Category: Class 10

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Food Security and Nutrition Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Food Security and Nutrition

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Food Security and Nutrition Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………….. of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
(a) Availability of food
(b) Access to food
(c) Absorption of food
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Availability of food

Question 2.
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the ……………
(a) FCI
(b) Consumer Cooperatives
(c) ICICI
(d) IFCI
Answer:
(a) FCI

Question 3.
Which is correct?
(i) HYV-High Yielding Varieties
(ii) MSP-Minimum Support Price
(iii) PDS-Public Distribution System
(iv) FGi-Food Corporation of India
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 4.
…………… extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Singapore
(d) UK
Answer:
(a) United States of America

Question 5.
……………….. revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
(a) Blue Revolution
(b) White Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Grey Revolution
Answer:
(c) Green Revolution

Question 6.
………….. is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
……………….. is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
(a) Health
(b) Nutrition
(c) Sanitation
(d) Security
Answer:
(b) Nutrition

Question 8.
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in …………..
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 9.
……………….. status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources development.
(a) Health
(b) Nutritional
(c) Economic
(d) Wealth
Answer:
(a) Health

Question 10.
Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ……….. service at free of cost.
(a) 106 ambulance
(b) 108 ambulance
(c) 107 ambulance
(d) 105 ambulance
Answer:
(b) 108 ambulance

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.
2. ……………… is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
3. In the year ……………… National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
4. ……………… play an important role in the supply of quality goods at reasonable rates to common people.
5. ……………… is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services that one unit of money can buy.

Answers:

1. Ford
2. Underweight
3. 2013
4. Consumer co-operatives
5. Purchasing Power

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing power is affected.
(a) A is correct, R is false
(b) Both A and R are false statements
(c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer in Short

Question 1.
Define food security according to FAO.
Answer:
The United Nation’s Food and Agriculture Organisation defines food security as follows:
“Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.” (FAO, 2009)

Question 2.
what are the basic components of food and nutrition security?
Answer:
The hasic components of food and nutrition security are

1. Availability of food
2. Access to food
3. Absorption of food

Question 3.
Explain ‘ship to mouth’ phenomenon.
Answer:
United States of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 (PL 480) scheme to India during early 1960s. This situation was popularly known as ‘Ship to Mouth’ existence.

Question 4.
What is the role of FCl in Green Revolution?
Answer:
The Food Corporation of India helped the State to procure the harvested grains at the beginning of the cropping season. The FCI built huge storage godowns and built buffer stocks of food grain during the harvest season to be distributed throughout the year.

Question 5.
What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

1. It increase the production and cultivation
2. It increase the productivity
3. Changes in cropping system
4. Industrial development

Question 6.
Write a note on Differential Universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
Answer:

1. Under Universal Public Distribution System all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.
2. Under Targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving the others.
3. Tamil Nadu is following Universal PDS.

Question 7.
Write a short note on purchasing power.
Answer:
Purchasing power is the value of a currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods or services that one unit of money can buy. Price increases purchasing power declines and vice versa.

Question 8.
What are the main reasons for the New Agricultural Policy?
Answer:

1. To raise agricultural production and productivity.
2. To remove export restrictions such as export duty, export ban and quota restriction on organic and processed agricultural products.
3. All round development of the agriculture sector.

Question 9.
Write short note on multi-dimensional nature of poverty.
Answer:
Multi-dimensional poverty measures can be used to create a more comprehensive picture. They reveal who is poor, how they are poor and the range of disadvantages they experience. As well as providing a headline measure of poverty, multi-dimensional measures can be broken down to reveal the poverty level in different areas of a country, and among different subgroups of people.

Question 10.
Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS), Mid-Day Meals Scheme, Reproductive and child Health Programmes (RHP) and National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutritious Meal Programme (PTMGRNMP), Mid day meal programme.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.
Answer:

1. For a country’s overall development process food security of people is one of the key determining factor.
2. After independence, even though India focused on Agriculture, industrialization was also given priority.
3. But the problem of drought experienced in India forced her to be dependent on imports of food grains.
4. Therefore India had to plead for food grains from richer countries at concessional rates.
5. United states of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 to India. This situation was popularly known as ship to mouth existence.
6. An American Organisation Ford Foundation formulated a plan to increase food production in the country by introducing High Yielding varieties of wheat and rice.
7. When the results was very good in India, the idea of Green Revolution also bom in India.

Question 2.
Explain Minimum Support Price.
Answer:
Minimum Support Price is a price fixed by an expert group for a particular crop by considering various costs involved in the cultivation of that crop. After announcing the MSP, the State will open procurement centres in places where these crops are widely grown. However, the farmers are free to sell in the open market if they get a better price for their crop produce. On the other hand, if the open market price is lower than the MSP, the farmers would get an assured price (the MSP) by selling their produce to the FCI. Thus, with the implementation of MSP farmers are certain about the price they would get at the end of the crop season. Further, farmers also get insulated against any price crash during the harvest season.

Question 3.
Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. Public Distribution system refers to the Ration Shops.
2. The step taken by the Government to distribute food grains at subsidised rates is through this Public Distribution System.
3. The nature, scope and functioning of PDS varies from State to State.
4. There are two types of Public Distribution System.
5. They are universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
6. Under universal PDS, all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.
7. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria, leaving others.
8. Tamil Nadu continues to have the universal system of PDS and supplies rice at free of cost to all card holders.
9. Both the Union and the State Governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS.
10. The National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2013.
11. According to this Act 50% of urban households and 75% of the rural households are known as priority households based on a set of criteria.
12. They are supplied rice at ₹3 per kg, and wheat at ₹2 per kg, and millets at ₹1 per kg.
13. The Government of Tamil Nadu has declared that SMART family cards in lieu of existing family cards.

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting the purchasing power and explain them.
Answer:
• Over population: The population growth rate in India is high as 1.7 per 1000. Large population leads to increasing demand, but supply was not equal to the demand. So, the normal price level will be going an higher. So it affect purchasing power, especially in rural population.

• Increasing prices of essential goods: Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods. The continuous rise in the prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affect the poor people. During 2015-16 an average rate of 2% flood inflation, the prices of pulses rose by about 40%.

• Demand for goods: When demand for goods increases, the price of goods increases then the purchasing power is affected.

• Price of goods affect the value of currency: When the price increases the purchasing power decreases and finally the value of currency decreases and vice versa.

• Production and supply of goods: The production and supply of goods decline, the price of goods increases, then the purchasing power is affected.

• Poverty and inequality: There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy. The proportion of income and assets owned by the top 10% of Indian goes on increasing. This has led to an increase in the poverty level in society. Generally purchasing power is affected by poverty and unequal distribution of wealth also.

Purchasing power affects every aspect of economics, from consumers buying goods to investors and stock prices to a country’s economic prosperity. As such, a country’s government institutes policies and regulations to protect a currency’s purchasing power and keep an economy healthy. One method to monitor purchasing power is through the Consumer Price Index.

Question 5.
Write briefly some of the important objectives of India’s agricultural policy.
Answer:
The New Agricultural Policy was announced by the Government of India in 2018. The main objectives of the policy are:

1. Raising the productivity of inputs: Inputs for the growth of crops of such as HYV seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation projects should be improved.
2. Raising value – added per hectare: The policy aims at increasing the value addition per hectare by raising the productivity in small and marginal holding instead of raising physical output in general.
3. Protecting the interest of the poor farmers: The policy help the poor and marginal farmers by abolishing intermediaries, extended credit support and land reforms,
4. Modernising Agriculture sector: Introduction of modem technology in agricultural operations and application of improved agricultural inputs like HYV seeds, fertilizers etc.
5. Environmental Degradation: One of the objective of the agricultural policy is to check the environmental degradation of natural base.
6. Removing bureaucracy: Bureaucratic obstacles on the farmers co-operative societies and self – help institutions is to be removed so that farmers can work freely.

Question 6.
Discuss about the Multi-dimentional Poverty Index India and Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 report prepared by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative makes the following observations about India.
India has reduced its poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28% in 10 years, with 271 million people moving out of poverty between 2005-06 and 2015-16.

• India still had 364 million poor people in 2015-16, the largest for any country, although it is down from 635 million in 2005-06.

• Of the 364 million people who were MPI poor in 2015-16,156 million were children whereas in 2005-06 there were 292 million poor children in India. This represents a 47% decrease or 136 million fewer children growing up in multi-dimensional poverty.

• 80% of people belonging to ST were poor in 2005-06 and 50% of them were still poor in 2015-16.

• Bihar with more than half its population in poverty was the poorest state in 2015-16.

• The four poorest states Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh were still home to 196 million MPI poor people, which was over half of all the MPI poor people in India.

• Kerala, one of the least poor regions in 2006, reduced its MPI by around 92%.

Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 Report in Tamil Nadu:
Over the last decades, Tamil Nadu has made a significant progress in poverty reduction. The districts in Tamil Nadu are classified into three categories, namely high-poverty districts (more than 40% of the population living below poverty line), moderately poor districts (30% to 40%) and low level poverty districts (below 30%).

After 1994, poverty has declined steadily in both rural and urban areas of Tamil Nadu and the state has a smaller share of India’s poor relative to its-population. After 2005, the poverty reduction in this state has been faster than in many other states in India. Tamil Nadu leads in the poverty alleviation programmes during 2014-2017. Government of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate poverty.
These policies and programmes, if continued, will completely eradicate the poverty in the state. In future, Tamil Nadu can become a model of development in India.

Question 7.
Briefly explain the nutritional and health status of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Nutrition plays a crucial role in human health and well being.
2. Tamil Nadu has played a pioneering role in bringing about significant changes in the health and nutrition status.
3. Children below six years of age, pregnant women, lactating mothers and adolescent girls are mainly taken care of.
4. Tamil Nadu’s budget allocation for health and nutrition is the highest in the country.
5. The performance of the Integrated Child Development Services, and the Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutritious Meal Programme (PTMGRNMP) are considered one of the best in the country.
6. In Tamil Nadu, ICDs is being implemented through 54,439 child centres, that is 49,499 Anganwadi centres and 4,940 mini Anganwadi centres.
7. There are 434 Child Development Blocks in which 385 in rural areas, 47 urban areas and 2 in tribal areas.
8. The Government of Tamil Nadu’s policy for “A Malnutrition free Tamil Nadu” guides the State’s long term Multi – sectoral strategy for eliminating malnutrition,
9. Amartya Sen, Noble prize winning Economist stated that he sees a political will and commitment in the state of Tamil Nadu to tackle these issues to achieve the status of a “Malnutrition” “Free state”.

VII. Activity and Projects

Question 1.
Visit nearby “Uzhavar Sandhai” and collect the information about the functions of market.
Answer:
Uzhavar Sandhai is a scheme of the Government of Tamil Nadu to promote direct contact between farmers and consumers in Tamil Nadu.

Functions of Uzhavar Sandhai:

1. Uzhavar Sandhai also called as Farmer’s market was started at Madurai in 1999 to help the farmers to sell their produce at reasonable rate without the interference of the middlemen.
2. Uzhavar Sandhai starts its functioning from early morning.
3. It facilitates direct contact between farmers and the public.
4. It provides fresh vegetables and fruits at reasonable price daily without any interference from the middlemen.
5. Prices are listed down in the blackboards in every shop.
6. It provides correct measurement to the consumers with the price lesser than the retail price in the market.
7. It also acts as a technical training centre to the farmers.
8. Some of the Uzhavar Sandhai’s also sell seeds and other inputs to the farmers.
9. Farmers those who produce less can also sell in these farmer’s market and benefit themselves.

Question 2.
Collect information about health centre functioning nearby your location.
Answer:
Health centres provide continuous and comprehensive care to the patients. It helps in making the patients available with the social welfare and pubilc health services initiated by the Governing bodies.

Functions of Health Centre:

1. Provision of medical care.
2. Education about health.
3. Prevention and control of locally epedemic diseases.
4. Safe water supply and basic sanitation.
5. Maternal – child health including family planning.
6. Clinical Services.
7. Aged and disability care.
8. Child care.
9. Overall Health Promotion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Food Security and Nutrition Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The minimum support price is the price announced by the Government at the ……………… of the cropping season.
(a) end
(b) beginning
(c) harvest
(d) none
Answer:
(b) beginning

Question 2.
………… The programme was implemented in selected districts where irrigation was assured.
(a) FCI
(b) HYV
(c) MSD
Answer:
(b) HYV

Question 3.
The nature, scope and functioning of the ……………… varies from State to State.
(a) FCI
(b) PDS
(c) IRDP
(d) None
Answer:
(b) PDS

Question 4.
Buffer stock scheme purpose is …………..
(a) To save food grains from pest attack
(b) To deliver food
(c) To stop price fluctuations
Answer:
(c) To stop price fluctuations

Question 5.
Around 94% of the fair – price shops are run by ……………… in Tamil Nadu.
(a) banks
(b) government
(c) co-operatives
(d) local heads
Answer:
(c) co-operatives

Question 6.
It has been proposed to open new fair price shops so that, no cardholder walks more than ……………… km.
(a) 4
(b) 3.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 1.5
Answer:
(d) 1.5

Question 7.
……………… is a method of monitoring purchasing power.
(a) Purchasing power parity
(b) Whole sale price Index
(c) Consumer price index
(d) Inflation
Answer:
(c) Consumer price index

Question 8.
In general, purchasing power is affected by :
(a) Poverty
(b) Unequal distribution of wealth
(c) Price of the goods
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
……………… is the largest economy in terms of PPP – GDP in 2019.
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) India
Answer:
(b) China

Question 10.
……………… are the factors that constitute the Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index.
(a) Quality of work
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 11.
……………… district tops in Multi-dimensional index in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Virudunagar
Answer:
(b) Kancheepuram

Question 12.
The status of ……………… in urban and Rural areas are traced with the help of the National Family Health Survey.
(a) Poverty
(b) Health
(c) Nutrition
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Nutrition

Question 13.
……………… is considered to be one of the world’s largest programme of its kind for the holistic development of the child.
(a) ICDS
(b) RCH
(c) NRHM
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) ICDS

Question 14.
Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme gives financial assistance to poor pregnant women upto :
(a) ₹ 25,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) ₹ 50,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 12,000

Question 15.
Better medical care leads to ……………… population.
(a) stable
(b) healthy
(c) disease less
(d) growth of active
Answer:
(b) healthy

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) India has reduced the poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28 % in the past 10 years.
(ii) Multidimensional poverty index reveals who is poor, how they are poor, and the disadvantages they experience.
(iii) A substantial number of Indian women and children are underweight, anaemic and deficient in micro-nutrient.
(iv) Though India has achieved self – sufficiency in food production, yet to attain food security to all.
(a) (i), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 2.
(i) Raising the productivity of inputs and modernising agricultural is one of the aim of PMGYS.
(ii) Amartya Sen is an leading nobel laureate in agricultural science.
(iii) Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition programme is assisted financially by the world bank.
(iv) The National Food Security Act was implemented in Tamil Nadu in 2016.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) only (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (iv) are wrong
(d) (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) only (iv) is correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The New Agricultural policy was announced by the Government of India in 2018.
Reason (R): The Government decided to remove export restrictions on most organic and processed agricultural products.
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.
(b) A and R are wrong.
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Government of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate poverty in India.
Reason (R): These policies if continued, Tamil Nadu can become a model of development in India in future.
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.
(b) A is wrong R is correct.
(c) A is correct but R is the correct explanation to A.
(d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.

V. Answer in Short

Question 1.
Write about the National Food Security Act in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
On 1 November 2016, Tamil Nadu became the last state in the country to implement the National Food Security Act after holding out for three years. In a government order issued on 27 October, the state specified that while it was enforcing the law, it would be modifying its provisions.

Question 2.
Define Nutrition Security.
Answer:
According to eminent agricultural scientist M.S.Swaminathan, Nutrition security is, “Physical, Economic and social access to a balanced diet, safe drinking water, environmental hygiene, primary health care and primary education.

Question 3.
What is the purchasing power parity?
Answer:
• PPP is an economic theory that estimates the amount that needs to be adjusted to the price of an item, given exchange rates of the two countries, in order for the exchange to match each currency’s purchasing power.

• PPP can be used to compare countries income levels and other relevant economics data concerning the cost of living, or possible rates of inflation and deflation.

Question 4.
What does availability of food depend upon?
Answer:
The Availability of food depends upon the domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.

Question 5.
Name the three-tier structure of consumer cooperative societies in India?
Answer:

1. Primary consumer cooperative societies
2. Central consumer cooperative stores.
3. State-level consumer federation.

Question 6.
Write a note on National Food Security Act in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2013. On Nov 1, 2016 Tamil Nadu became a last state in the country to implement the Act. On 27th October, the State specified that while enforcing the law, it would modify the provisions.

Question 7.
What is meant by Buffer stock?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains namely wheat and rice procured by the Government through the Food Corporation of India.

Question 8.
How does the Buffer stock scheme help the people?
Answer:
The Buffer stock helps to resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.

Question 9.
What is meant by Issue Price?
Answer:
Buffer stock is done to distribute food grains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of the society at a price lower than the market price also known as the Issue Price.

Question 10.
What are the three major dimensions of poverty?
Answer:
Health, Education and living standard are the major dimensions of poverty.

Question 11.
What is Padhumaiyar Kuzhu?
Answer:
Empowering adolescent girls and making them participate in the peer group services and activities as a group. This would enable them to gain confidence and became a catalyst of change.

Question 12.
What is PPP?
Answer:
PPP refers to the Purchasing Power Parity. It is an economic theory that estimates the amount that needs to be adjusted to the price of the item, given the exchange rate of the two countries.

Question 13.
What are the uses of PPP?
Answer:
PPP is used to compare countries income levels, and other relevant economic data concerning the cost of living, (or) possible rates of Inflation or deflation.

Question 14.
What is meant by Agricultural policy?
Answer:
Agricultural policy of a country is designed for increasing the agricultural production and productivity thereby raising the level of income and standard of living of the farmers within a particular period of time.

Question 15.
What are the ten indicators of Multi – Dimensional poverty index.
Answer:

1. Nutrition and child mortality under health.
2. Years of schooling and school attendance under education.
3. Cooking fuel, sanitation, water, Electricity, floor, assets under living standards.

Question 16.
Write a note on The Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Health Insurance scheme.
Answer:

1. It was launched in 2011 – 12.
2. Aims to provide free medical and surgical treatment in Government and private hospital to any family whose annual income is less than ? 72,000
3. To reach the goal of Universal Health Care to All.

Question 17.
When does Food security exists?
Answer:
Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.

Question 18.
Write a note a Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme.
Answer:

1. Gives financial assistance upto ₹ 12,000 to poor pregnant women on nutritious diet in 3 instalments.
2. This helps to avoid low birth weight of new bom babies.
3. These women can avail ante – natal care delivering and immunising the baby bom on Government hospitals.

Question 19.
What was the aim of the National leprosy Eradication Programme?
Answer:
Its aim is to detect and to provide sustained regular treatment to all leprosy patients in the State.

Question 20.
Write the names of the four poorest states of India.
Answer:
Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarpradesh and Madhyapradesh are the four states with more number of poor people live.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the role of consumer co-operation in food security of India.
Answer:

1. Consumer co-operatives play an important role in the supply of quality goods at reasonable rates to common people.
2. It has a three tier structure.
3. They are Primary Consumer Co-operative Society, Central Consumer Co-operative Stores, State Level Consumer Federations.
4. More than 50,000 village level societies are engaged in the distribution of consumer goods in rural areas.
5. There are other benefits from consumer co-operatives such as Health Care, Insurance, Housing etc.,
6. Consumer co-operatives play a very important role in Tamil Nadu can be well witnessed as to around 94% of fair price shops are being run by co-operatives.

Question 2.
Name and explain the two components of food security system in India:
Answer:
The two components of food security system in India are Buffer stock and Public distribution system.
(i) Buffer Stock:
It is the stock of food grains (wheat and rice) procured by the government through Food Corporation of India (FCI). It is used to distribute food grain in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price. This , stock is also used during among natural calamity such as drought or earthquake.

(ii) Public Distribution System:
The food produced by the FCI is distributed through government-regulated ration shops among the poorer section of the society. This is called the Public Distribution System.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Globalization and Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
(a) Ministerial conference
(b) Director General
(c) Deputy Director General
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Director General

Question 2.
How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
(a) 159
(b) 164
(c) 148
(d) 128
Answer:
(b) 164

Question 3.
Colonial advent in India:
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French
(b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
(c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English
(d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
Answer:
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French

Question 4.
Who first came to India for trading purpose?
(a) Roman Empire
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Danish
Answer:
(b) Portuguese

Question 5.
When did Portuguese colonize India?
(a) 1600 BC
(b) 1602 BC
(c) 1498 BC
(d) 1616 BC
Answer:
(c) 1498 BC

Question 6.
GATT’s first round held in
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(d) Geneva

Question 7.
India signed the Dunket proposal in:
(a) 1984
(b) 1976
(c) 1950
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 8.
Who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632?
(a) Jahangir
(b) Sultan of Golconda
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(b) Sultan of Golconda

Question 9.
Foreign investment policy (FIR) announced in
(a) June 1991
(b) July 1991
(c) July-Aug-1991
(d) Aug 1991
Answer:
(c) July-Aug-1991

Question 10.
Indian government was introduced in …………. 1991.
(a) Globalization
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) New Economic Policy
(d) none
Answer:
(c) New Economic Policy

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Dutch captured Pondicherry in ………………
2. A better economy Introduce rapid development of the ………………
3. The East india Company built fortified factory in Madras which known as ………………
4. WTO agreement came into force from ………………
5. The term globalization Invented by ………………
6. French East India company established second factory at ………………

Answer:

1. 1693
2. Capital market
3. Fort St. George
4. January 1, 1995
5. Prof. Theodore Levitt
6. Pondicherry

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The East Indian Company especially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade and later added cotton, silk, indigo.
(ii) Merchants cf the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut
(iii) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (in) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is the process of integrating various economies of the world without creating any barriers in the free flow of goods and services, technology, capital and even labour or human capital.

