் புதிய சொற்களை உருவாக்குக.
(தேன், விளக்கு, மழை, விண், மணி, விலங்கு, செய், மேகலை, வான், பொன், பூ) Answer:
விடை:
தேன்மழை, மணிமேகலை, செய்தேன், வான்மழை, பொன்மணி, பொன்விளக்கு,
விளக்கு செய்; விண்மழை, செய்விலங்கு, பூமழை

Question 23.
அடிக்கோடிட்ட சொல்லிற்கு பதிலாகப் பொருள் மாறாமல் வேறு சொல்லை
பயன்படுத்தவும்.
Answer:
உலகில் வாழும் மக்களில் சிலர் கனியிருக்கக் காய் புசித்தலைப் போல இன்சொல் இருக்க வன்சொல் பேசி இன்னற்படுகின்றனர்.
Answer:
விடை:
பூமியில் வாழும் மானிடர்களில் சிலர் பழம் இருக்கக் காய் உண்ணுதலைப் போல இன்சொல் இருக்க வன்சொல் பேசி துன்பப்படுகின்றனர்.

Question 24.
இரு சொற்களைப் பயன்படுத்தி ஒரு தொடர் அமைக்கவும்.
விதி – வீதி
Answer:
விடை:
வீதி தோறும் நூலகம் அமைந்தால் நாட்டின் தலைவிதி மாறிவிடும்.

Question 25.
கலைச்சொற்கள் தருக.
Answer:
(அ) Infrared rays – அகச்சிவப்புக் கதிர்கள்
(ஆ) Cosmic rays – விண்வெளிக் கதிர்கள்

Question 26.
பொருத்தமான இடங்களில் நிறுத்தக் குறியிடுக.
பழங்காலத்திலே பாண்டியன் ஆண்ட பெருமையைக்கூறி சோழன் ஆண்ட சிறப்பைச் சொல்லி சேரன் ஆண்ட மாண்பினைக் காட்டி நம் அருமைத் தமிழ்நாடு ஆங்கிலேயருக்கு அடிமைப்பட்டிருந்த சிறுமையையும் நினைவூட்டி விடுதலைப் போரில் ஈடுபட வருமாறு தமிழர்க்கு அழைப்பு விடுத்திருந்தேன் – ம. பொ. சி.
Answer:
பழங்காலத்திலே, பாண்டியன் ஆண்ட பெருமையைக்கூறி, சோழன் ஆண்ட சிறப்பைச் சொல்லி, சேரன் ஆண்ட மாண்பினைக் காட்டி, நம் அருமைத் தமிழ்நாடு ஆங்கிலேயருக்கு அடிமைப்பட்டிருந்த சிறுமையையும் நினைவூட்டி, விடுதலைப் போரில் ஈடுபட வருமாறு தமிழர்க்கு அழைப்பு விடுத்திருந்தேன் – ம. பொ. சி.

Question 27.
கொச்சைச் சொற்களைத் திருத்தி எழுதுக.
தலைக்கு சீக்கா தேச்சு முழுவனா ஒடம்புக்கு குளிர்ச்சி
Answer:
விடை:
தலைக்குச் சீகைக்காய் தேய்த்து முழுகினால் உடம்பிற்கு குளிர்ச்சி.

Question 28.
கிளர்ந்த, தோன்றி – இலக்கணக்குறிப்பு தருக.
Answer:
விடை :
கிளர்ந்த – பெயரெச்சம்
தோன்றி – வினையெச்சம்

பகுதி – III (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 29.
கரகாட்டம் விளக்குக.
Answer:

• பன்னெடுங்காலமாக மக்களால் விரும்பப்படும் உயர்ந்த கலைகளில் ஒன்றே கரகாட்டம்.
• • கரகம் என்னும் பித்தளைச் செம்பையோ, சிறிய குடத்தையோ தலையில் வைத்துத் தாளத்திற்கு ஏற்ப ஆடுவது, கரகாட்டம்.
• இந்த நடனம் கரகம், கும்பாட்டம் என்றும் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.
• கரகச் செம்பின் அடிப்பாகத்தை உட்புறமாகத் தட்டி, ஆடுபவரின் தலையில் நன்கு படியும்படி செய்கின்றனர். தலையில் செம்பு நிற்கும் அளவு எடையை ஏற்றுவதற்குச் செம்பில் மணலையோ பச்சரிசியையோ நிரப்புகின்றனர்.
• கண்ணாடியாலும் பூக்களாலும் அழகூட்டிய கரகக் கூட்டின் நடுவில், கிளி பொம்மை பொருத்திய மூங்கில் குச்சியைச் செருகி வைத்து ஆடுகின்றனர்.
• நையாண்டி மேள இசையும் நாதசுரம், தவில், பம்பை போன்ற இசைக்கருவிகளும் இசைக்கப்படுகின்றன.
• ஆணும் பெண்ணும் சேர்ந்து நிகழ்த்தும் கரகாட்டத்தில் சில நேரங்களில் ஆண், பெண் வேடமிட்டு ஆடுவதும் உண்டு. கரகாட்டம் நிகழ்த்துதலில் இத்தனை பேர்தான் நிகழ்த்த வேண்டும் என்ற வரையறை இல்லை.
• சிலப்பதிகாரத்தில் மாதவி ஆடிய பதினொரு வகை ஆடல்களில் குடக்கூத்து என்ற ஆடலும் குறிப்பிடப்படுகிறது.

Question 30.
ம.பொ.சி.பற்றி சிறுகுறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:
சிலம்புச்செல்வர் என்று போற்றப்படும் ம.பொ.சிவஞானம் (1906 – 1995) விடுதலைப் போராட்ட வீரர்; 1952 முதல் 1954 வரை சட்டமன்ற மேலவை உறுப்பினராகவும் 1972 முதல் 1978 வரை சட்டமன்ற மேலவைத் தலைவராகவும் பதவி வகித்துள்ளார்; தமிழரசுக் கழகத்தைத் தொடங்கியவர். ‘வள்ளலார் கண்ட ஒருமைப்பாடு’ என்னும் இவருடைய நூலுக்காக 1966 ஆம் ஆண்டு சாகித்திய அகாதெமி விருது பெற்றார். தமிழக அரசு திருத்தணியிலும் சென்னை தியாகராய நகரிலும் இவருக்குச் சிலை அமைத்துள்ளது.

