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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 4 The World after World War II

November 2, 2023

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 4 The World after World War II Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 4 The World after World War II

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World after World War II Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek

Question 2.
Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Truman
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Franklin Roosevelt
Answer:
(b) Truman

Question 3.
When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959
(b) September 1948
(c) September 1954
(d) September 1949
Answer:
(d) September 1949

Question 4.
The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet aggression in Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(b) NATO

Question 5.
Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) Hafez al-Assad
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser
(d) Saddam Hussein
Answer:
(b) Yasser Arafat

Question 6.
When was North and South Vietnam united?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 7.
Where was Arab League formed?
(a) Cairo
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Syria
Answer:
(a) Cairo

Question 8.
When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
(a) 1979
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

II. Fill in the blanks

………………. was known as the “Father of modern China”.
in 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in ………………. University.
After the death of Dr. Sun Yat-Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was ……………….
……………….. treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.
The treaty of ………………. provided for mandates in Turkish -Arab Empire.
Germany joined the NATO in ……………….
………………. was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
………………. treaty signed on February 7,1992 created the European Union.

Answers:

Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
Peking
Chiang-Kai-Sheik
Central Treaty organisation
Versailles
1955
Strasbourg
Maastricht

III. Choose the correct statement / statements

Question 1.
(i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated
minority, initiated a series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
(ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
(iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
(iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left wing government in the countries of Eastern Europe that had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
(ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
(iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from gaining ground in the region.
(iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the USSR.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war¬. ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe under its influence.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A)and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (i)

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write any three causes for the Chinese Revolution of 1911.
Answer:
Three causes of the Chinese Revolution of 1911 are

The government of Manchu dynasty began to disintegrate with the death of the Empress Dowager Cixi in 1908. The new emperor was two-years old and the provincial governors began to assert their independence. In October 1911 the local army mutinied and the revolt spread.
There were a few middle class leaders. Dr. Sun Yat-sen was one among them. He took part in the rising against the Manchus in 1895. The rising failed and Sun Yat-Sen was sent in the prison. But he continued to spread nationalist ideas.
Yuan Shih-Kai, who had earlier served as a minister in the Manchu administration, persuaded those responsible for the ascension of the young Emperor to prevant on him to abdicate.

Question 2.
Explain how in 1928 Kuomintang and Chiang-Kai Shek established Central Government in China.
Answer:
Chiang Kai-shek started conquering China. Starting from Canton, in 1928, he captured Peking and also removed all communists in the Kuomintang party. Thus, he established Central government in China.

Question 3.
Write a note on Mao’s Long March.
Answer:
Mao was an active leader who had gained full control of the Chinese Communist Party, by 1933. In 1934, he organised communist army of about 100,000 and set out on a long March. The marchers were continually harassed by Kuominatang forces, by local war lords and by unfriendly tribesmen of the 100,000 who set out, only 20,000 finally arrived in northern Shemi in late 1935, after crossing nearly 6000 miles. They were soon poined by other communist armies. By 1937, Mao had become the leader of over 10 million people. Mao’s Long March, as it is called so, has become legendary in the history of China.

Question 4.
What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
Answer:
In 1955, Turkey, Iraq, Great Britain, Iran and Pakistan signed a pact known as Baghdad pact. In 1958, when United States joined, then it was called as Central Treaty organization. The treaty was open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in their region. It was dissolved in 1979.

Question 5.
What was the Marshall Plan?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was an American initiative passed in 1948 to and Western Europe, in which the United States gave over $12 Billion in economic assistance to help rebuild Western European economies after the end of World War II. It operated for four years beginning in April 1948. The goals of the United States were to rebuild war-tom regions, modernise industry and improve European prosperity.

Question 6.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests-Elaborate.
Answer:
In 1956, Egypt invaded Suez Canal under Colonel Nasser and nationalized it. With the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force. They bombed Egyptian air fields as well as Suez Canal area. However, United States and United Nations pressure, all the three invaders withdrew from Suez Canal.

Question 7.
Write a note on Third World Countries.
Answer:
The capitalist countries led by the US were politically designated as the First Worlds, while the communist states led by the Soviet Union came to be known as the Second World states, outside these two were called third World. During the Cold War, third World consisted of the developing world the former colonies of Africa, Asia, and Latin America. With the break up of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalisation, the term Third World has lost its relevance.

Question 8.
How was the Cuban missile crisis defused?
Answer:
In April 1961, on the island of Bay of Pigs, U.S bombed Cuban airfields and surrounded Cuba, with their warships. At the same time, USSR was secretly installing nuclear missiles in Cuba. Finally when Soviet President Khrushchev agreed to withdraw the missiles, the Cuban missile-crisis defused.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Cold War

(a) Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
Answer:
United States and the Soviet Union were the two military blocs that emerged in the post World War-II.

(b) Who coined the term “Cold War” and who used it first?
Answer:
The term Cold war was first coined by the English writer George Orwell in 1945 and it was used for the first time by Bernard Baruch, a multimillionaire from USA.

(c) What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw Pact was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO.

(d) What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?
Answer:
With the Break-up of USSR in 1991, the Warsaw Pact was dissolved.

Question 2.
Korean War

(a) Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
Answer:
Kim II was the President of North Korea during the Korean War.

(b) Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
Answer:
Syngman Rhee

(d) What was the human cost of the War?
Answer:
The human cost was enormous, there were 500,000 western casualties and three times that number on the other side. Approximately two million Korean civilian died.

Question 3.
Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)

(a) When and where was the first conference on Non-Aligned Movement held?
Answer:
At Belgrade, in 1961, the first conference on NAM was held.

(b) Who were the prominent personalities present in the first conference?
Answer:
The prominent personalities present in the first conference were Tito (Yugoslavia), Nasser (Egypt), Nehru (India), Nikrumah (Ghana), Sukrano (Indonesia),.

(d) List out any two basic principles of Non-Alignment Movement enunciated in the Belgrade Conference.
Answer:

Non-Alignment with any of the two super powers (USA/USSR).
Fight all forms of colonialism and Imperialism.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Estimate the role of Mao Tse tung in making China a communist country.
Answer:

Mao was greatly influenced by the ideas of Max and Lenin. He wanted to make China a communist country. So, he became active in the political activities of Hunan from the year 1912.
After the death of Sun Yat-Sen in 1925, The Kuomintang was organised under the leadership of Chang Kai-Shek. Being an avowed critic of communists, Chiang removed all the important position holders in the Communist Party including Mao Tse Tung to weaken the party. However, the communists continued to influence the workers and peasants the Kuomintang represented the interests of landlords and capitalists.
Mao had understood that the Kuomintang grip on the towns was too strong. So, he started organising the peasantry. When the relationships between Kuomintang and Communist Party broke, a few hundred Communist-led by Mao retreated into the wild mountains on the border between the provinces of Kiangsi and Hunan. The Kuomintang could not penetrate the mountains.
Meanwhile, the campaign against the communists got distracted as Chiang Kai-Shek had to deal with the constant threat from Japan.
By 1933 Mao had gained full control of the Chinese Communist Party. In 1934, he set out on a long march with the help of about 100,000 communist army. He also got support of other communist armies.
By 1937, Mao had become the leader of over 10 million people. He organised workers and peasants councils in villages of Shensi and Kansu and finally got success in making China a communist country.

Question 2.
Attempt an essay on the Arab-lsraeii wars of 1967 and 1973.
Answer:

Before the creation of the State of Israel in 1948, all Arabs and their . descendants lived in the Palestine.
Ever since the formation, the Palestinian Liberation organisation (PLO). Israel came to be attacked by the Palestinian Guerrilla groups based in Syria, Lebanon and Jordan.
Israel resorted to violent military force .
In November 1966, an Israeli strike on the village of Al-Samu in the west bank of Jordan killed 18 people and wounded 54 people.
Israel’s air battle with Syria in April 1967 ended in the shooting down of six Syrian MIG fighter jets.
After air battle with Syria, when Arab States were mobilized by Nasser on June 5th Israel staged a sudden air strike that destroyed more than, 90% of Egypt’s air force on the tarmac.
Later, Egypt and Syria under Presidents Anwar Sadat and Hafez-al- Assad respectively concluded a secret agreement in January 1973 to bring their armies under one command.
When peace deals did not work out with Israel, Egypt and Syria launched a sudden and surprise attack on the Yom Kippur religious holiday on 6^th October 1973.
Though Israel suffered heavy casualities, it finally pushed back the Arab forces.
Due to U.N intervention, Israel was forced to return and Arabs gained nothing.
U.S succeeded in showing their control on their region and oil resource, led to U. S led war against Iraq in 1991.

Question 3.
Narrate the history of transformation of Council of Europe into an European Union.
Answer:
(i) After World War II, it was decided to integrate the states of western Europe. One of the chief objectives was to prevent further European wars by ending the rivalry between France and Germany. In May 1949, ten countries met in London and signed a form called Council of Europe

(ii) Since the Council of Europe had no real power, a proposal to set up two European organisations were made. Accordingly, the European Defence Community (EDC) and the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) were established. Six countries belonging to ECSC signed the treaty of Rome which established the European Economic Community (EEC) or the European Common Market, with headquarters at Brussels.

(iii) The EEC facilitated the elimination of barriers to the movement of goods and services, capital, and labour. It also prohibited public policies or private agreements that restricted market comptetion. Throughout the 1970s and 80s the EEC kept expanding its membership.

(iv) The single European Act came into force on July 1, 1987. It significantly expanded the EEC’s scope giving the meetings of the EPC a legal basis. It also called for more intensive coordination of foreign policy among member countries. According to the SEA each member was given multiple votes, depending on the countries population.

(v) The Maastricht (Netherlands) Treaty signed on February 7, 1992, created the European Union (EU). Today the European Union has 28 member states, and is functioning from its headquarters at Brussels, Belgium.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Divide the class into two groups. Let one group act as supporters of USA and the other group act as supporters of Soviet Union, Organise a debate.
Answer:
One group of students act as the supports of USA and the other group act as supporters of Soviet Union on their role in the cold war era.
(Students can have debate based on the following aspects)

During the time of cold war, the two super powers that emerged was USA and USSR.

Strengths of USA:

Strongest navy both the Pacific and Atlantic.
Continued and strong economic position that the USA held in the beginning till the end.
Foreign policy of the USA. The actions of USA during the cold war era, very powerful and could guarantee others the strong power of the nation is to prevent communism spreading elsewhere.
The country was able to generate the vast amount of wealth necessary to sustain the investment in weapons, technology and other operations.
USA was also technologically powerful in target finding, tracking, sensors etc.
The Truman’s doctrine was used throughout the war time. The doctrine helped USA to negotiate with other states to adopt capitalism.

Strengths of USSR:

Strongest land based military, especially tanks.
USSR developed air defense equipment and networks.
Spread of Communism joined together backed USSR.
As against NATO, USSR also formed military block, the Warsaw pact.
With Western European countries USSR facilitated trade relations.
Highly strengthened space exploration.

In the end of cold war, the Soviet Union fell, and the Communism expired.

Question 2.
Involving the entire class, an album may be prepared with pictures relating to Korean, Arab-lsraeli and Vietnam Wars to highlight the human sufferings in terms of death and devastation.
Answer:
Students should go to the search engine in google and type “The War’s impact on the Korean peninsula and trace the article of the journal of America – East Asia Relations” for a detailed Report.

Korean War: To give a sample answer: According to a U.S. Department of state publication, the number of killed, wounded and missing from the Armed forces of the Republic of Korea exceeded 4,00.000. From the U.S. side, 1,42,000. In addition, the heavy toll in death and injuries to the civilian population as well as wide property damage.

Arab-Israel War: Students should trace the answer from the google search engine as: The U.N. Report on Israel’s Gaza War.

To give a sample answer: From the 183 page report of the U.N. report, it is very clear that many civilians died. More than 6,000 Israeli airstrikes, 14,500 tank shells and 35,000 artillery shells led to the destruction of about 18,000 dwellings in Gaza. Nearly 1,462 Palestinian civilians, 299 women and 551 children were killed (According to U.N. Investigation). In Israel six civilians and 67 soldiers were killed.

Vietnam War: Students should trace the answer in the google search engine as “The War’s effect on the Vietnamese Land and People” for a detailed report.

To give a sample answer: About 58,000 American soldiers were killed and another 3,04,000 were wounded. Since most of the fighting took place in Vietnam, an estimated 4 million Vietnamese were killed on both sides including as many as 1 -3 million civilians. Many Vietnamese in country side turned into homeless refuges. Many forms and forests were destroyed.

Along with the detailed report, students should collect pictures showing Korea, Arab-Israel and Vietnam War, highlighting human sufferings. Students should click to google search engine and go to → Images → then type Korean War pictures / Arab Israel War pictures / Vietnam War pictures, download it take a print out of its and paste it in a A4 sheet paper or an a chart paper neatly and create an album.

Timeline:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science The World after World War II Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The emergence of ……………. and ……………. as super powers resulted in the division of the World into two block after World War II.
(a) Japan, USA
(b) USA, USSR
(c) China, Japan
(d) USA, Germany
Answer:
(b) USA, USSR

Question 2.
Dr.Sun yat-sen was born in a poor family near ………
(a) Canton
(b) France
(c) Spain
Answer:
(a) Canton

Question 3
……………. was called the father of modern China.
(a) Chiang-Kai-Shek
(b) Yuan-Shi-Kai
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung
(d) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
Answer:
(d) Dr. Sun Yat-Sen

Question 4.
Mao was born in ……… in South – East China.
(a) Cambodia
(b) Vietnam
(c) Hunan
Answer:
(c) Hunan

Question 5.
Yuan-Shi-Kai died in the year …………….
(a) 1912
(b) 1913
(c) 1915
(d) 1916
Answer:
(d) 1916

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a part of Indo – China?
(a) Cambodia
(b) China
(c) Vietnam
Answer:
(b) China

Question 7.
The Historical Long March set out in China in …………….
(a) 1935
(b) 1937
(c) 1934
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1934

Question 8.
In which of the following was indentured Vietnamese labour widely used?
(a) Rice cultivation
(b) Rubber plantation
(c) Industry
Answer:
(b) Rubber plantation

Question 9.
……………. was the leader of the people’s Republic of China.
(a) Marshall
(b) Truman
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung
(d) Chiang-Kai-shek
Answer:
(c) Mao-Tse-Tung

Question 10.
Ho Chi Minh means ………
(a) He, Who enlightens
(b) Enlightenment
(c) The Enlightened one
Answer:
(a) He, Who enlightens

Question 11.
The Idea of European self-help programme financed by the United States was called as …………….
(a) NATO
(b) SEATO
(c) ECA
(d) Marshall plan
Answer:
(d) Marshall plan

Question 12.
EURATOM was established by the ………
(a) Treaty of Nanking
(b) Treaty of Rome
(c) Treaty of London
Answer:
(b) Treaty of Rome

Question 13.
The term ‘cold war’ was first coined by the English writer …………….
(a) Shakespeare
(b) George Orwell
(c) William Dexter
(d) Peter Alphonse
Answer:
(b) George Orwell

Question 14.
As a part of Marshall plan financing, European nations received nearly ……………. billion in aid.
(a) $ 12
(b) $ 11
(c) $ 15
(d) $ 13
Answer:
(d) $ 13

Question 15.
Greece and Turkey joined NATO in the year …………….
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1952
(d) 1955
Answer:
(c) 1952

Question 16.
……………. was otherwise called as pact.
(a) NATO
(b) CENTO
(c) SEATO
(d) EC SC
Answer:
(d) EC SC

Question 17
……………. are included as member countries in NATO.
(a) Canada, Belgium
(b) U.K., Portugal
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 18.
NATO had ……………. members by the year 2017.
(a) 30
(b) 51
(c) 29
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 29

Question 19.
In December 1954, a conference of eight European nations took place in Moscow. This was called as …………….
(a) Warsaw pact
(b) Counter to NATO
(c) SEATO
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
The headquarters of the Warsaw pact was …………….
(a) Belgium
(b) Poland
(c) Moscow
(d) Romania
Answer:
(c) Moscow

Question 21.
The Korea was partitioned into North and South Korea in the year …………….
(a) 1944
(b) 1945
(c) 1946
(d) 1947
Answer:
(b) 1945

Question 22.
With the collapse of the ……………. the idea of non-alignment lost relevance.
(a) Berlin
(b) CIA
(c) ECA
(d) Soviet Union
Answer:
(d) Soviet Union

Question 23.
The NAM held its first conference at ……………. in 1961.
(a) Bandung
(b) Belgrade
(c) Thailand
(d) Philippine
Answer:
(b) Belgrade

Question 24.
The World Zionist Organisation was founded in the year …………….
(a) 1857
(b) 1887
(c) 1897
(d) 1867
Answer:
(c) 1897

Question 25.
Castro nationalised the U.S. owned ……………. companies.
(a) cotton
(b) sugar
(c) oil
(d) petrol
Answer:
(b) sugar

Question 26.
The Cuban Missile crisis was defused by ……………. as the agreed to withdraw the missiles.
(a) Khrushchev
(b) Fidel Castro
(c) Leumi
(d) Stem Gang
Answer:
(a) Khrushchev

Question 27.
In the Arab World, it is treated as the ……………. when large number of Arabs become refugees.
(a) Catastrophe
(b) Nakbah
(c) Negev and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 28.
For resolving the Suez Canal Crisis, ……………. from Indian played a crucial role.
(a) Gandhi
(b) Nehru
(c) Bose
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(b) Nehru

Question 29.
Arab-lsrael war took place in the years …………….
(a) 1967,69
(b) 1969,74
(c) 1967,73
(d) 1972,73
Answer:
(c) 1967,73

Question 30.
……………. became the first president of the state of Palestine in 1989.
(a) Anwar Sadat
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser Arafat
(d) Nasser Hussain
Answer:
(b) Yasser Arafat

Question 31.
By the end of second world war, ……………. controlled the northern half of Vietnam.
(a) Vietminh
(b) Ho-Chi-Minh
(c) Ngo Dinh Diem
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Vietminh

Question 32.
……………. controlled the southern half of the Vietnam.
(a) Viet Minh
(b) Bao Dai
(c) Ngo Dinh Diam
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Bao Dai

Question 33.
The North and the South Vietnam were formally united as one country in …………….
(a) 1973
(b) 1976
(c) 1975
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 34.
In May 1949, ten countries met in ……………. and signed to form a council of Europe.
(a) Japan
(b) Syria
(c) London
(d) France
Answer:
(c) London

Question 35.
To prevent further European War ……………. was founded.
(a) Council of Europe
(b) Council of Trent
(c) ECSC
(d) EU
Answer:
(a) Council of Europe

Question 36.
……………. did not join the EEC, when it was formed.
(a) U.K
(b) U.S.A
(c) USSR
(d) Italy
Answer:
(a) U.K

Question 37.
Britain, voted to exit the EU in the year …………….
(a) 2015
(b) 2014
(c) 2017
(d) 2019
Answer:
(c) 2017

Question 38.
West Berlin was supported by …………….
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 39.
East Berlin was supported by …………….
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) Germany
Answer:
(c) USSR

Question 40.
Germany was officially united on …………….
(a) 1987
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 2003
Answer:
(c) 1990

Question 41.
in 1985, ……………. became the head of the USSR.
(a) Mikhai Gorbachev
(b) Reagen
(c) Stalin
(d) Kohl
Answer:
(a) Mikhai Gorbachev

Question 42.
The Chernobyl disaster took place in the year …………….
(a) 1987
(b) 1984
(c) 1986
(d) 2006
Answer:
(c) 1986

Question 43.
Gorbachev announced his resignation on …………….
(a) 21st November
(b) 25th December
(c) 2nd October
(d) 15th August
Answer:
(b) 25th December

Question 44.
USSR dissolved formally In the year …………….
(a) 31st Dec. 1990
(b) 30th Dec. 1991
(c) 31st Dec. 1991
(d) 28,h Feb. 1991
Answer:
(c) 31st Dec. 1991

Question 45.
……………. was an ally of Gorbachev.
(a) Yeltsin
(b) Brezhnev
(c) Khrushchev
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Yeltsin

II. Fill in the blanks

………………… and ………………… were the Superpowers after the World War II.
The cold war period ended with the fall of …………………
Empress Dowager died in ………………… led to the disintegration of the Manchu dynasty.
Kuomintang party of China was otherwise called as ………………… party.
………………… was the ultimate aim of Dr. Sun Yat-sen’s party.
The Chinese revolution broke out in the year …………………
The first director of the Whampoa Military academy was …………………
The campaign against the communists led by Chiang-Kai-Shek was distracted by ………………… and warlords.
By ………………… Mao became the leader of the Chinese people.
Over ………………… delegates from various countries attended the people’s political consultative conference.
When Japanese surrendered in 1945, the Japanese areas were occupied by the …………………
By the year …………………, communist control has been established over most parts of China.
The two mighty communist powers in the world were ………………… and …………………
The term cold war was first coined by …………………
………………… nations became a part of Marshall’s plan of self-help programme.
The Marshall plan funding ended in …………………
………………… was created to resist Soviet aggression in Europe.
NATO means …………………
NATO was formed in the year …………………
The members of NATO agreed that, any armed attack on any one of them would be considered attack on …………………
For the collective security of the South-east Asia, ………………… was formed in 1954.
Member of SEATO were committed to prevent …………………
SEATO was formed in 1954, after signing of the …………………
………………… was formed by Soviet Union as a counter to NATO.
………………… European nations attended the Warsaw pact in December 1954.
The treaty on Warsaw pact was concluded on …………………
The Warsaw pact was dissolved in …………………
The Warsaw pact dissolved because of the break-up of …………………
The Baghdad pact was otherwise called as …………………
Turkey, Iran, Iraq, Pakistan and Great Britain signed a treaty in 1955, known as …………………
When U.S.A joined the Baghdad pact, it was called by name …………………
USA joined the Baghdad pact in the year …………………
CENTO was dissolved in the year …………………
Korea was partitioned as North Korea and South Korea in the year …………………
The president of North Korea was …………………
The party of Kim II was called as …………………
The president of the South Korea was …………………
The party of Syngman Rhee was …………………
Korean War lasted for ………………… years.
NAM refers to the …………………
NAM was signed in ………………… at the ………………… conference.
Bandung is a city in …………………
With the collapse of ………………… the idea of NAM lost importance.
CIA is a Central Intelligence Agency of …………………
The Act of ………………… in Cuba, threatened American economic interests.
USA bombed Cuban ………………… with the aim of overthrowing Castro’s regime.
………………… was the president of USSR, when the Cuban Missile crisis took place.
Cuba was helped by …………………
When USSR remove missile from Cuba, USA had to agree to remove missile from ………………… and …………………
………………… was a Zionist Terrorist Organisation.
The Zionist Para-military organization was called as …………………
The World Zionist organization was founded in the year …………………
Jews living outside their ancient home scattered around North America and Europe was called as …………………
………………… Nationalised Suez Canal.
India represented by ………………… played a crucial role in resolving the crisis.
The Arab-lsraeli War took place in the years ………………… and …………………
PLO refers to …………………
PLO was formed in …………………
………………… was the prominent leader of Palestine.
By the end of the Second World War, ………………… Controlled the northern half of Vietnam.
South Vietnam was ruled by …………………
America supported troops of ………………… Vietnam.
The city of ………………… was renamed as Ho-Chi-Minh city.
To create a United Europe to resist any threat from Soviet Russia, ………………… was formed.
European Economic Community was otherwise called as …………………
SEA refers to …………………
According to the SEA, each member was given ………………… votes.
The ………………… Treaty created the European Union.
Maastricht is in …………………
EU was created on Maastricht treaty signed on …………………
The headquarters of the EU is at …………………
Brussels is at …………………
………………… Germany was prosperous.
………………… Germany was suffering from lack of democracy and freedom.
Germany was officially reunited on …………………
Glasnost means …………………
Perestroika means …………………
………………… was introduced by Gorbachev to restructure Soviet economic and political system.
After Gorbachev, power fell into the hands of …………………
For ………………… days, Soviet Union, continued to exist only in name.
Soviet Union dissolved formally on 31st December …………………
USSR split into ………………… countries.
………………… was the president of the newly independent Russian State.
U.S.A. troops used ………………… weapons in their war against Vietnam.
Napalm and Agent Orange are the names of incendiary …………………

