Category: Class 10

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 21 Health and Diseases Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 21 Health and Diseases

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline. The component causing this could be:
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curcumin
(d) heptin
Answer:
(a) Nicotine

Question 2.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on _______.
(a) May 31
(b) June 6
(c) April 22
(d) October 2.
Answer:
(a) May 31

Question 3.
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are:
(a) Different in structure
(b) Non-dividing
(c) Starved mutation
(d) Undergoing rapid division
Answer:
(d) Undergoing rapid division

Question 4.
Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukaemia
(d) Lymphoma.
Answer:
(c) Leukaemia

Question 5.
Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to;
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Cirrhosis of liver
(c) State of hallucination
(d) Supression of brain
Answer:
(b) Cirrhosis of liver

Question 6.
Coronary heart disease is due to _______.
(a) Streptococci bacteria
(b) Inflammation of pericardium
(c) The weakening of heart valves
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles.
Answer:
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles.

Question 7.
Cancer of the epithelial cells is called:
(a) Leukemia
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Carcinoma
(d) Lipoma
Answer:
(c) Carcinoma

Question 8.
Metastasis is associated with _______.
(a) Malignant tumour
(b) Benign tumour
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Crown gall tumour.
Answer:
(a) Malignant tumour

Question 9.
Polyphagia is a condition seen in:
(a) Obesity
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) AIDS
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus

Question 10.
Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
(a) Eyes
(b) Auditory region
(c) Liver
(d) Central nervous system.
Answer:
(d) Central nervous system.

II. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement:

1. AIDS is an epidemic disease.
2. Cancer causing genes are called Oncogenes.
3. Obesity is characterized by tumour formation.
4. In leukemia both WBCs and RBCs increase in number.
5. Study of cause of disease is called etiology.
6. AIDS is not transmitted by contact with a patient’s clothes.
7. Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
8. Carcinogens are cancer causing agents.
9. Nicotine is a narcotic drug.
10. Cirrhosis is associated with brain disorder.
Answer:
1. False – AIDS is an pandemic disease
2. True
3. False – Obesity is characterized by cancer formation.
4. False – In leukemia only WBC increases in number.
5. True
6. True
7. False – Type 1 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
8. True
9. False – Nicotine is a stimulant.
10. False – Cirrhosis is associated with liver disorder.

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

1. IDDM – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
2. HIV – Human Immuno deficiency Virus
3. BMI – Body Mass Index
4. AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficieny Syndrome
5. CHD – Coronary Heart Disease
6. NIDDM – Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Fill in the blanks:

1. Cirrhosis is caused in liver due to excessive use of ……….
2. A highly poisonous chemicals derived from tobacco is ………..
3. Blood cancer is called ………..
4. Less response of a drug to a specific dose with repeated use is called ………..
5. Insulin resistance is a condition in ……….. diabetes mellitus.

Answer:

1. alcohol
2. nicotine
3. Leukaemia
4. Drug tolerance
5. Type 2

VI. Analogy type questions. Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

1. Communicable: AIDS: Non communicable: ………..
2. Chemotherapy: Chemicals: Radiation therapy: …………
3. Hypertension: Hypercholesterolomia: Glycosuria: ………….

Answer:

1. Cancer
2. Radiation
3. Hyper glycemia

VII. Answer in a Sentence:

Question 1.
What are psychotropic drugs?
Answer:
Drugs which acts on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception are called psychotropic drug.

Question 2.
Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
Answer:
Lung cancer, bronchitis, pulmonary tuberculosis, emphysema and hypoxia are some of the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.

Question 3.
What are the contributing factors for Obesity?
Answer:
The social, behavioural, psychological, metabolic and cellular factors are the contributing factors of obesity.

Question 4.
What is adult – onset diabetes?
Answer:
In adult-onset diabetes, insulin production by the pancreas is normal and target cells do not respond to insulin.

Question 5.
What is metastasis?
Answer:
The cancerous cell migrate to distant Parts of the body affect new tissues. This process is called metastasis.

Question 6.
How does insulin deficiency occur?
Answer:
Insulin deficiency occurs by the destruction of P-cells of the pancreas and blood glucose levels are increased (hyperglycemia).

VIII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the various routes by which transmission of human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
AIDS virus is present in urine, tears, saliva, breast milk and vaginal secretions. The virus is transmitted by the infected patient, who comes in contact with the blood of a healthy person. HIV/ AIDS is not transmitted by touch or any physical contact. It spreads through contact with body fluids or blood. HIV is generally transmitted by

• Sexual contact with an infected person.
• Use of contaminated needles or syringes.
• By the transfusion of contaminated or infected blood or blood products.
• From infected mother to her child through the placenta.

Question 2.
How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell?
Answer:

Question 3.
Differentiate between Type-1 and Type-2 diabetes mellitus.
Answer:

Question 4.
Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Low calorie, normal protein, vitamins and minerals, restricted carbohydrate Mid fat, high fibre diet can prevent overweight. Calorie restriction for weight reduction is safe and most effective. A low – calorie diet accompanied by moderate exercise will be effective in causing weight loss. Meditation, Yoga and Physical activity can also reduce stress-related to overeating.

Question 5.
What precautions can be taken for preventing heart diseases?
Answer:
Diet management: Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol-rich food, low carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is essential. Increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamin are required.

Physical activity: Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for bodyweight maintenance.
Addictive substance avoidance: Alcohol consumption and smoking are to be avoided.

IX. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.
Answer:
Measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic:

1. Education and Counselling: Education and proper counselling will help the alcoholics to overcome their problems and stress, to accept failures in their life.
2. Physical activity: Individuals undergoing Rehabilitation measures should be guided into healthy activities like reading, music, sports, yoga and meditation.
3. Seeking help from parents and peers: The affected individuals should seek help and guidance from parents and peers. This would help them to share their feeling of anxiety of wrongdoing and get rid of the habit.
4. Medical assistance: Individuals should seek help from psychologists, and psychiatrists, to get relieved from this condition and to lead a relaxed and peaceful life.

Question 2.
Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for occurrence of cardiovascular diseases. Can it be modified? If yes, suggest measures for prevention.
Answer:
The diseases that affect the heart and the blood vessels are called cardio vascular diseases. High blood cholesterol and high blood pressure are the major reason for heart diseases.
Yes, it can be modified by the following methods.

1. By maintaining the desirable blood cholesterol (level less than 200 mg/dl).
2. By following a good good diet with include increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamins. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acid.
3. By doing physical activities like regular exercise, walking and yoga.
4. By Avoiding alcohol and smoking.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
What is the role of fat in the cause of atherosclerosis?
Answer:
The atherosclerosis is the condition, where the arteries become narrowed and hardened, due to the build-up of plaque (fatty streak to a fibrous form) around the artery wall and leads to the narrowing of blood vessels. It leads to Ischemia (deficient blood supply to the heart muscle) and myocardial infarction (death of the heart muscle tissue) occur. This disease disrupts the flow of blood around the body, posing the risk of serious complications.

Question 2.
Eating junk food and consuming soft drinks results in health problems like obesity, still children prefer. What are the suggestions you would give to avoid children eating junk food/ consumption of soft drinks?
Answer:

1. Get them involved in Planning healthy meals shopping.
2. Make them to understand the risk factors of eating junk food.
3. Understand the importance of eating low caloric food and to avoid junk food as junk food and soft drinks have high calorie.
4. To maintain the correct BMI.

Question 3.
Regular physical exercise is advisable for normal functioning of the human body. What are the advantages of practising exercise in daily life?
Answer:
The advantages of practising exercise in daily life are as follows:

• Practising exercise daily in our life make us feel happier.
• It helps us with weight loss.
• Exercises are good for the muscles and bones.
• It can increase our energy level.
• It can reduce the risk of chronic pain and chronic diseases.
• It can keep our skin, brain, health and memory.
• Exercises can help with relaxation and quality sleep.

Question 4.
A leading weekly magazine has recently published a survey analysis which says that number of AIDS patient in the country is increasing day by day. The report says that the awareness among the people about AIDS is still very poor. You are discussing the magazine report in your class and a team of your class decides to help people to fight against the dreadful disease.
(a) What problem you face when trying to educate the people in your village near by your school?
(b) How do you overcome the problem?
Answer:
(a) Many people are ignorant and not ready to discuss about the sexually transmitted disease like AIDS.
(b) Awareness to be created on the dreadful effects of AIDS and HIV.

XI. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Once a person starts taking drugs or alcohol it is difficult to get rid of the habit. Why?
Answer:
It is difficult to get rid of the habit because they feel a strong urge to keep taking a drug or alcohol are dependent. It reaches the brain through the bloodstream. The persons fully dependent on drug or alcohol and they cannot live without drugs, which we call drug dependence.

Question 2.
Men addicted to tobacco lead to oxygen deficiency in their body. What could be the possible reason?
Answer:
Smoking increases carbon monoxide content in blood and reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen. This causes O₂ deficiency in the blood.

Question 3.
Name any three foods that are to be avoided and included in the diet of a diabetic patient. Why should it be followed?
Answer:
The foods that are to be avoided in the diet of a diabetic patient, are all processed grains, french fries, packaged snacks high in salt and carbohydrates, white bread and white flour. Foods that are to be included in the diet of diabetic patients are Brown rice, whole wheat bread, whole-grain cereal, oatmeal, millet and vegetables.

Question 4.
How can informational efforts change people’s HIV knowledge and behaviour?
Answer:
Creating awareness campaign and educating people on the consequences of AIDS. Persons with HIV/AIDS should not be isolated from the family and society.

XII. Assertion and Reasoning:

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: All drugs act on the brain.
Reason: Drugs disturb the functioning of the body and mind.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

2. Assertion: Excretion of excess glucose in urine is observed in a person with diabetes mellitus.
Reason: Pancreas is unable to produce sufficient quantity of insulin.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answers:

Question 1.
Which is cancerous tumour?
(a) Benign tumour
(b) Malignant tumour
(c) Lymphoma
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Malignant tumour

Question 2.
The elevated blood glucose level is termed as ______.
(a) Glycosuria
(b) Hyperglycemia
(c) Polyphagia
(d) Hypoxia.
Answer:
(b) Hyperglycemia

Question 3.
Treatment of cancer is:
(a) Surgery
(b) Radiation
(c) Chemotherapy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 4.
The fatty streak, plaque leads to the narrowing of blood vessels lead to ______.
(a) Ischemia
(b) Psychotherapy
(c) Emphysema
(d) Atherosclerosis.
Answer:
(d) Atherosclerosis.

Question 5.
The best diagnosis of cancer is done by:
(a) Biopsy
(b) X-ray
(c) Microscopic examination by body fluids
(d) Any of these
Answer:
(a) Biopsy

Question 6.
Tobacco chewing results in:
(a) Mouth cancer
(b) Lung cancer
(c) Bone cancer
(d) Leukaemia
Answer:
(a) Mouth cancer

Question 7.
Addicion of tobacco is due to:
(a) Histamine
(b) Nicotine
(c) Cocaine
(d) Caffeine
Answer:
(b) Nicotine

Question 8.
A factor responsible for cirhosis of liver is:
(a) vitamins
(b) fats and oils
(c) alcoholism
(d) sugar
Answer:
(c) alcoholism

Question 9.
Which is related to tobacco addiction?
(a) Gastric and duadenal ulcers
(b) Bronchitis
(c) Emphysema
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
Aizheimers disease affects:
(a) childhood
(b) adolescent
(c) young people
(d) elderly people
Answer:
(d) elderly people

Question 11.
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(a) (3-Lymphocytes
(b) Leucocytes
(c) Helper-t-Lymphocytes
(d) Thrombocyte
Answer:
(c) Helper-t-Lymphocytes

Question 12.
ELISA test is used for detection of:
(a) Antibodies
(b) Viral diseases
(c) AIDS
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) AIDS

II. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement:

1. Insulin administration is necessary for Type-2 diabetes.
2. Hypoxin is decrease of oxygen in body tissue.
3. International Day against drug abuse and Illicit trafficking is on June 5th.

Answer:

1. False – Insulin administration is necessary for Type-1 diabetes.
2. True
3. False – International Day against drug abuse and Illicit trafficking is on June 26,h

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

1. POCSO – Protection Of Children from Sexual Offences
2. WHO – World Health Organisation
3. CVD – Cardio Vascular Disease
4. ELISA – Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbert Assay
5. NC PCR – National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
6. LDL – Low Density Lipo protein

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

V. Fill in the blanks:

1. Child helpline number is …………
2. Psychotropic drugs are also called as ………..
3. ……….. is powdered tobacco taken through nose.
4. Body Mass Index = …………
5. ………. seed contains Insoluble fibre.
6. Desirable level for blood cholesterol is ………..
7. The study of cancer is called ………….
8. World Aids Day is observed on ………….
9. The condition of suppressing the body’s defence mechanism is …………
Answer:
1. 1098
2. mood altering drug
3. Sniffing
4.
5. Flax seed
6. Less than 200 mg/dl
7. Concology
8. December 1st
9. AIDS

VI. Analogy type questions. Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

1. Sarcome: Skin cancer :: Leukaemia ………
2. Diabetes: Increase in blood glucose :: Obesity : ……….

Answer:

1. Blood Pressure
2. Increase in body weight

VII. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name some of the risk factors for illness and early death.
Answer:
Smoking cigarettes, Alcohol addiction, use of drugs, eating high fat and cholesterol-rich diets, excessive intake of Junk foods and reduced physical activity are some of the risk factors for illness and early death.

Question 2.
What is neoplasm?
Answer:
The uncontrolled proliferation of cells results in clones are called neoplasm or tumour.

Question 3.
Why sharing of injection needles between two individuals is not recommended?
Answer:
Because it may transmit certain pathogens like HIV, Hepatitis B.

Question 4.
What does child helpline provides?
Answer:
The child helpline provides a social worker who can assist the child by providing food, shelter and protection.

Question 5.
Define physical abuse.
Answer:
Physical abuse of a child is defined as those acts that cause physical harm such as threatening, beating, kicking and hitting the child.

Question 6.
Who is a drug addict?
Answer:
A person who is habituated to a drug due to its prolonged use is called drug addict.

Question 7.
What are addictive drug?
Answer:
A drug that modifies the physical, biological, psychological or social behaviour of a person by stimulating, depressing or disturbing the functions of the body and the mind is called addictive drug,

Question 8.
How does sexually abused children behave?
Answer:
Sexually abused children show symptoms of genital injury, abdominal pain, frequent urinary infection and behavioural problems.

Question 9.
What are the symptoms of heart diseases?
Answer:
Shortness of breath, headache, tiredness, dizziness, chest pain, swelling of leg and gastrointestinal disturbances.

Question 10.
What is Glycosuria?
Answer:
Excessive glucose excreted in urine is called Glycosuria.

VIII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the objectives of POCSO?
Answer:
Objectives of the POCSO Act, 2012.
(i) To protect children from the offences of

1. Sexual assault
2. Sexual harassment
3. Pornography

(ii) To establish Special Courts for speedy trial of such offences.

Question 2.
How is psychotheraphy given to drug de addictive?
Answer:
Psychotherapy : Individual and group counselling is given by psychologists and counsellors. The treatment includes efforts to reduce the addict’s stress, taught new ways to solve everyday’s problems, adequate diet, rest and relaxation.

Question 3.
What is physical abuse? What does child abuse constitute?
Answer:
Physical abuse of a child is defined as those acts that cause physical harm such as the threatening, beating, kicking and hitting the child. Child abuse constitutes all forms of physical or emotional ill – treatment, sexual abuse, exploitation resulting in child’s ill health, survival and development.

Question 4.
How can we prevent smoking?
Answer:
Knowing the dangers of smoking and chewing tobacco adolescents and the old people need to avoid these habits. Proper counselling and medical assistance can help an addict to give up the habit of smoking.

Question 5.
What are the harmful effects of Alcohol?
Answer:

• Prolonged use of alcohol depresses the nervous system, by acting as a sedative and analgesic substance.
• Nerve cell damage, causing mental or physical disturbances.
• Lack of Co-ordination of body organs.
• Blurred or reduced vision, results in road accidents.
• Dilation of blood vessels, which affect the functioning of the heart.
• Liver damage, resulting in fatty liver which leads to cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues.
• Body loses its control and consciousness leading to health complications.

Question 6.
How can we control and prevent diabetes?
Answer:
Diet, hypoglycemic drugs, insulin injection and exercise are the management options based on the type and severity of the condition. The overall goal of diabetes management is to maintain normal blood glucose level.

Question 7.
Explain the Carcinogenic agents.
Answer:
Cancer-causing agents are called Carcinogenic agents or Carcinogens. They are:

• Physical Irritant: Heavy smoking causes lung cancer and cancers of the oral cavity, pharynx and larynx. Betel and tobacco chewing causes oral cancer. Excessive exposure to sunlight may cause skin cancer.
• Chemical agents: Nicotine, caffeine, products of combustion of coal and oil, pesticides, asbestos, nickel, certain dyes and artificial sweeteners induce cancer.
• Radiations: Ionizing radiations like X – rays, gamma – rays, radioactive substances and non – ionising radiations like UV rays cause DNA damage leading to cancer.
• Biological agents: Cancer-causing virus are called oncogenic viruses.

IX. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
List out the behavioural changes of drug user.
Answer:
Adverse effects of drug use among adolescents are:

1. Drop in academic performance, absence from school or college.
2. Lack of interest in personal hygiene,isolation, depression, fatigue and aggressive behaviour.
3. Deteriorating relationship with family and friends.
4. Change in food and sleeping habits.
5. Fluctuation in body weight and appetite.
6. Always looking out for an easy way to get money for obtaining drugs.
7. Prone to infections like AIDS and Hepatitis-B.

Question 2.
Explain the following:
(a) Drug Dependence
(b) Behavioural Changes of Drug Users
(c) Drug De – addiction
Answer:
(a) Drug Dependence: Persons who consume psychotropic drugs become fully dependent on them, they cannot live without drugs. This condition is referred to as Drug Dependence. The dependence maybe

• Physical and mental dependence: Dependence on the drug for normal condition of well being and to maintain physiological state.
• Psychological dependence is a feel that drugs help them to reduce stress.

(b) Behavioural Changes of Drug Users:

• Drop-in Academic performance, absence from school or college.
• Lack of interest in personal hygiene, isolation, depression, fatigue and aggressive behaviour.
• Deteriorating relationship with family and friends.
• Change in food and sleeping habits.
• Fluctuation in body weight and appetite.
• Always looking for an easy way to get money for obtaining drugs.
• Prone to infections like AIDS and Hepatitis – B.

(c) Drug De-addiction:

• Detoxification: The drug is stopped gradually and the addict is helped to overcome the withdrawal symptoms. The addict undergoes severe physical and emotional disturbance. This is taken care of by specific medication.
• Psychotherapy: Individual and group counselling is given by psychologists and counsellors.
  The treatment includes efforts to reduce the addict’s stress, taught new ways to solve everyday’s problems, adequate diet, rest and relaxation.
• Counselling to family members: Social workers counsel family members in order to change the attitude of rejection. So that the addict is accepted by the family and society.
• Rehabilitation: They are given proper vocational training so that they can lead a healthy life and become useful members of society.

Question 3.
What are Carcinogen? Write a note on carcinogenic agents.
Answer:
Cancer causing agents are called carcinogens. They are physical, chemical agents, ionizing radiations and biological agents.
Physical Irritant : Heavy smoking causes lung cancer and cancers of oral cavity, pharynx (throat) and larynx. Betel and tobacco chewing causes oral cancer. Excessive exposure to sunlight may cause skin cancer.

Chemical agents : Nicotine, caffeine, products of combustion of coal and oil, pesticides, asbestos, nickel, certain dyes and artificial sweetners induce cancer.

Radiations : Ionizing radiations like X-rays, gamma-rays, radioactive substances and non-ionising radiations like UV rays cause DNA damage leading to cancer.

Biological agents : Cancer causing viruses are called oncogenic viruses.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Ram participated in a group discussion on the topic ill effects of tobacco on human health
(a) List any two ill effects of tobacco.
(b) Suggest any two measures on anti-tobacco awareness.
Answer:
(a) Pulmonary tuberculosis and emphysema are caused by tobacco.
(b) Proper Counselling and medical assistance help to give up the habit.

Question 2.
Which diagnosis is essential for confirming diabetes?
Answer:
If the fasting blood glucose is greater than 140 mg/dl or the random blood glucose is greater than 200 mg/ml, on more than two occasions, confirms diabetes.

XI. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Adolescence is a vulnerable phase of mental and physiological development in an individual. They are more to addiction at this age.
(a) Give two reasons for addiction in adolescence.
(b) Mention two preventive measures.
Answer:
(a) Peer Pressure and mood swing
(b) Creating awareness and proper counselling

Question 2.
A person is your locality has been diagnosed with AIDS people in your locality want him to leave the colony for the fear of spread of AIDS.
(a) List the way AIDS virus be transmitted.
(b) Give two suggestion to prevent it.
Answer:
(a) AIDS transmitted by sexual contact with infected person or by infected blood transfusion.
(b) Advocating safe sex screening of blood from blood banks for HIV before transfusion.

XII. Assertion and Reasoning;

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given fust below if. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as:
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Alcohol consumption during pregnancy is not desirable.
Reason (R): Alcohol causes physical and mental defects in the offspring.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): All types of cancer results in tumours.
Reason (R): Cancer is easily treatable with anti biotic.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Cancer is a contagious disease.
Reason (R): It is transmitted from a patient to a healthy person by casual contact.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is:
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta

Question 2.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is ……………
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 3.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is:
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 4.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is …………..
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur

Question 5.
Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are:
(a) 3 and 15
(b) 4 and 15
(c) 3 and 16
(d) 4 and 15
Answer:
(a) 3 and 15

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ………………. % of its economy.
2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ……………….
3. Tamil Nadu ranks ………………. in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
4. ………………. is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
5. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….

Answers:

1. 21%
2. Then Pennai
3. second
4. Chennai
5. balance of trade

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)

IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the state’s economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu. Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The farmers select different crops for different seasons of cultivation based on the temperature and availability of moisture in the soil.

Question 2.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region, it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 3.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The important multipurpose project of Tamil Nadu are:

1. Mettur Dam – River Cauvery – Mettur (Salem)
2. Bhavani Sagar Dam – Bhavani – Erode
3. Amaravathi Dam – Amaravathi – Udumalpet (Tirupur)
4. Krishnagiri Dam – Cauvery – Krishnagiri
5. Sathanur Dam – Then Pennai – Chengam
6. Mullai Periyar – Periyar – Tamil Nadu, Kerala Border fix) Vaigai Dam – Vaigai – Andipatti (Theni)
7. Manimuthar Dam – manimuthar – Tirunelveli
8. Papanasam Dam – Karaiyar – Tirunelveli
9. Parambikulam Aliyar – Aliyar and Parambikulam – Joint venture of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 4.
What is MRTS?
Answer:
MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Question 5.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports: Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchiraplli.
Sea ports:
Three major sea ports – Chennai, Ennore, Tuticorin. An intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 51 minor ports are there in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Have you heard about any stampede in your district? Write about that incident briefly.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Marine Fishing and inland fishing.
Answer:
Marine Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in ocean and sea in shore fishing and off shore fishing.
2. Fish varieties caught are sharks, flying fish, counch, cat fish, silver bellies and crabs.
3. Large mechanised boats are used.
4. Chennai, Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Ramanathapuram are the major areas.

Inland Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in lakes, rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and swamps.
2. Carp, Tilapia, Barbus, Rohu, catla and mrigal are caught. Oyster and prawns are cultured in nurseries.
3. Catamaran, diesel boats and floating nets are used.
4. Vellore leads in inland fishing production followed by Cuddalore, Sivagangai and Virudhunagar districts.

Question 2.
Food crops and non-food crops.
Answer:
Food Crops:

1. Staple food crops paddy, millets and pulses.
2. From the major source of regular diet.
3. Mostly grown under subsistence farming the excess is given for sale

Non – Food Crops:

1. Oil seeds, sugarcane, cotton and plantation crops.
2. Mainly used for commercial purpose (cash crops).
3. Mostly grown and commercial farming mainly grown for agro-based manufacturing sector.

Question 3.
Surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface Water:

1. Water available on the surface of the earth in lakes, ponds, rivers, stream, reservoirs etc.,
2. The surface water is put in to various uses like drinking, for hydelpower, irrigation etc.
3. Availability depend upon the rainfall nature of soil, land form temperature etc.
4. Not reliable
5. May be polluted and contaminated by the external forces.

Ground Water:

1. Water found underground at deep in large aquifers (porous rock layers) by seeping the soil.
2. Water has to be pumped out by drilling a deep well.
3. Availability depend upon the nature of absorption by the aqueous layer of rocks.
4. Reliable sources of water.
5. Mostly polluted due to depth.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
Answer:
To promote organic farming a central scheme named ‘National Project on Organic Farming’ was launched Apart from general things, the scheme provides financial assistance through Capital investment Subsidy Scheme for agro-waste compost production units, bio-fertilizers/ bio-pesticides production units, development and implementation of a quality control regime, human resource development etc. In organic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator and livestock feed additives are not used. This type of fanning rely on crop rotation, crop residues, animal manure, off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control to maintain soil productivity.

Question 2.
Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:
Cities are densely populated than villages because of several facilities like education, recreation, medical and mainly employment opportunities in various sectors to earn for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Karur is Called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is a well known industrial centre the city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles. It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 4.
Mostly stampede occurs in Temples.
Answer:
During festival seasons in temples people from all over gather in thousands or lakhs. Sometimes the uncontrolled crowds when they move towards each other (to and fro) may push each other. The packed situation and lack of space lead to panic and asphysciation that make breathing very difficult and stampede occurs.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and cinchona are the major plantation crops of the state.
• Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
• Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
• Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
• The Nilgiris and Yercaud in Salem are the notable regions for tea plantations.
• It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Dharmapuri districts.
• Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of coffee next to Karnataka.
• Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
• Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu
• Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
• Cinchona is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.
• Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of the Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Question 2.
Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has only 2.5% of India’s water resources. More than 95% of the surface water and 80% of the ground water have already been put into use.

Major uses of water: It include human / animal consumption, irrigation and industrial use.

Rainfall: The state is mainly dependent on monsoon rains. The average annual rainfall is around 930 mm. 47% during north east monsoon, 35% during the south west Monsoon 14% in summer and 4% in winter.

Surface water Resources: River Basin, Reservoirs, Tanks, Tube wells and other wells and open wells. Approximately getting 20,46,788 million cubic metres.

Question 3.
Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country’s. resources of vermiculite, magnetite, dunite, rutile, garnet, molybdenum and ilmenite.

Contribution for the country’s mineral resources:
75% vermiculite, 55.3% lignite, 69% dunite, 52% molybdenum, 59% garnet, 30% titanium.
Important Minerals and area of occurrence:

In some parts of the state feldspar, quartz, copper and lead also found in less quantity.

