Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Ledger Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 4 Ledger

11th Accountancy Guide Ledger Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Main objective of preparing ledger account is to ………………..
(a) Ascertain the financial position
(b) Ascertain the profit or loss
(c) Ascertain the profit or loss and the financial position
(d) Know the balance of each ledger account
Answer:
(d) Know the balance of each ledger account

Question 2.
The process of transferring the debit and credit items from journal to ledger accounts is called ………….
(a) Casting
(b) Posting
(c) Journalising
(d) Balancing
Answer:
(b) Posting

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 3.
J.F means
(a) Ledger page number
(b) Journal page number
(c) Voucher number
(d) Order number
Answer:
(b) Journal page number

Question 4.
The process of finding the net amount from the totals of debit and credit columns in a ledger is known as ……………
(a) Casting
(b) Posting
(c) Journalising
(d) Balancing
Answer:
(d) Balancing

Question 5.
If the total of the debit side of an account exceeds the total of its credit side, it means
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) Nil balance
(d) Debit and credit balance
Answer:
(b) Debit balance

Question 6.
The amount brought into the business by the proprietor should be credited to
(a) Cash account
(b) Drawings account
(c) Capital account
(d) Suspense account
Answer:
(c) Capital account

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a ledger?
Answer:
Ledger account is a summary statement of all the transactions relating to a person, asset, liability, expense or income which has taken place during a given period of time and it shows their net effect From the transactions recorded in the journal, the ledger account is prepared. Ledger is known as principal book of accounts. It is a book which contains all sets of accounts, namely, personal, real and nominal accounts. Account wise balance can be determined from the ledger. The ledger accounts are prepared based on journal entries passed.

Question 2.
What is meant by posting?
Answer:
The process of transferring the debit and credit items from the journal to the ledger accounts is called posting.

Question 3.
What is debit balance?
Answer:
If the total on the debit side of an account is higher, the balancing figure is debit balance.

Question 4.
What is credit balance?
Answer:
If the credit side of an account has higher total, the balancing figure is credit balance.

Question 5.
What is balancing of an account?
Answer:
Balancing means that the debit side and credit side amounts are totalled and the difference between the total of the two sides is placed in the amount column as ‘Balance c/d’ on the side having lesser total, so that the total of both debit and credit columns are equal.

When the total of the debit side is more than the total of credit side the difference is debit balance and is placed on the credit side as ‘By Balance c/d’. If the credit side total is more than the total of debit side, the difference is credit balance and is placed on the debit side as ‘To Balance c/d’.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between journal and ledger.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 1a

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 2.
What is ledger? Explain its utilities.
Answer:
1. Ledger account is a summary statement of all the transactions relating to a person, asset, liability, expense or income which has taken place during a given period of time and it shows their net effect.
2. It is a book which contains all sets of accounts, namely, personal, real and nominal accounts.
3. Account wise balance can be determined from the ledger.
4. The ledger accounts are prepared based on journal entries passed.

Quick information about a particular account:
Ledger account helps to get all information about a particular account like sales, purchases, machinery, etc., at a glance.

For example, where there are several transactions with a debtor, the net amount due from a debtor can be known from the ledger account.

Control over business transactions:
From the ledger balances extracted, a thorough analysis of account balances can be made which helps to have control over the business transactions.

Trial balance can be prepared:
With the balances of ledger accounts, trial balance can be prepared to check the arithmetical accuracy of entries made in the journal and ledger.

Helps to prepare financial statements:
From the ledger balances extracted, financial statements can be prepared for ascertaining net profit or loss and the financial position.

Question 3.
How is posting made from, the journal to the ledger?
Answer:
The process of transferring the debit and credit items from the journal to the ledger accounts is called posting. The procedure of posting from journal to ledger is as follows:
1. Locate the ledger account that is debited in the journal entry. Open the respective account in the ledger, if already not opened. Write the name of the account in the top middle. If already opened, locate the account from the ledger index. Now entries are to be made on the debit side of the account.

2. Record the date of the transaction in the date column on the debit side of that account.

3. Record the name of the account credited in the journal with the prefix ‘To’ in particulars column.

4. Record the amount of the debit in the ‘amount column’.

5. Locate the ledger account that is credited in the journal entry. Open the respective account in the ledger, if already not opened. Write the name of the account in the top middle. If already opened, locate the account from the ledger index. Now entries are to be made on the credit side of the account. Record the date of the transaction in the date column. Record the name of the account debited in the journal entry in the particulars column with the prefix ‘By’ and write the amount in the amount column.

Question 4.
Explain the procedure for balancing a ledger account.
Answer:
1. The debit and credit columns of an account are to be totalled separately.

2. The difference between the two totals is to be ascertained.

3. The difference is to be placed in the amount column of the side having lesser total. ‘Balance c/d’ is to be entered in the particulars column against the difference and in the date column the last day of the accounting period is entered.

4. Now both the debit and credit columns are to be totalled and the totals will be equal. The totals of both sides are to be recorded in the same line horizontally. The total is to be distinguished from other figures by drawing lines above and below the amount.

5. The difference has to be brought down to the opposite side below the total. ‘Balance b/d’ is to be entered in the particulars column against the difference brought down and in the date column, the first day of the next accounting period is entered.

6. If the total on the debit side of an account is higher, the balancing figure is debit balance and if the credit side of an account has higher total, the balancing figure is credit balance. If the two sides are equal, that account will show nil balance.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Journalise the following transactions and post them to ledger.
2016 Jan.1 Started business with cash – 10,000
5 Paid into bank – 5,000
7 Purchased goods from Ram for cash – 1,000
Answer:
Journal of Mr. X
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 1
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 2
Bank Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 3

Question 2.
Give journal entries for the following transactions and post them to ledger.
2015, March 1 Goods sold to Somu on credit – 5,000
7 Furniture purchased for cash – 300
15 Interest received – 1,800
Answer:
Journal of Mr.Y
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 4
Ledger Account
Samu Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 5
Furniture Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 6

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 3.
Pass journal entries for the following transactions and post them to ledger.
2017 Aug 1 Dharma started business with cash – 70,000
6 Cash received from Ganesan – 10,000
10 Rent paid – 3000
20 Received commission from Anand – 5000
Answer:
Journal of Mr. Dharma
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 7
Dharma Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 8
Rent Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 9

Question 4.
Record the following transactions in the journal of Banu and post them to the ledger.
2018, Sep 1 Commenced business with cash – 90,000
5 Rent received – 4,000
12 Purchased 6 tables from Gobu & Co. for cash – 6,000
Answer:
Journal of Mr. Banu
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 10
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 11

Question 5.
The following balances appeared in the books of Vinoth on Jan 1, 2018.
Assets: Cash Rs 40,000; Stock Rs 50,000; Amount due from Ram Rs 20,000
Machinery Rs 40,000 Liabilities: Amount due to Vijay Rs 10,000
Pass the opening journal entry and post them to Vinoth’s Capital account,
Answer:
Opening Entry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 12

Question 6.
Prepare Furniture A/c from the following transactions
2016, Jan 1 Furniture in hand – 2,000
1 Purchased furniture for cash – 4,000
30 Sold furniture – 400
Answer:
Furniture Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 13

Question 7.
The following balances appeared in the books of Kumaran on April 1, 2017.
Assets: Cash Rs 1,00,000; Stock Rs 40,000; Amount due from Rohit Rs 10,000;
Furniture Rs 10,000;
Liabilities: Amount due to Anusha Rs 40,000;
Kumaran’s capital Rs 1,20,000
Find the capital and show the ledger posting for the above opening balances.
Answer:
Opening Entry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 14
Stock Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 15
Furniture Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 16
Kumaran Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 17

Question 8.
Give journal entries and post them to cash account.
2016, June 1 Commenced business with cash – 1,10,000
10 Introduced additional capital – 50,000
28 Withdrawn for personal use – 20,000
Answer:
Journal Entry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 18

Question 9.
Give journal entries from the following transactions of Mohit, dealing in Textiles and post them to ledger.
2014 Aug 1 Commenced business with cash – 1,10,000
7 Opened bank account with SBI – 50,000
3 Purchased furniture for cash – 20,000
Answer:
Journal of Mohit
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 19
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 20
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 21

Question 10.
Give journal entries for the following transactions and post them to ledger.
2016, sep 1 Commenced business with cash – 80,000
7 Bought goods for cash from Roopan – 10,000
10 Purchased goods from Hema on credit – 42,000
22 Goods returned to Hema – 2,000
23 Cash paid to Hema – 10,000
Answer:
Journal of Entry Mr. Y
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 22
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 23
Purchases Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 24

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 11.
Give Journal entries for the following transactions and post them to Cash A/c and
Sales A/c.
2017, Aug 10 Sold goods and cheque received but not deposited – 30,000
14 Sold goods on credit to Gopi – 12,000
20 Received cash from Gopi – 12,000
Answer:
Journal of Entry Mr. Y
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 25
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 26

Question 12.
Journalise the transactions given below and post them to ledger.
2017 Oct. 18 Paid trade expenses – 1,000
25 Bought postage stamps – 100
30 Commission received – 6,000
30 Rent paid – 4,000
Answer:
Journal of Entries
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 27
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 28
Commission Received Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 29

Question 13.
Journalise the following transactions and prepare ledger accounts.
2015, Feb 1 Sold goods for cash – 5,000
2 Purchased goods from Kumar on credit – 4,000
5 Sold goods to Prabu on credit – 8,000
12 Received cash from Prabu – 1,200
20 Paid to Kumar – 2,000
25 Paid salary – 3,000
Answer:
Journal Entry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 30
Sales Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 31
Prabhu Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 32
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 33

Question 14.
Enter the following transactions in the books of Ganesan and post them into ledger.
2017, Oct 1 Started business with cash – 25,000
5 Deposited into bank – 12,500
10 Purchased furniture and payment by cheque – 2,000
15 Goods purchased for cash – 5,000
19 Sold goods to Vasu on credit – 4,000
22 Goods worth Rs 500 taken for personal use
Answer:
Journal of Ganesan
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 34
Ledger Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 35
Bank Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 36
Vasu Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 37

Question 15.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Arun and post them to ledger accounts
accounts.
2017, Dec 1 Arun started his business with cash – 10,000
3 Bought goods for cash – 1,500
8 Sold goods to Krishna on credit – 4,000
14 Purchased goods from Govind on credit – 2,000
25 Received cash from Krishna – 3,000
28 Cash paid to Govind – 1,000
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 38
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 39
Purchases Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 40
Sales Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 41

Question 16.
Journalise the following transactions and post them to ledger in the books of Raja.
2018, Mar 1 Sold goods to Senthil for cash – 9,000
5 Sold goods to Murali on credit – ,500
9 Cash sales – 6,000
18 Bought goods from Mani on credit – 3,200
23 Received Rs 4,000 from Murali in full settlement of his account
Answer:
Journal of Raja
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 42
Sales Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 43
Purchases Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 44

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 17.
Journalise the following transactions and post them to the ledger.
2017, July 1 Cash in hand – 50,000
5 Goods purchased by cash – 30,000
7 Insurance paid – 2,500
10 Machinery purchased for cash – 9,000
15 Interest received – 2,000
18 Goods sold for cash – 7,000
Answer:
Journal of Entry of Mr. Y
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 45
Purchases Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 46
Machinary Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 47

Question 18.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Vasu and post them to ledger accounts.
2017, Nov 1 Cash in hand Rs 1,00,000; Cash at bank: Rs 30,000
2 Vasu sold goods to Jothi for Rs 25,000 against a cheque and deposited the same in the bank
4 Received as commission Rs 5,000
8 Bank paid Rs 15,000 directly for insurance premium of Vasu.
15 Cash deposited into bank Rs 30,000
20 Cash withdrawn from bank for personal use Rs 45,000.
Answer:
Journal of Mr. Vasu
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 48
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 49
Bank Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 50
Commission Received Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 51

Question 19.
Prepare Anand’s account from the following details.
2017, July 1 Credit balance of Anand’s A/c – 4,000
15 Amount paid to Anand – 2,000
18 Goods purchased from Anand on credit – 8,000
20 Paid to Anand – 3,960
Discount allowed by him – 40
25 Goods purchased from Anand – 5,000
Answer:
Ledger Account
Dr. Anand’s Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 52

Question 20.
Prepare a Sales account from the following transactions.
2018, Jan 1 Sold goods to Sam – 4,000
4 Sold goods to Suresh – 2,500
11 Sold goods to Joy – 8,000
17 Sold goods to Rajan – 3,000
Answer:
Ledger Account
Sales Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 53

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 21.
Show the direct ledger postings for the following transactions:
2017, June 1 Raja commenced business with cash Rs 50,000,
6 Sold goods for cash Rs 8,000
8 Sold goods to Devi on credit Rs 9,000
15 Goods purchased for cash Rs 4,000
20 Goods purchased from Shanthi on credit Rs 5,000
Answer:
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 54
Sales Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 55
Purchases Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 56

Question 22.
Show the direct ledger postings for the following transactions:
2017, July 1 Shankar commenced business with a cash of Rs 1,00,000
5 Sold goods for cash Rs 10,000
9 Wages paid Rs 6,000
19 Salaries paid Rs 8,000
20 Advertisement expenses paid Rs 4,000
Answer:
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 57
Shankar Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 58
wages Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 59

11th Accountancy Guide Ledger Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Ledger is a book of:
(a) original entry
(b) final entry
(c) ail cash transactions
(d) contra entry
Answer:
(b) final entry

Question 2.
Personal and real accounts are:
(a) closed
(b) Balanced
(c) closed and transferred
(d) opening
Answer:
(b) Balanced

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 3.
The column of ledger which links the entry with journal is
(a) L.F column
(b) J.F column
(c) Date column
(d) Particulars column
Answer:
(b) J.F column

Question 4.
Posting on the credit side of an account is written as
(a) To
(b) By
(c) Being
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) By

Question 5.
Posting on the Debit side of an account is written as
(a) To
(b) By
(c) Being
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) To

Question 6.
Nominal account having credit balance represents
(a) income / gain
(b) expenses / losses
(c) assets
(d) liabilities
Answer:
(a) income / gain

Question 7.
Nominal account having debit balance represents
(a) income / gain
(b) expenses / losses
(c) liability
(d) assets
Answer:
(b) expenses / losses

Question 8.
Real accounts always show
(a) debit balances
(b) credit balances
(c) nill balance
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) debit balances

Question 9.
Account having credit balance is closed by writing
(a) To Balance b/d
(b) By Balance c/d
(c) To Balance c/d
(d) By Balance b/d
Answer:
(c) To Balance c/d

Question 10.
When the total of debits and credits are equal, it represents
(a) debit balance
(b) credit balance
(c) nil balance
(d) opening balance
Answer:
(c) nil balance

Question 11.
The balances of personal and real accounts are shown in the
(a) profit and loss account
(b) balance sheet
(c) trading account
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) balance sheet

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 12.
If the total of the credit side of an account exceeds the total of its debit side, it means
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) Nil balance
(d) Debit and credit balance
Answer:
(a) Credit balance

Question 13.
The closing balance is the next year’s
(a) debit balance
(b) credit balance
(c) nil balance
(d) opening balance
Answer:
(d) opening balance

Question 14.
The ledger account is prepared in format.
(a) T
(b) D
(c) C
(d) U
Answer:
(a) T

Question 15.
The process of recording business transactions in a chronological order is called ……………
(a) Recording
(b) Posting
(c) Journalizing
(d) Classifying
Answer:
(c) Journalizing

Question 16.
Which one of the following is known as the king of all books of accounts?
(a) Recording
(b) Posting
(c) Journalizing
(d) Classifying
Answer:
(c) Journalizing

Question 17.
A decrease in the provision for doubtful debts would result in
(a) Increase in liability
(b) Decrease in liability
(c) Decrease in the net profit
(d) Increase in the net profit
Answer:
(d) Increase in the net profit

Question 18.
The discount which is calculated on the list price of the goods is called .
(a) Cash discount
(b) Rebate
(c) Trade discount
(d) Discount
Answer:
(c) Trade discount

Question 19.
Merchandise stolen by someone should be debited to …………..
(a) Sales account
(b) Purchases account
(c) Loss by theft account
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Loss by theft account

Question 20.
The owner of the business takes Rs.100 cash and goods costing Rs.200 for his family. The proper journal entry for this transaction is called ……………..
(a) drawing > debit; Cash > Credit; Purchases > Credit
(b) Drawing > debit; Cash > Credit; merchandise > credit
(c) Drawing > debit; Cash > credit; Sales > credit
(d) cash > debit; Purchases > debit; drawings > credit
Answer:
(a) drawing > debit; Cash > Credit; Purchases > Credit

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Nil balance?
Answer:
If the two sides are equal, that account will show nil balance.

Question 2.
What are the steps involved in posting the opening entry?
Answer:
Step 1:
The items debited in the opening entry are entered on the debit side of respective accounts. The words ‘To Balance b/d’ are written in the particulars column with respective amounts in the amount column, date being the first day of the accounting period.

Step 2:
The items credited in the opening entry are entered on the credit side of respective accounts. The words ‘By Balance b/d’ are written in the particulars column with respective amounts in the amount column, date being the first day of the accounting period.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 3.
Indicate the nature of normal balance in the following accounts.
Answer:
a. Cash – Debit balance
b. Creditors – Credit balance
c. Sales – Credit balance
d. Furniture – Debit balance
e. Commission received – Credit balance
f. Debtors – Debit balance
g. Purchases – Debit balance
h. Capital – Credit balance
i. Discount earned – Credit balance
j. Computer – Debit balance

Question 4.
Define ledger.
Answer:
According to L.C. Cropper, ‘the book which contains a classified and permanent record of all the transactions of a business is called the Ledger’.

Question 5.
What is compound journal entry?
Answer:
When a journal entry has more than one debit or more than one credit or both, it is called a compound entry.

III. Additional Sums

Question 1.
Prepare cash account A/c from the following transactions.
2018 Jan. 1 Commenced business with cash Rs 62,000
2 Good purchased for cash Rs 12,000
10 Cash sales Rs 10,000
12 Wages paid Rs 4,000
25 Furniture purchased for cash Rs 6,000
Answer:
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 60

Question 2.
Prepare a sales A/c from the following transaction.
2018 Feb. 1 Cash sales – 5,000
4 Sold goods to Suresh – 4,000
8 Sold goods to Mohan – 8,000
12 Sold goods for cash – 3,000
Answer:
Ledger Account
Sales Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 61

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 3.
Prepare Rangasamy A/c for the following transaction.
2017 Aug. 17 Goods purchased from Rangasamy Rs. 20,000
19 Goods returned to Rangasamy Rs. 5,000
31 Settles Rangasamy’s account
Answer:
Ledger Account
Rangasamy Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 62

Question 4.
Prepare Chitra account from the following transaction.
2018 March. 18 Sold goods to Chitra Rs. 1,26,000
24 Chitra returned goods Rs. 6,000
28 Chitra settled her account
Answer:
Chitra Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 63

Question 5.
Journalise the following transaction and post them to ledger in the book of Mr. Raja.
2018, Jan. 1 Started business with cash Rs 3,00,00
2 Opening bank account by deposition Rs 2,00,000
5 Purchased goods for cash Rs 10,000
15 Cash sales Rs 5,000
22 Purchased goods from X and Co. for Rs 15,000 and the payment is made through net banking
25 Sold goods for Y and Co. for Rs 30,000 and the payment is received thought NEET
Answer:
Journal of Mr. Raja
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 64
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 65
Raja Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 66
Purchases Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 67

Question 6.
Post the following Journal into Ledger of Thiru. Gowri Shankar.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 68
Answer:
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 69
Sayeed Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 70
David Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 71

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Question 7.
Show the sivect ledger positions for the following transaction.
2018, May. 1 Commenced business with cash Rs 1,50,000
2 Sold goods for cash Rs 50,000
5 Purchases goods for cash Rs 25,000
25 Salaries paid Rs 15,000
30 Wages paid Rs 10,000
Answer:
Ledger Account
Cash Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 72
Capital Account
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger 73

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 4 Ledger

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

11th Accountancy Guide Books of Prime Entry Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Accounting equation signifies …………….
(a) Capital of a business is equal to assets
(b) Liabilities of a business are equal to assets
(c) Capital of a business is equal to liabilities
(d) Assets of a business are equal to the total of capital and liabilities
Answer:
(d) Assets of a business are equal to the total of capital and liabilities

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 2.
‘Cash withdrawn by the proprietor from the business for his personal use’ causes …………….
(a) Decrease in assets and decrease in owner’s capital
(b) Increase in one asset and decrease in another asset
(c) Increase in one asset and increase in liabilities
(d) Increase in asset and decrease in capital
Answer:
(a) Decrease in assets and decrease in owner’s capital

Question 3.
A firm has assets of Rs. 1,00,000 and the external liabilities of Rs. 60,000. Its capital would be ……………….
(a) Rs. 1,60,000
(b) Rs. 60,000
(c) Rs. 1,00,000
(d) Rs. 40,000
Answer:
(d) Rs. 40,000

Question 4.
The incorrect accounting equation is ………………….
(a) Assets = Liabilities + Capital
(b) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
(c) Liabilities = Assets + Capital
(d) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
Answer:
(c) Liabilities = Assets + Capital

Question 5.
Accounting equation is formed based on the accounting principle of ………………
(a) Dual aspect
(b) Consistency
(c) Going concern
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(a) Dual aspect

Question 6.
Real account deals with ……………..
(a) Individual persons
(b) Expenses and losses
(c) Assets
(d) Incomes and gains
Answer:
(c) Assets

Question 7.
Which one of the following is representative personal account?
(a) Building A/c
(b) Outstanding salary A/c
(c) Mahesh A/c
(d) Balan & Co
Answer:
(b) Outstanding salary A/c

Question 8.
Prepaid rent is a ……………….
(a) Nominal A/c
(b) Personal A/c
(c) Real A/c
(d) Representative personal A/c
Answer:
(d) Representative personal A/c

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 9.
Withdrawal of cash from business by the proprietor should be credited to
(a) Drawings A/c
(b) Cash A/c
(c) Capital A/c
(d) Purchases A/c
Answer:
(b) Cash A/c

Question 10.
In double entry system of book keeping, every business transaction affects
(a) Minimum of two accounts
(b) Same account on two different dates
(c) Two sides of the same account
(d) Minimum three accounts
Answer:
(a) Minimum of two accounts

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are source documents?
Answer:
Source documents are the authentic evidences of financial transactions.
These documents show the nature of transaction, the date, the amount and the parties involved.
Source documents include cash receipt, invoice, debit note, credit note, pay-in-slip, salary bills, wage bills, cheque record slips, etc.
They also serve as legal evidence in case of any legal dispute.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 2.
What Is accounting equation?
Answer:
The relationship of assets with that of liabilities to outsiders and to owners in the equation form is known as accounting equation.
Accounting equation is a mathematical expression which shows that the total of assets is equal to the total of liabilities and capital.
This is based on the dual aspect concept of accounting.
This means that total claims of outsiders and the proprietor against a business enterprise will always be equal to the total assets of the business enterprise.
Capital + Liabilities = Assets

Question 3.
Write any one transaction which
(a) Decreases the assets and decreases the liabilities:
Answer:
E.g : Outstanding Rent paid by the company Rs. 30,000.
Here Outstanding Rent (Liability) is decreasing, Cash (Asset) is decreasing.

(b) Increases one asset and decreases another asset:
Answer:
E.g: Building purchased for Cash Rs. 50,000.
Here Building (Asset) is increasing and Cash (Asset) is decreasing.

Question 4.
What is meant by journalising?
Answer:
The process of analysing the business transactions under the heads of debit and credit and recording them in the journal is called journalising.

Question 5.
What is real account?
Answer:
A real account is an account that retains and rolls forward its ending balance from period to period. The areas in the balance, sheet in which real accounts are found are assets, liabilities, and equity. Examples of real accounts are: Cash, Accounts receivable, Fixed Assets Accounts payable, Retained earnings.

Question 6.
How are personal accounts classified?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 1

Question 7.
State the accounting rule for nominal account.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 8.
Give the golden rules of double entry accounting system.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 3

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a brief note on accounting equation approach of recording transactions.
Answer:
The relationship of assets with that of liabilities to outsiders and to owners in the equation form is known as accounting equation.
Accounting equation is a mathematical expression which shows that the total of assets is equal to the total of liabilities and capital.
This is based on the dual aspect concept of accounting.

This means that total claims of outsiders and the proprietor against a business enterprise will always be equal to the total assets of the business enterprise. The equation is given under:
Capital + Liabilities = Assets
Capital can also be called as owner’s equity and liabilities as outsider’s equity.

As the revenues and expenses will affect capital, the expanded equation may be given as under:
Assets = Liabilities + Capital + Revenues – Expenses
Accounts are classified into five categories: (i) Asset account, (ii) Liability account, (iii) Capital account, (iv) Revenue account and (v) Expense account as follows:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 4

Question 2.
What is an Account? Classify the accounts with suitable examples.
Answer:
Every transaction has two aspects and each aspect affects minimum one account.
An account is the basic unit of identification in accounting.
A ledger account is a summary of relevant transactions at one place relating to a particular head.
Account is the systematic presentation of all material information regarding a particular person or item at one place, under one head.

Classification of Accounts:
Persona! Account;
Accounting relating to persons is called personal account. The personal account may be natural, artificial or representative personal account.
E.g: Malini account, BHEL account, Prepaid Rent account.

Impersonal Account:
All accounts which do not affect persons are called impersonal accounts. These are further classified into Real and Nominal Accounts.
E.g ; Building account, Goodwill, Salaries account.

Question 3.
What are the three different types of persona! accounts?
Answer:
Natural person’s account: Natural person means human beings. Example: Vinoth account, Malini account.

Artificial person’s account: Artificial person refers to the persons other than human beings recognised by law as persons. They include business concerns, charitable institutions, etc. Example: BHEL account, Bank account.

Representative personal accounts: These are the accounts which represent persons natural or artificial or a group of persons. Example: Outstanding salaries account, Prepaid rent account. When expenses are outstanding, it is payable to a person. Hence, it represents a person.

Question 4.
What is the accounting treatment for insurance premium paid on the of the proprietor?
Answer:
The proprietor has to pay an agreed premium on a monthly or annual basis. The amount should be treated as prepayment which is considered as current asset.
The following entry should be made:
Insurance A/c Dr –
To Cash/Bank A/c –
(Being insurance premium paid.)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 5.
State the principles of double entry system of book keeping.
Answer:
Meaning:
Double entry system of book keeping is a scientific and complete system of recording the financial transactions of an organisation. The two aspects involved is denoted by Debit (Dr.) and Credit(Cr.). The following are the principles of double entry system of book keeping:
In every business transaction, there are two aspects.
The two aspects involved are the benefit or value receiving aspect and benefit or value giving aspect.
These two aspects involve minimum two accounts; at least one debit and at least one credit.
For every debit, there is a corresponding and equivalent credit. If one account is debited the other account must be credited.

Question 6.
Briefly explain about steps in journalising.
Answer:
The process of analysing the business transactions under the heads of debit and credit and recording them in the journal is called journalising. An entry made in the journal is called a journal entry. The following steps are followed in journalising:

Analyse the transactions and identify the accounts (based on aspects) which are involved in the transaction.

Classify the above accounts under Personal account, Real account or Nominal account <•> Apply the rules of debit and credit for the above two accounts.

Find which account is to be debited and which account is to be credited by the application of rules of double entry system. Record the date of transaction in the date column.

Enter the name of the account to be debited in the particulars column very close to the left hand side of the particulars column followed by the abbreviation ‘Dr/ at the end in the same line. Against this, the amount to be debited is entered in the debit amount column in the same line.

Write the name of the account to be credited in the second line starting with the word ‘To’ prefixed a few spaces away from the margin in the particulars column. Against this, the amount to be credited is entered in the credit amount column in the same line.

Write the narration within brackets in the next line in the particulars column.

Question 7.
What is double entry system? State its advantages.
Answer:
“Every business transaction has a two-fold effect and that it affects two accounts in opposite directions and if a complete record is to be made of each such transaction it is necessary to debit one account and credit another account. It is this recording of two fold effect of every transaction that has given rise to the term Double Entry” J.R. Batliboi.

Advantages of double entry system:
Following are the advantages of double entry system:
Accuracy
In this system, the two aspects of each transaction are recorded in the books of accounts. This helps in checking the accuracy in accounting.

Ascertainment of business results
Details regarding expenses, losses, incomes, gains, assets, liabilities, debtors, creditors, etc., are readily available. This helps to ascertain the net profit earned or loss incurred during an accounting period and also to know the financial position as on a particular date.

Comparative study
The business results of the current year can be compared with those of the previous years and also 4 with other business firms. It facilitates business planning for future.