Answers:

USA and USSR
Berlin Wall
1908
National People’s Party
Socialism
1911
Chiang-Kai-Shek
Japan
1937
650
Kuomintang
1948
Soviet Union, People’s Republic of China
George Orwell
Sixty
1951
NATO
North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
1949
NATO
SEATO
Communism
Manila Pact
Warsaw Pact
8 (eight)
May 14, 1955
1991
USSR
Central Treaty Organisation
Baghdad Pact
Central Treaty Organisation
1958
1979
1945
Kim II
People’s Republic of Korea
Syngman Rhee
The Republic of Korea
three
Non-Aligned Movement
1955, Bandung
Indonesia
Soviet Union
America
Castro
Airfields
Khrushchev
USSR
Turkey, Italy
Stem Gang
Irgun Zvai Leumi
1897
Diaspora
Colonel Nasser
Nehru
1967, 1973
Palestine Liberation Organisation
1948
Yasser Arafat
Viet Minh
Ngo Dinh Diem
South
Saigon
Council of Europe
European Common Market
Single European Act
multiple
Maastricht
Netherlands
Feb 7, 1992
Brussels
Belgium
West Berlin’s
East Berlin
3rd October 1990
openness
restructuring
Perestroika
Boris Yeltsin
Six 81.1991
15
Boris Yeltsin
Bacteriological
bombs

III. Choose the correct statement / statements

Question 1.
(i) The cold war period ended with the fall of Berlin Wall
(ii) Mao concentrated mainly on organizing the peasantry.
(iii) In 1937, the communist army of about 100,000 set out on the Long march.
(iv) Marshall plan funded nearly $ 15 billion.
(a) (ii and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (ii and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The USSR was much concerned about the destruction caused by the Second World War.
(ii) The South East Asia Treaty organization was organised for the collective security of countries in South East Asia.
(iii) The Communist States led by the Soviet Union came to be known First World Countries.
(iv) The Capitalist countries led by the U.S.A. were politically designated as Second World Countries.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong

Question 3.
(i) NAM refers to the Non-Aligned Movement.
(ii) The Single European Act of the EU as called as SEA.
(iii) Anwar Sadat was the president of the Palestine in 1989.
(iv) The fighters of South Vietnam were trained in guerrilla warfare.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The Third World principally consist of the developing World.
(ii) With the breakup of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalization, the term has lost its relevance.
(iii) The former colonies of Asia, Africa, and Latin America were called as Third World Countries.
(iv) The division of Germany into West and East led to glaring differences in living standards.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(d) All the four are correct.

Question 5.
(i) Yeltsin worked as a Mayor of Moscow.
(ii) Yeltsin was returned to power with overwhelming support of a Moscow in 1899.
(iii) For twelve days, the Soviet Union continued to exist only in name.
(iv) On 28th February 1991, USSR was formally dissolved.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) CENTO was otherwise called as Manila pact.
(ii) As a counter to SEATO, NATO was formed.
(iii) The Korean war helped to bring down the intensity of the Cold war.
(iv) The EEC eliminated barriers to the movement of goods, Capital and labour.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) All the four are correct.
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong

Question 7.
(i) The Berlin Wall was just a physical barrier.
(ii) Berlin Wall divided East Germany and West Germany.
(iii) USA supported East Berlin.
(iv) USSR supported West Berlin.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) All the four are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Yuan Shih-Kai of China lost prestige in his country.
Reason (R): He agreed to the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The rivalry that developed after World War 11 is referred to as “Cold War”.
Reason (R): This war did not take recourse to weapons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): There was High military expenditure on both sides of USA and USSR.
Reason (R): Soviet Union tested the nuclear bomb and America used the nuclear bomb against Japan.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The U.S. and its European allies formed the NATO to wage war against Vietnam.
Reason (R): As a counter to the NATO, Soviet Union organised the Warsaw pact.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R.) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): A small country had succeeded in winning Independence and the greatest power of the World-The country Vietnam.
Reason (R): The help given to Vietnam by the Socialist Countries, the political support given by Asia and Africa is evident.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Sun Yat-sen sent Chiang Kai-shek to Moscow, in Russia. The Russians in turn sent Michael Borodin to China.
Reason {R): Chiang Kai-shek started conquering China from Canton.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): U.S.A. supported Diem government in South Vietnam. Reason (R): U.S. wanted to establish a strong government in South Vietnam.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (vi)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (vi)

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Describe about Zionist movement.
Answer:
(i) In Palestine, the ancient home of Jews, only a few thousand Jews were living in 1900.
(ii) Some 15 million were scattered around Europe and North America.
(iii) These Jews had been subjected to systematic persecution for centuries.
(iv) But in the late nineteenth century, the persecution in Russia (Where two-thirds of the world’s jews lived), France and Germany was intense.
(v) Some Jews emigrated to Palestine, while many more went to the United States and Britain.
(vi) In 1896, Thodore Herzel, a Viennese journalist, published a pamphlet called the Jewish state in which he called for the creation of a Jewish national home. In 1897 the world zionist organisation was founded.

Question 2.
What was Truman’s policy?
Answer:
Truman, the president of USA announced a policy of containment of communism. This implies U.S. would support those countries which were threatened by USSR to spread communism.

Question 3.
Mention the initial member countries of the EU.
Answer:

Belgium
France
Italy
Luxemburg
Netherlands
West Germany

Question 4.
What is meant by SEA?
Answer:
SEA refers to the single European Act which came into force on July 1,1987. According to the SEA, each member was given multiple votes depending on the country’s population. Its main aim is establishing a single market.

Question 5.
Name the organs of the EU.
Answer:

European parliament
Council of the European Union
European commission
Court of Justice
Court of Auditors

Question 6.
Write a note on European Union.
Answer:
On February 7, 1992, the Maastricht Treaty that signed in Netherlands created the European Union. All the member countries of the EU will use common currency Euro, a single market and common Act. EU at present has 28 members with head quarters at Brussels, Belgium.

Question 7.
How was the European union formed?
Answer:
According to the Merger Treaty of 1967, the three communities namely the European coal and steel community, the European Economic community and the European Atomic Energy community were merged together to form the European union.

VII. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
People’s Republic of China

(a) Who was the leader of the People’s Republic of China?
Answer:
Mao Tse-Tung was the leader of the People’s Republic of China.

(b) Name the two mighty Communist powers of the world?
Answer:
The Soviet-Union and the people’s Republic of China.

(c) Who did not recognise People’s Republic of China and for how long?
Answer:
The UNO refused to recognise people’s Republic of China for more than twenty years.

(d) How did the government of Taiwan got recognition?
Answer:
The government of Chiang Kai-shek in Taiwan was given recognition ‘ due to the pressure from USA.

Question 2.
Achievements of EU

(a) What is the symbol of the Euro?
Answer:
The symbol of the Euro is €.

(b) What did the Euro eliminate?
Answer:
The Euro eliminated foreign exchange hurdles encountered by companies doing business across European border.

(d) Who allocates funds to European research projects?
Answer:
The European Research council.

Question 3.
Disintegration of The Soviet Union.

(a) Who became the head of USSR in 1985?
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev became the head of the USSR in 1985.

(b) What is meant by “thaw”?
Answer:
The “Thaw” refers to the period from the early 1950’s and 1960’s when repression and censorship in the Soviet Union was relaxed and millions of political prisioners were released. It was the period of Khrushchev’s reign.

(c) What is meant by Glasnost?
Answer:
Glasnost means openness. It was the policy of more transperancy and openness in the government policy of former Soviet Russia introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev.

(d) What is meant by Perestroika?
Answer:
Perestroika means restructuring. It refers to the programme introduced by Mikhail Gorbhachev to restructure Soviet economic and political system.

Question 4.
Berlin Wall

(a) Who constructed a wall which virtually cut off West Berlin and East Berlin? and when?
Answer:
East German began to construct a wall in 1961 which virtually cut off West Berlin and East Berlin.

(b) How was it guarded?
Answer:
It was guarded with watchtowers and other lethal impediments to stop people from the east.

(d) What happened with the fall of the Berlin wall?
Answer:
With the fall of the Berlin wall , followed by the collapse of the Soviet Union, the cold war came to an end.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a brief account of the life and achievements of Ho Chi Minh.
Answer:
He was born in a small town in Central Vietnam. He studied in French school that produced great leaders. After his studies he worked on a French liner operating between Saigon and Marseilles. He was greatly inspired by European communist parties, became member of commintem and was instrumental in bringing together competing nationalists groups to form the Vietnamese communist party in 1930. It was later renamed the Indo-Chinese communist party. After spending 30 years abroad in Europe, China Thailand, he returned to Vietnam in 1941. He became President of the Vietnam Democratic Republic in 1943.

After the split of Vietnam, he and the communists took control of North Vietnam. With the help of his government, National Liberation Front in the south fought for unification of the country. He fought hard to maintain the autonomy of Vietnam and till the end proved true to his name. Ho Chi Minh meaning He, Who Enlightens.

Question 2.
Illustrate the cold war developments in case of the Vietnam war. Narrate how North and South Vietnam unified as Independent Nation.
Solution:

By 1945, the end of the second world war, Viet Minh controlled the northern half of Vietnam, led by Ho-chi- Minh.
Viet Minh and french reached an agreement by which North Vietnam would be a free state.
While French was helped by America, Viet Minh was helped by the new Chinese communist government.
War broke out between them. Eventually , France troops were defeated.
The Geneva conference that met on Korea and Indo China in 1954, decided that of Laos. Combodia and Vietnam. The independent states would be Laos and Cambodia. Vietnam, temporarily divided.
While North Vietnam controlled by Viet Minh with leader Ho-Chi-Minh and south Vietnam would be under the leadership of Bao Dai.
At the same time, South Vietnam was ruled by Ngo Dinh Diem.
When U.S wanted to establish a strong Non-communist government in South Vietnam. In 1965, marines landed on Danang naval base and namely 2,10,000 traps in the country, j (ix) The U.S bombed both North and South.
The fighters of North Vietnam trained in Guerrilla warfare sustained.
America suffered heavy casualties , vast devastated and many were killed.
The youth rebelled against the horrors of the war.
The protest against the war spread all over the world.
By 1975, the armies of the North and the only one party of South Vietnam called National Liberation front of South Vietnam attacked America.
By 30th April 1975, all the American troops had withdrawn and capital of South Vietnam Saigon was liberated.
North Vietnam and South Vietnam formally united as one country in 1976.
The city of Saigon was renamed as the Ho-Chi-Minh city .
Thus, the emergence of Vietnam as a united and Independent nation was an historic event.

Question 3.
Explain the breakup of the Soviet Union.
Answer:

In the middle of 1980’s Soviet Union economy was suffering.
In 1985, Mikhail Gorbachev took over as the president of USSR.
Gorbachev spoke about the need for openness (Glasnost) and Perestroika (restructuring).
But his ideas of reform did not work out for him because, to compete with U.S, USSR need to allocate more funds to the military.
The economic stagnation of the Soviet Union aggrevated tension and promoted nationalist feelings.
In the year 1988, Mass protest broke out in Armenia and in the Baltic states.
Gorbachev made attempts to stabilize his position by relying on conservative forces in 1989, 1991.
But the massive miner’s strike interrupted. The series of worker’s strike under mined the communist regimes first in Poland, then in Hungary.
The fall of Berlin wall in Germany, encouraged people to be united.
Gorbachev made a last attempt to take a hard line against miner’s strike and huge demonstrations in Moscow in 1991.
In response, the conservative forces in his government used troops in Moscow and held Gorbachev under house arrest.
Power fell into the hands of Boris Yeltsin.
In November 1991, eleven republics announced that they would establish a common wealth of independent states.
On 25th Dec 1991 , Gorbachev resigned.
For six days, the Soviet Union continued to remain only in name and at midnight on 31st December 1991 it was formally dissolved.
The USSR was no more.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 4

November 2, 2023

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 4

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1= 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
Of the rest, many will end up as mental or physical cripples.
(a) rare gifts (b) able-bodied (c) disabilities (d) perfect health
Answer:
(c) disabilities

Question 2.
Little dangling baskets under the spout to catch the stray leaves.
(a) loose (b) gathered (c) harmful (d) fresh
Answer:
(a) loose

Question 3.
They were doing brisk business in the public square.
(a) dull (b) indolent (c) lethargic (d) active
Answer:
(d) active

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
The trolley was commandeered by the two boys.
(a) snatched (b) abandoned (c) usurped (d) hijacked
Answer:
(b) abandoned

Question 5.
The advent of brain-machine interfaces is certain to blur the boundary between humans and machines.
(a) departure (b) danger (c) drawback (d) dispute
Answer:
(d) dispute

Question 6.
Makalu was unexplored.
(a) expelled (b) explained (c) explored (d) expedited
Answer:
(c) explored

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word light show.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Verb + Noun (c) Noun- + Gerund (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(a) Noun + Verb

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of NSC.
(a) National Savings Certificate (b) National Service Certificate (c) National Savings Career (d) National Service Certificate
Answer:
(a) National Savings Certificate

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence: My cousin Charlotte is a real klutz.
(a) stranger (b) thief (c) clumsy fool (d) coward
Answer:
(c) clumsy fool

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word Bionic.
(a) Bio + Electric (b) Biology + Electronic (c) Bio + Nic (d) Biology + Nic
Answer:
(b) Biology + Electronic

Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for dormitory.
(a) dormi (b) doritory (c) dory (d) dorm
Answer:
(d) dorm

Question 12.
A craze for establishing banks is known as …………………… .
(a) monotonist (b) islomania (c) bancomania (d) barbarian
Answer:
(c) bancomania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word ‘open’.
(a) re- (b) en- (c) un (d) dis-
Answer:
(a) re-

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
I have a friend …………………….. cat is very cute.
(a) which (b) whom (c) whose (d) when
Answer:
(c) whose

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
I heard that news …………………….. the radio.
(a) in (b) on (c) at (d) through
Answer:
(b) on

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement.
He reads a lot of comics, ……………………..?
(a) should he (b) won’t he (c) will he (d) doesn’t he
Answer:
(d) doesn’t he

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
Sumathi was sick of bending over backwards to entertain her nieces.
(a) doing gymnastics (b) dancing (c) trying very hard (d) doing yoga
Answer:
(c) trying very hard

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Till the next trial, the suspects will be kept in the prison camp.
(a) relocation center (b) jail (c) dungeon (d) dormitory
Answer:
(a) relocation center

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence.
We aren’t complaining.
(a) SVIODO (b) SVC (c) SVO (d) SVCA
Answer:
(b) SVC

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb.
The following afternoon we …………………….. the tiny village set high upon the hillside.
(a) set aside (b) called on (c) got away (d) drove to
Answer:
(d) drove to

Part II
Section -1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“For what, we thought, had we to fear
With our arms and provender, load on load,”
(a) What was the mood of the soldiers?
(b) What made the soldiers confident?
Answer:
(a) The soldiers were confident of winning the war.
(b) They had enough grains to survive a siege and plenty of arms to fight the war. These things made them confident.

Question 22.
“…………….. Free imaginations
Bringing changes into a world resenting change.”
(a) How does free imagination help the world?
(b) Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
(a) Free imagination brings changes in the world.
(b) Personification

Question 23.
“Death closes all: but something ere the end,
Some work of noble note, may yet be done,
Not unbecoming men that strove with Gods.”
(a) The above lines convey the undying spirit of Ulysses. Explain.
(b) Pick out the words in alliteration in the above lines.
Answer:
(a) Ulysses is aware of ageing and substantial decrease in his physical strength. He knows that will close in on him sooner or later. But before that happens, he wants to sail beyond the sunset/horizon and if possible meet warriors like Achilles. He wants to achieve something worthy of those who challenged and fought with Gods. Thus these lines show the undying spirit of Ulysses.
(b) ere, end noble, note are the words that alliterate.

Question 24.
“And then the lover,
Sighing like furnace, with a woeful ballad
Made to his mistress’ eyebrow.”
(a) What does the lover do for his mistress?
(b) Explain, ‘sighing like furnace’.
Answer:
(a) The lover is always sighing and longing for his beloved. He writes a sad ballad describing the eyebrow of his mistress.
(b) It means moaning, breathing deeply and sadly like a fire place.

Question 25.
“But not because of its magnificence Dear is the Casuarina to my soul:
Beneath it we have played; though years may roll,”
(a) What is not the cause for Toru Dutt’s love for the Casuarina tree?
(b) What makes the tree dear to the poet?
Answer:
(a) As children, the poet and her friends had played under the tree. This experience has made the tree dear to the poet.
(b) The poet is unable to forget the wonderful time she had under the tree with her friends.

Question 26.
“Just as perhaps he mused, ‘My plans’
That soar, to earth may fall,”
(а) What may hamper the soaring plans of Napoleon?
(b) What is the figure of speech employed in these lines?
Answer:
(a) The negative outcome of battle at Ratisbon may hamper his soaring plans.
(b) ‘plans that soar’ – Metaphor.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Lady to the Judge : This man is responsible for the accident.
Man : No, my Lord. This lady does not know how to drive a car.

The lady told the Judge that, that man was responsible for the accident. The man denied the lady’s statement respectfully and said that that lady did not know how to drive a car.

Question 28.
Obey the traffic rules. Otherwise, you will be prosecuted, (combine using if)
Answer:
If you do not obey the traffic rules, you will be prosecuted.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If you don’t wish to sign the contract, you must let them know by the end of this month.
Answer:
Should you not wish to sign the contract, you must let them know by the end of this month.

Question 30.
When he walked through the wood, he saw a fox that was following him.(Change the following into a simple sentence)
Answer:
Walking through the wood, he saw a fox following him.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Unto thy honor, Tree, beloved of those Who now in blessed sleep for aye repose,
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, ‘Our Casuarina Tree’ written by Torn Dutt.

Context: The poet says this while consecrating the memories of the tree to the dear departed.

Explanation: The poet wants to freeze the love for the Casuarina tree in her poem. She remembers with pain three younger Dutts who had succumbed to Tuberculosis. She remembers with poignance the numerous days they had spent under the Casuarina tree.

Question 32.
We are not now that strength which in old days Moved earth and heaven;
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, ‘Ulysses’ written by Alfred Tennyson.

Context: The poet says these words through Ulysses when he wants to justify the reasons for resuming the daring voyage.

Explanation: Ulysses admits the decline in the compatriots’ physical strength with which they were able to move heaven and earth in their youth. He asks his compatriots to ignore the infinity of age and draw on their inner spiritual strength to resume their voyage beyond sunset.

Question 33.
Then off there flung in smiling joy,
And held himself erect
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Context: The narrator says these words while describing the arrival of a boy soldier at the mound where Napoleon was anxiously awaiting news about the battle.

Explanation: Even though the boy-soldier was split into two, he sped fast in a horse amidst the smoke of cannon fire. On seeing Napoleon he jumped off the horse with a beaming face. Being at the verge of embracing death, he declared the good news that they had won the battle.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What were the boys doing at night in a deserted square?
Answer:
The boys were resting on the stone pavement in the windy and deserted square beneath the street light. They were waiting for the last bus from Padua to sell the unsold newspapers.

Question 35.
What are the subsidiary uses of tea leaves?
Answer:
Telling fortunes, predicting the arrival of visitors, feeding rabbits, healing bums and sweeping the carpet are some of the subsidiary’s uses of tea leaves.

Question 36.
When did Hillary feel a sense of freedom and well being?
Answer:
Firsdtly, their partly-filled bottle of oxygen got exhausted. They had only one oxygen bottle to carry. With reduced load of 20 litre bottle, Hillary cut steps down off the South Summit. So, he felt a sense of freedom and well-being.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow.
Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 4 1
Popular Brands of Bluetooth Speakers
(a) Which is the most favourite brand of bluetooth speaker?
(b) Name the brand preferred by the least number of customers?
(c) Which two brands have equal number of customers?
Answer:
(a) UE Boom 3 is the most favourite brand preferred by the customers.
(b) Marshall Kilburn is the least preferred brand.
(c) UE Wonderbbom and Bose SoundLink Mini II.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between two friends discussing about a Book Fair.
Answer:
Rajini : Did you visit the Book Fair that started last week?
Ravi : Yes, I did. I was in fact waiting for the Book Fair to start.
Rajini : I know that you are a Voracious reader. How many did you buy?
Ravi : I bought a couple of mystery and detective novels by Tamizhvanan, Agatha Christie and Sujatha. What are you planning to buy?
Rajini : I need to buy a good set of Encyclopedias
Ravi : Do you want me to accompany you? I too want to buy some books published by Scholastic India.

Question 39.
Describe the process of making ice cream.
Answer:
Boil one litre of milk till it becomes thick and creamy and is reduced to one fourth its quantity. Add sugar to taste.
Keep aside five tablespoons of cold milk and mix two heaped spoons of ice cream powder. Pour the ice cream powder mixed milk to the boiling milk and stir continuously till it thickens. Add two drops of vanilla, strawberry or chocolate essence to taste and stir well.
After it cools, freeze for four hours.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) He who hesitates is (gone, lost, dead)
(b) If God had meant us to fly, he would have given us (wings, cars, tails)
Answer:
(c) Little pitchers have big (ears, mouths, bottom)
(a) lost (b) wings (c) bottom

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
What are the aspects that contribute to humour in the essay?
Answer:
The author claims the best manner of making tea is the subject matter of violent disputes. He compliments china tea for being economical but also says one does not feel rejuvenated after drinking it. One doesn’t feel braver, wiser, more optimistic or stimulated after drinking the Chinese tea. He says army tea tastes of grease and white wash. In Britain there are two schools of thought (i.e.) milk first school and tea first school (i.e.) one school claiming that milk must be poured first and tea added later and another school claiming that tea must be poured first and milk to be added next.

