TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 1.
Define the following:

(i) Solution.
Answer:
A solution is a homogeneous mixture of a solute and a solvent, where the solute is uniformly distributed throughout the solution.

(ii) Saturated solution.
Answer:
A saturated solution more amount of the solute, than it can possibly dissolve at a particular temperature. Further, addition of the solute results in the precipitation of the solute.

(iii) Unsaturatgd solution.
Answer:
An unsaturated solution is one which could dissolve some more quantity of the olute in a given amount of solvent, till it becomes saturated.

(iv) Super saturated solution.
Answer:
A super saturated solution is one which contains more solute than the one require to form a saturated solution.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 2.
Give examples for a homogeneous solution.
Answer:
(i) Sea water
(ii) Air
(iii) Alloys like brass etc.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term homogeneity?
Answer:
The term homogeneity means that all the constituents of a solution are uniformly distributed throughout the solution.

Question 4.
Bring out the distinction between an aqueous and non aqueous solution.
Answer:
An aqueous solution is one in which water is the solvent. Solution in which benzene, carbon tetrachloride, ether etc., used as solvents are known as non-aqueous solution.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 5.
Give examples for:

(i) A gaseous solution.
Answer:
Air (A mixture of nitrogen, oxygen and other gases). Humid oxygen (oxygen containing water). Camphor in nitrogen gas.

(ii) Liquid solution.
Answer:
CO2 dissolved in water (carbonated water). Ethanol dissolved in water, salt water.

(iii) Solid solution.
Answer:
Solution of H2 in palladium. Amalgam of potassium (used for dental filling). Gold alloy (of copper used in making jewellery).

Question 6.
What do you understand by the term

(i) Standard solution.
Answer:
A standard solution or a stock solution is a Solution whose concentration is accurately known.

(ii) Working standard.
Answer:
At the time of experiment, the solution , with required concentration is prepared by diluting the stock solution. This diluted solution is usually called working 1 standard.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 7.
Describe how do you prepare

(i) A standard solution.
Answer:
The required amount of the solute is weighed exactly in a weighing bottle. It is then transferred to a standard flask of definite volume. A small amount of water is added to dissolve the solute. Then water is added slowly till the mark indicated at the top of the flask. The flask is then covered with the stopper and the solution is shaken for uniform concentration.

(ii) Working standard.
Answer:
A standard solution can also be called a stock solution, eg: If a 1M solution of a solute is prepared (1 mole of a solute present in 1 litre). A small known amount of the solution is taken and further diluted to get a solution of known concentration.

This diluted solution, then can be used for experimental purposes. The concentration of the diluted solution is known and hence this is also a standard solution. This diluted solution is known as working standard.

The volume of the stock solution of known concentration, to be taken and how much 7 volume of water to be added to get the concentration of the working standard can be obtained by the relation.

CsVs = CwVw
Cs and Vs are the concentration and volume of the stock solution and Cw and Vw are the concentration and volume of the working standard.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 8.
What are the advantages of using standard solutions?
Answer:
(i) The error due to weighing the solute can be minimised by using concentrated stock solution that requires large quantity of solute.
(ii) We can prepare working standards of different concentrations by diluting the stock solution, which is more efficient Since consistency is maintained.
(iii) Some of the concentrated solutions are more stable and are less likely to support microbial growth than working standards used in the experiments.

Question 9.
Define the term solubility of a solute in a given solvent.
Answer:
Solubility of a solute is the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a specific amount of solvent at a specified temperature. The solubility of a substance at a given temperature is defined as the amount of the solute that can be dissolved in 100 g of the solvent at a given temperature to form a saturated solution.

Question 10.
Mention the factors influencing the solubility.
Answer:
(i) The solubility of a solute in a given solvent depends on the nature of the solute and solvent. Generally ionic compounds are soluble in polar solvents like water and insoluble in non-polar solvents like benzene or toluene. Similarly covalent compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents and insoluble in polar solvents.
(ii) The solubility of a solid solute in a liquid increases with the increase in temperature.
(iii) If heat is liberated during the dissolution, the solubility of the solute decreases with increase in temperature. (For endothermic dissolution). If the dissociation is exothermic, the solubility increases with increase in temperature.
(iv) For a gaseous solute, the solubility . increases with the pressure of the gas , according to Henry’s law.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 11.
What are solubility curves? What information do we get from such curves?
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 1

The variation of solubility of a solid in given solvent at a given temperature i.e., plot of solubility curves temperature is known as solubility curves.
The information obtained from the solubility curves are:
(i) The solubility of sodium chloride does not vary appreciably as the maximum solubility is achieved at normal temperature.
; (ii) The dissolution process of ammonium nitrate is endothermic, the solubility increases steeply with increase in temperature.
(iii) In the case of ceric sulphate, the dissolution is exothermic and the solubility decreases with increase in temperature.
(iv) Even though the dissolution of calcium chloride is exothermic, the solubility increases moderately with increase in temperature. Here, the entropy factor also plays a significant role in deciding the position of the equilibrium.

Question 12.
Explain why the solubility of a gaseous solute in a liquid solvent decreases with increase in temperature.
Answer:
The dissolution of gases in a liquid solvent is exothermic. i.e„ heat is liberated during the dissolution process. According to Eechatelier principle, increase in temperature, decreases the solubility of gas in a given solvent.

Question 13.
Why the carbonated drinks are stored in a pressurised container?
Answer:
According to Henry’s law, the solubility of a gas increases with the pressure of the gas at a given temperature. Thus, to increase the solubility of CO2 in water, at the room temperature, CO2 gas is dissolved in water at high pressures.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 14.
Compare Raoult’s Law and Henry ’s law.
Answer:
Similarities:
(i) Both apply to the volatile component of the solution.
(ii) Both state that the vapour pressure of any component in solution is proportional to the mole fraction of the solute in solution.
pA = p°A XA (Raoult’s law)
PA = kH XA (Henry,s law)
where pA is the partial vapour pressure of the component A and XA is the mole fraction of the solute in solution.

Dissimilarities:
(i) The two laws in their proportionality constant. In Raoult’s law, it is p°A, the vapour pressure of pure component A and in Henry’s law it is Henry’s law constant, (kH). The value of kH is experimentally determined.
(ii) For every dilute solutions, solvent obeys. Raoult’s law while the solute obey Henry’s law.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 15.
What are ideal and non-ideal solutions?
Answer:
(i) Ideal solutions:
An ideal solution is one in which each component i.e., the solute as well as the solvent obeys the Raoult’s law over the entire range of concentration.
(ii) Non-ideal solutions:
The solutions which do not obey Raoult’s law over the entire range of concentration are called non-ideal Solutions.

Question 16.
Bring out the characteristics of ideal and non-ideal solutions.
Answer:
Characteristics of ideal solutions:
(i) There is no change in the volume on . mixing the two components (solute & solvents). (∆Vmixing = 0).
(ii) There is no exchange of heat when the solute is dissolved in solvent (∆Hmixing = 0).
(iii) Escaping tendency of the solute and the solvent present in it should be same as in pure liquids.

Characteristics of non-ideal solutions:
For a non-ideal solution, there is a change in the volume and enthalpy upon mixing, i.e., ∆Hmixing ≠ 0 and ∆Vmixing ≠ 0. The deviation of the non-ideal solutions from the Raoult’s law can either be positive or negative.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 17.
What type of deviation from ideal behaviour exhibited by a mixture of ethanol and water? Explain.
Answer:
(i) A mixture of ethanol and water exhibit positive deviation from ideal behaviour. Hydrogen bonding exists between ethanol- ethanol, water-water and ethanol-water molecules as

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 2

The strength of hydrogen bonding between ethanol and water is less compared to thatof ethanol-ethanol or water-water. As a result, the escaping tendency of ethanol / water molecule is higher and hence both readily get evoporated. Thus, the partial vapour pressure of ethanol or water, pA or pB is greater then partial vapour, if this mixture behaves ideally.’ Hence, this – mixture shows positive deviation from ideal behaviour.

(ii) The volume of the solution is greater than the volume of ethanol and water taken together i.e., ∆Vmixing > 0.
It is due to the intermolecular forces among the molecules in solution. The molecules are loosely held, which results in an increase in volume on mixing.

(iii) ∆H(mixing) > 0. i.e., Heat is absorbed when ethanol and water are mixed. It is due to the fact that energy is required to break the hydrogen bond that exists between ethanol. and water molecules. This energy is less than the energy released in the formation of ethanol-water hydrogen bond.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 18.
Give examples for non-ideal solution sharing positive deviation from ideal behaviour.
Answer:
Ethyl alcohol and cyclohexane, Benzene and acetone, Carbon tetrachloride and chloroform, Acetone and ethyl alcohol, Ethyl alcohol and water.

Question 19.
What type of deviation does a mixture of aniline and phenol show? Explain.
Answer:
(i) A liquid mixture of aniline and phenol exhibit negative deviation from ideal behaviour. In this mixture, there exists aniline-aniline, phenol-phenol and phenol-aniline interactions. These infractions are due to hydrogen bonding among themselves. The strength of the hydrogen, bond is greater in phenol and aniline, compared to phenol – phenol or aniline- aniline molecules.

The formation of hydrogen bond between phenol and aniline, increases the escaping tendency of both phenol and aniline. Hence, the experimentally observed vapour pressure of die solution is greater than the calculated vapour pressure based on Raoult’s law.

(ii) The total volume of the solution is less the volumes of phenol and aniline that is mixed. ∆Vmixing < 0.

(iii) There is an increase in the enthalpy of mixing, i.e., ∆Hmixing > 0. It is due to the fact that less energy is required to break phenol-phenol and aniline- required to form new hydrogen bonding between phenol and aniline.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 20.
Give examples of a liquid mixtures showing negative deviation from ideal behaviour.
Answer:
Acetone + chloroform, Chloroform + diethyl ether, Acetone + aniline, Chloroform + Benzene.

Question 21.
Mention the factors responsible for deviation from Raoult’s Law.
Answer:
(i) Solute-solvent interaction: If solute- solute, solvent-solvent interactions are different from solute – solvent interactions, the liquid mixture deviate from ideal behaviour.
(ii) If the solute undergoes association or dissociation m a given solvent, then the solution deviate from ideal behaviour.
(iii) At higher temperatures, solution deviate from ideal behaviour.
(iv) The solution deviates from ideal behaviour at higher pressure.
(v) At relatively higher concentrations of the solutions; the deviations become larger.

Question 22.
Define Colligative properties.
Answer:
The properties which do not depend on the chemical nature of the solute but depends only on the number of solute particles (ions/ molecules) present in the solution are known as colligative properties.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 23.
Explain why the vapour pressure of a pure solvent is decreased by the addition of a non-volatile solid?
Answer:
Addition of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute decreases the vapour pressure of the pure solvent. In other words, the vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of the – pure solvent. When the liquid and its vapour are in equilibrium, the standard free energy change, ∆G = 0. During the dissociation the free energy decreases due to increase in entropy, i.e.,

∆G = Gsolution – Gsolvent
In order to maintain equilibrium, the free energy of the vapour phase of the solvent must also decrease. The free energy of the vapour must also decrease to reduce the pressure. Thus the vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of the pure solvent.

(Alternatively)

Addition of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute to a pure solvent, decreases the number of solvent molecules on the surface of the solution. This decreases the escaping tendency of the solvent molecules in the surface of the solution. In other words, the vapour pressure solution is less than that of the pure solvent.

Question 24.
What do you understand by the term ‘relative lowering of vapour pressure’? Explain why it is called colligative property.
Answer:
The ratio between the lowering of vapour pressure to the vapour pressure of pure solvent is known as relative lowering of vapour pressure i.e.,
\(\frac{\mathrm{p}^{\circ}-\mathrm{p}}{\mathrm{p}^{0}}\) = Relative lowering of vapour pressure.

From the equation,

\(\frac{p_{(\text {solvent })}^{0}-\mathbf{p}_{(\text {solution })}}{\mathbf{p}_{\text {(solvent) }}^{0}}\) = XB (mole fraction of the solute)

the relative lowering of vapour pressure is independent of its nature and depends only on the mole fraction of the solute. Hence, it is a colligative property.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 25.
Derive the relationship between the relative lowering of vapour pressure and molecular weight of a non-volatile solute.
Answer:
According to Raoult’s law the relative lowering of vapour pressure is,
\(\frac{\mathrm{P}^{0}{ }_{\text {solvent }}-\mathrm{P}_{\text {solution }}}{\mathrm{P}^{\mathrm{O}}}_{\text {solvent }}\) = XB

Let wA and wB be the weights of the solvent and solute respectively and their corresponding molar masses are MA and MB, then the mole fraction of the solute XB is

XB = \(\frac{n_{\mathrm{B}}}{n_{\mathrm{A}}+n_{\mathrm{B}}}\)

Here, nA and nB are the moles of the solvent and the solute respectively. For dilute solutions nA >> nB. Hence nA + nB ≈ nA
Now,

XB = \(\frac{n_{\mathrm{B}}}{n_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

Number of moles of solvent and the solute are,

nA = \(\frac{w_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}\),

nB = \(\frac{w_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}\)

Therefore,

XB = \(\frac{\frac{w_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}}{\frac{w_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}}\)

Thus, Relative lowering of vapour pressure = \(\frac{\frac{w_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}}{\frac{w_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}}\)

Relative lowering of vapour pressure = \(\frac{w_{\mathrm{B}} \times \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}{w_{\mathrm{A}} \times \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}\)

From the equation the molar mass of the solute (MB) can be calculated using the known values of wA, wB, MA and the measured relative lowering of vapour pressure.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 26.
Define boiling point of a liquid.
Answer:
The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapour pressure becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure (1 atm).

Question 27.
Define elevation in boiling point.
Answer:
The increase in boiling point produced when a non-volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent is known as the elevation in boiling point.

Question 28.
Explain why the boiling point of a solution of a non-volatile solute is higher than the boiling point of the pure solvent.
Answer:
Addition of a non-volatile solute lowers the vapour pressure of the solvent, i.e., the solution has a lower vapour pressure than the solvent. Boiling point is the temperature at which vapour pressure of the liquid becomes equal to atmospheric pressure.

Since the vapour pressure of the solution is less than the vapour pressure of file solvent, its temperature has to be raised, more than that of the pure solvent So that its vapour pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 29.
How is elevation in boiling point related to the molecular weight of the solute?
Answer:
The elevation of boiling point is directly proportional to the concentration of the solute particles.
∆Tb ∝ m ………..(1)
m is the concentration of solution expressed in molality.
∆Tb = Kb m
Where Kb</sub = molal boiling point elevation constant or Ebullioscopic constant.

Tb = Kb × \(\frac{w_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}} \times \frac{1000}{w_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

Where wA, wB are the weights of solvent and solute respectively. MB is the molar mass solute B.

Question 30.
Define molal elevation constant.
Answer:
The Kb molal elevation constant is equal to the elevation in boiling point for 1 molal solution.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 31.
Define freezing point of a liquid.
Answer:
Freezing point is defined as “the temperature at which the solid and the liquid states of the substance have the same vapour pressure”. At freezing point, the solid and liquid phases of the substance are in equilibrium.

Question 32.
Define depression in freezing point.
Answer:
The lowering of the freezing point of the solvent when a solute is added is called depression in freezing point (∆Tf).

Question 33.
Explain why freezing point of a solution (T) is lower than that of the freezing point of pure solvent (T)?
Answer:
Curve ABC gives the variation of the vapour pressure of the pure solvent with temperautre. At B, the liquid is in equilirbium with the solid solvent, (in the case of H2O, the equilibrium is ice (s) ⇌ water (l)). The temperature is 0°C and the pressure is 1 atm.

At this temperature, the vapour pressure of liquid and that of solid solvent are equal. This is known as the freezing point of the pure solvent (T°f)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 4

Addition of non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute to the pure solvent decreases the vapour pressure of solvent to D. i.e., the vapour pressure of the solution is indicated by the point D. Decrease in temperature decreases the vapour pressure of the solution.

At ‘E’, i. e., the freezing point of the pure solvent, the solution does not freeze. This is because, the vapour pressure of the solution is not equal to vapour pressure of the pure solvent. The temperature has to be decreased to the point ‘F’, where the vapour pressure of the solution . and the pure solvent becomes equal, i.e., the freezing point of the solution is less than the freezing point of the pure solvent.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 34.
How is depression in freezing point related to the molar mass of the non-volatile solute?
Answer:
The depression in freezing point is directly proportional to the molal concentration of the solute particles.
Hence,
∆Tf ∝ m
∆Tf = Kf m
Here, ‘m’ = is the molality of the solution.

∆Tf = Kf × \(\frac{w_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}} \times \frac{1000}{w_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

Where m = \(\frac{w_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}} \times \frac{1000}{w_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

wA and wB are the weights of solvent (A) and solute (B) respectively. MB is the gram molecular weight of the solute and Kf is molal depression constant.

Question 35.
What is a semipermeable membrane?
Answer:
The semipermeable membrane is oneAn which selectively allows certain molecules in the solution to pass through it but not others.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 36.
Define osmotic pressure.
Answer:
Osmotic pressure can be defined as “the pressure that must be applied to the solution to stop the influx of the solvent (to stop osmosis) through the semipermeable membrane”.

Question 37.
Write van’t Hoff equation to calculate osmotic pressure.
Answer:
π = cRT .
Here, c = Concentration of the solution in molarity
T = Temperature
R = Gas constant.

Question 38.
Derive an equation for determination of molar mass from osmotic pressure.
Answer:
According to Van’t Hoff equation
π = cRT
c = \(\frac{n}{\mathrm{~V}}\)
Here, n = number of moles of solute dissolved in ‘V’ litre of the solution.
Therefore, n = \(\frac{n}{\mathrm{~V}}\)RT or
πV = nRT ………..(1)

If the solution is prepared by dissolving wB g of non-volatile solute in wA g of solvent, then the number of moles ‘n’ is,
n = wB / MB
Since, MB = molar mass of the solute Substituting the V in (1), we get,

π = \(\frac{w_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{V}} \frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}\)

MB = \(\frac{w_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{V}} \frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\pi}\) ………(2)
From the equation (2), molar mass of the solute can be calculated.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 39.
Explain why osmotic pressure measurements are prepared to determine the molar mass of polymers than other colligative properties.
Answer:
Unlike elevation of boiling point (for 1 molal solution the elevation in boiling point is 0.512°C for water) and the depression in freezing point (for 1 molal solution the depression in freezing point is 1.86°C for water), the magnitude of osmotic pressure is large.

The osmotic pressure can be measured at room temperature enables to determine the molecular mass of biomolecules which are unstable at higher temperatures.

Even for a very dilute solution, the osmotic pressure is large.

Question 40.
What are ‘hypotonic’ and ‘hypertonic’ solutions?
Answer:
These terms are used to compare the relative osmotic pressure of two solutions. A solution of low osmotic pressure is termed hypotonic and the one with higher osmotic pressure is terms as hypertonic.

Question 41.
Explain the principle involved in intravenous drip of saline water,
Answer:
Intravenous drip of saline water: Saline drip to the patients is based on the principle of osmosis.
(i) A 0.91% solution of NaCl in water is isotonic with blood. Hence, in this solutions red blood cells would neither
swell or shrink.
(ii) Aqueous solution of NaCl with concentration less than 0.91 % is hypotonic to blood. On placing red blood cells in this solution the solvent from outside of the cells will flow into the cell to normalise the osmotic pressure. This process is called hemolysis, which causes the cells to burst.
(iii) Aqueous solution ofNaCl with concentration more than 0.91% is hypertonic to blood. On placing red blood cells in this solution, the solvent molecules flow out of the cell which causes the cell to shrink.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 42.
Define reverse osmosis.
Answer:
It can be defined as a process in which a solvent passes through a Semipermeable membrane in the opposite direction of osmosis, when subjected to a hydrostatic pressure greater than the osmotic pressure.

Question 43.
Mention the applications of reverse osmosis.
Answer:
Application of reverse osmosis:
(i) Used in desalination of sea water and also in the purification of water.
(ii) To prepare fruit juice concentrate.
(iii) To remove pollutants from sewage disposal.

Question 44.
What do you understand by ‘abnormal molar mass’?
Answer:
The molar masses of solutes which undergo dissociation or association in a given solvent, if determined by measuring any of the colligative properties iS found to be different from their actual value. This is known as abnormal molar mass.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 45.
Define Van’t Hoff factor.
Answer:
The extent of dissociation or association of a solute in a given solvent is given by Van’t Hoff factor (i). It is defined as the ratio of the actual molar mass to the abriormal (calculated) molar mass of the solute. Here, the abnormal molar mass is the molar mass calculated usingthe experimentally determined colligative property.
i = \(\frac{\text { Normal (actual) molar mass }}{\text { Observed (abnormal) molar mass }}\)

= \(\frac{\text { Observed colligative property }}{\text { Calculated colligative property }}\)

Question 46.
How do you determine the nature of solute from Van’t Hoff factor?
Answer:
(i) If i = 1, the solute neither undergoes dissociation or association in a given solvent. The observed molar mass and the normal mass will be the same.
(ii) If i> 1, the solute undergoes dissociation in a given solvent. The observed molar mass will be less than the normal molar mass.
(iii) If i < 1, the solute undergoes association in a given solvent. The observed molar mass will be greater than the normal molar mass.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 47.
Calculate the mole fraction and molality of 2.5 gram of ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) in 75 gram of benzene.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 4

Question 48.
Calculate the molarity and normality of a solution containing 5,gram of NaOH in 450 ml solution.
Answer:
Mass of NaOH dissolved = 5 g
Volume of the solution = 450 cm3
Molar mass of NaOH = 40 g mol-1

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 5

(Normality and molarity of NaOH are the same. NaOH is monoacidic base).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 49.
20 ml of 10 N HCl are diluted with distilled water to form one litre solution. What is the normality of the diluted solution?
Answer:
During dilution, the number of equivalents of the solute remains the same, but the concentration (normality) decreases.
No. of equivalents (Before dilution) = No. of equivalents (after dilution)
V1 N1 x 10-3 = V2 N2 x 10-3
V1 = 20 ml; V2 = 1000 ml
N1 = 10 N ; N2 = ?
20 × 10 = 1000 × N2 20 × 10
N2 = \(\frac{20 \times 10}{1000}\) = 0.2 N

Question 50.
If N2 gas is bubbled through water at 293 K, how many millimoles of N2 gas would dissolve in 1 litre of water. Assume N2 exerts a partial pressure of 0.987 bar. Given that Heniy’s law constant for N2 at 293 K is 76.48 bar.
Answer:
According to Henry’s law.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 6

If V moles of N2 are present in 1 litre of H2O (i.e., 55.5 moles),
XN2 = \(\frac{n}{n+55.5}\)

= \(\frac{n}{55.5}\) (n <<55.5)
∴ \(\frac{n}{55.5}\) = 1.29 × 10-5
n = 1.29 × 10-5 × 55.5
= 71.595 × 10-5 moles
= 0.716 millimeters

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 51.
Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at 298 K are 200 mm Hg and 415 mm Hg respectively. Calculate:
(i) Vapour pressure of the solution prepared by mixing 25.5 grams of CHCl3 and 40 g of CH3Cl2 at 298 K.
Answer:
Calculation of vapour pressure of the solution:
mass of CHCl3 = 25.5 g
mass of CH2Cl2 = 40 g
molar mass of CHCl3 = 12 + 1 + 3 × 35.5 = 119.5 g mol-1
molar mass of CH2Cl2 = 12 + 2 + 2 × 35.5 = 85 g mol-1
∴ moles of CHCl3 = \(\frac{25.5 g}{119.5 g \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\)
= 0.213 mol

∴ moles of CH2Cl2 = \(\frac{40 g}{85 g m o l^{-1}}\) = 0.470 mol

∴ mole fraction of CHCl3 (XCHCl3) = \(\frac{0.213}{0.213+0.470}\) = 0.312

mole fraction of CH2Cl2(XCH2Cl2) = 1 – 0.32 = 0.688

PCHCl3 = P°CHCl3 × XCHCl3
= 200 × 0.312

PCH2Cl2 = P°CH2Cl2 × XCH2Cl2

= 415 × 0.688

Ptotal = PCHCl3 PCH2Cl2
= 200 × 0.312 + 415 × 0.688 = 347.9 mm

(ii) The mole fraction of each component in the vapour phase.
Calculation of mole fraction of each component in vapour phase.
As calculated above,
PCHCl3 = 62
PCl3Cl2 = 285.5
Ptotal = 347.9
Mole fraction of CHCl3 in the vapour phase = \(\frac{\mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{CHCl}_{3}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\text {total }}}\)

= \(\frac{62.4 \mathrm{~mm}}{347.9 \mathrm{~mm}}\) = 0.18

Mole fraction of CH3Cl2 in the vapour phase = 1 – 0.18 = 0.82

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 52.
Vapour pressure of water at 293 K is 17.51 mm. Lowering of vapour pressure if a sugar solution is 0.0614 mm. Calculate
(i) Relative lowering of vapour pressure.
Answer:
Given:
Vapour pressure of H2O (p°) =17.511 mm
Lowering of vapour pressure (p° – p) = 0.0614 mm
Relative lowering of vapour pressure = \(\frac{\left(p^{o}-p\right)}{p^{0}}\)

= \(\frac{0.0614 \mathrm{~mm}}{17.51 \mathrm{~m}}\) =000351

(ii) Vapour pressure of the solution.
Answer:
Vapour pressure of the solution (p)
p° – p = 0.0614
(17.51 mm – p) = 0.0614 mm
p = 17.51 mm-0.0614 mm = 17.4468 mm

(iii) Mole fraction of water.
Answer:
To calculate the mole fraction of water.
By Raoult’s law \(\frac{\left(p^{0}-p\right)}{p^{0}}\) = X2 (mole fraction of solute)
X2 = 0.00351
mole fraction of water = 1 – 0.00351 = 0.99649

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 53.
The vapour pressure of a 5 % solution of a non volatile organic substance at 373 K is 745 mm. Calculate the molar mass of the solute.
Answer:
Mass of the solute (w2) = 5 g
Mass of the solution = 100 g
Mass of the solvent (w1) = 100 – 5 = 95 g
Vapour pressure of pure water at 373 K (p°) = 760 mm
Vapour pressure of the solution at 373 K (p) = 745 mm (given)
Molar mass of solvent (M1) = 18 g mol-1
Molar mass of solute = ?

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 7

Question 54.
200 cm3 ofan aqueous solution of protein contains 1.26 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10-3 bar. Calculate the molar mass of protein.
Answer:
Given:
Mass of the protein (w2) = 1.26 g
Volume of the solution (v) = 200 cm3 = 0.200 L
Osmotic pressure (π) = 2.57 × 10-3 bar
Temperature (T) = 300 K
R = gas constant = 0.083 L bar K-1 mol-1
M2 = \(\frac{w_{2} \times R \times T}{\pi v}\)

= \(\frac{1.26 \mathrm{~g} \times 0.083 \mathrm{~L} \mathrm{bar} \mathrm{K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \times 300 \mathrm{~K}}{2.57 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{bar} \times 0.200 \mathrm{~L}}\)

= 61039 g mol-1

Question 55.
The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 90 g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. K6 for benzene is 2.53 K kg mol-1.
Answer:
Given:
Weight of the solute (w2) = 1.80 g
Weight of the solvent (w1) = 90 g
Boiling point of solution (T) = 354.11 K
Boiling point of the solvent (T0) =353.23 K
Molar elevation constant for benzene (Kb) = 2.53K kg mol
Molecular weight of the solute = ?
Using the formula

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 8

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 56.
45 g of ethelene glycol (C2H6O2) is mixed with 600 g of water. Calculate
(a) freezing point depression.
(b) freezing point of the solution.
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1 Atomic mass of C = 12, H = 1; O = 16 amu).
Answer:
Given:
Weight of the solute (w2) = 45 g
Weight of the solvent (w1) = 600 g
Molal depression constant (Kf) = 1.86 kg mol-1
Molar mass of solute (M2) = 24 + 6 + 32 = 62 g mol-1
Substituting these values in
∆Tf = Kf × \(\frac{w_{2}}{\mathrm{M}_{2}} \times \frac{1000}{w_{1}}\)

∆Tf = \(\begin{gathered}
1.86 \mathrm{~K} \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \\
\frac{\times 45 \mathrm{~g} \times 1000}{62 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \times 600 \mathrm{~g}}
\end{gathered}\)

Freezing point of pure water = 273.15 K

Freezing point of the solution = 273.15 – 2.25 = 270.9 K

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 57.
0.5 g KCl was. dissolved in 100 g of water and the solution originally at 20°C froze at – 0.24°C. Calculate the percent ionisation of the salt.
Answer:
Kf for water per 1000 g water = 1.86°C
Weight of KCl3 (w2) = 0.5 g
Weight of water (w1) = 100 g
Molecular weight of KCl (m2) = 39 + 35.5 = 74.5 g
∆Tf = 0 – (-0.24)
Van’t Hoff factor (i) for KCl

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 9

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The normality of 0.1M H2S04 is equal to:
(a) 0.2 N
(b) 0.1 N
(c) 0.05 N
(d) 2.0 N
Answer:
(a) 0.2 N
Hint:
Normality of a solution of acid = molarity × basicity
N = 0.1 × 2 (H2SO4 is dibasic) = 0.2 N

Question 2.
Which unit of concentration value is not changed with the change in temperature?
(a) Normality
(b) Molarity
(c) %V / V
(d) molality
Answer:
(d) molality
Hint:
m = \(\frac{\text { no. of mol of solute }}{\text { mass of solvent in } \mathrm{Kg}}\)

The masses of the solute and the solvent has no influence on temperature.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 3.
On increasing the temperature the solubility of gaseous solute in liquid solvent:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) uncertain
Answer:
(b) decreases
Hint:
Dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an endothermic process. According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, increase in temperature result in decrease in the solubility of a gas.

Question 4.
What is the molality for 10% of w/w NaOH (aqueous) solution?
(a) 2.778
(b) 2.5
(c) 10
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2.778
Hint:
Weight of the solution = 100 g
Weight of NaOH = 10 g
Weight of water = 90 g

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 10

Question 5.
0.05 M glucose solution is isotonic with which of the following solution?
(a) 0.10 M NaCl
(b) 0.05 M NaCl
(c) 0.025 M NaCl
(d) 1 M NaCl
Answer:
(c) 0.025 M NaCl
Hint:
π ∝ C glucose contains only glucose molecules and NaCl contains 2 particles (viz Na+ + Cl). Isotonic solution should have same molar concentration.
0.025 M NaCl = 0.05 NaCl .
0.01 M NaCl = 0.02 M NaCl
0.05 M NaCl = 0.1 M NaCl
1 M NaCl = 2 M NaCl

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 6.
Two solutions having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are called:
(a) hypertonic
(b) hypotonic
(c) isotonic
(d) supertonic
Answer:
(c) isotonic

Question 7.
Van’t Hoff factor are l and m in the case of substances undergoing association, dissociation respectively. Then their Van’t Hoff factor will be:
(a) l < m
(b) l = m
(c) m < l
(d) l = m = 1
Answer:
(a) l < m
Hint:
Van’t Hoff factor l < 1 for solutes undergoes association and l > 1 for solutes undergoing dissociation.
∴ l < m

Question 8.
The Van’t Hoff factor for which of the following solute will be greater than 1:
(a) glucose
(b) benzoic acid
(c) sodium sulphate
(d) sucrose
Answer:
(c) sodium sulphate
Hint:
Na2SO4 → 2 Na+ + SO4-2
Glucose and sucrose does not undergo association or dissociation. Whereas, benzoic acid undergoes association.
Van’t Hoff factor is > 1 for solutes which undergo dissociation in a given solvent.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 9.
Which one of the following will give a better result when used on the roads to avoid freezing in the cold countries.
(a) NaCl
(b) CaCl2
(c) Na2SO4
(d) AlCl3
Answer:
(d) AlCl3
Hint:
Greater the number of ions produced greater is the depression in freezing point. In cold countries, salts are added to prevent freezing of water (forfnation of ice).

Question 10.
The lowest freezing point of 0.1 M aqueous solution is for:
(a) K2SO4
(b) NaCl
(c) Urea
(d) Glucose
Answer: (a)
Hint: Greater the number of particles, greater is the depression in freezing point. Hence a solution which contains fnore number of ions will have the lowest freezing point K2SO4 gives three ions.

Question 11.
Out of the following which has the highest boiling point will be:
(a) 0.1 M NaCl
(b) 0.1M BaCl2
(c) 0.1M KNO3
(d) 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6]
Answer:
(d) 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6]
Hint:
K4[Fe(CN)6] ionises to give 4K+ and one Fe(CN)6-4 ion. i.e., 5 ions. Greater the number of particles (ions) greater is the elevation in freezing point. Hence the solution which gives more number of ions will have the highest ‘ boiling point.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 12.
Elevation in boiling point of a molar glucose solution (d = 1.2g mL-1):
(a) 0.98 Kb
(b) Kb
(c) 1.20Kb
(d) 1.02Kb
Answer:
(a) 0.98 Kb
Hint:
1 mL of glucose solution = 1.2 g
1000 mL of glucose solution = 1.2 x 1000
Weight of the solvent = 1200 – 180 = 1020 g
w2 = m2 = 180;
∆Tb = Kb = \(\frac{w_{2}}{m_{2}} \times \frac{1000}{w_{1}}\)

= Kb × \(\frac{180}{180} \times \frac{1000}{1020}\)

= 0.98 Kb = 12000 g

Question 13.
The Henry’s law constant does not depend on the:
(a) nature of solute
(b) nature of solvent
(c) temperature of the system
(d) external pressure of the gas on the System
Answer:
(b) nature of solvent
Hint:
Henry’s law constant depends on the nature of the gas, temperature and pressure of the gas.

Question 14.
The unit of molality is:
(a) mol
(b) mol dm-3
(c) mol kg-1
(d) mol-1
Answer:
(c) mol kg-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 15.
What is the concentration of a solution prepared by diluting 0.5 L of 1.80 M to 1.5 L with solvent?
(a) 0.6 M
(b) 0.5 M
(c) 0.8 M
(d) 0.7 M
Answer:
(a) 0.6 M
Hint:
During dilution, the number of mol of the solute does not change.
Hence, V1 M1 = V2 M2
Number of mole before dilution = Number of mol after dilution
5 L × 1.80 M = 1.5 L × M2
M2 = \(\frac{5 \mathrm{~L} \times 1.80 \mathrm{M}}{1.5 \mathrm{~L}}\) = 0.6 M

Question 16.
What will be the concentration of sugar in a solution prepared by mixing 3.0 L of 2.0 M sugar with 2.5 L of 1.0 M Salt:
(a) 1.09 M
(b) 1.54 M
(c) 1.32 M
(d) 1.7 M
Answer:
(a) 1.09 M
Hint:
The number of mol of sugar does not change on mixing but the volume of the solution change. The volume of the solution after mixing is
3.0 + 2.5 = 5.5 L
V1 M1 = V2 M2
3 L × 2.0 M = 5.5 L × M2
M2 = \(\frac{3 \mathrm{~L} \times 2.0 \mathrm{M}}{5.5 \mathrm{~L}}\) = 1.09 M

Question 17.
Assertion:
Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
Reason :
The volume of the solution will change with temperature.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 18.
Assertion:
When, methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water increases.
Reason :
When a volatile solute is added to a volatile, solvent, elevation in boiling point is observed.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Hint:
When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water decreases (correct assertion). When a volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent, the vapour pressure of solvent increases.

Question 19.
Assertion:
When sodium chloride is added to water, a depression in freezing – point is observed.
Reason :
The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution, causes the depression in freezing point.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

Question 20.
Assertion:
If 100 ml of 0.1 M solution of glucose has higher depression in freezing point than 100 ml of 0.1 M solution of urea.
Reason :
Kf for glucose and urea are different.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Hint:
Correct assertion: Depression in freezing point of 0.1 M solution of glucose and urea are the same.
Correct reason: Kf is a property of solvent.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 21.
Assertion:
Out of various eolligative properties, osmotic pressure is used for the determination of various polymers.
Reason:
Polymer solutions do not possess constant boiling point or freezing i point.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 22.
Solutions of different types are given below. Identify the solution which contain a different solvent from the rest.
(a) Hydrated salts
(b) Alloys
(c) Dissolved gas in a mineral
(d) Alcohol in water
Answer:
(d) Alcohol in water
Hint:
Liquid is the solvent, while in all others the solvent is a solid.

Question 23.
Among the solids given, identify the one, which on dissolution absorbs heat.
(a) LiCO3
(b) Na2CO3.H2O
(c) Ce2(SO4)3
(d) NaCl
Answer:
(d) NaCl
Hint:
The dissolution of NaCl in H2O is endothermic, while the rest are exothermic.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 24.
Which one of the following pairs will not form an ideal solution?
(a) C6H6 and CCl4
(b) C6H6 and C6H3CH3
(c) C2H5Br and C2H5I
(d) (CH3)2CO and CCl4
Answer:
(d) (CH3)2CO and CCl4
Hint:
Structurally similar liquid form ideal solution.

