Bhagya

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 8 Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 8 Nationalism: Gandhian Phase

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was arrested during the anti*Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew
(c) Mohamed Ali
(d) Raj Kumar Shukla
Answer:
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew

Question 2.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Lucknow
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Nagpur

Question 3.
Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
(a) 26th January 1930
(b) 26th December 1929
(c) 16th June 1946
(d) 15th January 1947
Answer:
(a) 26th January 1930

Question 4.
When was the first Forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858
(b) 1911
(c) 1865
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1865

Question 5.
On 8 January 1933 which day was observed
(a) Temple Entry Day
(b) Day of Deliverance
(c) Direct Action Day
(d) Independence Day
Answer:
(a) Temple Entry Day

Question 6.
Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
(a) 1858 Act
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Question 7.
Who defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaya, Gandhi’s candidate, and became the President of the Congress in 1939?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer:
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose

Question 8.
Where was Gandhi when India attained independence on 15th August 1947?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Wardha
(d) Noakhali
Answer:
(d) Noakhali

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Gandhi was thrown out of the first class compartment in ………………… station.
2. Gandhi regarded ………………… as his political guru.
3. Khilafat Movement was led by …………………
4. Government of India Act 1919 introduced ………………… in the provinces.
5. The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by …………………
6. Ramsay Macdonald announced ………………… which provided separate electorates to the minorities and the depressed classes.
7. ………………… established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.
8. ………………… coined the term ‘Pakistan’.

Answers:

1. pietermaritzburg
2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
3. Ali brothers
4. dyarchy
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
6. Communal award
7. Ushamehta
8. RahmatAli

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelar was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayah, Acharya Narendra Dev and Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Hindustan Republican Army was formed in Kanpur in 1924.
(ii) Ram Prasad Bismil was tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
(iii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed by Surya Sen.
(iv) Chittagong Armoury Raid was carried out by B.K. Dutt.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference. Reason: Gandhi-lrwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) A is wrong but R is correct.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) A is wrong but R is correct.

Question 4.
Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.
Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected Congress ministries.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Describe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
Answer:
On 13 April 1919, a public meeting was organised at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar in defiance of the Rowlatt Act. As it happened to be Baisaki Day, thousands of villagers had gathered there to enjoy the day together. General Reginald Dyer, on hearing the assemblage, surrounded the place with his troops and an armoured vehicle. He blocked the only entrance to the park and ordered his troops to fire without any warning. The firing continued for ten minutes in which about 370 were killed and more than thousand injured. However, an unofficial estimates put the death toll at more than thousand. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre is a big scar on the British Indian history.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
Answer:

1. After the end of first World war in 1918 Caliph the Muslim head in Turkey was ill treated.
2. A movement was started his support Khilafat movement led by the Ali brothers, Maulana Mohamed Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali.
3. It aimed to restore the prestige and power of the Caliphate.
4. Gandhiji saw Khilafat movement as an opportunity to unite Hindus and Muslims.
5. On 9th June 1920 the Khilafat committee in Allahabad adopted Gandhi’s non – violent, non – co-operation programme.

Question 3.
Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
The Non-cooperation Movement started in 1920. It soon became a nation-wide movement because it got support from the people across the country. But in February 1922, a violent incident occurred at Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh. In this incident a procession of nationalists provoked by the police turned violent. The police finding themselves outnumbered shut themselves inside the police station. The mob burnt the police station in which 22 policemen lost their lives. The incident hurt Gandhiji too much and he immediately withdrew the movement.

Question 4.
What was the conflict between the Swarajists and no-changers?
Answer:
The pro – changers (Swarajis) led by motilal Nehru and C.R. Das were the congressmen who wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature.

They argued that the national interest could be promoted by working in the legislative councils under Dyarchy and the colonial Government could be wrecked within.

But on the other hand the followers of Gandhiji (no – changers) like Patel and C. Rajaji wanted to continue Non – Cooperation with the Government.

This was the conflict between the Swarajis and the no – changers.

Question 5.
Why was Simon Commission boycotted?
Answer:
On 8 November 1927, the British Government announced the appointment of the Indian Statutory Commission. It was composed of seven members headed by Sir John Simon which came to be known as the Simon Commission. When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, millions of Indians were infuriated with the idea of an all- British committee writing proposals for Indian constitutional reforms without any member or consultations with the people of India. The Commission was, therefore, boycotted everywhere. Holding black flag in their hands the protesters shouted, “Go back Simon”.

Question 6.
What is Poorna Swaraj?
Answer:

1. In the congress session held in Lahore in December 1929 with Jawaharlal Nehru as the president declared “Poorna Swaraj” (complete independence) as the goal.
2. To attain Poorna Swaraj it was decided to boycott the round Table conference and launch a Civil Disobedience Movement.
3. 26^th January 1930 was declared as Independence Day.
4. A pledge was taken all over the country to attain ‘Poorna Swaraj’ non – violently.

Question 7.
Write a note on Bhagat Singh.
Answer:
Bhagat Singh was an Indian socialist revolutionary whose two acts of dramatic violence against the British in India and the execution at the age of 23 made him a folk hero of the Indian Independence Movement. Bhagat Singh along with B. K. Dutt threw a smoke bomb inside the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929.

It was not intended to hurt anyone. They threw pamphlets and shouted ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ and ‘Long Live the Proletariat’. He along with Rajguru was arrested and sentenced to death. Bhagat Singh’s daring act fired the imagination of the youth across India and he became popular.

Question 8.
What are the terms of the Poona Pact?
Answer:
An agreement arrived between Gandhiji and Ambedkar came to be known as ‘Poona pact’. It’s main terms were.

1. Principle of joint electorate was accepted with reservation of seats for the depressed classes.
2. Number of seats allotted has increased from 71 to 148.
3. In the central legislature 18% of the seats were reserved for the depressed classes.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Gandhi and Mass nationalism.
(a) Which incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi?
Answer:
On his journey from Durban to Pretoria, at the Pietermaritzburg railway station, he was physically thrown out of the first-class compartment in which he was travelling despite having a first class ticket. This incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi.

(b) Name the works that influenced Gandhi?
Answer:
Tolstoy’s The Kingdom of God is Within You, Ruskin’s Unto This Last and Thoreau’s Civil Disobedience.

(c) How did Gandhi use satyagraha as a strategy in South Africa?
Answer:
Gandhi developed satyagraha (truth-force) as a strategy, in which campaigners went on peaceful marches and presented themselves for arrest in protest against unjust laws.

(d) What do you know about the Champaran Satyagraha?
Answer:
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1916 was the first satyagraha movement inspired by Gandhi. It was a farmer’s uprising that took place in Champaran district of Bihar, India during the British colonial period.

Question 2.
Constructive Programme of Gandhi

(a) What is constructive programme?
Answer:
After the chauri chaura incident, Gandhiji felt that the volunteers and the people had to be trained for a non – violent struggle, and take up in hand the youth of the country and make them the real soldiers of Swaraj. This is the constructive programme, Gandhiji wanted to implement. More over he focussed on promoting khadhi, Hindu – Muslim unity and the abolition of untouchability.

(b) What did Gandhi exhort the Congressmen to do?
Answer:
He exhorted the congressmen to go throughout their districts and spread the message of Khaddar, Hindu – Muslim unity and anti – untouchability.

(c) How did Gandhi try to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity?
Answer:
Gandhiji undertook a 21 days fast in between 1924 to appeal to the hearts of the Hindus and Muslims involved in communal politics.

(d) What is the contribution of Gandhi towards abolition of untouchability?
Answer:
Gandhiji made his life’s mission to wipe out untouchability. He sought to abolish the pernicious custom of untouchability not the caste system. He undertook an all India tour called the Harijan (Children of God) Tour.

1. He started the “Harijan Sevak Sangh’ to work for the removal of discrimination.
2. He worked to promote education, cleanliness and hygiene and giving up of liquour among the depressed class.
3. He also undertook two fasts in 1933 for this cause.
4. An important part of his campaign was the ‘Temple Entry Movement”.
5. He took the message of Nationalism to the grass roots by his work among the depressed classes and tribals.

Question 3.
Subash Chandra Bose and INA

(a) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
Answer:
First he went to Germany, from there he made his way to Japan on a submarine and took control of the Indian National Army.

(b) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
Answer:
Lakshmi Sahgal headed the women wing of the Indian National Army.

(c) How did Subash Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
Answer:
Bose reorganised the INA into three brigade: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a women’s brigade named after Rani Lakshmi Bai.

(d) Name the slogan provided by Subash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
He gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Examine the factors that led to the transformation of Gandhi into a mass leader.
Answer:
The factors that led to the transformation of Gandhiji into a mass leader are given below:
(i) Mahatma Gandhi arrived in India in 1915 from South Africa after fighting for the civil rights of the Indians therefor about twenty years. He brought with him a new impulse to Indian politics.

(ii) He introduced a new instrument Satyagraha, which he had perfected in South Africa, that could be practiced by men and women, young and old. As a person dedicated to the cause of the poorest of the poor, he instantly gained the goodwill of the masses.

(iii) Unlike the constitutionalists who appealed to the British sense of justice and the militants who confronted the repression of the colonial state violently, Gandhiji adopted non-violent methods to mobilize the masses and mount pressure on the British.

(iv His Champaran Satyagraha of 1916 earned immense success. This followed by his fruitful intervention in the Ahmedabad mill strike and the Kheda Satyagraha in 1918. These factors helped Gandhiji establish as a leader of mass struggle.

(v) The people from across the country began to support him whole-heartedly. They found in him all the qualities of a mass leader. So, they loved him and were ready to do what he said. They showed immense faith in him because they were sure Gandhiji would bring freedom for them.

Question 2.
Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian movement,
Answer:

1. The congress session held in Lahore in December 1929 declared Pooma Swaraj-was declared as the goal,
2. Gandhi launched the civil Disobedience movement on 12th March 1930. Defying salt tax was a brilliant tactical’ decision taken by him.
3. It transformed civil disobedience movement into a mass movement drawing all sections of society including women to the streets.
4. To break the salt law he undertook a long March from Sabarmathi Ashram to Dandi covered nearly 24 miles in 24 days at the age 61.
5. He set out from Sabarmathi Ashram with 78 followers.
6. The procession became larger and larger when hundreds joined them along the March.
7. Gandhi reached Dandi on 5th April 1930.
8. He took a lump of salt breaking to salt law.
9. All over India many prominent leaders led the salt marches at different locations.
10. It was the biggest mass movement India had never witnessed.

Thus the Civil Disobedience Movement is a typical example of Gandhian Movement.

Question 3.
Discuss the reasons behind the partition of India.
Answer:
While the Indian National Congress was calling for Britain to quit India, in 1943, the Muslim League passed a resolution demanding the British to divide and quit. There were several reasons for the separate Muslim homeland in the sub-continent:
(i) As colonizers, the British had followed a divide-and-rule policy in India. In the census, they categorized people according to religion and viewed and treated them as separate from each other.

(ii) The British based their knowledge of the people of India on religious texts and the intrinsic differences they found in them, instead of examining how people of different religions coexisted.

(iii) As soon as the Muslim League was formed. Muslims were placed on a separate electorate.
Thus, the separateness of Muslims in India was built into the Indian electoral process,

(iv) There was also an ideological divide between the Muslims and the Hindus of India. While there were strong feelings of nationalism in India, by the late 19th century there were also communal conflicts and movements in the country that were based on religious identities rather than class or regional ones.

(v) Both Hindu Mahasabha and Muslim League claimed that the interests of the Hindus and Muslims were different and hostile to each other.

(vi) The British policy of divide and rule, through measures such as Partition of Bengal, Communal Award, had encouraged the vested interests out to exploit the religious differences.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to mark the important places of Gandhian Movement in a map and write a sentence or two about what happened there.

Answer:
Map: Indian National Movement (1900 – 1947)

1. Champaran: A Satyagraha campaign conducted against the oppression of the peasants by the Indigo planters.
2. Kheda: Gandhi helped to conduct kheda Satyagraha (1918) No – tax provincial struggle by the peasants ended successfully.
3. Jallianwala Bagh: Massacre of thousands of people. Nation wide Satyagraha and Vigourously Gandhi enter in to the Indian National Movement.
4. Chauri – Chaura: A preocession was conducted as a part of non – cooperation movement. Gandhi advised the participants not to indulge in violence. Violence brokeout Gandhi immediately suspended the movement.
5. Calcutta: In a special session the Indian National Congress approved the Non – cooperation movement worked to control Hindu Muslim conflict after the announcement of partition of India, (communal violence)
6. Nagpur: Non – Cooperation movement was adopted in the congress session chaired by Salem C. Vijayaraghawachariar.
7. Delhi: Gandhi gave his support or khilafat movement by Ali brothers for the cause of Hindu – Muslim unity.
8. Allahabad: Khilafat committee adopted Gandhi’s non – violence and non – cooperation programme.
9. Madras: Gandhi visited more than 20 times. During his Harijan Tour in Madurai he discard his following robes and wear a simple Dhoti.
10. Poona: Gandhi underwent fasting unconditionally against the separate electorates for the depressed classes, (a campaign against untouchability).
11. Sabarmathi Ashram: Gandhi set out from Sabarmathi Ashram with 78 followers as a part of Civil Disobedience movement undertook Salt March to defy the levy of tax on salt.
12. Lahore: In the All India Congress Session authorised Gandhi to launch the civil disobedience movement.
13. Dandi: Gandhi break the salt law by picking up salt from the coast at Dandi. (Dandi March)
14. Wardha: Undertook as the Headquarters of Satyagraha. All India villages Industries Association formed Idea of Quit India originated.
15. Bombay: Quit India Resolution was passed to end the British rule in India.

Question 2.
Students can be divided into groups and asked to debate the views of Gandhi, Jinnah, B.R. Ambedkar, Revolutionaries and Communists.
Answer:
(A debate for 5 to 7 minutes)
Step1: Class will be divided in to different groups representing the views of

1. Gandhi
2. Jinnah
3. B.R.Ambedkar
4. Revolutionaries
5. Communists.

Step 2: From each group one person will be asked to prepare the debate.

Step 3: Debate can be between Gandhi and Jinnah, Gandhi and Ambedkar. Revolutionaries and communists.

Step 4: The students can selects the Character of each (Revolutionary, communist) of their own choice.

Step 5 : The final conclusion on the debate will be compiled and declared by the students as audience.

Step 6: Concluding part can be given by the teacher concerned.

Revolutionaries: Bhaghat singh, Rajguru, Sukhdev, Subhas Chandra Bose, R.K.Dutt.

Communist: Singaravelar, S.A.Dange, P.G. Joshi events for debate points can be taken from Jinnah.

1. Boycott of Simon commission Nehru’s report and Jinnah’s response.
2. Resignation of Congress Ministries
3. Negotiating Independence Simla conference.
4. Cabinet mission
5. Direct Action day call
6. Partition of India.

Gandhi:

1. Rowlatt Satyagraha
2. Khilafat movement
3. Chauri chaura no- tax campaign
4. Constructive programme
5. Civil Disobedience movement
6. Dandi march, left movement in 1930’s
7. Partition of India
8. Campaign against untouchability

Ambedkar:

1. Communal award and poona pact
2. Campaign against untouchability

Revolutionaries: Revolutionary Activities
Communists: Left movement in 1930’s.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was born on:
(a) 30^th October 1896
(b) 26^th January 1869
(c) 2^nd October 1869
(d) 31^st December 1869
Answer:
(c) 2^nd October 1869

Question 2.
The language of the educated Indian was ……………
(a) French
(b) English
(c) Hindi
Answer:
(b) English

Question 3.
Gandhi’s experiences in London had not prepared him for:
(a) Injustice
(b) Satyagraha
(c) Services
(d) Racial discrimination
Answer:
(d) Racial discrimination

Question 4.
The Minto-Morley reforms introduced separate electorate for the …………..
(a) Hindus
(b) Muslims
(c) Sikhs
Answer:
(b) Muslims

Question 5.
After the outbreak of the ……………… Gandhi returned to India.
(a) First world war
(b) Russian revolution
(c) Anglo – Mysore war
(d) Second world war
Answer:
(a) First world war

Question 6.
Bengal was partitioned in ……………….
(a) 1917
(b) 1912
(c) 1905
Answer:
(c) 1905

Question 7.
The real power was not transferred to the Indians as promised by ……………… 1919.
(a) tinkathiya system
(b) Government of India Act
(c) Dyarchy system
(d) Indian council act
Answer:
(b) Government of India Act

Question 8.
Bengal was partitioned by …………..
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Litton
(c) Lord Curzon
Answer:
(c) Lord Curzon

Question 9
………………… incident made Gandhi to withdraw the no – tax campaign Non – co-operation movement at once.
(a) Bardoli
(b) Champaran
(c) Chauri – chaura
(d) Kheda
Answer:
(c) Chauri – chaura

Question 10.
Home Rule League in Chennai was started by …………..
(a) Tilak
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Nehru
Answer:
(b) Annie Besant

Question 11.
Swarajya party was formed by ………………… and motilal Nehru in 1923.
(a) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(b) C. R. Das
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) C. Rajaji
Answer:
(b) C. R. Das

Question 12.
Dyarchy was introduced by ………….
(a) Montague Chelmsford Reforms Act
(b) The Charter Act of 1833
(c) 1878 – The Indians Arms Act
Answer:
(a) Montague Chelmsford Reforms Act

Question 13.
The Indian Forest Act of ………………… claimed the original ownership of forests was with the state.
(a) 1878
(b) 1865
(c) 1927
(d) 1972
Answer:
(a) 1878

Question 14.
Gandhiji advocated a new technique in our freedom struggle …………….
(a) Satyagraha
(b) Long march
(c) Violence
Answer:
(a) Satyagraha

Question 15.
Gandhi called the proposals of ………………… as a post dated cheque on a crashing bank.
(a) Simon commission
(b) Cripps mission
(c) Cabinet mission
(d) Mount Batten plan
Answer:
(b) Cripps mission

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The interim Government was headed by :
2. ……………….. was sent as viceroy of India with the specific task of transfer of power.
3. ……………….. joined the interim Government with some hesitation.
4. The mount batten plan was given effect by the enactment of ……………….. by the British parliament.
5. ……………….. declared 16th August 1946 as the Direct Action Day.
6. The worst affected district in Bengal was ……………….. by communal riots in 1946.
7. The Muslim League representative ……………….. was made as the Finance Minister in the Interim Government cabinet.
8. According to the mount batten plan boundary commission was set up under ………………..
9. Prime Minister of Britain ……………….. wanted to transfer power at the earliest.
10. The British surrender in South East Asia to the ……………….. was a big blow to imperial prestige.
11. The/British Government arrested the INA officers and put them on trial in the ………………..
12. ……………….. formed the provisional Government of free India at Singapore.
13. Azad Hindu Faug was organized by ……………….. with Indian prisoners of war with the support of Japanese in Malaya and Burma.
14. The Slogan of Quit India Movement given by Gandhiji was ………………..
15. ……………….. was the first individual to offer Satyagraha when Gandhi declared limited Satyagraha by individuals.
16. The party ……………….. was started by Subhash Chandra Bose after resigned from congress as president.
17. In the elections for the provinces in 1937 congress won in ……………….. provinces out of eleven.
18. Assam valley Muslim party was led by ……………….. with whom congress formed coalition Government.
19. By the Government of India Act of 1935 ……………….. was separated from India.
20. In the year ……………….. the ban on the communist party was lifted.
21. In 1934 ……………….. was formed by Jaya Prakash Narayan.
22. The sudden withdrawal of ……………….. by Gandhi took to violence.
23. The communist party established the party in 1928.
24. Gandhi started the to work for the removal of discrimination of Harijans.
25. The communists used their party as a platform to expose the ………………..
26. ……………….. and ……………….. were the leaders of the depressed classes.
27. The British Prime Minister ……………….. proposed a federal Government with provincial autonomy.
28. ……………….. was the forest area where the police forest and revenue officials harassed the Rampa tribals.
29. ……………….. organised the Rampa tribals to fight for their rights.
30. A special ……………….. team was sent to quell the uprisings of Rampa Adivasis in 1922-24.
31. The soldiers of ……………….. regiment refused to fire on unarmed Satyagraha.
32. For defying the salt tax and breaking the salt law Gandhi was arrested at mid night and sent to ……………….. jail.
33. The ……………….. event united the different political parties in India.
34. As a part of constructive programme Gandhi focussed on promoting ……………….. and made it compulsory for congress man to wear khaddar.
35. The prochangers of congress used the ……………….. as a platform for propagation of ………………..

Answers:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Lord Mount batten
3. The Muslim League
4. Indian Independence Act
5. Jinnah
6. Noakhali
7. Liaqut Ali Khan
8. RadclifFe brown
9. Clement Atlee
10. Japanese
11. Redfort
12. Subhas Chandra Bose
13. General Mohan Singh
14. Do or Die in the attempt of free India
15. Vinobha Bhave
16. Forward Bloc
17. seven
18. Sir Muhammad Sadullah
19. Burma
20. 1942
21. Congress Socialist Party
22. Non – cooperation movement
23. All India Worker’s and Peasants
24. Harijan Sevak Sangh
25. True colour British rule in India
26. B.R.Ambedkar and M.C Rajah
27. Ramsay Macdonald
28. Many am
29. Alluri Sitarama Raju
30. Malabar police
31. Gharwali
32. Yeravada
33. Simon boycott
34. khadi
35. Legislature, nationalist idea

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Prochangers refused to take charge of transferred subjects.
(ii) They did not want to cooperate with the Government.
(iii) They were the staunch followers of Gandhi.
(iv) Some of the Swaraj party members began to accept Government jobs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i),(ii), and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i),(ii), and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) In February 1922 Gandhi announced a non – tax campaign in Bengal.
(ii) The nationalist procession at chauri -chaura was provoked by policemen.
(iii) The young leaders of congress thought that the non – cooperation movement was gaining momentum.
(iv) Gandhi continued to conduct the movement at chauri – chaura.
(a) (i) md (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Public meeting was organised at Jailianwala bagh on Baisaki day.
(ii) The only entrance to the park was opened.
(iii) Martial law was imposed in Amritsar after the incident.
(iv) Leaders renounced their titles and honours.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): India became independent on 15th August 1947.
Reason (R): The British parliament passed Indian Independence Act abolishing the sovereignity of British rule over India.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Cabinet mission suggested a Federal Government and the provinces were divided in to three major groups.
Reason (R): Transfer of power, to elect a constituent Assembly and an Interim Government with representation from ail communities.
(a) A is correct R is wrong.
(b) R is correct A is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The British hegemonic control ceased even in the armed forces.
Reason (R): All the political leaders were released and the ban on congress was lifted.
(a) Both A and R is wrong
(b) A is correct R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct R is not the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the colum I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

IV. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
What were the aims of Indian National Congress?
Answer:

1. Greater representation and expansion of legislative councils.
2. More facilities for the spread of education.
3. Freedom of press
4. Holding of India Civil Service Examination in India
5. Reduction of military expenditure
6. Taxation should be made lighter.
7. More Indians should be employed on higher posts.
8. Indian council at London should be abolished

Question 2.
What made Gandhi to fight for the rights of the Indians in south Africa?
Answer:

1. Gandhi was thrown out of the first class compartment physically on his journey from the Durban to Pretoria, at pietermaritzburg railway station in April 1893.
2. Gandhi faced racial discrimination and understood Indians were treated only as coolies.
3. He called a meeting of the Indians in Transvaal to form an association to seek redress of their grievances.
4. He petitioned to the authorities about the injustices in violation of their own laws.
5. Indians had to pay poll tax except in areas marked for them.
6. Without permit they could not allowed outdoor after 9 pm.
7. These unjust laws made him to fought for the rights of Indians in South Africa.

Question 3.
Mention the importance of Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress
Answer:

1. The moderates and the extremists joined together.
2. The Congress and the Muslim League signed a pact agreeing to co-operate with earn “her in order to achieve self government.
3. It was at this session Jawaharlal Nehru met Gandhiji for the first time.

Question 4.
What were the programmes included in non – cooperation?
Answer:
The non – cooperation included the following programme.

1. Surrender of all titles of honours and honorary offices.
2. Non – participation in Government functions.
3. Boycott of Government schools, colleges legislature, foreign goods.
4. Spreading the doctrine of Swadeshi.
5. Suspension of practice by lawyers and settlement of court disputes by private arbitration.
6. Refusal to accept any civil or military port.
7. Non – participation in Government parties and after official functions.

Question 5.
What were the aims of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Aims of Muslim league:

• To protect the rights of the Muslims.
• To remain loyal to the British Government
• To make a demand for a separate electorate

Question 6.
What were the provisions of Gandhi – Irwin pact?
Answer:
Provisions of Gandhi – Irwin pact:
Gandhi – Irwin pact was signed on 5th March 1931. According to this.

1. The British agreed to the demand of all political prisoners not involved in violence.
2. Return of confiscated land and lenient treatment of Government employees who had resigned.
3. It also permitted the people of coastal villages to make salt for consumption and non – violent picking.
4. To suspend the Civil Disobedience movement and attend the second round-table conference.

Question 7.
What were the changes introduced by the Government of India Act of 1935?
Answer:

1. It introduced provincial autonomy.
2. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces.
3. It established federal government at the centre.
4. It provided for the establishment of a federal court to decide the conflicts between the provinces and the centre.
5. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Reserve Bank.

VI. Answer all the question given under each caption

Question 1.
Mount Batten Plan

(a) Who was sent as viceroy to India with what task?
Answer:
Mount batten was sent as viceroy to India with the specific task of transfer of power.

(b) When was Mount batten plan announced?
Answer:
Mount batten plan was announced on 3rd June 1947.

(c) On what basis it was planned to transfer power?
Answer:
It was planned to transfer power on the basis of dominion status to India and Pakistan.

(d) What was set up under Raddiffe Brown?
Answer:
Boundary commission was set up under Radcliffe Brown.

Question 2.
The Indian National Congress

(a) When was the Indian National Congress founded?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885.

(b) On whose advice was it founded?
Answer:
It was founded on the advice of a retired British Civil Servant Allan Octavian Hume.

(c) Where was the first session of the congress held? Who was the chairperson?
Answer:

• The first session of the congress was held at Bombay.
• W. C. Bannerjee was the chairperson.

(d) Name some of the leaders who attended the first session of the congress.
Answer:

• G. Subramaniam
• Dadabai Naoroji
• Surrendranath Banerjee
• Madan Mohan
• M.G. Ranad
• Gopala Krishna Gokhale

Question 3.
Cabinet Mission

(a) Who sent a Cabinet Mission to India?
Answer:
The British Prime Minister Clement Atlee – (labour party) sent a Cabinet Mission to India.

(b) Who were the members of the Cabinet Mission?
Answer:
Cabinet Mission comprised pethick lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A.V Alexander.

(c) What did the mission reject?
Answer:
The Cabinet mission rejected the demand for Pakistan.

(d) What was the suggested given for transfer of power?
Answer:
It suggested to elect a Constituent Assembly and an Interim Government to be set up with representation for all the communities.

Question 4.
Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
(a) Who were the prominent leaders Arrested?
Answer:
Dr. Satyapal, and Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew were arrested.

(b) Where did the people gather?
Answer:
The people gathered in Jallianwala Bagh at Amritsar in Punjab.

(c) Who was the British military commander of Amirtsar?
Answer:
General Dyer was the British military commander of Amirtsar.

(d) What did Rabindranath Tagore do?
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood.

Question 5.
Congress Ministries and Their Work (1937)

(a) What was the announcement made by the Government of India Act of 1935?
Answer:
The implementation of Government of India Act 1935 announced the elections in 1937.

(b) Who was benefited immensely? How?
Answer:
The congress was benefitted because of the Civil Disobedience movement.

(c) What was the response of congress?
Answer:
The congress called off its programme of boycott of legislature and contested election.

(d) Name some of the measures taken by the congress after forming ministry.
Answer:
Congress ministries responded to the needs of the people. Legislative measures were adopted for reducing the indebtedness of the peasantry and improving the working conditions of the industrial labour.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the Partition of Bengal.
Answer:

1. Bengal was partitioned by Curzon in 1905.
2. Bengal was partitioned into two parts as East Bengal and West Bengal.
3. Curzon made a statement that the partition was purely on administrative grounds.
4. But the people of India thought that it was to break the unity of the people and to divide the Muslims from the Hindus.
5. The partition angered both the moderates and the extremists.
6. They called it as an introduction of the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ and agitated against it.
7. Due to violent criticism and agitation, the partition was revoked in 1911.
8. It paved the way for the birth of the Swadeshi movement, an economic boycott.

Question 2.
What were the movement led by Gandhi towards the struggle for freedom.
Answer:
Gandhi’s Principles was based on Truth and Non – violence.

1. He organised the movements adopting the technique of Satyagraha.
2. A true Satyagraha will have strong determination and won’t giveup his protest in Ahimsa way and ready to sacrifice his life.
3. Three important movements were led by Gandhiji.
4. Non – cooperation movement
5. Civil Disobedience movement
6. Quit India Movement

Non – Cooperation Movement:
Resolution was passed in the Calcutta session of Indian National Congress on September 1920.

No – tax campaign and boycott of foreign goods and institutions were effective.

1. At Bardoli in 1922 Gandhi announced no – tax campaign. He made nation – wide tour.
2. Thousands joined the movement left their Government jobs. Trade unions and workers actively participated.
3. Peasants enhanced Gandhi as a national leader.
4. A mass procession was conducted by the peasants at Chauri chaura a village near Gorakhpur (Uttarpradesh) provoked by the police turned in to violence, burnt police station killing 22 policemen.
5. Gandhi was upset and suspended non – cooperation movement and abstain himself from the activities of congress for two years.

Civil Disobedience Movement:

Pooma Swaraj was declared by Nehru at Lahore session of congress in 1930.

1. 26^th January 1930 was declared as Independence day and pledge was taken to attain Pooma Swaraj Non – violently through Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. The Indian National Congress authorised Gandhi to launch the movement.
3. A charter of demands presented to the viceroy Lord Irwin comply by 31 January 1930, One of the demand was Abolition of Salt tax.
4. The viceroy did not respond to the demands Gandhi launched the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement”.
5. The inclusion of abolition of salt tax was an tactful brilliant decision.
6. Tax on salt affected every section of the society.
7. With 78 of his followers Gandhi left Sabarmathi Ashram on 12th March 1930 to Dandi a coastal town to defy salt law.
8. Hundreds of people joined the procession .
9. At the age of 61 Gandhi covered a distance of 241 miles by foot to reach Dandi in 24 days.
10. Reached Dandi on 5th April 1930 at sunset.
11. Gandhi took handful of salt from the coast thus breaking the salt law.
12. This March was famously known as Dandi March. Gandhi was arrested.

Quit India Movement:

1. The all India congress committee met at Bombay on 8th April 1942 passed famous ‘Quit India Resolution’
2. Main reason regarding: transfer of power to Indians failure of cripps mission war* time shortages, price rise,

Gandhi gave a call “Do (or) Die”.

Gandhi said ‘‘We shalTeither .free India or die in the cause attempt: We shall not live to see the perpetuation of our slavery?’.

“Gandhi and other congress leaders were arrested”.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 5 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 5

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He failed to muster up courage to take that plunge.
(a) dust
(b) gather
(c) strength
(d) marvel
Answer:
(b) gather

Question 2.
‘What’s that?’ snapped Joe.
(a) retorted
(b) smiled
(c) mocked
(d) photographed
Answer:
(a) retorted

Question 3.
Aditya’s ancestors were once the zamindars.
(a) aunties
(b) elders
(c) lineages
(d) destroyers
Answer:
(c) lineages

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
So my contention was to go by the rules of circumnavigation.
(a) disagreement
(b) agreement
(c) dispute
(d) deputation
Answer:
(b) agreement

Question 5.
Your refrigerator can directly link to the ecommerce site.
(a) indirectly
(b) unswervingly
(c) openly
(d) strightly
Answer:
(a) indirectly

Question 6.
The birds were chirping in the open field back of the saw mill.
(a) enrolled
(b) built-up
(c) enclosed
(d) vulnerable
Answer:
(c) enclosed

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘loss’.
(a) losses
(b) lossess
(c) loses
(d) loss
Answer:
(d) loss

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘half-year ’.
(a) ion
(b) ly
(c) ness
(d) ment
Answer:
(b) ly

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation IVP.
(a) Intravenous Push
(b) Intravenous Pyelogram
(c) International Vehicular Person
(d) Intelligence via Penalty
Answer:
(b) Intravenous Pyelogram

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
Teena could not ………….. the meaning of ‘Palindrome’.
(a) make up
(b) make out
(c) make over
(d) make off
Answer:
(b) make out

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘dining’ to form a compound word.
(a) out
(b) in
(c) room
(d) door
Answer:
(c) room

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The wind rushed ……………… his breast feathers.
(a) on
(b) in
(c) with
(d) against
Answer:
(d) against

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
We ……………. Elagiri last summer.
(a) visit
(b) visited
(c) will visit
(d) had visited
Answer:
(b) visited

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
A leader died and ………… the match was postponed.
(a) so
(b) while
(c) but
(d) when
Answer:
(a) so

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
What devices help David to move from one place to another?
Answer:
David moves from one place to another in his electric chair with head switches. He uses ECO point Eye Gaze system to communicate and access the computer. He also checks Chelsea football team’s performance.

Question 16.
What did Holmes ask Watson to do before leaving his room?
Answer:
Holmes instructed Dr. Watson to keep all half-crowns in his watch pocket and the rest of the coins in his trouser pocket. He must light the gas lamp, but it must be half on only. He must place some letters and paper on his table within his reach. He should place the ivory box on the table. Slide the lid a bit with tongs and place the tongs also on the table.

Question 17.
When did the crew witness the brilliant southern lights from the sea? How did the sky appear there?
Answer:
When the crew was crossing the Tasman Sea, they witnessed the brilliant Southern Lights from sea. It was rare to watch that in those months, that too from sea. The entire sky was lit up in green light. There was bioluminescence, dolphins swimming in the wake of the boat like our neighbours and a variety of sea creatures.

Question 18.
What did Sanyal tell about Aditya Narayan Chowdury?
Answer:
Sanyal said that Aditya Narayan Chowdhury was the spoilt child of affluent parents. He was a fairly good student but could never beat him in studies. He also said that he was extremely jealous of him and used to tell lies.

Section – II

Read the following poetic lines and answer any THREE questions given below. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Not hurrying to, nor turning front the goal;
Not mourning for the things that disappear”

(a) Why do you think the poet is not in a hurry?
Answer:
The poet does not want to do anything in haste as he is determined to work towards reaching his goal.

(b) What should one not mourn for?
Answer:
One should not mourn for the things that disappear.

Question 20.
“Nothing goes right with the folks you meet Down on that gloomy Complaining Street. ”

(a) What is the opinion about the folks you meet down the street?
Answer:
The folks you meet down the street are always in trouble and are complaining.

(b) What does the word ‘gloomy’ mean here?
Answer:
Here‘gloomy’means‘depressing’.

Question 21.
“Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.”

(a) What is found beneath all uniforms?
Answer:
Though the outward appearance of people may change because of the difference in their attire, there is an inherent similarity between all human beings. All people live and breathe in a similar fashion. Militaries in the world may don different uniforms but they comprise of human beings who essentially are the same anywhere in the world.

(b) What is same for every one of us?
Answer:
When we die, we all shall meet this same earth in the end where we shall be buried in it the same way.

Question 22.
“I drive past the house almost every day.
The house seems to be a bit brighter.
On this warm summer day in May.
It plays with your mind.”

(а) What plays with your mind?
Answer:
The thought about the house plays with your mind.

(b) How often does the poetess see this house?
Answer:
The poetess sees this house almost every day.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
Somebody stole my new mobile phone.
My new mobile phone was stolen by someone.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:
Rohit asked me, ‘Did you see the cricket match on TV last night?’
Rohit asked me if I had seen the cricket match on TV the previous night.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Calm down dear Im leaving for my clinic now
Answer:
‘Calm down , dear. I’m leaving for my clinic now.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
His father is poor but he is a contended man.
Answer:
His father in spite of being poor is a contended man.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) the theme/ youtube/ this/ recording/ He is/ for promoting/ a new song/ on/ weekend.
(b) do/1/ not/ Mondays/ like/ especially/ it/ when/ is/ second/ after/ Saturday.
Answer:
(a) He is recording a new song this weekend for promoting the theme on youtube. .
(b) I do not like Mondays especially when it is after second Saturday.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
You need to meet your friend at Shansi Chinese restaurant. Help the stranger to reach his/her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the steps.
Answer:

• Go straight on Sadasivam street and take the right on R.S.K Salai.
• Proceed further and take the second left on C.V. Road which takes a natural turn to the right.
• You will find Shansi Restaurant on the right side.

PART – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section -I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
“Order from Berlin aroused a particular zeal in the school.” Comment.
Answer:
The order from Berlin brought a sense of shock and surprise in the class. They were all dumbstruck. As per the order, this was the last French class. Alsace and Lorraine had been captured by the Prussians. So only German was to be taught in the schools. Hamel had to leave the next day. Now they all felt passionate about their mother tongue. All the eminent village elders felt guilty for neglecting their mother tongue.

Now they came to the class and showed their love and respect for their mother tongue. They were in awe for their French teacher M. Hamel. The entire school was filled with an air of repentance and guilt. There was complete quietness. The teacher, M. Hamel, was dressed at his best and was full of emotions. Even the students in the class, including little Franz, felt remorse for their indifference to their mother tongue. There was an atmosphere of stillness and quietness in the class.
“Education prepares you for the future.”

Question 30.
Describe the struggles underwent by the young seagull to overcome its fear of flying.
Answer:
The Young Seagull was afraid to fly and was alone on his ledge. He was more frightened than his siblings. His attempts failed. He had taken a little run forward and tried to flap his wings. But that was all he could do. He felt that his wings would not support him. He failed to muster up the courage and fly. His parents taunted, scolded and threatened him to leave him starving at the ledge unless he flew away. But nothing could make him fly. The seagull helplessly watched his parents flying with his brothers and sisters. The whole family went on taunting him for his cowardice.

Only his mother was looking at him. She had picked a piece of fish and was flying across to him with it. He leaned out eagerly. The mother was very near to him with the fish in her beak. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream, he fell outwards and downwards into space. A terror seized him. His heart stood still. His mother swooped past him. He answered her with another scream. He saw his two brothers and sister flying around him.

The seagull completely forgot that he was not able to fly. He let himself free to dive, soar and curve at will. He was shrieking shrilly. He saw a green sea beneath him. He was tired and weak with hunger. His feet sank into the green sea and his belly touched it. He sank no farther. Now, his family was praising him and their beaks were offering him scraps of fish. He had made his first flight.
“Flying is learning how to throw yourself to the ground and miss”

Question 31.
Describe the challenge they faced with the weather condition.
Answer:
One day they were hit by a storm – it was scary to see very high waves, around 9-10 metres high surging the boat at a wind speed of 60 to 70 knots. Though they were prepared for the storm, it was quite challenging. Mountainous waves were surging from behind, pushing them forward. They were in the South Pacific. Luckily, they were sailing downwind. They took turns in steering the boat. When three of them were doing the watch at a time the other three rested.

It was so cold that it was difficult to stand outside for more than an hour. They watched enormous waves break over the top of the boat and sweep across the deck. One can imagine that a blast of saltwater soaking them completely. Sometimes the water would have gushed inside their living space, soaking all their clothes in sea water. The place would have been a mess.
“Accept the challenges so that you can feel the exhilaration of victory.”

Question 32.
What is the theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber?
Answer:
The theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber is surely of a supernatural kind. This story asks readers to accept the existence of the ghost mentioned in the title as a believable one. Many a time, ghost stories offer readers a sign for a common explanation for the events that the characters themselves trust are triggered by the bizarre scenario.

Although it seems very unlikely that a real ghost would have generated a commotion in the house, Thurber gives readers distressing indication that the sounds that he heard were undeniably supernatural.

For example, the police thoroughly investigate the house and say that all the doors and windows are locked from inside and nothing in the house is said to have been taken by burglars. The father and brother Roy, who are at first expected do have come home from Indianapolis early, do not feature in the play and are just characters mentioned during conversations.
“The human mind delights in grand conceptions of supernatural beings.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
From the poem, ‘The Grumble Family’ what kind of behaviour does the poet want the readers to possess?
Answer:
L.M. Montgomery, from the poem, ‘The Grumble Family’ wants the readers to possess optimistic behaviour. The poet wants us to focus on the bright side of life and avoid the negativity around us, She wants us to learn to appreciate the beauty around us and avoid criticism. The poetess wants us to always try our best to be an optimist who sees the good and not the bad. Hence, she opines that it is wise to keep our feet from roaming into the Complaining Street and never growl at anything we do even if we are mistaken to be a complainer. Therefore, the poetess wants us to learn to walk with a smile and a song even when things go against our likes.
“A complainer is just an explainer of problems.”

Question 34.
Describe in your own words how the poem, The Secret of the Machines’ by Rudyard Kipling has an importance to current life.
Answer:
This poem written at the beginning of the twentieth century is about Industrialization. The poet starts by describing how the machines are created, wrought and taken from the ore-bed and mines. The only requirement for the machines is water, coal and oil. Further, Kipling enumerates the various skills of machines, such as pulling, carrying, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, weaving, heating, lighting, running, racing, swimming, flying, diving, seeing, hearing, counting, reading and writing. Machines do exactly as it is programmed.

These machines have no feelings and any wrong handling can be dangerous for they are just machines with power invented by humans. The first intention of the poem reveals the progress of machines which is indeed a good thing for mankind. They make many things easier and facilitate the work of the humans.

The second purpose is to express that a machine can never replace a human-being, because a machine is devoid of feelings being the child of human brain. Hence man has full control over it, dependent on humans. By choosing the headline, “The secret of the machines” the poet wants to simplify that machines also have secret flaws where they don’t possess feelings nor identify a lie.

Any slip in handling it means instant death. At the time of mechanization, people gave importance to machines. So Rudyard Kipling wanted to make known the advantages and disadvantages of machines. I have come to the conclusion that the poem by Rudyard Kipling still has a current importance today and that for all advantages there are also disadvantages while using machines. “Industrialisation based on machinery, is a revolution wrought by technology.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“Strong is she in her faith and beliefs.
‘Persistence is the key to everything,’says she.
Despite the sighs and groans and moans She’s strong in her faith, firm in her belief!”
(i) What kind of a faith and belief does the woman portray?
(if) Mention the poetic device employed in the third line.
(iii) Write the rhyme scheme of this stanza.
(iv) Identify the figure of speech employed in the fourth line of the given stanza.
Answer:
(i) The woman portrays a strong faith and firm belief.
(ii) The poetic device employed in the third line is assonance.
(iii) The rhyme scheme of this stanza is ‘abca’.
(iv) Alliteration is the figure of speech in the fourth line of the given stanza.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
A silly young cricket, accustomed to sing
Through the warm, sunny months of gay summer and spring,
Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.
Answer:
There was a cricket who loved singing. The poet says the cricket was young and silly because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world. But when winter arrived, he began to complain. He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread was there to eat.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) After that last battle, no one cared anymore that Mulan was a woman.
(ii) He wanted Mulan, to stay with him in the palace and be his fine royal adviser.
(iii) The battle was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last.
(iv) The Emperor was so glad that Mulan had ended the long war.
(v) The war was over, and China was saved!
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (i), (iv), (ii)
(iii) The battle was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last.
(v) The war was over, and China was saved!
(i) After that last battle, no one cared anymore that Mulan was a woman.
(iv) The Emperor was so glad that Mulan had ended the long war.
(ii) He wanted Mulan, to stay with him in the palace and be his fine royal adviser.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow’.
Worst of all, my salary was reduced, and I saw that marriage was out of the question. In my despair I consulted Professor Clinch about my dilemma, and as to some safe way of getting at the rubies. He said that, if my uncle had not lied, there was none that would not ruin the stones, especially the pearls, but that it was a silly tale and altogether incredible.

I offered him the biggest ruby if he wished to test his opinion. He did not desire to do so. Dr. Schaff, my uncle’s doctor, believed the old man’s letter, and added a caution, which was entirely useless, for by this time I was afraid to be in the room with that terrible box. At last the doctor kindly warned me that I was in danger of losing my mind with too much thought about my rubies. In fact, I did nothing else but contrive wild plans to get at them safely. I spent all my spare hours at one of the great libraries reading about dynamite.

Question.
(i) Why was the marriage not possible?
(ii) Who did he contact in his despair?
(iii) What was the offer made to Professor Clinch?
(iv) Who was Dr. Schaff?
(v) What did he do at one of the greatest libraries?
Answer:
(i) The marriage wasn’t possible as his salary was reduced.
(ii) He contacted Professor Clinch about his dilemma.
(iii) He offered the biggest Ruby to Professor Clinch.
(iv) Dr. Schaff was uncle’s doctor.
(v) He spent all his spare hours in the greatest libraries.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
You are Sneha/Gopinath of Vivekananda School. Recently you had the honour of having participated as the contingent leader of your school team in the Republic Day parade in Delhi, in which your school was adjudged the best participating team. Write a report in about 100-150 words about the memorable event for publication in your school magazine.
Answer:
Republic Day Honours
[by Sneha/Gopinath, X S]
This year’s Republic Day will ever be cherished as a red letter day by Vivekananda school. On this historic occasion our school team had the good fortune to participate in the Republic Day parade at Vijay Chowk in New Delhi. More than fifty teams representing different parts of India displayed their varied, colourful and romantic items of songs, dances and aerobics.

Their feats made people glued to their feet. The enthusiasm and cheerfulness of the participants was beyond description. The celebrations were also a test of performance of the participating teams. When the name of our school was announced as the best participating team, I felt overjoyed. For a moment, disbelief overpowered me. Then I as contingent leader went forward to receive the shield. I dedicated this award to our Principal and the Physical Instructor who had provided us such an excellent training.

Question 40.
You are Nirmal/Nirmala, a student of Government High School, Dharmapuri. Write an application to the Principal of your school requesting him to allow you full fee concession.
Answer:
Nirmal/Nirmala
VIII-A
Government High School Dharmapuri 14th April, 2020 The Principal
Government High School
Dharmapuri
Sir
Sub: Requesting for full fee concession
Most humbly I beg to say that I am not able to pay my monthly fee to the school. I am a student of class VIII. My father is a clerk in a private firm. His salary is too meagre to support a family of five. Two of my sisters are also studying in school. I am not in a position to pay my monthly fees. This is for your kind information that I have been a good student throughout. I am also in the school hockey team. Therefore, I request you to kindly consider my case and grant me full fee concession. Only then I will be able to continue my studies. I assure you that I will give you good results. I want to study, so please support me.
Thanking you
Yours obediently
Nirmal/Nirmala
Class VIII-A

Address on the envelope
To
The Principal
Government High School
Dharmapuri

Question 41.
As librarian of Unity Public School, Chennai, draft a notice in not more than 50 words asking all students and teachers to return the library books they have borrowed, two days before the commencement of the examination.
Answer:
Unity Public School, Chennai
Notice
Return the Library Books Before Exam
20th Feb., 20XX
The annual examinations for the class VIII will start on 3rd March. So all students and teachers are advised to return the library books that they borrowed to the undersigned latest by the 1st March.
Ranjan
Librarian

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
A mother and daughter relationship is something very special. This picture portrays a mother and daughter spending their free time together. The daughter has asked her mother to prepare a special dish. She has the recipe book with her. She explains the procedure for baking some nice biscuits. Her mother joyfully does it for her. Both of them are enjoying their time together. The daughter relishes the smell of the cookie that is going to be baked.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
The epidemic of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical fraternity. To contain and control the increasing death and disability from heart attacks and to focus on public awareness and their involvement at global level, the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the World Heart Federation observed September 24th as the World Heart Day.

What causes heart attacks? Dr H.S. Wasir, Chief Cardiologist and Medical Director, Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre lists four main habits which adversely affect the heart health. These are lack of physical exercise, wrong eating habits, cigarette smoking and excessive alcohol consumption, and stressful lifestyle. The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be underestimated. “Physical exercise,” says Dr. Wasir, “plays a major role in achieving a long and healthy life in general and prevention of heart attacks in particular.” There are several studies showing that physically active people have higher longevity than those sedentary or physically inactive.
Notes
Title: Having a Healthy Heart

1. World Heart Day: 24 September.
(a) to control death & disability
(b) to increase awareness

2. Causes of Heart Attacks
(a) lack of physical exercise
(b) wrong eating habits
(c) smoking & alcohol
(d) stressful lifestyle

3. Role of Physical Exercise.
(a) prevents heart attacks—longer life
(b) isotonic-beneficial; isometric—harmful
(c) walking: best exercise

• 30 to 60 meters brisk walk
• no equipment, money, material or membership of club
• early morning: ideal for walking.

4. Consult cardiologist before beginning an exercise programme.

Summary

Title: Having a Healthy Heart
Rough Draft
In regent times, heart attack is an epidemic disease that causes grave concern to the medical fratemity . To have control on increasing death and disability due to heart attacks, the World Health Organisation (W.H.O) and World Heart Federation has observed September 24th as the World Heart Day to focus on public awareness. Dr H.S. Wasir, Chief Cardiologist and Medical Director, Batra Hospital and Medical ReseatchCentre lists four main habits which adversely affect the heart health. These are lack of physical exeicise, wrong eating habits, cigarette smoking and excessive alcohol consumption, and stressful lifestyle . The effects of heart attack can be reduced to greater extent with the help of regular exercise like walking.

Fair Draft:
Title: Having a Healthy Heart
In recent times, heart attack is an epidemic disease that causes grave concern to the medical fraternity. To have control on increasing death and disability due to heart attacks, the World Health Organisation (W.H.O) and World Heart Federation has observed September 24th as the World Heart Day to focus on public awareness.

According to health experts, there are four main habits that cause heart attack, these are lack of physical exercise, wrong eating habits, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption and stressful lifestyle. The effects of heart attack can be reduced to greater extent with the help of regular exercise like walking. No. of words in the summary: 100

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) It is high time that we leaved this place.
(b) If I had known it, I will have helped him.
(c) I saw two females.
(d) One of the boys have a car.
(e) Riya persisted to do it in spite of my advice.
Answer:
(a) It is high time that we left this place.
(b) If I had known it, I would have helped him.
(c) I saw two women.
(d) One of the boys has a car.
(e) Riya persisted in doing it in spite of my advice.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Remember, we …………. countries strange.
Answer:
Remember, we who take arms against each other
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.

Part-IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
(a) Peter – cakes – his blind friend – dikes – people of Holland – keep the walls strong – safe and dry children know the danger – Peter’s father – mother’s errand – happy to see his friend sun was setting sound of trickling water – the danger realised – thrust his finger – tiny hole – nature protected – eyes closed – not asleep – the brave little hero of Holland.
Answer:
Peter is a little boy who lived in Holland. His father took care of the dikes called sluices so that ships could pass out of Holland’s canals into the sea. On a beautiful day in Autumn, Peter was asked to go and give cakes to his blind friend who lived on the other side of the dike by his mother.

After about an hour he returned home, but the climate had changed. It was raining and the water in the channel was rising. All of a sudden he heard the sound of dribbling water and he wondered from where the sound came, He then saw a small hole in the dike. He knew what that meant and due to the pressure of the water the hole would not stay the same. He feared danger. He climbed onto the dike and put his finger in the hole and hoped for someone to come to his help and cried out aloud. His mother mistook him to have stayed back with his blind friend and retired to bed.

The boy was sure that he had to stay awake the entire night and keep his finger in the hole to arrest the water from flooding Holland. The water in the canal was rising and if he would remove his finger from the hole in the sluice, the water would gush through and make the hole bigger and bigger. The town would obviously flood. When dawn broke, a man going to work heard the sound of Peter groaning and wondered what the little boy was up to. He was shocked at his reply but understood the danger and called for help. People came in with shovel and mended the hole. Peter was carried home and they all hailed him as the brave boy who saved Holland from drowning.

[OR]

(b) Describe the entry of ZigZag and his behaviour thereafter as soon as he entered the residence of Krishnan by developing the given hints.
Krishnan’s residence – tottered ZigZag – Somu’s cook, Visu – tall -crown of shocking pink feathers – plumage – beak – eyes – Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga – talks f rench Poetry – human grumpiness – Arvind’s effort – Bored eyes brightened – picked a walnut – wrinkled eyelid solemn wink – flew clumsily – chandelier fruit transferred – ceiling fan – Visu left – Zigzag slept.
Answer:
Into Krishnan’s residence tottered the strangest, weirdest-looking bird, ZigZag. He was brought in by Somu’s cook, Visu. About a foot and a half tall, its bald head was fringed with a crown of shocking pink feathers while the rest of its plumage was in various shades of the muddiest and sludgiest brown. Its curved beak was sunflower-yellow and its eyes were the colour of cola held to sunlight. Visu introduced ZigZag as Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga and that he talks very beautifully.

He even added that he could recite French Poetry! In spite of all the praise showered on him, he stood cool and unmoved, with an expression of almost human grumpiness in his cola-coloured eyes. Arvind, tried his best to make ZigZag speak. He dashed into the kitchen and brought a plate with juicy fruit slices and some nuts. Bored eyes brightened as Zigzag picked up a walnut.

It refused to speak, dropped one wrinkled eyelid in a solemn wink and flew clumsily to deposit the nut on the enormous chandelier hanging from the ceiling. Silently and slowly, all the fruit on the plate was transferred to the chandelier and the blades of the ceiling fan. As soon as the cook Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Housed in an 18th century style Heritage building with wooden panelling running through the thirty seat dining area, “Lean and Lovely” is the latest attraction in Siddhapuram Nagar. Says the owner Chef Virina, “People come to us for the unusual feast that we serve. Fairly ordinary Indian recipes are ignited with a dash of sauce and spiced with colour. There is harmony and balance between taste, lightness and tradition. Wholly organically grown vegetables and flour are used. We use the freshest of ingredients that are cut and cooked so as to display their colour and individual texture.

Questions.
(a) What is special about the vegetables and flour used by “Lean and Lovely”?
(b) Where is “Lean and Lovely” located?
(c) Who is a ‘Chef’?
(d) How do the people in “Lean and Lovely” make the ordinary Indian recipes more attractive?
Answer:
(a) Wholly organically grown vegetables and flour is the speciality of “Lean and Lovely’.
(b) “Lean and Lovely” is located in Siddhapuram Nagar.
(c) A chef is a skilled cook, who prepares a variety of dishes in a restaurant and manages them.
(d) Fairly ordinary Indian recipes are ignited with a dash of sauce and spiced with colour in
“Lean and Lovely”. There is also harmony and balance between taste, lightness and tradition attracting the people.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Rough Boys
My parents kept me from children who were rough
And who threw words like stones and who wore torn clothes.
Their thighs showed through rags; they ran in the street And climbed cliffs and stripped by the country streams.
I feared more than tigers their muscles like iron
And their jerking hands and their knees tight on my arms.
I feared the salt coarse pointing of those boys Who copied my lisp behind me on the road.
They were lithe, they sprang out behind hedges Like dogs to bark at our world. They threw mud And I looked another way, pretending to smile,
I longed to forgive them, yet they never smiled.

Questions.
(a) Why were the children said to be rough?
(b) Describe the appearance of the rough children as portrayed by the poet.
(c) What physical nature of the rough children did the poet fear?
(d) Identify the comparison in the last stanza.
Answer:
(a) The children were said to be rough because they spoke rudely.
(b) The rough children wore tom clothes with their thighs seen through the rags.
(c) The poet feared the muscles in hands and knees of the rough children that appeared like iron.
(d) The rough boys are compared to the dogs that are supple and agile and come out hiding behind the shrubs to attack.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 4

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He saw his brothers and sister perfecting in the art of flight.
(a) achieving
(b) trying
(c) finishing
(d) balancing
Answer:
(a) achieving

Question 2.
A board creaked, when it was trod upon.
(a) weary
(b) worn
(c) walked
(d) opened
Answer:
(c) walked

Question 3.
The sun was soothing.
(a) anxiety
(b) boisterous
(c) dexterous
(d) comforting
Answer:
(d) comforting

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
You don’t have to use any auxiliary means of repulsion.
(a) disgust
(b) revolution
(c) repercussions
(d) attraction
Answer:
(d) attraction

Question 5.
Consumable products self-order replacements.
(a) throwaway
(b) expendable
(c) durable
(d) perishable
Answer:
(c) durable

Question 6.
How ignorant you are!
(a) oblivious
(b) unaware
(c) uninformed
(d) well – informed
Answer:
(d) well – informed

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘dozen’.
(a) dozens
(b) dozenes
(c) dozen
(d) perishable
Answer:
(c) dozen

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – broke.
(a) en
(b) cian
(c) ssion
(d) al
Answer:
(a) en

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation DARE.
(a) Documentation Automatic Retrieval Equipment
(b) Documents Arrangements Retrieval Equipment
(c) Department of Agricultural Research and Education
(d) Director Arrangements Retrieval Equipment
Answer:
(c) Department of Agricultural Research and Education

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
She …………. with a mild warning.
(a) got away
(b) got into
(c) got up
(d) got out
Answer:
(a) got away

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘sit’ to form a compound word.
(a) out
(b) innings
(c) stand
(d) meaning
Answer:
(a) out

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The spider crawls ……….. the wall.
(a) so
(b) before
(c) after
(d) on
Answer:
(d) on

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given
below:
It was a historic day, which …………….. in navigation history and globally.
(a) was marked
(b) will be marked
(c) marking
(d) would be marked
Answer:
(d) would be marked

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
The situation was Do ……………… die.
(a) else
(b) so
(c) but
(d) or
Answer:
(d) or

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
What did the young bird’s family do when he started flying?
Answer:
The family saw the young seagull making his first flight and floating on the ocean. They flew and landed on the water just ahead of him. They were beckoning to him with a shrill voice. They were praising and rewarding him by offering scraps of fish to him.

Question 16.
How did they plan to manage a storm?
Answer:
Even during the storm when three people would be out on watch, the other three who would be inside wouldn’t be able to rest. When somebody heated the water, the other person would heat the gloves because it was raining also.

Question 17.
What did Sanyal say about Aditya who had asked him for his prize?
Answer:
Sanyal said that Aditya could not bear the fact that Sanyal had got a prize. He was envious and said that he had lost it because of the hole in his pocket.

Question 18.
Why did Mr. Hamel say it was the last French lesson?
Answer:
The order had come from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine. The new master was to come the next day. Hence Mr. Hamel said it was the last French lesson.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Don’t ever try to saw her pride, her self-respect.
She knows how to thaw you, saw you – so beware/”
(a) What do the words thaw and saw mean here?
(b) What is the tone of the author?
Answer:
(a) Thaw and saw means that she will reduce you to nothing.
(b) The tone of the poetess is a caution about careful intervention.

Question 20.
“My heart was so light that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”,
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away”.”
(а) What is meant by‘gay’?
(b) Why does the poet say that the nature looks gay?
Answer:
(a) ‘Gay’ here means ‘happy and joyful’.
(b) The poet says that the nature looks happy because it’s springtime.

Question 21.
“But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!”
(a) What is the warning given in the above lines?
(b) What is the reminder given by the machines?
Answer:
(a) The caution is the perils and hazards of mechanization.
(b) The reminder given by the machines is the law by which a machine lives to do the work of a man.

Question 22.
“It is the human earth that we defile
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.”
(a) What are we doing to the earth?
(b) What is outraging this earth?
Answer:
(a) We are polluting this earth.
(b) Hells of fire and dust are outraging this earth.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The flat tire was changed by Saravanan.
Saravanan changed the flat tire.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:
“I haven’t seen them since last week,” said Roshini.
Roshini said that she hadn’t seen them since the previous week.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Answer:
‘Our school used to be one–storeyed and a new building has come up, which wasnt ‘ Our school used to be one-storeyed, and a new building has come up, which wasn’t there.’

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Our teacher is diligent therefore he is popular among students.
Our teacher is popular among students for his diligence.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) went to / a friend’s dog / see / Sita and Ravi
(b) to obey / Rama decided / his mother / this time / very hard / for a long time / and prayed
Answer:
(a) Sita and Ravi went to see a friend’s dog.
(b) Rama decided to obey his mother this time and prayed very hard for a long time.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
You are in Sandy Dance School. Ask a passer-by to help you reach Canara Bank with the help of the given road-map and write down the steps.
Answer:

• From Sandy School go straight on Amina Salai and take the left and enter P.S.M. Road.
• Go past Forex Mall on the left and P.V.R Cinemas on the right.
• Take the immediate right after P.V.R Cinemas and you will find Canara Bank on the right side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section -I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Narrate the extensive search operation made by the policemen in the house.
Answer:
The arrival of the police blows the whole event out of proportion. The cops call out for the front door to be opened, and when no one in the house goes downstairs, they break it in. They go upstairs to find the narrator, still walking around with a towel over him after his bath. The mother insists there were burglars though the police confirms that all doors and windows are bolted from inside. The police set about probing the house, moving furniture and emptying closets.

At one point, a policeman’s inquisitiveness makes him point out an unusual old musical instrument, a zither, to another officer. The police are suspicious of the family members’ strange behaviour. When the narrator’s grandfather, sleeping in the attic, makes a slight noise, the policemen spring into action. They race upstairs to investigate. The narrator fears trouble because his grandfather feels that the Civil War is in progress.

When the policemen arrive at his door, he is convinced that they are Meade’s army and calls them deserters. He slaps a policeman sending him to the floor and takes the man’s gun from his holster and shoots at him, hitting him in the shoulder. He fires twice more and then goes back to bed. Back downstairs, the police feel defeated. They bandage the wounded officer and search the house again.

Question 30.
How is Dr. Watson used to trap Smith without his knowledge by Sherlock Holmes?
Answer:
Dr. Watson is called by Mrs. Hudson to tend Holmes, who is apparently dying of a rare tropical disease, Tarpaunli fever, contracted while he was on a case at Rotherhithe. Holmes forbids Watson to go near him because the illness is highly infectious. Although Watson wishes to examine Holmes himself or send for a specialist, Holmes demands that Watson
wait several hours before seeking help.

While Watson waits, he examines several objects in Holmes’s room. Holmes is angered when Watson touches things on his table stating his dislike for people fidgeting his things. At six o’clock, Holmes asks Watson to turn the gaslight on, but only half-full. He then instructs Watson to bring Mr. Culverton Smith from 13 Lower Burke Street to see Holmes but to make sure that Watson returns to Baker Street before Smith arrives. Watson goes to Smith’s address. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in.

Once Watson explains his duty on behalf of Sherlock Holmes, Smith’s assertiveness changes significantly. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour. Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment, and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes and explains how he murdered his nephew Victor. At the end, Holmes calls for Watson to come out from behind the screen, to present himself as another witness to the conversation. Holmes explains his illness was feigned as a trick to induce Smith to confess to his nephew’s murder.
‘A detective s perspective traps the criminal. ’

Question 31.
Give a detailed account of all thoughts and questions in the narrator’s mind while accompanying Aditya from the tea shop to Sanyal’s house?
Answer:
The narrator had noticed the keen interest of Aditya in seeing the tea shop at Bramhapur if it still existed. They saw Sasanka Sanyal another customer seated in one comer of the Nagen’s Tea Cabin. When that customer was asked to leave by Nagen the owner, he behaved in a strange manner and reacted sharply. Before leaving the place, he stretched himself, raised his lean arm and with diluted eyes recited a poem by Tagore.

On hearing this poem and seeing the customer’s strange gesture of Namaste, Aditya’s expression changed. The narrator noticed the eagerness in Aditya to know who the gentlemen was and what he was doing. The information he had received from Nagen uncle perturbed Aditya. He was distressed perhaps to know that the man lost his wife and only son last year. When he left, Aditya was bent on knowing where the gentleman stayed and drove straight to his ancestral house with firm determination. His nerves seemed overwrought for some reason and he felt a strong necessity to visit his house.

Aditya was totally a different person now and he expressed keen interest to visit his house where he lived twenty nine years ago. ‘
“Memories are sometimes pleasant yet disturbing.”

Question 32.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away.

He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk. The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings-
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Section-II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Describe the tree which adds to the mystery of the house.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The House on Elm Street’ by Nadia Bush is a dark poem. The house and the tree depict darkness and also a mysterious feel. Trees generally grow green. It is a representation of fertility and robust nature. Unlike a tree’s characteristic features the tree beside the mysterious house is also mysterious. The tree stands erect with no leaves in them.

There is no fall of leaves during autumn and there is no leaves sprouting during spring. There aren’t any leaves on the tree for the leaves to dry during summer nor for the snow to cover the leaves with snow during winter. This tree doesn’t grow tall nor does it get small. It is quite a mystery to see a living tree appearing lifeless!
“Mystery creates wonder and wonder is the basis of man s desire to understand.”

Question 34.
Bring out the essence of the Poem ‘Life’ in a Nutshell.
Answer:
Henry Van Dyke, one of the greatest American short story writers and poets, has surpassed the act of writing skillfully. ‘Life’ is no doubt one of his priced literary pieces. This poem is a pinnacle of expressive embarkment on the quest of self-revival from the glum beats of monotony. It has a very deep and farsighted meaning held within it and this is evident from the very beginning of the poem. The poem is the poet’s own reflection on his life and tells his point of view on the more important things in life.

The poet advices the readers from his life experiences. We feel that he is now an older man reflecting on his younger days. Through his words he is explaining to us what he is taking away as most important to live is the best life possible. Life is too short to get caught up in the moment or worry about the past. On the other hand, it suggests that we look forward to what the future holds. We sometimes find ourselves brooding on the bad times and we forget about how much good there is in the future.

The poet is making us understand this concept and be more aware of reality. “Life is short and if we enjoy every moment of everyday, We will be happy no matter what happens or changes our way!”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“If drive past the house almost every day.
The house seems to be a bit brighter.
On this warm summer day in May.
It plays with your mind.”
(i) Pick out the alliterated words in the 2nd line.
(ii) Pick out the rhyming words in the above stanza.
(iii) What is the rhyme scheme followed in this stanza?
(iv) Which line indicates the usage of the poetic device, ‘synecdoche’?
Answer:
(i) The alliterated words in the second line are be bit brighter.
(ii) The rhyming words are day and May in the above stanza.
(iii) The rhyme scheme followed in this stanza is ‘abac’.
(iv) The second line, ‘The house seems to be a bit brighter’ indicates the usage of the poetic device, ‘synecdoche’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
But the queerest thing is that not one of the same
Can be brought to acknowledge his family name;
For never a Grumbler will own that he
Is connected with it at all, you see.
Answer:
But the strangest thing is that not one in the Grumble family can accept the family name because no Grumbler will accept that he is a grumbler nor associated with the qualities of a grumbler.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) This box contained rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(ii) The box contained an interesting mechanism which will certainly explode when opened.
(iii) I thought of Susan.
(iv) I stood appalled, the key in my hand.
(v) I carried the iron box, set it down with care in a closet, laid the key oh it, and locked the closet.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iv), (ii), (i), (in), (v)
(iv) I stood appalled, the key in my hand.
(ii) The box contained an interesting mechanism which will certainly explode when opened.
(i) This box contained rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(iii) I thought of Susan.
(v) I carried the iron box, set it down with care in a closet, laid the key on it, and locked the closet.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
As he walked beside the canal, he noticed how the rains had swollen the waters, and how they beat against the side of the dike, and he thought of his father’s gates. “I am glad they are so strong,” he said to himself. “If they gave way what would become of us? •These pretty fields would be covered with water. Father always calls them the ‘angry waters.’ I suppose he thinks they are angry at him for keeping them out so long.”

As he walked along he sometimes stopped to pick the pretty blue flowers that grew beside the road, or to listen to the rabbits’ soft tread as they rustled through the grass. But oftener he smiled as he thought of his visit to the poor blind man who had so few pleasures and was always so glad to see him. Suddenly he noticed that the sun was setting, and that it was growing dark. “Mother will be watching for me,” he thought, and he began to run toward home. Just then he heard a noise. It was the sound of trickling water!

Questions
(i) Who does ‘he’ refer to?
(ii) Who works at the dikes?
(iii) What did he think was the reason for his father to say they were ‘angry waters’?
(iv) What did the little boy do while walking along the waters?
(v) Why did the little boy run towards home?
Answer:
(i) ‘He’refers to Peter.
(ii) Peter’s father works at the dikes.
(iii) Peter thought that the waters were very angry with him for keeping them out for so long.
(iv) He stopped to pick the pretty blue flowers that grew beside the road, or to listen to the rabbits’ soft tread as they rustled through the grass.
(v) He ran towards home as he knew that his

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
New Millennium Bike – comfortable ride – sleek look affordable price.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Anuragh, who has seen the advertisement of the newspaper. Write a letter, placing an order, requesting them for a demonstration of the product at home. Also, remind them to deliver and install the promotional offer on purchase of the computer.
Answer:
Anuragh/Rita
25, South Madha Street
Chennai .
10th Sept. 2020
The Marketing Manager
HiTech Computers
Mylapore
Chennai
Sir,
Sub: Placing order for personal computer-Si45-8th Gen.
This is with reference to your advertisement in The New Indian Times, Dated 28th August, 2020,1 wish to place my order for the mentioned product/model-S 145-8th Gen./1 request you to install the model within a week and arrange for a smooth delivery at home. I would also prefer that as per your advertisement, your technician installs my free internet connection and anti-virus software, during the demonstration. Kindly ensure that your purchase bill is delivered with an authorized letter of warranty and details of after-sale service by the dealer. An urgent positive reply confirming the order would be appreciated.
Yours truly
Anuragh

Address on the envelope:

To
The Marketing Manager
HiTech Computers
Mylapore
Chennai.

Question 41.
You are Ramesh/Rashmi. As President of the Literary Club of your school you have organized an inter-school debate competition on the occasion of the Silver Jubilee celebrations of your school. Write a notice in about 50 words, informing the students of your school about the competition.
Literary Club
ST. Thomas Public School, Trichy
5 Dec. 20XX
NOTICE
Inter-House Competitions
The Literary Club is organising an inter-school debate competition on the
occasion of the Silver Jubilee celebrations as per details given below:
Date : 18 Dec. 20XX Time : 11 a.m. onwards Venue : Saraswati Auditorium
Topic : “Nuclear Armament is India’s best defence against cross-border terrorism”
Last date for receipt of names : 10 Dec. upto 4.30 p.m. in the Activities Room.
Ramesh/Rashmi
President

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:

I love this picture which has a good collection of Plantcils. Plantcil is a blended word of plant and pencil. The reverse side of the pencil has a seed in it. When the pencil becomes very small to hold and write you can sow the reverse side of the pencil which will bring for the new sapling for you to grow. This is a good example of recycling material. Let us advocate ‘Reduce Reuse and Recycle’ and also promote it as return gifts for birthday parties.

Question  43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Question
A proper consideration of the value of time will inspire habits of punctuality. “Punctuality”, said Louis XIV, “is the politeness of kings.” It is also the duty of gentle men and the necessity of men of business. Nothing begets confidence in a man sooner than the practice of this virtue and nothing shakes confidence sooner than the practice of this virtue and nothing shakes confidence sooner than the want of it. He who holds to his appointment and does not keep you waiting for him shows that he has regard for your time as well as for his own.

Thus punctuality is one of the modes by which we testify our personal respect for those whom we ” are called .upon to meet in the business of life. It is also conscientious in a measure for an appointment is a contract, expressed or implied and he who does not keep it, breaks faith as well as dishonestly loses character. We naturally come to the conclusion that the person who is careless about time will be careless about business and he isn’t the one to be trusted with the transaction of matters of importance Notes

Title.: Punctuality
INSPIRES HABITS A PUNC.
(i) Prime duty A all;
(ii) Pune, brings confidence;
(iii) Appts kept – shows regard for all.
(iv) Pune. – mode to testify personal respect for others.
An appt – a contract
(i) Loses character – not punctual;
(ii) Careless abt time – careless abt business;
(iv) Can’t be trusted.
Abbreviations: A – of; PUNC. – punctuation; Appt-appointment; abt-about

Summary

Title: Punctuality Rough Draft
The value of time will inspire habits of punctuality. It is the duty of all gentle men and all business people. NothlngTJringsjiiishakes confidence in a man sooner than the practice of this virtue or the want of it. He who holds hislipptTmtfnexitJias regard for time. Thus in punctuality, we testify our personal respect for those we meet in business An Appointment is a contract and he who does not keep it loses character. We can conclude that the person who is careless about time will be careless about business and cannot be trusted with the transaction of important matters?

Fair Draft:
Title: Punctuality
The value of time inspires punctuality and is one’s prime duty. It is the duty of gentlemen and the necessity of businessmen. Nothing brings confidence than the practice of Punctuality. He who holds his appointment has regard for time. Thus in punctuality, we testify personal respect for those we meet. An appointment is a contract and he who doesn’t keep it loses character. We can conclude that one who is careless about time will be careless about business and cannot be trusted with the transaction of important matters. No. of words written in the summary: 73

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) We shall go out if it does not rains.
(b) My teacher did not object to using me calculator.
(c) Very soon did I realize that he is at fault that day.
(d) No sooner did the rabbit come out of the bush when the hunter killed it.
(e) My elder brother asked me that what I was doing.
Answer:
(a) We shall go out if it does not rain.
(b) My teacher did not object to me using calculator.
(c) Very soon did I realize that he was at fault that day.
(d) No sooner did the rabbit come out of the bush than the hunter killed it.
(e) My elder brother asked me what I was doing.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
The summer ……….. no fear.
Answer:
The summer of life she s ready to see in spring.
She says, “Spring will come again, my dear.
Let me care for the ones who ’re near. ”
She’s The Woman – she has no fear!

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(a) Mulan – legendary Chinese warrior – grown up child – aging war expert – neglects convention and regulation – disguises – registers in lieu – saves father from death – secretly takes his place – rises to the needs – daring – hardships – firm determination – confident and brave – Self-belief – China’s greatest heroines.
Answer:
The Story of Mulan portrays the legendary Chinese warrior Hua Mulan. This old Chinese folktale is about the story of the young Chinese maiden who learns that her wizened, old and frail father is to be called up into the army in order to fight the invading Huns by the Chinese Emperor. When the Huns invade China, one man from every family is called to arms. She hears of the order that every family must send one man to the army while washing clothes.

Mulan’s father, who is frail and aged decides to fight for his country though it is clear that he will not survive an enemy encounter. He decides to go to war but is prevented by her daughter with her outrageous decision. Knowing her father’s frail state, she decides to disguise herself and join in his place without second thoughts. In the army, Mulan proves to be a brave soldier who is later put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles goes so well that more soldiers are added. After a few years, Mulan becomes the General of the entire army. Suddenly, bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers including Mulan become a prey. The arrival of the doctor brings to light the hidden truth.

Many soldiers disapprove such a thought, though some soldiers see the winning chances. Just then a soldier announces the surprise attack by the enemies. With no time to debate, the soldiers spring to action at the command of the General who hears this from inside her tent. She gets dressed and though not strong, she stands tall. She instructs the soldiers to attack knowing very well her strategic planning that all her soldiers acknowledge and win the battle.

It was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last. The war was over, and China was saved! The Emperor forgives Mulan and was glad that Mulan had ended the long war. He wanted Mulan to stay with him in the palace and be an advisor but as she chose to go to her family, the emperor gave her six horses and six fine swords so that her people will know that he thinks of her.

[OR]

(b) Explain the mother’s love with reference to the story, ‘The Aged Mother’ by developing the hints.
The despotic ruler decree – mother’s love – pure and unselfish – guides – kind mode of death – summit of Obatsayuma – son’s danger – untrodden path – wisdom and experience – breaks twigs – guide for return journey.
Answer:
The story of the Aged Mother, a folklore from Japan, tells a story about the care and wisdom of a mother to his son, their condition and the son’s love and gentle respect. This story talks about the conflict in the poor farmer’s mind.A mother’s affection is something that none can describe. It is composed of insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain which is eternal and unconditional.

The thought that “A mother’s love is invaluable and can never be equated to further belongings that a child might own’ perturbs the narrator. The law pronounced by the tyrant ruler fills the heart of the poor farmer with deep remorse. Instead of putting his mother to death in the hand of the cruel law he decides to give his mother a kind mode of death. He takes his mother to the bare summit of Obatsayuma and plans to abandon her there.

The mother too is pained on the way to the summit of the mountain. Her heart grows concerned because she knows that her son will be in danger on his way back because he is not familiar to the paths and hence she breaks the twigs and drops it quietly on the road to serve as a guide for her son’s return journey.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
As a young boy, one of my favourite pastimes was hunting frogs along the banks of a pond near our home. I was unaware of their unique visual powers that enabled them to elude me so easily. Later I learnt that the frog’s optical field is very much like a blackboard wiped clean, and that the only images it receives are objects that directly concern him. These little amphibians are never distracted by unimportant things, but are aware only of essentials and whatever may be dangerous to them.
In life we frequently become preoccupied with the vain things of the world. We allow our lives to become so cluttered with materialistic and insignificant concerns that we lose our perspective of the things that endure.

Questions.
(a) What was the young boy’s favourite pastime activity?
(b) What is unique about the frog’s vision?
(c) Why was the author never able to catch a frog?
(d) What is the lesson we must learn from the frog?
Answer:
(a) The young boy’s favourite pastime activity was hunting frogs along the banks of a pond near his house.
(b) The frog’s optical field is very much like a blackboard wiped clean and that the only images it receives are objects that directly concern him.
(c) The author was never able to catch a frog because they were never distracted by unimportant things but were aware of all essentials that may cause danger to them.
(d) The lesson we must learn from the frog is that in life we frequently become preoccupied with the vain things of the world. We allow our lives to become so cluttered with materialistic and insignificant concerns that we lose our perspective of the things that endure.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Abou Ben Adhem! (may his tribe increase!)
Awoke one night from a deep dream of peace,
And saw within the moonlight in his room,
Making it rich and like a lily in bloom,
An angel writing in a book of gold:
Exceeding peace had made Ben Adhem bold,
And to the presence in the room, he said,
“What writest thou?” The vision raised its head,
And with a look made of all sweet accord,
Answered “The names of those who love the Lord.”
“And is mine one?” said Abou. “Nay, not so,”
Replied the Angel. Abou spoke more low.
But cheerily still and said, “I pray thee then,
Write me as one that loves his fellow men.”
The angel wrote and vanished.
It came again with a great wakening light,
And showed the names whom the love of God has blessed.
And lo! Ben Adhem’s name led all the rest.

Questions.
(a) Who is the angel in this poem?
(b) When Abou Ben Adhem was awakened in his dream, what did he see in his room?
(c) What has made Abou bold?
(d) Why does the poet use the expression ‘lo’?
Answer:
(a) The angel is the messenger of God in this poem.
(b) When Abou Ben Adhem was awakened in his dream, he saw an angel writing in a book of gold amidst the moonlight in his room.
(c) Exceeding peace that he received from the vision he had, had made Abou Ben Adhem bold.
(d) The poet uses the expression To’ to express surprise.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He saw his older brother devour his first catch.
(a) consume
(b) devein
(c) divide
(d) smell
Answer:
(a) consume

Question 2.
A half-dozen policemen emerged out of the darkness.
(a) charged
(b) exit
(c) appeared
(d) jumped
Answer:
(c) appeared

Question 3.
Harvest was over.
(a) crop
(b) crab
(c) craze
(d) pests
Answer:
(a) crop

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
In fact, I’d say it was easier for us to collaborate and work together.
(a) difficult
(b) calmer
(c) tranquility
(d) quicker
Answer:
(a) difficult

Question 5.
Your entire energy management can be taken care by automating.
(a) complete
(b) partial
(c) perfect
(d) whole
Answer:
(b) partial

Question 6.
You will persuade him to come.
(a) urge
(b) dissuade
(c) disembark
(d) distract
Answer:
(b) dissuade

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘goose‘.
(a) goose
(b) gooses
(c) goosies
(d) geese
Answer:
(d) geese

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word- ‘lonely‘.
(a) ment
(b) al
(c) ity
(d) ness
Answer:
(d) ness

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation IPKF is ………………………
(a) Institute of Peace Keeping Federation
(b) Indian Piece Keeping Force
(c) Intelligent Peace Keeping Force
(d) Indian Peace Keeping Federation
Answer:
(b) Indian Piece Keeping Force

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
Shelton …………………………………. his jacket and went out.
(a) put on
(b) put down
(c) put off
(d) put aside
Answer:
(c) put off

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘bow‘ to form a compound word,
(a) tail
(b) high
(c) rain
(d) hand
Answer:
(c) rain

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The crew started their voyage on ………………… 10 September 2017.
(a) from
(b) at
(c) on
(d) by
Answer:
(c) on

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
When we ………….. the Tasman Sea, we witnessed the brilliant Southern Lights from sea.
(a) will cross
(b) were crossing
(c) is cross
(d) will be crossed
Answer:
(b) were crossing

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
Raghu added salt ……………. sugar to the milk.
(a) else
(b) so
(c) instead of
(d) but
Answer:
(c) instead of

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did Holmes want Smith to treat him?
Answer:
Holmes believed Mr. Smith, a plantation man, had foreknowledge of the eastern disease. He alone could cure him. So, he wanted Smith to treat him.

Question 16.
Who is shot at by the grandfather? Why?
Answer:
The zither-cop was shot at by the grandfather because he was the first to go up the stairs when they heard the sound of a creaking in the attic caused by the grandfather turning in the bed.

Question 17.
What did they do when they witnessed something new in their journey?
Answer:
As they were not specialists, whenever they spotted something new in the sea, they googled and browsed information to learn more about the species.

Question 18.
When did Aditya and the narrator go to Bramhapur?
Answer:
Aditya and the narrator were returning from the site of their new factory at Deodarganj. While returning, in the month of Magha, that is January or February by the English calendar, sometime in the middle of winter, around 3.30 p.m. they went to Bramhapur.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“She’s today’s woman. Today’s woman dear.
Love her, respect her, keep her near…”
(а) Describe today’s woman according to the poet.
(b) How should a woman be treated?
Answer:
(a) Today’s woman is a woman bom with determination, ready to take risks in life and is strong in her faith and beliefs.
(b) A woman should be treated with love and respect.

Question 20.
“My heart was so light that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”.
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away”.”
(а) Explain the phrase, ‘dance winter away’.
(b) The ant tells the cricket to “dance the winter away.” Is the usage of the word . ‘dance’ appropriate here? If so, why?
Answer:
(a) The phrase ‘dance winter away’ means dancing all through the winter season.
(b) The word ‘dance’ here means ‘merry making and wasting time.’ It is appropriate here. The irresponsible cricket does not deserve any sympathy.

Question 21.
“But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!”
(a) What do you understand by the word, ‘slip’?
(b) What is the Law by which a machine lives?
Answer:
(a) A slip is nothing but a mistake.
(b) The Law is the way in which the machine is designed and programmed to work when the command is given.

Question 22.
“Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.”
(a)’ Who is referred to as ‘our brothers’ in this stanza?
(b) What lesson can we learn from these lines?
Answer:
(a) The people who live in countries other than ours have been referred to as our brothers.
(b) These lines teach us the lesson of peace, universal brotherhood and harmony.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The novel was read by Mom in one day.
Mom read the novel in one day.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
“How will they get here?” asked Kalyani.
Answer:
Kalyani asked me how they would get here.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
If you will sit down said Miranda I will carry your logs the while
“If you will sit down, said Miranda, “I will carry your logs the while

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Unless you work hard you cannot succeed.
You cannot succeed without working hard.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) her glory / sincere prayers / Kali heard / and appeared / in all / Rama’s / before him
(b) unexpectedly, / instead of / laugh uncontrollably / inspiring awe / made Rama / her form
Answer:
(a) Kali heard Rama’s sincere prayers and appeared before him in all her glory.
(b) Unexpectedly, instead of inspiring awe her form made Rama laugh uncontrollably.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
A stranger asks you the way to go to Meenakshi Temple. Help the stranger to reach his/ her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the steps.
Answer:

• Go straight on N.S.K. Salai and go past the crossroad connecting P.M. Salai.
• After the second left you will come to R.R. Road.
• You will find Meenakshi temple on the opposite side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section-I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Was the young seagull same at the beginning and at the end of the lesson? Compare and contrast the two kinds of the same seagull in the lesson.
Answer:
No, the young seagull was not the same bird at the beginning and at the end of the lesson. In the beginning, the young seagull used to be all alone on his ledge. His two brothers and his sister had flown away the day before. He had been afraid of flying with them. Whenever he tried to flap his wings, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him. His father and mother flew around calling to him shrilly.

They were constantly scolding and taunting him. They were threatening to let him starve on his ledge unless he flew away. However, the young seagull was more confident and sure of his success in the end. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. After trials and errors, his wings spread outwards. He was soaring gradually downwards forgetting all his hesitations and fears. He could float on the ocean now. His success was welcomed by his family. They were praising him now and their beaks were offering him their scraps of dog-fish.
“Positivity ,confidence and persistence are
key in life – so never give up in life.”

Question 30.
“Technology is a boon to the disabled”. Justify.
Answer:
The differently abled, Alisha and David’s life has been transformed because of Technology. It is a boon to the disabled. Assistive technology is designed to help people with disabilities. Typing was impossible, but now Dragon Dictate helps the disabled to speak for words to be printed on screen. Technology can control a computer screen even with Eye Gaze.

Technology is vital to be free and independent. For verbal communication, Liberator Communication Device, with eye movements to communicate verbally is used. It has a Bluetooth adaptor and took a couple of weeks to leam using it. Communicating with people was very difficult before. An ACTIV controller also in the headrest of a mobility chair is used to control TV, Blu-Ray and music players.

Augmentative and Alternative Communication is also the product of technological advancements and a boon to the disabled. EC02 linked to an interactive whiteboard is used to teach PE lessons. Technology also helps control the Play Station, MP3, electric wheelchair and ECO point Eye Gaze to communicate and access the computer. Thus, Technology is a boon to the disabled.
“Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines. Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance.

The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too.

One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.
“It’s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other. ”

Question 32.
Give an account of the last day of M. Hamel in school.
Answer:
The story described what was just another ordinary day for Franz who started very late for school that morning. Franz, who played truant with French class, feared M. Hamel’s iron rod. He came to the school thinking he would be punished as he had not leamt his lesson on participles. In fact, he was reluctant to go to school. Initially, he thought of spending the bright warm day outdoors enjoying the chirping of birds and seeing the drilling of Prussian soldiers at the back of the sawmill. On the way, Franz passed the Town hall, where he saw a large crowd reading the bulletin board which had been a source of all bad news. Franz rushed to his classroom, overseeing it for the fear of being chided.

When Franz arrived at the school, his classmates were already seated and the teacher had already started teaching. The back benches were occupied by grim and solemn villagers including the Mayor, The Postmaster, Hauser and many others. To his surprise, M. Hamel was in his Sunday clothes. Franz found M. Hamel to be kinder than usual. Franz was shocked to know that it was the last French lesson and the German teacher would start classes the next day.

He was full of regret for not learning his mother tongue and felt a sudden love for French. He even started liking M. Hamel and forgot all about his ruler. When M. Hamel asked Franz to recite the rules of participle, he was petrified. M. Hamel didn’t scold him and remarked that the only problem with people of

Alsace was procrastinating learning. He blamed parents and himself for exploiting children. Hamel then talked of the French language, calling it the most beautiful language in the world. He said that when we were enslaved knowing our mother tongue was similar to having the key to prison. As the church clock bell struck twelve, M. Hamel with a choked throat wrote on the Blackboard Vive La France!, i.e. Long Live France and dismissed the class.
“Our memories of yesterday will last a lifetime.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question  33.
Give summary of the poem, ‘The Grumble Family’.
Answer:
There is a family that no one ever wants to meet on Complaining Street in ‘Never-are- Satisfied’ city where River Discontent also runs. They growl at everything and hence something goes wrong. Even if their station is high or humble, they are known by the name of Grumble. The weather is always at extreme conditions and they scold at each other at both seasons. Everything is topsy-turvey with people who live on the gloomy Complaining street.

Even when they are satisfied with everything, there isn’t a doubt that they would growl about not having anything to grumble about. The strangest thing is not a single person in the Grumble family can accept the family name because no Grumbler will accept that he is a grumbler nor associated with such qualities. They are so contagious that anyone who says with them for a bit too long become a grumbler himself. Hence, it is wise to keep our feet away from Complaining Street.

Therefore, let us learn to walk with a smile on our lips and a song in our mouth even when things go against our desires. One should never belong to the family of Grumble, even if the status changes drastically.
“Be grateful and you won’t grumble.
Grumble and you won’t be grateful.”

Question  34.
‘Some crickets have four legs and some have two’. Elucidate this statement from the poet’s point of view.
Answer:
The poet is comparing the lazy crickets to the two-legged creatures – the human beings. The poetic device Metaphor is perfectly used to fit into the situation. Everyone knows that crickets have four legs. But he says some have two to compare the silly cricket to the two¬legged human-beings who sometimes are as lazy and silly as the cricket in this poem.

The poet wants to suggest that this story is not entirely a fable; rather, it is related to the real world. Surely, some people are as careless and lazy as the cricket is. Likewise, some humans like the cricket also don’t plan out for the future or for the bad times. They just enjoy the present moment. The poet is thus calling such people as mindless as the cricket.
“God gave us the gift of life; it is up to us to give ourselves the gift of living well.”

Question  35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“If the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.”
(i) Mention the figure of speech in the third line.
(it) Pick out thexontrasting words in the above lines.
(iii) Pick out the rhyming words.
(iv) What is the rhyme scheme of the above lines?
Answer:
(i) Alliteration is the figure of speech in the third line.
(ii) The contrasting words are ‘youth’ and ‘age’
(iii) The rhyming words are fear and cheer; whole and toll.
(iv) The rhyme scheme is abba.

Question  36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Beside the house sits a tree.
It never grows leaves,
Not in the winter, spring, summer or fall.
It just sits there, never getting small or ever growing tall,
How could this be?
Answer:
Next to the house, is a tree. The tree too is mysterious like thee house since it has no leaves in any of the seasons. The tree is barren during winter, spring, summer and autumn. The poetess says that the tree just stays there and never grows tall nor becomes short. She wonders how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) This planet describes its orbit round the sun in 572 years, 194 days, 12 hours, 43 minutes, 9.8 seconds.
(if) One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini.
(iii) On the whole, Francis Bennett had reason to be satisfied.
(iv) Hurry up and tell the reportage service about it because the public has a passion for these astronomical questions.
(v) Francis Bennett was delighted with such precision.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (if), (i), (v), (iv)
(iii) On the whole, Francis Bennett had reason to be satisfied.
(ii) One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini.
(i) This planet describes its orbit round the sun in 572 years, 194 days, 12 hours, 43 minutes, 9.8 seconds.
(v) Francis Bennett was delighted with such precision.
(iv) Hurry up and tell the reportage service about it because the public has a passion for these astronomical questions.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

One afternoon in the early fall, when Peter was eight years old, his mother called him from his play. “Come, Peter,” she said. “I want you to go across the dike and take these cakes to your friend, the blind man. If you go quickly, and do not stop to play, you will be home again before dark.” The little boy was glad to go on such an errand, and started off with a light heart. He stayed with the poof blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea. Then he remembered his mother’s wish that he should return before dark and, bidding his friend goodbye, he set out for home.

Questions
(i) Which word indicates it’s the beginning of the season Autumn?
(ii) What did Peter’s mom want him to do?
(iii) Was the little boy happy to obey his mother’s instruction?
(iv) What was the conversation Peter had with his blind friend?
(v) What was the wish of Peter’s mom?
Answer:
(i) The word ‘fall’ indicates the beginning of the season Autumn.
(ii) Peter’s mother wanted Peter to go across the dike and take the cakes to his blind friend.
(iii) Yes, the boy was happy.
(iv) Peter stayed with the poor blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike
and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea.
(v) Peter’s mom wanted Peter to return home before dark.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below. Fans and Air Conditioners – to fan away your sweat- to beat the heat.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are a librarian of Chennai Public School, Chennai. Write a letter to the store manager of a bookseller placing order for some story books in English for the school library.
Answer:
Rishabh Kumar
Chennai Public School
R.K. Puram Chennai
10th May, 2020
The Store Manager .
Indian Book House
Chennai Dear Sir
Sub: Order for stoiy books
I am the librarian of Chennai Public School, R.K. Puram. Please send me the following story books at the address given above. The books should be suitable for the age group of 10 to 14 years. All the books should be sent via VPP as early as possible:

• The Boy in the Dress by David Walliams 10 copies
• Fantastic Mr Fox by Roald Dahl 10 copies
• The Summer of the Swans by Betsy Byars 10 copies
• The Well: David’s Story by Mildred D. Taylor 10 copies

Thanking you
Yours sincerely
Rishabh Kumar Librarian

Address on the envelope
To
Chennai Public School
R.K. Puram
Chennai

Question 41.
You are Pradeep/Asha. As President of the Dramatic Club of your school you have organized an inter-school competition in one-act plays on the occasion of the Silver Jubilee celebrations of your school. Write a notice in about 50 words, informing the students of your school about this proposed event.
Answer:

Dramatic Club J S S Public School, Erode 16 Aug. 2020 Notice On the occasion of the Silver Jubilee celebrations of the school, the Dramatic Club has organized an inter-school competition in one-act plays as per details given below: Date : 30 Aug 20XX Time : 10 a.m. onwards Venue : Ashoka Auditorium Participants : Maximum 7 in a team Last Date for the receipt of Entry forms : 25 Aug. 20XX by 4.00 pm Pradeep/Asha President Dramatic Club,

Question 42.
Write an article in about 150 -200 words on ‘Disaster Management’.
Answer:
Disaster Management
Our country is prone to disasters like floods, drought, cyclones, or earthquakes. We do not . have any clear-cut policy of disaster management nor any force to tackle the situation. Adhoc measures are adopted to cope with every disaster. We wait and watch for others to join the fray. There are heated arguments over jurisdiction—centre or state liability, official assessment and surveys before any help is rushed out to the affected area.

The slow response results in the loss of precious human life and valuable property. We must have clear-cut, well defined guidelines for disaster management. A well-trained task-force having special equipment and trained personnel should be constituted. Its controlling officer should have the authority to  take decisions and ensure their speedy implementation.

Better transport and communication facilities will ensure better results. Bureaucratic set-up should not be allowed to interfere with the work of the disaster-management group.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
The distribution of forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. Concentration of forests is mostly in the hills of western districts and in the Javadi group of hills in Vellore district. Dense forests are also seen in Salem district. More than half of the area in the Nilgiris is under forest. Other districts hold 1% to 5% of area under forests.

Thanjavur being the alluvial plain is suitable for agriculture which has less than 1% of forest cover. The forests of Tamil Nadu have different types of trees. Most of the trees in the state shed their leaves in the dry season. Tamil Nadu has large areas of sandal wood plantations, about 5,88,000 hectares. Hard wood trees are available in the forests of Coimbatore, Nilgiris and Kanyakumari. Trees that are used as fuel are found in Madurai, Coimbatore and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.
Notes
Title: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Answer:
Uneven distribution-concentration in western districts, Nilgiris, Javadi hills, Vellore and Salem-other districts have 1-5% forests. Thanjavur only 1% of land under forests.
Different kinds of trees.
Deciduous trees, Hardwood trees, Sandalwood trees and Ordinary trees for firewood available -5,88,000 hectares under sandalwood.
Spread
Hardwood trees-Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Nilgiris Firewood-Madurai, Thanjavur and Coimbatore Rubber-Kanyakumari

Summary

Title: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Rough Draft
The distribution of forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. Forest cover is dense in šter ditticts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than 1 % of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees. Sandalwood trees are found in and firewood are found in Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has goo oefarciwood, Kanyakumari has rubber plantations. Trees that are used as fuel are found in and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.

Fair Draft:
Title: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Forest cover is dense in western districts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than 1% of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees. Sandalwood trees are found in 5,88,000 hectares. Hardwood and firewood are found in Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has good cover of hardwood, Kanyakumari has rubber plantations.
No. of words in the Fair Draft: 57

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) The State of Karnataka, is unarguably the cradle of banking on the country.
(b) If tomorrow is declared a holiday we shall go to a one day trip.
(c) My grandfather used to go for walk every morning.
(d) Darleena and me are like sisters but from different parents.
(e) She said that she will mind if I refused her offer.
Answer:
(a) The State of Karnataka, is unarguably the cradle of banking in the country.
(b) If tomorrow is declared a holiday we shall go for a one day trip.
(c) My grandfather used to go for a walk every morning.
(d) Darleena and I are like sisters but from different parents.
(e) She said that she would mind if I refused her offer.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Remember, we who countries strange.
Answer:
Remember, we who take arms against each other
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(a) Prospero overthrown – teenage daughter – isolated island – marooned – companion Ariel, Caliban – appropriated by Antonio – King of Naples – Ferdinand, Antonio – wrecked in sea storm – Prospero’s orders – invisible and spy – Miranda sees Ferdinand – plan works – test Ferdinand’s loyalty – menial tasks – pleasant – propose marriage – shipwrecked crew’ grieve – magical delicious banquet – Ferdinand and Miranda marry.
Answer:
The plot in the play, The Tempest, revolves around Prospero enacting his revenge on various characters who have wronged him in different ways. There was an island in the sea, the only inhabitants of which were an old man, named Prospero, and his daughter Miranda, a very beautiful young lady. She came to this island so young. Prospero had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax who had them imprisoned in the bodies of large trees.

These gentle spirits were ever after obedient to the will of Prospero. He creates a sea storm and makes the vessel to toss and shipwreck the crew and sends Ariel to check on his brother and other inmates of the ship. Every member thinks that he is the only one saved. Meanwhile, Ferdinand is brought before Prospero. Miranda wonders what kind of a creature he was as she has not seen any other human beings on the island. Instantly they fall in love for each other. Prospero realises their love and tests Ferdinand’s love for his daughter giving him menial tasks.

Ferdinand is found worthy by Prospero. In the end Antonio finally meets Prospero, he feels remorse for his deeds and begs pardon from Prospero. Prospero forgives him and they all leave to Milan and the wedding of Miranda and Ferdinand commences with delicious banquets.

[OR]

(b) According to the list kept in the Bible, develop the given hints and say what you can infer of Uncle Philip’s collection of stones.
Toni’s fear – iron box explosion – found in his uncle’s Bible – list of the stones, cost – dated two years before uncle’s death – well known – enormous value – curious histories – Empress-Queen Maria Theresa – Blood ruby – murders – unequalled collection – black pearl – queer.

One fine day when Tom was already groping in fear that the iron box may explode with careless handling by someone, found between the leaves of his uncle’s Bible, a numbered list of the stones with their cost. It was dated two years before his uncle’s death. Many of the stones were well known, and their enormous value was also mentioned. Several of the rubies were described with care and curious histories of them were given in detail.

One was said to be the famous “Sunset ruby,” which had belonged to the Empress-Queen Maria Theresa. One was called the “Blood ruby,” not because of the colour but on account of the murders it had occasioned. The pearls were described with care as an unequalled collection. Concerning two of them, they seemed to have done much evil and some good. One, a black pearl, was mentioned in an old bill of sale which seemed queer.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
A long time ago there lived a monster called the sphinx. She had the head of a woman, the body of a lion and the wings of a big bird. Her eyes were so fierce that nobody dared to look at her face. The sphinx sat on a cliff outside the city of Thebes. When a man passed by her, she would ask him a riddle. The man had to give the right answer, or the sphinx would eat him up. The riddle was so difficult that no one could answer it. Many men lost their lives and people were afraid to come out of their houses. Then one day a clever man wanted to answer the sphinx.

His name was Oedipus and he was not afraid of the sphinx. The sphinx stopped and asked him a riddle “what walks on four legs in the morning, on two legs at noon and on three legs in the evening?”Oedipus said that it was easy. “You try and answer it!” roared the sphinx. Oedipus said, “The answer is man walks on four legs in his childhood, on two legs when grown up and on three legs during old age”. Hearing the right answer the sphinx was disappointed and very angry. She jumped off the cliff and ended her life.

Questions.
(a) How did the sphinx look like?
(b) What would the sphinx do if a man failed to give the right answer to her riddle?
(c) Why was the sphinx angry?
(d) What is the ‘third leg’ of man in his old age?
Answer:
(a) The sphinx looked like a monster with the head of a woman, the body of a lion and the wings of a big bird.
(b) The sphinx would eat up the man if he failed to give the right answer to her riddle.
(c) Hearing the right answer to her riddle from Oedipus, the sphinx was disappointed and very angry
(d) The third leg is invariably the walking stick the old man will be using in his old age.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Mother India
Is there aught you need that my hands withhold.
Rich gifts of raiment or grain of gold?
Lo! I have clung to the East and West Priceless treasures tore from my breast.
And yielded the sons of my stricken womb To the drum – beats of duty, the sabres of doom.
Gathered like pearls in their alien graves Silent they sleep by the Persian waves,
Scattered like shells on Egyptian sands.
They lie with pale brows and brave, broken hands They are strewn like blossoms mown down by chance On the blood-brown meadows of Flanders and France.
Can ye measure the grief of the tears I weep Or compass the woe of the watch I keep?
Or the pride that trills thro’ my heart’s despair And the hope that comforts the anguish of prayer?
And the far and glorious vision I see Of the torn red banners of victory?
When the terror and tumult of hate shall cease And life be refashioned on anvils of peace,
And your love shall offer memorial thanks
To the comrades who fought in your dauntless ranks,
And your honour the deeds of the deathless ones,
Remember the blood of my martyred sons!

Questions.
(a) Why is Mother India proud?
(b) State Mother India’s vision of a new world.
(c) What does Mother India expect?
(d) Pick out words from the poem which is equivalent to
(i) commotion
(ii) friends.
Answer:
(a) Mother India is proud because of her sons’ supreme sacrifice that eternalizes them forever.
(b) Mother India envisions a new world based on peace, love and understanding.
(c) Mother India expects the world to remember the sacrifices made by her sons in the World War with gratitude.
(d) (i) Commotion – tumult
(ii) Friends – comrades

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
A marketable document of title to a time deposit for a specified period may be referred to as a ……………
(a) Treasury Bill
(b) Certificate of Deposit
(c) Commercial Bill
(d) Government Securities
Answer:
(b) Certificate of Deposit

Question 2.
The rules and regulations of Stock exchange is framed by………….. guidelines.
(a) RBI
(b) Central Government
(c) SEBI
(d) BSE
Answer:
(c) SEBI

Question 3.
……….. was the first company to trade its shares in Demat form.
(a) Tata Industries
(b) Reliance Industries
(c) Infosys
(d) Birla Industries
Answer:
(b) Reliance Industries

Question 4.
The purpose of an application blank is to gather information about the
(a) Company
(b) Candidate
(c) Questionnaire or Interview Schedule
(d) Competitors
Answer:
(a) Company

Question 5.
Training methods can be classified into training.
(a) Job rotation and Job enrichment
(b) On the Job and Off the Job
(c) Job analysis and Job design
(d) Physical and mental
Answer:
(b) On the Job and Off the Job

Question 6.
Green Shelter concept was introduced by group:
(a) ACME
(b) Tata
(c) Reliance
(d) ICI
Answer:
(a) ACME

Question 7.
Any person who buys any goods or avails services for personal use, for consideration is called as …………..
(a) Customer
(b) Consumer
(c) Buyer
(d) User
Answer:
(b) Consumer

Question 8.
It is the responsibility of a consumer that he must obtain …………. as a proof for the purchase of goods.
(a) Cash receipt
(b) Warranty card
(c) Invoice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Invoice

Question 9.
The International Organisation of Consumers Unions (IOCU) was first established in …………..
(a) 1960
(b) 1965
(c) 1967
(d) 1987
Answer:
(a) 1960

Question 10.
Unpaid seller can exercise his right of lien over the goods, where he is in possession of the goods as ……………
(a) Owner of goods
(b) Agent of buyer
(c) Bailee for buyer
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
Which endorsement relieves the endorser from incurring liability in the event of dishonour?
(a) Restrictive
(b) Facultative
(c) Sans recourse
(d) Conditional
Answer:
(b) Facultative

Question 12
…………….. Entrepreneur Supply Services Unlike.
(a) Hoteliers
(b) Banking
(c) Airlines
(d) Livestock
Answer:
(d) Livestock

Question 13.
Who can issue stock? ‘
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) One Person
(d) Small
Answer:
(a) Public

Question 14.
A Public Company having a paid up Share Capital of ₹ ……… or more may have a Director, elected by such small shareholders.
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer:
(c) Five

Question 15.
Who is not entitled to speak at the annual general meeting of the company?
(a) Auditor
(b) Shareholder
(c) Proxy
(d) Directors
Answer:
(c) Proxy

Question 16.
Treasury Bills commands ………………
(a) High Liquidity
(b) Low Liquidity
(c) Medium Liquidity
(d) Limited Liquidity
Answer:
(a) High Liquidity

Question 17
………….. enables small investors to participate in the investment on share capital of large companies.
(a) Mutual Funds
(b) Shares
(c) Debentures
(d) Fixed deposits
Answer:
(a) Mutual Funds

Question 18.
……………… e-recruitment is possible only through facility.
(a) Computer
(b) internet
(c) Broadband
(d) 4G
Answer:
(b) internet

Question 19.
Identify the test that acts as an instrument to discover the inherent ability of a candidate.
(a) Aptitude Test
(b) Attitude Test
(c) Proficiency Test
(d) Physical Test
Answer:
(a) Aptitude Test

Question 20.
Case study method is type of trainee.
(a) Only theoretical training
(b) Both theory and practical training
(c) Hands on training
(d) Observation Training
Answer:
(b) Both theory and practical training

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by innovation?
Answer:
Innovation refers to the preparation of personnel and organisation to face the changes made in the business world. Continuous changes are being made in the business. Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, new design of a product and cost reduction.

Question 22.
Bring out the meaning of MBE.
Answer:
Management By Exception is an important principle of managerial control suggested by the classical writers on management. It is based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. Management by exception is a style of business management that focuses on identifying and handling cases that deviate from the norm.

Question 23.
Who are the participants in a Capital Market?
Answer:
There are many players in the capital market. The participants of the capital market include individuals, corporate sectors, Govt., banks and other financial institutions.

Question 24.
Explain the two oldest money markets.
Answer:

• Treasury Bills- These are very popular and enjoy a higher degree of liquidity since they
  are issued by the Government.
• Commercial Bills- It is an instrument drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods.

Question 25.
What is meant by Commodity Exchange?
Answer:
A commodity exchange is an exchange where commodities are purchased and sold. Commodities are listed here: Metals (e.g. gold, silver, copper); Energy (e.g. crude oil, natural gas); Agricultural (e.g. rice, wheat, cocoa); Livestock and meat.

Question 26.
What are the various ID proofs?
Answer:
Proof of identity: PAN card, voter’s ID, passport, driver’s license, bank attestation, IT returns, electricity bill, telephone bill, ID cards with applicant’s photo issued by the central or state government are the ID proofs.

Question 27.
State two features of HRM.
Answer:
Features of Human Resource Management:

• Universally relevant: Human Resource Management has universal relevance.
• Goal oriented: The accomplishment of organisational goals is made possible through best utilisation of human resource in an organisation.

Question 28.
What is promotion?
Answer:
Based on seniority and merits of the employees they are given opportunity to move up in the organisational hierarchy. This is called promotion.

Question 29.
What do you mean by test?
Answer:
Several tests are conducted in the selection process to ensure whether the candidate possesses the necessary qualification to fit into various positions in the organization.

Question 30.
State e-learning method.
Answer:
E-leaming is the use of technological process to access of a traditional classroom or office. It is also often referred to as online learning or web based training.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the types of market on the basis of time.
Answer:

• Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables, etc., are called as very short period market. There is no change in the supply of goods.
• Short Period Market: In certain goods, supply is adjusted to meet the demand. The demand is greater than supply. Such markets are known as Short Period Market.
• Long Period Market: This type of market deals in durable goods, where the goods and services are dealt for longer period usages.

Question 32.
What are the factors affecting Price of Product?
Answer:
Factors affecting Price of product/service:
(a) Internal Factors:

• Marketing Objectives
• Marketing Mix Strategy
• Organizational considerations
• Costs
• Organization Objectives

(b) External Factors:

• The market and demand
• Competition
• Customers
• Suppliers
• Legal factors
• Regulatory factors.

Question 33.
Elucidate how E-Commerce differs from E-Business.
Answer:
E-commerce simply refers to the buying and selling of products and services through online but E-business goes away beyond the simple buying and selling, of goods and service and much wider range of business processes, such as supply chain management, electronic order processing and customer relationship management.

Question 34.
Define “Consumer Rights”
Answer:
Consumer Right is interpreted as “the right to have information about the quality, potency, quantity, purity, price, and standard of goods or services”.

Question 35.
What is the Pecuniary Jurisdiction of the State Commission?
Answer:
The Jurisdiction of the State Commission is as follows:

• The State Commission can entertain complaints within the territory of entire state and the compensation, if any claimed exceed Rs. 20 lakhs and below Rupees One Crore.
• The State Commission also has the jurisdiction to entertain appeals against the orders of any District Forum within the State.

Question 36.
Write a note on future environment of business.
Answer:

• The future environment of business in this age of rapid technological advancement has been captured aptly.
• It is now important for every business to meet the challenges posed by the environment in order to remain competitive.
• The presence of complex variables impacting business should be understood and alternative measures for solving the issues should be developed.

Question 37.
State any three impacts of Globalization.
Answer:
Impacts of Globalization:

• Corporations got a competitive advantage from lower operating costs, and access to new raw materials and additional markets.
• Multinational corporations (MNCs) can manufacture, buy and sell goods worldwide.
• Globalization has led to a boom in consumer products market.

Question 38.
Discuss in detail the rights of an unpaid seller against the buyer personally.
Answer:
Where the Property in the Goods does not pass to the Buyer. Right of an Unpaid Seller against the Buyer Personally:

• Suit for price
• Suit for Damages for Non-acceptance .
• Suit for Cancellation of the Contract before the Due Date- Where the buyer cancels the contract before the date of delivery, the seller may either treat the contract as continuing or wait till the due date.
• Suit for Interest

Question 39.
Explain the commercial functions of entrepreneur.
Answer:
(i) Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development, product design, etc.

(ii) Marketing: Entrepreneur has to carry out following functions pertaining to marketing
aspect namely consumer research, product planning and development, standardisation, packaging, pricing, warehousing, distribution, promotion, etc.

(iii) Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business at a particular day. Besides, cash flow and fund flow statements are prepared to ensure the adequacy of funds and cash for meeting various working capital needs of the business.

(iv) Finance: An entrepreneur has to take decisions like choosing the right type of financing, framing the best dividend policy, acquiring of funds, efficiently managing fixed and current assets, maximising shareholders wealth and investing of funds efficiently and effectively.

(v) Human Resource Management: Entrepreneur has to estimate the manpower needs of the enterprise and accordingly organise for recruitment procedure, selecting manpower, induction and training, determining compensation structure and incentives, designing motivation programmes, structuring wellbeing measures for employees, putting in place safety mechanism at workplace, performance evaluation and career advancement and structuring social security programmes.

Question 40.
Explain about the agricultural entrepreneur.
Answer:
Agricultural entrepreneurs are those entrepreneurs who raise farm products and market them. They use the various inputs like labour, fertilizer, insecticide, water technology, etc., to raise the products and market their products either directly or through co-operative entities or through brokers or through tie up with large retailers.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
What are the duties of a director?
Answer:
Directors act as agents of the shareholders and act as trustees of shareholders. The following are the duties of directors:
Collective Duties of Directors: Directors as a part of Board perform certain duties collectively. The duties are as follows:

• Approval of annual accounts and authentication of annual accounts
• Appointment of First Auditors
• Passing of resolutions at board meetings
• Directors report to shareholders highlighting the performance of the company.

General duties of Directors:

• Delegating power to any committee
• Issuing instructions to employees for implementation of policy
• Appointing their subordinates like Managing director, Manager, Secretary and other employees
• Act in Good faith in order to promote the objectives of the company

[OR]

(b) How market information is helpful to invention of new product in the market?
Answer:
According to Clark and Clark, market information means “all the facts, estimates, opinions and other information used in marketing of goods”.
From the above definition the details about the market may be obtained from conducting market research and other inventory methods. Market research is solely concerned with the collection of information about the market.
The following information may be collected:

• Goods needed by the customers.
• Time and want of the goods
• Quality wanted
• Size of the market
• Means of transport

Use to Invent New product: Adequate and accurate information help in the formulation of policies. Based on the taste and preferences, demand and supply of the products, the company can introduce new product. Also the company has to increase the quality and number of products depending upon the information available.

Question 42.
(a) State the powers of the directors.
Answer:
Powers of Directors: The directors must have powers to carry on objectives of the company.
The powers may be of four types:

• Statutory Powers of Directors
• Managerial Powers of Directors
• Powers only with a resolution
• Other Powers

Statutory Powers: The following powers must be used in the Board meeting:

• Power to make calls on shareholders in respect of money unpaid on their shares
• Power to issue debentures
• Power to borrow money other than on debentures
• Power to invest the funds of the company
• Power to approve financial statement and Board report

Managerial Powers:

• Power to allot, forfeit or transfer shares of company
• Power to decide the terms and conditions to issue debentures
• Power to appoint Managing Director, Manager and Secretary of the company.

Powers only with a resolution:

• To sell or lease any asset of the company
• To issue bonus shares
• To allow time to the director for repayment of the loan

Other Powers:

• Power to fill casual vacancy
• Power to appoint the first auditor of the company
• Power to appoint alternative directors, additional directors
• Power to remove key managerial personnel

[OR]

(b) Write about the contribution of Drucker to management.
Answer:
“Management is a multipurpose organ that manages a business and manages manager, and manages worker and work.”— Peter F. Drucker: The Practice of Management.
Drucker stresses three jobs of management:

• Managing a business;
• Managing manager; and
• Managing workers and work.

Even if one is omitted, It would not have management anymore and it also would’not have a business enterprise or an industrial society. According to P. Drucker, the manager has to balance and integrate three major jobs of a business enterprise as mentioned above. Hence, a manager is a dynamic and life-giving element in every business. Without efficient management it cannot be possible to secure the best allocation and utilisation of human, material and financial resources.

Question 43.
(a) Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market.
Answer:

Basis For Comparison	New Issue Market	Secondary Market
Meaning	The market place for new shares is called primary market. (Initial Issues Market)	The place where formerly issued securities are traded is known as Secondary Market. (Resale Market)
Buying	Direct	Indirect
Financing	It supplies funds to budding enterprises and also to existing companies for expansion and diversification.	It does not provide funding to companies.
How can securities be sold?	Only once	Multiple times
Buying and Selling between	Company and Investors	Investors
Gained person	Company	Investors
Intermediary	Underwriters	Brokers
Price	Fixed price                               “	Fluctuates, depends on the demand and supply force.
Organizational difference	Not rooted to any specific spot or geographical location.      .	It has physical existence.

[OR]

(b) Explain the functions of Stock Exchange. (Any 5)
Answer:

• Ready and Continuous Market: Stock exchange helps the investors to sell his securities easily. And also he can convert his cash into securities.
• Correct Evaluation of Securities: The prices at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and informed to the public. These prices are called “market quotations”.
• Protection to Investors: All dealings in a stock exchange are in accordance with well-defined rules and regulations. Any malpractice will be severely punished.
• Proper Channelisation of Capital: People like to invest in the shares of companies which yield good profits. Also people invest in the companies which are giving good dividends.
• Facilities for Speculation: Speculation is an integral part of stock exchange operations. As a result of speculation, demand for and supply of securities are equalized.

Question 44.
(a) Explain the different methods of recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment means selecting the right person for the right job. There are basically two ways by which an organisation can recruit its employees – Internal and External sources. External sources can further be classified into Direct and Indirect sources.

Internal Sources:
Transfer, Upgrading, Promotion, Demotion, Recommendation by existing Employees, Job rotation, Retired employees, Dependants, Previous applicants, Acquisitions and Mergers.

External Sources:

• Direct – Advertisements, Unsolicited applicants, Walk-ins, Campus Recruitment, Recruitment at Factory gate, Rival firms, e-Recruitment.
• Indirect – Employee referral, Govemment/Public Employment Exchanges, Employment Agencies, Employment Consultancies, Professional Associations, Deputation, Word of mouth, Labour Contractors, Job Portals, Outsourcing, Poaching.

[OR]

(b) State the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

• Goods produced may be stored till the time of demand. Hence the goods are stored in warehouses.
• Also the goods are stored till the goods have good quality.
• Warehouses create time utility by storing the goods throughout the year and release them as and when they are needed.

Several types of warehouses are used for storing of goods.
They are as follows:

• Public warehouse
• Private warehouse
• Bonded warehouse

Question 45.
(a) Explain the duties of consumers.
Answer:
Apart from rights, there are certain duties imposed on the consumer. The following are the
duties of consumers:

• Buying Quality Products at Reasonable Price: It is the duty of a consumer to purchase a product after gaining a thorough knowledge of its price, quality and other terms and conditions.
• Ensure the Weights and Measurement before Purchase: The consumer should ensure that he/she is getting the product of exact weight and measure.
• Reading the Label Carefully: It is the duty of the consumer to read the label of the product thoroughly.
• Beware of False and Attractive Advertisements: It is the prime duty of the consumer about the genuineness of the advertisement, before purchasing the product.
• Ensuring the Receipt of Cash Bill: It is a legitimate duty of consumers to get the cash receipt and warranty card supplied along with the bill.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the role of macro environment of business.
Answer:
This is the general or overall environment in which the business operates. The success of a business is dependent on its ability to adapt to the macro environment.

Role of Macro-environment:

• The business is an integral part of the economic system prevalent in a nation.
• Business is a part of the society. Social environment refers to the sum total of factors of the society in which the business is located.
• The success of a business lies in its ability to adapt and sustain to political and legal changes. The legislative, executive and judiciary are the three political institutions which directs and influences a business.
• The natural, geographical and ecological factors have a bearing on the business.

Question 46.
(a) Distinguish between sale and agreement to sell.
Answer:

Basis for Comparison	Sale	Agreement to Sell
1. Ownership	The property (ownership or title) in the goods passes from the seller to the buyer immediately.	The property (ownership or title) in the goods has to pass at a future time or after the fulfilment of certain conditions.
2. Risk of Loss	Where the goods sold under the contract of sale are destroyed, the loss falls fully on the buyer as the ownership has already passed.	Where the goods under the agreement to sell are destroyed, the loss falls fully on the seller as the ownership is still vested with seller.
3. Consequences of violating the contract	Where the buyer fails to pay the price, the seller cannot seize the goods.	Where the buyer violates the contract, the seller can repossess the goods from the former.
4. Nature of contract	It is an executed contract.	It is an executory contract, i.e., contract yet to be performed.
5. Insolvency of the Buyer	In a sale, if a buyer becomes insolvent before he pays for the goods even though the goods sold are under the possession of the seller, the latter has to return them to the Official Receiver..	If the buyer becomes insolvent before the payment of the price, the seller can retain the goods if they are under his possession.

[OR]

(b) Explain the different kinds of endorsements.
Answer:
When the person signs on the back of the instrument to transfer his interest, it is known as endorsement. The endorsements are of various types:

• Blank or general endorsement : When the endorser puts his mere signature on the back of an instrument without mentioning the name of the person to whom the endorsement is made, it is called Blank Endorsement
• Endorsement in full or special endorsement : If the endorser, in addition to his signature, mentions the name of the person to whom it is endorsed, is known as endorsement in full or special endorsement.
• Conditional endorsement : When the endorser of a negotiable instrument makes his liability dependent upon the happening of an event which may or may not happen, it is called conditional endorsement.
• Restrictive endorsement : When an endorsement restricts or prohibits further negotiability of the instrument, it is called Restrictive Endorsement.
• Partial Endorsement : Where the endorsement seeks to transfer only a part of the amount payable under the instrument, the endorsement is called Partial Endorsement.

Question 47.
(a) How do you classify entrepreneurs?
Answer:
Entrepreneurs are now broadly classified into three groups namely risk bearer, organiser and innovator.
(i) Entrepreneur as a risk bearer: Entrepreneurs acts as an agent combining all factors of production to produce a product or service in order to sell at uncertain price in future.

(ii) Entrepreneur as an organiser: Entrepreneur is one who brings together various factors of production and creates an entity to produce product or service and supervise and coordinates several functions in the process.

(iii) Entrepreneur as an innovator: According to Joseph A. Schumpeter in the year 1934 used innovation as a criterion to define an individual as entrepreneui.
According to him, entrepreneur is one who-

• Introduces a brand new product in the market.
• Institutes new technology to produce a new product.
• Discovers new course of supply of raw materials.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the nature of functional entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Nature of functional entrepreneurs:

• Innovative Entrepreneur: He is a person who introduces new project. They observe the environment regarding information to the new venture.
• Imitative Entrepreneur: He refers to the person who simply imitates existing knowledge or technology already in advance countries. Redesigning of products suited to the local conditions.
• Fabian Entrepreneur: These are said to be conservatives and sceptical about any changes in their organisation. They are of risk-averse.
• Drone Entrepreneur: Drone entrepreneurs are those who are totally opposed to changes in the environment. They used to operate in the niche market.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?
(a) Only one time
(b) Two times
(c) Three times
(d) Multiple times
Answer:
(d) Multiple times

Question 2.
Money market Institutions are ………………
(a) Investment Houses
(b) Mortgage Banks
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses
Answer:
(d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses

Question 3.
Risk in the Money Market is ………………
(a) High
(b) Market Risk
(c) Low credit and Market Risk
(d) Medium Risk
Answer:
(c) Low credit and Market Risk

Question 4.
A pessimistic speculator is ………………
(a) Stag
(b) Bear
(c) Bull
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(b) Bear

Question 5.
An optimistic speculator is ……………
(a) Bull
(b) Bear
(c) stag
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(a) Bull

Question 6.
SEBI is empowered by the Finance Ministry nominate ……………. mumbers on the governing body of every stock exchange.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 7.
The process of converting physical shares into electronic from is called from is called …………..
(a) Dematerialisation
(b) Delisting
(c) Materialisation
(d) Debarring
Answer:
(a) Dematerialisation

Question 8.
Labour turnover is the rate at which employees the organisation.
(a) enter
(b) leave
(c) salary
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) leave

Question 9.
Which of the following test is used to measure the various characteristics of the candidate?
(a) physical Test
(b) psychological Test
(c) attitude Test
(d) proficiency Tests
Answer:
(b) psychological Test

Question 10.
When trainees are trained by supervisor or by superior at the job is called …………..
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Refresher training
(c) Role Pay
(d) Apprenticeship training
Answer:
(d) Apprenticeship training

Question 11.
Stock Exchange Market is also called …………..
(a) Spot Market
(b) Local Market
(c) Security Market
(d) National Market
Answer:
(c) Security Market

Question 12.
Marketing mix means a marketing program that is offered by a firm to to its target ………….. to earn profits through satisfaction of their wants.
(a) Wholesaler
(b) Retailer
(c) Consumer
(d) Seller
Answer:
(c) Consumer

Question 13.
Effective use of Social media marketing increase conversion rates of ……………..
(a) Customer to buyers
(b) Retailer to customers
(c) One buyer to another buyer’s
(d) Direct contact of marketer
Answer:
(a) Customer to buyers

Question 14.
The Consumer protection Act came into force with effect from ……………
(a) 1.1. 1986
(b) 1.4.1986
(c) 15.4. 1987
(d) 15.4.1990
Answer:
(c) 15.4. 1987

Question 15.
Which of the following is not consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right’to consume
(d) Right to he informed
Answer:
(a) Right to safety

Question 16.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of goods/services complained against and the compensation, if any, claimed is………………..
(a) Exceeding ₹ 1 crore
(b) Exceeding ₹ 10 lakhs
(c) Exceeding ₹ 5 lakhs
(d) Exceeding ₹ 12 lakhs
Answer:
(a) Exceeding ₹ 1 crore

Question 17.
New Economic Policy was introduced in the year
(a) 1980
(b) 1991
(c) 2013
(d) 2015
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 18.
In which of the following types, the ownership is immediately transferred to buyer?
(a) When goods are ascertained
(b) When goods are appropriate
(c) Delivery to the carrier
(d) Sale or return basis
Answer:
(c) Delivery to the carrier

Question 19.
………………. cannot be a bearer instrument.
(a) Cheque
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Bills of exchange
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Cheque

Question 20.
Which of the below is not classified into managerial functions?
(a) Planning
(b) Marketing
(c) Organising
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Organising

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by Span of Management?
Answer
The Span of Management refers to the number of subordinates who can be managed efficiently by a superior. Simply, the manager having the group of subordinates who report him directly is called as the span of management.

Question 22.
What is Mutual Fund?
Answer
Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of small investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’. A mutual fund company invests the funds pooled from shareholders and gives them the benefit of diversified investment portfolio and a reasonable return.

Question 23.
Who is called a Broker?
Answer
Broker is a commission agent. He acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers of securities. He charges a commission for his services from both the parties.

Question 24.
What is Mentoring training method?
Answer
Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee. The focus in this training is on the development of attitude of trainees. It is mostly used for managerial employees.

Question 25.
Define E-Marketing.
Answer
“E-Marketing is achieving marketing objectives through use of digital technologies like Internet, world wide web, e-mail, wireless media, and management of digital customer data and electronic customer management systems.

Question 26.
What is caveat Venditor?
Answer
Today, most sales in the U.S. fall under the principle of caveat venditor, which means “let the seller beware,” by which goods are covered by an implied warranty of merchantability.

Question 27.
What is Privatisation.
Answer
Privatization is the incidence or process of transferring ownership of a business enterprise, agency or public service from the government to the private sector.

Question 28.
List three characteristics of a promissory Note.
Answer
Characteristics of a Promissory Note:

• A promissory note must be in writing.
• The promise to pay must be unconditional.
• It must be signed by the maker.

Question 29.
List down the promotional functions of entrepreneurs.
Answer

• Discovery of Idea
• Determining the business objectives
• Detailed Investigation
• Choice of form of enterprise
• Fulfilment of the formalities
• Preparation of Business Plan
• Mobilisation of funds
• Procurement of Machines and Materials

Question 30.
Name the companies required to appoint KMP?
Answer
Following Companies are required to appoint KMP:

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What determines the span of management?
Answer:
The Span of Management has two implications:

• Influences the complexities of the individual manager’s job.
• Determine the shape or configuration of the organisation.
• There is a wide and a narrow span of management.

Question 32.
Bring out the scope of financial market in India.
Answer:
The financial market provides financial assistance to individuals, agricultural sectors, industrial sectors, service sectors, financial institutions like banks, insurance sectors, provident funds and the government as a whole. With the help of the financial market all the above stated individuals, institutions and the Government can get their required funds in time. Through the financial market the institutions get their short term as well as long term financial assistance. It leads to overall economic development.

Question 33.
Explain the types of Treasury Bills?
Answer:
Treasury Bills are issued to the public and other financial institutions for meeting the short-term financial requirements of the Central Government. Treasury Bills may be classified into three. They are:

• 91 days Treasury Bills
• 182 days Treasury Bills and
• 64 days Treasury Bills 34.

Question 34.
Explain National Stock Exchange. (NSE)
Answer:
National Stock Exchange was incorporated in November, 1992. It uses satellite link to spread trading throughout the country. Through computer network, members’ orders for buying and selling within prescribed price are matched by central computer.

Question 35.
Name the types of Selection Test.
Answer:
Selection tests are of two types:

• Ability Tests and Personality Tests. Ability tests can further be divided into: aptitude test, achievement test, intelligence test, and judgement test.
• Personality tests can further be divided into: interest test, personality inventory test, projective test or thematic appreciation test, and attitude test.

Question 36.
Write the importance of Consumerism.
Answer:
Importance of consumerism lies in

• Awakening and uniting consumers
• Discouraging unfair trade practices
• Protecting against exploitation
• Awakening the government.
• Effective implementation of consumer protection laws
• Providing complete and latest information
• Discouraging anti-social activities

Question 37.
What are the advantages of disinvestment?
Answer:
Disinvestment in PSUs: The Govt, has started the process of disinvestment in those PSUs which had been running into loss. It means that Govt, has been selling out these industries to private sector. So disinvestment is a system of privatizing government enterprises.

Question 38.
Explain the promotional functions of entrepreneur.
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Determining the business objectives: Entrepreneur has to develop business objectives in the backdrop of nature of business and type of business activity i.e. nature of business, manufacturing or trading, type of business organisation chosen so that he/she can organise the venture in accordance with the objectives determined by him/her.

(iii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iv) Choice of form of enterprise: Entrepreneur has to choose the appropriate form of organisation suited to implement the venture. There are various forms of organisation namely sole proprietor, partnership, company and co-operatives etc. which are in existence.

(v) Fulfilment of the formalities: Having chosen the appropriate type of organisation, entrepreneur has to take necessary steps to establish the form of organisation chosen. As regards sole trader, the formalities are barest minimum. In the case of partnership firm, entrepreneur has to arrange for partnership deed and he has to get the deed registered.

(vi) Preparation of Business Plan: Entrepreneur has to prepare a business plan or project report
of the venture that he is proposing to take up.

(vii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(viii) Procurement of Machines and Materials: Entrepreneur has to locate the various sources of supply of machineries, equipments and materials.

Question 39.
What is Causal Vacancy?
Answer:
If a director is absent from India, for a period which is not less than three months, then it is called casual vacancy. It may be filled by the appointment of alternate director. The appointment must be authorised by the articles of association by passing a resolution in the meeting.

Question 40.
Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
Answer:
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority, i.e. if the members of votes cast by members, entitled to vote in favour of the resolution is more than the votes cast against the resolution.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change or rectify the name of the company
• To alter the share capital of the company
• To redeem the debentures

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41
(a) Explain Lombard Street and Wall Street.
Answer:
Lombard Street
Lombard Street is in London. It is a street notable for its connections with the merchants, banking and insurance industries of London. From bank junction, where nine streets converge by the bank of England, Lombard Street runs southeast for a short distance.

Wall Street
Wall Street is a street in New York. It is the original home of the New York Stock exchange.
Also it is the historic headquarters of the largest U.S. brokerages and investment banks.
Wall Street is also used as a collective name for the financial and investment community.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Operating functions of HRM.
Answer:
Operating functions of HRM:

• Procurement: Acquisition deals with job analysis, human resource planning, recruitment, selection, placement and promotion.
• Development: It includes performance appraisal, training, executive development, and organisational development.
• Compensation: It deals with job evaluation, wage and salary administration, incentives, bonus schemes.
• Retention: This is made possible through health and safety, social security, job satisfaction and quality of work life.
• Maintenance: This encourages employees to work with job satisfaction, reducing labour turnover, for human resource.

Question 42.
(a) Differentiate Recruitment and Selection.
Answer:

Basis for comparison	Recruitment	Selection
1. Meaning	It means searching candidates for the right job.	It refers to the process of selecting the suitable candidates and offering them job.
2. Objective	Inviting large number of candidates to apply for the vacant post.	Picking up the most suitable candidates.
3. Method	It is an economical method.	It is an expensive method.
4. Contractual relation	It involves the communication of vacancies. There is no contractual relation.	It creates contractual relation between employer and employee.
5. Process	Recruitment process is very simple.	Selection process is very complex and complicated.
6. Time	Requires less time since it involves merely identifying vacancies and advertising them.	It is more time-consuming because each and every candidate has to be tested on various aspects before finally being selected.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of placement.
Answer:
The following are the principles of placement:

• Job First, Man Next: Man should be placed on the job according to the requirements
  of the job.
• Job Offer: The job should be offered to the man based on his qualification.
• Terms and conditions: The employee should be informed about the terms and conditions of the organisation.
• Aware about the Penalties: The employee should also be made aware of the penalties if he / she commits a mistake.
• Loyalty and Co-operation: When placing a person in a new job, an effort should be made to develop a sense of loyalty and co-operation in him.

Question 43.
(a) What is Marketing?
Answer:

• Marketing is the performance of buying activities that facilitate to more flow of goods and services. It is one of the oldest profession in the world.
• Objective: The traditional objective of marketing had been to make the goods available at places where they are needed.
• Later on this idea was changed from ‘exchange’ to “Satisfaction of human wants”. Marketing is linking the consumer and the producer. Also marketing helps to maintain economic stability and economic development.

[OR]

(b) What are the salient features of the Consumer Protection Act 1986?
Answer:
Salient features of The Indian Consumer Protection Act, 1986:

• Protecting consumers against products and services which are harmful to the health of the consumers.
• Ensuring consumers with supply of goods at fair quality.
• Ensuring the availability of goods in correct quantity and right size.
• Protecting the consumers against pollution of various kinds.
• Ensuring that consumers are charged fair price.
• Protecting the consumers against unfair trade practices of unscrupulous trader.

Question 44.
(a) What are the responsibilities of consumers?
Answer:
Rights and responsibilities are two sides of the same coin. The responsibilities of consumers are listed below:

• The consumer must pay the price of the goods according to the terms and conditions.
• The consumer has the responsibility to make the seller to deliver the goods in time.
• The consumer has to bear any loss, which may arise to the seller, due to delay in taking delivery.
• The consumer has to follow the instructions and precautions while using the product.
• The consumer must collect the cash receipt as a proof of goods purchased from the seller.
• The consumer must file a complaint with the seller about the defects in products or deficiency in service.

[OR]

(b) Discuss in detail the rights of an unpaid seller against the goods.
Answer
A seller is deemed to be an unpaid seller when :
(a) the whole of the price has not been paid or
(b) a bill of exchange or other negotiable instrument given to him has been dishonoured. Rights of an Unpaid Seller against the Goods: Where the Property in the Goods has Passed to the Buyer:
Right of Lien: An unpaid seller has a right to retain the goods till he receives the price. But to exercise this lien-
(i) He must be in possession of goods
(ii) The goods must have been sold without any condition.

• Right of Stoppage in Transit: Where the seller has delivered the goods to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer, but the buyer has not acquired them, then the seller can stop the goods.
• Right of Resale: The unpaid seller can resell the goods

(iii) Where they are of a perishable nature or
(iv) Where the seller has expressly reserved the right of resale in the contract itself.

Question 45.
(a) Discuss the problems faced by Women Entrepreneurs?
Answer:
There is a tremendous growth in the women entrepreneurship in India. But there are certain problems met by women entrepreneurs. They are as follows
(i) Problem of Finance: The external sources of funds for the women is limited because they do not generally own properties in their own name. They are depending on their own savings and loan from friends and relatives.
(ii) Lack of Education: Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs face difficulties in respect of accounts, money matters, marketing and day-to-day operations

(iii) Lack of Network Support: The success of business depends on the support of family members, friends and relatives. But it is reported that the women entrepreneurs get very limited support in times of crisis.
(iv) Stiff Competition: They have to face acute competition for their goods from organised sector and from their male counterparts.
(v) Lack of Information: The lack of knowledge or limited knowledge about subsidies, concessions and incentives given by Government will affect the business.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Preparation of a project report.
Answer:
An entrepreneur can get the report prepared by technical consultancy organisations or by auditors or by government agencies. The report should include the following:
(i) Technical feasibility: It should contain the description of product, raw materials, quality control measures, water, power and transport.
(it) Economic viability: It involves compilation of demand for domestic and export market.
(iii) Financial viability: It should cover the aspects like: Non-recurring expenses like cost of land, and building. Recurring expenses like wages and salaries.
(iv) Managerial competency: Entrepreneurs has to include the mechanism for managing the venture in the project report.

(v) Provisional registration certificate: He has to apply for provisional registration certificate. It will be issued after certain conditions for a period of one year.
(vi) Permanent registration certificate: If the venture has commenced production, or is ready to commence production, it is eligible to get permanent registration certificate.
(vii) Statutory licence: He should obtain Municipal Licence from the authority concerned.
(viii) Power connection: He has to make application to Assistant Divisional Engineer of Electricity Board for power connection.
(ix) Arrangement of finance: Entrepreneur requires two types of finance namely Long term and Short term.

Question 46.
(a) Explain how director of a company can be removed from the office?
Answer:
A Director of Company can be removed from his Office before the expiry of his term by

• the Shareholders
• the Central Government
• the Company Law Board

(i) Removal by shareholders (Sec- 169): A company may, by giving a special notice and passing an ordinary resolution, remove a director before the expiry of his period of office.
(ii) Removal by the Central Government: The Central Government has been empowered to remove managerial personnel from office on the recommendation of the Company Law Board under the following situations:

• Where a person concerned in the conduct and management of the affairs of a company has been guilty of fraud and negligence.
• If the business is managed by a person without sound business principles.
• Where the business of a company has been managed by such a person, who likes to cause injury or damage to the business.

(iii) Removal by the Company Law Board: If an application has been made to the Company Law Board against the oppression and mismanagement of the company’s affairs by a director, then the Company Law Board may order to terminate the director.

[OR]

(b) Describe the different types of resolutions which company may pass in the suitable matters required for each type of resolution.
Answer:
A motion, with or without the amendments which is put to vote at a meeting and passed with the required quorum becomes resolution. Resolution may be classified into three types. They are: Ordinary resolution, Special resolution and resolution requiring special notice.

(i) Ordinary Resolution: An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change or rectify the name of the company
• To alter the share capital of the company
• To redeem the debentures
• To declare the dividends
• To appoint the directors

(ii) Special Resolution: A special resolution is the one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority.
Special Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change the registered office of the company
• To alter the Articles of Association
• To commence any new business
• To appoint the auditor for the company

(iii) Resolution requiring Special Notice: There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting.

The following matters require special notice:

• To remove a director before the expiry of his period
• To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

Question 47.
(a) Discuss the significance of understanding business environment and the internal factors affecting business.
Answer:
A business in order to remain successful and competitive has to adapt to the constantly changing environment. The significance of understanding the business environment is as follows:

• Helps in formulating strategy and future planning.
• The analysis of business environment helps a business to identify new opportunities.
• Environment scanning helps the firms to identify threats which affect the business.

Internal factors of environment:

• Value system: The success of an organisation depends upon the sharing of value system by all members.
• Vision and objectives: The vision and objectives of a business guides its operations and strategic decisions.
• Management structure: The structure of management/board and their style of functioning, the composition of the board.
•  Internal power relations: This refers to the internal power relations that exist in an organisation. The relations among board members, and the CEO and employees, shareholders are the factors affecting in taking decisions.

[OR]

(b) What is Voluntary Consumer Organisations? Explain its Functions.
Answer:
Voluntary consumer organisations refer to the organisation formed voluntarily by the consumers to protect their rights and interests.
Functions:

• Collecting Data on Different Products: These organizations collect samples of different products from time to time and test them.
• Filing Suit on Behalf of Consumers: If a consumer is not able to protest regarding his complaints, these organisations file case in the court, on behalf of a consumer.
• Protests against Adulteration: The consumer organisations play a significant role in eliminating the evil of adulteration, hoarding, black-marketing.
• Helping Educational Institutions: These organizations advice the educational institutions the way to prepare courses of study.
• Extending Support to Government: Consumer organisations keep informing the government agencies about adulteration, artificial scarcity, inferior quality products.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair
(b) P. Rangaiah
(c) G. Subramaniam
(d) G.A. Natesan
Answer:
(b) P. Rangaiah

Question 2.
Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina
(b) Mylapore
(c) Fort St. George
(d) Thousand Lights
Answer:
(d) Thousand Lights

Question 3.
Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) M. Veeraraghavachari
(c) B.P. Wadia
(d) G.S. Arundale
Answer:
(a) Annie Besant

Question 4.
Which among the following was SILF’s official organ in English?
(a) Dravidian
(b) Andhra Prakasika
(c) Justice
(d) New India
Answer:
(c) Justice

Question 5.
Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurty
(b) Kastunrangar
(c) P. Subbarayan
(d) Periyar EVR
Answer:
(a) S. Satyamurty

Question 6.
Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) Kamaraj
(b) Rajaji
(c) K. Santhanam
(d) T. Prakasam
Answer:
(d) T. Prakasam

Question 7.
Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 8.
Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India Movement?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(d) Madurai

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court.
2. The economic exploitation of India was exposed by ………………… through his writings.
3. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named …………………
4. The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by …………………
5. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by …………………
6. ………………… formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
7. ………………… was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
8. ………………… hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.

Answers:

1. T. Muthuswami
2. G. Subramaniam
3. Bharata Matha Society
4. B.P.Wadia
5. C. Natesanar
6. C. Rajaji
7. Yakub Hasan
8. Bashyam

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) EVR did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) is correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more power.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in legislature.
Reason (R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
List out the contribution of the moderates.
Answer:
The primary contribution of the moderates lies in exposing the liberal claims of the British. They exposed how the British exploited India, and their hypocrisy in following democratic principles in England but imposing an unrepresentative government in colonies.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Tirunelveli Uprising.
Answer:

1. V.O Chidambaranar with Subramania Siva an organising the mill workers in Thoothukudi and Tirunelveli.
2. In 1908 he led a strike in the European owned coral mills. It coincided with the release of Bipin Chandra Pal.
3. In celebrate the release of Bipin Chandra Pal V.O.C and Subramania Siva organised a public meeting.
4. The two leaders were charged with sedition and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment.
5. The news of the arrest sparked riots in Tirunelveli leading to the burning down of the Police Station, Court Building and Municipal Office.
6. It led to the death of four people in police firing. V.O.C was treated harshly.

Question 3.
What is the contribution of Annie Besant to India’s freedom struggle?
Answer:
Annie Besant started the Home Rule League. She wrote two books and a pamphlet on self-government. Members of the movement played a key role in organising working classes through trade unions.

Question 4.
Mention the various measures introduced by the Justice Ministry.
Answer:
The Justice Ministry introduced “Various measures for the benefit of Non – Brahmins, They were

1. Reservation of appointments in local bodies and education institutions.
2. Establishment of Staff Selection Board which later became the Public Service Commission.
3. Enactment of Hindu Religious Endowment Act.
4. Madras State Aid to Industries Act.
5. Abolition of Devadasi system.
6. Allotment of waste Government lands (Poromboke) to the poor for housing.
7. Extension of primary education to the depressed classes through fee concessions, scholarships and mid – day meals.

Question 5.
Write briefly on EVR’s contribution to the constructive programme?
Answer:
E.V. Ramaswamy campaigned for the promotion and sale of khadi, opposed the consumption of liquor, and played a key role in the satyagraha for temple entry in Vaikom. Gandhi called him Vaikom Hero for his contribution against caste discrimination and agitation for temple entry.

Question 6.
What is Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy?
Answer:

1. To further the cause of national education a gurukulam was established in Cheranmadevi by V.V Subramanianar. It received funds from congress.
2. Students were discriminated on the basis of caste.
3. They were made to dine separately and the food served too was different.
4. The issue was brought to the notice of E.V.R who questioned and severely criticised it along with another leader Dr. RVaradarajulu.
5. The Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy and opposition to communal representation within the congress led to E.V.R (Periyar) to leave the Congress.

Question 7.
Why was anti-Hindi agitation popular?
Answer:
The anti-Hindi agitation was popular because Hindi was considered a form of Aryan and North Indian imposition which was detrimental to Tamil language and culture.

Question 8.
Outline the key incidents during the Quit India Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
On 8^th August 1942 Quit India resolution was passed. The entire congress leadership was arrested overnight.

1. At every railway station the policemen waited with a list of local leaders and arrested them when they got down.
2. Kamaraj who saw this on his return from Bombay conference slipped from police arrest. He then worked underground and organised the people during Quit India Movement.
3. All sections of society participated in the movement.
4. There were many instances of violence such as setting fire to post offices Vellore and Panapakkam.
5. Gutting of telegraph lines.
6. Congress volunteers clashed with the Military in Madurai.
7. Disrupting railway traffic trains derailed in Coimbatore.
8. There were police firings at Rajapalayam, Karaikudi and Devakottai.

These were some of the key incidents.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu

(a) What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
Answer:
The objective of Madras Native Association was to promote the interests of its members and reduction of taxes. It also protested against the government’s support to missionary activities.

(b) What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The entire press opposed the appointment of the first South Indian judge of the Madras High Court in 1878. This led to a need of a nationalist press to express the Indian perspective. The Hindu was started in 1878 and soon became a vehicle for nationalist propaganda.

(c) What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
Answer:
The demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha were to conduct civil services examinations simultaneously in England and India, abolition of India Council in London, reduction of taxes, and reduction of civil and military expenditure.

(d) Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Some early nationalists in Tamil Nadu were: V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, P.S. Sivasamy Iyer, V. Krishnasamy Iyer, T.R. Venkatrama Sastri, G.A. Natesan, T.M. Madhava Rao and S. Subramania Iyer.

Question 2.
Revolutionary Movement In Tamil Nadu:

(a) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
M.P.T. Acharya, V.V. Subramanianar and T.S.S. Rajan were few of the revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.

(b) Why did Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry?
Answer:
To avoid imprisonment, Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry.

(c) Name a few of the revolutionary literature.
Answer:
Few of the Revolutionary literature were India, Vijaya and Suryodayam.

(d) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
Vanchinathan of Senkottai, influenced by Bharatha Matha Society, shot dead Robert W.D’E. Ashe collector of Tirunelveli in Maniyachi junction.

Question 3.
Non-Brahmin Movement

(a) Why was the South Indian Liberal Federation formed?
Answer:
The South Indian Liberal Federation was formed to promote the interests of non-Brahmins.

(b) What is the Non-Brahmin Manifesto?
Answer:
The Non-Brahmin Manifesto had objectives such as reservation of jobs for non-Brahmins in government service and seats in representative bodies. It opposed the Home Rule Movement and criticised Congress as a party of Brahmins.

(c) Why did EVR join the Non-Brahmin Movement?
Answer:
EVR joined the non-Brahmin movement because he felt the Congress was promoting the interests of Brahmins alone.

(d) What do you know about anti-Hindi agitation?
Answer:
A massive campaign was led by EVR against the introduction of Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools. The anti-Hindi agitation was popular because Hindi was considered a form of Aryan and North Indian imposition. EVR organized an anti-Hindi conference. More than ‘ 1200 protesters were arrested at a rally. The subject was later removed after protests.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The Swadeshi Movement made a deep impact in Tamil Nadu. The congress carried on Vigorous campaign for boycott of Foreign goods.

Prominent leaders who played a Key role:

V.O.Chidambaranar, V.Chakkaraiyar, Subramania Bharati and Surendranath Arya.

1. The extremist leader Bipin Chandrapal toured Madras and delivered lectures.
2. Inspired by his speech students and youths widely participated in the Swadeshi Movement.

Propagation of Swadeshi ideals:
Many journals were started to propagate Swadeshi ideals the prominent among them were swadesamitran and India.

Mobilisation of people:

1. Public meetings were organised in various parts of Tamil Nadu. Thousands of people attended it.
2. For the first time was used on the public platform.

Awakening and inculcating patriotic spirit:
Subramania Bharati’s patriotic songs were especially the most important in stirring the patriotic emotions of the people.

Question 2.
Examine the origin and growth of Non-Brahmin Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
As there was rapid growth of education in Madras Presidency, there was an increase in the number of educated non-Brahmins. They began to raise the issue of caste discrimination and unequal opportunities in employment and representation in elected bodies. The Congress also mainly consisted of Brahmins. The non-Brahmins then began to organise themselves into political organisations to protect their interests, such as the Madras Dravidian Association and the South Indian Liberal Federation. A non-Brahmin manifesto was also released.

Question 3.
Describe the role of Tamil Nadu in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:

1. Transformation of congress: In the 1920’s congress with Gandhi in leadership was transforming in to a broad based movement in Tamil Nadu.
2. The Madras session of the Indian National Congress in 1927 declared complete independence as its goal.
3. In the 1929 Pooma Swaraj was adopted as the goal at Lahore session of Congress.
4. In 1930 Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement by setting out on a salt satyagraha with a march to a Dandi.

Role of Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu was in the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. In city of Madras shops were picketed and foreign goods boycotted.

Salt Satyagraha: Rajaji organised and led a Salt Satyagraha to Vedaranyam. The march started from Trichirapalli to Vedaranyam on 13th April 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in Thanjavur district on 28th April.

Special Song: Composed by Ramalinganar (Nammakkal Kavingnar) for the March.

Leaders who participated: T.S.S.Rajan, C.Swaminathar, Rukmani Lakshmipathi, Sardar Vedarathnam and K.Santhanam.

Agitations: The Satyagraha’s under the leadership of T.Prakasan and K.Nageswara Rao set up a camp at Udayavanani near Madras. Police arrested them that led to Hartal in Madras. Clashes with the police in Tiruvallikeni lasted for three hours on 27th April 1930 left three dead.

Response from the people:

1. Mill workers struck work across the province.
2. Women participated enthusiastically.
3. Volunteers attempted to offer Salt Satyagraha at Rameswaram, Thoothukudi, Uvari, Anjengo, Veppalodai, and Tharuvaikulam were stopped and arrested.

Important Event: Bhashyam popularly known as Arya, hoisted the national flag atop St. George Fort on 26th January 1932. Satyamurti, actively picketed shops selling foreign clothes, organised processions and distributed pamphlets.

Martyrdom of Tirupur Kumaran: On January 1932 a procession carrying national flags singing patriotic songs were brutally beaten up by police in Tirupur. Tirupur Kumaran fell dead holding the flag a loft. Thus civil Disobedience movement was one of the mass movements in Tamil Nadu.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to write a sentence or two about the important places of freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Important Places of freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu a sentence or two about each place.

Madras:

1. Thousands lights: Third session of Indian Nation Congress was held in 1887 with Badruddin Tyabji as president 362 members participated out of 607 were from Madras.
2. Thoothukudi: Swadesh ships plied from Thoothukudi to Colombo launched ’ by the Swadeshi steam Navigation company of V.O.Chidambaranar.
3. Tirunelveli: Mill workers led a strike under Swadeshi Movement.
4. Pondicherry: Haven for the revolutionists Maniyachi junction (Tirunelveli). Collector W.D’E. Ashe was shot dead by a revolutionary youth Vanchinathan.
5. Adayar (Madras): Home Rule Movement was started by Annie Besant in 1916.
6. Marina Beach: On 18th March 1919 Gandhi addressed a meeting on Marina Beach against ‘Black Act’ (Rowlatt Act).
7. Tiruchirapalli: Salt March started from here.
8. Vedaranyam: Salt march led by Rajaji ended by breaking salt law.
9. Thirupur: Martyrdom of Kumaran holding National Flag.
10. Madurai: Temple entry programme with Harijans in Meenakshi amman temple was organised.
11. Salem: Anti Hindi agitation.
12. Coimbatore: V.O. Chidambaranar made to pull oil press in the prison.

Question 2.
Role Play: Students can be divided into groups and asked to debate the -views of the Moderates, Extremists, Revolutionaries, Annie Besant’s supporters, Justice Party, and British Government.
Answer:
Characters:

1. British Government – Police forces, and Governor
2. Revolutionaries – Arbindo Gosh, Vanchinathan Bharathi (Songs)
3. Justice party – E.V.R (Periyar)
4. Moderates – V.O.Chidambaranar, Subramaniya siva, Rajaji, Satyamurti
5. Extremist – Bipin Chandra Pal

Debate Between

1. Justice party – EVR and Rajaji on the issue of Hindi as a compulsory language at schools and temple entry incident.
2. Extremists and moderates – Prochangers and No changers.
3. British Government and Revolutionaries.

The class can be divided into three groups each to represent (3 + 3)

2 persons can be selected for each group to represent the character. Character allotment can be given by the teacher concerned and the students are requested to prepare the dialogues.

Points for Debate can be selected from the events (in Tamil Nadu as given in the lesson) Swadeshi Movement, Anti Hindi Agitation, Vedaranyam Salt March, Vaikom Satyagraha Quit India Movement, Non – Cooperation Movement.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
Madras Native Association was formed in the year:
(a) 1825
(b) 1806
(c) 1852
(d) 1860
Answer:
(c) 1852

Question 2.
In 1908 Bharathiar organized a huge public meeting to celebrate ……………
(a) Swaraj day
(b) Birthday
(c) Republic day
Answer:
(a) Swaraj day

Question 3.
One of the prominent moderate who attended the meeting in Madras before the formation of Indian National Congress:
(a) Gokhale
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Aurobindo Gosh
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Question 4.
The person who is called Kappalotiya Tamizhan ……………..
(a) V.O.C
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Gandhiji
Answer:
(a) V.O.C

Question 5.
The extremist leaders …………………. inspired many youths to join the Swadeshi movement in Madras.
(a) Aurobindo Gosh
(b) Nilakanta Brahmachari
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Mrs. Annie Besant
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 6.
Gandhi’s ‘Do or Die’ slogan came during which movement?
(a) Non-cooperation Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Khilafat Movement
Answer:
(b) Quit India Movement

Question 7.
…………………. championed the cause of ‘Criminal Tribes’ of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Yakub Hasan
(b) V.V.Somayajulu
(c) George Joseph
(d) Maulana Shaukat Ali
Answer:
(c) George Joseph

Question 8.
The Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was launched at ………..
(a) Colombo
(b) Madras
(c) Vellore
(d) Thoothukudi
Answer:
(d) Thoothukudi

Question 9.
…………………. was one of the epicenter of Khilafat agitation.
(a) Chennai
(b) Vaniyambadi
(c) Arakkonam
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Vaniyambadi

Question 10.
Who gave the slogan “A war is ahead sans sword, sans bloodshed…”?
(a) T. Prakasham
(b) Namakkal V Ramalingam
(c) N. M. R. Subbaraman
(d) K. Kamraj
Answer:
(b) Namakkal V Ramalingam

Question 11.
…………………. arrived in Madras on 18th February 1929 greeted with hartals, demonstrations etc.
(a) Torture commission
(b) Cripps mission
(c) Simon commission
(d) Prince of Wales
Answer:
(c) Simon commission

Question 12.
In the elections held in …………………. the Swarajists won the majority seats in Madras.
(a) 1924
(b) 1926
(c) 1927
(d) 1906
Answer:
(b) 1926

Question 13.
At Vedaranyam …………………. broke the salt law by picking up salt along with 12 volunteers.
(a) T. Prakasam
(b) K. Nageswara Rao
(c) K. Kamaraj
(d) C. Rajaji
Answer:
(d) C. Rajaji

Question 14.
E.V.R. left the congress and started the …………………. movement.
(a) Swadeshi
(b) Quit India
(c) Self Respect
(d) Civil Disobedience
Answer:
(c) Self Respect

Question 15.
In Tamil Nadu …………………. were led by S. Srinivasanar and S.Satyamurthi.
(a) Swarajists
(b) Satyagrahis
(c) Mill workers
(d) Zamindars
Answer:
(a) Swarajists

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. contributed much to the development of education and amelioration of the depressed classes.
2. Introduction, of ……………….. helped the educated Indian middle class to fought against colonial rule.
3. Social disability hindered the society imposed by obnoxious ………………..
4. Madras Native Association was ceased to exist by ………………..
5. The newspaper ……………….. was started in 1878 became the vehicle of nationalist propaganda.
6. Swadesamitran periodical became daily newspaper in ………………..
7. Many of the demands of Madras Mahajana sabha were adopted later by the ………………..
8. The early nationalists believed in ……………….. methods.
9. The early nationalists were came to be knowrr as ………………..
10. Out of a total of 72 delegates who attended the first session of Indian National Congress ……………….. members were from Madras.
11. ……………….. through his writings advanced the cause of Nationalism.
12. ……………….. was previously called as ‘Makkis Garden’ where the third session of Indian National congress was held.
13. ……………….. partriotic songs arouse the patriotic emotions of the people.
14. V.O.Chidambaranar launched ……………….. in pursuance of Swadeshi at Thoothukudi.
15. The Swadeshi ships plied between ………………..
16. ……………….. and ……………….. were the name of the two ships purchased by V.O.Chidambaranar.
17. V.O.C was treated harshly in prison and was made to pull the ………………..
18. To avoid imprisonment Subramanya Bharati moved to ………………..
19. Revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were trained in revolutionary activities at ………………..
20. Revolutionary radical papers and Bharati’s poems were banned as ………………..
21. Revolutionary activities continued till the out break of ………………..
22. The revolutionary activities were intensified with arrival ……………….. and ……………….. in 1910.
23. ……………….. of senkottai was influenced by the Bharata Matha society.
24. ……………….. failed to inspire and mobilize the people despite their patriotism.
25. The objective of the Bharata Matha Society was to kindle the ……………….. fewer among the people by killing British officials.
26. At ……………….. the collector of Tirunelveli Robert W.D’E. Ashe was shot dead.
27. Mrs. Annie Besant started the newspapers ……………….. and ……………….. to carry forward her agenda of Home rule movement.
28. Under ……………….. Annie Besant was asked to pay hefty amount as security.
29. ……………….. was elected as the president of the congress session of 1917.
30. The differences between the two Non-Brahmin leaders ……………….. and ……………….. was solved by CNatesanar.
31. The ……………….. demanded communal representation.
32. The ……………….. provided reservation of seats to Non-Brahmins.
33. After the 1923 elections ……………….. of the Justice party formed the ministry.
34. The staff selection Board established by the Justice party later became the ………………..
35. The Rowlat Act was named after ……………….. who headed the committee.
36. On 18 march 1919 ……………….. addressed a meeting on marina beach to protest against Rowlet Act.
37. To further the cause of national education a gurukulam was started at ………………..
38. When Rajaji formed the ministry in 1937 the status of James Neill finally moved to ………………..
39. For the salt march to Vedaranyam led by C.Rajaji a special song was composed by ………………..
40. ……………….. was the forst woman to pay penalty for violation of salt laws.
41. ……………….. fell dead holding the national flag in a procession organised under Civil Disobedience Movement.
42. Tirupur Kumaran was hailed as ………………..
43. The ……………….. was trounced in 1937 elections to the Madras province.
44. ……………….. Act was passed in 1939 for the removal of the civil and social disabilities against the ‘depressed classes’.
45. The Governor of Madras who took over the administration removed ……………….. as compulsory subject after the resignation of the congress ministry.

Answers:

1. Christian Missionaries
2. Western Education
3. Caste, system
4. 1862
5. The Hindu
6. 1899
7. Indian National Congress
8. Constitutional
9. Moderates
10. 22
11. G. Subramaniam
12. Thousand lights
13. Subramanya Bharati
14. Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
15. Thoothukudi and Colombo
16. Gallia, Lavo
17. heavy oil press
18. Pondicherry
19. India House in London and in Paris
20. Seditious Literature
21. First World War
22. Aurobindo Ghosh, V.V.Subramanianar
23. Vanchinathan
24. Young revolutionaries
25. Patriotic
26. Maniyachi junction
27. India and Commonweal
28. Press Act of 1910
29. Annie Besant
30. Dr. T.M.Nair, and P.Thyagarayar
31. Justice party
32. Act of 1919
33. Raja of Panagal
34. Public Service Commission
35. Sir Sydney Rowlatt
36. Gandhi
37. Cheranmadevi
38. Madras Museum
39. Namakkal V. Ramalinganar
40. Rukmani Lakshmipathi
41. Tirupur Kumaran
42. Kodikatha Kumaran
43. Justice party
44. The Temple Entry Authorisation and Indemnity
45. Hindi

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Madras Native Association, Madras Mahajan Sabha and the Nationalist press led to the growth of Nationalism in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Madras Native Association primarily consisted merchants.
(iii) Madras Native Association focussed on reduction in taxation.
(iv) It led to the formation of congress.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The educated middle class did not show interest in public affairs.
(ii) The appointment of first Indian Judge to the Madras High court was Criticized by the press.
(iii) The moderates exposed the liberal claims of the British.
(iv) Boycott of foreign goods was not propagated by the congress.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) In 1908 V.O.C led a strike in the European owned Coral Mills.
(ii) V.O.C was given a draconian sentence of two life imprisonments.
(iii) Students and youths did not participated in the Swadeshi Movement.
(iv) Extremists and revolutionaries were not suppressed by the British with . an iron hand.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): When the National movement was in ebb, Annie Besant proposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): Home Rule Demanded a nominal allegience to British crown.
(a) A is correct but R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Kamaraj gave the police the slip and got down at Arakkonam worked underground to organise people during quit India movement.
Reason (R): While returning from Bombay he saw the police at every railway station to arrest the local leaders when they got down.
(a) Both A and R are correct R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct R explains A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): V.O.C and Subramania Siva were charged with sedition and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment.
Reason (R): Both the leaders organised a public meeting to celebrate the release of Bipin Chandrapal.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A
(d) Both A and R are correct R does not explains A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Kumaraswamy of Thiruppur is hailed as Kodikatha Kumaran.
Reason (R): At the procession of agitation as a part of civil obedience he fell dead holding the national flag aloft.
(a) A ands R are correct R is not explaining A
(b) A and R are wrong
(c) A is wrong R is correct
(d) Both A and R correct R explains A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R correct R explains A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (iii)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the question briefly

Question 1.
What do you know about Tirupur Kumaram?
Answer:

• Tirupur Kumaran was bom in Chennimalai, Erode district in Tamil Nadu.
• He was a great revolutionary.
• He participated in the march against the ban on the national flag and he died from injuries sustained from a police assault.
• Kumaran died holding the flag of the Indian Nationalists.
• Kumaran is revered as a martyr in Tamil Nadu and is known by the epithet Kodi Kaththa Kumaran.

Question 2.
Name the Newspapers and journals started by Indians to express the Indian perspective.
Answer:
To express the perspective of the Indians “The Hindu, Swadesamitran, Indian patriot, South Indian mail, Madras standard, vijaya’ India, Suryodayam, Desabhimani” were some of the newspapers started and they became the vehicle of nationalist propaganda.

Question 3.
Give an account on Vanchinathan’s role in the struggle for freedom.
Answer:

1. Vanchinathan was under the service of the state of Travancore.
2. The activities of the extremists greatly alarmed the British.
3. The collector Ashe, shot down and killed four extremists in Tirunelveli.
4. So Vanchinathan wanted to take revenge against the collector.
5. He secretly went to Maniyachi Railway Station and shot dead Ashe on 17th June 1911 and he himself committed suicide.

Question 4.
Name of the books written by Annie Besant.
Answer:
Annie Besant wrote two books namely.

1. How India wrought for freedom and
2. “India” – A nation and a pamphlet on self-Govemment.

Question 5.
Give an account on V.O.C role in the stuggle for freedom.
Answer:

• In 1907 V.O.C attended the congress sessions held at Surat.
• He followed the militant leader Bala Gangadhar Tilak and preached his philosophy.
• He charged with sedition he was sentenced to forty years of imprisonment.

Question 6.
Write a short note on south Indian Liberal Federation (SILF).
Answer:
The Non-Brahmins organised themselves into political organisation to protect their interests. On 20th November a meeting of about thirty Non -Brahmins was held under the leadership of Dr.T.M.Nair P.Thiyagarayar and C.Natesanar at victoria public hall chennai.. The South Indian Liberal Federation (SILF) was founded to promote the interests of Non-Brahmins. It later came to be known as ‘Justice Party’.

Question 7.
How was the freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu unique?
Answer:
The freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu was unique because from the beginning it was not only ‘ a struggle for independence from the English rule but also a struggle for independence from the social disability imposed by the obnoxious caste system.

Question 8.
When and where the meeting Rowlatt Sathyagraha held? Who addressed it?
Answer:
On 18th March 1919 a meeting was held on Marina Beach and Gandhi addressed the meeting. Later madras Satyagraha sabha was formed.

Question 9.
Throw light on the beginning of the nationalist press in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
When it was realised that press was essential to express the Indian perspective, people like G. Subramaniam, M. Veeraraghavachari and four other friends together started a newspaper The Hindu in 1878. Soon it became the vehicle of nationalist propaganda. G Subramaniam also started a Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran in 1891 which became a daily in 1899. The founding of The Hindu and Swadesamitran provided encouragement to the starting of other native newspapers such as Indian Patriot, South Indian Mail, Madras Standard, Desabhimani, Vijaya, Suryodayam, and India.

Question 10.
Describe briefly the Non-cooperation Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu was very active during the Non-cooperation Movement under the leadership of C Rajagopalachari and E V Ramaswamy. Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan, the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League. As a result, the Hindus and Muslims cooperated closely during the movement in Tamil Nadu. A Congress volunteer corps of about 1000 members was set up to distribute pamphlets, carry flags during processions and to maintain order in the meetings.

VI. Answer all the questions Given under each caption

Question 1.
Salt march to vedaranyam

(a) What was in forefront of the civil disobedience movement in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Demonstrations, hartals, staging of Swadeshi dramas and songs were the order of the day both in rural and urban areas of Tamil Nadu.

(b) How was the movement in Madras city?
Answer:
In the city of Madras as a part of civil Disobedience movement shops were picketed and foreign goods were.boycotted.

(c) Who organised and led the Salt Satyagraha March to Vedaranyam?
Answer:
Rajaji organised and led the Salt Satyagraha March ro Vedaranyam.

(d) From where and when does the march started and reached Vedaranyam?
Answer:
The march started from Trichirapalli on 13th April 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in (Tanjore district) on 28th April.

Question 2.
Swarajists-Justicites Rivalry
(a) Who were ‘no-changers’? Who were ‘pro-changers’?
Answer:
‘No-changers’ wanted to continue the boycott of the councils and ‘pro-changers’ wanted to ’ contest the elections for the councils.

(b) What did Rajaji oppose? Name two persons who supported him.
Answer:
Rajaji opposed the council entry. The two persons who supported him were Kasturi Ranga Iyengar and M. A. Ansari.

(c) Who formed Swaraj Party?
Answer:
Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru together formed the Swaraj Party.

(d) Who led the Swarajists in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
S. Srinivasa Iyengar and S. Satyamurthi led the Swarajists in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Non-cooperation Movement in Tamil nadu

(a) Name the leaders provided leadership during non-cooperation movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
E.V.Ramaswamy (Periyar) and C.Rajaji provided the leadership for non – cooperation movement.

(b) Who was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Yakub Hasan was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.

(c) What was set up as a part of Non-cooperation movement?
Answer:
A Congress volunteer corps was set up a part of Non – cooperation movement.

(d) How did these volunteers assist?
Answer:
The volunteers corps distributed pamphelts, carry flags during processions and to maintain order in the meetings and also in picketing of liquor shops.

Question 4.
No tax – Campaigns and Temperance Movement

(a) Where did the No-tax campaigns take place?
Answer:
A no-tax campaign took place in Thanjavur.

(b) How did the people show their protest?
Answer:
Councils, schools and courts and foreign goods were boycotted and a number of workers’ strikes took place all over.

(c) What was one of the important aspects of the movement in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
One of the important aspects of the movement in Tamil Nadu was the ‘Temperance Movement or Movement against liquor’.

(d) What was the Act for which the communities agitated?
Answer:
The communities agitated against the criminal Tribes Act.

VII. Answer In detail

Question 1.
Explain the contribution of Madras Mahajana Sabha.
Answer:
Madras Mahajana Sabha:

1. It was established by M. Veeraraghavachari, P. Anandacharlu, P. Rangaiah.
2. P. Rangaiah Naidu was elected the first president of the Sabha.

The contributions of Madras Mahajana Sabha:

1. The Madras Mahajana Sabha has contributed a lot for our national freedom.
2. The Sabha voiced out the fundamental right of our country men.
3. It had developed very close relationship with the Indian National Congress since 1920.
4. In 1930, the Sabha organised the Salt Sathyagraha Movement in Madras George Town. Esplanade the high court and beach areas. The members were attacked savagely by the British police.
5. When the British government banned the congress party. Madras Mahajana Sabha conducted numerous exhibition and Swadesh exhibition.
6. These exhibition instigated patriotic feelings in the hearts of our country men.

Question 2.
What were the scenario of Tamil Nadu during the Quit India movement?
Answer:

1. On 8^th August 1942 Quit India Resolution was passed and Gandhi gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’.
2. It was an undying mass movement.
3. K. Kamaraj worked underground and organised people during the quit India movement.
4. The movement was wide spread in Tamil Nadu.
5. All section of society participated in this movement.
6. There were large number of workers strike such as strikes in Bukingham and camatic Mills, Madras Port Trust, Madras, Corporation and Madras Tramway.
7. Telegraph and Telephone lines were cut and public buildings were burnt at Vellore and Panapakkam.
8. The airport in Sulur was attacked and trains derailed in Coimbatore.
9. Congress volunteers clashed with the military in Madurai.
10. There were police firings at Rajapalayam Karaikudi and Devakottai.
11. Many young men and women also joined Indian National Army.
12. Students of various colleges took active part in the protests.
13. The Quit India Movement was suppressed by the British with brutal force.

Question 3.
Under what circumstances did E. V. R. leave the Congress?
Or
What was Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy? How did it lead E. V. R. to leave the Congress?
Answer:
(i) E. V. Ramaswamy, popularly known as E. V. R. played an active role in Tamil Nadu
during the freedom struggle of India. But he was not satisfied with the Congress because he felt that it was promoting the interests of the Brahmins alone.

(ii) To further the cause of national education, a Gurukulam was established in Cheranmadevi by V. V. S. Iyer. It received funds from the Congress. However, students were discriminated on the basis of caste.

(iii) Brahmin and non-Brahmin students were made to dine separately and the food served too was different. The issue was brought to the notice of E. V. R. in 1925 who questioned the practice and severely criticized it along with another leader, Dr. P. Varadarajulu.

(iv) In Kanchipuram Conference of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee held on 21 November 1925, he raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in the legislature. But his efforts to achieve this since 1920 had met with failure.

(v) When the resolution was defeated, E. V. R. left the Conference along with other non-Brahmin leaders who met separately. Soon he left the Congress and started the Self-respect Movement. Thus, the Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy and opposition to communal rengress led E. V. R. leave the Congress.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
How many times security can be sold in a secondary market?
(a) Only one time
(b) Two times
(c) Three times
(d) Multiple times
Answer:
(d) Multiple times

Question 2.
Debt Instruments are issued by Corporate Houses are raising short-term financial resources
from the money market are called ………………
(a) Treasury Bills
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Government Securities
Answer:
(b) Commercial Paper

Question 3.
The market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills of Exchange is known as a ……………
(a) Commercial Paper Market
(b) Treasury Bill Market
(c) Commercial Bill Market
(d) Capital Market
Answer:
(c) Commercial Bill Market

Question 4.
A bull operator believes in …………….
(a) Increase in Prices
(b) Decrease in Prices
(c) Stability in Prices
(d) No change in Prices
Answer:
(a) Increase in Prices

Question 5
means the price at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and made public…………….
(a) Market Quotations
(b) Trade Quotations
(c) Business Quotations
(d) Buyers Quotations
Answer:
(a) Market Quotations

Question 6.
Trading is dematerialized shares commenced on the NSE is ……………….
(a) January 1996
(b) June 1998
(c) December 1996
(d) December 1998.
Answer:
(c) December 1996

Question 7.
Transfer is an source of recruitment……………
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Outsourcing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Internal

Question 8.
Which of the following orders is followed in a typical selection process.
(а) Application form test and or interview, reference check and physical examination
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination
(c) Reference check, application form, test and interview and physical examination
(d) Physical examination test and interview application term and reference check
Answer:
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination

Question 9
…………….. is useful to prevent skill obsolescence of employees.
(a) Training
(b) Job Analysis
(c) Selection
(d) Recruitment
Answer:
(a) Training

Question 10.
Which one is the example of Intangible product?
(a) Education
(b) Mobiles
(c) Garments
(d) Vehicles
Answer:
(a) Education

Question 11.
A company’s products and prices is visually represented by ……………
(a) Shopping Cart
(b) Web portal
(c) Electronic catalogue
(d) Revenue model
Answer:
(c) Electronic catalogue

Question 12.
………….. of every year is declared as a consumer protection Day to educate the public about their rights and responsibilities.
(a) August 15
(b) April 15
(c) March 15
(d) September 15
Answer:
(c) March 15

Question 13.
It is the responsibility of a consumer that he must obtain ……………. as a proof for the purchase of goods.
(a) Cash receipt
(b) Warranty card
(c) Invoice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Invoice

Question 14.
The District Forum can entertain complaints where the value of goods or services and the compensation if any claimed is less than …………….
(a) Below ₹ 10,00,000
(b) Below ₹ 20,00,000
(c) Below ₹ 40,00,000
(d) Below ₹ 50,00,000
Answer:
(b) Below ₹ 20,00,000

Question 15.
……………. is a stipulation which is collateral to main purpose of contract.
(a) Warranty
(b) Condition
(c) Right
(d) Agreement
Answer:
(a) Warranty

Question 16.
When crossing restrict further negotiation ……………
(a) Not negotiable crossing
(b) General Crossing
(c) A/c payee crossing
(d) Special crossing
Answer:
(a) Not negotiable crossing

Question 17.
Which of the below is a commercial function?
(a) Accounting
(b) Coordination
(c) Discovery of idea
(d) Planning
Answer:
(a) Accounting

Question 18.
Poultry, Flowers, Fruits etc are called allied products of entrepreneur.
(a) Corporate
(b) Retail
(c) Trading
(d) Agricultural
Answer:
(d) Agricultural

Question 19.
…………… has to include the mechanism for managing venture in the project report.
(a) Banker
(b) Government
(c) Lending Institutions
(d) Entrepreneur
Answer:
(d) Entrepreneur

Question 20.
Specify the type of resolution to be passed to choose the location of Registered Office of the company within the town or village or city.
(a) Ordinary
(b) Special
(c) Either Ordinary or Special
(d) Board
Answer:
(d) Board

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
How do you co-ordinate your class room with peace?
Answer:
All the activities are divided groupwise or sectionwise under organising function. Now, such grouped activities are co-ordinated towards the accomplishment of objectives of a classroom. With the function of co-ordination the classroom must be peaceful and calm.

Question 22.
What are the instruments of Money Market?
Answer:

• Treasury Bills in the Treasury Market
• Money at Call and Short Notice in the Call Loan Market
• Commercial Bills and Promissory Notes in the Bill Market

Now in addition to the above, the following new instruments come into existence:

• Commercial Papers
• Certificate of Deposits
• Inter-Bank participation Certificates
• Repo Instruments

Question 23.
What are the types of Speculators?
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types. They are named on the basis of animals behaviour. They are

• Bull
• Bear
• Stag
• Lame duck

Question 24.
Mention the headquarters of SEBI.
Answer:
SEBI has its headquarters at the business district of BandraKurla Complex in Mumbai, and has Northern, Eastern, Southern and Western Regional Offices in New Delhi,. Kolkata, Chennai and Ahmedabad, respectively.

Question 25.
What is Role Play?
Answer:
Under this method trainees are explained the situation and assigned roles. They have to act out the roles assigned to them without any rehearsal.

Question 26.
What is meant by Regulated Market?
Answer:
Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables etc., are called as very short period market.

Question 27.
What is Social Marketing?
Answer:
Social marketing is a new marketing tool. It is the systematic application of marketing philosophy and techniques to achieve specific behavioural goals which ensure social good. For example- not to smoke in public areas.

Question 28.
What is mixed Economy?
Answer:
Mixed economy is a combination of both state owned and private sector ownership.

Question 29.
What is a Contingent Goods?
Answer:
Contingent goods are the goods, the acquisition of which by the seller depends upon a . contingency (an event which may or may not happen). Contingent goods are a part of future goods.

Question 30.
Define Intrapreneur.
Answer:
Intrapreneur is one who thinks and acts like an entrepreneur for the firm’s development during the course of employment in an organisation.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
State the importance of Motivation.
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader. The workers expect, favourable climate conditions to work, fair treatment, monetary or non-monetary incentive, effective communication and gentleman approach.

Question 32.
Write a note on National Clearance and Depository System (NCDS).
Answer:
Under the scripless trading system, settlement of transactions relating to securities takes place through a book entry. The entire scripless trading system comprises the following three segments:

• National Trade Comparison and Reporting System which prescribes the terms and conditions of contract for the securities market.
• National Clearing System which aims at determining the net cash and stock liability of each broker on a settlement date.
• National Depository System which arranges to provide for the transfer of ownership of securities in exchange on payment by book entry on electronic ledgers without any physical movement of transfer deed.

Question 33.
What is the power of SEBI under securities Contract Act?
Answer:

• For effective regulation of stock exchange, the Ministry of Finance issued a Notification on 13 September, 1994 delegating several of its powers under the Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act to SEBI.
• SEBI is also empowered by the Finance Ministry to nominate three members on the Governing Body of every stock exchange.

Question 34.
What are the features of internal source of recruitment?
Answer:
The main features of internal source of recruitment are:

• Quick process.
• Cheaper than the external recruitment process.
• Works as a tool of motivation for the staff.
• The company’s choice is limited to existing employees of the company.

Question 35.
Why Customer support is needed to Market?
Answer:
Customer or the consumer is the king and is considered to be a guest to your shop. Without the customer there is no business. To develop the market the number of customer is to be increased. So customer support is necessary to increase the sales and gain more profit.

Question 36.
What is the role of Government in Consumer Protection?
Answer:
Since most of consumers including academically educated are illiterate about their rights and hence passive. Government should assure an active role in safeguarding the consumers. Government both the central and the state have brought out a number of legislations to protect the interest of consumers across the country. Law enforcement authorities should see that penal clause is not mere paper jaws-they should sting the offenders mercilessly.

Question 37.
What are the functions of the GST Council?
Answer:
The functions of GST Council:

• The GST council can recommend to the Central and State Government on issues relating to GST.
• The Goods and Services that may be subjected to or exempted from the Goods and Services Tax.
• Model GST laws, principles of levy are framed by the GST council.
• The rates including floor rates with bands of Goods and Services Tax.

Question 38.
Discuss the two different types of Crossing.
Answer:
(i) General Crossing
(ii) Special Crossing

• General Crossing: “Where a cheque bears across its face an addition of the words “ an company” or any abbreviation there of, between to parallel transverse lines or of two parallel transverse line simply either with or without the words “Not negotiable” that addition shall be deemed a crossing and the cheque shall be deemed to be crossed generally”.
• Special Crossing: “ Where a cheque bears across its face an addition of the name of a banker with or without the words “Not Negotiable”, that addition shall be deemed a crossing and the cheque shall be deemed to be crossed specially and to be crossed to that banker”.

Question 39.
How does a professional entrepreneur operate?
Answer:
Professional entrepreneur is one who is having a rich expertise in starting a venture but lack interest in continuing the venture as a manager or as a owner. He/she simply sells out the venture started by him to someone else after its successful take-off.

Question 40.
What resolution is requires special notice?
Answer:
There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting. The intention to propose any resolution must be notified to the company. The following matters require special notice before they are discussed in the meeting:-

• To appoint an auditor, a person other than a retiring auditor
• To provide expressly that a retiring Auditor shall not be reappointed
• To remove a director before the expiry of his period of office
• To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the various types of Financial markets?
Answer:
Financial assets can be classified differently under different circumstances. One such classification is:
(i) Marketable assets
(ii) Non-marketable assets
(i) Marketable Assets: Marketable assets are those which can be easily transferred from one person to another without much hindrance. Example: Shares of Listed Companies, Government Securities, Bonds of Public Sector Undertakings etc.

(ii) Non-Marketable Assets: On the other hand, if the assets cannot be transferred easily, they come under this category. Example: Bank Deposits, Provident Funds, Pension Funds, National Savings Certificates, Insurance Policies etc.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the importance of Recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of having the right person, in the right place, at the right time. It is crucial to organisational performance. Recruitment is the first step in an organisation’s Human Resource Planning. It fulfills the organisation’s need of a set of competitive, motivated and flexible employees who work towards achieving the organisation’s objectives.

Competent Human Resources at the right positions are crucial for the organisation and constitute core competency. Recruitment helps in creating a pool of prospective employees for the organisation, so that the right candidates for the right jobs can be selected from this pool. It establishes a link between the job seekers and employers.

Proper recruitment enables the organisation to appoint talented persons for various activities, thereby leading to improved productivity and profitability of the organisation. Unless a company adopts a suitable recruitment policy, it may not be possible for a company to have right candidates for right job.

Question 42.
(a) State the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

• Goods produced may be stored till the time of demand. Hence the goods are stored in warehouses.
• Also the goods are stored till the goods have good quality.
• Warehouses create time utility by storing the goods throughout the year and release them as and when they are needed.

Several types of warehouses are used for storing of goods. They are as follows:

• Public warehouse
• Private warehouse
• Bonded warehouse.

[OR]

(b) What are the objectives of United Nations guidelines for consumer protection?
Answer:
The General Assembly of the United Nations passed a Resolution on April 9, 1985 adopting a set of guidelines for consumer protection to persuade the member countries.
Objectives of United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection:

• To assist countries in achieving or maintaining protection to consumers.
• To facilitate production and distribution patterns responsive to the needs and desires of consumers.
• To encourage high levels of ethical conduct for production and distribution of goods and services to consumers.
• To facilitate the developing of independent consumer groups.
• To encourage the development of market conditions which provide consumers with greater choice at lower prices.

Question 43.
(a) How to create Consumer awareness?
Answer:
The first priority of a consumer organisation is to increase consumer awareness towards their rights. The following are the points for awareness:

• To publish brochures, journals and monographs.
• To arrange conferences, seminars and workshops.
• To educate consumers to help themselves.
• To provide special education to women about consumerism.

(b) Explain in detail the various functions of an entrepreneur?
Answer:
The functions of an entrepreneur is divided into
(a) Promotional functions
(b) Managerial functions and
(c) Commercial functions.

(a) Promotional functions
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(b) Managerial functions

Planning: In this function, the entrepreneur has to lay down the objectives, goals, vision, mission, policies, procedures, programmes, budget, schedules etc., for enabling the venture to proceed towards established destinations.

Directing: In this function, the entrepreneur has to motivate, lead, guide and communicate with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.

(c) Commercial functions

Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development.

Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business.

Question 44.
(a) What is the maximum limit for the Managerial remuneration?
Answer:
Managerial Remuneration: The Managerial remuneration is payable to a person’s appointed u/s 196 of the Act. The Term remuneration means any money or its equivalent given for their services.

Adequate profits: A Public Company can pay remuneration to its directors including Managing Director and Whole-time Directors, and its managers which shall not exceed 11% of the net profit. Maximum Remuneration Payable by a Company to its Managerial Personnel – No adequate Profits:

Remuneration Payable by a company in case where there is no profit or inadequacy of profit and remuneration payable is detailed below:

	Where Effective Capital is	Limit of yearly Remuneration payable shall not exceed (Rupees)
(i)	less than ₹ 5 Crore	₹ 30 lakh
(ii)	Above ₹ 5 Crore and less than ₹ 100 Crore	₹ 42 lakh
(iii)	₹ 5 Crore and above but less than ₹ 100 Crore	₹ 60 lakh
(iv)	₹ 250 Crore and above	₹ 60 lakh plus 9.91% of the effective capital in excess of ₹ 250 Crore

[OR]

(b) Explain different types of open and secret types of voting.
Answer:
The word ‘Vote’ originated from Latin word ‘Votum’ indicating one’s wishes or desire. He can vote formally by expressing his opinion or wish in favour or against a proposal.
Types of Voting: There are two methods of voting viz, open and secret procedures.
(i) Open Voting: This type of voting has no secrecy as all the members assembled can see voting. There are two types of open voting namely voice voting and voting by show of hands.

• By Voice: Voice voting is a popular type of voting in which the chairman allows the members to raise their voice in favour or against an issue ‘Yes’ for approval and ‘No’ for rejection.
• By Show of Hands: Under this method, the chairman requests the members to raise
  their hands for the proposal.

(ii) Secret Procedure: Secret procedure is adopted to decide certain vital issues. It may be of two types:

• By Ballot: Under this system, ballot paper bearing serial number is given to the members to record their opinion by marking with the symbol.
• Postal Ballot: Big companies or big associations having members scattered all over the country follow this method of voting. Under this method, the members or voters fill in the ballot papers sent by the company and return them in sealed covers.

Question 45.
(a) Distinguish between the rural and Urban entrepreneur?
Answer:

S. No.	Rural Entrepreneur	Urban Entrepreneur
1.	It refers to the person who starts business in rural areas.	It refers to the person who commences business in urban areas.
2.	These entrepreneurs start doing business in the villages and small towns.	They will do their business in state capital, towns, district headquarters, municipalities, etc.
3.	They may be agricultural and trading entrepreneurs.	They may be industrial or corporate entrepreneur.
4.	The availability of material and labour is easy. So the cost of operation tends to be low.	The availability of material and labour may be difficult. So the cost of operation may be high.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of modern management.
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr.Henry Fayol, and according to him there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organisation.

(i) Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks. This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.

(ii) Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.

(iii) Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc.
It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organizations.

(iv) Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.

(v) Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.

(vi) Subordination of Individual Interest to Mutual Interest: The management must put aside personal considerations and put company objectives firstly.

(vii) Remuneration: Workers must be paid sufficiently as this is a chief motivation of employees and therefore greatly influences productivity.

(viii) The Degree of Centralization: The amount of power wielded with the central management depends on company size.

(ix) Line of Authority/Scalar Chain: This refers to the chain of superiors ranging from top management to the lowest rank.

(x) Order: Social order ensures the fluid operation of a company through authoritative procedure.

(xi) Equity: Employees must be treated kindly, and justice must be enacted to ensure a just
workplace.

(xii) Stability of Tenure of Personnel: Stability of tenure of personnel is a principle stating that in order for an organisation to run smoothly, personnel (especially managerial personnel) must not frequently enter and exit the organisation.

(xiii) Initiative: Using the initiative of employees can add strength and new ideas to an organisation.

(xiv) Esprit de Corps/Team Spirit: This refers to the need of managers to ensure and develop morale in the workplace; individually and communally.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the characteristics of Money Market?
Answer:
(i) Short-term Funds: It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.
(ii) Maturity Period: It deals with financial assets having a maturity period upto one year only.
(iii) Conversion of Cash: It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost.
(iv) No Formal Place: Generally, transactions take place through phone, i.e., oral communication. Relevant documents and written communications can be exchanged subsequently.
(v) Sub-markets: It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises of several sub-markets ‘ each specialising in a particular type of financing.
(vi) Role of Market: The components of a money market are the Central Bank, Commercial Banks. Commercial banks generally play a dominant role in this market.
(vii) Highly Organized Banking System: The Commercial Banks are the nerve centre of the whole money market. They are the principal suppliers of short-term funds.

(viii) Existence of Secondary Market: There should be an active secondary market for these instruments. (be) Demand and Supply of Funds: There should be a large demand and supply of short-term funds.
(ix) Wholesale Market: It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the market is very large.
(xi) Flexibility: Due to greater flexibility in the regulatory framework, there are constant endeavours for introducing new instruments.
(xii) Presence of a Central Bank: The central bank keeps their cash reserves and provides them financial accommodation in difficulties by discounting their eligible securities.

[OR]

(b) What are the difference between on the job training and off the job training?
Answer:

	Basis for comparison	On the Job Training	Off the Job Training
1.	Meaning	The employee learns the job in the actual work environment.	The training of employees is done outside the actual work place.
2.	Cost	It is cheapest to carry out.	It is costly due to the expenses like separate training room, specialist, etc.
3.	Suitable for	Suitable for manufacturing related jobs.	It is suitable for managerial jobs.
4.	Approach	Practical approach	Theoretical approach
5.	Carried out	Provided by the experienced employee	Provided by the experts
6.	Methods	Coaching, mentoring, apprenticeship, job rotation	Seminar, lectures, vestibule, field trip, e-leaming

Question 47.
(a) How the market can be classified? On the basis of different approaches markets can be classified as follows:
Answer:
On the basis of Geographical Area:

• Family Market
• Local Market
• National Market
• International Market or World Market

On the Basis of Commodities / Goods:
(a) Commodity Market:

• Produce Exchange Market
• Manufactured Goods Market
• Bullion Market

(b) Capital Market:

• Money Market
• Foreign Exchange Market
• The Stock Market

On the Basis of Economics:

• Perfect Market
• Imperfect Market

On the Basis of Transaction:

• Spot Market
• Future market

On the Basis of Regulation:

• Regulated Market
• Unregulated Market

On the Basis of Time:

• Very Short Period Market
• Short Period Market
• Long Period Market

On the Basis of Volume of Business:

• Wholesale Market
• Retail Market

On the Basis of Importance:

• Primary Market
• Secondary Market
• Terminal Market

[OR]

(b) Explain the role of consumers in consumer protection.
Answer:
Consumers have to be vigilant and organise themselves into a movement for concerned action.
Activation of Consumer Action Councils:

• Consumer action councils established at village levels should educate consumers.
• Consumer protection agencies should take necessary steps to investigate consumer complaints and grievances.
• Voluntary consumer groups should provide information so as to educate consumers.
• Consumer cooperatives need to be strengthened.
• Consumer groups should contact the legislators to raise the consumer issue in Assembly and Parliament.
• There should be testing laboratories at each district to test the purity of goods.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 5 Acoustics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acoustics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction.
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion.
(d) do not vibrate.
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms^-1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is _____.
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 660 ms^-1
(c) 156 ms^-1
(d) 990 ms^-1.
Answer:
(a) 330 ms^-1
Hint: Pressure has no effect on the velocity of sound in the gas. So velocity of sound remains unchanged.

Question 3.
The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is:
(a) 50 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 15000 kHz
(d) 10000 kHz
Answer:
(b) 20 kHz

Question 4.
The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 ms^-1. What will be its value when the temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 165 ms^-1
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
(d) 320/√2 ms^-1.
Answer:
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
Hint: As there is no effect of change in pressure on the velocity of sound in air, and v ∝ √T therefore, when the temperature is doubled, so the velocity becomes 330√2 m/s.

Question 5.
If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 10⁴ Hz at 344 ms^-1, the wavelength will be:
(a) 27.52 m
(b) 275.2 m
(c) 0.02752 m
(d) 2.752 m
Answer:
(c) 0.02752 m

Question 6.
The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were incident. Which of the following changes?
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 7.
The velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms^-1. The minimum distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle to hearing the echo should be ______.
(a) 17 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 50 m.
Answer:
(c) 25 m
Hint: The minimum distance of the source of the sound and hear the echo,
\(d=\frac{v t}{2}\)
t = 0.1 s, \(d=\frac{500 \times 0.1}{2}\) = 25 m.

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called …………
2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the medium would be vibrating in …………
3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 ms^-1. The frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 ms^-1) ………..
4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer is …………

Answer:

1. Wave
2. South to north
3. 500 Hz
4. 2067-3 Hz

III. True or false: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum.
2. Waves created by Earthquake are Infrasonic.
3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature.
4. The Velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids.

Answer:

1. False – Sound cannot travel through vacuum.
2. True
3. False – The velocity of sound depends on temperature.
4. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions.

Question 1.
Assertion : The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason : The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the square of the pressure.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 2.
Assertion : Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
Reason : Solid posses a greater density than that of gases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer very briefly:

Question 1.
What is a longitudinal wave?
Answer:
In longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of the wave.

Question 2.
What is the audible range of frequency?
Answer:
Audible waves: These are sound waves with a frequency ranging between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz.

Question 3.
What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
Answer:
The minimum distance needed for an echo is 17.2 metre.

Question 4.
What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength when it travels with a speed of 331 ms^-1?
Answer:
Frequency of sound = \(\frac{\text { velocity of sound }}{\text { wavelength of sound }}\)
\(n=\frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{331}{0.20}\)
n = 1655 Hz.

Question 5.
Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
The animals are dogs, bats and dolphins.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. Hence, sound travels faster on a rainy day than a dry day.

Question 2.
Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
Answer:
The intensity of sound is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibration. I ∝ A² since, the amplitude of vibration of air molecules (empty vessel) is greater than liquid molecules (filled vessel), therefore empty vessel produces a louder sound than the filled vessel.

Question 3.
Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (V_o = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
Velocity of sound at 0°C is V_o = 331 ms^-1
Let the sound at 46°C is be v_t
\(\frac{v_t}{v_o}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{273+T}{273}}\)
where temperature is T = 46°C

= 1.080
v_t = 331 × 1.080 = 357.48 m/s.
∴ Velocity of sound in air at that temperature = 357.48 m/s.

Question 4.
Explain why the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
Answer:

1. These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface.
2. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

Question 5.
Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
Answer:

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.

VIII. Problem Corner:

Question 1.
A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a speed of 400 ms-1 in a medium. Find the wavelength of the sound wave.
Answer:
Speed of sound wave v = 400 m/s
Frequency of sound wave n = 200 Hz
∴ Wavelength sound wave λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\)
= \(\frac{400}{200}\) = 2 m
∴ Wavelength = 2 m

Question 2.
The thunder of the cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 ms^-1, what will be the height of the cloud?
Solution:
The height of the cloud (distance) = speed of sound × time
d = v × t = 330 × 9.8 = 3234 m
The height of the cloud is 3234 m.

Question 3.
A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m from a source of sound is listening to a sound of 600 Hz. Find the time period between successive compressions from the source?
Answer:
Distance of the observer = 400 m
Frequency of sound n = 600 Hz
Let velocity of sound be v = 330 \(\frac{m}{s}\)
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\) = \(\frac{330}{600}\)
= 55 × 10^-2 = 0.55 m
Distance between two successive compressions is \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
Time period successive compressions is = \(\frac{1}{\frac{λ}{2}}\)
= \(\frac{2}{λ}\) = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\)
T = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\) = 3.6363 second
Time period = 3.6363 second.

Question 4.
An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the transmission and reception of the wave is 1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 ms^-1?
Answer:
Time interval t = 1.6 s
Velocity of sound in water = 1400 m/s.
Depth of the sea = \(\frac{v×t}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1400×1.6}{2}\)
= 1120 m
Depth of the sea = 1120 m

Question 5.
A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 second respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Answer:
Distance between two walls λ = 680 m.
Time periods T₁ = 0.9 s
T₂ = 1.1 s
∴ Frequencies n₁ = \(\frac{1}{T_1}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.9}\) = \(\frac{10}{9}\)
= 1.11 Hz
n₂ = \(\frac{1}{T_2}\)
= \(\frac{1}{1.1}\) = \(\frac{10}{11}\)
= 0.9090 Hz.
Difference x₁ – x₂ = 1.11 – 0.9090
= 0.201 Hz
Speed of sound = (n₁ – n₂)λ
= 0.201 × 680 = 136.68

Question 6.
Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, underwater, reaches the other after 3 seconds. What is the speed of sound in the water?
Solution:
Distance between the two boats, d = 4.5 km
d = 4500 m
Time, t = 3 seconds
Speed of sound in the water = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Time taken }}\) = \(\frac{4500}{3}\)
v = 1500 ms^-1.

Question 7.
A strong sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is received back after Is.What is the depth of sea given that the speed of sound in water 1450 ms^-1?
Answer:
Speed of sound in water v = 1450 m/s
Time taken t = 1 + 1 = 2 s.
Depth of the sea d = \(\frac{v}{t}\)
= \(\frac{1450}{2}\)
= 725 m
Depth of the sea = 725 m.

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:
Effect of density:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
\(v \propto \sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Effect of temperature:
(i) The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
(ii) The velocity of sound in gas increases with the increase in temperature,
v ∝ √T Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
v_T = (v₀ + 0.61 T) ms^-1
Here, v₀ is the velocity of sound in the gas at 0° C. For air, v₀ = 331 ms^-1.
Hence, the velocity of sound changes by 0.61 ms^-1 when the temperature changes by one – degree celsius.

Effect of relative humidity: When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why we can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 2.
What is mean by reflection of sound? Explain:
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium.
(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium.
(c) Reflection at curved surfaces.
Answer:
When sound waves travel in a given medium and strike the surface of another medium, they can be bounced back into the first medium. This phenomenon is known as reflection.
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium :

Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air. The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium. As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any defonnation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards. As the particles of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, a compression is reflected as a rarefaction and a rarefaction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium :

A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rarefactions. Suppose a compression travelling in air from left to right reaches a rigid wall. The compression exerts a force F on the rigid wall. In turn, the wall exerts an equal and opposite reaction R = – F on the air molecules.

This results in a compression near the rigid wall. Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(c) Reflection at curved surfaces :
When the sound waves are reflected from the curved surfaces, the intensity of the reflected waves is changed. When reflected from a convex surface, the reflected waves are diverged out and the intensity is decreased. When sound is reflected from a concave surface, the reflected waves are converged and focused at a point. So the intensity of reflected waves is concentrated at a point.

Question 3.
(a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
(b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
(c) Name three animals which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
(a) Ultrasonic Vibration: The vibrations whose frequencies are greater than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic vibrations.

(b) (i) They are used in SONAR to measure the depth of the sea (or ocean) and to locate underwater objects.
(ii) It is used for scanning and imaging the position and growth of a foetus and presence of stones in the gall bladder and kidney.
(iii) It is used for homogenising milk in milk plants where fresh milk is agitated with the desired quantity of fat and powdered milk to obtain toned milk.

(c) Mosquito, Dogs and Bats are the three animals that can hear ultrasonic vibrations.

Question 4.
What is an echo?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound wave.

(a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
(b) What are the medical applications of echo?
(c) How can you calculate the speed of sound using echo?
Answer:
(a) (i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that you can hear two sound waves clearly, if the time interval between the two sounds is at least 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:

Since, t = 0.1 second, then
d = \(\frac{v×0.1}{2}\) = \(\frac{v}{20}\)
Thus the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 1/20^th part of the magnitude of the velocity of sound in air. If you consider the velocity of sound as 344 ms^-1, the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.

(b) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or foetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(c) The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver. The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of sound wave is given by:
Speed of sound

X. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave have the same frequency, then which one has a longer wavelength?
(a) Sound, (b) Light, (c) both a and b, (d) data not sufficient
Answer:
(b) Light: Since the velocity of light (C = 3 × 10⁸ m/s) is greater than the velocity of sound, light wave has a longer wavelength.

Question 2.
When sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day? Justify your answer.
Answer:
An echo can only be heard if it reaches the ear after 0.1 secs.
\(\text { Time taken }=\frac{\text { Totaldistance }}{\text { Velocity }}\)
As on a hotter day, the velocity of sound is more. So if the time taken by the echo is less than 0.1 sec than it won’t be heard.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Sound waves are:
(a) Transverse waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Waves
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Longitudinal waves

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in air is ______.
(a) faster in dry air than in moist air
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
(c) directly proportional to pressure.
(d) Slower in dry air than in moist air.
Answer:
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
Hint: v ∝ √T

Question 3.
Which of the following does not affect the velocity of sound?
(a) mass of the gas
(b) density of the gas
(c) temperature of the gas
(d) pressure of the gas
Answer:
(d) pressure of the gas

Question 4.
The apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect does not depend upon.
(a) Speed of the listener.
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
(c) Speed of the source.
(d) Frequency of the source.
Answer:
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
Hint: Apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect depends on frequency of the source, direction and velocity of source and listener. It does not depend on the distance between the listener and the source.

Question 5.
Sound of frequency 256 Hz passes through a medium. The maximum displacement is 0.1 m. The maximum velocity is:
(a) 60π m/s
(b) 30π m/s
(c) 51.2π m/s
(d) 512π m/s
Answer:
(c) 51.2π m/s

Question 6.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 760 ms^-1. If 3600 waves the medium in 2 min, then its wavelength is ______.
(a) 13.8 m
(b) 41.5 m
(c) 25.3 m
(d) 57.2 m.
Answer:
(c) 25.3 m
Hint: Number of waves crossing a point per second.
\(\begin{array}{l}{n=\frac{3600}{2 \times 60}=30} \\ {\lambda=\frac{v}{n}=\frac{760}{30}=25.3 \mathrm{m}}\end{array}\).

Question 7.
Two waves are propagating with same amplitude and nearly same frequency in opposite they result in:
(a) longitudinal wave
(b) transverse wave
(c) stationary wave
(d) resonance wave
Answer:
(c) stationary wave

Question 8.
Of these properties of a sound wave, the one that is independent of others is its:
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) amplitude
Answer:
(d) amplitude

Question 9.
No echo will be heard if the distance between the reflecting obstacle and the source is:
(a) greater than 17.2 m
(b) less than 17.2 m
(c) less than 34.4 m
(d) greater than 34.4 m
Answer:
(b) less than 17.2 m

Question 10.
The velocity of sound in a gas is independent of:
(a) temperature
(b) density
(c) humidity
(d) pressure
Answer:
(d) pressure

Question 11.
The velocity of sound increases for every degree rise of temperature by:
(a) 1 ms^-1
(b) 330 m/s
(c) 0.61 ms^-1
(d) 6.1 m/s
Answer:
(c) 0.61 ms^-1

Question 12.
Longitudinal waves are characterised by:
(a) crest and troughs
(b) compressions and rarefactions
(c) nodes and antinodes
(d) wavelength and frequency
Answer:
(b) compressions and rarefactions

Question 13.
If the frequency of waves lies between 20 Hz and 20 KHz then, they are:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) audible waves
(d) transverse waves
Answer:
(c) audible waves

Question 14.
The frequency of an infrasonic wave is:
(a) 20 Hz
(b) below 20 Hz
(c) above 20 Hz
(d) above 20 KHz
Answer:
(b) below 20 Hz

Question 15.
The sound waves having frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) infrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 16.
Which of the following waves cannot be detected by human ear?
(a) audible wave
(b) infrasonic wave
(c) ultrasonic wave
(d) mechanical wave
Answer:
(c) ultrasonic wave

Question 17.
Which waves are generated by stretched strings?
(a) audible waves
(b) sound waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) infrasonic waves
Answer:
(a) audible waves

Question 18.
The waves produced during earthquake, ocean waves are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) infrasonic waves

Question 19.
Sound wave belong to:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) electromagnetic waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(a) mechanical waves

Question 20.
The waves produced by bats are called:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 21.
At N.T.P speed of sound waves in air is about:
(a) 3 x 108 m/s
(b) 3 x 10″8 m/s
(c) 340 cm/s
(d) 340 m/s
Answer:
(d) 340 m/s

Question 22.
Sound waves are:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) longitudinal waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(b) longitudinal waves

Question 23.
The velocity of sound is least in ………. medium.
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gaseous
(d) water
Answer:
(c) gaseous

Question 24.
Velocity of sound ……… as the density of the solid increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) changes
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 25.
Velocity of sound at a temperature T is given by:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)
(b) V_T = \(\frac{V_0}{273}\)
(c) V_T = (V₀ – 0.61 T)
(d) V_T = V₀(0.61T)
Answer:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)

Question 26.
In the case of reflection of sound waves angle of incidence is:
(a) less than angle of incidence
(b) equal to angle of incidence
(c) greater than angle of incidence
(d) greater than angle of refraction.
Answer:
(b) equal to angle of incidence

Question 27.
The direction of compression is reversed during:
(a) refraction
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium
(c) reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium
(d) reflection at the boundary of a curved surface
Answer:
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium

Question 28.
Which of the following property of sound waves is used in ultrasonography?
(a) Reflection of sound
(b) Refraction of sound
(c) Echo sound
(d) Doppler effect sound
Answer:
(c) Echo sound

Question 29.
Which of the following is application of reflection of sound?
(a) Mega phone
(b) Ear trumpet
(c) Sound board
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 30.
In Doppler effect when the source and listener move away from each other, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(a)

Question 31.
When a listener approaches a stationary source, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(b)

Question 32.
If a source and a listener move towards each other, then the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(c)

Question 33.
When a source recedes from a stationary listener the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(a)

Question 34.
When a source moves towards a stationary listener the ratio of apparent frequency to the original frequency is:

Answer:
(b)

Question 35.
When source and listener move one behind the other the apparent frequency is

Answer:
(c)

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The vibrating bodies produce waves in the form of ………
2. For the propagation of sound, a ………. is required.
3. The frequency range of audible waves is ………..
4. The frequency of infrasonic waves is …………
5. The sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as ………..
6. The wavelength of sound waves ranges from ………..
7. Sound waves are ……….
8. If wavelength of a wave is λ and its time period is T, then velocity of sound wave is ………..
9. If n is the frequency and λ is the wavelength of sound wave then is velocity of wave is given by …………
10. The ascending order of velocity of sound in solids, liquids and gases is given by …………
11. Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the ………… of the medium.
12. Velocity of sound in solid is directly proportional to the square root of the ……….. of the medium.
13. Sound can be heard from long distances clearly during …………..
14. When the temperature of a gas changes by one degree Celsius, the velocity of sound changes by ………..
15. In the case of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to ………….
16. When sound waves undergo reflection by convex surface, its intensity is ………..
17. ……….. are used when sound waves have to be focused at a point.
18. In ……….. surfaces, sound from one focus will always be reflected to the other focus.
19. The reproduction of sound due to the reflection of sound is known as …………
20. The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be ………..
21. Echo is used to determine the velocity of ………… in any medium.
22. A horn-shaped device works on the principle of ………….
23. The phenomenon in which the frequency of sound heard by a listener is different from that of sound emitted by the source due to ……….. between a source and a listener is known as Doppler effect.
24. When the distance between the source and listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………..
25. Apparent frequency in Doppler effect depends on the ……….. of the source and the listener.
26. When a listener moves away from a source at rest, the apparent frequency is n’ = ………..
27. When distance between source listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………. than ……….. frequency.
28. If the medium moves with a velocity W in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound then, velocity of sound v becomes ………..
29. If the apparent frequency is n’ = (\(\frac{V}{V+V_{S}}\))n then source moves ………….. the ……….. listener.
30. If a listener moves towards the ………. source, the apparent frequency n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n.
Answer:
1. sound waves
2. medium
3. From 20 Hz to 20 KHz
4. below 20 Hz
5. ultrasonic waves
6. 1.65 cm to 1.65 m
7. longitudinal
8. V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
9. V = nλ
10. V_S > V_L > V_G
11. density
12. elastic modulus
13. rainy seasons
14. 0.61 m/s
15. the angle of reflection
16. decreased
17. parabolic surface
18. elliptical
19. echo
20. 0.1 second
21. sound waves
22. echo
23. relative motion
24. n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V-V_{S}}\))n
25. velocities
26. (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n
27. more, actual
29. [V – W]
29. away from, stationary
30. stationary

III. True/False Questions: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound waves are transverse waves by nature.
2. Longitudinal waves are characterised by compressions and rarefactions.
3. Medium is not required for the propagation of light.
4. Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency about 20 KHz.
5. Velocity of sound is the greatest in gas.
6. Velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
7. According to law of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
8. When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.
9. Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. The principle of SONAR is Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. False – Sound waves are longitudinal waves by nature.
2. True
3. True
4. False – Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz.
5. False – Velocity of sound is the least in gas.
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False – Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. True

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (B)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (A)
(iii) – (B)
(iv) – (E)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (E)
(ii) – (F)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (C)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (C)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (D)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions:

Question 1.
Assertion: Sound waves cannot be propagated through vacuum but light can be transmitted.
Reason: Sound waves cannot be polarised but light wave can be polarised.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Ocean waves hitting a beach are always found to be nearly normal to the shore.
Reason: Ocean waves hitting a beach are assumed to be plane waves.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Speed of a wave is the ratio between wavelength and time period of a wave.
Reason: Wavelength is the distance between two nearest particles in phase.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: When a people moves along the sand within few centimetres of a sand scorpion, the scorpion immediately turns towards the people and dashes towards it.
Reason: When a people disturbs the sand, it sends pulses along the sand’s surface. One set of pulses is longitudinal and other set is transverse.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: Light waves are transverse.
Reason: Light waves travel in air with a velocity of 3 × 10⁸ m/s .
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the density of a gas.
Reason: When humidity increases the velocity of sound increases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Echo is produced due to the reflection of sound from walls, mountains etc.
Reason: Echo is used in ultrasonography.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Doppler effect is due to relative motion between the source and listener.
Reason: Echo is used in RADAR and SONAR.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

VI. Answers very briefly:

Question 1.
What is the nature of sound waves?
Answer:
Sound waves travel through any medium in the form of longitudinal waves.

Question 2.
How is the sound produced?
Answer:
By touching a ringing bell or a musical instrument while it is producing music, we conclude that sound is produced by vibrations.

Question 3.
A wave travelling in a medium has time period T and wavelength λ. How T and λ are related?
Answer:
Wave velocity v = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
(or) λ = vT

Question 4.
Why don’t we hear sounds when our ears are closed?
Answer:

• We hear the sound even when we close our ears but its magnitude and frequency is very less due to the obstruction of our hands.
• It also depends upon the frequency and loudness of the sound.

Question 5.
What is the relation between frequency and wavelength?
Answer:
Wave velocity = Frequency × Wavelength
v = vλ

Question 6.
What do you understand by the term ‘infrasonic vibration’?
Answer:
Infrasonic waves: These are sound waves with a frequency below 20 Hz that cannot be heard by the human ear. E.g., waves produced during an earthquake, ocean waves, the sound produced by whales, etc.

Question 7.
What is the range of audible frequency?
Answer:
The audible range of frequency is from 20 Hz to 20 KHz.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
State the differences between sound and light.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is meant by particle velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the particles of the medium vibrate in order to transfer the energy in the form of a wave is called particle velocity.

Question 3.
What do you know about wave velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the wave travels through the medium is called wave velocity. In other words, the distance travelled by a sound wave in unit time is called the velocity of a sound wave.
∴ velocity = \(\frac{Distance}{Time taken}\)

Question 4.
Define wave velocity.
Answer:
Wave velocity is defined as the distance travelled per second by a sound wave. Since,
Frequency (n) = 1/T, V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\) can be written as V = nλ.

Question 5.
What is the effect of density of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
V ∝\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Question 6.
What is the effect of temperature of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature. The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in temperature.
V ∝ √T . Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.61T) ms²

Question 7.
What are the factors affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:

• Effect of density
• Effect of temperature
• Effect of humidity

Question 8.
What do you know about reflection of sound from a plane surface?
Answer:
When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the reflected waves travel in a direction, according to the law of reflection. The intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.

Question 9.
Write a note on whispering gallery.
Answer:
One of the famous whispering galleries is in St. Paul’s cathedral church in London. It is built with elliptically shaped walls. When a person is talking at one focus, his voice can be heard distinctly at the other focus. It is due to the multiple reflections of sound waves from the curved walls.

Question 10.
How is echo of sound produced?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc…

Question 11.
Write short notes about mega phone.
Answer:
A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks . at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 12.
Define Doppler effect.
Answer:
When ever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

Question 13.
How Doppler effect is used to measure the speed of an automobile?
Answer:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

Question 14.
How is Doppler effect utilised in tracking a satellite?
Answer:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

Question 15.
How is the location of aircrafts found out?
Answer:
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

Question 16.
How is the speed of submarine estimated?
Answer:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

VIII. Numerical problems:

Question 1.
How far does the sound travel in air when a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz makes 64 vibrations? Velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s².
Answer:
Velocity of sound in air v = 340 m/s
Frequency v = 256 Hz
Distance travelled by the wave in one vibration is equal to its wavelength. Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
= \(\frac{340}{256}\) = 1.328 m
Distance travelled by the wave in 64 vibrations
= 1.328 × 64
= 84.992 m = 85 m

Question 2.
A train moving with velocity 30 ms^-1 blows a whistle of frequency 516 Hz. Find the pitch of the sound heard by a passenger ¡n another train approaching the first at a speed of 15 ms^-1, the velocity of sound = 330 ms^-1.
Solution:
It both the trains are approaching each other.
The apparent frequency, \(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{o}}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{330+15}{330-30}\right) \times 516} \\ {n=\frac{345}{300} \times 516=1.15 \times 516} \\ {n^{\prime}=593.4 \mathrm{Hz}}\end{array}\).

Question 3.
A body generates waves of 100 mm long through medium A and 0.25 m long in medium B. If the velocity of waves in medium A is 80 cm s^-1. Then, calculate the velocity of waves in medium B.
Answer:
In medium A wavelength λ_A = 100 mm
= 0.1 m
In medium A velocity v_A = 80 m/s
= 0.8 m/s
In medium B let velocity be v_B
In medium B, wavelength λ_B = 0.25 m
As the frequency of the wave remains same in the two media, so

= 2 m/s
∴ Velocity of waves in the medium B = 2 m/s

Question 4.
A radio station broadcasts its programme at 219.3 m wavelength. Determine the frequency of radio waves if velocity of radio waves 3 × 10⁸ m/s.
Answer:
Velocity of radio waves v = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Wavelength of radio waves λ = 219.3 m
∴ Frequency of radio waves v = \(\frac{v}{λ}\)
v = \(\frac{3×10^8}{219.3}\)
= 0.013679 × 10⁸
= 13679 × 10² Hz
= 1.36 79 × 10³ Hz
Frequency v = 1.3679 KHz

Question 5.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 960 m/s. If 3600 waves are passing through a point in the medium in 1 minute, then calculate its wavelength.
Answer:
Speed of a wave v = 960 m/s
Frequency of the wave v = 3600 m^-1
\(\frac{3600}{60}\) = 60 s^-1
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
\(\frac{960}{60}\) = 16 m
Wavelength = 16 m

Question 6.
If a splash is heard 4.23 second after a stone is dropped into a well 78.4 m deep then calculate the speed of sound in air.
Answer:
For downward motion of the stone,
Initial velocity u = 0
Acceleration a = 9.8 m/s²
Distance S = 74.8 m.
Time t = ?
S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
78.4 = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 t²
= 4.9 t²
∴ t² = \(\frac{78.4}{4.9}\) = 16
∴ t = 4 s
Let ‘t’ be the time taken by the splash of sound to reach the top of the well.
Then,
t + t’ = 4 +t’ = 4.23 s
∴ t = 4.23 – 4 = 0.23 s
∴ Speed of sound in air
\(\frac{distence}{Time}\)
= \(\frac{78.4}{0.23}\)
= 340.87 m/s

Question 7.
At what temperature will the speed of sound be double its value at 273 K?
Answer:
We know that velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to square root of its temperature

T₁ = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K
v₁ = 2v₁ T₂ = ?

∴ T₂ = 4 × 273 = 1092 K
Required temperature = 1092 K

Question 8.
A listener moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?
Answer:
Hence listener moves towards the source.
V_L = –\(\frac{V}{5}\), V_S = 0
V_L – Velocity of listener
V_S – Velocity of source
V – Velocity of sound
Apparent frequency = n’

The percentage increase in apparent frequency

= 20%

Question 9.
A siren is fitted on a car going towards a vertical wall at a speed of 36 Kmph. A person standing on the ground behind the car, listens to the siren sound coming directly from the source as well as that coming after reflection from the wall. Calculate the apparent frequency of the wave coming directly from the siren to the person.
Answer:
Velocity of source = 36 Kmph
V_S = 36 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity of sound v = 340 m/s
Frequency n = 500 Hz
For the sound coming directly from the siren to the listener, source (siren) is moving away from the listener so
V_S = -10 m/s V₂ = 0
Apparent frequency of the wave

= 485.7 Hz

Question 10.
The sirens of two fire engines have a frequency of 600 Hz each. A man hears the sirens from the two engines, one approaching him with a speed of 30 Kmph and the car going away from him at a speed of 54 Kmph. What is the difference in frequency of two sirens heard by the man?
Answer:
Velocity of sound be 340 m/s
Frequency n = 600 Hz
Velocity of sound
V = 340 m/s
Velocity of source
Vs = 36 Kmph
\(\frac{36×5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity listener
V_S = 0
For the engine approaching man

= 618.2 Hz
For the engine going away from the man
V_S = -54 Kmph
= -54 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = -15 m/s
Velocity of listener V_L = 0
Apparent frequency

Difference in frequencies = n’ – n” = 618.2 – 574.6
= 43.6 Hz

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the nature of sound waves.
Answer:
Sound waves are longitudinal waves that can travel through any medium (solids, liquids, gases) with a speed that depends on the properties of the medium. As sound travels through a medium, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the wave. This displacement involves the longitudinal displacements of the individual molecules from their mean positions. This results in a series of high and low pressure regions called compressions and rarefactions.

Question 2.
Explain in the details of measuring the velocity of sound by the Echo method.
Answer:
Apparatus required:
A source of sound pulses, a measuring tape, a sound receiver, and a stopwatch.
Procedure:

• Measure the distance d between the source of sound pulse and the reflecting surface using the measuring tape.
• The receiver is also placed adjacent to the source. A sound pulse is emitted by the source.
• The stopwatch is used to note the time interval between the instant at which the sound pulse is sent and the instant at which the echo is received by the receiver. Note the time interval as ‘t’.
• Repeat the experiment for three or four times. The average time taken for the given number of pulses is calculated.

Calculation of speed of sound:

• The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver.
• The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of the sound wave is given by:
  \(\text { Speed of sound }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { Time taken }}=\frac{2 d}{t}\)

Question 3.
Explain laws of reflection with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
The following two laws of reflection are applicable to sound waves as well.
(i) The incident wave, the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
(ii) The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the angle of reflection ∠r.
These laws can be observed from figure

In the above Figure, the sound waves that travel towards the reflecting surface are called the incident waves. The sound waves bouncing back from the reflecting surface are called reflected waves. For all practical purposes, the point of incidence and the point of reflection is the same point on the reflecting surface.

A perpendicular line drawn at the point of incidence is called the normal. The angle which the incident sound wave makes with the normal is called the angle of incidence, ‘i’. The angle which the reflected wave makes with the normal is called the angle of reflection, ‘r’.

Question 4.
Explain applications of echo.
Answer:
(i) Some animals communicate with each other over long distances and also locate objects by sending the sound signals and receiving the echo as reflected from the targets.

(ii) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(iii) Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.

Question 5.
Explain various applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. To measure the speed of an automobile:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

2. Tracking a satellite:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

3. RADAR (Radio Detection and Ranging):
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircraft are tracked.

4. SONAR:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 6.
Describe (i) Soundboard
(ii) Ear trumpet and
(iii) Megaphone.
Answer:
(i) Sound Board: These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

(ii) Ear trumpet: Ear trumpet is a hearing aid, which is useful by people who have difficulty in hearing. In this device, one end is wide and the other end is narrow. The sound from the sources fall into the wide end and are reflected by its walls into the narrow part of the device. This helps in concentrating the sound and the sound enters the eardrum with more intensity. This enables a person to hear the sound better.

(iii) MegaPhone: A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 7.
What is the Doppler effect? Explain it in several situations.
Answer:
Whenever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

For simplicity of calculation, it is assumed that the medium is at rest, That is the velocity of the medium is zero. Let S and L be the source and the listener moving with velocities v_S and v_L respectively. Consider the case of source and listener moving towards each other. As the distance between them decreases, the apparent frequency will be more than the actual source frequency.

Let n and n’ be the frequency of the sound produced by the source and the sound observed by the listener respectively. Then, the expression for the apparent frequency n’ is
n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_L}{V-V_S}\))n
Here, v is the velocity of sound waves in the given medium. Let us consider different possibilities of motions of the source and the listener. In all such cases, the expression for the apparent frequency is given in table

Suppose the medium (say wind) is moving with a velocity W in the direction of the propagation of sound. For this case, the velocity of sound, ‘v’ should be replaced with (v + W). If the medium moves in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound, then ‘v’ should be replaced with (v – W).

Question 8.
Describe the applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
(i) To measure the speed of an automobile : An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

(ii) Tracking a satellite : The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

(iii) RADAR (RAdio Detection And Ranging) : In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

(iv) SONAR (SOund Navigation And Ranging) : In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 9.
Explain the conditions for no Doppler effect.
Answer:
Under the following circumstances, there will be no Doppler effect and the apparent frequency as heard by the listener will be the same as the source frequency.

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.
3. When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular directions.
4. If the source is situated at the center of the circle along which the listener is moving.

IX. Hot questions:

Question 1.
Why is frequency the most fundamental property of a wave?
Answer:
When a waves travels from one medium to another, its velocity and wavelength may change. But the frequency does not change hence the frequency is the most fundamental property of a wave.

Question 2.
Which properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound?
Answer:
Elasticity and inertia are the properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound.

Question 3.
What does cause the rolling sound of thunder?
Answer:
The multiple reflections of sound of lightning produce the rolling sound of thunder.

Question 4.
On the surface of moon, two astronauts can not talk to each other. Give reason.
Answer:
Sound waves require material medium for their propagation. As there is no ‘ atmosphere, on the moon, hence the sound wave can not propagate on the moon.

Question 5.
If a person places his ear to one end of a long iron pipeline, he can distinctly hear two sound waves when a workman hammers the other end of the pipeline. How?
Answer:
Sound waves travel sixteen times faster in iron than in air. Hence the person hears two sounds, the first one travelling through the iron pipeline and the second travelling through air.

Question 6.
Sound waves travel faster in solids than in liquids and gases. Why?
Answer:
Sound waves travel faster in solids with greatest speed. Because the coefficient of elasticity of solids is much greater than coefficient of elasticity of liquids and gases.

Question 7.
If an explosion takes place at the bottom of a lake, will the shock waves in water be longitudinal or transverse?
Answer:
An explosion in a lake produces shock waves there by creating enormous increase in pressure in water.
A shock wave is thus a longitudinal wave travelling at a speed that is greater than that of a longitudinal wave of ordinary intensity.

Question 8.
Sound can be heard over longer distances on a rainy day. Give reason.
Answer:
On a rainy day, air contains a large amount of water vapour. This decreases the density of air. Hence, sound travels faster in air and can be heard over longer distances.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 2

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
I scraped the ice off the gauges.
(a) applied (b) saw (c) scratched (d) melted
Answer:
(c) scratched

Question 2.
We hoisted our oxygen gear on to our backs.
(a) dropped (b) swayed (c) hauled (d) hooked up
Answer:
(c) hauled

Question 3.
Liberty is a social contract.
(a) contact (b) confront (c) encounter (d) agreement
Answer:
(d) agreement

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
There was a curious smothering noise from my friend.
(a) expressed (b) smoothened (c) smoothened (d) suffocated
Answer:
(a) expressed

Question 5.
The serenity was much admired.
(a) calmness (b) tranquillity (c) surrender (d) bustle
Answer:
(d) bustle

Question 6.
One can swallow considerable quantities without ill-effects.
(a) significant (b) sizeable (c) partly (d) large
Answer:
(c) partly

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘Tax payer’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Noun (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Noun

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of IMP.
(a) Indian Maritime Department (b) India Meteorological Device (c) Indian Meteorological Department (d) India Meteorological Department
Answer:
(d) India Meteorological Department

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
At the meeting, the professors were schmoozing with the president of the club.
(a) talking in a friendly manner (b) brainstorming (c) gossiping (d) fighting
Answer:
(a) talking in a friendly manner

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word Interpol.
(a) Inter + Pol (b) India + Police (c) International + Police (d) Inter + Pal
Answer:
(c) International + Police

Question 11.
Choose die clipped word for gymnasium.
(a) gymum (b) gymna (c) gin (d) gym
Answer:
(d) gym

Question 12.
A strong desire to pen poetry is known as ……………….. .
(a) calligraphy (b) metromania (c) melodrama (d) decathlon
Answer:
(b) metromania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word ‘suspecting’.
(a) re- (b) im- (c) un- (d) mis-
Answer:
(c) un-

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
It was Ausable …………………….. closed the door behind him.
(a) who (b) whose (c) whom (d) which
Answer:
(a) who

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
There was a delay before we went ………………………. the tunnel.
(a) across (b) above (c) into (d) through
Answer:
(d) through

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement. It’s not hot today ………………………..?
(a) is it (b) was it (c) will it (d) won’t it
Answer:
(a) is it

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
Hari had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples and oranges.
(a) similar (b) cannot be compared (c) comparing with fruits (d) was hungry
Answer:
(b) cannot be compared

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative. Surya was lazy.
(a) motivational (b) emotional (c) motivationally deficient (d) sensitive
Answer:
(c) motivationally deficient

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence. He smiled uncomfortably.
(a) SVO (b) SVIODO (c) SVCA (d) SVA
Answer:
(d) SVA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb. The lorry was going slowly, blocking our way, but we managed to ……………………….
(a) pull ahead (b) pull through (c) pull towards (d) pull behind
Answer:
(a) pull ahead

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Oh then our maze of tunneled stone ‘
Grew thin and treacherous as air”
(a) What is the figure of speech in the first line?
(b) Mention the poetic device employed in the second line.
Answer:
(a) The figure of speech in the first line is metaphor.
(b) Simile is the poetic device employed in the second line.

Question 22.
“One equal temper of heroic hearts,
Made weak by time and fate, but strong in will To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield”
(а) Though made weak by time and fate, the hearts are heroic. Explain.
(b) Pick out the words in alliteration in the above lines.
Answer:
(a) Ulysses and his compatriots might have become old and may not have the same strength they had in youth. But they still share the thirst for travel and pursuit of knowledge in the unexplored world. Their bravery and spiritual strength are intact. .
(b) Strive, seek, heroic, hearts are the words that alliterate.

Question 23.
“Atfirst the infant,
Mewling and puking in the nurse’s arms.”
(а) What does man do in the first stage of life?
(b) Explain, ‘Mewling and pucking’.
Answer:
(a) In the first stage of life man plays the role of an infant. He is always crying and vomiting in the nurse’s arms.
(b) It means crying and vomiting.

Question 24.
“ What is that dirge-like murmur that I hear Like the sea breaking on a shingle-beach?
It is the tree’s lament, an eerie speech,”
(а) What do you mean by dirge?
(b) Why does the tree lament?
Answer:
(a) ‘Dirge’ means a lament for the dead.
(b) The tree laments the absence of the poet.

Question 25.
“The Chief’s eye flashed; his plans Soared up again like fire.”
(а) Who is described as the chief?
(b) Identify the figure of speech employed.
Answer:
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte is described as the chief.
(b) Simile.

Question 26.
“and guide him among sudden betrayals and tighten him for slack moments
(a) What could guide the son among unexpected betrayals?
(b) What could happen to the boy during slack moments?
Answer:
(a) Rock/steel-like would guide the son among betrayals.
(b) During slack moments, the boy may be betrayed by his trusted friends.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Padma : Did you see the dentist last week?
Devi : No, I will be seeing the dentist next week.
Padma asked Devi if she had seen the dentist the previous week. Devi said that she had not and that she would be seeing the dentist the following week.

Question 28.
She must buy a ticket. Otherwise she will not be allowed to watch the programme, (combine using if)
Answer:
If she does not buy a ticket, she will not be allowed to watch the programme.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If I had been there, this problem wouldn’t have happened.
Answer:
Had I been there, this problem wouldn’t have happened.

Question 30.
Though Andrew has an unconventional swing, he manages to drive the ball farther than some professional golfers. (Change the following into a compound sentence)
Answer:
Andrew has an unconventional swing but he manages to drive the ball farther than some professional golfers.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Our only enemy was gold
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.

Context: The helpless soldier says this while being surprised by the enemies who bribed the wicked wicket gate keeper.

Explanation: The soldier was initially proud of their fortified castle, brave and loyal soldiers and pile of arms and the well-stocked granary to last a siege. There was vigil behind the turret wall. But he was not aware of the enemy within the human soul: the greed. Gold was their enemy for which they had no weapon. The wizened warder had let the enemy in through the wicket gate by taking “gold”. The weakness of the gatekeeper for gold made the strong castle weak.

Question 32.
How dull it is to pause, to make an end,
To rust unburnished, not to shine in use!
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.

Context: The poet says these words while discussing the mental agony of Ulysses who is unable to settle down with his ageing wife Penelope and son Telemachus.

Explanation: Ulysses finds doling out justice to a savage people as ‘boring’. He does not want to settle down and die in Ithaca. He compares himself to a sword which may rust if left unused. He wants to lead an active and adventurous life till his death.

Question 33.
“‘I’m killed, Sire! ’And, his Chief beside,
Smiling, the boy fell dead.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Contex: The poet says these words while explaining the hurt reaction of the boy-soldier.

Explanation: Instead of being carried away for first aid, he hurried on horse back to communicate the news of conquest of Ratisbon despite his chest being split into two. When emperor Napoleon expressed his grief on his wounded status, the boy soldier said, “Nay I’m killed sire.”

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What made the boys join the resistance movement against the Germans?
Answer:
The boys hated the Germans who had destroyed their town and killed their father. So, they joined the resistance movement against the Germans.

Question 35.
Elucidate the author’s ideas about teapots.
Answer:
The teapot should be made of China or earthen ware. Silver or Britannia ware teapot produce inferior quality tea. Enamel pots are worse. Though curiously enough a pewter teapot, a rarity nowadays, is not so bad.

Question 36.
How were the achievers welcomed by fellow climbers?
Answer:
Two figures came towards them a couple of hundred feet about their camp. They were George Lowe and Wilfrid Noyce, and it was thoughtful of them because Hillary’s oxygen ran out just then.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow. Expenditure in book Publishing
(a) For what does the publisher spend the maximum while publishing a book?
(b) How much expenditure is incurred on printing?
(c) How much percent royalty goes to the author?
Answer:
(a) A publisher spends the maximum in binding the books.
(b) Twenty five percent of the expenditure is incurred on printing.
(c) The royalty for the author is 15%.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a Teacher and a student.
Answer:
Teacher : Why are you late today?
Student: I went to hospital with my mother.
Teacher : Who is sick?
Student: My mother is down with a viral infection.
Teacher : Couldn’t your father accompany her to the hospital?
Student: I am afraid that there wasn’t any alternative as my father was out of station.

Question 39.
Describe the process of making bricks.
Answer:

• In the first stage, the raw material clay is dug from the soil by a digger and lumps of clay are placed on a metal grid and broken into smaller pieces, which fall through a roller.
• They are later mixed with sand and water to make a uniform mixture.
• Brick-shaped pieces are subsequently formed either by using a mould or by cutting the clay mix with a wire cutter.
• The raw bricks are then hardened, stacked in a drying oven and left for one or two days. The dried bricks are finally heated in a kiln, first to a moderate temperature and then to a high temperature.
• They are finally transferred to a chamber to cool and harden slowly over two to three days before being transported to customers.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) When in Rome as Romans do. (do, act, behave)
(b) A leopard can’t change its (tail, nature, spots)
(c) A burnt child fire, (fears, dreads, hates)
Answer:
(a) do (b) spots (c) dreads

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Adversity brings out the best as well as the worst in people. Elucidate this statement with reference to the story, ‘Two Gentlemen of Verona’.
Answer:
Whenever confronted by an adversity, there is a psychological reaction among most of us. Either fight or flee from it. Even adults run away from crisis and seek asylum or support of others. We find hordes of people, when living becomes difficult, migrate to other places to survive. In the face of adversity, even educated people turn to evil ways. They worked hard from dawn to midnight. They did any job that came their way. They shined shoes, hawked newspapers, sold wild fruits and took the people round the city.

They spent very little on their food and clothes. Every week they cycled to Poleta and paid Lucia’s medical bill systematically. In this story, the nurse of the private hospital reveals the bitter truth about the economy of Verona. Jobs are scarce. There is inflation. It is difficult to buy food with limited money. When the hospital laid the condition that the little boys Nicola and Jacopo should pay the weekly medical bill for their sister Lucia’s treatment for tuberculosis, they did not back off or give up. Their best qualities came out during adversity. Like tea leaves, they gave their best while in hot waters.

[OR]

‘There is no height, no depth that the spirit of man, guided by higher Spirit cannot attain’. Discuss the above statement in the context of the achievement of Edmund Hillary and Tenzing.
Answer:
Man is naturally endowed with an indomitable spirit. Guided by powers above, man reaches great height. The grit and persistence of both Hillary and Tenzing stand testimony to the above maxim. The conditions were really overwhelming. Hillary slipped many times. Once he even sought the advisability of continuing the climb under such conditions. But Tenzing and Hillary resolved to persist and conquer the peak. As a reward to 400 feet climb near the south summit, they got two bottles of oxygen which in fact kept them alive almost up to their base camp.

Both pick up the pieces of hopes only when they come into contact with firmer rock-like ice as they moved up. Though they had to inch their way up clearing snow with the ice-axe and making a path to haul themselves up ridge after ridge in the elusive terrain, they did not give up. As Hillary’s ice-axe bit into the first steep slop of the ridge, his hopes were realized. The snow was crystalline and firm. With just two or three blows, Hillary could make a step large enough for their oversized high altitude boots.

They could create comfortable belays and trudge forward with confidence. As the humps were continuously seen, their original zest started declining. It was at this point Hillary saw a narrow ridge up to a snowy summit. With a few more whacks of the ice-axe in the form of snow, they reached the top.

Question 42.
Why did the narrator say that their “only enemy was gold”?
Answer:
The narrator was very proud of the awe-inspiring castle. The soldiers were least bothered about the enemy who was just half a mile away. They had a well -guarded, tall, smooth and insurmountable fort. They were led by a brave captain. The soldiers were loyal and ready to lay down their lives for protecting the castle and the trusting citizens of their country. There was constant vigil from the turret wall to shoot down the enemy at sight.

They were proud that only a bird could have the temerity to scale over the fortified castle. They were even prepared for a siege as they had well-stocked granaries. In the event of the outbreak of a war, allies were ready to rush with their assured forces in support of them. But the soldiers were unaware of the truth, “the strength of the strongest chain lies in its weakest link”. An aged warder of a wicked wicket gate had a cancerous growth of greed.

As the enemy was hidden within the soul of their own citizen, they had no weapon to fight it. Gold was ultimately their enemy. The wicked gate keeper betrayed his country for a bag full of gold. The great citadel fell without even a groan of protest and without shedding “a jot of blood.”

[OR]

Napoleon was a great source of inspiration to his army Justify.
Answer:
Napoleon was a powerful orator and was able to muster the support of young soldiers who could gladly throw away their lives for the glory of France and for fulfilling the ambitious plans of territorial expansion of Napoleon Bonaparte. He inspired unprecedented courage among the soldiers.

They never worried about the strength of the enemy army or their pile of armaments. They faced the battles with the single minded determination to ‘do or die’ or do and die. They kissed death for the glorification of France and for making Napoleon proud of their heroism, sacrifices and patriotism.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Martha and John – grudge – underpaid two decades – punishment – condemned the bribe – abusive language – one hundred thousand dollars – changed attitude – testify – three words – corrupt practices.
Answer:
Martha and John cherished a grudge against Gresham for having underpaid Baldwin for about two decades. They openly said that he deserved punishment. Initially Gresham condemned the bribe claimed as a difference in salary paid. Had he been made a similar offer he claimed he would have asked him to go to the devil. Baldwin said that having been a friend he couldn’t use such an abusive language. Casually John asked how much he offered.

Baldwin said that it was one hundred thousand dollars. Suddenly Martha and John changed their attitude towards Gresham. John viewed a shame if Gresham got indicted because he shared his name. Martha also desperately tried to convince him not to testify against Gresham. John even suggested that he could say those three words “I don’t remember” as the depositor would not lose a cent. Baldwin felt miserable because the family members who he wanted to feel proud of his uprightness wanted him to crossover to the side of corrupt practices because of the generous offer made by Gresham.

[OR]

Atisable, private detective-automatic gun – Berlin – nice story – balcony – displeasure – hotel management – Ausable’s room – times of danger – pre-ordered drinks – blatant – lie – Max jumped – suicidal jump – outwitted the spy.
Answer:
Ausable was a shrewd private detective. He did not become panicky on seeing Max with an automatic gun in his room. Even if he were, he did not show it off. Instead, he expressed surprise that he expected him to be in Berlin. He cooked up a nice story that it was the second time someone had broken into his room through the balcony of the neighbouring apartment which reaches down under his window.

He expressed his displeasure that he would raise hell with the hotel management for not blocking that balcony. This gave a strong suggestion to Max, that he could have used the balcony instead of the pass key to enter Ausable’s room. Being a criminal or spy, a person always looks for various routes of escape in times of danger. Very rarely he starts direct encounter risking his life. When Henry, the waiter who arrived with the pre-ordered drinks, knocked, Mr. Ausable simply smiled.

When Max asked who it was, he told a blatant lie that it was the police who had come for his extra protection and wouldn’t hesitate to fire as the door wasn’t locked but just closed. Max, assuming that there is a balcony extending below Ausable’s window, jumped. He never knew that it was a suicidal jump from the sixth floor. Thus, Ausable outwitted the spy, Max.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
Residents of the Bhirung Raut Ki Gali, where Ustad Bishmillah Khan was bom on March 21,1916, were in a state of shock. His cousin, 94-year -old Mohd Idrish Khan had tears welled up in his eyes. Shubhan Khan, the care-taker of Bismillah’s land, recalled “Whenever in Dumaraon, he would give rupees two to the boys and rupees five to the girls of the locality”. He was very keen to play Shehnai again in the local Bihariji’s Temple where he had started playing Shehnai with his father, Bachai Khan, at the age of six.

His original name was Quamaruddin and became Bishmillah only after he became famous as a Shehnai player in Varanasi. His father Bachai Khan was the official Shehnai player of Keshav Prasad Singh, the Maharaja of the erstwhile Dumaraon estate, Bismillah used to accompany him. For Bismillah Khan, the connection to music began at a very early age. By his teens, he had already become a master of the Shehnai. On the day India got freedom, Bismillah Khan, then a sprightly young man of 31 years old, had the rare honour of playing from Red Fort.

But Bishmillah Khan won’t just be remembered for elevating the Shehnai from an installment heard only in weddings and Naubatkhanas to one that was appreciated in concert halls globally across the world. His life was a witness to the plurality that is India. A practicing Muslim, he would take a daily dip in River Ganges in his younger days after a bout of kusti in Benia Baga Akhada. Every morning, Bismillah Khan would do riyaaz at the Balaji temple on the banks of the river. Even during his final hours in a Varanasi hospital, music didn’t desert Bismillah Khan.

A few hours before he left this worldly home early on Monday, the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri to show that he was feeling better. This was typical of a man for whom life revolved around music. Throughout his life, he abided by the principle that all religions are one and the same. What marked Bismillah Khan was his simplicity and disregard for the riches that come with musical fame. Till the very end, he used a cycle rickshaw to travel around Varanasi. But the pressure of providing for some 60 family members took its toll during his later years.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 388
No. of words to be written in the summary: 388/3 = 129 ± 5

Rough Draft
Residents of the Bhirung Raut Ki Gali were shocked, where Ustad Bismillah Khan was born on March 21, 1916. Subhan Khan recalled that in Dumaraon, he would give Rs.2/- and 5/- to boys and girls respectively. He wanted to play Shehnai in Bihariji’s Temple to recall his childhood days withhls-Tather, Bachai Khan. His original name was Quamaruddin and became Bishmillah as a Shehnai player in varanasi. His father was the official Shehnai player of the Maharaja of Dumaraon estate. On the day India got freedom, 31 year old Bismillah, had the rare honour of playing from Red Fort.

He was appreciated globally. His life was a witness to the plurality that is India. A few hours before he died the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri, typical of a man whose life revolved around music. Throughout his life, he abided by the principle that all religions are one and the same. His simplicity and disregard for the riches in spite of being famous was seen in his cycle rickshaw rides.

Fair Draft: Bismillah Khan – A Legend
Residents were shocked about Bishmillah Khan’s demise. Tears welled in an aged cousin. Shubhan recalled his generosity to children. Quamaruddin became Bishmillah as a Shehnai player and wanted to play in Bihariji’s Temple to recall his childhood days with his father, the official Shehnai player of Dumaraon. Bismillahmastered it during teenage. On the day of Independence, young Bismillah, played from Red Fort and appreciated globally.

He was a witness to the plurality in India. Being Muslim, he would dip in River Ganges and do riyaaz at the Balaji temple. During his final hours, the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri, typical of a man whose life revolved around music. Throughout he believed that all religions were same. His disregard for riches was seen in his cycle rickshaw rides but providing for his family took its toll.

No. of words in the summary: 133

[OR]
Notes
Title: Bismillah Khan – A Legend
1. Shocked Death

• cousin Khan in tears
• caretaker of Dumaraon recalls
• Boys – Rs. 21- to boys ; Girls – Rs. 5/-

2. Early Years

• org. name Quamaruddin
• played shehnai with father at temp.
• got famous as Bismillah at Varanasi.

3. Music, a family heritage

• father: Dumarao’s court poet
• played Shehnai from 6 yrs.
• played Shehnai at Red Fort in 1947, age 31

4. Routine in Vans.

• dip in Ganges
• riyaz at Balaji Temp.
• Hummed thumri before his last breath.

5. Strong Belief in Secularism

• Bismillah bel. in secularism
• all religions are one and same
• a plurality of life, India
• Pract Islam

Abbreviations used: Rs – rupees; Org. – original; Temp. – temple; Yrs. – years; Fml. – family Mem. – member; Pract. – Practised; Bel. – believed.

Question 45.
You are Raja. You are upset about the bad influence of TY channels on the young children. Write a letter to the editor of a leading newspaper suggesting measures to upgrade the standard.
Answer:
20th Sept, 2020
From
XXX
YYY
zzz

To
The Mayor,
Municipal Corporation,
Chennai-600012.

Sir,
Sub: Provision for additional street lamps.
This is to bring to your notice that there is provision bf just one street light in every street on YYY Nagar in ZZZ locality. It is very scary to walk on the road as there are empty lands here and there with plants and bushes grown robustly. As a result, we have insects and snakes that come out of its shelter in search of food in the nights. There is also the problem of chain snatching. Additional lights will help us to walk safe in the locality.

We thereby request you to look into the matter, make provisions for additional lamp posts and also change the tube lights that aren’t working.

Thank you,

Yours faithfully,
XXX

Address on the envelope
To
The Mayor,
Municipal Corporation
Chennai- 600012

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Common Man’s Woes During Monsoon”.
Answer:
Common Man’s Woes During Monsoon

The much anticipated Monsoon brings relief from the sweltering heat. However Monsoon and madness visit us at the same time. Every year during the monsoons, pandemonium rules supreme. The roads are flooded; the sewage system falls; a huge loss of crops, fruits, life, and property is caused. Water logging and breeding of mosquitoes together becomes the reason for the rise of many diseases. Network connectivity gets weak.

Though we have benefitted from independence since 1947, the Indian Government has not been able to tackle the flood issues caused by monsoons. Recent floods have laid bare the emptiness of the claims of the civic authorities of their readiness. The poor had to bear the brunt of the problem.

One of the main causes behind this issue is the lack of stringent laws and accountability of the officials and the Ministries responsible for tackling the floods. The Government should formulate and pass strict laws regarding the projects launched to relieve people of their distress but there is hardly a sign of effective implementation of the scheme. There needs to be strict accountability.

When the Ministers will be accountable, they will ensure the officers, officials involved in the projects surely create better systems benefitting the public.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(а) Mr. Johnson with his wife and children were present at the show.
(b) The quality of goods produced here are not upto the international standard.
(c) The prices quoted for this commodity at different shops is different.
(d) Either Sanjay or Raja are responsible for this crime.
(e) Bread and butter are his lunch.
Answer:
(a) Mr. Johnson along with his wife and children were present at the show.
(b) The quality of goods produced here is not up to the international standard.
(c) The price quoted for this commodity at different shops is different.
(d) Either Sanjay or Raja is responsible for this crime.
(e) Bread and butter is his lunch.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) Her baby is ………………. in December when the ………………. on the grass will be a rare sight to see. (dew/due)
(b) When I was young, I ………………. eat tons of ice cream! (use a modal verb)
(c) I ………………. drink coffee when I was young, (use a semi-modal)
(d) We ………………. (eat) the lasagna here, (use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) due/dew
(b) could
(c) used to
(d) have eaten

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the field in the list given below, by understanding the word or words serving as the clue.
(a) Sometimes A-class facilities are extended to even those imprisoned.
(b) Did an asteroid hit south India millions of years ago?
(c) The investigations included megascopic and microscopic studies of rocks.
(d) Many foreigners come to watch Jallikatu at Madurai.
(e) The rapid depletion in indigenous aquatic plants would prove detrimental to wetlands.
[Astronomy; Law; Flora; Geology; Sports]
Answer:
(a) Law
(b) Astronomy
(c) Geology
(d) Sports
(e) Flora

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.
Answer:
The little boy of twelve will remember this day forever. It is not every day you get to see a world championship at Hyatt Regency on November 19, 20Question 13. The visit of the Children was the result of an initiative by the organizers of the tournament and the School education Department to get school Children by a part of the world championship. Many children from schools gathered to witness the ongoing world Championship and there was an overwhelming response.

Children got a chance to see Viswanathan Anand, Garry Kasparov, Magnus Carlsen and Vijayalakshmi. The entry being free, Children found it a rare and unforgettable opportunity. Student visitors were given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest. No wonder the visitors would be hailed heroes in their schools after their visit to the spot. Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby, thereby founding that the city of Chennai would produce many masters of chess dazzling with intelligence and talent.

Questions:
a. What made the day memorable for children?
b. Name any two celebrities mentioned in the passage.
c. Mention the purpose for which the visit of the children had been organized.
d. Which places were the student visitors permitted in to?
e. How did the children try to prove their powers and interest in the game?
Answers:
(a) World Championship at Hyatt made the day memorable for children.
(b) Children got a chance to see Viswanathan Anand and Garry Kasparov.
(c) The children from many schools were brought to witness the ongoing world Championship in Chess.
(d) The children were permitted into the Hyatt Regency lobby.
(e) Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby. Student visitors were also given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest.