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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.3 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.3

Question 1.
Calculate consumer’s surplus if the demand function p = 50 – 2x and x = 20
Solution:
Demand function p = 50 – 2x and x = 20
when x = 20, p = 50 – 2(20)
p = 50 – 40 = 10
∴ p₀ = 10
CS = \(\int _{0}^{x}\) (demand function) dx – (Price × quantity demanded)
= \(\int _{0}^{20}\) (50 – 2x)dx – (10 × 20)
= [50x – 2(\(\frac { x^2 }{2}\))]\( _{0}^{20}\) – 200
= [50x – x²]\( _{0}^{20}\) – 200
= {50(20) – (20)² – [0]} – 200
= (1000 – 400) – 200
= 600 – 200
∴ C.S = 400 units

Question 2.
Calculate consumer’s surplus if the demand function p = 122 – 5x – 2x² and x = 6.
Solution:
Demand function p = 122 – 5x – 2x² and x = 6
when x = 6; p = 122 – 5(6) – 2(6)²
= 122 – 30 – 2 (36)
= 122 – 102 = 20
∴ p₀ = 20
C.S = \(\int _{0}^{x}\) (demand function) dx – (Price × quantity demanded)
= \(\int _{0}^{6}\)(122 – 5x – 2x²) dx – (20 × 6)

[732 – 5(18) – 2(72)] – 120
= 732 – 90 – 144 – 120
= 732 – 354 = 378
∴ CS = 378 units

Question 3.
The demand function p = 85 – 5x and supply function p = 3x – 3. Calculate the equilibrium price and quantity demanded. Also calculate consumer’s surplus.
Solution:
Demand function p = 85 – 5x
Supply function p = 3x – 35
W.K.T. at equilibrium prices p_d = p_s
85 – 5x = 3x – 35
85 + 35 = 3x + 5x
120 = 8x ⇒ x = \(\frac { 120 }{8}\)
∴ x = 15
when x = 15 p₀ = 85 – 5(15) = 85 – 75 = 10
C.S = \(\int _{0}^{x}\) f(x) dx – x₀p₀
= \(\int _{0}^{x}\) (85 – 5x) dx – (15)(10)

= 1275 – \(\frac { 1125 }{2}\) – 150
= 1275 – 562.50 – 150
= 1275 – 712.50
∴ CS = 562.50 units

Question 4.
The demand function for a commodity is p = e^-x. Find the consumer’s surplus when p = 0.5
Solution:
The demand function p = e^-x
when p = 0.5 ⇒ 0.5 = e^-x
\(\frac { 1 }{2}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{e^x}\) ⇒ e^x = 2
∴ x = log 2
∴ Consumer’s surplus
C.S = \(\int _{0}^{x}\) (demand function) dx – (Price × quantity demanded)

Question 5.
Calculate the producer’s surplus at x = 5 for the supply function p = 7 + x
Solution:
The supply function p = 7 + x
when x = 5 ⇒ p = 7 + 5 = 12
∴ x₀ = 5 and p₀ = 12
Producer’s surplus

Question 6.
If the supply function for a product is p = 3x + 5x². Find the producer’s surplus when x = 4
Solution:
The supply function p = 3x + 5x²
when x = 4 ⇒ p = 3(4) + 5(4)²
p = 12 + 5(16)= 12 + 80
p = 92
∴ x₀ = 4 and p₀ = 92
Producer’s Surplus

Question 7.
The demand function for a commodity is p = \(\frac { 36 }{x+4}\) Find the producer’s surplus when the prevailing market price is Rs 6.
Solution:
The demand function for a commodity
p = \(\frac { 36 }{x+4}\)
when p = 6 ⇒ 6 = \(\frac { 36 }{x+4}\)
x + 4 = \(\frac { 36 }{6}\) ⇒ x + 4 = 6
x = 2
∴ p₀ = 6 and x₀ = 2
The consumer’s surplus
C.S = \(\int _{0}^{x}\) f(x) dx – x₀p₀
= \(\int _{0}^{2}\) (\(\frac { 36 }{x+4}\)) dx – 2(6)
= 36 [log (x + 4)]\(_{0}^{2}\) – 12
= 36 [log (2 + 4) – log (0 + 4)] – 12
= 36 [log6 – log4] – 12
= 36[log(\(\frac { 6 }{4}\))] – 12
∴ CS = 36 log(\(\frac { 6 }{4}\)) – 12 units

Question 8.
The demand and supply functions under perfect competition are pd = 1600 – x² and p_s = 2x² + 400 respectively, find the producer’s surplus.
Solution:
pd = 1600 – x² and p_s = 2x² + 400
Under the perfect competition p_d = p_s
1600 – x² = 2x² + 400
1600 – 400 = 2x² + x² ⇒ 1200 = 3x²
⇒ x² – 400 ⇒ x = 20 or -20
The value of x cannot be negative, x = 20 when x₀ = 20;
p₀ = 1600 – (20)² = 1600 – 400
P₀ = 1200
PS = x₀p₀ – \(\int _{0}^{x_0}\) g(x) dx

Question 9.
Under perfect competition for a commodity the demand and supply laws are P_d = \(\frac { 8 }{x+1}\) – 2 and Ps = \(\frac { x+3 }{2}\) respectively. Find the consumer’s and producer’s surplus.
Solution:

16 – (x² + 3x + x + 3) = 2 [2(x + 1)]
16 – (x² + 4x + 3) = 4(x + 1)
16 – x² – 4x – 3 = 4x + 4
x² + 4x + 4x + 4 + 3 – 16 = 0
x² + 8x – 9 = 0
(x + 9) (x – 1) = 0 ⇒ x = -9 (or) x = 1
The value of x cannot be negative x = 1 when x₀ = 1
p₀ = \(\frac { 8 }{1+1}\) – 2 ⇒ p₀ = \(\frac { 8 }{2}\) – 2
p₀ = 4 – 2 ⇒ p₀ = 2
CS = \(\int _{0}^{x}\) f(x) dx – x₀p₀
= \(\int _{0}^{1}\) (\(\frac { 8 }{x+1}\) – 2) dx – (1) (2)
= {8[log(x + 1)] – 2x}\(\int _{0}^{1}\) – 2
= 8 {[log (1 + 1) – 2(1)] – 8 [log (0 + 1) – 2(0)]} – 2
= [8 log (2) – 2 – 8 log1] – 2
= 8 log(\(\frac { 8 }{2}\)) – 2 – 2
C.S = (8 log 2 – 4) units
P.S = x₀p₀ – \(\int _{0}^{x_0}\) g(x) dx

Question 10.
The demand equation for a products is x = \(\sqrt {100-p}\) and the supply equation is x = \(\frac {p}{2}\) – 10. Determine the consumer’s surplus and producer’s, under market equilibrium.
Solution:
p_d = \(\sqrt {100-p}\) and p_s = \(\sqrt {100-p}\)
Under market equilibrium, p_d = p_s
\(\sqrt {100-p}\) = \(\frac {p}{2}\) – 10
Squaring on both sides

36p = p² ⇒ p² – 36 p = 0
p (p – 36) = 0 ⇒ p = 0 or p = 36
The value of p cannot be zero, ∴p₀ = 36 when p₀ = 36
x₀ = \(\sqrt {100-36}\) = \(\sqrt {64}\)
∴ x₀ = 8

= 288 – [x² + 20x]\( _{0}^{8}\)
= 288 – { [(8)² + 20(8)] – [0]}
= 288 – [64 + 160]
= 288 – 224 = 64
PS = 64 Units

Question 11.
Find the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus for the demand function pd = 25 – 3x and supply function ps = 5 + 2x
Solution:
p_d = 25 – 3x and p_s = 5 + 2x
Under market equilibrium, p_d = p_s
25 – 3x = 5 + 2x
25 – 5 = 2x + 3x ⇒ 5x = 20
∴ x = 4
when x = 4
P₀ = 25 – 3(4)
= 25 – 12 = 13
p₀ = 13

= 52 – [5x + x²]\( _{0}^{4}\)
= 52 – (5(4) + (4)²) – (0)}
= 52 – [20 + 16]
= 52 – 36
∴ PS = 16 units

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.2 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.2

Question 1.
The cost of an overhaul of an engine is Rs 10,000 The Operating cost per hour is at the rate of 2x-240 where the engine has run x km. find out the total cost of the engine run for 300 hours after overhaul.
Solution:
Given that the overhaul cost is Rs. 10,000.
The marginal cost is 2x – 240
MC = 2x – 240
C = ∫ MC dx + k
C = x² – 240x + k
k is the overhaul cost
⇒ k = 10,000
So C = x² – 240x + 10,000
When x = 300 hours, total cost is
C = (300)² – 240(300) + 10,000
⇒ C = 90,000 – 72000 + 10,000
⇒ C = 28,000
So the total cost of the engine run for 300 hours after the overhaul is ₹ 28,000.

Question 2.
Elasticity of a function \(\frac { Ey }{Ex}\) is given by \(\frac { Ey }{Ex}\) = \(\frac { -7x }{(1-2x)(2+3x)}\). Find the function when x = 2, y = \(\frac { 3 }{8}\)
Solution:

Put x = 0
7 = A (3(0) + 2) + B (2(0) – 1)
7 = A (2) + B (-1)
7 = (2) (2) – B
B = 4 – 7
B = -3

Question 3.
The Elasticity of demand with respect to price for a commodity is given by where \(\frac { (4-x)}{x}\) p is the price when demand is x. find the demand function when the price is 4 and the demand is 2. Also, find the revenue function
Solution:
The elasticity at the demand

Integrating on both sides
∫\(\frac { 1}{(x-4)}\) = ∫\(\frac { 1}{p}\) dp
log |x – 4| = log |p| + log k
log |x – 4| = log |pk| ⇒ (x – 4) = pk ……… (1)
when p = 4 and x = 2
(2 – 4) = 4k ⇒ -2 = 4k
k = -1/2
Eqn (1) ⇒ (x – 4) = p(-1/2)
-2 (x – 4) = p ⇒ p = 8 – 2x
Revenue function R = px = (8 – 2x)x
R = 8x – 2x²

Question 4.
A company receives a shipment of 500 scooters every 30 days. From experience it is known that the inventory on hand is related to the number of days x. Since the shipment, I (x) = 500 – 0.03 x², the daily holding cost per scooter is Rs 0.3. Determine the total cost for maintaining inventory for 30 days
Solution:
Here I (x) = 500 – 0.03 x²
C¹ = Rs 0.3
T = 30
Total inventory carrying cost
= C¹ \(\int _{0}^{T}\) I(x) dx
= 0.3 \(\int _{0}^{30}\) (500 – 0.03 x²)dx
= 0.3 [500 x – 0.03(\(\frac { x^3 }{3}\))]\( _{0}^{30}\)
= 0.3 [ 500 x – 0.01 x³]\( _{0}^{30}\)
= 0.3 [500(30) – 0.01 (30)³] – [0]
= 0.3 [15000 – 0.01 (27000)]
= 0.3 [15000 – 270] = 0.3 [14730]
= Rs 4,419

Question 5.
An account fetches interest at the rate of 5% per annum compounded continuously an individual deposits Rs 1000 each year in his account. how much will be in the account after 5 years (e^0.25 = 1.284)
Solution:
P = 1000
r = \(\frac { 5 }{1000}\) = 0.05
N = 5
Annuity = \(\int _{0}^{5}\) 1000 e^0.05t dt
= 1000 [ \(\frac { e^{0.05t} }{0.05}\) ] \(_{0}^{5}\)
= \(\frac { 1000 }{0.05}\) [e^0.05(5) – e⁰]
= 20000 [e^0.25 – 1]
= 20000 [1.284 – 1]
= 20000 [0.284]
= Rs 5680

Question 6.
The marginal cost function of a product is given by \(\frac { dc }{dx}\) = 100 – 10x + 0.1 x² where x is the output. Obtain the total and average cost function of the firm under the assumption, that its fixed cost is t 500
Solution:
\(\frac { dc }{dx}\) = 100 – 10x + 0.1 x² and k = Rs 500
dc = (100 – 10x + 0.1 x²) dx
Integrating on both sides,

Question 7.
The marginal cost function is M.C = 300 x^2/5 and the fixed cost is zero. Find the total cost as a function of x
Solution:
M.C = 300 x^2/5 and fixed cost K = 0
Total cos t = ∫M.C dx

Question 8.
If the marginal cost function of x units of output is \(\frac { a }{\sqrt {ax+b}}\) and if the cost of output is zero. Find the total cost as a function of x.
Solution:

∴ C(x) = 2(ax + b)^1/2 + k …….. (1)
When x = 0
eqn (1) ⇒ 0 = 2 [a(0) + b]^1/2 + k
k = -2(b)^1/2 ⇒ k = -2√b
Required cost function
C(x) = 2(ax + b)^1/2 – 2√b
∴ C = 2\(\sqrt { ax + b}\) – 2√b

Question 9.
Determine the cost of producing 200 air conditioners if the marginal cost (is per unit) is C'(x) = \(\frac { x^2 }{200}\) + 4
Solution:

= 13333.33 + 800
∴ Cost of producing 200 air conditioners
= Rs 14133.33

Question 10.
The marginal revenue (in thousands of Rupees) function for a particular commodity is 5 + 3 e^-0.03x where x denotes the number of units sold. Determine the total revenue from the sale of 100 units (given e^-3 = approximately)
Solution:
The marginal Revenue (in thousands of Rupees) function
M.R = 5 + 3^-0.03x
Total Revenue from sale of 100 units is
Total Revenue T.R = \(\int _{0}^{ 100}\) M.R dx

= [500 – 100 e^-3] – [0 – 100 e°]
= [500 -100 (0.05)] – [-100 (1)]
= [500 – 5]+ 100
= 495 + 100 = 595 thousands
= 595 × 1000
∴ Revenue R = Rs 595000

Question 11.
If the marginal revenue function for a commodity is MR = 9 – 4x². Find the demand function.
Solution:
Marginal Revenue function MR = 9 – 4x²
Revenue function R = ∫MR dx

Question 12.
Given marginal revenue function \(\frac { 4 }{(2x+3)^2}\) -1, show that the average revenue function is P = \(\frac { 4 }{6x+9}\) -1
Solution:
M.R = \(\frac { 4 }{(2x+3)^2}\) -1
Total Revenue R = ∫M.R dx

Question 13.
A firms marginal revenue functions is M.R = 20 e^-x/10 Find the corresponding demand function.
Solution:

Question 14.
The marginal cost of production of a firm is given by C’ (x) = 5 + 0.13 x, the marginal revenue is given by R’ (x) = 18 and the fixed cost is Rs 120. Find the profit function.
Solution:
MC = C'(x) = 5 + 0.13x
C(x) = ∫C'(x) dx + k₁
= ∫(5 + 0.13x) dx + k₁
= 5x + \(\frac{0.13}{2} x^{2}\) + k₁
When quantity produced is zero, fixed cost is 120
(i.e) When x = 0, C = 120 ⇒ k₁ = 120
Cost function is 5x + 0.065x² + 120
Now given MR = R'(x) = 18
R(x) = ∫18 dx + k₂ = 18x + k₂
When x = 0, R = 0 ⇒ k₂ = 0
Revenue = 18x
Profit P = Total Revenue – Total cost = 18x – (5x + 0.065x² + 120)
Profit function = 13x – 0.065x² – 120

Question 15.
If the marginal revenue function is R'(x) = 1500 – 4x – 3x². Find the revenue function and average revenue function.
Solution:
Given marginal revenue function
MR = R’(x)= 1500 – 4x – 3x²
Revenue function R(x) = ∫R'(x) dx + c
R = ∫(1500 – 4x – 3x²) dx + c
R = 1500x – 2x² – x³ + c
When x = 0, R = 0 ⇒ c = 0
So R = 1500x – 2x² – x³
Average revenue function P = \(\frac{R}{x}\) ⇒ 1500 – 2x – x²

