Category: Class 10

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 2.
The Panchsheel Treaty has been signed between ……………..
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 3.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 4.
Apartheid is ………………
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A policy of racial discrimination

Question 5.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to:
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence

Question 6.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 7.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 8.
Find the odd one ………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.
Non-Alliance means:
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarisation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(d) none of the above

Question 10.
Non-military issues are
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India conducted its first nuclear test at ……………..
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate …………….. for domestic growth and development.
3. …………….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. …………….. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice ……………..

Answer:

1. Pokhran
2. Inward Investment Business Technology
3. Diplomacy
4. Non – Alignment
5. disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 2.
Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance.
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) only

Question 3.
Write true or false against each of the statement.
(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer:
(a) – True
(b) – False
(c) – True

Question 4.
Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(R): This began with a disastrous Indo -China war of 1962.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations. Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A

Question 6.
Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from:
(a) acute poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is foreign policy?
Answer:
Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs, in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:

1. India’s nuclear policy is based on two themes:
   • (a) No first use
   • (b) Credible minimum deterrence.
2. India has decided not to use nuclear power for offensive purposes.

Question 3.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, as opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 4.
Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy.
Answer:
Domestic Policy:

1. Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.
2. It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.

Foreign Policy:

1. Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
2. Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

• Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
• Mutual non-interference
• Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence.

Question 6.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

1. Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers (America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
2. So he choose the path of Non – Alignment in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war and tried to form a third bloc of nations in international affairs.

Question 7.
In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?
Answer:
India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.
List out the member countries of SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.
Name the architects of the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

Question 10.
Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Answer:
The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
Answer:

1. The team “Non – Alignment” was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at the United Nationsin 1953.
2. Non – Alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
3. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.
4. It was the largest political grouping of countries in a multilateral fora.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.
6. It has transformed from a political movement to an economical movement.

The founding fathers of Non – Aligned Movement: Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

The Non – Alignment roots did not prevent India from entering into an alignment with the Soviet Union by the Indo – Soviet treaty of 1971 (20 – year pact of ‘peace, friendship and co operation’)

Then India embarked on a substantial programme of military modernisation. In 1974, India also conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran under Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project, in response to China’s nuclear test in 1964 at Lop Nor.

Question 2.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:

• Geographical position and size of the territory
• Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis
• Natural resources
• The compulsion of economic development
• Political stability and structure of government
• The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
• Military strength
• International milieu

Question 3.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:
Prioritising an integrated Neighbourhood first policy:

1. India’s foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalities.
2. India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.
3. Greater connectivity and integration is provided so as to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy, capital and information.

Bridging diplomacy and development:

1. One of the major objectives India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This includes improving technological access, sourcing capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

A gradual transition from “Look East” to “Act East” Policy:

1. South East Asia begins with North East India.
2. Myanmar is our land bridge to the countries of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).
3. The purpose is to ensure a stable and multipolar balance of power in the Indo – Pacific and to become an integral part of Asia.
4. This policy emphasises a more priductive role for ASEAN ans EAST Asian countries.

Economic development:

1. Currently India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
2. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.
3. Accelerated, balanced and inclusive economic development to achieves this by ensuring peace and security, and by leveraging the nation’s international partnership.

India as a leading power:

1. India is a member of the G20, the East Asia Summit and the BRICS coalition atestament to its status as a large country with a fast growing economy.
2. India aspires for permanent membership of this UN Security Council.
3. India now has an increasing range of interests, which are anchored in different parts of the world and which stem from a wide range of factors (energy, natural resources, investment, trade etc.,)

New challenges forced India to adjust to new realities. Even then, basic framework of its foreign policy remained more (or) less the same.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and to change if you were the decision maker.
Answer:
India’s Foreign Policy focus on the following:

1. Preservation of national interest
2. Achievement of world peace
3. Disarmament
4. Maintaining cordial relationship with other countries
5. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

If I imagine myself as a decision maker of India’s foreign policy, I would like to retain the following two aspects of foreign policy.

1. Maintaining world peace, Disarmament.
2. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

The two aspects of foreign policy that I would like to change are:

1. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries. We can maintain cordial relationship with all countries, but if they tries to attract us, we should be ready to defend ourselves.
2. Equality in conducting International relations. We can maintain an equality in International relations along with the improvement in scientific economic aspects.

So, it can be enhancement in scientific and economic aspects in relation with other countries.

Note: The answer given is purely a sample answer, students should understand the answer, analyse, and think to give their personal views on the activity and submit to their teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which policy seeks to secure the best interest of the people? (territory and economy of the country).
(a) Panchsheel
(b) Imperialism
(c) Foreign Policy
(d) Non-co-operation
Answer:
(c) Foreign Policy

Question 2.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s five principles of peace are named as …………
(a) Swadesh
(b) New Deal
(c) Panchsheel
Answer:
(c) Panchsheel

Question 3.
An objective and goal oriented foreign policy has the potential to achieve:
(a) improved relation with other Nation.
(b) To accelerate growth
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
India is called by the name of ………..
(a) Superpower
(b) Terrorist
(c) A great peacemaker
Answer:
(c) A great peacemaker

Question 5.
Which Institute provides training for officers of Indian Foreign Services (IFS)?
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute
(b) An international association
(c) Ministry of external affairs of India
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute

Question 6.
China became a Republic in ………..
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 7.
………………… principles were incorporated in the Bandung Declaration.
(a) Non – Aligned Movement
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Trade and commerce
(d) Racial discrimination
Answer:
(b) Panchsheel

Question 8.
Bangladesh got freedom due to the efforts of ………….
(a) Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Indira Gandhi

Question 9.
What is the main aim of India’s foreign policy in the following?
(a) World co – operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by ………….
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Abul Ashar
(c) Jinnah
Answer:
(a) V. Krishna Menon

Question 11.
Whose vote against Iran at the’lnternational Atomic Energy agency?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) India

Question 12.
The foremost task of india’s foreign policy:
(a) Domestic transformation
(b) Inward investment
(c) Business and technology
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
India’s global security concerns:
(a) Military modernisation
(b) Nuclear policies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 14.
Mention the basic concepts of India’s Foreign Policy.
(a) Disarmament
(b) Colonisation
(c) Imperialism
(d) Racism
Answer:
(a) Disarmament

Question 15.
How many member countries in SAARC organisation?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 16.
Which of the following country is a member of the SAARC?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) Egypt
(d) Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 17.
………………… policies aim to promote welfare economics and collective self-reliance among the countries (South Asia)
(a) SAARC
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Non – Alignment
(d) none
Answer:
(a) SAARC

Question 18.
………………… is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.
(a) Diplomacy
(b) Disarmament
(c) Racism
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Diplomacy

Question 19.
Who supported UN disarmament programme?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Srilanka
(c) China
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 20.
………………… is the world’s second most populous country.
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(b) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Foreign Service Training Institute was established in ………………….
2. The Afro – Asian conference held in ………………….
3. …………………. has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
4. The founding father of NAM …………………. of India.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of …………………. countries and …………………. international organisation.
6. India embarked on a substantial programme of ………………
7. The ……………… is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
8. The ……………… stance of India was supporting the cause of decolonisation.
9. India supported UN ……………… programme.
10. ……………… is an organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in ………………
11. SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at ………………
12. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by ………………
13. The SAARC policies aim to accelerate ……………… development in the region.
14. ……………… is the nations plan for dealing with other nations.
15. India aspires for permanent membership on the ………………
16. ……………… forced India to adjust new realities.
17. Indo – US civilian ……………… marks significant progress in India’s foreign policy.
18. India provides ……………… with support as needed in the form of resources and training.
19. Since ……………… global non – proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
20. Indian ……………… in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Answers:

1. 1986
2. Indonesia
3. Non – Alignment
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
5. 120, 10
6. Military modernisation
7. Non – Aligned Movement
8. foreign policy
9. disarmament
10. SAARC, South Asia
11. New Delhi
12. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
13. Socio-cultural
14. Foreign Policy
15. UN Security Council
16. New Challenges
17. Nuclear deal
18. neighbours
19. Independence
20. Nuclear Programme

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not about SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)?
(i) SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in south Asia.
(ii) SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economics and to accelerate socio-cultural development in the region.
(iii) SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at Mumbai.
(iv) SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by (ISRO).
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Ministry of External Affairs of India also known as Foreign Ministry comes under Government of India.
Reason (R): It is responsible for the conduct of foreign relations of India.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): During Cold, War India tried to form a third block of Nations in international affairs.
Reason (R); The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was world cooperation world peace racial equality and non – alignment.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Which of the following is about NAM?
(i) Non – alignment has been regarded most important feature if India’s Foreign Policy.
(ii) NAM was formed with 180 member countries.
(iii) NAM is establishing economic cooperation among under developed countries.
(iv) It was the largest political groping countries in a multilateral fora.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (ii),(iv)
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): : Since Independence global Non – proliferation has been dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
Reason (R): So India’s supported U.N Disarmament programme.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column ll.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is Diplomacy?
Answer:
Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.

Question 2.
What is meant by G – 20 global group of countries?
Answer:
G – 20 refers to the largest established and emerging economies of the world. India is also a member of G – 20 countries.

Question 3.
Write a note on the policy of Apartheid.
Answer:

1. In South Africa the whites, did not give equal rights to the Native Africans.
2. India raised this issue for the first time in the UN General Assembly in 1946.
3. It was due to the constant moral support of India and the continuous struggle of Dr. Nelson Mandela, the policy of Apartheid was abolished in 1990.

Question 4.
List out the basic concept of India’s of foreign policy?
Answer:

1. Preservation of National interest.
2. Achievement of world peace.
3. Disarmament
4. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
5. Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
6. Equality in conducting international relations.
7. Anti – colonialism anti – imperialism anti – racism.

Question 5.
Write short notes on Article-51.
Answer:
Lays down the Directive Principles of India’s foreign policy.
The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote international peace and security
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for international law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Question 6.
What is the major objectives of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

1. one of the major objectives of India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This include improving technological access source of capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

Question 7.
What are the elements in our eastern policy?
Answer:
The three big elements in our eastern policy are stronger emphasis on physical connectivity commercial and security related.

Question 8.
Non – Alignement defined by Nehru?
Answer:
“Broudly, non – alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocks. It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not form the military point of view, though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly relations with all countries”.
– Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
Mention few basic determinants of a foreign policy.
Answer:

1. Geographical position and size of territory.
2. Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.
3. Natural resources
4. Political stability and structure of Government.

Question 10.
What do you mean by NAM?
Answer:
NAM means Non – Aligned Movement.

1. The NAM is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
2. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not , jointing any military alliance.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain about the shifts in India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The shifts in India’s policy manifested in various ways such as:

1. Better relations with China – The look East policy (1992).
2. The second nuclear test at Pokhran (1998) in Rajasthan.
3. Defence procurement relationship with Israel.
4. Energy diplomacy with Arab countries and Iran.
5. Agreeing to US nuclear missile defence programme and
6. India’s vote against Iran at the International Automatic Energy Agency.

Question 2.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

(i) India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
(ii) SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
(iii) Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary-general of SAARC.
(iv) The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.

(v) On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting Afghanistan become its 8th member.

(vi) 18th SAARC summit took place on 26th and 27th of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.

(vii) The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 3.
How India accelerated balanced and inclusive economic development?
Answer:

1. India achieved economic development by ensuring peace and security.
2. By leveraging the nations international partnership, to obtain all that is needed to fuel economic development.
3. Economic development in the filed of markets, investment, fair global governance and a stable and fair environment conducive for growth.
4. Currently’ India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
5. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.

Question 4.
Explain about the principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Lays down directive principles of India’s foreign policy.

The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote International Peace and Security.
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for International law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration.

Question 5.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

1. SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia.
2. The SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economies, collective self – reliance and to accelerate socio – cultural development in the region.
3. SAARC Disaster Management Center was set up at New Delhi.
4. This centre working on various dimensions of disaster risk reduction and management,
5. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication-cum-meteorology satellite by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the SAARC region.
6. The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, and SriLanka.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 3 State Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 State Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Governor of the State is appointed by the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 2.
The Speaker of a State is a ……………
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of government
(c) President’s agent
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative
(b) Executive
(c) Judicial
(d) Diplomatic
Answer:
(d) Diplomatic

Question 4.
Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Speaker of State legislature
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 5.
The Governor does not appoint:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Judges of the High Court
Answer:
(d) Judges of the High Court

Question 6.
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by …………….
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Governor
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 7.
The State Council of Ministers is headed by:
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Governor
(c) The Speaker
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The Chief Minister

Question 8.
The Legislative Council ………….
(a) has a term of five years
(b) has a term of six years
(c) is a permanent house
(d) has a term of four years
Answer:
(c) is a permanent house

Question 9.
The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is:
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Answer:
(c) 30 years

Question 10.
The members of the Legislative Council are ……………
(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly
(b) Mostly nominated
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.
(d) Directly elected by the people
Answer:
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.

Question 11.
Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
The High Courts in India were first started at ………………….
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
(b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras
(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
Answer:
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

Question 13.
Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Punjab and Haryana

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to ………………..
2. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the ………………..
3. ……………….. is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
4. ……………….. acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
5. The Seventh Amendment Act of ……………….. authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states.
6. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the ………………..

Answers:

1. The President
2. people
3. Mrs.Fathima Beevi
4. The Governor
5. 1956
6. President

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Only some states in India have Legislative Councils.
(ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
(iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
(iv) Some members are elected by Local bodies.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and iv are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State
Legislature only with the President’s approval.
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

V. Answer in brief questions

Question 1.
How the state of Jammu and Kashmir differ from the other states of India?
Answer:
(i) The Constitution of India grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian States, and it is the only state in India to have a separate Constitution.

(ii) The Directive Principles of the State Policy and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

(iii) Rights to property, which is denied as a Fundamental Right to rest of India is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state executive.
2. The administration of a state is carried on in the name of the governor.
3. The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature. But he is not a member in the legislature.
4. He has the right to summon, prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the Assembly.
5. Under Article 213 he can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.

Question 3.
What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
Answer:
Qualifications of the Governor is given below

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He must have completed 35 years of age.
3. He should not be a member of Parliament or any State legislature.
4. He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 4.
What is the original Jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:

1. Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court the High Courts have original Jurisdiction.
2. The presidency High Courts ( Bombay, Calcutta and Madras) have original Jurisdiction in which the amount involved is more than 2000 and the criminal cases which are committed to them by the presidency magistrates.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High Court?
Answer:
As courts of appeal, all High Courts hear appeals in both civil and criminal cases against the divisions of the subordinate courts and can review their judgements.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:

1. The leader of the majority’ party or majority group in the state Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
2. The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.

The Powers and Functions of the Chief Minister:

1. Relating to the council of Ministers
2. Relating to the Governor
3. Relating to the State Legislature
4. Other functions and powers

Relating to the Council of Ministers:

1. The Chief Minister recommends a person who can be appointed as Minister by the Governor.
2. He allocates the port folios to the Ministers
3. He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry
4. He presides over the cabinet meetings and influences its decisions,
5. In case of difference of opinion he can ask a minister to resign or advices the Governor to dismiss him,
6. If the Chief Minister resigns the council of Ministers are also should resign.
7. He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the Ministers.

Relating to the Governor:

1. The Chief Minister is the link between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
2. He advices the Governor in relation to the appointment of Advocate general of the state, State Election Commissioner, Chairman and members of the State Planning Commission, State Public Service Commission and the State Finance Commission.

Relating to State Legislature:

1. On the advice of the Chief Minister Governor officially summons & prorogues the sessions of the state legislature.
2. He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
3. He can introduce the bills in the Legislative Assembly.
4. Recommend for the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the Governor any time.

Other function and powers:

1. As the leader of the party he has to control the party and develop the disciplines.
2. To consider the demands of the different sections of the people.
3. As the political head supervise control and co-ordinate the secretaries of various departments in the state level.
4. For the smooth functioning of the state he has to develop a good rapport with the Central (Union) Government for good Centre-State relation.

Question 2.
Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the Governor are:
(i) The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State. All the administration is carried on in his name.

(ii) He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister of the State. He appoints other members of the council of Ministers on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.

(iii) He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission, the State Election Commissioner, the Attorney General of the State etc.

(iv) He has the right to summon, prorogue the State Legislature and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.

(v) The Money Bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the prior recommendation of the Governor.

(vi) He constitutes a Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats and the municipalities.

Question 3.
Briefly discuss the Functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Legislative powers:

1. As per the constitution can pass laws on all subjects mentioned in the State List.
2. The passing of Bill into law follows the same procedure as in the union Parliament.
3. The state can make laws on concurrent subject also. The state made law will become inoperative when the Centre also passes law on the same subject.
4. The Bill passed in the State legislature will become law after Governor’s assent.

Financial powers:

1. Money bills can be introduced only in the Lower House or Assembly
2. No new tax can be levied without the sanction and permission of the Assembly.
3. The Legislature controls the finances of the State.

Control over the Executive:

1. The Legislature controls over the Executive.
2. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Assembly.
3. They can be removed from the power if the Assembly passes “No confidence motion” against the Ministry.

Question 4.
Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions and powers of the Council of Ministers –

1. It formulates and decides the policies of the State and implements them effectively.
2. It decides the legislative programmes of the Legislative Assembly and sponsors all important bills.
3. It controls the financial policy and decides the tax structure for the public welfare of the State.
4. It chalks out programmes and schemes for the socio-economic changes so that the State makes headway in various inter-related fields,
5. It makes the important appointments of the heads of departments.
6. The Annual Financial Statement called as the Budget is finalised by the Council of Ministers.
7. It advises the Governor on the appointment of judges of the subordinate courts.

Question 5.
Describe the powers and functions of the High Court
Answer:
High Court is the highest court in the state. Every High Court consists of a Chief Justice and other judges appointed by the President. The High Court enjoys the following Jurisdiction.

(i) Original Jurisdiction: The High Court can hear the cases like such as matters of admiralty, probate and matrimonial, contempt of court and in criminal cases.

(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: As courts of appeal all High Courts appeals in civil and criminal cases and also cases of their own.

(iii) Writ Jurisdiction: Writs are issued by the High Court not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also where an ordinary legal rights has been infringed.

Kinds of Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition ,Quo Warranto, Certiorari.

(iv) Supervisory Jurisdiction:

(a) High Court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals, (except military courts)
(b) High Court has an administrative powers.
(c) Its law is binding on all subordinate courts functioning within its territorial jurisdiction.
(d) It is consulted by the governor in the matters of appointment , posting and promotion, grant of leave, transfers and discipline court of Record.
(e) All the decisions and decrees issued by the High Court are printed and kept as a record for future needs.

Judicial Review: To examine the constitutionality of Legislative enactments and executive orders of both the central and the State Governments.

