Category: Class 10

Students can download Maths Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Ex 8.1 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Ex 8.1

Question 1.
Find the range and coefficient of range of the following data.
(i) 63, 89, 98, 125, 79, 108, 117, 68
(ii) 43.5, 13.6, 18.9, 38.4, 61.4, 29.8
Answer:
(i) Here the largest value (L) = 125
The smallest value (S) = 63
Range = L – S = 125 – 63 = 62

Question 2.
If the range and the smallest value of a set of data are 36.8 and 13.4 respectively, then find the largest value.
Solution:
If the range = 36.8 and
the smallest value = 13.4 then
the largest value = L = R + S
= 36.8 + 13.4 = 50.2

Question 3.
Calculate the range of the following data.

Answer:
Smallest value (S) = 400
Largest value (L) = 650
Range = L – S = 650 – 400 = 250

Question 4.
A teacher asked the students to complete 60 pages of a record notebook. Eight students have completed only 32, 35, 37, 30, 33, 36, 35 and 37 pages. Find the standard deviation of the pages yet to be completed by them.
Answer:
The remaining number of pages to be completed is 60 – 32; 60 – 35; 60 – 37; 60 – 30; 60 – 33; 60 – 36; 60 – 35 and 60 – 37
The pages to be completed are, 28, 25, 23, 30, 27, 24, 25, and 23
Arrange in ascending order we get, 23, 23, 24, 25, 25, 27, 28 and 30

Question 5.
Find the variance and standard deviation of the wages of 9 workers given below:
₹ 310, ₹ 290, ₹ 320, ₹ 280, ₹ 300, ₹ 290, ₹ 320, ₹ 310, ₹ 280.
Answer:
Arrange in ascending order we get,
280, 280, 290, 290, 300, 310, 310, 320 and 320
Assumed mean = 300


Variance = 222.222
Standard deviation = √Variance = √222.222 = 14.907 = 14.91
Variance = 222.22
Standard deviation = 14.91

Question 6.
A wall clock strikes the bell once at 1 o’clock, 2 times at 2 o’clock, 3 times at 3 o’clock and so on. How many times will it strike in a particular day? Find the standard deviation of the number of strikes the bell make a day.
Answer:
Wall clock strikes the bell in 12 hours
1, 2, 3, 4, 5,… ,12
Wall clock strikes in a day (24 hours)
2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24.
Assumed mean = 14



The standard deviation of bell strike in a day is 6.9

Question 7.
Find the standard deviation of the first 21 natural numbers.
Answer:
Here n = 21
The standard deviation of the first ‘n’ natural numbers,

The standard deviation of the first 21 natural numbers = 6.06

Question 8.
If the standard deviation of a data is 4.5 and if each value of the data is decreased by 5, then find the new standard deviation.
Solution:
If the standard deviation of a data is 4.5 and each value of the data decreased by 5, the new standard deviation does not change and it is also 4.5.

Question 9.
If the standard deviation of a data is 3.6 and each value of the data is divided by 3, then find the new variance and new standard deviation.
Answer:
The standard deviation of the data = 3.6
Each value of the data is divided by 3
New standard deviation = \(\frac{3.6}{3}\) = 1.2
New Variance = (1.2)² = 1.44 [∴ Variance = (S.D)²]
New standard Deviation = 1.2
New variance = 1.44

Question 10.
The rainfall recorded in various places of five districts in a week are given below.

Find its standard deviation.
Answer:
Assumed mean = 60

Question 11.
In a study about viral fever, the number of people affected in a town were noted as

Find its standard deviation.
Answer:
Assumed mean = 35

Question 12.
The measurements of the diameters (in cms) of the plates prepared in a factory are given below. Find the standard deviation.

Answer:
Assumed mean = 34.5

Question 13.
The time taken by 50 students to complete a 100 meter race are given below. Find its standard deviation.

Answer:
Assumed mean = 11


Standard deviation (σ) = 1.24

Question 14.
For a group of 100 candidates, the mean and standard deviation of their marks were found to be 60 and 15 respectively. Later on, it was found that the scores 45 and 72 were wrongly entered as 40 and 27. Find the correct mean and standard deviation.
Answer:
Number of candidates = 100
n = 100
Mean (\(\bar{x}\)) = 60
standard deviation (σ) = 15
Mean (\(\bar{x}\)) = \(\frac{\Sigma x}{n} \Rightarrow 60=\frac{\Sigma x}{100}\)
Σx = 6000
Correct total = 6000 + (45 – 40) + ( 72 – 27) = 6000 + 5 + 45 = 6050
Correct mean (\(\bar{x}\)) = \(\frac{6050}{100}\) = 60.5
Given standard deviation = 15


Correct mean = 60.5
Correct standard deviation (σ) = 14. 61

Question 15.
The mean and variance of seven observations are 8 and 16 respectively. If five of these are 2, 4, 10, 12 and 14, then find the remaining two observations.
Answer:
Let the missing two observations be ‘a’ and ‘b’
Arithmetic mean = 8

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Additional Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Additional Questions

I. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of radius 1 cm and height 1 cm is equal to ______
(1) π cm²
(2) 2π cm²
(3) 3π cm²
(4) 2 cm²
Answer:
(2) 2π cm²
Hint:
C.S.A of a cylinder = 2πrh sq. units = 2 × π × 1 × 1 cm² = 2π cm²

Question 2.
The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder whose radius is half of its height h is equal to ______ sq. units.
(1) \(\frac{3}{2} \pi h\)
(2) \(\frac{2}{3} \pi h^{2}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{2} \pi h^{2}\)
(4) \(\frac{2}{3} \pi h\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{3}{2} \pi h^{2}\)
Hint:
T.S.A = 2πr(h + r)
[radius is half of the height]
= \(2 \pi \times \frac{h}{2}\left(\frac{h}{2}+h\right)\)
= \(=\pi h\left(\frac{3 h}{2}\right)=\frac{3}{2} \pi h^{2}\) sq. units

Question 3.
Base area of a right circular cylinder is 80 cm². If its height is 5 cm, then the volume is equal to _______
(1) 400 cm³
(2) 16 cm³
(3) 200 cm³
(4) \(\frac{400}{3}\) cm³
Answer:
(1) 400 cm³
Hint:
Volume of a cylinder = πr²h cu. units
[Base area (πr²) = 80 cm² = 80 × 5 cm³ = 400 cm³

Question 4.
If the total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 200π cm² and its radius is 5 cm, then the sum of its height and radius is ______
(1) 20 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 15 cm
Answer:
(1) 20 cm
Hint:
T.S.A of a cylinder = 200π cm²
2πr (h + r) = 200π
2 × 5 (h + r) = 200
(h + r) = 20 cm

Question 5.
The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder whose radius is a units and height is b units, is equal to ______
(1) πa²b sq.cm
(2) 2πab sq.cm
(3) 2π sq.cm
(4) 2 sq.cm
Answer:
(2) 2πab sq.cm .
Hint:
C.S.A. of a cylinder = 2πrh sq. units = 2 × π × a × b sq. cm = 2πab sq. cm

Question 6.
Radius and height of a right circular cone and that of a right circular cylinder are respectively, equal. If the volume of the cylinder is 120 cm³, then the volume of the cone is equal to _______
(1) 1200 cm³
(2) 360 cm³
(3) 40 cm³
(4) 90 cm³
Answer:
(3) 40 cm³
Hint:
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × volume of the cylinder
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 120 cm³
= 40 cm³

Question 7.
If the diameter and height of a right circular cone are 12 cm and 8 cm respectively, then the slant height is
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 96 cm
Answer:
(1) 10 cm
Hint:
Slant height of a cone

Question 8.
If the circumference at the base of a right circular cone and the slant height are 120π cm and 10 cm respectively, then the curved surface area of the cone is equal to ______
(1) 1200π cm²
(2) 600π cm²
(3) 300π cm²
(4) 600 cm²
Answer:
(2) 600π cm²
Hint:
Circumference (2πr) = 120π cm
Slant height (l) = 10 cm;
Curved surface area of a cone = πrl sq. units
= \(\frac{120 \pi}{2}\) × 10 cm² = 600π cm²

Question 9.
If the volume and the base area of a right circular cone are 48π cm and 12π cm respectively, then the height of the cone is equal to ______
(1) 6 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 12 cm
Answer:
(4) 12 cm
Hint:
Volume of a cone = 48π cm³
[Base area (πr²) = 12π]
\(\frac{1}{3}\) πr²h = 48π
\(\frac{1}{3}\) × 12π × h = 48π
[Substitute πr² = 12π]
h = \(\frac{48}{4}\) = 12 cm

Question 10.
If the height and the base area of a right circular cone are 5 cm and 48 sq.cm respectively, then the volume of the cone is equal to _______
(1) 240 cm³
(2) 120 cm³
(3) 80 cm³
(4) 480 cm³
Answer:
(3) 80 cm³
Hint:
Volume of a cone (V) = \(\frac{1}{3}\) πr²h sq. units
Base area (πr²) = 48 sq. cm
V = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 48 × 5 = 80 cm³

Question 11.
The ratios of the respective heights and the respective radii of two cylinders are 1 : 2 and 2 : 1 respectively. Then their respective volumes are in the ratio _______
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2
Answer:
(3) 2 : 1
Hint:
h₁ : h₂ = 1 : 2
r₁ : r₂ = 2 : 1
Ratio of their volumes
= \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r_{1}^{2} h_{1}: \frac{1}{3} \pi r_{2}^{2} h_{2}\)
= 22 × 1 : 12 × 2 = 4 : 2 = 2 : 1

Question 12.
If the radius of a sphere is 2 cm, then the curved surface area of the sphere is equal to ________
(1) 8π cm²
(2) 16 cm²
(3) 12π cm²
(4) 16π cm²
Answer:
(4) 16π cm²
Hint:
C.S.A of a sphere = 4πr² sq. units
[radius = 2 cm]
= 4 × π × 22 cm²
= 16π cm²

Question 13.
The total surface area of a solid hemisphere of diameter 2 cm is equal to _______
(1) 12 cm²
(2) 12π cm²
(3) 4π cm²
(4) 3π cm²
Answer:
(4) 3π cm²
Hint:
Radius of a hemisphere = \(\frac{2}{2}\) = 1 cm
Total surface area of a hemisphere = 3πr² sq. units = 3 × π × 12 cm² = 3π cm²

Question 14.
If the volume of a sphere is \(\frac{9}{16} \pi\) cu.cm, then its radius is ________
(1) \(\frac{4}{3}\) cm
(2) \(\frac{3}{4}\) cm
(3) \(\frac{3}{2}\) cm
(4) \(\frac{2}{3}\) cm
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{3}{4}\) cm
Hint:
Volume of the sphere = \(\frac{9}{16} \pi\)

Question 15.
The surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio of 9 : 25. Then their volumes are in the ratio _______
(1) 81 : 625
(2) 729 : 15625
(3) 27 : 75
(4) 27 : 125
Answer:
(4) 27 : 125
Hint:
Ratio of their surface area = 9 : 25

Question 16.
The total surface area of a solid hemisphere whose radius is a units, is equal to ________
(1) 2πa² sq. units
(2) 3πa² sq. units
(3) 3πa sq. units
(4) 3a² sq. units
Answer:
(2) 3πa² sq. units
Hint:
T.S.A. of a solid hemisphere = 3πr² sq. units
= 3 × π × a × a sq.units
= 3πa² sq. units

Question 17.
If the surface area of a sphere is 100π cm², then its radius is equal to ______
(1) 25 cm
(2) 100 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 10 cm
Answer:
(3) 5 cm
Hint:
Surface area of a sphere = 100π cm²
4πr² = 100π
r² = 25
r = √25 = 5 cm

