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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 2 Chapter 2 The Mughal Empire Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 2 Chapter 2 The Mughal Empire

7th Social Science Guide The Mughal Empire Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who introduced the Persian style of architecture in India?
a) Humayun
b) Babur
c) Jahangir
d) Akbar
Answer:
b) Babur

Question 2.
In which battle did Akbar defeat Rana Pratap?
a) Panipat
b) Chausa
c) Haldighati
d) Kanauj
Answer:
c) Haldighati

Question 3.
Whose palace in Delhi was destroyed by Sher Shah?
a) Babur
b) Humayun
c) Ibrahim Lodi
d) Alam Khan
Answer:
b) Humayun

Question 4.
Who introduced Mansabdari system?
a) Sher Sha
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan
Answer:
b) Akbar

Question 5.
Who was the revenue minister of Akbar?
a) Birbal
b) Raja Bhagwan Das
c) Raja Todarmal
d) Raja Man Singh
Answer:
c) Raja Todarmal

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………………was the name of the horse of Rana Pratap.
Answer:
Chetak

2. ……………….was a hall at FatehpurSikri where scholars of all religions met for a discourse.
Answer:
Ibadat Khana

3. The Sufi saint who received Akbar’s utmost respect was ………………..
Answer:
Salim Chishti

4. During the reign of ……………. the Zabti system was extended to the Deccan provinces.
Answer:
Shahjahan

5. ……………..were tax-free lands given to scholars and religious institutions.
Answer:
Suyurghal

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV. Write True or False :

1. Babur inherited Farghana, a small kingdom in Central Asia.
Answer:
True

2. Humayun succeeded in recapturing Delhi in 1565.
Answer:
False

3. Aurangzeb married a girl of a notable Rajput family.
Answer:
False

4. Jahangir ordered the execution of Sikh leader Guru Aijun for helping his son Khusrau.
Answer:
True

5. During Aurangzeb’s reign, architecture received much patronage.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The British established their first factory at Surat.
Reason (R) : Jahangir granted trading rights to the English.
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct.
d) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Aurangzeb’s intolerance towards other religions made him unpopular among people.
Reason (R) : Aurangzeb re-imposed the jizya and pilgrim tax on the Hindus.
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is wrong and R is correct.
d) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Find out the correct statements
I) Kamran was the son of Afghan noble, Hasan Suri, ruler of Sasaram in Bihar.
II) Akbar abolished the jizya poll tax on non-Muslims and the tax on Hindu pilgrims.
III) Aurangzeb acceded the throne after killing his three brothers.
IV) Prince Akbar entered into a pact with Shivaji’s son Shambuji in the Deccan,
a) I), II) and III) are correct
b) II), III) and IV) are correct
c) I), III) and IV) are correct
d) III), IV) and I) are correct
Answer:
b) II), III) and IV) are correct

Question 4.
Arrange the battles in chronological order.
i) Battle of Khanwa
ii) Battle of Chausa
iii) Battle of Kanauj
iv) Battle of Chanderi
Answer:
i), iv), ii), iii)

Question 5.
Arrange the following administrative divisions in descending order
I)  Sarkars
II) Parganas
III) Subhas
Answer:
II), III), I)

VI. Match the father and son.

Answer:

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write the circumstance that led to the Battle of Panipat in 1526.
Answer:
Babur did not have any ambition beyond Punjab till 1524. Then a greater opportunity came knocking. Dilawar Khan, who was Daulat Khan Lodi’s son, and Alam Khan, who was the uncle of Sultan of Delhi, arrived in Kabul to seek Babur’s help in removing Ibrahim Lodi from power. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the famous Battle of Panipat in 1526.

Question 2.
Mention did Humayun recapture the Delhi throne in 1555?
Answer:
With the help of the Persian ruler Shah Tahmasp of the Safavid dynasty, Humayun recaptured the Delhi throne in 1555.

Question 3.
Write a note on the Mansabdari system.
Answer:

• Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system.
• The nobles, civil and military officials were combined to form one single service in this system.
• A Mansabdar, hold such a rank which was dependent on Zat and Sawar.

VIII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Describe the land revenue administration of the Mughals.
Answer:

• Land Revenue was the main income source during the Mughal Period.
• It was toned up during the reign of Akbar.
• Raja Todar Mai, the Revenue Minister of Akbar, adopted and refined the system introduced by Sher Shah.

Zabt System:

• According to this system, after the survey, lands were classified based on the nature and fertility of the soil.
• The share of the state was 1/3 of average produce for 10 years.
• During the reign of Shah Jahan, the zabt system was extended to the Deccan provinces.

Jagir:

• The Mughal emperors enforced the old iqta system, renaming it a ‘Jagir’.
• The collection of revenue of an area and the power of governing were bestowed upon military or civil official named Jagirdar.
• The revenue collector was assisted by Potdar, Qanungo, the Patwari, and the Muqaddams.

Zamindars:
Zamindars collected taxes and maintained law and order with the help of Mughal officials and soldiers. Thus, they maintained the land revenue system.

Question 2.
Estimate Akbar as a patron of learning.
Answer:

• Akbar was a great patron of learning.
• He had a personal library that had more than 4000 manuscripts.
• He patronized scholars of all beliefs and all shades of opinions.
• He extended his benevolence to authors such as Abul Fazl, Abul Faizi, and Abdur Rahim khan-i-khanan and Birbal.

IX. HOTs:

Question 1.
Shah Jahan’s time witnessed the climax of Mughal splendour. Support this statement in comparison with the times of other Mughal rulers.
Answer:

• Shah Jahan’s time witnessed the climax of Mughal splendour.
• Because the famous Peacock throne, Tajmahal, Moti Masjid, the Pearl Mosque, the great Jama Masjid, Diwan-i-Khas, and Diwan – i – am were built during the reign of Shah Jahan.
• Other Mughal rulers Babur, Akbar, and Jahangir also lovers of architecture.
• But after Shahjahan’s reign, architecture did not receive much patronge.
• So in his reign came the climax of Mughal Splendour.

7th Social Science Guide The Mughal Empire Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The founder of Mughal Empires
a) Babur
b) Humayan
c) Shershah
d) Akbar
Answer:
a) Babur

Question 2.
Babur led his first expedition towards India in
a) 1500
b) 1505
c) 1525
d) 1526
Answer:
b) 1505

Question 3.
Who was defeated Babur in the First Battle of Panipat?
a) Rana Sanga
b) Prithiviraj
c) Ibrahim Lodi
d) Daulatkhan Lodi
Answer:
c) Ibrahim Lodi

Question 4.
The Second Battle of Panipat was held in the year.
a) 1516
b) 1526
c) 1556
d) 1761
Answer:
c) 1556

Question 5.
South Indian women Ruler ………….. of Ahmed Nagar Glad to confront against Askbarf
a) Chand Bibi
b) Durgavati
c) Nurjahan
d) LakshmiBai
Answer:
a) Chand Bibi

6. The great composes and Musician in Akbar’s Court was ………………
a) Daswant
b) Tansen
c)Abdul Fazal
d) Birbal
Answer:
b) Tansen

Question 7.
Jahangir executed the Sikh leader
a) Ramadas
b) TejBahdaur
c) Govind Singh
d) Arjun
Answer:
d) Arjan

Question 8.
Purana Qila was built by
a) Akbar
b) Sher Shah Sur
e) Shan Jahan
d) Shivaji
Answer:
b) Sher Shah Sur

Question 9.
The Prime minister of the Mughal Government was called as
a) Wakil
b) Kotwals
e) Sawar
d) Peshuwa
Answer:
a) Wakil

Question 10.
Aurangzeb means
a) King of the world
b) light of the world
e) The Conqueror of the world
d) Tiger of the world
Answer:
c) The Conqueror of the world

II Fill in the blanks:

1. Mughal rule statted in India from …………….
Answer:
1526 A.D

2. …………….. and ……….. invited Babur to invade India.
Answer:
Dilawar Khan, Alam khan

3. The autobiography of Babur is ………………..
Answer:
Tuzuk-i-Baburi

4. Babur defeated Rana Sanga in the Battle of ……………. in 1527.
Answer:
Khanwa

5. Sher Shah Sur defeated Humayun in the Battle of ………… in 1539 and …………….. in 1540.
Answer:
Chausa, Kannauj

6. Persian ruler ………………….. helped Humayun to defeat Sher Shah.
Answer:
Shah Tahmasp

7. Sher Shah started the rule ……………….. of the dynasty at Agra.
Answer:
Sur

8. Akbar abolished the Poll tax named…………….
Answer:
Jizya

9. Sikh shrine Harmandir Sahib was built at ………..
Answer:
Amritsar

10. ……………, a hail of worship was built by Akbar.
Answer:
Ibadat Khana

11. The Sufi saint …………… was respected by Akbar.
Answer:
Salim Chishti

12. The artist in Akbar’s court was …………..
Answer: Daswant

13. ………………, a representative 01 King iames i or tngianci visiteo ianangirs cou
Ans:
Thomas Roe

14 ……………. maintained law and order in the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
Kotwals

15. Din Ilahi means ………………
Answer:
Divine faith

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV Write true or false:

1. Humayun fell down the stairs of his library in Delhi and died.
Answer:
True

2. Babur led his First expedition to India in 1524 A.D
Answer:
False

3. Akbar treated all the religious groups fairly with the generosity of spirit.
Answer:
True

4. Humavun granted tradin2 ri2hts to the Portuguese and English.
Answer:
False

V. Consider the Following statements. (✓) Tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Mughals had to lose control over the trade routes to Afghanistan, Persia, and central Asia.
Reason (R) : There was a prolonged fight between Mughals and Sikhs
a) R is not the correct explanation of A b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Jahangir ordered the execution of Sikhs leader Guru Aijun
Reason (R) : For religious causes, Jahangir ordered the execution of guru Aijun
a) R is not the correct explanation of A b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
a) R is not the correct explanation of A

VI. Circle the odd one out:

Babur, Humayun, Sher Shah, Jahangir
Answer:

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Who is Sher Shah?
Answer:

• Sher Shah was the son of an Afghan noble, Hasan Suri, the ruler of Sasaram in Bihar.
• He started the rule of the Sur dynasty at Agra.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Second Battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between Hemu, a general of the Sur dynasty, and Akbar at Panipat in 1556.
• In this battle, Akbar’s general Bairam Khan defeated and killed Hemu.

