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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Miscellaneous Problems Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Miscellaneous Problems

Question 1.
A manufacture’s marginal revenue functional is given by MR = 275 – x – 0.3x². Find the increase in the manufactures total revenue if the production increased from 10 to 20 units.
Solution:
MR = 275 – x – 0.3x²
The increase in the manufactures total revenue 20
T.R = ∫MR dx = (275 – x – 0.3x²) dx

= [5500 – 200 – 0.1 (8000)] – [2750 – 50 – 0.1(1000)]
= [5500 – 200 – 800] – [2750 – 50 – 100]
= 4500 – 2600
= Rs 1900

Question 2.
A company has determined that marginal cost function for product of a particular commodity is given by MC = 125 + 10x – \(\frac { 8 }{3}\). Where C is the cost of producing x units of the commodity. If the fixed cost Rs 250 what is cost of producing 15 units.
Solution:
MC = 125 + 10x – \(\frac { x^2 }{9}\)
Fixed cos t K = Rs 250
C = ∫MC dx – ∫(125 + 10x – \(\frac { x^2 }{9}\)) dx
C = 125x + \(\frac { 10x^2 }{9}\) – \(\frac { x^3 }{9×3}\) + k
C = 125x + 5x² – \(\frac { x^3 }{27}\) + 250
when x = 15
C = 125(15) + 5(15)² – \(\frac { (15)^3 }{27}\) + 250
= 1875 + 1125 – 125 + 250
C = Rs 3,125

Question 3.
The marginal revenue function for a firm given by MR = \(\frac { 2 }{x+3}\) – \(\frac { 2x }{(x+3)^2}\) + 5. Show that the demand function is P = \(\frac { 2x }{(x+3)^2}\) + 5
Solution:

Question 4.
For the marginal revenue function MR = 6 – 3x² – x³, Find the revenue function and demand function
Solution:
MR = 6 – 3x² – x³
Revenue function R = ∫MR dx
R = ∫(6 – 3x² – x³)dx

Question 5.
The marginal cost of production of a firm is given by C'(x) = 20 + \(\frac { x }{20}\) the marginal revenue is given by R’(x) = 30 and the fixed cost is Rs 100. Find the profit function.
Solution:
C'(x) = 20 + \(\frac { x }{20}\)
Fixed cost k₁ = Rs 100
C(x) = ∫C₁(x) dx + k₁

Question 6.
The demand equation for a product is P_d = 20 – 5x and the supply equation is P_s = 4x + 8. Determine the consumers surplus and producer’s surplus under market equilibrium.
Solution:
P_d = 20 – 5x and P_s = 4x + 8
At market equilibrium
P_d = P_d
20 – 5x = 4x + 8 ⇒ 20 – 8 = 4x + 5x
9x = 12 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 12 }{9}\)
∴ x = \(\frac { 4 }{3}\)

Question 7.
A company requires f(x) number of hours to produce 500 units. lt is represented by f(x) = 1800x^-0.4. Find out the number of hours required to produce additional 400 units. [(900)^0.6 = 59.22, (500)^0.6 = 41.63]
Solution:
f(x) number of hours to produce 500
f(x) = 1800 x^-0.4
The number of hours required to produce additions

Question 8.
The price elasticity of demand for a commodity is \(\frac { p }{x^3}\). Find the demand function if the quantity of demand is 3, When the price is Rs 2.
Solution:
Price elasticity of demand

Question 9.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve between the parabola y = 8x² – 4x + 6 the y-axis and the ordinate at x = 2.
Solution:
Equation of the parabola
y = 8x² – 4x + 6

The required region is bounded by the y-axis and the ordinate at x = 2.
∴ Required Area A = \(\int_{0}^{2}\)ydx

Question 10.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y² = 27x³ and the line x = 0, y = 1 and y = 2
Solution:
Equation of the curve is y² = 27x³
⇒ x³ = \(\frac { y^2 }{27}\) = \(\frac { y^3 }{3^3}\)
∴ x = \(\frac { (y)^{2/3} }{3}\)
Since the Area of the region bounded by the given curve and the lines x = 0, y = 1 and y = 2

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.1 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.1

Question 1.
Using Interation, find the area of the region bounded the line given is 2y + x = 8, the x axis and the lines x = 2, x = 4.
Solution:
The equation of the line given is 2y + x = 8
⇒ 2y = 8 – x ⇒ y = \(\frac { 8-x }{2}\)
y = 4 – \(\frac { x }{2}\)
Also x varies from 2 to 4
The required Area

= (16 – 4) – (8 – 1)
= 12 – 7 = 5 sq.units

Question 2.
Find the area bounded by the lines y – 2x – 4 = 0, y = 0, y = 3 and the y-axis.
Solution:
The equation of the line given is y – 2x – 4 = 0
⇒ 2x = y – 4 ⇒ x = \(\frac { y-4 }{2}\)
∴ x = \(\frac { y }{2}\) – 2
Also y varies from 1 to 3
Required Area

= 2 – 4 = -2
Area can’t be in negative.
∴ Area = 2 sq.units

Question 3.
Calculate the area bounded by the parabola y² = 4ax and its latus rectum.
Solution:
Given parabola is y² = 4ax
Its focus is (a, 0)
Equation of latus rectum is x = a
The parabola is symmetrical about the x-axis

Question 4.
Find the area bounded by the line y = x and x-axis and the ordinates x = 1, x = 2
Solution:
The equation of the given line is y = x and x varies from 1 to 2

Question 5.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the line y – 1 = x, the x-axis and the ordinates x = -2, x = 3.
Solution :
The equation of given line is y – 1 = x
y = x + 1

The line y = x + 1 meets the x-axis at x = -1
Since x varies from -2 to 3
Hence a part of lies below the x-axis and the other part lies above the x-axis.

Question 6.
Find the area of the region lying in the first quadrant bounded by the region y = 4x², x = 0, y = 0 and y = 4
Solution:
The equation of a parabola given is y = 4x²

Area of the region lying in the first quadrant

Question 7.
Find the area bounded by the curve y = x² and the line y = 4
Solution:
Equation of the curve y = x² ………. (1)
Equation of the line y = 4 ………. (2)
Solving equation (1) & (2)
x² = 4 ⇒ x = ± 2

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Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
…………… is a global and universal concept.
(a) Management
(b) Process
(c) Art
(d) Science
Answer:
(a) Management

Question 2.
………… is the subsidiary function of management.
(a) Planning
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Innovation
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Innovation

Question 3.
The Indian financial system can be broadly classified into………….. sector.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Four
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 4.
Money market is a market for purely …………..
(a) Short term funds
(b) Long term funds
(c) Medium term funds
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Short term funds

Question 5.
Which is not a foreign stock exchange?
(a) London stock exchange
(b) Bombay stock exchange
(c) Tokyo stock exchange
(d) New york stock exchange
Answer:
(b) Bombay stock exchange

Question 6.
SEBI got the statutory powers in the year …………..
(a) 1988
(b) 1992
(c) 1969
(a) 1980
Answer:
(b) 1992

Question 7.
The internal source of recruitment are …………..
(i) promotion
(ii) e-recruitment
(iii) retention
(iv) advertisements
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 8.
The types of Aptitude Test are …………..
(i) Numerical Reasoning Test
(ii) Attitude Test
(iii) Vocabulary Test
(iv) Interest Test
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (I) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 9.
On the job training is given to the employee at the ……………
(a) College
(b) Home
(c) Work place
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Work place

Question 10.
Find Out which is not suitable? The products marketed in commodity exchange are…………..
(a) Crude oil
(b) Rice
(c) Copper
(d) Gold
Answer:
(b) Rice

Question 11.
The term ‘Caveat emptor’ is a Latin term, which means ………..
(a) Let the seller beware
(b) Let the buyer beware
(c) Consumer
(d) Marketer
Answer:
(b) Let the buyer beware

Question 12.
The consumer is the of the modern marketing.
(a) Manager
(b) Director
(c) King
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) King

Question 13.
The national commission should have ……….. members.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(c) 5

Question 14.
It is a situation in which a country loses its most educated and talented workers to other countries is known as…………
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Foreign trade
(c) Brain Drain
(d) Nationalisation
Answer:
(c) Brain Drain

Question 15.
A bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker is ………..
(a) promissory note
(b) cheque
(c) hundi
(d) share
Answer:
(b) cheque

Question 16.
The entrepreneurs classified on the basis of type of business are …………..
(i) Industrial entrepreneur
(ii) Technical entrepreneur
(iii) Professional entrepreneur
(iv) Business entrepreneur
(a) (z) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iv)

Question 17.
The first two stages of formation of a company are ………..
(i) Issue of prospectus
(ii) Promotion
(iii) Issue of share certificate
(iv) Registration
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iv)

Question 18.
A company may appoint more than 15 directors after passing a ……….. resolution.
(a) Special
(b) Ordinary
(c) Usual
(d) Commanding
Answer:
(a) Special

Question 19.
A person can hold the position of Directorship in different companies upto the maximum of …………
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 18
(d) 20
Answer:
(d) 20

Question 20.
A statutory meeting can be held within months.
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 6

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of Authority.
Answer:
Authority means the right of a superior to give the order to his subordinates. This is the issue of commands followed responsibility for their consequences.

Question 22.
What is debt market?
Answer:
Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt Instrument (i.e. Government Bonds or Securities, Corporate Debentures or Bonds).

Question 23.
What is Government Securities Market?
Answer:
A market whereby the Government or gilt-edged securities can be bought and sold is called ‘Government Securities Market’.

Question 24.
Write any 5 Stock Exchanges in India.
Answer:

• The Bombay Stock Exchange
• Bangalore Stock Exchange Ltd.
• The Madras Stock Exchange Ltd.
• The Hydrabad Stock Exchange Ltd.
• The Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd.

Question 25.
What is intelligence test?
Answer:
Intelligence tests are one of the psychological tests, that is designed to measure a variety of mental ability, individual capacity of a candidate.

Question 26.
Define Product.
Answer:
“A product is anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use or consumption that might satisfy a want or a need”, says Philip Kotler.

Question 27.
Give two examples of adulteration.
Answer:

• Powdered rice/wheat is adulterated with starch.
• Coffee powder is adulterated with tamarind seed.

Question 28.
List down the essential elements of a contract of sale.
Answer:
Following essential elements are necessary for a contract of sale:

• Two Parties
• Transfer of Property
• Goods
• Price
• Includes both ‘Sale’ and ‘Agreement to Sell’.

Question 29.
Mention the other name for corporate entrepreneur.
Answer:
Corporate entrepreneur is called promoter. He/she takes initiative necessary to start an entity under corporate format.

Question 30.
What is Resolution?
Answer:
As per the Companies Act 2013, for taking any decision or executing any transaction, the consent of the shareholders, the Board of Directors and other specified is required. The decisions taken at a meeting are called resolutions.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the Process of MBE?
Answer:

• Primarily, it is necessary to set objectives or norms with predictable or estimated results.
• These performances are assessed and get equated to the actual performance.
• Next, the deviation gets analysed. With an insignificant or no deviation, no action is required and senior managers can concentrate on other matters.

Question 32.
Explain any two functions of Capital Market.
Answer:
(i) Savings and Capital Formation: In capital market, various types of securities help to, mobilize savings from various sectors of population (Individuals, Corporate, Govt., etc.). The twin features of reasonable return and liquidity in stock exchange are definite incentives to the people to invest in securities. This accelerates the capital formation in the country.

(ii) Permanent Capital: The existence of a capital market/stock exchange enables companies to raise permanent capital. The investors cannot commit their funds for a permanent period but companies require funds permanently.

Question 33.
What are the features of Human resources?
Answer:

• Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.
• Human resource alone can think, act, analyse and interpret.
• Human resources are emotional beings.
• Human resources can be motivated either financially or non-financially.
• The behaviour of human resources are unpredictable.
• Over years human resources gains value and appreciates.
• Human resources are movable.
• Human resource can work as a team.

Question 34.
What can be marketed in the Market?
Answer:
The dynamic items that can be marketed are listed below:

• Goods
• Services
• Experiences
• Events
• Persons
• Places
• Properties
• Organisations
• Information
• Ideas

Question 35.
Who are the members of the National Commission?
Answer:
Members: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has been constituted by a Notification.

• The National Commission should have five members.
• One should be from judiciary.
• Four other members of ability, knowledge and experience from any other fields.
• It should include a woman.

Question 36.
Write about any three internal environmental factors of business.
Answer:
The major internal factors affecting business decisions are:

• Values system: The values of the founder/owner of the business , percolates down to the entire organisation and has a profound effect on the organisation.
• Vision and objectives: The vision and objectives of a business guides its operations and strategic decisions.
• Management structure: The structure of management/board and their style of functioning, the level of professionalism of management, the composition of the board are the various factors which affect the decision making.

Question 37.
Distinguish between Bill of Exchange and Promissory Note.
Answer:

S. No.	Basis of Difference	Bill of Exchange	Promissory Note
1.	Nature of Undertaking	A bill of exchange contains an unconditional order to pay money.	A promissory note contains an unconditional undertaking to pay money.
2.	No. of Parties	There are three parties in a bill of exchange – drawer, drawee and payee.	In a promissory note there are only two parties the maker and the payee.
3.	Drawer of the instrument	A creditor draws a bill on a debtor.	A debtor executes a promissory note in favour of a creditor.
4.	Identity of the parties	In a bill of exchange, both the drawer and the payee can be one and the same person.	In a promissory note, the maker himself cannot be the payee because the same person cannot be both the promisor and the promisee.

Question 38.
List down few examples of pure entrepreneurship.
Answer:
Pure entrepreneurs are individuals who are propelled to enter into venture by psychological and economic motives. They nurture desire of starting a particular venture and earning high profit there from and thus attaining a social status. They apply their knowledge, skill and insight in making the venture a great success in order to earn maximum profit out of the venture. Dhirubai Ambani, Jamshedji Tata, T.V. Sundaram Iyengar, Seshadriji, Birla, Narayanamurthi, and Azim Premji are few examples of pure entrepreneurship.

Question 39.
Expand the following: STEP, JAM, TREAD, M-S1PS, SEED and New Gen IEDC.
Answer:

• STEP: Support to Training and Employment Programme for women
• JAM: Jan-Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile
• M-SIPS: Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme
• SEED: Science for Equity Empowerment and Development
• New Gen IEDC: New Gen Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development Centre
• TREAD: Trade Related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development.

Question 40.
Who is a shadow director?
Answer:
A shadow director is a person who is not the member of Board but has some power to run it and can be appointed as the director but according to his/her wish.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Explain the principles of modern management.
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr.Henry Fayol, and according to him there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organisation.
(i) Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks.
This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.
(ii) Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.
(iii) Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc.
It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organisations.
(iv) Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.
(v) Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.
(vi) Subordination of Individual Interest to Mutual Interest: The management must put aside personal considerations and put company objectives firstly.
(vii) Remuneration: Workers must be paid sufficiently as this is a chief motivation of employees and therefore greatly influences productivity.

(viii) The Degree of Centralization: The amount of power wielded with the central management depends on company size.
(ix) Line of Authority/Scalar Chain: This refers to the chain of superiors ranging from top management to the lowest rank.
(x) Order: Social order ensures the fluid operation of a company through authoritative procedure.
(xi) Equity: Employees must be treated kindly, and justice must be enacted to ensure a just workplace.
(xii) Stability of Tenure of Personnel: Stability of tenure of personnel is a principle stating that in order for an organisation to run smoothly, personnel (especially managerial personnel) must not frequently enter and exit the organisation.
(xiii) Initiative: Using the initiative of employees can add strength and new ideas to an organisation.
(x/v) Esprit de Corps/Team Spirit: This refers to the need of managers to ensure and develop morale in the workplace; individually and communally.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the disadvantages of MBE.
Answer:

• The main disadvantage of MBE is, only managers have the power over really important decisions, which can be demotivating for employees at a lower level.
• Furthermore, it takes time to pass the issues to managers. Managing employees who deviate from the normal procedures. Because of compliance failures are considered difficult to manage and typically find themselves with limited job duties and ultimately dismissed/ terminated.

Question 42.
(a) Discuss the role of financial market.
Answer:

• Savings Mobilization: Obtaining funds from the savers or ‘surplus’ units such as household individuals, business firms, public sector units, Government is an important role played by financial markets.
• Investment: Financial market plays a key role in arranging the investment of funds thus
  collected, in those units which are in need of the same.
• National Growth: Financial markets contribute to a nation’s growth by ensuring an unfettered flow of surplus funds to deficit units. Flow of funds for productive purposes is also made possible, ft leads to overall economic growth.
• Entrepreneurship Growth: Financial markets contribute to the development of the entrepreneurial class by making available the necessary financial resources.
• Industrial Development: The different components of financial markets help an accelerated growth of industrial and economic development of a country and thus contributing to raising the standard of living and the society’s well-being.

[OR]

(b) Explain the features and types of Commercial Bills.
Answer:

• Drawer
• Acceptor
• Payee
• Discounter
• Endorser
• Assessment
• Maturity
• Credit Rating

Types:

• Demand and Usance Bills: A demand bill is one wherein no specific time of payment is mentioned. So, demand bills are payable immediately when they are presented to the drawee.
• Clean Bills and Documentary Bills: Bills that are accompanied by documents of title
  to goods are called documentary bills. Clean bills are drawn without accompanying any document.
• Inland Bills and Foreign Bills: Bills that are drawn and payable in India on a person who is resident in India are called inland bills.
• Indigeneous Bills: The drawing and acceptance of indigenous bills are governed by native custom or usage of trade.
• Accommodation and Supply Bills: Accommodation bills are those which do not arise out of genuine trade of transactions.

Question 43.
(a) What are the benefits of Dematerialisation?
Answer:

• The risks relating to physical certificates like loss, theft, forgery are eliminated completely with a Demat Account.
• The risk of paper work enables quicker transactions and higher efficiency in trading.
• The shares which are created through mergers and consolidation of companies are credited automatically in the Demat account.
• There is no stamp duty for transfer of securities.
• Certain banks also permit holding of both equity and debt securities in a single account.
• A Demat account holder can buy or sell any amount of shares.

[OR]

(b) Elaborate on the factors affecting recruitment.
Answer:
Some of the factors that affect recruitment are:

• Size of the Organisation: Bigger organisations find recruitment less problematic than organisations that are smaller in size.
• Recruiting Policy: Most organisations prefer recruiting through internal sources, because own employees know the organisation and they can well fit into the organisation’s culture.
• Nature of Post: The recruitment process varies according to type of personnel to be recruited. For example, recruitment process of a bank officer will differ from that of an IPS officer.
• Demographic factors: Like the details of possible employees- age, religion, literacy level, gender, occupation, economic status, etc.
• Unemployment rate: If the unemployment rate is high, the number of applicants will be more, making it easy for the recruiters to select from a wide range.
• Labour Laws: These cover working conditions, compensation, retirement benefits, and safety and health of employees in industrial undertakings.
• Competitors: Time to time the organisations have to change their recruitment policies and manuals according to the policies being followed by the competitors.

Question 44.
(a) Explain the benefits of training.
Answer:
(i) Benefits to the Organisation:

• It improves the skill of employees and increase the productivity.
• It reduces wastages of materials and idle time.
• It minimizes the time for supervision.
• It reduces the frequent accidents at workplace and consequent payment of compensation.

(ii) Benefits to the Employees:

• It increases the knowledge, skill of the employees.
• It enables him to gain promotion in shorter time.
• It improves the employees productivity.
• Employees get higher earnings through incentives and rewards.

(iii) Benefits of Customer:

• Customers get better quality of product and service.
• Customers get innovative products or value added or feature rich products.

[OR]

(b) Narrate the Elements of Marketing mix.
Answer:
Marketing mix means a marketing programme that is offered by a firm for the satisfaction of human wants. There are four Elements of Marketing mix:

• Product: A Product is the main element of marketing. Without a product, there can be no marketing.
• Price: Price is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms. It is the amount Charged for the product.
• Place (Physical Distribution): An excellent quality product, with a good price, will be waste, if it is not transferred from the production place to consumption place.
• Promotion: An excellent product with competitive price cannot achieve a desired success and acceptance in market, with special features are conveyed to the consumers.

Question 45.
(a) What are the objectives of Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
Answer:
The Central Government enacted a comprehensive law called the Consumer Protection Act in 1986. This Act came into force with effect from 15.04.1987. It is in short, called as ‘COPRA’.
Objectives:

• Consumer protection Act protects the interests of the consumers.
• This Act provides safeguard against defective goods and deficient services, unfair trade practices.
• It also gives settlement of consumer disputes.
• It is applicable to public sector, financial and co-operative enterprises.

[OR]

(b) Classify goods under the Sale of Goods Act.
Answer:
The term goods mean every kind of movable property other than actionable claim and money.
The goods are classified as follows:
(1) Existing Goods- These goods are owned or possessed by the seller at the time of contract of sale. Existing goods may again be divided as:

• Specific Goods- It denotes goods identified and agreed upon at the time of contract of sale.
• Ascertained Goods- The term ‘ascertained goods’ is also used as similar in meaning to specific goods.
• Unascertained Goods- These are goods which are not identified and agreed upon at the time of contract of sale.

(2) Future Goods- These are goods which a seller does not possess at the time of contract of
sale, but which will be manufactured or produced or acquired by him after entering into the contract.
(3) Contingent Goods- These are the goods, the acquisition of which by the seller depends upon a contingency (an event which may or may not happen).

Question 46.
(a) What are the requisites for a valid endorsement?
Answer:
If an endorsement is to be valid, it must possess the following requisites:

• Endorsement is to be made on the face of the instrument or on its back.
• When there is no space for making further endorsements a piece of paper can be attached
• Endorsement for only a part of the amount of the instrument is invalid.
• Endorsement is complete only when delivery of the instrument is made.
• Signing in block letters does not constitute regular endorsement.
• If the payee is an illiterate person, he can endorse it by affixing his thumb impression on the instrument.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between the rural and urban entrepreneur.
Answer:

S. No.	Rural Entrepreneur	Urban Entrepreneur
1.	It refers to the person who starts business in rural areas.	It refers to the person who commences business in urban areas.
2.	These entrepreneurs start doing business in the villages and small towns.	They will do their business in state capital, towns, district headquarters, municipalities, etc.
3.	They may be agricultural and trading entrepreneurs.	They may be industrial or corporate entrepreneur.
4:	The availability of material and labour is easy. So the cost of operation tends to be low.	The availability of material and labour may be difficult. So the cost of operation may be high.

Question 47.
(a) What formalities need to be fulfilled for a companies having share capital to commence business?
Answer:
A public limited company having its share capital has to pass through two more stages. One of them is capital subscription, steps to be taken at this stage are listed below:

• The fulfilling formalities to raise necessary capital.
• Following the SEBI guidelines in this regard.
• Issuing prospectus.
• Appointing official banker of the company for receiving application from the investors,
• Passing resolution for making allotments by director.
• Despatch allotment letters to allottees.
• Filing allotment returns with the Registrar.
• Issuing share certificates in exchange for their allotment letter.
• Ensuring collection of minimum subscription.

[OR]

(b) List the disqualification of a directors.
Answer:
Disqualifications of a Director: Section 164 of Companies Act, 2013, has mentioned the disqualification as follows: A person shall not be capable of being appointed director of a company, if the director is

• Of unsound mind
• An undercharged insolvent
• Has been convicted by a court for any offence
• Has not paid any call in respect of shares of the company held by him
• An order disqualifying him for appointment as director has been passed by a court
• He has not got the Director Identification Number.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Man-made radioactivity is also known as;
(a) Induced radioactivity
(b) Spontaneous radioactivity
(c) Artificial radioactivity
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Induced radioactivity

Question 2.
Unit of radioactivity is _____.
(a) roentgen
(b) curie
(c) becquerel
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

Question 3.
Artificial radioactivity was discovered by:
(a) Becquerel
(b) Irene Curie
(c) Roentgen
(d) Neils Bohr
Answer:
(b) Irene Curie

Question 4.
In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place _____.
(i) α decay
(ii) β decay
(iii) γ decay
(iv) neutron decay
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) & (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
……. isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
(a) Radio Iodine
(b) Radio Cobalt
(c) Radio Carbon
(d) Radio Nickel
Answer:
(b) Radio Cobalt

Question 6.
Gaming radiations are dangerous because of _____.
(a) it affects eyes & bones
(b) it affects tissues
(c) it produces genetic disorder
(d) it produces an enormous amount of heat.
Answer:
(c) it produces genetic disorder

Question 7.
……… aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations.
(a) Lead oxide
(b) Iron
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(c) Lead

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) a particles are photons.
(ii) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low.
(iii) Ionization power is maximum for a rays.
(iv) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct

Question 9.
Proton-Proton chain reaction is an example of _____.
(a) Nuclear fission
(b) α – decay
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) β – decay.
Answer:
(c) Nuclear fusion

Question 10.
In the nuclear reaction the value of A and Z.
(a) 8, 6
(b) 8, 4
(c) 4, 8
(d) cannot be determined with the given data
Answer:
(b) 8, 4

Question 11.
Kamini reactor is located at:
(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Koodankulam
(c) Mumbai
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Kalpakkam

Question 12.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
(ii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled
(iii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled
(iv) No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb
(a) (i) only correct
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. One roentgen is equal to ………… disintegrations per second.
2. Positron is an …………
3. Aneamia can be cured by ………… isotope.
4. Abbreviation of ICRP …………..
5. ………… is used to measure exposure rate of radiation in humans.
6. ………. has the greatest penetration power.
7. _ZY^A → _Z+1Y^A + X; Then, X is …………..
8. _ZX^A → _ZY^A This reaction is possible in …………. decay.
9. The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about …………. J.
10. Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of ……….. K.
11. The radio isotope of …………. helps to increase the productivity of crops.
12. If the radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause ………….
Answer:
1. 1.6 × 10¹⁵ disintegrations / second
2. antiparticle [₁e⁰]
3. Radio iron Fe⁵⁹
4. International Commission on Radiological Protection
5. Dosimeter
6. Gama rays
7. X is _-1e⁰
8. gamma
9. 3.84 × 10¹² J
10. 10⁷ to 10⁹ K
11. Radio phosphorus P – 32
12. fatal diseases like leukemia.

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement.

1. Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material.
2. Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
3. Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission.
4. Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
5. If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave as an atom bomb.
6. During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced.
7. Einstein’s theory of mass energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
Answer:
1. True
2. False – Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fission.
3. True
4. False – Natural U – 238 not used as fuel in a nuclear reactor.
5. True
6. True
7. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (i)
(c) – (iv)
(d) – (ii)

Question 2.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (ii)
(c) – (iii)
(d) – (i)

Question 3.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (ii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (iii)

Question 4.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (iii)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

Question 5.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power. Alpha rays, beta rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays
Answer:
gamma rays < beta rays < alpha rays < cosmic rays.

Question 2.
Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery.
Nuclear reactor, radioactivity, artificial radioactivity, discovery of radium.
Answer:
Discovery of radium, Radioactivity, Artifical radioactivity, Nuclear reactor.

VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blank.

1. Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process : ………..
2. Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission : ………..
3. Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart : …………
4. Deflected by electric field : a ray, No Deflection : ………….

Answer:

1. artifical radioactivity
2. higher temperature
3. Radio sodium
4. γ-ray

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
₈₈Ra²²⁶ experiences three a – decay. Find the number of neutrons in the daughter element.
Answer:
Mass number of ₈₈Ra²²⁶ is 266
Atomic number of ₈₈Ra²²⁶ is 88
Mass number of α = 4
Atomic number of α = 2
After 3 a decay
Mass number of the daughter element is
= 266 – (3 × 4)
= 266 – 12
= 254
Atomic number of the daughter element is
= 88 – (3 × 2)
= 88 – 6
= 82
Number of neutrons is
= 254 – 82
= 172

Question 2.
A cobalt specimen emits induced radiation of 75.6 millicurie per second. Convert this disintegration in to becquerel (one curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq).
Answer:
1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq
∴ 75.6 × 10^-3 curie = 75.6 × 10^-3 × 3.7 × 10¹⁰
= 279.72 × 10⁷ Bq
= 279.72 × 10⁷ Becquerel

VIII. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: A neutron impinging on U²³⁵, splits it to produce Barium and Krypton.
Reason: U – 235 is a fissile material.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: In a 3 – decay, the neutron number decreases by one.
Reason: In 3 – decay atomic number increases by one.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Extreme temperature is necessary to execute nuclear fusion.
Reason: In a nuclear fusion, the nuclei of the reactants combine releasing high energy.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Control rods are known as ‘neutron seeking rods’.
Reason: Control rods are used to perform sustained nuclear fission reaction.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

IX. Answer in one or two words (VSA).

Question 1.
Who discovered natural radioactivity?
Answer:
Henri Becquerel

Question 2.
Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende?
Answer:
Uranium is the radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende.

Question 3.
Write any two elements which are used for inducing radioactivity?
Answer:
Boron and aluminium

Question 4.
Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during natural radioactivity.
Answer:
Gamma rays are the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during natural radioactivity.

Question 5.
If A is a radioactive element which emits an α – particle and produces ₁₀₄Rf²⁵⁹. Write the atomic number and mass number of the element A.
Answer:

Mass number A = 259 + 4 = 263
Atomic number Z = 104 + 2 = 106

Question 6.
What is the average energy released from a single fission process?
Answer:
200 MeV

Question 7.
Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disease?
Answer:
γ – ray (Gamma-ray) or any high energy nuclear particle passes through a human being, it disrupts the entire normal functioning of the biological system and the effect may be an either pathological or genetic disease.

Question 8.
What is the amount of radiation that may cause death of a person when exposed to it?
Answer:
600 R.

Question 9.
When and where was the first nuclear reactor built?
Answer:
The first nuclear reactor was built in 1942 at Chicago, USA.

Question 10.
Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
Answer:
The SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel.

Question 11.
Which material protects us from radiation?
Answer:
Lead

X. Answer the following questions in a few sentences.

Question 1.
Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Answer:

Question 2.
Define critical mass.
Answer:
The minimum mass of fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called ‘critical mass (m_c)’. It depends on the nature, density and the size of the fissile material.

Question 3.
Define one roentgen.
Answer:
One roentgen is defined as the quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10^-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.

Question 4.
State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.
Answer:
(i) When a radioactive element emits an alpha particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose mass number is less by 4 units and the atomic number is less by 2 units, than the mass number and atomic number of the parent nucleus.

(ii) When a radioactive element emits a beta particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose mass number is the same and the atomic number is more by 1 unit, than the atomic number of the parent nucleus.

Question 5.
Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have a sustained chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.

Question 6.
In Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases. Why?
Answer:
In Japan, there was a leakage of nuclear radiations in some areas. In those areas, if the new born children handled with careless they are exposed to harmful radiations then they have congenital diseases.

Question 7.
Mr. Ramu is working as an X – ray technician in a hospital. But, he does not wear the lead aprons. What suggestion will you give to Mr. Ramu?
Answer:
The intensity of X-rays is very low. So, X-rays do not produce any severe effects. There are certains clothes that can be used while operating X-ray machines. Ramu can use them and so he may not be severely affected by X-rays, he should avoid eating and drinking when he is working with X-rays.

Question 8.
What is stellar energy?
Answer:
Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called stellar energy.

Question 9.
Give any two uses of radio isotopes in the field of agriculture?
Answer:
The radio isotope of phosphorous (P-32) helps to increase the productivity of crops. The radiations from the radio isotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites and prevent the wastage of agricultural products.

Question 10.
What is stellar energy?
Answer:
Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called as stellar energy.

XI. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Answer:
(i) Controlled chain reaction: In the controlled chain reaction the number of neutrons released is maintained to be one. This is achieved by absorbing the extra neutrons with a neutron absorber leaving only one neutron to produce further fission. Thus, the reaction is sustained in a controlled manner. The energy released due to a controlled chain reaction can be utilized for constructive purposes. Controlled chain reaction is used in a nuclear reactor to produce energy in a sustained and controlled manner.

(ii) Uncontrolled chain reaction: In the uncontrolled chain reaction the number of neutrons multiplies indefinitely and causes fission in a large amount of the fissile material. This results in the release of a huge amount of energy within a fraction of a second. This kind of chain reaction is used in the atom bomb to produce an explosion.

Question 2.
Compare the properties of alpha, beta and gamma radiations.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.
Answer:
A Nuclear reactor is a device in which the nuclear fission reaction takes place in a self-sustained and controlled manner to produce electricity.
Components of a nuclear reactors:
The essential components of a nuclear reactor are

1. fuel,
2. moderator,
3. control rod,
4. coolant and
5. protection wall.

1. Fuel : A fissile material is used as the fuel. The commonly used fuel material is uranium.
2. Moderator : A moderator is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are the commonly used moderators
3. Control rod : Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have sustained chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.
4. Coolant : A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in die reactor core, to produce steam. This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity. Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.
5. Protection wall : A thick concrete lead wall is built around the nuclear reactor in order to prevent the harmful radiations from escaping into the environment.

XII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
The mass number of a radioactive element is 232 and its atomic number is 90. When this element undergoes certain nuclear reactions, it transforms into an isotope of lead with a mass number 208 and an atomic number 82. Determine the number of alpha and beta decay that can occur.
Answer:
\(_{90} \mathrm{x}^{232} \stackrel{4 \beta}{\longrightarrow} 94^{\mathrm{Y}^{232}+4_{-4} \mathrm{e}^{\circ}}\) (4β decay)
From the result of β decay,
\(94^{232} \stackrel{6 \alpha}{\longrightarrow} 82^{\mathrm{Pb}^{208}+6}_{} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) (6α decay)
The number of α decay = 6
The number of β decay = 4.

Question 2.
‘X – rays should not be taken often’. Give the reason.
Answer:
X-rays have some low intensity. Even then if a person undergoes the exposure of X-ray, his skin may be affected. The tissues near by the bones may be damaged.

Question 3.
Cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area – why?
Answer:
From the cell phone towers micro-waves are scattered for a particular area. This may affect small children and aged people. If people are exposed with those rays very often then they may be severly affected.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The elements that undergo spontaneous radioactivity:
(a) Uranium
(b) Radium
(c) Uranium and Radium
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Uranium and Radium

Question 2.
The artificial (or) induced radioactive element is _____.
(a) Uranium
(b) Boron
(c) Radium
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) boron

Question 3.
The nucleons in a nucleus are attracted by:
(a) electrostatic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) nuclear force
(d) magnetic force
Answer:
(c) nuclear force

Question 4.
In p decay by one.
(a) mass number decreases
(b) atomic number decreases
(c) neutron number decreases
(d) proton number decreases
Answer:
(c) neutron number decreases

Question 5.
The charge of the α rays _____.
(a) 2e
(b) -e
(c) 0
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) 2e

Question 6.
In which process positron is emitted?
(a) natural radioactivity
(b) artifical radioactivity
(c) nuclear fission
(d) nuclear fussion
Answer:
(b) artifical radioactivity

Question 7.
The atomic number of the elements that exhibit natural radioactivity is:
(a) less than 83
(b) more than 83
(c) more than 42
(d) more than 82
Answer:
(b) more than 83

Question 8.
The ionising power of the α rays _____.
(a) 100 times greater than the β rays
(b) 1000 times greater than the γ rays
(c) very less ionization
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b).

Question 9.
In the reaction  is:
(a) ₆C¹³
(b) ₆C¹²
(c) ₇N¹³
(d) ₈O¹⁶
Answer:
(b) ₆C¹²

Question 10.
Ionising power of β rays _____.
(а) 100 times greater than α rays
(b) 100 times less than α rays
(c) comparatively very less ionization power
(d) 1000 times less than γ rays.
Answer:
(b) 100 times less than α rays

Question 11.
During α – decay the mass number of the daughter element is:
(a) more by 2 units
(b) less by 2 units
(c) more by 4 units
(d) less by 4 units
Answer:
(d) less by 4 units

Question 12.
When α – particle is emitted the atomic number of daughter element is:
(a) more by 4 units
(b) less by 4 units
(c) less by 2 units
(d) more by 2 units
Answer:
(c) less by 2 units

Question 13.
Which power has more penetrating power?
(a) α rays
(b) γ rays
(c) β rays
(d) X rays.
Answer:
(b) γ rays

Question 14.
What is the charge of alpha particle?
(a) -e
(b) +e
(c) zero
(d) +2e^–
Answer:
(d) +2e^–

Question 15.
Which of the following has speed from 1/10 to 1/20 times the speed of light?
(a) β
(b) α
(c) γ
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) α

Question 16.
In α – decay _____.
(a) atomic number decreases by 2 and the mass number decreases by 4
(b) atomic number increases by 2 and the mass number decrease by 4
(c) there is no change in atomic and mass number
(d) neutron number decreases by one.
Answer:
(a) atomic number decreases by 2 and the mass number decreases by 4

Question 17.
Which of the following is a fertile material?
(a) Thorium – 232
(b) Uranium – 238
(c) Plutonium – 240
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
If the mass of the fissile material is less than the critical mass, then it is termed as:
(a) supercritical
(b) critical
(c) subcritical
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) critical

Question 19.
1 curie is equal to _____.
(a) the radioactivity of 1 gram of uranium
(b) 1 decay/second
(c) 3.7 × 10¹⁰ becquerel
(d) 1.6 × 10¹² decay / second.
Answer:
(c) 3.7 × 10¹⁰ becquerel

Question 20.
During nuclear fusion which of the following are emitted:
(a) alpha rays
(b) positrons
(c) neutrons
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 21.
Anaemia can be diagonised by:
(a) ₁₅P³²
(b) ₂₆Fe⁵⁹
(c) ₁₁Na²⁴
(d) ₂₈Fe⁵⁹
Answer:
(b) ₂₆Fe⁵⁹

Question 22.
I – 131 is used in the treatment of _____.
(a) cancer
(b) skin disease
(c) disease in the thyroid gland
(d) tumour.
Answer:
(c) disease in the thyroid gland

Question 23.
In which decay atomic number of daughter element is increased by 1 unit?
(a) α – decay
(b) β – decay
(c) γ – decay
(d) neutron decay
Answer:
(b) β – decay

Question 24.
in nuclear fusion ………… is satisfied.
(a) law of conservation of energy
(b) law of conservation of momentum
(c) law of conservation angular momentum
(d) mass energy relation
Answer:
(d) mass energy relation

Question 25.
The safe limit of receiving the radiation is about _____.
(a) 100 R
(b) 600 R
(c) 250 R
(d) 250 mR per week.
Answer:
(d) 250 mR per week.

Question 26.
Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of:
(a) natural radioactivity
(b) induced radioactivity
(c) nuclear fusion
(d) nuclear fission
Answer:
(c) nuclear fusion

Question 27.
Uncontrolled chain reaction yields _____.
(a) nuclear reactor
(b) atom bomb
(c) hydrogen bomb
(d) breeder reactor.
Answer:
(b) atom bomb

Question 28.
In the following reaction.
₁H³ + ₁H² → X + Y + energy X and Y are:
(a) ₂He³, ₀n¹
(b) ₂He⁴, ₀n¹
(c) ₁H², ₀n¹
(d) ₁H³, ₀n¹
Answer:
(b) ₂He⁴, ₀n¹

Question 29.
The number of α and ß particles emitted when ₉₂U²³⁸ decays to ₈₂Pb²⁰⁶ are respectively:
(a) 6, 8
(b) 8, 6
(c) 4, 3
(d) 3, 4
Answer:
(b) 8, 6

Question 30.
The fusion process can be carried out only at a temperature of _____.
(a) 1000°C
(b) 100°C
(c) 104°C
(d) 107 K.
Answer:
(d) 107 K.

Question 31.
Which of the following is used to cure goiter?
(a) Na²⁴
(b) I¹³¹
(c) P³²
(d) Fe⁵⁹
Answer:
(b) I¹³¹

Question 32.
Which radio isotope is used to check the function of heart?
(a) Na²⁴
(b) Fe⁵⁹
(c) Co⁶⁰
(d) I¹³¹
Answer:
(a) Na²⁴

Question 33.
The fuel of the prototype fast breeder reactor is _____.
(a) low enriched uranium
(b) carbides of uranium
(c) high enriched uranium
(d) oxides of plutonium and uranium.
Answer:
(d) oxides of plutonium and uranium.

Question 34.
Which radio isotope is used as a smoke detector?
(a) Cf²³²
(b) I¹³¹
(c) Co⁶⁰
(d) Am²⁴¹
Answer:
(d) Am²⁴¹

Question 35.
The control rod used in a nuclear reactor is _____.
(a) barium
(b) carbon
(c) cadmium
(d) Na.
Answer:
(c) cadmium

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Radium was discovered by ………..
2. The photoelectric effect is an instantaneous process Natural radioactivity is a ………..
3. The elements with atomic number ……… undergo spontaneous radioactivity.
4. In natural radioactivity emission of radiation is due to ………. of a nucleus.
5. One disintegration per second is equal to ………..
6. S.I unit of radioactivity is ………….
7. The speed of ………. can go upto 9/10 times the velocity of light.
8. α ray is …………
9. ……….ray consists of photons.
10. ………… and ………… are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
11. When uranium decays into thorium ……….. particle is emitted.
12. In ………… decay there is no change in the mass number of the product nuclear.
13. The minimum mass of a fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called …………
14. The value of 1MeV in joules is ………..
15. In the transformation ₁H² + ₁H² → X + energy. X is …………
16. Einstein’s mass energy relation is ………….
17. ……….causes the mutation in the human gene.
18. ……….. is also used in treatment of skin cancer.
19. The safe limit for receiving the radiation is ………….
20. The substances that are used as coolants are ………….. and
21. ………… reactors convert non-fissionable material units.
22. The expansion of BARC is ………….
23. The number of nuclear reactor that are operating in India are ……………
24. Identify X in the following transformation ₁₂Mg²⁴ + ₀n¹ → X + ₁n¹. X is ………….
25. In the reaction ₉₂U²³⁸ + ₀n¹ → ₉₃NP²³⁹ + X. X is ………….
Answer:
1. Marie Curie and pierre Curie
2. Spontaneous
3. more than 83
4. self-disintegration
5. Becquerel
6. Becquerel
7. β rays
8. a helium nucleus
9. Gamma
10. Alpha, beta
11. alpha
12. beta
13. critical mass
14. 1.602 × 10^-13 J
15. ₂He⁴
16. E = mc²
17. Gamma radiation
18. Radio-gold Au¹⁹⁸
19. 100 mR per week
20. Water, air and helium
21. Breeder
22. Bhaba Atomic Research Centre
23. 22
24. ₁₁Na²⁴
25. _-1e⁰

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement.

1. Artificial radioactivity is induced in the elements like boron, aluminum etc.
2. Natural radioactivity can be controlled.
3. 1 Rd = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations / second.
4. The S.I units of radioactivity is roentgen.
5. The charge of each beta particle is – e
6. Beta ray travels with velocity of light.
7. Example for alpha decay is ₉₂U²³⁸ → ₉₀Th²³⁴ + ₂He⁴
8. Otto Hann and Strassman discovered nuclear fission.
9. In the mass of the fissile material is more than the critical mass it is termed as supercritical.
10. Hydrogen bomb is based on uncontrolled chain reaction.
11. 1eV = 1.602 × 10^-16 Joule.
12. Hydrogen is based on nuclear fusion.
13. Positrons are emitted in nuclear fusion.
14. To diagnose anaemia P³² is used.
15. Radio phosphorous is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
16. To prevent the leakage of nuclear radiation concrete wall with lead lining is used.
Answer:
1. True
2. False – Artificial radio activity can be controlled.
3. False – 1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰⁶ disintegrations / second.
4. False – The S.l unit of radioactivity is Becquerel.
5. True
6. False – Gamma ray travels with velocity of light.
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False – Atom bomb is based on uncontrolled chain reaction.
11. False – 1eV = 1.602 × 10^-9 Joule
12. True
13. True
14. False – To diagonise aneamia Fe⁵⁹ is used.
15. True
16. True
17. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (v)
(d) – (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (v)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(a) – (v)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (ii)

V. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
A radioactive isotope emits radiation of 7.4 × 10⁴ G Bq per second. Convert this disintegration in terms of curie.
Answer:
One curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Becquerel
Becquerel (1 Bq) = One disintegration / second
∴ 1 Bq = \(\frac{1}{3.7×10^{10}}\) curie
∴ 7.4 × 10⁴ G Bq
= 7.4 × 10⁴ × 10⁹ × \(\frac{1}{3.7×10^{10}}\)
= 2 × 10³ curie
= 2,000 curie

Question 2.
The isotope ₉₂U²³⁸ successfully undergoes three α – decays and two β – decays. What is the resulting isotope?
Answer:
Number and nature of decays = 3α and 2β
Atomic number of isotope is Z = 92
Mass number of isotope is A = 238
Resulting isotope:
After the emission of 3α particles atomic number
Z’ = Z = (3 × 2)
= Z – 6
= 92 – 6
Z’ = 86
After the emission of 2β particles atomic number
Z” = Z – 2 (-1) = 86 + 2 = 88
Mass number after the emission of 3α particles
A’ = A – 3α
= 238 – 3(4)
= 238 – 12
= 226
Mass number after the emission of 2β particles
A” = A’ – 2(0)
= 226
∴ Resulting isotope is ₈₈Ra²²⁶

Question 3.
₈₈Ra²²⁶ experiences one α – decay and one β – decay. Calculate the number of neutrons in the final daughter nucleus that is formed.
Answer:
α particle = ₂He⁴
Atomic number of α particle = 2
Mass number of α particle = 4

Number of neutrons = Mass number – atomic number
= 222 – 87 = 135

Question 4.
State the number of protons, electrons neutrons and nucleons in ₄Be⁹ atom.
Answer:
Atomic number of ₄Be⁹ atom Z = 4
Mass number of ₄Be⁹ atom A = 9
Number of protons = Atomic number Z = 4
Number of neutrons = A – Z = 9 – 4 = 5
Number of nucleons = A = 9

Question 5.
Determine X and Y in the following transformations.
(i) ₄Be⁹ + α → X
(ii) ₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₀Ba¹⁴¹ + Y + 3₀n¹
Answer:
(i) ₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → ₆C¹³ [α = ₂He⁴]
∴ X = ₆C¹³

(ii) ₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₀Ba¹⁴¹ + Y + 3₀n¹
Equating atomic number on both sides we get,
235 + 1 = 141 + A + 3
236 = 144 + A
∴ A = 236 – 144
= 92
Equating atomic number on both sides are get
92 + 0 = 56 + 2 + 0
Z = 92 – 56 = 36
∴ Y is ₃₆Kr⁹²

Question 6.
Calculate the amount energy released when a radioactive element undergoes fusion and results in a mass defect of 4g.
Answer:
Velocity of light = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Mass defect Δm = 4 × 10^-3
By Einstein’s equation, energy released
E = mC²
= (4 × 10^-3) × (3 × 10⁸)²
= 36 × 10¹³ J
= 3.6 × 10¹⁴ J

Question 7.
Identify the radio isotopes in the following reactions.
Answer:
(i) ₁₅P⁸ + ₀n¹ → X + γ
(ii) ₀n¹ → _ZY^A + _-1e⁰ + γ^–
Answer:
(i) ₁₅P³¹ + ₀n¹ → X + γ
Mass number of X = 31 + 1 = 32
Atomic number of Y= 15 + 0 =15
∴ X is ₁₅P³¹

(ii) ₀n¹ → _ZY^A + _-1e⁰ + γ^–
Mass number 1 = A + 0
∴ A = 1
Atomic number 0 = Z – 1
∴ Z = 1
_ZY^A is ₁H¹

VI. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: Natural radioactivity is a spontaneous process.
Reason: It cannot be controlled.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: In artificial radioactivity neutron and positron are emitted. Reason: It can be controlled.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: p rays are electrons.
Reason: p rays travel with speed of light.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 4.
Assertion: Gamma rays have maximum ionising power.
Reason: Alpha rays have low penetrating power.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 5.
Assertion: Critical mass of a fissile material is the mass necessary to sustain chain reaction.
Reason: Critical mass depends on the nature, density and size of the fissile material.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 6.
Assertion: Nuclear fusion takes place in the cores of the sun and other stars.
Reason: Nuclear fusion is called as thermonuclear reaction.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: An alpha particle carries double the positive charge of protons.
Reason: The charge of alpha particle is equal to charge on the helium nucleus.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves.
Reason: Gamma rays travel with speed of light.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VII. Answer in one or two words (VSA).

Question 1.
Who discovered the nucleus?
Answer:
Rutherford

Question 2.
Define ‘Natural Radioactivity’.
Answer:
This phenomenon of spontaneous emission of radiation from certain elements on their own is called ‘Natural radioactivity’.

Question 3.
State elements exhibiting radioactivity with atomic number less than 83.
Answer:
Uranium and radium

Question 4.
What is the nature of radioactive substances?
Answer:
They are earth metals and transition metals.

Question 5.
Define ‘One Rutherford (Rd)’.
Answer:
It is another unit of radioactivity. It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which produces 106 disintegrations in one second.
1 Rd = 10⁶ disintegrations per second.

Question 6.
In ₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → X. What is X?
Answer:
X is ₆C¹³

Question 7.
What is the value of 1 curie?
Answer:
1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations / second.

Question 8.
State the value of Rutherford.
Answer:
1 Rutherford = 10⁶ disintegrations / second.

Question 9.
Explain the term ‘fissile material’ Give an example.
Answer:
Fissionable material is a radioactive element, which undergoes fission in a sustained manner when it absorbs a neutron. It is also termed as ‘fissile material’.
E.g. U²³⁵, plutonium (Pu²³⁹ and Pu²⁴¹)

Question 10.
Which ray has greatest ionising power?
Answer:
Alpha ray

Question 11.
Which ray posses minimum ionising power?
Answer:
Gamma ray

Question 12.
Which ray is not deflected by electric and magnetic fields?
Answer:
Gamma ray

Question 13.
Name the ray that travels with speed about 9/10 times that of light?
Answer:
Beta ray

Question 14.
What is the charge of particle?
Answer:
It’s charge is +2e.

Question 15.
Which particle has a charge of -e?
Answer:
Beta particle

Question 16.
State that the ray consisting of protons.
Answer:
Gamma ray

Question 17.
When uranium emits an alpha particle which element is obtained as daughter element.
Answer:
Thorium ₉₀Th²³⁴

Question 18.
Mention the value of 1eV in terms of joule.
Answer:
1eV = 1.602 × 10^-19 joule

Question 19.
What is the value of 1Mev?
Answer:
1MeV = 10⁶eV = 1.602 × 10^-13 joule

Question 20.
Which radio isotope is used in the treatment of skin diseases?
Answer:
Radio Phosphorus P³²

Question 21.
What is the use of radio iodine?
Answer:
Radio iodine is used to cure goiter.

Question 22.
Which isotope is used in airlines?
Answer:
Califorium Cf²³² is used in airlines.

Question 23.
State the isotope used as a smoke detector.
Answer:
Americium Am²⁴¹

Question 24.
Write down the uses of a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Uses of a nuclear reactor

• Nuclear reactors are widely used in power generation.
• They are also used to produce radioisotopes, which are used in a variety of applications
• Some reactors help us to do research in the field of nuclear physics.
• Breeder reactors are used to convert non-fissionable materials into fissionable materials.

Question 25.
What are gamma rays?
Answer:
Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves consisting of photons.

Question 26.
Who discovered Cathode rays.
Answer:
J.J. Thomson

VIII. Answer the following question in few sentences.

Question 1.
What is radioactivity?
Answer:
The phenomenon of nuclear decay of certain elements with the emission of radiations like alpha, beta, and gamma rays is called ‘radioactivity’.

Question 2.
What is meant by natural radioactivity?
Answer:
This phenomenon of spontaneous emission of radiation from certain elements on their own is called ‘natural radioactivity’.

Question 3.
Define Rutherford.
Answer:
It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which produces 106 disintegrations in one second.
1 Rd = 10⁶ disintegrations per second.

Question 4.
What is the unit of radioactivity? Define it.
Answer:
The SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel. It is defined as the quantity of one disintegration per second.