He says those who take tea with sugar for its sweetness alone as misguided people. He says that they could very well add salt and pepper to tea and drink it. He claims that there are some mysterious social etiquette surrounding teapot. It is vulgar to drink tea out of one’s saucer. There are some subsidiary uses of tea leaves such as telling fortunes, predicting the arrival of visitors, feeding rabbits, healing burns and sweeping the carpet.

[OR]

“My right to swing my fist ends, where your nose begins.” Elucidate with reference to, ‘On the Rule of the Road’.
Answer:
Rights are not completely individual affairs. In order to enjoy one’s rights one has to respect the rights of others too. The lady in Petrograd had the right to walk on the pavement. The right to move stops when the other person’s right to drive starts. A person may have a walking stick and roll it too. But his right just stops where the other person’s nose begins. No one has the right to violate the rights of others. The right, one exercises, must not affect or erode the rights of others.

One should not think of one’s own rights but also the rights of others. A.G.Gardiner beautifully illustrates this idea by emphasising the metaphor of traffic rules. Rules of road are in fact rules of politeness and unselfishness. One may have absolute freedom in the choice of food, religion, fashionable dress, up keep of hair, funny hairstyle, etc. But one must be conscious of the rights of others. So, the statement “my right to swing my fist ends, where your nose begins” fits well with the central theme of the essay ‘ On the Rule of the Road’.

Question 42.
Human greed led to the mighty fall of the citadel. Explain.
Answer:
The loyal soldiers and their brave captain expected enemies from outside the castle. Their arms and army was ready to fight them. But they could not identify the enemy within. The soldiers were proud that no might would tear their castle down. But they were unaware of the invisible soul-dead enemy within. The ingredients of personal downfall went unnoticed by them.

If a person never looks within, the faults that can be their doom go overlooked. Their reality could crumble while they gaze outward and pride themselves on their sureness. This is what happened precisely with the soldiers of the castle. They only focused on the strength of their physical surroundings and what was beyond the castle. Human greed-propelled betrayal from within caused the castle’s downfall.

[OR]

Explain how the poet guides his son who is at the threshold of manhood, to face the challenges of life.
Answer:
The poet shares his wisdom with his son who is at the threshold of manhood. He persuades his son to be hard like steel or rock to withstand challenges and unforeseen betrayals in life. A person with soft heart will crumble before a breach of trust. Similarly he wants his son to be discerning enough to be soft when needed to grow like a frail flower plant splitting a rock.

Occasionally one has to go with the current because life is at times fertile with a lot of opportunities to grow even among the harshest circumstances. ‘Rich soft wanting’ can help a person to win against all odds. He reiterates this idea by explaining how gentleness can reform a hardened criminal when lashes would, in contrast, harden them further.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Pi convinced – water on board – divining rod – Pi’s mind – genuine regulation lifeboat – outfitted with supplies – captain – ensure safety and survival – ship chandler – extra money-saving lives – water on board.
Answer:
Pi had never before experienced physical hell than that putrid taste and pasty feeling in the mouth. It was an unbearable pressure at the back of his throat. The divining rod in Pi’s mind dipped sharply and spring gushed forth. He remembered that he was on a genuine regulation lifeboat and such a lifeboat was surely outfitted with supplies. A captain would never fail in so elementary way of preserving water to ensure safety and survival of his crew in the event of a disaster. Besides, it is natural that a ship chandler would think of making a little extra money under the noble pretext of saving lives. It was settled beyond doubt that there was water on board.

[OR]

Bond of friendship – Baldwin and Gresham – boyhood chums – school together – lifetime bondage – thirty five years – baptism – 60 dollars a week – Governor of the private bank – Gresham siphoning money – loyalty and honesty – part ways – upright character – close the bank – return the deposit – reorganization of the bank – arrest – court could not nail Gresham – one hundred thousand dollars – three words – slapped him – body language – not compromise with conscience.
Answer:
Baldwin and Gresham were boyhood chums. They went to school together. Their friendship flowered into a lifetime bondage as it was sustained for thirty five years. When Baldwin’s son was being baptised in the church, Gresham was present. Baldwin expressed his wish that his son John Gresham Baldwin grew up to Gresham’s standard in life. Baldwin was paid only 60 dollars a week for working as a Governor of the private bank founded by Gresham.

Accidentally, Baldwin found out how Gresham was siphoning money very cleverly from the deposits technically without really causing any loss to the depositors. But Baldwin was loyal to Gresham only as long as he was honest. Once he parted ways with honesty, Baldwin would also part ways with Gresham. By the force of his upright character, Baldwin advised him to close the bank and return the deposit to the customers.

Third National Bank was ready to help the reorganization of the bank. Meanwhile, Gresham was arrested. The court could not nail Gresham as there was not a shred of evidence to prove his guilt. If Baldwin testified, the court would indict him. Just before being arrested Gresham offered him one hundred thousand dollars to just say “I don’t remember”. The three words to let him off the hook. He claimed it was the difference between the salary he had been paid and what he ought to have received. Had it been someone else, Baldwin would have slapped him.

But it was Gresham who understood his body language and did not press the matter further. He was proud of the fact that Gresham understood how he could not compromise with his conscience. His family members Martha, Evie and John felt that it was a compliment that cost him one hundred thousand dollars. Baldwin said that Gresham’s compliment about his uprightness was worth a hundred thousand dollars.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
Occasional self-medication has always been part of normal living. The making and selling of drugs has a long history and is closely linked, like medical practice itself, with belief in magic. Only during the last hundred years or so, as the development of scientific techniques made it possible, diagnosis has become possible. The doctor is now able to follow up the correct diagnosis of many illnesses – with specific treatment of their causes. In many other illnesses of which the causes remain unknown, he is still limited, like the unqualified prescriber, to the treatment of symptoms.

The doctor is trained to decide when to treat symptoms only and when to attack the cause. This is the essential difference between medical prescribing and self-medication. The advance of technology has brought about much progress in some fields of medicine, including the development of scientific drug therapy. Parallel with such beneficial trends are two which have an adverse effect. One is the use of high pressure advertising by the pharmaceutical industry which has tended to influence both patients and doctors and has led to the overuse of drugs generally.

The other is emergence of eating, insufficient sleep, excessive smoking and drinking. People with disorders arising from faulty habits such as these, as well as from unhappy human relationships, often resort to self-medication. Advertisers go to great lengths to catch this market. Clever advertising, aimed at chronic sufferers who will try anything because doctors have not been able to cure them, can induce such faith in a preparation, particularly if steeply priced, that it will produce -by suggestion- a very real effect in some people.

It is doubtful whether taking these things ever improves a person’s health, it may even make it worse. Worse, because the preparation may contain unsuitable ingredients; worse because the taker may become dependent on them; worse because they might be taken excess; worse because they may cause poisoning, and worst of all because symptoms of some serious underlying cause may be asked and therefore medical help may not be sought. Self-diagnosis is a greater danger than self-medication.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 347
No. of words to be written in the summary: 347/3 = 115 ± 5
Rough Draft
Self-medication is part of normal living. Medicinal experts are required for diagnosis and treatment of diseases according to symptoms and causes. The development of drug therapy and improvement in public health organizations and nutritional standards have helped progress in medicinal science. Excessive advertising by pharmaceutical companies and emergence of the sedentary society are two counter trends. Self-medication is dangerous as the preparation may be toxic or contain unsuitable ingredients; the user becomes dependent and consumes medicine in excess. Self-diagnosis is worse than self-medication.

No. of words in the summary: 83
Notes:
Title: Self-Medication

1. Self-medication
(a) Part of normal living—last 100 yrs
(b) Advance in diagnostic technology
(c) Doctors required – diagnosis & treatment of disease
(d) Self-medication differs from medical prescription

2. Technological Advmnt in medicine
(a) Drug therapy
(b) Improvement in public health organizations
(c) Increase in nutritional standards

3. Clever advertising by pharmaceutical companies
(a) Take advantage of people’s need
(b) Chronic sufferers
(c) Faulty lifestyle
(i) Lack of exercise, overeating, insufficient sleep, etc.
(ii) Stress, unhappy rela’ps, etc.

4. Dangers of self-medication
(a) Preparation of some drugs contains unsuitable ingredients
(b) Taker becomes dependent
(c) Taker consumes medicine in excess
(d) Preparations may cause poisoning .
(e) Real cause of illness gets suppressed or untreated

Abbreviations used: yrs – years; Advmnt – Advertisement; rela’ps – relapses

Question 45.
Write a letter to the Port Trust, Chennai, asking permission for a group of 25 students of your school to visit a ship that has collection of books of all languages of the world. The ship would remain in Chennai only for a fortnight. Get permission mentioning the date, time and the number of visitors the teachers in – charge of the bona fide students of your school.
Answer:
14th January, 2020
From
The Principal
TM Hr. Sec. School
Chennai – 45

To
The Naval Officer
Port Trust of India
Chennai
Respected Officer,

Sub: Reg. Permission for visiting the Ship – Queen Mary

Given to understand that the Ship named Queen Mary with a collection of books of all languages of the world has arrived at the Chennai Port for public viewing, I hereby request permission for our school children to visit the ship on one of the working days.
We would be grateful if you can permit us to view the books in the ship on Friday, 6th February, 2020 at 10 a.m. There will be 15 students from Std IX accompanied by two teachers with one male office staff.

Please find enclosed the bona fide certificates and Photocopy of the staff identity card accompanying them.
Staff in-charge: Mrs. Shalini Varma and Mrs. Sharmila Das.

Students of Std IX:

Anitha.M
Asha.L
Balaji.G
Bharath.U
Chandhini.G
Christopher. Y
rthy.T
Firoz.P
Janaki.R
Kalai.A
Lalitha.G
Leena.B
Mohan.C
Niranjan.F
Rohit.R

Looking forward to an enriching experience and safe visit. Kindly send us a reply acknowledging our request.

Yours sincerely,
Meena
(Principal)

Address on the envelope:
The Naval Officer
Port Trust of India
Chennai

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Punctuality”.
Answer:
It has been said, “Never put off for tomorrow what you can do today”. Yet there are many people who enjoy postponing things. Such people do not realize the dangers of delaying. Work does not disappear if we postpone it. The difficulty of the work does not get reduced by postponing it. The more we postpone, the more the work piles up. Finally, the load of work seems too much. We then have to work for many days at a stretch under great strain and tension. Finally we do it hurriedly and in a careless manner.

It is as bad as not doing the work at all. Again, when some work is delayed, the time which would have been profitably used is wasted. Time wasted is time lost forever. Hence procrastination, that is the habit of postponing things, is rightly called the thief of time. Precious time wasted means opportunities lost, and lost forever. By the time we realize how much time we have wasted and how many opportunities we have missed by delaying word, it may be too late.

And then nothing remains for us except to regret and repent. Sometimes a very heavy price has to be paid for delaying things. The person who delays insuring his factory will regret it when the factory is gutted by a sudden fire. Delay in the treatment of a disease may make it worse, and may even result in death. There are other proverbs conveying similar meaning. Thus we say: “Time and tide wait for no man” and “A stitch in time saves nine”. All these proverbs warn us against the dangers of delay in actions, and stress the importance of timely action and punctuality.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(a) Many a man have been arrested at the meeting.
(b) Most of the work have been completed.
(c) Neither of the books are illustrated.
(d) One of the thieves, were arrested.
(e) Rani sat besides the new student.
Answer:
(a) Many a man had been arrested at the meeting.
(b) Most of the work has been completed.
(c) Neither of the books is illustrated.
(d) One of the thieves, was arrested.
(e) Rani sat beside the new student.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(а) Someone who decides to …………….. a car has committed a crime, but auto parts are made of aluminium and …………….. (steel/steal)
(b) They look just the same! I am sure that boy …………….. be his son. (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) All my clothes are dirty! I …………….. do some laundry, (use a semi-modal)
(d) He …………….. never …………….. (study) art before he came to college. (use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) steal/steel (b) must (c) need to (d) had/studied

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) Shakespeare’s plays are read by many people.
(b) The yield of wheat has increased.
(c) Fast food is a growing health hazard.
(d) My brother is planning to go to the US.
(e) Dhoni was declared the Man of the Series.
[Sports, Nutrition and Dietetics, Travel, Literature, Agriculture]
Answer:
(a) Literature
(b) Agriculture
(c) Nutrition and Dietetics
(d) Travel
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.
Answer:
Housed in an 18th century style Heritage building with wooden paneling running through the thirty seat dining area, “Lean and Lovely” is the latest attraction in Siddhapuram Nagar. Says the owner Chef Virina “People come to us for the unusual fare that we serve. Fairly ordinary Indian recipes are ignited with a dash of sauce and spiced with colour. There is harmony and balance between taste, lightness and tradition. Wholly organically grown vegetables and flour are used. We use the freshest of ingredients that are cut and cooked so as to display their colour and individual texture.

Questions:
a. What is special about the vegetables and flour used by “Lean and Lovely”?
b. In which town is “Lean and Lovely” located?
c. Who is a ‘Chef’?
d. How do the people in “Lean and Lovely” make the ordinary Indian recipes more attractive?
e. How do they keep the colour and texture of the food items?
Answers:
(a) Wholly organically grown vegetables and flour is the speciality of “Lean and Lovely’.
(b) “Lean and Lovely” is located in Siddhapuram Nagar.
(c) A chef is a skilled cook, who prepares a variety of dishes in a restaurant and manages them.
(d) Fairly ordinary Indian recipes are ignited with a dash of sauce and spiced with colour in “Lean and Lovely”. There is also harmony and balance between taste, lightness and tradition attracting the people.
(e) Freshest of ingredients to retain the colour and texture of the food items.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 5

November 2, 2023

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 5 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 5

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1= 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
The policeman is not a symbol of tyranny.
(a) autocracy (b) plutocracy (c) aristocracy (d) democracy
Answer:
(d) democracy

Question 2.
I dragged our oxygen sets into the tent.
(a) pushed (b) pulled (c) lauded (d) loaded
Answer:
(b) pulled

Question 3.
His shoulder and arm were amputated.
(a) frustrated (b) attached (c) transplanted (d) removed
Answer:
(d) removed

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
She was eager to do so.
(a) anxious (b) apathetic (c) impatient (d) repulsive
Answer:
(b) apathetic

Question 5.
Not the flat, shallow type…
(a) wide (b) wide (c) direct (d) deep
Answer:
(d) deep

Question 6.
Why people should suffer.
(a) undergo pain (b) enjoy (c) heal (d) struggle
Answer:
(b) enjoy

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘milk white’.
(a) Noun+ Gerund (b) Noun + Adjective (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Adjective

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of TPS.
(a) Thermal Power Supply (b) Thermal Private Sector (c) Thermal Power Station (d). Thermal Power Sector
Answer:
(c) Thermal Power Station

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
I planned to go downtown to meet with Betty, but I ran into a glitch.
(a) big problem (b) small problem (c) gutter (d) accident
Answer:
(b) small problem

Question 10.
Choose the correct combination for the blended word Globish.
(a) Globe+ Fish (b) Globe + frisk (c) Globe + ish (d) Global + English
Answer:
(d) Global + English

Question 11.
Choose the clipped form for graduate.
(a) gradud (b) gad (c) grad (d) duate
Answer:
(c) grad

Question 12.
A desire to read and enjoy eulogy is known as ……………………. .
(a) eulogomania (b) misogamist (c) oleograph (d) monogram
Answer:
(a) eulogomania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word ‘closed’.
(a) in- (b) re- (c) un- (d) en-
Answer:
(d) en-

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun. This is the house ………………… my father built.
(a) where (b) by (c) that (d) who
Answer:
(c) that

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition. You should explain this ……………… them.
(a) for (b) with (c) from (d) to
Answer:
(d) to

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement.
Heera can read many languages ……………………….?
(a) won’t she (b) can’t she (c) isn’t she (d) wasn’t she
Answer:
(b) can’t she

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
When the management wanted to cut down on the man power, they offered a golden hand shake to many of their newly recruited employees.
(a) extension of job
(b) renewal of contract
(c) large amount of money given to a person when they leave
(d) give part-time work
Answer:
(c) large amount of money given to a person when they leave

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
I think the garbage man didn’t come on his usual rounds.
(a) cleaner (b) sanitizer (c) garbage disposer (d) sanitation engineer
Answer:
(d) sanitation engineer

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence.
There was a grand finale of scattered plates and silverware.
(a) SVIODO (b) SVAA (c) SVCA (d) AVSC
Answer:
(c) SVCA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb.
I ………………………… to the fountain to have my shoes shined.
(a) went across (b) went over (c) went into (d) put aside
Answer:
(b) went over

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“And the enemy half a mile away They seemed no threat to us at all”
(a) What were the soldiers expecting?
(b) Where were the enemies?
Answer:
(a) The soldiers were expecting a war.
(b) The enemies were half a mile away.

Question 22.
“And then the justice,
In fair round belly with good capon lin’d,
With eyes severe and beard of formal cut,
Full of wise saws and modern instances
(a) Whom does justice refer to?
(b) Describe his appearance.
Answer:
(a) Justice refers to a man in his fifth stage when he becomes critical of everyone else’s opinion in life.
(b) He has a pot belly and is fond of eating delicacies.

Question 23.
“A creeper climbs, in whose embraces bound No other tree could live.”
(a) How does the tree survive the tight hold of the creeper?
(b) Why does Toru Dutt use the expression ‘a creeper climbs’?
Answer:
(a) The tree takes the tight hold of the creeper like the embraces of a lady love. So, it doesn’t hurt the tree. It grows stronger bearing the bite marks of love.
(b) A creeper cannot grow without the support of another tree or a pole. While climbing, it tries to sap the energy from the living tree. It twines its body around the tree and keeps climbing.

Question 24.
“That ever with a frolic welcome took
The thunder and the sunshine, and opposed”
(a) What do ‘thunder’ and ‘sunshine’ refer to?
(b) What do we infer about the attitude of the sailors?
Answer:
(a) Thunder and sunshine refers to misfortunes and happy days. Ulysses and his comrades had undergone both kinds of experiences.
(b) The sailors shared the undying quest for exploration, adventure and for seeking newer knowledge in the untravelled world. They even welcomed dangers in fighting with Gods. They enjoyed the thrill of action and never worried about the outcome of battles or quests. They have equal temper of heroic hearts.

Question 25.
“Just as perhaps he mused, ‘My plans That soar, to earth may fall,”
(а) Who does ‘he’ refer to?
(b) What may hamper the soaring plans of Napoleon?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to Napoleon Bonaparte.
(b) The negative outcome of battle at Ratisbon may hamper his soaring plans.

Question 26.
“Tell him to be a fool ever so often and to have no shame over having been a fool yet learning something out of every folly hoping to repeat none of the cheap follies”
(a) Is it a shame to be a fool at times?
(b) What does one learn from every folly?
Answer:
(a) No, everyone does commit funny mistakes in life. One might just laugh at them.
(b) Every folly teaches a person his limitations and vulnerabilities. By making conscious efforts to avoid them in future, one will become stronger and wiser.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
James : Can you come to my apartment tomorrow?
Simon : Thank you, I will come tomorrow after lunch.
James asked Simon if he could come to his apartment the next day. Simon thanked him and said that he would come to his apartment the following day after lunch.

Question 28.
Sundar wants to pass the test. He has to work hard, (combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If Sundar wants to pass the test, he has to work hard.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If we were to have children, we would certainly need to move to a bigger house.
Answer:
Were we to have children, we would certainly need to move to a bigger house.

Question 30.
The house was destroyed in the fire, but the whole family was saved. (Change the following into a complex sentence)
Though the house was destroyed in the fire, the whole family was saved.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
I will maintain until my death
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.

Context: The poet says this while recounting the shameful act of betrayal by the aged warder of the wicket gate.

Explanation: The narrator was overconfident of the invincibility of their castle, their stock piled arms and well-stocked granary. They had a brave captain and loyal soldiers. In an open war, they need not fear defeat as their friendly neighbours were also willing to join them during a war against any invader. But their enemy was within their fortified castle. They were sold for a bag of gold. Without a groan the citadel was captured. It was a shameful way to lose one’s side. So, the narrator prefers not to recount this shameful secret to anyone so long as he is alive.

Question 32.
Last scene of all,
That ends this strange eventful history,
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.

Context: The poet says these words while describing the preparedness of the old man in the last stage of life to exit from this lonely planet.

Explanation: The poet beautifully says the “eventful history” (i.e.) life which was spiced up with many interesting things is now coming to a dramatic close. The eternal jewel of life, ‘the soul’, is going to depart the body which had kept it imprisoned for long. The soul celebrates the joy of freedom in death.

Question 33.
He will be lonely enough to have time for the work
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘A Father to his Son’ written by Carl August Sandburg.

Context: The poet says these words to explain how creative thinkers and those who strive to bring about changes are left alone to fend for themselves.

Explanation: The poet asks his son to take advantage of the loneliness. He must enjoy the advantages of solitude. Solitude would help him to be creative. He would invariably learn that final decisions are always taken in silent rooms. In solitude he can pursue his creative imagination and succeed like Shakespeare, Wright brothers, Pasteur, Pavlov and Faraday.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
How was Dr. Barnard’s attitude to suffering different from that of his father’s?
Answer:
Dr. Barnard’s father accepted suffering as God’s will. He also believed that suffering ennobles humans. But Dr. Barnard found no meaning in the agony and suffering of patients and especially of the young children.

Question 35.
What was thrilling to watch 8000 feet below them?
Answer:
In a number of places, the overhanging ice cornices were very large. In order to escape them, Hillary cut a line of steps down to where the snow met the rocks on the west. It was a great thrill to look straight down that enormous rock face to see 8000 ft below them the tiny tents of Camp 4 in the Western Cwm.

Question 36.
‘Curtailment of private liberty is done to establish social order’ – Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, curtailment of private liberty is done to establish social order. Liberty is not a personal affair only, it is a social contract. There are a lot of people in the world who need to accommodate their liberty to the liberties of others. A reasonable consideration of the rights or feelings of others in the foundation of social conduct. When one has submitted to the curtailment of private liberty, one may enjoy a social order which makes his liberty, a reality.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart given below and answer the questions that follow:
Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 5 1
(a) How much percentage in this group have AB blood group?
(b) What is the percentage of people in this group who do not have the donor group?
(c) According to the given percentage, how many people have either A or B blood groups?
Answer:
(a) 19% of the people have AB Blood group.
(b) 60% of the people do not have the donor group that is Type O.
(c) Approximately Question Question 41.1 % of people do not have either A or B blood groups.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a Mr. Karnan and a Policeman.
Answer:
Mr. Karnan : Thank you sir for responding to us at this time. There has been a theft in my house.
Policeman : It’s our duty, sir. I hope you haven’t touched anything inside the house.
Mr. Karnan : No sir, I made a call from my mobile as soon as we returned from the night show and found the front door open.
Policeman : Did you enter the house?
Mr. Karnan : Yes sir, just now. The burglars have stolen many of my household articles including money and jewellery.
Policeman: Don’t worry. We will find the culprits at the earliest.