Question 2.
Write the types of globalization?
Answer:
The types of Globalization are:

1. Economic Globalization: Countries integrating economically
2. Social: Information and ideas integration socially all over the world.
3. Political: Political co-operation between countries.

Question 3.
Write short note on Multinational corporation.
Answer:
Multinational corporation is a corporate organisation which owns or controls production of . goods or services in at least one country other than its home country. MNCs are also called Transnational corporation (TNG) or Multinational Enterprise (MNE). Most of the MNCs at present belong to the lour major exporting countries – USA. UK. France and Germany.

Question 4.
Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Answer:
Dutch East India company was formed in 1602. Dutch established factories at Masulipatnam, Pettapoli, Devanampattinam and with the help of King of Chandragiri Pulicut factory also. The commodities exported by the Dutch were Indigo, Saltpeter, Bengal raw silk. They captured Nagapatnam from Portuguese in 1659.

Question 5.
What are the reforms made to adopt globalization?
Answer:
The following reforms were made-to adapt globalization in India.

1. Abolition of industrial licensing, except for a few industries.
2. Reduction in the number of industries reserved for public sector.
3. Fixation of a realistic exchange rate of rupee to exchange exports of Indian goods.
4. Foreign exchange regulations were suitably amended.
5. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) was reduced to increase lending by RBI.

Question 6.
What is fair trade?
Answer:
Fair trade is a way of doing business that ultimately aims to keep small farmers an active part of the world market and aims to empower consumer to make purchases that support their values.

Question 7.
Write any five principles of Fair Trade Practices.
Answer:
Five principles of Fair trade practices:

1. Creating opportunities for economically disadvantaged producers.
2. Transforming and accountability.
3. Fair trading practices and payment of fair price.
4. Ensuring no child labour and forced labour.
5. Respect for the environment.

Question 8.
What is the main objective of WTO?
Answer:
The main objective of WTO (World Trade Organisation) is to enforce rules for International trade, to resolve trade disputes and to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring trade.

Question 9.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
TRIPs – Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights – is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). It sets down minimum standards for the regulation by national Governments of many fonns of intellectual property as applied to nationals of other WTO member nations. TRIPs was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) between 1989 and 1990 and is administered by the WTO.

TRIMS – Trade Related Investment Measures – The Uruguay Round Agreement on TRIMs referes to certain conditions or restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries to develop.

Question 10.
Write the positive impact of Globalization.
Answer:

• A better economy introduces rapid development of the capital market
• Standard of living has increased
• Better trade, therefore more employment
• Introduction of new technologies
• New scientific research patterns .
• Increases GDP of a country
• Increase free flow of goods and
• Increase FDI – Foreign Direct Investment

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write briefly the history of Globalization.
Answer:
The term Globalization was introduced by Prof. Theodore Levitt. The history of Globalization can be explained in three stages namely

1. Archaic globalization
2. Proto Globalization
3. Modem Globalization

Archaic Globalization: An early form of globalized economies and culture is known as Archaic Globalization existed during the Hellenistic Age. The trade links of the earlier days can be summarised as

1. Between Sumerian and Indus Valley Civilisation
2. Greek culture stretched from India to Spain
3. Between Roman empire, Parthian empire and the Hans dynasty.
4. The advent of Mongol empire greatly facilitated travel along the silk road.

These Pre-modem phases of global exchange are called Archaic Globalization.

Proto Globalization: It arose because of the rise of maritime European empires in the 16^th and 17^th Centuries, the Portuguese, Spanish, Dutch and British empires. In the 17^th century, the British East India company is described as the first Multinational Company and the Dutch East India company were established.

Modern Globalization: It is witnessed between 19^th and 20^th century. In the 19^th century – Global trade and capital investment. In the 20^th century, higher share of trade in merchant production, Global trade in services, Rise in production and trade by MNCs and Technological changes. Agreements of trade contracts like the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and World Trade Organisation (WTO). Technological changes lowered the cost of transport charges.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the evolution of MNC and its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Multinational companies first started their activities in the extractive industries and controlled raw materials in the host countries during 1920s and then entered the manufacturing and service sectors after 1950s. Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries i.e., USA, UK, France and Germany. However, the largest is America. In 1971, the American Corporations held 52% of the total world stock of foreign direct inverstment. Great Britain held 14.5% followed by France 5% and Federal Republic of Germany 4.4% and Japan 2.7%.
Advantages of MNCs:

• MNCs produce the same quality of goods at lower cost and without transaction cost.
• They reduce prices and increase the purchasing power of consumers world wide.
• They are able to take advantage of tax variation.
• They spur job growth in the local economy.

Disadvantages of MNCs:

• They have led to the downfall of smaller, local business.
• With more companies transferring offices and centering operations in other countries, jobs for the people living in developed countries are threatened.
• MNCs often invest in developing countries where they can take advantage of cheaper labour. Some MNCs prefer to put up branches in these parts of the world where there are no stringent policies in labour and where people need jobs because these MNCs can demand for cheaper labour and lesser healthcare benefits.

Question 3.
Explain the trade and traders in South India.
Answer:

1. South India trade guilds were formed by merchants inorder to organise and expand their trading activities.
2. South India trade was dominated by the Cholas and it w’as replaced by the Pallavas.
3. Several trade guilds operated in medieval southern India such as the Gatrigas, Nakaras, Mummuridandas, Settis, Birudas, Gavaras etc.
4. In the early trade, the Kalinga traders brought red coloured stone decorative objects for trade and also cotton textile to south east Asia.
5. The discovery of a new all sea route from Europe to India via Cape of Good Hope by Vasco-do-Gama helped to flourish trade in India.
6. India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the Europeans.
7. Therefore it was due to the trading activities European companies came to India.

Question 4.
Write about the World Trade Organisation.
Answer:
The World Trade Organisation or WTO is the only global international organisation dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trending nations and satisfied in their Parliaments. The WTO began operations on January 1, 1995 after the completion of the Uruguay Round (1986-94) of Multi lateral trade negotiations.
WTO has six key objectives

1. To set and enforce for international trade.
2. To provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalisation.
3. To resolve trade disputes.
4. To increase the transparency of decision making.
5. To corporate with other major international economic institutions involved in global economic management.
6. To help developing countries benefit fully from the global trading system.

Question 5.
Write the challenges of Globalization.
Answer:

1. Globalization means the integration of the home economy with the world Economy
2. There is a general belief that the benefits of globalization extends to all countries. But that will not happen automatically.
3. There is a constant fear the globalization leads to instability in the developing world.
4. Due to globalization, the industrial world has increased global competition.
5. This leads to race in low level, labour right and employment practices among the industrial world.
6. It may led to global imbalance.
7. It may result to activities like child labour, slavery.
8. It may also affect health as consumers are tempted to use more attracti ve junk foods.
9. It may affect environment .Because more of use and throw products and packed items may affect nature and our survival.

VII. Activity and Project

Question 2.
Students are collect the images regarded to the globalization and make the album, (south Indian trade and traders images, and silk route map, spice route map, and kalinga trade map, etc).
Answer:
Students should collect pictures of South Indian

(a) Traders and make it as an album: Student can access to google and search by typing” ancient South Indian Traders” images and collect the relevant information.

Silk route map: The silk route was an ancient network of trade routes that connected the East and the West connecting Asia, Europe and Africa. It was mainly used to transport silk.

Spice route map: Spice route is the name as spices were traded with a way of sea route. Spices such as cinnamon, ginger, pepper, turmeric etc. Traded between Asia, Europe and Africa.

Kalinga route map: Trade routes of Kalinga sailors. They used to trade along their South West voyage along the East Coast of India. Their boats used to sail from Mahanadhi to Bali and right upto Nagapattinam in Cauvery delta. Also they sail along the East coast of Srilanka.

Question 3.
Students are collect the picture of various Multinational corporation companies in India and its products pictures.
Answer:
Students can collect the pictures of various Multinational corporation companies (list is given in the text book itself) and paste the pictures and make an album.

Multinational corporation in India	Products
Microsoft Corporation India	Software products
IBM – International Business Machines Corporation	Business consulting, storage solutions.
Nestle	Food products
Proctor and Gamble (P & G)	Beauty care, Grooming, healthcare and house hold care
Citi group	Banking operations
Sony corporation	Electronic products and entertainment products.
Hewlett-Packar (hp)	Laptops, monitors, desktop and Printers
Coco-cola	Non-Alcoholic beverages
Pepsico	Snacks and beverages
Apple inc	Laptop, phone, software, online services.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Globalization and Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The supporting pillars of NEP, 1991 of India is …………………
(a) LPG
(b) WTO
(c) IMF
(d) None
Answer:
(a) LPG

Question 2.
The Dames sold all their Indian settlements to ……………
(a) the British
(b) the French
(c) the Portuguese
(d) none
Answer:
(a) the British

Question 3.
The term ………………… refers to the integration of the domestic economy with the rest of the world.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalization
(d) World trade
Answer:
(c) Globalization

Question 4.
Which among the following was the largest MNC in India in 2018?
(a) Pepsi Company
(b) Tata Group
(c) Microsoft Corporation
(d) Sony Corporation
Answer:
(d) Sony Corporation

Question 5.
The term Globalization was introduced by …………………
(a) Simon Kuznets
(b) Theodore Levitt
(c) Marshall
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(b) Theodore Levitt

Question 6.
A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is called ………………
(a) Foreign Company
(b) Multinational Company
(c) Local Company
Answer:
(b) Multinational Company

Question 7.
Archaic Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not an MNC?
(a) Reebok shoes
(b) SAIL
(c) Infosys
Answer:
(b) SAIL

Question 9.
Proto Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

Question 10.
WTO is dominated by countries like …………….
(a) US and UK
(b) China and France
(c) India and Japan
Answer:
(a) US and UK

Question 11.
The 17^th century Globalization became ………………… business phenomenon.
(a) Government
(b) Private
(c) Domestic
(d) Foreign
Answer:
(b) Private

Question 12.
………………… is an example for a multinational trade agreement.
(a) GATT
(b) WTO
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) MNC
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
South India trade ………………… were formed by merchants in order to organize and expand their trade activities.
(a) routes
(b) guilds
(c) organisation
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) guilds

Question 14.
The olden days Kalinga is the present day …………………
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Orissa
(c) M.P.
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Orissa

Question 15.
Chettiars in Tamil Nadu are examples of early …………………
(a) people
(b) Traders
(c) nationalists
(d) Bankers
Answer:
(b) Traders

Question 16.
The arrival of Alvarez cabral in India in 1500 A.D. led to the establishment of trading station at …………………
(a) Cochin
(b) Calcutta
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 17.
………………… was the headquarters of the Dutch in India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) Arabia
(d) Pulicut
Answer:
(d) Pulicut

Question 18.
The Sultan of Golconda granted the English the “Golden Fireman” in …………………
(a) 1634
(b) 1632
(c) 1631
(d) 1630
Answer:
(b) 1632

Question 19.
In 1639, English build a fortified factory in Madras which was known as …………………
(a) Fort Pulicut
(b) Fort St. George
(c) Fort Masulipatnam
(d) Fort Pettapoli
Answer:
(b) Fort St. George

Question 20.
The first French factory in India was established in ………………… by obtaining permission from the Sultan of Golconda.
(a) 1634
(b) 1668
(c) 1693
(d) 1642
Answer:
(b) 1668

Question 21.
Pondicherry was the headquarters of the
(a) British
(b) Spanish
(c) French
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(c) French

Question 22.
Initially Pondicherry was captured by the ………………… and later handed over to the French.
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) Spaniards
(d) Sultan of Golconda
Answer:
(b) Dutch

Question 23.
Pondicherry became the headquarters of the France in the year …………………
(a) 1664
(b) 1693
(c) 1700
(d) 1701
Answer:
(d) 1701

Question 24.
India signed the Dunkel draft in the year …………………
(a) 1664
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1893
Answer:
(c) 1994

Question 25.
One of the reform made to adopt Globalization was …………………
(a) Abolition of Industrial licensing
(b) Reduction of Public Sector
(c) Foreign exchange regulations
(d) All the industries above
Answer:
(d) All the industries above

Question 26.
Multinational corporations are also called as …………………
(a) Transnational corporation
(b) Multi-national Enterprise
(c) MNCs
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 27.
………………… country has the largest multinational companies in the world.
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 28.
Of the below given choices, find out, which is a multinational corporation.
(a) Tata Group
(b) Nettle
(c) IBM
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 29.
GATT was established in …………………
(a) 1946
(b) 1945
(c) 1947
(d) 1948
Answer:
(c) 1947

Question 30.
Eighth round of GATT was known as ………………… Round.
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(b) Uruguay

Question 31.
………………… countries participated in the eighth round of GATT.
(a) 127
(b) 117
(c) 167
(d) 107
Answer:
(b) 117

Question 32.
The eighth round of Talks of GATT took place in the year …………………
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
Answer:
(d) 1986

Question 33.
Uruguay Round final Act was signed by the member nations in the year …………………
(a) 1986
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 34.
The Headquarters of WTO is in …………………
(a) Geneva
(b) Scotland
(c) America
(d) Holland
Answer:
(a) Geneva

Question 35.
G7 countries means ………………… countries of the world.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Under developed
(d) Less developed
Answer:
(a) Developed

Question 36.
GATT was signed by ………………… countries in 1947.
(a) 22
(b) 23
(c) 21
(d) 117
Answer:
(b) 23

Question 37.
TRIPS include the following areas of …………………
(a) Trade Secrets
(b) Copy rights
(c) patents
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 38.
Globalization increases GDP of a country by free flow of goods and also to increase …………………
(a) FDI
(b) GNP
(c) Technological improvement
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 39.
TRIMs refers to certain ………………… imposed by the government in respect of foreign investment of a country.
(a) Conditions
(b) Control
(c) Restrictions
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 40.
………………… sometimes may lead to Child labour and slavery.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalization
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Globalization

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. LPG is the supporting pillar of India’s ………………..
2. means integration of the international market for goods and services.
3. The term Globalization was introduced by Prof ………………..
4. The History of Globalization can be studied under ……………….. stages.
5. The first stage of the history of Globalization is called ……………….. Globalization.
6. The third stage of the history of Globalization is called ……………….. Globalization.
7. The Proto Globalization is the ……………….. stage of the history of Globalization.
8. The Archaic Globalization existed during the ……………….. Age.
9. The Dutch East India Company was founded in the year ………………..
10. The expansion of GATT is ………………..
11. The ……………….. is the expansion for WTO
12. South Indian trade was dominated by the ……………….. and replaced by the ………………..
13. Kalinga traders brought ……………….. coloured stone decorative objects for trade.
14. India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the ………………..
15. The Portuguese under the leadership of Vasco do Gama landed at Calicut in ………………..
16. ……………….. was the early capital of Portuguese in India.
17. The Sultan of Golconda granted the English the ……………….. in 1632.
18. In 1639, English build a fortified factory in Madras which is known as ………………..
19. ……………….. was the headquarters of Danes in India
20. The first French factory was established in ………………..
21. The first French factory was established with the permission from the Sultan of ………………..
22. ……………….. was the headquarters of the French.
23. Pondicherry became the headquarters of the French in the year ………………..
24. Recently the Government of India has set up ……………….. to boost exports.
25. India signed the Dunkel Draft in the year ………………..
26. When India was in crisis in 1990’s India mortgaged 40 tons of gold to the Bank of ………………..
27. The New Economic Policy was put forth in the year ………………..
28. The ……………….. is a corporate organisation operates in many countries other than home country.
29. Multinational Corporations are also called as ………………..
30. Of the MNC ……………….. is the largest, holding a major share of the FDI
31. India announced the Foreign Investment policy in the year ………………..
32. The growth of MNC may lead to the downfall of smaller local ……………….. of the host country.
33. The expansion of FCRA is ………………..
34. GATT was signed in the year ………………..
35. Initially, GATT was signed by ……………….. countries.
36. In the seventh round of GATT ……………….. countries participated.
37. GATT’s primary purpose was to increase International Trade by reducing ………………..
38. The headquarters of GATT is in ………………..
39. The Eighth round of GATT is called as ………………..
40. The signing of GATT in 1994 paved the way for the setting up of ………………..
41. Intellectual property right may be defined as ………………..
42. The expansion of TRIPs is ………………..
43. The expansion of TRIMs is ………………..
44. One of the negative effect of ……………….. is that it may lead to slavery and Child labour.
45. The Trade Secret is an agreement covered under ………………..

Answers:

1. New Economic Policy
2. Globalization
3. Theodore Levitt
4. Three
5. Archaic
6. Modem
7. Second
8. Hellenistic
9. 1602
10. General Agreement on Tariffs and
11. World Trade Organisation
12. Cholas, Pallavas
13. Red
14. Europeans
15. 1498
16. Cochin
17. Golden Fireman
18. Fort St.George
19. Triangular
20. 1668
21. Golconda
22. Pondicherry
23. 1701
24. Special Economic Zones
25. 1994
26. England
27. 1991
28. MNC
29. Multinational Enterprise
30. America
31. 1991
32. Business
33. Foreign Contribution Regulation Act
34. 1947
35. 23
36. 99
37. various tariffs
38. Geneva
39. Uruguay Round
40. WTO
41. Information with a commercial value
42. Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights
43. Trade Related Investment Measures
44. Globalization
45. TRIPs

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Globalization has led to environmental degradation.
(ii) GATT was signed by 73 countries in 1949
(iii) TRIPs and TRIMs are a part of WTO
(iv) It takes only a few hours to transport goods between continents today.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii) is correct
(d) (ii), (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct

Question 2.
(i) Proto Globalization was characterized by the rise of maritime European Empires.
(ii) The pre-modern phase of global exchange are sometimes known as Proto Globalization.
(iii) The Kalinga traders brought Red coloured stone decorative objects for trade
(iv) The Danes formed an East India Company and arrive in India in 1616.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii)is correct
(d) (iii), (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct

Question 3.
(i) The MNC first started their activities in controlling the industries of the host countries.
(ii) Indian Government mortgaged 40 tons of gold to the Bank of England prior to 1991.
(iii) To boost exports, recently, the Government of India announced Demonetisation and Goods and Services Tax.
(iv) The French failed in India and in 1845, they were forced to sell all their Indian settlements to the British.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) is correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) is correct

Question 4.
(i) The main reason for the growth of MNC is on the account of technological superiorities.
(ii) An MNC is able to take advantage of tax variation.
(iii) WTO provides a forum for negotiating and monitoring trade liberalisation.
(iv) The agreement of the final act of Uruguay Round was agreed by 104 member countries.
(a) (i),(ii),(iii) are correct
(b) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(d) (i) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): After 1991, there was a spurt of foreign collaborations in India and increase flow of FDI-Foreign Direct Investment.
Reason (R): The liberalized Foreign Investment Policy (FIP) was announced in India in July-August 1991.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A

Question 2.
Assertion (A); The introduction of MNC into a host country’s economy may lead to the downfall of small, local business.
Reason (R): Spurring job growth in the local economies.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the Europeans.
Reason (R): Trade guilds were channels through which Indian Culture was exported to other lands.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (vi)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

VI. Give Short answers

Question 1.
What is the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010?
Answer”
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act or FCRA, 2010 has been enacted the Parliament to consolidate the law to regulate the acceptance and utilisation of Foreign contributions or foreign hospitality by certain individuals or associations or companies and to prohibit acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality for any activities detrimental to national interest and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Question 2.
How did India’s NEP emerged?
Answer:
When India was facing a down grading economic crisis situation, the government presented a budget in July 1991 for 1991-92 with a series of policy changes which underlined liberalization, privatization and globalization. This has come to be called as India’s New Economic policy.

Question 3.
What came to be known as India’s new economic policy? How was this policy strengthened?
Answer:
With the downgrading of India’s credit rating by some international agencies, these was heavy flight of capital out of India. The Government has to mortgage 40 tons of gold to the Bank of England. Under these circumstances, the Government for 1991-92 presented its budget in July 1991 with a series of policy changes which underlined globalization, liberalisation and privatisation. This has come to be called as India’s new economic policy.

Question 4.
Write a note on SEZ?
Answer:
SEZ means Special Economic Zones . Recently the Government of India has set up special Economic Zones in southern states of especially in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala with a view to boost exports. Few SEZ in Tamil Nadu are Nanguneri SEZ, Ennore SEZ, Coimbatore SEZ.

Question 5.
How are producers beneficiaries of fair trade?
Answer:
For producers fair trade is unique in offering four important benefits.

• Stable prices that cover the costs of sustainable production.
• Market access That enables buyers to trade with producers who would otherwise be excluded from market.
• Partnerships (producers are involved) in decisions that affect their future.