Question 16.
Find the revenue function and the demand function if the marginal revenue for x units MR = 10 + 3x – x
Solution:
The marginal revenue function
MR = 10 + 3x – x²
The Revenue function
R = ∫(MR) dx
= ∫(10 + 3x – x²)dx

Question 17.
The marginal cost function of a commodity is given by M_c = \(\frac { 14000 }{\sqrt{7x+4}}\) and the fixed cost is Rs 18,000. Find the total cost average cost.
Solution:
The marginal cost function of a commodity
M_c = \(\frac { 14000 }{\sqrt{7x+4}}\) = 14000 (7x + 4)^-1/2
Fixed cost k = Rs 18,000
Total cost function C = ∫(M.C) dx
= ∫14000 (7x + 4)^-1/2 dx

Question 18.
If the marginal cost (MC) of production of the company is directly proportional to the number of units (x) produced, then find the total cost function, when the fixed cost is Rs 5,000 and the cost of producing 50 units is Rs 5,625.
Solution:
M.C αx
M.C = λx
fixed cost k = Rs 5000
Cost function C = ∫(M.C) dx
= ∫λx dx

Question 19.
If MR = 20 – 5x + 3x², Find total revenue function
Solution:
MR = 20 – 5x + 3x²
Total Revenue function
R = ∫(MR) dx = ∫(20 – 5x + 3x²) dx
R = 20x – \(\frac { 5x^2 }{2}\) + \(\frac {3x^3 }{3}\) + k
when x = 0; R = 0 ⇒ k = 0
∴ R = 20x – \(\frac { 5 }{2}\) x² + x³

Question 20.
If MR = 14 – 6x + 9x², Find the demand function.
Solution:
MR = 14 – 6x + 9x²
R = ∫(14 – 6x + 9x²) dx + k
= 14x – 3x² + 3x³ + k
Since R = 0, when x = 0, k = 0
So revenue function R = 14x – 3x² + 3x³
Demand function P = \(\frac{R}{x}\) = 14 – 3x + 3x²

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.12 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.12

Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives:

Question 1.
∫\(\frac { 1 }{x^3}\) dx is
(a) \(\frac { -3 }{x^2}\) + c
(b) \(\frac { -1 }{2x^2}\) + c
(c) \(\frac { -1 }{3x^2}\) + c
(d) \(\frac { -2 }{x^2}\) + c
Solution:
(b) \(\frac { -1 }{2x^2}\) + c
Hint:
∫\(\frac { 1 }{x^3}\) dx = ∫x^-3 dx = [ \(\frac { x^{-3+1} }{-3+1}\) ] + c
= (\(\frac { x^{-2} }{-2}\)) + c = \(\frac { -1 }{2x^2}\) + c

Question 2.
∫2^x dx is
(a) 2^x log 2 + c
(b) 2^x + c
(c) \(\frac { 2^x }{log 2}\) + c
(d) \(\frac { log 2 }{2^x}\) + c
Solution:
(c) \(\frac { 2^x }{log 2}\) + c
Hint:
∫2^x dx = ∫a^x dx = \(\frac { a^x }{log a}\) + c

Question 3.
∫\(\frac { sin 2x }{2 sin x}\) dx is
(a) sin x + c
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) sin x + c
(c) cos x + c
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) cos x + c
Solution:
(a) sin x + c
Hint:
∫\(\frac { sin 2x }{2 sin x}\) dx = ∫\(\frac { 2sin x cos x }{2 sin x}\) dx
= ∫cos x dx
= sin x + c

Question 4.
∫\(\frac { sin 5x-sin x }{cos 3x}\) dx is
(a) -cos 2x + c
(b) -cos 2x – c
(c) –\(\frac { 1 }{4}\) cos 2x + c
(d) -4 cos 2x + c
Solution:
(a) -cos 2x + c
Hint:

Question 5.
∫\(\frac { log x}{x}\) dx, x > 0 is
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) (log x)² + c
(b) –\(\frac { 1 }{2}\) (log x)²
(c) \(\frac { 2 }{x^2}\) + c
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{x^2}\) – c
Solution:
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) (log x)² + c
Hint:
∫\(\frac { log x}{x}\) dx, x > 0
∫ tdt = [ \(\frac { t^2 }{2}\) ] + c
= \(\frac { (log x)^2 }{2}\) + c
let t = log x
\(\frac { dt }{dx}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{x}\)
dt = \(\frac { 1 }{x}\) dx

Question 6.
∫\(\frac { e^x }{\sqrt{1+e^x}}\) dx is
(a) \(\frac { e^x }{\sqrt{1+e^x}}\) + c
(b) 2\(\sqrt{1+e^x}\) + c
(c) \(\sqrt{1+e^x}\) + c
(d) e^x\(\sqrt{1+e^x}\) + c
Solution:
(b) 2\(\sqrt{1+e^x}\) + c
Hint:

Question 7.
∫\(\sqrt { e^x}\) dx is
(a) \(\sqrt { e^x}\) + c
(b) 2\(\sqrt { e^x}\) + c
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) \(\sqrt { e^x}\) + c
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{2\sqrt { e^x}}\) + c
Solution:
(b) 2\(\sqrt { e^x}\) + c
Hint:
∫\(\sqrt { e^x}\) dx
= ∫\(\sqrt { e^x}\) dx = ∫(e^x)^1/2 dx = ∫ e^x/2 dx
= \(\frac { e^{x/2} }{1/2}\) + c = 2e^x/2 + c
= 2(e^x)^1/2 + c = 2\(\sqrt { e^x}\) + c

Question 8.
∫e^2x [2x² + 2x] dx
(a) e^2x x² + c
(b) xe^2x + c
(c) 2x²e² + c
(d) \(\frac { x^2e^x }{2}\) + c
Solution:
(a) e^2x x² + c
Hint:
∫e^2x (2x² + 2x) dx
Let f(x) = x²; f'(x) = 2x and a = 2
= ∫e^ax [af(x),+ f ’(x)] = e^ax f(x) + c
= ∫e^2x (2x² + 2x) dx = e^2x (x²) + c

Question 9.
\(\frac { e^x }{e^x+1}\) dx is
(a) log |\(\frac { e^x }{e^x+1}\)| + c
(b) log |\(\frac { e^x+1 }{e^x}\)| + c
(c) log |e^x| + c
(d) log |e^x + 1| + c
Solution:
(d) log |e^x + 1| + c
Hint:
∫\(\frac { e^x }{e^x+1}\) dx
= ∫\(\frac { dt }{t}\)
= log |t| + c
= log |e^x + 1| + c
take t = e^x + 1
\(\frac { dt }{dx}\) = e^x
dt = e^x dx

Question 10.
∫\(\frac { 9 }{x-3}-\frac { 1 }{x+1}\) dx is
(a) log |x – 3| – log|x + 1| + c
(b) log|x – 3| + log|x + 1| + c
(c) 9 log |x – 3| – log |x + 1| + c
(d) 9 log |x – 3| + log |x + 1| + c
Solution:
(c) 9 log |x – 3| – log |x + 1| + c
Hint:

Question 11.
∫\(\frac { 2x^3 }{4+x^4}\) dx is
(a) log |4 + x⁴| + c
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) log |4 + x⁴| + c
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) log |4 + x⁴| + c
(d) log |\(\frac { 2x^3 }{4+x^4}\) + c
Solution:
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) log |4 + x⁴| + c
Hint:

Question 12.
∫\(\frac { dx }{\sqrt{x^2-36}}\) is
(a) \(\sqrt{x^2-36}\) + c
(b) log |x + \(\sqrt{x^2-36}\)| + c
(c) log |x – \(\sqrt{x^2-36}\)| + c
(d) log |x² + \(\sqrt{x^2-36}\)| + c
Solution:
(b) log |x + \(\sqrt{x^2-36}\)| + c
Hint:

Question 13.
∫\(\frac { 2x+3 }{\sqrt{x^2+3x+2}}\) dx is
(a) \(\sqrt{x^2+3x+2}\) + c
(b) 2\(\sqrt{x^2+3x+2}\) + c
(c) \(\sqrt{x^2+3x+2}\) + c
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{3}\) (x² + 3x + 2) + c
Solution:
(b) 2\(\sqrt{x^2+3x+2}\) + c
Hint:

Question 14.
\(\int_{0}^{4}\) (2x + 1) dx is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Solution:
(b) 2
Hint:
\(\int_{0}^{4}\) (2x + 1) dx
= [2(\(\frac { x^2 }{2}\)) + x]\(_{0}^{1}\) = [x² + x]\(_{0}^{1}\)
= [(1)² + (1)] – [0] = 2

Question 15.
\(\int_{2}^{4}\) \(\frac { dx }{x}\) is
(a) log 4
(b) 0
(c) log 2
(d) log 8
Solution:
(c) log 2
Hint:
\(\int_{2}^{4}\) \(\frac { dx }{x}\)
\(\int_{2}^{4}\) \(\frac { dx }{x}\) = [log |x|]\(_{0}^{1}\) = log |4| – log |2|
= log[ \(\frac { 4}{2}\) ] = log 2

Question 16.
\(\int_{0}^{∞}\) e^-2x dx is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
Solution:
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{2}\)
Hint:

Question 17.
\(\int_{-1}^{1}\) x³ e^x4 dx is
(a) 1
(b) 2\(\int_{0}^{1}\) x³ e^x4
(c) 0
(d) e^x4
Solution:
(c) 0
Hint:
\(\int_{-1}^{1}\) x³ e^x4 dx
Let f (x) = x³e^x4
f(-x) = (-x)² e^(-x)4
= -x² e^x4
f(-x) = -f(x)
⇒ f(x) is an odd function
∴ \(\int_{-1}^{1}\) x³ e^x4 dx = 0

Question 18.
If f(x) is a continuous function and a < c < b, then \(\int_{a}^{c}\) f(x) dx + \(\int_{c}^{b}\) f(x) dx is
(a) \(\int_{a}^{b}\) f(x) dx – \(\int_{a}^{c}\) f(x) dx
(b) \(\int_{a}^{c}\) f(x) dx – \(\int_{a}^{b}\) f(x) dx
(c) \(\int_{a}^{b}\) f(x) dx
(d) 0
Solution:
(c) \(\int_{a}^{b}\) f(x) dx

Question 19.
The value of \(\int_{-π/2}^{π/2}\) cos x dx is
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4
Solution:
(b) 2
Hint:
\(\int_{-π/2}^{π/2}\) cos x dx
Let f(x) = cos x
f(-x) = cos (-x) = cos (x) = f(x)
∴ f(x) is an even function
\(\int_{-π/2}^{π/2}\) cos x dx = 2 × \(\int_{0}^{π/2}\) cos x dx
= 2 × [sin x]\(_{0}^{-π/2}\) = 2 [sin π/2 – sin 0]
= 2 [1 – 0] = 2

Question 20.
\(\int_{-π/2}^{π/2}\) \(\sqrt {x^4(1-x)^2}\) dx
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{12}\)
(b) \(\frac { -7 }{12}\)
(c) \(\frac { 7 }{12}\)
(d) \(\frac { -1 }{12}\)
Solution:
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{12}\)
Hint:

Question 21.
If \(\int_{0}^{1}\) f(x) dx = 1, \(\int_{0}^{1}\) x f(x) dx = a and \(\int_{0}^{1}\) x² f(x) dx = a², then \(\int_{0}^{1}\) (a – x)² f(x) dx is
(a) 4a²
(b) 0
(c) a²
(d) 1
Solution:
(b) 0
Hint:
\(\int_{0}^{1}\) (a – x)² f(x) dx
= \(\int_{0}^{1}\) [a² +x² – 2ax] f(x) dx
= \(\int_{0}^{1}\) a² + f (x) dx + \(\int_{0}^{1}\) x² f (x) dx – 2a\(\int_{0}^{1}\) x f(x) dx
= a²(1) + a² – 2a(a) – 2a² – 2a² = 0

Question 22.
The value of \(\int_{2}^{3}\) f(5 – x) dx – \(\int_{2}^{3}\) f(x) dx is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 5
Solution:
(b) 0
Hint:
\(\int_{2}^{3}\) f(5 – x) dx – \(\int_{2}^{3}\) f(x) dx
Using the property
= \(\int_{2}^{3}\) f(x) dx = \(\int_{a}^{b}\) f(a + b – x) dx
= \(\int_{2}^{3}\) f (5 – x) – \(\int_{2}^{3}\) f (5 – x) dx
= 0

Question 23.
\(\int_{0}^{4}\) (√x + \(\frac { 1 }{√x}\)), dx is
(a) \(\frac { 20 }{3}\)
(b) \(\frac { 21 }{3}\)
(c) \(\frac { 28 }{3}\)
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{3}\)
Solution:
(c) \(\frac { 28 }{3}\)
Hint:

Question 24.
\(\int_{0}^{π/3}\) tan x dx is
(a) log 2
(b) 0
(c) log √2
(d) 2 log 2
Solution:
(a) log 2
Hint:
\(\int_{0}^{π/3}\) tan x dx
= ∫tan x dx
= ∫\(\frac { sin x }{cos x}\) dx
= -∫\(\frac { -sin x }{cos x}\) dx
= -log |cos x| + c
= log sec x + c
= [log (sec x)]\(_{0}^{π/3}\)
= log [(sec π/3) – log (sec 0)]
= log (2) – log (1)
= log 2 – (0) = log 2

Question 25.
Using the factorial representation of the gamma function, which of the following is the solution for the gamma function Γ(n) when n = 8
(a) 5040
(b) 5400
(c) 4500
(d) 5540
Solution:
(a) 5040
Hint:
\(\Upsilon\) (8) = 7! = 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 5040

Question 26.
Γ(n) is
(a) (n – 1)!
(b) n!
(c) n Γ (n)
(d) (n – 1) Γ(n)
Solution:
(a) (n – 1)!
Hint:
Γ(n) = Γ(n – 1) + 1 = (n – 1)!

Question 27.
Γ(1) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) n
(d) n!
Solution:
(b) 1
Hint:
\(\Upsilon\) (1) = 0! = 1

Question 28.
If n > 0, then Γ(n) is
(a) \(\int_{0}^{1}\) e^-x x^n-1 dx
(b) \(\int_{0}^{1}\) e^-x xⁿ dx
(c) \(\int_{0}^{∞}\) e^x x^-n dx
(d) \(\int_{0}^{∞}\) e^-x x^n-1 dx
Solution:
(d) \(\int_{0}^{∞}\) e^-x x^n-1 dx

Question 29.
Γ(\(\frac { 3 }{2}\))
(a) √π
(b) \(\frac { √π }{2}\)
(c) 2√π
(d) \(\frac { 3 }{2}\)
Solution:
(b) \(\frac { √π }{2}\)
Hint:
\(\Upsilon\) (3/2) = \(\frac { 2 }{2}\) \(\Upsilon\) [ \(\frac { 3 }{2}\) ]
= \(\frac { 3 }{2}\) √π

Question 30.
\(\int_{0}^{∞}\) x⁴ e^-x dx is
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 4!
(d) 64
Solution:
(b) \(\frac { √π }{2}\)
Hint:
\(\int_{0}^{∞}\) x⁴ e^-x dx
= ∫xⁿ e^-ax dx = \(\frac { n! }{a{n+1}}\)
= \(\frac { 4! }{(1)^{n+1}}\)
= \(\frac { 4! }{(1)^5}\)
= 4!

