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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1
H_2(g) + Cl_29(g) → 2HCl_(g)
(a) Decomposition Reaction
(b) Combination Reaction
(c) Single Displacement Reaction
(d) Double Displacement Reaction
Answer:
(a) Decomposition Reaction

Question 2.
Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ______.
(a) heat
(b) electricity
(c) light
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:.
(c) light
Hint:
\(2 \mathrm{AgBr}_{(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\mathrm{Light}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Ag}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Br}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)

Question 3.
A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + Heat. In which of the type(s), the above reaction can be classified?
(i) Combination Reaction
(ii) Combustion Reaction
(iii) Decomposition Reaction
(iv) Irreversible Reaction
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 4.
The chemical equation \(\mathrm{Na}_{2} \mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{BaCl}_{2(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{BaSO}_{4(\mathrm{s})} \downarrow+2 \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}\) represents which of the following types of reaction?
(a) Neutralisation
(b) Combustion
(c) Precipitation
(d) Single displacement.
Answer:
(c) Precipitation
Hint: This reaction involves the precipitation of white BaSO₄ by mixing of Na₂SO₄ (aq) and BaCl₂ (aq). Hence it belongs to precipitation reaction.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium?
(i) It is dynamic in nature
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at equilibrium
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 6.
A single displacement reaction is represented by \(\mathrm{X}_{(\mathrm{s})}+2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{XCl}_{2(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\). the following(s) could be X?
(i) Zn
(ii) Ag
(iii) Cu
(iv) Mg.
Choose the best pair.
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iv.
Answer:
(d) i and iv.
Hint:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H_2.

Question 7.
Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction?
(a) C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)
(b) 2K_(s) + Br_2(l) → 2KBr_(s)
(c) 2CO_(g) + O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g)
(d) 4Fe_(s) + 3O_2(g) → 2Fe₂O_3(s)
Answer:
(c) 2CO_(g) + O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g)

Question 8.
Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
(a) A_(s) + B_(s) → C_(s) + D_(s)
(b) A_(s) + B_(aq) → C_(aq) + D_(l)
(c) A_(aq) + B_(aq) → C_(s) + D_(aq)
(d) A_(aq) + B_(s) → C_(aq) + D_(l)
Answer:
(c) A_(aq) + B_(aq) → C_(s) + D_(aq)

Question 9.
The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH^–] concentration is ______.
(a) 1 × 10^-3 M
(b) 3 M
(c) 1 × 10^-11 M
(d) 11 M.
Answer:
(c) 1 × 10^-11 M
Hint: pH = 3
It means [H⁺] = 10^-3
[H⁺] [OH^–] = 10^-14
[10^-3] [OH^–] = 10^-14
[OH^–] = 10^-11

Question 10.
Powdered CaCO₃ reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO₃ because of :
(a) large surface area
(b) high pressure
(c) high concentration
(d) high temperature
Answer:
(a) large surface area

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. A reaction between an acid and a base is called ………..
2. When zinc metal is placed in hydrochloric acid, ………. gas is evolved.
3. The equilibrium attained during the meiting of ice is known as ………..
4. The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked lime to this juice, its pH ……….
5. The value of ionic product of water at 25 °C is ………..
6. The normal pH of human blood is …………
7. Electrolysis is type of ……….. reaction.
8. The number of products formed in a synthesis reaction is ………..
9. Chemical volcano is an example for ……….. type of reaction.
10. The ion formed by dissolution of H⁺ in water is called …………
Answer:
1. neutralization
2. H₂
3. physical equilibrium
4. increases to ‘7’
5. 1 × 10^-14 mol² dm^-6
6. 7.4
7. decomposition
8. 1
9. decomposition
10. hydronium ion

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
Identify the types of reaction:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Silver metal can replace hydrogen gas from nitric acid.
2. The pH of rain water containing dissolved gases like SO₃, CO₂, NO₂ will be less than 7.
3. At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants and the products will be equal.
4. Periodical removal of one of the products of a reversible reaction increases the yield.
5. On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is basic.

Answer:

1. False – Silver cannot displace H₂ from HNO₃ acid, since it is placed below hydrogen in the activity series.
2. True
3. False – At equilibrium the concentration of the reactants and products do not change it remains constant, but the concentration of the reactants and the products will not be equal.
4. True
5. False – The solution is neutral if the solution is basic it will be green in colour.

V. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an aqueous solution of silver nitrate, a white precipitate is formed. Give the chemical equation of this reaction.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase in raising the temperature?
Answer:
On increasing temperature heat is supplied to the reactant. This energy breaks more bonds and thus speed up the chemical reaction. Foods kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator.

Question 3.
Define combination reaction. Give one example for an exothermic combination reaction.
Answer:
A combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a compound.
Eg: C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + heat

Question 4.
Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions.
Answer:

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are called thermolysis reactions?
Answer:
Thermal decomposition reactions are called ‘thermolysis’ reaction. In this type of reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying heat. There are two types of thermolysis reactions. They are:
(i) Compound to element / element decomposition:
A compound is decomposed into two elements.
Eg:

(ii) Compound to compound / compound decomposition:
A compound is decomposed into two compounds.
Eg:

Question 2.
Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
Answer:
There are two major classes of double displacement reactions. They are,
(i) Precipitation Reactions: When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction.
\(\mathrm{Pb}\left(\mathrm{NO}_{3}\right)_{2(\mathrm{aq})}+2 \mathrm{KI}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{PbI}_{2(\mathrm{s})} \downarrow+2 \mathrm{KNO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})}\)

(ii) Neutralisation Reactions: Another type of displacement reaction in which the acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called ‘neutralisation reaction’ as both acid and base neutralize each other.
\(\mathrm{NaOH}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{l})}\).

Question 3.
Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction.
Answer:
Important factors that affect rate of a reaction are:

1. Nature of the reactants
2. Concentration of the reactants
3. Temperature
4. Catalyst
5. Pressure
6. Surface area of the reactants

1. Nature of the reactants : The reaction of sodium with hydrochloric acid is faster than that with acetic acid, because Hydrochloric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid and thus more reactive. So, the nature of the reactants influence the reaction rate.
2Na_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → 2NaCl_(aq) + H_2(g) (fast)
2Na_(s) + 2CH₃COOH_(aq) → 2CH₃COONa_(aq) + H_2(g) (slow)

2. Concentration of the reactants : Changing the amount of the reactants also increases the reaction rate. More the concentration, more particles per volume exist in it and hence faster the reaction. Granulated zinc reacts faster with 2M hydrochloric acid than 1M hydrochloric acid.

3. Temperature : Most of the reactions go faster at higher temperature. Because adding heat to the reactants provides energy to break more bonds and thus speed up the reaction. Calcium carbonate reacts slowly with hydrochloric acid at room temperature. When the reaction mixture is heated the reaction rate increases.

4. Pressure : If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the reaction rate. This is because, on increasing the pressure the reacting particles come closer and collide frequently.

5. Catalyst : A catalyst is a substance which increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the reaction. In certain reactions, adding a substance as catalyst speeds up the reaction. For example, on heating potassium chlorate, it decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen gas, but at a slower rate. If manganese dioxide is added, it increases the reaction rate.

6. Surface area of the reactants : Powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips. Because, powdering of the reactants increases the surface area and more energy is available on collision of the reactant particles. Thus, the reaction rate is increased.

Question 4.
How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
Answer:

• The pH of blood is almost 7.4. Any increase or decrease in this value leads to diseases
• Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil, while rice requires acidic soil and sugarcane requires neutral soil.
• If the pH of rainwater becomes less than 7, it becomes acid rain which is harmful in day-to-day life.
• pH changes cause tooth decay.
• During indigestion, the stomach produces too much acid and this causes pain and irritation.

Question 5.
What is chemical equilibrium? What are its characteristics?
Answer:
Chemical equilibrium is a state of a reversible chemical reaction where the,
Rate of forward reaction = Rate of backward reaction.
No change in the amount of the reactants and products takes place.
Characteristics of equilibrium:

1. In a chemical equilibrium, the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal.
2. The observable properties such as pressure, concentration, colour, density, viscosity etc., of the system remain unchanged with time.
3. The chemical equilibrium is a dynamic equilibrium, because both the forward and backward reactions continue to occur even though it appears static externally.
4. In physical equilibrium, the volume of all the phases remain constant.

VII. HOT Questions:

Question 1.
A solid compound ‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’ On passing the gas ‘C’ through water, it becomes acidic. Identify A, B and C.
Answer:
A – CaCO₃, solid compound
‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’.

On passing the gas CO₂ through water, it becomes acidic.

A – CaCO₃, Calcium carbonate
B – CaO, Calcium oxide
C – CO₂, Carbondioxide gas

Question 2.
Can a nickel spatula be used to stir copper sulphate solution? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, nickel spatula cannot be used to stir the copper sulphate solution. Actually, on the basis of activity series, nickel is more reactive than copper, so nickel will displace copper from its solution and copper will be deposited on nickel spatula.

VIII. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
Lemon juice has a pH 2, what is the concentration of H⁺ ions?
Answer:
pH = – log [H⁺]
[H⁺] = antilog of [-pH]
= antilog [-2]
[H⁺] = 10^-2 M
[OR]
PH = – log [H⁺]
[H⁺] = 10^-pH
[H⁺] = 10^-2M

Question 2.
Calculate the pH of 1.0 × 10^-4 molar solution of HNO₃.
Answer:
pH = – log [H⁺]
HNO3 → H⁺ + NO₃^–
pH = -log [1 × 10^-4]
= -(-4)log₁₀ 10 = 4
pH = 4

Question 3.
What is the pH of 1.0 x 10^-5 molar solution of KOH?
Answer:
KOH → K⁺ + OH^–
pOH = -log[OH^–]
= -log [1 × 10^-5]
pOH = 5
pH + pOH = 14
∴ pH of KOH = 14 – 5 = 9
pH = 9

Question 4.
Laundry detergent has a pH 8.5, What is the concentration of H⁺ ions?
Answer:
pH = 8.5
pH = – log [H⁺]
[H⁺] = 10^-pH
[H⁺] = 10^-8.5
[H⁺] = 3.16 × 10^-9 M

Question 5.
The hydroxide ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10^-11M. What is the pH of the solution?
Answer:
[OH^–] = 1 × 10^-11 M
pOH = – log[OH^–]
= – log[1 × 10^-11]
= -log₁₀1 – log₁₀10^-11
= -(-11) log₁₀10 = 11
pOH = 11
pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 – 11
pH = 3

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The unit of rate of a reaction is:
(a) dm³/mol
(b) dm^-3
(c) mol dm^-3
(d) mol
Answer:
(c) mol dm^-3