Question 6.
Write any type of subsidies the WTO offers to its member countries?
Answer:

1. Tax concessions such as exemptions , credits (or) deferrals.
2. Cash subsidies such as the grants.

Question 7.
What was the idea behind developing SEZ in India?
Answer:
To attract foreign companies to invest in India.

VII. Brief Answer

Question 1.
What is fair trade? Who are the beneficiaries of fair trade practices? How?
Answer:
Fair trade is an industrial arrangement designed to help producers in developing countries achieve better trading conditions. Fair trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for fanners and workers.
With fair trade, everyone is the beneficiary. Take examples of consumers, traders and producers.
(i) Consumers – Fair trade relationship provide the basis for connecting producers with consumer and for informing consumers of the need for social justice and the opportunities for change. Consumer support enables fair trade organisation to be advocates and campaigners for wider reform of international trading rules, to achieve the ultimate goal of a just and equitable global trading system. Shoppers can buy products in line with their values and principles. They can choose from an ever growing range of great products.

(ii) Traders / Companies – Since its launch in 2002, the fair trade mark has become the most widely, recognised social and development label in the world. Fair trade offers companies a credible way to ensure that their trade has a positive impact for the people at the end of the chain.

(iii) Producers – For producers fair trade is unique in offering important benefits:
(a) stable prices that cover the costs of sustainable production,
(b) market access that enables buyers to trade with producers who would otherwise be excluded from market,
(c) partnership
(d) empowerment of farmers and workers.

Question 2.
Write a note on the beneficiaries of Fair Trade practices.
Answer:
Fair Trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for farmers and workers.

Beneficiaries of Fair Trade practices:

Consumers:

1. Consumers are the main beneficiaries.
2. This is because they can advocate and compare for wide reform of International trading rules.
3. They can choose from growing range of great products.
4. Consumers support producers by buying fair trade labelled products who are struggling to improve their lives.

Traders (or) companies:

1. Fair Trade offer companies a credible way to ensure that they have a positive impact.
2. Launched in 2002, Fair Trade mark has become the most widely, recognized social and development label in the world.

Producers:

1. It gives the farmers / producers a kind of empowerment.
2. Stable prices cover the cost of sustainable production.
3. Buyers easily access the market and trade with producers, which in turn boost production.

Question 3.
What are the factors that multinational companies take into account before setting up a factory in different countries?
Answer:
Before setting up a company or a factory, an MNC takes into account the following things:
(i) Availability of cheap labour and other resources:
MNC’s setup offices and factories for production in various regions of the world, where cheap labour and other resources are available in order to earn greater profit.

(ii) Partnership with local companies:
MNC’s setup partnership with local companies, by a closely competing with local companies or buying local companies for supply. As a result, production in these widely dispersed locations gets interlinked.

(iii) Favourable Government Policy:
If the Government Policies are favourable, it helps MNC’s. For example: Flexibility of labour laws will reduce cost of production. MNC’s are able to hire worker on casual and contractual wages for a short period instead of a regular basis. This reduces the cost of labour for the company and increases its margin of profit.

Question 4.
What are the reasons for the growth of MNC?
Answer:
Expansion of Market: For a large size firm, when its activities expand more and more , it goes beyond their country’s boundary and move to other countries market.

Marketing superiorities:

1. A MNC enjoys market reputation easily .
2. It faces loss difficulty in selling the products .
3. It can adopt very effective advertisement tactics.
4. All these help in their sales promotion.

High level of financial resources:

1. A MNC has high level of financial resources which helps them in high level of fund utilisation.
2. Easy access to external capital market.
3. Can raise more International resources to improve their production at any cost.

Advancement in Technology:

1. The High level of technology of the MNCs attract them to participate in Industrial development.
2. It helps them to offer products at a low price.

Product Innovation:

1. They can develop new products.
2. New Designs of existing products.
3. Designs that help the new generations to apply their knowledge.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 1 Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
GNP equals:
(a) NNP adjusted for inflation
(b) GDP adjusted for inflation
(c) GDP plus net factor income from abroad
(d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
Answer:
(c) GDP plus net factor income from abroad

Question 2.
National Income is a measure of ……………
(a) Total value of money
(b) Total value of producer goods
(c) Total value of consumption goods
(d) Total value of goods and services
Answer:
(d) Total value of goods and services

Question 3.
Primary sector consist of:
(a) Agriculture
(b) Automobiles
(c) Trade
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 4.
……………… approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value-added approach
(c) income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value-added approach

Question 5.
Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
(a) Agricultural sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Service sector
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Agricultural sector

Question 6.
Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at …………… lakh crore in 2018-19.
(a) 91.06
(b) 92.26
(c) 80.07
(d) 98.29
Answer:
(b) 92.26

Question 7.
India is ……………. largest producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1^st
(b) 3^rd
(c) 4^th
(d) 2^nd
Answer:
(d) 2^nd

Question 8.
India’s life expectancy at birth is ………….. years.
(a) 65
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 55
Answer:
(a) 65

Question 9.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) land-reform policy
(d) wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Question 10.
Indian economy is ……………
(a) Developing Economy
(b) Emerging Economy
(c) Dual Economy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… sector is largest sector in India.
2. GDP is the indicator of ………………… economy.
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as …………………
4. ………………… sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
5. India is ………………… largest economy of the world.
6. India is ………………… fastest growing nation of the world.
7. ………………… policy envisages rapid industrialization with modernization for attaining rapid economic growth of GDP.

Answers:

1. Service
2. economic health
3. Industrial sector
4. Service
5. 6^th
6. fifth
7. Industrial

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
The rate of saving is low in India for the following reason
(i) Low per capita income.
(ii) Poor performance and less contribution of public sector.
(iii) Poor contribution of household sector.
(iv) Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Define National income
Answer:
National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy over a period of time, normally a year. National Income is also known as Gross National Product or GNP or National Dividend.

Question 2.
What is meant by Gross Domestic product?
Answer:
The Gross Domestic product is the market value of all the goods and services produced in the country during a time period.

Question 3.
Write the importance of Gross domestic product.
Answer:
The GDP is one of primary indicators used to measure the health of a country’s economy. It represents the total dollar value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period, often referred to as the size of the economy.

Question 4.
What is Per-Capita Income?
Answer:
Per-Capita Income is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country. It is also called as output per person of an economy.

Question 5.
Define the value added approach with example.
Answer:
In the value added approach, the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final goods. Take example of a cup of tea which is a final good. The goods used to produce it are – tea powder, milk and sugar. These things (goods) are ‘intermediate goods’ since they form a part of the final good, i.e., the cup of tea. Each intermediate good the tea powder, milk and sugar, adds value to the final output, the cup of tea.

Question 6.
Name the sectors contribute to the GDP with examples.
Answer:
The three sectors that contribute to the GDP are primary sector (or) Agricultural Sector, Secondary Sector (or) Industrial Sector, Tertiary Sector (or) Service Sector. Eg: Agricultural based allied activities. Farm, fishing

1. Mining and Foresty – Primary sector.
2. Major Industries and small scale Industries – Industrial sector.
3. Transport and Communication, Post and Telegraph, Banking, Education, Entertainment, Health care and Information Technology.

Question 7.
Write the sector wise Indian GDP composition in 2017.
Answer:

Question 8.
What are the factors supporting to develop the Indian economy?
Answer:
Factors supporting to develop the Indian economy :

• A fast growing population of working age.
• India has a strong legal system and many English language speakers
• Wage costs are low here.
• India’s economy has successfully developed highly advanced and attractive clusters of business in the technology space.

Question 9.
Write the name of economic policies in India.
Answer:
Agricultural Policy, Industrial Policy, New Economic Policy, Domestic Trade Policy, International Trade Policy, Employment Policy, Currency and Banking Policy, Fiscal and Monetary policy, Wage Policy, Population policy.

Question 10.
Write a short note:
1) Gross National Happiness (GNH)
2) Human Development Index (HDI)
Answer:
1) Gross National Happiness or GNH is a global indicator of progress, which measures both sustainable economy and social developments, while protecting the environment and culture:

2) The Human Development Index or HDI is a statistic composite index of life expectancy, education and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. A country scores a higher HDI when the lifespan is higher, the education level is higher and the gross national income or GNI per capital is higher.

VI. Write in detail answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of National Income.
Answer:
(i) Gross National Product (GNP): It is the total value of goods and services produced and income received by the domestic residents of a country. It includes profit earned from capital invested abroad.
GNP = C + I + G + (X – M) + NFIA

(ii) Gross Domestic Product (GDP): It is the value of output of goods and service produced by the factors of production within the Geographical boundaries of a country.
GDP = GNP – NFIA

(iii) Net National Product (NNP): It is arrived by deducting Depreciation value from the Gross National Product.
NNP = GNP – Depreciation

(iv) Net Domestic Product ( NDP): It is arrived by deducting the value of depreciation from the Gross Domestic Product.
NDP = GDP – Depreciation

(v) Per-Capita Income: It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
PCI = N.I / population
In the above context,
C – Consumption expenditure
I – Investment expenditure
G – Government expenditure
NFIA – Net Factor Income earned from Abroad
Depreciation – Wear and Tear expenses

(vi) Personal Income: It is the total money income received by all the individual of a country from all possible sources before direct taxes.
PI = NI Corporate Income Taxes – Undistributed Corpo – rate profit – social security Contribution + Transfer payment

(vii) Disposable Income (DI): It means the actual income which can be spent on consumption by the people of the country.
DI = PI – Direct taxes

Question 2.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
Methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product or GDP:

1. Expenditure Approach – In this method, the GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specified period.
2. Income Approach – This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women who are involved in producing the goods and services.
3. Value-added Approach – In the value – added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the fiscal good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in productions gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the economy.

Question 3.
Write about the composition of GDP in India.
Answer:
The composition of GDP in India include three sectors which are listed as
(i) Agricultural Sector
(ii) Industrial Sector
(iii) Service Sector.

(i) Agricultural Sector: It is also known as primary sector. Agricultural activities, Agricultural based allied activities, cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry, mining are all included in this sector. Their total production is the pirimary sector contribution to India’s GDP.

(ii) Industrial Sector: It is also known as secondary sector. Production of goods using raw materials in the form of either Small Scale Industries, or Large Scale Industries like Iron and steel, Automobiles etc., are included in this sector. Their total production is the secondary sector contribution to India’s GDP.

(iii) Service Sector: It is also known as Tertiary sector. It includes Government, transport and communications, Scientific Research, Post and telegraph, trade, Banking, Education, Entertainment, Health care and Information Technology’ in this sector. Their total production is the service sector contribution to India’s GDP.

Sector-wise contribution of GDP (2018 – 19)
Agricultural Sector – 14.39 %
Industrial Sector – 31.46%
Sen/ice Sector – 54.15%

Question 4.
Write the differences between the growth and the development.
Answer:

Question 5.
Explain the Developmental path based on GDP and employment.
Answer:
Developmental path based on GDP and employment

1. In the development path of India, at first undertook the policy of closed trade. It means that trade and interaction with the outside world remained limited.
2. In 1991, India finally decided to open its borders to free trade and liberalised its economy by allowing foreign companied to enter the Indian economy.
3. A thrust was given to employment generation under the Five Year Plans. Rural development was also given importance in India.
4. The public sector was given significant importance. Private companies and industries were subject to strict regulations and standards. It was believed that the Government was the sole protector of the people and would work towards social welfare.
5. India has sustained rapid growth of GDP for most of the last two decades leading to rising per capita income and a reduction in absolute poverty. Per capital incomes have doubled in 12 years.

Question 6.
Explain the following policies.
Answer:
Agricultural Policy: It means a set of decisions and actions taken by the government relating to domestic agriculture and imports of agricultural products.

The policy mainly focus on the following areas:

(a) Risk Management and Adjustment
(b) Economic Stability
(c) Natural Resources
(d) Environmental Sustainability
(e) Research and Development
(f) Market for domestic agricultural commodities

In general, the agricultural policy includes Price policy, Land Reform policy, Green Revolution, Irrigation policy, Food policy, Labour policy and co operative policy.

Industrial policy: It means a set of decisions taken by the government relating to industrial sector, domestic production, trade, self-sufficiency and modernisation.

The policy mainly focus on the following areas:

1. Employment generation
2. Utilisation of Natural resources
3. Boosting the other sector development
4. Research and Development
5. Modernisation
6. Environmental protection
7. Trade
8. Development of small scale industries.

In general, the Industrial policy include Textile Industry policy, Sugar industry policy, Price policy, Small scale industries policy, Industrial Labour policy.

New Economic Policy: The New Economic Policy was introduced in 1991 which includes LPG. LPG refers to Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation. Therefore the policy is called LPG model.

The main objective of this model was to make the economy of India, the fastest developing economy of the world to become equal to the biggest economies of the world. Definitely, this model had influenced India’s Economic growth and development.

VII. Activity and Project

Question 1.
Students are collect the Gross Domestic Product datas of Tamilnadu and compare the other state of Karnataka and Kerala’s GDP.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala GDP are called SGDP- State Gross Domestic Product. This comparison help us to understand, the performance of each state and comparatively which state has performed better. Given here, is a sample of the activity and students should elaborate it and make it as perfect project.

[For refer Table – 12 CSO – Central Statistical Organisation, New Delhi ]

Question 2.
Students are collect the details of Employment growth of Tamilnadu.
Answer:

1. The Employment Growth of Tamil Nadu refers to the rate of growth of work force or labour force of the state. The students should understand that this can be compared between the two Census (2001 and 2011).
2. The state of TamilNadu total population grew from 62.41 million in 2001 to 72.15 million in 2011.
3. Between these two Censuses, the total number of workers in the slate increased by 1.18% that is from 27.88 million to 32.88 million.
4. Among the districts work participation is the lowest at 36.3% in Kanyakumari despite the fact it has high literacy level. It is nigh in Erode with 53.1% as per 2011 Census.
5. Taking the above given sample information, students should, do activity considering the labour force participation men. women ratio scpaiaiciy.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
‘Your mother is cooking’- In this statement, cooking is …………………
(a) Good
(b) Service
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Service

Question 2.
‘Economic growth is one aspect of economic development’. Who said it?
(a) Amarthya Sen
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Mehabub ul Haq
(d) Ramachandra Guha
Answer:
(a) Amarthya Sen

Question 3.
Goods and Service has a market …………………
(a) value
(b) price
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) to fix a price
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not an example of tertiary sector?
(a) Communication
(b) Banking
(c) Transport
(d) Forestry
Answer:
(d) Forestry

Question 5.
The intermediate Goods value are indirectly included in the measurement of …………………
(a) GDP
(b) GNP
(c) SGDP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(a) GDP

Question 6.
GDP of a country can be calculated by ……………..
(a) 2 Approach
(b) 3 Approach
(c) 4 Approach
Answer:
(b) 3 Approach

Question 7.
The ………………… value is derived from the price at which the Goods and Services are sold in the market.
(a) currency
(b) frequency
(c) Nation’s
(d) Trade
Answer:
(a) currency

Question 8.
National Income is otherwise called as ……………..
(a) Real Income
(b) Money Income
(c) Gross National Product
Answer:
(c) Gross National Product

Question 9.
Imagine your father knows book binding technique and after you get new books for this year, he bounded and gave you. Whether binding charges are included on the GDP?
(a) Included
(b) Partially Included
(c) Not included
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Not included

Question 10.
The method by which we arrive at National Income in India is …………..
(a) Product method
(b) Expenditure method
(c) Product and Income method
Answer:
(c) Product and Income method

Question 11.
If the ………………… goods are included in the GDP, it will result in Double counting.
(a) Final
(b) Intermediate
(c) Import
(d) Export
Answer:
(b) Intermediate

Question 12.
Commonly, National Income is called as …………………
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) PCI
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 13.
………………… is also called as National Dividend.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NFIA
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 14.
GNP ………………… net factor from abroad.
(a) Excludes
(b) includes
(c) Sums up
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a) and (c)

Question 15.
GDP ………………… net factor income from abroad.
(a) Excludes
(b) includes
(c) Sums up
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Excludes

Question 16.
GNP minus depreciation gives …………………
(a) NDP
(b) NNP
(c) GDP
(d) NFIA
Answer:
(b) NNP

Question 17.
NDP is the value of depreciation excluded from …………………
(a) GDP
(b) NNP
(c) NFIA
(d) (X-M)
Answer:
(a) GDP

Question 18.
………………… denotes the standard of living of the people.
(a) NNP
(b) NDP
(c) PCI
(d) NFIA
Answer:
(c) PCI

Question 19.
………………… represents all sources of income excluding direct taxes.
(a) GNP
(b) PCI
(c) PI
(d) DI
Answer:
(c) PI

Question 20.
Personal income minus direct taxes will give …………………
(a) DI
(b) DPI
(c) PI
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 21.
The quarterly GDP estimates for the ………………… quarter includes months January, February and March.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(d) fourth

Question 22.
The quarterly GDP estimates of the month July, August and September includes ………………… quarter.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(b) second

Question 23.
The first quarter of the GDP estimates includes the months …………………
(a) Jan, Feb, March
(b) July, Aug, Sep
(c) April, May, June
(d) Oct, Nov, Dec.
Answer:
(c) April, May, June

Question 24.
October, November, December, months are included in ………………… quarter estimates of GDP.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(c) third

Question 25.
The modern concept of GDP was first developed by Simon Kuznets in the year …………………
(a) 1930
(b) 1932
(c) 1933
(d) 1934
Answer:
(d) 1934

Question 26.
There are ………………… methods to calculate GDP.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 27.
The prices paid to the factors of production are included in the ………………… approach
(a) Income
(b) Expenditure
(c) Value added
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Income

Question 28.
………………… helps in the estimation of purchasing power.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NDP
(d) NNP
Answer:
(b) GDP

Question 29.
Adding up all the expenditures incurred in a country during a specific period of time is called ………………… method.
(a) Income
(b) Expenditure
(c) Value added
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Expenditure

Question 30.
GDP measures only the quantity but not …………………
(a) quality
(b) price
(c) market value
(d) trade
Answer:
(a) quality

Question 31.
There are ………………… sectors in an economy.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Question 32.
India is the ………………… largest producer of agricultural products.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(b) second

Question 33.
Amartya Sen is an ………………… Economist.
(a) American
(b) Australian
(c) Indian
(d) Pakistani
Answer:
(c) Indian

Question 34.
The key parameters of economic growth of an economy are its GDP and ………………… which helps in measuring the actual size of the economy.
(a) GNP
(b) NFIA
(c) Depreciation
(d) PCI
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 35.
The GDP of India is ………………… million United States dollars.
(a) 19.3
(b) 2.8
(c) 3.6
(d) 7.8
Answer:
(b) 2.8

Question 36.
The GDP of United States is ………………… million.
(a) 19.3
(b) 2.8
(c) 3.6
(d) 7.9
Answer:
(a) 19.3

Question 37.
India is ranked ………………… in Globe as regard to GDP.
(a) fourth
(b) fifth
(c) sixth
(d) third
Answer:
(c) sixth

Question 38.
United States is ranked ………………… in Globe as regard to GDP.
(a) third
(b) fourth
(c) second
(d) first
Answer:
(d) first

Question 39.
Economic Growth is ………………… in nature.
(a) quantitative
(b) qualitative
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) peculiar
Answer:
(a) quantitative

Question 40.
Economic ………………… is a broader concept.
(a) Development
(b) Growth
(c) Project
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Development

Question 41.
………………… helps to measure the real development of an economy.
(a) GDP
(b) HDI
(c) GNHI
(d) NNP
Answer:
(b) HDI

Question 42.
The concept of Economic development is mainly applicable to ………………… economies.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Under developed
(d) Less developed
Answer:
(b) Developing

Question 43.
The concept of Economic Growth is mainly applicable to ………………… economies.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Less developed
(d) Under developed
Answer:
(a) Developed

Question 44.
The concept of Human Development Index was put forward by …………………
(a) Amartya Sen
(b) Mahbub-ul-Haq
(c) Wangehuck
(d) Simon Kuznets
Answer:
(b) Mahbub-ul-Haq

Question 45.
The concept of HDI was first introduced at the …………………
(a) United Nations
(b) United Stated
(c) United Kingdom
(d) UAE
Answer:
(a) United Nations

Question 46.
The concept of HDI was introduced in the year
(a) 1960
(b) 1970
(c) 1990
(d) 1980
Answer:
(c) 1990

Question 47.
India lies in ………………… Human Development Index Category.
(a) High
(b) Low
(c) Medium
(d) Very Low
Answer:
(c) Medium

Question 48.
India’s HDI value for 2017 is …………………
(a) 0.001
(b) 0.540
(c) 0.640
(d) 0.340
Answer:
(c) 0.640

Question 49.
When a country’s HDI increases, it removes the country from …………………
(a) Development
(b) Poverty
(c) Trade disputes
(d) Stagnation
Answer:
(b) Poverty

Question 50.
GNHI is a philosophy that guides the government of …………………
(a) America
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) India
Answer:
(c) Bhutan

Question 51.
Co-operative policy is a part of ………………… policy.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) NEP
(d) Wage
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 52.
The city ………………… has emerged as a hub for global software business today.
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Bangalore
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(c) Bangalore

Question 53.
The structural reforms brought in India recently are …………………
(a) GST
(b) Demonetisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 54.
The measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry (or) sector of the economy is called …………………
(a) GDP
(b) GNP
(c) GVA
(d) NDP
Answer:
(c) GVA

Question 55.
According to IMF, India is ………………… fastest growing nation of the World.
(a) 3^rd
(b) 2^nd
(c) 4^th
(d) 5^th
Answer:
(d) 5^th

II. Fill in the blanks

1. In order to know the performance of India, one should know the ………………. of our country.
2. Goods are difference from ……………….
3. Services are ……………….
4. The GDP is the ………………. value of final goods and services produced in the country.
5. The price at which the goods are sold in the market is called ……………….
6. The GDP is measured in terms of ………………. value of our country.
7. “The final goods and services will not be a part of other goods and Services”, said by ……………….
8. The goods that are used in the production of other goods are called as ………………. goods.
9. If the intermediate goods are included in the GDP, then it will result in ……………….
10. Commonly National Income is called as ……………….
11. National Income (or) GNP is also called as ……………….
12. Profits earned from abroad is ………………. with GDP to get GNP.
13. If the total value of goods and services are calculated within the geographical boundary of a country it is called
14. The process of loosing the value of anything is called as ……………….
15. The Income of individuals from all sources before payment of taxes is called as ……………….
16. Personal income minus Direct taxes will give ……………….
17. ………………. used the term Per Capita Income for the first time in 1867-68.
18. ………………. is the name of the book written by Dadabhai Navroji.
19. GDP minus depreciation gives ……………….
20. GNP minus depreciation gives ……………….
21. ………………. is the indicator of standard of living of people in a country.
22. The formulae to calculate PCI is ……………….
23. The cost of saree brought by your brother to your mother ………………. from China will be from India’s GDP.
24. My uncle sends money to his family in India from Dubai. It is included in India’s ……………….
25. GDP is measured both annually and ……………….
26. There are ………………. quarters with which GDP is measured.
27. January, February, March refers to the ………………. quarter of the measurement of GDP.
28. April to June measured as the ………………. quarter in measurement of GDP.
29. The path of development of India in recent years is moving from agricultural sector to ………………. sector.
30. Wage costs are ………………. in India.
31. GNHf is a philosophy instituted as the goal of government of ……………….
32. India is now experiencing a period of ……………….
33. As per HDI, India is in the ………………. human development category.
34. In ………………. India, opened up to free trade policy.
35. Economic development is a ………………. preocess.
36. In India, ………………. city is considered as a hub for global software businesses.
37. The new model of economic reforms put forward in 1991 by India is called as ………………. model.
38. According to IMF, GDP growth rate of India in 2018 is projected at ……………….
39. According to World economic outlook, India is ………………. fastest growing nation of the World.
40. According to IMF World Economic Outlook ………………. is in the rank as a fastest growing nation of the world.