VII. Project & Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a flow chart showing the State Government’s Administrative setup.
Answer:

Question 2.
Students to list out the names of the Tamil Nadu Governor, Chief Minister, Ministers and the Governors and Chief Ministers of the neighbouring States.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The State of ……………… has a separate constitution.
(a) Punjab & Haryana
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kerala & Karnataka
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.
Who is not appointed by the Governor?
(a) The Advocate General of the State
(b) The State Election Commissioner
(c) The Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court
Answer:
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Question 3.
The administration of the State is carried on in the name of the:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Speaker
(d) Governor
Answer:
(d) Governor

Question 4.
How many High Courts are there for all 29 States?
(a) 29
(b) 27
(c) 25
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 5.
The ……………… has the power to summon, prorogue the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of the Legislative Council
Answer:
(b) Governor

Question 6.
The State Government consists of …………… branches.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 7.
Under Article ……………… the Governor can pass ordinance when the State Assembly is not in session.
(a) 311
(b) 312
(c) 213
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 213

Question 8.
The ……………. provides a legislature for every state.
(a) Constitution
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan
Answer:
(a) Constitution

Question 9.
The total strength of Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu is:
(aj 231
(b) 240
(c) 245
(d) 235
Answer:
(d) 235

Question 10.
……………… can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Advocate general
(c) Chief Minister
Answer:
(c) Chief Minister

Question 11.
The institution of High Court originated in India in:
(a) 1826
(b) 1816
(c) 1862
(d) 1870
Answer:
(c) 1862

Question 12.
The Statue of ……………… has been kept in front of the High Court building.
(a) Rajaraja Cholan
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)
(c) Karikal Cholan
(d) Rajendra Cholan
Answer:
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Article 226 and 227 confer the power of ……………….. on a high court.
2. The ……………….. is the real centre of power in the State.
3. The Legislature of s State or a High Court has no power in the removal of ………………..
4. The present Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
5. The present Governor of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
6. The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly must not below ………………..
7. The Standing committee of the Cabinet is ………………..
8. The ……………….. is removed from the office by a resolution of the Assembly after giving a 14 days notice.
9. The Legislative Council is the ……………….. of the State legislature.
10. Article ……………….. deals with the creation or abolition of Legislative Council.

Answers:

1. Judicial review
2. Legislative Assembly
3. Governor
4. Thiru Edappadi K. Palaniswami
5. Thiru Banvarilal Purohit
6. Sixty
7. Permanent
8. Speaker
9. Upper House
10. 169

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed.
Reason (R): He may remain as the Chief Minister as long as he enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(b) (A) is false (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The number of judges varies from State to State.
Reason (R): The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President. .
(a) (A) is false (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A
(c) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A
(d) (A) is true (R) is false
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A

Question 3.
(i) High Courts are given power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
(ii) The jurisdiction is limited only to the fundamental rights.
(iii) Writs are issued by the High Court when an ordinary legal right has been fringed.
(iv) Article 32 empowered to issue such writs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Council of Ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
(ii) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the State Assembly.
(iii) The State ministry will be in power after the resignation of the Chief Minister.
(iv) Councils of Ministers do not aid and advice the Governor.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on cabinet and cabinet committees.
Answer:
The Cabinet is the nucleus of the Council of Ministers. It consists of only the Cabinet Ministers. It is the real centre of authority in the State Government.
The cabinet works through various committees called Cabinet Committees. They are of two types – standing and ad hoc – the former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature.

Question 2.
How the Governor is appointed to a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President.
2. Generally, the Governor does not belongs to the state where he is appointed.
3. He also be transferred from one State to another.
4. If situation warrants so, the same person may be appointed as the Governor of two or more States.
5. Usually the term of office is five years but he may be appointed as a Governor any number of terms during the pleasure of the President.

Question 3.
Throw light on the emergency powers of the Governor.
Answer:
If the Governor is convinced that the Government of the State is not carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, he may recommend to the President to impose Present Rule in that State. As soon as the President Rule is imposed, the administration of the State is carried on by the Governor as the representative of the President.

Question 4.
What is the strength of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu according to the strength of legislative Assembly (234 +1) . 234 members are directly elected by the people from the constituencies on the basis of adult franchise and one member is nominated by the Governor from Anglo-Indian community.

Question 5.
How are the members of the Legislative Council elected?
Answer:
The members of the Legislative Council or the Upper House are elected in the following ways.

• 1/3 of the members are elected by local bodies. .
• 1/12 of the members are elected by graduates of the universities in the State.
• 1/12 of the members are elected by the graduate teachers.
• 1/3 of the members are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.
• 1/6 is nominated by the Governor who is eminent in the field of literary excellence, art, social or cooperates.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the High Court of Madras?
Answer:

1. The High Court of Madras is the one of the three High Courts in India, established in the three presidency Towns of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras by letters patent granted by Queen Victoria dated 26th June 1862.
2. The High Court building is the second largest Judicial complex in the world after London.

Question 7.
Where were High Courts first established and when?
Answer:
High Courts were first established in the three Presidency cities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1862.

Question 8.
How many High Courts are there in our country and who decides the number of judges to each High court?
Answer:

1. At present there are 25 High courts for 29 states (including New Andhra Pradesh High court established in 1st January 2019 at Amaravati) and seven union territories.
2. The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President.

Question 9.
What do you mean by appellate system?
Answer:
It means that a person can appeal to a higher Court if they are not satisfied with the judgement of the lower Court.

Question 10.
Which Amendment abolished the power of Judicial Review by the state High Court? And by which amendment it was restored?
Answer:

1. The 42nd amendment of 1976 curtailed the power of Judicial Review by the High Court.
2. It debarred the constitutional validity of any central law.
3. The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are all the privileges enjoyed by the Governor?
Answer:

1. Article 361 (1) provides the following privileges to the Governor.
2. The Governor of the state, is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
3. No criminal proceedings what so ever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a state, in any court during his term of office.
4. No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the Governor of a state shall issue from any court during his term of office.
5. No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the Governor of the state.

Question 2.
How does a High Court keep control over the subordinate courts?
Answer:
A High, fourt has an administrative control over the subordinate Courts.
(i) It is consulted by the Governor in the matters of appointment, posting and promotions of District Judges and in appointments of persons to the judicial service of the State.

(ii) It deals with the matters of posting, promoting, grant of leave, transfers and discipline of . the members of the judicial services of the State.

(iii) It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law that requires the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either dispose of the case itself or determines the questions of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement.

(iv) Its law is binding on all subordinate Courts functioning with its territorial jurisdiction in the same sense as the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all Courts in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Writs issued by the High Court?
Answer:
Under Article 226 of the constitution the High Courts are given powers of issuing writs. They are:

Habeas Corpus: It is issued to a detaining authority ordering the detainer to produce the detained person in the issuing court, along with the cause of his or her detention.

If the detention is found to be illegal, the court issues an order to set the person free.

Mandamus: It is issued to a Subordinate Court, an office or Government, or a Corporation or other Institution commanding the performance of certain acts or duties.

Prohibition: The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court prohibiting it from taking up a case because it is not under the jurisdiction of the lower court. Thus the higher court transfers the case to it. Quo Warranto: It is issued against a person the legality of holding a public office. Through this writ the court inquires “by what authority”? The person supports his / her claim.

Certiorari: This writ is issued to lower court directing that the record of a case be sent up for review, together with all supporting files, evidence and documents. It is one of the mechanism by which the fundamental rights of the citizens are upheld.

Question 4.
What are the works done by the High Court under supervisory Jurisdiction?
Answer:
The High Court has the power of superintendence over all Courts and Tribunals functioning in its Territorial Jurisdiction ( except the Military Courts or Tribunals).

Thus it may

1. Call for returns from them.
2. Make an issue, general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of them.
3. Prescribe forms in which books, entries and accounts are to be kept by them and
4. Settle the fee payable to the sheriff, clerks, officers and legal practitioners of them.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Central Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Central Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Constitutional Head of the Union is:
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 2.
Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
(a) Army
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) The Prime Minister

Question 3.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President
(b) Attorney General
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 4.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the ……………
(a) The President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(c) The Prime Minister

Question 5.
The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of Parliament
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The President of India
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Question 6.
What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 Years
(b) 21 Years
(c) 25 Years
(d) 30 Years
Answer:
(c) 25 Years

Question 7.
The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) State Government
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(d) Parliament

Question 8.
Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(b) Article 360

Question 9.
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
(a) The President
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Governor
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 10.
Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under …………….
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Original Jurisdiction

Question 11.
If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister.
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
2. ………………… is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
3. ………………… is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the ………………… community to the Lok Sabha.
5. ………………… has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
6. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ………………… years.
7. ………………… is the Guardian of the Constitution.
8. At present, the Supreme Court consists of ………………… judges including the Chief Justice.

Answers:

1. Money
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice-President
4. Anglo-Indian
5. Attorney General
6. 65
7. Supreme Court
8. 28

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service.
(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
(a) (A) is false but R is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
How is President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Electoral college consists of the elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and the elected members of the States and elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

Question 2.
What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
Answer:
The ministers are classified under three different categories.

1. Cabinet Ministers: An informal body of senior ministers who form the nucleus of administration.
2. Ministers of State: They are also incharge of ministries or departments.
3. Deputy Ministers: They assist either the Ministers of Cabinet or State.

Question 3.
What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Qualification of the Supreme Court Judges are

1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for at least 5 years.
3. He should have worked as an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years.
4. He is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:

1. Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha who is elected by its members.
2. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of theTwo Houses of Parliament.
3. He has the power to decide whether a Bill is a money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.

Question 5.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:
Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lok Sabha which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending of money, such as tax laws, prevention of black money etc.

Question 6.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:

1. Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.
2. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament (or) their joint sitting but without a right to vote.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the President of India are given below:
(i) He appoints the Prime Minister and the others members of the Council of Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(ii) He appoints Governors of States, the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Attorney General, the Chief Election Commissioner, Ambassadors and High Commissioners to other countries.

(iii) He inaugurates tire session of the Parliament by addressing it after the general elections and also at the beginning of the first session each year.

(iv) Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliaments only with his prior recommendation. Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented before the Lok Sabha by the Union Finance Minister only with the permission of the President.

(v) The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment, or to commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence.

(vi) He is the supreme commander of the defence force of the country. He has been empowered to proclaim Emergency in the country.

Question 2.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court is the Apex court in the Country.

It is the guardian of our Constitution. The following are the functions of the Supreme Court.

Original Jurisdiction:

1. Cases which are brought directly in the first instance come under original Jurisdiction.*
2. Dispute between two states or more
3. Dispute between the Centre and the State.
4. Writs issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Appellate Jurisdiction:

1. The Supreme Court hears the appeals against the decisions of High court in “Civil, Criminal and Constitutional” cases.
2. With a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme, Court is the final appellate court in the country.

Advisory Jurisdiction:

1. President can refer to the Supreme Court if any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of Public importance miscellaneous Jurisdiction.
2. The Supreme Court has the complete control over its own establishment.
3. With the approval of the President the supreme court is authorized to make rules for regulatory, generally the practice and procedure of the court.
4. The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Judicial Review:

The power of the Judiciary to declare ‘a law as un-constitutional’ is known as Judicial Review.

Individual Review power with regard to

1. Protecting the fundamental right.
2. The laws passed by the legislature which are not in accordance with the Constitutional.
3. Dispute between the Centre and the States.

Question 3.
What are the Duties and Functions of Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 4.
Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
Answer:

1. Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union Government.
2. Article 79 to 122 in part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges of the Parliament.
3. The President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are the three parts of the Parliament.
4. It is bicameral legislature.

Functions of the Parliament:

1. Legislation, passing of budget, ventilation of public grievances, over seeing of administration discussion of various subjects like developments plans, International relations and internal policies.
2. After passing of the bill in both the houses it is forwarded to the President for his assent.
3. If the President send back the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration and the bill is passed in both the houses without any amendment the President has to give his assent.

A bill has to pass three stages in the Parliament before it becomes an Act.

Parliament is also vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor – General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

Two-third majority from both the houses of the Parliament is needed in support for the impeachment.

The Parliament exercises control over the executive through asking questions and supplementary, questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions, discussing and pushing motion or vote of no¬confidence.

The first hour when the Parliament is in session is allotted for question hour.

The members can put forth questions to the concerned Ministry and pertain to get answers.

The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.

By Fifth Amendment under Article 3 of our Constitution the Parliament is empowered to the formation of new states, alteration of areas and boundaries or change the name of the existing state.

A government bill should get passed in the Parliament with majority vote in this regard.

Question 5.
List out the functions of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Functions of Lok Sabha

1. The Lok Sabha is the lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. Any Bill including Money Bill can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha.
2. It has equal power as the Rajya Sabha in passing any Bill for constitutional amendment.
3. Lok Sabha members have the power to elect the President and Vice-President.
4. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. If it is passed then the Prime Minister and other councils of ministers need to resign from their post.

Functions of the Rajya Sabha

1. Any bill (except the money bills) needs to be approved by Rajya Sabha
2. It has the same power as Lok Sabha for passing any Bill for a constitutional amendment?
3. The members of Rajya Sabha have the electoral power for selection for President and Vice – President.
4. It has power in the impeachment procedure of the President and judge of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Organise a mock Parliament in your class. Discuss the role of President,Prime Minister and Ministers.
Answer:
Mock Parliament:
Role of President
Role of Prime Minister and Ministers.
(mock Parliament video in you tube)

1. 14th National youth Parliament.
2. Mock Parliament session Anan kids Jim 26th 2018.
3. Mock Parliament in village school-Final Rehearsal of youth.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi intends to organise a mock Parliament in Delhi with representation from every district.

Key points:

1. Each class should prepare a list of activities.
2. This enables them to prepare themselves for the discussions in the House.

It is of two types:

1. Government Business (the member of the Cabinet rank) and
2. Private members business – the other members of the Parliament who is not in Minister rank.

Question 2.
Bring out the differences and similarities between the US and Indian President’s.
Answer:

1. Both the US President and the Indian President are elected through election by voting.
2. The President of US and the President of India both are the Head of the Union and the first citizen.
3. Election to the US President is direct.
4. Election to the Indian President is indirect.
5. The President of US is the Real Executive of the government.
6. The President of India is only the Nominal Head.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Articles 52 to 78 in Part V deals with the:
(a) Judiciary
(b) Union Executive
(c) State Legislature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Union Executive

Question 2.
Who is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) Vice – President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The …………….. is the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Council of Minister
Answer:
(a) President

Question 4.
Who occupies the second highest office in the country?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Attorney General
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Vice President

Question 5.
Article …………….. lays down that the Supreme command of the Defense Force of the Union shall be vested in the President.
(a) 53(1)
(b) 53 (2)
(c) 53(3)
(d) 51(A)
Answer:
(b) 53 (2)

Question 6.
The eligible age to be appointed as the President of India is ……………..
(a) 25 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 35 years

Question 7.
The Vice-President can act as the President for a maximum period of …………….. months.
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 8.
The council of Rajya Sabha consists of …………… members
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
Answer:
(a) 250

Question 9.
If the office of the President and Vice President lie vacant …………….. of India works as President.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Deputy Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice

Question 10.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are ……………
(a) elected indirectly
(b) mostly nominated
(c) elected directly as well as indirectly
Answer:
(a) elected indirectly

Question 11.
The …………….. is instrumental in moving amendments to the Constitution.
(a) Cabinet
(b) Council of States
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(a) Cabinet

Question 12.
The …………….. is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Electoral College
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 13.
The Supreme Court of India, New Delhi was inaugurated on January 28 ……………..
(a) 1935
(b) 1940
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 14.
In …………….. jurisdiction the Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court.
(a) Original
(b) Appellate
(c) Advisory
(d) Judicial Review
Answer:
(b) Appellate

Question 15.
The law declared by the …………….. is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) District Court
(d) Revenue Court
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The legislature in Central Government is known as ……………….
2. The President of India apart from Rashtrapathi Bhavan conducts office at least once a year in ………………. Hyderabad.
3. Once elected as the President, he has to take an oath of office before the ……………….
4. The present President of India is ……………….
5. The President summons Parliament at least ………………. a year.
6. President can make advances out of the ………………. of India to meet any unexpected expenditure.
7. ………………. emergency is declared by the President if there is a threat to financial stability or the credit of India.
8. The President may be removed from office for violation of Constitution by
9. At least a minimum of ………………. days notice should be given for the resolution for the removal of Vice President from his office.
10. When there is a tie of voting on Bill in Rajya Sabha the ………………. can cast his vote for or against using his discretion power.
11. The post of ………………. of India has adopted the West Minister (England) model of the Constitutional democracy.
12. The ………………. is an informal body of senior ministers who forms the nucleus of administration.
13. The ………………. belong to the second category of ministers in the council who are also incharge of ministries or departments.
14. The council of state or Rajya Sabha consists of ………………. members.
15. Any biii except money bill needs to be approved by ……………….

Answers:

1. Parliament
2. ‘Rashtrapati Nilayam’
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Thiru, Ramnath Govind
5. twice
6. contingency fund
7. Financial
8. impeachment
9. fourteen
10. Vice-President
11. Prime Minister
12. Cabinet
13. Ministers of State
14. Rajya Sabha
15. 250

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Cabinet forms the nucleus of administration
Reason (R): All important decisions of the government are taken by the cabinet such as defence, finance, external affairs and home affairs.
(a) (A) is false, but R is true.
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.

Question 2.
(i) The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.
(ii) Parliament exercises control over the executive.
(iii) Parliament is an independent organ.
(iv) ft is a bicameral legislature
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Article 74 (1) says there shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advice the President.
(ii) The Prime Minister has no power to decide the dates and agenda of the Cabinet meeting.
(iii) The Prime Minister decides th’e rank of his ministers and distributes various departments,
(iv) The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokes person of the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are true
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) and (iv) are true
Answer:
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true

Question 4.
(i) Lok Sabha as of today has 552 members.
(ii) The President generally nominates 2 persons from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
(iii) It is the house of the people.
(iv) It is the permanent house of the Parliament.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Under Article 352 President has the power to proclaim National Emergency on the grounds of War.
(ii) Due to Constitutional failure in the State President can declare an Emergency under Article 356.
(iii) Article 61 deals with the removal of the President by impeachment.
(iv) The President is answerable to the court of law.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column If.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (vi)
E. (i)
F. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the diplomatic powers of the President.
Answer:

• The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats posted to India.
• The ambassador-designate becomes ambassador after calling on the President and presenting his credentials.
• All treaties and agreements with foreign states are entered into in the name of the President.

Question 2.
“Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences”- Explain.
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the Nation and chief spokes person of the country.

As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences like the Common Wealth Summit of Non aligned Nations and SAARC.

Question 3.
What is meant by integrated judicial system?
Answer:
Integrated judiciary means that the judicial system is hierarchical one. At the top there is the Supreme Court and its decisions aie bonding precedent for low er subordinate Courts.

Question 4.
What are the qualification to become the member of Lok Sabha?
Answer:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should not be less than 25 years of age.
3. He should have his name in the electoral rolls in some part of the country.
4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or State Government.
5. He should be mentally sound and economically solvent.

Question 5.
Throw light on the compositions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Lok Sabha is the Lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. It contains elected representatives of the people. The maximum number of members can be elected for the Lok Sabha is 552. Presently, the Lok Sabha has 543 elected members. Out of these, 530 members are elected members from different States and 13 members from the Union Territories. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the Anglo – Indian community. At present, the total strength of the Lok Sabha is 545.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:

1. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court in India is appointed by the President of India.
2. The other judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the collegiums with Chief Justice Head.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Union Executive?
Answer:
The President is the nominal executive authority in the Parliamentary systems of Government. He is also the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.