Question 4.
State the densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu and account for its high density.
Answer:

1. The plains with suitable climate, the coasted plains with mild temperature and large towns are densely populated.
2. The state ranks 12lh among the Indian States in population density.
3. The nation average density of population as per the 2011 census in 382. Chennai is the densest district with 26,903 person per sq. km.
4. Followed by Kanyakumari – 1106
   Tiruvallur – 1049
   Kancheepuram – 927
   Madurai – 823
   Coimbatore – 748
   Cuddalore – 702
   Thanjavur – 691
   Nagapattinam – 668
   Salem – 663
   Vellore – 646
   Tiruchirappalli – 602
   These are the regions with high density of population.

Question 5.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Road ways:

1. The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km. 60,628 km are maintained by state Highways department.
2. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

1. As a part of Southern Railway with headquarters at Chennai, Tamil Nadu has well developed rail network.
2. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length 6,693 km with 690 railway station.
3. Main Junctions: Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
4. Chennai has a well established suburban railway network a Mass Rapid Transit System (MRTS) and is currently developing a metro system with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:

1. Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement. It has been growing over 18% per year.
2. Major International Airports – Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchirapalli. Chennai International airport is the third largest airport in India next to Mumbai and Delhi.
3. Domestic Airport – The state has domestic airports at Tuticorin and Salem connecting several parts of the country.

Waterways:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports – Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin.
2. Minor ports – About 15 and Nagapattinam serves as an intermediate port.

Cargo handling:

1. 24% of India’s cargo is handled by the ports of Tamil Nadu. They are currently capable of handling over 73 millions metric tonnes of cargo annually.
2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai port.
3. Chennai port – It is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
4. It is currently upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,0000 vehicles.
5. Ennore port – It was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and are traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Write about Road safety rules.
Answer:

• Aware of the road signals
• Stop, look and cross
• Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
• Don’t rush on roads
• Crossroads in pedestrian crossings
• Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
• Never crossroad at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark the areas of major crops, minerals, dams, airports and seaports.
Answer:
(a) On an outline map of Tamil Nadu the areas of major crops.

1. Paddy – Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Tirunelveli
2. Millets – Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Vellore, Perambalur.
3. Pulses – Coimbatore, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thoothukudi, Krishnagiri.
4. Oil seeds – Vellore, Tiruvannamalai, Villupuram, Salem, Pudukottai.
5. Sugarcane – Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Cuddalore, Erode, Tirunelveli.
6. Cotton – Coimbatore, Salem, Madurai, Ramanathapuram, Virudhunagar.
7. Tea and coffee – Nilgiris, Kodaikanal, Kanyakumari, Anaimalai hills.

(b) Distribution of minerals:
Refer VIII. Paragraph Q. No 3 for Distribution of minerals areas.

(c) Dams:

(d) Seaports and airports:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A triangular-shaped alluvial tract formed at the mouth of the river:
(a) Doab
(b) Bay
(c) Delta
(d) Harbour
Answer:
(c) Delta

Question 2.
Agriculture is the ………….. and traditional occupation.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Service
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 3.
……………….. with alluvial soil enhances agricultural productivity.
(a) hills
(b) plateaus
(c) plains
(d) dry lands
Answer:
(c) plains

Question 4.
Pearl fishing is predominant in ………….. region.
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Rameshwaram
(c) Chinna muttom
Answer:
(a) Gulf of Mannar

Question 5.
India observed as ……………….. national year of millets.
(a) 2015
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2018
Answer:
(d) 2018

Question 6.
The Manchester of South India is ……………..
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 7.
……………….. is the major oil seed of the Tamil Nadu state.
(a) Coconut
(b) Ground nut
(c) Sunflower
(d) Gingelly
Answer:
(b) Ground nut

Question 8.
The Headquarters of the Southern Railways is in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 9.
……………….. is also called inshore fishing or neritic fishing.
(a) Oyster cultivation
(b) Inland fishing
(c) Marine fishing
(d) Pearl fishing
Answer:
(c) Marine fishing

Question 10.
…………….. dam was built by British administration in 1895.
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mettur
(c) Mullaiperiyar
Answer:
(c) Mullaiperiyar

Question 11.
……………….. is one of the biggest Earthen dams in the country.
(a) Mullai Periyar Dam
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam
(c) Mettur Dam
(d) Sathanur Dam
Answer:
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam

Question 12.
……………….. is also known as ‘Karaiyar Dam’.
(a) Papanasam Dam
(b) Vaigai Dam
(c) Manimuthar Dam
(d) Krishnagiri Dam
Answer:
(a) Papanasam Dam

Question 13.
……………….. silk is unique in its quality and traditional value all over the world.
(a) Ami
(b) Salem
(c) Kancheepuram
(d) Banaras
Answer:
(c) Kancheepuram

Question 14.
The lowest literacy rate is found in ……………….. district.
(a) Kanyakumari
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

Question 15.
……………….. is the shortest national highway in Tamil Nadu.
(a) NH7
(b) NH44
(c) NH785
(d) NH4
Answer:
(c) NH785

Question 16.
“Fire works” capital of India is:
(a) Sivakasi
(b) Salem
(c) Kamr
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Sivakasi

Question 17.
……………….. is the official enumeration of population-based on various aspects.
(a) Density
(b) Census
(c) Religion
(d) Stampede
Answer:
(b) Census

Question 18.
At districts level ……………….. is the Chairman of disaster management in the state.
(a) Local Police
(b) Civil Defence
(c) District Magistrate
(d) District Collector
Answer:
(d) District Collector

Question 19.
As per 2011 census the rural population of the state is:
(a) 48.40%
(b) 11.19%
(c) 60.07%
(d) 51.60%
Answer:
(d) 51.60%

Question 20.
The rapid increase of ……………….. may retard economic growth.
(a) population
(b) literacy
(c) agriculture
(d) industries
Answer:
(a) population

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The ………………. are the most significant resource on the earth surface.
2. ………………. is the mainstay of the state’s economy.
3. ………………. is the major sources of rainfall for Tamil Nadu.
4. Fruits and vegetables are mainly cultivated in ………………. cropping season.
5. FAO has decided to observe ………………. as the International year of millets.
6. Tamil Nadu co-operative Milk Producers Federation Limited is popularly known as ……………….
7. With very low investments ………………. can be made into profitable venture for small farmers.
8. Fishing done in 20 – 30 miles away from the shore is known as ……………….
9. Vaigai dam is has its surname as ………………. due to its unique as
10. Parappalar project is located near ……………….
11. The percapita availability of water resources in Tamil Nadu is just ………………. cubic metres.
12. Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode region is referred as ……………….
13. ………………. convert raw materials into usable product or goods.
14. ………………. districts has some specialised areas for the manufacturing of synthetic silk clothes.
15. Hundreds of leather tanneries are located around ………………. district.
16. Vellore leather accounts for more than ………………. % of leather and related products.
17. ………………. paper mill in Karur was started in the year 1979.
18. G.l Tag of Nagercoil is its ……………….
19. Pattamadai is famous for ……………….
20. ………………. is the second largest software exporter next to Karnataka.
21. Tamil Nadu accounts for ………………. % automobile components produced in India.
22. The single largest cottage industry in the state is the ……………….
23. ………………. is an area in which business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country.
24. ………………. refers to the number to people living in a defined area.
25. If any district has a population of about 15 – 20 lakhs it cames under ………………. population category.
26. ………………. district is the least populated one.
27. The ………………. represents the number of females per 1000 males.
28. The ………………. is the commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and storage of cargo.
29. N.H 785 runs from to to a distance of 35 km.
30. ‘1077’ is the ………………. contact number.
31. The state Disaster management Authority chairman is ……………….
32. Education on awareness regarding the disasters may help in the ………………. during disasters.
33. ………………. is a deposit in the earth crust with one or more value minerals.
34. ………………. are the people with the ability to read and write.
35. ………………. is a large natural or artificial lake used as a source of water supply.
36. ………………. is the statistical study of the characteristics of human population.
37. ………………. are the people who make a deep and detailed study of the population.
38. ………………. is one of major problem confronting our nation with all its evil effects.
39. ………………. is reared in the arid, semi-arid and mountainous areas in Tamil Nadu.
40. ………………. is the best alternative for rearing in the marginal and undulating lands.

Answer:

1. human beings
2. Agriculture
3. North-East monsoon
4. Navarai
5. 2023
6. Aavin
7. goat rearing
8. off-shore fishing
9. little – Brindavan
10. Ottanchatram
11. 900
12. Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu
13. Industries
14. Ramanathapuram
15. Vellore
16. 37
17. Kagithapuram
18. Temple Jewellery
19. mats
20. Tamil Nadu
21. 35%
22. handloom sector
23. Special Economic Zone ,(SEZ)
24. Population
25. Moderate
26. The Nilgiri
27. Sex – Ration
28. Port
29. Madurai to Nattham
30. control room of district Collector / Magistrate
31. Chief Minister
32. reduction of risks
33. Ore
34. Literates
35. Reservoirs
36. Demography
37. Demographers
38. Over population
39. Sheep
40. Goat

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Vellore is the top exporter of finished leather goods.
Reason (R): Hundreds of leather tannaries are located around Vellore.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct R does not explains (A).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): TNPL is one of the most accomplished paper mill in the world. Reason (R): TNPL is a Government of Tamil Nadu enterprise.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Industrial disaster are caused by negligence or incompetence. Reason (R): Over heating and use of high quality control.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true.
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Cropping seasons in Tamil Nadu have different types of crop cultivation.
Reason (R): Cultivation of crops depend on the temperature and availability of moisture.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true (R) explains (A).
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
It is the process of producing food, feed fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated plants.

Question 2.
What do you mean by “Human Geography”.
Answer:
Human Geography refers to the study of ways of development of human societies and their operation in relation to their physical environment.

Question 3.
What is Port?
Answer:
The commercial port of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for the storage of cargo.

Question 4.
Name the types of agriculture practices followed in Tamil Nadu and their regions.
Answer:
Farming Type:

1. Subsistence intensive agriculture
2. Plantation agriculture
3. Mixed farming

Regions:

1. All over Tamil Nadu except few regions
2. Hill slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats
3. Banks of R. Cauvery and ThenPennai

Question 5.
Define Birth rate:
Answer:
The number of live births per annum per thousand people in a region is called birth rate.

Question 6.
What are the conditions required for the cultivation of pulses?
Answer:

1. Pulses are mostly grown in drier regions with or without irrigation.
2. Mild cool climate and a low to moderate rainfall are best suited for these crops.

Question 7.
What are the important pulses varieties grown in Tamil Nadu? and their uses.
Answer:

1. Bengal gram, black gram, green gram, cow pea, and horse gram.
2. Uses: Pulses are the major sources of protein and they serve as excellent fodder.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘mixed farming’?
Answer:
It is a type of farming which involves both growing of crops and the raising of live-stock simultaneously in a land holding.

Question 9.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:

• Fibre crops include cotton and jute.
• Cotton thrives well in black soil.
• It is the major fibre crop of Tamil Nadu.
• It is cultivated on a large scale in the districts of Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Cuddalore.

Question 10.
Write the significance of Hand looms and power looms industry.
Answer:

1. Handloom sector in the state is the single largest cottage industry.
2. It provides livelihood to a large number of rural people.
3. It promotes export earnings.
4. It generates gainful employment for more than 4.29 lakh weaver households and 11.64 lakh weavers in the state.

Significance of power loom industry:

1. A tradition industry.
2. Contributes a large to India economy in. terms of foreign exchange earnings,
3. Greater employment opportunities are provided (nearly 6.5 million people are employed).

Question 11.
Define Harbour.
Answer:

1. Harbour is an extensive stretch of deepwater near the seashore where vessels (ships) can anchor securely.
2. It is used for exports and imports of goods.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Irrigation?
Answer:
Irrigation refers to the artificial supply of watering the fields. For a monsoon fed region like Tamil Nadu where rainfall is irregular and seasonal irrigation – become essential.

Question 13.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
The activities that involve the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services at all levels within a country are called as economic activities.

Question 14.
What is the aim of Special Economic Zones (SEZ)?
Answer:
The aims of Special Economic Zones is to increase trade balance, employment increased investment, job creation and effective administration.

Question 15.
What are the significant contributions of the manufacturing industry?
Answer:
The manufacturing industry broadly covers manufacture of machinery and equipment, motor vehicles, basic metal and alloy industries, metal products and repair of capital goods.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Sornavari cropping season and Samba cropping season.
Answer:
Sornavari cropping season:

1. Sornavari cropping season is called chithirai pattam as it falls in the Tamil month Chithirai.
2. Sowing period: April – May and Harvesting period : August – September.
3. Millets and cotton are the crops grown in this season.

Samba cropping season:

1. Samba cropping season also called as Adipattam as it falls in the Tamil month Adi.
2. Sowing period: July – August Harvesting period: January – February.
3. Paddy and sugarcane are the crops grown in this season.

Question 2.
Subsistence farming and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Subsistence farming:

1. Mostly food crops are grown.
2. Farming is done for own consumption purpose only excess is sent for sale.
3. Plains with alluvial soil is suitable for cultivation.
4. Paddy, pulses and millets are grown.

Plantation farming:

1. Mainly cash crops are grown.
2. Farming is done mainly for sale purpose.
3. Hill slopes are the ideal landform of this type of farming.
4. Tea, coffee and spices are grown.

Question 3.
Imports and exports.
Answer:
Imports:

1. Goods and services are bought from overseas producers.
2. Local currency is involved.
3. Improves the internal economy.
4. Main imports are Machineries, Newsprint and Fertilisers.

Exports:

1. Goods and services arc sold to other countries.
2. Earns foreign exchange (Foreign currency).
3. Improves the standard of living of the people.
4. Main exports are agricultural products and leather goods.

Question 4.
Harbour and Port.
Answer:
Harbour:

1. An extensive stretch of deep water near the sea shore where vessels can anchor securely.
2. It may be natural or artificial.
3. Vishakapattinam (Natural harbour) Chennai (artificial harbour).

Port:

1. The commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for storage of goods.
2. It is man made feature.
3. Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin are the major ports of Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Personal communication and Mass communication.
Answer:
Personal Communication:

1. Communication is only between two persons.
2. Telephone, letter and e-mail are some form of personal communication.
3. Personal messages and informations are shared.

Mass Communication:

1. Communication is shared with large number of people.
2. Mass medias like radio, television and news papers are the medium of communication,
3. Awareness, entertainment, news and weather report are shared.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is situated in the tropical zone nearer to the equator. The . temperature in Tamil Nadu is relatively high almost throughout the year. So only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Human beings are the most significant reasons on the earth surface.
Answer:

1. The resources available on the earth are useful only when they are utilised.
2. Human beings using their intelligence and skill made these resources useful to mankind.

Thus the human beings are the most significant resources on the earth surface.

Question 3.
Agriculture has strong link with economic growth.
Answer:

1. Agriculture has been the mainstay of the state’s economy since independence.
2. More than 65% of the population depends upon this sector.
3. It provides employment to rural people on a large scale, enhancing economic growth.

Question 4.
Live stock has remained an integral part of socio-economic fabric of rural people.
Answer:

1. Livestock provides a profitable venture for small and marginal farmers.
2. More over they provide a dependable sources of income to the rural people who rear cow, goat, sheep and poultry.
3. Rearing of cattle breed for milk forms major component of rural economy.

Question 5.
It is important to save water for us and the future generation.
Answer:

1. The state is entirely dependent on rains for recharging its water resources.
2. Monsoon failures lead to acute water scarcity and severe droughts. So it is important to save water for us and the future generation.

Question 6.
TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world.
Answer:
TNPL produces different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and wood pulp and is eco-friendly. Thus it is referred as one of the , most accomplished mills in the world.

VIII. Answer the following in paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the Paper Industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Paper Industry:
Tamil Nadu stands second in paper production in our country Bambo, grass and bagasse from sugercane are raw materials for paper industry. Soda, Soda ash, Chlorine, Sulphur, wood pulp and plenty of water are other requirements for setting up of paper industries. Pukkathurai in Kancheepuram district, Bhavani sagar, Pallipalayam, Pugalur, Paramathi Vellore, Coimbatore, Udumalai pettai, Thoppampettai, Nilakottai and Cheranmadevi are centres of paper mills in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newsprint and Papers Limited (TNPL) is a government of Tamil Nadu enterprise producing newsprint and printing and writing paper at its mill located at Kagithapuram in Karur district. It was started in 1979 with an installed capacity of 2.45 lakh MT of production per annum. TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world/producing different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and pulpwood.

Question 2.
Define the man-made disaster and enumerate the reasons for the industrial disaster.
Answer:

1. “A disastrous events caused directly or indirectly by human actions” are called as man made disaster.
2. Industrial Disaster.

Major Reasons: Disasters caused by industrial companies either by

• Accident
• Negligence or
• Incompetence
• Electrical faults

(iii) Main factors contributing to fire accidents in industries:

• Overheating
• Aging of materials
• Use of sub – stranded quality of electrical gadgets.

(iv) Electricity is not just a life line; it can also take away life when handled improperly. Other causes for industrial disasters are:

• Explosions
• Leaking of poisonous gases
• Injuries and deaths caused by machines.

The regular maintenance of machines and wires may reduce the frequency of accidents. More over the administration should be employees friendly and ready to extend their help in case of any untoward incidents.

Question 3.
“Write about the Central Scheme” National Project on Organic Farming”.
Answer:
(i) To promote organic Farming a central scheme named “National project on Organic Farming” was launched.

(ii) Apart from general things likes

• Creating awareness
• Promoting organic fertilizers
• Training
• Capacity building etc.,

(iii) The scheme provides financial assistance through “Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme” for

• agro-waste compost production units.
• bio fertilizers / bio pesticides production units.
• development and implementation of quality control regime.
• human resources development etc.,

Question 4.
What do you understand by the term “Second Green Revolution”?
Answer:
The Second Green Revolution is nothing but Eco-Farming or Organic Farming.

1. In this type of farming inorganic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator, and live stock feed additives are not used.
2. This type of farming rely on crop – rotation off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control.
3. This in turn helps in maintaining soil fertility.
4. This farming method has to be encouraged so that the present and future generation may able to get chemical free substances.

Question 5.
Write a note on (i) TANTEA (ii) TANCEM.
Answer:
TANTEA: Tamil Nadu Tea Plantation Corporation Limited is one of the biggest black tea producers in India with high quality clonal tea. It’s plantation spreads over nearly 4500 hectares.

TANCEM: Tamil Nadu Cements Corporation Limited is one among the major cement producers in Tamil Nadu operating two cement units at (i) Ariyalur and (ii) Alangulam

The other units of TANCEM are (i) Asbestos cement sheet plant at Alangulam and (ii) Stone ware pipe unit at Virudhachalam.

Major private cement brands produced in Tamil Nadu are

Sankar cement, Zuari cement, Ultratech cement, Madras cement and Dalmia cement.

Question 6.
What does the term ‘Gl Tag’ refer to? List out some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
“Gl (Geographical Indication) is a name or sign used on products which corresponds to a specific geographical location. It provides rights and protection of holders.

Some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu are:

Question 7.
What is special about SEZs and write about the SEZs zones in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) provide an internationally competetive hassle free environment for exports.
2. Units in SEZs manufacture goods and provide range of services.
3. SEZs are located in Nanguneri, Ennore, Hosur and Perambalur.
4. IT and ITES, SEZ named TIDEL – IT and TIDEL IIT and Bio – Pharmaceuticals SEZ are located in Chennai and Coimbatore SEZ called the TIDEL park IV is located in the city.
5. Special Economic Zone means the specified area within the territory of the state.
6. There are 36 special economics zone are operational in Tamil Nadu which tops in highest number of SEZ.
7. It helps in the economic and Industrial development of the state.
8. Helps to create employment opportunity and to earn foreign exchange.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Industrial area
Answer:
(i) Textile Industry:
Cotton – Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode.
Silk – Arani, Salem, Kancheepuram.

(ii) Leather Industry – Vellore.
Paper industry – Coimbatore, Karur, Erode.
Cement industry – Ariyalur, Virudhachalam.

(iii) Cities having Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
SEZ Zones: Chennai, Coimbatore.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
(a) clonal selection
(b) mass selection
(c) pureline selection
(d) hybridisation
Answer:
(b) mass selection

Question 2.
Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of ______.
(a) sugarcane
(b) rice
(c) cow pea
(d) maize.
Answer:
(c) cow pea

Question 3.
Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of:
(a) chilli
(b) maize
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat
Answer:
(d) wheat

Question 4.
The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is ______.
(a) IR – 8
(b) IR – 24
(c) Atomita – 2
(d) Ponni.
Answer:
(a) IR – 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
(a) enzyme from organism
(b) live organism
(c) vitamins
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) enzyme from organism

Question 6.
We can cut the DNA with the help of ______.
(a) scissors
(b) restriction endonucleases
(c) knife
(d) RNAase.
Answer:
(b) restriction endonucleases

Question 7.
rDNA is a:
(a) vector DNA
(b) circular DNA
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:
(d) satellite DNA
Answer:
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ______ sequences of DNA.
(a) single-stranded
(b) mutated
(c) polymorphic
(d) repetitive.
Answer:
(d) repetitive

Question 9.
Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as:
(a) transgenic organsims
(b) genetically modified
(c) mutated
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) transgenic organsims

Question 10.
In a hexaploid wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic (x) number of chromosomes respectively are ______.
(a) n = 7 and x = 21
(b) n = 21 and x = 21
(c) n = 7 and x = 7
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.
Answer:
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by ………..
2. A protein rich wheat variety is ………
3. ………. is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients are called ………
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but ………… is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
6. ……….. technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as …………
8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for ………..
9. ………… cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a …………
Answer:
1. Hybridization
2. Altas 66
3. Colchicine
4. Bio fortification
5. Atomita 2 rice
6. Recombinant
7. Phosphodiester
8. Identical twins
9. stem cells
10. bacterial cell

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. Raphanobrassica is a tetraploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called a pureline.
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects. ,
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body.
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.
Answer:
1. False – Raphanobrassica is a allotetra ploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. False – The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called polyploidy.
3. True
4. False – Iron rich rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. False – Golden rice is a genetically modified plant
6. True
7. False – In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done outside the body.
8. True
9. False – Molecular scissors refers to Restriction enzymes

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)
F. (viii)
G. (vi)
H. (vii)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.
1. Assertion : Hybrid is superior than either of its parents.
Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.

2. Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques.
Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

VI. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Give the name of the wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale a hybrid of wheat having dietary fibre and protein.

Question 2.
Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of the dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
Answer:
The dwarfing gene is Sd.I.

Question 3.
Define genetic engineering.
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one, organism to another organism to create a new DNA called as recombinant DNA(rDNA).

Question 4.
Name the types of stem cells?
Answer:
Embryonic stem cell and Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell, are the two types of stem cells.

Question 5.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene is known as transgenic organism.

Question 6.
State the importance of bio-fertiliser.
Answer:
Increasing the harvest yields, improving soil structure, better water relation, economical, eco – friendly and more efficient farms are due importance of biofertilizer.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
Answer:

Question 2.
Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:

1. High yielding
2. Semi – dwarf
3. Fertilizer responsive.

These are the three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are the high yielding varieties of wheat.

Question 3.
Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, shakthi are the maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysin.

Question 4.
Distinguish between
(a) somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy.
Answer:
Somatic gene therapy :
It is the replacement of defective gene in somatic cells.

Germ line gene therapy :
It is replacement of defective gene in germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b) undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
Undifferentiated cells :
The cells which have not become specialized are called undifferentiated cells.
Eg: Cells in early embryos

Differentiated cells :
The cells which have become specialized for doing certain job.
Eg: Muscle cell, nerve cell.

Question 5.
State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications such as identifying the – culprit. It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes. It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 6.
How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
Answer:
If cells, tissues and organs in the body get permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury, it can be cured by regeneration process of stem cell. In stem cell therapy, stem cells are used to replace the damage of lost cells.

Question 7.
Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Answer:
Outbreeding Inbreeding

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid, obtained by cross-breeding is called heterosis or hybrid vigour.
Effects of hybrid vigour in animal breeding:

• Increased production of milk by cattle.
• Increased production of an egg by poultry.
• High quality of meat is produced.
• The increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 2.
Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is a process by which genetic variations are created which in turn brings about changes in the organism. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.

The factors which induce mutations are known as mutagens or mutagenic agents. Mutagens are of two types namely physical mutagens and chemical mutagens.
(i) Physical mutagens : Radiations like X-rays, a, (3 and y-rays, UV rays, temperature etc. which induce mutations are called physical mutagens
(ii) Chemical mutagens : Chemical substances that induce mutations are called chemical mutagens. Eg: Mustard gas and nitrous acid. The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.

Achievements of mutation breeding: Some achievements of mutation breeding are-
(a) Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora-64 by using gamma rays.
(b) Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance
(c) Groundnuts with thick shells

Question 3.
Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification is the scientific process of helping crop plants, enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals. Micronutrient malnutrition is called hidden hunger, the lack of micronutrients such as vitamin A, zinc and iron in the diet.

Biofortification is effective in removing hidden hunger and improving the nutritional value of food. Scientists breed crops whose edible parts (seed, tuber and roots) have improved nutritional value. Biofortified foods can contribute to body stores of micronutrients throughout the life cycle.
Some example of crop varieties developed as a result of biofortification are:

• Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine-rich maize hybrids.
• Atlas 66, a protein-rich wheat variety.
• Iron-rich fortified rice variety.
• Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.

Question 4.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Answer:

In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides. A brief outline of the basic steps involved in gene cloning are:

1. Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes.
2. Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (Plasmid) to make rDNA.
3. Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell (Transformation)
4. Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone.
5. Expression of cloned gene in host cell.
   Using this strategy several enzymes, hormones and vaccines can be produced.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Using genetic engineering techniques, medicinally important valuable proteins or polypeptides, which form the potential pharmaceutical products for the treatment of various diseases have been developed on a commercial scale.
Pharmaceutical products developed by rDNA technique:

• Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
• Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
• Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
• Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and to prevent heart attack.
• Development of vaccines against various diseases like hepatitis B and rabies.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorporate.
Answer:
Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crop.

Question 2.
Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons.
Answer:
Green revolution is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modem agricultural techniques. Organic farming is a method of crop production in an ecofriendly and pollution free environment to release nutrients to crop. As organic farming is an ecofriendly and pollution free, it is better than green revolution.

Question 3.
Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
Answer:
An organism having more than 2 sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical events such as heat or cold treatment, X – rays and chemical agents like colchicine. Polyploid cell or organism has three or more times the haploid chromosomal number.

Polyploid has a major role in the evolution of both wild and cultivated plants. Polyploid has a key role in plant breeding. There are increase and increased woodiness which has been observed in some insular plants. So polyploids are characterized by gigantism.