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Miscellaneous Problems Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Miscellaneous Problems

Question 1.
∫\(\frac { 1 }{\sqrt{x-1}-\sqrt{x+3}}\) dx
Solution:
∫\(\frac { 1 }{\sqrt{x+2}-\sqrt{x+3}}\) dx
Conjugating the Denominator

Question 2.
∫\(\frac { dx }{2-3x-2x^2}\)
Solution:

Question 3.
∫\(\frac { dx }{e^x+6+5e^{-x}}\)
Solution:

Question 4.
∫\(\sqrt { 2x^2-3}\) dx
Solution:

Question 5.
∫\(\sqrt { 9x^2+12x+3}\) dx
Solution:

Question 6.
∫(x + 1)² log x dx
Solution:
∫udv = uv – ∫vdu
∫(x + 1)² log x dx

Question 7.
∫log (x – \(\sqrt { x^2-1}\)) dx
Solution:

Question 8.
\(\int_{0}^{1}\) \(\sqrt { x(x-1)}\) dx
Solution:

Question 9.
\(\int_{-1}^{1}\) x² e^-2x dx
Solution:

Question 10.
\(\int_{0}^{3}\) \(\frac { xdx }{\sqrt {x+1} + \sqrt{5x+1}}\)
Solution:

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.11 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.11

Evaluate the following integrals as the limit of the sum:

Question 1.
\(\int_{0}^{1}\) (x + 4) dx
Solution:

Question 2.
\(\int_{1}^{3}\) x dx
Solution:

Question 3.
\(\int_{1}^{3}\) (2x + 3) dx
Solution:

Question 4.
\(\int_{0}^{1}\) x² dx
Solution:

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Miscellaneous Problems Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Miscellaneous Problems

Question 1.
A manufacture’s marginal revenue functional is given by MR = 275 – x – 0.3x². Find the increase in the manufactures total revenue if the production increased from 10 to 20 units.
Solution:
MR = 275 – x – 0.3x²
The increase in the manufactures total revenue 20
T.R = ∫MR dx = (275 – x – 0.3x²) dx

= [5500 – 200 – 0.1 (8000)] – [2750 – 50 – 0.1(1000)]
= [5500 – 200 – 800] – [2750 – 50 – 100]
= 4500 – 2600
= Rs 1900

Question 2.
A company has determined that marginal cost function for product of a particular commodity is given by MC = 125 + 10x – \(\frac { 8 }{3}\). Where C is the cost of producing x units of the commodity. If the fixed cost Rs 250 what is cost of producing 15 units.
Solution:
MC = 125 + 10x – \(\frac { x^2 }{9}\)
Fixed cos t K = Rs 250
C = ∫MC dx – ∫(125 + 10x – \(\frac { x^2 }{9}\)) dx
C = 125x + \(\frac { 10x^2 }{9}\) – \(\frac { x^3 }{9×3}\) + k
C = 125x + 5x² – \(\frac { x^3 }{27}\) + 250
when x = 15
C = 125(15) + 5(15)² – \(\frac { (15)^3 }{27}\) + 250
= 1875 + 1125 – 125 + 250
C = Rs 3,125

Question 3.
The marginal revenue function for a firm given by MR = \(\frac { 2 }{x+3}\) – \(\frac { 2x }{(x+3)^2}\) + 5. Show that the demand function is P = \(\frac { 2x }{(x+3)^2}\) + 5
Solution:

Question 4.
For the marginal revenue function MR = 6 – 3x² – x³, Find the revenue function and demand function
Solution:
MR = 6 – 3x² – x³
Revenue function R = ∫MR dx
R = ∫(6 – 3x² – x³)dx

Question 5.
The marginal cost of production of a firm is given by C'(x) = 20 + \(\frac { x }{20}\) the marginal revenue is given by R’(x) = 30 and the fixed cost is Rs 100. Find the profit function.
Solution:
C'(x) = 20 + \(\frac { x }{20}\)
Fixed cost k₁ = Rs 100
C(x) = ∫C₁(x) dx + k₁

Question 6.
The demand equation for a product is P_d = 20 – 5x and the supply equation is P_s = 4x + 8. Determine the consumers surplus and producer’s surplus under market equilibrium.
Solution:
P_d = 20 – 5x and P_s = 4x + 8
At market equilibrium
P_d = P_d
20 – 5x = 4x + 8 ⇒ 20 – 8 = 4x + 5x
9x = 12 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 12 }{9}\)
∴ x = \(\frac { 4 }{3}\)

Question 7.
A company requires f(x) number of hours to produce 500 units. lt is represented by f(x) = 1800x^-0.4. Find out the number of hours required to produce additional 400 units. [(900)^0.6 = 59.22, (500)^0.6 = 41.63]
Solution:
f(x) number of hours to produce 500
f(x) = 1800 x^-0.4
The number of hours required to produce additions

Question 8.
The price elasticity of demand for a commodity is \(\frac { p }{x^3}\). Find the demand function if the quantity of demand is 3, When the price is Rs 2.
Solution:
Price elasticity of demand

Question 9.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve between the parabola y = 8x² – 4x + 6 the y-axis and the ordinate at x = 2.
Solution:
Equation of the parabola
y = 8x² – 4x + 6

The required region is bounded by the y-axis and the ordinate at x = 2.
∴ Required Area A = \(\int_{0}^{2}\)ydx

Question 10.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y² = 27x³ and the line x = 0, y = 1 and y = 2
Solution:
Equation of the curve is y² = 27x³
⇒ x³ = \(\frac { y^2 }{27}\) = \(\frac { y^3 }{3^3}\)
∴ x = \(\frac { (y)^{2/3} }{3}\)
Since the Area of the region bounded by the given curve and the lines x = 0, y = 1 and y = 2

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.1 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.1

Question 1.
Using Interation, find the area of the region bounded the line given is 2y + x = 8, the x axis and the lines x = 2, x = 4.
Solution:
The equation of the line given is 2y + x = 8
⇒ 2y = 8 – x ⇒ y = \(\frac { 8-x }{2}\)
y = 4 – \(\frac { x }{2}\)
Also x varies from 2 to 4
The required Area

= (16 – 4) – (8 – 1)
= 12 – 7 = 5 sq.units

Question 2.
Find the area bounded by the lines y – 2x – 4 = 0, y = 0, y = 3 and the y-axis.
Solution:
The equation of the line given is y – 2x – 4 = 0
⇒ 2x = y – 4 ⇒ x = \(\frac { y-4 }{2}\)
∴ x = \(\frac { y }{2}\) – 2
Also y varies from 1 to 3
Required Area

= 2 – 4 = -2
Area can’t be in negative.
∴ Area = 2 sq.units

Question 3.
Calculate the area bounded by the parabola y² = 4ax and its latus rectum.
Solution:
Given parabola is y² = 4ax
Its focus is (a, 0)
Equation of latus rectum is x = a
The parabola is symmetrical about the x-axis

Question 4.
Find the area bounded by the line y = x and x-axis and the ordinates x = 1, x = 2
Solution:
The equation of the given line is y = x and x varies from 1 to 2

Question 5.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the line y – 1 = x, the x-axis and the ordinates x = -2, x = 3.
Solution :
The equation of given line is y – 1 = x
y = x + 1

The line y = x + 1 meets the x-axis at x = -1
Since x varies from -2 to 3
Hence a part of lies below the x-axis and the other part lies above the x-axis.

Question 6.
Find the area of the region lying in the first quadrant bounded by the region y = 4x², x = 0, y = 0 and y = 4
Solution:
The equation of a parabola given is y = 4x²

Area of the region lying in the first quadrant

Question 7.
Find the area bounded by the curve y = x² and the line y = 4
Solution:
Equation of the curve y = x² ………. (1)
Equation of the line y = 4 ………. (2)
Solving equation (1) & (2)
x² = 4 ⇒ x = ± 2

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Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
…………… is a global and universal concept.
(a) Management
(b) Process
(c) Art
(d) Science
Answer:
(a) Management

Question 2.
………… is the subsidiary function of management.
(a) Planning
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Innovation
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Innovation

Question 3.
The Indian financial system can be broadly classified into………….. sector.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Four
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 4.
Money market is a market for purely …………..
(a) Short term funds
(b) Long term funds
(c) Medium term funds
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Short term funds

Question 5.
Which is not a foreign stock exchange?
(a) London stock exchange
(b) Bombay stock exchange
(c) Tokyo stock exchange
(d) New york stock exchange
Answer:
(b) Bombay stock exchange

Question 6.
SEBI got the statutory powers in the year …………..
(a) 1988
(b) 1992
(c) 1969
(a) 1980
Answer:
(b) 1992

Question 7.
The internal source of recruitment are …………..
(i) promotion
(ii) e-recruitment
(iii) retention
(iv) advertisements
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 8.
The types of Aptitude Test are …………..
(i) Numerical Reasoning Test
(ii) Attitude Test
(iii) Vocabulary Test
(iv) Interest Test
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (I) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 9.
On the job training is given to the employee at the ……………
(a) College
(b) Home
(c) Work place
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Work place

Question 10.
Find Out which is not suitable? The products marketed in commodity exchange are…………..
(a) Crude oil
(b) Rice
(c) Copper
(d) Gold
Answer:
(b) Rice

Question 11.
The term ‘Caveat emptor’ is a Latin term, which means ………..
(a) Let the seller beware
(b) Let the buyer beware
(c) Consumer
(d) Marketer
Answer:
(b) Let the buyer beware

Question 12.
The consumer is the of the modern marketing.
(a) Manager
(b) Director
(c) King
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) King

Question 13.
The national commission should have ……….. members.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(c) 5

Question 14.
It is a situation in which a country loses its most educated and talented workers to other countries is known as…………
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Foreign trade
(c) Brain Drain
(d) Nationalisation
Answer:
(c) Brain Drain

Question 15.
A bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker is ………..
(a) promissory note
(b) cheque
(c) hundi
(d) share
Answer:
(b) cheque

Question 16.
The entrepreneurs classified on the basis of type of business are …………..
(i) Industrial entrepreneur
(ii) Technical entrepreneur
(iii) Professional entrepreneur
(iv) Business entrepreneur
(a) (z) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iv)

Question 17.
The first two stages of formation of a company are ………..
(i) Issue of prospectus
(ii) Promotion
(iii) Issue of share certificate
(iv) Registration
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iv)

Question 18.
A company may appoint more than 15 directors after passing a ……….. resolution.
(a) Special
(b) Ordinary
(c) Usual
(d) Commanding
Answer:
(a) Special

Question 19.
A person can hold the position of Directorship in different companies upto the maximum of …………
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 18
(d) 20
Answer:
(d) 20

Question 20.
A statutory meeting can be held within months.
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 6

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of Authority.
Answer:
Authority means the right of a superior to give the order to his subordinates. This is the issue of commands followed responsibility for their consequences.

Question 22.
What is debt market?
Answer:
Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt Instrument (i.e. Government Bonds or Securities, Corporate Debentures or Bonds).

Question 23.
What is Government Securities Market?
Answer:
A market whereby the Government or gilt-edged securities can be bought and sold is called ‘Government Securities Market’.

Question 24.
Write any 5 Stock Exchanges in India.
Answer:

• The Bombay Stock Exchange
• Bangalore Stock Exchange Ltd.
• The Madras Stock Exchange Ltd.
• The Hydrabad Stock Exchange Ltd.
• The Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd.

Question 25.
What is intelligence test?
Answer:
Intelligence tests are one of the psychological tests, that is designed to measure a variety of mental ability, individual capacity of a candidate.

Question 26.
Define Product.
Answer:
“A product is anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use or consumption that might satisfy a want or a need”, says Philip Kotler.

Question 27.
Give two examples of adulteration.
Answer:

• Powdered rice/wheat is adulterated with starch.
• Coffee powder is adulterated with tamarind seed.

Question 28.
List down the essential elements of a contract of sale.
Answer:
Following essential elements are necessary for a contract of sale:

• Two Parties
• Transfer of Property
• Goods
• Price
• Includes both ‘Sale’ and ‘Agreement to Sell’.

Question 29.
Mention the other name for corporate entrepreneur.
Answer:
Corporate entrepreneur is called promoter. He/she takes initiative necessary to start an entity under corporate format.

Question 30.
What is Resolution?
Answer:
As per the Companies Act 2013, for taking any decision or executing any transaction, the consent of the shareholders, the Board of Directors and other specified is required. The decisions taken at a meeting are called resolutions.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the Process of MBE?
Answer:

• Primarily, it is necessary to set objectives or norms with predictable or estimated results.
• These performances are assessed and get equated to the actual performance.
• Next, the deviation gets analysed. With an insignificant or no deviation, no action is required and senior managers can concentrate on other matters.

Question 32.
Explain any two functions of Capital Market.
Answer:
(i) Savings and Capital Formation: In capital market, various types of securities help to, mobilize savings from various sectors of population (Individuals, Corporate, Govt., etc.). The twin features of reasonable return and liquidity in stock exchange are definite incentives to the people to invest in securities. This accelerates the capital formation in the country.

(ii) Permanent Capital: The existence of a capital market/stock exchange enables companies to raise permanent capital. The investors cannot commit their funds for a permanent period but companies require funds permanently.

Question 33.
What are the features of Human resources?
Answer:

• Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.
• Human resource alone can think, act, analyse and interpret.
• Human resources are emotional beings.
• Human resources can be motivated either financially or non-financially.
• The behaviour of human resources are unpredictable.
• Over years human resources gains value and appreciates.
• Human resources are movable.
• Human resource can work as a team.

Question 34.
What can be marketed in the Market?
Answer:
The dynamic items that can be marketed are listed below:

• Goods
• Services
• Experiences
• Events
• Persons
• Places
• Properties
• Organisations
• Information
• Ideas

Question 35.
Who are the members of the National Commission?
Answer:
Members: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has been constituted by a Notification.

• The National Commission should have five members.
• One should be from judiciary.
• Four other members of ability, knowledge and experience from any other fields.
• It should include a woman.

Question 36.
Write about any three internal environmental factors of business.
Answer:
The major internal factors affecting business decisions are:

• Values system: The values of the founder/owner of the business , percolates down to the entire organisation and has a profound effect on the organisation.
• Vision and objectives: The vision and objectives of a business guides its operations and strategic decisions.
• Management structure: The structure of management/board and their style of functioning, the level of professionalism of management, the composition of the board are the various factors which affect the decision making.

Question 37.
Distinguish between Bill of Exchange and Promissory Note.
Answer:

S. No.	Basis of Difference	Bill of Exchange	Promissory Note
1.	Nature of Undertaking	A bill of exchange contains an unconditional order to pay money.	A promissory note contains an unconditional undertaking to pay money.
2.	No. of Parties	There are three parties in a bill of exchange – drawer, drawee and payee.	In a promissory note there are only two parties the maker and the payee.
3.	Drawer of the instrument	A creditor draws a bill on a debtor.	A debtor executes a promissory note in favour of a creditor.
4.	Identity of the parties	In a bill of exchange, both the drawer and the payee can be one and the same person.	In a promissory note, the maker himself cannot be the payee because the same person cannot be both the promisor and the promisee.

Question 38.
List down few examples of pure entrepreneurship.
Answer:
Pure entrepreneurs are individuals who are propelled to enter into venture by psychological and economic motives. They nurture desire of starting a particular venture and earning high profit there from and thus attaining a social status. They apply their knowledge, skill and insight in making the venture a great success in order to earn maximum profit out of the venture. Dhirubai Ambani, Jamshedji Tata, T.V. Sundaram Iyengar, Seshadriji, Birla, Narayanamurthi, and Azim Premji are few examples of pure entrepreneurship.