Question 8.
What do you know about motion of no confidence?
Answer:

1. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
2. When it is passed then the Prime Minister and other Council of Ministers need to resign from their post.

Question 9.
What is the qualification of President of Indi?
Answer:
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a Presidential candidate:

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed the age of thirty-five years.
• He must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or local government.
• He should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He/her name should be proposed by at least ten electors and seconded by another ten electors of the Electoral college which elects the President.

Question 10.
What makes the Indian Parliament powerful?
Answer:
The representative of the people makes the Parliament powerful.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Write about the composition location and term of the judges of the Supreme court.
Answer:
In the beginning in 1950 our Supreme Court consisted of 8 judges including the Chief justice. As passage of time in need at present the Supreme Court consists of 28 judges including Chief justice.

The Constitution also provides appointment of judges to the supreme court on ad – hoc (temporary) basis.

1. The Chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court can hold office up to the age of 65 yearn.
2. The judges of the Supreme Court can resign before their term by giving their resignation in writing to the President.
3. The Parliament also has power to remove the judges by invoking impeachment provisions for their proven misbehaviour.
4. The Supreme Court sits at New Delhi. It may also sit any other place in India which may be decided by the Chief Justice of India with the approval of the President.

Question 2.
Describe the duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.
Answer:
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country. He is appointed by the President.
Duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.

1. To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters which are referred to him by the President.
2. To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to him by the President and discharge the functions conferred on him by the constitution are any other law.
3. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
4. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
5. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the Vice-President? How he can be removed?
Answer:
Functions of the Vice-President: The Vice-President is Ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
As the chairman of the house

1. He regulates the proceeding of the House.
2. He decides the order of the house.
3. He decides the admissibility of a resolution or questions.
4. He suspends or adjourns the house in case of a grave disorder.
5. He issues directions to various committees on matters relating to their functions.

Removal of the Vice-President:

1. The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of states passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the people.
2. A resolution for this purpose may be moved only after a notice of atleast a minimum of 14 days has been given of such an intention.

Question 4.
What is the role of the Vice President in the absence of the President?
Answer:

1. When the President is unable to discharge his duties due to illness or absence from the country he attends to the functions of the President.
2. When the President is unable to do his duties due to sickness or when the post of the President becomes vacant due to resignation, death or removal by impeachment etc., the Vice President can act as the President for a maximum period of six months.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 23 Visual Communication Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 23 Visual Communication

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Visual Communication Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which software is used to create animation?
(a) Paint
(b) PDF
(c) MS Word
(d) Scratch
Answer:
(d) Scratch

Question 2.
All files are stored in the _______.
(a) folder
(b) box
(c) pai
(d) scanner.
Answer:
(a) folder

Question 3.
Which is used to build scripts?
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(a) Script area

Question 4.
Which is used to edit programs?
(a) Inkscape
(b) Script editor
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite.
Answer:
(b) Script editor

Question 5.
Where you will create category of blocks?
(a) Block palette
(b) Block menu
(c) Script area
(d) sprite
Answer:
(b) Block menu

II. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is Scratch?
Answer:
Scratch is a software used to create animations, cartoons and games easily. Scratch, on the other hand, is a visual programming language.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the editor and its types.
Answer:
Editors or text Editors are software programs that enable the user to create and edit text files Editors are generally classified into 5 types as,

1. Line Editor [Ex: teco]
2. Stream Editor [Ex: Sed]
3. Screen Editor [Ex: Notepad]
4. Word processors [Ex: MS – word]
5. Structure Editor [Ex: Netbeans IDE].

Question 3.
What is stage?
Answer:
Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window. The background will most often be white. You can change the background colour as you like.

Question 4.
What is Sprite?
Answer:
The characters on the background of a Scratch window are known as Sprite. Usually, a cat appears as a sprite when the Scratch window is opened. The software provides facilities to make alternations in the sprite.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Visual Communication Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The output we get from any application is commonly referred as
(a) file
(b) data
(c) record
(d) folder
Answer:
(a) file

Question 2.
_______ is used to choose the block to use.
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) Block menu
(d) Sprite.
Answer:
(b) Block palette

Question 3.
Which app is used, we can draw and edit pictures?
(a) My computer
(b) Notepad
(c) Paint
(d) Games
Answer:
(c) Paint

Question 4.
Choose the odd one from the following _______.
(a) File
(b) Folder
(c) Memory space
(d) Mouse.
Answer:
(d) Mouse.

Question 5.
Write a good example for visual communication.
(a) Picture
(b) Cinema
(c) Radio
(d) FM
Answer:
(b) Cinema

Question 6.
Choose the wrong statement from the following statements _______.
(a) The scripts tab contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.
(b) Block palette is used to choose the block to use.
(c) The right contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.
(d) Scratch is software.
Answer:
(a) The scripts tab contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.

Question 7.
Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) Windows – operating system
(b) Visual – Cinema
(c) Costume – editor
(d) Stage – a input device
Answer:
(d) Stage – a input device

Question 8.
Identify which is not a file format _______.
(a) CSS
(b) PSO
(c) PNG
(d) EPS.
Answer:
(b) PSO

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) More people are using windows operating system.
(b) We can collect our notes in Notepad application.
(c) We can draw pictures in paint application.
(d) A folder is a file name.
Answer:
(d) A folder is a file name.

Question 10.
The start button is present in the ______ corner of the computer.
(a) Center
(b) top
(c) left
(d) right.
Answer:
(c) left

Question 11.
Assertion (A) : Pictures and audio-visuals gives us more understanding than teaching and writing on the black board.
Reason (R) : The device which helps in explaining the concepts easily through pictures is known as visual communication device.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation assertion.

Question 12.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) LINUX
(b) Paint
(c) Spread sheet
(d) PPTs
Answer:
(a) LINUX

II. Match the following:

Answer:
A – (iii)
B – (i)
C – (iv)
D – (ii)

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the reason, we prefer computer?
Answer:
The reason, we prefer computer is its speed and the ability to store data.

Question 2.
What is a folder?
Answer:
A folder is a storage space that contains multiple files. We can create files as per the user’s need.

Question 3.
What is a file?
Answer:
The output we get from any application is commonly referred as file.
Therefore, the application for the specific purposes determines the nature of the file.

Question 4.
Name the different parts of Scratch Editor?
Answer:

• Stage
• Sprite
• Script Editor / Costume Editor.

Question 5.
Explain the using script editor?
Answer:
Script editor / costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures.
You should see a single window with at least the following three panes: the stage (top left), the Sprite List (bottom left), and the Scripts tab (right), which contains the Blocks tab and the Scripts Area. The right pane also contains two additional tabs, Costumes and Sounds.
The script editor has three main parts:

1. Script area: Where you build scripts.
2. Block menu: Where you choose the category of blocks (programming statements) to use.
3. Block palette: Where your choose the block to use.

Question 6.
Write a note on Script editor.
Answer:
Script editor/costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures. You should see a single window with at least the following three panes: the Stage (top left), the Sprite List (bottom left), and the Scripts tab (right), which contains the Blocks tab and the Scripts Area. The right pane also contains two additional tabs, Costumes and Sounds.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 22 Environmental Management Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 22 Environmental Management

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. Deforestation leads to ……… in rainfall.
2. Removal of soil particles from the land is called ……….
3. Chipko movement is initiated against ……….
4. ……….. is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
5. Tidal energy is ………. type of energy.
6. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called ……… fuels.
7. ……….. is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.

Answer:

1. Decrease
2. Soil Erosion
3. Deforestation
4. Nilgiris
5. Non-conventional
6. Fossil
7. Coal

II. State whether True or False. Correct the statements which are false:

1. Biogas is a fossil fuel.
2. Planting trees increases the groundwater level.
3. Habitat destruction cause loss of wile life.
4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy
5. Overgrazing prevents soil erosion.
6. Poaching of wild animals is a legal act.
7. National park is a protected park.
8. Wild life protection act was established in 1972.

Answer:

1. False – Biogas is a natural gas
2. True
3. True
4. False – Nuclear energy is non-renewable energy
5. False – Overgrazing causes soil erosion
6. False – Poaching of wild animals is an illegal act.
7. True
8. Tme

III. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (i)
F. (iv)
G. (vii)

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel?
(i) Tar, (ii) Coal, (iii) Petroleum
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii)

Question 2.
What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
(a) reduce the amount of waste formed
(b) reuse the waste
(c) recycle the waste
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 3.
The gas released from vehicles exhaust are:
(i) carbon monoxide
(ii) Sulphur dioxide
(iii) Oxides of nitrogen:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 4.
Soil erosion can be prevented by ______
(a) deforestation
(b) afforestation
(c) over growing
(d) removal of vegetation
Answer:
(b) afforestation

Question 5.
A renewable source of energy is:
(a) petroleum
(b) coal
(c) nuclear fuel
(d) trees
Answer:
(d) trees

Question 6.
Soil erosion is more where there is _______
(a) no rainfall
(b) low rainfall
(c) rainfall is high
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) rainfall is high

Question 7.
An inexhaustible resources is:
(a) wind power
(b) soil fertility
(c) wild life
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 8.
Common energy source in village is ______
(a) electricity
(b) coal
(c) biogas
(d) wood and animal dung
Answer:
(d) wood and animal dung

Question 9.
Green house effect refers to:
(a) cooling of earth
(b) trapping of UV rays
(c) cultivation of plants
(d) warming of earth
Answer:
(d) warming of earth

Question 10.
A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is _____
(a) hydropower
(b) solar energy
(c) wind energy
(d) thermal energy
Answer:
(b) solar energy

Question 11.
Global warming will cause
(a) raise in level of oceans
(b) melting of glaciers
(c) sinking of islands
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy?
(a) wind energy is a renewable energy
(b) the blades of windmill are operated with the help of an electric motor
(c) production of wind energy is pollution-free
(d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
Answer:
(b) the blades of windmill are operated with the help of the electric motor

V. Answer in a Sentence:

Question 1.
What will happen if trees are cut down?
Answer:
If trees are cut down it give rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alternation of climatic conditions and desertification.

Question 2.
What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
Answer:
If the habitual wild animals disturbed, the biological diversity cannot be maintained and cannot promote economic activities, which generates revenue to the government.

Question 3.
What are the agents of soil erosion?
Answer:
Agents of soil erosion are high velocity of wind, air currents, flowing water, land slide, human activities like deforestation, farming and mining overgrazing by cattle.

Question 4.
Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
Answer:
Like fossil fuels, accumulation is a very slow process and takes a very long period, and in order to preserve them for a future generation, fossil fuels are to be conserved.

Question 5.
Solar energy is a renewable energy. How?
Answer:
Solar energy is the energy obtained from the sun. This energy resources is available in unlimited amount in nature and it can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harvested continuously.

Question 6.
How are e-wastes generated?
Answer:
E-wastes are generated from spoiled, outdated, non-repairable electrical and electronic devices.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:

1. Overcome the rapid depletion of ground water levels.
2. To Meet the increase demand of water.
3. Reduces flood and soil erosion.
4. Water stored in ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can be used for drinking purpose.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of using biogas?
Answer:
The advantages of using biogas are as follows:

• It burns without smoke, causing less pollution.
• It is an excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
• The leftover slurry is good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
• It is safe and convenient to use.
• It can reduce the number of greenhouse gases emitted.

Question 3.
What are the environmental effect caused by sewage?
Answer:
Sewage water results in agricultural contamination and environmental degradation, pollute the water resources.

Question 4.
What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
The contaminants can harm animals and damage the food chain.

• Deforestation becomes a threat to the economy, quality of life and future of the environment.
• Loss of many forests.
• It gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wildlife, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge groundwater?
Answer:
Recharge pit: In this method, the rainwater is first collected from the roof tops or open spaces and is directed into the percolation pits through pipes for filtration. After filtration the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells.

People living in rural areas adopt a variety of water collecting methods to capture and store as rain water. Some of the methods used are-
(i) Digging of tanks or lakes (Eris) : It is one of the traditional water harvesting system in Tamil Nadu. Eris are constructed in such a way that if the water in one eri overflows, it automatically gets diverted to the eri of the next village, as these eris are interconnected.

(ii) Ooranis : These are small ponds to collect rainwater. The water is used for various domestic purposes (drinking, washing and bathing). These ponds cater the nearby villages.

Question 2.
How will you prevent soil erosion?
Answer:
The following are the methods to prevent soil erosion:

• Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
• Cattle grazing should be controlled.
• Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
• Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
• Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
• Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in the form of a shelterbelt.

Question 3.
What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes etc. The solid wastes are dumped in the soil which results in landscape pollution.

Solid-waste management involves the collection, treatment and proper disposing of solid material that is discarded from the household and industrial activities.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:

1. Segregation : It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non biodegradable wastes.
2. Sanitary landfill : Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.
3. Incineration : It is the burning of nonbiodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.
4. Composting : Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

Recycling of wastes:

1. Papers from old books, magazines and newspapers are recycled to produce papers in papermills.
2. Agricultural wastes like coconut shells, jute cotton stalk, bagasse of sugarcane can be used to make paper and hard board. Paddy husk can be used as livestock fodder.
3. Cowdung and other organic wastes can be used in gobar gas plant to provide biogas and manure for fields. The 3R approach such as Reduce, Reuse and Recycle may be followed for effective waste management.

Question 4.
Enumerate the importance of forest.
Answer:

• Forests are an important component of our environment.
• There are microorganisms, flowering plants, shrubs, climbers and dense trees in the forest.
• Forests provide a vast habitat for wild animals.
• Forests help for the economic development of our country.
• Forests are the source for a wide range of renewable natural resource.
• Forests provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.
• They act as a carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall and reduce global warming.
• The natural hazards like flood and landslides are prevented.
• Wildlife is protected.
• It acts as a catchment for water conservation.
• Forests maintain ecological balance.

Question 5.
What are the consequences of soil erosion?
Answer:
The effects of soil erosion leads to loss of fertility of land, humus and nutrient. It leads to increased pollution, sedimentation in streams and rivers. Degraded lands able to hold water which can worsen flooding.

Question 6.
Why is the management of forest and wildlife resource considered as a challenging task?
Answer:
The management of forest and wildlife resource is considered as a challenging task because,

• Due to deforestation, there is a lack of oxygen.
• People kill animals, for making cloth designs so it harms the wildlife.
• There is a lack of public awareness.
• There are global warming and climate change.
• Water scarcity and changes in rainfall pattern.
• People kill animals and cut down trees, for economic benefit.
• Poaching.
• Forests cannot be irrigated like fields they depend on rain.
• Changes in rainfall pattern, affect the development of forests and may lead to destruction.

VIII. Assertion and Reasoning:

In each of the following question a statement of assertion(A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R). Of the four statements given below mark the correct answer.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rain water.
Reason (R): Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water source.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Energy efficient bulbs like CFL must be used to save electric energy.
Reason (R): CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save our money.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although coal and petroleum are produced by degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve them. Why?
Answer:
The formation of coal and petroleum is a very slow process and takes very long period of time for renewal. Moreover coal is uses for generation of electricity’ petroleum is used to run automobile, trucks, trains, ships and aeroplane. So we need to conserve them as they get exhausted.

Question 2.
What are the objectives for replacing non-conventional energy resources from conventional energy resources?
Answer:

• Non-conventional energy resources can be replenished quickly.
• Hydrocarbons are formed over a period of thousands of years when the remains of dead plants and animals are buried inside the Earth.
• Burning coal and oil results in air pollution.
• Conserve fossil fuels, using an alternate source of energy, when possible.
• Wise utilization of non-renewable natural resources.

Question 3.
Why is the Government imposing ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest alternatives. How is this ban likely to improve the environment?
Answer:

1. It is non-biodegradable material which cause environmental pollution. It is harmful to wild life and marine life. It is very hard to clean or remove from environment.
2. Alternatives to plastic bag are jute or canvas bags, paper bags.
3. It control the pollution and clean the environment and make it better’ place to live for all organism.

X. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Why is it not possible to use solar cells to meet our energy needs? State three reason to support your answer.
Answer:

• The installing cost of solar cell panel is high, as the silicon wafer is very expensive and also the silver used in connecting solar cells.
• D.C electricity is produced. To operate any A.C device, this D.C. has to be connected in, as by using an inverter.
• The efficiency of energy conversion is low as compared to other means of generating electricity.

Question 2.
How would you dispose the following wastes?
(a) Domestic wastes like vegetable peels
(b) Industrial wastes like metallic cans
Can the disposal protect the environment? How?
Answer:
(a) Domestic waste like vegetable peels can be disposed by composting where solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

(b) The metallic ions melt into molten aluminium this removes the coating and inks that may be present on the aluminium. The aluminium is then made into large blocks which is used to make other products.

Question 3.
List any three activities based on the 3R approach to conserve natural resources.
Answer:

• Integrated solid waste management is based on the 3R approach. (Reduce, Reuse and Recycle).
• 3R is aimed at the management of solid waste from all waste generating sectors.
• 3R helps to minimize the amount of wastes from generation to disposal.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
The best way to dispose waste is by:
(a) Making a paste for all domestic waste and putting them in a river.
(b) Separating biodegradable and non biodegradable before disposing in bins.
(c) Throw the waste an round side
(d) Dumping all domestic waste is better bin.
Answer:
(b) Separating biodegradable and non biodegradable before disposing in bins.

Question 2.
The solar energy which falls on the atmosphere reaches the Earth’s surface ______
(a) a little less than 42%
(b) more than 60%
(c) more than 52%
(d) a little less than 47%
Answer:
(d) a little less than 47%

Question 3.
Chipko Andolan is associated with
(a) Protesting against pasting of posters on walls.
(b) Saving money
(c) Using more postal stamps.
(d) Saving trees.
Answer:
(d) Saving trees.