Question 18.
If the surface area of a sphere is 36π cm², then the volume of the sphere is equal to _______
(1) 12π cm³
(2) 36π cm³
(3) 72π cm³
(4) 108π cm³
Answer:
(2) 36π cm³
Hint:
Surface area of a sphere = 36π cm²
4πr² = 36π
r² = 9
r = 3 cm
Volume of a sphere = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\) cu. units
= \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\) × 3 × 3 × 3 cm³ = 36π cm³

Question 19.
If the total surface area of a solid hemisphere is 12π cm² then its curved surface area is equal to ______
(1) 6π cm²
(2) 24π cm²
(3) 36π cm²
(4) 8π cm²
Answer:
(4) 8π cm²
Hint:
T.S.A of a hemisphere = 12π cm²
3πr² = 12π
r² = 4
r = 2
Curved surface area of a hemisphere = 2πr² = 2 × π × 4 = 8π cm²

Question 20.
If the radius of a sphere is half of the radius of another sphere, then their respective volumes are in the ratio _____
(1) 1 : 8
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 8 : 1
Answer:
(1) 1 : 8
Hint:
\(r_{1}=\frac{r_{2}}{2} \Rightarrow \frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}}=\frac{1}{2} \Rightarrow r_{1}: r_{2}=1: 2\)

II. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Curved surface area and circumference at the base of a solid right circular cylinder are 4400 sq.cm and 110 cm respectively. Find its height and diameter.
Answer:
Given, Circumference of the base of a cylinder = 110 cm
2πr = 110 ……. (1)
Curved surface area = 4400 cm²
2πrh = 4400 cm² ……. (2)
From (1) & (2), \(\frac{(2)}{(1)} \Rightarrow \frac{2 \pi r h}{2 \pi r}=\frac{4400}{110}=40 \mathrm{cm}\)
Height of the cylinder (h) = 40 cm
From (1), 2πr = 110
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r = 110
r = \(\frac{35}{2}\)
We know that, diameter (d) = 2 × radius
d = 2 × \(\frac{35}{2}\) = 35 cm
Diameter of the Circular cylinder = 35 cm

Question 2.
A mansion has 12 right cylindrical pillars each having radius 50 cm and height 3.5 m. Find the cost of painting the lateral surface of the pillars at ₹ 20 per square metre.
Answer:
Given, Radius of a cylinder (r) = 50 cm = 0.5 m
Height of a cylinder (h) = 3.5 m
Curved surface area of a pillar = 2πrh sq. units
Curved surface area of 12 pillars = 12 × 2πrh
= 12 × 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 0.5 × 3.5 m²
= 132 sq. m.
Cost for painting the lateral surface of pillars per metre = ₹ 20
Cost of painting = 132 × ₹ 20 = ₹ 2640

Question 3.
The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 231 cm². Its curved surface area is two thirds of the total surface area. Find the radius and height of the cylinder.
Answer:
Given, Total surface area of a cylinder (T.S. A) = 231 sq.cm
Curved surface area = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × T.S.A = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × 231 = 154 cm²
2πrh = 154 cm² …… (1)
Total surface area = 231 cm²
2πr (h + r) = 231
2πrh + 2πr²= 231
154 + 2πr² = 231 [from (1)]
2πr² = 231 – 154 = 77

Radius of the cylinder = 3.5 cm
Height of the cylinder = 7 cm

Question 4.
The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 1540 cm². If the height is four times the radius of the base, then find the height of the cylinder.
Answer:
Given, Let the radius of the cylinder be ‘r’
Height of a cylinder (h) = 4r (by given condition)
Total surface area = 1540 cm²
2πr(h + r) = 1540 cm²

Height of the cylinder = 4r = 4 × 7 = 28 cm

Question 5.
If the vertical angle and the radius of a right circular cone are 60° and 15 cm respectively, then find its height and slant height.
Answer:
Given, In the figure, OAB is a cone and OC ⊥ AB
∠AOC = \(\frac{60^{\circ}}{2}\) = 30°
In the right ∆OAC, tan 30° = \(\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{OC}}\)

Slant Height of the cone (l) = 15 × 2 = 30 cm

Question 6.
The central angle and radius of a sector of a circular disc are 180° and 21 cm respectively. If the edges of the sector are joined together to make a hollow cone, then find the radius of the cone.
Answer:

Given, Radius of a sector (r) = 21 cm
The angle of the sector (θ) = 180°
Let “R” be the radius of the cone.
Circumference of the base of a cone = Arc length of the sector

Radius of the cone (R) = 10.5 cm

Question 7.
If the curved surface area of a solid hemisphere is 2772 sq.cm, then find its total surface area.
Answer:
Given, the Curved surface area of a solid hemisphere = 2772 cm²
2πr² = 2772

Total surface area = 3πr² sq. units
= 3 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 21 × 21
= 4158 sq.cm
Aliter:
C.S.A of a hemisphere = 2772 cm²
2πr² = 2772 cm²
πr² = \(\frac{2772}{2}\) = 1386 cm
T.S.A of a hemisphere = 3πr² sq.units = 3 × 1386 cm² = 4158 cm²

Question 8.
An inner curved surface area of a hemispherical dome of a building needs to be painted. If the circumference of the base is 17.6 m, find the cost of painting it at the rate of ₹ 5 per sq. m.
Answer:
Given, Circumference of the dome = 17.6 m
2πr = 17.6
\(r=\frac{17.6 \times 7}{2 \times 22}=\frac{8.8 \times 7}{22}=2.8 \mathrm{m}\)
Curved surface area of the dome = 2πr² sq. units
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2.8 × 2.8 m²
= 49.28 m²
Cost of painting for one sq.metre = ₹ 5
Cost of painting the curved surface = 49.28 × ₹ 5 = ₹ 246.40

Question 9.
Volume of a solid cylinder is 62.37 cu.cm. Find the radius if its height is 4.5 cm.
Answer:
Given, Height of a cylinder (h) = 4.5 cm
Volume of a solid cylinder = 62.37 cu. cm

Radius of a cylinder (r) = 2.1 cm

Question 10.
A rectangular sheet of metal foil with dimension 66 cm × 12 cm is rolled to form a cylinder of height 12 cm. Find the volume of the cylinder.
Answer:
After rolling the rectangular sheet into a cylinder

Volume of the cylinder = 4158 cm³

Question 11.
The circumference of the base of a 12 m high wooden solid cone is 44 m. Find the volume.
Answer:
Given, Height of the wooden solid cone (h) = 12 m
Circumference of the base = 44 m
2πr = 44
r = \(\frac{44 \times 7}{2 \times 22}\) = 7 m
Volume of the wooden solid = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu. units
= \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 7 \times 7 \times 12 \mathrm{m}^{3}\)
= 88 × 7
= 616 m³
Volume of the solid = 616 m³

Question 12.
Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube whose edge is 14 cm.
Answer:
Given, Edge of the cube = 14 cm
The largest circular cone is cut out from the cube.
Radius of the cone (r) = \(\frac{14}{2}\) = 7 cm
Height of the cone (h) = 14 cm
Volume of a cone

Volume of a cone = 718.67 cm³

Question 13.
The thickness of a hemispherical bowl is 0.25 cm. The inner radius of the bowl is 5 cm. Find the outer curved surface area of the bowl. (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\))
Answer:
Let r, R and w be the inner and outer radii and thickness of the hemispherical bowl respectively.

Given that r = 5 cm, w = 0.25 cm
R = r + w = 5 + 0.25 = 5.25 cm
Now, outer surface area of the bowl = 2πR²
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 5.25 × 5.25
= 173.25 sq. cm
Thus, the outer surface area of the bowl = 173.25 sq. cm

Question 14.
Volume of a hollow sphere is \(\frac{11352}{7}\) cm3. If the outer radius is 8 cm, find the inner radius of the sphere. (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\))
Answer:
Let R and r be the outer and inner radii of the hollow sphere respectively.
Let V be the volume of the hollow sphere.

Hence, the inner radius r = 5 cm

Question 15.
How many litres of water will a hemispherical tank whose diameter is 4.2 m?
Answer:
Radius of the tank = \(\frac{4.2}{2}\) = 2.1 m
Volume of the hemisphere
= \(\frac{2}{3} \pi r^{3}\) cu.units
= \(\frac{2}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 2.1 \times 2.1 \times 2.1 \mathrm{m}^{3}\)
= 19.404 m³
= 19.404 x 1000 lit
= 19,404 litres

III. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
A vessel is in the form of a hollow hemisphere mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter of the hemisphere is 14 cm and the total height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the inner surface area of the vessel.
Answer:

For cylindrical part:
Radius (r) = 7 cm
Height (h) = 6 cm
Curved surface area = 2πrh = 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 6 cm² = 264 cm²
For hemispherical part:
Radius (r) = 7 cm
Surface area (h) = 2πr²
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 7 cm²
= 308 cm²
Total surface area = (264 + 308) = 572 cm²

Question 2.
A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each of its ends. The length of the entire capsule is 14 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 5 mm. Find its surface area.
Answer:

Question 3.
From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and diameter 1.4 cm, a conical cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid to the nearest cm2.
Answer:

For cylinderical part:
Height (h) = 2.4 cm
Diameter (d) = 1.4 cm
Radius (r) = 0.7 cm
Total surface area of the cylindrical part

For conical part:
Base area (r) = 0.7 cm
Height (h) = 2.4 cm

Question 4.
A 20 m deep well with diameter 7 m is dug and the earth from digging is evenly spread out to form a platform 22 m by 14 m. Find the height of the platform.
Answer:
Diameter of the cylindrical well = 7 m
Radius of the cylinder (r) = \(\frac{7}{2}\) m
Depth of the well (h) = 20 m
Volume = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7} \times \frac{7}{2} \times \frac{7}{2} \times 20 \mathrm{m}^{3}\)
= 22 × 7 × 5 m³
Volume of the earth taken out = 22 × 7 × 5 m³
Now this earth is spread out to form a cuboidal platform having
Length (l) = 22 m
Breadth (b) = 14 m
Let ‘h’ be the height of the platform.
Volume of the platform = 22 × 14 × h m³
Volume of the platform = Volume of the earth taken out
22 × 14 × h = 22 × 7 × 5
\(h=\frac{22 \times 7 \times 5}{22 \times 14}=\frac{5}{2} \mathrm{m}=2.5 \mathrm{m}\)
Thus, the required height of the platform is 2.5 m.

Question 5.
The perimeters of the ends of the frustum of a cone are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm. If the height of the frustum is 8 cm, find the whole surface area of the frustum. [Use π = 3.14]
Answer:

Let the radii of circular ends are R and r [R > r]
Perimeter of circular ends are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm
2πR = 207.24 cm

The whole surface area of the frustum = π [(R² + r²) + (R + r) l]
Required whole surface area of the frustum
= 3.14 [33² + 27² + (33 + 27) × 10] cm²
= 3.14 [1089 + 729 + 600] cm²
= 3.14 [2418] cm²
= 7592.52 cm²

Question 6.
A cuboid-shaped slab of iron whose dimensions are 55 cm × 40 cm × 15 cm is melted and recast into a pipe. The outer diameter and thickness of the pipe are 8 cm and 1 cm respectively. Find the length of the pipe. (Take π = \(\frac {22}{7}\))
Answer:

Let h₁ be the length of the pipe
Let R and r be the outer and inner radii of the pipe respectively.
Iron slab:
Volume = lbh = 55 × 40 × 15 cm³
Iron pipe:
Outer diameter, 2R = 8 cm
Outer radius, R = 4 cm
Thickness, w = 1 cm
Inner radius, r = R – w = 4 – 1 = 3 cm
Now, the volume of the iron pipe = Volume of the iron slab

Time is taken by the pipe to empty half of the tank = 3 hours 12 minutes.