Question 31.
உரைப்பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை தருக.
Answer:
மார்ஷல் ஏ. நேசமணி
இளம் வயதிலேயே சமூக விடுதலைக்காகப் போராடியவர்; வழக்கறிஞர். நாகர்கோவில் நகர்மன்றத் தலைவராகவும் சட்டமன்ற உறுப்பினராகவும் நாடாளுமன்ற உறுப்பினராகவும் பணியாற்றினார். குமரி மாவட்டப் போராட்டத்தை முன்னெடுத்துச் சென்றவர்; இதனால் மார்ஷல் நேசமணி என்று அழைக்கப்பட்டார். 1956 நவம்பர் 1ஆம் நாள் கன்னியாகுமரி மாவட்டம் தமிழ்நாட்டுடன் இணைந்து, தமிழகத்தின் தென் எல்லையாக மாறியது. இவருடைய நினைவைப் போற்றும் வகையில் தமிழக அரசு இவருக்கு நாகர்கோவிலில் சிலையோடு மணிமண்டபமும் அமைத்துள்ளது.

(அ) இளம் வயதில் சமூக விடுதலைக்காக போராடியவர் யார்?
Answer:
மார்ஷல் ஏ. நேசமணி

(ஆ) 1956 நவம்பர் 1-ல் தமிழ்நாட்டுடன் இணைந்த மாவட்டம் எது?
Answer:
கன்னியாகுமரி

(இ) நேசமணியின் சிறப்பைப் போற்றும் வகையில் தமிழக அரசு செய்தது யாது? Answer:
நாகர்கோவிலில் சிலையோடு மணிமண்டபமும் அமைத்துள்ளது.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க.
34 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.[ 2 x 3 = 6]

Question 32.
மாற்றம் பற்றி காலக்கணிதத்தில் கண்ணதாசன் கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:

• மாற்றம் என்பது தான் மனிதகுலத் தத்துவம் ஆகும்.
• மாறும் உலகின் மகத்துவத்தை அறிய வேண்டும்.
• நன்மை தீமை அறிய வேண்டும்.
• தலைவர் மாறுவர், சபைகளும் மாறும். ஆனால் தத்துவம் மாறாது.
• கொடுக்க வேண்டியதைக் கொடுக்க வேண்டும்.
• குறை கூறுபவர்கள் குறை கூறட்டும்.
• நானே தொடக்கம் நானே முடிவு நானுரைப்பது தான் சட்டம்.

Question 33.
தமிழின் பெருமையை எங்கும் முழங்குவதற்கான காரணங்களாகக் கவிஞர் கூறுவனவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• செழிப்பு மிக்க தமிழே ! பழம்பெருமையும் தனக்கெனத் தனிச்சிறப்பும், இலக்கிய வளமும் கொண்ட தமிழே ! வியக்கத்தக்க உன் நீண்ட நிலைத்தன்மையும். வேற்று மொழியார் உன்னைப்பற்றி உரைத்த புகழுரையும் எமக்குள் பற்றுணர்வை எழுப்புகின்றன.
• செந்தாமரையின் தேனைக் குடித்துச் சிறகசைத்துப் பாடும் வண்டினைப் போன்று நாங்கள் ‘உன்னைச் சுவைத்து உள்ளத்தில் கனல் மூள உன் பெருமையை எங்கும் முழங்குகின்றோம்.

Question 34.
அடிபிறழாமல் எழுதுக.
அ) “மாற்றம் எனது மானிடத் தத்துவம்” எனத் தொடங்கும் காலக்கணிதம்’ பாடலை எழுதுக.
Answer:
மாற்றம் எனது மானிடத் தத்துவம்; மாறும்
உலகின் மகத்துவம் அறிவேன்!
எவ்வெவை தீமை எவ்வெவை நன்மை
என்ப தறிந்து ஏகுமென் சாலை!
தலைவர் மாறுவர்; தர்பார் மாறும்;
தத்துவம் மட்டுமே அட்சய பாத்திரம்!
கொள்வோர் கொள்க; குரைப்போர் குரைக்க!
உள்வாய் வார்த்தை உடம்பு தொடாது;
நானே தொடக்கம்; நானே முடிவு;
நானுரைப் பதுதான் நாட்டின் சட்டம்! (- கண்ணதாசன்)

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) “செம்பொனடிச் சிறு கிங்கிணியோடு ” எனத் தொடங்கும் முத்துக்குமாரசாமி
பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்’ பாடலை எழுதுக.
Answer:
செம்பொ னடிச்சிறு கிங் கிணியோடு சிலம்பு கலந்தாடத்
திருவரை யரைஞா ணரைமணி யொடு மொளி திகழரை வடமாடப் பைம்பொ னசும்பிய தொந்தி யொடுஞ்சிறு பண்டி சரிந்தாடப்
பட்ட நுதற்பொலி பொட்டொடு வட்டச் சுட்டி பதிந்தாடக்
கம்பி விதம்பொதி குண்டல முங்குழை காது மசைந்தாடக்
கட்டிய சூழியு முச்சியு முச்சிக் கதிர்முத் தொடுமாட
வம்பவ ளத்திரு மேனியு மாடிட ஆடுக செங்கீரை .
ஆதி வயித்திய நாத புரிக்குக னாடுக செங்கீரை (- குமரகுருபரர்)

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 35.
குறிஞ்சித்திணை, கருப்பொருள் அட்டவணைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:

Question 36.
‘இன்பம் ஒருவற்கு இரத்தல் இரந்தவை
துன்பம் உறாஅ வரின்’ – இக்குறட்பாவினை அலகிட்டு வாய்பாடு தருக.
Answer:

Question 37.
கவிஞர் தாம் கூறவிரும்பும் கருத்திற்கு ஏற்றவாறு தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி அமைவதை எடுத்துக்காட்டுக.
Answer:
தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி:
இயல்பாய் நிகழும் நிகழ்ச்சியின் மீது கவிஞன் தன் குறிப்பை ஏற்றிக் கூறுவது தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி எனப்படும்.

(எ.கா.) போருழந் தெடுத்த ஆரெயில் நெடுங்கொடி
வாரல் என்பனபோல் மறித்துக்கை காட்ட’
பொருள்:
கோட்டை மதில் மேல் இருந்த கொடியானது வரவேண்டாம் எனத் தடுப்பதுபோல, கை காட்டியது என்பது பொருள்.