Question 39.
Expand the following: STEP, JAM, TREAD, M-S1PS, SEED and New Gen IEDC.
Answer:

• STEP: Support to Training and Employment Programme for women
• JAM: Jan-Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile
• M-SIPS: Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme
• SEED: Science for Equity Empowerment and Development
• New Gen IEDC: New Gen Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development Centre
• TREAD: Trade Related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development.

Question 40.
Who is a shadow director?
Answer:
A shadow director is a person who is not the member of Board but has some power to run it and can be appointed as the director but according to his/her wish.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Explain the principles of modern management.
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr.Henry Fayol, and according to him there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organisation.
(i) Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks.
This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.
(ii) Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.
(iii) Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc.
It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organisations.
(iv) Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.
(v) Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.
(vi) Subordination of Individual Interest to Mutual Interest: The management must put aside personal considerations and put company objectives firstly.
(vii) Remuneration: Workers must be paid sufficiently as this is a chief motivation of employees and therefore greatly influences productivity.

(viii) The Degree of Centralization: The amount of power wielded with the central management depends on company size.
(ix) Line of Authority/Scalar Chain: This refers to the chain of superiors ranging from top management to the lowest rank.
(x) Order: Social order ensures the fluid operation of a company through authoritative procedure.
(xi) Equity: Employees must be treated kindly, and justice must be enacted to ensure a just workplace.
(xii) Stability of Tenure of Personnel: Stability of tenure of personnel is a principle stating that in order for an organisation to run smoothly, personnel (especially managerial personnel) must not frequently enter and exit the organisation.
(xiii) Initiative: Using the initiative of employees can add strength and new ideas to an organisation.
(x/v) Esprit de Corps/Team Spirit: This refers to the need of managers to ensure and develop morale in the workplace; individually and communally.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the disadvantages of MBE.
Answer:

• The main disadvantage of MBE is, only managers have the power over really important decisions, which can be demotivating for employees at a lower level.
• Furthermore, it takes time to pass the issues to managers. Managing employees who deviate from the normal procedures. Because of compliance failures are considered difficult to manage and typically find themselves with limited job duties and ultimately dismissed/ terminated.

Question 42.
(a) Discuss the role of financial market.
Answer:

• Savings Mobilization: Obtaining funds from the savers or ‘surplus’ units such as household individuals, business firms, public sector units, Government is an important role played by financial markets.
• Investment: Financial market plays a key role in arranging the investment of funds thus
  collected, in those units which are in need of the same.
• National Growth: Financial markets contribute to a nation’s growth by ensuring an unfettered flow of surplus funds to deficit units. Flow of funds for productive purposes is also made possible, ft leads to overall economic growth.
• Entrepreneurship Growth: Financial markets contribute to the development of the entrepreneurial class by making available the necessary financial resources.
• Industrial Development: The different components of financial markets help an accelerated growth of industrial and economic development of a country and thus contributing to raising the standard of living and the society’s well-being.

[OR]

(b) Explain the features and types of Commercial Bills.
Answer:

• Drawer
• Acceptor
• Payee
• Discounter
• Endorser
• Assessment
• Maturity
• Credit Rating

Types:

• Demand and Usance Bills: A demand bill is one wherein no specific time of payment is mentioned. So, demand bills are payable immediately when they are presented to the drawee.
• Clean Bills and Documentary Bills: Bills that are accompanied by documents of title
  to goods are called documentary bills. Clean bills are drawn without accompanying any document.
• Inland Bills and Foreign Bills: Bills that are drawn and payable in India on a person who is resident in India are called inland bills.
• Indigeneous Bills: The drawing and acceptance of indigenous bills are governed by native custom or usage of trade.
• Accommodation and Supply Bills: Accommodation bills are those which do not arise out of genuine trade of transactions.

Question 43.
(a) What are the benefits of Dematerialisation?
Answer:

• The risks relating to physical certificates like loss, theft, forgery are eliminated completely with a Demat Account.
• The risk of paper work enables quicker transactions and higher efficiency in trading.
• The shares which are created through mergers and consolidation of companies are credited automatically in the Demat account.
• There is no stamp duty for transfer of securities.
• Certain banks also permit holding of both equity and debt securities in a single account.
• A Demat account holder can buy or sell any amount of shares.

[OR]

(b) Elaborate on the factors affecting recruitment.
Answer:
Some of the factors that affect recruitment are:

• Size of the Organisation: Bigger organisations find recruitment less problematic than organisations that are smaller in size.
• Recruiting Policy: Most organisations prefer recruiting through internal sources, because own employees know the organisation and they can well fit into the organisation’s culture.
• Nature of Post: The recruitment process varies according to type of personnel to be recruited. For example, recruitment process of a bank officer will differ from that of an IPS officer.
• Demographic factors: Like the details of possible employees- age, religion, literacy level, gender, occupation, economic status, etc.
• Unemployment rate: If the unemployment rate is high, the number of applicants will be more, making it easy for the recruiters to select from a wide range.
• Labour Laws: These cover working conditions, compensation, retirement benefits, and safety and health of employees in industrial undertakings.
• Competitors: Time to time the organisations have to change their recruitment policies and manuals according to the policies being followed by the competitors.

Question 44.
(a) Explain the benefits of training.
Answer:
(i) Benefits to the Organisation:

• It improves the skill of employees and increase the productivity.
• It reduces wastages of materials and idle time.
• It minimizes the time for supervision.
• It reduces the frequent accidents at workplace and consequent payment of compensation.

(ii) Benefits to the Employees:

• It increases the knowledge, skill of the employees.
• It enables him to gain promotion in shorter time.
• It improves the employees productivity.
• Employees get higher earnings through incentives and rewards.

(iii) Benefits of Customer:

• Customers get better quality of product and service.
• Customers get innovative products or value added or feature rich products.

[OR]

(b) Narrate the Elements of Marketing mix.
Answer:
Marketing mix means a marketing programme that is offered by a firm for the satisfaction of human wants. There are four Elements of Marketing mix:

• Product: A Product is the main element of marketing. Without a product, there can be no marketing.
• Price: Price is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms. It is the amount Charged for the product.
• Place (Physical Distribution): An excellent quality product, with a good price, will be waste, if it is not transferred from the production place to consumption place.
• Promotion: An excellent product with competitive price cannot achieve a desired success and acceptance in market, with special features are conveyed to the consumers.

Question 45.
(a) What are the objectives of Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
Answer:
The Central Government enacted a comprehensive law called the Consumer Protection Act in 1986. This Act came into force with effect from 15.04.1987. It is in short, called as ‘COPRA’.
Objectives:

• Consumer protection Act protects the interests of the consumers.
• This Act provides safeguard against defective goods and deficient services, unfair trade practices.
• It also gives settlement of consumer disputes.
• It is applicable to public sector, financial and co-operative enterprises.

[OR]

(b) Classify goods under the Sale of Goods Act.
Answer:
The term goods mean every kind of movable property other than actionable claim and money.
The goods are classified as follows:
(1) Existing Goods- These goods are owned or possessed by the seller at the time of contract of sale. Existing goods may again be divided as:

• Specific Goods- It denotes goods identified and agreed upon at the time of contract of sale.
• Ascertained Goods- The term ‘ascertained goods’ is also used as similar in meaning to specific goods.
• Unascertained Goods- These are goods which are not identified and agreed upon at the time of contract of sale.

(2) Future Goods- These are goods which a seller does not possess at the time of contract of
sale, but which will be manufactured or produced or acquired by him after entering into the contract.
(3) Contingent Goods- These are the goods, the acquisition of which by the seller depends upon a contingency (an event which may or may not happen).

Question 46.
(a) What are the requisites for a valid endorsement?
Answer:
If an endorsement is to be valid, it must possess the following requisites:

• Endorsement is to be made on the face of the instrument or on its back.
• When there is no space for making further endorsements a piece of paper can be attached
• Endorsement for only a part of the amount of the instrument is invalid.
• Endorsement is complete only when delivery of the instrument is made.
• Signing in block letters does not constitute regular endorsement.
• If the payee is an illiterate person, he can endorse it by affixing his thumb impression on the instrument.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between the rural and urban entrepreneur.
Answer:

S. No.	Rural Entrepreneur	Urban Entrepreneur
1.	It refers to the person who starts business in rural areas.	It refers to the person who commences business in urban areas.
2.	These entrepreneurs start doing business in the villages and small towns.	They will do their business in state capital, towns, district headquarters, municipalities, etc.
3.	They may be agricultural and trading entrepreneurs.	They may be industrial or corporate entrepreneur.
4:	The availability of material and labour is easy. So the cost of operation tends to be low.	The availability of material and labour may be difficult. So the cost of operation may be high.

Question 47.
(a) What formalities need to be fulfilled for a companies having share capital to commence business?
Answer:
A public limited company having its share capital has to pass through two more stages. One of them is capital subscription, steps to be taken at this stage are listed below:

• The fulfilling formalities to raise necessary capital.
• Following the SEBI guidelines in this regard.
• Issuing prospectus.
• Appointing official banker of the company for receiving application from the investors,
• Passing resolution for making allotments by director.
• Despatch allotment letters to allottees.
• Filing allotment returns with the Registrar.
• Issuing share certificates in exchange for their allotment letter.
• Ensuring collection of minimum subscription.

[OR]

(b) List the disqualification of a directors.
Answer:
Disqualifications of a Director: Section 164 of Companies Act, 2013, has mentioned the disqualification as follows: A person shall not be capable of being appointed director of a company, if the director is

• Of unsound mind
• An undercharged insolvent
• Has been convicted by a court for any offence
• Has not paid any call in respect of shares of the company held by him
• An order disqualifying him for appointment as director has been passed by a court
• He has not got the Director Identification Number.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Man-made radioactivity is also known as;
(a) Induced radioactivity
(b) Spontaneous radioactivity
(c) Artificial radioactivity
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Induced radioactivity

Question 2.
Unit of radioactivity is _____.
(a) roentgen
(b) curie
(c) becquerel
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

Question 3.
Artificial radioactivity was discovered by:
(a) Becquerel
(b) Irene Curie
(c) Roentgen
(d) Neils Bohr
Answer:
(b) Irene Curie

Question 4.
In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place _____.
(i) α decay
(ii) β decay
(iii) γ decay
(iv) neutron decay
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) & (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
……. isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
(a) Radio Iodine
(b) Radio Cobalt
(c) Radio Carbon
(d) Radio Nickel
Answer:
(b) Radio Cobalt

Question 6.
Gaming radiations are dangerous because of _____.
(a) it affects eyes & bones
(b) it affects tissues
(c) it produces genetic disorder
(d) it produces an enormous amount of heat.
Answer:
(c) it produces genetic disorder

Question 7.
……… aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations.
(a) Lead oxide
(b) Iron
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(c) Lead

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) a particles are photons.
(ii) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low.
(iii) Ionization power is maximum for a rays.
(iv) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct

Question 9.
Proton-Proton chain reaction is an example of _____.
(a) Nuclear fission
(b) α – decay
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) β – decay.
Answer:
(c) Nuclear fusion

Question 10.
In the nuclear reaction the value of A and Z.
(a) 8, 6
(b) 8, 4
(c) 4, 8
(d) cannot be determined with the given data
Answer:
(b) 8, 4

Question 11.
Kamini reactor is located at:
(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Koodankulam
(c) Mumbai
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Kalpakkam

Question 12.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
(ii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled
(iii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled
(iv) No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb
(a) (i) only correct
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. One roentgen is equal to ………… disintegrations per second.
2. Positron is an …………
3. Aneamia can be cured by ………… isotope.
4. Abbreviation of ICRP …………..
5. ………… is used to measure exposure rate of radiation in humans.
6. ………. has the greatest penetration power.
7. _ZY^A → _Z+1Y^A + X; Then, X is …………..
8. _ZX^A → _ZY^A This reaction is possible in …………. decay.
9. The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about …………. J.
10. Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of ……….. K.
11. The radio isotope of …………. helps to increase the productivity of crops.
12. If the radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause ………….
Answer:
1. 1.6 × 10¹⁵ disintegrations / second
2. antiparticle [₁e⁰]
3. Radio iron Fe⁵⁹
4. International Commission on Radiological Protection
5. Dosimeter
6. Gama rays
7. X is _-1e⁰
8. gamma
9. 3.84 × 10¹² J
10. 10⁷ to 10⁹ K
11. Radio phosphorus P – 32
12. fatal diseases like leukemia.

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement.

1. Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material.
2. Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
3. Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission.
4. Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
5. If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave as an atom bomb.
6. During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced.
7. Einstein’s theory of mass energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
Answer:
1. True
2. False – Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fission.
3. True
4. False – Natural U – 238 not used as fuel in a nuclear reactor.
5. True
6. True
7. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (i)
(c) – (iv)
(d) – (ii)

Question 2.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (ii)
(c) – (iii)
(d) – (i)

Question 3.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (ii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (iii)

Question 4.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (iii)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

Question 5.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power. Alpha rays, beta rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays
Answer:
gamma rays < beta rays < alpha rays < cosmic rays.

Question 2.
Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery.
Nuclear reactor, radioactivity, artificial radioactivity, discovery of radium.
Answer:
Discovery of radium, Radioactivity, Artifical radioactivity, Nuclear reactor.

VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blank.

1. Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process : ………..
2. Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission : ………..
3. Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart : …………
4. Deflected by electric field : a ray, No Deflection : ………….

Answer:

1. artifical radioactivity
2. higher temperature
3. Radio sodium
4. γ-ray

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
₈₈Ra²²⁶ experiences three a – decay. Find the number of neutrons in the daughter element.
Answer:
Mass number of ₈₈Ra²²⁶ is 266
Atomic number of ₈₈Ra²²⁶ is 88
Mass number of α = 4
Atomic number of α = 2
After 3 a decay
Mass number of the daughter element is
= 266 – (3 × 4)
= 266 – 12
= 254
Atomic number of the daughter element is
= 88 – (3 × 2)
= 88 – 6
= 82
Number of neutrons is
= 254 – 82
= 172

Question 2.
A cobalt specimen emits induced radiation of 75.6 millicurie per second. Convert this disintegration in to becquerel (one curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq).
Answer:
1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq
∴ 75.6 × 10^-3 curie = 75.6 × 10^-3 × 3.7 × 10¹⁰
= 279.72 × 10⁷ Bq
= 279.72 × 10⁷ Becquerel

VIII. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: A neutron impinging on U²³⁵, splits it to produce Barium and Krypton.
Reason: U – 235 is a fissile material.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: In a 3 – decay, the neutron number decreases by one.
Reason: In 3 – decay atomic number increases by one.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Extreme temperature is necessary to execute nuclear fusion.
Reason: In a nuclear fusion, the nuclei of the reactants combine releasing high energy.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Control rods are known as ‘neutron seeking rods’.
Reason: Control rods are used to perform sustained nuclear fission reaction.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

IX. Answer in one or two words (VSA).

Question 1.
Who discovered natural radioactivity?
Answer:
Henri Becquerel

Question 2.
Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende?
Answer:
Uranium is the radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende.

Question 3.
Write any two elements which are used for inducing radioactivity?
Answer:
Boron and aluminium

Question 4.
Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during natural radioactivity.
Answer:
Gamma rays are the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during natural radioactivity.

Question 5.
If A is a radioactive element which emits an α – particle and produces ₁₀₄Rf²⁵⁹. Write the atomic number and mass number of the element A.
Answer:

Mass number A = 259 + 4 = 263
Atomic number Z = 104 + 2 = 106

Question 6.
What is the average energy released from a single fission process?
Answer:
200 MeV

Question 7.
Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disease?
Answer:
γ – ray (Gamma-ray) or any high energy nuclear particle passes through a human being, it disrupts the entire normal functioning of the biological system and the effect may be an either pathological or genetic disease.

