Bhagya

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?
(a) Only one time
(b) Two times
(c) Three times
(d) Multiple times
Answer:
(d) Multiple times

Question 2.
Money market Institutions are ………………
(a) Investment Houses
(b) Mortgage Banks
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses
Answer:
(d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses

Question 3.
Risk in the Money Market is ………………
(a) High
(b) Market Risk
(c) Low credit and Market Risk
(d) Medium Risk
Answer:
(c) Low credit and Market Risk

Question 4.
A pessimistic speculator is ………………
(a) Stag
(b) Bear
(c) Bull
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(b) Bear

Question 5.
An optimistic speculator is ……………
(a) Bull
(b) Bear
(c) stag
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(a) Bull

Question 6.
SEBI is empowered by the Finance Ministry nominate ……………. mumbers on the governing body of every stock exchange.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 7.
The process of converting physical shares into electronic from is called from is called …………..
(a) Dematerialisation
(b) Delisting
(c) Materialisation
(d) Debarring
Answer:
(a) Dematerialisation

Question 8.
Labour turnover is the rate at which employees the organisation.
(a) enter
(b) leave
(c) salary
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) leave

Question 9.
Which of the following test is used to measure the various characteristics of the candidate?
(a) physical Test
(b) psychological Test
(c) attitude Test
(d) proficiency Tests
Answer:
(b) psychological Test

Question 10.
When trainees are trained by supervisor or by superior at the job is called …………..
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Refresher training
(c) Role Pay
(d) Apprenticeship training
Answer:
(d) Apprenticeship training

Question 11.
Stock Exchange Market is also called …………..
(a) Spot Market
(b) Local Market
(c) Security Market
(d) National Market
Answer:
(c) Security Market

Question 12.
Marketing mix means a marketing program that is offered by a firm to to its target ………….. to earn profits through satisfaction of their wants.
(a) Wholesaler
(b) Retailer
(c) Consumer
(d) Seller
Answer:
(c) Consumer

Question 13.
Effective use of Social media marketing increase conversion rates of ……………..
(a) Customer to buyers
(b) Retailer to customers
(c) One buyer to another buyer’s
(d) Direct contact of marketer
Answer:
(a) Customer to buyers

Question 14.
The Consumer protection Act came into force with effect from ……………
(a) 1.1. 1986
(b) 1.4.1986
(c) 15.4. 1987
(d) 15.4.1990
Answer:
(c) 15.4. 1987

Question 15.
Which of the following is not consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right’to consume
(d) Right to he informed
Answer:
(a) Right to safety

Question 16.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of goods/services complained against and the compensation, if any, claimed is………………..
(a) Exceeding ₹ 1 crore
(b) Exceeding ₹ 10 lakhs
(c) Exceeding ₹ 5 lakhs
(d) Exceeding ₹ 12 lakhs
Answer:
(a) Exceeding ₹ 1 crore

Question 17.
New Economic Policy was introduced in the year
(a) 1980
(b) 1991
(c) 2013
(d) 2015
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 18.
In which of the following types, the ownership is immediately transferred to buyer?
(a) When goods are ascertained
(b) When goods are appropriate
(c) Delivery to the carrier
(d) Sale or return basis
Answer:
(c) Delivery to the carrier

Question 19.
………………. cannot be a bearer instrument.
(a) Cheque
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Bills of exchange
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Cheque

Question 20.
Which of the below is not classified into managerial functions?
(a) Planning
(b) Marketing
(c) Organising
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Organising

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by Span of Management?
Answer
The Span of Management refers to the number of subordinates who can be managed efficiently by a superior. Simply, the manager having the group of subordinates who report him directly is called as the span of management.

Question 22.
What is Mutual Fund?
Answer
Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of small investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’. A mutual fund company invests the funds pooled from shareholders and gives them the benefit of diversified investment portfolio and a reasonable return.

Question 23.
Who is called a Broker?
Answer
Broker is a commission agent. He acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers of securities. He charges a commission for his services from both the parties.

Question 24.
What is Mentoring training method?
Answer
Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee. The focus in this training is on the development of attitude of trainees. It is mostly used for managerial employees.

Question 25.
Define E-Marketing.
Answer
“E-Marketing is achieving marketing objectives through use of digital technologies like Internet, world wide web, e-mail, wireless media, and management of digital customer data and electronic customer management systems.

Question 26.
What is caveat Venditor?
Answer
Today, most sales in the U.S. fall under the principle of caveat venditor, which means “let the seller beware,” by which goods are covered by an implied warranty of merchantability.

Question 27.
What is Privatisation.
Answer
Privatization is the incidence or process of transferring ownership of a business enterprise, agency or public service from the government to the private sector.

Question 28.
List three characteristics of a promissory Note.
Answer
Characteristics of a Promissory Note:

• A promissory note must be in writing.
• The promise to pay must be unconditional.
• It must be signed by the maker.

Question 29.
List down the promotional functions of entrepreneurs.
Answer

• Discovery of Idea
• Determining the business objectives
• Detailed Investigation
• Choice of form of enterprise
• Fulfilment of the formalities
• Preparation of Business Plan
• Mobilisation of funds
• Procurement of Machines and Materials

Question 30.
Name the companies required to appoint KMP?
Answer
Following Companies are required to appoint KMP:

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What determines the span of management?
Answer:
The Span of Management has two implications:

• Influences the complexities of the individual manager’s job.
• Determine the shape or configuration of the organisation.
• There is a wide and a narrow span of management.

Question 32.
Bring out the scope of financial market in India.
Answer:
The financial market provides financial assistance to individuals, agricultural sectors, industrial sectors, service sectors, financial institutions like banks, insurance sectors, provident funds and the government as a whole. With the help of the financial market all the above stated individuals, institutions and the Government can get their required funds in time. Through the financial market the institutions get their short term as well as long term financial assistance. It leads to overall economic development.

Question 33.
Explain the types of Treasury Bills?
Answer:
Treasury Bills are issued to the public and other financial institutions for meeting the short-term financial requirements of the Central Government. Treasury Bills may be classified into three. They are:

• 91 days Treasury Bills
• 182 days Treasury Bills and
• 64 days Treasury Bills 34.

Question 34.
Explain National Stock Exchange. (NSE)
Answer:
National Stock Exchange was incorporated in November, 1992. It uses satellite link to spread trading throughout the country. Through computer network, members’ orders for buying and selling within prescribed price are matched by central computer.

Question 35.
Name the types of Selection Test.
Answer:
Selection tests are of two types:

• Ability Tests and Personality Tests. Ability tests can further be divided into: aptitude test, achievement test, intelligence test, and judgement test.
• Personality tests can further be divided into: interest test, personality inventory test, projective test or thematic appreciation test, and attitude test.

Question 36.
Write the importance of Consumerism.
Answer:
Importance of consumerism lies in

• Awakening and uniting consumers
• Discouraging unfair trade practices
• Protecting against exploitation
• Awakening the government.
• Effective implementation of consumer protection laws
• Providing complete and latest information
• Discouraging anti-social activities

Question 37.
What are the advantages of disinvestment?
Answer:
Disinvestment in PSUs: The Govt, has started the process of disinvestment in those PSUs which had been running into loss. It means that Govt, has been selling out these industries to private sector. So disinvestment is a system of privatizing government enterprises.

Question 38.
Explain the promotional functions of entrepreneur.
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Determining the business objectives: Entrepreneur has to develop business objectives in the backdrop of nature of business and type of business activity i.e. nature of business, manufacturing or trading, type of business organisation chosen so that he/she can organise the venture in accordance with the objectives determined by him/her.

(iii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iv) Choice of form of enterprise: Entrepreneur has to choose the appropriate form of organisation suited to implement the venture. There are various forms of organisation namely sole proprietor, partnership, company and co-operatives etc. which are in existence.

(v) Fulfilment of the formalities: Having chosen the appropriate type of organisation, entrepreneur has to take necessary steps to establish the form of organisation chosen. As regards sole trader, the formalities are barest minimum. In the case of partnership firm, entrepreneur has to arrange for partnership deed and he has to get the deed registered.

(vi) Preparation of Business Plan: Entrepreneur has to prepare a business plan or project report
of the venture that he is proposing to take up.

(vii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(viii) Procurement of Machines and Materials: Entrepreneur has to locate the various sources of supply of machineries, equipments and materials.

Question 39.
What is Causal Vacancy?
Answer:
If a director is absent from India, for a period which is not less than three months, then it is called casual vacancy. It may be filled by the appointment of alternate director. The appointment must be authorised by the articles of association by passing a resolution in the meeting.

Question 40.
Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
Answer:
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority, i.e. if the members of votes cast by members, entitled to vote in favour of the resolution is more than the votes cast against the resolution.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change or rectify the name of the company
• To alter the share capital of the company
• To redeem the debentures

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41
(a) Explain Lombard Street and Wall Street.
Answer:
Lombard Street
Lombard Street is in London. It is a street notable for its connections with the merchants, banking and insurance industries of London. From bank junction, where nine streets converge by the bank of England, Lombard Street runs southeast for a short distance.

Wall Street
Wall Street is a street in New York. It is the original home of the New York Stock exchange.
Also it is the historic headquarters of the largest U.S. brokerages and investment banks.
Wall Street is also used as a collective name for the financial and investment community.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Operating functions of HRM.
Answer:
Operating functions of HRM:

• Procurement: Acquisition deals with job analysis, human resource planning, recruitment, selection, placement and promotion.
• Development: It includes performance appraisal, training, executive development, and organisational development.
• Compensation: It deals with job evaluation, wage and salary administration, incentives, bonus schemes.
• Retention: This is made possible through health and safety, social security, job satisfaction and quality of work life.
• Maintenance: This encourages employees to work with job satisfaction, reducing labour turnover, for human resource.

Question 42.
(a) Differentiate Recruitment and Selection.
Answer:

Basis for comparison	Recruitment	Selection
1. Meaning	It means searching candidates for the right job.	It refers to the process of selecting the suitable candidates and offering them job.
2. Objective	Inviting large number of candidates to apply for the vacant post.	Picking up the most suitable candidates.
3. Method	It is an economical method.	It is an expensive method.
4. Contractual relation	It involves the communication of vacancies. There is no contractual relation.	It creates contractual relation between employer and employee.
5. Process	Recruitment process is very simple.	Selection process is very complex and complicated.
6. Time	Requires less time since it involves merely identifying vacancies and advertising them.	It is more time-consuming because each and every candidate has to be tested on various aspects before finally being selected.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of placement.
Answer:
The following are the principles of placement:

• Job First, Man Next: Man should be placed on the job according to the requirements
  of the job.
• Job Offer: The job should be offered to the man based on his qualification.
• Terms and conditions: The employee should be informed about the terms and conditions of the organisation.
• Aware about the Penalties: The employee should also be made aware of the penalties if he / she commits a mistake.
• Loyalty and Co-operation: When placing a person in a new job, an effort should be made to develop a sense of loyalty and co-operation in him.

Question 43.
(a) What is Marketing?
Answer:

• Marketing is the performance of buying activities that facilitate to more flow of goods and services. It is one of the oldest profession in the world.
• Objective: The traditional objective of marketing had been to make the goods available at places where they are needed.
• Later on this idea was changed from ‘exchange’ to “Satisfaction of human wants”. Marketing is linking the consumer and the producer. Also marketing helps to maintain economic stability and economic development.

[OR]

(b) What are the salient features of the Consumer Protection Act 1986?
Answer:
Salient features of The Indian Consumer Protection Act, 1986:

• Protecting consumers against products and services which are harmful to the health of the consumers.
• Ensuring consumers with supply of goods at fair quality.
• Ensuring the availability of goods in correct quantity and right size.
• Protecting the consumers against pollution of various kinds.
• Ensuring that consumers are charged fair price.
• Protecting the consumers against unfair trade practices of unscrupulous trader.

Question 44.
(a) What are the responsibilities of consumers?
Answer:
Rights and responsibilities are two sides of the same coin. The responsibilities of consumers are listed below:

• The consumer must pay the price of the goods according to the terms and conditions.
• The consumer has the responsibility to make the seller to deliver the goods in time.
• The consumer has to bear any loss, which may arise to the seller, due to delay in taking delivery.
• The consumer has to follow the instructions and precautions while using the product.
• The consumer must collect the cash receipt as a proof of goods purchased from the seller.
• The consumer must file a complaint with the seller about the defects in products or deficiency in service.

[OR]

(b) Discuss in detail the rights of an unpaid seller against the goods.
Answer
A seller is deemed to be an unpaid seller when :
(a) the whole of the price has not been paid or
(b) a bill of exchange or other negotiable instrument given to him has been dishonoured. Rights of an Unpaid Seller against the Goods: Where the Property in the Goods has Passed to the Buyer:
Right of Lien: An unpaid seller has a right to retain the goods till he receives the price. But to exercise this lien-
(i) He must be in possession of goods
(ii) The goods must have been sold without any condition.

• Right of Stoppage in Transit: Where the seller has delivered the goods to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer, but the buyer has not acquired them, then the seller can stop the goods.
• Right of Resale: The unpaid seller can resell the goods

(iii) Where they are of a perishable nature or
(iv) Where the seller has expressly reserved the right of resale in the contract itself.

Question 45.
(a) Discuss the problems faced by Women Entrepreneurs?
Answer:
There is a tremendous growth in the women entrepreneurship in India. But there are certain problems met by women entrepreneurs. They are as follows
(i) Problem of Finance: The external sources of funds for the women is limited because they do not generally own properties in their own name. They are depending on their own savings and loan from friends and relatives.
(ii) Lack of Education: Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs face difficulties in respect of accounts, money matters, marketing and day-to-day operations

(iii) Lack of Network Support: The success of business depends on the support of family members, friends and relatives. But it is reported that the women entrepreneurs get very limited support in times of crisis.
(iv) Stiff Competition: They have to face acute competition for their goods from organised sector and from their male counterparts.
(v) Lack of Information: The lack of knowledge or limited knowledge about subsidies, concessions and incentives given by Government will affect the business.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Preparation of a project report.
Answer:
An entrepreneur can get the report prepared by technical consultancy organisations or by auditors or by government agencies. The report should include the following:
(i) Technical feasibility: It should contain the description of product, raw materials, quality control measures, water, power and transport.
(it) Economic viability: It involves compilation of demand for domestic and export market.
(iii) Financial viability: It should cover the aspects like: Non-recurring expenses like cost of land, and building. Recurring expenses like wages and salaries.
(iv) Managerial competency: Entrepreneurs has to include the mechanism for managing the venture in the project report.

(v) Provisional registration certificate: He has to apply for provisional registration certificate. It will be issued after certain conditions for a period of one year.
(vi) Permanent registration certificate: If the venture has commenced production, or is ready to commence production, it is eligible to get permanent registration certificate.
(vii) Statutory licence: He should obtain Municipal Licence from the authority concerned.
(viii) Power connection: He has to make application to Assistant Divisional Engineer of Electricity Board for power connection.
(ix) Arrangement of finance: Entrepreneur requires two types of finance namely Long term and Short term.

Question 46.
(a) Explain how director of a company can be removed from the office?
Answer:
A Director of Company can be removed from his Office before the expiry of his term by

• the Shareholders
• the Central Government
• the Company Law Board

(i) Removal by shareholders (Sec- 169): A company may, by giving a special notice and passing an ordinary resolution, remove a director before the expiry of his period of office.
(ii) Removal by the Central Government: The Central Government has been empowered to remove managerial personnel from office on the recommendation of the Company Law Board under the following situations:

• Where a person concerned in the conduct and management of the affairs of a company has been guilty of fraud and negligence.
• If the business is managed by a person without sound business principles.
• Where the business of a company has been managed by such a person, who likes to cause injury or damage to the business.

(iii) Removal by the Company Law Board: If an application has been made to the Company Law Board against the oppression and mismanagement of the company’s affairs by a director, then the Company Law Board may order to terminate the director.

[OR]

(b) Describe the different types of resolutions which company may pass in the suitable matters required for each type of resolution.
Answer:
A motion, with or without the amendments which is put to vote at a meeting and passed with the required quorum becomes resolution. Resolution may be classified into three types. They are: Ordinary resolution, Special resolution and resolution requiring special notice.

(i) Ordinary Resolution: An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change or rectify the name of the company
• To alter the share capital of the company
• To redeem the debentures
• To declare the dividends
• To appoint the directors

(ii) Special Resolution: A special resolution is the one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority.
Special Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change the registered office of the company
• To alter the Articles of Association
• To commence any new business
• To appoint the auditor for the company

(iii) Resolution requiring Special Notice: There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting.

The following matters require special notice:

• To remove a director before the expiry of his period
• To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

Question 47.
(a) Discuss the significance of understanding business environment and the internal factors affecting business.
Answer:
A business in order to remain successful and competitive has to adapt to the constantly changing environment. The significance of understanding the business environment is as follows:

• Helps in formulating strategy and future planning.
• The analysis of business environment helps a business to identify new opportunities.
• Environment scanning helps the firms to identify threats which affect the business.

Internal factors of environment:

• Value system: The success of an organisation depends upon the sharing of value system by all members.
• Vision and objectives: The vision and objectives of a business guides its operations and strategic decisions.
• Management structure: The structure of management/board and their style of functioning, the composition of the board.
•  Internal power relations: This refers to the internal power relations that exist in an organisation. The relations among board members, and the CEO and employees, shareholders are the factors affecting in taking decisions.

[OR]

(b) What is Voluntary Consumer Organisations? Explain its Functions.
Answer:
Voluntary consumer organisations refer to the organisation formed voluntarily by the consumers to protect their rights and interests.
Functions:

• Collecting Data on Different Products: These organizations collect samples of different products from time to time and test them.
• Filing Suit on Behalf of Consumers: If a consumer is not able to protest regarding his complaints, these organisations file case in the court, on behalf of a consumer.
• Protests against Adulteration: The consumer organisations play a significant role in eliminating the evil of adulteration, hoarding, black-marketing.
• Helping Educational Institutions: These organizations advice the educational institutions the way to prepare courses of study.
• Extending Support to Government: Consumer organisations keep informing the government agencies about adulteration, artificial scarcity, inferior quality products.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair
(b) P. Rangaiah
(c) G. Subramaniam
(d) G.A. Natesan
Answer:
(b) P. Rangaiah

Question 2.
Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina
(b) Mylapore
(c) Fort St. George
(d) Thousand Lights
Answer:
(d) Thousand Lights

Question 3.
Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) M. Veeraraghavachari
(c) B.P. Wadia
(d) G.S. Arundale
Answer:
(a) Annie Besant

Question 4.
Which among the following was SILF’s official organ in English?
(a) Dravidian
(b) Andhra Prakasika
(c) Justice
(d) New India
Answer:
(c) Justice

Question 5.
Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurty
(b) Kastunrangar
(c) P. Subbarayan
(d) Periyar EVR
Answer:
(a) S. Satyamurty

Question 6.
Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) Kamaraj
(b) Rajaji
(c) K. Santhanam
(d) T. Prakasam
Answer:
(d) T. Prakasam

Question 7.
Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 8.
Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India Movement?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(d) Madurai

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court.
2. The economic exploitation of India was exposed by ………………… through his writings.
3. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named …………………
4. The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by …………………
5. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by …………………
6. ………………… formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
7. ………………… was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
8. ………………… hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.

Answers:

1. T. Muthuswami
2. G. Subramaniam
3. Bharata Matha Society
4. B.P.Wadia
5. C. Natesanar
6. C. Rajaji
7. Yakub Hasan
8. Bashyam

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) EVR did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) is correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more power.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in legislature.
Reason (R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
List out the contribution of the moderates.
Answer:
The primary contribution of the moderates lies in exposing the liberal claims of the British. They exposed how the British exploited India, and their hypocrisy in following democratic principles in England but imposing an unrepresentative government in colonies.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Tirunelveli Uprising.
Answer:

1. V.O Chidambaranar with Subramania Siva an organising the mill workers in Thoothukudi and Tirunelveli.
2. In 1908 he led a strike in the European owned coral mills. It coincided with the release of Bipin Chandra Pal.
3. In celebrate the release of Bipin Chandra Pal V.O.C and Subramania Siva organised a public meeting.
4. The two leaders were charged with sedition and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment.
5. The news of the arrest sparked riots in Tirunelveli leading to the burning down of the Police Station, Court Building and Municipal Office.
6. It led to the death of four people in police firing. V.O.C was treated harshly.

Question 3.
What is the contribution of Annie Besant to India’s freedom struggle?
Answer:
Annie Besant started the Home Rule League. She wrote two books and a pamphlet on self-government. Members of the movement played a key role in organising working classes through trade unions.

Question 4.
Mention the various measures introduced by the Justice Ministry.
Answer:
The Justice Ministry introduced “Various measures for the benefit of Non – Brahmins, They were

1. Reservation of appointments in local bodies and education institutions.
2. Establishment of Staff Selection Board which later became the Public Service Commission.
3. Enactment of Hindu Religious Endowment Act.
4. Madras State Aid to Industries Act.
5. Abolition of Devadasi system.
6. Allotment of waste Government lands (Poromboke) to the poor for housing.
7. Extension of primary education to the depressed classes through fee concessions, scholarships and mid – day meals.

Question 5.
Write briefly on EVR’s contribution to the constructive programme?
Answer:
E.V. Ramaswamy campaigned for the promotion and sale of khadi, opposed the consumption of liquor, and played a key role in the satyagraha for temple entry in Vaikom. Gandhi called him Vaikom Hero for his contribution against caste discrimination and agitation for temple entry.

Question 6.
What is Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy?
Answer:

1. To further the cause of national education a gurukulam was established in Cheranmadevi by V.V Subramanianar. It received funds from congress.
2. Students were discriminated on the basis of caste.
3. They were made to dine separately and the food served too was different.
4. The issue was brought to the notice of E.V.R who questioned and severely criticised it along with another leader Dr. RVaradarajulu.
5. The Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy and opposition to communal representation within the congress led to E.V.R (Periyar) to leave the Congress.

Question 7.
Why was anti-Hindi agitation popular?
Answer:
The anti-Hindi agitation was popular because Hindi was considered a form of Aryan and North Indian imposition which was detrimental to Tamil language and culture.

Question 8.
Outline the key incidents during the Quit India Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
On 8^th August 1942 Quit India resolution was passed. The entire congress leadership was arrested overnight.

1. At every railway station the policemen waited with a list of local leaders and arrested them when they got down.
2. Kamaraj who saw this on his return from Bombay conference slipped from police arrest. He then worked underground and organised the people during Quit India Movement.
3. All sections of society participated in the movement.
4. There were many instances of violence such as setting fire to post offices Vellore and Panapakkam.
5. Gutting of telegraph lines.
6. Congress volunteers clashed with the Military in Madurai.
7. Disrupting railway traffic trains derailed in Coimbatore.
8. There were police firings at Rajapalayam, Karaikudi and Devakottai.

These were some of the key incidents.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu

(a) What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
Answer:
The objective of Madras Native Association was to promote the interests of its members and reduction of taxes. It also protested against the government’s support to missionary activities.

(b) What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The entire press opposed the appointment of the first South Indian judge of the Madras High Court in 1878. This led to a need of a nationalist press to express the Indian perspective. The Hindu was started in 1878 and soon became a vehicle for nationalist propaganda.

(c) What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
Answer:
The demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha were to conduct civil services examinations simultaneously in England and India, abolition of India Council in London, reduction of taxes, and reduction of civil and military expenditure.

(d) Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Some early nationalists in Tamil Nadu were: V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, P.S. Sivasamy Iyer, V. Krishnasamy Iyer, T.R. Venkatrama Sastri, G.A. Natesan, T.M. Madhava Rao and S. Subramania Iyer.

Question 2.
Revolutionary Movement In Tamil Nadu:

(a) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
M.P.T. Acharya, V.V. Subramanianar and T.S.S. Rajan were few of the revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.

(b) Why did Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry?
Answer:
To avoid imprisonment, Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry.

(c) Name a few of the revolutionary literature.
Answer:
Few of the Revolutionary literature were India, Vijaya and Suryodayam.

(d) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
Vanchinathan of Senkottai, influenced by Bharatha Matha Society, shot dead Robert W.D’E. Ashe collector of Tirunelveli in Maniyachi junction.

Question 3.
Non-Brahmin Movement

(a) Why was the South Indian Liberal Federation formed?
Answer:
The South Indian Liberal Federation was formed to promote the interests of non-Brahmins.

(b) What is the Non-Brahmin Manifesto?
Answer:
The Non-Brahmin Manifesto had objectives such as reservation of jobs for non-Brahmins in government service and seats in representative bodies. It opposed the Home Rule Movement and criticised Congress as a party of Brahmins.

(c) Why did EVR join the Non-Brahmin Movement?
Answer:
EVR joined the non-Brahmin movement because he felt the Congress was promoting the interests of Brahmins alone.

(d) What do you know about anti-Hindi agitation?
Answer:
A massive campaign was led by EVR against the introduction of Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools. The anti-Hindi agitation was popular because Hindi was considered a form of Aryan and North Indian imposition. EVR organized an anti-Hindi conference. More than ‘ 1200 protesters were arrested at a rally. The subject was later removed after protests.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The Swadeshi Movement made a deep impact in Tamil Nadu. The congress carried on Vigorous campaign for boycott of Foreign goods.

Prominent leaders who played a Key role:

V.O.Chidambaranar, V.Chakkaraiyar, Subramania Bharati and Surendranath Arya.

1. The extremist leader Bipin Chandrapal toured Madras and delivered lectures.
2. Inspired by his speech students and youths widely participated in the Swadeshi Movement.

Propagation of Swadeshi ideals:
Many journals were started to propagate Swadeshi ideals the prominent among them were swadesamitran and India.

Mobilisation of people:

1. Public meetings were organised in various parts of Tamil Nadu. Thousands of people attended it.
2. For the first time was used on the public platform.

Awakening and inculcating patriotic spirit:
Subramania Bharati’s patriotic songs were especially the most important in stirring the patriotic emotions of the people.

Question 2.
Examine the origin and growth of Non-Brahmin Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
As there was rapid growth of education in Madras Presidency, there was an increase in the number of educated non-Brahmins. They began to raise the issue of caste discrimination and unequal opportunities in employment and representation in elected bodies. The Congress also mainly consisted of Brahmins. The non-Brahmins then began to organise themselves into political organisations to protect their interests, such as the Madras Dravidian Association and the South Indian Liberal Federation. A non-Brahmin manifesto was also released.

Question 3.
Describe the role of Tamil Nadu in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:

1. Transformation of congress: In the 1920’s congress with Gandhi in leadership was transforming in to a broad based movement in Tamil Nadu.
2. The Madras session of the Indian National Congress in 1927 declared complete independence as its goal.
3. In the 1929 Pooma Swaraj was adopted as the goal at Lahore session of Congress.
4. In 1930 Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement by setting out on a salt satyagraha with a march to a Dandi.

Role of Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu was in the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. In city of Madras shops were picketed and foreign goods boycotted.

Salt Satyagraha: Rajaji organised and led a Salt Satyagraha to Vedaranyam. The march started from Trichirapalli to Vedaranyam on 13th April 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in Thanjavur district on 28th April.

Special Song: Composed by Ramalinganar (Nammakkal Kavingnar) for the March.

Leaders who participated: T.S.S.Rajan, C.Swaminathar, Rukmani Lakshmipathi, Sardar Vedarathnam and K.Santhanam.

Agitations: The Satyagraha’s under the leadership of T.Prakasan and K.Nageswara Rao set up a camp at Udayavanani near Madras. Police arrested them that led to Hartal in Madras. Clashes with the police in Tiruvallikeni lasted for three hours on 27th April 1930 left three dead.

Response from the people:

1. Mill workers struck work across the province.
2. Women participated enthusiastically.
3. Volunteers attempted to offer Salt Satyagraha at Rameswaram, Thoothukudi, Uvari, Anjengo, Veppalodai, and Tharuvaikulam were stopped and arrested.

Important Event: Bhashyam popularly known as Arya, hoisted the national flag atop St. George Fort on 26th January 1932. Satyamurti, actively picketed shops selling foreign clothes, organised processions and distributed pamphlets.

Martyrdom of Tirupur Kumaran: On January 1932 a procession carrying national flags singing patriotic songs were brutally beaten up by police in Tirupur. Tirupur Kumaran fell dead holding the flag a loft. Thus civil Disobedience movement was one of the mass movements in Tamil Nadu.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to write a sentence or two about the important places of freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Important Places of freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu a sentence or two about each place.

Madras:

1. Thousands lights: Third session of Indian Nation Congress was held in 1887 with Badruddin Tyabji as president 362 members participated out of 607 were from Madras.
2. Thoothukudi: Swadesh ships plied from Thoothukudi to Colombo launched ’ by the Swadeshi steam Navigation company of V.O.Chidambaranar.
3. Tirunelveli: Mill workers led a strike under Swadeshi Movement.
4. Pondicherry: Haven for the revolutionists Maniyachi junction (Tirunelveli). Collector W.D’E. Ashe was shot dead by a revolutionary youth Vanchinathan.
5. Adayar (Madras): Home Rule Movement was started by Annie Besant in 1916.
6. Marina Beach: On 18th March 1919 Gandhi addressed a meeting on Marina Beach against ‘Black Act’ (Rowlatt Act).
7. Tiruchirapalli: Salt March started from here.
8. Vedaranyam: Salt march led by Rajaji ended by breaking salt law.
9. Thirupur: Martyrdom of Kumaran holding National Flag.
10. Madurai: Temple entry programme with Harijans in Meenakshi amman temple was organised.
11. Salem: Anti Hindi agitation.
12. Coimbatore: V.O. Chidambaranar made to pull oil press in the prison.

Question 2.
Role Play: Students can be divided into groups and asked to debate the -views of the Moderates, Extremists, Revolutionaries, Annie Besant’s supporters, Justice Party, and British Government.
Answer:
Characters:

1. British Government – Police forces, and Governor
2. Revolutionaries – Arbindo Gosh, Vanchinathan Bharathi (Songs)
3. Justice party – E.V.R (Periyar)
4. Moderates – V.O.Chidambaranar, Subramaniya siva, Rajaji, Satyamurti
5. Extremist – Bipin Chandra Pal

Debate Between

1. Justice party – EVR and Rajaji on the issue of Hindi as a compulsory language at schools and temple entry incident.
2. Extremists and moderates – Prochangers and No changers.
3. British Government and Revolutionaries.

The class can be divided into three groups each to represent (3 + 3)

2 persons can be selected for each group to represent the character. Character allotment can be given by the teacher concerned and the students are requested to prepare the dialogues.

