Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandisement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
Answer:
(b) Puli Thevar

Question 2.
Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars ?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Nawab of Arcot
(d) Raja of Travancore
Answer:
(c) Nawab of Arcot

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 4.
Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(b) Nagalapuram

Question 5.
Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Veerapandya Kattabomman
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Marudhu brothers

Question 6.
When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
(a) 24 May 1805
(b) 10 July 1805
(c) 10 July 1806
(d) 10 September 1806
Answer:
(c) 10 July 1806

Question 7.
Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt
(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
Answer:
(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 8.
Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mysore
Answer:
(a) Calcutta

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by …………….
  2. Except the Palayakkarars of ……………. all other western Palayakkarars supported Puli Thevar.
  3. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of ……………. for eight years.
  4. Bennerman deputed ……………. to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.
  5. Kattabomman was hanged to death at …………….
  6. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the …………….
  7. ……………. was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
  8. ……………. suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.

Answers:

  1. Viswanatha Nayaka of Madurai
  2. Sivagiri
  3. Gopala Nayakar
  4. Ramalinganar
  5. Kayathar
  6. Second Palayakarar war
  7. Fateh Hyder (the eldest son of Tipusultan)
  8. Colonel. Gillespie

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
(ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
(iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
(iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) UnderColonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
(ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in restoring the throne to her.
(iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
(iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the Marathas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable was the addition of a leather cockade in the turban.
Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.
(a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Match the following
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu 1
Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
What were the duties of the Palayakkarars?
Answer:
The Palayakkarars carried on the following duties:

  1. They collected revenue, administered the territory control, settled disputes and maintained law and order.
  2. On many occasions the Palayakkarars helped the Nayak rulers to restore the kingdom to them.

Question 2.
Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Answer:
The two prominent blocs were Eastern and Western Palayams:

Eastern Palayams:

  1. Sattur
  2. Nagalapuram
  3. Ettayapuram
  4. Panchalamkurichi.

Western Palayams:

  1. Uthumalai
  2. Thallawankottai
  3. Naduvakurichi
  4. Singampatti
  5. Seithur.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.
Why was Heron dismissed from service?
Answer:
Colonel Heron was urged to deal with Puli Thevar as he continued to defy the authority of the company. Puli Thevar wielded much influence over the western Palayakkarars. Heron had to abandon the plan for want of cannon and of supplies and pay to soldiers. He retired to Madurai. He was then recalled and dismissed from sendee.

Question 4.
What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
Answer:

  1. With the support of the East India company Arcot Nawab Mohamed Ali wanted to bring Madurai and Tirunelveli regions which were under the command of Nawab Chandra Sahib’s agents.
  2. These agents got the support of Tamil Palayakkarars and had close relationship with Puli Thevar.
  3. An army was sent under the head of Mahfiizkhan to capture Tirunelveli.
  4. Before he station his troops near Kalakadu 2000 soldiers from Travancore joined the forces of Puli Thevar.
  5. In the Battle of Kalakadu Mahfiizkhan troops were routed.
  6. The organized resistance of the Palayakkarars under Puli Thevar gave an opportunity to the English to interfere directly in the affairs of Tirunelveli.

Question 5.
What was the bone of contention between the Company and Kattabomman?
Answer:
The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the palayams. The collectors humiliated the Palayakkarars and adopted force to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Question 6.
Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Proclamation of 1801.
Answer:

  1. The proclamation of 1801 was an early call to the Indians to unite against the British.
  2. Many Palayakkars rebelled together, especially Chinna Maruthu collected nearly 20,000 men to challenge British.
  3. But the Rajas of Pudukkottai, Ettayapuram and Thanjavur supported British.
  4. So, in May 1801, English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Trichy rebels failed.
  5. Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generation.
  6. The rebellion of Marudhu brothers is a land mark event in the history of Tamil Nadu.
  7. It is also known as “South Indian Rebellion”.

Question 7.
Point out the importance of the Treaty of 1801.
Answer:
Under the terms of the Carnatic Treaty of 31 July 1801, the British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakkarar system came to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Velunachiyar

(a) Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?
Answer:
The military chief of Velunachiyar was ‘Thandavarayanar’.

(b) What were the martial arts in which she was trained?
Answer:
Velunachiyar had training in martial arts like valari, stick fighting and to wield weapons.

(c) Whom did she marry?
Answer:
She married Muthu Vadugar the Raja of Sivagangai.

(d) What was the name of her daughter?
Answer:
Her daughter name was Vellachinachiyar.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 2.
Dheeran Chinnamalai
(а) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
Answer:
Dheeran Chinnamalai was born in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of Palayakottai.

(b) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
Answer:
Once when Tipu’s diwan Mohammed Ali was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked his way and took back all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by instructing him to tell his Sultan that ‘Chinnamalai; who is between Sivamalai and Chinnamalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus, he gained the name ‘Dheeran Chennamalai’.

(c) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.
Answer:
Mohammed Ali

(d) Why and where was he hanged to death?
Answer;
He was hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort on 31 July 1805 because he refused to accept the rule of the British.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay of the heroic fight Veerapandya Kattabomman conducted against the East India Company.
Answer:
Several events led to the conflicts between Veerapandiya Kattabomman and the East India Company.
Event 1:

  1. Under the provisions of a treaty signed in 1781 with Mysore Sultan the East India Company gained the right to collect taxes from Panchalamkurichi where Veerapandiya Kattabommman was the ruler.
  2. The company appointed its collectors to collect taxes from all the Palayams.
  3. The collectors adopted force and humiliated the Palayakaras to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

Event 2: Collector Jackson against the wish of the Madras Government wanted to send an army to collect the revenue dues from Kattabomman.

  1. The arrogant English collector ordered Kattabomman to meet him in. Ramanathapuram. But Kattabomman’s attempts became futile as Jackson refused to meet him.
  2. At last Kattabomman was made to stand for three hours before the haughty collector in Ramanathapuram.
  3. Sensing danger Kattabomman with his brother’s help escaped from that place.
  4. Kattabomman on his return to Panchalamkurichi represented to the Madras Council about his ill treatment by the collector Jackson.
  5. Kattabomman appeared before the committee on 15th December 1798 and proved that he was not committed any offence.
  6. He cleared almost all the revenue arrears.
  7. Jackson was dismissed from his service.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Event 3: Inspired by the Marudhu brothers Tiruchirapaili proclamation Kattabomman was interested to join the confederacy.

  1. Kattabomman and Marudhu brothers jointly decided on a confrontation with the English.
  2. Kattabomman advanced towards Sivagiri who was a tributary to the company.
  3. So the company considered Kattabomman’s expedition as a challenge to their authority.
  4. Under the command of Bannerman on 1st September 1799 an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.
  5. The evasive reply of Kattabomman made Bannerman to attack the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.
  6. Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai.
  7. The Britsh put a prize on his head.
  8. Betrayed by the Rajas of Ettayapuram and Pudukottai Kattabomman was arrested.
  9. During the trial before all the Palayakkarars he bravely admitted all the charges levelled against him.
  10. He was hanged to death at Kayatharu near Tirunelveli on 16th October.
  11. His courageousness and bravery was enacted as ballads by Indian folks.

Question 2.
Highlight the tragic fall of Sivagangai and its outcome.
Answer:
In May 1801, the English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Tiruchirappalli. The rebels went to Piranmalai and Kalayarkoil. But they were defeated by the forces of the English. In the end, the able commanders of the English company helped. Unfortunately, the rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.
Outcomes

  • The Marudhu brothers were executed in the fort of Tirupathur near Ramanathapuram on 24 October 1801.
  • Oomaithurai and Sevathaiah were captured and beheaded at Panchalamkuruchi on 16 November 1801.
  • Seventy-three rebels were exiled to Penang in Malaya.
  • Though the Palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired later generations.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.
Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806.
Answer:
Causes for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806:

  1. The Sepoys in the British Indian Army had a strong sense of resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.
  2. The English officers disrespect for the social and religious sentiments of the Indian sepoys also angered them.
  3. Many sepoys families were in dire economic straits due to out break of famine in 1805 and the unsettled conditions caused by new land tenures.
  4. The imprisonment of Tipu’s sons and the family members in Vellore Fort.

The immediate cause for the revolt was triggered by the new military regulations introduced by the Commander in Chief Sir John Cradock.

  1. The Indian soldiers were not allowed to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform.
  2. They were asked to shave their beard and trim the moustache to look smart.
  3. The most resented cause was the leather cockade made of animal skin.
  4. The sepoys were compelled to wear the turban and those who refused were severely punished.
  5. In 10th July 1806 in the early hours guns were booming and the Indian sepoys of the regiments 1st and 23rd raised their standard of revolt.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Teacher can ask the students to prepare an album of patriotic leaders of early revolts against the British rule in Tamil Nadu. Using their imagination they can also draw pictures of different battles in which they attained martyrdom.
Answer:
Few names of the patriotic leaders of the’early revolt against the British mle in Tamil Nadu are listed below.

  1. Subramaniya Bharathiyar
  2. Kumaraswamy Mudaliar (popularly known as Tiruppur Kumaran)
  3. Velunachiyar
  4. Vanchinathan
  5. Veerapandia Kattabomman
  6. V.O. Chidambaram
  7. Dheeran Chinnamalai
  8. Subramaniya Siva
  9. The Maruthu Pandiyar brothers (Periya Maruthu, Chinna Maruthu)
  10. Puli Thevar

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Students can collect pictures of the above mentioned patriotic leaders and paste it in a notebook, prepare an album and submit to the teacher. Below the picture, student should also write the name of the patriotic leader below the picture.

If the student is very good in drawing skills, then instead of pasting pictures, they can also draw two or three of the patriotic leaders images and write their name below and prepare an album. Students can also use their creativity, imagine a battle field and can portrait that also.

Question 2.
Stage play visualising the conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman be attempted by students with the help of teachers.
Answer:
Stage play – Conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman.
Participants: Characters – Kattabomman, Subramanianar, Oomaithurai, Collector Jackson, Company officials soldiers.

Scence – 1 Kattabomman’s Court.

A company official reading the notice issued by collector Jackson. (Kattabomman’s soldier asking permission to let in the company official)

Sepoy : Maharaja, English East India Company’s servant brought a message for you. Shall I ask him to let in. I seek your permission.

Kattabomman : Allow him. (Servant entry)

Kattabomman: What message you have brought?

Servant : Maharaja (Reading the message)
I, “The collector of Ramnad” issuing order to Kattabomman to meet in person.

Kattabomman : yes you can go

Scene – 2

Kattabomman and his Minister and some soldiers going to meet Jackson after hearing he was camping at placard showing courtallam.

Collector has gone Srivilliputtur (Voice)

Placard showing Srivilliputur (You are asked to come to Ramanathapuram)

Scene – 3 (Ramanathapuram Fort)

Kattabomman waiting outside the gate to meet the Collector. After lhour he was asked to get inside the court of collector Jackson.

Jackson: Not noticing him wantedly I am
Kattabomman: I am kattabomman who is collector Jackson.
Jackson: Got angry Hay who are you nian calling me by name?
Kattabomman: I am Kattabomman wants to know who you are? Asking me the question.
(Further got irritated)
Jackson: I am collector Jackson. Are you the defiant Kattabomman.
Kattabomman: I want to know for what reason I was asked to come over here. As a coward ran and came to Ramanathapuram Mr. Jackson.
Jackson: Shut up man. You have the charge on you that you didn’t pay neither the tribute not the tax arrears.
(Irritated by his command)
Kattabomman: Whom do you expect to pay tribute or Taxes. Me? Why I should pay taxes. It’s our land the nature is giving water to the field. We the people till the land, sow the seeds plant the saplings watered the field, nurtured the plants, removed the weeds. What work you have done for asking the tax.
Jackson: Hay man Kattabomman you are talking too much, Your region belong to us.
Kattabomman: (Laughing) Is it so? Who gave you the right of possession?
Jackson: (Furiated yelling) Guards arrest him.
(Guards entry)
Kattabomman: Sensing the danger took out the sword (fighting and escaping from that place)
(screen)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 3.
A comparative study of Vellore Revolt and 1857 Revolt by students be tried enabling them to find out to what extent Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.
Answer:
Common causes for the Revolt at Vellore and Revolt of 1857.

Vellore Revolt:

  1. Most of the soldiers in the British army were well trained soldiers from various Palayams. Hindus and Muslims majority Indian Troops.
  2. Resentment over low salary promotion prospects
  3. New dress code, rules and regulations affected the religions sentiments.
  4. Uprising was well planned and raised by the soldiers at Vellore Fort shot down many colonels
  5. Immediate cause introduction of Agnew Turban- a leather hat made of animal skin.
  6. Soldiers were forced to wear the Turban.
  7. Spread to other areas Bellary, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Sankagiri, Walajabad, Nandy durg.
  8. Fateh hyder Tipu’s son was declared as their leader.

Revolt of 1857:

  1. Most of the soldiers were from Sikhs, Hindus and Muslims. Out numbered the English officers.
  2. Same point of view low salary inferior out look of the English officers.
  3. Conversion activities interference in the Indian culture affected their sentiments.
  4. Revolt originated from Bengal regiment.
  5. Introduction of Greased cartridges smeared with animal fat.
  6. Indian soldiers were compelled to use the cartridges.
  7. Spead to Kanpur, Delhi, Oudh, Jhansi, Lucknow, Bihar etc.
  8. Emperor Bahadhur Shah II of Delhi was made to sit on the throne and declared as the emperor of India.

These points clearly shows that the Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions And Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Palayakkarars in Tamil refers to the:
(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.
(b) Revenue collectors of the British
(c) Rebels of the Carnatic region
(d) Commanders of Nawab of Arcot
Answer:
(a) Holders of a little kingdom as a feudatory.

Question 2.
Palayakkarars police duties were known as ……………….
(a) Padikaval
(b) Village Kaval
(c) Irravu Kaval
Answer:
(a) Padikaval

Question 3.
The first female ruler of Sivagangai who resisted the colonial power of the British:
(a) Jhansi Rani Lakshmibai
(b) Rani Mangammal
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Kuyili
Answer:
(c) Velunachiyar

Question 4.
Puli Thevar was defeated by …………… in 1767.
(a) Khan Sahib
(b) Captain Campbell
(c) Hyder Ali
Answer:
(b) Captain Campbell

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 5.
The British commander who put down the Vellore revolt was:
(a) Bannerman
(b) William Bentinck
(c) Sir John cradock
(d) Colonel Gillespie
Answer:
(d) Colonel Gillespie

Question 6.
Who was Mahfuzkhan?
(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot
(b) Minister of the Nawab of Arcot
(c) Brother of Yusuf Khan
(d) Indian sepoy in the British army
Answer:
(a) Brother of the Nawab of Arcot

Question 7.
Veerapandiya Kattabomman was the Palayakkarar of :
(a) Sivagangai
(b) sivagiri
(c) Madurai
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(d) Panchalamkurichi

Question 8.
Where did Kattabomman escape?
(a) Ettayapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Pudukottai
(d) Tarapuram
Answer:
(c) Pudukottai

Question 9.
On his return to Panchalamkurichi ………………….. represented to the Madras council.
(a) Kattabomman
(b) Marudhu brothers
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Dheeran chinnamalai
Answer:
(a) Kattabomman

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 10.
Which city was annexed at the end of the Anglo-Mysore War in 1799?
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Panchalamkuruchi
(d) Pudukottai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 11.
Jackson was dismissed from service and a new collector ………………….. was appointed.
(a) Syed
(b) Clarke
(c) William Brown
(d) S.R Lushington
Answer:
(d) S.R Lushington

Question 12.
Kattabomman cleared all the revenue arrears leaving only a balance of ………………….. pagodas.
(a) 1180
(b) 1080
(c) 1801
(d) 1108
Answer:
(b) 1080

Question 13.
Yadhul Nayak was the Palayakkarar of:
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Dindigul
(c) Anamalai
(d) Kamudhi
Answer:
(c) Anamalai

Question 14.
Oomathurai and Sevathaiah the two brothers of Kattabomman escaped from the Palayamkottai prison to:
(a) Kamudhi
(b) Sivagangai
(c) Kerala
(d) Thiruchirappalli
Answer:
(a) Kamudhi

Question 15.
………………….. involved in setting the disputes in the Kongu region.
(a) Dheeran chinnamalai
(b) Velunachiyar
(c) Oomathurai
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Dheeran chinnamalai

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The word ………………….. means a domain a military camp or a little kingdom.
  2. The Palayakkararsystem was in practice during the rule of ………………….. of warangal in the Kakatiya kingdom.
  3. The police duties of Palayakkarars were known as …………………..
  4. The Palayakkarars of Sivagiri, Ettayapuram and Panchalamkurichi did not join the confederacy of …………………..
  5. The unity of the Palayakkarars began to break with the …………………..
  6. In 1772 under the command of ………………….. stormed the kalaiyar kovil palace.
  7. The South Indian confederacy was organised by
  8. The forces of Diwan of Mysore and Chinnamalai fought at
  9. The failed because there was no immediate help from outside.
  10. The was the predecessor of the great Revolt of 1857.
  11. Under poligar system was given for valuable military services rendered by any individual.
  12. The began to consolidate and extend its influence after the three carnatic wars in Tamil Nadu.
  13. ………………….. the Minister of viswanatha Nayaka helped him to introduce Palayakkarar system in Tamil Nadu.
  14. The Palayakkarar system lasted for from ………………….. the Nayaks of Madurai.
  15. Within their respective Palayams Palayakkarars function as ………………….. authorities.
  16. Traditionally there were ………………….. Palayakkarars created by Nayak rulers.
  17. Many Palayakkarars refused to pay taxes to the company as their lands handed down to them over …………………..
  18. The company branded ………………….. as rebels.
  19. Mahfuzkhan was the brother of …………………..
  20. ………………….. was sent with a contingent army under colonel Heron to capture Tirunelveli and Madurai.
  21. Mahfuzkhan had the support of ………………….. and ………………….. from the carnatic to capture Tirunelveli.
  22. Two thousand soldiers from ………………….. joined the forces of Puli Thevar at kalakad.
  23. The Palayakkarars of Tirunelveli under Puli Thevar constantly rebelled against
  24. Yusufkhan’s (Khan sahib) original name was ………………….. before his conversion to Islam.
  25. The ………………….. from Tiruchirappalli arrived in September 1760 to assist Yusufkhan to attack Puli Thevar.
  26. The battering of ………………….. by Yusufkhan took two months.
  27. Expel of French power from Pondicherry made Travancore, ………………….., Uthumalai and ………………….. to support the English.
  28. The ………………….. was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764 by the company.
  29. Captain ………………….. defeated Puli Thevar in 1767.
  30. Puli Thevar escaped and died in …………………..
  31. Velunachiyar was under the protection of Gopala Nayak for ………………….. years.
  32. At the age of 16 ………………….. was married to Muthuvadugar of Sivagangai.
  33. Dalavay means …………………..
  34. In behalf of Velunachiyar Dalavai ………………….. wrote a letter to Sultan Hyder AN seeking military assistance.
  35. Hyder Ali ordered his commandant ………………….. in Dindigul Fort to provide required military assistance to Velunachiyar.
  36. Kuyili faithful friend of Velunachiyar led a unit of women soldiers named after …………………..
  37. ………………….. was the shepherd girl who was killed by the company for not divulging information on kuyili the commander.
  38. The company’s administrators ………………….. and ………………….. considered Kattabomman a man of peaceful disposition.
  39. To meet out the expenses of Nawab and his family ………………….. of the revenue (taxes) collection was allowed.
  40. The land revenue arrear from Kattabomman was ………………….. pagodas in 1798.
  41. The did not give permission to collector Jackson to send an army to Panchalamkurichi to collect dues from Kattabomman.
  42. Kattabomman’s Minister ………………….. accompanied him to Ramanathapuram to met collector Jackson.
  43. In a clash at the gate of Ramanathapuram Fort English officer ………………….. was killed.
  44. In may 1799 ………………….. issued orders from Madras for the advance of forces to Tirunelveli.
  45. Bannerman moved his entire army to Panchalamkurichi on …………………..
  46. ………………….. gathered all the secrets of the Fort of Panchalamkurichi.
  47. In a clash at ………………….. Sivasubramanianar was taken a prisoner.
  48. Kattabomman escaped to …………………..
  49. ………………….. was executed at Nagalapuram on 13th September.
  50. Kattabomman was hanged from a ………………….. in the old Fort of Kayathar.

Answers:

  1. Palayam
  2. Prataba Rudhra
  3. Padikaval or Arasukaval
  4. Puli Thevar
  5. elimination of French power from Pondicherry
  6. Lt. Col Bon Jour
  7. Marudhu brothers of Sivagangai
  8. Noyyal river bed
  9. Vellore Revolt
  10. Vellore Revolt
  11. Palayam
  12. English East India Company
  13. Ariyanathar
  14. two hundred years
  15. independent sovereign
  16. 72
  17. sixty generations
  18. defiant Palayakkarars
  19. Nawab of Arcot
  20. Mahfuzkhan
  21. cavalry and foot soldiers
  22. Travancore
  23. Nawab’s authority
  24. Marudhunayagam
  25. artillary
  26. Nerkkatumseval Fort
  27. Seithur, Surandai
  28. Yusufkhan
  29. Campbell
  30. exile
  31. eight
  32. Velunachiyar
  33. Military chief
  34. Thandavarayanar
  35. Syed
  36. Udaiyal
  37. Udaiyal
  38. James London, Colin Jackson
  39. one- sixth
  40. 3310
  41. Madras Government
  42. Sivasubramanianar
  43. Lietenant Clarke
  44. Lord Wellesley
  45. 5th September 1799
  46. Ramalinganar
  47. Kallarpatti
  48. Pudukottai
  49. Sivasubramanianar
  50. Tamarind tree

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Velunachiyar organised an army and succeeded in securing an alliance with Hyder Ali.
(ii) Hyder Ali provided the required military assistance to Velunachiyar
(iii) A fierce battle was fought at Devadanampatti.
(iv) Velunachiyar escaped with her daughter and lived in Ramanathapuram.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dheeran chinnamalai was trained by the French.
(ii) He launched Gwerilla attack and evaded capture by the British.
(iii) He was born at Coimbatore,
(iv) He refused to accept the rule of the British.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Coimbatore was annexed at the end of the Anglo – Mysore was in 1799.
(ii) The status of Raja of Thanjavur had been reduced to that of a vassal.
(iii) English East India company acquired the revenue districts of salem and Dindigul from Tipu.
(iv) A treaty was forced on Marudhu brothers on the charge of disloyalty.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Kattabomman took an expedition to Sivagiri to influence to join Marudhu brothers.
Reason (R): Palayakkarars of Sivagiri was a tributory to the company of the British. They refuse to join.
(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is Wrong
(c) A is wrong ans R is correct
(d) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Chinna Marudhu collected 20,000 men to challenge the English army and many Palayakkarars joined, but failed.
Reason (R): Divide and Rule Policy of the British split the forces of the Palayakkarars.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The Nawab of Arcot gave the power of collecting revenue to the English East India company from southern Palayakkarars.
Reason (R): The company branded the defiant Palayakkarars as rebels.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation to A.
Answer:
(a) A is correct R is wrong

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu 2
Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu 3
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Carnatic treaty.
Answer:
The suppression of the Palayakkarar rebellions of 1799 and 1800-1801 resulted in the liquidation of all the local chieftains of Tamil Nadu. Under the terms of the Carnatic treaty of 31 July 1801. The British assumed direct control over Tamilagam and the Palayakarar system to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

Question 2.
Why was the Revenue collection of the southern Palayakkarars was given to the company Rule?
Answer:

  1. Nawab of Arcot had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the camatic wars.
  2. When the debts exceeded his capacity to pay, he gave the Revenue Collection Authority to the company rule.

Question 3.
Write a note on Hyder Ali.
Answer:
Hyder Ali was the ruler of Mysore. He was a bitter enemy of England. He was born in 1772. Though he started his career as a soldier, he rose to the position of commander-in-chief. In 1766, when the Raja of Mysore died, Hyder Ali proclaimed himself as the ruler and became the Sultan of Mysore. Tipu Sultan was the son of Hyder Ali.

Question 4.
Name the three major ports of Puli Thevar. When did these forts come under the control of Yusuf Khan?
Answer:
The three major ports of Puli Thevar were Nerkattumseval, Vasudevanallur and Panayur. In 16th May 1761 they came under the control of Yusufkhan.

Question 5.
What does the word ‘Palayam’ mean? What does the Palayakkarar in Tamil refer to?
Answer:
The word ‘Palayam’ means a domain, military camp, or a little kingdom. The Palayakkarar in Tamil refers to the holder of a little Kingdom as a feudatory to a greater sovereign.

Question 6.
Write about the brave act of Kuyili the friend of Velunachiyar.
Answer:

  1. Kiyili was a faithful friend of velunachiyar.
  2. She led the unit of women soldiers.
  3. Kuyili is said to have walked in to the British arsenal (1780) after setting herself on fire, destroying all the ammunition.

Question 7.
Why did the Nawab of Arcot borrow money from the East India company? What happened when his debts exceeded his capacity to pay?
Answer:
The Nawab of Arcot borrowed money from the East India company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars. When his debts exceeded his capacity to pay, the power of collecting the land revenue dues from southern Palayakkarars was given to the East India company.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 8.
How the Rebellion of Marudhu brothers referred as and who participated in the rebellion?
Answer:
In the British records the rebellion of Marudhu brothers (1800) is referred as the “Second Palayakkarar war”.

Those who participated in the Rebellion were: Marudhu Pandiyar of Sivagangai, Gopala Nayak of a Dindigul, Kerala verma of Malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaj i of Mysore.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Siege of Panchalamkuruchi
(a) Why did Lord Wellesley issue orders in May 1799?
Answer:
Lord Wellesley issued orders in May 1799 for the advance of forces from Tiruchirapalli, Thanjavur, and Madurai to Tirunelveli.

(b) Who commanded the troops?
Answer:
Major Bannerman commanded the troops.

(c) What commanded the troops?
Answer:
On 1st September 1799, an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) Why did Bannerman depute Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort?
Answer:
Bannerman deputed Ramalinganar to Kattabomman’s fort so that he could convey a message asking him (Kattabomman) to surrender.

Question 2.
Consequences of Vellore Revolt

(a) Where was Tipu’s sons imprisoned after the revolt?
Answer:
Tipu’s sons were sent to Calcutta after the revolt.

(b) What was the reward given to the people who suppressed the revolt?
Answer:
Col. Gillespie was given 7,000 pagodas. The officers and men engaged in the suppression were rewarded with prize money and promotion.

(c) Name the English Generals who were removed from their office?
Answer:
Col. Sir John Cradock, Adjutant General Agnew and Governor William Bentinck were removed from their office.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

(d) What was withdrawn after the revolt?
Answer:
The military regulations were withdrawn after the revolt.

Question 3.
New Military Regulations
(a) What were the Indian soldiers asked to do according to new’ military regulation?
Answer:
According to the new military regulation the Indian soldiers were asked not to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform. They were to be cleanly shaven on the chin and maintain uniformity how their moustache looked.

(b) How did the new turban add fuel to fire?
Answer:
The new turban was the leather cockade made of animal skin.

(c) How did the sepoys react to the new turban?
Answer:
The sepoys refused to wear the new turban.

(d) What was the Company’s reaction?
Answer:
The company remained silent. It did not pay any notice to the sepoys grievances.

Question 4.
The Seige of Panchalamkurichi

(a) From which regions forces were sent to Tirunelveli?
Answer:
From the regions of Tiruchirappali, Thanjavur and Madurai sent to Tirunelveli.

(b) Which troops joined the British later?
Answer:
The Travancore troops joined the British later.

(c) What was served on Kattabomman and for what purpose?
Answer:
An ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.

(d) What was the response of Kattabomman?
Answer:
Kattabomman refused to surrender.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 5.
Proclamation of 1801

(a) Who issued the proclamation of 1801?
Answer:
Marudhu pandiyar issued the proclamation of Independence 1801.

(b) Why did they issue the proclamation?
Answer:
The proclamation was an early call to the Indians to unite.

(c) Where was the copies of proclamation pasted?
Answer:
The proclamation was pasted on the walls of Nawab’s palace in Tiruchirappalli Fort and on the walls of Srirangam temple.

(d) From where did the forces reinforced to fight with the revolters?
Answer:
British reinforcements were rushed from Bengal, Ceylon and Malaya.

Question 6.
Grievances of Indian Soldiers

(a) Who deliberate on the future course of action against the company Government?
Answer:
The dispossessed little kings and feudal chieftains.

(b) What was the culmination of the Palayakkarar wars?
Answer:
The Vellore Revolt of 1806

(c) What were the resentment of British Indian army?
Answer:
The British Indian army had a strong resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion.

(d) What bothered the Indian sepoys much?
Answer:
The new recruitment of the sepoys to the army.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a brief note on Vellore Mutiny.
Answer:

  • The British administration prohibited the Hindu soldiers from smearing religious marks on their foreheads.
  • They ordered the Muslims to shave their beard and trim their moustache.
  • This created a strong resentment among the soldiers.
  • Instigated by the sons of Tipu, the revolting soldiers gathered in the Vellore fort, under the pretext of a marriage function.
  • At midnight the soldiers surrounded the fort and killed most of the Europeans.
  • They unfurled the flag of Tipu over the fort.
  • Fateh Hyder, the second Son of Tipu was declared as the ruler.
  • But the revolt was crushed by the British.