Question 5.
Define nuclear fission. State an example.
This process of breaking (splitting) up of a heavier nucleus into two smaller nuclei with the release of a large amount of energy and a few neutrons is called ‘nuclear fission’.
Eg: Nuclear fission of a uranium nucleus (U²³⁵)
₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₆Ba¹⁴¹ + ₃₆Kr⁹² + 3₀n¹ + Q (energy)

Question 6.
How a product nucleus is identified in a nuclear reaction?
Answer:
In a nuclear reaction, the element formed as the product nucleus is identified by the atomic number of the resulting nucleus and not by its mass number.

Question 7.
What is fissile material?
Answer:
A fissionable material is a radioactive element, which undergoes fission in a sustained manner when it absorbs a neutron. It is also termed as ‘fissile material’.
Eg: U²³⁵, plutonium (Pu²³⁹ and Pu²⁴¹)

Question 8.
What are fertile materials? Mention examples.
Answer:
There are some radioactive elements, which can be converted into fissionable material. They are called as fertile materials.
Eg: Uranium – 238, Thorium – 232, Plutonium – 240.

Question 9.
What is the composition of natural uranium?
Answer:
Natural uranium consists of 99.28 % of ₉₂U²³⁸ and 0.72 % of ₉₂U²³⁵.

Question 10.
What is nuclear fusion? State an example.
Answer:
The process in which two lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is termed as ‘nuclear fusion’.
Eg: ₁H² + ₁H² → ₂He⁴ + Q (Energy)

Question 11.
What is meant by chain reaction?
Answer:
A chain reaction is a self-propagating process in which the number of neutrons goes on multiplying rapidly almost in a geometrical progression.

Question 12.
What is meant by mass defect?
Answer:
The mass of the daughter nucleus formed during a nuclear reaction (fission and fusion) is lesser than the sum of the masses of the two parent nuclei. This difference in mass is called mass defect.

Question 13.
Nuclear fusion is named as thermonuclear reaction. Why?
Answer:
Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of 10⁷ to 10⁹ K and a high pressure to push the hydrogen nuclei closer to fuse with each other. Hence, it is named as ‘Thermonuclear reaction’.

Question 14.
What are the uses of radio isotopes in industries?
Answer:

1. An isotope of californium (Cf²⁵²) is used in the airlines to detect the explosives in the luggage.
2. An isotope of Americium (Am²⁴¹) is used in many industries as a smoke detector.

Question 15.
What is the age of Earth?
Answer:
It is nearly 4.54 × 10⁹ years (around 45 Crore 40 lakh years).

Question 16.
What do you know about dosimeter?
Answer:
Dosimeter is a device used to detect the levels of exposure of an ionizing radiation.

Question 17.
What is the function of moderator in a nuclear reactor?
Answer:
A moderator is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are the commonly used moderators.

Question 18.
How do coolants function in a nuclear reactor?
Answer:
A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to produce steam. This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity. Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.

Question 19.
Name some operating reactors in India.
Answer:
Cirus, Dhuruva and Pumima.

Question 20.
Define Curie.
Answer:
Curie is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which undergoes 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations in one second. This is actually close to the activity of 1 g of radium-226.

IX. Answer the following question in detail.

Question 1.
Write short notes on induced radioactivity.
Answer:
The phenomenon by which even light elements are made radioactive, by artificial or induced methods, is called ‘artificial radioactivity’ or ‘man-made radioactivity’.

This kind of radioactivity was discovered by Irene Curie and F.Joliot in 1934. Artificial radioactivity is induced in certain lighter elements like boron, aluminium etc., by bombarding them with radiations such as ‘alpha particles’ emitted during the natural radioactivity of uranium. This also results in the emission of invisible radiations and elementary” particles. During such a disintegration, the nucleus which undergoes disintegration is called ‘parent nucleus’ and that which is produced after the disintegration is called a ‘daughter nucleus’. The panicle, which is used to induce the artificial disintegration is termed as projectile and the particle which is produced after the disintegration is termed as ejected panicle. When the projectile hits the parent nucleus, it is converted into an unstable nucleus, which in turn decays spontaneously emitting the daughter nucleus along with an ejected particle.

If you denote the parent and daughter nuclei as X and Y respectively, then the nuclear disintegration is represented as follows: X (P,E) Y. Here, P and E represent the projectile particle and ejected particle respectively.
₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → ₆C^13*
₆C^13* → ₆C¹² + ₀n¹
In the above nuclear reaction, ₆C^13* is unstable and is radioactive. This reaction can be represented as ₄Be⁹ (α, n) ₄C¹²
₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → ₆C¹² + ₀n¹

Question 2.
Explain the concept of ‘Hydrogen bomb’.
Answer:
Hydrogen Bomb:

• This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to a Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fusion.
• A hydrogen bomb is always designed to have an inbuilt atom bomb which creates the high temperature and pressure required for fusion when it explodes.
• Fusion takes place in the hydrogen core and leads to the release of a very large amount of energy in an uncontrolled manner.
• The energy released in a hydrogen bomb (or fusion bomb) is much higher than that released in an atom bomb (or fission bomb).

Question 3.
Explain
(i) alpha decay,
(ii) Beta decay,
(iii) gamma decay
Answer:
(i) Alpha decay : A nuclear reaction in which an unstable parent nucleus emits an alpha particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus, is called, ‘alpha decay’.
Eg: Decay of uranium (U²³⁸) to thorium (Th²³⁴) with the emission of an alpha particle.
₉₂U²³⁸ → ₉₀Th²³⁴ + ₂He⁴ (α – decay)
In α – decay, the parent nucleus emits an a particle and so it is clear that for the daughter nucleus, the mass number decreases by four and the atomic number decreases by two.

(ii) Beta decay : A nuclear reaction, in which an unstable parent nucleus emits a beta particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus, is called ‘beta decay’.
Eg: Beta decay of phosphorous.
₁₅P³² → ₁₆S³² + _-1e⁰(β – decay)
In β – decay there is no change in the mass number of the daughter nucleus but the atomic number increases by one. In a nuclear reaction, the element formed as the product nucleus is identified by the atomic number of the resulting nucleus and not by its mass number.

(iii) Gamma decay: In a γ – decay, only the energy level of the nucleus changes. The atomic number and mass number of the radioactive nucleus remain the same.

Question 4.
What is the principle of atom bomb? Describe its structure.
Answer:
The atom bomb is based on the principle of uncontrolled chain reaction. In an uncontrolled chain reaction, the number of neutrons and the number of fission reactions multiply almost in a geometrical progression. This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to an explosion.

Structure : An atom bomb consists of a piece of fissile material whose mass is subcritical. This piece has a cylindrical void. It has a cylindrical fissile material which can fit into this void and its mass is also subcritical. When the bomb has to be exploded, this cylinder is injected into the void using a conventional explosive. Now, the two pieces of fissile material join to form the supercritical mass, which leads to an explosion. The structure of an atom bomb.

During this explosion tremendous amount of energy in the form of heat, light and radiation is released. A region of very high temperature and pressure is formed in a fraction of a second along with the emission of hazardous radiation like y rays, which adversely affect the living creatures. This type of atom bombs were exploded in 1945 at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan during the World War II.

Question 5.
What precautions are to he took for those, who are working in radiation laboratories?
Answer:

1. Radio – Iodine (I¹³¹) is used to cure goitre.
2. Radioactive materials should be kept in a thick-walled lead container.
3. Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used while working with hazardous radioactive materials.
4. We should avoid eating while handling radioactive materials.
5. The radioactive materials should be handled only by tongs or by a remote control device.
6. Dosimeters should be worn by the users to check the level of radiation.

Question 6.
What do you know about hydrogen bomb?
Answer:
Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fusion. A hydrogen bomb is always designed to have an inbuilt atom bomb which creates the high temperature and pressure required for fusion when it explodes. Then, fusion takes place in the hydrogen core and leads to the release of a very large amount of energy in an uncontrolled manner. The energy released in a hydrogen bomb (or fusion bomb) is much higher than that released in an atom bomb (or fission bomb).

Question 7.
What are the applications of radio isotopes in medicine?
Answer:
Medical applications of radio isotopes can be divided into two parts:

1. Diagnosis
2. Therapy

Radio isotopes are used as tracers to diagnose the nature of circulatory disorders of blood, defects of bone metabolism, to locate tumors, etc., Some of the radio isotopes which are used as tracers are: hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, etc.

1. Radio-sodium (Na²⁴) is used for the effective functioning of heart.
2. Radio-Iodine (I¹³¹) is used to cure goiter.
3. Radio-iron is (Fe⁵⁹) is used to diagnose anaemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
4. Radio-phosphorous (P³²) is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
5. Radio-cobalt (Co⁶⁰) and
6. Radio-gold (Au¹⁹⁸) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
7. Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.

Question 8.
Mention the applications of radio isotopes in agriculture and industries and archeological research.
Answer:
Agriculture : The radio isotope of phosphorous (P-32) helps to increase the productivity of crops. The radiations from the radio isotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites and prevent the wastage of agricultural products. Certain perishable cereals exposed to radiations remain fresh beyond their normal life, enhancing the storage time. Very small doses of radiation prevent sprouting and spoilage of onions, potatoes and gram.

Industries : In industries, radioactive isotopes are used as tracers to detect any manufacturing defects such as cracks and leaks. Packaging faults can also be identified through radio activity. Gauges, which have radioactive sources are used in many industries to check the level of gases, liquids and solids.

1. An isotope of californium (Cf ²⁵²) is used in the airlines to detect the explosives in the luggage.
2. An isotope of Americium (Am²⁴¹) is used in many industries as a smoke detector.

Archeological research : Using the technique of radio carbon dating, the age of the Earth, fossils, old paintings and monuments can be determined. In radio carbon dating, the existing amount of radio carbon is determined and this gives an estimate about the age of these things.

Question 9.
Compare the features of nuclear fission with nuclear fusion.
Answer:

Question 10.
Mention the preventive measures to be followed while working with radioactive materials.
Answer:
Radioactive materials should be kept in a thick walled lead container.

1. Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used while working with hazardous radioactive materials.
2. You should avoid eating while handling radioactive materials.
3. The radioactive materials should be handled only by tongs or by a remote control device.
4. Dosimeters should be worn by the users to check the level of radiation.

Question 11.
Write a note on nuclear power plants in India.
Answer:
Indian Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) was established in August 1948 by the Department of Indian Scientific Research committee at Bombay (now Mumbai) in Maharashtra. It is the nodal agency for all the research done in the field of atomic energy. Dr. Homi Jahangir Bhaba was the first chairman of Indian Atomic Energy Commission. Now, it is known as Bhaba Atomic Research Centre (BARC).

Nuclear power is the fifth largest source of power in India. Tarapur Atomic Power Station is India’s first nuclear power station. Now, there are a total of seven power stations, one each in Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and two in Tamilnadu. In Tamilnadu, we have nuclear power stations in Kalpakkam and Kudankulam. Apsara was the first nuclear reactor built in India and Asia. Now, there are 22 nuclear reactors which are operating in India. Some other operating reactors are

1. Cirus
2. Dhuruva
3. Pumima

Question 12.
Distinguish (i) atom bomb from Nuclear reactor,
(ii) Nuclear fission from Nuclear fusion.
Answer:
(i) atom bomb from nuclear reactor:

(ii) Nuclear fission from Nuclear fusion

X. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
A neutron is most effective as bulet in nuclear reactions. Why?
Answer:
This is because a neutron carries no charge. It can hit the nucleus directly without being repelled or attracted by the nucleus or electrons.

Question 2.
Why is \({ _{ 92 } }U^{ 238 }\) not suitable for chain reaction?
Answer:
Only fast-moving neutrons of 12 MeV can cause fission of \({ _{ 92 } }U^{ 238 }\) nuclei. But such neutron has fewer chances of interaction. They escape the fissionable material without causing fission.

Question 3.
Why cadmium is used as control rods in the nuclear reactor?
Answer:
As Cadmium has a high cross section for absorption of neutrons, cadmium is used as control rod.

Question 4.
Why is nuclear fusion not possible in a laboratory (or) Why is nuclear fusion difficult to carry out?
Answer:
Nuclear fusion requires a very high temperature of 10⁶ – 10⁷ K. This temperature is attained by causing an explosion due to the fission process. Moreover, no solid container can withstand such a high temperature.

Question 5.
Why is the penetrating power of a – particle is less than that of β – particle?
Answer:
Ionising power is directly proportional to kinetic energy that varies directly as mass of particle and square of its velocity. Hence ionising power of an alpha particle is more than that of β particle.

Question 6.
Why heavy water is used to slow down the fast moving neutrons?
Answer:
Since heavy water (D₂O) is rich in hydrogen, it is used to slow down the fast moving neutrons.

Question 7.
The penetrating power of α – particle is less than that of β – particle – Why?
Answer:
(i) Penetrating power varies inversely as mass of the particle. But mass of alpha particles is very much greater than mass of beta particles.
(ii) Hence, penetrating power of α – particle is less than that of β – particles.

Question 8.
What are the units of activity of radio active elements?
Answer:
1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations / second
1 rutherford = 10⁶ disintegrations / second

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………….. was the pioneer of social Reformers in India.
(a) C. W. Damotharanar
(b) Periyar
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 2.
…………… established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W.Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Question 3.
…………….. was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement.
(a) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(a) Kudi Arasu

Question 4.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by ………………
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 5.
…………….. founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M.C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in ………….
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
Answer:
(a) 1918

Question 7.
…………….. was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government officials.
(a) Staff Selection Board
(b) Public Service Commission
(c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board
(d) Staff Selection Commission
Answer:
(a) Staff Selection Board

Question 8.
……………. was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in Madras Province.
(a) M. C. Rajah
(b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(c) T.M. Nair
(d) P. Varadarajulu
Answer:
(a) M. C. Rajah

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… was the first non-European language that went into print.
2. The College of Fort St. George was founded by ………………
3. ……………… is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
4. ……………… was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.
5. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as ………………
6. ……………… gave prominence to Tamil music.
7. The first Woman Legislator in India was

Answers:

1. Tamil
2. F.W. Ellis
3. Maraimalai Adigal
4. Justice Party Government
5. Parithimar Kalaignar
6. Abraham Pandithar
7. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru. V. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement.
(a) (i) and (1%) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) anA (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women’s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers or Rationalists Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Hindu Mahasabha.
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival of Brahmins from the North.
(a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in Government from 192CE1937 in Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation

Question 4.
Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the provinces.
(a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are right
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are right

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Tamil Renaissance.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance. Tamil language and culture played a significant role in their identity construction. The introduction of printing press, linguistic research on Dravidian languages, etc., underpinned the process of Tamil renaissance.

Tamil was the first non-European language that went into print. In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics. This provided the Tamil people with a revelation about their heritage. Therefore, the rediscovery of ancient classics and their publication is considered the foundation of Tamil renaissance.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Answer:

1. In 1816, F. W. Ellis who founded the College of Fort St. George, formulated the theory that the south Indian languages belonged to a separate family which was unrelated to the Indo – Aryan family of languages.
2. Robert Caldwell (1814-1891) expanded this argument in a book titled. A comparative grammar of the Dravidian (or) South Indian family of languages in 1856.
3. He established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.

Question 3.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar, F.W. Ellis, Robert Caldwell, Subramania Bharati, Thiru Vi. Kalyanasundaram, Singaraveiar, PanditViar lyotheethassar, Sundaram Pillar and Maraimalai Adigal.

Question 4.
Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justicite Ministry.
Answer:

1. The Justice Party further concentrated on reforms in religious institutions.
2. Tamil Nadu has a large number of temples and these commanded huge resources.
3. In general, the resources were monopolised and exploited by the ‘ dominant caste in the society and led to mismanagement of public resources.
4. The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment (HRE) Act in 1926 and enabled any individual irrespective of their caste affiliation to become a member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 5.
What do you know of the Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam incident?
Answer:
A Gurukulam was established in Cheranmahadevi by V.V.S. Iyer with the financial support of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee. However, students were discriminated on the basis of caste. Brahmin and non-Brahmin students were made to dine separately. Periyar was disturbed to see the discrimination. He questioned the practice, and severely criticized it. Despite his objections, Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam. This disappointed Periyar.

Question 6.
Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal Foundation.
Answer:
Dravidian in Tamil, Justice in English and Andra Prakasika in Telugu to propagate ideals of the Party.

Question 7.
Estimate Periyar as a feminist
Answer:
Periyar was a great feminist. He believed in gender equality and raised voice over the plight of women. He emphasized on women’s right to divorce and property. He objected the terms like “giving in marriage”. This, he said, treats woman as a thing. He wanted it to substitute by “valkaithunai,” (companion) a word for marriage taken from the Tirukkural. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved ? He believed that property rights for women would provide them a social status and protection. He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption.

Question 8.
Explain the proceedings of All India Trade Union Congress Conference held in 1920.
Answer:

1. The first All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) was held on 31st October 1920 in Bombay. The delegates discussed several resolutions.
2. These included a demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes, the maintenance of an unemployment register restriction on exporting food stuffs, compensation for injuries and health insurance.
3. In addition, the delegates demanded that Indian workers be given some representation in the Government just as empolyers had representatives on legislative councils.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Periyar e.v.r

(a) When did Periyar founded the Dravidar Kazhagam?
Answer:
Periyar founded the Dravidar Kazhagam in the year 1944.

(b) What were the Newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
Answer:
Kudi Arasu (Democracy) (1925) Revolt (1928) Puratchi Revolution (1933) Paguth tharivu (Rationalism) (1934) and Viduthalai (Liberation) (1935).

(c) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
Answer:

1. In the name of caste dharma the “lower caste” people were denied access to the temples and the streets surrounding the temple.
2. In Vaikom Catown in the then princely state of Travancore and in present day Kerala, people protest against this practice.
3. People hailed him as Vaikom Virar (Hero of Vaikom) because Periyar led the movement and was imprisoned.

(d) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
Periyar’s most important work on this subject is why the women is enslaved?

Question 2.
Labour Movement in Tamil Nadu

(a) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras.
Answer:
The factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras are

• Retrenchment of workers at the end of the First World War.
• Nationalists’ support to the cause of labour.

(b) Identify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
Answer:
Three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union are B.P. Walia, M. Singaravelar and Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram.

(c) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
Answer:
The first All India Trade Union Conference was held in Bombay.

(d) Who organized the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which year?
Answer:
M. Singaravelar organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras in 1923.

Question 3.
Maraimalai adigal

(a) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigai wrote commentaries.
Answer:
Maraimalai Adigai wrote commentaries on the sangam texts Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.

(b) Name the Journal where he worked as a young man.
Answer:
Siddhanta Deepika.

(c) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
Answer:
He promoted the use of pure Tamil words, impact on Tamil culture especially in language and literature.

(d) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
Maraimalai Adaigal’s teachers such as P. Sundaranar and Somasundra Nayagar were key influences in his life.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19fh Century.
Answer:
(i) In Tamil Nadu, the proliferation of the printing press acted as a catalyst for the publication and spread of secular ancient Tamil literature.

(ii) In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics.

(iii) C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance.

(iv) The transformation not only revived Tamil language and literature but also Tamil culture. It challenged the prevailed caste hierarchy and influenced the rise of Dravidian consciousness and established Tamil as a language of the Dravidian people.

(v) Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of Brahminism. These developments were reflected in art, literature, religion, etc.

Question 2.
Describe the background for the formation of the Justice Party and point put its contribution to the cause of social justice.
Answer:

1. As World War -1 was in progress the British Government was considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the War.
2. Fearing that such political reforms would further strengthen the political power of Brahmins, educated Non – Brahmins decided to organise themselves politically.
3. On 20th, November 1916 around 30 prominent Non – Brahmin leaders including Dr. C. Natesanar Sir, Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal came together to form the South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF).

Programme and Activities:

1. The Justice Party is the fountain head of the Non – Brahmin Movement in the country.
2. The Justicite removed the legal hindrances restricting inter – caste marriages and broke the barriers that prevented Depressed Classes from the use of public wells and tanks.
3. Hostels were established for the students belonging to this social group in 1923.
4. The Justice Party Government was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics in (1921)
5. The Justice Party worked towards legislating provisions for communal representation reservations for various communities.
6. The Justice Party rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of Government officials and encouraged all the communities to share the administrative powers.
7. In 1929, the Government of British India adopted the pattern and established the Public Service Commission.
8. The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment (HRE) Act in 1926 and enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become a member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 3.
Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Periyar was a great social reformer. His contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu is really praise worthy.
(i) He launched ‘Temple entry’ movement to provide the lower caste people easy access to the temples.

(ii) He also started the Self-Respect movement in 1925, with the determination that there ought to be ‘no God; no religion; no Gandhi; no Congress; and no Brahmins’.

(iii) Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child marriage and the Devadasi system. Right from 1929, when the Self-Respect conference began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising on women’s right to divorce and property.

(iv) He advocated atheism as a mode of critique to deconstruct the established practices of faith, culture and custom. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.

(v) He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption. He was strong champion of birth control and contraception.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to distinguish between Labour Movement and Trade Union Movement. Project work on the activities of local trade union organisations may be done by students.
Answer:
Distinguish between Labour Movement and Trade Movement.

Labour Movement:

1. It is a political movement campaigning to improve the rights and conditions of the working people.
2. If originated in U.S.A focussing on rights, interests and protection of employees.
3. Labour movement generally work for better wages, reasonable working hours and safer working conditions.

Trade union Movement:

1. It is an association of workers forming a legal unit to improve their status by united action.
2. It originated in Great Britain focussing to protect and promote the welfare of the employees.
3. Trade Union Movement regulate employer – employee relationship and generally work for better wages, reasonable working hours and safer working conditions.

Activities of a local trade union: Students should visit with few of their classmates (with prior permission from the subject teacher and school authorities and parents) to visit a nearby industry where trade unions are organised by the workers.

They have to meet the trade, union leader and gather information on the activities performed by them in the factory. The collected information should be written down neatly and submit to the subject teacher.

Eg: In general, the following are the few activities performed by the trade union.

1. Negotiate wages.
2. Regulate relationship between workers (employees) and the employers.
3. Raise demand for new uniform, or safer working condition, pure drinking water, sanitary facilities etc.,
4. Protect the workers against discrimination.
5. Protect the workers from exploitation.

Question 2.
Students can compile the activities of the local writers’ associations or women’s collectives.
Answer:
Local writers Association/women collectives: Students should find people who are writers and they write scripts for audio formats, digital media (or) T.V or screenwriters for films. Later, students can collect information about their.

1. Name of their Association.
2. Location.
3. Job site.
4. Nature of work.
5. Year of joining the Association
6. Membership fee
7. Total no. of members
8. Usefulness being the member

and submit in this format to the subject teacher. If students can find women organised themselves as a group, in the above-mentioned format can be used for that also. Eg: Women collectives (self-help group)

They work for their betterment together as a group (Sua Udavi Kuzhu).

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
………………. is also identified as the Indian renaissance.
(a) Historical development
(b) Political development
(c) Economic development
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Historical development

Question 2
Periyar transformed the justice Party into ………….
(a) Akali Dal
(b) Dravidar kazhagam
(c) Swarajya
Answer:
(b) Dravidar kazhagam

Question 3.
The basic inspiration of renaissance is:
(a) Knowledge
(b) Humanism
(c) Painting
(d) Transition
Answer:
(b) Humanism

Question 4.
Vaikom is a place in ……………
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 5.
The introduction of ………………. on Dravidian languages are underpinned the Process of tamil renaissance
(a) Printing press
(b) linguistic research
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) knowledge
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
The Justice Party was established in 1916 by ……………
(a) Periyar
(b) Anna
(c) C. Natesanar, Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal
Answer:
(c) C. Natesanar, Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal

Question 7.
In which year Thirukkural, Tamil literary text to be published?
(a) 1810
(b) 1805
(c) 1808
(d) 1812
Answer:
(d) 1812

Question 8.
Self Respect Movement was started in the year …………….
(a) 1927
(b) 1925
(c) 1930
Answer:
(b) 1925

Question 9.
Who was collected and edited different palm – leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammerand literature?
(a) U.V. Swaminathar
(b) C.W. Damotharanar
(c) Meenakshi Sundaranar
(d) P. Sundaranar
Answer:
(b) C.W. Damotharanar

Question 10.
Devadasi system was abolished by …………..
(a) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy
(b) Ramamirdhan
(c) Dr. S. Dharmambal
Answer:
(a) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy

Question 11.
………………. was popularly known as Vallalar.
(a) Ramalinga Adigal
(b) Parithimar Kalaignar
(c) Thiru.Vi. Ka
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(a) Ramalinga Adigal

Question 12.
Whose name is associated with the ‘Self-Respect’ movement?
(a) Muthulakshmi Reddy
(b) Rajaji
(c) Rettimalai Srinivasan
(d) Periyar
Answer:
(d) Periyar

Question 13.
Who was the first to argue that Tamil is a classical languages?
(a) Parithimar Kalaignar
(b) Maraimalai Adigal
(с) E.V. Ramasamy
(d) M. Singaravelar
Answer:
(a) Parithimar Kalaignar

Question 14.
Whose efforts led to the abolition of the devadasi system?
(a) Muthulakshmi Reddy
(b) Muvalur Ramamirtham
(c) M.C. Rajah
(d) Periyar
Answer:
(a) Muthulakshmi Reddy

Question 15.
Which organisation focused on educating and supporting Non – Brahmin graduates?
(a) Madras Dravidian Association
(b) Tani Tamil Iyakkam
(c) Tamil Isai Iyakkam
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Madras Dravidian Association

Question 16.
Who was the founder of Tani Tamil Iyakkam? (Pure Tamil Movement).
(a) M. Singaravelar
(b) Parithimar Kalaignar
(c) Ramalinga Adigal
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(d) Maraimalai Adigal

Question 17.
In which year Non – Brahmin Manifesto was released?
(a) 1905
(b) 1910
(c) 1912
(d) 1916
Answer:
(d) 1916

Question 18.
In which year the Congress contested the electron for the first time?
(a) 1930
(b) 1933
(c) 1935
(d) 1937
Answer:
(d) 1937

Question 19.
In which year Justice Party Government was the firstto approval participation of women in the electrol politics?
(a) 1910
(b) 1915
(c) 1919
(d) 1921
Answer:
(d) 1921

Question 20.
Which Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment? (HRE)
(a) The Justice Party
(b) The Congress Party
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) The Justice Party

Question 21.
Who was the founder of the Self – Respect Movement?
(a) E.V. Ramasamy
(b) Rajaji
(c) Rettaimalai
(d) none
Answer:
(a) E.V. Ramasamy

Question 22.
In which year Rettaimalai Srinivasan was born?
(a) 1849
(b) 1852
(c) 1855
(d) 1859
Answer:
(d) 1859

Question 23.
Who was one of the prominent leaders from the “depressed class”?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) M.C. Rajah
(c) Rajaji
(d) none
Answer:
(b) M.C. Rajah

Question 24.
Who was a pioneer in the labour movement activities?
(a) M. Singaravelar
(b) M.C. Rajah .
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Rajaji
Answer:
(a) M. Singaravelar

Question 25.
Who was in the forefront of the campaign pressing for legislation to abolish Devadasi system?
(a) Nagammai
(b) Dr. Muthulakshmi
(c) Rukmani
(d) Neelambikai
Answer:
(b) Dr. Muthulakshmi

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. traditions were treated as primitive.
2. ………………. was portrayed as conservative.
3. ………………. brought changes in the socio – cultural life of the Indian sub – continent.
4. Manonmaniam written by ……………….
5. Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of ……………….
6. ………………. an early pioneer in Buddhist revival promoted communism and socialism.
7. ………………. worked in a Journal Siddhanta Deepika.
8. ………………. held high in the radical philosophy.
9. ………………. complied a dictionary that provide pure Tamil equivalent to Sanskirt.
10. The Madras Non – Brahmins Association was founded in ……………….
11. ………………. founded the Madras United League.
12. ………………. won the election and formed the first ever Indian Cabinet in Madras.
13. ………………. later renamed as Madras Dravidian Association to support Dravidian uplift.
14. ………………. became the chief minister of the Madras Presidency during (1920-26).
15. ………………. is the fountain head of the Non – Brahmin Movement in the country.
16. In 1929, the Government of ………………. adopted the pattern and established the public service commission.
17. ………………. proposed a resolution regarding the rights of “Untouchables” to temple entry.
18. ………………. demand for a separate electorates for scheduled castes.
19. ………………. The Chief Minister of Madras State (1952 – 54) introduced to vocational training.
20. ………………. wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.
21. ………………. who had worked for the the progress of the deprived castes.
22. The first All India Trade Union (AITUC) was held in ……………….
23. ………………. demanded abolition of untouchability.
24. ………………. was a pioneer in the Labour Movement Activities.
25. The first Tamil Isai conference was held in ……………….
26. ………………. was one of the important objectives of the Self – Respect Movement.
27. ………………. formed the All India Women’s Conference (AlWC).
28. The Madras ………………. was enacted by the Government.
29. ………………. founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidhya Mahajana Sangam.
30.  ………………. published a Tamil Newspaper Thozhilalan (Worker).