Points for Debate can be selected from the events (in Tamil Nadu as given in the lesson) Swadeshi Movement, Anti Hindi Agitation, Vedaranyam Salt March, Vaikom Satyagraha Quit India Movement, Non – Cooperation Movement.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
Madras Native Association was formed in the year:
(a) 1825
(b) 1806
(c) 1852
(d) 1860
Answer:
(c) 1852

Question 2.
In 1908 Bharathiar organized a huge public meeting to celebrate ……………
(a) Swaraj day
(b) Birthday
(c) Republic day
Answer:
(a) Swaraj day

Question 3.
One of the prominent moderate who attended the meeting in Madras before the formation of Indian National Congress:
(a) Gokhale
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Aurobindo Gosh
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Question 4.
The person who is called Kappalotiya Tamizhan ……………..
(a) V.O.C
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Gandhiji
Answer:
(a) V.O.C

Question 5.
The extremist leaders …………………. inspired many youths to join the Swadeshi movement in Madras.
(a) Aurobindo Gosh
(b) Nilakanta Brahmachari
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Mrs. Annie Besant
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 6.
Gandhi’s ‘Do or Die’ slogan came during which movement?
(a) Non-cooperation Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Khilafat Movement
Answer:
(b) Quit India Movement

Question 7.
…………………. championed the cause of ‘Criminal Tribes’ of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Yakub Hasan
(b) V.V.Somayajulu
(c) George Joseph
(d) Maulana Shaukat Ali
Answer:
(c) George Joseph

Question 8.
The Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was launched at ………..
(a) Colombo
(b) Madras
(c) Vellore
(d) Thoothukudi
Answer:
(d) Thoothukudi

Question 9.
…………………. was one of the epicenter of Khilafat agitation.
(a) Chennai
(b) Vaniyambadi
(c) Arakkonam
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Vaniyambadi

Question 10.
Who gave the slogan “A war is ahead sans sword, sans bloodshed…”?
(a) T. Prakasham
(b) Namakkal V Ramalingam
(c) N. M. R. Subbaraman
(d) K. Kamraj
Answer:
(b) Namakkal V Ramalingam

Question 11.
…………………. arrived in Madras on 18th February 1929 greeted with hartals, demonstrations etc.
(a) Torture commission
(b) Cripps mission
(c) Simon commission
(d) Prince of Wales
Answer:
(c) Simon commission

Question 12.
In the elections held in …………………. the Swarajists won the majority seats in Madras.
(a) 1924
(b) 1926
(c) 1927
(d) 1906
Answer:
(b) 1926

Question 13.
At Vedaranyam …………………. broke the salt law by picking up salt along with 12 volunteers.
(a) T. Prakasam
(b) K. Nageswara Rao
(c) K. Kamaraj
(d) C. Rajaji
Answer:
(d) C. Rajaji

Question 14.
E.V.R. left the congress and started the …………………. movement.
(a) Swadeshi
(b) Quit India
(c) Self Respect
(d) Civil Disobedience
Answer:
(c) Self Respect

Question 15.
In Tamil Nadu …………………. were led by S. Srinivasanar and S.Satyamurthi.
(a) Swarajists
(b) Satyagrahis
(c) Mill workers
(d) Zamindars
Answer:
(a) Swarajists

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. contributed much to the development of education and amelioration of the depressed classes.
2. Introduction, of ……………….. helped the educated Indian middle class to fought against colonial rule.
3. Social disability hindered the society imposed by obnoxious ………………..
4. Madras Native Association was ceased to exist by ………………..
5. The newspaper ……………….. was started in 1878 became the vehicle of nationalist propaganda.
6. Swadesamitran periodical became daily newspaper in ………………..
7. Many of the demands of Madras Mahajana sabha were adopted later by the ………………..
8. The early nationalists believed in ……………….. methods.
9. The early nationalists were came to be knowrr as ………………..
10. Out of a total of 72 delegates who attended the first session of Indian National Congress ……………….. members were from Madras.
11. ……………….. through his writings advanced the cause of Nationalism.
12. ……………….. was previously called as ‘Makkis Garden’ where the third session of Indian National congress was held.
13. ……………….. partriotic songs arouse the patriotic emotions of the people.
14. V.O.Chidambaranar launched ……………….. in pursuance of Swadeshi at Thoothukudi.
15. The Swadeshi ships plied between ………………..
16. ……………….. and ……………….. were the name of the two ships purchased by V.O.Chidambaranar.
17. V.O.C was treated harshly in prison and was made to pull the ………………..
18. To avoid imprisonment Subramanya Bharati moved to ………………..
19. Revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were trained in revolutionary activities at ………………..
20. Revolutionary radical papers and Bharati’s poems were banned as ………………..
21. Revolutionary activities continued till the out break of ………………..
22. The revolutionary activities were intensified with arrival ……………….. and ……………….. in 1910.
23. ……………….. of senkottai was influenced by the Bharata Matha society.
24. ……………….. failed to inspire and mobilize the people despite their patriotism.
25. The objective of the Bharata Matha Society was to kindle the ……………….. fewer among the people by killing British officials.
26. At ……………….. the collector of Tirunelveli Robert W.D’E. Ashe was shot dead.
27. Mrs. Annie Besant started the newspapers ……………….. and ……………….. to carry forward her agenda of Home rule movement.
28. Under ……………….. Annie Besant was asked to pay hefty amount as security.
29. ……………….. was elected as the president of the congress session of 1917.
30. The differences between the two Non-Brahmin leaders ……………….. and ……………….. was solved by CNatesanar.
31. The ……………….. demanded communal representation.
32. The ……………….. provided reservation of seats to Non-Brahmins.
33. After the 1923 elections ……………….. of the Justice party formed the ministry.
34. The staff selection Board established by the Justice party later became the ………………..
35. The Rowlat Act was named after ……………….. who headed the committee.
36. On 18 march 1919 ……………….. addressed a meeting on marina beach to protest against Rowlet Act.
37. To further the cause of national education a gurukulam was started at ………………..
38. When Rajaji formed the ministry in 1937 the status of James Neill finally moved to ………………..
39. For the salt march to Vedaranyam led by C.Rajaji a special song was composed by ………………..
40. ……………….. was the forst woman to pay penalty for violation of salt laws.
41. ……………….. fell dead holding the national flag in a procession organised under Civil Disobedience Movement.
42. Tirupur Kumaran was hailed as ………………..
43. The ……………….. was trounced in 1937 elections to the Madras province.
44. ……………….. Act was passed in 1939 for the removal of the civil and social disabilities against the ‘depressed classes’.
45. The Governor of Madras who took over the administration removed ……………….. as compulsory subject after the resignation of the congress ministry.

Answers:

1. Christian Missionaries
2. Western Education
3. Caste, system
4. 1862
5. The Hindu
6. 1899
7. Indian National Congress
8. Constitutional
9. Moderates
10. 22
11. G. Subramaniam
12. Thousand lights
13. Subramanya Bharati
14. Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
15. Thoothukudi and Colombo
16. Gallia, Lavo
17. heavy oil press
18. Pondicherry
19. India House in London and in Paris
20. Seditious Literature
21. First World War
22. Aurobindo Ghosh, V.V.Subramanianar
23. Vanchinathan
24. Young revolutionaries
25. Patriotic
26. Maniyachi junction
27. India and Commonweal
28. Press Act of 1910
29. Annie Besant
30. Dr. T.M.Nair, and P.Thyagarayar
31. Justice party
32. Act of 1919
33. Raja of Panagal
34. Public Service Commission
35. Sir Sydney Rowlatt
36. Gandhi
37. Cheranmadevi
38. Madras Museum
39. Namakkal V. Ramalinganar
40. Rukmani Lakshmipathi
41. Tirupur Kumaran
42. Kodikatha Kumaran
43. Justice party
44. The Temple Entry Authorisation and Indemnity
45. Hindi

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Madras Native Association, Madras Mahajan Sabha and the Nationalist press led to the growth of Nationalism in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Madras Native Association primarily consisted merchants.
(iii) Madras Native Association focussed on reduction in taxation.
(iv) It led to the formation of congress.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The educated middle class did not show interest in public affairs.
(ii) The appointment of first Indian Judge to the Madras High court was Criticized by the press.
(iii) The moderates exposed the liberal claims of the British.
(iv) Boycott of foreign goods was not propagated by the congress.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) In 1908 V.O.C led a strike in the European owned Coral Mills.
(ii) V.O.C was given a draconian sentence of two life imprisonments.
(iii) Students and youths did not participated in the Swadeshi Movement.
(iv) Extremists and revolutionaries were not suppressed by the British with . an iron hand.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): When the National movement was in ebb, Annie Besant proposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): Home Rule Demanded a nominal allegience to British crown.
(a) A is correct but R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Kamaraj gave the police the slip and got down at Arakkonam worked underground to organise people during quit India movement.
Reason (R): While returning from Bombay he saw the police at every railway station to arrest the local leaders when they got down.
(a) Both A and R are correct R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct R explains A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): V.O.C and Subramania Siva were charged with sedition and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment.
Reason (R): Both the leaders organised a public meeting to celebrate the release of Bipin Chandrapal.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A
(d) Both A and R are correct R does not explains A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Kumaraswamy of Thiruppur is hailed as Kodikatha Kumaran.
Reason (R): At the procession of agitation as a part of civil obedience he fell dead holding the national flag aloft.
(a) A ands R are correct R is not explaining A
(b) A and R are wrong
(c) A is wrong R is correct
(d) Both A and R correct R explains A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R correct R explains A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (iii)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the question briefly

Question 1.
What do you know about Tirupur Kumaram?
Answer:

• Tirupur Kumaran was bom in Chennimalai, Erode district in Tamil Nadu.
• He was a great revolutionary.
• He participated in the march against the ban on the national flag and he died from injuries sustained from a police assault.
• Kumaran died holding the flag of the Indian Nationalists.
• Kumaran is revered as a martyr in Tamil Nadu and is known by the epithet Kodi Kaththa Kumaran.

Question 2.
Name the Newspapers and journals started by Indians to express the Indian perspective.
Answer:
To express the perspective of the Indians “The Hindu, Swadesamitran, Indian patriot, South Indian mail, Madras standard, vijaya’ India, Suryodayam, Desabhimani” were some of the newspapers started and they became the vehicle of nationalist propaganda.

Question 3.
Give an account on Vanchinathan’s role in the struggle for freedom.
Answer:

1. Vanchinathan was under the service of the state of Travancore.
2. The activities of the extremists greatly alarmed the British.
3. The collector Ashe, shot down and killed four extremists in Tirunelveli.
4. So Vanchinathan wanted to take revenge against the collector.
5. He secretly went to Maniyachi Railway Station and shot dead Ashe on 17th June 1911 and he himself committed suicide.

Question 4.
Name of the books written by Annie Besant.
Answer:
Annie Besant wrote two books namely.

1. How India wrought for freedom and
2. “India” – A nation and a pamphlet on self-Govemment.

Question 5.
Give an account on V.O.C role in the stuggle for freedom.
Answer:

• In 1907 V.O.C attended the congress sessions held at Surat.
• He followed the militant leader Bala Gangadhar Tilak and preached his philosophy.
• He charged with sedition he was sentenced to forty years of imprisonment.

Question 6.
Write a short note on south Indian Liberal Federation (SILF).
Answer:
The Non-Brahmins organised themselves into political organisation to protect their interests. On 20th November a meeting of about thirty Non -Brahmins was held under the leadership of Dr.T.M.Nair P.Thiyagarayar and C.Natesanar at victoria public hall chennai.. The South Indian Liberal Federation (SILF) was founded to promote the interests of Non-Brahmins. It later came to be known as ‘Justice Party’.

Question 7.
How was the freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu unique?
Answer:
The freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu was unique because from the beginning it was not only ‘ a struggle for independence from the English rule but also a struggle for independence from the social disability imposed by the obnoxious caste system.

Question 8.
When and where the meeting Rowlatt Sathyagraha held? Who addressed it?
Answer:
On 18th March 1919 a meeting was held on Marina Beach and Gandhi addressed the meeting. Later madras Satyagraha sabha was formed.

Question 9.
Throw light on the beginning of the nationalist press in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
When it was realised that press was essential to express the Indian perspective, people like G. Subramaniam, M. Veeraraghavachari and four other friends together started a newspaper The Hindu in 1878. Soon it became the vehicle of nationalist propaganda. G Subramaniam also started a Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran in 1891 which became a daily in 1899. The founding of The Hindu and Swadesamitran provided encouragement to the starting of other native newspapers such as Indian Patriot, South Indian Mail, Madras Standard, Desabhimani, Vijaya, Suryodayam, and India.

Question 10.
Describe briefly the Non-cooperation Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu was very active during the Non-cooperation Movement under the leadership of C Rajagopalachari and E V Ramaswamy. Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan, the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League. As a result, the Hindus and Muslims cooperated closely during the movement in Tamil Nadu. A Congress volunteer corps of about 1000 members was set up to distribute pamphlets, carry flags during processions and to maintain order in the meetings.

VI. Answer all the questions Given under each caption

Question 1.
Salt march to vedaranyam

(a) What was in forefront of the civil disobedience movement in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Demonstrations, hartals, staging of Swadeshi dramas and songs were the order of the day both in rural and urban areas of Tamil Nadu.

(b) How was the movement in Madras city?
Answer:
In the city of Madras as a part of civil Disobedience movement shops were picketed and foreign goods were.boycotted.

(c) Who organised and led the Salt Satyagraha March to Vedaranyam?
Answer:
Rajaji organised and led the Salt Satyagraha March ro Vedaranyam.

(d) From where and when does the march started and reached Vedaranyam?
Answer:
The march started from Trichirapalli on 13th April 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in (Tanjore district) on 28th April.

Question 2.
Swarajists-Justicites Rivalry
(a) Who were ‘no-changers’? Who were ‘pro-changers’?
Answer:
‘No-changers’ wanted to continue the boycott of the councils and ‘pro-changers’ wanted to ’ contest the elections for the councils.

(b) What did Rajaji oppose? Name two persons who supported him.
Answer:
Rajaji opposed the council entry. The two persons who supported him were Kasturi Ranga Iyengar and M. A. Ansari.

(c) Who formed Swaraj Party?
Answer:
Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru together formed the Swaraj Party.

(d) Who led the Swarajists in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
S. Srinivasa Iyengar and S. Satyamurthi led the Swarajists in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Non-cooperation Movement in Tamil nadu

(a) Name the leaders provided leadership during non-cooperation movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
E.V.Ramaswamy (Periyar) and C.Rajaji provided the leadership for non – cooperation movement.

(b) Who was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Yakub Hasan was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.

(c) What was set up as a part of Non-cooperation movement?
Answer:
A Congress volunteer corps was set up a part of Non – cooperation movement.

(d) How did these volunteers assist?
Answer:
The volunteers corps distributed pamphelts, carry flags during processions and to maintain order in the meetings and also in picketing of liquor shops.

Question 4.
No tax – Campaigns and Temperance Movement

(a) Where did the No-tax campaigns take place?
Answer:
A no-tax campaign took place in Thanjavur.

(b) How did the people show their protest?
Answer:
Councils, schools and courts and foreign goods were boycotted and a number of workers’ strikes took place all over.

(c) What was one of the important aspects of the movement in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
One of the important aspects of the movement in Tamil Nadu was the ‘Temperance Movement or Movement against liquor’.

(d) What was the Act for which the communities agitated?
Answer:
The communities agitated against the criminal Tribes Act.

VII. Answer In detail

Question 1.
Explain the contribution of Madras Mahajana Sabha.
Answer:
Madras Mahajana Sabha:

1. It was established by M. Veeraraghavachari, P. Anandacharlu, P. Rangaiah.
2. P. Rangaiah Naidu was elected the first president of the Sabha.

The contributions of Madras Mahajana Sabha:

1. The Madras Mahajana Sabha has contributed a lot for our national freedom.
2. The Sabha voiced out the fundamental right of our country men.
3. It had developed very close relationship with the Indian National Congress since 1920.
4. In 1930, the Sabha organised the Salt Sathyagraha Movement in Madras George Town. Esplanade the high court and beach areas. The members were attacked savagely by the British police.
5. When the British government banned the congress party. Madras Mahajana Sabha conducted numerous exhibition and Swadesh exhibition.
6. These exhibition instigated patriotic feelings in the hearts of our country men.

Question 2.
What were the scenario of Tamil Nadu during the Quit India movement?
Answer:

1. On 8^th August 1942 Quit India Resolution was passed and Gandhi gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’.
2. It was an undying mass movement.
3. K. Kamaraj worked underground and organised people during the quit India movement.
4. The movement was wide spread in Tamil Nadu.
5. All section of society participated in this movement.
6. There were large number of workers strike such as strikes in Bukingham and camatic Mills, Madras Port Trust, Madras, Corporation and Madras Tramway.
7. Telegraph and Telephone lines were cut and public buildings were burnt at Vellore and Panapakkam.
8. The airport in Sulur was attacked and trains derailed in Coimbatore.
9. Congress volunteers clashed with the military in Madurai.
10. There were police firings at Rajapalayam Karaikudi and Devakottai.
11. Many young men and women also joined Indian National Army.
12. Students of various colleges took active part in the protests.
13. The Quit India Movement was suppressed by the British with brutal force.

Question 3.
Under what circumstances did E. V. R. leave the Congress?
Or
What was Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy? How did it lead E. V. R. to leave the Congress?
Answer:
(i) E. V. Ramaswamy, popularly known as E. V. R. played an active role in Tamil Nadu
during the freedom struggle of India. But he was not satisfied with the Congress because he felt that it was promoting the interests of the Brahmins alone.

(ii) To further the cause of national education, a Gurukulam was established in Cheranmadevi by V. V. S. Iyer. It received funds from the Congress. However, students were discriminated on the basis of caste.

(iii) Brahmin and non-Brahmin students were made to dine separately and the food served too was different. The issue was brought to the notice of E. V. R. in 1925 who questioned the practice and severely criticized it along with another leader, Dr. P. Varadarajulu.

(iv) In Kanchipuram Conference of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee held on 21 November 1925, he raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in the legislature. But his efforts to achieve this since 1920 had met with failure.

(v) When the resolution was defeated, E. V. R. left the Conference along with other non-Brahmin leaders who met separately. Soon he left the Congress and started the Self-respect Movement. Thus, the Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy and opposition to communal rengress led E. V. R. leave the Congress.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
How many times security can be sold in a secondary market?
(a) Only one time
(b) Two times
(c) Three times
(d) Multiple times
Answer:
(d) Multiple times

Question 2.
Debt Instruments are issued by Corporate Houses are raising short-term financial resources
from the money market are called ………………
(a) Treasury Bills
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Government Securities
Answer:
(b) Commercial Paper

Question 3.
The market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills of Exchange is known as a ……………
(a) Commercial Paper Market
(b) Treasury Bill Market
(c) Commercial Bill Market
(d) Capital Market
Answer:
(c) Commercial Bill Market

Question 4.
A bull operator believes in …………….
(a) Increase in Prices
(b) Decrease in Prices
(c) Stability in Prices
(d) No change in Prices
Answer:
(a) Increase in Prices

Question 5
means the price at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and made public…………….
(a) Market Quotations
(b) Trade Quotations
(c) Business Quotations
(d) Buyers Quotations
Answer:
(a) Market Quotations

Question 6.
Trading is dematerialized shares commenced on the NSE is ……………….
(a) January 1996
(b) June 1998
(c) December 1996
(d) December 1998.
Answer:
(c) December 1996

Question 7.
Transfer is an source of recruitment……………
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Outsourcing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Internal

Question 8.
Which of the following orders is followed in a typical selection process.
(а) Application form test and or interview, reference check and physical examination
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination
(c) Reference check, application form, test and interview and physical examination
(d) Physical examination test and interview application term and reference check
Answer:
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination

Question 9
…………….. is useful to prevent skill obsolescence of employees.
(a) Training
(b) Job Analysis
(c) Selection
(d) Recruitment
Answer:
(a) Training

Question 10.
Which one is the example of Intangible product?
(a) Education
(b) Mobiles
(c) Garments
(d) Vehicles
Answer:
(a) Education

Question 11.
A company’s products and prices is visually represented by ……………
(a) Shopping Cart
(b) Web portal
(c) Electronic catalogue
(d) Revenue model
Answer:
(c) Electronic catalogue

Question 12.
………….. of every year is declared as a consumer protection Day to educate the public about their rights and responsibilities.
(a) August 15
(b) April 15
(c) March 15
(d) September 15
Answer:
(c) March 15

Question 13.
It is the responsibility of a consumer that he must obtain ……………. as a proof for the purchase of goods.
(a) Cash receipt
(b) Warranty card
(c) Invoice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Invoice

Question 14.
The District Forum can entertain complaints where the value of goods or services and the compensation if any claimed is less than …………….
(a) Below ₹ 10,00,000
(b) Below ₹ 20,00,000
(c) Below ₹ 40,00,000
(d) Below ₹ 50,00,000
Answer:
(b) Below ₹ 20,00,000

Question 15.
……………. is a stipulation which is collateral to main purpose of contract.
(a) Warranty
(b) Condition
(c) Right
(d) Agreement
Answer:
(a) Warranty

Question 16.
When crossing restrict further negotiation ……………
(a) Not negotiable crossing
(b) General Crossing
(c) A/c payee crossing
(d) Special crossing
Answer:
(a) Not negotiable crossing

Question 17.
Which of the below is a commercial function?
(a) Accounting
(b) Coordination
(c) Discovery of idea
(d) Planning
Answer:
(a) Accounting

Question 18.
Poultry, Flowers, Fruits etc are called allied products of entrepreneur.
(a) Corporate
(b) Retail
(c) Trading
(d) Agricultural
Answer:
(d) Agricultural

Question 19.
…………… has to include the mechanism for managing venture in the project report.
(a) Banker
(b) Government
(c) Lending Institutions
(d) Entrepreneur
Answer:
(d) Entrepreneur

Question 20.
Specify the type of resolution to be passed to choose the location of Registered Office of the company within the town or village or city.
(a) Ordinary
(b) Special
(c) Either Ordinary or Special
(d) Board
Answer:
(d) Board

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
How do you co-ordinate your class room with peace?
Answer:
All the activities are divided groupwise or sectionwise under organising function. Now, such grouped activities are co-ordinated towards the accomplishment of objectives of a classroom. With the function of co-ordination the classroom must be peaceful and calm.

Question 22.
What are the instruments of Money Market?
Answer:

• Treasury Bills in the Treasury Market
• Money at Call and Short Notice in the Call Loan Market
• Commercial Bills and Promissory Notes in the Bill Market

Now in addition to the above, the following new instruments come into existence:

• Commercial Papers
• Certificate of Deposits
• Inter-Bank participation Certificates
• Repo Instruments

Question 23.
What are the types of Speculators?
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types. They are named on the basis of animals behaviour. They are

• Bull
• Bear
• Stag
• Lame duck

Question 24.
Mention the headquarters of SEBI.
Answer:
SEBI has its headquarters at the business district of BandraKurla Complex in Mumbai, and has Northern, Eastern, Southern and Western Regional Offices in New Delhi,. Kolkata, Chennai and Ahmedabad, respectively.

Question 25.
What is Role Play?
Answer:
Under this method trainees are explained the situation and assigned roles. They have to act out the roles assigned to them without any rehearsal.

Question 26.
What is meant by Regulated Market?
Answer:
Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables etc., are called as very short period market.

Question 27.
What is Social Marketing?
Answer:
Social marketing is a new marketing tool. It is the systematic application of marketing philosophy and techniques to achieve specific behavioural goals which ensure social good. For example- not to smoke in public areas.

Question 28.
What is mixed Economy?
Answer:
Mixed economy is a combination of both state owned and private sector ownership.

Question 29.
What is a Contingent Goods?
Answer:
Contingent goods are the goods, the acquisition of which by the seller depends upon a . contingency (an event which may or may not happen). Contingent goods are a part of future goods.

Question 30.
Define Intrapreneur.
Answer:
Intrapreneur is one who thinks and acts like an entrepreneur for the firm’s development during the course of employment in an organisation.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
State the importance of Motivation.
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader. The workers expect, favourable climate conditions to work, fair treatment, monetary or non-monetary incentive, effective communication and gentleman approach.

Question 32.
Write a note on National Clearance and Depository System (NCDS).
Answer:
Under the scripless trading system, settlement of transactions relating to securities takes place through a book entry. The entire scripless trading system comprises the following three segments:

• National Trade Comparison and Reporting System which prescribes the terms and conditions of contract for the securities market.
• National Clearing System which aims at determining the net cash and stock liability of each broker on a settlement date.
• National Depository System which arranges to provide for the transfer of ownership of securities in exchange on payment by book entry on electronic ledgers without any physical movement of transfer deed.

Question 33.
What is the power of SEBI under securities Contract Act?
Answer:

• For effective regulation of stock exchange, the Ministry of Finance issued a Notification on 13 September, 1994 delegating several of its powers under the Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act to SEBI.
• SEBI is also empowered by the Finance Ministry to nominate three members on the Governing Body of every stock exchange.

Question 34.
What are the features of internal source of recruitment?
Answer:
The main features of internal source of recruitment are:

• Quick process.
• Cheaper than the external recruitment process.
• Works as a tool of motivation for the staff.
• The company’s choice is limited to existing employees of the company.

Question 35.
Why Customer support is needed to Market?
Answer:
Customer or the consumer is the king and is considered to be a guest to your shop. Without the customer there is no business. To develop the market the number of customer is to be increased. So customer support is necessary to increase the sales and gain more profit.

Question 36.
What is the role of Government in Consumer Protection?
Answer:
Since most of consumers including academically educated are illiterate about their rights and hence passive. Government should assure an active role in safeguarding the consumers. Government both the central and the state have brought out a number of legislations to protect the interest of consumers across the country. Law enforcement authorities should see that penal clause is not mere paper jaws-they should sting the offenders mercilessly.

Question 37.
What are the functions of the GST Council?
Answer:
The functions of GST Council:

• The GST council can recommend to the Central and State Government on issues relating to GST.
• The Goods and Services that may be subjected to or exempted from the Goods and Services Tax.
• Model GST laws, principles of levy are framed by the GST council.
• The rates including floor rates with bands of Goods and Services Tax.

Question 38.
Discuss the two different types of Crossing.
Answer:
(i) General Crossing
(ii) Special Crossing

• General Crossing: “Where a cheque bears across its face an addition of the words “ an company” or any abbreviation there of, between to parallel transverse lines or of two parallel transverse line simply either with or without the words “Not negotiable” that addition shall be deemed a crossing and the cheque shall be deemed to be crossed generally”.
• Special Crossing: “ Where a cheque bears across its face an addition of the name of a banker with or without the words “Not Negotiable”, that addition shall be deemed a crossing and the cheque shall be deemed to be crossed specially and to be crossed to that banker”.

Question 39.
How does a professional entrepreneur operate?
Answer:
Professional entrepreneur is one who is having a rich expertise in starting a venture but lack interest in continuing the venture as a manager or as a owner. He/she simply sells out the venture started by him to someone else after its successful take-off.

Question 40.
What resolution is requires special notice?
Answer:
There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting. The intention to propose any resolution must be notified to the company. The following matters require special notice before they are discussed in the meeting:-

• To appoint an auditor, a person other than a retiring auditor
• To provide expressly that a retiring Auditor shall not be reappointed
• To remove a director before the expiry of his period of office
• To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the various types of Financial markets?
Answer:
Financial assets can be classified differently under different circumstances. One such classification is:
(i) Marketable assets
(ii) Non-marketable assets
(i) Marketable Assets: Marketable assets are those which can be easily transferred from one person to another without much hindrance. Example: Shares of Listed Companies, Government Securities, Bonds of Public Sector Undertakings etc.

(ii) Non-Marketable Assets: On the other hand, if the assets cannot be transferred easily, they come under this category. Example: Bank Deposits, Provident Funds, Pension Funds, National Savings Certificates, Insurance Policies etc.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the importance of Recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of having the right person, in the right place, at the right time. It is crucial to organisational performance. Recruitment is the first step in an organisation’s Human Resource Planning. It fulfills the organisation’s need of a set of competitive, motivated and flexible employees who work towards achieving the organisation’s objectives.

Competent Human Resources at the right positions are crucial for the organisation and constitute core competency. Recruitment helps in creating a pool of prospective employees for the organisation, so that the right candidates for the right jobs can be selected from this pool. It establishes a link between the job seekers and employers.

Proper recruitment enables the organisation to appoint talented persons for various activities, thereby leading to improved productivity and profitability of the organisation. Unless a company adopts a suitable recruitment policy, it may not be possible for a company to have right candidates for right job.

Question 42.
(a) State the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

• Goods produced may be stored till the time of demand. Hence the goods are stored in warehouses.
• Also the goods are stored till the goods have good quality.
• Warehouses create time utility by storing the goods throughout the year and release them as and when they are needed.

Several types of warehouses are used for storing of goods. They are as follows:

• Public warehouse
• Private warehouse
• Bonded warehouse.

[OR]

(b) What are the objectives of United Nations guidelines for consumer protection?
Answer:
The General Assembly of the United Nations passed a Resolution on April 9, 1985 adopting a set of guidelines for consumer protection to persuade the member countries.
Objectives of United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection:

• To assist countries in achieving or maintaining protection to consumers.
• To facilitate production and distribution patterns responsive to the needs and desires of consumers.
• To encourage high levels of ethical conduct for production and distribution of goods and services to consumers.
• To facilitate the developing of independent consumer groups.
• To encourage the development of market conditions which provide consumers with greater choice at lower prices.

Question 43.
(a) How to create Consumer awareness?
Answer:
The first priority of a consumer organisation is to increase consumer awareness towards their rights. The following are the points for awareness:

• To publish brochures, journals and monographs.
• To arrange conferences, seminars and workshops.
• To educate consumers to help themselves.
• To provide special education to women about consumerism.

(b) Explain in detail the various functions of an entrepreneur?
Answer:
The functions of an entrepreneur is divided into
(a) Promotional functions
(b) Managerial functions and
(c) Commercial functions.

(a) Promotional functions
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(b) Managerial functions

Planning: In this function, the entrepreneur has to lay down the objectives, goals, vision, mission, policies, procedures, programmes, budget, schedules etc., for enabling the venture to proceed towards established destinations.

Directing: In this function, the entrepreneur has to motivate, lead, guide and communicate with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.

(c) Commercial functions

Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development.

Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business.

Question 44.
(a) What is the maximum limit for the Managerial remuneration?
Answer:
Managerial Remuneration: The Managerial remuneration is payable to a person’s appointed u/s 196 of the Act. The Term remuneration means any money or its equivalent given for their services.

Adequate profits: A Public Company can pay remuneration to its directors including Managing Director and Whole-time Directors, and its managers which shall not exceed 11% of the net profit. Maximum Remuneration Payable by a Company to its Managerial Personnel – No adequate Profits:

Remuneration Payable by a company in case where there is no profit or inadequacy of profit and remuneration payable is detailed below:

	Where Effective Capital is	Limit of yearly Remuneration payable shall not exceed (Rupees)
(i)	less than ₹ 5 Crore	₹ 30 lakh
(ii)	Above ₹ 5 Crore and less than ₹ 100 Crore	₹ 42 lakh
(iii)	₹ 5 Crore and above but less than ₹ 100 Crore	₹ 60 lakh
(iv)	₹ 250 Crore and above	₹ 60 lakh plus 9.91% of the effective capital in excess of ₹ 250 Crore

[OR]

(b) Explain different types of open and secret types of voting.
Answer:
The word ‘Vote’ originated from Latin word ‘Votum’ indicating one’s wishes or desire. He can vote formally by expressing his opinion or wish in favour or against a proposal.
Types of Voting: There are two methods of voting viz, open and secret procedures.
(i) Open Voting: This type of voting has no secrecy as all the members assembled can see voting. There are two types of open voting namely voice voting and voting by show of hands.

• By Voice: Voice voting is a popular type of voting in which the chairman allows the members to raise their voice in favour or against an issue ‘Yes’ for approval and ‘No’ for rejection.
• By Show of Hands: Under this method, the chairman requests the members to raise
  their hands for the proposal.

(ii) Secret Procedure: Secret procedure is adopted to decide certain vital issues. It may be of two types:

• By Ballot: Under this system, ballot paper bearing serial number is given to the members to record their opinion by marking with the symbol.
• Postal Ballot: Big companies or big associations having members scattered all over the country follow this method of voting. Under this method, the members or voters fill in the ballot papers sent by the company and return them in sealed covers.

Question 45.
(a) Distinguish between the rural and Urban entrepreneur?
Answer:

S. No.	Rural Entrepreneur	Urban Entrepreneur
1.	It refers to the person who starts business in rural areas.	It refers to the person who commences business in urban areas.
2.	These entrepreneurs start doing business in the villages and small towns.	They will do their business in state capital, towns, district headquarters, municipalities, etc.
3.	They may be agricultural and trading entrepreneurs.	They may be industrial or corporate entrepreneur.
4.	The availability of material and labour is easy. So the cost of operation tends to be low.	The availability of material and labour may be difficult. So the cost of operation may be high.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of modern management.
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr.Henry Fayol, and according to him there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organisation.