Common acceptance
The business records maintained under this system are accepted by financial institutions, government and others, because it is a systematic and scientific system.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Complete the accounting equation.
(a) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
1,00,000 = 80,000 + ?
Answer:
(a) Liabilities = Assets – Capital
Liabilities = 1,00,000 – 80,000
Liabilities = 20,000

(b) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
2,00,000 = ? + 40,000
Answer:
Capital = Assets – Liabilities
Capital = 2,00,000 – 40,000
Capital = 1,60,000

(c) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
? = 1,60,000 + 80,000
Answer:
Assets = Capital + Liabilities
Assets = 1,60,000 + 80,000
Assets = 2,40,000

Question 2.
For the following transactions, show the effect on accounting equation.
(a) Raj Started business with cash – 40,000
(b) Opened bank account with a deposit of – 30,000
(c) Bought goods from Hari on credit for – 12,000
(d) Raj withdrew cash for personal use – 1,000
(e) Bought furniture by using debit card for – 10,000
(f) Sold goods to Murugan and cash received – 6,000
(g) Money withdrawn from bank for office use – 1,000
Answer:
(a) Raj started business with cash Rs 40,000
Increasing in capital and increasing in Asset Effects:
Cash comes in → Increase in asset
Capital provided by the owner → Increase in capital of owner
Capital = Asset
Capital = Cash
(+)Rs. 40,000 = (+)Rs. 40,000

(b) Opened bank account with a deposit of Rs 30,000
Decrease in one asset and increase in another asset Effects:
Bank is the receiver → Increases in Assets
Cash goes out → Decrease in Asset
Capital = Asset
Capital = Bank + cash
Capital = (+) Rs. 30,000 + (-) Rs. 30,000

(c) Bought goods from Hari on credit for Rs. 12,000
Increasing Asset and Increase in Liabilities Effects:
Stock comes in → Increase in Asset
Creditors arises → Increase in Liabilities
Asset = Liabilities
Stock = Creditors
(+) Rs. 12,000 = (+) Rs. 12,000

(d) Raj withdrew cash for personal use Rs 1,000
Decrease in Asset and decrease in capital Effects:
Cash goes out → Decrease in cash
Drawings proprietor is the receiver → Decrease in capital
Asset = Capital
Cash = Capital
(-) Rs. 1,000 = (-) Rs. 1,000

(e) Bought furniture by using debit card for Rs 10,000
Decrease in one asset and Increase in another asset Effects:
Furniture comes in → Increase in Furniture
Bank is giver → Decrease in a Bank
Asset = Liabilities
Furniture + Bank = Liabilities
(+) Rs. 10,000 + (-) Rs. 10,000 = Liabilities

(f) Sold goods to Murugan and cash received Rs 6,000
Decrease in one asset and increase in another asset Effects:
Cash comes in → Increase in cash
<$> Stock goes out → Decrease in stock
Asset = Liabilities
Cash + Stock = Liabilities
(+) Rs. 6,000 + (-) Rs. 6,000 = Liabilities

(g) Money withdrawn from bank for office use Rs 1,000
Decrease in one asset and increase in another asset Effects:
Cash comes in → Increase in Cash
Bank is a giver → Decrease in Bank
Asset = Liabilities
Cash + Bank = Liabilities
(+) Rs. 1,000 + (-) Rs. 1,000 = Liabilities

Accounting Equation:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 5

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 3.
Prepare accounting equation for the following transactions,
(a) Murugan commenced business with cash Rs 80,000
(b) Purchased goods for cash Rs 30,000
(c) Paid salaries by cash Rs 5,000
(d) Bought goods from Kumar for Rs 5,000 and deposited the money in CDM.
(e) Introduced additional capital of Rs 10,000
Answer:
Accounting Equation:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 6

Question 4.
What will be the effect of the following on the accounting equation?
(a) Sunil started business with Rs 1,40,000 cash and goods worth Rs 60,000
(b) Purchased furniture worth Rs 20,000 by cash
(c) Depredation on furniture Rs 800
(d) Deposited into bank Rs 40,000
(e) Paid electricity charges through net banking Rs 500
(f) Sold goods to Ravi costing Rs 10,000 for Rs 15,000
(g) Goods returned by Ravi Rs 5,000
Answer:
(a) Sunil started business with Rs 1,40,000 cash and goods worth Rs 60,000
Transactions affecting more than two accounts Effects:
Cash comes in → Increase in asset
Stock comes in → Increase in asset
Capital provide by the owner → Increase in capital
Capital = Asset
Capital = Cash + Stock
(+) 2,00,000 = (+) 1,40,000 + (+) 60,000

(b) Purchased furniture worth Rs 20,000 by cash
Decrease in one asset and Increase in Another asset Effects:
Furniture comes in → Increase in asset
Cash goes out → Decrease in asset
Liabilities = Assets
Liabilities = Cash + Furniture
Liabilities = (-) 20,000 + (-) 20,000

(c) Depreciation on furniture Rs 800
Decrease in asset and decrease in capital effects:
Furniture goes out → Decrease in Asset
Capital → Decrease in Capital
Capital = Asset
Capital = Furniture
(-) 800 = (-) 800

(d) Deposited into bank Rs 40,000
Increase in one Asset and decrease in another asset Effects:
Cash goes out → Decrease in asset
Bank is a receiver → Increase in asset
Liability = Asset
Liability = Cash + bank
= (-) 40,000 + (+) 40,000

(e) Paid electricity charges through net banking Rs 500
decrease in Asset and Decrease in capital Effects:
Bank is a given → Decrease in Asset
Capital (Expenses) → Decrease in capital
Capital = Asset
Capital = Bank
(-) 500 = (-) 500

(f) Sold goods to Ravi costing Rs 10,000 for Rs 15,000
Increase in asset and decreases in another asset and Increase in Capital Effects:
Creditors → Increases in Liabilities
Stock goes out → Decreases in asset
Capital (Incom(e) → Increase in capital
Liabilities + Capital = Asset
Creditors + Capital = Stock
(+) 15,000 + (+) 5,000 = (-) 5,000

(g) Goods returned by Ravi Rs 5,000
Increase in asset and decrease in Liabilities Effects:
Stock comes in → Increase in asset
Reducing in creditors → Decreases in Liabilities
Liability = Asset
Creditors = Stock
(-) 5,000 = (+) 5,000
Accounting Equation:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 7

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 5.
Create an accounting equation on the basis of the following transactions.
(i) Rakesh started business with a capital of Rs 1,50,000
(ii) Deposited money with the bank Rs 80,000
(iii) Purchased goods from Mahesh and paid through credit card Rs 25,000
(iv) Sold goods (costing Rs 10,000) to Mohan for Rs 14,000 who pays through debit card
(v) Commission received by cheque and deposited the same in the bank Rs 2,000
(vi) Paid office rent through ECS Rs 6,000
(vii) Sold goods to Raman for Rs 15,000 of which Rs 5,000 was received at once
Answer:
Accounting Equation:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 8

Question 6.
Create an accounting equation on the basis of the following transactions.
(i) Started business with cash 80,000 and goods Rs 75,000
(ii) Sold goods to Shanmugam on credit for Rs 50,000
(iii) Received cash from Shanmugam in full settlement Rs 49,000
(iv) Salary outstanding Rs 3,000
(v) Goods costing Rs 1,000 given as charity
(vi) Insurance premium paid Rs 3,000
(vii) Out of insurance premium paid, prepaid is Rs 500
Answer:
Accounting Equation:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 9

Question 7.
Create accounting equation on the basis of the following transactions:
(i) Opening balance on 1st January, 2018 cash Rs 20,000; stock Rs 50,000 and bank Rs 80,000
(ii) Bought goods from Suresh Rs 10,000 on credit
(iii) Bank charges Rs 500
(iv) Paid Suresh Rs 9,700 through credit card in full settlement.
(v) Goods purchased on credit from Philip for Rs 15,000
(vi) Goods returned to Philip amounting to Rs 4,000
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 10

Question 8.
Enter the following transactions in the journal of Manohar who is dealing in textiles. 2018 March
Manohar started business with cash – 60,000
Purchased furniture for cash – 10,000
Bought goods for cash – 25,000
Bought goods from Kamaiesh on credit – 15,000
Sold goods for cash – 28,000
Sold goods to Hari on credit – 10,000
Paid Kamaiesh – 12,000
Paid rent – 500
Received from Hari – 8,000
Withdrew cash for personal use – 4,000
Answer:
journal of Mr. Manohar
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 11

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 9.
Pass journal entries in the books of Sasi Kumar who is dealing in automobiles. 2017 Oct.
1. Commenced business with goods – 40,000
3. Cash introduced in the business – 60,000
4. Purchased goods from Arul on credit – 70,000
6. Returned goods to Arul – 10,000
10. Paid cash to Arul on account – 60,000
15. Sold goods to Chandar on credit – 30,000
18. Chandar returned goods worth – 6,000
20. Received cash from Chandar in full settlement – 23,000
25. Paid salaries through ECS – 2,000
30. Sahil took for personal use goods worth – 10,000
Answer:
journal of Mr. Sasi Kumar:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 12

Question 10.
Pass Journal entries in the books of Hart who is a deafer in sports items. 2017 Jan.
1. Commenced business with cash 50,000
2. Purchased goods from Subash on credit 20,000
4. Sold goods to Ramu on credit 15,000
8. Ramu paid the amount through cheque
10. Cheque received from Ramu is deposited with the bank
15. Sports items purchased from Gopal on credit 10,000
18. Paid rent for the proprietor’s residence 1,500
20. Paid Gopai in full settlement after deducting 5% discount
25. Paid Subash Rs 4,750 and discount received 250
28. Paid by cash: wages Rs 500; electricity charges Rs 3,000 and trade expenses 1,000
Answer:
journal of Hari:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 13

Question 11.
Karthick opened a provisions store on 1st April, 2017, Journalise the following transactions in this books:
2017 April?
1. Paid into bank for opening a current account – 2,00,000
3. Goods purchased by cheque – 40,000
5. Investments made in securities – 40,000
6. Goods sold to Radha for Rs 20,000 and cheque received and deposited into bank
7. Amount withdrawn from bank for office use – 15,000
10. Purchased goods from Kamala and cash deposited in CDM – 10,000
12. Sold goods to Vanitha who paid through debit card – 10,000
15. Interest on securities directly received by the bank – 1,000
20. Insurance paid by the bank as per standing instructions – 2,000
25. Sales made to Kunal who made payment through CDM – 6,000
Answer:
journal of karthik:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 14

Question 12.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Ramesh who is dealing in computers:
2018, may 1. Ramesh started business with cash Rs 3,00,000, Goods Rs 80,000 and Furniture Rs 27,000.
2. Money deposited into bank Rs 2,00,000
3. Bought furniture from M/s Jayalakshmi Furniture for Rs 28,000 on credit.
4. Purchased goods from Asohan for Rs 5,000 by paying through debit card.
5. Purchased goods from Guna and paid through net banking for cash Rs 10,000
6. Purchased goods from Kannan and paid through credit card Rs 20,000
7. Purchased goods from Shyam on credit for Rs 50,000
8. Bill drawn by Shyam was accepted for Rs 50,000
9. Paid half the amount owed to M/s Jayalakshmi Furniture by cheque
10. Shyam’s bill was paid
Answer:
journal of Mr. Ramesh
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 15

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 13.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Sundar who is a book seller.
dec 2017. 1. Commenced business with cash – 2,00,000
2. Bought goods from X and Co. on credit – 80,000
4. Opened a bank account with – 50,000
5. Sold goods to Naresh who paid the amount through net banking – 5,000
6. Sold goods to Devi who paid through credit card – 7,000
7. Sold goods to Ashish on credit – 700
8. Money withdrawn from bank through ATM for office use – 1,000
9. Purchased a furniture and paid through debit card – 2,000
10. Salaries paid by cash – 6,000
11. Furniture purchased from Y for Rs 25,000 and advance given – 5,000
Answer:
journal of Mr. Sundar
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 16

Question 14.
Raja has a hotel. The following transactions took place in his business. Journalise them.
Jan. 1. Started business with cash – 3,00,000
2. Purchased goods from Rajiv on credit – 1,00,000
3. Cash deposited with the bank – 2,00,000
20. Borrowed loan from bank – 1,00,000
22. Withdrew from bank for personal us – 800
23. Amount paid to Rajiv in full settlement through NEFT – 99,000
25. Paid club bill of the proprietor by cheque – 200
26. Paid electricity bill of the propHetor’s house through debit card – 2,000
31. Lunch provided at free of cost to a charity – 1,000
31. Bank levied charges for lofcker rent – 1,000
Answer:
journal of Mr. Raja
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 17

Question 15.
From the following transactions of Shyam, a stationery dealer, pass journal entries for the month of August 2017,
Aug 1. Commenced business with cash Rs 4,00,000, Goods Rs 5,00,000
2. Sold goods to A and money received through RTGS 12,50,000
3. Goods sold to Z on credit for Rs 20,000
5. Bill drawn on Z and accepted by him Rs 20,000
8. Bill received from Z is discounted with the bank for 119,000
10. Goods sold to M on credit Rs 12,000
12. Goods distributed as free samples for Rs 2,000
16. Goods taken for office use Rs 5,000
17. M became insolvent and only 0.80 per rupee is received in final settlement
20. Bill of Z discounted with the bank is dishonoured
Answer:
Journal of Mr. Shyam
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 18

Question 16.
Mary is a cement dealer having business for more than 5 years. Pass journal entries in her books for the period of March, 2018,
March 1. Cement bags bought on credit form Sibi – 20,000
2. Electricity charges paid through net banking – 500
3. Returned goods bought form Sibi – 5,000
4. Cement bags taken for personal use – 1,000
5. Advertisement expenses paid – 2,000
6. Goods sold to Mano – 20,000
7. Goods returned by Mano – 5,000
8. Payment received from Mano through NEFT
Answer:
Journal of Mr. Mary
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 19

11th Accountancy Guide Conceptual Framework of Accounting Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Journal is a book of ………
(a) Prime Entry
(b) Compound Entry
(c) Closing Entry
(d) Adjustment Entry
Answer:
(a) Prime Entry

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 2.
Journal is a book of ……….
(a) Original Entry
(b) Final Entry
(c) Assets
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Original Entry

Question 3.
Drawings account is …………..
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Nominal A/c

Question 4.
Accounts of persons with whom the business deals is known as ………….
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) Profit & Loss A/c
Answer:
(a) Personal A/c

Question 5.
Nominal Account relates to …………
(a) Drawings A/c
(b) Impersonal A/c
(c) Capital A/c
(d) Bank A/c
Answer:
(d) Bank A/c

Question 6.
Which one of the following equation is correct?
(a) Owner’s Equity = Liability + Asset
(b) Owner’s Equity = Asset – Liability
(c) Liability = Owner’s Equity + Asset
(d) Asset = Owner’s Equity – Liability
Answer:
(b) Owner’s Equity = Asset – Liability

Question 7.
Decrease in the amount of creditors results in ……………
(a) Increase in cash
(b) Decrease in cash
(c) Increase in assets
(d) No change in assets
Answer:
(b) Decrease in cash

Question 8.
Atul purchased a car for Rs. 5,00,000, by making down payment of Rs. 1,00,000 and signing a Rs. 4,00,000 bill payable due in 60 days. As a result of this transaction
(a) Total assets increase by Rs. 5,00,000
(b) Total liabilities increase by Rs.4,00,000
(c) Total assets increase by Rs. 4,00,000
(d) Total assets increase by Rs. 4,00,000 with a corresponding increase in liabilities by Rs. 4,00,000
Answer:
(d) Total assets increase by Rs. 4,00,000 with a corresponding increase in liabilities by Rs. 4,00,000

Question 9.
Identify the personal accounts from the following
(a) Salary Payable Account
(b) Taxes Paid Account
(c) Investment Account
(d) Trademark Account
Answer:
(a) Salary Payable Account

Question 10.
Amount paid to a supplier is ……….
(a) An event
(b) A Transaction
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) Nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 11.
Goods worth Rs. 2,000 were distributed as free samples in the market. The journal entry will be
(a) Drawings A/c Dr. 2,000
To Purchases A/c 2,000
(b) Saies A/c Dr. 2,000
To Cash A/c 2,000
(c) Advertisement A/c Dr. 2,000
To Purchases A/c 2,000
(d) No entry
Answer:.
(c) Advertisement A/c Dr. 2,000
To Purchases A/c 2,000

Question 12.
If two or more transactions of the same nature are journalised together, it is known as;
(a) Compound journal entry
(b) Separate journal entry
(c) Posting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Compound journal entry

Question 13.
An amount of Rs.200 received from A credited to B would affect ………….
(a) Accounts of A and B
(b) A’s Account
(c) Cash Account
(d) B’s Account
Answer:
(a) Accounts of A and B

Question 14.
Contra entries are passed only when …………..
(a) Double Column cash book is prepared
(b) Three-Column Cash book is prepared
(c) Single Cash book is prepared
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Three-Column Cash book is prepared

Question 15.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Accounting profit is the difference between cash receipts and cash paid in a period.
(b) Accounting profit is the total of cash sales in the year iess the expenses for the period.
(c) Accounting profit is the difference between revenue income and expenses for the period.
(d) Accounting profit is the difference between revenue income and cash payment for the period.
Answer:
(c) Accounting profit is the difference between revenue income and expenses for the period.

Question 16.
Direct Expenses are those which can be identified with the particular products. Which of the following items is a direct cost?
(a) The rent of the factory in which products are made
(b) The wages of the production supervisor
(c) A royalty paid to the holder of a patent after each item is produced
(d) The cost of the glue used to attach labels to the products.
Answer:
(c) A royalty paid to the holder of a patent after each item is produced

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 17.
Rent payable to the landlord Rs. 5,00,000 is credited to
(a) Cash Account
(b) Landlord Account
(c) Outstanding Rent Account
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Outstanding Rent Account

Question 18.
Bad debts entry is.passed in …………
(a) Sales Book
(b) Cash Book
(c) journal Book
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) journal Book

Question 19.
Return of cash sales is recorded in …………..
(a) Sales Return book
(b) cash book
(c) Journal proper
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) cash book

Question 20.
Jhony purchased goods ‘ Rs, 5900 for cash at 20% trade discount and 5% cash discount. Purchase account Is to fee debited by Rs ………….
(a) Rs, 3,800
(b) Rs. 5,000
(c) Rs. 3,750
(d) Rs. 4,000
Answer:
(d) Rs. 4,000

Question 21.
Out of the following Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Real & Personal accounts are transferred to Balance Sheet
(b) Nominal accounts are transfer to profit and loss account
(c) Cash account is not opened separately in the ledger
(d) Rent account is a personal account and outstand rent account is a Nominal Account
Answer:
(a) Real & Personal accounts are transferred to Balance Sheet

Question 22.
Financial position of a business concern is ascertained on the basis of ………….
(a) Records Prepared under book – keeping process
(b) Trial Balance
(c) Accounting reports
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Accounting reports

Question 23.
Salary “payable to an employee Rs.50,000. Which account is to be credited?
(a) Cash Account
(b) Salaries Account
(c) Outstanding Salaries
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Salaries Account

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 24.
Loss on sale of machinery Is credited to …………..
(a) Machinery Account
(b) Purchase Account
(c) Profit and Loss Account
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Machinery Account

Question 25.
The Capital of a sole trader Is affected by ……………..
(a) Purchase of raw material
(b) Commission received
(c) Cash received from trade receivables
(d) Purchase of an asset for cash
Answer:
(b) Commission received

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From the following information below journalise its
i. Salary paid Rs. 5,000
ii. Rent paid to house owner Rs. 1,000
iii. Cash sales Rs. 10,000
Answer:
Journal Entries
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 20

Question 2.
Journalise the following transactions:
2017, Jan 11 Purchased goods for Rs. 1,500
13. Bought furniture for cash Rs. 2,000
19. Drew for private use Rs. 500
Answer:
Journal Entries
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 21

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Journalise the following transitions in the books of G.
i. Started business with cash Rs. 9,000
ii. Deposited into Canara Bank Rs, 3,000
iii. Paid Salary Rs, 5,000
iv. Received commission Rs. 200
v. Cash received from Rajan Rs. 400
Answer:
Journal Entries
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 22

IV. Additional Sums

Question 1.
Prepare accounting equation on the basis the following.
1) Ramya started business with cash Rs. 1,20,000
2) She Paid Rent Rs. 4,000
3) She Purchases Furniture Rs. 20,000
4) She Purchased goods on credit from Mr. Parthiban Rs. 60,000
5) She Sold goods (Cost Price Rs. 40,000) for Cash Rs. 50,000
Answer:
Accounting Equation
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 23

Question 2.
Show the Accounting equation the basis of the following transaction.
1. Pailavan Started business with cash Rs. 50,000
2. Purchased goods from Monisha Rs. 40,000
3. Sold goods to Aruna (Costing Rs. 36,000) for Rs. 50,000
4. wan withdraw from business Rs. 10,000
Answer:
Accounting Equation
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 24

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 3.
Journalise the following transaction of Mrs. Padmini
2018 May 1. Received Cash from Siva – 75,000
8. Paid Cash to Sayed – 45,000
11. Bought Goods for cash – 27,000
12. Bought Furniture – 48,000
15. Sold Goods for cash – 70,000
18. Sold Furniture – 50,000
Answer:
Journal of Mrs. Padmini
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 25

Question 4.
Journalise the following transactions of Mr. Dharani. 2018
Jan 1. Mr. Dharani Started Business with Cash – 1,00,000
4. Sold Goods to Mohan – 70,000
10. Purchased goods from Bashyam – 50,000
20. Sold goods for cash from Natarajan – 70,000
25. Paid to Bashyam – 50,000
28. Received from Mohan – 70,000
Answer:
Journal of Mr. Dharani
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 26

Question 5.
Journilise the following transaction of Tmt. Rani
2018 Feb 1. Tmt Rani Started Business With cash – 300000
5. Opening a current account with Indian Overseas Bank – 50000
10. Bought goods from Sumathi – 90000
18. Paid to Sumathi – 90000
20. Sold Goods to Chitra – 126000
28. Chitra Settled her account
Answer:
Journal of Tmt. Rani
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 27

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 6.
Joumalise the following transactions of Mr.Jeevan.
2018 Mar 5. Sold goods to Arun on Credit – 17,500
10. Bought Goods for cash from Ravi – 22,500
12. Met Travelling Expenses – 2,500
18. Received Rs.80000 from Sivakumar as loan
21. Paid wages to workers – 3,000
Answer:
Journal of Mr. Jeevan
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 28

Question 7.
Give Transaction with imaginary figure involving the following
(i) Increase in assets and capital
(ii) Increase and decrease in assets
(iii) Increase in an assets and a liabilities
(iv) Decrease of an asset and owners capital
Answer:
(i) Mr. Raja Commenced Business with Rs. 2,00,000
(ii) Purchased Computer Rs. 15,000
(iii) Purchased goods from Suresh Rs. 80,000
(iv) Drawings Rs. 15,000

Question 8.
Journalise the following transaction of Mrs. Rama
2018 April 1. Mrs. Rama Commenced Business with cash – 30,000
2. Paid into Bank – 21,000
3. Purchases goods and paid through Debit Card – 15,000
7. Drew Cash from Bank for Personal Use – 3,000
15. Purchased goods from Siva – 15,000
20. Cash Sales – 30,000
23. Money Withdrawn from Bank thought ATM for office use – 1,000
25. Paid to Siva – 14,750
Discount Received – 250
31 Paid Rent – 500
Paid Salaries – 2,000
Answer:
Journal of Mrs. Rama
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 29

Question 9.
Record the transactions in the books of Shri. Ganesh & Co.
2012
Jan 1. Ganesh started a business with cash – 90,000
1. Paid into bank – 20,000
2. Purchased goods for cash – 50,000
4. Purchased furniture by issuing cheque – 24,000
5. Sold goods to Siva – 17,000
6. Purchased goods from Anand – 30,000
9. Returned goods to Anand – 3,000
10. Cash received from Siva – 16,000
11. Withdraw cash for personal use – 1,500
18. Purchase of stationary – 500
Answer:
Journal Entries in the Books of Shri. Ganesh & Co.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 30

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 10.
Record the transactions in the books of XYZ & Co:
2017
may 1. Furniture purchased for Rs. 10,000
2. Old Computer worth Rs. 13,700 sold to Sankar on credit
3. Rent paid Rs. 5,000
6. Depreciation on Machinery Rs. 6,400 paid by cheque
10. Paid Rs. 250 for the installation charges of Machinery
13. Cash taken for personal use Rs. 7,000
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books XYZ & Co.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 31

Question 11.
Record the transaction in the books of Y.
2017, April 1. Started Business with cash Rs, 9,000
2. Purchased goods for cash Rs. 21,000
3. Sold goods for cash Rs. 8,000
4. Deposited into Canara Bank Rs. 3,000
5. Cash received from Rajan Rs. 4,000
7. Paid salary Rs. 3,000
8. Paid Rent Rs. 4,000
9. Received Commission Rs. 500
10. Withdrew from Canara Bank Rs. 2,700
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books of Y
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 32

Question 12.
Journalize the following transactions:
2016, Dec 1. Purchased goods for cash Rs. 14,000
8. Purchased goods from Anand Stores Rs. 600
12. Sold goods for Rs. 12,500
16. Sold goods to Sridhar Rs. 6,450
18. Bought Machinery for Cash Rs. 1,20,000
20. Goods returned to Anand Stores Rs. 300
22. Sridhar returned goods worth Rs. 450
25. Drew for personal use Rs. 500
25. Electric charges amounted Rs. 1,000
30. Got a loan from Joice Rs. 750
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 33

Question 13.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Z.
2016, july 1. Sold goods for Cash Rs. 2,800
2. Purchased goods for cash Rs, 5,900
5. Purchased goods from K Rs. 3,500
8. Sold goods to P Rs. 6,500
5. Received cash from P Rs. 6,200
9. Paid to K Rs. 3,200
9. Paid Telephone Charges Rs: 1,200
10. Paid Salary Rs. 2,600
10. Received Commission Rs. 3,000
10. Computer purchased from S for Rs. 20,000 and an advance of Rs. 8,000 is given as cash
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 34

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Question 14.
Varna, is a women entrepreneur, dealing in textiles. From the following transactions, pass journal entries for the month of March 2017.
2017,
March, 1. Commenced business with cash Rs. 50,000 & with goods Rs. 45,000
2. Purchased 20 sarees from V & Co on credit Rs. 60,000
3. Cash deposited into bank Rs. 48,000
4. Paid to V & Co through net banking
5. Sold 10 sarees @ Rs. 3,000 each on credit to X & Co.
6. Paid Travelling expenses Rs. 450
8. Bank Charges levied Rs. 150
9. X become insolvent and only Rs. 2,000 per saree received by cash in final settlement.
10. Electricity charges amount to Rs. 1,500
10. Received Commission Rs. 2,000
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 35

Question 15.
Journalise the following transactions:
2018, march 1. Salary paid Rs. 8,000
2. Rent paid to the house owner Rs. 7,000
3. Credit purchases from Mr. A Rs. 5,800
8. Cash sales Rs. 10,000
9. Deposited cash into bank Rs. 2,500
10. Purchased furniture Rs. 2,400
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 36

Question 16.
Complete the accounting equation.
(a) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
Rs.2,00,000 = Rs. 1,60,000 + ?
Answer:
Rs. 40,000

(b) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
Rs. 1,00,000 = ? + Rs. 20,000
Answer:
Rs. 80,000

(c) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
? = Rs. 1,60,000 + Rs. 80,000
Answer:
Rs. 2,40,000

Question 17.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of S.
2017, march 1. M commenced business with Rs. 20,000
2. Remitted in to bank account Rs. 18,000
3. Paid to K by cheque Rs. 5,000 and discount allowed Rs. 100
10. Cash sales Rs. 4,500
15. Issued a cheque to L for furniture Rs. 2,000
18. Withdrew from bank Rs. 500
25. Cash purchase Rs. 800
31. Paid salaries by cheque Rs. 6,000
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 37

Question 18.
Write down the transactions for the following.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry 38
Answer:
1. Sale of building for Rs. 2,50,000
2. Paid Telephone Charges by Cheque Rs. 2,000
3. Withdrew Cash from Bank Rs. 5,000
4. Withdrew cash for personal use Rs. 3,000
5. Purchased good for Rs. 6,400 and paid by cheque.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 3 Books of Prime Entry

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

11th Accountancy Guide Conceptual Framework of Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The business is liable to the proprietor of the business in respect of capital introduced by the person according to ………………
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Cost concept
(c) Business entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(c) Business entity concept

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Question 2.
The profounder of double entry system of book-keeping is ……………..
(a) J, R. Batlibai
(b) Luca Pacioli
(c) Old Kesal
(d) Menhar
Answer:
(b) Luca Pacioli

Question 3.
The concept which assumes that a business will last indefinitely is
(a) Business Entity
(b) Going concern
(c) Periodicity
(d) Conservatism
Answer:
(b) Going concern

Question 4.
GAAPs are …………….
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
(b) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions

Question 5.
The rule of stock valuation ‘cost price or realisable value’ whichever is lower is based on the accounting principle of ……………….
(a) Materiality
(b) Money measurement
(c) Conservatism
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(c) Conservatism

Question 6.
In India, Accounting Standards are issued by ……………
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Cost and Management Accountants of India
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
Answer:
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Question 7.
Which of the following does not follow dual aspect concept?
(a) Increase in one asset and decrease in other asset
(b) Increase in both asset and liability
(c) Decrease in one asset and decrease in other asset
(d) Increase in one asset and increase in capital
Answer:
(c) Decrease in one asset and decrease in other asset

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define book-keeping.
Answer:
According to R.N. Carter, “Book-keeping is the science and art of recording correctly in the books of account all those business transactions of money or money’s worth”.

Question 2.
What is meant by accounting concepts?
Answer:
Accounting concepts are the basic assumptions or conditions upon which accounting has be laid. The word concept means a notion or abstraction which is generally accepted. Accounting concepts provide unifying structure to the accounting process and accounting reports.

Question 3.
Briefly explain about revenue recognition concept.
Answer:
According to accrual concept, the effects of the transactions are recognised on mercantile basis, i.e., when they occur and not when cash is paid or received. Revenue is recognised when it is earned and expenses are recognised when they are incurred.

All expenses and revenues related to the accounting period are to be considered irrespective of the fact that whether revenues are received in cash or not and whether expenses are paid in cash or not. For example, i) Credit sale is recognised as sale though the amount has not been received immediately.

Question 4.
What is “Full Disclosure Principle” of accounting?
Answer:
1. It implies that the accounts must be prepared honestly and all material information should be disclosed in the accounting statement.

2. This is important because the management is different from the owners in most of the organizations.

3. The disclosure should be full, fair and adequate so that the users of the financial statements can make correct assessment about the financial position and performance of the business unit.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Question 5.
Write a brief note on ‘Consistency’ assumption.
Answer:
It indicates that the accounting policies must be followed consistently from one accounting period to another.
The results of different years will be comparable only when the same accounting policies are followed from year to year.
The changes in accounting policy can be incorporated when it is comply with the provision of law.
It is comply with the accounting standards issued.
It helps to reflect true and fair view of state of affairs of the business.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is matching concept? Why should a business concern follow this concept?
Answer:
1. According to this concept, revenues during an accounting period are matched with expenses incurred during that period to earn the revenue during that period.
2. This concept is based on accrual concept and periodicity concept.
3. Periodicity concept fixes the time frame for measuring performance and determining financial status.
4. Based on this the adjustments are made for outstanding and prepaid expenses and accrued and unearned revenues.
5. It matches the revenues earned during an accounting period with the expenses incurred during that period to earn the revenues before sharing any profit or loss.

Question 2.
Only monetary transactions are recorded in accounting”. Explain the statement.
Answer:
Money serves as the medium of exchange
The Money Measuring Concept implies that only those transactions, which can be expressed in terms of money.

Transactions which do not involve money will not be recorded in the books of accounts.
E.g : Working conditions in the work place, strike by employees, efficiency of the management etc. will not be recorded in the books, as they cannot be expressed in terms of money.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Question 3.
“Business units last indefinitely”. Mention and explain the concept on which the statement is bused.
Answer:
1. It is based on Going Concern Concept.
2. It influences accounting practices in relation to valuation of assets and liabilities, depreciation of assets, treatment of outstanding and prepaid expenses and accrued and unearned revenues.
3. Business will be continued for a foreseeable future.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on Accounting Standards.
Answer:
1. In India, Standards of Accounting is issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI).

2. The Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India constituted Accounting Standards Board (AS(b) on 21st April, 1977 recognising the need for Accounting Standards in India.

3. ASB formulates Accounting Standards so that such standards may be established by the Council of the Institute in India.

4. The ASB will, consider the applicable law, custom, usage, business environment and the International Accounting Standards while framing Accounting Standards (AS) in India.

11th Accountancy Guide Books of Prime Entry Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The practice of transferring closing stock into trading accounting is the ……………
(a) Going Concern Concept
(b) Matching Concept
(c) Money measurement Concept
(d) Revenue Realization Concept
Answer:
(a) Going Concern Concept

Question 2.
Business is distinct from owner. This concept is called …………….
(a) Going Concern Concept
(b) Separate Entity Concept
(c) Money measurement Concept
(d) Revenue Realization Concept
Answer:
(b) Separate Entity Concept

Question 3.
The incomplete system of accounting …………….
(a) Double Entry System
(b) Single Entry System
(c) Double Account system
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single Entry System

Question 4.
Financial or business transaction is recorded, according to accrual concept of accounting ………………
(a) When cash is received or paid
(b) When transaction occurs
(c) When profit is computed
(d) When balance sheet is prepared
Answer:
(b) When transaction occurs

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Question 5.
Matching concept means ………………
(a) Transactions recorded at accrual concept
(b) Anticipate no profit but recognize all losses
(c) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
(d) Expenses = Revenue
Answer:
(d) Expenses = Revenue

Question 6.
Which of the following is not the main objective of accounting?
(a) Systematic recording of transactions
(b) Ascertaining profit or loss
(c) Ascertainment of financial position
(d) Solving tax disputes
Answer:
(d) Solving tax disputes

Question 7.
Which of the following provide frame work and accounting policies so that the financial statements of different enterprises become comparable?
(a) Business Standards
(b) Accounting Standards
(c) Market Standards
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Accounting Standards

Question 8.
Business enterprise, is separate from its owner according to ……………… concept.
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Matching concept
(c) Entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(c) Entity concept

Question 9.
The non-financial transactions are not entered because of …………..
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Matching concept
(c) Entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(a) Money measurement concept

Question 10.
Historical cost concept requires the recording of an asset………..
(a) At its cost
(b) At the market value
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) At its cost

Question 11.
The rule ‘every transaction affects two or more ledger accounts’ is based on the concept of …………….
(a) Going concern
(b) Double entry system of book-keeping
(c) Money measurement
(d) Periodicity
Answer:
(b) Double entry system of book-keeping

Question 12.
Which of the following is correct about ‘Accounting Concept’?
(a) Accounting concepts are based on accounting conventions
(b) Accounting concepts are established by common accounting practices
(c) Accounting concepts are methods or procedures accepted by general agreement
(d) Personal judgment has no role in the adoption of accounting concepts.
Answer:
(b) Accounting concepts are established by common accounting practices

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not a fundamental accounting assumption?
(a) Going concern
(b) Consistency
(c) Prudence
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(c) Prudence

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Question 14.
A businessman purchased goods for Rs. 25, 00,000 and sold 80% of such goods during the accounting year ended 31st March 2015. The market value of the remaining goods was Rs. 4,00,000. He valued the dosing inventory at cost. He violated the concept of
(a) Money measurement
(b) Conservatism
(c) Cost
(d) Periodicity
Answer:
(b) Conservatism

Question 15.
Total sales during the year amount to Rs.70,000; cash sales Rs.10,000; Balance of trade receivables at the end of the year Rs.25,000. Cash received from customers during the year will be ……
(a) Rs. 35,000
(b) Rs. 30,000
(c) Rs. 37,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Rs. 35,000

Question 16.
Selection of accounting policies is based on …………..
(a) Prudence
(b) Substance over form
(c) Materiality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 17.
As per dual aspect concept, every business transaction has ………….
(a) Three aspects
(b) One aspect
(c) Two Aspects
(d) Four Aspects
Answer:
(c) Two Aspects

Question 18.
XCAI stands for ……………….
(a) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(b) Institute of Cost Accountants of India
(c) International Chartered Accounts Investigation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Question 19.
if a land is purchased for Rs. 3,00,000 and its market value is Rs. 5,00,000. At the time of preparing final accounts the land value is recorded only for …………
(a) Rs. 5,00,000
(b) Rs. 3,00,000
(c) Rs. 8,00,000
(d) Rs. 2,00,000
Answer:
(b) Rs. 3,00,000

Question 20.
The direct advantage of accounting does not include ………..
(a) Preparation of financial statements
(b) Competitive advantage
(c) Ascertainment of profit or loss
(d) Information to interested groups
Answer:
(b) Competitive advantage

Question 21.
Going concern assumption tell us the life of the business is ……………..
(a) very short
(b) very long
(c) short
(d) none
Answer:
(b) very long

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Question 22.
Cost incurred should be matched with the revenues of the particular Period is based on …………….
(a) matching concept
(b) historical cost concept
(c) full disclosure concept
(d) dual aspect concept
Answer:
(a) matching concept

Question 23.
IFRS are …………………
(a) International Financial Reporting Standards
(b) International Final Reporting Standards
(c) India Financial Reporting Standards
(d) India Final Reporting Standards
Answer:
(a) International Financial Reporting Standards

Question 24.
…………… said “Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”.
(a) J.R. Batliboi
(b) R.N. Carter
(c) Luca Pacioli
(d) Menhar
Answer:
(b) R.N. Carter

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the features of book-keeping?
Answer:
Following are the features of book-keeping:
1. It is the process of recording transactions in the books of accounts
2. Monetary transactions only are recorded in the accounts.
3. Book-keeping is the primary stage in the accounting process.
4. Book-keeping includes journalizing and ledger processing.