Question 4.
‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modified plant ‘R’
(i) What is P, Q and R?
(ii) State the importance of ‘R’ in India.
Answer:
(i) P is Beta carotene gene
Q Bio fortification
R Golden rice

(ii) Golden rice is genetically modified rice can produce beta carotene,that prevent vitamin A deficiency.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Modem biotechnology consist:
(a) Genetic engineering
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Gene cloning
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
The disease-resistant cauliflower variety is ______.
(a) Himgiri
(b) Pusa Shubhra
(c) Pusa Komal
(d) IR – 8.
Answer:
(b) Pusa Shubhra

Question 3.
Transgenic animals has:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell
(b) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(c) Foreign DNA in some of the cells
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell

Question 4.
The gamete cells, which have only one set of chromosomes is called ______.
(a) diploid
(b) polyploid
(c) triploid
(d) haploid.
Answer:
(d) haploid.

Question 5.
A kind of Biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is:
(a) DNA replication
(b) Denaturation
(c) Genetic Engineering
(d) Renaturation
Answer:
(c) Genetic Engineering

Question 6.
A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using:
(a) ECORI
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) Polymerase III
(d) Ligase
Answer:
(d) Ligase

Question 7.
Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?
(a) Golden Rice
(b) Bt-Brinjal
(c) Flaver savr tomato
(d) Canolla
Answer:
(a) Golden Rice

Question 8.
Restriction endonucleses are enzymes which:
(a) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule.
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.
(c) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase.
(d) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer:
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.

Question 9.
……….. is the Father of Indian Green Revolution.
(a) Nammalvar
(b) Dr Borloug
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan
(d) Dr Sultan Ismail
Answer:
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan

Question 10.
New lined of sheep developed in Punjab is:
(a) Sahiwal
(b) Hisardale
(c) Triticale
(d) Sharbati sonara
Answer:
(b) Hisardale

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. is a cross between Male Donkey and Female Horse.
2. ……….. is a DNA molecule found in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell.
3. ………. was the first cloned female sheep.
4. Human insulin can be synthesized by using ……….
5. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment is transfered to the host cell through ………..
6. Genetically identical individuals are ………..
7. Ligase is used for joining two ………..
8. Enzyme that cleaves nucleic acids within the polynucleotide chain is known as …………
9. The bacterium used as biopesticide is …………
10. A strain of golden rice contains high content of …………..
Answer:
1. Mule
2. Plasmid
3. Dolly
4. rDNA technology
5. Vector
6. Clones
7. DNA fragments
8. Endonuclease
9. Bacillus thuringiensis.
10. Vitamin A

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. The structure used to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it into a host ceil is vector.
2. Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having sticky ends.
3. The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is clonal selection.
4. The aim of crop improvement is to develop improved crop varieties.
5. International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Indonesia.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having ligase ends.
3. False – The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is pureline selection.
4. True
5. False – International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Philippines.

IV. M.atch the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong
1. Assertion: Bacillus thuringiensis is toxic to many insects.
Reason: It inhibits ion transport in the mid gut.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong

2. Assertion.: Recombinant DNA technology has become successful due to restriction endonucleases present in Eukaryotic cells.
Reason: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule to form blunt ends.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name two neurodegenerative disorders.
Answer:
Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer disease.

Question 2.
Name two chemical mutagens.
Answer:
Mustard gas and nitrous acid.

Question 3.
What is plant breeding?
Answer:
Plant breeding is the art of developing economically important plants with superior quality.

Question 4.
What is the aim of Animal husbandry?
Answer:
The aim of Animal husbandry is to improve the genotypes of animals to make them more useful to the welfare of mankind.

Question 5.
What are exotic species?
Answer:
The process of introducing high yield varieties of plants from one place to another are called as exotic species.

Question 6.
List the two main aspects of hybridization.
Answer:
Combining the characters of two plants in one plant and to utilize hybrid vigour are the two main aspects of hybridization.

Question 7.
What is heterosis?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called heterosis.

Question 8.
What are plasmids?
Answer:
Circular, self-replicating, extra chromosomal DNA in bacteria.

Question 9.
What is transgene?
Answer:
A gene which is transferred from one organism into another organism by genetic engineering.

Question 10.
Name the Research institute found by Nammalvar.
Answer:
Nammalvar ecological foundation for farm research and global food security trust.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
List out the pest-resistant crop varieties.
Answer:

Question 2.
What does the nutritional quality of crop depend on?
Answer:
The nutritional quality of crops depends on the quality and quantity of nutrients.
The nutritional quality may be improved with respect to its:

• Protein content and quality of proteins.
• Oil content.
• Mineral content.

Question 3.
Write a note on Gamma Garden.
Answer:
Gamma garden or Atomic garden is a concept popularised after World War -II for the peaceful use of atomic energy for crop improvement. This is a type of induced mutation breeding where radioactive sources particularly gamma rays from Cobalt-60 or Caesium-137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Question 4.
An organism having more than two sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical agents such as heat or cold treatment, X-rays and chemical agents like colchicine.
Answer:
Achievements of polyploidy breeding:

• Seedless watermelons (3n) and bananas (3n).
• TV – 29 (triploid variety of tea) with larger shoots and drought tolerance.
• Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye: It has higher dietary fibre and protein.
• Rapuano brassica is an allotetraploid by colchicine treatment.

Question 5.
Mention the two important properties of stem cells.
Answer:

1. Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
2. Its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Question 6.
Illustrate hybridization with example.
Answer:
Triticale is the first man made cereal hybrid. It is obtained by crossing wheat Triticum durum (2n = 28) and rye (secale cereal, 2n = 14)
Parent Tritium durum × Secale cereal

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the following methods of plant breeding for crop improvement.
Answer:
(a) Introduction of new varieties in plants:
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called exotic species. These imported plants may carry pathogens and pests. It should be thoroughly checked before introducing to the fields, eg. Phaseolus mungo was introduced from China.

(b) Selection:
Selection is a type of plant breeding, in which individual plants or group of plants are sorted out from a mixed population based on the morphological characters.

Methods of selection:
(i) Mass selection:
Seeds of plants with desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. In the end, they are distributed to the farmers for cultivation, eg. TMV – 2 and AK – 10 (groundnut varieties).

(ii) Pure line selection:
Pureline is the “progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding”. This is also called as individual plant selection. In pure line selection, large numbers of plants are selected from a self – pollinated crop and harvested individually. Progeny is similar, both genotypically and phenotypically.

(iii) Clonal selection:
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called clones. All the plants of a clone are similar both in genotype and phenotype. Selection of desirable clones from the mixed population of the vegetatively propagated crop is called clonal selection.

Question 2.
In what way trans organism are better?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as transgenic organisms.

The transgenic plants are much stable, with improved nutritional quality, resistant to diseases and tolerant to various environment conditions. Similarly transgenic animals are used to produce proteins of medicinal importance at low cost and improve livestock quality.

Question 3.
Describe the tools of recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:
Techniques of Genetic Engineering – Basic Requirements:
Important discoveries that led to the stepping stone of rDNA technology were

1. Presence ofplasmid in bacteria that can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA.
2. Restriction enzymes cuts or break DNA at specific sites and are also called as molecular scissors.
3. DNA ligases are the enzymes which help in ligating (joining) the broken DNA fragments.

Question 4.
Give the Schematic representation of Mass selection.
Answer:

Mass selection : Seeds of best plants showing desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. At the end, they will be multiplied and distributed to the farmers for cultivation. Some common examples for mass selection are groundnut varieties like TMV-2 and AK-10. Its schematic representation is given below.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although ‘green revolution’ increases the food production, it is not enough to feed growing population. This probelm is overcomed by ‘X’ crops.
(a) What is ‘X’?
(b) Explain it with examples.
Answer:
(a) ‘X’ is Genetically modified crops.
(b) Genetic modification refers to the manipulation of genes in the organism using rDNA techniques to produce desired character.

Question 2.
What is Gamma garden?
Answer:
In gamma garden or atomic garden, a type of induced mutation breeding, where radioactive sources, particularly gamma rays from Cobalt – 60 or Caesium – 137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Biogenetic law states that:
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

Question 2.
The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Ernst Haeckel
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
(d) Gregor Mendel
Answer:
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck

Question 3.
Paleontologists deal with:
(a) Embryological evidences
(b) Fossil evidences
(c) Vestigial organ evidences
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Embryological evidences

Question 4.
The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by:
(a) Radio-carbon method
(b) Uranium lead method
(c) Potassium-argon method
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Radio-carbon method

Question 5.
The term Ethnobotany was coined by:
(a) Khorana
(b) J.W. Harshberger
(c) Ronald Ross
(d) Hugo de Vries
Answer:
(b) J.W. Harshberger

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called ………..
2. The degenerated and non-functional organs found in an organism are called ……….
3. The forelimb of bat and human are examples of ………. organs.
4. The theory of natural selection for evolution was proposed by ………..

Answer:

1. acquired characters
2. vestigial organs
3. homologous
4. Charles Darwin

III. State true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Charles Darwin.
2. The homologous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern.
3. Birds have evolved from reptiles.

Answer:

1. False – The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Jean Baptiste Lamarck.
2. False – The analogous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern.
3. True

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (vi)
F. (v)

V. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions. What is the name given to these organs?
Answer:
Homologous organ – as they have inherited from common ancestors with similar developmental pattern in embryos.

Question 2.
Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is the fossil bird, found in the Jurassic period.

Question 3.
Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds as it had wings with feathers like a bird and had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth like a reptile.

VI. Short Answers Questions

Question 1.
The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it an acquired character?
Answer:
The characters developed by the animals during their life time in response to the environmental changes are called acquired character. The acquired characters are transmitted to the offspring by the process of inheritance.

Question 2.
Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil bird. It is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds. It had wings with feathers, like a bird. It had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth, like a reptile.

Question 3.
Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
Answer:
Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through the traditional knowledge of the local culture of people.

Question 4.
How can you determine the age of the fossils?
Answer:
The age of fossils is determined by radioactive elements present in it. The elements may be carbon, uranium, lead or potassium. Carbon consumption of animals and plants stops after death, and the decaying process of C14 occurs continuously. The time passed since the death of a plant or animal can be calculated by measuring the amount of C14 present in their body.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Natural selection is a driving force for evolution-How?
Answer:
Survival of the fittest or Natural selection : During the struggle for existence, the organisms which can overcome the challenging situation, survive and adapt to the surrounding environment. Organisms which are unable to face the challenges, are unfit to survive and disappear. The process of selection of organisms with favourable variation is called as natural selection.

Question 2.
How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous organs?
Answer:

Question 3.
How does fossilization occur in plants?
Answer:
The process of formation of fossil in the rocks is called Fossilization. The common methods of fossilization include:
1. Petrifaction: Minerals like silica slowly penetrate in and replace the original organic tissue and forms a rock-like fossil. This method of fossilization can preserve hard and soft parts mostly bones and wood fossils are petrified.

2. Mould and cast: A replica of a plant or animal is preserved in sedimentary rocks. When the organism gets buried in sediment it is dissolved by underground water leaving a hollow depression called a mould. It shows the original shape but does not reveal the internal structure. Minerals or sediment fill the hollow depression and form a cast.

3. Preservation: Original remains can be preserved in ice or amber (tree sap). They protect the organisms from decay. The entire plant or animal is preserved.

4. Compression: When an organism dies, the hard parts of their bodies settle at the bottom of the sea bed and are covered by sediment. The process of sedimentation goes on continuously and fossils are formed.

5. Infiltration or Replacement: The precipitation of minerals takes place which later on infiltrates the cell wall. The process is brought about by several mineral elements such as silica, calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate. Hard parts are dissolved and replaced by these minerals.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS).

Question 1.
Arun was playing in the garden. Suddenly he saw a dragon fly sitting on a plant. He observed the wings of it. He thought it looked similar to a wing of a crow. Is he correct? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
No. Arun is not correct. It is called as Analogous organ. They look similar and perform similar functions, but they have different origin and developmental pattern.

Question 2.
Imprints of fossils tell us about evolution-How?
Answer:
Fossils provide solid evidence that organisms from the past are not the same as those found today. Fossils show a progression of evolution by comparing the anatomical record of fossils with modem and extinct species. Palaeontologist can infer the linkages of their species. For this the body parts such as shell bones or teeth are used. The resulting fossil record tells the story of the part and show the evolution of form over millions of years.

Question 3.
Octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. Can we group these animals together to establish a common evolutionary origin. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, we cannot group these animals together because development of eye is not a point utilised in classification as well as in evolution.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Life originated in:
(a) Air
(b) Earth
(c) Water
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Water

Question 2.
Believers of spontaneous generation theory believed that:
(a) Life originated from a similar organism
(b) Life originated from the air
(c) Life originated only spontaneously
(d) Life originated from pre-existing life
Answer:
(c) Life originated only spontaneously

Question 3.
Which of the following organ in man is not vestigial?
(a) Vermiform appendix
(b) Nictitating membrane
(c) Ear muscles
(d) Epiglottis
Answer:
(a) Vermiform appendix

Question 4.
Analogous organs are:
(a) similar in origin
(b) similar in structure
(c) non-functional
(d) similar in function
Answer:
(b) similar in structure

Question 5.
Wings of locust, pigeon and bat are example of:
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) Evolution
Answer:
(a) Vestigial organs

Question 6.
The distance needs to be neither too hot nor too cold is called ______.
(a) habitable zone
(b) Goldilock zone
(c) Aquatic zone
(d) Terrestrial zone.
Answer:
(c) Aquatic zone

Question 7.
Fossils are dated by:
(a) Amount of calcium residue
(b) Amount of radio active carbon compound
(c) Association with other mammals
(d) Structure of bones
Answer:
(b) Amount of radio active carbon compound

Question 8.
A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato and tomato. Which of them represent the correct homologous structures?
(a) Carrot and potato
(b) Carrot and tomato
(c) Radish and carrot
(d) Radish and potato
Answer:
(c) Radish and carrot

Question 9.
Most fossil have been found in:
(a) Black soil
(b) Lava flows
(c) Granite
(d) Sedimentary rocks
Answer:
(d) Sedimentary rocks

Question 10.
Birbal sahni was a:
(a) Zoologist
(b) Lounder of Central Drug Research Institute
(c) Ornithologist
(d) Palaeobotanist
Answer:
(d) Palaeobotanist

Question 11.
Darwin in his ‘Natural Selection Theory’ did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution.
(a) Parasites and Predators as natural enemies
(b) Survival of the fittest
(c) Struggle for existence
(d) Discontinuous Variation
Answer:
(d) Discontinuous Variation

Question 12.
Fossilizaticn can occur in:
(a) Animals are burned and preserved by natural process
(b) Animals are destroyed by scavangers
(c) Animals are eaten by predators
(d) Animals are destroyed by environmental conditions
Answer:
(a) Animals are burned and preserved by natural process

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Branch of biology which deals with fossils is …………
2. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between reptiles and ………..
3. Darwin explained origin of species through …………
4. The ship on which Darwin worked as naturalist was …………
5. The book Origin of Species was published in the year …………
6. Mutation can be artificially induced by ………..
7. Extraterrestrial states that units of life called ………..
8. The idea of chemical evolution of life was developed by …………..
9. Living being able to reproduce more individuals and form the own progeny is called …………..
10. ……….. is the raw material which plays an important role in evolution.
Answer:
1. Palaeontology
2. Birds
3. Natural selection
4. H.M.S. Beagle
5.1859
6. Radiation
7. Panspermia (spores)
8. Oparin and Haldane
9. Over production
10. Variation

III. Match the following.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. State whether True or false. If false write the correct statement.

1. De Vries is called as the Father of Palaeontology.
2. NASA is developing the Mars 2020 astrobiology to investigate an astrobiologically details of Mars.
3. Competition among the individual of same species is Interspecific struggle.
4. Abiogenesis states that life originates from pre existing life.
5. The Big Bang theory explains the origin of Universe.

Answer:

1. False – Leonardo da vinci is called as the Father of Palaeontology.
2. True
3. False – Competition among the individual of same species is Intraspecific struggle.
4. False – Biogenesis states that life originates from pre existing life.
5. True

V. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
Who proposed the theory of Natural selection?
Answer:
Charles Darwin

Question 2.
What do you understand by evolution?
Answer:
Formation of new species due to changes in specific characters over several generations as response to natural selection is called evolution.

Question 3.
How do embryological studies provide evidences for evolution?
Answer:
The embryos from fish to mammals are similar in their early stages of development. The differentiation of their special characters appear in the later stages of development.

Question 4.
Mention three important features of fossils.
Answer:

1. Fossils are useful in classification of organisms.
2. Fossils are used in the field of descriptive and comparative analoms.
3. Fossils throw light on phylogeny and evolution of organisms.

Question 5.
Who is the Father of Indian Paleobotany? What is his contribution in this field.
Answer:
Birbal Sahani is the Father of Indian Paleobotany. He presented his research on two different areas of Paleobotany.

1. The anatomy and morphology of paleozoic ferns.
2. The fossil plants of the Indian Gondwana formation.

Question 6.
List out the methods of Fossilization.
Answer:
Common methods of fossilization includes petrifaction molds and cast, carbonization preservation, compression and infiltration.

Question 7.
What are extremophiles?
Answer:
The organisms which live in extreme environmental conditions on earth are called extremophiles.

Question 8.
What is Goldilock zone for life. Name the planet in the Goldilock zone.
Answer:
The Goldilock zone for life is the zone having a right mass to retain an atmosphere and have an orbit at the right distance from its star that allows liquid water to exist and the distance need to be neither too hot or cold. In our solar system – Earth is the only planet in the Goldilock zone.

Question 9.
What are the three types of struggle for existence?
Answer:

1. Intra specific struggle
2. Inter specific struggle
3. Environmental struggle

Question 10.
What is Atavism?
Answer:
The appearance of the ancestral character in some individuals is called Atavism. Eg: Presence of rudimentary tail in newborn babies.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between acquired and inherited trait with example.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the aspects of ethnobotany?
Answer:
Ethnobotany has relevance with problems of nutrition, health care and life support system, faith in plants, cottage industries, economic upliftment, conservation of biodiversity and sustainable use of plant resources.

Question 3.
What is the Geological Time Scale?
Answer:
The geological time scale is a system of chronological dating that relates geological rock strata to time and is used by geologists, palaeontologists and other Earth scientists to describe the timing and relationships of events that have occurred during Earth’s history.

Question 4.
Write a note on types of Germinal Variation.
Answer:
Germinal variation are classified into two types:

1. Continuous variation,
2. Discontinuous variation

1. Continuous variation : These are small variations which occur among individuals of a population. They are also called as fluctuating variations. They occur by gradual accumulation in a population, e.g. skin colour, height and weight of an individual, colour of eye, etc.

2. Discontinuous variation : These are sudden changes which occur in an organism due to mutations. They do not have any intermediate forms. These large variations are not useful for evolution, e.g. short legged Ancon sheep, six or more digits (fingers) in human, etc.

Question 5.
Explain the existence for astro biology.
Answer:
The theory explains that any planets can support the existence of life, if it fulfills two important criteria.

1. It must have a right mass to retain an atmosphere.
2. It must have an orbit at just the right distance from its star (Sun) that it allows liquid water to exist. Thus, the distance need to be neither too hot or not too cold and is often referred as Goldilock Zone for life.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Explain the various methods of Fossilization.
Answer:
Common methods of fossilization includes petrifaction, molds and cast, carbonization, preservation, compression and infiltration.
Petrifaction : Minerals like silica slowly penetrate in and replace the original organic tissue and forms a rock like fossil. This method of fossilization can preserve hard and soft parts. Most bones and wood fossils are petrified.

Mold and Cast : A replica of a plant or animal is preserved in sedimentary rocks. When the organism gets buried in sediment it is dissolved by underground water leaving a hollow depression called a mold. It shows the original shape but does not reveal the internal structure. Minerals or sediment fill the hollow depression and forms a cast.

Preservation : Original remains can be preserved in ice or amber (tree sap). They protect the organisms from decay. The entire plant or animal is preserved.

Compression : When an organism dies, the hard parts of their bodies settle at the bottom of the sea bed and are covered by sediment. The process of sedimentation goes on continuously and fossils are formed.

Infiltration or Replacement : The precipitation of minerals takes place which later on infiltrate the cell wall. The process is brought about by several mineral elements such as silica, calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate. Hard parts are dissolved and replaced by these minerals.

Question 2.
Explain the principles of Lamarckism.
Answer:
Principles of Lamarckism:
(i) Internal vital force : Living organisms or their component parts tend to increase in size continuously. This increase in size is due to the inherent ability of the organisms.

(ii) Environment and new needs : A change in the environment brings about changes in the need of the organisms. In response to the changing environment, the organisms develop certain adaptive characters. The adaptations of the organisms may be in the form of development of new parts of the body.

(iii) Use and disuse theory : Lamarck’s use and disuse theory states that if an organ is used constantly, the organ develops well and gets strengthened. When an organ is not used for a long time, it gradually degenerates.

The ancestors of giraffe were provided with short neck and short – forelimbs. Due to shortage of grass, they were forced to feed on leaves from trees. The continuous stretching of their neck and forelimbs resulted in the development of long neck and long forelimbs which is an example for constant use of an organ. The degenerated wing of Kiwi is an example for organ of disuse.

(iv) Theory of Inheritance of acquired characters : When there is a change in the environment, the animals respond to the change. They develop adaptive structures. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called acquired characters. According to Lamarck, the acquired characters are transmitted to the offspring by the process of inheritance.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS).

Question 1.
What is the relationship between mutation and variation?
Answer:
Mutation and variation are the two events involved in the process of evolution. Mutation arises due to errors occurring in DNA during replication or exposure to ultraviolet rays or chemicals. The mutation leads to variation. It brings about changes in a single individual.

Question 2.
Picture of the newborn baby to be given.

(i) Name the phenomenon responsible for the structure marked (a) in the Figure.
Answer:
Atavism

(ii) Give the definition of the phenomenon responsible for the development for the structure marked.
Answer:
The reappearance, ancestral character in some individuals.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 18 Heredity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 18 Heredity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Heredity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
According to Mendel alleles have the following character:
(a) Pair of genes
(b) Responsible for character
(c) Production of gametes
(d) Recessive factors
Answer:
(b) Responsible for character

Question 2.
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to ______.
(a) Segregation
(b) Crossing over
(c) Independent assortment
(d) Recessiveness.
Answer:
(c) Independent assortment

Question 3.
The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell division:
(a) Chromomere
(b) Centrosome
(c) Centromere
(d) Chromonema
Answer:
(c) Centromere

Question 4.
The centromere is found at the centre of the ______ chromosome.
(a) Telocentric
(b) Metacentric
(c) Sub – metacentric
(d) Acrocentric.
Answer:
(b) Metacentric

Question 5.
The units form the backbone of the DNA.
(a) 5 carbon sugar
(b) Phosphate
(c) Nitrogenous bases
(d) Sugar phosphate
Answer:
(d) Sugar phosphate

Question 6.
Okazaki fragments are joined together by ______.
(a) Helicase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) RNA primer
(d) DNA ligase.
Answer:
(d) DNA ligase.

Question 7.
The number of chromosomes found in human beings are:
(a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
(b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome
(c) 46 autosomes
(d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
Answer:
(a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.

Question 8.
The loss of one or more chromosome in ploidy is called ______.
(a) Tetraploidy
(b) Aneuploidy
(c) Euploidy
(d) Polyploidy.
Answer:
(b) Aneuploidy

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of Mendel are called ……..
2. Physical expression of a gene is called ………..
3. The thin thread like structures found in the nucleus of each cell are called ……….
4. DNA consists of two ……….. chains.
5. An inheritable change in the amount or the structure of a gene or a chromosome is called ……….

Answer:

1. alleles or allelomorphs
2. Phenotype
3. Chromosomes
4. Polynucleotide chain
5. Mutation

III. Identify whether the statement are True or False. Correct the false statement.

1. A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F₂ generation is 3 : 1.
2. A recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor.
3. Each gamete has only one allele of a gene.
4. Hybrid is an offspring from a cross between genetically different parent.
5. Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known as telomere.
6. New nucleotides are added and new complementary strand of DNA is formed with the help of enzyme DNA polymerase.
7. Down’s syndrome is the genetic condition with 45 chromosomes.

Answer:

1. False – A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False – Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known as satellite
6. True
7. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in a sentence.

Question 1.
What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters are studied?
Answer:
Dihybrid cross is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters.

Question 2.
Name the conditions when both the aisles are identical?
Answer:
Homozygous alleles.

Question 3.
A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of the same species produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the dominant trait.
Answer:
The dominant trait is axial white flower.

Question 4.
What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a particular character?
Answer:
Genes are the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a particular character.

Question 5.
Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
Answer:
Hydrogen bond binds the nucleotides in a DNA.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
Answer:

1. It is naturally self-pollinating and so is very easy to raise pure breeding individuals.
2. It has a short life span as it is an annual and so it was possible to follow several generations.
3. It is easy to cross-pollinate.
4. It has deeply defined contrasting characters.
5. The flowers are bisexual.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype?
Answer:

• The external expression of a particular trait is known as the phenotype.
• The genetic expression of an organism is a genotype.

Question 3.
What are allosomes?
Answer:
Allosomes are chromosomes which are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. They are also called as sex chromosomes or hetero-chromosomes. There are two types of sex chromosomes, X and Y- chromosomes.

Question 4.
What are the Okazaki fragments?
Answer:
The short segments of DNA are called Okazaki fragments.

Question 5.
Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
Answer:
Euploidy is the condition in which individual bears more than the usual number of diploid (2n) chromosome. It is used in plant breeding and horticulture. It has economic significance by the production of large sized flowers and fruits. It plays a significant role in the evolution of new species.

Question 6.
A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with the pure dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F₁ and F₂ generations? Explain.
Answer:
In the F₁ generation, all are tall plants. (Genotype all are Tt and phenotype all are tall).
In F₂ generation, genotype three tall and one dwarf. [TT : Tt : tt = 1 : 2 : 1] phenotype.
Tall : dwarf 3 : 1 [TT : Tt : Tt : tt].

Question 7.
Explain the structure of a chromosome.
Answer:
The chromosomes are thin, long and thread like structures consisting of two identical strands called sister chromatids. They are held together by the centromere. Each chromatid is made up of spirally coiled thin structure called chromonema. The chromonema has number of bead-like structures along its length which are called chromomeres.

Question 8.
Label the parts of the DNA in the diagram given below. Explain the structure briefly.
Answer:
(i) DNA molecule consists of two polynucleotide chains.
(ii) These chains form a double helix structure with two strands which run anti-parallel to one another.
(iii) Nitrogenous bases in the centre are linked to sugar-phosphate units which form the backbone of the DNA.
(iv) Pairing between the nitrogenous bases is very specific and is always between purine and pyrimidine linked by hydrogen bonds.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain with an example of the inheritance of dihybrid cross. How is it different from a monohybrid cross?
Answer:
Dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characteristics (or contrasting traits) at the same time. The two pairs of contrasting characteristics chosen by Mendel were shape and color of seeds: round-yellow seeds and wrinkled-green seeds.
Mendel crossed pea plants having round-yellow seeds with pea plants having wrinkled-green seeds. Mendel made the following observations:

(i) Mendel first crossed pure breeding pea plants having round-yellow seeds with pure breeding pea plants having wrinkled-green seeds and found that only round-yellow seeds were produced in the first generation (F₁). No wrinkled-green seeds were obtained in the F₁ generation. From this it was concluded that round shape and yellow color of the seeds were dominant traits over the wrinkled shape and green color of the seeds.