Question 4.
The technique to harness the water energy is _______
(a) hydropower
(b) electrical energy
(c) tidal energy
(d) hydraulic fracturing
Answer:
(a) Hydropower

Question 5.
Conservation of wild life includes:
(a) Preventing poaching of animals
(b) Construction of National parks, Sanctuaries
(c) Ban on trading endangered species
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Select the eco-friendly activity among the following:
(a) Using car for transportation.
(b) Using polybags for shopping
(c) Using dyes for colouring clothes
(d) Using windmills to generate power for irrigation
Answer:
(d) Using windmills to generate power for irrigation

Question 7.
Pick the right combination of terms which has no fossil fuel.
(a) Wind, Ocean, Coal
(b) Kerosene, Wind, tide
(c) Wind, Wood, Sun
(d) Petroleum, Wood, Sun
Answer:
(c) Wind, Wood, Sun

Question 8.
Ground water will not be depleted due to:
(a) Afforestation
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Loss of forest and decreased rainfall
(d) Cropping of high water demanding crops
Answer:
(a) Afforestation

Question 9.
Select the wrong statement:
(a) Forests provide variety of products
(b) Forests have greater plant diversity
(c) Forests do not conserve soil
(d) Forests conserve water
Answer:
(c) Forests do not conserve soil

Question 10.
The important messages conveyed by the ‘chipko movement’ is:
(a) To improve the community in forest conservation efforts.
(b) To ignore the community in forest conservation efforts.
(c) To cut down forest trees for developmental activities
(d) Preserves the natural ecosystem in the area.
Answer:
(a) To improve the community in forest conservation efforts.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Automobiles are largest source of ……… pollution in cities.
2. The first movement against tree felling was fought in chamoli district name ……….
3. ………. National park was the first in India.
4. Removal of upper layer of soil by wind and water is called ……..
5. The white marble of ……….. became yellow due to air pollution.
6. Arrangement of many solar cells side by side connected to each other is ……..
7. Gas produced by the decomposition of animal and plant waste in the absence of oxygen is ……….
8. The fuel extracted by a technique called ………… from the rock.
9. The World’s largest and tallest wind turbine is situated in …………
10. ………… Dam is constructed by King Karikala Chola.
Answer:
1. air
2. Chipko movement
3. Jim Corbett
4. soil erosion
5. Taj Mahal
6. Solar panel
7. Gobar gas
8. hydraulic fracturing
9. Hawaii
10. Kallanai

III. Assertion and Reason:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Natural habitats of plants and animals should not be destroyed.
Reason (R): This is necessary for the conservation of biotic resources.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): To prevent hunting is not wildlife conservation in the real sense.
Reason (R): Some animals may multiply to the extent that they exhaust the food supply.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. State whether True or False. Correct the statements which are false:

1. The devices used for harnessing sun energy is wind mill.
2. Liquefied petroleum gas is obtained from petroleum.
3. Harnessing the energy from flowing water to produce electricity is hydro power.
4. 12% of e-wastes are from computer components.
5. LED bulbs consume more electrical energy.

Answer:

1. False – The devices used for harnessing wind is wind mill.
2. True
3. True
4. False – 12% of e-wastes are from telecommunication components
5. False – LED bulbs consume less electrical energy.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Define Conservation.
Answer:
Proper utilization and management of nature and its resources in conservations.

Question 2.
What are the ways to sustain our resources?
Answer:
Some of the ways to sustain continuous use of resources are practices to utilise energy efficiently avoid wastage of water, avoid usage of Plastics and other non-biodegradable materials and to take care for the environment.

Question 3.
Suggest any two activities in daily life which are eco-friendly.
Answer:
Carrying jute or canvas bags for shopping instead of plastic bags.
Switch off electrical and electronic devices when not in use.

Question 4.
Name four substances that can be recycled.
Answer:
Newspaper, PET plastic bottles, steel can glass containers.

Question 5.
List any two common methods by which solid wastes of urban areas are disposed off.
Answer:

1. Segregation of waste into biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
2. Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas.

Question 6.
What is chipko movement?
Answer:
The chipko movement was a non-violent that was aimed to protect and conserve the tree by the villagers of chamoli district of uttar pradesh.

Question 7.
Give the reason for decline in wildlife population.
Answer:
Over exploitation and shrinking of forest cover areas are the reason for animal extinction and verge of extinction.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is conservation? Why should we conserve natural resources?
Answer:
Proper utilization and management of nature and its resources are termed as conservation. It is important to conserve the natural resources carefully, to preserve it for future generations. We have to build a sustainable world, which should last forever.

Question 2.
How can you as an individual contribute to the management of coal and petroleum.
Answer:

1. Use of coal and petroleum as a source of energy should be minimised.
2. Use of CNG or LPG as fuels in automobiles.
3. Renewable sources of energy like solar power, hydro power, wind energy, tidal energy should be used.

Question 3.
What are the methods to conserve the forest?
Answer:

• Afforestation: Planting and protecting trees which help in the restoration of green cover is called the afforestation programme. Destruction of trees should be avoided.
• Social forestry programme: Active participation of the public and utilization of common land, to produce firewood, fodder and timber for the benefit of the rural community.
• Forest Conservation through Laws: Adopting laws and policies, to conserve and protect forests through National Forest Policy,

Question 4.
List the wild life conservation Initiatives in India.
Answer:

1. Project Tiger and Project Elephant has been launched in 1973 and 1992 respectively.
2. Crocodile Conservation Project was launched in 1976.
3. Sea Turtle Conservation Project was launched in 1999.
4. Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is to conserve at least 3000 greater one-homed rhinos in Assam, India by 2020.

Question 5.
What are the steps to be taken to conserve coal and petroleum resources?
Answer:

• If electricity is saved, it will, in turn, reduce the use of coal.
• Using bicycles for covering short distances instead of using cars, scooters or motorcycles.
• Using pressure cooker can reduce the consumption of kerosene and LPG, during cooking food.
• Solar cooker and solar heaters can be used wherever possible.
• Motor vehicles should be designed with fuel-efficient engines to increase efficiency and also to reduce pollution.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of solar energy?
Answer:

1. It is available in abundance in our country and is free of cost.
2. It is a renewable source of energy.
3. It can be used for generating electricity or heat.
4. It does not cause pollution.

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
(a) What are the aims of wildlife management?
(b) What is the provision of the wildlife protection act?
Answer:
(a) The main aim of wildlife conservation are:

• To control and limit exploitation of species.
• To preserve the plants and animals from extinction.
• Maintenance of threatened species and protect species which are on the verge of extinction.
• Preserve the endangered species.
• To study the ecological relationship of the plants and animals in natural habitat.
• Hunting and poaching should be prohibited.
• Establishment of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, protected areas and biosphere reserves.

(b) The provisions of the wildlife protection act:

• Prohibit killing and hunting of specified animals.
• Constitute sanctuaries, national parks and closed areas for wildlife conservation.
• Special schemes for the preservation of endangered species.
• Constitute central zoo authority and recognition of zoos.
• Restrict, regulate or prohibit trade in wild animals and products obtained from them.

Question 2.
Give the various steps to conserve non-renewable resource.
Answer:
It is necessary to conserve or save coal and petroleum resources for the future use, which can be done by reducing their consumption.

1. If electricity is saved, it will intum reduce the use of coal.
2. Using bicycle for covering short distances instead of using cars, scooters or motorcycles.
3. Using pressure cooker can reduce the consumption of kerosene and LPG while cooking food. Solar cooker and solar heaters can be used wherever possible.
4. Motor vehicles should be designed with fuel efficient engines to increase efficiency and also reduce air pollution.

Question 3.
Write notes for the following:
(a) Solar cells
(b) Solar panel
(c) Solar cooker and
(d) Solar thermal power plant
Answer:
(a) Solar cells: Solar cells are called photovoltaic devices, which are made up of silicon, that converts sunlight directly into electricity. Solar cells produce electricity, without polluting the environment. No harmful gases, no burning and no wastes are produced.

• It can be used for street lighting, traffic signals, water pumping and battery charging system, etc.
• It is used in artificial satellites and space probes.
• It provides radio and TV transmission to remote areas.
• It is used in calculators, electronic toys and watches.

(b) Solar panel: Arrangement of many solar cells side by side connected to each other is called solar panel. The capacity to provide electric current is much increased in the solar panel, but the process of manufacture is very expensive.

(c) Solar cooker: Solar cooker consists of an insulated metal box or wooden box, which is painted from inside, so as to absorb maximum solar radiations. A thick glass sheet forms the cover over the box. The reflector is the piano mirror, which is attached to the box. The food is cooked by energy radiated by the Sun.

(d) Solar thermal power plant:
In solar thermal power plants, many solar panels are used to concentrate sun rays, to heat up water into steam. The steam is used to run the turbines to produce electricity. The solar energy is available in our country at free of cost, do not cause any pollution and is a renewable source of energy.

Question 4.
Explain the tidal energy with its advantages.
Answer:
Tidal energy is the energy obtained from the movement of water due to ocean tides. Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted on the oceans of the earth.

A tidal stream is a fast flowing body of water created by tides. Turbines are placed in tidal streams. When the tides hit the turbine, the turbine rotates and converts the tidal energy into electric energy.

Advantages of tidal energy:

1. Tidal energy does not produce any pollution.
2. It does not use any fuel and does not produce any waste.
3. Tides are predictable, so tidal energy can be produced at any time.
4. Water is denser than air and therefore can generate electricity at lower speeds than wind turbines.

Question 5.
Explain the convention method of waste water treatments.
Answer:
The conventional wastewater treatment methods involve the following steps (a) Pre-screening (b) Aeration (c) Sludge Management and (d) Water Reuse.
(a) Pre-screening : Wastewater generated from domestic and industrial activities is screened to remove soil and solid particulates.

(b) Aeration : Screened wastewater is then pumped to an aeration tank. Here the microbial contaminants are removed by the biological degradation that occurs in the presence of air.
Sedimentation process : In this process, the solid particles in suspension form are allowed to settle. The particles that settle out from the suspension is known as sludge.

(c) Sludge removal : The sludge generated by the degradation process is transferred periodically from the tank for safe disposal.
Disinfection : Chlorination and ultraviolet (UV) radiation of treated water is required to remove any microorganism contamination.

(d) Water recycling : The water will then be supplied for domestic or industrial purposes.

IX. Hot Questions:

Question 1.
Name the movement aimed at the protection and conservation of trees. In which district was it originated?
Answer:
Chipko movement at Uttarkhand.

Question 2.
Name any two wildlife conservation initiatives in India.
Answer:

• Crocodile conservation project
• Indian Rhino vision 2020
• Sea Turtle conservation

X. Value Based Question:

Question 1.
The over exploitation of natural resources leads to decline of natural resources.
(a) What will be the effects decline of natural resources.
(b) How can be prevent it?
Answer:
(a) Decline of natural resources leads to energy crisis and disturbance in ecological balance.
(b) It can be prevented by using non-conventional energy resources.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Indian Constitution Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular,socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Question 2.
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) once

Question 3.
The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens:
(a) Double Citizenship
(b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single Citizenship

Question 4.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through …………..
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Question 6.
One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms.
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
Answer:
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children

Question 7.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to:
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme court of India

Question 8.
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
Answer:
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

Question 9.
How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 10.
We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the ……………..
(a) American Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Answer:
(c) Russian Constitution

Question 11.
The Directive Principles can be classified into:
(a) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
Answer:
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.
Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 13.
The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in:
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(d) Article 368

Question 14.
Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
(i) Sarkaria Commission
(ii) Rajamannar Committee
(iii) M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) i and iii
(d) ii and iii
Answer:
(b) i and ii

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The concept of Constitution first originated in ……………….
2. ………………. was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on ……………….
4. ………………. writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article ……………….

Answers:

1. U.S.A
2. Dr. Sachidanandha Sinha
3. 26th November 1949
4. Five
5. 51 A

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (iv)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
What is the Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution is a set of rules that form the basis of any kind of a state that we as citizens, desire to live in.

Question 2.
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the state of being a person belonging to a particular country’. Having enjoying rights, privileges and duty to perform to the country. The Constitution of India provide for a single citizenship for the whole of India.

Question 3.
How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
There are six types of fundamental rights listed by the Indian Constitution.

Question 4.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A Writ is an order or command issued by a court writing under its seal. Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of Writs- Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari.

Question 5.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
There are six classical languages namely – Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 6.
What is National Emergency?
Answer:
National Emergency is declared by the President. If India’s security is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat under Article 352.

Question 7.
List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
Answer:
There are

1. Legislative relations
2. Administrative relations
3. Financial relations.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Constitution is the set of rules framed by the Constituent Assembly by which we are governed and abide by it.

Salient features of Indian Constitution:

1. It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitution in the world.
2. It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
3. Most of its provisions are borrowed from the Constitutions of various countries.
4. It establishes a Federal system of government.
5. It establishes Parliamentary system.
6. It provides an independent Judiciary.
7. It provides single citizenship.
8. Introduces Universal Adult franchise, the right to vote to all citizens above the age of 18 without any discrimination.
9. It makes special provision for minorities scheduled castes, Scheduled Tribes etc.

Question 2.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. There are six Fundamental Rights –
(i) Right to Equality: It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.

(ii) Right to Freedom: It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.

(iii) “Right against Exploitation: It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour. It also prohibits employment of children in factories, etc.

(iv) Right to religion: It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion.

(v) Cultural and Educational rights: It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.

(vi) Right to Constitutional Remedies It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 3.
Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:

1. Article 32 of our Constitution deals with right to Constitutional remedies to safeguard other fundamental rights through writs.
2. A Writ is an order or command issued by a court in writing under its seal.
3. It is in the nature of a command or prohibition from performing certain acts that are specified in the order of the court.
4. Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs namely – Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto.
5. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Article 32 is “ the heart and soul of the Constitution”.
6. “Supreme Court’ is called the “ Guardian of our Constitution”.

Question 4.
Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights:

1. Derived from the Constitution of the U.S.A.
2. Even the Government cannot take away or abridge these rights.
3. These rights can be enforceable by law.
4. The rights have legal sanctions.
5. Strengthen the political democracy of the country.
6. They are natural and basic rights.

Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. Drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland.
2. These are mere instructions to the Government.
3. They are not enforceable by law in any court.
4. These directives have moral and political sanctions.
5. Implementation of these principles ensures social and economic democracy.
6. These lead to protect human rights.

VI. Project and activity

Question 1.
Collect information about the various members of the Constituent Assembly and their social background.
Answer:
Members of the constituent Assembly and their Social background.
Refer: https : //www.scrip.com: document. 15
https://www.wikipedia.org:wiki:const.

Question 2.
Collect the pictures of the Members of the Drafting Committee and their social background.
Answer:
Drafting committee is the most important body responsible for creating the constitution of India.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad: President of the Drafting committee:

Ambedkar. An Indian Jurist, Social Reformer and Politician. Hailed as “Father of Indian Constitution’’. Campaigned against social discrimination towards the untouchables supported the Rights of women and labour.

Indian political leader. A lawyer by training. Joined the Indian National congress during the Independence movement and became a major leader from the Region of Bihar. He was the first President of India after Independence and served for full two terms from 1950 – 1962. The President who served foreth longest term.

Other members:

Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer. He was an Indian Lawy er. He also served as the Advocate General of Madras state from 1929 to 1944.

N. Gopalswami Iyengar: He was the Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from 1937 – 1943 and was appointed as council of state from 1943 – 1947. During that time he was the chairman of the committee for the Indianisation of Army from 1947 – 1948. He served as minister without Port folio in the 1st Cabinet under Pandit. Jawaharlal Nehru.

K.M. Munshi: A lawyer by profession. He was an Indian Independence movement activist, politician, writer and an educationist from Gujarat State.

Mohammad Saadullah B.L: A youthful Chairman of Gauhati (Guwahati) Municipality in 1919. Tali and an Athletic. M.A.BL. He served as the Minister incharge of Education and Agriculture for Assam from 1924 – 1934. He was the Prime Minister of Assam under British India.

B.L. Mitter: Ex-advocate General. The one and only official subreddit for India (Nehru’s cabinet) Governor of Bihar between 1962 – 1967. Resigned from the drafting committee due to ill health. N. Madhava Rao (Diwan of Mysore state) had replaced B.L. Mitter.

D.R Khaitan: A renounced lawyer. Scion of Khaitan business family ( a new firm). Died in 1948 and T.T. Krishnamachari replaced D.R Khaitan

TB Page 175
VII. Life Skill.

Question 1.
Prepare a chart containing the Rights and Duties of citizens and display it in your class room.
Answer:
I. Right to Equality

Art. 14 – Equality before law.
Art. 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race,caste, sex or place of birth.
Art. 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Art. 17 – Abolition of Untouchability.
Art. 18 – Abolition of titles except military and academic.

II. Right to Freedom

Art. 19 – Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Art. 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Art. 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 21A – Right to elementary education.
Art. 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

III. Right Against Exploitation

Art. 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Art. 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.

IV. Right to Religion

Art. 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Art. 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Art. 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Art. 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.

V. Cultural and Educational Rights

Art. 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Art. 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

VI. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Art. 32 – It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

List of Fundamental Duties:

1. To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
8. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
11. To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. (The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act. 2002 has also introduced the 11th Fundamental Duty under 51 A(k) under which all citizens of India or parents shall provide opportunities for education to their children between age of 6 and 14 years).

TB Page 172

Question 1.
Violation of which Fundamental right is associated with the theme depleted in the stamps?
Answer:

The theme (child labour) depicted in the stamps is associated with Fundamental Right. Right against Exploitation. Art 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. (violation of employment children).

TB Page 175
Activity:

Question 1.
List out the recognised languages in the Eighth schedule of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Eighth schedule of the Constitution has recognised at present 22 languages .
They are:

1. Assamee
2. Bengali
3. Bodo
4. Dogri
5. Gujarathi
6. Hindi
7. Kannada
8. Kashmiri
9. Kenkani
10. Maithili
11. Malayalam
12. Manipuri
13. Marathi
14. Nepali
15. Oriya
16. Punjabi
17. Sanskrit
18. Santhali
19. Sindhi
20. Tamil
21. Telugu
22. Urdu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Indian Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Government of India granted ………………. languages as classical language status.
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 22
(d) 14
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 2.
Which of the following is given importance in the Preamble of our Constitution?
(a) Liberty
(b) Equality
(c) Fraternity
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
The constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December ………………. 1946.
(a) 1^st
(b) 5^th
(c) 6^th
(d) 26^th
Answer:
(c) 6^th

Question 4.
‘Education’ comes under which list?
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Concurrent list

Question 5.
Every year 26th January is observed as ……………….
(a) Independence day
(b) Gandhi Jayanthi
(c) Voters day
(d) Republic day
Answer:
(d) Republic day

Question 6.
Indian Constitution is the …………… Constitution in the world.
(a) Longest
(b) Shortest
(c) Lengthiest
Answer:
(c) Lengthiest

Question 7.
In the preamble of our Constitution the slogans of ………………. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity is given importance.
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) American Revolution
(d) German Revolution
Answer:
(a) French Revolution

Question 8.
The Constituent Assembly was set up under ……………..
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946

Question 9.
………………. emergency can be declared under Article 356.
(a) National
(b) Financial
(c) State
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) State

Question 10.
Apart from B.R. Ambedkar, how many other members were in the Drafting Committee?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 7
Answer:
(b) 6

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Our Constitution is concerned with the framework of distribution of powers between the various organs of the government and between ………………. and ……………….
2. H.C. Mukherjee and ………………. were elected as the Vice-Presidents of the constituent Assembly at the time of framing Constitution.
3. The original Constitution was hand written by ……………….
4. Our Constitution is the ………………. of all the written Constitutions of the world.
5. India is a ………………. state.
6. The right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination is ……………….
7. The preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ………………. drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Preamble begins with the phrase ……………….
9. The citizenship Act has been amended is far ………………. times.
10. The ………………. writ safeguards people from illegal arrest.
11. Under Article 21 A ………………. education was made as fundamental right to provide early childhood care and education.
12. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred ………………. subjects from state list to concurrent list.
13. Article 51A specified for the first time a code of fundamental duties of ………………. the citizens.
14. Parliament enacted the official language Act in the year

Answers:

1. Union and the States
2. V.T. Krishnamachari
3. Prem Behari Narain Raizada
4. lengthiest
5. Secular
6. Universal Adult Franchise
7. ‘Objective Resolution’
8. We the people of India
9. eight
10. Habeas Corpus
11. elementary
12. five
13. ten
14. 1963

III. Match the Following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answers:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
Mention the phrase with which the Preamble of our Constitution begins? What does this imply?
Answer:
The Preamble of our Constitution beings with the phrase “We, the People of India”. This implies that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on how our Constitution is framed?
Answer:
A Constituent Assembly was set up in 1946 to frame the Constitution . The Assembly consisted 389 members Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the president and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Chairman of the drafting committee. The Assembly worked through various committees and finally completed the draft. It was adopted on November 26^th 1949. Came into force on 26^th January 1950.