Question 2.
What are the limitations of book-keeping?
Answer:
Only monetary transactions are recorded in the books of accounts.
1. Effects of price level changes are not considered.
2. Financial data recorded are historical in nature, i.e., only past data are recorded

Question 3.
Define Accounting Standards.
Answer:
According to Kohler, “Accounting standards are codes of conduct imposed by customs, law or professional bodies for the benefit of public accountants and accountants generally”.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Question 4.
what’is meant by IFRS?
Answer:
1. International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) are issued by the International Accounting Standard Board (IASB).

2. IFRS is a set of International Accounting Standards stating how particular types of transactions and other events should be reported in financial statements.

3. IFRS are issued to develop Accounting Standards that would be acceptable worldwide and to improve financial reporting internationally.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the Objectives of book-keeping.
Answer:
Following are the objectives of book-keeping:
1. To have a complete and permanent record of all business transactions in chronological order and under appropriate headings.
2. To facilitate ascertainment of the profit or loss of the business during a specific period.
3. To facilitate ascertainment of financial position.
4. To know the progress of the business.
5. To find out the tax liabilities.
6. To fulfill the legal requirements.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of Book-Keeping?
Answer:
Book-keeping has the following advantages:
1. Transactions are recorded systematically in chronological order in the book of accounts. Thus, book-keeping provides a permanent and reliable record for all business transactions.
2. Book-keeping is useful to get the financial information.
3. It helps to have control over various business activities.
4. Records provided by business serve as a legal evidence in case of any dispute.
5. Comparison of financial information over the years is possible. Also comparison of financial information of different business units is facilitated.
6. Book-keeping is useful to find out the tax liability.

Question 3.
Differentiate Book-Keeping with Accounting.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting 1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Question 4.
What is the need for accounting standards?
Answer:
The need for accounting standards is as follows:
1. To promote better understanding of financial statements.
2. To help accountants to follow uniform procedures and practices.
3. To facilitate meaningful comparison of financial statements of two or more entities.
4. To enhance reliability of financial statements.
5. To meet the legal requirements effectively.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain the Concepts of Accounting. (Any Five)
Answer:
Business Entity Concept:
1. A business unit is separate from the owner or owners
2. Accounts are prepared from the point of view of the business and not from the owner’s point of view.
3. Only business transactions are recorded.

Money Measurement Concept:
1. Those transactions which can be expressed in terms of money are recorded in the accounts.
2. Money serves as the medium of exchange transactions.
3. Transactions which do not involve money will not be recorded in the books of accounts.

Going Concern Concept:
1. It is the basic assumption that business is a going concern and will continue its operations for a foreseeable future.

2. It influences accounting practices in relation of valuation of assets and liabilities, depreciation of the fixed assets, treatment of outstanding and prepaid expenses and accrued and unearned revenues.

Dual Aspect Concept:
1. Every transaction or event has two aspects
2. This concept recognizes the fact that for every debit, there is a corresponding and equal credit.
3. This the basis of the entire system of double entry book-keeping.
4. This concept arises the basic accounting equation that it:
Capital + Liabilities = Assets.

Realization Concept:
1. Any change in the value of an asset is to be recorded only when the business realizes it.
2. When assets are recorded at historical value, any change in value is to be accounted only when
it realizes.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

11th Accountancy Guide Introduction to Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The root of financial accounting system is
(a) Social accounting
(b) Stewardship accounting
(c) Management accounting
(d) Responsibility accounting
Answer:
(b) Stewardship accounting

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a main objective of accounting?
(a) Systematic recording of transactions
(b) Ascertainment of the profitability of the business
(c) Ascertainment of the financial position of the business
(d) Solving tax disputes with tax authorities
Answer:
(d) Solving tax disputes with tax authorities

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a branch of accounting?
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Human resources accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 4.
Financial position of a business is ascertained on the basis of
(a) Journal
(b) Trial balance
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(c) Balance Sheet

Question 5.
Who is considered to be the internal user of the financial information?
(a) Creditor
(b) Employee
(c) Customer
(d) Government
Answer:
(b) Employee

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define accounting.
Answer:
According to the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants “Accounting is the art of recording, classifying and summarising in a significant manner and in terms of money, transactions and events which are in part, at least of a financial character and interpreting the results thereof’.

Question 2.
List any two functions of accounting.
Answer:
Measurement:
The main function of accounting is to keep systematic record of transactions, post them to the ledger and ultimately prepare the final accounts.

Comparison:
Accounting helps to compare the actual performance with the planned performance. It is also possible to compare with the accounting policies. Effective measures can be taken to enhance the efficiency of various operations.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Question 3.
What are the steps involved in the process of accounting?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting 1

Question 4.
Who are the parties interested in accounting information?
Answer:
The following are the parties interested in accounting information
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting 2

Question 5.
Name any two bases of recording accounting information.
Answer:
Cash Basis:
The actual amount of cash received and cash paid is recorded in this. Any kind of income received and expenditure paid will be entered in this.

Accrual or Mercantile Basis:
The income which is not received but has been earned or accrued and the expenses incurred, which is paid and not recorded, is known as Accrual or Mercantile Basis.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of accounting.
Answer:
Accounting is the systematic process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarizing, interpreting and communicating financial information. Accounting gives information on:
1. The resources available.
2. How the available resources have been employed and
3. The results achieved by their use.

Question 2.
Discuss briefly the branches of accounting.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting 3
The following are the branches of accounting:
Financial Accounting:
It involves recording of financial transactions and events. It provides financial informations to the users for taking decisions.

Cost Accounting:
It involves the collection, recording, classification and appropriate allocation of expenditure for the determination of the costs of products or services and for the presentation of data for the purposes of cost control and managerial decision making.

Management Accounting:
It is concerned with the presentation of accounting information in such a way as to assist management in decision making and in the day-to-day operations of an enterprise.

Social Responsibility Accounting:
It is concerned with presentation of accounting information by business entities and other organisations from the view point of the society by showing the social costs incurred such as environmental pollution by the enterprise and social benefits such as infrastructure development and employment opportunities created by them.

Human Resources Accounting:
It is concerned with identification, quantification and reporting of investments made in human resources of an enterprise.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Question 3.
Discuss in detail the importance of accounting.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting 4
Systematic records:
1. All the transactions of an enterprise which are financial in nature are recorded in a systematic way in the books of accounts.
2. The records are classified under common heads and summaries are prepared.

Preparation of financial statement:
1. Results of business operations and the financial position of the concern can be ascertained from accounting periodically through the preparation of financial statements namely, income statement or trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet.

2. This helps in distribution of profits to the owners and to provide funds for future growth of the business.

Assessment of progress:
Analysis and interpretation of financial data can be done to assess the progress made in different areas and to identify the areas of weaknesses.

Aid to decision making:
1. Management of a firm has to make routine and strategic decisions while discharging its functions.
2. Accounting provides the relevant data to make appropriate decisions. Future policies and programmes can be planned by the management based on the accounting data provided.

Satisfies legal requirements:
Various legal requirements like maintenance of Provident Fund (PF) for employees, Employees State Insurance (ESI) contributions, Tax Deducted at Source (TDS), filing of tax returns are properly fulfilled with the help of accounting.

Information to interested groups:
Accounting supplies appropriate information to different interested groups like owners, management, creditors, employees, financial institutions, tax authorities and the government.

Legal evidence:
Accounting records are generally accepted as evidence in courts of law and other legal authorities in the settlement of disputes.

Computation of tax Accounting:
Records are the basic source for computation and settlement of income tax and other taxes.

Settlement during merger:
When two or more business units decide to merger, accounting records provide information for deciding the terms of merger and any compensation payable as a consequence of merger.

Question 4.
Why are the following parties interested in accounting information?
Answer:
Investors:
Investor is a person who is interested in investing their funds in an organization. They are the persons in need of the financial situation of the concern. They are more concerned about future earnings and risk bearing capacity of the organization which will affect the return to the investors.

Government:
The scarce resources of the country are used by business enterprises. Government also administers prices of certain commodities. In such cases, government agencies have to ensure that the guidelines for pricing are followed.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of an accountant in the modern business world:
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting 5
Record keeper:
The accountant maintains a systematic record of financial transactions. He also prepares the financial statements and other financial reports.

Provider of information to the management:
The accountant assists the management by providing financial information required for decision making and for exercising control.

Protector of business assets:
The accountant maintains records of assets owned by the business which enables the management to protect and exercise control over these assets. He advises the management about insurance of various assets and the maintenance of the same.

Financial advisor:
The accountant analyses financial information and advises the business managers regarding opportunities, strategies for cost savings, capital budgeting, provision for future growth and development, expansion of enterprise, etc.

Tax manager:
The accountant ensures that tax returns are prepared and filed correctly on time and payment of tax is made on time. The accountant can advise the managers regarding tax management, reducing tax burden, availing tax exemptions, etc.

Public relation officer:
The accountant provides accounting information to various interested users for analysis as per their requirements.

11th Accountancy Guide Introduction to Accounting Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The incomplete system of accounting is …………….
(a) Double Entry system
(b) Single Entry system
(c) Double account system
(d) none
Answer:
(b) Single Entry system

Question 2.
Accounts of persons with whom the business deals is known as …………….
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account
(d) Profit & Loss Account
Answer:
(a) Personal Account

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Question 3.
Business transactions may be classified into …………….
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 4.
The main aim of the proprietor is to earn …………….
(a) Profit
(b) Loss
(c) Cash
(d) Capital
Answer:
(a) Profit

Question 5.
Unsold stock lying in a business on a particular date are known as …………….
(a) Sales
(b) Loss
(c) Cash
(d) Stock
Answer:
(d) Stock

Question 6.
Any written or printed document in support of a business transaction is called …………….
(a) Receipt
(b) Credit Note
(c) Debit Note
(d) Voucher
Answer:
(a) Receipt

Question 7.
Withdrawn from the business by the owner for the personal use is called …………..
(a) Capital
(b) Drawings
(c) Purchases
(d) Sales
Answer:
(b) Drawings

Question 8.
……………… involves recording of transaction and events which are financial in nature.
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Human resources accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Financial accounting

Question 9.
An activity which involves transfer of money or money’s worth from one person to another person is called as ……………
(a) Transactions
(b) Assets
(c) Liabilities
(d) Capital
Answer:
(a) Transactions

Question 10.
Good will is an example of …………….
(a) Liabilities
(b) Tangible assets
(c) Intangible assets
(d) Capital
Answer:
(c) Intangible assets

Question 11.
……………… developed double entry book keeping system.
(a) Luca Pacioli
(b) Kautilya
(c) Philip Kotler
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Luca Pacioli

Question 12.
………….. refers to choosing a desirable course of action from alternative courses of actions.
(a) Control
(b) Forecasting
(c) Decision Making
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Decision Making

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Question 13.
The amount invested by the owner in the business is called …………….
(a) Capital
(b) Drawings
(c) Purchases
(d) Sales
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 14.
A person who owns a business is called as …………………
(a) Borrower
(b) Landlord
(c) Owner
(d) Sales man
Answer:
(c) Owner

Question 15.
Records of debit and credit were found in ……………
(a) 15th Century
(b) 13th Century
(c) 12th Century
(d) 20th Century
Answer:
(b) 13th Century

Question 16.
……………. is said to be the root of accounting.
(a) Cost Accounting
(b) Stewardship Accounting
(c) Management Accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Stewardship Accounting

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Transaction?
Answer:
A business activity which involves transfer of money or money’s worth (goods, services, ideas) from one person to another person.

Question 2.
What is an Voucher?
Answer:
Any written or printed document in support of a business transaction is called a voucher. Examples: Cash receipt, invoice, cash memo, bank pay-in-slip etc.

Question 3.
What are goods?
Answer:
It includes articles, things or commodities in which a business is dealing with. Examples: Furniture will be goods for those who deal in furniture.

Question 4.
What is mean by solvency?
Answer:
Solvency is the capability of a person or an enterprise to pay the debts.

Question 5.
What do you mean by depreciation?
Answer:
Depreciation refers to the decrease in the value of fixed assets due to usage and passage of time.

Question 6.
What are bad debts?
Answer:
It is a loss to the business arising out of failure of a debtor to pay the dues. It is irrecoverable debt.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Question 7.
What do you mean by accounting cycle?
Answer:
An accounting cycle is a complete sequence of accounting process, that begins with the recording of business transactions and ends with the preparation of final accounts.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain the attributes of account emerge.
Answer:
The following are the main attributes of accounting.
1. Accounting is an art. It requires the expertise and skill of accountants design accounting system and policies, to decide the accounting process in order to suit the requirements of an organization.

2. The transactions or events of a business must be recorded in monetary terms.

3. Accounting process involves recording, classifying and summarizing of transactions and analysis and interpretation of the results.

4. The results of such analysis must be communicated to the persons who are interested in such information.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the process of accounting cycle.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting 6
Identifying the transactions and journalizing:
1. The first step in the accounting process is identifying the financial transactions of a business.
2. All the monetary transactions are recorded in the books of original entry called journals.
3. Recording the transactions in the journal is called journalizing.
4. Entries are made in the journals on the basis of source documents in the chronological order, i.e., the order of occurrence of the transactions.

Posting and Balancing:
1. Transferring the entries from the journal to the ledger is called posting.
2. In the ledger, entries are made in each account after classifying them under common heads.
3. Finding the difference between the total of the debit column and credit column of all the ledger accounts is called balancing.

Preparation of trial balance:
1. The list of ledger balances namely trial balance is prepared as the next step.
2. On the basis of ledger balances the financial statements are prepared.

Preparation of trading account:
1. Next step is preparation of trading account for a particular accounting period.
2. All the direct revenues and direct expenses are transferred to trading account.
3. The balance in the trading account is the gross profit or gross loss.

Preparation of profit and loss account:
1. It is prepared next for a particular accounting period. Alt the indirect revenues and indirect expenses along with gross profit or gross loss are transferred to profit and loss account.
2. The balance in the profit and loss account is the net profit or net loss.

Preparation of balance sheet:
1. A statement showing the balances of assets and liabilities namely balance sheet is prepared as the final step in the accounting process.
2. It is prepared on a particular date, normally, on the last day of the accounting period.
3. The closing balances of an accounting year are taken as the opening balances for the next accounting year.
4. The transactions identified and recorded for the next year are followed by posting and other steps.
5. The results are communicated to the users of accounting information for the purpose of analysis and decision making.

Question 2.
Explain the Objectives of Accounting.
Answer:
Following are the objectives of accounting:

  1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events
  2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise
  3. To ascertain the financial position or status of the enterprise
  4. To provide information to various stakeholders for their requirement
  5. To protect the properties of an enterprise and
  6. To ascertain the solvency and liquidity position of an enterprise.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Question 3.
Explain the Functions of Accounting.
Answer:
The main functions of accounting are as follows:
Measurement:
1. The main function of accounting is to keep systematic record of transactions, post them to the ledger and ultimately prepare the final accounts.

2. Accounting works as a tool for measuring the performance of the business enterprises. It also shows the financial position of the business enterprises.

Forecasting:
With the help of the various tools of accounting, future performance and financial position of the business enterprises can be forecasted.

Comparison:
Accounting helps to compare the actual performance with the planned performance. Through comparison of the actual financial results of the business enterprises with projected figures and standards, effective measures can be taken to enhance the efficiency of various operations.

Decision making:
Accounting provides relevant information to the management for planning, evaluation of performance and control. This will help them to take various decisions concerning cost, price, sales, level of activity, etc.

Control:
As accounting works as a tool of control, the strengths and weaknesses are identified to provide feedback on various measures adopted. It serves as a tool for evaluating compliance of business policies and programmes.

Assistance to government:
Government needs full information on the financial aspects of the business for various purposes such as taxation, grant of subsidy, etc. Accounting provides relevant information about the business to exercise government control on business enterprises.

Question 4.
Write a note on the Evolution of Accounting.
Answer:
1. In the earliest days of civilisation, accounting was done by stewards who managed the properties of wealthy people.

2. The stewardship accounting is said to be the root of accounting.

3. In 1494, Luca Pacioli an Italian developed double-entry book-keeping system.

4. To safeguard the interest of owners and investors, the business establishments required detailed information about business which paved the way for development of comprehensive financial accounting information system.

5. In the 20th century, the need for analysis of financial information for managerial decision making caused emergence of Management Accounting as a separate branch of accounting.

6. Though accounting was individual centric in the initial stage of evolution of accounting, it has gradually developed into Social Responsibility Accounting in the 21st century.

Question 5.
Write a note on Transaction.
Answer:
An activity which involves transfer of money or money’s worth (goods,services, ideas) from one person to another, is known as Transaction. It is of two types, namely.
Cash transaction:
It is a transaction which involves immediate cash receipt or immediate cash payment.

Credit transaction:
It is a transaction in which cash is not received or paid immediately, but will be received or paid later.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Question 6.
Who are ail the internal users of Accounting Information?
Answer:
The internal users are owners, management and employees who are within the organization.
Owners:
1. The owners of a business provide capital to be used in the business.

2. They are interested to know whether the business has earned profit or not during a particular period and also its financial position on a particular date.

3. They want accounting reports in order to have an appraisal of performance and also for an assessment of future prospects to ensure that they will get their expected returns from the business and get back their capital.

Management:
1. Accounting data are the basis for most of the decisions made by the management.

2. The trends in sales and purchases, relationship of expenses to the sales, efficiency of employees, comparative profitability of different departments, capital structure and solvency position are some of the vital data required by management for planning and controlling the business operations.

3. Financial statements and other reports prepared under financial accounting provide this information to the management.

Employees:
The employees are interested in the profit earning capacity of the business which will affect their remuneration, working conditions and retirement benefits and stability and growth of the enterprise.

Question 7.
Explain the External Users of Accounting Information.
Answer:
External users are the persons who are in the outside of the organisation but make use of the information for their own purpose. The following are the external users:
Creditors and Financial Institutions:
1. Suppliers of goods and services, commercial banks, public deposit holders and debenture holders are included in this category,
2. They are interested in knowing the liquidity position and repaying capacity of the business to ensure the safety of getting the amount due to them or interest and the principal amount.

Investors:
1. Persons who are interested in investing their funds in an organisation should know about the financial condition of a business unit while making their investment decisions.
2. They are more concerned about future earnings and risk bearing capacity of the organisation.

Customers:
1. Customers who buy and use the products and services of business enterprises are interested in knowing the details of the products and the prices charged to them.
2. They are interested in knowing the stability and profitability of an enterprise to ensure continued supply of the products or services by the enterprise.

Tax authorities and other regulatory bodies:
1. Accounting information helps the tax authorities in computing income tax and taxes on goods and services and other taxes to be collected from business units.
2. Other regulatory bodies also require information about revenues, expenses and other financial aspects of business to ensure that the enterprises comply with statutory requirements.

Government:
The scarce resources of the country are used by business enterprises. Information about performance of business units in different industries helps the government in policy formulation, for development of trade and industry, allocation of scarce resources, grant of subsidy, etc. Government also administers prices of certain commodities.

Researchers:
Researchers to carry out their research can use accounting information and make use of the published financial statements for analysis and evaluation.

General public:
From accounting information, the general public at large can get a view of the earning capacity and stability of the enterprise as well as the social responsibility measures undertaken by the enterprise particularly in its area of operation and also the employment opportunities provided to the local people.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Guide Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

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  • Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 Tamil Medium
  • Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 Tamil Medium
  • Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 Tamil Medium
  • Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 Tamil Medium
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Types of Questions Marks No. of Questions to be Answered Total Marks
Part-I Objective Type 1 20 20
Part-II Very Short Answers
(Totally 10 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)
2 7 14
Part-Ill Short Answers
(Totally 10 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)
3 7 21
Part-IV Essay Type 5 7 35
Marks 90
Internal Assessment 10
Total Marks 100

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1. Knowledge 30%
2. Understanding 40%
3. Application 20%
4. Skill/Creativity 10%

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Textbook Evaluation:

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The gaseous envelope around the earth is known as atmosphere. The region lying between an altitudes of 11 – 50 km is _______.
(a) Troposphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Thermosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer:
(d) Stratosphere

Question 2.
Which of the following belongs to secondary air pollutant?
(a) Hydrocarbon
(b) Peroxy acetyl nitrate
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Nitric oxide
Answer:
(a) Hydrocarbon

Question 3.
Which of the following is natural and human disturbance in ecology?
(a) Forest fire
(b) Floods
(c) Acid rain
(d) Green house effect
Answer:
(b) Floods

Question 4.
Bhopal Gas Tragedy is a case of _______.
(a) thermal pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) nuclear pollution
(d) land pollution
Answer:
(c) nuclear pollution

Question 5.
Haemoglobin of the blood forms carboxy haemoglobin with
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon tetra chloride
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Carbonic acid
Answer:
(c) Carbon monoxide

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 6.
Which sequence for green house gases is based on GWP?
(a) CFC > N2O > CO2 > CH4
(b) CFC > CO2 > N2O > CH4
(c) CFC > N2O > CH4 > CO2
(d) CFC > CH4 > N2O > CO2
Answer:
(b) CFC > CO2 > N2O > CH4

Question 7.
Photo chemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of
(a) Ozone, SO2 and hydrocarbons
(b) Ozone, PAN and NO2
(c) PAN, smoke and SO2
(d) Hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2
Answer:
(d) Hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2

Question 8.
The pH of normal rain water is
(a) 6.5
(b) 7.5
(c) 5.6
(d) 4.6
Answer:
(c) 5.6

Question 9.
Ozone depletion will cause
(a) forest fires
(b) eutrophication
(c) bio magnification
(d) global warming
Answer:
(a) forest fires

Question 10.
_______ is considered to be ozone friendly substitude for CFC’S
(a) HFC (Hydro Fluro Carbon)
(b) Halons
(c) PAN (Peroxy acetyl nitrate)
(d) PAH (Poly cyclic aromatic hydro carbon)
Answer:
(d) PAH (Poly cyclic aromatic hydro carbon)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 11.
Identify the wrong statement in the following.
(a) The clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm
(b) Greenhouse effect is also called as Global warming
(c) Minute solid particles in air is known as particulate pollutants
(d) Biosphere is the protective blanket of gases surrounding the earth
Answer:
(c) Minute solid particles in air is known as particulate pollutants

Question 12.
Living in the atmosphere of CO is dangerous because it
(a) combines with O2 present inside to form CO2
(b) Reduces organic matter of tissues
(c) Combines with haemoglobin and makes it incapable to absorb oxygen
(d) Dries up the blood
Answer:
(c) Combines with haemoglobin and makes it incapable to absorb oxygen

Question 13.
World Ozone layer protection Day is celebrated in ________.
(a) June 5
(b) Nov – 19
(c) Sep – 16
(d) Jan – 26
Answer:
(c) Sep – 16

Question 14.
Release of oxides of nitrogen and hydrocarbons into the atmosphere by motor vehicles is prevented by using
(a) grit chamber
(b) scrubbers
(c) trickling filters
(d) catalytic convertors
Answer:
(b) scrubbers

Question 15.
Biochemical oxygen Demand value less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be
(a) highly polluted
(b) poor in dissolved oxygen
(c) rich in dissolved oxygen
(d) low COD
Answer:
(d) low COD

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 16.
Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I List II
A. Depletion of ozone layer 1. CO2
B. Acid rain 2. NO
C. Photochemical smog 3. SO2
D. Green house effect 4. CFC

Code:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 1
Answer:
(a)

Question 17.
Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List I List II
A. Stone leprosy 1. CO
B. Biological magnification 2. Green house gases
C. Global warming 3. Acid rain
D. Combination with haemoglobin 4. DDT

Code:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 1
Answer:
(d)

Question 18.
Assertion (A):
If BOD level of water in a reservoir is more than 5 pm it is highly polluted.
Reason (R):
High biological oxygen demand means high activity of bacteria in water.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(iv) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(a) i
(b) ii
(c) iii
(d) iv
Answer:
(a) i

Question 19.
Assertion (A):
Excessive use of chlorinated pesticide causes soil and water pollution.
Reason (R):
Such pesticides are non – biodegradable.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(iv) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(a) i
(b) ii
(c) iii
(d) iv
Answer:
(a) i

Question 20.
Assertion (A):
Oxygen plays a key role in the troposphere
Reason (R):
Troposphere is not responsible for all biological activities
(i) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(iv) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(a) i
(b) ii
(c) iii
(d) iv
Answer:
(b) ii

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

II. Write brief answer to the following questions:

Question 21.
Dissolved oxygen in water is responsible for aquatic life. What processes are responsible for the reduction in dissolved oxygen in water?
Answer:
The process which are responsible for the reduction of dissolved oxygen in water are excessive use of phosphatic and nitrate fertilizers, detergents, the discharge of human sewage and organic waste from food, paper and pulp industries. The microorganisms which oxidize organic matter also used oxygen dissolved in H2O.

More over, during night, photosynthesis stops but the aquatic plants continue to respire, resulting in reduction of dissolved oxygen.

Question 22.
What would happen, if the greenhouse gases were totally missing in the earth’s atmosphere?
Answer:
The solar energy radiated back from the earth surface in absorbed by the green house gases. (CO2, CH4, O3, CFCs) are present near the earth’s surface. They heat up the atmosphere near the earth’s surface and keep it warm.

As a result of these, there is growth of vegetation which supports the life. In the absence of this effect, there will be not life of both plant and animal on the surface of the earth.

Question 23.
Define smog.
Answer:
Smog is a combination of smoke and fog which forms droplets that remain suspended in the air. Smog is a chemical mixture of gases that forms a brownish yellow haze over urban cities.Smog mainly consists of ground level ozone, oxides of nitrogen, volatile organic compounds, SO2 acidic aerosols and gases, and particulate matter.

Question 24.
Which is considered to be earth’s protective umbrella? Why?
Answer:
At high altitudes to the atmosphere consists of a layer of ozone (O3) which acts as an umbrella or shield for harmful UV radiations. It protects us from harmful effect such as skin cancer. UV radiation can convert molecular oxygen into ozone as shown in the following reaction.
O2(g) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 12 O(g) + O(g)
O(g) + O2(g) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 12 O3(g)

Question 25.
What are degradable and non – degradable pollutants?
Answer:
The pollutants are classified as bio-degradable and non-biodegradable pollutants.

Bio-degradable pollutants:
The pollutants which can be easily decomposed by the natural biological processes are called bio-degradable pollutants.
Example:
plant wastes, animal wastes etc.

Non bio-degradable pollutants:
The pollutants which cannot be decomposed by the natural biological processes are called Non bio-degradable
pollutants.
Examples:
Metal wastes (mainly Hg and Pb), D.D.T, plastics, nuclear wastes etc.,
These pollutants are harmful to living organisms even in low concentration. As they are not degraded naturally, it is difficult to eliminate them from our environment.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 26.
From where does ozone come in the photo chemical smog?
Answer:
NO2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 2 NO + (O)
O3 are strong oxidizing agent and can react with unburnt hydrocarbons in polluted air to form formaldehyde, acrolein and peroxy acetyl nitrate (PAN).

Question 27.
A person was using water supplied by corporation. Due to shortage of water he started using underground water. He felt laxative effect. What could be the cause?
Answer:
A moderate concentration of sulphate ions in water are harmless but excessive concentration is greater than 500 ppm in water causes laxative effects. Hence under ground water may have consisted excess of suplhates.

Question 28.
What is green chemistry?
Answer:
Efforts to control environmental pollution resulted in development of science for synthesis of chemicals favorable to environment which is called green chemistry. Green chemistry means science of environmentally favorable chemical synthesis.

Question 29.
Explain how does green house effect cause global warming.
Answer:
Greenhouse effect may be defined as the heating up of the earth surface due to trapping of infrared radiations reflected by earth’s surface by CO2 layer in the atmosphere”. The heating up of earth through the greenhouse effect is called global warming.

Without the heating caused by the greenhouse effect, Earth’s average surface temperature would be only about -18 °C (CPF). Although the greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon, it is intensified by the continuous emission of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

During the past 100 years, the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increased by roughly 30 percent and the amount of methane more than doubled. If these trends continue, the average global temperature will increase which can lead to melting of polar ice caps and flooding of low lying areas. This will increase incidence of infectious diseases like dengue, malaria etc.

Question 30.
Mention the standards prescribed by BIS for quality of drinking water.
Answer:
Standard characteristics prescribed for deciding the quality of drinking water by BIS, in 1991 are shown in Table.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 31.
How does classical smog differ from photochemical smog?
Answer:
Classical smog was first observed in London in December 1952 and hence it is also known as Londo coal smoke and fog.

It occurs in cool atmospheric smog found in many large cities. The chemical composition is the mixture of SO2, SO3 and humidity. It generally occurs in the morning and becomes worse when the sun rises. This is mainly due to the induced oxidation of SO2 to SO3, which reacts with water yielding sulphuric acid aerosol.

Chemically it is reducing in nature because of high concentration of SO2 and so it is also called as reducing smog.

ii) Photo chemical smog or Los Angel Smog:
Photo Chemical smog was first observed in Los Angels in 1950. It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. This type of smog is formed by the combination of smoke, dust and fog with air pollutants like oxides of nitrogen and hydrocarbons in the presence of sunlight.

It forms when the sun shines and becomes worse in the afternoon. Chemically it is oxidizing in nature because of high concentration of oxidizing agents NO2 and O3, so it is also called as oxidizing smog.

Question 32.
What are particulate pollutants? Explain any three.
Answer:
1. Particulate pollutants are small solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in air. Many of particulate pollutants are hazardous.
Examples: dust, pollen, smoke, soot and liquid droplets (aerosols) etc,

2. Smoke particulate consists of solid particles (or) mixture of solid and liquid particles formed by the combustion of organic matter.
For example, cigarette smoke, oil smoke, smokes from burning of fossil fuel, garbage and dry leaves.

3. Dust composed of fine solid particles produced during crushing and grinding of solid materials.
For example, sand from sand blasting, saw dust from wood works, cement dust from cement factories and fly ash from power generating units.

Question 33.
Even though the use of pesticides increases crop production, they adversely affect the living organisms. Explain the function and the adverse effects of the pesticides.
Answer:
Pesticides are chemicals that are used to kill or stop the growth of unwanted organisms. But these pesticides can affect the health of human beings.
These are further classified as

Insecticides:
Insecticides like DDT, BHC, aldrin etc. can stay in soil for long period of time and are absorbed by soil. They contaminate root crops like carrot, raddish, etc.

