Category: Class 10

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 17 Reproduction in Plants and Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 17 Reproduction in Plants and Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Reproduction in Plants and Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is:
(a) Onion
(b) Neem
(c) Ginger
(d) Bryophyllum
Answer:
(d) Bryophyllum

Question 2.
Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ______.
(a) Amoeba
(b) Yeast
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Bacteria.
Answer:
(b) Yeast

Question 3.
Syngamy results in the formation of:
(a) Zoospores
(b) Conidia
(c) Zygote
(d) Chlamydospores
Answer:
(c) Zygote

Question 4.
The essential parts of a flower are ______.
(a) Calyx and Corolla
(b) Calyx and Androecium
(c) Corolla and Gynoecium
(d) Androecium and Gynoecium.
Answer:
(d) Androecium and Gynoecium.

Question 5.
Anemophilous flowers have:
(a) Sessile stigma
(b) Small smooth stigma
(c) Colored flower
(d) Large feathery stigma
Answer:
(d) Large feathery stigma

Question 6.
Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ______.
(a) Generative cell
(b) Vegetative cell
(c) Microspore mother cell
(d) Microspore.
Answer:
(a) Generative cell

Question 7.
What is true of gametes?
(a) They are diploid
(b) They give rise to gonads
(c) They produce hormones
(d) They are formed from gonads
Answer:
(d) They are formed from gonads

Question 8.
A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and mature is known as ______.
(a) Epididymis
(b) Vasa efferentia
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Seminiferous tubules.
Answer:
(d) Seminiferous tubules.

Question 9.
The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are:
(a) Primary germ cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Leydig cells
(d) Spermatogonia
Answer:
(b) Sertoli cells

Question 10.
Estrogen is secreted by ______.
(a) Anterior pituitary
(b) Primary follicle
(c) Graafian follicle
(d) Corpus luteum.
Answer:
(b) Primary follicle

Question 11.
Which one of the following is an IUCD?
(a) Copper – T
(b) Oral pills
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Tubectomy
Answer:
(a) Copper – T

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is ………
2. After fertilization the ovary develops into ………
3. Pianaria reproduces asexuallv by ………
4. Fertilization is ……….. in humans.
5. The implantation of the embryo occurs at about ……….. day of fertilization.
6. ………. is the first secretion from the mammary gland after child birth.
7. Prolactin is a hormone produced by …………

Answer:

1. Double fertilization
2. Fruits
3. Regeneration
4. Internal
5. 6 to 7
6. Colostrum
7. Anterior pituitary

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (i)

Question 2.
Match the following terms with their respective meanings

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the false statement.

1. Stalk of the ovule is called pedicle.
2. Seeds are the product of asexual reproduction.
3. Yeast reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission.
4. The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called as style.
5. Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen.
6. Sex organs produce gametes which are diploid.
7. LH is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
8. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy.
9. Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
10. The increased level of oestrogen and progesterone is responsible for menstruation.
Answer:
1. False – Stalk of the ovule is called Funiculus
2. False – Seeds are the product of sexual reproduction
3. False – Budding reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission.
4. False – The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure or the pollen is called as stigma.
5. False – Wind pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen.
6. False – Sex organs produce gametes which are haploid
7. False – Anterior pituitary (LH is secreted by the Anterior pituitary)
8. True
9. True
10. True

V. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
If one pollen grain produces two male gametes, how many pollen grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules?
Answer:
Atleast 10 pollen grains required to fertilise 10 ovules because only one male gamete is involved in the fusion of male gamete with the egg cell.

Question 2.
In which part of the flower germination of pollen grains takes place?
Answer:
Pollen grains reach the stigma and begin to germinate.

Question 3.
Name two organisms which reproduces through budding.
Answer:
Yeast and hydra reproduce through budding.

Question 4.
Mention the function of the endosperm.
Answer:
The endosperm provides food to the developing embryo.

Question 5.
Name the hormone responsible for the vigorous contractions of the uterine muscles.
Answer:
Oxytocin from the posterior pituitary stimulates the uterine contraction.

Question 6.
What is the enzyme present in the acrosome of sperm?
Answer:
Hyaluronidase is the enzyme, present in the acrosome of sperm, which helps the sperm to enter the ovum during fertilization.

Question 7.
When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day observed?
Answer:
Every year May 28th is observed as Menstrual Hygiene day to make girls and women aware of maintaining menstrual hygiene and importance of menstrual hygiene for good health.

Question 8.
What is the need for contraception?
Answer:
Contraception is used to prevent pregnancy, to check population growth.

Question 9.
Name the part of the human female reproductive system where the following occurs, (a) Fertilization (b) Implantation
Answer:
(a) Fertilization: Occurs in the oviduct of the female genital tract. It takes place usually in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.
(b) Implantation: Blastocyst reaches the uterus (uterine wall) (endometrium)

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
Answer:
Each fragment will develop into a new individual by a specialized mass of cell. It is called regeneration. It is the ability of the lost body parts of an individual organism to give rise to a whole new organism.

Question 2.
Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some type of plants?
Answer:
The vegetative part of plant, root, stem, leaf or budgets detached from the parent body and grows into an independent daughter plant by mitotic division. The daughter plants are genetically similar to the parent plant.

Question 3.
How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Answer:

Question 4.
Define triple fusion.
Answer:
The fusion involving two polar nuclei and a sperm nucleus, that occurs in double fertilization in a seed plant and results in the formation of endosperm, is called the triple fusion.

Question 5.
Write the characteristics of insect-pollinated flowers.
Answer:

1. The flowers are brightly coloured to attract insects which have smell and nectar.
2. The pollen grains are larger in size, the exine is pitted, spiny, so they can be adhered firmly on the stucky stigma.

Question 6.
Name the secondary sex organs in male.
Answer:
The secondary sex organs in the male are vas deferens, Epididymis, seminal vesicle, prostate gland and penis.

Question 7.
What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
Answer:
The milk produced from the breast during the first 2 to 3 days after child birth is called colostrum. Milk production from alveoli of mammary glands is stimulated by prolactin secreted from the anterior pituitary.

Question 8.
How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
Answer:
Maintaining menstrual hygiene is important for the overall health of women.

• Sanitary pads should be changed regularly, to avoid infections due to microbes from vagina and sweat from genitals.
• Use of warm water to clean genitals, to get rid of menstrual cramps.
• Wearing loose clothing, to ensure the airflow around the genitals, to prevent sweating.

Question 9.
How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother’s body?
Answer:
The developing embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. It is embedded in the uterine wall. This is a disc like tissue which develops between the uterine walls and embryo. It has villi of embryo side of the tissue. On the mother side are blood spaces with the villi. This gives a large surface area for oxygen and glucose to pass from the mother to the embryo.

Question 10.
Identify the parts A, B, C and D.

Answer:
A – Exine
B – Intine
C – Generative nucleus
D – Vegetative nucleus

Question 11.
Write the events involved in the sexual reproduction of a flowering plant.

1. Discuss the first event and write the types.
2. Mention the advantages and disadvantages of that event.

Answer:

1. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called pollination. Self – Pollination and Cross-Pollination are the two types of Pollination.
2. Advantages:
   • It results in fertilization, which leads to the formation of fruits and seeds.
   • New varieties of plants are formed, through a new combination of genes,
3. Disadvantages:
   • More wastage of pollen grains.
   • Pollination may fail due to the distance barrier.
   • Flowers depend on external agencies for pollination.

Question 12.
Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in which they are present.
Answer:
Human testes responsible for synthesis of male gametes(sperms) need slightly lower temperature than the normal body temperature for this function. Thus, they are located outside the abdominal cavity in a sac like structure called scrotum.

Question 13.
The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the secretory phase. Give reason.
Answer:
During the Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle in the uterus, the hormone progesterone is produced by the ovaries. Progesterone and estrogen are secreted by the Corpus Luteum, which develops from the Graafian follicle. So this phase of the menstrual cycle is called the secretory phase.

Question 14.
Why are family planning methods not adopted by all the people of our country?
Answer:
Family planning is a way of living that is adopted voluntary by couples on the basis of knowledge and responsible decision to promote the health and welfare of the family group and society. As it is voluntary many people are not aware of the importance of family planning.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
With a neat labelled diagram describe the parts of a typical angiospermic ovule.
Answer:
Structure of the Ovule : The main part of the ovule is the nucellus which is enclosed by two integuments leaving an opening called as micropyle. The ovule is attached to the ovary wall by a stalk known as funiculus. Chalaza is the basal part.

The embryo sac contains seven cells and the eighth nuclei located within thenucellus. Three cells at the micropylar end form the egg apparatus and the three cells at the chalaza end are the antipodal cells. The remaining two nuclei are called polar nuclei found in the centre. In the egg apparatus one is the egg cell (female gamete) and the remaining two cells are the synergids.

Question 2.
What are the phases of menstrual cycle? Indicate the changes in the ovary and uterus.
Answer:

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
In angiosperms, the pollen germinates to produce a pollen tube that carries two gametes. What is the purpose of carrying two gametes when single gamete can fertilize the egg?
Answer:
One sperm fuses with the egg (syngamy) and forms a diploid zygote. The other sperm fuses with the secondary nucleus (Triple fusion) to form the primary endosperm. After triple fusion, the primary endosperm nucleus develops into an endosperm. The purpose of carrying two gametes is, endosperm provides food to the developing embryo.

Question 2.
Why menstrual cycle does not take place before puberty and during pregnancy?
Answer:
Menstruation occur when the egg is not fertilized. Every month uterus prepares itself to receive the fertilized egg to nourish the embryo, its lining becomes thick and spongy for implantation of the fertilized egg.
In case egg is not fertilized thin lining breaks and discharged out of the body through the vagina in the form of blood.
This condition will not happen before puberty and during pregnancy.

Question 3.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Rohini and her parents were watching a television programme. An advertisement flashed on the screen which was promoting the use of sanitary napkins. Rohini’s parents suddenly changed the channel, but she objected to her parents and explained the need and importance of such advertisement.
(a) What is first menstruation called? When does it occur?
(b) List out the napkin hygiene measures taken during menstruation?
(c) Do you think that Rohini’s objection towards her parents was correct? If so, Why?
Answer:
(a) The first period or menstruation is a point in time, known as Menarche. It usually begins between 12 to 15 years of age.

(b)

1. The sanitary pad and tampons should be wrapped properly and discarded because they can spread infections.
2. Sanitary pad or tampon should not be flushed down the toilet.
3. Napkin incinerators are to be used properly for disposal of used Napkins.

(c) No, it was not correct. The parents and teachers have to create awareness among the school girls about the use of Napkins and their proper disposal. Girls should be educated and should know the importance of such advertisement on Television.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Reproduction in Plants and Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In a pollen grain the small nucleus is:
(a) Generative nucleus
(b) Tube nucleus
(c) Vegetative nucleus
(d) Pollen nucleus
Answer:
(a) Generative nucleus

Question 2.
The female part of the flower is ______.
(a) Androecium
(b) Anemophily
(c) Gynoecium
(d) Micropyle.
Answer:
(c) Gynoecium

Question 3.
Spirogyra is an:
(a) Virus
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Algae
Answer:
(d) Algae

Question 4.
During pregnancy, the uterus expands, it’s normal size up to ______.
(a) 200 times
(b) 500 times
(c) 600 times
(d) 800 times.
Answer:
(b) 500 times

Question 5.
In wind pollinated flowers, the pollen grains are:
(a) sticky and powdery
(b) small and powdery
(c) dry and powdery
(d) wet and powdery
Answer:
(c) dry and powdery

Question 6.
Androecium is the part of the flower.
(a) upper
(b) male
(c) lower
(d) female
Answer:
(b) male

Question 7.
Zygote is a resulting product of:
(a) Germination
(b) Pollination
(c) Fusion of Embryosac
(d) Fertilization
Answer:
(d) Fertilization

Question 8.
Pick out the correct statement:
(a) Endosperm is a connective tissue
(b) Endosperm is a muscular tissue
(c) Endosperm is a nutritive tissue
(d) Endosperm is a nervous tissue
Answer:
(c) Endosperm is a nutritive tissue

Question 9.
The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood, forming:
(a) Corpus Luteum
(b) Corpus albricans
(c) Corpus Collosum
(d) Corpus Haemorrhagueim
Answer:
(a) Corpus Luteum

Question 10.
The endometrium is the lining of:
(a) bladder
(b) vagina
(c) uterus
(d) oviduct
Answer:
(c) uterus

Question 11.
Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of:
(a) Progesterone
(b) FSH
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Vasopressin
Answer:
(a) Progesterone

Question 12.
Testosterone is secreted by:
(a) Leydig cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Seminiferous tubule
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 13.
In mammals, maturation of sperms take place at a temperature:
(a) Equal to that of body
(b) Higher than that of body
(c) Lower than that of body
(d) At any piece of mammalian sperm
Answer:
(c) Lower than that of body

Question 14.
If menstrual cycle is 30 days and bleeding starts on 1st day, then ovulation occur on:
(a) 14th day
(b) 18th day
(c) 30th day
(d) 16th day
Answer:
(d) 16th day

Question 15.
The symbol of family planning in India is:
(a) Square
(b) Inverted red triangle
(c) Rectangle
(d) Circle
Answer:
(b) Inverted red triangle

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent ………
2. Progesterone is secreted by ………..
3. Sertoli cells are found mg in ………….
4. Hormone responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteum is ………..
5. First menstrual cycle starts is ………..
6. The functional maturation of sperms takes place in ………..
7. Seeds develops from …………
8. In ……… buds are produced in the notches along the leaf margin.
9. Androecium is a group of …………
10. In self pollination, flowers need not to depend on ………… of pollination.
11. Pollination by wind is called ………..
12. The point of attachment of ovule to the funicle is known as …………..
13. In Angiosperm pollen tube liberate their male gametes into the …………
14. Double fertiliztaion is essential for formation of ……….
15. During spore formation a structure called ………… develops from the fungal hypha
Answer:
1. Fertilization
2. Corpus luteum
3. Seminiferous tubule
4. LH
5. Menarche
6. Epididyms
7. Ovule
8. Bryophyllum
9. Stamens
10. Agents
11. Anemophily
12. Hilum
13. Synergids
14. Endosperm
15. Sporangium

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reasoning:

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Some of the Angiospermic plants are propagated only by vegetative propagation.
Reason (R): They have lost the capacity of seed formation.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Double fertilization is the universal features of all plants.
Reason (R): In this fusion only male gametes and secondary nucleus takes place.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The unit of Androecium is called stamen.
Reason (R): The most important part of androecium is anther.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Anemophily includes wastage of pollen grains.
Reason (R): Anemophilous flowers are neither attractive nor fragrant.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Sexual reproduction takes place with the participation of two different type of gametes.
Reason (R): Sexual reproduction is also known as Apomixies.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): In India, IUDS most widely accepted methods of contraception.
Reason (R): IUDS are injectable contraceptives, which prevent pregnancy for three months.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Over population has become a serious problem in developing countries.
Reason (R): It may exhaust natural resources, cause unemployment and lead to pollution.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

V. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement

1. Tubectomy a method of population control performed on males.
2. Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
3. The germ pore of dicot seed is known as micropyle.
4. Vegetative reproduction is a kind of asexual reproduction.
5. The protective wall of the pollen is intine.

Answer:

1. False – Tubectomy a method of population control performed on females
2. False – Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the urban women
3. True
4. True
5. False – The protective wall of the pollen is exine.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Define reproduction.
Answer:
Reproduction is the process of producing offspring of their own kind.

Question 2.
Define Fertilization.
Answer:
The fusion of male gamete with female gamete to form zygote is called fertilization.

Question 3.
Where the fertilization takes place in human female?
Answer:
Fertilization in human female occurs in the oviduct of the female genetal tract. It takes place usually in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.

Question 4.
Name two types of reproduction.
Answer:
Asexual and Sexual reproduction.

Question 5.
Define Menstruation.
Answer:
Menstruation is a periodical phenomenon that continues from puberty to menopause. This will happen if the released ovum is not fertilized by the sperm.

Question 6.
Write the name of male and female reproductive part of a flower.
Answer:
Androecium and Gynoecium.

Question 7.
Define gestation period.
Answer:
Gestation is the time period during which the embryo attains its development in the uterus.

Question 8.
What is the gestation period in human?
Answer:
Normally gestation period of human last for about 280 days.

Question 9.
Write the full form of IUD and AIDS.
Answer:
IUD – Intra Uterine devices
AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

Question 10.
What is Menopause?
Answer:
A natural decline in reproductive hormones when a woman reaches 48-50 years of age.

Question 11.
Define Pollination.
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of a flower is called pollination.

Question 12.
What are the agents of pollination?
Answer:
Animals, Insects, Wind and Water are the agents of Pollination.

Question 13.
What is Parturition?
Answer:
Parturition is the expulsion of young one from the mother uterus at the end of gestation.

Question 14.
What is endometrium?
Answer:
The endometrium is the inner epithelial layer along with its mucous membrane of the mammalian uterus.

Question 15.
What are gonads?
Answer:
Organs of the reproductive system are gonads. Testes are male gonads and ovaries are female gonads.

Question 16.
Name two sexually transmitted disease.
Answer:
Syphilis. AIDS

Question 17.
What is Vitelline membrane?
Answer:
The membrane forming the surface layer of the ovum is called vitelline membrane.

Question 18.
Which parts of the flower transform into the seed and fruit?
Answer:
Ovule develops into seed.
Ovary develops into fruit.

Question 19.
Name two sex hormones.
Answer:
Testosterone and Progesterone

Question 20.
What is umblical cord?
Answer:
A cord containing blood vessels that connects the placenta with the foetus is called the umblical cord.

VII. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is vegetative reproduction? Give an example.
Answer:
New plantlets, which are formed from the vegetative (somatic) parts of plants, such as root, stem, leaf or bud from the parent body is called vegetative reproduction, eg. In Bryophyllum, small plants grow at the leaf notches.

Question 2.
What happens when the egg is not fertilized?
Answer:
If the egg is not fertilized, corpus luteum degenerates, the egg disintegrates and the uterine lining slowly breaks, discharges as blood and mucus leading to menstrual events.

Question 3.
Explain the types of Urinary Tract Infection?
Answer:
Woman are susceptible to Urinary Tract Infection from the bacteria, that are present on skin, rectum or vagina. The types of UTI are:

• Cystitis or Bladder infection: Bacteria lodged in the urinary bladder, thrive and multiply leading to inflammation, at the age group of 20 to 50.
• Kidney Infection: The bacteria travels from the urinary bladder and upward to ureter and affect one or both the kidneys. It also infects the bloodstream and leads to serious life-threatening complications.
• Asymptomatic Bacteriuria: The bacteria present in the urinary bladder, which may not show any symptoms.

Question 4.
How does reproduction help in providing stability to population of species?
Answer:
Reproductive ensures the continuity and survival of the species. This process is to preserve individual species and it is called self perpetuation.

Question 5.
What is vegetative propagation? Write two examples where it is used.
Answer:
In vegetative propagation, new plantlets are formed from vegetative cells, buds or organs of plant. The vegetative part of plant get detached from the parent body and grow into an independent daughter plant. Root – Sweet potato, Stem – Strawberry.

Question 6.
What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?
Answer:

1. To avoid frequent pregnancies, which in turn helps in population control.
2. To prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases.

Question 7.
State in brief the function of the following organ,
(a) Ovary
(b) Fallopian tube
Answer:
(a) Ovary – Produce Oocytes (egg) for fertilization and produce hormones – Oestrogen and Progesterone.
(b) Fallopian tube – Transport the egg from the ovary to uterus.

Question 8.
Surgical methods can be used to create a block in the reproductive system for contraceptive purpose. Name such parts where block are created in
(i) Male
(ii) Female.
Answer:
(i) Male – Vasectomy – ligation of vas deferens
(ii) Female – Tubectomy – ligation of Fallopian tube

VIII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
List out the different methods of contraceptive. Explain any two.
Answer:
Common contraceptive methods used to prevent pregnancy are:
(i) Barrier methods
(ii) Hormonal methods
(iii) Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs)
(iv) Surgical methods

(i) Barrier Methods : This method prevents sperms from meeting the ovum. Its entry into the female reproductive tract is prevented by barrier.

1. Condom : Condom prevents deposition of sperms in the vagina. Condoms are made of thin rubber or latex sheath. Condom also protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STD) like syphilis, AIDS.
2. Diaphragm (Cervical cap) : Vaginal diaphragm fitting into the vagina or a cervical cap fitting over the cervix. This prevents the entry of sperms into the uterus.

(ii) Hormonal Methods : Hormonal preparations are in the form of pills or tablets (contraceptive pills). These hormones stop (interfere with ovulation) the release of egg from the ovary.

Question 2.
Explain the structure of pollen grain with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Pollen grains are usually spherical in shape. It has two layered wall. The hard outer layer is known as exine. It has prominent apertures called germpore. The inner thin layer is known as intine. It is a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin. Mature pollen grains contain two cells, the vegetative and the generative cell. Vegetative cell contains a large nucleus. The generative cell divides mitotically to form two male gametes.

Question 3.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of self and cross pollination.
Answer:
Advantages of self-pollination:

1. Self-pollination is possible in certain bisexual flowers.
2. Flowers do not depend on agents for pollination.
3. There is no wastage of pollen grains.

Disadvantages of self-pollination:

1. The seeds are less in numbers.
2. The endosperm is minute. Therefore, the seeds produce weak plants.
3. New varieties of plants cannot be produced.

Advantages of cross pollination:

1. The seeds produced as a result of cross pollination, develop and germinate properly and grow into better plants, i.e., cross pollination leads to the production of new varieties.
2. More viable seeds are produced.

Disadvantages of cross-pollination:

1. Pollination may fail due to distance barrier.
2. More wastage of pollen grains.
3. It may introduce some unwanted characters.
4. Flowers depend on the external agencies for pollination.

Question 4.
Explain the structure of human sperm with diagram.
Answer:

Structure of Human Sperm: The spermatozoan consists of head, a middle piece and tail. The sperm head is elongated and formed by the condensation of nucleus. The anterior portion has a cap like structure called acrosome. It contains hyaluronidase an enzyme that helps the sperm to enter the ovum during fertilization. A short neck connects the head and middle piece which comprises the centrioles. The middle piece contains the mitochondria which provides energy for the movement of tail. It brings about sperm motility which is essential for fertilization.

Question 5.
Explain the structure of ovum with diagram.
Answer:
The mature ovum or egg is spherical in shape. The ovum is almost free of yolk. It contains abundant cytoplasm and the nucleus. The ovum is surrounded by three membranes. The plasma membrane is surrounded by inner thin zona pellucida and an outer thick corona radiata. The corona radiata is formed of follicle cells. The membrane forming the surface layer of the ovum is called vitelline membrane. The fluid-filled space between zona pellucida and the surface of the egg is called perivitelline space.

IX. Give Reason:

Question 1.
If a women is using copper – T, will it help in protecting her from sexual transmitted diseases?
Answer:
No, Copper-T does not prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases. Copper-T only prevents implantation. The only safe method used to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases is the use of condoms.

Question 2.
Leaves of the Bryophyllum fallen on the ground produce new plants whereas the leaves of rose do not. Why?
Answer:
The leaves of Bryophyllum is levoad and fleshy, has notches at its margins. Buds arise from the notches, but in rose plant notches are absent.

Question 3.
The organisms formed by asexual reproduction are considered as clones. Why?
Answer:
Offspring produced by a asexual reproduction are not only identical to parents, but are also exact copies of their parent because it involves only miotic cell division.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Organism A needs water to multiply and organism B needs sugar solution to multiply. Identify the organism A and B and their method of Reproduction.
Answer:
Organism A is Amoeba – which multiplies by binary fusion.
Organism B is Yeast – which needs sugar medium for budding.

Question 2.
If ovaries from a pregnant woman arc removed in 4th month of pregnancy. What will happen?
Answer:
Embryo develops normally till birth as it grows in the utreus.

Question 3.
A pregnant female not able to delivers the baby due to lack of ‘X’ hormones. Identify ‘X’ hormone. Write its function.
Answer:
The ‘X” hormone is oxytocin. It provides force to expel the baby from the uterus causing birth.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 15 Nervous System Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Nervous System

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Bipolar neurons are found in:
(a) retina of eye
(b) cerebral cortex
(c) embryo
(d) respiratory epithelium
Answer:
(a) retina of eye

Question 2.
The site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence, and thought is ______
(a) kidney
(b) ear
(c) brain
(d) lungs
Answer:
(c) brain

Question 3.
In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by:
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle
(b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
Answer:
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle

Question 4.
Dendrites transmit impulse ______ cell body and axon transmit impulse ______ cell body.
(a) away from, away from
(b) towards, away from
(c) towards, towards
(d) away from, towards
Answer:
(b) towards, away from

Question 5.
The outer most of the three cranial meninges is:
(a) arachnoid membrane
(b) piamater
(c) duramater
(d) myelin sheath
Answer:
(c) duramater

Question 6.
There are …….. pairs of cranial nerves and ………. pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31
(b) 31, 12
(c) 12, 13
(d) 12, 21
Answer:
(a) 12, 31

Question 7.
The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre _____
(a) afferent neurons
(b) association neuron
(c) efferent neuron
(d) unipolar neuron
Answer:
(c) efferent neuron

Question 8.
Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus
(b) hypothalamus
(c) corpus callosum
(d) pons
Answer:
(c) corpus callosum

Question 9.
Node of Ranvler is found in:
(a) muscles
(b) axons
(c) dendrites
(d) cyton
Answer:
(b) axons

Question 10.
Vomiting centre is located in ______
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) stomach
(c) cerebrum
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(a) medulla oblongata

Question 11.
Nerve cells do not possess:
(a) neurilemma
(b) sareolemma
(c) axon
(d) dendrites
Answer:
(b) sareolemma

Question 12.
A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the following part of the brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) cerebrum
(c) pons
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(d) hypothalamus

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……….. is the longest cell in our body.
2. Impulses travels rapidly ……….. in ……….. neurons.
3. A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called ………..
4. ………. carries the impulse towards the cell body.
5. The two antagonistic component of autonomic nervous system are ……….. and ……….
6. A neuron contains all cell organelles except …………
7. ………. maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
8. ………… and ………… increases the surface area of cerebrum.
9. The part of human brain which acts as relay center is ………….

