Bhagya

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 2.
The Panchsheel Treaty has been signed between ……………..
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 3.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 4.
Apartheid is ………………
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A policy of racial discrimination

Question 5.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to:
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence

Question 6.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 7.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 8.
Find the odd one ………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.
Non-Alliance means:
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarisation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(d) none of the above

Question 10.
Non-military issues are
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India conducted its first nuclear test at ……………..
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate …………….. for domestic growth and development.
3. …………….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. …………….. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice ……………..

Answer:

1. Pokhran
2. Inward Investment Business Technology
3. Diplomacy
4. Non – Alignment
5. disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 2.
Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance.
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) only

Question 3.
Write true or false against each of the statement.
(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer:
(a) – True
(b) – False
(c) – True

Question 4.
Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(R): This began with a disastrous Indo -China war of 1962.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations. Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A

Question 6.
Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from:
(a) acute poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is foreign policy?
Answer:
Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs, in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:

1. India’s nuclear policy is based on two themes:
   • (a) No first use
   • (b) Credible minimum deterrence.
2. India has decided not to use nuclear power for offensive purposes.

Question 3.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, as opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 4.
Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy.
Answer:
Domestic Policy:

1. Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.
2. It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.

Foreign Policy:

1. Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
2. Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

• Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
• Mutual non-interference
• Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence.

Question 6.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

1. Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers (America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
2. So he choose the path of Non – Alignment in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war and tried to form a third bloc of nations in international affairs.

Question 7.
In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?
Answer:
India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.
List out the member countries of SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.
Name the architects of the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

Question 10.
Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Answer:
The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
Answer:

1. The team “Non – Alignment” was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at the United Nationsin 1953.
2. Non – Alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
3. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.
4. It was the largest political grouping of countries in a multilateral fora.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.
6. It has transformed from a political movement to an economical movement.

The founding fathers of Non – Aligned Movement: Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

The Non – Alignment roots did not prevent India from entering into an alignment with the Soviet Union by the Indo – Soviet treaty of 1971 (20 – year pact of ‘peace, friendship and co operation’)

Then India embarked on a substantial programme of military modernisation. In 1974, India also conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran under Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project, in response to China’s nuclear test in 1964 at Lop Nor.

Question 2.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:

• Geographical position and size of the territory
• Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis
• Natural resources
• The compulsion of economic development
• Political stability and structure of government
• The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
• Military strength
• International milieu

Question 3.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:
Prioritising an integrated Neighbourhood first policy:

1. India’s foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalities.
2. India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.
3. Greater connectivity and integration is provided so as to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy, capital and information.

Bridging diplomacy and development:

1. One of the major objectives India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This includes improving technological access, sourcing capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

A gradual transition from “Look East” to “Act East” Policy:

1. South East Asia begins with North East India.
2. Myanmar is our land bridge to the countries of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).
3. The purpose is to ensure a stable and multipolar balance of power in the Indo – Pacific and to become an integral part of Asia.
4. This policy emphasises a more priductive role for ASEAN ans EAST Asian countries.

Economic development:

1. Currently India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
2. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.
3. Accelerated, balanced and inclusive economic development to achieves this by ensuring peace and security, and by leveraging the nation’s international partnership.

India as a leading power:

1. India is a member of the G20, the East Asia Summit and the BRICS coalition atestament to its status as a large country with a fast growing economy.
2. India aspires for permanent membership of this UN Security Council.
3. India now has an increasing range of interests, which are anchored in different parts of the world and which stem from a wide range of factors (energy, natural resources, investment, trade etc.,)

New challenges forced India to adjust to new realities. Even then, basic framework of its foreign policy remained more (or) less the same.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and to change if you were the decision maker.
Answer:
India’s Foreign Policy focus on the following:

1. Preservation of national interest
2. Achievement of world peace
3. Disarmament
4. Maintaining cordial relationship with other countries
5. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

If I imagine myself as a decision maker of India’s foreign policy, I would like to retain the following two aspects of foreign policy.

1. Maintaining world peace, Disarmament.
2. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

The two aspects of foreign policy that I would like to change are:

1. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries. We can maintain cordial relationship with all countries, but if they tries to attract us, we should be ready to defend ourselves.
2. Equality in conducting International relations. We can maintain an equality in International relations along with the improvement in scientific economic aspects.

So, it can be enhancement in scientific and economic aspects in relation with other countries.

Note: The answer given is purely a sample answer, students should understand the answer, analyse, and think to give their personal views on the activity and submit to their teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which policy seeks to secure the best interest of the people? (territory and economy of the country).
(a) Panchsheel
(b) Imperialism
(c) Foreign Policy
(d) Non-co-operation
Answer:
(c) Foreign Policy

Question 2.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s five principles of peace are named as …………
(a) Swadesh
(b) New Deal
(c) Panchsheel
Answer:
(c) Panchsheel

Question 3.
An objective and goal oriented foreign policy has the potential to achieve:
(a) improved relation with other Nation.
(b) To accelerate growth
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
India is called by the name of ………..
(a) Superpower
(b) Terrorist
(c) A great peacemaker
Answer:
(c) A great peacemaker

Question 5.
Which Institute provides training for officers of Indian Foreign Services (IFS)?
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute
(b) An international association
(c) Ministry of external affairs of India
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute

Question 6.
China became a Republic in ………..
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 7.
………………… principles were incorporated in the Bandung Declaration.
(a) Non – Aligned Movement
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Trade and commerce
(d) Racial discrimination
Answer:
(b) Panchsheel

Question 8.
Bangladesh got freedom due to the efforts of ………….
(a) Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Indira Gandhi

Question 9.
What is the main aim of India’s foreign policy in the following?
(a) World co – operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by ………….
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Abul Ashar
(c) Jinnah
Answer:
(a) V. Krishna Menon