Question 7.
The perimeter of the ends of a frustum of a cone are 44 cm and 8.4π cm. If the depth is 14 cm., then find its volume.
Answer:
Given let the radius of the top of the frustum be “R” and the radius of the bottom of the frustum be “r”

Question 8.
A tent is in the shape of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a cone. The total height and the diameter of the base are 13.5 m and 28 m. If the height of the cylindrical portion is 3 m, find the total surface area of the tent.
Answer:

Given, Total height of solid = 13.5 cm
Diameter of the cylinder (d) = 28 m
Height of a cylinder (h) = 3 m
Height of a conical portion = 13.5 – 3 = 10.5 m
From the diagram, Radius of a cone = Radius of a cylinder
Radius (r) = 14 m

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Unit Exercise 7 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Unit Exercise 7

Question 1.
The barrel of a fountain-pen cylindrical in shape is 7 cm long and 5 mm in diameter. A full barrel of ink in the pen will be used for writing 330 words on an average. How many words can be written using a bottle of ink containing one-fifth of a litre?
Answer:

Question 2.
A hemispherical tank of radius 1.75 m is full of water. It is connected with a pipe which empties the tank at the rate of 7 litres per second. How much time will it take to empty the tank completely?
Answer:
Radius of the hemispherical tank = 1.75 m
Volume of the tank = \(\frac{2}{3} \pi r^{3}\) cu.units

Time taken = \(\frac{11229.17}{7}\) = 1604.17 seconds = 26.74 minutes = 27 minutes (approximately)

Question 3.
Find the maximum volume of a cone that can be carved out of a solid hemisphere of radius r units.
Answer:
Radius of a cone = Radius of a hemisphere = r unit

Height of a cone = r units
(height of the cone = radius of a hemisphere)
Maximum volume of the cone

Question 4.
An oil funnel of the tin sheet consists of a cylindrical portion 10 cm long attached to a frustum of a cone. If the total height is 22 cm, the diameter of the cylindrical portion by 8 cm and the diameter of the top of the funnel be 18 cm, then find the area of the tin sheet required to make the funnel.
Answer:

Total height of oil funnel = 22 cm
Height of the cylindrical portion = 10 cm
Height of the frustum (h) = 22 – 10 = 12 cm
Radius of the cylindrical portion = 4 cm
Radius of the bottom of the frustum = 4 cm
Top radius of the funnel (frustum) = \(\frac{18}{2}\) = 9 cm
Area of the tin sheet required = C.S.A of the frustum + C.S.A of the cylinder
= π (R + r) l + 2πrh sq. units.
= [π(9 + 4) \(\sqrt{12^{2}+(9-4)^{2}}\) + 2π × 4 × 10] cm²
= π [13 × \(\sqrt{144+25}\) + 25 + 80] cm²
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) [13 × 13 + 80] cm²
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) [169 + 80] cm²
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 249 cm²
= 782.57 cm²
Area of sheet required to make the funnel = 782.57 cm²

Question 5.
Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 2 mm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.
Answer:
Radius of the cylinder = \(\frac{4.5}{2}\) cm
Height of the cylinder = 10 cm
Volume of the cylinder = πr²h cu. units


Number of coins = 450

Question 6.
A hollow metallic cylinder whose external radius is 4.3 cm and internal radius is 1.1 cm and the whole length is 4 cm is melted and recast into a solid cylinder of 12 cm long. Find the diameter of a solid cylinder.
Answer:
External radius of the hollow cylinder R = 4.3 cm
Internal radius of the hollow cylinder r = 1.1 cm
Length of the cylinder (h) = 4 cm
Length of the solid cylinder (H) = 12 cm
Let the radius of the solid cylinder be “x”
Volume of the solid cylinder = Volume of the hollow cylinder

Diameter of the solid cylinder = 2 × 2.4 = 4.8 cm

Question 7.
The slant height of a frustum of a cone is 4 m and the perimeter of circular ends are 18 m and 16 m. Find the cost of painting its curved surface area at ₹ 100 per sq. m.
Answer:
Slant height of a frustum (l) = 4 m
Perimeter of the top part = 18 m
2πR = 18


Cost of painting = ₹ 100 × 68 = ₹ 6800

Question 8.
A hemispherical hollow bowl has material of volume cubic \(\frac{436 \pi}{3}\) cubic cm. Its external diameter is 14 cm. Find its thickness.
Answer:
External radius of a hemisphere (R) = 7 cm
Volume of a hemi-spherical bowl = \(\frac{436 \pi}{3}\) cm³

Internal radius = 5 cm
Thickness of the hemisphere = (7 – 5) cm = 2 cm

Question 9.
The volume of a cone is 1005\(\frac{5}{7}\) cu. cm. The area of its base is 201\(\frac{1}{7}\) sq. cm. Find the slant height of the cone.
Answer:
Area of the base of a cone = 201\(\frac{1}{7}\) sq. cm

Question 10.
A metallic sheet in the form of a sector of a circle of radius 21 cm has a central angle of 216°. The sector is made into a cone by bringing the bounding radii together. Find the volume of the cone formed.
Answer:

Radius of a cone (r) = 21 cm
Central angle (θ) = 216°
Let “R” be the radius of a cone
Circumference of the base of a cone = arc length of the sector
2πR = \(\frac{\theta}{360} \times 2 \pi r\)

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.5 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.5

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 16 cm is
(1) 60π cm²
(2) 68π cm²
(3) 120π cm²
(4) 136π cm²
Solution:
(4) 13671 cm²
Hint:
Here, h = 15 cm, r = 8 cm

C.S.A of a cone = πrl sq. units. = π × 8 × 17 = 136π cm³

Question 2.
If two solid hemispheres of same base radius r units are joined together along with their bases, then the curved surface area of this new solid is
(1) 4πr² sq. units
(2) 6πr² sq. units
(3) 3πr² sq. units
(4) 8πr² sq. units
Answer:
(1) 4πr² sq. units
Hint:
When you joined two hemispheres together, the solid sphere is formed
C.S.A of the new solid = C.S.A of a sphere = 4πr² sq. units.

Question 3.
The height of a right circular cone whose radius is 5 cm and slant height is 13 cm will be
(1) 12 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 13 cm
(4) 5 cm
Solution:
(1) 12 cm
Hint:
Here r = 5 cm and l = 13 cm

Question 4.
If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved keeping the same height, then the ratio of the volume of the cylinder thus obtained to the volume of original cylinder is _________
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 6
(4) 1 : 8
Answer:
(2) 1 : 4
Hint:
Let the radius of the cylinder be “r” and the height be “h”
Radius of the new cylinder = \(\frac{r}{2}\) (Height will be same)
Volume of the new cylinder : Volume of the original cylinder
= \(\pi r_{1}^{2} h: \pi r_{2}^{2} h\) (πh is same)
= \(r_{1}^{2}: r_{2}^{2}\)
= \(\left(\frac{r}{2}\right)^{2}: r^{2}\)
= \(\frac{r^{2}}{4}: r^{2}=\frac{1}{4}: 1\)
= 1 : 4

Question 5.
The total surface area of a cylinder whose radius is \(\frac{1}{3}\) of its height is _______
(1) \(\frac{9 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq. units
(2) 24πh² sq.units
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq.units
(4) \(\frac{56 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq.units
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq.units
Hint:
Let the height of the cylinder be “h”
Radius of the cylinder = \(\frac{1}{3}\) h
T.S.A of the cylinder = 2πr(h + r)

Question 6.
In a hollow cylinder, the sum of the external and internal radii is 14 cm and the width is 4 cm. If its height is 20 cm, the volume of the material in it is
(1) 5600π cm³
(2) 11200π cm³
(3) 56π cm³
(4) 3600π cm³
Solution:
(2) 112007π cm³
Hint:
Here, let the external radius be “R” and the internal radius be “r”
R + r = 14 ……(1)
Width (R – r) = 4 ……(2)
Height of the hollow cylinder = 20 cm
Volume of the hollow cylinder = πh × (R² – r²)
= πh(R + r) (R – r)
= π × 20 (14) × 4
= π × 1120
= 1120π cm³

Question 7.
If the radius of the base of a cone is tripled and the height is doubled then the volume is ______
(1) made 6 times
(2) made 18 times
(3) made 12 times
(4) unchanged
Answer:
(2) made 18 times
Hint:
Radius of a cone = r
Height of a cone = h
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\) πr²h cu. units
When the radius is increased three-time (tripled) and the height is doubled
Radius is 3r and the height is 2h
Volume of the new cone

Volume is increased 18 times.

Question 8.
The total surface area of a hemisphere is how many times the square of its radius.
(1) π
(2) 4π
(3) 3π
(4) 2π
Solution:
(3) 3π
Hint:
T.S.A of the hemisphere = 3πr²
The square of the radius is 3π times.

Question 9.
A solid sphere of radius x cm is melted and cast into a shape of a solid cone of the same radius. The height of the cone is _______
(1) 3x cm
(2) x cm
(3) 4x cm
(4) 2x cm
Answer:
(3) 4x cm
Hint:
Radius of a sphere = Radius of a cone = x cm
Volume of a cone = Volume of a sphere

Question 10.
A frustum of a right circular cone is of height 16cm with radii of its ends as 8cm and 20cm. Then, the volume of the frustum is
(1) 3328π cm³
(2) 3228π cm³
(3) 3240πcm³
(4) 3340π cm³
Solution:
(1) 3328π cm³
Hint:
Here, h = 16 cm, r = 8 cm, R = 20 cm
Volume of the frustum

Question 11.
A shuttlecock used for playing badminton has the shape of the combination of ______
(1) a cylinder and a sphere
(2) a hemisphere and a cone
(3) a sphere and a cone
(4) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere
Answer:
(4) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere
Hint:

Question 12.
A spherical ball of radius r₁ units is melted to make 8 new identical balls each of radius r₂ units. Then r₁ : r₂ is _______
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4
Answer:
(1) 2 : 1
Hint:
Volume of the first sphere : Volume of second sphere = 8 : 1

Question 13.
The volume (in cm³) of the greatest sphere that can be cut off from a cylindrical log of wood of base radius 1 cm and height 5 cm is ________
(1) \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\)
(2) \(\frac{10}{3} \pi\)
(3) 5π
(4) \(\frac{20}{3} \pi\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\)
Hint:
Radius of the sphere = 1 cm
Volume of the Sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr³ cu. units
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × π × 1 × 1 × 1 cm³
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) π cm³

Question 14.
The height and radius of the cone of which the frustum is a part are h₁ units and r₁ units respectively. Height of the frustum is h₂ units and the radius of the smaller base is r₂ units. If h₂ : h₁ = 1 : 2 then r₂ : r₁ is ______
(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 3 : 1
Answer:
(2) 1 : 2
Hint:
h₂ : h₁ = 1 : 2
h₁ : h₂ = 2 : 1
Ratio of their volumes

Volume is 2 : 1 the ratio of their radius also 2 : 1
r₁ : r₂ = 2 : 1 But r₂ : r₁ = 1 : 2

Question 15.
The ratio of the volumes of a cylinder, a cone and a sphere, if each has the same diameter and same height is
(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 2 : 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 1 : 2
Solution:
(4) 3 : 1 : 2
Hint:
Volume of (cylinder : cone : sphere)

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.4 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.4

Question 1.
An aluminium sphere of radius 12 cm is melted to make a cylinder of radius 8 cm. Find the height of the cylinder.
Answer:
Sphere – Radius r₁ = 12 cm
Cylinder – Radius r₂ = 8 cm
h₂ = ?
Volume of cylinder = Volume of sphere melted

∴ Height of the cylinder made = 36 cm.