Question 3.
Which women rulers fought against Akbar?
Answer:

• Rani Durgavati of Central Province.
• Rani Chand Bibi of Ahmed Nagar.

Question 4.
What is Din Ilahi?
Answer:
Akbar tried to include the good principles in all religions and formulated them into one single faith called Divine faith or Din -I – lahi.

Question 5.
Give a short note on Redfort.
Answer:

• Redfort also called Lai Qila is situated at Delhi.
• It was the residence of the Mughal emperors.
• It was constructed in 1639 by Shah Jahan.
• It has massive enclosing walls of red sandstone.

VIII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Estimate the Contribution of Mughal rulers towards art and architecture.
Answer:
All the Mughal Emperors show their keen interest in Art and Architecture.
Babur:

• Babur introduced the Persian style of architecture in India.
• He built many structures at Agra. Biana, Dholpur Gwalior, and Kiul.

Humayun:
Humayun built his royal palace Din-i-Panah and Delhi.

Akbar:
The Diwan-i-Khas, Diwan-i-Am, Panch – Mahal, Rang Mahal, Salim Chishti’s Tomb and Buland Darwaza were built during Akbar’s time.

Jahangir:
Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara, Tomb of Itmad-ud-doula at Agra (father of Nur Jahan) was built by Jahangir.

Shahjahan:
The famous Peacock throne, Tajmahal, Moti Masjid, Pearl Mosque at Agra, Red Fort, Jamma Masjid of Delhi, Diwan-i-Khas, and Diwan-i-am in Delhi were built by Shah Jahan.

Aurangzeb:

• The Bibi ka Maqbara a mausoleum was built during Aurangzeb. period.
• Shahjahan’s Period witnessed the Mughal splendour in architecture.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 3 Chapter 2 Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 3 Chapter 2 Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu

7th Social Science Guide Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which is the oldest structural temple in south India?
a) Shore Temple
b) Mandagapattu
c) Kailasanatha Temple
d) Vaikuntha Perumal Temple
Answer:
a) Shore Temple

Question 2.
In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments and temples notified as a UNESCO world Heritage site?
a) 1964
b) 1994
c) 1974
d) 1984
Answer:
d) 1984

Question 3.
What was the special feature of the architecture of early Chola period?
a) bas-reliefs
b) vimanas
c) corridors
d) gopurams .
Answer:
b) Vimanas

Question 4.
Where is the Azhakiya Nambi Temple situated?
a) Tirukkurungudi
b) Madurai
c) Tirunelveli
d) Srivilliputhu
Answer:
a) Tirukkurungudi

Question 5.
Who built the Vaikuntha Perumal Temple?
a) Mahendravarman
b) Narasimhavarman
c) Rajasimha
d) Rajaraja II
Answer:
d) Rajaraja II

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. …………………. was the first rock-cut cave temple built by the Pallava king Mahendravarman.
Answer:
Mandagapattu

2. The early Chola architecture followed the style of………………….
Answer:
Sembian Mahadevi

3. The most celebrated mandapam in Madurai Meenakshiamman temple is the………………….
Answer:
Pudumandapam

4. Later Chola period was known for beautiful………………….
Answer:
gopurams

5. Vijayanagar period’s unique feature is the………………….
Answer:
mandapam

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Find out the wrong pair/pairs:

Question 1.
1. Krishnapuram Temple – Tirunelveli
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari
3. Sethupathis – Feudatories of Madurai Nayaks
4. Jalagandeshwara temple – Vellore
Answer:
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : The predominance of corridors of Rameswaram Temple is striking. Reason (R) : The Temple has the largest set of corridors in the world,
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) Both A arid R are wrong
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find out the odd one out:
Srivilliputhur, Azhaharkoil, Srirangam, Kanchipuram Tiruvannamalai.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the epoch of the following:
a) A.D. 600 to 850 – ………………………………………………
b) A.D. 850 to 1100 – ………………………………………………
c) A.D. 1100 tol350 – ………………………………………………
d) A.D. 1350 tol600 – ………………………………………………
Answer:
a) A.D. 600 to 850 – The Pallava Epoch
b) A.D. 850 to 1100 – Early Chola Epoch
c) A.D. 1100 tol350 – Later Chola Epoch
d) A.D. 1350 tol600 – Vijaynagara /Nayak Epoch

Question 5.
Find out the correct statement/s:
1. The Arjuna’s Penance is carved out of a granite boulder.
2. Meenakshi Amman temple in Madurai represents Pallava’s architectural style.
3. The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas.
4. The Sethupathis as feudatories of Madurai Nayaks contributed to Madurai Meenakshiamman Temple.
Answer:
1. The Arjuna’s Penance is carved out of a granite boulder.
3. The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas.

V. State true or false:

1. Rajasimha built the Kanchi Kailasanatha temple.
Answer:
True

2. Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of Later Cholas.
Answer:
False

3. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant parts of the Pandya architecture.
Answer:
True

4. Brahadeeshwara temple was built by Rajendra Chola.
Answer:
True

5. Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at temple at Dadapuram.
Answer:
False

VI. Give short answers:

Question 1.
Write a note on Pancha Pandava Rathas.
Answer:

1. The Tamil Dravid tradition is exemplified by rock-cut- monuments.
2. Such as Draupadiratha, Dharmarajaratha, Bheemaratha, Arjunaratha, and Nagula – Sahadeva Ratha.

Question 2.
Throw light on the paintings of Sittanavasal
Answer:

• Sittanavasal is located at Pudukkottai district.
• It have outstanding early Pandya paintings.
• They painted the walls with fresh painting.
• Among the surviving ones,the lot of pond is not able for its excellent execution of colours and exposition of the scene.

Question 3.
Point out the special features of Thanjavur Big temple.
Answer:

1. The Thanjavur BigTemple completed around A.D.1010 was built by Rajaraja.
2. It was a huge temple complex.
3. The 216 feet vimana is not able as it is one of the tallest man-made shikaras in the world.
4. The huge bull statue (Nandi) is carved out of a single rock.

Question 4.
Highlight the striking features of Rameswaram Temple.
Answer:

• The Sethupathis ruled Ramanathapuram was built the temple.
• In the temple, the predominance of the corridor striking.
• It is claimed that this temple has the longest set of corridors in the world.
• The temple has three sets of corridors.
• The outer set of the corridors has a height of almost 7metres and stretches for about 120 metres.
• Many of these pillar sare decorated by ornate carvings. .

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples – Explain.
Answer:

• The Pallava king Mahendravarman was a pioneer in rock-cut architecture.
• Rock-cut temples were initially built by carving a rock to the required design and then rocks were cut to build temples.
• Mandaga pattu temple was the first trock-cut temple built by him.
• The rock-cut cave structure has two pillar sin the front that hold it.
• All the cave temple shaves implesanctum cut on there a side of the wall with a front age – projecting mandapa(pavilion).
• The structural temples provided a wider scope to the sculptor to use his skill.

Question 2.
Discuss how the architecture of the Vijayanagara and Nayak period was different from the one of Pallavas and Later Cholas.
Answer:

• During the Vijayanagara epoch,a new form of construction emerged.
• The main features of the Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are:
• Decorated mandapas
• Ornamental pillars
• Life-size images
• Gopuras
• Prakaras
• Music pillars
• Floral works and stone windows
• Tanks are attached to the temple
• Massive gopurarrts at four sides.
• niches with sculptures.
• These as found at
• Alakiya Nambi temple atTirukkurungudi
• Ranganatha temple complex at Srirangam
• Adinatha temple – Azhwar Tirunagari
• Nellaiyappar temple -Tirunelveli
• The 1000-pillar mandapam – Madurai
• Meenakshi Amman temple – madurai
• Rathi Mandapam – Tirukkurungudi
• Vanamamalai Temple – Nanguneri
• The Jalagandeshwara temple – Vellore,
• The temples at Thadikompu near Dindugal.

VIII. Hots:

Question 1.
Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin – Explain.
Answer:

• Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin.
• It advanced overtime by a process of evolution.
• The earliest examples of the Tamil Dravidian architectural tradition were the 7th-century rock-cut shrines at Mahabalipuram.
• The absence of monuments in South India prior to the 7th century is attributed by scholars to temples that ought to have been built in wood, which was eventually destroyed by forces of nature.
• In TamilNadu, the evolution of temple architecture took place in five stages:
  • The Pallava Epoch.
  • Early Chola Epoch.
  • Later Chola Epoch.
  • Vijayanagara / Nayak Epoch.
  • Modem Epoch.

Question 2.
Temple art was at its best during the Nayak Period – Elucidate.
Answer:

• The main features of the Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are decorated, mandapas,ornamental pillars,life-size images, gopuras, prakaras, music pillars,
• Floral works and stone windows during the 15th to 17th centuries.
• Tanks are attached to the temples. Gateways to temple are constructed from Four directions with massive gopurams.
• The practice of fitting then inches with sculptures continued during the Nayak period.
• There was an increased use of major sculpted figures(relief sculpturejas found at the Alakiya Nambite mpleat Tirukkurungudi (Tirunelveli district) and the Gopalakrishna temple in the Ranganatha temple complex at Srirangam.
• The southern festival mandapam of Adinatha temple at AzhwarTirunagari and the porch of the Nellaiyappar temple at Tirunelveli are other notable examples.

7th Social Science Guide Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The Pallava Epoch in Tamilnadu is ………………
a) A.D 600-850
b) A.D 850-1100
c) A.D 1350-1850
d) A.D 1100-1350
Answer:
a) A.D 600-850

Question 2.
The Pallava king ………………was a pioneer in rock-cut architecture.
a) Narasimma varman
b) Mahendravarman
c) Simha Varman
d) Vaathabi Kondan
Answer:
b) Mahendravarman

Question 3.
The ……………… Penance, carved on the face of a granite boulder, is a magnificent relief.
a) Arjun’s
b) Sivam
c) Vishnu
d) Thirumal
Answer:
a) Arjun’s

Question 4.
In the Siva temple of Pandyas, the ……………… is carved out of the mother rock.
a)Vimanam
b) Gopuram
c) lutes
d) linga
Answer:
d) linga

Question 5.
Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai and Nellaiappar Temple in Tirunelveli represent examples of ……………… architectural style.
a) Pandya’s
b) Cheran
c) Chola
d) Vijaynagar
Answer: a) Pandya’s

Question 6.
The maturity attained by ……………… architecture is reflected in the two magnificent temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
a) Cheran
b) Cholas
c) Pandiyas
d) Vijayanagar
Answer:
b) Cholas

Question 7.
………………, near Kumbakonam, is a Later Chola period temple.
a) Kalugumalai
b) Arykkudi
c) Dharasuram
d) Thiruvadalan
Answer:
c) Dharasuram

Question 8.
The cave temple at ………………(near Karaikudi, TamilNadu) belonging to 13th century.
a) Irrukkaikudi
b) Aryakkudi
c) Varalanpadi
d) Pillayarpatti
Answer:
d) Pillayarpatti

Question 9.
The practice of fitting the with sculptures continued during the Nayak period.
a) Mandapam
b) Gopuram
c) lutes
d) niches
Answer:
d) niches

Question 10.
The Later Chola period was known for beautiful
a) Mandapam
b) Gopuram
c) Nandi
d) Theppakulam
Answer:
b) Gopuram

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. The ……………… epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples.
Answer:
Pallava

2. Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by ……………….
Answer:
Mahendravarman

3. TheKanchi ………………was built by the Pallava king, Rajasimha.
Answer:
Kailasanatha Temple

4. The monolithic sculpture made at Mahabalipuram is ………………
Answer:
Pancha Pandava Rathas.

5. The Mamallapuram monuments and temples were notified as a ……………… in 1984.
Answer:
UNESCO

6. Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of the ………………
Answer:
Pallavas

7. The Vettuvankoil, a monolithic temple at ………………, is hewn out of a huge boulder on four sides.
Answer:
Kazhugumalai

8. Many early Pandya images are unearthed now in ……………… museum at Madurai.
Answer:
Tirumalai Nayakkar

9. Sittanavasal was a residential cave of the ………………
Answer:
Jain monks

10. For the early Chola epoch, the temple at ……………… Tamilnadu is worth mentioning.
Answer:
Tindivanam, Dadapuram

11. At the time the Big Temple of ……………… was constructed, it was a huge temple complex.
Answer:
Thanjavur

12. The Brihadeeshwara temple of ………………, is undoubtedly as worthy a successor to the Brihadeeshwara
temple of Thanjavur.
Answer:
Gangaikonda Cholapuram

13. The Kalyana mandapam at ………………, Jalagandeshwar temple are notable examples.
Answer:
Vellore

14. At Vijayanagar epoch, the mandapam and port of ……………… at Adinatha are special features.
Answer:
Azhwar temple

15. The Sethupathis ruled ………………and contributed to the Ramanathaswamy temple architecture.
Answer:
Ramanathapuram

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Find out the wrong pair/pairs:

Question 1.
Find out the wrong pair/pairs
1. Iravatheswara – Indira’s elephant
2. Pillayarpatti – A beautiful Ganesha
3. Rameshwaram Temple – Theppakulam
4. 1000 pillar mandapams – Meenakshi Amman Temple
5. Gangai Konda Solapuram – Chola Capital
Answer:
3. Rameshwaram Temple – Theppakulam

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : The Thanjavur Big Temple is one of the highest temple in the World.
Reason (R) : Due to its massive height, the shikhara is called the Dakshina Meru.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find the odd one out:
Arjuna’s Penance, Rock, cut, temple, Kailasanathar temple, Palani Malai temple
Answer:

Question 4.
Find out the correct statement/s.
1. In Dharasuaram near Kumbakonam Vyayanagar King’s temple is situated.
2. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant part of Pandya architecture.
3. The maturity attained by Pallava’s architecture is reflected in the two magnificent temples of Thanjavur and Gangai Konda Cholapuram.
4. The Temple at Dadapuram, near Tindivanam in Tamilnadu is worth mentioning of Later Chola Epoch.
Answer:
2. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant part of Pandya architecture.

V. State true or false:

1. Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) is built of cut stones rather than carved out of caves.
Answer:
True

2. Pandyas installed Nandi in the sanctums in their cave temples.
Answer:
false

3. The Puddukottai Sittanavasal Lotus Pond is the excellent execution.
Answer:
True

4. Tanjavur served as the Chola capital for about 250 years, until the decline of the Cholas and the rise of the Pandyas.
Answer:
False

VI. Give short answers:

Question 1.
Write short note about the specialities of Mamallapuram.
Answer:
The Mamallapuram monuments and temples, including the Shore Temple complex, were notified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984.

Question 2.
Write about Kazhugumalai sculpture.
Answer:

• The Vettuvankoil, a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai, is hewn out of a huge boulder on four sides.
• At the top of the temple, sculptures of Uma Maheswarar, Dakshinamoorthy, Vishnu and Brahma are found.

Question 3.
Write about Pillayarpatti Karpaka Vinayagar temple.
Answer:

• The cave temple at Pillayarpatti (near Karaikudi, TamilNadu) belonging to 13th century.
• This temple is important both for its sculptures and for an inscription.
• A beautiful Ganesha is carved facing the entrance. .

Question 4.
What are the specialities of Ganga – kondacholapuram?
Answer:

• Gangaikonda Cholapuram served as the Chola capital.
• It was built by Rajendra Chola.
• The height of the temple is 5 5 metres.
• The sanctum has two storeys.
• The outer wall has many projections with niches and recesses on three sides.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Mention the places of Pallavas Creation.
Answer:

• Mahendravadi – Pallavaram
• Mahabalipuram – Thirukazhukundram
• Vallam – Mammandur
• Mandagapattu – Melaiserri
• Kanchi – Chengalpattu.

Question 2.
List out the Vijayanagar temple of Tamilnadu Architecture.
Answer:

• Kanchi – Vaikuntha Perumal Temple.
• Tirunelveli – Nellaiappar Temple Corridor.
• Vellore – Jalagandeshwar Temple.
• Azhwar Tirunagari – Adinatha Temple.
• Thanjavur – Brihadeeshwara Temple.
• Madurai – Meenakshi Amman Temple

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 4th English Guide Pdf Term 2 Poem 2 What Do Humans Save? Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 4th English Solutions Term 2 Poem 2 What Do Humans Save?

4th English Guide What Do Humans Save? Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Match with their storing places.

Question 1.

Answer:

B. Fill in the blanks with rhyming words.

Question 1.
Anthill  __________
Answer:
Winter’s chill

Question 2.
Tunnels  __________
Answer:
Channels

Question 3.
Larder  __________
Answer:
Starter

Question 4.
Tree  __________
Answer:
Free

C. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Where do ants pile their food?
Answer:
Ants pile their food in the anthill.

Question 2.
Where do the crocodiles save?
Answer:
The crocodiles save food in their pantries.

Question 3.
What do you save? Why it is needed?
Answer:
We have to save everything that nature gave. It is needed for our future generations.

Answer the following Additional Questions and Answers.

Question 1.
Where do squirrels reserve food?
Answer:
Squirrels reserve food in a larder.

Question 2.
What do they store?
Answer:
They store a seven course meal.

Question 3.
When do the leopards eat their prey?
Answer:
Leopards eat their prey when they are free.

Question 4.
Where do the farmers store their harvest?
Answer:
The farmers store their harvest in a granary.

Question 5.
Why do ants pile food in the anthill?
Answer:
Ants pile food in the anthill to eat it during the winter.

A. Write was or were to complete the sentence.

Question 1.
I ________ the leader of my class.
Answer:
Was

Question 2.
We ________ in New York, last week.
Answer:
Were

Question 3.
You _________ a baby.
Answer:
Were

Question 4.
Raju ________ my junior in school.
Answer:
Was

Question 5.
Kavi  _________ kind to me.
Answer:
Was

Question 6.
The bus _________ brand new.
Answer:
Was

Question 7.
They _________ friends.
Answer:
Were

B. Write the past form of the verbs.

Question 1.

read – _________
Answer:
read

Question 2.

sing – ___________
Answer:
Sang

Question 3.

sleep – __________
Answer:
Slept

C. Complete the sentence with the simple past form of the given verbs.

Question 1.
It _________ (snow) last winter.
Answer:
Snowed

Question 2.
The rain ___________ (continue) all day.
Answer:
Continued

Question 3.
I __________ (lose) my balance.
Answer:
Lost

Question 4.
We __________ (stand) for hours.
Answer:
Stood

Question 5.
Tom __________ (come) home from school.
Answer:
Came

D. Circle the sentences that is in simple future tense.

Question 1.

1. They washed the van.
2. Kamal will meet you at the shop.
3. My dad helps me read.
4. It will rain tomorrow.
5. He ate many mangoes.

Answer:

E. Fill in the blanks with simple future tense of the verb.

Question 1.
Sakthi _________ (earn) a lot of money.
Answer:
Will earn

Question 2.
You _________ (travel) around the world.
Answer:
Will travel

Question 3.
Everybody ___________ (adore) you.
Answer:
Will adore

Question 4.
Many people _________ (serve) you.
Answer:
Will serve

Question 5.
They ________ (anticipate) your wishes.
Answer:
Will anticipate

Let us listen

Listen to the advertisement and answer the questions given.