Question 39.
Describe the process of making an omelette.
Answer:
Take an egg and beat the egg well with a fork or egg beater.
Finely chop a small onion, one green chilly, one pod of garlic, coriander leaves Mix the chopped ingredients to the beaten egg.
Add salt to taste and beat.
Heat a tava and add a spoon of oil.
Pour the mixture into the hot tava like a dosa.
Flip sides till it gets cooked on both sides.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(а) Familiarity breeds (friendship, contempt, malice)
(b) Fools rush in where angels fear to (tread, exit, enter)
(c) Give the devil his (share, profit, due)
Answer:
(a) contempt (b) tread (c) due

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
How did a casual incident in a hospital help Dr. Barnard perceive a new dimension of life?
Answer:
Initially Dr. Barnard was grumbling. He wondered why on earth he and his wife should have been subjected to agony and inconvenience. He couldn’t take his dad’s view that suffering ennobles human beings. But the little boys taught him a profound lesson of life. One should get on with the business of living irrespective of whatever misfortune strikes one.

You don’t become a better person because you suffered, your suffering does not ennoble you. But you become a better person because you have experienced suffering. It is not what you have lost is important. What is important is what you have left. We can appreciate light better once we have experienced darkness. Similarly, we can appreciate warmth only after experiencing cold.

[OR]

The ridge had Hillary and Tenzing two and half hours, but it seemed like lifetime. Why?
Answer:
Both Hillary and Tenzing reached a wide ledge. Hillary deeply felt the fierce determination that nothing could stop them from scaling the Himalayas. He took a stronghold on the ledge and signalled Tenzing to come up. With great difficulty Tenzing reached the way up the crack and collapsed like a giant fish hauled up from the ocean. There were giant cornices on the right and steep rock sloped on the left. The ridge curved away to the right. They had no idea where the peak was.

As Hillary cut around the back of one hump, another would swing anew to his view. Time seemed never-ending. Their original zest started diminishing. The climb was becoming a grim struggle. To their surprise, the ridge ahead now dropped sharply away. A few more whacks of the ice-axe in the firm snow, they stood on top. It was Question 11.30, the ridge had taken two and a half hours. But it seemed like a lifetime as they had to negotiate numerous ridges on the way.

Question 42.
Give the summary of the poem, “Our Casuarina Tree’.
Answer:
The poet Torn Dutt describes the perpetually young Casuarina tree in this poem. The tree is tall and mighty. A creeper winds around its huge and wide trunk like a python. Birds chirp happily. The poet is ecstatic seeing the tree from her casement / window. In fact, she greets the tree everyday soon after getting up from bed. She finds a baboon sitting like a statue on top of the tree. The cows are grazing in the lush green meadows around the tree. Water lilies add to the charm of the pond. She recalls that the tree is dear not because of its majestic looks but because of the nostalgic memories attached to it.

She remembers the happy times she had spent with her siblings, who are now no more, under the tree. They died of consumption. Their absence makes the tree much more endearing to the poet. Mysteriously she hears the grief- filled lament of the tree when she is on the shores of France and Italy. She consecrates the tree’s memory to her dear departed siblings. Taking inspiration from William Wordsworth’s poem ‘Yew-trees’, she also wishes to immortalize the Cauarina tree. So she sings about it in her poem.

[OR]

What is the role of the young soldier in the victory of the French at Ratisbon?
Answer:
The young soldier was one of the soldiers in the infantry division leading the battle. On storming Ratisbon, unmindful of the cannon fire, he climbed the flag post with French flag and hoisted it. He received the bullets in turn for his service to the emperor and French army. He did not succumb to the bullets immediately, he galloped on horse back to convey the news to emperor Napoleon Bonaparte himself.

He held on to life till he reached Napoleon and conveyed the happy news. He waited with abated breath to know the reaction of his great leader. When he expressed his sadness, his pride was hurt. He denied the emperor’s sympathy and said emphatically that he was killed. He fell down beside emperor Napoleon with a smiling face and died.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Ivan – tongue-tied – knife – moral shock – innocent victim – faith in justice – wife’s suspicion – loses hopes – belief in God – divine justice. Tsar’s judgement- mills of justice grind slow – Semyonich confesses – cruel joke
Answer:
Ivan is tongue-tied when the police finds knife in his bag. The moral shock he undergoes as an innocent victim of circumstances allows him to have faith injustice. But the moment his wife expresses her suspicion over his involvement in the murder, he loses all hopes. It is then that he starts believing in God and divine justice.

Tsar can’t give him freedom. His judgement is based on evidences given by crooked people. God need not be given any evidences of innocence. He knows the truth but his mills of justice grind very slow. Ivan loses interest in escaping or leaving the prison. He had no one to go back to. At this juncture, Semyonich confesses his guilt of murdering the merchant. When the pardon arrives as a cruel joke, Ivan is dead. So, ‘God knows the truth but waits’ is the most appropriate title for this story.

[OR]

Sermon on diligence – Roger demands half-day leave – value of hard work – an impartial judge – switches off attention – take notes – self-indulgent absent-mindedness – escapes – rewinds memory – hoodwinks the judge – interview the award committee – judge was quite impressed – Mr. Clay’s office – orderly mind – excel in any learned profession
Answer:
In the beginning of the play Roger demands half-day leave and that was enough for the judge to start his sermon on the value of hard work and his standing in the society as an impartial judge. Roger conveniently switches off his attention and pretends to take notes of the instructions of the judge. The judge almost catches in his self-indulgent absent-mindedness. Roger escapes by the skin of his teeth by just rewinding from his memory the oft-repeated story of his success.

He hoodwinks the judge as to the purpose of his demand for half-a-day leave by saying that he wanted to personally interview the award committee as to why they had not forwarded the documents. The judge was quite impressed. The judge asked him to walk to Mr. Clay’s office in the afternoon. He reiterated that diligence, courage and attention to details are required to cultivate an orderly mind. Without an orderly mind no man can hope to excel in any learned profession.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
Teaching is the noblest of vocations. A teacher has a sacred duty to perform. It is he on whom rests the responsibility of shaping the character of young children. Apart from developing their intellect, he can inculcate in them qualities of good citizenship, remaining neat and clean, talking decently and sitting properly. These virtues are not easy to be absorbed.

Only he who himself leads a life of simplicity, purity and rigid discipline can successfully cultivate these habits in his pupils. Besides a teacher always remains young. He may grow old in age, but not in spite. Perpetual contact with budding youth keeps him happy and cheerful. There are moments when domestic worries weigh heavily on his mind but the delightful company of innocent children makes him overcome his temporary moods of despair.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 133
No. of words to be written in the summary: 133/3 = 41 ± 5

Rough Draft
Teaching is the noblest vocation. A teacher has a sacred duty to perform the responsibility of shaping the character of young children. Apart from developing their intellect, he can inculcate good citizenship. Besides a teacher always remains young perpetual contact with the youth keeps him overcome his temporary moods of despair.

Fair draft Noble Profession
Teaching is the noblest vocation. A teacher himself leading a simple, pure and disciplined life can shape the character of the young children and make them neat and good mannered citizens. Besides he remains every young forgetting his own domestic worries in the constant company of the young.

No. of words in the summary: 48

Notes
Title: Noble Profession
Teachg – Noble Profession
sacred duty – mouldg charac
qlts A good citizenship
neat, clean,

Teachr – Forever Young
grow old in age but not in spite.
contact c budg youth .
domestic worries weigh heavily-delightful co. A innocent children overcomes

Abbreviations used: Mouldg – moulding; charac – character; A – of; qlts – qualities; Teachg – teaching; Teachr – teacher; c – with; budg-budding; co. – company

Question 45.
You are Roshini of 27-Railway Quarters, ICF, Chennai. Last week you bought a bluetooth speaker from ‘Universal Mobile’, 20L, Luz Corner, Chennai. The bluetooth speaker developed a problem within a few days of its purchase. Write a complaint letter to the dealer giving details of the nature of the problem and asking him/her to rectify the defect or replace the phone.
Answer:
26th March, 2019
From
Roshini
27-Railway Quarters
ICF
Chennai

To
M/s Universal Mobile
20L, Luz Corner
Chennai
Dear Sirs,

Sub: Defective Mobile Phone
I am a resident of ICF, Chennai. I purchased a JBL Clip 3 bluetooth speaker from Universal Mobile on 19th March, 20Question 20.1 am sorry to say that the speaker developed a problem within a few days of its purchase. The sound is quite unclear and irritating. I feel cheated to have such a defective mobile phone after spending more than twelve thousand mpees.

It is quite unfortunate that even after sending two reminders, you have shown no urgency to rectify the defects or replace the defective mobile set at the earliest. I hope you will do the needful within a week. I am sure you will not compel me to knock the doors of the Consumer Court for this unpleasant lapse of time on your part.

Yours sincerely
Roshini

Address on the envelope:
To
Universal Mobile, Luz Comer
Chennai

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “My ambition in life.”.
Answer:

My ambition in life

Taking a photo or posing for a photo is something that I have always enjoyed even as a small little kid. There’s one thing that gets me to do and excites me. It is photography and that really stands out from all the rest. I always think of going all over the world and take shots of everything worth-seeing. I want to stick to photography all the time. I think I will never get tired of it. Even as a kindergartener, I used to admire pictures taken and collect pictures.

I always asked my parents to get me a camera. For my 14th birthday, I was gifted an SLR because of my passion for photography. I know there’s so much I have to leam about photography and I am trying to leam more and more about it. I joined a photography class after my tenth exams. I always used to take part in competitions and win prizes. I think there are many people in my community who are really good at photography and present outstanding photographs regarding nature’s beauty and others.

Many of them held photography contests to motivate and encourage new photographers. I now have a craze to do Candid Photography. I know for sure that I can pursue this as a hobby as well as my profession. If you love your job, you will never feel the pressure of working and hence I have decided to become a photographer for my life.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(a) If I had known you were ill, I would visit you.
(b) He spoke the English perfectly.
(c) I am writing the essay when the bell rang.
(d) I and Sheela have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(e) It is an great honour.
Answer:
(a) If I had known you were ill, I would have visited you.
(b) He spoke English perfectly.
(c) I was writing the essay when the bell rang.
(d) Sheela and I have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(e) It is a great honour.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(а) My daughter who is just four …………………… (ears/years) old loves to play in the (sun/son)
(b) If it were not cold outside, I …………………… be much happier! (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) You …………………… finish reading this book by this weekend, (use a semi-modal)
(d) They …………………… (buy) sponges this week, (use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) years/sun (b) would (c) need to (d) will be buying

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) At the Sarangkheda horse fair in Maharashtra, local breeds attract buyers from as far as Saudi Arabia.
(b) My brother was awestruck at the western classical concert.
(c) Dhoni was declared the Man of the Series.
(d) French actress Catherine’s clothing was designed by her friend Yas for her next project.
(e) The investigations included megascopic and microscopic studies of rocks.
[Geology; Tourism; Music; Sports; Costume]
Answer:
(a) Tourism (b) Music (c) Sports (d) Costume (e) Geology

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.
Answer:
Black holes are one of the most mysterious and powerful forces in the universe. But what exactly are they? Are they simply holes that are black? Well, there’s more to it than that. A black hole is not a regular object with a surface area, like a planet. Instead, it’s an area in space where matter has literally collapsed onto itself. Black holes are formed when giant stars run out of energy. They end their life cycle and explode. This massive explosion is called a supernova. If the star has enough mass, it will collapse onto itself into a super small size.

Imagine an enormous mass squeezed into a tiny space. That space would become compact and dense. This causes the gravitational pull to be extremely strong. It will gobble up and absorb anything in its way, even gigantic stars. Nothing can move fast enough to escape its gravity. Not even light, the fastest thing in the universe! Black holes will gobble up anything and everything in their path, including light.

What happens to an object that gets sucked into a black hole? It will be literally stretched to its breaking point. Luckily, we don’t have to worry about black holes swallowing up our solar system. That’s because the nearest black hole is about 27,000 light-years away! Here’s a strange fact: black holes cannot actually be seen. That’s because they don’t deflect light. So how can we be certain they exist? Scientists discovered them by observing light and objects around them.

They noticed that black holes affected their surroundings like nearby dust, stars, and galaxies. Two different scientists from the 18th century named John Michell and Pierre-Simon Laplace first observed them. Then in 1967, a physicist named John Archibald Wheeler came up with the term “black hole”.

Black holes come in different sizes. Some are about the mass of one star. These are called “stellar” black holes. Others can grow and become huge. They may continue to absorb light, mass, and even stars around them. These are called “super-massive black holes.” They can be one million times more massive than our sun. Many scientists believe these super-massive black holes often exist right at the center of galaxies. In fact, we have one right in the middle of our very own Milky Way.

Questions:
a. Based on the information in the article, what is a black hole?
b. Who first discovered the existence of black holes?
c. Why are black holes dangerous?
d. Are all black holes the same size? Explain.
e. Why can’t black holes be seen?
Answers:
(a) A black hole is one of the most mysterious and powerful forces in the universe, an area in space where matter has collapsed in on itself.
(b) Two different scientists from the 18th century named John Michell and Pierre-Simon Laplace first discovered the existence of black holes.
(c) Black holes pull in anything that gets too close and stretch things to their breaking point and hence they are dangerous.
(d) No. Some black holes are the size of a single star. These are called stellar black holes. Others are the size of a million stars the size of our sun, or larger. These are called super- massive black holes.
(e) Black holes cannot actually be seen because they don’t deflect light. They can only be discovered by observing light and objects around them.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics

November 2, 2023

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 2 Optics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Optics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31,1.43,1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:
(a) A

Question 2.
Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is obtained by a convex lens:
(a) f
(b) 2f
(c) infinity
(d) between f and 2f
Answer:
(b) 2f

Question 3.
Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained by a convex lens ______.
(a) f
(b) 2f
(c) infinity
(d) between f and 2f.
Answer:
(b) 2f

Question 4.
Magnification of a convex lens is _____.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 5.
A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at:
(a) focus
(b) infinity
(c) at 2f
(d) between f and 2f
Answer:
(b) infinity

Question 6.
Power of a lens is -4D, then its focal length is:
(a) 4 m
(b) -40 m
(c) -0.25 m
(d) -2.5 m
Answer:
(d) -2.5 m

Question 7.
In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed _____.
(a) behind the retina
(b) on the retina
(c) in front of the retina
(d) on the blind spot.
Answer:
(c) in front of the retina

Question 8.
The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by:
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) convex mirror
(d) Bi focal lenses
Answer:
(d) Bi focal lenses

Question 9.
Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
Answer:
(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm

Question 10.
If V_B, V_G, V_R be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?
(a) V_B = V_G = V_R
(b) V_B > V_G > V_R
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R
(d) V_B < V_G > V_R
Answer:
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R

II. Fill in the blanks.

The path of the light is called as ………
The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than ……….
If the energy of incident beam and the scattered beam are same, then the ………. scattering of light is called as scattering ……….
According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its ……….
Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by ……….

Answer:

ray
unity
elastic
wavelength
iris

III. True or False. If false correct it.

Velocity of light is greater in denser medium than in rarer medium.
The power of lens depends on the focal length of the lens.
Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’
The convex lens always gives small virtual image.

Answer:

False – Velocity of light is greater in rarer medium than in denser medium.
True
True
False – The convex lens does not give small virtual image always.

IV. Match the following.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 1
Answer:
1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

V. Assertion and reasoning type.

Mark the correct choice as-
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
1. Assertion: If the refractive index of the medium is high (denser medium) the velocity of the light in that medium will be small
Reason: Refractive index of the medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of the light.

2. Assertion: Myopia is due to the increase in the converging power of eye lens.
Reason: Myopia can be corrected with the help of concave lens.
Answer:
1. (a)
2. (a)

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is refractive index?
Answer:
Refractive index gives us an idea of how fast or how slow light travels in a medium.

Question 2.
State Snell’s law.
Answer:
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
$\frac{sin i}{sin r}$ = $\frac{µ_2}{µ_1}$

Question 3.
Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 2

Question 4.
Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 5.
State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that, “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering ‘S’ ∝$\frac{1}{λ^4}$

Question 6.
Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 3

Question 7.
What is the power of accommodation of the eye?
Answer:

The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called the power of accommodation of the eye.
This is achieved by changing the focal length of the eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.

Question 8.
What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
Answer:

The lengthening of eye ball.
The focal length of eye lens is reduced.
The distance between eye lens and retina increases.
The far point will not be at infinity.
The far point comes closer.

Question 9.
Why does the sky appear blue in colour?
Answer:
When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the blue colour (shorter wavelength) is scattered to a greater extent than the red colour (longer wavelength). This scattering causes the sky to appear blue in colour.

Question 10.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

Red light has the highest wavelength.
It is scattered by atmospheric particles.
So red light is able to travel the longest distance through a fog, rain etc.

VII. Give the answer in detail.

Question 1.
List any five properties of light?
Answer:

Light is a form of energy.
Light always travels along a straight line.
Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through a vacuum.
The speed of light in vacuum or air is, c = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
Since light is in the form of waves, it is characterized by a wavelength (λ) and a frequency (v), which are related by the following equation: c = vλ (c = velocity of light).
Different coloured light has a different wavelength and frequency.

Question 2.
Explain the rules for obtaining images formed by a convex lens with the help of ray diagram.
Answer:
Rule-1: When a ray of light strikes the convex or concave lens obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 4
Rule-2: When rays parallel to the principal axis strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted rays are converged to (convex lens) or appear to diverge from (concave lens) the principal focus.

Rule-3: When a ray passing through (convex lens) or directed towards (concave lens) the principal focus strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted ray will be parallel to the principal axis.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 6

Question 3.
Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 7

Question 4.
Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.
Answer:
Construction : A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called as ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’. The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eye piece’. Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working : The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of objective lens (u > F₀). A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens. This image behaves as the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (B’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eye piece. This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A”B”) on the same side of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 8
Compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than simple microscope.

VIII. Numerical Problems.

Question 1.
An object is placed at a distance 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the image distance and nature of the image.
Answer:
Distance of an object u = 20 cm
Focal length of a convex lens f = 10 cm
Let the image distance be v
We know
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 9
v = 20 cm
Magnification m = $\frac{v}{u}$ = $\frac{20}{20}$ = 1
Hence a real image of same size is formed at 20 cm.
Image distance = 20 cm

Question 2.
An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the size of the image.
Answer:
Object distance u = 10 cm
Focal length of a concave lens f= -15 cm
Let v be the image distance,
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 10
Distance of image v = 6 cm
Magnification m = $\frac{v}{u}$ = $\frac{6}{10}$ = 0.6
And Magnification m = $\frac{h’}{h}$
Where h’ – height of image
h – height of object
0.6 = $\frac{h’}{3}$
∴ h’ = 3 × 0.6 = 1.8 cm
∴ Height of image = 1.8 cm

IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions.

Question 1.
While doing an experiment for the determination of focal length of a convex lens, Raja Suddenly dropped the lens. It got broken into two halves along the axis. If he continues his experiment with the same lens,
(a) can he get the image?
(b) Is there any change in the focal length?
Answer:
(a) He can get the image.
(b) The focal length of the lens will be doubled.

Question 2.
The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are having a large cornea and a large pupil. How does it help them?
Answer:

The large pupil opens wider and allows the maximum amount of light to enter the eye in the dark.
Their lens is large and situated near the retina. This also allows a lot of light to register on the retina. The retina contains 2 types of light-sensing cells rods and cones.
Cones are responsible for the coloured vision and require bright, focused light.
Rods are extremely sensitive to light and have a photosensitive pigment called rhodopsin which plays a vital role in night vision.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The scattering of sun light by the atoms or molecules of the gases in the Earth’s atmosphere is known as:
(a) Mie scattering
(b) Tyndall scattering
(c) Rayleigh scattering
(d) Raman scattering
Answer:
(c) Rayleigh scattering

Question 2.
Mie scattering is responsible for the _____ appearance of the clouds.
(a) red
(b) blue
(c) colourless
(d) white.
Answer:
(d) white

Question 3.
In an inelastic scattering the energy of the incident beam of light is ……….. that of scattering beam.
(a) greater than
(b) less than
(c) equal to
(d) different from
Answer:
(d) different from

Question 4.
As per Rayleigh’s scattering law, amount of scattering is:
(a) directly proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength
(b) inversely proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength
(c) inversely proportioanl to square of wavelength
(d) directly proportional to square of wavelength
Answer:
(b) inversely proportioanl to fourth power of wavelength

Question 5.
The refractive index of a medium is dependent on the _____ of the light.
(a) wavelength
(b) strength
(c) density
(d) refraction.
Answer:
(a) wavelength

Question 6.
The scattering of light by colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called:
(a) Raman scattering
(b) Tyndall scattering
(c) Mie scattering
(d) Elastic scattering
Answer:
(b) Tyndall scattering

Question 7.
A piece of transparent material bounded by curved surfaces is called:
(a) mirror
(b) prism
(c) slab
(d) lens
Answer:
(d) lens

Question 8.
If the energy of the incident and the scattered beam of light are not the same, then it is called as _____.
(a) Elastic
(b) Raman
(c) Inelastic
(d) Mie.
Answer:
(c) Inelastic

Question 9.
A convex lens does not produce:
(a) real magnified image
(b) virtual magnified image
(c) virtual diminished image
(d) real diminished image
Answer:
(c) virtual diminished image

Question 10.
A lens which is thicker in the middle than at the edges is known as:
(a) concave lens
(b) convex lens
(c) bifocal lens
(d) cylindrical lens
Answer:
(b) convex lens

Question 11.
The object is always placed on the _____ side of the lens.
(a) left
(b) right
(c) top
(d) bottom.
Answer:
(a) left

Question 12.
The parallel rays from the outer edge are deviated towards the middle in a:
(a) convex mirror
(b) concave lens
(c) concave mirror
(d) convex lens
Answer:
(d) convex lens

Question 13.
The light rays passing through the optic centre will:
(a) diverged
(b) scattered
(c) converged
(d) emerge undeviated
Answer:
(d) emerge undeviated

Question 14.
All the distances are measured from the ______ of the lense.
(a) centre of curvature
(b) optical centre
(c) principal focus
(d) infinity.
Answer:
(b) optical centre

Question 15.
A ray passing through the principal focus and incident on the lens will:
(a) converge
(b) diverge
(c) emerge parallel to the principal axis
(d) not emerge out
Answer:
(c) emerge parallel to the principal axis

Question 16.
When the object is placed at infinity from the convex lens, the image is formed at:
(a) F
(b) C
(c) infinity
(d) between F and 2F
Answer:
(a) F

Question 17.
The human eye is ____ in nature.
(a) convex
(b) concave
(c) transparent glass
(d) Plano – concave.
Answer:
(a) convex

Question 18.
The image formed by a concave lens is:
(a) virtual
(b) diminished
(c) virtual and diminished
(d) virtual and enlarged
Answer:
(c) virtual and diminished

Question 19.
To get a real image using convex lens, the object must be placed at:
(a) infinity
(b) principal focus
(c) beyond principal focus and infinity
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 20.
_____ is the centre part of the iris.
(a) cornea
(b) retina
(c) pupil
(d) eye lens.
Answer:
(c) pupil