Answer:

1. Nerve cell or neuron
2. sensory
3. stimulus
4. Dentrites
5. sympathetic and parasympathetic system
6. Nucleus
7. Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF)
8. Gyri and sulci
9. thalamus

III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement:

1. Dendrons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
2. Sympathetic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
3. Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of human body.
4. Cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
5. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the white matter.
6. All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges.
7. Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain.
8. Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus.
9. Pons helps in regulating respiration.

Answer:

1. False – Axons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
2. False – Autonomic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
3. True
4. False – Cerebellum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
5. True
6. False – Brain is covered and protected by meninges.
7. True
8. True
9. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

V. Understand the assertion statement. Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion: Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system.
Reason: Cerebrospinal fluid has no such functions.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

2. Assertion: Corpus callosum is present in space between the duramater and . piamater.
Reason: It serves to maintain the constant intracranial pressure.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.

VI. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define the stimulus.
Answer:
The changes in the environmental condition that are detected by the receptors present in the body is called stimulus.

Question 2.
Name the parts of the hindbrain.
Answer:
The hindbrain is formed of three parts. Cerebellum, Pons and Medulla Oblongata.

Question 3.
What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
Answer:
Cranium (skull) and three connective tissue membrane meninges – Duramater, Arachnoid membrane and piamater protect the brain.

Question 4.
Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
The conditioned reflexes are the result of practice and learning. Playing the harmonium by striking a particular key, on seeing a music note is an example of conditioned reflexes.

Question 5.
Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system?
Answer:
Hypothalamus is the link between nervous system and endocrine system as it controls the secretion of hormones from anterior pituitary gland.

Question 6.
Define reflex arc.
Answer:
The path taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called a Reflex arc.

VII. Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Voluntary and involuntary actions.
Answer:

Question 2.
Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre.
Answer:

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
Answer:
The human brain is divided into 3 major parts. Fore brain, Mid brain and Hind brain.
Fore brian consists of Cerebrum, Thalamus and Hypothalamus.

Mid brain
Parts of the brain is Corpora quadrigemina
Function is control visual and auditory reflexes.

Hind brain consists of Pons, Cerebellum and Medulla Oblongata.

Question 2.
What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of response with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
If we touch a sharp pointed object, we immediately withdraw our hand.
Here the skin is the receptor and it receives the stimulus, that is the pain. This stimulus (pain) in turn triggers an impulse in sensory neuron. The sensory neuron transmits or convey the message to the spinal cord. Spinal cord interprets the stimulus and the impulse is passed on to the relay neuron which in turn transmits it to a motor neuron. Motor neuron carry command from the spinal cord to our arm. Muscle in our arm contracts and we withdraw our hand immediately

Question 3.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.
Answer:

A neuron is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system. A neuron consists of Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.
Cyton : It has a central nucleus with abundant cytoplasm called neuroplasm. The cytoplasm has large granular body called Nissl’s granules and the other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic recticulum.

Dendrites : These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes that project from the surface of the cell body. They conduct nerve impulses towards the cyton.

Axon : The axon is a single, elongated, slender projection. The end of axon terminates as fine branches which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob. The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma, while the cytoplasm is called axoplasm. It carries impulses away from the cyton. The axons may be covered by a protective sheath called myelin sheath which is further covered by a layer of Schwann ceils called neurilemma. Myelin sheath breaks at intervals by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region between the nodes is called as internode. Myelin sheath acts as insulator and ensures rapid transmission of nerve impulses.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of spinal cord.
Answer:
Spinal cord is a cylindrical structure lying in the neural canal of the vertebral column. It is also covered by meninges.
It extends from the lower end of medulla oblongata to the first lumbar vertebra. The posterior most region of spinal cord tapers into a thin fibrous thread like structure called filum terminale.

Internally, the spinal cord contains a cerebrospinal fluid filled cavity known as the central canal. The grey matter of spinal cord is ‘H’ shaped. The upper end of letter ‘H” forms posterior horns and lower end forms anterior horns. A bundle of fibres pass into the posterior horn forming dorsal or afferent root. Fibres pass outward from the anterior hom forming ventral or efferent root. These two roots joins to form spinal nerves. The white matter is external and have bundle of nerve tracts. Spinal cord conducts sensory and motor impulses to and from the brain. It controls reflex actions of the body.

Question 5.
How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
Answer:
The information from the environment are detected by the receptors located in our sense organs such as the eyes, the nose, the skin etc..
Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron.
This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end.

On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neuro transmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.

In this way, the electrical signal reaches the brain or spinal cord. The response from brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector organs such as the muscle or gland cell, that undergoes the desired response.

The flow of nerve impulses from axonal end of one neuron to dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synaptic transmission.

Question 6.
Classify neurons based on its structure.
Answer:
The neurons may be of different types based on their structure and functions. Structurally the neurons may be of the following types:

(i) Unipolar neurons: Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both axon and dendron.
(ii) Bipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as an axon while another as a dendron.
(iii) Multipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
‘A’ is a cylindrical structure that begins from the lower end of the medulla and extends downwards. It is enclosed in bony cage 4B’ and covered by membranes ‘C’. As many as ‘D’ pairs of nerves arise from the structure ‘A’.
(i) What is A?
(ii) Name (a) bony cage ‘B’ and (b) membranes ‘C’
(iii) How much is D?
Answer:
(i) Spinal cord
(ii) (a) Cranium
(b) Duramater, Arachnoid membrane, Piamater
(iii) 31 pairs of Spinal nerves

Question 2.
Our body contains a large number of cells ‘L’ which are the longest cells in the body.
L has long and short branch called as ‘M’ and ‘N’ respectively. There is a gap ‘O’ between two ‘l’ cells, through which nerve impulse transfer by release of chemical substance ‘P’.

1. Name the cells L.
2. what are M and N?
3. What is the gap O?
4. Name the chemical substance P.

Answer:

1. L is Nerve cell or Neuron
2. M is axon and N is dendrite
3. Gap O is synaptic junction
4. P is neuro transmitter – Acetylcholine

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Inner layer of Axon is:
(a) Myelin sheath
(b) Neurilemma
(c) Meninges
(d) Sarcolemma
Answer:
(b) Neurilemma

Question 2.
Which one is thin and vascularised?
(a) Piamater
(b) Duramater
(c) Arachnoid membrane
(d) Pleural membrane
Answer:
(b) Duramater

Question 3.
Uni polar neurons are found in:
(a) Adult nervous tissue
(b) Stem cells
(c) Embryonic stem cells
(d) Embryonic nervous tissue
Answer:
(d) Embryonic nervous tissue

Question 4.
Among the following which one controls our anger.
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Thalamus
Answer:
(a) Hypothalamus

Question 5.
………. form the cerebral cortex of our brain.
(a) Grey neuron
(b) Fibrous tissue
(c) White neurons
(d) Ganglions
Answer:
(c) White neurons

Question 6.
……… is fitted with neuro transmitter.
(a) Synaptic knob
(b) Synaptic plate
(c) Synaptic cleft
(d) Synaptic branch
Answer:
(a) Synaptic knob

Question 7.
The functional connection between two neurons is called:
(a) Synapse
(b) Synapsis
(c) Chiasma
(d) Chiasmata
Answer:
(a) Synapse

Question 8.
Which of the following pair is correct?
(a) Sensory nerve – afferent
(b) Motor nerve – afferent
(c) Sensory nerve – ventral
(d) Motor nerve-dorsal
Answer:
(a) Sensory nerve – afferent

Question 9.
A healthy person got injured resulting in damage and death of a few cells. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells:
(a) Liver cell
(b) Neuron
(c) Nephron
(d) Osteocytes
Answer:
(b) Neuron

Question 10.
The number of pairs of spinal nerves in human being is:
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 31
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 31

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………lies at the base of the thalamus.
2. ………. transmit electrical impulses towards the cyton.
3. The sensory organs contain ………. neuron.
4. Mid brain with ………. together form the brain stems.
5. Chemical substances which take part in synaptic transmission is ……….
6. The membrane which cover the brain and the spinal cord is ………..
7. If the corpus collosum is removed in Mammalian brain then ……… will be affected.
8. Last end of spinal cord is called ………..
9. The …………. is the continuation of medulla oblongata.
10. ………. is the part of the brain which helps to maintain balance.
Answer:
1. Hypothalamus
2. Dendrites
3. Bypolar
4. Hind brain
5. acetycholine
6. Meninges
7. coordination of cerebrum
8. filum terminate
9. spinal cord
10. Cerebellum

III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement.

1. The gaps on the cyton are called Nodes of Ranvier.
2. Corpus callosum is a sheet of Nervous tissue that unites the right and left Cerebral Hemisphere.
3. Cerebral aqueduct is found in Mid brain.
4. Dendrites transmit chemical impulse towards the cyton.
5. The lower end of medulla oblongata is filum terminate.

Answer:

1. False – The gaps on the axon are called Nodes of Ranvier.
2. True
3. False – Cerebral aqueduct is found in fore brain.
4. False – Dendrites transmit electrical impulse towards the cyton.
5. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

V. Understand the assertion statement.Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion: Medulla oblongata is very important for our body.
Reason: Medulla oblongata regulates all in voluntary activities.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

2. Assertion: With drawl reflex is controlled by spinal cord.
Reason: Initially cerebrum is involved and require alertness for perform this reflex.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: In human being, cerebrum is most developed part of brain. Reason: Cerebrum is having large surface area and analyzing centre for maintaining body activity.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

VI Answer in one or two Sentences.

Question 1.
List the components of Nervous system.
Answer:
The components of Nervous system are brain, spinal cord and brain.

Question 2.
What is Motor or efferent neuron?
Answer:
Motor or efferent neuron carries impulses from the Central Nervous System to effector organs such as muscle fibre or gland.

Question 3.
What is synapse?
Answer:
The paint of contract between the neighbouring nerve cells is called synapse.

Question 4.
Name the outermost fibrous membrane of the brain.
Answer:
Dura mater.

Question 5.
Name the two components, ANS (Autonomic Nervous System).
Answer:
The two antagonistic components of ANS are sympathetic and para sympathetic system.

VII. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
What is Coordination?
Answer:
The various organs working in a systematic controlled and efficient way to produce proper response to various stimuli is called coordination.

Question 2.
What are simple or basic reflexes? Give a few actions, as examples.
Answer:
These simple reflexes are inbuilt and unlearned responses. Many of the actions we perform in our day to day life are simple reflexes, eg. Winking of eyes, Sneezing, Coughing and Yawning. We perform these actions without thinking.

Question 3.
Name the second largest part of the brain. What is its functions?
Answer:
The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain, formed of two large-sized hemispheres and middle vermis. Maintenance of posture and balance, co-ordinate voluntary muscle activity, are some of the functions of the cerebellum.

Question 4.
Differentiate simple reflexes and conditioned reflexes.
Answer:

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS).

Question 1.
Give two examples of conditional reflexion.
Answer:

• Applying the brake while driving, when a red or yellow traffic light appears. We do not have to think about pressing the brake.
• Producing saliva is a response of a dog naturally have, when they smell or see food or when a bell sound was followed by food.

Question 2.
Injury to medulla oblongata can cause death. Why?
Answer:
Medulla Oblongata emerges from the base of the brain and joins the brain to the spinal cord. It controls the involuntary functions.

IX. Long Answer Question:

Question 1.
Classify peripheral nervous based on the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord.
Answer:
Peripheral nervous system is formed by the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord. The nerves arising from the brain are called cranial nerves. Nerves arising from spinal cord are called spinal nerves.

Cranial Nerves : In man, there are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Some of the cranial nerves are sensory Eg: optic nerve which innervates the eye. Some are motor nerves which helps in rotation of eyeball. It also innervates the eye muscles, muscles of iris and tear gland.

Spinal Nerves : There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Each spinal nerve has a dorsal sensory root and the ventral motor root. The direction of impulses in dorsal spinal root is towards the spinal cord and in ventral spinal root away from the spinal cord.

Question 2.
List out the components of Nervous system and its function.
Answer:
The nervous system is formed of three distinct components namely the neurons, neuroglia and nerve fibres.
(i) Neuron or nerve cell : A neuron or nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. It is the longest cell of the human body with a length of over 100μm. These cells are highly specialised to detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli. Information is conducted through neurons in the form of electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.

(ii) Neuroglia : Neuroglia are also called as glial cells. They are non¬exciting, supporting cell of the nervous system. They do not initiate or conduct nerve impulses.

(iii) Nerve fibres : The nerve fibres are the long slender processes of neurons. A number of nerve fibres are bundled up together to form nerves.

Question 3.
Explain Autonomic Nervous system.
Answer:
Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) is also called as visceral nervous system as it regulates the function of internal visceral organs of our body through its two antagonistic (opposite) components sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. They enable the body to perform rapid and specific visceral activities in order to maintain steady state. It controls the involuntary functions of the visceral organs.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The scientific study of different aspects of population is called:
(a) Photography
(b) Demography
(c) Choreography
(d) Population density
Answer:
(b) Demography

Question 2.
The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is ……..
(a) Tamil nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttarpradesh
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 3.
Human Development is measured in terms of:
(a) Human Resource Index
(b) Per capita index
(c) Human Development Index
(d) UNDP
Answer:
(c) Human Development Index

Question 4.
……… Transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Question 5.
The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is:
(a) 5846 km
(b) 5847 km
(c) 5849 km
(d) 5800 km
Answer:
(a) 5846 km

Question 6.
The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is ……..
(a) 17,500 km
(b) 5000 km
(c) 14,500 km
(d) 1000 km
Answer:
(c) 14,500 km

Question 7.
The National Remote sensing Centre(NRSC) is located at:
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(d) Hyderabad

Question 8.
The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is ……..
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(c) Airways

Question 9.
Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?
(a) Air India
(b) Indian Airlines
(c) Vayudoot
(d) Pavan Hans
Answer:
(d) Pavan Hans

Question 10.
The major import item of India is
(a) Cement
(b) Jewells
(c) Tea
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(d) Petroleum

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
What is Human Development?
Answer:
It is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers a full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom.

Question 2.
What is migration? State its types.
Answer:
Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. It can be internal (within a country) or international (between the countries). Migration depends on

Push factor: Unemployment and underemployment in rural areas.

Pull factor: higher wages, employment opportunity, industrial development.

Question 3.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:

1. Railways are the price mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
2. They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sightseeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
3. They are suitable for long-distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
4. They bind the economic life of the country as well as the accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question 4.
Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
Answer:
Pipelines are the very convenient transport to connect oil and natural gas fields, refineries and to the markets.
It can be laid through difficult Terrain as well as under water.
It ensures steady supply of goods and reduces the transhipment loss and delays.

Three important network of pipeline:

1. Oil fields in upper Assam and Kanpur.
2. From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab.
3. From Hazira in Gujarat to Jagadispur in Uttar Pradesh

Question 5.
State the major Inland waterways of India.
Answer:
The major inland waters ways of India are :

1. National Waterway I: It extends between Haldia and Allahabad, measures 1620 km and includes the stretches of the Ganga – Bhagirathi – Hooghly river system.
2. National Waterway 2: This waterway includes the stretch of the Brahmaputra river between Dhubri and Sadiya a distance of 891 km.
3. National Waterway 3: This waterway extends between Kollam and Kottappuram in the state of Kerala. It is the first national waterway in the country with 24 hour navigation facilities along its entire stretch of 205 km.

Question 6.
What is communication? What are its types?
Answer:
Communication is a process that involves exchange of information, thoughts , and ideas. lt is categorized into two types.

Personal Communication: Post and telegraph, telephone, mobile phone, short message services, fax, internet, e-mail etc.
Mass Communication: Electronic media-Radio, T.V, internet and print media-News papers.

Question 7.
Define “International trade”.
Answer:
When trade takes place between two countries it is known as international trade.

Question 8.
State the merits of Roadways.
Answer:

1. Roadways can provide door to door services.
2. Easy and cheap to construct and maintain. Indian roads are cost-efficient.
3. The most universal mode of transport. It is used by all sections of people in society.
4. Can establish easy contact between farms, fields, factories and markets.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Density of population and Growth of population.
Answer:
Density of Population:

1. Density of population is the number of persons living per square kilometre.
2. It is calculated per 1000.
3. As per 2011 census the average density of population in India is 382 persons living in per sq.km.

Growth of Population:

1. Growth of population refers to the change in the number of in habitants of a country/territory in a specific period of time.
2. It is expressed in percentage.
3. The year 1921 is called the year of Great Demographic Divide.

Question 2.
Persona! communication and Mass communication.
Answer:
Personal communication:

1. Exchange of communication between the individuals.
2. Enables the user to establish direct contact.
3. It includes post and telegraph, telephones, mobile phones, short message service (SMS) fax, Internet, e-mail etc.

Mass communication:

1. Millions of people get the information at the same time.
2. Provide information through print media and electronic media.
3. It includes Radio, Television and Internet. Electronic media, News paper, Magazines, books, journals etc.

Question 3.
Print Media and Electronic Media.
Answer:
Print Media:

1. Most powerful means of communication.
2. Many news papers carry information on local national and international events to the people.
3. Knowledge of reading is essential.

Electronic Media:

1. Communication to millions of people through electronic gadgets at the same time.
2. Radio, Television, Internet provide and create awareness on various national policies and programme.
3. A powerful audio-visual medium.

Question 4.
Roadways and Railways.
Answer:
Roadways:

1. Highly suitable for short distance services.
2. Most common mode of transport, easy, cheap to construct and maintain.
3. Based on the construction and maintenance divided into National Highways, State Highways, District Roads, Village roads, Border roads, International highways, Express ways.
4. Second longest network in the world.
5. Door to door services possible

Railways:

1. Ideal for long distance services.
2. Construction depend upon the climatic and physical factors like terrain. Costly when compared with roadways.
3. On the basis of width of the track falls under 4 types, Broad gauge, meter gauge, narrow gauge and light gauge.
4. Largest in Asia and second largest in the World.
5. Cannot provide door to door services.

Question 5.
Waterways and Airways.
Answer:
Waterways:

1. Oldest and Cheapest means of transport.
2. Most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky materials.
3. Two types, inland waterways-river and backwaters and canals and oceanic routes connect coastal areas.

Airways:

1. Modem and costliest means of transport.
2. Only limited weight can be carried. Cannot carry heavy and bulky materials.
3. Domestic air sendee within the country and International Airways connect major cities of the World.

Question 6.
internal trade and International trade.
Answer:
Internal trade:

1. Trade is carried on within the domestic territory.
2. Land transport plays a major role (Roadways and Railways).
3. Local currency is used.
4. Helps to promote a balanced regional growth.

International trade:

1. Trade is carried on between two or more countries.
2. Waterways and Airways play a vital role.
3. Foreign currency is involved.
4. Helps to promote country’s economy and raise the standard of living

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.
Impacts of urbanization:

• Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.
• Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
• Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.
  The following are the major problem of urbanization in India.
• It creates urban sprawl.
• It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
• It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
• It leads to the formation of slums.
• It increases traffic congestion in cities.
• It creates water scarcity in cities.
• It creates drainage problems.
• It poses the problem of solid waste management.
• It increases the rate of crime.

Question 2.
Explain the importances of satellite communication in India.
Answer:

1. The communication through satellites emerged as a new era in the system of communication in our country.
2. The use of Satellite in getting a continuous and synoptic view of larger area has made this communication system very vital for the country.
3. Satellite images are used for weather forecasting.
4. Monitoring of natural calamities.
5. Surveillance of border areas.
6. The INSAT (series) is a multipurpose system for telecommunication, meterological observation and for various other programs.
7. They are used for relaying signals to television, telephone, radio and mobile phone.
8. And also useful in weather detection, internet and military applications.

Question 3.
Bring out the distribution and density of population in India.
Answer:
The term ‘Population Distribution’ refers to the way the people are spaced over the earth’s surface. The distribution of population in India is quite uneven because of the vast variation ki the availability of resources. The population is mostly concentrated in the regions of industrial centres and the good agricultural lands. On the other hand, the areas such as high mountains and lands thickly forested areas and some remote comers are very thinly populated and some areas are even uninhabited.

Terrain, climate, soil, water bodies, mineral resources, industries, transport and urbanization are the major factors which affect the distribution of population in our country. Population density is a better measure of understanding the variation in distribution of population. It is expressed as number of person per unit area usually per sq.km. According to 2011, the average density of population of India is 382 person per sq.km. India is one of the most thickly populated ten countries of the world. The most densely populated state of India is Bihar and the state with lest population density is Arunachal Pradesh. Among union territories, Delhi is the densely populated one with 11,297 per sq.km, while Andaman and Nicobar Islands have the lowest density of population.

Question 4.
Explain the process of measuring Human Development.
Answer:
Dr. Mahabub-ul-haq defined Human Development as “It is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers the full range of human choices from a. sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom”.

Measuring of Human Development (HDI): Human Development Index is a composite index focusing on three basic dimensions of human development.

1. Health: Life expectancy at birth.
2. Education: Expected years of schooling for school age children and average years of schooling for the adult population.
3. Income: Measured by gross national income and per capita income.

Question 5.
Classify and explain the roadways in India.
Answer:

1. The Indian roads are cost-efficient and the most popular dominant mode of transport
   linking different parts of our country.
2. Roads stretch across the length of people in society.
3. It is used by all sections of people in society.
4. Road network in India is the second-longest in the world accounting for 3,314 millions of km.

Types of Roadways:

1. Village Roads:

• Village roads link different villages with towns.
• They are maintained by Village Panchayath.
• In India village roads run to a length of 26,50,000 kms.

2. District Roads:

• District roads link the towns with the district headquarters.
• They are maintained by the Corporations and Municipalities.
• It is used by all sections of people in the society.
• In India district roads run to a total length of 4,67,763 kms.

3. State Highways:

• State Highways links the State capitals with the different district headquarters.
• These roads are maintained by the State Public Works Department.
• The State Highways run to a length of 1,31,899 kms. (Ex: Cudalore – Chittor Road).

4. National Highways:

• National Highways link the State Capitals with the National Capital.
• They are the primary road system of our country and are maintained by the Central Public Works Department.
• It runs to a length of 70,548 kms. (Ex: NH47 is a National Highway which connects Tamil Nadu and Kerala)

5. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways:

• It is a major road development project launched by the Government of India.
• It runs to a length of 14,846 kms connecting the major cities of India.
• The major objective of these roads is providing ‘connectivity’, ‘speed’ and ‘safety’.

6. Expressways:

• Expressways are the technologically improved high class roads in the Indian Road network.
• They are six lanes roads. They run to a length of more than 200 kms.
• New Mumbai – Pune Road is an example for Expressway.

7. Border Road:

• Border Roads are the roads constructed along the northern and north eastern borders of our country.
• These roads are constructed and maintained by Border Roads Organization.
• The Organization has constructed 46,780 km of roads in difficult terrain.

8. International Highways:
International Highways are the roads that link India with neighbouring countries for promoting harmonious relationship with them.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
National Highway NH-7.
Answer:

Question 2.
Major seaports in India.
Answer:

Question 3.
Major International Airports in India.
Answer:

Question 4.
Densely populated state of India – Uttarpradesh
Answer:

Question 5.
State of highest literacy in India – Kerala
Answer:

Question 6.
Railways zones of India.
Answer:

TB Page No. 151
Hots:

Question 1.
What could be the reasons for uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:

• Topography, favourable climate, fertility of soils, availability of fresh water, minerals are major geographical factors affecting population density of a region.
• People prefer to live on plains more than mountains or plateaus and they live more in moderate climates than extreme hot or cold. From the agriculture point of view, fertile lands are preferred.
• Areas with mineral deposits are more populated.
• Some social factors that boost the density of population in a region are better housing, education and health facilities.
• Places with cultural or historical significances are usually populated.
• Employment opportunities is another attraction for large chunks of the population.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the rapid growth of population in India?
Answer:

1. The reasons for the rapid growth of population in India is mainly the , high birth rate and low death rate.
2. Birth rate is high, death rate declined due to advanced medical facilities and immunization to dreadful diseases.
3. And also migration of population due to employment, education and industrial development.

TB Page No. 154

Question 3.
The sex ratio in our country is always unfavourable to females. Give reasons.
Answer:
The number of females per thousand men is called the sex ratio.
Reasons:

• Lesser care of female children.
• Greater risk to womens’ life especially at the time of child brith.
• Women are also killed or forced to die by the dowry seekers.
• Due to illiteracy.
• Lack of medical facilities for women, etc.

TB Page No. 158

Question 4.
Find out what are the functions of NHAI?
Answer:

1. National Highway Authority of India was established in 1995.
2. It is an autonomous body under the ministry of Surface Transport.
3. Management of all major National Highways and the highways entrusted to it.
4. Maintenance, development and operation of the National Highways is undertaken by NHAI.

Question 5.
What are the highlights and benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Highways? Highlights:
Answer:

• It is the largest Highway project completed in India.
• It is the fifth largest highway project in the world.
• The overall length of the Golden Quadrilateral is 5,846 km.
• The Golden Quadrilateral passes through 13 states of India.
• It connects four major metropolitan cities of the country in four directions.

Benefits:

• Provides faster transport networks between major cities and ports.
• Provides connectivity to major agricultural industrial and cultural centres of India.
• Provides smoother movement of goods and people within the country.
• Enables industrial development and job creation in smaller town through access to varied markets.
• Farmers are able to transport their produce to major cities and towns for sale and export and there is less wastage and spoils.
• More economic growth through construction and indirect demand for steel, cement, and other construction materials.
• Giving an impetus to truck transports.

TB Page No. 162

Question 6.
Why is air travel preferred in the North Eastern State?
Answer:
The North Eastern States are mountainous and forested. So construction of roadways or railways is very difficult due to terrains. Air transport has made accessibility easier. So air travel is preferred in the North eastern states.

TB Page No. 165

Question 7.
Find out the major trade blocs which are useful for multilateral trade.
Answer:
Trading blocs are usually groups of countries in specific regions that manage and promote trade activities. Trading blocs lead to trade liberalisation and trade creation between members, since they are treated favourably in comparison to non-members. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) permits the existence of trading bloc provided that they result in lower protection against outside countries than existed before the creation trading bloc.
The most significant trading blocs currently are:

1. European Union (EU): A customs union, a single market and now with a single currency.
2. European Free Trade Area (EFTA)
3. North American Free Trade Agreement (NFATA) between the USA, Canada and Mexico.
4. Mercosur: A customs union between Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and Venezuela.
5. Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
6. Association of Free Trade Area (AFTA)
7. Common market of Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA)
8. South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) created in 2006 with countries such as India and Pakistan.
9. Pacific Alliance: 2013 – a regional trade agreement between Chile, Colombia, Mexico and Peru.