(i) Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks. This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.

(ii) Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.

(iii) Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc.
It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organizations.

(iv) Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.

(v) Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.

(vi) Subordination of Individual Interest to Mutual Interest: The management must put aside personal considerations and put company objectives firstly.

(vii) Remuneration: Workers must be paid sufficiently as this is a chief motivation of employees and therefore greatly influences productivity.

(viii) The Degree of Centralization: The amount of power wielded with the central management depends on company size.

(ix) Line of Authority/Scalar Chain: This refers to the chain of superiors ranging from top management to the lowest rank.

(x) Order: Social order ensures the fluid operation of a company through authoritative procedure.

(xi) Equity: Employees must be treated kindly, and justice must be enacted to ensure a just
workplace.

(xii) Stability of Tenure of Personnel: Stability of tenure of personnel is a principle stating that in order for an organisation to run smoothly, personnel (especially managerial personnel) must not frequently enter and exit the organisation.

(xiii) Initiative: Using the initiative of employees can add strength and new ideas to an organisation.

(xiv) Esprit de Corps/Team Spirit: This refers to the need of managers to ensure and develop morale in the workplace; individually and communally.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the characteristics of Money Market?
Answer:
(i) Short-term Funds: It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.
(ii) Maturity Period: It deals with financial assets having a maturity period upto one year only.
(iii) Conversion of Cash: It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost.
(iv) No Formal Place: Generally, transactions take place through phone, i.e., oral communication. Relevant documents and written communications can be exchanged subsequently.
(v) Sub-markets: It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises of several sub-markets ‘ each specialising in a particular type of financing.
(vi) Role of Market: The components of a money market are the Central Bank, Commercial Banks. Commercial banks generally play a dominant role in this market.
(vii) Highly Organized Banking System: The Commercial Banks are the nerve centre of the whole money market. They are the principal suppliers of short-term funds.

(viii) Existence of Secondary Market: There should be an active secondary market for these instruments. (be) Demand and Supply of Funds: There should be a large demand and supply of short-term funds.
(ix) Wholesale Market: It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the market is very large.
(xi) Flexibility: Due to greater flexibility in the regulatory framework, there are constant endeavours for introducing new instruments.
(xii) Presence of a Central Bank: The central bank keeps their cash reserves and provides them financial accommodation in difficulties by discounting their eligible securities.

[OR]

(b) What are the difference between on the job training and off the job training?
Answer:

	Basis for comparison	On the Job Training	Off the Job Training
1.	Meaning	The employee learns the job in the actual work environment.	The training of employees is done outside the actual work place.
2.	Cost	It is cheapest to carry out.	It is costly due to the expenses like separate training room, specialist, etc.
3.	Suitable for	Suitable for manufacturing related jobs.	It is suitable for managerial jobs.
4.	Approach	Practical approach	Theoretical approach
5.	Carried out	Provided by the experienced employee	Provided by the experts
6.	Methods	Coaching, mentoring, apprenticeship, job rotation	Seminar, lectures, vestibule, field trip, e-leaming

Question 47.
(a) How the market can be classified? On the basis of different approaches markets can be classified as follows:
Answer:
On the basis of Geographical Area:

• Family Market
• Local Market
• National Market
• International Market or World Market

On the Basis of Commodities / Goods:
(a) Commodity Market:

• Produce Exchange Market
• Manufactured Goods Market
• Bullion Market

(b) Capital Market:

• Money Market
• Foreign Exchange Market
• The Stock Market

On the Basis of Economics:

• Perfect Market
• Imperfect Market

On the Basis of Transaction:

• Spot Market
• Future market

On the Basis of Regulation:

• Regulated Market
• Unregulated Market

On the Basis of Time:

• Very Short Period Market
• Short Period Market
• Long Period Market

On the Basis of Volume of Business:

• Wholesale Market
• Retail Market

On the Basis of Importance:

• Primary Market
• Secondary Market
• Terminal Market

[OR]

(b) Explain the role of consumers in consumer protection.
Answer:
Consumers have to be vigilant and organise themselves into a movement for concerned action.
Activation of Consumer Action Councils:

• Consumer action councils established at village levels should educate consumers.
• Consumer protection agencies should take necessary steps to investigate consumer complaints and grievances.
• Voluntary consumer groups should provide information so as to educate consumers.
• Consumer cooperatives need to be strengthened.
• Consumer groups should contact the legislators to raise the consumer issue in Assembly and Parliament.
• There should be testing laboratories at each district to test the purity of goods.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 5 Acoustics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acoustics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction.
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion.
(d) do not vibrate.
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms^-1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is _____.
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 660 ms^-1
(c) 156 ms^-1
(d) 990 ms^-1.
Answer:
(a) 330 ms^-1
Hint: Pressure has no effect on the velocity of sound in the gas. So velocity of sound remains unchanged.

Question 3.
The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is:
(a) 50 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 15000 kHz
(d) 10000 kHz
Answer:
(b) 20 kHz

Question 4.
The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 ms^-1. What will be its value when the temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 165 ms^-1
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
(d) 320/√2 ms^-1.
Answer:
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
Hint: As there is no effect of change in pressure on the velocity of sound in air, and v ∝ √T therefore, when the temperature is doubled, so the velocity becomes 330√2 m/s.

Question 5.
If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 10⁴ Hz at 344 ms^-1, the wavelength will be:
(a) 27.52 m
(b) 275.2 m
(c) 0.02752 m
(d) 2.752 m
Answer:
(c) 0.02752 m

Question 6.
The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were incident. Which of the following changes?
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 7.
The velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms^-1. The minimum distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle to hearing the echo should be ______.
(a) 17 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 50 m.
Answer:
(c) 25 m
Hint: The minimum distance of the source of the sound and hear the echo,
\(d=\frac{v t}{2}\)
t = 0.1 s, \(d=\frac{500 \times 0.1}{2}\) = 25 m.

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called …………
2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the medium would be vibrating in …………
3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 ms^-1. The frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 ms^-1) ………..
4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer is …………

Answer:

1. Wave
2. South to north
3. 500 Hz
4. 2067-3 Hz

III. True or false: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum.
2. Waves created by Earthquake are Infrasonic.
3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature.
4. The Velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids.

Answer:

1. False – Sound cannot travel through vacuum.
2. True
3. False – The velocity of sound depends on temperature.
4. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions.

Question 1.
Assertion : The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason : The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the square of the pressure.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 2.
Assertion : Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
Reason : Solid posses a greater density than that of gases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer very briefly:

Question 1.
What is a longitudinal wave?
Answer:
In longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of the wave.

Question 2.
What is the audible range of frequency?
Answer:
Audible waves: These are sound waves with a frequency ranging between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz.

Question 3.
What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
Answer:
The minimum distance needed for an echo is 17.2 metre.

Question 4.
What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength when it travels with a speed of 331 ms^-1?
Answer:
Frequency of sound = \(\frac{\text { velocity of sound }}{\text { wavelength of sound }}\)
\(n=\frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{331}{0.20}\)
n = 1655 Hz.

Question 5.
Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
The animals are dogs, bats and dolphins.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. Hence, sound travels faster on a rainy day than a dry day.

Question 2.
Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
Answer:
The intensity of sound is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibration. I ∝ A² since, the amplitude of vibration of air molecules (empty vessel) is greater than liquid molecules (filled vessel), therefore empty vessel produces a louder sound than the filled vessel.

Question 3.
Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (V_o = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
Velocity of sound at 0°C is V_o = 331 ms^-1
Let the sound at 46°C is be v_t
\(\frac{v_t}{v_o}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{273+T}{273}}\)
where temperature is T = 46°C

= 1.080
v_t = 331 × 1.080 = 357.48 m/s.
∴ Velocity of sound in air at that temperature = 357.48 m/s.

Question 4.
Explain why the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
Answer:

1. These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface.
2. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

Question 5.
Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
Answer:

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.

VIII. Problem Corner:

Question 1.
A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a speed of 400 ms-1 in a medium. Find the wavelength of the sound wave.
Answer:
Speed of sound wave v = 400 m/s
Frequency of sound wave n = 200 Hz
∴ Wavelength sound wave λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\)
= \(\frac{400}{200}\) = 2 m
∴ Wavelength = 2 m

Question 2.
The thunder of the cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 ms^-1, what will be the height of the cloud?
Solution:
The height of the cloud (distance) = speed of sound × time
d = v × t = 330 × 9.8 = 3234 m
The height of the cloud is 3234 m.

Question 3.
A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m from a source of sound is listening to a sound of 600 Hz. Find the time period between successive compressions from the source?
Answer:
Distance of the observer = 400 m
Frequency of sound n = 600 Hz
Let velocity of sound be v = 330 \(\frac{m}{s}\)
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\) = \(\frac{330}{600}\)
= 55 × 10^-2 = 0.55 m
Distance between two successive compressions is \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
Time period successive compressions is = \(\frac{1}{\frac{λ}{2}}\)
= \(\frac{2}{λ}\) = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\)
T = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\) = 3.6363 second
Time period = 3.6363 second.

Question 4.
An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the transmission and reception of the wave is 1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 ms^-1?
Answer:
Time interval t = 1.6 s
Velocity of sound in water = 1400 m/s.
Depth of the sea = \(\frac{v×t}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1400×1.6}{2}\)
= 1120 m
Depth of the sea = 1120 m

Question 5.
A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 second respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Answer:
Distance between two walls λ = 680 m.
Time periods T₁ = 0.9 s
T₂ = 1.1 s
∴ Frequencies n₁ = \(\frac{1}{T_1}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.9}\) = \(\frac{10}{9}\)
= 1.11 Hz
n₂ = \(\frac{1}{T_2}\)
= \(\frac{1}{1.1}\) = \(\frac{10}{11}\)
= 0.9090 Hz.
Difference x₁ – x₂ = 1.11 – 0.9090
= 0.201 Hz
Speed of sound = (n₁ – n₂)λ
= 0.201 × 680 = 136.68

Question 6.
Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, underwater, reaches the other after 3 seconds. What is the speed of sound in the water?
Solution:
Distance between the two boats, d = 4.5 km
d = 4500 m
Time, t = 3 seconds
Speed of sound in the water = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Time taken }}\) = \(\frac{4500}{3}\)
v = 1500 ms^-1.

Question 7.
A strong sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is received back after Is.What is the depth of sea given that the speed of sound in water 1450 ms^-1?
Answer:
Speed of sound in water v = 1450 m/s
Time taken t = 1 + 1 = 2 s.
Depth of the sea d = \(\frac{v}{t}\)
= \(\frac{1450}{2}\)
= 725 m
Depth of the sea = 725 m.

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:
Effect of density:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
\(v \propto \sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Effect of temperature:
(i) The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
(ii) The velocity of sound in gas increases with the increase in temperature,
v ∝ √T Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
v_T = (v₀ + 0.61 T) ms^-1
Here, v₀ is the velocity of sound in the gas at 0° C. For air, v₀ = 331 ms^-1.
Hence, the velocity of sound changes by 0.61 ms^-1 when the temperature changes by one – degree celsius.

Effect of relative humidity: When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why we can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 2.
What is mean by reflection of sound? Explain:
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium.
(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium.
(c) Reflection at curved surfaces.
Answer:
When sound waves travel in a given medium and strike the surface of another medium, they can be bounced back into the first medium. This phenomenon is known as reflection.
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium :

Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air. The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium. As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any defonnation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards. As the particles of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, a compression is reflected as a rarefaction and a rarefaction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium :

A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rarefactions. Suppose a compression travelling in air from left to right reaches a rigid wall. The compression exerts a force F on the rigid wall. In turn, the wall exerts an equal and opposite reaction R = – F on the air molecules.

This results in a compression near the rigid wall. Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(c) Reflection at curved surfaces :
When the sound waves are reflected from the curved surfaces, the intensity of the reflected waves is changed. When reflected from a convex surface, the reflected waves are diverged out and the intensity is decreased. When sound is reflected from a concave surface, the reflected waves are converged and focused at a point. So the intensity of reflected waves is concentrated at a point.

Question 3.
(a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
(b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
(c) Name three animals which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
(a) Ultrasonic Vibration: The vibrations whose frequencies are greater than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic vibrations.

(b) (i) They are used in SONAR to measure the depth of the sea (or ocean) and to locate underwater objects.
(ii) It is used for scanning and imaging the position and growth of a foetus and presence of stones in the gall bladder and kidney.
(iii) It is used for homogenising milk in milk plants where fresh milk is agitated with the desired quantity of fat and powdered milk to obtain toned milk.

(c) Mosquito, Dogs and Bats are the three animals that can hear ultrasonic vibrations.

Question 4.
What is an echo?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound wave.

(a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
(b) What are the medical applications of echo?
(c) How can you calculate the speed of sound using echo?
Answer:
(a) (i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that you can hear two sound waves clearly, if the time interval between the two sounds is at least 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:

Since, t = 0.1 second, then
d = \(\frac{v×0.1}{2}\) = \(\frac{v}{20}\)
Thus the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 1/20^th part of the magnitude of the velocity of sound in air. If you consider the velocity of sound as 344 ms^-1, the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.

(b) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or foetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(c) The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver. The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of sound wave is given by:
Speed of sound

X. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave have the same frequency, then which one has a longer wavelength?
(a) Sound, (b) Light, (c) both a and b, (d) data not sufficient
Answer:
(b) Light: Since the velocity of light (C = 3 × 10⁸ m/s) is greater than the velocity of sound, light wave has a longer wavelength.

Question 2.
When sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day? Justify your answer.
Answer:
An echo can only be heard if it reaches the ear after 0.1 secs.
\(\text { Time taken }=\frac{\text { Totaldistance }}{\text { Velocity }}\)
As on a hotter day, the velocity of sound is more. So if the time taken by the echo is less than 0.1 sec than it won’t be heard.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Sound waves are:
(a) Transverse waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Waves
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Longitudinal waves

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in air is ______.
(a) faster in dry air than in moist air
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
(c) directly proportional to pressure.
(d) Slower in dry air than in moist air.
Answer:
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
Hint: v ∝ √T

Question 3.
Which of the following does not affect the velocity of sound?
(a) mass of the gas
(b) density of the gas
(c) temperature of the gas
(d) pressure of the gas
Answer:
(d) pressure of the gas

Question 4.
The apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect does not depend upon.
(a) Speed of the listener.
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
(c) Speed of the source.
(d) Frequency of the source.
Answer:
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
Hint: Apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect depends on frequency of the source, direction and velocity of source and listener. It does not depend on the distance between the listener and the source.

Question 5.
Sound of frequency 256 Hz passes through a medium. The maximum displacement is 0.1 m. The maximum velocity is:
(a) 60π m/s
(b) 30π m/s
(c) 51.2π m/s
(d) 512π m/s
Answer:
(c) 51.2π m/s

Question 6.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 760 ms^-1. If 3600 waves the medium in 2 min, then its wavelength is ______.
(a) 13.8 m
(b) 41.5 m
(c) 25.3 m
(d) 57.2 m.
Answer:
(c) 25.3 m
Hint: Number of waves crossing a point per second.
\(\begin{array}{l}{n=\frac{3600}{2 \times 60}=30} \\ {\lambda=\frac{v}{n}=\frac{760}{30}=25.3 \mathrm{m}}\end{array}\).

Question 7.
Two waves are propagating with same amplitude and nearly same frequency in opposite they result in:
(a) longitudinal wave
(b) transverse wave
(c) stationary wave
(d) resonance wave
Answer:
(c) stationary wave

Question 8.
Of these properties of a sound wave, the one that is independent of others is its:
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) amplitude
Answer:
(d) amplitude

Question 9.
No echo will be heard if the distance between the reflecting obstacle and the source is:
(a) greater than 17.2 m
(b) less than 17.2 m
(c) less than 34.4 m
(d) greater than 34.4 m
Answer:
(b) less than 17.2 m

Question 10.
The velocity of sound in a gas is independent of:
(a) temperature
(b) density
(c) humidity
(d) pressure
Answer:
(d) pressure

Question 11.
The velocity of sound increases for every degree rise of temperature by:
(a) 1 ms^-1
(b) 330 m/s
(c) 0.61 ms^-1
(d) 6.1 m/s
Answer:
(c) 0.61 ms^-1

Question 12.
Longitudinal waves are characterised by:
(a) crest and troughs
(b) compressions and rarefactions
(c) nodes and antinodes
(d) wavelength and frequency
Answer:
(b) compressions and rarefactions

Question 13.
If the frequency of waves lies between 20 Hz and 20 KHz then, they are:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) audible waves
(d) transverse waves
Answer:
(c) audible waves

Question 14.
The frequency of an infrasonic wave is:
(a) 20 Hz
(b) below 20 Hz
(c) above 20 Hz
(d) above 20 KHz
Answer:
(b) below 20 Hz

Question 15.
The sound waves having frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) infrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 16.
Which of the following waves cannot be detected by human ear?
(a) audible wave
(b) infrasonic wave
(c) ultrasonic wave
(d) mechanical wave
Answer:
(c) ultrasonic wave

Question 17.
Which waves are generated by stretched strings?
(a) audible waves
(b) sound waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) infrasonic waves
Answer:
(a) audible waves

Question 18.
The waves produced during earthquake, ocean waves are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) infrasonic waves

Question 19.
Sound wave belong to:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) electromagnetic waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(a) mechanical waves

Question 20.
The waves produced by bats are called:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 21.
At N.T.P speed of sound waves in air is about:
(a) 3 x 108 m/s
(b) 3 x 10″8 m/s
(c) 340 cm/s
(d) 340 m/s
Answer:
(d) 340 m/s

Question 22.
Sound waves are:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) longitudinal waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(b) longitudinal waves

Question 23.
The velocity of sound is least in ………. medium.
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gaseous
(d) water
Answer:
(c) gaseous

Question 24.
Velocity of sound ……… as the density of the solid increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) changes
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 25.
Velocity of sound at a temperature T is given by:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)
(b) V_T = \(\frac{V_0}{273}\)
(c) V_T = (V₀ – 0.61 T)
(d) V_T = V₀(0.61T)
Answer:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)

Question 26.
In the case of reflection of sound waves angle of incidence is:
(a) less than angle of incidence
(b) equal to angle of incidence
(c) greater than angle of incidence
(d) greater than angle of refraction.
Answer:
(b) equal to angle of incidence

Question 27.
The direction of compression is reversed during:
(a) refraction
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium
(c) reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium
(d) reflection at the boundary of a curved surface
Answer:
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium

Question 28.
Which of the following property of sound waves is used in ultrasonography?
(a) Reflection of sound
(b) Refraction of sound
(c) Echo sound
(d) Doppler effect sound
Answer:
(c) Echo sound

Question 29.
Which of the following is application of reflection of sound?
(a) Mega phone
(b) Ear trumpet
(c) Sound board
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 30.
In Doppler effect when the source and listener move away from each other, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(a)

Question 31.
When a listener approaches a stationary source, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(b)

Question 32.
If a source and a listener move towards each other, then the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(c)

Question 33.
When a source recedes from a stationary listener the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(a)

Question 34.
When a source moves towards a stationary listener the ratio of apparent frequency to the original frequency is:

Answer:
(b)

Question 35.
When source and listener move one behind the other the apparent frequency is

Answer:
(c)

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The vibrating bodies produce waves in the form of ………
2. For the propagation of sound, a ………. is required.
3. The frequency range of audible waves is ………..
4. The frequency of infrasonic waves is …………
5. The sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as ………..
6. The wavelength of sound waves ranges from ………..
7. Sound waves are ……….
8. If wavelength of a wave is λ and its time period is T, then velocity of sound wave is ………..
9. If n is the frequency and λ is the wavelength of sound wave then is velocity of wave is given by …………
10. The ascending order of velocity of sound in solids, liquids and gases is given by …………
11. Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the ………… of the medium.
12. Velocity of sound in solid is directly proportional to the square root of the ……….. of the medium.
13. Sound can be heard from long distances clearly during …………..
14. When the temperature of a gas changes by one degree Celsius, the velocity of sound changes by ………..
15. In the case of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to ………….
16. When sound waves undergo reflection by convex surface, its intensity is ………..
17. ……….. are used when sound waves have to be focused at a point.
18. In ……….. surfaces, sound from one focus will always be reflected to the other focus.
19. The reproduction of sound due to the reflection of sound is known as …………
20. The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be ………..
21. Echo is used to determine the velocity of ………… in any medium.
22. A horn-shaped device works on the principle of ………….
23. The phenomenon in which the frequency of sound heard by a listener is different from that of sound emitted by the source due to ……….. between a source and a listener is known as Doppler effect.
24. When the distance between the source and listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………..
25. Apparent frequency in Doppler effect depends on the ……….. of the source and the listener.
26. When a listener moves away from a source at rest, the apparent frequency is n’ = ………..
27. When distance between source listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………. than ……….. frequency.
28. If the medium moves with a velocity W in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound then, velocity of sound v becomes ………..
29. If the apparent frequency is n’ = (\(\frac{V}{V+V_{S}}\))n then source moves ………….. the ……….. listener.
30. If a listener moves towards the ………. source, the apparent frequency n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n.
Answer:
1. sound waves
2. medium
3. From 20 Hz to 20 KHz
4. below 20 Hz
5. ultrasonic waves
6. 1.65 cm to 1.65 m
7. longitudinal
8. V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
9. V = nλ
10. V_S > V_L > V_G
11. density
12. elastic modulus
13. rainy seasons
14. 0.61 m/s
15. the angle of reflection
16. decreased
17. parabolic surface
18. elliptical
19. echo
20. 0.1 second
21. sound waves
22. echo
23. relative motion
24. n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V-V_{S}}\))n
25. velocities
26. (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n
27. more, actual
29. [V – W]
29. away from, stationary
30. stationary

III. True/False Questions: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound waves are transverse waves by nature.
2. Longitudinal waves are characterised by compressions and rarefactions.
3. Medium is not required for the propagation of light.
4. Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency about 20 KHz.
5. Velocity of sound is the greatest in gas.
6. Velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
7. According to law of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
8. When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.
9. Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. The principle of SONAR is Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. False – Sound waves are longitudinal waves by nature.
2. True
3. True
4. False – Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz.
5. False – Velocity of sound is the least in gas.
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False – Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. True

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (B)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (A)
(iii) – (B)
(iv) – (E)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (E)
(ii) – (F)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (C)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (C)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (D)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions:

Question 1.
Assertion: Sound waves cannot be propagated through vacuum but light can be transmitted.
Reason: Sound waves cannot be polarised but light wave can be polarised.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Ocean waves hitting a beach are always found to be nearly normal to the shore.
Reason: Ocean waves hitting a beach are assumed to be plane waves.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Speed of a wave is the ratio between wavelength and time period of a wave.
Reason: Wavelength is the distance between two nearest particles in phase.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: When a people moves along the sand within few centimetres of a sand scorpion, the scorpion immediately turns towards the people and dashes towards it.
Reason: When a people disturbs the sand, it sends pulses along the sand’s surface. One set of pulses is longitudinal and other set is transverse.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: Light waves are transverse.
Reason: Light waves travel in air with a velocity of 3 × 10⁸ m/s .
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the density of a gas.
Reason: When humidity increases the velocity of sound increases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Echo is produced due to the reflection of sound from walls, mountains etc.
Reason: Echo is used in ultrasonography.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Doppler effect is due to relative motion between the source and listener.
Reason: Echo is used in RADAR and SONAR.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

VI. Answers very briefly:

Question 1.
What is the nature of sound waves?
Answer:
Sound waves travel through any medium in the form of longitudinal waves.

Question 2.
How is the sound produced?
Answer:
By touching a ringing bell or a musical instrument while it is producing music, we conclude that sound is produced by vibrations.

Question 3.
A wave travelling in a medium has time period T and wavelength λ. How T and λ are related?
Answer:
Wave velocity v = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
(or) λ = vT

Question 4.
Why don’t we hear sounds when our ears are closed?
Answer:

• We hear the sound even when we close our ears but its magnitude and frequency is very less due to the obstruction of our hands.
• It also depends upon the frequency and loudness of the sound.

Question 5.
What is the relation between frequency and wavelength?
Answer:
Wave velocity = Frequency × Wavelength
v = vλ

Question 6.
What do you understand by the term ‘infrasonic vibration’?
Answer:
Infrasonic waves: These are sound waves with a frequency below 20 Hz that cannot be heard by the human ear. E.g., waves produced during an earthquake, ocean waves, the sound produced by whales, etc.

Question 7.
What is the range of audible frequency?
Answer:
The audible range of frequency is from 20 Hz to 20 KHz.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
State the differences between sound and light.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is meant by particle velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the particles of the medium vibrate in order to transfer the energy in the form of a wave is called particle velocity.

Question 3.
What do you know about wave velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the wave travels through the medium is called wave velocity. In other words, the distance travelled by a sound wave in unit time is called the velocity of a sound wave.
∴ velocity = \(\frac{Distance}{Time taken}\)

Question 4.
Define wave velocity.
Answer:
Wave velocity is defined as the distance travelled per second by a sound wave. Since,
Frequency (n) = 1/T, V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\) can be written as V = nλ.

Question 5.
What is the effect of density of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
V ∝\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Question 6.
What is the effect of temperature of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature. The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in temperature.
V ∝ √T . Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.61T) ms²

Question 7.
What are the factors affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:

• Effect of density
• Effect of temperature
• Effect of humidity

Question 8.
What do you know about reflection of sound from a plane surface?
Answer:
When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the reflected waves travel in a direction, according to the law of reflection. The intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.

Question 9.
Write a note on whispering gallery.
Answer:
One of the famous whispering galleries is in St. Paul’s cathedral church in London. It is built with elliptically shaped walls. When a person is talking at one focus, his voice can be heard distinctly at the other focus. It is due to the multiple reflections of sound waves from the curved walls.

Question 10.
How is echo of sound produced?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc…

Question 11.
Write short notes about mega phone.
Answer:
A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks . at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 12.
Define Doppler effect.
Answer:
When ever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

Question 13.
How Doppler effect is used to measure the speed of an automobile?
Answer:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

Question 14.
How is Doppler effect utilised in tracking a satellite?
Answer:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

Question 15.
How is the location of aircrafts found out?
Answer:
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

Question 16.
How is the speed of submarine estimated?
Answer:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

VIII. Numerical problems:

Question 1.
How far does the sound travel in air when a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz makes 64 vibrations? Velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s².
Answer:
Velocity of sound in air v = 340 m/s
Frequency v = 256 Hz
Distance travelled by the wave in one vibration is equal to its wavelength. Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
= \(\frac{340}{256}\) = 1.328 m
Distance travelled by the wave in 64 vibrations
= 1.328 × 64
= 84.992 m = 85 m

Question 2.
A train moving with velocity 30 ms^-1 blows a whistle of frequency 516 Hz. Find the pitch of the sound heard by a passenger ¡n another train approaching the first at a speed of 15 ms^-1, the velocity of sound = 330 ms^-1.
Solution:
It both the trains are approaching each other.
The apparent frequency, \(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{o}}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{330+15}{330-30}\right) \times 516} \\ {n=\frac{345}{300} \times 516=1.15 \times 516} \\ {n^{\prime}=593.4 \mathrm{Hz}}\end{array}\).

Question 3.
A body generates waves of 100 mm long through medium A and 0.25 m long in medium B. If the velocity of waves in medium A is 80 cm s^-1. Then, calculate the velocity of waves in medium B.
Answer:
In medium A wavelength λ_A = 100 mm
= 0.1 m
In medium A velocity v_A = 80 m/s
= 0.8 m/s
In medium B let velocity be v_B
In medium B, wavelength λ_B = 0.25 m
As the frequency of the wave remains same in the two media, so

= 2 m/s
∴ Velocity of waves in the medium B = 2 m/s

Question 4.
A radio station broadcasts its programme at 219.3 m wavelength. Determine the frequency of radio waves if velocity of radio waves 3 × 10⁸ m/s.
Answer:
Velocity of radio waves v = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Wavelength of radio waves λ = 219.3 m
∴ Frequency of radio waves v = \(\frac{v}{λ}\)
v = \(\frac{3×10^8}{219.3}\)
= 0.013679 × 10⁸
= 13679 × 10² Hz
= 1.36 79 × 10³ Hz
Frequency v = 1.3679 KHz

Question 5.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 960 m/s. If 3600 waves are passing through a point in the medium in 1 minute, then calculate its wavelength.
Answer:
Speed of a wave v = 960 m/s
Frequency of the wave v = 3600 m^-1
\(\frac{3600}{60}\) = 60 s^-1
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
\(\frac{960}{60}\) = 16 m
Wavelength = 16 m

Question 6.
If a splash is heard 4.23 second after a stone is dropped into a well 78.4 m deep then calculate the speed of sound in air.
Answer:
For downward motion of the stone,
Initial velocity u = 0
Acceleration a = 9.8 m/s²
Distance S = 74.8 m.
Time t = ?
S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
78.4 = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 t²
= 4.9 t²
∴ t² = \(\frac{78.4}{4.9}\) = 16
∴ t = 4 s
Let ‘t’ be the time taken by the splash of sound to reach the top of the well.
Then,
t + t’ = 4 +t’ = 4.23 s
∴ t = 4.23 – 4 = 0.23 s
∴ Speed of sound in air
\(\frac{distence}{Time}\)
= \(\frac{78.4}{0.23}\)
= 340.87 m/s

Question 7.
At what temperature will the speed of sound be double its value at 273 K?
Answer:
We know that velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to square root of its temperature

T₁ = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K
v₁ = 2v₁ T₂ = ?

∴ T₂ = 4 × 273 = 1092 K
Required temperature = 1092 K

Question 8.
A listener moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?
Answer:
Hence listener moves towards the source.
V_L = –\(\frac{V}{5}\), V_S = 0
V_L – Velocity of listener
V_S – Velocity of source
V – Velocity of sound
Apparent frequency = n’

The percentage increase in apparent frequency

= 20%

Question 9.
A siren is fitted on a car going towards a vertical wall at a speed of 36 Kmph. A person standing on the ground behind the car, listens to the siren sound coming directly from the source as well as that coming after reflection from the wall. Calculate the apparent frequency of the wave coming directly from the siren to the person.
Answer:
Velocity of source = 36 Kmph
V_S = 36 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity of sound v = 340 m/s
Frequency n = 500 Hz
For the sound coming directly from the siren to the listener, source (siren) is moving away from the listener so
V_S = -10 m/s V₂ = 0
Apparent frequency of the wave

= 485.7 Hz

Question 10.
The sirens of two fire engines have a frequency of 600 Hz each. A man hears the sirens from the two engines, one approaching him with a speed of 30 Kmph and the car going away from him at a speed of 54 Kmph. What is the difference in frequency of two sirens heard by the man?
Answer:
Velocity of sound be 340 m/s
Frequency n = 600 Hz
Velocity of sound
V = 340 m/s
Velocity of source
Vs = 36 Kmph
\(\frac{36×5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity listener
V_S = 0
For the engine approaching man

= 618.2 Hz
For the engine going away from the man
V_S = -54 Kmph
= -54 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = -15 m/s
Velocity of listener V_L = 0
Apparent frequency

Difference in frequencies = n’ – n” = 618.2 – 574.6
= 43.6 Hz

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the nature of sound waves.
Answer:
Sound waves are longitudinal waves that can travel through any medium (solids, liquids, gases) with a speed that depends on the properties of the medium. As sound travels through a medium, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the wave. This displacement involves the longitudinal displacements of the individual molecules from their mean positions. This results in a series of high and low pressure regions called compressions and rarefactions.