Question 21.
For a convex lens the point at which the parallel rays converge is called of the lens.
(a) pole
(b) centre of curvature
(c) principal focus
(d) none
Answer:
(c) principal focus

Question 22.
A real image formed by a convex lens is always:
(a) erect
(b) magnified
(c) inverted
(d) diminished
Answer:
(c) inverted

Question 23.
The law of distances is given by:

Answer:
(b) $\frac{1}{f}$ = $\frac{1}{u}$ + $\frac{1}{v}$

Question 24.
The unit of focal length is:
(a) dioptre
(b) metre
(c) ohm
(d) ampere
Answer:
(b) metre

Question 25.
The sign of focal length of a convex lens is ………. sign.
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) negative or positive
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) positive

Question 26.
The focal length of concave lens has ……… sign.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) positive or negative
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 27.
The magnification in terms of object distance u and image distance v is m :
(a) $\frac{u}{v}$
(b) u + v
(c) $\frac{v}{u}$
(d) uv
Answer:
(c) $\frac{v}{u}$

Question 28.
In terms of object distance u and focal length/, magnification is given by m =
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 12
Answer:
(b) $\frac{f}{u-f}$

Question 29.
The magnification in terms of v and/:
(a) f
(b) v – f
(c) $\frac{f}{v-f}$
(d) $\frac{v-f}{f}$
Answer:
(d) $\frac{v-f}{f}$

Question 30.
The unit of power is:
(a) m
(b) ohm
(C) dioptre
(d) ampere
Answer:
(C) dioptre

Question 31.
If the focal length of a convex lens is 1 m then its power is:
(a) 1 dioptre
(b) 0.1 dioptre
(c) 10 dioptre
(d) 0.01 dioptre
Answer:
(a) 1 dioptre

Question 32.
In a simple microscope, the magnification can be increased by:
(a) lens of long focal length
(b) lens
(c) lens of short focal length
(d) lens of infinite focal length
Answer:
(c) lens of short focal length

Question 33.
Convex lenses are used:
(a) as camera lenses
(b) as magnifying lenses
(c) to correct hypermetropia
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 34.
Which lens is used in wide angle spyhole in doors?
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) parabolic lens
Answer:
(b) concave lens

Question 35.
The mathematical form of lens maker’s formula is:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 13
Answer:
(a)

Question 36.
If f is the focal length of the lens then its power is given by:
(a) P = $\frac{2}{f}$
(b) p = $\frac{1}{f}$
(c) p = f
(d) p = f₁
Answer:
(b) p = $\frac{1}{f}$

Question 37.
Which part of the human eye changes the focal length of the eye lens?
(a) pupil
(b) retina
(c) ciliary muscles
(d) cornea
Answer:
(c) ciliary muscles

Question 38.
On which part of human eye, image is formed?
(a) cornea
(b) iris
(c) retina
(d) pupil
Answer:
(c) retina

Question 39.
For normal human eye the value of near point is:
(a) 25 cm
(b) 25 m
(c) 2.5 m
(d) 25 mm
Answer:
(a) 25 cm

Question 40.
In hypermeteropia, the focal length of the eye lens is:
(a) decreased
(b) remains the same
(c) increased
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) increased

Question 41.
Presbyopia can be corrected by using:
(a) convex lens
(b) bifocal lens
(c) concave lens
(d) cylindrical lens
Answer:
(b) bifocal lens

Question 42.
Astigmatism can be corrected by using:
(a) bifocal lens
(b) cylindrical lens
(c) convex lens
(d) concave lens
Answer:
(b) cylindrical lens

Question 43.
The magnifying power of compound microscope is:
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 50 to 200
Answer:
(d) 50 to 200

Question 44.
The accuracy of travelling microscope is of the order of:
(a) 0.01 cm
(b) 0.01 mm
(c) 0.1 mm
(d) 0.1 cm
Answer:
(b) 0.01 mm

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The velocity of light in vacuum is ……….
2. If v is the frequency and λ is the wavelength then velocity of the wave is c = ……….
3. Among colours of visible light ……… colour has the highest wavelength.
4. According to Snell’s law refractive index, µ₂ = ……….
5. In a medium having high value of refractive index then speed of light in that medium is ……….
6. Angle of refraction is the smallest for ……… and the highest for ……….
7. The refractive index depends on ………. of light.
8. Colours having shorter wavelength scattered more than longer wavelength colours according to ……….. law.
9. After passing through a convex lens ……….. rays ………. at the principal focus.
10. For a convex lens, as the object distance increases, the image distance ……….
11. A ray passing through the optic centre of a lens emerges …………
12. ……… is due to irregular curvature of the surface of the eye lens.
13. When a parallel beam of light passes through a convex lens, the rays from the outer edges are …………
14. A ray parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens after refraction passes through …………
15. When the object is placed between ………….. and ………… of a convex lens a virtual image will be formed.
16. For a convex lens, as the object approaches the lens the image becomes …………
17. In a phographic camera ………… lens is used.
18. The shorter the focal length, the ………. is the magnification.
19. The nature of the image formed by a simple microscope is ……….., ………… and …………
20. Real images are formed by a ……….. lens.
21. Concave lens produces ………… images.
22. The value of power of a lens having focal length one metre is ………..
23. For a normal eye the value of far point is …………
24. …………. is known as short sightedness.
25. Hyper metropia is known as ………..
26. The mathematical form of focal length of a concave lens used to correct myopia is f = ……….
27. ……….. lenses are used to correct astigmatism.
28. For a normal eye, the value of least distance of distinct vision is ………..
29. The objective of the compound microscope has …………. focal length.
30. The focal length of ………. is greater in a compound microscope.
31. ……… is an optical instrument to see the distant objects.
32. A terrestrial telescope produces ……… image.
33. Elaborate view of galaxies and planets is obtained by ………
Answer:
1. 3 × 10⁸ m/s
2. vλ
3. red
4. $\frac{sin i}{sin r}$
5. low
6. red, violet
7. wavelength
8. Rayleigh scattering
9. parallel, converge
10. will decrease
11. undeviated
12. Astigmatism
13. deviated towards the centre of the lens
14. the principal focus
15. principal focus, optical centre
16. bigger
17. biconvex
18. greater
19. virtual, erect, magnified
20. convex
21. virtual
22. One dioptre
23. infinity
24. Myopia
25. long sightedness
26. xy/x – y
27. Cylindrical
28. 25 cm
29. shorter
30. eye piece
31. Telescope
32. an erect
33. Telescope

III. True or False. If false correct it.

1. Light does not travel along a straight line.
2. All coloured light has same wavelength.
3. In refraction incident ray, refracted ray and normal lie in the same plane.
4. Velocity of light is greater in rarer medium is greater than that in denser medium.
5. For red colour angle of refraction is the least.
6. The refractive index of a medium ¡s independent of wavelength.
7. Tyndall scattering, is the scattering of light by colloids.
8. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, red colour is scattered to a greater extent than blue colour.
9. Mie scattering takes place when the diameter is larger than the wavelength of the incident light.
10. The lines in Raman scattering having frequencies lower than the incident frequency are called Antistoke’s lines.
11. In front of a convex lens when the object is placed at infinity the formed image is smaller than that of the object.
12. When an object is placed at finite distance from the concave lens a virtual image is formed between optical centre and focus of the concave lens.
13. Pupil of human eye bends the incident light on to the lens.
14. For a normal human eye, the value of far point is 25 cm.
15. Astigmatism is corrected by cylindrical lenses.
Answer:
1. False – Light always travels along a straight lines.
2. False – Different coloured light has different wavelength.
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False – The refractive index of a medium depends on wavelength.
7. True
8. False – According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, blue colour is scattered to a greater extent than red colour.
9. True
10. False – The lines in Raman scattering having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistoke’s lines.
11. True
12. True
13. False – Cornea of human eye bends the incident light on to the lens.
14. False – For a normal human eye, the value of near point is 25 cm.
15. True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.
Match the column I with column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 14
Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 2.
Position of the object placed infront of a convex lens are given in Column
I. Match them with the natures of the images formed by the convex lens given in column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 15
Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the following:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 16
Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 17
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 18
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)

Question 6.
Match the column I with column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 19
Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

Question 7.
Match the Column I with Column II.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 20
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

V. Assertion and Reasoning type.

Question 1.
Assertion : The sun looks bigger in size at sunrise and sunset than during day.
Reason : In detraction light rays bend around the edges of the obstacle.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Colours can be scan in thin layers of oil on the surface water. Reason: White light is composed of several colours.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Raman spectrum of a liquids contains lines whose frequencies are not equal to that of incident radiation.
Reason: If a photon strikes an atom in a liquid that is in existed state photon losses energy.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: The refractive index of a prism depends only on the material of the prism.
Reason: The refractive index of a prism depends upon the refracting angle and angel of minimum deviation.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 5.
Assertion: A single lens produces a coloured image of an object illuminated by white light.
Reason: The refractive index of material of lens is different for different wavelength of light.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: If a convex lens is placed in water, its convergence power decrease.
Reason: Focal length of lens is independent of refractive index of the medium.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Question 7.
Assertion: Light waves travel in straight lines.
Reason: Rectilinear propagation of light confirm the above mentioned properly.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Raman scattering the scattering of monochromatic light by atoms and molecule of a liquid.
Reason: The wavelength of Raman lines is same.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 9.
Assertion: Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length.
Reason: The unit of power is one dioptre when the unit of focal length is one metre.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 10.
Assertion: Presbyopia is due to ageing of human beings.
Reason: For those persons, ciliary muscles of the eye become weak.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is meant by refraction?
Answer:
When a ray of light travels from one transparent medium into another obliquely, the path of the light undergoes deviation. This deviation of ray of light is called refraction.

Question 2.
State laws of refraction.
Answer:
First law of refraction: The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.

Second law of refraction: The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
$\frac{sin i}{sin r}$ = $\frac{µ_2}{µ_1}$

Question 3.
Define refractive index of a medium.
Answer:
The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as refractive index ‘p’ of that medium.

Question 4.
What is meant by monochromatic source?
Answer:
If a source of light produces a light of single colour, it is known as a monochromatic source.

Question 5.
When white light is refracted by a transparent medium what will you get? Why?
Answer:

When white light is refracted by a transparent medium, a spectrum is obtained.
This is because, different coloured lights are bent through different angles.

Question 6.
What is scattering of light?
Answer:
When sunlight enters the Earth’s atmosphere, the atoms and molecules of different gases present in the atmosphere refract the light in all possible directions. This is called as ‘Scattering of light’.

Question 7.
State the types of scattering.
Answer:

Elastic scattering
Inelastic scattering

Question 8.
What is elastic scattering?
Answer:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.

Question 9.
What is inelastic scattering?
Answer:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

Question 10.
How are different types of scattering formed? Mention the types of scattering.
Answer:
The nature and size of the scatterer results in different types of scattering. They are

Rayleigh scattering
Mie scattering
Tyndall scattering
Raman scattering

Question 11.
What is Rayleigh scattering?
Answer:
The scattering of sunlight by the atoms or molecules of the gases in the earth’s atmosphere is known as Rayleigh scattering.

Question 12.
Why the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset?
Answer:
At sunrise and sunset, the light rays from the Sun have to travel a larger distance in the atmosphere than at noon. Hence, most of the blue lights are scattered away and only the red light which gets least scattered reaches us. Therefore, the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset.

Question 13.
When does Mie scattering take place?
Answer:
Mie scattering takes place when the diameter of the scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light.

Question 14.
What are the causes of Mie scattering?
Answer:
Mie scattering is caused by pollen, dust, smoke, water droplets, and other particles in the lower portion of the atmosphere.

Question 15.
Why the clouds have white appearance?
Answer:
Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds. When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which together form the white light.

Question 16.
What is Tyndall Scattering?
Answer:
The scattering of light rays by the colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called Tyndall Scattering or Tyndall Effect.

Question 17.
What is meant by colloid? State few examples.
Answer:
Colloid is a microscopically small substance that is equally dispersed throughout another material. Eg: Milk, Ice cream, muddy water, smoke.

Question 18.
What is meant by Raman Scattering?
Answer:
When a parallel beam of monochromatic (single coloured) light passes through a gas or liquid or transparent solid, a part of light rays are scattered.

Question 19.
Define Raman Scattering.
Answer:
Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

Question 20.
What is Rayleigh line?
Answer:
The spectral lines having frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ‘Rayleigh line’.

Question 21.
What are Raman lines?
Answer:
The spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called ‘Raman lines’.

Question 22.
What are stokes lines and Antistokes lines?
Answer:
The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines and the lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 23.
What is a lens?
Answer:
A lens is an optically transparent medium bounded by two spherical refracting surfaces or one plane and one spherical surface.

Question 24.
How is lens classified?
Answer:
Lens is basically classified into two types. They are:

Convex Lens
Concave Lens.

Question 25.
What is biconvex lens?
Answer:
Convex or bi-convex lens: It is a lens bounded by two spherical surfaces such that it is thicker at the centre than at the edges. A beam of light passing through it, is converged to a point. So, a convex lens is also called as converging lens.

Question 26.
What is meant by biconcave lens?
Answer:
Concave or bi-concave Lens: It is a lens bounded by two spherical surfaces such that it is thinner at the centre than at the edges. A parallel beam of light passing through it, is diverged or spread out. So, a concave lens is also called as diverging lens.

Question 27.
What are
(i) Plano-convex lens?
(ii) Plano-concave lens?
Answer:
(i) If one of the faces of a bi-convex lens is plane, it is known as a plano-convex lens.
(ii) If one of the faces of a bi-concave lens is plane, it is known as a plano-concave lens.

Question 28.
State the applications of convex lenses.
Answer:

Convex lenses are used as camera lenses.
They are used as magnifying lenses.
They are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
They are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.

Question 29.
Draw diagrams of different types converging lenses.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 21

Question 30.
Represent different types of lenses by diagram.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 22

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 23
Question 31.
What is the nature of the image formed by an object is placed behind the centre of curvature of a convex leas. Draw a ray diagram.
Answer:
When an object is placed behind the center of curvature (beyond C), a real and inverted image is formed between the center of curvature and the principal focus. The size of the image is the same as that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 24

Question 32.
Draw a ray diagram to indicate the nature of the image formed when an object is placed in between the centre of curvature and principal focus of a convex lens.
Answer:
When an object is placed in between the center of curvature and principal focus, a real and inverted image is formed behind the center of curvature. The size of the image is bigger than that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 25

Question 33.
Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image (by the concave lens) when object is at infinity.
Answer:
When an object is placed at infinity, a virtual image is formed at the focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 26

Question 34.
What are the applications of concave lens?
Answer:

Concave lenses are used as eye lens of‘Galilean Telescope’.
They are used in wide angle spy hole in doors.
They are used to correct the defect of vision called ‘myopia’.

Question 35.
What do you know about lens formula?
Answer:
The lens formula gives the relationship among distance of the object (u), distance of the image (v) and the focal length (f) of the lens. It is expressed as
$\frac{1}{f}$ = $\frac{1}{v}$ – $\frac{1}{u}$

Question 36.
Define magnification.
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of an object. Magnification is denoted by the letter ‘m’. If height of the object is h and height of the image is h’, the magnification produced by lens is,
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 27

Question 37.
What is lens formula?
Answer:
The lens formula relates the focal length of a lens with the distance of object and image.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 28
where µ is the refractive index of the material of the lens; R₁ and R₂ are the radii of curvature of the two faces of the lens; f is the focal length of the lens.

Question 38.
What is meant by power of lens?
Answer:
The ability of a lens to converge (convex lens) or diverge (concave lens) light rays is called as its power.

Question 39.
Define power of a lens. State its unit.
Answer:
Power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
P = $\frac{1}{f}$
The SI unit of power of a lens is dioptre.

Question 40.
What is meant by dioptre.
Answer:
Dioptre is the power of a lens, whose focal length is 1 metre.
1 Dioptre = 1 m^-1.

Question 41.
Differentiate convex lens from concave lens.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 29

Question 42.
What are
(i) Pupil &
(ii) Retina?
Answer:
(i) Pupil: It is the centre part of the Iris. It is the pathway for the light to retina.
(ii) Retina: This is the back surface of the eye. It is the most sensitive part of human eye, on which real and inverted image of objects is formed.

Question 43.
What is persistence of vision?
Answer:
If the time interval between two consecutive light pulses is less than 0.1 second, human eye cannot distinguish them separately. It is called persistence of vision.

Question 44.
What is least distance of distinct vision?
Answer:
The minimum distance required to see the objects distinctly without strain is called least distance of distinct vision. It is called as near point of eye. It is 25 cm for normal human eye.

Question 45.
What is far point?
Answer:
The maximum distance up to which the eye can see objects clearly is called as far point of the eye.

Question 46.
What is Presbyopia?
Answer:
Due to ageing, ciliary muscles become weak and the eye-lens become rigid (inflexible) and so the eye loses its power of accommodation. Because of this, an aged person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. So, it is also called as ‘old age hypermetropia’.

Question 47.
What is meant by astigmatism?
Answer:
In this defect, eye cannot see parallel and horizontal lines clearly. It may be inherited or acquired. It is due to the imperfect structure of eye lens because of the development of cataract on the lens, ulceration of cornea, injury to the . refracting surfaces, etc. Astigmatism can be corrected by using cylindrical lenses (Torrid lenses).

Question 48.
State the principle of microscope. How is it classified?
Answer:
It works under the principle of angular magnification of lenses. It is classified as

Simple microscope
Compound microscope

Question 49.
What are the uses of simple microscope?
Answer:
Simple microscopes are used

By watch repairers and jewellers.
To read small letters clearly.
To observe parts of flower, insects etc.
To observe finger prints in the field of forensic science.

Question 50.
How is telescope classified?
Answer:
According to optical property, it is classified into two groups:

refracting telescope
reflecting telescope

Question 51.
Mention the advantages of telescope.
Answer:

Elaborate view of the Galaxies, Planets, stars and other heavenly bodies is possible.
Camera can be attached for taking photograph for the celestial objects.
Telescope can be viewed even with the low intensity of light.

Question 52.
What are the disadvantages of telescope?
Answer:

Frequent maintenance is needed.
It is not easily portable.

VII. Give the answer in Detail.

Question 1.
State the Laws of Refraction.
Answer:
The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.
Second law of Refraction:

The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
$\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}$
Refractive index gives us an idea of how fast or how slow light travels in a medium. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as the refractive index ‘µ’ of that medium.
The speed of light in a medium is low if the refractive index of the medium is high and vice versa.
When light travels from a denser medium into a rarer medium, the refracted ray is bent away from the normal drawn to the interface.
When light travels from a rarer medium into a denser medium, the refracted ray is bent towards the normal drawn to the interface.

Question 2.
Describe Raman Scattering.
Answer:
When a parallel beam of monochromatic (single coloured) light passes through a gas or liquid or transparent solid, a part of light rays are scattered.

The scattered light contains some additional frequencies (or wavelengths) other than that of incident frequency (or wavelength). This is known as Raman scattering or Raman Effect.

Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

The spectral lines having frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ‘Rayleigh line’ and the spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called ‘Raman lines’. The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines and the lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 3.
With the help of ray diagram, explain the nature, size and position of the image formed by a convex lens. When object is placed at
(i) infinity
(ii) beyond C
(iii) placed at C
(iv) Placed between F and C,
(v) placed at F
(vi) placed between F and optical centre O.
Answer:
(i) Object at infinity: When an object is placed at infinity, a real image is formed at the principal focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 30

(ii) Object placed beyond C (>2F): When an object is placed behind the center of curvature(beyond C), a real and inverted image is formed between the center of curvature and the principal focus. Th e size of the image is the same as that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 31

(iii) Object placed at C: When an object is placed at the center of curvature, a real and inverted image is formed at the other center of curvature. The size of the image is the same as that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 32

(iv) Object placed between F and C: When an object is placed in between the center of curvature and principal focus, a real and inverted image is formed behind the center of curvature. The size of the image is bigger than that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 33

(v) Object placed at the principal focus F: When an object is placed at the focus, a real image is formed at infinity. The size of the image is much larger than that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 34

(vi) Object placed between the principal focus F and optical centre O: When an object is placed in between principal focus and optical centre, a virtual image is formed. The size of the image is larger than that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 35

Question 4.
Explain the formation of images formed by a concave lens.
Answer:
Object at Infinity: When an object is placed at infinity, a virtual image is formed at the focus. The size of the image is much smaller than that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 36

Object anywhere on the principal axis at a finite distance: When an object is placed at a finite distance from the lens, a virtual image is formed between optical center and focus of the concave lens. The size of the image is smaller than that of the object.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 37

But, as the distance between the object and the lens is decreased, the distance between the image and the lens also keeps decreasing. Further, the size of the image formed increases as the distance between the object and the lens is decreased.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 38

Question 5.
Explain Mie Scattering.
Answer:
Mie scattering:

Mie scattering takes place when the diameter of the Scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light. It is also an elastic scattering.
The amount of scattering is independent of wavelength.
Mie scattering is caused by pollen, dust, smoke, water droplets, and other particles in the lower portion of the atmosphere.
Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds.
When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which, together form the white light.

Question 6.
With the help of a diagram, explain the structure and working of human eye.
Answer:
Structure of the eye:
The eye ball is approximately spherical in shape with a diameter of about 2.3 cm. It consists of a tough membrane called sclera, which protects the internal parts of the eye.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 39
Cornea : This is the thin and transparent layer on the front surface of the eyeball as shown in figure. It is the main refracting surface. When light enters through the cornea, it refracts or bends the light on to the lens.

Iris : It is the coloured part of the eye. It may be blue, brown or green in colour. Every person has a unique colour, pattern and texture. Iris controls amount of light entering into the pupil like camera aperture.

Pupil : It is the centre part of the Iris. It is the pathway for the light to retina.

Retina : This is the back surface of the eye. It is the most sensitive part of human eye, on which real and inverted image of objects is formed.

Ciliary muscles : Eye lens is fixed between the ciliary muscles. It helps to change the focal length of the eye lens according to the position of the object.

Eye Lens : It is the important part of human eye. It is convex in nature.

Working of the eye : The transparent layer cornea bends the light rays through pupil located at the centre part of the Iris. The adjusted light passes through the eye lens. Eye lens is convex in nature. So, the light rays from the objects are converged and a real and inverted image is formed on retina. Then, retina passes the received real and inverted image to the brain through optical nerves. Finally, the brain senses it as erect image.

Question 7.
Describe simple microscope.
Answer:
Simple microscope: It has a convex lens of short focal length. It is held near the eye to get enlarged image of small objects.
Let an object (AB) is placed at a point within the principal focus (u < f) of the convex lens and the observer’s eye is placed just behind the lens. As per this position the convex lens produces an erect, virtual and enlarged image (A’B’), The image formed is in the same side of the object and the distance equal to the least distance of distinct vision (D) (For normal human eye D = 25 cm).
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 40

Question 8.
Write short notes on
(i) Astronomical telescope
(ii) Terrestrial telescope.
Answer:
(i) Astronomical Telescope: An astronomical telescope is used to view heavenly bodies like stars, planets, galaxies and satellites.