TB Page No. 159
Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar topic about “Role of Railways in Indian Economy”Key Points:
Answer:

1. Large scale movement
2. National integration promotion
3. Commercialisation of agriculture
4. Movement of perishable goods
5. Avoids traffic congestion how?
6. Engineering marvel
7. Quiz regarding railways

TB Page No. 165

Question 2.
Collect the countries names and make it as a table of Bilateral trade and multilateral trade countries.
Answer:
India has made bilateral trade agreement with these countries.

Bilateral Trade Countries: U.S.A . China, Hongkong, Singapore, United Kingdom, Germany, Bangladesh.

Multilateral Trade Countries: The members of the SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) Korea, Japan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Srilanka, U.S.A and United Kingdom.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………………. is the second-most populous country next to China.
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) India

Question 2.
The fast movement of traffic are established by ……
(a) national highways
(b) Express highways
(c) International highways
Answer:
(a) national highways

Question 3.
As per 2011 census the average density of population of India is …………………. persons per Sq.Km.
(a) 302
(b) 382
(c) 100
(d) 365
Answer:
(b) 382

Question 4.
The ………. have more railways than the Himalayan Mountains.
(a) Northern Plains
(b) Coastal Plains
(c) Deccan Plateau
Answer:
(a) Northern Plains

Question 5.
The Grand Trunk Road extends from …………………. to ………………….
(a) Delhi to Mumbai
(b) Amritsar to Kolkatta
(c) Mumbai to Thane
(d) Srinagar to Amritsar.
Answer:
(b) Amritsar to Kolkatta

Question 6.
The cheapest mode of transport is …….
(a) roadways
(b) railways
(c) waterways
Answer:
(c) waterways

Question 7.
…………………. are multi-lane good quality highways for high speed traffic.
(a) National Highways
(b) State highways
(c) Border roads
(d) Express highways.
Answer:
(d) Express highways.

Question 8.
Trade carried on within the domestic territory of a country is known as …… trade.
(a) External
(b) Foreign
(c) Internal
Answer:
(c) Internal

Question 9.
The …………………. railway accounts for the longest route length.
(a) Northern Railways
(b) Central Railway
(c) Eastern railway
(d) Southern Railway
Answer:
(a) Northern Railways

Question 10.
A cost-efficient and most popular mode of transport in our country is ……..
(a) Airways
(b) Roadways
(c) Waterways
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Question 11.
India is the …………………. largest ship owning country in Asia.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(b) Second

Question 12.
The costliest and most modem means of transport is ……..
(a) Air transport
(b) Road transport
(c) Rail transport
Answer:
(a) Air transport

Question 13.
The is the first communication Satellite in INSAT Series.
(a) G.SAT
(b) EDUSAT
(c) INSAT-IB
(d) Kalpana-1
Answer:
(c) INSAT-IB

Question 14.
The major ports are managed and controlled by …….
(a) National Ports Corporation
(b) Port Trust of India
(c) Indian Airlines
Answer:
(b) Port Trust of India

Question 15.
Indian space Research organisation was established in the year:
(a) 1959
(b) 1969
(c) 1979
(d) 1996
Answer:
(b) 1969

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Describe the three population density zones of India.
Answer:
The three population density zones of India are :

1. High-density zone: The Northern plains above 500 people per sq.km. Northern plains and Kerala in the. South.
2. Moderate or Medium density zone: Mountain region 250-500 people per sq.km. Ex. Assam and Peninsular states.
3. Low-density zone: Plateau region below 250 people per sq.km. Ex. Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of population in the country is the result of several factors such as physical, socio-economic and historical factors.

Physical factors: Relief, climate, water, natural vegetation, minerals and energy resources.

Socio-economic factors: Religion, culture, political issues, economy, human settlements, transport network, industrialization, urbanization, employment opportunity etc.

Question 3.
What is the major objective to develop the Super Highways?
Answer:
The major objective to develop the Super Highways is to reduce the time and distance between
the megacities of India facilitating the fast movement of traffic.

Question 4.
Which phase period in population growth of India is often referred as period of population explosion?
Answer:
During the third phase (1951-1981) the population of India grew from 361 million in 1951 to 683 million in 1981. Growth rate in this period is almost doubled. So this period (1951-1981) is often referred as the period of “population explosion”.

Question 5.
State some problems of road transport in our country.
Answer:

1. Distribution of road is not uniform in the country.
2. Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is inadequate.
3. About half of the roads are unmetalled and this restricts their usage during the rainy season.
4. The roadways are highly congested in cities.
5. Poor maintenance is also a big problem.

Question 6.
What are the four major shipyards in India?
Answer:
India as four major shipyards:

1. Hindustan shipyard – Vishakapatnam
2. Garden Reach workshop – Kolkata
3. Mazagaon Dock – Mumbai
4. Kochi shipyard – Kochi

Question 7.
State the highlights of India’s foreign trade policy since 2004.
Answer:

1. Merchandise trade has been doubled.
2. Thrust is given for employment generation; especially in semi-urban and rural areas.
3. Trade procedure is simplified and transaction cost is reduced.
4. Special focus is given to make India a global hub.
5. A new scheme called Vishesh Krishi Upay Yojna has been introduced to boost exports of fruits, vegetables, flowers and minor forest products.

Question 8.
Mention the services provided by the Indian postal system in India.
Answer:
Pcstai system is one among the personal communication system. The postal service was open to the public in the country in 1837.

1. Collecting and delivering mail is the primary function of the postal department.
2. It introduced Quick Mail Service in 1975 on the basis ofPIN code (1972)
3. The premium products include the Money order. E-money order, Speed post. Express parcel post, Business post, Media post, Retail post, Data post, Satellite post, Greeting post, Speed net and Speed passport services,

Question 9.
What are the advantages of communication network?
Answer:

1. It has enhanced the efficiency of communication. Because it enables quick exchange of information with people any where in the world.
2. It leads to enormous growth of trade.
3. It helps the government to tackle various socio – economic problems in the society.
4. It improves the quality of human life.
5. It opens the door to the information age.
6. It promotes Edusat programs.
7. It plays a significant role in the economic and social growth of our country.

Question 10.
Write the full form of STD, ISD, PCO, Internet.
Answer:

• STD – Subscriber Trunk Dialing
• ISD – International Subscriber Dialing
• PCO – Public Call Office
• Internet – Inter connected network.

Question 11.
What are major ports along the West Coast and East Coast?
Answer:
West Coast Ports :

1. Kandla,
2. Mumbai,
3. Jawahar Lal Nehru,
4. Marmagoa,
5. New Mangalore and
6. Cochin East Cost Ports:
   • Tuticorin,
   • Chennai,
   • Ennore,
   • Vishakhapatnam,
   • Paradip,
   • Haldia and
   • Kolkota.

Question 12.
Name the major ports on the East coast and on the West Coast of India.
Answer:
There are 13 major ports in India. They are administered by the Central Government.

1. The major ports on the East coast are Kolkata, Haldia, Paradip,Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin.
2. The major ports on the West Coast are Kandla, Mumbai, Nhava Seva (Jawaharial Nehru Port), New Mangalore, Marmagao and Kochi.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Internet.
Answer:

1. Internet is a vast network of computers, Internet means interconnected network of net , works.
2. It connects many of the world’s business institutions and individuals.
3. It enables computer users throughout the world to send and receive messages and information in a variety of forms.
4. It is fully a multimedia based system with capacity to deliver pictures, images, video and audio.
5. The basic services of internet are e-mail. The World Wide Web and Internet Phone.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Exports and Imports.
Exports:

1. Goods and services sold for foreign currency.
2. Major exports of India are tea, ores and minerals, marine products, textiles etc.
3. Value of exports are more than the value of imports favourable balance of trade.
4. India exports goods to nearly 190 countries of the world.

Imports:

1. Goods and services bought from overseas producers.
2. Major imports are petroleum products, gold, telecom instruments.
3. Value of imports exceeds value of exports unfavourable balance of trade.
4. Imports we get from nearly 140 countries.

Question 2.
Low Density and High Density of population.
Answer:
Low Density of Population:

1. Areas that have 150 to 300 persons living per sq.km.
2. Extreme climate, high mountains, remote areas, forested regions have low density of population.
3. In India Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Andaman and Nicobar islands are some states with low population density.

High Density of Population:

1. Areas that have 500 to 1000 persons living per sq.km.
2. Favourable climate, plains, employment opportunities, industrial centres area have high density of population.
3. Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and Kerala are the states with high population density.

Question 3.
National and State Highways.
Answer:
National Highways:

1. Connects Capitals of States, major ports, rail junctions, industrial and tourist centres.
2. Ministry of Road transport and Highways of India is responsible development and maintenance.
3. Runs to a length of 1,01,011 kms as of 2016.

State Highways:

1. Link important cities, towns and district head quarters within the State and connect them with national highways or highways of neighbouring states.
2. Administered and financed by state Governments.
3. Runs to the length of 1,76,166 kms as of 2016.

Question 4.
Domestic and International Airways.
Answer:
Domestic Airways:

1. Fly within the boundaries of the country.
2. Indian Airlines provides the domestic air services. NACIL (I)
3. There are about 80 domestic airports and about 25 civil enclaves at defence air fields.

International Airways:

1. Fly across the world and connect major cities of the world.
2. Air India provides international air services. NACIL (A)
3. There are 19 designated international airports in the country.

Question 5.
Harbour and Port.
Answer:
Harbour:

1. Extensive stretch of deep water near the seashore.
2. Vessels can anchor securely.

Port:

1. Commercial part of a harbour.
2. Facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for the storage of cargo
3. Cuddalore, Ennore.

Question 6.
Birth and Death.
Answer:
Birth Rate:

1. No. of live Births per 1000 people in a year.
2. Also known as Nationality rate.

Death Rate:

1. No. of Deaths per 1000 people in a year.
2. Also known as Mortality rate.

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
What is the importance of railway transport?
Answer:

1. The Indian Railways have been a great integrating force for more than 150 years.
2. They have a network of about 7,112 stations spread over a route length of 66,687 km with a fleet of 11,122 locomotives, 70,241 passenger coaches and 2,54,000 wagons.
3. Railways are the prime mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
4. They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sightseeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
5. They are suitable for long distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
6. They bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.
7. The Indian Railways is the largest public sector undertaking in the country. The first train streamed of from Mumbai to Thane in 1853, covering a distance of 34 km.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Census? How it is useful?
Answer:

1. Population census is the total process of collecting, compiling, analyzing or otherwise disseminating demographic, economic and social data pertaining at a specific time, of all persons in a country or a well defined part of a country.
2. Census is being taken in an interval of ten years.
3. The data collected through the census are used for administration, planning, policy making, management and evaluation of various programmes by the government.
4. In India 1st census was carried out in the year 1872.
5. But the first complete and synchronous census was conducted in 1881 The 2011 census represents the fifteenth census of India.

Question 3.
Describe the importance of pipelines in India. Name three important networks of pipelines transportation in the country.
Answer:
Pipeline transport network is a new arrival on the transportation of India.

1. Transport of crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, fertiliser factories and big thermal power plants. ‘
2. Even solids can be transported through pipelines when converted into slurry.
3. The far inland locations of refineries and gas based fertiliser plants could be transported.
4. Initial cost of lying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are tninimal.
5. It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays.

Three important networks of pipeline transportation in the country:

• From oil field in the upper Assam to Kanpur (UP), via Guwahati, Baraumi and Allahabad.
• From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab. Via Viramgam, Mathura, Delhi and Sonipat.
• Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in UP, via Vijaipur in MP.

Question 4.
What are the problems created by over population in India?
Answer:
In India, growing pressure of Population on resource base, created many socio economic, cultural, political, ecological and environmental problems. The population problem varies in space and time and differ from region to region.

Major issues created by the over population are – overcrowding, unemployment and under employment, low standard of living mal nutrition, mismanagement of natural and agricultural resources, unhealthy environment etc.

Question 5.
Write about the significance of Indian Railways.
Answer:

1. Indian Railway system is the main artery of the country’s inland transport.
2. Indian Railway network is the largest in Asia and second largest in the world.
3. Railways are considered as the back bone of the surface transport system of India.
4. Significances: It caters to the needs of large scale movement of traffic both for freight and passengers, there by contributing to economic growth.
5. It promotes trade, tourism, education etc.
6. It promotes national integration by bringing people together.
7. Railways help in the commercialization of the agricultural sector by facilitating the quick movements of perishable goods.
8. It provides invaluable service by transporting raw materials to industries and finished goods to market.

Question 6.
What is trade? What are the two types of trade? State its components:
Answer:

1. Trade is an act (or) process of buying selling or exchanging of goods and services. Trade in general is of two types. They are Internal trade and International trade.
2. Internal Trade: Trade carried on within the domestic territory of a country.
3. International trade: Trade carried on between two or more countries.
4. Exports and imports are the two components of international trade.
5. The difference between value of exports and imports is called balance of trade.
6. If the value of exports exceeds the value of imports trade is said to be favourable balance of trade.
7. If the value of Imports exceeds value of exports it is said to be unfavourable balance of trade.
8. The value of currency of a country depends upon the balance of trade of that country.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
North-South corridor
Answer:

Question 2.
East-West corridor
Answer:

Question 3.
Head quarters of Indian Railway – Delhi.
Answer:

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Active transport involves:
(a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration
(b) expenditure of energy
(c) it is an uphill task
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ______.
(a) cortex
(b) epidermis
(c) phloem
(d) xylem.
Answer:
(d) xylem.

Question 3.
During transpiration there is loss of:
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) oxygen
(c) water
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) water

Question 4.
Root hairs are ______.
(a) cortical cell
(b) projection of the epidermal cell
(c) unicellular
(d) both b and c.
Answer:
(b) projection of the epidermal cell

Question 5.
Which of the following process requires energy?
(a) active transport
(b) diffusion
(c) osmosis
(d) all of them
Answer:
(a) active transport

Question 6.
The wall of the human heart is made of ______.
(a) Endocardium
(b) Epicardium
(c) Myocardium
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 7.
Which is the sequence of correct blood flow?
(a) ventricle – atrium – vein – arteries
(b) atrium – ventricle – veins – arteries
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein
(d) ventricles – vein – atrium – arteries
Answer:
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein

Question 8.
A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and has blood loss. Which blood group the doctor should effectively use for transfusion in this condition?
(a) O group
(b) AB group
(c) A or B group
(d) all blood group.
Answer:
(d) all blood group.

Question 9.
‘Heart of heart’ is called:
(a) SA node
(b) AV node
(c) Purkinje fibres
(d) Bundle of His
Answer:
(a) SA node

Question 10.
Which one of the following regarding blood composition is correct?
(a) Plasma – Blood + Lymphocyte
(b) Serum – Blood + Fibrinogen
(c) Lymph – Plasma + RBC + WBC
(d) Blood – Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets.
Answer:
(d) Blood – Plasma + RBC+ WBG + Platelets.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……….. involves evaporative loss of water from aerial parts.
2. Water enters the root cell through a ………. plasma membrane.
3. Structures in roots that help to absorb water are …………
4. Normal blood pressure is …………
5. The normal human heartbeat rate is about ……….. time per minute.

Answer:

1. Transpiration
2. Semipermeable
3. Root hairs
4. 120 mm / 80 mm Hg
5. 72 – 75 times

III. Match the following:

Section – I

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)

Section – II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (viii)
F. (vii)
G. (v)
H. (vi)

IV. State whether True or False. If false write the correct statement:

1. The phloem is responsible for the translocation of food.
2. Plants lose water by the process of transpiration.
3. The form of sugar transported through the phloem is glucose.
4. In apoplastic movement the water travels through the cell membrane and enter the cell.
5. When the guard cells lose water the stoma opens.
6. Initiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by nerves.
7. All veins carry deoxygenated blood.
8. WBC defend the body from bacterial and viral infections.
9. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of the ventricular systole produces the first sound ‘LUBB’.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False – The form of sugar transported through the phloem is sucrose.
4. False – Apoplastic movement does not involve crossing the cell membrane.
5. False – When the guard cells lose water the stoma closes.
6. False – Initiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by Sino-atrial node.
7. False – All veins carry deoxygenated blood except the pulmonary veins,
8. True
9. True.

V. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name two layered protective covering of human heart.
Answer:
Pericardium is the two layered protective covering of human heart.

Question 2.
What is the shape of RBC in human blood?
Answer:
The shape of RBC in human blood is biconcave and disc – shaped.

Question 3.
Why is the colour of the blood red?
Answer:
The blood is red in colour due to the presence of respiratory pigment – haemoglobin.

Question 4.
Which kind of cells are found in the lymph?
Answer:
Lymphocytes in the lymph, which defend the body from infection.

Question 5.
Name the heart valve associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles.
Answer:
Aortic valve present at the base of aorta.

Question 6.
Mention the artery which supplies blood to the heart muscle.
Answer:
Coronary arteries.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
The general mechanism of stomatal movement is based on entry and exit of water molecules in guard cells. When the turgidity increases within the guard cells the stomata open. When the guard cells lose water it becomes flaccid and the stomata closes.

Question 2.
What is cohesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between molecules of water is called Cohesion.

Question 3.
Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant root to the time it escapes into the atmosphere from a leaf.
Answer:
Soil → root hair → cortex → endodermis → Pericycle → xylem → stem → leaves.

Question 4.
What would happen to the leaves of a plant that transpires more water than its absorption in the roots?
Answer:
When transpiration exceeds than water absorption by roots, the plant dehydrates. It affects plant processes such as growth, Photosynthesis and transpiration.

Question 5.
Describe the structure and working of the human heart.
Answer:
The heart is thick muscular organ located in the thoracic cavity. It is covered by a two layered sac called pericardium. The heart is four chambered with two auricles and two ventricles. Right Auricle receives deoxygenated blood from superior and inferior vena cava and passes to right ventricles from right ventricles impure blood passes to pulmonary artery and reaches the lungs.

Question 6.
Why is the circulation in man referred to as double circulation?
Answer:
The blood circulates twice, through the heart in one complete cycle, in the circulation of blood in man. So it is called double circulation.

Question 7.
What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
Answer:
‘Lubb’ and ‘Dupp’ are the sounds of the heart. ‘Lubb’ sound is produced by the ventricle- contraction. It arises due to closing of mitral and tricuspid valve.
‘Dupp’ is produced by ventricular diastole. This arises due to the closing of the semi-lunar valves of two auricles.

Question 8.
What is the importance of valves in the heart?
Answer:
The valves are the muscular flaps, that regulate the flow of blood in a single direction and prevent backflow of blood.

Question 9.
Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so?
Answer:
Landsteiner and Wiener discovered Rh factor of blood in 1940. Rh factor is a protein CD antigen present on the surface of the red blood cells in majority of humans. This protein is similar to the protein present in Rhesus monkey, hence the term Rh.

Question 10.
How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
Answer:

Question 11.
Why is the Sinoatrial node called the pacemaker of the heart?
Answer:
Sinoatrial node is called the pacemaker of the heart because it is capable of initiating impulse, which can stimulate the heart muscles to contract.

Question 12.
Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.
Answer:

Question 13.
The complete events of the cardiac cycle last for 0.8 sec. What is the timing for each event?
Answer:

1. Atrial Systole: Contraction of auricles (0.1 sec)
2. Ventricular Systole: Contraction of ventricles (0.3 sec)
3. Ventricular diastole: Relaxation of Ventricles (0.4 sec).

VII. Give reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots.
Answer:
All minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots because, minerals are present in the soil as charged particles that cannot move across the cell membranes and the concentration of minerals in the soil is usually lower than the. concentration of minerals in the root. So, the minerals enter the root by active absorption through the cytoplasm of epidermal cells which needs energy.

Question 2.
Guard cells are responsible for opening and closing of stomata.
Answer:
Guard cells are responsible for the opening and closing of stomata because, during transpiration, the movement of ions (Potassium) in and out of the guard cells causes the opening and closing of Stomata. When the water moves inside the guard cells, causing them to swell up and become turgid making the stomata open. When guard cells cause water to move out of the cell and make guard cells shrunk and stomata pores close.

Question 3.
The movement of substances in the phloem can be in any direction.
Answer:
Phloem transports food from the source to sink. The source is part in which plant synthesize food, sink is the part that needs or stores food. Since the source-sink relationship is variable, the direction of movement in the Phloem can be upwards or downwards, i.e., bidirectional.

Question 4.
Minerals in the plants are not lost when the leaf falls.
Answer:
Minerals like Phosphorus, Sulphur, Nitrogen and Potassium are remobilised in the soil from older dying leaves to younger leaves. This phenomenon is seen in deciduous plants. So minerals in the plants are not lost, when the leaf falls.

Question 5.
The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricles.
Answer:
Because the right ventricle have to pump out the deoxygenated blood with force away from the heart through pulmonary artery to lungs.

Question 6.
Mature RBC in mammals does not have cell organelles.
Answer:
Mature RBC in mammals does not have cell organelles because

• The lack of Nucleus in RBC makes the cells, biconcave and disc – shaped. RBC involved in the transport of oxygen from lungs to tissues.
• They do not have cell organelles in order to accommodate maximum space for haemoglobin.
• The loss of endoplasmic reticulum allows more flexibility, for RBC to move through narrow capillaries.

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How do plants absorb water? Explain.
Answer:
Water present in the soil must reach the xylem of roots. Root hair is in contact with soil water. Their cell wall is thin and water easily diffuses in the passage of water from the soil to leaf is
Soil water → Root hair → Epidermis → Cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle → Xylem → Stem and leaf.
Once water is absorbed by the root hairs, it can move deepers into root layers by two pathways. Apoplast and Symplast.

1. Apoplast : This is the non living path in plants. It occurs through the intercellular spaces and walls of the cells. This movement dependent on the gradient.
2. Symplast : This is the living passage. The movement of water from cell to cell through plasmodesmato and cytoplasm, Movement is again down a potential gradient.

Question 2.
What is transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration.
Answer:
Transpiration is the evaporation of water in plants through stomata in the leaves.
Importance of Transpiration

• Creates transpirational pull for the transport of water.
• Supplies water for photosynthesis.
• Transports minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant.
• Cools the surface of the leaves by evaporation.
• Keeps the cells turgid; hence, maintains their shape.

Question 3.
Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell and mention its functions.
Answer:
Depending on the presence and absence of granules, leucoytes are divided into two types Granulocytes and Agranulocytes.
Granulocytes : They are characterised by the presence of granules in cytoplasm. The granulocytes include neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils.

1. Neutrophils : They constitute about 60-65% of total WBC’s. They are large and have many lobed nucleus. They are phagocytic in nature and appear in large,number in and around the infected tissue.
2. Eosinophils : They have bilobed nucleus and constitute about 2-3% of total WBC’s. Eosinophil increase during certain types of parasitic infection and allergic reaction. It bring about detoxification of toxin.
3. Basophils: Basophil have lobed nucleus. They form 0.5 – 1.0% of the total leucocytes. They release chemicals during the process of inflammation.

Agranulocytes : They are characterised by the absence of granules in the cytoplasm. These are of two types Lymphocytes and Monocytes.

1. Lymphocytes: These are about 20-25% of the total leucocytes. They produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infections.
2. Monocytes: They are the largest leucocytes and amoeboid in shape. These cells form 5-6% of the total leucocytes. They are phagocytic and can engulf bacteria.

Question 4.
Differentiate between systole and diastole. Explain the conduction of the heartbeat.
Answer:
One complete contraction (Systole) and relaxation (diastole) of the atrium and ventricles of the heart constitutes Heartbeat. The human heart is myogenic. Contraction is initiated by the sino – atrial (SA) node, which is situated in the wall of the right atrium, near the opening of the superior vena cava. SA node is broader at the top and tapering below and made up of thin fibres.

SA node acts as the ‘pacemaker’ of the heart because it is capable of initiating impulse which can stimulate the heart muscles to contract. The impulse spreads like a wave of contraction over the right and left atrial wall, pushing the blood, through the atrioventricular valves into the ventricles and the same wave from SA node reaches the atrioventricular node (AV), to emit an impulse of contraction, spreading to the ventricular muscle, through the atrioventricular bundle and the Purkinje fibres. The expansion of the artery every time, the blood is forced into the arteries, is called pulse. Normal pulse rate ranges from 70 – 90 / min.

Question 5.
Enumerate the functions of blood.
Answer:

1. Transport of respiratory gases (Oxygen and CO₂).
2. Transport of digested food materials to the different body cells.
3. Transport of hormones.
4. Transport of nitrogenous excretory products like ammonia, urea and uric acid.
5. It is involved in protection of the body and defense against diseases.
6. It acts as buffer and also helps in regulation of pH and body temperature.
7. It maintains proper water balance in the body.

IX. Assertion and Reasoning:

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
1. Assertion: RBC plays an important role in the transport of respiratory gases.
Reason: RBC do not have cell organelles and nucleus.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

2. Assertion: Persons with AB blood group are called an universal recipients, because they can receive blood from all groups.
Reason: Antibodies are absent in persons with AB blood group.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS):

Question 1.
When any dry plant material is kept in water, they swell up. Name and define the phenomenon involved in this change.
Answer:
The process is imbibition’. The type of diffusion in which a solid absorbs water and gets swelled up is Imbibition.

Question 2.
Why are the walls of the left ventricle thicker than the other chambers of the heart?
Answer:
The walls of the left ventricle are about three times thicker than the right ventricle. The left ventricle gives rise to the aorta, which carries oxygenated blood, to various organs of the body. The ventricle walls are thick because they have to pump out blood with force away from the heart.

Question 3.
Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound of the heart. Why?
Answer:
A stethoscope is an instrument used to detect the sound produced by the internal organs of human body. It is an useful diagnostic tool to identify and localize health problems and diagnose disease.

Question 4.
How do the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein differ in their function when compared to a normal artery and vein?
Answer:

• All arteries carry oxygenated blood, except pulmonary arteries, which carry deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.
• All veins carry deoxygenated blood, except pulmonary veins, which carry oxygenated blood from the lungs and to the left atrium of the Heart.