Question 2.
Water is flowing at the rate of 15 km per hour through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. Find the time in which the level of water in the tanks will rise by 21 cm.
Answer:
Length of the rectangular tank (l) = 50 m = 5000 cm
Width of the rectangular tank (b) = 44 m = 4400 cm
Level of water in the tank (h) = 21 cm
Volume of the tank = l × b × h cu. units = 5000 × 4400 × 21 cm³
Radius of the pipe (r) = 7 cm
Speed of the water = 15 km/hr.
(h) = 15000 × 100 cm / hr.
Volume of water flowing in one hour

Question 3.
A conical flask is full of water. The flask has base radius r units and height h units, the water poured into a cylindrical flask of base radius x r units. Find the height of water in the cylindrical flask.
Answer:
Radius of the conical flask = r units
Height of the conical flask = h units
Volume of the conical flask = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu.units
Radius of the cylindrical flask = x r units
Let the height of the cylindrical flask be “H” units
Volume of the cylindrical flask = Volume of the Conical flask

Height of the cylindrical flask = \(\frac{h}{3 x^{2}}\) units

Question 4.
A solid right circular cone of diameter 14 cm and height 8 cm is melted to form a hollow sphere. If the external diameter of the sphere is 10 cm, find the internal diameter.
Answer:
Radius of a cone (V) = 7 cm
Height of a cone (h) = 8 cm
External radius of the hollow sphere (R) = 5 cm
Let the internal radius be “x”
Volume of the hollow sphere = Volume of the Cone


Internal diameter of the Hollowsphere = 2 × 3 = 6 cm.

Question 5.
Seenu’s house has an overhead tank in the shape of a cylinder. This is filled by pumping water from a sump (underground tank) which is in the shape of a cuboid. The sump has dimensions 2 m × 1.5 m × 1 m. The overhead tank has its radius of 60 cm and height 105 cm. Find the volume of the water left in the sump after the overhead tank has been completely filled with water from the sump which has been full, initially.
Answer:
Length of the cuboid tank (l) = 2 cm = 200 cm
Breadth of the cuboid tank (b) = 1.5 cm = 150 cm
Height of the tank (h) = 1 m = 100 cm
Volume of the cuboid = l × b × h cu. units
= 200 × 150 × 100 cm³
= 30,00,000 cm³
Radius of the tank (r) = 60 cm
Height of the tank (h) = 105 cm
Volume of the cylindrical tank = πr²h cu. units
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 60 × 60 × 105 cm³
= 22 × 60 × 60 × 15 cm³
= 1188000 cm³
Volume of water left in the sump = Volume of the sump – Volume of the tank
= 3000000 – 1188000 cm³
= 1812000 cm³

Question 6.
The internal and external diameter of a hollow hemispherical shell is 6 cm and 10 cm respectively. If it is melted and recast into a solid cylinder of diameter 14 cm, then find the height of the cylinder.
Answer:
Internal radius of the shell (r) = 3 cm
External radius of the shell (R) = 5 cm
Radius of the cylinder (r) = 7 cm
Let the height of the cylinder be “h”
Volume of the cylinder = Volume of the hemispherical shell

Height of the cylinder = 1.33 cm

Question 7.
A solid sphere of radius 6 cm is melted into a hollow cylinder of uniform thickness. If the external radius of the base of the cylinder is 5 cm and its height is 32 cm, then find the thickness of the cylinder.
Answer:
Radius of a sphere (r) = 6 cm
External radius of the cylinder (R) = 5 cm
Height of the cylinder (h) = 32 cm
Let the internal radius of the cylinder be ‘x’
Volume of the hollow cylinder = Volume of a sphere
πh (R² – r²) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr³
π × 32 (5 + x) (5 – x) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × π × 6 × 6 × 6
32 (25 – x²) = 4 × 2 × 6 × 6
25 – x² = 9
x² = 25 – 9 = 16
x = √16 = 4
Thickness of the cylinder = 5 – 4 = 1 cm.

Question 8.
A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with juice. The juice is poured into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both the bowl and the cylinder then find the percentage of juice that can be transferred from the bowl into the cylindrical vessel.
Answer:
Let the height of the cylinder be “h”
radius is 50% more than the height


From (1) and (2) we get,
Volume of the cylinder = Volume of the hemisphere
It is possible to transfer the full quantity from the bowl into the cylindrical vessel.
100 % of the juice can be transferred.

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.3 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.3

Question 1.
A vessel is in the form of a hemispherical bowl mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter is 14 cm and the height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the capacity of the vessel.
Answer:
Radius of a hemisphere = Radius of the cylinder

Question 2.
Nathan, an engineering student was asked to make a model shaped like a cylinder with two cones attached at its two ends. The diameter of the model is 3 cm and its length is 12 cm. If each cone has a height of 2 cm, find the volume of the model that Nathan made.
Answer:
Radius of the cone = Radius of the cylinder

r = \(\frac{3}{2}\) cm
Height of the cone (H) = 2 cm
Height of the cylinder (h) = 12 – (2 + 2) cm = 8 cm
Volume of the model = Volume of the cylinder + Volume of 2 cones

Question 3.
From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and the diameter 1.4 cm, a cone of the same height and same diameter is carved out. Find the volume of the remaining solid to the nearest cm³.
Answer:
Radius of a cylinder = Radius of a cone r = 0.7 cm
Height of a cylinder = Height of a cone (h) = 2.4 cm

Volume of the remaining solid = Volume of the cylinder – Volume of a cone

Volume of the remaining soild = 2.46 cm³

Question 4.
A solid consisting of a right circular cone of height 12 cm and radius 6 cm standing on a hemisphere of radius 6 cm is placed upright in a right circular cylinder full of water such that it touches the bottom. Find the volume of the water displaced out of the cylinder, if the radius of the cylinder is 6 cm and height is 18 cm.

Answer:
Radius of a cone = Radius of a hemisphere = Radius of a cylinder
r = 6 cm
Height of a cone (h) = 12 cm
Volume of the water displaced = Volume of the solid inside = Volume of the cone + Volume of the hemisphere

Volume of water displaced = 905. 14 cm³.

Question 5.
A capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each of its ends. If the length of the entire capsule is 12 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 3 mm, how much medicine it can hold?
Answer:
Radius of a hemisphere = Radius of a Cylinder

r = \(\frac{3}{2}\) mm = 1.5 mm
Height of the cylinderical portion = 12 mm – (1.5 mm + 1.5 mm) = (12 – 3) mm = 9 mm
Volume of the capsule

Volume of the capsule = 77.8 cu. mm

Question 6.
As shown in figure a cubical block of side 7 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. Find the surface area of the solid.

Answer:
Side of a cube (a) = 7 cm
Radius of a hemisphere (r) = \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm
Surface area of the solid = T.S.A of the cube + C.S.A of the hemisphere – Area of the base of the hemisphere

Question 7.
A right circular cylinder just encloses a sphere of radius r units. Calculate
(i) the surface area of the sphere
(ii) the curved surface area of the cylinder
(iii) the ratio of the areas obtained in (i) and (ii).
Answer:
(i) Surface area of sphere = 4πr² sq. units

Question 8.
A shuttlecock used for playing badminton has the shape of a frustum of a cone is mounted on a hemisphere. The diameters of the frustum are 5 cm and 2 cm. The height of the entire shuttlecock is 7 cm. Find its external surface area.
Answer:

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.2 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.2

Question 1.
A 14 m deep well with inner diameter 10 m is dug and the earth taken out is evenly spread all around the well to form an embankment of width 5 m. Find the height of the embankment.

Answer:
Radius of the well (r₁) = 5 m
Depth of the well (h) = 14 m
Width of the embankment = 5 m
Outer radius (R) = 5 + 5 = 10 m
Let the height of the embankment be “H”
Volume of Earth in the embankment = Volume of the well
πH(R² – r²) = \(\pi r_{1}^{2} h\)
H(10² – 5²) = 5 × 5 × 14
H (100 – 25) = 5 × 5 × 14
H = \(\frac{5 \times 5 \times 14}{75}\) = 4.67 m
Height of the embankment = 4.67 m

Question 2.
A cylindrical glass with diameter 20 cm has water to a height of 9 cm. A small cylindrical metal of radius 5 cm and height 4 cm is immersed it completely. Calculate the rise of the water in the glass?
Answer:
Radius of the cylindrical glass (r) = 10 cm
Height of the water (h) = 9 cm
Radius of the cylindrical metal (R) = 5 cm
Height of the metal (H) = 4 cm
Let the height of the water raised be “h”
Volume of the water raised in the cylinder = Volume of the cylindrical metal
πr²h = πr²H
10 × 10 × h = 5 × 5 × 4
h = \(\frac{5 \times 5 \times 4}{10 \times 10}\) = 1 cm
Raise of water in the glass = 1 cm

Question 3.
If the circumference of a conical wooden piece is 484 cm then find its volume when its height is 105 cm.
Answer:
Circumference of the wooden piece = 484 cm
2πr = 484
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r = 484 cm
r = \(\frac{484 \times 7}{2 \times 22}\)
r = 77 cm
Height of the wooden piece (h) = 105 cm
Volume of the conical wooden piece = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu.units
= \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 77 \times 77 \times 105 \mathrm{cm}^{3}\)
= 22 × 11 × 77 × 35 cm³
= 652190 cm³
Volume of the wooden piece = 652190 cm³

Question 4.
A conical container is fully filled with petrol. The radius is 10m and the height is 15 m. If the container can release the petrol through its bottom at the rate of 25 cu. meter per minute, in how many minutes the container will be emptied. Round off your answer to the nearest minute.
Answer:
The radius of the conical container (r) = 10 m
Height of the container (h) = 15 m

Question 5.
A right-angled triangle whose sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm is revolved about the sides containing the right angle in two ways. Find the difference in volumes of the two solids so formed.

Answer:
Three sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm.
Case (i): If the triangle is revolved about the side 6 cm, the cone will be formed with radius 6 cm and height 8 cm.
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu. units
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 6 × 6 × 8 = 96π cm³
Case (ii): If the triangle is revolved about the side 8 cm, the cone will be formed with radius 8 cm and height 6 cm.
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 8 × 8 × 6 = 128π cm³
Difference in volume of the two solids = (128π – 96π) cm³ = 32π cm³ = 32 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) cm³ = 100.57 cm³
The difference in the volume of the two solids = 100.57 cm³

Question 6.
The volumes of two cones of same base radius are 3600 cm³ and 5040 cm³. Find the ratio of heights.
Answer:
Let the radius of the two cones be ‘r’
Let the height of the two cones be h₁ and h₂
Ratio of their volumes = 3600 : 5040 (÷ 10)
\(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h_{1}: \frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h_{2}\) = 360 : 504 (÷4)
h₁ : h₂ = 90 : 126 (÷3)
= 30 : 42 (÷3)
= 10 : 14 (÷2)
h₁ : h₂ = 5 : 7
Ratio of heights = 5 : 7

Question 7.
If the ratio of radii of two spheres is 4 : 7, find the ratio of their volumes.
Answer:
Let the ratio of their radii is r₁ : r₂
r₁ : r₂ = 4 : 7
Ratio of their volumes
V₁ : V₂ = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r_{1}^{3}: \frac{4}{3} \pi r_{2}^{3}\)
= \(r_{1}^{3}: r_{2}^{3}\)
= 43 : 73
Ratio of their volumes = 64 : 343

Question 8.
A solid sphere and a solid hemisphere have an equal total surface area. Prove that the ratio of their volume is 3√3 : 4.
Answer:
Total surface area of a sphere = \(4 \pi r_{1}^{2}\) sq. units
Total surface area of a hemisphere = \(3 \pi r_{2}^{2}\) sq. units
Ratio of Total surface area = \(4 \pi r_{1}^{2}: 3 \pi r_{2}^{2}\)
1 = \(\frac{4 \pi r_{1}^{2}}{3 \pi r_{2}^{2}}\) (Same Surface Area)
1 = \(\frac{4 r_{1}^{2}}{3 r_{2}^{2}}\)

Ratio of their volumes = 3√3 : 4
Hence it is proved.