Question 8.
What is the amount of radiation that may cause death of a person when exposed to it?
Answer:
600 R.

Question 9.
When and where was the first nuclear reactor built?
Answer:
The first nuclear reactor was built in 1942 at Chicago, USA.

Question 10.
Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
Answer:
The SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel.

Question 11.
Which material protects us from radiation?
Answer:
Lead

X. Answer the following questions in a few sentences.

Question 1.
Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Answer:

Question 2.
Define critical mass.
Answer:
The minimum mass of fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called ‘critical mass (m_c)’. It depends on the nature, density and the size of the fissile material.

Question 3.
Define one roentgen.
Answer:
One roentgen is defined as the quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10^-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.

Question 4.
State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.
Answer:
(i) When a radioactive element emits an alpha particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose mass number is less by 4 units and the atomic number is less by 2 units, than the mass number and atomic number of the parent nucleus.

(ii) When a radioactive element emits a beta particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose mass number is the same and the atomic number is more by 1 unit, than the atomic number of the parent nucleus.

Question 5.
Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have a sustained chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.

Question 6.
In Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases. Why?
Answer:
In Japan, there was a leakage of nuclear radiations in some areas. In those areas, if the new born children handled with careless they are exposed to harmful radiations then they have congenital diseases.

Question 7.
Mr. Ramu is working as an X – ray technician in a hospital. But, he does not wear the lead aprons. What suggestion will you give to Mr. Ramu?
Answer:
The intensity of X-rays is very low. So, X-rays do not produce any severe effects. There are certains clothes that can be used while operating X-ray machines. Ramu can use them and so he may not be severely affected by X-rays, he should avoid eating and drinking when he is working with X-rays.

Question 8.
What is stellar energy?
Answer:
Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called stellar energy.

Question 9.
Give any two uses of radio isotopes in the field of agriculture?
Answer:
The radio isotope of phosphorous (P-32) helps to increase the productivity of crops. The radiations from the radio isotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites and prevent the wastage of agricultural products.

Question 10.
What is stellar energy?
Answer:
Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called as stellar energy.

XI. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Answer:
(i) Controlled chain reaction: In the controlled chain reaction the number of neutrons released is maintained to be one. This is achieved by absorbing the extra neutrons with a neutron absorber leaving only one neutron to produce further fission. Thus, the reaction is sustained in a controlled manner. The energy released due to a controlled chain reaction can be utilized for constructive purposes. Controlled chain reaction is used in a nuclear reactor to produce energy in a sustained and controlled manner.

(ii) Uncontrolled chain reaction: In the uncontrolled chain reaction the number of neutrons multiplies indefinitely and causes fission in a large amount of the fissile material. This results in the release of a huge amount of energy within a fraction of a second. This kind of chain reaction is used in the atom bomb to produce an explosion.

Question 2.
Compare the properties of alpha, beta and gamma radiations.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.
Answer:
A Nuclear reactor is a device in which the nuclear fission reaction takes place in a self-sustained and controlled manner to produce electricity.
Components of a nuclear reactors:
The essential components of a nuclear reactor are

1. fuel,
2. moderator,
3. control rod,
4. coolant and
5. protection wall.

1. Fuel : A fissile material is used as the fuel. The commonly used fuel material is uranium.
2. Moderator : A moderator is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are the commonly used moderators
3. Control rod : Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have sustained chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.
4. Coolant : A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in die reactor core, to produce steam. This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity. Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.
5. Protection wall : A thick concrete lead wall is built around the nuclear reactor in order to prevent the harmful radiations from escaping into the environment.

XII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
The mass number of a radioactive element is 232 and its atomic number is 90. When this element undergoes certain nuclear reactions, it transforms into an isotope of lead with a mass number 208 and an atomic number 82. Determine the number of alpha and beta decay that can occur.
Answer:
\(_{90} \mathrm{x}^{232} \stackrel{4 \beta}{\longrightarrow} 94^{\mathrm{Y}^{232}+4_{-4} \mathrm{e}^{\circ}}\) (4β decay)
From the result of β decay,
\(94^{232} \stackrel{6 \alpha}{\longrightarrow} 82^{\mathrm{Pb}^{208}+6}_{} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) (6α decay)
The number of α decay = 6
The number of β decay = 4.

Question 2.
‘X – rays should not be taken often’. Give the reason.
Answer:
X-rays have some low intensity. Even then if a person undergoes the exposure of X-ray, his skin may be affected. The tissues near by the bones may be damaged.

Question 3.
Cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area – why?
Answer:
From the cell phone towers micro-waves are scattered for a particular area. This may affect small children and aged people. If people are exposed with those rays very often then they may be severly affected.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The elements that undergo spontaneous radioactivity:
(a) Uranium
(b) Radium
(c) Uranium and Radium
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Uranium and Radium

Question 2.
The artificial (or) induced radioactive element is _____.
(a) Uranium
(b) Boron
(c) Radium
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) boron

Question 3.
The nucleons in a nucleus are attracted by:
(a) electrostatic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) nuclear force
(d) magnetic force
Answer:
(c) nuclear force

Question 4.
In p decay by one.
(a) mass number decreases
(b) atomic number decreases
(c) neutron number decreases
(d) proton number decreases
Answer:
(c) neutron number decreases

Question 5.
The charge of the α rays _____.
(a) 2e
(b) -e
(c) 0
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) 2e

Question 6.
In which process positron is emitted?
(a) natural radioactivity
(b) artifical radioactivity
(c) nuclear fission
(d) nuclear fussion
Answer:
(b) artifical radioactivity

Question 7.
The atomic number of the elements that exhibit natural radioactivity is:
(a) less than 83
(b) more than 83
(c) more than 42
(d) more than 82
Answer:
(b) more than 83

Question 8.
The ionising power of the α rays _____.
(a) 100 times greater than the β rays
(b) 1000 times greater than the γ rays
(c) very less ionization
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b).

Question 9.
In the reaction  is:
(a) ₆C¹³
(b) ₆C¹²
(c) ₇N¹³
(d) ₈O¹⁶
Answer:
(b) ₆C¹²

Question 10.
Ionising power of β rays _____.
(а) 100 times greater than α rays
(b) 100 times less than α rays
(c) comparatively very less ionization power
(d) 1000 times less than γ rays.
Answer:
(b) 100 times less than α rays

Question 11.
During α – decay the mass number of the daughter element is:
(a) more by 2 units
(b) less by 2 units
(c) more by 4 units
(d) less by 4 units
Answer:
(d) less by 4 units

Question 12.
When α – particle is emitted the atomic number of daughter element is:
(a) more by 4 units
(b) less by 4 units
(c) less by 2 units
(d) more by 2 units
Answer:
(c) less by 2 units

Question 13.
Which power has more penetrating power?
(a) α rays
(b) γ rays
(c) β rays
(d) X rays.
Answer:
(b) γ rays

Question 14.
What is the charge of alpha particle?
(a) -e
(b) +e
(c) zero
(d) +2e^–
Answer:
(d) +2e^–

Question 15.
Which of the following has speed from 1/10 to 1/20 times the speed of light?
(a) β
(b) α
(c) γ
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) α

Question 16.
In α – decay _____.
(a) atomic number decreases by 2 and the mass number decreases by 4
(b) atomic number increases by 2 and the mass number decrease by 4
(c) there is no change in atomic and mass number
(d) neutron number decreases by one.
Answer:
(a) atomic number decreases by 2 and the mass number decreases by 4

Question 17.
Which of the following is a fertile material?
(a) Thorium – 232
(b) Uranium – 238
(c) Plutonium – 240
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
If the mass of the fissile material is less than the critical mass, then it is termed as:
(a) supercritical
(b) critical
(c) subcritical
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) critical

Question 19.
1 curie is equal to _____.
(a) the radioactivity of 1 gram of uranium
(b) 1 decay/second
(c) 3.7 × 10¹⁰ becquerel
(d) 1.6 × 10¹² decay / second.
Answer:
(c) 3.7 × 10¹⁰ becquerel

Question 20.
During nuclear fusion which of the following are emitted:
(a) alpha rays
(b) positrons
(c) neutrons
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 21.
Anaemia can be diagonised by:
(a) ₁₅P³²
(b) ₂₆Fe⁵⁹
(c) ₁₁Na²⁴
(d) ₂₈Fe⁵⁹
Answer:
(b) ₂₆Fe⁵⁹

Question 22.
I – 131 is used in the treatment of _____.
(a) cancer
(b) skin disease
(c) disease in the thyroid gland
(d) tumour.
Answer:
(c) disease in the thyroid gland

Question 23.
In which decay atomic number of daughter element is increased by 1 unit?
(a) α – decay
(b) β – decay
(c) γ – decay
(d) neutron decay
Answer:
(b) β – decay

Question 24.
in nuclear fusion ………… is satisfied.
(a) law of conservation of energy
(b) law of conservation of momentum
(c) law of conservation angular momentum
(d) mass energy relation
Answer:
(d) mass energy relation

Question 25.
The safe limit of receiving the radiation is about _____.
(a) 100 R
(b) 600 R
(c) 250 R
(d) 250 mR per week.
Answer:
(d) 250 mR per week.

Question 26.
Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of:
(a) natural radioactivity
(b) induced radioactivity
(c) nuclear fusion
(d) nuclear fission
Answer:
(c) nuclear fusion

Question 27.
Uncontrolled chain reaction yields _____.
(a) nuclear reactor
(b) atom bomb
(c) hydrogen bomb
(d) breeder reactor.
Answer:
(b) atom bomb

Question 28.
In the following reaction.
₁H³ + ₁H² → X + Y + energy X and Y are:
(a) ₂He³, ₀n¹
(b) ₂He⁴, ₀n¹
(c) ₁H², ₀n¹
(d) ₁H³, ₀n¹
Answer:
(b) ₂He⁴, ₀n¹

Question 29.
The number of α and ß particles emitted when ₉₂U²³⁸ decays to ₈₂Pb²⁰⁶ are respectively:
(a) 6, 8
(b) 8, 6
(c) 4, 3
(d) 3, 4
Answer:
(b) 8, 6

Question 30.
The fusion process can be carried out only at a temperature of _____.
(a) 1000°C
(b) 100°C
(c) 104°C
(d) 107 K.
Answer:
(d) 107 K.

Question 31.
Which of the following is used to cure goiter?
(a) Na²⁴
(b) I¹³¹
(c) P³²
(d) Fe⁵⁹
Answer:
(b) I¹³¹

Question 32.
Which radio isotope is used to check the function of heart?
(a) Na²⁴
(b) Fe⁵⁹
(c) Co⁶⁰
(d) I¹³¹
Answer:
(a) Na²⁴

Question 33.
The fuel of the prototype fast breeder reactor is _____.
(a) low enriched uranium
(b) carbides of uranium
(c) high enriched uranium
(d) oxides of plutonium and uranium.
Answer:
(d) oxides of plutonium and uranium.

Question 34.
Which radio isotope is used as a smoke detector?
(a) Cf²³²
(b) I¹³¹
(c) Co⁶⁰
(d) Am²⁴¹
Answer:
(d) Am²⁴¹

Question 35.
The control rod used in a nuclear reactor is _____.
(a) barium
(b) carbon
(c) cadmium
(d) Na.
Answer:
(c) cadmium

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Radium was discovered by ………..
2. The photoelectric effect is an instantaneous process Natural radioactivity is a ………..
3. The elements with atomic number ……… undergo spontaneous radioactivity.
4. In natural radioactivity emission of radiation is due to ………. of a nucleus.
5. One disintegration per second is equal to ………..
6. S.I unit of radioactivity is ………….
7. The speed of ………. can go upto 9/10 times the velocity of light.
8. α ray is …………
9. ……….ray consists of photons.
10. ………… and ………… are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
11. When uranium decays into thorium ……….. particle is emitted.
12. In ………… decay there is no change in the mass number of the product nuclear.
13. The minimum mass of a fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called …………
14. The value of 1MeV in joules is ………..
15. In the transformation ₁H² + ₁H² → X + energy. X is …………
16. Einstein’s mass energy relation is ………….
17. ……….causes the mutation in the human gene.
18. ……….. is also used in treatment of skin cancer.
19. The safe limit for receiving the radiation is ………….
20. The substances that are used as coolants are ………….. and
21. ………… reactors convert non-fissionable material units.
22. The expansion of BARC is ………….
23. The number of nuclear reactor that are operating in India are ……………
24. Identify X in the following transformation ₁₂Mg²⁴ + ₀n¹ → X + ₁n¹. X is ………….
25. In the reaction ₉₂U²³⁸ + ₀n¹ → ₉₃NP²³⁹ + X. X is ………….
Answer:
1. Marie Curie and pierre Curie
2. Spontaneous
3. more than 83
4. self-disintegration
5. Becquerel
6. Becquerel
7. β rays
8. a helium nucleus
9. Gamma
10. Alpha, beta
11. alpha
12. beta
13. critical mass
14. 1.602 × 10^-13 J
15. ₂He⁴
16. E = mc²
17. Gamma radiation
18. Radio-gold Au¹⁹⁸
19. 100 mR per week
20. Water, air and helium
21. Breeder
22. Bhaba Atomic Research Centre
23. 22
24. ₁₁Na²⁴
25. _-1e⁰

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement.

1. Artificial radioactivity is induced in the elements like boron, aluminum etc.
2. Natural radioactivity can be controlled.
3. 1 Rd = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations / second.
4. The S.I units of radioactivity is roentgen.
5. The charge of each beta particle is – e
6. Beta ray travels with velocity of light.
7. Example for alpha decay is ₉₂U²³⁸ → ₉₀Th²³⁴ + ₂He⁴
8. Otto Hann and Strassman discovered nuclear fission.
9. In the mass of the fissile material is more than the critical mass it is termed as supercritical.
10. Hydrogen bomb is based on uncontrolled chain reaction.
11. 1eV = 1.602 × 10^-16 Joule.
12. Hydrogen is based on nuclear fusion.
13. Positrons are emitted in nuclear fusion.
14. To diagnose anaemia P³² is used.
15. Radio phosphorous is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
16. To prevent the leakage of nuclear radiation concrete wall with lead lining is used.
Answer:
1. True
2. False – Artificial radio activity can be controlled.
3. False – 1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰⁶ disintegrations / second.
4. False – The S.l unit of radioactivity is Becquerel.
5. True
6. False – Gamma ray travels with velocity of light.
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False – Atom bomb is based on uncontrolled chain reaction.
11. False – 1eV = 1.602 × 10^-9 Joule
12. True
13. True
14. False – To diagonise aneamia Fe⁵⁹ is used.
15. True
16. True
17. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (v)
(d) – (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (v)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(a) – (v)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (ii)

V. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
A radioactive isotope emits radiation of 7.4 × 10⁴ G Bq per second. Convert this disintegration in terms of curie.
Answer:
One curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Becquerel
Becquerel (1 Bq) = One disintegration / second
∴ 1 Bq = \(\frac{1}{3.7×10^{10}}\) curie
∴ 7.4 × 10⁴ G Bq
= 7.4 × 10⁴ × 10⁹ × \(\frac{1}{3.7×10^{10}}\)
= 2 × 10³ curie
= 2,000 curie

Question 2.
The isotope ₉₂U²³⁸ successfully undergoes three α – decays and two β – decays. What is the resulting isotope?
Answer:
Number and nature of decays = 3α and 2β
Atomic number of isotope is Z = 92
Mass number of isotope is A = 238
Resulting isotope:
After the emission of 3α particles atomic number
Z’ = Z = (3 × 2)
= Z – 6
= 92 – 6
Z’ = 86
After the emission of 2β particles atomic number
Z” = Z – 2 (-1) = 86 + 2 = 88
Mass number after the emission of 3α particles
A’ = A – 3α
= 238 – 3(4)
= 238 – 12
= 226
Mass number after the emission of 2β particles
A” = A’ – 2(0)
= 226
∴ Resulting isotope is ₈₈Ra²²⁶