Question 25.
Which of the following is correct for asolution sharing positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(a) ∆V +ve; ∆H = +ve
(b) ∆V = -ve; ∆H = -ve
(c) ∆V = +ve; ∆H -ve
(d) ∆V = -ve; ∆H = +ve
Answer:
(a) ∆V +ve; ∆H = +ve

Question 26.
Assertion:
The vapour pressure of 0.1M sugar solution is more than that of 0.1M KCl solution.
Reason:
Lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to the number of species present in the solution.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion arid reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(d) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 27.
Assertion:
Out of the various collegative properties, Osmotic pressure is used for the determination of molecular masses of polymers.
Reason:
Polymer solutions do not possess a constant boiling point.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(d) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.

Question 28.
Assertion:
One molar solution is always more concentrated than a one molal solution.
Reason :
The amount of solvent is 1 M and 1 M aqueous solution is not equal.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. .
(c) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(d) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
Answer:
(d) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

Question 29.
Assertion:
If more and more solute is added to a solvent, the freezing point of the solution keeps on becoming higher and higher.
Reason :
Presence of large amount of solute does not allow the solution to freeze.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(d) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
Answer:
(d) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 30.
Assertion:
If a liquid solute more volatile than the solvent is added to the solvent, the vapour pressure of the solution (ps) increases i.e.,ps > p.
Reason:
In the presence of a more volatile liquid solute, only the solute will form the vapours and solvent will not.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(d) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

Question 31.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Greater the lowering of vapour pressure greater is the boiling point of the solution.
(b) Greater the lowering of vapour pressure, greater is the freezing point of the solution.
(c) At the freezing point, the solute and the solvent have che same vapour pressure.
(d) The units of molal depression constant are Km-1.
Answer:
(b) Greater the lowering of vapour pressure, greater is the freezing point of the solution.
Hint:
Greater the lowering of vapour pressure, greater is the depression in freezing point i.e., lower is the actual freezing point.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 32.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Mass of the gas dissolved is directly proportional to its pressure.
(b) Mass of the gas dissolved is inversely proportional to temperature.
(c) A soda water bottle contains oxygen gas dissolved under pressure.
(d) Permanent gases are less soluble than temporary gases.
Answer:
(c) A soda water bottle contains oxygen gas dissolved under pressure.
Hint:
A soda water bottle contains carbondioxide underpressure.

Question 33.
Choose the correct statement.
In the phenomenon of osmosis:
(a) Solvent molecules move from higher concentration to lower concentration.
(b) Solvent molecules move from lower concentration to higher concentration.
(c) Solute molecules move from higher concentration to lower concentration.
(d) Solute molecules move from lower concentration to higher concentration.
Answer:
(b) Solvent molecules move from lower concentration to higher concentration.

Question 34.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Lowering of vapour pressure takes place only in ideai solutions.
(b) Lowering of vapour pressure does not depend upon the solvent at a given concentration of the solute.
(c) Lowering of vapour pressure depends upon the nature of the solute.
(d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure does not depend upon the solvent at a given concentration of the solute.
Answer:
(a) Lowering of vapour pressure takes place only in ideal solutions.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 35.
For an ideal binary liquid solution with p°A > p°B, which of the following relations between xA(mole fraction of A in liquid phase) and yA(mole fraction of A in vapour phase) is correctly represented.
(a) xA = yA
(b) xA > yA
(c) xA < yA
(d) xA and yA cannot be correlated with each other.
Answer:
(c) xA < yA
Hint:
As p°A > p°B, A is more volatile and hence yA > xA or xA < yA.

Question 36.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions 11

(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(b) (i) – (B), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (D)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Solutions

Question 37.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II.

Column I (Vant Hoff factor i)Column II (Molecular state of the solute in a solution)
(i) i > 1(A) the solute under goes association
(ii) i < 1(B) the solute undergoes dissociation
(iii) i = 1(C) impossible
(iv) i = 0(D) the solute neither undergoes dissociation or association

(a) (i) – (A), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 1.
Name the two phases in equilibrium when ice cubes along with thermos flask at 0°C and 1 atm pressure.
Answer:
H2O (s) ⇌ H2O (l) at 0°C and 1 atm.

Question 2.
HO (l) and H2O (v) are in equilibrium with each other. At what temperature and pressure, they exist in equilibrium?
Answer:
H2O (l) ⇌ H2O (V) exist in equation at 373K and 1 atm pressure.
(Generally L ⇌ V equilibrium exist at the boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm pressure).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 3.
I2 (s) ^ I2 (v). What type of equilibrium it is?
Answer:
It is solid – vapour equilibrium that exists at the sublimation temperature and at 1 atm pressure.

Question 4.
Give exarnpies for reactions in which
(i) kp = Kc
(ii) Kp > Kc
(iii) Kp < Kc.
Answer:
Kp = Kc × (RT)∆n
Where,
∆n = (No. of mol of gaseous products) – (No. of mol of gaseous reactants)

(i) Kp = Kc; ∆n = 0
eg: H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
Np (g) + Op (g) ⇌ 2NO (g)
[In general, if the number of mol of gaseous products and reactants are the same, ∆n = 0, i.e., Kp = Kc].

(ii) When the total number of mol of gaseous products is greater than the total number of mol of gaseous reactants, ∆n is +ve. Hence Kp > Kc.
eg: 2NH3 (g) ⇌ N2 (g) + 3H2
PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)

(iii) When the total number of mol. of gaseous products is lesser than the total number of gaseous reactants, An is -ve. i.e., Kp < Kc.
eg: 2H2O (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2 H2O(g)
2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2 SO2 (g)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 5.
For. the reactions, N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2 NH3 and \(\frac{1}{2}\) N2 + \(\frac{3}{2}\) N2 ⇌ NH3, Write down the express re a constant K1 and K2. How is K1 related to K2?
Answer:
For the equation N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2 NH3

K1 = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]^{3}}\) ………………(1)

and for the equation,
\(\frac{1}{2}\) N2 + \(\frac{3}{2}\) N2 ⇌ NH3

K2 = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{N}_{2}\right]^{1 / 2}\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]^{3 / 2}}\) …………(2)

Squaring equation (2)

(K2)2 = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]^{3}}\)

Equations (1) and (3) are the same.
Hence, K1 = (K2)2 or
K2 = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{K}_{1}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 6.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2 + O2 ⇌ 2 NO2 at a particular temperature is 100. Write down the equilibrium constant expressions and determine the values of equilibrium constants for the following reactions.
(a) 2NO2 ⇌ N2 + 2 O2
(b) NO2 ⇌ N2 + O2
Answer:
The equilibrium constant for the reactions
N2 + O2 ⇌ 2 NO2 is

K1 = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NO}_{2}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]}\) = 100 ……….(1)

The equilibrium constant for reaction (a) is
K2 = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{N}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{NO}_{2}\right]^{2}}\) ………..(2)

This is reciprocal of K1

K2 = \(\frac{1}{K_{1}}=\frac{1}{100}\) = 1 × 10-2
The equilibrium constant for reaction (b) is [N2] + [O2]

K3 = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{N}_{2}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{NO}_{2}\right]}\)

Comparing (2) and (3)
K3 = \(\sqrt{K_{2}}=\sqrt{10^{-2}}\)
= 10-1 = 0.1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 7.
At 700 K, the equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction, 2SO3(g) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) is 1.80 × 10-3 KPa. What is the value for Kc for the reaction at the same temperature?
Answer:
Kp = Kc × (RT)∆n.
given, Kp = 1.80 × 10-3 KPa = 1.80 Pa
1.80 = Kc × (8.314 × 700)1
Kc = \(\frac{1.80}{8.314 \times 700}\)

8.314 × 700 = 3.09 × 10-4 mol m3
= 3.09 × 10-7 mol L

Question 8.
For the reactions
(i) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g), the reaction quotient (Q) is greater than Kc.
(ii) H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI (g), the reaction quotient (Q) is equal to Kf.
(iii) 2NH3(g) ⇌ N2 (g) + 3H2(g), the reaction quotient (Q) is less than Kc.
Predict the direction of the reaction based on the information given.
Answer:
(i) Q > Kc => The reaction will proceed in the reverse or backward direction.
(ii) Q = Kc => The reaction is at equilibrium.
(iii) Q < Kc => The reaction will proceed in the forward reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 9.
Discuss the effect of pressure on the following equilibrium.
(i) N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO
(ii) PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5 (g)
(iii)K2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2 NH3 (g)
Answer:
(i) Since the number of mole of gaseous reactants and products are the same, pressure has no effect on this equilibrium.
(ii) Increase in pressure favour the forward reaction which is accompanied by lesser number of moles.
(iii) The forward reaction is accompanied by decrease in number of moles. Hence increase in pressure favour the formation of NH3.

Question 10.
Discuss the effect of temperature on the following equilibria:
(i) N2 (g); + O2 (g) + heat ⇌ 2NO (g)
(ii) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) 92.2 kJmol-1
Answer:
(i) Increase in temperature will favour an endothermic reaction. Hence, forward reaction is favoured.
(ii) The forward reaction is exothermic and the reverse reaction is endothermic. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, increase in temperature will favour the . reverse reaction i.e., decomposition of ammonia.

Question 11.
For the reaction, N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g), the partial pressures of N2 and H2 are 0.80 and 0.40 atmosphere respectively at equilibrium. The total pressure of the system is 2.80 atmospheres. What is Kp for the reaction?
Answer:
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2 NH3 (g)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 12.
The value of Kc for the reaction, 2 A ⇌ B + C is 2.0 × 10-3. At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 10-4 M. In which direction, the reaction will proceed?
Answer:
For a given reaction,
Q = \(\frac{[\mathrm{B}][\mathrm{C}]}{[\mathrm{A}]^{2}}\)

= \(\frac{\left(3 \times 10^{-4}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{-4}\right)}{\left(3 \times 10^{-4}\right)^{2}}\) = 1

Q > Kc. Hence the reaction will proceed in backward reaction.

Question 13.
AB2 dissociates AB2 ⇌ AB (g) + B (g). If the initial pressure is 500 mm of Hg and the total pressure at equilibrium is 700 mm of Hg, Calculate Kp for the reaction.
Answer:
AB2 ⇌ AB (g) + B (g)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium 2

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium 3

Total pressure at equilibrium = 500 – P + P + P = 500 + P
Given 500 + P = 700 (or) P = 200 mm
PAB2 = 500 – 200 = 300 mm
PAB (at equilibrium) = 200 mm
PB (at equilibrium) = 200 mm

Kp = (PAB × PB) / PAB2

= \(\frac{200 \times 200}{300}\) = 133.3 mm

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 14.
The following chemical reaction has attained equilibrium. CO (g) + 2H2 (g) ⇌ CH3OH (g), ∆H = – 92.0 kJ mol-1 What will happen if
(i) The volume of the reaction is suddenly reduced to half?
(ii) The partial pressure of hydrogen is suddenly doubled?
(iii) An inert gas is added to the system?
Kc = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{OH}\right]}{[\mathrm{CO}]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]^{2}}\);

Kp = \(\frac{{ }^{\mathrm{P}} \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{OH}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{CO}} \times \mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{H}_{2}^{2}}}\)
Answer:
(i) When the volume of the gas is reduced to half, the concentration of each reactant or product becomes double. Then,

Q = \(\frac{2\left[\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{OH}\right]}{2[\mathrm{CO}] \times 2\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]^{2}}\)

= \(\frac{1}{4}\) Kc

As Q < Kc, the equilibrium will shift in the forward reaction i.e., more CH3OH will be formed to make Q = Kc

(ii) Q = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{OH}}}{2 \mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{CO}} \times 2 \mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{H}_{2}^{2}}}=\frac{1}{4} \mathrm{~K}_{P}\)

As Q < Kp equilibrium-will shift in the forward direction to make Q = Kp.

(iii) As volume remains constant, molar concentrations will not change. Hence, no effect on equilibrium.

Question 15.
SO2Cl2 + heat ⇌ SO2 + Cl2
What will happen to the temperature of the system, if some Cl2 is added into it, at constant volume? Give reason.
Answer:
In adding chlorine, number of mole of chlorine increases. Hence to reduce the number of mol, the reverse reaction takes place. As the reverse reaction is exothermic, the temperature of the system will increase.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 16.
Why does ice melts slowly at higher altitudes? Melting of ice is an endothermic process accompanied by decrease in volume. At higher altitudes, pressure as well as temperature is low. In the equilibrium, ice ^ Water, both factors follow the reverse process. Hence, melting is slow.

Question 17.
2 N2O (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 4 NO (g); ∆H > 0. What is the effect on equilibrium when
(i) Volume of the vessel increases?
(ii) Temperature decreases?
Answer:
(i) For the given reaction,
K = \(\frac{[\mathrm{NO}]^{4}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right]^{2}\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]}\)

When the volume of the vessel increases, number of mol per unit volume (molar concentration) of each reactant and product decreases. As there are 4 concentration terms in the numerator but 3 concentration terms in the denominator, to keep Kp constant, the decrease in [N2O] and [O2] should be more i.e., the equilibrium will shift in the forward reactions.

Alternatively, increase in volume of the vessel, means decrease in pressure. As forward reaction is accompanied by increase in number of moles (P ∝ n), decrease in pressure will favour the forward reaction, (Le Chatelier principle).

(ii) As ∆H is +ve, the reaction is endothermic i.e., decrease in temperature will favour the direction in which heat is absorbed, i.e., backward reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 18.
Discuss the effect of temperature and pressure on the equilibrium.
2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2 SO3 (g) +193.2 kJ.
Answer:
(i) Effect of temperature:
Increase in temperature favour the endothermic reaction i.e., backward reaction. The formation of SO3 is favoured at low temperature. An optimum temperature of 673 – 723 K is used to get the maximum yield of SO3.

(ii) Effect of pressure:
Increase in pressure favour the reaction accompanied by lesser number of moles. Hence increase in pressure faivour the forward reaction.

Question 19.
Based on the Le Chatelier principle, mention the conditions under which the maximum yield of the products in the following:
(i) Manufacture of NH3
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g);
∆H = -92 kL mol-1

(ii) Manufacture of NO
N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO(g);
∆H = 180.7 kJ mol-1

(iii) Manufacture of SO3
2SO2(s) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g);
∆H = -193.2 kJ mol-1
Answer:
(i) It is an exothermic reaction, and, accompanied by decrease in number of moles. Hence, it is favoured by low temperature and high pressure.
(ii) It is endothermic reaction favoured by high temperature. Pressure has no effect. .
(iii) Same as (I).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
For the reaction, PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⇌ PCl5 (g), the value of Kc at 250°C is 26. The value of Kp at this temperature will be:
(a) 0.61
(b) 0.57
(c) 0.83
(d) 0.46
Answer:
(a) 0.61
Hint:
Kp = Kc × (RT)∆n
= 26 × (0.082 × 523)-1 = 0.61

Question 2.
The Kp / Kc for the reaction,
CO (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ CO(g) is:
(a) 1
(b) RT
(c) RT \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) (RT)\(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
(c) RT \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
Hint:
\(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{p}}{\mathrm{~K}_{c}}\) = (RT)∆n
= (RT)\(-\frac{1}{2}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 3.
For the reaction, N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g), the value of Kc at 800°C is 0.1. When the equilibrium concentrations of both the reactants is 0.5 mol, what is the value of Kp at this temperature?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.025
Answer:
(b) 0.1
Hint:
∆n = 0; Kp = Kc

Question 4.
In a reversible reaction, two substances are in equilibrium. If the concentration of each reactant is doubled, the equilibrium constant will be:
(a) reduced to half its original value
(b) reduced to one fourth of its original value
(c) doubled
(d) constant
Answer:
(d) constant
Hint:
‘K’ is the ratio between the product of concentration of the products to the product of the concentration of the reactants. If both the numerator and denominator are doubled, K will remain constant.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 5.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction,
N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO(g) is 4 × 10-4 at 2000K.
In the presence of the catalyst, the equilibrium is attained ten times faster. Therefore the equilibrium constant in the presence of a catalyst is:
(a) 40 × 10-4
(b) 4 × 10-4
(c) 4 × 10-3
(d) difficult to compute without more data.
Ans :
(b) 4 × 10-4
Hint:
A catalyst helps to attain equilibrium quickly. It does not change the value of equilibrium constant.

Question 6.
Le Chatelier’s principle is not applicable to:
(a) Fe (s) + S (s) ⇌ FeS (s)
(b) H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2 SO3 (g)
(c) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)
(d) N2(g) + P2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g)
Ans :
(a) Fe (s) + S (s) ⇌ FeS (s)
Hint:
The increase in temperature or pressure does not have any impact on solids;

Question 7.
In which of the following reactions, the yield of the products decreases by increasing the pressure?
(a) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g)
(b) K2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)
(c) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(d) N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO(g)
Answer:
(c) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
Hint:
Increasing the pressure towards the reverse reaction, hence the yield of the product [OR] Number of mol of gaseous products > Number of mol of gaseous reactants.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 8.
Formation of SO3 takes place according to the reaction
2 SO2 + O2 2 SO3
∆H = – 45.2 kcal. Which of the following favours the formation of SO3?
(a) Increase in temperature
(b) Increase in pressure
(c) Removal of oxygen
(d) Increase in volume
Answer:
(b) Increase in pressure
Hint:
Increase in pressure favour the reaction accompanied by decrease in number of moles of the gas.

Question 9.
For a given exothermic reaction Kp and Kp‘ are the equilibrium constants at temperatures T1 and T2. Assuming the heat of reaction is constant in the temperature range between T1 and T2, which of the following relationship holds good?
(a) Kp > Kp
(b) Kp < Kp
(c) Kp = Kp
(d) Kp = \(\frac{1}{K_{b}}^{\prime}\)
Answer:
(a) Kp > Kp
Hint:
According to van’t Hoff equation
log \(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{p}{ }^{\prime}}{\mathrm{K}_{p}}\) = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}}{2.303 \mathrm{R}}\left[\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}\right]\)

For exothermic reaction, ∆H is negative also T2 > T1

∴ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}\) = – ve

∴ log \(\frac{\mathrm{k}_{p}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{K}_{p}}\) = – ve
(or) log Kp‘ – log Kp = – ve
i.e., log Kp‘ < log Kp or
Kp‘ < Kp or
Kp > Kp

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 10.
‘a’ moles of PCl5 are heated in a closed container to equilibrate
PCl5 (g) ^ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g). at a pressure of ‘P’ atm. If, ‘x’ mole of PCl5 dissociate at equilibrium, then:
(a) \(\frac{x}{a}=\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{p}}{\mathrm{P}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{x^{\prime}}{a}=\frac{K_{p}}{K_{p}+P}\)
(c) \(\frac{x}{a}=\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{p}}{\mathrm{~K}_{p}+\mathrm{P}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

(d) \(\frac{x}{a}=\left(\frac{K_{p}+P}{K_{p}}\right)^{1 / 2}\)

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{x}{a}=\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{p}}{\mathrm{~K}_{p}+\mathrm{P}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium 4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 11.
If the concentration of OH ions in the reaction Fe(OH)3 ⇌ Fe+3 (aq) + 3 OH is decreased by \(\frac{1}{4}\) times, then the equilibrium concentration of Fe+3 ions will increase by:
(a) 8 times
(b) 16 times
(c) 64 times
(d) 4 times
Answer:
(c) 64 times
Hint:
K = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{Fe}^{+3}\right]\left[\mathrm{OH}^{-}\right]^{3}}{\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{OH})_{3}\right](s)}\)
= xy3 (aq)

If [OH] is decreased to \(\frac{y}{4}\) to keep K constant.
x’ (\(\frac{y}{4}\))3 = xy3 or x’ = 64x

Question 12.
Five mol of SO2 and 5 mol of O2 are allowed to react. It was found that 60% of SO2 is used up. If the pressure of the mixture is one atmosphere, the partial pressure of O2 is:
(a) 0.52 atm
(b) 0.21 atm
(c) 0.41 atm
(c) 0.82 atm
Ans :
(c) 0.41 atm
Hint:
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ^ 2SO3 (g)
Initial moles 5 5 0
As 60% of SO2 is used Up, the number of SO2 Used up is \(\frac{60}{100}\) × 5 = 3.

∴ no. of mol of SO2 in equilibrium: 5 – 3 = 2
As 2 mol of SO2 react with 1 mol of O2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
3 mol of SO2 will react with = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 3 = 1.5 mol of O2
∴ number of mol of O2 at equilibrium = 5- 1.5 = 3.5
As 2 mol of SO2 produce 2 mol of SO3, no. of mol of SO3 at equilibrium = 3 mol.
∴ Total no. of mol at equilibrium = 2 + 3.5 + 3 = 8.5
∴ PO2 = \(\frac{x_{o_{2}}}{x_{\text {total }}}\) × Ptotal
= \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 1 = 0.41 atm

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 13.
9.2 grams of N2O4 (g) is taken in a closed one litre vessel and heated till equilibrium is reached. What is the equilibrium constant (in mol lit-1) (molecular weight of N2O4 = 92)?
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.4
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 0.2
Hint:
Initial [N2O4] = \(\frac{9.2}{92}\) mol L-1 = 0.1 mol L-1
At equilibrium (after 50% dissociation)
[N2O4] = 0.05 ML;
[NO2] = 0.1 M
K = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NO}_{2}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{4}\right]}=\frac{(0.1)^{2}}{0.05}\) = 0.2

Question 14.
One, mole of water and one mole of carbon monoxide are taken in a 10 litre flask and heated to 725K. At equilibrium 40% of water (by mass) reacts with CO according to the equation.
H2O (g) + CO (g) – H2 (g) + CO2 (g)
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is:
(a) 0.444
(b) 0.044
(c) 4.44
(d) 444
Answer:
(a) 0.444
Hint:
At equilibrium,
TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium 5

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 15.
A sample of HI(g) is placed in a flask at a pressure of 0.2 atm. At equilibrium, the partial pressure of HI (g) is 0.04 atm. The Kp for the equilibrium is:
(a) 4
(b) 0.4
(c) 40
(c) 0.04
Answer:
(a) 4
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium 6

Decrease in pressure of HI = 0.2 – 0.04 = 0.16 atm
Kp = \(\frac{{P_{H_{2}}} \times P_{I_{2}}}{P_{H I}^{2}}\)

= \(\frac{0.08 \mathrm{~atm} \times 0.08 \mathrm{~atm}}{10.04 \mathrm{~atm}^{2}}\) = 4.0

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 16.
For the hypothetical reaction, the equilibrium constant (K) values are given:
A ⇌ B; K1 = 2.0
B ⇌ C; K1 =4.0
C ⇌ D; K1 = 3.0
The equilibrium constant K4 for the reaction, A = D is:
(a) 48
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 24
Ans :
(d) 24
Hint:
K4 = K1 × K2 × K3 = 2 × 4 × 3 = 24

Question 17.
Kp for the following reaction will be equal to:
3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O (g) Fe3O4 (s) + 4 H2 (g) is:
(a) \(\frac{P_{H_{2}}^{4}}{P_{H_{2} O}}\)

(b) \(\frac{P_{H_{2}}^{4}}{\left(P_{H_{2}} O\right)^{4}}\)

(c) \(\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{H}_{2}}^{4} \times \mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{Fe}_{3} \mathrm{O}_{4}}\)

(d) \(\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{H}_{2}} \times \mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{Fe}_{3} \mathrm{O}_{4}} / \mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{Fe}}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{P_{H_{2}}^{4}}{\left(P_{H_{2}} O\right)^{4}}\)
Hint:
For Kp only partial pressure of gaseous substances are taken. The active mass of solids are taken as unity.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 18.
In what manner, will increase of pressure affect the following equilibrium?
C (s) + H2(g) ⇌ CO (g) + H (g)
(a) Shift in the forward reaction.
(b) Shift in the reverse reaction.
(c) Increase in the yield of hydrogen.
(d) No effect.
Answer:
(b) Shift in the reverse reaction.
Hint:
Increase in pressure, will favour the reaction which is accompanied by decrease in number of moles of gases.

Question 19.
What would happen to a reversible dissociation reaction at equilibrium when an inert gas is added while the pressure remains unchanged?
(a) Less of the product will be formed.
(b) More of the product will be formed.
(c) More of the reactants will be formed.
(d) It remains unaffected.
Answer:
(b) More of the product will be formed.
Hint:
A dissociation reaction involves the formation of more products.
A ⇌ B + C

At constant pressure, volume is proportional to number of moles. Addition of inert gas increases the number of mole (or) volume of the system. On account of this, the number of moles per unit volume (molar concentration) of the reactant and products will decrease. In order to overcome this stress, the equilibrium will shift in the direction in which there is an increase in the number of moles of the gases.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 20.
Choose the odd man out of the equilibrium that is not influenced by pressure.
(a) N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) ⇌ 2 NH3 (g)
(b) CO2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ CH4 (g) + H2O (g)
(c) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(d) 2 HI (g) ⇌ H2 (g) + I2 (g)
Answer:
(d) 2 HI (g) ⇌ H2 (g) + I2 (g)

Question 21.
Select the odd man out of the following reactions Kp equal to Kc?
(a) H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
(b) 2NO2 (g) ⇌ N2O4 (g)
(c) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(d) SOCl2 (g) ⇌ SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g)
Answer:
(a) H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2 HI(g)

Question 22.
The correct pair of substances whose molar concentration is taken as unit counting in the expression for equilibrium constant.
(a) a 0.1M solution of CH3COOH and a 0.1 M Solution of ethanol.
(b) 0.5 mol of nitrogen and 1.0 mol of oxygen in equilibrium with nitro oxide
(c) Solid calcium carbonate and solid CaO in the equilibrium CaCO3 ⇌ CaO + CO2
(d) CH3COOC2H2 (l) and H2O (l) in equilibrium with CH3COOH and C2H5O4
Answer:
(c) Solid calcium carbonate and solid CaO in the equilibrium CaCO3 ⇌ CaO + CO2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 23:
Assertion (A):
The equilibrium constant is fixed and characteristic for any given chemical reaction at a specified temperature.
Reason (R):
The composition of the final equilibrium mixture at a particular temperature depends upon the starting amount of reactants.
(a) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 24.
Assertion (A):
Equilibrium constant of a reaction increases, if the temperature is raised.
Reason (R):
The forward reaction becomes faster as the temperature is raised.
(a) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 25.
Assertion (A):
If the standard free energy change of a reaction is zero, this implies that equilibrium constant of the reaction is unity.
Reason (R):
For a reaction in equilibrium, equilibrium constant is always unity.
(a) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion (A) trad reason (R) are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 26.
Assertion (A):
For the reaction
2 NO (g) + O2 (g) HF ⇌ 2NO2 (g), increase in pressure favours the forward reaction.
Reason (R):
The reaction is exothermic.
(a) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 27.
Assertion (A):
Adding an inert gas to dissociation equilibrium of N204 at constant pressure and temperatures increases the dissociation.
Reason (R):
Molar concentration of the reactants and products decrease.
(a) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 28.
The gaseous reaction, SO2 + Cl2 ⇌ SO2Cl is exothermic and reversible. A mixture of SO2 (g), Cl2 (g), and SO2Cl2 (g) is at equilibrium in a closed container. Now, a certain quantity of extra SO2 is introduced into the container, the volume remaining the same. Which of the following is/are true?
(a) The pressure inside the container will not change
(b) The temperature will not change
(c) The temperature will increase
(d) The temperature will decrease.
Answer:
(c) The temperature will increase
Hint:
SO2 + Cl2 ⇌ SOCl2 + heat.
On adding SO⇌, the equilibrium will shift in the forward reaction, i.e., more heat will be produced so the temperature will increase.

Question 29.
To an equilibrium mixture of
2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g)
Some helium, an inert gas is added at constant volume. The addition of helium causes the total pressure to double. Which of the following is true?
(a) The concentration of all the three gases is unchanged.
(b) The concentration of sulphur tri oxide decreases.
(c) The number of moles of sulphur tri oxide increases.
(d) The concentration of sulphur tri oxide increase.
Answer:
(a) The concentration of all the three gases is unchanged.
Hint:
As the volume remains constant, the concentration of all three gases will remains unchanged an adding helium.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 30.
The Thermal dissociation of CaCO3 (s) is studied under different conditions.
CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
For this the correct statement(s) is (are):
(a) The value of the equilibrium constant Kp = [CaO][CO2]
(b) Removal of CO2 facilitates the formation of CO2
(c) The value of K is dependent on the amount of CaCO3 taken.
(d) Addition of a catalyst, favour the forward reactions.
Answer:
(b) Removal of CO2 facilitates the formation of CO2

Question 31.
For the reversible reactions
N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) + heat
Choose the correct statement that favours the shifting the equilibrium in the forward reactions.
(a) by increasing the concentration of NH3 (g).
(b) by decreasing the pressure.
(c) by decreasing the concentration of N2 (g) and H2 (g).
(d) by decreasing the temperature and increasing the pressure.
Answer:
(d) by decreasing the temperature and increasing the pressure.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 32.
Match the entities in column I with appropriate entities in column II.

Column I (Process) Column II (Property becoming constant at equilibrium)
(i) H2O (s) ⇌ H2O (l) (A) Concentration of the solute at a given temperature.
(ii) H2O (l) ⇌ H2O (v) (B) Ratio of concentration of products to reactants at constant temperature.
(iii) Sugar (s) ⇌ Sugar solution (C) Melting point at constant and pressure.
(iv)CO2 (g) ⇌ CO2 (aq) (D) Vapour pressure at constant temperature.

(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (D)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)

Question 33.
Which of the following statements are wrong?
I. Equilibrium constant of a reaction is doubled, of the concentrations of the products become double.
II. If the reaction mixture is compressed to half the volume, equilibrium constant is halved.
III. Equilibrium constant increases with increase in temperature.
IV. Equilibrium concentration increases in the pressure of a catalyst.
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, III, IV
(b) III
(d) all
Answer:
(c) III
Hint:
The effect of temperature on the equilibrium constant is given by Vant Hoff equation, i.e.,

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium 7

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium

Question 34.
Match the entities in column I with appropriate entities in column II.

Column I Column II
(i) Manufacture of NH3 (A) Favoured by high temperature
(ii) Manufacture of NO (B) Favoured by increasing temperature and pressure
(iii) Melting of ice (C) Equilibrium remains unaffected
(iv) Dissociation of PCl5 at constant volume (D) Favoured by low temperature and high pressure

(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (A), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii)- (C), (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Question 1.
Explain the terms
(i) isolated system
(ii) closed system
(iii) open system.
Answer:
(i)Isolated system:
This type of system has no interactions with matter. The boundary is sealed and insulated. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings.

(ii) Closed system:
This type of system can exchange energy in the form of heat, work or radiations but not matter with surroundings. The boundary between the system and surroundings is sealed but not insulated.

(iii) Open system:
This type of system can exchange matter as well as energy with surroundings. The boundary is not sealed and not insulated.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 2.
Give examples for extensive and intensive properties.
Answer:

Extensive propertiesIntensive properties
volume, mass, amount of substance (mole), energy, enthalpy, entropy, free energy, heat capacity.molar volume, density, molar mass, molarity, mole fraction, molality, specific heat capacity.

Question 3.
Mention the condition for Adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric arid cyclic process.
Answer:

ProcessCondition
Adiabatic q = 0
Isothermal dT = 0
Isobaric dP = 0
Isochoric dV = 0
Cyclic dE = 0, dH = 0, dP = 0, dV = 0

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 4.
State zeroth law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The law states that ‘If two systems are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third one, then they tend to be in thermal equilibrium with themselves’.

Question 5.
Explain Zeroth law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
According to this law, if systems B and C separately are in thermal equilibrium with another system A, thenb systems B and C will also be in thermal equilibrium with each other. This is also the principle by which thermometers are used.

Question 6.
What are informations do you get from the thermo chemical equations?
Answer:
A thermo chemical equation gives,
(i) The number of mol of the reactants and the number of mol of the products.
(ii) The amount of heat liberated or absorbed (as the case may) i.e., magnitude of enthalpy change (∆H).
(iii) The physical state of the reactants or products i.e., if the species are solid or liquid or gas.
eg: H2 (g) + 2 O2 (g) → H2O (g) ∆H = – 268 kJ mol-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 7.
Define molar heat capacity at constant volume and molar heat capacity at constant pressure.
Answer:
(i) The heat capacity at constant volume (CV) is defined as the rate of change of internal energy with respect to temperature at constant volume.

CV = \(\left(\frac{\partial \mathrm{H}}{\partial \mathrm{T}}\right)_{\mathrm{V}}\)

(ii) The molar heat capacity at constant pressure (CP) can be defined as the rate of change of enthalpy with respect to temperature at constant.pressure.
CP = \(\left(\frac{\partial H}{\partial T}\right)_{P}\)

Question 8.
Define the relationship CP – CV = nR for an ideal gas.
Answer:
The enthalpy of a system is given by
H = U + PV ……….(1)
for 1 mole of an ideal gas
PV = nRT …………(2)
By substituting (2) in (1) i.e., PV in equation (1) by nRT
H = U + nRT ………….(3)
Differentiating the above equation with respect to T,
\(\frac{\partial \mathrm{H}}{\partial \mathrm{T}}=\frac{\partial \mathrm{U}}{\partial \mathrm{T}}+n \mathrm{R} \frac{\partial \mathrm{T}}{\partial \mathrm{T}}\)

CP = CV + nR …………(4)

∵ [\(\left(\frac{\partial H}{\partial T}\right)_{P}\) = CP and \(\left(\frac{\partial U}{\partial T}\right)_{V}\) = CV]

CP – CV = nR

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 9.
Explain why CP is always greater than CV?
Answer:
At constant pressure processes, a system has to do work against the surroundings. Hence, the system would require more heat to effect a given temperature rise than at constant volume, so CP is always greater than CV.

Question 10.
Show that ∆U = nCV (T2 – T1) and ∆H = CP(T2 – T1).
Answer:
For one mole of an ideal gas, we have
CV = \(\frac{d \mathrm{U}}{d \mathrm{~T}}\)
dU = CV dT
For a finite change, we have
∆U = CV ∆T
∆U = CV (T2 – T1)
and for n moles of an ideal gas we get
∆U = nCV(T2 – T1) ……….(1)
Similarly for n moles of an ideal gas we get
∆H = nCP (T2 – T1) ………….(2)

Question 11.
Describe the application of heat of combustion.
Answer:

  • The heat of formation of compounds can be calculated from heat of combustion values.
  • The calorific value of food and fuels can be calculated from heat of combustion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 12.
Explain application of Hess’s law of constant heat summation with an example.
Answer:
(i) Hess’s law can be applied to calculate enthalpies of reactions that are difficult to measure. For example, it is very difficult to measure the heat of combustion of graphite to give pure CO.
(ii) However, enthalpy for the oxidation of graphite to CO2 and CO to CO2 can easily be measured. For these conversions, the heat of combustion values are – 393.5 kJ and – 283.5 kJ respectively.
(iii) From these data the enthalpy of combustion of graphite to CO can be calculated by applying Hess’s law.
The reactions involved in this process can be expressed as follows

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 1

∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
– 393.5 kJ = X – 283.5 kJ
X = – 110.5 kJ

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 13.
Derive an expression for the efficiency of a heat engine.
Answer:
Efficiency = \(\frac{\text { work performed }}{\text { heat absorbed }}\)

η = \(\frac{\left|q_{h}\right|-\left|q_{c}\right|}{\left|q_{h}\right|}\)

qh – heat absorbed fropi the hot reservoir
qc – heat transferred to cold reservoir

η = 1 – \(\frac{\left|q_{c}\right|}{\left|q_{h}\right|}\) …………(1)
For a reversible cyclic process
∆S(universe)= ∆S(system) + ∆S(surroundings) = 0
∆S(system) = – ∆S(surroundings)

\(\frac{q_{h}}{\mathrm{~T}_{h}}=\frac{-q_{c}}{\mathrm{~T}_{c}}\) \(\frac{-\mathrm{T}_{c}}{\mathrm{~T}_{h}}=\frac{q_{c}}{q_{h}}\)

\(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{c}}{\mathrm{~T}_{h}}=\frac{\left|q_{c}\right|}{\left|q_{h}\right|}\) …………..(2)
Substituting (2) in (1)
⇒ η = 1 – \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{c}}{\mathrm{~T}_{h}}\) …………(3)
Hence, η < 1

Question 14.
Give expressions for the entropy change a phase change.
Answer:
∆S = \(\frac{q_{\mathrm{rev}}}{\mathrm{T}}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{rev}}}{\mathrm{T}}\)
Where ∆Hrev is the enthalpy change at Temperature (T).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 15.
Define (i) molar heat of fusion (ii) molar heat of vaporisation (iii) enthalpy of transition.
Answer:
(i) Molar heat of fusion:
The molar heat of fusion is defined as “the change in enthalpy when one mole of a solid substance is converted into the liquid state at its melting point”.

(ii) Molar heat of vaporisation:
The molar heat of vaporisation is defined as “the change in enthalpy when one mole of liquid is converted into vapour state at its boiling point”.