Question 9.
The outer and the inner surface areas of a spherical copper shell are 576π cm² and 324π cm² respectively. Find the volume of the material required to make the shell.
Answer:
Outer surface area of a spherical shell = 576π cm²
4πR² = 576π
4 × R² = 576
R² = \(\frac{576}{4}\) = 144
R = √144 = 12 cm
Inner surface area of a spherical shell = 324π cm²
4πr² = 324π
4r² = 324
r² = 81
r = √81 = 9
Volume of the material required = Volume of the hollow hemisphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\) π(R³ – r³) cm³

Volume of the material required = 4186.29 cm³

Question 10.
A container open at the top is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 16 cm with radii of its lower and upper ends are 8 cm and 20 cm respectively. Find the cost of milk which can completely fill a container at the rate of ₹ 40 per litre.
Answer:
Height of the frustrum (h) = 16 cm
Radius of the upper part (R) = 20 cm
Radius of the lower part (r) = 8 cm
Volume of the frustum

Cost of milk in the container = 10.459 × 40 = ₹ 418.36
Cost of the milk = ₹ 418.36

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1

Question 1.
The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 5 : 7 and its curved surface area is 5500 sq.cm. Find its radius and height.
Answer:
Let the radius be 5x and the height be 7x
C.S.A of a cylinder = 5500 sq.cm.
2πrh = 5500
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 5x × 7x = 5500
2 × 22 × 5 × x² = 5500
x² = \(\frac{5500}{2 \times 22 \times 5}\)
x² = 25 cm
x = 5 cm
Radius of the cylinder = 5 × 5 = 25 cm
Height of the cylinder = 7 × 5 = 35 cm

Question 2.
A solid iron cylinder has total surface area of 1848 sq.m. Its curved surface area is five-sixth of its total surface area. Find the radius and height of the iron cylinder.
Answer:
T.S.A of the cylinder =1848 sq.cm
2πr(h + r) = 1848 ……. (1)
Curved surface area = \(\frac{5}{6}\) × 1848 sq.cm
2πrh = 5 × 308
2πrh = 1540 sq.m ……… (2)
Substitute the value of2πrh in (1)
2πr(h + r) = 1848
2πrh + 2πr² = 1848
1540 + 2πr² = 1848
2πr² = 1848 – 1540
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 308
r² = \(\frac{308 \times 7}{2 \times 22}\) = 49
r = 7
Radius of the cylinder = 7m
2πrh = 1540
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × h = 1540
h = \(\frac{1540}{2 \times 22}\) = 35 m
Radius of the cylinder = 7 m
Height of the cylinder = 35 m

Question 3.
The external radius and the length of a hollow wooden log are 16 cm and 13 cm respectively. If its thickness is 4 cm then find its T.S.A.
Answer:
External radius of the wooden log (R) = 16 cm
Thickness = 4 cm
Internal radius (r) = 16 – 4 = 12 cm
Length of the wooden log (h) = 13 cm
T.S.A of the hollow cylinder = 2π (R + r) (R – r + h) sq.cm
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (16 + 12) (16 – 12 + 13) sq.cm
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 28 × 17 sq.cm
= 2 × 22 × 4 × 17 sq.cm.
= 2992 sq.cm.
T.S.A of the hollow wooden = 2992 sq.cm.

Question 4.
A right angled triangle PQR where ∠Q = 90° is rotated about QR and PQ. If QR = 16 cm and PR = 20 cm, compare the curved surface areas of the right circular cones so formed by the triangle.
Answer:

In the Right Triangle
QP² = PR² – QR²= 20² – 16² = 400 – 256 = 144
QP = √144 = 12 cm
When PQ is rotated r = 12, l = 20
C.S.A of the cone = πrl sq. units = π × 12 × 20 cm² = 240π cm²
When QR is rotated r = 16, l = 20
C.S.A of the cone = nrl sq. units = π × 16 × 20 = 320π cm²
C.S.A. of a cone when rotated about QR is larger.

Question 5.
4 persons live in a conical tent whose slant height is 19 cm. If each person requires 22 cm² of the floor area, then find the height of the tent.
Answer:
Slant height of a cone (r) = 19 cm
Floor area for 4 persons = 4 × 22 cm²
πr² = 88 cm

Height of the tent = 18.25 cm

Question 6.
A girl wishes to prepare birthday caps in the form of right circular cones for her birthday party, using a sheet of paper whose area is 5720 cm², how many caps can be made with radius 5 cm and height 12 cm.
Answer:
Radius of a cap (r) = 5 cm

Question 7.
The ratio of the radii of two right circular cones of the same height is 1 : 3. Find the ratio of their curved surface area when the height of each cone is 3 times the radius of the smaller cone.
Answer:
Let the radius of the first cone be ‘x’ and the Height of the cone be 3x

Question 8.
The radius of a sphere increases by 25%. Find the percentage increase in its surface area.
Answer:
Let the radius of the be “r”
Surface area of the sphere = 4πr² sq.units …….. (1)
If the radius is increased by 25%



Percentage of increase in surface area = 56.25 %

Question 9.
The internal and external diameters of a hollow hemispherical vessel are 20 cm and 28 cm respectively. Find the cost to paint the vessel all over at ₹ 0.14 per cm².
Answer:

Question 10.
The frustum shaped outer portion of the table lamp has to be painted including the top part. Find the total cost of painting the lamp if the cost of painting 1 sq.cm is ₹ 2.

Answer:
The slant height of the frustum (l)


Cost of painting = ₹ 678.86 × 2 = ₹ 1357.72

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
‘The Detroit of Asia’ is
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 2.
Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in …………….
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharampuri
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 3.
Tuticorin is known as:
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
……………… are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 5.
Tiruppur is known for:
(a) Leather tanning
(b) Lock making
(c) Knitwear
(d) Aigo-processing
Answer:
(c) Knitwear

Question 6.
Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi ………….. is also a centre for leather goods exports.
(a) Chennai
(b) Sivakasi
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
IT means
(a) Indian Technology
(b) Information Technology
(c) Institute of Technology
(d) Initiative Technology
Answer:
(b) Information Technology

Question 8.
A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is ………………
(a) Hosur
(b) Dindigul
(c) Kovilpatti
(d) Thirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Hosur

Question 9.
SIPCOT was formed in the year:
(a) 1972
(b) 1976
(c) 1971
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 10.
Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TANSIDCO
(c) TIDCO
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. are very important in the modern economic activates of man.
2. ………….. are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common market and technologies.
3. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ………….. District inTamilNadu.
4. ………….. is fondly calls as ‘Little Japan’.
5. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in …………..
6. ………….. is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.

Answers:

1. Industrialisation
2. Industrial Clusters
3. Vellore
4. Sivakasi
5. April 2000
6. Entrepreneur

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the public.
(ii) They are not provide large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified persons and professionals.
(iii) Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income.
(iv) Entrepreneurs not promote country’s export trade.
(a) (i) and (iv) is correct
(b) (i) only correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iii) is correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iii) is correct

IV. Pick out odd one

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
(a) Ranipet
(b) Bharmapuri
(c) Ambur
(d) Vaniyambadi
Answer:
(b) Bharmapuri

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
(a) TIDCO
(b) SIDCO
(c) MEPG
(d) SIPCOT
Answer:
(c) MEPG

V. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

VI. Write Short Answer

Question 1.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:
As an economy grows and incomes increase, consumers tend to spend a lesser share of their income on products from the agricultural sector. There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land. Due to this, there is a need for an economy’s production and employment base to diversity away from agriculture.

Question 2.
Why are wages low in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
Labour productivity cannot increase in the agricultural sector as the marginal productivity of land goes on decreasing. Therefore wages remain low resulting in poverty.

Question 3.
What is meant by an industrial cluster?
Answer:
Industrial clusters are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common markets, technologies and skill requirements. An important aspect of clusters is the nature of inter-firm networks and interactions.

Question 4.
What are the routes for cluster formation?
Answer:

1. When artisans settle in one region and slowly spread their art in other regions.
2. When a large firm is established, to take care of its inputs and service requirements a cluster of firms may emerge.
3. Governments initiative to encourage Industrial sector using raw materials from a region.

Question 5.
Mention the 3 areas of policy-making that helped Tamil Nadu become one of the most industrialised states in the country.
Answer:
(a) Tamilnadu Industrial Policy – 2014
(b) Tamilnadu SEZs Policy
(c) Tamilnadu Biotechnology Policy – 2014

Question 6.
Mention any three-industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT – State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu.

To promote Industrial growth by setting up Industrial Estates.

TIIC – Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Cooperation Limited

To provide low – cost financial support for both setting up new firms and also to expand.

TIDCO – Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation.

To promote Industrial growth by setting up Industrial Estate

Question 7.
What are the problems of industrialization currently in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
To begin with, some clusters, especially chemicals, textiles and leather clusters, tend to generate a lot of polluting effluents that affect health. The effluents also pollute water bodies ‘ into which effluents are let into and also adjoining agricultural lands.

Second, employment generation potential has declined because of use of frontier technologies because of the need to compete globally. Quality of employment also has suffered in recent years as most workers are employed only temporarily. This issue too requires urgent attention among policymakers.

Question 8.
What is Meant by Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Entrepreneur is the person one who possess management skills, strong team building abilities and essential leadership qualities to manage a business.

Question 9.
What is Entrepreneurship?
Answer:
Entrepreneurship is a process of an action of an entrepreneur who undertakes to establish his entreprise. It is the ability to create and build something.

VII. Write brief Answer

Question 1.
What are the contributions of industrialization to development?
Answer:

1. Industries contribute by producing inputs such as fertilizers and tractors to agriculture thereby help them to increase productivity.
2. Services like Banking, transport and trade are dependent on the production of Industrial goods.
3. By using modem methods of production Industries contribute to better productivity and hence lower cost of production:
4. Industries helps to absorb the labour force coming out of agriculture.
5. By using modem technology, labour productivity increases, which help workers to get higher wages.
6. Increased income of the people lead to more demand for goods and services.
7. By producing more Industrial products, exports increases, thereby generate more foreign exchange.

Question 2.
Write a note on history of industrialisation in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Industrialisation in the Colonial Period

• The introduction of cotton cultivation in western and southern Tamil Nadu by the colonial government led to the emergence of a large-scale textile sector in these parts, which involved ginning, pressing, spinning and weaving operations.
• Introduction of railways also expanded the market for cotton yam and helped develop the sector.
• There was increase in trade during this period which led to industrial development. The two active ports in the region were Chennai and Tuticorin.
• In Western Tamil Nadu, the emergence of textiles industries also led to demand and starting
  of textile machinery industry in the region.

Post-Independence to early 1990s:

• After independence, several large enterprises were set up by both the central and state governments.
• The Integral Coach Factory in Chennai made railway coaches and the Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) in Tiruchirapalli manufactured boilers and turbines.
• Ashok Motors and Standard Motors together helped form an automobile cluster in the Chennai region.
• The 1970s and 1980s saw the setting up of emergence of power loom weaving clusters in the Coimbatore region as well as expansion of cotton knitwear cluster in Timppur and home furnishings cluster in Kamr.
• The Hosur industrial cluster is a successful case of how such policy efforts to promote industrial estates helped develop industries in a backward region.