அணிப்பொருத்தம்:
கோவலனும், கண்ணகியும் மதுரை மாநகருக்குள் சென்ற போது மதிலின் மேலிருந்த கொடிகள் காற்றில் இயற்கையாக அசைந்தன. ஆனால், இளங்கோவடிகள் கோவலன் மதுரையில் கொலை செய்யப்படுவான் எனக்கருதி அக்கொடிகள் கையை அசைத்து, ‘இம்மதுரைக்குள் வரவேண்டா’ என்று தெரிவிப்பது போலக் காற்றில் அசைவதாகத் தம் குறிப்பைக் கொடியின் மீது ஏற்றிக் கூறுகிறார். இவ்வாறு இயல்பாக நிகழும் நிகழ்ச்சியின் மீது கவிஞன் தன் குறிப்பை ஏற்றிக் கூறுவது தற்குறிப்பேற்ற அணி எனப்படும்.

பகுதி – IV (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 25)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்க. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 38.
அ) கருணையனின் தாய் மறைவுக்கு, வீரமாமுனிவர் தம் பூக்கள் போன்ற உவமைகளாலும் உருவக மலர்களாலும் நிகழ்த்திய கவிதாஞ்சலியை விவரிக்க.
Answer:

• நான் உயிர்பிழைக்கும் வழி அறியேன்.
• நினைந்து கண்ட அறிவினுக்குப் பொருந்தியவாறு உறுப்புகள் இயங்குதல் இல்லாத இந்த உடலின் தன்மையை அறியேன்.
• உடலுக்கு வேண்டிய உணவைத் தேடிக் கொணரும் வழிவகைகளை அறியேன்.
• காட்டில் செல்வதற்கான வழிகளையும் அறியேன்.
• என் தாய் தன் கையால் காட்டிய முறைகளை மட்டுமே அறிவேன். என்னைத் தவிக்க
  விட்டுவிட்டு என்தாய் தான் மட்டும் தனியாகப் போய்விட்டாள்.
• நவமணிகள் பதித்த மணிமாலைகளைப் பிணித்தது போன்று நல்ல அறங்களை எல்லாம் ஒரு கோவையாக இணைத்த தவத்தையே அணிந்த மார்பனாகிய கருணையன், தாயின் பிரிவால் புலம்பிக் கூறினான்.
• அது கேட்டுப் பல்வேறு இசைகளை இயக்கியது போன்று, தேன்மலர்கள் பூத்த மரங்கள் தோறும் உள்ள மணம் வீசும் மலர்களும் மலர்ந்த சுனை தோறும் உள்ள பறவைகளும் வண்டுகளும் அக்காட்டினிலே அழுவன போன்று கூச்சலிட்டன.

(அல்லது)

ஆ) நம் முன்னோர் அறிவியல் கருத்துகளை இயற்கையுடன் இணைத்துக் கூறுவதாகத் தொடங்குகின்ற பின்வரும் சொற்பொழிவைத் தொடர்ந்து நிறைவு செய்க. . பேரன்பிற்குரிய அவையோர் அனைவருக்கும் வணக்கம் இன்று இயல், இசை, நாடகம் என்னும் முத்தமிழுடன் அறிவியல் நான்காம் தமிழாகக் கூறுகின்றனர். ஆதிகாலந்தொட்டு இயங்கிவரும் தமிழ்மொழியில் அறிவியல் என்பது தமிழர் வாழ்வியலோடு கலந்து கரைந்து வந்துள்ளதை இயக்கியங்கள் மூலம் அறிகிறோம். அண்டத்தை அளந்தும், புவியின் தோற்றத்தை ஊகித்தும் கூறும் அறிவியல் செய்திகள் இலக்கியங்களில் உள்ளன. சங்க இலக்கியமான பரிபாடலில்.
Answer:
விடை: சங்க இலக்கியமான பரிபாடலில் எதுவுமேயில்லாத பெருவெளியில் அண்டத் தோற்றத்துக்குக்
காரணமான கரு (பரமாணு) பேரொலியுடன் தோன்றியது. உருவம் இல்லாத காற்று முதலான பூதங்களின் அணுக்களுடன் வளர்கின்ற வானம் என்னும் முதல் பூதத்தின் ஊழி அது. அந்த அணுக்களின் ஆற்றல் கிளர்ந்து பருப்பொருள்கள் சிதறும்படியாகப் பல ஊழிக் காலங்கள் கடந்து சென்றன. பிறகு நெருப்புப் பந்துபோலப் புவி உருவாகி விளங்கிய ஊழிக்கலாம் தொடர்ந்தது. பின்னர் பூமி குளிரும்படியாகத் தொடர்ந்து மழை பொழிந்து ஊழிக்கலாம் கடந்தது. அவ்வாறு தொடர்ந்து பெய்த மழையால் பூமி வெள்ளத்தில் மூழ்கியது. மீண்டும் மீண்டும் நிறை வெள்ளத்தில் மூழ்குதல் நடந்த இப்பெரிய உலகத்தில் உயிர்கள் உருவாகி வாழ்வதற்கு ஏற்ற சூழல் தோன்றியது. அச்சூழலில் உயிர்கள் தோன்றி நிலைபெறும்படியான ஊழிக்காலம் வந்தது. இவ்வாறு நம் முன்னோர் அறிவியலின் கருத்துகளை இயற்கையுடன் இணைத்துக் கூறுகிறார்கள்.

Question 39.
அ) நாளிதழ் ஒன்றின் பொங்கல் ‘மலரில், உழவுத் தொழிலுக்கு வந்தனை செய்வோம்’ என்ற உங்கள் கட்டுரையை வெளியிட வேண்டி, அந்நாளிதழ் ஆசிரியருக்குக் கடிதம் எழுதுக.
Answer:
மதுரை,
2.4.2019.

அனுப்புநர்:
தெ. தண்டபாணி,
35, மேற்கு மாடவீதி,
மதுரை – 625 001.

பெறுநர்
தினமணி ஆசிரியர்,
தினமணி அலுவலகம்,
எக்ஸ்பிரஸ் எஸ்டேட்,
மதுரை – 625 003.

பொருள்: எனது கட்டுரையை வெளியிட வேண்டி விண்ணப்பம்.

ஐயா,

வணக்கம்.
இந்த ஆண்டு பொங்கல் விழா எங்கள் ஊரில் மிகச்சிறப்பாக நடைப்பெற்றது. நான்கு நாட்கள் நடைபெற்ற அந்நிகழ்வுகள் அனைவரையும் மிகவும் கவர்ந்தன. அதன் தொடர்பாக நான் ” உழவுக்கும் தொழிலுக்கும் வந்தனை செய்வோம்” என்னும் தலைப்பில் ஒரு கட்டுரை எழுதி இருக்கிறேன். அந்தக் கட்டுரையைத் தங்களின் நாளிதழில் வெளியிடுமாறு கேட்டுக் கொள்கிறேன்.