Question 2.
Explain in the details of measuring the velocity of sound by the Echo method.
Answer:
Apparatus required:
A source of sound pulses, a measuring tape, a sound receiver, and a stopwatch.
Procedure:

• Measure the distance d between the source of sound pulse and the reflecting surface using the measuring tape.
• The receiver is also placed adjacent to the source. A sound pulse is emitted by the source.
• The stopwatch is used to note the time interval between the instant at which the sound pulse is sent and the instant at which the echo is received by the receiver. Note the time interval as ‘t’.
• Repeat the experiment for three or four times. The average time taken for the given number of pulses is calculated.

Calculation of speed of sound:

• The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver.
• The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of the sound wave is given by:
  \(\text { Speed of sound }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { Time taken }}=\frac{2 d}{t}\)

Question 3.
Explain laws of reflection with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
The following two laws of reflection are applicable to sound waves as well.
(i) The incident wave, the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
(ii) The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the angle of reflection ∠r.
These laws can be observed from figure

In the above Figure, the sound waves that travel towards the reflecting surface are called the incident waves. The sound waves bouncing back from the reflecting surface are called reflected waves. For all practical purposes, the point of incidence and the point of reflection is the same point on the reflecting surface.

A perpendicular line drawn at the point of incidence is called the normal. The angle which the incident sound wave makes with the normal is called the angle of incidence, ‘i’. The angle which the reflected wave makes with the normal is called the angle of reflection, ‘r’.

Question 4.
Explain applications of echo.
Answer:
(i) Some animals communicate with each other over long distances and also locate objects by sending the sound signals and receiving the echo as reflected from the targets.

(ii) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(iii) Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.

Question 5.
Explain various applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. To measure the speed of an automobile:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

2. Tracking a satellite:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

3. RADAR (Radio Detection and Ranging):
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircraft are tracked.

4. SONAR:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 6.
Describe (i) Soundboard
(ii) Ear trumpet and
(iii) Megaphone.
Answer:
(i) Sound Board: These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

(ii) Ear trumpet: Ear trumpet is a hearing aid, which is useful by people who have difficulty in hearing. In this device, one end is wide and the other end is narrow. The sound from the sources fall into the wide end and are reflected by its walls into the narrow part of the device. This helps in concentrating the sound and the sound enters the eardrum with more intensity. This enables a person to hear the sound better.

(iii) MegaPhone: A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 7.
What is the Doppler effect? Explain it in several situations.
Answer:
Whenever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

For simplicity of calculation, it is assumed that the medium is at rest, That is the velocity of the medium is zero. Let S and L be the source and the listener moving with velocities v_S and v_L respectively. Consider the case of source and listener moving towards each other. As the distance between them decreases, the apparent frequency will be more than the actual source frequency.

Let n and n’ be the frequency of the sound produced by the source and the sound observed by the listener respectively. Then, the expression for the apparent frequency n’ is
n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_L}{V-V_S}\))n
Here, v is the velocity of sound waves in the given medium. Let us consider different possibilities of motions of the source and the listener. In all such cases, the expression for the apparent frequency is given in table

Suppose the medium (say wind) is moving with a velocity W in the direction of the propagation of sound. For this case, the velocity of sound, ‘v’ should be replaced with (v + W). If the medium moves in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound, then ‘v’ should be replaced with (v – W).

Question 8.
Describe the applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
(i) To measure the speed of an automobile : An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

(ii) Tracking a satellite : The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

(iii) RADAR (RAdio Detection And Ranging) : In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

(iv) SONAR (SOund Navigation And Ranging) : In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 9.
Explain the conditions for no Doppler effect.
Answer:
Under the following circumstances, there will be no Doppler effect and the apparent frequency as heard by the listener will be the same as the source frequency.

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.
3. When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular directions.
4. If the source is situated at the center of the circle along which the listener is moving.

IX. Hot questions:

Question 1.
Why is frequency the most fundamental property of a wave?
Answer:
When a waves travels from one medium to another, its velocity and wavelength may change. But the frequency does not change hence the frequency is the most fundamental property of a wave.

Question 2.
Which properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound?
Answer:
Elasticity and inertia are the properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound.

Question 3.
What does cause the rolling sound of thunder?
Answer:
The multiple reflections of sound of lightning produce the rolling sound of thunder.

Question 4.
On the surface of moon, two astronauts can not talk to each other. Give reason.
Answer:
Sound waves require material medium for their propagation. As there is no ‘ atmosphere, on the moon, hence the sound wave can not propagate on the moon.

Question 5.
If a person places his ear to one end of a long iron pipeline, he can distinctly hear two sound waves when a workman hammers the other end of the pipeline. How?
Answer:
Sound waves travel sixteen times faster in iron than in air. Hence the person hears two sounds, the first one travelling through the iron pipeline and the second travelling through air.

Question 6.
Sound waves travel faster in solids than in liquids and gases. Why?
Answer:
Sound waves travel faster in solids with greatest speed. Because the coefficient of elasticity of solids is much greater than coefficient of elasticity of liquids and gases.

Question 7.
If an explosion takes place at the bottom of a lake, will the shock waves in water be longitudinal or transverse?
Answer:
An explosion in a lake produces shock waves there by creating enormous increase in pressure in water.
A shock wave is thus a longitudinal wave travelling at a speed that is greater than that of a longitudinal wave of ordinary intensity.

Question 8.
Sound can be heard over longer distances on a rainy day. Give reason.
Answer:
On a rainy day, air contains a large amount of water vapour. This decreases the density of air. Hence, sound travels faster in air and can be heard over longer distances.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 2

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
I scraped the ice off the gauges.
(a) applied (b) saw (c) scratched (d) melted
Answer:
(c) scratched

Question 2.
We hoisted our oxygen gear on to our backs.
(a) dropped (b) swayed (c) hauled (d) hooked up
Answer:
(c) hauled

Question 3.
Liberty is a social contract.
(a) contact (b) confront (c) encounter (d) agreement
Answer:
(d) agreement

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
There was a curious smothering noise from my friend.
(a) expressed (b) smoothened (c) smoothened (d) suffocated
Answer:
(a) expressed

Question 5.
The serenity was much admired.
(a) calmness (b) tranquillity (c) surrender (d) bustle
Answer:
(d) bustle

Question 6.
One can swallow considerable quantities without ill-effects.
(a) significant (b) sizeable (c) partly (d) large
Answer:
(c) partly

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘Tax payer’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Noun (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Noun

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of IMP.
(a) Indian Maritime Department (b) India Meteorological Device (c) Indian Meteorological Department (d) India Meteorological Department
Answer:
(d) India Meteorological Department

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
At the meeting, the professors were schmoozing with the president of the club.
(a) talking in a friendly manner (b) brainstorming (c) gossiping (d) fighting
Answer:
(a) talking in a friendly manner

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word Interpol.
(a) Inter + Pol (b) India + Police (c) International + Police (d) Inter + Pal
Answer:
(c) International + Police

Question 11.
Choose die clipped word for gymnasium.
(a) gymum (b) gymna (c) gin (d) gym
Answer:
(d) gym

Question 12.
A strong desire to pen poetry is known as ……………….. .
(a) calligraphy (b) metromania (c) melodrama (d) decathlon
Answer:
(b) metromania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word ‘suspecting’.
(a) re- (b) im- (c) un- (d) mis-
Answer:
(c) un-

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
It was Ausable …………………….. closed the door behind him.
(a) who (b) whose (c) whom (d) which
Answer:
(a) who

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
There was a delay before we went ………………………. the tunnel.
(a) across (b) above (c) into (d) through
Answer:
(d) through

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement. It’s not hot today ………………………..?
(a) is it (b) was it (c) will it (d) won’t it
Answer:
(a) is it

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
Hari had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples and oranges.
(a) similar (b) cannot be compared (c) comparing with fruits (d) was hungry
Answer:
(b) cannot be compared

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative. Surya was lazy.
(a) motivational (b) emotional (c) motivationally deficient (d) sensitive
Answer:
(c) motivationally deficient

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence. He smiled uncomfortably.
(a) SVO (b) SVIODO (c) SVCA (d) SVA
Answer:
(d) SVA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb. The lorry was going slowly, blocking our way, but we managed to ……………………….
(a) pull ahead (b) pull through (c) pull towards (d) pull behind
Answer:
(a) pull ahead

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Oh then our maze of tunneled stone ‘
Grew thin and treacherous as air”
(a) What is the figure of speech in the first line?
(b) Mention the poetic device employed in the second line.
Answer:
(a) The figure of speech in the first line is metaphor.
(b) Simile is the poetic device employed in the second line.

Question 22.
“One equal temper of heroic hearts,
Made weak by time and fate, but strong in will To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield”
(а) Though made weak by time and fate, the hearts are heroic. Explain.
(b) Pick out the words in alliteration in the above lines.
Answer:
(a) Ulysses and his compatriots might have become old and may not have the same strength they had in youth. But they still share the thirst for travel and pursuit of knowledge in the unexplored world. Their bravery and spiritual strength are intact. .
(b) Strive, seek, heroic, hearts are the words that alliterate.

Question 23.
“Atfirst the infant,
Mewling and puking in the nurse’s arms.”
(а) What does man do in the first stage of life?
(b) Explain, ‘Mewling and pucking’.
Answer:
(a) In the first stage of life man plays the role of an infant. He is always crying and vomiting in the nurse’s arms.
(b) It means crying and vomiting.

Question 24.
“ What is that dirge-like murmur that I hear Like the sea breaking on a shingle-beach?
It is the tree’s lament, an eerie speech,”
(а) What do you mean by dirge?
(b) Why does the tree lament?
Answer:
(a) ‘Dirge’ means a lament for the dead.
(b) The tree laments the absence of the poet.

Question 25.
“The Chief’s eye flashed; his plans Soared up again like fire.”
(а) Who is described as the chief?
(b) Identify the figure of speech employed.
Answer:
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte is described as the chief.
(b) Simile.

Question 26.
“and guide him among sudden betrayals and tighten him for slack moments
(a) What could guide the son among unexpected betrayals?
(b) What could happen to the boy during slack moments?
Answer:
(a) Rock/steel-like would guide the son among betrayals.
(b) During slack moments, the boy may be betrayed by his trusted friends.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Padma : Did you see the dentist last week?
Devi : No, I will be seeing the dentist next week.
Padma asked Devi if she had seen the dentist the previous week. Devi said that she had not and that she would be seeing the dentist the following week.

Question 28.
She must buy a ticket. Otherwise she will not be allowed to watch the programme, (combine using if)
Answer:
If she does not buy a ticket, she will not be allowed to watch the programme.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If I had been there, this problem wouldn’t have happened.
Answer:
Had I been there, this problem wouldn’t have happened.

Question 30.
Though Andrew has an unconventional swing, he manages to drive the ball farther than some professional golfers. (Change the following into a compound sentence)
Answer:
Andrew has an unconventional swing but he manages to drive the ball farther than some professional golfers.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Our only enemy was gold
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.

Context: The helpless soldier says this while being surprised by the enemies who bribed the wicked wicket gate keeper.

Explanation: The soldier was initially proud of their fortified castle, brave and loyal soldiers and pile of arms and the well-stocked granary to last a siege. There was vigil behind the turret wall. But he was not aware of the enemy within the human soul: the greed. Gold was their enemy for which they had no weapon. The wizened warder had let the enemy in through the wicket gate by taking “gold”. The weakness of the gatekeeper for gold made the strong castle weak.

Question 32.
How dull it is to pause, to make an end,
To rust unburnished, not to shine in use!
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.

Context: The poet says these words while discussing the mental agony of Ulysses who is unable to settle down with his ageing wife Penelope and son Telemachus.

Explanation: Ulysses finds doling out justice to a savage people as ‘boring’. He does not want to settle down and die in Ithaca. He compares himself to a sword which may rust if left unused. He wants to lead an active and adventurous life till his death.

Question 33.
“‘I’m killed, Sire! ’And, his Chief beside,
Smiling, the boy fell dead.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Contex: The poet says these words while explaining the hurt reaction of the boy-soldier.

Explanation: Instead of being carried away for first aid, he hurried on horse back to communicate the news of conquest of Ratisbon despite his chest being split into two. When emperor Napoleon expressed his grief on his wounded status, the boy soldier said, “Nay I’m killed sire.”

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What made the boys join the resistance movement against the Germans?
Answer:
The boys hated the Germans who had destroyed their town and killed their father. So, they joined the resistance movement against the Germans.

Question 35.
Elucidate the author’s ideas about teapots.
Answer:
The teapot should be made of China or earthen ware. Silver or Britannia ware teapot produce inferior quality tea. Enamel pots are worse. Though curiously enough a pewter teapot, a rarity nowadays, is not so bad.

Question 36.
How were the achievers welcomed by fellow climbers?
Answer:
Two figures came towards them a couple of hundred feet about their camp. They were George Lowe and Wilfrid Noyce, and it was thoughtful of them because Hillary’s oxygen ran out just then.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow. Expenditure in book Publishing
(a) For what does the publisher spend the maximum while publishing a book?
(b) How much expenditure is incurred on printing?
(c) How much percent royalty goes to the author?
Answer:
(a) A publisher spends the maximum in binding the books.
(b) Twenty five percent of the expenditure is incurred on printing.
(c) The royalty for the author is 15%.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a Teacher and a student.
Answer:
Teacher : Why are you late today?
Student: I went to hospital with my mother.
Teacher : Who is sick?
Student: My mother is down with a viral infection.
Teacher : Couldn’t your father accompany her to the hospital?
Student: I am afraid that there wasn’t any alternative as my father was out of station.

Question 39.
Describe the process of making bricks.
Answer:

• In the first stage, the raw material clay is dug from the soil by a digger and lumps of clay are placed on a metal grid and broken into smaller pieces, which fall through a roller.
• They are later mixed with sand and water to make a uniform mixture.
• Brick-shaped pieces are subsequently formed either by using a mould or by cutting the clay mix with a wire cutter.
• The raw bricks are then hardened, stacked in a drying oven and left for one or two days. The dried bricks are finally heated in a kiln, first to a moderate temperature and then to a high temperature.
• They are finally transferred to a chamber to cool and harden slowly over two to three days before being transported to customers.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) When in Rome as Romans do. (do, act, behave)
(b) A leopard can’t change its (tail, nature, spots)
(c) A burnt child fire, (fears, dreads, hates)
Answer:
(a) do (b) spots (c) dreads

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Adversity brings out the best as well as the worst in people. Elucidate this statement with reference to the story, ‘Two Gentlemen of Verona’.
Answer:
Whenever confronted by an adversity, there is a psychological reaction among most of us. Either fight or flee from it. Even adults run away from crisis and seek asylum or support of others. We find hordes of people, when living becomes difficult, migrate to other places to survive. In the face of adversity, even educated people turn to evil ways. They worked hard from dawn to midnight. They did any job that came their way. They shined shoes, hawked newspapers, sold wild fruits and took the people round the city.

They spent very little on their food and clothes. Every week they cycled to Poleta and paid Lucia’s medical bill systematically. In this story, the nurse of the private hospital reveals the bitter truth about the economy of Verona. Jobs are scarce. There is inflation. It is difficult to buy food with limited money. When the hospital laid the condition that the little boys Nicola and Jacopo should pay the weekly medical bill for their sister Lucia’s treatment for tuberculosis, they did not back off or give up. Their best qualities came out during adversity. Like tea leaves, they gave their best while in hot waters.

[OR]

‘There is no height, no depth that the spirit of man, guided by higher Spirit cannot attain’. Discuss the above statement in the context of the achievement of Edmund Hillary and Tenzing.
Answer:
Man is naturally endowed with an indomitable spirit. Guided by powers above, man reaches great height. The grit and persistence of both Hillary and Tenzing stand testimony to the above maxim. The conditions were really overwhelming. Hillary slipped many times. Once he even sought the advisability of continuing the climb under such conditions. But Tenzing and Hillary resolved to persist and conquer the peak. As a reward to 400 feet climb near the south summit, they got two bottles of oxygen which in fact kept them alive almost up to their base camp.

Both pick up the pieces of hopes only when they come into contact with firmer rock-like ice as they moved up. Though they had to inch their way up clearing snow with the ice-axe and making a path to haul themselves up ridge after ridge in the elusive terrain, they did not give up. As Hillary’s ice-axe bit into the first steep slop of the ridge, his hopes were realized. The snow was crystalline and firm. With just two or three blows, Hillary could make a step large enough for their oversized high altitude boots.

They could create comfortable belays and trudge forward with confidence. As the humps were continuously seen, their original zest started declining. It was at this point Hillary saw a narrow ridge up to a snowy summit. With a few more whacks of the ice-axe in the form of snow, they reached the top.

Question 42.
Why did the narrator say that their “only enemy was gold”?
Answer:
The narrator was very proud of the awe-inspiring castle. The soldiers were least bothered about the enemy who was just half a mile away. They had a well -guarded, tall, smooth and insurmountable fort. They were led by a brave captain. The soldiers were loyal and ready to lay down their lives for protecting the castle and the trusting citizens of their country. There was constant vigil from the turret wall to shoot down the enemy at sight.

They were proud that only a bird could have the temerity to scale over the fortified castle. They were even prepared for a siege as they had well-stocked granaries. In the event of the outbreak of a war, allies were ready to rush with their assured forces in support of them. But the soldiers were unaware of the truth, “the strength of the strongest chain lies in its weakest link”. An aged warder of a wicked wicket gate had a cancerous growth of greed.

As the enemy was hidden within the soul of their own citizen, they had no weapon to fight it. Gold was ultimately their enemy. The wicked gate keeper betrayed his country for a bag full of gold. The great citadel fell without even a groan of protest and without shedding “a jot of blood.”

[OR]

Napoleon was a great source of inspiration to his army Justify.
Answer:
Napoleon was a powerful orator and was able to muster the support of young soldiers who could gladly throw away their lives for the glory of France and for fulfilling the ambitious plans of territorial expansion of Napoleon Bonaparte. He inspired unprecedented courage among the soldiers.

They never worried about the strength of the enemy army or their pile of armaments. They faced the battles with the single minded determination to ‘do or die’ or do and die. They kissed death for the glorification of France and for making Napoleon proud of their heroism, sacrifices and patriotism.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Martha and John – grudge – underpaid two decades – punishment – condemned the bribe – abusive language – one hundred thousand dollars – changed attitude – testify – three words – corrupt practices.
Answer:
Martha and John cherished a grudge against Gresham for having underpaid Baldwin for about two decades. They openly said that he deserved punishment. Initially Gresham condemned the bribe claimed as a difference in salary paid. Had he been made a similar offer he claimed he would have asked him to go to the devil. Baldwin said that having been a friend he couldn’t use such an abusive language. Casually John asked how much he offered.

Baldwin said that it was one hundred thousand dollars. Suddenly Martha and John changed their attitude towards Gresham. John viewed a shame if Gresham got indicted because he shared his name. Martha also desperately tried to convince him not to testify against Gresham. John even suggested that he could say those three words “I don’t remember” as the depositor would not lose a cent. Baldwin felt miserable because the family members who he wanted to feel proud of his uprightness wanted him to crossover to the side of corrupt practices because of the generous offer made by Gresham.

[OR]

Atisable, private detective-automatic gun – Berlin – nice story – balcony – displeasure – hotel management – Ausable’s room – times of danger – pre-ordered drinks – blatant – lie – Max jumped – suicidal jump – outwitted the spy.
Answer:
Ausable was a shrewd private detective. He did not become panicky on seeing Max with an automatic gun in his room. Even if he were, he did not show it off. Instead, he expressed surprise that he expected him to be in Berlin. He cooked up a nice story that it was the second time someone had broken into his room through the balcony of the neighbouring apartment which reaches down under his window.

He expressed his displeasure that he would raise hell with the hotel management for not blocking that balcony. This gave a strong suggestion to Max, that he could have used the balcony instead of the pass key to enter Ausable’s room. Being a criminal or spy, a person always looks for various routes of escape in times of danger. Very rarely he starts direct encounter risking his life. When Henry, the waiter who arrived with the pre-ordered drinks, knocked, Mr. Ausable simply smiled.

When Max asked who it was, he told a blatant lie that it was the police who had come for his extra protection and wouldn’t hesitate to fire as the door wasn’t locked but just closed. Max, assuming that there is a balcony extending below Ausable’s window, jumped. He never knew that it was a suicidal jump from the sixth floor. Thus, Ausable outwitted the spy, Max.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
Residents of the Bhirung Raut Ki Gali, where Ustad Bishmillah Khan was bom on March 21,1916, were in a state of shock. His cousin, 94-year -old Mohd Idrish Khan had tears welled up in his eyes. Shubhan Khan, the care-taker of Bismillah’s land, recalled “Whenever in Dumaraon, he would give rupees two to the boys and rupees five to the girls of the locality”. He was very keen to play Shehnai again in the local Bihariji’s Temple where he had started playing Shehnai with his father, Bachai Khan, at the age of six.

His original name was Quamaruddin and became Bishmillah only after he became famous as a Shehnai player in Varanasi. His father Bachai Khan was the official Shehnai player of Keshav Prasad Singh, the Maharaja of the erstwhile Dumaraon estate, Bismillah used to accompany him. For Bismillah Khan, the connection to music began at a very early age. By his teens, he had already become a master of the Shehnai. On the day India got freedom, Bismillah Khan, then a sprightly young man of 31 years old, had the rare honour of playing from Red Fort.

But Bishmillah Khan won’t just be remembered for elevating the Shehnai from an installment heard only in weddings and Naubatkhanas to one that was appreciated in concert halls globally across the world. His life was a witness to the plurality that is India. A practicing Muslim, he would take a daily dip in River Ganges in his younger days after a bout of kusti in Benia Baga Akhada. Every morning, Bismillah Khan would do riyaaz at the Balaji temple on the banks of the river. Even during his final hours in a Varanasi hospital, music didn’t desert Bismillah Khan.

A few hours before he left this worldly home early on Monday, the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri to show that he was feeling better. This was typical of a man for whom life revolved around music. Throughout his life, he abided by the principle that all religions are one and the same. What marked Bismillah Khan was his simplicity and disregard for the riches that come with musical fame. Till the very end, he used a cycle rickshaw to travel around Varanasi. But the pressure of providing for some 60 family members took its toll during his later years.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 388
No. of words to be written in the summary: 388/3 = 129 ± 5

Rough Draft
Residents of the Bhirung Raut Ki Gali were shocked, where Ustad Bismillah Khan was born on March 21, 1916. Subhan Khan recalled that in Dumaraon, he would give Rs.2/- and 5/- to boys and girls respectively. He wanted to play Shehnai in Bihariji’s Temple to recall his childhood days withhls-Tather, Bachai Khan. His original name was Quamaruddin and became Bishmillah as a Shehnai player in varanasi. His father was the official Shehnai player of the Maharaja of Dumaraon estate. On the day India got freedom, 31 year old Bismillah, had the rare honour of playing from Red Fort.

He was appreciated globally. His life was a witness to the plurality that is India. A few hours before he died the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri, typical of a man whose life revolved around music. Throughout his life, he abided by the principle that all religions are one and the same. His simplicity and disregard for the riches in spite of being famous was seen in his cycle rickshaw rides.

Fair Draft: Bismillah Khan – A Legend
Residents were shocked about Bishmillah Khan’s demise. Tears welled in an aged cousin. Shubhan recalled his generosity to children. Quamaruddin became Bishmillah as a Shehnai player and wanted to play in Bihariji’s Temple to recall his childhood days with his father, the official Shehnai player of Dumaraon. Bismillahmastered it during teenage. On the day of Independence, young Bismillah, played from Red Fort and appreciated globally.

He was a witness to the plurality in India. Being Muslim, he would dip in River Ganges and do riyaaz at the Balaji temple. During his final hours, the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri, typical of a man whose life revolved around music. Throughout he believed that all religions were same. His disregard for riches was seen in his cycle rickshaw rides but providing for his family took its toll.

No. of words in the summary: 133

[OR]
Notes
Title: Bismillah Khan – A Legend
1. Shocked Death

• cousin Khan in tears
• caretaker of Dumaraon recalls
• Boys – Rs. 21- to boys ; Girls – Rs. 5/-

2. Early Years

• org. name Quamaruddin
• played shehnai with father at temp.
• got famous as Bismillah at Varanasi.

3. Music, a family heritage

• father: Dumarao’s court poet
• played Shehnai from 6 yrs.
• played Shehnai at Red Fort in 1947, age 31

4. Routine in Vans.

• dip in Ganges
• riyaz at Balaji Temp.
• Hummed thumri before his last breath.

5. Strong Belief in Secularism

• Bismillah bel. in secularism
• all religions are one and same
• a plurality of life, India
• Pract Islam

Abbreviations used: Rs – rupees; Org. – original; Temp. – temple; Yrs. – years; Fml. – family Mem. – member; Pract. – Practised; Bel. – believed.

Question 45.
You are Raja. You are upset about the bad influence of TY channels on the young children. Write a letter to the editor of a leading newspaper suggesting measures to upgrade the standard.
Answer:
20th Sept, 2020
From
XXX
YYY
zzz

To
The Mayor,
Municipal Corporation,
Chennai-600012.

Sir,
Sub: Provision for additional street lamps.
This is to bring to your notice that there is provision bf just one street light in every street on YYY Nagar in ZZZ locality. It is very scary to walk on the road as there are empty lands here and there with plants and bushes grown robustly. As a result, we have insects and snakes that come out of its shelter in search of food in the nights. There is also the problem of chain snatching. Additional lights will help us to walk safe in the locality.

We thereby request you to look into the matter, make provisions for additional lamp posts and also change the tube lights that aren’t working.

Thank you,

Yours faithfully,
XXX

Address on the envelope
To
The Mayor,
Municipal Corporation
Chennai- 600012

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Common Man’s Woes During Monsoon”.
Answer:
Common Man’s Woes During Monsoon

The much anticipated Monsoon brings relief from the sweltering heat. However Monsoon and madness visit us at the same time. Every year during the monsoons, pandemonium rules supreme. The roads are flooded; the sewage system falls; a huge loss of crops, fruits, life, and property is caused. Water logging and breeding of mosquitoes together becomes the reason for the rise of many diseases. Network connectivity gets weak.

Though we have benefitted from independence since 1947, the Indian Government has not been able to tackle the flood issues caused by monsoons. Recent floods have laid bare the emptiness of the claims of the civic authorities of their readiness. The poor had to bear the brunt of the problem.

One of the main causes behind this issue is the lack of stringent laws and accountability of the officials and the Ministries responsible for tackling the floods. The Government should formulate and pass strict laws regarding the projects launched to relieve people of their distress but there is hardly a sign of effective implementation of the scheme. There needs to be strict accountability.

When the Ministers will be accountable, they will ensure the officers, officials involved in the projects surely create better systems benefitting the public.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(а) Mr. Johnson with his wife and children were present at the show.
(b) The quality of goods produced here are not upto the international standard.
(c) The prices quoted for this commodity at different shops is different.
(d) Either Sanjay or Raja are responsible for this crime.
(e) Bread and butter are his lunch.
Answer:
(a) Mr. Johnson along with his wife and children were present at the show.
(b) The quality of goods produced here is not up to the international standard.
(c) The price quoted for this commodity at different shops is different.
(d) Either Sanjay or Raja is responsible for this crime.
(e) Bread and butter is his lunch.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) Her baby is ………………. in December when the ………………. on the grass will be a rare sight to see. (dew/due)
(b) When I was young, I ………………. eat tons of ice cream! (use a modal verb)
(c) I ………………. drink coffee when I was young, (use a semi-modal)
(d) We ………………. (eat) the lasagna here, (use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) due/dew
(b) could
(c) used to
(d) have eaten

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the field in the list given below, by understanding the word or words serving as the clue.
(a) Sometimes A-class facilities are extended to even those imprisoned.
(b) Did an asteroid hit south India millions of years ago?
(c) The investigations included megascopic and microscopic studies of rocks.
(d) Many foreigners come to watch Jallikatu at Madurai.
(e) The rapid depletion in indigenous aquatic plants would prove detrimental to wetlands.
[Astronomy; Law; Flora; Geology; Sports]
Answer:
(a) Law
(b) Astronomy
(c) Geology
(d) Sports
(e) Flora

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.
Answer:
The little boy of twelve will remember this day forever. It is not every day you get to see a world championship at Hyatt Regency on November 19, 20Question 13. The visit of the Children was the result of an initiative by the organizers of the tournament and the School education Department to get school Children by a part of the world championship. Many children from schools gathered to witness the ongoing world Championship and there was an overwhelming response.

Children got a chance to see Viswanathan Anand, Garry Kasparov, Magnus Carlsen and Vijayalakshmi. The entry being free, Children found it a rare and unforgettable opportunity. Student visitors were given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest. No wonder the visitors would be hailed heroes in their schools after their visit to the spot. Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby, thereby founding that the city of Chennai would produce many masters of chess dazzling with intelligence and talent.

Questions:
a. What made the day memorable for children?
b. Name any two celebrities mentioned in the passage.
c. Mention the purpose for which the visit of the children had been organized.
d. Which places were the student visitors permitted in to?
e. How did the children try to prove their powers and interest in the game?
Answers:
(a) World Championship at Hyatt made the day memorable for children.
(b) Children got a chance to see Viswanathan Anand and Garry Kasparov.
(c) The children from many schools were brought to witness the ongoing world Championship in Chess.
(d) The children were permitted into the Hyatt Regency lobby.
(e) Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby. Student visitors were also given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest.

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I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandisement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
Answer:
(b) Puli Thevar

Question 2.
Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars ?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Nawab of Arcot
(d) Raja of Travancore
Answer:
(c) Nawab of Arcot

Question 3.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 4.
Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(b) Nagalapuram

Question 5.
Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Veerapandya Kattabomman
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Marudhu brothers

Question 6.
When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
(a) 24 May 1805
(b) 10 July 1805
(c) 10 July 1806
(d) 10 September 1806
Answer:
(c) 10 July 1806

Question 7.
Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt
(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
Answer:
(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 8.
Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mysore
Answer:
(a) Calcutta

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by …………….
2. Except the Palayakkarars of ……………. all other western Palayakkarars supported Puli Thevar.
3. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of ……………. for eight years.
4. Bennerman deputed ……………. to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.
5. Kattabomman was hanged to death at …………….
6. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the …………….
7. ……………. was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
8. ……………. suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.

Answers:

1. Viswanatha Nayaka of Madurai
2. Sivagiri
3. Gopala Nayakar
4. Ramalinganar
5. Kayathar
6. Second Palayakarar war
7. Fateh Hyder (the eldest son of Tipusultan)
8. Colonel. Gillespie

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
(ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
(iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
(iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) UnderColonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
(ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in restoring the throne to her.
(iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
(iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the Marathas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable was the addition of a leather cockade in the turban.
Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.
(a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
What were the duties of the Palayakkarars?
Answer:
The Palayakkarars carried on the following duties:

1. They collected revenue, administered the territory control, settled disputes and maintained law and order.
2. On many occasions the Palayakkarars helped the Nayak rulers to restore the kingdom to them.

Question 2.
Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Answer:
The two prominent blocs were Eastern and Western Palayams:

Eastern Palayams:

1. Sattur
2. Nagalapuram
3. Ettayapuram
4. Panchalamkurichi.

Western Palayams:

1. Uthumalai
2. Thallawankottai
3. Naduvakurichi
4. Singampatti
5. Seithur.

Question 3.
Why was Heron dismissed from service?
Answer:
Colonel Heron was urged to deal with Puli Thevar as he continued to defy the authority of the company. Puli Thevar wielded much influence over the western Palayakkarars. Heron had to abandon the plan for want of cannon and of supplies and pay to soldiers. He retired to Madurai. He was then recalled and dismissed from sendee.