Industrialization in Tamil Nadu – Liberalization Phase:

• The final phase of industrialisation is the post-reforms period since the early 1990s.
• Because of trade liberalisation measures, exports of textiles, home furnishings and leather products began to grow rapidly.
• Efforts to attract investments led to entry of leading multinational firms (MNCs) into the state, especially in the automobile sector.
• Chennai region also emerged as a hub for electronics industry with MNCs such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung and Flextronics opening plants on the city’s outskirts.
• A significant share of these investments has come up in special economic zones in the districts bordering Chennai.
• The major industries are automobiles, autocomponents, light and heavy engineering, machinery, cotton, etc.
• This diffused process of industrialisation and corresponding urbanisation has paved the way for better rural-urban linkages in Tamil Nadu than in most other states.

Question 3.
What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters? .
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.

1. Geographical proximity of Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs)
2. Sectoral specialisation
3. Close inter firm collaboration
4. Inter – firm competition based on innovation
5. A Socio – Cultural Identity which facilitates trust.
6. Multi – skilled workforce
7. Active self – help organisations and
8. Supportive regional and municipal governments.
9. Through Competition, they are forced to become more efficient.

Question 4.
Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Textile Clusters:
Tamil Nadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country. Because of the development of cotton textile industry since the colonial period, Coimbatore often referred as the “Manchester of South India”. At present, most of the spinning mills have moved to the smaller towns and villages at a radius over 100 to 150 km around the Coimbatore city. Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yam in the country.

Palladam and Somanur, small towns near Coimbatore and the villages near these towns, are home to a dynamic powerloom weaving cluster as well. Powerloom is however more widespread with Erode and Salem region too having a large number of power loom units.

Tiruppur is famous for clustering of a large number of firms producing cotton knitwear. It accounts for nearly 80% of the country’s cotton knitwear exports and generates employment in the range of over three lakh people since the late 1980s. It is also a major producer for the domestic market. Because of its success in the global market, it is seen as one of the most dynamic clusters in the Global South. While initially most firms were run by local entrepreneurs, at present, some of the leading garment exporters in India have set up factories here.

Apart from body building, Karur is a major centre of exports of home furnishings like table cloth, curtains, bed covers and towels. Bhavani and Kumrapalayam are again major centres of production of carpets, both for the domestic and the global markets.

Apart from such modem clusters, there are also traditional artisanal clusters such as Madurai and Kanchipuram that are famous for silk and cotton handloom sarees. Even these clusters have witnessed a degree of modernisation with use of powerlooms in several units.

Question 5.
Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to industrialise.
Answer:
The type of policies that are adopted by the Tamil Nadu Government to Industrialise are:- Education, Infrastructure, and Industrial promotion.

(i) Education: Industries require skilled human resources. Therefore, labourers are given technical knowledge apart from basic skills to enrich themselves. Many engineering colleges, polytechnics and Industrial training centres are opened in the country.

(ii) Infrastructure: Excellent infrastructure facilities has contributed to the spread of Industrialisation in smaller towns and villages in the state. Rural electrification, transport and especially minor roads that connect rural parts of the State enabled vast Industrialisation.

(iii) Industrial Promotion: Policies to promote specific sectors like automobile, auto components, bio – technology and information and communication sectors have been formulated to promote Industries of the state.

Question 6.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Role of an Entrepreneur:
Entrepreneurs play a most important role in the economic growth and development of a country’s economy.

1. They promote development of industries and help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.
2. They help the country to increase the GDP and Per Capita Income.
3. They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.
4. They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and country’s export trade.
5. Entrepreneurs provide large-scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals and work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.
6. They enable the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices, which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

VIII. Case studies

Question 1.
Choose a cluster in Tamil Nadu based on online research and write a note on it.
Answer:
An example of a cluster in Tamil Nadu is given below. Students can do online research on their own and write details using this as a sample.

Example case study of a pulp and paper industry in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newprint and papers Limited (http:// www.tnpl.co.in/)

The company: TNPL was formed by the Government of India in 1979 as a public limited company under the provisions of the companies Act of 1956. Objective: The primary objective of the company is to produce newsprint and printing and writing paper using bagasse, a sugarcane residue as the primary raw material.

Assistance: The only paper will in India assisted by the World Bank.

Machinery: The state of art machines were built in flexibility for manufacturing both newsprint and printing and writing papers in the same machine.

Capacity: The latest upgraded capacity enhanced to 2,30,000 tpa in April 2003 through upgradation of the paper machines which is considered as the largest production capacity in India at a single location.

Marketing: The products are being marketed throughout the country and also exported to 20 countries around the world.

Location: The factory is situated at Kagithapuram in Kanir district in Tamil Nadu.

IX. Activity and Project

Question 1.
Write a note on a cluster or a firm near your school/home based on your observations.
Answer:
Here is an sample of a cluster of firm observed in an area is given. This is to help students gain a basic idea about how to undertake this activity. Students can select their location, observe and write findings and do this activity.

Name of the Village: Neikkarapatti, Salem

Industrial cluster: Good quality and high production of Jaggery. The area in around almost all the houses, small or big make it a point to involve themselves in the production of Jaggery.

Type: It is one of the prominent Cottage Industry in the area.

Reason: Most of the farmers in the region cultivate sugarcane and own a jaggery making unit.

Labour: It is a manual jaggery making traditional work, unmindful of the challenges.

Process: The whole process takes about five hours with different names locally as Vellam and Mandai Vellam based on the shape of the mould.

X. Life Skills

Question 1.
Teacher and Students discuss about the entrepreneurs and their activities and Write an a essay in the topic of “If you are like a Entrepreneur”.
Answer:
Note: Students should imagine themselves as entrepreneurs and write an essay on the topic. This is sample essay given as a guideline for the students.

(A stationery shop – business)

Entrepreneurs are business owners. If I am a entrepreneur, first of all, I should start my business in the line of my interest and in part with the demand of the locality and their needs. This would help me to earn profit from it.

I prefer do my entrepreneurial task by staring it at a small level with less financial investment (approx. 10,000) from my uncle who is also an entrepreneur who supports and motivates me.

I purchase my products for sale from the whole saler. The items I purchase are not perishable stationery items. It is easy for me to store it in my house itself. I get bulk orders from nearby shops. Sometimes, latest arrivals of designed erasers, pencil sharpeners will be a attractive one.

As an entrepreneur, I am ready to face risk factors, price hike, less demand, poor quality, seasonal changes and so on. But, I enjoy my work as a businessman and earn profit that gives my career a spark to continue in the same line of business.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The conversion of raw materials into usable materials is called as
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Industry
(c) Exports
(d) Clusters
Answer:
(b) Industry

Question 2.
Wind energy is a form of …………… energy.
(a) Solar
(b) Petrol
(c) Hydel
Answer:
(a) Solar

Question 3.
SMESare:
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises
(b) Small, Medium, Export Services
(c) Small and Medium Export Services
(d) Salem Metal Export Services.
Answer:
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises

Question 4.
TIDCo is another government agency to establish ………………. estates.
(a) Industrial
(b) tea
(c) Real
Answer:
(a) Industrial

Question 5.
The Namakkal -Tiruchengode belt in Western Tamil Nadu is known for its ………………. building industry.
(a) Textile
(b) Truck body
(c) Coach
(d) Steel
Answer:
(b) Truck body

Question 6.
MEPZ is a special Economic zone in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Trichy
(c) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
TANS! was formed in the year:
(a) 1945
(b) 1955
(c) 1965
(d) 1975
Answer:
(c) 1965

Question 8.
………………. is an innovator of new ideas in business.
(a) Agriculturalist
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Entrepreneur

Question 9.
There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the ………………. marginal productivity of land.
(a) Increasing
(b) Decreasing
(c) Steady
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Decreasing

Question 10.
Health care and educational services are diffused across major cities of:
(a) Chennai
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Tiruppur
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 11.
Nanguneri SEZ is situated at:
(a) Tiruvallur
(b) Vayalur
(c) Thirunelveli
(d) Tambaram
Answer:
(c) Thirunelveli

Question 12.
………………. is intended to provide low – cost financial support for both setting up of new units and for expansion of existing units.
(a) TIDCO
(b) TANSI
(c) TIIC
(d) MEPZ
Answer:
(c) TIIC

Question 13.
When Government decide to encourage manufacturing using raw material from a region. It may lead to emergence of:
(a) Industrial clusters
(b) More taxation
(c) Subsidy
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Industrial clusters

Question 14.
The notion of an “Industrial district” was developed by Prof:
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Samuelson
(d) Pigou
Answer:
(b) Marshall

Question 15.
Heavy vechicles factory was set up to manufacture tanks in:
(a) Peramber
(b) Avadi
(c) Tiruchy
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(b) Avadi

Question 16.
Dindigul, Vellore and Amber area are famous for products.
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Leather
(d) Marine
Answer:
(c) Leather

Question 17.
The Avadi Industrial Estate was set up in the year:
(a) 1950
(b) 1960
(c) 1970
(d) 1980
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 18.
IT (Information Technology) Specific Special Economic Zones are located in ………………. locations in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 19.
The agencies that is formed to promote Industrial growth in the state by setting up Industrial estates are:
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TIDCO
(c) TIIC
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
Over the last ten years a few software firms have moved from Chennai to:
(a) Madurai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Coimbatore
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Coimbatore

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Stand up India scheme was launched in India in the year
2. ………….. is the ability to create and built something.
3. The Industries that produce raw materials for other Industries are called ………….. Industries.
4. If the output is consumed by another producer then, it is called as ………….. goods.
5. Geographical proximity of small and medium enterprise is a chief characteristic of a ………….. cluster.
6. ………….. policies have contributed to the decline of the handloom weaving industry.
7. The Salem steel plant was set up in the year …………..
8. Home Furnishings cluster is located at …………..
9. Integral Coach Factory (ICF) makes …………..
10. MNC means …………..
11. There are ………….. clusters in 13 districts of Tamil Nadu.
12. Transportation and poultry clusters are located in …………..
13. ………….. located in Trichy manufactures Boilers and Turbines.
14. The ………….. district is the top exporter of finished leather goods in the country.
15. SIPGOT was formed in the year …………..
16. MEPZ was established in the year to promote foreign direct investment.
17. A policy was set up in the year ………….. for setting up special Economic zone.
18. TANSI was formed in the year …………..
19. The poison control centre is associated with ………….. SEZ.
20. ………….. is the first Industrial cooperation operating in the domain of small enterprises.
21. There are ………….. export processing zones in the country set up by the Central Government.
22. ………….. schemes provides financial help specifically to SC and ST borrower and woman borrower.
23. Start up India scheme was launched to generate ………….. and creating …………..

Answers:

1. 5^th April 2016
2. Entrepreneur
3. Basic goods
4. capital
5. successful
6. Colonial
7. 1973
8. Karur
9. Railway coaches
10. Multi – National Companies
11. 27
12. Namakkal
13. BHEL
14. Vellore
15. 1971
16. 1984
17. 2000
18. 1965
19. Bio – pharmaceuticals
20. TANSI
21. Seven
22. Standup India
23. employment, wealth

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The development of Industries in India can be studied under colonial phase, post independent phase and liberalisation phase.
(ii) Services sector contributes a major share in employment generation.
(iii) Karur is expertised in bus body building and home furnishing.
(iv) Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yarn in the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 2.
(i) Only after the economic reforms in 1990 the state has been the entry of hardware and electronic manufacture centres.
(ii) Bhavani and Kumarapalayan are major centres of production of carpets locally and globally.
(iii) Sivakasi region has now become a major centre for printing and fireworks in the country.
(iv) Dindigul and Erode are major employment generators in Knitwear industry.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) only (ii) and (iv) correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct

V. Pick out odd one

Question 1.
Which is not a export processing zone?
(a) MEPZ
(b) SEZ
(c) TIDCO
(d) ELCOT
Answer:
(c) TIDCO

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu’s Textile clusters does not include
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Padalam
(c) Somanur
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(d) Dindigul

Question 3.
Which of the following is not under IT cluster?
(a) Nokia
(b) Foxconn
(c) Infosys
(d) MEPZ
Answer:
(d) MEPZ

VI. Write Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the industry?
Answer:
“Any human activity which is engaged in the conversion of raw materials into readily usable materials is called an industry”.