(ii) When the hybrids of F₁ generation pea plants having round-yellow seeds were cross-bred by self pollination, then four types of seeds having different combinations of shape and color were obtained in second generation or F₂ generation. They were round yellow, round-green, wrinkled-yellow and wrinkled-green seeds.
The ratio of each phenotype (or appearance)of seeds in the F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This is known as the Dihybrid ratio.

Monohybrid cross is a genetic cross that involves a single pair of gene or trait. In this parents differ by single trait. Eg: Height.
Dihybrid cross is a genetic cross that involves two pairs of genes, which are responsible for two trait. In this, parents have two different independent trait. Eg: flower colour, stem length.

Question 2.
How is the structure of DNA organised? What is the biological significance of DNA?
Answer:
DNA is the genetic material of almost all the organisms. One of the active functions of DNA is to make its copies which are transmitted to the daughter cells. Replication is the process by which DNA makes exact copies of itself. Replication is the basis of like and takes place during the inter phase stage.

During replication of DNA, two complementary strand of DNA unwind and separate from one end in a zipper like fashion. The enzyme helicase unwinds the two strands of the DNA. The enzyme called topoisomerase separates the double helix above the replication fork and removes the twists formed during the unwinding process. For the synthesis of new DNA, two things are required. One is RNA primer and enzyme primase. The DNA polymerase moves along the newly formed RNA primer nucleotides, which leads to the elongation of DNA. In the other strand DNA is synthesized in small fragments called Okazaki fragments.

These fragments are linked by the enzyme called ligase. In the resulting DNA, one of the strand is parental and the other is the newer strands which is formed discontinuously.

Significance of DNA:
(i) It is responsible for the transmission of hereditary information from one generation to next generation.
(ii) It contains information required for the formation of proteins.
(iii) It controls the developmental process and life activities of an organism.

Question 3.
The sex of the new born child is a matter of chance and neither of the parents may be considered responsible for it. What would be the possible fusion of gametes to determine the sex of the child?
Answer:
Sex determination is a chance of probability as to which category of sperm fuses with the egg. If the egg (X) is fused by the X-bearing sperm an XX individual (female) is produced. If the egg (X) is fused by the Y-bearing sperm an XY individual (male) is produced. The sperm, produced by the father, determines the sex of the child. The mother is not responsible in determining the sex of the child.

Now let’s see how the chromosomes take part in this formation. Fertilization of the egg (22+X) with a sperm (22+X) will produce a female child (44+XX). while fertilization of the egg (22+X) with a sperm (22+Y) will give rise to a male child (44+XY).

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Flowers of the garden pea are bisexual and self-pollinated. Therefore, it is difficult to perform hybridization experiment by crossing a particular pistil with the specific pollen grains. How Mendel made it possible in his monohybrid and dihybrid crosses?
Answer:
He worked on nearly 10,000 pea plants of 34 different varieties. He had chosen 7 pairs of contrasting characters. As the pea plants, are self-pollinating it is easy to raise pure breeding individuals. It is easy to cross-pollinate. It has contrasting characters. So Mendel made it possible in his monohybrid and dihybrid crosses.

Question 2.
Pure-bred tall pea plants are first crossed with pure-bred dwarf pea plants. The pea plants obtained in F₁ generation are then cross-bred to produce F₂ generation of pea plants.
(a) What do the plants of F₁ generation look like?
(b) What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F₂ generation?
(c) Which type of plants were missing in F₁ generation but reappeared in F₂ generation?
Answer:
(a) plants will be tall
(b) 3 : 1
(c) Tall heterozygous (Tt)

Question 3.
Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family members say that she can give birth to only female babies because of her family history. Is the statement given by her family members true? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The statement given by her family members were not true. It is not hereditary or family history. The sex determination mainly depends on which category of sperm fuses with the egg. If the egg [X] is fused by the X – bearing sperm, an XX individual (female) is produced. If the egg [X] is fused by the Y – bearing sperm an XY individual (male) is produced.

IX. Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Under which conditions does the law of independent assortment hold good and why?
Answer:
During meiosis, chromosomes assort randomly into gametes, such that the segregation of alleles of one gene is independent of alleles of another gene. This is stated in Mendel’s Second Law and is known as the law of independent assortment.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Heredity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Exchange of genetic material take place in:
(a) vegetative reproduction
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) budding
Answer:
(c) sexual reproduction

Question 2.
In human, the number of chromosomes in each cell is _______
(a) 22 pairs
(b) 21 pairs
(c) 23 pairs
(d) 20 pairs
Answer:
(c) 23 pairs

Question 3.
If a round green seeded pea plant (RRYY) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant,(rrYY) the seeds produced in F₁ generation are:
(a) round and yellow
(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow
Answer:
(a) round and yellow

Question 4.

In the new complementary strand of DNA, in one strand, the daughter strand is synthesized, as a continuous strand called ______
(a) Lagging strand
(b) Parent strand
(c) RNA primer
(d) Leading strand
Answer:
(d) Leading strand

Question 5.
A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a:
(a) boy
(b) girl
(c) x- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) either boy or girl
Answer:
(b) girl

Question 6.
In pea, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed to a short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to short plants in F2 is:
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
Answer:
(b) 3 : 1

Question 7.
The number of pairs of sex chromosomes in the zygote of human is:
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 8.
Pure breeding varieties are otherwise called as:
(a) dominant
(b) recessive
(c) wild type
(d) mixed type
Answer:
(c) wild type

Question 9.
The genotype of a character is influenced by factors called:
(a) chromosome
(b) nucleus
(c) cytoplasm
(d) genes
Answer:
(d) genes

Question 10.
Monosomy is represented by:
(a) 2n + 1
(b) 2n – 1
(c) 2n + 2
(d) 2n – 2
Answer:
(b) 2n – 1

Question 11.
The term chromosome was introduced by:
(a) Bridges
(b) Waldeyer
(c) Balboni
(d) Flemming
Answer:
(b) Waldeyer

Question 12.
Diagrammatic representation of Karyotype of a species is:
(a) Idiogram
(b) Albinism
(c) Karyo tyning
(d) Heredity
Answer:
(a) Idiogram

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Genotypic ratio of Monohybrid cross is ………….
2. ……… is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotype of off spring in a genetic cross.
3. The gene is present at a specific position on the chromosome called ……….
4. The end of the chromosome is called ………
5. The chromosomes with satellites are called as ………..
6. ……… act as a aging clock in every cell.
7. Nitrogen base + sugar = …………
8. The two strands of DNA open and separate at the point forming …………
9. Nullisomy is represented by ……….
10. The gametes produced by the organisms contain a single set of chromosomes is ……….
Answer:
1. 1 : 2 : 1
2. Punnet square
3. Locus
4. Telomere
5. Sat-chromosome
6. Telomeres
7. Nucleoside
8. Replication fork
9. 2n – 2
10. haploid (n)

III. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

IV. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement:

1. The daughter strand synthesized in DNA is called logging strand.
2. The centromere is found near the centre of the chromosome in sub metacentric.
3. Primary construction in chromosome is called as nucleolar organizer.
4. T.H. Morgan was awarded Nobel prize for determining the role of chromosome in heredity.
5. Adenine links Thymine with three hydrogen bonds.

Answer:

1. False – The daughter strand synthesized in DNA is called leading strand
2. True
3. False – Primary construction in chromosome is called as secondary construction.
4. True
5. False – Adenine links Thymine with two hydrogen bonds.

V. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
What is heredity?
Answer:
Heredity is transmission of characters from one generation to the next generation.

Question 2.
What is Alleles or Allelomorphs?
Answer:
The factors making up a pair of contrasting characters are called alleles or allelomorphs.

Question 3.
Define variation.
Answer:
Differences shown by the individuals of the same species and also by the offspring of the same parents.

Question 4.
What is Terminus?
Answer:
The replication fork of DNA, of the two sides, meet at a site called terminus.

Question 5.
Write the expanded form of DNA.
Answer:
Deoxyribo nucleic acid

Question 6.
What is the satellite?
Answer:
Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendage at one end of the chromosome known as the satellite.

Question 7.
How many types of nitrogenous bases are present in DNA? Name them.
Answer:
There are two types of nitrogenous bases in DNA. They are purines (Adenine and Guanine) pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine).

Question 8.
Why is DNA called polynucleotide?
Answer:
DNA is a large molecule consisting of millions of nucleotides. Hence it is called as polynucleotide.

Question 9.
Name two purine nitrogenous bases found in a DNA molecule.
Answer:
Adenine and Guanine

Question 10.
What are the three chemically essential parts of nucleotides containing a DNA?
Answer:
Nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphate.

Question 11.
What are autosomes?
Answer:
Autosomes are chromosomes that contain genes which determine the somatic characters.

Question 12.
How is the sex of a new born determines in humans?
Answer:
The sperm produced by the father determines the sex of the child.

Question 13.
Define genetics.
Answer:
The branch of biology that deals with the genes genetic variation and heredity of living organisms is called genetics.

Question 14.
Define mutation.
Answer:
Mutation is an inheritable sudden change in the genetic material (DNA) of an organism.

Question 15.
Name the types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere.
Answer:
Based on the position of centromere, the chromosomes are classified as Telocentric, Aerocentric, submeta centric and meta centric.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are chromosomes made up of?
Answer:
Chromosomes are made up of DNA, RNA, chromosomal proteins (histones and non-histones) and certain metallic ions. These proteins provide structural support to the chromosome.

Question 2.
What is the mechanism behind the expression of a particular trait? Explain.
Answer:
The factor for each character or trait remain independent and maintain their identity in the gametes. The factors are independent to each other and pass to the offspring through gametes.

Question 3.
If a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf plant, then in the first generation only tall plant appears.
(a) What happens to the traits of the dwarf plant?
(b) In the second generation, the dwarf trait reappears? Why?
Answer:
(a) The tall plant (dominant) mask the expression of the dwarf plant.
(b) When F₁ hybrids are self crossed, the two entities separate and then unite independently forming tall and dwarf plant.

Question 4.
Explain the types of chromosome-based on function.
Answer:
Based on function, the chromosomes are classified into:

1. Autosomes: Autosomes contain genes that determine the somatic (body) characters. Male and female have an equal number of autosomes.
2. Allosomes: Allosomes are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. They are also called sex chromosomes or heterochromosomes. There are two types of sex chromosomes.

The human male has one X chromosome and one Y chromosome and human female have two X chromosomes.

VII. Long Question and Answer:

Question 1.
How are Mutation classified? Explain.
Answer:
Mutations are classified into two main types, namely chromosomal mutation and gene mutation.
Chromosomal mutation:
The sudden change in the structure or number of chromosomes is called a chromosomal mutation. This may result in
(i) Changes in the structure of chromosomes: Structural changes in the chromosomes usually occurs due to errors in cell division. Changes in the number and arrangement of genes take place as a result of deletion, duplication, inversion and translocation in chromosomes.

(ii) Changes in the number of chromosomes: They involve addition or deletion in the number of chromosomes present in a cell. This is called ploidy. There are two types of ploidy
(a) Euploidy (b) Aneuploidy.

Gene or point mutation: Gene mutation is the changes occurring in the nucleotide sequence of a gene. It involves substitution, deletion, insertion or inversion of a single or more than one nitrogenous base. Gene alteration results in abnormal protein formation in an organism.

Question 2.
What is a mutation? Explain the two types of mutation.
Answer:
The mutation is an inheritable sudden change in the genetic material (DNA) of an organism. Mutations are broadly classified into 1. Chromosomal mutation and 2. Gene mutation.

1. Chromosomal Mutation:
The sudden change in the structure or number of chromosomes is called chromosomal mutation. This result in
(a) Change in the structure of chromosomes: Structural changes occur due to errors in cell division. Changes in the number and arrangement of genes take place as a result of deletion, duplication, inversion and translocation in chromosomes.

(b) Changes in the number of chromosomes: They involve addition or deletion in the number of chromosomes present in a cell and is called ploidy. The two types of ploidy are:

(i) Euploidy: It is the condition, in which the individual bears more than the usual number. If an individual has three haploid sets of chromosomes, the condition is called triploidy [3n]. Triploid plants and animals are sterile. If an individual has four haploid sets of chromosomes, the condition is called tetraploidy [4n], Tetraploid plants often result in increased fruit and flower size.

(ii) Aneuploidy:
It is the loss or gain of one or more chromosomes in a set. It is of three types:

• Monosomy [2n – 1]
• Trisomy [2n + 1]
• Nullisomy [2n – 2]

(iii) Down’s syndrome:
It is one of the commonly known aneuploid condition, in man. It is a genetic condition, in which there is an extra copy of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21). It is associated with mental retardation, delayed development, behavioural problems, weak muscle tone, vision and hearing disability are some of the conditions seen in children.

2. Gene or point mutation:
Gene mutation is the changes occurring in the nucleotide sequence of a gene. It involves substitution, deletion, insertion or inversion of a single or more than one nitrogenous base. Gene alteration results in abnormal protein formation.

Question 3.
Write a note on down’s syndrome.
Answer:
Down’s syndrome: This condition was first identified by a doctor named Langdon Down in 1866. It is a genetic condition in which there is an extra copy of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21). It is associated with mental retardation, delayed development, behavioural problems, weak muscle tone, vision and hearing disability are some of the conditions seen in these children.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
In a plant gene ‘A’ is responsible for tallness and its recessibe allele ‘a’ for dwarfness and ‘B’ is responsible for red colour to recessive allele ‘b’ for white flower colour. A tall and red flowered plant with genotype AaBb crossed with dwarf and red flowers (aaBb). What is the percentage of dwarf white flowered off spring of above cross?
Answer:
12.5 %

Question 2.
In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is:
Answer:
0.6

Question 3.
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with dwarf true breeding garden Pea plant. When the F₁ plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of:
Answer:
1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous; Tall heterozygous Dwarf.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 16 Plant and Animal Hormones Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 16 Plant and Animal Hormones

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant and Animal Hormones Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Gibberellins cause:
(a) Shortening of genetically tall plants
(b) Elongation of dwarf plants
(c) Promotion of rooting
(d) Yellowing of young leaves
Answer:
(b) Elongation of dwarf plants

Question 2.
The hormone which has a positive effect on apical dominance is _____.
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Auxin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Ethylene.
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Question 3.
Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants:
(a) 2, 4-D
(b) GA3
(c) Gibberellin
(d) IAA
Answer:
(a) 2, 4-D

Question 4.
Avena coleoptile test was conducted by _____.
(a) Darwin
(b) N. Smit
(c) Paal
(d) F.W. Went.
Answer:
(d) F.W. Went.

Question 5.
To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes they are sprayed with
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellins
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(d) Ethylene

Question 6.
LH is secreted by _____.
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Anterior pituitary
(d) Hypothalamus.
Answer:
(c) Anterior pituitary

Question 7.
Identify the exocrine gland:
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Salivary gland
(d) Thyroid gland
Answer:
(c) Salivary gland

Question 8.
Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Lungs.
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Question 9.
Which one is referred to as “Master Gland”?
(a) Pineal gland
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Thyroid gland
(d) Adrenal gland
Answer:
(b) Pituitary gland

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. causes cell elongation, apical dominance and prevents abscission.
2. …………. is a gaseous hormone involved in abscission of organs and acceleration of fruit ripening.
3. ……… causes stomatal closure.
4. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in ……… plants.
5. The hormone which has negative effect on apical dominance is ………
6. Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled by ………
7. In the islets of Langerhans, beta cells secrete ………
8. The growth and functions of thyroid gland is controlled by ………..
9. Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the children leads to ………

Answer:

1. Auxin
2. Ethylene
3. Abscisic acid
4. Rosette
5. Ethylene
6. Parathormone
7. Insulin
8. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
9. Cretinism

III. Match Column I with Columns II and III

Question 1

Answer:

Question 2.
Match the following hormones with their deficiency states.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

IV. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement.

1. A plant hormone concerned with stimulation of cell division and promotion of nutrient mobilization is cytokinin.
2. Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in tomato.
3. Ethylene retards senescence of leaves,flowers and fruits.
4. Exopthalmic goiter is due to the over secretion of thyroxine.
5. Pituitary gland is divided into four lobes.
6. Oestrogen is secreted by corpus luteum.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False – Ascorbic Acid retards senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
4. True
5. False – Parathyroid gland is divided into four lobes.
6. False – Oestrogen is produced by the Graffian follicles.

V. Assertion and Reasoning:

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Application of cytokinin to marketed vegetables can keep them fresh for several days.
Reason (R): Cytokinins delay senescence of leaves and other organs by mobilisation of nutrients.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pituitary gland is referred as “Master gland”.
Reason (R): It controls the functioning of other endocrine glands.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Diabetes mellitus increases the blood sugar levels.
Reason (R): Insulin decreases the blood sugar levels.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in Cucurbits?
Answer:
Gibberellin promotes the production of male flower in Cucurbits.

Question 2.
Write the name of synthetic auxin.
Answer:
2, 4 D (2, 4 Dichlorophenoxy Acetic acid).

Question 3.
Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes?
Answer:
Gibberellin induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes.

Question 4.
What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in the female after childbirth?
Answer:
Prolactin stimulates the production of milk after childbirth. Oxytocin helps milk ejection from the mammary gland after childbirth.

Question 5.
Name the hormones which regulates water and mineral metabolism in man.
Answer:
Mineralocorticoids hormones of Adrenal cortea maintain the water balance and mineral metabolism in man.

Question 6.
Which hormone is secreted during an emergency situation in a man?
Answer:
The hormones of Adrenal medulla,

• Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
• Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline) are secreted during an emergency situation in man.

Question 7.
Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones?
Answer:
Pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and hormones.

Question 8.
Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys.
Answer:
Adrenal gland, which is called suprarenal glands is associated with kidneys.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
Answer:
Artificially synthesized auxin which has the properties of auxins are called Synthetic Auxin. Eg: 2, 4-D

Question 2.
What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
Answer:
Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering is called bolting. It can be induced artificially before the crop is harvested.

Question 3.
Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid.
Answer:
The two physiological activities of abscisic acid are:

1. During water stress and drought conditions, Abscisic acid causes stomatal closure.
2. Abscisic acid induces bud dormancy towards the approach of winter in trees like birch.

Question 4.
What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants? Support your answer with reason.
Answer:

• Very chill deposition on leaves and fruits cause the drop in plants. Protect the tree from frost providing an overhead cover.
• The plant hormone ethylene controls fruit ripening, flower wilting and leaf fall by stimulating the conversion of starch and acids to sugar.

Question 5.
What are chemical messengers?
Answer:
Endocrine glands control and coordinate the body functions through secreting certain chemical messengers called hormones.

Question 6.
Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is the role of parathormone?
Answer:
The parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body. They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.

Question 8.
What are the hormones secreted by posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the tissues on which they exert their effect.
Answer:
The hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are:

1. Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone: In kidney tubules it increases reabsorption of water.
2. Oxytocin: They exert their effect on the muscles of uterus which helps in the contraction of smooth muscles of uterus at the time of child birth and milk ejection from mammary gland after child birth.

Question 9.
Why are thyroid hormones referred to as personality hormone?
Answer:
Thyroid hormones are referred to as personality hormone because they are essential for normal physical, mental and personality development.

Question 10.
Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?
Answer:
The formation of Thyroxine or Thyroid hormone requires iodine. If there is an inadequate supply of iodine in our diet it leads to goitre.

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
(a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three different actions in plants.
(b) Which hormone is known as a stress hormone in plants? Why?
Answer:
(a) Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone. It is a growth inhibitor. The different actions of ethylene are as follows:

• Ethylene promotes the ripening of fruits, eg. Tomato, Apple, Mango, Banana and etc.
• Ethylene inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots.
• Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves and flowers.
• Ethylene stimulates the formation of Abscission zone in leaves, flowers and fruits. This leads to premature shedding.
• Ethylene breaks the dormancy of buds, seeds and storage organs.

(b) Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth inhibitor which regulates abscission and dormancy. It increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress. So, it is also called a stress hormone.

Question 2.
Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth stimulating hormone is produced at the tip of coleoptile.
Answer:
Frits Warmolt Went (1903 – 1990), a Dutch biologist demonstrated the , existence and effect of auxin in plants. He did a series of experiments in , Avena coleoptiles.

In his first experiment he removed the tips of Avena coleoptiles. The cut tips did not grow indicating that the tips produced something essential for growth.In his second experiment he placed the agar blocks on the decapitated coleoptile tips. The coleoptile tips did not show any response. In his next experiment he placed the detached coleoptile tips on agar blocks. After an hour, he discarded the tips and placed this agar block on the decapitated coleoptile. It grew straight up indicating that some chemical had diffused from the cut coleoptile tips into the agar block which stimulated the growth.

From his experiments went concluded that a chemical diffusing from the tip of coleoptiles was responsible for growth and he named it as “Auxin” meaning “to grow”.

Question 3.
Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.
Answer:

• Application of gibberellins on plants stimulates extraordinary elongation of internodes. eg. Com and Pea.
• Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering, called bolting.
• Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants like Cucurbits
• Gibberellins break the dormancy of potato tubers.
• Gibberellins is inducing the formation of seedless fruit, termed as Parthenocarpic fruits (Development of fruits without fertilization) eg. Tomato.

Question 4.
Where are oestrogens produced? What is the role of oestrogens in the human body?
Answer:
Oestrogen is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.
Functions of oestrogens:

1. It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
2. It initiates the process of oogenesis.
3. It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovaiy.
4. It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters (breast development, high pitched voice etc).

Question 5.
What are the conditions which occur due to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the conditions different from one another?
Answer:
Lack of ADH: Deficiency of ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) reduces the reabsorption of water and causes an increase in urine output (polyuria). This deficiency disorder is called Diabetes insipidus.
Lack of insulin: The deficiency of insulin causes Diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by,

• Increase in blood sugar level (Hyperglycemia).
• Excretion of excess glucose in the urine (Glycosuria).
• Frequent Urination (Polyuria).
• Increased thirst (Polydipsia).
• Increase in appetite (Polyphagia).

Lack of ADH reduces the reabsorption of water and increases the urine output. Lack of insulin causes the Diabetes mellitus, which increases the blood sugar level and excrete the excess glucose in the urine, causing frequent urination.

Insulin:
Deficiency in insulin causes Diabetes mellitus.
Insulin deficiency increase the blood sugar level (Hyperglycemia), excretion of excess glucose in the urine (Glycosuria), frequent urination (Polyuria) increased thirst (Polydipsia), increase in appetite (Polyphagia).

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
What would be expected to happen if
(a) Gibberellin is applied to rice seedlings.
Answer:
Causes imemodal elongation in rice.

(b) A rotten fruit gets mixed with unripe fruits.
Answer:
If a rotten fruits get mixed with unripe fruit. Then the ethylene produced from the rotten fruit will hasten the ripening of the unripe fruits.

(c) When cytokinin is not added to culture medium.
Answer:
Formation of new organs from the callus in tissue culture (Morphogenesis) will not be formed.

Question 2.
A plant hormone was first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from Bakanae disease caused by Gibberella fujikoroi. Based on this information answer the following questions:

1. Identify the hormone involved in this process.
2. Which property of this hormone causes the disease?
3. Give two functions of this hormone.

Answer:

1. Gibberellins
2. Intermodal elongation
3. Functions:
   • promotes the production of male flowers in monoecious plants.
   • Gibberellins break the dormancy of potato tubers.

Question 3.
Senthil has high blood pressure, protruded eyeball and increased body temperature. Name the endocrine gland involved and hormone secretion responsible for this condition.
Answer:
The gland involved is the thyroid gland. The hormone involved in a thyroid hormone. It is due to excess secretion of thyroid hormones called hyperthyroidism which leads to Graver’s disease.

Question 4.
Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. Before the start of the exam, he sweats a lot, with an increased rate of heartbeat. Why does this condition occur?
Answer:
This is due to the secretion of the hormone Adrenaline in Adrenal medulla of Adrenal gland.

Question 5.
Susan’s father feels very tired and frequently urinates. After clinical diagnosis he was advised to take an injection daily to maintain his blood glucose level. What would be the possible cause for this? Suggest preventive measures.
Answer:
A balance between insulin and glucogon production is necessary to maintain blood glucose concentration.
The deficiency of insulin causes Diabetes Mellitus.
Preventive measure:

1. Take proper or balanced diet.
2. Exercise regularly
3. Avoid stress.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant and Animal Hormones Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Auxin is mainly produced by:
(a) Apical root meristem
(b) Root cambium
(c) Apical shoot meristem
(d) Phloem in shoot tip
Answer:
(c) Apical shoot meristem

Question 2.
Plant hormones are;
(a) Growth regulators
(b) Growth promoters
(c) Growth inhibitors
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Growth regulators

Question 3.
Pick out the hormone which maintain mineral metabolism.
(a) Parathormone
(b) Thymosin
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Melatonin
Answer:
(a) Parathormone

Question 4.
Among the following, which one is attached to the hypothalamus.
(a) Pineal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(b) Pituitary

Question 5.
Stem elongation affected by:
(a) Gibberellin and Florigen
(b) Florigen and Kinn
(c) Kinn and Auxin
(d) Auxin and Gibberellin
Answer:
(d) Auxin and Gibberellin

Question 6.
Which of the following is not natural occuring plant hormone?
(a) 2, 4-D
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) IAA
Answer:
(a) 2, 4-D

Question 7.
Leaf fall occur when the content of:
(a) Auxin increases
(b) Auxin decreases
(c) Abscisic acid decreases
(d) Gibberellin acid decreases
Answer:
(b) Auxin decreases

Question 8.
Indole acetic add generally inhibits the growth of:
(a) Root
(b) Leaves
(c) Shoots
(d) Plants in general
Answer:
(a) Root

Question 9.
Hormones are chemically:
(a) Amino acid
(b) Protein
(c) Steroid
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

Question 10.
Pituitary gland is under the control of:
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Pineal gland
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(a) Hypothalamus

Question 11.
Hypothyroidism in adults causes:
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Sterility
(d) Cretinism
Answer:
(b) Myxoedema

Question 12.
Parathormone deficiency in man causes:
(a) Hyper calcaemia
(b) Hypo calcaemia
(c) Goitre
(d) All
Answer:
(b) Hypo calcaemia

Question 13.
The function of norepinephrine is:
(a) Almost similar to epinephrine
(b) Similar to ADH
(c) Opposite to epinephrine
(d) Opposite to ADH
Answer:
(a) Almost similar to epinephrine

Question 14.
Adrenalin increases:
(a) Heart beat
(b) Blood pressure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 15.
Hormone responsible for ovulation is:
(a) LH
(b) GSH
(c) Progesterone
(d) Testosterone
Answer:
(a) LH

Question 16.
Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection after the birth of baby?
(a) Progesterone
(b) Prolactin
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Oestrogen
Answer:
(c) Oxytocin

Question 17.
The islets of Langerhans are found in:
(a) Pancreas
(b) Stomach
(c) Liver
(d) Alimentary canal
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Gibbereilin promotes cell division and elongation in ………, ………. and ………
2. Abscisic acid controls ……….
3. ………. is called as ‘Master gland’ of the body.
4. Growth hormone is produced in …………
5. Urine concentration is controlled by …………
6. The two lobes of thyroid glands are joined by horizontal connection called …………
7. Insulin are secreted by ……….. cells.
8. Progesterone maintains ……….. pregnancy.
9. The normal blood glucose level is ………… mg/100 ml of blood.
10. ………… converts glycogen into glucose.
11. ………… is responsible for growth of female reproductive organs.
12. Anti-inflammatory hormone is ……….
13. ……….. hormone stimulates the growth of mammary gland.
14. …….. helps in reabsorption of water.
15. Endocrine glands are ………. glands.
Answer:
1. Roots, stem and leaves
2. Leaf fall and dormancy
3. Pituitary
4. Pituitary
5. ADH
6. isthumus
7. Beta
8. normal
9. 80 – 120
10. Glucogon
11. oestrogen
12. Cortisone
13. LTH
14. Oxytocin
15. duct less

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iv)
E. (v)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

IV. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement.