Question 1.
How many accounts can a parent open at most?
a. 3
b.2
c. 3

Question 2.
When does the deposit mature?
a. Both
b. 21 years
C. 14 years

Question 3.
The minimum deposit for an account is _________
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 500

Question 4.
Income tax exemption given under the section ___________
a. 80C
b. 18C
C. 16A

Question 5.
The name of the savings scheme is ___________
(a) Public Provident Fund
(b) Selvamagal
(c) Postal Life Insurance
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students

Let us speak

Question 1.
Learn how they speak in the bank and practise as if you were in that situation.
Answer:

Bank Manager : How can I help you?
Customer : I am here to deposit money.
Bank Manager : Ok, let me fill the form for you.
Customer : Thanks sir. But I can fill it myself.
Bank Manager : Good. Here is your pay-in-slip.
Customer : Which counter should I go to?
Bank Manager : Let me check your pay-in-slip.
Customer : Here it is, sir.
Bank Manager : Good, you have filled it correctly. You can deposit your money in counter 3.
Customer : Thank you sir.

What Do Humans Save? Summary in English and Tamil

Ants pile food in the anthill They eat it during the winter’s chill

எறும்புகள் உணவை எறும்புக் கூட்டில் சேமிக்கின்றன. குளிர்காலத்தில் அவை அவற்றை உண்ணுகின்றன.

Moles dig long and winding tunnels And save worms in the channels

எலிகள் நீளமான சுழல் குகைகளை அமைக்கின்றன. அவற்றில் மண்புழுக்களை சேமிக்கின்றன.

Crocodiles are found in many countries They store food in their pantries

முதலைகள் பல நாடுகளில் காணப்படுகின்றன.அவை தம் உணவை அவற்றின் கிடங்குகளில்(நீருக்கு அடியில் ஓரிடம்) சேமிக்கின்றன.

Squirrels reserve food in a larder They store a seven course meal with starter

அணில்கள் தங்கள் உணவை அலமாரி போன்ற அமைப்பில் ஒதுக்கி வைக்கின்றன.அவை ஏழு வகை உணவுகளை, துவக்க உணவுடன் சேர்த்து வைக்கின்றன.

Leopards keep their prey on a tree And eat them when they are free Farmers store the harvest in a granary Soon to be packed in the cannery

சிறுத்தைகள் தங்கள் உணவை மரத்தில் வைக்கின்றன. அதை பின்னர் நிதானமாய், ஓய்வில் உண்ணுகின்றன விவசாயிகள் தங்கள் அறுவடையை களஞ்சியத்தில் சேமிக்கின்றனர்.பிறகு அவற்றை கோணிகளில் அடைக்கின்றனர்.

What do you save? everything that nature gave.

நீங்கள் என்ன சேமிக்கின்றீர்கள்? இயற்கை கொடுக்கும் அனைத்தையும் தான்.

What Do Humans Save? Glossary

Cannery – a place where the food is packed in cans or tins  (உணவை தகர குவளைகளில் அடைக்கும் இடம்)
Granary – a storehouse for threshed grain   (போரடிக்கப்பட்ட உதிர்க்கப்பட்ட) தானியங்களை சேமிக்கும் இடம் (களஞ்சியம்)
Pantries – a storage room  (ஒரு சேமிக்கும் இடம்)
pile – to collect   (சேகரித்தல்)
prey – an animal that is hunted and killed by another for food  (ஒரு மிருகம் மற்றொன்றால் உணவுக்காக வேட்டையாடப்படுவது.)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.8 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.8

Question 1.
Find all values of x for which \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) > 0
Answer:
The given inequality is f(x) = \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) > 0
[The critical numbers of f(x) are those values of x for which f(x) = 0, and those values of x for which f(x) is not defined.
When x = 2 , f(x) = ∞ ⇒ f(x) is not defined.]
The critical numbers are x = 0, 1, 2
Divide the number line into 4 intervals
(- ∞, 0), (0, 1), (1, 2) and (2, ∞)

(1) (- ∞, 0)
When x < 0 say x = – 1
The factor x³ = (- 1)³ = – 1 < 0
The factor x – 1 = – 1 – 1 = – 2 < 0
The factor x – 2 = – 1 – 2 = – 3 < 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) < 0
Thus \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) > 0 is not true in the interval (- ∞, 0)
Therefore, it has no solution in the interval (- ∞, 0)

(2) (0, 1)
When 0 < x < 1 say x = 0.5
The factor x³ = (0.5 )³ > 0
The factor x – 1 = 0.5 – 1 = – 0.5 < 0
The factor x – 2 = 0.5 – 2 = – 1.5 < 0
Thus x³ > 0, x – 1 < 0 and x – 2 < 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) > 0
Thus \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) > 0 is true in the interval (0, 1)
Therefore it has solution in (0,1)

(3) (1, 2)
When 1 < x < 2 say x = 1.5
The factor x³ = 0
The factor x – 1 = 1.5 – 1 = 0.5 > 0
The factor x – 2 = 1.5 – 2 = – 0.5 < 0
Thus x³ > 0, x – 1 > 0 and x – 2 < 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) < 0
Thus \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) > 0 is not true in the interval (1, 2).
Therefore it has no solution in (1, 2).

(4) (2, ∞)
When x > 2 say x = 3
The factor x³ = 3³ > 0
The factor x – 1 = 3 – 1 = 2 > 0
The factor x – 2 = 3 – 2 = 1 > 0
Thus x³ > 0, x – 1 > 0 and x – 2 > 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) > 0
Thus \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) > 0 is true in the interval (2, ∞).
Therefore it has a solution in (2, ∞)

∴ \(\frac{x^{3}(x-1)}{x-2}\) > 0 has solution in the intervals (0, 1) and (2, ∞)
∴ The solution set is given by (0, 1) ∪ (2, ∞)

Question 2.
Find all values of x that satisfies the inequality \(\frac{2 x-3}{(x-2)(x-4)}\) < 0.
Answer:
The given inequality is

[The critical numbers of f(x) are those values of x for which f(x) = 0, and those values of x for which f(x) is not defined. When x = 2, f(x) = ∞ ⇒ f(x) is not defined.]
The critical numbers are x = \(\frac{3}{2}\), x = 2 , x = 4
Divide the number into 4 intervals

(1) \(\left(-\infty, \frac{3}{2}\right)\)
When x < \(\frac{3}{2}\) say x = 0
The factor x – \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 0 – \(\frac{3}{2}\) < 0
The factor x – 2 = 0 – 2 < 0
The factor x – 4 = 0 – 4 < 0
Thus x – \(\frac{3}{2}\) < 0, x – 2 < 0 and x – 4 < 0

(2) \(\left(\frac{3}{2}, 2\right)\)

(3) (2, 4)
When 2 < x < 4 say x = 3 The factor x – \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 3 – \(\frac{3}{2}\) = \(\frac{3}{2}\) > 0
The factor x – 2 = 3 – 2 = 1 > 0
The factor x – 4 = 3 – 4 = – 1 < 0 Thus x – \(\frac{3}{2}\) > 0, x – 2 > 0 and x – 4 < 0

Thus \(\frac{2 x-3}{(x-2)(x-4)}\) < 0 is true in the interval (2, 4) ∴ It has solution in (2, 4). (4) (4, ∞) When x > 4 say x = 5
The factor x – \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 5 – \(\frac{3}{2}\) = \(\frac{7}{2}\) > 0
The factor x – 2 = 5 – 2 = 3 >0
The factor x – 4 = 5 – 4 = 1 > 0
Thus x – \(\frac{3}{2}\) > 0, x – 2 > 0 and x – 4 > 0

Thus \(\frac{2 x-3}{(x-2)(x-4)}\) < 0 is not true in the interval (4, ∞)
∴ It has a solution in (4, ∞)

Question 3.
Solve: \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) ≤ 0
Answer:

[The critical numbers of f(x) are those values of x for which f(x) = 0, and those values of x for which f(x) is not defined. When x = – 3, 5. f(x) = ∞ ⇒ f(x) is not defined.]

The critical numbers are x = – 2 , 2, – 3, 5
Divide the number line into five intervals
(- ∞, – 3), (- 3, – 2), (- 2, 2), (2, 5) ,(5, ∞)

(a) (- ∞, – 3)
When x <- 3 say x = – 4
The factor x + 2 = – 4 + 2 = – 2 < 0
The factor x – 2 = – 4 – 2 = 6 < 0
The factor x + 3 = – 4 + 3 = – 1 < 0
The factor x – 5 = – 4 – 5 = – 9 < 0
Thus x + 2 < 0, x + 3 < 0, x – 2 < 0, x – 5 < 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) > 0
Thus \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) ≤ 0 is not true in the interval (- ∞, – 3).
∴ It has no solution in (- ∞, – 3)

(b) (- 3, – 2)
When – 3 < x ≤ – 2 say x = – 2.5
The factor x + 2 = – 2.5 + 2 = – 0.5 < 0
The factor x – 2 = – 2.5 – 2 = – 4.5 < 0 The factor x + 3 = – 2.5 + 3 = 0.5 > 0
The factor x – 5 = – 2.5 – 5 = – 7.5 < 0
Thus x + 2 < 0, x + 3 > 0
and
x – 2 < 0
x – 5 < 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) < 0
Thus \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) ≤ 0 is not true in the interval (- 3, – 2).
∴ It has no solution in (- 3, – 2)

(c) (-2, 2)
When – 2 ≤ x ≤ 2 say x = 0
The factor x + 2 = 0 + 2 = 2 > 0
The factor x – 2 = 0 – 2 = – 2 < 0
The factor x + 3 = 0 + 3 = 3 > 0
The factor x – 5 = 0 – 5 = – 5 < 0