Question 11.
Whose vote against Iran at the’lnternational Atomic Energy agency?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) India

Question 12.
The foremost task of india’s foreign policy:
(a) Domestic transformation
(b) Inward investment
(c) Business and technology
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
India’s global security concerns:
(a) Military modernisation
(b) Nuclear policies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 14.
Mention the basic concepts of India’s Foreign Policy.
(a) Disarmament
(b) Colonisation
(c) Imperialism
(d) Racism
Answer:
(a) Disarmament

Question 15.
How many member countries in SAARC organisation?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 16.
Which of the following country is a member of the SAARC?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) Egypt
(d) Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 17.
………………… policies aim to promote welfare economics and collective self-reliance among the countries (South Asia)
(a) SAARC
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Non – Alignment
(d) none
Answer:
(a) SAARC

Question 18.
………………… is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.
(a) Diplomacy
(b) Disarmament
(c) Racism
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Diplomacy

Question 19.
Who supported UN disarmament programme?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Srilanka
(c) China
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 20.
………………… is the world’s second most populous country.
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(b) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Foreign Service Training Institute was established in ………………….
2. The Afro – Asian conference held in ………………….
3. …………………. has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
4. The founding father of NAM …………………. of India.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of …………………. countries and …………………. international organisation.
6. India embarked on a substantial programme of ………………
7. The ……………… is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
8. The ……………… stance of India was supporting the cause of decolonisation.
9. India supported UN ……………… programme.
10. ……………… is an organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in ………………
11. SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at ………………
12. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by ………………
13. The SAARC policies aim to accelerate ……………… development in the region.
14. ……………… is the nations plan for dealing with other nations.
15. India aspires for permanent membership on the ………………
16. ……………… forced India to adjust new realities.
17. Indo – US civilian ……………… marks significant progress in India’s foreign policy.
18. India provides ……………… with support as needed in the form of resources and training.
19. Since ……………… global non – proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
20. Indian ……………… in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Answers:

1. 1986
2. Indonesia
3. Non – Alignment
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
5. 120, 10
6. Military modernisation
7. Non – Aligned Movement
8. foreign policy
9. disarmament
10. SAARC, South Asia
11. New Delhi
12. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
13. Socio-cultural
14. Foreign Policy
15. UN Security Council
16. New Challenges
17. Nuclear deal
18. neighbours
19. Independence
20. Nuclear Programme

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not about SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)?
(i) SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in south Asia.
(ii) SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economics and to accelerate socio-cultural development in the region.
(iii) SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at Mumbai.
(iv) SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by (ISRO).
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Ministry of External Affairs of India also known as Foreign Ministry comes under Government of India.
Reason (R): It is responsible for the conduct of foreign relations of India.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): During Cold, War India tried to form a third block of Nations in international affairs.
Reason (R); The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was world cooperation world peace racial equality and non – alignment.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Which of the following is about NAM?
(i) Non – alignment has been regarded most important feature if India’s Foreign Policy.
(ii) NAM was formed with 180 member countries.
(iii) NAM is establishing economic cooperation among under developed countries.
(iv) It was the largest political groping countries in a multilateral fora.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (ii),(iv)
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): : Since Independence global Non – proliferation has been dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
Reason (R): So India’s supported U.N Disarmament programme.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column ll.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is Diplomacy?
Answer:
Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.

Question 2.
What is meant by G – 20 global group of countries?
Answer:
G – 20 refers to the largest established and emerging economies of the world. India is also a member of G – 20 countries.

Question 3.
Write a note on the policy of Apartheid.
Answer:

1. In South Africa the whites, did not give equal rights to the Native Africans.
2. India raised this issue for the first time in the UN General Assembly in 1946.
3. It was due to the constant moral support of India and the continuous struggle of Dr. Nelson Mandela, the policy of Apartheid was abolished in 1990.

Question 4.
List out the basic concept of India’s of foreign policy?
Answer:

1. Preservation of National interest.
2. Achievement of world peace.
3. Disarmament
4. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
5. Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
6. Equality in conducting international relations.
7. Anti – colonialism anti – imperialism anti – racism.

Question 5.
Write short notes on Article-51.
Answer:
Lays down the Directive Principles of India’s foreign policy.
The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote international peace and security
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for international law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Question 6.
What is the major objectives of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

1. one of the major objectives of India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This include improving technological access source of capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

Question 7.
What are the elements in our eastern policy?
Answer:
The three big elements in our eastern policy are stronger emphasis on physical connectivity commercial and security related.

Question 8.
Non – Alignement defined by Nehru?
Answer:
“Broudly, non – alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocks. It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not form the military point of view, though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly relations with all countries”.
– Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
Mention few basic determinants of a foreign policy.
Answer:

1. Geographical position and size of territory.
2. Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.
3. Natural resources
4. Political stability and structure of Government.

Question 10.
What do you mean by NAM?
Answer:
NAM means Non – Aligned Movement.

1. The NAM is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
2. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not , jointing any military alliance.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain about the shifts in India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The shifts in India’s policy manifested in various ways such as:

1. Better relations with China – The look East policy (1992).
2. The second nuclear test at Pokhran (1998) in Rajasthan.
3. Defence procurement relationship with Israel.
4. Energy diplomacy with Arab countries and Iran.
5. Agreeing to US nuclear missile defence programme and
6. India’s vote against Iran at the International Automatic Energy Agency.

Question 2.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

(i) India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
(ii) SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
(iii) Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary-general of SAARC.
(iv) The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.

(v) On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting Afghanistan become its 8th member.

(vi) 18th SAARC summit took place on 26th and 27th of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.

(vii) The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 3.
How India accelerated balanced and inclusive economic development?
Answer:

1. India achieved economic development by ensuring peace and security.
2. By leveraging the nations international partnership, to obtain all that is needed to fuel economic development.
3. Economic development in the filed of markets, investment, fair global governance and a stable and fair environment conducive for growth.
4. Currently’ India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
5. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.