Question 2.
As the molecule is dissociated by the absorption of heat it is otherwise called as ______.
(a) Thermolysis
(b) Photolysis
(c) Electrolysis
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Thermolysis

Question 3.
The chemical formula of marble is:
(a) CaCO₃
(b) MgCO₃
(c) Na₂CO₃
(d) PbCO₃
Answer:
(a) CaCO₃

Question 4.
As the decomposition is caused by light, this kind of reaction is called ______.
(a) Thermolysis
(b) Photolysis
(c) Electrolysis
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Photolysis

Question 5.
Fluorine will displace the following halide ion from the solution:
(a) chloride
(b) bromide
(c) iodide
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 6.
The decomposition of AgBr into grey coloured silver metal is an example of ……… reaction.
(a) compound to element/element
(b) compound to compound/compound
(c) combination
(d) neutralization
Answer:
(a) compound to element/element

Question 7.
The Metathesis reaction among the following is:
(a) C₃H_8(g) +5O_2(g) → 3CO_2(g) + 4H₂O + heat
(b) Zn_(s) + CuSO_4(aq) → ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s)
(c) HNO_3(aq) + NH₄OH_(aq) → NH₄NO_3(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Answer:
(c) HNO_3(aq) + NH₄OH_(aq) → NH₄NO_3(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Question 8.
KI and Pb(NO₃)₂ solutions are mixed to give a precipitate. What is the colour of the precipitate?
(a) White
(b) Brown
(c) Red
(d) Yellow.
Answer:
(d) Yellow

Question 9.
The pH of rain water is approximately:
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 14
Answer:
(a) 7

Question 10.
Most of the reactions go faster at ______.
(a) low temperature
(b) moderate temperature
(c) 0°C
(d) high temperature.
Answer:
(d) high temperature

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. A chemical equation provides information on the ……….. of the substances and the reaction condition.
2. The symbol ‘aq’ in a chemical equation represent the physical state of the substance as ……….
3. 2Na_(s) + Cl_2(g) → 2NaCl_(s) represent the combination reaction between a ……… and ……
4. After white washing with a solution of slaked lime a thin layer of ……….. is formed.
5. Reactions in which heat is absorbed is called ……….. reactions.
6. Electrolytic refining of copper is based on ……….. reaction.
7. When 10^-6 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in water, the pH of the solution is ………..
8. When pH of a solution is 2, the [H⁺] in mol/L is ……….
9. Combustion of coal is an example of ………. reaction.
10. [ ] represents the concentration of either the reactant or product in ……….
Answer:
1. physical state
2. aqueous solution
3. metal, non-metal
4. CaCO₃
5. endothermic
6. electrolytic decomposition
7. 6
8. 1 × 10^-2
9. irreversible
10. mol/Lit

III. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the following table:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the following table:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the following table:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the following table:

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. True or False: (if false give the correct statement)

1. Formation of calcium silicate from silica and calcium oxide is a combination reaction.
2. Most of the combination reactions are endothermic in nature.
3. Decomposition of mercuric oxide into mercury and O₂ is an example of . photolysis.
4. Chlorine can displace fluoride ion from its aqueous solution.
5. Magnesium is more reactive than iron.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Most of the combination reactions are exothermic in nature.
3. False – Decomposition of mercuric oxide into mercury and O₂ is an example of thermolysis.
4. False – Chlorine is less reactive than Fluorine, so it cannot displace fluoride ion from its aqueous solution.
5. True

V. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on double displacement reaction with an example.
Answer:
When two compounds react, if their ions are interchanged, then the reaction is called double displacement reaction.
Eg: NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O

Question 2.
Identify the wrong statements and correct them.

1. Sodium benzoate is used in food preservative.
2. Nitric acid is not used as fertilizer in agriculture.
3. Sulphuric acid is called the king of chemicals.
4. The pH of acid is greater than 7.
5. Acetic acid is used in aerated drinks.

Answer:

1. Correct statement.
2. Wrong statement. Nitric acid is used as a fertilizer in agriculture.
3. Correct statement.
4. Wrong statement. The pH of the acid is lesser than 7.
5. Wrong statement. Carbonic acid is used in aerated drinks.

Question 3.
Why a combustion reaction may be called as an exothermic oxidation?
Answer:
In a combustion reaction heat is evolved, it is an exothermic reaction. As oxygen is added, it is also an oxidation. So, combustion may be called as an exothermic oxidation.

Question 4.
Take two conical flasks. Label them as I and II. Take a small amount of copper sulphate solution in the first conical flask. Take a small amount of granulated zinc in the second conical flask. Allow the copper sulphate solution to react with the zinc.

1. Name the type of reaction.
2. Say whether the metal zinc is more reactive or less reactive.
3. Write a complete and balanced reaction.
4. Say whether this change is reversible or irreversible.

Answer:

1. The reaction taken place is displacement reaction.
2. Metal zinc is more reactive.
3. Balanced chemical equation.
   \(\mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CuSO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{ZnSO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{Cu}_{(\mathrm{s})} \downarrow\)
4. This change is an irreversible change.

Question 5.
What is an irreversible reaction? Give an example.
Answer:
The reaction that cannot be reversed is called irreversible reaction. The irreversible reactions are unidirectional, i.e., they take place only in the forward direction. Consider the combustion of coal into carbon dioxide and water.

Question 6.
Define the rate of a reaction.
Answer:
“Rate of a reaction is the change in the amount or concentration of any one of the reactants or products per unit time”.
Consider the following reaction,
A → B
The rate of this reaction is given by
Rate = –\(\frac{d[A]}{dt}\) = +\(\frac{d[B]}{dt}\)
Where,
[A] – Concentration of A
[B] – Concentration of B
The negative sign indicates the decrease in the concentration of A with time. The positive sign indicates the increase in the concentration of B with time.

Question 7.
What is meant by combination reaction? Give an example.
Answer:
A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known combination reaction.
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO.

Question 8.
What is a catalyst?
Answer:
A catalyst is a substance which increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the reaction.

Question 9.
Define Displacement reaction. Give an example.
Answer:
The reaction in which a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound is called displacement reaction.
\(\mathrm{Pb}+\mathrm{CuCl}_{2} \longrightarrow \mathrm{PbCl}_{2}+\mathrm{Cu} \downarrow\)
Lead displaces copper from copper chloride solution.

Question 10.
When a aerated soft drink bottle is kept open it will go flat. Why?
Answer:
(i) In the sealed aerated soft drink bottle, the dissolved CO₂, in the form of carbonic acid and gaseous CO₂ are in equilibrium.
(ii) When we open the bottle the gaseous CO₂ will escape and the dissolved CO₂ begins to undissolve to the gas phase to maintain the equilibrium. So when we keep the bottle open for a long time it will go flat with all the dissolved CO₂ gone.

Question 11.
Can copper displace zinc or lead from their salt solutions?
Answer:
No, copper cannot displace zinc or lead from their salt solutions. Because copper is less reactive than zinc and lead.

Question 12.
What is called as acid rain?
Answer:
The pH of rain water is approximately ‘7’ but when the air is polluted with oxides of S and N, they get dissolved in the rain water and make its pH less than 7, then it is called acid rain.

Question 13.
Write the differences between combination and decomposition reaction.
Answer:

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Two acids ‘A’ and ‘B’ were kept in beakers. Acid ‘A’ undergoes partial dissociation in water, whereas acid ‘B’ undergoes complete dissociation in water.

1. Of the two acids ‘A’ and ‘B’ which is weak acid and which is strong acid?
2. What is a weak acid?
3. What is a strong acid?
4. Give one example of each.

Answer:

1. Of the two acids ‘A’ and ‘B’, ‘A’ is a weak acid and ‘B’ is a strong acid.
2. A weak acid is the one which ionises partially when dissolved in water.
3. A strong acid is the one which ionises completely when dissolved in water.
4. Weak acid – Acetic acid(CH₃COOH)
   Strong acid – Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄).

Question 2.
Sodium hydroxide and HCl acid react as shown in this equation
NaOH_(aq)4 + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O
(i) Which type of chemical reaction is this?
Answer:
Neutralization reaction

(ii) The reaction is exothermic. Explain what that means?
Answer:
When heat is evolved during a chemical reaction it is called exothermic.

(iii) Differentiate exothermic and endothermic reaction.
Answer:
Exothermic :

1. Heat is evolved.
2. Temperature increases.

Endothermic :

1. Heat is absorbed.
2. Temperature decreases.

(iv) What happens to the temperature of the solution as the chemicals react?
Answer:
Temperature of the solution increases.

Question 3.
Take two conical flasks. Label them as I and II. Take a small amount of CuSO₄ in the I conical flask and small amount of granulated Zinc in the II conical flask. Allow the CuSO₄ solution to react with Zinc.
(i) Name the type of reaction.
Answer:
Displacement reaction.

(ii) Say whether the metal Zn is more reactive or less reactive.
Answer:
Zinc is more reactive than Copper.

(iii) Write the complete and balanced reaction.
Answer:
Zn_(s)+ CuSO_4(aq) → ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s)↓

(iv) Say whether this change is reversible or irreversible
Answer:
Irreversible.

Question 4.
Suggest a reason for each observation given below.

1. In fireworks, powdered magnesium is used rather than magnesium ribbon.
2. Zinc and dilute H₂SO₄ react much more quickly when a few drops of copper sulphate solutions are added.
3. The reaction between magnesium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid speeds up when some concentrated HCl is added.

Answer:

1. In fireworks, powdered magnesium is used because it has more surface area than magnesium ribbon. Because of more surface area, powdered magnesium reacts faster than magnesium ribbon.
2. Zinc and dilute H2SO4 react much more quickly when a few drops of copper sulphate solution is added. Copper sulphate acts as a catalyst which increases the rate of the reaction.
3. When the concentration of the reactants increases, the rate of the reaction also increases. So the reaction between magnesium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid speeds up by the addition of some concentrated HCl.

VII. Hot Questions:

Question 1.

Answer:
According to the rate Law for the reaction.
2N₂O₅ → 4NO₂ + O₂

2K₁ = K₂ = 4K₃ [neglecting negative and positive signs]

Question 2.
When solutions of silver nitrate and potassium bromide are mixed, a pale yellow precipitate is formed.
The ionic equation for the reaction is Ag⁺ + Br^– → AgBr

1. (a) What is the name of the pale yellow precipitate?
   (b) Is it soluble or insoluble?
2. Is the formation of silver bromide precipitate, a result of redox reaction or not? Justify your answer.
3. What is this type of reaction called?