Thus x + 2 > 0 ,
x + 3 > 0
and
x – 2 < 0
x – 5 < 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) > 0
Thus \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) ≤ 0 is not true in the interval (- 2, – 2).
∴ It has no solution in (- 2, – 2)

(d) (2, 5)
When 2 ≤ x < 5 say x = 3 The factor x + 2 = 3 = 3 + 2 = 5 > 0
The factor x – 2 = 3 – 2 = 1 > 0
The factor x + 3 = 3 + 3 = 6 > 0
The factor x – 5 = 3 – 5 = – 2 < 0 Thus x + 2 > 0,
x + 3 > 0
and
x – 2 > 0
x – 5 < 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) < 0
Thus \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) ≤ 0 is not true in the interval (2, 5).
∴ It has no solution in (2, 5)

(e) (5, ∞)
When 5 < x < ∞ say x = 6 The factor x + 2 = 6 + 2 = 8 > 0
The factor x – 2 = 6 – 2 = 4 > 0
The factor x + 3 = 6 + 3 = 9 > 0
The factor x – 5 = 6 – 5 = 1 > 0
Thus
x + 2 > 0,
x + 3 > 0
and
x – 2 > 0,
x – 5 > 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) > 0
Thus \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) ≤ 0 is not true in the interval (5, ∞).
∴ It has no solution in (5, ∞)
The given inequality f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}-4}{x^{2}+4 x-15}\) ≤ 0 has solution in the intervals (-3, – 2]
∴ The solution set is (-3, 2] ∪ [2, 5)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.7 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.7

Question 1.
Factorize x⁴ + 1
Answer:
The given equation is x⁴ + 1
x⁴ + 1 = (x²)² + 1²
= (x² + 1)² – 2 (x²) (1)
[ a² + b² = (a + b)² – 2ab]
= (x² + 1)² – (√2x)²
= (x² + 1 + √2x) (x² + 1 – √2x)
x⁴ + 1 = (x² + 2x + 1) (x² – √2x + 1)

Question 2.
If x⁴ + x + 1 is a factor of the polynomial 3x³ + 8x² + 8x + a, then find the value of a.
Answer:
Given that x² + x + 1 is a factor of the polynomial 3x³ + 8x² + 8x + a.
∴ 3x³ + 8x² + 8x + a is divisible by x² + x + 1

Since 3x³ + 8x² + 8x + a is divisible by x² + x + 1, the remainder must be zero.
a – 5 = 0
⇒ a = 5

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.6 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.6

Question 1.
Find the zeros of the polynomial function f(x) = 4x² – 25
Answer:
Given f(x) = 4x² – 25
To find the zeors of f(x), put f(x) = 0
∴ 4x² – 25 = 0
⇒ 4x² = 25
⇒ x² = \(\frac{25}{4}\)
⇒ x = ±\(\sqrt{\frac{25}{4}}\) = ±\(\frac{5}{2}\)
Hence the zeros of f(x) are \(-\frac{5}{2}, \frac{5}{2}\)

Question 2.
If x = – 2 is one root of x³ – x² – 17x = 22, then find the other roots of equation.
Answer:
Let f(x) = x³ – x² – 17x – 22 = 0 —– (1)
Given that x = – 2 is a root of f(x).
∴ x + 2 is a factor of f (x)
Using synthetic division

Comparing equation (1) with the equation ax² + bx + c = 0 we have
a = 1, b = – 3 , c = – 11

Question 3.
Find the real roots of x⁴ = 16.
Answer:
x⁴ = 16
⇒ x⁴ – 16 = 0
(i.e.,) x⁴ – 4² = 0
⇒ (x² + 4)(x² – 4) = 0
x² + 4 = 0 will have no real roots
so solving x² – 4 = 0
x² = 4

Question 4.
Solve (2x + 1)² – (3x + 2)² = 0
Answer:
The given equation is (2x + 1)² (3x + 2)² = 0
(2x + 1 + 3x + 2) [(2x + 1) – (3x + 2)] = 0
[a² – b² = (a + b) (a – b)]
(5x + 3) (2x + 1 – 3x – 2) = 0
(5x + 3)(- x – 1) = 0
– (5x + 3)(x + 1) = 0
5x + 3 = 0 or x + 1 = 0
x = – \(\frac{3}{5}\) or x = – 1
∴ Solution set is { – 1, \(\frac{3}{5}\)}

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.5

Question 1.
Solve 2x² + x – 15 ≤ 0
Answer:
The given inequality is
2x² + x – 15 ≤ 0 ——— (1)
2x² + x – 15 = 2x² + 6x – 5x – 15
= 2x (x + 3) – 5 (x + 3)
= (2x – 5)(x + 3)
2x² + x – 15 = 2\(\left(x-\frac{5}{2}\right)\))(x + 3) ——— (2)
The critical numbers are x – \(\frac{5}{2}\) = 0 or x + 3 = 0
The critical numbers are x = \(\frac{5}{2}\) or x = – 3
Divide the number line into three intervals

(i) (- ∞, – 3)
When x < – 3 say x = – 4
The factor x – \(\frac{5}{2}\) = – 4 – \(\frac{5}{2}\) < 0 and
x + 3 = – 4 + 3 = – 1 < 0
x – \(\frac{5}{2}\) < 0 and x + 3 < 0
⇒ \(\left(x-\frac{5}{2}\right)\) (x + 3) > 0
Using equation (2) 2x² + x – 15 > 0
∴ 2x² + x – 15 ≤ 0 is not true in (- ∞, – 3)

(ii) \(\left(-3, \frac{5}{2}\right)\)
When – 3 < x < \(\frac{5}{2}\) say x = 0
The factor x – \(\frac{5}{2}\) = 0 – \(\frac{5}{2}\) = – \(\frac{5}{2}\) < 0 and
x + 3 = 0 + 3 = 3 > 0
x – \(\frac{5}{2}\) < 0 and x + 3 > 0
⇒ \(\left(x-\frac{5}{2}\right)\) (x + 3) < 0
using equation (2) 2x² + x – 15 < 0
∴ 2x² + x – 15 ≤ 0 is true in \(\left(-3, \frac{5}{2}\right)\)

(iii) \(\left(\frac{5}{2}, \infty\right)\)
When x > \(\frac{5}{2}\) say x = 3
The factor x – \(\frac{5}{2}\) = 3 – \(\frac{5}{2}\) > 0 and
x + 3 = 3 + 3 > 0
x – \(\frac{5}{2}\) > 0 and x + 3 > 0
= \(\left(x-\frac{5}{2}\right)\) (x + 3) > 0
Using equation (2) 2x² + x – 15 > 0
∴ 2x² + x – 15 ≤ 0 is not true in \(\left(\frac{5}{2}, \infty\right)\)

We have proved the inequality 2x² + x – 15 ≤ 0 is true in the interval \(\left(-3, \frac{5}{2}\right)\)
But it is not true in the interval

Question 2.
Solve x² + 3x – 2 ≥ 0
Answer:
The given inequality is
– x² + 3x – 2 ≥ 0
x² – 3x + 2 < 0 ——– (1)
x² – 3x + 2 = x² – 2x – x + 2
= x(x – 2) – 1(x – 2)
x² – 3x + 2 = (x – 1) (x – 2) ——— (2)
The critical numbers are
x – 1 = 0 or x – 2 = 0
The critical numbers are
x = 1 or x = 2
Divide the number line into three intervals
(- ∞, 1), (1, 2) and (2, ∞).

(i) (- ∞, 1)
When x < 1 say x = 0
The factor x – 1 = 0 – 1 = – 1 < 0 and
x – 2 = 0 – 2 = – 2 < 0
x – 1 < 0 and x – 2 < 0
⇒ (x – 1)(x – 2) > 0
Using equation (2) x² – 3x + 2 > 0
∴ The inequality x² – 3x + 2 ≤ 0 is not true in the interval (- ∞, 1 )

(ii) (1, 2)
When x lies between 1 and 2 say x = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
The factor x – 1 = \(\frac{3}{2}\) – 1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) > 0 and
x – 2 = \(\frac{3}{2}\) – 2 = – \(\frac{1}{2}\) – < 0
x – 1 > 0 and x – 2 < 0
⇒ (x – 1)(x – 2) < 0
Using equation (2) x² – 3x + 2 < 0
∴ The inequality x² – 3x + 2 ≤ 0 is true in the interval (1, 2 )

(iii) (2, ∞)
When x > 2 say x = 3
The factor x – 1 = 3 – 1 = 2 > 0 and
x – 2 = 3 – 2 = 1 > 0
x – 1 > 0 and x – 2 > 0
= (x – 1)(x – 2) > 0
Using equation (2) x² – 3x + 2 > 0
∴ The inequality x² – 3x + 2 ≤ 0 is not true in the interval (2, ∞)
We have proved the inequality x² – 3x + 2 ≤ 0 is true in the interval [ 1, 2 ].
But it is not true in the interval
(- ∞, 1) and (2, ∞)
∴ The solution set is [1, 2]

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

Question 1.
Construct a quadratic equation with roots 7 and – 3.
Answer:
The given roots are 7 and -3
Let α = 7 and β = -3
α + β = 7 – 3 = 4
αβ = (7)(-3) = -21
The quadratic equation with roots α and β is x² – (α + β) x + αβ = 0
So the required quadratic equation is
x² – (4) x + (-21) = 0
(i.e.,) x² – 4x – 21 = 0

Question 2.
A quadratic polynomial has one of its zero 1 + √5 and it satisfies p(1) = 2. Find the quadratic polynomial.
Answer:
Let p(x) = ax² + bx + c be the required quadratic polynomial.
Given p (1) = 2 , we have
a × 1² + b × 1 + c = 2
a + b + c = 2 ——— (1)
Also given 1 + √5 is a zero of p(x)
∴ a(1 + √5)² + b (1 + √5) + c = 0
a( 1 + 5 + 2√5) + b (1 + √5) + c = 0
6a + 2a√5 + b + b√5 + c = 0 ——— (2)
If 1 + √5 is zero then 1 – √5 is also a zero of p (x).
∴ a(1 – √5)² + b (1 – √5) + c = 0
a( 1 – 2√5 + 5) + b (1 – √5) + c = 0
6a – 2a√5 + b – b√5 + c = 0 ——— (3)