Fungicide:
Organo mercury compounds are used as most common fungicide. They dissociate in soil to produce mercury which is highly toxic.

Herbicides:
Herbicides are the chemical compounds used to control unwanted plants. They are otherwise known as weed killers. Example sodium chlorate (NaClO3) and sodium arsenite (Na3AsO3). Most of the herbicides are toxic to mammals.

Question 34.
Ethane burns completely in air to give CO2, while in a limited supply of air gives CO. The same gases are found in automobile exhaust. Both CO and CO2 are atmospheric pollutants.
Answer:
The major pollutants of oxides of carbon are carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.

(i) Carbon Monoxide:
Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas produced as a result of incomplete combustion of coal are firewood. It is released into the air mainly by. automobile exhaust. It binds with haemoglobin and form carboxy haemoglobin which impairs normal oxygen transport by blood and hence the oxygen carrying capacity of blood is reduced. This oxygen deficiency results in headache, dizziness, tension, Loss of consciousness, blurring of eye sight and cardiac arrest.

(ii) Carbon dioxide:
Carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere mainly by the process of respiration, burning of fossil fuels, forest fire, decomposition of limestone in cement industry etc.

Green plants can convert CO2 gas in the atmosphere into carbohydrate and oxygen through a process called photosynthesis. The increased CO2 level in the atmosphere is responsible for global warming. It causes headache and nausea.

Question 35.
On the basis of chemical reactions involved, explain how do CFC’s cause depletion of ozone layer in stratosphere?
Answer:
In the presence of uv radiation, CFC’s break up into chlorine free radical
CF2Cl2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 4 CF2Cl + Cl
CFCl3 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 4 CFCl2 + Cl
Cl + O3 → ClO + O2
ClO + O → Cl + O2

Chlorine radical is regenerated in the course of reaction. Due to this continuous attack of Cl thinning of Ozone layer takes place which leads to formation of the ozone hole.

It is estimated that for every reactive chlorine atom generated in the stratosphere 1,00,000 molecules of ozone are depleted.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 36.
How is acid rain formed? Explain its effect.
Answer:
Rain water normally has a pH of 5.6 due to dissolution of atmospheric CO2 into it. Oxides, of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere may be absorbed by droplets of water that make up clouds and get chemically converted into sulphuric acid and nitric acid respectively as a results of pH of rainwater drops to the level 5.6 hence it is called acid rain.

Acid rain is a by-product of a variety of sulphur and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere. Burning of fossil fuels (coal and oil) in power stations, furnaces and petrol, diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides. The main contributors to acid rain are SO2 and NO2. They are converted into sulphuric acid and nitric acid respectively by the reaction with oxygen and water.

2SO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 2H2SO4
4NO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 4HNO3

Question 37.
What is sewage? What are the major steps involved in the treatment of sewage waste?
Answer:
Objectives of waste water treatment:

  1. To convert harmful compounds into harmless compounds.
  2. To eliminate the offensive smell.
  3. To remove the solid content of the sewage.
  4. To destroy the disease-producing micro organisms.

Treatment process:
The sewage (or) wastewater treatment process involves the following steps.

I. Preliminary Treatment:
In this treatment, coarse solids and suspended impurities are removed by passing the wastewater through bar and mesh screens.

II. Primary treatment (or) Settling process:
In this treatment, greater proportion of the suspended inorganic and organic solids are removed from the liquid sewage by settling. In order to facilitate quick settling coagulants like alum, ferrous sulphate are added. These produce large gelatinous precipitates, which entrap finely divided organic matter and settle rapidly.
Al2(SO4)3 + 6H2O → 2Al(OH)3 ↓ + 3H2SO4

III. Secondary (or) biological treatment:
In this treatment, biodegradable organic impurities are removed by aerobic bacteria. It removes upto 90 % of the oxygen demanding wastes. This is done by trickling filter or activated sludge process.

(a) Trickling filter process:
It is a circular tank and is filled with either coarse or crushed rock. Sewage is sprayed over this bed by means of slowly rotating arms.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 5

When sewage starts percolating downwards, mocroorganisms present in the sewage grow on the surface of filtering media using organic material of the sewage as food. After completion of aerobic oxidation the treated sewage is taken to the settling tank and the sludge is removed. This process removes about 80 – 85 % of BOD.

(b) Activated sludge process:

Activated sludge is biologically active sewage and it has a large number of aerobic bacterias, which can easily oxidize the organic impurities.

The sewage effluent from primary treatment is mixed with the required amount of activated sludge. Then the mixture is aerated in the aeration tank. Under these condition, organic impurities of the sewage get oxidized rapidly by the microorganisms.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 6

After aeration, the sewage is taken to the sedimentation tank. Sludges settle down in this tank, called activated sludge, a portion of which is used for seeding fresh batch of the sewage. This process removes about 90-95 % of BOD.

IV. Tertiary treatment:
After the secondary treatment, the sewage effluent has a lower BOD (25 ppm), which can be removed by the tertiary treatment process.

In the tertiary treatment, the effluent is introduced into a flocculation tank, where lime is added to remove phosphates. From the flocculation tank the effluent is led to ammonia stripping tower, where pH is maintained to 11 and the NH4+ is converted to gaseous NH3. Then the effluent is allowed to pass through activated charcoal column, where minute organic wastes are absorbed by charcoal. Finally the effluent water is treated with disinfectant (chlorine).

V. Disposal of sludge:
This is the last stage in the sewage treatment. Sludge formed from different steps can be disposed by

  1. dumping into low – lying areas,
  2. burning of sludge (incineration),
  3. dumping into the sea,
  4. using it as low grade fertilizers.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 7

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 38.
Differentiate the following:
(i) BOD and COD
(ii) Viable and non-viable particulate pollutants.
Answer:
(i) BOD and COD Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD):
The total amount of oxygen in milligrams consumed by microorganisms in decomposing the waste in one litre of water at 200°C for a period of 5 days is called biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and its value is expressed in ppm. BOD is used as a measure of degree of water pollution. Clean water would have BOD value less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water has BOD value of 17 ppm or more.

Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD):
BOD measurement takes 5 days so another parameter called the Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is measured. Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is defined as the amount of oxygen required by the organic matter in a sample of water for its oxidation by a strong oxidising agent like K2Cr2O7 in acid medium for a period of 2 hrs.

(ii) Viable and non – viable particulate pollutants:

Viable particulates:
The viable particulates are the small size living organisms such as bacteria, fungi, moulds, algae, etc. which are dispersed in air. Some of the fungi cause allergy in human beings and diseases in plants.

Non-viable particulates:
The non- viable particulates are small solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in air. They help in the transportation of viable particles. There are four types of non-viable particulates in the atmosphere.
Example:
Smoke, Dust, Mists, Fumes.

Question 39.
Explain how oxygen deficiency is cause by carbon monoxide in our blood? Give its effect.
Answer:
Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas produced as a result of incomplete combustion of coal are firewood. It is released into the air mainly by automobile exhaust. It binds with haemoglobin and form carboxy haemoglobin which impairs normal oxygen transport by blood and hence the oxygen carrying capacity of blood is reduced.

This oxygen deficiency results in headache, dizziness, tension, Loss of consciousness, blurring of eye sight and cardiac arrest. Efforts to control environmental pollution have resulted in development of science for synthesis of chemical favorable to environment and it is called green chemistry.

Question 40.
What are the various methods you suggest to protect our environment from pollution?
Answer:

  1. Waste management:
    Environmental pollution can be controlled by proper disposal of wastes.
  2. Recycling:
    A large amount of disposed waste material can be reused by recycling the waste, thus it reduces the land fill and converts waste into useful forms.
  3. Substitution of less toxic solvents for highly toxic ones used in certain industrial processes.
  4. Use of fuels with lower sulphur content (e.g., washed coal)
  5. Growing more trees.
  6. Control measures in vehicle emissions are adequate.
  7. Efforts to control environmental pollution have resulted in development of science for synthesis of chemical favourable to environment and it is called green chemistry.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

11th Chemistry Guide Environmental Chemistry Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The type of pollution cause by spraying of DDT is
(a) air and soil
(b) air and water
(c) air
(d) air, water and soil
Answer:
(d) air, water and soil

Question 2.
The green house effect is caused by
(a) CO2
(b) NO2
(c) NO
(d) CO
Answer:
(a) CO2

Question 3.
The gas responsible for ozone depletion:
(a) NO and freons
(b) SO2
(c) CO2
(d) CO
Answer:
(a) NO and freons

Question 4.
In Antartica ozone depletion is due to the formation of following compound
(a) acrolein
(b) peroxyacetyl nitrate
(c) SO2 and NO2
(d) chlorine nitrate
Answer:
(a) acrolein

Question 5.
The main element of smog is
(a) O3 and PAN
(b) O3
(c) PAN
(d) PPN and PBN
Answer:
(a) O3 and PAN

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 6.
Classical smog occurs in places of
(a) excess SO2
(b) low temperature
(c) high temperature
(d) excess NH3
Answer:
(b) low temperature

Question 7.
Which gas is responsible for ‘Bhopal Gas Tragedy’ in 1984?
(a) CO
(b) Methyl isocynate
(c) SO2 and NO2
(d) Ethyl isocynate
Answer:
(b) Methyl isocynate

Question 8.
Which gas is a main reason behind air pollution, is produced by
(a) sewage pollutant
(b) aerosols
(c) industrial remains
(d) Above all
Answer:
(b) aerosols

Question 9.
Which is a dangerous radiological pollutant?
(a) C14
(b) S35
(c) Sr90
(d) P32
Answer:
(c) Sr90

Question 10.
Which is related to ‘Green House Effect’?
(a) Farming of Green Plants
(b) Farming of Vegetables in Houses
(c) Global Warming
(d) Biodegradable pollutant
Answer:
(c) Global Warming

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 11.
The uppermost region of the atmosphere is called
(a) Ionosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer:
(d) Stratosphere

Question 12.
Which of the following is the coldest region of atmosphere
(a) Thermosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer:
(b) Mesosphere

Question 13.
The region which is greatly affected by air pollution is
(a) Thermosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Mesosphere
Answer:
(c) Troposphere

Question 14.
The substance which is a primary pollutant?
(a) H2SO4
(b) CO
(c) PAN
(d) Aldehydes
Answer:
(b) CO

Question 15.
Depletion of ozone layer causes
(a) breast cancer
(b) blood cancer
(c) lung cancer
(d) skin cancer
Answer:
(d) skin cancer

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 16.
Formation of London smog takes place in
(a) Winter during day time
(b) summer during day time
(c) summer during morning time
(d) winter during morning time
Answer:
(d) winter during morning time

Question 17.
The substance which is not regarded as a pollutant?
(a) NO2
(b) CO2
(c) O3
(d) Hydrocarbons
Answer:
(b) CO2

Question 18.
Green house gases
(a) allow shorter wavelength to enter earth’s atmosphere while doesn’t allow longer wavelength to leave the earth’s atmosphere.
(b) allow longer wavelength to enter earth atmosphere while doesn’t allow shorter wavelength to leave the surface.
(c) don’t have wavelength specific character.
(d) she wavelength specific behaviour near the earth while far from earth these have wavelength independent behavior.
Answer:
(a) allow shorter wavelength to enter earth’s atmosphere while doesn’t allow longer wavelength to leave the earth’s atmosphere.

Question 19.
Carbon monoxide (CO) is harmful to man because
(a) it forms carbolic acid
(b) it generates excess CO2
(c) it is carcinogenic
(d) it competes with O2 for haemoglobin
Answer:
(d) it competes with O2 for haemoglobin

Question 20.
Today the concentration of green house gases is very high because of
(a) use of refrigerator
(b) increased combustion of oils and coal
(c) deforestation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 21.
The quantity of CO2 in atmosphere is
(a) 3.34 %
(b) 6.5 %
(c) 0.034 %
(d) 0.34 %
Answer:
(c) 0.034 %

Question 22.
BOD of pond is connected with
(a) microbes & organic matter
(b) organic matter
(c) microbes
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) microbes & organic matter

Question 23.
When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a pH value
(a) slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm
(b) slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there
(c) uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm
(d) which depends upon the amount of dust in air
Answer:
(a) slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm

Question 24.
Water pollution is caused by
(a) pesticides
(b) SO2
(c) O2
(d) CO2
Answer:
(a) pesticides

Question 25.
Minamata disease of Japan is due to pollution of
(a) Aresenic
(b) Lead
(c) Cynide
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(d) Mercury

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 26.
Which causes death of fish in water bodies polluted by sewage?
(a) Foul smell
(b) Pathogens
(c) Herbicides
(d) Decrease in D.O.
Answer:
(d) Decrease in D.O.

Question 27.
Sewage water is purified by
(a) aquatic plants
(b) microorganisms
(c) light
(d) fishes
Answer:
(b) microorganisms

Question 28.
Which pollutant is harmful for ‘Tajmahal’?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) O2
(c) SO2
(d) Chlorine
Answer:
(c) SO2

Question 29.
Negative soil pollution is
(a) reduction in soil productivity due to erosion and over use
(b) reduction in soil productivity due to addition of pesticides and industrial wastes
(c) converting fertile land into barren land by dumping ash, sludge and garbage
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) reduction in soil productivity due to erosion and over use

Question 30.
The quantity of DDT in food chain
(a) decreases
(b) remains same
(c) increases
(d) changes
Answer:
(c) increases

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 31.
Which is known as “Third poison of environment” and also creates ‘Blue baby syndrome’
(a) Nitrate present in water
(b) Phosphate and detergents found in water
(c) Cyanide
(d) Pesticides
Answer:
(b) Phosphate and detergents found in water

Question 32.
The substance having the largest concentration in acid rain?
(a) H2CO3
(b) HNO3
(c) HCl
(d) H2SO4
Answer:
(d) H2SO4

Question 33.
Water is often treated with chlorine to
(a) remove hardness
(b) increase oxygen content
(c) kill germs
(d) remove suspended particles
Answer:
(c) kill germs

Question 34.
Thermal pollution affects mainly
(a) vegetation
(b) aquatic creature
(c) rocks
(d) air
Answer:
(b) aquatic creature

Question 35.
B.O.D test or biochemical oxygen demand test is made for measuring
(a) air pollution
(b) water pollution
(c) noise pollution
(d) soil pollution
Answer:
(b) water pollution

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 36.
Brewery and sugar factory water alters the quality of a water body by increasing
(a) temperature
(b) turbidity
(C) pH
(d) COD and BOD
Answer:
(d) COD and BOD

Question 37.
A dental disease characterized by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of a certain chemical element in drinking water. Which is that element?
(a) Boron
(b) Chlorine
(c) Fluorine
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(c) Fluorine

Question 38.
The high amount of E.coli in water is an indicator of
(a) hardness of water
(b) industrial pollution
(c) sewage pollution
(d) presence of chlorine in the water
Answer:
(c) sewage pollution

Question 39.
A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
(a) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
(b) an increase production of fish due to a lot of nutrients
(c) death of fish due to lack of oxygen
(d) increased population of aquatic food web organisms
Answer:
(c) death of fish due to lack of oxygen

Question 40.
In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage(S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order
(a) SE < S < PE < DE
(b) SE < PE < S < DE
(c) PE < S < SE < DE
(d) S < DE < PE < SE
Answer:
(c) PE < S < SE < DE

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 41.
The greenhouse effect is because of the
(a) presence of gases, which in general are strong infrared absorbers, in the atmosphere
(b) presence of CO2 only in the atmosphere
(c) presence of O3 and CH4 in the atmosphere
(d) N2O and chlorofluoro hydrocarbons in the atmosphere
Answer:
(a) presence of gases, which in general are strong infrared absorbers, in the atmosphere

Question 42.
Which of the following is/are the hazardous pollutant(s) present in automobile exhaust gases?
(a) N2
(b) CO
(c) CH4
(d) Oxides of nitrogen
Answer:
(c) CH4

Question 43.
Green chemistry means such reactions which:
(a) produce colour during reactions
(b) reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals
(c) are related to the depletion of ozone layer
(d) study the reactions in plants
Answer:
(b) reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals

Question 44.
Which one of the following statement is not true?
(a) pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 – 9.5.
(b) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish.
(c) Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm.
(d) Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant.
Answer:
(b) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish.

Question 45.
Which one of the following statements regarding photochemical smog is not correct?
(a) Carbon monoxide does not play any role in photochemical smog formation.
(b) photochemical smog is an oxidizing agent in character.
(c) photochemical smog is formed through photochemical reaction involving solar energy.
(d) Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in eyes and throat.
Answer:
(d) Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in eyes and throat.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 46.
Frequent occurrence of water blooms in a lake indicates
(a) nutrient deficiency
(b) oxygen deficiency
(c) excessive nutrient availability
(d) absence of herbivores in the lake
Answer:
(b) oxygen deficiency

Question 47.
The smog is essentially caused by the presence of
(a) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen
(b) O2 and N2
(c) O2 and O3
(d) O2 and N2
Answer:
(a) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen

Question 48.
Identify the wrong statement in the following.
(a) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion.
(b) Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming.
(c) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth.
(d) Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.
Answer:
(c) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth.

Question 49.
Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
(a) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation of the sun.
(b) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its chemical reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes.
(c) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation.
(d) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can cause the depletion of ozone layer.
Answer:
(c) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation

Question 50.
What is DDT among the following?
(a) Greenhouse gas
(b) A fertilizer
(c) Biodegradable pollutant
(d) Non – biodegradable pollutant
Answer:
(d) Non – biodegradable pollutant

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 51.
The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was:
(a) Methyl isocyanate
(b) Methylamine
(c) Ammonia
(d) Phosgene
Answer:
(a) Methyl isocyanate

Question 52.
Black – foot disease is caused due to groundwater contaminated with excess of
(a) Nitrate
(b) Fluoride
(c) Arsenic
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(c) Arsenic

Question 53.
Exposure of an organism to UV system causes
(a) photodynamic action
(b) formation of thymidine
(c) splitting of H – bonds of DNA
(d) splitting of phosphodiester bonds
Answer:
(c) splitting of H – bonds of DNA

Question 54.
Under column – I, a list of gases that are known to have a greenhouse effect is given. Relate them to their main source selecting from the given under Column – II:

Column – I Column – II
A. Nitrous oxide 1. Secondary pollutant from car exhausts
B. Chlorofluoro carbon (CFCs) 2. Combustion of fossil fuels, wood, etc.
C. Methane 3. Denitrification
D. Ozone (O3) 4. refrigerators, aerosol, sprays
E. Carbondioxide 5. Cattle, rice fields, toilets

(a) A – 3, B – 4, C – 5, D – 1, E – 2
(b) A – 5, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4, E – 2
(c) A – 4, B – 5 , C – 1, D – 2, E – 3
(d) A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 5, E – 2
Answer:
(a) A – 3, B – 4, C – 5, D – 1, E – 2

Question 55.
Minamata disease is a pollution related disease results form
(a) oil spills into sea
(b) accumulation of arsenic into atmosphere
(c) release of industrial waste mercury into bodies water
(d) release human organic waste into drinking water
Answer:
(c) release of industrial waste mercury into bodies water

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 56.
Air pollution causing photochemical oxidants production include
(a) Carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide
(b) Nitrous oxide, nitric acid fumes, nitric oxide
(c) Ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate, aldehydes
(d) Oxygen, chlorine, fuming nitric acid
Answer:
(c) Ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate, aldehydes

Question 57.
Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of
(a) ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and NOx
(b) smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and SO2
(c) hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2
(d) hydrocarbons, ozone and SOx
Answer:
(a) ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and NOx

Question 58.
Which, one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies
(b) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants
(c) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil
(d) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers
Answer:
(a) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies

Question 59.
Reducing the use of non-biodegradable things will contribute of
(a) Increase in O2
(b) Cyanophycean blooms occur
(c) Depletion of O2 layers
(d) Eutrophication
Answer:
(a) Increase in O2

Question 60.
Which of the following metal is a water pollutant and causes sterility in human. being?
(a) As
(b) Mn
(c) Mg
(d) Hg
Answer:
(b) Mn

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 61.
Lichens do not like to grow in cities
(a) because of absence of the right type of algae and fungi
(b) because of lack of moisture
(c) because of SO2 pollution
(d) because natural habitat is missing
Answer:
(c) because of SO2 pollution

Question 62.
Limit of BOD prescribed by Central pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste waters into natural surface waters, is
(a) < 100 ppm
(b) < 30 ppm
(c) < 3.0 ppm
(d) < 10 ppm
Answer:
(b) < 30 ppm

Question 63.
Which one of the following pairs is mismatched
(a) Fossil fuel burning – release of CO2
(b) Nuclear power – radioactive wastes
(c) Solar energy – Greenhouse effect
(d) Biomass burning – release of CO2
Answer:
(c) Solar energy – Greenhouse effect

Question 64.
In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of
(a) SO2
(b) NOx
(c) SPM
(d) CO
Answer:
(c) SPM

Question 65.
The term “Bio – magnification” refers to the
(a) growth of organism due to food consumption
(b) increase in population size
(c) blowing up of environmental issues by man
(d) increase in the concentration of non – degradable pollutants as they pass through food chain
Answer:
(d) increase in the concentration of non – degradable pollutants as they pass through food chain

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 66.
In almost all Indian metropolitan cities like Delhi, the major atmospheric pollutant(s) is / are
(a) suspended particulate matter (SPM)
(b) oxides of sulphur
(c) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
(d) oxides of nitrogen
Answer:
(a) suspended particulate matter (SPM)

Question 67.
In coming years, skin related disorders will be more common due to
(a) pollutants in air
(b) use of detergents
(c) water pollution
(d) depletion of ozone layer
Answer:
(d) depletion of ozone layer

Question 68.
Statement 1:
Inhabitants close to very busy airports are likely to experience health hazards.
Statement 2:
Sound level of jet aeroplanes usually exceeds 160 dB.
(a) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1.
(b) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for statement – 1
(c) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False
(d) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True
Answer:
(a) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1.

Question 69.
Statement 1:
Suspended particulate matter (SPM) is an important pollutant released by diesel vehicles.
Statement 2:
Catalytic converters greatly reduce pollution caused by automobiles.
(a) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1.
(b) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for statement – 1
(c) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False
(d) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True
Answer:
(b) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for statement – 1

Question 70.
Statement 1:
Eutrophication shows increase in productivity in water.
Statement 2:
With increasing eutrophication, the diversity of the phytoplankton increases.
(a) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1.
(b) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for statement – 1
(c) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False
(d) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True
Answer:
(b) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for statement – 1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 71.
Statement 1:
The main cause of the Bhopal gas tragedy was phosgene.
Statement 2:
Phosgene is a volatile liquid.
(a) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1.
(b) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for statement – 1
(c) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False
(d) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True
Answer:
(d) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True

Question 72.
Statement 1:
CO2 causes green house effect.
Statement 2:
Other gases do not show such effect.
(a) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement – 1
(b) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True, Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for statement – 1
(c) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False
(d) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True
Answer:
(c) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

II. Very short question and answers (2 Marks):

Question 1.
What is called as environmental pollution?
Answer:
Any undesirable change in our environment that has harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings is called environmental pollution.

Question 2.
What are pollutants?
Answer:
The substances which cause pollution of environment are called pollutants.

Question 3.
Write the different types of atmospheric pollution.
Answer:

  1. Air pollution
  2. Water pollution
  3. Soil pollution.

Question 4.
What is Air pollution?
Answer:
Any undesirable change in air which adversely affects living organisms is called air pollution. Air pollution is limited to troposphere and stratosphere. Air pollution is mainly due to the excessive discharge of undesirable foreign matter in to the atmospheric air.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 5.
What are the techniques adopt to reduce particulate pollutants?
Answer:
The particulates from air can be removed by using electrostatic precipitators, gravity settling chambers, and wet scrubbers or by cyclone collectors. These techniques are based on washing away or settling of the particulates.

Question 6.
Define soil pollution.
Answer:
Soil pollution is defined as the buildup of persistent toxic compounds, radioactive materials, chemical salts and disease causing agents in soils which have harmful effects on plant growth and animal health.

Question 7.
Write the effects that were caused by classical smog.
Answer:

  1. Smog is primarily responsible for acid rain.
  2. Smog results in poor visibility and it affects air and road transport.
  3. It also causes bronchial irritation.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

III. Short question and answers (3 Marks):

Question 1.
How the oxides of nitrogen pollute the atmospheric air?
Answer:
Oxides of nitrogen are produced during high temperature combustion processes, oxidation of nitrogen in air and from the combustion of fuels (coal, diesel, petrol etc.).
N2 + O2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 8 2NO
2NO + O2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 9 2NO2
NO + O3 → NO2 + O2

The oxides of nitrogen are converted into nitric acid which comes, down in the form of acid rain. They also form reddish brown haze in heavy traffic. Nitrogen dioxide potentially damages plant leaves and retards photosynthesis. NO2 is a respiratory irritant and it can cause asthma and lung injury. Nitrogen dioxide is also harmful to various textile fibres and metals.

Question 2.
How the hydrocarbon compounds make harmful effects on living things?
Answer:
The compounds composed of carbon and hydrogen only are called hydrocarbons. They are mainly produced naturally (marsh gas) and also by incomplete combustion of automobile fuel.

They are potential cancer causing (carcinogenic) agents. For example, polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH) are carcinogenic, they cause irritation in eyes and mucous membranes.

Question 3.
Explain the environmental impact of ozone depletion.
Answer:
The formation and destruction of ozone is a regular natural process, which never disturbs the equilibrium level of ozone in the stratosphere. Any change in the equilibrium level of the ozone in the atmosphere will adversely affect life in the biosphere in the following ways.

Depletion of ozone layer will allow more UV rays to reach the earth surface and layer would cause skin cancer and also decrease the immunity level in human beings. UV radiation affects plant proteins which leads to harmful mutation of cells. UV radiation affects the growth of phytoplankton, as a result ocean food chain is disturbed and even damages the fish productivity.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 4.
Write the causes of water pollution.
Answer:
(i) Microbiological (Pathogens):
Disease causing microorganisms like bacteria, viruses and protozoa are most serious water pollutants. They come from domestic sewage and animal excreta. Fish and shellfish can become contaminated and people who eat them can become ill. Some serious diseases like polio and cholera are water borne diseases. Human excreta contain bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis which cause gastrointestinal diseases.

(ii) Organic wastes:
Organic matter such as leaves, grass, trash etc can also pollute water. Water pollution is caused by excessive phytoplankton growth within water. Microorganisms present in water decompose these organic matter and consume dissolved oxygen in water.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Eutrophication.
Answer:
Eutrophication is a process by which water bodies receive excess nutrients that stimulates excessive plant growth (algae, other plant weeds). This enhanced plant growth in water bodies is called as algae bloom.

The growth of algae in extreme abundance covers the water surface and reduces the oxygen concentration in water. Thus, bloom-infested water inhibits the growth of other living organisms in the water body. This process in which the nutrient-rich water bodies support a dense plant population, kills animal life by depriving it of oxygen and results in loss of biodiversity is known as eutrophication.

Question 6.
Write the harmful effects those caused by chemical water pollutants.
Answer:

  1. Cadmium and mercury can cause kidney damage.
  2. Lead poisoning can leads to severe damage of kidneys, liver, brain etc. it also affects central nervous system
  3. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) causes skin diseases and are carcinogenic in nature.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 7.
Distinguish between BOD and COD.
Answer:

BOD COD
1. BOD is the amount of oxygen required for the biological decomposition of organic matter present in the water. COD is the amount of oxygen required for chemical oxidation of organic matter using some oxidizing agent like K2Cr207 and KMn04.
2. It is an important indication of the amount of organic matter present in the river water. It is carried out to determine the pollution strength of river water.
3. Since complete oxidation occurs in an indefinite period, the reaction period is taken as 5 days at 20°C. It is a rapid process and takes only 8 hours.

IV. Long question and answer (5 Marks):

Question 1.
Explain the different layers of earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
Troposphere:
The lowest layer of the atmosphere is called the troposphere and it extends from o – 10 km from the earth surface. About 80% of the mass of the atmosphere is in this layer. This troposphere in further divided as follows.

i) Hydrosphere:
Hydrosphere includes all types of water sources like oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, streams, underground water, polar icecaps, clouds etc. It covers about 75% of the earth’s surface. Hence the earth is called as a blue planet.

ii) Lithosphere:
Lithosphere includes soil, rocks and mountains which are solid components of earth.

iii) Biosphere:
It includes the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere integrating the living organism present in the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

Question 2.
How the oxides of sulphur pollute the atmospheric air?
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide are produced by burning sulphur-containing fossil fuels arid roasting sulphide ores. Sulphur dioxide is a poisonous gas to both animals and plants. Sulphur dioxide causes eye irritation, coughing and respiratory asthma, bronchitis, etc.

Sulphur dioxide is oxidised into more harmful sulphur trioxide in the presence of particulate matter present in polluted air.
2SO2 + O2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 10 2SO3

SO3 combines with atmospheric water vapour to form H2SO4, which comes down in the form of acid rain.
SO3 + H2O → H2SO4

Question 3.
Explain the health effects of particulate pollutants for human health.
Answer:

  1. Dust, mist, fumes,etc., are air borne particles which are dangerous for human health. Particulate pollutants bigger than 5 microns are likely to settle in the nasal passage whereas particles of about 10 micron enters the lungs easily and causes scaring or fibrosis of lung lining.
  2. They irritate the lungs and causes cancer and a,sthma. This disease is also called pneumoconiosis. Coal miners may suffer from black lung disease. Textile workers may suffer from white lung disease.
  3. Lead particulates affect children’s brain, interferes maturation of RBCs and even cause cancer.
  4. Particulates in the atmosphere reduce visibility by scattering and absorption of sunlight. It is dangerous for aircraft and motor vehicles
  5. Particulates provide nuclei for cloud formation and increase fog and rain.
  6. Particulates deposit on plant leaves and hinder the intake of CO2 from the air and affect photosynthesis.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 4.
Explain the effects of photo chemical smog and its control.
Answer:
The three main components of photo chemical smog are nitrogen oxide, ozone and oxidised hydro carbon like formaldehyde(HCHO), Acrolein (CH2 = CH – CHO), peroxy acetyl nitrate (PAN). Photochemical smog causes irritation to eyes, skin and lungs, increase in chances of asthma.

High concentrations of ozone and NO can cause nose and throat irritation, chest pain, uncomfortable in breathing, etc. PAN is toxic to plants, attacks younger leaves and cause bronzing and glazing of their surfaces. It causes corrosion of metals stones, building materials and painted surfaces.

Control of Photo chemical smog:
The formation of photochemical smog can be suppressed by preventing the release of nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons into the atmosphere from the motor vehicles by using catalytic convertors in engines. Plantation of certain trees like Pinus, Pyrus, Querus Vitus and juniparus can metabolise nitrogen oxide.

Question 5.
List out the major water pollutants and their sources.
Answer:

Pollutant Sources
1.Microorganisms Domestic sewage, domestic waste water, dung heap.
2. Organic wastes Domestic sewage, animal excreta, food processing factory waste, detergents and decayed animals and plants.
3. Plant nutrients Chemical fertilisers.
4. Heavy metals Heavy metal producing factories.
5. Sediments Soil erosion by agriculture and strip-mining.
6. Pesticides Chemicals used for killing insects, fungi and weeds.
7. Radioactive Mining of uranium containing minerals substances.
8. Heat Water used for cooling in industries.

Question 6.
What are the major sources that cause soil pollution?
Answer:
Artificial fertilizers:
Soil nutrients are useful for growth of plants. Plants obtains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen from air or water, whereas other essential nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sulphur are being absorbed from soil. To remove the deficiency of nutrients in soil, farmers add artificial fertilizers. Increased use of phosphate fertilizers or excess use of artificial fertilizers like NPK in soil, results in reduced yield in that soil.

Pesticides:
Pesticides are the chemicals that are used to kill or stop the growth of unwanted organisms. But these pesticides can affect the health of human beings.
These are further classified as

Insecticides:
Insecticides like DDT, BHC, aldrin etc. can stay in soil for long period of time and are absorbed by soil. They contaminate root crops like carrot, raddish, etc.

Fungicide:
Organo mercury compounds Eire used as most common fungicide. They dissociate in soil to produce mercury which is highly toxic.