Question 5.
Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants. Explain.
Answer:
The water is lost from the leaves due to transpiration, pressure is created in, at the top to pull more water from the xylem to the leaves through the process of transpiration pull. This ensure the continuous flow of water from the roots of the leaves.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Seed swells when placed in water due to:
(a) osmosis
(b) imbibition
(c) hydrolysis
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) imbibition

Question 2.
Root hairs occurs in:
(a) Meristematic zone
(b) Cell elongation zone
(c) Cell maturation zone
(d) Old root
Answer:
(c) Cell maturation zone

The other name for Red blood corpuscles (RBC) is called ______.
Answer:
Erythrocytes.

Question 3.
Water in plants is transported by ascent of sap takes place through:
(a) cambium
(b) xylem
(c) phloem
(d) epidermis
Answer:
(b) xylem

Question 4.
Absorption of water is increased when:
(a) transpiration is increased
(b) photosynthesis is increased
(c) respiration is increased
(d) root pressure is increased
Answer:
(a) transpiration is increased

Question 5.
Opening of stomata is due to:
(a) Turgidity of guard cells
(b) Size of guard cells
(c) Number of guard cells
(d) Amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere.
Answer:
(a) Turgidity of guard cells

Question 6.
Guard cells help in:
(a) Fighting against infection
(b) Guttation
(c) Protecting against grazing
(d) Transpiration
Answer:
(d) Transpiration

Question 7.
Photosynthetic food material is transported in the form of:
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Starch
(d) Fructose
Answer:
(b) Sucrose

Question 8.
Coronary artery supplies blood to:
(a) Mammary glands
(b) Rib muscles
(c) Skin
(d) Heart
Answer:
(d) Heart

Question 9.
All arteries carry oxygenated blood except:
(a) systematic
(b) hepatic
(c) pulmonary
(d) cardiac
Answer:
(c) pulmonary

Question 10.
The colour of lymph is:
(a) white
(b) pale yellow
(c) colourless
(d) milky
Answer:
(c) colourless

Question 11.
An artery can be distinguished from a vein in having:
(a) thicker wall
(b) elastic vessels
(c) no valves
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 12.
Purkinje fibres mainly help in contraction of:
(a) right auricle
(b) left auricle
(c) ventricles
(d) Aorta
Answer:
(c) ventricles

Question 13.
The ‘Lubb’ and ‘Dupp’ heart sound are due to:
(a) opening of heart valves
(b) action of papillary’ muscles
(c) closing of heart valves
(d) activity of pace maker
Answer:
(c) closing of heart valves

Question 14.
The closed circulatory system occurs in:
(a) cockroach
(b) fish
(c) mosquito
(d) house fly
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 15.
Normal pulse rate is:
(a) 80 mm Hg
(b) 120 mm Hg
(c) 40 mg Hg
(d) 90 mm Hg
Answer:
(d) 90 mm Hg

Question 16.
In the ABO system of blood groups, of both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would be?
(a) B
(b) O
(c) AB
(d) A
Answer:
(c) AB

Question 17.
Arteries are branches of:
(a) capillaries
(b) veins
(c) aorta
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) aorta

Question 18.
Which type of WBCs are found in maximum number?
(a) Monocytes
(b) Basophils
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Neutrophils
Answer:
(d) Neutrophils

Question 19.
Which of the following are granular WBCs?
(a) Neutrophils, Basophils, Lymphocytes
(b) Eosinophil, Basophil, Monocytes
(c) Basophils, Monocytes, Lymphocytes
(d) Neutrophils, Eosinophil, Basophil
Answer:
(d) Neutrophils, Eosinophil, Basophil

Question 20.
RBCs are concerned with carriage of gases.
(a) CO₂
(b) O₂
(c) Respiratory
(d) CO₂ and SO₂
Answer:
(c) Respiratory

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The contraction of heart is called ………..
2. Oxygenated blood is carried by ………..
3. Sphygmomanometer measures ………..
4. Heart of man is ………..
5. Pace maker of heart is ………..
6. The life span of RBC in human is ……… days.
7. Pulmonary artery carry ………….. blood.
8. ………. discovered the circulation of blood in man.
9. Semilunar valve is present at the base of ………….
10. Human heart beats ………. times in a minute at rest.
11. Red blood pigment is ………..
12. Transpiration helps in the absorption and ………… movement of water and minerals.
13. Water in plants is transported by ascent of sap takes place through ……….
14. The absorption water due to expenditure of energy is called ………….
15. In plants, the translocation of organic solutes takes place through ………….
Answer:
1. systole
2. pulmonary vein
3. blood pressure
4. myogenic
5. sino atrial node
6. 120
7. deoxygenated
8. William Harvey
9. Pulmonary artery
10. 72
11. Haemoglobin
12. upward
13. xylem
14. active absorption
15. phloem

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

IV. State whether true or false. If false write the correct statement:

1. The human heart beats 72 times per minute.
2. Right half of heart receives and pu mps off oxygenated blood.
3. Between right auricle and right ventricle seen Mitral valve.
4. The force of attraction between water molecule is cohesion.
5. By passive transport sucrose moves into the cells where it is utilised or stored.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Right half of heart receives and pumps off deoxygenated blood.
3. False – Between right auricle and right ventricle seen tricuspid valve.
4. True
5. False – By active transport sucrose moves into the cells where it is utilised or stored.

V. Creative Question:

Question 1.
Origin of heart beat and its conduction is represented by:
(a) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres
(b) SA node → Purkinje fibres → AV node → Bundle of His
(c) Purkinje fibres → Purkinje node → AV fibres → Bundle of His
(d) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres
Answer:
(d) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres

Question 2.
The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be drafted at the site of:
(a) Purkinje system
(b) Sinu atrial node
(c) Atrio ventricular node
(d) Atrio ventricular bundle
Answer:
(b) Sinu atrial node

Question 3.
Doctor use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when:
(a) AV node receives signal from SA node
(b) AV valves open up
(c) Ventricular walls vibrate due to rushing in of blood from atria
(d) Semi lunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles
Answer:
(d) Semi lunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles

VI. Assertion and Reason:

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: RBC impart red colour to the blood due to the presence of respiratory pigment haemoglobin.
Reason: The young RBC contain nucleus in man.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: Osmosis is the movement of solvent molecule from higher concentration to lower concentration.
Reason: Osmosis is the active movement of water.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VII. Answer in a Sentence:

Question 1.
Name the components of circulatory system.
Answer:
The circulation system consists of the circulating fluids, the blood and lymph, the heart and the blood vessels namely arteries, veins and capillaries.

Question 2.
What is the Ascent of Sap?
Answer:
The upward movement of water and minerals from roots to different plant parts is called ascent of sap.

Question 3.
Mention the composition of plasma.
Answer:
Organic substances like protein, glucose, urea, enzyme, hormones, vitamins and minerals are present in plasma.

Question 4.
Define Adhesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between molecules of different substances is called adhesion.

Question 5.
Why are auricles and ventricles separated by auricular and ventricular septum?
Answer:
The separation of chamber avoids mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

Question 6.
What is Single Circulation?
Answer:
In fishes, amphibians and certain reptiles, the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are mixed ‘ and pass through the heart only once, is called Single Circulation.

Question 7.
Name the instruments used to measure blood pressure.
Answer:
Sphygmomanometer is a clinical instruments used to measure blood pressure when a person is in a relaxed and resting condition. Normal blood pressure in human is 120 mm/ 80 mm Hg.

Question 8.
Which blood group is called as ‘Universal Donor’ and ‘Universal Recipient’.
Answer:
Person with ‘O’ blood group are called Universal Donor.
Person with ‘AB’ blood group are called Universal Recipient.

Question 9.
What is Pulse?
Answer:
During the expansion of the artery, every time, the blood is forced into the arteries is called pulse.

Question 10.
What is transpiration puil?
Answer:
Transpiration through stomata creates vacuum which creates a suction called transpiration pull.

Question 11.
What are Rh antibodies?
Answer:
Rh-negative persons do not have Rh antigen on the surface of RBC. Antibodies developed against this Rh antigen is called Rh antibodies.

Question 12.
What is Adhesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between molecules of different substances is called . adhesion.

VIII. Short answer question:

Question 1.
What is blood pressure?
Answer:
Blood pressure is the force exerted during the flow of blood against the lateral walls of arteries. The blood pressure is high in the arteries gradually drop in the arterioles and capillaries and become very low in the veins. Blood pressure varies during conditions of physical exercise, anxiety, emotions, stress and sleep. Increase in blood pressure is known as hypertension and decrease in blood pressure is termed as hypotension.

Question 2.
Distinguish between open and closed circulation.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the phenomenon of Guttation.
Answer:
The Guttation is a phenomenon caused due to root pressure. It takes place through a specialized cells called hydathodes. Dews on the leaves of grass seen in the early morning, when the climate is humid and excess of water in the soil is an example of Guttation.

Question 4.
What is Coronary circulation?
Answer:
The supply of blood to the heart muscles is called as coronary circulation. Cardiac muscles receives oxygenated blood from coronary arteries that originate from the aortic arch. Deoxygenated blood from the cardiac muscles drains into the right atrium by the coronary sinuses.

IX. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
What is lymph? Write its functions.
Answer:
Lymph is a colourless fluid formed when plasma, proteins and blood cells escape into intercellular spaces in the tissues through the pores present in the walls of capillaries.
Functions of Lymph:

1. Supplies nutrition and oxygen to those parts where blood cannot reach.
2. It drains away excess tissue fluid and metabolites and returns proteins to the blood from tissue spaces.
3. The lymph also carries absorbed fats from small intestine to the blood. The lymphatic capillaries of intestinal villi (lacteals) absorb digested fats.
4. Lymphocytes in the lymph defend the body from infections.

Question 2.
(a) Name the main two components of blood.
(b) What does plasma contain?
Answer:
(a) 1. The fluid plasma
2. Formed elements (blood cells)

• RBC
• WBC
• Blood platelets

(b) Plasma is slightly alkaline, containing non – cellular substance, constitute 55 % of the blood. Organic substances like Proteins, Glucose, Urea, Enzymes, Hormones, Vitamins and Minerals are present in the Plasma.

Question 3.
Demonstrate the process of osmosis with thistle funnel.
Answer:
Aim : To demonstrate the process of osmosis, using Thistle funnel.
Materials Required : Beaker, Thistle funnel, semi permeable membrane, sucrose solution.
Procedure : A thistle funnel whose mouth is covered with a semipermeable membrane, is filled with sucrose solution. It is kept inverted in a beaker containing water.
Observation : The water will diffuse across the membrane due to osmosis and raise the level of the solution in the funnel.
Inference : Raise of liquid in the funnel indicates the process of osmosis.

Question 4.
Explain Double circulation.
Answer:
Diagrammatic representation of the double circulation.

Question 5.
Explain the steps involved in Ascent of sap.
Answer:
The upward movement of water, and minerals from roots to different plant parts is called ascent of sap. A number of factors play a role in ascent of sap and it takes places in following steps.
Root Pressure : Water from soil enters the root hairs due to osmosis. Root pressure is responsible for movement of water up to the base of the stem.

Capillary Action : Water or any liquid rises in a capillary tube because of physical forces, this phenomenon is called capillary action. In the same way, in stem water rises up to certain height because of capillary’ action.
Adhesion-cohesion of Water Molecules : Water molecules form a continuous column in the xylem because of forces of adhesion and cohesion among the molecules.
Cohesion : The force of attraction between molecules of water is called cohesion.
Adhesion : The force of attraction between molecules of different substances is called adhesion.Water molecules stick to a xylem because of force of adhesion.

Question 6.
Explain the causes of the sound of the Heart.
Answer:
The rhythmic closure and opening of the valves cause the sound of the heart.

• The first sound ‘LUBB’ is produced by the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves, after the beginning of ventricular systole. It is a longer duration.
• The second sound ‘DUPP’ is produced by the closure of semilunar valves, at the end of ventricular systole. It is of short duration.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
An unconscious patient is rushed into the emergency room and need a fast blood transfusion. Because there is no time to check her medical history or determine her blood type, which type of blood should you as her doctor, give?
Answer:
O^+ve, it is universal donor. In O group individuals, Antigen A or B are absent on the surface of RBC. However the plasma contains both antibodies a and b.

Question 2.
What are the factors affecting the Ascent of Sap?
Answer:

• High Temperature
• Atmospheric Pressure
• Wind Velocity
• Low atmospheric humidity
• Soil water deficit.

Question 3.
Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements.
Answer:
Both processes can happen together because the diffusion co-efficient of water and CO₂ is different.

Question 4.
Write a few Strategies, to prevent heart disease.
Answer:

• Exercise for about 30 minutes every day.
• Smoking or use of Tobacco should be avoided.
• Eat a heart-healthy diet – Avoid too much of salt or sugar, use of a diet rich in Vegetables and Fruits.
• Maintain a healthy weight.
• Get enough quality sleep.
• Manage Stress.
• Get regular health screenings (B.P. monitoring, Cholesterol level, Diabetes Screening etc.).

XI. Give reason:

Question 1.
Valves are important in human heart. Give reason.
Answer:
The valves will prevent the back flow of blood.

Question 2.
During rainy season wooden door generally swells up – Give reason.
Answer:
It is due to imbibition. It is a type of diffusion in which a solid absorbs water and gets swelled up.

Question 3.
Para sympathetic neural signals affects the working of the heart. Give reason.
Answer:
It reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.

Question 4.
Grapes placed in salt solution shrink. Give reason.
Answer:
It is due to exosmosis.

Question 5.
Why WBC’s are known as phagocytes?
Answer:
WBC produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infection and engulf the germs.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
In leech locomotion is performed by:
(a) Anterior sucker
(b) Posterior sucker
(c) Setae
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Anterior sucker

Question 2.
The segments of leech are known as _____.
(a) Metameres (somites)
(b) Proglottids
(c) Strobila
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) Metameres (somites).

Question 3.
Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of:
(a) Excretory system
(b) Nervous system
(c) Reproductive system
(d) Respiratory system
Answer:
(b) Nervous system

Question 4.
The brain of leech lies above, the _____.
(a) Mouth
(b) Buccal Cavity
(c) Pharynx
(d) Crop.
Answer:
(c) Pharynx

Question 5.
The body of leech has:
(a) 23 segments
(b) 33 segments
(c) 38 segments
(d) 30 segments
Answer:
(b) 33 segments

Question 6.
Mammals are animals.
(a) Cold blooded
(b) Warm blooded
(c) Poikilothermic
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Warm blooded

Question 7.
The animals which give birth to young ones are _____.
(a) Oviparous
(b) Viviparous
(c) Ovoviviparous
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the ………. segments.
2. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ……….. dentition.
3. The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called ………..
4. The blood sucking habit of leech is known as ………..
5. ………. separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in rabbit.
6. ……… spinal nerves are present in rabbit.

Answer:

1. last seven
2. diphyodont
3. anterior sucker
4. sanguivorous
5. Nephrons (kidney)
6. 37 pair

III. Identify whether the statements are True or False. Correct the false statement:

1. An anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called heparin.
2. The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum.
3. The rabbit has a third eyelid called tympanic membrane which is movable.
4. Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit.
5. The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called corpora quadrigemina.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Vas deferens serves to transport the sperm.
3. True
4. False – The gap between the incisors and premolars.
5. False – The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called corpora corpus callosum.

IV. Match columns I, II and III correctly:

Answer:

V. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
Answer:
The common name of Hirundinaria granulosa is Indian Cattle Leech.

Question 2.
How does leech respire?
Answer:
Leech respire through the skin.

Question 3.
Write the dental formula of rabbit.
Answer:
The dental formula of rabbit is \(\frac{2033}{1023}\)

Question 4.
How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
Answer:
There are 11 pairs of testes are present in Leech.

Question 5.
How is diastema formed in rabbit?
Answer:
Diastema is due to the absence of canine. It is a gap between incisors and premolars in the upper jaw and lower jaw.

Question 6.
What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
Answer:
The organs attached to the two bronchi are lungs.

Question 7.
Which organ acts as a suction pump in leech?
Answer:
The Pharynx acts as a suction pump in Leech.

Question 8.
What does CNS stand for?
Answer:
The full form of CNS is Central Nervous System.

Question 9.
Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
Answer:
The dentition of rabbit is called heterodont, as they have different types of teeth (Incisors, premolars and molars).

Question 10.
How does leech suck blood from the host?
Answer:
The Anterior sucker helps in feeding, while both the suckers, help in attachment and locomotion.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Why are the rings of cartilages found in trachea of rabbit?
Answer:
The wall of larynx which serves as the voice box is supported by 4 cartilaginous plates. When the air passes the vocal cord, it vibrates resulting in sound production.

Question 2.
List out the parasitic adaptations in the leech.
Answer:
Leeches lead a parasitic mode of life, by sucking the blood of vertebrates. The adaptations are

• Blood is sucked by the pharynx.
• Anterior and Posterior Suckers are provided, by which the animal attaches itself to the body of the host.
• The three Jaws, inside the mouth, causes a painless Y – shaped wound in the skin of the host,
• The salivary glands produce Hirudin, which does not allow the blood to coagulate. So, the continuous supply of blood is maintained.
• Parapodia and Setae are absent.
• Blood is stored in the crop. It gives nourishment to the leech for several months. So there is no elaborate secretion of the digestive juices and enzymes.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart structure?
Answer:
The circulation in Leech is Haemocoelic system. There are no true blood vessels. The blood vessels are replaced by channels called Haemocoelic channels or canals, filled with blood like a fluid. The coelomic fluid contains Haemoglobin.

There are four longitudinal channels. One channel lies above (dorsal) to the Alimentary canal, one below (ventral) to the Alimentary canal. The other two channels lie on either (lateral) side of the Alimentary canal, which serves as a heart and have inner valves. All the four channels are connected together posteriorly in the 26th segment. Thus the circulatory system is designed in Leech to compensate the heart structure.

Question 2.
How does locomotion take place in leech?
Answer:

1. Looping or Crawling movement : Looping movement is brought about by the contraction and relaxation of muscles. The two suckers serve for attachment during movement. The animal fixes its posterior sucker on the substratum.
2. Swimming movement : The animal swims in the water by undulating movements of the body.

Question 3.
Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
The male rabbit has a pair of testes. They are oval in shape. They are kept in two sacs called scrotal sacs hanging down from the abdomen. Each testes is formed of numerous fine tubules called seminiferous tubules. A coiled tubule called epididymis is formed at the end of seminiferous tubules. Epididymis lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens. The vas deferens run forward and enters abdominal cavity through urinary bladder. The urethra runs back and passes into the penis. There are three accessory glands associated with the male reproductive system. They are prostate glands, cowper’s gland and perineal glands. Their secretion nourishes and activates the reproduction.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS).

Question 1.
Arjun is studying in the tenth standard. He was down with fever and went to meet the doctor. As he went to the clinic he saw a patient undergoing treatment for severe leech bite. Being curious, Arjun asked the doctor why leech bite was not felt as soon as it attaches to the skin? What would have been the reply given by the doctor?
Answer:
The doctors would have replied that the leeches inject an anaesthetic substance, that prevents the host from feeling their bite.

Question 2.
Shylesh has some pet animals at his home. He has few rabbits too, one day while feeding them he observed something different with the teeth. He asked his grandfather, why is it so? What would have been the explanation of his grandfather?
Answer:
The rabbit has three types of teeth – Incisors are front teeth used for cutting, premolar and molar are used for grinding. Canine is absent as rabbit are herbivores. The gap between the incisor and premolar is called diastema. It helps in mastication and chewing of food in herbivores animal.

IX. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Leeches do not have an elaborate secretion of digestive juices and enzymes. Why?
Answer:
The digestion in leeches in very slow. So, the blood stored in the crop gives nourishment to the leech for several months. So there is not elaborate secretion of digestive juices and enzymes.

Question 2.
How is the digestive system of rabbit suited for herbivorous mode of feeding?
Answer:
Rabbit are herbivores which feed on plants. The plant contain cellulose which need cellulose to digest. The laccum of Rabbit contain large number of symbiotic bacteria that helps in digestion of cellulose.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
(a) Vas deferens and Epididymis
(b) Ovary and Caeca
(c) Hirudin and Stomach
(d) Nephridia and Papillae.
Answer:
(a) Vas deferens and Epididymis

Question 2.
Diastema is:
(a) A part of pelvic girdle in rabbit
(b) A type of tooth in rabbit
(c) Space in teeth line in mammals
(d) Structure in eye of rabbit
Answer:
(c) Space in teeth line in mammals

Question 3.
(a) Suckers and Mammary glands
(b) Cowper’s gland and Perineal gland
(c) Forebrain and Oesophagus
(d) Cellulose and Colouration.
Answer:
(b) Cowper’s gland and Perineal gland

Question 4.
If the dental formula of rabbit is \(\frac{2023}{1023}\) What does it show?
(a) Total number of teeth in Rabbit is 15
(b) Number of total incisors in Rabbit is 3
(c) Diastema is present between incisors and premolars
(d) In the formula 2033 is for adult and 1023 is for young ones
Answer:
(c) Diastema is present between incisors and premolars

Question 5.
Number of pairs of salivary glands present in Rabbit is:
(a) one
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

Question 6.
Number of Vertebrae in rabbit is:
(a) 44 – 47
(b) 40 – 44
(c) 42 – 48
(d) 47 – 50
Answer:
(a) 44 – 47

Question 7.
If the diaphragm of a rabbit is perforated breathing is:
(a) Not affected
(b) Increased
(c) Decreased
(d) Stopped
Answer:
(d) Stopped

Question 8.
Tracheal rings in rabbit are:
(a) complete
(b) dorsally incomplete
(c) lateral incomplete
(d) incomplete
Answer:
(b) dorsally incomplete

Question 9.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of leech?
(a) closed circulatory system
(b) segmentation
(c) pseudo coelom
(d) ventral nerve cord
Answer:
(c) pseudo coelom

Question 10.
The blood vascular system, of rabbit is:
(a) open type
(b) closed type
(c) semi closed type
(d) semi open type
Answer:
(b) closed type

Question 11.
The wall of Rabbit’s heart is thick due to the presence of:
(a) Inner layer endocardium
(b) Middle layer myocardium
(c) Outer layer pericardium
(d) Outer layer epicardium
Answer:
(b) Middle layer myocardium

Question 12.
Leech belongs to the class:
(a) polychaeta
(b) oligochaeta
(c) hirundinea
(d) archiannelida
Answer:
(c) hirundinea

Question 13.
A temporary clitellum occur during the breeding season in:
(a) Pheretima
(b) Heteroneris
(c) Hirundinaria
(d) Aphrodile
Answer:
(c) Hirundinaria

Question 14.
Saliva of leeches contains an anti coagulation called:
(a) Heparin
(b) Histamine
(c) Hirudin
(d) Haematin
Answer:
(c) Hirudin

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hirudinaria granulosa belong to the phylum ……..
2. The scientific name of the rabbit is ………
3. ………. is the segmentation of the body.
4. The type of movement is brought by the contraction and relaxation of muscles in leeches is ………
5. In leech, the digestion takes place in stomach by the action of …………
6. The ……….. prevents the entry of food into the trachea through the glottis.
7. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ………… dentition.
8. ……….. contains bacteria that helps in digestion of cellulose.
9. The anterior part of the oviduct in rabbit is …………
10. Breathing movement in mammals are brought by ………..
Answer:
1. Annelida
2. Oryctolagus cuniculus
3. Metamerism
4. Looping or crawling movement
5. Proteolytic enzyme
6. Epiglottis
7. Diphyodont
8. Caecum
9. Fallopian tube
10. Diaphragm

III. Identify whether the statements are True or False. Correct the false statement:

1. Mammary gland in male is the most striking feature of mammals.
2. The leech makes a triradiate or y-shaped incision in the skin of the host by the joins protrude through the mouth.
3. Crop and its diverticular in leech can store large amount of blood which can be slowly digested.
4. Breathing movement in Rabbit are brought by the movement of vibrissae.
5. In rabbit pair of cowper’s gland and perineal gland are present only in the male.

Answer:

1. False – Mammary gland in female is the most striking feature of mammals.
2. True
3. True
4. False – Breathing movement in Rabbit are brought by Diaphragm
5. False – In rabbit pair of cowper’s gland and perineal gland are present both male and female

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Name the excretory organ of leech.
Answer:
Excretion in leech takes place by nephridia.

Question 2.
Give the Scientific name of Rabbit.
Answer:
Oryctolagus Cuniculus.

Question 3.
Where is the brain of rabbit located?
Answer:
The brain of rabbit is located in the cranial cavity and covered by three membrane of duramater, piamater and arachnoid membrane.

Question 4.
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the Peripheral Nervous System?
Answer:
12 pairs of cranial nerves.

Question 5.
What is other name of whiskers in rabbit?
Answer:
The sides of the upper lip produce stiff long thick hairs called vibrissae or whisker which are tactile sensory organ.

Question 6.
Which type of rabbit are endangered species?
Answer:
Pygmy Rabbits are listed as an endangered species.

Question 7.
Name the existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal.
Answer:
Diphyodont dentition

Question 8.
Why Rabbits are called gregarious animals?
Answer:
Rabbits are called gregarious animals as they move in group.

Question 9.
Which animals are called sanguivorous?
Answer:
Blood sucking animals.

Question 10.
What are nephridropores?
Answer:
In leech, excretion takes place by segmentally arranged paired tubules called nephridia. There are 17 pairs of nephridia which open by nephridiopores from 6th to 22nd segment.

VI. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write the systematic position of Indian Cattle Leech.
Answer:

Question 2.
What do you know about the Trunk of Rabbit?
Answer:
The trunk is divisible into an anterior thorax and a posterior abdomen. In females, four or five teats or nipples are present on the ventral surface between Thorax and abdomen. The trunk has two pairs of Pentadactyl limbs. The forelimbs are shorter than the hind limbs.

All the digits bear claws. The anus is present at the posterior end. In females, on the ventral side, a slit-like Vulva is present. In males, the Penis is present in the ventral side of Anus. The male has a pair of testes, enclosed by Scrotal Sacs.

Question 3.
How do the leeches respire?
Answer:
There is no special respiration organ in leech. The skin serves as a respiratory i organ. The capillaries containing the haemocoelomic fluid extend in between the cells of the epidermis, acts as a permeable membrane through which the exchange of gases takes place by diffusion.

Question 4.
What are diphyodont dentition and Heterodont dentition?
Answer:
The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called diphyodont dentition. The two types of teeth are Milk teeth (Young ones) and Permanent teeth (in adults).