(ii) Terrestrial Telescope: The image in an astronomical telescope is inverted. So, it is not suitable for viewing objects on the surface of the Earth. Therefore, a terrestrial telescope is used. It provides an erect image. The major difference between astronomical and terrestrial telescope is erecting the final image with respect to the object.

VIII. Numerical Problems.

Question 1.
A needle of size 5 cm is placed 45 cm from a lens produced an image on a screen placed 90 cm away from the lens.
Answer:
(i) Identify the types of lens.
Calculate focal length of the lens.
Height of the object h₁ = 5 cm
Distance of the object u = -45 cm
Distance of the image v = 90 cm
We know that
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 41
Focal length of the lens = 30 cm
Since focal length is positive the lens is convex lens.

(ii) Identify the size of the image
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 42
∴ h₂ = -10 cm
The negative sign indicates that the image is real and inverted.

Question 2.
A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image 10 cm from the lens?
Answer:
v = -10 cm; f =-15 cm; u = ?
Lens formula:
$\frac{1}{f}$ = $\frac{1}{v}$ – $\frac{1}{u}$
Type of lens: Concave lens
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 43
u =-30 cm
Thus, the object distance is 30 cm.

Question 3.
An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. An erect and virtual image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. Calculate the magnification.
Answer:
Type of lens is Cancave lens.
Formula:
Magnification m = $\frac{v}{u}$
Object distance u = -30 cm
Image distance v = -10 cm
m = $\frac{-10}{-30}$ = $\frac{1}{3}$ = +0.33

Question 4.
The focal length of a concave lens is 2 cm. Calculate the power of the lens.
Answer:
Formula:
P = $\frac{1}{f}$
Type of lens is concave lens.
Focal length of concave lens,
f = -2 m power of the lens.
P = $\frac{1}{-2 m}$
P = -0.5 dioptre

Question 5.
A needle placed at 30 cm from the lens forms an image on a screen placed 60 cm on the other side of the lens. Identify the type of lens and determine the focal length.
Answer:
u = -30 cm
v = 60 cm
u is negative because image is formed on the on the other side of the lens.
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 44
It is a convex lens.

Question 6.
A 3 cm tall bulb is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a diverging lens having a focal length of 10.5 cm. Determine the distance of the image.
Answer:
u = -20 cm
f = -10.5 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 45
The distance of the image is -6.88 cm

Question 7.
A ray from medium 1 is refracted below while passing through medium 2. Find the refractive index of the second medium with respect to medium 1.
Answer:
Refractive index µ
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 46
Refractive index = 0.707

Question 8.
The optical prescription of a pair of spectacle is
Right eye: -3.5 D, Left eye: -4.00 D.
(i) Name the defect of the eye.
Answer:
Shortsighted (Myopia)

(ii) Are these lenses thinner at the middle or at the edges?
Answer:
These lenses are thinner in the middle.

(iii) Which lens has a greater focal length?
Answer:
power = $\frac{1}{focal length}$
Right eye: power P = -3.5 D

Left eye: Power P = -4 D

Hence the lens having power of -3.5 D has greater focal length.

Question 9.
The radii of curvature of two surfaces of a double convex lens are 10 cm each. Calculate its focal length and power of the lens in air and liquid. Refractive indices of glass and liquid are 1.5 and 1.8 respectively.
Answer:
Radius of curvature of first surface R₁ = 10 cm
Radius of curvature of second surface R₂ = 10 cm
In air
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 49
p_l = -3.33 d

Question 10.
An object 2 cm tall is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed.
Answer:
Focal length of a convex lens f = 15 × 10^-2 m
Weight of the object ho = 2 × 10^-2 m
Let weight of the image be h_v
Distance of the object u = 10 × 10^-2 m
Distance of the image v = 15 × 10^-2 m
We know
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Chapter 2 Optics 50
∴ v = -30 × 10^-2 m
Distance of the image = 30 × 10^-2 m

Hence a virtual image 6 × 10^-2 m height is formed at a distance of 30 × 10^-2 m from the lens on the same side of the lens.

IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions.

Question 1.
Ramu passes white light through a quartz prism. For which colour refractive index is greater?
Answer:
Refractive index is maximum for violet light when white light passes through a quartz prism.

Question 2.
Sita has kept a stud consists of diamond. What will she observe? Give reason.
Answer:
The diamond stud appears bright because of total internal reflection.

Question 3.
Guna passes a ray light through a glass slab. Which optical phenomenon will take place? What can he observe with reference to wavelength?
Answer:
When a ray of light enters a glass slab he can observe refraction of light. He observed that wavelength of light decreases.

Question 4.
A prism is placed in the minimum deviation position. Chari has passed a ray of light at an angle of 45°, then what is the value of angle of emergence? Why?
Answer:
The angle of emergence = 45°.
Since, in the minimum deviation positron, angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence.

Question 5.
Mani is using a lens of power 2 dioptre. What is the focal length of the lens?
Answer:
Focal length = $\frac{1}{power}$
F= $\frac{1}{2}$ = 0.5 m

Question 6.
Surya has placed a lens of power 1 D in side water. What will happen to power of the lens?
Answer:
The power of the lens will be more than original power.

Question 7.
Sonu has observed some lines in solar spectrum are absorbed by the elements present in the atmosphere. What are the lines?
Answer:
The lines are Fraunhofer lines.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide History Chapter 3 World War II

November 2, 2023

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 3 World War II Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 3 World War II

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science World War II Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
(a) 2 September, 1945
(b) 2 October, 1945
(c) 15 August, 1945
(d) 12 October, 1945
Answer:
(a) 2 September, 1945

Question 2.
Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Chamberlain
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Baldwin
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 3.
Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
(a) Battle of Guadalcanal
(b) Battle of Midway
(c) Battle of Leningrad
(d) Battle of El Alamein
Answer:
(b) Battle of Midway

Question 4.
Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
(a) Kavashaki
(b) Innoshima
(c) Hiroshima
(d) Nagasaki
Answer:
(c) Hiroshima

Question 5.
Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
(a) Russians
(b) Arabs
(c) Turks
(d) Jews
Answer:
(d) Jews

Question 6.
Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
(a) Chamberlain
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Lloyd George
(d) Stanley Baldwin
Answer:
(a) Chamberlain

Question 7.
When was the Charter of the UN signed?
(a) June 26, 1942
(b) June 26, 1945
(c) January 1, 1942
(d) January 1, 1945
Answer:
(b) June 26, 1945

Question 8.
Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?
(a) New York
(b) Chicago
(c) London
(d) The Hague
Answer:
(d) The Hague

II. Fill in the blanks

Hitler attacked ……………… which was a demilitarized zone.
The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as ………………
……………… started the Lend-Lease programme.
Britain Prime Minister ……………… resigned in 1940.
Saluting the bravery of the ……………… Churchill said that “Never was so much owed by so many to so few”.
……………… is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights set forth fundamental human rights in ……………… articles.
After the World War II ……………… was voted into power in Great Britain.

Answers:

Rhineland
Rome – Berlin
Roosevelt
Chamberlain
Royal Air force
Radar
30
Labour party

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Banking was a major business activity among Jews.
(ii) Hitler persecuted the Jews.
(iii) In the concentration camps Jews were killed.
(iv) The United Nations has currently 129 member countries in it.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (Hi) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) is correct and (ii), (iii) and (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its policy of isolation.
Reason (R): He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

IV. Match the Following

Answers:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
Mention the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:

Germany was forced to give up territories to the west, north and east of the German border.
Germany had to be disarmed and was allowed to retain only a very restricted army, navy and air force.
Germany was expected to pay huge military and civilian cost of the war to the allied nations (approx. $ 25 billion).

Question 2.
Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?
Answer:
The three prominent dictators of the post-World War I were Mussolini (Italy), Hitler (Germany) and Franco (Spain).

Question 3.
How did Hitler get the support from the people of Germany?
Answer:
Hitler was able to sway away the emotions of the German people by his great speeches. He promised them that he will return back the glorious Germany. His racial superiority of the Germans as a pure Aryan race and a deep-rooted hatred for jews made him get the support of his people.

Question 4.
Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.
Answer:
Pearl Harbour incident took place in December 1941 when japan attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour, Hawaii, without warning to cripple America’s Pacific fleet. Many battle ships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed. The US declared war on Japan, with Britain and China. This brought together both the Asia Pacific and the European war into one common cause. Most importantly, it brought the United States with its enormous resources into the war as a part of the Allies.

Question 5.
What do you know of Beveridge Report?
Answer:
The Report that was published in the United Kingdom in 1942 to improve the general welfare of the people is called as Beveridge Report. It proposed that the government should provide citizens with adequate income, healthcare, education housing and employment to overcome poverty and disease thereby improve general welfare.

Question 6.
Name the Bretton Woods Twins.
Answer:
The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.

Question 7.
What are the objectives of the IMF?
Answer:

To foster global monetary co-operation
To secure Financial Stability
To facilitate International Trade
To promote high employment and sustainable economic growth.
To reduce poverty around the world.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Battle of Stalingrad

(a) When did Germany attack Stalingrad?
Answer:
In August 1942, Germany attacked Stalingrad.

(b) What were the main manufactures of Stalingrad?
Answer:
The main manufactures of Stalingrad were armaments and tractors.

(d) What is the significance of the Battle of Stalingrad?
Answer:
The people of Russia were grateful for Stalin’s conduct of the war. They regarded him as ‘a prodigy of patience, tenacity and vigilance, almost omnipresent, almost omniscient.

Question 2.
Japanese Aggression In South-east Asia

(a) Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.
Answer:
Guam, the Philippines, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaya, the Dutch East Indies and the Burma all fell to the Japanese.

(b) Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?
Answer:
The Allies had a setback in the Pacific region because of their inadequate preparation. The local people had to face the atrocities of the Japanese.

(c) What is the significance of Battle of Midway?
Answer:
The U.S. navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of Midway. Thus, the battle is in favour of the Allies.

(d) What happened to the Indians living in Burma?
Answer:
The Indians living in Burma walked all the way to the Indian border facing many hardships. Many died of disease and exhaustion.

Question 3.
General Assembly and Security Council

(a) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
Answer:
The United States, Britain, France, Russia and China.

(b) What is the Holocaust?
Answer:
The word ‘holocaust’ is used to describe the genocide of nearly six million Jews by the Germans during the Second World War.

(c) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
Answer:
The widow of US President Franklin Roosevelt was the chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights.

(d) What is meant by veto?
Answer:
A veto is the power to unilaterally stop an official action, especially the enactment of legislation.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on the rise and fall of Adolf Hitler.
Answer:

Adolf Hitler Was the founder of the National Socialist party, generally known as the Nazi party.
His great oratorical skill, his promise to bring back the glorious past of Germany, his support for the German race and hatred towards the Jews helped him to get people support.
He came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945.
He began to re-arm Germany and recruitment of new armed forces.
The manufacture of armaments and machinery for the army, navy and air force with large spending from government resulted in the revival of the economic condition and helped to solve the unemployment problem in the economy.
He followed aggressive policy and therefore in 1936, he invaded Rhine land, the demilitarized zone.
His alliance with Italy and Japan became Rome-Berlin-Tokyo axis.
He signed Munich pact stating Germany would not conquer any other territory, rather in 1939, he invaded Czechoslovakia.
His attack on Poland resulted in the declaration of war by Britain and France against Germany.
In 1941, German army invaded Russia. But the resistance of the German army and Russian winter defeated German army.
When the allied forces fought back, Germany also retaliated. Finally, Hitler committed suicide in 1945.
In 1945, allies occupied Berlin and Germany was divided as two sections after the war.

Question 2.
Analyse the effects of World War II.
Answer:
World War II was the most devastating war in history. It left a deep impact on the entire world. It changed the world in fundamental ways. Here are the effects of this War:

(i) The world got polarised into two main blocs led by superpowers, one led by the United States which followed anti-communist ideology, and the other by Soviet Russia which was essentially communist in nature. Europe was thus divided into two: Communist and non-communist.

(ii) The United States and the Soviet Union entered into a race to have more nuclear powered World War II 43 weapons. They built a large stockpile of such weapons. Meanwhile, Britain and France developed their own nuclear weapons.

(iii) Gradually there arose competition among countries. They began to devote large amount of resources in developing more and more powerful weapons with great destructive power, and defence spending skyrocketed in many countries.

(iv) It was realised that the League of Nations was ineffective and weak. So countries of the world decided not to repeat the mistake. Instead, many international agencies, in particular the United Nations, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund came into existence providing a forum for countries large and small.

(v) Many other important social and economic changes also took place in the post-War world. Colonial powers were forced to give independence to former colonies in a process of decolonisation. India was the first country to get independence.

(vi) Women became the part of labour force in huge numbers. They became economically independent.

Question 3.
Assess the structure and activities of the UN.
Answer:
The charter of the United Nations was signed on June 26, 1945 by 51 nations. Now, the United Nations has 193 member states and each one has an equal vote in the UN.

Structure of UN:

The General Assembly: Meets once in a year. Issues of interest and points of conflict are discussed in the Assembly.

The Security Council: Consist of five permanent members (USA, Britain, France, Russia, China) and ten non-permanent members (elected in rotation). Each permanent member has the right to veto (A right to reject a decision).

UN Secretariat: Headed by the Secretary by law General. He is elected by the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council. He, with his cabinet and officials run the UN.

International Court of Justice: Headquarters at the Hague in Holland.

The Economic and the Social Council: Co-ordinates all the social and economic work of the U.N. Headed by economists like Gunnar Myrdal.

Activities of the UN:

Human Rights, Refugees problem, climatic change, gender equality are the important issues taken over and deals with it. Earlier in 1960’s decolonisation was also a part of their activity.
UN peace keeping force acted in many areas of conflict all over the World. Indian army has been a part of it.
The preamble of the UN declares, its activities include human rights, equality of men and women.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
A debate in the class on the success or failure of the UN in preserving World Peace.
Answer:
The students can take the following topics for debate and finally conclude, UN is successful as it has stopped the nations from bringing another war. Small to big clashes were/are handled by UN efficiently.

Argument for:
The topics of discussion for debate are:

Solving International conflicts: Since 1945, UN peacekeepers have undertaken over 60 field missions and negotiated 172 peaceful settlements that ended Regional conflicts.
Liberation from Colonial rule: Eighty nations and more than 750 million people have been freed from colonialism.
Human Rights: Custodian for the protection of human rights, discrimination against women, Children’s rights, torture, missing persons etc. in many countries.
Enhancing Human life: Specialised agencies of the UN engaged in enhancing all aspects of human life, including education, health, poverty reduction, climate change.
Treaties: More than 560 multilateral treaties on human rights, refugees, disarmament.

Argument against:

Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT): Signed by 190 nations, all live superpowers owned nuclear weapons. Later, several countries North Korea, Israel, Pakistan, India developed nuclear weapons.

Veto Power: Veto power has limited its effectiveness at critical times.

War Criminals: The International criminal court has prosecuted several war criminals. But it has been criticised for prosecuting only African leaders. But Western powers too have committed war crimes.

Israel Attack: Israel attacked homes schools, U.N. shelters in Gaza killing 2,200 Palestinians. The U.N. Security Council has failed any action against Israel.

Conclusion: U.N. is imperfect but it is also indispensable. It is successful as, it is avoiding any other war.

Question 3.
Marking the Allies and Axis countries, as well as important battlefields of World War II in a world map.
Answer:

IX. Map Work

Question 1.
Mark the following on the world map.
1. Axis Power Countries
2. Allied Power Countries
3. Hiroshima, Nagasaki, Hawai Island, Moscow, San Fransico
Answer:
(2)

(3)

Timeline:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science World War II Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The financial cost of the II World War was ……………….. times higher than that of the I World War.
(a) one
(b) three
(c) five
(d) seven
Answer:
(c) five

Question 2.
The coal mines given to France were ………
(a) Jharia
(b) Saar
(c) Bokaro
Answer:
(b) Saar

Question 3.
“Money in wheelbarrows to buy bread” in the 1920’s. Which country referred to here.
(a) Italy
(b) Austria
(c) Germany
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Germany

Question 4.
The principles of war and conquests was glorified by ………
(a) Moderates
(b) Dictators
(c) Extremists
Answer:
(b) Dictators

Question 5.
Hitler broke the Munich pact by invading ……………….. in 1939.
(a) Manchuria
(b) Sudetenland
(c) Poland
(d) Czechoslovakia
Answer:
(d) Czechoslovakia

Question 6.
Hitler demanded the surrender of ………
(a) Danzig
(b) Jutland
(c) Estonia
Answer:
(a) Danzig

Question 7.
The attack of ……………….. by Germany was the final act which result in the initiation of II World War.
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) Poland
Answer:
(d) Poland

Question 8.
The British Prime Minister during the Second World War was ………
(a) Sir Winston Churchill
(b) Clement Atlee
(c) Lloyd George
Answer:
(a) Sir Winston Churchill

Question 9.
The tactic followed by Germany to overrun other countries was called as:
(a) Sea-borne invasion
(b) Blitzkrieg
(c) Dunkirk
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Blitzkrieg

Question 10.
In ………, Hitler invaded Russia.
(a) 1940
(b) 1941
(c) 1943
Answer:
(b) 1941

Question 11.
“We shall fight in the fields and in the streets” ……………….. but, we shall never surrender.”- said by
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Napoleon Bonaparte
(c) George Washington
(d) Roosevelt.
Answer:
(a) Winston Churchill

Question 12.
……………….. used the device radar for detecting aircraft at a distance in World War II.
(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Britain
(d) USA
Answer:
(c) Britain

Question 13.
In September 1940, London was bombed mercilessly by German Air force. This action was called as:
(a) Spit fires
(b) Hurricanes
(c) Blitz
(d) Dunkirk
Answer:
(c) Blitz

Question 14.
Land lease programme of USA took place between the years:
(a) 1939 – 1945
(b) 1941 – 1945
(c) 1936 – 1940
(d) 1914 – 1918
Answer:
(b) 1941 – 1945

Question 15.
In the war between Germany and Russia in 1941, ……………….. was defeated.
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Germany

Question 16.
Stalingrad I situated along the banks of the river:
(a) Miami
(b) Volga
(c) Hwang-Ho
(d) Marne
Answer:
(b) Volga

Question 17.
In the battle of Stalingrad, Germans used the code word ……………….. on Russia.
(a) Alamein
(b) Land lease
(c) Fall Blau
(d) Montegomary
Answer:
(c) Fall Blau

Question 18.
Mussolini was killed by a ……………….. partisan.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Russia
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Italy

Question 19.
Mussolini was killed in:
(a) May 1945
(b) April 1944
(c) April 1945
(d) May 1946
Answer:
(c) April 1945

Question 20.
In 1945 ……………….. was divided into two sections.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Bengal
(d) Russia
Answer:
(a) Germany

Question 21.
Japanese army indulged in the biggest slaughter in the place ……………….. in China.
(a) Manchuria
(b) Nanking
(c) Peking
(d) Shangai
Answer:
(b) Nanking

Question 22.
Japan announced surrendered to U.S on ……………….. 1945.
(a) 2nd September
(b) 15th August
(c) 3rd August
(d) 5th February
Answer:
(b) 15th August

Question 23.
The Security council has ……………….. members.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 15

Question 24.
At present, the United Nations has ……………….. member states.
(a) 196
(b) 195
(c) 194
(d) 193
Answer:
(d) 193

Question 25.
The World Bank is located at:
(a) Sweden
(b) New Zealand
(c) Washington
(d) New York
Answer:
(c) Washington

Question 26.
IMF has at present ……………….. member countries.
(a) 200
(b) 187
(c) 189
(d) 190
Answer:
(c) 189

Question 27.
IMF help the countries to solve their ……………….. position.
(a) debt
(b) Balance of payment
(c) Independency
(d) Trade
Answer:
(b) Balance of payment

Question 28.
The report published in 1942, in United Kingdom for the general welfare of the people was called as ……………….. report.
(a) Bretton Woods
(b) Beveridge
(c) Blitzkrieg
(d) Common wealth
Answer:
(b) Beveridge

Question 29.
……………….. party in Great Britain promised for a welfare state to the people.
(a) Communist party
(b) Democratic party
(c) Socialised party
(d) Labour party
Answer:
(d) Labour party

Question 30.
The benefits to the people can be achieved either through ……………….. transfers or free services.
(a) Cash
(b) Country
(c) State
(d) Regional
Answer:
(a) Cash

II. Fill in the blanks

World War II began in ……………… and ended in ………………
The Treaty of ……………… was signed at the end of World War I in 1919.
The Germans offered to pay ……………… billion gold marks to the allies.
The United States was faced with great depression after ………………
The National Socialist party in Germany was generally known as ………………
In 1938, Hitler signed the Munich pact with Prime Minister ………………
In 1939, Hitler invaded ……………… as against his promise in Munich pact.
Hitler showed hatred against ………………
Hitler came to power in ……………… and ruled till ………………
World War II was a ……………… war fought with tanks, submarines, bomber planes etc.
Britain and France declared war on Germany in ………………
In ………………, Italy and Japan joined the axis powers.
In September 1940, London war bombed by Germans mercilessly. This action was known as ………………
Blitzkrieg means ………………
The name of the Britain navy was ………………
The war between Britain and ……………… took place in Dunkirk in 1940.
The fighter planes of the British Royal force was called as ……………… and ………………
……………… of America started the Land Lease programme.
Caucasus was famous for its ……………… in Russia.
Mussolini of Italy was killed by an ……………… partisan.
The battle of ……………… was considered to be the Great patriotic war by the Russians.
Italy surrendered to the allies in ………………
The Allied forces under the command of ……………… invaded Normanday in France.
Canton was called as ……………… in China.
On December 1941, ……………… attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour.
Guadalcanal is in the ……………… islands.
USA dropped an atomic bomb on ……………… and ……………… cities of Japan.
Japan announced their surrender on ………………
Japan formally signed their surrender marking the end of the World War II was ………………
……………… and ……………… are the two super powers after the II World War.
US and Soviet Russia entered into a race to have more ………………
………………, ………………, and ……………… came into existence after the II World War.
……………… started entering into labour force in huge number after World War II.
In the process ofdecolonisation ……………… was the first country toget Independence.
The word ……………… refers the genocide of Jews by the Germans during Second World War.
A major outcome of the Holocaust was the creation of the State of ………………
……………… became the Homeland for Jews after II World War.
The Un efforts to protect human rights at the global levei resulted in the UN commission on ………………
The Un adopted the Human Rights Charter on ………………
……………… is observed globally as Human Rights Day.
Britain and United States gave a joint declaration called as ……………… in 1941 that helped in the formation of UNO.
……………… were the axis powers of the II World War.
The initial member States of the UN were ……………… nations.
The Charter of the United Nations was signed on ………………
Each member State in U.N.has ……………… vote.
The UN functions almost like a ………………
There are ………………, ………………, ………………, ……………… wing for the UN.
Veto means ………………
……………… has veto power.
……………… permanent members are there in UN.
WHO means ………………
UNICEF means ………………
FAO means ………………
UNESCO expansion is ………………
UNDP expansion is ………………
The ……………… has been a port of peace keeping force of the UN in deployment to many parts of the World.
The World Bank and the IMP are referred to as ………………
The two main organs of the World Bank are ……………… and ………………
IBRD expansion is ………………
IDA expansion is ………………
The IDA lends money to the ……………… for development activities.
The loans sanctioned by IDA at low interest rates for development purposes are called as ………………
Soft loans are given for ……………… years.
The ……………… functions with private enterprises in developing countries.
IFC expansion is ………………
The World Bank is actively promoting the cause of improving the and eradicating the ………………
The IMF was the brainchild of ……………… and ………………
The initial member countries of IMF were ………………
Its primary objective is to ensure ……………… and development across the World.
The fund gives resources to countries facing ……………… problem.
The number of member countries of IMF at present are ……………… countries.
All the countries in the Western Europe are now ………………
The ……………… in Great Britain after World War I promised to look at the people from the cradle to the grave.
Legislations was enacted to provide comprehensive free health coverage to the citizens in Britain through ………………
The monetary benefits after World War II by Labour party was ………………, ……………… etc.