Question 4.
Explain about the principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Lays down directive principles of India’s foreign policy.

The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote International Peace and Security.
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for International law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration.

Question 5.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

1. SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia.
2. The SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economies, collective self – reliance and to accelerate socio – cultural development in the region.
3. SAARC Disaster Management Center was set up at New Delhi.
4. This centre working on various dimensions of disaster risk reduction and management,
5. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication-cum-meteorology satellite by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the SAARC region.
6. The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, and SriLanka.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The pond is an example of ………
(a) Marine habitat
(b) Freshwater habitat
(c) Deserts
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(b) Freshwater habitat

Question 2.
The important function of stomata is ______
(a) Conduction
(b) Transpiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Absorption
Answer:
(b) Transpiration

Question 3.
Organs of absorption are ………
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Root

Question 4.
The habitat of water hyacinth is ______
(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Desert
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(a) Aquatic

II. True or False – If false give the correct answer.

1. Plants can live without water.
2. All plants have chlorophyll.
3. Plants have three parts; the root, the stem, and the leaves.
4. Mountain is an example of a freshwater habitat.
5. Root is modified into spines.
6. Green plants need sunlight.

Answer:

1. False – They need water to carry out various functions.
2. False – Only green plants have chlorophyll.
3. True
4. False – Mountain is an example of Terrestrial habitat.
5. False – Spines are usually modifications of leaves.
6. True

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. Earth’s surface is covered by ……….. % of water.
2. The driest places on earth are ……….
3. Fixation and absorption are the main functions of ……….
4. Primary organs of photosynthesis are ………..
5. Taproot system present in ……….. plants.

Answer:

1. 70%
2. Deserts
3. roots
4. leave
5. dicot.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
(i) – d
(ii) – c
(iii) – b
(iv) – e
(v) – a

V. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Leaf – Stem – Root – Flower
Answer:
root – stem – leaf – flower

Question 2.
Transpiration – Conduction – Absorption – Fixation.
Answer:
Fixation, Absorption, Conduction, Transpiration.

VI. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Classify plants on the basis of their habitat.
Answer:
Terrestrial and Aquatic are the 2 habitats

Question 2.
Identify the desert plant from the following – Cactus, Hydrilla, Mango, and Rose.
Answer:
Cactus plants – grow in deserts, and are able to store water in their stem.

Question 3.
Define the term habitat.
Answer:
Each and every organism needs a place to live and reproduce known as habitat.
The dwelling place of any organism is its habitat. Eg. Aquatic habitat

Question 4.
Relate the terms leaves and photosynthesis.
Answer:
Leaves are green in colour, they have chlorophyll and do photosynthesis.

VII. Short answer.

Question 1.
Why do you call Jasmine plants a twiner?
Answer:
Weak plant, cannot stand on its own, must climb on any support to survive.

Question 2.
Compare the taproot and fibrous root systems.
Answer:
Taproot system:

1. Consists of a single root.
2. it grows straight down in the ground
3. Seen in misogynous plants.

Fibrous root system:

1. Consists cluster of roots.
2. It is thin and uniform in size.
3. Seen in monocotyledonous plants.

Question 3.
Distinguish between terrestrial and aquatic habitats.
Answer:

Question 4.
List out the plants present in your school garden.
Answer:
Mango tree, Neem tree, Water lily, Clitoria, Hibiscus

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Make a list of functions of root & stem.
Answer:
Functions of root:
The root,

• Fixes the plant to the soil.
• Absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
• Stores food in some plants like carrots and beetroot.

Functions of stem:
The stem,

• Supports the branches, leaves, flowers, and fruits.
• Transports water and minerals from roots to upper aerial plant parts.
• Transports the prepared food from leaves to other parts.
• Stores food as in the case of sugarcane.

Question 2.
Study the given concept map. Connect them correcting by drawing arrow marks. Complete the map by filling in the blanks.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Maize has ……….
(a) taproot
(b) fibrous root
(c) Adventitious root
(d) Fasciculate root
Answer:
(b) fibrous root

Question 2.
The underground part of the main axis of a plant is known as ______
(a) shoot
(b) node
(c) root
(d) leaf
Answer:
(c) root

Question 3.
The stalk of the leaf is known
(a) peduncle
(b) rachis
(c) pedicel
d) petiole
Answer:
(d) petiole

Question 4.
On the lower side of the leaf, there are tiny pores or openings known as ______
(a) Leaf base
(b) midrib
(c) petiole
(d) stomata
Answer:
(d) stomata

Question 5.
The diameter of the leaf of Victoria amazonica is
(a) 2 meters
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 3 meters
(d) 1 meter
Answer:
(c) 3 meters

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Special features in plants which help them to survive in the habitats they live are known as ……….
2. The Great Indian Desert is an arid region of rolling sandhills on the Indian sub continent is known as ……….
3. ………. is the main vein of the lamina of the leaf.
4. A change in an organism caused by environmental factors is known as ………

Answer:

1. Adaptations
2. Thar desert
3. Midrib
4. Modification

III. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Sea – Lake – River – Pond
Answer:
Pond – Lake – River – Pond.

Question 2.
Internode – Node – Axillary Bud – Terminal Bud
Answer:
Terminal Bud – Axillary Bud – Node – Internodes.