Answer:

1. (a) The pale yellow precipitate is silver bromide.
   (b) Silver bromide is sparingly soluble.
2. Yes, the formation of silver bromide precipitate is due to redox reaction. Ag⁺ gains electron (reduction) and Br^– loses electron (oxidation). So it is a redox reaction.
3. This reaction is a double displacement reaction.

VIII. Numericals:

Question 1.
The hydrogen ion concentration of a fruit juice is 3.3 × 10^-2M. What is the pH of the juice? Is it acidic or basic?
Answer:
[H⁺] = 3.3 × 10^-2 M
Formula:
pH = -log[H⁺]
pH = -log[3.3 × 10^-2]
= -[log 3.3 + log 10^-2]
= -[0.5185 – 2 log₁₀10]
= -0.5185 + 2 log₁₀10 [log₁₀10 = 1]
= -0.5185 + 2
pH = 1.4815
Since pH is less than 7, the solution is acidic.

Question 2.
If a solution has a pH of 7.41, determine its H⁺ concentration.
Answer:
pH = 7.41
Formula:
[H⁺] = antilog[-pH]
= antilog[-7.41] = 10^-7.41
= 3.89 × 10^-8M

Question 3.
The pH of a solution is 5.5 at 25°C. Calculate its [OH^–].
Answer:
pH = 5.5
Since pH + pOH = 14
pOH = 14 – pH
= 14 – 5.5 = 8.5
[OH^–] = 10^-pOH
= 10^-8.5
= 3.16 × 10^-9M
(OR)
[OH^–] = antilog[-8.5]
= 3.16 × 10^-9M
[OH^–] = 3.16 × 10^-9M

Question 4.
Calculate the pH of 0.001 M HCl solution.
Answer:
Since HCl is a strong acid, it dissociates
HCl → H⁺ + Cl^–
[H⁺] = [HCl] = 0.001 M
[H⁺] = 1 × 10^-3M
pH = -log[H⁺]
= -log[1 × 10^-3]
pH = 3

Question 5.
The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10^-8M.
(i) What is the pH of the solution?
Answer:
pH = -log[1 × 10^-8]
pH = 8

(ii) What is the pOH of the solution?
Answer:
pOH = 14 – 8
= 6

(iii) Is the given solution acidic or basic?
Answer:
Acidic

Question 6.
Calculate the pH of 0.02 M Ba(OH)₂, Ba(OH)₂ solution is a strong electrolyte.
Answer:
[Ba(OH)₂] = 0.02 M
Ba(OH)₂ → Ba²⁺ + 2OH^–
[OH^–] = 2[Ba(OH)₂]
= 2 × 0.02 = 0.04 M
pOH = – log[0.04]
= -log[4 × 10^-2]
= -[log 4 + log 10^-2]
= -[0.6020 – 2 log 10]
pOH = -0.6020 + 2 × 1
= 1.398
pH = 14 – 1.398
= 12.602

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Components of Agriculture Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Components of Agriculture

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Components of Agriculture Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The soil which is rich in iron oxides is
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Alkaline
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 2.
Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Soil Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
Answer:
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Question 3.
The soils formed by the rivers are:
(a) Red soils
(b) Black soils
(c) Desert soils
(d) Alluvial soils india.
Answer:
(d) Alluvial soils india.

Question 4.
……….. dam is the highest gravity in India.
(a) Hirakud dam
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Mettur dam
(d) Nagaijuna Sagar dam
Answer:
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam

Question 5.
……………… is a cash crop.
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 6.
Black soils are also called as ………..
(a) Arid soils
(b) Saline soils
(c) Regur soils
(d) Mountain soils
Answer:
(c) Regur soils

Question 7.
The longest dam in the world is:
(a) Mettur dam
(b) Kosi dam
(c) Hirakud dam
(d) Bhakra Nangal dam
Answer:
(c) Hirakud dam

Question 8.
The leading producer of rice in India is ……….
(a) Punjab
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(c) Uttar Pradesh

Question 9.
Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Jute
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 10.
The state which leads in the production of coffee is ……….
(a) West Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Odisha
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(b) Karnataka

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Horticulture involves the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials brought by the rivers.
Reason(R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)

III. Pick the odd one out

Question 1.
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Millets
(d) Coffee
Answer:
(d) Coffee

Question 2.
(a) Khadar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Black soil
Answer:
(d) Black soil

Question 3.
(a) Inundation canals
(b) Perennial canals
(c) Tanks
(d) Canals
Answer:
(c) Tanks

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Define soil.
Answer:
Soil is the uppermost layer of the land surface, usually composed of minerals, organic matter, living organisms, air and water. Its formation is mainly related to the parent rock material, surface relief, climate and natural vegetation.

Question 2.
Name the types of soil found in India.
Answer:
There are 8 major groups of soil found in India classified by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research. They are

1. Alluvial soil
2. Black soil
3. Red soil
4. Forest and Mountain soil
5. Arid and Desert soil
6. Laterite soil
7. Saline and Alkaline soil
8. Peaty and Marshy soil

Question 3.
State any two characteristics of black cotton soil.
Answer:

1. This soil is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, lime and iron but deficient in phosphorous. It is clayey and impermeable which has great capacity to retain moisture for a long time.
2. It becomes sticky when wet but develops cracks during dry summer season. The soil is suited for dry farming due to its high moisture retentivity.

Question 4.
What is Multipurpose project?
Answer:

1. Multipurpose projects are the River valley projects.
2. Dams are constructed across rivers aims to serve many purposes such as irrigation, power generation, water supply, controlling floods, navigation, development of fisheries etc.

Question 5.
Define Agriculture.
Answer:
Agriculture is the process of producing food for people, fodder for cattle, fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated animals

Question 6.
State the types of agriculture practices in India?
Answer:

1. Owing to physical environment and culture the following cultivation systems prevail in India.
2. Subsistence farming
3. Intensive farming
4. Dry farming
5. Mixed farming agriculture
6. Terrace cultivation

Question 7.
Name the seasons of agriculture in India.
Answer:

1. Kharif Season
2. Rabi Season
3. Zaid Season

Question 8.
Mention the plantation crops of India.
Answer:

1. Plantation crops are mainly cultivated for the purpose of exports.
2. These crops are cultivated in large estates on hilly slopes.
3. Tea, coffee, rubber and spices are the main plantation crops of India.

Question 9.
What do you mean by livestock?
Answer:
Livestocks is defined as farm animals who are raised to generate a profile. It is an integral component of the farming system in India.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on the categories of fisheries in India?
Answer:
In India fisheries are categorised into two.They are marine or sea fisheries and inland or fresh water fisheries.

Marine or Sea fisheries:

1. It includes coastal off-shore and deep sea fishing mainly on continental shelf upto a depth of 200 mts.
2. Kerala leads in Marine fish production.

Inland or Fresh water fisheries:

1. Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs, ponds tanks etc are the sources of fresh water fisheries,
2. Andhra Pradesh is leading in the fresh water fisheries.
3. About 50% of the country’s total fish production comes from inland fisheries.

VI. Give reasons

Question 1.
Agriculture is the backbone of India.
Answer:
Agriculture provide food for the entire population. It supplies raw materials to the agro-based industries. It contributes to export trade. So, agriculture is the backbone of India.

Question 2.
Rain water harvesting is necessary.
Answer:
India experiences Tropical monsoon climate. Rainfall in India is seasonal, irregular and uneven and highly eractic. Hence it is necessary’ to save rain water when it is available and use in times of need. In order to prevent surface . run off Rainwater harvesting is needed.

Question 3.
Small farms are predominant in India.
Answer:
The predominant type of Indian agriculture is subsistence farming. In this agriculture land holding is small and half of the production is used for family consumption and the rest is sold in the nearby markets. The farmers concentrate on stage food crops like rice and wheat. As the farmers are poor, they can’t apply the modem inputs which cost more.

VII. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Rabi and Kharif crop seasons.
Answer:
Rabi crop season:

1. Rabi crop season is from October – March.
2. Seeds are sown in winter and harvested before summer.
3. Major crops of this season are mainly Wheat, Mustard, Maize etc.

Kharif crop season:

1. Kharif crop season is from June – September.
2. Seeds are sown after the summer monsoon and harvested before winter.
3. Major crops are Rice, Cotton, Groundnut, Turmeric etc.

Question 2.
Inundation canal and perennial canal.
Answer:
Inundation canal:

1. Undependable source of irrigation.
2. Operational only during flood in rivers and not have weir system to regulate water.

Perennial canal:

1. Dependable source of irrigation.
2. Have weir system through barrage to regulate water from perennial rivers or dams.

Question 3.
Marine fishing and Inland fishing.
Answer:
Marine fishing:

1. Marine fishing includes coastal, off¬shore and deep sea fishing mainly on the continental shelf upto a depth of 200m.
2. Kerala is the leading producer in marine fishing.

Inland fishing:

1. Inland fishing is done in rivers, lakes, canals, ponds, tanks, reservoirs etc.
2. Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Gujarat, Kerala and TamilNadu are the leading states.

Question 4.
Alluvial soils and Black soils.
Answer:
Alluvial soil:

1. Formed by the sediments deposited by the rivers and streams.
2. Silt clay, sandy and loamy in nature.
3. Found in the river valleys and plains.
4. Rice, wheat, sugarcane grow well in this soil.

Black soil:

1. Formed by the disintegration of basalt rocks.
2. Sticky when wet develops cracks when dry.
3. Found in plateau region especially in Deccan trap.
4. Cotton, sugarcane and tobacco grow well in this soil.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
State the types of soil in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write about any two multipurpose projects of India.
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multi purposes project”.

1. The Bhakra Nangal Project: India’s biggest multipurpose river valley project is ‘Bhakra Nangal Project’. It has been built at a strategic point where two hills on either side of the Sutlej are very close to each other. It is the highest gravity dam in the world. Its length is 226 metres from the river bed. The canals taken out are 1100 kilometres long. The ‘Nangal Power Plant’ on the Sutlej produces electricity, and serves the states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and New Delhi. The distributaries are 8400 km in length. It irrigates an area of 1.4 million hectares.

2. Indira Gandhi Project: This project is an ambitious scheme to bring new areas under irrigation so that more areas could be cultivated. The waters of the River Beas and the Ravi are diverted to the River Sutlej. The ‘Pong’ Dam on the River Beas has been constructed to divert the Beas water into the Sutlej in a regulated manner. So that ‘Rajasthan canal’, the longest irrigation canal in the world can irrigate Gandhi Nagar, Bikaner and Jaisalmer districts of North West Rajasthan, (i.e) a part of Thar desert. The main canal now called ‘Indira Gandhi Canal’ is 468 km long runs entirely in Rajasthan, Western of Sutlej, Beas and Ravi are now being fully utilised for irrigating thirsty lands of South Western parts of our country.