Question 2.
How did Velunachiyar able to get back her territory (Sivagangai)?
Answer:

  1. Velunachiyar during her period of hiding organised an army.
  2. She succeeded in securing an alliance with not only Gopala Nayakar (Virupachi near Dindigul) but Hyder Ali as well.
  3. She was affluent in Urdu. Velunachiyar explained in detail in urdu all the problems she had with East India Company.
  4. She conveyed her strong determination to fight the English.
  5. Impressed by her courage, Hyder Ali ordered his commandant Syed in Dindigal fort to provide the necessary military assistance.
  6. Velunachiyar employed agents for gathering intelligence to find where the British had stored ammunition.
  7. With military assistance from Gbpala Nayakar and Hyder Ali she recaptured Sivagangai.
  8. She was crowned as queen with the help of Marudhu brothers.
  9. She was the first female ruler to resist the British colonial power in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Dindigul League.
Answer:

  1. The famous Dindigul league was headed by Gopala Nayak, the Palayakkarar of virupachi.
  2. He formed the league with Lakshmi Nayak of Manaparai and poojai Nayak of Devadanapatti.
  3. He drew the inspiration from Tipu Sultan, who sent a deputation to show his camaraderie.
  4. He led the resistance against the British from Coimbatore and later joined Oomaidurai, Kattabomman’s brother.
  5. He put up a fierce fight at Aanamalai hills.
  6. The local peasants gave him full support.
  7. But Gopala Nayak was overpowered by the British forces in 1801.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
Give an account of Marudhu brothers Rebellion of 1800.
Answer:

  1. Despite the suppression of Kattabomman’s revolt in 1799 rebellion broke out again in 1800.
  2. In the British records it is referred to as the second Palayakkarar war.
  3. In April 1800 the confederacy consisting of Marudhu Pandiyars of Sivagangai, GopalaNayak of Dindigul, Kerala verma of malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaji of Mysore met at Virupachi and decided to organise an uprising against the company.
  4. The Uprising, which broke out in Coimbatore in June 1800, soon spread to Ramanathapuram and Madurai.
  5. The company got wind of it and declared war on Krishnappa Nayak of Mysore, Kerala Verma of Malabar and others.
  6. The Palayakars of Coimbatore, Sathyamangalam, and Tarapuram were caught and hanged.
  7. In February 1801, the two brothers of Kattabomman, Oomathurai and Sevathaiah escaped from Palayamkottai prison and Chinna Marudhu took them to Siruvayal his capital.
  8. The English demanded the Marudhu Pandiyars to hand over fugitives but they refused.
  9. Col.Agnew and Col.Innes marched on Sivagangai.
  10. In June 1801 Marudhu Pandyars issued a proclamation of independence the Tiruchirappalli proclamation.
  11. The rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

VIII. Map Study

Mark important centres of Early revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu 4
Map: Centres of Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1829

Question 2.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Question 4.
Whose voice was Rast Goftarl
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das
(b) Baba Ramsingh
(c) Gurunanak
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Baba Ramsingh

Question 6.
Who was Swami Shradhananda?
(a) a disciple of Swami Vivekananda
(b) one who caused a split in the Brahmo Samaj of India
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj
(d) founder of Samathuva Samajam
Answer:
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj

Question 7.
Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Devendranath Tagore
(c) Jvotiba Phule
(d) Ayvankali
Answer:
(a) M.G. Ranade

Question 8.
Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi
(b) Vaikunda Swamy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Swami Shradanatha
Answer:
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

II. Fill in the blanks

  1.  …………….. founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
  2. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was ……………..
  3. Satyashodak Samaj was launched by ……………..
  4. Gulumgir was written by ……………..
  5. Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of ……………..
  6. Ramakrishna Mission was established by ……………..
  7. …………….. was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
  8. …………….. brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
  9. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by ……………..

Answers:

  1. Ramalinga Adigal
  2. M.G.Ranade
  3. Jyothika Phule
  4. Jyothika Phule
  5. Vivekanandha
  6. Singh Sabha
  7. Narayana Guru and Ayyankali
  8. Jyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
(ii) He encouraged idolatry
(iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
(iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i),(ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
(ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
(iv) Prarthana Samaj had it’s origin in the Punjab.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement:
(i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care, relief in time of calamities.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
(iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
(iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) alone correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
(b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion

IV. Match the following

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century 1
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
Answer:
Maharashi Debendranath Tagore laid down the following four articles of faith –

  1. In the beginning, there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created the Universe.
  2. He alone is the Good of truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness and Power, eternal, omnipresent, the One without second.
  3. Our salvation depends on belief in him and in his worship in this world and the next.
  4. Belief consists in loving him and doing his will.

Question 2.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:
Ranade was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and the Deccan Educational Society.

Question 3.
Assess the role of Ayyankali in fighting for the cause of “untouchables.”
Answer:
Ayyankali brought social tremendous changes especially in caste structure. The discrimination he faced as a child turned him into a leader of an anti-caste movement and who later fought for basic rights including access to public spaces and entry to schools. Ayyankali challenged many caste conventions such as clothing style, he wore clothes associated with upper castes that were prohibited for lower castes.

Question 4.
Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
Answer:
Ramalinga Adigal showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants, This he called as Jeevakarunya. He established in 1865, “Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sathya Sanga” which means Society for pure truth in Universal self-hood. He also established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Swami Vivekananda’s activist ideology?
Answer:
Vivekananda’s activist ideology related to the desire for political change among many western eductated young Bengalis. Many of the youths, who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement, following the Partition of Bengal, were inspired by Vivekananda.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Question 6.
What are the differences between Reformist Movements and Revival Movements?
Answer:
Reformist movement means a movement to reform (or) bring positive changes in the Social or religious institution of a society.

Revival movement means to give a new life to the social or religious institution of a society which seems to be dying or being diluted.

Question 7.
List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
The Brahmo Samaj raised voice against:

  1. Caste system
  2. Dowry
  3. Ill-treatment of women
  4. Polygamy
  5. Infanticide

Question 8.
Highlight the work done by -Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor and the marginalized.
Answer:
Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows. He opened the first school for untouchables in 1852 in Poona. He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage.

Question 9.
What was the impact of IyotheeThassar’s visit to SriLanka?
Answer:
Jyothee Thassar went to Sri Lanka in 1898 and converted into Buddhism. In the same year, he founded the Sakya Buddhist Society at Madras to construct the rational religious philosophy through Buddhist religion. He argued that the so-called untouchables were orginally Buddhists who were sligmatised by Brahminism. He stated that the revival of Buddhism could leberate the people from the evil of caste practice that afflicted the Hindu society.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Aligarh Movement

(i) What is the main aim of this Movement?
Answer:
The main aim of this movement, was to improve the community of Muslims by giving them education, especially is western education and take up government services.

(ii) Who is considered the soul-of this Movement?
Answer:
Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan is considered the soul of this movement

(iii) Why were English books translated into Urudu?
Answer:
English books were translated into Urdu. So that the interest of the Muslims would be best served if it is in Urdu and to concentrate on it.

(iv) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
Answer:
The college was raised to the status of a University in 1920 was Aligarh Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental college.

Question 2.
Ramalinga Adigal

(i) What is Jeevakarunya?
Answer:
It is showing compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.

(ii) What are the Songs of Grace?
Answer:
His voluminous songs that were compiled and published under the title Thiruvarupta are called Songs of Grace.

(iii) Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam?
Answer:
‘Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam’ means ‘Society for Pure Truth in Universal self-hood.

(iv) Where did he establish his free feeding house?
Answer:
He established a free feeding houses for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Question 3.
Deoband Movement

(i) Who were the organizers of this Movement?
Answer:
The organizers of Deoband movement was the orthodox Muslim Ulema.

(ii) What were the two main objectives of the Movement?
Answer:
(a) The twin objective of this movement were propagating the pure teaching of the Quran and the Hadith.
(b) Encouraging the spirit of Jihad against the foreign and the un- islamic elements.

(iii) Who founded the school at Deoband?
Answer:
The Ulema under the leadership of Muhammad QasimWanotavi and Rashid Ahamad Gangotri founded the school at Deoband in U.R

(iv) Against whom the fatwa was issued by Deoband Ulema?
Answer:
The Deoband Ulema issued a religious decree (Fatwa) against Syed Ahmed Khan’s organisation called the United Patriotic Association and The Muhammaden Anglo-Oriental Association.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the contributions of Revivalist Movements with that of Reform Movements.
Answer:
The Indian reformists were quite hesitant to subject their old notions and habits to critical scrutiny. Instead they attempted to harmonise both Indian and Western cultures. However, their ideas and their actions helped to mitigate social evils such as sati, female infanticide, and child marriage, and all kinds of superstitious religious beliefs. Reformist movements like the Brahmo Samaj, the Prathana Samaj and the Aligarh Movement. These movements brought considerable reforms in the contemporary society.

Revivalist movements tended to revive former customs or practices and thus take the society back to the glorious past. The Deoband Movement was a revivalist movement, organised by the orthodox Muslim Ulimas other such movements included the Arya Samaj, the Ramakrishna Mission.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Question 2.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:

  1. Introduction of English Education made the Indians think that the British aim is to produce English educated middle class clerks.
  2. The People came under the influence of Western ideas and thoughts.
  3. The Propaganda of Christianity in India which served Britains imperial interests.
  4. Many Indian scholars such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Keshab Chandra Sen contributed to bring a change in the social institutions of the country.
  5. The Reformists were deeply concerned with the existed social evils like sati, child marriage and Polygamy.
  6. Following the organisational structure of Christian missionaries, Indian reformers wanted to establish reform movements.
  7. All over India, there set to begin a social awakening on the eradication of terrible caste tyranny.
  8. The reformers strived hard to bring back the glorious past of India.

Question 3.
Evaluate the contributions of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and Swami Vivekananda to regenerate Indian society.
Answer:
Ramakrishna Paramhamsa and Vivekananda have played a big role in regenerating the Indian society.

Ramakrishna Paramhamsa: He was a simple priest of Dakshineshwar near Calcutta. He gained popularity in the latter half of the nineteenth century. He emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices such as singing bhagan. He was an ardent worshipper of goddess Kali. In his view, all religions contain the universal elements which, if practised, would lead to salvation. He said, “Jiva in Siva” (all living beings are God). They need service not mercy service for man, must be regarded as God. He attracted educated youth who were dissatisfied with the rational orientation of religious reform organisations such as the Brahmo Samaj.

Swami Vivekananda: He was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramhamsa. He emphasised a cultural nationalism and made a call to Indian youth to regenerate Hindu society. His ideas bred a sense of self-confidence among Indians who felt inferior in relations to the materialistic achievements of the west. He suggested that the lower castes should be allowed to engage in the Hindu rituals from which they were traditionally excluded. His activist ideology rekindled the desire for political change among many western educated young Bengalis. Many of the youths who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the Swadeshi Movement were inspired by Vivekananda.

Question 4.
Write an essay on the role played by the 19th century reformers towards the cause of Women.
Solution:

  1. The position of women in India during the 19th century was miserable. They were not treated equal to men and they were denied rights.
  2. The Social reformers of the 19th century played a significant role in bringing an awakening to the people that women’s participation will strengthen the society.
  3. The reformers strongly advocated education for women.
  4. Raja Ram Mohan Roy with the help of the Governor General of British, William Bentinck abolished Sati in 1829.
  5. He advocated the rights of widows to remarry and wanted polygamy to come to an end. He also raised voice against child marriage.
  6. Reformer Vidyasagar led a movement by which ‘Widows Remarriage Reform Act’ of 1856 was intended
  7. to improve the lot of child widows and save them perpetual widowhood.
  8. Reformer Jyothiba Phule opened Orphanages and homes for widows.
  9. Sikh Reform movement prohibited the dowry system and child marriage.
  10. Reformer Iyothee Thessar considered education as an important tool for empowerment for women and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools for the Untouchables in Tamil Nadu.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Debate Social evils of 19th century with those of present day.
Answer:
The list below shows the social evil of 19th century and of the present day. The students should form themselves as separate groups one supporting the 19th century and the other supporting present day. The judgement of the debate can be.

There should be great reformers like that of the 19th century and eradicate the social evils of today. Education itself is a great reformer that should awaken the minds of the young children of today for not involving themselves in any of the social evil nor they see others doing it.

Social evils of 19th century: Child Marriage, superstitious beliefs, Sati, not allowing widows to remarry denying education for women, caste differences, untouchability, Brahman domination.

Social evils of present day: Female Infanticide Dowry system, sexual harassment of women, (or) women safety, Domestic violence (or) violence at home . Drug trafficing, pollution (Air, sound and water) Hygiene and sanitation. Disobeying rules,everywhere and anywhere.

Question 2.
Students can write an assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.
Answer:
Assignment on the present state of the reform organizations discussed in the lesson.

Brahmo Samaj founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy denounces image worship and the caste system. In the 19th century the society benefitted by this social reform. The movement lost force in the 20th century its fundamentals are still accepted by the society.

Ramakrishna Mission: The Mission carries out extensive educational and Philanthropic work in India. They work on the principle of selfless work done with dedication to God. As of 2016, the Mission have 182 centers all over the world (136 in India, 13 in USA, 13 in Bangladesh, 2 in Russia) .Besides these, there are private centers all over the world run by the followers of Sri Ramakrishna and Vivekananda. The Mission has received numerous awards throughout its lifetime.

Theosophical society: The Theosophical society at Adyar is a beautiful campus with influence since its founders first arrived here in 1882. The society helps the nation even today by running Olcott Memorial High school in Tamil Nadu. They extend their help by various activities at times of disasters especially Tsunami in 2004. Now in Adyar , open all days except Saturday, Sunday public hoildays.

Arya Samaj: Arya Samaj established a chain of DAV educational institutions for the education of both boys and girls. It represented a form of national awakening of the Indian people. It adopts the programme of mass education, elimination of sub-castes and equality of men and women.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… was one of the earlier reformers influenced by the western ideas to initiate reforms.
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) M.G.Ranade
(d) Atma Ram Pandurang.
Answer:
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 2.
Lord William Bentinck passed an Act in 1829, to abolish “Sati” due to the efforts of
(a) Mrs. Annie Besant
(b) Lala Hansray
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 3.
Arya Samaj movement initiated its movement in ………………
(a) Assam
(b) Punjab
(c) Bihar
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Punjab

Question 4.
The headquarters of the Rama Krishna Mission is at
(a) Kanchipuram
(b) Belur
(c) Melur
Answer:
(b) Belur

Question 5.
Prarthana Samaj was founded in ………………
(a) Bihar
(b) Bombay
(c) Bengal
(d) Madras
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Question 6.
Sir Syed Ahamed Khan started the
(a) Aligarh movement
(b) Muslim League
(c) Theosophical Society
Answer:
(a) Aligarh movement

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Question 7.
……………… was the prime follower of Ramakrishna Paramahansa
(a) Vivekananda
(b) Atma Ram Pandurang
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Keshab Chandra Sen
Answer:
(a) Vivekananda

Question 8.
A great socialist reformer from Kerala is
(a) Sree Narayana Guru
(b) Guru Nanak
(c) Guru Sai
Answer:
(a) Sree Narayana Guru

Question 9.
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha ………………
(a) 1849
(b) 1851
(c) 1850
(d) 1862
Answer:
(b) 1851

Question 10.
The Hindus who had been converted to other religions were reconverted by
(a) Swadeshi movement
(b) Suddhi movement
(c) National movement
Answer:
(b) Suddhi movement

Question 11.
Iyothee Thassar called the ……………… as Sathi Petham Atra Dravidar.
(a) Untouchables
(b) Parsis
(c) Akali
(d) Sikhs
Answer:
(a) Untouchables

Question 12.
……………… criticized the rule of British as the rule of White Devils.
(a) Ramalinga Adigal
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal
(c) Furdunji Naoroji
(d) Iyothee Thassar
Answer:
(b) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 13.
……………… considered education as a powerful tool for empowerment and a driving force behind the establishment of several schools.
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Iyothee Thassar
(c) Vaikunda Swamigal
(d) Sree Narayan Guru
Answer:
(b) Iyothee Thassar

Question 14.
……………… raised funds and campaigned to educate the lower caste of Pulaya people.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Ramalinga Adigal
Answer:
(a) Ayyankali

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Question 15.
……………… was called respectfully by his followers as Ayya.
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Namdhari
Answer:
(a) Vaikunda Swamigal

Question 16.
……………… launched the Satyashodak Samaj to stir the non-Brahmin masses to self-respect and ambition.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Jyotiba Phule.
(c) Narayana Guru
(d) Annie Besant
Answer:
(b) Jyotiba Phule.

Question 17.
……………… started a number of DAV Schools.
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Theosophical Society
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 18.
……………… worked mainly for the Ezhava community of Kerala.
(a) Ayyankali
(b) Sree Narayan Guru
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) M.G. Ranade
Answer:
(b) Sree Narayan Guru

Question 19.
Deoband movement was a ……………… movement.
(a) Reform
(b) Revival
(c) Anti-Reform
(d) Anti-Revival
Answer:
(b) Revival

Question 20.
Rast Goftar was the main voice of ……………… movement.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) Parsi
(d) Vaikundar
Answer:
(c) Parsi

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Question 21
……………… condemned the religious custom of animal sacrifice.
(a) Iyothee Thassar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Ramalinga
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Vaikundar

Question 22.
“I saw those people, poor and of unmatched honor, their hearts weary, and I grew weak” who said this”?
(a) Vallalar
(b) Vaikundar
(c) Iyothee Thassar
(d) Deoband
Answer:
(a) Vallalar

Question 23.
……………… and ……………… are the Socio-religious movement among the Sikhs.
(a) Nirankari
(b) Namdhari
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) (a), (b) and Akaii movement
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b)

Question 24.
……………… was the movement founded in USA and later shifted to India,
(a) Ramakrishna Mission
(b) Theosophical Society
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(b) Theosophical Society

Question 25.
……………… established the Khalsa college for the Sikhs in Amritsar.
(a) Namdhari
(b) Nirankari
(c) Singh Sabha
(d) Akaii
Answer:
(c) Singh Sabha

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. English Education was introduced by British with the arm of producing …………….. in India.
  2. In the 19th Century …………….. had its effect on the newly emerging middle class.
  3. The Indian reformers attempted to harmonize both Indian and …………….. cultures.
  4. The two categories of reform movements are: reform movements and …………….. movements.
  5. Raja Ram Mohan Roy preached worship of …………….. God.
  6. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s ideas forced Bentinck to bring legislation abolishing ……………..
  7. Sati was abolished in the year ……………..
  8. The Governor General …………….. helped in abolishing Sati in India.
  9. Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
  10. Brahmo Samaj was taken over by …………….. after the death of Ram Mohan Roy.
  11. Keshab Chandra Sen joined the Brahmo Samaj in ……………..
  12. Widow Remarriage Reform Act was passed in the year ……………..
  13. Gulamgiri was an important work written by ……………..
  14. …………….. was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association.
  15. …………….. was the founder of the Prarthana Samaj.
  16. …………….. movement was similar to the Brahmo Samaj.
  17. The age for marriage was fixed as …………….. years.
  18. The age of marriage was raised to thirteen years in ……………..
  19. The age of consent Act was passed in ……………..
  20. Arya Samaj was initiated at ……………..
  21. …………….. was the founder of Arya Samaj.
  22. Strict monotheism was one of the main principle of ……………..
  23. Swami Dayananda wrote the book ……………..
  24. …………….. started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic Schools and Colleges.
  25.  …………….. raised his voice as Go back to Vedas.
  26. …………….. accused that the group running he DAV School is too Westernised.
  27. …………….. worked as a priest in Kali temple but later became a great reformer.
  28. “Jiva is Siva” means ……………..
  29. The counter-conversion movement was called as ……………..
  30. …………….. means songs of Ignorance.
  31. The Theosophical Society was founded by …………….. and ……………..
  32. The Theosophical movement was founded in the …………….. in 1875.
  33. The Theosophical movement was in India at …………….. in Chennai in 1886.
  34. Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas with the help of the newspapers called …………….. and ……………..
  35. …………….. opened a first School for untouchables in 1852 in Poona.
  36. Jyothi Phule launched the Truth Seekers Society in ……………..
  37. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam is an organisation to uplift the ……………..
  38. …………….. translated many English books especially Science books into Urdu.
  39. …………….. raised funds to educate the lower class pulaya people.
  40. …………….. started the Aligarh movement.
  41. The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College was founded in the year ……………..
  42. The Aligarh Anglo-Oriental College was raised to the status of a University in ……………..
  43. …………….. used journalism as tool to make inroads into the print public sphere.
  44. Ramalinga Adigal was popularly known as ……………..
  45. Mercy to all living beings including plants is called ……………..
  46. …………….. opposed both Infant marriages and the use of astrology.
  47. …………….. was the founder of the Nirankari movement.
  48. Nirankar movement worship the God as ……………..
  49. Nirankar means ……………..
  50. The Namdhari movement was founded by ……………..
  51. …………….. cult was also known as Ayya Vazhi.
  52. …………….. founded Samathura Samajam.
  53. …………….. was a siddha medicine practitioner who turned into a reformer.
  54. …………….. started a weekly journal Oru Paisa Tamilian.

Answers:

  1. Clerks
  2. Christianity
  3. Western
  4. Revival
  5. One
  6. Sati
  7. 1829
  8. Bentinck
  9. 1828
  10. Debendranath Tagore
  11. 1857
  12. 1856
  13. JyotibaPhule
  14. Ranade
  15. Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
  16. PrarthanaSamaj
  17. Ten
  18. 1925
  19. 1860
  20. Punjab
  21. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
  22. Arya Samaj
  23. Satyartha Prakash
  24. Arya Samaj
  25. Swami Dayanda Saraswathi
  26. Swami Shradhananda
  27. Ramakrishna
  28. All living beings are God
  29. Suddi movement
  30. Marutpa
  31. Madame H.P Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott
  32. USA
  33. Adyar
  34. New India and Commonweal
  35. JyothiPhule
  36. 1870
  37. Depressed classes
  38. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
  39. Sadhu Jana paripalanasangam
  40. Sayyid Ahmed Khan
  41. 1875
  42. 1920
  43. IyotheeThassar
  44. Vallalar
  45. Jeeva karanga
  46. Parsi Reform movement
  47. Baba Dayal das
  48. Nirankar
  49. Formless
  50. Baba Ram Singh
  51. Vaikunda Swamigal
  52. VaikundaSwamigal
  53. Iyothee Thassar
  54. Iyothee Thassar

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

III. Choose the correct statements

Question 1.
(i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy argued that the ancient texts of the Hindus preached Monotheism.
(ii) Brahmo Samaj failed to attract the people from the lower sections of society.
(iii) Its impact on the culture of modern Bengal and its middle class was quite significant.
(iv) The poet Rabindranath Tagore carried on the work of Brahmo Samaj after Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The age of marriage of initially fixed for 25 years.
(ii) Later it was reduced to thirteen years in 1925.
(iii) It was raised to eighteen in 1891.
(iv) Now, the law remained as twenty as in 1860 Act.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong

Question 3.
(i) Arya Samaj attempted to check the incidence of religious conversion in British India.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with God through the practice of singing bhajans.
(iii) Theosophical Society stimulated the study of the Christianity among people.
(iv) Savitribai Phule devoted her life for the upliftment of the depressed classes.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Narendra Nath Datta was known as Swami Vivekananda.
(ii) He became famous for his address on Hinduism at the Indian Congress of Hindus in Chicago in 1893.
(iii) Narayana Guru inspired Kerala Society especially among the Ezhavas.
(iv) inspired by Sree Narayana Guru, Ayyankali founded the Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas through her newspapers called New India and Commonweal.
(ii) Jyotiba Phule is chiefly known as the earliest leader of the non-Brahmin movement.
(iii) His work Gulamgiri is an important text that summarized many of his radical ideas.
(iv) Thinkers and writers such as Kumaran Asan and Dr. Palpu were influenced by Narayana Guru ideas.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong.

Question 6.
(i) Deoband School did not prepare its students for the government jobs but for the preaching of Islamic faith.
(ii) In South Travancore, there were restrictions on lower caste people as to what to wear and not to wear.
(iii) lyothee Thassar established a movement called as Oru, Paisa Tamilian.
(iv) John Rathinam ideas were collected into a text called Akila Thirattu.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Keshab Chandra Sen was greatly influenced by Christianity. Reason (R): He was believing in its spirit, but not in the person of its founder.
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Reform movement Arya Samaj was started in Punjab. Reason (R): Swami Dayananda Saraswathi settled in Punjab to preach his ideas
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) R is correct but A is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The primary achievement of the Ramakrishna was his ability to attract educated youths..
Reason (R): The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo vedic Schools and colleges.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) R is wrong but A is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Narayana Guru established a grand temple at Arivupuram and dedicated it to all.
Reason (R): In his days, the people of the depressed classes has no access to temples.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A.
(c) A and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong R is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant to A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The School at Deoband encouraged English education. Reason (R): The instruction imparted in the School was the Original Islamic religion.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct.
(c) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A.
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Ramaiinga Adigal established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur in 1867.
Reason (R): There was a terrible famine in South India in 1866.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant explanation to A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Pandithar lyothee Thassar went to Srilanka in 1898 and converted to Buddhism.
Reason (R): He was disappointed with the Hindi dharma, which served as a base for propogating caste in Hindu Society.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not relevant to A
(c) A is wrong R is correct.
(d) R is correct and A is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century 2
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century 3
Answer:
A. (vii)
B. (vi)
C. (iv)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century 4
Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Prarthana Samaj.
Answer:

  1. Prarthana Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1867 by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang.
  2. It advocated inter-dining, inter-caste marriage, widow re-marriage, improvement of women and downtrodden classes, abolition of Purdha System and Child marriage.
  3. The Samaj is founded night schools, asylum and Orphanages and other such institutions for the downtrodden people.

Question 2.
Write a note on Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
It was a reform movement formed in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy at Calcutta. The Samaj mainly focused on the customs of Sati, Child marriage and Polygamy and wanted to remove them legally. The Samaj was successful by abolishing Sati in 1829, with the help of the Governor General Bentinck. It appealed widow remarriage and followed monotheism.

Question 3.
Mention the main principles of the Theosophical Society.
Answer:

  1. To develop the feeding of fraternity.
  2. To study ancient religions, philosophy and science.
  3. To find out the laws of nature and the development of divine power in India.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna mission. The mission did not restrict itself to religious activities but was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is the practical Vedanta of this mission.

Question 5.
Point out the impacts of Social and Religious reform movements in the 19th Century.
Answer:

  1. These movements greatly helped to abolish some of the evils like sati, child marriage and inter and untouchability.
  2. It promoted education, encouraged widow re-marriage, inter-caste marriages and inter-dining.
  3. It instilled social awakening and spirit of nationalism in the middle of Indians.
  4. It made the people to be proud of their culture and glory.
  5. It helped the Indians to face problems with scientific approach and outlook.

Question 6.
List out the Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(i) The Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu are Ramalinga Swamigal – emphasising feeding of poor.
(ii) Vaikunda Swamigal – emphasising unity of people of all castes.
(iii) Iyothee Thassar – emphasising Caste less society.

Question 7.
Who is known as Martin-Luthur of Hinduism? Why?
Answer:

  1. Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi is known as the Martin Luther of Hinduism.
  2. He started Suddhi Movement to reconvert the Hindus who had been converted to other religions earlier.
  3. By his efforts, a large number of people were taken back within the fold of Hinduism.

Question 8.
As a student of today, what do you think the social evils present in today’s world and need reform?
Answer:
The Social evils present in today’s world and need reforms are Girl child harassment, female infanticide, Non-observance of societal rules, Adulteration, and above all poverty and pollution.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

VII. Answer all the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Brahmo Samaj

(a) Who founded Brahmo Samaj?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy

(b) What Were the languages learnt by Raja Rammohan Roy?
Answer:
Arabic, Sanskrit, Persian, English, French, Latin, Greek and Hebrew languages.

(c) Name the books written by Raja Rammohan Roy.
Answer:
Precepts of Jesus Christ and Guide to Peace and Happiness were written by Raja Rammohan Roy.

(d) What did Brahmo Samaj believe?
Answer:
It believed in a “Universal religion” based on the principle of one Supreme God.

Question 2.
Arya Samaj

(a) When, where and who founded the Arya Samaj.
Answer:
The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi in 1875, in Punjab.

(b) What was the main idea focused by the Samaj.
Answer:
‘Go Back to Vedas’.

(c) What did the Samaj do in the field of education?
Answer:
The Samaj started a number of Dayananda Anglo-vedic schools and colleges to spread education.

(d) What was the name of the school started after dayananda starting OAV schools are westernised?
Answer:
By 1900, Swami Shraddhanada established his own network of schools called Gurukulas emphasising the study of vedas.

Question 3.
The Theosophical Society

(a) Who was the founder of the Theosophical Society?
Answer:
It was founded by Madame Blavatsky and Henry S. Olcott.

(b) Why was it founded?
Answer:
It was founded to preach about God and Wisdom.

(c) Who was the president of this society in 1893?
Answer:
Mrs. Annie Besant.

