TN Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 1.
What is abstraction?
Answer:
The process of providing only the essentials and hiding the details is known as abstraction.

Question 2.
What is Data Abstraction? Give examples.
Answer:
Data Abstraction is a powerful concept in computer science that allows programmers to treat code as objects.
Eg: Car, pencil, people are objects.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 3.
What is wishful thinking?
Answer:
Wishful thinking is the formation of beliefs and making decisions according to what might be pleasing to imagine instead of by appealing to reality.

Question 4.
What is a main difference between table and list?
Answer:
The main difference between table and list is that you cannot change the elements of a table once it is assigned, whereas in a list elements can be changed.

Question 5.
How will you support Data abstraction by defining an abstract data type?
Answer:

  1. Data abstraction is supported by defining an abstract datat type (ADT), which is a collection of constructors and selectors.
  2. Constructors create an object, bundling together different pieces of information, while selectors extract individual pieces of information from the object.
  3. The basic idea of data abstraction is to structure programs so that they operate on abstract data.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 6.
Write a example for Representation of Tuple as a pair.
Answer:
Representation of Tuple as a pair
num : = (1 ,2)
nums [0]
1
nums [1]
2
Here, the square bracket notation is used to access the data you stored in the pair.
The data is zero indexed, access the first element with nums [0] and the secondelement with nums [1].

Question 7.
Write a pseudo code in the following list to represent student as class.
Answer:
student – [‘Selvan’, ‘Kumar’, ‘100012345’, ‘[email protected]’]
code:
class student:
creation ( )
first Name: = “ ”
last Name : = “ ”
Id: = “ ” .
email

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 8.
Explain the Representing Rational numbers using List? Give example.
Answer:
The rational number as a pair of two integers in pseudo code that is a numerator and a denominator.
Anyway of bundling two values together into one can be considered as a pair.
List are a common method to do so. Therefore List can be called as Pairs.
Eg: rational (n,d):
return [n,d]
return (x):
return x[o]
denom (x):
return x[1]

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 9.
What is abstract data type?
Answer:
(i) Abstract Data Type (ADT) is a type for objects whose behavior is defined by a set of value and a set of operations.
(ii) Abstraction provides splitting a program into many modules.

Question 10.
Differentiate constructors and selectors.
Answer:

Constructors

 Beleetprs

Constructors are function that build the abstract data type Selectors are functions that retrieve information from the data type.
Eg: city = make city (name, lat, Ion). Where, city is called an abstract data type. Eg: get name (city) getlat (city)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 11.
What is a Pair?
Give an example.
Answer:
Bundling two values together into one can be considered as a pair.
Eg: 1st: =5 [10, 20]

Question 12.
What is a List? Give an example.
Answer:
List is constructed by placing expressions within square brackets separated by commas,
Eg: 1st: – [10, 20]

Question 13.
What is a Tuple? Give an example.
Answer:
Python language provides a compound Structure called pair which is made up of list or tuple.
Eg: colour = (‘red’, ‘blue’, ‘green’)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 14.
Differentiate Concrete data type and abstract datatype.
Answer:

Concrete datatype

 Abstract data type

A concrete data type is a data type whose representation is known. In abstract data type the representation of a data type is unknown.
A concrete data type representation is defined. The basic idea of data abstraction is Structured programs.
It is an independent part of the program. Our programs should use data in such a way, as’ to make a few assumptions about the data as possible.

Question 15.
Which strategy is used for program designing? Define that Strategy.
Answer:
We are using a powerful strategy for designing programs ‘Wishful thinking’.
Wishful Thinking is the formation of beliefs and making decisions according to what might be pleasing to imagine instead of by appealing to reality.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 16.
Identify Which of the following are constructors and selectors?
Answer:
(a) N1=number( )
Constructors
(b) accetnum(n1)
Selectors
(c) dispiaynum(n1)
Selectors
(d) eval(a/b)
Selectors
(e) x,y= makeslope (m) makeslope(n) Constructors
(f) display( )
Selectors

Question 17.
What are the different ways to access the elements of a list? Give example.
Answer:
(i) There are two different ways to access the elements of a list.
(ii) The first way is multiple assignment, which unpacks a list into its elements and binds each element to a different name.
Eg: lst:= [10,20]
x,y:= 1st
(iii) The second method for accessing the elements in a list is by the element selection operator, with square brackets. Eg: 1st [0].

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 18.
Identify Which of the following are List, Tuple and class ?
Answer:
(a) arr [1, 2, 34]
List
(b) arr (1,2, 34)
Tuple
(c) student [mo, name, mark] class
(d) day= (‘sun’, ‘mon’, ‘tue’, ‘wed’)
Tuple
(e) x= [2, 5, 6.5, [5, 6], 8.2]
List
(f) employee [eno, ename, esal, eaddress]
class

Question 19.
How will you facilitate data abstraction. Explain it with suitable example.
Answer:
(i) To facilitate data abstraction, you will need to create two types of functions: Constructors and Selectors.
(ii) Constructors are functions that build the abstract data type.
(iii) For example city= make city (name, lat, Ion)
(iv) Selectors are functions that retrieve information from the data type.
(v)get name (city), get lat (city), get Ion (city) are the selectors, because these functions extract information of this city object.
(vi) Constructors create an object, bundling together different pieces of information.
(vii) Selectors extract individual pieces of information from the object.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 20.
What is a List? Why List can be called as Pairs. Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
(i) List is constructed by placing expressions within square brackets separated- by comma.
(ii) Any way of bundling two values together into one can be considered as a pair.
(iii) List are a common method to do so. Therefore list can be called as pairs.
Eg: for list 1st: = [10,20] x, y: = 1st
Here x will become 10 and y will become 20.
(iv) Example for pair
1st [(0, 10), (1, 20)], Here 0 is a index position and 10 is a value.
1 is a index position and 20 is a value.
(v) List can store multiple values! Each value can be of any type and can even be another list.

Question 21.
How will you access the multi-item? Explain with example.
Answer:
(i) Multi-item means a multiple-item object where each item is a named thing.
Eg: class person:
creation ( )
Name: = “ ”
ID: – “ ”
email: = “”

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which is a poweful concept in Computer science that allows programmers to treat code as objects?
(a) Data abstraction
(b) Memory
(c) Mapping
(d)Accessibility
Answer:
(a) Data abstraction

Question 2.
Match the following:

(i) Constructors(A) Comma – separated
(ii) Selectors(B) Square brackets
(iii) List(C) Extract individual
(iv)Tuple(D) Bundling together

(a) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C
(b) (i) – D (ii) – C, (iii) – B, (iv) – A
(c) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A
(d) (i) – B, (ii) – D, (iii) – A, (iv) – C
Answer:
(b) (i) – D (ii) – C, (iii) – B, (iv) – A

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 3.
Match the following:

(i) Compound structure(A) Pair
(ii) Bundling two values(B) Functions
(iiii) Multi – item object(C) Pair
(iv) Constructors(D) Classes

(a) (i) – A, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – B
(b) (i) – A (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – C
(c) (i) – D, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – A
(d) (i) – D, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – B
Answer:
(a) (i) – A, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – B

Question 4.
Assertion (A):
The basic idea of data abstraction is to structure program.
Reason (R):
Abstract Data Type is a type for objects whose behaviour is defined by a set of value and a set of operations.
(a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is True, but R is False.
(d) A is False, but R is True.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation for A.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 5.
Choose the incorrect Pair:
(a) ADT – Abstract Data Type
(b) Classes – Structures
(c) Abstraction – Modularity
(d) List – Immutable
Answer:
(d) List – Immutable

Question 6.
Choose the correct Pair:
(a) Constructors – Retrieve data
(b) Selectors – Build the data
(c) Pair – Compound structure
(d) Classes – Single-item object
Answer:
(c) Pair – Compound structure

Question 7.
Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) Python provides a compound structure called Pair.
(b) A tuple is a semicolon(;) separated sequence of values surrounded with Parantheses.
(c) List is constructed by placing expressions within square brackets.
(d) The elements of a list can be accessed in two ways.
Answer:
(b) A tuple is a semicolon(;) separated sequence of values surrounded with Parantheses.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 8.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) The class construct defines the form for multi-part objects that represent a Person
(b) Constructor? are functions that build the concrete data type.
(c) Selectors are functions that build the data.
(d) ADT (Abstract Data Type) does specify how data will be organised in Memory.
Answer:
(a) The class construct defines the form for multi-part objects that represent a Person

Question 9.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) List
(b) Constructor
(c) Pair
(d) Tuple
Answer:
(b) Constructor

Question 10.
Expand ADT:
(a) Abstract Data Type
(b) Add Data Type
(c) Application,Data Type
(d) Absolute Data Type
Answer:
(a) Abstract Data Type

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 11.
Which of the following provides modularity?
(a) Function
(b) Class
(c) Object
(d) Variable
Answer:
(c) Object

Question 12.
Which of the following are functions that build the abstract data type?
(a) Function
(b) Selectors
(c) Constructors
(d) Destructors
Answer:
(c) Constructors

Question 13.
Which of the following extract the information of the object?
(a) Function
(b) Selectors
(c) Constructors
(d) Destructors
Answer:
(b) Selectors

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 14.
Which data representation, a definition for each function is known?
(a) Concrete
(b) Abstract
(c) User defined
(d) Built in
Answer:
(a) Concrete

Question 15.
Which is contracted by placing expressions within square brackets separated by comma?
(a) Tuple
(b) List
(c) Dictionary
(d) Set
Answer:
(b) List

Question 16.
List can be called as:
(a) Tuple
(b) List
(c) Set
(d) Pairs
Answer:
(d) Pairs

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 17.
Which of the following representation for Abstract Data Types?
(a) Classes
(b) Tuples
(c) Lists
(d) Pairs
Answer:
(a) Classes

Question 18.
Which data representation is defined as an independent part of the program?
(a) Abstract
(b) Concrete
(c) Tuple
(d) List
Answer:
(b) Concrete

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 19.
Which of the following is a comma separated values surrounded with parentheses?
(a) List
(b) Dictionary
(c) Set
(d) Tuple
Answer:
(d) Tuple

Question 20.
Which of the following functions that build the abstract data type ?
(a) Constructors
(b) Destructors
(c) Recursive
(d) Nested
Answer:
(a) Constructors

Question 21.
Which of the following functions that retrieve information from the data type?
(a) Constructors
(b) Selectors
(c) Recursive
(d) Nested
Answer:
(b) Selectors

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 22.
The data structure which is a mutable ordered sequence of elements is called:
(a) Built in
(b) List
(c) Tuple
(d) Derived data
Answer:
(b) List

Question 23.
A sequence of immutable objects is called:
(a) Built in
(b) List
(c) Tuple
(d) Derived data
Answer:
(c) Tuple

Question 24.
The data type whose representation is known are called:
(a) Built in datatype
(b) Derived datatype
(c) Concrete datatype
(d) Abstract datatype
Answer:
(c) Concrete datatype

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 25.
Hie data type whose representation is unknown are called:
(a) Built in datatype
(b) Derived datatype
(c) Concrete datatype
(d) Abstract datatype
Answer:
(d) Abstract datatype

Question 26.
Which of the following is a compound structure?
(a) Pair
(b) Triplet
(c) Single
(d) Quadrat
Answer:
(a) Pair

Question 27.
Bundling two values together into one can be considered as:
(a) Pair
(b) Triplet
(c) Single
(d) Quadrat
Answer:
(a) Pair

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Data Abstraction

Question 28.
Which of the following allow to name the various parts of a multi-item object?
(a) Tuples
(b) Lists
(c) Classes
(d) Quadrats
Answer:
(c) Classes

Question 29.
Which of the following is constructed by placing expression? within square brackets?
(a) Tuples
(b) Lists
(c) fel Glasses
(d) Quadrats
Answer:
(b) Lists

TN Board 12th Computer Science Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 1.
What is Nano science?
Answer:
Nano science is the science of objects with typical size 1 to 100 nm.

Question 2.
What is meant by Nano technology?
Answer:
Nano technology is a technology involving the design, production, characterisation and applications of nano structural material.

Question 3.
Name the two important phenomena given by nano properties.
Answer:
(i) Quantum confinement effects.
(ii) Surface effects.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 4.
What is the reason for self cleaning process in lotus leaf?
Answer:
Lotus leaf surface scanning electron micrograph showing the nano structures on the surface of a leaf from a lotus plant. This is the reason for self cleaning process in lotus leaf.

Question 5.
How do you synthesis nano particles?
Answer:
There are two ways of preparing the nanomaterials, top down and bottom up approaches.

Question 6.
What is robotics?
Answer:
Robotics is an integrated study of mechanical engineering, electronic engineering, computer engineering and science.

Question 7.
What are the different types of Robot locomotion?
Answer:
The different types are:

  • Legged locomotion
  • Wheeled locomotion
  • Combination of legged and wheeled locomotion.
  • Tracked slip / skid.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 8.
Write a note on precision medicine.
Answer:
Precision medicine is an emerging approach for disease treatment and prevention that takes into account individual variability in genes, environment and life style for each person.

Question 9.
Name the two important phenomena that govern by nano properties?
Answer:
Quantum confinement effects and surface effects are the two important phenomena that govern nano properties.

Question 10.
What are the specialized methods of preparing the nanomaterials.
Answer:
There are two specialized ways of preparing the nano materials, top down and bottom up
approaches.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 11.
What is the aim of artificial intelligence?
Answer:
The aim of artificial intelligence is to bring in human like behaviour in robots.

Question 12.
What is cosmology?
Answer:
Cosmology is the branch that involves the origin and evolution of the universe. It deals with the formation of stars, galaxy etc.

Question 13.
How biomolecules and drugs delivered to a specific cell is achieved?
Answer:
The adsorbing nature depends on the surface of the nanoparticle. Indeed, it is possible to deliver a drug directly to a specific eell in the body by designing the surface of a nano particle so that it adsorbs specially onto the surface of the target cell.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 14.
Discuss the applications of nano materials in medicine.
Answer:
The applications of nano materials medicine are:

  1. Medical rapid tests
  2. Drug and biomoles delivery system
  3. Agents in cancer therapy
  4. Contrast medium
  5. Active agents
  6. Antimicrobial agents and coating
  7. Prostheses and implants.

Question15.
List out the applications of nano materials in sports.
Answer:

  • Ski wax
  • Antifogging of glasses
  • Antifouling coatings for ships / boats
  • Reinforced tennis rackets and balls

Question 16.
Explain the following with examples.
(i) Top down approach.
(ii) Bottom up approach.
Answer:
(i) Top down approach:
Nano materials are synthesised by breaking down bulk solids into nano sizes, eg: Ball milling, sol-gel,lithography.

(ii) Bottom up approach:
Nano materials are synthesised by assembling the atoms / molecules together. Selectively atoms are added to create structures.
eg: Plasma etching and chemical vapour deposition.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 17.
How virtual reality is used in medical field?
Answer:
Medical virtual reality is effectively used to stop the brain from processing pain and cure soreness in the hospitalized patients. Virtual reality has enhanced surgeries by the use of 3D models by surgeons to plan operations. It helps in the treatment of Autism, memory loss and mental illness.

Question 18.
What are the usage of household and Industrial robots?
Answer:
(i) Household robots are used as vacuum cleaners, floor cleaners, gutter cleaners, lawn mowing, pool cleaning and to open and close doors.
(ii) Industrial robots are used for welding, cutting robotic water j et cutting, robotic laser cutting,; lifting, sorting, bending, manufacturing, assembling packing, transport, handling hazardous materials like nuclear waste, weaponry, laboratory research, mass production of consumer and industrial goods.

Question 19.
What is gravitational waves? Name the sources of gravitational waves.
Answer:
Gravitational waves are the disturbances in the curvature of space-time and it travels with speed of light. Any accelerated mass emits gravitational waves which are very weak. Block holes are the strongest source of gravitational waves.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 20.
Write short notes on smart inhalers.
Answer:
asthma. Smart inhalers are designed with health systems and patients in mind so that they can offer maximum benefit. Smart inhalers use bluetooth technology to detect inhaler use, remind patients when to take their medication and gather data to help guide care.

Question 21.
Mention the applications of nano robots.
Answer:
The size of the nano robots is reduced to microscopic level to perform a task in very small spaces. Nano robots in blood stream to perform small surgical procedures, to fight against bacteria, repairing individual cell in the body. An autonomous DNA robots to combat cancer tumours.

Question 22.
Write down some applications of nano technology in the field of medicine.
Answer:

  1. Drug delivery system.
  2. Active agents
  3. Contrast medium.
  4. Prostheses (an artificial body part) and implant.
  5. Anti microbial agents and coating.
  6. Agents in cancer therapy.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 23.
What is the role of nano technology in construction?
Answer:

  • Thermal insulation and flame retardants.
  • Surface functionalised building materials for wood floors, stone, facades, tiles, roof tiles etc.
  • Facade coating
  • Groove motar.

Question 24.
list out five advantages of Robotics,
Answer:

  1. Robot can work for 24 × 7.
  2. Stronger atid faster than humans.
  3. Robots are significantly used in handling material in chemical industries, in nuclear plants which can lead to health hazards in human.
  4. It is more precise and error free in performing the task.
  5. In warfare, robots can save human lives.

Question 25.
Mention some of recent advancement in medical technology.
Answer:
The recent advancement in medical technology includes.

  1. Artificial organs
  2. Smart inhalers
  3. 3D printing
  4. Robotic surgery
  5. Wireless brain sensors
  6.  Virtual reality

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 26.
What is medical virtual reality?
Answer:
Virtual reality has enhanced surgeries by the use of 3D models by surgeons to plan operations. It is effectively used to stop the brain from processing pain and cure soreness in the hospitalized patients. It helps in the treatment of Autism, memory loss and mental illness.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The method of making nanoparticles by breaking down bulk solids is called:
(a) bottom up approach
(b) top down approach
(c) diagonal approach
(d) cross down approachAnswer:
Answer:
(b) top down approach

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not the natural nanomaterial?
(a) Peacock feather
(b) Lotus leaf surface
(c) A single strand of DNA
(d) Grain of sand
Answer:
(d) Grain of sand

Question 3.
The width of a single strand of DNA is about:
(a) 3 nm
(b) 5 nm
(c) 30 nm
(d) 50 nm
Answer:
(a) 3 nm

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 4.
In nano solid, the particle size is:
(a) less than 1000 nm
(b) less than 100 nm
(c) greater than 100 nm
(d) greater than 1000 nm
Answer:
(b) less than 100 nm

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not synthesized by top down approach?
(a) Plasma etching
(b) Sol-gel
(c) Lithography
(d) Ball milling
Answer:
(a) Plasma etching

Question 6.
Match List I with List II and then select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I List – II
(i) Magnetic fluid (A) Construction
(ii) Catalyst (B) Medicine
(iii) Contrast medium (C) Chemical industry
(iv) Flame retardants (D) Automotive industry

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics 1
Answer:
(a)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 7.
Match List I with List II and then select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I List II
(i) Additives (A) House hold
(ii) Odors Catalyst (B) Chemical industry
(iii) Skin creams (C) Food and drinks
(iv) Switchable adhesives (D) Cosmetics

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics 2

Answer:
(c)

Question 8.
Protons and neutrons comprising the nuan atom, which are made up of:
(a) quarks
(b) mesons
(c) leptons
(d) gluons
Answer:
(a) quarks

Question 9.
The adsorbing nature depends on of the nano particle.
(a) surface
(b) size
(c) nature
(d) bulk counter part
Answer:
(a) surface

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 10.
Which of the following converts energy into movement?
(a) Muscle wires
(b) Sensors
(c) Actuators
(d) Pneumatic air muscles
Answer:
(c) Actuators

Question 11.
Black holes are the strongest source of:
(a) electromagnetic waves
(b) gravitational waves
(c) light waves
(d) heat waves
Answer:
(b) gravitational waves

Assertions cmd Reasons:
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R), mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 12.
Assertion:
Nano science is the science of objects with typical size of 1 to 100 nm.
Reason:
Nano means one-billionth of a metre that is 10-9 m.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 13.
Assertion:
The major concern with nano application is that the nano particles have the dimensions same as that of the biological molecules such as proteins.
Reason:
Nano particles can easily get absorbed into the surface of living organism and they might enter the tissues and fluids of the body.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 14.
Assertion:
Nano particles can cross cell membranes.
Reason:
The adsorbing nature does not depend on the surface of the nano particle.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Recent Developments in Physics

Question 15.
Assertion:
The robots are much cheaper than humans.
Reason:
Robots have no sense of emotion or conscience.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 1.
What are the different types of radio wave propagation?
Answer:
The different types of radio wave propagation are:
(a) ground (surface) wave propagation.
(b) space wave propagation
(c) skywave (ionospheric propagation)

Question 2.
Name the types of communication systems according to the mode of the transmission.
Answer:

  • Analog communication system
  • Digital communication system.