Question 3.
Bring out the characteristics of intensive and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Characteristics of Intensive farming:

1. Farming is done with intensification and mechanisation system to maximize yields from available land.
2. In this farming heavy use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers have been applied.
3. It has also been applied to the raising of live stock being held indoor as factory farms.
4. Plantation fanning.
5. Single crop raised on a large area testates).
6. Crops are grown mainly for export purpose,
7. The plantations are mostly owned by companies.

Question 4.
Examine the geographical conditions favourable for the cultivation of rice and wheat.
Answer:
Rice:
Rice is an indigenous crop. India is the second-largest producer of rice in the world. It is a tropical crop which is grown well in alluvial plains and river deltas. It requires a mean monthly temperature of 24°C and an average rainfall of 150 cm and deep fertile alluvial soil for its growth. It also needs an abundant supply of cheap labour. In areas of less rainfall particularly in Punjab and Haryana, it is grown with the help of irrigation.
Rice in India is sown in three ways:

1. Broadcasting,
2. Ploughing or drilling, and
3. Transplanting.

Due to increased use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds (CR Dhan 205, AR Dhan 306, CRR 451 etc.), many of the indigenous varieties were disappeared. In 2016, the first 10 leading rice-producing states are West Bengal (First in India) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Assam, and Haryana.

Wheat:
Wheat is a temperate crop. Its cultivation is mainly confined to the northwestern part of India. India produces both winter wheat and spring wheat. It is the second most important food crop of the country, after rice.

It requires 10-15°C at the time of sowing and 20-25°C at the time of ripening of grains. Over 85% of India’s wheat production comes from 5 states namely Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh. Apart from these regions, the black soil tract of the Deccan covering parts of Maharashtra and Gujarat also contribute a major wheat production.

IX. HOTS Questions

Question 1.
Can you imagine a world without agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture is the art and science of cultivating the soil, growing crops and raising livestock. It includes the preparation of plant and animal products for people to use and their distribution to markets.

Agriculture provides most of the world’s food and fabrics. Cotton, wool and leather are all agricultural products. It also provides wood for construction and paper products.

A world without agriculture would be very different compared to the world we live in today. It is easy for us as humans to take for granted things when we don’t really know how they are grown or produced. Without agriculture, we may not get food and clothing. Without timber, we may not be able to build houses and furniture. We may also be deprived of some everyday-products like soap, paper and ethanol, which are made up of some sort of agricultural by-product. Modern medicine also depends on agriculture. Without agriculture, we wouldn’t be here. We must always be thankful for this industry and for those involved in the various activities related to it.

Question 2.
Can you give solutions for the prevailing water disputes in South India (construction of dams / raising of dams / cleaning of tanks}?
Answer:

1. Construction of check dams: In order to prevent surface run off water • during heavy rains. Check dams has to be constructed to regulate the flow of water.
2. Raising of dams: Improves the storage capacity, Strengthening the dams is a must.
3. Cleaning of tanks: Preventing encroachment by strict legal action, desilting the tanks and deepening it in the local areas will provide water supply to the locality, as well as to maintain the areas of ground water level cleaning of tanks is a must

X. Map exercise

Question 1.
Demarcate the major tracts of alluvial soils.
Answer:

Question 2.
Delineate the main regions of black soil.
Answer:

Question 3.
Locate the Hirakud dam, Mettur dam and Damodar dam.
Answer:

Question 4.
Shade the regions of jute cultivation.
Answer:

Question 5.
Mark any three tea and coffee growing areas.
Answer:

Question 6.
Demarcate the regions of desert soil.
Answer:

Question 7.
Locate the fishing hubs: Tuticorin, Chennai,Cochin, Mumbai, Machiiipatnam
Answer:

Question 8.
Demarcate: Cauvery delta, Godavari delta.
Answer:

TB. PNo: 115
Activity 1:

Question 1.
Soil Texture (sand, silt, clay) influence on some properties of soils including water holding capacity. Find out water holding capacity of soils which given above based on following table.
Answer:

TB. PNo: 131
Activity 2:

Question 1.
Complete the following table by your day to day life experience.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Components of Agriculture Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… soil is formed by the process of leaching.
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Laterite
(d) Arid
Answer:
(c) Laterite

Question 2.
Cotton is a ………
(a) food crop
(b) cash crop
(c) dry crop
Answer:
(b) cash crop

Question 3.
……………… is one of the method of soil conservation.
(a) Deforestation
(b) Irrigation
(c) Water logging
(d) Afforestation
Answer:
(d) Afforestation

Question 4.
The “rice bowl of Tamil nadu” is ………..
(a) Madurai
(b) Chennai
(c) Thanjavur
Answer:
(c) Thanjavur

Question 5
……………… are useful for the diversion of flood water from the rivers during rainy season.
(a) Perennial canals
(b) Inundation canals
(c) Open wells
(d) Tube wells
Answer:
(b) Inundation canals

Question 6
The type of fanning which is practised in Punjab and Haryana is ………
(a) subsistence farming
(b) commercial farming
(c) wet farming
Answer:
(b) commercial farming

Question 7.
……………… project is constructed on the river Kaveri in TamilNadu.
(a) Tehri Dam
(b) Kosi Dam
(c) Mettur Dam
(d) Horakud Dam
Answer:
(c) Mettur Dam

Question 8.
In the regions with abundant rainfall ……. is grown.
(a) millet
(b) wheat
(c) rice
Answer:
(c) rice

Question 9.
The traditional farming method that results in low productivity is:
(a) mixed farming
(b) shifting agriculture
(c) intensive farming
(d) subsistence farming
Answer:
(d) subsistence farming

Question 10.
One of the important zaid crops is ………….
(a) rice
(b) wheat
(c) watermelon
Answer:
(c) watermelon

Question 11.
First Live-stock census was conducted in India in the year:
(a) 1819
(b) 1919
(c) 1618
(d) 1981
Answer:
(b) 1919

Question 12.
The National Research Center on Plant Biotechnology was established in ………
(a) 1985
(b) 1980
(c) 1990
Answer:
(a) 1985

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Indian agriculture is largely dominated by food crops. Reason (R): India has a large population.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Forest and mountain soils differ from region to region. Reason (R): Due to the absence of vegetative cover.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
Hint: Reason is due to mechanical weathering caused by snow, rain, temperature variation depending on climate.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Terrace farming method is practiced on hill and mountain slopes. Reason (R): The availability of land is limited and it checks soil erosion.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Pulses are usually rotated with other crops.
Reason (R): They are used as human food and feeding cattle.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
Hint: They are mostly leguminous in nature and fixes atmospheric nitrogen helps soil to regain its fertility.

III. Pick the odd one out

1. (a) Tea, (b) Sugarcane, (c) Cotton, (d) Ragi
2. (a) Khandsari, (b) Herrings, (c) Mackerels, (d) Eels
3. (a) Damodhar, (b) Mahanadi, (c) Kaveri, (d) Raingun
4. (a) Water wheel, (b) Sprinkler, (c) Open well, (d) poly house
5. (a) Blue Revolution, (b) soil erosion, (c) Green Revolution, (d) Soil erosion
6. (a) Fishing, (b) Kharif, (c) Rabi, (d) Zaid

Answer:

1. (d) Ragi
2. (a) Khandsari
3. (d) Raingun
4. (c) Open well
5. (d) Soil erosion
6. (a) Fishing

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)
F. (v)

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Why is tank irrigation more prevalent in South India than North India?
Answer:
The undulated topography of peninsular region forms large depressions to collect water which become tanks. So the tank irrigation is more prevalent in South India than North India.

Question 2.
How laterite soils are formed?
Answer:
Laterite soils are formed in the regions where alternate wet and dry conditions prevail.
It is formed by the process of leaching.

Question 3.
Which is an acute problem in India? How?
Answer:
Soil degradation is an acute problem in India. According to a 2015 report of the Indian institute of remote sensing (IIRS). The estimated the amount of soil .erosion that occurred in India was 147 million hectares.
The main problems of the Indian soils are

1. Soil erosion
2. Degradation of Soil
3. Water-logging
4. Saline and Alkaline and
5. Salt Flats.

Question 4.
Draw a flow chart showing the sources of irrigation and their classification.
Answer:

Question 5.
Write few lines about Rain Gun.
Answer:
It is used to spread water like rain and used to serve for crops which used to grow up to 4 feet or high also but we have to adjust sprinklers height as per crop size, typical usage of Rain guns are in sugarcane, maize crops.

Question 6.
Name the food crops grown in India.
Answer:
Food crops that are grown in India include cereals and pulses amongst which rice, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, barely, ragi, gram and tur are important.

Question 7.
Give short notes about Terrace cultivation.
Answer:
This is practised especially in hilly areas, where lands are of sloping nature. The hill and mountains slopes are cut to form terraces and the land is used in the same way as in permanent agriculture.

Question 8.
Name the five leading states that contribute 85% of India’s wheat production.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh are the leading states in wheat production in India.

Question 9.
What are the products of Sugarcane?
Answer:
Sugarcane provides raw material for the sugar industry. Besides providing sugar, gur and Khandsari it supplies molasses for alcohol industry and bagasse for paper industry.

Question 10.
How jute is useful for trade?
Answer:

1. Jute fibre provides raw material for Jute industry.
2. It is used for manufactruing of gunny bags, carpets, hessian, ropes and strings, rugs, clothes, tarpaulins, upholstery etc.

Question 11.
What is the other name of ‘Shifting Agriculture1? Who practice shifting agriculture? and how it is called in different regions?
Answer:
‘Shifting Agriculture’ is also called as ‘Slash and bum’ Agriculture. The tribal people follow this type of agriculture. It is called by different names in different regions in India as follows.

Name	Place
Jhum	Assam
Poonam	Kerala
Podu	Andhra Pradesh, Odisha
Beewar, Mashan, Penda, Beera	Various parts of Madhya Pradesh

Question 12.
What is dry farming?
Answer:
Dry farming is the type of farming practiced in arid areas where there is lack of irrigation facilities. Crops grown in these areas can withstand dry conditions.

Question 13.
What are called cash crops? Give examples.
Answer:
Crops which are cultivated for commercial purpose are called cash crops, eg: Sugarcane, tobacco, fibre crops and oil seeds.

Question 14.
Which is the largest oil seeds producing state? What is the position of India in oil seeds production in the world?
Answer:
Gujarat is India’s largest oil seeds producing state. India is the second largest producer of oil seeds in the world next to China.

Question 15.
Define Green Revolution.
Answer:
The process of improving and increasing the production of food crops using modem techniques is referred as Green Revolution.