Answers:

1. Indigenous
2. Indian society
3. The rise of Humanism
4. P. Sundaranar
5. Brahminism
6. M. Singaravelar
7. Maraimalai Adigal
8. E.V. Ramasamy
9. Neelambikai
10. 1909
11. C. Natesanar
12. The Justice Party
13. Madras United League
14. A. Subbarayalu
15. The Justice Party
16. British India
17. Periyar
18. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
19. Rajaji
20. Periyar
21. Rettaimalai Srinivasan
22. Bombay
23. M.C. Rajah
24. M. Singaravelar
25. 1943
26. Women’s Liberation
27. Women’s India Association (WIA)
28. Devadasis Act
29. Abraham Pandithar
30. M. Singaravelar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm-leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar.
(ii) Ramalinga Adigal gave prominence to Tamil music.
(iii) Maraimalai Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskirt influence from the Tamil language.
(iv) Muvalur Ramamirtham to became the first women legislator in India in 1926.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Justice Party Rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of Government officials.
(ii) Periyar had a close relationship with Singaravelar who is considered the first communist of South India.
(iii) The anti – Hindi agitation (1932 -1936) had a big impact on Tamil Nadu’s politics.
(iv) Rettaimalai Srinivasan criticised it as Kula Kalvi Thittam and opposed it tooth and nail.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Periyar was keen on the introduction of reservation in representative bodies such as the legislative council for Non – Brahmins.
(ii) All India Women’s Conference (AIWC) in 1937 to address the problem of Non – Brahmins.
(iii) The First World War (1912 -1920) provided stimulus to industrial growth ih India.
(iv) Women’s Liberation was one of the important objectives of Self – Respect Movement.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Rettaimalai Srinivasan who had experienced the horrors of untouchability worked for the progress of the deprive castes.
Reason (R): He served as president of the scheduled castes federations and the Madras Provincial Depressed Classes.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Periyar E.V. Ramasamy was the founder of the Self – Respect movement.
Reason (R): The movement was concerned with the marginalised sections of the society and criticised Brahminism and it advocated a casteless society.
(a) Both A and R are wrong.
(b) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 6.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 7.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 8.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (a)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What are the aims of Self Respect Movement?
Answer:

1. The Self Respect Movement condemned and fought against Brahmin domination over other castes, society, politics and religion.
2. It fought to abolish traditionalism and superstitions.
3. It advocated women education, widow remarriage, inter-caste marriages and opposed child marriage.

Question 2.
Explain about the basic inspiration of renaissance.
Answer:

1. The basic inspiration of renaissance is humanism and questioning the fundamentalist religious practices that denied humans their dignity.
2. This ideology of humanism stimulated creative energy in all spheres of social life and knowledge such as language, literature, philosophy, music, painting, architecture etc.

Question 3.
What were the causes for the failure of the Justice Party?
Answer:

1. The Justice Party came to power when the world was in economic depression.
2. The Nationalist Movement was popular and heading for freedom.
3. Caste and wealth played vital role. Hence the party lost its hold.
4. The rise of congress under the leadership of Ghandhi became a formidable challenge to Jus¬tice Party.

Question 4.
List out a few manuscripts of the Tamil grammar edited by C.W. Damotharanar and U.V. Swaminathar.
Answer:

1. C.W. Domotharanar collected and edited different palm – leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature.
2. His edition included such texts as Tholkappiyam, Viracholiyam, Iraiyanar Akapporul, Illakkana Villakkam, Kaliththokai, and Culamani.
3. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts such as Civakachinthamani, Paththupattu, Chilapathikaram, Purananuru, Purapporul – Venpa – Malai, Manimekalai, Ainkurunuru, and Pathitrupathu.

Question 5.
What was the different official positions hold by Periyar?
Answer:
Periyar held different official positions of Erode that included the chairmanship of Municipal Council, President of the Tamil Nadu Congress and President of the Justice Party.

Question 6.
What was the impact of Tamil language movement in the 20th century?
Answer:
In the 20th century Tamil language movement such as Tani Tamil Iyakkam and Tamil Isai Iyakkam made a significant cultural impact in creating a pure Tamil free from the influence of Sanskrit.

Question 7.
Discuss the work done by the Justice Party towards legislating provisions for communal representation?
Answer:
The Justice Party rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of government officials and encouraged ail the communities to share the administrative powers. This ensured equitable distribution in appointments among various castes and communities as a part of achieving social justice.

Question 8.
Whom was Women’s India Association (WIA) started and what was its work?
Answer:

1. Women’s India Association was started in 1917 by Annie Besant, Dorothy JinaraJadasa and Margaret cousins at Adyar Madras.
2. The Association published pamphlets and bulletins in different languages to detail the problems of personal hygiene, marriage laws, voting rights, child care and women’s role in the public.

Question 9.
Who initiated the Self-Respect movement? What was it about?
Answer:
The Self-Respect movement was initiated by Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy. The movement was concerned with the marginalised sections of the society and criticised Brahminism and the cultural hegemony of the Brahmins. It advocated a casteless society devoid of rituals and difference based on birth. The movement declared rationality and self-respect as the birthright of all human beings and held these as more important than self-rule.

Question 10.
Who worked hard to abolish the Devadasi system?
Answer:
Dr. Muthulakshmi ammaiyar, was in the forefront of the campaign pressing for a legislation to abolish the devadasis system.

The Madras Devasasis (prevention of Dedication) Act 1947 was enacted by the Government.

Question 11.
What was the devadasi system? Why was it abolished?
Answer:
The devadasi system was a custom of dedicating young girls to the Hindu temples as a servant of God. Though intended as a service to God, it soon got corrupted leading to extensive immorality and abuse of the women.

Muthulakshmi Reddi started a campaign pressing for a legislation to abolish this system. Finally, the Madras Devadasis (Prevention of Dedication) was enacted by the government in 1947.

Question 12.
What were the titles given to Rettaimalai Srinivasan?
Answer:
Rettaimalai Srinivasan was honoured with such titles as Rao Sahib (1926), Rao Bahadur (1930) and Divan Bahadur (1936) for his selfless social services.

VI. Answer the question given under each caption

Question 1.
Rise Of the Dravidian Movement

(a) In what situation the Dravidian movement emerged?
Answer:
The Dravidian movement emerged as a defence of the Non – Brahmins against the Brahmin dominance.

(b) When was Madras Non – Brahmin Association formed?
Answer:
In 1909.

(c) Who was founded the Madras United League?
Answer:
C. Natesanar, a medical doctor founded the Madras United League.

(d) What is the main aim of the organisation?
Answer:
The organisation focused on educating and supporting Non – Brahmin graduates and conducting regular meetings to share their grievances.

Question 2.
Self Respect Movement:

(a) Who started the Self Respect Movement?
Answer:
E.V. Ramaswamy Periyar started the self respect movement.

(b) Why did he start?
Answer:
He started it in order to spread and execute his ideas and policies.

(c) When was it started?
Answer:
It was started in 1925.

(d) Name the laws passed by the Government due to the constant struggle of Self Respect Movement.
Answer:
Widow Remarriage Act, Women’s Right to property Act and abolition of Devadasi Act.

Question 3.
M.G. rajah

(a) Who was popularly known as M.C. Rajah?
Answer:
Mylar Chinnathambi Raja, popularly known as M.C. Rajah.

(b) What was his demand?
Answer:
He demanded abolition of untouchability and organised a number of political meetings for the “Untouchable castes” to have access to public wells and pathways to burial grounds.

(c) In which year All India Depressed Classes Association was formed?
Answer:
In 1928.

(d) What was the terms he advocated?
Answer:
He advocated the use of such as terms Adi – Dravida and Adi – Andhra.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain briefly about the self- respect movement.
Answer:

1. The Self- Respect Movement introduced a programme of Non – Brahmin uplift in Tamil Nadu.
2. The movement was concerned with the marginalised sections the society and Criticised Brahminism and the cultural hegemony of the Brahmin.
3. It advocated a casteless society devoid of rituals and diffemeces based on birth.
4. The movement declared rationality and Self – Respect as the birth right of all human beings and held these as more important than self – rule.
5. The movement demanded women’s emancipations, deplored superstition and emphasised rationality.
6. The movement also advocated self – respect marriage.
7. The Self – Respect Movement championed not only the cause of the Non – Brahmin Hindus, but also that of the Muslims.
8. The Self Respect Movement extrolled the lofty principles of Islam such as equity and brotherhood.
9. Muslim elite considered the Tamil Muslims as Dravidian.
10. He wanted the Dravidian Muslim to follow Mustapha Kemal Pasha of Turkey and Amanullah of Afghanistan who initiated reforms in Islamic society.

Question 2.
Give an account of Labour Movements in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The first World War (1914 – 18) provided stimulus to industrial growth India.
2. These industries catering to war time needs, had employed a huge number of workers.
3. At the end of the War there were retrenchments across the industries as the War time requirements receded.
4. Combined with high prices, this gave a momentum to the labour movement.
5. The nationalist realising the value of organised labour power began to supported the cause of labour,
6. B.P. Wadia, M. Singaravelar, ThiruVi. Ka and others initiated the formation of labour unions in the Madras presidency.
7. In 1918 India’s first organised trade union the Madras Labour Union, was formed.
8. The first All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) was held on 31st October 1920 in Bombay.
9. These included a demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes, the maintenance of an unemployment register restriction on exporting food stuffs, compensation for injuries and health Insurance.
10. In addition, the delegates demanded that Indian workers be given some representation in the Government, just as employers, had representatives on legislative councils.
11. M. Singaravelar (1860 – 1946) was a pioneer in the Labour Movement activities in the Madras Presidency.
12. He organised the first over celebration of May Day in 1923.
13. He published a Tamil newspaper Thozhilalan (workers) to address the problem of the working class.

VIII. Draw a time line for the following

Question 1.
Write any five important events between 1905 -1927.
Answer:
Given period: 1905 – 1927

Question 2.
Write any five important events between 1920 -1930.
Answer:
Given period: 1920 – 1930

Question 3.
Write any five important events between 1930 -1947.
Answer:
Given period: 1930 – 1947

Question 4.
Write any five important events between 1931 -1945.
Answer:
Given period: 1931 – 1945

Question 5.
Write any five important events between 1937 -1947.
Answer:
Given period 1937 – 1947

Question 6.
Write any five important events between 1906 -1925.
Answer:
Given period: 1906 – 1925

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Drucker stresses jobs of management.
(a) three
(b) two
(c) four
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) three

Question 2.
Choose the odd one out?
(a) Directing
(b) Motivating
(c) Innovation
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Innovation

Question 3.
…………… harmonises the goal of an individual with the organisation’s goal.
(a) MBO
(b) MBE
(c) MBA
(d) MBM
Answer:
(a) MBO

Question 4.
Indian organised financial system consist of sectors.
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Six
Answer:
(b) Four

Question 5.
Capital market otherwise called as …………..
(a) Securities market
(b) Share market
(c) Debenture market
(d) Money market
Answer:
(a) Securities market

Question 6.
……………………. deals with the financial assets and securities whose maturity period does not exceed one year.
(a) Money market
(b) Capital market
(c) Stock exchange
(d) Government bonds
Answer:
(a) Money market

Question 7.
The consumer is to be protected against any ……………..
(a) unfair practices of trade
(b) family functions
(c) profit making firm
(d) loss in business
Answer:
(a) unfair practices of trade

Question 8.
The National Commission should have members.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(d) 6

Question 9.
………………. is the latest outcome of liberalization.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Foreign collaboration
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Foreign collaboration

Question 10.
A bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker is ……………
(a) promissory note
(b) cheque
(c) hundi
(d) share
Answer:
(b) cheque

Question 11.
The entrepreneurs classified on the basis of types of business are …………….
(i) Industrial entrepreneur
(ii) Technical entrepreneur
(iii) Professional entrepreneur
(iv) Business entrepreneur
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iv)

Question 12.
Board meetings to be conducted minimum times in a year.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 13.
A public company shall have a minimum of ……………. directors.
(a) Twelve
(b) Seven
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 14.
Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to rains capital from the existing shareholders?
(a) Equity shares
(b) Rights shares
(c) Preference shares
(d) Bonus shares
Answer:
(b) Rights shares

Question 15
should cover aspects like sources of finance, technical know-how, source of labours and raw material, market potential and profitability.
(a) Technical Report
(b) Finance Report
(c) Project Report
(d) Progress Report
Answer:
(c) Project Report

Question 16.
Find the odd one out is context of Trading Entrepreneur.
(a) Selling
(b) Commission
(c) Buying
(d) Manufacturing
Answer:
(d) Manufacturing

Question 17.
Which of the below is not classified into managerial function.
(a) Planning
(b) Marketing
(c) Organising
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Organising

Question 18.
Section 6 of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 deals with ……………
(a) Promissory Note
(b) Bills of exchange
(c) Cheque
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Cheque

Question 19.
……………… results from the removal of barriers between national economics to encourage the flow of goods, services, capital and labour.
(a) privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Foreign Trade
Answer:
(c) Globalisation

Question 20.
The state commission can entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services and the compensation, if any claimed exceed.
(a) ₹ 2 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 5 lakhs
(b) ₹ 20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 1 crore
(c) ₹3 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 5 lakhs
(d) ₹ 4 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 20 lakhs
Answer:
(d) ₹ 4 lakhs but does not exceed ₹ 20 lakhs

PART – II

Answer any seven in which Question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of Authority.
Answer:
Authority means the right of a superior to give the order to his subordinates. This is the issue of commands followed responsibility for their consequences.

Question 22.
How is price decided in a secondary market?
Answer:
Financial markets allow for the determination of the price of the traded financial asset through the interaction of buyers and sellers. They provide a signal for the allocation of funds in the economy, based on the demand and supply, through the mechanism called price discovery processes.

Question 23.
What is meant by Remiser?
Answer:
Remiser is an agent of a member of a stock exchange. He obtains business for his principal i.e. the member.

Question 24.
What is Human Resource Management ?
Answer:
Human Resource Management is a function of management concerned with hiring, motivating and maintaining people in an organisation. It focuses on people in an organisation.

Question 25.
Define Marketer.
Answer:
“A person whose duties include the identification of the goods and services desired by a set of consumers, as well as the marketing of those goods and services on behalf of a company”.

Question 26.
What is Caveat Emptor?
Answer:
‘Caveat emptor’ is a Latin term that means “let the buyer beware.” Similar to the phrase “sold as is,” this term means that the buyer assumes the risk that a product fails to meet expectations or have defects.

Question 27.
Expand VUCA.
Answer:
VUCA – volatility, uncertainty, complexity and ambiguity.

Question 28.
What is meant by goods?
Answer:
The term goods mean every kind of movable property other than actionable claim and money.

Question 29.
List down the managerial functions of entrepreneurs.
Answer:

• Planning
• Organising
• Directing
• Controlling
• Coordination

Question 30.
What do you mean by Equity Share?
Answer:
The share of a company which do not have any preferential rights with regard to dividend and repayment of share capital at the time of liquidation of a company, is called as equity share or ordinary share.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the principles of Taylor?
Answer:
Principles of scientific management propounded by Taylor are:

• Science, Not Rule of Thumb
• Harmony, Not Discord
• Mental Revolution
• Cooperation, Not individualism
• Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity.

Question 32.
Write a note on Secondary Market.
Answer:
Secondary Market is the market for securities that are already issued. Stock Exchange is an important institution in the secondary market.

Question 33.
Explain National Stock Market System. (NSMS)
Answer:
National stock market system was advocated by the High Powered Group. It is headed by Shri. Pherwani (popularly known as Pherwani Committee). At present the National Stock Market comprises the following:

• National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE)
• Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL)
• Securities Trading Corporation of India (STCI)

Question 34.
Marketer is an innovator? Do you agree?
Answer:
Marketer seeks to distinguish his products/services by adding additional features or functionalities to the existing product, modifying the pricing structure, introducing new delivery pattern, creating new business models, introducing change in production process and so on.

Question 35.
What is meant by artificial scarcity?
Answer:
There are certain situations where the shop-keepers put up the board ‘No Stock” in front of their shops, even though there is plenty of stock in the store. In such situations consumers who are desperate to buy such goods have to pay hefty price to buy those goods and thus earning more profit unconscientiously.

Question 36.
State the framework of Corporate Governance in India.
Answer:
The Indian Corporate Governance framework requires listed companies

• To have independent directors on the board; At least one third of the directors have to be independent directors.
• To have at least one independent woman director,
• To disclose all deals and payments to related parties.
• To disclose details of managerial compensation.

Question 37.
Discuss the implied conditions and warranties in sale of goods contract.
Answer:
In every contract of sale, there are certain expressed and implied conditions and warranties. The term implied conditions means conditions which can be inferred from or guessed from the context of the contract.Following are the implied conditions:

• Conditions as to Title
• Conditions as to Description
• Sale by Sample
• Conditions as to Quality or Fitness
• Conditions as to Merchantability
• Condition as to Wholesomeness
• Condition Implied by Trade Usage Following are the implied warranties:
• Quiet Possession
• Free from Any Encumbrances
• Warranty in the case of Dangerous Goods

Question 38.
List the commercial functions of Entrepreneur and explain them shortly.
Answer:
Commercial Functions of Entrepreneur:
Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development, product design, etc.

Marketing: Entrepreneur has to carry out following functions pertaining to marketing aspect namely consumer research, product planning and development, standardisation, packaging, pricing, warehousing, distribution, promotion etc.

Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business at a particular day.

Finance: In the sphere of financial function, an entrepreneur has to take decisions like choosing the right type of financing, framipg the best dividend policy, acquiring of funds, efficiently managing fixed and current assets, maximising shareholders wealth and investing of funds efficiently and effectively.

Human Resource Management: Entrepreneur has to estimate the manpower needs of the enterprise and accordingly decide the size of manpower required for various slots of organisational structure.

Question 39.
What is issue of shares at discount? What conditions should be fulfilled?
Answer:
When the shares are issued at a price below the face value they are said to be issued at a discount. For example, a share having the face value of Rs 10 is issued at Rs 8. The companies act 2013, prohibits the issue of shares at discount (Section 53), except sweat Equity share.

Question 40.
What do you understand by ‘Poll’?
Answer:
Poll means tendering or offering vote by ballot to a specially appointed officer, called the polling officer. Under the Companies Act, poll means exercising voting right in proportion to shareholder’s contribution to the paid-up capital of a limited company having a share capital.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the implications of span of management.
Answer:
The Span of Management has two implications:
(i) Influences the complexities of the individual manager’s job.
(ii) Determine the shape or configuration of the Organisation.
The span of management is related to the horizontal levels of the organisation structure. There is a wide and a narrow span of management. With the wider, span, there will be less hierarchical levels, and thus, the organisational structure would be flatter. Whereas, with the narrow span, the hierarchical levels increases, hence the organisational structure would be tall.

• Both these organisational structures have their advantages and the disadvantages. But however the tall organisational structure imposes more challenges.
• Since the span is narrow, which means less number of subordinates under one superior, requires more managers to be employed in the organisation. Thus, it would be very expensive in terms of the salaries to be paid to each senior.
• With more levels in the hierarchy, the communication suffers drastically. It takes a lot of time to reach the appropriate points, and hence the actions get delayed.
• Lack of coordination and control because the operating staff is far away from the top management.

[OR]

(b) What are the functions of Financial Markets?
Answer:
Intermediary Functions
(i) Transfer of Resources: Financial markets facilitate the transfer of real economic resource from lenders to ultimate borrowers.

(ii) Enhancing Income: Financial markets allow lenders earn interest/dividend on their surplus
investible funds and thus contributing to the enhancement of the individual and the national income.

(iiI) Productive Usage: Financial markets allow for the productive use of the funds borrowed and thus enhancing the income and the gross national production.

(iv) Capital Formation: Financial markets provide a channel through which new savings flow to aid capital formation of a country.

(v) Price Determination: Financial markets allow for the determination of the price of the traded financial asset through the interaction of buyers and sellers.

(vi) Sale Mechanism: Financial market provides a mechanism for selling of a financial
asset by an investor so as to offer the benefits of marketability and liquidity of such assets.

(vii) Information: The activities of the participants in the financial market result in the generation and the consequent dissemination of information to the various segments of the markets, so as to reduce the cost of transaction of financial assets.

Financial Functions

• Providing the borrowers with funds so as to enable them to carry out their investment plans.
• Providing the lenders with earning assets so as to enable them to earn wealth by deploying the assets in productive ventures.
• Providing liquidity in the market so as to facilitate trading of funds

Question 42.
(a) Explain the various types of New Financial Institutions.
Answer:
(i) Venture Fund Institutions: Venture capital financing is a form of equity financing designed especially for funding new and innovative project ideas. Venture capital funds bring into force the hi-technology projects which are converted into commercial  production.

(ii) Mutual Funds: Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of small investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’.

(iii) Factoring Institutions: “Factoring” is an arrangement whereby a financial institution provides financial accommodation on the basis of assignment/sale of account receivables.

(iv) Over the Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI): The OTCEI was set up by a premier
financial institution to allow the trading of securities across the electronic counters throughout the country.

(v) National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSEI): NSEI was established in 1992 to function as a model stock exchange. The Exchange aims at providing the advantage of nation-wide electronic screen based “scripless” and “floorless” trading system in securities.

(vi) National Clearance and Depository System (NCDS): Under the scripless trading system, settlement of transactions relating to securities takes place through a book entry.

(vii) National Securities Depositories Limited: The NSDL was set up in the year 1996 for achieving a time bound dematerialization as well as rematerialization of shares.

(viii) Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL): Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL) aims at serving as a central securities depository in respect of transactions on stock exchanges. The Corporation also takes up the administration of clearing functions at a national level.

[OR]

(b) What are the features of Government Securities?
Answer:
(i) Agencies: Government securities are issued by agencies such as Central Government, State Governments, semi-government authorities like local Government authorities.
(ii) RBI Special Role: RBI takes a special and an active role in the purchase and sale of these securities as part of its monetary management exercise.
(iii) Nature of Securities: Securities offer a safe avenue of investment through guaranteed payment of interest and repayment of principal by the Government.
(iv) Liquidity Profile: The liquidity profile of gilt-edged securities varies. Accordingly liquidity profile of securities issued by Central Government is high.
(v) Tax Rebate: A striking feature of these securities is that they offer wide-range of tax incentives to investors.

(vi) Market: As each sale and purchase has to be negotiated separately, the Gilt-Edged Market is an Over-The-Counter Market.
(vii) Forms: The securities of Central and State Government take such forms as inscribed stock or stock certificate, promissory note and bearer bond.
(viii) Participants: The participants in Government securities market include the Government sector comprising Central and State Governments
(ix) Trading: Small and less active, banks and corporate holders who purchase and sell Government securities on the stock exchanges participate in trading.
(x) Issue Mechanism: The Public Debt Office (PDO) of the RBI undertakes to issue government securities.
(xi) Issue opening: A notification for the issue of the securities is made a few days before the public subscription is open.
(xii) Grooming Gradual: It is the acquisition of securities nearing maturity through the stock exchanges by the RBI.
(xiii) Switching: It is the purchase of one security against the sale of another security carried out by the RBI in the secondary market as part of its open market operations.
(xiv) Auctioning: A method of trading whereby merchants bid against one another and where the securities are sold to the highest bidder.

Question 43.
(a) Distinguish between Stock Exchange and Commodity Exchange.
Differences between Stock Exchange and Commodity Exchange.