Question 3.
Define modulation.
Answer:
Modulation is the process by which some characteristic, usually amplitude, frequency or phase angle of a high frequency earner wave is varied in accordance with the instantaneous value of the low frequency baseband signal input signal called modulation.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 4.
Write the factors which justify the need of modulating a low frequency signal into high frequencies before transmission.
Answer:
Modulation is needed,
(i) To transmit a low frequency signal to a distant place so that it may not die out in the way itself.
(ii) For protecting the waveform of the signal and
(iii) To keep the height of antenna small.

Question 5.
Whichismoreefficientmodeoftransmission. FM or AM?
Answer:
FM transmission is more efficient because all the transmitted power is useful but in AM transmission most of the power goes waste in transmitting the carrier alone.

Question 6.
Why do we need a higher bandwidth for transmission of music compared to that for commercial telephonic communication?
Answer:
Speech signals contain frequencies between 300 Hz to 3100 Hz. Such signals require a small bandwidth of 2800 Hz for telephonic communication. Audio signals have frequencies between 20 Hz to 20 kHz. So, the transmission of a good music requires a higher bandwidth of about 20 kHz.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 7.
Give one example each of a ‘system’ that uses the (i) Sky wave, (ii) Space wave mode of propagation.
Answer:
(i) Short broadcast services use sky wave propagation.
(ii) TV broadcast / microwaves link / satellite communication use space wave propagation.

Question 8.
Distinguish between analog and digital communications.
Answer:

Analog Communications Digital Communications
It makes use of analog electronic circuit and analog signal in such a way that the output voltage varies continuously in accordance with the input signal. It makes use of an electronic circuit that can handle only digital signals.

Question 9.
Why are short wavebands used for long distance transmission of signals?
Answer:
Radiowaves of short wavebands can be easily reflected by the ionosphere. So they are used in long distance transmission.

Question 10.
It is necessary to use satellites for iong distance TV transmission. Why?
Answer:
TV signals being of high frequency are not reflected by the ionosphere. Also ground wave transmission is possible only upto a limited range. That is why satellites are used for long distance TV transmission.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 11.
Give the reason why transmission of TV signals via sky waves is not possible.
Answer:
Television frequencies lie in the range 100 – 220 MHz which cannot be reflected by the ionosphere. So skywave propagation is not used in TV transmission.

Question 12.
What is the essential requirement for transmitting a microwave from one point to another on the earth?
Answer:
For microwave transmission, the transmitting and receiving antenna must be in the line of sight.

Question 13.
Why is the transmission of signals using ’ skywaves, restricted to frequencies upto 300 mega hertz?
Answer:
This is because ionosphere cannot reflect electromagnetic radiations having frequency
greater than 30 MHz.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 14.
Name the two basic modes of communication. Which of these modes is used for telephonic communication?
Answer:
Two basic modes of transmission are:
(i) Point-to-point and
(ii) Broadcast mode.
Point-to-point mode is used for telephonic communication.

Question 15.
Draw block diagram of transmission of voice signals.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems 1

Question 16.
Explain briefly the following terms used in communication system
(i) Transducer,
(ii) Repeater,
(iii) Transmitter,
(iv) Amplification.
Answer:
(i) Transducer:
It is a device which converts energy from one form to another form.

(ii) Repeater:
It is a combination of receiver, amplifier and transmitter. It picks up a signal from the transmitter, amplifies and transmits it to the receiver sometimes with a change of carrier frequency.

(iii) Transmitter:
It is a device which processes the incoming message signal into a form suitable for transmission through a channel and for its subsequent transmission.

(iv) Amplification:
It is the process of increasing the amplitude and hence the strength of an electrical signal by using an electric circuit called the amplifier.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 17.
Draw block diagram of reception of voice signals.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems 2

Question 18.
Write some limitations of amplitude modulation.
Answer:

  • Amplitude modulation suffers from noise.
  • Quality of audio signal is poor.
  • Efficiency of AM transmission is low.

Question 19.
Give some advantages of AM over FM transmission.
Answer:

  • FM transmission needs a much wider channel, typically 200 kHz.
  • Reception of FM signal is limited to the line of sight.
  • Transmitting and receiving components used in FM transmission are costly and complex.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 20.
Name some advantages of digital communication.
Answer:

  • Digital signal can be easily received.
  • Digital signal do not get distorted by noise.
  • Digital signal can be coded.
  • Digital signal can be reproduced more accurately.

Question 21.
Write some advantages of frequency modulation over amplitude modulation.
Answer:
Advantages of frequency modulation over amplitude modulation are:

  • The transmission efficiency is very high.
  • Fess noise. This leads to an increase in signal – noise ratio.
  • The operating range is quite large.
  • Maximum use of transmitted power.

Question 22.
What should be the length of the dipole antenna for a carrier wave of frequency 3 × 108 Hz?
Answer:
The length of a dipole antenna l = \(\frac{\lambda}{2}=\frac{c}{2 f}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{2 \times 3 \times 10^{8}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5 m

Question 23.
The maximum peak-to-peak voltage of an AM wave is 20 mV and the minimum peak-to-peak voltage is 8 mV. What is the modulation factor?
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems 3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 24.
A Tv transmitting antenna is 125 m tall. How much service area can this transmitting antenna cover, if the receiving antenna is at the ground level? Radius of earth = 6400 km.
Answer:
d = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{R} h_{\mathrm{T}}}\)
= \(\sqrt{2 \times 64 \times 10^{5} \times 125}\)
= 40 × 103 m = 40km
Area covered = nd2 = 3.14 × (40)2 = 5024 km2.

Question 25.
A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32 m and that of the receiving antenna is 50 m. What is the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in LOS mode? (Radius of earth is 6.4 × 106 m)
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems 4

Question 26.
Distinguish between the term
(i) Communi-cation,
(ii) Information,
(iii) Message and
(iv) Signal.
Answer:
(i) Communication:
It is the process by which information is transferred from one point (source) to the other point (destination).

(ii) Information:
It is basically the news which one wishes to convey.

(iii) Message:
It is the physical manifestation of the information produced by the source. It may appear as a sequence of discrete symbols, time-varying quantity etc.

(iv) Signal:
It is the electrical analog of the information produced by the source. It may be defined as a single – valued function of time and which at every instant of time, takes a unique value. Signals can be analog or digital.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 27.
What are the two basic modes of communication?
Answer:
Two basic modes of communication are as follows.
(i) Point-to-point communication:
In this mode, communication occurs over a link between a single transmitter and receiver, eg: Telephony.

(ii) Broadcast mode:
In this mode, a large number of receivers are linked to a single transmitter, eg: Radio and Television.

Question 28.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of amplitude modulation.
Answer:
Advantages:
(i) It is an easier method for transmitting and receiving voice signals.
(ii) It requires simple and cheaper transmitter and receivers.
(iii) Its transmission requires low carrier frequencies.
(iv) Area in which AM transmission can be received is much larger than that in case of FM transmission.

Disadvantages:
(i) Amplitude modulation suffers from noise.
(ii Efficiency of AM transmission is low.
(iii) Quality of audio signal is poor.

Question 29.
What is bandwidth? Write an expression for the bandwidth (or) What is channel bandwidth?
Answer:
The frequency range over which the basebond signals or the information signals such as voice, music, picture, etc is transmitted is known as bandwidth. Each of these signals has different frequencies.

The type of communication system depends on the nature of the frequency band for a given signal. Bandwidth gives the difference between the upper an lower frequency limits of the signal. It can also be defined as the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum occupied by the signal. If υ and υ are the lower and upper frequency limits of a signal then the bandwidth.
Bw = υ2 – υ1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 30.
What is satellite communication? Mention different types of satellites based on their applications.
Answer:
The satellite communication is a mode of communication of signal between transmitter and receiver via satellite. The message signal from the earth station is transmitted to the satellite on board via an uplink (frequency band 6 GHz), amplified by a transponder and then retransmitted to another earth station via a downlink (frequency band 4 GHz).

The high frequency radio wave signals travel in a straight line (line of sight) may come across tall buildings or mountains or even encounter the curvature of the earth. A communication satellite relays and amplitudes such radio signals via transponder to reach distant and far off places using uplinks and downlinks.

It is also called as a radio repeater in sky. The applications are found to be in all fields. Satellites are classified into different types based on their applications.

(i) Weather Satellites:
They are used to monitor the weather and climate of earth. By measuring cloud mass, these satellites enable us to predict rain and dangerous storms like hurricanes, cyclones etc.

(ii) Communication Satellites:
They are used to transmit television, radio, internet signal etc. Multiple satellites are used for long distances.

(iii)Navigation Satellites:
These are employed to determine the geographic location of ships, aircrafts or any other objects.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of the following is used in optical fibres?
(a) Scattering
(b) Total internal reflection
(c) Diffraction
(d) Refraction
Answer:
(b) Total internal reflection

Question 2.
Consider the telecommunication through optical fibres. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Optical fibres are subjected to electromagnetic interference from outside.
(b) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index.
(c) Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss.
(d) Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with suitable cladding
Answer:
(a) Optical fibres are subjected to electromagnetic interference from outside.

Question 3.
Antenna is:
(a) inductive
(b) capacitive
(c) resistive above in resonant frequency
(d) resistive at resonant frequency
Answer:
(d) resistive at resonant frequency

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 4.
In frequency modulated wave:
(a) both frequency and amplitude using with time.
(b) both frequency and amplitude are constant
(c) frequency varies with time
(d) amplitude varies with time
Answer:
(c) frequency varies with time

Question 5.
Laser light is considered to be coherent because it consists of:
(a) uncoordinated wavelength
(b) coordinated waves of exactly the same wavelength
(c) many wavelengths
(d) divergent beam
Answer:
(b) coordinated waves of exactly the same wavelength

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a transducer?
(a) amplifier
(b) loudspeaker
(c) microphone
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) amplifier

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 7.
Long distance short wave radio broadcasting uses:
(a) ground wave
(b) ionospheric wave
(c) direct wave
(d) skywave
Answer:
(c) direct wave

Question 8.
The waves used by artificial satellites for communication purposes are:
(a) microwaves
(b) AM radiowaves
(c) FM radio waves
(d) X rays
Answer:
(a) microwaves

Question 9.
A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because it:
(a) is coherent
(b) is monochromatic
(c) is not absorbed
(d) has small angular spread
Answer:
(d) has small angular spread

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 10.
Which one of the following statements are correct. Advantages of optical fibres are:
(a) high bandwidth and EM interference.
(b) low bandwidth and EM interference.
(c) high bandwidth, high data transmission capacity and no EM interference
(d) high bandwidth, low transmission capacity and no EM interference
Answer:
(c) high bandwidth, high data transmission capacity and no EM interference

Question 11.
The process of separating radio signal from the modulated wave is known as:
(a) modulation
(b) demodulation
(c) amplification
(d) super imposition
Answer:
(b) demodulation

Question 12.
The maximum distance upto which TV transmission from a TV tower of height h can be received is proportional to:
(a) h1/2
(b) h
(c) h3/2
(d) h2
Answer:
(a) h1/2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 13.
To double the covering range of a TV transmitter tower its height should be made:
(a) 2 times
(b) √2 times
(c) 8 times
(d) 4 times
Answer:
(d) 4 times

Question 14.
A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery, because it:
(a) is highly monochromatic
(b) is highly coherent
(c) can be sharply focussed
(d) is highly directional
Answer:
(c) can be sharply focussed

Question 15.
If the highest modulating frequency of the wave is 5kHz, the number of stations that can be accommodated in a 150 kHz bandwidth is:
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) 15

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 16.
In communication with help of antenna if height is doubled, then the range covered which was initially r would become:
(a) 3r
(b) 4r
(c) √2r
(d) 5r
Answer:
(c) √2r

Question 17.
If the radio receiver amplifies all the signal frequencies equally well, it is said to have high:
(a) sensitivity
(b) fidelity
(c) selectivity
(d) distortion
Answer:
(b) fidelity

Question 18.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Ground wave propagation can be sustained at frequencies 500 kHz to 1500 kHz.
(b) Skywave propagation is useful in the range of 30 to 40 MHz.
(c) The phenomenon involved in skywave propagation is total internal reflection.
(d) Satellite communication is useful for the frequencies above 30 MHz.
Answer:
(b) Skywave propagation is useful in the range of 30 to 40 MHz.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 19.
High frequency waves follows:
(a) ionospheric propagation
(b) the ground wave propagation
(c) the line of sight direction
(d) the curvature of the earth
Answer:
(a) ionospheric propagation

Question 20.
The radiowaves after refraction from different parts of ionosphere on reaching the earth are called as:
(a) ground waves
(b) space waves
(c) sky waves
(d) microwaves
Answer:
(c) sky waves

Question 21.
In amplitude modulation, the bandwidth is:
(a) equal to the signal frequency
(b) twice the signal frequency
(c) thrice the signal frequency
(d) four times the signal frequency
Answer:
(b) twice the signal frequency

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 22.
The distance between the point of transmission and the point of reception along the surface is known as:
(a) shortest distance
(b) maximum distance
(c) sky distance
(d) skip distance
Answer:
(d) skip distance

Question 23.
The frequency range for audiowaves is:
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(b) 200 Hz to 2000 Hz
(c) 20 Hz to 20 MHz
(d) 10Hz to 10 kHz
Answer:
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Question 24.
The limitation of amplitude modulation is:
(a) low efficiency
(b) high efficiency
(c) small operating range
(d) low efficiency and small operating range
Answer:
(d) low efficiency and small operating range

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 25.
Based on the principle of radio echoes:
(a) Sonar
(b) Television
(c) Radar
(d) Laser
Answer:
(c) Radar

Assertions and Reasons:

In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer is:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 26.
Assertion:
At amplitude modulation, frequency and phase of the carrier signal remains constant.
Reason:
AM has small operating range.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 27.
Assertion:
During surface wave transmission, the electrical signals are attenuated over a distance.
Reason:
The earth behaves like a leaky capacitor.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 28.
Assertion:
Sky wave signals are used for long distance radio communication. These signals are in general, less stable than ground wave signals.
Reason:
The state of ionosphere varies from hour to hour, day to day and season to season.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Communication Systems

Question 29.
Assertion:
The satellites equipped with electronic devices are called active satellites.
Reason:
Passive satellite works as active satellite.
Hint:
A passive satellite only reflects the signal back to earth’s station.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 1.
In a photo diode, the conductivity increases when the material is exposed to light, It is found that conductivity charges only if the wavelength is less than 620 nm. What is the band gap?
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 1

Question 2.
An alloy semiconductor gallium arsenide phosphide is 1.98 eV. Calculate the wavelength of radiation that is emitted when electrons and holes in this material combine directly. What is the colour of the emitted radiation?
Answer:
Wave length λ = \(\frac{h c}{\mathrm{E}_{g}}=\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{1.98 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= 6.25 × 10-7 = 6250 Å
The colour of emitted radiation is red.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 3.
The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing in the circuit?

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 2

Answer:
Since diode D1 is reverse biased, no current flows through it. Only diode D2 conduct because it is forward biased
I = \(\frac{V}{R}=\frac{12}{2+4}\) = 2 A

Question 4.
In the given circuit, the potential difference between A and 8 is;

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 3

Answer:
The forward biased p-n junction does not offer any resistance.
∴ RAB = \(\frac{10 \times 10}{10+10}\)
= 5 KΩ
Total resistance, R = 10 + 5 = 15KΩ
Current in the circuit,
I = \(\frac{V}{R}=\frac{30 V}{15 \times 10^{3}}\)
= 2 × 10-3 A
Current through each arm = \(\frac{I}{2}\) = 10-3 A

∴ Potential difference between A and B is VAB = 10 × 10 + 3 × 10-3 = 10 V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 5.
The current gain of a transistor \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{C}}}{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{E}}}=\) = 0.96 then, what is the current gain for CE configuration?
Answer:
For CE configuration, the current transfer ratio is

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 4

Question 6.
Distinguish between n-type and p-type semiconductors.
Answer:

n – type semiconductor p – type semiconductor
These are extrinsic semiconductor obtained by doping impurity atoms of group V to Ge or Si crystal. These are extrinsic semiconductor obtained by doping impurity atoms of group III to Ge or Si crystals.
The impurity atoms added provide free electrons and one called donors. The impurity atoms added create vacancies of electrons (or holes) and are called acceptors.
The donor impurity level lies just below the conduction band. The acceptor impurity level lies just above the valence band.
The electrons are majority charge carriers while holes are minority charge carriers. The holes are majority charge carriers while electrons are minority charge carrier.
The free electron density is much greater than hole density, i.e., ne >> nn The hole density is much greater than free electron density. ; i.e., nn >> ne

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 7.
Distinguish between metals, insulators and semiconductors on the basis of band theory.
Answer:
Depending upon energy band gap is zero, large or small, the solids may be classified into metals, insulators and semiconductors as explained below.
(i) Metals:
The energy band structure of metal as shown in figure. The valence band and the conduction band are overlap with each other. Hence, electrons can move freely into the conduction band which results in a large number of free electrons in the conduction band.

Therefore, conduction becomes possible even at low temperature. The application of electric field provides sufficient energy to the electrons to drift in a particular direction to constitute a current. For metals the resistivity value lies between 10-2 and 10-8 Ωm.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 5

Insulators:
The energy band structure of insulators is shown in figure. The valence band and the conduction band are separated by a large energy gap. The forbidden energy gap is approximately 6 eV in insulators. The energy gap is very large that electrons from valence band cannot move into conduction band even on the application of strong external electric field or the increase in temperature. Therefore, the electrical conduction is not possible as the free electrons are almost nil and hence these materials are called insulators. Its resistivity is in the range of 1011 to 1019 Ωm.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 6

(iii) Semi conductors:
In semiconductors, there exists a narrow forbidden energy gap (Eg < 3 eV) between the valence band and the conduction band. At a finite temperature, thermal agitations in the solid can break the covalent bond between the atoms. This releases some electrons from valence band to the conduction band.

Since free electrons are small in number, the conductivity of the semiconductors is not as high m that of the conductors. The resistivity value of semiconductors is from 105 to 106 Ωm. When the temperature is increased further, more number of electrons is promoted to the conduction band and increases the conduction.

Thus, we can say that the electrical conduction increases with the increase in temperature. In other words, resistance decreases with increase in temperature. Hence, semiconductors are said to have negative temperature 1 coefficient of resistance. The forbidden energy gap for Si and Ge at room temperature are 1.1 eV and 0.7 eV respectively.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 7

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 8.
Sketch and explain the energy band diagram of intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors.
Answer:
(i) Energy band diagram of intrinsic semiconductor:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 8

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 9

At T = 0 K, the valence band of a semiconductor is completely filled with electrons while the conduction band is empty as shown in fig (a). Hence an intrinsic semiconductor behaves like an insulator at T = 0 K. At higher temperature (T > 0 K), some electrons of the valence band gain sufficient thermal energy and jump to the conduction band, creating an equal number of holes in the valence band.

These thermally excited electrons occupy the lowest possible energy levels in the conduction band. Therefore, the energy band diagram of an intrinsic semiconductor at T > 0 K is of the type shown in figure (b). Clearly, the number of electrons in the conduction band is equal to the number of holes in valence band.

(ii) Energy band diagram of n-type semiconductors:
In n-type semiconduc-tors, extra (fifth) electron is very weakly attracted by the donor impurity. A very small energy (≈ 0.01 eV) is required to free this electron from donor impurity. When freed, this electron will occupy the lowest possible energy level in the conduction band i.e., the energy of the donor electron -is slightly less than E .

Thus the donor energy level ED lies just below the bottom of the conduction band as shown in figure. At room temperature this small energy gap is easily covered by the thermally excited electrons. The conduction band has more electrons (than holes in valence band) as they have been contributed both by thermal excitation and donor impurities.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 10

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 11

(iii) Energy band diagram of p – type semi conductors:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 12

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 13

In p – type semiconductors, each acceptor impurity creates a hole which can be easily filled by an electron of Si – Si covalent bond. A very small energy is required by an electron of the valence band to move into this hole. Hence the
acceptor energy EA lies slightly above the top of the valence band.

At room temperature, many electrons of the valence band get excited to these acceptor energy levels, leaving behind equal number of holes in the valence band. These holes can conduct current. Thus the valence band has more holes than electrons in the conduction band.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 9.
What is a BJT? Mention its two types. Give their symbolic representations. Describe the construction of BJT and state the function of its each parts.
Answer:
The bipolar junction transistor (BJT) is a three terminal solid state device obtained by growing either a narrow section of p – type crystal between two relatively thicker sections of n – type crystals or a narrow section of n – type crystal between two thicker sections ofp – type crystals.