1. Bakacae disease or Foolish seedling disease in cucurbits.
2. Synthesis of ethylene occurs during ripening of fruits.
3. The secretion of Neurohypophysis are secretions of part of only pituitary.
4. Excess production of GH in children result in dwarfism.
5. Cortisone stimulates the breakdown of glycogen into glucose.

Answer:

1. False – Bakacae disease or Foolish seedling disease in rice
2. True
3. False – The secretion of Neurohypophysis are secretions of part of the nervous system.
4. False – Excess production of GH in children result in Gigantism.
5. True

V. Assertion and Reasoning:

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Ethylene is a plant hormone, which can transfer from one plant to another plant.
Reason (R): Ethylene is a gaseous hormones in plants.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Senescence is induced by the application of cytokinin in plants.
Reason (R): Cytokinin promotes the degradation of chlorophyll and nucleic acids.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): ABA plays an important role in plants during water stress.
Reason (R): ABA promotes stomatal closing during water stress.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Gibberellin is a bolting hormone.
Reason (R): Gibberellin induces parthenocarpy in fruits.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Bolting effect in plants is performed by Gibberellin.
Reason (R): Gibberellin induce internode elongation.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Vasopressin is a new hormone.
Reason (R): Vasopressin is synthesized by pars nervosa of pituitary glands.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Hormones are said to be similar to enzyme in action and chemical nature.
Reason (R): Hormones and enzymes are proteinaceous in nature and act as informational nature.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Deficiency of insulin produce polyuria condition.
Reason (R): Glucogon is antagonistic hormone of insulin.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine are secreted by adrenal medulla are called emergency hormone.
Reason (R): These hormones rapidly mobilize the body to face a stress or emergency situation.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Ovaries are both cytogenic and endocrine.
Reason (R): Ovaries produce ovum and reproductive hormone.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
What is apical dominance?
Answer:
The auxins produced by the apical buds suppress the growth of lateral bud is called apical dominance.

Question 2.
Name the types of Auxins.
Answer:

• Natural Auxins – The Auxins produced by plants.
• Synthetic Auxins – Artificially synthesized auxins.

Question 3.
Write the chemical composition of thyroxine?
Answer:
Thyroxine is an iodinated protein, composed of the amino acid, tyrosine and iodine.

Question 4.
When does the maximum synthesis of ethylene occur?
Answer:
Maximum synthesis of ethylene occurs during the ripening of fruits like apples, bananas and melons.

Question 5.
In which condition the excess of dilute urine is produced? Name the disease.
Answer:
Due to less production of ADH, excess of dilute urine is produced, it causes diabetes insipidus.

Question 6.
Name the two distinct parts of adrenal.
Answer:
Adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla.

Question 7.
What are the target organs?
Answer:
The hormones, which are produced in minute quantities, act on specific organs which are called as target organs.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Name the layers of the adrenal cortex.
Answer:
The adrenal cortex consists of three layers of cells called zono glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis.

Question 2.
Write any three physiological effects of Auxins.
Answer:

• Auxins promote the elongation of stems and coleoptiles.
• Auxins prevent the formation of abscission layer.
• Auxins induce root formation at low concentration and inhibit it at higher concentration.

Question 3.
Which hormone is called as life-saving hormone? Why?
Answer:
The cortisol hormones is called as life saving hormone. The cortisol hormones of adrenal cortex serves to maintain the body in living condition and recover it from the severe effects of stress reaction. Thus an increased output of cortisol is life saving in shock conditions.

Question 4.
Name the endocrine glands present in human and other vertebrates.
Answer:

• Pituitary gland
• Thyroid gland
• Parathyroid gland
• Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans)
• Adrenal gland (Adrenal cortex and Adrenal medulla)
• Gonads (Testes and Ovary)
• Thymus gland.

Question 5.
Write the functions of thymosin.
Answer:

1. It has a stimulatory effect on the immune function.
2. It stimulates the production and differentiation of lymphocytes.

Question 6.
Which endocrine gland is called “Master gland”? Why?
Answer:
Pituitary gland. The pituitary gland forms the major endocrine gland in most vertebrates. It regulates and controls other endocrine glands and so it is called “Master gland”.

Question 7.
Differentiate Hyperglycemia and Hypoglycemia.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write any three physiological effects of Gibberellins.
Answer:

• Elongation of internodes.
• Promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants.
• Break dormancy of potato tubers.

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write the functions of thyroid hormones.
Answer:
The functions of thyroid hormones are:

1. Production of energy by maintaining the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) of the body.
2. Helps to maintain normal body temperature.
3. Influences the activity of the central nervous system.
4. Controls growth of the body and bone formation and development of gonads.
5. Essential for normal physical, mental and personality development. It is also known as personality hormone.
6. Regulates cell metabolism.
7. Increases oxygen consumption in tissues.

Question 2.
List out the hormones secreted by Adenohypophysis of pituitary-Explain any two.
Answer:

1. Growth Hormone
2. Thyroid-stimulating Hormone
3. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
4. Gonadotropic Hormone which comprises the Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Luteinizing Hormone
5. Prolactin

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) : TSH controls the growth of thyroid gland, coordinates its activities and hormone secretion.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) : ACTH stimulates adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland for the production of its hormones. It also influences protein synthesis in the adrenal cortex.

Question 3.
Explain the testes and its functions.
Answer:
Testes are the reproductive glands of the males. They are composed of ‘ seminiferous tubules, leydig cells and sertoli cells. Leydig cells form the endocrine part of the testes. They secrete the male sex hormone called testosterone.
Functions of testosterone:

1. It influences the process of spermatogenesis.
2. It stimulates protein synthesis and controls muscular growth.
3. It is responsible for the development of secondary’ sexual characters (distribution of hair on body and face, deep voice pattern, etc).

Question 4.
Write the physiological effects of cytokinin.
Answer:

1. Cytokinin induces cell division (cytokinesis) in the presence of auxins.
2. Cytokinin also causes cell enlargement.
3. Both auxins and cytokinins are essential for the formation of new organs from the callus in tissue culture (Morphogenesis).
4. Cytokinins promote the growth of lateral buds even in the presence of apical bud.
5. Application of cytokinin delays the process of ageing in plants. This is called Richmond Lang effect.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Name the hormones to be added to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots.
Answer:
The hormones to be added to the medium are gibberellin and abscisic acid.

Question 2.
Insulin and thyroxine arrive at an organ at the same time. Thyroxine causes an effect on the organ but insulin does not. This is because:
Answer:
The organ’s cells have receptors for thyroxine but not for insulin.

Question 3.
A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. What changes happen in his neuro-hormonal control system?
Answer:
Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and norepinephrine from adrenal medulla.

Question 4.
A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of:
Answer:
Deficiency of iodine in diet.

Question 5.
A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine even when he kept in a carbohydrate free diet. It is because:
Answer:
Fats are catabolised to form glucose.

Question 6.
Dr. F went noted that if Coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly cut coleoptile stumps. What is the significance of this experiment.
Answer:
The experiment demonstrated the polar movement of Auxin.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N
(b) 8°5’S to 13°35’S
(c) 8°0’N to 13°5’N
(d) 8°0’S to 13°05’S
Answer:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N

Question 2.
The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is …………………
(a) 76°18′ E to 80°20’E
(b) 76° 18′ W to 80°20′ W
(c) 86°18’Eto 10°20’E
(d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′ W
Answer:
(a) 76°18′ E to 80°20’E

Question 3.
The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Servarayan
Answer:
(b) Doddabetta

Question 4.
Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat
(b) Shencottah
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Achankoil
Answer:
(c) Bhorghat

Question 5.
Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Chittar
(d) Bhavani
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 6.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is ……………
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 7.
The forest cover of Tamil Nadu as per 2017 Indian Forest Report is:
(a) 20.21%
(b) 20.31%
(c) 21.20%
(d) 21.30%
Answer:
(a) 20.21%

Question 8.
Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from …………….
(a) Arabian sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Timor sea
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

Question 9.
hich of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni
(b) Madurai
(c) Thanjavur
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 10.
The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is ………………
(a) Dharmapuri
(b) Vellore
(c) Dindigul
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Dharmapuri

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is ………………
2. ……………… is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between ……………… and ……………… branches of cauvery.
4. ……………… soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
5. ……………… is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in ………………

Answers:

1. Coimbatore
2. Solaikaradu
3. Northern (Coleroon or Kollidam), and Southern (Cauvery)
4. Laterite
5. Nilgiri Tahir, Western Ghats, Tamil Nadu and Kerala

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

IV. Assertion type Question

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Red soil is rich in iron oxides.
Reason (R): It is formed by leaching.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is surrounded by the Bay of Bengal in the east, Indian ocean in the South, Kerala and Karnataka in the west and Andhra Pradesh on the North.

Question 2.
List out the districts of Tamil Nadu which are partly/fully located on Eastern and Western Ghats separately.
Answer:

• Districts of Tamil Nadu Partly / fully located on Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.
• Districts on Eastern Ghats: Vellore, Thiruvannamalai, Salem, Nammakal, Trichirapalli, Perambalur.
• Districts on Western Ghats: Nilgiris, Kanyakumari, Dindigul, Virudhunagar.

Question 3.
What is ‘Teri??
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.

Question 4.
How is coastal plain formed?
Answer:
Coastal plains is formed by die rivers that flow towards east and drain in the Bay of Bengal in Tamil Nadu. It is more than 80 kilometers wide at some places.

Question 5.
Name the major islands of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Pamban, Hare, Krusadai, Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni, Island Grounds, Kattupalli Island, Quibble Island and Vivekananda Rock Memorial are some major islands of Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.
Answer:
Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar, and Ramanathi are the main Tributaries of Thamirabarani.

Question 7.
Define Disaster Risk Reduction.
Answer:
The concept and practice of disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyse and manage the causal factors of disasters including through reduced exposure to hazards, lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and environment and improved preparedness for adverse events.

Question 8.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the . fishermen?
Answer:
During Cyclone the Meterological Department warn the fishermen through State Government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Regional (Doordharshan) telecast programme. During Cyclone four stages of warning are given by the Meteorological Department to keep the fishermen alert and to return back who ventured into the sea through coast guards also.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Western Ghats (in Tamil Nadu):

1. Western Ghats extends from the Nilgiris in the North to Marunthuvazh malai at Swamithope in Kanyakumari in the South.
2. It is a continuous range.
3. Doddabetta (in the Nilgiris) is the highest peak.
4. It’s height ranges from 2000mts to 3000 mts above sea level.
5. Important hills are Nilgiris, Anaimalai and palani hills etc.

Eastern Ghats (in Tamil Nadu):

1. Major hills of the Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu are located in the Northern districts of the State.
2. It is discontinuous dissected at many places by the east flowing rivers.
3. Solaikaradu in the Servarayan hills is the highest peak.
4. It’s height ranges from 1,100 mts to 1600 mts above sea level.
5. Javadhu, Kalvarayan and Servarayan etc are some of the major hills.

Question 2.
Southwest monsoon and Northeast monsoon.
Answer:
Southwest Monsoon:

1. Period of Southwest monsoon is from March to May.
2. Tamil Nadu is located in the rainshadow region for the wind hence gets only less rainfall.
3. Rainfall decreases from West to East,
4. CoimbatorePlateau,Kanyakumari and Tirunelveli districts receives 50 – 100 cm rainfall during this period.

Northeast Monsoon:

1. Period of Northeast Monsoon is from October and lasts till mid – December.
2. 48% of annual rainfall to Tamil Nadu is from this wind.
3. It is the rainy season for the districts of Tamil Nadu.
4. Coastal districts get nearly 60% of annual rainfall and interior districts get 40 – 50 cm rainfall.

Question 3.
Tropical evergreen and Tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Tropical Evergreen Forests:

1. This types of forest is found in the areas of heavy rainfall.
2. It is dense, multilayered forest.
3. The major type of trees found in the forests are Cinnamon, Malabar ironwood kindal, jamun etc.
4. It is found in the upper slopes of Western Ghats of Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Nilgiris and Coimbatore districts.

Tropical Deciduous Forests:

1. It is found in the regions of sub tropical climate with moderate rainfall.
2. The trees in this forest shed their leaves during dry season.
3. The major trees are kapok, kadamba, axle wood, bamboo, dog- teak, silk cotton etc some trees are economically important.
4. It is found in the margin of semi evergreen and evergreen forests – Servarayan, Kollimalai, Pachaimalai Eastern Ghats.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range.
Answer:
Eastern Ghats is a discontinuous and irregular one. It is dissected at many places by the rivers, which drain into the Bay of Bengal. Its height ranges from 1,100 to 1,600 metres.

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during Southwest monsoon.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is located in the rainshadow region for the wind which blows from the Arabian sea. As a result Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during Southwest monsoon.

Question 3.
Alluvial soil is fertile.
Answer:
Alluvial soil are formed by the deposition of silt by the rivers. Alluvial soils are generally fertile as they are rich in minerals such as lime, potassium, magnesium, nitrogen and phosphoric acid. It is deficient in nitrogen and humus. It is porous and loamy.

Question 4.
Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone.
Answer:
Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone, because it is located under the very high cyclone prone zone and flood prone zone. More over it is an coastal area often affected by the vulnerable natural disasters.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Plateau of Tamil Nadu is located between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
• It is roughly triangular in shape and covers an area of about 60,000 sq. km.
• Its height increases from east to west. Its height ranges between 150 and 600 m.
• This plateau is broader in the north and very narrow in the south and it has many subdivisions.
• Bharamahal plateau is a part of the Mysore plateau situated in the northwestern part of Tamil Nadu. Dharmapuri and Krishnagiri districts are located in this region.
• Coimbatore plateau lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts. Its height varies from 150 to 450 metres. Moyar river separates this plateau from the Mysore plateau.
• Rivers like Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravathi, which originate from Western Ghats form Valleys in the region. Many intermontane plateaus are found in the region of the Nilgiris. Sigur plateau is one such plateau.
• Madurai plateau found in Madurai district extends up to the foothills of the Western Ghats. Vaigai and Thamirabarani basins are located in the zone.

Question 2.
Write an account on river Kaveri.
Answer:
Origin of River Kaveri: The river Kaverioriginates in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu (coorg) district of Karnataka in the Western Ghats. It serves as the boundary between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for a distance of 64 k.m.

Length of its course in Tamil Nadu: 416 km

Upper course: It enters into Tamil Nadu in the form of Hogenakkal falls in Dharmapuri district. Mettur Dam (Stanely Reservoir) is built across the river in Salem District. A tributary called Bhavani joins Cauvery on the right bank about 45 km from the Mettur Reservoir.

Middle course: Then it takes easterly direction to enter into the plains of Tamil Nadu.

1. At Thirumukkudal 10 km from Karur, two more tributaries Noyyal and Amaravathi confluence the river on the right bank. In this region the river is wider and called ‘Agandra Cauvery’.
2. In Tiruchirappalli the river branches into two. The Northern branch is called Coleroon or Kollidam and the Southern branch remains Cauvery. After flowing for about 16 km, the two branches join again to form the ‘Srirangam Island’.
3. The Grand Anaicut, called as Kallanai was built across the river Cauvery. The deltaic stage begins in the middle course.

Lower course: After Kallanai the river breaks into a large number of distributaries and forms a network all over the delta. River Cauvery merges into Bay of Bengal to the South of Cuddalore.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu. Summer Seasons:
Answer:
The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May result in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer experiences high temperature. Generally, the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C. During this season particularly in the month of May, the southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:
During January’ and February, the vertical rays of the sun fall between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun. So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally. Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 4.
What is desertification and write about the areas affected by it in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The process by which fertile land becomes desert due to inappropriate agriculture, deforestation, and drought is termed as desertification. It is a type of land degradation which lead to the extension of desert area.
2. In Tamil Nadu Theni, the Nilgiris and Kanyakumari are the worst affected districts by desertification.
3. About 12,000 hectares (120sq. km) were affected by sand deposition in Theni and Rajapalayam.

Question 5.
Bring out the types and distribution of soils in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
According to their characteristics, soils of Tamil Nadu are classified into five types.

Soil Types	Distribution
Alluvial soil	River valley regions and coastal plains – Thanjavur, Nagapattinam, Cuddalore, Villupuram, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari.
Black soil	Semi arid regions – Coimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi.
Red soil	Cover two-third areas of Tamil Nadu – particularly in the central district and mainly in Sivagangai and Ramanathapuram.
Laterite soil	Intense leaching areas – parts of Kanchipuram, Thiruvallur and Thanjavur, patches over the mountainous region in the Nilgiris.
Saline soil	Confined to the Coromandel coast – Vedaranyam.

Question 6.
Name the areas which are affected by landslides. What will you do before, during and after landslides?
Answer:
Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu is identified as one of the most vulnerable districts in the country and landslides pose a major threat in this area. The other regions which are prone to land slides are Coimbatore and palani hill of Dindigul district where Kodaikanal hill station is located.

Before: Create awareness; stay alert and awake; monitor the news updates; make evacuation plan; listen for any unusual sounds that might indicate moving debris such as trees cracking, boulders knocking and consider leaving the place of landslide if it is safe to do so.

After: Stay away from the slide area; listen to local radio or television stations for the latest emergency information; watch for flooding, which may occur after a landslide or debris flow; check for injured and trapped persons near the slide, without entering the direct slide area.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark important rivers, distribution of soil and forest types on different Tamil Nadu maps.

(a) Important rivers:

1. Cauvery
2. Palar
3. Then Pennaiyar / Ponnaiyar
4. Vaigai
5. Thamirabarani.

Other rivers:

1. Coleroon or Kollidam
2. Amaravathi
3. Bhavani
4. Noyyal
5. Cheyyar.

(b) Distribution of soil

Soil	Areas
Alluvial	Thiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari and Cauvery Delta.
Black soil	Coimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli.
Red soil	Sivagangai, Ramanathapuram.
Laterite soil	Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Nilgiris.
Saline soil	Coromandel coast, Vedaranyam coast.

img 3

(c) Forest type (Natural vegetation)

1. Tropical evergreen forest: Slopes of Western Ghats Nilgiris, Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari.
2. Temperature forest: Anaimalai, Palani hills.
3. Tropical deciduous forest: Eastern Ghats, Servarayan, Kollimalai, Pachaimalai.
4. Mangrove forest: Cuddalore, Chidambaram,

TB. PNo: 85
Find Out

Question 1.
Name the first state of India created on linguistic basis.
Answer:

1. Andhra Pradesh was the first State of India created on linguistic basis.
2. Bifurcated from Madras Presidency the Telugu speaking area – Andhra Pradesh on October – 1^st, 1953.

Question 2.
Why was the capital of Tamil Nadu renamed?
Answer:
After India got independence in 1947, the city became the capital of Madras state, which was renamed as Tamil Nadu on 1969. On 17 July 1996 the city known as Madras was officially renamed as Chennai.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of the word Chennai
Answer:
Face of the city.

TB. PNo: 86
Activity

Question 1.
Find out the coastal districts of Tamil Nadu with the help of a map.
Answer:
13 Districts – Thiruvallur, Chennai, Kaneheepuram, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur, Pudukottai, Ramanathapuram, Thoothukudi, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari are the coastal districts.

Question 2.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu which share their boundary with the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala separately.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh – Krishnagiri, Vellore and Tiruvallur.
Karnataka – Krishanagiri. Dharmapuri, Erode, Nilgiris.
Kerala – Nilgiris, Coimbatore, Theni, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Virudhunagar.

TB. PNo: 90
Find Out

Question 1.
Why are mountain heights measured from mean sea level and not from ground level?
Answer:
(i) Ocean is one continuous water body on the earth’s surface. Its surface tend to seek the same level whatever be the landform around.
(ii) It is difficult to establish the base of the mountain from the rest of the ground around as their elevation is not the same on all sides.

Question 2.
Name the hill resorts of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Hill resorts of Western Ghats: Nilgiri hills, Anaimalai, Yelamalai, Varusanadu and Pothigai hills, Megamalai.
Hill resorts of Eastern Ghats: Servarayan hills, Kalvarayan hills, Pachaimalai and Kolli hills.

Question 3.
Is Ooty located on western Ghats?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 4.
Name the hill stations located in Western and Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu. Western Ghats:
Answer:
Ooty and coonoor – Nilgiri hills Valparai – Anaimalai hills Kodaikanal -Palani hills Kurangani -Kurangani hills (Theni)
Eastern Ghats:
Yercaud – Servarayan hills

Question 5.
Why is the Nilgiri hills called as Blue Mountains?
Answer:
Nilgiri hills are called as Blue Mountains, inspired by the Kurunji flower which blooms every twelve years giving the slopes a bluish tinge.

TB. PNo: 94
Find Out

Question 1.
What is Agni Nakshatram?
Answer:
Agni Nakshatram period marks the onset of summer season in the month of May – June a period of 21 days. Peak summer with very high temperature, scorching heat all over parts of India.

Question 2.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu into low, moderate and heavy rainfall regions.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Initially after bifurcation in Madras State there were only ………………. districts.
(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 16
Answer:
(a) 13

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu lies in the ……………. part of India.
(a) Northeast
(b) Southwest
(c) Southeast
Answer:
(c) Southeast

Question 3.
Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates Tamil Nadu from :
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Island
(b) Lakshadweep Island
(c) Nepal
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(d) Srilanka

Question 4.
…………… hill is located in Eastern Ghats.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Kalrayan
(c) Palani
Answer:
(b) Kalrayan

Question 5.
Tamil Nadu has Loksabha constituencies.
(a) 19
(b) 92
(c) 39
(4)21
Answer:
(c) 39

Question 6.
Mukuruthi is a peak located in the …………….
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Nilgiri Hills
(c) Palani Hills
Answer:
(b) Nilgiri Hills

Question 7.
The highest peak in Palani hills is :
(a) Vembadi Shola
(b) Vandaravu
(c) Doddabetta
(d) Ooty
Answer:
(b) Vandaravu

Question 8.
Mangrove forests are found in …………….
(a) Vedaranyam
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Nilgiris
Answer:
(a) Vedaranyam

Question 9.
………………. hills separate Vellore and Tiruvanamalai districts.
(a) Kolli
(b) Andipatti
(c) Pothigai
(d) Javadhu
Answer:
(d) Javadhu

Question 10.
…………. hills seperates Vellore and Thiruvanamali districts.
(a) Pothigai
(b) Andipatti
(c) Javadhu
Answer:
(c) Javadhu

Question 11.
Bharamahal Plateau is a part of ………………. Plateau.
(a) Mysore
(b) Chota Nagpur
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Mysore

Question 12.
……………. helps in the prevention of coastal erosion from waves and stroms.
(a) Mangroves
(b) trees
(c) Land slide
Answer:
(a) Mangroves

Question 13.
………………. is one of the main tributary of Thamirabarani.
(a) Noyyal
(b) Amaravathi
(c) Moyar
(d) Manimuthar
Answer:
(d) Manimuthar

Question 14.
Tamil Nadu depends mostly on ……………… monsoon.
(a) South west
(b) Northeast
(c) Cyclone
Answer:
(b) Northeast

Question 15.
About ………………… % of the total area of the Tamil Nadu is drought prone.
(a) 26
(b) 62
(c) 64
(d) 46
Answer:
(c) 64

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. is the branch of geography that deals with different physical aspects like landform soil etc.
2. For a short time Tamil country was ruled by the ………………. not much known.
3. Tamil Nadu coast is the second longest in India after ……………….
4. Kallakurichi, Thenkasi and ………………. are the newly formed districts of Tamil Nadu.
5. Our state has ………………. Assembly Constituencies.
6. All districts of Tamil Nadu except the ………………. the Nilgiris and Kanyakumari were bifurcated at different points of time.
7. The Nilgiri hills consists ………………. peaks with more than 2000 metres.
8. ………………. hills are located to the South of Palghat gap.
9. ISRO propulsion complex is situated on the lower slopes of ……………….
10. Vainu Bappu Observatory is in ……………….
11. The Kalvarayan hills separates the river basins of ……………….
12. The name Kalvarayan came from the name of ancient tribes.
13. ………………. temple an important pilgrim centre is located on Kolli hills range.
14. ………………. river separates Coimbatore plateau and Mysore plateau.
15. ………………. is one of the intermontane plateau found in the region of Nilgiri hills.
16. ………………. are found at the head of Gulf of Mannar in the East Coastal regions.
17. The Reservoir of ………………. is called Stanely Reservoir.
18. The network of distributaries of River Cauvery is called ……………….
19. Palar river enters into Bay of Bengal near ……………….
20. The origin of Thamirabarani river is associated with sage ……………….
21. Pre monsoon showers are also known as ………………. showers.
22. Black soil is also known as ……………….
23. ………………. reduces the fertility of the soil.
24. Trees of ………………. forests are economically important.
25. ………………. is the second largest Mangrove forest in the world found in Tamil Nadu.
26. Koonthankulam bird sanctuary is in ………………. district.
27. Pulicat lake bird sanctuary is in ………………. district.
28. A sudden natural catastrophe that causes great damage or less to lives and properties is called ……………….
29. The number of Municipal Corporations in Tamil Nadu is ……………….
30. Ancient Gondwana land broke away 135 years ago during ………………. period.
31. ………………. hills are the eastward extension of Western Ghats.
32. Coastal plains of Tamil Nadu extend from ………………. to ……………….
33. The ………………. coast along the Bay of Bengal consists of many beautiful exotic beaches.
34. ………………. of Tamil Nadu are its life line.
35. Except ………………. river all the other rivers of Tamil Nadu state are non – perennial.
36. Palar river originates beyond ………………. village in Kolar district of Karnataka.
37. The ………………. river is extensively dammed for irrigation especially in Tamil Nadu.
38. The surplus water in Vaigia river is discharged into ………………. tank.
39. The colour of the Red soil is due to the presence of high content of ……………….
40. ………………. soil is suitable for tea and coffee plants.
41. The systematic efforts taken to reduce the risks during disasters is ……………….
42. Water is the most common trigger of a ……………….
43. Tamil nadu was the worst affected state by the flood occured in ……………….

Answers:

1. Physical geography
2. Kalabras
3. Gujarat
4. Chengalpet
5. 234
6. Chennai
7. 24
8. Anaimalai
9. Mahendragiri hills
10. Kavalur
11. Cauvery and Palar
12. Karalar
13. Arapaleeswarar
14. Moyar
15. Slgur
16. Coral rocks
17. Mettur Dam
18. Garden of Southern India
19. Kuvattur
20. Agasthiyar
21. Mango I Blossm
22. Regur soil
23. Soll erosion
24. Tropical Deciduous forest
25. Pichavaram mangrove forest
26. Tirunelveli
27. Trruvallur
28. Disaster
29. 15
30. cretaceous
31. Palam
32. Chennai, Kanyakumari
33. Coromandel Coast
34. Rivers
35. Tharnirabarani
36. Talagavara
37. Then pennaiyar/ Then ponnaiyar
38. Ramnad big tank
39. Iron Oxides
40. Laterite
41. Disaster Risk Reduction
42. landslide
43. 2015

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

IV. Assertion type question

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu state was reorganised several times even recently.
Reason (R): For the purpose of administrative convenience.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but R does not explain (A).
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false but(R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pothigai hills are called by different names.
Reason (R): It has rich evergreen forest, waterfalls and Ancient temples.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) explains (A).
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Yercaud is known as poor man’s Ooty.
Reason (R): It is on the Kolli hills.
(a) (A) is true (R) is false
(b) (A) is false (A) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(a) (A) is true (R) is false

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu experiences mild tremor.
Reason(R): The state is located in the moderately low risk seismic zone.
(a) (A) is true (R) is false.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A).
(c) (A) is false (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A).

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What do you know about the land features of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has many unique land features that include high eroded mountains. Shallow deep valleys and plains. The topography of the State slopes towards east.

Question 2.
Mention the Latitudinal and Longitudial extent of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu extends 8° 4′ N to 13° 35′ N latitudes and from 76° 18′ E to 80° 20′ E longitudes.

Question 3.
Name the hills of Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The Nilgiris, Anaimalai, Palani hills, Cardomom hills, Varusanadu, Andipatti and Agasthiyar hills.

Question 4.
Name the major physical divisions of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Western Ghats
• Eastern Ghats
• Plateaues
• Coastal plains and
• Inland plains

Question 5.
What are the other names of Pothigai hills?
Answer:
Pothigai hills are called by different names such as Shiva Jothi Parvath, Agasthiyar hills and Southern Kailash.

Question 6.
Name the rivers that flow in the South Of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• Vaigai (Madurai)
• Vaippar (Virudhunagar)
• Thamirabarani (Thirunelveli)
• Kodaiyar (Kanyakumari) flows in the south of Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Coriolis Force?
Answer:
‘Coriolis Force” refers to the apparent force acts as a result of the earth’s rotation deflects the moving objects (such as projectiles or air currents) to the right in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the Southern hemisphere. It is one of the main reason for the movement of the monsoon winds originates from the Indian Ocean.

Question 8.
Define Soil.
Answer:

• Soil is a loose material
• It forms the uppermost layer of the earth.
• It is essential for the development of agriculture.

Question 9.
Define soil and its significance.
Answer:
Soil is the loose material mainly formed by the weathering and erosion rocks. It forms an important elements of agriculture. It provides essential minerals and nutrients for the growth vegetation.

Question 10.
Bring out the significance of Kallanai in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Kallanai built around first century, by Karikalan is still in use.
2. It is considered to be the oldest water regulatory structure in the world.

Question 11.
What are all major factors that control the distribution of natural vegetation?
Answer:
Landforms, nature of the soil, temperature, rainfall and skspe of the relief features are the major factors that control the distribution of natural vegetation.

Question 12.
What is the role played by the mangroves in coastal zone management?
Answer:

1. Mangroves help in the prevention of coastal erosion from waves and storms.
2. It also protects coral reefs and sea grass meadows from being smothered in sediments.

Question 13.
Where the mangrove forests are found in general?
Answer:
In general the mangrove forests are found in the coastal areas, river deltas, tails of islands and over sea faces where accretion is in progress.

Question 14.
Name the places in Tamil Nadu where mangrove forest is found to a considerable extent.
Answer:
Pichavaram, Vedaranyam, Muthupet, Chatram and Thoothukudi are the places in Tamil Nadu where the mangrove forest is found to a considerable extent.

Question 15.
Name the three major Biosphere reservation in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The three major Bio – sphere Reservation in Tamil Nadu are:

1. Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve
2. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve (marine)
3. Agasthiyarmalai Biosphere Reserve

Question 16.
What does Disaster Risk Reduction include?
Answer:
The Disaster Risk Reduction includes:

1. Reducing exposure to hazards.
2. Lessening the vulnerability of people and property.
3. Wise management of land and environment.
4. Improving preparedness and early warning for adverse events.

Question 17.
How does the Government classify the ground water blocks?
Answer:

1. 145 out of 385 are classified as safe ground water blocks.
2. The others are in various stages of depletion such as over exploited, critical and semi-critical.
3. 2% of the blocks are saline and 64% of total area of the state is drought probe.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Distinguish between the plains and plateaus of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Plains:

1. Plains of Tamil Nadu is divided into Inland plains and Coastal Plains.
2. Inland plains are formed by the rivers of Tamil Nadu coastal plains are formed along the Bay of Bengal coast by the lower course of the river.
3. Height increases from West to East.
4. It covers the districts of Salem, Erode, Karur, Trichy, Thanjavur, Thiruvarur and Nagapattinam.

Plateaus:

1. Plateaus are subdivided into three – Dharmapuri plateau, Coimbatore plateau and Madurai plateau.
2. Plateaus are oldest region formed by the disintegration of lava rocks and they are located between Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
3. Height increases from East to West.
4. Dharmapuri, Krishnagiri, Coimbatore, Nilgiris, Salem and Madurai are the districts lie in the plateau region.

Question 2.
Summer season and winter season in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Summer season:

1. Period of summer season begins from March – May.
2. Much variation in summer temperature increases from South to North (30°C – 40°C).
3. Pre monsoon showers and convection rainfall occurs in this season.

Winter season:

1. Period of winter season is from January – February.
2. Not much difference in winter temperature (15°C – 25°C).
3. Generally this season is dry.

Question 3.
Black soil and Alluvial soil.
Answer:
Black soil:

1. Its formation is by weathering of igneous rocks.
2. Clayey in nature when wet develop cracks when dry.
3. Cotton grows well in this soil.
4. It is developed over the Deccan lava granite region under semi arid condition.
5. Found in the districts of Coimbatore, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Virudhunagar.

Alluvial soil:

1. Formed by the deposition of silt by the rivers.
2. Fertile in nature as they are rich in minerals.
3. Paddy and sugar cane grows well in this soil.
4. It is found in the river valley regions and the coastal planis.
5. Found in the districts of Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Cuddalore.

Question 4.
Montane Temperature forest and Tropical Thorn forest.
Answer:
Montane Temperature Forest:

1. Found over an altitude of 1000 mts in sheltered valleys of Anaimalai, Nilgiris and Palani hills.
2. Trees in these forest are evergreen and usually short.
3. Nilgiri champa, wights litsea and rose apple are the common trees.

Tropical Thom Forest:

1. Found where there is little rainfall from plains up to 400 mts altitude.
2. Trees are sturdy and withstand dry condition. Shmbs are common.
3. Palm, neem, rusty acacia, wheel are some of the varieties.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Black soil is also known as Black cotton soil.
Answer:

1. Black soil retails moisture which is very essential for yarning of thread.
2. As cotton grows well in this soil, it is also known as black cotton soil.

Question 2.
It is necessary to conserve the soil resources with intensive care.
Answer:

1. Soil forms the basis mainly for agriculture and other purposes. It is a non-renewable resource and difficult to replace it once it gets degraded.
2. Soil erosion reduces the fertility of the soil which in turn reduces agricultural productivity. So it is necessary to take intensive care to conserve the soil resources.

Question 3.
It is necessary to aware the measures to be adopted during different types of natural disasters.
Answer:
The alteration of natural environment by the technology and developmental activities increase the frequency of disaster all over the world. So it is necessary to aware the measures to be adopted during different types of natural disasters.

Question 4.
Tamil Nadu Government has banned trekking in the state for two months every year (Feb -15 to April 15).
Answer:

1. The high temperature during summer leads to occasional forest fire in deciduous and thorn forests in Tamil Nadu.
2. 23 people were killed as they were stuck in the forest fire at Kurangani hills while trekking. On March 11th, 2018.
3. Thus in the aftermath of this incident made the Tamil Nadu Government to ban trekking for two months during peak summer.

Question 5.
Always avoid roads and bridge during earthquake.
Answer:
Roads may develop crack and bridges may collapse and damaged by the earthquake so we should be causious.

Question 6.
Cardamom hills are also known as Yelamala.
Answer:
The hill acquires its name from the cardamom spice, which is commonly grown here.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the location and size of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Location: Tamil Nadu is located in the Southern most part of the country. It is one among the 29 states of India.

Extent: Latitudinally this land mass extends from 8°4’N to 13°35’N and longitudinally from 76°18’E to 80°20’E longitudes.

Extremities: Its Eastern and Western extremities are defined by the point calimere and the hills of Anaimalai respectively.

The Northern extremity of the state is Pulicate lake and the Southern most point is Cape Comorin.

Area: It covers an area of 1,30,058 sq.km covering 4% of the area of our country.

Size: It is the 11th largest state.

Question 2.
Tabulate the administrative Divisions of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The administrative divisions of the Tamil Nadu state are given under.

Division	Number
Districts	35 (32 + 3)
Revenue Divisions	76
Taluks	226
Firkas (Local Revenue Sub-divisions)	1,127
Revenue villages	16,564
Municipal Corporation	15
Municipalities	125
Panchayat Unions (Blocks)	385
Town Panchayats	561
Village Panchayats	12,618
Lok Sabha Constituencies	39
Assembly Constituencies	234

Question 3.
What are the users of forests?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu’s wealth of flora and fauna lies in the hilly and forest regions.

1. Forests are the sanctuaries for wild animals.
2. It provides valuable forest products like Cinchona, Eucalyptus, which are used as medicine for cold, malaria and as a pain reliever.
3. Palmyrah trees are useful for construction works.
4. Forest products are used as raw materials for several cottage industries.
5. Sandalwood is useful for making furniture.
6. These forests not only provide for the large economy of the state but also to the local livelihood.

Question 4.
Give an account of the River Thamirabarani.
Answer:

1. The name is interpreted as Thamiram (copper) Varuni (streams of river).
2. The water of this river gives a copper like appearance due to the presence of dissolved red soil.
3. The river originates from a peak in Pothigai hills on the Western Ghats above Papanasam in the Ambasamudram taluk, (only river originates in Tamil Nadu).
4. The origin of the river is associated with Sage Agasthiyar.
5. It courses through the districts of Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi.
6. It flows into Bay of Bengal near Punnaikayal in Thoothukudi district.
   Tributaries: Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar and Ramanathi.
7. It is the only Perennial river of Tamil Nadu as it is fed by both the Southwest and Northeast monsoons.

Question 5.
Write about Pichavaram mangrove forest.
Answer:

1. Pichavaram mangrove forest is located near Chidambaram, Cuddalore district.
2. This is the second largest mangrove forest in the world covering about 1,100 hectares (11 sq.km) of area.
3. It is separated from the Bay of Bengal by a sandbar.
4. It consists of species like Avicennia and Rhizophora.
5. It also supports the existence of rare varieties of shell and fin fishes.

Question 6.
Name any five wild life (Animal) sanctuaries and Bird Sancturies in Tamil Nadu and their location.
Answer:

S.No	Name of the Wildlife Sanctuary	Location
1.	Mudumalai	Nilgiris
2.	Indira Gandhi	Coimbatore
3.	Sathyamangalam	Erode
4.	Grizzled Giant Squirrel	Virudhunagar
5.	Kalakad	Tirunelveli

S.No	Name of the Bird Sanctuary	Location
1.	Pulicat Lake	Tiruvallur
2.	Kanjirankulam	Ramanathapuram
3.	Vedanthangal	Kancheepuram
4.	Koonthankulam-kadankulam	Tirunelveli
5.	Karaivetti	Ariyalur

Question 7.
Write a paragraph on Tropical cyclonic rainfall in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tropical cyclones are common during the North – East monsoon season. (October – December)
2. Cyclone originating from Bay of Bengal bring heavy rainfall to the east coastal regions of Tamil Nadu.
3. More than 50% of the state’s rainfall is received from tropical cyclones during this period amount of rainfall.
4. East coastal regions receive 100 to 200 cms of rainfall.
5. Central and North western parts receives 50 – 100 cm of rainfall.
6. The cyclones some times disturb the cultivation of crops and cause severe damage to life and property.

Question 8.
How Tamil Nadu can be classified in to based on cyclone prone zone? Mention the areas of very high and high zone.
Answer:
Based on the cyclone hit areas that ares often hit by the tropical cyclone formed in Bay of Bengal during Northeast monsoon season. Tamil Nadu is classified into five zones. Namelys

Very high, high, medium, low and veiy low cyclone prone zone.

Areas:
Very high zone: Southern part of Chennai, Eastern part of Kanchipuram and Villupuram, North Eastern part of Cuddalore and Union territory of Puduchery.

High zone: Nagapattinam, Thiruvallur, Tiruvarur (except North Western part) Southern part of Tanjavur, Eastern part of Pudukottai, Cuddalore, Tiruvannamalai, North Eastern part of Vellore, Northern part of Chennai, North Western part to Kanchipuram and Middle portion of Villupuram.

Question 9.
How can we manage water scarcity? Suggest some methods of water conservation.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu is water deficit state.
2. To manage water deficit, rain water harvesting and water conservation methods have to be implemented strictly.

Methods of water conservation:

1. Protect water conservation.
2. Rational use of ground water.
3. Renovation of traditional water source.
4. Increasing forest cover.
5. Recycling of water for other uses.
6. Changing crop pattern.
7. Flood management.
8. Use of geo-thermal water.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
On the given map of Tamil Nadu mark the following.
Answer:
(a) (i) Boundaries of Tamil Nadu
(ii) Capital of Tamil Nadu and its District.

Districts: (i) Any two coastal districts on the east
(ii) Kanyakumari, Cape Comorin, Nilgiris, Vellore
(iii) Pulicate lake.

(b)

1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Palk Strait
3. Palk Bay
4. Pamban
5. Rameswaram
6. Coromandel coast
7. Kaveri plains
8. Dharmapuri
9. Kollidam
10. Mettur Dam

(c)

1. Ooty
2. Kodaikanal
3. Doddabetta
4. Mukurti lake
5. Sathuragiri
6. Perumalmalai
7. Palani hills
8. Javadhi hills
9. Elagiri
10. Point calimere
11. Agathiyamalai

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 17 Reproduction in Plants and Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 17 Reproduction in Plants and Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Reproduction in Plants and Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is:
(a) Onion
(b) Neem
(c) Ginger
(d) Bryophyllum
Answer:
(d) Bryophyllum

Question 2.
Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ______.
(a) Amoeba
(b) Yeast
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Bacteria.
Answer:
(b) Yeast

Question 3.
Syngamy results in the formation of:
(a) Zoospores
(b) Conidia
(c) Zygote
(d) Chlamydospores
Answer:
(c) Zygote

Question 4.
The essential parts of a flower are ______.
(a) Calyx and Corolla
(b) Calyx and Androecium
(c) Corolla and Gynoecium
(d) Androecium and Gynoecium.
Answer:
(d) Androecium and Gynoecium.

Question 5.
Anemophilous flowers have:
(a) Sessile stigma
(b) Small smooth stigma
(c) Colored flower
(d) Large feathery stigma
Answer:
(d) Large feathery stigma

Question 6.
Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ______.
(a) Generative cell
(b) Vegetative cell
(c) Microspore mother cell
(d) Microspore.
Answer:
(a) Generative cell

Question 7.
What is true of gametes?
(a) They are diploid
(b) They give rise to gonads
(c) They produce hormones
(d) They are formed from gonads
Answer:
(d) They are formed from gonads

Question 8.
A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and mature is known as ______.
(a) Epididymis
(b) Vasa efferentia
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Seminiferous tubules.
Answer:
(d) Seminiferous tubules.

Question 9.
The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are:
(a) Primary germ cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Leydig cells
(d) Spermatogonia
Answer:
(b) Sertoli cells

Question 10.
Estrogen is secreted by ______.
(a) Anterior pituitary
(b) Primary follicle
(c) Graafian follicle
(d) Corpus luteum.
Answer:
(b) Primary follicle

Question 11.
Which one of the following is an IUCD?
(a) Copper – T
(b) Oral pills
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Tubectomy
Answer:
(a) Copper – T

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is ………
2. After fertilization the ovary develops into ………
3. Pianaria reproduces asexuallv by ………
4. Fertilization is ……….. in humans.
5. The implantation of the embryo occurs at about ……….. day of fertilization.
6. ………. is the first secretion from the mammary gland after child birth.
7. Prolactin is a hormone produced by …………

Answer:

1. Double fertilization
2. Fruits
3. Regeneration
4. Internal
5. 6 to 7
6. Colostrum
7. Anterior pituitary

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (i)

Question 2.
Match the following terms with their respective meanings

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the false statement.

1. Stalk of the ovule is called pedicle.
2. Seeds are the product of asexual reproduction.
3. Yeast reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission.
4. The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called as style.
5. Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen.
6. Sex organs produce gametes which are diploid.
7. LH is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
8. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy.
9. Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
10. The increased level of oestrogen and progesterone is responsible for menstruation.
Answer:
1. False – Stalk of the ovule is called Funiculus
2. False – Seeds are the product of sexual reproduction
3. False – Budding reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission.
4. False – The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure or the pollen is called as stigma.
5. False – Wind pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen.
6. False – Sex organs produce gametes which are haploid
7. False – Anterior pituitary (LH is secreted by the Anterior pituitary)
8. True
9. True
10. True

V. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
If one pollen grain produces two male gametes, how many pollen grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules?
Answer:
Atleast 10 pollen grains required to fertilise 10 ovules because only one male gamete is involved in the fusion of male gamete with the egg cell.

Question 2.
In which part of the flower germination of pollen grains takes place?
Answer:
Pollen grains reach the stigma and begin to germinate.

Question 3.
Name two organisms which reproduces through budding.
Answer:
Yeast and hydra reproduce through budding.

Question 4.
Mention the function of the endosperm.
Answer:
The endosperm provides food to the developing embryo.

Question 5.
Name the hormone responsible for the vigorous contractions of the uterine muscles.
Answer:
Oxytocin from the posterior pituitary stimulates the uterine contraction.

Question 6.
What is the enzyme present in the acrosome of sperm?
Answer:
Hyaluronidase is the enzyme, present in the acrosome of sperm, which helps the sperm to enter the ovum during fertilization.

Question 7.
When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day observed?
Answer:
Every year May 28th is observed as Menstrual Hygiene day to make girls and women aware of maintaining menstrual hygiene and importance of menstrual hygiene for good health.

Question 8.
What is the need for contraception?
Answer:
Contraception is used to prevent pregnancy, to check population growth.

Question 9.
Name the part of the human female reproductive system where the following occurs, (a) Fertilization (b) Implantation
Answer:
(a) Fertilization: Occurs in the oviduct of the female genital tract. It takes place usually in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.
(b) Implantation: Blastocyst reaches the uterus (uterine wall) (endometrium)

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
Answer:
Each fragment will develop into a new individual by a specialized mass of cell. It is called regeneration. It is the ability of the lost body parts of an individual organism to give rise to a whole new organism.

Question 2.
Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some type of plants?
Answer:
The vegetative part of plant, root, stem, leaf or budgets detached from the parent body and grows into an independent daughter plant by mitotic division. The daughter plants are genetically similar to the parent plant.

Question 3.
How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Answer:

Question 4.
Define triple fusion.
Answer:
The fusion involving two polar nuclei and a sperm nucleus, that occurs in double fertilization in a seed plant and results in the formation of endosperm, is called the triple fusion.

Question 5.
Write the characteristics of insect-pollinated flowers.
Answer:

1. The flowers are brightly coloured to attract insects which have smell and nectar.
2. The pollen grains are larger in size, the exine is pitted, spiny, so they can be adhered firmly on the stucky stigma.

Question 6.
Name the secondary sex organs in male.
Answer:
The secondary sex organs in the male are vas deferens, Epididymis, seminal vesicle, prostate gland and penis.

Question 7.
What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
Answer:
The milk produced from the breast during the first 2 to 3 days after child birth is called colostrum. Milk production from alveoli of mammary glands is stimulated by prolactin secreted from the anterior pituitary.

Question 8.
How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
Answer:
Maintaining menstrual hygiene is important for the overall health of women.

• Sanitary pads should be changed regularly, to avoid infections due to microbes from vagina and sweat from genitals.
• Use of warm water to clean genitals, to get rid of menstrual cramps.
• Wearing loose clothing, to ensure the airflow around the genitals, to prevent sweating.

Question 9.
How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother’s body?
Answer:
The developing embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. It is embedded in the uterine wall. This is a disc like tissue which develops between the uterine walls and embryo. It has villi of embryo side of the tissue. On the mother side are blood spaces with the villi. This gives a large surface area for oxygen and glucose to pass from the mother to the embryo.

Question 10.
Identify the parts A, B, C and D.

Answer:
A – Exine
B – Intine
C – Generative nucleus
D – Vegetative nucleus

Question 11.
Write the events involved in the sexual reproduction of a flowering plant.

1. Discuss the first event and write the types.
2. Mention the advantages and disadvantages of that event.

Answer:

1. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called pollination. Self – Pollination and Cross-Pollination are the two types of Pollination.
2. Advantages:
   • It results in fertilization, which leads to the formation of fruits and seeds.
   • New varieties of plants are formed, through a new combination of genes,
3. Disadvantages:
   • More wastage of pollen grains.
   • Pollination may fail due to the distance barrier.
   • Flowers depend on external agencies for pollination.

Question 12.
Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in which they are present.
Answer:
Human testes responsible for synthesis of male gametes(sperms) need slightly lower temperature than the normal body temperature for this function. Thus, they are located outside the abdominal cavity in a sac like structure called scrotum.

Question 13.
The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the secretory phase. Give reason.
Answer:
During the Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle in the uterus, the hormone progesterone is produced by the ovaries. Progesterone and estrogen are secreted by the Corpus Luteum, which develops from the Graafian follicle. So this phase of the menstrual cycle is called the secretory phase.

Question 14.
Why are family planning methods not adopted by all the people of our country?
Answer:
Family planning is a way of living that is adopted voluntary by couples on the basis of knowledge and responsible decision to promote the health and welfare of the family group and society. As it is voluntary many people are not aware of the importance of family planning.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
With a neat labelled diagram describe the parts of a typical angiospermic ovule.
Answer:
Structure of the Ovule : The main part of the ovule is the nucellus which is enclosed by two integuments leaving an opening called as micropyle. The ovule is attached to the ovary wall by a stalk known as funiculus. Chalaza is the basal part.

The embryo sac contains seven cells and the eighth nuclei located within thenucellus. Three cells at the micropylar end form the egg apparatus and the three cells at the chalaza end are the antipodal cells. The remaining two nuclei are called polar nuclei found in the centre. In the egg apparatus one is the egg cell (female gamete) and the remaining two cells are the synergids.

Question 2.
What are the phases of menstrual cycle? Indicate the changes in the ovary and uterus.
Answer:

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
In angiosperms, the pollen germinates to produce a pollen tube that carries two gametes. What is the purpose of carrying two gametes when single gamete can fertilize the egg?
Answer:
One sperm fuses with the egg (syngamy) and forms a diploid zygote. The other sperm fuses with the secondary nucleus (Triple fusion) to form the primary endosperm. After triple fusion, the primary endosperm nucleus develops into an endosperm. The purpose of carrying two gametes is, endosperm provides food to the developing embryo.

Question 2.
Why menstrual cycle does not take place before puberty and during pregnancy?
Answer:
Menstruation occur when the egg is not fertilized. Every month uterus prepares itself to receive the fertilized egg to nourish the embryo, its lining becomes thick and spongy for implantation of the fertilized egg.
In case egg is not fertilized thin lining breaks and discharged out of the body through the vagina in the form of blood.
This condition will not happen before puberty and during pregnancy.

Question 3.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Rohini and her parents were watching a television programme. An advertisement flashed on the screen which was promoting the use of sanitary napkins. Rohini’s parents suddenly changed the channel, but she objected to her parents and explained the need and importance of such advertisement.
(a) What is first menstruation called? When does it occur?
(b) List out the napkin hygiene measures taken during menstruation?
(c) Do you think that Rohini’s objection towards her parents was correct? If so, Why?
Answer:
(a) The first period or menstruation is a point in time, known as Menarche. It usually begins between 12 to 15 years of age.

(b)

1. The sanitary pad and tampons should be wrapped properly and discarded because they can spread infections.
2. Sanitary pad or tampon should not be flushed down the toilet.
3. Napkin incinerators are to be used properly for disposal of used Napkins.