(d) Where is the headquarters of this society located?
Answer:
The headquarters of this society is at Adyar in Chennai.

Question 4.
Parsi and Sikh Reform Movements

(a) Who founded the Parsis’ Reform Society?
Answer:
Furdunji Naoroji founded the Parsis’ Reform Society in 1851.

(b) What are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements?
Answer:
Nirankaris and Namdharis are the names of the two Sikh Reform Movements.

(c) Name the leader from Parsi community who played a big role in early congress?
Answer:
Pherozeshah Mehta and Dinshaw Wacha played a big role in early congress from Parsi community.

(d) Who were the founders of the Sikh Reform movements? What was the objective?
Answer:
Baba Dayal Das was the founder of the Nirankari movement and Baba Ram Singh was the founder of the Namdhari movement Its main objective was to restore the purity of Sikhism and the authority of Guru Nanak.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Elaborate the Early Reform Movements in Bengal.
Answer:
Brahmo Samaj: This was one of the earlier reform movement founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Deeply concerned with the customs of Sati, child marriage and polygamy, raised his voice through the Samaj and abolished sati by legislation in 1829. The Samaj strongly advocated education for women, widow remarriage and western education. It Condemned Idol worship and meaningless rituals and ceremonies.

Adi Brahmo Samaj: In 1886, a Split occurred in Brahmo Samaj and Keshab Chandra Sen left the Samaj and founded a new organisation called Debendranath’s organisation also called as Adi-Brahmo Samaj, This Samaj also followed the ideas of Brahmo Samaj.

Prarthana Samaj: A movement similar to Brahmo Samaj founded in Bombay was called Prathana Samaj. It was founded by R.C Bhandarkar and Mahadev Govinda Ranade. Inter caste dining, Inter-caste marriage, Widow remarriage, improvement of women and depressed classes were their main activities.

Arya Samaj: The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi. This is a revival movement stating ‘ Go back to Vedas’, The Samaj concentrated on social reforms and education . DAV schools of today were originally started by Arya Samaj.

Ramakrishna Mission: Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda. The mission actively involved in the social causes such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities. Service to humanity is their slogan which means Service to God.

Theosophical Movement: The Theosophical movement was founded in ‘ USA by Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott. Later the movement laid its foundation headed by Annie Besant in Adyar, Chennai.

She spread her ideas through her newspaper New India and commonweal. This movement played a major role in Indian Nationalist politics.

Question 2.
Explain the activities of the Ramakrishna Mission.
Answer:

  1. Ramakrishna Mission’s activities cover the areas like educational work, healthcare, cultural activities, rural upliftment, tribal welfare and youth movement.
  2. It has its own hospitals, charitable dispensaries, maternity clinics, tuberculosis clinics and mobile dispensaries.
  3. It also maintains training centres for nurses.
  4. Orphanages and homes for the elderly people are maintained. Rural and tribal welfare works are also going on.
  5. It educational activities the Ramakrishna Mission has established many renowned educational institutions in India.
  6. It has its own universities, colleges and vocational training centres.
  7. It has also involved in disaster relief operations during famine, epidemic, fire, flood, earthquake, cyclones and communal disturbances.
  8. It played an important role in the installation of Photo Voltaic (PV) lighting system in the Sundarbans regions of West Bengal. The PV lighting was used to provide electricity to the people, who were traditionally depending on kerosene and diesel.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 3 Thermal Physics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The value of universal gas constant:
(a) 3.81 mol-1 K-1
(b) 8.03 mol-1 K-1
(c) 1.38 mol-1 K-1
(d) 8.31 mol-1 K-1
Answer:
(d) 8.31 mol-1 K-1

Question 2.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is:
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 3.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of ______.
(a) X or -X
(b) Y or -Y
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)
Hint: When a substance is heated its expansion is positive i,e, can be taken along either +X or +Y direction. But when substance is cooled it’s either length or area or volume decreases i.e. with respect expansion, it is opposite direction i.e. either -X or -Y direction respectively.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 4.
Temperature is the average of the molecules of a substance.
(a) difference in K.E and P.E
(b) sum of P.E and K.E
(c) difference in T.E and P.E
(d) difference in K.E and T.E
Answer:
(b) sum of P.E and K.E

Question 5.
In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 1
(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C
(b) A → B, A → C, B → C
(c) A → B, A ← C, B → C
(d) A ← B, A → C, B ← C
Answer:
(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C

II. Fill in the blanks.

  1. The value of Avogadro number ………..
  2. The temperature and heat are ……….. quantities.
  3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of ……….. of water through
  4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of volume is …………

Answer:

  1. 6.023 × 1023
  2. Inter convertible
  3. 1 gram, 1°C
  4. A straight line

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

  1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real expansion.
  2. Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
  3. According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely proportional to volume.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. False – According to Charles law, at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to temperature.

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 2
Answer:
A. (s)
B. (t)
C. (p)
D. (q)
E. (r)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

V. Assertion and Reason type questions.

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: There is no effects on other end when one end of the rod is only heated.
Reason: Heat always flows from a region of lower temperature to higher temperature of the rod.

2. Assertion: Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid
Reason: Interatomic or intermolecular distance in the gas is comparably high.
Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)

VI. Answer in briefly.

Question 1.
Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is defined as the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

Question 2.
Distinguish between linear and superficial areal expansion.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 3

Question 3.
What is the coefficient of cubical expansion?
Answer:
The ratio of increase in the volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called a coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 4.
State Boyle’s law
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
P ∝ 1 / V

Question 5.
State-the law of volume.
Answer:
When the pressure of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.
i.e., V ∝ T.
(or)
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = constant.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 6.
Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 4

Question 7.
What is co-efficient of real expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of real expansion is defined as the ratio of the true rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume. The SI unit of coefficient of real expansion is the K-1.

Question 8.
What is the coefficient of apparent expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of apparent expansion is defined as the ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume.
The SI unit of the coefficient of apparent expansion is K-1.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Find the final temperature of a copper rod whose area of cross section changes from 10 m² to 11 m² due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 /K).
Answer:
Change in area ΔA = 11 – 10 = 1 m²
Initial temperature T1 = 90 K
Let Final temperature be T2K
A0 = 10 m²
Coefficient of superficial expansion is
αA = 0.0021 / k
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = αAΔT
\(\frac{1}{10}\) = 0.0021 ΔT
∴ ΔT = 0.0021 × 10
= 0.021
T2 – T1 = 0.021
T2 – 90 = 0.021
∴ Final temperature T2 = 90.021 K

Question 2.
Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar. Whose volume is increased 0.25 m³ from 0.3 m³ due to the change in its temperature of 50 K.
Answer:
Initial volume V0 = 0.25 m³
Final volume = 0.30 m³
Change in volume ΔV = 0.3 – 0.25 = 0.05 m³
Temperature ΔT = 50K
Coefficient of cubical expansion is
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 5
∴ Coefficient of Cubical expansion
αv = 0.004 /K

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Derive the ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law and Avogadro’s law.
According to Boyle’s law, PV = constant ………. (1)
According to Charles’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant ……… (2)
According to Avogadro’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant …….. (3)
After combining equations (1), (2) and (3), you equation. can get the following
\(\frac{V}{nT}\) = constant ……. (4)
The above relation is called the combined law of gases. If you consider a gas, which contains µ moles of the gas, the number of atoms contained will be equal to µ times the Avogadro number, N0.
i.e., n = µNA
Using equation (5), in equation (4) can be written as
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = constant
The value of the constant in the above equation is taken to be KB, which is called as Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10-23 JK-1). Hence, we have the following equation:
\(\frac{PV}{µN_{A}T}\) = KB
PV = µNAKBT
µNAKB = R
which is termed as universal gas constant whose value is 8.31 J mol-1 K-1.
PV = RT
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 2.
Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 6
To start with, the liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be determined is poured in a container up to a level. Mark this level as L1. Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner. Initially, the container receives the thermal energy and it expands. As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to have reduced. Mark this reduced level of liquid as L2. On further heating, the thermal energy supplied to the liquid through the container results in the expansion of the liquid. Hence, the level of liquid rises to L3. Now, the difference between the levels L1 and L3 is called as apparent expansion, and the difference between the levels L2 and L3 is called real expansion. The real expansion is always more than that of apparent expansion.
Real expansion = L3 – L2
Apparent expansion = L3 – L1

IX. HOT Question

Question 1.
If you keep ice at 0°C and water at 0°C in either of your hands, in which hand you will feel more chillness? Why?
Answer:
The hand consisting of ice at 0°C would feel more chillness because, ice undergoes melting. More amount of energy (chillness) is transferred to hand. In addition ice has latent heat of fusion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The commonly used scales of temperature are:
(a) Kelvin
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Ideal gas equation for n mole of gas ____.
(a) PT = nRV
(b) Pv = nRT
(c) PV = nRT
(d) PT = RV.
Answer:
(b) Pv = nRT
Hint: T represents absolute temperature by t temperature in 0°C.

Question 3.
The value of 27° C in the kelvin scale:
(a) 30 K
(b) 300 K
(c) 327 K
(d) 0 K
Answer:
(b) 300 K

Question 4.
Kelvin scale has zero reading at temperature _____.
(a) 0°C
(b) -100°C
(c) -273°C
(d) -212°C.
Answer:
(c) -273°C
Hint: K = C + 273 or C = K – 273
at K = 0, C = -273°.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 5.
The relation between Celsius and kelvin scales of temperature is:
(a) K = 273 – C
(b) K = C + 273
(c) K=
(d) K = C
Answer:
(b) K = C + 273

Question 6.
Linear expansion is related to _____.
(a) area
(b) length
(c) volume
(d) mass.
Answer:
(b) length
Hint: Linear expansion is directly proportional to the original length of rod and rise in temperature.

Question 7.
For any exchange of heat:
(a) Heat gained = Zero
(b) Heat lost = Zero
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost
(d) Heat gained = -heat lost
Answer:
(c) Heat gained = Heat lost

Question 8.
………. is the degree of hotness.
(a) Heat
(b) Calorie
(c) Joule
(d) Temperature
Answer:
(d) Temperature

Question 9.
Avogadro’s Number _____ mol.
(a) 6.023 × 1023
(b) 6.025 × 1025
(c) 6.24 × 1024
(d) 6.022 × 1022.
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 1023
Hint: NA = 6.023 × 1023

Question 10.
If a temperature of 327°C is equivalent to ………. in kelvin scale.
(a) 273 K
(b) 600 K
(c) -527 K
(d) -273 K
Answer:
(b) 600 K

Question 11.
When spirit is poured on our hand, cooling is produced because:
(a) Spirit has cooling effect.
(b) Spirit has boiling effect.
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.
(d) The boiling point of spirit is high.
Answer:
(c) The boiling point of spirit is low.

Question 12.
Process of transfer of heat through liquid and gases is _____.
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) convection
Hint: Heat flows by the conventional current is upward direction by convection method.

Question 13.
Heat required to melt 1 kg of ice at 0°C is:
(a) 226 × 102 J
(b) 336 × 103 J
(c) 353 × 103 J
(d) 3 × 105 J
Answer:
(b) 336 × 103 J

Question 14.
Relation between α, β and γ is _____.
(a) α = β = γ
(b) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=3 \gamma\)
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
(d) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{4}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\)
Hint: (c) \(\alpha=\frac{\beta}{2}=\frac{\gamma}{3}\) (or) 6α = 3β = 2γ.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 15.
When a certain quantity of ice is melting remains the same.
(a) Volume
(b) Temperature
(c) Mass
(d) Density
Answer:
(b) Temperature

Question 16.
Steam causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature because steam:
(a) is in vapour state
(b) contains less heat than water at the same temperature.
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.
(d) cause bums by nature.
Answer:
(c) contains more heat than water at the same temperature.

Question 17.
Which expansion coefficient (α, β, γ) of a substance has the largest and y smallest magnitude?
(a) α, β
(b) α, γ
(c) γ, α
(d) β, α.
Answer:
(c) γ, α
Hint: As γ is 3 times of α and β is 2 times of α. so α is minimum and γ is maximum.

Question 18.
According to the principle of mixtures, the heat lost by a hot body is equal to:
(a) Heat gained by the surroundings
(b) Heat transferred to the surroundings
(c) Heat gained by the body
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Heat gained by the body

Question 19.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air at high temperature is:
(a) Less
(b) Temperature
(c) More
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) More

Question 20.
In steam heater, solids attain constant temperature because:
(a) Solid should not be heated less
(b) Solid should not be heated more
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C
(d) Volume does not change.
Answer:
(c) Melting point of solid is 100°C

Question 21.
The quantity of water vapour required to saturate air depends on:
(a) Pressure of atmosphere
(b) Temperature of atmosphere
(c) Humidity of atmosphere E
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Temperature of atmosphere

Question 22.
Volume of a gas at t°C is given by:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 7
Answer:
(c) Vt = Vo (1 + \(\frac{t}{273}\))

Question 23.
At a higher temperature to saturate air, ………. quantity of water vapour is required.
(a) Less
(b) Some
(c) More
(d) No
Answer:
(c) More

Question 24.
The relationship between length (L0) of a body and change in temperature is:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 8
Answer:
(b) L0 = \(\frac{ΔL}{α_{L}ΔT}\)

Question 25.
The S.l unit of coefficient of linear expansion is:
(a) °C
(b) K-1
(c) Cal
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) K-1

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 26.
Coefficient of superficial expansion:
(a) is same for all materials
(b) is infinity
(c) different for different materials
(d) is zero
Answer:
(c) different for different materials

Question 27.
The ratio of change in area of a metal to its original area is \(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) =
(a) αA
(b) αAΔT
(c) \(\frac{α_A}{ΔT}\)
(d) unity
Answer:
(b) αAΔT

Question 28.
According to Boyle’s law the relation between pressure (P) and volume of a gas is:
(a) P ∝ V
(b) P = V
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)
(d) V ∝ P
Answer:
(c) P ∝\(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 29.
At constant temperature of a gas:
(a) PV = 1
(b) PV = 0
(c) PV = infinity
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 30.
The mathematical form of Charles’s law is:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{T}\)
(b) TV = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) V = T
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

Question 31.
If V is the volume and n is the number of atoms present in it then:
(a) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{n}\)
(b) V ∝ n
(c) V = n
(d) \(\frac{n}{V}\) = constant
Answer:
(b) V ∝ n

Question 32.
\(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant is the mathematical form of:
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’s law
(c) Avogadro’s law
(d) Dalton’s law
Answer:
(c) Avogadro’s law

Question 33.
Mathematical form of Boyle’s law is:
(a) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
(b) PT = constant
(c) \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant
(d) PV = constant
Answer:
(d) PV = constant

Question 34.
A gas that obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law is called:
(a) Gas
(b) Ideal gas
(c) Perfect gas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Ideal gas

Question 35.
The value of universal gas constant is:
(a) 3.81 J/mol/K
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K
(c) 8.13
(d) 6.81 J/mol/K
Answer:
(b) 8.31 J/mol/K

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 36.
The unit of universal gas constant is:
(a) \(\frac{J}{K}\)
(b) J mol-1K
(c) J/mol/K
(d) J K-1 mol
Answer:
(c) J/mol/K

Question 37.
If atoms of a gas do not interact with each other than the gas is:
(a) natural gas
(b) bio gas
(c) real gas
(d) perfect gas
Answer:
(d) perfect gas

Question 38.
Mathematical form of ideal gas equation is:
(a) PV = T
(b) P = RT
(c) PV = RT
(d) PV = R
Answer:
(c) PV = RT

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The value if 290K in Celsius scale is ……….
2. The value of 37°C in kelvin scale is ……….
3. The value of 323 K in Celsius scale is ……….
4. Transfer of heat is continued until a ………. is established.
5. ……….. produces the sensation of warm.
6. When a body is heated or cooled its ……….. is not altered.
7. For any exchanges of heat …………. = …………
8. On heating all forms of matter undergo ………..
9. The coefficient of linear expansion is ………. for ……….. metals.
10. The unit of coefficient of superficial expansion is …………
11. The coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid is independent of …………
12. The S.l of unit of coefficient of real expansion is ………..
13. As per Boyle’s law pressure of a gas is …………. proportional to its volume.
14. PV = constant is the mathematical form of ………….
15. As per Charles’s law volume of a gas is ………… to temperature.
16. According Avogadro’s law volume of a gas is directly proportional ………… present in it.
17. The value of Avogadro’s number is …………
18. A gas that obey Boyle’s law is …………
19. A gas that does not obey gas laws then it is …………
20. A gas in which atoms interact with a force then it is a ………..
21. For a given heat, the real expansion is ……….. than that of apparent expansion.
22. The equation of state of a gas is …………
23. Universal gas equation is used to describe the ………….
24. If a gas consists of µ moles then the number of atoms in n = …………
Answer:
1. 17°C
2. 310 K
3.50°C
4. thermal equilibrium
5. Heat
6. mass
7. Heat gained, Heat lost
8. expansion
9. different, different
10. K-1
11. Temperature
12. K-1
13. inversely
14. Boyle’s law
15. directly proportional
16. number of atoms or molecules
17. 6.023 × 1023/mol
18. ideal gas
19. real gas
20. real gas
21. more
22. PV = RT
23. state of any gas
24. µNA, NA – Avogadro’s number

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?

1. The relation between Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale of temperature is (K) K = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
2. The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K = C – 273.
3. Thermal energy is also known as heat energy.
4. When a body is heated volume is not altered.
5. All forms of matter undergo expansion on heating.
6. Longitudinal expansion is given by ΔL = L0αLΔT
7. Cubical expansion is same for all materials.
8. The S.l unit of coefficient of apparent expansion is K-1.
9. As per Boyle’s law PT = constant.
10. According to Avogadro’s law \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant
Answer:
1. True
2. False -The relation between Celsius and Kelvin is K= C + 273
3. True
4. False – When a body is heated mass is not altered.
5. True
6. True
7. False – Cubical expansion is different for different materials.
8. True
9. False – As per Boyle’s law PV= constant.
10. True

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II.

Question 1.
Match the following:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 9
Answer:
A – (s)
B – (t)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 2.
Match the following:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 10
Answer:
A – (s)
B – (r)
C – (p)
D – (q)

Question 3.
Match the following:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 11
Answer:
A – (t)
B – (s)
C – (p)
D – (q)

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: In a pressure cooker, the water starts boiling again on removing its lid.
Reason: The impurities in water bring down its boiling point.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the ’ correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 2.
Assertion: Air at some distance above the fire is hotter than same distance below it.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire carries heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 3.
Assertion: Woolen clothes keys the body warm in winter.
Reason: Air a poor conducts of heat.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Temperature near the sea coast is moderate.
Reason: Water has a high thermal conductivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: It is hotter over the top of fire than at the same distance on the sides.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat upwards.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 6.
Assertion: Perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body. Reason: A thin layer of water on the skin enhance its emissivity.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

VI. Answer in briefly

Question 1.
Define Temperature.
Answer:
Temperature is defined as the property which determines whether a body is in equilibrium or not with the surroundings.

Question 2.
Why the gas thermometer is more sensitive than Hg thermometer
Answer:
As the thermal (cubical) expansion of gas is much larger than Hg. So gas thermometer is more sensitive than of Hg thermometer.

Question 3.
What is meant by thermodynamic temperature?
Answer:
The temperature measured in relation to absolute zero using the kelvin scale is known as absolute temperature. It is also known as the thermodynamic temperature.

Question 4.
What is the relation between different types of scale of temperature?
Answer:
The relation between the different types of scale of temperature:
Celsius and Kelvin: K = C + 273,
Fahrenheit and Kelvin: [K] = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\).
0 K = -273°C.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 5.
Do all liquids expand on heating? give an example.
Answer:
All liquids do not expand on heating. If water is heated from 0°C to 4°C it contracts.

Question 6.
What will happen if two bodies are at different temperatures brought in contact with one other?
Answer:
There will be a transfer of heat energy from the hot body to the cold body until a thermal equilibrium is established between them.

Question 7.
What will happen if a cold body is placed in contact with a hot body?
Answer:
Some thermal energy is transferred from the hot body to the cold body. As a result, there is some rise in the temperature of the cold body and decrease in the temperature of the hot body. This process will continue until these two bodies attain the same temperature.

Question 8.
Why is invar is used in making a clock pendulum or spring to oscillate?
Answer:
Invar an alloy of Ni and steel has extremely low thermal expansion so the change in length in summer and winter will be a very small change, so the time period of oscillation will be very small. Hence the clock gives almost the correct time.

Question 9.
What is meant by heating?
Answer:
The process in which heat energy flows from a body at a higher temperature to another body at lower temperature is known as heating.

Question 10.
What is the average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas?
Answer:
As the velocity components of molecules of an ideal gas, all three axis time and time axis are equal in magnitude so their vector sum will be zero. So every velocity of an ideal gas is zero.

Question 11.
What changes will occur when heat is given to a substance?
Answer:

  1. Temperature of the substance rises.
  2. The substance may change its state from solid to liquid or from liquid to gas. (Hi) The substance will expand when heated.

Question 12.
Why does the temperature less than zero on the absolute scale not possible.
Answer:
As the absolute temperature (T) is directly proportioned to KE of molecules of gas, and KE of molecules can never be negative so the absolute scale temperature can never be negative.

Question 13.
What is meant by linear expansion?
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

Question 14.
Write the characteristics of an ideal gas.
Answer:

  1. It obeys all gas laws at all values of temperature pressure.
  2. Size of molecules is negligibly small.
  3. There is no force of attraction or repulsion between its molecule.

Question 15.
Mention the relation between change in length and coefficient of linear expansion?
Answer:
The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = αLΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L0 – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
αL – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 16.
What is meant by superficial expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Question 17.
Define co-efficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 18.
State the relation between change in area and change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = αAΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Initial area)
A0 – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
αA – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 19.
What is meant by cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion.

Question 20.
Write the equation relation the change in volume and the change in temperature.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = αAΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Initial volume)
V0 – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
αV – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 21.
What is real expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
If a liquid is heated directly without using any container, then the expansion that you observe is termed as real expansion of the liquid.

Question 22.
What is meant by apparent expansion of a liquid?
Answer:
The expansion of a liquid when observed without considering the expansion of the container is called the apparent expansion of the liquid.

Question 23.
State Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
Avogadro’s law states that at constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to number of atoms or molecules present in it.
i.e., V α n
(or) \(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant

Question 24.
What is Avogadro’s number?
Answer:
Avogadro’s number (NA) is the total number of atoms per mole of the substance. It is equal to 6.023 × 1023/mol.

Question 25.
What are real gases?
Answer:
If the molecules or atoms of a gases interact with each other with a definite amount of intermolecular or inter atomic force of attraction, then the gases are said to be real gases.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 26.
What is a perfect gas?
Answer:
If the atoms or molecules of a gas do not interact with each other, then the gas is said to be an ideal gas or a perfect gas.

Question 27.
What is an ideal gas equation?
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas.

Question 28.
Why is ideal gas equation called as equation of state?
Answer:
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 29.
Define each unit of a thermodynamic scale of temperature.
Answer:
Each unit of the thermodynamic scale of temperature is defined as the fraction of 1/273.16th part of the thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of water.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Transform 100°C into K.
Answer:
T (kelvin) = (273 + t°C) K
= (273 + 100) K
= 373 K
100°C = 373 K

Question 2.
Convert 23 K into °C.
Answer:
T = 23 K
T°C = K – 273
= 23 – 273
= -250°C
23 K = -250°C

Question 3.
If the gap between steel sails on the railway track of 66 m long is 3.63 cm at 10°C. Then at what value of temperature will just touch of steel is 11 × 10-6 °C.
Solution:
L0 = 66 m = 6600 cm
α = 11 × 10-6 °C.
∆L = Lt – L0 = 3.63
t1 = 10°C
t2 = ?
\(\alpha=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{o}} \Delta \mathrm{T}}\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{0} \times \alpha}} \\ {\Delta \mathrm{T}=\frac{3.63}{6600 \times 11 \times 10^{-6}}}\end{array}\)
∆T = t2 – t1 = 50
⇒ t2 – 10 = 50
⇒ t2 = 50 + 10 = 60°C
so final temperature t2 = 60°C

Question 4.
At what temperature do the ratings of Celsius and Fahrenheit scales coincide?
Answer:
Let TB = TB – x
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 12
∴ 180x = 100x – 3200
80x = -3200
x = –\(\frac{3200}{80}\) = -40°
x = -40°
∴ Hence -40°C and -40° f are identical Temperature.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 5.
On heating a glass block of 105 cm³ from 25°C to 40°C its volume increases by 4 cm³. Calculate the coefficient of
(i) Cubical expansion and
(ii) Linear expansion
Answer:
Volume V0 = 105 cm³
Change in temperature ΔT = 40 – 25 = 15°C
Change in volume ΔV = 4 cm³
(i) The coefficient of cubical expansion is
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 13
αV = 26.67 × 10-6/°C

(ii) Coefficient of linear expansion is
αL = \(\frac{αV}{3}\)
αL = \(\frac{26.67}{3}\) × 10-6
αL = 8.89 × 10-6/°C

Question 6.
A balloon partially filled with the gas volume 30 m3 at on surface of the earth where pressure is 76 cm of Hg and temperature is 27°C. What will be the increase in the volume of the gas balloon when it rises to a height where the temperature becomes (-54°C) and pressure become 7.6 cm of Hg.
Solution:
Given, P1 = 76 cm Hg, P2 = 7.6 cm of Hg
V1 = 30 m3, V2 = ?
T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
T2 = -54 + 273 = 219 K
By gas equation
\(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}\)
\(\mathrm{V}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1} \mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1} \mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{76 \times 30 \times 219}{300 \times 7.6}\) = 219 m3
So increase in volume of gas = 219 – 30 = 189 m3.

Question 7.
If the area of metal changes by 0.22% when it is heated through 10°C, then calculate the coefficient of superficial expansion.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔA}{A}\) = 0.22% = \(\frac{0.22}{100}\)
Change in temperature ΔT = 10°C
∴ Coefficient of cubical expansion
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 14
= 22 × 10-6/°C

Question 8.
Using the ideal gas equation determine the value of universal gas constant. It is given that one gram, molecule of a gas at S.T.P occupies 22.4 litres.
Answer:
Pressure P = 1.013 × 105 pa
Volume V = 22.4 lit I
= 22.4 × 10-3
Temperature T = 273 K
For one mole of a gas
PV = RT
∴ R = \(\frac{PV}{T}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 15
= 8.31 J/mol/K

Question 9.
When a gas filled in a closed vessel is heated through 1°C, its pressure increases by 0.4% what is the initial temperature of the gas?
Answer:
Initial pressure P1 = P
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 16
PT + 0.004PT = PT + P
0.004PT = P
∴ T = \(\frac{1}{0.004}\)
= 250 K
∴ Initial Temperature of the gas = 250 K

Question 10.
A vessel of volume 2000 cm³ contains 0.1 mole of O2 and 0.2 mole of CO2 . If the temperature of the mixture is 300 K then calculate the pressure exerted by it.
Answer:
n1 = 0.1; n2 = 0.2; R = 8.31 J/mol/K;
Temperature T = 300K; Volume V = 2000 × 10-6
Pressure P = P1 + P2
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 17
P = 3.74 × 105 pa

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain how the loss of heat (or transfer of heat) due to modes of transfer of heat is minimised in a thermos flask.
Answer:
Transfer of heat is thermos is minimised as under:
(i) By conduction: As in conduction heat can transfer by contact of a material medium. In thermos, the air is evacuated between the walls so heat transfer is stopped by conduction mode.

(ii) By convection: As convection mode also requires material (fluid) medium and there is nothing between the walls of thermos so heat does not transfer by connection mode.

(iii) By Radiation: As Ag polish is coated opaque on inner and outer walls of thermos radiation obeys the laws of refraction and reflection so no refraction takes place through opaque wall.
Reflection of outer radiation goes outside of the inner wall goes inside. So the transfer of heat is minimised by polishing.

Question 2.
Explain linear expansion in Solids.
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.

The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion. The SI unit of Coefficient of Linear expansion is K-1. The value of coefficient of linear expansion is different for different materials.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 18
The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is given below:
\(\frac{ΔL}{L_0}\) = αLΔT
ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
L0 – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
αL – Coefficient of linear expansion.

Question 3.
Write a note on superficial expansion.
Answer:
If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Superficial expansion is determined in terms of coefficient of superficial expansion. The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion. Coefficient of superficial expansion is different for different materials. The SI unit of Coefficient of superficial expansion is K-1.

The equation relating to the change in area and the change in temperature is given below:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 19
\(\frac{ΔA}{A_0}\) = αAΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final area – Original area)
A0 – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
αA – Coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 4.
What do you know about cubical expansion?
Answer:
If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, then the expansion is called cubical or volumetric expansion. As in the cases of linear and areal expansion, cubical expansion is also expressed in terms of coefficient of cubical expansion. The ratio of increase in volume of the body ‘ per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion. This is also measured in K-1.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics 20
The equation relating to the change in volume and the change in temperature is given below:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V_0}\) = αVΔT
ΔV – Change in volume (Final volume – Original volume)
V0 – Original volume
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
αV – Coefficient of cubical expansion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

IX. Hot Questions.

Question 1.
At what common temperature a block of wood metal appear equally cold or hot when touched?
Answer:
A body appears hot when touched if heat flows from the body to our hand and vice – versa. If there is no flow of heat across the body and hand, the body can not be identified while it is hot or cold as bodies are in thermal equilibrium with our body. So both block of wood and metal must have the temperature of our body i.e., 37°C.