Herbicides:
Herbicides are the chemical compounds used to control unwanted plants. They are otherwise known as weed killers.
Example:
Simple sodium chlorate (NaClO3) and sodium arsenite (Na3AsO3). Most of the herbicides are toxic to mammals.

Industrial wastes:
Industrial activities have been the biggest contributor to the soil pollution especially the mining Eind manufacturing activities.

Large number of toxic wastes are released from industries. Industrial wastes include cyanides, chromates, acids, alkalis, and metals like mercury, copper, zinc, cadmium and lead etc. These industrial wastes in the soil surface lie for a long time and make it unsuitable for use.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

Question 7.
Explain the various contribution of green chemistry in our day to day life.
Answer:
(1) Dry cleaning of clothes:

Solvents like tetrachloroethylene used in dry cleaning of clothes, pollute the ground water and are carcinogenic. In the place of tetrachloroethylene, liquefied CO2 with suitable detergent is an Alternate solvent used. Liquified CO2 is not harmful to the ground water. Now a days H2O2 used for bleaching clothes in laundry, gives better results and utilizese less water.

(2) Bleaching of paper:

Conventional method of bleaching was done with chlorine. Now a days H2O2 can be used for bleaching paper in presence of catalyst.

(3) Synthesis of chemicals:

Acetaldehyde is now commercially prepared by one step oxidation of ethene in the presence of ionic catalyst in aqueous medium with 90% yield.

CH2 = CH2 + O Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry 11 CH3CHO
Ethylene Acetaldehyde

(4) Instead of petrol, methanol is used as a fuel in automobiles:

Methanol is considered to be less expensive than other commercial fuel and gasoline. During the process of combustion, it provides a higher thermal efficiency and power output because of its high octane rating and high heat vapourization.

(5) Neem based pesticides have been synthesised, which are more safer than the chlorinated hydrocarbons:

Every individual has an important role for preventing pollution and improving our environment. We Eire responsible for environmental protection. Let us begin to save our environment and provide a clean earth for our future generations.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

11th Chemistry Guide Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textbook Evaluation:

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The IUPAC name of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 1 is
a) 2 – Bromo pent – 3 – ene
b) 4 – Bromo pent – 2 – ene
c) 2 – Bromo pent – 4 – ene
d) 4 – Bromo pent – 1 – ene
Answer:
b) 4 – Bromo pent – 2 – ene

Question 2.
Of the following compounds, which has the highest boiling point?
a) n – Butyl chloride
b) Isobutyl chloride
c) t – Butyl chloride
d) n – Propyl chloride
Answer:
a) n – Butyl chloride

Question 3.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their density
A) CCl4
B) CHCl3
C) CH2Cl2
D) CH3Cl
a) D < C < B < A
b) C > B > A > D
c) A < B < C < D
d) C > A > B > D
Answer:
a) D < C < B < A

Question 4.
With respect to the position of – Cl in the compound CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – Cl, it is classified as
a) Vinyl
b) Allyl
c) Secondary
d) Aralkyl
Answer:
b) Allyl

Question 5.
What should be the correct IUPAC name of diethyl chloromethane?
a) 3 – Chloro pentane
b) 1 – Chloropentane
c) 1 – Chloro – 1, 1 – diethyl methane
d) 1- Chloro-1-ethyl propane
Answer:
a) 3 – Chloro pentane

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 6.
C – X bond is strongest in
a) Chloromethane
b) Iodomethane
c) Bromomethane
d) Fluoromethane
Answer:
d) Fluoromethane

Question 7.
In the reaction Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 2 X is ______.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 3
Answer:
b) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 4

Question 8.
Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH ion?
i) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 5

ii) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 6

iii) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 7
a) (i)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii)
d) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
c) (iii)

Question 9.
The treatment of ethyl formate with excess of RMgX gives
a) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 8

b) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 9
c) R – CHO
d) R – O – R
Answer:
c) R – CHO

Question 10.
Benzene reacts with Cl2 in the presence of FeCl3 and in absence of sunlight to form
a) Chlorobenzene
b) Benzyl chloride
c) Benzal chloride
d) Benzene hexachloride
Answer:
a) Chlorobenzene

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 11.
The name of C2F4C12 is
a) Freon – 112
b) Freon – 113
c) Freon – 114
d) Freon – 115
Answer:
c) Freon – 114

Question 12.
Which of the following reagent is helpful to differentiate ethylene dichloride and ehtylidene chloride?
a) Zn / methanol
b) KQH / ethanol
c) aqueous KOH
d) ZnCl2 / Con HCl
Answer:
c) aqueous KOH

Question 13.
Match the compounds given in Column I with suitable items given in Column II:

Column I (Compound) Column II (Uses)
A. Iodoform 1. Fire extinguisher
B. Carbon tetra chloride 2. Insecticide
C. CFC 3. Antiseptic
D. DDT 4. Refrigerants

Code
a) A → 2 B → 4 C → 1 D → 3
b) A → 3 B → 2 C → 4 D → 1
c) A → 1 B → 2 C → 3 D → 4
d) A → 3 B → 1 C → 4 D → 2
Answer:
d) A → 3 B → 1 C → 4 D → 2

Question 14.
Assertion:
Inmonohaloarenes, electrophilic substitution occurs at ortho and para positions.
Reason:
Halogen atom is a ring deactivator.
Assertion and Reason type questions.
Directions:
In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) mark the correct choice as
(i) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(ii) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(iii) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(iv) If both assertion and reason are false.
a) (i)
b) (ii)
c) (iii)
d) (iv)
Answer:
b) (ii)

Question 15.
Consider the reaction,
CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN → CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr This reaction will be the fastest in
a) ethanol
b) methanol
c) DMF (N, N’ – dimethyl formamide)
d) water
Answer:
c) DMF (N, N’ – dimethyl formamide)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 16.
Freon – 12 manufactured from tetrachloro methane by
a) Wurtz reaction
b) Swarts reaction
c) Haloform reaction
d) Gattermann reaction
Answer:
b) Swarts reaction

Question 17.
The most easily hydrolysed molecules under SN1 condition is
a) allyl chloride
b) ethyl chloride
c) isopropyl chloride
d) benzyl chloride
Answer:
a) allyl chloride

Question 18.
The carbon cation formed in SN1 reaction of alkyl halide in the slow step is
a) sp3 hybridized
b) sp2 hybridized
c) sp hybridized
d) none of these
Answer:
b) sp2 hybridized

Question 19.
The major products obtained when chlorobenzene is nitrated with HNO3 and con H2SO4
a) 1 – chloro – 4 – nitrobenzene
b) 1 – chloro – 2 – nitrobenzene
c) 1 – chloro – 3 – nitrobenzene
d) 1 – chloro – 1 – nitrobenzene
Answer:
a) 1 – chloro – 4 – nitrobenzene

Question 20.
Which one of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
a) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 10

b) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 11

c) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 12

d) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 13
Answer:
d) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 13

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 21.
Ethylidene chloride on treatment with aqueous KOH gives
a) acetaldehyde
b) ethylene glycol
c) formaldehyde
d) glycoxal
Answer:
a) acetaldehyde

Question 22.
The raw material for Raschig process
a) chloro benzene
b) phenol
c) benzene
d) anisole
Answer:
c) benzene

Question 23.
Chloroform reacts with nitric acid to produce
a) nitro toluene
b) nitro glycerine
c) chloropicrin
d) chloropicric acid
Answer:
c) chloropicrin

Question 24.
Acetone Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 14 X, X is
a) 2 – propanol
b) 2 – methyl – 2 – propanol
c) 1 – propanol
d) acetonol
Answer:
b) 2 – methyl – 2 – propanol

Question 25.
Silverpropionate when refluxed with Bromine in carbon tetrachloride gives
a) propionic acid
b) chloroethane
c) Bromo ethane
d) chloro propane
Answer:
c) bromo ethane

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

II. Write brief answer to the following questions:

Question 26.
Classify the following compounds in the form of alkyl, allylic, vinyl, benzylic halides.
i) CH3 – CH = CH – Cl

ii) C6H5CH2I

iii) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 15

iv) CH2 = CH – Cl
Answer:
i) CH3 – CH = CH – Cl = Allylic halide

ii) C6H5CH2I = Benzylic halide

iii) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 15 = Alkyl halide

iv) CH2 = CH – Cl = Vinyl halide

Question 27.
Why chlorination of methane is not possible in dark?
Answer:
The reaction of chlorine and methane is a free radical reaction under the influence of light energy. Chlorine molecule first split into two Cl atoms or radicals. These are both very reactive species in contact with methane they form methyl radical and HCl.

Methyl radical further reacts with Cl to give CH3Cl and another Cl atom thus of a chain reaction. So this reaction takes place only under the influence of light. Hence the reaction does not take place in dark condition.

Question 28.
How will you prepare n propyl iodide from n – propyl bromide?
Answer:
Finkelstein reaction,
nCH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br + NaI Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 16 n – CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – I + NaBr
n – propyl iodide                                              n- propyl bromide

Question 29.
Which alkyl halide from the following pair is
i) chiral
ii) undergoes faster SN2 reaction?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 17
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 18
It contains one chiral carbon atom.
2 – bromo butane undergoes SN2 mechanism faster than 1- Chloro butane.

Question 30.
How does chlorobenzene react with sodium in the presence of ether? What is the name of the reaction?
Answer:
Haloarenes react with sodium metal in dry ether, two aryl groups combine to give biaryl products.
This reaction is called fittig reaction.
C6H5Cl + 2Na + Cl – C6H5 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 19 C6H5 – C6H5 + 2NaCl
Chlorobenzene                                      Biphenyl

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 31.
Give reasons for polarity of C – X bond in halo alkane.
Answer:
Carbon halogen bond is a polar bond as halogens are more electro negative than carbon. The carbon atom exhibits a partial positive charge (δ+) and halogen atom a partial negative charge (δ)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 20

The C -X bond is formed by overlap of sp3 orbital of carbon atom with half-filled p- orbital of the halogen atom. The atomic size of halogen increases from fluorine to iodine, which increases the C – X bond length. Larger the size, greater is the bond length, and weaker is the bond formed. The bond strength of C – X decreases from C – F to C – I in CH3X.

Question 32.
Why is it necessary to avoid even traces of moisture during the use of Grignard reagent?
Answer:
Grignard reagents are mostly reactive and react with the source of product to give hydrocarbons. Even alcohols, amines, H2O are sufficiently acidic to convert them to corresponding hydrocarbons.
R Mg X + H2O → RH + Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 21

Due to its high reactivity, it is necessary to avoid even traces of moisture from Grignard reagent.

Question 33.
What happens when acetyl chloride is treated with an excess of CH3MgI?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 22

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 23

Question 34.
Arrange the following alkyl halide in increasing order of bond enthalpy of RX.
CH3Br, CH3F, CH3Cl, CH3I
Answer:
The order is:
CH3I < CH3Br < CH3Cl < CH3F.

Question 35.
What happens when chloroform reacts with oxygen in the presence of sunlight?
Answer:
2 CHCl3 + O2 → 2 COCl2 + 2 HCl

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 36.
Write down the possible isomers of C5H11Br and give their IUPAC and common names.
Answer:
C5H11Br – Possible isomers
1. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Br → 1 – bromo pentane

2. Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 24 → 2 – bromo pentane

3. Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 25 → 3 – bromo pentane

4.  Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 26 → 1 – bromo 2, 2 – dimethyl propane

5. Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 27 → 1 – bromo 3 – methyl butane

6. Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 28 → 2 – bromo 3 – methyl butane

7. Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 29 → 2 – bromo 2 – methyl butane

8. Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 30 → 1 – bromo 2- methyl butane

9. Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 31 → (2S) – 1 – bromo 2 – methyl butane

10. Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 32 → (2R) – 1 – bromo 2 – methyl butane

Question 37.
Mention any three methods of preparation of haloalkanes from alcohols.
Answer:
Haloalkanes are prepared by the following methods.
1) From alcohols:
Alcohols can be converted into halo alkenes by reacting it with any one of the following reagent.
1. Hydrogen halide
2. Phosphorous halides
3. Thionyl chloride.

a) Reaction with hydrogen halide:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 33

Mixture of con. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 is called Lucas Reagent.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 34

The order of reactivity of halo acids with alcohol is in the order HI > HBr > HCl.
The order of reactivity of alcohols with halo acid is tertiary > secondary > primary.

b) Reaction with phosphorous halides:
Alcohols react with PX5 or PX3 to form haloalkanes.
Example:
CH3CH2OH + PCl5 → CH3CH2Cl + POCl3 + HCl
Ethane                      Chloro ethane

3CH3CH2OH + PCl3 → 3 CH3CH2Cl + H3PO3
Ethanol                       Chloro ethane

c) Reaction with Thionyl chloride(Sulphonyl Chloride)
CH3CH3OH + SOCl2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 35 CH3CH2Cl + SO2↑ + HCl↑
Ethanol                                      Chloro ethane

Question 38.
Compare SN1 and SN2 reaction mechanisms.
Answer:

SN1 SN2
Rate law Unimolecular (Substrate only) Biomolecular (substrate and nucleophile)
“Big Barrier” Carbocation stability Steric hindrance
Alkyl halide (electrophile) 3° > 2° > 1°  1° > 2° > 3°
Nucleophile Weak (generally neutral) Strong (generally bearing a negative charge)
Solvent Polar protic (e.g., alcohols) Polar aprotic (e.g., DMSO, acetone)
Stereo Chemistry Mix of retention and inversion inversion

Question 39.
Reagents and the conditions used in the reactions are given below. Complete the table by writing down the product and the name of the reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 36
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 37

Question 40.
Discuss the aromatic nucleophilic substitutions reaction of chlorobenzene.
Answer:
The halogen of haloarenes can be substituted by OH, NH2 or CN with appropriate nucleophilic reagents at high temperature and pressure.
Example:
(i) Chlorobenzene reacts with ammonium at 250 and at 50 atm to give aniline.
C6H5Cl + 2NH3 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 38 C6H5NH2 + NH4Cl
Chlorobenzene                  Aniline

(ii) Chlorobenzcne reacts with CuCN in presence of pyridine at 250 to give phenyl cyanide.
C6H5Cl + CuCN Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 39 C6H5CN + CuCl
Chlorobenzene                Phenyl cyanide

(iii) Dows process:
C6H5Cl + NaOH Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 40 C6H5OH + NaCl
Chlorobenzene                   Phenol
This reaction is known as Dow’s process.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 41.
Account for the following:
(i) t – butyl chloride reacts with aqueous KOH by SN1 mechanism while n – butyl chloride reacts with SN2 mechanism.
(ii) p – dichloro benzene has higher melting point than those of o – and m – dichloro benzene.
Answer:
(i) t – butyl chloride reacts with aqueous KOH by SN1 mechanism while n – butyl chloride reacts with SN2 mechanism.
It general, SN1 reaction proceeds through the formation, of carbocation, The tert- butyl chloride readily loses Cl ion to form stable 3° carbocation. Therefore, it reacts with aqueous KOH by SN1 mechanism as:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 41

On the other hand n-Butyl chloride does not undergo ionization to form n-Butyl carbocation (1°) because it is not stable. Therefore, it prefers to undergo reaction by SN2 mechanism, which occurs is one step through a transition state involving nucleophilic attack of OH ion from the backside with simultaneous expulsion of Cl ion from the front side.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 42

SN1 mechanism follows the reactivity order as 3° > 2°> 1° while SN2 mechanism follows the reactivity order as 1° > 2° > 3°. Therefore, tert-butyl chloride (3°) reacts by SN1 mechanism while n-butyl chloride (1°) reacts by SN2 mechanism. (ii) p – dichloro benzene has higher melting point than those of o – and m – dicholoro benzene. The higher melting point of p – isomer is due to its symmetry which leads to more close packing of its molecules in the crystal lattice and consequently strong intermolecular attractive force which requires more energy for melting. p – Dihalo benzene > o – Dichloro benzene> m – Dichioro benzene
Melting point: 323 K 256 K 249 K

Question 42.
In an experiment methyl iodide in ether is allowed to stand over magnesium pieces. Magnesium dissolves and product is formed.
a) Name of the product and write the equation for the reaction.
b) Why all the reagents used in the reaction should be dry? Explain.
c) How is acetone prepared from the product obtained in the experiment?
Answer:
a) Name of the product and write the equation for the reaction.
CH3I + Mg Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 43 CH3MgI

b) Why all the reagents used in the reaction should be dry? Explain.
All the reagents used in the reaction should be dry because reagent reacts with H20 to produce alkane. This is the reason that everything has to be very dry during the preparation of Grignard reagents.
CH3 – MgI + H2O → CH4 +Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 44
Methane

c) How is acetone prepared from the product obtained in the experiment?
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 45

Question 43.
Write a chemical reaction useful to prepare the following.
i) Freon – 12 from Carbon tetrachloride
ii) Carbon tetrachloride from carbon disulphide.
Answer:
i) Freon – 12 from Carbon tetrachloride:
Freon – 12 is prepared by the action of hydrogen fluoride on carbon tetrachloride in the presence of catalytic amount of antimony pentachloride.
CCl4 + 2HF Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 46 2HCl + CCl2F2
Carbon tetrachloride            Freon – 12

ii) Carbon tetrachloride from carbon disulphide.
Carbon disulphide reacts with chlorine gas in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst giving carbon tetra chloride.
CS2 + 3 Cl2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 47 CCl4 + S2Cl2
Carbon disulfide                Carbon tetrachloride

Question 44.
What are Freons? Discuss their uses and environmental effects.
Answer:
The chloro fluoro derivatives of methane and ethane are called freons.
Nomenclature:
Freon is represented as Freon – cba
Where a = number of carbon atoms – 1;
b = number of hydrogen atoms + 1
a = total number of fluorine atoms
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 48

Uses:
i) Freons are used as a refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditioners.
ii) It is used as a propellant for aerosols and foams
iii) It is used as propellant for foams to spray out deodorants, shaving creams, and insecticides.

Question 45.
Predict the products when bromo ethane is treated with the following.
i) KNO2 ii) AgNO2
Answer:
i) KNO2:
Bromo ethane reacts with alcoholic solution of NaNO2 or KNO2 to form ethyl nitrite.
CH3CH2Br + KNO2 → CH3CH2 – O – N = O + KBr
Bromoethane Ethyl nitrite

ii)AgNO2:
Bromo ethane reacts with alcoholic solution of AgNO2 to form nitro ethane.
CH3CH2Br + AgNO2 → CH3CH2 NO2 + AgBr
Bromoethane                Nitro ethane

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 46.
Explain the mechanism of SN1 reaction by highlighting the stereochemistry behind it.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 49
In SN1 reactions, if the alkyl halide is optically active, the product obtained in a racemic mixture. The intermolecular carbocation formed in slowest step being sp2 hybridised is planar species. Therefore the attack of the nucleophile OH on it, can occur from both the faces with equal case forming a mixture of two enantiomers. Thus SN1 reaction of optically active alkyl halides are accompained by racemisation.

Question 47.
Write short notes on the following.
i) Raschig process
ii) Dows process
iii) Darzen’s process
Answer:
i) Raschig process:
Chloro benzene is commercially prepared by passing a mixture of benzene vapour, air and HCl overheated cupric chloride, this reaction is called the Raschig process,
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 50

ii) Dows Process:
C6H5Cl + NaOH Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 51 C6H5OH + NaCl
This reaction is known as Dows process.

iii) Darzen’s process:
CH3CH2OH + SOCl Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 51 CH3CH2Cl + SO2↑ + HCl↑
Ethanol Chloro ethane
This reaction is known as Darzen’s process.

Question 48.
Starting from CH3MgI, How will you prepare the following?
i) Acetic acid
ii) Acetone
iii) Ethyl acetate
iv) Iso propyl alcohol
v) Methyl cyanide
Answer:
i) Acetic acid:
Solid carbon dioxide reacts with methyl magnesium iodide to form addition product which on hydrolysis yields aceti acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 52

ii) Acetone:
Acetyl chloride reacts with methyl magnesium iodide and followed by acid hydrolysis to give acetone.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 53

iii) Ethyl Acetate:
Ethyl chloroformate reacts with methyl magnesium iodide to form ethyl acetate.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 54

iv) Isopropyl alcohol:
Aldehydes (Acetaldehyde) other than formaldehyde, react with methyl magnesium iodide to give addition product which on hydrolysis yields isopropyl alcohol.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 55

v) Methyl cyanide:
Methyl magnesium iodide reacts with cyanogen chloride to give methyl cyanide.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 56

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 49.
Complete the following reactions.
i) CH3 – CH = CH2 + HBr Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 57
ii) CH3 – CH2 – Br + NaSH Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 58
iii) C6H5Cl + Mg Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 59
iv) CHCl3 + HNO3 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 60
v) CCl4 + H2O Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 60
Answer :
i) CH3 – CH = CH2 + HBr Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 57 CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
Propene                                                   n – propyl bromide

ii) CH3 – CH2 – Br + NaSH Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 58 CH3 – CH2 – SH + NaBr
Propyl bromide                                     Ethanethiol

iii) C6H5Cl (Chloro benzene) + Mg Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 59 C6H5MgCl (Phenyl magnesium chloride)

iv) CHCl3 + HNO3 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 60 CCl3NO2 + H
Chloroform                               Chloropicrin

v) CCl4 (Carbon tetrachloride) + H2O Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 60COCl2 (Carbonyl chloride) + 2HCl

Question 50.
Explain the preparation of the following compounds.
i) DDT
ii) Chloroform
iii) Biphrnyl
iv) Chloropicrin
v) Freon – 12
Answer:
i) DDT:
DDT can be prepared by heating a mixture of chlorobenzene with chloral (Trichloro acetaldehyde) in the presence of con.H2SO4.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 61

ii) Chloroform:
Preparation:
Chloroform is prepared in the laboratory by the reaction between ethyl alcohol with bleaching powder followed by the distillation of the product chloroform. Bleaching powder act as a source of chlorine and calcium hydroxide. This reaction is called haloform reaction. The reaction proceeds in three steps as shown below.

Step – 1: Oxidation
CH3CH2OH + Cl2 → CH3CHO + 2HCl
Ethyl alcohol           Ethanal (Acetaldehyde)

Step – 2: Chlorination
CH3CHO + 3Cl2 → CCl3CHO + 3HCl
Acetaldehyde        Trichloro acetaldehyde

Step – 3: Hydrolysis
2CCl3CHO + Ca(OH)2 → 2CHCl3 + (HCOO)2 Ca
Chloral                         chloroform

iii) Biphenyl:
Chloro benzene react with sodium metal in dry ether, to give biphenyl. This reaction is called fitting reaction.
C6H5Cl + 2 Na + Cl – C6H5 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 65 C6H5 – C6H5 + 2NaCl
Chloro benzene                                          Biphenyl

iv) Chloropicrin:
Chloroform reacts with nitric acid to form chloropicrin. (Trichloro nitro methane)
CHCl3 + HNO3 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 66 CCl3NO2 + H2O
Chloroform                   Chloropicrin

v) Freon – 12
Freon – 12 is prepared by the action of hydrogen fluoride on carbon tetrachloride in the presence of catalytic amount of antimony pentachloride
CCl4 + 2 HF Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 67 2 HCl + CCl2F2
Carbon tetrachloride                     Freon – 12

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 51.
An organic compound (A) with molecular formula C2H5Cl reacts with KOH gives compounds (B) and with alcoholic KOH gives compound (C). Identify (A), (B), (C).
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 62

Question 52.
Simplest alkene (A) reacts with HCl to form compound (B). Compound (B) reacts with ammonia to form compound (C) of molecular formula C2H7N. Compound (C) undergoes carbylamine test. Identify (A),
(B) and (C).
Answer:
CH2 = CH2 + HCl → C2H5Cl
(A) Ethylene              (B) Ethyl chloride

C2H5Cl + NH3    →    C2H5NH2 + HCl
(C) Ethyl chloride      (B) Ethyl amine

Question 53.
A hydrocarbon C3H6(A) reacts with HBr to form compound (B). Compound (B) reacts with aqueous potassium hydroxide to give (C) of molecular formula C3H6O. What are the (A), (B) and (C). Explain the reactions.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 63

Question 54.
Two isomers (A) and (B) have the same molecular formula C2H4Cl2. Compound (A) reacts with aqueous KOH gives compound (C) of molecular formula C2H4O. Compound (B) reacts with aqueous KOH gives compound (D) of molecular formula C2H6O2. Identify (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 64

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

11th Chemistry Guide Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is 1° alkyl halide
a) R – CH2 – X
b) R2CHX
C) R3C – X
d) R – H
Answer:
a) R – CH2 – X

Question 2.
2° halide among the following
a) isopropyl chloride
b) iso – butyl chloride
c) n – propyl chloride
d) n – butyl chloride
Answer:
a) isopropyl chloride

Question 3.
Ethylidene dibromide is
a) CH3CH2Br
b) Br – CH2 – CH2 – Br
c) CH3 – CHBr2
d) CH2 = CH Br
Answer:
c) CH3 – CHBr2

Question 4.
Which of the following is gemdihalide?
a) CH3CHBrCH2Br
b) CH3CHBr2
c) CH3CHBrCH2CH2Br
d) BrCH2CH2Br
Answer:
b) CH3CHBr2

Question 5.
Vicinal dihalide is
a) CH3CH2Br
b) Br – CH2 – CH2 – Br
c) CH3 – CHBr2
d) CH2 = CHBr
Answer:
b) Br – CH2 – CH2 – Br

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 6.
The reagent used to get alkyl halide from alcohol
a) PCl5
b) SOCl2
c) Both a and b
d) Cl2
Answer:
c) Both a and b

Question 7.
For the preparation of alkyl halides from alcohols which among the following cannot be used
a) PCl5
b) SOCl2
c) PCl3
d) NaCl
Answer:
d) NaCl

Question 8.
In the preparation of alkyl halide from alkane and halogen which of the following reaction involved
a) Electrophilic addition
b) Nucleophilic addition
c) Electrophilic substitution
d) Nucleophilic substitution
Answer:
a) Electrophilic addition

Question 9.
In the preparation of alkyl halide from alkane and halogen which of the following reaction involved
a) Free radical substitution
b) Nucleophilic addition
c) Electrophilic substitution
d) Nucleophilic substitution
Answer:
a) Free radical substitution

Question 10.
Grignard reagent is formed when alkyl halide reacts with which one of the following
a) Mg in alcohol
b) Mg in acid
c) Mg in dry ether
d) MgO
Answer:
c) Mg in dry ether

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 11.
When alkyl halide reacts with moist Ag2O gives
a) alcohol
b) ether
c) alkane
d) Alkene
Answer:
a) alcohol

Question 12.
Alkyl halide on reduction with Zn + HCl gives
a) alcohol
b) alkene
c) alkane
d) ether
Answer:
c) alkane

Question 13.
Cyanide is formed as the major product of the reaction when alkyl halide is treated with one of the following :
a) AgNO2
b) KNO2
c) AgCN
d) KCN
Answer:
c) AgCN

Question 14.
Which of the reactions are most common in alkyl halides
a) Nucleophilic addition
b) Electrophilic addition
c) Nucleophilic substitution
d) Electrophilic substitution
Answer:
c) Nucleophilic substitution

Question 15.
Treatment of ammonia with excess of ethyl chloride will yield
a) Diethyl amine
b) Ethane
c) Tetra ethyl ammonium chloride
d) methyl amine
Answer:
c) Tetra ethyl ammonium chloride

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 16.
In chloro ethane the carbon bearing halogen is bonded to ________.
a) three, primary
b) two, secondary
c) one, tertiary
d) two, primary
Answer:
d) two, primary

Question 17.
Which of the fallowing is used as refrigerant?
a) CH3COCH3
b) CCl4
c) C2H5Cl
d) CF4
Answer:
c) C2H5Cl

Question 18.
SN1reaction occurs through the intermediate formation of
a) carbocation
b) carbanion
c) free radicals
d) transition
Answer:
a) carbocation

Question 19.
The rate of SN2 reaction is maximum when the solvent is
a) Methyl alcohol
b) Water
c) Dimethyl sulphoxide
d) Benzene
Answer:
c) Dimethyl sulphoxide

Question 20.
The most reactive nucleophile among the following is
a) CH3O
b) C6H5O
c) (CH3)2CHO
d) (CH3)3CO
Answer:
a) CH3O

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 21.
The correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction is
a) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
b) CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
C) CH3I > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3F
d) CH3I > CH3Br > CH3F > CH3Cl
Answer:
b) CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F

Question 22.
In SN2 reactions the order of reactivity of the halides.
CH3X, C2H5X , n – C3H7X, n- C4H9X is
a) CH3X > C2H5X > n – C3H7X > n – C4H9X
b) C2H5X > n – C3H7X > n – C4H9X > CH3X
c) C2H5X > n – C3H7X > n – C4H9X < CH3X
d) n – C4H9X > n – C3H7X > C2H5X > CH3X
Answer:
a) CH3X > C2H5X > n – C3H7X > n – C4H9X

Question 23.
SN2 mechanism proceeds through the formation of a
a) carbocation
b) transition state
c) free radical
d) carbanion
Answer:
b) transition state

Question 24.
In Dow’s process the starting raw material is
a) Phenol
b) Chloro benzene
c) Aniline
d) Diazobenzene
Answer:
b) Chloro benzene

Question 25.
Chloro benzene is prepared commercially by
a) Dow’s process
b) Decon’s process
c) Raschig process
d) Etard’s process
Answer:
c) Raschig process

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 26.
Chloro benzene is ________ reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution and directs incoming electrophile to the ______ position.
a) more, ortho & para
b) less, ortho & para
c) more, meta
d) less, meta
Answer:
b) less, ortho & para

Question 27.
The raw material for raschig; process is
a) chloro benzene
b) phenol
c) benzene
d) anisol
Answer:
c) benzene

Question 28.
Chloro benzene on treatment with sodium in dry ether gives diphenyl. The name of the reaction is
a) Fitting reaction
b) Wurtz fittig reaction
c) Wurtz reaction
d) Sandmeyer reaction
Answer:
a) Fitting reaction

Question 29.
An organic compound which produces a bluish green coloured flame on heating in the presence of copper is,
a) chloro benzene
b) benzaldehyde
c) aniline
d) benzoic acid
Answer:
a) chloro benzene

Question 30.
The raw materials for the commercial manufacture of DDT are
a) chloro benzene and chloroform
b) chloro benzene and chloro methane
c) chloro benzene and chloral
d) chloro benzene and iodoform
Answer:
c) chloro benzene and chloral

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 31.
Iodoform is used as
a) anaesthetic
b) antiseptic
c) analgesic
d) anti febrin
Answer:
b) antiseptic

Question 32.
The following is used in paint removing
a) CHCl3
b) CH2Cl2
c) CCl4
d) CH3CI
Answer:
b) CH2Cl2

Question 33.
In fire extinguishers, following is used
a) CHCl3
b) CS2
c) CCl4
d) CH2Cl2
Answer:
c) CCl4

Question 34.
The following is used for metal cleaning and finishing
a) CHCl3
b) CHI3
c) CH2Cl2
d) C6H6
Answer:
c) CH2Cl2

Question 35.
First chlorinated insecticide
a) DDT
b) Gammaxene
c) Iodoform
d) Freon
Answer:
a) DDT

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 36.
The following is used as anaesthetic
a) C2H4
b) CHCl3
c) CH2Cl2
d) DDT
Answer:
b) CHCl3

Question 37.
Freon – 12 is
a) CF3Cl
b) CHCl2F
c) CF2Cl2
d) DDT
Answer:
c) CF2Cl2

Question 38.
The name of DDT
a) p, p’ – dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethane
b) p, p’ – dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethene
C) p, p’ – dichloro diphenyl tnchloro benzene
d) p, p’ – tetra chloro ethane
Answer:
a) p, p’ – dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethane

Question 39.
Freon R – 22 is
a) CHClF2
b) CCl2F2
c) CH3Cl
d) CH2Cl2
Answer:
a) CHClF2

Question 40.
Molecular formula of DDT has
a) 5 Cl atoms
b) 4 Cl atoms
c) 3 Cl atoms
d) 2 Cl atoms
Answer:
a) 5 Cl atoms

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 41.
What is DDT among the following
a) Green house gas
b) A fertilizer
c) Bio degradable pollutant
d) Non – Bio degradable pollutant
Answer:
d) Non – Bio degradable pollutant