Question 3.
₈₈Ra²²⁶ experiences one α – decay and one β – decay. Calculate the number of neutrons in the final daughter nucleus that is formed.
Answer:
α particle = ₂He⁴
Atomic number of α particle = 2
Mass number of α particle = 4

Number of neutrons = Mass number – atomic number
= 222 – 87 = 135

Question 4.
State the number of protons, electrons neutrons and nucleons in ₄Be⁹ atom.
Answer:
Atomic number of ₄Be⁹ atom Z = 4
Mass number of ₄Be⁹ atom A = 9
Number of protons = Atomic number Z = 4
Number of neutrons = A – Z = 9 – 4 = 5
Number of nucleons = A = 9

Question 5.
Determine X and Y in the following transformations.
(i) ₄Be⁹ + α → X
(ii) ₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₀Ba¹⁴¹ + Y + 3₀n¹
Answer:
(i) ₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → ₆C¹³ [α = ₂He⁴]
∴ X = ₆C¹³

(ii) ₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₀Ba¹⁴¹ + Y + 3₀n¹
Equating atomic number on both sides we get,
235 + 1 = 141 + A + 3
236 = 144 + A
∴ A = 236 – 144
= 92
Equating atomic number on both sides are get
92 + 0 = 56 + 2 + 0
Z = 92 – 56 = 36
∴ Y is ₃₆Kr⁹²

Question 6.
Calculate the amount energy released when a radioactive element undergoes fusion and results in a mass defect of 4g.
Answer:
Velocity of light = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Mass defect Δm = 4 × 10^-3
By Einstein’s equation, energy released
E = mC²
= (4 × 10^-3) × (3 × 10⁸)²
= 36 × 10¹³ J
= 3.6 × 10¹⁴ J

Question 7.
Identify the radio isotopes in the following reactions.
Answer:
(i) ₁₅P⁸ + ₀n¹ → X + γ
(ii) ₀n¹ → _ZY^A + _-1e⁰ + γ^–
Answer:
(i) ₁₅P³¹ + ₀n¹ → X + γ
Mass number of X = 31 + 1 = 32
Atomic number of Y= 15 + 0 =15
∴ X is ₁₅P³¹

(ii) ₀n¹ → _ZY^A + _-1e⁰ + γ^–
Mass number 1 = A + 0
∴ A = 1
Atomic number 0 = Z – 1
∴ Z = 1
_ZY^A is ₁H¹

VI. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: Natural radioactivity is a spontaneous process.
Reason: It cannot be controlled.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: In artificial radioactivity neutron and positron are emitted. Reason: It can be controlled.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: p rays are electrons.
Reason: p rays travel with speed of light.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 4.
Assertion: Gamma rays have maximum ionising power.
Reason: Alpha rays have low penetrating power.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 5.
Assertion: Critical mass of a fissile material is the mass necessary to sustain chain reaction.
Reason: Critical mass depends on the nature, density and size of the fissile material.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 6.
Assertion: Nuclear fusion takes place in the cores of the sun and other stars.
Reason: Nuclear fusion is called as thermonuclear reaction.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: An alpha particle carries double the positive charge of protons.
Reason: The charge of alpha particle is equal to charge on the helium nucleus.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves.
Reason: Gamma rays travel with speed of light.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VII. Answer in one or two words (VSA).

Question 1.
Who discovered the nucleus?
Answer:
Rutherford

Question 2.
Define ‘Natural Radioactivity’.
Answer:
This phenomenon of spontaneous emission of radiation from certain elements on their own is called ‘Natural radioactivity’.

Question 3.
State elements exhibiting radioactivity with atomic number less than 83.
Answer:
Uranium and radium

Question 4.
What is the nature of radioactive substances?
Answer:
They are earth metals and transition metals.

Question 5.
Define ‘One Rutherford (Rd)’.
Answer:
It is another unit of radioactivity. It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which produces 106 disintegrations in one second.
1 Rd = 10⁶ disintegrations per second.

Question 6.
In ₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → X. What is X?
Answer:
X is ₆C¹³

Question 7.
What is the value of 1 curie?
Answer:
1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations / second.

Question 8.
State the value of Rutherford.
Answer:
1 Rutherford = 10⁶ disintegrations / second.

Question 9.
Explain the term ‘fissile material’ Give an example.
Answer:
Fissionable material is a radioactive element, which undergoes fission in a sustained manner when it absorbs a neutron. It is also termed as ‘fissile material’.
E.g. U²³⁵, plutonium (Pu²³⁹ and Pu²⁴¹)

Question 10.
Which ray has greatest ionising power?
Answer:
Alpha ray

Question 11.
Which ray posses minimum ionising power?
Answer:
Gamma ray

Question 12.
Which ray is not deflected by electric and magnetic fields?
Answer:
Gamma ray

Question 13.
Name the ray that travels with speed about 9/10 times that of light?
Answer:
Beta ray

Question 14.
What is the charge of particle?
Answer:
It’s charge is +2e.

Question 15.
Which particle has a charge of -e?
Answer:
Beta particle

Question 16.
State that the ray consisting of protons.
Answer:
Gamma ray

Question 17.
When uranium emits an alpha particle which element is obtained as daughter element.
Answer:
Thorium ₉₀Th²³⁴

Question 18.
Mention the value of 1eV in terms of joule.
Answer:
1eV = 1.602 × 10^-19 joule

Question 19.
What is the value of 1Mev?
Answer:
1MeV = 10⁶eV = 1.602 × 10^-13 joule

Question 20.
Which radio isotope is used in the treatment of skin diseases?
Answer:
Radio Phosphorus P³²

Question 21.
What is the use of radio iodine?
Answer:
Radio iodine is used to cure goiter.

Question 22.
Which isotope is used in airlines?
Answer:
Califorium Cf²³² is used in airlines.

Question 23.
State the isotope used as a smoke detector.
Answer:
Americium Am²⁴¹

Question 24.
Write down the uses of a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Uses of a nuclear reactor

• Nuclear reactors are widely used in power generation.
• They are also used to produce radioisotopes, which are used in a variety of applications
• Some reactors help us to do research in the field of nuclear physics.
• Breeder reactors are used to convert non-fissionable materials into fissionable materials.

Question 25.
What are gamma rays?
Answer:
Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves consisting of photons.

Question 26.
Who discovered Cathode rays.
Answer:
J.J. Thomson

VIII. Answer the following question in few sentences.

Question 1.
What is radioactivity?
Answer:
The phenomenon of nuclear decay of certain elements with the emission of radiations like alpha, beta, and gamma rays is called ‘radioactivity’.

Question 2.
What is meant by natural radioactivity?
Answer:
This phenomenon of spontaneous emission of radiation from certain elements on their own is called ‘natural radioactivity’.

Question 3.
Define Rutherford.
Answer:
It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which produces 106 disintegrations in one second.
1 Rd = 10⁶ disintegrations per second.

Question 4.
What is the unit of radioactivity? Define it.
Answer:
The SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel. It is defined as the quantity of one disintegration per second.

Question 5.
Define nuclear fission. State an example.
This process of breaking (splitting) up of a heavier nucleus into two smaller nuclei with the release of a large amount of energy and a few neutrons is called ‘nuclear fission’.
Eg: Nuclear fission of a uranium nucleus (U²³⁵)
₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₆Ba¹⁴¹ + ₃₆Kr⁹² + 3₀n¹ + Q (energy)

Question 6.
How a product nucleus is identified in a nuclear reaction?
Answer:
In a nuclear reaction, the element formed as the product nucleus is identified by the atomic number of the resulting nucleus and not by its mass number.

Question 7.
What is fissile material?
Answer:
A fissionable material is a radioactive element, which undergoes fission in a sustained manner when it absorbs a neutron. It is also termed as ‘fissile material’.
Eg: U²³⁵, plutonium (Pu²³⁹ and Pu²⁴¹)

Question 8.
What are fertile materials? Mention examples.
Answer:
There are some radioactive elements, which can be converted into fissionable material. They are called as fertile materials.
Eg: Uranium – 238, Thorium – 232, Plutonium – 240.

Question 9.
What is the composition of natural uranium?
Answer:
Natural uranium consists of 99.28 % of ₉₂U²³⁸ and 0.72 % of ₉₂U²³⁵.

Question 10.
What is nuclear fusion? State an example.
Answer:
The process in which two lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is termed as ‘nuclear fusion’.
Eg: ₁H² + ₁H² → ₂He⁴ + Q (Energy)

Question 11.
What is meant by chain reaction?
Answer:
A chain reaction is a self-propagating process in which the number of neutrons goes on multiplying rapidly almost in a geometrical progression.

Question 12.
What is meant by mass defect?
Answer:
The mass of the daughter nucleus formed during a nuclear reaction (fission and fusion) is lesser than the sum of the masses of the two parent nuclei. This difference in mass is called mass defect.

Question 13.
Nuclear fusion is named as thermonuclear reaction. Why?
Answer:
Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of 10⁷ to 10⁹ K and a high pressure to push the hydrogen nuclei closer to fuse with each other. Hence, it is named as ‘Thermonuclear reaction’.

Question 14.
What are the uses of radio isotopes in industries?
Answer:

1. An isotope of californium (Cf²⁵²) is used in the airlines to detect the explosives in the luggage.
2. An isotope of Americium (Am²⁴¹) is used in many industries as a smoke detector.

Question 15.
What is the age of Earth?
Answer:
It is nearly 4.54 × 10⁹ years (around 45 Crore 40 lakh years).

Question 16.
What do you know about dosimeter?
Answer:
Dosimeter is a device used to detect the levels of exposure of an ionizing radiation.

Question 17.
What is the function of moderator in a nuclear reactor?
Answer:
A moderator is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are the commonly used moderators.

Question 18.
How do coolants function in a nuclear reactor?
Answer:
A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to produce steam. This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity. Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.

Question 19.
Name some operating reactors in India.
Answer:
Cirus, Dhuruva and Pumima.

Question 20.
Define Curie.
Answer:
Curie is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which undergoes 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations in one second. This is actually close to the activity of 1 g of radium-226.

IX. Answer the following question in detail.

Question 1.
Write short notes on induced radioactivity.
Answer:
The phenomenon by which even light elements are made radioactive, by artificial or induced methods, is called ‘artificial radioactivity’ or ‘man-made radioactivity’.

This kind of radioactivity was discovered by Irene Curie and F.Joliot in 1934. Artificial radioactivity is induced in certain lighter elements like boron, aluminium etc., by bombarding them with radiations such as ‘alpha particles’ emitted during the natural radioactivity of uranium. This also results in the emission of invisible radiations and elementary” particles. During such a disintegration, the nucleus which undergoes disintegration is called ‘parent nucleus’ and that which is produced after the disintegration is called a ‘daughter nucleus’. The panicle, which is used to induce the artificial disintegration is termed as projectile and the particle which is produced after the disintegration is termed as ejected panicle. When the projectile hits the parent nucleus, it is converted into an unstable nucleus, which in turn decays spontaneously emitting the daughter nucleus along with an ejected particle.

If you denote the parent and daughter nuclei as X and Y respectively, then the nuclear disintegration is represented as follows: X (P,E) Y. Here, P and E represent the projectile particle and ejected particle respectively.
₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → ₆C^13*
₆C^13* → ₆C¹² + ₀n¹
In the above nuclear reaction, ₆C^13* is unstable and is radioactive. This reaction can be represented as ₄Be⁹ (α, n) ₄C¹²
₄Be⁹ + ₂He⁴ → ₆C¹² + ₀n¹

Question 2.
Explain the concept of ‘Hydrogen bomb’.
Answer:
Hydrogen Bomb:

• This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to a Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fusion.
• A hydrogen bomb is always designed to have an inbuilt atom bomb which creates the high temperature and pressure required for fusion when it explodes.
• Fusion takes place in the hydrogen core and leads to the release of a very large amount of energy in an uncontrolled manner.
• The energy released in a hydrogen bomb (or fusion bomb) is much higher than that released in an atom bomb (or fission bomb).

Question 3.
Explain
(i) alpha decay,
(ii) Beta decay,
(iii) gamma decay
Answer:
(i) Alpha decay : A nuclear reaction in which an unstable parent nucleus emits an alpha particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus, is called, ‘alpha decay’.
Eg: Decay of uranium (U²³⁸) to thorium (Th²³⁴) with the emission of an alpha particle.
₉₂U²³⁸ → ₉₀Th²³⁴ + ₂He⁴ (α – decay)
In α – decay, the parent nucleus emits an a particle and so it is clear that for the daughter nucleus, the mass number decreases by four and the atomic number decreases by two.

(ii) Beta decay : A nuclear reaction, in which an unstable parent nucleus emits a beta particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus, is called ‘beta decay’.
Eg: Beta decay of phosphorous.
₁₅P³² → ₁₆S³² + _-1e⁰(β – decay)
In β – decay there is no change in the mass number of the daughter nucleus but the atomic number increases by one. In a nuclear reaction, the element formed as the product nucleus is identified by the atomic number of the resulting nucleus and not by its mass number.

(iii) Gamma decay: In a γ – decay, only the energy level of the nucleus changes. The atomic number and mass number of the radioactive nucleus remain the same.

Question 4.
What is the principle of atom bomb? Describe its structure.
Answer:
The atom bomb is based on the principle of uncontrolled chain reaction. In an uncontrolled chain reaction, the number of neutrons and the number of fission reactions multiply almost in a geometrical progression. This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to an explosion.

Structure : An atom bomb consists of a piece of fissile material whose mass is subcritical. This piece has a cylindrical void. It has a cylindrical fissile material which can fit into this void and its mass is also subcritical. When the bomb has to be exploded, this cylinder is injected into the void using a conventional explosive. Now, the two pieces of fissile material join to form the supercritical mass, which leads to an explosion. The structure of an atom bomb.

During this explosion tremendous amount of energy in the form of heat, light and radiation is released. A region of very high temperature and pressure is formed in a fraction of a second along with the emission of hazardous radiation like y rays, which adversely affect the living creatures. This type of atom bombs were exploded in 1945 at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan during the World War II.

Question 5.
What precautions are to he took for those, who are working in radiation laboratories?
Answer:

1. Radio – Iodine (I¹³¹) is used to cure goitre.
2. Radioactive materials should be kept in a thick-walled lead container.
3. Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used while working with hazardous radioactive materials.
4. We should avoid eating while handling radioactive materials.
5. The radioactive materials should be handled only by tongs or by a remote control device.
6. Dosimeters should be worn by the users to check the level of radiation.

Question 6.
What do you know about hydrogen bomb?
Answer:
Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fusion. A hydrogen bomb is always designed to have an inbuilt atom bomb which creates the high temperature and pressure required for fusion when it explodes. Then, fusion takes place in the hydrogen core and leads to the release of a very large amount of energy in an uncontrolled manner. The energy released in a hydrogen bomb (or fusion bomb) is much higher than that released in an atom bomb (or fission bomb).

Question 7.
What are the applications of radio isotopes in medicine?
Answer:
Medical applications of radio isotopes can be divided into two parts:

1. Diagnosis
2. Therapy

Radio isotopes are used as tracers to diagnose the nature of circulatory disorders of blood, defects of bone metabolism, to locate tumors, etc., Some of the radio isotopes which are used as tracers are: hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, etc.