Question 2.
At room temperature water does not sublimate from ice to steam. Give reason.
Answer:
The critical temperature of the water is much above room temperature.

Question 3.
Good conductors of heat are also good conductors of electricity and vice versa why?
Answer:
It is because of the movement of electrons present in the materials.

Question 4.
When does the Charle’s law fail?
Answer:
By Charle’s law at constant pressure
V ∝ T or T ∝ V
At T = 0 K volume must be zero but it is impossible, at low-temperature gases does not obey the characterise of the ideal gas. As the molecules come closer and force of attraction and repulsion takes place.

Question 5.
When sugar is added to tea it gets cooled, why?
Answer:
When sugar is added to tea, its heat gets shared by sugar. So temperature of tea decreases.

Question 6.
A metal disc has a hole in it. What happens to the size of the hole, when the disc is heated.
Answer:
The size of the hole increases. Because expansion takes place on heating.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Question 7.
Can the temperature of a body be negative on the kelvin scale.
Answer:
No, This is because absolute zero on the kelvin scale is the minimum possible temperature.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

  • The question paper comprises of four parts.
  • You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
  • All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
  • Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
  • Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
  • Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
  • Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
We may choose to be wise or ridiculous.
(a) funny (b) earnest (c) critical (d) serious
Answer:
(a) funny

Question 2.
Tenzing kicked steps in a long traverse.
(a) vertical movement (b) diving (c) jumping (d) crisscross
Answer:
(d) crisscross

Question 3.
Suffering ennobles you.
(a) destroys (b) dignifies (c) distresses (d) encourages
Answer:
(b) dignifies

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
Liberties of everybody must be curtailed.
(a) restricted (b) reduced (c) constrained (d) increased
Answer:
(d) increased

Question 5.
With effort I could muster my arms and shoulder.
(a) collect (b) give (c) lose (d) gather
Answer:
(c) lose

Question 6.
He was a walking horror.
(a) delight (b) shock (c) disgust (d) fear
Answer:
(a) delight

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘merciless’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Adjective (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Adjective

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of VAT.
(a) Value Added Task (b) Value Added Time, (c) Value Addictive Task (d) Value Added Tax
Answer:
(d) Value Added Tax

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
The guerrilla fighters took control of the capital of the country, which gave them control of the government.
(a) civil war (b) monkey war (c) little war (d) giant war
Answer:
(c) little war

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word adflation.
(a) ad + flation (b) advertisement + inflation (c) advt + elation (d) advt + flation
Answer:
(a) ad + flation

Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for influenza.
(a) flu (b) influ (c) inf (d) fluenz
Answer:
(a) flu

Question 12.
The craze for collecting postage stamps is known as ………………………
(a) Melomania (b) parricide (c) pragmatist (d) stampomania
Answer:
(d) stampomania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word ‘reconcile’.
(a) -ment (b) -ion (c) -able (d) -ly
Answer:
(a) -ment

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
The management is the one …………………….. promised to block it off.
(a) which (b) where (c) who (d) whose
Answer:
(a) which

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
I got ………………………. the horse.
(a) above (b) by (c) onto (d) from
Answer:
(c) onto

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement.
You met Seth yesterday, ………………………….?
(a) won’t you (b) didn’t you (c) will you (d) don’t you
Answer:
(b) didn’t you

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning for the idiom found in the following sentence.
Sasidharan was accusing us of stealing his phone until he found it, and now he’s trying to sweep it under the rug.
(a) hiding under the rug (b) pretend that the incident never happened (c) sweeping the floor (d) make up for his mistake
Answer:
(b) pretend that the incident never happened

Question 18.
Replace the underlined word with a euphemistic expression.
The Government bans ethnic cleansing of the disabled.
(a) infanticide (b) matricide (c) regicide (d) genocide
Answer:
(d) genocide

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence.
Their selfless action gave a promise for human society.
(a) SVIODO (b) SVOA (c) SVOC (d) SVO
Answer:
(b) SVOA

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb.
The burglars had to ……………………… all the jewels and money that had gone missing.
(a) account to (b) account in (c) account for (d) account towards
Answer:
(c) account for

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“All through the summer at ease we lay,
And daily from the turret wall
We watched the mowers in the hay’”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to?
(b) How did the soldiers spend the summer days?
Answer:
(a) “We” refers to the brave and loyal soldiers in the castle.
(b) They spent the summer days gazing out of the castle. They were ready to shoot the enemy at sight who were at half-a kilometer distance. But none came near. So, they were relaxed.

Question 22.
“ Thro ’ scudding drifts the rainy Hyades Vext the dim sea: I am become a name;”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the above lines?
(b) What is Hyades?
Answer:
(a) Personification is the figure of speech employed in the above lines.
(b) Hyades is a group of stars in the constellation Taurus often associated with rain.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 23.
“Full-galloping: nor bridle drew Until he reached the mound.”
(a) Why was the rider in a hurry?
(b) Where did the soldier stop? Why?
Answer:
(a) The rider was carrying an urgent message to Napoleon Bonaparte.
(b) The soldier stopped at the mound. Napoleon Bonaparte was expecting news about the outcome of the battle at Ratisbon.

Question 24.
“Mine inner vision rose a form sublime,
Thy form, O Tree, as in my happy prime
I saw thee, in my own loved native clime.”
(a) What rose in the mind of the poet?
(b) What was found in the sublime inner vision?
Answer:
(a) A glorious inner vision rose in the mind of the poet.
(b) The tree’s youthful and handsome figure was found in the inner vision of the poet.

Question 25.
“Brutes have been gentled where lashes failed.”
(a) When does the Government or law use lashes?
(b) What can transform brutes?
Answer:
(a) When a brute has committed a crime, the law uses lashes to punish him.
(b) Gentleness can transform brutes.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 26.
“Then a soldier.
Full of strange oaths, and bearded like the pard,
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,”
(a) Describe the two traits of a soldier.
(b) What is the poetic device used in : ‘bearded like the pard’?
Answer:
(a) A soldier is always ready to swear and is full of oaths. He is ever ready to compete for honour and glory.
(b) The poet uses a simile for comparison.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Annette : I want to order a big pineapple cake for my husband’s birthday.
Confectioner : When is his birthday and at what time do you want it to be delivered?
Annette told the Confectioner that she wanted to order a big pineapple cake for her husband’s birthday. The confectioner asked Annette when his birthday was and at what time she wanted it to be delivered.

Question 28.
You must read the clause carefully. Otherwise you will not understand it. (combine using if)
Answer:
If you do not read the clause carefully, you will not understand it.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If they had arrived sooner, they could have prevented this tragedy!
Answer:
Had they arrived sooner, they could have prevented this tragedy!

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 30.
Even though he suffered from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school. (Change the following into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of him suffering from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school.
Or
Despite suffering from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school.

Part-III
Section -1

III. Answer any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Sung darkling from our tree, while men repose.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Our Casuarina Tree” written by Torn Dutt.

Context: The poet says this while describing Casuarina and its inhabitants at night.

Explanation: The Casuarina Tree allows the birds and animals to abide in it. At night, the garden overflows with endless melodious song sung by the dark king from the Casuarina Tree. It is a kind of a lullaby to sleeping humans.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 32.
They have their exits and their entrances;
And one man in his time plays many parts,
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.

Context: The poet says this while hinting at the beginning and the end of life.

Explanation: The poet divides man’s life into seven stages. The first stage symbolises birth and the last stage death. So, he uses the words “entrances and exits”.

Question 33.
To see your flag-birdflap his vans Where I, to heart’s desire, Perched him!
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Context: The narrator says these through the boy-soldier while explaining his role in the final stages of storming of Ratisbon.

Explanation: The boy soldier flung himself in the midst of battle and risked his life. He did not bother about his death. He doggedly carried out the mission of hoisting French national flag. After announcing that the battle was won he proudly says that he himself hoisted French Flag to his heart’s content at the Market place in Ratisbon.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
How does George Orwell explode the myth about the harmfulness of tea leaves?
Answer:
In some countries, tea pots are fitted with little dangling baskets under the spout to catch the stray leaves which are supposed to be harmful. The author asserts that one can swallow tea leaves in considerable quantities without ill-effect. He claims that if the tea is not loose in the pot it never infuses properly with the hot beverage (i.e.) tea.

Question 35.
What did Tenzing and Edmund Hillary gift to the God of lofty Summit? How did they do it?
Answer:
A hole was made in the ice where Tenzing placed reverentially a bar of chocolate, a packet of biscuits, and a handfull of lollies. As Hillary remembered that his team head Col. Hunt had requested to place a crucifix after reaching the peak. So, he also made a hole in the snow and placed the crucifix beside Tenzing’s gift to the Gods. Devout Buddhists believed that at least a small token of gift should be left with Gods who have their homes in that lofty Everest.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 36.
What is ‘liberty’ according to the old lady?
Answer:
According to the Russian old lady, liberty is the right to walk in the middle of the road. She is liberty-drunk. She wasn’t aware that if the pedestrian chooses to walk down the middle of the road, then the end of such liberty would be a universal chaos.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow.
Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1 1
(a) What is the mode of transport preferred by most of the students?
(b) How many students prefer bus?
(c) What does the remaining students prefer?
Answer:
(a) Bicycle is preferred by most of the students.
(b) Thirty percent of students prefer to come by bus.
(c) The remaining students prefer to come by car or by walk to school.

Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a fresher and a company manager.
Answer:
Manager : Good Morning Vikram. please take your seat.
Vikram : Good morning Sir. Thank you.
Manager : I understand that you are a First class Engineering graduate. Tell us about yourself.
Vikram : Well, I hail from a village in Iddayangudi and my parents are fanners.
Manager : If given an opportunity, can you handle project presentations on your own?
Vikram : Yes certainly Sir as I am well versed in Computer and have done various presentations during my course of study.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 39.
Describe the process of how to knot a bow tie.
Answer:
Place the tie around the neck, with one end slightly longer than the other.
Then place the longer end over the other and pass it upwards and behind the point where the two ends cross.
Next, take the other end of the tie and bend it twice to form an ‘S’ shape.
Bring the longer end down and in front, so that it holds the ‘S’ curve in place.
Now comes the trickiest part of the process when you have to take the long end of the tie and form a similar ‘S’ shape before passing it through the narrow gap behind the other end.
This creates a knot and the bow should now be held securely in place.
Finally, adjust both sides of the bow to make it symmetrical.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) A bad ……………………….. makes a bad ending, (plan, beginning, plot)
(b) All roads lead to ……………………….. (Paris, London, Rome)
(c) ……………………….. have ears. (Walls, Floors, Windows)
Answer:
(a) beginning (b) Rome (c) Walls

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 41.
Summarise George Orwell’s distinctive ideas in “A Nice Cup of Tea”.
Answer:
Tea is one of the mainstays of civilizations of UK, New Zealand, Australia and Eire. But, it is not found in the recipes of cookeiy books. The nicest manner in which tea must be prepared has become a subject matter of violent disputes among tea loving persons even within a family. Indian tea fits in with the author’s description of “nicest cup of tea” as it rejuvenates the drinker with wisdom, stimulation, bravery and optimism. One cup of strong tea is equal to twenty weak ones.

Best tea is prepared by boiling tea leaves first and then adding milk to taste. Milk first schools and tea first schools still fight. Tea prepared in earthen pot or china ware is good. The real flavour of tea should never be imprisoned by strainers. Consuming tea leaves will not harm one’s health. Adding sugar to tea will naturally ruin its real flavour and taste.

The author advises misguided people who drink sweet tea to desist from the practice for a fortnight. He guarantees them that they would like the natural taste of tea and would never again add sugar to tea. Tea should be taken in a cylindrical or breakfast cup to enjoy it. Shallow and flat cups don’t retain wannth and taste for a long time.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Or

Life is unjust and cruel to certain people. Do they all resign themselves to their fate? Can you think of some who have fought their disabilities heroically and remained a stellar example for others? (for e.g. the astrophysicist Stephen Hawking, a paraplegic). Give an account of one such person and his/her struggle to live a fruitful life.

Alexis Leon lives in Kakkanad, Kerala. He passed B.Tech from the university of Kerala with first rank. Then he did his M.Tech. He met with an accident in 1993 which left him paralysed from chest down and confined him to a wheel chair for the rest of his life. After a brief spell of dejection owing to a suspended marriage, he made up his mind to write books. He has written 50 books for Engineering graduates.

His notable work is ‘Internet for Everyone’ and ‘A Guide to Software Configuration Management’. He is also a mentor at International Mentoring Network Association. He offers software consultancy to international IT companies. He travels across the world and delivers lectures to graduates and Corporates. His indomitable will has made him strong. He has become a light house for many aspirants in the software industry.

Question 42.
Shakespeare has skilfully brought out the parallels between the life of man and actors on stage. Elaborate this statement with reference to the poem.
Answer:
Shakespeare has beautifully compared the growth of humans by stages with his emergent role during that stage. In the first stage man plays the role of an infant. As an infant, he does represent characterisation of mewling and puking. In the second Act, he does the role of a school boy with the characteristics of unwillingness to go to schools and innocence shining in his face. In the third Act, he performs the role of a lover head over heels in love with a beautiful lady. He composes woeful romantic ballads and sings serenades to impress his love. In the fourth act, he plays the impressive role of a short-tempered, honour pursuing soldier.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

He is ready to put his mouth in the Cannon’s mouth for conquering the bubble like honour in order to defend the territory of his countiy. In the fifth Act, he performs the role of a mature and fair judge criticising the ways of the world often spicing up his conversations with wise remarks and wit. His pot belly and well-cut beard shows the social status he enjoys in life. In the sixth act, he is old. He performs the role of a thin old man wearing ill-fitting loose garments with a changed treble in his voice.

He is bespectacled and slow in walking. In the final act, he becomes a total invalid losing all senses of hearing, taste and sight. Then the performer leaves the stage (i.e.) the lonely planet.

[OR]

How according to the poet is it possible for his son to bring changes into a world that resents change?
The poet advises his son to introspect often and not feel ashamed of being called a fool especially when he pursues knowledge. He can examine himself and remove his follies. He must enjoy the advantages of solitude. Solitude would help him to be creative. He would invariably learn that final decisions are always taken in silent rooms. Being alone, he can identify his innate potential and talents. His free imagination will bring about changes even if the world resents them. The zest to bring about changes will elevate him to the level of Shakespeare, Pasteur, Wright Brothers, Pavlov and Michael Faraday. Thus he will be remembered as one of the great men who changed the world.

Question 43.
Develop the hints into a paragraph.
Aksionov, meek – fellow prisoners respect – prison authorities – old man unjustly punished – speaks truth – prison shelf dug – newcomer Semyonich – could be the culprit – suspicion – all prisoners summoned – denied – some quiet – betray – Governor – enormous trust in Aksionov – stayed quiet.
Answer:

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Aksionov was a merchant who was condemned for a murder he had not committed. He waits for God’s justice. Meanwhile in prison he learnt to make boots and earned a little money. Aksionov was meek. Fellow prisoners, having realized that he was innocent, respected him and called him grandfather. The prison authorities also believed that the religious old man must have been unjustly punished. They knew Aksionov never told lies. The prison authorities found out that someone had been digging the prison shelf to escape. They doubted that newcomer Semyonich could be the culprit. But they could not nail him on the grounds of suspicion alone. All the prisoners were summoned and enquired including Semyonich. All denied any knowledge of it. Those who knew kept quiet because they knew Semyonich will get flogged if someone betrayed him. As no one was ready to tell the truth, the Governor, who had enormous trust in the nobility and honesty of Aksionov asked him to tell the truth. But Aksionov preferred to stay quiet.

[OR]

Richard Parker calmed Pi – irony of life – peace, purpose and wholeness – same boat – Pi’s personality – Parker’s presence – realized danger and peace – innate strength – tiger – less tormenting – loneliness and despair – chances of survival – middle of Pacific Ocean – optimistic, balanced and stoical – thanks to the presence of Parker.
Answer:
Pi was alone and orphaned. He was drifting in the middle of pacific ocean hanging on to the oar. The elements of nature which threatened his survival the previous night had calmed down. The life boat did not sink. It was Richard Parker who calmed down Pi. The irony of life is that the animal that scared him witless to start with was the same who brought him peace, purpose and even wholeness. They were literally and figuratively in the same boat. They had to live together.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

A part of Pi’s personality was glad about Parker’s presence, who gave him the will to hang on to life under the toughest conditions. He realized danger and peace can co-exist when one is aware of one’s innate strength. He realizes the fact that staying with a tiger is less tormenting than living alone with despair. Loneliness and despair can easily kill a person.

He decided to focus on the chances of survival and shut off the tragic circumstances he was placed in a lonely boat in the middle of Pacific Ocean. In short, he became optimistic, balanced and stoical in his attitude to life. Thanks to the presence of Richard Parker.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
There is an enemy beneath our feet – an enemy more deadly for his complete neutrality. He recognizes no national frontiers, no political parties. Everyone in the world is endangered by him. The enemy is the earth itself. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles. The power of a quake is greater than anything man himself can produce.

But today scientists are directing a great deal of their effort into finding some way of battling earthquakes, and it is possible that at some time in the near future mankind will discover a means of protecting itself from earthquakes. An earthquake strikes without warning.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

When it does, its power is immense. If it strikes a modem city, the damage is very immense. When gas cylinders burst, explosions are caused and fires start. Underground railways are wrecked. Buildings collapse, bridges fall, dams burst, and gaping crevices appear in busy streets. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland. If it strikes in mountain regions, avalanches roar down into the valley.

Consider the terrifying statistics from the past 1755: Lisbon, capital of Portugal – the city destroyed entirely and 450 were killed. 1970: Peru: 50,000 were killed. In 1968 an earthquake struck Alaska. As this is a relatively depopulated part, only a few people were killed. But it is likely that this was one of the most powerful quakes ever to have hit the world.

Geologists estimate that during the tremors, the whole of the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean. Imagine the power of something that can move an entire subcontinent!

This is the problem that the scientists face. They are dealing with forces so immense that man cannot hope to resist them. All that can be done is to try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike and work from there. At least some protective measures can then be taken to save lives and some of the property.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 326
No. of words to be written in the summary: 326/3 = 108 ± 5

Rough Draft
The enemy, Earth more deadly for neutrality, recognizes no national frontiers, no political parties Everyone is endangered by him. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles and is powerful. Today-scientists are finding ways of battling earthquakes which strikes without warning. In a modem city the damage is immense.

When gas cylinders burst, explosions trigger fires and damages occur. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland. Iin mountain regions, avalanches roar down the valley. Once Alaska escaped because it is thinly populated unlike other countries. Geologists estimate-fiiat the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean.

This is the problem that the scientists face. They are dealing with forces soAmnjense. We should try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike for some protective measured

Fair draft:
The enemy, Earth more deadly for neutrality, recognizes none and endangers all. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles. Scientists find ways to battle powerful earthquakes which strikes without warning. In modem cities, the damage is immense. When gas cylinders burst, explosions trigger fire. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

In mountain regions, avalanches roar down the valley. Once Alaska escaped because it is depopulated unlike others. Geologists estimate that the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean.

Scientists face such problems with forces so immense. We should try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike for some protective measures.

No. of words in the summary: 110
[OR]

Notes
Title : Earthquake – the deadly enemy of mankind.
Deadly Enemy of Mankind

  • strikes all without a distn. – national boundary/political affiliation
  • Power greater than man-made weap.
  • Scientists finding means to combat eq.; they will find ways to protect themselves from eq.

Damage Cause by an Earthquake in General

  • Strikes without warning.
  • Modem city when struck red. to a primitive village.

Damage Caused by an Earthquake in Particular

  • strikes plains, seas, mnts. – all round destm.
  • In 1755, Lisbon destyd, 450 killed.
  • In 1970, Peru struck, 50,000 killed.
  • In 1968, Alaska hit, subcontinent moved 80 feet into the Pacific Ocean.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Problems Scientists Face

  • cannot resist powerful eq.
  • can predict the place of origin
  • precaution can be taken to save man & property.

Abbreviations used: eq. – earthquakes; distn. – distinction; weap. – weapon; red. – reduced; mnts. -mountains; destm. -destruction; destyd.-destroyed;

Question 45.
Write a letter to the editor of the newspaper on the mindless felling of trees on the road side.
Answer:
12.11.2020
From
XXX
YYY

To
The Editor
The Hindu Anna Salai
Chennai-600 002.

Sir,
Sub: Frequent felling of Trees

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

I am the Secretary of the YYY Colony Association. Our locality was surely a haven to us in the past few years. The fruits of labour that we had sown about ten years ago is well nurtured and utilised.

Most of the roads in our locality was filled with greenery because of the Flame of the Forest trees that we had planted and taken care of. The roads had enough shade and was filled with beautiful flowers.

In the recent past, we have encountered the mindless felling of trees by the Corporation staff for various reasons. We kindly request you to publish the same in the newspapers to bring to notice the mindless felling of trees to the public and the authorities concerned.

We hope that such a scenario doesn’t take place in our locality again and looking forward to a positive change in this situation.

Thank you,

Yours sincerely,
XXX

Address on the envelope
To
The Editor The Hindu Anna Salai
Chennai-600 002

[OR]

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “India-A Tourist’s Paradise”.
Answer:

India-A Tourist’s Paradise

India is a huge country with varied cultures and races. It is a land with primordial traditional heritage and rich history. India is the only country which has all the four seasons viz summer, autumn, winter and spring. It has beauty in all its places whether they are mountains, deserts, plains, seas or rivers. All these and the modem cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad and Bangalore as well as the places of pilgrimage make it one of the most sought-after tourist destinations in the world.

India is blessed with places that have natural beauty like Kashmir, Darjeeling, Matheran, Goa, Puri, Kerala, Valparai Ooty, Kodaikanal etc. All such beautiful places are often visited by people who try to combine spirituality with pleasure. India has a variety of beautiful locations to visit which makes it a tourist’s paradise.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) He spoke the English perfectly.
(b) I and she have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(c) My little sister is afraid for cockroaches.
(d) You can type quickly, won’t you?
(e) Though I had a cup of coffee yet I feel tired.
Answer:
(a) He spoke English perfectly.
(b) She and I have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(c) My little sister is afraid of cockroaches.
(d) You can type quickly, can’t you?
(e) Though I had a cup of coffee, I feel tired.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) When I was walking ……………………. foot outside my farm house, I saw a ……………………. under the grape vine, (bear/bare)
(b) I ……………………. arrive home late this evening. (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) He ……………………. buy a new car. (Use a semi-modal)
(d) ……………………. you ……………………. (see) my wallet and keys recently? (use proper tense)
Answer:
(a) bare/bear
(b) shall
(c) ought to
(d) Have, seen

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) The deliberate suppression of texts by organisations shrouds the subject.
(b) The study of stars and stellar evolution is fundamental to our understanding of the universe.
(c) This shift to farming may have occurred because of climate change.
(d) Sovereign power may be vested on an individual or it may be vested on a group.
(e) Some medicines may not be safe during pregnancy.
[Astronomy; Medicine; Politics; Literature; Agriculture]
Answer:
(a) Literature
(b) Astronomy
(c) Agriculture
(d) Politics
(e) Health

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer in your own words.
Answer:
The earth is losing its forests. Presently, trees cover about 30 percent of the earth’s surface, but they are being destroyed at an alarming rate, especially in the tropics. Timber harvesting is a major reason for the destruction of the forests. Trees are used for building houses, making furniture, and providing pulp for paper products, such as newspapers and magazines. At least 40 hectares of rainforest are being felled every minute, mostly in order to extract the valuable timber.

Another way that man is destroying the world’s forests is by burning them down. In the Amazon, for example, rainforests are being burnt down at a rate of 20 hectares a minute. The main reason of burning down the rainforests is to clear the land for farming. Farmers in rainforest countries are often poor and cannot afford to buy land. Instead, these farmers clear rainforest land to raise their animals or grow their crops.

Because tropical rainforest soil is so poor in nutrients, farmers cannot reuse the same land year after year. In the following years, farmers just clear more land, destroying the forest piece by piece. Already more than 30 tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction and one-time exporters of timber such as Nigeria and Thailand now have to import timber for their domestic needs.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Questions:
a. What is the major reason for the destruction of forests?
b. Mention any two uses of trees.
c. Why do some people burn down the rainforests?
d. How many tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction?
e. From where do Nigeria and Thailand get timber for their domestic needs?
Answers:
(a) Timber harvest is the major reason for the destruction of forests.
(b) Trees are cut and their logs are used for making furniture and building houses.
(c) Some people bum down rain forests to clear the land for farming.
(d) More than 30 tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction.
(e) Nigeria and Thailand get their timber from foreign countries.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
  2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
  3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
  4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
  5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
  6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
  7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His parents circled around raising a proud cackle.
(a) babble
(b) screech
(c) walk
(d) tackle
Answer:
(a) babble

Question 2.
A reporter, a thin-faced, wispy man, came up to me.
(a) considerable
(b) significant
(c) substantial
(d) frail
Answer:
(d) frail

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 3.
Nagen uncle’s tea shop stood next to a grocery shop.
(a) erected
(b) erased
(c) expunged
(d) severed
Answer:
(a) erected

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It is about a hurricane force of wind on land.
(a) farce
(b) vigour
(c) weakness
(d) potency
Answer:
(c) weakness

Question 5.
Unlike the developed world, India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) developing
(b) industrialized
(c) established
(d) settled
Answer:
(a) developing

Question 6.
He was a frail man.
(a) weak
(b) feeble
(c) thin
(d) strong
Answer:
(d) strong

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘Rhino’.
(a) rhinos
(b) rhinoes
(c) rhinoses
(d) rhinosses
Answer:
(b) rhinoes

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘flame’.
(a) ity
(b) graphy
(c) able
(d) er
Answer:
(c) able

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation BCCI.
(a) Board of Chess Control in India
(b) Board of Cricket Collector in India
(c) Board of Cricket Control Institute
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India
Answer:
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The advocate …………….. the case cleverly.
(a) dealt in
(b) dealt with
(c) dealt out
(d) dealt on
Answer:
(b) dealt with

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘mail to form a compound word.
(a) send
(b) box
(c) drop
(d) it
Answer:
(b) box

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He seized ………….. the opportunity to construct a solar panel for the school.
(a) seized with
(b) seized over
(c) upon
(d) seized on
Answer:
(c) upon

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form’of the verb given below:
Aditya’s father ……………….. the ancestral home and moved to Kolkata, where he had set up
his own business.
(a) has left
(b) had left
(c) is leaving
(d) were left
Answer:
(b) had left

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
Promise me that you will phone me …………… reach home.
(a) before
(b) as soon as
(c) in case
(d) so that
Answer:
(b) as soon as

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]

Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How did the bird try to reach its parents without having to fly?
Answer:
The young bird trotted back and forth from one end of the ledge to the other with his long grey legs stepping daintily, trying to find some means of reaching his parents without having to fly.

Question 16.
What were the various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors?
Answer:
The various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors was simply because it was warm and bright outside. The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods and the Prussian soldiers were drilling in the open field, behind the sawmill. It was all much more tempting than the rule for participles.

Question 17.
What were the problems they faced during their training voyage? How was it a tutorial to them?
Answer:
As the boat was old, it had minor leaks and repairs. They also ran out of water and food soon. The trip was a tutorial for them on how to manage food, water and even electricity during the big voyage.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 18.
From the jeweller’s shop where did Aditya and his friend go? Why?
Answer:
From the jeweller’s shop Aditya went straight to Jogesh Kabiraj’s house where Mr. Sasanka Sanyal whom he met at Nagen uncle’s tea shop lived. Aditya wanted to meet Sasanka Sanyal.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) Is the poet afraid of future?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) No, the poet isn’t afraid of the future.

Question 20.
‘‘The worst thing is that if anyone stays Among them too long, he will learn their ways;”
(a) What is the worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them?
(b) What are the ways of the Grumble family?
Answer:
(a) The worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them is that they too will start complaining and become one with them.
(b) The ‘Grumble Family’ growl at anything and everything so much that they sometimes growl that they have nothing to grumble about.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 21.
“Not a crumb to be found On the snow-covered ground
(a) What couldn’t he find on the ground?
(b) Why was the ground covered with snow?
Answer:
(a) He couldn’t find even a single piece of bread on the ground.
(b) The ground was covered with snow because of the onset of winter season.

Question 22.
“ We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit
We were cast and wrought and hammered to design,
We were cut and filed and tooled and gauged to fit”
(a) What metals are obtained from ores and mines?
(b) Mention a few machines which are hammered to design.
Answer:
(a) The metals obtained from ores are iron ores and minerals from mines.
(b) Pulley – Power lift, The Cutting Wedge, The Wheel and Axle are a few machines which are hammered to design.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Cathy is not driving a car.
Answer:
A car is not being driven by Cathy.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
She asked me, “Could you help me with my luggage?”
Answer:
She asked me if I could help her with her luggage.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
i dont know what wed do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities
Answer:
I don’t know what we’d do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
He must work hard otherwise, he will be suspended.
Answer:
He must work hard to avoid suspension.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) Sports / building / physical strength / necessary / are / for
(b) They / sportsmanship / cooperation / include / and
Answer:
(a) Sports are necessary for building physical strength.
(b) They include sportsmanship and cooperation.