Answers:

1. GDP
2. Services
3. Intangible
4. Market
5. Market value
6. Rupee
7. Tyler Cowen and Alex Tabarrok
8. Intermediate
9. Double counting
10. Gross National Product
11. National Dividend
12. Included
13. GDP
14. Depreciation
15. Personal income
16. Disposable income
17. Dadabhai Navroji
18. Poverty and Unemployment
19. NDP
20. NNP
21. Per Capita Income
22. N.I. / population
23. Excluded
24. GNP
25. Quarterly
26. Four
27. Fourth
28. First
29. Service
30. Low
31. Bhutan
32. Demographic transition
33. Medium
34. 1991
35. Continuous
36. Bangalore
37. LPG
38. 7.3%
39. Fifth
40. Bangladesh

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Only the final goods are included in the GDP.
(ii) If the value of the Intermediate goods are included,, it will result in double counting,
(iii) The rupee values are desired from the prices at which the goods and services are sold in the market.
(iv) There is no sensible way to add the quantities of goods produced with those of the services produced.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Personal income minus direct taxes gives the disposable income.
(ii) GDP of India includes the market value of all the goods and services produced in the global level.
(iii) Disposable Income minus Transfer payments plus subsidies gives personal income.
(iv) The Quantum of wear and tear expenses are called Depreciation.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) income methods sums up all forms of income earned by individuals who are involved in the production of goods and services.
(ii) There are several methods to calculate National income or GDP.
(iii) The Modern concept of GDP was first developed by Simon Kuznets in 1934.
(iv) The annual GDP of financial year 2017-18 will include only the goods and services produced during that financial year.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct

Question 4.
(i) GDP measures only quantity but not quality.
(ii) CSO conducts annual survey based on Indexes like Index on Industrial Production (llP) and Consumer Price Index (CPl).
(iii) High level of Per Capita real GDP will lead to low level of pollution and low suicidal rate.
(iv) India is the largest producer of agricultural products in the world.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Economic Growth is one aspect of Economic Development-Said by Economist Amartya Sen.
(ii) HDl is apt tool to measure the real development in an economy.
(iii) United States of America ranks top in the globe in terms of its GDP.
(iv) Economic development is quantitative in nature.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) Poverty alleviation came as a corollary of rural development.
(ii) In 2011, The UN Genera! Assembly passed Resolution Happiness towards a Holistic approach to development.
(iii) There are nine domains in GNHI
(iv) There are two structural reforms recently brought in India- demonetisation and Goods and Services Tax.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Economic Development is a broader concept.
Reason (R): It is long-term in nature and includes variables like removal of poverty, Rise in life expectancy rate etc.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct.
(d) A is wrong and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are two major structural reforms brought in India recently. They are demonetization and Goods and Services Tax.
Reason (R): India economy is the 5th fastest growing nation of the World.
(a) A is correct, and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct.
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Intermediate goods are not counted in calculating the GDP.
Reason (R): Their value is already included in the final goods.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Economic Growth is a quantitative measure.
Reason (R): It considers the increase in the output produced in an economy in a particular period of time.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

VI. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
What is Gross Value Added?
Answer:
Gross Value Added or GVA is the measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry of sector of an economy. In national accounts GVA is output minus intermediate consumption; it is a balancing item of the national accounts’ production account.

Question 2.
Distinguish between goods and services.
Answer:

Goods	Services
Goods are tangible	Services are intangible
Goods can be separated from its owner	Services cannot be separated from its owner
Eg: Table, chair, Apple etc.,	Service of a teacher, Lawyer, cook in a hotel etc.,
Goods are products	Services are activities

Question 3.
In what two ways is the GDP measured in India?
Answer:
In India GDP is measured both annualy and quarterly. The annual GDP is for a financial year which is from April 1 of one year, for example 2017 to March 31 of the next year, for example 2018.
This is written as 2017-18.
The quarterly GDP estimates are for each of the four quarters into which India’s financial year is divided.
First quarter, denoted Q1 : April, May and June .
Second Quarter – Q2 : July, August and September
Third Quarter – Q3 : October, November and December
Fourth Quarter – Q4 : January, February and March

Question 4.
What is meant by Intermediate good? Give example.
Answer:
The goods which will be used for the production of other goods are called Intermediate goods. Eg: Sugar.

Question 5.
How do you arrive at NNP?
Answer:
We arrive at the NNP by deducting the value of depreciation from Gross National Products. NNP = GNP (-) Depreciation.

Question 6.
What is meant by GVA?
Answer:
Gross Value Added is called as GVA. It is the measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area (or) sector of an economy.
GVA = GDP + Subsidies – Taxes.

Question 7.
Give examples for tertiary sector.
Answer:
Tertiary sector include Trade, Hotel industry, Transport, Storage, Communication, Finance, Insurance, Real estate, Social services, Postal and Telegraph, Banking, Education, Entertainment, Health care and Information Technology, etc.

Question 8.
What is the financial year of India?
Answer:
The financial year is the year of the calculation of GDP. In India it starts from April 1^st and ends on March 31^st.

Question 9.
What is Depreciation?
Answer:
Decline in the value of capital assets (machineries) due to tear and wear is measured as depreciation.

Question 10.
Write few parameters to measure economic growth?
Answer:
Human Resources, Natural Resources, Advancement in technology, Capital formation, Political and social economic factors are few parameters to measure economic growth.

Question 11.
What is Disposable Income (DI)?
Answer:
Disposable Income means actual income which can be spent on consumption by individuals and families, thus, it can be expressed as DPI = PI – Direct Taxes.

VII. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the limitations of GDP.
Answer:
(i) Non – Marketed items are left out of GDP: GDP includes only the goods and services that are sold in the market, Non-Marketed items are not included. Eg: Services provided by parents to their children, clean air has no market value (or) price. Hence it is left out of GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity not quality: At times, we can see some products which are available at large quantities in the product, at a very low price. Only the quantity sold and its price is measured in GDP. Quality of the product is not taken care of.

(iii) Income Distribution: The GDP of a country may be growing rapidly. But income may not be distributed equally. This brings a lot of unequal distribution of income and wealth. GDP actually do not suggest on income distribution.

(iv) Way of life of the people: A high level of Per-Capita real GDP, may lead to a very low health condition of the people, an undemocratic political system, High pollution, High suicidal rate.

Question 2.
How are three sectors of an economy are interdependent?
Answer:
There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector.
The secondary sector covers activity in which the natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary.

The third category of activities falls under tertiary sector. These activities help in the development of the primary- and secondaiy sectors. These activities by themselves, do not produce goods but they are an aid or a support for the production process, for example, transport and communication, etc.

Thus, we can clearly say tiiat the three sectors of an economy are highly interdependent.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
McMahon Line is a border between
(a) Burma and India
(b) India and nepal
(c) India and China
(d) India and Bhutan
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 2.
India is not a member of which of the following …………..
1. G20
2. ASEAN
3. SAARC
4. BRICS
Select the correct option
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 1
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer:
2 only

Question 3.
OPEC is:
(a) An international insurance Co.
(b) An international sports club
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
(d) An international company
Answer:
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries

Question 4.
With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 5.
Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.

(a) 3 14 2
(b) 3 12 4
(c) 3 4 12
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(a) 3 14 2

Question 6.
How many countries share its border with India?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 7.
Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island
(b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
(c) Maldieves and Nicobar island
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
Answer:
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves

Question 8.
Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
Answer:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh and (d) Sikkim

Question 9.
How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(a) Five

Question 10.
Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
(c) Clement Atlee
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ……………….
3. ………………. is a buffer country between India and China.
4. A strip of land ………………. belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
5. ………………. is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by ……………….

Answer:

1. Bhutan
2. Myanmar
3. Nepal
4. Teen Bigha Corridor
5. Bhutan
6. Palk strait

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of transport?
1. Roads
2. Railways
3. Shipping
4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 1,3 and 4 only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1: ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2: Myanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3: Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4: Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4
Answer:
(c) 1, 3 and 4

Question 4.
Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial production.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both are correct

IV. Match the following

A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:

• India is a vast country with Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north-west
• China, Nepal, Bhutan to the north
• Bangladesh to the east
• Myanmar to the far east
• Sri Lanka (from south-east) and Maldives (from south-west) are two countries that lie close to India separated by the Indian Ocean.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Strategic partnership Agreement (SPA).
Answer:

1. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the strategic partnership , agreement.
2. SPA provide assistance to rebuild Afghan’s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture, water, education, health and providing duty – free access to the Indian market.

Question 3.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:

• Brazil
• Russia
• India
• China
• South Africa

Question 4.
What do you know about Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport?
Answer:

1. India is building the kaladan multi – model transit transport, a road-river- port cargo transport project to link kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar.
2. A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho chi minh city on the south sea for the formation of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam and work on the first phase connecting Guwahati with Mandalay is currently underway.

Question 5.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:
A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan . and Iran, which has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port. This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 6.
List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
Answer:
IBSA, BCIM, MGC, BBIN, and SCO.

Question 7.
What is the role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM)?
Answer:
In the manufacturing sector Japan announced its co-operation of training 30,000 Indian people in the Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to ‘Make in India’ and ‘Skill India’ initiatives. In 2017, the first four JIMs were started in the states of Gujarat, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Highlight India and International organisation with special reference to any three India’s global groupings.
Answer:

1. India is a potential superpower and has a growing international influence all around the world.
2. India has is a member of formal groupings like UNO, NAM, SAARC, G20 and the commonwealth.
3. India is an activity engaged in general economic diplomacy, which is evident in the country being part of several economic coalitions, as listed in the table below.

Question 2.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.
Objectives of BRICS

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 3.
Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries?
Answer:
OPEC’S Mission:

1. To coordinate oil policies in its member countries.
2. Help stabilise oil markets.
3. To secure fair and stable income to petroleum producers.
4. An efficient, economic and regular supply of oil to consuming nations.
5. A fair return on capital to those investing in the petroleum industry.

How does OPEC help other countries?

1. The OPEC, fund for International Development (OPID) is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
2. It also provides grants to social and humanitarian projects..
3. OPEC has an information centre with over 20,000 volumes including books reports, maps and conference, proceedings related to petroleum energy and the oil markets.
4. The information centre is open to the public and is often used by researchers and students.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to collect information from newspapers about India’s relation with world countries.
Answer:
Students should find any article from Tamil (or) English newspaper about India’s relation with world countries.

Eg: Foreign Minister’s visit to India.

[OR]

Indian Prime Minister or President’s visit to foreign countries. After finding the information, cut down the article with its date and year of publication and the name of the newspaper. A minimum of five such news articles can be collected and can be pasted in a notebook to prepare an album to submit as project to the subject teacher.

A sample news taken from the English newspaper.

Times of India
Date: Sep. 17,2019

AGARTALA: Bangladesh Information Minister Hasan Mahmud said ties between India and Bangladesh is becoming better by the day under the leadership of Narendra Modi and Sheikh Hasina.

Inaugurating a 3 – day film festival here, the Minister said Bangladesh believes in having good relations with its neighbours and films play a great role in that. The film festival will feature 20 films made on the Bangladesh Liberation war.

Question 2.
Group project involving students to prepare an album with pictures on India’s latest projects with its neighboring countries.
Answer:
India’s latest project with its neighbouring countries: The Government of India gives high importance to strengthen the friendly relations and to promote understanding with neighbouring countries. As part of this policy, the Government has undertaken several development projects with our neighbouring countries. Details of projects (a sample) is given below.

Note: Students should find and collect information (or) pictures related to the project of Gol (Government of India) with its neighbouring countries taking the sample few projects given here (or) other projects also. Students should paste the pictures in a note book underlining the project, prepare it as an album, submit to the subject teacher.

Projects

Bhutan: Projects completed in Bhutan with GOI assistance include Paro airport, Bhutan broadcasting station, major highways, and construction of Mini – Hydel projects. Penden cement plant with 300 tonnes capacity was completed in 1982 with GOI assistance.

Bangladesh: India is gifting 10 ambulances to Bangladesh.

Maldives: The 200 – bed Indira Gandhi Memorial Hospital (IGMH) was set up in Maldives in 1995 at a cost of about ₹40 crores.

Nepal: The recently completed projects include 22 bridges on the East – West Highway. Setting up of trauma – center at Bir hospital in Kathmandu.

Sri Lanka: GOI has committed US $ 7.5 million to set up an India cancer centre in Colombo.

The above mentioned are only guidelines that could help a student to find what type of projects are generally undertaken.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Independent India has been consistently fostering.
(a) World peace
(b) International co-operation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
………… development of nations can be achieved only through world peace.
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Political
Answer:
(a) Economic

Question 3.
How many kilometre that Pipeline between Siliguri in West Bengal and ‘ Parbatipur (Bangladesh).
(a) 130
(b) 150
(c) 170
(d) 190
Answer:
(a) 130

Question 4.
China became republic in ……………
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c)1950
Answer:
(b) 1949

Question 5.
How many hydro electric projects the Government of India has constricted in Bhutan.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
…………….. is located South of Lakshadweep islands in the Indian ocean.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Myanmar
(c) Maldives
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Maldives

Question 7.
India’s second-largest border is shared with:
(a) Maldives
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(b) Myanmar

Question 8.
In …………… a 25 years treaty of friendship, co-operation and peace was signed by India and Bangladesh at …………..
(a) 1971, New Delhi
(b) 1972, Dacca
(c) 1982, Lahore
Answer:
(b) 1972, Dacca

Question 9.
The 204 – kilometre long Mahendra Raj marg to link …………….. and India
(a) Kathmandu
(b) Kalandan
(c) Sittwe
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Kathmandu

Question 10.
In which agreement India tried to bring positive change in the relationship of Pakistan.
(a) Strategic Partnership Agreement
(b) Shimla Agreement
(c) International Agreement
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Shimla Agreement

Question 11.
Which king had sent his son and daughter to ceylon (Sri Lanka) for the propagation of Buddhism.
(a) Chandra Gupta Mourya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Kanishka
(d) none
Answer:
(b) Ashoka

Question 12.
The cease fire line determined in ……………………….. was called the LOC.
(a) 1947
(b) 1945
(c) 1949
(d) 1943
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 13.
……………… gives India access to advance communication technology used in U.S defence equipment.
(a) COMCASA
(b) AVSINDEX
(c) JIM
(d) MAHSR
Answer:
(a) COMCASA

Question 14.
India and France launched the international ……………… between Tropic of cancer and Tropic of capricorn.
(a) Solar Alliance
(b) Railway
(c) domestic development
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Solar Alliance

Question 15.
Which country decided to introduce the Japan’s Shikansen system.
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) West Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) India

Question 16.
Which institute providing manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry (Make in India).
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) MAHSR
(d) COMCASA
Answer:
(a) JIM

Question 17.
Which course was introduced in engineering colleges was established in Andhrapradesh.
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(b) JEC

Question 18.
Which port is seen as golden gate way for India?
(a) Chabahar
(b) Kandla
(c) Gwadar
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Chabahar

Question 19.
Mention the C of the BRICS:
(a) China
(b) Vienna
(c) Japan
(d) Europe
Answer:
(a) China

Question 20.
Which economist was coined BRICS?
(a) British
(b) French
(c) German
(d) Russian
Answer:
(a) British

Question 21.
NDB gives priority to projects aimed at developing ……………… sources.
(a) Renewable
(b) Non – Renewable
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Renewable

Question 22.
The contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) for providing protection against ……………… pressures.
(a) liquidity
(b) currency issues
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Trade
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 23.
Which centre has cover 20,000 volumes including books, maps related to petroleum.
(a) Information centre (OPEC)
(b) Research Centre (OPEC)
(c) Universities (OPEC)
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Information centre (OPEC)

Question 24.
……………… is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
(a) Nepal
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) India

Question 25.
India strongly focuses on production.
(a) Agriculture
(b) industrial
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) rural
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 26.
India extend its support to the in all her efforts.
(a) U.N.O
(b) W. T. O
(c) world bank
(d) none
Answer:
(a) U.N.O

Question 27.
Who is an active member of BRICS.
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(c) India

Question 28.
Which bank is lending for infrastructure project?
(a) The New Development Bank
(b) Contingent Reserve Arrangement
(c) global liquidity currency
(d) none
Answer:
(a) The New Development Bank

Question 29.
How many seats per year to Indian national for a master’s degree in university of Japan.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 20

Question 30.
Who is a super power and has a growing international influence all around the world.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Pakistan
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. has always been known as a peace – loving country.
2. India’s position is ……………….. in its neighbourhood.
3. ……………….. is surrounded by many neighbouring countries.
4. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the ………………..
5. ……………….. of Baluchistan active supporter of the Indian National congress.
6. ……………….. has built kandahar international cricket stadium.
7. India and ……………….. share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint River commission is working to maximise benefits.
8. ……………….. has initiated a Tajore chair in university of Dhaka (Scholarship).
9. ……………….. is India’s gate way to Western countries.
10.  ……………….. one of the partner in Nalanda university project of India.
11.  ……………….. represents one of the main indicators of bilateral co-operation between India and Bhutan.
12. India declared the bilateral trade relation known as ………………..
13. China being the ……………….. of the world.
14. ……………….. is a small land locked country.
15. Nepali and Indian people visit each other’s country for religions ………………..
16. India included ……………….. in the VIII schedule of the constitution.
17. There are a number of ……………….. along Indo- Nepal border.
18. A joint hydropower project is being built on the ……………….. River.
19. The Government of India and Nepal have signed ……………….. agreements.
20. ……………….. remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
21. The cross-border firing between India and ………………..
22. ……………….. is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
23. ……………….. is a major irritant.
24. India and Pakistan under the ……………….. of 1972.
25. Sri Lankan investments in India include ……………….. (garment city)
26. COMCASA is valid for a period of ………………..
27. French space launch pads are used by ………………..
28. ……………….. broadens the relationship raising awareness and promoting exchanges between two countries.
29. ……………….. is one of most successful examples of Japanese co-operation.
30. JIM providing training for Indian-people in ………………..
31. Trade relations were established between civilisation of Mesopotemia and ………………..
32. ……………….. gateway to land locked and energy rich
33. In trading routes ran from ancient Sumeria to the Indus civilisation called ………………..
34. The acronym BRICS was coined by ……………….. a famous British economist.
35. ……………….. is a multilateral development Bank.
36. ……………….. are defining changes to have huge geo – economic and geo – political impact.
37. ……………….. mission to co-ordinate oil policies in its member countries.
38. ……………….. is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
39. ……………….. doesn’t have enough oil reserves.
40. India – Japan join laboratories in the area of ………………..

Answers:

1. India
2. unique
3. India
4. Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA)
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
6. India
7. Bangladesh
8. Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)
9. Myanmar
10. Sri Lanka
11. Hydel power sector
12. Bharat to Bhutan B2B
13. Manufacturing hub
14. Nepal
15. Pilgrimage
16. Nepalese language
17. Tiger reserves
18. Sharda
19. Three-sister-city
20. Terrorism
21. Pakistan
22. Kashmir
23. Cross border terrorism
24. Shimla Agreement
25. Brandix
26. 10 years
27. ISRO
28. The Australia India council
29. Delhi metro
30. Manufacturing sector
31. The Indus valley
32. West Asia, Central Asia
33. Meluna
34. Jim O’Neill
35. NDB (New Development Bank)
36. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA)
37. OPEC 38. OPID
38. India
39. Information and communication Technology

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Farakka accord on sharing of Ganga waters signed in 1977 is a historic agreement.
Reason (R): India and Bangladesh share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint river commission is working to maximise benefits.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are false?
Statement 1: India’s position is unique in its neighbourhood.
Statement 2: Myanmar is a land locked nations.
Statement 3: The cross border firing between India and Nepal.
Statement 4: Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
(a) 1,2, and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(d) 2 and 3

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Maldives is located South of Lakshadweep Islands in the Indian oceans.
Reason (R): The relationship with Maldives is important for India given its strategic location and geo – graphical proximity.
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): McMahon line is the boundary line between India and China.
Reason (R): The secretary of state for India (in British cabinet) Arthur Henry McMahon represented British India at the conference.
(a) A is correct and explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the role of India as a Great Helper?
Answer:
India is basically against colonization and wants to see all the countries of the world free from foreign domination. It played a great role in freeing Indonesia from the domination of Holland. In the same way, it has supported the freedom movements started by Egypt, Sudan, Indo-China, Ghana, Morocco and Bangladesh.

Question 2.
Name the formal groups in which India is a member.
Answer:
India is a member of formal groupings like U.N.O, NAM, SAARC, G-20 and the common wealth.

Question 3.
Explain India’s relationship with Pakistan.
Answer:
Inspite of part conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 10th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

Question 4.
Mention the India’s relationship with OPEC.
Answer:

1. India is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
2. OPEC obviously has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
3. We import 86% of crude oil, 70% natural gas, 35% of cooking gas from OPEC countries.
4. India has been identified as a greater partner for OPEC mainly because of its high oil demand.

Question 5.
‘The relationship between India and Sri Lanka is smooth’-Justify.
Answer:
Sri Lanka is a Buddist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Sri Lanka India always support Sri Lanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Sri Lanka is very smooth. It will be continued forever.

Question 6.
Write about Khan Abdual Ghaffar Khan.
Answer:
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan of Baluchistan (a border province in 10 day’s Pakistan) was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and active supporter of the Indian national congress.

Question 7.
Why Buddhist saint went to Bhutan from India?
Answer:
Gur Padmasambhava, a Buddhist saint who want to Bhutan from India, played an influential role in spreading Buddhism and Cementing traditional ties between people of both nations.

Question 8.
List out the Indian states have their boundary with Nepal.
Answer:
Sikkim, west Bengal, Bihar, Uttarpradesh and Uttarakhand.

Question 9.
In what way JIM providing training to Indian people?
Answer:
The Japan India Institute of manufacturing(JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to “Make in India” and “skill India” initiatives.

Question 10.
Write a short note on a joint hydro power project.
Answer:

1. A joint hydropower project is being built on the Sharda river.
2. This power plant helps both India and Nepal with respect to electricity production and irrigation facilities.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the relationship of India with her neighbouring countries.
Answer:
India and Pakistan:
Insipite of port conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 16^th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

India and China:
When China became republic in 1949, India was the first country to recognize it. Both the countries have successfully attempted to restore the economic lines. China has formally declared that she will back India’s claim for becoming a permenent member of United Nation’s Security Council.

India and Srilanka:
Srilanka is a Buddhist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddhism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Srilanka. India always support Srilanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Srilanka is very smooth. It will be continued for ever.

India and Bangladesh:
It is due to the effort and support of Smt. Indira Gandhi, the Prime Minister of India, Bangladesh got freedom from Pakistan in 1971. In 1972, a 25 years treaty of friendship, co operation and peace was signed in Dacca by India and Bangladesh. The farakka Barrage issue regarding the distribution of Ganga water was settled amicably. Thus India is a very good friend of Bangladesh. Our friendship with Bangladesh will go on forever.

Question 2.
Write about India and Pakistan relationship?
Answer:

1. Since the bifurcation of territory which demarcated India and Pakistan in 1947.
2. The two nations have had strained relations due to disagreements over a number of key issues.
3. Terrorism remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
4. But India has made extreme efforts to improve and stabilise relations with Pakistan.
5. The cross – border firing between India and Pakistan and the terrorist attacks combined have taken its toll on the Kashmiri’s who have suffered poor living standards and an erosion of human rights.
6. Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan, which has brought the two countries into open clash many times.
7. Cross-border-terrorism is a major irritant.
8. India tried bring a positive change in the relationship of the two countries through bilateral agreements such as Shimla Agreement and Lahore Declaration.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 2.
The Panchsheel Treaty has been signed between ……………..
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 3.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 4.
Apartheid is ………………
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A policy of racial discrimination

Question 5.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to:
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence

Question 6.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 7.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 8.
Find the odd one ………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.
Non-Alliance means:
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarisation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(d) none of the above

Question 10.
Non-military issues are
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India conducted its first nuclear test at ……………..
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate …………….. for domestic growth and development.
3. …………….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. …………….. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice ……………..

Answer:

1. Pokhran
2. Inward Investment Business Technology
3. Diplomacy
4. Non – Alignment
5. disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 2.
Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance.
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) only

Question 3.
Write true or false against each of the statement.
(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer:
(a) – True
(b) – False
(c) – True

Question 4.
Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(R): This began with a disastrous Indo -China war of 1962.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations. Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A

Question 6.
Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from:
(a) acute poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is foreign policy?
Answer:
Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs, in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:

1. India’s nuclear policy is based on two themes:
   • (a) No first use
   • (b) Credible minimum deterrence.
2. India has decided not to use nuclear power for offensive purposes.

Question 3.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, as opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 4.
Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy.
Answer:
Domestic Policy:

1. Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.
2. It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.

Foreign Policy:

1. Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
2. Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

• Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
• Mutual non-interference
• Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence.

Question 6.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

1. Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers (America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
2. So he choose the path of Non – Alignment in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war and tried to form a third bloc of nations in international affairs.

Question 7.
In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?
Answer:
India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.
List out the member countries of SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.
Name the architects of the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

Question 10.
Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Answer:
The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
Answer:

1. The team “Non – Alignment” was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at the United Nationsin 1953.
2. Non – Alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
3. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.
4. It was the largest political grouping of countries in a multilateral fora.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.
6. It has transformed from a political movement to an economical movement.

The founding fathers of Non – Aligned Movement: Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

The Non – Alignment roots did not prevent India from entering into an alignment with the Soviet Union by the Indo – Soviet treaty of 1971 (20 – year pact of ‘peace, friendship and co operation’)

Then India embarked on a substantial programme of military modernisation. In 1974, India also conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran under Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project, in response to China’s nuclear test in 1964 at Lop Nor.

Question 2.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:

• Geographical position and size of the territory
• Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis
• Natural resources
• The compulsion of economic development
• Political stability and structure of government
• The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
• Military strength
• International milieu

Question 3.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:
Prioritising an integrated Neighbourhood first policy:

1. India’s foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalities.
2. India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.
3. Greater connectivity and integration is provided so as to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy, capital and information.

Bridging diplomacy and development:

1. One of the major objectives India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This includes improving technological access, sourcing capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

A gradual transition from “Look East” to “Act East” Policy:

1. South East Asia begins with North East India.
2. Myanmar is our land bridge to the countries of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).
3. The purpose is to ensure a stable and multipolar balance of power in the Indo – Pacific and to become an integral part of Asia.
4. This policy emphasises a more priductive role for ASEAN ans EAST Asian countries.

Economic development:

1. Currently India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
2. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.
3. Accelerated, balanced and inclusive economic development to achieves this by ensuring peace and security, and by leveraging the nation’s international partnership.

India as a leading power:

1. India is a member of the G20, the East Asia Summit and the BRICS coalition atestament to its status as a large country with a fast growing economy.
2. India aspires for permanent membership of this UN Security Council.
3. India now has an increasing range of interests, which are anchored in different parts of the world and which stem from a wide range of factors (energy, natural resources, investment, trade etc.,)

New challenges forced India to adjust to new realities. Even then, basic framework of its foreign policy remained more (or) less the same.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and to change if you were the decision maker.
Answer:
India’s Foreign Policy focus on the following:

1. Preservation of national interest
2. Achievement of world peace
3. Disarmament
4. Maintaining cordial relationship with other countries
5. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

If I imagine myself as a decision maker of India’s foreign policy, I would like to retain the following two aspects of foreign policy.

1. Maintaining world peace, Disarmament.
2. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

The two aspects of foreign policy that I would like to change are:

1. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries. We can maintain cordial relationship with all countries, but if they tries to attract us, we should be ready to defend ourselves.
2. Equality in conducting International relations. We can maintain an equality in International relations along with the improvement in scientific economic aspects.

So, it can be enhancement in scientific and economic aspects in relation with other countries.

Note: The answer given is purely a sample answer, students should understand the answer, analyse, and think to give their personal views on the activity and submit to their teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which policy seeks to secure the best interest of the people? (territory and economy of the country).
(a) Panchsheel
(b) Imperialism
(c) Foreign Policy
(d) Non-co-operation
Answer:
(c) Foreign Policy

Question 2.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s five principles of peace are named as …………
(a) Swadesh
(b) New Deal
(c) Panchsheel
Answer:
(c) Panchsheel

Question 3.
An objective and goal oriented foreign policy has the potential to achieve:
(a) improved relation with other Nation.
(b) To accelerate growth
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
India is called by the name of ………..
(a) Superpower
(b) Terrorist
(c) A great peacemaker
Answer:
(c) A great peacemaker

Question 5.
Which Institute provides training for officers of Indian Foreign Services (IFS)?
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute
(b) An international association
(c) Ministry of external affairs of India
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute

Question 6.
China became a Republic in ………..
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 7.
………………… principles were incorporated in the Bandung Declaration.
(a) Non – Aligned Movement
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Trade and commerce
(d) Racial discrimination
Answer:
(b) Panchsheel

Question 8.
Bangladesh got freedom due to the efforts of ………….
(a) Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Indira Gandhi

Question 9.
What is the main aim of India’s foreign policy in the following?
(a) World co – operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by ………….
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Abul Ashar
(c) Jinnah
Answer:
(a) V. Krishna Menon

Question 11.
Whose vote against Iran at the’lnternational Atomic Energy agency?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) India

Question 12.
The foremost task of india’s foreign policy:
(a) Domestic transformation
(b) Inward investment
(c) Business and technology
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
India’s global security concerns:
(a) Military modernisation
(b) Nuclear policies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 14.
Mention the basic concepts of India’s Foreign Policy.
(a) Disarmament
(b) Colonisation
(c) Imperialism
(d) Racism
Answer:
(a) Disarmament

Question 15.
How many member countries in SAARC organisation?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 16.
Which of the following country is a member of the SAARC?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) Egypt
(d) Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 17.
………………… policies aim to promote welfare economics and collective self-reliance among the countries (South Asia)
(a) SAARC
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Non – Alignment
(d) none
Answer:
(a) SAARC

Question 18.
………………… is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.
(a) Diplomacy
(b) Disarmament
(c) Racism
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Diplomacy

Question 19.
Who supported UN disarmament programme?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Srilanka
(c) China
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 20.
………………… is the world’s second most populous country.
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(b) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Foreign Service Training Institute was established in ………………….
2. The Afro – Asian conference held in ………………….
3. …………………. has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
4. The founding father of NAM …………………. of India.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of …………………. countries and …………………. international organisation.
6. India embarked on a substantial programme of ………………
7. The ……………… is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
8. The ……………… stance of India was supporting the cause of decolonisation.
9. India supported UN ……………… programme.
10. ……………… is an organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in ………………
11. SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at ………………
12. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by ………………
13. The SAARC policies aim to accelerate ……………… development in the region.
14. ……………… is the nations plan for dealing with other nations.
15. India aspires for permanent membership on the ………………
16. ……………… forced India to adjust new realities.
17. Indo – US civilian ……………… marks significant progress in India’s foreign policy.
18. India provides ……………… with support as needed in the form of resources and training.
19. Since ……………… global non – proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
20. Indian ……………… in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Answers:

1. 1986
2. Indonesia
3. Non – Alignment
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
5. 120, 10
6. Military modernisation
7. Non – Aligned Movement
8. foreign policy
9. disarmament
10. SAARC, South Asia
11. New Delhi
12. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
13. Socio-cultural
14. Foreign Policy
15. UN Security Council
16. New Challenges
17. Nuclear deal
18. neighbours
19. Independence
20. Nuclear Programme

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not about SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)?
(i) SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in south Asia.
(ii) SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economics and to accelerate socio-cultural development in the region.
(iii) SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at Mumbai.
(iv) SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by (ISRO).
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Ministry of External Affairs of India also known as Foreign Ministry comes under Government of India.
Reason (R): It is responsible for the conduct of foreign relations of India.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): During Cold, War India tried to form a third block of Nations in international affairs.
Reason (R); The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was world cooperation world peace racial equality and non – alignment.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Which of the following is about NAM?
(i) Non – alignment has been regarded most important feature if India’s Foreign Policy.
(ii) NAM was formed with 180 member countries.
(iii) NAM is establishing economic cooperation among under developed countries.
(iv) It was the largest political groping countries in a multilateral fora.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (ii),(iv)
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): : Since Independence global Non – proliferation has been dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
Reason (R): So India’s supported U.N Disarmament programme.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column ll.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is Diplomacy?
Answer:
Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.

Question 2.
What is meant by G – 20 global group of countries?
Answer:
G – 20 refers to the largest established and emerging economies of the world. India is also a member of G – 20 countries.

Question 3.
Write a note on the policy of Apartheid.
Answer:

1. In South Africa the whites, did not give equal rights to the Native Africans.
2. India raised this issue for the first time in the UN General Assembly in 1946.
3. It was due to the constant moral support of India and the continuous struggle of Dr. Nelson Mandela, the policy of Apartheid was abolished in 1990.

Question 4.
List out the basic concept of India’s of foreign policy?
Answer:

1. Preservation of National interest.
2. Achievement of world peace.
3. Disarmament
4. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
5. Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
6. Equality in conducting international relations.
7. Anti – colonialism anti – imperialism anti – racism.

Question 5.
Write short notes on Article-51.
Answer:
Lays down the Directive Principles of India’s foreign policy.
The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote international peace and security
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for international law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Question 6.
What is the major objectives of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

1. one of the major objectives of India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This include improving technological access source of capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

Question 7.
What are the elements in our eastern policy?
Answer:
The three big elements in our eastern policy are stronger emphasis on physical connectivity commercial and security related.

Question 8.
Non – Alignement defined by Nehru?
Answer:
“Broudly, non – alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocks. It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not form the military point of view, though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly relations with all countries”.
– Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
Mention few basic determinants of a foreign policy.
Answer:

1. Geographical position and size of territory.
2. Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.
3. Natural resources
4. Political stability and structure of Government.

Question 10.
What do you mean by NAM?
Answer:
NAM means Non – Aligned Movement.

1. The NAM is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
2. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not , jointing any military alliance.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain about the shifts in India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The shifts in India’s policy manifested in various ways such as:

1. Better relations with China – The look East policy (1992).
2. The second nuclear test at Pokhran (1998) in Rajasthan.
3. Defence procurement relationship with Israel.
4. Energy diplomacy with Arab countries and Iran.
5. Agreeing to US nuclear missile defence programme and
6. India’s vote against Iran at the International Automatic Energy Agency.

Question 2.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

(i) India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
(ii) SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
(iii) Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary-general of SAARC.
(iv) The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.

(v) On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting Afghanistan become its 8th member.

(vi) 18th SAARC summit took place on 26th and 27th of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.

(vii) The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 3.
How India accelerated balanced and inclusive economic development?
Answer:

1. India achieved economic development by ensuring peace and security.
2. By leveraging the nations international partnership, to obtain all that is needed to fuel economic development.
3. Economic development in the filed of markets, investment, fair global governance and a stable and fair environment conducive for growth.
4. Currently’ India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
5. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.

Question 4.
Explain about the principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Lays down directive principles of India’s foreign policy.

The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote International Peace and Security.
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for International law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration.

Question 5.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

1. SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia.
2. The SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economies, collective self – reliance and to accelerate socio – cultural development in the region.
3. SAARC Disaster Management Center was set up at New Delhi.
4. This centre working on various dimensions of disaster risk reduction and management,
5. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication-cum-meteorology satellite by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the SAARC region.
6. The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, and SriLanka.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 3 State Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 State Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Governor of the State is appointed by the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 2.
The Speaker of a State is a ……………
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of government
(c) President’s agent
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative
(b) Executive
(c) Judicial
(d) Diplomatic
Answer:
(d) Diplomatic

Question 4.
Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Speaker of State legislature
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 5.
The Governor does not appoint:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Judges of the High Court
Answer:
(d) Judges of the High Court

Question 6.
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by …………….
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Governor
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 7.
The State Council of Ministers is headed by:
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Governor
(c) The Speaker
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The Chief Minister

Question 8.
The Legislative Council ………….
(a) has a term of five years
(b) has a term of six years
(c) is a permanent house
(d) has a term of four years
Answer:
(c) is a permanent house

Question 9.
The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is:
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Answer:
(c) 30 years

Question 10.
The members of the Legislative Council are ……………
(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly
(b) Mostly nominated
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.
(d) Directly elected by the people
Answer:
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.

Question 11.
Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
The High Courts in India were first started at ………………….
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
(b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras
(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
Answer:
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

Question 13.
Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Punjab and Haryana

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to ………………..
2. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the ………………..
3. ……………….. is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
4. ……………….. acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
5. The Seventh Amendment Act of ……………….. authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states.
6. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the ………………..

Answers:

1. The President
2. people
3. Mrs.Fathima Beevi
4. The Governor
5. 1956
6. President

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Only some states in India have Legislative Councils.
(ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
(iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
(iv) Some members are elected by Local bodies.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and iv are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State
Legislature only with the President’s approval.
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

V. Answer in brief questions

Question 1.
How the state of Jammu and Kashmir differ from the other states of India?
Answer:
(i) The Constitution of India grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian States, and it is the only state in India to have a separate Constitution.

(ii) The Directive Principles of the State Policy and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

(iii) Rights to property, which is denied as a Fundamental Right to rest of India is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state executive.
2. The administration of a state is carried on in the name of the governor.
3. The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature. But he is not a member in the legislature.
4. He has the right to summon, prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the Assembly.
5. Under Article 213 he can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.

Question 3.
What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
Answer:
Qualifications of the Governor is given below

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He must have completed 35 years of age.
3. He should not be a member of Parliament or any State legislature.
4. He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 4.
What is the original Jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:

1. Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court the High Courts have original Jurisdiction.
2. The presidency High Courts ( Bombay, Calcutta and Madras) have original Jurisdiction in which the amount involved is more than 2000 and the criminal cases which are committed to them by the presidency magistrates.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High Court?
Answer:
As courts of appeal, all High Courts hear appeals in both civil and criminal cases against the divisions of the subordinate courts and can review their judgements.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:

1. The leader of the majority’ party or majority group in the state Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
2. The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.

The Powers and Functions of the Chief Minister:

1. Relating to the council of Ministers
2. Relating to the Governor
3. Relating to the State Legislature
4. Other functions and powers

Relating to the Council of Ministers:

1. The Chief Minister recommends a person who can be appointed as Minister by the Governor.
2. He allocates the port folios to the Ministers
3. He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry
4. He presides over the cabinet meetings and influences its decisions,
5. In case of difference of opinion he can ask a minister to resign or advices the Governor to dismiss him,
6. If the Chief Minister resigns the council of Ministers are also should resign.
7. He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the Ministers.

Relating to the Governor:

1. The Chief Minister is the link between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
2. He advices the Governor in relation to the appointment of Advocate general of the state, State Election Commissioner, Chairman and members of the State Planning Commission, State Public Service Commission and the State Finance Commission.

Relating to State Legislature:

1. On the advice of the Chief Minister Governor officially summons & prorogues the sessions of the state legislature.
2. He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
3. He can introduce the bills in the Legislative Assembly.
4. Recommend for the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the Governor any time.

Other function and powers:

1. As the leader of the party he has to control the party and develop the disciplines.
2. To consider the demands of the different sections of the people.
3. As the political head supervise control and co-ordinate the secretaries of various departments in the state level.
4. For the smooth functioning of the state he has to develop a good rapport with the Central (Union) Government for good Centre-State relation.

Question 2.
Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the Governor are:
(i) The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State. All the administration is carried on in his name.

(ii) He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister of the State. He appoints other members of the council of Ministers on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.

(iii) He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission, the State Election Commissioner, the Attorney General of the State etc.

(iv) He has the right to summon, prorogue the State Legislature and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.

(v) The Money Bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the prior recommendation of the Governor.

(vi) He constitutes a Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats and the municipalities.