Question 2.
Why is small scale sectors considered important?
Answer:
The small scale sector is seen as important for two reasons.

1. To generate more employment than the large – scale sector.
2. The small scale sectors allows for a larger number of entrepreneurs to emerge from less privileged groups.

Question 3.
What is MEPZ?
Answer:
MEPZ is a special Economic Zone in Chennai and it is one of the seven export processing zones in the country set up by the central government. It was established in 1984. The MPEZ head-quarters is located on GST Road in Tambaram, Chennai.

Question 4.
Write the names of MNCs in Chennai region.
Answer:
MNCs such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung and Flextronics.

Question 5.
Write about Bus Body Building Industry clusters.
Answer:
The Namakkal-Tiruchengode belt in western Tamil Nadu is known for its truck body building industry. About 150 of the 250 units in this sector are located in this cluster including 12 large-sized body building houses. Karur is another major hub with more than 50 units. Many entrepreneurs were previous employees in a big firm involved in body building who came out . to set up their own units.

Question 6.
List down the names of the agencies that have played an important role in the Industrialisation of a state.
Answer:

1. SIPCOT – State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu.
2. TANSIDCO – Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development Corporation.
3. TIDCO – Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation
4. TIIC – Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Limited.
5. TANSI – Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Limited.

Question 7.
What is meant by SEZ?
Answer:
SEZ means Special Economic Zone in the country with a view to improve free environment for exports.

Question 8.
What do you understand by Stand up India Scheme?
Answer:
It is a scheme launched by the Indian Government with the primary objective of generation employment and wealth creation.

Question 9.
What do you understand by standup India scheme?
Answer:
It is a scheme launched by the Indian Government to facilitate bank loans between ₹ 10 lakh and ₹ 1 crore to atleast one scheduled caste (or) scheduled Tribe borrower and one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise.

Question 10.
How do entrepreneurs promote formation?
Answer:
Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and increasing country’s exports.

VII. Write Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write in detail about the types of industries on the basis of its use, raw ‘ material, ownership, and size.
Answer:
Types of Industries:

On the basis of

Uses:
Consumer goods Industries ⇒ output to the final consumer
Capital goods Industries ⇒ output consumed by another producer.
Basic goods Industries ⇒ output as the raw material for other Industries.

Raw material:
Agricultural sector
Industrial sector
Agro based sector
Leather Industries

Ownership:
Public owned ⇒ Government owned
Private owned ⇒ Private owned Co-operative owned

Size:
Large scale Industries
Small scale Industries
Medium scale Industries
Micro (or) tiny

Question 2.
Name some industrial development agencies and explain them.
Answer:
The following are some agencies that have played a key role in industrialization in the state. SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971 It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.

TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of TN established in the year 1970 to promote small- scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.

TIDCO (Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965:
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

TIIC (Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd.), 1949:
TIIC is intended to provide low-cost financial support for both setting up new units and also for expansion of existing units. Though it is meant to meet the requirements of all types of firms, 90% of support goes to micro, small and medium enterprises.

TANSI (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd.), 1965:
TANSI was formed in 1965 to take over the small scale-units that were set up and run by the Department of Industries and Commerce. It is supposed to be the first industrial corporation operating in the domain for small enterprises.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Government and Taxes Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The three levels of governments in India are:
(a) Union, State and local
(b) Central, State and village
(c) Union, Municipality and Panchayat
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Union, State and local

Question 2.
In India, taxes are including ……………..
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Indirect taxes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 3.
Which is the role of government and development policies?
(a) Defence
(b) Foreign policy
(c) Regulate the economy
(d) all of above
Answer:
(d) all of above

Question 4.
The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is ……………..
(a) Service tax
(b) Excise duty
(c) Income tax
(d) Central sales tax
Answer:
(c) Income tax

Question 5.
Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured:
(a) Value added tax (VAT)
(b) Income tax
(c) Goods and service tax
(d) Sales tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and service tax

Question 6.
Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year ……………
(a) 1860
(b) 1870
(c) 1880
(d) 1850
Answer:
(a) 1860

Question 7.
…………………….. tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Corporate tax
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(b) Wealth tax

Question 8.
What are identified as causes of black money?
(a) Shortage of goods
(b) High tax rate
(c) Smuggling
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 9.
Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by:
(a) Individuals
(b) Corporations
(c) Trusts
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 10.
Payments are ………….
(a) Fees and fines
(b) Penalties and forfeitures
(c) None of the above
(d) a and b

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………………. is levied by Government for the development of the state’s economy.
2. The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word ………………….
3. The burden of the …………………. tax cannot be shifted to others.
4. tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders.
5. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on ………………….
6. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called ………………….

Answers:

1. Tax
2. taxation
3. direct
4. Corporate tax
5. 1^st July 2017
6. Black Money

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State Governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

Question 2.
Choose the incorrect statements.
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iv)

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Define tax.
Answer:
Tax is levied by the government for the development of the state’s economy. The revenue of the government depends on direct and indirect taxes.

Question 2.
Why we pay tax to the government?
Answer:
We pay tax to the Government because the country have to carryout many functions like building infrastructure like transportation, sanitation, public , safety, education, healthcare, military, public works etc.,

Question 3.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:
Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have a tax system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. All countries use a variety of taxes. There are some characteristics of tax system that economists think should be followed while designing a tax system. These characteristics are called as canons of taxation.

Question 4.
What are the types of tax? Give examples.
Answer:
Direct taxes – Eg: Income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.
Indirect taxes – Eg: Stamp duty, Entertainment tax and Excise duty, Goods and services tax.

Question 5.
Write short note on Goods and Service Tax.
Answer:
Goods and Service Tax is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service. That aims to replace all indirect taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and state governments. GST would eliminative the cascading effect of taxes on the production and distribution of goods and services. It is also a “one-point tax” unlike value-added tax (VAT), which was a multipoint tax.

Question 6.
What is progressive tax?
Answer:
Progressive tax is the tax in which the rate of taxation increases as the tax base increases. When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.

Question 7.
What is meant by black money?
Answer:
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.

Question 8.
What is tax evasion?
Answer:
The illegal non – payment of taxes is generally called as tax evasion, either by individuals corporations and trusts.

Question 9.
Write some causes of tax evasion.
Answer:
Tax evasion resulting in black money prevents the resource mobilisation efforts of the Union government. Shortage of funds distorts the implementation of developmental plans and forces the government to resort to deficit financing in case public expenditure is inelastic.

Tax evasion interferes with the declared economic policies of the government by distorting saving and investment patterns and availability of resources for various sectors of the economy.

Question 10.
What is the difference between tax and payments?
Answer:
Tax is a compulsory payment whereas payment is voluntary. Payment for getting any service gives direct benefits whereas payments for tax will not give any direct benefit.

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain the role of government in development policies.
Answer:
In India, there are three levels of Governments. They are Union Government, State Government and Local Government. They carryout functions for the benefit of people and society. The role of Government can be studied under the following heads.

(i) Defence: To create and maintain defence forces in the country as an essential security function to protect our country from enemies. (Army, Navy and Air Force)

(ii) Foreign policy: India is committed to world peace. We maintain friendly economic relationship to all the countries of the world.

(iii) Conduct of periodic elections: India is a democratic country. We elect our representatives to parliament and State Assemblies.

(iv) Law and order: To settle disputes, the Union Government consists of strong judicial system with court at the National, State and Lower levels. The State Governments takes responsibility to maintain law and order with responsibility from police department.

(v) Public administration and provision of public goods: The public administration is done by the Government with the help of departments for revenue, health, education, rural development etc. Also, it provides public goods like rural roads, drainage, drinking water etc.

(vi) Redistribution of Income and Abolision of poverty: The Government spends money in such a way that the poorer are given basic necessities of life like food, clothing, shelter, education, health care, etc. Thereby the redistribution of income should eradicate poverty in the country.

(vii) Regulate the Economy: The Central Government with the help of the Reserve Bank of India, controls supply of money in the economy and the Interest rate, inflation and foreign exchange. The various agencies like securities Exchange Board of India and competition commission if India are also a tool for the Government to control the economy.

Question 2.
Explain some direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:
Types of Taxes:
Direct Taxes: A tax imposed on an individual or organisation, which is paid directly, is a direct tax. The burden of a direct tax cannot be shifted to others. J.S. Mill defines a direct tax as “one which is demanded from the very persons who it is intended or desired should pay it.” Some direct taxes are income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.

Income tax: Income tax is the most common and most important tax levied on an individual in India. It is charged directly based on the income of a person. The rate at which it is charged varies, depending on the level of income.

Corporate tax: This tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities fronl their shareholders. It is charged on royalties, interest gains from sale of capital assets located in India and fees for a technical services and dividends. Foreign companies are taxed on income that arises or is deemed to arise in India.

Wealth tax: Wealth tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership. The same property will be taxed every year on its current market value. The tax is levied on the individuals and companies alike.

Indirect Taxes: If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, it is an indirect tax. The impact is on one person while the incidence is on the another person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer. Some indirect taxes are stamp duty, entertainment tax, excise duty and goods and service tax (GST).

Stamp duty: Stamp duty is a tax that is paid on official documents like marriage registration or documents related to a property and in some contractual agreements.

Entertainment tax: Entertainment tax is a duty that is charged by the government on any source of entertainment provided. This tax can be charged on movie tickets, tickets to amusement parks, exhibitions and even sports events.

Excise duty: An excise tax is any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of manufacture, rather than at sale. Excise is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.

Question 3.
Write the structure of GST.
Answer:
Structure of GST
SGST (State Goods and Services Tax):
Levied Intra-state (or) within the state

Eg:

1. VAT / sales tax, purchase tax
2. Entertainment tax, luxury tax
3. Lottery tax
4. State surcharges and cesses.

Payable to state Government.

CGST (Central Goods and Service Tax):
Levied Intra state (or) within the state.

Eg:

1. Central Excise Duty, services tax
2. Customs duty, surcharges
3. Education and sec. Hr. sec. cess.

Payable to Central Government.

IGST (Integrated Goods and Services Tax)

Levied Inter State (or) between States.
Payable to Central Government.
Four major GST rates are
5%, 12%, 18%, 28%

Question 4.
What is black money? Write the causes of black money.
Answer:
Black Money
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.
Causes of Black Money:
Shortage of goods: Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money. Controls are often introduced to check black money.

Licensing proceeding: It is firmly believed that the system of controls permits, quotes and licences are associated with maldistribution of commodities in short supply, which results in the generation of black money.

Contribution of the industrial sector: Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money. For example, the Controller of Public Limited Companies tries to buy commodities at low prices and get them billed at high amounts and pockets the difference personally.

Smuggling: Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money. When India had rigid system of exchange controls, precious metals like gold and silver, textiles and electronics goods were levied a heavy excise duty. Bringing these goods by evading the authorities is smuggling.

Tax structure: When the tax rate is high, more black money is generated.

Question 5.
Explain the role of taxation in economic development.
Answer:
Resources Mobilisation:

1. The Government is able to mobilise resources and earn revenue from tax.
2. They utilise this revenue for the welfare of the people.

Reduction in Inequalities of Income:

1. Taxation follows the principal of equity.
2. When the nature of taxes are progressive that is when income increases, the tax rate also increases. .
3. So, poor will not be taxed much when their income is less.