Question 3.
What is mandamus?
Answer:
Mandamus is a kind of writ that protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public authorities.

Question 4.
What does Preamble refer to ? What does it contain?
Answer:

1. The term Preamble refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution.
2. It consists of ideals, objectives and basic principles of the Constitution.
3. It is described as the ‘Key to the Constitution’.

Question 5.
Mention three ways of amendments in our Constitution.
Answer:
Our Constitution can be amended in the following three ways –

1. Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the State legislatives.

Question 6.
Name the three basic principles of our Constitution adopted from die slogan of French Revolution (1789).
Answer:

1. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship to all.
2. It gives Equality of status and opportunity.
3. It wants to promote Fratemity(brotherhood) among all Indians.

Question 7.
Abolition of titles lies in which Article of the Constitution.
Answer:
Abolition of titles lies in Article 18.

Question 8.
What change is made in Article 45 by 86th Amendment Act?
Answer:

1. The 86^th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A.
2. The amended directive request the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years.

Question 9.
Which is the single biggest source of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The single biggest source of Indian Constitution is Government of India Act 1935.

Question 10.
Name the five subjects that are transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List.
Answer:
Education, Forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds and administration of justice, Constitution and organisation of all courts except the supreme court and the high courts.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Mention any five Fundamental duties of the citizens of India.
Answer:

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the National struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 2.
How can a person acquire citizenship of our country?
Answer:
According to the citizenship Act 1955, the citizenship could be acquired by any of these five ways.

1. By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after January 26th, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.
2. By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after January 26th 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent if his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
3. By Registration: Aperson can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.
4. By Naturalization: A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.
5. By incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be the citizen of India.

Question 3.
What are the circumstances that compel the President to declare an emergency in a State?
Answer:
(i) Under Article 356, the President has the power to declare an emergency in a State if the Governor reports that a situation has risen under which the Government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) The continuance of such an emergency beyond one year is possible only if emergency under Article 352 are in operation or the Election Commission certifies that there are difficulties in holding Assembly Elections. Maximum duration of the emergency can be three years.

(iii) In this kind of emergency, the States lose much of their autonomy in legislative and executive matters.

(iv) After such an announcement State legislative is suspended and the State is governed by the Governor on behalf of the President.

Question 4.
List the fundamental duties of every citizen of India.
Answer:
Under part IVA of our Constitution Article 51A declares the duty of a Citizen of India.

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To Cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired die national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India.
6. To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
7. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
8. To Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes,
9. rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.
10. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
11. To safe guard public property and to abjure violence.
12. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity making the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
13. To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
14. Under 51 A (k) 11^th fundamental duty.

Question 5.
Write briefly about Acquisition of Citizenship.
Answer:
The Citizenship Act of 1935 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, “viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.
According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, the citizenship could be acquired through any of the following methods.
(i) By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after 26 January, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.

(ii) By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after 26 January, 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent. If his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.

(iii) By Registration: A person can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.

(iv) By Naturalisation: A foreigner can acquire Indian Citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.

(v) By Incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the “territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be citizen of India.

Question 6.
Write a paragraph on Constitutional Reform commissions.
Answer:
The National commission to review the working of the Constitution was set up by a resolution of the Government of India in 2000, headed by M.N Venkatachaliah. In April 2007 a three member commission headed by the former Chief Justice of India M.M. Punchchi was set up by the Government to take a fresh look at relative roles and responsibilities of various levels of Government and their inter relations.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 21 Health and Diseases Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 21 Health and Diseases

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline. The component causing this could be:
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curcumin
(d) heptin
Answer:
(a) Nicotine

Question 2.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on _______.
(a) May 31
(b) June 6
(c) April 22
(d) October 2.
Answer:
(a) May 31

Question 3.
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are:
(a) Different in structure
(b) Non-dividing
(c) Starved mutation
(d) Undergoing rapid division
Answer:
(d) Undergoing rapid division

Question 4.
Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukaemia
(d) Lymphoma.
Answer:
(c) Leukaemia

Question 5.
Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to;
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Cirrhosis of liver
(c) State of hallucination
(d) Supression of brain
Answer:
(b) Cirrhosis of liver

Question 6.
Coronary heart disease is due to _______.
(a) Streptococci bacteria
(b) Inflammation of pericardium
(c) The weakening of heart valves
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles.
Answer:
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles.

Question 7.
Cancer of the epithelial cells is called:
(a) Leukemia
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Carcinoma
(d) Lipoma
Answer:
(c) Carcinoma

Question 8.
Metastasis is associated with _______.
(a) Malignant tumour
(b) Benign tumour
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Crown gall tumour.
Answer:
(a) Malignant tumour

Question 9.
Polyphagia is a condition seen in:
(a) Obesity
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) AIDS
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus

Question 10.
Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
(a) Eyes
(b) Auditory region
(c) Liver
(d) Central nervous system.
Answer:
(d) Central nervous system.

II. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement:

1. AIDS is an epidemic disease.
2. Cancer causing genes are called Oncogenes.
3. Obesity is characterized by tumour formation.
4. In leukemia both WBCs and RBCs increase in number.
5. Study of cause of disease is called etiology.
6. AIDS is not transmitted by contact with a patient’s clothes.
7. Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
8. Carcinogens are cancer causing agents.
9. Nicotine is a narcotic drug.
10. Cirrhosis is associated with brain disorder.
Answer:
1. False – AIDS is an pandemic disease
2. True
3. False – Obesity is characterized by cancer formation.
4. False – In leukemia only WBC increases in number.
5. True
6. True
7. False – Type 1 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
8. True
9. False – Nicotine is a stimulant.
10. False – Cirrhosis is associated with liver disorder.

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

1. IDDM – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
2. HIV – Human Immuno deficiency Virus
3. BMI – Body Mass Index
4. AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficieny Syndrome
5. CHD – Coronary Heart Disease
6. NIDDM – Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Fill in the blanks:

1. Cirrhosis is caused in liver due to excessive use of ……….
2. A highly poisonous chemicals derived from tobacco is ………..
3. Blood cancer is called ………..
4. Less response of a drug to a specific dose with repeated use is called ………..
5. Insulin resistance is a condition in ……….. diabetes mellitus.

Answer:

1. alcohol
2. nicotine
3. Leukaemia
4. Drug tolerance
5. Type 2

VI. Analogy type questions. Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

1. Communicable: AIDS: Non communicable: ………..
2. Chemotherapy: Chemicals: Radiation therapy: …………
3. Hypertension: Hypercholesterolomia: Glycosuria: ………….

Answer:

1. Cancer
2. Radiation
3. Hyper glycemia

VII. Answer in a Sentence:

Question 1.
What are psychotropic drugs?
Answer:
Drugs which acts on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception are called psychotropic drug.

Question 2.
Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
Answer:
Lung cancer, bronchitis, pulmonary tuberculosis, emphysema and hypoxia are some of the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.

Question 3.
What are the contributing factors for Obesity?
Answer:
The social, behavioural, psychological, metabolic and cellular factors are the contributing factors of obesity.

Question 4.
What is adult – onset diabetes?
Answer:
In adult-onset diabetes, insulin production by the pancreas is normal and target cells do not respond to insulin.

Question 5.
What is metastasis?
Answer:
The cancerous cell migrate to distant Parts of the body affect new tissues. This process is called metastasis.

Question 6.
How does insulin deficiency occur?
Answer:
Insulin deficiency occurs by the destruction of P-cells of the pancreas and blood glucose levels are increased (hyperglycemia).

VIII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the various routes by which transmission of human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
AIDS virus is present in urine, tears, saliva, breast milk and vaginal secretions. The virus is transmitted by the infected patient, who comes in contact with the blood of a healthy person. HIV/ AIDS is not transmitted by touch or any physical contact. It spreads through contact with body fluids or blood. HIV is generally transmitted by

• Sexual contact with an infected person.
• Use of contaminated needles or syringes.
• By the transfusion of contaminated or infected blood or blood products.
• From infected mother to her child through the placenta.

Question 2.
How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell?
Answer:

Question 3.
Differentiate between Type-1 and Type-2 diabetes mellitus.
Answer:

Question 4.
Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Low calorie, normal protein, vitamins and minerals, restricted carbohydrate Mid fat, high fibre diet can prevent overweight. Calorie restriction for weight reduction is safe and most effective. A low – calorie diet accompanied by moderate exercise will be effective in causing weight loss. Meditation, Yoga and Physical activity can also reduce stress-related to overeating.

Question 5.
What precautions can be taken for preventing heart diseases?
Answer:
Diet management: Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol-rich food, low carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is essential. Increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamin are required.

Physical activity: Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for bodyweight maintenance.
Addictive substance avoidance: Alcohol consumption and smoking are to be avoided.

IX. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.
Answer:
Measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic:

1. Education and Counselling: Education and proper counselling will help the alcoholics to overcome their problems and stress, to accept failures in their life.
2. Physical activity: Individuals undergoing Rehabilitation measures should be guided into healthy activities like reading, music, sports, yoga and meditation.
3. Seeking help from parents and peers: The affected individuals should seek help and guidance from parents and peers. This would help them to share their feeling of anxiety of wrongdoing and get rid of the habit.
4. Medical assistance: Individuals should seek help from psychologists, and psychiatrists, to get relieved from this condition and to lead a relaxed and peaceful life.

Question 2.
Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for occurrence of cardiovascular diseases. Can it be modified? If yes, suggest measures for prevention.
Answer:
The diseases that affect the heart and the blood vessels are called cardio vascular diseases. High blood cholesterol and high blood pressure are the major reason for heart diseases.
Yes, it can be modified by the following methods.

1. By maintaining the desirable blood cholesterol (level less than 200 mg/dl).
2. By following a good good diet with include increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamins. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acid.
3. By doing physical activities like regular exercise, walking and yoga.
4. By Avoiding alcohol and smoking.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
What is the role of fat in the cause of atherosclerosis?
Answer:
The atherosclerosis is the condition, where the arteries become narrowed and hardened, due to the build-up of plaque (fatty streak to a fibrous form) around the artery wall and leads to the narrowing of blood vessels. It leads to Ischemia (deficient blood supply to the heart muscle) and myocardial infarction (death of the heart muscle tissue) occur. This disease disrupts the flow of blood around the body, posing the risk of serious complications.

Question 2.
Eating junk food and consuming soft drinks results in health problems like obesity, still children prefer. What are the suggestions you would give to avoid children eating junk food/ consumption of soft drinks?
Answer:

1. Get them involved in Planning healthy meals shopping.
2. Make them to understand the risk factors of eating junk food.
3. Understand the importance of eating low caloric food and to avoid junk food as junk food and soft drinks have high calorie.
4. To maintain the correct BMI.

Question 3.
Regular physical exercise is advisable for normal functioning of the human body. What are the advantages of practising exercise in daily life?
Answer:
The advantages of practising exercise in daily life are as follows:

• Practising exercise daily in our life make us feel happier.
• It helps us with weight loss.
• Exercises are good for the muscles and bones.
• It can increase our energy level.
• It can reduce the risk of chronic pain and chronic diseases.
• It can keep our skin, brain, health and memory.
• Exercises can help with relaxation and quality sleep.

Question 4.
A leading weekly magazine has recently published a survey analysis which says that number of AIDS patient in the country is increasing day by day. The report says that the awareness among the people about AIDS is still very poor. You are discussing the magazine report in your class and a team of your class decides to help people to fight against the dreadful disease.
(a) What problem you face when trying to educate the people in your village near by your school?
(b) How do you overcome the problem?
Answer:
(a) Many people are ignorant and not ready to discuss about the sexually transmitted disease like AIDS.
(b) Awareness to be created on the dreadful effects of AIDS and HIV.

XI. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Once a person starts taking drugs or alcohol it is difficult to get rid of the habit. Why?
Answer:
It is difficult to get rid of the habit because they feel a strong urge to keep taking a drug or alcohol are dependent. It reaches the brain through the bloodstream. The persons fully dependent on drug or alcohol and they cannot live without drugs, which we call drug dependence.

Question 2.
Men addicted to tobacco lead to oxygen deficiency in their body. What could be the possible reason?
Answer:
Smoking increases carbon monoxide content in blood and reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen. This causes O₂ deficiency in the blood.

Question 3.
Name any three foods that are to be avoided and included in the diet of a diabetic patient. Why should it be followed?
Answer:
The foods that are to be avoided in the diet of a diabetic patient, are all processed grains, french fries, packaged snacks high in salt and carbohydrates, white bread and white flour. Foods that are to be included in the diet of diabetic patients are Brown rice, whole wheat bread, whole-grain cereal, oatmeal, millet and vegetables.

Question 4.
How can informational efforts change people’s HIV knowledge and behaviour?
Answer:
Creating awareness campaign and educating people on the consequences of AIDS. Persons with HIV/AIDS should not be isolated from the family and society.

XII. Assertion and Reasoning:

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: All drugs act on the brain.
Reason: Drugs disturb the functioning of the body and mind.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

2. Assertion: Excretion of excess glucose in urine is observed in a person with diabetes mellitus.
Reason: Pancreas is unable to produce sufficient quantity of insulin.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answers:

Question 1.
Which is cancerous tumour?
(a) Benign tumour
(b) Malignant tumour
(c) Lymphoma
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Malignant tumour

Question 2.
The elevated blood glucose level is termed as ______.
(a) Glycosuria
(b) Hyperglycemia
(c) Polyphagia
(d) Hypoxia.
Answer:
(b) Hyperglycemia

Question 3.
Treatment of cancer is:
(a) Surgery
(b) Radiation
(c) Chemotherapy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 4.
The fatty streak, plaque leads to the narrowing of blood vessels lead to ______.
(a) Ischemia
(b) Psychotherapy
(c) Emphysema
(d) Atherosclerosis.
Answer:
(d) Atherosclerosis.

Question 5.
The best diagnosis of cancer is done by:
(a) Biopsy
(b) X-ray
(c) Microscopic examination by body fluids
(d) Any of these
Answer:
(a) Biopsy

Question 6.
Tobacco chewing results in:
(a) Mouth cancer
(b) Lung cancer
(c) Bone cancer
(d) Leukaemia
Answer:
(a) Mouth cancer

Question 7.
Addicion of tobacco is due to:
(a) Histamine
(b) Nicotine
(c) Cocaine
(d) Caffeine
Answer:
(b) Nicotine

Question 8.
A factor responsible for cirhosis of liver is:
(a) vitamins
(b) fats and oils
(c) alcoholism
(d) sugar
Answer:
(c) alcoholism

Question 9.
Which is related to tobacco addiction?
(a) Gastric and duadenal ulcers
(b) Bronchitis
(c) Emphysema
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
Aizheimers disease affects:
(a) childhood
(b) adolescent
(c) young people
(d) elderly people
Answer:
(d) elderly people

Question 11.
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(a) (3-Lymphocytes
(b) Leucocytes
(c) Helper-t-Lymphocytes
(d) Thrombocyte
Answer:
(c) Helper-t-Lymphocytes

Question 12.
ELISA test is used for detection of:
(a) Antibodies
(b) Viral diseases
(c) AIDS
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) AIDS

II. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement:

1. Insulin administration is necessary for Type-2 diabetes.
2. Hypoxin is decrease of oxygen in body tissue.
3. International Day against drug abuse and Illicit trafficking is on June 5th.

Answer:

1. False – Insulin administration is necessary for Type-1 diabetes.
2. True
3. False – International Day against drug abuse and Illicit trafficking is on June 26,h

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

1. POCSO – Protection Of Children from Sexual Offences
2. WHO – World Health Organisation
3. CVD – Cardio Vascular Disease
4. ELISA – Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbert Assay
5. NC PCR – National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
6. LDL – Low Density Lipo protein

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

V. Fill in the blanks:

1. Child helpline number is …………
2. Psychotropic drugs are also called as ………..
3. ……….. is powdered tobacco taken through nose.
4. Body Mass Index = …………
5. ………. seed contains Insoluble fibre.
6. Desirable level for blood cholesterol is ………..
7. The study of cancer is called ………….
8. World Aids Day is observed on ………….
9. The condition of suppressing the body’s defence mechanism is …………
Answer:
1. 1098
2. mood altering drug
3. Sniffing
4.
5. Flax seed
6. Less than 200 mg/dl
7. Concology
8. December 1st
9. AIDS

VI. Analogy type questions. Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

1. Sarcome: Skin cancer :: Leukaemia ………
2. Diabetes: Increase in blood glucose :: Obesity : ……….

Answer:

1. Blood Pressure
2. Increase in body weight

VII. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name some of the risk factors for illness and early death.
Answer:
Smoking cigarettes, Alcohol addiction, use of drugs, eating high fat and cholesterol-rich diets, excessive intake of Junk foods and reduced physical activity are some of the risk factors for illness and early death.

Question 2.
What is neoplasm?
Answer:
The uncontrolled proliferation of cells results in clones are called neoplasm or tumour.

Question 3.
Why sharing of injection needles between two individuals is not recommended?
Answer:
Because it may transmit certain pathogens like HIV, Hepatitis B.

Question 4.
What does child helpline provides?
Answer:
The child helpline provides a social worker who can assist the child by providing food, shelter and protection.

Question 5.
Define physical abuse.
Answer:
Physical abuse of a child is defined as those acts that cause physical harm such as threatening, beating, kicking and hitting the child.

Question 6.
Who is a drug addict?
Answer:
A person who is habituated to a drug due to its prolonged use is called drug addict.

Question 7.
What are addictive drug?
Answer:
A drug that modifies the physical, biological, psychological or social behaviour of a person by stimulating, depressing or disturbing the functions of the body and the mind is called addictive drug,

Question 8.
How does sexually abused children behave?
Answer:
Sexually abused children show symptoms of genital injury, abdominal pain, frequent urinary infection and behavioural problems.

Question 9.
What are the symptoms of heart diseases?
Answer:
Shortness of breath, headache, tiredness, dizziness, chest pain, swelling of leg and gastrointestinal disturbances.

Question 10.
What is Glycosuria?
Answer:
Excessive glucose excreted in urine is called Glycosuria.

VIII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the objectives of POCSO?
Answer:
Objectives of the POCSO Act, 2012.
(i) To protect children from the offences of

1. Sexual assault
2. Sexual harassment
3. Pornography

(ii) To establish Special Courts for speedy trial of such offences.