Question 3.
Briefly discuss the Functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Legislative powers:

1. As per the constitution can pass laws on all subjects mentioned in the State List.
2. The passing of Bill into law follows the same procedure as in the union Parliament.
3. The state can make laws on concurrent subject also. The state made law will become inoperative when the Centre also passes law on the same subject.
4. The Bill passed in the State legislature will become law after Governor’s assent.

Financial powers:

1. Money bills can be introduced only in the Lower House or Assembly
2. No new tax can be levied without the sanction and permission of the Assembly.
3. The Legislature controls the finances of the State.

Control over the Executive:

1. The Legislature controls over the Executive.
2. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Assembly.
3. They can be removed from the power if the Assembly passes “No confidence motion” against the Ministry.

Question 4.
Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions and powers of the Council of Ministers –

1. It formulates and decides the policies of the State and implements them effectively.
2. It decides the legislative programmes of the Legislative Assembly and sponsors all important bills.
3. It controls the financial policy and decides the tax structure for the public welfare of the State.
4. It chalks out programmes and schemes for the socio-economic changes so that the State makes headway in various inter-related fields,
5. It makes the important appointments of the heads of departments.
6. The Annual Financial Statement called as the Budget is finalised by the Council of Ministers.
7. It advises the Governor on the appointment of judges of the subordinate courts.

Question 5.
Describe the powers and functions of the High Court
Answer:
High Court is the highest court in the state. Every High Court consists of a Chief Justice and other judges appointed by the President. The High Court enjoys the following Jurisdiction.

(i) Original Jurisdiction: The High Court can hear the cases like such as matters of admiralty, probate and matrimonial, contempt of court and in criminal cases.

(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: As courts of appeal all High Courts appeals in civil and criminal cases and also cases of their own.

(iii) Writ Jurisdiction: Writs are issued by the High Court not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also where an ordinary legal rights has been infringed.

Kinds of Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition ,Quo Warranto, Certiorari.

(iv) Supervisory Jurisdiction:

(a) High Court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals, (except military courts)
(b) High Court has an administrative powers.
(c) Its law is binding on all subordinate courts functioning within its territorial jurisdiction.
(d) It is consulted by the governor in the matters of appointment , posting and promotion, grant of leave, transfers and discipline court of Record.
(e) All the decisions and decrees issued by the High Court are printed and kept as a record for future needs.

Judicial Review: To examine the constitutionality of Legislative enactments and executive orders of both the central and the State Governments.

VII. Project & Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a flow chart showing the State Government’s Administrative setup.
Answer:

Question 2.
Students to list out the names of the Tamil Nadu Governor, Chief Minister, Ministers and the Governors and Chief Ministers of the neighbouring States.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The State of ……………… has a separate constitution.
(a) Punjab & Haryana
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kerala & Karnataka
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.
Who is not appointed by the Governor?
(a) The Advocate General of the State
(b) The State Election Commissioner
(c) The Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court
Answer:
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Question 3.
The administration of the State is carried on in the name of the:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Speaker
(d) Governor
Answer:
(d) Governor

Question 4.
How many High Courts are there for all 29 States?
(a) 29
(b) 27
(c) 25
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 5.
The ……………… has the power to summon, prorogue the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of the Legislative Council
Answer:
(b) Governor

Question 6.
The State Government consists of …………… branches.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 7.
Under Article ……………… the Governor can pass ordinance when the State Assembly is not in session.
(a) 311
(b) 312
(c) 213
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 213

Question 8.
The ……………. provides a legislature for every state.
(a) Constitution
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan
Answer:
(a) Constitution

Question 9.
The total strength of Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu is:
(aj 231
(b) 240
(c) 245
(d) 235
Answer:
(d) 235

Question 10.
……………… can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Advocate general
(c) Chief Minister
Answer:
(c) Chief Minister

Question 11.
The institution of High Court originated in India in:
(a) 1826
(b) 1816
(c) 1862
(d) 1870
Answer:
(c) 1862

Question 12.
The Statue of ……………… has been kept in front of the High Court building.
(a) Rajaraja Cholan
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)
(c) Karikal Cholan
(d) Rajendra Cholan
Answer:
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Article 226 and 227 confer the power of ……………….. on a high court.
2. The ……………….. is the real centre of power in the State.
3. The Legislature of s State or a High Court has no power in the removal of ………………..
4. The present Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
5. The present Governor of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
6. The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly must not below ………………..
7. The Standing committee of the Cabinet is ………………..
8. The ……………….. is removed from the office by a resolution of the Assembly after giving a 14 days notice.
9. The Legislative Council is the ……………….. of the State legislature.
10. Article ……………….. deals with the creation or abolition of Legislative Council.

Answers:

1. Judicial review
2. Legislative Assembly
3. Governor
4. Thiru Edappadi K. Palaniswami
5. Thiru Banvarilal Purohit
6. Sixty
7. Permanent
8. Speaker
9. Upper House
10. 169

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed.
Reason (R): He may remain as the Chief Minister as long as he enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(b) (A) is false (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The number of judges varies from State to State.
Reason (R): The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President. .
(a) (A) is false (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A
(c) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A
(d) (A) is true (R) is false
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A

Question 3.
(i) High Courts are given power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
(ii) The jurisdiction is limited only to the fundamental rights.
(iii) Writs are issued by the High Court when an ordinary legal right has been fringed.
(iv) Article 32 empowered to issue such writs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Council of Ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
(ii) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the State Assembly.
(iii) The State ministry will be in power after the resignation of the Chief Minister.
(iv) Councils of Ministers do not aid and advice the Governor.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on cabinet and cabinet committees.
Answer:
The Cabinet is the nucleus of the Council of Ministers. It consists of only the Cabinet Ministers. It is the real centre of authority in the State Government.
The cabinet works through various committees called Cabinet Committees. They are of two types – standing and ad hoc – the former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature.

Question 2.
How the Governor is appointed to a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President.
2. Generally, the Governor does not belongs to the state where he is appointed.
3. He also be transferred from one State to another.
4. If situation warrants so, the same person may be appointed as the Governor of two or more States.
5. Usually the term of office is five years but he may be appointed as a Governor any number of terms during the pleasure of the President.

Question 3.
Throw light on the emergency powers of the Governor.
Answer:
If the Governor is convinced that the Government of the State is not carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, he may recommend to the President to impose Present Rule in that State. As soon as the President Rule is imposed, the administration of the State is carried on by the Governor as the representative of the President.

Question 4.
What is the strength of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu according to the strength of legislative Assembly (234 +1) . 234 members are directly elected by the people from the constituencies on the basis of adult franchise and one member is nominated by the Governor from Anglo-Indian community.

Question 5.
How are the members of the Legislative Council elected?
Answer:
The members of the Legislative Council or the Upper House are elected in the following ways.

• 1/3 of the members are elected by local bodies. .
• 1/12 of the members are elected by graduates of the universities in the State.
• 1/12 of the members are elected by the graduate teachers.
• 1/3 of the members are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.
• 1/6 is nominated by the Governor who is eminent in the field of literary excellence, art, social or cooperates.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the High Court of Madras?
Answer:

1. The High Court of Madras is the one of the three High Courts in India, established in the three presidency Towns of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras by letters patent granted by Queen Victoria dated 26th June 1862.
2. The High Court building is the second largest Judicial complex in the world after London.

Question 7.
Where were High Courts first established and when?
Answer:
High Courts were first established in the three Presidency cities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1862.

Question 8.
How many High Courts are there in our country and who decides the number of judges to each High court?
Answer:

1. At present there are 25 High courts for 29 states (including New Andhra Pradesh High court established in 1st January 2019 at Amaravati) and seven union territories.
2. The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President.

Question 9.
What do you mean by appellate system?
Answer:
It means that a person can appeal to a higher Court if they are not satisfied with the judgement of the lower Court.

Question 10.
Which Amendment abolished the power of Judicial Review by the state High Court? And by which amendment it was restored?
Answer:

1. The 42nd amendment of 1976 curtailed the power of Judicial Review by the High Court.
2. It debarred the constitutional validity of any central law.
3. The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are all the privileges enjoyed by the Governor?
Answer:

1. Article 361 (1) provides the following privileges to the Governor.
2. The Governor of the state, is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
3. No criminal proceedings what so ever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a state, in any court during his term of office.
4. No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the Governor of a state shall issue from any court during his term of office.
5. No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the Governor of the state.

Question 2.
How does a High Court keep control over the subordinate courts?
Answer:
A High, fourt has an administrative control over the subordinate Courts.
(i) It is consulted by the Governor in the matters of appointment, posting and promotions of District Judges and in appointments of persons to the judicial service of the State.

(ii) It deals with the matters of posting, promoting, grant of leave, transfers and discipline of . the members of the judicial services of the State.

(iii) It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law that requires the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either dispose of the case itself or determines the questions of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement.

(iv) Its law is binding on all subordinate Courts functioning with its territorial jurisdiction in the same sense as the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all Courts in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Writs issued by the High Court?
Answer:
Under Article 226 of the constitution the High Courts are given powers of issuing writs. They are:

Habeas Corpus: It is issued to a detaining authority ordering the detainer to produce the detained person in the issuing court, along with the cause of his or her detention.

If the detention is found to be illegal, the court issues an order to set the person free.

Mandamus: It is issued to a Subordinate Court, an office or Government, or a Corporation or other Institution commanding the performance of certain acts or duties.

Prohibition: The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court prohibiting it from taking up a case because it is not under the jurisdiction of the lower court. Thus the higher court transfers the case to it. Quo Warranto: It is issued against a person the legality of holding a public office. Through this writ the court inquires “by what authority”? The person supports his / her claim.

Certiorari: This writ is issued to lower court directing that the record of a case be sent up for review, together with all supporting files, evidence and documents. It is one of the mechanism by which the fundamental rights of the citizens are upheld.

Question 4.
What are the works done by the High Court under supervisory Jurisdiction?
Answer:
The High Court has the power of superintendence over all Courts and Tribunals functioning in its Territorial Jurisdiction ( except the Military Courts or Tribunals).

Thus it may

1. Call for returns from them.
2. Make an issue, general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of them.
3. Prescribe forms in which books, entries and accounts are to be kept by them and
4. Settle the fee payable to the sheriff, clerks, officers and legal practitioners of them.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Central Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Central Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Constitutional Head of the Union is:
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 2.
Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
(a) Army
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) The Prime Minister

Question 3.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President
(b) Attorney General
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 4.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the ……………
(a) The President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(c) The Prime Minister

Question 5.
The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of Parliament
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The President of India
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Question 6.
What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 Years
(b) 21 Years
(c) 25 Years
(d) 30 Years
Answer:
(c) 25 Years

Question 7.
The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) State Government
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(d) Parliament

Question 8.
Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(b) Article 360

Question 9.
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
(a) The President
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Governor
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 10.
Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under …………….
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Original Jurisdiction

Question 11.
If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister.
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
2. ………………… is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
3. ………………… is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the ………………… community to the Lok Sabha.
5. ………………… has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
6. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ………………… years.
7. ………………… is the Guardian of the Constitution.
8. At present, the Supreme Court consists of ………………… judges including the Chief Justice.

Answers:

1. Money
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice-President
4. Anglo-Indian
5. Attorney General
6. 65
7. Supreme Court
8. 28

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service.
(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
(a) (A) is false but R is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
How is President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Electoral college consists of the elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and the elected members of the States and elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

Question 2.
What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
Answer:
The ministers are classified under three different categories.

1. Cabinet Ministers: An informal body of senior ministers who form the nucleus of administration.
2. Ministers of State: They are also incharge of ministries or departments.
3. Deputy Ministers: They assist either the Ministers of Cabinet or State.

Question 3.
What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Qualification of the Supreme Court Judges are

1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for at least 5 years.
3. He should have worked as an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years.
4. He is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:

1. Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha who is elected by its members.
2. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of theTwo Houses of Parliament.
3. He has the power to decide whether a Bill is a money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.

Question 5.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:
Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lok Sabha which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending of money, such as tax laws, prevention of black money etc.

Question 6.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:

1. Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.
2. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament (or) their joint sitting but without a right to vote.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the President of India are given below:
(i) He appoints the Prime Minister and the others members of the Council of Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(ii) He appoints Governors of States, the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Attorney General, the Chief Election Commissioner, Ambassadors and High Commissioners to other countries.

(iii) He inaugurates tire session of the Parliament by addressing it after the general elections and also at the beginning of the first session each year.

(iv) Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliaments only with his prior recommendation. Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented before the Lok Sabha by the Union Finance Minister only with the permission of the President.

(v) The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment, or to commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence.

(vi) He is the supreme commander of the defence force of the country. He has been empowered to proclaim Emergency in the country.

Question 2.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court is the Apex court in the Country.

It is the guardian of our Constitution. The following are the functions of the Supreme Court.

Original Jurisdiction:

1. Cases which are brought directly in the first instance come under original Jurisdiction.*
2. Dispute between two states or more
3. Dispute between the Centre and the State.
4. Writs issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Appellate Jurisdiction:

1. The Supreme Court hears the appeals against the decisions of High court in “Civil, Criminal and Constitutional” cases.
2. With a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme, Court is the final appellate court in the country.

Advisory Jurisdiction:

1. President can refer to the Supreme Court if any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of Public importance miscellaneous Jurisdiction.
2. The Supreme Court has the complete control over its own establishment.
3. With the approval of the President the supreme court is authorized to make rules for regulatory, generally the practice and procedure of the court.
4. The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Judicial Review:

The power of the Judiciary to declare ‘a law as un-constitutional’ is known as Judicial Review.

Individual Review power with regard to

1. Protecting the fundamental right.
2. The laws passed by the legislature which are not in accordance with the Constitutional.
3. Dispute between the Centre and the States.

Question 3.
What are the Duties and Functions of Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 4.
Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
Answer:

1. Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union Government.
2. Article 79 to 122 in part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges of the Parliament.
3. The President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are the three parts of the Parliament.
4. It is bicameral legislature.

Functions of the Parliament:

1. Legislation, passing of budget, ventilation of public grievances, over seeing of administration discussion of various subjects like developments plans, International relations and internal policies.
2. After passing of the bill in both the houses it is forwarded to the President for his assent.
3. If the President send back the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration and the bill is passed in both the houses without any amendment the President has to give his assent.

A bill has to pass three stages in the Parliament before it becomes an Act.

Parliament is also vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor – General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

Two-third majority from both the houses of the Parliament is needed in support for the impeachment.

The Parliament exercises control over the executive through asking questions and supplementary, questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions, discussing and pushing motion or vote of no¬confidence.

The first hour when the Parliament is in session is allotted for question hour.

The members can put forth questions to the concerned Ministry and pertain to get answers.

The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.

By Fifth Amendment under Article 3 of our Constitution the Parliament is empowered to the formation of new states, alteration of areas and boundaries or change the name of the existing state.

A government bill should get passed in the Parliament with majority vote in this regard.

Question 5.
List out the functions of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Functions of Lok Sabha

1. The Lok Sabha is the lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. Any Bill including Money Bill can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha.
2. It has equal power as the Rajya Sabha in passing any Bill for constitutional amendment.
3. Lok Sabha members have the power to elect the President and Vice-President.
4. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. If it is passed then the Prime Minister and other councils of ministers need to resign from their post.

Functions of the Rajya Sabha

1. Any bill (except the money bills) needs to be approved by Rajya Sabha
2. It has the same power as Lok Sabha for passing any Bill for a constitutional amendment?
3. The members of Rajya Sabha have the electoral power for selection for President and Vice – President.
4. It has power in the impeachment procedure of the President and judge of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Organise a mock Parliament in your class. Discuss the role of President,Prime Minister and Ministers.
Answer:
Mock Parliament:
Role of President
Role of Prime Minister and Ministers.
(mock Parliament video in you tube)

1. 14th National youth Parliament.
2. Mock Parliament session Anan kids Jim 26th 2018.
3. Mock Parliament in village school-Final Rehearsal of youth.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi intends to organise a mock Parliament in Delhi with representation from every district.

Key points:

1. Each class should prepare a list of activities.
2. This enables them to prepare themselves for the discussions in the House.

It is of two types:

1. Government Business (the member of the Cabinet rank) and
2. Private members business – the other members of the Parliament who is not in Minister rank.

Question 2.
Bring out the differences and similarities between the US and Indian President’s.
Answer:

1. Both the US President and the Indian President are elected through election by voting.
2. The President of US and the President of India both are the Head of the Union and the first citizen.
3. Election to the US President is direct.
4. Election to the Indian President is indirect.
5. The President of US is the Real Executive of the government.
6. The President of India is only the Nominal Head.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Articles 52 to 78 in Part V deals with the:
(a) Judiciary
(b) Union Executive
(c) State Legislature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Union Executive

Question 2.
Who is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) Vice – President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The …………….. is the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Council of Minister
Answer:
(a) President

Question 4.
Who occupies the second highest office in the country?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Attorney General
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Vice President

Question 5.
Article …………….. lays down that the Supreme command of the Defense Force of the Union shall be vested in the President.
(a) 53(1)
(b) 53 (2)
(c) 53(3)
(d) 51(A)
Answer:
(b) 53 (2)

Question 6.
The eligible age to be appointed as the President of India is ……………..
(a) 25 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 35 years

Question 7.
The Vice-President can act as the President for a maximum period of …………….. months.
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 8.
The council of Rajya Sabha consists of …………… members
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
Answer:
(a) 250

Question 9.
If the office of the President and Vice President lie vacant …………….. of India works as President.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Deputy Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice

Question 10.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are ……………
(a) elected indirectly
(b) mostly nominated
(c) elected directly as well as indirectly
Answer:
(a) elected indirectly

Question 11.
The …………….. is instrumental in moving amendments to the Constitution.
(a) Cabinet
(b) Council of States
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(a) Cabinet

Question 12.
The …………….. is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Electoral College
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 13.
The Supreme Court of India, New Delhi was inaugurated on January 28 ……………..
(a) 1935
(b) 1940
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 14.
In …………….. jurisdiction the Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court.
(a) Original
(b) Appellate
(c) Advisory
(d) Judicial Review
Answer:
(b) Appellate

Question 15.
The law declared by the …………….. is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) District Court
(d) Revenue Court
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The legislature in Central Government is known as ……………….
2. The President of India apart from Rashtrapathi Bhavan conducts office at least once a year in ………………. Hyderabad.
3. Once elected as the President, he has to take an oath of office before the ……………….
4. The present President of India is ……………….
5. The President summons Parliament at least ………………. a year.
6. President can make advances out of the ………………. of India to meet any unexpected expenditure.
7. ………………. emergency is declared by the President if there is a threat to financial stability or the credit of India.
8. The President may be removed from office for violation of Constitution by
9. At least a minimum of ………………. days notice should be given for the resolution for the removal of Vice President from his office.
10. When there is a tie of voting on Bill in Rajya Sabha the ………………. can cast his vote for or against using his discretion power.
11. The post of ………………. of India has adopted the West Minister (England) model of the Constitutional democracy.
12. The ………………. is an informal body of senior ministers who forms the nucleus of administration.
13. The ………………. belong to the second category of ministers in the council who are also incharge of ministries or departments.
14. The council of state or Rajya Sabha consists of ………………. members.
15. Any biii except money bill needs to be approved by ……………….

Answers:

1. Parliament
2. ‘Rashtrapati Nilayam’
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Thiru, Ramnath Govind
5. twice
6. contingency fund
7. Financial
8. impeachment
9. fourteen
10. Vice-President
11. Prime Minister
12. Cabinet
13. Ministers of State
14. Rajya Sabha
15. 250

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Cabinet forms the nucleus of administration
Reason (R): All important decisions of the government are taken by the cabinet such as defence, finance, external affairs and home affairs.
(a) (A) is false, but R is true.
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.

Question 2.
(i) The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.
(ii) Parliament exercises control over the executive.
(iii) Parliament is an independent organ.
(iv) ft is a bicameral legislature
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Article 74 (1) says there shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advice the President.
(ii) The Prime Minister has no power to decide the dates and agenda of the Cabinet meeting.
(iii) The Prime Minister decides th’e rank of his ministers and distributes various departments,
(iv) The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokes person of the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are true
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) and (iv) are true
Answer:
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true

Question 4.
(i) Lok Sabha as of today has 552 members.
(ii) The President generally nominates 2 persons from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
(iii) It is the house of the people.
(iv) It is the permanent house of the Parliament.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Under Article 352 President has the power to proclaim National Emergency on the grounds of War.
(ii) Due to Constitutional failure in the State President can declare an Emergency under Article 356.
(iii) Article 61 deals with the removal of the President by impeachment.
(iv) The President is answerable to the court of law.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column If.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (vi)
E. (i)
F. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the diplomatic powers of the President.
Answer:

• The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats posted to India.
• The ambassador-designate becomes ambassador after calling on the President and presenting his credentials.
• All treaties and agreements with foreign states are entered into in the name of the President.

Question 2.
“Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences”- Explain.
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the Nation and chief spokes person of the country.

As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences like the Common Wealth Summit of Non aligned Nations and SAARC.

Question 3.
What is meant by integrated judicial system?
Answer:
Integrated judiciary means that the judicial system is hierarchical one. At the top there is the Supreme Court and its decisions aie bonding precedent for low er subordinate Courts.

Question 4.
What are the qualification to become the member of Lok Sabha?
Answer:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should not be less than 25 years of age.
3. He should have his name in the electoral rolls in some part of the country.
4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or State Government.
5. He should be mentally sound and economically solvent.