(iii) Enthalpy of transition:
The heat of transition is defined as “The change in enthalpy when one mole of an element changes from one of its allotropic form to another.

Question 16.
Give examples for spontaneous processes.
Answer:
(i) A waterfall runs downhill, but never uphill, spontaneously.
(ii) A lump of sugar dissolves spontaneously in a cup of coffee, but never reappears in its original form spontaneously.
(iii) Heat flows from hotter object to a colder one; but never flows from colder to hotter object spontaneously.
(iv) The expansion of a gas into an evacuated bulb is a spontaneous process, the reverse process that is gathering of all molecules into one bulb is not spontaneous.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 17.
Explain how ∆G is related to spontaneity of a process.
Answer:
Let us consider a system which undergoes a change of state from state (1) to state (2) at constant temperature.
G2 – G1 = (H2 – H1) – T(S2 – S1)
∆G = ∆H – T ∆S ……….(1)
Now let us consider how ∆G is related to reaction spontaneity.
We know that
∆Stotal = ∆Ssys – ∆Ssurr
For a reversible process (equilibrium), the change in entropy of universe is zero.
∆Stotal = 0
[∵ ∆Ssys = – ∆Ssurr]
Similarly, for an equilibrium process ∆G = 0
For spontaneous process, ∆Stotal > 0, so ∆Stotal > 0
∆S(system) + ∆S(surroundings) > 0
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{\text {sys }}}{\mathrm{T}}\) – ∆S(system) > 0

∆Hsys – T∆Ssys > 0
T∆Ssys – ∆Hsys < 0
– (∆Hsys – T∆Ssys) > 0
– (∆G) > 0
Hence for a spontaneous process, ∆G < 0
i.e. ∆H – T ∆S < 0 …(1)
∆Hsys is the enthalpy change of a reaction, T∆Ssys is the energy which is not available to do useful work. So, ∆G is the net energy available to do usefuf work and is thus a measure of the ‘free energy’. For this reason, it is also known as the free energy of the reaction. For non spontaneous process, ∆G > 0.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 18.
How is Gibb’s free energy and network done by the system related?
Answer:
For any system at constant pressure and temperature.
∆G = ∆H – T∆S …(1)
We know that, ∆H = ∆U + P∆V
∴ ∆G = ∆U + P∆V – T∆S
from first law of thermodynamics if work is done by the system
∆U = q – w
from second law of thermodynamics
∆S = \(\frac{q}{\mathrm{~T}}\) ∆G = q – w + P∆V – T(\(\frac{q}{\mathrm{~T}}\))
∆G = -.w + P∆V
– ∆G = – w – P∆V …………… (3)
But – P∆V represents the work done due to expansion against a constant external pressure. Therefore, it is clear that the decrease, in free energy (- ∆G) accompanying a process taking place at constant temperature and pressure is equal to the maximum work obtainable from the system other than the work of expansion.

Question 19.
How is standard energy charge related to equilibrium constant?
Answer:
The standard free energy-change for a reversible reaction is related to its equilibrium constant (Keq) by means of the relationship
∆G° = ∆H° – T∆S°
where, ∆G° – Standard free energy change
∆H° = Standard enthalpy of formation
∆S° = Standard entropy of formation

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 20.
Derive an expression for the standard free energy change for the reaction A + B ⇌ C + D in terms of the equilibrium constant.
Answer:
Lets consider a general equilibrium reaction A + B ⇌ C + D
The free energy change of the above reaction in any state (∆G) is related to the standard free energy change of the reaction (∆G° ) according to the following equation.
∆G = ∆G° + RT ln Q
where Q is reaction quotient and is defined as the ratio of concentration of the products to the concentrations of the reactants under non equilibrium condition.

When equilibrium is attained, there is no further free energy change i.e., ∆G = 0 and Q becomes equal to equilibrium constant. Hence the above equation becomes,
∆G° = – RT ln Keq
This equation is known as Van’t Hoff equation,
∆G° = – 2.303 RT log Keq

We also know that
∆G° = ∆H° – T∆S° = -RT ln Keq

Question 21.
Explain third law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The entropy of pure crystalline substance s at absolute zero is zero. Alternatively it can be stated as, it is impossible to lower the temperature of an object to absolute zero in a finite number of steps. Mathematically,

\(\begin{gathered}
\text { lim } \\
\mathrm{T} \rightarrow 0
\end{gathered}\) S = 0 for a perfectly ordered crystalline state.

Crystals with defects (imperfection) at absolute zero, have entropy greater than zero. Absolute entropy of a substance can never be negative.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 22.
Two litres of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm expands isothermally into vacuum until its total volume is 10 litres. How much heat is absorbed and how much work is done in the expansion.
Answer:
Work done in free expansion or work done against zero pressure is also zero.
wexp = -Pext(∆U)
0 = wexp = -Pext(V2 – V1)
0 = 0 (10 – 2) = 0
Hence heat change, and work done is zero.

Question 23.
Calculate the work done in reversible isothermal expansion when 2L of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm expands isothermally against 1 atm to a final volume of 10 L.
Answer:
w = 2.303 nRT log\(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~V}_{1}}\) ………(1)
PV = nRT ……….(2)
From equations (1) and (2)
w = 2.303 PV log\(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~V}_{1}}\)
= 2.303 × 1 × 10 log \(\frac{10}{2}\)
= 2.303 × 1 × 10 × log 5
= 16.1 litre-atm
= 16.1 × 101.3 J = 1630.93 J
wexp = – 1630.93 J
q = -wexp = 1630.93 J

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 24.
5 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 10 atm to 2 atm at 300K. Calculate the work done by the system.
Answer:
w = – 2.303 nRT log\(\frac{P_{1}}{P_{2}}\)
= – 2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 300 log \(\frac{10}{2}\)
= – 20.075 × 103 J

Question 25.
Liquid benzene is oxidised at constant pressure according to following equation.
C6H6 (l) + \(\frac{15}{2}\) O2(s) → 6 CO2(g) + 3 H2O (l) Enthalpy change (∆H) for the reaction at 300K is -3728 kJ.
Calculate the internal energy charge.
Answer:
The reaction is
C6H6 (l) + \(\frac{15}{2}\) O2(s) → 6 CO2(g) + 3 H2O (l)
∆n = number of mol of gaseous products – number of mol of gaseous reactants
∆n = 6 – \(\frac{15}{2}\) = – \(\frac{3}{2}\)
∆H = ∆U + RT (∆n)
-3728 = ∆U+ (-\(\frac{3}{2}\)) × 8.314 × 10-3 × 300
∆U = -3724.25 kJ mol-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 26.
1 g of graphite is burnt in a bomb calorimeter in excess of oxygen at 298K and 1 atm pressure according to the equation.
C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2 (g)
During the reaction, temperature rises from 298K ‘to 299K. If the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter is 20.7 kJ mol-1. What is the enthalpy change for the above reaction at 298K and 1 atm?
Answer:
Heat evolved in the reaction (∆U) = – CV∆T
= -20.7 × 1 = -20.7 kJ mol-1
Heat evolved in the combustion of 1 mol of carbon i.e., 12g of graphite
= – 20.7 × 12 kJ mol-1
= – 2.48 × 102 kJ mol-1
In the given reactions ∆n = 0
∆H = ∆U = – 2.48 × 102 kJ mol-1

Question 27.
Enthalpies of formation of CO (g), CO2 (g), N2O (g) and N2O4 (g) are -110, -393, + 81 and + 9.7 kJ mol-1 respectively. Find the value of ∆H for the reaction.
Answer:
N2O4 (g) + 3 CO (g) → N2O (g) + 3 CO2 (g).
Given:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 28.
Given N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g); ∆H° = – 92.4 kJ mol-1. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 (g)?
Answer:
The given reaction is .
N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g);
∆H° = – 92.4 kJ mol-1
∆H°= 2 ∆Hf° (NH3) – [∆Hf° (N2) + 3 ∆Hf° (H2)]
By definition, the standard enthalpy of formation of elements is equal to zero.
– 92.4 = 2 ∆Hf° (NH3) – (0 + 3 × 0)
i.e., for 2 mol of NH3 2∆Hf° (NH3) = – 92.4
for 1 mol of NH3 ∆Hf° (NH3) = – \(\frac{92.4}{2}\)
= 46.2 kJ mol-1

Question 29.
The enthalpy of combustion of carbon to carbondioxide is -393.5 kJ mol-1. Calculate the heat released upon the formation of 35.2g of CO2 from carbon and oxygen gas.
Answer:
The combustion of carbon is given by
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
∆H = – 393.5 kJ mol-1
Number of mol of CO2 = \(\frac{35.2}{44}\) = 0.8
Amount of heat evolved in the formation of 0.8 mol of CO2 is = 393.5 × 0.8 = 314.8 kJ

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 30.
Calculate the enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l) from the following data:
CH3OH (l) + \(\frac{3}{2}\) O2 (g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O (l) ∆H° = – 726 kJ mol-1
C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ∆H° = – 393 kJ mol-1
H2 (g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → H2O (l) ∆H° = – 286 kJ mol-1
Answer:
The required equation is
C (s) + 2 H2 (g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → CH3OH (l)
∆H = ? The given equations can be rearranged as
(i) CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l) → CH3OH (l).+ \(\frac{3}{2}\) O2 (g) + 726 kJmol-1
(ii) C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) -393 kJ mol-1
(iii) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (l) 2 x -286 kJ mol
On adding C (s) + 2H2 (g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → CH3OH – 239.0 kJ
AH°(CH3OH) = – 239.0 kJ mol-1

Question 31.
The heats of combustion of CH4 and C4H10 are – 890.3 and – 2878.7 kJ mol-1 respectively. Which of the two has greater efficiency as fuel per gram?
Answer:
Molar mass of methane = 16
Heat produced per gram of methane = –\(\frac{890}{16}\) = – 55.63 kJ
Molar mass of butane = 58
Heat produced per gram of butane = –\(\frac{2878.7}{58}\) = -49.62 kJ
Thus, methane has greater fuel efficiency than butane.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 32.
Whenever an acid is neutralised by a base, the net reaction is
H+ (aq) + OH (aq) → H2O (l); ∆H = – 57.1 kJ
Calculate the heat evolved for the following experiments:
Answer:
According to the reaction
H+ (aq) + OH (aq) → H2O (l); ∆H = – 57.1 kJ
i.e., when one mole of H+ ions reacts with one mole of OH ions, one mole of water is formed and 57.1 kJ of energy is released.
(i) 6.50 mole of HCl solution is neutralised by 0.50 mole of NaOH solution.
0.50 mole of HCl = 0.50 mole of H+ ions
0.50 mole of NaOH = 0.50 mole of OH ions
On mixing, 0.50 mole of H2O is formed.
Heat evolved for the formation of 0.50 mole of water = 57.1 × 0.5 = 28.55 kJ

(ii) 0.50 mole of HNO3 solution is neutralised
by 0.30 mole of NaOH solution.
0.50 mole of HNO3 = 0.50 mole of H+ ions
0.30 mole of KOH = 0.30 mole of OH ions
i.e., 0.30 mole of H+ ions react with 0.30 mole of OH ions and forms 0.30 mole of water.
Heat evolved in the formation of 0.30 mole of H2O = 57.1 × 0.3 = 17.13 kJ

(iii) 100 ml of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 100 ml of 0.3M NaOH solution.
100 ml of 0.2 M HCl will give (\(\frac{0.2 \times 100}{1000}\)) mole of = 0.02 mole of H+ ions.
100 ml of 0.3 M NaOH will give (\(\frac{0.3 \times 100}{1000}\)) mole of = 0.03 mole of OH ions.
i.e., 0.02 mole of H+ Ions will react 0.03 mole of OH ions and produce 0.02 mole of H2O molecules.
Heat evolved in the formation of 0.02 mole of H2O = 0.02 × 57.1 = 1.142 kJ

(iv) 400 ml of 0.2 M H2SO4 is mixed with 600ml of 0.1M KOH solution.
400 ml of 0.2 M H2SO4 will give \(\left(\frac{2 \times 0.2}{1000}\right)\) × 400 = 0.16 mole of H+ ions.
600 ml of 0.1 M KOH will give \(\left(\frac{0.1 \times 600}{1000}\right)\) = 0 06 mole of OH ion
Heat evolved in the formation of 0.06 mole of H2O = 0.06 × 57.1 = 3.426 kJ

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 33.
Calculate the standard heat of formation of carbon di sulphide (l). Given that the standard heats of combustion of carbon (s), sulphur (s) and carbon di sulphide (l) are – 393.3, – 293.72, and – 1108.76 kJ mol-1 respectively.
Answer:
The required equation is
C (s) + 2 S (s) → CS2(l); ∆H = ?
Given:
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2(g); ∆H = – 393.3 kJ …………(1)
S(s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g); ∆H = -293.7 kJ ………….(2)
CS2 (l) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + SO2 (g);
∆H = – 1108.76 kJ ………….(3)

First method:
Multiply equation (2) by 2
2 S (s) + 2 O2 (g) → 2 SO2 (g); ∆H = – 587.44 ………….(4)
Adding equations (1) and (4) and subtracting (3),
C (s) + 2 S (s) + 3O2 (g) – CS2 (l) – 3O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2SO2 (g) – CO2 (g) – 2SO2 (g)
C (s) + 2S (s) → CS2(l)
Thus, ∆Hf = – 393.3 – 587.44 + 1108.76 = 128.02 kJ
i.e., standard heat of formation of CS2 is 128.02 kJ.

Second method:
Standard enthalpy of formation of
CO2 = – 393.3 kJ
SO2 = – 293.72 kJ
CS2 = ?
From the first law of thermodynamics, the standard enthalpy of a compound is equal to the standard enthalpy of formation of the compound and the standard enthalpies of elements is equal to zero.

The equation is
CS2 (l) + 3 SO2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2 SO2 (g); ∆H° = -1108.76 kJ
∆H° = ΣH° (products) – ΣH° (reactants)
= {∆H°f(CO2) + 2H°fSO2)} – {∆H°f(CS2) + 3 H°f(O2)}
-1108.76 = {- 393.3 + 2 × (-296.72)} – ∆H°f(CS2)
∆H°f(CS2) = + 1108.76 – 393.3 – 2 × (297.72)
= 1108.76 – 980.74= 128.02 kJ
∴ ∆H°f(CS2) = 128.02 kJ mol-1

Bond energies or Bond enthalpies:

  1. The bond dissociation energy of a diatomic molecule is also called bond energy.
  2. When a molecule or a compound contains more than one bond of the same kind, the average value of the dissociation energies of a given bond is taken. This average bond dissociation energy required to break each bond in a compound is called bond energy.
  3. Using bond energy data, heat of reaction is (∆H) can be calculated by using the equation.
    ∆H – ΣB.E of (reactants) – ΣB.E of (products)
  4. Alternating, of enthalpy change for the reaction and bond energies of all the bonds except one, the bond energy of that bond can be calculated.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 34.
Calculate ∆H, for the reaction,

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 3

Bond energies of C – H bond, C – Cl bond are 415 kJ and 326 kJ respectively.
Answer:
∆H – Σ B.E of (Reactants) – ΣB.E of (products)
= 2 × (C – H) + 2[(Cl) – 0)] (B.E of all free atoms = 0)
= 2 × 415 + 2 × 326
= 830+ 652 = 1482 kJ

Question 35.
Calculate the enthalpy change for the following reactions.
H2C = CH3 (g) + H2 (g) → CH3 – CH3 (g)
The bond energies of C – H, C – C, C = C, H – H are 99, 83, 147, 104 kCal respectively.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 4

Answer:
∆H = Σ B.E (Reactants) – Σ B.E (products)
= [1 × (C = C) + 4 × (C – H)+ 1 × (H -H)] -1 × (C – C) + 6 × (C – H)
= (147 + 4 × 99 + 104) – (83 + 6 × 99) = – 30 k.cal

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 36.
The bond dissociation energies of gaseous chlorine, hydrogen and hydrogen chloride are 104, 58 and 103 kcal mol-1 respectively. Calculate the enthalpy of foimation of HCl(g). Predict in which of the following, entropy increases / decreases.

(i) A liquid crystallises into a solid.
Answer:
When a liquid crystallises into a solid its entropy decreases because of randomness is less in a solid as compared to that in a liquid (∆s = negative)

(ii) Temperature of crystalline solid is raised from 0 K to 115 K.
Answer:
When a crystalline solid is heated from 0 K to 115 K, the entropy increases (∆S = positive) because at higher temperature, the constituent units starts vibrating around their mean position.

(iii) 2NaHCO3 (s) → Na2CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (s)
Answer:
In the reaction
2NaHCO3 (s) → Na2CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (g) the number of gaseous components increase aid hence entropy of the system will increase.

(iv) H2(g) → 2 H (g)
Answer:
In this reaction, the number of gaseous particles increase and hence entropy will also increase.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 37.
For the oxidation of iron:
4 Fe (s) + 3O2 (g) → 2Fe2O3 (s)
Answer:
The entropy change is – 549.4 Jk-1mol-1 at 298K. Inspite of negative entropy change of this reaction, why this reaction is spontaneous?
Answer:
∆H° for this reaction is – 1648 × 103 J mol-1
∆S° (system) = – 549.4 J k-1 mol-1
∆H°(reaction) = – 1648 × 103 J mol-1
T = 298 K (as standard state)
∆S(total) – ∆S(system) + ∆S(surrounding)
∆S(total) > 0 for spontaneous process
∆S(surrounding) = \(\frac{\Delta H(\text { surrounding) }}{\mathbf{T}}\)
= \(\frac{+1648 \times 10^{3}}{298}\)
= 5530 J k-1 mol-1
∆S(total) = – 549.4 + 5530 = 4960.6 J k-1 mol-1 = Positive
Hence, the reaction is spontaneous,

Question 38.
Calculate the enthalpy of Vaporisation per , mole Of ethanol, given ∆S = 109.8 J k-1 mol-1 and boiling point of ethanol is 78.5°C.
Answer:
∆S(vaporisation) = \(\frac{\Delta H \text { (Vaporisation) }}{T \text { (Boiling point) }}\)
Given,
∆S(vaporisation) = 109.8 J k-1 mol-1
T(Boiling point) = 78.5 + 273 = 351.5 K .
Substituting these values in the above equation

109.8 = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H} \text { (vaporisation) }}{351.5}\)

∆H(vaporisation) = 38594.7 J mol-1 = 38.594 kJ mol-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 39.
At 0°C, ice and water are in equilibrium and the enthalpy change for the process, HO (S) ⇌ HO (l) is 6 kJ mol-1. Calculate the entropy change for the conversion of ice into water.
Answer:
For the process,
H2O (S) ⇌ H2O (l)

∆S(fusion) = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}(\text { fusion })}{\text { Freezing temperature }}\)

= \(\frac{6 \times 1000}{273}\)

= 21.98 J k-1 mol-1

Question 40.
For the reaction, at 298K 2 A + B → C ∆H = 400 kJ mol-1, ∆S = 2 kJ mol-1
At what temperature will the reaction become spontaneous, considering ∆H and ∆S to be constant over the temperature range?
Answer:
For the reaction to be spontaneous
∆G = Negative (∆G < 0)
i.e., ∆H – T∆S < 0 (or) T >\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}}{\Delta \mathrm{S}}\)

i.e., T > \(\frac{400 \times 1000}{2000}\) = T > 200 K
The reaction will be spontaneous above 200 K.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 41.
For the reaction,
2A (g) + B (g) → 2D (g) ∆U° = – 10.5 kJ and ∆S° = – 44.1 Jk-1
Calculate ∆G° for the reaction and predict whether the reaction is spontaneous or not.
Answer:
∆H° = ∆U° + RT(∆n)
= – 10.5 + 8.314 × 10-3 × 298 × (-1) = – 12.978 kJ
We know,
∆G° = ∆H° – T∆S°
= -12.978 -298 (-44.1 × 10-3) = 0.164 kJ
Hence, the reaction is non-spontaneous.

Question 42.
Will the reaction,
I2 (s) + H2S (g) → 2 HI (g) + S (s) proceed spontaneously in the forward direction at 298 K? ∆G°f (HI) = 1.8 kJ mol-1, ∆G°f(H2S) = 33.8 kJ mol-1.
Answer:
∆G° = 2G°f (product) – ∆G°f (reactants)
The standard free energies of elements are equal to zero = Standard free energy of formation of the compound
∆G° = {2 × ∆G°f (HI) + ∆G°f (S)} – {∆G°f (I2) – ∆G°f (H2S)}
= (2 × 1.8 + 0) – (0 + 33.8) = 30.2 kJ
Since, ∆G° is negative, the process is. spontaneous.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 43.
Compute the standard free energy of the reaction at 27°C for the combustion of methane using the given data:
CH4(g) + 2 O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 5

Answer:
∆H° = ∆H°f (CO2) + 2 ∆H°f (H2O) – ∆H°f (CH4)
= – 393.5 + 2 × (- 285.8) – (-74.8)
= – 890 kJ mol-1
∆S° = S°(CO2) + 2 S°(H2O) – S°(CH4) – 2S°(O2)
= 214 × 2 × 70 – 186 – 2 × 205
= – 242 Jk-1 mol-1
∆G° = ∆H° – T∆S°
= – 890 – 300 × (- 242 × 10-3)
= – 890 + 72.6 = – 817.4 kJmol-1.

Question 44.
What is the equilibrium constant kc for the following reaction at 400 K?
Answer:
2NOCl (g) ⇌ 2 NO (g) + Cl2 (g)
Answer:
∆H° = 77.2 kJ and ∆S°
= 122 Jk-1 mol-1
∆G° = ∆H° – T∆S°
= 77.2 – 400 × 122 × 10-3
= 28.4 kJ = 28.4 × 103 J
We know, ∆G° = -2.303 RT log kc
log kc = \(\frac{-\Delta \mathrm{G}^{\circ}}{2.305 \times \mathrm{R} \times \mathrm{T}}\)

= \(\frac{-28.4 \times 10^{3}}{2.303 \times 8.314 \times 400}\) = 3.7081

kc = Antilog(-3.7081)
= 1.958 × 10-4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 45.
For the equilibrium
PCl (s) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) at 25°C.
kc = 1.8 × 10-7 R = 8.314 Jk-1 mol-1 Calculate ∆G° for the reaction.
Answer:
∆G° = – 2.303 RT log kc
= – 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 log (1.8 × 10-7)
= – 38484 J mol-1 = – 38.484 kJ mol-1

Question 46.
Calculate ∆G° for the reaction.
CO (g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → CO2 (g), ∆H° = -282.84 kJ
Answer:
Given, S°(CO2) = 213.8 Jk-1 mol-1
S°(CO) = 197.9 Jk-1 mol-1
S°(O2) = 205.0 Jk-1 mol-1
∆S° = Σ S°(products) – Σ S°(reactants)
= [S° (CO2) – S° (CO) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) S° (O2)]
= 213.8 – [197.9 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 205]
= – 86.6 JK-1 mol-1
We know,
∆G° = ∆H° – F∆S°
= – 282.84 – 298 × (- 86.6 × 10-3)
= – 282.84 + 25.807 = -257.033 kJ

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When a liquid boils, there is:
(a) increase in entropy
(b) a decrease in entropy
(c) increase in heat of vaporization
(d) an increase in free energy
Answer:
(a) increase in entropy
Hint: When liquid boils, it becomes a gas vapour. The molecules in the gas vapour are randomly placed compared to the liquid i.e., randomness is high in gaseous state then in liquid.
∆s = SV – SL = positive

Question 2.
If ∆G for a reaction is negative, the change is:
(a) spontaneous
(b) non-spontaneous
(c) reversible
(d) equilibrium
Answer:
(a) spontaneous
Hint:
For a spontaneous reactions ∆G = negative

Question 3.
In which of the following process, the process is always non-feasible?
(a) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0
(b) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
(c) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
(d) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0
Answer:
(b) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
Hint:
For a spontaneous process, (b) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 4.
Change in Gibbs free energy is given by:
(a) ∆G = ∆H + T∆S
(b) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
(c) ∆G = ∆H × T∆S
(d) None of these
Ans:
(b) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S

Question 5.
Which of the following process is feasible at all temperatures?
(a) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0
(b) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
(c) ∆H< 0, ∆S > 0
(d ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0
Answer:
(c) ∆H< 0, ∆S > 0
Hint:
When ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 at all temperatures, ∆G is negative.

Question 6.
Calculate the entropy change during the melting of one mole of ice into water at 0°C and 1 atm pressure. Enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6008 J mole-1.
(a) 22.007 J K-1 mole-1
(b) 22.007 J K mole-1
(c) 220.07 J K-1 mole-1
(d) 2.2007 J K-1 mole
Answer:
(a) 22.007 J K-1 mol-1
Hint:
∆S = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{f}}{\mathrm{~T}}=\frac{6008 \mathrm{~J} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}{273 \mathrm{~K}}\)
= 22.007 J K-1 mole-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 7.
The final temperature of an engine whose initial temperature is 400K and having efficiency 25%.
(a) 200 K
(b) 400 K
(c) 300 K
(d) 450 K
Answer:
(c) 300 K
Hint:
% efficiency = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}\)
T1 = initial temp.
T2 = final temp.
25 = \(\frac{400-T_{2}}{400}\) × 100
T2 = 300 K

Question 8.
When solid melts there is:
(a) an increase of entropy
(b) a decrease in entropy
(c) an increase in free energy
(d) an increase of heat of fusion
Answer:
(a) an increase of entropy
Hint:
∆S = SL – SS
Solid → liquid
∆S = SL – SS
SL > SS
∴ ∆S is positive

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 9.
The unit of entropy is:
(a) J K-1 mol-1
(b) J mol-1
(c) J K mol-1
(d) J-1 K-1
Answer:
(a) J K-1 mol-1

Question 10.
If ∆G = 0, then the process is:
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Spontaneous
(c) Non Spontaneous
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Equilibrium

Question 11.
The standard conditions for G° are:
(a) 1 mmHg / 25°C
(b) 1 atm / 25°K
(c) 1 atm / 298 K
(d) 1 atm / 0 K
Answer:
(c) 1 atm / 298 K

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 12.
The efficiency of engine working between 100 to 400 K:
(a) 25 %
(b) 75 %
(c) 100 %
(d) 50 %
Answer:
(b) 75 %
Hint:
% efficiency = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}\)
T1 = initial temp.
T2 = final temp.
25 = \(\frac{400-T_{2}}{300}\) × 100 (T1 > T2)
T2 = 100 K

Question 13.
Entropy is a _________ function.
(a) State
(b) Path
(c) Defined
(d) Undefined
Answer:
(a) State
Hint:
The value depends on initial and final state of the system and not on the path followed by the system.

Question 14.
An efficiency of an engine is always:
(a) = 0 %
(b) > 100 %
(c) < 100 %
(d) = 100 %
Answer:
(c) < 100 %
Hint:
According to second law of thermo-dynamics 100% conversion of energy to work is impossible.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 15.
If system moves from ordered state to disordered state, its entropy:
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Become zero
(d) Increases then decreases
Answer:
(b) Increases
Hint:
Whenever there is greater disorderliness, greater is the entropy. Hence the increase in entropy.

Question 16.
In which of the following entropy increases?
(a) Condensation of water vapour
(b) Liquid freezes to solid
(c) Sublimation
(d) Gas freezes to a solid
Answer:
(c) Sublimation
Hint:
Solid → Vapour(sublimation)
∆S = S(vapour) – S(solid)
S(vap) > S(solid)= positive
i.e., entropy increases.

Question 17.
Which of the following is a state function?
(a) q
(b) ∆q
(c) w
(d) ∆S
Answer:
(d) ∆S
Hint:
∆S; The rest are path functions.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 18.
Which of the following will have highest ∆Hvap value?
(a) Acetone
(b) Ethanol
(c) Carbon tetrachloride
(d) Chloroform
Answer:
(c) Carbon tetrachloride
Hint:
When a liquid is converted to its vapour, the attraction between the molecules in the liquid should be less, so that they can readily escape into vapour. CCl4 being a non-polar liquid, has the least attraction and has lower vapour pressure and has highest ∆Hvap value.

Question 19.
Which of the following is not a state function?
(a) S
(b) H
(c) G
(d) q
Answer:
(d) q

Question 20.
The net work done by the system:
(a) w – P∆V
(b) w + P∆V
(c) -w + P∆V
(d) -w – P∆V
Answer:
(d) -w – P∆V

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 21.
– ∆G is the net work done by the system except:
(a) Electrical work
(b) Expansion work
(c) Chemical work
(d) Photo chemical work
Answer:
(b) Expansion work
Hint:
The decrease in free energy (- ∆G) is the energy available with the system to perform work other than P – V work, (explanation / compression).

Question 22.
The enthalpy of vapourisation of a liquid is 30 kJ mol-1 and the entropy of vapourisation is 75 J K-1 mol-1. The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is:
(a) 250 K
(b) 400 K
(c) 450 K
(d) 600 K
Answer:
(b) 400 K
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 6

Question 23.
In a reversible process ∆S(system) + ∆S(surrounding) is:
(a) > 0
(b) < 0
(c) > 0
(d) = 0
Answer:
(d) = 0
Hint:
∆ST = 0 for a reversible (equilibrium)
= ∆S(system) + ∆S(surrounding) = 0

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 24.
Which of the following does not result in an increase in the entropy?
(a) crystallisation of sucrose from solution
(b) rusting of Iron
(c) conversion of ice to water
(d) vapourisation of camphor
Answer:
(a) crystallisation of sucrose from solution
Hint:
Solution of sucrose > crystals of sucrose(solid)
∆S = S(solid) – S(solution)
= S(solution) < S(solid)

Question 25.
The standard free energy change (∆G°) is related to equilibrium constant (K) as:
(a) ∆G° = -2.303 RT lnK
(b) ∆G°= 2.303 RT log K
(c) ∆G° = RT ln K
(d) ∆G° = – 2.303 RT log K
Answer:
(d) ∆G° = – 2.303 RT log K

Question 26.
Entropy change involved in the conversion of 1 mole of liquid water at 373K to vapour at the same temperature will be ∆H = 2.257 kJ g-1
(a) 0.119 kJ
(b) 0.109 kJ
(c) 0.129 kJ
(d) 0.120 kJ
Answer:
(b) 0.109 kJ
Hint:
∆S = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{vap}}}{\mathrm{T}}\)

= \(\frac{2.257 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~g}^{-1} \times 18 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}{373}\) = 0.109 kJ

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 27.
Which of the following units represent largest amount of energy?
(a) calories
(b) Joule
(c) erg
(d) eV
Answer:
(a) calories
Hint:
1 calorie = 4.184 K; 1 erg = 10-7 J;
1 eV= 1.6 × 10-19 J

Question 28.
System in which there is no exchange of j matter , work or energy from surrounding:
(a) closed
(b) isolated
(c) adiabatic
(d isothermal
Answer:
(b) isolated

Question 29.
Identify the state quantity among the following:
(a) q
(b) q – w
(c) q + w
(d) q / w
Ans :
(c) q + w
Hint:
∆U = q + w; ∆U is a state function.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 30.
In general, for an exothermic reaction to be spontaneous :
(a) temperature should be high
(b) temperature should be zero
(c) temperature should be low
(d) temperature has no effect
Answer:
(c) temperature should be low
Hint:
∆G = ∆H – T∆S:
For exothermic reaction
∆H is negative,
∆S = positive and at low temperature
∆G = negative.
Hence temperature should be low.

Question 31.
Heat of neutralization of a strong acid by a j strong base is a constant value because:
(a) only H+ and OH ions react in every case
(b) the strong base and strong acid react completely
(c) the strong base and strong acid react in aqueous solution
(d) salt formed does not hydrolyse
Answer:
(a) only H+ and OH ions react in every case.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 32.
The heat absorbed at constant volume is equal to the system’s change in:
(a) enthalpy
(b) entropy
(c) internal energy
(d) free energy
Answer:
(c) internal energy
Hint:
qv</sub > = ∆U

Question 33.
Heat of neutralization of a strong acid by a base is always:
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) positive or negative
Answer:
(b) negative
Hint:
The neutralisation of a strong acid by a base is always
H+ + OH —> H2O, for which the value is – 57.32 kJ.

Question 34.
For the reaction H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI, ∆H = 12.40 kcal the heat of formation of HI is:
(a) 12.4 kcal mol-1
(b) – 12.4 kcal mol-1
(c) – 6.20 kcal mol-1
(d) 6.20 kcal mol-1
Answer:
(d) 6.20 kcal mol-1
Hint:
12.4 kcal is the amount of heat absorbed for 2 mol of the formation of HI. By definition, j the heat of formation is for one mol of the formation of H is \(\frac{12.40}{2}\) = 6.20 kcal mol-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 35.
Heat capacity is:
(a) dq / dT
(b) dq .dT
(c) Σ q.l / dT
(d) none of these
Ans :
(a) dq / dT

Question 36.
The relation between Cp and Cp is:
(a) Cp – Cv = R
(b) Cp + Cv = R
(c) – 285 KJ
(d) R – Cv = Cp
Answer:
(a) Cp – Cv = R

Question 37.
The heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1 K is called:
(a) specific heat
(b) thermal capacity
(c) water equivalent
(d) none of these
Ans :
(b) thermal capacity

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 38.
Heat liberated when 100 ml of 1 N NaOH is neutralized by 300 ml of 1 N HCl:
(a) 22.92 kJ
(b) 17.19 kJ
(c) 11.46 kJ
(d) 5.73 kcal
Ans :
(d) 5.73 kcal
Hint:
Number of equivalents of HCl = \(\frac{100 \times 1}{1000}\) = 0.1 equivalent
Number of equivalents of NaOH = \(\frac{300 \times 1}{1000}\) = 0.3 equivalent
Limiting reagent is HCl.
∴ 0.1 equivalent of HCl = 0.1 equivalent of NaOH
1 equivalent of HCl neutralised 1 equivalent of NaOH
heat liberated = 57.32 kcal
0.1 equivalent HCl, produce = \(\frac{57.32}{1}\) × 0.1 = 5.73 k cal

Question 39.
In order to decompose 9 g of water, 142.5 kJ of heat is required. Hence enthalpy of formation of water is:
(a) – 142.5 kJ
(b) 142.5 kJ
(c) – 285 kJ
(d) 285 kJ
Answer:
(d) 285 kJ
Hint:
Enthalpy of formation of 9 g of water = (-) 142.5 kJ
Enthalpy of formation of 18 g (1 mole) of water = -142.5/9 × 18 = – 285 kJ

Question 40.
The state of a system can be described by quoting the relationship between :
(a) pressure, volume, temperature
(b) temperature, amount, pressure
(c) amount, volume, temperature
(d) pressure, volume, temperature and amount
Answer:
(d) pressure, volume, temperature and amount
Hint:
Any thermodynamic property of a system is a function of pressure, temperature, volume and amount (number of moles).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 41.
During complete combustion of one mole of butane, 2658 kJ of heat is liberated. The thermo chemical reaction for the above change is:
(a) 2C4H10 (g) + 13 O2 (g) → 8 CO2 (g) + 10 H2O (l); ∆HC = – 2658 kJ mol-1

(b) C4H10 (g) + \(\frac{13}{2}\) O2 (g) → 4 CO2 (g) + 5 H2O (g); ∆HC = – 1329.0 kJ mol-1

(c) C4H10(g) + \(\frac{13}{2}\) O2 (g) → 4 CO2 (g) + 5H2O ∆HC = – 2658.0 kJ mol-1

(d) C4H10 + \(\frac{13}{2}\) O2 (g) → 4CO2 (g) + 5H2O (l) ∆HC = +2658.0 kJ mol-1
Answer:
(c) C4H10(g) + \(\frac{13}{2}\) O2 (g) → 4 CO2 (g) + 5H2O ∆HC = – 2658.0 kJ mol-1
Hint:
The enthalpy of combustion is heat released by one mol of butane an burning with oxygen. CO2 (g) and H2O7 (l) are formed.

Question 42.
If ∆U°f of formation of CH4 (g) at a certain temperature is -393 kJ mol-1, then, the value of ∆H/is:
(a) zero
(b) < ∆U°f
(c) > ∆U°f
(d) equal to ∆U°f
Answer:
(b) < ∆U°f
Hint:
The ∆U°f for CH4 (g) is
C(s) + 2 H2O(g) > CH4 ∆U°f = – 393kJ mol-1
∆H = ∆U + (RT)∆n
∆H= 1 – 2 = -1
∆H = ∆U + (RT)-1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 43.
In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between the svstem and surroundings. Choose the correct option for free expansion of ideal gas under adiabatic conditions from the following:
(a) q = 0; ∆T ≠ 0; w = 0
(b) q ≠ 0; ∆T = 0; w = 0
(c) q = 0; ∆T = 0; w = 0
(d) q = 0; ∆T < 0; w ≠ 0
Answer:
(c) q = 0; ∆T = 0; w = 0
Hint:
For free expansion,
Pext = 0
W = -Pext ∆U
For adiabatic process; q = 0
∆U = q + w = 0.
This means that interval energy remains constant, which is so at constant temperature. Hence, ∆T = 0.