Question 4.
What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
Answer:

1. With the support of the East India company Arcot Nawab Mohamed Ali wanted to bring Madurai and Tirunelveli regions which were under the command of Nawab Chandra Sahib’s agents.
2. These agents got the support of Tamil Palayakkarars and had close relationship with Puli Thevar.
3. An army was sent under the head of Mahfiizkhan to capture Tirunelveli.
4. Before he station his troops near Kalakadu 2000 soldiers from Travancore joined the forces of Puli Thevar.
5. In the Battle of Kalakadu Mahfiizkhan troops were routed.
6. The organized resistance of the Palayakkarars under Puli Thevar gave an opportunity to the English to interfere directly in the affairs of Tirunelveli.

Question 5.
What was the bone of contention between the Company and Kattabomman?
Answer:
The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the palayams. The collectors humiliated the Palayakkarars and adopted force to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Question 6.
Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Proclamation of 1801.
Answer:

1. The proclamation of 1801 was an early call to the Indians to unite against the British.
2. Many Palayakkars rebelled together, especially Chinna Maruthu collected nearly 20,000 men to challenge British.
3. But the Rajas of Pudukkottai, Ettayapuram and Thanjavur supported British.
4. So, in May 1801, English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Trichy rebels failed.
5. Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generation.
6. The rebellion of Marudhu brothers is a land mark event in the history of Tamil Nadu.
7. It is also known as “South Indian Rebellion”.

Question 7.
Point out the importance of the Treaty of 1801.
Answer:
Under the terms of the Carnatic Treaty of 31 July 1801, the British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakkarar system came to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Velunachiyar

(a) Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?
Answer:
The military chief of Velunachiyar was ‘Thandavarayanar’.

(b) What were the martial arts in which she was trained?
Answer:
Velunachiyar had training in martial arts like valari, stick fighting and to wield weapons.

(c) Whom did she marry?
Answer:
She married Muthu Vadugar the Raja of Sivagangai.

(d) What was the name of her daughter?
Answer:
Her daughter name was Vellachinachiyar.

Question 2.
Dheeran Chinnamalai
(а) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
Answer:
Dheeran Chinnamalai was born in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of Palayakottai.

(b) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
Answer:
Once when Tipu’s diwan Mohammed Ali was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked his way and took back all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by instructing him to tell his Sultan that ‘Chinnamalai; who is between Sivamalai and Chinnamalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus, he gained the name ‘Dheeran Chennamalai’.

(c) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.
Answer:
Mohammed Ali

(d) Why and where was he hanged to death?
Answer;
He was hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort on 31 July 1805 because he refused to accept the rule of the British.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay of the heroic fight Veerapandya Kattabomman conducted against the East India Company.
Answer:
Several events led to the conflicts between Veerapandiya Kattabomman and the East India Company.
Event 1:

1. Under the provisions of a treaty signed in 1781 with Mysore Sultan the East India Company gained the right to collect taxes from Panchalamkurichi where Veerapandiya Kattabommman was the ruler.
2. The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the Palayams.
3. The collectors adopted force and humiliated the Palayakaras to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Event 2: Collector Jackson against the wish of the Madras Government wanted to send an army to collect the revenue dues from Kattabomman.

1. The arrogant English collector ordered Kattabomman to meet him in. Ramanathapuram. But Kattabomman’s attempts became futile as Jackson refused to meet him.
2. At last Kattabomman was made to stand for three hours before the haughty collector in Ramanathapuram.
3. Sensing danger Kattabomman with his brother’s help escaped from that place.
4. Kattabomman on his return to Panchalamkurichi represented to the Madras Council about his ill treatment by the collector Jackson.
5. Kattabomman appeared before the committee on 15th December 1798 and proved that he was not committed any offence.
6. He cleared almost all the revenue arrears.
7. Jackson was dismissed from his service.

Event 3: Inspired by the Marudhu brothers Tiruchirapaili proclamation Kattabomman was interested to join the confederacy.

1. Kattabomman and Marudhu brothers jointly decided on a confrontation with the English.
2. Kattabomman advanced towards Sivagiri who was a tributary to the company.
3. So the company considered Kattabomman’s expedition as a challenge to their authority.
4. Under the command of Bannerman on 1st September 1799 an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.
5. The evasive reply of Kattabomman made Bannerman to attack the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.
6. Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai.
7. The Britsh put a prize on his head.
8. Betrayed by the Rajas of Ettayapuram and Pudukottai Kattabomman was arrested.
9. During the trial before all the Palayakkarars he bravely admitted all the charges levelled against him.
10. He was hanged to death at Kayatharu near Tirunelveli on 16th October.
11. His courageousness and bravery was enacted as ballads by Indian folks.

Question 2.
Highlight the tragic fall of Sivagangai and its outcome.
Answer:
In May 1801, the English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Tiruchirappalli. The rebels went to Piranmalai and Kalayarkoil. But they were defeated by the forces of the English. In the end, the able commanders of the English company helped. Unfortunately, the rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.
Outcomes

• The Marudhu brothers were executed in the fort of Tirupathur near Ramanathapuram on 24 October 1801.
• Oomaithurai and Sevathaiah were captured and beheaded at Panchalamkuruchi on 16 November 1801.
• Seventy-three rebels were exiled to Penang in Malaya.
• Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generations.

Question 3.
Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806.
Answer:
Causes for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806:

1. The Sepoys in the British Indian Army had a strong sense of resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.
2. The English officers disrespect for the social and religious sentiments of the Indian sepoys also angered them.
3. Many sepoys families were in dire economic straits due to out break of famine in 1805 and the unsettled conditions caused by new land tenures.
4. The imprisonment of Tipu’s sons and the family members in Vellore Fort.

The immediate cause for the revolt was triggered by the new military regulations introduced by the Commander in Chief Sir John Cradock.

1. The Indian soldiers were not allowed to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform.
2. They were asked to shave their beard and trim the moustache to look smart.
3. The most resented cause was the leather cockade made of animal skin.
4. The sepoys were compelled to wear the turban and those who refused were severely punished.
5. In 10^th July 1806 in the early hours guns were booming and the Indian sepoys of the regiments 1^st and 23^rd raised their standard of revolt.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Teacher can ask the students to prepare an album of patriotic leaders of early revolts against the British rule in Tamil Nadu. Using their imagination they can also draw pictures of different battles in which they attained martyrdom.
Answer:
Few names of the patriotic leaders of the’early revolt against the British mle in Tamil Nadu are listed below.

1. Subramaniya Bharathiyar
2. Kumaraswamy Mudaliar (popularly known as Tiruppur Kumaran)
3. Velunachiyar
4. Vanchinathan
5. Veerapandia Kattabomman
6. V.O. Chidambaram
7. Dheeran Chinnamalai
8. Subramaniya Siva
9. The Maruthu Pandiyar brothers (Periya Maruthu, Chinna Maruthu)
10. Puli Thevar

Students can collect pictures of the above mentioned patriotic leaders and paste it in a notebook, prepare an album and submit to the teacher. Below the picture, student should also write the name of the patriotic leader below the picture.

If the student is very good in drawing skills, then instead of pasting pictures, they can also draw two or three of the patriotic leaders images and write their name below and prepare an album. Students can also use their creativity, imagine a battle field and can portrait that also.

Question 2.
Stage play visualising the conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman be attempted by students with the help of teachers.
Answer:
Stage play – Conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman.
Participants: Characters – Kattabomman, Subramanianar, Oomaithurai, Collector Jackson, Company officials soldiers.

Scence – 1 Kattabomman’s Court.

A company official reading the notice issued by collector Jackson. (Kattabomman’s soldier asking permission to let in the company official)

Sepoy : Maharaja, English East India Company’s servant brought a message for you. Shall I ask him to let in. I seek your permission.

Kattabomman : Allow him. (Servant entry)

Kattabomman: What message you have brought?

Servant : Maharaja (Reading the message)
I, “The collector of Ramnad” issuing order to Kattabomman to meet in person.

Kattabomman : yes you can go

Scene – 2

Kattabomman and his Minister and some soldiers going to meet Jackson after hearing he was camping at placard showing courtallam.

Collector has gone Srivilliputtur (Voice)

Placard showing Srivilliputur (You are asked to come to Ramanathapuram)

Scene – 3 (Ramanathapuram Fort)

Kattabomman waiting outside the gate to meet the Collector. After lhour he was asked to get inside the court of collector Jackson.

Jackson: Not noticing him wantedly I am
Kattabomman: I am kattabomman who is collector Jackson.
Jackson: Got angry Hay who are you nian calling me by name?
Kattabomman: I am Kattabomman wants to know who you are? Asking me the question.
(Further got irritated)
Jackson: I am collector Jackson. Are you the defiant Kattabomman.
Kattabomman: I want to know for what reason I was asked to come over here. As a coward ran and came to Ramanathapuram Mr. Jackson.
Jackson: Shut up man. You have the charge on you that you didn’t pay neither the tribute not the tax arrears.
(Irritated by his command)
Kattabomman: Whom do you expect to pay tribute or Taxes. Me? Why I should pay taxes. It’s our land the nature is giving water to the field. We the people till the land, sow the seeds plant the saplings watered the field, nurtured the plants, removed the weeds. What work you have done for asking the tax.
Jackson: Hay man Kattabomman you are talking too much, Your region belong to us.
Kattabomman: (Laughing) Is it so? Who gave you the right of possession?
Jackson: (Furiated yelling) Guards arrest him.
(Guards entry)
Kattabomman: Sensing the danger took out the sword (fighting and escaping from that place)
(screen)

Question 3.
A comparative study of Vellore Revolt and 1857 Revolt by students be tried enabling them to find out to what extent Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.
Answer:
Common causes for the Revolt at Vellore and Revolt of 1857.

Vellore Revolt:

1. Most of the soldiers in the British army were well trained soldiers from various Palayams. Hindus and Muslims majority Indian Troops.
2. Resentment over low salary promotion prospects
3. New dress code, rules and regulations affected the religions sentiments.
4. Uprising was well planned and raised by the soldiers at Vellore Fort shot down many colonels
5. Immediate cause introduction of Agnew Turban- a leather hat made of animal skin.
6. Soldiers were forced to wear the Turban.
7. Spread to other areas Bellary, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Sankagiri, Walajabad, Nandy durg.
8. Fateh hyder Tipu’s son was declared as their leader.

Revolt of 1857:

1. Most of the soldiers were from Sikhs, Hindus and Muslims. Out numbered the English officers.
2. Same point of view low salary inferior out look of the English officers.
3. Conversion activities interference in the Indian culture affected their sentiments.
4. Revolt originated from Bengal regiment.
5. Introduction of Greased cartridges smeared with animal fat.
6. Indian soldiers were compelled to use the cartridges.
7. Spead to Kanpur, Delhi, Oudh, Jhansi, Lucknow, Bihar etc.
8. Emperor Bahadhur Shah II of Delhi was made to sit on the throne and declared as the emperor of India.

These points clearly shows that the Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions And Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Palayakkarars in Tamil refers to the:
(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.
(b) Revenue collectors of the British
(c) Rebels of the Carnatic region
(d) Commanders of Nawab of Arcot
Answer:
(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.

Question 2.
Palayakkarars police duties were known as ……………….
(a) Padikaval
(b) Village Kaval
(c) Irravu Kaval
Answer:
(a) Padikaval

Question 3.
The first female ruler of Sivagangai who resisted the colonial power of the British:
(a) Jhansi Rani Lakshmibai
(b) Rani Mangammal
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Kuyili
Answer:
(c) Velunachiyar

Question 4.
Puli Thevar was defeated by …………… in 1767.
(a) Khan Sahib
(b) Captain Campbell
(c) Hyder Ali
Answer:
(b) Captain Campbell

Question 5.
The British commander who put down the Vellore revolt was:
(a) Bannerman
(b) William Bentinck
(c) Sir John cradock
(d) Colonel Gillespie
Answer:
(d) Colonel Gillespie

Question 6.
Who was Mahfuzkhan?
(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot
(b) Minister of the Nawab of Arcot
(c) Brother of Yusuf Khan
(d) Indian sepoy in the British army
Answer:
(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot

Question 7.
Veerapandiya Kattabomman was the Palayakkarar of :
(a) Sivagangai
(b) sivagiri
(c) Madurai
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(d) Panchalamkurichi

Question 8.
Where did Kattabomman escape?
(a) Ettayapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Pudukottai
(d) Tarapuram
Answer:
(c) Pudukottai

Question 9.
On his return to Panchalamkurichi ………………….. represented to the Madras council.
(a) Kattabomman
(b) Marudhu brothers
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Dheeran chinnamalai
Answer:
(a) Kattabomman

Question 10.
Which city was annexed at the end of the Anglo-Mysore War in 1799?
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Panchalamkuruchi
(d) Pudukottai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 11.
Jackson was dismissed from service and a new collector ………………….. was appointed.
(a) Syed
(b) Clarke
(c) William Brown
(d) S.R Lushington
Answer:
(d) S.R Lushington

Question 12.
Kattabomman cleared all the revenue arrears leaving only a balance of ………………….. pagodas.
(a) 1180
(b) 1080
(c) 1801
(d) 1108
Answer:
(b) 1080

Question 13.
Yadhul Nayak was the Palayakkarar of:
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Dindigul
(c) Anamalai
(d) Kamudhi
Answer:
(c) Anamalai

Question 14.
Oomathurai and Sevathaiah the two brothers of Kattabomman escaped from the Palayamkottai prison to:
(a) Kamudhi
(b) Sivagangai
(c) Kerala
(d) Thiruchirappalli
Answer:
(a) Kamudhi

Question 15.
………………….. involved in setting the disputes in the Kongu region.
(a) Dheeran chinnamalai
(b) Velunachiyar
(c) Oomathurai
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Dheeran chinnamalai

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The word ………………….. means a domain a military camp or a little kingdom.
2. The Palayakkararsystem was in practice during the rule of ………………….. of warangal in the Kakatiya kingdom.
3. The police duties of Palayakkarars were known as …………………..
4. The Palayakkarars of Sivagiri, Ettayapuram and Panchalamkurichi did not join the confederacy of …………………..
5. The unity of the Palayakkarars began to break with the …………………..
6. In 1772 under the command of ………………….. stormed the kalaiyar kovil palace.
7. The South Indian confederacy was organised by
8. The forces of Diwan of Mysore and Chinnamalai fought at
9. The failed because there was no immediate help from outside.
10. The was the predecessor of the great Revolt of 1857.
11. Under poligar system was given for valuable military services rendered by any individual.
12. The began to consolidate and extend its influence after the three carnatic wars in Tamil Nadu.
13. ………………….. the Minister of viswanatha Nayaka helped him to introduce Palayakkarar system in Tamil Nadu.
14. The Palayakkarar system lasted for from ………………….. the Nayaks of Madurai.
15. Within their respective Palayams Palayakkarars function as ………………….. authorities.
16. Traditionally there were ………………….. Palayakkarars created by Nayak rulers.
17. Many Palayakkarars refused to pay taxes to the company as their lands handed down to them over …………………..
18. The company branded ………………….. as rebels.
19. Mahfuzkhan was the brother of …………………..
20. ………………….. was sent with a contingent army under colonel Heron to capture Tirunelveli and Madurai.
21. Mahfuzkhan had the support of ………………….. and ………………….. from the carnatic to capture Tirunelveli.
22. Two thousand soldiers from ………………….. joined the forces of Puli Thevar at kalakad.
23. The Palayakkarars of Tirunelveli under Puli Thevar constantly rebelled against
24. Yusufkhan’s (Khan sahib) original name was ………………….. before his conversion to Islam.
25. The ………………….. from Tiruchirappalli arrived in September 1760 to assist Yusufkhan to attack Puli Thevar.
26. The battering of ………………….. by Yusufkhan took two months.
27. Expel of French power from Pondicherry made Travancore, ………………….., Uthumalai and ………………….. to support the English.
28. The ………………….. was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764 by the company.
29. Captain ………………….. defeated Puli Thevar in 1767.
30. Puli Thevar escaped and died in …………………..
31. Velunachiyar was under the protection of Gopala Nayak for ………………….. years.
32. At the age of 16 ………………….. was married to Muthuvadugar of Sivagangai.
33. Dalavay means …………………..
34. In behalf of Velunachiyar Dalavai ………………….. wrote a letter to Sultan Hyder AN seeking military assistance.
35. Hyder Ali ordered his commandant ………………….. in Dindigul Fort to provide required military assistance to Velunachiyar.
36. Kuyili faithful friend of Velunachiyar led a unit of women soldiers named after …………………..
37. ………………….. was the shepherd girl who was killed by the company for not divulging information on kuyili the commander.
38. The company’s administrators ………………….. and ………………….. considered Kattabomman a man of peaceful disposition.
39. To meet out the expenses of Nawab and his family ………………….. of the revenue (taxes) collection was allowed.
40. The land revenue arrear from Kattabomman was ………………….. pagodas in 1798.
41. The did not give permission to collector Jackson to send an army to Panchalamkurichi to collect dues from Kattabomman.
42. Kattabomman’s Minister ………………….. accompanied him to Ramanathapuram to met collector Jackson.
43. In a clash at the gate of Ramanathapuram Fort English officer ………………….. was killed.
44. In may 1799 ………………….. issued orders from Madras for the advance of forces to Tirunelveli.
45. Bannerman moved his entire army to Panchalamkurichi on …………………..
46. ………………….. gathered all the secrets of the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.
47. In a clash at ………………….. Sivasubramanianar was taken a prisoner.
48. Kattabomman escaped to …………………..
49. ………………….. was executed at Nagalapuram on 13th September.
50. Kattabomman was hanged from a ………………….. in the old Fort of Kayathar.

Answers:

1. Palayam
2. Prataba Rudhra
3. Padikaval or Arasukaval
4. Puli Thevar
5. elimination of French power from Pondicherry
6. Lt. Col Bon Jour
7. Marudhu brothers of Sivagangai
8. Noyyal river bed
9. Vellore Revolt
10. Vellore Revolt
11. Palayam
12. English East India Company
13. Ariyanathar
14. two hundred years
15. independent sovereign
16. 72
17. sixty generations
18. defiant Palayakkarars
19. Nawab of Arcot
20. Mahfuzkhan
21. cavalry and foot soldiers
22. Travancore
23. Nawab’s authority
24. Marudhunayagam
25. artillary
26. Nerkkatumseval Fort
27. Seithur, Surandai
28. Yusufkhan
29. Campbell
30. exile
31. eight
32. Velunachiyar
33. Military chief
34. Thandavarayanar
35. Syed
36. Udaiyal
37. Udaiyal
38. James London, Colin Jackson
39. one- sixth
40. 3310
41. Madras Government
42. Sivasubramanianar
43. Lietenant Clarke
44. Lord Wellesley
45. 5th September 1799
46. Ramalinganar
47. Kallarpatti
48. Pudukottai
49. Sivasubramanianar
50. Tamarind tree

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Velunachiyar organised an army and succeeded in securing an alliance with Hyder Ali.
(ii) Hyder Ali provided the required military assistance to Velunachiyar
(iii) A fierce battle was fought at Devadanampatti.
(iv) Velunachiyar escaped with her daughter and lived in Ramanathapuram.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dheeran chinnamalai was trained by the French.
(ii) He launched Gwerilla attack and evaded capture by the British.
(iii) He was born at Coimbatore,
(iv) He refused to accept the rule of the British.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Coimbatore was annexed at the end of the Anglo – Mysore was in 1799.
(ii) The status of Raja of Thanjavur had been reduced to that of a vassal.
(iii) English East India company acquired the revenue districts of salem and Dindigul from Tipu.
(iv) A treaty was forced on Marudhu brothers on the charge of disloyalty.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Kattabomman took an expedition to Sivagiri to influence to join Marudhu brothers.
Reason (R): Palayakkarars of Sivagiri was a tributory to the company of the British. They refuse to join.
(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is Wrong
(c) A is wrong ans R is correct
(d) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Chinna Marudhu collected 20,000 men to challenge the English army and many Palayakkarars joined, but failed.
Reason (R): Divide and Rule Policy of the British split the forces of the Palayakkarars.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The Nawab of Arcot gave the power of collecting revenue to the English East India company from southern Palayakkarars.
Reason (R): The company branded the defiant Palayakkarars as rebels.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation to A.
Answer:
(a) A is correct R is wrong

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Carnatic treaty.
Answer:
The suppression of the Palayakkarar rebellions of 1799 and 1800-1801 resulted in the liquidation of all the local chieftains of Tamil Nadu. Under the terms of the Carnatic treaty of 31 July 1801. The British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakarar system to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

Question 2.
Why was the Revenue collection of the southern Palayakkarars was given to the company Rule?
Answer:

1. Nawab of Arcot had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the camatic wars.
2. When the debts exceeded his capacity to pay, he gave the Revenue Collection Authority to the company rule.

Question 3.
Write a note on Hyder Ali.
Answer:
Hyder Ali was the ruler of Mysore. He was a bitter enemy of England. He was born in 1772. Though he started his career as a soldier, he rose to the position of commander-in-chief. In 1766, when the Raja of Mysore died, Hyder Ali proclaimed himself as the ruler and became the Sultan of Mysore. Tipu Sultan was the son of Hyder Ali.

Question 4.
Name the three major ports of Puli Thevar. When did these forts come under the control of Yusuf Khan?
Answer:
The three major ports of Puli Thevar were Nerkattumseval, Vasudevanallur and Panayur. In 16th May 1761 they came under the control of Yusufkhan.

Question 5.
What does the word ‘Palayam’ mean? What does the Palayakkarar in Tamil refer to?
Answer:
The word ‘Palayam’ means a domain, military camp, or a little kingdom. The Palayakkarar in Tamil refers to the holder of a little Kingdom as a feudatory to a greater sovereign.

Question 6.
Write about the brave act of Kuyili the friend of Velunachiyar.
Answer:

1. Kiyili was a faithful friend of velunachiyar.
2. She led the unit of women soldiers.
3. Kuyili is said to have walked in to the British arsenal (1780) after setting herself on fire, destroying all the ammunition.

Question 7.
Why did the Nawab of Arcot borrow money from the East India company? What happened when his debts exceeded his capacity to pay?
Answer:
The Nawab of Arcot borrowed money from the East India company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars. When his debts exceeded his capacity to pay, the power of collecting the land revenue dues from southern Palayakkarars was given to the East India company.

Question 8.
How the Rebellion of Marudhu brothers referred as and who participated in the rebellion?
Answer:
In the British records the rebellion of Marudhu brothers (1800) is referred as the “Second Palayakkarar war”.

Those who participated in the Rebellion were: Marudhu Pandiyar of Sivagangai, Gopala Nayak of a Dindigul, Kerala verma of Malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaj i of Mysore.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Siege of Panchalamkuruchi
(a) Why did Lord Wellesley issue orders in May 1799?
Answer:
Lord Wellesley issued orders in May 1799 for the advance of forces from Tiruchirapalli, Thanjavur, and Madurai to Tirunelveli.

(b) Who commanded the troops?
Answer:
Major Bannerman commanded the troops.

(c) What commanded the troops?
Answer:
On 1st September 1799, an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) Why did Bannerman depute Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort?
Answer:
Bannerman deputed Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort so that he could convey a message asking him (Kattabomman) to surrender.

Question 2.
Consequences of Vellore Revolt

(a) Where was Tipu’s sons imprisoned after the revolt?
Answer:
Tipu’s sons were sent to Calcutta after the revolt.

(b) What was the reward given to the people who suppressed the revolt?
Answer:
Col. Gillespie was given 7,000 pagodas. The officers and men engaged in the suppression were rewarded with prize money and promotion.

(c) Name the English Generals who were removed from their office?
Answer:
Col. Sir John Cradock, Adjutant General Agnew and Governor William Bentinck were removed from their office.

(d) What was withdrawn after the revolt?
Answer:
The military regulations were withdrawn after the revolt.

Question 3.
New Military Regulations
(a) What were the Indian soldiers asked to do according to new’ military regulation?
Answer:
According to the new military regulation the Indian soldiers were asked not to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform. They were to be cleanly shaven on the chin and maintain uniformity how their moustache looked.

(b) How did the new turban add fuel to fire?
Answer:
The new turban was the leather cockade made of animal skin.

(c) How did the sepoys react to the new turban?
Answer:
The sepoys refused to wear the new turban.

(d) What was the Company’s reaction?
Answer:
The company remained silent. It did not pay any notice to the sepoys grievances.

Question 4.
The Seige of Panchalamkurichi

(a) From which regions forces were sent to Tirunelveli?
Answer:
From the regions of Tiruchirappali, Thanjavur and Madurai sent to Tirunelveli.

(b) Which troops joined the British later?
Answer:
The Travancore troops joined the British later.

(c) What was served on Kattabomman and for what purpose?
Answer:
An ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) What was the response of Kattabomman?
Answer:
Kattabomman refused to surrender.

Question 5.
Proclamation of 1801

(a) Who issued the proclamation of 1801?
Answer:
Marudhu pandiyar issued the proclamation of Independence 1801.

(b) Why did they issue the proclamation?
Answer:
The proclamation was an early call to the Indians to unite.

(c) Where was the copies of proclamation pasted?
Answer:
The proclamation was pasted on the walls of Nawab’s palace in Tiruchirappalli Fort and on the walls of Srirangam temple.

(d) From where did the forces reinforced to fight with the revolters?
Answer:
British reinforcements were rushed from Bengal, Ceylon and Malaya.

Question 6.
Grievances of Indian Soldiers

(a) Who deliberate on the future course of action against the company Government?
Answer:
The dispossessed little kings and feudal chieftains.

(b) What was the culmination of the Palayakkarar wars?
Answer:
The Vellore Revolt of 1806

(c) What were the resentment of British Indian army?
Answer:
The British Indian army had a strong resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.

(d) What bothered the Indian sepoys much?
Answer:
The new recruitment of the sepoys to the army.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a brief note on Vellore Mutiny.
Answer:

• The British administration prohibited the Hindu soldiers from smearing religious marks on their foreheads.
• They ordered the Muslims to shave their beard and trim their moustache.
• This created a strong resentment among the soldiers.
• Instigated by the sons of Tipu, the revolting soldiers gathered in the Vellore fort, under the pretext of a marriage function.
• At midnight the soldiers surrounded the fort and killed most of the Europeans.
• They unfurled the flag of Tipu over the fort.
• Fateh Hyder, the second Son of Tipu was declared as the ruler.
• But the revolt was crushed by the British.

Question 2.
How did Velunachiyar able to get back her territory (Sivagangai)?
Answer:

1. Velunachiyar during her period of hiding organised an army.
2. She succeeded in securing an alliance with not only Gopala Nayakar (Virupachi near Dindigul) but Hyder Ali as well.
3. She was affluent in Urdu. Velunachiyar explained in detail in urdu all the problems she had with East India Company.
4. She conveyed her strong determination to fight the English.
5. Impressed by her courage, Hyder Ali ordered his commandant Syed in Dindigal fort to provide the necessary military assistance.
6. Velunachiyar employed agents for gathering intelligence to find where the British had stored ammunition.
7. With military assistance from Gbpala Nayakar and Hyder Ali she recaptured Sivagangai.
8. She was crowned as queen with the help of Marudhu brothers.
9. She was the first female ruler to resist the British colonial power in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Dindigul League.
Answer:

1. The famous Dindigul league was headed by Gopala Nayak, the Palayakkarar of virupachi.
2. He formed the league with Lakshmi Nayak of Manaparai and poojai Nayak of Devadanapatti.
3. He drew the inspiration from Tipu Sultan, who sent a deputation to show his camaraderie.
4. He led the resistance against the British from Coimbatore and later joined Oomaidurai, Kattabomman’s brother.
5. He put up a fierce fight at Aanamalai hills.
6. The local peasants gave him full support.
7. But Gopala Nayak was overpowered by the British forces in 1801.

Question 4.
Give an account of Marudhu brothers Rebellion of 1800.
Answer:

1. Despite the suppression of Kattabomman’s revolt in 1799 rebellion broke out again in 1800.
2. In the British records it is referred to as the second Palayakkarar war.
3. In April 1800 the confederacy consisting of Marudhu Pandiyars of Sivagangai, GopalaNayak of Dindigul, Kerala verma of malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaji of Mysore met at Virupachi and decided to organise an uprising against the company.
4. The Uprising, which broke out in Coimbatore in June 1800, soon spread to Ramanathapuram and Madurai.
5. The company got wind of it and declared war on Krishnappa Nayak of Mysore, Kerala Verma of Malabar and others.
6. The Palayakars of Coimbatore, Sathyamangalam, and Tarapuram were caught and hanged.
7. In February 1801, the two brothers of Kattabomman, Oomathurai and Sevathaiah escaped from Palayamkottai prison and Chinna Marudhu took them to Siruvayal his capital.
8. The English demanded the Marudhu Pandiyars to hand over fugitives but they refused.
9. Col.Agnew and Col.Innes marched on Sivagangai.
10. In June 1801 Marudhu Pandyars issued a proclamation of independence the Tiruchirappalli proclamation.
11. The rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.

VIII. Map Study

Mark important centres of Early revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu.

Map: Centres of Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1829

Question 2.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Whose voice was Rast Goftarl
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das
(b) Baba Ramsingh
(c) Gurunanak
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Baba Ramsingh

Question 6.
Who was Swami Shradhananda?
(a) a disciple of Swami Vivekananda
(b) one who caused a split in the Brahmo Samaj of India
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj
(d) founder of Samathuva Samajam
Answer:
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj

Question 7.
Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Devendranath Tagore
(c) Jvotiba Phule
(d) Ayvankali
Answer:
(a) M.G. Ranade

Question 8.
Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi
(b) Vaikunda Swamy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Swami Shradanatha
Answer:
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi

II. Fill in the blanks

1.  …………….. founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
2. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was ……………..
3. Satyashodak Samaj was launched by ……………..
4. Gulumgir was written by ……………..
5. Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of ……………..
6. Ramakrishna Mission was established by ……………..
7. …………….. was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
8. …………….. brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
9. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by ……………..

Answers:

1. Ramalinga Adigal
2. M.G.Ranade
3. Jyothika Phule
4. Jyothika Phule
5. Vivekanandha
6. Singh Sabha
7. Narayana Guru and Ayyankali
8. Jyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
(ii) He encouraged idolatry
(iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
(iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i),(ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
(ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
(iv) Prarthana Samaj had it’s origin in the Punjab.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care, relief in time of calamities.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
(iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
(iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) alone correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
(b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
Answer:
Maharashi Debendranath Tagore laid down the following four articles of faith –

1. In the beginning, there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created the Universe.
2. He alone is the Good of truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness and Power, eternal, omnipresent, the One without second.
3. Our salvation depends on belief in him and in his worship in this world and the next.
4. Belief consists in loving him and doing his will.

Question 2.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:
Ranade was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and the Deccan Educational Society.

Question 3.
Assess the role of Ayyankali in fighting for the cause of “untouchables.”
Answer:
Ayyankali brought social tremendous changes especially in caste structure. The discrimination he faced as a child turned him into a leader of an anti-caste movement and who later fought for basic rights including access to public spaces and entry to schools. Ayyankali challenged many caste conventions such as clothing style, he wore clothes associated with upper castes that were prohibited for lower castes.

Question 4.
Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
Answer:
Ramalinga Adigal showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants, This he called as Jeevakarunya. He established in 1865, “Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sathya Sanga” which means Society for pure truth in Universal self-hood. He also established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Swami Vivekananda’s activist ideology?
Answer:
Vivekananda’s activist ideology related to the desire for political change among many western eductated young Bengalis. Many of the youths, who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement, following the Partition of Bengal, were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 6.
What are the differences between Reformist Movements and Revival Movements?
Answer:
Reformist movement means a movement to reform (or) bring positive changes in the Social or religious institution of a society.

Revival movement means to give a new life to the social or religious institution of a society which seems to be dying or being diluted.

Question 7.
List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
The Brahmo Samaj raised voice against:

1. Caste system
2. Dowry
3. Ill-treatment of women
4. Polygamy
5. Infanticide

Question 8.
Highlight the work done by -Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor and the marginalized.
Answer:
Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows. He opened the first school for untouchables in 1852 in Poona. He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage.

Question 9.
What was the impact of IyotheeThassar’s visit to SriLanka?
Answer:
Jyothee Thassar went to Sri Lanka in 1898 and converted into Buddhism. In the same year, he founded the Sakya Buddhist Society at Madras to construct the rational religious philosophy through Buddhist religion. He argued that the so-called untouchables were orginally Buddhists who were sligmatised by Brahminism. He stated that the revival of Buddhism could leberate the people from the evil of caste practice that afflicted the Hindu society.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Aligarh Movement

(i) What is the main aim of this Movement?
Answer:
The main aim of this movement, was to improve the community of Muslims by giving them education, especially is western education and take up government services.

(ii) Who is considered the soul-of this Movement?
Answer:
Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan is considered the soul of this movement

(iii) Why were English books translated into Urudu?
Answer:
English books were translated into Urdu. So that the interest of the Muslims would be best served if it is in Urdu and to concentrate on it.

(iv) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
Answer:
The college was raised to the status of a University in 1920 was Aligarh Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental college.

Question 2.
Ramalinga Adigal

(i) What is Jeevakarunya?
Answer:
It is showing compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.

(ii) What are the Songs of Grace?
Answer:
His voluminous songs that were compiled and published under the title Thiruvarupta are called Songs of Grace.

(iii) Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam?
Answer:
‘Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam’ means ‘Society for Pure Truth in Universal self-hood.

(iv) Where did he establish his free feeding house?
Answer:
He established a free feeding houses for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Question 3.
Deoband Movement

(i) Who were the organizers of this Movement?
Answer:
The organizers of Deoband movement was the orthodox Muslim Ulema.

(ii) What were the two main objectives of the Movement?
Answer:
(a) The twin objective of this movement were propagating the pure teaching of the Quran and the Hadith.
(b) Encouraging the spirit of Jihad against the foreign and the un- islamic elements.

(iii) Who founded the school at Deoband?
Answer:
The Ulema under the leadership of Muhammad QasimWanotavi and Rashid Ahamad Gangotri founded the school at Deoband in U.R

(iv) Against whom the fatwa was issued by Deoband Ulema?
Answer:
The Deoband Ulema issued a religious decree (Fatwa) against Syed Ahmed Khan’s organisation called the United Patriotic Association and The Muhammaden Anglo-Oriental Association.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the contributions of Revivalist Movements with that of Reform Movements.
Answer:
The Indian reformists were quite hesitant to subject their old notions and habits to critical scrutiny. Instead they attempted to harmonise both Indian and Western cultures. However, their ideas and their actions helped to mitigate social evils such as sati, female infanticide, and child marriage, and all kinds of superstitious religious beliefs. Reformist movements like the Brahmo Samaj, the Prathana Samaj and the Aligarh Movement. These movements brought considerable reforms in the contemporary society.

Revivalist movements tended to revive former customs or practices and thus take the society back to the glorious past. The Deoband Movement was a revivalist movement, organised by the orthodox Muslim Ulimas other such movements included the Arya Samaj, the Ramakrishna Mission.

Question 2.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:

1. Introduction of English Education made the Indians think that the British aim is to produce English educated middle class clerks.
2. The People came under the influence of Western ideas and thoughts.
3. The Propaganda of Christianity in India which served Britains imperial interests.
4. Many Indian scholars such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Keshab Chandra Sen contributed to bring a change in the social institutions of the country.
5. The Reformists were deeply concerned with the existed social evils like sati, child marriage and Polygamy.
6. Following the organisational structure of Christian missionaries, Indian reformers wanted to establish reform movements.
7. All over India, there set to begin a social awakening on the eradication of terrible caste tyranny.
8. The reformers strived hard to bring back the glorious past of India.

Question 3.
Evaluate the contributions of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and Swami Vivekananda to regenerate Indian society.
Answer:
Ramakrishna Paramhamsa and Vivekananda have played a big role in regenerating the Indian society.

Ramakrishna Paramhamsa: He was a simple priest of Dakshineshwar near Calcutta. He gained popularity in the latter half of the nineteenth century. He emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices such as singing bhagan. He was an ardent worshipper of goddess Kali. In his view, all religions contain the universal elements which, if practised, would lead to salvation. He said, “Jiva in Siva” (all living beings are God). They need service not mercy service for man, must be regarded as God. He attracted educated youth who were dissatisfied with the rational orientation of religious reform organisations such as the Brahmo Samaj.

Swami Vivekananda: He was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramhamsa. He emphasised a cultural nationalism and made a call to Indian youth to regenerate Hindu society. His ideas bred a sense of self-confidence among Indians who felt inferior in relations to the materialistic achievements of the west. He suggested that the lower castes should be allowed to engage in the Hindu rituals from which they were traditionally excluded. His activist ideology rekindled the desire for political change among many western educated young Bengalis. Many of the youths who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 4.
Write an essay on the role played by the 19^th century reformers towards the cause of Women.
Solution:

1. The position of women in India during the 19^th century was miserable. They were not treated equal to men and they were denied rights.
2. The Social reformers of the 19th century played a significant role in bringing an awakening to the people that women’s participation will strengthen the society.
3. The reformers strongly advocated education for women.
4. Raja Ram Mohan Roy with the help of the Governor General of British, William Bentinck abolished Sati in 1829.
5. He advocated the rights of widows to remarry and wanted polygamy to come to an end. He also raised voice against child marriage.
6. Reformer Vidyasagar led a movement by which ‘Widows Remarriage Reform Act’ of 1856 was intended
7. to improve the lot of child widows and save them perpetual widowhood.
8. Reformer Jyothiba Phule opened Orphanages and homes for widows.
9. Sikh Reform movement prohibited the dowry system and child marriage.
10. Reformer Iyothee Thessar considered education as an important tool for empowerment for women and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools for the Untouchables in Tamil Nadu.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Debate Social evils of 19^th century with those of present day.
Answer:
The list below shows the social evil of 19^th century and of the present day. The students should form themselves as separate groups one supporting the 19th century and the other supporting present day. The judgement of the debate can be.

There should be great reformers like that of the 19^th century and eradicate the social evils of today. Education itself is a great reformer that should awaken the minds of the young children of today for not involving themselves in any of the social evil nor they see others doing it.

Social evils of 19^th century: Child Marriage, superstitious beliefs, Sati, not allowing widows to remarry denying education for women, caste differences, untouchability, Brahman domination.

Social evils of present day: Female Infanticide Dowry system, sexual harassment of women, (or) women safety, Domestic violence (or) violence at home . Drug trafficing, pollution (Air, sound and water) Hygiene and sanitation. Disobeying rules,everywhere and anywhere.

Question 2.
Students can write an assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.
Answer:
Assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.

Brahmo Samaj founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy denounces image worship and the caste system. In the 19^th century the society benefitted by this social reform. The movement lost force in the 20^th century its fundamentals are still accepted by the society.

Ramakrishna Mission: The Mission carries out extensive educational and Philanthropic work in India. They work on the principle of selfless work done with dedication to God. As of 2016, the Mission have 182 centers all over the world (136 in India, 13 in USA, 13 in Bangladesh, 2 in Russia) .Besides these, there are private centers all over the world run by the followers of Sri Ramakrishna and Vivekananda. The Mission has received numerous awards throughout its lifetime.

Theosophical society: The Theosophical society at Adyar is a beautiful campus with influence since its founders first arrived here in 1882. The society helps the nation even today by running Olcott Memorial High school in Tamil Nadu. They extend their help by various activities at times of disasters especially Tsunami in 2004. Now in Adyar , open all days except Saturday, Sunday public hoildays.

Arya Samaj: Arya Samaj established a chain of DAV educational institutions for the education of both boys and girls. It represented a form of national awakening of the Indian people. It adopts the programme of mass education, elimination of sub-castes and equality of men and women.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… was one of the earlier reformers influenced by the western ideas to initiate reforms.
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) M.G.Ranade
(d) Atma Ram Pandurang.
Answer:
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 2.
Lord William Bentinck passed an Act in 1829, to abolish “Sati” due to the efforts of
(a) Mrs. Annie Besant
(b) Lala Hansray
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 3.
Arya Samaj movement initiated its movement in ………………
(a) Assam
(b) Punjab
(c) Bihar
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Punjab

Question 4.
The headquarters of the Rama Krishna Mission is at
(a) Kanchipuram
(b) Belur
(c) Melur
Answer:
(b) Belur

Question 5.
Prarthana Samaj was founded in ………………
(a) Bihar
(b) Bombay
(c) Bengal
(d) Madras
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Question 6.
Sir Syed Ahamed Khan started the
(a) Aligarh movement
(b) Muslim League
(c) Theosophical Society
Answer:
(a) Aligarh movement

Question 7.
……………… was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramahansa
(a) Vivekananda
(b) Atma Ram Pandurang
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Keshab Chandra Sen
Answer:
(a) Vivekananda

Question 8.
A great socialist reformer from Kerala is
(a) Sree Narayana Guru
(b) Guru Nanak
(c) Guru Sai
Answer:
(a) Sree Narayana Guru

Question 9.
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha ………………
(a) 1849
(b) 1851
(c) 1850
(d) 1862
Answer:
(b) 1851

Question 10.
The Hindus who had been converted to other religions were reconverted by
(a) Swadeshi movement
(b) Suddhi movement
(c) National movement
Answer:
(b) Suddhi movement

Question 11.
Iyothee Thassar called the ……………… as Sathi Petham Atra Dravidar.
(a) Untouchables
(b) Parsis
(c) Akali
(d) Sikhs
Answer:
(a) Untouchables

Question 12.
……………… criticized the rule of British as the rule of White Devils.
(a) Ramalinga Adigal
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal
(c) Furdunji Naoroji
(d) Iyothee Thassar
Answer:
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 13.
……………… considered education as a powerful tool for empowerment and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools.
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Iyothee Thassar
(c) Vaikunda Swamigal
(d) Sree Narayan Guru
Answer:
(b) Iyothee Thassar

Question 14.
……………… raised funds and campaigned to educate the lower caste of Pulaya people.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Ramalinga Adigal
Answer:
(a) Ayyankali

Question 15.
……………… was called respectfully by his followers as Ayya.
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Namdhari
Answer:
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 16.
……………… launched the Satyashodak Samaj to stir the non-Brahmin masses to self-respect and ambition.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Jyotiba Phule.
(c) Narayana Guru
(d) Annie Besant
Answer:
(b) Jyotiba Phule.

Question 17.
……………… started a number of DAV Schools.
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Theosophical Society
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 18.
……………… worked mainly for the Ezhava community of Kerala.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) M.G. Ranade
Answer:
(b) Sree Narayan Guru

Question 19.
Deoband movement was a ……………… movement.
(a) Reform
(b) Revival
(c) Anti-Reform
(d) Anti-Revival
Answer:
(b) Revival

Question 20.
Rast Goftar was the main voice of ……………… movement.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) Parsi
(d) Vaikundar
Answer:
(c) Parsi

Question 21
……………… condemned the religious custom of animal sacrifice.
(a) Iyothee Thassar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Ramalinga
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Vaikundar

Question 22.
“I saw those people, poor and of unmatched honor, their hearts weary, and I grew weak” who said this”?
(a) Vallalar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Iyothee Thassar
(d) Deoband
Answer:
(a) Vallalar

Question 23.
……………… and ……………… are the Socio-religious movement among the Sikhs.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) (a), (b) and Akaii movement
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b)

Question 24.
……………… was the movement founded in USA and later shifted to India,
(a) Ramakrishna Mission
(b) Theosophical Society
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(b) Theosophical Society

Question 25.
……………… established the Khalsa college for the Sikhs in Amritsar.
(a) Namdhari
(b) Nirankari
(c) Singh Sabha
(d) Akaii
Answer:
(c) Singh Sabha

II. Fill in the blanks

1. English Education was introduced by British with the arm of producing …………….. in India.
2. In the 19th Century …………….. had its effect on the newly emerging middle class.
3. The Indian reformers attempted to harmonize both Indian and …………….. cultures.
4. The two categories of reform movements are: reform movements and …………….. movements.
5. Raja Ram Mohan Roy preached worship of …………….. God.
6. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s ideas forced Bentinck to bring legislation abolishing ……………..
7. Sati was abolished in the year ……………..
8. The Governor General …………….. helped in abolishing Sati in India.
9. Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
10. Brahmo Samaj was taken over by …………….. after the death of Ram Mohan Roy.
11. Keshab Chandra Sen joined the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
12. Widow Remarriage Reform Act was passed in the year ……………..
13. Gulamgiri was an important work written by ……………..
14. …………….. was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association.
15. …………….. was the founder of the Prarthana Samaj.
16. …………….. movement was similar to the Brahmo Samaj.
17. The age for marriage was fixed as …………….. years.
18. The age of marriage was raised to thirteen years in ……………..
19. The age of consent Act was passed in ……………..
20. Arya Samaj was initiated at ……………..
21. …………….. was the founder of Arya Samaj.
22. Strict monotheism was one of the main principle of ……………..
23. Swami Dayananda wrote the book ……………..
24. …………….. started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic Schools and Colleges.
25.  …………….. raised his voice as Go back to Vedas.
26. …………….. accused that the group running he DAV School is too Westernised.
27. …………….. worked as a priest in Kali temple but later became a great reformer.
28. “Jiva is Siva” means ……………..
29. The counter-conversion movement was called as ……………..
30. …………….. means songs of Ignorance.
31. The Theosophical Society was founded by …………….. and ……………..
32. The Theosophical movement was founded in the …………….. in 1875.
33. The Theosophical movement was in India at …………….. in Chennai in 1886.
34. Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas with the help of the newspapers called …………….. and ……………..
35. …………….. opened a first School for untouchables in 1852 in Poona.
36. Jyothi Phule launched the Truth Seekers Society in ……………..
37. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam is an organisation to uplift the ……………..
38. …………….. translated many English books especially Science books into Urdu.
39. …………….. raised funds to educate the lower class pulaya people.
40. …………….. started the Aligarh movement.
41. The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College was founded in the year ……………..
42. The Aligarh Anglo-Oriental College was raised to the status of a University in ……………..
43. …………….. used journalism as tool to make inroads into the print public sphere.
44. Ramalinga Adigal was popularly known as ……………..
45. Mercy to all living beings including plants is called ……………..
46. …………….. opposed both Infant marriages and the use of astrology.
47. …………….. was the founder of the Nirankari movement.
48. Nirankar movement worship the God as ……………..
49. Nirankar means ……………..
50. The Namdhari movement was founded by ……………..
51. …………….. cult was also known as Ayya Vazhi.
52. …………….. founded Samathura Samajam.
53. …………….. was a siddha medicine practitioner who turned into a reformer.
54. …………….. started a weekly journal Oru Paisa Tamilian.

Answers:

1. Clerks
2. Christianity
3. Western
4. Revival
5. One
6. Sati
7. 1829
8. Bentinck
9. 1828
10. Debendranath Tagore
11. 1857
12. 1856
13. JyotibaPhule
14. Ranade
15. Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
16. PrarthanaSamaj
17. Ten
18. 1925
19. 1860
20. Punjab
21. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
22. Arya Samaj
23. Satyartha Prakash
24. Arya Samaj
25. Swami Dayanda Saraswathi
26. Swami Shradhananda
27. Ramakrishna
28. All living beings are God
29. Suddi movement
30. Marutpa
31. Madame H.P Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott
32. USA
33. Adyar
34. New India and Commonweal
35. JyothiPhule
36. 1870
37. Depressed classes
38. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
39. Sadhu Jana paripalanasangam
40. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
41. 1875
42. 1920
43. IyotheeThassar
44. Vallalar
45. Jeeva karanga
46. Parsi Reform movement
47. Baba Dayal das
48. Nirankar
49. Formless
50. Baba Ram Singh
51. Vaikunda Swamigal
52. VaikundaSwamigal
53. Iyothee Thassar
54. Iyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statements

Question 1.
(i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy argued that the ancient texts of the Hindus preached Monotheism.
(ii) Brahmo Samaj failed to attract the people from the lower sections of society.
(iii) Its impact on the culture of modern Bengal and its middle class was quite significant.
(iv) The poet Rabindranath Tagore carried on the work of Brahmo Samaj after Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The age of marriage of initially fixed for 25 years.
(ii) Later it was reduced to thirteen years in 1925.
(iii) It was raised to eighteen in 1891.
(iv) Now, the law remained as twenty as in 1860 Act.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong

Question 3.
(i) Arya Samaj attempted to check the incidence of religious conversion in British India.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with God through the practice of singing bhajans.
(iii) Theosophical Society stimulated the study of the Christianity among people.
(iv) Savitribai Phule devoted her life for the upliftment of the depressed classes.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Narendra Nath Datta was known as Swami Vivekananda.
(ii) He became famous for his address on Hinduism at the Indian Congress of Hindus in Chicago in 1893.
(iii) Narayana Guru inspired Kerala Society especially among the Ezhavas.
(iv) inspired by Sree Narayana Guru, Ayyankali founded the Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas through her newspapers called New India and Commonweal.
(ii) Jyotiba Phule is chiefly known as the earliest leader of the non-Brahmin movement.
(iii) His work Gulamgiri is an important text that summarized many of his radical ideas.
(iv) Thinkers and writers such as Kumaran Asan and Dr. Palpu were influenced by Narayana Guru ideas.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.

Question 6.
(i) Deoband School did not prepare its students for the government jobs but for the preaching of Islamic faith.
(ii) In South Travancore, there were restrictions on lower caste people as to what to wear and not to wear.
(iii) lyothee Thassar established a movement called as Oru, Paisa Tamilian.
(iv) John Rathinam ideas were collected into a text called Akila Thirattu.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Keshab Chandra Sen was greatly influenced by Christianity. Reason (R): He was believing in its spirit, but not in the person of its founder.
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Reform movement Arya Samaj was started in Punjab. Reason (R): Swami Dayananda Saraswathi settled in Punjab to preach his ideas
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The primary achievement of the Ramakrishna was his ability to attract educated youths..
Reason (R): The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo vedic Schools and colleges.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Narayana Guru established a grand temple at Arivupuram and dedicated it to all.
Reason (R): In his days, the people of the depressed classes has no access to temples.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong R is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The School at Deoband encouraged English education. Reason (R): The instruction imparted in the School was the Original Islamic religion.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct.
(c) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Ramaiinga Adigal established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur in 1867.
Reason (R): There was a terrible famine in South India in 1866.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Pandithar lyothee Thassar went to Srilanka in 1898 and converted to Buddhism.
Reason (R): He was disappointed with the Hindi dharma, which served as a base for propogating caste in Hindu Society.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and A is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (vii)
B. (vi)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Prarthana Samaj.
Answer:

1. Prarthana Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1867 by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang.
2. It advocated inter-dining, inter-caste marriage, widow re-marriage, improvement of women and downtrodden classes, abolition of Purdha System and Child marriage.
3. The Samaj is founded night schools, asylum and Orphanages and other such institutions for the downtrodden people.

Question 2.
Write a note on Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
It was a reform movement formed in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy at Calcutta. The Samaj mainly focused on the customs of Sati, Child marriage and Polygamy and wanted to remove them legally. The Samaj was successful by abolishing Sati in 1829, with the help of the Governor General Bentinck. It appealed widow remarriage and followed monotheism.

Question 3.
Mention the main principles of the Theosophical Society.
Answer:

1. To develop the feeding of fraternity.
2. To study ancient religions, philosophy and science.
3. To find out the laws of nature and the development of divine power in India.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna mission. The mission did not restrict itself to religious activities but was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is the practical Vedanta of this mission.

Question 5.
Point out the impacts of Social and Religious reform movements in the 19th Century.
Answer:

1. These movements greatly helped to abolish some of the evils like sati, child marriage and inter and untouchability.
2. It promoted education, encouraged widow re-marriage, inter-caste marriages and inter-dining.
3. It instilled social awakening and spirit of nationalism in the middle of Indians.
4. It made the people to be proud of their culture and glory.
5. It helped the Indians to face problems with scientific approach and outlook.

Question 6.
List out the Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(i) The Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu are Ramalinga Swamigal – emphasising feeding of poor.
(ii) Vaikunda Swamigal – emphasising unity of people of all castes.
(iii) Iyothee Thassar – emphasising Caste less society.

Question 7.
Who is known as Martin-Luthur of Hinduism? Why?
Answer:

1. Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi is known as the Martin Luther of Hinduism.
2. He started Suddhi Movement to reconvert the Hindus who had been converted to other religions earlier.
3. By his efforts, a large number of people were taken back within the fold of Hinduism.

Question 8.
As a student of today, what do you think the social evils present in today’s world and need reform?
Answer:
The Social evils present in today’s world and need reforms are Girl child harassment, female infanticide, Non-observance of societal rules, Adulteration, and above all poverty and pollution.

VII. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Brahmo Samaj

(a) Who founded Brahmo Samaj?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy

(b) What Were the languages learnt by Raja Rammohan Roy?
Answer:
Arabic, Sanskrit, Persian, English, French, Latin, Greek and Hebrew languages.

(c) Name the books written by Raja Rammohan Roy.
Answer:
Precepts of Jesus Christ and Guide to Peace and Happiness were written by Raja Rammohan Roy.

(d) What did Brahmo Samaj believe?
Answer:
It believed in a “Universal religion” based on the principle of one Supreme God.

Question 2.
Arya Samaj

(a) When, where and who founded the Arya Samaj.
Answer:
The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi in 1875, in Punjab.

(b) What was the main idea focused by the Samaj.
Answer:
‘Go Back to Vedas’.

(c) What did the Samaj do in the field of education?
Answer:
The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic schools and colleges to spread education.

(d) What was the name of the school started after dayananda starting OAV schools are westernised?
Answer:
By 1900, Swami Shraddhanada established his own network of schools called Gurukulas emphasising the study of vedas.

Question 3.
The Theosophical Society

(a) Who was the founder of the Theosophical Society?
Answer:
It was founded by Madame Blavatsky and Henry S. Olcott.

(b) Why was it founded?
Answer:
It was founded to preach about God and Wisdom.

(c) Who was the president of this society in 1893?
Answer:
Mrs. Annie Besant.

(d) Where is the headquarters of this society located?
Answer:
The headquarters of this society is at Adyar in Chennai.

Question 4.
Parsi and Sikh Reform Movements

(a) Who founded the Parsis’ Reform Society?
Answer:
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Parsis’ Reform Society in 1851.

(b) What are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements?
Answer:
Nirankaris and Namdharis are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements.

(c) Name the leader from Parsi community who played a big role in early congress?
Answer:
Pherozeshah Mehta and Dinshaw Wacha played a big role in early congress from Parsi community.

(d) Who were the founders of the Sikh Reform movements? What was the objective?
Answer:
Baba Dayal Das was the founder of the Nirankari movement and Baba Ram Singh was the founder of the Namdhari movement Its main objective was to restore the purity of Sikhism and the authority of Guru Nanak.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Elaborate the Early Reform Movements in Bengal.
Answer:
Brahmo Samaj: This was one of the earlier reform movement founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Deeply concerned with the customs of Sati, child marriage and polygamy, raised his voice through the Samaj and abolished sati by legislation in 1829. The Samaj strongly advocated education for women, widow remarriage and western education. It Condemned Idol worship and meaningless rituals and ceremonies.

Adi Brahmo Samaj: In 1886, a Split occurred in Brahmo Samaj and Keshab Chandra Sen left the Samaj and founded a new organisation called Debendranath’s organisation also called as Adi-Brahmo Samaj, This Samaj also followed the ideas of Brahmo Samaj.

Prarthana Samaj: A movement similar to Brahmo Samaj founded in Bombay was called Prathana Samaj. It was founded by R.C Bhandarkar and Mahadev Govinda Ranade. Inter caste dining, Inter-caste marriage, Widow remarriage, improvement of women and depressed classes were their main activities.

Arya Samaj: The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi. This is a revival movement stating ‘ Go back to Vedas’, The Samaj concentrated on social reforms and education . DAV schools of today were originally started by Arya Samaj.

Ramakrishna Mission: Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda. The mission actively involved in the social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is their slogan which means Service to God.

Theosophical Movement: The Theosophical movement was founded in ‘ USA by Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott. Later the movement laid its foundation headed by Annie Besant in Adyar, Chennai.

She spread her ideas through her newspaper New India and commonweal. This movement played a major role in Indian Nationalist politics.

Question 2.
Explain the activities of the Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:

1. Ramakrishna Mission’s activities cover the areas like educational work, healthcare, cultural activities, rural upliftment, tribal welfare and youth movement.
2. It has its own hospitals, charitable dispensaries, maternity clinics, tuberculosis clinics and mobile dispensaries.
3. It also maintains training centres for nurses.
4. Orphanages and homes for the elderly people are maintained. Rural and tribal welfare works are also going on.
5. It educational activities the Ramakrishna Mission has established many renowned educational institutions in India.
6. It has its own universities, colleges and vocational training centres.
7. It has also involved in disaster relief operations during famine, epidemic, fire, flood, earthquake, cyclones and communal disturbances.
8. It played an important role in the installation of Photo Voltaic (PV) lighting system in the Sundarbans regions of West Bengal. The PV lighting was used to provide electricity to the people, who were traditionally depending on kerosene and diesel.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 3 Thermal Physics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The value of universal gas constant:
(a) 3.81 mol^-1 K^-1
(b) 8.03 mol^-1 K^-1
(c) 1.38 mol^-1 K^-1
(d) 8.31 mol^-1 K^-1
Answer:
(d) 8.31 mol^-1 K^-1

Question 2.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is:
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 3.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of ______.
(a) X or -X
(b) Y or -Y
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)
Hint: When a substance is heated its expansion is positive i,e, can be taken along either +X or +Y direction. But when substance is cooled it’s either length or area or volume decreases i.e. with respect expansion, it is opposite direction i.e. either -X or -Y direction respectively.

Question 4.
Temperature is the average of the molecules of a substance.
(a) difference in K.E and P.E
(b) sum of P.E and K.E
(c) difference in T.E and P.E
(d) difference in K.E and T.E
Answer:
(b) sum of P.E and K.E

Question 5.
In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is:

(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C
(b) A → B, A → C, B → C
(c) A → B, A ← C, B → C
(d) A ← B, A → C, B ← C
Answer:
(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value of Avogadro number ………..
2. The temperature and heat are ……….. quantities.
3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of ……….. of water through
4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of volume is …………

Answer:

1. 6.023 × 10²³
2. Inter convertible
3. 1 gram, 1°C
4. A straight line

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real expansion.
2. Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
3. According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely proportional to volume.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False – According to Charles law, at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to temperature.

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II

Answer:
A. (s)
B. (t)
C. (p)
D. (q)
E. (r)

V. Assertion and Reason type questions.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: There is no effects on other end when one end of the rod is only heated.
Reason: Heat always flows from a region of lower temperature to higher temperature of the rod.

2. Assertion: Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid
Reason: Interatomic or intermolecular distance in the gas is comparably high.
Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)

VI. Answer in briefly.

Question 1.
Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is defined as the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

Question 2.
Distinguish between linear and superficial areal expansion.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the coefficient of cubical expansion?
Answer:
The ratio of increase in the volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called a coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 4.
State Boyle’s law
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
P ∝ 1 / V

Question 5.
State-the law of volume.
Answer:
When the pressure of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.
i.e., V ∝ T.
(or)
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = constant.

Question 6.
Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is co-efficient of real expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of real expansion is defined as the ratio of the true rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume. The SI unit of coefficient of real expansion is the K^-1.

Question 8.
What is the coefficient of apparent expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of apparent expansion is defined as the ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume.
The SI unit of the coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Find the final temperature of a copper rod whose area of cross section changes from 10 m² to 11 m² due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 /K).
Answer:
Change in area ΔA = 11 – 10 = 1 m²
Initial temperature T₁ = 90 K
Let Final temperature be T₂K
A₀ = 10 m²
Coefficient of superficial expansion is
α_A = 0.0021 / k
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
\(\frac{1}{10}\) = 0.0021 ΔT
∴ ΔT = 0.0021 × 10
= 0.021
T₂ – T₁ = 0.021
T₂ – 90 = 0.021
∴ Final temperature T₂ = 90.021 K

Question 2.
Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar. Whose volume is increased 0.25 m³ from 0.3 m³ due to the change in its temperature of 50 K.
Answer:
Initial volume V₀ = 0.25 m³
Final volume = 0.30 m³
Change in volume ΔV = 0.3 – 0.25 = 0.05 m³
Temperature ΔT = 50K
Coefficient of cubical expansion is

∴ Coefficient of Cubical expansion
α_v = 0.004 /K

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Derive the ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law and Avogadro’s law.
According to Boyle’s law, PV = constant ………. (1)
According to Charles’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant ……… (2)
According to Avogadro’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant …….. (3)
After combining equations (1), (2) and (3), you equation. can get the following
\(\frac{V}{nT}\) = constant ……. (4)
The above relation is called the combined law of gases. If you consider a gas, which contains µ moles of the gas, the number of atoms contained will be equal to µ times the Avogadro number, N₀.
i.e., n = µN_A
Using equation (5), in equation (4) can be written as
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = constant
The value of the constant in the above equation is taken to be K_B, which is called as Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10^-23 JK^-1). Hence, we have the following equation:
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = K_B
PV = µN_AK_BT
µN_AK_B = R
which is termed as universal gas constant whose value is 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1.
PV = RT
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 2.
Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.
Answer:

To start with, the liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be determined is poured in a container up to a level. Mark this level as L₁. Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner. Initially, the container receives the thermal energy and it expands. As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to have reduced. Mark this reduced level of liquid as L₂. On further heating, the thermal energy supplied to the liquid through the container results in the expansion of the liquid. Hence, the level of liquid rises to L₃. Now, the difference between the levels L₁ and L₃ is called as apparent expansion, and the difference between the levels L₂ and L₃ is called real expansion. The real expansion is always more than that of apparent expansion.
Real expansion = L₃ – L₂
Apparent expansion = L₃ – L₁

IX. HOT Question

Question 1.
If you keep ice at 0°C and water at 0°C in either of your hands, in which hand you will feel more chillness? Why?
Answer:
The hand consisting of ice at 0°C would feel more chillness because, ice undergoes melting. More amount of energy (chillness) is transferred to hand. In addition ice has latent heat of fusion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The commonly used scales of temperature are:
(a) Kelvin
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Ideal gas equation for n mole of gas ____.
(a) PT = nRV
(b) Pv = nRT
(c) PV = nRT
(d) PT = RV.
Answer:
(b) Pv = nRT
Hint: T represents absolute temperature by t temperature in 0°C.

Question 3.
The value of 27° C in the kelvin scale:
(a) 30 K
(b) 300 K
(c) 327 K
(d) 0 K
Answer:
(b) 300 K

Question 4.
Kelvin scale has zero reading at temperature _____.
(a) 0°C
(b) -100°C
(c) -273°C
(d) -212°C.
Answer:
(c) -273°C
Hint: K = C + 273 or C = K – 273
at K = 0, C = -273°.

Question 5.
The relation between Celsius and kelvin scales of temperature is:
(a) K = 273 – C
(b) K = C + 273
(c) K=
(d) K = C
Answer:
(b) K = C + 273

Question 6.
Linear expansion is related to _____.
(a) area
(b) length
(c) volume
(d) mass.
Answer:
(b) length
Hint: Linear expansion is directly proportional to the original length of rod and rise in temperature.

Question 7.
For any exchange of heat:
(a) Heat gained = Zero
(b) Heat lost = Zero
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost
(d) Heat gained = -heat lost
Answer:
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost

Question 8.
………. is the degree of hotness.
(a) Heat
(b) Calorie
(c) Joule
(d) Temperature
Answer:
(d) Temperature

Question 9.
Avogadro’s Number _____ mol.
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.025 × 10²⁵
(c) 6.24 × 10²⁴
(d) 6.022 × 10²².
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
Hint: N_A = 6.023 × 10²³

Question 10.
If a temperature of 327°C is equivalent to ………. in kelvin scale.
(a) 273 K
(b) 600 K
(c) -527 K
(d) -273 K
Answer:
(b) 600 K

Question 11.
When spirit is poured on our hand, cooling is produced because:
(a) Spirit has cooling effect.
(b) Spirit has boiling effect.
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.
(d) The boiling point of spirit is high.
Answer:
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.

Question 12.
Process of transfer of heat through liquid and gases is _____.
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) convection
Hint: Heat flows by the conventional current is upward direction by convection method.

Question 13.
Heat required to melt 1 kg of ice at 0°C is:
(a) 226 × 10² J
(b) 336 × 10³ J
(c) 353 × 10³ J
(d) 3 × 10⁵ J
Answer:
(b) 336 × 10³ J

Question 14.
Relation between α, β and γ is _____.
(a) α = β = γ
(b) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=3 \gamma\)
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
(d) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{4}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
Hint: (c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\) (or) 6α = 3β = 2γ.

Question 15.
When a certain quantity of ice is melting remains the same.
(a) Volume
(b) Temperature
(c) Mass
(d) Density
Answer:
(b) Temperature

Question 16.
Steam causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature because steam:
(a) is in vapour state
(b) contains less heat than water at the same temperature.
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.
(d) cause bums by nature.
Answer:
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.

Question 17.
Which expansion coefficient (α, β, γ) of a substance has the largest and y smallest magnitude?
(a) α, β
(b) α, γ
(c) γ, α
(d) β, α.
Answer:
(c) γ, α
Hint: As γ is 3 times of α and β is 2 times of α. so α is minimum and γ is maximum.

Question 18.
According to the principle of mixtures, the heat lost by a hot body is equal to:
(a) Heat gained by the surroundings
(b) Heat transferred to the surroundings
(c) Heat gained by the body
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Heat gained by the body

Question 19.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air at high temperature is:
(a) Less
(b) Temperature
(c) More
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) More

Question 20.
In steam heater, solids attain constant temperature because:
(a) Solid should not be heated less
(b) Solid should not be heated more
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C
(d) Volume does not change.
Answer:
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C

Question 21.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air depends on:
(a) Pressure of atmosphere
(b) Temperature of atmosphere
(c) Humidity of atmosphere E
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Temperature of atmosphere

Question 22.
Volume of a gas at t°C is given by:

Answer:
(c) V_t = V_o (1 + \(\frac{t}{273}\))

Question 23.
At a higher temperature to saturate air, ………. quantity of water vapour is required.
(a) Less
(b) Some
(c) More
(d) No
Answer:
(c) More

Question 24.
The relationship between length (L₀) of a body and change in temperature is:

Answer:
(b) L₀ = \(\frac{ΔL}{α_{L}ΔT}\)

Question 25.
The S.l unit of coefficient of linear expansion is:
(a) °C
(b) K^-1
(c) Cal
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) K^-1

Question 26.
Coefficient of superficial expansion:
(a) is same for all materials
(b) is infinity
(c) different for different materials
(d) is zero
Answer:
(c) different for different materials

Question 27.
The ratio of change in area of a metal to its original area is \(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) =
(a) α_A
(b) α_AΔT
(c) \(\frac{α_A}{ΔT}\)
(d) unity
Answer:
(b) α_AΔT

Question 28.
According to Boyle’s law the relation between pressure (P) and volume of a gas is:
(a) P ∝ V
(b) P = V
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)
(d) V ∝ P
Answer:
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 29.
At constant temperature of a gas:
(a) PV = 1
(b) PV = 0
(c) PV = infinity
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 30.
The mathematical form of Charles’s law is:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{T}\)
(b) TV = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) V = T
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

Question 31.
If V is the volume and n is the number of atoms present in it then:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{n}\)
(b) V ∝ n
(c) V = n
(d) \(\frac{n}{V}\) = constant
Answer:
(b) V ∝ n

Question 32.
\(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant is the mathematical form of:
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’s law
(c) Avogadro’s law
(d) Dalton’s law
Answer:
(c) Avogadro’s law

Question 33.
Mathematical form of Boyle’s law is:
(a) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
(b) PT = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 34.
A gas that obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law is called:
(a) Gas
(b) Ideal gas
(c) Perfect gas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Ideal gas

Question 35.
The value of universal gas constant is:
(a) 3.81 J/mol/K
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K
(c) 8.13
(d) 6.81 J/mol/K
Answer:
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 36.
The unit of universal gas constant is:
(a) \(\frac{J}{K}\)
(b) J mol^-1K
(c) J/mol/K
(d) J K^-1 mol
Answer:
(c) J/mol/K

Question 37.
If atoms of a gas do not interact with each other than the gas is:
(a) natural gas
(b) bio gas
(c) real gas
(d) perfect gas
Answer:
(d) perfect gas

Question 38.
Mathematical form of ideal gas equation is:
(a) PV = T
(b) P = RT
(c) PV = RT
(d) PV = R
Answer:
(c) PV = RT

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value if 290K in Celsius scale is ……….
2. The value of 37°C in kelvin scale is ……….
3. The value of 323 K in Celsius scale is ……….
4. Transfer of heat is continued until a ………. is established.
5. ……….. produces the sensation of warm.
6. When a body is heated or cooled its ……….. is not altered.
7. For any exchanges of heat …………. = …………
8. On heating all forms of matter undergo ………..
9. The coefficient of linear expansion is ………. for ……….. metals.
10. The unit of coefficient of superficial expansion is …………
11. The coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid is independent of …………
12. The S.l of unit of coefficient of real expansion is ………..
13. As per Boyle’s law pressure of a gas is …………. proportional to its volume.
14. PV = constant is the mathematical form of ………….
15. As per Charles’s law volume of a gas is ………… to temperature.
16. According Avogadro’s law volume of a gas is directly proportional ………… present in it.
17. The value of Avogadro’s number is …………
18. A gas that obey Boyle’s law is …………
19. A gas that does not obey gas laws then it is …………
20. A gas in which atoms interact with a force then it is a ………..
21. For a given heat, the real expansion is ……….. than that of apparent expansion.
22. The equation of state of a gas is …………
23. Universal gas equation is used to describe the ………….
24. If a gas consists of µ moles then the number of atoms in n = …………
Answer:
1. 17°C
2. 310 K
3.50°C
4. thermal equilibrium
5. Heat
6. mass
7. Heat gained, Heat lost
8. expansion
9. different, different
10. K^-1
11. Temperature
12. K^-1
13. inversely
14. Boyle’s law
15. directly proportional
16. number of atoms or molecules
17. 6.023 × 10²³/mol
18. ideal gas
19. real gas
20. real gas
21. more
22. PV = RT
23. state of any gas
24. µN_A, N_A – Avogadro’s number

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. The relation between Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale of temperature is (K) K = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
2. The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K = C – 273.
3. Thermal energy is also known as heat energy.
4. When a body is heated volume is not altered.
5. All forms of matter undergo expansion on heating.
6. Longitudinal expansion is given by ΔL = L₀α_LΔT
7. Cubical expansion is same for all materials.
8. The S.l unit of coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.
9. As per Boyle’s law PT = constant.
10. According to Avogadro’s law \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
Answer:
1. True
2. False -The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K= C + 273
3. True
4. False – When a body is heated mass is not altered.
5. True
6. True
7. False – Cubical expansion is different for different materials.
8. True
9. False – As per Boyle’s law PV= constant.
10. True

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II.

Question 1.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (s)
B – (t)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 2.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (s)
B – (r)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:
A – (t)
B – (s)
C – (p)
D – (q)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: In a pressure cooker, the water starts boiling again on removing its lid.
Reason: The impurities in water bring down its boiling point.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the ’ correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 2.
Assertion: Air at some distance above the fire is hotter than same distance below it.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire carries heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Woolen clothes keys the body warm in winter.
Reason: Air a poor conducts of heat.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Temperature near the sea coast is moderate.
Reason: Water has a high thermal conductivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: It is hotter over the top of fire than at the same distance on the sides.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 6.
Assertion: Perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body. Reason: A thin layer of water on the skin enhance its emissivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

VI. Answer in briefly

Question 1.
Define Temperature.
Answer:
Temperature is defined as the property which determines whether a body is in equilibrium or not with the surroundings.

Question 2.
Why the gas thermometer is more sensitive than Hg thermometer
Answer:
As the thermal (cubical) expansion of gas is much larger than Hg. So gas thermometer is more sensitive than of Hg thermometer.

Question 3.
What is meant by thermodynamic temperature?
Answer:
The temperature measured in relation to absolute zero using the kelvin scale is known as absolute temperature. It is also known as the thermodynamic temperature.

Question 4.
What is the relation between different types of scale of temperature?
Answer:
The relation between the different types of scale of temperature:
Celsius and Kelvin: K = C + 273,
Fahrenheit and Kelvin: [K] = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
0 K = -273°C.

Question 5.
Do all liquids expand on heating? give an example.
Answer:
All liquids do not expand on heating. If water is heated from 0°C to 4°C it contracts.

Question 6.
What will happen if two bodies are at different temperatures brought in contact with one other?
Answer:
There will be a transfer of heat energy from the hot body to the cold body until a thermal equilibrium is established between them.

Question 7.
What will happen if a cold body is placed in contact with a hot body?
Answer:
Some thermal energy is transferred from the hot body to the cold body. As a result, there is some rise in the temperature of the cold body and decrease in the temperature of the hot body. This process will continue until these two bodies attain the same temperature.

Question 8.
Why is invar is used in making a clock pendulum or spring to oscillate?
Answer:
Invar an alloy of Ni and steel has extremely low thermal expansion so the change in length in summer and winter will be a very small change, so the time period of oscillation will be very small. Hence the clock gives almost the correct time.

Question 9.
What is meant by heating?
Answer:
The process in which heat energy flows from a body at a higher temperature to another body at lower temperature is known as heating.

Question 10.
What is the average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas?
Answer:
As the velocity components of molecules of an ideal gas, all three axis time and time axis are equal in magnitude so their vector sum will be zero. So every velocity of an ideal gas is zero.

Question 11.
What changes will occur when heat is given to a substance?
Answer:

1. Temperature of the substance rises.
2. The substance may change its state from solid to liquid or from liquid to gas. (Hi) The substance will expand when heated.

Question 12.
Why does the temperature less than zero on the absolute scale not possible.
Answer:
As the absolute temperature (T) is directly proportioned to KE of molecules of gas, and KE of molecules can never be negative so the absolute scale temperature can never be negative.

Question 13.
What is meant by linear expansion?
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

Question 14.
Write the characteristics of an ideal gas.
Answer:

1. It obeys all gas laws at all values of temperature pressure.
2. Size of molecules is negligibly small.
3. There is no force of attraction or repulsion between its molecule.

Question 15.
Mention the relation between change in length and coefficient of linear expansion?
Answer:
The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = α_LΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 16.
What is meant by superficial expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Question 17.
Define co-efficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 18.
State the relation between change in area and change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Initial area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 19.
What is meant by cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion.

Question 20.
Write the equation relation the change in volume and the change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Initial volume)
V₀ – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_V – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 21.
What is real expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
If a liquid is heated directly without using any container, then the expansion that you observe is termed as real expansion of the liquid.

Question 22.
What is meant by apparent expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
The expansion of a liquid when observed without considering the expansion of the container is called the apparent expansion of the liquid.

Question 23.
State Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
Avogadro’s law states that at constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to number of atoms or molecules present in it.
i.e., V α n
(or) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant

Question 24.
What is Avogadro’s number?
Answer:
Avogadro’s number (N_A) is the total number of atoms per mole of the substance. It is equal to 6.023 × 10²³/mol.

Question 25.
What are real gases?
Answer:
If the molecules or atoms of a gases interact with each other with a definite amount of intermolecular or inter atomic force of attraction, then the gases are said to be real gases.

Question 26.
What is a perfect gas?
Answer:
If the atoms or molecules of a gas do not interact with each other, then the gas is said to be an ideal gas or a perfect gas.

Question 27.
What is an ideal gas equation?
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas.

Question 28.
Why is ideal gas equation called as equation of state?
Answer:
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 29.
Define each unit of a thermodynamic scale of temperature.
Answer:
Each unit of the thermodynamic scale of temperature is defined as the fraction of 1/273.16th part of the thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of water.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Transform 100°C into K.
Answer:
T (kelvin) = (273 + t°C) K
= (273 + 100) K
= 373 K
100°C = 373 K

Question 2.
Convert 23 K into °C.
Answer:
T = 23 K
T°C = K – 273
= 23 – 273
= -250°C
23 K = -250°C

Question 3.
If the gap between steel sails on the railway track of 66 m long is 3.63 cm at 10°C. Then at what value of temperature will just touch of steel is 11 × 10^-6 °C.
Solution:
L₀ = 66 m = 6600 cm
α = 11 × 10^-6 °C.
∆L = L_t – L₀ = 3.63
t₁ = 10°C
t₂ = ?
\(\alpha=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{o}} \Delta \mathrm{T}}\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{0} \times \alpha}} \\ {\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{3.63}{6600 \times 11 \times 10^{-6}}}\end{array}\)
∆T = t₂ – t₁ = 50
⇒ t₂ – 10 = 50
⇒ t₂ = 50 + 10 = 60°C
so final temperature t₂ = 60°C

Question 4.
At what temperature do the ratings of Celsius and Fahrenheit scales coincide?
Answer:
Let T_B = T_B – x

∴ 180x = 100x – 3200
80x = -3200
x = –\(\frac{3200}{80}\) = -40°
x = -40°
∴ Hence -40°C and -40° f are identical Temperature.

Question 5.
On heating a glass block of 10⁵ cm³ from 25°C to 40°C its volume increases by 4 cm³. Calculate the coefficient of
(i) Cubical expansion and
(ii) Linear expansion
Answer:
Volume V₀ = 10⁵ cm³
Change in temperature ΔT = 40 – 25 = 15°C
Change in volume ΔV = 4 cm³
(i) The coefficient of cubical expansion is

α_V = 26.67 × 10^-6/°C

(ii) Coefficient of linear expansion is
α_L = \(\frac{αV}{3}\)
α_L = \(\frac{26.67}{3}\) × 10^-6
α_L = 8.89 × 10^-6/°C

Question 6.
A balloon partially filled with the gas volume 30 m³ at on surface of the earth where pressure is 76 cm of Hg and temperature is 27°C. What will be the increase in the volume of the gas balloon when it rises to a height where the temperature becomes (-54°C) and pressure become 7.6 cm of Hg.
Solution:
Given, P₁ = 76 cm Hg, P₂ = 7.6 cm of Hg
V₁ = 30 m³, V₂ = ?
T₁ = 27 + 273 = 300 K
T₂ = -54 + 273 = 219 K
By gas equation
\(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}\)
\(\mathrm{V}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1} \mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1} \mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{76 \times 30 \times 219}{300 \times 7.6}\) = 219 m³
So increase in volume of gas = 219 – 30 = 189 m³.

Question 7.
If the area of metal changes by 0.22% when it is heated through 10°C, then calculate the coefficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A}\) = 0.22% = \(\frac{0.22}{100}\)
Change in temperature ΔT = 10°C
∴ Coefficient of cubical expansion

= 22 × 10^-6/°C

Question 8.
Using the ideal gas equation determine the value of universal gas constant. It is given that one gram, molecule of a gas at S.T.P occupies 22.4 litres.
Answer:
Pressure P = 1.013 × 10⁵ pa
Volume V = 22.4 lit I
= 22.4 × 10^-3 m³
Temperature T = 273 K
For one mole of a gas
PV = RT
∴ R = \(\frac{PV}{T}\)

= 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 9.
When a gas filled in a closed vessel is heated through 1°C, its pressure increases by 0.4% what is the initial temperature of the gas?
Answer:
Initial pressure P₁ = P

PT + 0.004PT = PT + P
0.004PT = P
∴ T = \(\frac{1}{0.004}\)
= 250 K
∴ Initial Temperature of the gas = 250 K

Question 10.
A vessel of volume 2000 cm³ contains 0.1 mole of O₂ and 0.2 mole of CO₂ . If the temperature of the mixture is 300 K then calculate the pressure exerted by it.
Answer:
n₁ = 0.1; n₂ = 0.2; R = 8.31 J/mol/K;
Temperature T = 300K; Volume V = 2000 × 10^-6 m³
Pressure P = P₁ + P₂

P = 3.74 × 10⁵ pa

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain how the loss of heat (or transfer of heat) due to modes of transfer of heat is minimised in a thermos flask.
Answer:
Transfer of heat is thermos is minimised as under:
(i) By conduction: As in conduction heat can transfer by contact of a material medium. In thermos, the air is evacuated between the walls so heat transfer is stopped by conduction mode.

(ii) By convection: As convection mode also requires material (fluid) medium and there is nothing between the walls of thermos so heat does not transfer by connection mode.

(iii) By Radiation: As Ag polish is coated opaque on inner and outer walls of thermos radiation obeys the laws of refraction and reflection so no refraction takes place through opaque wall.
Reflection of outer radiation goes outside of the inner wall goes inside. So the transfer of heat is minimised by polishing.

Question 2.
Explain linear expansion in Solids.
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion. The SI unit of Coefficient of Linear expansion is K^-1. The value of coefficient of linear expansion is different for different materials.

The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = α_LΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 3.
Write a note on superficial expansion.
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Superficial expansion is determined in terms of coefficient of superficial expansion. The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion. Coefficient of superficial expansion is different for different materials. The SI unit of Coefficient of superficial expansion is K^-1.

The equation relating to the change in area and the change in temperature is given below:

\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Original area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 4.
What do you know about cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion. As in the cases of linear and areal expansion, cubical expansion is also expressed in terms of coefficient of cubical expansion. The ratio of increase in volume of the body ‘ per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion. This is also measured in K^-1.

The equation relating to the change in volume and the change in temperature is given below:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = α_VΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Original volume)
V₀ – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_V – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

IX. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
At what common temperature a block of wood metal appear equally cold or hot when touched?
Answer:
A body appears hot when touched if heat flows from the body to our hand and vice – versa. If there is no flow of heat across the body and hand, the body can not be identified while it is hot or cold as bodies are in thermal equilibrium with our body. So both block of wood and metal must have the temperature of our body i.e., 37°C.

Question 2.
At room temperature water does not sublimate from ice to steam. Give reason.
Answer:
The critical temperature of the water is much above room temperature.

Question 3.
Good conductors of heat are also good conductors of electricity and vice versa why?
Answer:
It is because of the movement of electrons present in the materials.

Question 4.
When does the Charle’s law fail?
Answer:
By Charle’s law at constant pressure
V ∝ T or T ∝ V
At T = 0 K volume must be zero but it is impossible, at low-temperature gases does not obey the characterise of the ideal gas. As the molecules come closer and force of attraction and repulsion takes place.

Question 5.
When sugar is added to tea it gets cooled, why?
Answer:
When sugar is added to tea, its heat gets shared by sugar. So temperature of tea decreases.

Question 6.
A metal disc has a hole in it. What happens to the size of the hole, when the disc is heated.
Answer:
The size of the hole increases. Because expansion takes place on heating.

Question 7.
Can the temperature of a body be negative on the kelvin scale.
Answer:
No, This is because absolute zero on the kelvin scale is the minimum possible temperature.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
We may choose to be wise or ridiculous.
(a) funny (b) earnest (c) critical (d) serious
Answer:
(a) funny

Question 2.
Tenzing kicked steps in a long traverse.
(a) vertical movement (b) diving (c) jumping (d) crisscross
Answer:
(d) crisscross

Question 3.
Suffering ennobles you.
(a) destroys (b) dignifies (c) distresses (d) encourages
Answer:
(b) dignifies

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
Liberties of everybody must be curtailed.
(a) restricted (b) reduced (c) constrained (d) increased
Answer:
(d) increased

Question 5.
With effort I could muster my arms and shoulder.
(a) collect (b) give (c) lose (d) gather
Answer:
(c) lose

Question 6.
He was a walking horror.
(a) delight (b) shock (c) disgust (d) fear
Answer:
(a) delight

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘merciless’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Adjective (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Adjective

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of VAT.
(a) Value Added Task (b) Value Added Time, (c) Value Addictive Task (d) Value Added Tax
Answer:
(d) Value Added Tax

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
The guerrilla fighters took control of the capital of the country, which gave them control of the government.
(a) civil war (b) monkey war (c) little war (d) giant war
Answer:
(c) little war

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word adflation.
(a) ad + flation (b) advertisement + inflation (c) advt + elation (d) advt + flation
Answer:
(a) ad + flation

Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for influenza.
(a) flu (b) influ (c) inf (d) fluenz
Answer:
(a) flu

Question 12.
The craze for collecting postage stamps is known as ………………………
(a) Melomania (b) parricide (c) pragmatist (d) stampomania
Answer:
(d) stampomania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word ‘reconcile’.
(a) -ment (b) -ion (c) -able (d) -ly
Answer:
(a) -ment

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
The management is the one …………………….. promised to block it off.
(a) which (b) where (c) who (d) whose
Answer:
(a) which

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
I got ………………………. the horse.
(a) above (b) by (c) onto (d) from
Answer:
(c) onto

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement.
You met Seth yesterday, ………………………….?
(a) won’t you (b) didn’t you (c) will you (d) don’t you
Answer:
(b) didn’t you

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning for the idiom found in the following sentence.
Sasidharan was accusing us of stealing his phone until he found it, and now he’s trying to sweep it under the rug.
(a) hiding under the rug (b) pretend that the incident never happened (c) sweeping the floor (d) make up for his mistake
Answer:
(b) pretend that the incident never happened

Question 18.
Replace the underlined word with a euphemistic expression.
The Government bans ethnic cleansing of the disabled.
(a) infanticide (b) matricide (c) regicide (d) genocide
Answer:
(d) genocide

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence.
Their selfless action gave a promise for human society.
(a) SVIODO (b) SVOA (c) SVOC (d) SVO
Answer:
(b) SVOA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb.
The burglars had to ……………………… all the jewels and money that had gone missing.
(a) account to (b) account in (c) account for (d) account towards
Answer:
(c) account for

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“All through the summer at ease we lay,
And daily from the turret wall
We watched the mowers in the hay’”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to?
(b) How did the soldiers spend the summer days?
Answer:
(a) “We” refers to the brave and loyal soldiers in the castle.
(b) They spent the summer days gazing out of the castle. They were ready to shoot the enemy at sight who were at half-a kilometer distance. But none came near. So, they were relaxed.

Question 22.
“ Thro ’ scudding drifts the rainy Hyades Vext the dim sea: I am become a name;”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the above lines?
(b) What is Hyades?
Answer:
(a) Personification is the figure of speech employed in the above lines.
(b) Hyades is a group of stars in the constellation Taurus often associated with rain.

Question 23.
“Full-galloping: nor bridle drew Until he reached the mound.”
(a) Why was the rider in a hurry?
(b) Where did the soldier stop? Why?
Answer:
(a) The rider was carrying an urgent message to Napoleon Bonaparte.
(b) The soldier stopped at the mound. Napoleon Bonaparte was expecting news about the outcome of the battle at Ratisbon.

Question 24.
“Mine inner vision rose a form sublime,
Thy form, O Tree, as in my happy prime
I saw thee, in my own loved native clime.”
(a) What rose in the mind of the poet?
(b) What was found in the sublime inner vision?
Answer:
(a) A glorious inner vision rose in the mind of the poet.
(b) The tree’s youthful and handsome figure was found in the inner vision of the poet.

Question 25.
“Brutes have been gentled where lashes failed.”
(a) When does the Government or law use lashes?
(b) What can transform brutes?
Answer:
(a) When a brute has committed a crime, the law uses lashes to punish him.
(b) Gentleness can transform brutes.

Question 26.
“Then a soldier.
Full of strange oaths, and bearded like the pard,
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,”
(a) Describe the two traits of a soldier.
(b) What is the poetic device used in : ‘bearded like the pard’?
Answer:
(a) A soldier is always ready to swear and is full of oaths. He is ever ready to compete for honour and glory.
(b) The poet uses a simile for comparison.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Annette : I want to order a big pineapple cake for my husband’s birthday.
Confectioner : When is his birthday and at what time do you want it to be delivered?
Annette told the Confectioner that she wanted to order a big pineapple cake for her husband’s birthday. The confectioner asked Annette when his birthday was and at what time she wanted it to be delivered.

Question 28.
You must read the clause carefully. Otherwise you will not understand it. (combine using if)
Answer:
If you do not read the clause carefully, you will not understand it.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If they had arrived sooner, they could have prevented this tragedy!
Answer:
Had they arrived sooner, they could have prevented this tragedy!

Question 30.
Even though he suffered from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school. (Change the following into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of him suffering from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school.
Or
Despite suffering from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school.

Part-III
Section -1

III. Answer any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Sung darkling from our tree, while men repose.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Our Casuarina Tree” written by Torn Dutt.

Context: The poet says this while describing Casuarina and its inhabitants at night.

Explanation: The Casuarina Tree allows the birds and animals to abide in it. At night, the garden overflows with endless melodious song sung by the dark king from the Casuarina Tree. It is a kind of a lullaby to sleeping humans.

Question 32.
They have their exits and their entrances;
And one man in his time plays many parts,
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.

Context: The poet says this while hinting at the beginning and the end of life.

Explanation: The poet divides man’s life into seven stages. The first stage symbolises birth and the last stage death. So, he uses the words “entrances and exits”.

Question 33.
To see your flag-birdflap his vans Where I, to heart’s desire, Perched him!
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Context: The narrator says these through the boy-soldier while explaining his role in the final stages of storming of Ratisbon.

Explanation: The boy soldier flung himself in the midst of battle and risked his life. He did not bother about his death. He doggedly carried out the mission of hoisting French national flag. After announcing that the battle was won he proudly says that he himself hoisted French Flag to his heart’s content at the Market place in Ratisbon.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
How does George Orwell explode the myth about the harmfulness of tea leaves?
Answer:
In some countries, tea pots are fitted with little dangling baskets under the spout to catch the stray leaves which are supposed to be harmful. The author asserts that one can swallow tea leaves in considerable quantities without ill-effect. He claims that if the tea is not loose in the pot it never infuses properly with the hot beverage (i.e.) tea.

Question 35.
What did Tenzing and Edmund Hillary gift to the God of lofty Summit? How did they do it?
Answer:
A hole was made in the ice where Tenzing placed reverentially a bar of chocolate, a packet of biscuits, and a handfull of lollies. As Hillary remembered that his team head Col. Hunt had requested to place a crucifix after reaching the peak. So, he also made a hole in the snow and placed the crucifix beside Tenzing’s gift to the Gods. Devout Buddhists believed that at least a small token of gift should be left with Gods who have their homes in that lofty Everest.

Question 36.
What is ‘liberty’ according to the old lady?
Answer:
According to the Russian old lady, liberty is the right to walk in the middle of the road. She is liberty-drunk. She wasn’t aware that if the pedestrian chooses to walk down the middle of the road, then the end of such liberty would be a universal chaos.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow.

(a) What is the mode of transport preferred by most of the students?
(b) How many students prefer bus?
(c) What does the remaining students prefer?
Answer:
(a) Bicycle is preferred by most of the students.
(b) Thirty percent of students prefer to come by bus.
(c) The remaining students prefer to come by car or by walk to school.

Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a fresher and a company manager.
Answer:
Manager : Good Morning Vikram. please take your seat.
Vikram : Good morning Sir. Thank you.
Manager : I understand that you are a First class Engineering graduate. Tell us about yourself.
Vikram : Well, I hail from a village in Iddayangudi and my parents are fanners.
Manager : If given an opportunity, can you handle project presentations on your own?
Vikram : Yes certainly Sir as I am well versed in Computer and have done various presentations during my course of study.

Question 39.
Describe the process of how to knot a bow tie.
Answer:
Place the tie around the neck, with one end slightly longer than the other.
Then place the longer end over the other and pass it upwards and behind the point where the two ends cross.
Next, take the other end of the tie and bend it twice to form an ‘S’ shape.
Bring the longer end down and in front, so that it holds the ‘S’ curve in place.
Now comes the trickiest part of the process when you have to take the long end of the tie and form a similar ‘S’ shape before passing it through the narrow gap behind the other end.
This creates a knot and the bow should now be held securely in place.
Finally, adjust both sides of the bow to make it symmetrical.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) A bad ……………………….. makes a bad ending, (plan, beginning, plot)
(b) All roads lead to ……………………….. (Paris, London, Rome)
(c) ……………………….. have ears. (Walls, Floors, Windows)
Answer:
(a) beginning (b) Rome (c) Walls

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Summarise George Orwell’s distinctive ideas in “A Nice Cup of Tea”.
Answer:
Tea is one of the mainstays of civilizations of UK, New Zealand, Australia and Eire. But, it is not found in the recipes of cookeiy books. The nicest manner in which tea must be prepared has become a subject matter of violent disputes among tea loving persons even within a family. Indian tea fits in with the author’s description of “nicest cup of tea” as it rejuvenates the drinker with wisdom, stimulation, bravery and optimism. One cup of strong tea is equal to twenty weak ones.

Best tea is prepared by boiling tea leaves first and then adding milk to taste. Milk first schools and tea first schools still fight. Tea prepared in earthen pot or china ware is good. The real flavour of tea should never be imprisoned by strainers. Consuming tea leaves will not harm one’s health. Adding sugar to tea will naturally ruin its real flavour and taste.

The author advises misguided people who drink sweet tea to desist from the practice for a fortnight. He guarantees them that they would like the natural taste of tea and would never again add sugar to tea. Tea should be taken in a cylindrical or breakfast cup to enjoy it. Shallow and flat cups don’t retain wannth and taste for a long time.

Or

Life is unjust and cruel to certain people. Do they all resign themselves to their fate? Can you think of some who have fought their disabilities heroically and remained a stellar example for others? (for e.g. the astrophysicist Stephen Hawking, a paraplegic). Give an account of one such person and his/her struggle to live a fruitful life.

Alexis Leon lives in Kakkanad, Kerala. He passed B.Tech from the university of Kerala with first rank. Then he did his M.Tech. He met with an accident in 1993 which left him paralysed from chest down and confined him to a wheel chair for the rest of his life. After a brief spell of dejection owing to a suspended marriage, he made up his mind to write books. He has written 50 books for Engineering graduates.

His notable work is ‘Internet for Everyone’ and ‘A Guide to Software Configuration Management’. He is also a mentor at International Mentoring Network Association. He offers software consultancy to international IT companies. He travels across the world and delivers lectures to graduates and Corporates. His indomitable will has made him strong. He has become a light house for many aspirants in the software industry.

Question 42.
Shakespeare has skilfully brought out the parallels between the life of man and actors on stage. Elaborate this statement with reference to the poem.
Answer:
Shakespeare has beautifully compared the growth of humans by stages with his emergent role during that stage. In the first stage man plays the role of an infant. As an infant, he does represent characterisation of mewling and puking. In the second Act, he does the role of a school boy with the characteristics of unwillingness to go to schools and innocence shining in his face. In the third Act, he performs the role of a lover head over heels in love with a beautiful lady. He composes woeful romantic ballads and sings serenades to impress his love. In the fourth act, he plays the impressive role of a short-tempered, honour pursuing soldier.