Question 16.
Mention the different breeds of cattle population in India.
Answer:
Cattle population in India belongs to different breeds. They are

1. Milch breed
2. Draught breed
3. Mixed or General breed

VI. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Tank irrigation is popular in peninsular India.
Answer:
The undulating relief, absence of perennial rivers, Impermeable rock structure and natural depression are the reasons for having tank irrigation most popular in Peninsular India.

Question 2.
Why tea is grown on the hill slopes?
Answer:
Tea plants require high rainfall but its roots cannot tolerate water logging. Frost condition is a must for tea plants. So it is grown on the hill slopes.

Question 3.
Inundation canals are not dependable source of irrigation.
Answer:
Inundation canals are operational only during rainy season for the diversion of flood water directly from the rivers. Hence these canals are not dependable source of irrigation.

Question 4.
Shifting agriculture is also called as slash and burn agriculture.
Answer:
Once the forest land piece is cleared by tribal people they grow crops for two to three years and bum the stumps after harvest and abandoning the lands to regain its fertility and then move to new areas. Thus, shifting agriculture is also called ‘slash and bum’ agriculture.

Question 5.
Only little surplus is left in subsistence farming.
Answer:
Mainly in subsistence farming crops are grown for family consumption leaving little surplus to sell in the market. Preference will be given to food crops as per their needs.

Question 6.
Indian agriculture is mainly dominated by the food crops.
Answer:
As the population increases the need for food also increase. Due to the need and to supply to the large population Indian agriculture is mainly dominated by the food crops.

VII. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Laterite and Red soil.
Solution:
Laterite soil:

1. Femed by the process of leaching under wet and hot dry conditions.
2. Mainly composed of hydrated oxides of iron and aluminium.
3. Found mostly on hilly areas.
4. Suitable for tea, coffee, rubber and cashewnut.

Red soil:

1. Formed by the decomposition of ancient crystalline rocks.
2. Rich in minerals like iron and magnesium.
3. Found in plateau regions.
4. Suitable for pulses and sugarcane.

Question 2.
Arid and desert soil and Peaty and marshy soil.
Answer:
Arid and Desert soil:

1. Formed due to dry climate and high temperature.
2. Poor in organic matter and nitrogen rich in salt content.
3. Found in Rajasthan Northern Gujarat and Southern Punjab.
4. Millets, barley and pulses grow with irrigation.

Peaty and Marshy soil:

1. Formed in humid regions from organic matter.
2. Poor in potash and phosphate rich in vegetable organic matter.
3. Found in coastal areas and Sunderban Deltaic region, Kerala, Odisha, West Bengal.
4. Ideal for paddy and Jute cultivation.

Question 3.
Open well and Tube well irrigation.
Answer:
Open well irrigation:

1. Need sufficient ground water availability.
2. Practiced in areas of Ganga plains and river Deltaic regions.

Tube well irrigation:

1. Can be found in areas of low water table and soft geological subsurface.
2. Need sufficient water supply. Predominant in the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and TamilNadu.

Question 4.
Bhakra Nangal and Hirakud project.
Answer:
Bhakra Nangal Project:

1. Constructed on the river Sutlej.
2. Highest gravity dam in the world.
3. Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan states are benefitted.

Hirakud Project:

1. Constructed on the river Mahanadhi.
2. Longest dam in the world.
3. State of Odhisha is benefitted by this project.

Question 5.
Subsistence and Mixed farming.
Answer:
Subsistence farming:

1. Crops is mainly cultivated for family consumption.
2. Traditional farming methods are used due to small land holdings.
3. Mainly concentrated on food crops.

Mixed farming:

1. Integrated farming to satisfy many needs of the farmers.
2. Modem techniques is used for crop cultivation done in a vast area.
3. System include crop production along with raising live stock, poultry, fisheries, bee keeping etc.

Question 6.
Food and Cash crops.
Answer:
Food crops:

1. Mainly grown for consumption purpose.
2. Food crops include rice, wheat, pulses etc.
3. Apart from consumption used as raw materials for agro based industries.

Cash crops:

1. Crops are cultivated for commercial purpose.
2. Sugarcane, cotton, jute, oil seeds are the main cash crops. .
3. Mainly produced for raw materials for industries and earn valuable foreign exchange.

Question 7.
Rice and Wheat.
Answer:
Rice:

1. Mainly Tropical crop.
2. Need abundant supply of water till harvest.
3. West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, TamilNadu, Andhra Pradesh are some of the leading states in Rice production.

Wheat:

1. Sub tropical or Temperate crop.
2. Need moderate water supply.
3. Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh are the leading states in wheat production.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
What is a multipurpose project and explain its purpose?
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multipurpose project”. Multipurpose projects serve the following purposes.

1. They help to store water, that can be utilised, when water, is in great demand both for agricultural and domestic purpose.
2. They check floods and famines.
3. Afforestation is undertaken in the catchment areas of river, which helps conservation of water, soil and wildlife. Thus it keeps ecosystem intact.
4. Production of hydro electricity is also another purpose of these projects. It is a pollution free of energy and is renewable energy.
5. They attract tourists and develops tourism industry.
6. Soil conservation and land relamation are other purpose of these projects.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Irrigation? Why it is necessary in India?
Answer:

1. Watering to agricultural lands by artificial means for cultivation is called Irrigation.
2. India is a tropical monsoon country.
3. 75% of rainfall is received within a span of four months.
4. Indian rainfall from monsoons are seasonal, uneven, irregular and erratic in nature.
5. So always there is a need for irrigation to carry out agricultural activities during dry period.
6. Besides erratic rainfall prevalence of high temperature, cultivation of annual crops and hydrophytes.
7. Commercial farming and porous soil make irrigation an essential one for agriculture in India.

Question 3.
What are the different sources of irrigation used in different parts of India?
Answer:
The main sources of irrigations are
1. Canal irrigation
2. Well irrigation
3. Tank irrigation

1. Canal irrigation:
It is the second most important sources of irrigation in India. The Canals are of two types.
i. Inundation canals
ii. Perennial canals

i. Inundation canals:
In this, water is taken directly from the rivers without making any kind of barrage or dam. Such canals are useful for the diversion of flood water from the rivers and remains operational during rainy season.

ii. Perennial canals:
These are developed from perennial work by constructing barrage to regulate the flow of water. These canals are useful for irrigation.

2. Well irrigation:
A Well is a hole or trough usually vertical excavated in the earth for brining groundwater to the surface. It contributes about 62% of net irrigated area in India. Wells are of two types.
i. Open well
ii. Tube well

i. Open well:
This type of irrigation is widely practiced in the areas where groundwater is sufficiently available. The areas are in Ganga plains, the deltaic region of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery and parts of Narmada and Tapti valleys.

ii. Tube well:
Tube wells are developed in the areas of low water table, sufficient power supply and soft subsurface geological units. Tube wells are predominant in the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, MP, and Tamil Nadu.

3. Tank irrigation:
A tank is a natural or man-made hollow on the surface developed by constructing a small bund around it across a stream It is used to collect and store water for irrigation and other purpose. It also includes irrigation from taken and ponds.

Question 4.
How is Live-stock census conducted in TamilNadu?
Answer:
State Government is conducting Live stock census with the help of:

1. Department of Animal Husbandary at State level and
2. Regional Joint Director at District level under the guidelines of Government of India ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare,
3. Department of Animal husbandary, Dairying and Fisheries conducted once in 5 years.

Question 5.
Explain about the major issues faced by the Indian farmers?
Answer:
We can divide the problems faced by the Indian agriculture and by the farmers into two Natural and Man made.
Natural problems:

1. Soil erosion: Large tracts of land suffer from soil erosion by wind and water.
2. Infertile soil: Growing crops for many years without replenishing led to the exhaution of soil and its depletion.
3. Lack of Irrigation: Only some areas of the cropped falls under irrigation.

Man made problems:

1. Small land holdings and fragmented land: Poor status made the farmers to have small land and also some farmers possesses share from their ancestral property cannot afford to apply mechanism.
2. High costs of Inputs: Good quality of seeds are out of reach for many small and marginal farmers due to their high price.
3. Agricultural marketing: Absence of sound marketing, facility, interference of local traders and middlemen for the disposal of their produce, fluctuations in the price.
4. In adequate transport: Lakhs of villages are not w7ell connected with main roads or with market centres. Lack of cheap and efficient means of transportation is not available.
5. Scarcity of capital: Huge capital is needed to purchase advanced farm machineries and equipments which the poor farmers cannot afford to buy.

Question 6.
List out some of the Agricultural Revolutions in India.
Answer:

Question 7.
“Per Drop more Crop”. Explain this statement.
Answer:

1. It is the scheme introduced by the Government of India with the objective to enhance water use efficiency.
2. This micro irrigation scheme comes under “Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) and centrally sponsored scheme on micro irrigation.
3. It promotes appropriate technological interventions like drop and sprinkler irrigation technologies in agriculture and encourage farmers to use water saving and conservation technique.
4. Following five states progressed 78% under micro irrigation scheme
   • Andhra Pradesh
   • Karnataka
   • Gujarat
   • Maharashtra
   • TamilNadu

IX. Map Questions
Mark the following on the outline map of India.

Question 1.
Areas of Red soil and Mountain soil.
Answer:

Question 2.
Demarcate the states producing the highest for the following crops.
Answer:
(i) Paddy

(ii) Sugarcane

(iii) Cotton

(iv) Wheat

Question 3.
Kosi project, Tungabadra, Periyar Dam, Nagarjuna Sagar.
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four
  alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
• Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered
  in detaiL Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 70

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 x 1 = 15]

Question 1.
A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has a charge Q which is uniformly distributed on its surface. the correct plot for electrostatic potential due to this spherical shell is ………

Answer:
(b)

Question 2.
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per °C. At 300 K, its resistance is 1Ω. The resistance of the wire will be 2Ω at …………….
(a) 1154 K
(b) 1100 K
(c) 1400K
(d) 1127 K
Answer:

Question 3.
n resistances, each of r Ω, when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R Ω. If these resistances were connected in series, the combination would have a resistance in horns equal to ………..
(a) n²R
(b) \(\frac{R}{n^{2}}\)
(c) \(\frac{R}{n}\)
(d) nR
Answer:
(a) n²R
Hint :
Resistance in parallel combination, R= r/n = r = Rn
Resistance in series combination , R = nr = n²R

Question 4.
A thin insulated wire forms a plane spiral of N = 100 tight turns carrying a current 1 = 8 m A (milli ampere). The radii of inside and outside turns are a = 50 mm and b = 100 mm respectively. The magnetic induction at the center of the spiral is……………………….
(a) 5 μT
(b) 7 μT
(c) 8 μT
(d) 10 μT
Answer:
(b) 7 μT