The different types of dentition are called Heterodont. There are four kinds of teeth in mammals.
The incisors (I), Canines (C), Premolars (PM) and Molars (M).

Question 5.
List out the five layers of body wall of Leech.
Answer:
The body wall of leech consists of five layers.

1. Cuticle
2. Epidermis
3. Dermis
4. Muscular layer and
5. Botryoidal tissue

Question 6.
Give the systematic position of Rabbit.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain the Respiratory system of Leech.
Answer:
Respiration takes place through the skin in Leech. Dense, network to tiny blood vessels called Capillaries, containing haemocoel fluid extend, in between the cells of the epidermis. The exchange of respiratory gases takes place by diffusion. Oxygen dissolved in water diffuses through the skin, into haemocoel fluid, while Carbon dioxide, diffuses out. The skin is kept moist and slimy, due to the secretion of mucus, which prevents the skin from drying.

Question 8.
List out the steps involved in Inspiration in Rabbit.
Answer:
During Inspiration the atmospheric air takes the following route.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Compare the digestive system of Leech and Rabbit.
Answer:

Question 2.
Short notes on the Nervous System of Leech.
Answer:
The Central Nervous System of Leech consists of a nerve ring and a paired ventral nerve cord. The nerve ring surrounds the Pharynx and is formed of Suprapharyngeal ganglion (brain), Circum pharyngeal connective and Subpharyngeal ganglion. The Subpharyngeal ganglion lies below the Pharynx and is formed by the fusion of four pairs of Ganglia.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Casparian strips are present in of the root.
(a) cortex
(b) pith
(c) pericycle
(d) endodermis
Answer:
(d) endodermis

Question 2.
The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of ______.
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaves
(d) flower.
Answer:
(b) stem

Question 3.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called:
(a) radial
(b) amphivasal
(c) conjoint
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Question 4.
Which is formed during anaerobic respiration:
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Question 5.
Kreb’s cycle takes place in ______.
(a) chloroplast
(b) mitochondrial matrix
(с) stomata
(d) inner mitochondrial membrane.
Answer:
(b) mitochondrial matrix

Question 6.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Cortex lies between ……….
2. Xylem and phloem occur on the same radius constitute a vascular bundle called ………..
3. Glycolysis takes place in ………..
4. The source of O₂ liberated in photosynthesis is ……….
5. …….. is the ATP factory of the cells.

Answer:

1. epidermis and Pericycle
2. conjoint bundles
3. cytoplasm
4. splitting of Water molecules
5. Mitochondria

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in plants.
2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is called as the cuticle.
3. In monocot, stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in the dicot root.
5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
6. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.

Answer:

1. False – Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of food in plants.
2. True
3. False – In monocot stem cambium is absent.
4. True
5. True
6. False – Aerobic respiration produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
What is the collateral vascular bundle?
Answer:
If xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged along the same radius with phloem towards the outside, such vascular bundle is called a collateral vascular bundle.

Question 2.
Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Answer:
The carbon that is used in photosynthesis comes from CO₂ from the air.

Question 3.
What is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
Answer:
Glycolysis is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Question 4.
Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Alcohol fermentation.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
Vascular bundles of dicot stem are conjoint (xylem and phloem lies in the same radius) collateral (xylem is the centre and phloem lies towards periphery) endarch (proto xylem in the centre, Meta xylem lies in the periphery) and open (cambium present in between xylem and phloem: They are arranged in the form of ring around the pith.

Question 2.
Write a short note on mesophyll.
Answer:
In Dicot leaf, the tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into

1. Palisade Parenchyma: They are found below the epidermis and are elongated. They have a number of chloroplasts and can take part in photosynthesis. The cells do not have intercellular spaces.
2. Spongy Parenchyma: They are found below the palisade parenchyma tissue. Cells are spherical or oval and are irregularly arranged. Cells have intercellular spaces and help in gaseous exchange.

In monocot leaves, mesophyll is present between both upper and lower epidermal layer. The cells are irregularly arranged with intercellular spaces. Mesophyll cells contain chloroplasts, to take part in photosynthesis.

Question 3.
Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the three basic – tissues systems in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are:

• Dermal or epidermal tissue system.
• Ground tissue system.
• Vascular tissue system.

Question 5.
What is photosynthesis and where in a cell does it occur?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process by which autotrophic organisms (green plants, algae and chlorophyll containing bacteria) utilize the energy from sunlight to synthesize their own food. It occur in the chloroplast of the cell.

Question 6.
What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
Respiratory quotient is the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed during respiration. It is expressed as

Question 7.
Why should the light – dependent reaction occur before the light-independent reaction?
Answer:
In light – dependent photosynthesis, the photosynthetic pigment absorbs the light energy and convert it into chemical energy, ATP and NADPH₂. These products move out from grana to the stroma of the chloroplast for the light-independent reactions (Dark reaction or Biosynthetic pathway). During this reaction, CO₂ is reduced in the carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH₂. So the light-dependent reaction should occur before the light-independent reaction.

Question 8.
Write the reaction for photosynthesis.
Answer:
The overall reaction for photosynthesis.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate the following:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
Answer:

(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
Answer:

Question 2.
Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
Answer:
The name and the three stages of cellular respiration.

• Glycolysis: (Glucose splitting): Glycolysis is the break down of one molecule of Glucose (6 Carbon) into two molecules of Pyruvic acid (3 Carbon). It takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• Kreb’s cycle: This cycle occurs in the mitochondria matrix. At the end of Glycolysis, 2 molecules of pyruvic acid enter into mitochondria. The oxidation of pyruvic acid into CO₂ and H₂O takes place through this cycle. It is also called as Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle. (TCA)
• Electron transport chain: It is a system of Electron Transport Chain (ETC) located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. NADH₂ and FADH₂ molecules formed during Glycolysis and Krebs cycle are oxidised to NAD+ and FAD+ to release the energy via electrons.

The electrons, as they move through the system, release energy which is trapped by ADP to synthesize ATP. This is called Oxidative Phosphorylation. During this process, oxygen which is the acceptor of electrons gets reduced to water.

Question 3.
How does the light dependent reaction differ from the light independent reaction?
What are the end product and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chioroplast?
Answer:

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills(HOTS):

Question 1.
The reactions of photosynthesis make up a biochemical pathway.
(a) What are the reactants and products for both light and dark reactions.
Answer:
The reaction of photosynthesis can be grouped into two: Light and Dark reaction.
The reaction involving pigments, solar energy and water that produce ATP and NADPH₂ are called light reaction.
The photosynthetic reactions in which CO₂ is reduced to carbohydrates making use of ATP and NADPH₂ generated by light reaction are called dark reaction.
The overall reaction of photosynthesis can be written as follows:

(b) Explain how the biochemical pathway of photosynthesis recycles many of its own reactions and identify the recycled reactants.
Answer:
Light reaction use light to synthesize ATP and NADPH₂. The calvin cycle uses these reactants to produce sugar from CO₂ molecule.
This cycle then produce NAP + ADP + Pi which is used in light reaction with H₂O molecules to produce ATP and NADPH₂ again.

Question 2.
Where do the light-dependent reaction and the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
Answer:
The Light-dependent reaction occurs in the Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast. The Light independent reaction occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The root hairs originate from:
(a) trichoblast
(b) endodermis
(c) hypodermis
(d) pericycle
Answer:
(a) trichoblast

Question 2.
Sachs classified tissue system in plants into _____.
(a) five types
(b) two types
(c) three types
(d) four types.
Answer:
(c) three types

Question 3.
The innermost layer of the cortex is:
(a) epidermis
(b) hypodermis
(c) endodermis
(d) pericycle
Answer:
(c) endodermis

Question 4.
The powerhouse of the cell or ATP factory of the cells _____.
(a) Plastids
(b) Vacuoles
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondria.
Answer:
(d) Mitochondria.

Question 5.
The vascular bundle with protoxylem facing centre of the stem is:
(a) exarch
(b) endarch
(c) tetrarch
(d) polyarch
Answer:
(b) endarch

Question 6.
This is the first step of both Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration _____.
(a) Electron transport chain
(b) Respiratory Quotient
(c) Glycolysis
(d) Kreb’s Cycle.
Answer:
(c) Glycolysis

Question 7.
The vascular bundle in the leaf is:
(a) collateral and open
(b) collateral and closed
(c) bicollateral and open
(d) collateral and exarch
Answer:
(b) collateral and closed

Question 8.
Photosynthesis takes place in:
(a) mitochondria
(b) peroxisomes
(c) chloroplast
(d) ribosomes
Answer:
(c) chloroplast

Question 9.
The dark reaction of photosynthesis were discovered by:
(a) Embden and Meyer
(b) Melvin and Calvin
(c) Kreb
(d) Pamas
Answer:
(b) Melvin and Calvin

Question 10.
………. is the organelle of cell respiration.
(a) mitochondria
(b) chloroplast
(c) plastids
(d) cell wall
Answer:
(a) mitochondria

Question 11.
The hypodermis of monocot stem consists of:
(a) Collenchyma
(b) Sclsrenchyma
(c) Angular collenchyma
(d) Parenchyma
Answer:
(b) Sclsrenchyma

Question 12.
The layer is morphologically homologous to the endodermis found in the root which is:.
(a) periderm
(b) epidermis
(c) starch sheath
(d) mesophyll tissue
Answer:
(c) starch sheath

Question 13.
Pericycle is absent in:
(a) dicot stem
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot root
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

Question 14.
………. is not a characteristic feature of spongy parenchyma.
(a) Gaseous exchange
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Irregular
(d) Closely arranged
Answer:
(d) Closely arranged

Question 15.
Which of the following is not applicable of dicot stem?
(a) wedge shaped
(b) endarch
(c) collateral
(d) closed
Answer:
(d) Closely arranged

II. Application based question:

Question 1.
In the given flow chart different layer of monocot root is shown. What is A and B?

(a) A – Hypodermis, B – Vascular bundle
(b) A – Cortex, B – Vascular bundle
(c) A – Cortex, B – Xylem
(d) A – Hypodermis, B – Xylem
Answer:
(b) A – Cortex, B – Vascular bundle

Question 2.
Casparian strip are characteristic feature of A endodermis and it is made up of B. What is A and B respectively?
(a) shoot, suberin
(b) root, lignin
(c) root, suberin
(d) root and shoot, suberin
Answer:
(c) root, suberin

Question 3.
Which of the following is present in monocot leaves?
A. Bulliform cell
B. Leaf base
C. Bundle sheath
D. Resin gland
E. Water cavity
(a) A, B, C, E
(b) A, B, D, E
(c) A, B, E
(d) A, B, C
Answer:
(d) A, B, C

Question 4.
A vascular bundle in which phloem is on both the sides of the xylem and separated from it by strips of cambium is said to be:
(a) Collateral open
(b) Bicollateral open
(c) Concentric
(d) Bicollateral closed
Answer:
(b) Bicollateral open

Question 5.
Presence of cuticle is a common character of:
A. Monocot stem
B. Dicot stem
C. Monocot root
D. Dicot root
E. Monocot leaf
F. Dicot leaf
(a) A, B, E, F
(b) B, F
(c) A, B, C, D, E, F
(d) A, E, F
Answer:
(a) A, B, E, F

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. is known as “Father of Plant Anatomy”.
2. ……….. are the group of cells that are similar or dissimilar in structure and origin, but perform similar function.
3. Based on the ability to divide, tissues are classified into ……….. and ……… tissue.
4. ………. is the outermost layer.
5. The main function of vascular tissue system are transport of ……….. and ……….
6. Epidermis protects the ……… tissue.
7. ………, ………., ………… and ……….. forms the ground tissue system.
8. Epiblema is also known as ……… or ……….
9. ……….. helps in the movement of water and dissolved salts from cortex into xylem.
10. The tissue present between xylem and phloem is called …………
11. All the tissues inner to endodermis constitute …………
12. The tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called …………
13. Reaction centres and the accessory pigments together are called …………
14. Light reaction takes place in ………. membrane of the chloroplast.
15. Kreb cycle is also known as ……….
16. Glycolysis take place in ……… of the cell.
17. Krebs cycle occurs in ……….. matrix.
18. The gas evolved during photosynthesis is ……….
19. The first step in aerobic respiration is ………..
20. Energy currency of cells is ………..
21. Major functions of epiblema is ……….
Answer:
1. Nehemiah Grew
2. Tissues
3. Meristamatic and Permanent
4. Epidermis
5. Water and Food
6. inner
7. Cortex, Endodermis, Pericycle and Pith
8. Rhizodermis or Piliferous layer
9. Casparian strips
10. Conjuctive tissue
11. Stele
12. Hypodermis
13. Photosystems
14. thylakoid
15. Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA)
16. Cytoplasm
17. Mitochondria
18. Oxygen
19. Glycolysis
20. ATP
21. Protection

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in Sentence:

Question 1.
What are the functions of Epidermis?
Answer:

• The epidermis protects the inner surface.
• Stomata help in transpiration.
• Root hairs help in absorption of water and minerals.

Question 2.
Name the factors which affect photosynthesis.
Answer:
The process of photosynthesis is affected internally by:

1. Pigments
2. Leaf age
3. Accumulation of carbohydrates and
4. Hormones.

The process of photosynthesis is affected externally by:

1. Light
2. CO₂
3. Temperature
4. Water
5. Minerals.

Question 3.
What are Oxysomes?
Answer:
The inner mitochondria membrane bear minute regularly spaced, Tennis racket shaped particles called Oxysomes, which involve in ATP synthesis.

Question 4.
What is Cortex?
Answer:
The region below the epidermis is called cortex. Its main function is to store starch.

Question 5.
What is Pericycle?
Answer:
Pericycle is the outer most layer of stele. It is made of single layer of thin walled cells.

Question 6.
What are the functions of chloroplasts?
Answer:

• Photosynthesis
• Storage of starch
• Synthesis of fatty acids
• Storage of lipids
• Formation of chloroplasts.

Question 7.
Where are passage cell located and write its function?
Answer:
The passage cell is an endodermal cell located opposite to the protoxylem, which are thin wall without casparian strips. The main function of passage cell is entry of water from cortex to xylem.

Question 8.
What is protoxylem lacuna?
Answer:
In mature vascular bundle the lowest proto xylem disintegrates and form a cavity called protoxylem lacuna. Eg: Monocot stem.

Question 9.
Define Kreb’s cycle.
Answer:
The series of cyclic reaction involved in converting pyruvic acid to CO₂ and water in mitochondria is called Kreb’s cycle.

Question 10.
Why mitochondria is called ‘Power house of the cell’?
Answer:
A large number of ATP molecules are produced in the mitochondria, so they are called power house of the cell.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Name the three types of plastids.
Answer:

1. Chloroplast: green coloured plastids helps in photosynthesis.
2. Chromoplast: yellow, red, orange coloured plastids, gives colour to flowers and fruits.
3. Leucoplast: colourless plastids, store food.

Question 2.
List out the functions of chloroplast.
Answer:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Storage of starch
3. Synthesis of fatty acids
4. Storage of lipids

Question 3.
What are Concentric bundles? Explain its types.
Answer:
Vascular bundles in which either xylem completely surrounds the phloem or phloem surrounds the xylem is called concentric vascular bundle. It is of two types:

1. Amphivasal: Xylem surrounds phloem. Eg: Dracaena
2. Amphicribral: Phloem surrounds xylem. Eg: Ferns

Question 4.
What are photosynthetic pigment?
Answer:

1. Pigments involved in photosynthesis are called Photosynthetic pigments.
2.  Primary pigment traps solar energy and converts it into electrical and chemical energy. Accessory pigments pass on the absorbed energy to primary pigment.

Question 5.
(a) Differentiate between Palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma.
Answer:

(b) Differentiate between Monocot ieaf and Dicot leaf.
Answer:

Question 6.
Define stele.
Answer:
Central Part inner to endodermis is called stele. It includes pericycle and vascular system.

Question 7.
Where respiratory cavity is located?
Answer:
The air space that is found next to the stomata is called respiratory cavity or sub stomatal cavity.

Question 8.
What is an isobilateral leaf? Give an example.
Answer:
In monocot leaf, the mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma (i.e., made of only spongy or palisade parenchyma) is called isobilateral leaf.
Eg: Grass (Monocot leaf)

Question 9.
What is dorsiventral leaf? Give an example.
Answer:
In dicot leaf, the mesophyll is differentiated into palisade parenchyma on the upper side and spongy parenchyma on the lower side. A leaf showing this differentiation is mesophyll is designated as dorsiventral. Eg: Dicot leaf.

Question 10.
Define tetrarch xylem.
Answer:
If the number of proto xylem points are four, the xylem is called tetrarch. Eg: Dicot root

Question 11.
What are generally called as accessory pigments?
Answer:
Photosynthetic pigments other than chlorophyll ‘a’ are generally I called accessory pigments. Eg: Chlorophyll ‘A’- Carotenoids and Xanthophyll.

Question 12.
W’rite any three significance of photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. It is the source of all our food and fuel,
2. It drives all other process of biological and a biological world,
3. It is responsible for the growth and sustenance of our biosphere.

Question 13.
What are the functions of epidermal tissue system?
Answer:

1. Epidermis protects the inner tissues.
2. Stomata helps in transpiration.
3. Root hairs help in absorption of water and minerals.

Question 14.
Differentiate between monocot and dicot stem.
Answer:

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Explain Epidermal tissue system.
Answer:

1. The outer most covering layer of plants.
2. It contains epidermis, stomata and epidermal out growths.
3. Epidermis are interrupted by many minute pores called stomata.
4. Epidermis is covered by cuticle to check evaporation of water.
5. Trichomes and root hairs are some epidermal growths.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Vascular bundle.
Answer:
Xylem and Phloem are present in the form of bundles called vascular bundles.
1. Radial
2. Conjoint
3. Concentric.
1. Radial vascular bundle : Xylem and phloem are arranged in an alternate matter or different radii are called Radial vascular bundle. Eg: roots

2. Conjoint vascular bundle : Xylem and phloem are arranged in the same radius are called conjoint vascular bundle. Divided in two types:
(a) Collateral vascular bundles : Xylem and phloem are arranged in the same radius with phloem towards the outside is called collateral vascular bundles. Eg: stem and leaf.
Collateral vascular bundles are of two types:

• Open collateral vascular bundle: Vascular bundle consists of cambial tissue in between xylem and phloem are called Open collateral vascular bundle. Eg: Dicot stem
• Closed collateral vascular bundle: Cambium is absent in vascular bundle are called Closed collateral vascular bundle. Eg: Monocot stem.

(b) Bicollateral : Phloem occurs on both the outer and inner side of xylem. This vascular bundle is Bicollateral vascular bundle. Eg: Cucurbita.

3. Concentric vascular bundle : The vascular bundle in which either phloem surrounds the xylem or xylem surrounds the phloem completely called Concentric vascular bundles. It is of two types: (a) Amphivasal, (b) Amphicribral.
(a) Amphivasal: The Xylem completely surrounds the phloem. Eg: Dracaena
(b) Amphicribral: The Phloem completely surrounds the xylem. Eg: Ferns

Exarch: Protoxylem vessels are present towards the periphery and meta xylem towards the centre. Eg: Root
Endarch: Protoxylem are present towards the centre and meta xylem towards the periphery. Eg: Stem

Question 3.
Explain the Primary structure of Monocot root.
Answer:
The internal structure of Monocot root has
1. Epiblema/Rhizodermis
2. Cortex
3. Endodermis
4. Stele
1. Epiblema/Rhizodermis:

• Outer most layer of monocot root.
• Made up of single layer of thin walled, paranchymatous cell.
• Root hair helps in absorption of water and minerals.
• Stomata and cuticle are absent.
• Main function is to protect inner tissue.

2. Cortex:

• The region below the epidermis is cortex.
• Made up of only parenchymatous cells with intercellular space.
• It is a multi layer.
• Function is to store water and food material.

3. Endodermis:

• Inner most cortex is called Endodermis.
• It forms a complete ring around the stele with characteristic Casparian strips and Passage cell.
• There is a band like thickening made of suberin in casparian strips.

(iv) Stele:
Central part inner to endodermis is stele.
It contains Pericycle, vascular bundles and pith.
(a) Pericycle:

• Outer most layer of stele made of single layer of tightly arranged Parenchymatous cell.
• Function is to originate lateral root.

(b) Vascular bundles:

• Radial arrangement of vascular tissue.
• Xylem is exarch and polyarch.
• The conjuctive tissue is sclerenchymatous tissue.

(c) Pith:

• Large central part, composed of parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces.
• Function is to store the starch.

Question 4.
Draw the structure of Dicot root.
Answer:

Question 5.
Describe the Primary structure of T.S of Monocot stem.
Answer:
(i) Epidermis:

• Outer most layer of monocot stem.
• Made up of single layer and tightly packed parenchyma cells.
• Outer wall is covered by thick cuticle.
• Few stomata are seen in epidermis.
• Multicellular hairs are absent.

(ii) Hvpodermis:

• The layer below the epidermis is called hypodermis.
• Hypodermis is made up of sclerenchymatous cells.
• It is interrupted by chlorenchyma.

Sclerenchyma provides mechanical support to plant.

(iii) Ground tissue:

• There is no distinction of cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pith.
• Inner to hypodermis parenchyma cell forms the ground tissue.

(iv) Vascular bundles:

• Vascular bundles are scattered in the ground tissue. Each vascular bundle are surrounded by bundle sheath by sclerenchymatous tissue.
• Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral, endarch and closed.
• Xylem contains meta xylem and protoxylem.
• In mature Vascular bundle the lowest protoxylem disintegrates and form a cavity called protoxylem lacuna.
• Phloem contains seive tubes and companion cells.

(v) Pith:

• It is not differentiated in monocot stem.

Question 6.
Write a short note on structure of chloroplast.
Answer:
(i) Chloroplast are the actual site of photosynthesis.
(ii) They are green plastids containing green pigment called chlorophyll.
(iii) It mainly consists of Envelope, Stroma, Thylakoids and Grana.

Envelope : Chloroplast has outer and inner envelope membranes which is seperated by intermembrane space.
Stroma : Matrix present inside to the membrane is called stroma. It contains DNA, 70 S ribosomes and other molecules required for protein synthesis.
Thylakoids : It’s membrane encloses thylakoid lumen. Thylakoids forms a stack of disc like structures called a grana (singular-granum).
Grana : Some of the thylakoids are arranged in the form of discs stacked one above the other. These stacks are termed as grana,they are interconnected to each other by membranous lamellae called Fret channels.

Question 7.
Explain the primary structure of T.S Dicot stem.
Answer:
The internal structure of Dicot stem has
(i) Epidermis :

• Outer most layer of dicot stem made up of tightly packed parenchyma cells.
• Outer wall is covered by thick cuticle which check transpiration.
• Few stomata and multicellular hairs are present in epidermal cells.

(ii) Cortex :
Cortex is differentiated into 3 zones:

• Hypodermis : The layer below the epidermis is called Hypodermis. It is made by few layers of collenchymatous cells which gives mechanical strength.
• Middle cortex : Inner to hypodermis is made up of few layer of chlorenchymatous tissue which helps in photosynthesis.
• Inner cortex : Inner cortex is made by parenchyma cells which stores food materials. The inner most layer of cortex is called endodermis. The cells are compactly arranged in barrel shaped cells that contain starch grains. So this layer also called starch sheath.

(iii) Stele :
Central part inner to endodermis is called stele. It contains pericycle, vascular bundle and pith.

• Pericycle : A few layer of sclerenchyma cells occurs in patches outside the phloem in each vascular bundle.
• Vascular bundle : Vascular bundle are conjoint collateral, endarch and open. They are arranged in the form of ring.
• Pith : Large central part, composed if parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces. Function is to store the food.

Question 8.
Describe the structure of T.S of dicot leaf.
Answer:
The T.S of dicot leaf contains
(i) Epidermis – Upper and Lower
(ii) Mesophyll
(iii) Vascular bundles

(i) Epidermis :
The leaf is dorsiventral it has upper and lower epidermis.

• Upper Epidermis : Made up of single layer of tightly packed parenchyma cells. Cuticle is thicker than the lower epidermis.
• Lower Epidermis : Made up of single layer of parenchymatous cells with thin cuticle. Stomata are more in Lower epidermis. Used for transpiration and gaseous exchange.

(ii) Mesophyll :
The region between upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.

• Palisade parenchyma: Present below the upper epidermis cells are elongated. Cells do not have intercellular spaces. More number of chloroplast present. Function is photosynthesis.
• Spongy parenchyma: Present above the lower epidermis. Cells are irregular shaped. Cells have intercellular spaces less number of chloroplast is present. Function is gaseous exchange.

(iii) Vascular bundles : Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed. Vascular bundles are surrounded by a compact layer of parenchymatous cells. These are called Bundle sheath. Xylem is present towards the upper epidermis. Phloem is present towards the lower epidermis.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOT).

Question 1.
The cells of endodermis show band like thickening on their radial and inner tangential walls called casparian strips. Why?
Answer:
It is to prevent the re-entry of water into the cortex once water entered the xylem tissue.

Question 2.
Do plants like Croton, with non – green leaves have chlorophyll and do they perform photosynthesis?
Answer:
The chlorophyll is present in Croton leaves, embedded along with other coloured pigments like carotenoids and anthocyanin. These coloured pigments assist or help the pigment chlorophyll in the process of photosynthesis.

Question 3.
How do we see beautiful colours in Autumn and enjoy the fall?
Answer:
Chlorophyll gives a green colour to plants. During winter, there is not enough light for photosynthesis. So they use food, which is stored in summer. As the green chlorophyll disappears or fades away, we begin to see yellow, orange and red colour. We cannot see them in summer, because they are covered by the green chlorophyll.