Question 5.
Throw light on the compositions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Lok Sabha is the Lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. It contains elected representatives of the people. The maximum number of members can be elected for the Lok Sabha is 552. Presently, the Lok Sabha has 543 elected members. Out of these, 530 members are elected members from different States and 13 members from the Union Territories. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the Anglo – Indian community. At present, the total strength of the Lok Sabha is 545.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:

1. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court in India is appointed by the President of India.
2. The other judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the collegiums with Chief Justice Head.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Union Executive?
Answer:
The President is the nominal executive authority in the Parliamentary systems of Government. He is also the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.

Question 8.
What do you know about motion of no confidence?
Answer:

1. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
2. When it is passed then the Prime Minister and other Council of Ministers need to resign from their post.

Question 9.
What is the qualification of President of Indi?
Answer:
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a Presidential candidate:

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed the age of thirty-five years.
• He must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or local government.
• He should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He/her name should be proposed by at least ten electors and seconded by another ten electors of the Electoral college which elects the President.

Question 10.
What makes the Indian Parliament powerful?
Answer:
The representative of the people makes the Parliament powerful.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Write about the composition location and term of the judges of the Supreme court.
Answer:
In the beginning in 1950 our Supreme Court consisted of 8 judges including the Chief justice. As passage of time in need at present the Supreme Court consists of 28 judges including Chief justice.

The Constitution also provides appointment of judges to the supreme court on ad – hoc (temporary) basis.

1. The Chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court can hold office up to the age of 65 yearn.
2. The judges of the Supreme Court can resign before their term by giving their resignation in writing to the President.
3. The Parliament also has power to remove the judges by invoking impeachment provisions for their proven misbehaviour.
4. The Supreme Court sits at New Delhi. It may also sit any other place in India which may be decided by the Chief Justice of India with the approval of the President.

Question 2.
Describe the duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.
Answer:
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country. He is appointed by the President.
Duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.

1. To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters which are referred to him by the President.
2. To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to him by the President and discharge the functions conferred on him by the constitution are any other law.
3. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
4. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
5. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the Vice-President? How he can be removed?
Answer:
Functions of the Vice-President: The Vice-President is Ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
As the chairman of the house

1. He regulates the proceeding of the House.
2. He decides the order of the house.
3. He decides the admissibility of a resolution or questions.
4. He suspends or adjourns the house in case of a grave disorder.
5. He issues directions to various committees on matters relating to their functions.

Removal of the Vice-President:

1. The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of states passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the people.
2. A resolution for this purpose may be moved only after a notice of atleast a minimum of 14 days has been given of such an intention.

Question 4.
What is the role of the Vice President in the absence of the President?
Answer:

1. When the President is unable to discharge his duties due to illness or absence from the country he attends to the functions of the President.
2. When the President is unable to do his duties due to sickness or when the post of the President becomes vacant due to resignation, death or removal by impeachment etc., the Vice President can act as the President for a maximum period of six months.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 23 Visual Communication Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 23 Visual Communication

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Visual Communication Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which software is used to create animation?
(a) Paint
(b) PDF
(c) MS Word
(d) Scratch
Answer:
(d) Scratch

Question 2.
All files are stored in the _______.
(a) folder
(b) box
(c) pai
(d) scanner.
Answer:
(a) folder

Question 3.
Which is used to build scripts?
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(a) Script area

Question 4.
Which is used to edit programs?
(a) Inkscape
(b) Script editor
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite.
Answer:
(b) Script editor

Question 5.
Where you will create category of blocks?
(a) Block palette
(b) Block menu
(c) Script area
(d) sprite
Answer:
(b) Block menu

II. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is Scratch?
Answer:
Scratch is a software used to create animations, cartoons and games easily. Scratch, on the other hand, is a visual programming language.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the editor and its types.
Answer:
Editors or text Editors are software programs that enable the user to create and edit text files Editors are generally classified into 5 types as,

1. Line Editor [Ex: teco]
2. Stream Editor [Ex: Sed]
3. Screen Editor [Ex: Notepad]
4. Word processors [Ex: MS – word]
5. Structure Editor [Ex: Netbeans IDE].

Question 3.
What is stage?
Answer:
Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window. The background will most often be white. You can change the background colour as you like.

Question 4.
What is Sprite?
Answer:
The characters on the background of a Scratch window are known as Sprite. Usually, a cat appears as a sprite when the Scratch window is opened. The software provides facilities to make alternations in the sprite.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Visual Communication Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The output we get from any application is commonly referred as
(a) file
(b) data
(c) record
(d) folder
Answer:
(a) file

Question 2.
_______ is used to choose the block to use.
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) Block menu
(d) Sprite.
Answer:
(b) Block palette

Question 3.
Which app is used, we can draw and edit pictures?
(a) My computer
(b) Notepad
(c) Paint
(d) Games
Answer:
(c) Paint

Question 4.
Choose the odd one from the following _______.
(a) File
(b) Folder
(c) Memory space
(d) Mouse.
Answer:
(d) Mouse.

Question 5.
Write a good example for visual communication.
(a) Picture
(b) Cinema
(c) Radio
(d) FM
Answer:
(b) Cinema

Question 6.
Choose the wrong statement from the following statements _______.
(a) The scripts tab contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.
(b) Block palette is used to choose the block to use.
(c) The right contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.
(d) Scratch is software.
Answer:
(a) The scripts tab contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.

Question 7.
Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) Windows – operating system
(b) Visual – Cinema
(c) Costume – editor
(d) Stage – a input device
Answer:
(d) Stage – a input device

Question 8.
Identify which is not a file format _______.
(a) CSS
(b) PSO
(c) PNG
(d) EPS.
Answer:
(b) PSO

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) More people are using windows operating system.
(b) We can collect our notes in Notepad application.
(c) We can draw pictures in paint application.
(d) A folder is a file name.
Answer:
(d) A folder is a file name.

Question 10.
The start button is present in the ______ corner of the computer.
(a) Center
(b) top
(c) left
(d) right.
Answer:
(c) left

Question 11.
Assertion (A) : Pictures and audio-visuals gives us more understanding than teaching and writing on the black board.
Reason (R) : The device which helps in explaining the concepts easily through pictures is known as visual communication device.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation assertion.

Question 12.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) LINUX
(b) Paint
(c) Spread sheet
(d) PPTs
Answer:
(a) LINUX

II. Match the following:

Answer:
A – (iii)
B – (i)
C – (iv)
D – (ii)

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the reason, we prefer computer?
Answer:
The reason, we prefer computer is its speed and the ability to store data.

Question 2.
What is a folder?
Answer:
A folder is a storage space that contains multiple files. We can create files as per the user’s need.

Question 3.
What is a file?
Answer:
The output we get from any application is commonly referred as file.
Therefore, the application for the specific purposes determines the nature of the file.

Question 4.
Name the different parts of Scratch Editor?
Answer:

• Stage
• Sprite
• Script Editor / Costume Editor.

Question 5.
Explain the using script editor?
Answer:
Script editor / costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures.
You should see a single window with at least the following three panes: the stage (top left), the Sprite List (bottom left), and the Scripts tab (right), which contains the Blocks tab and the Scripts Area. The right pane also contains two additional tabs, Costumes and Sounds.
The script editor has three main parts:

1. Script area: Where you build scripts.
2. Block menu: Where you choose the category of blocks (programming statements) to use.
3. Block palette: Where your choose the block to use.

Question 6.
Write a note on Script editor.
Answer:
Script editor/costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures. You should see a single window with at least the following three panes: the Stage (top left), the Sprite List (bottom left), and the Scripts tab (right), which contains the Blocks tab and the Scripts Area. The right pane also contains two additional tabs, Costumes and Sounds.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 22 Environmental Management Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 22 Environmental Management

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. Deforestation leads to ……… in rainfall.
2. Removal of soil particles from the land is called ……….
3. Chipko movement is initiated against ……….
4. ……….. is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
5. Tidal energy is ………. type of energy.
6. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called ……… fuels.
7. ……….. is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.

Answer:

1. Decrease
2. Soil Erosion
3. Deforestation
4. Nilgiris
5. Non-conventional
6. Fossil
7. Coal

II. State whether True or False. Correct the statements which are false:

1. Biogas is a fossil fuel.
2. Planting trees increases the groundwater level.
3. Habitat destruction cause loss of wile life.
4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy
5. Overgrazing prevents soil erosion.
6. Poaching of wild animals is a legal act.
7. National park is a protected park.
8. Wild life protection act was established in 1972.

Answer:

1. False – Biogas is a natural gas
2. True
3. True
4. False – Nuclear energy is non-renewable energy
5. False – Overgrazing causes soil erosion
6. False – Poaching of wild animals is an illegal act.
7. True
8. Tme

III. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (i)
F. (iv)
G. (vii)

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel?
(i) Tar, (ii) Coal, (iii) Petroleum
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii)

Question 2.
What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
(a) reduce the amount of waste formed
(b) reuse the waste
(c) recycle the waste
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 3.
The gas released from vehicles exhaust are:
(i) carbon monoxide
(ii) Sulphur dioxide
(iii) Oxides of nitrogen:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 4.
Soil erosion can be prevented by ______
(a) deforestation
(b) afforestation
(c) over growing
(d) removal of vegetation
Answer:
(b) afforestation

Question 5.
A renewable source of energy is:
(a) petroleum
(b) coal
(c) nuclear fuel
(d) trees
Answer:
(d) trees

Question 6.
Soil erosion is more where there is _______
(a) no rainfall
(b) low rainfall
(c) rainfall is high
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) rainfall is high

Question 7.
An inexhaustible resources is:
(a) wind power
(b) soil fertility
(c) wild life
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 8.
Common energy source in village is ______
(a) electricity
(b) coal
(c) biogas
(d) wood and animal dung
Answer:
(d) wood and animal dung

Question 9.
Green house effect refers to:
(a) cooling of earth
(b) trapping of UV rays
(c) cultivation of plants
(d) warming of earth
Answer:
(d) warming of earth

Question 10.
A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is _____
(a) hydropower
(b) solar energy
(c) wind energy
(d) thermal energy
Answer:
(b) solar energy

Question 11.
Global warming will cause
(a) raise in level of oceans
(b) melting of glaciers
(c) sinking of islands
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy?
(a) wind energy is a renewable energy
(b) the blades of windmill are operated with the help of an electric motor
(c) production of wind energy is pollution-free
(d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
Answer:
(b) the blades of windmill are operated with the help of the electric motor

V. Answer in a Sentence:

Question 1.
What will happen if trees are cut down?
Answer:
If trees are cut down it give rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alternation of climatic conditions and desertification.

Question 2.
What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
Answer:
If the habitual wild animals disturbed, the biological diversity cannot be maintained and cannot promote economic activities, which generates revenue to the government.

Question 3.
What are the agents of soil erosion?
Answer:
Agents of soil erosion are high velocity of wind, air currents, flowing water, land slide, human activities like deforestation, farming and mining overgrazing by cattle.

Question 4.
Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
Answer:
Like fossil fuels, accumulation is a very slow process and takes a very long period, and in order to preserve them for a future generation, fossil fuels are to be conserved.

Question 5.
Solar energy is a renewable energy. How?
Answer:
Solar energy is the energy obtained from the sun. This energy resources is available in unlimited amount in nature and it can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harvested continuously.

Question 6.
How are e-wastes generated?
Answer:
E-wastes are generated from spoiled, outdated, non-repairable electrical and electronic devices.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:

1. Overcome the rapid depletion of ground water levels.
2. To Meet the increase demand of water.
3. Reduces flood and soil erosion.
4. Water stored in ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can be used for drinking purpose.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of using biogas?
Answer:
The advantages of using biogas are as follows:

• It burns without smoke, causing less pollution.
• It is an excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
• The leftover slurry is good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
• It is safe and convenient to use.
• It can reduce the number of greenhouse gases emitted.

Question 3.
What are the environmental effect caused by sewage?
Answer:
Sewage water results in agricultural contamination and environmental degradation, pollute the water resources.

Question 4.
What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
The contaminants can harm animals and damage the food chain.

• Deforestation becomes a threat to the economy, quality of life and future of the environment.
• Loss of many forests.
• It gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wildlife, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge groundwater?
Answer:
Recharge pit: In this method, the rainwater is first collected from the roof tops or open spaces and is directed into the percolation pits through pipes for filtration. After filtration the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells.

People living in rural areas adopt a variety of water collecting methods to capture and store as rain water. Some of the methods used are-
(i) Digging of tanks or lakes (Eris) : It is one of the traditional water harvesting system in Tamil Nadu. Eris are constructed in such a way that if the water in one eri overflows, it automatically gets diverted to the eri of the next village, as these eris are interconnected.

(ii) Ooranis : These are small ponds to collect rainwater. The water is used for various domestic purposes (drinking, washing and bathing). These ponds cater the nearby villages.

Question 2.
How will you prevent soil erosion?
Answer:
The following are the methods to prevent soil erosion:

• Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
• Cattle grazing should be controlled.
• Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
• Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
• Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
• Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in the form of a shelterbelt.

Question 3.
What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes etc. The solid wastes are dumped in the soil which results in landscape pollution.

Solid-waste management involves the collection, treatment and proper disposing of solid material that is discarded from the household and industrial activities.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:

1. Segregation : It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non biodegradable wastes.
2. Sanitary landfill : Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.
3. Incineration : It is the burning of nonbiodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.
4. Composting : Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

Recycling of wastes:

1. Papers from old books, magazines and newspapers are recycled to produce papers in papermills.
2. Agricultural wastes like coconut shells, jute cotton stalk, bagasse of sugarcane can be used to make paper and hard board. Paddy husk can be used as livestock fodder.
3. Cowdung and other organic wastes can be used in gobar gas plant to provide biogas and manure for fields. The 3R approach such as Reduce, Reuse and Recycle may be followed for effective waste management.

Question 4.
Enumerate the importance of forest.
Answer:

• Forests are an important component of our environment.
• There are microorganisms, flowering plants, shrubs, climbers and dense trees in the forest.
• Forests provide a vast habitat for wild animals.
• Forests help for the economic development of our country.
• Forests are the source for a wide range of renewable natural resource.
• Forests provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.
• They act as a carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall and reduce global warming.
• The natural hazards like flood and landslides are prevented.
• Wildlife is protected.
• It acts as a catchment for water conservation.
• Forests maintain ecological balance.

Question 5.
What are the consequences of soil erosion?
Answer:
The effects of soil erosion leads to loss of fertility of land, humus and nutrient. It leads to increased pollution, sedimentation in streams and rivers. Degraded lands able to hold water which can worsen flooding.

Question 6.
Why is the management of forest and wildlife resource considered as a challenging task?
Answer:
The management of forest and wildlife resource is considered as a challenging task because,

• Due to deforestation, there is a lack of oxygen.
• People kill animals, for making cloth designs so it harms the wildlife.
• There is a lack of public awareness.
• There are global warming and climate change.
• Water scarcity and changes in rainfall pattern.
• People kill animals and cut down trees, for economic benefit.
• Poaching.
• Forests cannot be irrigated like fields they depend on rain.
• Changes in rainfall pattern, affect the development of forests and may lead to destruction.

VIII. Assertion and Reasoning:

In each of the following question a statement of assertion(A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R). Of the four statements given below mark the correct answer.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rain water.
Reason (R): Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water source.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Energy efficient bulbs like CFL must be used to save electric energy.
Reason (R): CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save our money.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although coal and petroleum are produced by degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve them. Why?
Answer:
The formation of coal and petroleum is a very slow process and takes very long period of time for renewal. Moreover coal is uses for generation of electricity’ petroleum is used to run automobile, trucks, trains, ships and aeroplane. So we need to conserve them as they get exhausted.

Question 2.
What are the objectives for replacing non-conventional energy resources from conventional energy resources?
Answer:

• Non-conventional energy resources can be replenished quickly.
• Hydrocarbons are formed over a period of thousands of years when the remains of dead plants and animals are buried inside the Earth.
• Burning coal and oil results in air pollution.
• Conserve fossil fuels, using an alternate source of energy, when possible.
• Wise utilization of non-renewable natural resources.

Question 3.
Why is the Government imposing ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest alternatives. How is this ban likely to improve the environment?
Answer:

1. It is non-biodegradable material which cause environmental pollution. It is harmful to wild life and marine life. It is very hard to clean or remove from environment.
2. Alternatives to plastic bag are jute or canvas bags, paper bags.
3. It control the pollution and clean the environment and make it better’ place to live for all organism.

X. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Why is it not possible to use solar cells to meet our energy needs? State three reason to support your answer.
Answer:

• The installing cost of solar cell panel is high, as the silicon wafer is very expensive and also the silver used in connecting solar cells.
• D.C electricity is produced. To operate any A.C device, this D.C. has to be connected in, as by using an inverter.
• The efficiency of energy conversion is low as compared to other means of generating electricity.

Question 2.
How would you dispose the following wastes?
(a) Domestic wastes like vegetable peels
(b) Industrial wastes like metallic cans
Can the disposal protect the environment? How?
Answer:
(a) Domestic waste like vegetable peels can be disposed by composting where solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

(b) The metallic ions melt into molten aluminium this removes the coating and inks that may be present on the aluminium. The aluminium is then made into large blocks which is used to make other products.

Question 3.
List any three activities based on the 3R approach to conserve natural resources.
Answer:

• Integrated solid waste management is based on the 3R approach. (Reduce, Reuse and Recycle).
• 3R is aimed at the management of solid waste from all waste generating sectors.
• 3R helps to minimize the amount of wastes from generation to disposal.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
The best way to dispose waste is by:
(a) Making a paste for all domestic waste and putting them in a river.
(b) Separating biodegradable and non biodegradable before disposing in bins.
(c) Throw the waste an round side
(d) Dumping all domestic waste is better bin.
Answer:
(b) Separating biodegradable and non biodegradable before disposing in bins.

Question 2.
The solar energy which falls on the atmosphere reaches the Earth’s surface ______
(a) a little less than 42%
(b) more than 60%
(c) more than 52%
(d) a little less than 47%
Answer:
(d) a little less than 47%

Question 3.
Chipko Andolan is associated with
(a) Protesting against pasting of posters on walls.
(b) Saving money
(c) Using more postal stamps.
(d) Saving trees.
Answer:
(d) Saving trees.

Question 4.
The technique to harness the water energy is _______
(a) hydropower
(b) electrical energy
(c) tidal energy
(d) hydraulic fracturing
Answer:
(a) Hydropower

Question 5.
Conservation of wild life includes:
(a) Preventing poaching of animals
(b) Construction of National parks, Sanctuaries
(c) Ban on trading endangered species
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Select the eco-friendly activity among the following:
(a) Using car for transportation.
(b) Using polybags for shopping
(c) Using dyes for colouring clothes
(d) Using windmills to generate power for irrigation
Answer:
(d) Using windmills to generate power for irrigation

Question 7.
Pick the right combination of terms which has no fossil fuel.
(a) Wind, Ocean, Coal
(b) Kerosene, Wind, tide
(c) Wind, Wood, Sun
(d) Petroleum, Wood, Sun
Answer:
(c) Wind, Wood, Sun

Question 8.
Ground water will not be depleted due to:
(a) Afforestation
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Loss of forest and decreased rainfall
(d) Cropping of high water demanding crops
Answer:
(a) Afforestation

Question 9.
Select the wrong statement:
(a) Forests provide variety of products
(b) Forests have greater plant diversity
(c) Forests do not conserve soil
(d) Forests conserve water
Answer:
(c) Forests do not conserve soil

Question 10.
The important messages conveyed by the ‘chipko movement’ is:
(a) To improve the community in forest conservation efforts.
(b) To ignore the community in forest conservation efforts.
(c) To cut down forest trees for developmental activities
(d) Preserves the natural ecosystem in the area.
Answer:
(a) To improve the community in forest conservation efforts.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Automobiles are largest source of ……… pollution in cities.
2. The first movement against tree felling was fought in chamoli district name ……….
3. ………. National park was the first in India.
4. Removal of upper layer of soil by wind and water is called ……..
5. The white marble of ……….. became yellow due to air pollution.
6. Arrangement of many solar cells side by side connected to each other is ……..
7. Gas produced by the decomposition of animal and plant waste in the absence of oxygen is ……….
8. The fuel extracted by a technique called ………… from the rock.
9. The World’s largest and tallest wind turbine is situated in …………
10. ………… Dam is constructed by King Karikala Chola.
Answer:
1. air
2. Chipko movement
3. Jim Corbett
4. soil erosion
5. Taj Mahal
6. Solar panel
7. Gobar gas
8. hydraulic fracturing
9. Hawaii
10. Kallanai

III. Assertion and Reason:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Natural habitats of plants and animals should not be destroyed.
Reason (R): This is necessary for the conservation of biotic resources.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): To prevent hunting is not wildlife conservation in the real sense.
Reason (R): Some animals may multiply to the extent that they exhaust the food supply.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. State whether True or False. Correct the statements which are false:

1. The devices used for harnessing sun energy is wind mill.
2. Liquefied petroleum gas is obtained from petroleum.
3. Harnessing the energy from flowing water to produce electricity is hydro power.
4. 12% of e-wastes are from computer components.
5. LED bulbs consume more electrical energy.