Question 5.
In an oscillating LC circuit, the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge on the capacitor, when the energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic fields, is……………………….
(a) \(\frac{Q}{2} \)
(b) \(\frac{Q}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(c) \(\frac{Q}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(d) Q
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{Q}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 6.
The direction of induced current during electro magnetic induction is given by …………………………………..
(a) Faraday’s law
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) Maxwell’s law
(d)  Ampere’s law
Answer:
(b) Lenz’s law

Question 7.
In an electromagnetic wave in free space the rms value of the electric field is 3 V m . The peak value of the magnetic field is………………………..
(a) 1.414 x 10^-8 T
(b) 1.0 x 10^-8 T
(c) 2.828 x 10^-8 T
(d) 2.0 x 10^-8 T
Answer:
(a) 1.414 x 10^-8 T

Question 8.
Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black paper. They are viewed by eye of pupil diameter 3 mm approximately. The maximum distance at which these dots can be resolved by the eye is, [take wavelength of light, λ = 500 nm]
(a) 1m
(b) 5m
(c) 3m
(d) 6m
Answer:
(b) 5m
Hint:
Resolution limit sin θ =

Question 9.
Two mirrors are kept at 60° to each other and a body is placed at middle. The total number of images formed is ……………..
(a) six
(b) four
(c) five
(d) three
Answer:
(a) six
Hint:
Number of images formed \(n=\frac{360}{\theta}-1=\frac{360}{60}-1=5\)

Question 10.
The threshold wavelength for a metal surface whose photoelectric work function is 3.313 eV is
{a) 4125 Å
(b) 3750  Å
(c) 6000 Å
(d) 2062.5 Å
Answer:
(b) 3750  Å

Question 11.
Suppose an alpha particle accelerated by a potential of V volt is allowed to collide with a nucleus whose atomic number is Z, then the distance of closest approach of alpha particle to the nucleus is…..

Answer:
(c)

Question 12.
The speed of the particle, that can take discrete values is proportional to ……………
(a) n^-3/2
(b) n^-3
(c) n^1/2
(d) n
Answer:
(d) n
Hint:
\(P=m v=\frac{n h}{2 a} ; V \propto n\)

Question 13.
Doping semiconductor results in ………………………………
(a) The decrease in mobile charge carriers
(b) The change in chemical properties
(c) The change in the crystal structure
(d) The breaking of the covalent bond
Answer:
(c) The change in the crystal structure

Question 14.
The signal is affected by noise in a communication system …………………….
(a) At the transmitter
(b) At the modulator
(c) In the channel
(d) At the receiver
Answer:
(c) In the channel

Question 15.
The technology used for stopping the brain from processing pain is…………………………..
(a) Precision medicine
(b) Wireless brain sensor
(c) Virtual reality
(d) Radiology
Answer:
(c) Virtual reality

Part – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Define ‘Electric field’.
Answer:
The electric field at the point P at a distance r from the point charge q is the force experienced by a unit charge and is given by
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}}{q_{0}}\)
The electric field is a vector quantity and its Sl unit is Newton per Coulomb (NC^-1).

Question 17.
State the principle of potentiometer.
Answer:
The basic principle of a potentiometer is that when a constant current flows through a wire of uniform cross-sectional area and composition, the potential drop across any length of the wire is directly proportional to that length.

Question 18.
Compute the intensity of magnetisation of the bar magnet whose mass, magnetic moment and density are 200 g, 2 A m² and 8 g cm^-3, respectively.
Answer:

Question 19.
What is displacement current?
Answer:
The displacement current can be defined as the current which comes into play in the region in ‘ which the electric field and the electric flux are changing with time.

Question 20.
What is principle of reversibility?
Answer:
The principle of reversibility states that light will follow exactly the same path if its direction of travel is reversed.

Question 21.
Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of a proton whose kinetic energy is equal to. 81.9 x 10¹⁵ (Given: mass of proton is 1836 times that of electron).
Answer:

Question 22.
Give the symbolic representation of alpha decay, beta decay and gamma decay.
Answer:
Alpha decay: The alpha decay process symbolically in the following way
Beta decay: β decay is represented by \(_{ z }^{ A }X\rightarrow _{ z,-1 }^{ A }Y+e^{ + }+v\)
Gamma decay: The gamma decay is given \(\mathrm{z} \mathrm{X}^{*} \rightarrow_{Z}^{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{X} \)+ gamma(y)rays

Question 23.
Explain the need for a feedback circuit in a transistor oscillator.
Answer:
The circuit used to feedback a portion of the output to the input is called the feedback network. If the portion of the output fed to the input is in phase with the input, then the magnitude of the input signal increases. It is necessary for sustained oscillations.

Question 24.
Give the factors that are responsible for transmission impairments.
Answer:

• Attenuation
• Distortion (Harmonic)
• Noise

Part – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 32 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
A water molecule has an electric dipole moment of 6.3 x 10 Cm. A sample contains 10 water molecules, with all the dipole moments aligned parallel to the external electric field of magnitude 3 x 10^s NC^-1. How much work is required to rotate all the water molecules from θ = 0° to 90°?
Answer:
When the water molecules are aligned in the direction of the electric field, it has minimum potential energy. The work done to rotate the dipole from θ = 0° to 90° is equal to the potential energy difference between these two configurations.
W = ΔU = U(90°) – U(0°)
As we know, U = -pE cos θ, Next we calculate the work done to rotate one water molecule
from θ = 0° to 90°,
For one water molecule, W = – pE cos 90° + pE cos 0° = pE
W = 6.3 x10^-30 x 3 x 10⁵ = 18.9 x 10^-25
For 10²² water molecules, the total work done is W_tot = 18.9x 10 ²⁵ x 10²² = 18.9 x 10 ³ J

Question 26.
What are the properties of an equipotential surface?
Answer:
Properties of equipotential surfaces
(i) The work done to move a charge q between any two points A and B,
W = q (V_B – V_A ). If the points A and B lie on the same equipotential surface, work done is zero because V_B – V_A

(ii) The electric field is normal to an equipotential surface. If it is not normal, then there is a component of the field parallel to the surface. Then work must be done to move a charge between two points on the same surface. This is a contradiction. Therefore the electric field must always be normal to an equipotential surface.

Question 27.
An electronics hobbyist is building a radio which requires 150 ft in her circuit, but she has only 220 Ω 79 Ω and 92 Ω resistors available. How can she connect the available resistors to get desired value of resistance?
Answer:
Required effective resistance = 150 ft
Given resistors of resistance, R = 220 ft, R = 79 ft, R = 92 ft
Parallel combination of R₁ and R₂

Question 28.
What is magnetic permeability?
Answer:
Magnetic permeability: The magnetic permeability can be defined as the measure of ability of the material to allow the passage of magnetic field lines through it or measure of the capacity of the substance to take magnetisation or the degree of penetration of magnetic field through the substance.

Question 29.
A circular metal of area 0.03 m² rotates in a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T. The axis of rotation passes through the centre and perpendicular to its plane and is also parallel to the field. If the disc completes 20 revolutions in one second and the resistance of the disc is 4 Ω calculate the induced emf between the axis and the rim and induced current flowing in the disc.
Answer:
A = 0.03 m²; B = 0.4T; f = 20rps; R = 4Ω
Area covered in 1 sec = Area of the disc x frequency
= 0.03 x 20 = 0.6 m²

Question 30.
Give the characteristics of image formed by a plane mirror.
Answer:

• The image formed by a plane mirror is virtual, erect, and laterally inverted.
• The size of the image is equal to the size of the object.
• The image distance far behind the mirror is equal to the object distance in front of it.
• If an object is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle 0, then the number of images n formed is as,\(n=\left(\frac{360}{\theta}-1\right)\)

Question 31.
An electron and an alpha particle have same kinetic energy. How are the de Broglie wavelengths associated with them related?
Answer:

Question 32.
Assuming V_CEsat = 0.2 V and β = 50, find the minimum base current (I_B) required to drive the transistor given in the figure to saturation.
Answer:

V_CEsat = 0.2 V and β = 50
V_CE = V_CC -I_C R_C
0.2= 3 – I_c(1 k)

Question 33.
Mention any two advantages and disadvantages of Robotics.
Answer:
(i) Advantages of Robotics:

• The robots are much cheaper than humans.
• Robots never get tired like humans. It can work for 24 x 7. Hence absenteeism in work place can be reduced.
• Robots are more precise and error free in performing the task.

(ii) Disadvantages of Robotics:

• Robots have no sense of emotions or conscience.
• They lack empathy and hence create an emotionless workplace.
• If ultimately robots would do all the work, and the humans will just sit and monitor them* health hazards will increase rapidly.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Derive an expression for electrostatic potential energy of the dipole in a uniform electric field.
Answer:
Expression for electrostatic potential energy of the dipole in a uniform electric field:
Considera dipole placed in the uniform electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) placed in the uniform electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) . A dipole experiences a torque when kept in an uniform electric field E.

This torque rotates the dipole to align it with the direction of the electric field. To rotate the dipole (at constant angular velocity) from its initial angle θ’ to another angle θ against the torque exerted by the electric field, an equal and opposite external torque must be applied on the dipole. The work done by the external torque to rotate the dipole from angle θ’ to θ at constant angular velocity is

This work done is equal to the potential energy difference between the angular positions 0 and 0′. U(θ) – (Uθ’) = ΔU = -pE cos θ + pE cos θ’.

If the initial angle is = θ’ = 90° and is taken as reference point, then U(θ’) + pE cos 90° = 0. The potential energy stored in the system of dipole kept in the uniform electric field is given by.
U = -pE cos θ = -p-E  ……………. (3)

In addition to p and E, the potential energy also depends on the orientation θ of the electric dipole with respect to the external electric field.

The potential energy is maximum when the dipole is aligned anti-parallel (θ = Jt) to the external electric field and minimum when the dipole is aligned parallel (θ = 0) to the external electric field.