He is ready to put his mouth in the Cannon’s mouth for conquering the bubble like honour in order to defend the territory of his countiy. In the fifth Act, he performs the role of a mature and fair judge criticising the ways of the world often spicing up his conversations with wise remarks and wit. His pot belly and well-cut beard shows the social status he enjoys in life. In the sixth act, he is old. He performs the role of a thin old man wearing ill-fitting loose garments with a changed treble in his voice.

He is bespectacled and slow in walking. In the final act, he becomes a total invalid losing all senses of hearing, taste and sight. Then the performer leaves the stage (i.e.) the lonely planet.

[OR]

How according to the poet is it possible for his son to bring changes into a world that resents change?
The poet advises his son to introspect often and not feel ashamed of being called a fool especially when he pursues knowledge. He can examine himself and remove his follies. He must enjoy the advantages of solitude. Solitude would help him to be creative. He would invariably learn that final decisions are always taken in silent rooms. Being alone, he can identify his innate potential and talents. His free imagination will bring about changes even if the world resents them. The zest to bring about changes will elevate him to the level of Shakespeare, Pasteur, Wright Brothers, Pavlov and Michael Faraday. Thus he will be remembered as one of the great men who changed the world.

Question 43.
Develop the hints into a paragraph.
Aksionov, meek – fellow prisoners respect – prison authorities – old man unjustly punished – speaks truth – prison shelf dug – newcomer Semyonich – could be the culprit – suspicion – all prisoners summoned – denied – some quiet – betray – Governor – enormous trust in Aksionov – stayed quiet.
Answer:

Aksionov was a merchant who was condemned for a murder he had not committed. He waits for God’s justice. Meanwhile in prison he learnt to make boots and earned a little money. Aksionov was meek. Fellow prisoners, having realized that he was innocent, respected him and called him grandfather. The prison authorities also believed that the religious old man must have been unjustly punished. They knew Aksionov never told lies. The prison authorities found out that someone had been digging the prison shelf to escape. They doubted that newcomer Semyonich could be the culprit. But they could not nail him on the grounds of suspicion alone. All the prisoners were summoned and enquired including Semyonich. All denied any knowledge of it. Those who knew kept quiet because they knew Semyonich will get flogged if someone betrayed him. As no one was ready to tell the truth, the Governor, who had enormous trust in the nobility and honesty of Aksionov asked him to tell the truth. But Aksionov preferred to stay quiet.

[OR]

Richard Parker calmed Pi – irony of life – peace, purpose and wholeness – same boat – Pi’s personality – Parker’s presence – realized danger and peace – innate strength – tiger – less tormenting – loneliness and despair – chances of survival – middle of Pacific Ocean – optimistic, balanced and stoical – thanks to the presence of Parker.
Answer:
Pi was alone and orphaned. He was drifting in the middle of pacific ocean hanging on to the oar. The elements of nature which threatened his survival the previous night had calmed down. The life boat did not sink. It was Richard Parker who calmed down Pi. The irony of life is that the animal that scared him witless to start with was the same who brought him peace, purpose and even wholeness. They were literally and figuratively in the same boat. They had to live together.

A part of Pi’s personality was glad about Parker’s presence, who gave him the will to hang on to life under the toughest conditions. He realized danger and peace can co-exist when one is aware of one’s innate strength. He realizes the fact that staying with a tiger is less tormenting than living alone with despair. Loneliness and despair can easily kill a person.

He decided to focus on the chances of survival and shut off the tragic circumstances he was placed in a lonely boat in the middle of Pacific Ocean. In short, he became optimistic, balanced and stoical in his attitude to life. Thanks to the presence of Richard Parker.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
There is an enemy beneath our feet – an enemy more deadly for his complete neutrality. He recognizes no national frontiers, no political parties. Everyone in the world is endangered by him. The enemy is the earth itself. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles. The power of a quake is greater than anything man himself can produce.

But today scientists are directing a great deal of their effort into finding some way of battling earthquakes, and it is possible that at some time in the near future mankind will discover a means of protecting itself from earthquakes. An earthquake strikes without warning.

When it does, its power is immense. If it strikes a modem city, the damage is very immense. When gas cylinders burst, explosions are caused and fires start. Underground railways are wrecked. Buildings collapse, bridges fall, dams burst, and gaping crevices appear in busy streets. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland. If it strikes in mountain regions, avalanches roar down into the valley.

Consider the terrifying statistics from the past 1755: Lisbon, capital of Portugal – the city destroyed entirely and 450 were killed. 1970: Peru: 50,000 were killed. In 1968 an earthquake struck Alaska. As this is a relatively depopulated part, only a few people were killed. But it is likely that this was one of the most powerful quakes ever to have hit the world.

Geologists estimate that during the tremors, the whole of the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean. Imagine the power of something that can move an entire subcontinent!

This is the problem that the scientists face. They are dealing with forces so immense that man cannot hope to resist them. All that can be done is to try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike and work from there. At least some protective measures can then be taken to save lives and some of the property.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 326
No. of words to be written in the summary: 326/3 = 108 ± 5

Rough Draft
The enemy, Earth more deadly for neutrality, recognizes no national frontiers, no political parties Everyone is endangered by him. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles and is powerful. Today-scientists are finding ways of battling earthquakes which strikes without warning. In a modem city the damage is immense.

When gas cylinders burst, explosions trigger fires and damages occur. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland. Iin mountain regions, avalanches roar down the valley. Once Alaska escaped because it is thinly populated unlike other countries. Geologists estimate-fiiat the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean.

This is the problem that the scientists face. They are dealing with forces soAmnjense. We should try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike for some protective measured

Fair draft:
The enemy, Earth more deadly for neutrality, recognizes none and endangers all. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles. Scientists find ways to battle powerful earthquakes which strikes without warning. In modem cities, the damage is immense. When gas cylinders burst, explosions trigger fire. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland.

In mountain regions, avalanches roar down the valley. Once Alaska escaped because it is depopulated unlike others. Geologists estimate that the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean.

Scientists face such problems with forces so immense. We should try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike for some protective measures.

No. of words in the summary: 110
[OR]

Notes
Title : Earthquake – the deadly enemy of mankind.
Deadly Enemy of Mankind

• strikes all without a distn. – national boundary/political affiliation
• Power greater than man-made weap.
• Scientists finding means to combat eq.; they will find ways to protect themselves from eq.

Damage Cause by an Earthquake in General

• Strikes without warning.
• Modem city when struck red. to a primitive village.

Damage Caused by an Earthquake in Particular

• strikes plains, seas, mnts. – all round destm.
• In 1755, Lisbon destyd, 450 killed.
• In 1970, Peru struck, 50,000 killed.
• In 1968, Alaska hit, subcontinent moved 80 feet into the Pacific Ocean.

Problems Scientists Face

• cannot resist powerful eq.
• can predict the place of origin
• precaution can be taken to save man & property.

Abbreviations used: eq. – earthquakes; distn. – distinction; weap. – weapon; red. – reduced; mnts. -mountains; destm. -destruction; destyd.-destroyed;

Question 45.
Write a letter to the editor of the newspaper on the mindless felling of trees on the road side.
Answer:
12.11.2020
From
XXX
YYY

To
The Editor
The Hindu Anna Salai
Chennai-600 002.

Sir,
Sub: Frequent felling of Trees

I am the Secretary of the YYY Colony Association. Our locality was surely a haven to us in the past few years. The fruits of labour that we had sown about ten years ago is well nurtured and utilised.

Most of the roads in our locality was filled with greenery because of the Flame of the Forest trees that we had planted and taken care of. The roads had enough shade and was filled with beautiful flowers.

In the recent past, we have encountered the mindless felling of trees by the Corporation staff for various reasons. We kindly request you to publish the same in the newspapers to bring to notice the mindless felling of trees to the public and the authorities concerned.

We hope that such a scenario doesn’t take place in our locality again and looking forward to a positive change in this situation.

Thank you,

Yours sincerely,
XXX

Address on the envelope
To
The Editor The Hindu Anna Salai
Chennai-600 002

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “India-A Tourist’s Paradise”.
Answer:

India-A Tourist’s Paradise

India is a huge country with varied cultures and races. It is a land with primordial traditional heritage and rich history. India is the only country which has all the four seasons viz summer, autumn, winter and spring. It has beauty in all its places whether they are mountains, deserts, plains, seas or rivers. All these and the modem cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad and Bangalore as well as the places of pilgrimage make it one of the most sought-after tourist destinations in the world.

India is blessed with places that have natural beauty like Kashmir, Darjeeling, Matheran, Goa, Puri, Kerala, Valparai Ooty, Kodaikanal etc. All such beautiful places are often visited by people who try to combine spirituality with pleasure. India has a variety of beautiful locations to visit which makes it a tourist’s paradise.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) He spoke the English perfectly.
(b) I and she have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(c) My little sister is afraid for cockroaches.
(d) You can type quickly, won’t you?
(e) Though I had a cup of coffee yet I feel tired.
Answer:
(a) He spoke English perfectly.
(b) She and I have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(c) My little sister is afraid of cockroaches.
(d) You can type quickly, can’t you?
(e) Though I had a cup of coffee, I feel tired.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) When I was walking ……………………. foot outside my farm house, I saw a ……………………. under the grape vine, (bear/bare)
(b) I ……………………. arrive home late this evening. (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) He ……………………. buy a new car. (Use a semi-modal)
(d) ……………………. you ……………………. (see) my wallet and keys recently? (use proper tense)
Answer:
(a) bare/bear
(b) shall
(c) ought to
(d) Have, seen

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) The deliberate suppression of texts by organisations shrouds the subject.
(b) The study of stars and stellar evolution is fundamental to our understanding of the universe.
(c) This shift to farming may have occurred because of climate change.
(d) Sovereign power may be vested on an individual or it may be vested on a group.
(e) Some medicines may not be safe during pregnancy.
[Astronomy; Medicine; Politics; Literature; Agriculture]
Answer:
(a) Literature
(b) Astronomy
(c) Agriculture
(d) Politics
(e) Health

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer in your own words.
Answer:
The earth is losing its forests. Presently, trees cover about 30 percent of the earth’s surface, but they are being destroyed at an alarming rate, especially in the tropics. Timber harvesting is a major reason for the destruction of the forests. Trees are used for building houses, making furniture, and providing pulp for paper products, such as newspapers and magazines. At least 40 hectares of rainforest are being felled every minute, mostly in order to extract the valuable timber.

Another way that man is destroying the world’s forests is by burning them down. In the Amazon, for example, rainforests are being burnt down at a rate of 20 hectares a minute. The main reason of burning down the rainforests is to clear the land for farming. Farmers in rainforest countries are often poor and cannot afford to buy land. Instead, these farmers clear rainforest land to raise their animals or grow their crops.

Because tropical rainforest soil is so poor in nutrients, farmers cannot reuse the same land year after year. In the following years, farmers just clear more land, destroying the forest piece by piece. Already more than 30 tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction and one-time exporters of timber such as Nigeria and Thailand now have to import timber for their domestic needs.

Questions:
a. What is the major reason for the destruction of forests?
b. Mention any two uses of trees.
c. Why do some people burn down the rainforests?
d. How many tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction?
e. From where do Nigeria and Thailand get timber for their domestic needs?
Answers:
(a) Timber harvest is the major reason for the destruction of forests.
(b) Trees are cut and their logs are used for making furniture and building houses.
(c) Some people bum down rain forests to clear the land for farming.
(d) More than 30 tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction.
(e) Nigeria and Thailand get their timber from foreign countries.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His parents circled around raising a proud cackle.
(a) babble
(b) screech
(c) walk
(d) tackle
Answer:
(a) babble

Question 2.
A reporter, a thin-faced, wispy man, came up to me.
(a) considerable
(b) significant
(c) substantial
(d) frail
Answer:
(d) frail

Question 3.
Nagen uncle’s tea shop stood next to a grocery shop.
(a) erected
(b) erased
(c) expunged
(d) severed
Answer:
(a) erected

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It is about a hurricane force of wind on land.
(a) farce
(b) vigour
(c) weakness
(d) potency
Answer:
(c) weakness

Question 5.
Unlike the developed world, India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) developing
(b) industrialized
(c) established
(d) settled
Answer:
(a) developing

Question 6.
He was a frail man.
(a) weak
(b) feeble
(c) thin
(d) strong
Answer:
(d) strong

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘Rhino’.
(a) rhinos
(b) rhinoes
(c) rhinoses
(d) rhinosses
Answer:
(b) rhinoes

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘flame’.
(a) ity
(b) graphy
(c) able
(d) er
Answer:
(c) able

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation BCCI.
(a) Board of Chess Control in India
(b) Board of Cricket Collector in India
(c) Board of Cricket Control Institute
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India
Answer:
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The advocate …………….. the case cleverly.
(a) dealt in
(b) dealt with
(c) dealt out
(d) dealt on
Answer:
(b) dealt with

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘mail to form a compound word.
(a) send
(b) box
(c) drop
(d) it
Answer:
(b) box

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He seized ………….. the opportunity to construct a solar panel for the school.
(a) seized with
(b) seized over
(c) upon
(d) seized on
Answer:
(c) upon

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form’of the verb given below:
Aditya’s father ……………….. the ancestral home and moved to Kolkata, where he had set up
his own business.
(a) has left
(b) had left
(c) is leaving
(d) were left
Answer:
(b) had left

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
Promise me that you will phone me …………… reach home.
(a) before
(b) as soon as
(c) in case
(d) so that
Answer:
(b) as soon as

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]

Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How did the bird try to reach its parents without having to fly?
Answer:
The young bird trotted back and forth from one end of the ledge to the other with his long grey legs stepping daintily, trying to find some means of reaching his parents without having to fly.

Question 16.
What were the various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors?
Answer:
The various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors was simply because it was warm and bright outside. The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods and the Prussian soldiers were drilling in the open field, behind the sawmill. It was all much more tempting than the rule for participles.

Question 17.
What were the problems they faced during their training voyage? How was it a tutorial to them?
Answer:
As the boat was old, it had minor leaks and repairs. They also ran out of water and food soon. The trip was a tutorial for them on how to manage food, water and even electricity during the big voyage.

Question 18.
From the jeweller’s shop where did Aditya and his friend go? Why?
Answer:
From the jeweller’s shop Aditya went straight to Jogesh Kabiraj’s house where Mr. Sasanka Sanyal whom he met at Nagen uncle’s tea shop lived. Aditya wanted to meet Sasanka Sanyal.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) Is the poet afraid of future?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) No, the poet isn’t afraid of the future.

Question 20.
‘‘The worst thing is that if anyone stays Among them too long, he will learn their ways;”
(a) What is the worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them?
(b) What are the ways of the Grumble family?
Answer:
(a) The worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them is that they too will start complaining and become one with them.
(b) The ‘Grumble Family’ growl at anything and everything so much that they sometimes growl that they have nothing to grumble about.

Question 21.
“Not a crumb to be found On the snow-covered ground
(a) What couldn’t he find on the ground?
(b) Why was the ground covered with snow?
Answer:
(a) He couldn’t find even a single piece of bread on the ground.
(b) The ground was covered with snow because of the onset of winter season.

Question 22.
“ We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit
We were cast and wrought and hammered to design,
We were cut and filed and tooled and gauged to fit”
(a) What metals are obtained from ores and mines?
(b) Mention a few machines which are hammered to design.
Answer:
(a) The metals obtained from ores are iron ores and minerals from mines.
(b) Pulley – Power lift, The Cutting Wedge, The Wheel and Axle are a few machines which are hammered to design.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Cathy is not driving a car.
Answer:
A car is not being driven by Cathy.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
She asked me, “Could you help me with my luggage?”
Answer:
She asked me if I could help her with her luggage.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
i dont know what wed do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities
Answer:
I don’t know what we’d do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
He must work hard otherwise, he will be suspended.
Answer:
He must work hard to avoid suspension.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) Sports / building / physical strength / necessary / are / for
(b) They / sportsmanship / cooperation / include / and
Answer:
(a) Sports are necessary for building physical strength.
(b) They include sportsmanship and cooperation.

Section – IV

Answer of the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Guide an old lady from the bus stand to the nearby Government Hospital (GH). Here you find the road map. Write three instructions by way of helping her.
Answer:

• Go straight and take the first left cut.
• Walk a little distance, you will come across a pharmacy on to your right.
• Walk a little further, you’ll find the Government Hospital on the same side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]

Section -I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Bring out the character of the grandfather and the mother in the lesson, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’.
Answer:
The narrator’s grandfather is an oldtimer of the Union army of the Civil War, which terminated about fifty-two years ago. His bedroom is in the attic. When the police come to the house to search for the burglar, the grandfather thinks that they are militaries who are abandoning because they are losing to the South. The grandfather calls them “cowardly dog” and “lily- livered cattle” and then fetches a policeman’s holster and shoots a man with his own gun.

The police retreat, terrified of the irrational old man but at the breakfast table the next morning, Grandfather seems impeccably conscious of the previous night’s situation, asking why so many police had been “tarryhootin” around the house. On the contraryj the narrator’s mother, Mrs Thurber is a highly excitable woman, scatter brained yet practical at times. Hearing a sound in her house and suspecting a burglar, she thinks of the clever plan of alerting Mrs and Mr.

Bodwell the neighbours by throwing a shoe through his closed window. After he goes to alert the police, she considers throwing the matching shoe, a thrill and fanciful act. She is surprised to hear that Grandfather has shot a policeman, not because of the courageous ferocity of the act, but because the cop was such a nice-looking young man.
“Great powers don’t get angry
Nor do they act in haste”

Question 30.
How do we use technology in our day to day lives?
Answer:
Technology is growing day after day and we all depend on technology. Today we have various developing technologies that impact our lives in different ways. As the world keeps on developing, technology will change. Keeping oneself updated is very important in this modem world. It has totally transformed the life of an individual.

A Refrigerator is programmed to replenish food when the vegetables or milk or eggs are over. Ink cartridges too self-order replacements when it is empty. Technology helps one to manage entertainment and home appliances by voice commands or swapping the finger. When you are bored watching a programme on TV, you can just inform your smart TV your desire to view your social feed. Technology helps you to watch programmes understanding your mood swings.

When caught in traffic, technology permits your kettle to prepare tea for you to sip it hot the moment you reach home. Technology also automates all water and energy management systems. Therefore, accepting it and learning how to use technology in whatever we do is highly important and recommended.
“We are changing the world with Technology.”

Question 31.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past. He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek.

He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members. He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.
“Self-respect permeates every aspect of your life.”

Question 32.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away.

He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk. The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings-
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
In what way do we dispossess, betray and condemn ourselves by hating our brothers and taking up arms against them?
Answer:
By hating our brothers and taking up arms against them, we ‘dispossess’ ourselves as we rob ourselves of their love. When we hate them, they too react destructively and stop loving us. Mutually, we deprive each other of the noble emotion of love. We deceive ourselves as our hatred leads to wars, and wars cause widespread death and devastation.

This leads to the piling up of waste that pollutes our own mother earth. The dust and smoke from war obstruct the air that we breathe. So, hatred of fellow beings, in fact, leads to betrayal of our own selves. Further, this earns us condemnation as we disrupt the purity of the elements of nature. We threaten our own existence by ruining the systems that sustain us. Hence, hating our brothers and taking up arms against them does more damage to us.
“The universal brotherhood of man is our most precious possession.”

Question 34.
What qualities have made women powerful?
Answer:
The woman is made powerful due to her multifaceted personality. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute. They love to explore and venture into new horizons. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Her inner beauty, her supremacy and strength makes her all-powerful. She exhibits her power by showcasing her fearless nature. She is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs.

She is seen as all-powerful because of her determined nature. She may sigh, cry and moan but is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring and one dare not muddle with her. If anyone is a mischief maker, she will not spare them. The woman should be feared cautiously since she would thaw or saw you for your deeds against her.
“A Woman believes in being strong, even when things seem to go wrong.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“The weather is always too hot or cold;
Summer and winter alike they scold.
Nothing goes right with the folks you meet Down on that gloomy Complaining Street. ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines?
(li) Write the rhyme scheme of the poem.
(iii) Give another rhyming word for cold and street.
(iv) Name the poem and the poet.
Answer:
(i) The rhyming words are ‘cold and scold’ as well as ‘meet and street’.
(ii) The rhyme scheme for the above are, ‘aabb’ pattern. .
(iii) COLD – bold; STREET – treat
(iv) The Grumble family by Lucy Maud Montgomery is the name of the poem and the poet respectively.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.
Answer:
The poet again retells us in that people are contaminating this earth by their deeds. The fatal weapons emit fire and ashes that spread all over and pollute the environment. War is futile as it spoils the very earth for which we take up arms against each other. We should protect our atmosphere and keep in mind that this universe is the creation of God and we all are one. It is, therefore, imperative not to consider any human being as foreign and any country as strange.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (iv), (ii), (i)
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room. .
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Answer:
I was just thirty-seven when my Uncle Philip died. A week before that event he sent for me; and here let me say that I had never set eyes on him. He hated my mother, but I do not know why. She told me long before his last illness that I need expect nothing from my father’s brother. He was an inventor, an able and ingenious mechanical engineer, and had much money by his improvement in turbine-wheels.

He was a bachelor; lived alone, cooked his own meals, and collected precious stones, especially rubies and pearls. From the time he made his first money he had this mania. As he grew richer, the desire to possess rare and costly gems became stronger. When he bought a new stone, he carried it in his pocket for a month and now and then took it out and looked at it. Then it was added to the collection in his safe at the trust company.

Questions.
(i) How old was the narrator when his uncle died?
(ii) What did the narrator’s mother tell him about his uncle?
(iii) What was Uncle Philip’s mania?
(iv) When did Uncle Philip call for his nephew to meet him?
(v) What was the profession of Uncle Philip?
Answer:
(i) The narrator was 37 years old when his uncle died.
(ii) The narrator’s mother told that he need expect nothing from his uncle.
(iii) Uncle Philip had the mania of collecting precious stones, especially rubies and pearls.
(iv) Uncle Philip called the narrator one week before he died.
(v) Uncle Philip was a ingenious mechanical engineer.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Singapore and Australia tours – free travel for child or discount.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Kirubakaran / Suganthi. You are interested in doing a short term course in Computer Programming during your summer vacation. Write a letter to the Director, Computer World, Sector-22, Kanchipuram, enquiring about the duration of such a course and the terms and conditions for admission.
Answer:
Kirubakaran / Suganthi
119, 2nd main road
Kanchipuram
10 May 20XX
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram
Sir,
Sub: Short term Course in Computer Programming
Kindly refer to your advertisement in Daily Thanthi dated 8th May 20XX regarding the above mentioned course. I have just passed the A.I. CBSE examination of XII Class with science stream. I am interested in doing a short term course in computer programming during my summer vacation. However, before joining the course, I would like to know the following
details:
(a) Duration of the course and fees
(b) Mode of payment: lump sum/installments
(c) Whether a diploma/certificate is issued
(d) Recognition and its validity
(e) Timings of classes and other relevant information
(f) Individual time on computer

In case you have-some printed material for information kindly send it to me. A self addressed and duly stamped envelope is enclosed for the purpose. An early response will enable me to join your course immediately.

Yours faithfully
Kirubakaran / Suganthi

Address on the envelope
To
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram

Question 41.
Write a notice for the school notice-board inviting volunteers for an N.S.S. Camp. You are Sashilatha/Sashikumar the Group leader of S.D. Sr. Sec. School, Vellore.
Answer:

S.D. SR. SEC. School, Vellore 2 July 2020 Notice N.S.S. CAMP An N.S.S. camp of our unit will be held from 15th Aug. to 30th Aug. at village Vallimalai. Projects include Adult Literacy, Tree Plantation, Cleanliness Campaign and Health Awareness. Volunteers should give their names to the undersigned by 7th July 2020 Sashilatha/Sashikumar Group Leader N.S.S.

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Civic sense is not common. A motorist should not cross the dividing concrete wall. He jeopardizes his own life and those who are likely to drive or walk on the road. If each motorist follows rules as per his convenience, there will be total chaos on the road. Let us respect road rules. Let us cross roads only in places where it is allowed.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Economics has become one of the important branches of social sciences. It is of great practical value in our daily life. In pure sciences, we study the subject to arrive at the truth. But an economist is a social scientist. He studies the subject not only to know the truth for its own sake, but to find out a way for many economic and social problems of the society. “Knowledge for knowledge’s sake” is not the goal of an economist.

Economics must be fruit bearing. Of course, an economist has no ready made answer for immediate problems. But he can help the government in making broad economic policies. According to J.M. Keynes, “the theory of economics does not furnish a body of settled conclusions immediately applicable to policy. It is a method, rather than doctrine, an apparatus of the mind, a technique of thinking, which helps its possessor to draw correct conclusions”.

Most of the problem of the modern state are economic in nature. So economists play an important role in the affairs of the state. During World War II, the German economy was damaged heavily. There was inflation, shortage of goods and mass unemployment. But the German economy recovered quickly by following the advice of an economist Ludwig Erhard. The German recovery is considered an economic miracle. Similarly, J.M. Keynes had great influence on the economic policies of the American government when it was in great economic trouble during the 1930s. In economics, we study about things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxation. All these affect every person in one way or the other. It has been rightly said, “you cannot be in any real sense a citizen, unless you are also in some degree an economist.”

Notes
Title: Importance of Economics

• one of the important branches of social sciences – economics
• Economist find out a way for many economical and social problems
• helps the government in making broad economic policies.
• During World War II heavy damage to German economy
• recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, – considered a miracle.
• American economic trouble – economist J.M. Keynes.
• we study things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxatidn
• Economic affects every individual

Summary

Title: Importance of Economics
Rough Draft

Economics one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist not only studies, but find out a way for more many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad-ecopomic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. Similarly in 1930, American government economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. In economics, we study about thmgsTiko-pirices, rent, wages,interest, profits and taxation.

Fair Draft:
Title: Importance of Economics

Economics is one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist find out solutions for many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad economic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. In 1930, American government’s economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. A citizen must be an economist to some degree.
No. of words: 79

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) The workers formed an union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advises.
(c) Mohan is one of the best student in his class.
(d) Though his mother tongue is Tamil but he always speaks in English.
(e) If he had known of your arrival, he would come to receive you.
Answer:
(a) The workers formed a union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advice.
(c) Mohan is one of the best students in his class.
(id) Though his mother tongue is Tamil, he always speaks in English.
(.e) If he had known of your arrival, he would have come to receive you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Not hurrying …………… that pays its toll.
Answer:
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal;
Not mourning for the things that disappear
In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

(a) Men and Women created equal – man differentiates jobs – Mulan takes a stand – takes a stand – frail father – comfort and pride – responsibilities – martial art, Kung Fu inborn traits head of the family – times of crisis – rises to situations – powers of a woman – knowledge, experience – gender equality far and wide.
Answer:
The Story of Mulan portrays the legendary Chinese warrior Hua Mulan. This old Chinese folktale is about the story of the young Chinese maiden who learns that her wizened, old and frail father is to be called up into the army in order to fight the invading Huns by the Chinese Emperor. When the Huns invade China, one man from every family is called to arms. She hears of the order that every family must send one man to the army while washing clothes. Mulan’s father, who is frail and aged decides to fight for his country though it is clear that he will not survive an enemy encounter.

He decides to go to war but is prevented by her daughter with her outrageous decision. Knowing her father’s frail state, she decides to disguise herself and join in his place without second thoughts. In the army, Mulan proves to be a brave soldier who is later put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles goes so well that more soldiers are added. After a few years, Mulan becomes the General of the entire army. Suddenly, bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers including Mulan become a prey. The arrival of the doctor brings to light the hidden truth.

Many soldiers disprove such a thought, though some soldiers see the winning chances. Just then a soldier announces the surprise attack by the enemies. With no time to debate, the soldiers spring to action at the command of the General who hears this from inside her tent. She gets dressed and though not strong, she stands tall. She instructs the soldiers to attack knowing very well her strategic planning that all her soldiers acknowledge and win the battle. It was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last. The war was over, and China was saved! The Emperor forgives Mulan and was glad that Mulan had ended the long war.

He wanted Mulan to stay with him in the palace and be an advisor but as She chose to go to her family, the emperor gave her six horses and six fine swords so that her people will know that he thinks of her.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate, ‘With the crown, there cometh wisdom’ by developing the following hints. Saying – the crown of snow – elders – shapes our society – age – experiences to be intelligent – Theoretical knowledge – superficial – impact – wisdom-incomparable – learns from mistakes – elders optimistic – different challenges – survivors.
Answer:
In the saying “With the crown of snow, there cometh wisdom” – the crown of snow is pertaining to the eiders. It underlines the importance of the elders in shaping our society. The word, “there cometh wisdom” explains that as we get old our everyday experiences makes us to be intelligent. Theoretical knowledge is always superficial.

The impact is made only by experienced persons. The wisdom one gets from experience can never be compared to one who is learned theoretically. A person learns from Mistakes. Elders are generally optimistic and are ready to learn from their mistakes. They also remember it for their lifetime and never repeat them. The elders who have faced different challenges in life and had survived them braving all storm serve as our guiding path because their varied experiences teach us to become wise. They are wise enough to know what is right from wrong.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Environmentalist are worried at the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and also at the disappearance of forests. The trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere. In a way much heat is released in the atmosphere, the larger part of that being Carbon Dioxide. ‘The green house effect’ occurs. This is the initial stages of global warming.

The ill effects of accumulated Carbon Dioxide can be minimized by trees and ample vegetation as they absorb it by photosynthesis and make Carbohydrates. Therefore, a well stocked ecosystem exercises. Considerable beneficial effects on human environment by moderating the climate, regulating the water supplies, purifying the air and helping in abating noise.

The most important environmental factors are micro – climate soil characteristics, moisture availability and interaction of animals and insects. Micro – climate is governed by solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature. Soil temperature is also influenced by the forests.

Questions.
(a) What are the two reasons which make the environmentalists worried?
(b) How does “green house effect” occur?
(c) How can trees counter the ill effects of carbon dioxide?
(d) What are the factors that govern the micro – climate?
Answer:
(a) The two reasons which make the environmentalists worried are the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and the disappearance of forests as a result.
(b) ‘The green house effect’ occurs because the trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere releasing much heat in the atmosphere.
(c) The ill effects of accumulated Carbon dioxide can be minimized by trees through their absorbing it by photosynthesis and making Carbohydrates.
(d) The factors that govern the micro – climate are solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature which is also influenced by the forests.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Bigot
The bigot insults his own religion When he slays a man of another faith.
Conduct the judges, not in the light of reason;
In the temple, he raises the blood-stained banner And worships the devil in the name of God.
All that is shameful and barbarous through the Ages,
Has found a shelter in their temples—
Those they turn into prisons;
O’ I hear the trumpet call of Destruction!
The time comes with her great broom Sweeping all refuse away.
That which should make man free,
They turn into fetters;
That which should unite, they turn into a sword;
That which should bring love From the fountain of the Eternal,
They turn into a prison
And with its waves, they flood the world.
They try to cross the river In a bark riddled with holes;
And yet, in their anguish, whom do they blame Oh Lord, breaking false religion,
Save the blind!
Break, O break
The altar that is drowned in blood.
Let your thunder strike Into the prison of false religion,
And bring to this unhappy land The light of knowledge

Questions.
(a) Who is a bigot?
(b) What does the word ‘Refuse’ refer to?
(c) What do the followers of false religion do?
(d) What is meant by the phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’?
Answer:
(a) A bigot is a human being who is narrow-minded in his religious views. In general he is an extremist.
(b) The word ‘Refuse’ refers to all the infirmities such a dirt and filth found in false religions.
(c) The followers of false religion turn religion into prison, fetters and swords to destroy one another.
(d) The phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’ means God Almighty who is everlasting.