Question 44.
The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas can be calculated by using the expression.
w = – \(\int_{v_{I}}^{v_{f}}\) Pext . dNt

The work can also be calculated from the PV plot by using the area. Under the curve within the specified limits. When an ideal gas is compressed (a) reversibly or (b) irreversibly from volume Vi to Vf, choose the correct option:
(a) w(reversible) = w(irreversible)
(b) w(reversible) < w(irreversible)
(c) w(reversible) > w(irreversible)
(d) w(reversible) = w(irreversible)
Answer:
(b) w(reversible) < w(irreversible)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Thermodynamics 7

Hint:
Area under curve (a) which is for irreversible compression is more than area curve (b) which is for reversiblecompression. Hence, for compression w(reversible) < w(irreversible).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 45.
The entropy change can be calculated by using the expression, ∆S = \(\frac{q_{\text {rev }}}{\mathrm{T}}\). When water freezes in a glass beaker, choose the correct statement amongst the following:
(a) ∆S(system) decreases but ∆S(surroundings) remains same.
(b) ∆S(system) increases but ∆S(surroundings) decreases
(c) ∆S(system) decreases but ∆S(surroundings) increases
(d) ∆S(system) decreases and ∆S(surroundings) decreases.
Answer:
(c) ∆S(system) decreases but ∆S(surroundings) increases
Hint:
∆S (system) decreases because molecules of solid ice are less random than in liquid water. However, when water freezes to ice, heat is released which is absorbed by the surroundings. Hence entropy of the surroundings increases.

Question 46.
The enthalpies of elements in their standard states are taken as zero. The enthalpy of formation of a compound:
(a) is always negative
(b) is always positive
(c) may be positive or negative
(d) is never negative
Answer:
(c) may be positive or negative

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 47.
The standard enthalpy of vapourisation, ∆H°vap for water at 100°C is 40.66 kJ mol-1, The internal energy change for water at 10i° C (in kJ mol-1) is:
(a) + 37.56
(b) – 43.76
(c) 43.76
(d) – 40.66
Answer:
(a) + 37.56
Hint:
H2O (l) → H2O
∆n = 1
∆H = ∆U – (RT)∆n
∆U = ∆H – (RT)∆n
= (40.66 × 1000 J mol-1 – (1 x 8.314Jk-1 mol-1 x 373 K)
= 40660 – 3101 JK-1 mol-1
= 37559 J mol-1 = 37.56 kJmol-1

Question 48.
Two similar reactions are given below:
H2 (g)+ O2 (g) >H2 (g); ∆H – ∆H1
H2 (g) + O2 (g) > H2 (l); ∆H = ∆H2
In terms of magnitude, of ∆H
(a) ∆H1 > ∆H2
(b) ∆H1 < ∆H2
(c) ∆H1 = ∆H2
(d) cannot be predicted
Answer:
(b) ∆H1 < ∆H2
Hint:
∆H2 > ∆H1 because when H2O (g) condenses to H2O (l), heat is evolved,. Hence, ∆H1 < ∆H2.

Question 49.
In the reaction, S + \(\frac{3}{2}\) O2 → SO3 + 2x kJ and SO2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 → SO3 + y kJ. The enthalpy of formation of SO2 is:
(a) x – y
(b) 2x + y
(c) x + y
(d) y – 2x
Answer:
(d) y – 2x
Hint:
Given, S + \(\frac{3}{2}\) O2 → SO3; ∆H = – 2x kJ (1)
SO2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 → SO3; ∆H = – y kJ (2)
The enthalpy of formation of SO2 is given by
S + O2 → SO3 ∆H = ? ………..(3)
Equation (1) – Equation (2) gives
S + O2 → SO3
i.e., ∆H = – 2x – (-y) = y – 2x

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 50.
Calorific value of hydrogen gas is – 143 kJ mol-1. The standard enthalpy of formation of H2O will be:
(a) – 143 kJ mol-1
(b) + 143 kJ mol-1
(c) – 286 kJ mol-1
(d) + 286 kJ mol-1
Answer:
(c)
Hint:
H2 (g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → H2O (l)
Calorifìc value of a fuel is the amount of heat produced by 1 gm of the fuel.
1 g of H2O on combustion produces = 143 kJ
1 mol (2g) will produce 2 × 143 = 286 kJ
This is also the value of standard enthalpy of formation of water.

Question 51.
Based on first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct?
(a) For an isochoric process, ∆U = -q
(b) For an adiabatic process, ∆U = -w
(c) For an isothermal process, q = + w
(d) For a cyclic process, q = -w
Answer:
(d) For a cyclic process, q = -w
Hint:
(a) ∆U = q + w; For an isochoric process, -w = P. ∆V = 0; Hence ∆U = qU
(b) For an adiabatic process, q = 0, Hence, ∆U = w.
(c) For an isothermal process, ∆U = 0, Hence, q = -w.
(d) For a cyclic process, ∆U = 0; Hence, q = – w.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 52.
The amount of heat evolved when 500 cm3 of 0.1 M hydrochloric acid is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M sodium hydroxide solution is:
(a) – 57.1 kJ
(b) + 57.1kJ
(c) 2.284 kJ
(d) -2.284 kJ
Answer:
(c) 2.284 kJ
Hint:
Number of mol of HCl = molarity × volume in cm-3 × 10-3
= 0.1 × 500 × 10-3 = 0.05
∴ Number of mol of H+ ions = 0.05 mol 6f H+ ions.
Number of mol of NaOH = 0.2 × 200 × 10-3 = 0.04 mol
number of mol of OH ions = 0.04 mol
NaOH is the limiting reagent. Therefore 0.04 mol of OH will combine with 0.04 mol of H+ ions
Heat evolved when 1 mol of OH combine with 1 mol of H+ ion = 57.1 kJ
Heat evolved when 0.04 mol of OH combine with 0.04 mol of H+ ion = 57.1 × 0.04
= 2.284 kJ

Question 53.
The following two reactions are known:
(i) Fe2O3 (s) + 3CO (g) → 2 Fe (s) + 3CO2 (g); ∆H = -26.8 kJ
(ii) FeO (s) + CO (g) → Fe (s) + CO2 (g); ∆H = -16.5kJ
The value for ∆H for the following reaction is
Fe2O3 (s) + CO (g) → 2 FeO (s) + CO2 (g) is
(a) + 10.3 kJ
(b) – 43.3 kJ
(c) -10.3kJ
(d) 6.2 kJ
Answer:
(d) 6.2 kJ
Hint:
Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2 Fe + 3CO2; ∆H = -26.8 kJ …………(1)
FeO + CO → Fe + CO2; ∆H = -16.5 kJ ……………..(2)
The required reactions is
Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2; ∆H = ?
Multiply equation (2) by (1) and reverse it and add with equation (1)
Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2 Fe + 3CO2; ∆H = -26.8 kJ
2Fe + 2CO2 —> 2FeO + 2CO ; ∆H = +33.0 kJ
Fe2O3+ 3CO—> 2FeO + CO2; ∆H = 6.2 kJ

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 54.
The heat of combustion of carbon to carbon-di-oxide is -393.5 kJ mol-1. The heat released upon formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and oxygen is:
(a) + 315 kJ
(b) – 630 kJ
(c) – 3.15 kJ
(d) – 315 kJ
Answer:
(d)
Hint:
C + O2 → CO2; ∆H = – 393.5 kJ
When 1 mol of CO2(44g of CO2) is formed heat evolved = – 393.5 kJ
When 35.2 g is formed, the amount of heat evolved is, = \(\frac{393.5}{44}\) × 35.2 = – 314.8 kJ
≈ – 315 kJ

Question 55.
For the reaction, 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g), the, ∆H = -571 kJ. Bond energy of H – H = 435 and O = O = 498. then the average bond energy of O – H bond will be:
(a) 484
(b) – 484
(c) 271
(d) – 271
Answer:
(a) 484
Hint:
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
[∵ 2 × (H – O – H)]
∆H = 2 × BE(H -H) + BE(O = O) – 4(BE of O – H)
– 571 = (2 × 435 + 498 – (4 BE of O – H)
B.E (O – H) = 484

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 56.
Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H (g) → 2H2 (g) is – 869.6 kJ. The dissociation energy of H – H bond is:
(a) -217.4 kJ
(b) – 434.8 kJ
(c) – 896.6 kJ
(d) + 434.8 kJ
Ans :
(d) + 434.8 kJ
Hint:
2H2 (g) → 4H; ∆H = + 869.6 kJ
(or) H2 (g) → 2H (g)
∆H = \(\frac{869.6}{2}\) = 434.8 kJ

Question 57.
The direct conversion of A → B is difficult, Hence it is carried out by the following paths shown: . ..
∆S (A → C) = 50 e.u
∆S (C → D) = 30 e.u .
∆S (B → D) = 20 e.u.
where e.u. is entropy unit, then ∆S( A – B) is
(a) + 100 e.u.
(b) + 60 e.u
(c) – 100 e.u
(d) – 60 e.u.
Answer:
(b) + 60 e.u
Hint:
∆S (A – C)= SC – SA = 50e.u. …(1)
∆S (C → D) = SD – SA = 30 e.u. . . .(2)
∆S (B → D) = SD – SB = 20 e.u. .. .(3)
∆S (A → B) = SB – SA =?
Equation (1) + Equation (2) – Equation (3)
= ∆S(A – B)
= 50 + 30 – 20 = 60 e.u

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 58.
In which of the following reaction, standard entropy change (∆S°) is positive and standard Gibb’s free energy change (∆G°) decreases sharply with increasing temperature?
(a) C(graphite) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → CO (g)
(b) CO (g)+ \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → CO2(g)
(c) Mg (s) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → Mg (s)
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\) C (graphite) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → \(\frac{1}{2}\) CO2 (g)
Answer:
(a) C(graphite) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) → CO (g)
Hint:
The reaction (a) is accompanied increase in number of moles of gaseous substances. Hence entropy incre ases, i.e., ∆S° is + ve. From the relation, ∆G° = ∆H° – T∆S°, as temperature increases, T∆S° decreases sharply and hence ∆G° decreases sharply.

Question 59.
For the reaction, X2O4 (l) → 2 XO2 (g),
∆U = 2.1 kcal, ∆S = 20 cal Kr1 at 300 K. Hence, ∆G is:
(a) 2.7 kcal
(b) -2.7 kcal
(c) 9.3 kcal
(d) – 9.3 kcal
Answer:
(b) – 2.7 kcal
Hint:
∆H = ∆U + (RT)∆n
Given:
∆U = 2.1 kcal; ∆n = 2 – 0.2;
R = 2 × 10-3 kcal; T = 300K.
∴ ∆H= 2.1 + 2 × 2 × 10-3 × 300 = 3.3 kcal
Again, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
Given, ∆S = 20 × 10-3 kcal K-1
∆H = 3.3 kcal (calculated above)
∆G = ?
∆S = 3.3 – 300 × (20 × 10-3)
= 3.3 – 6 = – 2.7 kcal.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 60.
Consider the following reactions:
(i) O2 (g) + 2 SO2 (g) → 2 SO3 (g)
(ii) CaC2O4 (s) → CaCO3 (s) + CO (g)
(iii) 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g)

Choose the correct statement:
(a) In all the reactions entropy increases.
(b) In (i) and (iii) entropy decreases while in (ii) entropy increases
(c) In (i) and (ii) entropy decreases while in (in) entropy increases
(d) In (i) and (iii) entropy decreases while in (i) entropy increases.
Answer:
(b) In (i) and (iii) entropy decreases while in (ii) entropy increases
Hint:
In (i) ∆S = negative (because number of moles of gases decreases)
In (ii) ∆S = positive (because reactant is solid while the one of the productivity is a gas)
In (iii) ∆S = negative (because number of moles of gases decreases)

Question 61.
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) ∆G is zero for a reversible reaction
(b) ∆G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
(c) ∆G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
(d) ∆G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction
Ans :
(b) ∆G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
Hint:
∆G is negative and net positive for a spontaneous reaction. ∆G = 0 for a reaction at equilibrium, ∆G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 62.
Examples for various types of system is given below. Identify the system which is different from others.
(a) Animals and plants
(b) Water kept in thermos flask
(c) Thermostat
(d) A refrigerator
Answer:
(a) Animals and plants
Hint:
Thermodynamically animals and plants | are considered as open system while others are closed system.

Question 63.
Examples of thermodynamic properties j are given. Among them one is an extensive | property and the others are intensive properties. Identify the extensive property.
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Mole fraction
(d) Gibb’s free energy ‘ v ‘
Answer:
(d) Gibb’s free energy ‘ v ‘

Question 64.
From the following pairs of properties identify the pair of property which is dependent on the quantity of matter present.
(a) Temperature, mass
(b) Mass, free energy
(c) Temperature and pressure
(d) Pressure and internal energy.
Answer:
(c) Temperature and pressure
Hint:
Both are intensive properties.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 65.
Work done in isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is given below.
From the following, identify the correct pairs which gives the expression for work done.
(a) w = +2.303 nRT log \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~V}_{1}}\) and w = + 2.303 nRT log \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1}}{\mathrm{P}_{2}}\)

(b) w = -2.303 /?RT log \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~V}_{1}}\) and w = – 2.303 nRT log \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2}}{\mathrm{P}_{1}}\)

(c) w = -2.303 nRT log \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~V}_{2}}\) and A w = – 2 303 nRT log \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1}}{\mathrm{P}_{2}}\)

(d) w = +2.303 nRT log \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~V}_{2}}\) and w = + 2.303 nRT log \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2}}{\mathrm{P}_{1}}\)
Answer:
(b) w = -2.303 /?RT log \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~V}_{1}}\) and w = – 2.303 nRT log \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2}}{\mathrm{P}_{1}}\)

Question 66.
Assertion:
Heat energy is completely transformed into work during the isothermal expansion of an ideal gas.
Reason:
During an isothermal process, the changes in internal energy of a gas is due to decrease in pressure is nullified by the change due to increase in volume.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 67.
Assertion:
Chlorine when solidifies does not have zero entropy ever at absolute zero.
Reason:
Chlorine is a pungent smelling gas and it is difficult to solidify it.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 68.
Assertion:
Molar entropy of Vaporisation of water is different from ethanol.
Reason:
Water is more polar than ethanol.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 69.
Assertion:
A process for which ∆Ssystem > 0 as well as ∆H > 0, passes from non spontaneous to spontaneous state as the temperature is increased.
Reason:
At higher temperatures T∆S exceeds ∆H.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 70.
Assertion:
For the reaction,
2NH3 (g) → N2 (g) + 3H2 (g),
∆H > ∆E
Reason:
Enthalpy change is always greater than internal energy change.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion ancj reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 71.
Which of the following statements are not correct?
(i) The standard value of absolute entropy of elementary substance is taken as zero.
(ii) Work done in an isothermal expansion is greater than that in an adiabatic expansion for the same increase in volume.
(iii) During adiabatic expansion of a real gas, there is no change in the enthalpy of the system.
(iv) Expansion against vacuum is very large and hence work done is also very large.

(a) (i), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (iii)
(d) (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iv)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 72.
Based on first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct?
(a) For an isochoric process, ∆U = – q
(b) For an adiabatic process, ∆U = – w
(c) For an isothermal process, q = + w
(d) For a cyclic process, q = – w
Answer:

Question 73.
Choose the incorrect statement from among the following:
All statements under constant temperature.
(a) For a spontaneous process, ∆S(total) should be positive and also ∆G is negative.
(b) For a process at equilibrium, both ∆S(total) and ∆G should be equal to zero.
(c) For a non-spontaneous process ∆S(total)should be negative and ∆G should be positive,
(d) Spontaneous process ∆S negative and ∆G positive.
Answer:
(d) Spontaneous process ∆S negative and ∆G positive.

Question 74.
Which of the following statements is correct, when both ∆H and T∆S are positive?
(a) If ∆H > T∆S, the process is non-spontaneous and ∆G is positive.
(b) If ∆H < T∆S, the process is spontaneous and ∆G is positive.
(c) If ∆H > T∆S, the process is spontaneous and ∆G is positive.
(d) If ∆H = T∆S, the process is spontaneous and ∆G = 0 .
Answer:
(a) If ∆H > T∆S, the process is non-spontaneous and ∆G is positive.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 75.
Choose the correct statement from among the following:
(a) The standard enthalpy of methane gas is equal to its standard enthalpy of its formation.
(b) The standard enthalpy if diamond is zero.
(c) For the change H2O (l) → H2O (v) ∆S is negative.
(d) The lattice enthalpy of an ionic compound should always have high positive value.
Answer:
(a) The standard enthalpy of methane gas is equal to its standard enthalpy of its formation.

Question 76.
Match the entities in column I with appropriate entities in column II.

Column I Column II
(i) Isothermal process(A) q = ∆U
(ii) Adiabatic process(B) W = -P∆V
(iii) Isobaric process(C) W = ∆U
(iv) Isochoric process(D) W = nRT ln \(\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}\)

(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (A)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(c) (i) – (A), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (D)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter7 Thermodynamics

Question 77.
Match the entities in column I with appropriate entities in column II.

Column I Column II
(i) Positive ∆U value (A) Non – spontaneous at all temperature
(ii) Negative ∆H value (B) Endothermic reaction
(iii) ∆H = -ve; ∆S = +ve (C) Exothermic reaction
(iv) ∆H = +ve; ∆S = -ve (D) Spontaneous at all temperatures

(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)
(b) (i) – (C), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (D)
(c) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 1.
Give the characteristics of gases.
Answer:
(i) They assume the volume and shape of their container.
(ii) They are the most compressible state of matter.
(iii) They mix thoroughly when confined to the same container.
(iv) They have much lower densities than liquids and solids.
(v) Their pressure is uniform on all sides of the container.

Question 2.
Mention the units of pressure in SI units.
Answer:
The SI unit of pressure is the Pascal (Pa),
1 Pa = 1 Nm-2 (Newton per second)
1 N = 1 kgms-2 (Kilogram mter per second)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 3.
Define atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
The force exerted on a unit area of earth by the column of air above it is called atmospheric pressure.

Question 4.
Define standard atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
The standard atmospheric pressure (1 atm.) is the pressure that supports a column of mercury exactly 760 mm (or 76 cm) high at 0°C at sea level. The standard atmosphere is thus equal to a pressure of 760 mm Hg, in which mm Hg represents the pressure exerted by a column of mercury 1 mm high.
Thus 1 atm. = 760 mm Hg

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 5.
Describe an experiment to verify Boyle’s law.
Answer:
The schematic of the apparatus used

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 1

Mercury was added through the open end of the apparatus such that the mercury level on both ends are equal as shown in the figure
(a) Add more amount of mercury until the volume of the trapped air is reduced to half of its original volume as shown in figure
(b) The pressure exerted on the gas by the addition of excess mercury is given by the difference in mercury levels of the tube. Initially the pressure exerted by the gas is equal to 1 atm as the difference in height of the mercury levels is zero.

When the volume is reduced to half, the difference in mercury levels increases to 760 mm. Now the pressure exerted by the gas is equal to 2 atm. It led him to conclude that at a given temperature the volume occupied by a fixed mass of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.

Mathematically, the Boyle’s law can be written as
V ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{P}}\) …………..(1)
(T and n are fixed, T-temperature, n- number of moles)
V = k × \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{P}}\) …………(2)
k – proportionality constant When we rearrange equation (2).
PV = k at constant temperature and mass.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 6.
Give the graphical representation of Boyle’s law.
Answer:
According to Boyle’s law for a given mass of a gas under two different sets of conditions at constant temperature we can write
P1V1 = P2V2 = k

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 2

Question 7.
Prove that density of a gas in directly proportional to the pressure.
[OR] Derive pressure-density relationship from Boyle’s law.
Answer:
The pressure-density relationship can be derived from the Boyle’s law as shown below.
P1V1 = P2V2 (Boyle’s law)

P1 \(\frac{m}{d_{1}}\) = P2 \(\frac{m}{d_{2}}\)

Where “m” is the mass, d1 and d2 are the densities of gases at pressure P1 and P2.

\(\frac{P_{1}}{d_{1}}=\frac{P_{2}}{d_{2}}\)

In other words, the density of a gas is directly proportional to pressure.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 8.
Explain what happens of a balloon is moved from an ice-cold water bath to a. boiling water bath..
Answer:
If a balloon is moved from an ice cold water bath to a boiling water bath, the temperature of the gas increases. As a result, the gas molecules inside the balloon move faster and gas expands. Hence, the volume increases.

Question 9.
Explain the variation of volume of a gas with temperature at constant pressure.
Answer:
The plot of the volume of the gas against its temperature at a given pressure is shown in the figure.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 3

From the graph, it is clear that the volume of the gas linearly increases with temperature at a given pressure. Such lines are called isobars. It can be expressed by the following straight line equation.
V = mT + C where T is the temperature in degree Celsius and m & C are constants.
When T = 0°C the volume becomes V0.
Hence, V0 = C and slope of the straight line m is equal to ∆V / ∆T.
Therefore the above equation can be written in the following form.

V = \(\left(\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta T}\right)\) T + V0 ……………(1)
(n, p are constant)

Divide the equation (1) by V0

\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}_{0}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{~V}_{0}}\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\Delta \mathrm{T}}\right)\)T + 1 …………(2)

Charles and Gay Lussac found that under constant pressure, the relative increase in volume per degree increase in temperature is same for all gases. The relative increase in volume per °C (∝) is equal to \(\frac{1}{V_{0}}\left(\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta T}\right)\).

Therefore
V = \(\left(\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta T}\right)\) T + V0
V = V0 (T + 1) …………(3)

Charles found that the coefficient of expansion – is approximately equal to 1/273. It means that at constant temperature for a given mass, for each degree rise in temperature, all gases expand by 1/273 of their volume at 0°C. For refer Figure No. 61.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 10.
Explain why the pressure inprease two fold, when the volume is halved?
Answer:
The pressure is a result of the force of the gas particles on the walls of the container. If the volume is halved, the density is doubled. Hence, twice the number of the particles should be hitting the container and the pressure would be increased to two fold.

Question 11.
Explain why airplanes cabins’are pressurized.
Answer:
The pressure decreases with the increase in altitude because there are fewer molecules per unit volume of air. Above 9200 m (30000 ft.) for example, where most commercial air planes fly, the pressure is so low that one could pass out for lack of oxygen. For this reason most airplanes cabins are artificially pressurized.

Question 12.
How does the volume of a gas vary with temperature at constant pressure? Explain with the help of a plot between volume Vs temperature.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 4

The volume of a gas increases with temperature at constant pressure. Each line (isobar) represents the variation of volume with temperature at certain pressure. The pressure increases from P1 to P.
i.e., P1 < P2 < P3 < P4 < P5.
When these lines are extrapolated of extended to zero volume, they intersect at a temperature of- 273.15°C. All the gases are becoming liquids if they are cooled to sufficiently low temperatures. In other words, all gases occupy zero volume at absolute zero.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 13.
What is absolute zero? Mention its significance.
Answer:
Absolute zero is a temperature at which all gases have zero volume. This temperature cannot be obtained. It has a value of -273.15°C and theoretically it is the lowest temperature obtainable.

Question 14.
What are isobar and isochores?
Answer:
Isobars are the plot of volume Vs temperature at constant pressure and isochores are plot of pressure verses temperature at constant volume.

Question 15.
State Gay Lussac’s law.
Answer:
At constant volume the pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to temperature.
P ∝ T
or \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = Constant k
If P1 and P2 are the pressures at temperatures T1 and T2, respectively, then from Gay Lussac’s law

\(\frac{P_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{2}}{T_{2}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 16.
State Avogadro’s hypothesis.
Answer:
Equal volumes of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules. The mathematical form of Avogadro’s hypothesis may be expressed as
V ∝ n
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{n_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{n_{2}}\) = constant

Where V1 and n1 are the volume and number of moles of a gas and V2 and n2 are a different set of values of volume and number of moles of the same gas at same temperature and pressure.

Question 17.
Describe ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The gaseous state is described completely using the following four variables T, P, V and n. Each gas law, relates one variable of a gaseous sample to another while the other two variables are held constant. Therefore, combining all equations into a single equation will enable to account for the change in any or all of the variables.
Derivation of ideal gas equation from empirical gas laws:
Boyle’s law V ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{P}}\)
Charles law V ∝ T
Avogadro’s law V ∝ n
We can combine these equations into the following general equation that describes the physical behaviour of all gases.
V ∝ \(\frac{n \mathrm{~T}}{\mathrm{P}}\)

V = \(\frac{n \mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
where, R is the proportionality constant. The above equation can be rearranged to give
PV = nRT

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 18.
Arrive at the values of gas constant (R) in dm3 atm mol-1 K-1, Pa, m3 K-1, mol-1 at JK-1 mol-1.
Answer:
The numerical value; of the gas constant (R) can be calculated by using the equation
R = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{n \mathrm{~T}}\) (R is also known as the universal gas constant) ,
For standard conditions in which P is 1 atm,, volume 22.414 dm3, for 1 mole at 273.15 (~ 273) K. .

R = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{~atm} . \times 22.414 \mathrm{dm}^{3}}{1 \mathrm{~mol} \times 273.15 \mathrm{~K}}\)
= 0.0821 dm3 atm . mole-1 K-1
Where P = 105 pascal, V = 22.71 × 10-3 m3 for 1 mole of a gas at 273.15 K
R = \(\frac{10^{5} \mathrm{~Pa} \times 22.71 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~m}^{3}}{1 \mathrm{~mol} \times 273.15 \mathrm{~K}}\)
= 8.314 Pa m3 K-1 mol-1
= 8.314 × 10-2 bar dm3 K-1 mol-1
= 8.314 JK-1 mol-1

Question 19.
What is partial pressure of a gas?
Answer:
Partial pressure of a gas is the pressure exerted by the gas when it is present alone in that volume. This term is used to indicate the pressure of a gaseous component in a mixture of gases.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 20.
State Dalton’s law of partial pressure.
Answer:
The total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting gases is the sum of partial pressures of the gases present. Partial pressure of a gas is the pressure exerted by the gas when it is present alone occupies to entire volume of the vessel.

Question 21.
Express mathematically Dalton’s law of partial pressures.
Answer:
Let for gases 1, 2 and 3 the partial pressure are P1, P2 and P3
Mathematically,
PTotal = P1 + P2 + P3
when we consider the gases to behave ideally
P1 = n1 \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\);
P2 = n2 \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\);
P3 = n3 \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\);

PTotal = n1 \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\) + n2 \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\) + n3 \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\)

= (n1 + n2 + n3) \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
P1 = nTotal (\(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\))

The partial pressure can be expressed as mole fraction multiplied Xi by the total pressure.
Pi = Xi PTotal
Xi = \(\frac{n_{i}}{\sum n_{i}}\)
= (number of mol of the gas 1) / (Total number of mol of all gases)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 22.
Mention the application of Dalton’s law.
Answer:
In a reaction involving the collection of gas by downward displacement of water, the pressure of dry vapour collected can be calculated using Dalton’s law.
Pdry gas collected = PTotal – Pwater vapour

Pwater vapour is generally referred as aqueous tension and its values are available for air at various temperatures. These values are relevant in weather forecast.

Question 23.
State Graham’s law of diffusion.
Answer:
The rate of effusion or diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of molar mass at constant temperature and pressure.

Question 24.
Define rate of diffusion.
Answer:
It is defined as the number of molecules of a gas that get diffused in unit time.
Rate of diffusion = \(\frac{\text { Volume of the gas diffused }}{\text { time taken }}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 25.
Give an expression for the rate of diffusion of a gas and to its molecular weight.
Answer:
Rate of diffusion ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{M}}\)

Question 26.
Give an expression for the rates of diffusion of two different gases and their molecular weighs.
Answer:
\(\frac{r_{\mathrm{A}}}{r_{\mathrm{B}}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}}\)

rA and rB rates of diffusion of gases A and B and the MA and MB are their molecular weighs.

Question 27.
Give an expression for»the diffusion of two gases diffusing at different pressures PA and PB and their molecular weighs.
Answer:
When diffusing gases are at different pressures (PA, PB)

\(\frac{r_{\mathrm{A}}}{r_{\mathrm{B}}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{B}}} \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}}\)

Where rA and rB are the rates of diffusion of A and B and the MA and MB are their respective molecular masses.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 28.
Mention the postulates of kinetic theory of gases which do not explain the behaviour of real gases.
Answer:
The assumption that molecules in the gas phase occupy negligible volume (1) and that they do not exert any force oh one another either attractive or repulsive (2) do not account for the behaviour of real gas.

Question 29.
What are the observations that you get from the plot of Z Vs P. (PV / RT Vs P) for real gases?
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 5

(i) For 1 mole of an ideal the plot becomes parallel to the pressure axis.
(ii) At low pressures all gases exhibit ideal behaviour. \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{RT}}\) values converges to 1 as P approaches to zero.
(iii) At moderate pressures, \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{RT}}\) becomes less than 1. This means that gases exhibit negative deviation from ideal behaviour. This is because attractive forces operate among molecules at relatively short distances.
(iv) At high pressures, \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{RT}}\) becomes greater than 1. This means that gases exhibit negative deviation from ideal behaviour. Intermolecular force becomes significant effect to affect the motion of the molecules.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 30.
Explain why in the case of a real gas the measured pressure is lower than the pressure of the gas if it behaved ideally.
Answer:
The speed of a’molecule that is moving toward the wall of a container is reduced by the attractive forces exerted by its neighbouring molecules. Hence, the measured gas pressure is lower than the pressure the gas would exert, if it behaved ideally.

Question 31.
What is compressibility factor? How does it explain the deviation of non-ideal gases from ideal behaviour.
Answer:
Compressibility factor is the ratio of PV to nRT.
Z = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{n \mathrm{RT}}\)
For ideal gases PV = nRT i.e., Z = 1
At high pressures Z > 1 (Positive deviation)
At intermediate pressures Z < 1 (Negative deviation) Question 32. Explain the term ‘Boyle’s point’. Mention it significance. Answer: (i) Boyle’s point is the temperature at which, real gases behave ideally over a range of low pressures. (ii) The Boyle point varies with the nature of the gas. (iii) Above the Boyle point, Z > 1 for real gases, i.e., they show positive deviation.
(iv) Below the Boyle point, the real gases first show a decrease for Z, reaches a minimum and then increase with increase in pressure.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 33.
Under what conditions, do real gases behave ideally?
Answer:
The real gases behave ideally at low pressure and at high temperature.

Question 34.
Show how the molar volume.of a real and . ideal gas are related to each other?
Answer:
Z = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}_{\text {real }}}{n \mathrm{RT}}\) ………..(1)

Videal = \(\frac{n \mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{P}}\) …………..(2)
Substituting (2) in (1)

Z = \(\frac{\mathbf{V}_{\text {real }}}{\mathbf{V}_{\text {ideal }}}\)
Where Vreal is the molar volume of the real gas and ideal is the molar volume of it when it behaves ideal, i.e., compressibility is the ratio of real volume of the gas to ideal volume of any gas.

Question 35.
Explain Andrew’s isotherm of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
The isotherms of carbon dioxide at different temperatures is shown in figure.
From the plots we can infer the following:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 6

At 13° C, carbondioxides exists as a gas at point A. Increasing the pressure of the gas decreases its volume to the point B. The volume of carbondioxide remains constant, till the point C. At the point B, carbon dioxide gets converted to liquid carbondioxide.

Along the line BC, carbondioxide exists both as vapour and liquid. They are in equilibrium with each other. At point ‘C’, carbondioxide is completely converted to liquid. Further increase of pressure at point ‘C’ has very little effect on the volume of carbondioxide. This is reflected in the steep rise in the curve.

Increasing the temperature, decreases the portion of the straight line (BC), which represents the co-existence of liquid and gaseous carbondioxide. At temperature 31°C the portion of the straight line becomes a point ‘P’. At their point, the entire gaseous carbondioxide is converted into liquid. This temperature, is known as critical temperature.

Above this temperature, carbondioxide exists as a gas and cannot be liquefied whatever be the pressure. Below this temperature, carbon dioxide can be readily converted to liquid by the application of pressure.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 36.
Using Andrew’s isotherm of CO2 explain the terms
(i) critical temperature,
(ii) critical pressure and
(iii) critical volume.
Answer:
(i) At the temperature of 31°C CO2 remains as a gas and below this temperature, CO2 can be converted to a liquid. Thus, this . temperature is called critical temperature. Above this temperature, CO2 exists mainly as a gas.
(ii) The pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature is known as critical pressure. For CO2, it is 73 atm.
(iii) The volume occupied by one mol of CO2 at its critical temperature and critical pressure is known as critical volume.

Question 37.
Explain Joule Thomson effect.
Answer:
The phenomenon of lowering of temperature when a gas is made to expand adiabatically from a region of high pressure into a region of low pressure is known as Joule – Thomson effect.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 38.
Which of the gases can be liquefied by Joule Thomson effect?
Answer:
Gases like O2, He, N2 and H2 have very low Tc, hence Joule-Thomson effect can be applied for cooling effectively for liquefaction.