நன்றி,

இடம் : மதுரை
தேதி : 2.04.2019

இங்ஙனம்,
தங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள,
தெ. தண்டபாணி.

குறிப்பு
இத்துடன் கட்டுரை இணைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.

உறைமேல் முகவரி
பெறுநர்
தினமணி ஆசிரியர்,
தினமணி அலுவலகம்,
எக்ஸ்பிரஸ் எஸ்டேட்,
மதுரை – 625 003.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) பழுதுப்பட்ட மின்கம்பிகளைச் சரிசெய்து அறிவிக்கப்படாத மின்வெட்டு, மின்னழுத்த ஏற்ற இறக்கத்தை சரி செய்ய வேண்டி மின்வாரிய அலுவலகத்திற்கு கடிதம் ஒன்று வரைக.
Answer:
அனுப்புநர்
கண்மணி,
புளியங்குடி நகராட்சி,
மதுரை – 625 008.

பெறுநர்
முதன்மை பொறியாளர்,
மின்வாரிய அலுவலகம்,
புளியங்குடி நகராட்சி,
மதுரை – 625 008.

ஐயா,

பொருள்: அறிவிக்கப்படாத மின்வெட்டு மின்னழுத்த ஏற்ற இறக்கத்தைச்
சரி செய்தல் – தொடர்பாக.

வணக்கம், எங்கள் தெரு புளியங்குடி நகராட்சியில் உள்ளது. இங்கு 250க்கும் மேற்பட்ட குடும்பத்தினர் வசித்து வருகின்றனர். குழந்தைகள் முதல் அரசு அலுவலர்கள் வரை, இச்சாலை வழியே தான் நகரின் பிரதான சாலைக்குச் செல்ல வேண்டும். இப்பகுதியில் ஒரு நாளைக்கு நான்கு, ஐந்து முறை மின்வெட்டு ஏற்படுகிறது. மின்னழுத்த ஏற்ற இறக்கமும் ஏற்படுகிறது.

இவ்வீதியில் 28 மின்கம்பங்கள் உள்ளன. பாதிக்கு மேற்பட்ட கம்பங்களில் உள்ள மின்விளக்குகள் பழுதுபட்டு இருக்கின்றன. மின் விளக்குகள் எரியாததால் இரவு நேரங்களில் வீதியில் விபத்துகள் ஏற்படுகின்றன. இருட்டைப் பயன்படுத்தி வழிப்பறி கொள்ளைகளும், திருட்டு நிகழ்வுகளும் அதிகரித்து வருகின்றன.

பலமுறை முறையிட்டும் நகராட்சி நிர்வாகம் போதிய அக்கறை செலுத்தவில்லை. எங்களின் அடிப்படைத் தேவைகளை நிறைவேற்றி மின்விளக்கு வசதி ஏற்படுத்தித் தருமாறு பணிவோடு வேண்டுகிறோம்.

நன்றி,

இடம்: மதுரை,
தேதி: 08.04.2019

இங்ஙனம்,
கண்ம ணி.

உறைமேல் முகவரி
முதன்மை பொறியாளர்,
மின்வாரிய அலுவலகம்,
புளியங்குடி நகராட்சி,
மதுரை – 625 008.

Question 40.
படம் உணர்த்தும் கருத்தை நயமுற எழுதுக.
Answer:
ஒரே நிறத் துணியை முண்டாசுபோலக் கட்டிக்கொண்டு கையில் வைத்துள்ள சிறுதுணியை இசைக்கேற்ப வீசியும் ஒயிலாக ஆடும் ஆட்டமே ஒயிலாட்டம் ஆகும்.

Question 41.
படிவத்தை நிரப்புக.
Answer:

Question 42.
(அ) அரசின் பொங்கல் விழாவில் சிற்றூர்க் கலைகளைக் காட்சியாக்கியிருக்கிறார்கள். ஒருபுறம் திரைகட்டித் தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து நிகழ்ந்து கொண்டிருக்கிறது. இன்னொருபுறம் பொம்மலாட்டம் ஆடிக்கொண்டிருந்தனர். சற்று நடந்தால் தாரை தப்பட்டை முழங்க ஒயிலாட்டம் ஆடியவாறு மண்ணின் மக்கள் …. இக்கலைகளை நீங்கள் நண்பர்களுடன் பார்த்தவாறும் சுவைத்தவாறும் செல்கிறீர்கள்.இக்கலைகளைப் பாதுகாக்கவும் வளர்க்கவும் மேன்மேலும் பரவலாக்கவும் நீங்கள் செய்யவிருப்பனவற்றை வரிசைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:

1. பிறந்த நாள் விழாக்களில் மயிலாட்டம் முதலான கலைகளை நிகழ்த்த முனைவேன்.
2. எங்கள் குடும்ப விழாக்களில் பொம்மலாட்டம் நிகழ்த்த ஏற்பாடு செய்வேன்.
3. பள்ளி, கல்லூரி விழாக்களில் இக்கலை நிகழ்ச்சிகளை நாங்களே நடத்துவோம்.
4. எம் ஊரில் பொம்மலாட்டம் நிகழ்வுக்கு ஏற்பாடு செய்வேன்.
5. எங்கள் ஊர் மக்கள் இணைந்து ஒயிலாட்டம் ஆடுவோம்.
6.  எங்கள் ஊரில் நாட்டுப்புறக் கலையை வளர்ப்போம்