Section – IV

Answer of the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Guide an old lady from the bus stand to the nearby Government Hospital (GH). Here you find the road map. Write three instructions by way of helping her.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2.1

  • Go straight and take the first left cut.
  • Walk a little distance, you will come across a pharmacy on to your right.
  • Walk a little further, you’ll find the Government Hospital on the same side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]

Section -I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Bring out the character of the grandfather and the mother in the lesson, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’.
Answer:
The narrator’s grandfather is an oldtimer of the Union army of the Civil War, which terminated about fifty-two years ago. His bedroom is in the attic. When the police come to the house to search for the burglar, the grandfather thinks that they are militaries who are abandoning because they are losing to the South. The grandfather calls them “cowardly dog” and “lily- livered cattle” and then fetches a policeman’s holster and shoots a man with his own gun.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

The police retreat, terrified of the irrational old man but at the breakfast table the next morning, Grandfather seems impeccably conscious of the previous night’s situation, asking why so many police had been “tarryhootin” around the house. On the contraryj the narrator’s mother, Mrs Thurber is a highly excitable woman, scatter brained yet practical at times. Hearing a sound in her house and suspecting a burglar, she thinks of the clever plan of alerting Mrs and Mr.

Bodwell the neighbours by throwing a shoe through his closed window. After he goes to alert the police, she considers throwing the matching shoe, a thrill and fanciful act. She is surprised to hear that Grandfather has shot a policeman, not because of the courageous ferocity of the act, but because the cop was such a nice-looking young man.
“Great powers don’t get angry
Nor do they act in haste”

Question 30.
How do we use technology in our day to day lives?
Answer:
Technology is growing day after day and we all depend on technology. Today we have various developing technologies that impact our lives in different ways. As the world keeps on developing, technology will change. Keeping oneself updated is very important in this modem world. It has totally transformed the life of an individual.

A Refrigerator is programmed to replenish food when the vegetables or milk or eggs are over. Ink cartridges too self-order replacements when it is empty. Technology helps one to manage entertainment and home appliances by voice commands or swapping the finger. When you are bored watching a programme on TV, you can just inform your smart TV your desire to view your social feed. Technology helps you to watch programmes understanding your mood swings.

When caught in traffic, technology permits your kettle to prepare tea for you to sip it hot the moment you reach home. Technology also automates all water and energy management systems. Therefore, accepting it and learning how to use technology in whatever we do is highly important and recommended.
“We are changing the world with Technology.”

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 31.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past. He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek.

He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members. He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.
“Self-respect permeates every aspect of your life.”

Question 32.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away.

He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk. The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings-
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
In what way do we dispossess, betray and condemn ourselves by hating our brothers and taking up arms against them?
Answer:
By hating our brothers and taking up arms against them, we ‘dispossess’ ourselves as we rob ourselves of their love. When we hate them, they too react destructively and stop loving us. Mutually, we deprive each other of the noble emotion of love. We deceive ourselves as our hatred leads to wars, and wars cause widespread death and devastation.

This leads to the piling up of waste that pollutes our own mother earth. The dust and smoke from war obstruct the air that we breathe. So, hatred of fellow beings, in fact, leads to betrayal of our own selves. Further, this earns us condemnation as we disrupt the purity of the elements of nature. We threaten our own existence by ruining the systems that sustain us. Hence, hating our brothers and taking up arms against them does more damage to us.
“The universal brotherhood of man is our most precious possession.”

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 34.
What qualities have made women powerful?
Answer:
The woman is made powerful due to her multifaceted personality. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute. They love to explore and venture into new horizons. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Her inner beauty, her supremacy and strength makes her all-powerful. She exhibits her power by showcasing her fearless nature. She is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs.

She is seen as all-powerful because of her determined nature. She may sigh, cry and moan but is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring and one dare not muddle with her. If anyone is a mischief maker, she will not spare them. The woman should be feared cautiously since she would thaw or saw you for your deeds against her.
“A Woman believes in being strong, even when things seem to go wrong.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“The weather is always too hot or cold;
Summer and winter alike they scold.
Nothing goes right with the folks you meet Down on that gloomy Complaining Street. ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines?
(li) Write the rhyme scheme of the poem.
(iii) Give another rhyming word for cold and street.
(iv) Name the poem and the poet.
Answer:
(i) The rhyming words are ‘cold and scold’ as well as ‘meet and street’.
(ii) The rhyme scheme for the above are, ‘aabb’ pattern. .
(iii) COLD – bold; STREET – treat
(iv) The Grumble family by Lucy Maud Montgomery is the name of the poem and the poet respectively.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.
Answer:
The poet again retells us in that people are contaminating this earth by their deeds. The fatal weapons emit fire and ashes that spread all over and pollute the environment. War is futile as it spoils the very earth for which we take up arms against each other. We should protect our atmosphere and keep in mind that this universe is the creation of God and we all are one. It is, therefore, imperative not to consider any human being as foreign and any country as strange.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (iv), (ii), (i)
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room. .
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Answer:
I was just thirty-seven when my Uncle Philip died. A week before that event he sent for me; and here let me say that I had never set eyes on him. He hated my mother, but I do not know why. She told me long before his last illness that I need expect nothing from my father’s brother. He was an inventor, an able and ingenious mechanical engineer, and had much money by his improvement in turbine-wheels.

He was a bachelor; lived alone, cooked his own meals, and collected precious stones, especially rubies and pearls. From the time he made his first money he had this mania. As he grew richer, the desire to possess rare and costly gems became stronger. When he bought a new stone, he carried it in his pocket for a month and now and then took it out and looked at it. Then it was added to the collection in his safe at the trust company.

Questions.
(i) How old was the narrator when his uncle died?
(ii) What did the narrator’s mother tell him about his uncle?
(iii) What was Uncle Philip’s mania?
(iv) When did Uncle Philip call for his nephew to meet him?
(v) What was the profession of Uncle Philip?
Answer:
(i) The narrator was 37 years old when his uncle died.
(ii) The narrator’s mother told that he need expect nothing from his uncle.
(iii) Uncle Philip had the mania of collecting precious stones, especially rubies and pearls.
(iv) Uncle Philip called the narrator one week before he died.
(v) Uncle Philip was a ingenious mechanical engineer.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Singapore and Australia tours – free travel for child or discount.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2.2

Question 40.
You are Kirubakaran / Suganthi. You are interested in doing a short term course in Computer Programming during your summer vacation. Write a letter to the Director, Computer World, Sector-22, Kanchipuram, enquiring about the duration of such a course and the terms and conditions for admission.
Answer:
Kirubakaran / Suganthi
119, 2nd main road
Kanchipuram
10 May 20XX
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram
Sir,
Sub: Short term Course in Computer Programming
Kindly refer to your advertisement in Daily Thanthi dated 8th May 20XX regarding the above mentioned course. I have just passed the A.I. CBSE examination of XII Class with science stream. I am interested in doing a short term course in computer programming during my summer vacation. However, before joining the course, I would like to know the following
details:
(a) Duration of the course and fees
(b) Mode of payment: lump sum/installments
(c) Whether a diploma/certificate is issued
(d) Recognition and its validity
(e) Timings of classes and other relevant information
(f) Individual time on computer

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

In case you have-some printed material for information kindly send it to me. A self addressed and duly stamped envelope is enclosed for the purpose. An early response will enable me to join your course immediately.

Yours faithfully
Kirubakaran / Suganthi

Address on the envelope
To
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram

Question 41.
Write a notice for the school notice-board inviting volunteers for an N.S.S. Camp. You are Sashilatha/Sashikumar the Group leader of S.D. Sr. Sec. School, Vellore.
Answer:

S.D. SR. SEC. School, Vellore
2 July 2020
Notice
N.S.S. CAMP

An N.S.S. camp of our unit will be held from 15th Aug. to 30th Aug. at village Vallimalai. Projects include Adult Literacy, Tree Plantation, Cleanliness Campaign and Health Awareness. Volunteers should give their names to the undersigned by 7th July 2020

Sashilatha/Sashikumar
Group Leader N.S.S.

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2.3
Answer:
Civic sense is not common. A motorist should not cross the dividing concrete wall. He jeopardizes his own life and those who are likely to drive or walk on the road. If each motorist follows rules as per his convenience, there will be total chaos on the road. Let us respect road rules. Let us cross roads only in places where it is allowed.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Economics has become one of the important branches of social sciences. It is of great practical value in our daily life. In pure sciences, we study the subject to arrive at the truth. But an economist is a social scientist. He studies the subject not only to know the truth for its own sake, but to find out a way for many economic and social problems of the society. “Knowledge for knowledge’s sake” is not the goal of an economist.

Economics must be fruit bearing. Of course, an economist has no ready made answer for immediate problems. But he can help the government in making broad economic policies. According to J.M. Keynes, “the theory of economics does not furnish a body of settled conclusions immediately applicable to policy. It is a method, rather than doctrine, an apparatus of the mind, a technique of thinking, which helps its possessor to draw correct conclusions”.

Most of the problem of the modern state are economic in nature. So economists play an important role in the affairs of the state. During World War II, the German economy was damaged heavily. There was inflation, shortage of goods and mass unemployment. But the German economy recovered quickly by following the advice of an economist Ludwig Erhard. The German recovery is considered an economic miracle. Similarly, J.M. Keynes had great influence on the economic policies of the American government when it was in great economic trouble during the 1930s. In economics, we study about things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxation. All these affect every person in one way or the other. It has been rightly said, “you cannot be in any real sense a citizen, unless you are also in some degree an economist.”

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

Notes
Title: Importance of Economics

  • one of the important branches of social sciences – economics
  • Economist find out a way for many economical and social problems
  • helps the government in making broad economic policies.
  • During World War II heavy damage to German economy
  • recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, – considered a miracle.
  • American economic trouble – economist J.M. Keynes.
  • we study things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxatidn
  • Economic affects every individual

Summary

Title: Importance of Economics
Rough Draft

Economics one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist not only studies, but find out a way for more many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad-ecopomic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. Similarly in 1930, American government economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. In economics, we study about thmgsTiko-pirices, rent, wages,interest, profits and taxation.

Fair Draft:
Title: Importance of Economics

Economics is one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist find out solutions for many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad economic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. In 1930, American government’s economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. A citizen must be an economist to some degree.
No. of words: 79

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) The workers formed an union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advises.
(c) Mohan is one of the best student in his class.
(d) Though his mother tongue is Tamil but he always speaks in English.
(e) If he had known of your arrival, he would come to receive you.
Answer:
(a) The workers formed a union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advice.
(c) Mohan is one of the best students in his class.
(id) Though his mother tongue is Tamil, he always speaks in English.
(.e) If he had known of your arrival, he would have come to receive you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Not hurrying …………… that pays its toll.
Answer:
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal;
Not mourning for the things that disappear
In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

(a) Men and Women created equal – man differentiates jobs – Mulan takes a stand – takes a stand – frail father – comfort and pride – responsibilities – martial art, Kung Fu inborn traits head of the family – times of crisis – rises to situations – powers of a woman – knowledge, experience – gender equality far and wide.
Answer:
The Story of Mulan portrays the legendary Chinese warrior Hua Mulan. This old Chinese folktale is about the story of the young Chinese maiden who learns that her wizened, old and frail father is to be called up into the army in order to fight the invading Huns by the Chinese Emperor. When the Huns invade China, one man from every family is called to arms. She hears of the order that every family must send one man to the army while washing clothes. Mulan’s father, who is frail and aged decides to fight for his country though it is clear that he will not survive an enemy encounter.

He decides to go to war but is prevented by her daughter with her outrageous decision. Knowing her father’s frail state, she decides to disguise herself and join in his place without second thoughts. In the army, Mulan proves to be a brave soldier who is later put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles goes so well that more soldiers are added. After a few years, Mulan becomes the General of the entire army. Suddenly, bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers including Mulan become a prey. The arrival of the doctor brings to light the hidden truth.

Many soldiers disprove such a thought, though some soldiers see the winning chances. Just then a soldier announces the surprise attack by the enemies. With no time to debate, the soldiers spring to action at the command of the General who hears this from inside her tent. She gets dressed and though not strong, she stands tall. She instructs the soldiers to attack knowing very well her strategic planning that all her soldiers acknowledge and win the battle. It was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last. The war was over, and China was saved! The Emperor forgives Mulan and was glad that Mulan had ended the long war.

He wanted Mulan to stay with him in the palace and be an advisor but as She chose to go to her family, the emperor gave her six horses and six fine swords so that her people will know that he thinks of her.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate, ‘With the crown, there cometh wisdom’ by developing the following hints. Saying – the crown of snow – elders – shapes our society – age – experiences to be intelligent – Theoretical knowledge – superficial – impact – wisdom-incomparable – learns from mistakes – elders optimistic – different challenges – survivors.
Answer:
In the saying “With the crown of snow, there cometh wisdom” – the crown of snow is pertaining to the eiders. It underlines the importance of the elders in shaping our society. The word, “there cometh wisdom” explains that as we get old our everyday experiences makes us to be intelligent. Theoretical knowledge is always superficial.

The impact is made only by experienced persons. The wisdom one gets from experience can never be compared to one who is learned theoretically. A person learns from Mistakes. Elders are generally optimistic and are ready to learn from their mistakes. They also remember it for their lifetime and never repeat them. The elders who have faced different challenges in life and had survived them braving all storm serve as our guiding path because their varied experiences teach us to become wise. They are wise enough to know what is right from wrong.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Environmentalist are worried at the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and also at the disappearance of forests. The trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere. In a way much heat is released in the atmosphere, the larger part of that being Carbon Dioxide. ‘The green house effect’ occurs. This is the initial stages of global warming.

The ill effects of accumulated Carbon Dioxide can be minimized by trees and ample vegetation as they absorb it by photosynthesis and make Carbohydrates. Therefore, a well stocked ecosystem exercises. Considerable beneficial effects on human environment by moderating the climate, regulating the water supplies, purifying the air and helping in abating noise.

The most important environmental factors are micro – climate soil characteristics, moisture availability and interaction of animals and insects. Micro – climate is governed by solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature. Soil temperature is also influenced by the forests.

Questions.
(a) What are the two reasons which make the environmentalists worried?
(b) How does “green house effect” occur?
(c) How can trees counter the ill effects of carbon dioxide?
(d) What are the factors that govern the micro – climate?
Answer:
(a) The two reasons which make the environmentalists worried are the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and the disappearance of forests as a result.
(b) ‘The green house effect’ occurs because the trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere releasing much heat in the atmosphere.
(c) The ill effects of accumulated Carbon dioxide can be minimized by trees through their absorbing it by photosynthesis and making Carbohydrates.
(d) The factors that govern the micro – climate are solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature which is also influenced by the forests.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Bigot
The bigot insults his own religion When he slays a man of another faith.
Conduct the judges, not in the light of reason;
In the temple, he raises the blood-stained banner And worships the devil in the name of God.
All that is shameful and barbarous through the Ages,
Has found a shelter in their temples—
Those they turn into prisons;
O’ I hear the trumpet call of Destruction!
The time comes with her great broom Sweeping all refuse away.
That which should make man free,
They turn into fetters;
That which should unite, they turn into a sword;
That which should bring love From the fountain of the Eternal,
They turn into a prison
And with its waves, they flood the world.
They try to cross the river In a bark riddled with holes;
And yet, in their anguish, whom do they blame Oh Lord, breaking false religion,
Save the blind!
Break, O break
The altar that is drowned in blood.
Let your thunder strike Into the prison of false religion,
And bring to this unhappy land The light of knowledge

Questions.
(a) Who is a bigot?
(b) What does the word ‘Refuse’ refer to?
(c) What do the followers of false religion do?
(d) What is meant by the phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’?
Answer:
(a) A bigot is a human being who is narrow-minded in his religious views. In general he is an extremist.
(b) The word ‘Refuse’ refers to all the infirmities such a dirt and filth found in false religions.
(c) The followers of false religion turn religion into prison, fetters and swords to destroy one another.
(d) The phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’ means God Almighty who is everlasting.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion
(b) Farazi Movement
(c) Tribal uprising
(d) Kol Revolt
Answer:
(b) Farazi Movement

Question 2.
‘Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 3.
Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent Settlement?
(a) Santhals
(b) Titu Mir
(c) Munda
(d) Kol
Answer:
(a) Santhals

Question 4.
Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 5.
When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905
(b) 18 July 1906
(c) 19 August 1907
(d) 16 October 1905
Answer:
(a) 19 June 1905

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Question 6.
What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
(a) Kol Revolt
(b) Indigo Revolt
(c) Munda Rebellion
(d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
(c) Munda Rebellion

Question 7.
Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
(a) Annie Basant
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(d) Tilak

Question 8.
Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play Nil darpanl
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra
(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Birsa Munda
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by ……………….. the moneylenders of Bengal.
  2. ……………….. was an anti-imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in and around 1827.
  3. The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was ………………..
  4. The ……………….. Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
  5. Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ………………..
  6. The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion was ………………..
  7. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ………………..
  8. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year ………………..

Answers:

  1. Jagat Seth
  2. The Wahhabi rebellion
  3. Kol revolt
  4. Chota Nagpur Tenancy
  5. Birsingh
  6. Major General Hugh Wheeler
  7. 1908
  8. 1885

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against government officers and moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, ledtheSanthal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that “Land belongs to God”.
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian rulers were to be annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to judge and take the lives of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indjan princes and zamindars remained loyal to the British.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and are correct

Question 3.
(i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that religious exploitation in India was the primary reason for the growing poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of the Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
(a) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

IV. Match the following
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism 1
Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

V. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified?
Answer:
There were nearly a hundred peasant uprisings during British rule. They can be classified into the following categories –

  • Restorative rebellions
  • Religious movements
  • Social Banditry
  • Mass insurrection

Question 2.
Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Answer:

  1. The seige of Kanpur was an important episode in the 1857 Rebellion.
  2. The rebel forces under Nana Sahib besieged the Company forces and civilians in Kanpur.
  3. They were unprepared for the extended besiege.
  4. It forced them to surrender to the rebel forces under Nana Sahib, in return for a safe passage to Allahabad.
  5. The boats in which they were proceeding were burned and most of them were killed including Major General Hugh Wheeler the British Commander of Kanpur.

Question 3.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur.

Question 4.
What do you mean by drain of wealth?
Answer:
India was economically subjugated and transformed into a supplier of raw materials. It became a market to dump English manufactures and for the investment of British Capital. So the colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favourable returns back to India. This is referred as “the drain of wealth”.

Question 5.
Explain the concept of constructive swadeshi?
Answer:
Under Constructive Swadeshi, the self-defeating modest approach of moderates was rejected and self-help was focused on through swadeshi industries, national schools, arbitration courts and constructive programmes in the village. It was totally non-political in nature.

Question 6.
Highlight the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
Answer:
Objectives of the Home Rule Movement:

  1. To attain self Government within the British empire by constitutional means.
  2. To obtain the status of dominion a political position.
  3. To use non-violence constitutional methods to achieve their goals.

Question 7.
Summarise the essence of Lucknow Pact.
Answer:
In the Lucknow Pact that took place in 1916, the Congress Party and the Muslim League agreed that there should be self-government in India as soon as possible. In return of this gesture from the Muslim League, the congress leadership accepted the concept of separate electorate for Muslims. This created a new sense of enthusiasm among the people.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Deccan riots

(a) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
Answer:
In May 1875 in Supa, a village near Poona the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appeared.

(b) What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
Answer:
Under the new law of the British the moneylenders were given the right to attach the mortgaged land of the defaulters auction it off.

(c) What did it result in?
Answer:
It resulted in the transfer of land from the cultivators to the non-cultivating classes.

(d) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
Answer:
In the Deccan riots violence was directed against the Gujarat money lenders.

Question 2.
The Revolt of 1857
(a) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
Answer:
Mangal Pandey assaulted his officer.

(b) Who was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi?
Answer:
The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi.

(c) Who was the correspondent of London Times to report on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
Answer:
The correspondent’s name was William Howard Russell.

(d) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
Answer:
The Queen proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Question 3.
Indian National Congress

(a) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed ?
Answer:
The congress to get its grievances redressed adopted the techniques by way of appeals petitions and delegations.

(b) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadara Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal called as Lai – Bal – Pal.
Lai – Bal – Pal triumvirate were the prominent Congress leaders of militiant nationalists.

(c) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
Answer:
The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.

(d) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi Movement. Revolutionaries were hanged. Press was crushed and prominent leaders were arrested and imprisoned for long terms.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The Great Rebellion of 1857 is a unique example of resistance to the British authorities, in India. There were several reasons that triggered the Revolt:
(i) The annexation policy of British India created dissatisfaction among the native rulers. The British claimed themselves as paramount, exercising supreme authority. New territories were annexed on the grounds that the native rulers were corrupt, and inept.

(ii) The British annexed several territories such as Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur through the Doctrine of Lapse. This also angered many Indian rulers.

(iii) Indian sepoys were upset with discrimination in salary’ and promotion. They were paid much less than their European counterparts. They felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.

Consequences:
(i) India was pronounced as one of the many crown colonies to be directly governed by the Parliament. This resulted in the transfer of power from the East India company to the British crown.

(ii) Queen Victoria proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters. It was promised that Indians would be absorbed in government services.

(iii) There came significant changes in the Indian army. The number of Indians was reduced.
Indians were restrained from holding important ranks and position.

(iv) It was also decided that instead of recruiting soldiers from Rajputs, Brahmins and North Indian Muslims, more soldiers would be recruited from the Gorkhas, Sikhs and Pathans.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Question 2.
How did the people of Bengal respond to the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
Answer:

  1. In 1899 Lord Curzon was appointed as the Viceroy of India.
  2. Curzon resorted to repressive measures to undermine the idea of local Government, autonomy of higher educational Institutions and gag the press.
  3. The idea of partition was planned to suppress the political activities against the British rule in Bengal by creating a Hindu-Muslim divide.
  4. It was openly stated that the main notion of partition was to curtail Bengali mfluence and to weaken the nationalist movement.
  5. Bengal was Partitioned into two units Bengali Hindus (West Bengal) and Muslims (East Bengal).
  6. Partition of Bengal in 1905 led to widespread protests all across India, starting a new phase of the Indian National movement.
  7. The partition instead of dividing, united the people of Bengal.
  8. People marched on the streets of Calcutta in thousands singing Bande mataram.
  9. The partition led to the Boycott of the British goods and Swadeshi movement.

Question 3.
Attempt a narrative account of how Tilak and Annie Besant by launching Home Rule Movement sustained the Indian freedom struggle after 1916?
Answer:
(i) The Indian National Movement was revived and also radicalised during the Home Rule , League Movement that lasted from 1915 to 1918. It was led by Lokamanya Tilak and Annie Besant.

(ii) The objective of the Home Rule Movement was to attain self-government within the British Empire.

(iii) Tilak set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916. In September 1916, after repeated demands of her followers, Annie Besant decided to start the Home Rule League without the support of the Congress. Both the Leagues worked independently.

(iv) The Home Rule Leagues were utilised to carry extensive propaganda through press, speeches, public meetings, lectures, discussions and touring in favour of self government.

(v) Both the leagues succeeded in enrolling young people in large numbers and extending the movement to the rural areas.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Identify the Acts passed in British India from 1858 to 1919, with a brief note on each.
Answer:
Government of India Act (1858):

  1. It was passed to end the rule of the East India Company and transfer the power to the British Crown.
  2. The British Governor General Post was designated as viceroy of India, who became the representative of the British Monarch.

Indian Council Act – 1892:

  1. The British Parliament introduced various amendments to the composition and functions of legislative council, increased the number of additional members to be represented both in central and provinces.
  2. The members were given the right to ask questions on budget.
  3. This Act laid the foundation of parliamentary system in India.
  4. It is a landmark in the constitutional development.

Indian Council Act of 1909:

  1. Popularly known as Minto – Morley Reforms.
  2. This Act directly introduced the elective principle to membership in the imperial and local legislative councils.
  3. It increased the involvement of Indians limitedly in the British Governance.

Montagu – Chelmsford Reform (1919):

  1. The British Parliament passed this Act to expand participation of Indians in the division of executive branch of each provincial Government in to authoritarian and popularly responsible section for the provinces of British India.
  2. Embodied reforms recommended in the report of the secretary of state of India.
  3. This Act promised gradual progress of India towards self – Government.

Dy Archy (1919):

  1. This Act introduced dual Government for the provinces of British India. One is accountable and the other one non accountable.
  2. It marked the 1st introduction of democratic principle into the executive branch of British administration.
  3. It was the association of Indians with the legislation work.
  4. Introduced Port – folio system.

Question 2.
Mark the important centres of 1857 Revolt on an outline map.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism 2

Question 3.
Prepare an album with pictures of frontline leaders of all the anti-colonial struggles launched against the British.
Answer:
Pictures of Moderates
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism 3
Tribal Rebellion and other movement
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism 4

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Nawab of Bengal ……………….. was defeated by the East India company at the Battle of Plassey.
(a) Shuja-ud-daullah
(b) Siraj-ud-daullah
(c) Mirjafar
(d) Mir Kasim
Answer:
(b) Siraj-ud-daullah

Question 2.
Indian Historians describes the revolt of 1857 as ……………….
(a) Sepoy mutiny
(b) First war of Indian Independence
(c) Military revolt
Answer:
(b) First war of Indian Independence

Question 3.
The collective farming of the tribals of Ranchi was known as:
(a) Jhum
(b) Bethbegari
(c) Khunkatti
(d) Ryotwari
Answer:
(c) Khunkatti

Question 4.
The peasants had to pay heavy …………….
(a) land taxes
(b) tariffs
(c) service taxes
Answer:
(a) land taxes

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Question 5.
The ……………….. had leased out to moneylenders the job of revenue collection.
(a) Raja of Chota Nagpur
(b) European officers
(c) Nawab of Bengal
(d) Birsaite Raj
Answer:
(a) Raja of Chota Nagpur

Question 6.
The sepoys broke into open revolt at …………..
(a) Meerut
(b) Kanpur
(c) Barrackpore
Answer:
(a) Meerut

Question 7.
On ……………….. a band of sepoys from Meerut marched to the Red Fort in Delhi.
(a) 1st May 1858
(b) 11th May 1852
(c) 11th May 1857
(d) 19th September 1916
Answer:
(c) 11th May 1857

Question 8.
After the  1857 revolt the Governor-General of India was designated as …………….
(a) Viceroy of India
(b) Ruler of India
(c) Minister of India
Answer:
(a) Viceroy of India

Question 9.
……………….. led the Revolt at Bareilly.
(a) Bahadur Shah – II
(b) Khan Bahadur
(c) Nana Sahib
(d) Kunwar Singh
Answer:
(b) Khan Bahadur

Question 10.
Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at …………….
(a) Kanpur
(b) Central India
(c) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Central India

Question 11.
The play “Nil Darpan” by ……………….. did much to draw attention in India and Europe to the plight of the indigo growers.
(a) Dina Bandhu mitra
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Lockmanya Tilak
(d) Ranajit Guha
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu mitra

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Question 12.
In 1858, the Royal Durbar was held at …………..
(a) Meerut
(b) Allahabad
(c) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Allahabad

Question 13.
The Madras Native Association was formed in the year:
(a) 1806
(b) 1852
(c) 1884
(d) 1852
Answer:
(b) 1852

Question 14.
Which one was not a trading company?
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The French
(c) The Japanese
Answer:
(c) The Japanese

Question 15.
……………….. lent his services to facilitate the formation of Indian National Congress.
(a) A.O.Hume
(b) W.C.Baneijee
(c) Mrs. Annie Besant
(d) V.O.Chidambarampillai
Answer:
(a) A.O.Hume

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The ………………….. helped to unite the Congress party after the Surat split.
  2. The ………………….. movement enhanced to participation of masses in Nationalist Politics.
  3. The British mainly responded to political activities of nationalists by repression and …………………..
  4. The Indian National Movement was revived and ………………….. during the Home Rule movement.
  5. ………………….. launched the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in Tuticorin.
  6. One of the common goals of the extremist leaders was to achieve …………………..
  7. For ………………….. Swaraj was the attainment of complete autonomy and total freedom from foreign rule.
  8. ………………….. decided to started the Home Rule League without the support of the Congress.
  9. The Home Rule Movement in India borrowed much of its principles from the …………………..
  10. In the ………………….. session of Indian National Congress (1916) decided to admit the militant faction in to the party.
  11. Pherozeshah Metha and Gokhale two main voices of opposition against militant faction had died in …………………..
  12. Bengal was officially partitioned on ………………….. by Lord Curzon.
  13. The official declaration of partition of Bengal was observed as a day of …………………..
  14. In a divided Bengal Curzen made the Bengali speaking people to a …………………..
  15. In the year 1899 ………………….. was appointed as the viceroy of India.
  16. Early Indian Nationalists advocated …………………..
  17. The formation of the ………………….. in 1885 was intended to establish an All India Organisation.
  18. The early leaders felt that ………………….. was the main obstacle to the India’s Economic Development.
  19. One of the key demand of the Indian National Congress was creation of ………………….. at provincial and central level.
  20. ………………….. played a significant role in propagating the ideas of Nationalism.
  21. Under British rule peasants were forced to pay revenue directly to the …………………..
  22. Vicious cycle of debt forced the peasants to abandon ………………….. in 1875.
  23. The British planters forced the cultivators to grow ………………….. rather than food crops.
  24. ………………….. was appointed by the British Parliament to look into the Indian affairs after 1857 revolt.
  25. In November 1858 the power to govern India was transferred from ………………….. to the British Crown.
  26. The ………………….. was an important episode in the rebellion of 1857.
  27. The Kingdom of Jhansi was annexed under …………………..
  28. De throning of many Indian rulers affected the livelihood of ………………….. due to lose of patronage.
  29. ………………….. of the people against the British took the form of a people’s revolt.
  30. Thousands of weavers were thrown out of employment due to the dumping of …………………..
  31. By the beginning of June 1857 except ………………….. and ………………….. British Rule in North India had disappeared because of the mutineers.
  32. The precursor to the revolt was the introduction of new ………………….. of the Enfiled Rifles.
  33. The ………………….. claimed themselves as paramount power.
  34. The ………………….. was the first major revolt of armed forces accompanied by civilian rebellion.
  35. In the 1890’s ………………….. offered resistance against the alienation of tribal people from their land.
  36. The ………………….. prompted the British to formulate a policy on Tribal land.
  37. The Munda people were forcefully recruited as ………………….. to work on plantations.
  38. The Munda rebellion movement received an impetus when ………………….. declared himself as the messenger of God.
  39. The disillusionment with ………………….. aggravated the miseries of Munda people.
  40. One of the prominent tribal rebellion in Ranchi was known as …………………..
  41. After the battle of ………………….. the British adopted a policy of territorial expansion.
  42. The British ………………….. was rapidly mechanized with the money received by the company from Mir Jafar.
  43. India was led to the path of because of Britsh manufactured goods.
  44. ………………….. was forced to create a market for the products from Britain.
  45. The plunder of India by the ………………….. continued for nearly 190 years.
  46. There were nearly a hundred ………………….. during the British rule.
  47. The leaders of ………………….. movements were looked upon by their people as heroes of their cause.
  48. The ………………….. are usually leaderless and spontaneous uprising.
  49. The subletting of land by the zamindars increased the ………………….. on the peasants.
  50. Wahhabi Rebellion originated in 1827 in and around ………………….. of Bengal.