Transistors are of two types:
(i) NFN transistor:
It consists of a thin section of p – type semiconductor sandwiched between two thicker sections of n – type semiconductor. Figure shows the NPN transistor and its circuit symbol. The arrow head in the symbol points outwards.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 14

(ii) PNP transistor:
It consists of a thin section of n – type semiconductor sandwiched between two thicker sections of p – type semiconductors. Fig shows the PNP transistor and its circuit symbol. The arrow head in the symbol points inwards.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 15

In both types of transistors, the arrow head on the emitter points in the direction of conventional current. Each type of transistor has three main parts:

(i) Emitter (E):
It is a section on one side of the transistor. It is of moderate size and heavily doped semiconductor. It is normally forward biased with respect to any other part of the transistor. It supplies a large number of majority charge carriers for the flow of current through the transistor.

(ii) Base (B):
It is the middle section. It is very thin and lightly doped. It controls the flow of majority charge carriers from emitter to collector.

(iii) Collector (C):
It is section on the other side of the transistor. It is moderately doped and larger in size as compared to the emitter. It is normally reverse biased with respect to any other part of the transistor. It collects the majority charge carriers for the circuit operations.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 10.
Draw the three types of circuit arrangements in which an NPN transistor can be used.
Answer:
A transistor is a three element device. One terminal has to be always common to the input and the output circuits. This terminal is connected to the ground and serves as a reference point for the entire circuit. So a transistor can be used in one of the following three configurations.

(i) Common-base configuration:
The base is common to both the input and output circuits as shown in figure. The input current is the emitter current IE and the output current is the collector current IC. The input signal is applied between emitter and base, the output is measured between collector and base.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 16

(ii) Common-Emitter configuration:
In this configuration, the emitter is common to both the input and output loops as shown in figure. Base current IB is the input current and the collector current IC is the output current. The input signal is applied between the emitter and base and the output is measured between the collector and the emitter.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 17

(iii) Common-collector configuration: Here, the collector is common to both the input and output circuits as shown in figure. The base current IB is the input current, the emitter current IF is the output current. The input signal is applied between the base and the collector, the output is measured between the emitter and collector.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 18

Question 11.
Define the two current gains of a transistor and deduce a relation between them.
Answer:
Two types of current gains are defined for a transistor.
(i) Common base current amplification factor (or) AC current gain (α).
It is defined as the ratio of the small change in the collector current to the small change in the emitter current when the collector-base voltage is kept constant.

Thus α = \(\left(\frac{\Delta I_{C}}{\Delta I_{E}}\right)\)
VCB = constant

(ii) Common emitter current amplification factor (or) AC current gain (β):
It is defined as the ratio of the small change in the collector current to the small change in the base current when the collector – emitter voltage is kept constant.
β = \(\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{C}}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{B}}}\right)\)
VCE = constant

Relation between α and β:
For both NPN and PNP transistors, we have IE = IB + IC
For small changes, we can write
∆IE = ∆IB + ∆IC
Dividing both sides by ∆IC

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 39

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The cause of potential barrier in a p-n junction diode is:
(a) depletion of positive charges near the junction.
(b) concentration of positive charges near the junction.
(c) depletion of negative charges near the junction.
(d) concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction.
Answer:
(d) concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction.

Question 2.
A semiconductor device is connected in series in circuit with a battery and resistance. A current is allowed to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. The device may be:
(a) a p-n junction diode
(b) an intrinsic semiconductor
(c) a n-type semiconductor
(d) an p-type semiconductor
Answer:
(a) a p-n junction diode

Question 3.
Which of the following when added as an impurity into silicon produces 72-type semiconductor?
(a) P
(b) Al
(c) B
(d) Mg
Answer:
(a) P

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 4.
In a junction diode, the holes are due to:
(a) protons
(b) extra electrons
(c) neutrons
(d) missing electrons
Answer:
(d) missing electrons

Question 5.
Depletion layer consists of:
(a) electron
(b) protons
(c) mobile charge carriers
(d) immobile ions
Answer:
(d) immobile ions

Question 6.
In p-type semiconductor, the majority charge carriers are:
(a) protons
(b) holes
(c) electrons
(d) neutrons
Answer:
(b) holes

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 7.
In forward bias the width of the depletion layer in a p-n junction diode:
(a) increases
(b) remain constant
(c) decreases
(d) first increases then decreases
Answer:
(c) decreases

Question 8.
Reverse bias applied to a junction diode:
(a) lowers the potential barrier
(b) raises the potential barrier
(c) increases the majority carrier current
(d) increases the minority carrier current
Answer:
(b) raises the potential barrier

Question 9.
Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does not depend on:
(a) diode design
(b) temperature
(c) forward bias
(d) doping density
Answer:
(a) diode design

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 10.
In p – n junction:
(a) high potential is at n-side and low potential at p-side
(b) high potential is at p-side and low potential at n-side
(c) p and n both are at same potential
(d) undetermined
Answer:
(a) high potential is at n-side and low potential at p-side.

Question 11.
Si and Cu are cooled to a temperature of 300 K, then resistivity:
(a) for Si increases and for Cu decreases
(b) for Cu increases and for Si decreases
(c) decreases for both Si and Cu
(d) increases for both Si and Cu
Answer:
(a) for Si increases and for Cu decreases

Question 12.
A n-p-n transistor conducts when:
(a) both collector and emitter are positive with respect to the base.
(b) collector is positive and emitter is at same potential as the base.
(c) collector is positive and emitter is negative with respect to the base.
(d) both collector
Answer:
(c) collector is positive and emitter is negative with respect to the base.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 13.
In semiconductors at room temperature:
(a) the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled.
(b) the valence band is completely filled.
(c) the conduction band is completely empty.
(d) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
Answer:
(d) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled

Question 14.
Zener diode is used for:
(a) rectification
(b) stabilization
(c) amplification
(d) producing oscillations in an oscillators
Answer:
(b) stabilization

Question 15.
Carbon, silicon and germanium atoms have four valence electron each. Their valence and conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge respectively. Which one of the following relationship is true in their case.
(a) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge
(b) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si
(c) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si
(d) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si
Answer:
(b) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 16.
Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction:
(a) widens the depletion zone
(b) increases the number of donors on the n-side.
(c) increases the potential difference across the depletion zone.
(d) increases the electric field in the depletion zone.
Answer:
(d) increases the electric field in the depletion zone.

Question 17.
The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is:
(a) Zener diode
(b) junction diode
(c) integrated circuits
(d) junction transistor
Answer:
(c) integrated circuits

Question 18.
Which of the following statement is false?
(a) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature
(b) Pure Si doped with trivalent impurity gives a p-type semiconductor.
(c) Majority carriers in a n-type semi conductors are holes.
(d) Minority carriers in a p-type semi conductor are electrons.
Answer:
(c) Majority carriers in a n-type semi conductors are holes.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 19.
Choose the only false statement from the following:
(a) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
(b) Substances with an energy gap of the order of 10 eV are insulators.
(c) In conductors, the valence and conduction bands may overlap.
(d) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
Answer:
(a) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.

Question 20.
If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal:
(a) there will be more free electrons from hole in the semiconductor.
(b) its resistance is increased.
(c) it become a p-type semiconductor
(d) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
Answer:
(a) there will be more free electrons from hole in the semiconductor.

Question 21.
A photocell employs photo electric effect to convert:
(a) change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current.
(b) change in the frequency of light into a change in electric voltage.
(c) change in the intensity of illumination into a change in the work function of the photo cathode.
(d) change in the frequency of light into a change in the electric current.
Answer:
(a) change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 22.
For transistor action:
(i) base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
(ii) the base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(iii) the emitter – base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased.
(iv) both the emitter base junction as well as the base collector junction are forward biased.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iv)
(d) (iv), (i)
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iii)

Question 23.
In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true?
(a) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopant.
(b) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
(c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
(d) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants
Answer:
(c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.

Question 24.
The barrier potential of a p – n junction depends on:
(i) type of semiconductor material
(ii) amount of doping
(iii) temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (Hi) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 25.
The electron in the atom of an element Which determine its chemical and electrical properties are called:
(a) revolving electrons
(b) valence electrons
(c) excess electrons
(d) active electrons
Answer:
(b) valence electrons

Question 26.
Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the phenomenon of:
(a) collision
(b) doping
(c) recombination
(d) ionisation
Answer:
(a) collision

Question 27.
The colour of light emitted by a LED depends on:
(a) its forward bias
(b) its reverse bias
(c) type of semiconductor material used
(d) the amount of forward current
Answer:
(c) type of semiconductor material used

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 28.
The emitter base junction of a given transistor is forward biased and its collector- base junction is reversed biased. If the base current is increased, then its:
(a) IC will increase
(b) IC will decrease
(c) VCE will increase
(d) VCC will increase
Answer:
(a) IC will increase

Question 29.
An oscillator is:
(a) an amplifier
(b) converter of AC into DC energy
(c) an amplifier without feed back
(d) an amplifier with feed back
Answer:
(d) an amplifier with feed back

Question 30.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Pentavalent dopant atom is called donor atom
(b) Trivalent dopant atom is called donor atom
(c) Tetravalent dopant atom is called acceptor atom
(d) Monovalent dopant atom is called donor atom.
Answer:
(a) Pentavalent dopant atom is called donor atom

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 31.
The strength of the current flowing through p-n junction during forward bias is of the order of:
(a) Ampere
(b) µA
(c) mA
(d) \(\frac{1}{10}\)A
Answer:
(c) mA

Question 32.
The barrier potential of a Germanium diode is approximately:
(a) 0.7 V
(b) 2.0 V
(c) 0.3 V
(d) 2.2 V
Answer:
(c) 0.3 V

Question 33.
Among dopers doping atom is called an acceptor atom.
(a) trivalent
(b) pentavalent
(c) tetravalent
(d) monovalent
Answer:
(a) trivalent

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 34.
Holes and free electrons can pass through depletion region if applied potential difference is:
(a) zero
(b) less than the potential barrier
(c) equal to potential barrier
(d) more than potential barrier
Answer:
(d) more than potential barrier

Question 35.
Which one of the following is suited for high voltage applications?
(a) Half wave rectifier
(b) Amplifier
(c) Bridge full wave rectifier
(d) Oscillator
Answer:
(c) Bridge full wave rectifier

Question 36.
The operating point of an amplifier is always chosen in the:
(a) saturation region
(b) cut off region
(c) active region
(d) ohmic region
Answer:
(c) active region

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 37.
The arrow lead in a transistor represents the flow of:
(a) direct current
(b) forward current
(c) conventional current
(d) reverse current
Answer:
(a) direct current

Question 38.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) IC = IE + IB
(b) IE = IB + IC
(c) IB = IE + IC
(d) IB -IC = IE
Answer:
(b) IE = IB + IC

Question 39.
What is current gain in common emitter configuration?
(a) β = IE/IC
(b) β = IC/ IB
(c) β = IE/IB
(d) β = IC/IE
Answer:
(b) β = IC/ IB

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 40.
The condition for sustained oscillations in the oscillator is:
(a) |A β| = 0
(b) |A β| = ∞
(c) |A β| = 1
(d) |A β| = -1
Answer:
(c) |A β| = 1

Question 41.
Input impedance is:
(a) Ri = \(\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{B}}}{\Delta \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{BE}}}\right)_{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{BE}}}\)

(b) Ri = \(\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CE}}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{B}}}\right)_{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CE}}}\)

(c) Ri = \(\left(\frac{\Delta V_{\mathrm{BE}}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{C}}}\right)_{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CE}}}\)

(d) Ri = \(\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{BE}}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{B}}}\right)_{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CE}}}\)

Answer:
(d) Ri = \(\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{BE}}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{B}}}\right)_{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CE}}}\)

Question 42.
In positive logic 1 represents:
(a) on circuit a high voltage
(b) on circuit a low voltage
(c) off circuit a low voltage
(d) off circuit a high voltage
Answer:
(a) on circuit a high voltage

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 43.
Logic gates are circuits which process:
(a) analog signal
(b) digital signal
(c) hybrid signal
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 44.
The operating point of a transistor is called Question point lies in:
(a) saturation region
(b) active region
(c) cut off region
(d) threshold region
Answer:
(b) active region

Question 45.
Better performance of an amplifier is achieved by:
(a) negative feedback
(b) positive feedback
(c) both positive and negative feedback
(d) first positive and then negative feedback
Answer:
(a) negative feedback

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 46.
Which one of the following gates will have an output 1?
(a) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 18
(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 19
(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 20
(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 21
Answer:
(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 20

Question 47.
If a and P are current gains in common- base and common-emitter configuration of a transistor, then p is equal to:
(a) \(\frac{1}{\alpha}\)

(b) \(\frac{\alpha}{1+\alpha}\)

(c) \(\frac{\alpha}{1-\alpha}\)

(d) α – \(\frac{1}{\alpha}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\alpha}{1-\alpha}\)

Question 48.
The truth table given below:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 22

(a) AND gate
(b) NOR gate
(c) OR gate
(d) NAND gate
Answer:
(d) NAND gate

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 49.
In a common base configuration of transistor \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{C}}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) = 0.98, then current gain in common AE emitter configuration of transistor will be: [Hint: α = 0.98, β = ?]
(a) 4.9
(b) 9.8
(c) 98
(d) 49
Answer:
(b) 9.8

Question 50.
If internal resistance of cell is negligible, then current flowing through the circuit is:
For which logic gate, the given truth table is shown?
TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 23
(a) \(\frac{3}{50}\)A

(b) \(\frac{5}{50}\)A

(c) \(\frac{4}{50}\)A

(d) \(\frac{2}{50}\)A
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{5}{50}\)A

Question 51.
For which logic gate, the given truth table is shown?

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 38

(a) NAND
(b) XOR
(c) NOR
(d) OR
Answer:
(a) NAND

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 52.
In a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the ripple will be:
(a) 25 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 70.7 Hz
(d) 100 Hz
Answer:
(d) 100 Hz

Question 53.
Following diagram performs the logic function of:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 24

(a) AND gate
(b) NAND gate
(c) OR gate
(d) NOR gate
Answer:
(a) AND gate

Question 54.
Which one of the diode is reverse biased?
(a) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 25

(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 26

(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 27

(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 28
Answer:
(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 26

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 55.
In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by:
TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 29
(a) Ā + B̄
(b) Ā . B̄
(c) A. B
(d) A + B
Answer:
(d) A + B

Question 56.
The output of OR gate is 1
(a) only if both inputs are 1
(b) if either or both inputs are 1
(c) if either input is zero
(d) if both inputs are zero
Answer:
(a) only if both inputs are 1

Question 57.
The peak voltage in the output of a half wave diode rectifier with sinusoidal signal without filter is 1OV. The DC component of the output voltage is:
[Hint: VDC = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{m}}{\pi}\)]
(a) \(\frac{10}{\sqrt{2}}\)V
(b) \(\frac{20}{\pi}\)V
(c) 10 V
(d) \(\frac{10}{\pi}\)V
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{10}{\pi}\)V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 58.
The circuit is equivalent to:
TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 30
(a) OR gate
(p) AND gate
(c) NAND gate
(d) NOR gate
Answer:
(c) NAND gate

Question 59.
A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can defect a signal of wavelength:
(a) 4000 nm
(b) 6000 nm
(c) 4000 Å
(d) 6000 Å
Answer:
(c) 4000 Å

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 60.
A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 Ω and an output impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is:
(a) 50
(b) 1250
(c) 500
(d) 1000
Answer:
(b) 1250

Question 61.
To get an inputs = 1 from the circuit shown below the input must be:
TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 31
TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 32
Answer:
(d)

Question 62.
Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 33

(a) NAND
(b) AND
(c) NOR
(d) OR
Answer:
(b) AND

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 63.
Consider an ideal junction diode, the value of current flowing through AB is:
TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 34
(a) 10-1A
(b) 10-3 A
(c) 10-2 A
(d) 0 A
Answer:
(c) 10-2 A

Question 64.
In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R = 100 Ω and an emf of 3.5V. If the barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5V, the current in the circuit will be:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 35

(a) 35 mA
(b) 30 mA
(c) 40 mA
(d) 20 mA
Answer:
(b) 30 mA

Question 65.
The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in figure below. The current flowing through the resistance R1 will be:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 36

(a) 2.0 A
(b) 10.0 A
(c) 3.13 A
(d) 1.43 A
Answer:
(a) 2.0 A

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 66.
The part of a transistor, which is heavily doped to produce a large number of majority carriers, is called:
(a) base
(b) collector
(c) emitter
(d) any one out of emitter, base and collector
Answer:
(c) emitter

Question 67.
The given combination represents the following gate:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics 37

(a) NOR
(b) XOR
(c) NAND
(d) OR
Answer:
(d) OR

Question 68.
A transistor is a / an:
(a) chip
(b) semiconductor
(c) metal
(d) insulator
Answer:
(b) semiconductor

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 69.
Boolean algebra is essentially based on:
(a) logic
(b) numbers
(c) symbol
(d) truth
Answer:
(a) logic

Question 70.
The Boolean expression P + \(\vec{P}\) Question where P and Question are the inputs of the logic circuit, represents:
(a) AND gate
(b) NAND gate
(c) NOT gate .
(d) OR gate
Answer:
(d) OR gate

Assertions and Reasons:

In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer is:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(d) If both assertion and reason are false
(e) Assertion is false but reason is true.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 71.
Assertion:
A transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration has a low input impedance.
Reason:
The base to emitter region is forward biased.
Answer:
(e) Assertion is false but reason is true.

Question 72.
Assertion:
In a transistor amplifier, the output voltage is always out of phase with the input voltage.
Reason:
The emitter is more heavily doped than the other two regions.
Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false

Question 73.
Assertion:
Most amplifiers use common emitter configuration circuit.
Reason:
Its input resistance is comparatively higher.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Semiconductor Electronics

Question 74.
Assertion:
When the base region has larger width, the collector current increases.
Reason:
Electron – hole combination in base results in increase of base current.
Answer:
(e) Assertion is false but reason is true.

Question 75.
Assertion:
The resistivity of a semi conductor increases with temperature.
Reason:
The atoms of a semi conductor vibrate with larger amplitude at higher temperature thereby increasing in resistivity.
Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 1.
Why did Thomson’s atomic model fail?
Answer:
Thomson model failed to explain the scattering of α-particles through large angles in Rutherford’s experiment.

Question 2.
Why is it that mass of the nucleus does not enter the formula for impact parameter, but in change does?
Answer:
The scattering occurs due to the electrostatic field of the nucleus. That is why charge of nucleus enters the expression for the impact parameter.

Question 3.
The kinetic energy of α-particle incident on gold foil is doubled. How does the distance of closest approach charge?
Answer:
As the distance of closest approach is inversely proportional to the kinetic energy of the incident a-particle, so the distance of closest approach is halved when the kinetic energy of a-particle is doubled.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 4.
Why is electron revolving round the nucleus of an atom?
Answer:
If the electrons were stationary, they would fall into the nucleus due to the electrostatic attraction and the atom would be unstable.

Question 5.
What is the significance of the negative energy of electron in the orbit?
Answer:
The negative energy signifies that the electron is bound to the nucleus. Due to electrostatic attraction between electron and nucleus, the potential energy is negative and is greater than kinetic energy of electron. The total energy of electron is negative. It cannot escape from the atom.

Question 6.
How much is the energy possessed by an electron for n = ∞?
Answer:
For n = ∞,
En = \(-\frac{13.6}{n^{2}}=\frac{-13.6}{\infty}\) = 0
Its energy is zero.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 7.
Define ionization energy How would the ionisation energy charge when electron in hydrogen atom is replaced by a particle of mass 200 times that of the electron but having the same charge.
Answer:
Ionisation energy is defined as the energy required to free an electron from the ground state of an atom.
i. e., IE = E – E1 = \(\frac{2 \pi^{2} m k^{2} e^{4}}{h^{3}}\)
i.e., IE ∝ m
Thus, the I.E will become 200 times that of the electron.

Question 8.
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential energies of the electron in his state?
Answer:
Total energy, E = -13.6 eV
K.E = – E = – (-13.6) =13.6 eV
P.E = – 2.K.E = – 2 x 13.6 = – 27.2 eV

Question 9.
What holds nucleons together in a nucleus?
Answer:
The strong attractive nuclear force holds the nucleons together inside a nucleus which even over comes the electrostatic repulsion between the protons.

Question 10.
Why is the mass of a nucleus always less than the sum of the masses of its constituents, neutrons and protons?
Answer:
When nucleons approach each other to form a nucleus, they strongly attract each other. Their potential energy decreases and becomes negative. It is their potential energy which holds the nucleons together in the nucleus. The decrease in potential energy results in the decrease in the mass of the nucleons inside the nucleus.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 11.
A nucleus contains no electrons, yet it ejects them. How?
Answer:
A neutron of a nucleus decays into a proton, an electron arid an antineutrino. It is this electron which is emitted as β-particle.
\({ }_{0}^{1} n \rightarrow{ }_{1}^{1} p+{ }_{-1}^{0} e+\bar{v}\)

Question 12.
Why is nuclear fusion difficult to carry out?
Answer:
Nuclear fusion requires very high temperature of 106 – 107 K. This temperature is attained by causing explosion due to the fission process. Moreover, no solid container can withstand such a high temperature.

Question 13.
How sun is constantly lossing mass due to thermonuclear fusion?
Answer:
In each fusion reaction, a small mass of the Sun changes into thermal energy. So Sun is constantly losing mass due to thermonuclear fusion.

Question 14.
State the reason, why heavy water is I generally used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Heavy water contains protons (of mass nearly that of neutrons). Fast moving neutrons undergo elastic collisions with these slow moving neutrons and thus get slowed down. Hence heavy water can be used as a moderator. Also, heavy water has negligible cross section for neutron absorption.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 15.
When \({ }_{3}^{7} \mathrm{Li}\) is bombarded with a certain particle, two alpha particle are produced, identify the bombarding particle.
Answer:
Let \({ }_{Z}^{A} \mathrm{P}\) be the bombarding particle.
Then, \({ }_{3}^{7} \mathrm{Li}+\underset{\mathrm{Z}}{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{P}_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}+{ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}\)
Using the laws of conservation of mass and energy, we get
A + 7 = 4 + 4
A = 1
Z + 3 = 2 + 2
Z = 1
Thus, the bombarding particle is proton (\({ }_{1}^{1} \mathrm{Li}\)).

Question 16.
A radioactive substance has a half-life period of 30 days. What is the disintegration constant?
Answer:
Decay constant λ = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}_{1 / 2}}\)

= \(\frac{0.693}{30}\) = 0.0231 day-1

Question 17.
The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 60 days. What is the time taken for(\(\frac{3}{4}\))th of its original mass to disintegrate?
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 1
∴ Number of half-lives, n = 2
Time of disintegration = Half-life × No. of half-lives = 60 × 2 = 120 days.

Question 18.
A radioactive nucleus A undergoes a series of decays according to the following scheme.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 2

The mass number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72 respectively. What are these numbers for A4.
Answer:
Mass number of A4 = 172
Atomic number of A4 = 69

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 19.
Complete the following reactions:
(a) \({ }_{5}^{10} \mathrm{~B}+{ }_{0}^{1} n \rightarrow{ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}+\ldots\)
(b) \({ }_{42}^{94} \mathrm{M}_{0}+{ }_{1}^{2} \mathrm{H} \rightarrow{ }_{43}^{95} \mathrm{Te}+\ldots\)

(a) \({ }_{5}^{10} \mathrm{~B}+{ }_{0}^{1} n \rightarrow{ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}+\ldots\)
Answer:
Atomic number: 5 + 0 – 2 = 3
Mass number: 10+1-4 = 7
Since atomic number is 3, element is Li.

(b) \({ }_{42}^{94} \mathrm{M}_{0}+{ }_{1}^{2} \mathrm{H} \rightarrow{ }_{43}^{95} \mathrm{Te}+\ldots\)
Answer:
Mass number: 94 + 2 – 95 = 1
Atomic number: 42 + 1 – 43 = 0
Since atomic number is 0, it represents neutron.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 20.
If the mass defect of the nucleus 126C is 0.088 amu, then calculate the binding energy per nucleon.
Answer:
mass defect of 126C ∆m = 0.088 amu
B.E of the nucleus = 0.088 × 931 MeV
B.E per nucleon = \(\frac{0.088 \times 931}{12}\)
= 6.827 MeV

Question 21.
Distinguish atom bomb from nuclear reactor.
Answer:

Atom Bomb Nuclear reactor
It is used for destructive purpose. It is used for constructive power. It is used to produce electric power and radio isotopes.
The chain reaction in it is uncontrolled. The chain reaction in it is controlled.

Question 22.
Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion.
Answer:

Nuclear fission Nuclear Fusion
The process of breaking up of the nucleus of a heavy atom into two fragments with the release of large amount of energy is known as nuclear fission. The process in which two or more lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus.
Neutrons are the link particle of this process. Protons are the link particles of this process.
It is quick process. It occurs in several steps. There is sufficient time gap between initial and final step.
It produce very harmful radioactive wastes. The products of fusion are harmless.
Here the energy available per nucleon is small, about 0.85 MeV Here the energy available per nucleon is large, about 6.75 MeV

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 23.
Fusion energy is a clean energy. Why?
Answer:
As lighter atomic nuclei are involved in the reaction, harmful radiations are not given out during fusion reaction. So, we say that fusion energy is a clean energy.

Question 24.
What is the use of a control rod in the reactor? Mention any two control rods.
Answer:
Control rods are used to control the chain reactions. They are good absorbers of neutrons. Eg: Boron, Cadmium.

Question 25.
(a) The energy levels of an atom are as shown below. Which of them will result in the transition of a photon of wavelength 275 nm?

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 4

(b) Which transition corresponds to emission of radiation of (i) maximum wavelength and (ii) minimum wavelength.
Answer:
(a) The energy E of a photon of wavelength 275 nm is given by
E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)

= \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{275 \times 10^{-9} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV
= 4.5 eV
This energy corresponds to the transition B for which the energy change.

(b) E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
i.e., E ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)
⇒ λ ∝\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{E}}\)
λmin ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{E}_{\min }}\) and
λmin ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{E}_{\max }}\)

(i) Transition A, for which the energy emission is minimum, corresponds to the emission of radiation of maximum wavelength.
(ii) Transition D, for which the energy emission is maximum, corresponds to the emission of radiation of minimum wavelength.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 26.
Find the relation between the three wavelength λ1, λ2 and λ3 from the energy level diagram shown below:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 5

Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 6

Question 27.
The wavelength of the second line of the Balmar series in the hydrogen spectrum is 4861 Å. Calculate the wavelength of the first line.
Answer:
The wavelength λ1 and λ2 of the first and second lines of the Balmer series are given by

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 7

λ1 = \(\frac{27}{20}\) × λ2

λ1 = \(\frac{27}{20}\) × 4861 = 6562 Å

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 28.
What is the minimum energy that must be given to a H-atom in ground state so that it ean emit an in Salmar series?
If the angular momentum of the system is conserved, what would be the angular momentum of such Hr photon?
Answer:
Hr in Balmar series corresponds to transition, n = 5 to n = 2. So the electron in ground state n = 1 must first be put in the state n = 5.
Energy required = E1 – E5 = 13.6 – 0.54 = 13.06 eV

If the angular momentum is conserved, angular momentum of photon change in angular momentum of electron.
L5 – L1 = \(\frac{5 h}{2 \pi}-\frac{2 h}{2 \pi}=\frac{3 h}{2 \pi}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{2 \times 3.14}\)
= 3.167 × 10-34 kg m2 s-1

Question 29.
The decay constant, for a radio nuclide element, has a value 1.386 day-1. After how much time will a given sample of this radio nuclide get reduced to only 6.25% of its present number.
Answer:
Have λ = 1.386 day
T1/2 = \(\frac{0.693}{\lambda}=\frac{0.693}{1.386}\) = 0.5 day

\(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_{0}}\) = 6.25 %
= \(\frac{6.25}{100}=\frac{1}{16}\)
= \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{4}\)
∴ n = 4
t = n T1/2
= 4 × 0.5 = 2 days.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 30.
The half life of \({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}\) against ∝-decay is 1.5 × 107 s. What is the activity of a sample of \({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}\) having 2.5 × 1020 atoms.
Answer:
Here, T1/2 = 1.5 × 1017 s
N = 2.5 × 1020 atoms
∴ R = λN = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}_{1 / 2}}\) × N
= \(\frac{0.693 \times 25 \times 10^{20}}{1.5 \times 10^{17}}\)
= 11.55 × 103
= 11550 disintegrations / sec

Question 31.
The half life of \({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}\) ∝-decay is 4.5 × 109 years. Calculate the activity of 1g sample of \({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}\).
Answer:
Here T1/2 = 4.5 × 109 years
= 4.5 × 109 × 365 × 24 × 3600
= 1.419 × 1017 s
m = 1 g
M = 238
Number of atoms in 1 g uranium
N = \(\frac{m}{\mathrm{M}}\) × Avogadro’s number
= \(\frac{1 \times 6.023 \times 10^{23}}{238}\)
= 2.5306 × 1021 atoms.

Activity of the sample
R = λN = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}_{1 / 2}}\) × N

= \(\frac{0.693 \times 2.5306 \times 10^{21}}{1.419 \times 10^{17}}\)
= 1.235 × 104 Bq.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 32.
If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, what is the energy required to remove the electron from the first excIted state of Li++ ion.
Answer:
En = \(\frac{13.6}{n^{2}} \mathrm{Z}^{2}\)
for first excited state, n = 2
for Li++ Z = 3
∴ E = \(\frac{13.6}{4}\) × 9 = 30.6 eV

Question 33.
What is the ratio of frequencies of long wavelength limits of Lyman and Balmar series of hydrogen spectrum.
Answer:
For Lyman series
υLyman = \(\frac{c}{\lambda_{\max }}\)
= Rc[latex]\frac{1}{1^{2}}-\frac{1}{2^{2}}[/latex]
= \(\frac{3 \mathrm{R} c}{4}\)
For Balmer series

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 8

Question 34.
A heavy nucleus X of miss number A = 240 and binding energy per nucleon 7.6 MeV is split into two nearly equal fragment Y and Z of mass number A1 = 110 and A2 = 130, The binding energy of each one of these nuclei is 8.5 MeV per nucleon. Calculate the total binding energy of each of the nuclei X, Y and Z find hence the energy Question released per fission in MeV.
Answer:
For nucleus X : A = 240
B.E per nucleon = 7.6 MeV
Total B.E of X = 240 × 7.6 = 1824 MeV
For nucleus Y : A1 = 110
B.E per nucleon = 8.5 MeV
Total B.E of Y = 110 × 8.5 = 935 MeV
For nucleus Z : A2 = 130
B.E per nucleon = 8.5 MeV
Total B.E of Z = 130 × 8.5 = 1105 MeV
Energy released per fission,
Question = B.E of Y + B.E of Z – B.E of X = 935 + 1105 – 1824 = 216 MeV

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 35.
With the help of a diagram, describe discharge tube. What is the origin of cathode rays?
Answer:
A simple and convenient device used to study the conduction of electricity through gases is known as gas discharge tube. It is a electrodes C and A are fitted inside the tube at the ends. The side tube is connected to a high vacuum pump and a low pressure gauge. The electrodes C and A are fitted inside the tube at the ends. The side tube is connected to a high vacuum pump and a low pressure gauge. The electrodes C and A are connected to the secondary of a powerful induction coil, which maintains a potential difference of 50 kV. The electrode C connected to the negative terminal of the induction coil is called cathode and the electrode A connected to the positive terminal is called the anode.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 9

Suppose the pressure of the gas in discharge tube is reduced to around 110 mm of Hg using vacuum pump, it is observed that no discharge takes place, when the pressure is kept near 100mm of Hg, the discharge electricity through the tube takes place. Consequently, irregular streaks of light appear and also crackling sound is produced. When the pressure is reduced to the order of 10 mm of Hg, a luminous column known as positive column is formed from anode to cathode.

When the pressure reaches to around 0.1 mm of Hg, positive column disappears. At this time, a dark space is formed between anode and cathode which is often called crooke’s dark space and the walls of the tube appear with green colour. At this stage, some invisible rays emanates from cathode called cathode rays, which are later found be a beam of electrons.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 36.
Describe Thomson’s model of an atom. Why was this model discarded later on?
Answer:
J.J. Thomson proposed that an atom is a sphere is a sphere of positively charged matter with electrons embedded in it. The j positive charge is uniformly distributed over the entire atom. The arrangement of electrons inside the continuous positive charge is similar to that of the seeds in a watermelon or the plums in a pudding.

The electrons are arranged in such a manner that their mutual repulsions are balanced by their attractions with the positively charged matter. Thus the atom as a whole is stable and neutral.

Thomson’s model was able to explain with some success the process like chemical reaction and radioactive disintegration. According to this model, all the charges are assumed to be at rest. But from classical electrodynamics, no stable equilibrium points exist in electrostatic configuration and hence such an atom cannot be stable.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 10

Failure of Thomsons model:
(i) It could not explain the origin of several spectral series in the case of hydrogen and other atoms.
(ii) It failed to explain the large angle scattering of a-particles in Rutherford’s experiment.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 37.
Describe Rutherford’s experiment on the scattering of a-partieie by a nucleus. Ext fain the observations and conclusions of the experiment.
Answer:
Experimental arrangement:
A schematic arrangement of the Geiger – Marsden experiment is shown in figure.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 11

A radioactive source of a-particles polonium is enclosed in thick lead block, provided with a narrow opening. The a-particles from this source are collimated into a narrow beam through a narrow slit. The beam is allowed to fall on a thin gold foil of thickness 2.1 × 10-7 m. The ∝-particles scattered in different directions are observed with the help of a rotatable detector which consists of a zinc sulphide screen and a microscope.

Whenever an a-particle strikes the screen, it produces a tiny flash or scintillation, which is viewed through the microscope. In this way, the number of ∝-particles scattered at different angles can be counted. The whole apparatus is enclosed in an evacuated chamber to avoid scattering of a-particles by air molecules.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 12

Observations:
As shown in figure, a graph is drawn between the scattering angle θ and the number N (θ) of the a-particles scattered at angle θ, for a very large number of a-particles. The dotted points are the alpha scattering experiment data points obtained by Geiger and Marsden and the solid curve is the prediction from Rutherford’s nuclear model. It is observed that the Rutherford’s nuclear model is in good agreement with the experimental data.

The above graph reveals the following facts:
(i) Most of the alpha particles are undeflected through the gold foil and went straight.
(ii) Some of the alpha particles are deflected through a small angle.
(iii) A few alpha particle (one is thousand) are deflected through the angle more than 90°.
(iv) Very few alpha particles returned back from the gold foil, scattering a deflection of nearly 180°.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 13

Significance of the result:
Rutherford concluded the following important falls about an atom.
(i) As most of the α-particles pass straight through the foil, so most of the space within atoms must be empty.
(ii) To explain large angle scattering of α-particles, Rutherford suggested that all the positive charge and the mass of the atom is concentrated in a very small region, called the nucleus of the atom.
(iii) The nucleus is surrounded by a cloud of electrons whose total negative charge is equal to the total positive charge on the nucleus so that the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 38.
Obtain Bohr’s quantisation condition on the basis of the wave picture of an electron.
Answer:
Consider -the motion of an electron in a circular orbit of radius r around the nucleus of the atom. According to de Broglie hypothesis, this electron is also associated with wave character.

Hence a circular orbit can be taken to be a stationary energy state only if it contains an integral number of de- Broglie wavelength.

i.e., we must have 2πr = nλ
But de-Broglie wavelength λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
∴ 2πr = \(\frac{n h}{m v}\)
mvr = \(\frac{n h}{2 \pi}\)

∴ The angular momentum L of the electron must be L = mvr = \(\frac{n h}{2 \pi}\) = 1, 2, 3 …

This is the famous Bohr’s quantisation condition for angular momentum. Thus only those circular orbits can be the allowed stationary states of an electron in which its angular momentum is an integral multiples of \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)

Question 39.
State the postulates of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom.
Answer:
Accepting the Rutherford’s nucleus model of an atom as well as the planck’s quantum theory, Bohr proposed an atomic model to explain the spectra emitted by hydrogen atom. Bohr’s atom model, so called planetary model of the atom, is based on the following postulates.

(i) Nuclear concept:
An atom consists of a small and massive central core, called nucleus around which planetary electrons revolve. The centripetal force required for their rotation is provided by the electrostatic attraction between the electrons and the nucleus.

(ii) Quantum condition:
Of all the possible circular orbits allowed by the classic theory, the electrons are permitted to circulate only in those orbits in which the angular momentum of an electron is an integral multiple of \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\), h being planck’s constant.
∵ For any permitted orbit L = mvr = \(\frac{n h}{2 \pi}\)
Where n is positive integer called principal quantum number. The above equation is quantum condition.

(iii) Stationary orbits:
while revolving around the nucleus in the permissible orbits, an electron does not radiate energy. These non-radiating orbits are called stationary orbits.

(iv) Frequency condition:
An atom can emit or absorb radiation in the form of discrete energy photon only when an electron jumps from a higher to lower orbit or from a lower to a higher orbit, respectively. If E x and E2 are the energies associated with these permitted orbits, then the frequency v of the emitted or absorbed radiation is given by
hυ = E2 – E1
This is Bohr’s frequency condition.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 40.
Using Bohr’s postulates, drive an expression for the radii of the permitted orbits in the hydrogen atom. What is Bohr’s radius?
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 14

According to Bohr’s theory, a hydrogen atom consists of a nucleus with a positive charge Ze, and a single electron of charge -e, which revolves around it in a circular orbit of radius rn. Here Z is the atomic number and for hydrogen Z = 1.

The electrostatic force of attraction between the nucleus and the electron is

F = \(\frac{k . Z e . e}{r_{n}^{2}}=\frac{k Z e^{2}}{r_{n}^{2}}\)

To keep the electron in its orbit, the centripetal force on the electron must be equal to the electrostatic attraction.

\(\frac{m v_{n}^{2}}{r_{n}}=\frac{k Z e^{2}}{r_{n}^{2}}\)
mvn2 = \(\frac{k Z e^{2}}{r_{n}^{2}}\)
rn = \(\frac{k Z e^{2}}{m v_{n}^{2}}\) …………..(1)

Where m is the mass of the electron and vn, its speed in an orbit of radius rn
Bohr’s quantisation condition for angular spectrum is

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 15

This is known as Bohr radius which is the smallest radius of the orbit in an atom. Bohr radius is also used as unit of length called Bohr. For hydrogen atom (Z = 1) the radius of nth orbit is rn = a0n2

Clearly, the radii of the permitted orbits are proportional to n2 and increase in the ratio of 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 … where n is called the principle quantum number.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The value of 1 amu is:
(a) 937 eV
(b) mass of carbon atom
(c) mass of one proton
(d) 1.60 × 10-27 kg
Answer:
(d) 1.60 × 10-27 kg

Question 2.
In the following nuclear reaction \({ }_{13}^{27} \mathrm{~A} l+{ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He} \rightarrow \mathrm{X}+{ }_{0}^{1} n\) the element X is:
(a) \({ }_{15}^{30} \mathrm{S}\)

(b) \({ }_{15}^{30} \mathrm{P}\)

(c) \({ }_{15}^{30} \mathrm{S}\)

(d) \({ }_{15}^{29} \mathrm{Si}\)

Answer:
(a) \({ }_{15}^{30} \mathrm{S}\)

Question 3.
The time taken by the radioactive element to reduce to \(\frac{1}{e}\) times is:
(a) half-life
(b) mean life
(c) half-life/2
(d) 2 mean life
Answer:
(b) mean life

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 4.
The moderator used in nuclear reactor is:
(a) cadmium
(b) boron carbide
(c) heavy water
(d) uranium \({ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}\)
Answer:
(c) heavy water

Question 5.
The nuclei \({ }_{13}^{27} \mathrm{Si}\) and \({ }_{14}^{28} \mathrm{Si}\) are examples of:
(a) isotopes
(b) isobars
(c) isotones
(d) isomers
Answer:
(c) isotones

Question 6.
The mean life (τ) and half life (T1/2) of a radioactive element are related as:
(a) τ = 2T1/2

(b) τ = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1 / 2}}{0.6937}\)

(c) τ = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1 / 2}}{2}\)

(d) τ = 0.6931 T1/2
Answer:
(b) τ = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1 / 2}}{0.6937}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 7.
The binding energy of nucleus is:
(a) 8.8 MeV
(b) 88 MeV
(c) 41.3 MeV
(d) 493 MeV
Answer:
(d) 493 MeV

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a moderator?
(a) Water
(b) Heavy water
(c) Liquid sodium
(d) Graphite
Answer:
(c) Liquid sodium

Question 9.
Wave number is defined as the number of waves:
(a) produced in one second
(b) in a distance of 1 metre
(c) in a distance of 3 × 108 metre
(d) in a distance of X metre
Answer:
(b) in a distance of 1 metre

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 10.
In hydrogen atom, which of the following transitions produce spectral line of maximum frequency?
(a) 2 → 1
(b) 6 → 2
(c) 4 → 3
(d) 5 → 1
Answer:
(d) 5 → 1

Question 11.
The ratio of areas enclosed by first three Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom is:
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 1 : 16 : 81
(c) 1 : 8 : 27
(d) 1 : 4 :9
Answer:
(b) 1 : 16 : 81

Question 12.
According to Bohr’s postulates, which of the following quantities take discrete values?
(a) Kinetic energy
(b) Potential energy
(c) Angular momentum
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(c) Angular momentum

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 13.
The first excitation potential energy or the minimum energy required to excite the atom from ground state of hydrogen atom is:
(a) 13.6 eV
(b) 10.2 eV
(c) 3.4 eV
(d) 1.89 eV
Answer:
(b) 10.2 eV

Question 14.
The ratio of the radii of the first three Bohr orbits is:
(a) 1 : \(\frac{1}{2}\) : \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(b) 1 : 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 8 : 27
(d) 1 : 4 : 9
Answer:
(d) 1 : 4 : 9

Question 15.
The time taken by a radioactive element to reduce to e~’A times its original amount is its:
(a) half-life period
(b) \(\frac{\text { half – life period }}{2}\)
(c) mean life period
(d) \(\frac{\text { mean life period }}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\text { mean life period }}{2}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 16.
In which of the following systems will the radius of the first orbit (n= 1) be minimum?
(a) single ionized helium
(b) double ionized lithium
(c) deuterium atom
(d) hydrogen atom
Answer:
(b) double ionized lithium

Question 17.
In Bohr’s model, if the atomic radius of the first orbit is rQ, then the radius of the fourth orbit is:
(a) 16 r0
(b) 4 r0
(c) r0
(d) \(\frac{r_{0}}{16}\)
Answer:
(a) 16 r0

Question 18.
In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the ratio of periods of revolution of an electron in n = 2 and n = 1 orbits is:
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 8 : 1
(d) 16 : 1
Answer:
(c) 8 : 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 19.
What is the angular momentum of an electron in Bohr’s hydrogen atom whose energy is – 0.544 eV:
(a) \(\frac{h}{\pi}\)

(b) \(\frac{2 h}{\pi}\)

(c) \(\frac{5 h}{\pi}\)

(d) \(\frac{7 h}{\pi}\)

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{5 h}{\pi}\)

Question 20.
Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first orbit in hydrogen atom is:
(a) 10.2 V
(b) 13.6 V
(c) 3.6 V
(d) 3.4 V
Answer:
(a) 10.2 V

Question 21.
The ratio of the frequencies of the long wavelength limits of Lyman and Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is:
(a) 5 : 27
(b) 27 : 5
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
Answer:
(b) 27 : 5

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 22.
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV what is the potential energy of the electron is this state?
(a) 0 eV
(b) – 27.2 eV
(c) 1 eV
(d) 2 eV
Answer:
(b) – 27.2 eV

Question 23.
Radius of first orbit is r. What is the radius of 2nd Bohr orbit?
(a) 4r
(b) 8r
(c) 2r
(d) 16r
Answer:
(a) 4r

Question 24.
In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the force on the electron depends on the principal quantum number as:
(a) F ∝ \(\frac{1}{n^{3}}\)

(b) F ∝ \(\frac{1}{n^{4}}\)

(c) F ∝ \(\frac{1}{n^{5}}\)

(b) F ∝ \(\frac{1}{n^{2}}\)
Answer:
(b) F ∝ \(\frac{1}{n^{4}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 25.
Orbital acceleration \(\left(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\right)\) of electron is:
(a) \(\frac{n^{2} h^{2}}{4 \pi^{2} m^{2} r^{3}}\)

(b) \(\frac{n^{2} h^{2}}{2 n^{2} r^{3}}\)

(c) \(\frac{4 n^{2} h^{2}}{\pi^{2} m^{2} r^{3}}\)

(d) \(\frac{4 n^{2} h^{2}}{4 \pi^{2} m^{2} r^{3}}\)

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{n^{2} h^{2}}{4 \pi^{2} m^{2} r^{3}}\)

Question 26.
In a beryllium atom, if a0 be the radius of the first orbit, then the radius of the second orbit will be:
(a) na0
(b) a0
(c) n2a0
(d) \(\frac{a_{0}}{n^{2}}\)
Answer:
(c) n2a0

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 27.
The ionisation potential for second He electron is:
(a) 13.6 eV
(b) 27.2 eV
(c) 100 eV
(d) 54.4 eV
Answer:
(d) 54.4 eV

Question 28.
The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom is in first to second excited state is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

(b)\(\frac{4}{9}\)

(c) \(\frac{9}{4}\)

(d) 4
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{9}{4}\)

Question 29.
The radius of electron’s second stationary orbit in Bohr’s atom is R. The radius of the third orbit will be:
(a) 3 R
(b) 2.25 R
(c) 9 R
(d) \(\frac{R}3}\)
Answer:
(b) 2.25 R

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 30.
In any Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy of the electron is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) 2
(c) –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) -2
Answer:
(c) –\(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 31.
In \({ }_{88} \mathrm{Ra}^{226}\) nucleus, there are:
(a) 138 protons and 88 neutrons
(b) 138 neutrons and 88 protons
(c) 226 protons and 88 electrons
(d) 226 neutrons and 138 electrons
Answer:
(b) 138 neutrons and 88 protons

Question 32.
Outside a nucleus:
(a) neutron is stable
(b) proton and neutron both are stable
(c) neutron is unstable
(d) neither neutron nor proton is stable
Answer:
(c) neutron is unstable

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 33.
Nuclear force are:
(a) short ranged independent attractive and charge independent
(b) short ranged dependentattractive and charge independent
(c) long ranged independent repulsive and charge independent
(d) long ranged dependent repulsive and charge dependent
Answer:
(a) short ranged independent attractive and charge independent

Question 34.
In nuclear reaction, \({ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}+{ }_{\mathrm{Z}} \mathrm{A} \rightarrow{\mathrm{z}}+2 \mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}+3}+\mathrm{A}\) A denotes:
(a) electron
(b) positron
(c) proton
(d) neutron
Answer:
(d) neutron

Question 35.
Complete the reaction:
\(n+{ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U} \rightarrow{ }_{56}^{144} \mathrm{Ba}+\ldots+3 n\)
(a) \({ }_{36} \mathrm{Kr}^{89}\)

(b) \({ }_{36} \mathrm{Kr}^{90}\)

(c) \({ }_{36} \mathrm{Kr}^{91}\)

(d) \({ }_{36} \mathrm{Kr}^{92}\)
Answer:
(a) \({ }_{36} \mathrm{Kr}^{89}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 36.
In the nuclear reaction \({ }_{6} \mathrm{C}^{11} \rightarrow{ }_{5} \mathrm{~B}^{11}+\mathrm{B}^{+}+\mathrm{X}\) what does X stand for:
(a) an electron
(b) a proton
(c) a neutron
(d) a neutrino
Answer:
(d) a neutrino

Question 37.
1g of hydrogen is converted into 0.993 g of helium in a thermonuclear reaction. The energy released is:
(a) 63 × 107 J
(b) 63 × 1010 J
(c) 63 × 1014 J
(d) 63 × 1020 J
Answer:
(b) 63 × 1010 J

Question 38.
In the given reaction \({ }_{z} \mathrm{X}^{\mathrm{A}} \rightarrow{ }_{\mathrm{z}+1} \mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}} \rightarrow{ }_{\mathrm{z}-1} \mathrm{~K}^{\mathrm{A}-4} \rightarrow_{\mathrm{z}-1} \mathrm{~K}^{\mathrm{A}-4}\) Radioactive radiations are emitted in the sequence:
(a) α, β, γ
(b) β, α, γ
(c) γ, α, β
(d) β, γ, α
Answer:
(b) β, α, γ

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 39.
The ratio of the surface area of the nuclei (assuming spherical shape) Zn64 and Al27 is:
(a) 9 : 16
(b) 16 : 9
(c) 64 : 27
(d) 4 : 3
Answer:
(b) 16 : 9

40.
A sample of uranium containing both the isotopes U235 and U238 is bombarded with a slow neutron. Then the isotope that fission readily is:
(a) U235
(b) U238
(c) both U235 and U238
(d) neither U235 nor U238
Answer:
(a) U235

41.
Match List -I with List -II and then select the correct answer using the codes given below:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 16

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics 17
Answer:
(c)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 42.
Match List – I with List – II.

List I List II
(i) Isotopes (A) same number of neutrons
(ii) Isotones (B) ∆m/A
(iii) Binding energy (C) same number of atomic number
(iv) Pracking fraction (D) same number of mass number
 (E) ∆m/c2

(a) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (E)
(b) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (E)
(d) (i) – (B); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (E)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (E)

Question 43.
Which one of the following statements is wrong in the context of X rays generated from a X-ray tube?
(a) Wavelength of characteristic X-ray decreases when the atomic number of the target increases.
(b) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the target.
(c) Intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the electrical power given to the X-ray tube.
(d) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the energy of the electrons in the X-ray tube
Answer:
(b) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the target.

Question 44.
Which one of the following statements is wrong in the context of Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom.
(a) the radius of the nth orbit is proportional to n2.
(b) the total energy of the electron in nth orbit is inversely proportional to n.
(c) the angular momentum of electron in an nth orbit is an integer multiple of \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\).
(d) the magnitude of potential energy of the electron in any orbit is greater than in kinetic energy.
Answer:
(b) the total energy of the electron in nth orbit is inversely proportional to n.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 45.
Which one of the following statements is correct the X-ray beam coming from an X-ray tube will be:
(a) monochromatic
(b) having all wavelength larger than a certain maximum wavelength.
(c) having all wavelength larger than a certain minimum wavelength.
(d) having all wavelength lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength
Answer:
(c) having all wavelength larger than a certain minimum wavelength.

Assertions and Reasons:

In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer is:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 46.
Assertion:
Nuclei having mass number about 60 are most stable.
Reason:
When two or more light nuclei are combined into a heavier nucleus, then the binding energy per nucleon will increase.
Hint:Nuclei having mass number around 60 have maximum binding energy per nucleon, so they are most stable.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 47.
Assertion:
A beam of charged particle is employed in the treatment of cancer.
Reason:
Charged particles on passing through a material medium lose their energy by causing ionisation of the atoms along their path.
Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 48.
Assertion :
In a radioactive disintegration, an electron is emitted by the nucleus.
Reason:
Electrons are present inside the nucleus.
Hint:
Electrons are emitted as P-particles when a neutron decays into a proton during a radioactive disintegration.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 49.
Assertion:
On α-decay daughter nucleus shifts two places to the left from the parent nucleus.
Reason:
An alpha particle carries four units of mass.
Hint:
An α-particle carries 2 units of positive charge. So the atomic number of the daughter nucleus decreases by 2 on α-decay.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Question 50.
Assertion:
Heavy water is a better moderator than normal water.
Reason:
Heavy water absorbs neutrons more efficiently than normal water.
Hint:
Heavy water absorbs fewer neutrons than normal water. The assertion is right. The reason is false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 51.
Assertion:
Total energy of electron in an hydrogen atom is negative.
Reason:
It is bounded to the nucleus.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 1.
Do we the photons have same mass? If not why?
Answer:
No, Mass of photon = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}}{m^{2}}=\frac{h v}{c^{2}}\)
Differrent radiations have different frequencies. So, their photons will have different mass.

Question 2.
Which photon is more energetic – a red one or a violet one?
Answer:
Since frequency of violet is greater than that of red, i.e., υviolet > υred
Violet photon has more energy because energy of a photon E = hυ.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 3.
What happens to the wavelength of a photon after it colloids with an electron?\
Answer:
A photon transfers a part of in energy to the colloiding electron, so its energy decreases and consequently wavelength increases.

Question 4.
Out of microwaves, ultra-violet rays and infrared rays, which radiations will be most effective for emission of electrons from a metallic surface?
Answer:
Ultra-violet rays are most effective for photo electric emission because they have highest frequency and hence most energetic.

Question 5.
On What principle is an electron microscope based?
Answer:
An electron microscope exploits the wave nature of an accelerated beam of electrons to provide high magnifying and resolving powers.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 6.
Can X-rays cause photo electric effect?
Answer:
Yes, X-rays can cause photo electric effect in sodium, zinc and copper.

Question 7.
Work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two photons each of energy 2.5 eV are incident on its surface, will the emission of electrons take place? Justify.
Answer:
No, energy of a single photon must be greater than the work function of the metal for emission of a photo electron.

Question 8.
Define stopping potential.
Answer:
The minimum negative (retarding) potential given to the anode for which the photo electric current becomes zero is called the cut-off or stopping potential.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 9.
How X-rays are produced?
Answer:
Whenever fast moving electrons are suddenly stopped by a metal target like copper. X-rays are produced.

Question 10.
Write down the applications of X-rays.
Answer:
X-rays are being used in the following fields.
(i) Medical diagnosis:
X-rays can pass through flesh more easily than through bones. Thus an X-ray radiograph containing a deep shadow of the bones and a light shadow of the flesh may be obtained. X-ray radiographs are used to detect fractures, foreign bodies, diseased organs etc…

(ii) Medical therapy:
Since X-rays are used to kill diseased tissues, they are employed to cure skin diseases, malignant tumours etc.

(iii) Industry:
X-rays are used to check for flaws in welded joints, motor tyres, tennis balls and wood. At the custom post, they are used for detection of contraband goods.

(iv) Scientific research:
X-ray diffraction is important tool to study the structure of the crystalline materials and molecules in crystals.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 11.
How X-rays are produced?
Answer:
X-rays are produced in X-ray tube which is essentially a discharge tube as shown in figure.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 1

A tungsten filament F is heated to incandescence by a battery. As a result, electrons are emitted from it by thermionic emission. The electrons are accelerated to high speeds by the voltage applied between the filament F and the anode. The target materials like tungsten, molybdenum are embedded in the face of the solid copper anode.

The face of the target is inclined at an angle with respect to the electron beam so that X-rays can leave the tube through its side. When high-speed electrons strike the target, they are decelerated suddenly and lose their kinetic energy. As a result, X-ray photons are produced. Since most of the kinetic energy of the bombarding electrons gets converted into heat, targets made of high melting point metals and a cooling system are usually employed.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 12.
Explain the origin of continuous X-ray.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 2

When a fast moving electron penetrates and approaches a target nucleus, the interaction between the electron and the nucleus either accelerates or decelerates it which results in a change of path of the electron. The radiation produced from such decelerating electron is called braking radiation.

The energy of the photon emitted is equal to the loss of kinetic energy of the electron. Since an electron may lose part or all of its energy to the photon, the photons are emitted with all possible energies. The continuous X-ray spectrum is due to such radiations.

When an electron gives up all its energy, then the photon is emitted with highest frequency υ0 (or lowest wavelength λ0). The initial kinetic energy of an electron is given by eV where V is the accelerating voltage.
∴ eV = hυ0
eV = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda_{0}}\)

λ0 = \(\frac{h c}{\mathrm{eV}}\)

where λ0 is the cut-off wavelength, substituting the known values in the above equation, we get

λ0 = \(\frac{12400}{\mathrm{~V}}\)
The value of depends only on the accelerating potential and is same for all targets.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 13.
Explain the origin of characteristic X-ray spectra.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 3

X-ray spectra show some narrow peaks at some well-defined wavelengths when the target is hit by fast electrons. The line spectrum showing these peaks is Called characteristic X-ray spectrum. This is to electronic transitions within the atoms. When an energetic electron penetrates into the target atom and removes some of the K-shell electrons.

Then the electrons from outer orbits jump to fill up the vacancy so created in the K-shell. During the downward transition, the energy difference between the levels is given out in the form of X-ray photon of definite wavelength. Such wavelengths, characteristic of the target, constitute the line spectrum.

From the figure, it is evident that R-series of lines in the X-ray spectrum of an element arises due to the electronic transition from L, M, N… levels to the K- level. Similarly, the longer wavelength L-series originates when an L-electron is knocked out of the atom and the corresponding vacancy is filled by the electronic transition from M, N, O… and so on.

Question 14.
The threshold wavelength for sodium is 680nm, What is the photoelectric work function in eV.
(1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 ms-1)
Answer:
Work function w = \(\frac{h v_{0}}{e}\)
= \(\frac{h c}{\lambda_{0} e}\)
= \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{680 \times 10^{-9} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= 1.825 eV

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 15.
Find the number of photons radiated per second when mean wavelength of light radiated by 100 W lamp is 5000 Å.
Answer:
Power p = \(\frac{n h c}{\lambda t}\)
\(\frac{n}{t}=\frac{p_{\lambda}}{h c}\)
= \(\frac{100 \times 5000 \times 10^{-10}}{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}\)

= 2.50 × 1020 photons

Question 16.
What is the frequency of a photo whose energy is 66.3eV.
Answer:
E = 66.3 eV
= 66.3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
Frequency υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}}{h}\)
= \(\frac{66.3 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= 1.6 × 1016 Hz

Question 17.
For a photosensitive surface, work function is 3.3 × 10-19 J. Find threshold frequency.
Answer:
Threshold frequency υ0 = \(\frac{w_{0}}{h}\)
= \(\frac{3.5 \times 10^{-19}}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= 5 × 1014 Hz.

Question 18.
The following table gives the value of work function for a few photo sensitive metals

MetalWork function (eV)
Na1.92
K2.15
M04.17

In each of these metal is exposed to radiations of wavelength 300 nm, which of them will not emit photoelectrons and why?
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 4

M0 will not emit photoelectrons because the energy of incident photon is less than the work function of M0.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
As the intensity of incident light increases:
(a) photo electric current increases.
(b) photo electric current decreases.
(c) K.E of emitted photo electron decreases
(d) K.E of emitted photo electron increases
Answer:
(a) photo electric current increases.

Question 2.
The stopping potential (V ) depends up on:
(a) intensity of incident light.
(b) angle of incidence.
(c) surface nature of the substance.
(d) does not depend upon intensity of incident light.
Answer:
(d) does not depend upon intensity of incident light.