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) கீழ்க்காணும் பத்தியை மொழிபெயர்த்து எழுதுக.
Decision making is a process that plays a vital role in our daily lives. Some decisions are not very important whereas other imperative decisions, when cautiously carried out, can change the path of our lives. When faced with a crisis, one of the major issues is deciding the right thing. Decision making can be quite complicated and challenging in some cases. It is hence essential to gather as much information from different sources and assess all possible alternatives to the problem or situation at hand before making a decision. Doing so will permit us to land at the best possible result for the problem. Such decisions can’t be an overnight one. It takes a couple of months to investigate and consult with friends, family and university professors to make a decision. It is imperative that one makes decisions in consultation with parents opinions and check on other surveys and researches to avoid challenges.
Answer:
விடை:
ஒவ்வொருவர் வாழ்க்கையிலும் தீர்மானம் எடுப்பது முக்கியமான ஒன்றாக இருக்கிறது. சில தீர்மானங்கள் முக்கியமானதாக இல்லாமல் இருந்தாலும், சில முக்கிய தீர்மானங்கள் கவனத்துடன் மேற்கொண்டால் நம் வாழ்க்கை பாதையை செம்மையாக மாற்றி அமைக்க முடியும். ஒரு பிரச்சனையை எதிர்கொள்ளும் போது அதற்கு உரிய தீர்வைக் காண்பது கடினமான ஒன்றாகும். தீர்வு எடுப்பது என்பது சில சமயங்களில் சிக்கலானதாகவும் அல்லது சவாலாகவும் இருக்கலாம். ஆதலால் போதிய தகவலைப் பல வட்டாரத்தில் இருந்து சேகரித்து அதற்கு மாறான கருத்துக்களை ஆராய்ந்து தீர்வுக்கு வரவேண்டும். இங்ஙனம் தீர்வெடுப்பது பிரச்சனைக்குரிய தீர்வை துல்லியமாக அடைய உதவும். இது ஒரு நாளில் மட்டும் சிந்தித்து முடிவெடுக்கக் கூடிய தீர்மானமாக இருக்காது. இது நண்பர்கள், குடும்பத்தினர் மற்றும் ஆசிரியர்கள் என இவர்களுடன் கலந்தாலோசிப்பதால் தீர்வுக்கு வருவதற்கு ஓரிரு மாதங்கள் ஆகலாம். பெற்றோர்கள் அறிவுரைக் கேற்ப இருப்பினும் சவால்களைச் சமாளிப்பதற்கு ஏதுவாக பிற ஆலோசனைகள் மற்றும் கருத்துக்களைத் தெரிந்து கொள்ள கலந்தாலோசனை செய்வது நல்லது.

பகுதி – V (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 24)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விரிவாக விடையளிக்க. [3 x 8 = 24]

Question 43.
அ) தமிழின் சொல்வளம் பற்றியும் புதிய சொல்லாக்கத்திற்கான தேவை குறித்தும் தமிழ் மன்றத்தில் பேசுவதற்கான உ.ரைக் குறிப்புகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
கால வெள்ளத்தில் கரைந்துபோன மொழிகளுக்கிடையில் நீந்தி தன்னை நிலை நிறுத்திக் கொண்டுள்ளது தமிழ் சொல்வளம் இலக்கியச் செம்மொழிகளுக்கெல்லாம் பொது என்றாலும் தமிழ் மட்டுமே அதில் தலை சிறந்ததாகும். தமிழின் சொல் வளத்தை நாம் பலதுறைகளிலும் காணலாம்.

தமிழின் சொல் வளம்:
ஆங்கிலம் போன்ற மொழிகளில் இலையைக் குறிக்க ஒரே ஒரு சொல் மட்டுமே உள்ளது. ஆனால் தமிழ்மக்கள் இலையை அதன் வன்மை, மென்மை, இவற்றைக் கொண்டு இலை, தோகை, ஓலை எனப் பாகுபாடு செய்துள்ளனர். இதுமட்டுமன்றி தாவரங்கள், மணிவகை, இளம்பயிர்வகை, காய்கனி வகை, அடி, கிளை கொழுந்து என அனைத்து உறுப்புகளுக்கும் சொற்களைப் பகுத்து வைத்துள்ளனர்.

பூவின் நிலைகளைக் குறிக்கும் சொற்கள்:
அரும்பு: பூவின் தோற்றநிலை போது, பூ விரியத் தொடங்கும் நிலை மலர், பூவின் மலர்ந்த நிலை, வீ: மரம், செடியிலிருந்து பூ கீழே விழுந்த நிலை செம்மல், பூ வாடின நிலை

தமிழின் பொருள் வளம்:
தமிழ்நாடு எத்துணைப் பொருள் வளமுடையது என்பது அதன் விளைபொருள் வகைகளை நோக்கினாலே விளங்கும். தமிழ் நாட்டு நெல்லில் செந்நெல், வெண்ணெல், கார்நெல் என்றும், சம்பா, மட்டை, கார் என்றும் பல வகைகள் உள்ளன. அவற்றில் சம்பாவில் மட்டும் ஆவிரம் பூச்சம்பா, ஆனைக் கொம்பன் சம்பா, குண்டு சம்பா, குதிரை வாலிச்சம்பா, சிறுமணிச்சம்பா, சீரகச்சம்பா முதலிய அறுபது உள் வகைகள் உள்ளன. இவற்றோடு வரகு, காடைக்கண்ணி குதிரைவாலி முதலிய சிறு கூலங்கள் தமிழ் நாட்டிலன்றி வேறெங்கும் விளைவதில்லை.

முடிவுரை:
பண்டைத் தமிழ் மக்கள் தனிப்பெரும் நாகரிகத்தை உடையவராக இருந்திருக்கின்றனர். ஒரு நாட்டாரின் அல்லது இனத்தாரின் நாகரிகத்தை அளந்தறிவதற்கு உதவுவது மொழியேயாகும். ஆகவே “நாடும் மொழியும் நமதிரு கண்கள்” என்ற கூற்றின்படி பொருட்களைக் கூர்ந்து நோக்கி நுண்பொருட் சொற்களை அமைத்துக் கொள்வது நம் தலையாய கடமையாகும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) நிகழ்கலை வடிவங்கள் – அவை நிகழும் இடங்கள் – அவற்றின் ஒப்பனைகள் – சிறப்பும் பழைமையும் – இத்தகைய மக்கள் கலைகள் அருகிவருவதற்கான காரணங்கள் – அவற்றை வளர்த்தெடுக்க நாம் செய்ய வேண்டுவன – இவை குறித்து நாளிதழுக்கான தலையங்கம் எழுதுக.
Answer:
நிகழ்கலை வடிவங்கள் நிலைக்குமா?! – கண்ணுக்குக் காட்சியையும் சிந்தைக்குக் கருத்தினையும் தருவன. கருத்துடன் கலைத்திறனை நோக்காகக் கொண்டு காலவெள்ளத்தைக் கடந்து நிற்பன. ஆடல், பாடல், இசை, நடிப்பு ஒப்பனை உரையாடல் வழியாக மக்களை மகிழ்வடையச் செய்வன. சமூகப் பண்பாட்டுத்தளத்தின் கருத்துக் கருவூலமாக விளங்குவன. நுட்பமான உணர்வுகளின் உறைவிடமாக இருப்பன. அவை யாவை? அவை தாம் மக்கள் பண்பாட்டின் பதிவுகளான நிகழ்கலைகள்.