Question 2.
How is psychotheraphy given to drug de addictive?
Answer:
Psychotherapy : Individual and group counselling is given by psychologists and counsellors. The treatment includes efforts to reduce the addict’s stress, taught new ways to solve everyday’s problems, adequate diet, rest and relaxation.

Question 3.
What is physical abuse? What does child abuse constitute?
Answer:
Physical abuse of a child is defined as those acts that cause physical harm such as the threatening, beating, kicking and hitting the child. Child abuse constitutes all forms of physical or emotional ill – treatment, sexual abuse, exploitation resulting in child’s ill health, survival and development.

Question 4.
How can we prevent smoking?
Answer:
Knowing the dangers of smoking and chewing tobacco adolescents and the old people need to avoid these habits. Proper counselling and medical assistance can help an addict to give up the habit of smoking.

Question 5.
What are the harmful effects of Alcohol?
Answer:

• Prolonged use of alcohol depresses the nervous system, by acting as a sedative and analgesic substance.
• Nerve cell damage, causing mental or physical disturbances.
• Lack of Co-ordination of body organs.
• Blurred or reduced vision, results in road accidents.
• Dilation of blood vessels, which affect the functioning of the heart.
• Liver damage, resulting in fatty liver which leads to cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues.
• Body loses its control and consciousness leading to health complications.

Question 6.
How can we control and prevent diabetes?
Answer:
Diet, hypoglycemic drugs, insulin injection and exercise are the management options based on the type and severity of the condition. The overall goal of diabetes management is to maintain normal blood glucose level.

Question 7.
Explain the Carcinogenic agents.
Answer:
Cancer-causing agents are called Carcinogenic agents or Carcinogens. They are:

• Physical Irritant: Heavy smoking causes lung cancer and cancers of the oral cavity, pharynx and larynx. Betel and tobacco chewing causes oral cancer. Excessive exposure to sunlight may cause skin cancer.
• Chemical agents: Nicotine, caffeine, products of combustion of coal and oil, pesticides, asbestos, nickel, certain dyes and artificial sweeteners induce cancer.
• Radiations: Ionizing radiations like X – rays, gamma – rays, radioactive substances and non – ionising radiations like UV rays cause DNA damage leading to cancer.
• Biological agents: Cancer-causing virus are called oncogenic viruses.

IX. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
List out the behavioural changes of drug user.
Answer:
Adverse effects of drug use among adolescents are:

1. Drop in academic performance, absence from school or college.
2. Lack of interest in personal hygiene,isolation, depression, fatigue and aggressive behaviour.
3. Deteriorating relationship with family and friends.
4. Change in food and sleeping habits.
5. Fluctuation in body weight and appetite.
6. Always looking out for an easy way to get money for obtaining drugs.
7. Prone to infections like AIDS and Hepatitis-B.

Question 2.
Explain the following:
(a) Drug Dependence
(b) Behavioural Changes of Drug Users
(c) Drug De – addiction
Answer:
(a) Drug Dependence: Persons who consume psychotropic drugs become fully dependent on them, they cannot live without drugs. This condition is referred to as Drug Dependence. The dependence maybe

• Physical and mental dependence: Dependence on the drug for normal condition of well being and to maintain physiological state.
• Psychological dependence is a feel that drugs help them to reduce stress.

(b) Behavioural Changes of Drug Users:

• Drop-in Academic performance, absence from school or college.
• Lack of interest in personal hygiene, isolation, depression, fatigue and aggressive behaviour.
• Deteriorating relationship with family and friends.
• Change in food and sleeping habits.
• Fluctuation in body weight and appetite.
• Always looking for an easy way to get money for obtaining drugs.
• Prone to infections like AIDS and Hepatitis – B.

(c) Drug De-addiction:

• Detoxification: The drug is stopped gradually and the addict is helped to overcome the withdrawal symptoms. The addict undergoes severe physical and emotional disturbance. This is taken care of by specific medication.
• Psychotherapy: Individual and group counselling is given by psychologists and counsellors.
  The treatment includes efforts to reduce the addict’s stress, taught new ways to solve everyday’s problems, adequate diet, rest and relaxation.
• Counselling to family members: Social workers counsel family members in order to change the attitude of rejection. So that the addict is accepted by the family and society.
• Rehabilitation: They are given proper vocational training so that they can lead a healthy life and become useful members of society.

Question 3.
What are Carcinogen? Write a note on carcinogenic agents.
Answer:
Cancer causing agents are called carcinogens. They are physical, chemical agents, ionizing radiations and biological agents.
Physical Irritant : Heavy smoking causes lung cancer and cancers of oral cavity, pharynx (throat) and larynx. Betel and tobacco chewing causes oral cancer. Excessive exposure to sunlight may cause skin cancer.

Chemical agents : Nicotine, caffeine, products of combustion of coal and oil, pesticides, asbestos, nickel, certain dyes and artificial sweetners induce cancer.

Radiations : Ionizing radiations like X-rays, gamma-rays, radioactive substances and non-ionising radiations like UV rays cause DNA damage leading to cancer.

Biological agents : Cancer causing viruses are called oncogenic viruses.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Ram participated in a group discussion on the topic ill effects of tobacco on human health
(a) List any two ill effects of tobacco.
(b) Suggest any two measures on anti-tobacco awareness.
Answer:
(a) Pulmonary tuberculosis and emphysema are caused by tobacco.
(b) Proper Counselling and medical assistance help to give up the habit.

Question 2.
Which diagnosis is essential for confirming diabetes?
Answer:
If the fasting blood glucose is greater than 140 mg/dl or the random blood glucose is greater than 200 mg/ml, on more than two occasions, confirms diabetes.

XI. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Adolescence is a vulnerable phase of mental and physiological development in an individual. They are more to addiction at this age.
(a) Give two reasons for addiction in adolescence.
(b) Mention two preventive measures.
Answer:
(a) Peer Pressure and mood swing
(b) Creating awareness and proper counselling

Question 2.
A person is your locality has been diagnosed with AIDS people in your locality want him to leave the colony for the fear of spread of AIDS.
(a) List the way AIDS virus be transmitted.
(b) Give two suggestion to prevent it.
Answer:
(a) AIDS transmitted by sexual contact with infected person or by infected blood transfusion.
(b) Advocating safe sex screening of blood from blood banks for HIV before transfusion.

XII. Assertion and Reasoning;

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given fust below if. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as:
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Alcohol consumption during pregnancy is not desirable.
Reason (R): Alcohol causes physical and mental defects in the offspring.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): All types of cancer results in tumours.
Reason (R): Cancer is easily treatable with anti biotic.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Cancer is a contagious disease.
Reason (R): It is transmitted from a patient to a healthy person by casual contact.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is:
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta

Question 2.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is ……………
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 3.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is:
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 4.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is …………..
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur

Question 5.
Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are:
(a) 3 and 15
(b) 4 and 15
(c) 3 and 16
(d) 4 and 15
Answer:
(a) 3 and 15

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ………………. % of its economy.
2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ……………….
3. Tamil Nadu ranks ………………. in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
4. ………………. is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
5. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….

Answers:

1. 21%
2. Then Pennai
3. second
4. Chennai
5. balance of trade

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)

IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the state’s economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu. Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The farmers select different crops for different seasons of cultivation based on the temperature and availability of moisture in the soil.

Question 2.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region, it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 3.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The important multipurpose project of Tamil Nadu are:

1. Mettur Dam – River Cauvery – Mettur (Salem)
2. Bhavani Sagar Dam – Bhavani – Erode
3. Amaravathi Dam – Amaravathi – Udumalpet (Tirupur)
4. Krishnagiri Dam – Cauvery – Krishnagiri
5. Sathanur Dam – Then Pennai – Chengam
6. Mullai Periyar – Periyar – Tamil Nadu, Kerala Border fix) Vaigai Dam – Vaigai – Andipatti (Theni)
7. Manimuthar Dam – manimuthar – Tirunelveli
8. Papanasam Dam – Karaiyar – Tirunelveli
9. Parambikulam Aliyar – Aliyar and Parambikulam – Joint venture of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 4.
What is MRTS?
Answer:
MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Question 5.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports: Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchiraplli.
Sea ports:
Three major sea ports – Chennai, Ennore, Tuticorin. An intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 51 minor ports are there in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Have you heard about any stampede in your district? Write about that incident briefly.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Marine Fishing and inland fishing.
Answer:
Marine Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in ocean and sea in shore fishing and off shore fishing.
2. Fish varieties caught are sharks, flying fish, counch, cat fish, silver bellies and crabs.
3. Large mechanised boats are used.
4. Chennai, Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Ramanathapuram are the major areas.

Inland Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in lakes, rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and swamps.
2. Carp, Tilapia, Barbus, Rohu, catla and mrigal are caught. Oyster and prawns are cultured in nurseries.
3. Catamaran, diesel boats and floating nets are used.
4. Vellore leads in inland fishing production followed by Cuddalore, Sivagangai and Virudhunagar districts.

Question 2.
Food crops and non-food crops.
Answer:
Food Crops:

1. Staple food crops paddy, millets and pulses.
2. From the major source of regular diet.
3. Mostly grown under subsistence farming the excess is given for sale

Non – Food Crops:

1. Oil seeds, sugarcane, cotton and plantation crops.
2. Mainly used for commercial purpose (cash crops).
3. Mostly grown and commercial farming mainly grown for agro-based manufacturing sector.

Question 3.
Surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface Water:

1. Water available on the surface of the earth in lakes, ponds, rivers, stream, reservoirs etc.,
2. The surface water is put in to various uses like drinking, for hydelpower, irrigation etc.
3. Availability depend upon the rainfall nature of soil, land form temperature etc.
4. Not reliable
5. May be polluted and contaminated by the external forces.

Ground Water:

1. Water found underground at deep in large aquifers (porous rock layers) by seeping the soil.
2. Water has to be pumped out by drilling a deep well.
3. Availability depend upon the nature of absorption by the aqueous layer of rocks.
4. Reliable sources of water.
5. Mostly polluted due to depth.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
Answer:
To promote organic farming a central scheme named ‘National Project on Organic Farming’ was launched Apart from general things, the scheme provides financial assistance through Capital investment Subsidy Scheme for agro-waste compost production units, bio-fertilizers/ bio-pesticides production units, development and implementation of a quality control regime, human resource development etc. In organic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator and livestock feed additives are not used. This type of fanning rely on crop rotation, crop residues, animal manure, off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control to maintain soil productivity.

Question 2.
Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:
Cities are densely populated than villages because of several facilities like education, recreation, medical and mainly employment opportunities in various sectors to earn for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Karur is Called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is a well known industrial centre the city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles. It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 4.
Mostly stampede occurs in Temples.
Answer:
During festival seasons in temples people from all over gather in thousands or lakhs. Sometimes the uncontrolled crowds when they move towards each other (to and fro) may push each other. The packed situation and lack of space lead to panic and asphysciation that make breathing very difficult and stampede occurs.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and cinchona are the major plantation crops of the state.
• Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
• Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
• Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
• The Nilgiris and Yercaud in Salem are the notable regions for tea plantations.
• It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Dharmapuri districts.
• Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of coffee next to Karnataka.
• Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
• Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu
• Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
• Cinchona is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.
• Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of the Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Question 2.
Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has only 2.5% of India’s water resources. More than 95% of the surface water and 80% of the ground water have already been put into use.

Major uses of water: It include human / animal consumption, irrigation and industrial use.

Rainfall: The state is mainly dependent on monsoon rains. The average annual rainfall is around 930 mm. 47% during north east monsoon, 35% during the south west Monsoon 14% in summer and 4% in winter.

Surface water Resources: River Basin, Reservoirs, Tanks, Tube wells and other wells and open wells. Approximately getting 20,46,788 million cubic metres.

Question 3.
Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country’s. resources of vermiculite, magnetite, dunite, rutile, garnet, molybdenum and ilmenite.

Contribution for the country’s mineral resources:
75% vermiculite, 55.3% lignite, 69% dunite, 52% molybdenum, 59% garnet, 30% titanium.
Important Minerals and area of occurrence:

In some parts of the state feldspar, quartz, copper and lead also found in less quantity.

Question 4.
State the densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu and account for its high density.
Answer:

1. The plains with suitable climate, the coasted plains with mild temperature and large towns are densely populated.
2. The state ranks 12lh among the Indian States in population density.
3. The nation average density of population as per the 2011 census in 382. Chennai is the densest district with 26,903 person per sq. km.
4. Followed by Kanyakumari – 1106
   Tiruvallur – 1049
   Kancheepuram – 927
   Madurai – 823
   Coimbatore – 748
   Cuddalore – 702
   Thanjavur – 691
   Nagapattinam – 668
   Salem – 663
   Vellore – 646
   Tiruchirappalli – 602
   These are the regions with high density of population.

Question 5.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Road ways:

1. The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km. 60,628 km are maintained by state Highways department.
2. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

1. As a part of Southern Railway with headquarters at Chennai, Tamil Nadu has well developed rail network.
2. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length 6,693 km with 690 railway station.
3. Main Junctions: Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
4. Chennai has a well established suburban railway network a Mass Rapid Transit System (MRTS) and is currently developing a metro system with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:

1. Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement. It has been growing over 18% per year.
2. Major International Airports – Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchirapalli. Chennai International airport is the third largest airport in India next to Mumbai and Delhi.
3. Domestic Airport – The state has domestic airports at Tuticorin and Salem connecting several parts of the country.

Waterways:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports – Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin.
2. Minor ports – About 15 and Nagapattinam serves as an intermediate port.

Cargo handling:

1. 24% of India’s cargo is handled by the ports of Tamil Nadu. They are currently capable of handling over 73 millions metric tonnes of cargo annually.
2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai port.
3. Chennai port – It is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
4. It is currently upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,0000 vehicles.
5. Ennore port – It was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and are traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Write about Road safety rules.
Answer:

• Aware of the road signals
• Stop, look and cross
• Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
• Don’t rush on roads
• Crossroads in pedestrian crossings
• Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
• Never crossroad at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark the areas of major crops, minerals, dams, airports and seaports.
Answer:
(a) On an outline map of Tamil Nadu the areas of major crops.

1. Paddy – Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Tirunelveli
2. Millets – Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Vellore, Perambalur.
3. Pulses – Coimbatore, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thoothukudi, Krishnagiri.
4. Oil seeds – Vellore, Tiruvannamalai, Villupuram, Salem, Pudukottai.
5. Sugarcane – Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Cuddalore, Erode, Tirunelveli.
6. Cotton – Coimbatore, Salem, Madurai, Ramanathapuram, Virudhunagar.
7. Tea and coffee – Nilgiris, Kodaikanal, Kanyakumari, Anaimalai hills.

(b) Distribution of minerals:
Refer VIII. Paragraph Q. No 3 for Distribution of minerals areas.

(c) Dams:

(d) Seaports and airports:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A triangular-shaped alluvial tract formed at the mouth of the river:
(a) Doab
(b) Bay
(c) Delta
(d) Harbour
Answer:
(c) Delta

Question 2.
Agriculture is the ………….. and traditional occupation.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Service
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 3.
……………….. with alluvial soil enhances agricultural productivity.
(a) hills
(b) plateaus
(c) plains
(d) dry lands
Answer:
(c) plains

Question 4.
Pearl fishing is predominant in ………….. region.
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Rameshwaram
(c) Chinna muttom
Answer:
(a) Gulf of Mannar

Question 5.
India observed as ……………….. national year of millets.
(a) 2015
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2018
Answer:
(d) 2018

Question 6.
The Manchester of South India is ……………..
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 7.
……………….. is the major oil seed of the Tamil Nadu state.
(a) Coconut
(b) Ground nut
(c) Sunflower
(d) Gingelly
Answer:
(b) Ground nut

Question 8.
The Headquarters of the Southern Railways is in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 9.
……………….. is also called inshore fishing or neritic fishing.
(a) Oyster cultivation
(b) Inland fishing
(c) Marine fishing
(d) Pearl fishing
Answer:
(c) Marine fishing

Question 10.
…………….. dam was built by British administration in 1895.
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mettur
(c) Mullaiperiyar
Answer:
(c) Mullaiperiyar

Question 11.
……………….. is one of the biggest Earthen dams in the country.
(a) Mullai Periyar Dam
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam
(c) Mettur Dam
(d) Sathanur Dam
Answer:
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam

Question 12.
……………….. is also known as ‘Karaiyar Dam’.
(a) Papanasam Dam
(b) Vaigai Dam
(c) Manimuthar Dam
(d) Krishnagiri Dam
Answer:
(a) Papanasam Dam

Question 13.
……………….. silk is unique in its quality and traditional value all over the world.
(a) Ami
(b) Salem
(c) Kancheepuram
(d) Banaras
Answer:
(c) Kancheepuram

Question 14.
The lowest literacy rate is found in ……………….. district.
(a) Kanyakumari
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

Question 15.
……………….. is the shortest national highway in Tamil Nadu.
(a) NH7
(b) NH44
(c) NH785
(d) NH4
Answer:
(c) NH785

Question 16.
“Fire works” capital of India is:
(a) Sivakasi
(b) Salem
(c) Kamr
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Sivakasi

Question 17.
……………….. is the official enumeration of population-based on various aspects.
(a) Density
(b) Census
(c) Religion
(d) Stampede
Answer:
(b) Census

Question 18.
At districts level ……………….. is the Chairman of disaster management in the state.
(a) Local Police
(b) Civil Defence
(c) District Magistrate
(d) District Collector
Answer:
(d) District Collector

Question 19.
As per 2011 census the rural population of the state is:
(a) 48.40%
(b) 11.19%
(c) 60.07%
(d) 51.60%
Answer:
(d) 51.60%

Question 20.
The rapid increase of ……………….. may retard economic growth.
(a) population
(b) literacy
(c) agriculture
(d) industries
Answer:
(a) population

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The ………………. are the most significant resource on the earth surface.
2. ………………. is the mainstay of the state’s economy.
3. ………………. is the major sources of rainfall for Tamil Nadu.
4. Fruits and vegetables are mainly cultivated in ………………. cropping season.
5. FAO has decided to observe ………………. as the International year of millets.
6. Tamil Nadu co-operative Milk Producers Federation Limited is popularly known as ……………….
7. With very low investments ………………. can be made into profitable venture for small farmers.
8. Fishing done in 20 – 30 miles away from the shore is known as ……………….
9. Vaigai dam is has its surname as ………………. due to its unique as
10. Parappalar project is located near ……………….
11. The percapita availability of water resources in Tamil Nadu is just ………………. cubic metres.
12. Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode region is referred as ……………….
13. ………………. convert raw materials into usable product or goods.
14. ………………. districts has some specialised areas for the manufacturing of synthetic silk clothes.
15. Hundreds of leather tanneries are located around ………………. district.
16. Vellore leather accounts for more than ………………. % of leather and related products.
17. ………………. paper mill in Karur was started in the year 1979.
18. G.l Tag of Nagercoil is its ……………….
19. Pattamadai is famous for ……………….
20. ………………. is the second largest software exporter next to Karnataka.
21. Tamil Nadu accounts for ………………. % automobile components produced in India.
22. The single largest cottage industry in the state is the ……………….
23. ………………. is an area in which business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country.
24. ………………. refers to the number to people living in a defined area.
25. If any district has a population of about 15 – 20 lakhs it cames under ………………. population category.
26. ………………. district is the least populated one.
27. The ………………. represents the number of females per 1000 males.
28. The ………………. is the commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and storage of cargo.
29. N.H 785 runs from to to a distance of 35 km.
30. ‘1077’ is the ………………. contact number.
31. The state Disaster management Authority chairman is ……………….
32. Education on awareness regarding the disasters may help in the ………………. during disasters.
33. ………………. is a deposit in the earth crust with one or more value minerals.
34. ………………. are the people with the ability to read and write.
35. ………………. is a large natural or artificial lake used as a source of water supply.
36. ………………. is the statistical study of the characteristics of human population.
37. ………………. are the people who make a deep and detailed study of the population.
38. ………………. is one of major problem confronting our nation with all its evil effects.
39. ………………. is reared in the arid, semi-arid and mountainous areas in Tamil Nadu.
40. ………………. is the best alternative for rearing in the marginal and undulating lands.