1. Radio-sodium (Na²⁴) is used for the effective functioning of heart.
2. Radio-Iodine (I¹³¹) is used to cure goiter.
3. Radio-iron is (Fe⁵⁹) is used to diagnose anaemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
4. Radio-phosphorous (P³²) is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
5. Radio-cobalt (Co⁶⁰) and
6. Radio-gold (Au¹⁹⁸) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
7. Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.

Question 8.
Mention the applications of radio isotopes in agriculture and industries and archeological research.
Answer:
Agriculture : The radio isotope of phosphorous (P-32) helps to increase the productivity of crops. The radiations from the radio isotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites and prevent the wastage of agricultural products. Certain perishable cereals exposed to radiations remain fresh beyond their normal life, enhancing the storage time. Very small doses of radiation prevent sprouting and spoilage of onions, potatoes and gram.

Industries : In industries, radioactive isotopes are used as tracers to detect any manufacturing defects such as cracks and leaks. Packaging faults can also be identified through radio activity. Gauges, which have radioactive sources are used in many industries to check the level of gases, liquids and solids.

1. An isotope of californium (Cf ²⁵²) is used in the airlines to detect the explosives in the luggage.
2. An isotope of Americium (Am²⁴¹) is used in many industries as a smoke detector.

Archeological research : Using the technique of radio carbon dating, the age of the Earth, fossils, old paintings and monuments can be determined. In radio carbon dating, the existing amount of radio carbon is determined and this gives an estimate about the age of these things.

Question 9.
Compare the features of nuclear fission with nuclear fusion.
Answer:

Question 10.
Mention the preventive measures to be followed while working with radioactive materials.
Answer:
Radioactive materials should be kept in a thick walled lead container.

1. Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used while working with hazardous radioactive materials.
2. You should avoid eating while handling radioactive materials.
3. The radioactive materials should be handled only by tongs or by a remote control device.
4. Dosimeters should be worn by the users to check the level of radiation.

Question 11.
Write a note on nuclear power plants in India.
Answer:
Indian Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) was established in August 1948 by the Department of Indian Scientific Research committee at Bombay (now Mumbai) in Maharashtra. It is the nodal agency for all the research done in the field of atomic energy. Dr. Homi Jahangir Bhaba was the first chairman of Indian Atomic Energy Commission. Now, it is known as Bhaba Atomic Research Centre (BARC).

Nuclear power is the fifth largest source of power in India. Tarapur Atomic Power Station is India’s first nuclear power station. Now, there are a total of seven power stations, one each in Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and two in Tamilnadu. In Tamilnadu, we have nuclear power stations in Kalpakkam and Kudankulam. Apsara was the first nuclear reactor built in India and Asia. Now, there are 22 nuclear reactors which are operating in India. Some other operating reactors are

1. Cirus
2. Dhuruva
3. Pumima

Question 12.
Distinguish (i) atom bomb from Nuclear reactor,
(ii) Nuclear fission from Nuclear fusion.
Answer:
(i) atom bomb from nuclear reactor:

(ii) Nuclear fission from Nuclear fusion

X. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
A neutron is most effective as bulet in nuclear reactions. Why?
Answer:
This is because a neutron carries no charge. It can hit the nucleus directly without being repelled or attracted by the nucleus or electrons.

Question 2.
Why is \({ _{ 92 } }U^{ 238 }\) not suitable for chain reaction?
Answer:
Only fast-moving neutrons of 12 MeV can cause fission of \({ _{ 92 } }U^{ 238 }\) nuclei. But such neutron has fewer chances of interaction. They escape the fissionable material without causing fission.

Question 3.
Why cadmium is used as control rods in the nuclear reactor?
Answer:
As Cadmium has a high cross section for absorption of neutrons, cadmium is used as control rod.

Question 4.
Why is nuclear fusion not possible in a laboratory (or) Why is nuclear fusion difficult to carry out?
Answer:
Nuclear fusion requires a very high temperature of 10⁶ – 10⁷ K. This temperature is attained by causing an explosion due to the fission process. Moreover, no solid container can withstand such a high temperature.

Question 5.
Why is the penetrating power of a – particle is less than that of β – particle?
Answer:
Ionising power is directly proportional to kinetic energy that varies directly as mass of particle and square of its velocity. Hence ionising power of an alpha particle is more than that of β particle.

Question 6.
Why heavy water is used to slow down the fast moving neutrons?
Answer:
Since heavy water (D₂O) is rich in hydrogen, it is used to slow down the fast moving neutrons.

Question 7.
The penetrating power of α – particle is less than that of β – particle – Why?
Answer:
(i) Penetrating power varies inversely as mass of the particle. But mass of alpha particles is very much greater than mass of beta particles.
(ii) Hence, penetrating power of α – particle is less than that of β – particles.

Question 8.
What are the units of activity of radio active elements?
Answer:
1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations / second
1 rutherford = 10⁶ disintegrations / second

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………….. was the pioneer of social Reformers in India.
(a) C. W. Damotharanar
(b) Periyar
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 2.
…………… established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W.Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Question 3.
…………….. was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement.
(a) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(a) Kudi Arasu

Question 4.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by ………………
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 5.
…………….. founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M.C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in ………….
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
Answer:
(a) 1918

Question 7.
…………….. was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government officials.
(a) Staff Selection Board
(b) Public Service Commission
(c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board
(d) Staff Selection Commission
Answer:
(a) Staff Selection Board

Question 8.
……………. was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in Madras Province.
(a) M. C. Rajah
(b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(c) T.M. Nair
(d) P. Varadarajulu
Answer:
(a) M. C. Rajah

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… was the first non-European language that went into print.
2. The College of Fort St. George was founded by ………………
3. ……………… is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
4. ……………… was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.
5. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as ………………
6. ……………… gave prominence to Tamil music.
7. The first Woman Legislator in India was

Answers:

1. Tamil
2. F.W. Ellis
3. Maraimalai Adigal
4. Justice Party Government
5. Parithimar Kalaignar
6. Abraham Pandithar
7. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru. V. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement.
(a) (i) and (1%) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) anA (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women’s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers or Rationalists Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Hindu Mahasabha.
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival of Brahmins from the North.
(a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in Government from 192CE1937 in Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation

Question 4.
Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the provinces.
(a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are right
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are right

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Tamil Renaissance.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance. Tamil language and culture played a significant role in their identity construction. The introduction of printing press, linguistic research on Dravidian languages, etc., underpinned the process of Tamil renaissance.

Tamil was the first non-European language that went into print. In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics. This provided the Tamil people with a revelation about their heritage. Therefore, the rediscovery of ancient classics and their publication is considered the foundation of Tamil renaissance.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Answer:

1. In 1816, F. W. Ellis who founded the College of Fort St. George, formulated the theory that the south Indian languages belonged to a separate family which was unrelated to the Indo – Aryan family of languages.
2. Robert Caldwell (1814-1891) expanded this argument in a book titled. A comparative grammar of the Dravidian (or) South Indian family of languages in 1856.
3. He established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.

Question 3.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar, F.W. Ellis, Robert Caldwell, Subramania Bharati, Thiru Vi. Kalyanasundaram, Singaraveiar, PanditViar lyotheethassar, Sundaram Pillar and Maraimalai Adigal.

Question 4.
Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justicite Ministry.
Answer:

1. The Justice Party further concentrated on reforms in religious institutions.
2. Tamil Nadu has a large number of temples and these commanded huge resources.
3. In general, the resources were monopolised and exploited by the ‘ dominant caste in the society and led to mismanagement of public resources.
4. The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment (HRE) Act in 1926 and enabled any individual irrespective of their caste affiliation to become a member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 5.
What do you know of the Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam incident?
Answer:
A Gurukulam was established in Cheranmahadevi by V.V.S. Iyer with the financial support of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee. However, students were discriminated on the basis of caste. Brahmin and non-Brahmin students were made to dine separately. Periyar was disturbed to see the discrimination. He questioned the practice, and severely criticized it. Despite his objections, Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam. This disappointed Periyar.

Question 6.
Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal Foundation.
Answer:
Dravidian in Tamil, Justice in English and Andra Prakasika in Telugu to propagate ideals of the Party.

Question 7.
Estimate Periyar as a feminist
Answer:
Periyar was a great feminist. He believed in gender equality and raised voice over the plight of women. He emphasized on women’s right to divorce and property. He objected the terms like “giving in marriage”. This, he said, treats woman as a thing. He wanted it to substitute by “valkaithunai,” (companion) a word for marriage taken from the Tirukkural. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved ? He believed that property rights for women would provide them a social status and protection. He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption.

Question 8.
Explain the proceedings of All India Trade Union Congress Conference held in 1920.
Answer:

1. The first All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) was held on 31st October 1920 in Bombay. The delegates discussed several resolutions.
2. These included a demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes, the maintenance of an unemployment register restriction on exporting food stuffs, compensation for injuries and health insurance.
3. In addition, the delegates demanded that Indian workers be given some representation in the Government just as empolyers had representatives on legislative councils.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Periyar e.v.r

(a) When did Periyar founded the Dravidar Kazhagam?
Answer:
Periyar founded the Dravidar Kazhagam in the year 1944.

(b) What were the Newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
Answer:
Kudi Arasu (Democracy) (1925) Revolt (1928) Puratchi Revolution (1933) Paguth tharivu (Rationalism) (1934) and Viduthalai (Liberation) (1935).

(c) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
Answer:

1. In the name of caste dharma the “lower caste” people were denied access to the temples and the streets surrounding the temple.
2. In Vaikom Catown in the then princely state of Travancore and in present day Kerala, people protest against this practice.
3. People hailed him as Vaikom Virar (Hero of Vaikom) because Periyar led the movement and was imprisoned.

(d) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
Periyar’s most important work on this subject is why the women is enslaved?

Question 2.
Labour Movement in Tamil Nadu

(a) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras.
Answer:
The factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement in Madras are

• Retrenchment of workers at the end of the First World War.
• Nationalists’ support to the cause of labour.

(b) Identify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
Answer:
Three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union are B.P. Walia, M. Singaravelar and Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram.

(c) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
Answer:
The first All India Trade Union Conference was held in Bombay.

(d) Who organized the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which year?
Answer:
M. Singaravelar organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras in 1923.

Question 3.
Maraimalai adigal

(a) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigai wrote commentaries.
Answer:
Maraimalai Adigai wrote commentaries on the sangam texts Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.

(b) Name the Journal where he worked as a young man.
Answer:
Siddhanta Deepika.

(c) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
Answer:
He promoted the use of pure Tamil words, impact on Tamil culture especially in language and literature.

(d) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
Maraimalai Adaigal’s teachers such as P. Sundaranar and Somasundra Nayagar were key influences in his life.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19fh Century.
Answer:
(i) In Tamil Nadu, the proliferation of the printing press acted as a catalyst for the publication and spread of secular ancient Tamil literature.

(ii) In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics.

(iii) C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance.

(iv) The transformation not only revived Tamil language and literature but also Tamil culture. It challenged the prevailed caste hierarchy and influenced the rise of Dravidian consciousness and established Tamil as a language of the Dravidian people.

(v) Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of Brahminism. These developments were reflected in art, literature, religion, etc.

Question 2.
Describe the background for the formation of the Justice Party and point put its contribution to the cause of social justice.
Answer:

1. As World War -1 was in progress the British Government was considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the War.
2. Fearing that such political reforms would further strengthen the political power of Brahmins, educated Non – Brahmins decided to organise themselves politically.
3. On 20th, November 1916 around 30 prominent Non – Brahmin leaders including Dr. C. Natesanar Sir, Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal came together to form the South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF).

Programme and Activities:

1. The Justice Party is the fountain head of the Non – Brahmin Movement in the country.
2. The Justicite removed the legal hindrances restricting inter – caste marriages and broke the barriers that prevented Depressed Classes from the use of public wells and tanks.
3. Hostels were established for the students belonging to this social group in 1923.
4. The Justice Party Government was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics in (1921)
5. The Justice Party worked towards legislating provisions for communal representation reservations for various communities.
6. The Justice Party rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of Government officials and encouraged all the communities to share the administrative powers.
7. In 1929, the Government of British India adopted the pattern and established the Public Service Commission.
8. The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment (HRE) Act in 1926 and enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become a member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 3.
Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Periyar was a great social reformer. His contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu is really praise worthy.
(i) He launched ‘Temple entry’ movement to provide the lower caste people easy access to the temples.

(ii) He also started the Self-Respect movement in 1925, with the determination that there ought to be ‘no God; no religion; no Gandhi; no Congress; and no Brahmins’.

(iii) Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child marriage and the Devadasi system. Right from 1929, when the Self-Respect conference began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising on women’s right to divorce and property.

(iv) He advocated atheism as a mode of critique to deconstruct the established practices of faith, culture and custom. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.

(v) He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption. He was strong champion of birth control and contraception.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to distinguish between Labour Movement and Trade Union Movement. Project work on the activities of local trade union organisations may be done by students.
Answer:
Distinguish between Labour Movement and Trade Movement.

Labour Movement:

1. It is a political movement campaigning to improve the rights and conditions of the working people.
2. If originated in U.S.A focussing on rights, interests and protection of employees.
3. Labour movement generally work for better wages, reasonable working hours and safer working conditions.

Trade union Movement:

1. It is an association of workers forming a legal unit to improve their status by united action.
2. It originated in Great Britain focussing to protect and promote the welfare of the employees.
3. Trade Union Movement regulate employer – employee relationship and generally work for better wages, reasonable working hours and safer working conditions.

Activities of a local trade union: Students should visit with few of their classmates (with prior permission from the subject teacher and school authorities and parents) to visit a nearby industry where trade unions are organised by the workers.

They have to meet the trade, union leader and gather information on the activities performed by them in the factory. The collected information should be written down neatly and submit to the subject teacher.

Eg: In general, the following are the few activities performed by the trade union.

1. Negotiate wages.
2. Regulate relationship between workers (employees) and the employers.
3. Raise demand for new uniform, or safer working condition, pure drinking water, sanitary facilities etc.,
4. Protect the workers against discrimination.
5. Protect the workers from exploitation.

Question 2.
Students can compile the activities of the local writers’ associations or women’s collectives.
Answer:
Local writers Association/women collectives: Students should find people who are writers and they write scripts for audio formats, digital media (or) T.V or screenwriters for films. Later, students can collect information about their.

1. Name of their Association.
2. Location.
3. Job site.
4. Nature of work.
5. Year of joining the Association
6. Membership fee
7. Total no. of members
8. Usefulness being the member

and submit in this format to the subject teacher. If students can find women organised themselves as a group, in the above-mentioned format can be used for that also. Eg: Women collectives (self-help group)

They work for their betterment together as a group (Sua Udavi Kuzhu).