But in autumn or fall season glucose trapped in the leaves, after photosynthesis stops. Sunlight and cool nights of autumn cause the leaves to turn this glucose into a red colour.
It is the combination of all these things, that make the beautiful colours, we enjoy in the fall.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Resources and Industries Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Resources and Industries

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Resources and Industries Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Manganese is used in:
(a) Storage batteries
(b) Steel Making
(c) Copper smelting
(d) Petroleum Refining
Answer:
(b) Steel Making

Question 2.
The Anthracite coal has
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon
(b) Above 70% Carbon
(c) 60 to 7% Carbon
(d) Below 50% Carbon
Answer:
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon

Question 3.
The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon

Question 4.
The city which is called the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai
(b) Salem
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(d) Coimbatore

Question 5.
The first Jute mill of India was established at:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Baroda
Answer:
(a) Kolkata

Question 6.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 7.
The most abundant source of energy is:
(a) Biomass
(b) Sun
(c) Coal
(d) Oil
Answer:
(b) Sun

Question 8.
The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Assam
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand

Question 9.
The nucleus for the development of the chotanagpur plateau region is:
(a) Transport
(b) Mineral Deposits
(c) Large demand
(d) Power Availability
Answer:
(b) Mineral Deposits

Question 10.
One of the shore-based steel plants of India is located at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Tuticorin
(c) Goa
(d) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(d) Visakhapatnam

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Define the resource and state its types.
Answer:
Any matter or energy derived from the environment that is used by living things including humans is called a natural resource.
Types of Natural Resources are:

1. Renewable and
2. Non – renewable resources.

Question 2.
Name the states that lead in the production of Iron ore in India.
Answer:
Jharkhand is the leading producer of Iron ore (25%), other states are Odisha (21%), Chattisgarh (18%), Karnataka (20%), Andhra Pradesh (5%) and also the state of Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
A mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties.
Types of Minerals are:

1. Metallic minerals
2. Non – metallic minerals.

Question 4.
State the uses of Manganese.
Answer:

1. Manganese is a silvery grey element always available with iron, laterite and other minerals.
2. It is very hard and brittle. So it is used for making iron and steel to give strength.
3. It also serves as raw materials for alloying.
4. It is also used in the manufacture of bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

Question 5.
What is natural gas?
Answer:
It usually accompanies petroleum accumulations.
[OR]
Natural gas is an important clean energy resources found in association with or without petroleum. It is used as a source of energy as well as an industrial raw material in the petrochemical industry. It is considered an eco-friendly fuel because of low carbondioxide emissions.

Question 6.
Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
Answer:
Based on carbon content coal is classified into

1. Anthracite – contains 80% to 90% carbon.
2. Bituminous – contains 60% to 80% carbon.
3. Lignite – contains 40% to 60% carbon
4. Peat – less than 40% carbon

Question 7.
Mention the major areas of jute production in India.
Answer:
West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Chattisgarh, Odisha are the major jute producing area.

Question 8.
Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Answer:
West coast: Mumbai high, Gujarat coast, Basseim, Aliabet (South of Bhavanagar), Ankleshwar, Cambay – Luni region, Ahmedabad -Kaloi region and Punjab – Haryana.

East Coast: Brahmaputra valley, Digboi, Nahoratitya, Moran-Hugrijan, Rudrasagar-Lawa (Assam region), Surrma Valley. Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Punjab. Haryana, Baleshwar coast.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Renewable and non-renewable resources
Answer:
Renewable resources:

1. These resources can be replenished after utilization.
2. Abundantly available in nature.
3. Eg: Sun energy, Wind etc.

Non-Renewable resources:

1. These resources cannot be regained after utilization.
2. Limited stock take millions of years for formation.
3. Eg: Minerals

Question 2.
Metallic and non-metallic minerals
Answer:
Metallic minerals:

1. These minerals contain one or more metallic elements.
2. They can be further classified into ferrous and Non-ferrous minerals.
3. Eg: Iron-ore, Manganese

Non-Metallic minerals:

1. These minerals do not contain metal in them.
2. They can be classified into energy fuels and construction minerals.
3. Eg: Coal, Petroleum, lime stone, Gypsum.

Question 3.
Agra based industry and mineral based industry.
Answer:
Agro based industry:

1. These industries obtain raw materials from agricultural products.
2. Eg: Cotton textile industry, Jute mills, Silk industry, Sugar industry etc.
3. Labour intensive

Mineral based industry:

1. These industries obtain raw materials from metallic and non- metallic minerals.
2. Eg: Coal industry, Iron and Steel industry etc.
3. Capital intensive

Question 4.
Jute industry and sugar industry.
Answer:
Jute industry:

1. Second largest textile industry.
2. Jute fibre is the basic raw material.
3. Gunny bags, Canvas, pack sheets,Cordage are some of the Jute products.
4. Concentrated in and around West Bengal.

Sugar industry:

1. Second largest agro based industry.
2. Sugarcane is the basic raw material.
3. Sugar Jaggery, Khandsari are some of the products of sugar industry.
4. Uttar Pradesh have more than 50% of the sugar industries.

Question 5.
Conventional energy and non- conventional energy
Answer:
Conventional energy:

1. Non renewable energy.
2. Mainly energy is produced by burning fossil fuels.
3. Production of energy till the stock of mineral availability.
4. Thermal power – Coal, petroleum and Natural gas and Nuclear minerals.

Non-Conventional energy:

1. Renewable energy
2. Mainly energy is produced by harnessing power from nature.
3. Continuous flow of energy production is possible.
4. Solar energy, Wind energy. Bio mass energy, tidal and wave energy.

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the distribution of cotton textile industries in India.
Answer:
The cotton textile industries contribute about 7% of industrial output, 2% of India’s GDP and 15% of the country’s export earnings. It is one of the largest sources of employment generation in the country. At present there are 1,719 textile mills in the country. Out of which 188 mills are in public sector, 147 in cooperative sector and 1,284 in private sector. Currently, India is the third largest producer of cotton and has the largest loom arc and ring spindles in the world. At present, cotton textile industry is the largest organized modem industry of India. About 16% of the industrial capital, 14% of industrial production and over 20% of the industrial labour of the country are engaged in this industry.

The higher concentration of textile mills in and around Mumbai, makes it as “Manchester of India”. Presence of black cotton soil in Maharashtra, humid climate, presence of Mumbai port, availability of hydro power, good market and well developed transport facility favour the cotton textile industries in Mumbai. The major cotton textile industries are concentrated in the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Tamil nadu. Coimbatore is the most important centre in Tamil nadu with 200 mills out of its 435 and called as “Manchester ‘ of South India”. Erode, Tirupur, Karur, Chennai, Thirunelveli, Madurai, Thoothukudi, Salem and Virudhunagar are the other major cotton textiles centres in the state.

Question 2.
Explain the factors responsible for the concentration of jute industries in the Hoogly region.
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for the concentration of Jute industries in the Hoogly region in West Bengal.

1. Raw materials: West Bengal is the largest producer of Jute. Availability of raw Jute for production.
2. Processing: Jute require fresh water for processing. Abundant water supply is available by the riverines and continuous supply of fresh water is ensured due to Perennial nature.
3. Transport: Well connected by the network of water ways, road ways and railways.
4. Cheap labour: West Bengal is one of the densely populated area . So cheap labour is available.
5. Market: Kolkatta being one of the textile centre great demand for the product as well as port facilities available for export.

Question 3.
Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India.
Answer:
Iron and Steel industry is the basic industry. The raw materials are obtained both from Metallic and Non-Metallic minerals.

Iron and Steel industries are located in close proximity to the coal fields or Iron ore mines.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following.

Question 1.
iron ore production centres.
Answer:

Question 2.
Centres of Petroleum and Natural Gas production.
Answer:

Question 3.
Coal mining centres.
Answer:

Question 4.
Areas of cultivation of cotton.
Answer:

Question 5.
Iron and Steel industries.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Resources and Industries Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The ………………. is called as mineral oil.
(a) Petroleum
(b) Coal
(c) Natural gas
(d) Mica
Answer:
(a) Petroleum

Question 2.
Manchester of India is ……..
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 3.
The ………………. is the largest oil field in India producing 65% of oil.
(a) Ankaleshwar
(b) Mumbai high
(c) Kalol
(d) Surma valley
Answer:
(b) Mumbai high

Question 4.
Chotta Nagpur plateau is noted for ……..
(a) Natural vegetation
(b) Mineral resource
(c) Cotton cultivation
Answer:
(b) Mineral resource

Question 5.
TamilNadu produces about ………………. % of the total thermal electricity produced in India.
(a) 5
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 90
Answer:
(a) 5

Question 6.
In India most of the Iron and Steel industries are located in the …… plateau.
(a) Chott Nagpur
(b) Deccan
(c) Malwa
Answer:
(a) Chott Nagpur

Question 7.
Areas near ………………. district has the largest concentrations of wind farm capacity at a single location in the world.
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Tuticorin
(c) Thiruvallur
(d) Kanyakumari
Answer:
(d) Kanyakumari

Question 8.
The resources that can be reproduced again and again is called ……
(a) Mineral resources
(b) Renewable resource
(c) Natural resource
Answer:
(b) Renewable resource

Question 9.
Bysinosis is an occupational lung disease caused by exposure to:
(a) natural gas
(b) cotton dust
(c) coal power
(d) automobile
Answer:
(b) cotton dust

Question 10.
Lignite is extracted in Tamil Nadu …….
(a) Kadaloor
(b) Neyveli
(c) Madurai
Answer:
(b) Neyveli

Question 11.
National News Print and Papermills (NEPA) is in ………………. state.
(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) TamilNadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Question 12.
Sugar bowl of India is …….
(a) West Bengal
(b) Uttar pradesh and Bihar
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Uttar pradesh and Bihar

Question 13.
The ………………. is the largest producer of electronic goods in India.
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Mysuru
(c) Delhi
(d) Jaipur
Answer:
(a) Bengaluru

Question 14.
The leading producer of electronic goods is ……..
(a) Bangalore
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Hyderabad
Answer:
(a) Bangalore

Question 15.
………………. is an aluminium ore.
(a) Manganese
(b) Magnesium
(c) Bauxite
(d) Anthracite
Answer:
(c) Bauxite

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
What are the features of copper and aluminium?
Answer:

• Malleability
• Expandability
• Good conductor of heat and energy (electricity)

Question 2.
Where was the first hydro-electric power station in India established?
Answer:
The first hydro-electric power station in India was established at “Darjeeling” in 1897.

Question 3.
In which type of rocks is limestone found?
Answer:
Limestone is found in sedimentary rocks.

Question 4.
What is the origin of the word petroleum?
Answer:
The word petroleum is derived from two Latin words petro (Rock) and Oleum (oil) thus petroleum is oil obtained from rocks of the earth. It is also called as mineral oil.

Question 5.
Name any five software centres.
Answer:

1. Chennai
2. Bangalore
3. Mysore
4. Hyderabad
5. Coimbatore

Question 6.
When was the Nuclear power programme initiated in India and where was the first Atomic Power station was set up?
Answer:

1. Nuclear Power programme was initiated in the 1940s, when “ Tata Atomic Research Commission was incorporated in August 1948.
2. The 1st nuclear power station was set up at Tarapur near Mumbai in 1969.

Question 7.
What are the raw materials for the paper industry?
Answer:
Woodpulp, bamboo, salai, Sabai grasses, waste paper and bagasse

Question 8.
Write a note on NPCIL.
Answer:

1. The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited ( NPCIL) is wholly owned by the Government of India.
2. It is a Public sector undertaking.
3. Responsible for the generation of nuclear power for electricity.
4. Administered by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). It is responsible for designing, constructing and operating the Nuclear power stations in India.

Question 9.
What are the major centres of the automobile industry?
Answer:
Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, New Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, Lucknow, Satara and Mysore.

Question 10.
Where are the centres of IT parks located in India?
Answer:
Centres of IT parks in India are located in Chennai, Coimbatore, Thiruvananthapuram, Bengaluru, Mysuru, Hyderabad, Vishakapatnam, Mumbai, Pune, Indore, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Noida, Mohali and Srinagar.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Paper industry and Iron and Steel industry.
Answer:
Paper industry

1. Forest-based industry.
2. Serve as an index for education and literacy.
3. Wood pulp, Bamboo, bagasse are some of the basic raw materials.

Iron and Steel industry:

1. Mineral-based industry.
2. Key industry for industrial development.
3. Iron ore and Manganese are the main raw materials.

Question 2.
Solar and Wind energy.
Answer:
Solar energy:

1. Conversion of sunlight into electricity.
2. Photo voltoic cells or use of lenses, mirror and tracking system is used.
3. Installation cost is more and different applications is required as per the need.
4. Occupy more space.

Wind energy:

1. Conversion of energy is from the flow of wind.
2. Wind turbines are used.
3. Installation cost is comparatively less.
4. Occupy less space.

Question 3.
Difference between Manganese and Mica.
Answer:
Manganese:

1. It is a Metallic mineral.
2. Very hard and brittle in nature.
3. Raw material for iron and steel basic raw material for alloying.

Mica:

1. It is a Non-Metallic mineral.
2. Translucent, splitable into thin sheets, elastic and incompressible.
3. Exclusively used in electrical goods and also for making lubricants, paints, varnishes etc.

Question 4.
Iron and Steel industry and Software industry.
Answer:
Iron and Steel industry:

1. Age old industry.
2. Depend upon minerals.
3. Large scale industry.
4. Began in 1907.

Software industry:

1. Recently developed industry.
2. Depend upon skill and knowledge (technical).
3. Small and medium scale industry.
4. Began in 1970.

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Enumerate the automobile industry as the fast-growing industry of India.
Answer:
The first automobile industry was established at the Premier Automobiles Ltd at Kurla (Mumbai) in 1947 and the Hindustan Motor Ltd at Uttarpara (Kolkata) in 1948. At present India is the 7th largest producer of automobile manufactures which includes two wheelers, commercial vehicles, passenger cars, Jeep, scooty, scooters, motor cycles mopeds and three wheelers.

Among the production of two wheelers, motorcycles are manufactured at Faridabad, Haryana and Mysore. While scooters are manufactured at Lucknow, Satara, Akudi (Pune), Panki (Kanpur) and Odhai (Ahmedabad). The cars produced at Haryana, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai are Maruti, Ambassador, Fiat, Ford and Hyndai etc. Presenceof foreign car companies such as Mercedes Benz, Fiat, General Motors, Toyota and the recent entry of passenger cars manufacturers BMW, Audi, Volks Wagen and Volvo makes the Indian automobile sector a special one.

Several new joint venture agreements for the manufacture of cars have recently been signed by the Indian companies and renowned car manufacturers of the world. The Indian auto industry is said to take a big leep in the near fixture. This expected to provide much more competitive environment to the industry and a wide choice of ultra modem cars to the consumers. This is the fast growing industry in India.

Question 2.
What are the different forms of Iron ore and their nature?
Answer:
Iron ores are rocks and minerals from which metallic iron can be economically extracted.

The different forms of Iron ore are:

Form of Iron ores	Iron content %
Magnetite	72.4%
Haemetite	69.9%
Goethite	62.9%
Limonite	55%
Siderite	48.2%

Nature: The ores are usually rich in iron oxides and vary in colour from dark grey, bright yellow or deep purple to rusty red.

Question 3.
Write about the uses of Coal and its areas of distribution.
Answer:

1. Coal is a non-renewable resource. It is available in the form of sedimentary rocks.
2. It has close association with the industrial development of any country.

Uses: Coal is an important source of energy in India with its varied and innumerable uses

1. It is converted into gas, oil and thermal power electricity.
2. Besides it forms a basic raw materials for the production of chemicals, dyes, fertilizers, paints, synthetic and explosives.
3. Distribution: Indian coal is mostly associated with Gondwana region and is primarily found in peninsular India.
4. The States of Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh alone account for nearly 90% of coal reserves of the country. About 2% of India’s coal is of tertiary type and is mostly in Assam and Jammu and Kashmir.
5. Jharkhand is the largest coal producing state in the country. Indian lignite (brown coal) deposits occur particularly in Tamil Nadu ( Neyveli), Puducherry and Kerala.

Question 4.
Give an account on Automobile industry in India.
Answer:
Automobile industry’ is one of the most dynamic industrial groups in India. India is the 7th largest producer of automobile manufacturers.

Distribution: The automobile industries are found in four clusters viz: Delhi, Gurgaon and Manesar in North India.

West India: Pune, Nasik, Halol and Aurangabad East India: Jamshedpur and Kolkatta South India: Chennai, Bengaluru and Hosur.

Major-Indian companies which manufacture commercial vehicles: Tata motors, Ashok Leyland, Mahindra and Mahindra, Eicher motors and Ford motors.

Foreign companies which manufacture commercial vehicles: Hyundai, Mercedes Benz , ITEC, MAN.

Automobile industries in India manufactures two wheelers passenger car, Jeep, Scooty, Scooter, Mopeds, Motorcycles and three wheelers.

Passenger car manufacturers: Tata motors, Maruti Suzuki , Mahindra and Mahindra and Hindustan motors are Indian companies.

Foreign car companies in India: Mercedez Benz, Fiat, General motors, Toyota, recent entry BMW, Audi, Volkswagon and Volvo.

Two wheeler manufacturing is dominated by Indian companies like Hero, Bajaj Auto and TVS.

Major centres of Automobile industries: Mumbai, Chennai, Jamshedpur, Jabalpur, Kolkata, Pune, New Delhi, Kanpur, Bengaluru, Satara, Lucknow • and Mysuru. Chennai is named as “Detroit of Asia” due to the presence of major automobile manufacturing units and allied industries around the city.

Question 5.
What are the major challenges faced by the Indian industries?
Answer:
Some major challenges faced by industries in India are:

1. Non-availability of large blocks of land.
2. Shortage and fluctuation in power supply.
3. Non-availability of cheap labourers.
4. Poor access to credit.
5. High rate of interest for borrowed loan.
6. Lack of technical and vocational training for employees.
7. In appropriate living conditions nearby industrial areas.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
Any two places producing limestone
Answer:

Question 2.
Any two Nuclear power stations
Answer:

Question 3.
Any two Thermal power stations in Tamil Nadu
Answer:

Question 4.
Wind farm places (any 2)
Answer:

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1
H_2(g) + Cl_29(g) → 2HCl_(g)
(a) Decomposition Reaction
(b) Combination Reaction
(c) Single Displacement Reaction
(d) Double Displacement Reaction
Answer:
(a) Decomposition Reaction

Question 2.
Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ______.
(a) heat
(b) electricity
(c) light
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:.
(c) light
Hint:
\(2 \mathrm{AgBr}_{(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\mathrm{Light}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Ag}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Br}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)

Question 3.
A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + Heat. In which of the type(s), the above reaction can be classified?
(i) Combination Reaction
(ii) Combustion Reaction
(iii) Decomposition Reaction
(iv) Irreversible Reaction
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 4.
The chemical equation \(\mathrm{Na}_{2} \mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{BaCl}_{2(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{BaSO}_{4(\mathrm{s})} \downarrow+2 \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}\) represents which of the following types of reaction?
(a) Neutralisation
(b) Combustion
(c) Precipitation
(d) Single displacement.
Answer:
(c) Precipitation
Hint: This reaction involves the precipitation of white BaSO₄ by mixing of Na₂SO₄ (aq) and BaCl₂ (aq). Hence it belongs to precipitation reaction.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium?
(i) It is dynamic in nature
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at equilibrium
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 6.
A single displacement reaction is represented by \(\mathrm{X}_{(\mathrm{s})}+2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{XCl}_{2(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\). the following(s) could be X?
(i) Zn
(ii) Ag
(iii) Cu
(iv) Mg.
Choose the best pair.
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iv.
Answer:
(d) i and iv.
Hint:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H_2.

Question 7.
Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction?
(a) C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)
(b) 2K_(s) + Br_2(l) → 2KBr_(s)
(c) 2CO_(g) + O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g)
(d) 4Fe_(s) + 3O_2(g) → 2Fe₂O_3(s)
Answer:
(c) 2CO_(g) + O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g)

Question 8.
Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
(a) A_(s) + B_(s) → C_(s) + D_(s)
(b) A_(s) + B_(aq) → C_(aq) + D_(l)
(c) A_(aq) + B_(aq) → C_(s) + D_(aq)
(d) A_(aq) + B_(s) → C_(aq) + D_(l)
Answer:
(c) A_(aq) + B_(aq) → C_(s) + D_(aq)

Question 9.
The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH^–] concentration is ______.
(a) 1 × 10^-3 M
(b) 3 M
(c) 1 × 10^-11 M
(d) 11 M.
Answer:
(c) 1 × 10^-11 M
Hint: pH = 3
It means [H⁺] = 10^-3
[H⁺] [OH^–] = 10^-14
[10^-3] [OH^–] = 10^-14
[OH^–] = 10^-11

Question 10.
Powdered CaCO₃ reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO₃ because of :
(a) large surface area
(b) high pressure
(c) high concentration
(d) high temperature
Answer:
(a) large surface area

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. A reaction between an acid and a base is called ………..
2. When zinc metal is placed in hydrochloric acid, ………. gas is evolved.
3. The equilibrium attained during the meiting of ice is known as ………..
4. The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked lime to this juice, its pH ……….
5. The value of ionic product of water at 25 °C is ………..
6. The normal pH of human blood is …………
7. Electrolysis is type of ……….. reaction.
8. The number of products formed in a synthesis reaction is ………..
9. Chemical volcano is an example for ……….. type of reaction.
10. The ion formed by dissolution of H⁺ in water is called …………
Answer:
1. neutralization
2. H₂
3. physical equilibrium
4. increases to ‘7’
5. 1 × 10^-14 mol² dm^-6
6. 7.4
7. decomposition
8. 1
9. decomposition
10. hydronium ion

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
Identify the types of reaction:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Silver metal can replace hydrogen gas from nitric acid.
2. The pH of rain water containing dissolved gases like SO₃, CO₂, NO₂ will be less than 7.
3. At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants and the products will be equal.
4. Periodical removal of one of the products of a reversible reaction increases the yield.
5. On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is basic.

Answer:

1. False – Silver cannot displace H₂ from HNO₃ acid, since it is placed below hydrogen in the activity series.
2. True
3. False – At equilibrium the concentration of the reactants and products do not change it remains constant, but the concentration of the reactants and the products will not be equal.
4. True
5. False – The solution is neutral if the solution is basic it will be green in colour.

V. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an aqueous solution of silver nitrate, a white precipitate is formed. Give the chemical equation of this reaction.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase in raising the temperature?
Answer:
On increasing temperature heat is supplied to the reactant. This energy breaks more bonds and thus speed up the chemical reaction. Foods kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator.

Question 3.
Define combination reaction. Give one example for an exothermic combination reaction.
Answer:
A combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a compound.
Eg: C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + heat

Question 4.
Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions.
Answer:

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are called thermolysis reactions?
Answer:
Thermal decomposition reactions are called ‘thermolysis’ reaction. In this type of reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying heat. There are two types of thermolysis reactions. They are:
(i) Compound to element / element decomposition:
A compound is decomposed into two elements.
Eg:

(ii) Compound to compound / compound decomposition:
A compound is decomposed into two compounds.
Eg:

Question 2.
Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
Answer:
There are two major classes of double displacement reactions. They are,
(i) Precipitation Reactions: When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction.
\(\mathrm{Pb}\left(\mathrm{NO}_{3}\right)_{2(\mathrm{aq})}+2 \mathrm{KI}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{PbI}_{2(\mathrm{s})} \downarrow+2 \mathrm{KNO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})}\)

(ii) Neutralisation Reactions: Another type of displacement reaction in which the acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called ‘neutralisation reaction’ as both acid and base neutralize each other.
\(\mathrm{NaOH}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{l})}\).

Question 3.
Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction.
Answer:
Important factors that affect rate of a reaction are:

1. Nature of the reactants
2. Concentration of the reactants
3. Temperature
4. Catalyst
5. Pressure
6. Surface area of the reactants

1. Nature of the reactants : The reaction of sodium with hydrochloric acid is faster than that with acetic acid, because Hydrochloric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid and thus more reactive. So, the nature of the reactants influence the reaction rate.
2Na_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → 2NaCl_(aq) + H_2(g) (fast)
2Na_(s) + 2CH₃COOH_(aq) → 2CH₃COONa_(aq) + H_2(g) (slow)

2. Concentration of the reactants : Changing the amount of the reactants also increases the reaction rate. More the concentration, more particles per volume exist in it and hence faster the reaction. Granulated zinc reacts faster with 2M hydrochloric acid than 1M hydrochloric acid.

3. Temperature : Most of the reactions go faster at higher temperature. Because adding heat to the reactants provides energy to break more bonds and thus speed up the reaction. Calcium carbonate reacts slowly with hydrochloric acid at room temperature. When the reaction mixture is heated the reaction rate increases.

4. Pressure : If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the reaction rate. This is because, on increasing the pressure the reacting particles come closer and collide frequently.

5. Catalyst : A catalyst is a substance which increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the reaction. In certain reactions, adding a substance as catalyst speeds up the reaction. For example, on heating potassium chlorate, it decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen gas, but at a slower rate. If manganese dioxide is added, it increases the reaction rate.

6. Surface area of the reactants : Powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips. Because, powdering of the reactants increases the surface area and more energy is available on collision of the reactant particles. Thus, the reaction rate is increased.

Question 4.
How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
Answer:

• The pH of blood is almost 7.4. Any increase or decrease in this value leads to diseases
• Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil, while rice requires acidic soil and sugarcane requires neutral soil.
• If the pH of rainwater becomes less than 7, it becomes acid rain which is harmful in day-to-day life.
• pH changes cause tooth decay.
• During indigestion, the stomach produces too much acid and this causes pain and irritation.

Question 5.
What is chemical equilibrium? What are its characteristics?
Answer:
Chemical equilibrium is a state of a reversible chemical reaction where the,
Rate of forward reaction = Rate of backward reaction.
No change in the amount of the reactants and products takes place.
Characteristics of equilibrium:

1. In a chemical equilibrium, the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal.
2. The observable properties such as pressure, concentration, colour, density, viscosity etc., of the system remain unchanged with time.
3. The chemical equilibrium is a dynamic equilibrium, because both the forward and backward reactions continue to occur even though it appears static externally.
4. In physical equilibrium, the volume of all the phases remain constant.

VII. HOT Questions:

Question 1.
A solid compound ‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’ On passing the gas ‘C’ through water, it becomes acidic. Identify A, B and C.
Answer:
A – CaCO₃, solid compound
‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’.

On passing the gas CO₂ through water, it becomes acidic.

A – CaCO₃, Calcium carbonate
B – CaO, Calcium oxide
C – CO₂, Carbondioxide gas

Question 2.
Can a nickel spatula be used to stir copper sulphate solution? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, nickel spatula cannot be used to stir the copper sulphate solution. Actually, on the basis of activity series, nickel is more reactive than copper, so nickel will displace copper from its solution and copper will be deposited on nickel spatula.