Answer:

1. human beings
2. Agriculture
3. North-East monsoon
4. Navarai
5. 2023
6. Aavin
7. goat rearing
8. off-shore fishing
9. little – Brindavan
10. Ottanchatram
11. 900
12. Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu
13. Industries
14. Ramanathapuram
15. Vellore
16. 37
17. Kagithapuram
18. Temple Jewellery
19. mats
20. Tamil Nadu
21. 35%
22. handloom sector
23. Special Economic Zone ,(SEZ)
24. Population
25. Moderate
26. The Nilgiri
27. Sex – Ration
28. Port
29. Madurai to Nattham
30. control room of district Collector / Magistrate
31. Chief Minister
32. reduction of risks
33. Ore
34. Literates
35. Reservoirs
36. Demography
37. Demographers
38. Over population
39. Sheep
40. Goat

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Vellore is the top exporter of finished leather goods.
Reason (R): Hundreds of leather tannaries are located around Vellore.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct R does not explains (A).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): TNPL is one of the most accomplished paper mill in the world. Reason (R): TNPL is a Government of Tamil Nadu enterprise.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Industrial disaster are caused by negligence or incompetence. Reason (R): Over heating and use of high quality control.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true.
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Cropping seasons in Tamil Nadu have different types of crop cultivation.
Reason (R): Cultivation of crops depend on the temperature and availability of moisture.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true (R) explains (A).
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
It is the process of producing food, feed fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated plants.

Question 2.
What do you mean by “Human Geography”.
Answer:
Human Geography refers to the study of ways of development of human societies and their operation in relation to their physical environment.

Question 3.
What is Port?
Answer:
The commercial port of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for the storage of cargo.

Question 4.
Name the types of agriculture practices followed in Tamil Nadu and their regions.
Answer:
Farming Type:

1. Subsistence intensive agriculture
2. Plantation agriculture
3. Mixed farming

Regions:

1. All over Tamil Nadu except few regions
2. Hill slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats
3. Banks of R. Cauvery and ThenPennai

Question 5.
Define Birth rate:
Answer:
The number of live births per annum per thousand people in a region is called birth rate.

Question 6.
What are the conditions required for the cultivation of pulses?
Answer:

1. Pulses are mostly grown in drier regions with or without irrigation.
2. Mild cool climate and a low to moderate rainfall are best suited for these crops.

Question 7.
What are the important pulses varieties grown in Tamil Nadu? and their uses.
Answer:

1. Bengal gram, black gram, green gram, cow pea, and horse gram.
2. Uses: Pulses are the major sources of protein and they serve as excellent fodder.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘mixed farming’?
Answer:
It is a type of farming which involves both growing of crops and the raising of live-stock simultaneously in a land holding.

Question 9.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:

• Fibre crops include cotton and jute.
• Cotton thrives well in black soil.
• It is the major fibre crop of Tamil Nadu.
• It is cultivated on a large scale in the districts of Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Cuddalore.

Question 10.
Write the significance of Hand looms and power looms industry.
Answer:

1. Handloom sector in the state is the single largest cottage industry.
2. It provides livelihood to a large number of rural people.
3. It promotes export earnings.
4. It generates gainful employment for more than 4.29 lakh weaver households and 11.64 lakh weavers in the state.

Significance of power loom industry:

1. A tradition industry.
2. Contributes a large to India economy in. terms of foreign exchange earnings,
3. Greater employment opportunities are provided (nearly 6.5 million people are employed).

Question 11.
Define Harbour.
Answer:

1. Harbour is an extensive stretch of deepwater near the seashore where vessels (ships) can anchor securely.
2. It is used for exports and imports of goods.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Irrigation?
Answer:
Irrigation refers to the artificial supply of watering the fields. For a monsoon fed region like Tamil Nadu where rainfall is irregular and seasonal irrigation – become essential.

Question 13.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
The activities that involve the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services at all levels within a country are called as economic activities.

Question 14.
What is the aim of Special Economic Zones (SEZ)?
Answer:
The aims of Special Economic Zones is to increase trade balance, employment increased investment, job creation and effective administration.

Question 15.
What are the significant contributions of the manufacturing industry?
Answer:
The manufacturing industry broadly covers manufacture of machinery and equipment, motor vehicles, basic metal and alloy industries, metal products and repair of capital goods.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Sornavari cropping season and Samba cropping season.
Answer:
Sornavari cropping season:

1. Sornavari cropping season is called chithirai pattam as it falls in the Tamil month Chithirai.
2. Sowing period: April – May and Harvesting period : August – September.
3. Millets and cotton are the crops grown in this season.

Samba cropping season:

1. Samba cropping season also called as Adipattam as it falls in the Tamil month Adi.
2. Sowing period: July – August Harvesting period: January – February.
3. Paddy and sugarcane are the crops grown in this season.

Question 2.
Subsistence farming and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Subsistence farming:

1. Mostly food crops are grown.
2. Farming is done for own consumption purpose only excess is sent for sale.
3. Plains with alluvial soil is suitable for cultivation.
4. Paddy, pulses and millets are grown.

Plantation farming:

1. Mainly cash crops are grown.
2. Farming is done mainly for sale purpose.
3. Hill slopes are the ideal landform of this type of farming.
4. Tea, coffee and spices are grown.

Question 3.
Imports and exports.
Answer:
Imports:

1. Goods and services are bought from overseas producers.
2. Local currency is involved.
3. Improves the internal economy.
4. Main imports are Machineries, Newsprint and Fertilisers.

Exports:

1. Goods and services arc sold to other countries.
2. Earns foreign exchange (Foreign currency).
3. Improves the standard of living of the people.
4. Main exports are agricultural products and leather goods.

Question 4.
Harbour and Port.
Answer:
Harbour:

1. An extensive stretch of deep water near the sea shore where vessels can anchor securely.
2. It may be natural or artificial.
3. Vishakapattinam (Natural harbour) Chennai (artificial harbour).

Port:

1. The commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for storage of goods.
2. It is man made feature.
3. Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin are the major ports of Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Personal communication and Mass communication.
Answer:
Personal Communication:

1. Communication is only between two persons.
2. Telephone, letter and e-mail are some form of personal communication.
3. Personal messages and informations are shared.

Mass Communication:

1. Communication is shared with large number of people.
2. Mass medias like radio, television and news papers are the medium of communication,
3. Awareness, entertainment, news and weather report are shared.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is situated in the tropical zone nearer to the equator. The . temperature in Tamil Nadu is relatively high almost throughout the year. So only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Human beings are the most significant reasons on the earth surface.
Answer:

1. The resources available on the earth are useful only when they are utilised.
2. Human beings using their intelligence and skill made these resources useful to mankind.

Thus the human beings are the most significant resources on the earth surface.

Question 3.
Agriculture has strong link with economic growth.
Answer:

1. Agriculture has been the mainstay of the state’s economy since independence.
2. More than 65% of the population depends upon this sector.
3. It provides employment to rural people on a large scale, enhancing economic growth.

Question 4.
Live stock has remained an integral part of socio-economic fabric of rural people.
Answer:

1. Livestock provides a profitable venture for small and marginal farmers.
2. More over they provide a dependable sources of income to the rural people who rear cow, goat, sheep and poultry.
3. Rearing of cattle breed for milk forms major component of rural economy.

Question 5.
It is important to save water for us and the future generation.
Answer:

1. The state is entirely dependent on rains for recharging its water resources.
2. Monsoon failures lead to acute water scarcity and severe droughts. So it is important to save water for us and the future generation.

Question 6.
TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world.
Answer:
TNPL produces different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and wood pulp and is eco-friendly. Thus it is referred as one of the , most accomplished mills in the world.

VIII. Answer the following in paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the Paper Industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Paper Industry:
Tamil Nadu stands second in paper production in our country Bambo, grass and bagasse from sugercane are raw materials for paper industry. Soda, Soda ash, Chlorine, Sulphur, wood pulp and plenty of water are other requirements for setting up of paper industries. Pukkathurai in Kancheepuram district, Bhavani sagar, Pallipalayam, Pugalur, Paramathi Vellore, Coimbatore, Udumalai pettai, Thoppampettai, Nilakottai and Cheranmadevi are centres of paper mills in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newsprint and Papers Limited (TNPL) is a government of Tamil Nadu enterprise producing newsprint and printing and writing paper at its mill located at Kagithapuram in Karur district. It was started in 1979 with an installed capacity of 2.45 lakh MT of production per annum. TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world/producing different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and pulpwood.

Question 2.
Define the man-made disaster and enumerate the reasons for the industrial disaster.
Answer:

1. “A disastrous events caused directly or indirectly by human actions” are called as man made disaster.
2. Industrial Disaster.

Major Reasons: Disasters caused by industrial companies either by

• Accident
• Negligence or
• Incompetence
• Electrical faults

(iii) Main factors contributing to fire accidents in industries:

• Overheating
• Aging of materials
• Use of sub – stranded quality of electrical gadgets.

(iv) Electricity is not just a life line; it can also take away life when handled improperly. Other causes for industrial disasters are:

• Explosions
• Leaking of poisonous gases
• Injuries and deaths caused by machines.

The regular maintenance of machines and wires may reduce the frequency of accidents. More over the administration should be employees friendly and ready to extend their help in case of any untoward incidents.

Question 3.
“Write about the Central Scheme” National Project on Organic Farming”.
Answer:
(i) To promote organic Farming a central scheme named “National project on Organic Farming” was launched.

(ii) Apart from general things likes

• Creating awareness
• Promoting organic fertilizers
• Training
• Capacity building etc.,

(iii) The scheme provides financial assistance through “Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme” for

• agro-waste compost production units.
• bio fertilizers / bio pesticides production units.
• development and implementation of quality control regime.
• human resources development etc.,

Question 4.
What do you understand by the term “Second Green Revolution”?
Answer:
The Second Green Revolution is nothing but Eco-Farming or Organic Farming.

1. In this type of farming inorganic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator, and live stock feed additives are not used.
2. This type of farming rely on crop – rotation off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control.
3. This in turn helps in maintaining soil fertility.
4. This farming method has to be encouraged so that the present and future generation may able to get chemical free substances.

Question 5.
Write a note on (i) TANTEA (ii) TANCEM.
Answer:
TANTEA: Tamil Nadu Tea Plantation Corporation Limited is one of the biggest black tea producers in India with high quality clonal tea. It’s plantation spreads over nearly 4500 hectares.

TANCEM: Tamil Nadu Cements Corporation Limited is one among the major cement producers in Tamil Nadu operating two cement units at (i) Ariyalur and (ii) Alangulam

The other units of TANCEM are (i) Asbestos cement sheet plant at Alangulam and (ii) Stone ware pipe unit at Virudhachalam.

Major private cement brands produced in Tamil Nadu are

Sankar cement, Zuari cement, Ultratech cement, Madras cement and Dalmia cement.

Question 6.
What does the term ‘Gl Tag’ refer to? List out some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
“Gl (Geographical Indication) is a name or sign used on products which corresponds to a specific geographical location. It provides rights and protection of holders.

Some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu are:

Question 7.
What is special about SEZs and write about the SEZs zones in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) provide an internationally competetive hassle free environment for exports.
2. Units in SEZs manufacture goods and provide range of services.
3. SEZs are located in Nanguneri, Ennore, Hosur and Perambalur.
4. IT and ITES, SEZ named TIDEL – IT and TIDEL IIT and Bio – Pharmaceuticals SEZ are located in Chennai and Coimbatore SEZ called the TIDEL park IV is located in the city.
5. Special Economic Zone means the specified area within the territory of the state.
6. There are 36 special economics zone are operational in Tamil Nadu which tops in highest number of SEZ.
7. It helps in the economic and Industrial development of the state.
8. Helps to create employment opportunity and to earn foreign exchange.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Industrial area
Answer:
(i) Textile Industry:
Cotton – Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode.
Silk – Arani, Salem, Kancheepuram.

(ii) Leather Industry – Vellore.
Paper industry – Coimbatore, Karur, Erode.
Cement industry – Ariyalur, Virudhachalam.

(iii) Cities having Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
SEZ Zones: Chennai, Coimbatore.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
(a) clonal selection
(b) mass selection
(c) pureline selection
(d) hybridisation
Answer:
(b) mass selection

Question 2.
Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of ______.
(a) sugarcane
(b) rice
(c) cow pea
(d) maize.
Answer:
(c) cow pea

Question 3.
Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of:
(a) chilli
(b) maize
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat
Answer:
(d) wheat

Question 4.
The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is ______.
(a) IR – 8
(b) IR – 24
(c) Atomita – 2
(d) Ponni.
Answer:
(a) IR – 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
(a) enzyme from organism
(b) live organism
(c) vitamins
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) enzyme from organism

Question 6.
We can cut the DNA with the help of ______.
(a) scissors
(b) restriction endonucleases
(c) knife
(d) RNAase.
Answer:
(b) restriction endonucleases

Question 7.
rDNA is a:
(a) vector DNA
(b) circular DNA
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:
(d) satellite DNA
Answer:
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ______ sequences of DNA.
(a) single-stranded
(b) mutated
(c) polymorphic
(d) repetitive.
Answer:
(d) repetitive

Question 9.
Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as:
(a) transgenic organsims
(b) genetically modified
(c) mutated
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) transgenic organsims

Question 10.
In a hexaploid wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic (x) number of chromosomes respectively are ______.
(a) n = 7 and x = 21
(b) n = 21 and x = 21
(c) n = 7 and x = 7
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.
Answer:
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by ………..
2. A protein rich wheat variety is ………
3. ………. is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients are called ………
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but ………… is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
6. ……….. technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as …………
8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for ………..
9. ………… cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a …………
Answer:
1. Hybridization
2. Altas 66
3. Colchicine
4. Bio fortification
5. Atomita 2 rice
6. Recombinant
7. Phosphodiester
8. Identical twins
9. stem cells
10. bacterial cell

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. Raphanobrassica is a tetraploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called a pureline.
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects. ,
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body.
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.
Answer:
1. False – Raphanobrassica is a allotetra ploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. False – The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called polyploidy.
3. True
4. False – Iron rich rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. False – Golden rice is a genetically modified plant
6. True
7. False – In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done outside the body.
8. True
9. False – Molecular scissors refers to Restriction enzymes

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)
F. (viii)
G. (vi)
H. (vii)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.
1. Assertion : Hybrid is superior than either of its parents.
Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.

2. Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques.
Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

VI. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Give the name of the wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale a hybrid of wheat having dietary fibre and protein.

Question 2.
Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of the dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
Answer:
The dwarfing gene is Sd.I.

Question 3.
Define genetic engineering.
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one, organism to another organism to create a new DNA called as recombinant DNA(rDNA).

Question 4.
Name the types of stem cells?
Answer:
Embryonic stem cell and Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell, are the two types of stem cells.

Question 5.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene is known as transgenic organism.

Question 6.
State the importance of bio-fertiliser.
Answer:
Increasing the harvest yields, improving soil structure, better water relation, economical, eco – friendly and more efficient farms are due importance of biofertilizer.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
Answer:

Question 2.
Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:

1. High yielding
2. Semi – dwarf
3. Fertilizer responsive.

These are the three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are the high yielding varieties of wheat.

Question 3.
Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, shakthi are the maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysin.

Question 4.
Distinguish between
(a) somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy.
Answer:
Somatic gene therapy :
It is the replacement of defective gene in somatic cells.

Germ line gene therapy :
It is replacement of defective gene in germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b) undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
Undifferentiated cells :
The cells which have not become specialized are called undifferentiated cells.
Eg: Cells in early embryos

Differentiated cells :
The cells which have become specialized for doing certain job.
Eg: Muscle cell, nerve cell.

Question 5.
State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications such as identifying the – culprit. It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes. It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 6.
How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
Answer:
If cells, tissues and organs in the body get permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury, it can be cured by regeneration process of stem cell. In stem cell therapy, stem cells are used to replace the damage of lost cells.

Question 7.
Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Answer:
Outbreeding Inbreeding

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid, obtained by cross-breeding is called heterosis or hybrid vigour.
Effects of hybrid vigour in animal breeding:

• Increased production of milk by cattle.
• Increased production of an egg by poultry.
• High quality of meat is produced.
• The increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 2.
Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is a process by which genetic variations are created which in turn brings about changes in the organism. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.

The factors which induce mutations are known as mutagens or mutagenic agents. Mutagens are of two types namely physical mutagens and chemical mutagens.
(i) Physical mutagens : Radiations like X-rays, a, (3 and y-rays, UV rays, temperature etc. which induce mutations are called physical mutagens
(ii) Chemical mutagens : Chemical substances that induce mutations are called chemical mutagens. Eg: Mustard gas and nitrous acid. The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.

Achievements of mutation breeding: Some achievements of mutation breeding are-
(a) Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora-64 by using gamma rays.
(b) Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance
(c) Groundnuts with thick shells

Question 3.
Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification is the scientific process of helping crop plants, enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals. Micronutrient malnutrition is called hidden hunger, the lack of micronutrients such as vitamin A, zinc and iron in the diet.

Biofortification is effective in removing hidden hunger and improving the nutritional value of food. Scientists breed crops whose edible parts (seed, tuber and roots) have improved nutritional value. Biofortified foods can contribute to body stores of micronutrients throughout the life cycle.
Some example of crop varieties developed as a result of biofortification are:

• Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine-rich maize hybrids.
• Atlas 66, a protein-rich wheat variety.
• Iron-rich fortified rice variety.
• Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.

Question 4.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Answer:

In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides. A brief outline of the basic steps involved in gene cloning are:

1. Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes.
2. Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (Plasmid) to make rDNA.
3. Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell (Transformation)
4. Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone.
5. Expression of cloned gene in host cell.
   Using this strategy several enzymes, hormones and vaccines can be produced.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Using genetic engineering techniques, medicinally important valuable proteins or polypeptides, which form the potential pharmaceutical products for the treatment of various diseases have been developed on a commercial scale.
Pharmaceutical products developed by rDNA technique:

• Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
• Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
• Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
• Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and to prevent heart attack.
• Development of vaccines against various diseases like hepatitis B and rabies.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorporate.
Answer:
Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crop.