	Stock Exchange	Commodity Exchange
(0	Meaning: Stock Exchange is an organised market for purchase and sale of industrial and financial securities.	A commodity exchange is an exchange where commodities are purchased and sold. E.g.: Gold, Silver, Rice, Wheat
(ii)	Function: Providing easy marketability.	Offering hedging or price insurance services.
(Hi)	Object: It is facilitating capital formation.	It will facilitate goods flow through risk reduction.
(iv)	Participants: Investors and Speculators are participating in stock exchange.	Producers, dealers, traders are involved in the commodity exchange.
(v)	Articles traded: Industrial securities such as stocks and bonds and government securities.	Only durable and graded goods are traded in this.

[OR]

(b) Differentiate HR from HRM.

S.No.	Human Resource (HR)	Human Resource Management (HRM)
1.	Meaning: Human resource, i.e., the employees create other sources.	Managing the human resource is known as human resource management.
2.	Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.	Human resource management has universal relevance.
3.	Human resource alone can think, act and analyse.	The accomplishment of organisational goal is made possible through human resource in an organisation.
4.	Human resources are movable.	Human resource management is intangible function.
5.	Human resource can work as team.	Human resource management focuses on the development of manpower through training . and development programmes.

Question 44.
(a) Explain the important methods of interview.
Answer:
Interview means a face to face interaction between the interviewer and interviewee.
Interview may be of various types:-

• Preliminary Interview: It is conducted to know the general suitability of the candidates who have applied for the job.
• Structured Interview: In this method, a series of questions is to be asked by the interviewer. The questions may be pre-prepared.
• In depth Interview: This interview is conducted to test the level of knowledge of the interviewee in a particular field.
• Panel Interview: Where a group of people interview the candidate. The panel usually comprises the chair person, subject expert, psychological experts and so on.
• Stress Interview: This type of interview is conducted to test the temperament and emotional balance of the candidate.
• Online Interview: Due to tremendous growth in information and communication technology, interviews are conducted by means of internet via Skype, Google duo, Whatsapp.

[OR]

(b) What is your contribution to promote the market in the modern society?
Answer:
Market is a place where buyers and sellers gather for purchase and sale.
Market may be of Local market, national market and international or Global market.
To develop and promote the market the following are needed:

• Eligible and satisfied and customer is needed.
• Quality and durable goods are to be marketed.
• Recent trends like E-marketing, online marketing are to be encouraged.
• After sales service are to be provided to durable goods.
• Customers are to be financed for buying costly articles.
• New Innovations and marketing research are to be introduced to develop the market.

Question 45.
(a) Discuss any two new methods of marketing with its advantages.
Answer:
Rural Marketing: Rural marketing is a process of developing pricing, promoting and distributing rural specific goods and serv ices leading to exchange with rural customers.There is inflow of goods into rural markets for production and consumption and there is also outflow of products to urban areas.
The rural to urban flow consists of agricultural products like rice, wheat and sugar etc.

Service Marketing: Service marketing is a special branch of marketing. It denotes the processing of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking, insurance, healthcare, tourism and professional services. The service products are mostly intangible. The unique feature of services marketing warrant different strategies compared with the marketing of physical goods.

[OR]

(b) Write about five important consumer legislations.
Answer:
To protect the consumers from the unfair traders, the government passed various legislative Acts – They are follows:

• The Indian Contract Act, 1982 was passed to bind the people on the promise made in the contract.
•  The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 protects the consumers against artificial shortages created by the sellers by hoarding the goods.
• The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 checks the adulteration of food articles and ensures purity of goods supplied.
•  Weights and Measures Act, 1958 protects the consumer against malpractices of underweight dr under measurement.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the term District Forum and explain the functions of District Forum.
Answer:
As per the Consumer Protection Act 1986, a district forum is established in each and every district to solve the problems in the concerned district. Present or Retired district judge is the president of District forum

Functions:

• The complaints relating to the district can be solved by district forum.
• Compensation that can be claimed is less than Rs. 20 lakhs.
• Sometimes the district forum also may pass orders against traders.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between Condition and Warranty.

Basis for Difference	Condition	Warranty
1. Meaning	It is a stipulation which is essential to the main purpose of the contract of sale.	It is a stipulation which is collateral to the main purpose of contract.
2. Significance	Condition is necessary to the contract that the breaking of which cancels out the contract.	The violation of warranty will not revoke the contract.
3. Transfer of Ownership	Ownership on goods cannot be transferred without fulfilling the conditions.	Ownership on goods can be transferred on the buyer without fulfilling the warranty.
4. Remedy	In case of breach of contract, the affected party can cancel the contract and claim damages.	In the case of breach of warranty, the affected party cannot cancel the contract but can claim damages only.
5. Treatment	Breach of condition may be treated as breach of warranty.	Breach of warranty cannot be treated as breach of condition.

Question 47.
(a) Explain the different kinds of endorsements.
Answer:
When the person signs on the back of the instrument to transfer his interest, it is known as endorsement. The endorsement are of various types:

(i) Blank or general endorsement : When the endorser puts his mere signature on the back of an instrument without mentioning the name of the person to whom the endorsement is made, it is called Blank Endorsement

(ii) Endorsement in full or special endorsement: If the endorser, in addition to his signature, mentions the name of the person to whom it is endorsed, is known as endorsement in full or special endorsement.

(iii) Conditional endorsement: When the endorser of a negotiable instrument makes his liability dependent upon the happening of an event which may or may not happen, it is called conditional endorsement.

(iv) Restrictive endorsement : When an endorsement restricts or prohibits further negotiability of the instrument, it is, called Restrictive Endorsement.

(v) Partial Endorsement :Where the endorsement seeks to transfer only a part of the amount payable under the instrument, the endorsement is called Partial Endorsement.

[OR]

(b) Write the difference between Share Certificate and Share Warrant.
Answer:

S.No.	Share Certificate	Share Warrant
1.	A share certificate is an instrument in writing for the legal proof of the ownership.	A share warrant is a negotiable instrument, issued against fully paid up shares.
2.	Every company must issue share certificate to its shareholders.	There is no compulsion of the issue of share warrants by the company.
3.	Normally, the holder of the share certificate is to be the member of the company.	Generally, the holder of the share warrant is not the member of the company.
4.	The share certificate is issued by the company within three months of the allotment of shares.	Shares warrant can be issued only when the shares are fully paid up.
5.	No need to authorized in the Articles of Association to issue share certificate.	The issue of a share warrant must be authorized in the Articles of Association of the company.

 

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four
  alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
• Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in detaiL Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 70

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 x 1 = 15]

Question 1.
Two points A and B are maintained at a potential of 7 V and -4 V respectively. The work done in moving 50 electrons from A to B is …………….
(a) 80 x 10^-17 J
(b) -8.80 x 10^-17 J
(c) 4.40 x 10^-17 J
(d) 5.80 x 10^-17 J
Answer:
(a) 80 x 10^-17 J

Question 2.
The following graph shows current versus voltage values of some unknown conductor. What is the resistance of this conductor?

(a) 2 ohm
(b) 4 ohm
(c) 8 ohm
(d) 1 ohm
Answer:
(a) 2 ohm

Question 3.
Two identical coils, each with N turns and radius R are placed coaxially at a distance R as shown in the figure. If I is the current passing through the loops in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point P which is at exactly at  R/2 distance between two coils is …………..

Answer:

Question 4.
An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown in the figure. The coil abed is adjacent to the path of the electron. What will be the direction of current, if any, induced in the coil?

(a) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
(b) No current will be induced
(c) abcd
(d) adcb
Answer:
(a) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil

Question 5.
The resistance of an ideal ammeter is ……………
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) high
(d) infinite
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 6.
In a step-down transformer the input voltage is 22 kV and the output voltage is 550 V. The ratio of the number of turns in the secondary to that in the primary is ……………
(a) 1 : 20
(b) 20 : 1
(c) 1 : 40
(d) 40 : 1
Answer:
(c) 1 : 40

Question 7.
If the magnetic monopole exists, then which of the Maxwell’s equation to be modified?

Answer
\(\oint \overrightarrow { { E } } \cdot d\overrightarrow { { A } } =0\)

Question 8.
An air bubble in glass slab of refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness of the slab is,
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 16 cm
Answer:
(c) 12 cm
Hint. Let d₁ = 5 cm and d₂ = 3 cm ; n = 1.5
Actual width is the sum of real depth from 2 sides
Thickness of slab = d₁n + d₂n
= (5 x 1.5) +(3 x 1.5)= 12 cm

Question 9.
When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air
(a) its wavelength decreases
(b) its wavelength increases
(c) its frequency increases
(d) neither its wavelength nor its frequency changes
Answer:
(a) its wavelength decreases
Hint: \(Wavelength,\lambda =\frac { { Velocity } }{ { Frequency } } =\frac { u }{ v } \)
When light travels from air to glass, frequency ν remains unchanged, velocity u decreases and hence wave length λ also decreses

Question 10.
A particle of mass 3 x 10^-6 g has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity
6 x 10⁶ m s^-1. The velocity of the particle is…………………………………………
(a) 1.82 x 10^-18 ms^-1
(b) 9 x 10^-2 ms^-1
(c) 3 x 10^-31 ms^-1
(d) 1.82 x 10¹⁵ ms^-1
Answer:
(d) 1.82 x 10¹⁵ ms^-1
Hint: de – Broglie wavelength of electron

Question 11.
If the nuclear radius of ²⁷A1 is 3.6 fermi, the approximate unclear radius of ⁶⁴Cu is
(a) 2.4
(b) 1.2
(c) 4.8
(d) 3.6
Answer:
(c) 4.8
Hint :

Question 12.
Energy of characteristic X-ray is a consequence of ………….
(a) energy of projectile electron
(b) thermal energy of target
(c) transition in target atoms
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) transition in target atoms

Question 13.
The specific characteristic of a common emitter amplifier is ……………
(a) High input resistance
(b) Low power gain
(c) Signal phase reversal
(d) Low current gain
Answer:
(c) Signal phase reversal

Question 14.
The variation of frequency of carrier wave with respect to the amplitude of the modulating signal is called ………………
(a) Amplitude modulation
(b) Frequency modulation
(c) Phase modulation
(d) Pulse width modulation
Answer:
(b) Frequency modulation

Question 15.
The particle size of ZnO material is 30 nm. Based on the dimension it is classified as ……………..
(a) Bulk material
(b) Nanomaterial
(c) Soft material
(d) Magnetic material
Answer:
(b) Nanomaterial

Part – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No 17 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Write a short note on the superposition principle.
Answer:
According to this superposition principle, the total force acting on a given charge is equal to the vector sum of forces exerted on it by all the other charges.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1}^{\mathrm{tot}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{13}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{14}+\cdots+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1 n}\)

Question 17.
If an electric field of magnitude 570 N C^-1, is applied in the copper wire, find the acceleration experienced by the electron.
Answer:

Question 18.
State Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
The line integral of magnetic field over a closed loop is p0 times net current enclosed by the loop.
\(\oint_{C} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}_{\text {enclosed }}\)

Question 19.
Write down the equation for a sinusoidal voltage of §0 Hz and its peak value is 20 V. Draw the corresponding voltage versus time graph.
Answer:

Question 20.
What is displacement current?
Answer:
The displacement current can be defined as the current which comes into play in the region in which the electric field and the electric flux are changing with time.

Question 21.
Why do clouds appear white?
Answer:
Clouds have large particles like dust and water droplets which scatter light of all colours almost equally. Hence clouds generally appear white.

Question 22.
How many photons per second emanate from a 50 mW laser of 640 nm?
Answer:

Question 23.
An ideal diode and a 5 Ω resistor are connected in series with a 15 V power supply as shown in figure below. Calculate the current that flows through the diode.
Answer:
The diode is forward biased and it is an ideal one. Hence, it acts like a closed switch with no barrier voltage.Therefore, current that flows through the diode can be calculated using Ohm’s law.

V = IR
\(I=\frac{V}{R}=\frac{15}{5}=3 \mathrm{A}\)

Question 24.
What do you mean by Internet of Things?
Answer:
Internet of Things (IoT), it is made possible to control various devices from a single device. Example: home automation using a mobile phone.

Part – III

Answer any six questions in which Q.No. 26 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Define electrostatic potential energy?
Answer:
The potential energy of a system of point charges may be defined as the amount of work done in assembling the charges at their locations by bringing them in from infinity.

Question 26.
If the resistance of coil is 3 Ω at 20°C and a = 0.004/°C then determine its resistance at 100°C.
Answer:
R₀ =3Ω = 100°C, T₀ = 20°C
α = 0.004/°C, R_T = ?
Rr= R₀(1+∝ (T-T₀))
R₁₀₀ = 3(1 + 0.004 x 80)
⇒ R₁₀₀ = 3(1 + 0.32)
R₁₀₀= 3(1.32)
⇒ R₁₀₀ = 3.96 Ω

Question 27.
State ‘Tangent Law’.
Answer:
When a magnetic needle or magnet is freely suspended in two mutually perpendicular uniform magnetic fields, it will come to rest in the direction of the resultant of the two fields.

Question 28.
What are step-up and step-down transformers?
Answer:
If the transformer converts an alternating current with low voltage into an alternating current with high voltage, it is called step-up transformer. On the contrary, if the transformer converts alternating current with high voltage into an alternating current with low voltage, then it is called step-down transformer.

Question 29.
One type of transparent glass has refractive index 1.5. What is the speed of light through this glass?
Answer:

Question 30.
What is a photo cell? Mention the different types of photocells.
Answer:
Photocells: Photo electric cell or photo cell is a device which converts light energy into electrical energy. It works on the principle of photo electric effect.
Types:

• Photo emissive cell
• Photo voltaic cell
• Photo conductive cell

Question 31.
Half lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. Initially, the samples have equal number of nuclei. Calculate the ratio of decayed numbers of A and B nuclei after 80 minutes.
Answer:
80 minutes = 4 half lives of A = 2 half live of B
Let the initial number of nuclei in each sample be N.

Question 32.
Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors.
Answer:

Intrinsic	Extrinsic
These are pure semiconducting tetravalent crystals.	These are semiconducting tetravalent crystals doped with impurity atoms group III (or) V
Their electrical conductivity is low.	Their electrical conductivity is high.
There is no permitted energy state between valence and conduction band.	There is no permitted energy state of the impurity atom between valence and conduction band.
Their electrical conductivity depends on temperature.	Their electrical conductivity depends on temperature as well as dopant concentration.

Question 33.
Distinguish between Nanoscience and Nanotechnology.
Answer:

Nanoscience	Nanotechnology
Nanoscience is the science of objects with typical sizes of 1-100 nm. Nano means one- billionth of a metre that is 10-9 m. If matter is divided into such small objects the mechanical, electrical, optical, magnetic and other properties change.	Nanotechnology is a technology involv­ing the design, production, characteriza­tion, and applications of nano structured materials.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Obtain the expression for electric field due to an uniformly charged spherical shell. Electric field due to a uniformly charged
Answer:
spherical shell: Consider a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R and total charge Q. The electric field at points outside and inside the sphere is found using Gauss law.

Case (a) At a point outside the shell (r > R): Let us choose a point P outside the shell at a distance r from the center as shown in figure (a). The charge is uniformly distributed on the surface of the sphere (spherical symmetry). Hence the electric field must point radially
outward if Q > 0 and point radially inward if Q < 0. So we choose a spherical Gaussian surface of radius r and the total charge enclosed by this Gaussian surface is Q. Applying Gauss law,

The electric field \(\overrightarrow { { E } } { and }\quad d\overrightarrow { { A } } \) point in the same direction (outward normal) at all the points on the Gaussian surface. The magnitude of \(\overrightarrow { { E } } \) is also the same at all points due to the spherical symmetry of the charge distribution.

But = total area of Gaussian surface  = 4πr² Substituting this value in equation (2)

 

The electric field is radially outward if Q > 0 and radially inward if Q < 0. From equation (3), we infer that the electric field at a point outside the shell will be same as if the entire charge Q is concentrated at the center of the spherical shell. (A similar result is observed in gravitation, for gravitational force due to a spherical shell with mass M)

Case (b): At a point on the surface of the spherical shell (r = R): The electrical field at points on the spherical shell (r = R) is given by
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{Q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} R^{2}} \hat{r}\) ………. (4)

Case (c) At a point inside the spherical shell (r < R): Consider a point P inside the shell at a distance r from the center. A Gaussian sphere of radius r is constructed as shown in the figure (b). Applying Gauss law.

Since Gaussian surface encloses no charge, So Q = 0. The equation (5) becomes
E = 0    (r < R)  ………….. (6)
The electric field due to the uniformly charged spherical shell is zero at all points inside the shell.

[OR]

(b) Obtain the condition for bridge balance in Wheatstone’s bridge.
Answer:

An important application of Kirchhoff’s rules is the Wheatstone’s bridge. It is used to compare resistances and also helps in determining the unknown resistance in electrical network. The bridge consists of four resistances P, Q, R and S connected. A galvanometer G is connected between the points B and D. The battery is connected between the points A and C. The current through the galvanometer is I_G and its resistance is G.
Applying Kirchhoff’s current rule to junction B.
I₁ – I_G – I₃ = 0   ………….. (1)
Applying Kirchhoff’s current rule to junction D.
I₂ + I_G – I₄ = 0   ………….. (2)
Applying Kirchhoff’s voltage rule to loop ABDA,
I₁P + I_GG – I₂R = 0  ………….. (3)
Applying Kirchhoff’s voltage rule to loop ABCDA,
I₁P + I₃Q – I₄S – I₂R = 0  ………….. (4)
When the points B and D are at the same potential, the bridge is said to be balanced. As there is no potential difference between B through galvanometer (I_Q = 0). Substituting I_G = 0 in equation, (1), (2) and (3), we get
I₁ = I₃  ………………….. (5)
I₁ = I₄ ……………………. (6)
I₁P =I₂R ……………….(7)
Substituting the equation (5) and (6) in equation (4)
I₁P + I₁Q – I₁S – I₁R = 0
I₁( P + Q) = I₂( P + S) …………………(8)
Dividing equation (7)

This is the bridge balance condition. Only under this condition, galvanometer shows null deflection. Suppose we know the values of two adjacent resistances, the other two resistances can be compared. If three of the resistances are known, the value of unknown resistance  (fourth one) can be determined.

Question 35.
(a) Obtain the magnetic induction at a point on the equatorial line of a bar magnet. Magnetic field at a point along the equatorial line due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet)
Answer:
Consider a bar magnet NS. Let N be the north pole and S be the south pole of the bar magnet, each with pole strength q_m and separated by a distance of 21. The magnetic field at a point C (lies along the equatorial line) at a distance r from the geometrical center O of the bar magnet can be computed by keeping unit north pole (q_mC = 1 A m) at C. The force experienced by the unit north pole at C due to pole strength N-S can be computed using Coulomb’s law of magnetism as follows:

The force of repulsion between North Pole of the bar magnet and unit north pole at point C (in free space) is
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{N}}=-\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{N}} \cos \theta \hat{i}+\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{N}} \sin \theta \hat{j}\) ……………. (1)
Where \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{S}}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{q_{m}}{r^{\prime 2}}\) . The force of attraction (in free space) between south pole of the bar magnet and unit north pole at point C is

From equation (1) and equation (2), the net force at point C is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{N}}+\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{S}}\). This net force is equal to the magnetic field at the point C.

If the distance between two poles in a bar magnet are small (looks like short magnet) when compared to the distance between geometrical center O of bar magnet and the location of point C i.e., r>> l, then,

Therefore , using equation (7) in equation (6) ,we get
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\text {equatorial }}=-\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{p_{m}}{r^{3}} \hat{i}\)
Since in genaral , the magnetic filed at equatorial points is given by

Note that magnitude of B_axial is twice that of magnitude of B_equatoral and the direction of B_axial and B_equatoral are opposite.

[OR]

Question 35.
(b) Give the advantage of AC in long distance power transmission with an example.
Answer:
Advantages of AC in long distance power transmission: Electric power is produced in a large scale at electric power stations with the help of AC generators. These power stations are classified based on the type of fuel used as thermal, hydro electric and nuclear power stations. Most of these stations are located at remote places. Hence the electric power generated is transmitted over long distances through transmission lines to reach towns or cities where it is actually consumed. This process is called power transmission.

But there is a difficulty during power transmission. A sizable fraction of electric power is lost due to Joule heating (i²R) in the transmission lines which are hundreds of kilometer long. This power loss can be tackled either by reducing current I or by reducing resistance R of the transmission lines. The resistance R can be reduced with thick wires of copper or aluminium. But this increases die cost of production of transmission lines and other related expenses. So this way of reducing power loss is not economically viable.

Since power produced is alternating in nature, there is a way out. The most important property of alternating voltage is that it can be stepped up and stepped down by using transformers could be exploited in reducing current and thereby reducing power losses to a greater extent. At the transmitting point, the voltage is increased and the corresponding current is decreased by using step-up transformer.

Then it is transmitted through transmission lines. This reduced current at high voltage reaches the destination without any appreciable loss. At the receiving point, the voltage is decreased and the current is increased to appropriate values by using step-down transformer and then it is given to consumers. Thus power transmission is done efficiently and economically.

Illustration: An electric power of 2 MW is transmitted to a place through transmission lines of total resistance, say R = 40 Ω, at two different voltages. One is lower voltage (10 kV) and the other is higher (100 kV). Let us now calculate and compare power losses in these two cases.

Case (i) : P = 2 MW; R = 40 Ω; V = 10 kV
Power, P= VI
Power loss = Heat produced = I²R = (200)² x 40 = 1.6 x 10⁶ W
% of power loss = \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{6}}{2 \times 10^{6}} \times 100 \%\) = 0.8 x 100% = 80%

Case (ii): P = 2 MW; R = 40 Ω; V = 100 kV
∴ Current, \(I=\frac{P}{V}=\frac{2 \times 10^{6}}{100 \times 10^{3}}=20 \mathrm{A}\)
Power loss = Heat produced = I²R = (20)² x 40 = 0.016 x 10⁶ W
% of power loss = \(\frac{0.016 \times 10^{6}}{2 \times 10^{6}} \times 100 \%=\) = 0.008 x 100% = 0.8%

Question 36.
(a) What is emission spectra? Give their types.
Answer:
Emission spectra: When the spectrum of self luminous source is taken, we get emission spectrum. Each source has its own characteristic emission spectrum. The emission spectrum can be divided into three types:

(i) Continuous emission spectra (or continuous spectra): If the light from incandescent lamp (filament bulb) is allowed to pass through prism (simplest spectroscope), it splits into seven colours. Thus, it consists of wavelengths containing all the visible colours ranging from violet to red. Examples: spectrum obtained from carbon arc, incandescent solids, liquids gives continuous spectra.

(ii) Line emission spectrum (or line spectrum): Suppose light from hot gas is allowed to pass through prism, line spectrum is observed. Line spectra are also known as discontinuous spectra. The line spectra are sharp lines of definite wavelengths or frequencies. Such spectra arise due to excited atoms of elements. These lines are the characteristics of the element which means it is different for different elements. Examples: spectra of atomic hydrogen, helium, etc

(iii) Band emission spectrum (or band spectrum): Band spectrum consists of several number of very closely spaced spectral lines which overlapped together forming specific bands which are separated by dark spaces, known as band spectra. This spectrum has a sharp edge at one end and fades out at the other end. Such spectra arise when the molecules are excited. Band spectrum is the characteristic of the molecule hence, the structure of the molecules can be studied using their band spectra. Examples, spectra of hydrogen gas, ammonia gas in the discharge tube etc.

[OR]

(b) Obtain the equation for radius of illumination (or) Snell’s window.
Answer:
The radius of Snell’s window can be deduced with the illustration as shown in figure. Light is seen from a point A at a depth d. The Snell’s law in product form, equation n₂ sin i = n₂ sin r for the refraction happening at the point B on the boundary between the two media is,
n₁ sin i_c = n₂ sin 90° ………………. (1)
n₁ sin i_c = n₂
∵ sin 90° = 1
sin i_c = \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\) ………………….(2)
From the right angle triangle ΔABC,

Question 37.
(a) Explain why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light.
Failures of classical wave theory:
Answer:
From Maxwell’s theory, light is an electromagnetic wave consisting of coupled electric and magnetic oscillations that move with the speed of light and exhibit typical wave behaviour. Let us try to explain the experimental observations of photoelectric effect using wave picture of light.

When light is incident on the target, there is a continuous supply of energy to the electrons. According to wave theory, light of greater intensity should impart greater kinetic energy to the liberated electrons (Here, Intensity of light is the energy delivered per unit area per unit time). But this does not happen. The experiments show that maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons does not depend on the intensity of the incident light.

According to wave theory, if a sufficiently intense beam of light is incident on the surface, electrons will be liberated from the surface of the target, however low the frequency of the radiation is. From the experiments, we know that photoelectric emission is not possible below a certain minimum frequency. Therefore, the wave theory fails to explain the existence of threshold frequency.

Since the energy of light is spread across the wavefront, the electrons which receive energy from it are large in number. Each electron needs considerable amount of time (a few hours) to get energy sufficient to overcome the work function and to get liberated from the surface. But experiments show that photoelectric emission is almost instantaneous process (the time lag is less than 10^-9 s after the surface is illuminated) which could not be explained by wave theory.

[or]

(b) Obtain the law of radioactivity.
Answer:
Law of radioactive decay:
At any instant t, the number of decays per unit time, called rate of decay \(\left(\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t}\right) \) to the number of nuclei at the same instant.
\(\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t} \propto \mathrm{N}\)

By introducing a proportionality constant, the relation can be written as
\(\frac{d \mathrm{N}}{d t}=-\lambda \mathrm{N}\) ……………………. (1)

Here proportionality constant X is called decay constant which is different for different radioactive sample and the negative sign in the equation implies that the N is decreasing with time. By rewriting the equation (1), we get
dN = -XNdt …………… (2)

Here dN represents the number of nuclei decaying in the time interval dt. Let us assume that at time t = 0 s, the number of nuclei present in the radioactive sample is N_o. By integrating the equation (2), we can calculate the number of undecayed nuclei N at any time t.
From equation (2), we get

N = N_o e^-λt …………… (4)
[Note: e^lnx = e^y ⇒ x = e^y ]
Equation (4) is called the law of radioactive decay. Here N denotes the number of undecayed nuelei present at any time t and N₀ denotes the number of nuclei at initial time t = 0. Note that the number of atoms is decreasing exponentially over the time. This implies that the time taken for all the radioactive nuclei to decay will be infinite. Equation (4) is plotted.