[OR]

(b) Deduce the relation for the magnetic induction at a point due to an infinitely long straight conductor carrying current.
Answer:
Magnetic field due to long straight conductor carrying current: Consider a long straight wire NM with current I flowing from N to M. Let P be the point at a distance a from point O.
Consider an element of length dl of the wire at a distance l from point O and \(\vec{r} \) be the vector joining the element dl with the point P. Let θ be the angle between \(d \vec{l} \text { and } \vec{r}\). Then, the magnetic field at P due to the element is
\(d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{Id} l}{4 \pi r^{2}} \sin \theta\)(unit vector perpendicular to \(d \vec{l} \text { and } \vec{r}\)

The direction of the field is perpendicular to the plane of the paper and going into it. This can be determined by taking the cross product between two vectors \(d \vec{l} \text { and } \vec{r}\)
(let it be \(\hat{n}\)). The net magnetic field can be determined by integrating equation with proper limits. \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}=\int d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) From the figure, in a right angle triangle PAO,

This is the magnetic field at a point P due to the current in small elemental length. Note that we have expressed the magnetic field OP in terms of angular coordinate i.e. θ. Therefore, the net magnetic field at the point P which can be obtained by integrating \(d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \) by varying the angle from θ = φ₁ to θ =φ₂ is

For a an infinitely long straight wire, 1 =0 and 2 =, the magnetic field is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi a} \hat{n} \) ………… (3)
Note that here \(\hat{n} \) represents the unit vector from the point O to P.

Question 35.
(a) Obtain an expression for motional emf from Lorentz force.
Answer:
Motional emf from Lorentz force: Consider a straight conducting rod AB of length l in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) which is directed perpendicularly into the plane of the paper. The length of the rod is normal to the magnetic field. Let the rod move with a constant velocity \(\vec{v}\) towards right side. When the rod moves, the free electrons present in it also move with same velocity \(\vec{v}\) in B. As a result, the Lorentz force acts on free electrons in the direction from B to A and is given by the relation  \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{B}}\)=-
\( e(\vec{v} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}) \) …………. (1)

The action of this Lorentz force is to accumulate the free electrons at the end A. This accumulation of free electrons produces a potential difference across the rod which in turn establishes an electric field E directed along BA. Due to the electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\), the coulomb force starts acting on the free electrons along AB and is given by
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{E}}=-e \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) ……….. (2)

The magnitude of the electric field E keeps on increasing as long as accumulation of electrons at the end A continues. The force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{B}}\) also increases until equilibrium is reached. At equilibrium, the magnetic Lorentz force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{B}}\) and the coulomb force F balance each other and no further accumulation of free electrons at the end A takes place,
i.e

The potential difference between two ends of the rod is
V= El
V= vBl
Thus the Lorentz force on the free electrons is responsible to maintain this potential difference and hence produces an emf

ε = B lv    ………….. (4)
As this emf is produced due to the movement of the rod, it is often called as motional emf.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Maxwell’s modification of Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
Maxwell argued that a changing electric field between the capacitor plates must induce a magnetic field. As currents are the usual sources of magnetic fields, a changing electric field must be associated with a current. Maxwell called this current as the displacement current.

If ‘A’ be the area of the capacitor plates and ‘cf be the charge on the plates at any instant ‘f during the charging process, then the electric field in the gap will be

But \(\frac{d q}{d t}\) is the rate of change of charge on the capacitor plates. It is called displacement current and given by \(\mathrm{I}_{d}=\frac{d q}{d t}=\varepsilon_{0} \frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{E}}}{d t}\)

This is the missing term in Ampere’s Circuital Law. The total current must be the sum of the
conduction current I_c Hence, the modified form of the ampere’s law.
\(\oint_{c} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=\mu_{0}\left(\mathrm{I}_{c}+\varepsilon_{0} \frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{E}}}{d t}\right)\)

Question 36.
(a) Obtain the equation for resolving power of microscope.
Answer:
Resolving power of microscope: The diagram related to the calculation of resolution of microscope. A microscope is used to see the details of the object under observation. The ability of microscope depends not only in magnifying the object objective but also in resolving two points on the object separated by a small distance d_min  Smaller the value of d_min better will be the resolving power of the microscope.

The radius of central maxima is, \(r_{0}=\frac{1.22 \lambda v}{a}\) . In the place of focal length f we have the image distance v. If the difference between the two points on the object to be resolved is d_min, then the magnification m is, \(m=\frac{r_{o}}{d_{\min }}\)


To further reduce the value of d_min the optical path of the light is increased by immersing the objective of the microscope into a bath containing oil of refractive index n.

Such an objective is called oil immersed objective. The term n sin β is called numerical aperture NA.

[OR]

(b) Derive an expression for de Broglie wavelength of electrons.
Answer:
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. The kinetic energy acquired by the electron is given by
\(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}=e \mathrm{V}\)
Therefore, the speed v of the electron is \(v=\sqrt{\frac{2 e \mathrm{V}}{m}}\)
Hence, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is \(\lambda=\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 e m \mathrm{V}}}\)
Substituting the known values in the above equation, we get

For example, if an electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100V, then its de Broglie wavelength is 1.227 Å. Since the kinetic energy of the electron, K = eV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with electron can be also written as
\(\lambda=\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{K}}}\)

Question 37.
(a) Explain the variation of average binding energy with the mass number by graph and discuss its features.
Answer:
We can find the average binding energy per nucleon \(\overline{\mathrm{BE}}\).
It is given by

The average binding energy per nucleon is the energy required to separate single nucleon from the particular nucleus. \(\overline{\mathrm{BE}}\) is plotted against A of all known nuclei.

 

Important inferences from of the average binding energy curve:

• The value of BE rises as the mass number increases until it reaches a maximum value of 8.8 MeV for A= 56 (iron) and then it slowly decreases.
• The average binding energy per nucleon is about 8.5 MeV for nuclei having mass number between A = 40 and 120. These elements are comparatively more stable and not radioactive.
• For higher mass numbers, the curve reduces slowly and BE for uranium is about 7.6 MeV. They are unstable and radioactive.  If two light nuclei with A < 28 combine with a nucleus with A < 56, the binding energy per nucleon is more for final nucleus than the initial nuclei. Thus, if the lighter elements combine to produce a nucleus of medium value A, a large amount of energy will be released. This is the basis of nuclear fusion and is the principle of the hydrogen bomb.
• If a nucleus of heavy element is split (fission) into two or more nuclei of medium value A, the energy released would again be large. The atom bomb is based on this principle and huge energy of atom bombs comes from this fission when it is uncontrolled.

[OR]

(b) State Boolean laws. Elucidate how they are used to simplify Boolean expressions with suitable example.
Answer:
Laws of Boolean Algebra: The NOT, OR and AND operations are \(\bar{A}\), A + B, A.B are the Boolean operations. The results of these operations can be summarised as:

Complement law:

The complement law can be realised as \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) = A

Commutative laws
A + B = B +A
A . B = B . A

Associative laws
A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C
A . (B . C) = (A .B) . C

Distributive laws
A( B + C) = AB + AC
A + BC = (A + B) (A + C)
The above laws are used to simplify complicated expressions and to simplify the logic circuitry.

Question 38.
(a) Modulation helps to reduce the antenna size in wireless communication – Explain. Antenna size:
Answer:
Antenna is used at both transmitter and receiver end. Antenna height is an important parameter to be discussed. The height of the antenna must be a multiple of \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\)
\(h=\frac{\lambda}{4}\) ……………….. (1)
where X is wavelength \(\left(\lambda=\frac{c}{v}\right), c\) c is the velocity of light and v is the frequency of the signal v to be transmitted.

An example
Let us consider two baseband signals. One signal is modulated and the other is not modulated. The frequency of the original baseband signal is taken as v = 10 kHz while the modulated signal is v = 1 MHz. The height of the antenna required to transmit the original baseband signal of frequency
v = 10kHz is

The height of the antenna required to transmit the modulated signal of frequency v = 1 MHz is

Comparing equations (2) and (3), we can infer that it is practically feasible to construct an antenna of height 75 m while the one with 7.5 km is not possible. It clearly manifests that modulated signals reduce the antenna height and are required for long distance transmission.

[OR]

(b) What are the possible harmful effects of usage of Nanoparticles? Why?
Answer:
Possible harmful effects of usage of Nanoparticles:

The research on the harmful impact of application of nanotechnology is also equally important and fast developing. The major concern here is that the nanoparticles have the dimensions same as that of the biological molecules such as proteins. They may easily get absorbed onto the surface of living organisms and they might enter the tissues and fluids of the body.

The adsorbing nature depends on the surface of the nanoparticle. Indeed, it is possible to deliver a drug directly to a specific cell in the body by designing the surface of a nanoparticle so that it adsorbs specifically onto the surface of the target cell.

The interaction with living systems is also affected by the dimensions of the nanoparticles. For instance, nanoparticles of a few nanometers size may reach well inside biomolecules, which is not possible for larger nanoparticles. Nanoparticles can also cross cell membranes.

It is also possible for the inhaled nanoparticles to reach the blood, to reach other sites such as the liver, heart or blood cells. Researchers are trying to understand the response of living organisms to the presence of nanoparticles of varying size, shape, chemical composition and surface characteristics.

Students can download Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.3 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.3

Question 1.
Let f = {(x, y) |x,y; ∈ N and y = 2x} be a relation on N. Find the domain, co-domain and range. Is this relation a function?
Answer:
X = {1,2,3,….}
Y = {1,2,3,….}
f = {(1,2) (2, 4) (3, 6) (4, 8) ….}
Domain = {1, 2, 3, 4 ….}
Co – Domain = {1, 2, 3, 4 ….}
Range = {2, 4, 6, 8 }
Yes this relation is a function.

Question 2.
Let X = {3, 4, 6, 8}. Determine whether the relation
R = {(x,f(x)) |x ∈ X, f(x) = x² + 1}
is a function from X to N?
Answer:
f(x) = x² + 1
f(3) = 3² + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10
f(4) = 4² + 1 = 16 + 1 = 17
f(6) = 6² + 1 = 36 + 1 = 37
f(8) = 8² + 1 = 64 + 1 = 65
yes, R is a function from X to N

Question 3.
Given the function f: x → x² – 5x + 6, evaluate
(i) f(-1)
(ii) f(2a)
(iii) f(2)
(iv) f(x – 1)
Solution:
Give the function f: x → x² – 5x + 6.
(i) f(-1) = (-1)² – 5(1) + 6 = 1 + 5 + 6 = 12
(ii) f(2a) = (2a)² – 5(2a) + 6 = 4a² – 10a + 6
(iii) f(2) = 2² – 5(2) + 6 = 4 – 10 + 6 = 0
(iv) f(x – 1) = (x – 1)² – 5(x – 1) + 6
= x² – 2x + 1 – 5x + 5 + 6
= x² – 7x + 12

Question 4.
A graph representing the function f(x) is given in it is clear that f(9) = 2.

(i) Find the following values of the function
(a) f(0)
(b) f(7)
(c) f(2)
(d) f(10)
Answer:
(a) f (0) = 9
(b) f (7) = 6
(c) f (2) = 6
(d) f(10) = 0

(ii) For what value of x is f(x) = 1 ?
Answer:
When f(x) = 1 the value of x is 9.5

(iii) Describe the following
(i) Domain
(ii) Range.
Answer:
Domain = {0, 1, 2, 3,… .10}
= {x / 0 < x < 10, x ∈ R}
Range = {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}
= {x / 0 < x < 9, x ∈ R}

(iv) What is the image of 6 under f?
Answer:
The image of 6 under f is 5.