Substituting the value of a in equation (4)
5 × – \(\frac{2}{5}\) + 2 × – \(\frac{2}{5}\) × √5 + b√5 = – 2
– 2 – \(\frac{4}{5}\)√5 + b√5 = – 2
b√5 = – 2 + 2 + \(\frac{4}{5}\) . √5
b√5 = \(\frac{4}{5}\) . √5
b = \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Substituting the value of a and b in equation (1), we have

∴ The required quadratic polynomial is
p(x) = \(-\frac{2}{5}\)x² + \(\frac{4}{5}\)x + \(\frac{8}{5}\)
p(x) = \(-\frac{2}{5}\)(x² – 2x – 4)

Question 3.
If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation x² + √2x + 3 = 0 form a quadratic polynomial with zeros \(\frac{1}{\alpha}, \frac{1}{\beta}\).
Answer:
Given α and β are the roots of the quadratic polynomial
x² + √2x + 3 = 0 ——— (1)

∴ The required quadratic equation whose roots are \(\frac{1}{\alpha}, \frac{1}{\beta}\) is
x² – (sum of the roots)x + product of the roots = 0

Question 4.
If one root of k (x – 1)² = 5x – 7 is double the other root, show that k = 2 or – 25
Answer:
The given quadratic equation is
k(x – 1)² = 5x – 7
k(x² – 2x + 1) – 5x + 7 = 0
kx² – 2kx + k – 5x + 7 = 0
kx² – (2k + 5)x + k + 7 = 0 ———- (1)
Let the roots be α and 2α
Sum of the roots α + 2α = –\(\frac{b}{a}\)

Product of te roots α(2α) = \(\frac{c}{a}\)

Using equation (2) and (3) we have

2(4k² + 20k + 25) = 9k(k + 7)
8k² + 40k + 50 = 9k² + 63k
9k² + 63k – 8k² – 40k – 50 = 0
k² + 23k – 50 = 0
k² + 25k – 2k – 50 = 0
k(k + 25) – 2(k + 25) = 0
(k – 2) (k + 25) = 0
k – 2 = 0 or k + 25 = 0
k = 2 or k = – 25

Question 5.
If the difference of the roots of the equation 2x² – (a + 1)x + a – 1 = 0 is equal to their product then prove that a = 2.
Answer:
The given quadratic equation is
2x² – (a + 1) x + a – 1 = 0 ———– (1)
Let α and β be the roots of the given equation
Given that α – β = αβ —— (2)
Sum of the roots α + β = – \(\frac{b}{a}\)


Substituting the values of α and β in equation (2)

2(a – 1) = a
2a – 2 – a = 0
a – 2 = 0
⇒ a = 2

Question 6.
Find the condition that one of the roots of ax² + bx + c may be
(a) negative of the other
(b) thrice the other
(c) reciprocal of the other.
Answer:
The given quadratic equation is
ax² + bx + c = 0 ——- (1)
Let α and β be the roots of the equation (1) then
Sum of the roots α + β = ——- (2)
Product of the roots αβ = ——- (3)

(a) Given one root is the negative of the other
β = – α
(2) ⇒ α + (-α) = – \(\frac{b}{a}\)
0 = – \(\frac{b}{a}\)
⇒ b = 0
(3) ⇒ α(-α) = \(\frac{c}{a}\)
– α² = \(\frac{c}{a}\)
Hence the required condition is b = 0

(b) Given that one root is thrice the other
β = 3α

When is the required condition?

(c) One root is reciprocal of the other

When is the required condition?

Question 7.
If the equations x² – ax + b = 0 and x² – ex + f = 0 have one root in common and if the second equation has equal roots then prove that ae = 2(b + f).
Answer:
The given quadratic equations are
x² – ax + b = 0 ———- (1)
x² – ex + f = 0 ——— (2)
Let α be the common root of the given quadratic equations (1) and (2)
Let α, β be the roots of x² – ax + b = 0
Sum of the roots α + β = \(-\left(-\frac{a}{1}\right)\)
α + β = a ———- (3)
Product of the roots αβ = \(\frac{b}{1}\)
αβ = b ——– (4)
Given that the second equation has equal roots.
∴ The roots of the second equation are a, a
Sum of the roots α + α = \(-\left(-\frac{e}{1}\right)\)
2α = e ——— (5)
Product of the roots α.α = \(\frac{f}{1}\)
α² = f ———- (6)
ae = (α + β)2α (Multiplying equations (3) and (5))
ae = 2α2 + 2αβ
ae= 2 (f) + 2b From equations (4) and (6)
ae= 2(f + b) Hence proved.

Question 8.
Discuss the nature of roots of
(i) – x² + 3x + 1 = 0
(ii) 4x² – x – 2 = 0
(iii) 9x² + 5x = 0.
Answer:
(i) -x² + 3x + 1 = 0
⇒ comparing with ax² + bx + c = 0
∆ = b² – 4ac = (3)² – 4(1)(-1) = 9 + 4 = 13 > 0
⇒ The roots are real and distinct

(ii) 4x² – x – 2 = 0
a = 4, b = -1, c = -2
∆ = b² – 4ac = (-1)² – 4(4)(-2) = 1 + 32 = 33 >0
⇒ The roots are real and distinct

(iii) 9x² + 5x = 0
a = 9, b = 5, c = 0
∆ = b² – 4ac = 5² – 4(9)(0) = 25 > 0
⇒ The roots are real and distinct

Question 9.
Without sketching the graphs, find whether the graphs of the following functions will intersect the x-axis and if so in how many points.
(i) y = x² + x + 2
(ii) y = x² – 3x – 7
(iii) y = x² + 6x + 9
Answer:
(i) y = x² + x + 2
y = x² + x + 2 ——— (1)
Compare this equation with the equation
ax² + bx + c = 0
we have a = 1 , b = 1, c = 2
b² – 4ac = 1² – 4 × 1 × 2 = 1 – 8
b² – 4ac = – 7 < 0
Since the discriminant is negative the quadratic equation has no real roots and therfore the graph does not meet x-axis.

(ii) y = x² – 3x – 7
y = x² – 3x – 7 ——— (2)
Compare this equation with the equation ax² + bx + c = 0
we have a = 1 , b = – 3 , c = – 1
b² – 4ac = (-3)² – 4(1)(-1)
= 9 + 4
b² – 4ac = 13 > 0
Since the discriminant is positive the quadratic equation has real and distinct roots and therefore the graph intersect the x – axis at two different points,

(iii) y = x² + 6x + 9
y = x² + 6x + 9 ——— (3)
Compare this equation with the equation
ax² + bx + c = 0
we have a = 1 , b = 6, c = 9
b² – 4ac = 6² – 4 × 1 × 9
= 36 – 36 =0
Since the discriminant is zero the quadratic equation has real and equal roots and therefore the graph touches the x-axis at one point.

Question 10.
Write f(x) = x² + 5x + 4 in completed square form.
Answer:
The given quadratic equation is
f(x) = x² + 5x + 4
Let y = x² + 5x + 4
y – 4 = x² + 5x

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Poem 3 Social Responsibility Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th English Solutions Term 3 Poem 3 Social Responsibility

5th English Guide Social Responsibility Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
When does the world become green?
Answer:
The world becomes green when we keep our surroundings clean.

Question 2.
Who is responsible for society?
Answer:
Everyone is responsible for society.

Question 3.
When do you feel proud?
Answer:
I feel proud when I keep the surroundings clean, putting the litter in a trash can.

Question 4.
What should we vow for?
Answer:
We should vow to do social welfare.

Question 5.
Are you the first to protect nature?
Answer:
Yes.

B. Pick out the rhyming words and write:

Question 1.

Answer:

Let Us Know:

Past Perfect Tense (கடந்தகால வினைமுற்று):

The past perfect tense is used to show that something happened before another action in the past.
கடந்த காலத்தில் ஒரு செயலுக்கு முன்பே இன்னொரு செயல் நடந்து முடிந்து விட்டதை குறிப்பது கடந்தகால வினைமுற்று ஆகும். It can also be used to show that something happened before a specific time in the past.

We know the forms of the verbs, they are:

The past participle form is used in past perfect tense with auxiliary had.

A. Fill in the blanks:

Example:
I had given him the book.

Question 1.
We ______ to the park. (go)
Answer:
We had gone to the park.

Question 2.
You ______ to your uncle’s house. (be)
Answer:
You had been to your uncle’s house.

Question 3.
He ______ before 5 ‘o’ clock. (sleep).
Answer:
He had slept before 5 ‘o’clock.

Question 4.
She ______ the bill. (pay)
Answer:
She had paid the bill.

Question 5.
They ______ him before the party. (meet)
Answer:
They had met him before the party.

Question 6.
It ______ before I touch it. (break)
Answer:
It had broken before I touched it.

Let us see when to use past perfect tense:
Event happened before another in the past:

B. Complete the following sentences using past perfect tense:

Question 1.
The bus _____ the bus stop before I went. (leave)
Answer:
The bus had left the bus stop before I went.

Question 2.
The exam _____ when I reached the exam hall. (start)
Answer:
The exam had started when I reached the exam hall.

Question 3.
She _____ the apple as I told her to stop. (eat)
Answer:
She had eaten the apple as I told her to stop.

Question 4.
The satellite ______ on the moon before they gave the command. (land)
Answer:
The satellite had landed on the moon before they gave the command.

Question 5.
Raju ______ to the ground before others arrived. (arrive)
Answer:
Raju had arrived to the ground before others arrived. (arrive)

Future Perfect Tense (எதிர்கால வினைமுற்று):

Future perfect tense is used for actions that will be completed before some other point in the future.
எதிர்காலத்தில் ஒரு செயலை முடிப்பதற்கு முன்னால், இன்னொரு செயலை செய்து முடிக்கப்போவதை குறிப்பது எதிர்கால வினைமுற்று ஆகும்.

The past participle form is used in future perfect tense with auxiliary will have. Come let us use it:

A. Fill in the blanks using future perfect tense:

Example :
I will have reached the place by 6 pm.

Question 1.
We ______ the painting by tomorrow. (complete)
Answer:
We will have completed the painting by tomorrow.

Question 2.
You ______ the match by this time tomorrow. (win)
Answer:
You will have won the match by this time tomorrow.

Question 3.
They ______ everyone to the marriage by next week. (invite)
Answer:
They will have invited everyone to the marriage by next week.

Question 4.
He ______ all the money within an hour. (spend)
Answer:
He will have spent all the money within an hour.

Question 5.
She ______ job in America by next year. (get)
Answer:
She will have got job in America by next year.

Question 6.
It ______ all the candies. (eat)
Answer:
It will have eaten all the candies.

B. Mark (✓) if it is past perfect tense or (x) Future perfect tense:

Question 1.
I had gone to my grandma’s home.
Answer:
(✓) Past perfect

Question 2.
The boy will have grown up like a man in a few years.
Answer:
(X) Future perfect

Question 3.
She will have made the cake by 8 ‘o’clock.
Answer:
(X) Future perfect

Question 4.
They had cooked the vegetables.
Answer:
(✓) Past perfect

Question 5.
Muthu will have returned from Srilanka by next month.
Answer:
(X) Future perfect.

C. Change the sentence into past perfect tense and future perfect tense:

Question 1.
I have posted the letter.
Answer:
Past perfect: I had posted the letter.
Future perfect: I will have posted the letter.

Question 2.
She has bought a violin.
Answer:
Past perfect: She had bought a violin.
Future perfect: She will have bought a violin.

Question 3.
Akash has jumped into the well.
Answer:
Past perfect: Akash had jumped into the well.
Future perfect: Akash will have jumped into the well.

Question 4.
We have built a house in our village.
Answer:
Past perfect: We had built a house in our village.
Future perfect: we will have built a house in our village.

Question 5.
They have cooked their meal.
Answer:
Past perfect: They had cooked the meal.
Future perfect: They will have cooked the meal.

D. Fill the sentences with the appropriate Auxilliary:
(had), (will have)

Question 1.
Maha ______ asked a question to his father.
Answer:
Maha had asked a question to his father.

Question 2.
She ______ attended the meeting by tomorrow.
Answer:
She will have attended the meeting by tomorrow.

Question 3.
The fly ______ sat in the food before she covered it.
Answer:
The fly had sat in the food before she covered it.

Question 4.
Niru ______ joined her family in 2 years.
Answer:
Niru will have joined her family in 2 years.

Question 5.
The book ______ won him the award.
Answer:
The book had won him the award.

Let us listen:

Listen to the audio and tick (✓) if the statements are true:

Question 1.
Chennai is the fourth largest city in India to receive more rain.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The airport is not closed.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
People were not able to get their food.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The power supply in many areas is normal.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
It rained because of a depression in Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
True

Let us speak:

Storry Telling:

The following steps are involved in Story-telling:
Step 1: Choose the story you want to tell.
Step 2: Tell the place where the story is happening.
Step 3: Tell who the characters are.
Step 4: Tell three events that lead to the end of the story.
Step 5: End the story.

Example:
The Ant and the Grasshopper:

In a deep forest near the mountains, lived an ant and a grasshopper. The ant worked hard in the summer and saved food for the winter. The grasshopper played in the Sun without collecting food. The grasshopper always called the ant to play, but the ant wanted to save food for winter. It was now winter, the ant had food to eat but the grasshopper did not. We should work hard and save.

Try to tell your friend a story on your own.

5th English Guide Social Responsibility Additional Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following:

Question 1.
List any four social responsibility given in the poem.
Answer:

1. Keep your surroundings clean.
2. Save electricity and do not waste.
3. Put the litter in the trash can.
4. Take care of nature.

II. Story telling:

Title: Wise King Solomon

King Solomon was known for his wisdom. Queen Sheeba wanted to test his wisdom. She took two identical flower garlands to Solomon. One was real and the other a paper garland. She asked the king to identify the real one. Solomon asked to open the windows. Soon a swarm of bees settled on the real garland. Solomon handed the real garland to Sheeba and she was happy.

Social responsibility Summary in English and Tamil

Our world becomes green,
When you keep the surroundings clean.
All of us are responsible for our society,
To take care of it is our duty.
Be proud of yourself as a human,
When you put the litter in a trash can.
Reduce the use of electricity by will,
And help the Earth grow without any
All should vow to do social welfare,
I will start with nature’s care.

நம் உலகம் பச்சை பசேல் என மாறுகிறது,
சுற்றுப்புறத்தை நீங்கள் சுத்தமாக வைத்திருக்கும்
போது நமது சமுதாயத்திற்கு நாம் அனைவரும் பொறுப்பானவர்கள்
அதை கவனித்துக் கொள்வது நமது கடமை.
ஒரு மனிதர் என்பதற்காக உங்களைப் பற்றி பெருமிதம் கொள்ளுங்கள்,
நீங்கள் குப்பையை அதற்கான குப்பைத்தொட்டியில் போடும் போது.
மின்சார பயன்பாட்டை ஓர் உறுதியுடன்,
குறையுங்கள் எந்த பாதிப்பும் இல்லாமல் இந்த பூமி வளர.
உதவுங்கள் சமூக நலனுக்கு ஏதேனும் செய்ய அனைவரும் உறுதிமொழி எடுப்போம்,
இயற்கையை பாதுகாத்து பராமரிப்பதுடன் நான் தொடங்குவேன்.

Social responsibility Glossary:

Litter – Waste (குப்பை)
Proud – Glad (பெருமிதம், மகிழ்ச்சி)
Reduce – Make something less (குறைத்தல்)
Responsible – In charge of (பொறுப்பு)
Society – Community (சமுதாயம்)
Trash can – Dust bin (குப்பைத் தொட்டி)
Vow – Pledge, promise (உறுதி மொழி)
Welfare – Comfort and security (பொதுநலன்)
Will – Determination (உறுதி)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 2 Chapter 1 Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 2 Chapter 1 Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms

7th Social Science Guide Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who was the greatest ruler of Sangama Dynasty?
a) Bukka
b) Devaraya II
c) Harihara II
d) Krishna Devaraya
Answer:
b). Devaraya II

Question 2.
Which was the most common animal depicted on the pillars of Vijayanagara style?
a) Elephant
b) Horse
c) Cow
d) Deer
Answer:
b) Hors

Question 3.
Who was the last ruler of the Sangama Dynasty?
a) Rama Raya
b) Tirumaladeva Raya
c) Devaraya II
d) Virupaksha Raya II
Answer
d) Virupaksha Raya II

Question 4.
Who ended the Sultanate in Madurai?
a) Saluva Narasimha
b) Devaraya II
c) Kumara Kampana
d) Tirumaladeva Raya
Answer:
c) Kumara Kampana

Question 5.
Name the Bahmani King who was a linguist and a poet.
a) Ala-ud-din Hasan Shah
b) Muhammad I
c) Sultan Firoz
d) Mujahid
Answer:
c) Sultan Firoz

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………..was the capital of the Aravidu dynasty.
Answer:
Penukonda

2. Vijayanagar emperor’s issued a large number of gold coins called …………………….
Answer:
Varaha’s

3. Mahmud Gawan used …………………. chemists to teach the preparation and use of gunpowder.
Answer:
Persian

4. In Vijayanagara administration ……………… looked after the affairs of villages.
Answer:
Gauda

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV.Match the statement with the reason. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Vijayanagar army was considered one of the feared armies in India.
Reason (R) : Vijayanagar armies used both firearms and cavalry.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Find out the wrong pair
a) Silk – China
b)Spices – Arabia
c) Precious stone – Burma
d)Madurai Vijayam – Gangadevi
Answer:
b) Spices – Arabia

Question 3.
Find the odd one out
Harihara II, Muhammad I, Krishnadeva Raya, Devaraya I.
Answer:

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which is/are correct
I) Turquoise throne is one of the bejeweled royal seats of Persian kings described in Firdausi’s Shah Nama.
II) The fertile regions between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra and Krishna-Godavari delta were the zones of conflict among the rulers of Vijayanagar, and Bahmani.
III) Muhammad I was educated at Multan.
IV) Mahmud Gawan served with great distinction as the Prime Minister under Muhammad III.
a) i), ii) are correct
b) i), ii), iii) are correct
c) ii), iii), iv) are correct
d) iii), iv) are correct
Answer:
i), ii) are correct

V.True or False:

Question 1.
Harihara and Bukka were the founders of the Bahmani kingdom.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Krishnadeva Raya, who reigned for 20 years, was the most illustrious ruler of the Sangama dynasty.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Alasani Peddana was the greatest of all Astadiggajas.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Kingship of Vijayanagar administration was hereditary, based on the principle of primogeniture.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
There were 18 monarchs of the Bahmani dynasty.
Answer:
True

VI.Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
The four dynasties of the Vijayanagara kingdom with reference to prominent rulers of each dynasty.
Answer:
Four dynasties of the Vijayanagara kingdom and its prominent rulers are:

1. Sangama Dynasty – Devaraya II
2. Saluva Dynasty – Saluva Narasimha
3. Tuluva Dynasty – Krishnadevaraya
4. Aravidu Dynasty – Tirumaladeva

Question 2.
Battle of Talikota.
Answer:

• The Sultans of Deccan kingdoms forming a league to fight against the Vijayanagar Empire.
• The battle is known as ‘Rakasa Tangadi’ or ‘Battle of Talikota’.
• They fought at Talikota in 1565 A.D. Vijayanagar was defeated.
• All the buildings, Palaces and temples were destroyed in the capital city Hampi.

Question 3.
The structure of governance in the Vijayanagar kingdom.
Answer:

• The Vijayanagar empire was divided into different mandalams, nadus, sthalas and gramas.
• Each province was administered by Mandalesvara.
• Each village had a grama sabha. Gauda, village headman, looked after the affairs of the village.
• They maintained the army consisted of the infantry, cavalry with a firearm, and elephant corps.

Question 4.
The five independent kingdoms of Deccan Sultanate.
Answer:
The five independent kingdoms of Deccan were Bidar, Bijapur, Ahmednagar, Berar and Golconda.

Question 5.
The educational reforms of Ala-ud-din Hasan Shah.
Answer:

• Hasan Shah took special care in founding a school to educate his sons.
• He opened institutions for the children of noble families in the art of soldiery.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Discuss the career and achievements of Krishna Devaraya.
Answer:
(i) Krishnadevaraya who reigned for 20 years was the most illustrious ruler of the Tuluva dynasty.

(ii) He brought under control the independent chieftains in the Tungabhadra river basin.

(iii) The Bahmani sultan, Mahmud Shah, had been overthrown and kept in imprisonment by his minister. Krishnadevaraya freed the sultan and restored him to the throne. Prataparudra negotiated for peace and offered to marry off his daughter to him.

(iv) Accepting the offer, Krishnadevaraya returned the territory he had conquered from Prataparudra.

(v) Krishnadevaraya, with the assistance of the Portuguese gunners, could easily defeat the Sultan of Golconda and subsequently take over Raichur from the ruler of Bijapur.

A Great Builder:

(i) Krishnadevaraya built huge irrigation tanks and reservoirs for harvesting rainwater.

(ii) He built the famous temples of Krishnaswamy, Hazara Ramaswamy and Vithalaswamy in the capital city of Hampi.

(iii) He distributed the wealth he gained in wars to all major temples of South India for the purpose of constructing temple gateways (gopura), called ‘Rayagopuram,’ in his honour.

(iv) He had good friendly relationship with the Portuguese and Arabian traders, which increased the Empire’s income through customs.

Patron of Literature, Art and Architecture:
Krishnadevaraya patronised art and literature. Eight eminent luminaries in literature known as astadiggajas adorned his court.

VIII. HOTs:

Question 1.
Discuss the causes for the decline of the Vijayanagar rule. To what extent the Bahmani sultans contributed to it?
Answer:

• After Krishna Devaraya, the rulers were inefficient in the Vijayanagar empire. Making use of the situation the commanders declared independence.
• There were frequent wars between Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdom which made the country economically weak.
• Finally, the sultans of Deccan Kingdoms formed a league against Vijayanagar. The combined forces of the enemies defeated Vijayanagar in the Battle of Talikota in 1565 A.D.
• These sultans destroyed the buildings, palaces, temples and the capital city of Hampi.

X. Answer Grid:

1. Name the kingdom ruled by 18 monarchs which lasted for nearly 180 years.
Answer:
Bahmani Kingdom

2. Name the Bahmani Sultan who was restored to the throne by Krishna Devaraya?
Answer:
Mahmud Shah

3. Name the book written by Krishna Devaraya in Sanskrit.
Answer:
Jambavati Kaiyanam

4. Where did Hasan Bahman Shah shift his capital.
Answer:
Gulbarga

7th Social Science Guide Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The repressive measures of which Muslim king led to the rise of newly independent states?
a) Balban
b) Ala – ud – din Khilji
c) Muhammed – bin – Tughlaq
d) Firoz Tuglagq
Answer:
c) Muhammed – bin – Tughlaq

Question 2.
Battle of TaliKota was fought in the year.
a) 1550
b) 1555
c) 1560
d) 1565
Answer:
d) 1565

Question 3.
The poem Madura Vijayam composed by
a) Kumara Kampana
b) Ganga Devi
c) Ibn Battuta
d) Abdur Razzaq
Answer:
b) Ganga Devi

Question 4.
The Eight Eminent Luminaries in Literature were known as
a) Ashoka Pradhan
b) Navaratnas
c) Anju Vannathar
d) Astadiggajas
Answer:
d) Astadiggajas

Question 5.
A Persian emissary who visited the court of Krishna Devaraya was
a) Wassuf
b) Marcopolo
c) IbnBattuta
d) Abdur Razzaq
Answer:
d) Abdur Razzaq

Question 6.
Who wrote a Telugu epic Amuktamalyada
a) Krishna Devaraya
b) Tenali Ramakrishna
c) Allasani Pethana
d) Tukkanna
Answer:
a) Krishna Devaraya

Question 7.
The Bahmani Kingdom was established in the year …………………………
a) 1327
b) 1337
c) 1347
d) 1350
Answer:
c) 1347

Question 8.
The territorial divisions of Bhamani Kingdom was …………………………
a) District
b) City
c) Tarafs
d) Capital
Answer:
Tarafs

Question 9.
Wasir – i – ashraf was the minister of in the Bahmani Kingdom
a) Finance
b) Deputy finance
c) Foreign affairs
d) Police affairs
Answer:
c) Foreign affairs

Question 10.
The eighth Bahmani king was……………………….
a) Mahmud bavan
b) Muhammad
c) Zahan khan
d) Sultan firoz
Answer:
d) sultan firoz

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In South India, ……….. and ………… are the two great kingdoms.
Answer:
Vijayanagar, Bahmani

2. Vijayanagar means ………….
Answer:
the city of victory

3. ……………., head of Saivite Sringeri mutt instructed to establish the Vijayanagar kingdom.
Answer:
Vidyaranya

4. The Vijayanagar ruler who recruited Muslim fighters in their army was ……………
Answer:
Devaraya II

5. Saluva Dynasty was founded by …………………
Answer:
Saluva Narasimha

6. Tuluva Dynasty was founded by …………………
Answer:
Naras Nayaka

7. Krishna deva Raya, with the assistance of the ……………….. easily defeated the Sultan of Golconda.
Answer:
Portuguese gunners

8. Rayagopuram were built by …………….
Answer:
Krishna Devaraya

9. The notable in Krishnadevaraya Patron was ………………….
Answer:
Tenali Ramakrishna

10. Battle of Talikota also known as ……………………
Answer:
Rakasa Tangadi

11. Krishna Devaraya was succeeded by …………………….
Answer:
Achtyuda Deva Raya

12. Vijayanagar Empire collapsed in the year ……………………
Answer:
1646

13. Vijayanagar Provinces were administered by …………………
Answer:
Mandalesvara

14. The new style of temple building temple was introduced by Vijayanagar rulers is called …………………..
Answer:
Vijayanagara style

15. ………………contributed extensively to the development of the bhamani kingdom
Answer:
Mahamud Gawan

III. Match the following:

Answer:

lV. Match the statement with the reason. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Several foreign nobles of the state to leave for their Provinces.
Reason (R) : Gawan was executed.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of

Question 2.
Find the odd one out
a) Muhammad -1
b) Mujahid
c) Gawan
d) Shihab – ud – din Mahmud
Answer:
c) Gawan

V. State true or false:

Question 1.
Vijayanagar temple architecture belonged to the Dravidian style of Architecture
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The Capturing fertile regions between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra was the major cause for the wars between Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdom
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The Delhi Sultanate was gradually broken up into six independent Deccan Kingdoms
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Amir – i – Jumla was the finance minister of the Bahmani Kingdom.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is Astadiggajas?
Answer:

• Astadiggajas were the eight eminent luminaries in literature adorned in the court of Krishnadevaraya
• Alasani Peddana and Tenali Ramakrishnan were the notable persons in Astadiggajas.

Question 2.
What are countries did Vijayanagar had trade contact?
Answer:
Vijayanagar traded with Persia, South Africa, Portugal, Arabia, China, Burma, South East Asia, and Sri Lanka.

Question 3.
Who were the important scholars in Vijayanagar Empire?
Answer:
Srinatha, Pothana, Jakkama, Duggana, Tenali Ramakrishna and Allasani Peddana were important scholars in the Vijayanagar Empire.

Question 4.
What is Turquoise?
Answer:

• Turquoise is a semi-precious stone sky blue in colour.
• It is one of the bejewelled royal seats of Persian kings described in Firdausi’s Shah Nama.

Question 5.
What is the Special feature of Golconda fort?
Answer:

• The Golconda Fort is located about 11 kilometers from Hyderabad.
• The fort is popular for its acoustic architecture.
• The highest point of the fort is Bala Hissar.
• There is a secret underground tunnel, which leads from the Durbar Hall to one of the palaces at the foot of the hills.

VII. Answer in detail:
Question 1.
Describe the eight ministers of the Bahmani state.
Eight ministers of the Bahmani state:
Answer:

1.  Vakil-us-saltana – Lieutenant of the Kingdom.
2.  Peshwa – He was associated with the lieutenant.
3.  Waziri – kull-He supervised the work of all other ministers.
4.  Amir-i-jumla – Minister for finance.
5.  Nazir – Assistant minister for finance.
6.  Wasir-i-ashraf – Minister of foreign affairs.
7.  Kotwal – Chief of police and city magistrate.
8. Sadr-i-jahan – Chief justice and minister of religious affairs and endowments.

Question 2.
Explain the life and achievements of Mahmud Gawan.
Answer:
Life of Mahmud Gawan:

• Mahmud Gawan was a Persian and prime minister of Muhammad HI, the sultan of Bahmani Kingdom.
• He well versed in Islamic theory, Persian, and mathematics.
• He was also a poet and a prose writer.

Achievements:

• Gawan was known for his military campaigns as well as administrative reforms.
• He used gun powder in the battle against the Vijayanagar kings in Belgaum.
• To control the provincial governors. Gawan divided the four provinces of the Sultanate into eight provinces.
• The administrative reforms introduced by Gawan improved the efficiency of the Government.