IV. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Draw the structure of a leaf and neatly label the parts.
Answer:

Question 2.
List the main part of a flowering plant.
Answer:
The flowering plant consists of two main parts. They are

1. Root system
2. Shoot system

Question 3.
Differentiate between Gymnosperm and Angiosperm.
Answer:
Both groups produces seeds.
Gymnosperms – Non flowering but produce naked seeds Eg. Pinus, Cycas.
Angiosperms – Flowering and produce closed seeds Eg. Mango – Rose

Question 4.
Give some examples of monocotyledonous plants and dicotyledonous plants.
Answer:
Monocotyledonous plant – Grass, Paddy, Maize
Dicotyledonous plant – Bean, Mango, Neem

Question 5.
Notes on Thorns or Spines.
Answer:
Some plants leave – modified into sharp structures known as Thorns or Spines help to reduce water loss.
Eg – Agave – (leaf apex & margin modified into spines).

V. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Explain Tendril climber.
Answer:
Tendril a twining climbing organ of some weak stemmed plants.
It coils around support and helps the plant to climb.

1. Sweet peas – Here leaflets are modified into tendrils.
2. Bitter gourd – Axillary buds of plant-modified into tendril, help climb up.

Question 2.
Write about Desert Habitat.
Answer:

1. Dry places on earth
2. Less rainfall – less than 25 cm annually.
3. Deserts cover 20% of the earth’s surface.
4. Plants – Adapted to withstand severe heat.

Thick leaves help them to store water and minerals. Eg. Aloe

1. Stems modified to store water. Eg. Cactus
2. Leaves – modified into spines – Opuntia.

Question 3.
Study was given concept map. Connect them by drawing marks- for example, the map by filling the blanks.
Answer:

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
(a) clonal selection
(b) mass selection
(c) pureline selection
(d) hybridisation
Answer:
(b) mass selection

Question 2.
Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of ______.
(a) sugarcane
(b) rice
(c) cow pea
(d) maize.
Answer:
(c) cow pea

Question 3.
Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of:
(a) chilli
(b) maize
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat
Answer:
(d) wheat

Question 4.
The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is ______.
(a) IR – 8
(b) IR – 24
(c) Atomita – 2
(d) Ponni.
Answer:
(a) IR – 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
(a) enzyme from organism
(b) live organism
(c) vitamins
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) enzyme from organism

Question 6.
We can cut the DNA with the help of ______.
(a) scissors
(b) restriction endonucleases
(c) knife
(d) RNAase.
Answer:
(b) restriction endonucleases

Question 7.
rDNA is a:
(a) vector DNA
(b) circular DNA
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:
(d) satellite DNA
Answer:
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ______ sequences of DNA.
(a) single-stranded
(b) mutated
(c) polymorphic
(d) repetitive.
Answer:
(d) repetitive

Question 9.
Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as:
(a) transgenic organsims
(b) genetically modified
(c) mutated
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) transgenic organsims

Question 10.
In a hexaploid wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic (x) number of chromosomes respectively are ______.
(a) n = 7 and x = 21
(b) n = 21 and x = 21
(c) n = 7 and x = 7
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.
Answer:
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by ………..
2. A protein rich wheat variety is ………
3. ………. is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients are called ………
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but ………… is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
6. ……….. technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as …………
8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for ………..
9. ………… cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a …………
Answer:
1. Hybridization
2. Altas 66
3. Colchicine
4. Bio fortification
5. Atomita 2 rice
6. Recombinant
7. Phosphodiester
8. Identical twins
9. stem cells
10. bacterial cell

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. Raphanobrassica is a tetraploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called a pureline.
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects. ,
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body.
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.
Answer:
1. False – Raphanobrassica is a allotetra ploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. False – The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called polyploidy.
3. True
4. False – Iron rich rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. False – Golden rice is a genetically modified plant
6. True
7. False – In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done outside the body.
8. True
9. False – Molecular scissors refers to Restriction enzymes

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)
F. (viii)
G. (vi)
H. (vii)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.
1. Assertion : Hybrid is superior than either of its parents.
Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.

2. Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques.
Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

VI. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Give the name of the wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale a hybrid of wheat having dietary fibre and protein.

Question 2.
Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of the dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
Answer:
The dwarfing gene is Sd.I.

Question 3.
Define genetic engineering.
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one, organism to another organism to create a new DNA called as recombinant DNA(rDNA).

Question 4.
Name the types of stem cells?
Answer:
Embryonic stem cell and Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell, are the two types of stem cells.

Question 5.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene is known as transgenic organism.

Question 6.
State the importance of bio-fertiliser.
Answer:
Increasing the harvest yields, improving soil structure, better water relation, economical, eco – friendly and more efficient farms are due importance of biofertilizer.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
Answer:

Question 2.
Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:

1. High yielding
2. Semi – dwarf
3. Fertilizer responsive.

These are the three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are the high yielding varieties of wheat.

Question 3.
Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, shakthi are the maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysin.

Question 4.
Distinguish between
(a) somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy.
Answer:
Somatic gene therapy :
It is the replacement of defective gene in somatic cells.

Germ line gene therapy :
It is replacement of defective gene in germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b) undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
Undifferentiated cells :
The cells which have not become specialized are called undifferentiated cells.
Eg: Cells in early embryos

Differentiated cells :
The cells which have become specialized for doing certain job.
Eg: Muscle cell, nerve cell.

Question 5.
State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications such as identifying the – culprit. It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes. It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 6.
How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
Answer:
If cells, tissues and organs in the body get permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury, it can be cured by regeneration process of stem cell. In stem cell therapy, stem cells are used to replace the damage of lost cells.

Question 7.
Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Answer:
Outbreeding Inbreeding

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid, obtained by cross-breeding is called heterosis or hybrid vigour.
Effects of hybrid vigour in animal breeding:

• Increased production of milk by cattle.
• Increased production of an egg by poultry.
• High quality of meat is produced.
• The increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 2.
Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is a process by which genetic variations are created which in turn brings about changes in the organism. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.

The factors which induce mutations are known as mutagens or mutagenic agents. Mutagens are of two types namely physical mutagens and chemical mutagens.
(i) Physical mutagens : Radiations like X-rays, a, (3 and y-rays, UV rays, temperature etc. which induce mutations are called physical mutagens
(ii) Chemical mutagens : Chemical substances that induce mutations are called chemical mutagens. Eg: Mustard gas and nitrous acid. The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.