Answer:

  1. Home Ruler Movement
  2. Swadeshi
  3. Reconciliation
  4. Radicaliszed
  5. V.O.Chidambaranar
  6. Swaraj or Self Rule
  7. Tilak
  8. Mrs. Annie Besant
  9. Irish Home Rule Movement
  10. Lucknow session
  11. 1915
  12. 16th October 1905
  13. Mourning
  14. Linguistic minority
  15. Lord Curzon
  16. Industrialisation
  17. Indian National Congress
  18. Colonialism
  19. Legislative councils
  20. Print media
  21. Government
  22. agriculture
  23. Indigo plant
  24. Secretary of State
  25. English East India Company
  26. Seige of Kanpur
  27. Doctrine of Lapse
  28. Artisans and handicrafts persons
  29. Collective anger
  30. British manufacture
  31. Punjab and Bengal
  32. greased cartridges
  33. British
  34. Great Rebellion of 1857
  35. Tribal chiefs
  36. Munda rebellion
  37. Indentured labourers
  38. Birsa Munda
  39. Christian missionaries
  40. Ulugalan rebellion
  41. Plassey
  42. Textile industry
  43. De. industrialisation
  44. India
  45. East India company
  46. Peasant uprisings
  47. Social banditry
  48. Mass insurrection
  49. Tax burden
  50. Barasat

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The urban elite of India was busy responding to the western ideas through socio – religious reform movements.
(ii) The traditional elite and peasantry wanted to restore pre – colonial order by revolts.
(iii) The practice of letting out and subletting of land complicated the industrial relations.
(iv) Changes introduced in the land tenures significantly altered the agrarian relations.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The commercialisation of forest led to the disintegration of the traditional tribal system.
(ii) The usury and forcible eviction of tribals from their land led to the resentment of kols.
(iii) The pushed out santhals were forced to rely on the moneylenders for their subsistence.
(iv) Santhals felt secured under the British.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii)-and(iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii)-and(iii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) The British annexed more territories through two major policies.
(ii) Indian sepoys accepted the new dress code and overseas service.
(iii) Before loading into Enfiled Rifle the cartridges had to be bitten off.
(iv) The Indian Sepoys felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The mutiny was equally supported by an aggrieved rural society of North India.
Reason (R): Sepoys working in British army were infact peasants in uniform.
(a) Both A and R are wrong.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is the not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): India extended its support to the British in world war I. Reason (R): Hoping for the attainment of self – Government after the war.
(a) A is correct R is wrong.
(b) Both A and R are wrong.
(c) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism 5
Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism 6
Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism 7
Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (vi)
F. (vii)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

V. Answer the following question briefly

Question 1.
What caused huge loss of revenue in Bengal?
Answer:
Aurangzeb’s farman had granted the company only the right to trade duty free. But the officials of the company, who were carrying on private trade on side also stopped paying duty. This caused a huge loss of revenue for Bengal.

Question 2.
Mention some of the issues of peasants that added to the sense of resentment against the British.
Answer:

  1. The concept of private property rights in land.
  2. Rigorous collection of land revenue.
  3. Encroachment of tribal land by non-tribal people.
  4. Interference of Christian Missionaries in the socio – religious life of the local people.

Were some of the issues of resentment against the British.

Question 3.
Why did the Battle of Plassey become famous?
Answer:
It was the first major victory the company won in India.

Question 4.
What were the reasons for Tribal upraising?
Answer:

  1. Under colonial rule the Government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
  2. The commercialisation of forests led to the disintegration of the traditional tribal system.
  3. It encouraged the incursion of tribal areas by non-tribal people such as contractors, moneylenders traders, land grabbers.
  4. This led to the wide spread loss of adivasi land and their displacement from their traditional habitats. So Tribal resistance arose.

Question 5.
What were the grievances of the company regarding the Nawabs of Bengal?
Answer:
The company declared that the unjust demands of the local officials were ruining the trade of the company. Trade could flourish only if the duties were removed. It was also convinced to expand trade, it had to enlarge its settlements, buy up villages and rebuild its forts.

Question 6.
Name the early leaders who criticized about colonial economy.
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji, Justice Ranade and Romesh Chandra Dutt strongly criticised about the colonial economy.

They clearly stated that the prosperity of the British lay in the economic and political subjugation of India.

They concluded that the colonialism was the main obstacle to the India’s economic development.

Question 7.
Which battle did Robert Clive fight in 1757 and against whom?
Answer:
In 1757, he fought the Battle of Plassey against Siraj-ud-daulah.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Political causes for the Revolt of 1857.

(a) Who introduced subsidiary Alliance?
Answer:
Lord Wellesley introduced subsidiary Alliance.

(b) Name the policy introduced by Lord Balhousie.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie introduced the policy of “Doctrine of Lapse”.

(c) What was the order issued by the British against the Mughal emperor?
Answer:
The British Government had ordered that the Mughal emperor had to give up their ancestral palace and Red fort.

(d) Why did Nana Saheb develop a grudge against the British.
Answer:
The British stopped the pension to Nana Saheb. So he developed a grudge against the British.

Question 2.
Great Rebellion of 1857

(a) What was the biggest challenge witnessed by the British in 1857?
Answer:
The Great Rebellion by the Sepoys and the civilians.

(b) What was witnessed by both sides during the revolt?
Answer:
Unprecedented violence

(c) What were the causes of the revolt?
Answer:

  1. Annexation policy of the British in India.
  2. Insensitivity of the British to Indian cultural sentiments.

(d) What was the people’s opinion on the new regulations of the British.
Answer:
There was always a suspicion among the people regarding British new regulations intention.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Question 3.
Wahhabi Rebellion in Barasat

(a) Who led the Wahhabi Rebellion? Write a few lines about him.
Answer:
Titu Mir, an Islamic preacher led this rebellion. He was deeply influenced by the Wahhabi teachings. He became an important figure among the predominantly Muslim peasantry oppressed under the zamindari system.

(b) How did this movement acquire an anti-Hindu complexion?
Answer:
The majority of zamindars were Hindus. Thus, the movement acquired an anti-Hindu complexion.

(c) what happened on 6 November 1831?
Answer:
On 6 November 1831, the first major attack was made in the town of Pumea. Titu Mir immediately declared freedom from British Rule.

(d) How did the British respond to this rebellion?
Answer:
The British sent a large number of Troops to Narkelberia. Titu Mir along with his soldiers were killed in the staiggle.

Question 4.
Peasant and Tribal Resistance

(a) What was the nature of the resistance against the British rule emerged in rural India?
Answer:
More aggressive response emerged in rural India.

(b) Who revolted against the British in rural areas?
Answer:
Traditional elite and peasants along with tribals revolted.

(c) What did they seek for?
Answer:
They sought for the restoration of the Pre-colonial order and not the removal of the British.

(d) What was the outlook of the tribals on British?
Answer:
The tribal people started looking at the British as invaders and encroachers.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Enumerate the cause for the failure of the Great Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Administrative changes:

  1. Disunity among the Indians was the first and the foremost cause.
  2. A large number of rulers of the Indian states and the big zamindars did not join the movement,
  3. The rulers of the Indian states, who did not support the movement, remained neutral.
  4. The educated Indians did not support the movement.
  5. The telegraph and postal communication proved very helpful to the British for proper military actions and sending their reinforcements at the earliest time.
  6. The rebellious soldiers were short of modem weapons and other materials of war.
  7. The rebellious soldiers had to fight with traditional weapons which were no match to modem weapons possessed by the British forces.
  8. The revolt was not extended beyond North.
  9. The Indian leaders like Nana Saheb, Tantia Tope, Rani Lakshmi Bai where no match to the British generals.
  10. The revolt broke out prematurely and the preparations for the revolt remained incomplete.
  11. The organization and the planning of the rebels was very poor.
  12. The Indian leaders were brave and selfless but they lacked unity of command and discipline.
  13. The revolutionaries had no common idea.
  14. The Muslims wanted to revive Mughal rule and the Hindus wanted to receive the Peshwa Raj.
  15. The British diplomacy of Divide and Rule prevented most of the Indian mlers to join together for a common cause.

Question 2.
What was the objective of the partition of Bengal (1905) and what was its result?
Answer:

  1. The main objective of partition of Bengal was to divide the Hindu – Muslim unity and to influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
  2. Bengal was partitioned into two administrative units.
  3. Reduced the Bengali – speaking people to a linguistic minority in a divided Bengal.
  4. Curzon assured Muslims that in the new province of East Bengal Muslim would enjoy a unity.

Result:

  1. Curzon thought the partition would divide the Bengali people on religious line.
  2. Instead the partition united the people of Bengal.
  3. The growth of the vernacular newspapers played a vital role in building a sense of proud Bengali identity.
  4. The day Bengal was officially partitioned (16th Oct 1905) was declared as a day of mourning.
  5. Thousands of people took bath in Ganga and marched on the streets of Calcutta singing Bande Mataram.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Question 3.
Throw light on the Farazi Movement.
OR
Highlight the different phases of the Farazi Movement under Haji Shariatullah and his son Dudu Mia.
Answer:
Farazi Movement under Haji Shariatullah:
The Farazi Movement was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818, in the parts of eastern Bengal. The movement advocated the participants to keep themselves away from conflict with the zamindars and subsequently with the British, who favoured the zamindars to suppress the peasant uprising.

Farazi Movement under Dudu Mian:
After the death of Shariatullah in 1839, the movement was led by his son Dudu Mian. He called upon the peasant not to pay tax. The movement became popular on a simple doctrine that land and all wealth should be equally enjoyed by the common mass. Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of religion and declared that “Land belongs to God’’ and collecting rent or levying taxes on it was therefore against the divine law. The movement spread far and wide and was joined by a huge number of peasants. There were violent crashes throughout 1840s and 1850s with the zamidars and planters. The movement continued to resist even after the death of Dudu Mian in 1862.

Question 4.
What were the main objectives and key demands of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
The main objectives of Indian National Congress were to develop and consolidate the sentiments of national unity and loyalty to Britain.

Some of the key demands were:

  1. Creation of legislative councils at provincial and central level.
  2. Reducing military expenditure.
  3. Holding civil services exams in India as well as in England.
  4. Promotion of Indian industries and an end to unfair tariffs and an end to unfair tariffs and excise duties.
  5. Extension of trial by jury.
  6. Increasing the number of elected members in the legislative council.
  7. Police reforms
  8. Reduction of Home charges.
  9. Reconsideration of forest laws.
  10. Separating Judicial and executive functions.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 4 Electricity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power.
(b) Rate of change of charge is current.
(c) Rate of change of energy is current.
(d) Rate of change of current is charge.
Answer:
(b) Rate of change of charge is current.

Question 2.
SI unit of resistance is:
(a) mho
(b) joule
(c) ohm
(d) ohm meter
Answer:
(c) ohm

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 3.
In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
(a) The switch produces electricity.
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.
(c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit.
(d) The bulb is getting charged.
Answer:
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit

Question 4.
Kilowatt hour is the unit of:
(a) resistivity
(b) conductivity
(c) electrical energy
(d) electrical power
Answer:
(c) electrical energy

II. Fill in the blanks.

  1. When a circuit is open, ……….. cannot pass through it.
  2. The ratio of the potential difference to the current is known as ……….
  3. The wiring in a house consists of ………… circuits.
  4. The power of an electric device is a product of ……… and ………..
  5. LED stands for ………..

Answer:

  1. current
  2. resistance
  3. parallel
  4. potential difference, current
  5. Light Emitting Diode

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

  1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage.
  2. MCB is used to protect house hold electrical appliances.
  3. The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb.
  4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt hour.
  5. The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Answer:

  1. False – Ohm’s law states that the relationship between current and voltage.
  2. True
  3. False – The SI unit for electric current is ampere.
  4. False – One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1 kilowatt hour.
  5. False – The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is greater than the highest of the “individual resistance.

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 1
Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (c)
(v) – (d)

V. Assertion and reason type Questions.

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: Electric appliances with a metallic body have three wire connections.
Reason: Three pin connections reduce heating of the connecting wires.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of highest potential is the positive terminal of the battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the highest potential.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs.
Reason: LED bulbs consume less power than incandescent bulbs.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

VI. Very short answer questions.

Question 1.
Define the unit of current.
Answer:
The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 coulomb}{1 second}\)

Question 2.
What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?
Answer:
If the conductor is made a thicker area of cross-section of conduction increases that will decrease the resistance.

Question 3.
Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?
Answer:
Tungsten metal is used in bulbs because its melting point is the greatest.
But it is not used in fuse wires. When a current more than 5A flows tungsten wire will be melted. Hence tungsten is not used in fuse wire.

Question 4.
Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric current.
Answer:
The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron and electric toaster.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define electric potential and potential difference.
Answer:
Electric Potential: It is the amount of work done in moving unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.
Electric potential
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 2
Potential difference : It is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric force.
Potential difference VA – VB = \(\frac{W_{A}-W_{B}}{Q}\)

Question 2.
What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:

  1. The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
  2. The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.
  3. Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 3.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
According to Ohm’s law, at a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor.
I ∝ V. Hence, = \(\frac{1}{V}\) = constant.
The value of this proportionality constant is found to \(\frac{1}{R}\)
Therefore, I = (\(\frac{1}{R}\)) V
V = IR

Question 4.
Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 3

Question 5.
What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
Answer:

  1. In the domestic appliance, it is used as a parallel connection to avoid short circuit and breakage.
  2. It has an alternative current (AC). Not DC current as it is from cables, so high potential flows through this.
  3. One more advantage of the parallel connection of circuits is that each electric appliance gets an equal voltage.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

VIII. Long answer Questions.

Question 1.
With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected:
(a) in series and
(b) in parallel
Answer:
(a) Resistors in series : A series circuit connects the components one after the other to form a ‘single loop’. A series circuit has only one loop through which current can pass. If the circuit is interrupted at any point in the loop, no current can pass through the circuit and hence no electric appliances connected in the circuit will work. Series circuits are commonly used in devices such as flashlights. Thus, if resistors are connected end to end, so that the same current passes through each of them, then they are said to be connected in series.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 4
Let, three resistances R1, R2 and R3 be connected in series. Let the current flowing through theorem be I. According to Ohm’s Law, the potential differences V1,V2 and V3 across R1, R2 and R3 respectively, are given by:
V1 = I R1 ………. (1)
V2 = I R2 ……… (2)
v3 = I R3 ………. (3)
The sum of the potential differences across the ends of each resistor is given by:
V = V1 + V2 + V3
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V = I R1 + I R2 + I R3 …….. (4)
The effective resistor is a single resistor, which can replace the resistors effectively, so as to allow the same current through the electric circuit. Let, the effective resistance of the series-combination of the resistors, be RS.
Then,
V = I RS ……….(5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), we get,
I RS = I R1 + I R2 + I R3
RS = R1 + R2 + R3 ……….. (6)
Thus, you can understand that when a number of resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance or effective resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is ‘n R’.
i.e., RS = n R
The equivalent resistance in a series combination is greater than the highest of the individual resistances.

(b) Resistors in Parallel : A parallel circuit has two or more loops through which current can pass. If the circuit is disconnected in one of the loops, the current can still pass through the other loop(s). The wiring in a house consists of parallel circuits.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 5
Consider that three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected across two common points A and B The potential difference across each resistance is the same and equal to the potential difference between A and B. This is me sured using the voltmeter. The current I arriving at A divides into three branches I1, I2 and I3 passing through R1, R2 and R3 respectively.
According to the Ohm’s law, you have,
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 6
The total current through the circuit is given by
I = I1 + I2 + I3
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), you get
I = \(\frac{V}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_2}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_3}\) ……… (4)
Let the effective resistance of the parallel combination of resistors be RP Then,
I = \(\frac{V}{R_P}\) ……… (5)
Combining equations (4) and (5), you have
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 7
Thus, when a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances is equal to the reciprocal of the effective or equivalent resistance. When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistances R are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is \(\frac{R}{n}\)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 8
The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistances.

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by electric current? Give its direction?
(b) Name and define its unit.
(c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be r connected in a circuit?
Answer:
(a) (i) Electric current is often termed as ‘current’ and it is represented by the symbol ‘I’. It is defined as the rate of flow of charges in a conductor.
(ii) The electric current represents the number of charges flowing in any cross-section of a conductor (say a metal wire) in unit time.

(b) The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).
The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 \text { coulomb }}{1 \text { second }}\)

(c) (i) The ammeter is used to measure the current.
(ii) An Ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.
(iii) The Ammeter is a low impedance device connecting it in parallel with the circuit would cause a short circuit, damaging the Ammeter or the circuit.

Question 3.
(a) State Joule’s law of heating.
(b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
(c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
Answer:
(a) Joule’s law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is:

  1. directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor.
  2. directly proportional to the resistance of the resistor.
  3. directly proportional to the time for which the current is passing through the resistor.

(b) Because,

  1. It has high resistivity,
  2. It has a high melting point,
  3. It is not easily oxidized.

(c) When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 4.
Explain about domestic electric circuits, (circuit diagram not required)
Answer:

  1. Electricity is distributed through the domestic electric circuits wired by the electricians.
  2. The first stage of the domestic circuit is to bring the power supply to the main-box from a distribution panel, such as a transformer.
  3. The important components of the main-box are: (i) a fuse box and (ii) a meter. The meter is used to record the consumption of electrical energy.
  4. The fuse box contains either a fuse wire or a miniature circuit breaker (MCB).
  5. The function of the fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current.

Question 5.
(a) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?
(b) List the merits of LED bulb.
Answer:
(a) Advantages of LED TV:

  1. It has brighter picture quality.
  2. It is thinner in size.
  3. It uses less power and consumes very less energy.
  4. Its life span is more.
  5. It is more reliable.

(b) Advantages of LED bulb:

  1. As there is no filament, there is no loss of energy in the form of heat.
  2. It is cooler than the incandescent bulb.
  3. In comparison with the fluorescent light, the LED bulbs have significantly low power requirement.
  4. It is not harmful to the environment.
  5. A wide range of colours is possible here.
  6. It is cost-efficient and energy efficient.
  7. Mercury and other toxic materials are not required. One way of overcoming the energy crisis is to use more LED bulbs.

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 420 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 180 W when heating is at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is 220 V. What is the current in each case?
Answer:
(i) When heating is maximum, the power
P1 = 420 W
Applied voltage V = 220 V
P = VI
Current I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
I = \(\frac{420}{220}\) = 1.909 A
I = 1.909 A

(ii) When heating is minimum
Power P2 = 180 W
Applied voltage V = 220 V
P = VI
∴ Current I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
I = \(\frac{180}{220}\) = 0.8181 A
I = 0.8181 A

Question 2.
A 100-watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for 5 hours daily. Calculate the energy consumed (in kWh) in the month of January.
Solution:
100 W = 100 joules per second
1 watt hours = 3600 joules
The electric bulb is lighted for 5 hours daily,
100 W × 5 = 500 watt hours
500 watt hours = 1800000 joules
1 kWh = 3600000 joules
Units consumed per day = \(\frac{1800000}{3600000}\) = 0.5 units
Untis consumed in month = 0.5 × 31 = 15.5 units …. (1)
Now, Sum of power of four 60 watt bulbs = 240 W
240 W × 5 hours = 1200 watt hours
1200 watt hours = 4320000 joules
Energy consumed per day = \(\frac{4320000}{3600000}\) = 1.2 units
Energy consumed in a month = 1.2 × 31 = 37.2 units …. (2)
Total energy consumed in a month = 15.5 + 37.2 = 52.7 units
1 unit = 1 kWh
The energy consumed in the month of January = 52.7 kWh.

Question 3.
A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA. Calculate it’s
(a) power
(b) resistance
(c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hour.
Answer:
Voltage V = 3 V
Current I = 600 mA
(a) Power = VI
= 3 × 600 × 10-3
= 1800 × 10-3
= 1.8 W
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 9
(c) Time = 4h
Energy consumed E = P × t
E = 1.8 × 4
= 7.2 W

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 4.
A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.
(a) How will the resistance of each part of the wire change compared with the original resistance?
(b) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the combination change?
(c) What will be ratio of the effective resistance in series connection to that of the parallel connection?
Answer:
(a) Original resistance
R = \(\frac{l}{A}\)
∴ R α l
After cutting length of each piece
r = \(\frac{l}{5}\)
New resistance
R’ = \(\frac{l’}{A}\)
R’ α l’
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 10
R : R’ = 5 : 1

(b) When five parts of the wire are placed in parallel.
Effective Resistance
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 11
Resistance of the combinations
RP = \(\frac{R}{25}\)

(c) When resistance are connected in series
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 12
RS = R
When resistance are connected in parallel
RP = \(\frac{R}{25}\)
RS : RP = R : \(\frac{R}{25}\)
= 25 R : R_1
RS : RP = 25 : 1

X. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Two resistors when connected in parallel give the resultant resistance of 2 ohm; but when connected in series the effective resistance becomes 9 ohm. Calculate the value of each resistance.
Answer:
Let the resistance be R, and R2 when two resistances are connected in series
RS = R1 + R2
= 9
R1 + R2 = 9 ……….(1)
When two resistance are connected in parallel
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 13
Using (1) equation (2) becomes
\(\frac{9}{R_{1}R_2}\)
R1 R2 = 18 ……….(3)
(R1 – R2)² = (R1 + R2)² – 4R1R2
= (9)² – 4 × 18
= 81 – 72 = 9
∴ (R1 – R2) = √9 = 3 ………(4)
From (1)
R1 + R2 = 9
2R1 = 12
∴ R1 = \(\frac{12}{2}\) = 6 ohm
From (1)
R2 = 9 – R1
= 9 – 6 = 3Ω
The values of resistances are
R1 = 6 ohm
R2 = 3 ohm

Question 2.
How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5 A?
Solution:
Current I = 5A
Time (t) = 1 second
Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
\(\mathbf{I}=\frac{q}{t}=\frac{n e}{t}\)
Number of electron, n = \(\frac{\mathrm{I} t}{e}\) = \(\frac{5 \times 1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
n = 3.125 × 1019.

Question 3.
A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Answer:
Resistance R = 10Ω
Let l be the length of the wire R ∝ 1
When the length is increased to three times,
l’ = 3l
∴ New Resistance
R’ ∝ l’ ∝ 3l
∴ \(\frac{R}{R’}\) = \(\frac{l}{3l}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
∴ R’ = 3R
New resistance = 3 times the original resistance.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Electricity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of:
(a) energy
(b) power
(c) mass
(d) charge
Answer:
(d) charge

Question 2.
The S.I. unit of electric current is _____.
(a) Volt
(b) Power
(c) Ampere
(d) newton.
Answer:
(c) Ampere

Question 3.
The unit of electric current is:
(a) ampere
(b) volt
(c) watt
(d) kilo-watt
Answer:
(a) ampere

Question 4.
The work done in moving a charge of 2 C across two points in a circuit is 2 J. What is the potential difference between the points?
(a) 1 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 100 V
(d) 0.
Answer:
(a) 1 V

Question 5.
The amount of work done to move a unit charge from one point to the other is:
(a) resistance
(b) current
(c) Potential
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Potential

Question 6.
Ohm’s law gives the relative between potential difference and:
(a) emf
(b) temperature
(c) resistance
(d) current
Answer:
(d) current

Question 7.
The unit of resistance is _____.
(a) volt
(b) volt ampere-1
(c) ampere
(d) Joule.
Answer:
(b) volt ampere-1

Question 8.
The symbol of battery is:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 14
Answer:
(b)

Question 9.
Electrical resistivity for a given material is ______.
(a) zero
(b) constant
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (b).
Answer:
(b) constant

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 10.
The potential difference required to pass a current 0.2 A in a wire of resistance 20 ohm is:
(a) 100 V
(b) 4 V
(c) 0.01 V
(d) 40 V
Answer:
(b) 4 V

Question 11.
The unit of electrical conductivity ______.
(a) ohm-1 metre
(b) ohm-1 metre-1
(c) Volt Ampere-1
(d) ohm.
Answer:
(b) ohm-1 metre-1

Question 12.
Kilowatt-hour is the unit of:
(a) potential difference
(b) electric power
(c) electric energy
(d) charge
Answer:
(c) electric energy

Question 13.
The resistivity of a material is 4 × 10-8 Ωm and its conductivity ______.
(a) 25 × 10-8 mho m-1
(b) 0.25 × 10-8 mho m-1
(c) 25 × 108 mho m-1
(d) 0.25 × 108 mho m-1.
Answer:
(d) 0.25 × 108 mho m-1.

Question 14.
The commonly used safely fuse wire is made of:
(a) nickel
(b) lead
(c) an alloy of tin and lead
(d) copper
Answer:
(c) an alloy of tin and lead

Question 15.
The value of one horse power is:
(a) 746 kW
(b) 746 W
(c) 3.6 × 105 W
(d) 3.6 × 106 kW
Answer:
(b) 746 W

Question 16.
When ‘n’ number of resistors are connected in series, the effecive resistance for series is ______.
(a) nR
(b) \(\frac{n}{\mathrm{R}}\)
(c) \(\frac{\mathbf{R}}{n}\)
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) nR

Question 17.
Name the physical quantity which is measured in kW:
(a) electric energy
(b) electric power
(c) electric current
(d) electric potential
Answer:
(b) electric power

Question 18.
What is the amount of current, when 20 C of charges flows in 4 s through a conductor? [l = \(\frac{q}{v}\)]
(a) 5 A
(b) 80 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 2 A
Answer:
(a) 5 A

Question 19.
Nichrome is ______.
(a) a conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) an alloy
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) an alloy

Question 20.
The main source of biomass energy is:
(a) coal
(b) heat energy
(c) thermal energy
(d) cow-dung
Answer:
(d) cow-dung

Question 21.
The value of one ampere is:
(a) \(\frac{1second}{1coulomb}\)
(b) 1 coulomb × sec
(c) \(\frac{1coulomb}{1second}\)
(d) 1 coulomb
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1coulomb}{1second}\)

Question 22.
The heat produced in an electric heater of resistance 2 Ω is connected to an electric source, when a current of 6 A flows for 5 minutes _____.
(a) 216 × 102 J
(b) 2160 J
(c) 900 J
(d) 150 J.
Answer:
(a) 216 × 102 J
Hint: Formula H = I2Rt Joule.