Question 2.
Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons.
Answer:
Green revolution is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modem agricultural techniques. Organic farming is a method of crop production in an ecofriendly and pollution free environment to release nutrients to crop. As organic farming is an ecofriendly and pollution free, it is better than green revolution.

Question 3.
Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
Answer:
An organism having more than 2 sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical events such as heat or cold treatment, X – rays and chemical agents like colchicine. Polyploid cell or organism has three or more times the haploid chromosomal number.

Polyploid has a major role in the evolution of both wild and cultivated plants. Polyploid has a key role in plant breeding. There are increase and increased woodiness which has been observed in some insular plants. So polyploids are characterized by gigantism.

Question 4.
‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modified plant ‘R’
(i) What is P, Q and R?
(ii) State the importance of ‘R’ in India.
Answer:
(i) P is Beta carotene gene
Q Bio fortification
R Golden rice

(ii) Golden rice is genetically modified rice can produce beta carotene,that prevent vitamin A deficiency.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Modem biotechnology consist:
(a) Genetic engineering
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Gene cloning
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
The disease-resistant cauliflower variety is ______.
(a) Himgiri
(b) Pusa Shubhra
(c) Pusa Komal
(d) IR – 8.
Answer:
(b) Pusa Shubhra

Question 3.
Transgenic animals has:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell
(b) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(c) Foreign DNA in some of the cells
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell

Question 4.
The gamete cells, which have only one set of chromosomes is called ______.
(a) diploid
(b) polyploid
(c) triploid
(d) haploid.
Answer:
(d) haploid.

Question 5.
A kind of Biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is:
(a) DNA replication
(b) Denaturation
(c) Genetic Engineering
(d) Renaturation
Answer:
(c) Genetic Engineering

Question 6.
A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using:
(a) ECORI
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) Polymerase III
(d) Ligase
Answer:
(d) Ligase

Question 7.
Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?
(a) Golden Rice
(b) Bt-Brinjal
(c) Flaver savr tomato
(d) Canolla
Answer:
(a) Golden Rice

Question 8.
Restriction endonucleses are enzymes which:
(a) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule.
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.
(c) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase.
(d) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer:
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.

Question 9.
……….. is the Father of Indian Green Revolution.
(a) Nammalvar
(b) Dr Borloug
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan
(d) Dr Sultan Ismail
Answer:
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan

Question 10.
New lined of sheep developed in Punjab is:
(a) Sahiwal
(b) Hisardale
(c) Triticale
(d) Sharbati sonara
Answer:
(b) Hisardale

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. is a cross between Male Donkey and Female Horse.
2. ……….. is a DNA molecule found in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell.
3. ………. was the first cloned female sheep.
4. Human insulin can be synthesized by using ……….
5. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment is transfered to the host cell through ………..
6. Genetically identical individuals are ………..
7. Ligase is used for joining two ………..
8. Enzyme that cleaves nucleic acids within the polynucleotide chain is known as …………
9. The bacterium used as biopesticide is …………
10. A strain of golden rice contains high content of …………..
Answer:
1. Mule
2. Plasmid
3. Dolly
4. rDNA technology
5. Vector
6. Clones
7. DNA fragments
8. Endonuclease
9. Bacillus thuringiensis.
10. Vitamin A

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. The structure used to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it into a host ceil is vector.
2. Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having sticky ends.
3. The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is clonal selection.
4. The aim of crop improvement is to develop improved crop varieties.
5. International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Indonesia.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having ligase ends.
3. False – The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is pureline selection.
4. True
5. False – International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Philippines.

IV. M.atch the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong
1. Assertion: Bacillus thuringiensis is toxic to many insects.
Reason: It inhibits ion transport in the mid gut.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong

2. Assertion.: Recombinant DNA technology has become successful due to restriction endonucleases present in Eukaryotic cells.
Reason: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule to form blunt ends.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name two neurodegenerative disorders.
Answer:
Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer disease.

Question 2.
Name two chemical mutagens.
Answer:
Mustard gas and nitrous acid.

Question 3.
What is plant breeding?
Answer:
Plant breeding is the art of developing economically important plants with superior quality.

Question 4.
What is the aim of Animal husbandry?
Answer:
The aim of Animal husbandry is to improve the genotypes of animals to make them more useful to the welfare of mankind.

Question 5.
What are exotic species?
Answer:
The process of introducing high yield varieties of plants from one place to another are called as exotic species.

Question 6.
List the two main aspects of hybridization.
Answer:
Combining the characters of two plants in one plant and to utilize hybrid vigour are the two main aspects of hybridization.

Question 7.
What is heterosis?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called heterosis.

Question 8.
What are plasmids?
Answer:
Circular, self-replicating, extra chromosomal DNA in bacteria.

Question 9.
What is transgene?
Answer:
A gene which is transferred from one organism into another organism by genetic engineering.

Question 10.
Name the Research institute found by Nammalvar.
Answer:
Nammalvar ecological foundation for farm research and global food security trust.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
List out the pest-resistant crop varieties.
Answer:

Question 2.
What does the nutritional quality of crop depend on?
Answer:
The nutritional quality of crops depends on the quality and quantity of nutrients.
The nutritional quality may be improved with respect to its:

• Protein content and quality of proteins.
• Oil content.
• Mineral content.

Question 3.
Write a note on Gamma Garden.
Answer:
Gamma garden or Atomic garden is a concept popularised after World War -II for the peaceful use of atomic energy for crop improvement. This is a type of induced mutation breeding where radioactive sources particularly gamma rays from Cobalt-60 or Caesium-137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Question 4.
An organism having more than two sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical agents such as heat or cold treatment, X-rays and chemical agents like colchicine.
Answer:
Achievements of polyploidy breeding:

• Seedless watermelons (3n) and bananas (3n).
• TV – 29 (triploid variety of tea) with larger shoots and drought tolerance.
• Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye: It has higher dietary fibre and protein.
• Rapuano brassica is an allotetraploid by colchicine treatment.

Question 5.
Mention the two important properties of stem cells.
Answer:

1. Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
2. Its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Question 6.
Illustrate hybridization with example.
Answer:
Triticale is the first man made cereal hybrid. It is obtained by crossing wheat Triticum durum (2n = 28) and rye (secale cereal, 2n = 14)
Parent Tritium durum × Secale cereal

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the following methods of plant breeding for crop improvement.
Answer:
(a) Introduction of new varieties in plants:
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called exotic species. These imported plants may carry pathogens and pests. It should be thoroughly checked before introducing to the fields, eg. Phaseolus mungo was introduced from China.

(b) Selection:
Selection is a type of plant breeding, in which individual plants or group of plants are sorted out from a mixed population based on the morphological characters.

Methods of selection:
(i) Mass selection:
Seeds of plants with desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. In the end, they are distributed to the farmers for cultivation, eg. TMV – 2 and AK – 10 (groundnut varieties).

(ii) Pure line selection:
Pureline is the “progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding”. This is also called as individual plant selection. In pure line selection, large numbers of plants are selected from a self – pollinated crop and harvested individually. Progeny is similar, both genotypically and phenotypically.

(iii) Clonal selection:
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called clones. All the plants of a clone are similar both in genotype and phenotype. Selection of desirable clones from the mixed population of the vegetatively propagated crop is called clonal selection.

Question 2.
In what way trans organism are better?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as transgenic organisms.

The transgenic plants are much stable, with improved nutritional quality, resistant to diseases and tolerant to various environment conditions. Similarly transgenic animals are used to produce proteins of medicinal importance at low cost and improve livestock quality.

Question 3.
Describe the tools of recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:
Techniques of Genetic Engineering – Basic Requirements:
Important discoveries that led to the stepping stone of rDNA technology were

1. Presence ofplasmid in bacteria that can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA.
2. Restriction enzymes cuts or break DNA at specific sites and are also called as molecular scissors.
3. DNA ligases are the enzymes which help in ligating (joining) the broken DNA fragments.

Question 4.
Give the Schematic representation of Mass selection.
Answer:

Mass selection : Seeds of best plants showing desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. At the end, they will be multiplied and distributed to the farmers for cultivation. Some common examples for mass selection are groundnut varieties like TMV-2 and AK-10. Its schematic representation is given below.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although ‘green revolution’ increases the food production, it is not enough to feed growing population. This probelm is overcomed by ‘X’ crops.
(a) What is ‘X’?
(b) Explain it with examples.
Answer:
(a) ‘X’ is Genetically modified crops.
(b) Genetic modification refers to the manipulation of genes in the organism using rDNA techniques to produce desired character.

Question 2.
What is Gamma garden?
Answer:
In gamma garden or atomic garden, a type of induced mutation breeding, where radioactive sources, particularly gamma rays from Cobalt – 60 or Caesium – 137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If A = {1,2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5,6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8} then state which of the following statement is true ………….. .
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)
(2) (B × D) ⊂ (A × C)
(3) (A × B) ⊂ (A × D)
(4) (D × A) ⊂ (B × A)
Answer:
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)

Question 2.
If f(x) = 2x² and g(x) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3x }\), then jog is ………….. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{2 x^{2}}\)
(2) \(\frac{2}{3 x^{2}}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{6 x^{2}}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)

Question 3.
Given F₁ = 1,F₂ = 3 and F_n = F_n-1 + F_n-2  then F₅ is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11
Answer:
(4) 11

Question 4.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ +. . . .+ 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 +….+ 15) is ………….. .
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280

Question 5.
The solution of the system x + y – 3z = -6 , – 7y + 7z = 7, 3z = 9 is ………….. .
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
(2) x = -1, y = 2, z = 3
(3) x = -1, y = -2, z = 3
(4) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
Answer:
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3

Question 6.
If number of columns and rows are not equal in a matrix then it is said to be a ………….. .
(1) diagonal matrix
(2) rectangular matrix
(3) square matrix
(4) identity matrix
Answer:
(2) rectangular matrix

Question 7.
The slope of the line which is perpendicular to a line joining the points (0, 0) and (-8, 8) is ………….. .
(1) -1
(2) 1
(3) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(4) -8
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 8.
If sin θ + cos θ = a and sec θ + cosec θ = 6, then the value of b (a² – 1} is equal to ………….. .
(1) 2 a
(2) 3 a
(3) 0
(4) 2 ab
Answer:
(1) 2 a

Question 9.
If two solid hemispheres of same base radius r units are joined together along their bases, then curved surface area of this new solid is ………….. .
(1) 4π r² sq. units
(2) 6π r² sq. units
(3) 3π r² sq. units
(4) 8π r² sq. units
Answer:
(1) 4π r² sq. units

Question 10.
The standard deviation of a data is 3. If each value is multiplied by 5 then the new variance is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) 225
Answer:
(4) 225

Question 11.
Kamalam went to play a lucky draw contest. 135 tickets of the lucky draw were sold. If the probability of Kamalam winning is \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\), then the number of tickets bought by Kamalam is ………….. .
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
Answer:
(3) 15

Question 12.
If α and β are the zeros of the polynomial p(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …… .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(-\frac{7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)

Question 13.
The common ratio of the G.P. a^m-n, a^m, a^{m + n} is ………….. .
(1) a^m
(2) a^-m
(3) aⁿ
(4) aⁿ
Answer:
(3) aⁿ

Question 14.
If the circumference at the base of a right circular cone and the slant height are 120π cm and 10 cm respectively, then the curved surface area of the cone is equal to ………….. .
(1) 1200 π cm²
(2) 600 π cm²
(3) 300 π cm²
(4) 600 π m²
Answer:
(2) 600 π cm²

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Let A = {1,2, 3, 4} and B = N . Let f: A → B be defined by f(x) = x³ then,
(i) find the range of f
(ii) identify the type of function
Answer:
A = {1,2,3,4}
B = (1,2,3,4,5, ………}
f(x) = x³
f(1) = 1³ = 1
f(2) = 2³ = 8
f(3) = 3³ = 27
f(4) = 4³ = 64
(i) Range = {1, 8,27, 64)
(ii) one -one and into function.

Question 16.
If f(x) = 2x -1, g (x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\), show that fog = gof = x
Answer:
f(x) = 2x – 1 : g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\)
fog = f[g(x)]
= \(f\left[\frac{x+1}{2}\right]\)
= \(2\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)-1\)
= x + 1 – 1
= x

gof = g[f(x)]
= g (2x – 1)
= \(\frac{2 x-1+1}{2}\)
= \(\frac{2 x}{2}\)
= x
∴ fog = gof = x
Hence it is proved.

Question 17.
Determine the general term of an A.P. whose 7^th term is -1 and 16^th term is 17.
Answer:
Let the AP. be t₁, t₂, t₃, t₄, ………
It is given that t₇ = -1 and t₁₆ = 17
a + (7 – 1)d = -1 and a + (16 – 1) d = 17
a + 6d = – 1 ……. (1)
a + 15d = 17 ……… (2)
Subtracting equation (1) from equation (2), we get 9d = 18 ⇒ d = 2
Putting d = 2 in equation (1), we get a + 12 = -1 So, a = -13
Hence, general term t_n = a + (n – 1) d = -13 + (n – 1) × 2 = 2n – 15

Question 18.
Find x so that x + 6, x + 12 and x + 15 are consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression.
Answer:
\(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{x+12}{x+6}\), \(\frac{t_{3}}{t_{2}}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
Since it is a G.P.
\(\frac{x+12}{x+6}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
(x + 12)² = (x + 6) (x + 15)
x² + 24x + 144 = x² + 21x + 90
3x = -54 ⇒ x = \(\frac{-54}{3}\) = – 18

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x+8}{x^{2}+x-2}\)
Answer:
x² + 6x + 8 = (x + 4)(x + 2)
x² + x – 2 = (x + 2)(x – 1)


The expression \(\frac{x+4}{x-1}\) is undefined
when x – 1 = 0 ⇒ x = 1
The excluded value is 1

Question 20.
Solve 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 by formula method.
Answer:
Compute 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 with the standard form ax² + bx + c = O
a = 3, b = 2√5, c = -5
p = \(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^{2}-4 a c}}{2 a}\)
Substituting the values of a, b and e in the formula we get,

Therefore, x = \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{3},-\sqrt{5}\)

Question 21.
Write the expression \(\frac{\alpha+3}{\beta}+\frac{\beta+3}{\alpha}\) in terms of α + β and αβ.
Answer:

Question 22.
Rhombus PQRB is inscribed in ∆ABC such that ∠B is one of its angle. P, Q and R lie on AB, AC and BC respectively. If AB = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, find the sides PQ, RB of the rhombus.
Answer:
Let the side of the rhombus be “x”. Since PQRB is a Rhombus PQ || BC
By basic proportionality theorem
\(\frac{A P}{A B}=\frac{P Q}{B C} \Rightarrow \frac{12-x}{12}=\frac{x}{6}\)
12x = 6(12 – x)
12x = 72 – 6x
12x + 6x = 72
18x = 72 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 72 }{ 18 }\) = 4
Side of a rhombus = 4cm
PQ = RB = 4cm

Question 23.
Find the equation of a straight line which is parallel to the line 3x – 7y = 12 and passing through the point (6,4)
Answer:
Equation of the straight line, parallel to 3x – 7y – 12 = 0 is 3x – 7y + k= O
Since it passes through the point (6,4)
3(6) – 7(4) + k = 0
k = 28 – 18= 10
Therefore, equation of the required straight line is 3x – 7y + 10 = 0.

Question 24.
Prove that \(\frac{\tan ^{2} \theta-1}{\tan ^{2} \theta+1}\) = 1 – 2 cos² θ
Answer:

= sin² θ – cos² θ = 1 – cos² θ – cos² θ
= 1 – 2 cos²θ
L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved.

Question 25.
The standard deviation and coefficient of variation of a data are 1.2 and 25.6 respectively. Find the value of mean.
Answer:
Standard deviation (σ) = 1.2
Coefficient of variation = 25.6
\(\frac{\sigma}{x} \times 100\) = 25.6
\(\frac{1.2}{\bar{x}} \times 100\) = 25.6 ⇒ 25.6 × x̄ = 1.2 × 100
x̄ = \(\frac{120}{25.6}=\frac{120 \times 10}{256}\) = 4.687 = 4.69
Value of mean = 4.69

Question 26.
Three dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting the same number.
Answer:
Sample space = {(1, 1, 1) (1, 1,2) (1, 1,3). .. . (6,6, 6)}
n(S) = 216
Let A be the event of getting the same number on all the three dice
A = {(1,1,1),(2,2,2),(3,3,3),(4,4,4)(5,5,5)(6,6,6fl
n(A) = 6
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{6}{216}=\frac{1}{36}\)

Question 27.
If the curved surface area of a solid hemisphere is 2772 sq. cm, then find its total surface area.
Answer:
Curved surface area ofa hemisphere = 2772 sq.cm
2πr² = 2772
πr² = \(\frac{2772}{2}\) = 1386
T.S.A of the hemisphere = 3πr² sq. units
= 3 × 1386 cm²
= 4158 cm²

Question 28.
Which term of the geometric sequence 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\) ?
Answer:
The given G.P is 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\)
Here a = 5, r = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)
t_n = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)
a.r_n-a = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let f: A → B be a function defined by f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1, where A = {2,4,6,10,12}, B = {0,1,2,4,5,9} . Represent f by
(i) set of ordered pairs
(ii) a table
(iii) an arrow diagram
(iv) a graph
Answer:
(i) f = {(2,0)(4, 1)(6,2)(10,4)(12,5)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Question 30.
Given f(x) = x – 1, g(x) = 3x + 1 and h(x) = x² show that (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
The product of three consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression is 343 and their sum is \(\frac{91}{3}\) Find the three terms.

Question 32.
Find the sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4?

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.

Question 34.
A passenger train takes 1 hr more than an express train to travel a distance of 240 km from Chennai to Virudhachalam. The speed of passenger train is less than that of an express train by 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of both the trains.

Question 35.
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P,Q are points on AD and BC respectively, such that PQ || DC if PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, find AD.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(-4,2) and B(6, -4).

Question 37.
From the top of a tower 50 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tree and observed to be 30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the tree. ( √3 = 1.732)

Question 38.
A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with juice. The juice is poured into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both the bowl and the cylinder then find the percentage of juice that can be transferred from the bowl into the cylindrical 1 vessel.

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7,9,… 35,37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.

Question 40.
The function f: [-7, 6] → R is defined as follows.

Question 41.
The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. When both the numerator and denominator are decreased by 6, then the denominator becomes 12 times the numerator determine the fraction.

Question 42.
If for distribution Σx – 7 = 3 ; (Σx – 7)² = 57 and total number of the item is 20; find the mean and standard deviation.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of diameter 6 cm from a point P, which is 8 cm away from its centre. Draw the two tangents PA and PB to the circle and measure their lengths.

[OR]

(b) Construct a triangle ∆PQR such that QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 30° and the altitude from P to QR is of length 4.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² and hence solve x² – 4x – 5 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve the equation x² + 2x + 4 = 0.