Question 5.
Let f (x) = 2x + 5. If x ≠ 0 then find
\(\frac{f(x+2)-f(2)}{x}\)
Answer:
f(x) = 2x + 5
f(x + 2) = 2(x + 2) + 5
= 2x + 4 + 5
= 2x + 9

Question 6.
A function/is defined by f(x) = 2x – 3
(i) find \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}\)
(ii) find x such that f(x) = 0.
(iii) find x such that/ (A:) = x.
(iv) find x such that fix) =/(l – x).
Answer:
(i) f(x) = 2x – 3
f(0) = 2(0) – 3 = -3
f(1) = 2(1) – 3 = 2 – 3 = -1

(ii) f(x) = 0
2x – 3 = 0
2x = 3
x = \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \)

(iii) f(x) = x
2x – 3 = x
2x – x = 3
x = 3

(iv) f(1 – x) = 2(1 – x) – 3
= 2 – 2x – 3
= – 2x – 1
f(x) = f(1 – x)
2x – 3 = – 2x – 1
2x + 2x = 3 – 1
4x = 2
x = \(\frac { 2 }{ 4 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

Question 7.
square piece of material, 24 cm on a side, by cutting equal squares from the corners and turning up the sides as shown. Express the volume V of the box as a function of x.

Solution:

After cutting squares we will get a cuboid,
length of the cuboid (l) = 24 – 2x
breadth of the cuboid (b) = 24 – 2x
height of the cuboid (h) = 2x
Volume of the box = Volume of the cuboid
V = (24 – 2x)(24 – 2x) (x)
= (24 – 2x)² (x)
= (576 + 4x² – 96x) x
= 576x + 4x³ – 96x²
V = 4x³ – 96x² + 576x
V(x) = 4x³ – 96x² + 576x

Question 8.
A function f is defined by f(x) = 3 – 2x. Find x such that f(x²) = (f (x))².
Answer:
f(x) = 3 – 2x
f(x²) = 3 – 2 (x²)
= 3 – 2x²
(f (x))² = (3 – 2x)²
= 9 + 4x² – 12x
But f(x²) = (f(x))²
3 – 2 x² = 9 + 4x² – 12x
-2x² – 4x² + 12x + 3 – 9 = 0
-6x² + 12x – 6 = 0
(÷ by – 6) ⇒ x² – 2x + 1 = 0
(x – 1) (x – 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0 or x – 1 = 0
x = 1
The value of x = 1

Question 9.
A plane is flying at a speed of 500 km per hour. Express the distance d travelled by the plane as function of time t in hours.
Solution:
Speed = \(\frac{\text { distance covered }}{\text { time taken }}\)
⇒ distance = Speed × time
⇒ d = 500 × t [ ∵ time = t hrs]
⇒ d = 500 t

Question 10.
The data in the adjacent table depicts the length of a woman’s forehand and her corresponding height. Based on this data, a student finds a relationship between the height (y) and the forehand length (x) as y = ax + b , where a, b are constants.
(i) Check if this relation is a function.
(ii) Find a and b.
(iii) Find the height of a woman whose forehand length is 40 cm.
(iv) Find the length of forehand of a woman if her height is 53.3 inches.

Length ‘x’ of forehand (in cm)	Height y (in inches)
35	56
45	65
50	69.5
55	74

Answer:
The relation is y = 0.9x + 24.5
(i) Yes the relation is a function.
(ii) When compare with y = ax + b
a = 0.9, b = 24.5
(iii) When the forehand length is 40 cm, then height is 60.5 inches.
Hint: y = 0.9x + 24.5
= 0.9 × 40 + 24.5
= 36 + 24.5
= 60.5 feet

(iv) When the height is 53.3 inches, her forehand length is 32 cm
Hint: y = 0.9x + 24.5
53.3 = 0.9x + 24.5
53.3 – 24.5 = 0.9 x
28.8 = 0.9 x
x = \(\frac { 28.8 }{ 0.9 } \)
x = 32 cm

Representation of functions

A function may be represented by

(a) Set of ordered pairs
(b) Table form
(c) Arrow diagram
(d) Graphical form

Vertical line test
A curve drawn in a graph represents a function, if every vertical line intersects the curve in at most one point.

Types of function

1. One – One function (injection)

A function f: A → B is called one-one function if distinct elements of A have a distinct image in B.

2. Many – One function

A function f: A → B is called many-on function if two or more elements of A have same image in B.

3. Onto function (surjection)

A function f: A → B is said to be on to function if the range of f is equal to the co-domain of f.

4. Into function

A function f: A → B is called an into function if there exists at least one element in B which is not the image of any element of A.

5. Bijection

A function f: A → B is both one – one and onto, then f is called a bijection from A to B.

Horizontal line test
A function represented in a graph is one – one, if every horizontal line intersects the curve in at most one point.

Special cases of function

1. Constant function

A function f: A → B is called a constant function if the range of f contains only one element.

2. Identity function

A function f : A → A defined by f(x) = x for all x ∈ A is called an identity function on A and is denoted by I_A.

3. Real valued function
A function f: A → B is called a real valued function if the range of f is a subset of the set of all real numbers R.

Students can download Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.2 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.2

Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 7} and B = {3, 0, -1, 7}, which of the following are relation from A to B?
(i) R₁ = {(2,1), (7,1)}
(ii) R₂ = {(-1,1)}
(iii) R₃ = {(2,-1), (7, 7), (1,3)}
(iv) R₄ = {(7, -1), (0, 3), (3, 3), (0, 7)}
Answer:
A = {1,2,3,7} B = {3,0,-1, 7}
A × B = {1,2,3} × {3, 0,-1, 7}
A × B = {(1,3) (1,0) (1,-1) (1,7) (2,3) (2, 0)
(2, -1) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3,0) (3,-1)
(3, 7) (7, 3) (7, 0) (7,-1) (7, 7)}

(i) R₁ = {(2, 1)} (7, 1)
It is not a relation, there is no element of (2, 1) and (7, 1) in A × B

(ii) R₂ = {(-1),1)}
It is not a relation, there is no element of
(-1, 1) in A × B

(iii) R₃ = {(2,-1) (7, 7) (1,3)}
Yes, It is a relation

(iv) R₄ = {(7,-1) (0,3) (3, 3) (0,7)}
It is not a relation, there is no element of (0, 3) and (0, 7) in A × B

Question 2.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4,…,45} and R be the relation defined as “is square of ” on A. Write R as a subset of A × A. Also, find the domain and range of R.
Solution:
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, . . . 45}, A × A = {(1, 1), (2, 2) ….. (45, 45)}
R – is square of’
R = {(1, 1), (2, 4), (3, 9), (4, 16), (5, 25), (6, 36)}
R ⊂ (A × A)
Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Range of R = {1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36}

Question 3.
A Relation R is given by the set {(x, y)/y = x + 3, x ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}}. Determine its domain and range.
Answer:
x = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
y = x + 3
when x = 0 ⇒ y = 0 + 3 = 3
when x = 1 ⇒ y = 1 + 3 = 4
when x = 2 ⇒ y = 2 + 3 = 5
when x = 3 ⇒ y = 3 + 3 = 6
when x = 4 ⇒ y = 4 + 3 = 7
when x = 5 y = 5 + 3 = 8
R = {(0, 3) (1,4) (2, 5) (3, 6) (4, 7) (5, 8)}
Domain = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Range = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}

Question 4.
Represent each of the given relations by
(a) an arrow diagram
(b) a graph and
(c) a set in roster form, wherever possible.
(i) {(x,y) | x = 2y,x ∈ {2, 3, 4, 5}, y ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4}
(ii) {(x, y) | y = x + 3, x, y are natural numbers < 10}
Answer:
(i) x = {2, 3, 4, 5} y = {1, 2, 3, 4}
x = 2y
wheny y = 1 ⇒ x = 2 × 1 = 2
when y = 2 ⇒ x = 2 × 2 = 4
when y = 3 ⇒ r = 2 × 3 = 6
when y = 4 ⇒ x = 2 × 4 = 8

(a) Arrow diagram

(b) Graph

(c) Roster form R = {(2, 1) (4, 3)}

(ii) x = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
y = {1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8,9}
y = x + 3
when x = 1 ⇒ y = 1 + 3 = 4
when x = 2 ⇒ y = 2 + 3 = 5
when x = 3 ⇒ y = 3 + 3 = 6
when x = 4 ⇒ y = 4 + 3 = 7
when x = 5 ⇒ y = 5 + 3 = 8
when x = 6 ⇒ y = 6 + 3 = 9
when x = 7 ⇒ y = 7 + 3 = 10
when x = 8 ⇒ y = 8 + 3 = 11
when x = 9 ⇒ y = 9 + 3 = 12

R = {(1,4) (2, 5) (3,6) (4, 7) (5, 8) (6, 9)}

(a) Arrow diagram

(b) Graph

(c) Roster form: R = {(1, 4) (2, 5) (3, 6) (4, 7) (5, 8) (6, 9)}

Question 5.
A company has four categories of employees given by Assistants (A), Clerks (C), Managers (M) and an Executive Officer (E). The company provide ₹10,000, ₹25,000, ₹50,000 and ₹1,00,000 as salaries to the people who work in the categories A, C, M and E respectively. If A₁, A₂, A₃, A₄ and A₅ were Assistants; C₁, C₂, C₃, C₄ were Clerks; M₁, M₂, M₃ were managers and E₁, E₂ were Executive officers and if the relation R is defined by xRy, where x is the salary given to person y, express the relation R through an ordered pair and an arrow diagram.
Answer:
Assistants → A₁, A₂, A₃, A₄, A₅
Clerks → C₁, C₂, C₃, C₄
Managers → M₁, M₂, M₃
Executive officers → E₁, E₂

R = {00000, A₁) (10000, A₂) (10000, A₃) (10000, A₄) (10000, A₅)
(25000, C₁) (25000, C₂) (25000, C₃) (25000, C₄)
(50000, M₁) (50000, M₂) (50000, M₃) (100000, E₁) (100000, E₂)}

(a) Arrow diagram

Functions Definition
A relation f between two non – empty sets X and Y is called a function from X to Y if for each x ∈ X there exists only one Y ∈ Y such that (x, y) ∈ f
f = {(x, y) / for all x ∈ X, y ∈ f}
Note: The range of a function is a subset of its co-domain