Question 3.
When wavelength of incident photon is decreased then:
(a) photo electric current increases.
(b) velocity of emitted photo electron increases.
(c) velocity of emitted photo electron decreases.
(d) velocity of photo electron does not change
Answer:
(b) velocity of emitted photo electron increases.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 4.
Of the following, the graph which represents the variation of energy (E) of a photon with wavelength (λ) of the radiation is:
(a) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 5

(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 6

(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 7

(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 8

Answer:
(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 6

Question 5.
The figure shows the variation of photo current with anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for three different radiations. Let I , I, and I be the intensities and f, f, and f be the frequencies for the curve a, b and c respectively.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 9

(a) fa = fb and Ia ≠ Ib
(b) fa = fc and Ia = Ic
(c) fa = fb and Ia = Ib
(d) fa ≠ fb and Ia = Ib
Answer:
(a) fa = fb and Ia ≠ Ib

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 6.
According to Einstein’s photo electric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photo electrons ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is:
(a) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 10

(b) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 11

(c) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 12

(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 13

Answer:
(d) TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 13

Question 7.
Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively, successively illuminates a metal of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of maximum K.E of the emitted electron will be:
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
Answer:
(b) 1 : 4

Question 8.
Two identical photo-cathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2. If the velocities of the photo electrons of mass m coming out are respectively V1 and V2. Then:
(a) V1 – V2 = \(\left[\frac{2 h}{m}\left(f_{1}-f_{2}\right)\right]^{1 / 2}\)

(b) V12 – V22 = \(\frac{2 h}{m}\left(f_{1}-f_{2}\right)\)

(c) V1 + V2 = \(\left[\frac{2 h}{m}\left(f_{1}+f_{2}\right)\right]^{1 / 2}\)

(d) V12 + V22 = \(\frac{2 h}{m}\left(f_{1}+f_{2}\right)\)

Answer:
(b) V12 – V22 = \(\frac{2 h}{m}\left(f_{1}-f_{2}\right)\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 9.
When radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a metallic surface, the stopping potential is 4.8 volts. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of double the wavelength, then the stopping potential becomes 1.6 volts. Then the threshold wavelength for the surface is:
(a) 2λ
(b) 2λ
(c) 6λ
(d) 8λ
Answer:
(b) 2λ

Question 10.
A photon and an electron have equal energy E. λphoton / λelectron is proportional to:
(a) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{E}}\)
(b) √E
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{E}}}\)
(d) does not depend upon E
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{E}}}\)

Question 11.
If the work function of the metal is w and the frequency of incident light is v, there will be no emission of photoelectrons when:
(a) υ = \(\frac{w}{h}\)

(b) υ < \(\frac{w}{h}\)

(c) υ > \(\frac{w}{h}\)

(d) υ ≥ \(\frac{w}{h}\)
Answer:
(c) υ > \(\frac{w}{h}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 12.
If the distance of the source from a photo electric cell is varied, the saturation current I of the photo cell varies with the distance d as:
(a) I ∝ \(\frac{1}{d}\)
(b) I ∝ d2
(c) I ∝ \(\frac{1}{d^{2}}\)
(d) I ∝ d
Answer:
(b) I ∝ d2

Question 13.
When light falls on a metal surface, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photo electrons depends upon:
(a) the time for which light falls on the metal
(b) frequency of the incident light
(c) intensity of the incident light
(d) velocity of the incident light
Answer:
(b) frequency of the incident light

Question 14.
The figure shows different graphs between stopping potential (V0) and frequency (υ) for photosensitive surfaces of cesium, potassium, sodium and lithium. The plots are parallel. Correct ranking of the targets according to their work function greatest first will be:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 14

(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(c) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(d) (i) = (iii) > (ii) = (iv)
Answer:
(c) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (I)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 15.
What will be the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of proton and a-particle of same energy?
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
Answer:
(a) 2 : 1

Question 16.
There are n1 protons of frequency v1 in a beam of light. In an equally energetic beam, there are n2 protons of frequency v2 Then the correct relation is:
(a) \(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\) = 1

(b) \(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}=\frac{\nu_{1}}{\nu_{2}}\)

(c) \(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}\)

(d) \(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}=\frac{v_{1}^{2}}{v_{2}^{2}}\)

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}\)

Question 17.
An electron and proton are moving with the same speed. Mass of proton is equal to 1836 times of mass of electron. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths will be:
(a) 1
(b) 1836
(c) \(\frac{1}{1836}\)
(d) 918
Answer:
(b) 1836

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 18.
The idea of wave associated with a moving electron was experimentally confirmed by:
(a) Davisson and Germer
(b) Hertz
(c) Dunnigton
(d) Rutherford
Answer:
(a) Davisson and Germer

Question 19.
If the kinetic energy of the moving particle is E, then the de Broglie wavelength is:
(a) λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{E}}}\)

(b) λ = \(\frac{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{E}}}{h}\)

(c) λ = \(h \sqrt{2 m \mathrm{E}}\)

(d) λ = \(\frac{h}{\mathrm{E} \sqrt{2 m}}\)

Answer:
(a) λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{E}}}\)

Question 20.
The wave-particle duality was extended to particles as matter wave by:
(a) Max Planck
(b) Einstein
(c) Rutherford
(d) de Broglie
Answer:
(d) de Broglie

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 21.
The particles emitted during photo electric effect are found to be:
(a) protons
(b) electrons
(c) neutrons
(d) positrons
Answer:
(b) electrons

Question 22.
The important application of the de Broglie waves is:
(a) electron microscope
(b) compound microscope
(c) spectrometer
(d) CRO
Answer:
(a) electron microscope

Question 23.
If m is the mass of a wave moving with velocity v then the wavelength of matter wave is given by λ =
(a) \(\frac{h}{m v^{2}}\)

(b) \(\frac{m v}{h}\)

(c) \(\frac{h}{m v}\)

(d) \(\frac{h v}{m}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{h}{m v}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 24.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The current in a photo cell increases with increasing frequency of light.
(b) The photo current is proportional to applied voltage.
(c) The photo current increases with increasing intensity of light.
(d) The stopping potential increases with increasing intensity of incident light.
Answer:
(c) The photo current increases with increasing intensity of light.

Question 25.
Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) photographic plates are sensitive to infrared rays.
(b) photographic plates are sensitive to ultraviolet rays.
(c) infrared rays are invisible but can cast shadows like visible light.
(d) infrared photons have more energy than photons of visible light.
Answer:
(d) infrared photons have more energy than photons of visible light.

Question 26.
Photo electric effect can be explained by:
(a) corpuscular theory of light
(b) wave nature of light
(c) Bohr’s theory
(d) quantum theory of light
Answer:
(d) quantum theory of light

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 27.
Which of the following waves can produce photo electric effect?
(a) ultra sound
(b) infrared
(c) radio waves
(d) X – rays
Answer:
(d) X – rays

Question 28.
If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same X, it implies that they have the same:
(a) energy
(b) momentum
(c) velocity
(d) angular momentum
Answer:
(b) momentum

Question 29.
When ultraviolet rays are incident on metal plate then photoelectric effect does not occur, it occurs by incidence of:
(a) infrared rays
(b) X – rays
(c) radio waves
(d) micro waves
Answer:
(b) X – rays

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 30.
Which one of the following statement is not true about photo electric emission?
(a) For a given frequency, the number of photo electrons emitter per second is proportional to the intensity of incident light.
(b) Below a definite threshold frequency, no photo electrons are emitted, no matter the intensity of light.
(c) Above threshold frequency, the maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons is proportional to the frequency of incident light.
(d) Saturation value of the photo electric current is independent of the intensity of incident light.
Answer:
(d) Saturation value of the photo electric current is independent of the intensity of incident light.

Question 31.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The photo current increases with intensity of light.
(b) The stopping potential increases with increase of incident light.
(c) The current in photo cell increases with increasing frequency.
(d) The photo current is proportional to the applied voltage.
Answer:
(a) The photo current increases with intensity of light.

Question 32.
Which of the following is not the property of cathode rays?
(a) It produces heating effect
(b) It does not deflect in electric field
(c) It casts shadow
(d) It produces fluorescence.
Answer:
(b) It does not deflect in electric field

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 33.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the choices given below:

List – I List – II
(i) Franck – Hertz experiment (A) Particle nature of light
(ii) Photo electric experiment (B) Discrete energy levels of atom
(iii) Davisson – Germer experiment (C) Wave nature of electron
 (D) Structure of atom

(a) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (B)
(b) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (D)
(c) (i) – (B); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (D)
(d) (i) – (B); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (D)
Answer:
(c) (i) – (B); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (D)

Question 34.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the choices given below:

List – I List – II
(i) Intensity of X  rays (A) Energy levels are too close to each other
(ii) Hydrogen atom does not emit X rays (B) Number of electrons incident per second
(iii) X ray photon has (C) Not reflected by the target
(iv) X rays does not used for Radar purpose. (D) Electric charge and magnetic moment.
 (E) Neither electric charge nor magnetic moment.

(a) (i) – (B); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (E)
(d) (i) – (B); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (E)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (B); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (C)

Assertions and Reasons:

In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer is:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 35.
Assertion:
A particle of mass m at rest decay into two particle m1 and m2 having non¬zero velocities will have ratio of de Broglie wavelengths unity.
Reason:
Here we cannot apply conservation of linear momentum.
Hint:
m1v1 + m2v2 = m × 0
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 36.
Assertion:
The de Broglie equation has significance for any microscopic or sub- microscopic particle.
Reason:
The de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the mass of the object if velocity is constant.
Hint:
for constant υ, λ ∝ \(\frac{1}{m}\)
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 37.
Assertion:
Mass of moving photon varies inversely as the wavelength.
Reason:
Energy of the particle = mass × (speed of light)2
Hint:
Mass and energy are related to each other.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 38.
Assertion:
A photo cell is called an electric eye.
Reason:
When light is incident on some semiconductor, its electrical resistance is reduced.
Hint:
Photo cell Works on the principle of photo electric emission.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 39.
Assertion:
A photon has no rest mass, yet it carries definite momentum.
Reason:
Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.
Hint:
m = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}}{c^{2}}\), p = mc = \(\frac{h}{\lambda}\)
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 40.
Assertion:
The resolving power of an electron microscope is far greater than that of an optical microscope.
Reason:
The de-Broglie wavelength of electron is much smaller than that of the visible light.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 41.
Assertion:
Radioactive nuclei emit
(3-particles.
Reason:
Electrons exist inside the nucleus.
Hint:
n → p + e nuclear transformation, so electron do not exist in the nucleus.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 42.
Assertion:
X-rays can penetrate through the flesh but not through the bones.
Reason:
The penetrating power of X – rays depends on voltage.
Hint:
X-ray can’t pass through heavier element like phosphorous and calcium (bone) but pass through lighter element (flesh) like oxygen, hydrogen and carbon.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 1.
How will you distinguish between a plane, a concave and convex mirror without touching its surface?
Answer:
We see our own face in each mirror and note the magnification of the image.

  • If magnification is more than 1, mirror is plane.
  • If magnification is more than 1, mirror is concave.
  • If magnification is less than 1, mirror is m convex.

Question 2.
What should be the change in the focal length of n concave mirror when it is held in water?
Answer:
No change. The focal length of a concave mirror does not depend on the nature of the medium.

Question 3.
What is the cause of refraction of light?
Answer:
Light travels with different speeds in different media. The bending or refraction of light occurs due to the change in speed of light as it passes from one medium to another.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 4.
What happens to a focal length of a convex lens, when it is immersed in water?
Answer:
Power of a lens, P ∝ (p – 1)
As wµg < aµg, so power of the glass lens will decrease when it is immersed in water.

Question 5.
Why is the smote of cigarette blue?
Answer:
This is because smoke particle scatter blue light preferentially.

Question 6.
Why do we observe a spectrum in the .minimum deviation position?
Answer:
In the position of minimum deviation, the rays of different colours will suffer almost the same deviation and they can be focussed on the same screen.

Question 7.
A right angle prism is placed before an object sn the rwo positions shown in figure. The prism is made of crown glass with critical angle equal to 41°. Trace the paths of two rays from P and Q. normal to the hypotenuse in figure (a) and parallel to the hypotenuse in figure (b).

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 3

Answer:
As the angle of incidence inside the prism is greater than the critical angle (41°), the light rays suffer total internal reflection twice in case (a) and once in case (b). In both cases, inverted image P’ Q’ is formed.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 8.
A light wave enters from air into glass. How will the following be affected, (i) Energy of t he wave, (ii) Frequency of the wave.
Answer:
(i) Energy of the wave decreases because a part of the light wave is reflected back into air.
(ii) Frequency of the wave remains unchanged.

Question 9.
What are the reasons to believe that light is a wave motion?
Answer:
Light undergoes interference, diffraction and polarisation. These phenomena establish that light is a wave motion.

Question 10.
Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference pattern?
Answer:
Coherent sources have a constant phase difference. This ensures that the positions of maxima and minima do not change with time. i.e., a sustained interference pattern is obtained.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 11.
Two slits in young’s double slit experiment are illuminated by two different lamps emitting light of the same wavelength. Will you observe the interference pattern ? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. The light wave emitted by two different lamps cannot be coherent. So the conditions of maxima and minima of intensity will change rapidly on the screen, producing uniform illumination.

Question 12.
Why is interference pattern not detected, when the two coherent sources are far apart?
Answer:
When the distance d between the two coherent sources is large, the fringe width (β ∝ \(\frac{1}{d}\)) a becomes too small to be detected. The interference pattern cannot be observed.

Question 13.
State the essential condition for diffraction of light to occur.
Answer:
Diffraction of light occurs when size of the obstacle or the aperture is comparable to the wavelength of light.

Question 14.
Will ultrasonic waves show any polarisation ? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
No, ultrasonic waves are longitudinal in nature. So they cannot be polarised.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 15.
Name three properties, which are mutually perpendicular to each gives in a plane, polarised light wave.
Answer:
Plane of vibration, plane of polarisation and direction of propagation of the light wave.

Question 16.
A disc is placed on a surface of pond which has refractive index 5/3. A source of light is placed 4 cm below the surface of liquid. What is the minimum diameter of the disc needed to that light is not coming out. The light rays will be totally internally reflected if i > ic.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 5

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 17.
In young’s double slit experiment, the intensity ratio of two coherent sources are 49 :1 Calculate the maximum and minimum intensities.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 6

Ratio of maximum intensity and minimum intensity = 16 : 9

Question 18.
A concave mirror has a focal length of 18 cm. Rnd the position or positions of an object forwhich the image is double of the object size.
Answer:
Let the distance of object from mirror is x.
By sign conventions,
f = – 18 cm
u = – x
If image is real, m = -2
Magnification, m = \(\frac{-v}{u}\)
-2 = \(\frac{-v}{u}\)
v = – 2x

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 7

The distance of the object from the mirror are 9 cm or 27 cm.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 19.
A ray falls on a prism ABC (AB = BC) and travels as shown in figure. What is the minimum refractive index of the prism material.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 8

Since AB = BC
∠BAC = ∠ACB = 45°
Total internal reflection takes place at AB and BC.
i.e., 45° ≥ C
sin 45° ≥ sin C
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) ≥ \(\frac{1}{\mu}\)
µ ≥ √2
∴ µmin = √2

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 9

Question 20.
The refractive index of glass is 1.5 and that of water is 13. If the speed of light in water is 2.25 × 108 ms-1, what is the speed of light in glass?
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 10

Question 21.
A light of wavelength 6000 Å in air, enters a medium with refractive index 1.5. What will be the frequency and wavelength of light in that medium.
Answer:
When light travels from air to the refracting medium, in frequency remains unchanged.
∴ υ = \(\frac{c}{\lambda}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{6000 \times 10^{-10}}\)
= 5 × 1014 Hz
wavelength of light in the medium
λ’ = \(\frac{\lambda}{\mu}=\frac{6000 \times 10^{-10}}{1.5}\) = 4000 Å

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 22.
The near point and far point of a person are 40 cm and 250 cm respectively. Determine the power of the lens he / she should use while reading a book kept at the distance 25 cm from the eye.
Answer:
focal length f = \(\frac{y \mathrm{D}}{y-\mathrm{D}}\)

= \(\frac{40 \times 25}{40-25}=\frac{200}{3}\)cm = \(\frac{2}{3}\) cm

Power of the lens P = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
= \(\frac{3}{2}\) D = 1.5 D.

Question 23.
The focal length of the objective and eye lenses of a microscope are 1.6 cm and 2.5 cm respectively. The distance between the two lenses is 21.7 cm. If the final image is formed at infinity, what is the linear magnification?
Answer:
For the objective lens,
υ0 = L – fe
= 21.7 – 2.5 = + 19.2 cm
Here f0 = + 1.6 cm
\(\frac{1}{u_{0}}=\frac{1}{v_{0}}-\frac{1}{f_{0}}\)

\(\frac{1}{u_{0}}=\frac{1}{19.2}-\frac{1}{1.6}=\frac{17.6}{19.2 \times 1.6}\)

Magnification of the microscope, the image at infinity m = \(\frac{v_{0}}{u_{0}} \cdot \frac{\mathrm{D}}{f_{e}}\)

= \(\frac{17.6}{19.2 \times 1.6} \times 19.2 \times \frac{25}{2.5}\) = 11 × 10 = 110

Question 24.
A thin convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has 20 cm focal length in air. If the lens is completely immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6, find its focal length.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 11

Question 25.
A slit of width ‘a’ is illuminated by red light of wavelength 6500 A. For what value of ‘a’ will
(i) the first minimum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30 and
(ii) The first minimum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30°.
Answer:
(i) For first minimum of diffraction pattern a sin θ = λ
a = \(\frac{\lambda}{\sin \theta}=\frac{6500 \times 10^{-10}}{0.5}\)
= 1.3 × 10-6 m.

(ii) For first secondary maximum diffraction pattern, a sin θ = \(\frac{3 \lambda}{2}\)
a = \(\frac{3 \lambda}{2 \sin \theta}=\frac{3 \times 6500 \times 10^{-10}}{2 \times 0.5}\)
= 1.95 × 10-6 m.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 26.
For what distance is ray optics a good approximation when the aperture is 3mm wide and the wavelength is 500 nm?
Answer:
Here a = 3mm = 3× 10-3
λ = 500 nm = 500 × 10-9 m.
Fresnel distance DF = \(\frac{a^{2}}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{\left(3 \times 10^{-3}\right)^{2}}{500 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 18 m

Question 27.
An object is placed at a distance of 30.0 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 20.0 cm. What Is the nature of the image and image distance from the mirror.
Answer:
Here, u = – 30 cm, f = – 20 cm

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 12

The image is formed at a distance 60 cm to the left of the concave mirror.
Magnification m = \(-\frac{v}{u}=-\frac{(-60)}{(-30)}\) = – 2
As the sign of magnification is negative, the image is inverted, magnified by two times and real image.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Light wave:
(a) require air to travel
(b) can travel in perfect vacuum
(c) require an electric field to travel
(d) require an magnetic field to travel
Answer:
(b) can travel in perfect vacuum

Question 2.
If the wavelength of incident light is increased by four times then the amount of scattering will be:
(a) increased by 256 times
(b) decreased by 256 times
(c) increased by 16 times
(d) decreased by 64 times
Answer:
(b) decreased by 256 times

Question 3.
Amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the wavelength is given by:
(a) Wien’s law
(b) Rayleigh’s law
(c) Stefan’s law
(d) Shell’s law
Answer:
(b) Rayleigh’s law

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 4.
Among the spectrum of visible light, shortest wavelength is ________ colour.
(a) violet
(b) red
(c) yellow
(d) blue
Answer:
(a) violet

Question 5.
If the source is at infinity, the shape of the wavefront is:
(a) spherical
(b) cylindrical
(c) plane
(d) elliptical
Answer:
(c) plane

Question 6.
When the distance between the source and the screen is increased in young’s double slit experiment, the fringe:
(a) width increases
(b) width decreases
(c) disappears
(d) width remains constant
Answer:
(a) width increases

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 7.
The bending of light rays at any edge is known as:
(a) interference
(b) polarisation
(c) refraction
(d) diffraction
Answer:
(d) diffraction

Question 8.
The grating element is:
(a) number of lines per metre
(b) width of grating
(c) combined width of a slit and ruling
(d) area of the grating
Answer:
(c) combined width of a slit and ruling

Question 9.
Plane polarised light can be produced by:
(a) telescope
(b) microscope
(c) spectrometer
(d) pile of plates
Answer:
(d) pile of plates

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 10.
Polarisation of light by reflection was discovered by: .
(a) Fraunhofer
(b) Fresnel
(c) Malus
(d) Bartholinus
Answer:
(c) Malus

Question 11.
Which one of the following waves cannot be polarised?
(a) x-rays
(b) Tranverse wave in string
(c) Longitudinal waves in gas
(d) Radio waves
Answer:
(c) Longitudinal waves in gas

Question 12.
The face angles of a Nicol prism is:
(a) 60° and 118°
(b) 60° and 120°
(c) 130° and 50°
(d) 72° and 108°
Answer:
(d) 72° and 108°

Question 13.
An example of uniaxial crystal is:
(a) mica
(b) quartz
(c) totaz
(d) selenite
Answer:
(b) quartz

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 14.
An example of biaxial crystal is:
(a) calcite
(b) quartz
(c) mica
(d) tourmaline
Answer:
(c) mica

Question 15.
According to Brewster’s law:
(a) µ = tan ip
(b) ip = tan µ
(c) tan ip = \(\frac{1}{\mu}\)
(d) tan ip = µ – ip
Answer:
(a) µ = tan ip

Question 16.
In a pile of plates, the angle of inclination of the plates to the axis of the tube is:
(a) 90°
(b) 51.5°
(c) 32.5°
(d) 33.7°
Answer:
(c) 32.5°

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 17.
The angle of polarisation for glass is:
(a) 52.5°
(b) 37.5°
(c) 32.5°
(d) 56.3°
Answer:
(b) 37.5°

Question 18.
The refractive index for ordinary light for sodium light is:
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.55
(c) 1.658
(d) 1.486
Answer:
(c) 1.658

Question 19.
The refractive index for Canada balsam is:
(a) 1.486
(b) 1.523
(c) 1.5
(d) 1.628
Answer:
(b) 1.523

Question 20.
The amount of scattering is directly proportional to:
(a) \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)
(b) λ4
(c) \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{-4}}\)
(d) λ-4
Answer:
(d) λ-4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 21.
A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image will form at:
(a) infinity
(b) focus
(c) pole
(d) 10 cm behind the mirror
Answer:
(d) 10 cm behind the mirror

Question 22.
A fish at a. depth of 20 cm in water is viewed by an observer on the tank of a lake. To what height the image of the fish is raised:
(a) 5 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c)20cm
(d) 10 cm
Answer:
(a) 5 cm

Question 23.
A fish is a little away below the surface of a lake. If the critical angle is 49°, then the fish could see things above the wave surface with in an angular of 0° where 0 is:
(a) 49°
(b) 90°
(c) 98°
(d) 24°
Answer:
(c) 98°

Question 24.
If I1 and I2 be the size of the images respectively for the two positions of lens in the displacement method, then the size of the object is:
(a) \(\sqrt{I_{1} I_{2}}\)
(b) I1/I2
(c) I1 I2
(d) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{I}_{1}}{\mathrm{I}_{2}}}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\sqrt{I_{1} I_{2}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 25.
The plane surface of a plane – convex lens of focal length/is silvered. It will behave as:
(a) plane mirror
(b) concave mirror of focal length \(\frac{f}{2}\)
(c) convex mirror of focal length 2f
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) concave mirror of focal length \(\frac{f}{2}\)

Question 26.
A lens of power – 2 dioptres is placed in contact with a lens of power + 1 dioptre. The combination will behave like:
(a) A convergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(b) A divergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(c) A divergent lens of focal length 50 cm
(d) A convergent lens of focal length 50 cm
Answer:
(b) A divergent lens of focal length 100 cm

Question 27.
An object 4 cm tall is placed 90 cm from a concave spherical mirror which as a radius of curvature of 20 cm. The size of the image is:
(a) 0.11 cm
(b) 0.55 cm
(c) 0.6 cm
(d) 0.50 cm
Answer:
(d) 0.50 cm

Question 28.
The focal length of concave mirror is 50 cm. Where an object be placed so that its image is two times and inverted:
(a) 75 cm
(b) 10cm
(c) 68 cm
(d) 50 cm
Answer:
(a) 75 cm

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 29.
The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by convex lens is:
(a) 1.5 f
(b) 2.5 f
(c) 4 f
(d) 2 f
Answer:
(c) 4 f

Question 30.
The angle of minimum deviation for a prism is 40° and the angle of the prism is 60°. The angle of incidence in this prism will be:
(a) 50°
(b) 100°
(c) 60°
(d) 30°
Answer:
(a) 50°

Question 31.
If mx and m2 be the linear magnification of the objective lens and eye lens of a compound microscope, then the magnifying power of the compound microscope will be:
(a) m1 – m2
(b) \(\sqrt{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)
(c) \(\frac{m_{1}+m_{2}}{2}\)
(d) m1 × m2
Answer:
(d) m1 × m2

Question 32.
The magnification produced by the objective lens and the eye lens of compound microscope are 20 and 5 respectively. The magnifying power of this microscope is:
(a) 25
(b) 15
(c) 40
(d) 100
Answer:
(d) 100

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 33.
When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air:
(a) in wavelength decreases
(b) in wavelength increases
(c) its frequency increases
(d) neither in wavelength nor in frequency changes.
Answer:
(a) in wavelength decreases

Question 34.
A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices μ1, μ2, μ3 and μ4 as shown in fig.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 1

The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emerged ray CD is parallel to the incident ray AB, we must have:

(a) μ1 = μ2
(b) μ2 = μ3
(c) μ3 = μ4
(d) μ4 = μ1
Answer:
(d) μ4 = μ1

Question 35.
A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5. The distance of the virtual image from the surface of the sphere is:
(a) 2 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 112 cm
Answer:
(c) 6 cm

Question 36.
An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQuestion is incident onto it. For minimum deviation:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics 2
(a) PQ is horizontal
(b) QR is horizontal
(c) RS is horizontal
(d) any one will be horizontal
Answer:
(b) QR is horizontal

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 37.
In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is:
(a) virtual, erect and magnified
(b) real, erect and magnified
(c) real, inverted and magnified
(d) virtual, erect and reduced
Answer:
(c) real, inverted and magnified

Question 38.
A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered by a opaque screen:
(a) half the image will disappear
(b) complete image will disappear
(c) intensity of image will decrease
(d) intensity of image will increase
Answer:
(c) intensity of image will decrease

Question 39.
To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of:
(a) 60°
(b) 90°
(c) 120°
(d) 30°
Answer:
(b) 90°

Question 40.
Which of the following is used in optical fibres?
(a) Total internal reflection
(b) Scattering
(c) Diffraction
(d) Refraction
Answer:
(a) Total internal reflection

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 41.
An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to:
(a) reduce spherical aberration
(b) have high resolution
(c) increase span of observation
(d) have low dispersion
Answer:
(b) have high resolution

Question 42.
A boy 1.5 m tall with his eye level at 1.35 m stands before a mirror fixed on a wall. The minimum length of mirror required to view the complete image of boy is:
(a) 0.7 m
(b) 0.5 m
(c) 0.75 m
(d) 0.85 m
Answer:
(c) 0.75 m

Question 43.
A pencil of light rays falls on a plane mirror and forms a real image, so the incident rays are:
(a) parallel
(b) diverging
(c) converging
(d) statement is false
Answer:
(c) converging

Question 44.
For a real object, which of the following can produce a real image?
(a) concave mirror
(b) plane mirror
(c) convex mirror
(d) concave lens
Answer:
(a) concave mirror

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 45.
Which mirror is to be used to obtain a parallel beam of light from a small lamp?
(a) plane mirror
(b) convex mirror
(c) concave mirror
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) concave mirror

Question 46.
The reddish appearance of rising and setting sun is due to:
(a) reflection of light
(b) diffraction of light
(c) scattering of light
(d) interference of light
Answer:
(c) scattering of light

Question 47.
For normal vision, the distance of distinct vision of eye is:
(a) 30 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 40 cm
(d) infinite
Answer:
(b) 25 cm

Question 48.
In the formation of a rainbow, the light from the sun on water droplets undergoes:
(a) dispersion only
(b) only total internal reflection
(c) dispersion and total internal reflection
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) dispersion and total internal reflection

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 49.
In order to increase the angular magnification of a simple microscope, one should increase:
(a) the object size
(b) the aperture of the lens
(c) the focal length of the lens
(d) the power of the lens
Answer:
(d) the power of the lens

Question 50.
F1 and F2 are focal lengths of objective and eyepiece respectively of the telescope. The angular tnagnification fof the given telescope is equal to:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}_{1}}{\mathrm{~F}_{2}}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}_{2}}{\mathrm{~F}_{1}}\)

(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}_{1} \mathrm{~F}_{2}}{\mathrm{~F}_{1}+\mathrm{F}_{2}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}_{1}+\mathrm{F}_{2}}{\mathrm{~F}_{1} \mathrm{~F}_{2}}\)

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}_{1}}{\mathrm{~F}_{2}}\)

Question 51.
Focal length of objective and eyepiece of telescope are 200 cm and 10 cm respectively. What is the length of telescope for normal adjustment?
(a) 190 cm
(b) 250 cm
(c) 225 cm
(d) 210 cm
Answer:
(d) 210 cm

Question 52.
The focal length of the objective and eye piece of a telescope are respectively 100 cm and 2 cm. The moon subtends angle of 0.5°, the angle subtended by the moon’s image will be:
(a) 10°
(b) 25°
(c) 100°
(d) 75°
Answer:
(b) 25°

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 53.
Two mirrors are kept at 60° to each other and a body is placed at middle. The total number of images formed is:
(a) six
(b) four
(c) five
(d) three
Answer:
(c) five

Question 54.
Apoint source kept at a distance of 1000 m has a illumination I. To change the illumination to 161, the new distance should become:
(a) 250 m
(b) 500 m
(c) 750 m
(d) 800 m
Answer:
(a) 250 m

Question 55.
What should be the maximum acceptable angles at the air-core interface on an optical fibre if nx and n2 are the refractive indices of the core and cladding respectively?
(a) sin-1 \(\left(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\right)\)

(b) sin-1 \(\sqrt{n_{1}^{2}-n_{2}^{2}}\)

(c) tan-1 \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\)

(d) sin-1 \(\left(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\right)\)

Answer:
(b) sin-1 \(\sqrt{n_{1}^{2}-n_{2}^{2}}\)

Question 56.
An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the object becomes invisible, it should:
(a) behave as a perfect reflector
(b) absorb all light falling on it
(c) have refractive index one
(d) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding fluid.
Answer:
(d) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding fluid.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 57.
Mirage is a phenomenon due to:
(a) reflection of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) total internal reflection of light
(d) diffraction of light
Answer:
(c) total internal reflection of light

Question 58.
One can not see through fog, because:
(a) fog absorbs the light
(b) light suffers total reflection at droplets
(c) refractive index of the fog is infinity
(d) light is scattered by the droplets
Answer:
(d) light is scattered by the droplets

Question 59.
Ray optics is valid, when characteristic dimensions are:
(a) much smaller than the wavelength of light
(b) much larger than the wavelength of light
(c) of the source order as the wavelength
(d) of the order of one millimetre
Answer:
(b) much larger than the wavelength of light

Question 60.
If the focal length of objective lens is increased, then magnifying power of:
(a) microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease
(b) microscope and telescope both will increase
(c) microscope and telescope both will decrease
(d) microscope will decrease but that of the telescope will increase
Answer:
(d) microscope will decrease but that of the telescope will increase

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 61.
Mark the correct option.
(a) If the incident rays are converging, we have a real object.
(b) If the final rays are converging, we have a real image.
(c) The image of a virtual object is called a virtual image.
(d) If the image is virtual, the corresponding object is called a virtual object.
Answer:
(b) If the final rays are converging, we have a real image.

Question 62.
Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
(a) Brilliance of diamond
(b) Working of optical fibre
(c) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond.
(d) Mirage on hot summer days.
Answer:
(c) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond.

Question 63.
Pick out the correct statements about optical fibres from the following:
(i) Optical fibres are used for the transmission and receiving electrical signals only.
(ii) Optical fibres are used for transmitting and receiving electrical signals.
(iii) The intensity of light signals sent through optical fibres suffer very small loss.
(iv) Optical fibres effectively employ the principle of multiple total internal reflections.
(v) Optical fibres are glass fibres coated with a thin layer of a material with lower refractive index.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

Question 64.
Consider telecommunication through optical fibres, which of the following statements is not true?
(a) optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding.
(b) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index.
(c) Optical fibres are subj ect to electromagnetic interference from outside.
(d) Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss.
Answer:
(c) Optical fibres are subj ect to electromagnetic interference from outside.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 65.
Choose the correct option regarding lenses in contact.
(a) the equivalent focal length is \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{f_{1}}+\frac{1}{f_{2}} a a a \frac{1}{f_{2}}\)

(b) when two lenses are placed at a separation d, if object is at ∞, the two lenses can be replaced by a single lens of focal length \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{f_{1}}+\frac{1}{f_{2}}-\frac{d}{f_{1} f_{2}}\)

(c) The equivalent lens is to be placed at a distance \(\frac{d f}{f_{1}}\) behind second lens.

(d) all options are correct.
Answer:
(d) all options are correct.

Question 66.
Which of the following is correct regarding telescope?
(a) In Terrestrial telescope, three convex lenses are used and final image is erect.
(b) In Astronomical telescope, aperture and focal length of objective is larger than eyepiece.
(c) In Galilean telescope, two lenses, one convex (objective) and one concave (eye piece) are used.
(d) All options are correct
Answer:
(d) All options are correct

Question 67.
When we see an object, the image formed on the retina is:
(i) real
(ii) virtual
(in) 25 cm
(iv) 1 m

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv)

Question 68.
Match the elements of Table-I and Table-II.

Table – 1 Table  – II
(i) Myopia (A) Bifocal lens
(ii) Hypermetropia (B) Cylindrical lens
(iii) Presbyopia (C) Concave lens
(iv) Astigmatism (D) Convex lens

(a) (i) – (C); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B);
(b) (i) – (D); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B);
(c) (i) – (A); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (C); (iv) – (D);
(d) (i) – (B); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (C);
Answer:
(b) (i) – (D); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B);

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 69.
Match the elements of Table-I and Table-II.

Table I Table  II
(i) When magnification is positive (A) real image
(ii) When magnification is negative (B) magnified image
(iii) If | m | > 1 (C) diminished image
(iv) If | m | < 1 (D) virtual image

(a) (i) – (D); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (C);
(b) (i) – (B); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (A);
(c) (i) – (C); (ii) – (B); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B);
(d) (i) – (C); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (D); (iv) – (A);
Answer:
(a) (i) – (D); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (C);

Question 70.
A green light is incident from the Water to the air-water interface at the critical angle (θ). Select the correct statement.
(a) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at an angle of 90° to the normal.
(b) The spectrum of visible is less than that of green light will come out to the air medium.
(c) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is more than that of green light will come out to the air medium.
(d) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at various angles to the normal.
Answer:
(b) The spectrum of visible is less than that of green light will come out to the air medium.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Assertions and Reasons:

In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer is:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 71.
Assertion:
A total reflecting prism is used to erect the inverted image without deviation.
Reason:
Rays of light incident parallel to base of prism emerge out as parallel rays.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
The emergent beam is parallel to the incident beam. The rays do not suffer any deviation, only their order is reversed. So a total reflecting prism can be used as an erecting prism.

Question 72.
Assertion:
If objective and eye lenses of a microscope are interchanged, then it can work as telescope.
Reason:
The objective lens of telescope has small focal length.
Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Hint:
A microscope cannot work as telescope by interchanging its two lenses. These two lenses have short focal length and so the difference fe – f0 is small. On the otherhand, in a telescope, the objective has much longer focal length than the eyepiece.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 73.
Assertion:
The relation among u, v and / for the spherical mirror is valid for mirrors whose sizes are very small compared to their radii of curvature.
Reason:
The laws of reflection are strictly valid for plane surfaces but not for large spherical surfaces.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
The laws of reflection are valid for plane as well as curved surfaces.

Question 74.
Assertion:
A red object appears dark in the yellow light.
Reason:
The red colour is scattered less.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
A red object appears dark in the yellow light because it absorbs yellow light incident on it.

Question 75.
Assertion:
The clouds in sky generally appears to the whitish.
Reason:
Scattering due to clouds is efficient in equal measure at all wavelengths.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 76.
Assertion:
Endoscopy involves use of optical fibres to study internal organs.
Reason:
Optical fibres are based on phenomenon of total internal reflection.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 77.
Assertion:
It is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by two violins.
Reason:
For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must remain constant.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
The waves produced by the two violins are not coherent.

Question 78.
Assertion:
The pattern and position of fringes always remain same even after the introduction of transparent medium in a path of one of the slits.
Reason:
The central fringe is bright or dark depends upon the initial phase difference between the two coherent sources.
Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Hint:
The transparent plate introduces the path difference (p -1) t between the two waves and hence changes the position of the central fringe.

Question 79.
Assertion:
To increase resolving power of a telescope, the aperture (a) of the objective should be large.
Reason:
The resolving power of the telescope 1Sg,Venby 1.22X-‘
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Optics

Question 80.
Assertion:
Static crashes are heard on radio, when lightening flash occurs in the sky.
Reason:
Electromagnetic waves having frequency of radiowave range, interfere with radiowaves.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
When lightening flash occurs, changes oscillate between group of clouds and produces electromagnetic waves which interfere with radiowaves and produce static crashes.

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions

TN Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 1.
State Maxwell’s modified form of Ampere’s j law.
Answer:
\(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}} \cdot d \vec{s}\) = µ0 I = µ0 (Ic + Id)
Where Ic – conduction current
Id – displacement current

Question 2.
Which one of Maxwell’s equations contains source of electric field?
Answer:
(i) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \vec{s}=Question / \varepsilon_{0}\)

(ii) \(\oint \mathrm{E} \cdot d \vec{l}=-\frac{d}{d t} \int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot d s\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 3.
Which one of Maxwell’s equations contains j source of magnetic field?
Answer:
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot d s=0\)

\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot d \vec{l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}+\mu_{0} \frac{d}{d t} \int_{s} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d s\)

Question 4.
Light can travel in vacuum whereas sound cannot do so. Why?
Answer:
Light, being an electromagnetic wave do not require any material medium for its propagation. So, light can travel in vacuum. On the other hand, sound is a mechanical wave. It requires a medium for its propagation. Hence sound cannot travel through vacuum.

Question 5.
What physical quantity is same for X-rays and radio waves?
Answer:
Speed of light in vacuum is same for X-rays and radio waves.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 6.
What is the dimension of (ε0 μ0)?
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves 1

Question 7.
Which waves are used to transmit voice communication?
Answer:
Radio waves

Question 8.
Name the wave that is used in heat therapy for sprain?
Answer:
Infra red rays

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 9.
State the rays that a re used for the treatment of cancer and tumour?
Answer:
Gamma rays

Question 10.
Alame the line absorption spectrum found in solar spectrum.
Answer:
Fraunhofer lines.

Question 11.
Explain integral form of Faraday’s law of electromagnetic Induction.
Answer:
Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. This law relates electric field with the changing magnetic flux which is mathematically written as
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \vec{l}=-\frac{d}{d t} \phi_{\mathrm{B}}\) (Faraday’s law)
where E is the electric field. This equation implies that the line integral of the electric field around any closed path is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the closed path bounded by the surface.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 12.
Obtain the expression for the energy density of an electromagnetic wave.
Answer:
The energy density (energy per unit volume) associated with an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum or free space is

u = ε0E2 + \(\frac{1}{2 \mu_{0}}\) B2
where, \(\frac{1}{2}\)ε0E2 = uE is the energy densityin an electric field and \(\frac{1}{2 \mu_{0}}\) B2 = uB is the energy density in a magnetic field.

Since, E = BC ⇒ uB = uE
The energy density of the electromagnetic wave is
u = ε0E2 = \(\frac{1}{\mu_{0}}\) B2

Question 13.
How will you calculate the momentum delivered to the surface?
Answer:
If the incident electromagnetic wave of energy U is totally reflected from the surface, then the momentum delivered to the surface is

∆p = \(\frac{U}{C}-\left(-\frac{U}{C}\right)=2 \frac{U}{C}\)

Question 14.
What is spectrum?
Answer:
The image obtained in the field of view of the telescope consists of a number of coloured images of the slit. Such an image is called a spectrum.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 15.
What is spectrum of sodium?
Answer:
If the slit is illuminated with light from sodium vapour lamp, two images of the slit are obtained in the yellow region of the spectrum. These images are the emission lines of sodium having wave lengths 5896 Å and 5890 Å. This is known as spectrum of sodium.

Question 16.
How are electromagnetic waves classified?
Answer:
The spectra obtained from different bodies can be classified into two types:

  • emission spectra and
  • absorption spectra.

Question 17.
What are emission and absorption spectra?
Answer:
Emission spectrum:
When the light emitted by a source is directly examined with a spectrometer, the emission spectrum is obtained.

Absorption spectrum:
When the light emitted . by a source is made to pass through an absorbing material and then examined with a spectrometer, the absorption spectrum is obtained.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 18.
What are the uses of Infra red waves?
Answer:

  • Infra red lamps are used in physiotherapy.
  • Infra red photographs are used in weather forecasting.
  • As infra red radiations are not absorbed by air, thick fog, mist, etc., they are used to take photograph of long distance objects.
  • Infra red absorption spectrum is used to study the molecular structure.

Question 19.
What are the uses of ultraviolet radiation?
Answer:

  • They are used to destroy the bacteria and for sterilizing surgical instruments.
  • These radiations are used in detection of forged documents, finger, prints in forensic laboratories.
  • They are used to preserve the food items.
  • They help to find the structure of atoms.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 20.
Explain the integral form of maxwell’s equations briefly.
Answer:
(i) First equation is nothing but the Gauss’s law. It relates the net electric flux to net electric charge enclosed in a surface. Mathematically, it is expressed as

\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{\text {enclosed }}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) (Gauss’s law) ……………(1)

where \(\vec{E}\) is the electric field and Qenclosed is the charge enclosed. This equation is true for both discrete or continuous distribution of charges. It also indicates that the electric field lines start from positive charge and terminate at negative charge. This implies that the electric field lines do not form a continuous closed path. In other words, it means that isolated positive charge or negative charge can exist.

(ii) Second equation .has no name. But this law is similar to Gauss’s law in electrostatics. So this law can also be called as Gauss’s law in magnetism. The surface integral of magnetic field over a closed surface is zero. Mathematically,
\(\oint \mathrm{B} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) = 0 (No name) …………..(2)
where \(\vec{B}\) is the magnetic field.

This equation implies that the magnetic lines of force form a continuous closed path. In other words, it means that no isolated magnetic monopole exists.

This equation implies that the magnetic lines of force form a continuous closed path. In other words, it means that no isolated magnetic monopole exists.

(iii) Third equation is Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. This law relates electric field with the changing magnetic flux which is mathematically written as
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \vec{l}=-\frac{d}{d t} \phi_{\mathrm{B}}\) (Fraday’s law) …………(3)

where \(\vec{E}\) is the electric field. This equation implies that the line integral of the electric field around any closed path is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the closed path bounded by the surface. Our modem technological revolution is due to Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction. The electrical energy supplied to our houses from , electricity board by using Faraday’s law of induction.

(iv) Fourth equation is modified Ampere’s circuital law. This is also known as Ampere – Maxwell’s law. This law relates the magnetic field around any closed path to the conduction current and displacement current through that path.

\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot d \vec{l}=\mu_{0} I_{e n c l o s e d}+\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0} \frac{d}{d t} \int_{s} \vec{E} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) (Ampere-Maxwell’s law)

where \(\vec{B}\) is the magnetic field. This equation shows that both conduction and also displacement current produces magnetic field. These four equations.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 21.
With the help of an experiment, explain the method of generation of magnetic field by changing electric field.
Answer:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves 2

In order to understand how the changing electric field produces magnetic field, let us consider a situation of ‘charging a parallel plate capacitor. Assume that the medium in between the capacitor plates is a non-conducting medium.

The electric current passing through the wire is the conduction current Ic. This current generates magnetic field around the wire connected across the capacitor. Hence when a magnetic needle is kept near the wire,
deflection is observed. In order to compute the strength of magnetic field at a point, Let us use a Ampere’s circuital law that states that ‘the line integral of the magnetic field B around any closed loop is equal to p0 times the net current I threading through the area enclosed by the loop’. Ampere’s law in equation form is

\(\oint_{1} \vec{B} \cdot d l=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}(t)\)
where µ0 is the permeability of free space.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves 3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 22.
Explain briefly (i) Infra red rays, (ii) Ultra violet rays, (iii) Gamma rays.
Answer:
(i) Infra red rays:
It is produced from hot bodies and also when the molecules undergo rotational and vibrational transitions. The wavelength range is 8 × 10-7 m to 5 × 10-3 m and frequency range are 4 × 1014 Hz to 6 × 1010 Hz. It provides electrical energy to satellites by means of solar cells. It is used to produce dehydrated fruits, in green houses to keep the plants warm, heat therapy for muscular pain or sprain, TV remote as a signal carrier, to look through haze fog or mist and used in night vision or infrared photography.

(ii) Ultra violet rays:
It is produced by Sun, arc and ionized gases. The wavelength range is 6 × 10-10 m to 4 × 10-7 m, and frequency range are 5 × 1017 Hz to 7 × 1014 Hz. It has less penetrating power. It can be absorbed by atmospheric ozone and harmful to human body. It is usedto destroy bacteria, sterilizing the surgical instruments, burglar alarm, detect the invisible writing, finger prints and also in the study of molecular structure.

(iii) Gamma rays:
It is produced by transitions of atomic nuclei and decay of certain elementary particles. They produce chemical reactions on photographic plates, fluorescence, ionisation, diffraction. The wavelength range is 1 × 10-14 m to 1 × 10-10 m and frequency range are 3 × 1022 Hz to 3 × 1018 Hz. Gamma rays have high penetrating power than X-rays and ultraviolet radiations; it has no charge but harmful to human body. Gamma rays provide information about the structure of atomic nuclei. It is used in radio therapy for the treatment of cancer and tumour, in food industry to kill pathogenic microorganism.

Question 23.
Explain black body radiation spectrum th the help of a diagram.
Answer:
When an object burns, it emits colours. That is, it emits electromagnetic radiation which depends on temperature. If the object becomes hot then it glows in red colour. If the temperature of the object is further increased then it glows in reddish-orange colour and becomes white when it is hottest.
refer figure P.No. 257,
The spectrum in usually called as black body spectrum. It is a continuous frequency (or wavelength) curve and depends on the body’s temperature.

Question 24.
In a medium dielectric constant 5, the maximum displacement current is equal to the maximum coduction current at a frequency of 1 MHz, the calculate the conductivity of the medium.
Answer:
Frequency f = 1 MHz = 1 × 106 Hz
Permittivity in free space ε0 = 8.85 10-12
Permittivity in a medium ε = εrε0
Relative permittivity εr = 5
Angular frequency ω = 2πf
Conductivity σ = εω
∴ σ = 2π × 1 × 106 × εrε0
= 2 × 3.14 × 1 × 106 × 5 × 8.85 × 10-12
= 2.78 × 10-4-1 m-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 25.
An LC resonant circuit contains a capacitor 400 pF and an inductor 100 µH. It is sent into oscillations coupled to an antenna. Calculate the wavelength of the radiated electromagnetic wave.
Answer:
Capacitance C = 400 × 10-12 F;
Inductance L = 100 × 10-6 H;
Frequencyu = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{\mathrm{LC}}}\);
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{v}\)
Frequency

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves 4

Wavelength λ = \(\frac{C}{v}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{0.7961 \times 10^{6}}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8-6}}{0.7961}\)
= 376.83 m = 377 m
wavelength = 377 m.

Question 26.
A monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm is incident on a water surface having refractive index 1,33. Find the velocity, frequency and wavelength of light in water.
Answer:
Wavelength λ = 589 × 10-9 m;
Refractive index µ = 1.33
µ = \(\frac{\mathrm{C}_{\text {air }}}{\mathrm{C}_{\text {water }}}\)

∴ Cwater = \(\frac{C_{a i r}}{\mu}\)

Frequency υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{C}_{\text {water }}}{\lambda}\)
Velocity of light in water,

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves 5

Velocity of light in water = 2.26 × 108 m/s
Frequency of light in water = 5.103 × 1014 Hz
Wavelength of light in water = 4429 Å

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 27.
Electromagnetic wave with an energy flux of 40 Wm-2 is incident on a non-conducting surface. If the area of the surface is 10 m-2 then calculate the force exerted on the surface in a time interval of 30 minutes.
Answer:
Energy flux = 40 W m-2
Area of the surface A = 10 × m2 = 10 m2
Time = 30 × 60 = 1800 s
Total energy incident on the surface U = Energy flux × surface area x (Time)2
Total energy
U= 40 × 10 × 1800
= 72 × 104
= 7.2 × 105 J
Velocity of light C = 3 × 108 m/s
Momentum P = \(\frac{\mathrm{U}}{\mathrm{C}}=\frac{7.2 \times 10^{5}}{3 \times 10^{8}}\)
= 2.4 × 10-3 kg ms-1

∴ Force exerted F = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{t}\)
= \(\frac{2.4 \times 10^{-3}}{1800}\)
= \(\frac{24 \times 10^{-4-2}}{18}\) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 10-6
Force F = 1.33 × 10-6 N

Question 28.
When a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 2 µF is charged by a time varying voltage, then an instantaneous displacement current of 1.5 A is set up in between the plates. Then calculate the value of the rate of voltage.
Answer:
Capacitance C = 2 µF = 2 × 10-6
Current Id = 1.5 A
Current = \(\frac{\text { Charge }}{\text { Time }}\)

I = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{t}\) But Question = CV

∴ Id = \(\frac{\mathrm{CV}}{t}\)

∴ \(\frac{V}{t}=\frac{I_{d}}{C}=\frac{1.5}{2 \times 10^{-6}}\) = 0.75 × 106 v/s
Rate of voltage = \(\frac{V}{t}\) = 0.75 × 106 v/s

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 29.
If a capacitor of 2 µF is charged to 20 V and than suddenly short-circuted by a coil of negligible resistance and of inductance 8 µH. Calculate
(i) amplitude of oscillatory current and
(ii) frequency of resulting current oscillation.
Answer:
Capacitance C= 2 × 10-6 F
Potential E = 20 V
Inductance L = 8 × 10-6 H
(i) The equation for the oscillatory discharge of capacitor through an inductance is given by
Question = q0 sin ωt
ω = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{Lc}}}\)
∴ The resulting oscillatory current I = \(\frac{d q}{d t}\)
= q0 ω cos ω0t = I0 cos ωt
Amplitude of oscillatory
Current I = \(\frac{d q}{d t}\)
I = q0 ω
= CE \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{Lc}}}\)

= E \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{L}}}\)

I = 20\(\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 10^{-6}}{8 \times 10^{-6}}}\)

= 20 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 10 A
∴ Amplitude of resulting current = 10 A

(ii) Frequency of resulting current oscillation

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves 6

Frequency = 4 × 104 Hz
Frequency of the resulting oscillations f = 4 × 104 Hz.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 30.
The wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is 6 mm. The electric field in the y direction and its maximum amplitude is 33 Vm-1 write the equation for electric and magnetic fields as a function of x and t.
Answer:
Wavelength λ = 6mm = 6 × 10-3 m
Electric field E0 = 33 Vm-1
Magnetic field B0 = \(\frac{E_{0}}{C}\)
Angular frequency ω0 = 2πυ
ω = 2π × \(\frac{C}{\lambda}\)
[∵ C = 3 × 108 m/s]
ω = 2 × 3.14 × \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{6 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 3.14 × 1011 rad/s
∴ The amplitude of magnetic field B0 = \(\frac{E_{0}}{C}\)
B0 = \(\frac{33}{3 \times 10^{8}}\)
= 11 × 10-8 T
The equation for the electric field along y – axis in the electromagnetic wave is
Ey = E0 sin ω (t – \(\frac{x}{c}\))
Ey = 33 sin π × 1011 (t – \(\frac{x}{c}\))
In the electromagnetic wave the equation for the magnetic field is
B2 = B0 sin ω (t – \(\frac{x}{c}\))
B2 = 11 × 10-8 × sin π × 1011 (t – \(\frac{x}{c}\))

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
A magnetic field is generated by:
(a) a moving charge
(b) a changing electric field
(c) a changing electric field of moving charge
(d) a changing magnetic flux
Answer:
(c) a changing electric field of moving charge

Question 2.
Any change in electric field with time at a point produces ………. at that point.
(a) an electric field
(b) a magnetic field
(c) a gravitational field
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(b) a magnetic field

Question 3.
Unpolarised light passes through a tourmaline crystal. The emergent light is analysed by j an analyser. When the analyser is rotated through 90°, the intensity of light:
(a) remains uniformly bright
(b) remains uniformly dark
(c) varies between maximum and minimum
(d) varies between maximum and zero.
Answer:
(d) varies between maximum and zero.

Question 4.
Electromagnetic theory was proposed by:
(a) Newton
(b) Huygen
(c) Maxwell
(d) Planck
Answer:
(c) Maxwell

Question 5.
Experimental verification of electromagnetic theory was done by:
(a) Hertz
(b) James Clerk
(c) Maxwell
(d) Huygen
Answer:
(a) Hertz

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 6.
Velocity of the electromagnetic waves through vacuum is:
(a) \(\sqrt{\mu_{0} \dot{\varepsilon}_{0}}\)

(b) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\)

(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mu_{0}}{\varepsilon_{0}}}\)

(d) \(\sqrt{\frac{\varepsilon_{0}}{\mu_{0}}}\)

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\)

Question 7.
The charge of the electromagnetic wave is:
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) nil
(d) infinity
Answer:
(c) nil

Question 8.
In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field is
(a) in the direction of electromagnetic wave
(b) parallel to the direction of electromagnetic wave
(c) perpendicular to the direction of electromagnetic wave
(d) zero
Answer:
(c) perpendicular to the direction of electromagnetic wave

Question 9.
If the velocity of light in a medium is 2.25 × 108 ms-1 then the refractive index of the medium will be:
(a) 1.5
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.33
(d) 1.73
Answer:
(c) 1.33

Question 10.
Assertion:
Light can travel in vacuum but sound cannot travel in vacuum.
Reason:
Light is an electromagnetic wave whereas sound is a mechanical wave.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly,
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 11.
Assertion:
In an electromagnetic wave the direction of magnetic field is perpendicular to the eleciric field \(\vec{E}\).
Reason:
Electric field vector \(\vec{E}\) and magnetic field vector \(\vec{B}\) have same frequency.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 12.
Assertion:
A changing electric field produces magnetic field.
Reason:
A changing magnetic field produces electric field.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.

Question 13.
Assertion:
Magnetic field lines cannot start from a point nor end at a point.
Reason:
The line integral of magnetic field over a closed path is not zero.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion correctly.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain assertion correctly.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 14.
Which one of the following is correct statement?
(a) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} d \vec{l}\) can expressed in coulomb

(b) \(\oint \frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}}{\mu_{0}} \cdot d \vec{s}\) can expressed in coulomb

(c) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \vec{l}\) can expressed in coulomb

(d) \(\oint \varepsilon_{0} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \vec{s}\) can expressed in coulomb

Answer:
(c) \(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \vec{l}\) can expressed in coulomb

Question 15.
Select the odd man out:
(a) \(\frac{\phi}{I}\)

(b) \(\frac{-e}{d \mathrm{~L} / d t}\)

(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{~N}^{2} \mathrm{~A}}{b}\)

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\)

Question 16.
In which one of the following velocity of light will be maximum?
(a) Glass
(b) Water
(c) Diamond
(d) Vacuum
Answer:
(d) Vacuum

Question 17.
If L is the inductance and C is the capacitance then the frequency for oscillation of charges:
(a) υ = \(\frac{1}{\pi \sqrt{\mathrm{LC}}}\)

(b) υ = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \mathrm{LC}}\)

(c) υ = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi(\mathrm{L} / \mathrm{c})}\)

(d) υ = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\)

Answer:
(d) υ = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 18.
In Raman effect the incident photon makes collision with an excited molecule of the substance. The scattered photon gives rise to:
(a) Stokes’ line
(b) Anti-Stokes’ line
(c) Rayleigh line
(d) Zeeman line
Answer:
(b) Anti-Stokes’ line

Question 19.
The physical properties of electromagnetic waves are not determined by:
(a) wavelength
(b) material
(c) frequency
(d) method of excitation
Answer:
(d) method of excitation

Question 20.
Radio waves, microwaves, infrared spectrum, ultraviolet rays, X-rays and gamma rays are classified as:
(a) light waves
(b) electromagnetic waves
(c) electric waves
(d) magnetic waves
Answer:
(b) electromagnetic waves

Question 21.
Visible spectrum lies between:
(a) radio waves and microwaves
(b) infrared spectrum and ultraviolet rays
(c) microwaves and infrared spectrum
(d) X-rays and gamma rays
Answer:
(b) infrared spectrum and ultraviolet rays

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 22.
The wavelength range of microwaves is from:
(a) 0.03 m- 10-3 m
(b) 0.3 m- 10-3 m
(c) 3 m- 10-5 m
(d) 30 m- 10-6 m
Answer:
(b) 0.3 m- 10-3 m

Question 23.
Waves from two coherent sources interfere with each other. At a point where the trough of one wave superposes with the trough of the other wave the intensity of light is:
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) no change
Answer:
(a) maximum

Question 24.
The frequency range of gamma rays is from:
(a) 3 × 1017 Hz to 5 × 1019 Hz
(b) 1 × 1016 Hz to 3 × 1022 Hz
(c) 3 × 1011 Hz to 4 × 1014 Hz
(d) 3 × 109 Hz to 3 × 1011 Hz
Answer:
(b) 1 × 1016 Hz to 3 × 1022 Hz

Question 25.
The frequency range of infrared rays is from:
(a) 3 × 10-11 Hz to 4 × 10-14 Hz
(b) 1 × 1013 Hz to 4 × 1014 Hz
(c) 3 × 10-11 Hz to 40 × 1014 Hz
(d) 3 × 1011 Hz to 40 × 1014 Hz
Answer:
(b) 1 × 1013 Hz to 4 × 1014 Hz

Question 26.
Light waves:
(a) can travel in perfect vacuum
(b) require air to travel through
(c) require an electric field to travel through
(d require a magnetic field to travel through
Answer:
(a) can travel in perfect vacuum

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 27.
Which of the following is used to find structure of atoms?
(a) IR
(b) UV
(c) visible light
(d) microwave
Answer:
(b) UV

Question 28.
The idea of displacement current was proposed by:
(a) Ampere
(b) Maxwell
(c) Gauss
(d) Faraday
Answer:
(b) Maxwell

Question 29.
The radiations used in physiotherapy are:
(a) ultraviolet
(b) infrared
(c) radiowaves
(d) microwaves
Answer:
(b) infrared

Question 30.
The nature of the wavefront corresponding to extraordinary ray inside a calcite crystal is:
(a) plane
(b) spherical
(c) elliptical
(d) cylindrical
Answer:
(c) elliptical

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 31.
A line spectrum identifies a:
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) None of above
Answer:
(c) gas

Question 32.
The spectrum produced by a substance in molecular state is known as:
(a) line spectrum
(b) continuous spectrum
(c) band spectrum
(d) pure spectrum
Answer:
(c) band spectrum

Question 33.
A large number of dark lines in the solar spectrum are:
(a) Fraunhofer lines
(b) Fresnel lines
(c) Stokes lines
(d) Antistokes lines
Answer:
(a) Fraunhofer lines

Question 34.
In a plane transmission grating the width of a ruling is 12000 A and the width of a slit is 8000 A the grating element is
(a) 20 µm
(b) 2 µm
(c) 200 µm
(d) 10 µm
Answer:
(b) 2 µm

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 35.
The spectrum produced by a substance in molecular state is known as:
(a) line spectrum
(b) continuous spectrum
(c) band spectrum
(d) pure spectrum
Answer:
(c) band spectrum

Question 36.
The correct definition of spectrum is:
(a) band of wavelength
(b) band of colours
(c) band of frequencies
(d) band of amplitudes
Answer:
(a) band of wavelength

Question 37.
Line spectrum is obtained from:
(a) sodium vapour lamp
(b) molecules
(c) carbon arc
(d) solids
Answer:
(a) sodium vapour lamp

Question 38.
The line spectra is due to:,
(a) molecules in the gaseous state
(b) molecules in the liquid state
(c) atoms in the gaseous state
(d) atoms in the liquid state
Answer:
(c) atoms in the gaseous state

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 39.
The scattering of sunlight by gas molecules in the earth’s atmosphere is
(a) Raman’s effect
(b) a-scattering
(c) Tyndal scattering
(d) Rayleigh scattering
Answer:
(d) Rayleigh scattering

Question 40.
A discharge tube containing carbon dioxide , or ammonia emits:
(a) band spectrum
(b) line spectrum
(c) continuous spectrum
(d) absorption spectrum
Answer:
(a) band spectrum

Question 41.
The energy of the electromagnetic waves is due to _________ energy of oscillating charge.
(a) potential
(b) kinetic
(c) vibrational
(d) ritational
Answer:
(b) kinetic

Question 42.
Light waves are transverse in nature. It is proved by the phenomenon:
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) polarisation
(d) rectilinear propagation
Answer:
(c) polarisation

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 43.
A monochromatic source is:
(a) white light
(b) sun light
(c) sodium vapour lamp
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) sodium vapour lamp

Question 44.
Which one of the following is not an electromagnetic wave?
(a) X-rays
(b) γ-rays
(c) U – V rays
(d) β-rays
Answer:
(d) β-rays

Question 45.
In a Nicol prism the ordinary ray is prevented from coming out of Canada balsam by the phenomenon of:
(a) reflection
(b) polarisation
(c) diffraction
(d) total internal reflection
Answer:
(d) total internal reflection

Question 46.
Which of the following gives rise to continuous emission’spectrum?
(a) Electric filament lamp
(b) Sodium vapour lamp
(c) Gases in the discharge tube
(d) Calcium salt in bunsen flame
Answer:
(a) Electric filament lamp

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 47.
The transverse nature of light waves is demonstrated only by the phenomenon of:
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) polarisation
(d) reflection
Answer:
(a) interference

Question 48.
The wavelength of D1 and D2 lines emitted by Sodium vapour lamp is:
(a) 589.6, 589 nm
(b) 589 nm, 589.6 nm
(c) 589.3 nm, 589 nm
(d) 589 nm, 589.3 nm
Answer:
(a) 589.6, 589 nm

Question 49.
The phase difference between the electric and magnetic field vectors of an electromagnetic wave is:
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) π
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(d) 0 or 2π
Answer:
0 or 2π

Question 50.
The refractive index of a medium of absolute permittivity (ε) and absolute permeability (µ) with respect to vacuum is:
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mu}{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\)

(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}{\mu \varepsilon}\)

(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mu \varepsilon}{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\)

(d) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\)

Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{\mu \varepsilon}{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\)
Hint:

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves 8

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 51.
Match the laws given in column I with Maxwell’s equations in integral form.

TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves 7

(a) (i) – (C); (ii) – (A); (iii) – (E); (iv) – (D)
(b) (i) – (E); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B)
(c) (d) – (E); (ii) – (D); (iii) – (B); (iv) – (A)
(d) (i) – (D); (ii) – (E); (iii) – (C); (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(b) (i) – (E); (ii) – (C); (iii) – (A); (iv) – (B)

Question 52.
Which one of the following is incorrect statement?
(a) C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0}}}\)

(b) µ = \(\sqrt{\varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0}}\)

(c) µ = \(\sqrt{\varepsilon_{r} \mu_{r}}\)

(d) Ut = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{E}^{2}\)

Answer:
(b) µ = \(\sqrt{\varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0}}\)

Question 53.
Which one of the following is incorrect?
(a) Electromagnetic waves carry energy
(b) Electromagnetic waves carry current
(c) Electromagnetic waves carry angular momentum
(d) Electromagnetic waves carry momentum
Answer:
(b) Electromagnetic waves carry current

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 54.
Any stationary charge produces:
(a) magnetic field
(b) current
(c) displacement current
(d) electric field only
Answer:
(d) electric field only

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