Answers:

1939, 1945
Versailles
100
1929
Nazis
Chamberlin
Czechoslovakia
Jews
1933, 1945
modem
1939
1940
Blitz
Lightning strike
Royal Navy
France
Spitfires, Hurricanes
President Roosevelt
Oil fields
Italian
Stalingrad
1943
General Elsenhower
Guangzhou
Japan
Solomon
Hiroshima, Nagasaki
15th August 1945
2nd Sept 1945
United States, Soviet Russia
Nuclear weapons
United Nations, World Bank, International Monetary Fund
Women
India
Holocaust
Israel
Israel
Human Rights
10th Dec 1948
10th Dec 1948
Atlantic Charter
Germany, Italy, Japan
51
June 26, 1945
One
Government
Executive, Judicial, Legislative, Co-ordinating
The right to block major decisions
Permanent members
Five
World Health Organisation
United Nations Children’s Fund
Food and Agricultural Organisation
UN educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
United Nations Development programme
Indian Army
Bretton Woods Twins
IBRD, IDA
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
International Development Agency
Government
Soft loans
50
IFC
International Finance Corporation
Environment, AIDS
Hary Dexter, John Maynard Keynes
29
Financial Stability
Balance of payment
189
Welfare states
Labour party
National Health Service
Old age pension, Child care services

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The axis powers of World War II were Germany, Italy and Japan.
(ii) Russia attacked the American naval base at Pearl Harbour in 1941.
(iii) The UN adopted the historic human rights charter on 10th December 1947.
(iv) The executive wing of the UN is the UN Secretariat.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(c) (i) (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Reparations refers to the compensation exacted from a defeated nation by the victorious nation.
(ii) Slaughter is compulsory military service.
(iii) Japanese navy was defeated by the US Navy at the battle of mid way.
(iv) Progression taxation by taxing the higher income groups at relatively high rates.
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(b) (ii) (iv) are wrong
(c) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) (iv) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) The Security Council of the UNO has fifteen members.
(ii) The mass killing of Jews in Nazi was called holocaust
(iii) Battle of Ex Alamein was considered one of the greatest battles by Russia.
(iv) The Japanese navy defeated the US navy in the battle of Midway.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) The World Bank and the IMF are referred to as the Bretton Woods Twins.
(ii) The post World War I led to the rise of dictatorship in Italy, Germany, and Spain.
(iii) The post World War II changed the world into two blocks as communist and non communist.
(iv) The Shakespeare’s play the Merchant of Venice clearlv depicts the dislike and distrust of Jews among the Nazi people.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) are wrong
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) are wrong
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 5.
(i) IMF lends money from its resources to countries facing balance of payment problem.
(ii) The Munich pact was signed between Germany and the Soviet Union.
(iii) Huge worthless money for bread often refers to the Britain’s severe inflation after II World War.
(iv) Franco of Spain was the only dictatorship that emerged after II World War.
(a) (i) (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
(d) (i) (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) Japanese extended their empire throughout South-east Asia.
(ii) Burma, Indonesia, Singapore, Malaya, Hong Kong, Philippines all fell to the Japanese.
(iii) Many Indians walked ail the way from Burma to the Indian border facing many sufferings.
(iv) Many Indians who stayed there suffered under the Japanese.
(a) (ii) (iv) are wrong
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) (i) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct

Question 7.
(i) Hitler was killed by his countrymen in 1945
(ii) Mussolini committed suicide in April 1945
(iii) The United States declared war on Japan on December 1944.
(iv) In 1938, Japan invaded China and seized Beijing.
(a) (ii) (iv) are wrong
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are wrong

Question 8.
(i) In the year 1940, the British Prime Minister Chamberlain resigned.
(ii) The newly elected British Prime Minister next was Winston Churchill.
(iii) The end of World War II signalled a change in the world order and political configurations among the major powers.
(iv) The Treaty of Versailles ended the World War II.
(a) (i) (iv) are wrong
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): World War I (1914-18) and World War II (1939-45) are only referred as World wars.
Reason (R): The high death of the civilians and the soldiers and the extended area of the conflicts.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The League remained an ineffectual international body. Reason (R): Along with the USA, as a non-member mainly Germany was determined to maintain a non-interventionist attitude.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Hitler invaded Austria and Czechoslovakia in 1938.
Reason (R): Hitler claimed all the German speaking people should be united into one nation.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The mood in Britain was not in favour of starting another war after World War I.
Reason (R): Just as the United States they wanted to be concerned with the revival of the economy after great depression.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct reason

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Germany developed a fleet of sub-marines which caused havoc in the Atlantic Ocean.
Reason (R): Germany ensured themselves for a sea-borne invasion on allies.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, which is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The long term objective of Germany was to exploit Russia’s natural Resource oil.
Reason (R): German army invaded Russia.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, which is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Germans tried to capture the city of Stalingrad in Russia. Reason (R): Stalingrad was the militarised zone of Russia.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right, A is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is right, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Hitler committed suicide in April 1945.
Reason (R): The Allied forces in 1945, occupied parts of Berlin and began to attack Germany from the east.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but A is not relevant to R.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 9.
Assertion (A): The United States declared war on Japan.
Reason (R): In 1931, the Japanese army invaded Manchuria and in 1937, invaded China and seized Beijing.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but R is not relevant to A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 10.
Assertion (A): U.S. dropped an atomic bomb on Hiroshima and another bomb was dropped on Nagasaki.
Reason (R): U.S. developed hatred over the development of two cities Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct but it is the correct reason for A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 11.
Assertion (A): The U.S. and the Soviet Union followed communist and non¬communist ideas.
Reason (R): Countries began to devote large amount of resources in developing dangerous weapons.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but not relevant to R
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, but not relevant to A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are wrong

V. Match the Following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (vi)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (vi)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

VI. Answer the questions briefly

Question 1.
What are soft loans?
Answer:
The loans that are sanctioned by the International Development Agency to the Governments for developmental activities are called as soft loans. They are given at very low rate of interest of 50 years.

Question 2.
Did Munich Pact bring peace for some time? How?
Answer:

In September 1938, Hitler threatened Czechoslovakia.
The British Prime Minister Neville chamberlain initiated talks and signed Munich pact,
Hitler promised not to take any more Czech territory.
Chamberlain believed that he had achieved “Peace for some time”. But within six months Hitler seized the remainder of Czechoslovakia. So Munich pact has brought peace only for some time.

Question 3.
What do you know about the World Bank?
Answer:
The World bank consists of two main organs namely The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Agency (IDA). Together they are called as the World Bank.

Question 4.
Why did America declare war on Japan?
Answer:

The Japanese had attacked the American fleet stationed at Pearl Harbour on December 7, 1941.
This disastrous attack forced the Americans to enter into the war.
The very next day the USA declared war on Japan.

Question 5.
What are the axis powers and the ally powers of II World War?
Answer:
Germany, Italy, Japan – Axis powers.
Britain, France, Russia, USA – Ally powers.

Question 6.
Name the countries involved in World War II.
Answer:

The allies countries were under the leadership of Britain. [Britain, France, Russia and U.S.A]
The axis countries were under the leadership of Germany. [Germany, Italy and Japan]

Question 7.
What was the immediate cause of the II World War?
Answer:
The main and immediate cause of the II World War was the aggressive, military, dictatorship attitude of Germany, fast-developing Japan. Hitler’s attack on Poland in 1939, resulted in the declaration of the War by Britain and France.

Question 8.
Write a brief note on security council.
Answer:

The council has five permanent members and ten non-permanent members.
The five permanent members are the USA, UK, France, Russian Federation and China,
The non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for two years term,
The permanent members have the right to veto for any council decision.
Its main responsibility is to maintain International peace and security.

Question 9.
What is ECOSOC? What are its organs?
Answer:
The Economic and Social Council, is the UN organ which is responsible for co-ordinating all the economic and social work of the United Nations. The Regional Economic commissions functioning for regional development across the various regions of the World are its organs. (Asia pacific, West Asia, Europe, Africa, Latin America).

Question 10.
Name some of the specialized agencies of the UNO.
Answer:

The World Health Organisation [WHO]
The United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation(UNESCO)
The United Nation’s Children’s Fund (UNICEF)
The International Labour Organisation (ILO)
Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO)
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

VII. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Causes of the Second World War.

(a) Name the treaty signed by Japan, Italy and Germany.
Answer:
Italy – Germany – Japan signed the Rome – Berlin – Tokyo Axis treaty.

(b) Mention some of the ideologies that emerged after the First World War.
Answer:
Democracy, Communism, Fascism and Nazism.

(c) What was the policy followed by the statesmen of the major world powers?
Answer:
The statesmen of the major world powers followed the policy of appeasement.

(d) What did Hitler violate?
Answer:
He violated the Munich Pact.

Question 2.
Munich Pact

(a) Who concluded the Munich pact with Germany?
Answer:
In 1938, Prime Minister Chamberlain concluded the Munich pact with Germany.

(b) What did Hitler do in 1939?
Answer:
In 1939, Hitler invaded Czechoslovakia breaking the munich pact that Germany would not attack any other country.

(c) Which act of Hitler made Britain and France declare war on Germany?
Answer:
His act of attack on Poland made Britain and France declare war on Germany.

(d) What were the weapons used in World War II?
Answer:
Heavy military equipment such as tanks, sub-marines, battleships, aircraft carriers, fighter planes and bomber planes.

Question 3.
Organs of the UNO

(a) Name the major organs of the UNO.
Answer:

The General Assembly
The Security Council
The Economic and Social Council
The Trusteeship Council
The International Court of Justice
The Secretariat

(b) Who was elected as the President of the UN General Assembly in 1953?
Answer:
Mrs. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

(c) What is the function of the Trusteeship Council?
Answer:
The Trusteeship Council looks after certain territories placed under the trusteeship of the UNO.

(d) How is the Secretary-General of the UNO appointed?
Answer:
The Secretary-General is appointed by the General Assembly on the advice of the Security Council.

Question 4.
Birth of Israel.

(a) What is meant by Holocaust?
Answer:
Holocaust refers to the mass killing of jews by the Germans during World War II.

(b) What was the major outcome of the Holocaust?
Answer:
The major outcome of the Holocaust was the creation of the State of Israel as a homeland for the Jews.

(d) From whom does Israel get the support from?
Answer:
Israel get the vast support from the United States.

Question 5.
The United Nations

(a) Who took the first initiative for the formation of the United Nations?
Answer:
The United states and the Britain in 1941.

(b) Name the joint declaration they issued?
Answer:
The Atlantic Charter was the name of the joint declaration they issued.

(c) How many countries accepted the declaration at first?
Answer:
The declaration of the United Nations was accepted by 26 countries, on New years Day 1942.

(d) How many nations signed the charter? When?
Answer:
On June 26, 1945, 51 nations signed the charter.

Question 6.
International Monetary Fund (IMF)

(a) On whose idea the International Monetary Fund was initiated?
Answer:
Harry Dexter white and John Maynard Keynes ideas brought the emergence of IMF.

(b) When was it formally organised?
Answer:
It was formally organised in 1945 with 29 member countries (at present 189).

To promote International monetary co-operation.
To expand International trade.
To bring exchange stability.

(d) State the main reason of its funding?
Answer:
The IMF lends money from its resources to countries facing Balance of payment problems.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What were the results of Second World War?
Answer:

The destruction to life and property was on a much larger scale than the First World War.
Over 50 millions lost their lives.
It sounded the death knell to dictatorship in Germany and Italy.
Germany was occupied by the Allied forces, and later it was divided into two parts.
The West Germany was controlled by Britain, France and America and the East Germany by Russia.
At the end of the war, Japan was occupied by American forces under General Mc. Arthur.
The war weakened Britain and France.
America and Russia emerged as super powers.
The war did not end totalitarianism in Russia. A cold war started between Russia and America.
The war quickened the phase of national movements in Asia and Africa.
India, Burma, Egypt, Ceylon and Malaya won their freedom from Britain.
Philippines got independence from America.
Indo-china got independence from France.
Indonesia got independence from the Dutch.
The European countries gave up the policy of colonialism and imperialism.
The United Nations Organisation was set up to maintain international peace and harmony. It works hard to maintain international co-operation and for the promotion of human welfare.

Question 2.
Write a note on international Monetary Fund (IMF).
Answer:

International Monetary Fund was established in 1945 after the Bretton Woods conference in 1944 along with the World Bank.
It is located in the Washington in United States.
The idea of starting of IMF was given by Harry Dexter, White and John Maynard Keynes, a famous economist.
The initial members of the IMF were 29. Now, there are 189 member countries with IMF,
The main objectives of IMF include to foster global monetary co-operation, to secure financial stability, to facilitate trade, promote employment, to sustain economic growth and reduce poverty all over the world.
The fund lends money to its member countries to correct their balance of payment position if they are unable to pay for their imports.
The funding from IMF is not very easy as it strictly imposes restrictions on lending.
It imposes the developing nations to tighten the budgets and reduce fiscal expenditure.

Question 3.
Write a note on the UN Commission of Human Rights.
Answer:

Human Rights means the fundamental freedom for all human beings without any differences in race, sex, language and religion.
The UN efforts to protect human rights on a global basis resulted in the formation of the UN commission on Human Rights.
A committee was set up for its formation. It was headed by the wife of FDR of USA, after his death.
The other members of the commission included Charles Malik from Lebanon, P.C.Chang from China, Rene Casin from France.
The Commission set forth with 30 articles.
The UN adopted this historic charter on 10th December 1948.
This day, the 10th December is observed as Human Rights Day all over the World.
According to the Franklin and Eleanor institute in New York, reports, from 1948 till now, nearly 90 National constitutions are part of this Human Rights Commission of UN.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5

November 1, 2023

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5

Question 1.
Solve the following systems of linear equations by Gaussian elimination method:
(i) 2x – 2y + 3z = 2, x + 2y – z = 3, 3x – y + 2z = 1
Solution:
Augmented matrix
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5 1
Writing the equivalent equations from echelon from.
x – y + 2z = 3 …………. (1)
5y – 6z = -4 ………….. (2)
-z = -4
z = 4
(2) ⇒ 5y – 6z = -4
5y – 24 = -4
5y = -4 + 24
5y = 20
y = 4
(1) ⇒ x – y + 2z = 3
x – 4 + 8 = 3
x = 3 + 4 – 8
x = -1
∴ x = -1, y = 4, z = 4

(ii) 2x + 4y + 6z = 22, 3x + 8y + 5z = 27, -x + y + 2z = 2.
Solution:
Augmented matrix
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5 2
Writing the equivalent equations from echelon from.
x + 2y + 3z = 11 …………. (1)
y – 2z = -3 ………….. (2)
11z = 22
z = 2
(2) ⇒ y – 2z = -3
y – 4 = -3
y = -3 + 4
y = 1
(1) ⇒ x + 2y + 3z = 11
x + 2(1) + 3(2) = 11
x + 2 + 6 = 11
x = 11 – 8 = 3
∴ x = 3, y = 1, z = 2

Question 2.
If ax² + bx + c is divided by x + 3, x – 5, and x – 1, the remainders are 21, 61 and 9 respectively. Find a, b and c. (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Solution:
Given: f(x) = ax² + bx + c
In Remainder Theorem
f(-3) = 21
a(-3)² + b(-3) + c = 21
9a – 3b + c = 21 ……….. (1)
f(5) = 61
25a + 5b + c = 61 …………. (2)
f(1) = 9
a + b + c = 9 ………… (3)
Augmented matrix
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5 3
Writing the equivalent equations from echelon from.
a + b + c = 9 …………. (1)
b + 2c = 5 ………….. (2)
-4c = -8
c = 2
(2) ⇒ b + 2c = 5
b + 4 = 5
b = 5 – 4
b = 1
(1) ⇒ a + b + c = 9
a + 1 + 2 = 9
a = 9 – 3
a = 6
a = 6, b = 1, c = 2

Question 3.
An amount of Rs 65,000 is invested in three bonds at the rates of 6%, 8% and 10% per annum respectively. The total annual income is Rs 5,000. The income from the third bond is Rs 800 more than that from the second bond. Determine the price of each bond. (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Solution:
Let the amounts of 3 bounds be x, y, z
x + y + z = 65,000
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5 4
Writing the equivalent equations from echelon from.
x + y + z = 65000 …………. (1)
2y + 3z = 90000 ………….. (2)
21z = 42000
z = 20000
(2) ⇒ 2y = 90000 – 3 × 20000
2y = 30000
y = 15000
(1) ⇒ x + 15000 + 20000 = 65000
x = 30000
∴ x = 30000, y = 15000, z = 20000

Question 4.
A boy is walking along the path y = ax² + bx + c through the points (-6, 8),(-2, -12), and (3, 8). He wants to meet his friend at P(7, 60). Will he meet his friend? (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Solution:
y = ax² + bx + c
At(-6, 8) ⇒ 8 = 36a – 6b + c ………… (1)
At(-2, -12) ⇒ -12 = 4a – 2b + c ………… (2)
At(3, 8) ⇒ 8 = 9a + 3b + c ………… (3)
Augmented matrix
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5 5
Writing the equivalent equations from the echelon.
36a – 6b + c = 8 …………. (1)
3b – 2c = 29 ………….. (2)
5c = -50
c = -10
(2) ⇒ 3b – 2c = 29
3b – 20 = 29
3b = 9
b = 3
(1) ⇒ 36a – 18 – 10 = 8
36a = 8 + 18 + 10
36a = 36
a = 1
At P (7, 60), y = ax² + bx + c
60 = 1(7²) + 3(7) – 10
60 = 49 – 21 – 10
60 = 60
He will meet his friend at P (7, 60)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5

November 1, 2023

Students can download Maths Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The value of sin2 θ + $\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}$ is equal to ………………
(1) tan² θ
(2) 1
(3) cot² θ
(4) 0
Answer:
(2) 1
Hint:
sin² θ + $\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}$ = sin² θ + $\frac{1}{\sec ^{2} \theta}$ = sin² θ + cos² θ = 1

Question 2.
tan θ cosec² θ – tan θ is equal to ………………
(1) sec θ
(2) cot² θ
(3) sin θ
(4) cot θ
Answer:
(4) cot θ
Hint:
tan θ cosec² θ – tan θ = tan θ (cosec² θ – 1)
= tan θ × cot² θ = $\frac{1}{\cot \theta}$ × cot² θ = cot θ

Question 3.
If (sin α + cosec α)² + (cos α + sec α)² = k + tan² α + cot² α, then the value of k is equal to
(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 3
Solution:
(2) 7
(sin α + cos α)² + (cos α + sec α)²
= sin² α + cosec² α + 2 sin α cosec α + cos² α + sec² α + 2 cos α sec α
= 1 + cosec² α + 2 + sec² α + 2
= 1 + cot² α + 1 + 2 + tan² α + 1 + 2
= 7 + tan² α + cot² α
k = 7

Question 4.
If sin θ + cos θ = a and sec θ + cosec θ = b , then the value of b (a2 – 1) is equal to ……………
(1) 2 a
(2) 3 a
(3) 0
(4) 2 ab
Answer:
(1) 2 a
Hint:
b (a² – 1) = (sec θ + cosec θ) [(sin θ + cos θ)² – 1]
= $\frac{1}{\cos \theta}+\frac{1}{\sin \theta}$ [sin² θ + cos² θ + 2 sin θ cos θ – 1]
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 1

Question 5.
If 5x = sec θ and $\frac { 5 }{ x } $ = tan θ, then x2 – $\frac{1}{x^{2}}$ is equal to …………….
(1) 25
(2) $\frac { 1 }{ 25 } $
(3) 5
(4) 1
Answer:
(2) $\frac { 1 }{ 25 } $
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 2

Question 6.
If sin θ = cos θ , then 2 tan² θ + sin² θ – 1 is equal to ………………
(1) $\frac { -3 }{ 2 } $
(2) $\frac { 3 }{ 2 } $
(3) $\frac { 2 }{ 3 } $
(4) $\frac { -2 }{ 3 } $
Answer:
(2) $\frac { 3 }{ 2 } $
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 5

Question 7.
If x = a tan θ and y = b sec θ then …………..
(1) $\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1$
(2) $\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1$
(3) $\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=0$
(4) $\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=0$
Answer:
(1) $\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1$
Hint:
x = a tan θ
$\frac { x }{ a } $ = tan θ
$\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}$ = tan² θ
$\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}$ = sec² θ – tan² θ = 1
y = b sec θ
$\frac{y}{b}$ = sec θ
$\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}$ = sec² θ

Question 8.
(1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ – cosec θ) is equal to ……………
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) -1
Answer:
(3) 2
Hint:
(1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ – cosec θ)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 7

Question 9.
a cot θ + b cosec θ = p and b cot θ + a cosec θ = q then p² – q² is equal to
(1) a² – b²
(2) b² – a²
(3) a² + b²
(4) b-a
Solution:
(2) b² – a²
(a cot θ + b cosec θ)² = p²
(b cot θ + a cosec θ )² = q²
p² – q² = a² cost²θ + a² cot²θ + 2ab cot θ cosec θ – (b²cot²θ + a² cosec²θ + 2ab cot θ cosec θ) = (a² – b²) cot²θ + (b² – a²)cosec²θ = (a² – b²) (cosec²θ – 1) + (b² – a²) (cosec²θ)
= (a² – b²)cosec²θ – (a² – b²) – (a² – b²) cosec²θ
= b² – a²

Question 10.
If the ratio of the height of a tower and the length of its shadow is $\sqrt { 3 }$ : 1, then the angle of elevation of the sun has a measure
(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°
Answer:
(4) 60°
Hint:
Ratio of length of the tower : length of the shadow = $\sqrt { 3 }$ : 1
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 8
Let the tower be $\sqrt { 3 }$ x and the shadow be x
tan C = $\frac { AB }{ BC } $ ⇒ tan C = $\frac{\sqrt{3} x}{x}$ = $\sqrt { 3 }$
tan C = tan 60° ⇒ ∴ ∠C = 60°