VIII. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
Lemon juice has a pH 2, what is the concentration of H⁺ ions?
Answer:
pH = – log [H⁺]
[H⁺] = antilog of [-pH]
= antilog [-2]
[H⁺] = 10^-2 M
[OR]
PH = – log [H⁺]
[H⁺] = 10^-pH
[H⁺] = 10^-2M

Question 2.
Calculate the pH of 1.0 × 10^-4 molar solution of HNO₃.
Answer:
pH = – log [H⁺]
HNO3 → H⁺ + NO₃^–
pH = -log [1 × 10^-4]
= -(-4)log₁₀ 10 = 4
pH = 4

Question 3.
What is the pH of 1.0 x 10^-5 molar solution of KOH?
Answer:
KOH → K⁺ + OH^–
pOH = -log[OH^–]
= -log [1 × 10^-5]
pOH = 5
pH + pOH = 14
∴ pH of KOH = 14 – 5 = 9
pH = 9

Question 4.
Laundry detergent has a pH 8.5, What is the concentration of H⁺ ions?
Answer:
pH = 8.5
pH = – log [H⁺]
[H⁺] = 10^-pH
[H⁺] = 10^-8.5
[H⁺] = 3.16 × 10^-9 M

Question 5.
The hydroxide ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10^-11M. What is the pH of the solution?
Answer:
[OH^–] = 1 × 10^-11 M
pOH = – log[OH^–]
= – log[1 × 10^-11]
= -log₁₀1 – log₁₀10^-11
= -(-11) log₁₀10 = 11
pOH = 11
pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 – 11
pH = 3

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The unit of rate of a reaction is:
(a) dm³/mol
(b) dm^-3
(c) mol dm^-3
(d) mol
Answer:
(c) mol dm^-3

Question 2.
As the molecule is dissociated by the absorption of heat it is otherwise called as ______.
(a) Thermolysis
(b) Photolysis
(c) Electrolysis
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Thermolysis

Question 3.
The chemical formula of marble is:
(a) CaCO₃
(b) MgCO₃
(c) Na₂CO₃
(d) PbCO₃
Answer:
(a) CaCO₃

Question 4.
As the decomposition is caused by light, this kind of reaction is called ______.
(a) Thermolysis
(b) Photolysis
(c) Electrolysis
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Photolysis

Question 5.
Fluorine will displace the following halide ion from the solution:
(a) chloride
(b) bromide
(c) iodide
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 6.
The decomposition of AgBr into grey coloured silver metal is an example of ……… reaction.
(a) compound to element/element
(b) compound to compound/compound
(c) combination
(d) neutralization
Answer:
(a) compound to element/element

Question 7.
The Metathesis reaction among the following is:
(a) C₃H_8(g) +5O_2(g) → 3CO_2(g) + 4H₂O + heat
(b) Zn_(s) + CuSO_4(aq) → ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s)
(c) HNO_3(aq) + NH₄OH_(aq) → NH₄NO_3(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Answer:
(c) HNO_3(aq) + NH₄OH_(aq) → NH₄NO_3(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Question 8.
KI and Pb(NO₃)₂ solutions are mixed to give a precipitate. What is the colour of the precipitate?
(a) White
(b) Brown
(c) Red
(d) Yellow.
Answer:
(d) Yellow

Question 9.
The pH of rain water is approximately:
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 14
Answer:
(a) 7

Question 10.
Most of the reactions go faster at ______.
(a) low temperature
(b) moderate temperature
(c) 0°C
(d) high temperature.
Answer:
(d) high temperature

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. A chemical equation provides information on the ……….. of the substances and the reaction condition.
2. The symbol ‘aq’ in a chemical equation represent the physical state of the substance as ……….
3. 2Na_(s) + Cl_2(g) → 2NaCl_(s) represent the combination reaction between a ……… and ……
4. After white washing with a solution of slaked lime a thin layer of ……….. is formed.
5. Reactions in which heat is absorbed is called ……….. reactions.
6. Electrolytic refining of copper is based on ……….. reaction.
7. When 10^-6 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in water, the pH of the solution is ………..
8. When pH of a solution is 2, the [H⁺] in mol/L is ……….
9. Combustion of coal is an example of ………. reaction.
10. [ ] represents the concentration of either the reactant or product in ……….
Answer:
1. physical state
2. aqueous solution
3. metal, non-metal
4. CaCO₃
5. endothermic
6. electrolytic decomposition
7. 6
8. 1 × 10^-2
9. irreversible
10. mol/Lit

III. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the following table:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the following table:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the following table:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the following table:

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. True or False: (if false give the correct statement)

1. Formation of calcium silicate from silica and calcium oxide is a combination reaction.
2. Most of the combination reactions are endothermic in nature.
3. Decomposition of mercuric oxide into mercury and O₂ is an example of . photolysis.
4. Chlorine can displace fluoride ion from its aqueous solution.
5. Magnesium is more reactive than iron.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Most of the combination reactions are exothermic in nature.
3. False – Decomposition of mercuric oxide into mercury and O₂ is an example of thermolysis.
4. False – Chlorine is less reactive than Fluorine, so it cannot displace fluoride ion from its aqueous solution.
5. True

V. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on double displacement reaction with an example.
Answer:
When two compounds react, if their ions are interchanged, then the reaction is called double displacement reaction.
Eg: NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O

Question 2.
Identify the wrong statements and correct them.

1. Sodium benzoate is used in food preservative.
2. Nitric acid is not used as fertilizer in agriculture.
3. Sulphuric acid is called the king of chemicals.
4. The pH of acid is greater than 7.
5. Acetic acid is used in aerated drinks.

Answer:

1. Correct statement.
2. Wrong statement. Nitric acid is used as a fertilizer in agriculture.
3. Correct statement.
4. Wrong statement. The pH of the acid is lesser than 7.
5. Wrong statement. Carbonic acid is used in aerated drinks.

Question 3.
Why a combustion reaction may be called as an exothermic oxidation?
Answer:
In a combustion reaction heat is evolved, it is an exothermic reaction. As oxygen is added, it is also an oxidation. So, combustion may be called as an exothermic oxidation.

Question 4.
Take two conical flasks. Label them as I and II. Take a small amount of copper sulphate solution in the first conical flask. Take a small amount of granulated zinc in the second conical flask. Allow the copper sulphate solution to react with the zinc.

1. Name the type of reaction.
2. Say whether the metal zinc is more reactive or less reactive.
3. Write a complete and balanced reaction.
4. Say whether this change is reversible or irreversible.

Answer:

1. The reaction taken place is displacement reaction.
2. Metal zinc is more reactive.
3. Balanced chemical equation.
   \(\mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CuSO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{ZnSO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{Cu}_{(\mathrm{s})} \downarrow\)
4. This change is an irreversible change.

Question 5.
What is an irreversible reaction? Give an example.
Answer:
The reaction that cannot be reversed is called irreversible reaction. The irreversible reactions are unidirectional, i.e., they take place only in the forward direction. Consider the combustion of coal into carbon dioxide and water.

Question 6.
Define the rate of a reaction.
Answer:
“Rate of a reaction is the change in the amount or concentration of any one of the reactants or products per unit time”.
Consider the following reaction,
A → B
The rate of this reaction is given by
Rate = –\(\frac{d[A]}{dt}\) = +\(\frac{d[B]}{dt}\)
Where,
[A] – Concentration of A
[B] – Concentration of B
The negative sign indicates the decrease in the concentration of A with time. The positive sign indicates the increase in the concentration of B with time.

Question 7.
What is meant by combination reaction? Give an example.
Answer:
A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known combination reaction.
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO.

Question 8.
What is a catalyst?
Answer:
A catalyst is a substance which increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the reaction.

Question 9.
Define Displacement reaction. Give an example.
Answer:
The reaction in which a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound is called displacement reaction.
\(\mathrm{Pb}+\mathrm{CuCl}_{2} \longrightarrow \mathrm{PbCl}_{2}+\mathrm{Cu} \downarrow\)
Lead displaces copper from copper chloride solution.

Question 10.
When a aerated soft drink bottle is kept open it will go flat. Why?
Answer:
(i) In the sealed aerated soft drink bottle, the dissolved CO₂, in the form of carbonic acid and gaseous CO₂ are in equilibrium.
(ii) When we open the bottle the gaseous CO₂ will escape and the dissolved CO₂ begins to undissolve to the gas phase to maintain the equilibrium. So when we keep the bottle open for a long time it will go flat with all the dissolved CO₂ gone.

Question 11.
Can copper displace zinc or lead from their salt solutions?
Answer:
No, copper cannot displace zinc or lead from their salt solutions. Because copper is less reactive than zinc and lead.

Question 12.
What is called as acid rain?
Answer:
The pH of rain water is approximately ‘7’ but when the air is polluted with oxides of S and N, they get dissolved in the rain water and make its pH less than 7, then it is called acid rain.

Question 13.
Write the differences between combination and decomposition reaction.
Answer:

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Two acids ‘A’ and ‘B’ were kept in beakers. Acid ‘A’ undergoes partial dissociation in water, whereas acid ‘B’ undergoes complete dissociation in water.

1. Of the two acids ‘A’ and ‘B’ which is weak acid and which is strong acid?
2. What is a weak acid?
3. What is a strong acid?
4. Give one example of each.

Answer:

1. Of the two acids ‘A’ and ‘B’, ‘A’ is a weak acid and ‘B’ is a strong acid.
2. A weak acid is the one which ionises partially when dissolved in water.
3. A strong acid is the one which ionises completely when dissolved in water.
4. Weak acid – Acetic acid(CH₃COOH)
   Strong acid – Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄).

Question 2.
Sodium hydroxide and HCl acid react as shown in this equation
NaOH_(aq)4 + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O
(i) Which type of chemical reaction is this?
Answer:
Neutralization reaction

(ii) The reaction is exothermic. Explain what that means?
Answer:
When heat is evolved during a chemical reaction it is called exothermic.

(iii) Differentiate exothermic and endothermic reaction.
Answer:
Exothermic :

1. Heat is evolved.
2. Temperature increases.

Endothermic :

1. Heat is absorbed.
2. Temperature decreases.

(iv) What happens to the temperature of the solution as the chemicals react?
Answer:
Temperature of the solution increases.

Question 3.
Take two conical flasks. Label them as I and II. Take a small amount of CuSO₄ in the I conical flask and small amount of granulated Zinc in the II conical flask. Allow the CuSO₄ solution to react with Zinc.
(i) Name the type of reaction.
Answer:
Displacement reaction.

(ii) Say whether the metal Zn is more reactive or less reactive.
Answer:
Zinc is more reactive than Copper.

(iii) Write the complete and balanced reaction.
Answer:
Zn_(s)+ CuSO_4(aq) → ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s)↓

(iv) Say whether this change is reversible or irreversible
Answer:
Irreversible.

Question 4.
Suggest a reason for each observation given below.

1. In fireworks, powdered magnesium is used rather than magnesium ribbon.
2. Zinc and dilute H₂SO₄ react much more quickly when a few drops of copper sulphate solutions are added.
3. The reaction between magnesium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid speeds up when some concentrated HCl is added.

Answer:

1. In fireworks, powdered magnesium is used because it has more surface area than magnesium ribbon. Because of more surface area, powdered magnesium reacts faster than magnesium ribbon.
2. Zinc and dilute H2SO4 react much more quickly when a few drops of copper sulphate solution is added. Copper sulphate acts as a catalyst which increases the rate of the reaction.
3. When the concentration of the reactants increases, the rate of the reaction also increases. So the reaction between magnesium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid speeds up by the addition of some concentrated HCl.

VII. Hot Questions:

Question 1.

Answer:
According to the rate Law for the reaction.
2N₂O₅ → 4NO₂ + O₂

2K₁ = K₂ = 4K₃ [neglecting negative and positive signs]

Question 2.
When solutions of silver nitrate and potassium bromide are mixed, a pale yellow precipitate is formed.
The ionic equation for the reaction is Ag⁺ + Br^– → AgBr

1. (a) What is the name of the pale yellow precipitate?
   (b) Is it soluble or insoluble?
2. Is the formation of silver bromide precipitate, a result of redox reaction or not? Justify your answer.
3. What is this type of reaction called?

Answer:

1. (a) The pale yellow precipitate is silver bromide.
   (b) Silver bromide is sparingly soluble.
2. Yes, the formation of silver bromide precipitate is due to redox reaction. Ag⁺ gains electron (reduction) and Br^– loses electron (oxidation). So it is a redox reaction.
3. This reaction is a double displacement reaction.

VIII. Numericals:

Question 1.
The hydrogen ion concentration of a fruit juice is 3.3 × 10^-2M. What is the pH of the juice? Is it acidic or basic?
Answer:
[H⁺] = 3.3 × 10^-2 M
Formula:
pH = -log[H⁺]
pH = -log[3.3 × 10^-2]
= -[log 3.3 + log 10^-2]
= -[0.5185 – 2 log₁₀10]
= -0.5185 + 2 log₁₀10 [log₁₀10 = 1]
= -0.5185 + 2
pH = 1.4815
Since pH is less than 7, the solution is acidic.

Question 2.
If a solution has a pH of 7.41, determine its H⁺ concentration.
Answer:
pH = 7.41
Formula:
[H⁺] = antilog[-pH]
= antilog[-7.41] = 10^-7.41
= 3.89 × 10^-8M

Question 3.
The pH of a solution is 5.5 at 25°C. Calculate its [OH^–].
Answer:
pH = 5.5
Since pH + pOH = 14
pOH = 14 – pH
= 14 – 5.5 = 8.5
[OH^–] = 10^-pOH
= 10^-8.5
= 3.16 × 10^-9M
(OR)
[OH^–] = antilog[-8.5]
= 3.16 × 10^-9M
[OH^–] = 3.16 × 10^-9M

Question 4.
Calculate the pH of 0.001 M HCl solution.
Answer:
Since HCl is a strong acid, it dissociates
HCl → H⁺ + Cl^–
[H⁺] = [HCl] = 0.001 M
[H⁺] = 1 × 10^-3M
pH = -log[H⁺]
= -log[1 × 10^-3]
pH = 3

Question 5.
The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10^-8M.
(i) What is the pH of the solution?
Answer:
pH = -log[1 × 10^-8]
pH = 8

(ii) What is the pOH of the solution?
Answer:
pOH = 14 – 8
= 6

(iii) Is the given solution acidic or basic?
Answer:
Acidic

Question 6.
Calculate the pH of 0.02 M Ba(OH)₂, Ba(OH)₂ solution is a strong electrolyte.
Answer:
[Ba(OH)₂] = 0.02 M
Ba(OH)₂ → Ba²⁺ + 2OH^–
[OH^–] = 2[Ba(OH)₂]
= 2 × 0.02 = 0.04 M
pOH = – log[0.04]
= -log[4 × 10^-2]
= -[log 4 + log 10^-2]
= -[0.6020 – 2 log 10]
pOH = -0.6020 + 2 × 1
= 1.398
pH = 14 – 1.398
= 12.602

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Components of Agriculture Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Components of Agriculture

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Components of Agriculture Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The soil which is rich in iron oxides is
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Alkaline
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 2.
Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Soil Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
Answer:
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Question 3.
The soils formed by the rivers are:
(a) Red soils
(b) Black soils
(c) Desert soils
(d) Alluvial soils india.
Answer:
(d) Alluvial soils india.

Question 4.
……….. dam is the highest gravity in India.
(a) Hirakud dam
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Mettur dam
(d) Nagaijuna Sagar dam
Answer:
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam

Question 5.
……………… is a cash crop.
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 6.
Black soils are also called as ………..
(a) Arid soils
(b) Saline soils
(c) Regur soils
(d) Mountain soils
Answer:
(c) Regur soils

Question 7.
The longest dam in the world is:
(a) Mettur dam
(b) Kosi dam
(c) Hirakud dam
(d) Bhakra Nangal dam
Answer:
(c) Hirakud dam

Question 8.
The leading producer of rice in India is ……….
(a) Punjab
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(c) Uttar Pradesh

Question 9.
Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Jute
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 10.
The state which leads in the production of coffee is ……….
(a) West Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Odisha
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(b) Karnataka

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Horticulture involves the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials brought by the rivers.
Reason(R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)

III. Pick the odd one out

Question 1.
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Millets
(d) Coffee
Answer:
(d) Coffee

Question 2.
(a) Khadar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Black soil
Answer:
(d) Black soil

Question 3.
(a) Inundation canals
(b) Perennial canals
(c) Tanks
(d) Canals
Answer:
(c) Tanks

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Define soil.
Answer:
Soil is the uppermost layer of the land surface, usually composed of minerals, organic matter, living organisms, air and water. Its formation is mainly related to the parent rock material, surface relief, climate and natural vegetation.

Question 2.
Name the types of soil found in India.
Answer:
There are 8 major groups of soil found in India classified by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research. They are

1. Alluvial soil
2. Black soil
3. Red soil
4. Forest and Mountain soil
5. Arid and Desert soil
6. Laterite soil
7. Saline and Alkaline soil
8. Peaty and Marshy soil

Question 3.
State any two characteristics of black cotton soil.
Answer:

1. This soil is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, lime and iron but deficient in phosphorous. It is clayey and impermeable which has great capacity to retain moisture for a long time.
2. It becomes sticky when wet but develops cracks during dry summer season. The soil is suited for dry farming due to its high moisture retentivity.

Question 4.
What is Multipurpose project?
Answer:

1. Multipurpose projects are the River valley projects.
2. Dams are constructed across rivers aims to serve many purposes such as irrigation, power generation, water supply, controlling floods, navigation, development of fisheries etc.

Question 5.
Define Agriculture.
Answer:
Agriculture is the process of producing food for people, fodder for cattle, fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated animals

Question 6.
State the types of agriculture practices in India?
Answer:

1. Owing to physical environment and culture the following cultivation systems prevail in India.
2. Subsistence farming
3. Intensive farming
4. Dry farming
5. Mixed farming agriculture
6. Terrace cultivation

Question 7.
Name the seasons of agriculture in India.
Answer:

1. Kharif Season
2. Rabi Season
3. Zaid Season

Question 8.
Mention the plantation crops of India.
Answer:

1. Plantation crops are mainly cultivated for the purpose of exports.
2. These crops are cultivated in large estates on hilly slopes.
3. Tea, coffee, rubber and spices are the main plantation crops of India.

Question 9.
What do you mean by livestock?
Answer:
Livestocks is defined as farm animals who are raised to generate a profile. It is an integral component of the farming system in India.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on the categories of fisheries in India?
Answer:
In India fisheries are categorised into two.They are marine or sea fisheries and inland or fresh water fisheries.

Marine or Sea fisheries:

1. It includes coastal off-shore and deep sea fishing mainly on continental shelf upto a depth of 200 mts.
2. Kerala leads in Marine fish production.

Inland or Fresh water fisheries:

1. Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs, ponds tanks etc are the sources of fresh water fisheries,
2. Andhra Pradesh is leading in the fresh water fisheries.
3. About 50% of the country’s total fish production comes from inland fisheries.

VI. Give reasons

Question 1.
Agriculture is the backbone of India.
Answer:
Agriculture provide food for the entire population. It supplies raw materials to the agro-based industries. It contributes to export trade. So, agriculture is the backbone of India.

Question 2.
Rain water harvesting is necessary.
Answer:
India experiences Tropical monsoon climate. Rainfall in India is seasonal, irregular and uneven and highly eractic. Hence it is necessary’ to save rain water when it is available and use in times of need. In order to prevent surface . run off Rainwater harvesting is needed.

Question 3.
Small farms are predominant in India.
Answer:
The predominant type of Indian agriculture is subsistence farming. In this agriculture land holding is small and half of the production is used for family consumption and the rest is sold in the nearby markets. The farmers concentrate on stage food crops like rice and wheat. As the farmers are poor, they can’t apply the modem inputs which cost more.

VII. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Rabi and Kharif crop seasons.
Answer:
Rabi crop season:

1. Rabi crop season is from October – March.
2. Seeds are sown in winter and harvested before summer.
3. Major crops of this season are mainly Wheat, Mustard, Maize etc.

Kharif crop season:

1. Kharif crop season is from June – September.
2. Seeds are sown after the summer monsoon and harvested before winter.
3. Major crops are Rice, Cotton, Groundnut, Turmeric etc.

Question 2.
Inundation canal and perennial canal.
Answer:
Inundation canal:

1. Undependable source of irrigation.
2. Operational only during flood in rivers and not have weir system to regulate water.

Perennial canal:

1. Dependable source of irrigation.
2. Have weir system through barrage to regulate water from perennial rivers or dams.

Question 3.
Marine fishing and Inland fishing.
Answer:
Marine fishing:

1. Marine fishing includes coastal, off¬shore and deep sea fishing mainly on the continental shelf upto a depth of 200m.
2. Kerala is the leading producer in marine fishing.

Inland fishing:

1. Inland fishing is done in rivers, lakes, canals, ponds, tanks, reservoirs etc.
2. Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Gujarat, Kerala and TamilNadu are the leading states.

Question 4.
Alluvial soils and Black soils.
Answer:
Alluvial soil:

1. Formed by the sediments deposited by the rivers and streams.
2. Silt clay, sandy and loamy in nature.
3. Found in the river valleys and plains.
4. Rice, wheat, sugarcane grow well in this soil.

Black soil:

1. Formed by the disintegration of basalt rocks.
2. Sticky when wet develops cracks when dry.
3. Found in plateau region especially in Deccan trap.
4. Cotton, sugarcane and tobacco grow well in this soil.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
State the types of soil in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write about any two multipurpose projects of India.
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multi purposes project”.

1. The Bhakra Nangal Project: India’s biggest multipurpose river valley project is ‘Bhakra Nangal Project’. It has been built at a strategic point where two hills on either side of the Sutlej are very close to each other. It is the highest gravity dam in the world. Its length is 226 metres from the river bed. The canals taken out are 1100 kilometres long. The ‘Nangal Power Plant’ on the Sutlej produces electricity, and serves the states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and New Delhi. The distributaries are 8400 km in length. It irrigates an area of 1.4 million hectares.

2. Indira Gandhi Project: This project is an ambitious scheme to bring new areas under irrigation so that more areas could be cultivated. The waters of the River Beas and the Ravi are diverted to the River Sutlej. The ‘Pong’ Dam on the River Beas has been constructed to divert the Beas water into the Sutlej in a regulated manner. So that ‘Rajasthan canal’, the longest irrigation canal in the world can irrigate Gandhi Nagar, Bikaner and Jaisalmer districts of North West Rajasthan, (i.e) a part of Thar desert. The main canal now called ‘Indira Gandhi Canal’ is 468 km long runs entirely in Rajasthan, Western of Sutlej, Beas and Ravi are now being fully utilised for irrigating thirsty lands of South Western parts of our country.

Question 3.
Bring out the characteristics of intensive and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Characteristics of Intensive farming:

1. Farming is done with intensification and mechanisation system to maximize yields from available land.
2. In this farming heavy use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers have been applied.
3. It has also been applied to the raising of live stock being held indoor as factory farms.
4. Plantation fanning.
5. Single crop raised on a large area testates).
6. Crops are grown mainly for export purpose,
7. The plantations are mostly owned by companies.

Question 4.
Examine the geographical conditions favourable for the cultivation of rice and wheat.
Answer:
Rice:
Rice is an indigenous crop. India is the second-largest producer of rice in the world. It is a tropical crop which is grown well in alluvial plains and river deltas. It requires a mean monthly temperature of 24°C and an average rainfall of 150 cm and deep fertile alluvial soil for its growth. It also needs an abundant supply of cheap labour. In areas of less rainfall particularly in Punjab and Haryana, it is grown with the help of irrigation.
Rice in India is sown in three ways:

1. Broadcasting,
2. Ploughing or drilling, and
3. Transplanting.

Due to increased use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds (CR Dhan 205, AR Dhan 306, CRR 451 etc.), many of the indigenous varieties were disappeared. In 2016, the first 10 leading rice-producing states are West Bengal (First in India) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Assam, and Haryana.

Wheat:
Wheat is a temperate crop. Its cultivation is mainly confined to the northwestern part of India. India produces both winter wheat and spring wheat. It is the second most important food crop of the country, after rice.

It requires 10-15°C at the time of sowing and 20-25°C at the time of ripening of grains. Over 85% of India’s wheat production comes from 5 states namely Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh. Apart from these regions, the black soil tract of the Deccan covering parts of Maharashtra and Gujarat also contribute a major wheat production.

IX. HOTS Questions

Question 1.
Can you imagine a world without agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture is the art and science of cultivating the soil, growing crops and raising livestock. It includes the preparation of plant and animal products for people to use and their distribution to markets.

Agriculture provides most of the world’s food and fabrics. Cotton, wool and leather are all agricultural products. It also provides wood for construction and paper products.

A world without agriculture would be very different compared to the world we live in today. It is easy for us as humans to take for granted things when we don’t really know how they are grown or produced. Without agriculture, we may not get food and clothing. Without timber, we may not be able to build houses and furniture. We may also be deprived of some everyday-products like soap, paper and ethanol, which are made up of some sort of agricultural by-product. Modern medicine also depends on agriculture. Without agriculture, we wouldn’t be here. We must always be thankful for this industry and for those involved in the various activities related to it.