We can also define another useful quantity called activity (R) or decay rate which is the number of nuclei decayed per second and it is denoted as R = \(R=\left| \frac { dN }{ dt } \right| \)

Note : That activity R is a positive quantity. From equation (4), we get.

The equation (6) is also equivalent to radioactive law of decay. Here R₀ is the activity of the sample at t = 0 and R is the activity of the sample at any time t. From equation (6), activity also shows exponential decay behavior. The activity R also can be expressed in terms of number of undecayed atoms present at any time t. From equation (6), since N = N₀ e ^-λt we write
R = λN    ………………… (7)
Equation (4) implies that the activity at any time t is equal to the product of decay constant and number of undecayed nuclei at the same time t. Since N decreases over time, R also decreases.

Question 38.
(a) Explain the construction and working of a full wave rectifier.
Answer:
Full wave rectifier:
The positive and negative half cycles of the AC input signal pass through the full wave rectifier circuit and hence it is called the full wave rectifier. It consists of two p-n junction diodes, a center tapped transformer, and a load resistor (R_L). The centre is usually taken as the ground or zero voltage reference point. Due to the centre tap transformer, the output voltage rectified by each diode is only one half of the total secondary voltage.

During positive half cycle:
When the positive half cycle of the ac input signal passes through the circuit, terminal M is positive, G is at zero potential and N is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D₁ and reverse biases diode D₂. Hence, being forward biased, diode D₁ conducts and current flows along the path MD₁ AGC As a result, positive half cycle of the voltage appears across R_L in the direction G to C.

During negative half cycle:
When the negative half cycle of the ac input signal passes through the circuit, terminal N is positive, G is at zero potential and M is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D, and reverse biases diode D_r Hence, being forward biased, diode D₂ conducts and current flows along the path ND₂ BGC. As a result, negative half cycle of the voltage appears across R_L in the same direction from G to C

Hence in a full wave rectifier both positive and negative half cycles of the input signal pass through the circuit in the same direction as shown in figure Though both positive and negative half cycles of ac input are rectified, the output is still pulsating in nature. The efficiency (r|) of full wave rectifier is twice that of a half wave rectifier and is found to be 81.2 %. It is because both the positive and negative half cycles of the ac input source are rectified.

[OR]

(b) Explain the three modes of propagation of electromagnetic waves through space. Propagation of electromagnetic waves:
Answer:
The electromagnetic wave transmitted by the transmitter travels in three different modes to reach the receiver-according to its frequency range:
(i) Ground wave propagation (or) surface wave propagation (nearly 2 kHz to 2 MHz)
(ii) Sky wave propagation (or) ionospheric propagation (nearly 3 MHz to 30 MHz)
(iii) Space wave propagation (nearly 30 MHz to 400 GHz)

(i) Ground wave propagation
If the electromagnetic waves transmitted by the transmitter glide over the surface of the earth to reach the receiver, then the propagation is called ground wave propagation. The corresponding waves are called ground waves or surface waves.

 

Increasing distance: The attenuation of the signal depends on

• power of the transmitter
• frequency of the transmitter, and
• condition of the earth surface.

Absorption of energy by the Earth: When the transmitted signal in the form of EM wave is in contact with the Earth, it induces charges in the Earth and constitutes a current. Due to this, the earth behaves like a leaky capacitor which leads to the attenuation of the wave.

Tilting of the wave: As the wave progresses, the wavefront starts gradually tilting according to the curvature of the Earth. This increase in the tilt decreases the electric field strength of the wave. Finally, at some distance, the surface wave dies out due to energy loss.

The frequency of the ground waves is mostly less than 2 MHz as high frequency waves undergo more absorption of energy at the earth’s atmosphere. The medium wave signals received during the day time use surface wave propagation.

It is mainly used in local broadcasting, radio navigation, for ship-to-ship, ship-to-shore communication and mobile communication.

(ii) Sky Wave Propagation:
The mode of propagation in which the electromagnetic waves radiated from an antenna, directed upwards at large angles gets reflected by the ionosphere back to earth is called sky wave propagation or ionospheric propagation. The corresponding waves are called sky waves.

The frequency range of EM waves in this mode of propagation is 3 to 30 MHz. EM waves of frequency more than 30 MHz can easily penetrate through the ionosphere and does not undergo reflection. It is used for short wave broadcast services. Medium and high frequencies are for long-distance radio communication. Extremely long distance communication, is also possible as the radio waves can undergo multiple reflections between the earth and the ionosphere. A single reflection helps the radio waves to travel a distance of approximately 4000 km.

Ionosphere acts as a reflecting surface. It is at a distance of approximately 50 km and spreads up to 400 km above the Earth surface. Due to the absorption of ultraviolet rays, cosmic ray, and other high energy radiations like a, (3 rays from sun, the air molecules in the ionosphere get ionized. This produces charged ions and these ions provide a reflecting medium for the reflection of radio waves or communication waves back to earth within the permitted frequency range. The phenomenon of bending the radio waves back to earth is nothing but the total internal reflection.

(iii) Space wave propagation:
The process of seeding and receiving information signal through space is called space wave communication. The electromagnetic waves of very high frequencies above 30 MHz are called as space waves. These waves travel in a straight line from the transmitter to the receiver. Hence, it is used for a line of sight communication (LOS).

For high frequencies, the transmission towers must be high enough so that the transmitted and received signals (direct waves) will not encounter the curvature of the earth and hence travel with less attenuation and loss of signal strength. Certain waves reach the receiver after getting reflected from the ground.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 7 Atoms and Molecules Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 7 Atoms and Molecules

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Atoms and Molecules Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following has the smallest mass?
(a) 6.023 × 10²³ atoms of He
(b) 1 atom of He
(c) 2 g of He
(d) 1-mole atoms of He
Answer:
(b) 1 atom of He

Question 2.
Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Helium
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen.
Answer:
(c) Carbon dioxide
Hint:
(a) Glucose = C₆H₁₂O₆ (Polyatomic molecule)
(b) Helium = He (Monoatomic molecule)
(c) Carbon dioxide = CO₂ (Triatomic molecule)
(d) Hydrogen = H₂ (Diatomic molecule)
So, (c) is the correct answer.

Question 3.
The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO₂ at S.T.P:
(a) 22.4 litre
(b) 2.24 litre
(c) 0.24 litre
(d) 0.1 litre
Answer:
(b) 2.24 litre

Question 4.
Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is _____.
(a) 28 amu
(b) 14 amu
(c) 28 g
(d) 14 g.
Answer:
(b) 14 amu
Hint: Atomic mass of Nitrogen is 14.00674 grams. It is equal to 1 mole of Nitrogen atoms.
So, answer (b) is correct.

Question 5.
Which of the following represents 1 amu?
(a) Mass of a C – 12 atom
(b) Mass of a hydrogen atom
(c) 1/12 th of the mass of a C – 12 atom
(d) Mass of O – 16 atom
Answer:
(c) 1/12 th of the mass of a C – 12 atom

Question 6.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
(b) One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.
(c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
(d) One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 10²³ electrons.
Answer:
(a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
Hint: 12 g of Carbon contains 6.023 × 10²³ atoms,
1 g of Carbon contain \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{12}\) = 5.018 × 10²² atoms and its is not Avogadro’s number of atoms.
So (a) is the incorrect statement.

Question 7.
The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is:
(a) 11.2 litre
(b) 5.6 litre
(c) 22.4 litre
(d) 44.8 litre
Answer:
(c) 22.4 litre

Question 8.
In the nucleus of ₂₀Ca⁴⁰, there are
(a) 20 protons and 40 neutrons
(b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
(c) 20 protons and 40 electrons
(d) 40 protons and 20 electrons
Answer:
(b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons

Question 9.
The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is_____.
(a) 16 g
(b) 18 g
(c) 32 g
(d) 17 g.
Answer:
(c) 32 g
Hint: By definition, the gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule O₂ is 32 g.
So the answer (c) is correct.

Question 10.
1 mole of any substance contains molecules.
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.023 × 10^-23
(c) 3.0115 × 10²³
(d) 12.046 × 10²³
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Atoms of different elements having ……… mass number, but ………. atomic numbers are called isobars.
2. Atoms of different elements having same number of ………. are called isotones.
3. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other element by ………….
4. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons of an atom is called its …………
5. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known as …………
6. The average atomic mass of hydrogen is ……….. amu.
7. If a molecule is made of similar kind of atoms, then it is called ……….. atomic molecule.
8. The number of atoms present in a molecule is called its ………….
9. One mole of any gas occupies ………… ml at S.T.P
10. Atomicity of phosphorous is …………
Answer:
1. same, different
2. neutrons
3. artificial transmutation
4. mass number
5. standard atomic weight
6. 1.008
7. homo
8. atomicity
9. 22, 400
10. four

III. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Two elements sometimes can form more than one compound.
2. Nobel gases are diatomic.
3. The gram atomic mass of an element has no unit.
4. 1 mole of Gold and Silver contain same number of atoms.
5. Molar mass of CO₂ is 42 g.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Noble gases are Monoatomic.
3. False – The unit of gram atomic mass of an element is gram.
4. True
5. False – Molar mass of CO₂ is 44 g.

V. Assertion and Reason:

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
Question 1.
Assertion: Atomic mass of aluminium is 27
Reason: An atom of aluminium is 27 times heavier than 1/12 th of the mass of the C-12 atom.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: The Relative Molecular Mass of Chlorine is 35.5 a.m.u.
Reason: The natural abundance of Chlorine isotopes are not equal.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Define: Relative atomic mass.
Answer:
Relative atomic mass of an element is the ratio between the average mass of its isotopes to \(\frac{1}{12^{th}}\)part of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. It is denoted as A_r.
[OR]

Question 2.
Write the different types of isotopes of oxygen and its percentage abundance.
Answer:
Oxygen has three stable isotopes. They are

Question 3.
Define Atomicity.
Answer:
The number of atoms present in the molecule is called its ‘Atomicity’.

Question 4.
Give any two examples for heteroatomic molecules.
Answer:
HI, HCl, CO, HBr, HF.

Question 5.
What is Molar volume of a gas?
Answer:
One mole of any gas occupies 22.4 litres.
(or)
22400 ml at S.T.R This volume is called as molar volume.

Question 6.
Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia.
Answer:
Molar mass of NH₃ = 1(14) + 3(1) = 17 g

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water which weighs 0.18 g.
Answer:
The molecular mass of water (H₂O) is 18.
18 g of water molecule = 1 mole.
0. 18 g of water = \(\frac{1}{18} \times 0.18\) = 0.01 mole.
1 mole of water (Avogadro’s number) contains 6.023 × 10²³ water molecules.
0. 01 mole of water contain \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{1} \times 0.01\) = 6.023 × 10²¹ molecules.

Question 2.
N₂ + 3 H₂ → 2 NH₃
(The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14, and that of hydrogen is 1)
1 mole of nitrogen (……..g) +
3 moles of hydrogen (………g) →
2 moles of ammonia (………g)
Answer:
1 mole of nitrogen (28 g) +
3 moles of hydrogen (6 g) →
2 moles of ammonia (34 g)

Question 3.
Calculate the number of moles in
(i) 27 g of Al;
(ii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of NH₄Cl.
Answer:
(i) 27 g of Al
Given mass atomic mass = \(\frac{Given Mass}{Atomic Mass}\) = \(\frac{27}{27}\)
= 1 mole

(ii) 1.51 x 10²³ molecules of NH₄Cl
Number of moles

Question 4.
Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.
Answer:
The salient features of “Modem atomic theory” are,

1. An atom is no longer indivisible.
2. Atoms of the same element may have different atomic mass.
3. Atoms of different elements may have the same atomic masses.
4. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements. In other words, an atom is no longer indestructible.
5. Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole-number ratio.
6. Atom is the smallest particle that takes part in a chemical reaction.
7. The mass of an atom can be converted into energy [E = mc²].

Question 5.
Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
Answer:
Relative molecular mass : The relative molecular mass of a gas or vapour is the ratio between the mass of one molecule of the gas or vapour to mass of one atom of hydrogen.
Vapour density : Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen, measured under the same conditions of temperature and pressure.

According to Avogadro’s law equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.
Let the number of molecules in one volume = n, then

When cancelling ‘n’ which is common at STP, we get

Since hydrogen is diatomic,

2 × Vapour density = Relative Molecular mass of a gas
[OR]
Relative Molecular Mass = 2 × Vapour density

VIII. HOT Question:

Question 1.
Calcium carbonate is decomposed on heating in the following reaction
CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

1. How many moles of Calcium carbonate is involved in this reaction?
2. Calculate the gram molecular mass of calcium carbonate involved in this reaction.
3. How many moles of CO₂ are there in this equation?

Answer:
CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

1. 1 mole of CaCO₃ is involved in this reaction.
2. Gram molecular mass of calcium carbonate
   CaCO₃ = (40 + 12 + 3 × 16) = 52 + 48 = 100 g
3. 1 mole of CO₂ is in this equation.

IX. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
How many grams are there in the following?
(i) 2 moles of a hydrogen molecule, H₂
(ii) 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl₂
(iii) 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S₈
(iv) 4 moles of a phosphorous molecule, P₄
Solution:
(i) 2 moles of a hydrogen molecule, H₂
Mass of 1 mole of hydrogen molecule = 2 g
Mass of 2 moles of hydrogen molecule = 2 × 2 = 4 g.

(ii) 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl₂
Mass of 1 mole of chlorine molecule = 71 g
Mass of 3 moles of chlorine molecules = 71 × 3 = 213 g.

(iii) 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S₈
Mass of 1 mole of sulphur molecule = 32 g
Mass of 5 moles of sulphur molecules = 32 × 5 = 160 g.

(iv) 4 moles of the phosphorous molecule, P₄
Mass of 1 mole of phosphorous molecule = 30.97 g
Mass of 4 moles of phosphorous molecules = 30.97 × 4 = 123.88 g.

Question 2.
Calculate the % of each element in calcium carbonate. (Atomic mass: C – 12, O – 16, Ca – 40)
Answer:
Formula to find % of each element

Question 3.
Calculate the % of oxygen in Al₂(SO₄)₃.
(Atomic mass: Al – 27, O – 16, S – 32)
Answer:
Formula:

Molar mass of Al₂(SO₄)₃ = [2(Atomic mass of Al) + 3(Atomic mass of S) + 12(Atomic mass of O)]
= 2(27) + 3(32) + 12(16) = 342 g
% of Oxygen = \(\frac{12(16)}{342}\) × 100 = 56.14%.

Question 4.
Calculate the % relative abundance of B – 10 and B – 11, if its average atomic mass is 10.804 amu.
Answer:
% of relative abundance can be calculated by the formula.
Average atomic mass of the element
= Atomic mass of 1st isotope × abundance of 1st isotope + Atomic mass of 2nd isotope × abundance of 2nd isotope
∴ Average atomic mass of Boron
= Atomic mass of B – 0 × abundance of B -10 + Atomic mass of B – 11 × abundance of B – 11
Let the abundance of B – 10 be ‘x’ and B – 11 be (1 – x)
So, 10.804 = 10 × x + 11 (1 – x)
10.804 = 10x + 11 – 11x
x = 11 – 10.804
x = 0.196
1 -x = 1 – 0.196 = 0.804
Therefore % abundance of B – 10 is 19.6% and B – 11 is 80.4%
[OR]
Let the % of the isotope B – 10 = x
Then the % of the isotope B – 11 = 100 – x

1100 – x = 1080.4
x = 19.6
% abundance of B – 10 = 19.6%
% abundance of B – 11 = 80.4%

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Atoms and Molecules Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first scientific theory of an atom was proposed by:
(a) Ruther Ford
(b) Newland
(c) John Dalton
(d) Neils Bohr
Answer:
(c) John Dalton

Question 2.
Identify the pair that indicates isobars among the following _____.
(a) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2},_{1} \mathrm{H}^{3}\)
(b) \(_{17} \mathrm{Cl}^{35},_{17} \mathrm{Cl}^{37}\)
(c) \(\text { (c) }_{18} \mathrm{Ar}^{40},_{18} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\)
(d) \(_{6} \mathrm{C}^{13},_{7} \mathrm{N}^{14}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\text { (c) }_{18} \mathrm{Ar}^{40},_{18} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\)

Question 3.
Which one of the following represents 180 g of water?
(a) 5 moles of water
(b) 90 moles of water
(c) 6.023 × 10²⁴ molecules of water
(d) 6.023 × 10²² molecules of water
Answer:
(c) 6.023 × 10²⁴ molecules of water

Question 4.
The isotope of Carbon-12 contains _____.
(a) 6 protons and 7 electrons
(b) 6 protons and 6 neutrons
(c) 12 protons and no neutrons
(d) 12 neutrons and no protons.
Answer:
(b) 6 protons and 6 neutrons

Question 5.
Which contains the greatest number of moles of oxygen atoms?
(a) 1 mol of water
(b) 1 mole of NaOH
(c) 1 mole of Na₂CO₃
(d) 1 mole of CO
Answer:
(c) 1 mole of Na₂CO₃

Question 6.
The mass of proton or neutron is approximately _____.
(a) 1 amu
(b) 1.609 × 10^-19 g
(c) 1 g
(d) 6.023 × 10^-23 g.
Answer:
(a) 1 amu

Question 7.
The natural abundance of C-12 and C-13 are 98.90% and 1.10% respectively. The average atomic mass of carbon is:
(a) 12 amu
(b) 12.011 amu
(c) 14 amu
(d) 12.90 amu
Answer:
(b) 12.011 amu

Question 8.
The relative atomic mass of magnesium-based on C – 12 scale is _____.
(a) 24 g
(b) 24
(c) 24 amu
(d) 24 kg
Answer:
(b) 24

Question 9.
If 1.5 moles of oxygen combine with Al to form Al₂O₃, the mass of Al in g (atomic mass of Al = 27) used in the reaction is:
(a) 2.7
(b) 54
(c) 40.5
(d) 81
Answer:
(b) 54

Question 10.
The atomicity of methane is:
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6
Answer:
(a) 5

Question 11.
Find the odd one out _____.
(a) \(_{8} \mathrm{O}^{16}\)
(b) \(_{8} \mathrm{O}^{17}\)
(c) \(_{6} \mathrm{O}^{12}\)
(d) \(_{8} \mathrm{O}^{18}\).
Answer:
(c) \(_{6} \mathrm{O}^{12}\)

Question 12.
The volume occupied by 3 moles of HCl gas at STP is:
(a) 22.4 L
(b) 44.8 L
(c) 2.24 L
(d) 67.2 L
Answer:
(d) 67.2 L

Question 13.
The mass percentage of hydrogen in ethane (C₂H₆) is:
(a) 25%
(b) 75%
(c) 80%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(d) 20%

Question 14.
Which one of the following is a homo diatomic molecule?
(a) H₂
(6) CO
(c) NO
(d) O₃.
Answer:
(a) H₂

Question 15.
The percentage of nitrogen in urea is about:
(a) 38.4
(b) 46.6
(c) 59.1
(d) 61.3
Answer:
(b) 46.6

Question 16.
Out of the following the largest number of atoms are contained in:
(a) 11 g of CO₂
(b) 4 g of H₂
(C) 5 g of NH₃
(d) 8 g of SO₂
Answer:
(b) 4 g of H₂

Question 17.
Which of the following is an example of a homo triatomic molecule?
(a) Phosphorous
(b) Sulphur
(c) Bromine
(d) Ozone.
Answer:
(d) Ozone.

Question 18.
For the reaction A + 2B → C, 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce:
(a) 5 moles of C
(b) 4 moles of C
(c) 8 moles of C
(d) 13 moles of C
Answer:
(b) 4 moles of C

Question 19.
The vapour density of a gas is 32. Its relative molecular mass will be:
(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 64
(d) 96
Answer:
(c) 64

Question 20.
Find the odd one out _____.
(a) Silver
(b) Potassium
(c) Iron
(d) Phosphorous.
Answer:
(d) Phosphorous.

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The volume occupied by 16 g of oxygen is ………..
2. One mole of a triatomic gas contains ………… atoms.
3. Equal volume of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of …………
4. The mass of an atom can be converted into energy by using the formula …………
5. The percentage composition is useful to determine the ………… formula and ………… formula.

Answer:

1. 11.2 L
2. 3 × 6.023 × 10²³
3. molecules
4. E = me²
5. empirical, molecular

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Atoms always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
2. 2 × RMM = VD
3. The average atomic mass of Beryllium is 9.012 because of the presence of isotopes.
4. The noble gases are diatomic.
5. The number of atoms present in one mole of phosphorus(P₄) is 4 × 6.023 × 10²³

Answer:

1. False -Atoms may not combine always in a simple whole number ratio.
2. False – 2 × VD = RMM
3. True
4. False – The noble gases are mono atomic.
5. True

V. Assertion and Reason:

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
Question 1.
Assertion: The standard unit for expressing mass of atom is amu.
Reason: Atomic mass unit is one-twelth of the mass of a C-12 atom
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: The volume occupied by 44 g of CO₂ is 22.4 L
Reason: The volume occupied by one mole of any gas is 22.4 L
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Define vapour density.
Answer:
Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen measured under the same condition of temperature and pressure.
[OR]

Question 2.
What are isobars? Give an example.
Answer:
Atoms of different elements that have same atomic masses but different atomic numbers are called isobars.
e.g., \(_{18} \mathrm{Ar}^{40}\), \(_{20} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\).

Question 3.
Write the differences between an atom and a molecule.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is artificial transmutation?
Answer:
Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements. In other words, the atom is no longer indestructible. It is known as artificial transmutation.

Question 5.
Classify the following based on atomicity.
Answer:
(i) Bromine
2 – Diatomic

(ii) Argon
1 – Monoatomic

(iii) Ozone
3 – Triatomic

(iv) Sulphur
8 – Polyatomic

Question 6.
Define atomic mass unit.
Answer:
Atomic mass unit is one-twelfth of the mass of carbon – 12 atom, as an isotope of carbon which contains 6 protons and 6 neutrons. It is amu.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Explain how Avogadro hypothesis is used to derive the value of atomicity.
Answer:
(i) The Avogadro’s law states that “equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain the equal number of molecules”.

(ii) Let us consider the reaction between hydrogen and chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas.
H_{2 (g)} + Cl_{2 (g)} → 2HCl _(g)
⇒ 1 volume + 1 volume → 2 volumes.

(iii) According to Avogadro’s law, 1 volume of any gas is occupied by “n” number of molecules,
“n” molecules + “n” molecules → “2n” molecules
If “n” = 1, then
1 molecule + 1 molecule → 2 molecules.
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule → 1 molecule.

(iv) 1 molecule of hydrogen chloride gas is made up of \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule of hydrogen and \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule of chlorine.

(v) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule of hydrogen contains 1 atom.
So, 1 molecule of hydrogen contains 2 atoms.
So, hydrogen atomicity is 2. Similarly, chlorine atomicity is also 2.
So, H₂ and Cl₂ are diatomic molecules.

Question 2.
Write a note on the following,
(i) Isotopeos
(ii) Isobars
(iii) Relative atomic mass.
Answer:
(i) Isotopes : Atoms of same element with different mass number. Eg: ₁₇Cl³⁵, ₁₇Cl³⁷.
(ii) Isobars : Atoms of different elements with same mass number. Eg: ₁₈Ar⁴⁰, ₂₀Ca⁴⁰
(iii) Relative Atomic Mass (RAM) :

Question 3.
Sodim bicarbonate breaks down on heating as follows:
2NaHCO₃ → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂
(Atomic mass of Na = 23, H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)
(i) How many moles of NaHCO₃ are there in the equation?
Answer:
2 moles.

(ii) What is the mass of CO₂ produced in the equation?
Answer:
44 g

(iii) How many moles of water molecules are produced in the equation?
Answer:
1 mole.

(iv) What is the mass of NaHCO₃ used in this equation?
Answer:
= 2[23 + 1 + 12 + 3(16)]
= 2[84]
= 168 g

(v) What is the volume occupied by CO₂ in this equation?
Answer:
22.4 lit.

VIII. Hot Questions

Question 1.
Why do we take an atomic mass of Carbon – 12 as standard?
Answer:
Carbon – 12 is the standard while measuring the atomic masses. Because no other nuclides other than C – 12 have exactly whole-number masses in this scale. This is due to the different mass of neutrons and protons acting to change the total mass in nuclides with proton/neutron ratio other than 1 : 1 ratio of carbon – 12.

Question 2.
The cost of common salt (NaCl) is Rs 18 per kg. Calculate the cost of the salt per mole.
Answer:
Gram molar mass of NaCl = 23 + 35.5
= 58.5 g
1000 g of NaCl costs = Rs 18
∴ 58.5 g of NaCl costs = \(\frac{18}{1000}\) × 58.5
= Rs 1.053
The cost of one mole of NaCl = Rs 1.053

Question 3.
What will be the mass of one \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) atom in g?
Answer:
1 mol of \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) atoms = 6.022 × 10²³ atoms = 12 g
Thus, 6.022 × 10²³ atoms of \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) have mass = 12 g
∴ 1 atom of \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) will have mass = \(\frac{12}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\) g = 1.9927 × 10^-23 g.

IX. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
Calculate the average atomic mass of carbon, if the natural abundance of C – 12 and C – 13 are 98.90% and 1.10% respectively.
Solution:
Average atomic mass of carbon
\(=\left(12 \times \frac{98.9}{100}\right)+\left(13 \times \frac{1.1}{100}\right)\)
= (12 × 0.989) +(13 × 0.011)
= 11.868 + 0.143
= 12.011 amu.