Question 11.
The electric pole subtends an angle of 30° at a point on the same level as its foot. At a second point ‘6’ metres above the first, the depression of the foot of the tower is 60° . The height of the tower (in metres) is equal to ……………
(1) $\sqrt { 3 }$ b
(2) $\frac { b }{ 3 } $
(3) $\frac { b }{ 2 } $
(4) $\frac{b}{\sqrt{3}}$
Answer:
(3) $\frac { b }{ 2 } $
Hint:
Let the height of the pole BC be h
AC = b + h
Let CD be x
In the right ∆ BCD, tan 30° = $\frac { BC }{ AB } $
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ = $\frac { h }{ x } $
x = $\sqrt { 3 }$ h ………. (1)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 9
In the right ∆ ACD, tan 60° = $\frac { AC }{ CD } $
$\sqrt { 3 }$ = $\frac { b+h }{ x } $
x = $\frac{b+h}{\sqrt{3}}$ ………(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
$\sqrt { 3 }$ h = $\frac{b+h}{\sqrt{3}}$ ⇒ 3 h = b + h
2 h = b ⇒ h = $\frac { b }{ 2 } $

Question 12.
A tower is 60 m height. Its shadow is x metres shorter when the sun’s altitude is 45° than when it has been 30° , then x is equal to
(1) 41. 92 m
(2) 43. 92 m
(3) 43 m
(4) 45. 6 m
Answer:
(2) 43. 92 m
Hint:
In the right ∆ ABC, tan 30° = $\frac { AB }{ BC } $ = $\frac { 60 }{ x+y } $
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ = $\frac { 60 }{ x+y } $ ⇒ x + y = 60 $\sqrt { 3 }$
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 10
y = 60 $\sqrt { 3 }$ – x …….(1)
In the right ∆ ABD, tan 45° = $\frac { AB }{ BD } $
1 = $\frac { 60 }{ y } $ ⇒ y = 60 ………..(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
60 = 60 $\sqrt { 3 }$ – x
x = 60 $\sqrt { 3 }$ – 60 = 60 ($\sqrt { 3 }$ – 1) = 60 (1.732 – 1)
= 60 × 0.732
x = 43.92 m

Question 13.
The angle of depression of the top and bottom of 20 m tall building from the top of a multistoried building are 30° and 60° respectively. The height of the multistoried building and the distance between two buildings (in metres) is …………….
(1) 20,10$\sqrt { 3 }$
(2) 30, 5 $\sqrt { 3 }$
(3) 20, 10
(4) 30, 10$\sqrt { 3 }$
Answer:
(4) 30, 10$\sqrt { 3 }$
Hint:
Let the height of the multistoried building AB be “h”
AE = h – 20
Let BC be x
In the right ∆ ABC, tan 60° = $\frac { AB }{ BC } $ ⇒ $\sqrt { 3 }$ = $\frac { h }{ x } $
x = $\frac{h}{\sqrt{3}}$ ………..(1)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 111
In the right ∆ ABC, tan 30° = $\frac { AE }{ ED } $ = $\frac { h-20 }{ x } $
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ = $\frac { h-20 }{ x } $
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ = $\frac { h-20 }{ x } $
x = (h – 20) $\sqrt { 3 }$ ………(2)
From (1) and (2) we get,
$\frac{h}{\sqrt{3}}$ = (h – 20) $\sqrt { 3 }$
h = 3h – 60 ⇒ 60 = 2 h
h = $\frac { 60 }{ 2 } $ = 30
Distance between the building (x) = $\frac{h}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{30}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{30 \sqrt{3}}{3}=10 \sqrt{3}$

Question 14.
Two persons are standing ‘x’ metres apart from each other and the height of the first person is double that of the other. If from the middle point of the line joining their feet an observer finds the angular elevations of their tops to be complementary, then the height of the shorter person (in metres) is ……………….
(1) $\sqrt { 2 }$x
(2) $\frac{x}{2 \sqrt{2}}$
(3) $\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}}$
(4) 2 x
Answer:
(2) $\frac{x}{2 \sqrt{2}}$
Hint:
Consider the height of the 2^nd person ED be “h”
Height of the second person is 2 h
C is the mid point of BD
In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = $\frac { AB }{ BC } $
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 12

Question 15.
The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point h metres above a lake is β . The angle of depression of its reflection in the lake is 45° . The height of the location of the cloud from the lake is ………….
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 14

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2

November 1, 2023

Students can download Maths Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2

Question 1.
Find the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a tower of height 10 $\sqrt { 3 }$ m.
Answer:
Height of the tower (AC) = 10 $\sqrt { 3 }$ m
Distance between the base of the tower and point of observation (AB) = 30 m
Let the angle of elevation ∠ABC be θ
In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = $\frac { AC }{ AB } $
= $\frac{10 \sqrt{3}}{30}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}$
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 1
tan θ = $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ = tan 30°
∴ Angle of inclination is 30°

Question 2.
A road is flanked on either side by continuous rows of houses of height 4$\sqrt { 3 }$ m with no space in between them. A pedestrian is standing on the median of the road facing a row house. The angle of elevation from the pedestrian to the top of the house is 30° . Find the width of the road.
Answer:
Let the mid point of the road AB is “P” (PA = PB)
Height of the home = 4$\sqrt { 3 }$ m
Let the distance between the pedestrian and the house be “x”
In the right ∆ APD, tan 30° = $\frac { AD }{ AP } $
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 2
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{4 \sqrt{3}}{x}$
x = 4 $\sqrt { 3 }$ × $\sqrt { 3 }$ = 12 m
∴ Width of the road = PA + PB
= 12 + 12
= 24 m

Question 3.
To a man standing outside his house, the angles of elevation of the top and bottom of a window are 60° and 45° respectively. If the height of the man is 180 cm and if he is 5 m away from the wall, what is the height of the window? ($\sqrt { 3 }$ = 1.732)
Answer:
Let the height of the window FE be “h” m
Let FC be “x” m
∴ EC = (h + x) m
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 3
In the right ∆ CDF, tan 45° = $\frac { CE }{ CD } $
1 = $\frac { x }{ 5 } $ ⇒ x = 5
In the right ∆ CDE, tan 60° = $\frac { CE }{ CD } $
$\sqrt { 3 }$ = $\frac { x+h }{ 5 } $ ⇒ x + h = 5$\sqrt { 3 }$
5 + h = 5 $\sqrt { 3 }$ (substitute the value of x)
h = 5 $\sqrt { 3 }$ – 5 = 5 × 1.732 – 5 = 8. 66 – 5 = 3.66
∴ Height of the window = 3.66 m

Question 4.
A statue 1.6 m tall stands on the top of a pedestal. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of the statue is 60° and from the same point the angle of elevation of the top of the pedestal is 40° . Find the height of the pedestal.
(tan 40° = 0.8391, $\sqrt { 3 }$ = 1.732)
Answer:
Height of the statue = 1.6 m
Let the height of the pedestal be “h”
AD = H + 1.6m
Let AB be x
In the right ∆ ABD, tan 60° = $\frac { AD }{ AB } $
$\sqrt { 3 }$ = $\frac { h+1.6 }{ x } $
x = $\frac{h+1.6}{\sqrt{3}}$ ……..(1)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 4
In the right ∆ ABC, tan 40° = $\frac { AC }{ AB } $
0.8391 = $\frac { h }{ x } $
x = $\frac { h }{ 0.8391 } $
Substitute the value of x in (1)
$\frac{h}{0.8391}=\frac{h+1.6}{\sqrt{3}}$
(h + 1.6) 0.8391 = $\sqrt { 3 }$ h
0.8391 h + 1.34 = 1.732 h
1.34 = 1.732 h – 0.8391 h
1.34 = 0.89 h
h = $\frac { 1.34 }{ 0.89 } $ = $\frac { 134 }{ 89 } $ = 1.5 m
Height of the pedestal = 1.5 m

Question 5.
A Flag pole ‘h’ metres is on the top of the hemispherical dome of radius ‘r’ metres. A man is standing 7 m away from the dome. Seeing the top of the pole at an angle 45° and moving 5 m away from the dome and seeing the bottom of the pole at an angle 30° . Find (i) the height of the pole (ii) radius of the dome. ($\sqrt { 3 }$ = 1.732)
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 5
Answer:
Height of the Flag pole (ED) = h m
AF and AD is the radius of the semi circle (r)
AC = (r + 7)
AB = (r + 7 + 5)
= (r + 12)
In the right ∆ ABD, tan 30° = $\frac { AD }{ AB } $

$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{r}{r+12}$
$\sqrt { 3 }$ r = r + 12
$\sqrt { 3 }$ r – r = 12 ⇒ r ($\sqrt { 3 }$ – 1) = 12
r[1.732 – 1] = 12 ⇒ 0.732 r = 12
r = $\frac { 12 }{ 0.732 } $ ⇒ = 16.39 m
In the right ∆ ACE, tan 45° = $\frac { AE }{ AC } $
1 + $\frac { r+h }{ r+7 } $
r + 7 = r + h
∴ h = 7 m
Height of the pole (h) = 7 m
Radius of the dome (r) = 16.39 m

Question 6.
The top of a 15 m high tower makes an angle of elevation of 60° with the bottom of an electronic pole and angle of elevation of 30° with the top of the pole. What is the height of the electric pole?
Answer:
Let the height of the electric pole AD be “h” m
EC = 15 – h m
Let AB be “x”
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 7
In the right ∆ ABC, tan 60° = $\frac { BC }{ AB } $
$\sqrt { 3 }$ = $\frac { 15 }{ x } $
x = $=\frac{15}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{15 \times \sqrt{3}}{3}$
= 5$\sqrt { 3 }$
In the right ∆ CDE, tan 30° = $\frac { EC }{ DE } $
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{15-h}{x}$ ………….(1)
Substitute the value of x = 5 $\sqrt { 3 }$ in (1)
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{15-h}{5 \sqrt{3}} \Rightarrow \sqrt{3}(15-h)=5 \sqrt{3}$
(15 – h) = $\frac{5 \sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}$ ⇒ 15 – h = 5
h = 15 – 5 = 10
∴ Height of the electric pole = 10 m

Question 7.
A vertical pole fixed to the ground is divided in the ratio 1:9 by a mark on it with lower part shorter than the upper part. If the two parts subtend equal angles at a place on the ground, 25 m away from the base of the pole, what is the height of the pole?
Answer:
Let the first part of the pole be “x” and the second part be “9x”
∴ height of the pole (AC) = x + 9x = 10x
Given ∠CDB = ∠BDA
∴ BD is the angle bisector of ∠ADC
By angle bisector theorem
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 8
$\frac { AB }{ BC } $ = $\frac { AD }{ DC } $
$\frac { 9x }{ x } $ = $\frac { AD }{ 25 } $ ⇒ AD = 9 × 25 = 225
In the right ∆ ACD
AD² = AC² + CD²
(225)² = (10x)² + 25²
50625 = 100x² + 625
∴ 100x² = 50625 – 625 = 50000
x² = $\frac { 50000 }{ 100 } $ = 500
x = $\sqrt { 500 }$ = $\sqrt{5 \times 100}=10 \sqrt{5}$
∴ AC = 10 × 10$\sqrt { 5 }$ = 100 $\sqrt { 5 }$ (AC = 10x)
∴ Height of the pole = 100 $\sqrt { 5 }$ m

Question 8.
A traveler approaches a mountain on highway. He measures the angle of elevation to the peak at each milestone. At two consecutive milestones the angles measured are 4° and 8°. What is the height of the peak if the distance between consecutive milestones is 1 mile, (tan 4° = 0.0699, tan 8° = 0.1405)
Answer:
Let the height of the peak be “h” mile. Let AD be x mile.
∴ AB = (x + 1) mile.
In the right ∆ ADC, tan 8° = $\frac { AC }{ AC } $
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 9
0.1405 = $\frac { h }{ x } $
x = $\frac { h }{ 0.1405 } $ ………..(1)
In ∆ ABC, tan 4° = $\frac { AC }{ AB } $
0.0699 = $\frac { h }{ x+1 } $ ⇒ (x + 1) 0.0699 = h
0.0699x + 0.0699 = h
0.0699 x = h – 0.0699
x = $\frac { h-0.0699 }{ 0.0699 } $ ………(2)
Equation (1) and (2) we get,
$\frac { h-0.0699 }{ 0.0699 } $ = $\frac { h }{ 0.1405 } $
0.0699 h = 0.1405 (h – 0.0699)
0.0699 h = 0.1405 h – 0.0098
0.0098 = 0.1405 h – 0.0699 h
0.0098 = 0.0706 h
h = $\frac { 0.0098 }{ 0.0706 } $ = $\frac { 98 }{ 706 } $ = 0.1388
= 0.14 mile (approximately)
Height of the peak = 0.14 mile

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3

November 1, 2023

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3

Question 1.
Solve the following system of linear equations by matrix inversion method.
(i) 2x + 5y = -2, x + 2y = -3
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 1

(ii) 2x – y = 8, 3x + 2y = -2
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 2
x = 2, y = -4

(iii) 2x + 3y – z = 9, x + y + z = 9, 3x – y – z = -1
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 3
|A| = 2(-1+1)-3(-1-3)-1(-1-3)
= 0 + 12 + 4 =16 ≠ 0 A^-1 exists.

∴ x = 2, y = 3, z = 4

(iv) x + y + z – 2 = 0, 6x – 4y + 5z – 31 = 0, 5x + 2y + 2z = 13
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 5
AX = B
X = A^-1B
A = $\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
6 & -4 & 5 \\
5 & 2 & 2
\end{array}\right]$
|A| = 1(-8-10)-1(12-25)+1(12+20)
= 18 + 13 +32 = 27
≠ 0
A^-1Exists

∴ x = 3, y = -2, z = 1

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 7
Find the products AB and BA and hence solve the system of equations x + y + 2z = 1, 3x + 2y + z = 7, 2x + y + 3z = 2
Solution:

AB = BA = 4I₃

∴ x = 2, y = 1, z = -1

Question 3.
A man is appointed in a job with a monthly salary of a certain amount and a fixed amount of annual increment. If his salary was Rs 19,800 per month at the end of the first month after 3 years of service and Rs 23,400 per month at the end of the first month after 9 years of service, find his starting salary and his annual increment. (Use the matrix inversion method to solve the problem.)
Solution:
Let the man starting the salary be Rs x and his annual increment be Rs y.
Given x + 3y = 19,800
x + 9y = 23,400
The equation can be written as
$\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 3 \\
1 & 9
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{c}
19800 \\
23400
\end{array}\right]$
AX = B
X = A^-1B
A = $\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 3 \\
1 & 9
\end{array}\right]$
To find A^-1
|A| = 9 – 3 = 6 ≠ 0 A^-1Exists.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 10
Monthly salary = Rs 18000
Annual increment = Rs 1800

Question 4.
4 men and 4 women can finish a piece of work jointly in 3 days while 2 men and 5 women can finish the same work jointly in 4 days. Find the time taken by one man alone and that of one woman alone to finish the same work by Using the matrix inversion method.
Solution:
Let the time taken by one man alone be x days and one woman alone be y days.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 11

∴ One man can do 18 days
One woman can do 36 days

Question 5.
The prices of three commodities A, B, and C are Rs x,y, and z per unit respectively. A person P purchases 4 units of B and sells two units of A and 5 units of C. Person Q purchases 2 units of C and sells 3 units of A and one unit of B. Person R purchases one unit of A and sells 3 unit of B and one unit of C. In the process, P, Q and R earn Rs 15,000, Rs 1,000 and 14,000 respectively. Find the prices per unit of A, B, and C. (Use the matrix inversion method to solve the problem.)
Solution:
Let x, y, z are commodities of A, B, C
2x – 4y + 5z = 15,000 ………… (1)
3x + y – 2z = 1000 ………… (2)
-x + 3y + z = 4000 ………… (3)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 13
|A| = 2(1 + 6)+ 4(3 – 2) + 5(9 + 1)
= 2(7) + 4(1) + 5(10)
= 14 + 4 + 50 = 68
≠ 0
A^-1Exists.

x = Rs 2000, y = Rs 1000, z = Rs 3000
The prices per unit of A, B, and C are Rs 2000, Rs 1000, Rs 3000

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4

November 1, 2023

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4

Question 1.
Solve the following systems of linear equations by Cramer’s rule:
(i) 5x – 2y + 16 = 0, x + 3y – 7 = 0
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 1

(ii) $\frac{3}{x}$ + 2y =12, $\frac{2}{x}$ + 3y = 13
Solution:
Let $\frac{1}{x}$ = a
3a + 2b = 12
2a + 3b = 13
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 2

(iii) 3x + 3y – z = 1 1, 2x – y + 2z = 9, 4x + 3y + 2z = 25
Solution:
Δ = $\left| \begin{matrix} 3 & 3 & -1 \\ 2 & -1 & 2 \\ 4 & 3 & 2 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 3(-2 – 6) -3 (4 – 8) -1(6 + 4)
= 3(-8) -3(-4) -1(10)
= -24 + 12 – 10 = -22 ≠ 0
Δ_x = $\left| \begin{matrix} 11 & 3 & -1 \\ 9 & -1 & 2 \\ 25 & 3 & 2 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 11 (-2 – 6) – 3(18 – 50) – 1(27 + 25)
= 11(-8) -3(32) -1(52)
= -88 + 96 – 52 = -44
Δ_y = $\left| \begin{matrix} 3 & 11 & -1 \\ 2 & 9 & 2 \\ 4 & 25 & 2 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 3(18 – 50) – 11(4 – 8) – 1(50 – 36)
= 3(32) -11(4) -1(14)
= -96 + 44 – 14 = -66
Δ_x = $\left| \begin{matrix} 3 & 3 & 11 \\ 2 & -1 & 9 \\ 4 & 3 & 25 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 3(-25 – 27) – 3(50 – 36) + 11(6 + 4)
= 3(-52) -3(14) + 11(10)
= -156 – 42 + 110
= -88
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 3

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 4
Solution:

3a – 4b – 2c = 1 ……….. (1)
a + 2b + c = 2 …………… (2)
2a – 5b – 4c = -1 ………….. (3)
Δ = $\left| \begin{matrix} 3 & -4 & -2 \\ 1 & 2 & 1 \\ 2 & -5 & -4 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 3(-8 + 5) + 4 (-4 – 2) – 2(-5 – 4)
= 3(-3) +4(-6) -2(-9)
= -9 – 24 + 18
= -15 ≠ 0
Δ_a = $\left| \begin{matrix} 1 & -4 & -2 \\ 2 & 2 & 1 \\ -1 & -5 & -4 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 1(-8 + 5) + 4(-8 + 1) – 2(-10 + 2)
= 1(-3) + 4(-7) – 2(-8)
= -3 – 28 + 16
= -15
Δ_b = $\left| \begin{matrix} 3 & 1 & -2 \\ 1 & 2 & 1 \\ 2 & -1 & -4 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 3(-8 + 1) – 1(-4 – 2) – 2(-1 – 4)
= 3(-7) -1(-6) – 2(-5)
= – 21 + 6 + 10 = -5
Δ_c = $\left| \begin{matrix} 3 & -4 & 1 \\ 1 & 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -5 & -1 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 3(-2 + 10) + 4(-1 – 4) + 1 (-5 – 4)
= 24 – 20 – 9 = -5
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 6

Question 2.
In a competitive examination, one mark is awarded for every correct answer while $\frac{1}{4}$ mark is deducted for every wrong answer. A student answered 100 questions and got 80 marks. How many questions did he answer correctly? (Use Cramer’s rule to solve the problem).
solution:
No. of Questions answered = 100
Let the No. of questions answered correctly be x
and the No. of questions answered wrongly be y
Here, x + y = 100 and x – $\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$ y = 80
(i.e) x + y = 100 and 4x – y = 320
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 7
correct questions = 84
wrong questions = 16.

Question 3.
A chemist has one solution which is 50% acid and another solution which is 25% acid. How much each should be mixed to make 10 litres of a 40% acid solution? (Use Cramer’s rule to solve the problem).
solution:
Let two solutions x and y
x + y = 10 …….. (1)
0.25 x + (0.50)y = (0.40) ……….. (2)
(2) × 100 ⇒ 25x + 50y = 400
(2) ÷ 5 ⇒ 5x + 10y = 80 …………. (3)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 8

Question 4.
A fish tank can be filled in 10 minutes using both pumps A and B simultaneously. However, pump B can pump water in or out at the same rate. If pump B is inadvertently run in reverse, then the tank will be filled in 30 minutes. How long would it take each pump to fill the tank by itself? (Use Cramer’s rule to solve the problems).
solution:
pump A fills $(\frac {1}{x})^{th}$ of the tank in 1 hour.
pump B fills $(\frac {1}{y})^{th}$ of the tank in 1 hour.
Both can filled $(\frac {1}{10})^{th}$ of the tank in 1 hour.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 9
using Cramer’s rule

Pump A takes 15 minutes
Pump B takes 30 minutes

Question 5.
A family of 3 people went out for dinner in a restaurant. The cost of two dosai, three idlies and two vadais is Rs 150. The cost of the two dosai, two idlies and four vadais is Rs 200. The cost of five dosai, four idlies and two vadais is T 250. The family has Rs 350 in hand and they ate 3 dosai and six idlies and six vadais. Will they be able to manage to pay the bill within the amount they had?
solution:
Let the Cost of dosai, Idlies and vadais be x, y, z
2x + 3y + 2z = 150
2x + 2y + 4z = 200
5x + 4y + 2z = 250
Δ = $\left| \begin{matrix} 2 & 3 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 & 4 \\ 5 & 4 & 2 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 2(4 – 16) – 3(4 – 20) + 2(8 – 10)
= 2(-12) – 3(-16) + 2(-2)
= -24 + 48 – 4
= 20 ≠ 0
Δ_x = $\left| \begin{matrix} 150 & 3 & 2 \\ 200 & 2 & 4 \\ 250 & 4 & 2 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 150(4 – 16) – 3(400 – 1000) + 2(800 – 500)
= 150(-12) – 3(-600) + 2(300)
= -1800 + 1800 + 600
= 600
Δ_y = $\left| \begin{matrix} 2 & 150 & 2 \\ 2 & 200 & 4 \\ 5 & 250 & 2 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 2(400 – 1000) – 150(4 – 20) + 2(500 – 1000)
= 2(-600) – 150(-16) + 2(-500)
= -1200 + 2400 – 1000
= 200
Δ_z = $\left| \begin{matrix} 2 & 3 & 150 \\ 2 & 2 & 200 \\ 5 & 4 & 250 \end{matrix} \right| $
= 2(500 – 800) – 3(500 – 1000) + 150(8 – 10)
= 2(-300) – 3(-500) + 150(-2)
= -600 + 1500 – 300
= 600
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 11
x = Rs 30, y = Rs 10, z = Rs 30
There are 3 dosai, 6 idlies and 6 vadais
= 3x + 6y + 6z
= 3(30) + 6(10) + 6 (30)
= 90 + 60 + 180
= Rs. 330
They can eat within the amount.