Social welfare: Higher taxes are levied on undesirable products like alcoholic products thereby promoting social welfare.

Foreign Exchange: Taxation encourages exports and restricts imports. When there is no tax on export items, country earn more foreign exchange. Regional development: Generally, when industries are set up in backward regions, to motivate such business firms, tax incentives (or) tax hoildays are given to encourage development.

Control of Inflation: Through Taxation Government can control inflation of reducing the tax on the commodities.

VII. Activity and Projects

Question 1.
Collect information about the local taxes (water, electricity and house tax etc).
Water Tax: (with respect to the city Chennai)
Answer:

1. The rate of water tax is fixed at the 1.5% of the assessed annual value.
2. The administration is related to water tax in the city of Chennai is vested with (CMWS and SB) Chennai Metro Water Supply and Sewage Board.
3. Water tax is levied on private individuals and businesses on tap water.
4. Payment for water tax can be done online receipts will be generated within 24 hours of payment.
5. The time line of payment will be specified in the demand notice.
6. Failing to make the payment even after demanding legal proceedings added with fine and other charges are made.

Electricity Tax:

1. Electricity tax is an excise duty that is charged on the supplies of electricity made on or after 1st October 2008.
2. The tax is charged on the final supply of electricity to the consumer.
3. The liability of payments arises at the time the electricity is supplied.
4. The tax at a rate of 5% of the consumption charges.

House Tax / Property Tax:

1. A property tax or a house tax is a tax on the value of a property like house, office building etc.
2. This tax is levied by the governing authority of the area in.which the property is located.

Question 2.
Students purchase some goods on the shop. The teacher and students discuss those goods, maximum retail price, purchasing price or GST.
Answer:

Question 3.
Students are asked to search a Income Tax website and know the Income Tax Slab for current year.
Answer:
Website: www.apnaplan.com
New Income Tax Slabs and rates for financial year 2019-20

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Government mobilises its …………………. resources by levying taxes.
(a) financial
(b) physical
(c) material
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) financial

Question 2.
……………. tax is levied on companies that exist as seperate entities from their shareholders.
(a) direct
(b) Income
(c) Corporate
Answer:
(c) Corporate

Question 3.
Tax system should be designed in such a way that the people automatically pay more tax revenue with increase in income :
(a) Canon of equity
(b) Canon of elasticity
(c) Canon of certainty
(d) Canon of Economy
Answer:
(b) Canon of elasticity

Question 4.
In India almost all the direct taxes are collected by the ……………..
(a) Union Government
(b) State Government
(c) local bodies
Answer:
(a) Union Government

Question 5.
Energy, water and waste management systems are common public :
(a) utilities
(b) properties
(c) systems
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 6.
……………… has been the major contributor to black money.
(a) Agriculture sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Tax sectors
Answer:
(b) Industrial sector

Question 7.
An …………………. tax is a duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of manufacture.
(a) Sales
(b) Excise
(c) Stamp duty
(d) Entertainment
Answer:
(b) Excise

Question 8.
The major Indirect taxes in India are …………………. and GST.
(a) Customs duty
(b) Sales tax
(c) Excise duty
(d) Stamp duty
Answer:
(a) Customs duty

Question 9.
The structure of GST in India consists of …………………. forms.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 10.
Sales tax is an example of …………………. taxation.
(a) Progressive
(b) Proportional
(c) Regressive
(d) Degressive
Answer:
(c) Regressive

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India is committed to …………………..
2. The origin of the word tax is from taxation which means …………………..
3. The symbol PIB means …………………..
4. Goods and services tax is one of the …………………..
5. ………………….. was the first country to implement GST.
6. ………………….. was a multi-point tax.
7. France introduced GST in the year …………………..
8. Indian tax system adheres to Canon of ………………….. more than anything else.
9. The ticket to amusement park is an example for ………………….. tax.
10. SIT means …………………..
11. ………………….. is the payment for getting any service.
12. Taxation follows the principal of …………………..

Answer:

1. World peace
2. Estimate
3. Press Information Bureau
4. Indirect taxes
5. France
6. VAT
7. 1954
8. Certainty
9. Entertainment
10. Special Investigation Team
11. Fee
12. equity

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Black money refers to the unaccounted money.
(ii) Taxation should be used as an instrument for controlling inflation.
(iii) Tax payer does not expect any direct benefit from direct taxes.
(iv) Unreporting income is a form of tax evasion.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct.
Answer:
(d) All are correct.

Question 2.
(i) Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act is a recent legislation to curb black money in India.
(ii) Tax evasion is the illegal way of evading taxes by individuals only.
(iii) Overstating deductions is a form of generating black money.
(iv) Tax evasion penalties can be harsh depending on the severity of the crime.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Tax evasion undermines the equity attribute of the tax system.
(ii) Each Canons of taxation has its own unique characteristics.
(iii) GST is a form of direct tax.
(iv) GST came into force from 8th Nov – 2018.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iv) are correct
(d) only (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Write a note on Law and Order:
Answer:
Both the Union and state governments enact numerous laws to protect our rights, properties and to regulate our economy and society. To settle disputes, the Union government has a vibrant judicial system consisting of courts at the national state and lower levels and the state government take the responsibility for administrating the police force in respective states.

Question 2.
What are the types of taxes?
Answer:
Taxes are of two types

1. Direct taxes
2. Indirect taxes

Direct taxes are levied on the income of the persons and the indirect taxes are levied on goods and services.

Question 3.
What is wealth tax?
Answer:
It is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership. The same property will be taxed every year on its current market value. The tax is levied on the individuals and companies alike.

Question 4.
What are the forms of tax evasion?
Answer:
The tax evasion activities include:

1. Under reporting income
2. Inflating deductions (or) expenses
3. Hiding money
4. Hiding interest in off-shore accounts
5. Dishonest tax reporting
6. Overstating deductions.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Excise duty.
Answer:
An excise tax is any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movements of manufacture, rather than at sale. Excise is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.

Question 6.
State the reason”ln the case of Indirect taxes, the taxpayer is not the tax bearer why?
Answer:
In the case of Indirect taxes, the tax can be shifted to the others. That is the impact is on one person while the incidence is on the other person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer.

Question 7.
What is the main purpose of taxation?
Answer:
The main purpose of taxation is to accumulate funds for the functioning of the Government.

Question 8.
How are taxes levied in India?
Answer:
Taxes is levied in three ways

1. Progressive taxation
2. Proportionate taxation
3. Regressive taxation

Question 9.
Which Canon of tax system does Indian tax system adhere to?
Answer:
Indian tax system adheres to Canon of Certainty Government of India announce in advance the tax system so that every tax payer is able to calculate how much tax they have to pay.

Question 10.
When was the system of income tax introduced in India? and why?
Answer:
Income tax was introduced for the first time in India by Sir James Wilson in 1860 to meet the losses for the Government because of the sepoy mutiny of 1857.

Question 11.
What is meant by canon of equity?
Answer:
The canon of equity states that the rich should pay more tax revenue to the Government than the poor, thereby we can eliminate economic differences between them.

Question 12.
What is canon of certainty?
Answer:
The canon of certainty states that the Government should announce the tax system in advance and should not change it frequently.

Question 13.
What is canon of convenience?
Answer:
Tax should be collected from a person at the time he gets enough money to pay the tax. This is called canon of convenience.

Question 14.
What is canon of Economy?
Answer:
As tax payers, people may incur cost to process their accounts, In the same way, the Government also pay salary to its taxmen to run institution. The expenditure on all this should be economised or minimised.

Question 15.
What is canon of productivity?
Answer:
When the Government levies tax that can fetch more tax revenue to them then, it is called canon of productivity.

Question 16.
What is canon of Elasticity?
Answer:
The tax system should be designed in such a way that people automatically pay more tax revenue if their income grow. This is called canon of elasticity.

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write about the different canons of taxation.
Answer:
(i) Canon of Equity:
Since tax is a compulsory payment, all economists agree that equity is the cardinal principle in designing the tax system. The equity principal says that the rich should pay more tax revenue to government than the poor, because rich has more ability than the poor to pay the tax.

(ii) Canon of certainty:
Government should announce in advance the tax system so that every tax payer will be able to calculate how much tax amount one may have to pay during a year to the government.

(iii) Canons of Economy and Convenience:
These two canons are related. As tax payers we incur a cost to process our accounts and pay the tax, for example, salary paid to accountants and auditors.

Similarly government also pays salary to its taxmen and run huge institutions. If the tax is simple, then the cost of collecting taxes (tax payer cost + tax collector cost) will be very low.

Further, tax should be collected from a person at the time he gets enough money to pay the ‘ tax. This is called canon of convenience. A convenient tax reduces the cost of collecting tax.

(iv) Canons of Productivity and Elasticity:
Government should choose the taxes that can get enough tax revenue to it. Tax is paid by the people out their incomes. Therefore the tax system should be designed in such a way that the people automatically pay more tax revenue if their incomes grow. This is called canon of elasticity.

Question 2.
What are the penalties for a tax evader?
Answer:

1. If a person evade tax, he may be imprisoned upto to five years and had to pay a huge amount as fine.
2. The tax evader may also be ordered to pay for the costs of prosecution.
3. Other tax evasion penalties include community service, probation and restitution depending on the circumstances of the case.
4. If the crime of tax evader is very severe, the penalty can be harsh also.

Question 3.
What are the main differences between tax and other payments.
Answer:
Tax:

1. It is a compulsory payment to the Government.
2. Tax payer cannot expect direct benefit after paying taxes.
3. Tax payer has to pay the tax once it is imposed. Otherwise he/she will be penalised.
4. The purpose of levying tax is general. Money is used for the welfare of the people.
5. Eg: Income tax, gift box, wealth tax etc.,

Payments:

1. It is voluntary payment for getting any service.
2. Once payment is done, the person can expert direct benefit from it.
3. Payment need not be paid if the service is not necessary for a person.
4. The purpose of making payments is to enjoy certain special benefits.
5. Eg: Driving license, stamp fee, fee for Government Registration etc.,

Question 4.
What are the recent legislative measures to curb black money in India.
Answer:

1. SIT – Special Investigation Team on black money under Chairman and (Vice – Chairman of two former judges of the Supreme Court.)
2. The black money (undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of,tax Act – 2015.
3. MAG – Constitution of Multi Agency Group.
4. DTAAS – Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.
5. FATCA – Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act.
6. Money Laundering Act.
7. Enactment of the Benami Transaction Amendment Act.
8. Launching of Operation clean money.
9. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act.
10. The Real Estate Regulation and Development Act of 2016.

Question 5.
How are taxes leevied in India.
Answer:
Taxes is levied by the Government progressively, proportionately as well as Regressively.

Progressive Tax: Progressive Tax rate is one in which the rate of taxation increase as the tax base increases. When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.

Proportional Tax: Tax levied on goods and services in fixed portion is known as proportionate taxes. Tax amount varies in the same proportion to that of Income.

Regressive Tax: It implies that higher the rate of tax, lower the income groups than in the case of higher income groups.

That is, tax is levied uniformly at a flat percentage regardless who the purchaser or owner Eg: Sales Tax, Property Tax.

Question 6.
As per the Interim budget for the financial year 2019 – 20, State the areas from where money / rupee is earned and spend hy Government of India (GOI).
Answer:
Earning money through:

1. Income Tax, Corporation tax
2. Customs
3. Union excise duties
4. GST
5. Borrowing and other liabilities
6. Non – dept capital assets
7. Non – Tax Revenues

Money goes to:

1. Interest payments
2. Central sector schemes
3. Centrally sponsored scheme
4. Pension and other expenditure
5. State share of duties and taxes
6. Defence
7. Subsidies
8. Finance commission and
9. Other transfers.