சிற்றூர் மக்களின் வாழ்வியல் நிகழ்வுகளில் பிரித்துப் பார்க்க இயலாக் கூறுகளாகத் திகழ்வை நிகழ்கலைகள். இவை மக்களுக்கு மகிழ்ச்சியெனும் கனி கொடுத்துக் கவலையைப் போக்குகின்றன. சமுதாய நிகழ்வுகளின் ஆவணங்களாகவும் செய்திகளைத் தரும் ஊடகங்களாகவும் திகழ்கின்றன. பழந்தமிழ் மக்களின் கலை, அழகியல், புதுமை ஆகியவற்றின் எச்சங்களை அறிவதற்குத் தற்காலத்தில் நிகழ்த்தப்படும் கலைகள் துணை செய்கின்றன.

நிகழ்கலைகள் ஊரக மக்களின் வாழ்வில் இரண்டறக் கலந்திருக்கின்றன. இவை கற்றோராலும் மற்றோராலும் விரும்பப்படும் கலைகளாக உள்ளன. உழைப்பாளிகளின் உணர்வுகளாக உள்ளன. மக்களின் எண்ண வெளிப்பாடாக, வாழ்க்கையைக் காட்டும் கண்ணாடியாக, மக்களின் சமய வழிபாட்டிலும் வாழ்வியல் நிகழ்வுகளிலும் பிரிக்க முடியாத பண்பாட்டுக் கூறுகளாக விளங்குகின்றன.
நிகழ்கலைகளை வளரச் செய்வோம். என்றும் அழியாமல் நிலைக்கச் செய்வோம்.

Question 44.
(அ) அனுமான் ஆட்டத்தை கூறுக.
Answer:

• திடீரென்று மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் துரித கதியில் ஒலிக்கத் தொடங்கின.
• எதற்கென்று தெரியாமல் கூட்டம் திகைத்துப் பந்தலை நோக்குகையில் பெருங்குரல் எழுப்பியபடி அனுமார் பந்தல் கால் வழியாகக் கீழே குதித்தார்.
• அனுமார் வாலில் பெரிய தீப்பந்தம். ஜ்வாலை புகைவிட்டுக் கொண்டு எரிந்தது. கூட்டம் தானாகவே பின்னால் நகர்ந்தது.
• அனுமார் கால்களைத் தரையில் பதித்து உடம்பை ஒரு குலுக்குக் குலுக்கினார். தீயின் ஜ்வாலை மடிந்து அலை பாய்ந்தது. கைகளைத் தரையில் ஊன்றி அனுமார் கரணமடித்தார்.
• சுருண்ட வால் இவன் பக்கமாக வந்து விழுந்தது.
• கூட்டம் அச்சத்தோடு கத்தியபடி அலைக்கழிந்தது.
• அனுமார் பெரிதாகச் சிரித்துக்கொண்டு நின்றார். அனுமார் நின்றதும் கூட்டம் கொஞ்சம் அமைதியுற்றது.
• முன்நோக்கி நகர்ந்து வந்தது. அனுமார் நேசப்பான்மையோடு சிரித்து வாலை மேலே தூக்கிச் சுற்றினார்.
• தீ வட்டமாகச் சுழன்றது. வேகம் கூடக்கூட, கூட்டம் இன்னும் முன்னால் நகர்ந்து வந்தது. இவன் நெருங்கி அனுமார் பக்கம் சென்றான்.
• அனுமார் இன்னொரு பாய்ச்சல் பாய்ந்து வேகமாக ஆட ஆரம்பித்தார்.
  வர வர ஆட்டம் துரிதகதிக்குச் சென்றது. பதுங்கியும் பாய்ந்தும் ஆடினார்.
• ஆட ஆட, புழுதி புகை போல எழுந்தது. கழுத்துமணி அறுந்து கீழே விழுந்தது. • ஒன்றையும் பொருட்படுத்தாமல் ஆட்டத்தில் தன்னை இழந்தவராக ஆடினார்.
• மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் அவர் ஆட்டத்தோடு இணைந்து செல்ல முடியவில்லை,
  தடுமாறிவிட்டது
• மேல் மூச்சு வாங்க அனுமார் ஆட்டத்தை நிறுத்தினார். மேளமும் நாதசுரமும் நின்றன.
• அயர்ச்சியோடு மேளக்காரன் தோளிலிருந்து தவுலை இறக்கிக் கீழே வைத்தான். • ஆட்டம் முடிந்தது. தீர்மானமாகியது போல எஞ்சி இருந்த கூட்டமும் அவசர அவசரமாகக் கலைய ஆரம்பித்தது.

(அல்ல து)

(ஆ) அன்னமய்யா என்னும் பெயருக்கும் அவரின் செயலுக்கும் உள்ள
பொருத்தப்பாட்டினைக் கோபல்லபுரத்து மக்கள் கதைப்பகுதி கொண்டு விவரிக்க. Answer:
கதைக்கரு :
கிராமத்து மனிதர்கள் காட்டும் விருந்தோம்பல், பகிர்ந்து கொடுக்கிற நேயம். கதைமாந்தர்கள்:

• சுப்பையா
• கிராமத்து மக்கள்
• அன்னமய்யா
• மணி

முன்னுரை:
கிராமத்து வெள்ளந்தி மனிதர்கள் காட்டும் விருந்தோம்பல் இயல்பான வரவேற்பும் எளிமையான உணவும் பசித்த வேளையில் வந்தவர்களுக்குத் தம்மிடம் இருப்பதைப் பகிர்ந்து கொடுக்கிற மனித நேயம் ஆகியவற்றை இக்கதைப்பகுதி எடுத்துக்கூறுகிறது.

கிராமத்து காட்சி:
அதிகாலை நேரத்தில் பாச்சல் அருகு எடுத்து முடித்துவிட்டுக் காலைக் கஞ்சியைக் குடிக்க – உட்காரும் வேளையில் அன்னமய்யா யாரோ ஒரு சன்னியாசியைக் கூட்டிக் கொண்டு வருவகை கண்டான் சுப்பையா வரட்டும் வரட்டும். ஒரு வயிற்றுக்குக் கஞ்சி ஊற்றி நாமும் குடிப்போம் என்றார் கொத்தாளி அந்தப் புஞ்சை சாலையோரத்தில் இருந்ததால் தேசாந்திரிகள் வந்து இவர்களிடம் தண்ணீரோ, கஞ்சியோ சாப்பிட்டு விட்டுப் போவது வழக்கம். .