Question 2.
Can you give solutions for the prevailing water disputes in South India (construction of dams / raising of dams / cleaning of tanks}?
Answer:

1. Construction of check dams: In order to prevent surface run off water • during heavy rains. Check dams has to be constructed to regulate the flow of water.
2. Raising of dams: Improves the storage capacity, Strengthening the dams is a must.
3. Cleaning of tanks: Preventing encroachment by strict legal action, desilting the tanks and deepening it in the local areas will provide water supply to the locality, as well as to maintain the areas of ground water level cleaning of tanks is a must

X. Map exercise

Question 1.
Demarcate the major tracts of alluvial soils.
Answer:

Question 2.
Delineate the main regions of black soil.
Answer:

Question 3.
Locate the Hirakud dam, Mettur dam and Damodar dam.
Answer:

Question 4.
Shade the regions of jute cultivation.
Answer:

Question 5.
Mark any three tea and coffee growing areas.
Answer:

Question 6.
Demarcate the regions of desert soil.
Answer:

Question 7.
Locate the fishing hubs: Tuticorin, Chennai,Cochin, Mumbai, Machiiipatnam
Answer:

Question 8.
Demarcate: Cauvery delta, Godavari delta.
Answer:

TB. PNo: 115
Activity 1:

Question 1.
Soil Texture (sand, silt, clay) influence on some properties of soils including water holding capacity. Find out water holding capacity of soils which given above based on following table.
Answer:

TB. PNo: 131
Activity 2:

Question 1.
Complete the following table by your day to day life experience.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Components of Agriculture Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… soil is formed by the process of leaching.
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Laterite
(d) Arid
Answer:
(c) Laterite

Question 2.
Cotton is a ………
(a) food crop
(b) cash crop
(c) dry crop
Answer:
(b) cash crop

Question 3.
……………… is one of the method of soil conservation.
(a) Deforestation
(b) Irrigation
(c) Water logging
(d) Afforestation
Answer:
(d) Afforestation

Question 4.
The “rice bowl of Tamil nadu” is ………..
(a) Madurai
(b) Chennai
(c) Thanjavur
Answer:
(c) Thanjavur

Question 5
……………… are useful for the diversion of flood water from the rivers during rainy season.
(a) Perennial canals
(b) Inundation canals
(c) Open wells
(d) Tube wells
Answer:
(b) Inundation canals

Question 6
The type of fanning which is practised in Punjab and Haryana is ………
(a) subsistence farming
(b) commercial farming
(c) wet farming
Answer:
(b) commercial farming

Question 7.
……………… project is constructed on the river Kaveri in TamilNadu.
(a) Tehri Dam
(b) Kosi Dam
(c) Mettur Dam
(d) Horakud Dam
Answer:
(c) Mettur Dam

Question 8.
In the regions with abundant rainfall ……. is grown.
(a) millet
(b) wheat
(c) rice
Answer:
(c) rice

Question 9.
The traditional farming method that results in low productivity is:
(a) mixed farming
(b) shifting agriculture
(c) intensive farming
(d) subsistence farming
Answer:
(d) subsistence farming

Question 10.
One of the important zaid crops is ………….
(a) rice
(b) wheat
(c) watermelon
Answer:
(c) watermelon

Question 11.
First Live-stock census was conducted in India in the year:
(a) 1819
(b) 1919
(c) 1618
(d) 1981
Answer:
(b) 1919

Question 12.
The National Research Center on Plant Biotechnology was established in ………
(a) 1985
(b) 1980
(c) 1990
Answer:
(a) 1985

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Indian agriculture is largely dominated by food crops. Reason (R): India has a large population.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Forest and mountain soils differ from region to region. Reason (R): Due to the absence of vegetative cover.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
Hint: Reason is due to mechanical weathering caused by snow, rain, temperature variation depending on climate.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Terrace farming method is practiced on hill and mountain slopes. Reason (R): The availability of land is limited and it checks soil erosion.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Pulses are usually rotated with other crops.
Reason (R): They are used as human food and feeding cattle.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
Hint: They are mostly leguminous in nature and fixes atmospheric nitrogen helps soil to regain its fertility.

III. Pick the odd one out

1. (a) Tea, (b) Sugarcane, (c) Cotton, (d) Ragi
2. (a) Khandsari, (b) Herrings, (c) Mackerels, (d) Eels
3. (a) Damodhar, (b) Mahanadi, (c) Kaveri, (d) Raingun
4. (a) Water wheel, (b) Sprinkler, (c) Open well, (d) poly house
5. (a) Blue Revolution, (b) soil erosion, (c) Green Revolution, (d) Soil erosion
6. (a) Fishing, (b) Kharif, (c) Rabi, (d) Zaid

Answer:

1. (d) Ragi
2. (a) Khandsari
3. (d) Raingun
4. (c) Open well
5. (d) Soil erosion
6. (a) Fishing

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)
F. (v)

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Why is tank irrigation more prevalent in South India than North India?
Answer:
The undulated topography of peninsular region forms large depressions to collect water which become tanks. So the tank irrigation is more prevalent in South India than North India.

Question 2.
How laterite soils are formed?
Answer:
Laterite soils are formed in the regions where alternate wet and dry conditions prevail.
It is formed by the process of leaching.

Question 3.
Which is an acute problem in India? How?
Answer:
Soil degradation is an acute problem in India. According to a 2015 report of the Indian institute of remote sensing (IIRS). The estimated the amount of soil .erosion that occurred in India was 147 million hectares.
The main problems of the Indian soils are

1. Soil erosion
2. Degradation of Soil
3. Water-logging
4. Saline and Alkaline and
5. Salt Flats.

Question 4.
Draw a flow chart showing the sources of irrigation and their classification.
Answer:

Question 5.
Write few lines about Rain Gun.
Answer:
It is used to spread water like rain and used to serve for crops which used to grow up to 4 feet or high also but we have to adjust sprinklers height as per crop size, typical usage of Rain guns are in sugarcane, maize crops.

Question 6.
Name the food crops grown in India.
Answer:
Food crops that are grown in India include cereals and pulses amongst which rice, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, barely, ragi, gram and tur are important.

Question 7.
Give short notes about Terrace cultivation.
Answer:
This is practised especially in hilly areas, where lands are of sloping nature. The hill and mountains slopes are cut to form terraces and the land is used in the same way as in permanent agriculture.

Question 8.
Name the five leading states that contribute 85% of India’s wheat production.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh are the leading states in wheat production in India.

Question 9.
What are the products of Sugarcane?
Answer:
Sugarcane provides raw material for the sugar industry. Besides providing sugar, gur and Khandsari it supplies molasses for alcohol industry and bagasse for paper industry.

Question 10.
How jute is useful for trade?
Answer:

1. Jute fibre provides raw material for Jute industry.
2. It is used for manufactruing of gunny bags, carpets, hessian, ropes and strings, rugs, clothes, tarpaulins, upholstery etc.

Question 11.
What is the other name of ‘Shifting Agriculture1? Who practice shifting agriculture? and how it is called in different regions?
Answer:
‘Shifting Agriculture’ is also called as ‘Slash and bum’ Agriculture. The tribal people follow this type of agriculture. It is called by different names in different regions in India as follows.

Name	Place
Jhum	Assam
Poonam	Kerala
Podu	Andhra Pradesh, Odisha
Beewar, Mashan, Penda, Beera	Various parts of Madhya Pradesh

Question 12.
What is dry farming?
Answer:
Dry farming is the type of farming practiced in arid areas where there is lack of irrigation facilities. Crops grown in these areas can withstand dry conditions.

Question 13.
What are called cash crops? Give examples.
Answer:
Crops which are cultivated for commercial purpose are called cash crops, eg: Sugarcane, tobacco, fibre crops and oil seeds.

Question 14.
Which is the largest oil seeds producing state? What is the position of India in oil seeds production in the world?
Answer:
Gujarat is India’s largest oil seeds producing state. India is the second largest producer of oil seeds in the world next to China.

Question 15.
Define Green Revolution.
Answer:
The process of improving and increasing the production of food crops using modem techniques is referred as Green Revolution.

Question 16.
Mention the different breeds of cattle population in India.
Answer:
Cattle population in India belongs to different breeds. They are

1. Milch breed
2. Draught breed
3. Mixed or General breed

VI. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Tank irrigation is popular in peninsular India.
Answer:
The undulating relief, absence of perennial rivers, Impermeable rock structure and natural depression are the reasons for having tank irrigation most popular in Peninsular India.

Question 2.
Why tea is grown on the hill slopes?
Answer:
Tea plants require high rainfall but its roots cannot tolerate water logging. Frost condition is a must for tea plants. So it is grown on the hill slopes.

Question 3.
Inundation canals are not dependable source of irrigation.
Answer:
Inundation canals are operational only during rainy season for the diversion of flood water directly from the rivers. Hence these canals are not dependable source of irrigation.

Question 4.
Shifting agriculture is also called as slash and burn agriculture.
Answer:
Once the forest land piece is cleared by tribal people they grow crops for two to three years and bum the stumps after harvest and abandoning the lands to regain its fertility and then move to new areas. Thus, shifting agriculture is also called ‘slash and bum’ agriculture.

Question 5.
Only little surplus is left in subsistence farming.
Answer:
Mainly in subsistence farming crops are grown for family consumption leaving little surplus to sell in the market. Preference will be given to food crops as per their needs.

Question 6.
Indian agriculture is mainly dominated by the food crops.
Answer:
As the population increases the need for food also increase. Due to the need and to supply to the large population Indian agriculture is mainly dominated by the food crops.

VII. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Laterite and Red soil.
Solution:
Laterite soil:

1. Femed by the process of leaching under wet and hot dry conditions.
2. Mainly composed of hydrated oxides of iron and aluminium.
3. Found mostly on hilly areas.
4. Suitable for tea, coffee, rubber and cashewnut.

Red soil:

1. Formed by the decomposition of ancient crystalline rocks.
2. Rich in minerals like iron and magnesium.
3. Found in plateau regions.
4. Suitable for pulses and sugarcane.

Question 2.
Arid and desert soil and Peaty and marshy soil.
Answer:
Arid and Desert soil:

1. Formed due to dry climate and high temperature.
2. Poor in organic matter and nitrogen rich in salt content.
3. Found in Rajasthan Northern Gujarat and Southern Punjab.
4. Millets, barley and pulses grow with irrigation.

Peaty and Marshy soil:

1. Formed in humid regions from organic matter.
2. Poor in potash and phosphate rich in vegetable organic matter.
3. Found in coastal areas and Sunderban Deltaic region, Kerala, Odisha, West Bengal.
4. Ideal for paddy and Jute cultivation.

Question 3.
Open well and Tube well irrigation.
Answer:
Open well irrigation:

1. Need sufficient ground water availability.
2. Practiced in areas of Ganga plains and river Deltaic regions.

Tube well irrigation:

1. Can be found in areas of low water table and soft geological subsurface.
2. Need sufficient water supply. Predominant in the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and TamilNadu.

Question 4.
Bhakra Nangal and Hirakud project.
Answer:
Bhakra Nangal Project:

1. Constructed on the river Sutlej.
2. Highest gravity dam in the world.
3. Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan states are benefitted.

Hirakud Project:

1. Constructed on the river Mahanadhi.
2. Longest dam in the world.
3. State of Odhisha is benefitted by this project.

Question 5.
Subsistence and Mixed farming.
Answer:
Subsistence farming:

1. Crops is mainly cultivated for family consumption.
2. Traditional farming methods are used due to small land holdings.
3. Mainly concentrated on food crops.

Mixed farming:

1. Integrated farming to satisfy many needs of the farmers.
2. Modem techniques is used for crop cultivation done in a vast area.
3. System include crop production along with raising live stock, poultry, fisheries, bee keeping etc.

Question 6.
Food and Cash crops.
Answer:
Food crops:

1. Mainly grown for consumption purpose.
2. Food crops include rice, wheat, pulses etc.
3. Apart from consumption used as raw materials for agro based industries.

Cash crops:

1. Crops are cultivated for commercial purpose.
2. Sugarcane, cotton, jute, oil seeds are the main cash crops. .
3. Mainly produced for raw materials for industries and earn valuable foreign exchange.

Question 7.
Rice and Wheat.
Answer:
Rice:

1. Mainly Tropical crop.
2. Need abundant supply of water till harvest.
3. West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, TamilNadu, Andhra Pradesh are some of the leading states in Rice production.

Wheat:

1. Sub tropical or Temperate crop.
2. Need moderate water supply.
3. Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh are the leading states in wheat production.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
What is a multipurpose project and explain its purpose?
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multipurpose project”. Multipurpose projects serve the following purposes.

1. They help to store water, that can be utilised, when water, is in great demand both for agricultural and domestic purpose.
2. They check floods and famines.
3. Afforestation is undertaken in the catchment areas of river, which helps conservation of water, soil and wildlife. Thus it keeps ecosystem intact.
4. Production of hydro electricity is also another purpose of these projects. It is a pollution free of energy and is renewable energy.
5. They attract tourists and develops tourism industry.
6. Soil conservation and land relamation are other purpose of these projects.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Irrigation? Why it is necessary in India?
Answer:

1. Watering to agricultural lands by artificial means for cultivation is called Irrigation.
2. India is a tropical monsoon country.
3. 75% of rainfall is received within a span of four months.
4. Indian rainfall from monsoons are seasonal, uneven, irregular and erratic in nature.
5. So always there is a need for irrigation to carry out agricultural activities during dry period.
6. Besides erratic rainfall prevalence of high temperature, cultivation of annual crops and hydrophytes.
7. Commercial farming and porous soil make irrigation an essential one for agriculture in India.

Question 3.
What are the different sources of irrigation used in different parts of India?
Answer:
The main sources of irrigations are
1. Canal irrigation
2. Well irrigation
3. Tank irrigation

1. Canal irrigation:
It is the second most important sources of irrigation in India. The Canals are of two types.
i. Inundation canals
ii. Perennial canals

i. Inundation canals:
In this, water is taken directly from the rivers without making any kind of barrage or dam. Such canals are useful for the diversion of flood water from the rivers and remains operational during rainy season.

ii. Perennial canals:
These are developed from perennial work by constructing barrage to regulate the flow of water. These canals are useful for irrigation.

2. Well irrigation:
A Well is a hole or trough usually vertical excavated in the earth for brining groundwater to the surface. It contributes about 62% of net irrigated area in India. Wells are of two types.
i. Open well
ii. Tube well

i. Open well:
This type of irrigation is widely practiced in the areas where groundwater is sufficiently available. The areas are in Ganga plains, the deltaic region of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery and parts of Narmada and Tapti valleys.

ii. Tube well:
Tube wells are developed in the areas of low water table, sufficient power supply and soft subsurface geological units. Tube wells are predominant in the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, MP, and Tamil Nadu.

3. Tank irrigation:
A tank is a natural or man-made hollow on the surface developed by constructing a small bund around it across a stream It is used to collect and store water for irrigation and other purpose. It also includes irrigation from taken and ponds.

Question 4.
How is Live-stock census conducted in TamilNadu?
Answer:
State Government is conducting Live stock census with the help of:

1. Department of Animal Husbandary at State level and
2. Regional Joint Director at District level under the guidelines of Government of India ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare,
3. Department of Animal husbandary, Dairying and Fisheries conducted once in 5 years.

Question 5.
Explain about the major issues faced by the Indian farmers?
Answer:
We can divide the problems faced by the Indian agriculture and by the farmers into two Natural and Man made.
Natural problems:

1. Soil erosion: Large tracts of land suffer from soil erosion by wind and water.
2. Infertile soil: Growing crops for many years without replenishing led to the exhaution of soil and its depletion.
3. Lack of Irrigation: Only some areas of the cropped falls under irrigation.

Man made problems:

1. Small land holdings and fragmented land: Poor status made the farmers to have small land and also some farmers possesses share from their ancestral property cannot afford to apply mechanism.
2. High costs of Inputs: Good quality of seeds are out of reach for many small and marginal farmers due to their high price.
3. Agricultural marketing: Absence of sound marketing, facility, interference of local traders and middlemen for the disposal of their produce, fluctuations in the price.
4. In adequate transport: Lakhs of villages are not w7ell connected with main roads or with market centres. Lack of cheap and efficient means of transportation is not available.
5. Scarcity of capital: Huge capital is needed to purchase advanced farm machineries and equipments which the poor farmers cannot afford to buy.

Question 6.
List out some of the Agricultural Revolutions in India.
Answer:

Question 7.
“Per Drop more Crop”. Explain this statement.
Answer:

1. It is the scheme introduced by the Government of India with the objective to enhance water use efficiency.
2. This micro irrigation scheme comes under “Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) and centrally sponsored scheme on micro irrigation.
3. It promotes appropriate technological interventions like drop and sprinkler irrigation technologies in agriculture and encourage farmers to use water saving and conservation technique.
4. Following five states progressed 78% under micro irrigation scheme
   • Andhra Pradesh
   • Karnataka
   • Gujarat
   • Maharashtra
   • TamilNadu

IX. Map Questions
Mark the following on the outline map of India.

Question 1.
Areas of Red soil and Mountain soil.
Answer:

Question 2.
Demarcate the states producing the highest for the following crops.
Answer:
(i) Paddy

(ii) Sugarcane

(iii) Cotton

(iv) Wheat

Question 3.
Kosi project, Tungabadra, Periyar Dam, Nagarjuna Sagar.
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If A = {1,2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5,6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8} then state which of the following statement is true ………….. .
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)
(2) (B × D) ⊂ (A × C)
(3) (A × B) ⊂ (A × D)
(4) (D × A) ⊂ (B × A)
Answer:
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)

Question 2.
If f(x) = 2x² and g(x) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3x }\), then jog is ………….. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{2 x^{2}}\)
(2) \(\frac{2}{3 x^{2}}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{6 x^{2}}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)

Question 3.
Given F₁ = 1,F₂ = 3 and F_n = F_n-1 + F_n-2  then F₅ is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11
Answer:
(4) 11

Question 4.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ +. . . .+ 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 +….+ 15) is ………….. .
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280

Question 5.
The solution of the system x + y – 3z = -6 , – 7y + 7z = 7, 3z = 9 is ………….. .
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
(2) x = -1, y = 2, z = 3
(3) x = -1, y = -2, z = 3
(4) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
Answer:
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3

Question 6.
If number of columns and rows are not equal in a matrix then it is said to be a ………….. .
(1) diagonal matrix
(2) rectangular matrix
(3) square matrix
(4) identity matrix
Answer:
(2) rectangular matrix

Question 7.
The slope of the line which is perpendicular to a line joining the points (0, 0) and (-8, 8) is ………….. .
(1) -1
(2) 1
(3) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(4) -8
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 8.
If sin θ + cos θ = a and sec θ + cosec θ = 6, then the value of b (a² – 1} is equal to ………….. .
(1) 2 a
(2) 3 a
(3) 0
(4) 2 ab
Answer:
(1) 2 a

Question 9.
If two solid hemispheres of same base radius r units are joined together along their bases, then curved surface area of this new solid is ………….. .
(1) 4π r² sq. units
(2) 6π r² sq. units
(3) 3π r² sq. units
(4) 8π r² sq. units
Answer:
(1) 4π r² sq. units

Question 10.
The standard deviation of a data is 3. If each value is multiplied by 5 then the new variance is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) 225
Answer:
(4) 225

Question 11.
Kamalam went to play a lucky draw contest. 135 tickets of the lucky draw were sold. If the probability of Kamalam winning is \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\), then the number of tickets bought by Kamalam is ………….. .
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
Answer:
(3) 15

Question 12.
If α and β are the zeros of the polynomial p(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …… .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(-\frac{7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)

Question 13.
The common ratio of the G.P. a^m-n, a^m, a^{m + n} is ………….. .
(1) a^m
(2) a^-m
(3) aⁿ
(4) aⁿ
Answer:
(3) aⁿ

Question 14.
If the circumference at the base of a right circular cone and the slant height are 120π cm and 10 cm respectively, then the curved surface area of the cone is equal to ………….. .
(1) 1200 π cm²
(2) 600 π cm²
(3) 300 π cm²
(4) 600 π m²
Answer:
(2) 600 π cm²

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Let A = {1,2, 3, 4} and B = N . Let f: A → B be defined by f(x) = x³ then,
(i) find the range of f
(ii) identify the type of function
Answer:
A = {1,2,3,4}
B = (1,2,3,4,5, ………}
f(x) = x³
f(1) = 1³ = 1
f(2) = 2³ = 8
f(3) = 3³ = 27
f(4) = 4³ = 64
(i) Range = {1, 8,27, 64)
(ii) one -one and into function.

Question 16.
If f(x) = 2x -1, g (x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\), show that fog = gof = x
Answer:
f(x) = 2x – 1 : g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\)
fog = f[g(x)]
= \(f\left[\frac{x+1}{2}\right]\)
= \(2\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)-1\)
= x + 1 – 1
= x

gof = g[f(x)]
= g (2x – 1)
= \(\frac{2 x-1+1}{2}\)
= \(\frac{2 x}{2}\)
= x
∴ fog = gof = x
Hence it is proved.

Question 17.
Determine the general term of an A.P. whose 7^th term is -1 and 16^th term is 17.
Answer:
Let the AP. be t₁, t₂, t₃, t₄, ………
It is given that t₇ = -1 and t₁₆ = 17
a + (7 – 1)d = -1 and a + (16 – 1) d = 17
a + 6d = – 1 ……. (1)
a + 15d = 17 ……… (2)
Subtracting equation (1) from equation (2), we get 9d = 18 ⇒ d = 2
Putting d = 2 in equation (1), we get a + 12 = -1 So, a = -13
Hence, general term t_n = a + (n – 1) d = -13 + (n – 1) × 2 = 2n – 15

Question 18.
Find x so that x + 6, x + 12 and x + 15 are consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression.
Answer:
\(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{x+12}{x+6}\), \(\frac{t_{3}}{t_{2}}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
Since it is a G.P.
\(\frac{x+12}{x+6}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
(x + 12)² = (x + 6) (x + 15)
x² + 24x + 144 = x² + 21x + 90
3x = -54 ⇒ x = \(\frac{-54}{3}\) = – 18

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x+8}{x^{2}+x-2}\)
Answer:
x² + 6x + 8 = (x + 4)(x + 2)
x² + x – 2 = (x + 2)(x – 1)


The expression \(\frac{x+4}{x-1}\) is undefined
when x – 1 = 0 ⇒ x = 1
The excluded value is 1

Question 20.
Solve 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 by formula method.
Answer:
Compute 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 with the standard form ax² + bx + c = O
a = 3, b = 2√5, c = -5
p = \(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^{2}-4 a c}}{2 a}\)
Substituting the values of a, b and e in the formula we get,

Therefore, x = \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{3},-\sqrt{5}\)

Question 21.
Write the expression \(\frac{\alpha+3}{\beta}+\frac{\beta+3}{\alpha}\) in terms of α + β and αβ.
Answer:

Question 22.
Rhombus PQRB is inscribed in ∆ABC such that ∠B is one of its angle. P, Q and R lie on AB, AC and BC respectively. If AB = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, find the sides PQ, RB of the rhombus.
Answer:
Let the side of the rhombus be “x”. Since PQRB is a Rhombus PQ || BC
By basic proportionality theorem
\(\frac{A P}{A B}=\frac{P Q}{B C} \Rightarrow \frac{12-x}{12}=\frac{x}{6}\)
12x = 6(12 – x)
12x = 72 – 6x
12x + 6x = 72
18x = 72 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 72 }{ 18 }\) = 4
Side of a rhombus = 4cm
PQ = RB = 4cm

Question 23.
Find the equation of a straight line which is parallel to the line 3x – 7y = 12 and passing through the point (6,4)
Answer:
Equation of the straight line, parallel to 3x – 7y – 12 = 0 is 3x – 7y + k= O
Since it passes through the point (6,4)
3(6) – 7(4) + k = 0
k = 28 – 18= 10
Therefore, equation of the required straight line is 3x – 7y + 10 = 0.

Question 24.
Prove that \(\frac{\tan ^{2} \theta-1}{\tan ^{2} \theta+1}\) = 1 – 2 cos² θ
Answer:

= sin² θ – cos² θ = 1 – cos² θ – cos² θ
= 1 – 2 cos²θ
L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved.

Question 25.
The standard deviation and coefficient of variation of a data are 1.2 and 25.6 respectively. Find the value of mean.
Answer:
Standard deviation (σ) = 1.2
Coefficient of variation = 25.6
\(\frac{\sigma}{x} \times 100\) = 25.6
\(\frac{1.2}{\bar{x}} \times 100\) = 25.6 ⇒ 25.6 × x̄ = 1.2 × 100
x̄ = \(\frac{120}{25.6}=\frac{120 \times 10}{256}\) = 4.687 = 4.69
Value of mean = 4.69

Question 26.
Three dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting the same number.
Answer:
Sample space = {(1, 1, 1) (1, 1,2) (1, 1,3). .. . (6,6, 6)}
n(S) = 216
Let A be the event of getting the same number on all the three dice
A = {(1,1,1),(2,2,2),(3,3,3),(4,4,4)(5,5,5)(6,6,6fl
n(A) = 6
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{6}{216}=\frac{1}{36}\)

Question 27.
If the curved surface area of a solid hemisphere is 2772 sq. cm, then find its total surface area.
Answer:
Curved surface area ofa hemisphere = 2772 sq.cm
2πr² = 2772
πr² = \(\frac{2772}{2}\) = 1386
T.S.A of the hemisphere = 3πr² sq. units
= 3 × 1386 cm²
= 4158 cm²

Question 28.
Which term of the geometric sequence 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\) ?
Answer:
The given G.P is 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\)
Here a = 5, r = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)
t_n = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)
a.r_n-a = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let f: A → B be a function defined by f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1, where A = {2,4,6,10,12}, B = {0,1,2,4,5,9} . Represent f by
(i) set of ordered pairs
(ii) a table
(iii) an arrow diagram
(iv) a graph
Answer:
(i) f = {(2,0)(4, 1)(6,2)(10,4)(12,5)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Question 30.
Given f(x) = x – 1, g(x) = 3x + 1 and h(x) = x² show that (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
The product of three consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression is 343 and their sum is \(\frac{91}{3}\) Find the three terms.

Question 32.
Find the sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4?

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.

Question 34.
A passenger train takes 1 hr more than an express train to travel a distance of 240 km from Chennai to Virudhachalam. The speed of passenger train is less than that of an express train by 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of both the trains.

Question 35.
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P,Q are points on AD and BC respectively, such that PQ || DC if PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, find AD.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(-4,2) and B(6, -4).

Question 37.
From the top of a tower 50 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tree and observed to be 30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the tree. ( √3 = 1.732)

Question 38.
A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with juice. The juice is poured into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both the bowl and the cylinder then find the percentage of juice that can be transferred from the bowl into the cylindrical 1 vessel.

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7,9,… 35,37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.

Question 40.
The function f: [-7, 6] → R is defined as follows.

Question 41.
The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. When both the numerator and denominator are decreased by 6, then the denominator becomes 12 times the numerator determine the fraction.

Question 42.
If for distribution Σx – 7 = 3 ; (Σx – 7)² = 57 and total number of the item is 20; find the mean and standard deviation.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of diameter 6 cm from a point P, which is 8 cm away from its centre. Draw the two tangents PA and PB to the circle and measure their lengths.

[OR]

(b) Construct a triangle ∆PQR such that QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 30° and the altitude from P to QR is of length 4.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² and hence solve x² – 4x – 5 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve the equation x² + 2x + 4 = 0.