Question 39.
What is inversion temperature? How is it related to Vander Waals constants?
Answer:
The temperature below which a gas obey Joule Thomson effect is called inversion temperature (Ti). At the inversion temperature, no rise or fall intemperature of a gas occurs while expanding. But above the inversion temperature, the gas gets heated up when allowed to expand through a hole. It is related to Vander Waals equation by

T2 = \(\frac{2 a}{R b}\)

Question 40.
Mention different methods of liquefaction of gases.There are different methods used for liquefaction of gases.
Answer:
(i) In Linde’s method: Joule-Thomson effect is used to get liquid air or any other gas.
(ii) Claude’s process: In addition to Joule- Thomson effect, the gas is allowed to perform mechanical work. So that more cooling is produced.
(iii) Adiabatic process: This method of cooling is produced by removing the magnetic property of magnetic material such as gadolinium sulphate. By this method, a temperature of 10-4 K i.e., as low as zero Kelvin can be achieved.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 41.
Inside a certain automobile engine, the volume of air in a cylinder is 0.475 dm3, when the pressure is 1.05 atm. When the gas is compressed, the pressure increased to 5.65 atm. at the same temperature. What is the volume of compressed air?
Answer:
Volume of air in the cylinder V1 = 0.475 dm3
Pressure of air (P1) = 1.05 atm
Pressure after compression of the gas (P2) = 5.65 atm
Volume of air after (V2) compression = ?
P1V1 = P2V2
1.05 × 0.475 = 5.65 × V2
V2 = \(\frac{1.05 \times 0.475}{5 .65}\) dm3 = 0.088 dm3

Question 42.
An inflated balloon has a volume of 275 mL and contains 0.120 mole of air. As shown in fig a piece of dry ice weighing lg is placed in the balloon and its neck is tied. What is the volume of the balloon after dry ice (solid CO2) has vapourized? Assume pressure and temperature to remain constant.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 7

(Avogadro’s hypothesis: The addition of carbondioxide to the balloon increases the number of molecules, which increases the volume).
Volume of the inflated balloon (V1) = 275 mL
Number of mole of air (n1) = 0.120 mol
No. of mol of CO2 introduced = \(\frac{1}{44}\) = 0.023
Total no. of mol of air + CO2 = 0.120 + 0.023 = 0.143 mol
Final volume of the balloon after CO2has vaporised = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{n_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{n_{2}}\) or

\(\frac{273}{0.120}=\frac{V_{2}}{0.143}\)

V2 = \(\frac{273 \times 0.143}{0.120}\) = 325.325 mL

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 43.
A sample of solid KClO3 (potassium chlorate) was heated in a test tube to obtain O2 according to the reaction 2KClO3 —» 2KCl + 3O2. The oxygen gas was collected by downward displacement of water at 295 K. The total pressure of the mixture is 772 mm of Hg and the vapour pressure of water is 26.7 mm of Hg at 300K. What is the partial pressure of the oxygen gas?
Answer:
Total pressure of mixture of O2 and H2O vapour = 772 mm of Hg
Vapour pressure of H2O = 26.7 mm of Hg
Pressure of O2 gas = 754.3 mm of Hg

Question 44.
Find the ratio of effusion rates of hydrogen and krypton gas.
Answer:
Molecular mass of H2 = 2 g mol-1
Molecular mass of Kr = 83g mol-1
\(\frac{r_{\mathrm{H}_{2}}}{r_{\mathrm{Kr}}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{kr}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{H}_{2}}}}\)

= \(\sqrt{\frac{83}{2}}=\sqrt{41.5}\)
\(\sqrt{\frac{83}{2}}=\sqrt{41.5}\) = 6.44

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 45.
If the weather balloon at a.pressure 0.0965 atm. at ground level has a volume of 10.0 m3. What will be the pressure at an altitude of 5300 m where its volume is 20.0 m3?
Answer:
Given:
P1 = 0.0965 atm; V1 = 10.0 m3 or 10 × 103 mL
P2 = ?
V2 = 20.0 m3 or 20 × 103 mL
using P1V1 = P2V2
= 0.0965 × 10 × 103
= P2 × 20 × 103
P2 = \(\frac{0.0965 \times 10}{20}\) = 0.04825 atm

Question 46.
At sea level a balloon has volume of 785 x 10-3 dm3. What will be its volume, if it taken to a place where the pressure is 0052 atm less than the atmospheric pressure of 1 atm.
Answer:
Pressure of the gas (P1) = 1 atm
Volume of the gas (V1) = 785 x 10-3 dm3
Pressure of the gas (P2) = 1 atm – 0.0052 atm , = 0.9948 atm
Volume of the gas (V2) = ?
P1V1= P2V2
1 × 785 × 10-3 = 0.9948 × V2
V2 = \(\frac{1 \times 785 \times 10^{-3}}{0.9948}\) = 789 × 10-3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 47.
When the temperature of a gas increases from 0°C the volume of the gas increases by a factor of 1.25. what is the final temperature?
Answer:
Temperature (T1) = 0°C = 273 K
Volume of the gas = V1 cm3
Temperature (T2) = ?
Volume of the gas (V2) = 1.25 V1

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 8

Question 48.
A helium filled balloon had a volume of 400 mL, when it is cooled to – 120°C. What will be its volume if the balloon is warmed in an oven to 100° C assuming no changes in pressure.
Answer:
Initial volume (V1) = 400 mL
Initial temperature (T1) = 273 – 120 = 153 K
Final volume (V2) = ?
Final temperature (T2) = 100 + 273 = 373 K

\(\frac{V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{V_{2}}{T_{2}}\)

\(\frac{400}{153}=\frac{V_{2}}{373}\) (or)

V2 = \(\frac{400 \times 373}{153}\) = 975.2 mL

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 49.
A steel tank contains carbondioxide at 300 K and a pressure of 10 atm. Calculate the internal gas pressure when the tank gas is heated to 373 K.
Answer:
Given, P1 = 10 atm; P2 = ?; T1 = 300K; T2 = 373

\(\frac{P_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{2}}{T_{2}}\)
P2 = T2 = 373

\(\frac{100}{300}=\frac{P_{2}}{373}\) = 124.3 atm

Question 50.
In an experiment of verification of Charle’s law, the following are the set of readings taken by a student.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 9

What is the average value of the constant of proportionality?
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 10

The average value of the constant is 0.0053.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 51.
Pressure of 1 g of an ideal gas at 27°C is found to be 2 bar. When 2 g of another ideal gas B is -introduced in the same flash at ike same temperature, the pressure becomes 3 bar. Find the relationship between their molar masses.
Answer:
Let the molar masses of gases A and B are MA and MB respectively. Then their number of moles will be,
nA = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}\);

nB = \(\frac{2}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}\)
PA = 2 bar;
PA + PB = 3 bar
i.e., PB = 1 bar
Applying equation,
PV = nRT
PAV = nART;
PBV = nBRT

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 11

Question 52.
Density of a gas is formed to be 5.46g/dm3 at 27°C and at 2 bar pressure. What will be its density at STP?
Answer:
Density (d) = \(\frac{\mathrm{MP}}{\mathrm{RT}}\)
Where M is the molar mass, P and T are the temperature and pressure of the gas respectively.
Given:
d1 = 5.46g/dm3; T1 = 27°C = 300K;
P1 = 2 bar; d2 = ?
T2 = 0°C = 273K; P2 = 1 bar.
Using the above equation

\(\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}} \times \frac{\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{P}_{2}}\) \(\frac{5.46}{d_{2}}=\frac{2}{300} \times \frac{273}{1}\)

d2 = 3 g/dm3.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 53.
Calculate the total pressure in a mixture of 8 g of oxygen and 4 g of hydrogen confined in a vessel of 1 dm3 at 27° C. [R = 0.083 bar dm3 K-1 mol-1.]
Answer:
Molar mass of O2 = 32 g mol-1
∴ 8g of O2 = \(\frac{8}{32}\) mol = 0.25 mol
Molar mass of H2 = 2 g mol-1
∴ 4 g of H2 = \(\frac{4}{42}\) mol = 2 mol
Total number of mol (n) = 0.25 + 2 = 2.25
Given:
Volume (V) = 1 dm3;
Temperature (T) = 27° C = 300 K
R = 0.083 bar dm3 K-1 mol-1
PV = nRT (or)
P = \(\frac{n \mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 12

P = 56.025 bar

Question 54.
20 cm3 of SO2 diffuse through a pores partition in 60s. What volume of O2 will diffuse under similar conditions in 30s?
Answer:
Rate of diffusion of (rSO2) = \(\frac{20 \mathrm{dm}^{3}}{60 \mathrm{~s}}=\frac{1}{3}\) dm3s-1

Rate of diffusion of (rO2) = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{30}\) dm3s-1
Applying Graham’s law

\(\frac{r_{\mathrm{O}_{2}}}{r_{\mathrm{SO}_{2}}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{SO}_{2}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{O}_{2}}}}\)

\(\frac{\mathrm{V} / 30}{1 / 3}=\sqrt{\frac{64}{32}}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{10}\) = √2 = 1.414
1.414 × 10 = 14.14 dm3.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 55.
8 g of methane is placed in a 5 litre container at 27° C. Find Boyle’s constant.
Answer:
PV = Boyle’s constant.
But PV = nRT = \(\frac{w}{M}\) × RT
= \(\frac{8}{10}\) mol × 0.0821 L atm K-1mol-1 × 300K = 12.315 Latm.
Hence Boyle’s constant is 12.315 L atm.

Question 56.
A neon-di-oxygen mixture contains 70.6 g of di-oxygen and 167.5 g of neon. If the pressure of the mixture of gases in the cylinder is 25 bar, what is the partial pressure of di-oxygen and neon in the mixture? (Atomic mass of Ne = 20u)
Answer:
No. of mol of dioxygen (n)O2 = \(\frac{\text { mass of } \mathrm{O}_{2}}{\text { molar mass of } \mathrm{O}_{2}}\)
= \(\frac{70.6 \mathrm{~g}}{32.0 \mathrm{gmol}^{-1}}\) = 2.21 mol

No. of mol of neon (nNe) = \(\frac{\text { mass of } \mathrm{Ne}}{\text { molar mass of } \mathrm{Ne}}=\frac{167.5 \mathrm{~g}}{20 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\) = 8.375 mol.

mole fraction of di-hydrogen = \(\frac{n_{\mathrm{O}_{2}}}{n_{\mathrm{O}_{2}}+n_{\mathrm{Ne}}}=\frac{2.21}{2.21+8.375}\)

mole fraction of neon = 1 – 0.21 = 0.79
partial pressure of O2 = mole fraction of O2 × Total pressure
= 0.21 × 25 bar = 5.25 bar
partial pressure of Ne = mole fraction of Ne × Total pressure = 0.79 × 25 bar = 19.75 bar

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 57.
One mol of SO2 gas occupies a volume of 500 mL. at 27°C and 50 atm pressure. Calculate the compressibility factor of the gas. Comment on the type of deviation shown by the gas from the ideal behaviour.
Answer:
Compressibility factor (Z) = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{n \mathrm{RT}}\)
Given: n = 1; P = 50 atm;
V = 350 × 10-3 L = 0.35 L
R = 0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1
T = 27 + 273 = 300 K
Substituting these values in the above equation
Z = \(\frac{(50 \mathrm{~atm})(0.35 \mathrm{~L})}{1 \mathrm{~mol}\left(0.821 \mathrm{~L} \mathrm{~atm} \mathrm{~K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right)(300 \mathrm{~K})}\) = 0.711

Since, Z < 1, the gas shows negative deviation frofn ideal behaviour.

Question 58.
The Vander Waal’s constant ‘b’ for oxygen is 0.0318 L mol-1 . Calculate the diameter, of the oxygen molecule.
Answer:
b = 4V (or)
V = \(\frac{b}{4}=\frac{0.0318}{4}\) = 7.95 × 10-3 L mol-1
= 7.95 cm3 mol-1
Volume occupied by one mole of O2 molecule = \(\frac{7.95}{6.02 \times 10^{23}}\)
= 1.32 × 10-23cm3
Considering the molecule to be spherical,
V = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3 = 1.32 × 10“23 cm3
r3 = 3.15 × 10-24
Solving r = 1.466 × 10-8 cm
Diameter 2r = 2 × 1.466 × 10-8 cm
= 2.932 × 10-8 cm = 2.932 Å

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 59.
An LPG cylinder containing 15 kg of butane at 27° C and 10 atm pressure is leaking. After one day,.its pressure is decreased to 8 atm. How much quality of the gas is leaked?
Answer:
PV = nRT. Here T and V are constant.
Hence \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1}}{\mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}=\frac{w_{1}}{w_{2}}\)
Where Pj and P2 are the initial and final pressures.
i.e., P1 = 10 atm; P2 = 8 atm.
w1 and w2 weight of the gas present initiates and after leaking,
w1 = 15 kg : w2 = ?
∴ \(\frac{10}{8}=\frac{15}{w_{2}}\) (or)
w2 = 12 kg
Hence, the amount of gas leaked is .15 – 12 = 3 kg.

Question 60.
A balloon filled with air at room temperature and cooled to a much lower temperature can be used as a model for Charle’s law.
Answer:
The volume of air decreases as the temperature is lowered, i.e., its density increases. Thus a cooled air is heavier than atmospheric air. (The reverse fact is in made use of in filling hot air in the balloon which use up for meterological observations).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 61.
When the driver of an automobile applies brake, the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car but a helium balloon is pushed toward back of the car. Upon forward acceleration the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car. Why?
Answer:
When the car is accelerated forward, the air inside moves back relative to the car. This creates a slightly high pressure in the rear of the vehicle and a low pressure up front. Hence . the passengers are pushed towards the front of the car. This relative pressure difference in front and near of the car is responsible for pushing the passengers towards the front of the car. Since helium is lighter than air, it moves away from the region of high pressures.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The scope of the plot between PV and P at constant temperature is:
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
(a) zero
Hint:
It is a straight line. Hence the slope is zero.

Question 2.
Which of the following diagram directly describes the behaviour of a fixed mass of an ideal gas?
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 13

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 14

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 15

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 16

Answer:
(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 16
Hint:
At constant pressure, \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = constant or V = KT. plot of V Vs T will be linear passing through origin.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 3.
The density of neon will be highest at:
(a) STP
(b) 0°C, 2 atm
(c) 273°C, 1 atm
(d) 273°C, 2 atm
Answer:
(b) 0°C, 2 atm
Hint:
d = \(\frac{\text { PM }}{\text { RT }}\) or
d ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{T}}\)

Question 4.
Gas equation PV = nRT is obeyed by:
(a) only isothermal process
(b) only adiabatic process
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
Molar volume of CO2 is maximum at:
(a) NTP
(b) 0°C and 2.0 atm
(c) 127°C and 1 atm
(d) 273°C and 2 atm
Answer:
(c) 127°C and 1 atm
Hint:
PV = RT; V = \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 6.
The density of gas A is twice that of B. Molecular mass of A is half the molecular mass of B. The ratio of the partial pressures of A and B is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{4}{1}\)
(d) \(\frac{2}{1}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{4}{1}\)
Hint:
TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 17

Question 7.
According to Graham’s law at a given temperature, the ratio of rates of diffusion, rA / rB of gases A and B is given by: where P and M are the pressure and molecular mass of gases A and B.
(a) \(\left(\frac{P_{A}}{P_{B}}\right)\left(\frac{M_{A}}{M_{B}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

(b) \(\left(\frac{\mathbf{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}\right)\left(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{B}}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

(c) \(\left(\frac{P_{A}}{P_{B}}\right)\left(\frac{M_{B}}{M_{A}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

(d) \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}\right)\left(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

Answer:
(c) \(\left(\frac{P_{A}}{P_{B}}\right)\left(\frac{M_{B}}{M_{A}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
Hint:
If two gases are taken at different pressures, Graham’s law in given by \(\frac{r_{\mathrm{A}}}{r_{\mathrm{B}}}=\frac{P_{\mathrm{A}}}{P_{\mathrm{B}}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 8.
Which of the following pairs of gases will diffuse at the same time through a poms plug?
(a) CO, NO2
(b) KO, C2H6
(c) NO2, CO2
(d) NH3, PH3
Answer:
(b) KO, C2H6
Hint:
NO and C2H6 has the same molecular mass.

Question 9.
Dominance of strong repulsive forces among molecules of gas (Z – compressibility factor)
(a) depends on Z and indicated by Z = 1
(b) depends on Z and indicated by Z > 1
(c) depends on Z and indicated by Z < 1 (d) is independent on Z Answer: (b) depends on Z and indicated by Z > 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 10.
The ratio of Vander waal’s constants \(\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)\) has the dimension:
(a) atm L-1
(b) L atm mol-1
(c) atm mol L-1
(d) atm L mol-2
Answer:
(b) L atm mol-1
Hint:
\(\frac{a}{b}\)=(atm L2 mol-2) / (L mol-1) = L atm mol-1

Question 11.
The term that corrects for the attractive forces present in a real gas in the Vanderwaal’s equation is:
(a) nb
(b) \(\frac{a x^{2}}{v^{2}}\)
(c) –\(\frac{a x^{2}}{v^{2}}\)
(d) -ub
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{a x^{2}}{v^{2}}\)

Question 12.
The Vander waal’s constant ‘a’ for different gases are given below:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 18

The gas that can be most easily liquefied is:
(a) O2
(b) N2
(c) CH4
(d) NH3
Answer:
(a) O2
Hint:
Greater the value of ‘a’ more easily the gas can be liquefied.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 13.
If helium is allo’wed to expand in vacuum, it liberates heat because:
(a) it is an inert gas
(b) it is an ideal gas
(c) the critical temperature of helium is very low
(d) it is one of the lightest gas
Answer:
(c) the critical temperature of helium is very low
Hint:
Lower the critical temperature, lower is the inversion temperature.

Question 14.
A gas such as carbon-di-oxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at:
(a) low temperature and high pressures
(b) high temperature and high pressures
(c) low temperature and low pressures
(d) high temperature and low pressures
Answer:
(d) high temperature and low pressures
Hint:
Real gases show ideal behaviour at high temperature and low pressures.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 15.
Maximum deviations from ideal gas is ’ expected from:
(a) H2 (g)
(b) K2 (g)
(c) CH4 (g)
(d) NH3 (g)
Answer:
(d) NH3 (g)
Hint:
Of the gases given, NH3 is most easily liquefiable, i.e., has strongest intermolecular forces. Hence, it shows maximum deviation from ideal behaviour.

Question 16.
If ‘Z’ is a compressibility factor, Vander Waal’s equation at low pressures can be written as:
(a) Z = 1 + \(\frac{\mathrm{Pb}}{\mathrm{RT}}\)

(b) Z = 1 + \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{Pb}}\)

(c) Z = 1 – \(\frac{a}{V R T}\)

(d) Z = 1 – \(\frac{\mathrm{Pb}}{\mathrm{RT}}\)
Answer:
(c) 1 – \(\frac{a}{V R T}\)
Hint:
For 1 mol of a real gas, the Vander Waals equation is
(P + \(\frac{a}{\mathrm{~V}^{2}}\)) (V – b) = RT
At low pressures, V is large and therefore ‘b’ can be neglected in comparison with V.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 19

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 17.
The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03 m3 vessel at 129° C is:
(atomic masses: C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1)
(a) 215216 Pa
(b) 13409 Pa
(c) 41648 Pa
(d) 31684 Pa
Answer:
(c) 41648 Pa
Hint:
CH4 = 12.01 + 4 × 1.01 = 16.05 g mol-1
∴ 6 g of CH4 = \(\frac{6}{16.05}\) mol
T = 129°C = 273 + 129 = 402 K
PV = nRT or
P = \(\frac{n \mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
P = \(\frac{6}{16.05} \times \frac{8.314 \times 402}{0.03}\)
= 41648 Pa

Question 18.
Equal volumes of He, O2 and SO2 are taken in a closed container. The ratio of the partial pressures of gases He, O2 and SO2 would be:
(a) 1 : 2 : 8
(b) 8 : 16 : 1
(c) 1 : 4 : 16
(d) 16 : 2 : 1
Answer:
(d) 16 : 2 : 1
Hint:
For a mixture of non-reacting gases partial pressure is proportional to the number of moles. If ‘m’ is the mass of each gas taken, then
No. of mol of He = \(\frac{m}{4}\)
No. of mol of O2 = \(\frac{m}{32}\)
No. of mol of SO2 = \(\frac{m}{64}\)
∴ Ratio of nHe : nO2 : nSO2 = \(\frac{1}{4}: \frac{1}{32}: \frac{1}{64}\) = 16 : 2 : 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 19.
The isotherm obtained for CO is as follows:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 20

The compressibility factor for the gas at point ‘A’ will be
(a) (1 – \(\frac{b}{\mathrm{~V}}\))

(b) (1 + \(\frac{b}{\mathrm{~V}}\))

(c) (1 + \(\frac{b}{\mathrm{RT}}\))

(d) 1 + \(\frac{a}{\mathrm{RTV}}\)
Answer:
(b) (1 + \(\frac{b}{\mathrm{~V}}\))
Hint:
For a real gas, the Vander Waals, equation is

(P + \(\frac{a}{\mathrm{~V}^{2}}\))(V – b) = RT

At point A, pressure is high, so that \(\frac{a}{\mathrm{~V}^{2}}\) can be neglected, Hence,
P (V – b) = RT (or) PV – Pb = RT
(or) PV = RT + Pb
(or) \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{RT}}=1+\frac{\mathrm{Pb}}{\mathrm{RT}}\)
i.e., Z = 1 + \(\frac{\mathrm{Pb}}{\mathrm{RT}}\)
substituting P = \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
Z = 1 + \(\frac{b}{\mathrm{~V}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 20.
What is the pressure of 2 mole of NH3 at 27° C when its volume is 5 litres in the Vander Waal’s equation? (a = 4.17; b = 0.03711)
(a) 10.33 atm
(b) 9.33 atm
(c) 9.74 atm
(d) 9.2 atm
Answer:
(b) 9.33 atm
Hint:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 21

Question 21.
The temperature at which the volume of the gas becomes zero is:
(a) 0°C
(b) 0 K
(c) 0° F
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) 0 K

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 22.
From the following plots, identify the one which is not related to the other plots.
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 22

(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 23

(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 24

(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 25

Answer:
(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 25
Hint:
These plots shows the verification of Boyle’s law. The correct answer for (d) is T3 > T2 > T1.

Question 23.
Four equations are given below. Identify the equation which is different from the rest.
(a) \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{2} V_{2}}{T_{2}}\)

(b) \(\frac{V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{V_{2}}{T_{2}}\) at constant pressure

(c) Vt = V0 \(\left(\frac{273+t}{273}\right)\)

(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = Constant at constant pressure

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{2} V_{2}}{T_{2}}\)
Hint:
While all others are different’ forms of Charles law.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 24.
Assertion:
At zero degree Kelvin, the volume occupied by a gas is negligible.
Reason :
All molecular motions ceases at 0K.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
Correct Statement: Vibrational motion exists ever at OK.

Question 25.
Assertion:
Compressibility factor of non ideal gases is always less than 1.
Reason :
Non ideal gases exert less pressure than expected for ideal gas.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Hint:
Compressibility factor can be less than one or more than one depending on the nature of non-ideal gas.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 26.
Assertion:
The value of Vander Waal’s constant ‘a’ for ammonia is larger than that of nitrogen gas.
Reason:
Molecular weight of ammonia is lesser than that of nitrogen gas.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Hint:
The inter molecular forces of attraction are greater in NH3 than those of N2.

Question 27.
Choose the incorrect statement from among the following:
(a) The hot air is lighter than that of the atmospheric air.
(b) At high altitudes as the atmospheric pressure is low, the density of air is less.
(c) Avogadro’s law helps in the separation of isotopes of Uranium.
(d) Under identical conditions, ammonia will diffuse faster than càrbon dioxide.
Answer:
(c) Avogadro’s law helps in the separation of isotopes of Uranium.
Hint:
Graham’s law of diffusion helps in the separation of isotopes of Uranium.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 28.
Choose the incorrect statement from among the following:
(a) The compressibility factor for carbondioxide is less than one. This means that, carbon dioxide is more compressible than expected from ideal behaviour.
(b) Greater the value of the Vanderwaal’s constant ‘a’, greater is the magnitude of inter molecular forces of attraction,
(c) A gas like carbon dioxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at high temperature and low pressures. (d) Temperature below which the gas does not obey ideal gas law is called critical temperature.
Answer:
(d) Temperature below which the gas does not obey ideal gas law is called critical temperature.
Hint:
The temperature below which the gas does not obey ideal gas law is called Boyle’s temperature.

Question 29.
Choose the correct statement from the following:
(a) All gases liquefy before absolute zero is reached.
(b) At constant temperature, for a fixed mass of gas the density is inversely proportional to its pressure.
(c) In the equation \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = Constant (k), the value of T is independent upon the amount of gas taken.
(d) The plots of pressure verses volume at constant temperature is a straight line parallel to the volume axis.
Answer:
(a) All gases liquefy before absolute zero is reached.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 30.
Choose the correct statement from the following:
(a) Gases showing positive deviation from ideal behaviour will have the value of the compressibility factor (Z) greater than one.
(b) Lower the value of ‘a’, greater is the ease of liquefaction.
(c) Molar volume of carbon dioxide is maximum at NTP.
(d) Aqueous tension of water depends on both the temperature and amount of water.
Answer:
(a) Gases showing positive deviation from ideal behaviour will have the value of the compressibility factor (Z) greater than one.

Question 31.
Match the entities in column I with appropriate entities in column II.

Column I (Relationship)Column II (Law)
(i) v = kT (A) Charle’s law at constant pressure
(ii) PV = Constant (B) Charles’s law
(iii) r ∝ \(\sqrt{1 / d}\) (C) Boyle’s law
(iv) Pt ∝ T (D) Graham’s law

(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)
(b) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State

Question 32.
Match the entities in column I with appropriate entities in column II.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 26

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Gaseous State 27

(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)
(b) (i) – (C), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (D)
(c) (i) – (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (A)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 1.
Explain why atomic and ionic radii increases from lithium to caesium?
Answer:
On moving down the group, there is an increase in the number of shells, as well as increase in nuclear charge. The force of attraction between the nucleus and the added electron decreases. Hence, ionic and atomic radii increases.

Question 2.
Why alkali metals do not occur free in native?
Answer:
Since ionisation energy values of alkali metals are low, they are very reactive. They readily combine with oxygen, moisture and CO2 of the atmosphere and form compounds. Hence they do not occur free in nature.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 3.
Explain the following:
(i) Alkali metals have the lowest ionisation enthalpy compared to other elements in the respective period.
(ii) The second ionisation enthalpy values of alkali metals are high.
Answer:
(i) The atoms of alkali metals have largest size in their respective periods and therefore valence electrons are loosely bond to the nucleus and hence Can be easily
(ii) The removal of an electron from the alkali metals gives’ monovalent cations having stable electronic configurations similar to the noble gas. Therefore, it becomes very difficult to remove the second electron from the stable configurations already attained. Hence, the second ionisation enthalpy values of alkali metals are high.

Question 4.
What do you understand by the term “hydration enthalpy”? Explain how the hydration enthalpy of alkali metal cations vary in the group.
Answer:
The metal ion, in an aqueous solution gets surrounded by water dipoles in such a way that the cation or an anion is attracted by the opposite end of water dipoles. This process is known as hydration.

M+ (aq) + aq → [M (aq)]+ + energy

This process releases energy. This energy is known as hydration energy or hydration enthalpy.

Smaller the cation, greater is the degree of hydration. Thus, the degree of hydration of M+ ions decreases from Li+ ion to Cs+ ions.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 5.
Lithium salts are more soluble than the other metals of group 1. Explain why?
Answer:
The high solubility of Li salts is due to strong solvation of small size of Li+ ion.

Question 6.
Alkali metals give a characteristics colour for a bunsen flame. Explain why?
Answer:
The heat in the flame excites the valence electron to a higher energy level. When it drops back to its actual energy level, the excess energy is emitted as light, whose wavelength is in the visible region. This appears as a characteristic colour to the particular metal.

Question 7.
Bring out the similarities between lithium and magnesium.
Answer:
(i) Both lithium and magnesium are harder than other elements in the respective groups. .
(ii) Lithium and magnesium react slowly with water. Their oxides and hydroxides are much less soluble and their hydroxides decompose on heating.
(iii) Both form a nitride, Li3N and Mg3N2, by direct combination with nitrogen. .
(iv) They do not give any superoxides and form only oxides, Li2O and MgO.
(v) The carbonates of lithium and magnesium decompose upon heating to form their respective oxides and CO2.
(vi) Lithium and magnesium do not form bicarbonates.
(vii) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol and are deliquescent. They crystalline form aqueous solution as hydrates, LiCl . 2H2O and MgCl2 . 8 H2O

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 8.
What is the cause for the distinctive behaviour of lithium? Compare the properties of lithium with other elements of the group.
Answer:
The distinctive behaviour of Li+ ion is due to its exceptionally small size, high polarising power, high hydration energy and non availability of d-orbitals.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 9.
Explain why alkali metals are very reactive.
Answer:
The reactivity of alkali metals is due to their low ionisation enthalpy. The ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group. Hence the reactivity of alkali metal increases from Li to Cs.

The high reactivity of alkali metals is proved by their reaction with oxygen and halogen which are most electronegative.

Question 10.
Explain the action of alkali metals with oxygen.
Answer:
All the alkali metals on exposure to air or oxygen bum vigorously, forming oxides on their surface. Lithium forms only monoxide, sodium forms the monoxide and peroxide and the other elements form monoxide, peroxide and superoxides. These oxides are basic in nature.

4 Li + O2 → Li2O (simple oxide)
2 Na + O2 → Na2O2 (peroxide)
M + O2 → MO2
(M = K, Rb,Cs; MO2 – superoxide)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 11.
Explain why?
(i) The ionic character of hydrides of alkali metals increase from Li to Cs.
(ii) The stability of hydrides decrease down the group.
(iii) Hydrides behave as strong reducing agents.
Answer:
(i) The electropositive character increases from Li to Cs. Hence their ionic character increases down the group.
(ii) The stability of the hydrides decreases down the group, as the size of the metal ion increases. The M—H bond distance increases with increase in size of metal
ion and it can be readily broken, i.e., the metal hydride is least stable.
(iii) They are powerful reducing agents as M—H bond is weaker and it can be readily broken.

Question 12.
Lithium iodide is covalent. Explain why?
Answer:
Lithium iodide shows covalent character, as Li+ ion, being smaller exerts high polarising power on the iodide anion. Alternatively, the iodide ion being the largest can be polarised to a greater extent by Li+ ion. Hence, lithium iodide is covalent.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 13.
Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia and given deep blue solution. Explain the magnetic behaviour of these solution?
Answer:
The alkali metal atom readily loses its valence electron in ammonia solution. Both the cation and the electron are ammoniated to give ammoniated cation and ammoniated electron.

M + (x + y)NH3 → [M(NH3)x]+ + [e(NH3)y]

The blue colour of the solution is due to the ammoniated electron which absorbs energy in the visible region of light and thus imparts blue colour to the solution. The solutions are paramagnetic and on standing slowly liberate hydrogen resulting in the formation of an amide.
M+ + e + NH3 → MNH2 + V2H2

In concentrated solution, the blue colour changes to bronze colour and become diamagnetic.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 14.
Complete and balance the following equations.
(i) Li + H2O →
(ii) Na + C2H5OH →
(iii) CH ≡ CH + Na →
Answer:
(i) 2Li + 2H2O → 2LiOH + H2 (Lithium hydroxide)
(ii) 2Na + 2C2H5OH → C2H5ONa + H2 (sodium ethoxide)
(iii) CH ≡ CH TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals 2 HC ≡ CNa TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals 2 NaC ≡ C – Na (sodium acetylide)

Question 15.
Mention the uses of lithium.
Answer:
(i) Lithium metal is used to make alloys.
(ii) Lithium is also used to make electro chemical cells.
(iii) Lithium carbonate is used in medicines.

Question 16.
Mention the uses of sodium.
Answer:
(i) Sodium is used to make Na/Pb alloy needed to make Pb(Et)4 and Pb(Me)4.
(ii) Liquid sodium metal is used as a coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactors.

Question 17.
What are normal oxides, peroxides and superoxides? Give examples.
Answer:
Normal oxides are those which contain O-2 ion.
eg: Na2O, BaO, Al2O3 etc.,
Peroxides contain —O—O— linkage. (O2 ions). The produce hydrogen peroxide on treatment with dilute acid.
Na2O2 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O2
Superoxides contain greater proportion of oxygen than normal oxides and peroxides. They contain 02~ ion.
eg: KO2, RbO2 or CsO2.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 18.
Give equation for the reaction of the following with water.
(i) Na2O,
(ii) K2O2,
(iii) KO2.
Answer:
(i) Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH + H2O
(ii) K202 + 2H2O → 2KOH + H2O2
(iii) 2K02 + 2H2O → 2KOH + H2O2 + O2

Question 19.
Give equation for the preparation of sodium chloride from
(i) NaOH,
(ii) Na2O,
(iii) Na2CO3.
Answer:
(i) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
(ii) Na2O + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O
(iii) Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2

Question 20.
Which is more readily formed CSCl or NaCl, by the reaction of metal with chlorine? Explain.
Answer:
Caesium chloride is more readily, formed than sodium chloride, because caesium is more electropositive than sodium. As the electropositive character of the alkali metal increases, the case of formation of the halide increases.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 21.
Account for the low solubility of lithium luoride in water.
Answer:
The low solubility of LiF in water is due to its high lattice enthalpy (small size of Li+ and F ) than its solvation (hydration) energy.

Question 22.
Lithium halides are covalent. Explain.
Answer:
Due to the smaller size of lithium ion, it can polarise the larger halide ion to a greater extent. Hence Lithium halides are covalent.

Question 23.
Account for the thermal stability of carbonates and bicarbonates of alkali metals.
Answer:
As the electropositive character increases down the group, the stability of the carbonates and bicarbonates increases. This is due to the decrease in polarising power of alkali metal cations. The carbonates (M2CO3) of alkali metals are remarkably stable up to 1273 K, above which they first melt and then eventually decompose to form oxides.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 24.
Explain why lithium carbonate is the least stable among alkali metal carbonates.
Answer:
Li2CO3 is considerably less stable and decomposes readily.
Li2CO3 Li2O + CO2 This is presumably due to large size difference between Li+ and CO23 which makes the crystal lattice unstable.

Question 25.
Account for the solubility of alkali metal carbonates and bicarbonates in water.
Answer:
All the carbonates and bicarbonates are soluble in water and their solubilities increase rapidly on descending the group. This is due to the reason that lattice energies decrease more rapidly than their hydration energies on moving down the group.

Question 26.
Explain the solvay process of manufacturing sodium carbonate.
Answer:
In this process, ammonia is converted into – ammonium carbonate which then converted to ammonium bicarbonate by passing excess carbon dioxide in a sodium chloride solution saturated with ammonia. The ammonium bicarbonate thus formed reacts with the, sodium chloride to give sodium bicarbonate and ammonium chloride. As sodium bicarbonate has poor solubility, it gets precipitated. The sodium bicarbonate is isolated and is heated to give sodium carbonate. The equations involved in this process are,

2NH3 + H2O + CO2 → (NH4)2CO3
(NH4)2CO3 + H2O + CO2 → 2NH4HCO3
NH4HCO3 + NaCl → NH4Cl + NaHCO3
2 NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + CO4 + H4O

The ammonia used in this process can be recovered by treating the resultant ammonium chloride solution with calcium hydroxide. Calcium chloride is formed as a by-product.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 27.
Mention the uses of sodium carbonate.
Answer:
(i) Sodium carbonate known as washing soda is used heavily for laundering.
(ii) It is an important laboratory reagent used in the qualitative analysis and in volumetric analysis.
(iii) It is also used in water treatment to convert the hard water to soft water.
(iv) It is used in the manufacturing of glass, paper, paint etc…

Question 28.
How is pure sodium chloride prepared from crude salt?
Answer:
Pure sodium chloride can be obtained from crude salt as follows. The insoluble impurities are removed by filtration from the crude salt solution with minimum amount of water. The filtrate contains sodium chloride solution. From this, sodium chloride can be crystallised by passing HCl gas into this solution. Calcium and magnesium chloride, being more soluble than sodium chloride, remain in solution.

Question 29.
Mention the uses of sodium chloride.
Answer:
(i) It is used as a common salt or table salt for domestic purpose.
(ii) It is used for the preparation of many inorganic compounds such as NaOH and Na2CO3.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 30.
Explain the Castner-Kellner process of manufacturing sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide is prepared commercially by the electrolysis of brine solution in Castner-Kellner cell using a mercury cathode and a carbon anode. Sodium metal is discharged at the cathode and combines with mercury to form sodium amalgam. Chlorine gas is evolved at the anode. The sodium amalgam thus obtained is treated with water to give sodium hydroxide.
At cathode: Na+ + e → Na(amalgam)
At anode: Cl → 1/2 Cl2↑ + e
2Na(amalgam) + 2H2O → 2NaOH + 2Hg + H2

Question 31.
Mention the uses of sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
(i) Sodium hydroxide is used as a laboratory reagent.
(ii) It is also used in the purification of bauxite and petroleum refining.
(iii) It is used in the textile industries for mercerising cotton fabrics.
(iv) It is used in the manufacture of soap, paper, artificial silk and a number of chemicals.

Question 32.
How is sodium bicarbonate prepared?
Answer:
This compound is prepared by saturating a solution of sodium carbonate with carbon dioxide. The white crystalline powder of sodium bicarbonate, being less soluble, precipitated out.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 33.
Mention the uses of sodium bicarbonate.
Answer:
(i) Primarily used as an ingredient in baking.
(ii) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a mild antiseptic for skin infections.
(iii) It is also used in fire extinguishers.

Question 34.
Discuss the biological importance of sodium and potassium.
Answer:
(i) Sodium and potassium ions maintain the ion balance and nerve impulse conduction.
(ii) Transport of sugar and amino acids into cells.
(iii) Potassium ions activate many enzymes, participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP.
(iv) With sodium, potassium ion is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.
(v) Sodium and potassium pump play an important role in transmitting nerve signals.

Question 35.
Why group 2 elements are called alkaline earth metals?
Answer:
These elements with the exception of beryllium are commonly known as the alkaline earth metals because their oxides and hydroxides are alkaline in nature and these metal oxides are found in the earth’s crust.

Question 36.
Write the electronic configuration of group 2 elements.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals 3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 37.
Account for
(i) The atomic and ionic radii of group 2 elements are smaller than alkali metals.
(ii) The atomic and ionic radii increases down the group.
Answer:
(i) The atomic and ionic radii of alkaline earth metals are smaller than the corresponding members of the alkali metals. This is due to the fact the Group 2 elements having a higher nuclear charge that allows electrons to be attracted more strongly towards the nucleus.
(ii) On moving down the group, the radii increases due to gradual increase in the number of the shells and the screening effect.

Question 38.
Explain why alkaline earth metals exhibit an oxidation state of +2.
Answer:
The group 2 elements have two electrons in their valence shell and by losing these electrons, they acquire the stable noble gas configuration. So these elements exhibit +2 oxidation state in their compounds.

Question 39.
Explain:
(i) ionisation enthalpy of alkaline earth metals are low compared to ‘p’ block elements.
(ii) Ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group.
(iii) Ionisation enthalpy of group 2 elements are higher than that of group 1 elements.
Answer:
(i) Due to a fairly large size of the atoms, alkaline earth metals have low ionisation enthalpies when compared to ‘p’ block elements.
(ii) Down the group the ionisation enthalpy decreases as atomic size increases. This is due to the addition of new shells as well as increase in the magnitude of the screening effect of inner shell electrons.
(iii) Members of group 2 have higher ionization enthalpy values than group 1 because of their smaller size, with electrons being more attracted towards the nucleus of | the atoms. Correspondingly they are less electropositive than alkali metals.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 40.
Although IE1 values of alkaline earth metals ire higher than that of alkali metals the IE2 values of alkaline earth metals are much smaller than alkali metals. Explain.
Answer:
This is because in alkali metals the second electron is to be removed from a cation, which has already acquired a noble gas configuration. In the case of alkaline earth metals, the second electron is to be removed from a monovalent cation, which still has one electron in the outermost shell. Thus, the second electron can be removed more easily in the case of group 2 elements than in group 1 elements.

Question 41.
Hydration enthalpies of ine earth metal ions are larger than these of alkali metal ions. Explain.
Answer:
Smaller the size of the ions, greater is the extent of hydration. Hence alkaline earth metal ions are smaller in size compared to alkali metals. Hence their hydration enthalpies are much larger than alkali metals.

Question 42.
Account for the decrease in hydration enthalpy of group 2 elements down the group.
Answer:
The hydration enthalpies of alkaline earth metal ions also decrease with increase in ionic size down the group.
Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
eg: MgCl2 and CaCl2 exist as MgCl2.6H2O and CaCl2 . 6H2O while NaCl and KCl do not form such hydrates.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 43.
Account for the characteristic colour produced by the alkaline earth metal salt:: in bunsen flame.
Answer:
The heat in the flame excites the valence electron to a higher energy level, when it drops back to its actual energy level, the excess energy is emitted as light, whose wavelength is in the visible region as shown in the table.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals 4

Question 44.
Discuss the anomalous behaviour of beryllium.
Answer:
The anomalous properties of beryllium is mainly due to its small size, high electronegativity, high ionisation energy
and high polarising power compared to the other elements in the group. The anomalous properties of beryllium compared to other elements of the group are mentioned in table.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals 5

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 45.
What is the cause for diagonal relationship between beryllium and aluminium?
Answer:
Beryllium (the first member of group (2) shows a diagonal, relatiofiship with aluminium. In this case, the size of these ions (rBe2+ = 0.45 Å and rAl3+= 0.54 Å) is not as close. However, their charge per unit area is closer (Be2+ = 2.36 and Al3+ = 2.50). They also have sameelectronegativity values (Be = 1.5; Al = 1.5).

Question 46.
Give methods of preparation of beryllium chloride.
Answer:
Thermal decomposition of (NH4)2BeF4 is the best route for the preparation of BeF2. BeCl2 is conveniently made from the oxide.
BeO + C + Cl2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals 6 BeCl2 + CO

Question 47.
How is beryllium hydride prepared? Give equation.
Answer:
BeH2 can be prepared by the reaction of BeCl2 with LiAlH4 (Lithium aluminium hydride).
2BeCl2 + LiAlH4 » 2BeH2 + LiCl + AlCl3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 48.
How does the basic nature of the oxides of group 2 elements vary down the group?
Answer:
The basic nature of oxides increases down the group.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals 7

Question 49.
How does (i) solubility,
(ii) thermal stability,
(iii) basic character hydroxides of group 2 elements vary down the group.
Answer:
All the properties increases down the group.
Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca (OH)2 < Sr (OH)2 < Ba (OH)2

Question 50.
Beryllium halide are covalent. Explain why?
Answer:
Due to the smaller size of Be+2 ion, it polarises the halide ion to a greater extent. Hence Beryllium halides are covalent.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 51.
Explain with equations beryllium hydroxide is amphoteric.
Answer:
Beryllium hydroxide is amphoteric in nature as it reacts with both acid and alkali.
Be(OH)2 + 2 NaOH → Na2BeO2 +2H2O
Be(OH)2 + 2HCl → BeCl2 + 2H2O

Question 52.
Give a brief account of the structure of beryllium chloride.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals 8

(i) Beryllium chloride has a chain structure in the solid state as shown in structure-(a).
(ii) In the vapour phase BeCl2 tends to form a chloro-bridged dimer in structure-(c).
(iii) Which dissociates into the linear monomer at high temperatures of the order of 1200 K. structure-(b).

Question 53.
How does (i) the solubility and
(ii) the thermal stability of the carbonates of group 2 elements vary down the group.
Answer:
(i) The solubility of carbonates in water decreases down the group.
(ii) The thermal stability increases down the group with increasing cationic size.

Question 54.
Explain why BeSO4 and MgSO4 are readily soluble in water.
Answer:
The greater hydration enthalpies of Be2+ and Mg2+ ions overcome the lattice enthalpy factor and therefore their sulphates are soluble in water.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 55.
Arrange the following as indicated.
(i) BeSO4, MgSO4 CaSO4, SrSO4 and BaSO4 in the increasing order of solubility,
(ii) Be(NO3)2, Mg(NO3)2, Ca(NO3)2, Sr (NO3)2, Ba(NO3)2 < Ba (NO3)2 in decreasing order of forming hydrated salts.
Answer:
(i) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4.
(ii) Be(NO3)2 < Mg(NO3)2 < Ca (NO3)2 < Sr(NO3)2 < Ba (NO3)2 [due to increase in size of M2+ ions].

Question 56.
How is quick lime produced on a commercial scale?
Answer:
It is produced on a commercial scale by heating limestone in a lime kiln in the temperature range 1070-1270K.
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
The reactionbeing reversible, carbon dioxide is removed as soon as it is produced to enable the reaction to proceed to completion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 57.
Give equations for the reaction of CaO with
(i) H2O, (ii) CO2, (iii) SiO2, (iv) P4O10.
Answer:
(i) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 (Calcium hydroxide)
(ii) CaO + CO2 → CaCO3 (Calcium carbonate)
(iii) CaO+ SiO2 → CaSiO3 (Calcium silicate)
(iv) 6 CaO + P4O10 → 2 Ca3(PO4)2 (Calcium phosphate)

Question 58.
What is slaked lime? How is it produced?
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2) is called slaked lime. It is formed by the addition of limited amount of water as quick lime.
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2

Question 59.
Mention the uses of calcium oxide (CaO).
Answer:
(i) To manufacture cement, mortar and glass.
(ii) In die manufacture of sodium carbonate and slaked lime.
(iii) In the purification of sugar.
(iv) As a drying agent.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 60.
(i) What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water? Give equation.
(ii)What happens when excess of carbondioxide is passed through lime water? Give equation.
Answer:
(i) When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the formation of calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3↓ + H2O
(ii) On passing excess of carbon dioxide, the precipitate dissolves to form calcium hydrogen carbonate.
CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O → Ca(HCO3)2

Question 61.
Mention the uses of calcium hydroxide.
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide is used:
(i) In the preparation of mortar, a building material.
(ii) In white washing due to its disinfectant nature.
(iii) In glass making, in tanning industry, in the preparation of bleaching powder and for the purification of sugar.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 62.
Explain the term retrograde solubility.
Answer:
Gypsum becomes less soluble in water as the temperature increases. This is known as retrograde solubility, which is a distinguishing characteristic of gypsum.

Question 63.
Explain the term ‘desert rose’.
Answer:
Gypsum crystals are sometimes found to occur in a form that resembles the petals of a flower. This type of formation is referred to as ‘desert rose’, as they mostly occur in arid areas or desert terrains.

Question 64.
Explain why gypsum is used in making dry walls or wall board.
Answer:
Gypsum is known to have low thermal conductivity, which is the reason why it is used in making drywalls dr wallboards. Gypsum is also known as a natural insulator.

Question 65.
How is plaster of paris’ produced from gypsum? Mention its use.
Answer:
Gypsum is heated to about 300 degree Fahrenheit to produce plaster of Paris, which is also known as gypsum plaster. It is mainly used as a sculpting material.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 66.
Explain the use of gypsum in agriculture.
Answer:
It helps loosen up compact or clay soil and provides calcium and sulphur, which are essential for the healthy growth of a plant. It can also be used for removing sodium from soils having excess salinity.

Question 67.
What is ‘dead burnt plaster’? What is use?
Answer:
Anhydrous calcium sulphate formed by heating plaster of Paris above 393 K is known a dead burnt plaster. It has a remarkable property of setting with water. On mixing adequate quantity of water, it forms a plastic mass that gets into a hard solid in 5 to 15 minutes.

Question 68.
Briefly outline the biological importance of calcium and magnesium.
Answer:
(i) Mg is a cofactor of all enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer and energy release.
(ii) Magnesium is essential for DNA synthesis and is responsible for the stability and proper functioning of DNA.
(iii) Deficiency of magnesium results into, convulsion and neuro muscular irritation.
(iv) Calcium is present in blood and its concentration is maintained by hormones calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.
(v) Deficiency of calcium is blood causes it take to much time to clot and in muscle contraction.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 69.
Explain what to meant by efflorescence.
Answer:
It is a phenomenon by which water of hydration of a hydrated salt is lost on exposure to atmosphere, eg: Washing soda (Na2CO3 10H2O), and Glauber salt (Na2SO4 10H2O) when exposed to atmosphere lost their water of hydration and becomes powdery.

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Among alkali metals, the metals having smallest metallic radius and largest metallic radius are:
(a) Li, Na
(b) Cs, Li
(c) Li, Cs
(d) Na, K
Answer:
(c) Li, Cs
Hint:
On moving down the group, the metallic radius increases.

Question 2.
The melting points of alkali metals:
(a) increase down the group
(b) decrease down the group
(c) does not show a regular trend
(d) increases upto K and then decreases
Answer:
(b) decrease down the group
Hint:
The low melting point is attributed to low binding energies of their .atoms in the crystal lattice an account of single electron in the valency shell and large atomic sizes. The binding energy decrease from Li to Cs consequently the melting points.
[ Note: The same reason is applicable to boiling points also.]

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) Alkali metals are highly electropositive because of their low ionisation energies.
(b) Alkali metal cations have stable electronic configuration.
(c) The hydration enthalpies of alkali metals decreases from Li+ to Cs+.
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 4.
Sodium react with water more vigorously than lithium because:
(a) it has higher atomic mass
(b) it is more electropositive
(c) it is more electronegative
(d) it is a metal
Answer:
(b) it is more electropositive
Hint:
The reactivity of alkali metals towards water increases from Li to Cs. This is due to increase in electropositive character in the same order.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 5.
Select the correct statement:
(a) Lithium carbonate is soluble in water.
(b) Potassium carbonate is soluble in water.
(c) Barium carbonate soluble in water.
(d) Bicarbonate of lithium is soluble in water.
Answer:
(b) Potassium carbonate is soluble in water.
Hint:
(a) The lattice energy of Li2CO3 is high compared to the solvation energy. Hence it is insoluble in water.
(b) Correct statement.
(c) BaCO3 is insoluble in water due to the high lattice energy.
(d) Lithium, due to its less electropositive nature does not form a bicarbonate.

Question 6.
Which of the following has the lowest thermal stability?
(a) Li2CO3
(b) Na2CO3
(c) K2CCO3
(d) Rb2CO3
Answer:
(a) Li2CO3
Hint:
The stability of carbonates increase down the group.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 7.
Sodium bums in dry air to give:
(a) Na2O
(b) Na2O2
(c) NaO2
(d) Na3N
Answer:
(b) Na2O2
Hint:
2Na + O2 → Na2O2

Question 8.
The by-product of Solvay ammonia-process is:
(a) CO2
(b) NH3
(c) CaCl2
(d) CaCO3
Answer:
(c) CaCl2
Hint:
The ammonia used in the process can be recovered by treating the resultant ammonium chloride with calcium hydroxide. Calcium chloride is formed as a by product.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 9.
Which of the following metal carbonate is decomposed on heating?
(a) Na2CO3
(b) K2CO3
(c) Li22CO3
(d) MgCO3
Ans :
(d) MgCO3
Hint:
Alkali metal carbonates are stable to heat. The electropositive character increases from Li to Cs. Hence the stability of the carbonates increase in the same order.
CS2CO3 > Rb2CO3 > K2CO3 > Na2CO3 > Li2CO3

Question 10.
Which of the following does not give flame colouration?
(a) BaCl2
(b) CaCO3
(c) SrCO3
(d) MgCl2
Answer:
(d) MgCl2
Hint:
Be and Mg in group 2, does not give flame colouration. In Be, and Mg because of their small size, electrons are held firmly and their excitation is difficult.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 11.
Epsom salt is:
(a) CaSO4 . 2H2O
(b) MgSO4 . H2O
(c) BaSO4
(d) SrSO4
Ans :
(b) MgSO4 . H2O

Question 12.
Suspension of slaked lime in water called:
(a) quick lime
(b) milk of lime
(c) lime water
(d) washing of lime
Ans :
(b) milk of lime

Question 13.
Quick lime is:
(a) CaCO3
(b) CaO
(c) CaSO4. 2H2O
(d Ca(OH)2
Answer:
(b) CaO

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 14.
A metal X is prepared by the electrolysis of fused chloride. It reacts with hydrogen to form colourless solid from which hydrogen is released as treatment with water. The metal is:
(a) Al
(b) Ca
(c) Cu
(d) Zn
Ans :
(b) Ca
Hint:
Ca + H2 → CaH2
CaH2 + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2

Question 15.
A substance which gives a brick red flame colour and breaks down on heating giving oxygen and a brown gas is:
(a) CaCO3
(b) MgNO3
(c) MgCO3
(d) MgNCa(NO3)2
Ans :
(d) MgNCa(NO3)2
Hint:
Ca(NO3)2 > CaO + 2NO2 + O2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 16.
The sodium metal is made by electrolysis of molten mixture of 40% NaCl and 60% CaCl2. because:
(a) CaCl2 helps in the conduction of electricity
(b) Ca+2 can reduce NaCl to Na
(c) Ca+2 can displace Na from NaCl
(d) this mixture has a lower melting point than NaCl.
Answer:
Hint:
CaCl2 is added to lower the melting point ofNaCl.

Question 17.
The first ionisation energies of alkaline earth metals are higher than alkali metals. This is because:
(a) there is increase in nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metals.
(b) there is decrease in nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metals.
(c) there is no charge in nuclear charge.
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) there is increase in nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metals.

Question 18.
Potassium superoxide is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarine, because it:
(a) absorbs CO2 and increases O2 constant
(b) eliminates moisture
(c) absorbs CO2
(d) produces O2
Answer:
(a) absorbs CO2 and increases O2 constant
Hint:
As air purifier in space capsules.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 19.
The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is:
(a) dolomite
(b) a marble statue
(c) calcined gypsum
(d) sea shells
Answer:
(c) calcined gypsum

Question 20.
When washing soda is heated:
(a) CO2 is liberated
(b) CO is released
(c) CO + CO2 are released
(d) water vapour is released
Ans :
(d) water vapour is released
Hint:
Washing soda is Na2CO3 10H2O. This an heating loses its molecules of water and because anhydrous.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 21.
Identify the pair in which the first oxide is basic and the second one is amphoteric.
(a) LiO, NaO
(b) BeO, BaO
(c) BaO, BeO
(d) Na2O, CaO
Answer:
(c) BaO, BeO

Question 22.
Among the following compounds, a pair of compounds which are insoluble in water is:
(a) LiCl, LiF
(b) NaCl, NaBr
(c) NaBr, KBr
(d) CaCl2, NaCl
Ans :
(a) LiCl, LiF
Hint:
Both are covalent compounds.

Question 23.
The pair of carboniates,‘which decompose to the metal and carbon dioxide on heating is:
(a) Na2CO3, K2CO3
(b) Li2CO3, K2CO3
(c) Li2CO3, MgCO3
(d) Na2CO3, MgCO3
Answer:
(c) Li2CO3, MgCO3
Hint:
Due to diagonal relationship both the carbonates decompose to its metal and carbon dioxide. All other carbonates are stable to heat.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 24.
Assertion:
Alkali metals impart colour to the Bunsen flame.
Reason:
Their ionisation energies are low.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of j the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Ans :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 25.
Assertion:
K, Rb and Cs form superoxides.
Reason:
The stability of superoxides increases from K+ to Cs+ due to decrease in lattice energy.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the : assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
Correct Reason: Since for salts of larger anions, the lattice energy increases with increase in the size of the cation from K+ to Cs+, therefore the stability of their superoxides increases from K to Cs.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 26.
Assertion:
Potassium carbonate cannot be manufactured by a process similar to Solvay’s soda ammonia process.
Reason:
Potassium hydrogen carbonate is less soluble in water than . sodium hydrogen carbonate.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Hint:
KHCO3 is more soluble in water than NaHCO3.

Question 27.
Choose the correct Statements from the following:
(a) Sodium forms a super oxide.
(b) LiOH is a weak base while the hydroxides of other alkali metals are strongly basic.
(c) Washing soda has the formula Na2CO3.8H2O
(d) Calcium gives apple green colour when exposed to Bunsen flame.
Answer:
(a) Sodium forms a super oxide.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 28.
Choose the correct Statements from the following:
(a) Alkaline earth metals are less electro positive than alkali metals.
(b) The solubility of sulphates in water decrease down the group from Be to Ba.
(c) BeCO3 is less stable than MgCO3.
(d) Plaster of Paris has the formula CaSO4.H2O
Answer:
(b) The solubility of sulphates in water decrease down the group from Be to Ba.

Question 29.
Which of the following statements is true about Ca(OH)2?
(a) It is used in the preparation of bleaching powder.
(b) It is a light blue solid.
(c) It does not possess disinfectant properly.
(d) It is used in the manufacture of cement.
Answer:
(a) It is used in the preparation of bleaching powder.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 30.
Choose the incorrect statement in the following.
(a) BaO is soluble but BaSO4 is insoluble in water.
(b) Lil is more soluble in ethanol than KI.
(c) Both Li and Mg form solid hydrogen carbonates.
(d) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are deliquescent.
Answer:
(c) Both Li and Mg form solid hydrogen carbonates.

Question 31.
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to alkaline earth metals.
(a) Be and Mg exhibits diagonal relationship.
(b) Alkaline earth metals form ionic compounds in which the oxidation state of the metal is +2.
(c) The basic nature of the oxides of the decreases down the group.
(d) All carbonates decompose on heating.
Answer:
(c) The basic nature of the oxides of the decreases down the group.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 32.
Match the entities in column I with appropriate entities in column II.

Column IColumn II
(i) Used as a source of 02 in submarines, space shuttles, and oxygen masks(A) Mg(Cl04)2
(ii) Used in obtaining the X-ray of the stomach.(B) CaH2
(iii) Used as a dying agent(C)KO2
(iv) Reacts with water to produced H2(D) BaS04

(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (D)
(b) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (B), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (A), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(b) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals

Question 33.
Match the entities in column I with appropriate entities in column II.

Column IColumn II
(i) Strongest reducing agent in aqueous solution(A) Magnesium
(ii) Does not give flame colouration(B) Caesium
(iii) Forms peroxides on heating with excess oxygen(C) Lithium
(iv) Used in photoelectric cells(D) Sodium

(a) (i)- (D), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) . (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (D)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 1.
Mention the properties in which ortho and para hydrogen differ.
Answer:
(i) The boiling point and melting point para hydrogen is lower than that of ortho hydrogen.
(ii) Para hydrogen has zero magnetic moment while ortho hydrogen has magnetic moment twice as that of proton.

Question 2.
Explain the laboratory preparation of hydrogen.
Answer:
Hydrogen is conveniently prepared in laboratory by the reaction of metals, such as zinc, iron, tin with dilute acid.

Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 3.
Explain steam -reforming of hydrocarbons to produce hydrogen gas.
Answer:
In this method hydrocarbon such as methane is mixed with steam and passed over nickel catalyst in the range 800 – 900°C and 35 atm pressures.
CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2

Question 4.
What is water gas? How is it produced?
Answer:
Water gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen (H2), Steam is passed over a red-hot coke to produce carbon monoxide and hydrogen.

Question 5.
How will you convert carbon monoxide in water gas to carbondioxide?
Answer:
The carbon monoxide of the water gas can be converted to carbon dioxide by mixing the gas mixture with more steam at 400°C and passed over a shift converter containing iron/copper Catalyst. This reaction is called as water-gas shift reaction.
CO + H2O → CO2 + H2
The CO2 formed in the above process is absorbed in a solution of potassium carbonate.
CO2 + K2CO3 + H2O → 2 KHCO3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 6.
How is heavy hydrogen D2 produced?
Answer:
Prolonged electrolysis of heavy water produces heavy hydrogen. The electrolysises continued until the resulting solution becomes enriched in heavy water. Further electrolysis of the heavy water gives deuterium.
2D2O TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 2 2D2 + O2

Question 7.
How is Tritium prepared?
Answer:
It is artificially prepared by bombarding lithium with slow neutrons in a nuclear fission reactor. The nuclear transmutation reaction for’ this process is as follows.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 3

Question 8.
Give the reaction which takes place in H2 – O2 fuel cells.
Answer:
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. This reaction is explosive and releases a lot of energy, which is used in fuel cells to generate electricity.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 9.
What is the order of reactivity of halogens towards hydrogen?
Answer:
The order of reactivity is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2.

H2 + F2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 4 2HF
H2 + Cl2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 5 2HCl
H2 + Br2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 6 2HBr
H2 + I2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 7 2HI

Question 10.
Mention the oxidation state of hydrogen in hydrides. Give three examples of reactive metal hydrides.
Answer:
The oxidation state of hydrogen in hydrides is -1.
The reactive metal hydrides as LiH, NaH, CaH.

Question 11.
Name two hydrides which are used as reducing agents in organic chemistry. How are they prepared?
Answer:
Lithium aluminium hydride (Li AlH4) and sodium borohydride (NaBH4) are used as a reducing agent in organic chemistry. They are prepared as follows:
4 LiH + AlCl → Li [AlH4] + 3 LiCl
4 NaH + B(OCH3)3 → Na [BH4] + 3 CH3ONa

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 12.
Give example of a reaction where H2 acts as a reducing agent.
Answer:
Hydrogen itself acts as a reducing agent. In the presence of finely divided nickel, it adds to the unsaturated organic compounds to form saturated compounds.
HC ≡ CH TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 8 H2C = CH2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 8 H3C – CH3

Question 13.
How does D2 react with O2 and halogen? Write balanced equation.
Answer:
They form heavy water and halides.
2D2 + O2 → 2D2O
D2 + X2 → 2DX [X = F, Cl, B and I]

Question 14.
Give a brief account of exchange reaction of D2O.
Answer:
In these reactions, hydrogen in the reactants is replaced by D.
2NaOH + D2O → 2NaOD + HOD
HCl + D2O → DCl + HOD
NH4Cl + 4D2O → ND4Cl + 4HOD

Question 15.
Mention the use of H2 in metallurgy.
Answer:
In metallurgy, hydrogen can be used to j reduce many metal oxides to metals at high 1 temperatures.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
WO3 + 3H2 → W + 3H2O

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 16.
Mention the industrial importance of hydrogen.
Answer:
(i) Ammonia is synthesized in a large scale by Haber process. The reaction is
N2 + 3H2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 9 2NH3
(ii) Ammonia is used in the manufacture of chemicals such as nitric acid, fertilises and explosives.
(iii) It can be used to manufacture the industrial I solvent, methanol from carbon monoxide using copper as catalyst.
CO + 2H2 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 10 CH3OH

Question 17.
Give a brief account of the action of water on metals.
Answer:
(i) The most reactive metals i.e., the alkali metals, decompose water even in cold with the evolution of hydrogen leaving an alkali metal hydroxide solution.
2Na + 2 H2O → 2 NaOH + H2

(ii) The group 2 metals (except beryllium) react in a similar way but less violently, The hydroxides are less soluble in water than those of Group 1.
Ba + 2H2O → Ba(OH)2 + H2

(iii) Some transition metals react with hot water or steam to form the corresponding oxides. For example, steam passed over red hot iron results in the formation of iron oxide with the release of hydrogen.
3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2

(iv) Lead and copper decompose water only at a red hot. Silver, gold, mercury and platinum do not have any effect on water.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 18.
Give a brief account of the action of water on non-metals.
Answer:
(i) Fluorine decomposes cold water.
2F2 + 2H2O2 → 2H2F2 + O2
3F2 + 3H2O2 → 2H2F2 + O3
(ozonised oxygen)

(ii) Chlorine decomposes cold water forming j HC1 and HOCl (hypochlorous acid) j
Cl2 + H2O → 2HCl + HOCl.

Question 19.
What are the causes for the hardness of water?
Answer:
The presence of Ca+2 and Mg+2 ions and that of metal salt in the form of bicarbonate, chloride and sulphate ions makes water hard.

Question 20.
How is temporary hardness removed?
Answer:
This can be removed by boiling the hard water followed by filtration. Upon boiling, these salts decompose into insoluble carbonate which leads to their precipitation. The magnesium carbonate thus formed further hydrolysed to give insoluble magnesium hydroxide.
Ca(HCO3)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + CO2
Mg(HCO3)2 → MgCO3 + H2O+ CO2
MgCO3 + H2O → Mg(OH)2 + CO2
The resulting precipitates can be removed by filtration.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 21.
Explain Clark’s method of remaining temporary hardness of water.
Answer:
The Clark’s method uses, calculated amount of lime to hard water containing the magnesium and calcium and the resulting carbonates and hydroxides are filtered-off.
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 + 2H2O
Mg (HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 + Mg(OH)2 + 2 H2O

Question 22.
How is permanent hardness in hardwater is removed?
Answer:
Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of soluble salts of magnesium and calcium in the form of chlorides and sulphates in it. It can be removed by adding washing soda, which reacts with these metal (M = Ca or Mg) chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates.
MCl2 + Na2CO3 → MCO3 + 2 NaCl
MSO4 + Na2CO3 → MCO3 + Na2SO4

Question 23.
Give the chemical properties of heavy water and water.
Answer:
Heavy water is chemically similar to ordinary water (H2O). However D2O reacts more slowly than H2O in chemical reactions.
(i) When compounds containing hydrogen are treated with D2O, hydrogen undergoes an exchange for deuterium,
2NaOH + D2O → 2NaOD + HOD .
HCl + D2O → DCl + HOD
NH4Cl + 4D2O → ND4Cl + 4HOD

These exchange reactions are useful in determining the number of ionic hydrogens present in a given compound. For example, when D2O is treated with of hypo-phosphorus acid only one hydrogen atom is exchanged with deuterium. It indicates that, it is a monobasic acid.

H3PO2 + D2O → H2DPO2 + HDO

It is also used to prepare some deuterium compounds:

Al4C3 + 12 D2O → 4 Al(OD)3 3CD4
CaC2 + 2 D2O → Ca(OD)2 + C2D2
Mg3`N2 + 6 D2O → 3 Mg(OD)2 + 2 ND3
Ca3P2 + 6 D2O → 3 Ca(OD)2 + 2 PD3

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 24.
What do you understand by 100 volume H2O2?
Answer:
This means 100 ml of oxygen is liberated by 1 ml of H2O2 solution as heating at STP.

Question 25.
An ice cube atO°C is placed in some liquid water at 0°C, the ice cube sinks – Why?
Answer:
The density of ice is lower than that of water. Hence it sinks in liquid water.

Question 26.
Calculate (i) Concentration of H2O2 in g/L,
(ii) Normally and
(iii) Molarity of a 10 vol solution of H2O2.
Answer:
(i) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 11

22400 ml of oxygen is obtained at NTP from = 68g of H2O2
10 ml of oxygen is obtained at NTP from = \(\frac{68}{22400}\) = 0.03035 g of H2O2
1 m/ of H2O2 contains = 0.03035 g H2O2
100 ml of H2O2 contains = 0.03035 × 100 = 3.035 g of H2O2
or
the solution is 3.035%
or
concentration of ‘10 vol’ solution = 3.035 × 10 = 30.35 g/litre.

(ii) Normality (N) = \(\frac{\text { Concentration in } \mathrm{g} / \mathrm{L}}{\text { Equivalent mass }}\)
Equivalent mass of H2O2 = \(\frac{\text { Molecular mass }}{2}=\frac{34}{12}\) = 17
Normality (N) = \(\frac{30.35}{17}\) = 1.785
Normality of 10 volume solution = 1.785 N
[Relationship between volume strength and normality]
Let volume strength of H2O2 solution be ‘V’.
i.e., ‘ V’ litre of O2 is given by 1L of H2O2 at NTP.
g/L of H2O2 = \(\frac{68}{22.4}\) × V
N = \(\frac{\text { strength }}{\text { Equivalent mass }}\)
= \(\frac{68}{22.4} \times \mathrm{V} \times \frac{1}{17}\)

‘V’ = 5.6 × Normality
Similarly ‘V’ = 11.2 × molarity

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 27.
Give a brief account of ionic hydrides.
Answer:
These are hydrides composed of an electropositive metal, generally, an alkali or alkaline-earth metal, except beryllium and magnesium, formed by transfer of electrons from metal to hydrogen atoms. They can be prepared by the reaction of elements at about 400° C. These are salt-like, high-melting, white crystalline solids having hydride ions (H) and metal cations Mn+ where ‘n’ is the valency of the metal.
2 Li + H2 → 2 LiH

Question 28.
Give a brief account of covalent hydrides.
Answer:
Covalent hydrides are compounds in which hydrogen is attached to another element by sharing of electrons. Covalent hydrides are further divided into three categories, viz., electron precise (CH4, C2H6, SiH4, GeH4), electron-deficient (B2H6) and electron- rich hydrides (NH3, H2O). Since most of the covalent hydrides consist of discrete, small molecules that have relatively weak intermolecular forces, they are generally gases or volatile liquids.

Question 29.
Give a brief account of metallic (interstitial) hydrides.
Answer:
In metallic hydrides hydrogen occupies the interstitial sites (voids) of their crystal lattice. Hence, they are called interstitial hydrides; these hydrides show properties similar to parent metals and hence they are also known as metallic hydrides. Most of the hydrides are non-stoichiometric with variable composition (TiH1.5 – 1.8 and PdH0.6 – 0.8). Some are relatively light, inexpensive and thermally unstable which make them useful for hydrogen storage applications. Electropositive metals and some other metals form hydrides with the stoichiometry MH or sometimes MH2 (M = Ti, Zr, Hf, V, Zn).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 30.
Explain how hydrogen bond influence the properties of compound which can form hydrogen bond.
Answer:
Hydrogen bond is weaker than covalent bond but stronger than vanderwaals attraction compounds in which hydrogen bonding occur will have higher boiling point, melting point and solubility.
eg: H2O has a higher boiling point than H2S. CH3OH is soluble in water because it can form hydrogen bonding with water.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 12

Question 31.
Explain (i) intermolecular hydrogen bond and
(ii) intramolecular hydrogen bond.
Answer:
(i) Intermolecular hydrogen bonds occur between two separate molecules. They can occur between any numbers of like or unlike molecules as long as hydrogen donors and acceptors are present in positions which enable the hydrogen bonding interactions. For example, intermolecular hydrogen bonds can occur between ammonia molecule themselves or between water molecules themselves or between ammonia and water.

(ii) Intramolecular hydrogen bonds are those which occur within a single molecule.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 13

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 32.
Explain the structure of ice.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 14

In ice, each atom is surrounded tetrahedrally by four water molecules through hydrogen bonds. That is, the presence of two hydrogen atoms and two lone pairs of electron on oxygen atoms in each water molecule allows formation of a three-dimensional structure. This arrangement creates an open structure having a number of vacant spaces. As a result the density of ice is less than that of liquid.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 15

Tetrahedral arrangement of oxygen atoms in ice The above property of water is very helpful in aquatic life. In extreme cold conditions, the upper layer of sea or lake freezes. The ice layer being lighter does not sink and thereby sea animals or lake animals can live safely in water under these conditions.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The element which does not contain a neutron is:
(a) hydrogen
(b) helium
(c) chlorine
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) hydrogen

Question 2.
The number of electrons, protons and neutrons in protium, deuterium and tritium are respectively:
(a) 1, 1, 0 ; 1, 1, 1 ; 1, 1, 2
(b) 1, 1, 1 ; 1, 1, 0; 1, 1, 2
(c) 1, 1, 2; 1, 1, 0; 1, 1, 1
(d) 1, 1, 1; 1, 1, 0; 1, 1, 2
Answer:
(a) 1, 1, 0 ; 1, 1, 1 ; 1, 1, 2

Question 3.
Among the isotopes of hydrogen, which has higher mass and radio active?
(a) Protium
(b) Tritium
(c) Deuterium
(d) both deuterium and tritium
Answer:
(b) Tritium

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 4.
Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) The boiling points of both deuterium and tritium are higher than that of protium.
(b) The inter nuclear distances between the two bonded atoms are different in all the isotopes.
(c) Enthalpy of dissociation is high in tritium
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) The inter nuclear distances between the two bonded atoms are different in all the isotopes.

Question 5.
Normal hydrogen consists of:
(a) 75% ortho form and 25% para form
(b) 25% ortho form and 75% para form
(c) 80% ortho form and 20% para form
(d) 20% ortho form and 80% para form
Answer:
(a) 75% ortho form and 25% para form

Question 6.
Choose the correct statement with regard to ortho and para hydrogen.

1. Both have similar chemical properties but differ in some physical properties.
2. The boiling points of normal, ortho and para hydrogens are the same.
3. The nuclear spin in both forms are the same.
4. Para hydrogen has zero magnetic moment.

(a) 1, 2
(b) 1, 4
(c) 2, 3
(d) 2, 4
Answer:
(b) 1, 4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 7.
CO2 + K2CO3 + H2O → X. The product X is:
(a) KHCO3
(b) CO2
(c) H2CO3
(d) KOH
Answer:
(b) CO2
Hint:
CO2 is absorbed by a solution of K2CO3.

Question 8.
Which of the following dissociate more readily?
(a) H2O
(b) D2O
(c) T2O
(d) H2 all dissociate to the same extent
Answer:
(a) H2O
Hint:
Because of smaller size of hydrogen atom compared to D. i.e., H – O bond is weaker than D – O bond.

Question 9.
Hydrogen resembles halogens in many respects for which several factors are responsible of the following factors which one is most important in this respect.
(a) Its tendency to lose an electron and form a cation.
(b) Its tendency to gain an electron in its valence shell to attain stable electronic configuration.
(c) Its low electron gain enthalpy.
(d) Its small size.
Answer:
(b) Its tendency to gain an electron in its valence shell to attain stable electronic configuration.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 10.
Metal hydrides are ionic, covalent or molecular in nature. Among LiH, NaH, KH, RbH, CsH the correct order of increasing ionic character is:
(a) LiH > NaH > CsH > KH > RbH
(b) LiH < NaH< KH < RbH < CsH
(c) RbH > CsH > NaH > KH > LiH
(d) NaH > CsH > RbH > LiH > KH
Answer:
(b) LiH < NaH< KH < RbH < CsH
Hint:
Ionic character increases as the size of the atoms increases or the electronegativity of the atom decreases.

Question 11.
Which of the following is electron precise hydride?
(a) B2H6
(b) NH3
(c) H2O
(d) CH4
Answer:
(d) CH4
Hint:
Electron precise hydrides contain, exact number of electrons to form normal covalent bond.

Question 12.
Consider the reactions:
(i) H2O2 + 2HI → I2 + 2H2O
(ii) HOCl + H2O2 → H3O+ + Cl + O2
Which of the following statements is correct about H2O2 with reference to the above reactions?
(a) an oxidising agent in both (i) and (ii)
(b) an oxidising agent in (i) and reducing agent in (ii)
(c) a reducing agent in (i) and oxidising agent in (ii)
(d) a reducing agent in both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(b) an oxidising agent in (i) and reducing agent in (ii)
Hint:
The thumb-rule for oxidising behaviour of H2O2 is:
H2O2 acts as an reducing agent, if O2 is evolved and H2O2 acts as a oxidising agent O2 is NOT evolved.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 13.
Which of the following reactions increases the production of di-hydrogen from synthesis gas?
(a) CH4 (g) + H2O(g) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 16 CO + 3H2 (g)
(b) C (s) + R2O (g) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 17 CO (g) + H2 (g)
(c) CO (g) + H2O (g) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 18 CO (s) + H2 (g)
(d) C2H6 (g) + 2HO (g) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 19 2CO(g) + 5H2 (g)
Answer:
(c) CO (g) + H2O (g) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 18 CO (s) + H2 (g)

Question 14.
When sodium peroxide is treated with dilute sulphuric acid, the products are:
(a) sodium sulphate and water
(b) sodium sulphate and oxygen
(c) sodium sulphate, hydrogen and oxygen
(d) sodium sulphate and hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(d) sodium sulphate and hydrogen peroxide
Hint:
Na2O2 + H2SO4 TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen 20 Na2SO4 + H2O2

Question 15.
Which of the following compounds is a peroxide?
(a) KO2
(b) BaO2
(c) MnO2
(d) NO2
Answer:
(b) BaO2
Hint:
Peroxides produce H2O2 an treatment with dilute acid. The rest of the compound does not produce H2O2 with acid.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 16.
Ag2O+ H2O2 → 2Ag + H2O + O2. In this reaction H2O2 acts as:
(a) reducing agent
(b) oxidising agent
(c) bleaching agent
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) reducing agent
Hint:
Refer thumbs rule in Q.No. 12

Question 17.
Bond angles in H—O—H and H—O—O—H in water and H2O2 respectively are:
(a) 104.5°, 104.5°
(b) 94.8°, 94.8°
(c) 104.5°, 94.8°
(d) 94.8°, 104.5°
Answer:
(c) 104.5°, 94.8°

Question 18.
When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate is treated with hard water, the sodium ions are exchanged with:,
(a) H+ ions
(b) Ca+2 ions
(c) SO4-2 ions
(d) M+2 ions
Answer:
(a) H+ ions

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 19.
The reagent used for softening of the temporary hardness of water is / are:
(i) Ca3(PO4)2
(ii) Ca(OH)2
(Hi) Na2CO3
(iv) NaOCl
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(a) (ii) and (iii)
Hint:
Ca(OH)2 and Na2CO3 react with bicarbonates of Ca and Mg present in temporary hard water to form corresponding insoluble carbonates which an filtration give soft water.

Question 20.
In which of the following reactions H2O2 act as a

(i) H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e → 2H2O
(ii) H2O2 – 2e → O2 + 2H+
(iii) H2O2 + 2e → 2OH
(iv) H2O2 + 2OH – 2e → O2 + 2H2O

(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii)

Question 21.
Match the entities of column I with appropriate entities of column II and choose the correct option out of the following options (a),(b),(c) and (d) given at the end of the questions.

Column IColumn II
(i) BeH2(A) Complex
(ii) AsH3(B) Interstitial
(iii) LaH3(C) Covalent
(iv) LiAlH4(D) Polymeric

(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(b) (i) – (A), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)
(d) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 22.
Match the following:

Column IColumn II
(i) Electrolysis of water produces(A) Atomic reactor
(ii) Lithium aluminium hydride is used as(B) Polar molecule
(iii) Hydrogen chloride acts as(C) Reducing agent
(iv) Heavy water is used in(D) Hydrogen and oxygen

(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (A)
(b) (i) – (C), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (D)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (A)
Answer:
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (A)

Question 23.
Select the odd man out from the following: an amphoteric oxide is:
(a) Na2O
(b) BeO
(c) Cl2O7
(d) MgO
Answer:
(b) BeO

Question 24.
Select the odd man out from the following: An electron precise hydride is:
(a) B2H6
(b) NH3
(c) H2O
(d) CH4
Answer:
(d) CH4

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 25.
Among the given hydrides, identify the pair in which the first one is ionic and the second is metallic hydride,
(a) LiH7, BeH2
(b) BeH2, LaH2.87
(c) NaH , LaH2.87
(d) CH4, BeH2
Answer:
(c) NaH , LaH2.87

Question 26.
Which of the following pairs of substances on reaction will not evolve H2 gas?
(a) Fe and H2SO4 (aq)
(b) Cu and HCl (aq)
(c) Na and alcohol
(d) Fe and steam
Answer:
(b) Cu and HCl (aq)

Question 27.
Assertion :
The water gas shift reaction can be used to increase the amount of syngas mixture.
Reason :
In this reaction, carbon monoxide reduces steam to hydrogen.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. .
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 28.
Assertion :
Chlorine reacts more rapidly with H2 than D2.
Reason :
D – Cl bond is stronger than H – Cl bond.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 29.
Assertion :
Electrolysis of molten CaH2 produces hydrogen gas at anode.
Reason :
In CaH2, hydrogen is present in the form of H ion.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 30.
Assertion :
H2O is the only hydride of group 16 which is a liquid at room temperature.
Reason :
In ice, each hydrogen atom is surrounded by two covalent bonds and two hydrogen bonds.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 31.
Assertion :
The O – O bond in H2O2 is shorter in H2O2 than that of O2F2.
Reason :
H2O2 is an ionic compound.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but – rea§pn is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 32.
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) HF is an electron rich hydride.
(b) Water softened by Permutit process is not demineralised water since it still contains sodium salts.
(c) H2O2 does not decompose NaHCO3 since it is weaker acid than H2CO3.
(d) In H2O2, the two O – H bonds lie in the same plane.
Answer:
(d) In H2O2, the two O – H bonds lie in the same plane.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 33.
Consider the reactions:

(I) H2O2 + O3 → H2O + 2O2
(II) H2O2 + Ag2O → 2Ag + H2O + O2

The role of H2O2 in the above reaction is respectively:
Choose the correct statement from the following:
(a) Oxidising in (I) and reducing in (II)
(b) Reducing in (I) ancl oxidising in (I)
(c) Reducing in (I) and (II)
(d) Oxidising in (I) and (II)
Answer:
(c) Reducing in (I) and (II)

Question 34.
What is incorrect about H2O2?
(a) Acts as both oxidising and reducing agent.
(b) Two O – H bonds lie in the same plane.
(c) Pale and blue liquid.
(d) Can be oxidised by O3.
Answer:
(b) Two O – H bonds lie in the same plane.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Hydrogen

Question 35.
Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to hydrogen?
(a) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium is the most common.
(b) In hydrides, hydrogen exists as an anion.
(c) Di hydrogen does not act as a reducing agent.
(d) Hydrogen ion exists as H3O+ Ions in aqueous solution.
Answer:
(c) Di hydrogen does not act as a reducing agent.

Question 36.
Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) The hydrogen bonding exists in hydrogen fluoride is intra molecular hydrogen bond.
(ii) In alkaline solutions, H2O2 acts as a reducing agent and it gets reduced to H2O and O2.
(iii) H2O2 is an acid.
(iv) H2O2 is also bleaching agent.

(a) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii)and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) All
Answer:
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv)

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 1.
Mendeleev predicted that elements with atomic weights 72.68 and 70 in group IV and their properties. Name the elements that were discovered later and have properties predicted by Mendeleev.
Answer:
Galium and Germanium.

Question 2.
Give Mosley’s relationship.
Answer:
There exists a linear correlation between the atomic number and frequency of X-ray emitted by an element.
√v = a (Z – b)
v = frequency of X-ray emitted by the element with atomic number Z, a, b are constants. This relationship is known as Mosley’s relationship.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 3.
Briefly outline anomalies of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Answer:
(i) The position of hydrogen in the periodic table as it resembles alkali metals and halogens in their properties.

(ii) Certain elements which show similar properties have been separated in the periodic table, eg: Ba and Pb resemble each other in so many respects but they are placed in second and fourth group. Similarly Ag and Te having similar properties but separated. Ag is placed in first group and Te is placed in third group.

(iii) Elements showing marked similarities are placed in one group. For example, coinage metals (Cu, Ag, Au) have been placed with, alkali metals in the same group. Manganise has been placed in the seventh group along with halogens with which it does not show any similarity in its properties.

(iv) Certain elements with higher atomic mass were placed before the elements with lower atomic mass.
eg: Tellurium (127.6) was placed in group . VI but iodine (127) was placed in group VII. Similarly cobalt (atomic mass 59) were placed before nickel (atomic mass 58.6). The other similar pains are Ar and K (40.39), Th and Pa (232, 231).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 4.
Explain how will you find the atomic number . of an element from the frequency of X-rays emitted by an element.
Answer:
1. Mosley’s relationship is given as √v = a(Z – b) where v is the frequency of X-rays emitted by an element of atomic, number Z.
2. The plot of √v against Z gives a straight line. Using this relationship, we can determine the atomic number of an unknown (new) element from the frequency of X-ray emitted.

Question 5.
Briefly outline the characteristics of modem periodic table.
Answer:
(i) The modem of periodic table consists of horizontal rows called periods and vertical column called groups. There are seven periods and eight groups. The period number corresponds to the value of principal quantum number (n). The number of elements in each period is twice the atomic orbitals available in the energy level that are being filled.

Each group coptain a series of element whose atoms have the same electronic configuration. The elements in a group are separated by magic numbers of either 2 or 8 or 18 or 32. The physical properties of elements follow a systematic pattern.

(ii) The IUPAC have designated the groups from 1 to 18. Previously there were sixteen groups as VIII B consisted of three vertical columns. The groups were designated as I A, II A, III B, IV B, V B, VI B, VII B , VIII B, I B, IIB, III A, IV A, V A, VIA and VII A. The present system replaces the old system.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 6.
The element 119 has not been discovered. What would be the IUPAC name and symbol for this element? On the basis of periodic table, predict the electronic configuration of this element.
Answer:
The root’s for 1 and 9 are un and enn respectively. Hence, the name of the element with Z = 119 is Un + Un + enn + ium = ununennium. Its symbol is uue.

The atomic number of the last number of the 7th period is 118. Thus, this element will belong to 8th period and will be the first element i.e., alkali metal (8 s).
Its electronic configuration: 2, 8, 18, 32, 32, 18, 8, 1.

Question 7.
Write the electronic configuration ofthe elements whose atomic numbers are given below:
(A) 35, (B) 18, (C) 28, (D) 38. Also predict period, group, and block to which they belong.
Answer:
(A) Atomic number 35:
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p5
A receives the last electron in 4p orbital and hence belongs to ‘p’ block and 4th period.
Group number = 10 + 7 = 17.

(B) Atomic number 18:
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
Block – ‘p’ 3rd period; (10 + 8) = 18th group.

(C) Atomic number 28:
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2
Block – ‘s’; 4th period ; (8 + 2) = 10th group.

(D) Atomic number 38:
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 5s2
Block – ‘s’ ; 5th period ; 2nd group.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 8.
Write the general electronic configuration of s, p, d, and f block elements.
Answer:
‘s’ block: ns1 or 2.
‘p’ block: ns2 np1 – 6
‘d’ block: (n – 1)d1 – 10 ns1 or 2
‘f’ block: (n – 2)f1 – 14 (n – 1 )d0 or 2 ns2

Question 9.
Name the first and the last elements in the following periods (n).
(i) n = 4 (ii) n = 5 (iii) n = 6 (iv) n = 7.
Answer:

 

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 10.
Mention the characteristics of ‘s’ block elements.
Answer:
(i) They have a general electronic configuration of ns1 or ns2.
(ii) They are soft metals possess low melting and boiling points. They are good conductor of electricity.
(iii) They have the largest atomic radii in their respective periods.
(iv) They have low values of ionisation enthalpy and hence highly electropositive.
(v) They are very reactive and readily form ionic compounds.
(vi) They impart (except Be, Mg) characteristic colour to the Bunsen flame.

Question 11.
Mention the characteristics of ‘p’ block elements.
Answer:
(i) Their general electronic configuration is ns2 np1 – 6.
(ii) They form generally covalent compounds but a few members show electro valency also, eg: Sn, Pb.
(iii) In a period from left to right there is a regular increase in non-metallic character. The non-metallic character decreases down the group.
(iv) Most of them are electronegative. The electronegativity increases across the period while it decreases down the group.
(v) Most of them form acidic oxides.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 12.
Mention the characteristics of ‘d’ block elements.
Answer:
(i) They are metals and have the general electronic configurations (n – 1)d1 – 10 ns1 or ns2.
(ii) They are less electropositive than ‘s’ block elements but more electropositive than ‘p’ block elements.
(iii) The ‘d’ block elements show variable valency.
(iv) Most of the transition elements and their compounds are good catalysts.
(v) They form both ionic and covalent compounds.

Question 13.
What are lanthanides and Actinides? [OR] Mention the characteristics of ‘f’ block elements.
Answer:
The lanthanides are the elements having the general electronic configuration 4f1 – 14 5d0 – 1, 6s2n and actinides have the general configuration 5f0 – 14, 6d0 – 2, 7s2. They are collectively known as ‘f’ block elements. These elements are metallic in nature and have high melting points. Their compounds are mostly coloured. These elements also show variable oxidation states.

Question 14.
Explain why covalent radius is always shorter than actual atomic radius.
Answer:
The formation of covalent bond involves the overlapping of atomic orbitals and it reduces the expected intemuclear distance. Therefore covalent radius is always shorter than the actual atomic radius.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 15.
From the inter nuclear distance between two atoms A and B (dA – B) and from their electronegativities, how will you find the covalent radius of atom A + B?
Answer:
In case of hetero nuclear diatomic molecules. The covalent radius of individual atom can also be calculated using the internuclear distance (dA – B) between two different atoms A and B. The simplest method proposed by Schomaker and Stevenson is as follows.
dA – B = rA + rB – 0.09(χA – χB)
where χA and χB are the electronegativities of A and B respectively in Pauling units.
Here χA > χA and radius is in Å.

Question 16.
The inter nuclear distance between hydrogen and chlorine, is 1.28Å and the covalent radius of chlorine is 0.99Å. The electronegativity values of chlorine and hydrogen are 3 and 2.1 respectively. Determine the covalent radius of hydrogen atom.
Answer:
dH – Cl = rH + rCl – 0.09 (χCl – χH)
1.28 = rH +0.99 – 0.09 (3 – 2.1)
1.28 = rH + 0.99 – 0.09 (0.9)
1.28 = rH + 0.99 – 0.081
1.28 = rH + 0.909
∴ rH = 1.28 – 0.909 = 0.317 Å

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 17.
Explain the cause for the variation of atomic radius along a period.
Answer:
Atomic radius tends to decrease in a period. Along a period, the valence electrons are added to the same shell. The simultaneous addition of protons to the nucleus, increases the nuclear charge, as well as the electrostatic attractive force between the valence electrons and the nucleus. Therefore atomic radius decreases along a period.

Question 18.
Calculate ionic radii of Na+ and F ion in NaF crystal whose inter ionic distance is equal to 231 pm.
Answer:
d = rNa+ + rF ……….(1)
i.e. rNa+ + rF = 231 pm .
We know that
\(\frac{r_{\mathrm{Na}^{+}}}{r_{\mathrm{F}^{-}}}=\frac{\left(\mathrm{Z}_{\mathrm{eff}}\right)_{\mathrm{F}^{-}}}{\left(\mathrm{Z}_{\mathrm{eff}}\right)_{\mathrm{Na}^{+}}}\)

(Zeff)F = Z – S
= 9 – 4.15 = 4.85
(Zeff)Na+ = 11 – 4.15 = 6.85

∴ \(\frac{r_{\mathrm{Na}^{+}}}{r_{\mathrm{F}^{-}}}=\frac{4.85}{6.85}\) = 0.71

⇒ rNa+ = 0.71 × rF ……………(2)
Substituting (2) in (1)
(1) ⇒ 0.71 rF + rF = 231 pm
1.71 rF = 231 pm
rF = \(\frac{231}{1.71}\) = 135.1 pm

Substituting the value of rF in equation (1)
rNa+ + 135.1 = 231
rNa+ = 95.9 pm

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 19.
Explain why cations are smaller and anions are larger than their parent atoms?
Answer:
The ionic radius of a cation is smaller than the parent atom because the loss of one or more electrons increases the effective nuclear charge. As a result, force of attraction of the nucleus for the electron increases as a result, the electron comes closer to the nucleus.

In contrast, the ionic radii of anion is always greater than the parent atom because addition of one or more electrons decreases the effective nuclear charge. As a result, force of attraction of the nucleus for the electrons, decreases and ionic radii increase.

Question 20.
The ionisation energy of boron is less than that of beryllium. Explain.
Answer:
It is due to the fact that beryllium with completely filled 2s orbital, is more stable than partially filled valence shell electronic configuration of boron. (2s2, 2p1).

Question 21.
How does ionisation energy vary in a group?
Answer:
The ionisation energy decreases down a group. Down a group, the valence electron occupies new shells, the distance between the nucleus and the valence electron increases. So, the nuclear forces of attraction on valence electron decreases and hence ionisation energy also decreases down a group.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 22.
Explain the influence of shielding effect as the ionisation energy of elements.
Answer:
Down a group, the number of inner shell electron increases which in turn increases the repulsive force exerted by them on the valence electrons, i.e., the increased shielding effect caused by the inner electrons decreases the attractive force acting on the valence electron by the nucleus. Therefore the ionisation energy decreases.

Question 23.
Define‘electron affinity’.
Answer:
It is defined as the amount of energy released (required in thg case noble gases) when an electron is added to the valence shell of an isolated neutral gaseous atom in its ground state to form its anion. It is expressed in kJ mol-1.
A + e → A + EA

Question 24.
How does electron of affinity vary in a period? Explain the cause for variation.
Answer:
Generally electron affinity increases along a period, i.e., the amount of energy released will be more. This is due to an increase in the nuclear charge and decreases in size of atom.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 25.
How does electron affinity vary in a group? Explain the cause for the variation.
Answer:
Down a group, generally the electron affinity decreases. It is due to increase in atomic size and the shielding effect of inner shell electrons.

Question 26.
Oxygen an fluorine have lower electron affinity, then sulphur and chlorine in their respective groups. Explain, why?
Answer:
The sizes of oxygen and fluorine atoms are comparatively small and they have high electron density. Moreover, the extra electron added to oxygen and fluorine has to be accommodated in the 2p orbital which is relatively compact compared to the 3p orbital of sulphur and chlorine. So, oxygen and fluorine have lower electron affinity than their respective group elements sulphur and chlorine.

Question 27.
Explain Pauling method of determining electronegativity of element.
Answer:
Pauling, assigned arbitrary value of electronegativities for hydrogen and fluorine as 2.2 and 4.0 respectively. Based on this, the electronegativity values for other elements can be calculated using the following expression
A – χB) = 0.182 \(\sqrt{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{AB}}-\left(\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{AA}} \times \mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{BB}}\right)^{1 / 2}}\)K Where EAB, EAA and EBB are the bond dissociation energies of AB, A2 and B2 molecules respectively.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 28.
Explain how electronegativity values are used to predict the nature of the bond between two atoms between A and B.
Answer:
(i) If the difference, χA – χB = 0 i.e., χA = χB the bond is purely covalent and non-polar.
eg: H2, Cl2, O2 and N2 molecules.
(ii) The difference χA – χB is small i.e., χA > χB, the bond is polar covalent.
(iii) The difference χA – χB = 1.7, the bond is 50% covalent and 50% ionic.
(iv) The difference χA – χB is very high, the bond is more ionic and less covalent. The percentage ionic character may be calculated by using the formula. % ionic character =16 (χA – χB) + 3.5 (χA – χB)2.

Question 29.
Bring out the difference between electron gain enthalpy and electro negativity.
Answer:

Electro negativityElectron gain enthalpy
It is the tendency of an atom in the combined state i.e., in a molecule to attract the shared pair of electrons.It is the tendency of an isolated atom to attract electrons.
It is a relative number and cannot be determined by experiments.It can be measured experimentally.
It has no units but merely a numberIts units are in eV / atom or kJ / mol or kcal / mol.
Electronegativity of an element is not constant and its value depends on the element to which it is covalently b onded.It is a constant quantity for a particular element.
The periodicity is regular in a period but not regular in a group.Its periodicity is not regular both in a period and group

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 30.
Explain the term valence or oxidation state. How does it vary in a period and in group?
Answer:
The combining capacity of an element is termed as the valency. It is linked to with the number of electrons present in the outermost energy shell of the atom. The electrons present in the outermost shell are known as valence electrons.

In the case of representative elements, the valency is generally is equal to the number of valence electrons or equal to eight – minus the number of electrons. However, transition metals show variable valency involving valence electrons and ‘tf electrons of the penultimate energy level. The common valency of transition metals are 2 or 3. The term oxidation state is now used in place of valency.

Question 31.
What do you understand by the term ‘variable oxidation state’? Which elements in a group or period exhibit variable oxidation state?
Answer:
If an element have more than are valence or oxidation state, it is said to exhibit variable oxidation state, eg: Fe exhibits oxidation state of 2 and 3 in ferrous and ferric compounds respective. Most of the elements in group 15 which have valence electron 5, show two valencies, 3 and 5. Similarly, transition and inner transition metals also show variable oxidation states.

Question 32.
Explain why noble gases are inert?
Answer:
The noble gases having completely filled electronic configuration neither accept nor lose their electron readily and hence they are chemically inert in nature.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 33.
The ionisation energy is directly related to metallic character. Explain the variation of metallic-character along the period and in the group.
Answer:
Metallic nature decreases in a period while non-metallic character increases. Metallic nature increases in a group while non-metallic character decreases.

Question 34.
Explain the nature of oxides formed by metals and non-metals.
Answer:
Generally metallic oxides are basic in nature
white non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
Na2O ⇒ basic
Cl2O7 ⇒ acidic

Question 35.
How does the basic and acidic nature of oxides vary along a period and in group?
Answer:
The basic nature of the oxide decreases in a period while acidic nature increases. In a group, basic nature of the oxide increases, while acidic nature decreases.

Question 36.
How is ionisation energy related td the metallic character? How does the basic nature of hydroxides of alkaline earth metals very down the group?
Answer:
Metals have low ionisation energy and highly electropositive. As the ionisation energy of the metals decreases down the group, the electro positive character of elements increases. The basic character of hydroxides of alkaline earth metals increases down the group.

Be(OH)2Mg(OH)2Ba(OH)2Sr(OH)2Ba(OH)2
amphotericweaklyStronglyStronglyStrongly
basicbasicbasicbasic

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 37.
Which of the following species will have the largest and smallest size? Mg, Mg+2, Al, Al+3
Answer:
Mg and A1 belong to the same period.

MgAl
Atomic Number1213

Atomic size decreases from left to right across a period. Thus Mg is a larger atom than Al. Cation is smaller than the neutral atom. Mg+2 is smaller than Mg and Al+3 is smaller than Al. Thus, Al+3 ion is the smallest and Mg is the largest in size among the given species.

Question 38.
Given the formula of the species that will be isoelectronic with the following atoms or ions.
(i) Ar (ii) F (iii) K+ (iv) S-2
Iso electronic species are those which have the same number of electrons.
(i) Ar has 18 electrons. Therefore, the species P-3, S-2, Cl, K+, Ca+2 are isoelectronic with Ar.
(ii) F has 10 electrons. Therefore the species, N-3,O-2, Ne, Na+, Mg+2 are isoelectronic with F.
(iii) K+ has 18 electrons. Therefore, the species P-3, S-2, Cl, Ar, C+2 are isoelectronic with K+.
(iv Sr+2 has 36 electrons. Therefore Br, Kr, Rb+ etc are isoelectronic with Sr+2.

Question 39.
Account for the difference in size of Na+ (95 pm) and Mg+2 (65pm) both of which have the same noble gas configuration.
Answer:
The nuclear charge in Mg+2 is more than Na+ and therefore electrons are drawn more closely and hence size decreases.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 40.
Which of the following pairs of elements would you expect to have higher ionisation energy? (i) Cl or F (ii) S or Cl (iii) Na or Ne (iv) Ar or Kr.
Answer:
(i) Fluorine is expected to have higher first IE than chlorine because, it is smaller in size than chlorine and IE decreases down the group.
(ii) Chlorine is expected to have higher IE than sulphur, because it has a smaller size than sulphur. IE decreases along the period.
(iii) Neon is expected to have higher IE because it has completely filled orbitals from which removal of electron is difficult.
(iv) Argan is expected to have higher IE, because it has completely filled orbitals.

Question 41.
(i) Why chlorine has higher electron affinity than fluorine?
Answer:
The size of fluorine atom is small compared to chlorine and the electron density around the nucleus es high. This resists the addition of electron, hence the electron affinity of fluorine is less than that of chlorine atom.

(ii) Why Has nitrogen has higher Ist ionisation potential than oxygen atom?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of nitrogen and oxygen are as follows:
N = 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1;
O = 1s2 2s1 2px2 2py1 2pz1
In, nitrogen, ‘p’ orbitals are half filled and hence possess a stable electronic configuration. It requires more energy to remove an electron. Hence IE of nitrogen is higher than that of oxygen which has a less stable electronic configuration.

(iii) Why has magnesium higher I.E. than aluminium atom?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of Mg and Al are as follows:
Mg: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 ;
Al: 1s2,2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1.
It is more difficult to remove an electron from 3s orbital in comparison to 3p orbital because 3s electrons are closer to the nucleus. Further 3s electrons are paired and 3p is simply occupied. Hence IE of. Mg is higher than that of Al.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 42.
Which of the following will have the most electron gain enthalpy and which the least electronegative? P, S, Cl, F Explain your answer.
Answer:
Electron gain enthalpy becomes more negative down a period. Cl > S > P. Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative down a group. However, adding an electron to 2p orbital leads to greater repulsion due to high electron density than adding an electron to a larger 3p orbital. Hence, chlorine is more negative electi on gain enthalpy than fluorine. Therefore, phosphorous has least electron gain enthalpy and chlorine has the most electron – gain enthalpy.

Question 43.
Show by chemical reaction, with water, that Na2O is a basic oxide and Cl2O7 is an acidic oxide.
Answer:
Na2O reacts with water and forms a base i.e, sodium hydroxide.
Na2O + H2O > 2NaOH

Cl2O7 reacts with water and forms perchloric acid.
Cl2O7 + H2O → 2HClO4

Question 44.
The first (IE1) and the second (IE2) ionisation Enthalpies of three elements, I, II and III are given below:

IIIIII
IE14035491142
IE2264010602080

Identify the element which is likely to be
(i) a non-metal
(ii) an alkali metal
(iii) an alkaline earth metal.
Answer:
(i) III is a non-metal because Ist and IInd ionisation enthalpies are high.
(ii) I is an alkali metal because the second ionisation enthalpy is high. In alkali metals the second electron is removed from complete octet.
(iii) II is an alkaline earth metal because these elements have two electrons in the outermost shell. First and second IE’s are in almost 1 : 2 ratio.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 45.
Give the IUPAC names and symbols of the following elements with atomic numbers 123, 126, 134, 148, 150.
Answer:

Atomic numberNameSymbol
123UnbitriumUbt
126UnbihexicumUbh
134UntriquadiumUtq
148UnquadoctiumUqo
150UnpentniliumUpn

Question 46.
What is the basic difference in approach between Mendeleev’s periodic law and modem periodic law.
Answer:
Mendeleev’s periodic law based on the properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights while the modem periodic law based on thp properties of elements are periodic function of atomic numbers.

Question 47.
In terms of period and group where would you locate the element with Z = 114.
Answer:
The lastmember ofthe sixth period is the element Radon with atomic number 86. Therefore, the element with atomic number 114 belongs to the seventh period. In the seventh period, 7s, 5f 6d and 6p orbitals are filled. Is, 5/and 6d orbitals filling corresponds to 26 elements i.e., and member will be with atomic number 112. It means the element in question is the second 6p element; i.e., it belongs to group 10 + 4 = 14.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 48.
Assign the position of the element having outer electronic configuration.
(i) ns2 np4 for n = 3.
(ii) (n – 1 )d2 ns2 for n = 4. .
(iii) (n – 2)f7 (n – 1)d1 ns2 for n = 6 in the periodic table.
Answer:
(i) The electronic configuration ofthe element is 3s2 3p4. Thus the element belongs to 3rd period and group 16.
(ii) The electronic configuration of the element is 3d2 4s2. Thus the element belongs to 4th period and group 4.
(iii) The electronic configuration of the element is 4f7 5d1 6s2. i.e., it belongs to 6th period and group 3 (lanthanides).

Question 49.
What is the significance of the terms “isolated gaseous atom” and “ground state” while defining ionisation energy and electron affinity?
Answer:
(i) Isolated atom means a single gaseous atom free from other atoms. No energy should be utilised to separate it from other atoms. It is an ideal situation which is difficult to achieve. However, the inter atomic distances are reduced to minimum by carrying out the measurement of IE at a low pressure.

(ii) ‘Ground state’ means that the atom must be present in the most stable state, i.e., in the lowest’energy state possible for the atom.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 50.
Among the second period elements, the actual ionisation energies are in the order Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne Explain – Why?
(i) Be has higher IE than Boron.
(ii) Oxygen has lower IE than nitrogen and – fluorine.
Answer:
(i) The electronic configuration of Be and B are Be = 1s2 2s2; B = 1s2 2s2 2p1

In Be, the electron is removed from completely filled orbital (2s) while in boron, from 2p sub shell. 2s electrons are more strongly bond to the nuoleus than 2p electron and therefore more energy is required to remove a 2s electron than 2p electron. Consequently, Be has higher first IE than boron.

(ii) In nitrogen, all the ‘p’ orbitals are singly occupied. Thus it is a stable arrangement compared to oxygen. As a result, the removal of an electron from nitrogen requires more energy than the removal of an electron from oxygen atom. Then, nitrogen has higher IE than oxygen.

Question 51.
What are the factors due to which the ionisation energy of the main group elements tends to decrease down the group?
Answer:
(i) Atomic size:
Atomic size increases due to addition of a new energy level This decreases the force of attraction and consequently ionisation enthalpy decreases.
(ii) Screening effect:
Due to increase of inner electrons, the shielding effect increases which reduces force of attraction towards nucleus and hence IE decreases.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 52.
Would you expect the second electron gain enthalpy of oxygen as positive, more negative, or less negative than the first. Justify your answer.
Answer:
The second electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is positive. When an electron is added to neutral oxygen atom, a monovalent anion (O) is formed and energy is released, i.e. first electron gain enthalpy is negative. When the electron is added to form O-2 anion, there is a lot of electrostatic repulsion as both O anion and the electron. To overcome their repulsion energy is absorbed. Thus, the second IE of oxygen is positive.

O(g) + e → O(g) – 141.0 kJ mol-1
O(g) + e → O-2(g) + 780 kJ mol-1

Question 53.
The energy of an electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is -2.18 × 10-18 J. Calculate the ionisation energy of atomic hydrogen in J mol-1.
Answer:
IE = E – En
= 0 – (-2.18 × 10-18)
= 2.18 × 10-18 J
Ionisation energy per mole = 2.18 × 10-18 × 6.023 × 1023
= 1.313 × 106 J
(2.18 × 10-18 J is IE for one electron. I.E. per mole of electron, it has to be multiplied by Avogadro Number).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 54.
Calculate the screening constants of alkali metals for valency electrons.
Answer:
Li (2, 1) = 2 × 0.85 = 1.7
Na (2, 8, 1) = 8 × 0.85 + 2 × 1 = 8.8
K (2, 8, 8, 1) = 8 × 0.85 + 10 × 1 = 16.8
Rb (2, 8, 18, 8, 1) = 8 × 0.85 + 28 × 1 = 34.8
CS (2, 8, 18, 18, 8, 1) = 8 × 0.85 + 46 × 1 = 52.8

Question 55.
Calculate the screening constants of members of second period for valency electrons.
Answer:
Li (2, 1) = 2 × 0.85 = 1.7
Be (2, 2) = 2 × 0.35 + 2 × 0.85 = 2.05
B(2, 3) = 2 × 0.35 + 2 × 0.85 = 2.40
C (2, 4) = 3 × 0.35 + 2 × 0.85 = 2.75
N(2, 5) = 4 × 0.35 + 2 × 0.85 = 3.10
0 (2, 6) = 5 × 0.35 + 2 × 0.85 = 3.45
F (2, 7) = 6 × 0.35 + 2 × 0.85 = 3.80
Ne (2, 8) = 7 × 0.35 + 2 × 0.85 = 4.15

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 56.
Calculate the screening constant in Zinc for (i) 4s electron, (ii) for a 3d electron. The electronic configuration of Zinc (30) is (1s)2 (2s, 2p)8 (3s, 3p)8 (3d10) (4s)2.
Answer:
(i) σ = 1 × 0.35 + 18 × 0.85 + 10 × 1 = 25.65
(ii) σ = 9 × 0.35 + 18 × 1.0 = 21.15

Question 57.
Given the bond lengths of H2, Cl2, C – C bond in diamond, Si – C bond in carborundum and C – Cl bond in CCl4 are 0.74, 1.9, 1.54, 1.93 and 1.76 Å respectively, find the covalent radius of hydrogen., chlorine, carbon in diamond, silicon and carbon in CCl4.
Answer:
(i) Bond length dH – H) in hydrogen molecule = 0.74 Å

∴ Covalent radius of hydrogen = \(\frac{d_{\mathrm{H}-\mathrm{H}}}{2}\) = \(\frac{0.74}{2}\) = 0.37 Å

(ii) Bond length (dCl – Cl) in chlorine molecule = 1.98 Å
Covalent radius of chlorine = \(\frac{d_{\mathrm{Cl}-\mathrm{Cl}}}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1.98}{2}\) = 0.99 Å

(iii) Bond length (C – C) in diamond = 1.54 Å
∴ Covalent radius of carbon = \(\frac{1.54}{2}\) = 0.77 Å

(iv) Bond length of (dsi – C) in carborundum = 1.93 Å
dsi – C = rsi + rc
1.93 = rsi + 0.77 Refer (iii)
rsi = 1.93 – 0.77 = 1.16 Å

(v) Bond length (dC – Cl) in CCl4 = 1.76 Å ,
dC – Cl = dC – dCl
1.76 = rC + 0.99 Refer (ii)
rC = 1.76 – 0.99 = 0.77 Å

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
An element X belongs to fourth period and fifteenth group of the periodic table. Which one of the following is true regardmg the outer electronic configuration of X? It has:
(a) Partly filled ‘d’ orbitais and completely filled ‘s’ orbitais.
(b) Complete’y filled ‘s’ orbitais and completely filled ‘p’ orbitals.
(c) Completely filled ‘s’ orbitais and half filled ‘p’ orbitals.
(d) Half filled ‘d’ orbitais and completely filled ‘s’ orbitals.
Answer:
(c) Completely filled ‘s’ orbitais and half filled ‘p’ orbitals.
Hint:
In the fourth period three subshells (i.e., 4s, 3d, 4p) are progressively filled in the increasing order of energy (4s < 3d < 4p). After filling up of 4s subshell with 2 electrons and 3d subshell with 10 electrons, the filling of 4p subshell begins from group 13 to 18. In the 15th, three 4p orbitals are completely filled. Thus, the outer electronic configuration of X is 4s2 4px1 4py1 4pz2. i.e., option (c) is correct.

Question 2.
Element with atomic number 56 belongs to which block?
(a) s
(b) p
(c) d
(d) f
Answer:
(a) s

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 3.
Gadolinium belong to ‘4f’ series. Its atomic j number is 64. Which of the following I is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?
(a) [Xe] 4f9 5s1
(b) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
(c) [Xe] 4f6 5d2 6s2
(d) [Xe] 4f8 d2
Answer:
(b) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2

Question 4.
The number of d- electrons in Fe+2 (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which j one of the following?
(a) electron in Fe (Z = 26)
(b) p – electron in Ne (Z = 10)
(c) s – electron in Mg (Z = 12)
(d) p – electron in Cl (Z = 17)
Answer:
(d) p – electron in Cl (Z = 17)
Hint:
EC of Fe (Z = 26) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 4s2

(a) EC of Fe+2 = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6
It has 6 ‘d’ – electrons.

(b) EC of Ne (Z = 10) = 1s2 2s2 2p6
It has 6 ‘p’ – electrons.

(c) EC of Mg (Z = 12) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
It has 6(2 + 2 + 2) ‘s’ – electrons.

(d)EC of Cl (Z = 17) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
It has 11 ‘p’ – electrons.
Thus, Fe+2 has six ‘d’ electron. Hence option (d) is correct.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 5.
Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl the order of increasing atomic radii is:
(a) Mg < Ca < Cl < P
(b) Cl < P < Mg < Ca
(c) P < Cl < Ca < Mg
(d) Ca < Mg < P < Cl
Answer:
(b) Cl < P < Mg < Ca
Hint:
Arranging the elements: Ca, Mg, P and Cl in different groups and periods in increasing order of their atomic numbers.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements 2

(i) Since atomic radii increase from top to bottom in a group, therefore, atomic radius of Ca is more than that of Mg i.e., Mg < Ca.

(ii) Since atomic radii decrease along a period, atomic radii Mg, P, and of Cl decrease in i the order Mg > P > Cl combining these two trends, the atomic radii increase in the order Cl < P < Mg < Ca.

Question 6.
The ionic radii (in Å) of N3, O-2 and F are respectively:
(a) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
(b) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
(c) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
(d) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
Answer:
(a) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
Hint:
N-3 = (7 + 3 = 10); O-2 (8 + 2=10); F(9 + 1 = 10)
Thus these are isoelectronic ions. Among the isoelectronic ions, greater the negative charge, larger is the ionic radius. Thus ionic radii decrease in the order N-3 > O-2 > F i.e., 1.71 > 1.40 > 1.36

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 7.
The species Ar, K+ and Ca+2 contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?
(a) Ca+2 < K+ < Ar
(b) K+ < Ar < Ca+2
(c) Ar < K+ < Ca+2
(d) Ca+2 < Ar < K+
Answer:
(a) Ca+2 < K+ < Ar
Hint:
Among isoelectronic species, higher the +ve charge smaller is the radius while neutral species have larger radius.

Question 8.
Among the following which one has highest cation to anion ratio?
(a) CsI
(b) CsF
(c) LiF
(d) NaF
Answer:
(b) CsF
Hint:
Amongst alkali metal cations (i.e, Cs+, Li+, Na+)Cs+ has the largest size and among halides (F, I) fluoride ion has the smallest size. Therefore, the ratio Cs+ to F is the highest.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 9.
The ionisation potential ofNais 5.48 eV. The ionisation potential of K will be:
(a) the same as Na
(b) 4.34 eV
(c) 5.68 eV
(d) 10.88 eV
Answer:
(b) 4.34 eV
Hint:
Since ‘K’ is larger than Na, its ionisation potential is smaller than that of Na. i.e., 4.34 eV is smaller than 5.48.

Question 10.
The first ionisation potential (in eV) of Be and B respectively are:
(a) 8.29, 9.32
(b) 9.32, 8.29
(c) 9.32, 9.32
(d) 8.29, 8.29
Answer:
(b) 9.32, 8.29
Hint:
Beryllium (1s1 2s2) has higher IE than boron (1s2 2s2 2p) because the last electron in Be has to be removed from fully filled 2s orbital while in boron (1s2 2s2 2p1) the last electron is to be removed from a less tightly held up 2p electron.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 11.
In the following the element with the highest ionisation energy is:
(a) [Ne] 3s2 3p1
(b) [Ne] 3s2 3p2
(c) [Ne] 3s2 3p3
(d) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
Answer:
(b) [Ne] 3s2 3p2
Hint:
Due to greater stability of half filled 3p orbitals, the element with configuration (b) has the highest I.E.