Question 2.
Find how many moles are there in
(a) 98 g of H₂SO₄
Answer:
(a) 98 g of H₂SO₄
GMM of H₂SO₄ = 2(1) + 32 + 4(16)
= 98 g
Number of moles = \(\frac{Given Mass}{Mol. Mass}\)
= \(\frac{98}{98}\)
= 1 mole

(b) 18.069 × 10²³ atoms of calcium
Answer:
Number of moles

= 3 moles

(c) 4.48 L of CO₂
Answer:
Number of moles

Question 3.
Calculate the number of moles in
(i) 12.046 × 10²³ atoms of copper
(ii) 27.95 g of iron
(iii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of CO₂
Answer:
(i) 12.046 × 10²³ atoms of copper
6.023 × 10²³ atoms of copper = 1 mole
12.046 × 10²³ atoms of copper = \(\frac{1 \times 12.046 \times 10^{23}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\) = 2 moles of copper

(ii) 27.95 g of iron
55.9 g of iron = 1 mole
27.95 g of iron = \(\frac{1}{55.9}\) × 27.95 = 0.5 mole of iron.

(iii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of CO₂
No of moles = \(\frac{\text { No. of molecules }}{\text { Avogadro number }}\)
= \(\frac{1.51 \times 10^{23}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\)
= 0.25 mole of CO₂

Question 4.
Calculate the number of atoms of mercury present in 1 kg of Mercury. [Atomic mass of Hg = 200.6]
Answer:
200.6 g of Hg contains 6.023 × 10²³ Hg atoms
∴ 1 Kg of Hg will contain = \(\frac{6.023×10^{23}}{200.6}\) × 1000
= 30.02 × 10²³ Hg atoms

Question 5.
How many molecules are present in 7 × 10^-3 m³ of NH₃ at STP?
Answer:
Molar volume = 22.4 dm³ = 2.24 × 10^-2 m³
2.24 × 10^-2 m³ of NH₃ at STP contains 6.023 × 10²³ NH₃ molecules.
:. 7 × 10^-3 m³ of NH₃ will contain
= \(\frac{6.023×10^{23}}{2.24×10^{-2}}\) × 7 × 10^-3
18.82 × 10²² NH₃ molecule

Question 6.
What is the mass in grams of the following?
(a) 3 moles of NaOH
(b) 6.023 × 10²² atoms of Ca
(c) 224 L of CO₂
Answer:
Formula:

(a) 3 moles of NaOH
Mass of 3 moles of NaOH = 3 × mol. mass of NaOH
GMM of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40 g
Mass of 3 moles of NaOH = 3 × 40 = 120 g

(b) 6.023 × 10²² atoms of Ca = n × atomic mass of ca

= 4 g

(c) 224 L of CO₂
Mass of 224 L of CO₂

= 10 × 44
= 440 g

Question 7.
How many grams are therein:
(i) 5 moles of water
(ii) 2 moles of Ammonia
(iii) 2 moles of Glucose
Solution:
(i) 5 moles of water.
Mass of 1 mole of water (H₂O) = 18 g (2 + 16)
Mass of 5 moles of H₂O = 18 × 5 = 90 g.

(ii) 2 moles of ammonia.
Mass of 1 mole of ammonia (NH₃) = 17 g (14 + 3)
Mass of 2 moles of ammonia = 17 × 2 = 34 g.

(iii) 2 moles of glucose.
Mass of 1 mole of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) = 180 g (72 + 12 + 96)
Mass of 2 moles of glucose = 180 × 2 = 360 g.

Question 8.
Calculate tbe molar mass of the following compounds.
(a) Urea (NH₂CONH₂)
(b) Ethanol(C₂H₅OH);
(c) Boric acid (H₃BO₃)
[Atomic mass of N – 14, H – 1, C – 12, B – 11, O – 16]
Answer:
(a) Urea (NH₂CONH₂) = 2(14) + 4(1) + 1(16) + 1(12)
= 28 + 4 + 16 + 12
= 60 g

(b) Ethanol(C₂H₅OH) = 2(12) + 6(1) + 1(16)
= 24 + 6 + 16 = 46 g

(c) Boric acid (H₂BO₃) = 3(1) + 1(11) + 3(16)
= 3 + 11 + 48
= 62 g

Question 9.
Mass of one atom of an element is 6.645 × 10^-23 g. How many moles of element are there in 0.320 kg.
Answer:
Mass of one atom of an element = 6.645 × 10^-23 g
∴ Mass of 1 mol of atom = 6.645 × 10^-23 × 6.023 × 10²³ = 40 g
Number of moles =

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Meteorology is the science of:
(a) Weather
(b) Social
(c) Political
(d) Human
Answer:
(a) Weather

Question 2.
We wear cotton during ……….
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Question 3.
Western disturbances cause rainfall in:
(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 4.
………. helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Norwester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
Answer:
(c) Mango showers

Question 5.
……………. is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitudes
Answer:
(a) Isohyets

Question 6.
The climate of India is labelled as ………
(a) Tropical humid
(b) Equatorial Climate
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate
(d) Temperate Climate
Answer:
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate

Question 7.
The monsoon forests are otherwise called as
(a) Tropical evergreen forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Mangrove forest
(d) Mountain forest
Answer:
(b) Deciduous forest

Question 8.
……. forests are found above 2400 m Himalayas.
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Alpine forests
(c) Mangrove forests
(d) Tidal forests
Answer:
(b) Alpine forests

Question 9.
Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(b) Andhra Pradesh

Question 10.
………… is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO .
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
Answer:
(a) Nilgiri

II. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon. Reason(R): Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the origin of monsoons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A.
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian Sub-continent warm.(Give option for this questions)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A.
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A

IV. Choose the inappropriate answer

Question 1.
Tidal forests are found in and around ……..
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
Answer:
(a) Desert

Question 2.
Climate of India is affected by:
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Altitude
(c) Distance from the sea
(d) Soil
Answer:
(d) Soil

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Define ‘Meteorology’.
Answer:
The branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere, especially as a means of forecasting the weather.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘normal lapse rate’?
Answer:
Temperature decreases when the altitude increases .Normal Lapse rate is a phenomenon in which temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000mts of ascent. Hence places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plain.

Question 3.
What are ‘jet streams’?
Answer:
In the upper layers of the atmosphere, there are strong westerly winds concentrated in a relatively narrow and shallow stream known as “Jet streams” They cause heavy rainfall in North-west India.

Question 4.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon wind’.
Answer:

1. The Word ‘Monsoon’ is derived from the Arabic word “Mausim” which means season.
2. Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon .
3. These winds originates due to the seasonal migration of planetary winds and pressure belts following the position of the sun.
4. During summer they blow from South west to North east ( South West monsoon) June-September and from the North east to South west (North East monsoon) October and November.

Question 5.
Name the four distinct seasons of India.
Answer:

1. Winter or cold weather season (Jan-Feb)
2. Pre Monsoon or Summer (March-May)
3. Southwest Monsoon or rainy season (June-September)
4. Northeast Monsoon season (October-December)

Question 6.
What is ‘burst of monsoon’?
Answer:

1. Prior to the onset of the Southwest monsoon the temperature in North India reaches up to 46°C.
2. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over South India with lightning and thunder is termed as the “break or burst of monsoon”.

Question 7.
Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.
Answer:

1. Middle Ganga Valley
2. Western Ghats
3. Eastern Maharashtra
4. Madhya Pradesh and Odisha

Question 8.
State places of mangrove forest in India.
Answer:

1. Mangrove forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influences.
2. In India they are found in deltas of Ganga, Brahmaputra (largest), the deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna rivers.

Question 9.
Name the trees of tropical evergreen forest.
Answer:
The most important trees are rubber, mahogany, ebony, rosewood, coconut, bamboo, cinchona, candes, palm, iron wood and cedar.

Question 10.
Write any five Biosphere Reserves in India.
Answer:

1. Biosphere Reserves are the protected areas of land coastal environments where in people are an integral component of the system.
2. The Indian Government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves. Gulf of Mannar Nilgiris, Agasthiamalai, Kanjanjunga, Great Nicobar etc.

Question 11.
What is ‘Project Tiger’?
Answer:
Project Tiger was launched in April 1973 with the aim to conserve tiger population in specifically constituted “Tiger Reserves” in India. This project is benefited tremendously, with an increase of over 60% – the 1979 consensus put the population at 3,015.

VI. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Weather and Climate.
Answer:
Weather:

1. State of the atmosphere of a place at a given point of time.
2. Weather changes occur daily.
3. Temperature, wind pressure, humidity duration of sunlight and rainfall decides the weather.

Climate:

1. Accumulation of daily and seasonal weather events of a given location over a period of time.
2. It is an average of weather condition over a period of 30-35 years.
3. Climate of a place is determined by Latitude, altitude, distance from the seas, relief features etc.

Question 2.
Tropical Evergreen Forest and Deciduous Forest.
Answer:
Tropical Evergreen forest:

1. These forests are found in the areas where the annual rainfall is 200 cm and more.
2. The tress of these forests do not shed their leaves.
3. Rubber, iron wood, Mahogony are some of the main trees.

Deciduous Forest:

1. These forests are found in the areas with 100 to 200cm annual rainfall.
2. The trees of these forests shed their leaves in spring and early summer.
3. Sandalwood, teak, sal, padak are some of the main trees.

Question 3.
North East Monsoon and South West Monsoon.
Answer:
North East Monsoon:

1. These monsoon winds blow from North-east to South west.
2. They blow during the month of October-November.
3. TamilNadu and Andhra Pradesh gets rainfall from this monsoon.

South West Monsoon:

1. These monsoon winds blow from South west towards North east.
2. They blow during the month of June-September.
3. 75% of India’s rainfall is from this monsoon winds.

VII. Give reasons for the following topics

Question 1.
Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Answer:
It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 km. It is mainly characterised by sandy beaches, coastal sand, dunes, mud flats, lagoons, estuary, laterite platforms and residual hills.

Question 2.
India has a tropical monsoon climate.
Answer:
Latitudinally India lies between 8°4′ N and 37°6’N latitudes. Tropic of Cancer (23° 30’N) divides the country into two equal halves . Most parts of the country’ lie in the Tropical Zone and receives rainfall from monsoon winds which is the dominating climatic factor. Hence India has Tropical monsoon climate.

Question 3.
Mountains are cooler than the plains.
Answer:
When the altitude increases, the temperature decreases. Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 metres of ascent. Hence, places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plains. That is why the places located at higher altitudes even in South India have cool climate. Ooty and several other hill stations of South India and of the Himalayan ranges like Mussoorie, Shimla, etc., are much cooler than the places located on the Great Plains.

VIII. Write in detail

Question 1.
Write about South West Monsoon.
Answer:

1. Southwest monsoon season is also known as the rainy season in India.
2. The onset of Southwest monsoon season takes place over the southern tip of the country’ by the first week of June, advances along the Konkon coast in early June and covers the whole country by 15th July.
3. Jet stream and ELNino are the two factors that determine the occurrence of Southwest monsoon.
4. Due to the high temperature over north India creates a low-pressure trough which draws the moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean towards the Indian landmass.
5. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over south India with ‘ lightning and the thunder indicates the onset of south-west monsoon.
   This is also known as “break or burst of monsoon”.
6. The monsoon winds strike against the southern tip of the Indian landmass and get divided into two branches.
   • (a) Arabian sea branch (of Southwest monsoon)
   • (b) The Bay of Bengal branch (of Southwest monsoon)

(a) Arabian sea branch of South west monsoon:

• The Arabian sea branch of south west monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west coast of India as it is located in the wind wards side of the Western Ghats.
• The other part which advances towards north strikes against the Himalayan mountains results in heavy rainfall in north.

As Aravalli mountains lie parallel to the wind direction. Rajasthan and the western parts do not get much rainfall.

(b) Bay of Bengal branch of south west monsoon:

• The Wind from Bay of Bengal moves towards north east India and Myanmar.
• This wind is trapped by Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills and gives the heaviest rainfall to Meghalaya (at Mawsynram).
• This wind gets deflected towards west.
• When the wind moves from east to west rainfall decreases as it looses its moisture.
• Tamil Nadu receives only a meager rainfall as the state is located on the leeward side.

About 75% of India’s rainfall is from the south west monsoon.

Question 2.
Describe the forests of India.
Answer:
Natural Vegetation refers to a plant community which has grown naturally without human aid
and has been left undisturbed by human for a long time.

Tropical Evergreen Forest:
These forests are found in areas with 200 cm or more annual rainfall.The annual temperature is about more than 22°C and the average annual humidity exceeds 70 percent in this region. Western Ghats in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, Andaman-Nicobar Islands, Assam, West Bengal, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur and Meghalaya states have this type of forests. The most important trees are rubber, mahogany, ebony, rosewood, coconut, bamboo, cinchona, candes, palm, iron wood and cedar.

Tropical Deciduous Forest:
It covers a large area of the Peninsula and northern India, where the rainfall is from 100 to 200 m. These trees of the forests shed their leaves for a few weeks in early summer. The main trees are teak, Sandalwood, deodars, sisam, sal and redwood.

Tropical Dry Forest:
These are found in the areas with 50 to 100 cm. annual rainfall.They represent a transitional type of forests. These are found in east Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, Western Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Eastern Maharashtra, Telangana, West Karnataka and East Tamilnadu. The important species are mahua, banyan, amaltas, palas, haldu, kikar, bamboo, babool, khair etc.,

Mountain or Montane Forest:
These forests are classified on the basis of altitude and amount of rainfall. Accordingly two different types of forests namely Eastern Himalayas Forests and Western Himalayas Forests. Eastern Himalayan Forest: These are found on the slopes of the mountains in north-east states. They receive rainfall of more than 200 cm. The vegetation is of evergreen type. Sal, oak, laurel, amura, chestnut, cinnamon are the main trees from 1200 to 2400 m altitude oak, birch, silver, fir, fine, spruce and juniper are the major trees from 2400 to 3600 m height. Western Himalayan Forest: The rainfall of this region is moderate. They are found n the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. In altitude from 900 to 1800 m, chir tree is the most common tree. The other important trees of this region are sal, semal, dhak, jamun and jujube.

Alpine Forest:
It occurs all along the Himalayas with above 2400 m altitude. These are purely having coniferous trees. Oak, silver fir, pine and juniper are the main trees of these forests. The eastern parts of Himalayas has large extent of these forests.

Tidel Forest:
These forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influences and as such are also known as delta or swamp forests. The delta of the Ganga-Brahmaputra has the largest tidal forest. The deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna rivers are also known for tidal forests. These are also known as mangrove forest.

Coastal Forest:
These are littoral forests. Generally, coastal areas have these types of forests. Casurina, palm and coconut are the dominant trees. Both the eastern and western coasts have this type of forests.

Riverine Forest:
These forests are found along the rivers on Khadar areas. These are known for tamarisk and tamarind trees. The rivers of Great Plains are more prominent for this type of natural vegetation.

Question 3.
Write the names of biosphere reserves and their location in India.
Answer:
The Indian Government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves which protect larger areas of natural habitat and often include one or more national parks along with the buffer zones that are open to some economic uses.

Biosphere Reserves	State
Achanakmar-Amarkantak	Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh
Agasthyamalai	Kerala
Dibru Saikhowa	Assam
Dihang Dibang	Arunachal Pradesh
Great Nicobar	Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Gulf of Mannar	Tamil Nadu
Kachch	Gujarat
Kanchenjunga	Sikkim
Manas	Assam
Nanda Devi	Uttarakhand
The Nilgiris	Tamil Nadu
Nokrek	Meghalaya
Pachmarhi	Madhya Pradesh
Simlipal	Odisha
Sundarbans	West Bengal
Cold desert	Himachal Pradesh
Sesahachalam hills	Andhra Pradesh
Panna	Madhya Pradesh

IX. Map

Mark the following on the outline map of India.

Question 1.
Direction of South West Monsoon wind.
Answer:

Question 2.
Direction of North East Monsoon wind.
Answer:

Question 3.
Areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:

Question 4.
Mountain forests.
Answer:

Question 5.
Panna biosphere reserve
Answer:

Question 6.
Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
Answer:

TB. PNo: 99
Find Out

Question 1.
Find out the temperature of Ooty (2240m). If it is 35°C in Chennai (6.7 m).
Answer:
For every 1000 mt altitude temperature decreases by 6.5°C . So the temperature of Ooty is nearly 15°C.

TB. PNo: 102
HOTS

Question 1.
Why is Mawsynram, the wettest place in the world?
Answer:
Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the highest rainfall (1141 cm) in the world. Almost daily it rains. Thus make this place a swampy and the wettest due to very dense vegetation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is:
(a) Relief
(b) Monsoon winds
(c) Temperature
(d) Soil
Answer:
(b) Monsoon winds

Question 2.
The Local storms in the north eastern part of India during the weather seasons are called
(a) Loo
(b) Norwesters
(c) Mangoshowers
Answer:
(a) Loo

Question 3.
Seventy-five percentage of Indian rainfall is from this wind:
(a) Western Disturbance
(b) North East monsoon
(c) Norwesters
(d) South West monsoon
Answer:
(d) South West monsoon

Question 4.
The mountain which stands parallel to the direction of the south-west monsoon wind ….
(a) Vindhya
(b) Aravalli
(c) Satpura
Answer:
(b) Aravalli

Question 5.
The ……………. forests are found in the region where the rainfall is 200 cm and above.
(a) Tropical evergreen
(b) Tidal
(c) Tropical deciduous
(d) Alpine
Answer:
(a) Tropical evergreen

Question 6.
……… experience continental climate.
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 7.
The term ……………. includes animals of any habitat in nature.
(a) Mammals
(b) Forests
(c) Insects
(d) Wild life
Answer:
(d) Wild life

Question 8.
In India, 85% of the rain is received from the ……….
(a) North-east
(b) South-west
(c) South-east
Answer:
(b) South-west

Question 9.
In the year ……………. United nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) recognizes the sovereign rights of the states to use their own Biological Resources.
(a) 1992
(b) 1982
(c) 1979
(d) 1929
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 10.
The ……… prevents the cold polar winds blowing from Central Asia.
(a) Aravalli Hills
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Himalayas
Answer:
(c) Himalayas

Question 11.
The highest rainfall region in India is located in this state:
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Manipur
Answer:
(c) Meghalaya

Question 12.
There is a peculiar uniformity in the climate of India due to its unique ……..
(a) Geography
(b) Physiography
(c) Demography
Answer:
(b) Physiography

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)
F. (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (vi)
E. (iv)
F. (iii)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Peninsular India enjoys equable climate.
Reason(R): The peninsular region is surrounded by the seas on three sides, not very far from the sea.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Two different types-of mountain forests are in India namely Eastern Himalayan forests and Western Himalayan forests.
Reason(R): Mountain forests are classified on the basis of altitude and amount of Rainfall.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A

Question 3.
Assertion(A): Systematic change in the direction of planetary winds is known as monsoons.
Reason(R): Monsoon winds originates due to the seasonal migration of planetary winds and pressure belts following the position of the Sun.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Rajasthan remains as desert.
Reason(R): As Aravalli mountain is located parallel to the Arabian Sea branch South west Monsoon winds the western part (Rajasthan) do not receive much rainfall. To the Bay of Bengal Branch of South west Monsoon wind it is located on the leeward side.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A

IV. Choose the inappropriate answer

Question 1.
The pre-monsoon showers are known as mango showers in:
(a) Kerala and Karnataka
(b) Punjab and Haryana
(c) Hot weather season
(d) Helps quick ripening of mangoes
Answer:
(b) Punjab and Haryana

Question 2.
Tropical deciduous forests trees are of economic importance:
(a) Have valuable trees like teak, sal.
(b) To make fragnant oil, varnish, perfumes.
(c) Do not shed their leaves.
(d) Found in rainfall areas of 100 to 200 cm.
Answer:
(c) Do not shed their leaves.

Question 3.
Tidal forests are also known as swamp or delta forests.
(a) These forests are not prone to tidal waves.
(b) Known as mangrove forests.
(c) Occur in and around deltas, estuaries.
(d) Prone to tidal influences.
Answer:
(a) These forests are not prone to tidal waves.

Question 4.
Biosphere Reserves are protected areas of coastal and land environment.
(a) Indian Government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves.
(b) Do not protect areas of natural habitat.
(c) People are an integral component of the system.
(d) One or more National parks preserves along with buffer zone.
Answer:
(b) Do not protect areas of natural habitat.

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Name the classification of Natural vegetation.
Answer:
Natural Vegetation can be classified as:

1. Tropical Evergreen forests
2. Tropical deciduous forests
3. Tropical dry forests
4. Desert and semi-desert
5. Mountain forests
6. Alpine forests and
7. Tidal forests

Question 2.
Name the factors affecting the climate of India.
Answer:
Climate of India is affected by the factors of latitude, distance from the seas, Monsoon wind, relief features and jet stream.

Question 3.
The climate and weather conditions in India are governed by the three-atmosphere conditions. Name them.
Answer:

1. The Pressure and Surface winds.
2. Upper air Circulation
3. Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical conditions

Question 4.
What is ElNino? How does it affect the climate of India?
Answer:
ElNino is a complex global phenomena of weather that appears once eveiy five to ten years. It is a cause for the delay of onset of the southwest monsoon in India.

Question 5.
What is the Characteristic features of monsoon rains in India?
Answer:

1. The Monsoon rains are pulsating in nature
2. They can cause heavy rainfall in one part and drought in the other.
3. They are known for their uncertainties.

Question 6.
What is the role of Jet stream regarding the climate of India?
Answer:

1. The arrival and departure of monsoon winds is determined by Jet stream.
2. Cause tropical depressions both during South west monsoon and North east monsoon.
3. Plays a vital role in bringing western disturbances to India there by helping winter wheat cultivation.

Question 7.
What values are associated with the monsoon in India?
Answer:

• Monsoon acts as unifying bond for India.
• The unifying influence of the monsoon on the Indian Subcontinent is quite perceptible.
• The Seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons.
• The Indian landscape, its animal and plant life, its entire agricultural calender and the life of the people, including their festivities, revolve around this phenomenon.
• Year after year, people of India from North to South and from east to west, eagerly await the arrival of the monsoon. These monsoon winds binds the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion.
• The rivers valleys which carry this water also unite as a single river valley unit.

Question 8.
Give a brief note on the Indian Board for Wild life:
Answer:

1. The Indian Board for wild life was constituted in 1952 to suggest means of protection, conservation and management of wild life to the Government of India.
2. The Government of India enacted wild life (protection) Act in 1972 with the objective of effectively protecting the wild life.

Question 9.
Explain the steps taken to conserve wildlife.
Answer:
The Wild Life Act Of India protects and conserves this grest heritage of nation. The first weak of October is observed as Wild life Week Of India.

Question 10.
Give the Full form of these abbreviations.

1. IBWL
2. CBD
3. ITCZ

Answer:

1. IBWL : Indian Board for Wild Life.
2. CBD: Convention on Biological Diversity.
3. ITCZ : Inter Tropical Convergence Zone.

Question 11.
Why does the coromandal coast face frequent cyclones?
Answer:
The north east monsoon winds by crossing the Bay of Bengal absorbs moisture and gives heavy rain to the coromandal coast. These are frequent cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal and they cause heavy damage to life and property along the coromandal coast.

Question 12.
Give a brief description of the Mangrove forests.
Answer:

• The mangrove tidal forests are found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Hence, mangroves are the common varities with roots of the plants submerged under water. The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation. In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta sundari trees are found which provides durable hard timber.
• Palm, coconut, Keora agar also grow in some parts of the delta.
• Royal Bengal Tiger is the famous animal in these forests. Turtles, crocodiles, gharials and snakes are also found in these forests.

VI. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Winter/Cold weather and Summer/Hot weather season.
Solution:
Winter or Cold weather season:

1. In India,winter weather period is January-February.
2. The mean temperature increases from North to South.
3. Western Disturbances occurs in this season.
4. Generally fine weather and low tempertaure.

Summer or Hot weather season:

1. The summer season is from March- May.
2. The mean tempertaure increases from South to North.
3. Mango showers, Norwesters or Kalbaisakhi occurs in this season.
4. Generally hot and dry weather.

Question 2.
Heavy rainfall and less/low rainfall region.
Answer:
Heavy rainfall region:

1. These areas get annual rainfall of 200 cms and above.
2. Western coast, Assam, South Meghalaya are heavy rainfall areas.

Less or low rainfall region:

1. These areas get annual rainfall less than 100 cms.
2. Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Western and South western parts of Uttar Pradesh, plateau region gets less rainfall.

Question 3.
Windward side and Leeward side.
Answer:
Windward side:

1. The slope of the mountain that lie on the path of rain bearing winds.
2. The windward side gets more rainfall.
3. Western slopes of Western Ghats – West coastal plains.

Leeward side:

1. The slope of the mountain that do not face the rain bearing winds.
2. The Leeward side gets less or no rainfall.
3. Eastern slopes of Western Ghats – Deccan Plateau.

Question 4.
Eastern and Western Himalayan forests.
Answer:
Eastern Himalayan forests:

1. The vegetation of this forest is’ evergreen as these forests receive more than 200cm rainfall.
2. Pine, Sal Fir, Oak, Laurel are some of the main trees of these forests.
3. These forests are found in the North Eastern states.

Western Himlayan forests:

1. The rainfall of this region is moderate and have varied vegetation regards to altitude.
2. Upto 900m altitude semi desert vegetation from 900m – 1800m chir tree and sal, at 1800m conifer trees.
3. These forests are found in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and UttaraKhand.

VII. Give reasons for the following topics

Question 1.
Kolkatta receives more rainfall than Bikaner in Rajasthan.
Answer:
Air near the coast has more moisture and greater potential to produce precipitation. Due to this fact Kolkatta near the coast receives more rainfall (119cm) than Bikaner (24cm) which is located in the interior part.

Question 2.
In India Conservation and management of Biodiversity is necessary why?
Answer:
Hunting, Poaching, deforestation and encroachments in the natural habitats have caused extinction of some species and many are in the danger of extinction. The role of wild life in maintaining the ecological balance made it necessary for conservation and management of Biodiversity.

Question 3.
Relief of India has a great bearing on climate.
Answer:
The elements of climate such as temperature, atmospheric pressure, direction of winds and the amount of rainfall are affected by the presence of relief features as they act as a climatic barrier like the Himalayas and Western Ghats.

VIII. Write in detail

Question 1.
What are the major determinants of climate of a place? Explain them.
Answer:
The major determinants of climate of a place are,

1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Distance from the seas
4. Monsoon winds
5. Relief features (Mountains)
6. Jet Streams

1. Latitude:
Latitudinally, India lies between 8°4’N and 37°6’N latitudes. The Tropic of cancer divides the country into two equal halves. The area located to the south of Tropic of cancer experiences high temperature and no severe cold season throughout the year whereas, the areas to the north of this parallel enjoys subtropical climate. Here, summer temperature may rise above 40°C and it is close to freezing point during winter.