(c) No, it was not correct. The parents and teachers have to create awareness among the school girls about the use of Napkins and their proper disposal. Girls should be educated and should know the importance of such advertisement on Television.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Reproduction in Plants and Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In a pollen grain the small nucleus is:
(a) Generative nucleus
(b) Tube nucleus
(c) Vegetative nucleus
(d) Pollen nucleus
Answer:
(a) Generative nucleus

Question 2.
The female part of the flower is ______.
(a) Androecium
(b) Anemophily
(c) Gynoecium
(d) Micropyle.
Answer:
(c) Gynoecium

Question 3.
Spirogyra is an:
(a) Virus
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Algae
Answer:
(d) Algae

Question 4.
During pregnancy, the uterus expands, it’s normal size up to ______.
(a) 200 times
(b) 500 times
(c) 600 times
(d) 800 times.
Answer:
(b) 500 times

Question 5.
In wind pollinated flowers, the pollen grains are:
(a) sticky and powdery
(b) small and powdery
(c) dry and powdery
(d) wet and powdery
Answer:
(c) dry and powdery

Question 6.
Androecium is the part of the flower.
(a) upper
(b) male
(c) lower
(d) female
Answer:
(b) male

Question 7.
Zygote is a resulting product of:
(a) Germination
(b) Pollination
(c) Fusion of Embryosac
(d) Fertilization
Answer:
(d) Fertilization

Question 8.
Pick out the correct statement:
(a) Endosperm is a connective tissue
(b) Endosperm is a muscular tissue
(c) Endosperm is a nutritive tissue
(d) Endosperm is a nervous tissue
Answer:
(c) Endosperm is a nutritive tissue

Question 9.
The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood, forming:
(a) Corpus Luteum
(b) Corpus albricans
(c) Corpus Collosum
(d) Corpus Haemorrhagueim
Answer:
(a) Corpus Luteum

Question 10.
The endometrium is the lining of:
(a) bladder
(b) vagina
(c) uterus
(d) oviduct
Answer:
(c) uterus

Question 11.
Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of:
(a) Progesterone
(b) FSH
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Vasopressin
Answer:
(a) Progesterone

Question 12.
Testosterone is secreted by:
(a) Leydig cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Seminiferous tubule
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 13.
In mammals, maturation of sperms take place at a temperature:
(a) Equal to that of body
(b) Higher than that of body
(c) Lower than that of body
(d) At any piece of mammalian sperm
Answer:
(c) Lower than that of body

Question 14.
If menstrual cycle is 30 days and bleeding starts on 1st day, then ovulation occur on:
(a) 14th day
(b) 18th day
(c) 30th day
(d) 16th day
Answer:
(d) 16th day

Question 15.
The symbol of family planning in India is:
(a) Square
(b) Inverted red triangle
(c) Rectangle
(d) Circle
Answer:
(b) Inverted red triangle

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent ………
2. Progesterone is secreted by ………..
3. Sertoli cells are found mg in ………….
4. Hormone responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteum is ………..
5. First menstrual cycle starts is ………..
6. The functional maturation of sperms takes place in ………..
7. Seeds develops from …………
8. In ……… buds are produced in the notches along the leaf margin.
9. Androecium is a group of …………
10. In self pollination, flowers need not to depend on ………… of pollination.
11. Pollination by wind is called ………..
12. The point of attachment of ovule to the funicle is known as …………..
13. In Angiosperm pollen tube liberate their male gametes into the …………
14. Double fertiliztaion is essential for formation of ……….
15. During spore formation a structure called ………… develops from the fungal hypha
Answer:
1. Fertilization
2. Corpus luteum
3. Seminiferous tubule
4. LH
5. Menarche
6. Epididyms
7. Ovule
8. Bryophyllum
9. Stamens
10. Agents
11. Anemophily
12. Hilum
13. Synergids
14. Endosperm
15. Sporangium

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reasoning:

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Some of the Angiospermic plants are propagated only by vegetative propagation.
Reason (R): They have lost the capacity of seed formation.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Double fertilization is the universal features of all plants.
Reason (R): In this fusion only male gametes and secondary nucleus takes place.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The unit of Androecium is called stamen.
Reason (R): The most important part of androecium is anther.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Anemophily includes wastage of pollen grains.
Reason (R): Anemophilous flowers are neither attractive nor fragrant.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Sexual reproduction takes place with the participation of two different type of gametes.
Reason (R): Sexual reproduction is also known as Apomixies.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): In India, IUDS most widely accepted methods of contraception.
Reason (R): IUDS are injectable contraceptives, which prevent pregnancy for three months.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Over population has become a serious problem in developing countries.
Reason (R): It may exhaust natural resources, cause unemployment and lead to pollution.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

V. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement

1. Tubectomy a method of population control performed on males.
2. Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
3. The germ pore of dicot seed is known as micropyle.
4. Vegetative reproduction is a kind of asexual reproduction.
5. The protective wall of the pollen is intine.

Answer:

1. False – Tubectomy a method of population control performed on females
2. False – Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the urban women
3. True
4. True
5. False – The protective wall of the pollen is exine.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Define reproduction.
Answer:
Reproduction is the process of producing offspring of their own kind.

Question 2.
Define Fertilization.
Answer:
The fusion of male gamete with female gamete to form zygote is called fertilization.

Question 3.
Where the fertilization takes place in human female?
Answer:
Fertilization in human female occurs in the oviduct of the female genetal tract. It takes place usually in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.

Question 4.
Name two types of reproduction.
Answer:
Asexual and Sexual reproduction.

Question 5.
Define Menstruation.
Answer:
Menstruation is a periodical phenomenon that continues from puberty to menopause. This will happen if the released ovum is not fertilized by the sperm.

Question 6.
Write the name of male and female reproductive part of a flower.
Answer:
Androecium and Gynoecium.

Question 7.
Define gestation period.
Answer:
Gestation is the time period during which the embryo attains its development in the uterus.

Question 8.
What is the gestation period in human?
Answer:
Normally gestation period of human last for about 280 days.

Question 9.
Write the full form of IUD and AIDS.
Answer:
IUD – Intra Uterine devices
AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

Question 10.
What is Menopause?
Answer:
A natural decline in reproductive hormones when a woman reaches 48-50 years of age.

Question 11.
Define Pollination.
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of a flower is called pollination.

Question 12.
What are the agents of pollination?
Answer:
Animals, Insects, Wind and Water are the agents of Pollination.

Question 13.
What is Parturition?
Answer:
Parturition is the expulsion of young one from the mother uterus at the end of gestation.

Question 14.
What is endometrium?
Answer:
The endometrium is the inner epithelial layer along with its mucous membrane of the mammalian uterus.

Question 15.
What are gonads?
Answer:
Organs of the reproductive system are gonads. Testes are male gonads and ovaries are female gonads.

Question 16.
Name two sexually transmitted disease.
Answer:
Syphilis. AIDS

Question 17.
What is Vitelline membrane?
Answer:
The membrane forming the surface layer of the ovum is called vitelline membrane.

Question 18.
Which parts of the flower transform into the seed and fruit?
Answer:
Ovule develops into seed.
Ovary develops into fruit.

Question 19.
Name two sex hormones.
Answer:
Testosterone and Progesterone

Question 20.
What is umblical cord?
Answer:
A cord containing blood vessels that connects the placenta with the foetus is called the umblical cord.

VII. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is vegetative reproduction? Give an example.
Answer:
New plantlets, which are formed from the vegetative (somatic) parts of plants, such as root, stem, leaf or bud from the parent body is called vegetative reproduction, eg. In Bryophyllum, small plants grow at the leaf notches.

Question 2.
What happens when the egg is not fertilized?
Answer:
If the egg is not fertilized, corpus luteum degenerates, the egg disintegrates and the uterine lining slowly breaks, discharges as blood and mucus leading to menstrual events.

Question 3.
Explain the types of Urinary Tract Infection?
Answer:
Woman are susceptible to Urinary Tract Infection from the bacteria, that are present on skin, rectum or vagina. The types of UTI are:

• Cystitis or Bladder infection: Bacteria lodged in the urinary bladder, thrive and multiply leading to inflammation, at the age group of 20 to 50.
• Kidney Infection: The bacteria travels from the urinary bladder and upward to ureter and affect one or both the kidneys. It also infects the bloodstream and leads to serious life-threatening complications.
• Asymptomatic Bacteriuria: The bacteria present in the urinary bladder, which may not show any symptoms.

Question 4.
How does reproduction help in providing stability to population of species?
Answer:
Reproductive ensures the continuity and survival of the species. This process is to preserve individual species and it is called self perpetuation.

Question 5.
What is vegetative propagation? Write two examples where it is used.
Answer:
In vegetative propagation, new plantlets are formed from vegetative cells, buds or organs of plant. The vegetative part of plant get detached from the parent body and grow into an independent daughter plant. Root – Sweet potato, Stem – Strawberry.

Question 6.
What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?
Answer:

1. To avoid frequent pregnancies, which in turn helps in population control.
2. To prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases.

Question 7.
State in brief the function of the following organ,
(a) Ovary
(b) Fallopian tube
Answer:
(a) Ovary – Produce Oocytes (egg) for fertilization and produce hormones – Oestrogen and Progesterone.
(b) Fallopian tube – Transport the egg from the ovary to uterus.

Question 8.
Surgical methods can be used to create a block in the reproductive system for contraceptive purpose. Name such parts where block are created in
(i) Male
(ii) Female.
Answer:
(i) Male – Vasectomy – ligation of vas deferens
(ii) Female – Tubectomy – ligation of Fallopian tube

VIII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
List out the different methods of contraceptive. Explain any two.
Answer:
Common contraceptive methods used to prevent pregnancy are:
(i) Barrier methods
(ii) Hormonal methods
(iii) Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs)
(iv) Surgical methods

(i) Barrier Methods : This method prevents sperms from meeting the ovum. Its entry into the female reproductive tract is prevented by barrier.

1. Condom : Condom prevents deposition of sperms in the vagina. Condoms are made of thin rubber or latex sheath. Condom also protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STD) like syphilis, AIDS.
2. Diaphragm (Cervical cap) : Vaginal diaphragm fitting into the vagina or a cervical cap fitting over the cervix. This prevents the entry of sperms into the uterus.

(ii) Hormonal Methods : Hormonal preparations are in the form of pills or tablets (contraceptive pills). These hormones stop (interfere with ovulation) the release of egg from the ovary.

Question 2.
Explain the structure of pollen grain with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Pollen grains are usually spherical in shape. It has two layered wall. The hard outer layer is known as exine. It has prominent apertures called germpore. The inner thin layer is known as intine. It is a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin. Mature pollen grains contain two cells, the vegetative and the generative cell. Vegetative cell contains a large nucleus. The generative cell divides mitotically to form two male gametes.

Question 3.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of self and cross pollination.
Answer:
Advantages of self-pollination:

1. Self-pollination is possible in certain bisexual flowers.
2. Flowers do not depend on agents for pollination.
3. There is no wastage of pollen grains.

Disadvantages of self-pollination:

1. The seeds are less in numbers.
2. The endosperm is minute. Therefore, the seeds produce weak plants.
3. New varieties of plants cannot be produced.

Advantages of cross pollination:

1. The seeds produced as a result of cross pollination, develop and germinate properly and grow into better plants, i.e., cross pollination leads to the production of new varieties.
2. More viable seeds are produced.

Disadvantages of cross-pollination:

1. Pollination may fail due to distance barrier.
2. More wastage of pollen grains.
3. It may introduce some unwanted characters.
4. Flowers depend on the external agencies for pollination.

Question 4.
Explain the structure of human sperm with diagram.
Answer:

Structure of Human Sperm: The spermatozoan consists of head, a middle piece and tail. The sperm head is elongated and formed by the condensation of nucleus. The anterior portion has a cap like structure called acrosome. It contains hyaluronidase an enzyme that helps the sperm to enter the ovum during fertilization. A short neck connects the head and middle piece which comprises the centrioles. The middle piece contains the mitochondria which provides energy for the movement of tail. It brings about sperm motility which is essential for fertilization.

Question 5.
Explain the structure of ovum with diagram.
Answer:
The mature ovum or egg is spherical in shape. The ovum is almost free of yolk. It contains abundant cytoplasm and the nucleus. The ovum is surrounded by three membranes. The plasma membrane is surrounded by inner thin zona pellucida and an outer thick corona radiata. The corona radiata is formed of follicle cells. The membrane forming the surface layer of the ovum is called vitelline membrane. The fluid-filled space between zona pellucida and the surface of the egg is called perivitelline space.

IX. Give Reason:

Question 1.
If a women is using copper – T, will it help in protecting her from sexual transmitted diseases?
Answer:
No, Copper-T does not prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases. Copper-T only prevents implantation. The only safe method used to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases is the use of condoms.

Question 2.
Leaves of the Bryophyllum fallen on the ground produce new plants whereas the leaves of rose do not. Why?
Answer:
The leaves of Bryophyllum is levoad and fleshy, has notches at its margins. Buds arise from the notches, but in rose plant notches are absent.

Question 3.
The organisms formed by asexual reproduction are considered as clones. Why?
Answer:
Offspring produced by a asexual reproduction are not only identical to parents, but are also exact copies of their parent because it involves only miotic cell division.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Organism A needs water to multiply and organism B needs sugar solution to multiply. Identify the organism A and B and their method of Reproduction.
Answer:
Organism A is Amoeba – which multiplies by binary fusion.
Organism B is Yeast – which needs sugar medium for budding.

Question 2.
If ovaries from a pregnant woman arc removed in 4th month of pregnancy. What will happen?
Answer:
Embryo develops normally till birth as it grows in the utreus.

Question 3.
A pregnant female not able to delivers the baby due to lack of ‘X’ hormones. Identify ‘X’ hormone. Write its function.
Answer:
The ‘X” hormone is oxytocin. It provides force to expel the baby from the uterus causing birth.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 15 Nervous System Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Nervous System

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Bipolar neurons are found in:
(a) retina of eye
(b) cerebral cortex
(c) embryo
(d) respiratory epithelium
Answer:
(a) retina of eye

Question 2.
The site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence, and thought is ______
(a) kidney
(b) ear
(c) brain
(d) lungs
Answer:
(c) brain

Question 3.
In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by:
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle
(b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
Answer:
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle

Question 4.
Dendrites transmit impulse ______ cell body and axon transmit impulse ______ cell body.
(a) away from, away from
(b) towards, away from
(c) towards, towards
(d) away from, towards
Answer:
(b) towards, away from

Question 5.
The outer most of the three cranial meninges is:
(a) arachnoid membrane
(b) piamater
(c) duramater
(d) myelin sheath
Answer:
(c) duramater

Question 6.
There are …….. pairs of cranial nerves and ………. pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31
(b) 31, 12
(c) 12, 13
(d) 12, 21
Answer:
(a) 12, 31

Question 7.
The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre _____
(a) afferent neurons
(b) association neuron
(c) efferent neuron
(d) unipolar neuron
Answer:
(c) efferent neuron

Question 8.
Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus
(b) hypothalamus
(c) corpus callosum
(d) pons
Answer:
(c) corpus callosum

Question 9.
Node of Ranvler is found in:
(a) muscles
(b) axons
(c) dendrites
(d) cyton
Answer:
(b) axons

Question 10.
Vomiting centre is located in ______
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) stomach
(c) cerebrum
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(a) medulla oblongata

Question 11.
Nerve cells do not possess:
(a) neurilemma
(b) sareolemma
(c) axon
(d) dendrites
Answer:
(b) sareolemma

Question 12.
A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the following part of the brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) cerebrum
(c) pons
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(d) hypothalamus

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……….. is the longest cell in our body.
2. Impulses travels rapidly ……….. in ……….. neurons.
3. A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called ………..
4. ………. carries the impulse towards the cell body.
5. The two antagonistic component of autonomic nervous system are ……….. and ……….
6. A neuron contains all cell organelles except …………
7. ………. maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
8. ………… and ………… increases the surface area of cerebrum.
9. The part of human brain which acts as relay center is ………….

Answer:

1. Nerve cell or neuron
2. sensory
3. stimulus
4. Dentrites
5. sympathetic and parasympathetic system
6. Nucleus
7. Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF)
8. Gyri and sulci
9. thalamus

III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement:

1. Dendrons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
2. Sympathetic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
3. Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of human body.
4. Cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
5. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the white matter.
6. All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges.
7. Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain.
8. Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus.
9. Pons helps in regulating respiration.

Answer:

1. False – Axons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
2. False – Autonomic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
3. True
4. False – Cerebellum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
5. True
6. False – Brain is covered and protected by meninges.
7. True
8. True
9. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

V. Understand the assertion statement. Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion: Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system.
Reason: Cerebrospinal fluid has no such functions.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

2. Assertion: Corpus callosum is present in space between the duramater and . piamater.
Reason: It serves to maintain the constant intracranial pressure.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.

VI. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define the stimulus.
Answer:
The changes in the environmental condition that are detected by the receptors present in the body is called stimulus.

Question 2.
Name the parts of the hindbrain.
Answer:
The hindbrain is formed of three parts. Cerebellum, Pons and Medulla Oblongata.

Question 3.
What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
Answer:
Cranium (skull) and three connective tissue membrane meninges – Duramater, Arachnoid membrane and piamater protect the brain.

Question 4.
Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
The conditioned reflexes are the result of practice and learning. Playing the harmonium by striking a particular key, on seeing a music note is an example of conditioned reflexes.

Question 5.
Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system?
Answer:
Hypothalamus is the link between nervous system and endocrine system as it controls the secretion of hormones from anterior pituitary gland.

Question 6.
Define reflex arc.
Answer:
The path taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called a Reflex arc.

VII. Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Voluntary and involuntary actions.
Answer:

Question 2.
Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre.
Answer:

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
Answer:
The human brain is divided into 3 major parts. Fore brain, Mid brain and Hind brain.
Fore brian consists of Cerebrum, Thalamus and Hypothalamus.

Mid brain
Parts of the brain is Corpora quadrigemina
Function is control visual and auditory reflexes.

Hind brain consists of Pons, Cerebellum and Medulla Oblongata.

Question 2.
What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of response with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
If we touch a sharp pointed object, we immediately withdraw our hand.
Here the skin is the receptor and it receives the stimulus, that is the pain. This stimulus (pain) in turn triggers an impulse in sensory neuron. The sensory neuron transmits or convey the message to the spinal cord. Spinal cord interprets the stimulus and the impulse is passed on to the relay neuron which in turn transmits it to a motor neuron. Motor neuron carry command from the spinal cord to our arm. Muscle in our arm contracts and we withdraw our hand immediately

Question 3.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.
Answer:

A neuron is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system. A neuron consists of Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.
Cyton : It has a central nucleus with abundant cytoplasm called neuroplasm. The cytoplasm has large granular body called Nissl’s granules and the other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic recticulum.

Dendrites : These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes that project from the surface of the cell body. They conduct nerve impulses towards the cyton.

Axon : The axon is a single, elongated, slender projection. The end of axon terminates as fine branches which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob. The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma, while the cytoplasm is called axoplasm. It carries impulses away from the cyton. The axons may be covered by a protective sheath called myelin sheath which is further covered by a layer of Schwann ceils called neurilemma. Myelin sheath breaks at intervals by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region between the nodes is called as internode. Myelin sheath acts as insulator and ensures rapid transmission of nerve impulses.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of spinal cord.
Answer:
Spinal cord is a cylindrical structure lying in the neural canal of the vertebral column. It is also covered by meninges.
It extends from the lower end of medulla oblongata to the first lumbar vertebra. The posterior most region of spinal cord tapers into a thin fibrous thread like structure called filum terminale.

Internally, the spinal cord contains a cerebrospinal fluid filled cavity known as the central canal. The grey matter of spinal cord is ‘H’ shaped. The upper end of letter ‘H” forms posterior horns and lower end forms anterior horns. A bundle of fibres pass into the posterior horn forming dorsal or afferent root. Fibres pass outward from the anterior hom forming ventral or efferent root. These two roots joins to form spinal nerves. The white matter is external and have bundle of nerve tracts. Spinal cord conducts sensory and motor impulses to and from the brain. It controls reflex actions of the body.

Question 5.
How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
Answer:
The information from the environment are detected by the receptors located in our sense organs such as the eyes, the nose, the skin etc..
Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron.
This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end.

On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neuro transmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.

In this way, the electrical signal reaches the brain or spinal cord. The response from brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector organs such as the muscle or gland cell, that undergoes the desired response.

The flow of nerve impulses from axonal end of one neuron to dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synaptic transmission.

Question 6.
Classify neurons based on its structure.
Answer:
The neurons may be of different types based on their structure and functions. Structurally the neurons may be of the following types:

(i) Unipolar neurons: Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both axon and dendron.
(ii) Bipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as an axon while another as a dendron.
(iii) Multipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
‘A’ is a cylindrical structure that begins from the lower end of the medulla and extends downwards. It is enclosed in bony cage 4B’ and covered by membranes ‘C’. As many as ‘D’ pairs of nerves arise from the structure ‘A’.
(i) What is A?
(ii) Name (a) bony cage ‘B’ and (b) membranes ‘C’
(iii) How much is D?
Answer:
(i) Spinal cord
(ii) (a) Cranium
(b) Duramater, Arachnoid membrane, Piamater
(iii) 31 pairs of Spinal nerves

Question 2.
Our body contains a large number of cells ‘L’ which are the longest cells in the body.
L has long and short branch called as ‘M’ and ‘N’ respectively. There is a gap ‘O’ between two ‘l’ cells, through which nerve impulse transfer by release of chemical substance ‘P’.

1. Name the cells L.
2. what are M and N?
3. What is the gap O?
4. Name the chemical substance P.

Answer:

1. L is Nerve cell or Neuron
2. M is axon and N is dendrite
3. Gap O is synaptic junction
4. P is neuro transmitter – Acetylcholine

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Inner layer of Axon is:
(a) Myelin sheath
(b) Neurilemma
(c) Meninges
(d) Sarcolemma
Answer:
(b) Neurilemma

Question 2.
Which one is thin and vascularised?
(a) Piamater
(b) Duramater
(c) Arachnoid membrane
(d) Pleural membrane
Answer:
(b) Duramater

Question 3.
Uni polar neurons are found in:
(a) Adult nervous tissue
(b) Stem cells
(c) Embryonic stem cells
(d) Embryonic nervous tissue
Answer:
(d) Embryonic nervous tissue

Question 4.
Among the following which one controls our anger.
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Thalamus
Answer:
(a) Hypothalamus

Question 5.
………. form the cerebral cortex of our brain.
(a) Grey neuron
(b) Fibrous tissue
(c) White neurons
(d) Ganglions
Answer:
(c) White neurons

Question 6.
……… is fitted with neuro transmitter.
(a) Synaptic knob
(b) Synaptic plate
(c) Synaptic cleft
(d) Synaptic branch
Answer:
(a) Synaptic knob

Question 7.
The functional connection between two neurons is called:
(a) Synapse
(b) Synapsis
(c) Chiasma
(d) Chiasmata
Answer:
(a) Synapse

Question 8.
Which of the following pair is correct?
(a) Sensory nerve – afferent
(b) Motor nerve – afferent
(c) Sensory nerve – ventral
(d) Motor nerve-dorsal
Answer:
(a) Sensory nerve – afferent

Question 9.
A healthy person got injured resulting in damage and death of a few cells. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells:
(a) Liver cell
(b) Neuron
(c) Nephron
(d) Osteocytes
Answer:
(b) Neuron

Question 10.
The number of pairs of spinal nerves in human being is:
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 31
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 31

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………lies at the base of the thalamus.
2. ………. transmit electrical impulses towards the cyton.
3. The sensory organs contain ………. neuron.
4. Mid brain with ………. together form the brain stems.
5. Chemical substances which take part in synaptic transmission is ……….
6. The membrane which cover the brain and the spinal cord is ………..
7. If the corpus collosum is removed in Mammalian brain then ……… will be affected.
8. Last end of spinal cord is called ………..
9. The …………. is the continuation of medulla oblongata.
10. ………. is the part of the brain which helps to maintain balance.
Answer:
1. Hypothalamus
2. Dendrites
3. Bypolar
4. Hind brain
5. acetycholine
6. Meninges
7. coordination of cerebrum
8. filum terminate
9. spinal cord
10. Cerebellum

III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement.

1. The gaps on the cyton are called Nodes of Ranvier.
2. Corpus callosum is a sheet of Nervous tissue that unites the right and left Cerebral Hemisphere.
3. Cerebral aqueduct is found in Mid brain.
4. Dendrites transmit chemical impulse towards the cyton.
5. The lower end of medulla oblongata is filum terminate.

Answer:

1. False – The gaps on the axon are called Nodes of Ranvier.
2. True
3. False – Cerebral aqueduct is found in fore brain.
4. False – Dendrites transmit electrical impulse towards the cyton.
5. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

V. Understand the assertion statement.Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion: Medulla oblongata is very important for our body.
Reason: Medulla oblongata regulates all in voluntary activities.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

2. Assertion: With drawl reflex is controlled by spinal cord.
Reason: Initially cerebrum is involved and require alertness for perform this reflex.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: In human being, cerebrum is most developed part of brain. Reason: Cerebrum is having large surface area and analyzing centre for maintaining body activity.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

VI Answer in one or two Sentences.

Question 1.
List the components of Nervous system.
Answer:
The components of Nervous system are brain, spinal cord and brain.

Question 2.
What is Motor or efferent neuron?
Answer:
Motor or efferent neuron carries impulses from the Central Nervous System to effector organs such as muscle fibre or gland.

Question 3.
What is synapse?
Answer:
The paint of contract between the neighbouring nerve cells is called synapse.

Question 4.
Name the outermost fibrous membrane of the brain.
Answer:
Dura mater.

Question 5.
Name the two components, ANS (Autonomic Nervous System).
Answer:
The two antagonistic components of ANS are sympathetic and para sympathetic system.

VII. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
What is Coordination?
Answer:
The various organs working in a systematic controlled and efficient way to produce proper response to various stimuli is called coordination.

Question 2.
What are simple or basic reflexes? Give a few actions, as examples.
Answer:
These simple reflexes are inbuilt and unlearned responses. Many of the actions we perform in our day to day life are simple reflexes, eg. Winking of eyes, Sneezing, Coughing and Yawning. We perform these actions without thinking.

Question 3.
Name the second largest part of the brain. What is its functions?
Answer:
The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain, formed of two large-sized hemispheres and middle vermis. Maintenance of posture and balance, co-ordinate voluntary muscle activity, are some of the functions of the cerebellum.

Question 4.
Differentiate simple reflexes and conditioned reflexes.
Answer:

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS).

Question 1.
Give two examples of conditional reflexion.
Answer:

• Applying the brake while driving, when a red or yellow traffic light appears. We do not have to think about pressing the brake.
• Producing saliva is a response of a dog naturally have, when they smell or see food or when a bell sound was followed by food.

Question 2.
Injury to medulla oblongata can cause death. Why?
Answer:
Medulla Oblongata emerges from the base of the brain and joins the brain to the spinal cord. It controls the involuntary functions.

IX. Long Answer Question:

Question 1.
Classify peripheral nervous based on the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord.
Answer:
Peripheral nervous system is formed by the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord. The nerves arising from the brain are called cranial nerves. Nerves arising from spinal cord are called spinal nerves.

Cranial Nerves : In man, there are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Some of the cranial nerves are sensory Eg: optic nerve which innervates the eye. Some are motor nerves which helps in rotation of eyeball. It also innervates the eye muscles, muscles of iris and tear gland.

Spinal Nerves : There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Each spinal nerve has a dorsal sensory root and the ventral motor root. The direction of impulses in dorsal spinal root is towards the spinal cord and in ventral spinal root away from the spinal cord.

Question 2.
List out the components of Nervous system and its function.
Answer:
The nervous system is formed of three distinct components namely the neurons, neuroglia and nerve fibres.
(i) Neuron or nerve cell : A neuron or nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. It is the longest cell of the human body with a length of over 100μm. These cells are highly specialised to detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli. Information is conducted through neurons in the form of electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.

(ii) Neuroglia : Neuroglia are also called as glial cells. They are non¬exciting, supporting cell of the nervous system. They do not initiate or conduct nerve impulses.

(iii) Nerve fibres : The nerve fibres are the long slender processes of neurons. A number of nerve fibres are bundled up together to form nerves.