Answer:

1. False – The devices used for harnessing wind is wind mill.
2. True
3. True
4. False – 12% of e-wastes are from telecommunication components
5. False – LED bulbs consume less electrical energy.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Define Conservation.
Answer:
Proper utilization and management of nature and its resources in conservations.

Question 2.
What are the ways to sustain our resources?
Answer:
Some of the ways to sustain continuous use of resources are practices to utilise energy efficiently avoid wastage of water, avoid usage of Plastics and other non-biodegradable materials and to take care for the environment.

Question 3.
Suggest any two activities in daily life which are eco-friendly.
Answer:
Carrying jute or canvas bags for shopping instead of plastic bags.
Switch off electrical and electronic devices when not in use.

Question 4.
Name four substances that can be recycled.
Answer:
Newspaper, PET plastic bottles, steel can glass containers.

Question 5.
List any two common methods by which solid wastes of urban areas are disposed off.
Answer:

1. Segregation of waste into biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
2. Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas.

Question 6.
What is chipko movement?
Answer:
The chipko movement was a non-violent that was aimed to protect and conserve the tree by the villagers of chamoli district of uttar pradesh.

Question 7.
Give the reason for decline in wildlife population.
Answer:
Over exploitation and shrinking of forest cover areas are the reason for animal extinction and verge of extinction.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is conservation? Why should we conserve natural resources?
Answer:
Proper utilization and management of nature and its resources are termed as conservation. It is important to conserve the natural resources carefully, to preserve it for future generations. We have to build a sustainable world, which should last forever.

Question 2.
How can you as an individual contribute to the management of coal and petroleum.
Answer:

1. Use of coal and petroleum as a source of energy should be minimised.
2. Use of CNG or LPG as fuels in automobiles.
3. Renewable sources of energy like solar power, hydro power, wind energy, tidal energy should be used.

Question 3.
What are the methods to conserve the forest?
Answer:

• Afforestation: Planting and protecting trees which help in the restoration of green cover is called the afforestation programme. Destruction of trees should be avoided.
• Social forestry programme: Active participation of the public and utilization of common land, to produce firewood, fodder and timber for the benefit of the rural community.
• Forest Conservation through Laws: Adopting laws and policies, to conserve and protect forests through National Forest Policy,

Question 4.
List the wild life conservation Initiatives in India.
Answer:

1. Project Tiger and Project Elephant has been launched in 1973 and 1992 respectively.
2. Crocodile Conservation Project was launched in 1976.
3. Sea Turtle Conservation Project was launched in 1999.
4. Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is to conserve at least 3000 greater one-homed rhinos in Assam, India by 2020.

Question 5.
What are the steps to be taken to conserve coal and petroleum resources?
Answer:

• If electricity is saved, it will, in turn, reduce the use of coal.
• Using bicycles for covering short distances instead of using cars, scooters or motorcycles.
• Using pressure cooker can reduce the consumption of kerosene and LPG, during cooking food.
• Solar cooker and solar heaters can be used wherever possible.
• Motor vehicles should be designed with fuel-efficient engines to increase efficiency and also to reduce pollution.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of solar energy?
Answer:

1. It is available in abundance in our country and is free of cost.
2. It is a renewable source of energy.
3. It can be used for generating electricity or heat.
4. It does not cause pollution.

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
(a) What are the aims of wildlife management?
(b) What is the provision of the wildlife protection act?
Answer:
(a) The main aim of wildlife conservation are:

• To control and limit exploitation of species.
• To preserve the plants and animals from extinction.
• Maintenance of threatened species and protect species which are on the verge of extinction.
• Preserve the endangered species.
• To study the ecological relationship of the plants and animals in natural habitat.
• Hunting and poaching should be prohibited.
• Establishment of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, protected areas and biosphere reserves.

(b) The provisions of the wildlife protection act:

• Prohibit killing and hunting of specified animals.
• Constitute sanctuaries, national parks and closed areas for wildlife conservation.
• Special schemes for the preservation of endangered species.
• Constitute central zoo authority and recognition of zoos.
• Restrict, regulate or prohibit trade in wild animals and products obtained from them.

Question 2.
Give the various steps to conserve non-renewable resource.
Answer:
It is necessary to conserve or save coal and petroleum resources for the future use, which can be done by reducing their consumption.

1. If electricity is saved, it will intum reduce the use of coal.
2. Using bicycle for covering short distances instead of using cars, scooters or motorcycles.
3. Using pressure cooker can reduce the consumption of kerosene and LPG while cooking food. Solar cooker and solar heaters can be used wherever possible.
4. Motor vehicles should be designed with fuel efficient engines to increase efficiency and also reduce air pollution.

Question 3.
Write notes for the following:
(a) Solar cells
(b) Solar panel
(c) Solar cooker and
(d) Solar thermal power plant
Answer:
(a) Solar cells: Solar cells are called photovoltaic devices, which are made up of silicon, that converts sunlight directly into electricity. Solar cells produce electricity, without polluting the environment. No harmful gases, no burning and no wastes are produced.

• It can be used for street lighting, traffic signals, water pumping and battery charging system, etc.
• It is used in artificial satellites and space probes.
• It provides radio and TV transmission to remote areas.
• It is used in calculators, electronic toys and watches.

(b) Solar panel: Arrangement of many solar cells side by side connected to each other is called solar panel. The capacity to provide electric current is much increased in the solar panel, but the process of manufacture is very expensive.

(c) Solar cooker: Solar cooker consists of an insulated metal box or wooden box, which is painted from inside, so as to absorb maximum solar radiations. A thick glass sheet forms the cover over the box. The reflector is the piano mirror, which is attached to the box. The food is cooked by energy radiated by the Sun.

(d) Solar thermal power plant:
In solar thermal power plants, many solar panels are used to concentrate sun rays, to heat up water into steam. The steam is used to run the turbines to produce electricity. The solar energy is available in our country at free of cost, do not cause any pollution and is a renewable source of energy.

Question 4.
Explain the tidal energy with its advantages.
Answer:
Tidal energy is the energy obtained from the movement of water due to ocean tides. Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted on the oceans of the earth.

A tidal stream is a fast flowing body of water created by tides. Turbines are placed in tidal streams. When the tides hit the turbine, the turbine rotates and converts the tidal energy into electric energy.

Advantages of tidal energy:

1. Tidal energy does not produce any pollution.
2. It does not use any fuel and does not produce any waste.
3. Tides are predictable, so tidal energy can be produced at any time.
4. Water is denser than air and therefore can generate electricity at lower speeds than wind turbines.

Question 5.
Explain the convention method of waste water treatments.
Answer:
The conventional wastewater treatment methods involve the following steps (a) Pre-screening (b) Aeration (c) Sludge Management and (d) Water Reuse.
(a) Pre-screening : Wastewater generated from domestic and industrial activities is screened to remove soil and solid particulates.

(b) Aeration : Screened wastewater is then pumped to an aeration tank. Here the microbial contaminants are removed by the biological degradation that occurs in the presence of air.
Sedimentation process : In this process, the solid particles in suspension form are allowed to settle. The particles that settle out from the suspension is known as sludge.

(c) Sludge removal : The sludge generated by the degradation process is transferred periodically from the tank for safe disposal.
Disinfection : Chlorination and ultraviolet (UV) radiation of treated water is required to remove any microorganism contamination.

(d) Water recycling : The water will then be supplied for domestic or industrial purposes.

IX. Hot Questions:

Question 1.
Name the movement aimed at the protection and conservation of trees. In which district was it originated?
Answer:
Chipko movement at Uttarkhand.

Question 2.
Name any two wildlife conservation initiatives in India.
Answer:

• Crocodile conservation project
• Indian Rhino vision 2020
• Sea Turtle conservation

X. Value Based Question:

Question 1.
The over exploitation of natural resources leads to decline of natural resources.
(a) What will be the effects decline of natural resources.
(b) How can be prevent it?
Answer:
(a) Decline of natural resources leads to energy crisis and disturbance in ecological balance.
(b) It can be prevented by using non-conventional energy resources.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Indian Constitution Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular,socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Question 2.
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) once

Question 3.
The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens:
(a) Double Citizenship
(b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single Citizenship

Question 4.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through …………..
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Question 6.
One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms.
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
Answer:
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children

Question 7.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to:
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme court of India

Question 8.
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
Answer:
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

Question 9.
How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 10.
We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the ……………..
(a) American Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Answer:
(c) Russian Constitution

Question 11.
The Directive Principles can be classified into:
(a) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
Answer:
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.
Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 13.
The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in:
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(d) Article 368

Question 14.
Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
(i) Sarkaria Commission
(ii) Rajamannar Committee
(iii) M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) i and iii
(d) ii and iii
Answer:
(b) i and ii

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The concept of Constitution first originated in ……………….
2. ………………. was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on ……………….
4. ………………. writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article ……………….

Answers:

1. U.S.A
2. Dr. Sachidanandha Sinha
3. 26th November 1949
4. Five
5. 51 A

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (iv)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
What is the Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution is a set of rules that form the basis of any kind of a state that we as citizens, desire to live in.

Question 2.
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the state of being a person belonging to a particular country’. Having enjoying rights, privileges and duty to perform to the country. The Constitution of India provide for a single citizenship for the whole of India.

Question 3.
How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
There are six types of fundamental rights listed by the Indian Constitution.

Question 4.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A Writ is an order or command issued by a court writing under its seal. Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of Writs- Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari.

Question 5.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
There are six classical languages namely – Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 6.
What is National Emergency?
Answer:
National Emergency is declared by the President. If India’s security is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat under Article 352.

Question 7.
List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
Answer:
There are

1. Legislative relations
2. Administrative relations
3. Financial relations.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Constitution is the set of rules framed by the Constituent Assembly by which we are governed and abide by it.

Salient features of Indian Constitution:

1. It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitution in the world.
2. It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
3. Most of its provisions are borrowed from the Constitutions of various countries.
4. It establishes a Federal system of government.
5. It establishes Parliamentary system.
6. It provides an independent Judiciary.
7. It provides single citizenship.
8. Introduces Universal Adult franchise, the right to vote to all citizens above the age of 18 without any discrimination.
9. It makes special provision for minorities scheduled castes, Scheduled Tribes etc.

Question 2.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. There are six Fundamental Rights –
(i) Right to Equality: It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.

(ii) Right to Freedom: It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.

(iii) “Right against Exploitation: It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour. It also prohibits employment of children in factories, etc.

(iv) Right to religion: It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion.

(v) Cultural and Educational rights: It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.

(vi) Right to Constitutional Remedies It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 3.
Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:

1. Article 32 of our Constitution deals with right to Constitutional remedies to safeguard other fundamental rights through writs.
2. A Writ is an order or command issued by a court in writing under its seal.
3. It is in the nature of a command or prohibition from performing certain acts that are specified in the order of the court.
4. Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs namely – Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto.
5. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Article 32 is “ the heart and soul of the Constitution”.
6. “Supreme Court’ is called the “ Guardian of our Constitution”.

Question 4.
Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights:

1. Derived from the Constitution of the U.S.A.
2. Even the Government cannot take away or abridge these rights.
3. These rights can be enforceable by law.
4. The rights have legal sanctions.
5. Strengthen the political democracy of the country.
6. They are natural and basic rights.

Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. Drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland.
2. These are mere instructions to the Government.
3. They are not enforceable by law in any court.
4. These directives have moral and political sanctions.
5. Implementation of these principles ensures social and economic democracy.
6. These lead to protect human rights.

VI. Project and activity

Question 1.
Collect information about the various members of the Constituent Assembly and their social background.
Answer:
Members of the constituent Assembly and their Social background.
Refer: https : //www.scrip.com: document. 15
https://www.wikipedia.org:wiki:const.

Question 2.
Collect the pictures of the Members of the Drafting Committee and their social background.
Answer:
Drafting committee is the most important body responsible for creating the constitution of India.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad: President of the Drafting committee:

Ambedkar. An Indian Jurist, Social Reformer and Politician. Hailed as “Father of Indian Constitution’’. Campaigned against social discrimination towards the untouchables supported the Rights of women and labour.

Indian political leader. A lawyer by training. Joined the Indian National congress during the Independence movement and became a major leader from the Region of Bihar. He was the first President of India after Independence and served for full two terms from 1950 – 1962. The President who served foreth longest term.

Other members:

Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer. He was an Indian Lawy er. He also served as the Advocate General of Madras state from 1929 to 1944.

N. Gopalswami Iyengar: He was the Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from 1937 – 1943 and was appointed as council of state from 1943 – 1947. During that time he was the chairman of the committee for the Indianisation of Army from 1947 – 1948. He served as minister without Port folio in the 1st Cabinet under Pandit. Jawaharlal Nehru.

K.M. Munshi: A lawyer by profession. He was an Indian Independence movement activist, politician, writer and an educationist from Gujarat State.

Mohammad Saadullah B.L: A youthful Chairman of Gauhati (Guwahati) Municipality in 1919. Tali and an Athletic. M.A.BL. He served as the Minister incharge of Education and Agriculture for Assam from 1924 – 1934. He was the Prime Minister of Assam under British India.

B.L. Mitter: Ex-advocate General. The one and only official subreddit for India (Nehru’s cabinet) Governor of Bihar between 1962 – 1967. Resigned from the drafting committee due to ill health. N. Madhava Rao (Diwan of Mysore state) had replaced B.L. Mitter.

D.R Khaitan: A renounced lawyer. Scion of Khaitan business family ( a new firm). Died in 1948 and T.T. Krishnamachari replaced D.R Khaitan

TB Page 175
VII. Life Skill.

Question 1.
Prepare a chart containing the Rights and Duties of citizens and display it in your class room.
Answer:
I. Right to Equality

Art. 14 – Equality before law.
Art. 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race,caste, sex or place of birth.
Art. 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Art. 17 – Abolition of Untouchability.
Art. 18 – Abolition of titles except military and academic.

II. Right to Freedom

Art. 19 – Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Art. 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Art. 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 21A – Right to elementary education.
Art. 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

III. Right Against Exploitation

Art. 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Art. 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.

IV. Right to Religion

Art. 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Art. 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Art. 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Art. 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.

V. Cultural and Educational Rights

Art. 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Art. 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

VI. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Art. 32 – It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

List of Fundamental Duties:

1. To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
8. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
11. To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. (The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act. 2002 has also introduced the 11th Fundamental Duty under 51 A(k) under which all citizens of India or parents shall provide opportunities for education to their children between age of 6 and 14 years).

TB Page 172

Question 1.
Violation of which Fundamental right is associated with the theme depleted in the stamps?
Answer:

The theme (child labour) depicted in the stamps is associated with Fundamental Right. Right against Exploitation. Art 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. (violation of employment children).

TB Page 175
Activity:

Question 1.
List out the recognised languages in the Eighth schedule of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Eighth schedule of the Constitution has recognised at present 22 languages .
They are:

1. Assamee
2. Bengali
3. Bodo
4. Dogri
5. Gujarathi
6. Hindi
7. Kannada
8. Kashmiri
9. Kenkani
10. Maithili
11. Malayalam
12. Manipuri
13. Marathi
14. Nepali
15. Oriya
16. Punjabi
17. Sanskrit
18. Santhali
19. Sindhi
20. Tamil
21. Telugu
22. Urdu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Indian Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Government of India granted ………………. languages as classical language status.
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 22
(d) 14
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 2.
Which of the following is given importance in the Preamble of our Constitution?
(a) Liberty
(b) Equality
(c) Fraternity
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
The constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December ………………. 1946.
(a) 1^st
(b) 5^th
(c) 6^th
(d) 26^th
Answer:
(c) 6^th

Question 4.
‘Education’ comes under which list?
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Concurrent list

Question 5.
Every year 26th January is observed as ……………….
(a) Independence day
(b) Gandhi Jayanthi
(c) Voters day
(d) Republic day
Answer:
(d) Republic day

Question 6.
Indian Constitution is the …………… Constitution in the world.
(a) Longest
(b) Shortest
(c) Lengthiest
Answer:
(c) Lengthiest

Question 7.
In the preamble of our Constitution the slogans of ………………. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity is given importance.
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) American Revolution
(d) German Revolution
Answer:
(a) French Revolution

Question 8.
The Constituent Assembly was set up under ……………..
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946

Question 9.
………………. emergency can be declared under Article 356.
(a) National
(b) Financial
(c) State
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) State

Question 10.
Apart from B.R. Ambedkar, how many other members were in the Drafting Committee?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 7
Answer:
(b) 6

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Our Constitution is concerned with the framework of distribution of powers between the various organs of the government and between ………………. and ……………….
2. H.C. Mukherjee and ………………. were elected as the Vice-Presidents of the constituent Assembly at the time of framing Constitution.
3. The original Constitution was hand written by ……………….
4. Our Constitution is the ………………. of all the written Constitutions of the world.
5. India is a ………………. state.
6. The right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination is ……………….
7. The preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ………………. drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Preamble begins with the phrase ……………….
9. The citizenship Act has been amended is far ………………. times.
10. The ………………. writ safeguards people from illegal arrest.
11. Under Article 21 A ………………. education was made as fundamental right to provide early childhood care and education.
12. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred ………………. subjects from state list to concurrent list.
13. Article 51A specified for the first time a code of fundamental duties of ………………. the citizens.
14. Parliament enacted the official language Act in the year

Answers:

1. Union and the States
2. V.T. Krishnamachari
3. Prem Behari Narain Raizada
4. lengthiest
5. Secular
6. Universal Adult Franchise
7. ‘Objective Resolution’
8. We the people of India
9. eight
10. Habeas Corpus
11. elementary
12. five
13. ten
14. 1963

III. Match the Following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answers:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
Mention the phrase with which the Preamble of our Constitution begins? What does this imply?
Answer:
The Preamble of our Constitution beings with the phrase “We, the People of India”. This implies that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on how our Constitution is framed?
Answer:
A Constituent Assembly was set up in 1946 to frame the Constitution . The Assembly consisted 389 members Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the president and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Chairman of the drafting committee. The Assembly worked through various committees and finally completed the draft. It was adopted on November 26^th 1949. Came into force on 26^th January 1950.

Question 3.
What is mandamus?
Answer:
Mandamus is a kind of writ that protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public authorities.

Question 4.
What does Preamble refer to ? What does it contain?
Answer:

1. The term Preamble refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution.
2. It consists of ideals, objectives and basic principles of the Constitution.
3. It is described as the ‘Key to the Constitution’.

Question 5.
Mention three ways of amendments in our Constitution.
Answer:
Our Constitution can be amended in the following three ways –

1. Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the State legislatives.

Question 6.
Name the three basic principles of our Constitution adopted from die slogan of French Revolution (1789).
Answer:

1. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship to all.
2. It gives Equality of status and opportunity.
3. It wants to promote Fratemity(brotherhood) among all Indians.

Question 7.
Abolition of titles lies in which Article of the Constitution.
Answer:
Abolition of titles lies in Article 18.

Question 8.
What change is made in Article 45 by 86th Amendment Act?
Answer:

1. The 86^th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A.
2. The amended directive request the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years.

Question 9.
Which is the single biggest source of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The single biggest source of Indian Constitution is Government of India Act 1935.

Question 10.
Name the five subjects that are transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List.
Answer:
Education, Forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds and administration of justice, Constitution and organisation of all courts except the supreme court and the high courts.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Mention any five Fundamental duties of the citizens of India.
Answer:

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the National struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 2.
How can a person acquire citizenship of our country?
Answer:
According to the citizenship Act 1955, the citizenship could be acquired by any of these five ways.

1. By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after January 26th, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.
2. By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after January 26th 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent if his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
3. By Registration: Aperson can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.
4. By Naturalization: A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.
5. By incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be the citizen of India.

Question 3.
What are the circumstances that compel the President to declare an emergency in a State?
Answer:
(i) Under Article 356, the President has the power to declare an emergency in a State if the Governor reports that a situation has risen under which the Government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) The continuance of such an emergency beyond one year is possible only if emergency under Article 352 are in operation or the Election Commission certifies that there are difficulties in holding Assembly Elections. Maximum duration of the emergency can be three years.

(iii) In this kind of emergency, the States lose much of their autonomy in legislative and executive matters.

(iv) After such an announcement State legislative is suspended and the State is governed by the Governor on behalf of the President.

Question 4.
List the fundamental duties of every citizen of India.
Answer:
Under part IVA of our Constitution Article 51A declares the duty of a Citizen of India.

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To Cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired die national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India.
6. To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
7. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
8. To Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes,
9. rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.
10. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
11. To safe guard public property and to abjure violence.
12. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity making the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
13. To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
14. Under 51 A (k) 11^th fundamental duty.

Question 5.
Write briefly about Acquisition of Citizenship.
Answer:
The Citizenship Act of 1935 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, “viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.
According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, the citizenship could be acquired through any of the following methods.
(i) By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after 26 January, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.

(ii) By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after 26 January, 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent. If his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.

(iii) By Registration: A person can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.

(iv) By Naturalisation: A foreigner can acquire Indian Citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.

(v) By Incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the “territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be citizen of India.

Question 6.
Write a paragraph on Constitutional Reform commissions.
Answer:
The National commission to review the working of the Constitution was set up by a resolution of the Government of India in 2000, headed by M.N Venkatachaliah. In April 2007 a three member commission headed by the former Chief Justice of India M.M. Punchchi was set up by the Government to take a fresh look at relative roles and responsibilities of various levels of Government and their inter relations.