2. Altitude:
As one goes from the surface of the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense and temperature decreases. The hills are therefore cooler during summer.

3. Distance from the seas:
Distance from the sea does not cause only temperature and pressure variations but also affects the amount of rainfall. As the distance from the sea increased its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions. This condition is known as continentality.(i.e.) Very hot during summers and very cold during winter.

4. Monsoon winds:
The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is the monsoon winds. These are seasonal reversal winds and India remains in the influence of these winds for a considerable part of a year. Though, the sun’s rays are vertical over the central part of India during the mid-June, the summer season ends in India by the end of May. It is because the onset of southwest monsoon brings down the temperature of the entire India and causes moderate to heavy rainfall in many parts of the country. Similarly, the climate of southeast India is also influenced by northeast monsoon.

5. Relief features (Mountains):
Relief of India has a great bearing on major elements of climate such as temperature, atmospheric pressure, direction of winds and the amount of rainfall. High mountains act as barriers for cold or hot winds; they may also cause precipitation if they are high enough and lie in the path of rain-bearing winds. The leeward side of mountains remains dry.

6. Jet Streams:
Jet streams are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere. According to the Jet stream theory, the onset of southwest monsoon is driven by the shift of the sub tropical westerly jet from the plains of India towards the Tibetan plateau. The easterly jet streams cause tropical depressions both during southwest monsoon and retreating monsoon.

Question 2.
Write about the factors that affect the climate of India.
Answer:
Climate of India is affected by the factors of latitude, altitude, distance from the seas, monsoon winds and jet streams.

Latitude:

1. Latitudinally India is located in the Tropical belt between 8°4’N and 37°6’N latitudes.
2. The tropic of cancer divides the country into two equal halves.
3. This enables the places south of Tropic of cancer (23°30’N) to experience high temperature and no severe cold.
4. The places north of Tropic of cancer enjoy sub tropical climate.

Altitude:

1. When the altitude increases, temperature decreases as per the phenomena. “Normal Lapse rate”. For every 1000 mts of ascent the temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C.
2. Hence the places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plains.
3. Even in South India places at higher altitude have cool climate.

Distance from the sea:

1. Distance from the sea not only causes temperature and pressure variations but also affects the amount of rainfall.
2. The entire area of peninsular region as it is surrounded by seas on three sides having the temperature equable throughout the year.
3. Areas of central and north India experiences much seasonal variation in temperature due to the absence of seas.

Monsoon winds:

1. The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is the. monsoon winds.
2. India is influenced by the South west monsoon and North east monsoon from June to September and October, November respectively.
3. Indian agriculture is at the mercy of monsoons.
4. India experiences Tropical monsoon climate.

Relief:

1. Relief of India has a great bearing on major elements of climate such as temperature, atmospheric pressure direction of wind and amount of rainfall.
2. The mighty Himalayas in the north act as a climatic barrier preventing the freezing cold winds from central Asia away from India.
3. The Western ghats act as the barrier for south west monsoon winds causing rainfall to the western slopes, and the eastern slopes remain as rain shadow region.

Jet Stream:

1. Jet streams are the fast moving winds blowing in the narrow zone of upper layers of atmosphere.
2. These air currents play a dominant role in bringing the onset of South west monsoon and withdrawal of monsoon winds.
3. More over they are the main reason in bringing the Western Disturbances to the North Western part of Punjab and Haryana causing rainfall and enable the cultivation of winter wheat.
4. It causes snow fall in Jammu and Kashmir region.

Thus the Tropical monsoon = climate of India revolve around these factors

IX. Map Work

Mark the following on the outline map of India.

Question 1.
Areas of low rainfall
Answer:

Question 2.
Any 4 Biosphere Reserve
Answer:

Question 3.
Any 5 National parks
Answer:

Question 4.
Any 3 Wild animal sanctuary
Answer:

Question 5.
Any 2 Bird Sanctuary
Answer:

Question 6.
Top 5 states having maximum forest cover
Answer:

Question 7.
Top 5 states where forest cover is decreased
Answer:

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 1 India: Location, Relief and Drainage Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 1 India: Location, Relief and Drainage

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Location, Relief and Drainage Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The north-south extent of India is:
(a) 2,500km
(b) 292,933 km
(c) 3,214km
(d) 2,814km
Answer:
(c) 3,214km

Question 2.
The Southern most point of India is ……….
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

Question 3.
The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about:
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,400 km
(c) 800 km
(d) 2,200 km
Answer:
(a) 2,500 km

Question 4.
……… River is known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 5.
Deccan Plateau covers an area of about sq.km.
(a) 8 lakh
(b) 6 lakh
(c) 5 lakh
(d) 7 lakh
Answer:
(d) 7 lakh

Question 6.
A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as ………
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) Strait
Answer:
(c) Peninsula

Question 7.
The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from:
(a) Goa
(b) West Bengal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Maldives
Answer:
(c) Sri Lanka

Question 8.
The highest peak in South India is …………
(a) Ooty
(b) Kodaikanal
(c) Anaimudi
(d) Jindhagada
Answer:
(c) Anaimudi

Question 9.
Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
(a) Bhabar
(b) Tarai
(c) Bhangar
(d) Khadar
Answer:
(c) Bhangar

Question 10.
Pulicat Lake is located between the states of ………….
(a) West Bengal and Odisha
(b) Karnataka and Kerala
(c) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

II. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

III. Give Reasons

Question 1.
The Himalayas are called young fold mountains.
Answer:
The Himalayas are called young fold mountains. Because they have been formed only few million years ago and also they were formed because of the folding of the Earth crust due to tectonic activity’.
[OR]
High pointed peaks and parallel ranges is the features of young fold mountains. Since the Himalayas have these features they are called young fold mountains.

Question 2.
North Indian Rivers are perennial.
Answer:
Most of the North Indian Rivers are perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year. These rivers receive water from rain as well as from melted snow from the lofty mountains.

Question 3.
Chottanagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.
Answer:
This region is a part of the ancient Gondwana region. So, Chotanagpur plateau is rich in mineral resources like iron ore and coal.

Question 4.
The great ludian desert ii called Marusthall.
Answer:
The Thar desert, also known as the Great Indian desert is a large arid region in the north
western part of the Indian Subcontinent that covers an area of 2,00,000 Km² and forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan.
Marusthali means sand-dune. It covered eastern portion of the Great indian Thar Desert in western Rajasthan. It extends over about 24,000 square miles north of the Luni River.

Question 5.
The Eastern states are called seven sisters.
Answer:
The Eastern states in India are the continuous seven states. Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya. “A paradise unexplored” named by a journalist Jyothi Prakash Salkia in 1972 during the inaugural foundation of North East states.

Question 6.
The river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga.
Answer:

1. The Godavari is India’s second longest river after Ganga.
2. It rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra.
3. It covers a large number of states as the Ganga does. Because of its large size and extend among the peninsular rivers, the river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga.

IV. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
Himalayan Rivers:

1. Originate from the Himalayas.
2. Perennial in nature.
3. Long and Wide.
4. Middle and Lower courses are navigable.
5. Unsuitable for hydropower generation.

Peninsular Rivers:

1. Originate from Western ghats.
2. Non-perennial in nature.
3. Short and narrow.
4. Not useful for navigation.
5. Suitable for hydro-power generation.

Question 2.
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Western ghats:

1. Western ghats forms the Western edge of the peninsular plateau.
2. It runs parallel to the Arabian sea coast.
3. They are continuous range.
4. Anaimudi is the highest peak.

Eastern ghats:

1. Eastern ghats form the Eastern edge of the peninsular plateau.
2. It runs parallel to the Bay of Bengal coast.
3. They are not continuous dissected by east flowing rivers.
4. Mahendragiri is the highest peak.

Question 3.
Himadri and Himachal.
Answer:
Himadri:

1. Northern most range of the Himalayas.
2. Known as the Greater Himalayas.
3. Lofty peaks like Mt.Everest, Kanchenjunga etc., are located in this range.
4. Region of permanent snow cover.

Himachal:

1. Middle range of the Himalayas.
2. Known as the lesser Himalayas.
3. Major hill stations like Shimla, Daijeeling etc., are located in this region.
4. Subjected to extensive erosion.

Question 4.
Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Western Coastal plains:

1. Lies between Western ghats and Arabian Sea.
2. It extends from Rann of Kutch in the North to Kanyakumari in the South.
3. Dotted with sandy beaches, lagoons and estuary.
4. It is known as Konkan plains in the North Kanara in the middle and Malabar in the South.

Eastern Coastal plains:

1. Lies between Eastern ghats and the Bay of Bengal.
2. It stretches along the states of West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
3. Has regular shoreline and composed of alluvial deposits.
4. Northern part (Mahanadhi-Krishna) called as Northern circars and Southern part (Krishna-Kaveri) is called Coromandal coast.

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:
The neighbouring countries of India are Pakistan in the West, Afghanistan in the North-West, China, Nepal and Bhutan in the North and Bangladesh and Myanmar in the East and Srilanka in the South.

Question 2.
Give the importance of IST.
Answer:
To avoid the confusion of time in different states of India. One meridian is taken to have a uniform time for a whole country. Therefore 80° 30′ E has been chosen as the Standard Meridian of India which is almost passing from the centre of India.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

1. Deccan plateau is the largest part of the peninsular plateau.
2. It is roughly triangular in shape.
3. It covers an area of 7 lakh sq km.
4. The height ranges from 500 to 1000m above sea level.
5. It extends from Rajmahal hills on the East to Kanyakumari in the South. Satpura range in the West to Kanyakumari in the South. Bordered by Western Ghats on the West and Eastern ghats on the East.

Question 4.
State the west-flowing rivers of India.
Answer:

• The Narmada and the Tapi are the west flowing rivers of the Peninsular India.
• These rivers drain into the Arabian Sea.
• These rivers form estuaries on the west coast.
• These rivers are devoid of an large tributary system.
• Narmada river is the largest among the west flowing rivers of peninsular India. Its principal tributaries are Bushner, Halon, Heran, Banjar, Dudhi, Shakkar, Tawa, Bama and Kolar.
• Tapti river is one of only the three rivers in peninsular India that run from east to west. The others being the Narmada and the Mahi.
• The major tributaries are Vaki, Gomai, Arunavati, Aner, Nesu, Buray Panjhra and Bori. It outfall into the Arabian sea through the Gulf of Cambay.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshadweep.
Answer:

1. The Lakshadweep islands of India are located off the West coast of India.
2. These islands are of coral origin.
3. It covers an area of 32 sq km and consists of 27 islands.
4. Kavaratti is the administrative capital of Lakshadweep.
5. Earlier it had three divisions namely Laccadives, Minicoy and Aminidivi and was named as Lakshadweep in 1973.
6. “Pitt Island” of this group has a bird sanctuary and it is uninhabited.

VI. Answer In a paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the divisions of the Northern Mountains and its importance to India.
Answer:

• The Himalayas geologically young and structurally fold mountains stretch over the northern borders of India.
• The Himalayas represent the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain barriers of the world.
• The mountain ranges run in a west-east direction from India to the Brahmaputra.

Question 2.
Give an account on the major peninsular rivers of India.
Answer:

1. The rivers in South India are called the Peninsular rivers.
2. Most of these rivers originate from the Western ghats.
3. These rivers are seasonal and are mainly fed by rain.
4. Based on the direction of flow the Peninsular rivers are divided into East flowing rivers and West flowing rivers.

East flowing rivers:

1. Mahanadi: Originates near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chattisgarh.
   • Flows through Odisha, Jharkand, Chattisgarh (851 km in length)
   • Major tributaries: Seonath, Telen, Sandur and lb.
   • Distributaries: Paika, Birupa, Chitartala, Genguti and Nun.
   • These distributaries forms the Delta of Mahanadhi, one of the largest delta in India.
   • This river flows into Bay of Bengal.

(ii) Godavari:

• It is the longest river (1,465km) among the peninsular rivers covers 3.13 lakh km2 area.
• Originates in Nasik district of Maharashtra.
• Flows through the States of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh ends into Bay of Bengal.
• Major distributaries: Puma, Penganga, Pranitha, Indravathi, Tal and Salami.
• Distributaries: Near Rajahmundry divides into two channels. Vasishta and Gautami and form one of the largest delta.
• Fresh water lake: Kolleru is located in the deltaic region of Godavari.

(iii) Krishna:

• It is the second longest peninsular river (1400 km) covers 2.58 lakh sq km area.
• Originates from a spring in Mahabaleshwar in the Western ghats of Maharashtra.
• Flows through Andhra Pradesh.
• Major tributaries: Bhima, Peddavagu, Musi, Koyna and Thungabhadra.
• Joins in Bay of Bengal at Hamasaladevi.

(iv) Kaveri:

• Originates at Talakaveri – Kudagu hills of Karnataka (800km).
• It is also known as Dakshin Ganga or Ganga of the South.
• Main Tributaries: Hemavathi, Kabini, Bhavani, Arkavathy, Amaravathi, Harangi etc.
• Distributary – Coleroon
• Sacred lslands made by river Kaveri: Sri ranagpattinam(Kamataka) Srirangam (TamilNadu) Waterfalls – Sivasamudram.
• Flows through Karnataka and TamilNadu.
• Enters TamilNadu through Hoghenekkal Falls (Dharmapuri).
• Drains into Bay of Bengal at Poompuhar.

West Flowing Rivers:

(i) Narmadha:

• Origin: Araarkantak Plateau (Madhya Pradesh)
• Length: 1312 km covers an area of 98,796 sq km.
• Largest among the West flowing rivers.
• Tributaries: Burhner, Halon, Heran, Banjar, Dudhi, Shakkar, Tawa, Bama, Kolar.
• States benefited: Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra.
• Ends into Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Cambay.
• Forms 27 km long estuary.

(ii) Tapti:

• Rises near Multani in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.
• Length: 724 km. Covers an area of 65,145 sq km.
• Tributaries: Vaki, Gomai, Arunnavati, Aner, Nesu, Buray, Panjhra and Bori.
• Outfalls into the Arabian Sea through Gulf of Cambay.
• States: Flows through Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
• Since all these rivers flow in the plateau region they are swift and are useful for hydro power generation.

Question 3.
Give a detailed account on the basin of the Ganga.
Answer:

• On the basis of deposition of Sediments by various rivers and topographical characteristics, the Northern plains of India is divided into the four major regions. Ganga plains is one among them.
• It extends from the Yamuna River in the West to Bangladesh in the East.
• The extensive plain is the largest plain of India covers 3.75 lakh sq. km.
• It is watered by the River Ganga and its tributaries such as Ghaghra, Gandak, Kosi, Yamuna, Chambal, Betwa etc.
• It is formed by the sediments of these rivers and is fertile in nature.
• The general slope of the entire plain is towards East and South-East.
• Ganga plains covers the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal.

VII. Map exercises

Mark the following in the outline map of India

Question 1.
Major mountain ranges – Karakoram,Ladakh, Zaskar, Aravaili, Western Ghats,Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Question2.
Major rivers – Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Narmada, Tapti, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
Answer:

Question 3.
Major plateaus – Malwa, Chotanagpur, Deccan.
Answer:

VIII. Activities

Question 1.
Observe the Peninsular Plateau map of India and mark the major plateau divisions of India.
Answer:

Question 2.
Prepare a table showing the major West flowing and East flowing rivers of peninsular India.
Answer:
West flowing rivers:

1. Narmada, Tapti, Mahi.
2. Flows into Arabian Sea through Gulf of cambay.
3. Do not make deltas but form estuary.

East flowing rivers:

1. Mahanadhi, Godhavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
2. Flows into Bay of Bengal.
3. Make deltas at their lower courses.

Question 3.
Assume that you are travelling from West Bengal to Gujarat along the beautiful coasts of India. Find out the states which you would pass through?
Answer:
From West Bengal, if we travel along the East coast we could pass through Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu states from North to South and from South to North along the West Coast we would pass through the states of Kerala, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and reach Gujarat.

Question 4.
Find out the states through which the river Ganga flows.
Answer:
River Ganga flows through the States of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal.

Question 5.
Prepare a table showing the major rivers in India and findout it’s tributaries, origin, length and area.
Answer:

TB. PNo: 83
Find Out

Question 1.
The number of Union Territories along the western coast and eastern coast.
Answer:
Union Territories along the western coast are:

1. Diu and Daman
2. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
3. Mahe and Lakshadweep.

Union Territories along eastern coast are:

• Pondicherry and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 2.
Area wise which is the largest and the smallest state?
Answer:

1. Area wise Rajasthan is the largest state (3,42,239 sq.km).
2. The smallest state is Goa (3,702 sq km).

Question 3.
The states which do not have an international border or lie on the largest state.
Answer:
Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh.

Question 4.
Classify into four groups each having common frontiers with

1. Pakistan
2. China
3. Myanmar
4. Bangladesh.

Answer:

1. Pakistan – Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat.
2. China – Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarkhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh.
3. Myanmar – Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland Manipur, Mizoram.
4. Bangladesh – Meghalaya, Assam, West Bengal, Tripura.

TB. PNo: 85
Find Out

Question 5.
Find the Hill stations which are located in the Himalayan Mountains.
Answer:
Major hill stations of the Himalayas are Shimla, Mussoorie, Nainital, Almora, Ranikhet and Darjeeling.

TB. PNo: 95
Find Out

Question 6.
In which river the Gerosappa (jog) fall is found?
Answer:
In the river Sharavathi is the Gerosappa (jog) falls (830m). Second highest waterfalls in India.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India: Location, Relief and Drainage Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
India is the ………………… largest country in Asia.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) fourth
(d) third
Answer:
(b) second

Question 2.
Along with Hindukush and Karakoram range ……… provide a natural boundary in the
north.
(a) Aravalli
(b) Satpura
(c) Himalayas
Answer:
(c) Himalayas

Question 3.
The ………………… latitude passes through the middle of the country.
(a) 0°
(b) 23°.30’N
(c) 66°.30’N
(d) 23°.30’S
Answer:
(b) 23°.30’N

Question 4.
The coconut bearing coastal plains are on the ………
(a) east
(b) west
(c) south
Answer:
(c) south

Question 5.
The ………………… is known as the “Roof of the World”.
(a) Armenian knot
(b) Anaimudi
(c) Pamirknot
(d) Mt.Everest
Answer:
(c) Pamirknot

Question 6.
The …….. land gets abundance sunshine from the sun.
(a) mediterranean
(b) tropical
(c) equatorial
Answer:
(b) tropical

Question 7.
The Great Northern plains covers an area of over sq.km.
(a) 5 lakh
(b) 6 lakh
(c) 7 lakh
(d) 8 lakh
Answer:
(c) 7 lakh

Question 8.
The …… divides India into two halves.
(a) tropic of Cancer 231/2° N
(b) equator 0°
(c) tropic of Capricorn 231/2° S
Answer:
(a) tropic of Cancer 231/2° N

Question 9.
The ………………… desert is the world 9th largest sub tropical desert.
(a) Gobi
(b) Atacama
(c) Kalahari
(d) Thar
Answer:
(d) Thar

Question 10.
India is …….. times bigger than Pakistan.
(a) two
(b) five
(c) four
Answer:
(c) four

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

III. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Peninsular Rivers are Non-Perennial.
Answer:
Peninsular rivers originate from the Western Ghats. They have a large seasonal fluctuation in the volume of water as they are solely fed by the rain. So these Rivers are seasonal and non-perennial.

Question 2.
Andaman and Nicobar islands have dense forests.
Answer:
Since these islands lie close to the equator, the climate remains hot and wet throughout the year and has dense forests.

Question 3.
India has close contact with the countries of the West and the East.
Answer:
India’s Southward extension along the Indian ocean and the trans Indian . ocean routes provide a strategic position to India connecting the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia. Thus, India has close contact with the countries of the West and the East.

Question 4.
India is geographically vibrant and incredible country.
Answer:
The majestic Himalayan peaks in the North, beautiful beaches in the South, the Great Indian desert in the West and the breathtaking natural heritage in the East make India geographically vibrant and an incredible country.

IV. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

1. Located in Bay of Bengal.
2. These islands are of volcanic origin.
3. Port Blair is the administrative capital.
4. Consists of nearly 572 islands.

Lakshadweep Islands:

1. Located in Arabian Sea off the West coast of India.
2. These islands are mainly coral origin.
3. Kavaratti is the administrative capital.
4. Consists of nearly 27 islands.

Question 2.
Bhangar plains and Khadar plains.
Answer:
Bhangar plains:

1. Upland alluvial tracts of Great plains.
2. Formed by the older alluvium.
3. Soil is dark, rich in humus.
4. Well drained and fit for agriculture.

Khadar plains:

1. Plains along the courses of the rivers of Great plains.
2. Formed by the newer alluvium.
3. Soil is sandy, silt, clay and mud.
4. Highly fertile.

Question 3.
West flowing rivers and East flowing rivers.
Answer:
West flowing rivers:

1. Flow into Gulf of Cambay.
2. Form estuaries
3. Narmadha, Tapti and Mahi are the major west flowing rivers.

East flowing rivers of Peninsular plateau or South India:

1. Flow into Bay of Bengal.
2. Form Deltas
3. Mahanadhi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri are the major east flowing rivers.

Question 4.
Tributary and Distributary.
Answer:
Tributary:

1. A river or stream that joins with the main river.
2. Contributes water to the main river.
3. Eg: Yamuna tributary of river Ganga.

Distributary:

1. A branch or outlet that leaves the main river.
2. Carries water to the sea or lake.
3. Eg: River Coleroon a distributary of river Kaveri.

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Mention the tributaries of Godavari.
Answer:
Ghatprabha, Malaprabha, Manjira, Penganga and Neingarga.

Question 2.
Name the boundaries of India.
Answer:
India is bounded by Bay of Bengal on the East, Arabian sea on the West, Indian ocean in the South and the lofty Himalayas in the North

Question 3.
Why do we need a Standard Meridian for India?
Answer:
To avoid time gap of two hours between east and west part of India which may create confusion in working, it is essential to have a Standard Meridian.

Question 4.
How India is politically divided?
Answer:
India is politically divided into 29 states and 7 union territories (Delhi being the National Capital territory) for administrative convenience.

Question 5.
Why is India called a Sub-continent? How it is separated?
Answer:

1. India is called a Sub-continent because it is big landmass, which stands out as a distinct geographical unit from the rest of the continent.
2. It is separated by natural features like mountains and rivers.
3. India is also separated from rest of the continent by the mighty Himalayas.

Question 6.
Name the three major divisions of the Northern Mountains.
Answer:
The three major divisions of the Northern mountains are:

1. The Trans-Himalayas (or) The Western Himalayas
2. The Himalayas
3. Eastern Hills or Purvanchal Hills

Question 7.
Why is Northern Plain most productive part of India?
Answer:
With a rich soil cover combined with an adequate water supply and favourable climate Northern plain is agriculturally a very productive part of India.

Question 8.
How has Northern Plain become a fertile Plain?
Answer:
The plain is formed of alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a large basis lying at the foothills of the Himalayan over millions of years make northern plains fertile.

VI. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
India is a Sub-Continent. Prove it.
Answer:

1. Physical features
2. Climate conditions
3. Natural vegetation
4. Cultural norms
5. Ancient ethic and linguistic groups
6. Huge area

All these distinctive continental characteristic are found in India. Hence we consider India as a Sub-Continent.

Question 2.
Name the old fold mountain in India and write a brief note on it.
Answer:

1. Aravalli range is the old fold mountain in India.
2. These mountains are the relies and are reduced into hills due to erosional features.
3. The Aravalli hills form the North-Western and Western boundary of the Central Highlands a sub division of Peninsular plateau.
4. These hills extends from Gujarat through Rajasthan to Delhi in the North westerly direction (700km).
5. The height of these hills is about 1500m in South west and near Delhi hardly 400m.
6. Gurushikar (1722m) is the highest peak of this range.

Question 3.
Write a note on Purvanchal Hills.
Answer:

1. They are the eastern off-shoot of Himalayas.
2. It extended in the north-eastern states of India.
3. Most of these hills are located along the border of India and Myanmar while others are inside India.
4. Dafla Hills, Abor Hills, Mishmi Hills, Patkai Bum Hills, Naga Hills, Manipur Hills, Mizo Hills, Tripura Hills, Mikir Hills, Garo Hills, Khasi Hills and Jaintia Hills are the hills which are collectively known as Purvanchal Hills.

Question 4.
Write in general about the structure of the Peninsular plateau.
Answer:

1. The peninsular plateau lies to the south of the Great Northern plains.
2. This is the largest physiographic division covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km.
3. It is made up of old rocks and consists of series of plateaus and hill ranges interspersed with river valleys.
4. The average height of a large portion of this plateau is more than 600m.
5. Anaimudi is the highest point of this place located in Anaimalai.
6. The plateau slopes towards east and is a part of ancient Gondwana.
7. River Narmada divides the Plateau region into two. The region lying to the north of Narmada is called Central Highlands and South of Narmada is called Deccan plateau.

VII. Map exercises

Question 1.
Mark the following in the outline map of India.

Set 1:

1. Mark the boundaries of India
2. Latitudinal Extent
3. Longitudinal Extent
4. Tropic of cancer
5. Lakshadweep Islands
6. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
   
7. Central Meridian of India
   

Set 2:
Peaks: Anaimudi, Mt. Everest, Mt.K2 Mahendragiri, Gurushikhar. NamchaBarwa, Nanga parbat, Kanchenjunga. Dhaulagiri, Makalu. Nandadevi, Dodabetta.

Hill stations: Shimla, Mussourie Ranikhet, Nainital, Almora, Darjeeling.

Hills: Aravalli, Vindhya. Satpura, Naga hills, Mizo hills, Garo hills, Khasi hills, Jaintia hills, Nilgiri hills, Anaimalai hills, Cardomom hills, Raj Mahal hills, Gir hills.

Gulf: Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Rann of Kutch, Palk Strait, Gulf of Cambay.

Set 3:
Seven Union Territories:

1. Delhi
2. Chandigarh
3. Diu and Daman
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
5. Pondicherry
6. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
7. Lakshadweep.