Achievements of mutation breeding: Some achievements of mutation breeding are-
(a) Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora-64 by using gamma rays.
(b) Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance
(c) Groundnuts with thick shells

Question 3.
Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification is the scientific process of helping crop plants, enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals. Micronutrient malnutrition is called hidden hunger, the lack of micronutrients such as vitamin A, zinc and iron in the diet.

Biofortification is effective in removing hidden hunger and improving the nutritional value of food. Scientists breed crops whose edible parts (seed, tuber and roots) have improved nutritional value. Biofortified foods can contribute to body stores of micronutrients throughout the life cycle.
Some example of crop varieties developed as a result of biofortification are:

• Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine-rich maize hybrids.
• Atlas 66, a protein-rich wheat variety.
• Iron-rich fortified rice variety.
• Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.

Question 4.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Answer:

In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides. A brief outline of the basic steps involved in gene cloning are:

1. Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes.
2. Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (Plasmid) to make rDNA.
3. Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell (Transformation)
4. Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone.
5. Expression of cloned gene in host cell.
   Using this strategy several enzymes, hormones and vaccines can be produced.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Using genetic engineering techniques, medicinally important valuable proteins or polypeptides, which form the potential pharmaceutical products for the treatment of various diseases have been developed on a commercial scale.
Pharmaceutical products developed by rDNA technique:

• Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
• Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
• Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
• Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and to prevent heart attack.
• Development of vaccines against various diseases like hepatitis B and rabies.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorporate.
Answer:
Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crop.

Question 2.
Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons.
Answer:
Green revolution is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modem agricultural techniques. Organic farming is a method of crop production in an ecofriendly and pollution free environment to release nutrients to crop. As organic farming is an ecofriendly and pollution free, it is better than green revolution.

Question 3.
Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
Answer:
An organism having more than 2 sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical events such as heat or cold treatment, X – rays and chemical agents like colchicine. Polyploid cell or organism has three or more times the haploid chromosomal number.

Polyploid has a major role in the evolution of both wild and cultivated plants. Polyploid has a key role in plant breeding. There are increase and increased woodiness which has been observed in some insular plants. So polyploids are characterized by gigantism.

Question 4.
‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modified plant ‘R’
(i) What is P, Q and R?
(ii) State the importance of ‘R’ in India.
Answer:
(i) P is Beta carotene gene
Q Bio fortification
R Golden rice

(ii) Golden rice is genetically modified rice can produce beta carotene,that prevent vitamin A deficiency.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Modem biotechnology consist:
(a) Genetic engineering
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Gene cloning
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
The disease-resistant cauliflower variety is ______.
(a) Himgiri
(b) Pusa Shubhra
(c) Pusa Komal
(d) IR – 8.
Answer:
(b) Pusa Shubhra

Question 3.
Transgenic animals has:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell
(b) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(c) Foreign DNA in some of the cells
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell

Question 4.
The gamete cells, which have only one set of chromosomes is called ______.
(a) diploid
(b) polyploid
(c) triploid
(d) haploid.
Answer:
(d) haploid.

Question 5.
A kind of Biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is:
(a) DNA replication
(b) Denaturation
(c) Genetic Engineering
(d) Renaturation
Answer:
(c) Genetic Engineering

Question 6.
A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using:
(a) ECORI
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) Polymerase III
(d) Ligase
Answer:
(d) Ligase

Question 7.
Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?
(a) Golden Rice
(b) Bt-Brinjal
(c) Flaver savr tomato
(d) Canolla
Answer:
(a) Golden Rice

Question 8.
Restriction endonucleses are enzymes which:
(a) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule.
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.
(c) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase.
(d) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer:
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.

Question 9.
……….. is the Father of Indian Green Revolution.
(a) Nammalvar
(b) Dr Borloug
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan
(d) Dr Sultan Ismail
Answer:
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan

Question 10.
New lined of sheep developed in Punjab is:
(a) Sahiwal
(b) Hisardale
(c) Triticale
(d) Sharbati sonara
Answer:
(b) Hisardale

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. is a cross between Male Donkey and Female Horse.
2. ……….. is a DNA molecule found in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell.
3. ………. was the first cloned female sheep.
4. Human insulin can be synthesized by using ……….
5. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment is transfered to the host cell through ………..
6. Genetically identical individuals are ………..
7. Ligase is used for joining two ………..
8. Enzyme that cleaves nucleic acids within the polynucleotide chain is known as …………
9. The bacterium used as biopesticide is …………
10. A strain of golden rice contains high content of …………..
Answer:
1. Mule
2. Plasmid
3. Dolly
4. rDNA technology
5. Vector
6. Clones
7. DNA fragments
8. Endonuclease
9. Bacillus thuringiensis.
10. Vitamin A

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. The structure used to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it into a host ceil is vector.
2. Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having sticky ends.
3. The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is clonal selection.
4. The aim of crop improvement is to develop improved crop varieties.
5. International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Indonesia.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having ligase ends.
3. False – The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is pureline selection.
4. True
5. False – International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Philippines.

IV. M.atch the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong
1. Assertion: Bacillus thuringiensis is toxic to many insects.
Reason: It inhibits ion transport in the mid gut.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong

2. Assertion.: Recombinant DNA technology has become successful due to restriction endonucleases present in Eukaryotic cells.
Reason: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule to form blunt ends.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name two neurodegenerative disorders.
Answer:
Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer disease.

Question 2.
Name two chemical mutagens.
Answer:
Mustard gas and nitrous acid.

Question 3.
What is plant breeding?
Answer:
Plant breeding is the art of developing economically important plants with superior quality.

Question 4.
What is the aim of Animal husbandry?
Answer:
The aim of Animal husbandry is to improve the genotypes of animals to make them more useful to the welfare of mankind.

Question 5.
What are exotic species?
Answer:
The process of introducing high yield varieties of plants from one place to another are called as exotic species.

Question 6.
List the two main aspects of hybridization.
Answer:
Combining the characters of two plants in one plant and to utilize hybrid vigour are the two main aspects of hybridization.

Question 7.
What is heterosis?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called heterosis.

Question 8.
What are plasmids?
Answer:
Circular, self-replicating, extra chromosomal DNA in bacteria.

Question 9.
What is transgene?
Answer:
A gene which is transferred from one organism into another organism by genetic engineering.

Question 10.
Name the Research institute found by Nammalvar.
Answer:
Nammalvar ecological foundation for farm research and global food security trust.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
List out the pest-resistant crop varieties.
Answer:

Question 2.
What does the nutritional quality of crop depend on?
Answer:
The nutritional quality of crops depends on the quality and quantity of nutrients.
The nutritional quality may be improved with respect to its:

• Protein content and quality of proteins.
• Oil content.
• Mineral content.

Question 3.
Write a note on Gamma Garden.
Answer:
Gamma garden or Atomic garden is a concept popularised after World War -II for the peaceful use of atomic energy for crop improvement. This is a type of induced mutation breeding where radioactive sources particularly gamma rays from Cobalt-60 or Caesium-137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Question 4.
An organism having more than two sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical agents such as heat or cold treatment, X-rays and chemical agents like colchicine.
Answer:
Achievements of polyploidy breeding:

• Seedless watermelons (3n) and bananas (3n).
• TV – 29 (triploid variety of tea) with larger shoots and drought tolerance.
• Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye: It has higher dietary fibre and protein.
• Rapuano brassica is an allotetraploid by colchicine treatment.

Question 5.
Mention the two important properties of stem cells.
Answer:

1. Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
2. Its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Question 6.
Illustrate hybridization with example.
Answer:
Triticale is the first man made cereal hybrid. It is obtained by crossing wheat Triticum durum (2n = 28) and rye (secale cereal, 2n = 14)
Parent Tritium durum × Secale cereal

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the following methods of plant breeding for crop improvement.
Answer:
(a) Introduction of new varieties in plants:
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called exotic species. These imported plants may carry pathogens and pests. It should be thoroughly checked before introducing to the fields, eg. Phaseolus mungo was introduced from China.

(b) Selection:
Selection is a type of plant breeding, in which individual plants or group of plants are sorted out from a mixed population based on the morphological characters.

Methods of selection:
(i) Mass selection:
Seeds of plants with desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. In the end, they are distributed to the farmers for cultivation, eg. TMV – 2 and AK – 10 (groundnut varieties).

(ii) Pure line selection:
Pureline is the “progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding”. This is also called as individual plant selection. In pure line selection, large numbers of plants are selected from a self – pollinated crop and harvested individually. Progeny is similar, both genotypically and phenotypically.

(iii) Clonal selection:
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called clones. All the plants of a clone are similar both in genotype and phenotype. Selection of desirable clones from the mixed population of the vegetatively propagated crop is called clonal selection.

Question 2.
In what way trans organism are better?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as transgenic organisms.

The transgenic plants are much stable, with improved nutritional quality, resistant to diseases and tolerant to various environment conditions. Similarly transgenic animals are used to produce proteins of medicinal importance at low cost and improve livestock quality.

Question 3.
Describe the tools of recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:
Techniques of Genetic Engineering – Basic Requirements:
Important discoveries that led to the stepping stone of rDNA technology were

1. Presence ofplasmid in bacteria that can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA.
2. Restriction enzymes cuts or break DNA at specific sites and are also called as molecular scissors.
3. DNA ligases are the enzymes which help in ligating (joining) the broken DNA fragments.

Question 4.
Give the Schematic representation of Mass selection.
Answer:

Mass selection : Seeds of best plants showing desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. At the end, they will be multiplied and distributed to the farmers for cultivation. Some common examples for mass selection are groundnut varieties like TMV-2 and AK-10. Its schematic representation is given below.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although ‘green revolution’ increases the food production, it is not enough to feed growing population. This probelm is overcomed by ‘X’ crops.
(a) What is ‘X’?
(b) Explain it with examples.
Answer:
(a) ‘X’ is Genetically modified crops.
(b) Genetic modification refers to the manipulation of genes in the organism using rDNA techniques to produce desired character.

Question 2.
What is Gamma garden?
Answer:
In gamma garden or atomic garden, a type of induced mutation breeding, where radioactive sources, particularly gamma rays from Cobalt – 60 or Caesium – 137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Students can download Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.3 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.3

Question 1.
Let f = {(x, y) |x,y; ∈ N and y = 2x} be a relation on N. Find the domain, co-domain and range. Is this relation a function?
Answer:
X = {1,2,3,….}
Y = {1,2,3,….}
f = {(1,2) (2, 4) (3, 6) (4, 8) ….}
Domain = {1, 2, 3, 4 ….}
Co – Domain = {1, 2, 3, 4 ….}
Range = {2, 4, 6, 8 }
Yes this relation is a function.

Question 2.
Let X = {3, 4, 6, 8}. Determine whether the relation
R = {(x,f(x)) |x ∈ X, f(x) = x² + 1}
is a function from X to N?
Answer:
f(x) = x² + 1
f(3) = 3² + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10
f(4) = 4² + 1 = 16 + 1 = 17
f(6) = 6² + 1 = 36 + 1 = 37
f(8) = 8² + 1 = 64 + 1 = 65
yes, R is a function from X to N

Question 3.
Given the function f: x → x² – 5x + 6, evaluate
(i) f(-1)
(ii) f(2a)
(iii) f(2)
(iv) f(x – 1)
Solution:
Give the function f: x → x² – 5x + 6.
(i) f(-1) = (-1)² – 5(1) + 6 = 1 + 5 + 6 = 12
(ii) f(2a) = (2a)² – 5(2a) + 6 = 4a² – 10a + 6
(iii) f(2) = 2² – 5(2) + 6 = 4 – 10 + 6 = 0
(iv) f(x – 1) = (x – 1)² – 5(x – 1) + 6
= x² – 2x + 1 – 5x + 5 + 6
= x² – 7x + 12

Question 4.
A graph representing the function f(x) is given in it is clear that f(9) = 2.

(i) Find the following values of the function
(a) f(0)
(b) f(7)
(c) f(2)
(d) f(10)
Answer:
(a) f (0) = 9
(b) f (7) = 6
(c) f (2) = 6
(d) f(10) = 0

(ii) For what value of x is f(x) = 1 ?
Answer:
When f(x) = 1 the value of x is 9.5

(iii) Describe the following
(i) Domain
(ii) Range.
Answer:
Domain = {0, 1, 2, 3,… .10}
= {x / 0 < x < 10, x ∈ R}
Range = {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}
= {x / 0 < x < 9, x ∈ R}

(iv) What is the image of 6 under f?
Answer:
The image of 6 under f is 5.

Question 5.
Let f (x) = 2x + 5. If x ≠ 0 then find
\(\frac{f(x+2)-f(2)}{x}\)
Answer:
f(x) = 2x + 5
f(x + 2) = 2(x + 2) + 5
= 2x + 4 + 5
= 2x + 9

Question 6.
A function/is defined by f(x) = 2x – 3
(i) find \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}\)
(ii) find x such that f(x) = 0.
(iii) find x such that/ (A:) = x.
(iv) find x such that fix) =/(l – x).
Answer:
(i) f(x) = 2x – 3
f(0) = 2(0) – 3 = -3
f(1) = 2(1) – 3 = 2 – 3 = -1

(ii) f(x) = 0
2x – 3 = 0
2x = 3
x = \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \)

(iii) f(x) = x
2x – 3 = x
2x – x = 3
x = 3

(iv) f(1 – x) = 2(1 – x) – 3
= 2 – 2x – 3
= – 2x – 1
f(x) = f(1 – x)
2x – 3 = – 2x – 1
2x + 2x = 3 – 1
4x = 2
x = \(\frac { 2 }{ 4 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

Question 7.
square piece of material, 24 cm on a side, by cutting equal squares from the corners and turning up the sides as shown. Express the volume V of the box as a function of x.

Solution:

After cutting squares we will get a cuboid,
length of the cuboid (l) = 24 – 2x
breadth of the cuboid (b) = 24 – 2x
height of the cuboid (h) = 2x
Volume of the box = Volume of the cuboid
V = (24 – 2x)(24 – 2x) (x)
= (24 – 2x)² (x)
= (576 + 4x² – 96x) x
= 576x + 4x³ – 96x²
V = 4x³ – 96x² + 576x
V(x) = 4x³ – 96x² + 576x

Question 8.
A function f is defined by f(x) = 3 – 2x. Find x such that f(x²) = (f (x))².
Answer:
f(x) = 3 – 2x
f(x²) = 3 – 2 (x²)
= 3 – 2x²
(f (x))² = (3 – 2x)²
= 9 + 4x² – 12x
But f(x²) = (f(x))²
3 – 2 x² = 9 + 4x² – 12x
-2x² – 4x² + 12x + 3 – 9 = 0
-6x² + 12x – 6 = 0
(÷ by – 6) ⇒ x² – 2x + 1 = 0
(x – 1) (x – 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0 or x – 1 = 0
x = 1
The value of x = 1

Question 9.
A plane is flying at a speed of 500 km per hour. Express the distance d travelled by the plane as function of time t in hours.
Solution:
Speed = \(\frac{\text { distance covered }}{\text { time taken }}\)
⇒ distance = Speed × time
⇒ d = 500 × t [ ∵ time = t hrs]
⇒ d = 500 t

Question 10.
The data in the adjacent table depicts the length of a woman’s forehand and her corresponding height. Based on this data, a student finds a relationship between the height (y) and the forehand length (x) as y = ax + b , where a, b are constants.
(i) Check if this relation is a function.
(ii) Find a and b.
(iii) Find the height of a woman whose forehand length is 40 cm.
(iv) Find the length of forehand of a woman if her height is 53.3 inches.

Answer:
The relation is y = 0.9x + 24.5
(i) Yes the relation is a function.
(ii) When compare with y = ax + b
a = 0.9, b = 24.5
(iii) When the forehand length is 40 cm, then height is 60.5 inches.
Hint: y = 0.9x + 24.5
= 0.9 × 40 + 24.5
= 36 + 24.5
= 60.5 feet

(iv) When the height is 53.3 inches, her forehand length is 32 cm
Hint: y = 0.9x + 24.5
53.3 = 0.9x + 24.5
53.3 – 24.5 = 0.9 x
28.8 = 0.9 x
x = \(\frac { 28.8 }{ 0.9 } \)
x = 32 cm

Representation of functions

A function may be represented by

(a) Set of ordered pairs
(b) Table form
(c) Arrow diagram
(d) Graphical form

Vertical line test
A curve drawn in a graph represents a function, if every vertical line intersects the curve in at most one point.

Types of function

1. One – One function (injection)

A function f: A → B is called one-one function if distinct elements of A have a distinct image in B.

2. Many – One function

A function f: A → B is called many-on function if two or more elements of A have same image in B.

3. Onto function (surjection)

A function f: A → B is said to be on to function if the range of f is equal to the co-domain of f.

4. Into function

A function f: A → B is called an into function if there exists at least one element in B which is not the image of any element of A.

5. Bijection

A function f: A → B is both one – one and onto, then f is called a bijection from A to B.

Horizontal line test
A function represented in a graph is one – one, if every horizontal line intersects the curve in at most one point.

Special cases of function

1. Constant function

A function f: A → B is called a constant function if the range of f contains only one element.

2. Identity function

A function f : A → A defined by f(x) = x for all x ∈ A is called an identity function on A and is denoted by I_A.

3. Real valued function
A function f: A → B is called a real valued function if the range of f is a subset of the set of all real numbers R.

Students can download Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.2 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.2

Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 7} and B = {3, 0, -1, 7}, which of the following are relation from A to B?
(i) R₁ = {(2,1), (7,1)}
(ii) R₂ = {(-1,1)}
(iii) R₃ = {(2,-1), (7, 7), (1,3)}
(iv) R₄ = {(7, -1), (0, 3), (3, 3), (0, 7)}
Answer:
A = {1,2,3,7} B = {3,0,-1, 7}
A × B = {1,2,3} × {3, 0,-1, 7}
A × B = {(1,3) (1,0) (1,-1) (1,7) (2,3) (2, 0)
(2, -1) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3,0) (3,-1)
(3, 7) (7, 3) (7, 0) (7,-1) (7, 7)}

(i) R₁ = {(2, 1)} (7, 1)
It is not a relation, there is no element of (2, 1) and (7, 1) in A × B

(ii) R₂ = {(-1),1)}
It is not a relation, there is no element of
(-1, 1) in A × B

(iii) R₃ = {(2,-1) (7, 7) (1,3)}
Yes, It is a relation

(iv) R₄ = {(7,-1) (0,3) (3, 3) (0,7)}
It is not a relation, there is no element of (0, 3) and (0, 7) in A × B

Question 2.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4,…,45} and R be the relation defined as “is square of ” on A. Write R as a subset of A × A. Also, find the domain and range of R.
Solution:
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, . . . 45}, A × A = {(1, 1), (2, 2) ….. (45, 45)}
R – is square of’
R = {(1, 1), (2, 4), (3, 9), (4, 16), (5, 25), (6, 36)}
R ⊂ (A × A)
Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Range of R = {1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36}

Question 3.
A Relation R is given by the set {(x, y)/y = x + 3, x ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}}. Determine its domain and range.
Answer:
x = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
y = x + 3
when x = 0 ⇒ y = 0 + 3 = 3
when x = 1 ⇒ y = 1 + 3 = 4
when x = 2 ⇒ y = 2 + 3 = 5
when x = 3 ⇒ y = 3 + 3 = 6
when x = 4 ⇒ y = 4 + 3 = 7
when x = 5 y = 5 + 3 = 8
R = {(0, 3) (1,4) (2, 5) (3, 6) (4, 7) (5, 8)}
Domain = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Range = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}

Question 4.
Represent each of the given relations by
(a) an arrow diagram
(b) a graph and
(c) a set in roster form, wherever possible.
(i) {(x,y) | x = 2y,x ∈ {2, 3, 4, 5}, y ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4}
(ii) {(x, y) | y = x + 3, x, y are natural numbers < 10}
Answer:
(i) x = {2, 3, 4, 5} y = {1, 2, 3, 4}
x = 2y
wheny y = 1 ⇒ x = 2 × 1 = 2
when y = 2 ⇒ x = 2 × 2 = 4
when y = 3 ⇒ r = 2 × 3 = 6
when y = 4 ⇒ x = 2 × 4 = 8

(a) Arrow diagram

(b) Graph

(c) Roster form R = {(2, 1) (4, 3)}

(ii) x = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
y = {1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8,9}
y = x + 3
when x = 1 ⇒ y = 1 + 3 = 4
when x = 2 ⇒ y = 2 + 3 = 5
when x = 3 ⇒ y = 3 + 3 = 6
when x = 4 ⇒ y = 4 + 3 = 7
when x = 5 ⇒ y = 5 + 3 = 8
when x = 6 ⇒ y = 6 + 3 = 9
when x = 7 ⇒ y = 7 + 3 = 10
when x = 8 ⇒ y = 8 + 3 = 11
when x = 9 ⇒ y = 9 + 3 = 12

R = {(1,4) (2, 5) (3,6) (4, 7) (5, 8) (6, 9)}

(a) Arrow diagram

(b) Graph

(c) Roster form: R = {(1, 4) (2, 5) (3, 6) (4, 7) (5, 8) (6, 9)}

Question 5.
A company has four categories of employees given by Assistants (A), Clerks (C), Managers (M) and an Executive Officer (E). The company provide ₹10,000, ₹25,000, ₹50,000 and ₹1,00,000 as salaries to the people who work in the categories A, C, M and E respectively. If A₁, A₂, A₃, A₄ and A₅ were Assistants; C₁, C₂, C₃, C₄ were Clerks; M₁, M₂, M₃ were managers and E₁, E₂ were Executive officers and if the relation R is defined by xRy, where x is the salary given to person y, express the relation R through an ordered pair and an arrow diagram.
Answer:
Assistants → A₁, A₂, A₃, A₄, A₅
Clerks → C₁, C₂, C₃, C₄
Managers → M₁, M₂, M₃
Executive officers → E₁, E₂

R = {00000, A₁) (10000, A₂) (10000, A₃) (10000, A₄) (10000, A₅)
(25000, C₁) (25000, C₂) (25000, C₃) (25000, C₄)
(50000, M₁) (50000, M₂) (50000, M₃) (100000, E₁) (100000, E₂)}

(a) Arrow diagram

Functions Definition
A relation f between two non – empty sets X and Y is called a function from X to Y if for each x ∈ X there exists only one Y ∈ Y such that (x, y) ∈ f
f = {(x, y) / for all x ∈ X, y ∈ f}
Note: The range of a function is a subset of its co-domain