அன்னமய்யா கண்ட காட்சி:
நடக்க முடியாமல் உட்கார்ந்து உட்கார்ந்து எழுந்திருந்து ஆயாசமாக மெதுவாக நடந்து வந்து தாடியும் அழுக்கு ஆடையும் தள்ளாட்டமுமாக நடந்து வந்து கொண்டிருந்தவனைப் பார்க்கும் போது வயோதிகனாகவும் சாமியாரைப்போலவும் எண்ண வைத்தது. தற்செயலாக இவனைக்கண்ட அன்னமய்யா அவன் அருகில் சென்று பார்த்த பிறகுதான் தெரிந்தது அவன் ஒரு வாலிபன் என்று. கால்களை நீட்டி புளிய மரத்தில் சாய்ந்து உட்கார்ந்திருந்த அவனை நெருங்கிப் பார்த்தபோது பசியால் அவன் முகம் வாடிப்போயிருந்தது.

அன்னமய்யாவின் செயல்:
பசியால் வாடிப்போயிருந்த அவன் முகத்தில் தீட்சணியம் தெரிந்தது தன்னைப் பார்த்து ஒரு நேசப்புன்னகை காட்டிய அந்த வாலிப மனிதனைப் பார்த்துக்கொண்டே நின்றான் அன்னமய்யா. குடிக்கக் கொஞ்சம் தண்ணீர் கிடைக்குமா? என்ற அவனைத் தன்னோடு மெதுவாக நடக்க வைத்து அழைத்துச் சென்றான் அன்னமய்யா.

அன்னமய்யாவின் விருந்தோம்பல்:
வேப்பமரத்தின் அடியில் ஏகப்பட்ட மண் கலயங்கள் இருந்தன. அதில் அன்னமய்யா ஒரு கலயத்தின் மேல் வைக்கப்பட்ட கல்லை அகற்றிச் சிரட்டையைத் துடைத்துச் சுத்தப்படுத்தி அந்த கலயத்தில் பதனமான வடித்த நீரை அவனிடம் உறிஞ்சி குடிங்க எனக் கொடுத்தான். உட்கார்ந்து குடிங்க என்று உபசரித்தான். பிறகு கலயத்தைச் சுற்றி ஆட்டியதும் தெளிவு மறைந்து சோற்றின் மகுளி மேலே வந்ததும் வார்த்துக் கொடுத்தான். பிறகு அன்னமய்யா அந்த புது ஆளைச் சுப்பையாவின் வயலுக்கு அழைத்துச் சென்று கம்மஞ்சோற்றைச் சாப்பிட வைத்தான். அந்த வாலிபன் அன்னமய்யா என்ற பெயரை மனசுக்குத் திருப்பித் திருப்பிச் சொல்லிப் பார்த்துக் கொண்டான். எவ்வளவு பொருத்தம் என்று நினைத்துக் கொண்டான்.

முடிவுரை:
வந்தவனுக்கு எப்படி ஒரு நிறைவு ஏற்பட்டதோ அதை விட மேலான ஒரு நிறைவு அன்னமய்யாவுக்கு ஏற்பட்டது. வயிறு நிறைந்ததும் தூங்கிவிடும் குழந்தையைப் பார்ப்பதுபோல அவனை ஒரு பிரியத்தோடு பார்த்துக் கொண்டிருந்தான் அன்னமய்யா

Question 45.
(அ) கர்மவீரர் காமராசர் என்னும் தலைப்பில் கட்டுரை ஒன்று எழுதுக.
Answer:
கர்ம வீரர் காமராசர்
முன்னுரை:
தென்னாட்டு காந்தியாய் தமிழ் மண்ணில் அவதரித்து தமிழகத்தை மலர்ச்சியுறச் செய்த காமராசர், 1903-ஆம் ஆண்டு ஜூலை 15ல் விருதுநகரில் பிறந்தார். இவர் பெற்றோர் குமாரசுவாமி-சிவகாமியம்மாள் என்பவர்கள் ஆவர். தமிழ் மண்ணின் தவப்புதல்வராய் இருந்து ‘என் கடன் பணிசெய்து கிடப்பதே’ எனும் நோக்கில் இம்மண்ணிற்காக வாழ்ந்த திருமகன் இவர் என்றால் மிகையாகாது.

வளர்ச்சி:
நிமிர்ந்த நடையும், நேர்கொண்ட பார்வையும் அஞ்சாமல் கருத்தினை எடுத்து வைப்பவர் திருநாட்டிற்காக திருமணத்தைத் துறந்தவர்.

முயற்சி:
1954-ஆம் ஆண்டு காமராசர் முதல்வராகத் தேர்ந்தெடுக்கப்பட்டார். இவரின் ஆட்சிக் காலத்தினைத் தமிழகத்தின் பொற்காலம் எனக் கூறலாம். மக்களோடு மக்களாய்க் கலந்து மக்கள் படும் துன்பத்தினைத் தீர்த்து வைக்கும் இவர் ‘ஏழைகளின் நண்பன்’ எனப் போற்றப்பட்டார்.

நெகிழ்ச்சி:
கிராமங்கள்தோறும் பள்ளிகள் திறந்திடச் செய்தார். ஏழை மாணவர்களின் அல்லல் கண்டு இலவச மதிய உணவுத் திட்டத்தை’ வகுத்து செயல்படுத்தினார்.
சின்னஞ்சிறுவர்களிடையே வேறுபாடுகளைக் களைந்திட சீருடைத் திட்டத்தினைக் கொண்டு வந்தார். தொழில் துறையில் தம் பார்வையைத் திருப்பி பல்வேறு தொழிலகங்களுக்கு வழிகளை ஏற்படுத்தினார்.

மகிழ்ச்சி :
1963 வரை ஒன்பது ஆண்டு காலம் அரும்பணிகள் ஆற்றிய இவர், காங்கிரஸ் கட்சியை வலுப்படுத்த ஏற்படுத்தப்பட்ட திட்டத்தின் மூலம் மூத்த தலைவர்களை பதவி விலகச் சொல்லி தாமும் தம்முடைய முதல்வர் பதவியிலிருந்து விலகினார்.

முகமலர்ச்சி:
மக்கள் அவரை பல்வேறு பெயர்களாலும், படிக்காத மேதை, ஏழைகள் நண்பன், கரும வீரர், காலாகாந்தி என அழைத்தலால் அனைத்துப் பெயர்களும் காமராசருக்கே உரித்தாயிற்று.

அழற்சி:
காமராசரின் நிலச் சீர்திருத்த உச்சவரம்பு சட்டமும், மும்மொழியாக்கத் திட்டமும் (இந்தியுடன்) பின்னடைவை ஏற்படுத்தின. திராவிடக் கட்சியானது தனது பேச்சு, எழுத்து மூலம் தடுமாற்றம் ஏற்பட வழிவகை செய்தது.

முடிவுரை:
‘காலா காந்தி’ என்ற பெயரினுக்கு ஏற்ப காந்தி பிறந்த தினத்தன்று, 1975 அக்டோபர் 2ல் காமராசர் மறைந்தார். காந்தி பிறந்த தினமானது காமராசரின் நினைவு தினமாக ஆயிற்று. காமராசரின் பிறந்த தினம், இனி ‘தியாகிகள் தின’ மாகக் கொண்டாடப்படுகிறது.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று தருக.
முன்னுரை – முறையான ஒப்பந்தம் – நீர் தேவையை சமாளித்தல் – குறைபாடுகள் – திட்டம் – நன்மைகள் – முடிவுரை.
Answer:
தேசிய நதிநீர் இணைப்புத் திட்டம்
முன்னுரை:
21 ஆம் நூற்றாண்டின் மிகப்பெரிய பிரச்சினையாக உருவெடுப்பது தண்ணீர் பிரச்சினையாகும். இதனைத் தீர்க்க தண்ணீர் பிரச்சினையைச் சமாளிக்க நதிகளை இணைக்க வேண்டும் என்பது. பல்லாண்டுகளாகப் பேசப்பட்டு வருவதொன்றாகும். இதற்கு ஓராண்டில் 56 கோடி ரூபாய் செலவாகும் என்று திட்டமிடப்படுகிறது.

முறையான ஒப்பந்தம்:
ஆயிரம் கிலோ மீட்டர் நீளத்திற்குக் கால்வாய்கள் அமைத்து 30 நதிகளை அடுத்த இரண்டு ஆண்டுகளில் ஒன்றாக இணைக்கலாம். 10 ஆயிரம் மெகா வாட் மின்சாரம் எடுக்க முடியும். 11 ஆயிரம் 164 Super20 தமிழ் கியூசெக்ஸ் நீர் தேவைப்படும். இதற்கு 400 புதிய நீர்நிலைகள் அமைக்கப்பட்டு நதிநீர் இணைப்புத் திட்டத்தைச் செயல்படுத்த எந்த இடத்தின் வழியாகக் கால்வாய் அமைத்தால் பயனுள்ளதாக அமையும் எனத் திட்டமிட வேண்டும். மகாநதி, கோதாவரி ஆகிய நதிகளில் நீர் அதிகம் உள்ளது. ஆனால் வல்லுநர்களிடையே விவாதம் நடத்தி முறையான ஒப்பந்தம் ஏற்படவேண்டும்.

நீர் தேவையை சமாளித்தல்:
மழைக் காலங்களில் வட இந்தியாவில் பாயும் பல நதிகளில் வெள்ள அபாயம் ஏற்படுகிறது. இதைத் தடுக்க வேண்டுமானால், கால்வாய்கள் வெட்டி அந்நீரை ஒருநிலை படுத்தவேண்டும். இதற்காக வெட்டப்படும் கால்வாய்கள் மூலம் ஏராளமான தொழிலாளர்களுக்கு வேலை கிடைப்பதுடன் கூடுதல் வருவாயும் கிடைக்கும். அதிகமாகக் கிடைக்கும் மழைநீரைச் சேமித்து வைக்கத் தேவையான திட்டங்கள் நிறைவேற்றப்படவேண்டும். இந்தியாவில் வறட்சி ஏற்படும் பெரும்பாலான பகுதிகளில் நீர் தேவையை எளிதாகச் சமாளிக்க முடியும்.

குறைபாடுகள்:
தமிழகத்தில் வற்றாத ஜீவநதிகள் இல்லாத காரணத்தால் மழைக்காலங்களில் மட்டுமே இத்திட்டத்தின் மூலம் நீர் பெறமுடியும். காவிரி டெல்டா பகுதியிலுள்ள நிலத்தடி நீர்வளம், குடிநீருக்கு ஆதாரமாக உள்ளது. இதனால் இப்பகுதிகளில் தண்ணீருக்காகக் கிணறுகள் தோண்ட வேண்டிய நிலை உள்ளது. இந்நிலையில் வற்றாத ஜீவநதிகளான கிருஷ்ணா, கோதாவரி, மகாநதி போன்ற தென்னிந்திய நதிகளை தமிழகத்தின் நதிகளோடு இணைத்தால் மட்டுமே ஆண்டு முழுவதும் நீர்வளம் குறையாமல் இருக்கும். இன்றைய நிலையில் பல கடைக்கோடி கிராமங்களில் வசிக்கும் மக்களுக்குச் சராசரி இரண்டு லிட்டர் குடிநீர் கூடக் கிடைப்பதில்லை.

மூன்று நீர்வழித்திட்டம்:
மூன்று நீர்வழிகளைக் கொண்டதாக இத்திட்டம் அமைக்கப்பட்டு ஒன்றன் பின் ஒன்றாக நிறைவேற்றலாம்.
1. இமயமலை நீர்வழி: இது கங்கை பிரம்மபுத்திரா நதிகளை இணைக்கும்.
2. மத்திய நீர்வழி: கங்கை, மகாநதி, தபதி ஆகிய நதிகளை இணைக்கிறது.
3. தென்னக நீர்வழி: இது கோதாவரி, கிருஷ்ணா , காவிரி மற்றும் கேரள நதிகளை இணைக்கும் இந்நீர்நிலைகள் 120 மீட்டர் அகலமும் 10 மீட்டர் ஆழமும். கொண்டதாக இருக்கும். இவை உரிய வழியில் ஒன்றுடன் ஒன்று இணைக்கும். நீர் சேமிப்பு போக்குவரத்து மற்றும் நீரைப் பல்வேறு நதிகளில் பகிர்ந்தளித்தல் போன்ற பல நன்மைகளைக் கொண்டதாக விளங்கும்.