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
………………. is also identified as the Indian renaissance.
(a) Historical development
(b) Political development
(c) Economic development
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Historical development

Question 2
Periyar transformed the justice Party into ………….
(a) Akali Dal
(b) Dravidar kazhagam
(c) Swarajya
Answer:
(b) Dravidar kazhagam

Question 3.
The basic inspiration of renaissance is:
(a) Knowledge
(b) Humanism
(c) Painting
(d) Transition
Answer:
(b) Humanism

Question 4.
Vaikom is a place in ……………
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 5.
The introduction of ………………. on Dravidian languages are underpinned the Process of tamil renaissance
(a) Printing press
(b) linguistic research
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) knowledge
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
The Justice Party was established in 1916 by ……………
(a) Periyar
(b) Anna
(c) C. Natesanar, Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal
Answer:
(c) C. Natesanar, Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal

Question 7.
In which year Thirukkural, Tamil literary text to be published?
(a) 1810
(b) 1805
(c) 1808
(d) 1812
Answer:
(d) 1812

Question 8.
Self Respect Movement was started in the year …………….
(a) 1927
(b) 1925
(c) 1930
Answer:
(b) 1925

Question 9.
Who was collected and edited different palm – leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammerand literature?
(a) U.V. Swaminathar
(b) C.W. Damotharanar
(c) Meenakshi Sundaranar
(d) P. Sundaranar
Answer:
(b) C.W. Damotharanar

Question 10.
Devadasi system was abolished by …………..
(a) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy
(b) Ramamirdhan
(c) Dr. S. Dharmambal
Answer:
(a) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy

Question 11.
………………. was popularly known as Vallalar.
(a) Ramalinga Adigal
(b) Parithimar Kalaignar
(c) Thiru.Vi. Ka
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(a) Ramalinga Adigal

Question 12.
Whose name is associated with the ‘Self-Respect’ movement?
(a) Muthulakshmi Reddy
(b) Rajaji
(c) Rettimalai Srinivasan
(d) Periyar
Answer:
(d) Periyar

Question 13.
Who was the first to argue that Tamil is a classical languages?
(a) Parithimar Kalaignar
(b) Maraimalai Adigal
(с) E.V. Ramasamy
(d) M. Singaravelar
Answer:
(a) Parithimar Kalaignar

Question 14.
Whose efforts led to the abolition of the devadasi system?
(a) Muthulakshmi Reddy
(b) Muvalur Ramamirtham
(c) M.C. Rajah
(d) Periyar
Answer:
(a) Muthulakshmi Reddy

Question 15.
Which organisation focused on educating and supporting Non – Brahmin graduates?
(a) Madras Dravidian Association
(b) Tani Tamil Iyakkam
(c) Tamil Isai Iyakkam
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Madras Dravidian Association

Question 16.
Who was the founder of Tani Tamil Iyakkam? (Pure Tamil Movement).
(a) M. Singaravelar
(b) Parithimar Kalaignar
(c) Ramalinga Adigal
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(d) Maraimalai Adigal

Question 17.
In which year Non – Brahmin Manifesto was released?
(a) 1905
(b) 1910
(c) 1912
(d) 1916
Answer:
(d) 1916

Question 18.
In which year the Congress contested the electron for the first time?
(a) 1930
(b) 1933
(c) 1935
(d) 1937
Answer:
(d) 1937

Question 19.
In which year Justice Party Government was the firstto approval participation of women in the electrol politics?
(a) 1910
(b) 1915
(c) 1919
(d) 1921
Answer:
(d) 1921

Question 20.
Which Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment? (HRE)
(a) The Justice Party
(b) The Congress Party
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) The Justice Party

Question 21.
Who was the founder of the Self – Respect Movement?
(a) E.V. Ramasamy
(b) Rajaji
(c) Rettaimalai
(d) none
Answer:
(a) E.V. Ramasamy

Question 22.
In which year Rettaimalai Srinivasan was born?
(a) 1849
(b) 1852
(c) 1855
(d) 1859
Answer:
(d) 1859

Question 23.
Who was one of the prominent leaders from the “depressed class”?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) M.C. Rajah
(c) Rajaji
(d) none
Answer:
(b) M.C. Rajah

Question 24.
Who was a pioneer in the labour movement activities?
(a) M. Singaravelar
(b) M.C. Rajah .
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Rajaji
Answer:
(a) M. Singaravelar

Question 25.
Who was in the forefront of the campaign pressing for legislation to abolish Devadasi system?
(a) Nagammai
(b) Dr. Muthulakshmi
(c) Rukmani
(d) Neelambikai
Answer:
(b) Dr. Muthulakshmi

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. traditions were treated as primitive.
2. ………………. was portrayed as conservative.
3. ………………. brought changes in the socio – cultural life of the Indian sub – continent.
4. Manonmaniam written by ……………….
5. Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of ……………….
6. ………………. an early pioneer in Buddhist revival promoted communism and socialism.
7. ………………. worked in a Journal Siddhanta Deepika.
8. ………………. held high in the radical philosophy.
9. ………………. complied a dictionary that provide pure Tamil equivalent to Sanskirt.
10. The Madras Non – Brahmins Association was founded in ……………….
11. ………………. founded the Madras United League.
12. ………………. won the election and formed the first ever Indian Cabinet in Madras.
13. ………………. later renamed as Madras Dravidian Association to support Dravidian uplift.
14. ………………. became the chief minister of the Madras Presidency during (1920-26).
15. ………………. is the fountain head of the Non – Brahmin Movement in the country.
16. In 1929, the Government of ………………. adopted the pattern and established the public service commission.
17. ………………. proposed a resolution regarding the rights of “Untouchables” to temple entry.
18. ………………. demand for a separate electorates for scheduled castes.
19. ………………. The Chief Minister of Madras State (1952 – 54) introduced to vocational training.
20. ………………. wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.
21. ………………. who had worked for the the progress of the deprived castes.
22. The first All India Trade Union (AITUC) was held in ……………….
23. ………………. demanded abolition of untouchability.
24. ………………. was a pioneer in the Labour Movement Activities.
25. The first Tamil Isai conference was held in ……………….
26. ………………. was one of the important objectives of the Self – Respect Movement.
27. ………………. formed the All India Women’s Conference (AlWC).
28. The Madras ………………. was enacted by the Government.
29. ………………. founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidhya Mahajana Sangam.
30.  ………………. published a Tamil Newspaper Thozhilalan (Worker).

Answers:

1. Indigenous
2. Indian society
3. The rise of Humanism
4. P. Sundaranar
5. Brahminism
6. M. Singaravelar
7. Maraimalai Adigal
8. E.V. Ramasamy
9. Neelambikai
10. 1909
11. C. Natesanar
12. The Justice Party
13. Madras United League
14. A. Subbarayalu
15. The Justice Party
16. British India
17. Periyar
18. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
19. Rajaji
20. Periyar
21. Rettaimalai Srinivasan
22. Bombay
23. M.C. Rajah
24. M. Singaravelar
25. 1943
26. Women’s Liberation
27. Women’s India Association (WIA)
28. Devadasis Act
29. Abraham Pandithar
30. M. Singaravelar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm-leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar.
(ii) Ramalinga Adigal gave prominence to Tamil music.
(iii) Maraimalai Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskirt influence from the Tamil language.
(iv) Muvalur Ramamirtham to became the first women legislator in India in 1926.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Justice Party Rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of Government officials.
(ii) Periyar had a close relationship with Singaravelar who is considered the first communist of South India.
(iii) The anti – Hindi agitation (1932 -1936) had a big impact on Tamil Nadu’s politics.
(iv) Rettaimalai Srinivasan criticised it as Kula Kalvi Thittam and opposed it tooth and nail.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Periyar was keen on the introduction of reservation in representative bodies such as the legislative council for Non – Brahmins.
(ii) All India Women’s Conference (AIWC) in 1937 to address the problem of Non – Brahmins.
(iii) The First World War (1912 -1920) provided stimulus to industrial growth ih India.
(iv) Women’s Liberation was one of the important objectives of Self – Respect Movement.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Rettaimalai Srinivasan who had experienced the horrors of untouchability worked for the progress of the deprive castes.
Reason (R): He served as president of the scheduled castes federations and the Madras Provincial Depressed Classes.
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R wrong.
(d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Periyar E.V. Ramasamy was the founder of the Self – Respect movement.
Reason (R): The movement was concerned with the marginalised sections of the society and criticised Brahminism and it advocated a casteless society.
(a) Both A and R are wrong.
(b) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 6.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 7.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 8.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (a)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What are the aims of Self Respect Movement?
Answer:

1. The Self Respect Movement condemned and fought against Brahmin domination over other castes, society, politics and religion.
2. It fought to abolish traditionalism and superstitions.
3. It advocated women education, widow remarriage, inter-caste marriages and opposed child marriage.

Question 2.
Explain about the basic inspiration of renaissance.
Answer:

1. The basic inspiration of renaissance is humanism and questioning the fundamentalist religious practices that denied humans their dignity.
2. This ideology of humanism stimulated creative energy in all spheres of social life and knowledge such as language, literature, philosophy, music, painting, architecture etc.

Question 3.
What were the causes for the failure of the Justice Party?
Answer:

1. The Justice Party came to power when the world was in economic depression.
2. The Nationalist Movement was popular and heading for freedom.
3. Caste and wealth played vital role. Hence the party lost its hold.
4. The rise of congress under the leadership of Ghandhi became a formidable challenge to Jus¬tice Party.

Question 4.
List out a few manuscripts of the Tamil grammar edited by C.W. Damotharanar and U.V. Swaminathar.
Answer:

1. C.W. Domotharanar collected and edited different palm – leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature.
2. His edition included such texts as Tholkappiyam, Viracholiyam, Iraiyanar Akapporul, Illakkana Villakkam, Kaliththokai, and Culamani.
3. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts such as Civakachinthamani, Paththupattu, Chilapathikaram, Purananuru, Purapporul – Venpa – Malai, Manimekalai, Ainkurunuru, and Pathitrupathu.

Question 5.
What was the different official positions hold by Periyar?
Answer:
Periyar held different official positions of Erode that included the chairmanship of Municipal Council, President of the Tamil Nadu Congress and President of the Justice Party.

Question 6.
What was the impact of Tamil language movement in the 20th century?
Answer:
In the 20th century Tamil language movement such as Tani Tamil Iyakkam and Tamil Isai Iyakkam made a significant cultural impact in creating a pure Tamil free from the influence of Sanskrit.

Question 7.
Discuss the work done by the Justice Party towards legislating provisions for communal representation?
Answer:
The Justice Party rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of government officials and encouraged ail the communities to share the administrative powers. This ensured equitable distribution in appointments among various castes and communities as a part of achieving social justice.

Question 8.
Whom was Women’s India Association (WIA) started and what was its work?
Answer:

1. Women’s India Association was started in 1917 by Annie Besant, Dorothy JinaraJadasa and Margaret cousins at Adyar Madras.
2. The Association published pamphlets and bulletins in different languages to detail the problems of personal hygiene, marriage laws, voting rights, child care and women’s role in the public.

Question 9.
Who initiated the Self-Respect movement? What was it about?
Answer:
The Self-Respect movement was initiated by Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy. The movement was concerned with the marginalised sections of the society and criticised Brahminism and the cultural hegemony of the Brahmins. It advocated a casteless society devoid of rituals and difference based on birth. The movement declared rationality and self-respect as the birthright of all human beings and held these as more important than self-rule.

Question 10.
Who worked hard to abolish the Devadasi system?
Answer:
Dr. Muthulakshmi ammaiyar, was in the forefront of the campaign pressing for a legislation to abolish the devadasis system.

The Madras Devasasis (prevention of Dedication) Act 1947 was enacted by the Government.

Question 11.
What was the devadasi system? Why was it abolished?
Answer:
The devadasi system was a custom of dedicating young girls to the Hindu temples as a servant of God. Though intended as a service to God, it soon got corrupted leading to extensive immorality and abuse of the women.

Muthulakshmi Reddi started a campaign pressing for a legislation to abolish this system. Finally, the Madras Devadasis (Prevention of Dedication) was enacted by the government in 1947.

Question 12.
What were the titles given to Rettaimalai Srinivasan?
Answer:
Rettaimalai Srinivasan was honoured with such titles as Rao Sahib (1926), Rao Bahadur (1930) and Divan Bahadur (1936) for his selfless social services.

VI. Answer the question given under each caption

Question 1.
Rise Of the Dravidian Movement

(a) In what situation the Dravidian movement emerged?
Answer:
The Dravidian movement emerged as a defence of the Non – Brahmins against the Brahmin dominance.

(b) When was Madras Non – Brahmin Association formed?
Answer:
In 1909.

(c) Who was founded the Madras United League?
Answer:
C. Natesanar, a medical doctor founded the Madras United League.

(d) What is the main aim of the organisation?
Answer:
The organisation focused on educating and supporting Non – Brahmin graduates and conducting regular meetings to share their grievances.

Question 2.
Self Respect Movement:

(a) Who started the Self Respect Movement?
Answer:
E.V. Ramaswamy Periyar started the self respect movement.

(b) Why did he start?
Answer:
He started it in order to spread and execute his ideas and policies.

(c) When was it started?
Answer:
It was started in 1925.

(d) Name the laws passed by the Government due to the constant struggle of Self Respect Movement.
Answer:
Widow Remarriage Act, Women’s Right to property Act and abolition of Devadasi Act.

Question 3.
M.G. rajah

(a) Who was popularly known as M.C. Rajah?
Answer:
Mylar Chinnathambi Raja, popularly known as M.C. Rajah.

(b) What was his demand?
Answer:
He demanded abolition of untouchability and organised a number of political meetings for the “Untouchable castes” to have access to public wells and pathways to burial grounds.

(c) In which year All India Depressed Classes Association was formed?
Answer:
In 1928.

(d) What was the terms he advocated?
Answer:
He advocated the use of such as terms Adi – Dravida and Adi – Andhra.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain briefly about the self- respect movement.
Answer:

1. The Self- Respect Movement introduced a programme of Non – Brahmin uplift in Tamil Nadu.
2. The movement was concerned with the marginalised sections the society and Criticised Brahminism and the cultural hegemony of the Brahmin.
3. It advocated a casteless society devoid of rituals and diffemeces based on birth.
4. The movement declared rationality and Self – Respect as the birth right of all human beings and held these as more important than self – rule.
5. The movement demanded women’s emancipations, deplored superstition and emphasised rationality.
6. The movement also advocated self – respect marriage.
7. The Self – Respect Movement championed not only the cause of the Non – Brahmin Hindus, but also that of the Muslims.
8. The Self Respect Movement extrolled the lofty principles of Islam such as equity and brotherhood.
9. Muslim elite considered the Tamil Muslims as Dravidian.
10. He wanted the Dravidian Muslim to follow Mustapha Kemal Pasha of Turkey and Amanullah of Afghanistan who initiated reforms in Islamic society.

Question 2.
Give an account of Labour Movements in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The first World War (1914 – 18) provided stimulus to industrial growth India.
2. These industries catering to war time needs, had employed a huge number of workers.
3. At the end of the War there were retrenchments across the industries as the War time requirements receded.
4. Combined with high prices, this gave a momentum to the labour movement.
5. The nationalist realising the value of organised labour power began to supported the cause of labour,
6. B.P. Wadia, M. Singaravelar, ThiruVi. Ka and others initiated the formation of labour unions in the Madras presidency.
7. In 1918 India’s first organised trade union the Madras Labour Union, was formed.
8. The first All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) was held on 31st October 1920 in Bombay.
9. These included a demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes, the maintenance of an unemployment register restriction on exporting food stuffs, compensation for injuries and health Insurance.
10. In addition, the delegates demanded that Indian workers be given some representation in the Government, just as employers, had representatives on legislative councils.
11. M. Singaravelar (1860 – 1946) was a pioneer in the Labour Movement activities in the Madras Presidency.
12. He organised the first over celebration of May Day in 1923.
13. He published a Tamil newspaper Thozhilalan (workers) to address the problem of the working class.

VIII. Draw a time line for the following

Question 1.
Write any five important events between 1905 -1927.
Answer:
Given period: 1905 – 1927

Question 2.
Write any five important events between 1920 -1930.
Answer:
Given period: 1920 – 1930

Question 3.
Write any five important events between 1930 -1947.
Answer:
Given period: 1930 – 1947

Question 4.
Write any five important events between 1931 -1945.
Answer:
Given period: 1931 – 1945

Question 5.
Write any five important events between 1937 -1947.
Answer:
Given period 1937 – 1947

Question 6.
Write any five important events between 1906 -1925.
Answer:
Given period: 1906 – 1925