Question 12.
The increasing order of the first ionisation enthalpy of the elements B, P, S and F (lowest first) is:
(a) B < P < S < F
(b) B < S < P < F
(c) F < S < P < B
(d) P < S < B < F
Ans:
(b) B < S < P < F
Hint:
B and F lie in the second period while P and S lie in the third period. Because of higher effective nuclear charge, the first IE of P and S are higher than B but lower than F. Among P and S, P has higher IE due to half filled configuration. Thus the over all order is B < S < P < F.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 13.
In which case, effective nuclear charge is minimum?
(a) Be
(b) Be+2
(c) Be+3
(d) all
Answer:
(a) Be
Hint:
Higher the number of electrons in the extra nuclear part (Be = 4, Be+2 = 2; Be+3 = 1) lower is the force of attraction of the nucleus on the valence electrons and hence, lower is the effective nuclear charge.

Question 14.
Which electronic configuration of an element has abnormally high difference between second and third ionisation energy?
(a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
(b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1
(c) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
(d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
Answer:
(d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
Hint: The element which has two electrons in the valence shell has the highest IE, because, the third electron has to be lost from inert gas core.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 15.
The following table shows the successive molar ionisation energy (kJ mol-1) of five elements A to E. Which of two elements are most likely to be in the same group of the periodic table.
Element Ionisation energy (kJ mol-1)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements 3

(a) C and D
(b) D and E
(c) B and D
(d) B and E
Answer:
(d) B and E
Hint:
In both elements B and E, first IE is quite low but IE2 is very large. This means after the loss of first electron, same stable configuration is attained. Therefore both these belong to the same group.

Question 16.
Electron affinity is positive when:
(a) O changes to O
(b) O changes to C-2
(c) O changes to O+
(d) electron affinity is always negative
Answer:
(a) O changes to O
Hint:
Since electron affinity is negative of electron gain enthalpy, therefore electron affinity is positive when O changes to O.

Question 17.
The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy is:
(a) + 2.55 eV
(b) – 2.55 eV
(c) – 5.1 eV
(d) – 10.2 eV
Answer:
(c) – 5.1 eV
Hint:
Electron gain enthalpy = ~ (Ionisation enthalpy) = – (5.1) eV = – 5.1 eV

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 18.
Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with ’ negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl?
(a) S < O < Cl < F
(b) Cl < F < O < S
(c) O < S < F < Cl
(d) F < S < O < Cl
Answer:
(c) O < S < F < Cl
Hint:
Due to greater e electronegativity of halogens, over elements of group 16, the electron gain enthalpies of halogens (F and Cl) are more negative than the corresponding elements of grou 16 (O and S). Further, due to small size of oxygen and fluorine inter electronic repulsions are more than S and Cl. Thus the electron sain enthalpy increase in the order. ,
O(- 141 kJ) < S(-200 kJ) < F(- 328 kJ) < Cl (-349 kJ)

Question 19.
The element with positive electron gain enthalpy is:
(a) hydrogen
(b) sodium
(c) oxygen
(d) neon
Answer:
(d) neon
Hint:
In inert gases, all orbitals are completely filled. Therefore they have tendency to accept an electron and hence their electron gain enthalpies are positive.

Question 20.
Which of the following species has the highest electron affinity?
(a) F
(b) O
(c) O
(d) Na+
Answer:
(b) O
Hint:
Energy is released when ‘O’ accepts an electron. But energy has to be spent when an electron adds to F, O and Na+. Hence (b) is correct.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 21.
The highest electron affinity is shown by:
(a) O
(b) F
(c) Cl2
(d) F2
Answer:
(a) O
Hint:
The molecules, F2 and Cl2 and F all have stable noble gas configurations. Therefore electron gain enthalpy is zero. However O has one electron less than noble gas configuration. Therefore relative gain enthalpy is highest.

Question 22.
Electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order:
(a) C, N, Si, P
(b) N, Si, C, P
(c) Si, P, C, N
(d) P, Si, N, C
Answer:
(c) Si, P, C, N
Hint:
Electronegativity increases along a period and decreases down the group. Nitrogen is more electronegative than carbon and phosphorous is less electronegative than nitrogen and more electronegative than silicon. Hence Si < P < C < N.

Question 23.
Consider the following elements: B, Al, Mg and K. The correct order of their metallic character is: (a) B > Al > Mg > K
(b) Al > Mg > B > K
(c) Mg > Al > K > B
(d) K > Mg > Al > B
Answer:
(b) Al > Mg > B > K
Hint:
Metallic character decreases along a period. Thus, K > Mg > Al. In a group, metallic character increases i.e., Al > B.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 24.
In which of the following options, order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?
(1) Al+ < Ag+2 < Na+ < F (increasing ionic size)
(2) B < C < N < O (increasing ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(4) Li < Na < K < Pb (increasing metallic radius)
(a) 2, 3
(b) 1, 3
(c) 3, 4
(d) 1, 4
Ans :
(a) 2, 3
Hint:
The ionic size increases as positive charge on cation decreases or the negative charge on the anion increases. Hence (1) is correct. Due to greater stability of half filled electronic configuration of N, its ionisation enthalpy is higher than ‘O’, i.e., (2) is incorrect. Due to strong inter electronic repulsions in the small sized F, the negative electron gain enthalpy is lower than that pf chlorine. Here (3) is incorrect.

The metallic character increases as the size of the metal atom increases. Hence (4) is correct. Thus the incorrect options are (2) and (3).

Question 25.
Ionic radii vary in:
(1) inversely proportional to the effective nuclear charge
(2) inversely proportional tò the square of the effective nuclear charge.
(3) direct proportion to the screening effect.
(4) direct proportion to the square of screening effect.
Choose the correct statements:
(a) 1, 2
(b) 1, 3
(c) 2, 3
(d) 2, 4
Ans :
(b) 1, 3
Hint:
Ionic radius decreases as the effective nuclear charge increases. Hence (1) is correct. Ionic radius increases as screening effect increases. Hence (3) is correct.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 26.
Match the entities in column I with appropriate entities in column II.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements 4

(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (B)
(c) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (B)
Answer:
(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
Hint:
As we move from left to right nuclear charge increases and hence atomic radius decreases.

Question 27.
Electronic configurations of same elements is given in column I and their electron gain enthalpies are given in column II. Match the electronic configurations with electrons gain enthalpy.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements 5

(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (A), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(d) (i) – (C), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (D)
Ans :
(a) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
Hint:
(i) The electronic configuration corresponds to noble gas. Noble gases have positive value of electron gain enthalpy i.e 48 kJ mo-1.
(ii) The electronic configuration corresponds to alkali metal. Alkali metals have small negative electron gain enthalpy, i.e., -53 kJ mol-1
(iii) The electronic configuration corresponds to a halogen. Halogens have high negative electron gain enthalpy i.e., -328 kJ mol-1.
(iv) The electronic configuration corresponds to group 6 (i.e., oxygen). Group 6 elements have ion electron gain enthalpy than group 7 element, i.e., -141 kJ mol-1.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 28.
In the following questions, one of the option is totally different from the rest of the options. Identify the options.
(a) oxygen
(b) sulphur
(c) polonium
(d) astatine
Ans :
(d) astatine
Hint:
Astatine is a 7th group element while others are 6th group elements.

Question 29.
Which pair of elements with atomic numbers represent ‘s’ block elements.
(a) 7, 15
(b) 5, 12
(c) 9, 18
(d) 4, 14
Answer:
(d) 4, 14

Question 30.
One of the following have different number of electrons in its atom. Identify that atom.
(a) N+
(b) O-2
(c) F
(d) Cl
Answer:
(d) Cl
Hint:
Cl have 18 electrons while all others are isoelectronic with total of 10 electrons each.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 31.
Eka- aluminium and Eka- silicon are known as:
(a) Gallium and germanium
(b) Aluminium and silicon
(c) Iron and sulphur
(d) Carbon and silicon
Answer:
(a) Gallium and germanium

Question 32.
Choose the isoelectronic species from arrange the following:
Atomic number of Cs = 55, Br = 35.
(a) Cs+ and Br
(b) Ca+2, Mg+2
(c) N-3, F
(d) Al+3,Cl
Answer:
(c) N-3, F

Question 33.
In which of the following, the atomic radius of the first element is lesser than the second?
(a) B and C
(b) Al and Si
(c) Na and Mg
(d S and P
Answer:
(a) B and C
Hint:
Atomic radius decreases along the period. The order of elements in (d) is P and S. Hence sulphur has a lesser atomic radius than P.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 34.
Assertion :
Helium and beryllium have similar outer electronic configuration of the type ns2.
Reason :
Both are chemically inert.
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) if assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) if both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) if assertion is true, but reason is false.

Question 35.
Assertion:
The element with electronic configuration [Xe]54 4/1 5d1 6s2 is a block element.
Reason :
The last electron enters the ‘cf orbital.
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) if assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) if both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(d) if both assertion and reason are false.

Question 36.
Assertion:
When atoms of the first transition series ionise, the ‘4s’ electrons are ionised before the ‘3d’ electrons.
Reason :
The energy of ‘3d’ electrons is lower than that of ‘4s’ electrons.
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) if assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) if both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 37.
Assertion:
Na+ and Al+3 are isoelectronic but the magnitude of the ionic radius of Al+3 is less than that of Na+.
Reason :
The magnitude of effective nuclear charge of the outer shell of electrons of Al+3 is greater than that of Na+
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct- explanation of the assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) if assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) if both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct- explanation of the assertion.

Question 38.
Assertion:
The ionisation of ‘s’ electron requires more energy than ionisation of ‘p’ electrons of the same shell.
Reason :
‘s’ electrons are closer to the nucleus than ‘p’ electrons and have more strongly bond to the nucleus.
(a) if both assertion and reason are tree and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) if assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) if both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) if both assertion and reason are tree and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 39.
Identify the wrong statement in the following:
(a) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
(b) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative change on the anion, larger is the ionic radius.
(c) Atomic radius of elements increase, as one moves down the first group of the periodic table.
(d) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of the periodic table.
Answer:
(a) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
Hint:
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge, smaller is the ionic radius is the wrong statement. Actually it should be smaller the positive charge, bigger is the ionic radius.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 40.
The incorrect statement among the following
(a) The first ionisation potential of Al is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg.
(b) The second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the second ionisation potential of Na.
(c) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg.
(d) The first ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the third ionisation potential of Al.
Answer:
(b) The second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the second ionisation potential of Na.
Hint:
∆H2 of Na is higher than that of Mg because, in case of Na, the second electron has to be removed from the noble gas core, while in the case of Mg, the removal of second electron gives the noble gas core.

Question 41.
Consider the following ionisation steps.
M(g) → M+ (g) + e ∆H = 100 eV
M(g) → M+2 (g) + 2e ∆H = 250 eV
Select the correct statement:
(a) ∆H1 of M(g) is 150 eV
(b) ∆H1 of M+(g) is 150 eV
(c) ∆H2 of M(g) is 150 eV
(d) ∆H2 of M(g) is 150 eV
Answer:
(d) ∆H2 of M(g) is 150 eV.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 42.
Following statements regarding periodic trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metals and the halogens are given. Which of these statement gives the correct picture?
(a) Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both alkali metals and halogens.
(b) In alkali metals, the reactivity increases, but in halogens, it decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.
(c) The reactivity decreases in alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in atomic number.
(d) In both alkali metals and the halogens, the chemical reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.
Answer:
(b) In alkali metals, the reactivity increases, but in halogens, it decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions

TN Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom

Question 1.
Write the values of all the four quantum numbers for all the electrons present in hydrogen and Helium atoms.
Answer:
Hydrogen atom (H):
Electronic configuration = 1s1
The four quantum number of electrons present in a hydrogen atom is
n = 1; l = 0; m = 0; s = +\(\frac{1}{2}\)
The four quantum number of two electrons present in a helium atom is
n = 1; l = 0; m = 0; s = +\(\frac{1}{2}\)
n = l; l = 0; m = 0; s = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 2.
Write the values of four quantum numbers present in the last electron in an atom having the electronic configuration.
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p1
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
Answer:
(i) The last electron is the ‘one’ electron present in ‘p’ sub level.
i.e., n = 2; l = 1; m = -1, 0, or + 1,
s = + \(\frac{1}{2}\) or – \(\frac{1}{2}\)

(ii) If the first electron present in ‘p’ subshell has the following quantum numbers.
n = 3, l = 1, m = -1, 0, (or) + 1, s = + \(\frac{1}{2}\),
the last electron has n = 3, l = 1, m = -1, 0, (or) + 1, s = – \(\frac{1}{2}\).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 3.
How many electrons are present in all subshells (fully filled) with n + l = 5?
Answer:
Subshells with n + l = 5 are 5s, 4p, 3d. Hence electrons present are 2 + 6 + 10 = 18.

Question 4.
What is the angular momentum of an electron in (i) 2s orbital (ii) 4f orbital?
Answer:
Angular momentum of electron in any orbital = \(\sqrt{l(l+1)} \times \frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
(i) for 2s orbital, l = 0
∴ angular momentum = \(\sqrt{0(0+1)} \cdot \frac{h}{2 \pi}\) = 0
(ii) for 4/orbital, l = 3
∴ angular momentum = \(\sqrt{3(3+1)} \cdot \frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
= 2√3 \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\) = √3 \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 5.
Why Pauli exclusion principle is called exclusion principle?
Answer:
This is because, according to this principle, if one electron in an atom has same particular values for the four quantum numbers, then all the other electrons in that atom are excluded from having the same set of values.

Question 6.
At what distance is the radial probability maximum for 1s orbital? What is this distance called?
Answer:
0.529 Å, Bohr radius.

Question 7.
Draw the shapes (boundary surfaces) for the following orbitals.
(i) 2px
(ii) 3dz2
(iii) 3dx2 – y2
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 8.
Bring out the similarities and dissimilarities between a 1s and 2s orbital
Answer:
Similarities:
(i) Both have similar shape.
(ii) Both have same angular momentum =\(\sqrt{l(l+1)} \frac{h}{2 \pi}\)

Dissimilarities:
(i) 1s orbital has no node while 2s orbital has one node.
(ii) Energy of 2s orbital is greater than 1s orbital.
(iii) The size of the 2s orbital is larger than 1s orbital.

Question 9.
How many radial / spherical nodes will be present in 5f orbital?
Answer:
No. of radial nodes = n – l +1 = 5 – 3 – 1 = 1.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 10.
(i) What is the common between dxy and dx2 – y2 orbitals?
(ii) What is the angle between the lobes of the above two orbitals?
Answer:
(i) (a) Both have identical shape consisting of four lobes.
(b) Lobes of dx2 – y2 lie along the x and y axes while those of dxy lie between the axes.
(ii) 45° i..e, the lobes and dxy lie at angle of 45° to the lobes of dx2 – y2.

Question 11.
For each of the following pair of hydrogen orbitals indicate which is higher in energy?
(i) 1s, 2s
(it) 2p, 3p
(iii) 3dxy, 3dyz
(iv) 3s, 3d
(v) 4f, 5s.
Answer:
(i) 2s > 1s
(ii) 3p > 2p
(iii) 3dxy > 3dyz
(iv) 3s = 3d
(v) 5s > 4f

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 12.
Which orbital in. each of the following pairs is lower in energy in a many*electron atom?
(i) 2s, 2p
(ii) 3p, 3d
(iii) 3s, 4s
(iv) Ad, 5f
Answer:
(i) 2s < 2p
(ii) 3p < 3d
(iii) 3s < 45
(iv) 4d < 5f

Question 13.
How many electrons in sulphur (z = 16) can have n + l = 3?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of sulphur is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4.
For 1s2, n + l = l + 0 = 1;
For 2p6, n + l = 2 + 1 = 3
2s2, n + l = 2 + 0 = 2;
For 3s2, n + l = 3 + 0 = 3
3p4 n + l = 3 + 1 = 4
Thus n + l = 3 for 2p6 electron and 3s2 electron = 8 electrons.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 14.
The ground state electronic configurations listed below here are incorrect. Explain what stakes have been made in each and correct the electronic configuration.
(i) Al – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1.
(ii) B = 1s2 2s2 2p5
(iii) F = 1s2 2s2 2p5
Answer:
(i) In Al, 2p should be filled before filling 3s, orbital states.
∴ correct electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 2p1
(ii) In B, total electrons = 5. Electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p1
(iii) In F, total electrons = 9. Electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p5

Question 15.
Chromium (Z = 24) and copper (Z = 29), should have the configuration.
Cr = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2
Cu = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s2
But their actual configuration are
Cr – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1 and
Cu = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1 Explain the reason.
Answer:
The reasons are:
(i) Symmetrical distribution:
3ds5 (half-filled) and 3ds10 (completely filled) one more symmetrical and hence more stable.
(ii) Exchange energy:
Electrons with parallel spins in degenerate orbitals tend to exchange their positions. As a result, energy is released. This energy is called exchange energy. Greater the energy, greater is the stability.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 16.
Give a brief account of the shapes of atomic orbitals.
Answer:
The shape of an atomic orbital is found by finding, the probability (ψ2) of the electron at different points arotmd the nucleus and representing the density of the nucleus. Same orbitals are found to have a region of space where the probability of finding electron is zero. This is called a node.
(i) All ‘s’ orbitals are spherical in shape.
(ii) All ‘p’ orbitals are dumb-bell in shape.
The three ‘p’ orbitals differ in orientation. They lie along the axes and called px, py and pz orbitals.
(iii) All ‘d’ orbitals have clover-leaf shaped with four lobes. Three have lobes between axes and are called dxy, dyz, dxz orbitals. The fourth lobe is along the axes and is called dx2 – y2. The fifth has two lobes along V axis and dough-nut shape in the centre and is called dz2.

Question 17.
Calculate the wavelength of the radiations emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom undergo transition from 4th energy level to the 2nd energy level.
Answer:
For hydrogen atom

En = \(\frac{-21.8 \times 10^{-19}}{n^{2}}\) J atom (or)

En = \(\frac{-13.6}{n^{2}}\) eV atom-1 (1 eV = 1.6 × 10-9 J)
Energy is emitted when an electron jumps from n = 4 to n = 2 will be given by
∆E = E4 – E2
= 21.8 × 10-19 \(\left[\frac{1}{2^{2}}-\frac{1}{4^{2}}\right]\)
= 21.8 × 10-19 × \(\frac{3}{16}\)
= 10-19 J
= 4.0875 × 10-19 J

The wave length corresponding to this transition is

E = hυ = h\(\frac{c}{\lambda}\) or λ = \(\frac{h c}{E}\)
= \(\frac{\left(6.620 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{JS}\right) \times\left(3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)}{4.0875 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{~J}}\)
= 4.863 × 10-7 m
= 4863 Å or 486.3 nm

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 18.
Calculate the wave length of an electron (mass = 9.1 × 10-31 kg) moving with a velocity of 103ms-1 (h = 6.6 × 10-34 kg m2 sec-1).
Answer:
Given m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg;
υ = 103ms-1
h = 6.6 × 10-34 kg m2 sec-1
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
= \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^{2} \mathrm{sec}^{-1}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg} \times 10^{3} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}\)
= 7.25 × 10-7 m

Question 19.
Calculate the de Broglie wave length of an electron that has been accelerated from rest through a potential differences of 1 KV.
Answer:
Energy acquired by the electron (as kinetic energy) after being accelerated by a potential difference of 1 KV i.e., 1000 volts = 1000 eV
= 1000 × 1.602 × 10-19 J
= 1.602 × 10-16 J (1 eV = 1.602 × 10-19 J)
Energy in Joules = charge on the electron in coulombs × potential difference in volts.
i.e., Kinetic Energy (KE) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
= 1.602 × 10-16 J or \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.1 × 10-31 v2
v2 = 3.521 × 1014 or
v = 1.88 × 10-1 ms-1
∴ λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
= \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^{2} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg} \times 1.88 \times 10^{-1} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}\)
= 3.87 × 10-11 m.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 20.
The kinetic energy of a sub atomic particle is 5.58 × 10-25 J. Calculate the frequency
of the particle wave. (Planck’s constant h = 6.626 × 10-34 kg m2 s-1)
Answer:
KE = \(\frac{1}{12}\) mv2 = 5.85 × 10-25 J
By de Broglie equation,
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
But λ = \(\frac{v}{\nu}=\frac{v}{\nu}=\frac{h}{m v}\) or

υ = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{h}=\frac{2 \times 5.85 \times 10^{-25} \mathrm{~J}}{6.026 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{~J}}\) = 1.77 × 109 s-1

Question 21.
A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate an electron in an atom within a distance of 0.1 Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the measurement of its velocity.
Answer:
Given Ax = 0.1 Å or 0.1 × 10-10 m or 10-11 m
h = 6.626 × 10-34 kg m2 s-1
m = 9.11 × 10-31 kg
According to uncertainty principle,

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 2

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 22.
If an electron is moving with a velocity 600ms-1 which is accurate upto 0.005 %, then calculate the uncertainty in its position. (h = 6.63 × 10-34 Js. mass of electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg)
Answer:
Velocity of the electron = 600 ms-1
Uncertainty in velocity = \(\frac{0.005}{100}\) × 600 ms-1 = 0.03 ms-1
= 3 × 10-2 ms-1
Now, (∆x) (m ∆ v)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 3

Question 23.
A golf ball has a mass of 40g and a Speed of 45 m/s. If the speed can be measured within accuracy of 2% calculate the uncertainity in position.
Answer:
Uncertainity in speed = 2 % of 40 ms-1
i.e., ∆v = \(\frac{2}{100}\) × 45 = 0.9 ms-1
Applying imcertainty principle,
∆x (m × ∆v) = \(\frac{h}{4 \pi}\)
∆x = \(\frac{h}{4 \pi \cdot m \cdot \Delta v}\)

= \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Kgm}^{2} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}}{4 \times 3.14 \times\left(40 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{Kg}\right)\left(0.9 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)}\)
= 1.46 × 10-33 m

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 24.
Calculate the kinetic energy of a moving electron which has a wavelength 4.8 pm. (mass of electron = 9.11 × 10-311 kg, h = 6.63 × 10-34 Js)
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 4

Question 25.
Two particles A and B are in motion. If the wavelength associated with particleA is 5 × 10-8 m, Calculate the wavelength associated with particle B. If its momentum is half of A.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 5

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 26.
Light of wavelength 12818Å is emitted when the electron of a hydrogen atom drops from 5th to 3rd orbit. Find the wavelength of a photon emitted when the electron falls from 3rd to 2nd orbit.
Answer:

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 6

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The speed of light is 3 × 1o17 nms-1. Which is the closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 × 1015 s-1?
(a) 10
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 75
Answer: (c)
Hint:
υ = \(\frac{c}{\lambda}\)
λ = \(\frac{c}{v}=\frac{3 \times 10^{17} \mathrm{n} \mathrm{ms}^{-1}}{6 \times 10^{15} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}}\) = 50 nm

Question 2.
The velocity of light is 3 × 108 ms-1. The wave length of violet radiation is 400 nm. The wavelength in frequency (Hz) is:
(a) 7.5 × 1014 Hz
(b) 7.5 × 1015 Hz
(c) 7.5 × 1013 Hz
(d) 7.5 × 1016 Hz
Answer: (a)
Hint: Wave length of violet radiation = 400 nm = 400 × 10-9 m.
Frequency (υ) = \(\frac{c}{\lambda}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}{400 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{~m}}\)
= 7.5 × 1014 s-1 = 7.5 × 1014 Hz

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 3.
The wave length of the electron emitted when in a hydrogen atom, electron falls from infinity to stationary state 1, would be (Rydbey constant = 1.097 × 107 m-1).
(a) 91 nm
(b) 192 nm
(c) 406nm
(d) 9.1 × 10-8 nm
Answer:(a)
Hint:
TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 7

Question 4.
The energy associated with the first orbit of He+ ion is:
(a) 8.72 × 10-18 J
(b) 8.78 × 1018 J
(c) 8.78 × 10-17 J
(d) – 8.72 10-17 J
Answer: (a)
Hint:
En = \(\frac{-2.18 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{Z}^{2}}{n^{2}}\) J/atom
For He+ ion, n = 1, Z = 2
∴ E1 = \(\frac{-2.18 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{Z}^{2}}{n^{2}}\)
= – 8.72 × 10-18 J

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 5.
The radius of the first orbit of He4 ion is:
(a) 0.027 nm
(b) 0.27 nm
(c) 2.7 nm
(d) 0.35 nm
Answer: (a)
Hint:
Radius of hydrogen like species is:
rn = \(\frac{(0.0529) n^{2}}{Z}\) nm
For He+, n = 1, Z = 2
∴ r1 = \(\frac{0.0529 \times 1^{2}}{2}\) = 0.02645 nm. = 0.027 nm

Question 6.
Given that the energy of the first Bohr about is -1312 kJ mol-1, the ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is:
(a) – 1312 kJ
(b) 1312 kJ
(c) 21.8 × 10-20 J
(d) 2.18 × 10-19 J
Answer: (b)
Hint: Ionisation energy is the energy required to remove the electron completely from the atom so as to convert it to a positive ion. This means that it is the enerev absorbed by the electron in the ground state, to jump to n = ∞.
Thus, IE = E – E1 = 0 – (- 1312 kJ) = 1312 kJ mol-1.

Question 7.
The radius of which of the following is same as that of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom?
(a) He+ (n = 2)
(b) Li+2 (n = 2)
(c) Li+2 (n = 3)
(d) Be+3 (n = 2)
Answer: (d)
Hint:
TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 8
or Bohr theory is applicable to hydrogen and hydrogen like species. Be has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2. If ‘3’ electrons are lost, Be+3 has one electron.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 8.
Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wave length 45 nm, (h = 6.63 × 1034 J, c = 3 × 108 ms-1)
(a) 6.67 × 1015 J
(b) 6.67 × 1011 J
(c) 4.42 × 10-15 J
(d) 4.42 × 10-18 J
Answer: (d)
Hint:
E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{45 \times 10^{-9}}\)
= 0.442 × 10-17 = 4.42 × 10-18 J.

Question 9.
ψ2 = 0 represents:
(a) a node
(b) an orbital
(c) angular wave function
(d) wave fimction
Answer: (a)
Hint: ψ2 is zero means probability of finding the electron in an orbital in zero, i.e., it represents a node.

Question 10.
If the de Broglie wave length of a particle of mass (m) is 100 times its velocity, then its value in terms of its mass (m) and planck’s constant (h) is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{10}\) \(\sqrt{\frac{m}{h}}\)
(b) 10 \(\sqrt{\frac{h}{m}}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{10}\) \(\sqrt{\frac{h}{m}}\)
(d) 10 \(\sqrt{\frac{m}{h}}\)
Answer: (b)
Hint: Suppose the velocity (v) = x, then de Broglie wave length = 100 x.
now (λ)= \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
∴ 100 x = \(\frac{h}{m x}\)
(or) x = \(\frac{1}{10}\) \(\sqrt{\frac{h}{m}}\)
Hence λ = 100x (or) 10 \(\sqrt{\frac{h}{m}}\)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 11.
Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following:
(a) 2l + 1
(b) 4l – 2
(c) 2n2
(d) 4l + 2
Answer: (d)
Hint: Number of sub shells = 2l + 1
Maximum number of electrons = 2 (2l+ 1) = 4l + 2 .

Question 12.
For a principle quantum number n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is:
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 9
Answer: (b)
Hint: When n = 4, l = 0, 1, 2, 3 i.e., 4s, 4p, 4d and 4f subshells.
But l = 3 is for f subshell which has 7 orbitals.

Question 13.
What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers? n = 3, l = 2, m = + 2
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (b)
Hint: n = 3, l = 2, represents ‘3d’ subshell.
It has five orbitals with magnetic quantum number -2, -1, 0, +1, +2. The value m = +2 represents one of the five ‘d’orbitals, i.e., any orbital can have a maximum of 2 electrons.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 14.
The orbital angular momentum of a ‘p’ electron is given as:
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}} \frac{h}{\pi}\)

(b) \(\sqrt{6} \frac{h}{2 \pi}\)

(c) \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2} \pi}\)

(d) \(\sqrt{3} \frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
Answer: (c)
Hint: For a ‘p’ orbital, l = 1.
Orbital angular momentum = TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 9

Question 15.
Which of the following orbitals will have zero probability of finding electrons in the yz plane?
(a) Px
(b) py
(c) Pz
(d) dyz
Answer: (a)
Hint: px orbital lies along the ‘x’ axis. Hence the probability of finding an electron is zero in the yz plane.

Question 16.
The maximum probability of finding electrons in dxy orbital is: ,
(a) along the x axis
(b) along they axis
(c) at an angle 45° from the x axis and y-axis
(d) at an angle 90° from the x axis and y-axis
Answer: (c)

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 10

Hint: The dxy orbital has lobes between x-axis and y-axis i.e., at an angle of 45° from x-axis and y- axis.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 17.
The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule are violated is:
(a) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 11
(b) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 12
(c) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 13
(d) TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 14
Answer: The correct distribution is (b)
Hint: There are six electrons to be filled in 3 orbitals. According to Pauli exclusion principle and Hund’s rule, the correct order of filling up orbitals are TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions 12

Question 18.
Which is the correct order of increasing energy of the listed orbitals in the atom of titanium? (at. no = 22)
(a) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s
(b) 3s, 3p, 4s, 4d
(c) 3s, 4s, 3p, 3d
(d) 4s, 3s, 3p, 3d
Answer: (b)
Hint: As per (n + l) rule.

Question 19.
If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be:
(a) ns → np (n – 1) d → (n- 2)f
(b) ns → (n – 2) → (n – 1) d → np
(c) ns → (n – 1) d → {n – 2)f → np
(d) ns → (n- 2) f – np → (n – 1) d
Answer: (b)
Hint: The orbitals are 6s, 6p, 5d and 4f. As per (n + l) rule, the order of filling is 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p. i.e., ns, (n – 2)f (n -1 )d, np.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 20.
The electrons identified by the quantum numbers n and l :
(1) n = 4, l = 1
(2) n = 4, l = 0
(3) n = 3, l = 2
(4) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in the order of increasing energy as:
(a) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4
(b) 3 < 4 < 2 < 1
(c) 4 < 2 < 3 < 1
(d) 2 < 4 < 1 < 3
Answer:
Hint (i) = 4p; (2) = 4s (3) = 3d; (4) = 3p

Question 21.
Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers are related to:
(a) size, orientation and shape
(b) size, shape and orientation
(c) shape, size and orientation
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)

Question 22.
The angular momentum of an electron is zero. In which orbital it may be present?
(a) 2s
(b) 2p
(c) 3d
(d) 4f
Answer: (a)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 23.
Which of the following expressions represents the electron probability function?
(a) 4πr dr ψ²
(b) 4πr² dr ψ
(c) 4πr² dr ψ²
(d) 4πr dr ψ
Answer: (d)

Question 24.
Which of the following has the largest wave length, provided all have equal velocity?
(a) carbon di oxide molecule
(b) electron
(c) ammonia molecule
(d) proton
Ans (b)
Hint :
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\) or λ α \(\frac{1}{m}\)

Question 25.
The number of planar nodes inan orbital can be determined from the value of:
(a) principal quantum number (n)
(b) azimuthal quantum number (l)
(c) both principal and magnetic quantum number (n, m)
(d) magnetic quantum number (m)
Answer: (b)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 26.
Match the quantum numbers with the information provided by these and choose the correct option out of four options given.

Column I

(Quantum number)

Column II (Information provided)
(i) Principal Quantum number(A) Orientation of the orbital
(ii) Azimuthal Quantum number(B) Energy and size of the orbital
(iii) Magnetic Quantum number(C) Spin of the electron
(iv) Spin Quantum number(D) Shape of orbital

(a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
(b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (B), (iv) – (C)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (D)
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)
Answer: (a)

Question 27.
Match the orbitals in Column I with their corresponding radical nodes given in Column II.

Column I (Orbitals)Column II (Radial nodes)
(i) 3p(A) 0
(ii) 5d(B) 1
(iii) 4f(C) 2
(iv) 4s(D) 3

(a) (i) – (C), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (A)
(b) (i) – (A), (ii) – (B), (iii) – (C), (iv) – (D)
(c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
(d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (D)
Answer: (d)
Hint:
Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 28.
Among the four options given, one is totally irrelevant to the question. Identify that.
The electronic configuration of carbon atom is 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1. This is in accordance with:
(a) Aufbau principle
(b) Hund’s rule
(c) Pauli exclusion principle
(d) Bohr model of atom
Answer: (d)

Question 29.
Select the odd man out from the following: The dual nature of matter:
(a) is discovered by de Broglie.
(b) is applicable to microscopic particles.
(c) gives the relationship between the ; wavelength of the matter wave and velocity of the particle.
(d) was verified by Schrodinger wave equation.
Answer: (d)
Hint: Wave nature of radiation was verified by Davisson and Germer’s experiment and G.P.Thomson’s experiment. Particle nature was verified by Mulliken oil drop experiment and by photo electric effect.

Question 30.
Which of the following pairs of Statements correctly explains as the basis for quantum mechanical model of atom?
(a) Bohr’s model and Rutherford model.
(b) Bohr’s model and De Broglie concept.
(c) de Broglie concept and Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
(d) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle and Bohr model.
Answer: (c)

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 31.
Which of the following sets of orbitals have the same energy in terms of their quantum numbers.
(a) n =3, l = 2, m = -1, s = +\(\frac{1}{2}\) and n = 4, l = l, m = 0, s = +\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) n = 4, l = 2, m = -2, s = –\(\frac{1}{2}\) and n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = +\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) n = 4, l = 1, m = -1, s = –\(\frac{1}{2}\) and n = 4, l = 2, m = 0, s = +\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = +\(\frac{1}{2}\) and n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer: (a)
Hint: n + l rule

Question 32.
Assertion:
orbitals do not have any spherical node.
Reason :
The number of nodes in ‘p’ orbitals is given by (n – 2) where ‘n’ is the principal quantum number.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer: (a)
Hint: The number of spherical nodes in any orbital is n – l – 1. For ‘p’ orbital n = 2; l = 1.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 33.
Assertion: Fe+3 ion is more stable than Fe+2 ion.
Reason: Fe+3 ion has more number of unpaired electrons than Fe+2 ion.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer: (b)
Hint:
The correct explanation is Fe+3 ion has more number of unpaired electrons than Fe+2 greater the number of unpaired electrons greater is its exchange energy.

Question 34.
Assertion:
The opposite lobes of a ‘p’ orbital have opposite sign whereas opposite lobes of ‘d‘ orbital have the same sign.
Reason :
The opposite lobes of ‘p’ orbitals have opposite charge, whereas the opposite lobes of ‘d‘ orbital has the same charge.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer: (c)
Hint: Correct Statement (Reason):
The (+) and (-) sign represent the sign of the wave function and not the charge.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 35.
Assertion:
The number of radial nodes in 3s and 4p orbitals are not equal.
Reason :
The number of radial nodes depend upon the values of ‘n’ and ‘l’ which are different for 3s and 4p orbitals.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are, true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer: (d)
Hint: Correct Statement (Assertion):
Number of radial nodps in any orbital is
(n – l – 1). Thus, they depend upon the values of ‘n’ and ‘l’ but for 3s, n – l – 1 = 3 – 0 – 1 = 2 and for 4p, n – l – 1 = 4 – 1 – 1 = 2.

Question 36.
Assertion:
Only principal quantum number determines the energy of an electron in an orbital of Na atoms.
Reason : For one electron system, the expression of energy is quite different from that obtained in Bohr’s theory.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer: (d)
Hint: Correct Statement (Assertion):
To find the energy of an electron in an orbital, both principal and Azimuthal quantum number required.
Correct Statement (Reason):
For one electron system, the expression is same as that obtained by Bohr theory.

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 37.
Choose the correct statement from among the following:
(a) For 2px orbital, the values of n, l and m are 2, l + 1 respectively.
(b) ‘s’ orbital has directional characteristics.
(c) The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a ‘d’ sub shell is 8.
(d) The orientation of the orbital is given by Azimuthal quantum number.
Answer: (a)

Question 38.
Choose the correct statements from the following sentences:
(a) The 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals in case of hydrogen atom have the same energy (z = 2l).
(b) Scandium is the element which has only one electron in the ‘d’ orbital.
(c) The electronic configuration of Cu+ (z = 29) is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2
(d) The energy of 2px, 2py, 2pz is in the order
2Pz > 2py > 2px
Answer: (a)

Question 39.
Choose the incorrect statement from among the following:
(a) The wave nature of electron is proved by Davisson and Germer experiment.
(b) Ĥψ = Eψ is the briefest form of Schrodinger wave equation.
(c) De Broglie’s concept is used in the construction of electron microscope.
(d) The wavelength of a moving particle is directly proportional to its velocity.
Answer: (d)
Hint: λ ∝ \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
i.e., λ is inversely proportional to its velocity (v).

Samacheer Kalvi TN State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom Important Questions

Question 40.
Choose the incorrect statement from the I following sentences:
(a) According to Bohr theory the transition n = 6 to n = 5 in the hydrogen atom will produce the least energetic photon.
(b) The angular momentum of an electron in ‘d’ orbital is given by √6h.
(c) The radius of the second orbit of Be+3 is the same as that of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom.
(d) ψ2 = 0 represents an angular wave function.
Answer: (d)
Hint: ψ2 = 0 represents a node.

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