Question 23.
The value of \(\frac{1joule}{1coulomb}\)
(a) 1 kWh
(b) 1 Wh
(c) ampere
(d) volt
Answer:
(d) volt

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 24.
The mathematical from of Ohm’s law is given by:
(a) V = IR
(b) I = VR
(c) R = \(\frac{I}{V}\)
(d) I = \(\frac{R}{V}\)
Answer:
(a) V = IR

Question 25.
One kilowatt hour is _____.
(a) 3.6 × 106 J
(b) 36 × 106 J
(c) 3.6 × 105 J
(d) 36 × 105 J.
Answer:
(a) 3.6 × 106 J

Question 26.
If the length and radius of a conductor is doubled then its specific resistance will:
(a) be doubled
(b) be halved
(c) be tripled
(d) remain the same
Answer:
(d) remain the same

Question 27.
The value of resistivity of nichrome is:
(a) 1.5 × 106 Ωm
(b) 1.5 × 10-6 Ωm
(c) 5.1 × 106 Ωm
(d) 5.1 × 10-6 Ωm
Answer:
(b) 1.5 × 10-6 Ωm

Question 28.
Due to short circuit, effective resistance in the circuit becomes _____.
(a) large
(b) very small
(c) very large
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) very small

Question 29.
if a conductor has a length of 1 m and area of 1 m² then its resistivity is equal to its:
(a) resistance
(b) conductance
(c) length
(d) conductivity
Answer:
(a) resistance

Question 30.
When resistors are connected in parallel, potential difference across each resistor will be:
(a) different
(b) same
(c) vary
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) same

Question 31.
LED TV screen was developed by James P. Mitchell in _____.
(a) 1797
(b) 1977
(c) 2009
(d) 1987.
Answer:
(b) 1977

Question 32.
Heat developed across a conductor H =
(a) IRt
(b) VR
(c) I2Rt
(d) I2R
Answer:
(c) I2Rt

Question 33.
Expression for electric energy is:
(a) W = \(\frac{V}{I}\)
(b) W = VIt
(c) W = Vt
(d) W = \(\frac{V}{It}\)
Answer:
(b) W = VIt

Question 34.
In our home, fuse box consists of:
(a) fuse wire
(b) MCB
(c) fuse wire or MCB
(d) switches
Answer:
(c) fuse wire or MCB

Question 35.
Which of the following is a semi conductor device?
(a) LED bulb
(b) fuse
(c) MCB
(d) switch
Answer:
(a) LED bulb

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The flow of charge: Electric current. A continuous closed path of an electric current is ………. The unit of charge: Coulomb then-current ……….
2. Electric current I: Charge (Q)/ ………. while electric potential V is ……….
3. A resistor of resistance R: Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 15 Then variable resistance and ……….. rheostat ……….
4. In series connection of resistors: ………. Then for parallel connection of resistors: ………..
5. The transformation of energy in Electric oven: ………… Electric cell ………..
6. The expression obtained from Ohm’s law ………… joule’s law
7. The unit of electric power …………. then electric energy ………..
8. The equivalent of 1 volt ………. then for 1 ohm ………..
9. The tap-key is used to ……… and ……….. an electric circuit.
10. The opposition to flow of current is called ………. and its unit is ………..
11. The heat developed in a conductor is directly proportional to the square of ………… and ………. of flow.
12. The S.I unit of electric current is ……….
13. The S.l unit of resistance is ……….
14. ……….. is the S.l unit of potential difference.
15. From Ohm’s law \(\frac{V}{I}\) =
16. If a current 2A flows through conductor having a potential difference of 6 V then its resistance is ……….
17. If R is the resistance of a conductor then its conductance is G = ……….
18. Conductivity is ……… for ……….. than insulators.
19. When resistors are connected in series the equivalent resistance is …………. than the highest resistance of individual resistors.
20. In series connection ……….. is less as effective resistance is more.
21. Tungsten is used as heating element because its resistance is ……….
22. Tungsten is used as filament in the electric bulb because its melting points is …………
23. If a current of 6A flows through a 5Ω resistance for 10 minutes than heat developed in the resistance is ……….
24. When a current of IA flows through a conductor having potential difference of IV, the electric power is ………..
25. 746 watt is equivalent to ………..
26. In displays are used ………….
Answer:
1. Electric circuit, Ampere
2. Time (t), Work done (W)/charge (Q)
3. Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 16
4. Current is same, Potential difference is same
5. electrical into heat energy, chemical into electrical energy
6. V = IR, H = I2Rt
7. Kilowatt, want hour
8. \(\frac{1joule}{1coulomb}\), \(\frac{1volt}{1ampere}\)
9. open, close
10. resistance, ohm
11. current, time
12. ampere
13. Ohm 15. R
14. Volt
15. R
16. 3 ohm
17. \(\frac{I}{R}\)
18. more, conductors
19. greater
20. Current
21. high
22. high
23. 108 kJ
24. 1 W
25. 1 horse power
26. LED bulbs

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.

1. Current is the rate of flow of charges
2. The symbol of diode is
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 17
3. Potential = \(\frac{charge}{time}\)
4. Mathematical form of ohm’s law is V = IR
5. Nichrome is used in electric bulb.
6. The unit of conductance is mho.
7. The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is less than the lowest of the individual resistance.
8. In parallel connection the effective resistance is RP = \(\frac{R_{1}+R_{2}}{R_{1}R_{2}}\)
9. Heat produced in a conductor is H = l²Rt
10. 1 kWh = 3.6 J.
11. An MCB is a switching device.
12. LED means Light Emitting Diode.
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False – Potential = \(\frac{Workdone(W)}{Charge(Q)}\)
4. True
5. False – Nichrome is used in heating device.
6. True
7. True
8. False – In parallel connection, the effective resistance is RP = \(\frac{R_{1}R_{2}}{R_{1}+R_{2}}\)
9. True
10. False – 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J
11. True
12. True

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

IV. Match the items in column-1 to the items in column-ll.

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 18
Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 2.
Match the components with symbols
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 19
Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 20
Answer:
(i) – (c)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 21
Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 5.
Match the column I with column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 22
Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 6.
Match the column I with column II:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 23
Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (e)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 7.
Match the column I with column II:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 24
Answer:
(i) – (e)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (d)
(iv) – (c)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

V. Assertion and reason type questions.

Question 1.
Assertion: In a series system, equivalent resistance is the sum of the individual resistance.
Reason: The current that passes through each resistor is the same.
(a) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion,
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion
Answer:
(d) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion: In a parallel system, the total current is equal to the sum of the current through each resistor.
Reason: The potential difference across each resistor is the same.
(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.
(b) Assertion is true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(d) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is true and Reason explains Assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: The unit of power watt is not frequently used in practice. Reason: it cannot be converted into Joule.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 4.
Assertion: A wire carrying a current has electric field around d.
Reason: A wire carrying current is stays electrically neutral.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason a re true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: In order to pass current through electric circuit, it must be closed.
Reason: In our home, the switch is ON, then the current flows through the bulb. So, the bulb glows.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: Resistance of a material opposes the flow of charges.
Reason: It is different for different materials.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Electrical conductivity is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity. Reason: The unit of conductivity is Ohm.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 8.
Assertion: One end of the earthing wire is connected to a body of the electrical appliance and its other end is connected to a metal tube that is burried into the Earth.
Reason: The earth wire provides low resistance path to the electric current.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 9.
Assertion: The passage of electric current through a wire results in the production of heat.
Reason: The heating effect is used in electric heater electric iron etc.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 10.
Assertion: One kilowatt hour is known as one unit of electrical energy.
Reason: 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106J
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Very short answer type Questions

Question 1.
If a charge of QC flows through a conductor in time t second then what is the value of current?
Answer:
Charge = \(\frac{Charge}{time}\)
I = \(\frac{Q}{t}\)

Question 2.
What is the electric circuit?
Answer:
An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop.
(or)
path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow. This path is made using electrical wires so as to connect an electric appliance to a source of electric charges (battery).

Question 3.
If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross-section is also doubled than what happens its resistance?
Answer:
Resistance of a wire
R = \(\frac{pl}{A}\) ………. (1)
l’ = 2l
A’ = 2A
∴ New Resistance
R’ = l × \(\frac{2l}{2A}\)
R’ = \(\frac{pl}{A}\) …….. (2)
Form (1) and (2) it is found that resistance remains unchanged.

Question 4.
What is the unit of resistance and resistivity of a conductor?
Answer:
(i) The unit of resistance is ohm.
(ii) The unit of resistivity is ohm meter.

Question 5.
Define the unit of resistance? (or) Define one ohm.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor is said to be one ohm if a current of one ampere flows through it when a potential difference of one volt is maintained across its ends.
\(\text { Ohm }=\frac{1 \text { volt }}{1 \text { ampere }}\).

Question 6.
What is the unit of conductivity?
Answer:
The unit of conductivity is mho meter.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 7.
What is the value of one kilo watt hour?
Answer:
One kilowatt hour = 1000 W hr
1 kWh = 3.6 × 106J

Question 8.
What is the heating effect of electric current?
Answer:
The passage of electric current through a wire resulting in the production of heat. This phenomenon is called the heating effect of current. This heating effect of current is used in devices like electric heater, electric iron, etc.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is an electric circuit?
Answer:
An electric circuit is a closed conducting loop (or) path, which has a network of electrical components through which electrons are able to flow.

Question 2.
Draw a circuit diagram to represent a simple electric circuit.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 25

Question 3.
What is the direction of conventional current?
Answer:
By convention, the direction of current is taken as the direction of flow of positive charge (or) opposite to the direction of flow of electrons.

Question 4.
Define electric potential.
Answer:
The electric potential at a point is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to that point against the electric force.

Question 5.
What is meant by overloading?
Answer:
(i) Overloading happens when a large number of appliances are connected in series to the same source of electric power. This leads to a flow of excess current in the electric circuit.

(ii) When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 6.
What is meany by short circuit?
Answer:

  1. When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short circuit’.
  2. This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force.
  3. Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires.
  4. This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

Question 7.
Draw an electric circuit to understand Ohm’s law.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 26

Question 8.
Define resistance of a conductor.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.

Question 9.
Define Resistance. Give its unit and conductance.
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor can be defined as the ratio between the potential difference across the ends of the conductor and the current flowing through it.
Conductance: It is defined as the reciprocal of its resistance (R). Hence, the conductance ‘G’ of a conductor is given by
\(\mathrm{G}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Its unit is ohm-1. It is also represented as ‘mho’.

Question 10.
Define electrical resistivity of a material.
Answer:
The electrical resistivity of a material is defined as the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross section. Its unit is ohm metre.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 11.
What is meant by electrical conductivity?
Answer:
The reciprocal of electrical resistivity of a material is called its electrical conductivity.
σ = \(\frac{1}{p}\)

Question 12.
Mention the differences between the combination of resistances in series and parallel.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 27

Question 13.
Write short notes about filament in electric bulbs.
Answer:
In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Question 14.
What is meant by electric power?
Answer:
The electric power is the product of the electric current and the potential difference due to which the current passes in a circuit.

Question 15.
What is meant by overloading of an electric circuit?
Answer:
When the amount of current passing through a wire exceeds the maximum permissible limit, the wires get heated to such an extent that a fire may be caused. This is known as overloading.

Question 16.
What is meant by LED bulb?
Answer:
An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used.

Question 17.
W hat is meant by seven segment display? state its uses.
Answer:
(i) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text.
(ii) It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, microwave ovens, etc.

Question 18.
What do you know about LED television.
Answer:
LED Television is one of the most important applications of Light Emitting Diodes. An LED TV is actually an LCD TV (Liquid Crystal Display) with LED display. An LED display uses LEDs for backlight and an array of LEDs act as pixels. LEDs emitting white light are used in monochrome (black and white) TV; Red, Green and Blue (RGB) LEDs are used in colour television.

Question 19.
What is fuse wire?
Answer:
The function of fuse wire or an MCB is to protect the household electrical appliances from excess current due to overloading or a short circuit.

Question 20.
Draw a group between potential difference and current.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 28

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 21.
Write short note about short circuit?
Answer:
When a live wire comes in contact with a neutral wire, it causes a ‘short ‘ circuit’. This happens when the insulation of the wires get damaged due to temperature changes or some external force. Due to a short circuit, the effective resistance in the circuit becomes very small, which leads to the flow of a large current through the wires. This results in heating of wires to such an extent that a fire may be caused in the building.

VIII. Long answer questions.

Question 1.
Tabulate various components used in electrical circuit and their uses?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 29

Question 2.
Explain series connection of parallel resistors.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 30
If we consider the connection of a set of parallel resistors that are connected in series, you get a series – parallel circuit. Let R1 and R2 be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of Rp1. Similarly, let R3, and R4 be connected in parallel to give an effective resistance of Rp2. Then, both of these parallel segments are connected in series. Using equation we get
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 31
We get = R1 + R2 + R3 ……….(1)
Finally, using equation (1), the net effective resistance is given by
Rtotal = RP1 + RP2

Question 3.
Explain parallel connection of series resistors.
Answer:
If you consider a connection of a set of series resistors connected in a parallel circuit, you get a parallel-series circuit. Let R1 and R2 be connected in series to give an effective resistance of RS1. Similarly, let R3 and R4 be connected in series to give an effective resistance of RS2. Then, both of these serial segments are connected in parallel.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 32
Using equation
RS = R1 + R2 + R3
We get RS1 = R1 + R2, RS2 = R3 + R4
Finally, using equation
\(\frac{1}{R_P}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_2}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_3}\)
the net effective resistance is given by
\(\frac{1}{R_{total}}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_{S1}}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_{S2}}\)

Question 4.
Explain applications of heating effect.
Answer:
Electric Heating Device: The heating effect of electric current is used in many home appliances such as electric iron, electric toaster, electric oven, electric heater, geyser, etc. In these appliances Nichrome, which is an alloy of Nickel and Chromium is used as the heating element. Because:
(i) it has high resistivity,
(ii) it has a highmelting point,
(Hi) it is not easily oxidized.

Fuse Wire : The fuse wire is connected in series, in an electric circuit. When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to Joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected. Therefore, the circuit and the electric appliances are saved from any damage. The fuse wire is made up of a material whose melting point is relatively low.

Filament in bulbs : In electric bulbs, a small wire is used, known as filament. The filament is made up of a material whose melting point is very high. When current passes through this wire, heat is produced in the filament. When the filament is heated, it glows and gives out light. Tungsten is the commonly used material to make the filament in bulbs.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 5.
Write short notes about
(i) LED bulb
(ii) Seven segment display
Answer:
(i) An LED bulb is a semiconductor device that emits visible light when an electric current passes through it. The colour of the emitted light will depend on the type of materials used. With the help of the chemical compounds like Gallium Arsenide and Gallium Phosphide, the manufacturer can produce LED bulbs that radiates red, green, yellow and orange colours. Displays in digital watches and calculators, traffic signals, street lights, decorative lights, etc., are some examples for the use of LEDs.

(ii) A ‘Seven Segment Display’ is the display device used to give an output in the form of numbers or text. It is used in digital meters, digital clocks, micro wave ovens, etc. It consists of 7 segments of LEDs in the form of the digit 8. These seven LEDs are named as a, b, c, d, e, f and g. An extra 8th LED is used to display a dot.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 33

IX. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
An electric iron draws a current of 0.5 A when the voltage is 220 volts. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through it in one hour.
Answer:
I = \(\frac{Q}{t}\)
Charge Q = ?
Charge I = 0.5 A
Time = 1 hour
= 60 × 60 s
Q = It
= 0.5 × 3600
= 1800 C
The amount of electric charge flowing = 1800 C

Question 2.
A current of 5A flows through a heater for 10 minutes. Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through the electric circuit.
Answer:
Q = I × t
Current I = 5A
Time t = 10 × 60 = 600 s
= 5 × 600 = 3000 C

Question 3.
A torch bulb draws a current 0.6 A, when glowing from a source of 6 V. Calculate the resistance of the bulb when glowing.
Answer:
V = IR
Current I = 0.6A
Potential V = 6V
R = ?
R = \(\frac{V}{I}\) = \(\frac{6}{0.6}\) = 10Ω
The resistance of the bulb = 10Ω

Question 4.
Find the potential difference required to pass a current of 0.2 A in a wire of resistant 20Ω.
Answer:
V = IR
Current I = 0.2A
Resistance R = 20Ω
Potential difference V = ?
V = 0.2 × 20 = 4V
The potential difference in a wire = 4V

Question 5.
Calculate the amount of work done in moving charge of 25 C across two points having potential difference of 20V.
Answer:
W = QV
Charge Q = 25 C
Potential difference V = 20 V
W = 25 × 20 = 500 J

Question 6.
Three resistances are connected in an electrical circuit as shown in the circuit diagram. Determine the potential difference across resistance R2.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 34
For series connection, the effective resistance
RS = R1 + R2 + R3
= 1 + 2 + 3 = 6Ω
Total potential = 12V
Amount of current flowing through the circuit
I = \(\frac{V}{R_{S}}\) = \(\frac{12V}{6Ω}\) = 2A
Potential difference across resistance R2
V = I × R2
= 2 × 2 = 4V
The potential difference across the resistance R2 = 4 V

Question 7.
In the given network, find the equivalent resistance between A and B.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 35
An equivalent of the given network is drawn in the relevant parts as follows: Resistance of the combination R1 and R2 is
RS = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination R1, R2 and R3 is
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 36
The resistance of series combination RP1 and R4 is RS1 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination RS1 and R5 is
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 37
Resistance of the series combination RP2 and R6 is
RS2 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination RS2 and R7 is
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 38
Resistance of the series combination RP3 and R8 is
RP3 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination RS3 and R9 is
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 39
Resistance of the series combination RP4 and R6 is
RS4 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
Resistance of the combination RS4 and R8 is
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 40
∴ Resistance between A and B is 5Ω

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 8.
For a given circuit calculate
(i) the total effective resistance of the circuit.
(ii) the total current in the circuit
(iii) the current through each resistor.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 41
For parallel connection, the effective resistance
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 42
(i) Total effective resistance of the circuit
RP = 0.588Ω

(ii) Total current in the circuit
I = 10.2 A

(iii) Current through R1 = 6A
Current through R2 = 3A
Current through R3 = 1.2A

Question 9.
An electric iron a rating of 750 W, 220 V.
(i) Calculate current passing through it and
(ii) Its resistance when in use.
Answer:
P = VI
I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
Ohm’s law V = IR
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 43
(i) The amount of current passing
I = 3.4A
(ii) Resistance
R = 64.7Ω

Question 10.
Following graph was plotted between V and I values. What would be the values of \(\frac{V}{I}\) ratios when the potential difference is 0.8 V and 1.2 V?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 44
V1 = 0.8V, I1 = 32A; V2 = 1.2V; I2 = 48A
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 45

Question 11.
Three resistors of 2Ω, 4Ω and 8Ω are connected in parallel with a battery of 3 V. Calculate
(i) Current through each resistor and
(ii) Total current in the circuit.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 46
Potential difference across each resistor is same.
(i) Current through each resistor:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 47

(ii) Total current in the circuit: I = I1 + I2 + I3
I = 1.5 + 0.75 + 0. 375
I = 2.625 A

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 12.
Two bulbs of 40 W and 60 W are connected in series to an external potential difference. Which bulb will glow brighter? Why?
Answer:
Let the external potential difference be 230 V
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 48
For 40 W bulb resistance is R
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 49
For 60 W bulb resistance is R
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 50
According to Ohm’s law
I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
Current flowing through 40 W bulb is
\(\frac{230}{1322.5}\) = 0.1739 A
Current flowing through 60 W bulb is
\(\frac{230}{881.6}\) = 0.2608 A
When bulbs are connected in series effective resistance is
RS = R1+ R2 = 1322.5 + 881.6
RS = 2204.1Ω
Net current
I = \(\frac{230}{2204.1}\) = 0.1043 A
Using power equation P = I²R
For 40 W bulb P = I²R
= (0.1043)² × 1322.5
= (0.01087) × 1322.5 = 14.386 W
For 60 W bulb P = I²R
= (0.1043)² × 881.6
= (0.01087) × 881.6 = 9.5904 W
In a series system, higher the resistance, higher the brightness so, 40 W bulb glows brighter.

Question 13.
A wire is bent into a circle. The effective resistance across the diameter is 8Ω. Find the resistant if the wire.
Answer:
RP = 8Ω = resistance across diameter
\(\frac{1}{R}\) + \(\frac{1}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
\(\frac{2}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
R = 16Ω
x is the resistance of the wire.
x = 16 + 16 = 32Ω
x = 32Ω

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

X. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
A 60 W bulb is connected in parallel with a room heater. This combination is connected across the mains. If 60 W bulb is replaced by a 100 W bulb what happens to the heat produced by the heater? Given reason.
Answer:
Heat produced by the heater will be same. When the bulb and a heater are connected in parallel and this combination is connected across the mains, potential difference across each is the same equal to the voltage V of the mains irrespective of the resistance of the bulb.

If R is the resistance of the heater then heat produced by the heater will be \(\frac{V^2}{R}\) in both cases. Hence heat produces by heater will not be changed.

Question 2.
Two bulbs 60 W and 100 W are connected in series and this combination is connected to a d.c power supply. Will the potential difference across 60 W bulb be higher than that across 100 W bulb?
Answer:
60 W bulb has a higher resistance than the resistance across 100 W bulb since the power developed is P = \(\frac{V^2}{R}\).
Potential difference across a bulb will be proportional to resistance. Hence potential difference across 60 W bulb is higher than that across 100 W bulb.

Question 3.
Super conductors has lowest resistance. Is it true. Give reason.
Answer:
True. When the temperature of super conductor is reduced to zero or near by zero its resistance becomes zero.

Question 4.
A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a uniform conducting wire. If both the length and radius of the wire is doubled then what happens to the heat produced in the wire?
Answer:
We know that resistance of a conducting wire is R = \(\frac{pl}{A}\)
\(\frac{Pl}{πr^{2}}\)
If length l and radius r are doubled, then resistance will become half. But heat produced H = \(\frac{V^2}{R}\).
Hence, heat produced per second will become thrice.

Question 5.
Calculate the effective resistance between A and B.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 51
The electrical circuit can be redrawn as
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 52
The resistance R1 and R2 are in series
RS = R1 + R2 = 2 + 2 = 4Ω
The resistance RS and R3 are in parallel
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 53
∴ Effective resistance Reff= 1.33Ω

Question 6.
Two wires of same material and length have resistances 5Ω and 10Ω respectively. Calculate the ratio of radii of the two wires.
Answer:
Resistance
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 54
∴ r1 : r2 = √2 : 1

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity

Question 7.
An iron box of 400 W power is used daily for 30 minutes. If the cost per unit is 75 paise, find the weekly expense on using the iron box.
Answer:
Power P = 400 W
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 4 Electricity 55
Energy consumed = Power × Time
= 400 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 200 Wh
Energy consumed in one week= 200 × 7
= 1400 Wh = 1.4 kWh
= 1.4 unit
∴ Total cost per week = 1.4 × 0.75 = Rs 1.05
Weekly expense = Rs 1.05

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
  2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
  3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
  4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
  5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
  6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
  7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The whole family walked about on the big plateau.
(a) highland
(b) pinnacle
(c) lake
(d) valley
Answer:
(a) highland

Question 2.
Before I could intervene, the cops were in the attic.
(a) interfere
(b) interrogate
(c) instigate
(d) investigate
Answer:
(a) interfere

Question 3.
Nagen had a rustic look.
(a) urban
(b) rural
(c) modem
(d) crude
Answer:
(d) crude

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
I gave my crew members the best dishes with the limited resources.
(a) limitations
(b) partial
(c) incomplete
(d) boundless
Answer:
(d) boundless

Question 5.
They continue to grapple with the challenges of inclusion.
(a) seclusion
(b) enclosure
(c) addition
(d) exclusion
Answer:
(d) exclusion

Question 6.
The man was startled.
(a) annoyed
(b) alarmed
(c) reassured
(d) amused
Answer:
(c) reassured

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘millennium’.
(a) millennia
(b) millenniums
(c) millenniumes
(d) millenniaas
Answer:
(a) millennia

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – imagine.
(a) or
(b) ary
(c) al
(d) tion
Answer:
(d) tion

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation SAARC.
(a) South African Association for Regional Cooperation
(b) South Asian Association for Railways Cooperation
(c) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(d) South Asian Association for Regional Corporation
Answer:
(c) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The match was ……………. due to rain.
(a) called upon
(b) called on
(c) called off
(d) called at
Answer:
(c) called off

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘flower’ to form a compound word.
(a) sun
(b) rain
(c) sky
(d) son
Answer:
(a) sun

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The cat was hiding …………………….. the table.
(a) by
(b) under
(c) at
(d) for
Answer:
(b) under

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
I speak, and the words appear on my screen and then ……………………….. I them out.
(a) can be printed
(b) can printing
(c) were printed
(d) can print
Answer:
(d) can print

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
The baby isn’t sleeping, ………………………. it’s late.
(a) in spite
(b) even though
(c) although
(d) so
Answer:
(b) even though

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]

Section -I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
What happened to the young seagull when it landed on the green sea?
Answer:
When the young seagull landed on the green sea, he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly and shrieked shrilly, turning his beak sideways and crowed amusedly. He screamed with fright when he dropped his legs to stand on the green sea and sank into it.

Question 16.
What was the mean act of Holmes with Dr. Watson?
Answer
When Dr. Watson offered to examine symptoms and treat him Holmes said he would have a doctor in whom he had confidence. This was really very rude of Holmes and showed his madness.

Question 17.
What is the meaning of Tarini? Why is it worshipped?
Answer
The word ‘Tarini ’ means ‘boat ’ and in Sanskrit it means ‘ Saviour ’. Tara – Tarini is worshipped for safety and success at sea.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 18.
What did Sasanka tell Aditya, looking at the fifteen ten-rupee notes in his hand?
Answer
Sasanka said to Aditya, ‘Aditya, this smacks too much of charity. Doesn’t it? I had recognised you at Nagen uncle’s tea shop by that mole on your right cheek. I could see you had not recognised me. So I recited the same poem that I had recited on the prize-giving day, on purpose, so that you may remember. Then, when you came to visit me, I couldn’t help venting my anger on you.’

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear From what the future veils; but with a whole And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.”
(a) How can one travel on with cheer?
(b) What is meant by ‘veil’?
Answer
(a) One can travel cheerfully with a happy heart.
(b) A veil is a cover that is used to partially hide something.

Question 20.
“And so it were wisest to keep our feet From wandering into Complaining Street;”
(a) What is the wisest thing that the poet suggests?
(b) What does the phrase ‘to keep our feet from wandering’ refer to?
Answer
(a) The wisest thing is to avoid wandering into the complaining street.
(b) The phrase, ‘to keep our feet from wandering’ refer to restricting your path from strolling.

Question 21.
“At last by starvation and famine made bold,
All dripping with wet, and all trembling with cold,”
(a) What made the cricket bold?
(b) Why did the cricket drip and tremble?
Answer
(а) Starvation and hunger made the cricket bold.
(b) The cricket dripped wet and trembled with cold because it was winter.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 22.
“Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) What is the requirement of the machines?
(b) What does the second line indicate?
Answer
(a) The requirement of the machines is water, coal and oil.
(b) The second line indicates the close arrangement of the nuts, screws and bolts.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer
I will never forget this experience.
This experience will not be forgotten by me

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer
They asked us, “Are you going anywhere at the weekend.?”
They asked us if we were going anywhere at the weekend.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Answer

  • M Hamel saw me and said very kindly go to your place quickly, little Franz we were beginning without you
  • M. Hamel saw me and said very kindly, “Go to your place quickly, little Franz. We were beginning without you

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer
He is rich, yet he is unhappy.
Despite being rich he is unhappy.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) Six puppies / to/ had / Maya’s / given birth / dog
(b) Many times / Sita told Ravi / two dogs / have / already / we
Answer
(a) Maya’s dog had given birth to six puppies.
(b) Many times Sita told Ravi we already have two dogs.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Help the stranger from Mariadass street to reach his/her destination, Madha Poonga with the help of the given road-map and write down the steps
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1.1

  • From Mariadoss street, proceed further and take the left at the crossroads on P.V.Koil Street.
  • Go further down and cross Andhra Post office on the left and R.K.Oil Mill on the right.
  • After half a furlong, you must take the right on P. V.Koil street where you will find Madha Poonga on the left.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
What do you know about James Thurber, the narrator?
Answer:
The narrator James Thurber, presents himself as acting judiciously, although his actions are uncommon to raise the uncertainties of the policemen. He is the first person in the household to hear the mysterious sound, as he is stepping out of the bathtub at 1:15 a.m. on November 17th. After waking his brother Herman, he is the one who resolves that the reason of the sound downstairs must be an apparition. When his hasty mother decides that the sounds must be caused by intruders, the narrator thinks that she is past reasoning. Even when the cops arrive, he is still wrapped in a towel from his bath.

Later, when the reporter comes around asking questions, the narrator puts on one of his mother’s blouses, explaining that it is the only thing that he can find at the moment. He chooses to be honest with the reporter and tell him that the problem was caused by ghosts, but the reporter does not take him earnestly. Later, when the policeman who has been shot by Grandfather wants to challenge him and take his gun back, the narrator mediates with composed receptivity and offers to take the gun over to the police station in the morning.
“A judicious reticence is hard to learn, but
it is a lifetime lesson.’’

Question 30.
What are the various innovations made in India to help the differently-abled lead a normal life?
Answer:
There are various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life. Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence is an innovation for the disabled to use GPS & Blutooth. This enabled shoes to help the disabled navigate streets, based on instructions from map software on a smartphone. The App also records the route and also counts steps.

Blee Watch by industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai invented the Smart watch for the hearing impaired. It converts sound waves into vibrations and colour codes to alert users to emergency sounds and ringing doorbells. It even helps them feel the rhythm of music. iGEST by Anil Prabhakar, IIT-M professor and cofounder of enability technologies innovated a wearable device which tracks gestures of speech-impaired people and speaks for them. I guess technology makes a differently abled person’s life easier.
“Exploration is the engine that drives Innovation.”

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 31.
What do you know about the Navikaa Sagar Parikrama?
Answer:
Navika Sagar Parikrama was a project undertaken in consonance with the National policy to empower women to attain their full potential. The Project is considered essential towards promoting ocean sailing activities in the Navy while depicting Government of India’s thrust for Nari Shakti which means women power. The Chief of the Naval Staff, Admiral Sunil Lanba gave his welcome speech when this project was launched.

The voyage was aimed to show case ‘Make in India’ initiative by sailing on-board indigenously built INSV Tarini. The special feature of this sailboat is that it encouraged use of environment friendly non-conventional renewable energy resources such as the wind; collected and updated meteorological, ocean and wave data on regular basis for accurate weather forecast by India Meteorological Department (IMD) and also collected data for monitoring marine pollution on high seas.
“The goal is not to sail the boats, but rather to help the boat sail herself.’’

Question 32.
‘Man does change with time’-What were the various changes that came about in Aditya?
Answer:
Man does change with time. According to Sanyal, Aditya was a boy who could never compete him in scholastic or non-scholastic activities. He was a liar and an envious personality. But, years later Aditya no longer is the same personality. He is more matured and responsible. His childish nature makes him feel guilty, for stealing the medal that belonged to Sanyal.

Aditya now wanted to restore Sanyal, his lost happiness. Knowing about his financial constraints, he decides to give him the cost of the silver medal. He drives with a firm determination to his ancestral house. When he reaches, he rushes to the attic. Aditya gets on top of a packing Case and pushes his hand inside the ventilator, upsetting a sparrow’s nest. However, he heaves a sigh of relief when he gets what he had been looking for. He goes straight to the Jeweller to determine the current rate of the medal in the market. All these surely show a remarkable change in him.

Even when Sanyal behaves rudely, Aditya is courteous and friendly. His only intention is penitence. He is so mature that he even understands and justifies the grievances Sanyal had in his heart. When Sanyal prefers the medal, without second thoughts he restores it to Sanyal whole-heartedly.
“Change is universal.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Narrate the fable of ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ in your own words.
Answer:
The silly young cricket was fun-loving. He used to sing all through the pleasant sunny months of summer and spring. He was short-sighted. He didn’t bother to store food for the rainy season and cold winter. When the earth was covered with ice and snow, he found that he had nothing to eat and his cupboard was empty. There were no flowers nor leaves on the trees. He grew nervous. Starvation could be seen over his face. Wet with the rain and shivering with cold, the hungry cricket went to an ant to get shelter and food.

He made it clear that he would return the borrowed grain the next day. With humility, the miserly ant said that he was surely the servant and friend of the cricket. But as a matter of principle, the ants neither borrow nor lend. He asked why he never bothered to store something for the rainy day. The cricket admitted that he had been careless and foolish. He enjoyed the beauties of summer and sang merrily. The ant then told him bluntly to go and dance all winter and turned the poor cricket out.
‘Prudence is foresight and farsightedness. ’

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 34.
The poem ‘No men are foreign’ has a greater relevance in today’s world. Elucidate.
Answer:
The poet, James Kirkup, quotes various instances to prove that no men are foreign. The very title of the poem is thought-provoking and forces the reader to think about the issue of people living in other countries as foreigners and strangers. As the poem advances, the poet recurrently emphasises that all human beings are indistinguishable in their nature and tactics. All live on the same earth; enjoy air, sun and water; love peace and are opposed to war.

They all have mutual experiences and toil in a similar manner to earn the living. The realistic reasoning put forth by the poet and the numerous reminders fully satisfy the reader that no men are foreign. He gets the message that alienation from fellow brethren is equally damaging to himself. He also understands that by treating other men as foreign, the world stands exposed to the risk of war which can lead to permanent destruction and pollution of mother earth. It is true that many people have been telling us to live harmoniously since long. We never follow their message.

We also know that our greed to get more wealth and power cannot give us peaceful life. But some deep-rooted evils in our society make us draw a distinction between people. We know that all customs and conventions have been made by people. We start to hate even our family members due to our ego to be more powerful. By doing so, we at last harm ourselves. In society, people dislike selfish people. So before going to hurt other’s feeling, first of all we should think whether doing such act with others are justified by other people or society.
‘Smile at strangers and you just might change a life. ’

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“Let me but live my life from year to year,
With forward face and unreluctant soul;
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal; – Not mourning for the things that disappear ”
(i) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
(ii) What is the figure of speech used in the second line?
(iii) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(iv) Give an example of the usage of couplet in the above stanza.
Answer:
(i) ‘Let, live, life’ are the alliterated words in the first line.
(ii) The figure of speech is alliteration, (e.g. forward face)
(iii) Year and disappear; soul and goal are the rhyming words.
(iv) With forward face and unreluctant soul;
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal;

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!
Answer:
Here it is clearly stated that the only requirement for the machine is water, coal and oil. The moving parts may have a clearance of a thousandth of an inch which may be the permissible variation from the required dimensions. These parts are closely arranged with bolts and nuts leaving only less than an inch for the movement of wheels. With such a setup, the machines are willing to work round the clock, non-stop without any rest.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Peter’s mother asked Peter to go across the dike and take cakes to his friend.
(ii) The little boy was glad to go on such an errand, and started off with a light heart.
(iii) Holland is a country where much of the land lies below sea level.
(iv) Even the little children know the dikes must be watched every moment.
(v) Peter’s father opened and closed the sluices for ships to pass out of Holland’s canals into the great sea.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (iv), (v), (i), (ii)
(iii) Holland is a country where much of the land lies below sea level.
(iv) Even the little children know the dikes must be watched every moment.
(v) Peter’s father opened and closed the sluices for ships to pass out of Holland’s canals into the
great sea.
(i) Peter’s mother asked Peter to go across the dike and take cakes to his friend.
(ii) The little boy was glad to go on such an errand, and started off with a light heart.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
The next room, a broad gallery about a quarter of a mile long, was devoted to publicity, and it well may be imagined what the publicity for such a journal as the Earth Herald had to be. It brought in a daily average of three million dollars. They are gigantic signs reflected on the clouds, so large that they can be seen all over a whole country.

From that gallery a thousand projectors were unceasingly employed in sending to the clouds, on which they were reproduced in colour, these inordinate advertisements. At that moment the clock struck twelve. The director of the Earth Herald left the hall and sat down in a rolling armchair. In a few minutes he had reached his dining room half a mile away, at the far end of the office. The table was laid and he took his place at it.

Within reach of his hand was placed a series of taps and before him was the curved surface of a phonotelephote, on which appeared the dining room of his home in Paris. Mr and Mrs Bennett had arranged to have lunch at the same time – nothing could be more pleasant than to be face to face in spite of the distance, to see one another and talk by means of the phonotelephotic apparatus.
Questions
(i) Where was the broad gallery?
(ii) What happened in the broad gallery?
(iii) What was the income of the Earth Herald every day?
(iv) Why did the director sit on the roiling armchair?
(v) State the use of the phonoteleohote.
Answer:
(i) The broad gallery was in Earth Herald, the world’s largest newspaper.
(ii) The broad gallery was devoted to publicity. From that gallery a thousand projectors were unceasingly employed in sending to the clouds, on which they were reproduced in colour, inordinate advertisements.
(iii) The income of Earth Herald was an average of three million dollars every day.
(iv) He sat down in a rolling armchair to reach his dining room which was half a mile away, at the far end of the office.
(v) One can see each other and talk by means of the phonotelephotic apparatus.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Branded water purifier – Introductory offer only Rs. 8,500/-. Best virus remover
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1.2

Question 40.
You are S. Sundaram. Write a letter to the Commissioner of Chennai Corporation, complaining about the poor sanitary conditions and mosquito menace in your locality.
Answer:
S. Sundaram
34, Periyar Road
Chennai-46
19 September, 20XX
The Commissioner
Chennai Municipal Corporation
Chennai
Sir,
Sub: Poor sanitary conditions and mosquito menace in Periyar Road I want to draw your kind attention towards the poor sanitary conditions prevailing in our locality – Periyar Road. It seems that the cleaners have forgotten the existence of this locality on the civic map of Chennai. Heaps of rubbish are lying here and there, with flies swarming around and pigs wallowing in the filth and mud caused by the overflow of dirty water from the drains on to the road. The drains are choked as they are neither cleaned nor flushed.

The dirty water collects on the road forming cesspools of filthy water. There are also many pits on the roads which are full of drain water. All these serve as breeding places for mosquitoes. The mosquito menace is so intense in our locality that we have to use anti mosquito sprays, mats and repellants have undisturbed sleep for a couple of hours. You are requested to pay
a surprise visit to the locality and judge the state yourself. Kindly take some immediate and effective steps to improve the sanitation and rid us of the menace of mosquitoes.

Hoping for a favourable action.
Yours faithfully
S. Sundaram

Address on the envelope
To
The Commissioner
Chennai Municipal Corporation
Chennai

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 41.
You are Juliet / Gideon, Gymkhana Club of Coimbatore. Draft a notice to be sent to the members asking them to attend the extraordinary meeting of the Governing Body (Insert the necessary details).
Answer:

Gymkhana Club, Coimbatore
10 March 20XX
NOTICE

Members are requested to make it convenient to attend an extraordinary meeting of the Governing Body to discuss amendments in guest charges and
monthly subscriptions.
Date : 20th March 20XX Time : 7 p.m.
Place : Gymkhana Club Complex, Coimbatore
Governing Body members are requested to stay for dinner.

Prabhat/Parvi
Secretary

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1.3
Answer:
Circus
In the world of public entertainment, circus occupies a prominent place. We feel thrilled to watch the antics of the lion, bear and elephants who dance to their ring master’s tunes. Animals were born free, but man has tamed them and uses them for his own benefit. The tricks and feats of these animals provide a sheer contrast to the adventurous feats of performing artistes. The children express their joy with clapping while the grown-ups just marvel at the daredevilry of the ringmasters.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
The greatness of a country depends upon its people. India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. From the ancient period Indians excelled in art, architecture, knowledge of metals, medicines, literature etc., After our independence in 1947, the Government took steps to improve our country in all sphere. By the first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods. By the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country.

The first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods. By the green revolution we attained self sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. The present age is the atomic age. India too established an Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. India made the first successful nuclear explosion on 18th Mary, 1974 which made India the sixth member of the world nuclear club.

No other country’s scientists helped; it was purely Indian efforts. We have sent our Indian cosmonaut to space also. On April 3,1984 Shri Rakesh Sharma, the best pilot of Indian Air Forse, travelled into space with two Soviet spacemen in Soyuz II spaceship.

Notes
Title: Greatness of India
1. (a) Greatness of the country – people
(b) our country men are second to none
(c) From the ancient people Indians excelled in arts and crafts
(d) After Independence Government took steps to improve in all spheres
(e) The first five year plan was designed
(f) Green revolution attained self sufficiency

2. (a) The present age is the atomic age
(b) India made the first nuclear explosion
(c) India sent cosmonauts to space

Summary

Title: Greatness of India
Rough Draft
India fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc After Independence, by the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country green revolution we attained self sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. Present age is the atomic age. An Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Babha. Due to the successful clear explosion in 1974, India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. It was purely Indian effort we have sent Rakesh Sharma to space in Soyuz II.

Fair Draft:

India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc., After Independence by the green revolution we attained self sufficiency in agricultural production. Present age is the atomic age. Due to the successful nuclear explosion in 1974, India is the sixth member of the world nuclear club.
No. of words in the Fair Draft: 55

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) A group of twelve students are travelling together from Mumbai to Kanyakumari by the last week of September.
(b) One of his sons are a doctor by profession in the United States of America for nearly ten years.
(c) The decoration of the new house, including the furniture are most pleasing.
(d) Though senior in age, his father is junior than my father in service.
(e) He is going everyday for a morning walk with his friends and neighbours.
Answer:
(a) A group of twelve students are travelling together from Mumbai to Kanyakumari in the last week of September.
(b) One of his sons is a doctor by profession in the United States of America for nearly ten years.
(c) The decoration of the new house, including the furniture is most pleasing.
(d) Though senior in age, his father is junior to my father in service.
(e) He goes everyday for a morning walk with his friends and neighbours.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Remember, no …………… and water.
Answer:
Remember, no men are strange, no countries foreign
Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes
Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon
Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.
They, too, aware of sun and air and water,

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(a) Love of a son for his mother – opposition to the law – tyrant – elderly people inefficient – importance of aged people – decree. Foothills – proclamation – cruel decree – killing aged people wasn’t common – poor farmer distressed.
Answer:
“The Aged Mother” by Matsuo Basho is a Japanese folklore about the love of a son for his mother and the mother’s love in return for her son. They encountered this agony as an opposition to the law of placing aged people to death. The tyrant stated the law of killing the elderly people because he was a warrior himself who felt that only the young men and women who were robust were useful to the country. According to the warrior, elderly people were inefficient and couldn’t be obliging to individuals who were however healthy as him.

To such a despotic leader, the importance of aged people was insignificant. Hence, he pronounced it as a decree. When the poor farmer and his aged mother who lived in a poor hut of the foothills in the country of Shining heard the proclamation by the despotic leader who announced the cruel decree of killing elderly people in that place, their heart was distressed. During this period, killing aged people wasn’t common. Therefore, when the poor farmer came to know of the decree he bore sadness in his heart. He was extremely concerned and was in deep thoughts to make an escape.

[OR]

(b) Narrate the story of Zigzag by developing the following hints.
Dr. Ashok T Krishnan’s family – shelter Somu’s new pet – talks twenty-one languages – genuine African witch doctor’s gift – to Mrs Krishnan a nuisance – children Arvind, Maya – the unique gifts – ZigZag, a disappointment – steadfast sleep – chandelier and fan blades – maid Lakshmi – unfinished masterpiece -e-mail – seventh day – reply – Zig Zag’s snore take a turn – at the clinic.
Answer:
Dr. Ashok T Krishnan’s family shelters Somu’s new pet, Zig-Zag, a queer-looking African bird, who is known for talking and singing in twenty-one different languages. They consider Zigzag to be a harmless, unusual and lovable bird bred by a genuine African witch doctor, who gifted it to Somu when he toured the deepest jungles of Africa. To Somu, the bird is an absolute treasure and a real help. Mrs. Krishnan considers it a nuisance.

Their son Arvind and daughter Maya are keen on having the pet. They both discuss the unique gifts given by Uncle Somu viz insect-eating plant, tiny shark teeth penknife and the aboriginal boomerang. ZigZag turns out to be a disappointment for the Krishnan family. Zigzag does nothing but sleep and snore to annoy all around. All attempts to awaken the bird goes in vain. The bird at first before resorting to a steadfast sleep eats the nuts and fruits, keeps them safe in the chandelier and the fan blades.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

The maid Lakshmi shrieks in an excited manner thinking she is blessed with papayas and bananas raining inside the room. Mrs. Krishnan is annoyed at the slice of overripe papaya whizzing off the fan and splattering all over her unfinished masterpiece – Sunset at Marina spreading streaks of gooey orange pulp and shiny black seeds all over it. Dr. Krishnan leaves an e-mail message for Somu, asking him for clear instructions on how to stop Zigzag from snoring. On the seventh day, they receive the reply that he never sleeps nor snores. Mrs. Krishnan wants it to be sent to Visu as her friends and experts will come home and choose her paintings for the exhibition. Krishnan takes ZigZag in the car and hopes to find Visu so that ZigZag’s snore doesn’t add to the din of the sobs and shrieks produced by the tiny patients waiting for him.

However, Ziggy-Zagga, King-of-the-Tonga, was not familiar to being kept waiting, makes his way to the clinic where he perches himself on the nurse’s reception table. Suddenly things take a turn when ZigZag starts speaking. It’s Zigzag’s voice, clear and commanding. Gone was Zigzag’s bored and grumpy expression. Instead, the bird looked happy and alert as it went about the job it had been trained for, first with the African witch doctor and then with Dr. Somu.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
Rambutan is a close cousin of the litchi fruit, but not as well known. It is a member of the Sapindaceae family and resembles the litchi, except for its long, flesh coloured spines. Rambutan (Napheluim lappaceum) is an ever green tropical tree which reaches a height of 50 to 80 feet and has a straight trunk, with a dense spreading crown. There are both male and female trees and only female trees bear fruit. It grows best in deep, clay loam or sandy loam rich in organic matter.

Rambutan is usually propagated by seeds. The seeds taken from the fruit, may be planted horizontally with the flattened side downward so that the seeding grows straight and has a strong root system. While harvesting the entire fruit cluster must be cut from the branch. The fruit must be kept dry and well ventilated to prevent them from getting spoilt. The peeled fruits are occasionally stewed as dessert.

Questions.
(a) Which fruit does the Rambutan look like?
(b) What is the botanical name for Rambutan?
(c) What kind of soil is ideal for Rambutan?
(d) Why should the seed be planted horizontally?
Answer:
(a) Rambutan looks like the litchi but for the long, flesh coloured spines.
(b) The botanical name for Rambutan is Napheluim lappaceum.
(c) Rambutan grows best in deep, clay loam or sandy loam rich in organic matter.
(d) The seed should be planted horizontally with the flattened side downward so that the seeding grows straight and has a strong root system.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
All are over: does truth sound bitter As one at first believes?
Mark, ‘tis the sparrow’s good night twitter About our cottage eaves?
And the leaf-buds on the vine are woolly,
I noticed that, today;
One day more bursts them open fully You know the red turns grey.
Tomorrow we meet the same then, dearest?
May I take your hand in mine?
Mere friends are we — well, friends the merest Keep much that I resign:
For each glance of the eye so bright and black,
Though I keep with heart’s endeavour, —
Your voice, when you wish the snowdrops back,
Though it stays in my soul forever!
Yet I will but say what mere friends say,
Or only a thought stronger.
I will hold your hand but as long as all may,
Or so very little longer.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

Questions.
(a) What is meant by the words, ‘All are over’?
(b) What did the poet note?
(c) What is the deep-rooted desire of the poet?
(d) What are the two things praised in the poem?
Answer:
(a) ‘All are over’ means that the love affair between the lover and his mistress has come to an end.
(b) The poet noted the sparrow’s good night twitter in the cottage roof-space and the leaf- buds on the vine which had gone woolly.
(c) The deep-rooted desire of the poet is to win back his lost beloved.
(d) The eyes and voice are the two things praised in this poem.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2

Question 1.
Evaluate the following if z = 5 – 2i and w = -1 + 3i
(i) z + w
Solution:
z = 5 – 2i, w = -1 + 3i
z + w = (5 – 2i) + (-1 + 3i)
= (5 – 1) + (-2i + 3i)
= 4 + i

(ii) z – iw
Solution:
z – iw = (5 – 2i) – i (-1 + 3i)
= 5 – 2i + i + 3
= (5 + 3) + (-2i + i)
= 8 – i

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2

(iii) 2z + 3w
Solution:
2z + 3w = 2(5 – 2i) + 3 (-1 +3i)
= 10 – 4i – 3 + 9i
= 7 + 5 i

(iv) zw
Solution:
zw = (5 – 2i) (-1 + 3i)
= -5 + 15i + 2i – 6i2
= -5 + 17i + 6
= 1 + 17i

(v) z² + 2zw + w²
Solution:
= (z + w)2 [from (i)]
= (4 + i)2
= 16 – 1 + 8i
= 15 + 8i

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2

(vi) (z + w)²
Solution:
(vi) (z + w)2 = 15 + 8z [from (v)]

Question 2.
Given the complex number z = 2 + 3i, represent the complex numbers in the Argand diagram.
(i) z = 2 + 3i
iz = i(2 + 3i)
= (2i – 3)
= -3 + 2i
z + iz = (2 + 3i) + (-3 + 2i)
= -1 + 5i
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2 1

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2

(ii) z, – iz and z – iz
z = 2 + 3i
-iz = -i (2 + 3i)
= -2i – 3i² = -2i + 3
= 3 – 2i
z- iz= 2 + 3i -3 + 2i
= 5 + i
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2 2

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2

Question 3.
Find the values of the real numbers x and y. if the complex numbers
(3 – i)x – (2 – i) y + 2i + 5 and 2x + (-1 + 2i)y + 3 + 2i are equal.
Solution:
(3 – i) x – (2 – i) y + 2i + 5 = 2x + (-1 + 2i) y + 3 + 2i
⇒ 3x – ix – 2y + iy + 2i + 5 = 2x – y + 2yi + 3 + 2i
⇒ (3x – 2y + 5) + 1 (-x + y + 2) = (2x – y + 3) + i (2y + 2)
Equate real parts on both sides
3x – 2y + 5 = 2x – y + 3
x – y = -2 ……. (1)
Equate imaginary parts on both sides
-x + y + 2 = 2y + 2
-x – y = 0
x + y = 0 ……. (2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2x = -2
x = -1
Substituting x = -1 in (2)
-1 + y = 0
⇒ y = 1
∴ x = -1, y = 1

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Choose the Most Suitable Answer.

Question 1.
If |adj(adj A) |=| A|9, then the order of the square matrix A is:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Solution:
(b) 4
Hint:
Since |adj(adj A)| = |A|(n – 1)2
(n – 1)2 = 9 = 3²
n – 1 = 3
n = 4

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 2.
If A is a 3 × 3 non-singular matrix such that AAT = AT A and B = A-1AT, then BBT =
(a) A
(b) B
(C) I3
(d) BT
Solution:
(C) I
Hint:
AAT = ATA and B = A-1AT
BT = (A-1)T(AT)T = (A-1)T A
BB-1 = (A-1 AT) (A-1)T A = A-1 (AA-1)T A
= A-1 (I)T A = A-1 A = I3

Question 3.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 3 & 5 \\ 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\) B = adj A and C = 3A, then \(\frac{|adj B|}{|C|}\) =
(a) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(d) 1
Solution:
(a) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 1

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 4.
If A \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & -2 \\ 1 & 4 \end{bmatrix}\) = \(\begin{bmatrix} 6 & 0 \\ 0 & 6 \end{bmatrix}\), then A:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 2
Solution:
(c) \(\begin{bmatrix} 4 & 2 \\ -1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\)
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 3
Solve the equations we get
a = 4, b = 2, c = -1, d = 1
A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 4 & 2 \\ -1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\)

Question 5.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 7 & 3 \\ 4 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\) then 9I2 – A =
(a) A-1
(b) \(\frac{A^{-1}}{2}\)
(c) 3A-1
(d) 2A-1
Solution:
(d) 2A-1
Hint:
|A| = 14 – 12 = 2
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 4

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 6.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 0 \\ 1 & 5 \end{bmatrix}\) and B = \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 4 \\ 2 & 0 \end{bmatrix}\) then |adj (AB)| =
(a) -40
(b) -80
(c) -60
(d) -20
Solution:
(b) -80
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 5
∴ |adj (AB)| = 8 – 88 = -80

Question 7.
If P = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & x & 0 \\ 1 & 3 & 0 \\ 2 & 4 & -2 \end{matrix} \right] \) is the adjoint of 3 × 3 matrix A and |A| = 4, then x is
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 11
Solution:
(d) 11
Hint:
Since |adj A| = |A|n – 1 (n = 3)
1(-6 + 0) – x(-2) = 4²
-6 + 2x = 16
2x = 16 + 6 = 22
x = 11

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 8.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 6
(a) 0
(b) -2
(c) -3
(d) -1
Solution:
(d) -1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 7

Question 9.
If A, B and C are invertible matrices of some order, then which one of the following is not true?
(a) adj A = |A|A-1
(b) adj (AB) = (adj A)(adj B)
(c) det A-1 = (det A)-1
(d) (ABC)-1 = C-1B-1A-1
Solution:
(b) adj (AB) = (adj A)(adj B)
Hint:
adj (AB) ≠ (adj A)(adj B)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 10.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 8
Solution:
(a) \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & -5 \\ -3 & 8 \end{bmatrix}\)
Hint:
(AB)-1 = B-1 A-1
(AB)-1 A = B-1 [A-1]A
(AB)-1 A = B-1
(A-1)-1 = A
|A-1| = 3 – 2 = 1
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 9

Question 11.
If ATA-1 is symmetric, then A² =
(a) A-1
(b) (AT
(c) AT
(d) (A-1
Solution:
(b) (AT
Hint:
(AT A-1)T = AT A-1
(A-1)T (AT)T = AT A-1
(A-1)T A = AT A-1
AT (A-1)T AA = (AT) AT A-1 A
(pre and post multiply by AT and A)
A2 = (AT

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 12.
If A is a non-singular matrix such that A-1 = \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & 3 \\ -2 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\), then (AT)-1 =
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 10
Solution:
(d) \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & -2 \\ 3 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\)
Hint:
A-1 = \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & 3 \\ -2 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\)
Since (AT)-1 = (A-1)T = \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & -2 \\ 3 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\)

Question 13.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 11
(a) \(\frac{-4}{5}\)
(b) \(\frac{-3}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
(d) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Solution:
(a) \(\frac{-4}{5}\)
Hint:
Since AT = A-1
AAT =  I
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 12

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 14.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 13
(a) (cos² \(\frac{θ}{2}\))A
(b) (cos² \(\frac{θ}{2}\))AT
(c) (cos²θ)I
(d) (sin² \(\frac{θ}{2}\))A
Solution:
(b) (cos² \(\frac{θ}{2}\))AT
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 14

Question 15.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 15
(a) 0
(b) sin θ
(c) cos θ
(d) 1
Solution:
(d) 1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 16
cos² θ + sin² θ = k
Hence k = 1

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 16.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 3 \\ 5 & -2 \end{bmatrix}\) be such that λA-1 = A, then λ is:
(a) 17
(b) 14
(c) 19
(d) 21
Solution:
(c) 19
Hint:
λA-1 = A
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 17
⇒ λ = 19

Question 17.
If adj A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 3 \\ 4 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\) and adj B = \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & -2 \\ -3 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\) then adj (AB) is:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 18
Solution:
(b) \(\begin{bmatrix} -6 & 5 \\ -2 & -10 \end{bmatrix}\)
Hint:
adj (AB) = (adj B) (adj A)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 19

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 18.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 20
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 4
Solution:
(a) 1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 21
∴ Number of non zero row = 1
ρ(A) = 1

Question 19.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 22
(a) \(e^{(Δ_{2}/Δ_{1})}\), \(e^{(Δ_{3}/Δ_{1})}\)
(b) log(Δ13), log(Δ23)
(c) log(Δ21), log(Δ31)
(d) \(e^{(Δ_{1}/Δ_{3})}\), \(e^{(Δ_{2}/Δ_{3})}\)
Solution:
(d) \(e^{(Δ_{1}/Δ_{3})}\), \(e^{(Δ_{2}/Δ_{3})}\)
Hint:
xayb = em
a log x + b log y = m
xcyd = en
c log x + d log y = n
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 23

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 20.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Adjoint of a symmetric matrix is also a symmetric matrix.
(ii) Adjoint of a diagonal matrix is also a diagonal matrix.
(iii) If A is a square matrix of order n and λ is a scalar, then adj(λA) = λn adj (A).
(iv) A(adj A) = (adj A)A = |A|I
(a) Only (i)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Solution:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 21.
If ρ(A) ρ([A | B]), then the system AX = B of linear equations is:
(a) consistent and has a unique solution
(b) consistent
(c) consistent and has infinitely many solutions
(d) inconsistent
Solution:
(b) consistent
Hint:
If ρ(A) = ρ[A|B] = no. of unknowns
We say consistent an unique solutions
Hence ρ(A) = ρ[A|B] ← given

Question 22.
If 0 ≤ θ ≤ π and the system of equations x + (sin θ)y – (cos θ)z = 0, (cos θ) x – y + z = 0, (sin θ) x + y + z = 0 has a non-trivial solution then θ is:
(a) \(\frac{2π}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{3π}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac{5π}{6}\)
(d) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
Solution:
(d) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
Hint:
If AX = 0 has non  trivial solution if |A| = 0
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 24
⇒ 1(1 – 1) – sinθ (-cosθ – sinθ) – cosθ (cosθ + sinθ) = 0
⇒ + sinθ cosθ + sin²θ – cos²θ – sinθ cosθ = 0
⇒ sin²θ – cos²θ = 0
⇒ sinθ = cosθ
θ =\(\frac{π}{4}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 23.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 25
(a) λ = 7, µ ≠ -5
(b) λ = -7, µ = 5
(c) λ ≠ 7, µ ≠ -5
(d) λ = 7, µ = -5
Solution:
(d) λ = 7, µ = -5
Hint:
ρ(A) = ρ[A | B] = 2
λ – 7 = 0 and µ + 5 = 0
λ = 7, µ = -5

Question 24.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 26
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 1
Solution:
(b) 4
Hint:
B = A-1
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 27

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Question 25.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 28
Solution:
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -3 & 4 \\
2 & -3 & 4 \\
0 & -1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
Hint:
adj (adj A) = |A|n-2 A = |A|² A
|A|= 3(-3 + 4) + 3(2) + 4 (-2)
= 3 + 6 – 8
= 1
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 29