Question 42.
The IUPAC name of (CH3)3CHCH2Br is
a) 1 – bromo – 2 – methyl propane
b) 2 – bromo – 2 -methyl propane
c) 1 – bromo – 1 – methyl propane
d) 2 – bromo – 1 -methylpropane
Answer:
a) 1 – bromo – 2 – methyl propane

Question 43.
IUPAC name of allyl chloride is
a) 1 – chloro ethane
b) 3 – chloro- 1 – propyne
c) 3 – chloro – 1 – propene
d) 1 – chloro propane
Answer:
c) 3 – chloro – 1 – propene

Question 44.
The number of structural isomers possible with the formula C4H9Cl are
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer:
b) 4

Question 45.
Density is highest for
a) CH3Cl
b) CH2Cl2
c) CHCl3
d) CCl4
Answer:
d) CCl4

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 46.
C2H5OH Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 68 X. In this reaction ‘X’ is
a) Ethanol
b) Ethylene chloride
c) ethylidene chloride
d) ethyl chloride
Answer:
d) ethyl chloride

Question 47.
Thionyl chloride is preferred in the preparation of chloro compound from alcohol since
a) Both the byproducts are gases and they escape out leaving product in pure state
b) It is a chlorinating agent
c) It is an oxidising agent
d) All other reagents are unstable
Answer:
a) Both the byproducts are gases and they escape out leaving product in pure state

Question 48.
The only alkene which gives primary alkyl halides on hydro halogenation
a) C2H4
b) C3H6
c) C4H8
d) C5H10
Answer:
a) C2H4

Question 49.
– OH cannot be replaced by – Cl if we use
a) PCl5
b) PCl3
c) S2Cl2
d) SOCl2
Answer:
c) S2Cl2

Question 50.
In the hydrohalogenation of ethylene for adding HCl, the catalyst used is
a) Anhydrous AlCl3
b) Conc. Sulphuric acid
c) Dilute Sulphuric acid
d) Anhydrous ZnCl2
Answer:
a) Anhydrous AlCl3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 51.
Which one of the following has the lowest boiling point?
a) CH3Cl
b) C2H5Cl
c) C2H5Br
d) C2H5I
Answer:
a) CH3Cl

Question 52.
Chloroethane is reacted with alcoholic potassium hydroxide. The product formed is
a) C2H6O
b) C2H6
c) C2H4
d) C2H4O
Answer:
c) C2H4

Question 53.
What is X in the following reaction? C2H5Cl + X → C2H5OH + KCl
a) KHCO3
b) alc. KOH
c) aq. KOH
d) K2CO3
Answer:
c) aq. KOH

Question 54.
Which of the following acids will give maximum yield of alkyl chloride in Hunsdiecker reaction
a) CH3CH2CH2COOH
b) (CH3)2CHCOOH
c) (CH3)3CCOOH
d) C6H5CH (CH3)COOH
Answer:
a) CH3CH2CH2COOH

Question 55.
In the reaction sequence
C2H5Cl + KCN X. What is the molecular formula of X is
a) C2H5CN
b) C2H5NC
c) C2H5OH
d) C2H4O
Answer:
a) C2H5CN

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 56.
Ethyl chloride on heating with silver cyanide forms a compound X. The functional isomer of X is
a) C2H5NC
b) C2H5NCN
c) H3C – NH – CH3
d) C2H5NH2
Answer:
b) C2H5NCN

Question 57.
With Zn – Cu couple and C2H5OH, ethyl Iodide reacts to give
a) ethers
b) diethyl ether
c) Iodoform
d) Ethane
Answer:
d) Ethane

Question 58.
Ethyl bromide on boiling with alcoholic solutions of sodium hydroxide forms
a) Ethane
b) ethylene
c) ethyl alcohol
d) all of these
Answer:
b) ethylene

Question 59.
Following major compound is formed when ethyl chloride react with silver nitrite
a) Nitro ethane
b) Ethyl nitrite
c) Ethylene
d) Acetaldehyde
Answer:
b) Ethyl nitrite

Question 60.
Which of the following represents Williamson’s synthesis?
a) CH3COOH + PCl3
b) CH3 – CH2 – Cl + CH3COOH →
c) CH3 – CH2 – ONa + CH3 – CH2 – Cl →
d) CH3 – CH2 – OH + Na →
Answer:
c) CH3 – CH2 – ONa + CH3 – CH2 – Cl →

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 61.
The reaction of alkyl halide with benzene in presence of anhydrous A1Cl3 gives alkyl benzene the reaction is known as
a) Friedel – craft’s reaction
b) Carbylamine reaction
c) Gattermann reaction
d) Wurtz reaction
Answer:
a) Friedel – craft’s reaction

Question 62.
A Grignard’s reagent reacts with water to give
a) ether
b) alkanes
c) amine
d) Alcohol
Answer:
b) alkanes

Question 63.
C2H5Cl + Mg → C2H5 MgCl in this reaction the solvent is
a) C2H5OH
b) Water
c) Dry ether
d) Acetone
Answer:
c) Dry ether

Question 64.
For a nucleophilic substitution reaction the rate was found in the order RI > RBr > RCl > RF then the reaction could be
a) SN1 only
b) SN2 only
c) Either SN1 or SN2
d) Neither SN1 or SN2
Answer:
c) Either SN1 or SN2

Question 65.
SN2 reaction leads to
a) inversion of configuration
b) retention of configuration
c) partial racemisation
d) no racemisation
Answer:
a) inversion of configuration

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 66.
Which of the following alkyl halide is hydrolysed by SN1 mechanism
a) CH3Cl
b) CH3 – CH2 – Cl
c) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl
d) (CH3)3CCl
Answer:
d) (CH3)3CCl

Question 67.
SN1 reaction is favoured by
a) non – polar solvents
b) Bulky group on the carbon atom attached to the halogen atom
c) Small groups on the carbon atom attached to halogen atom
d) All of the above
Answer:
b) Bulky group on the carbon atom attached to the halogen atom

Question 68.
Which of the following is not stereospecific
a) SN1
b) SN2
c) E2
d) Addition of Br2 to ethylene in CCl4
Answer:
a) SN1

Question 69.
Which of the following factors does not favour SN1 mechanism
a) Strong base
b) Polar solvent
c) Low. conc. of nucleophile
d) 3° halide
Answer:
c) Low. conc. of nucleophile

Question 70.
The order of reactivity of various alkyl halides toward SN1 reaction is
a) 3° > 2° > 1°
b) 1° > 2° > 3°
c) 3° = 2° = 1°
d) 1° > 3° > 2°
Answer:
a) 3° > 2° > 1°

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 71.
In aryl halides carbon atom holding halogen is
a) sp2 hybridised
b) sp hybridised
c) sp3 hybndised
d) sp3d hybridised
Answer:
a) sp2 hybridised

Question 72.
Chloro benzene can be prepared by reacting benzene diazonlum chloride with
a) HCl
b) Cu2Cl2 / HCl
c) Cl2 / AlCl3
d) HNO2
Answer:
b) Cu2Cl2 / HCl

Question 73.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 69 + Cl2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 70 X, X is
a) Chloro benzene
b) m – dichloro benzene
c) benzene hexachioride
d) p – dichlorobenzene
Answer:
a) Chloro benzene

Question 74.
The following is an example of Sandmeyer reaction
a) C6H5N2+ Cl Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 71 C6H5Cl
b) C6H5N2+ Cl Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 72 C6H5OH
c) C6H5N2+ Cl Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 73 C6H5F
d) C6H5N2+ Cl Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 74 C6H5Cl
Answer:
a) C6H5N2+ Cl Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 71 C6H5Cl

Question 75.
Chlorobenzene on reaction with CH3Cl in presence of AlCl3 gives
a) toulene
b) m – chloro toulene
c) only o – chloro toulene
d) mixture of o – and p – chlorotoulene
Answer:
d) mixture of o – and p – chlorotoulene

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 76.
2C6H5Cl + 2Na → X, X is
a) toulene
b) biphenyl
C) phenyl ethane
d) 1 – chloro – 2 – phenyl ethane
Answer:
b) biphenyl

Question 77.
Chlorobenzene on fusing with solid NaOH gives
a) benzene
b) benzoic acid
c) phenol
d) benzene chloride
Answer:
c) phenol

Question 78.
Chlorobenzene on nitration gives major product of
a) 1 – chloro – 4 – nitro benzene
b) 1 – chloro – 3 – nitro benzene
c) 1, 4 – dinitro benzene
d) 2, 4, 6 – tri nitro benzene
Answer:
a) 1 – chloro – 4 – nitro benzene

Question 79.
The reaction C6H5I + 2 Na + CH3I → C6H5CH3 + 2 NaI is
a) Wurtz reaction
b) Fittig reaction
c) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
d) Sandmeyer reaction
Answer:
c) Wurtz-Fittig reaction

Question 80.
R – Cl + Nal Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 75 R – I + NaCl. This reaction is
a) Wurtz reaction
b) Fittig reaction
c) Finkelstein reaction
d) Frankland reaction
Answer:
c) Finkelstein reaction

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 81.
C2H5OH + SOCl2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 76 x + y + z. In this reaction x, y and z respectively are
a) C2H4Cl2, SO2, HCl
b) C2H5Cl, SO2, HCl
c) C2H5Cl, SOCl, HCl
d) C2H4, SO2, Cl2
Answer:
b) C2H5Cl, SO2, HCl’

Question 82.
C2H5Cl + AgOH → A + AgCl.
A + CH3COCl → C + HCl. “C” is
a) Ethyl acetate
b) Methyl acetate
c) butanone – 2
d) propanone
Answer:
a) Ethyl acetate

Question 83.
The compound (B) in the below reaction is:
C2H5Cl Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 77 A Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 78 B
a) ethylene chloride
b) acetic acid
c) propionic acid
d) ethyl cyanide
Answer:
c) propionic acid

Question 84.
Chloro ethane reacts with X to form diethyl ether. What is X?
a) NaOH
b) H2SO4
c) C2H5ONa
d) Na2S2O3
Answer:
c) C2H5ONa

Question 85.
1 – chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives
a) 1 – butene
b) 1 – butanol
c) 1 – butyne
d) 2 – butanol
Answer:
a) 1 – butene

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 86.
Propane nitrile may be prepared by heating
a) Propyl alcohol with KCN
b) ethyl chloride with KCN
c) Propyl chloride with KCN
d) ethyl chloride with KCN
Answer:
d) ethyl chloride with KCN

Question 87.
CH3CH = CH2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 79 A Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 141 B, B is
a) propanol – 2
b) propanal – 1
c) propanol – 1
d) propanal – 2
Answer:
c) propanol – 1

Question 88.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 80 Y is
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 81
Answer:
c) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 82

Question 89.
The correct order of increasing boiling points is
a) 1 – chloropropane < isopropylchloride < 1 – chlorobutane
b) isopropylchloride < 1 – chloropropane < 1 – chlorobutane
c) 1 – chlorobutane < isopropylchloride < 1 – chloropropane
d) 1 – chlorobutane < 1 – chloropropane < isopropylchloride
Answer:
b) isopropylchloride < 1 – chloropropane < 1 – chlorobutane

Question 90.
The correct order of decreasing SN2 reactivity
a) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
b) RCH2X > R3CX > R2CHX
c) R2CHX > R3CX > RCH2X
d) R3CX > R2CHX > RCH2X
Answer:
a) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

II. Very short question and answer (2 Marks):

Question 1.
What are haloalkanes? Give example.
Answer:
Mono halogen derivatives of alkanes are called haloalkanes. Haloalkanes are represented by general formula R – X, Where, R is an alkyl group (CnH2n + 1) – and X is a halogen atom (X = F, Cl, Br or I). Haloalkanes are further classified into primary, secondary, tertiary haloalkane on the basis of type of carbon atom to which the halogen is attached.
Example:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 83

Question 2.
How will you convert methane into tetra chloro methane?
Answer:
Chlorination of methane gives different products which have differences in the boiling points. Hence, these can be separated by fractional distillation.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 84

Question 3.
What is Finkelstein reaction?
Answer:
Chloro or bromoalkane on heating with a concentrated solution of sodium iodide in dry acetone gives iodo alkanes. This reaction is called as Finkelstein reaction.
CH3CH2Br + NaI Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 85 CH3CH2I + NaI
Bromo ethane Iodoethane

Question 4.
What is Swartz reaction?
Answer:
Chloro or bromo alkanes on heating with metallic fluorides like AgF or SbF3 gives fluoro alkanes. This reaction is called Swarts reaction.
CH3CH2Br + AgF Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 86 CH3CH2F + AgBr
Bromo ethane Fluoro ethane

Question 5.
What is Hunsdiecker reaction?
Answer:
Silver salts of fatty acids when refluxed with bromine in CCl4 gives bromo alkane.
CH3CH2COOAg + Br2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 87 CH3CH2Br + CO2 + AgBr
Silver propionate Bromo ethane

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 6.
How is ehtyl magnesium bromide prepared from ethyl bromide?
Answer:
When a solution of ethyl bromide in ether is treated with magnesium, we get ethyl magnesium bromide.
CH3 – CH2 – Br + Mg Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 88 CH3CH2MgBr
Ethyl bromide Ethyl magnesium bromide

Question 7.
How will you convert ethyl bromide into ethyl lithium?
Answer:
Ethyl bromide reacts with active metals like sodium, lead etc in the presence of dry ether to form ethyl lithium.
CH3 CH2 Br + 2Li Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 88 CH3 CH2Li + LiBr
Ethyl bromide Ethyl Lithium

Question 8.
How is TEL prepared from ethyl bromide?
Answer:
When ethyl bromide reacts with Na / Pb alloy to give TEL.
4CH3 CH2 Br + 4Na/Pb → (CH3CH2)4Pb + 4NaBr + 3Pb
Ethyl bromide Sodium-lead alloy Tetra ethyl lead (TEL)

Question 9.
What are organic metallic compounds? Give example.
Answer:
Organo metallic compounds are organic compounds in which there is a direct carbon-metal bond
Example:
CH3 Mg I – Methyl magnesium iodide
CH3CH2Mg Br – Ethyl magnesium bromide

Question 10.
How is methane prepared from Grignard reagent?
Answer:
Compounds like water, alcohols and amines which contain active hydrogen atom react with Grignard reagents to form alkanes.
CH3MgI + HO – H → CH4 + Mg I (OH)

CH3MgI + C2H5OH         Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 86 CH4 + MgI (OC2H5)
Ethyl alcohol                Methane

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 11.
What are Haloarenes? Give a suitable example.
Answer:
Haloarenes are the compounds in which the halogen is directly attached to the benzene ring.
Example:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 89

Question 12.
How is chloro benzene prepared from benzene by direct halogenation?
Answer:
Chloro benzene is prepared by the direct chlorination of benzene in the presence of lewis acid catalyst like FeCl3.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 90

Question 13.
Write a note on Sand Meyer reaction.
Answer:
When aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chloride is warmed with Cu2Cl in HCl gives chioro benzene.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 91

Question 14.
How is Iodo benzene prepared from benzene diazonium chloride?
Answer:
Iodo benzene is prepared by warming benzene diazonium chloride with an aqueous KI solution.
C6H5N2Cl + Kl    Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 92      C6H5I + N2 + KCl
Benzene dizonium chloride        Iodo benzene

Question 15.
What happens when ethylidene dichloride is treated with Zinc dust in methanol?
Answer:
Gem dihalides and vic – dihalides on treatment with zinc dust in methanol give alkenes.
CH3 – CHCl2 + Zn Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 93 CH2 = CH2 + ZnCl2
Ethylidene dichloride                     Ethylene

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 16.
How will you convert chloroform into methylene chloride?
Answer:
a) Reduction of chloroform in the presence of Zn + HCl gives methylene chloride.
CHCl3 (chloroform) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 94 CH2Cl (Methylene chloride) + HCl
b) Reduction of chloroform using H2/Ni
CHCl3 (chloroform) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 95 CH2Cl2 (Methylene chloride) + HCl

Question 17.
Write the chlorination reaction of methane.
Answer:
Chlorination of methane gives methylene chloride
CH4 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 96 CH3Cl Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 97 CH2Cl2
Methane                                               Methylene chloride

Question 18.
How is chloroform prepared from carbon tetrachloride?
Answer:
Carbon tetrachloride is reduced by iron powder in dilute HCl medium to form chloroform
CCl4 (carbon tetrachloride) + 2[H] Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 98 CHCl3 (chloroform) + HCl

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

III. Short question and answers (3 Marks):

Question 1.
write IUPAC name of the following.
i) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 99

ii) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 100

iii) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 101
Answer:
i) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 102

ii) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 103

iii) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 104

Question 2.
Write the structure of the following compounds.
i) 1 – Bromo – 4 – ethyl cyclohexane
ii) 1, 4 – Dichlorobut – 2 – ene
iii) 2 – chloro – 3 – methyl pentane
Answer:
i) 1 -Bromo – 4 – ethyl cyclohexane:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 105

ii) 1, 4 – Dichlorobut – 2 – ene
– Cl – CH2 – CH = CH – CH2 – Cl

iii) 2 – chloro – 3 – methyl pentane
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 106

Question 3.
Write any three methods of preparation of chloro ethane from ethanol.
Answer:
a) Reaction with hydrogen halide:
Ethanol is heated with HCl in presence of anhydrous ZnCl2 to give ethyl chloride.
CH3CH2OH + HCl Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 107 CH3CH2Cl + H2O
Ethanol Chloroethane

b) Reaction with phosphorous halides:
Ethanol reacts with PCl5 or PCl3 it gives ethyl chloride.
CH3CH2OH + PCl5 → CH3CH2Cl + POCl3 + HCl
Ethanol                      Chloro ethane

3 CH3CH2OH + PCl3 → 3CH3CH2Cl + H 3PO3
Ethanol                        Chloro ethane

C) Reaction with thionyl chloride (Sulphonyl chloride):
When ethanol reacts with SOCl2 in presence of pyridine, it gives chloro ethane.
CH3CH2OH + SOCl2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 108 CH3CH2Cl + SO2 + HCl
Ethanol                                            Chloro ethane

Question 4.
What happens when haloalkane reacts with aqueous alkali or most silver oxide?
Answer:
Ethyl bromide reacts with aqueous solution of KOH or moist silver oxide (Ag2O/H2O) to form ethanol.
CH3 – CH2 – Br + KOH (aq) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 109 CH3CH2 – OH + KBr
Bromoethane                                   Ethyl alcohol

CH3 – CH2 – Br   +   AgOH(aq)   Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 109 CH3CH2 – OH + AgBr
Bromoethane         Moist silver oxide            Ethanol

Question 5.
Explain the ammonolysis reaction of bromo ethane.
Answer:
Ethyl bromide reacts with alcoholic ammonia solution to form ethylamine.
CH3 – CH2 – Br + H – NH2 → CH3 CH2 – NH2 + HBr
Bromo ethane                        Ethyl amine

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 110
However, with excess of ethyl bromide, secondary and tertiary amines along with quaternary ammonium salts are obtained.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 6.
What happens when bromoethane reacts with alcoholic KCN and alcoholic AgCN?
Answer:
Reaction with alcoholic KCN:
Ethyl bromide reacts with alcoholic KCN solution to form ethyl cyanides.
CH3 – CH2 – Br + KCN → CH3 – CH2 – CN + KBr
Bromoethane                    Ethyl cyanide

Reaction with alcoholic AgCN:
Haloalkanes react with alcoholic AgCN solution to form alkyl isocyanide.
CH3CH2Br + AgCN → CH3CH2NC + AgBr
Bromoethane           Ethyl isocyanide

Question 7.
How are the following compounds prepared from bromo ethane?
i) Ethane thiol
(ii) Diethyl ether
Answer:
i) Ethane thiol:
Ethyl bromide reacts with sodium or potassium hydrogen sulphide to form thio alcohols.
CH3CH2Br Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 111 CH3CH2SH + NaBr
Bromo ethane                           Ethane thiol

ii) Diethyl ether:
Ethyl bromide, when boiled with sodium alkoxide gives diethyl ether. This method can be used to prepare mixed (unsymmetrical) ethers also.
CH3 – CH2Br +      NaOCH2CH3      Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 112    CH3CH2 – O – CH2CH3 + NaBr
Bromo ethane        Sodium ethoxide                 diethyl ether

Question 8.
How is ethane prepared from the following compounds?
i) Bromo ethane ii) Iodo ethane
Answer:
i) From bromo ethane:
Ethyl bromide is reduced to ethane by treating with H2 in the presence of metal catalyst like nickel, palladium etc or with hydroiodic acid in the presence of red phosphrous.
Ni(or)Pd
CH3CH2Br + H2 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 113 CH3 – CH3 + HBr
Bromo ethane                              Ethane

ii) From iodo ethane:
Iodo ethane is reduced with H2 in presence of Red P it gives ethane.
CH3CH2I + HI Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 114 CH3 – CH3 + I2
Iodo ethane                         Ethane

Question 9.
Write the uses of carbon tetra chloride.
Answer:

  1. Carbon tetrachloride is used as dry cleaning agent.
  2. It is used as a solvent for oils, fats and waxes
  3. As the vapour of CCl4 is non-combustible, it is used under the name pyrene for extinguishing the fire in oil or petrol.

Question 10.
Write the uses of Grignard reagents.
Answer:

  1. Grignard reagents are synthetically very useful compounds. These reagents are converted to various organic compounds like alcohols, carboxylic acids, aldehydes and ketones.
  2. The alkyl group being electron rich acts as a carbanion or a nucleophile.
  3. They would attack polarized molecules at a point of low electron density. The following reactions illustrate the synthetic uses of Grignard reagent.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 11.
What is Balz – Schiemann reaction?
Answer:
Fluoro benzene is prepared by treating benzene diazonium chloride with fluoro boric acid. This reaction produces diazonium fluoroborate which on heating produces fluorobenzene. This reaction is called Balz – schiemann reaction.
C6H5N2Cl + HBF4 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 115 C6H5N2 + BF4 Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 116 C6H5 F + BF3 + N2
Benzene diazonium chloride                                          Fluorobenzene

Question 12.
Write the uses of chloro benzene.
Answer:

  • Chloro benzene is used in the manufacture of pesticides like DDT
  • It is used as high boiling solvent in organic synthesis.
  • It is used as fibre – swelling agent in textile processing.

Question 13.
How is ethylidene dichloride prepared from
(i) Acetaldehyde
(ii) Acetylene
Answer:
i) Treating acetaldehyde with PCl5:
CH3CHO (Acetaldehyde) + PCl5 → CH3CHCl2 (Ethylidene dichloride) + POCl

ii) Adding hydrogen chloride to acetylene
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 117

Question 14.
How is ethylene dichloride prepared from (i) Chloride (ii) PCl5?
Answer:
i) Addition of chlorine to ethylene
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 118

ii) Action of PCl5 (or HCl) on ethylene glycol

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 119

Question 15.
What happens when the following compounds are treated with alcoholic KOH?
i) Ethylidene dichloride
ii) Ethylene dichloride
Answer:
i) Ethylidene dichloride:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 120

ii) Ethylene dichloride:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 121

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 16.
Write the uses of methylene chloride.
Answer:
Methylene chloride is used as

  1. aerosol spray propellant
  2. solvent in paint remover
  3. process solvent in the manufacture of drugs
  4. a metal cleaning solvent

Question 17.
How are the following compounds prepared from chlorobenzene?
i) Benzene
ii) Phenyl magnesium chloride
Answer:
i) C6H6 (Benzene):
Chlorbenzene undergoes reduction with Ni – Al alloy in the presence of NaOH gives benzene.
C6H5Cl + 2(H) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 122 C6H6 + HCl
Chloro benzene              Benzeneide

ii) Phenyl Magnesium chloride:
Chloro benzene reacts with magnesium to form phenyl magnesium chloride in tetra hydrofuran (THF).
C6H5Cl (Chloro benzene) + Mg Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 123 C6H5MgCl (Phenyl magnesium chloride)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

IV. Long question and answers (5 Marks):

Question 1.
Explain the SN2 mechanism of haloalkanes with suitable example.
Answer:
S2 stands for bimolecular nucleophilic substitution
“S” stands for substitution
“N” stands for nucleophilic
“2” stands for bimolecular (two molecules are involved in the rate determining step)
The rate of SN2 reaction depends upon the concentration of both alkyl halide and the nucleophile.
Rate of reaction = k2 [alkyihalide] [nucleophile]
This SN2 reaction follows second order kinetics and occurs in one step.

This reaction involves the formation of a transition state in which both the reactant molecules are partially bonded to each other. The attack of nucleophile occurs from the back side and the halide ion leaves from the front side. The carbon at which substitution ocurs ha inverted configuration during the course of reaction just as an umbrella has tendency to invert in a wind storm. This inversion of configuration is called Walden inversion; after paul walden who first discovered the inversion of configuration of a compound in SN2 reaction.

We understand SN2 reaction mechanism by taking an example of reaction between chloromethane and aqueous KOH. SN2 reaction of an optically active haloalkane is always accompanied by inversion of configuration at the asymmetric centre.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 124

 

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 2.
Explain the SN1 mechanism of haloalkanes with suitable examples.
Answer:
SN1 stands for unimolecular nucleophilic substitution
‘S’ stands for substitution
‘N’ stands for nucleophilic
‘1’ stands for unimolecular (one molecule is involved in the rate determining step)
The rate of the following SN1 reaction depends upon the concentration of aikyl halide (RX) and is independent of the concentration of the nucleophile (OH-).
Rate of the reaction = k[alkyl halide]
R – Cl + OH → R – OH + Cl
This SN1 reaction follows first order kinetics and occurs in two steps.
We understand SN1 reaction mechanism by taking a reaction between tertiary hutyl bromide with aqueous KOH.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 125

This reaction takes place in two steps aas shown below.

Step – 1:
Formation of carbocation:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 126
t – butyl bromide

The polar C – Br bond breaks forming a carbocation and bromide ion. This step is slow and hence it is the rate determining step.

Step 2:
Nucleophilic attack on carbocation
The carbocation immediately reacts with the nucleophile. This step is fast and hence does not affect the rate of the reactions.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 127

As shown above, the nucleophilic reagent OH~ can attack carbocation from both the sides, they will be mirror image of each other.

In the above example the substrate tert-butyl bromide is not optically active, hence the obtained product is optically inactive. If halo alkane substrate is optically active then, the product obtained will be optically inactive racemic mixture. As nucleophilic reagent OH- can attack carbocation from both the sides, to form equal proportion of dextro and levorotatory optically active isomers which form optically inactive racemic mixture.

Example :
Hydrolysis of optically active 2- bromo butane gives racemic mixture of ±butan-2-ol.

Question 3.
Explain the E2 reaction mechanism with suitable example.
Answer:
E2 stands for bimolecular elimination reaction
‘E’ stands for elimination
‘2’ stands for bimolecular
The rate of E2 reaction depends on the concentration of alkyl halide and base

Rate = k2 [alkyl halide] [base]
It is therefore, a second-order reaction generally primary alkyl halide undergoes this reaction in the presence of alcoholic KOH. E2 is a one-step process in which the abstraction of the proton from the p carbon and expulsion of halide from the carbon occurs simultaneously. The mechanism is shown below.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 128

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 4.
Explain the E1 reaction mechanism with suitable example.
Answer:
E1 stands for unimolecular elimination reaction
‘E’ stands for elimination ‘1’ stands for unimolecular
The rate of E1 reaction depends on the concentration of alkyl halide only and hence
rate = k [alkyl halide]
Generally, tertiary alkyl halide which undergoes elimination reaction by this mechanism in the presence of alcoholic KOH following first order kinetics is a two step process. The mechanism is shown by taking following example.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 129

step – 1:
Heterolytic fission to yield a carbocation:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 130

Step – 2:
Elimination of a proton from the β – carbon to produce an alkene:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 131

Question 5.
How are the following compounds prepared from Methyl magnesium iodide?
(i) Ethanol
(ii) Tert-butyl alcohol
(iii) Acetaldehyde
Answer:
(i) Ethanol:
Formaldehyde reacts with methyl magnesium iodide to give addition products which on hydrolysis yield ethanol.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 132

(ii) Tert-butyl alcohol:
Acetone reacts with methyl magnesium iodide to give an additional product which on hydrolysis yields tert butyl alcohol.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 133

(iii) Acetaldehyde:
Ethyl formate reacts with methyl magnesium iodide and followed by acid hydrolysis, it forms Acetaldehyde.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 134

Question 6.
How is ethylene dichloride converted into
i) Acetaldehyde
ii) Ethylene glycol
ii) Ethylene
Answer:
i) Acetaldehyde:
(Hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH or KOH)
Ethylidene chloride reacts with aqueous KOH to give acetaldehyde.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 135

ii) Ethylene glycol :
Ethylene chloride reacts with aqueous KOH, it gives glycol.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 136

iii) Ethylene:
Ethylene dichloride is heated with Zinc in presence of methanol gives ehtylene.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 137

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Question 7.
How are the following compounds prepared from chloroform?
(i) Phosgene
(ii) Methylene chloride
(iii) Methyl isocyanide
Answer:
(i) Phosgene:
Chloroform undergoes oxidation in the presence of light and air to form phosgene (carbonyl chloride)
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 138
Since phosgene is very poisonous, its presence makes chloroform unfit for use as an anaesthetic.

(ii) Methylene chloride:
Chloroform undergoes reduction with zinc and HCl in the presence of ethyl alcohol to form methylene chloride.
CHCl3 (Chloroform) + 2(H) Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 139 CH2Cl2 (Methylene chloride)+ Cl2

(iii) Methyl isocyanide:
Chloroform reacts with aliphatic or aromatic primary amine and alcoholic caustic potash, to give foul-smelling alkyl isocyanide (carbylamines).
CH3NH2     +     CHCl2 + 3KOH → CH3NC + 3KCl + 3H2O
Methylamine Chloroform          Methyl isocyanide

Question 8.
Discuss the aromatic electrophilic substitutions reaction of chlorobenzene.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 140

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

11th Bio Zoology Guide Trends in Economic Zoology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not related to vermiculture?
a) Maintains soil fertility
b) Break down of inorganic matter
c) Gives porosity, aeration and moister holding capacity
d) Degradation of non biodegradable solid waste

a) a and b is correct
b) c and d is correct
c) b and d is not correct
d) a and c is not correct
Answer:
c) b and d is not correct

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not an endemic species of earthworm?
a) Perionyx
b) Lampito
c) Eudrillus
d) Octochaetona
Answer:
c) Eudrillus

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 3.
Match the following
1) Bombyxmori-
a) Champa – I) Muga
2) Antheraeaassamensis
b) Mulberry – II) Eri
3) Antheraeamylitta-
c) Arjun – III) Tassar
4) Attacus ricini –
d) Castor – IV) Mulberry

Select the correct one
a) 1-b-IV
b) 2-a-I
c) 3-c -III
d) 4-d-II
Answer:
c) 3-c -III

Question 4.
Silk is obtained from
a) Laccifer lacca
b) Nosema bombycis
c) Attacus ricird
d) Attacus mylitta
Answer:
c) Attacus ricird

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 5.
Assertion: Nuptial flight is a unique flight taken by the queen bee followed by serveral drones.
Reason: The queen bee produces a chemical substance called pheromone. The drones in that area are attracted to the pheromone and then mating takes place.
a) Assertion and reason is correct but not related
b) Assertion and reason is incorrect but related
c) Assertion and reason is correct but related
d) Assertion and reason is incorrect but not related
Answer:
c) Assertion and reason is correct but related

Question 6.
Rearing of honey bee is called
a) Sericulture
b) Lac culture
c) Vermiculture
d) Apiculture
Answer:
d) Apiculture

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 7.
Which of the statement regarding Lac insect
a) A microscopic, resinous crawling scale insect
b) Inserts its proboscis into plant tissue suck juices and grows
c) Secretes lac from the hind end of body.
d) The male lac insect is responsible for large scale production of lac.
Answer:
d) The male lac insect is responsible for large scale production of lac.

Question 8.
Aquaponics is a technique which is
a) A combination of aquaculture and fish culture
b) A combination of aquaculture and hydroponics
c) A combination of vermiculture and hydroponics
d) A combination of aquaculture and prawn culture
Answer:
b) A combination of aquaculture and hydroponics

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 9.
Prawn belongs to the class
a) Crustacea
b) Annelida
c) Coelenterata
d) Echinodermata
Answer:
a) Crustacea

Question 10.
Pearl oyster belongs to the class
a) Gastropoda
b) Cephalopoda
c) Scaphapoda
d) Pelecypoda
Answer:
d) Pelecypoda

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 11.
Inland fisheries are
a) deep sea fishing
b) capturing fishes from sea coast
c) Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water
d) oil extraction from fish
Answer:
c) Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water

Question 12.
Induced breeding technique is used in
a) Marine fishery
b) Capture fishery
c) Culture fishery
d) Inland fishery
Answer:
d) Inland fishery

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 13.
Isinglass is used in
a) Preparation
b) Clearing of wines
c) Distillation of wines
d) Preservation of wines
Answer:
b) Clearing of wines

Question 14.
Animal husbandry is the science of rearing, feeding and caring, breeding and disease control of animals. It ensures supply of proper nutrition to our growing population through activities like increased production and improvement of animal products like milk, eggs, meat, honey etc.
a) Poultry production depends upon the photoperiod. Discuss
b) Polyculture of fishes is of great importance.
Answer:
a) Poultry production depends upon the photoperiod:

  • The photoperiod stimulates the growth and breeding of birds.
  • It increases the life span of birds
  • As it increases the metabolic rate the egg-laying fowl’s wifi lay more eggs.
  • The light induces the endocrine glands and increases hormone secretion.
  • The light intensity depends on its wavelengths.

b) Polyculture of fishes is of great importance:

  • In polyculture, fishes will not fight for food.
  • No deficiency of oxygen.
  • In this culture the upper layer fishes feeds on phy to and zooplanktons the middle layer fishes feeds on
  • submerged plants and fishes lives in the deeper layers feeds on bottom dwellers debris of plants and animals.
  • In polyculture the fishes use the maximum food to convert it into meat.
  • Fishes have high growth rate in short periods.
    Eg.: Catlacatla, cirrhinus mrigla labeorohita are cultured through polyculture.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 15.
Assertion: The best quality of pearl is known as lingha pearl and obtained from marine oysters.
Reason: Nacre is secreted continuously by the epithelial layer of the mantle and deposited around the foreign particle
a) Assertion is true Reason is false
b) Assertion and Reason is false
c) Asserion is false but Reason is true
d) Assertion and Reason are true
Answer:
d) Assertion and Reason are true

Question 16.
Choose the correctly matched pair
a) Egg layers-Brahma
c) Dual purpose-White plymouth rock
b) Broiler types -Leghorn
d) Ornamental breeds -Silkie
Answer:
d) Ornamental breeds -Silkie

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 17.
Write the advantages of vermicomposting.
Answer:

  1. Vermicomposting provides excellent organic manure for sustainable agro-practices.
  2. Marketing of vermicompost can provide a supplementary income.
  3. Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients.
  4. It improves soil structure, texture, aeration, and water holding capacity and prevents soil erosion.
  5. It is rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment to soil for farming and terrace gardening,
  6. It enhances seed germination and ensures good plant growth.

Question 18.
Name the three castes in a honey bee colony.
Answer:

  1. Queen bee
  2. Drone
  3. Worker bee

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 19.
Name the following

  1. The largest bee in the colony:
  2. The kind of flight which the new virgin queen takes along with the drones out of the hive:

Answer:

  1. The largest bee in the colony – The queen bee
  2. The kind of flight which the new virgin queen takes along with the drones out of the hive – Nuptial flight.

Question 20.
What are the main duties of a worker bee?
Answer:
Each worker has to perform different types of work in her lifetime. During the first half of her life, she becomes a nurse bee attending to indoor duties such as secretion of royal jelly, prepares bee- bread to feed the larvae, feeds the queen, takes care of the queen and drones, secretes beeswax, builds combs, cleans and fans the beehive. Then she becomes a soldier and guards the beehive. In the second half of her life lasting for three weeks, she searches and gathers the pollen, nectar, propolis, and water.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 21.
What happens to the drones after the mating flight?
Answer:
The drones are attracted to the pheromones of the queen bee and mating taking place The drone dies after copulation

Question 22.
Give the economic importance of silkworm?
Answer:

  1. Rearing of silkworm on a commercial scale is called sericulture.
  2. It is an agro-based industry comprising of
    • Cultivation of food plants for the silkworms.
    • Rearing of silkworms.
    • Reeling and spinning of silk.
  3. Silk fibres are utilized in preparing silk clothes.
  4. Silk is used in industries and for military purposes.
  5. Silk is used in the manufacture of fishing fibres, parachutes, cartridge bags, insulation coils for telephone, wireless receivers, tyres of racing cars, filter fibres, in medical dressings and suture materials.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 23.
What are the nutritive values of fishes?
Answer:

  • Fishes form a rich source of protein food.
  • It is a good stable food to tide over the nutritional needs of man.
  • Fish species such as sardines mackeral, tuna herrings have high amino acid concentrations.
  • They have histidine which is responsible for the meaty flavor of the flesh.
  • It is rich in omega 3 fatty acids.
  • Minerals such as calcium magnesium phosphorus potassium iron-manganese iodine and copper is present in fishes.

Question 24.
Give the economic importance of prawn fishery?
Answer:
The flesh of prawns is palatable and rich in glycogen, a protein with low-fat content.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 25.
Give the economic importance of lac insect.
Answer:

  • Lac is used as a sealing wax and adhesive for optical instruments.
  • It is a good insulator.
  • It is used in the preparations of shoe and leather polishes and as a protective coating of wood.
  • It is used in laminating paper board photographs, plastic moulded articles.
  • Used as a filling material for gold ornaments.

Question 26.
List any three common uses of shellac.
Answer:

  1. Shellac with denatured alcohol is used to remove dust on the walls.
  2. Coating of metals with shellac prevents rusting.
  3. Shellac coating on citrus fruits increases their shelf life.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 27.
Name any two trees on which lac insect grows?
Answer:

  1. Acacia catechu
  2. Acacia nilotica

Question 28.
What is seed lac?
Answer:
The lac after grinding the dust particles are removed. The resultant lac is called ‘seed lac’.

Question 29.
Define cross-breeding?
Answer:
Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed is known as cross-breeding.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 30.
What are the advantages of artificial insemination?
Answer:

  • It increases the rate of conception.
  • It avoids genital diseases.
  • Semen can be collected from injured bulls which have desirable traits.
  • Superior animals located apart can be bred successfully.

Question 31.
Discuss the various techniques adopted in cattle breeding?
Answer:
There are two methods of animal breeding, namely inbreeding and outbreeding.
1. Inbreeding:
Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding.

2. Outbreeding:
The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. It is done in three ways;

  • Outcrossing: It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry. The offspring of such a cross is called an outcross.
  • Crossbreeding: Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed. The cross-bred progeny has superior traits (hybrid vigour or heterosis).
  • Interspecific hybridization: In this method of breeding mating is between male and females of two different species.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 32.
Mention the advantages of MOET.
Answer:
The advantage of this technology is to produce high milk-yielding females and high-quality meat-yielding bulls in a short time.

Question 33.
Write the peculiar characters of the duck.
Answer:
The peculiarity of ducks:
The ducks body is fully covered with oily feathers. They have a layer of fat under their skin which prevents it from getting wet. They lay eggs at night or in the morning. The ducks feed on rice bran, kitchen wastes, waste fish, and snails.

Part – II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Trends in Economic Zoology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
What is the primary use of earthworm?
a) Vermicompost
b) Increase the agriculture
c) To increase the fish culture
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Vermicompost

Question 2.
Who has proposed the term vermi tech?
a) Sultan Ismail
b) Darwin
c) Linnaeus
d) Albert William
Answer:
a) Sultan Ismail

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 3.
……………………. are the biological indicators of soil fertility?
a) Vermicast
b) Earthworm
c) Vermi excreta
d) Vermicompost
Answer:
b) Earthworm

Question 4.
Which of the following is the earthworm of the native soil?
a) Periyonx Eisenia
b) Eudrilus eugeniae lampito mauritii
c) Periyonyx excavatus, octohaetona
d) all the above
Answer:
c) Periyonyx excavates, octohaetona

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 5.
Which is called commercial fibre?
a) Silk fibre
b) Nylon fibre
c) Cofton fibre
d) Jute fibre
Answer:
a) Silk fibre

Question 6.
Who has known the utility of silk even before 3000 years?
a) Europe
b) African’s
c) China
d) India
Answer:
c) China

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 7.
…………………… More than countries in the world are practicing sericulture?
a) 29
b) 40
c) 10
d) 15
Answer:
a) 29

Question 8.
Match and find the correct sequences.
I. Bombyx mori – a) Erisilk
II. Antheraea assamensis – b) Tisaarsilk
III. Antheraea mylitta – c) Mugasilk
IV. Attacus ricini – d) Mulberry silk
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 1
Answer:
a) I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 9.
Match the silk moth with their respective leaves.
I. Bombyx mori – a) Castor
II. Antheraea assamensis – b) Arjun
III. Antheraea mylitta – c) Champa
IV. Attacus ricini – d) Mulberry
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 2
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 3
Answer:
a) I -d, II – c, III – b, IV – a

Question 10.
Find the unrelated pair regarding the silk production and its states.
a) Karnataka – Mulberry silk
b) Manipur – Muga silk
c) West bengal – Tasar silk
d) Arunachala pradesh – Muga silk
Answer:
d) Arunachala pradesh – Muga silk

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 11.
Name the branches that involve agriculture and industry.
a) Vermiculture
b) Pisciculture
c) Sericulture
d) Poultry
Answer:
c) Sericulture

Question 12.
Life span of Bombyxmori
a) 2-3 days
b) 2 – 4 days
c) 2-5 days
d) 4 – 7 days
Answer:
a) 2 – 3 days

Question 13.
What is the number of eggs laid by Bombyx mori once?
a) 500 – 800
b) 400 – 500
c) 400 – 450
d) 600-700
Answer:
b) 400 – 500

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 14.
What is the length of matured silkworm?
a) 7.5 cm
b) 7cm
c) 8.5 cm
d) 8 cm
Answer:
a) 7.5 cm

Question 15.
What would be the length of silk fibre in a cocoon?
a) 1000-1100 m
b) 1000-1200 m
c) 1000-1500m
d) 1000 – 1300m
Answer:
b) 1000 – 1200m

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 16.
What is meant by mariculture?
a) Rearing of mulberry plants
b) Rearing of castor plants
c) Vermiculture
d) Apiculture
Answer:
a) Rearing of mulberry plants

Question 17.
What is meant by voltinism?
a) No of broods raised
b) Cocoon
c) Spinneret
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) No of broods raised

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 18.
What is the ideal period for mulberry culture?
a) January, February, and November, December
b) March, April and June, July
c) June, July, and Nov, December
d) October, November and December, January
Answer:
c) June, July, and November, December

Question 19.
Find the odd one out.
a) Healthy silk moths are allowed to mate for 4 hours
b) Female lays about 400 eggs in 24 hours
c) The small larvae hatch between 7-10 days after incubation
d) The optimum temperature for rearing silk moth is 25°C – 30°C
Answer:
d) The optimum temperature for rearing silk moth is 25°C – 30°C

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 20.
Silkmoth matured in about days
a) 40 days
b) 45 days
c) 50 days
d) 35 days
Answer:
b) 4 5 days

Question 21.
The cocoon is soaked in hot water in temperature for minutes.
a) 95°C – 97°C -10 -15 minute
b) 95°C – 97°C – 5 -10 minutes
c) 90°C – 95°C – 7 -10 minutes
d) 100°C – 105°C – 2 – 5 minutes
Answer:
a) 95°C – 97°C -10 -15 minute

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 22.
The areas where a lot of beehives can be placed.
a) Honey culture
b) Apiculture
c) Apiaries
d) all the above
Answer:
c) apiaries

Question 23.
The nectar got from the flowers is converted into honey by the enzyme.
a) Invertase
b) Zymase
c) Lipase
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Invertase

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 24.
Find whether the following is true or false and find the correct sequence.
I) There is only one queen bee in a colony
II) Worker bees are around 5000 – 10000
III) The queen bee in its lifetime in 2 – 4 years lays 20 lakhs eggs.
IV) When the queen loses its fertility another worker bee becomes a queen by taking royal Jelly.
a) I – true, II – False, III – False, IV – true
b) I – true, II – False, III – true, IV – True
c) I – false, II – true, III – true, IV – true
d) I – false, II – true, III – false, IV – false
Answer:
a) I – true, II – false, III -false, IV – true.

Question 25.
How many days are needed for the worker bee to becoming mature done?
a) 15 days
b) 21 days
c) 20 days
d) 18 days
Answer:
b) 21 days

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 26.
What is the life span of a worker bees?
a) 6 weeks
b) 5 weeks
c) 7 weeks
d) 3 weeks
Answer:
a) 6 weeks

Question 27.
What are drones?
a) a male bee from unfertilised egg
b) a female bee from fertilised egg
c) a queen bee from fertilised egg
d) a worker bee after eating royal jelly becomes a queen
Answer:
a) a male bee from unfertilised egg

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 28.
Find the wrong pair?
a) Drone cell – Comb queen bee
b) King of honeycomb – Drone
c) Swarming – Worker bee flying with the queen bee
d) Male bee – After mating it will die
Answer:
a) Drone cell – Comb queen bee

Question 29.
Read the following statement and find the correct sequence.
I) The honeycomb is built from the abdominal secretion of a worker bee
II) The chamber of the honeycomb are hexagonal in shape
III) The young stages of honey bees accommodate the lower and central cells of the hive
IV) In Apis dorsata the brood of hive cells are similar in size and shape
a) I – false, II – false, III – true, IV – true
b) I – true, II – true, III – false, IV – false
c) I – true, II – true, III – true, IV – true
d) I – false, II – true, III – true, IV – false
Answer:
c) I – true, II – true, III – true, IV – true

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 30.
Assertion A: The pure wax is white in colour.
Reason: B The pure wax contains carotenoids pigments.
a) Assertion A true Reason B true
b) Assertion A false, Reason B false
c) Assertion A true Reason B false
d) Assertion A false, Reason B true
Answer:
c) Assertion A true Reason B false.

Question 31.
Find the correct sequence in the following.
I) Bee wax is secreted by the abdomen of the worker bees.
II) The resinous chemical substance present in the wax is called propolis.
III) The pure wax is white in colour.
IV) The yellow of the wax is due to the carotenoid pigments.
a) I – true, II – true, III – true, IV – false
b) I – false, II – false, III – true, IV – true
c) I – true, II – false, III – true, IV – true
d) I – true, II – true, III – true, IV – true
Answer:
d) I – true, II – true, III – true, IV – true

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 32.
Find whether the statement regarding Lac insect is true or false
I) Tachardia lacca produces lac.
II) The Lac insect is a parasite on host plant karanagalli, karuvelai
III) The female lac insects are small
IV) The female lac insects after fertilisation lays about 200 to 500 eggs
a) I – true, II – false, III – false, IV – true
b) I – true, II – true, III – true, IV – false
c) I – true, II – true, III – false, IV – true
d) I – true, II – false, III – true, IV – false
Answer:
c) I – true, II – true, III – false, IV – true

Question 33.
What is the ideal salinity for fish culture in brackish water?
a) 0.5-30ppt
b) 0.1-25ppt
c) 0.1-30ppt
d) 1-10ppt
Answer:
a) 0.5 – 30 ppt

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 34.
Which one of the following is correct pair?
a) Exotic breed – cyprinus carpiols
b) Apiculture – Reeling
c) Seri culture – Propolis
d) Milch breed – Malvi
Answer:
a) Exotic breed – cyprinus Carpio

Question 35.
Name the exotic fishes of India.
a) Catlacatla
b) Lapeorohita
c) Cirrhina mirgala
d) Cyprinus carbeo
Answer:
d) Cyprinus carbeo

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 36.
Name the vitamin found in fishoil?
a) A and E
b) A and D
c) A and C
d) A and K
Answer:
b) A and D

Question 37.
Ising glass is received from the part of the fish
a) Dried gills
b) Dried stomach
c) Dried air sacs
d) Dried liver
Answer:
c) Dried air sacs

Question 38.
What is the nutritive value of crustaceans?
a) Rich in glycogen protein with low-fat content
b) Rich in protein low in glycogen
c) Rich in glycogen low in fat content
d) Rich in protein and fat
Answer:
a) Rich in glycogen protein with low-fat content

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 39.
These are freshwater prawns.
a) Penaeus indicus
b) Macrobrachium rosenbergi
c) Penaeus monodon
d) Metapenaeus
Answer:
b) Macrobrochium rosenbergi

Question 40.
What is the optimum temperature and PH for prawn culture in a hatching tank
a) 24°C – 30°C PH – 7 – 8
b) 20°C – 22°C PH -10 -12
c) 20°C – 23°C PH – 5 – 6
d) 19°C – 20°C PH – 9 -10
Answer:
a) 24°C – 30°C – PH – 7 – 8

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 41.
Find the correct statement regarding the preparations of prawn form.
I) For algal growth, and for the subsequent stocking of prawns it is essential to drain off the water and sundry the bottom.
II) Lime should be applied to absorb excess C02 and to supply calcium which is required for moulting.
III) Fertilizers like rice, bran, poultry and cattle dung are used to increase the fertility of the soil.
IV) Preservation of prawns is done by peeling and deveining or by cooking and peeling
a) I – true, II – true, III – false, IV – false
b) I – false, II – true, III – true, IV – true
c) I – true, II – true, III – true, IV – true
d) I – true, II – false, III – true, IV – false
Answer:
c) I – true, II – true, III -true, IV – true

Question 42.
Where is pearl cultured in India for the first time?
a) Thoothukudi 1973
b) Visahapattinum 1974
c) Rameshwaram 1975
d) Kulchall973
Answer:
a) Thoothukudi 1973

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 43.
Where are pearl oysters seen?
a) Kanyakumari coastal region a Bay of Kutch
b) Rameshwaram coastal area and Bay of Mannar
c) Nagapatinum coastal area and Thoothukudi
d) Visahapatinum coastal area and Chennai
Answer:
a) Kanyakumari coastal region a Bay of Kutch

Question 44.
The pearl oysters belongs to ‘L’ genus produce Quality pearls.
a) Gastropoda
b) Pinctata
c) Pelecypoda
d) Cephalopoda
Answer:
b) Pinctata

Question 45.
……………………….. ulturing pearl in freshwater.
a) Lamellidens
b) Mytilus
c) Loligo
d) Dentalium
Answer:
a) Lamellidens

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 46.
The marine oysters are composed of
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Sodium carbonate
c) Potassium carbonate
d) Magnesium carbonate
Answer:
a) Calcium carbonate

Question 47.
The process of killing the silkworm cocoons is called
a) Reeling
b) Stifling
c) Spinning
d) rearing
Answer:
b) Stifling

Question 48.
Assertion A: The pearl oysters got from the sea are valuable
Reason B: The pearl oysters got from freshwater is not valuable
a) Assertion A true, B false
b) Assertion A and B reason all true
c) Assertion A false, Reason B true
d) Assertion A and Bare false
Answer:
b) Assertion A and B reason all true

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 49.
What is the name of the breed that produces mule?
a) Outbreeding
b) Crossbreeding
c) Interspecific hybridization
d) Outbreeding
Answer:
c) Interspecific hybridization

Question 50.
Assertion X: 6 – 8 eggs can be produced by induction in an artificial method
Reason Y: The embryos at 8 – 32 celled stages are transferred to a surrogate mother.
a) Assertion x false y true
b) Assertion X true, Y false
c) Assertion X false, Y false
d) Assertion X and Y are true
Answer:
d) Assertion X and Y are true

Question 51.
Which of the cattle breed yields more milk than what they eat?
a) Vechur
b) Kankeyem
c) Gir
d) Ongole
Answer:
a) Vechur

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 52.
Which of the following is not a milch breed?
a) Sindhi
b) Malvi
c) Jersey
d) Gir
Answer:
b) Malvi

Question 53.
Which of the following belongs to America?
a) Silkie
b) White Plymouth rock
c) Chittagong
d) Aseel
Answer:
b) White Plymouth rock

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 54.
Name the poultry which is noted for its pugnacity?
a) Leghorn
b) Silkie
c) Brahma
d) Aseel
Answer:
d) Aseel

Question 55.
Find the odd one out
a) Leghorn – Italy
b) Chittagong – good egg yielder
c) White Plymouth rock – American breed
d) Aseel-ornamental breed
Answer:
d) Aseel – ornamental breed

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 56.
Which among the following is a wild duck?
a) Syhlet
b) Muscori
c) Pekin
d) Mallard
Answer:
d) Mallard

Question 57.
Find the wrong statement about Duck.
a) The body is covered with oily feathers.
b) The fat layer beneath their skin prevents it from getting wet
c) They lay eggs at mid-day
d) The ducks feed on rice bran kitchen wastes and snails
Answer:
c) They lay eggs at midday

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What is Economic Zoology?
Answer:
Economic zoology is a branch of science that deals with economically useful animals. It involves the study of the application of animals for human welfare.

Question 2.
How are animals classified on the basis of their economic importance?
Answer:

  • Animals for food and food products.
  • Economically beneficial animals.
  • Animals of aesthetic importance.
  • Animals for scientific research.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 3.
Name the endemic earthworms of India.
Answer:

  1. Periy ony x excavatus
  2. Lampito Mauritius
  3. Octo chactona serrata

Question 4.
Name the exotic species of an earthworm?
Answer:

  • Eiseniafetida,
  • Eudrilus eugeniae

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 5.
Why are earthworms called ‘friends of farmers’?
Answer:
Earthworms play a vital role in maintaining soil fertility. Hence, they are called ‘friends of farmers’.

Question 6.
What decides the economic success of the industries?
Answer:

  • It depends on the animals and their products.
  • It depends on the proper production management and development of the next generation of farm animals.

Question 7.
What is meant by vermiculture?
Answer:
It is the process of using earthworm to decompose organic food waste into a nutrient-rich material capable of supplying necessary nutrients which help to sustain plant growth.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 8.
What is meant by vermicast?
Answer:
The organic matter of soil is decomposed by earthworm and becomes nutritious rich manure for plant growth.

Question 9.
What is meant by vermicompost?
Answer:
Vermicompost is composed of vermicast which contains nutrients plant growth promoters and organic matters.

Question 10.
What is meant by vermitech?
Answer:
The application of earthworm in the technology of composting and bioremediation of soil and other activities is called vermitech.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 11.
What are the pests of earthworms?
Answer:
Ants, springtails, centipedes, slugs, mites, certain beetle larvae, birds, rats, snakes, mice, toads and other insects or animals which feed on worms.

Question 12.
What are the special characters of vermicompost?
Answer:

  • Aeration
  • draining of water
  • retains water.

Question 13.
What is meant by vermiwash?
Answer:

  • Vermi wash is a liquid collected after the passage of water through a coloumn of vermibed.
  • It is useful as foliar spray to enhance plant growth and field.

Question 14.
What is sericulture?
Answer:
Sericulture is an agro-based industry which denotes commercial production of silk through silkworm rearing.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 15.
What is meant by sericulture?
Answer:
Sericulture denotes commercial production of silk through silk worm rearing.

Question 16.
What is meant by moriculture?
Answer:
The cultivation of mulberry plant which is used as a food for silk worm is called moriculture.

Question 17.
Which is the suitable period for mulberry cultivation?
Answer:
June, July, November, and December

Question 18.
What are the stages involved in rearing process of silk worm?
Answer:
Disinfection of rearing house Incubation of eggs Brushing, young larval rearing Late age larval rearing.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 19.
What is meant by stifling?
Answer:
The process of killing the cocoon is called stifling.

Question 20.
What is meant by reeling?
Answer:
The process of removing the threads from the killed cocoon is called reeling.

Question 21.
What is cooking?
Answer:
The process of soaking cocoons in hot water (95° – 97°) for 10 – 15 minutes to soften the gum that binds the silk threads together is called cooking.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 22.
What are Uzi files?
Answer:
These files which can attack silkworm.

Question 23.
What is meant by cooking?
Answer:
The cocoons are soaked in hot water at 95° – 97°c for 10 -15 minutes to soften the gum that binds, the silk threads together are called cooking.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 24.
What is spun silk?
Answer:
The silk produced from silk wastes used for producing spun silk.

Question 25.
What are apiaries?
Answer:
They are areas where a lot of beehives can be placed.

Question 26.
Name the bees used for Apiculture.
Answer:

  • Apis dorsata – Rock bee
  • Apis florea – Little bee
  • Apis indica – Indian bee
  • Apismellifera – European bee
  • Apis adamsoni – African bee

Question 27.
Name the types of beehives which are in practice in India?
Answer:

  • Langstroth
  • Newton

Question 28.
What is meant by swarming?
Answer:
The mass emergence of larvae of Lacinsect from the egg in search of a host plant is called swarming.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 29.
What is meant by nuptial flight?
Answer:
A unique flight that takes place by the queen bee followed by several drones is called “nuptial flight”.

Question 30.
Which is called as king of the colony? Why is called so?
Answer:
The king of colony is drone hence the sole duty of the drone is to fertilize the vergin queen.

Question 31.
Name the sugar component present in the honey?
Answer:
levulose, dextrose maltose.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 32.
What are the uses of honey?
Answer:

  • It is used as an antiseptic
  • Laxative
  • Sedative
  • It is used in the preparation of cakes bread and biscuits.

Question 33.
What is meant by Lac culture?
Answer:
The culture of lac insect using techniques for the procurement of Lac on large scale is known as Lac culture.

Question 34.
Name the host plants on which Lac insects live?
Answer:
Karanagalli – Acacia catechu Karuvelai – Acacia nilotica Kumbadiri – Schleichera oleosa.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 35.
What is meant by hyper parasitism?
Answer:

  • Hyper parasitism is a condition in which a secondary parasite develops within a previously existing parasite.
  • The caterpillars feed upon lac insects showing hyper – parasitism.

Question 36.
What is meant by inoculation?
Answer:
The process of introducing lac insects to the host plant is called inoculation.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 37.
What is meant by Harvesting?
Answer:
The collection of Lac from the host plant is known as harvesting.

Question 38.
What is meant by ‘Arilac’?
Answer:
The Immature lac insects produce a lac which is called ‘arilac’.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 39.
What is meant by sticklac?
Answer:
Lac cut from the host plant is called ‘stick lac’.

Question 40.
What is seed Lac?
Answer:
The Lac scraped collected grounded and the dust particles are removed to produce a lac called seedlac.

Question 41.
What is meant by Shellac?
Answer:
The seedlac is sundried and then melted to produce “Shellac”.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 42.
What is meant by aqua ponies?
Answer:
Aquaponics is a technique which is a combination of aquaculture and growing plants in non – soil media and nutrient-laden water.

Question 43.
What are the organisms farming through aqual culture?
Answer:
Fish molluscs crustaceans and aquatic plants are farming through aquaculture.

Question 44.
How aquaculture is classified on the basis of it source?
Answer:

  • Freshwater aquaculture
  • Brackish water aquaculture
  • Marine water aquaculture.

Question 45.
What is meant by Brackish water culture?
Answer:
Culturing of animals in the water having salinity range 0.5 – 30ppt are called brackish water cultures.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 46.
Name the fishes cultured through brackish water culture?
Answer:
Milkfish, Sea bass, Grey mullet Kari meen.

Question 47.
What is meant by metahaline culture?
Answer:
Culturing of animals in the salinity ranges from 36 – 40o% is called metahaline culture (eg) Artemia salina.

Question 48.
What are the organisms rearing through aquaculture?
Answer:

  1. Molluscs
  2. Aquatic plants
  3. Crustaceans

Question 49.
Give notes on fishes of brackish water?
Answer:
Brackish water fishes spend most of its life in river mouths backwaters mangrove swamps and coastal lagoons.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 50.
What is meant by mariculture?
Answer:
Culturing of animals in the water salinity ranges from 35- 35% is called mariculture.

Question 51.
Give short notes on Artemia salina?
Answer:
It is a metahaline organism. It lives in high saline waters because of its high osmoregulatory capacity.

Question 52.
What is meant by composite fish culture?
Answer:
Few selected fishes belonging to different species are stocked together in proper proportion in the pond is called composite culture.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 53.
What are the organisms cultured through composite fish culture?
Answer:

  • Catla Catla
  • Labeo rohita
  • Cirrhina mirgala.

Question 54.
What is meant by exotic fish culture?
Answer:
The fishes imported in to a country for fish culture are called exotic fishes and such fish culture is known as exotic fish culture.

Question 55.
Name the exotic fishes cultured in India?
Answer:

  • Cyprinus carpio
  • Oreochromis mossambicus.

Question 56.
What is meant by fish meal?
Answer:
Fish meal is prepared from fish waste after extracting oil from the fish.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 57.
What is meant by Ising glass?
Answer:

  • Ising glass is high-grade collagen produced from dried air bladder.
  • It is used for clarification of wine beer and vinegar.

Question 58.
What is meant by outbreeding?
Answer:
It is the breeding of unrelated animals. They do not have common ancestry for 4-6 generations.

Question 59.
What is the use of outbreeding?
Answer:
Outbreeding helps to produce hybrids with superior qualities and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 60.
What is meant by outcrossing?
Answer:
It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancertry.

Question 61.
What is meant by artificial insemination?
Answer:
Artificial insemination is a technique in which the semen collected from the male is injected to the reproductive tract of the selected female.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 62.
What is meant by recovery period?
Answer:
Nucleated oysters are attached with floating rafts suspended into a depth of 2 to 3 metres for about 6 to 7 days is called the recovery period.

Question 63.
What is the composition of pearl?
Answer:

  • Water-2-4%
  • Calcium carbonate-90%
  • Organic matter-3.5-5.9%
  • residue-0.1-0.8%

Question 64.
Name the species of prawn?
Answer:
Penaues indicus, Penaeus monodon, Metapenaeus dobsoni, Macrobrachium rosenbergil.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 65.
Where are pearl oysters cultured?
Answer:
Kanyakumari Bay of Kutch.

Question 66.
What is meant by Linga pearl or best quality pearl?
Answer:
The pearl oysters in habit the ridges of rock-forming extensive pearl banks. These pearl beds produce the best quality of pearl or Linga pearl.

Question 67.
What are the types of cultivable fish?
Answer:

  • Indigenous or native freshwater fish. (cg) Catla, Labeo
  • Saltwater fishes acclimatized for freshwater.
  • Exotic fishes or imported from other countries. (eg) Common Carps.

Question 68.
What is Hapa?
Answer:
Hatching hapas are rectangular through shaped tanks made up of mosquito net cloth supported by bampoo poles and fixed in the river.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 69.
What are the advantages of composite fish farming?
Answer:

  •  All available niches are fully utilized.
  • Compatible species do not harm each other.
  • No competition among different species.

Question 70.
What is meant by animal husbandry?
Answer:
Animal husbandry is the practise of breeding and raising livestock cattle like cows, buffaloes goats and birds that are useful to human beings.

Question 71.
What is meant by breed?
Answer:
A group of animals related by descent and with similar characters like general appearance features size etc as said to belong to a breed.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 72.
How can we classify cattle on the basis of their utility?
Answer:

  1. Milch breeds
  2. Draught purpose breeds
  3. Dual-purpose breeds.

Question 73.
What are characteristic features of healthy cattle?
Answer:

  • They appear bright
  • Alert
  • Active
  • Shiny coat.

Question 74.
What are the characteristic features of unhealthy cattle?
Answer:

  • They appear dull
  • Restless
  • Change posture frequently with a drop in milk yield.

Question 75.
Name the important cattle disease?
Answer:

  • Rinder pest
  • Cowpox
  • Anthrax
  • hemorrhagic fever.

Question 76.
What is meant by poultry?
Answer:
It is the rearing and propagation of chicken ducks turkeys geese quail and guinea fowls.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 77.
What are the types of chicken breeds based on their utility?
Answer:

  • They are egg layers
  • Broiler type
  • Dual type
  • Games and
  • ornamental types.

Question 78.
Name the native ducks.
Answer:

  • Indian Runner
  • Syhletmeta.

Question 79.
Name the exotic ducks.
Answer:

  • Muscari
  • Pekin
  • Aylesbury
  • Campbell

Question 80.
What are the three stages of sericulture?
Answer:

  1. Cultivation of food plants for the silkworm.
  2. rearing of silkworm.
  3. reeling and spinning of silk.

Question 81.
What is meant by apiculture?
Answer:
Care and management of honey bees on a commercial scale for the production of honey is called apiculture.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 82.
What is the importance of aquaponics?
Answer:
It maintains the ecosystem balance by recycling the waste and excretory products produced by the fish.

Question 83.
What is meant by aquaponics?
Answer:
Aquaponics is a technique which is a combination of aquaculture and growing plants in non-soil media and nutrient-laden water.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 84.
Based on the water resources where are aquatic organisms cultured? Give examples.
Answer:

  1. Freshwater culture
  2. Brackish water culture, Marine culture, Cultured organism, Fishes, Prawns, Crabs and oysters.

Question 85.
What are the objectives of animal breeding?
Answer:

  • To improve growth rate
  • enhancing the production of milk meat egg etc.
  • Increasing the quality of the animal products
  • Improved resistance to disease.
  • Increased reproductive rate.

3 marks

III. Short answers

Question 1.
What is meant by vermiculture?
Answer:
It is the process of using earthworm to decompose organic food waste into a nutrient-rich material capable of supplying necessary nutrients which help to sustain plant growth.

Question 2.
What is meant by worm casting?
Answer:
The worm castings are pure worm waste and nutrient-rich organic soil and composed of castings, bits of bedding, and other organic matter.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 3.
Why earthworms are called as ‘Farmers of friends’
Answer:

  • They support bacteria fungi which are essential for sustaining healthy soil.
  • The breakdown of organic matter by the activity of the earthworms.
  • It increases porosity aeration, drainage of the soil.

Question 4.
What are the three main components of sericulture?
Answer:

  1. Cultivation of food plants for the silkworms.
  2. Rearing of silkworms.
  3. Reeling and spinning of silk.

Question 5.
Name the predators of earthworms?
Answer:

  • Ants,
  • centipedes,
  • Slugs,
  • Birds,
  • Rats,
  • Snakes.

Question 6.
Name the honey bees used in apiculture.
Answer:

  • Apis dorsate,
  • Apis florea
  • Apis indica
  • Apis mellifera
  • Apisadamsoni

Question 7.
Whatisprobolis?
Answer:
The wax is masticated and mixed with the secretions of the cephalic glands to convert it into a plastic resinous substance called probolis.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 8.
What are the uses of silk?
Answer:
Uses of Silk:-
1. Silk fibers are utilized in preparing silk clothes. Silk fibers are now combined with other natural or synthetic fibers to manufacture clothes like Teri-Silk, Cot-Silk etc. Silk is dyed and printed to prepare ornamented fabrics. They are generally made from Eri-silk or spun silk.

2. Silk is used in industries and for military purposes.

3. It is used in the manufacture of fishing fibers, parachutes, cartridge bags, insulation coils for telephone, wireless receivers, tyres of racing cars, filter fibres, medical dressings, and suture materials.

Question 9.
Describe the structure of Beehive?
Answer:

  • The house of honey bees is a beehive.
  • The hive consists of hexagonal cells made up of wax secreted by the abdomen of a worker bee.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 4

  • These hives are found hanging vertically from the rocks. building or branches of trees.
  • The young stages of honey bee accommodate the lower and central cells of the hive.
  • In the rock bees hives there are separate cells for queens, worker and drones.

Question 10.
Explain the structure of a beehive?
Answer:
Structure of a Bee Hive. The house of honey bees is termed a beehive or comb. The hive consists of hexagonal cells made up of wax secreted by the abdomen of worker bees arranged in opposite rows on a common base. These hives are found hanging vertically from the rocks, buildings or branches of trees. The young stages of honey bees accommodate the lower and central cells of the hive called the brood cells.

In Apis dorsata, the brood cells are similar in size and shape but in other species, brood cells are of three types viz., queen cell for queens, worker cell for workers, and drone cells for drones. The cells are intended for the storage of honey and pollen in the upper portion of the comb whereas the lower portions are for brood rearing.

Question 11.
What is meant by inbreeding? What are its effects?
Answer:
Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4 – 6 generations is called inbreeding.
Effects:

  1. It increases homozygosity.
  2. Exposes the harmful recessive genes.
  3. Reduces fertility.
  4. It produces inbreeding depression.

Question 12.
How animals are classified based on their economic importance.
Answer:

  • Animals for food and food products.
  • Economically beneficial animals.
  • Animals of aesthetic importance.
  • Animals for scientific research.

Question 13.
Give an account of earthworm based on their habitat.
Answer:
First group:

  • The humus formers dwell on the surface and feed on organic matter.
  • They are darker in colour.
  • These worms are used for vermicomposting.

Second group:
The humus feeders are burrowing worms that are useful in making the soil porous and mixing and distributing humus throughout the soil.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 14.
What are the uses of honey wax?
Answer:

  • It is used for making candles.
  • It is used for making waterproofing materials.
  • It is used for making home appliances polishes for leather.
  • It is used in pharmaceutical industries.

Question 15.
What is meant by Hyper parasitism?
Answer:
A condition in which a secondary parasite develops within a previously existing parasite.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 16.
What are the economic importance of Lac?
Answer:

  • It is used as sealing wax.
  • It is used as a good insulator.
  • It is used in preparations of shoe and leather polishes.
  • It is a protective coating of wood.
  • It is used in preparation of plastic moulded articles.
  • It is used as filling material for gold ornament.

Question 17.
Name the breeds of cattle?
Answer:

  • Milch breeds – Sindhi Jersey
  • Draught breeds – KangeyamMalvi
  • Dual-purpose breeds – Ongole Hariana

Question 18.
What is meant by Milch breed?
Answer:
They are high milk yielders with extended lactation. (eg) Sindhi, brown swiss.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 19.
What is Dual purpose?
Answer:
Cows are meant for yielding more milk and bullocks are used for better drought purpose, (eg) Ongole Hariana

Question 20.
What is draught purpose breeds?
Answer:
Bullocks are good for draught purposes (eg) Malvi.

Question 21.
What are the characteristic features of healthy cattle?
Answer:
A healthy animal eats drinks and sleeps well regularly.
Healthy cattle appear bright.
Alert and active in their movement with a shiny coat.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 22.
What are the external factors affecting fish culture?
Answer:

  1. Temperature,
  2. Light,
  3. Rain,
  4. Flood,
  5. Water current,
  6. Turbidity of water,
  7. pH

Question 23.
What is Aquaponics?
Answer:
Aquaponics is a technique which is a combination of aquaculture (growing fish)’ and hydroponics (growing plants in non-soil media and nutrient-laden water).

Question 24.
Name the species of prawn.
Answer:

  • Penaeus indicus,
  • Penaeus monodon,
  • Metapenaeus dobson,
  • Macrobrachium rosenbergii.

Question 25.
What are the three types of aquaculture on the basis of the source?
Answer:
On the basis of source, aquaculture can be classified into three categories. They are

  1. Freshwater aquaculture
  2. Brackish water aquaculture
  3. Marine water aquaculture.

Question 26.
What are the benefits of poultry farming?
Answer:

  • It does not require high capital for the construction and maintenance of poultry farming.
  • It does not require a big space.
  • It ensures the high return on investment.
  • It provides fresh and nutritious food and has a huge global demand.
  • It provides employment opportunities for the people.

Question 27.
What are the uses of dairy products?
Answer:

  • Milk is a rich source of vitamin A, B2, B1
  • It is a complete food for infants.
  • Dairy products such as yoghurt cheese butter ice cream condensed milk, milk powder are produced from milk.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 28.
What is the importance of meat?
Answer:

  • Meat is rich in protein.
  • It also contains minerals like iron zinc vitamins and selenium.

Question 29.
What is Mariculture?
Answer:
Culturing of animals in the water salinity ranges from 30 – 35% is called Mariculture. Some fishes like Chanos sp, Mugil cephalus are cultured here.

Question 30.
What are poultry diseases?
Answer:
Ranikhet, Coccidiosis, Fowl pox.

5 Marks

IV. Give Detailed Answers

Question 1.
How are vermicompost produced?
Answer:
Types of Movements:

  • Vermicompost is the compost produced by the action of earthworm in association with all other organisms in the compost unit.
  • Vermicompost bed may be selected on upland or an elevated level.
  • We have to construct a cement pit of 3 x 2 x 1m size over the ground surface using bricks.
  • The vermibed should not be exposed to direct sunlight.
  • The first layer of vermibed contains gravel at about 5 cm in height followed by coarses and to a thickness of 3.5 cm which will facilitate the draniage of excess water.
  • The unit can now be loaded with digested biomass or animal dung.
  • Earthworms such as periyonyx excavatus Eisenia fetida or Eudrilus eugeniae are introduced on the top.
  • Earthworms release their castings on the surface.
  • Vermiwash is a liquid collected after the passage of water through a column of vermibed. It is useful as a foliar spray to enhance plant growth.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 5

Question 2.
Describe the life cycle of bombyx mon?
Answer:

  • This moth is unisexual.
  • Just after emergence male moth copulates with females for 2-3 hours.
  • Just after copulation female starts laying about 400-500 eggs.
  • The eggs after ten days of incubation hatch into larva called a caterpillar.
  • The newly hatched caterpillar is about 3mm in length and is pale yellowish-white colour.
  • The mandibulate type of mouthparts adapted to feed easily on the mulberry leaves.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 6

  • After 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th moulting caterpillars get transformed into 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th instars respectively.
  • It develops salivary glands, stops feeding and undergoes pupation.
  • The cafter pillars stop feeding and moves towards the comer among the leaves and secrete a sticky fluid through their silk gland.
  • The secreted fluid comes out through spinnerret which hardens on exposure to air and is wrapped around the body of cater pillar in the forms of a covering called a cocoon.
  • The length of continous thread secreted a caterpillar for the formation of cocoon is about 1000 -1200 metres.
  • The pupal period lasts for 10-12 days and the pupae cut through the cocoon and emerge into adult moth.
  • In larvel stages the larvae moults for 3 or 4 times or 5 times and become a matured moth.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 3.
What are the uses of vermicompost?
Answer:

  • Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients.
  • It improves soil structure texture aeration and water holding capacity and prevents soil erosion.
  • Vermicompost is rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment soil for farming and terrace gardening.
  • It enhances seed germination and ensures good plant growth.

Question 4.
What are the reasons for culturing carps in India?
Answer:
Major carps have proved to be best suited for culture in India because the carps

  1. Feed on zooplankton and phytoplankton, decaying weeds, debris, and other aquatic plants.
  2. They can survive in turbid water with slightly higher temperatures.
  3. Can tolerate O2 variations in water.
  4. Can be transported from one place to another easily.
  5. They are highly nutritive and palatable.

Question 5.
What are the uses of silk?
Answer:

  • Silk fibres are utilized in preparing silk cloths.
  • Silk fibres are combined with natural or synthetic fibres to manufacture Teri – silk and cot silk.
  • Silk is dyed and printed to prepare ornamental fabrics.
  • Silk is used in industries and for military purposes.
  • It is used in the manufacturing of fishing fibres, parachutes insulation coils for telephones.
  • They are used in the preparation of tyre of racing cars, filter fibres in medical dressings and as suture materials.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 6.
Name the pests and diseases of the silkworm.
Answer:
1. Predators:
They feed on silkworms.

  • Birds,
  • ants,
  • crows,
  • kites,
  • rats.

2. Diseases:

  • Pebrin – It is a disease caused by protozoa Nosema bombycis.
  • Flacherie – It occurs in the mature larvae caused by bacteria like streptococcus and staphylococcus.
  • Grasserie – It is aviral disease caused by Bombyx mori nuclear polyhedrosis virus.
  • White Muscardine – It is caused by fungus Beauveria bassiana.

Question 7.
Describe the social organziation of honey bee.
Answer:

  • In honey bee a highly organized division of labour is found.
  • There are three type of honey bees seen in the colony.
  • There are one queen 10000 – 30000 workers and few hundred drones in a colony.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 7

Queen bee:

  • It feeds on royal Jelly.
  • It is only function is to lay eggs throughout its life span.
  • During breeding season in winter, a unique flight takes place by the queen bee followed by several drones is called nuptial flight.
  • After mating the queen bee lays about 15 lakh eggs in two to four years.

Worker bee:

  • These are sterile females.
  • Worker bee lives in a worker well and it takes, about 21 days to develop from the egg to adult, and its life span is about six weeks.

Works:

  • It secretes royal Jelly.
  • Prepares bee – bread to feed the larvae.
  • Takes care of the queen and drones.
  • Secretes bee wax.
  • In last three weeks she searches and gathers the pollen nectar.

Drones:

  • The drone develops from an unfertilized egg.
  • It lives in a chamber called a drone cell.
  • The only duty of the drone is to fertilize the queen and it is called as the king of the colony.

Question 8.
Describe the structure of the Langstroth beehive?
Answer:

  • Stand – It is a basal part of the hive and are adjusted to make a slope for rainwater to drain.
  • Bottom board – It is situated above the stand. It has two gates one gate is an entrance the other acts as an exit.
  • Brood chamber – It is an important part of the hive. It is provided with 5 to 10 frames arranged one above the other through which the workers can easily pass.
  • The frame is composed of wax – sheet which is held in a vertical position up by a couple of wires.
  • It is strong that can be used repeatedly.
  • Super – It is a chamber without cover and base. It is provided with many frames to provide additional space for expansion of the hive.
  • Inner cover – It is a wooden piece used for covering the super with many holes for proper ventilation.
  • Top cover – It is meant for protecting the colonies from rains. It is covered with a sheet which is plain and sloping.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 8

Question 9.
Give an account of equipments of beehives and its uses.
Answer:

  • Queen Excluder – It is utilized to prevent the entry of queen bee from the brood chamber into the super chamber.
  • Comb foundation – It is a sheet of bee wax.
  • Bee gloves – They are used by keepers for protecting their hands.
  • Bee veil – It is a device to protect the beekeeper from a bee sting.
  • Smoker – It is used to scare the bees during honey collecting.
  • Hive Tool – It helps in scraping excess propolis or wax.
  • Un capping knife – It helps in removing the cap from the combs.
  • Bee brush – It is used to brush off bees from honeycombs.
  • Queen introducing cage – It is made of wire nets used for keeping the queen for 24 hours with worker bees.
  • Feeder – It is a basin with sugar syrub covered by grass to feed the bees during the drought season.
  • Honey extractor – This spins the combs rapidly to extract honey.
  • Hive entrance guard – It is a device which prevents the escape of the queen during the warming season.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 10.
Describe the process of rearing silkworms?
Answer:

  • A typical rearing house 6 m x 4m x 3.5m is constructed on an elevated place under shade to accommodate 100 dfls.
  • The windows and ventilators should be covered with a nylon net to restrict the entry of uziflies and other insects.
  • The selected healthy silk moths are allowed to mate for 4 hours.
  • The female moth is kept in a dark plastic bed it lays about 400 eggs in 24 hours.
  • The small larvae hatch between 7 – 10 days.
  • The larvae are kept in trays at a temperature of about 20°C-25°C.
  • As the larvae grow they are transferred to fresh leaves on clean trays.
  • Their maturity is achieved in about 45 days.
  • At this stage the salivary glands start secreting silk to spin cocoons.

Question 11.
What is meant by aquaponics? Describe its methods?
Answer:
1. Deepwater culture – Aquaponics is a technique which is a combination of aquaculture and growing plants in non – soil media.

  • It is a raft-based method.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 9

  • In this method, the raft floats in water plants are kept in the holes of the raft and the root floats in water. Fast-growing plants are cultivated.

2. Media-based method – It involves growing plants in inert planting media likely pellets or shales.
This method is applicable for home and hobby scale system. Large number of fruiting plants leafy green plants herbs can be cultivated.

3. Nutrient film technique – It involves the passage of nutrient-rich water through a narrow trough or pvc pipe.
Plants are kept in the holes of the pipe to allow the roots to be in free contact with the water stream.

4. Aquavertica or vertical aquaponics – Plants are stacked in top of each other in tower systems.
This method is suitable for growing leafy green, strawberries and crops that do not need supporting solid substratum to grow.

Question 12.
Describe the structure of honey bee hive?
Answer:

  • The house of honey bee is termedas bee hive or comb.
  • The hive consists of hexagonal cells made up of wax secreted by the abdomen of worker bee arranged in opposite rows on a common base.
  • These hives are found hanging vertically from the rocks building or branches of trees.
  • The young stages of honey bees accomodate the lower and central cells of the hive called the brood cells.
  • There are separate cells for queen. Drones and workers.
  • In the upper portion of the comb honey and pollen are stored.
  • In the lower portion are for brood rearing.

Question 13.
What is Natural breeding of fishes?
Answer:
Natural breeding (Bundh breeding): These are special types of ponds where natural riverine conditions or any natural water resources are managed for the breeding of culturable fishes. These bundhs are constructed in large low-lying areas that can accommodate large quantity of rainwater. The shallow area of such bundhs is used as a spawning ground.

Question 14.
What are the characteristic features of cultivable fishes.
Answer:

  • Fishes should have high growth rate in short period for culture.
  • They should accept a supplementary diet.
  • They should be hardly enough to resist some common diseases and infection of parasites.
  • Fishes proposed for polyculture should be able to live together without interferring or attaching other
    fishes.
  • They should have high conversion efficiency so that they can effectively utilize the food.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 15.
Why carps have proved to be best suited for culture in India?
Answer:

  • Feed on zooplanktons and phytoplanktons decaying weeds debris and other aquatic plants.
  • They can survive in turbid water with slightly higher temperatures.
  • Can tolerate O2 variations in water.
  • Can be transported from one place to another easily.
  • They are highly nutritive and palatable.

Question 16.
Give an account of induced breeding.
Answer:

  • To improve the quality of fish seed by the artificial method of fertilization is developed.
  • The gonadotrophin (FSH+ LH) secreted by the pituitary gland influences the maturation of gonads and spawning in fishes.
  • The pituitary gland is removed from a healthy mature fish.
  • The pituitary extract is prepared by homogenizing in 0.3% saline and centrifuged for 15 minutes at 8000rpm.
  • The supernatant is injected at the base of the caudal fin.
  • Male and Female fishes start to releasing gametes and are fertilized.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 17.
What are the types of prawn fishery?
Answer:

  1. Shallow water prawn fishery – This is located on the west coast restricted to shallow waters.
  2. Estuaries prawn fishery – In the backwater areas of the western coast, Ennur pulicat chilka lake and Estuaries of Ganga and Brahmaputra culture is done.
  3. Freshwater prawn fishery – Prawns are caught from the rivers and lakes throughout India.
  4. Marine prawn fishery – Prawn belongs to the family, penaeidae are caught along the Indian coast.

Question 18.
Give an account of the culture of freshwater prawns?
Answer:

  • Macrobrachium rosenbergii is seen in rivers fields and low – saline estuaries.
  • For fertilization, one pair of prawn are kept in a separate tank.
  • After mating the eggs are laid.
  • Temperature 24°C – 30°C and PH 7-8 should be maintained in the hatching tank.
  • The hatched larvae are supplied with artificial feed.
  • Young ones 5cm length can be reared in fresh or slightly brackish water ponds and harvesting of prawns can be done twice a year.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 10

Question 19.
What are the methods of animal breeding?
Answer:
Methods of Animal breeding:
There are two methods of animal breeding, namely inbreeding and outbreeding:

1. Inbreeding: Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding. Inbreeding increases homozygosity and exposes the harmful recessive genes.

Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity, resulting in “inbreeding depression”. This can be avoided by breeding selected animals of the breeding population and they should be mated with superior animals of the same breed but unrelated to the breeding population. It helps to restore fertility and yield.

2. Outbreeding: The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. Individuals produced do not have common ancestors for 4-6 generations.

Outbreeding helps to produce new and favourable traits, to produce hybrids, with superior qualities, and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 20.
What are the types of cultivable fish Types of cultivable fishes?
Answer:
Types of Cultivable fishes:

  • Indigenous / Native freshwater fishes, (eg) Major Carps Catla Labeo Clarias.
  • Saltwater fishes acclimatized for freshwater. (eg)Chanos, Mullet
  • Exotic fishes. Imported from other countries, (eg) Common Carps.

Characteristic features of Carps:

  • Feed on Zooplanktons and phytoplanktons decaying weeds debris and other aquatic plants.
  • They can survive in turbid water with slightly higher temperatures.
  • Can tolerate 02 variations in water.
  • Can be transported from one place to other.
  • They are highly nutritive and palatable easily

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 11

Question 21.
Give an account of the management of fish farms?
Answer:
To culture fish one should have an idea about different stages of fish culture such as topographic situation quality source physical-chemical and biological factors of water.
Stages of fish farming:
Breeding Pond:
The first step in fish culture is the breeding of fishes therefore for proper breeding special types of ponds are prepared called breeding ponds. These ponds are prepared near the rivers of natural water resources.
a) Natural breeding:
These bundhs are constructed in large low-lying areas that can accommodate a large quantity of rainwater.
b) Induced breeding:

  • This involves the removal of ova and sperm from female and male by artificial mechanical process and the eggs are fertilized.
  • The fertilized eggs are removed from the spawning place and kept in hatching hapas. Fish seeds: The fish seed is collected from breeding ponds and transferred to the hatching pits.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 12

3. Hatching Pit:
The fertilized eggs are kept in hatching pits. The hatching pits should be nearer to the breeding grounds should be smaller in size with good quality water.
There are two types of hatching pits:

  1. Hatcheries: These are small-sized ponds in which unfertilized eggs are transferred and hatching happens.
  2. Hatching hapas: These are rectangular trough-shaped tanks made up of mosquito net cloth supported by bamboo poles and fixed in the river.

4. Nursery Pond:
The newly hatched fries are transported from the hatching happa to nursery ponds where they grow into fingerlings.

5. Rearing Pond:
This pond is long and narrow and this pond should be free from toxicants and predators. The fingerlings are transferred to the stocking ponds.

6. Stocking Ponds:

  • This pond should be devoid of weeds and predatory fishes.
  • Proper organic manuring should be done to the production with cow dung.

7. Harvesting:

  • Well-grown fishes are taken out for marketing is harvesting.
  • Small-sized fishes are again released into the stocking ponds for further growth.
  • The harvested fishes are preserved and then marketed.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 22.
a) What is meant by composite fish farming?
b) What are the significance?
c) What are the fishes cultured through composite fish farming.
Answer:
a. Composite fish farming: Few selected fishes belonging to different species are stocked together in proper proportion in a pond is called composite fish farming.

b. Merits :

  • All available niches are fully utilized.
  • Compatible species do not harm each other.
  • No competition among different species is found.

c. Fishes that are cultured :

  • Catla Catla
  • Labeo rohita
  • Cirrhinus mrigala

Question 23.
Give an account of the economic importance of fish.
Answer:
1. Fishes form a rich source of protein food the sardines, mackerel tuna herrings have high amino acid concentrations.
2. These fishes have histidine and omega falty acids.
3. Minerals such as calcium magnesium phosphorus potassium and copper and present.
a) Fish Oil:

  • It is an important fish product it is derived from fish liver and from the fish body.
  • This is rich in vitamin A and O and iodine.
  • It is used in the manufacture of laundry soap paints and cosmetics.

b) Fish Meal:

  • It is prepared from fish waste after extracting oil from the fish.
  • These dried wastes are used to prepare food for pig, poultry and cattle.
  • The wastes obtained during the preparation of fish meal are used as manure.

c) Ising glass:

  • It is high-grade collagen produced from dried air bladder of cat fish and carps.
  • It is used for clarification of wine beer and vinegar.

Question 24.
Give notes on
a) Pearl Culture
b) Formation of pearl.
Answer:
a) Pearl Culture:

  • Pearl is a white shining globular concretion found within the shell of an oyster.
  • In India it was cultured for the first time in 1973 at Thoothukudi.
  • High-quality pearls are obtained from Genus Pinctada that can be cultured in the salinity range of 30 ppt in racks raft and long-line method.
  • The pearl oysters in habit the ridges of rocks or dead coral forming the best quality pearl.

b) Pearl Formation:

  • When a foreign particle accidentally enters into the space between the mantle and shell of the oysters it adheres to the mantle.
  • The mantle epithelium encloses its likes sac and starts to secrete concentric layers of nacre around it as a defensive mechanism.
  • The repeated layers of calcium carbonate make the hard and glossy pearl that are separated and graded.

Question 25.
Give an account of artificial pearl culture?
Answer:

  • Oysters are caught by a special type of cages.
  • This cage is dipped into a sand cement mixture providing a rough surface to the cages and are suspended at a depth of 6 meters.

2. Rearing of oysters:

  • The collected oysters are placed into the culture cages for a period of 10 – 20 days.
  • These cages are protected from enemies like octopus, Eel and devil fishes.

3. Insertion of nucleus:
a) Fitness of oysters for operation:
The selected oysters for the insertion of nucleus should be healthy and strong enough to overcome the stress during operation.
b) Preparation of graft tissues:

  • The piece of tissue which is inserted inside the mantle is called as “graft” tissue.
  • It is essential to keep the outer surface in contact with the inserted nucleus as nacre secreting cells are found only on the outer surface.

c) Preparation of nucleus:

  • Any small particle may function as a nucleus to initiate pearl formation.
  • If it is calcareous the deposition of nacre was found to be more on the calcareous nucleus.

d) Insertion of the nucleus:
For the insertion of nucleus, oysters are fixed in a desk clamb and mantle folds are smoothly touched to expose the foot followed by an incision into the epithelium of the foot and the nucleus is inserted.

e) Post Operation Care:

  • Nucleated oysters are placed into cages and suspended into 2-3 metres of depth for 6-7 days.
  • These periods are known as “Recovery Period”.
  • These oysters are kept for 3-6 years undisturbed.

f) Harvesting of Pearl:
After the completion of 3 years pearl oysters are harvested. It is usually done during December to February.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 13
g) Clearing of Pearls:
After taking out the pearls from the oyster’s shell. They are washed properly cleared with the soap solution.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 26.
What is inbreeding? What are its merits and demerits?
Answer:
Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding.
Merits:

  • It increases homozygosity.
  • It exposes the harmful recessive genes. Demerits:

1. Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility
2. And results in inbreeding depression. Avoiding inbreeding depression:
This can be avoided by breeding selected animals be mated with superior animals of the same breed but unrelated to the breeding population.

Question 27.
What is Dairying and Dairy Operation?
Answer:
Dairying is the production and marketing of milk and its products. The dairy operation consists of proper maintenance of cattle, the collection, and processing of milk, and its by-products.

Question 28.
What are the types of outbreeding?
Answer:
1. Out Crossing:
It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry.
Out Cross: This method is suitable for breeding animals that are below average in productivity.

2. Crossbreeding:

  • Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed.
  • The cross-breed progeny has superior traits. This is called hybrid vigour or heterosis.

3. Interspecific hybridization:

  • Mating between male and female of two different species.
  • The progeny obtained from such crosses are different from their parents.
  • Mule is produced by the crosses between male donkey and a female horse.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 14

Question 29.
Give an account of Multiple Ovulation embryo transfer technology? MOET.
Answer:
MOET:

  • This method is applied when the success rate of crossing is low even after artificial insemination.
  • In this method, the follicle-stimulating hormone is administered to cows for inducing follicular maturation and superovulation.
  • Instead of one egg per cycle, 6-8 eggs can be produced.
  • The eggs are carefully recovered non-surgically from the genetic mother and fertilized artificially.
  • The embryos at the 8 – 32 celled stage are recovered and transferred to a surrogate mother.
  • This technology can be applied to cattle sheep and buffaloes.
  • It can produce high milk-yielding females and high-quality meat-yielding bulls in a short time.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 30.
a) What is meant by dairying?
b) Classify them on the basis of their utility.
c) Give an account of dairy products.
Answer
a) Dairying:

  • It is the production and marketing of milk and its products.
  • The dairy operation consists of maintenance of cattle the collection, processing of the milk, and its by-products.
  • These are 26 well-defined breeds of cattle and 6 breeds of buffaloes in India.

b) Classification of Cattle

  1. Dairy breeds: They are high milk yielder with extended lactation, (eg) Sindhi, Jersey Sahiwal
  2. Drought breed: Bullocks are good for draught purposes, (eg) Kangeyam Malvi.
  3. Dual-purpose breeds: Cows are meant for yielding more milk and bullocks are used for better drought purposes (eg) Ongole Hariana.

c) Uses of dairy product:
1. Milk: Milk is a rich source of vitamin A, B2, B and deficient in Vitamin C.
Dairy products such as yoghurt cheese butter ice cream condensed milk powder are produced from milk.
2. Meat: Meat is rich in protein and also contains minerals like iron zinc vitamins and selenium.
3. Land Management: Grazing of live stocks sometimes used as a way to control weeds.
4. Manure: Manure can be spread on agriculture fields to increase crop yields.

Question 31.
Describe the types of Chicken breeds?
Answer:
1. Egg layers: These are farmed mainly for the production of eggs.
Leghorn:

  • It is originated in Italy. They are small compact with a single comb.
  • They mature early and begin to lay eggs at the age of 5 or 6 months.

Chittagong:

  • They are good egg layers and are delicious.
  • They are found in West Bengal.

2. Selection of eggs for hatching:
Eggs should be fertile medium-sized dark brown shelled and freshly laid eggs are preferred for rearing.

3. Incubation and hatching:

  • The maintenance of newly laid eggs in optimum condition till hatching is called incubation.
  • The fully developed chick emerges out of egg after an incubation period of 21 – 22 days.
  • There are two types of incubation namely natural incubation and artificial incubation.
  • In the Natural incubation method, only a limited number of eggs can be incubated by a mother hen.
  • In artificial incubation, more eggs can be incubated.

4. Brooding:

  • Caring and management of young chicks for 4 – 6 weeks immediately after hatching is called brooding.
  • They are natural and artificial brooding. The housing of Poultry:
  • To protect the poultry from the sun.
  • Rain and predators it is necessary to provide housing to poultry.
  • Poultry house should be moisture-proof rat-proof and it should be easily cleanable and durable.
    5. Poultry feeding:
    The diet of chicks should contain an adequate amount of water carbohydrates proteins fats vitamins and minerals.

Poultry Products:

  • The main products of poultry farmings are eggs and meat.
  • The primary aim of poultry farming is to obtain eggs.

C. Poultry by-products:

  • The feathers: They are used for making pillows and quilts.
  • Droppings: The droppings are rich in nitrogen potash and phosphates.
  • The by-products of poultry are used as good sources of nutrients for meat-producing animals and poultry.
  • These by-products supply proteins fats Vitamins and minerals.
    Poultry diseases: Ranikhet coccidiosis Fowl Pox is a common poultry disease.

Merits:

  1. They can adapt themselves to all types of environmental conditions.
  2. And for the breed for feed efficiency.
  3. Growth rate and resistance to diseases.
  4. They are exhibited in poultry shows they are calm friendly and can be maintained as pets.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology

Question 32.
What are the types of poultry farming? What are the stages involved in rearing? What are the poultry by-products?
Answer:
Types:

  1. Organic method
  2. Yarding method
  3. Battery cage method
  4. Furnished cage method.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology 15

Stages involved in rearing:
1. Selection of the best layer.

  • An active intelligent-looking bird with a bright comb not obese should be selected.
  • They are golden or light yellow coloured.

2. Broiler type :

  • White Plymouthrock is a fast-growing breed and soft quality meat.
  • They have white plumage throughout the body. This is an American breed. It is a fast-growing breed.

3. Dual Purpose breed:
It is known for its massive body having heavy bones. Well feathered and Peacomb is one of the important breed characters.

4. Game breeds:
Aseel:

  • The hens are not good egg layers but are good in the incubation of eggs.
  • Aseel is noted for its pugnacity high stamina majestic gait.
  • This breed is well known for its meat qualities.

5. Ornamental breeds:
Silkie:

  • They are reared as pets and for egg production and meat.
  • The chicken has a fluffy plumage which is said to feel like silk and satin.
  • It has black skin and bones blue ear lobes and five toes on each foot.

Question 33.
Write a note on milk products?
Answer:
Milk products:
Milk is produced by dairy animals which is an emulsion of fat and lactose. Milk also contains enzymes which are destroyed during pasteurization.

Milk is a rich source of vitamin A, B„ Bp and deficient in Vitamin C. Due to its high nutrition value, it serves as a complete food for infants. Dairy products such as yoghurt, cheese, butter, ice cream, condensed milk, curd, and milk powder processed from milk make dairy, a highly farming attraction.