Question 3.
Explain Autonomic Nervous system.
Answer:
Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) is also called as visceral nervous system as it regulates the function of internal visceral organs of our body through its two antagonistic (opposite) components sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. They enable the body to perform rapid and specific visceral activities in order to maintain steady state. It controls the involuntary functions of the visceral organs.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The scientific study of different aspects of population is called:
(a) Photography
(b) Demography
(c) Choreography
(d) Population density
Answer:
(b) Demography

Question 2.
The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is ……..
(a) Tamil nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttarpradesh
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 3.
Human Development is measured in terms of:
(a) Human Resource Index
(b) Per capita index
(c) Human Development Index
(d) UNDP
Answer:
(c) Human Development Index

Question 4.
……… Transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Question 5.
The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is:
(a) 5846 km
(b) 5847 km
(c) 5849 km
(d) 5800 km
Answer:
(a) 5846 km

Question 6.
The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is ……..
(a) 17,500 km
(b) 5000 km
(c) 14,500 km
(d) 1000 km
Answer:
(c) 14,500 km

Question 7.
The National Remote sensing Centre(NRSC) is located at:
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(d) Hyderabad

Question 8.
The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is ……..
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(c) Airways

Question 9.
Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?
(a) Air India
(b) Indian Airlines
(c) Vayudoot
(d) Pavan Hans
Answer:
(d) Pavan Hans

Question 10.
The major import item of India is
(a) Cement
(b) Jewells
(c) Tea
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(d) Petroleum

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
What is Human Development?
Answer:
It is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers a full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom.

Question 2.
What is migration? State its types.
Answer:
Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. It can be internal (within a country) or international (between the countries). Migration depends on

Push factor: Unemployment and underemployment in rural areas.

Pull factor: higher wages, employment opportunity, industrial development.

Question 3.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:

1. Railways are the price mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
2. They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sightseeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
3. They are suitable for long-distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
4. They bind the economic life of the country as well as the accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question 4.
Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
Answer:
Pipelines are the very convenient transport to connect oil and natural gas fields, refineries and to the markets.
It can be laid through difficult Terrain as well as under water.
It ensures steady supply of goods and reduces the transhipment loss and delays.

Three important network of pipeline:

1. Oil fields in upper Assam and Kanpur.
2. From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab.
3. From Hazira in Gujarat to Jagadispur in Uttar Pradesh

Question 5.
State the major Inland waterways of India.
Answer:
The major inland waters ways of India are :

1. National Waterway I: It extends between Haldia and Allahabad, measures 1620 km and includes the stretches of the Ganga – Bhagirathi – Hooghly river system.
2. National Waterway 2: This waterway includes the stretch of the Brahmaputra river between Dhubri and Sadiya a distance of 891 km.
3. National Waterway 3: This waterway extends between Kollam and Kottappuram in the state of Kerala. It is the first national waterway in the country with 24 hour navigation facilities along its entire stretch of 205 km.

Question 6.
What is communication? What are its types?
Answer:
Communication is a process that involves exchange of information, thoughts , and ideas. lt is categorized into two types.

Personal Communication: Post and telegraph, telephone, mobile phone, short message services, fax, internet, e-mail etc.
Mass Communication: Electronic media-Radio, T.V, internet and print media-News papers.

Question 7.
Define “International trade”.
Answer:
When trade takes place between two countries it is known as international trade.

Question 8.
State the merits of Roadways.
Answer:

1. Roadways can provide door to door services.
2. Easy and cheap to construct and maintain. Indian roads are cost-efficient.
3. The most universal mode of transport. It is used by all sections of people in society.
4. Can establish easy contact between farms, fields, factories and markets.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Density of population and Growth of population.
Answer:
Density of Population:

1. Density of population is the number of persons living per square kilometre.
2. It is calculated per 1000.
3. As per 2011 census the average density of population in India is 382 persons living in per sq.km.

Growth of Population:

1. Growth of population refers to the change in the number of in habitants of a country/territory in a specific period of time.
2. It is expressed in percentage.
3. The year 1921 is called the year of Great Demographic Divide.

Question 2.
Persona! communication and Mass communication.
Answer:
Personal communication:

1. Exchange of communication between the individuals.
2. Enables the user to establish direct contact.
3. It includes post and telegraph, telephones, mobile phones, short message service (SMS) fax, Internet, e-mail etc.

Mass communication:

1. Millions of people get the information at the same time.
2. Provide information through print media and electronic media.
3. It includes Radio, Television and Internet. Electronic media, News paper, Magazines, books, journals etc.

Question 3.
Print Media and Electronic Media.
Answer:
Print Media:

1. Most powerful means of communication.
2. Many news papers carry information on local national and international events to the people.
3. Knowledge of reading is essential.

Electronic Media:

1. Communication to millions of people through electronic gadgets at the same time.
2. Radio, Television, Internet provide and create awareness on various national policies and programme.
3. A powerful audio-visual medium.

Question 4.
Roadways and Railways.
Answer:
Roadways:

1. Highly suitable for short distance services.
2. Most common mode of transport, easy, cheap to construct and maintain.
3. Based on the construction and maintenance divided into National Highways, State Highways, District Roads, Village roads, Border roads, International highways, Express ways.
4. Second longest network in the world.
5. Door to door services possible

Railways:

1. Ideal for long distance services.
2. Construction depend upon the climatic and physical factors like terrain. Costly when compared with roadways.
3. On the basis of width of the track falls under 4 types, Broad gauge, meter gauge, narrow gauge and light gauge.
4. Largest in Asia and second largest in the World.
5. Cannot provide door to door services.

Question 5.
Waterways and Airways.
Answer:
Waterways:

1. Oldest and Cheapest means of transport.
2. Most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky materials.
3. Two types, inland waterways-river and backwaters and canals and oceanic routes connect coastal areas.

Airways:

1. Modem and costliest means of transport.
2. Only limited weight can be carried. Cannot carry heavy and bulky materials.
3. Domestic air sendee within the country and International Airways connect major cities of the World.

Question 6.
internal trade and International trade.
Answer:
Internal trade:

1. Trade is carried on within the domestic territory.
2. Land transport plays a major role (Roadways and Railways).
3. Local currency is used.
4. Helps to promote a balanced regional growth.

International trade:

1. Trade is carried on between two or more countries.
2. Waterways and Airways play a vital role.
3. Foreign currency is involved.
4. Helps to promote country’s economy and raise the standard of living

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.
Impacts of urbanization:

• Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.
• Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
• Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.
  The following are the major problem of urbanization in India.
• It creates urban sprawl.
• It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
• It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
• It leads to the formation of slums.
• It increases traffic congestion in cities.
• It creates water scarcity in cities.
• It creates drainage problems.
• It poses the problem of solid waste management.
• It increases the rate of crime.

Question 2.
Explain the importances of satellite communication in India.
Answer:

1. The communication through satellites emerged as a new era in the system of communication in our country.
2. The use of Satellite in getting a continuous and synoptic view of larger area has made this communication system very vital for the country.
3. Satellite images are used for weather forecasting.
4. Monitoring of natural calamities.
5. Surveillance of border areas.
6. The INSAT (series) is a multipurpose system for telecommunication, meterological observation and for various other programs.
7. They are used for relaying signals to television, telephone, radio and mobile phone.
8. And also useful in weather detection, internet and military applications.

Question 3.
Bring out the distribution and density of population in India.
Answer:
The term ‘Population Distribution’ refers to the way the people are spaced over the earth’s surface. The distribution of population in India is quite uneven because of the vast variation ki the availability of resources. The population is mostly concentrated in the regions of industrial centres and the good agricultural lands. On the other hand, the areas such as high mountains and lands thickly forested areas and some remote comers are very thinly populated and some areas are even uninhabited.

Terrain, climate, soil, water bodies, mineral resources, industries, transport and urbanization are the major factors which affect the distribution of population in our country. Population density is a better measure of understanding the variation in distribution of population. It is expressed as number of person per unit area usually per sq.km. According to 2011, the average density of population of India is 382 person per sq.km. India is one of the most thickly populated ten countries of the world. The most densely populated state of India is Bihar and the state with lest population density is Arunachal Pradesh. Among union territories, Delhi is the densely populated one with 11,297 per sq.km, while Andaman and Nicobar Islands have the lowest density of population.

Question 4.
Explain the process of measuring Human Development.
Answer:
Dr. Mahabub-ul-haq defined Human Development as “It is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers the full range of human choices from a. sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom”.

Measuring of Human Development (HDI): Human Development Index is a composite index focusing on three basic dimensions of human development.

1. Health: Life expectancy at birth.
2. Education: Expected years of schooling for school age children and average years of schooling for the adult population.
3. Income: Measured by gross national income and per capita income.

Question 5.
Classify and explain the roadways in India.
Answer:

1. The Indian roads are cost-efficient and the most popular dominant mode of transport
   linking different parts of our country.
2. Roads stretch across the length of people in society.
3. It is used by all sections of people in society.
4. Road network in India is the second-longest in the world accounting for 3,314 millions of km.

Types of Roadways:

1. Village Roads:

• Village roads link different villages with towns.
• They are maintained by Village Panchayath.
• In India village roads run to a length of 26,50,000 kms.

2. District Roads:

• District roads link the towns with the district headquarters.
• They are maintained by the Corporations and Municipalities.
• It is used by all sections of people in the society.
• In India district roads run to a total length of 4,67,763 kms.

3. State Highways:

• State Highways links the State capitals with the different district headquarters.
• These roads are maintained by the State Public Works Department.
• The State Highways run to a length of 1,31,899 kms. (Ex: Cudalore – Chittor Road).

4. National Highways:

• National Highways link the State Capitals with the National Capital.
• They are the primary road system of our country and are maintained by the Central Public Works Department.
• It runs to a length of 70,548 kms. (Ex: NH47 is a National Highway which connects Tamil Nadu and Kerala)

5. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways:

• It is a major road development project launched by the Government of India.
• It runs to a length of 14,846 kms connecting the major cities of India.
• The major objective of these roads is providing ‘connectivity’, ‘speed’ and ‘safety’.

6. Expressways:

• Expressways are the technologically improved high class roads in the Indian Road network.
• They are six lanes roads. They run to a length of more than 200 kms.
• New Mumbai – Pune Road is an example for Expressway.

7. Border Road:

• Border Roads are the roads constructed along the northern and north eastern borders of our country.
• These roads are constructed and maintained by Border Roads Organization.
• The Organization has constructed 46,780 km of roads in difficult terrain.

8. International Highways:
International Highways are the roads that link India with neighbouring countries for promoting harmonious relationship with them.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
National Highway NH-7.
Answer:

Question 2.
Major seaports in India.
Answer:

Question 3.
Major International Airports in India.
Answer:

Question 4.
Densely populated state of India – Uttarpradesh
Answer:

Question 5.
State of highest literacy in India – Kerala
Answer:

Question 6.
Railways zones of India.
Answer:

TB Page No. 151
Hots:

Question 1.
What could be the reasons for uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:

• Topography, favourable climate, fertility of soils, availability of fresh water, minerals are major geographical factors affecting population density of a region.
• People prefer to live on plains more than mountains or plateaus and they live more in moderate climates than extreme hot or cold. From the agriculture point of view, fertile lands are preferred.
• Areas with mineral deposits are more populated.
• Some social factors that boost the density of population in a region are better housing, education and health facilities.
• Places with cultural or historical significances are usually populated.
• Employment opportunities is another attraction for large chunks of the population.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the rapid growth of population in India?
Answer:

1. The reasons for the rapid growth of population in India is mainly the , high birth rate and low death rate.
2. Birth rate is high, death rate declined due to advanced medical facilities and immunization to dreadful diseases.
3. And also migration of population due to employment, education and industrial development.

TB Page No. 154

Question 3.
The sex ratio in our country is always unfavourable to females. Give reasons.
Answer:
The number of females per thousand men is called the sex ratio.
Reasons:

• Lesser care of female children.
• Greater risk to womens’ life especially at the time of child brith.
• Women are also killed or forced to die by the dowry seekers.
• Due to illiteracy.
• Lack of medical facilities for women, etc.

TB Page No. 158

Question 4.
Find out what are the functions of NHAI?
Answer:

1. National Highway Authority of India was established in 1995.
2. It is an autonomous body under the ministry of Surface Transport.
3. Management of all major National Highways and the highways entrusted to it.
4. Maintenance, development and operation of the National Highways is undertaken by NHAI.

Question 5.
What are the highlights and benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Highways? Highlights:
Answer:

• It is the largest Highway project completed in India.
• It is the fifth largest highway project in the world.
• The overall length of the Golden Quadrilateral is 5,846 km.
• The Golden Quadrilateral passes through 13 states of India.
• It connects four major metropolitan cities of the country in four directions.

Benefits:

• Provides faster transport networks between major cities and ports.
• Provides connectivity to major agricultural industrial and cultural centres of India.
• Provides smoother movement of goods and people within the country.
• Enables industrial development and job creation in smaller town through access to varied markets.
• Farmers are able to transport their produce to major cities and towns for sale and export and there is less wastage and spoils.
• More economic growth through construction and indirect demand for steel, cement, and other construction materials.
• Giving an impetus to truck transports.

TB Page No. 162

Question 6.
Why is air travel preferred in the North Eastern State?
Answer:
The North Eastern States are mountainous and forested. So construction of roadways or railways is very difficult due to terrains. Air transport has made accessibility easier. So air travel is preferred in the North eastern states.

TB Page No. 165

Question 7.
Find out the major trade blocs which are useful for multilateral trade.
Answer:
Trading blocs are usually groups of countries in specific regions that manage and promote trade activities. Trading blocs lead to trade liberalisation and trade creation between members, since they are treated favourably in comparison to non-members. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) permits the existence of trading bloc provided that they result in lower protection against outside countries than existed before the creation trading bloc.
The most significant trading blocs currently are:

1. European Union (EU): A customs union, a single market and now with a single currency.
2. European Free Trade Area (EFTA)
3. North American Free Trade Agreement (NFATA) between the USA, Canada and Mexico.
4. Mercosur: A customs union between Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and Venezuela.
5. Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
6. Association of Free Trade Area (AFTA)
7. Common market of Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA)
8. South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) created in 2006 with countries such as India and Pakistan.
9. Pacific Alliance: 2013 – a regional trade agreement between Chile, Colombia, Mexico and Peru.

TB Page No. 159
Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar topic about “Role of Railways in Indian Economy”Key Points:
Answer:

1. Large scale movement
2. National integration promotion
3. Commercialisation of agriculture
4. Movement of perishable goods
5. Avoids traffic congestion how?
6. Engineering marvel
7. Quiz regarding railways

TB Page No. 165

Question 2.
Collect the countries names and make it as a table of Bilateral trade and multilateral trade countries.
Answer:
India has made bilateral trade agreement with these countries.

Bilateral Trade Countries: U.S.A . China, Hongkong, Singapore, United Kingdom, Germany, Bangladesh.

Multilateral Trade Countries: The members of the SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) Korea, Japan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Srilanka, U.S.A and United Kingdom.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………………. is the second-most populous country next to China.
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) India

Question 2.
The fast movement of traffic are established by ……
(a) national highways
(b) Express highways
(c) International highways
Answer:
(a) national highways

Question 3.
As per 2011 census the average density of population of India is …………………. persons per Sq.Km.
(a) 302
(b) 382
(c) 100
(d) 365
Answer:
(b) 382

Question 4.
The ………. have more railways than the Himalayan Mountains.
(a) Northern Plains
(b) Coastal Plains
(c) Deccan Plateau
Answer:
(a) Northern Plains

Question 5.
The Grand Trunk Road extends from …………………. to ………………….
(a) Delhi to Mumbai
(b) Amritsar to Kolkatta
(c) Mumbai to Thane
(d) Srinagar to Amritsar.
Answer:
(b) Amritsar to Kolkatta

Question 6.
The cheapest mode of transport is …….
(a) roadways
(b) railways
(c) waterways
Answer:
(c) waterways

Question 7.
…………………. are multi-lane good quality highways for high speed traffic.
(a) National Highways
(b) State highways
(c) Border roads
(d) Express highways.
Answer:
(d) Express highways.

Question 8.
Trade carried on within the domestic territory of a country is known as …… trade.
(a) External
(b) Foreign
(c) Internal
Answer:
(c) Internal

Question 9.
The …………………. railway accounts for the longest route length.
(a) Northern Railways
(b) Central Railway
(c) Eastern railway
(d) Southern Railway
Answer:
(a) Northern Railways

Question 10.
A cost-efficient and most popular mode of transport in our country is ……..
(a) Airways
(b) Roadways
(c) Waterways
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Question 11.
India is the …………………. largest ship owning country in Asia.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(b) Second

Question 12.
The costliest and most modem means of transport is ……..
(a) Air transport
(b) Road transport
(c) Rail transport
Answer:
(a) Air transport

Question 13.
The is the first communication Satellite in INSAT Series.
(a) G.SAT
(b) EDUSAT
(c) INSAT-IB
(d) Kalpana-1
Answer:
(c) INSAT-IB

Question 14.
The major ports are managed and controlled by …….
(a) National Ports Corporation
(b) Port Trust of India
(c) Indian Airlines
Answer:
(b) Port Trust of India

Question 15.
Indian space Research organisation was established in the year:
(a) 1959
(b) 1969
(c) 1979
(d) 1996
Answer:
(b) 1969

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Describe the three population density zones of India.
Answer:
The three population density zones of India are :

1. High-density zone: The Northern plains above 500 people per sq.km. Northern plains and Kerala in the. South.
2. Moderate or Medium density zone: Mountain region 250-500 people per sq.km. Ex. Assam and Peninsular states.
3. Low-density zone: Plateau region below 250 people per sq.km. Ex. Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of population in the country is the result of several factors such as physical, socio-economic and historical factors.

Physical factors: Relief, climate, water, natural vegetation, minerals and energy resources.

Socio-economic factors: Religion, culture, political issues, economy, human settlements, transport network, industrialization, urbanization, employment opportunity etc.

Question 3.
What is the major objective to develop the Super Highways?
Answer:
The major objective to develop the Super Highways is to reduce the time and distance between
the megacities of India facilitating the fast movement of traffic.

Question 4.
Which phase period in population growth of India is often referred as period of population explosion?
Answer:
During the third phase (1951-1981) the population of India grew from 361 million in 1951 to 683 million in 1981. Growth rate in this period is almost doubled. So this period (1951-1981) is often referred as the period of “population explosion”.

Question 5.
State some problems of road transport in our country.
Answer:

1. Distribution of road is not uniform in the country.
2. Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is inadequate.
3. About half of the roads are unmetalled and this restricts their usage during the rainy season.
4. The roadways are highly congested in cities.
5. Poor maintenance is also a big problem.

Question 6.
What are the four major shipyards in India?
Answer:
India as four major shipyards:

1. Hindustan shipyard – Vishakapatnam
2. Garden Reach workshop – Kolkata
3. Mazagaon Dock – Mumbai
4. Kochi shipyard – Kochi

Question 7.
State the highlights of India’s foreign trade policy since 2004.
Answer:

1. Merchandise trade has been doubled.
2. Thrust is given for employment generation; especially in semi-urban and rural areas.
3. Trade procedure is simplified and transaction cost is reduced.
4. Special focus is given to make India a global hub.
5. A new scheme called Vishesh Krishi Upay Yojna has been introduced to boost exports of fruits, vegetables, flowers and minor forest products.

Question 8.
Mention the services provided by the Indian postal system in India.
Answer:
Pcstai system is one among the personal communication system. The postal service was open to the public in the country in 1837.

1. Collecting and delivering mail is the primary function of the postal department.
2. It introduced Quick Mail Service in 1975 on the basis ofPIN code (1972)
3. The premium products include the Money order. E-money order, Speed post. Express parcel post, Business post, Media post, Retail post, Data post, Satellite post, Greeting post, Speed net and Speed passport services,

Question 9.
What are the advantages of communication network?
Answer:

1. It has enhanced the efficiency of communication. Because it enables quick exchange of information with people any where in the world.
2. It leads to enormous growth of trade.
3. It helps the government to tackle various socio – economic problems in the society.
4. It improves the quality of human life.
5. It opens the door to the information age.
6. It promotes Edusat programs.
7. It plays a significant role in the economic and social growth of our country.

Question 10.
Write the full form of STD, ISD, PCO, Internet.
Answer:

• STD – Subscriber Trunk Dialing
• ISD – International Subscriber Dialing
• PCO – Public Call Office
• Internet – Inter connected network.

Question 11.
What are major ports along the West Coast and East Coast?
Answer:
West Coast Ports :

1. Kandla,
2. Mumbai,
3. Jawahar Lal Nehru,
4. Marmagoa,
5. New Mangalore and
6. Cochin East Cost Ports:
   • Tuticorin,
   • Chennai,
   • Ennore,
   • Vishakhapatnam,
   • Paradip,
   • Haldia and
   • Kolkota.

Question 12.
Name the major ports on the East coast and on the West Coast of India.
Answer:
There are 13 major ports in India. They are administered by the Central Government.

1. The major ports on the East coast are Kolkata, Haldia, Paradip,Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin.
2. The major ports on the West Coast are Kandla, Mumbai, Nhava Seva (Jawaharial Nehru Port), New Mangalore, Marmagao and Kochi.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Internet.
Answer:

1. Internet is a vast network of computers, Internet means interconnected network of net , works.
2. It connects many of the world’s business institutions and individuals.
3. It enables computer users throughout the world to send and receive messages and information in a variety of forms.
4. It is fully a multimedia based system with capacity to deliver pictures, images, video and audio.
5. The basic services of internet are e-mail. The World Wide Web and Internet Phone.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Exports and Imports.
Exports:

1. Goods and services sold for foreign currency.
2. Major exports of India are tea, ores and minerals, marine products, textiles etc.
3. Value of exports are more than the value of imports favourable balance of trade.
4. India exports goods to nearly 190 countries of the world.

Imports:

1. Goods and services bought from overseas producers.
2. Major imports are petroleum products, gold, telecom instruments.
3. Value of imports exceeds value of exports unfavourable balance of trade.
4. Imports we get from nearly 140 countries.

Question 2.
Low Density and High Density of population.
Answer:
Low Density of Population:

1. Areas that have 150 to 300 persons living per sq.km.
2. Extreme climate, high mountains, remote areas, forested regions have low density of population.
3. In India Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Andaman and Nicobar islands are some states with low population density.

High Density of Population:

1. Areas that have 500 to 1000 persons living per sq.km.
2. Favourable climate, plains, employment opportunities, industrial centres area have high density of population.
3. Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and Kerala are the states with high population density.

Question 3.
National and State Highways.
Answer:
National Highways:

1. Connects Capitals of States, major ports, rail junctions, industrial and tourist centres.
2. Ministry of Road transport and Highways of India is responsible development and maintenance.
3. Runs to a length of 1,01,011 kms as of 2016.

State Highways:

1. Link important cities, towns and district head quarters within the State and connect them with national highways or highways of neighbouring states.
2. Administered and financed by state Governments.
3. Runs to the length of 1,76,166 kms as of 2016.

Question 4.
Domestic and International Airways.
Answer:
Domestic Airways:

1. Fly within the boundaries of the country.
2. Indian Airlines provides the domestic air services. NACIL (I)
3. There are about 80 domestic airports and about 25 civil enclaves at defence air fields.

International Airways:

1. Fly across the world and connect major cities of the world.
2. Air India provides international air services. NACIL (A)
3. There are 19 designated international airports in the country.

Question 5.
Harbour and Port.
Answer:
Harbour:

1. Extensive stretch of deep water near the seashore.
2. Vessels can anchor securely.

Port:

1. Commercial part of a harbour.
2. Facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for the storage of cargo
3. Cuddalore, Ennore.

Question 6.
Birth and Death.
Answer:
Birth Rate:

1. No. of live Births per 1000 people in a year.
2. Also known as Nationality rate.

Death Rate:

1. No. of Deaths per 1000 people in a year.
2. Also known as Mortality rate.

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
What is the importance of railway transport?
Answer:

1. The Indian Railways have been a great integrating force for more than 150 years.
2. They have a network of about 7,112 stations spread over a route length of 66,687 km with a fleet of 11,122 locomotives, 70,241 passenger coaches and 2,54,000 wagons.
3. Railways are the prime mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
4. They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sightseeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
5. They are suitable for long distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
6. They bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.
7. The Indian Railways is the largest public sector undertaking in the country. The first train streamed of from Mumbai to Thane in 1853, covering a distance of 34 km.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Census? How it is useful?
Answer:

1. Population census is the total process of collecting, compiling, analyzing or otherwise disseminating demographic, economic and social data pertaining at a specific time, of all persons in a country or a well defined part of a country.
2. Census is being taken in an interval of ten years.
3. The data collected through the census are used for administration, planning, policy making, management and evaluation of various programmes by the government.
4. In India 1st census was carried out in the year 1872.
5. But the first complete and synchronous census was conducted in 1881 The 2011 census represents the fifteenth census of India.

Question 3.
Describe the importance of pipelines in India. Name three important networks of pipelines transportation in the country.
Answer:
Pipeline transport network is a new arrival on the transportation of India.

1. Transport of crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, fertiliser factories and big thermal power plants. ‘
2. Even solids can be transported through pipelines when converted into slurry.
3. The far inland locations of refineries and gas based fertiliser plants could be transported.
4. Initial cost of lying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are tninimal.
5. It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays.

Three important networks of pipeline transportation in the country:

• From oil field in the upper Assam to Kanpur (UP), via Guwahati, Baraumi and Allahabad.
• From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab. Via Viramgam, Mathura, Delhi and Sonipat.
• Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in UP, via Vijaipur in MP.

Question 4.
What are the problems created by over population in India?
Answer:
In India, growing pressure of Population on resource base, created many socio economic, cultural, political, ecological and environmental problems. The population problem varies in space and time and differ from region to region.

Major issues created by the over population are – overcrowding, unemployment and under employment, low standard of living mal nutrition, mismanagement of natural and agricultural resources, unhealthy environment etc.

Question 5.
Write about the significance of Indian Railways.
Answer:

1. Indian Railway system is the main artery of the country’s inland transport.
2. Indian Railway network is the largest in Asia and second largest in the world.
3. Railways are considered as the back bone of the surface transport system of India.
4. Significances: It caters to the needs of large scale movement of traffic both for freight and passengers, there by contributing to economic growth.
5. It promotes trade, tourism, education etc.
6. It promotes national integration by bringing people together.
7. Railways help in the commercialization of the agricultural sector by facilitating the quick movements of perishable goods.
8. It provides invaluable service by transporting raw materials to industries and finished goods to market.

Question 6.
What is trade? What are the two types of trade? State its components:
Answer:

1. Trade is an act (or) process of buying selling or exchanging of goods and services. Trade in general is of two types. They are Internal trade and International trade.
2. Internal Trade: Trade carried on within the domestic territory of a country.
3. International trade: Trade carried on between two or more countries.
4. Exports and imports are the two components of international trade.
5. The difference between value of exports and imports is called balance of trade.
6. If the value of exports exceeds the value of imports trade is said to be favourable balance of trade.
7. If the value of Imports exceeds value of exports it is said to be unfavourable balance of trade.
8. The value of currency of a country depends upon the balance of trade of that country.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
North-South corridor
Answer:

Question 2.
East-West corridor
Answer:

Question 3.
Head quarters of Indian Railway – Delhi.
Answer: