Category: Class 11

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Book Solutions Answers Guide

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Book Back Answers Solutions Guide Volume 1 and Volume 2.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Book Volume 1 Solutions

• Chapter 1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations
• Chapter 2 Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom
• Chapter 3 Periodic Classification of Elements
• Chapter 4 Hydrogen
• Chapter 5 Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals
• Chapter 6 Gaseous State
• Chapter 7 Thermodynamics

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Book Volume 2 Solutions

• Chapter 8 Physical and Chemical Equilibrium
• Chapter 9 Solutions
• Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding
• Chapter 11 Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
• Chapter 12 Basic Concepts of Organic Reactions
• Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons
• Chapter 14 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
• Chapter 15 Environmental Chemistry

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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

11th Bio Zoology Guide Body Fluids and Circulation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
What is the function of lymph?
a. Transport of O₂ into brain
b. Transport of CO₂ into lungs
c. Bring interstitial fluid in blood
d. Bring RBC and WBC in lymph node
Answer:
c. Bring interstitial fluid in blood

Question 2.
Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
a. Globulin
b. Fibrinogen
c. Albumin
d. Serum amylase
Answer:
b. Fibrinogen

Question 3.
Which of the following WBCs are found in more numbers?
a. Eosinophil
b. Neutrophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocyte
Answer:
b. Neutrophil

Question 4.
Which of the following is not involved in blood clotting?
a. Fibrin
b. Calcium
c. Platelets
d. Bilirubin
Answer:
d. Bilirubin

Question 5.
Lymph is colourless because
a. WBC are absent
b. WBC are present
c. Haemoglobin is absent
d. RBC are absent
Answer:
d. RBC are absent

Question 6.
Blood group is due to the presence or absence of surface
a. Antigens on the surface of WBC
b. Antibodies on the surface of RBC
c. Antigens on the surface of RBC
d. Antibodies on the surface of WBC
Answer:
c. Antigens on the surface of RBC

Question 7.
A person having both antigen A and antigen B on the surface of RBCs belongs to blood group
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
Answer:
c. AB

Question 8.
Erythroblastosis foetalis is due to the destruction of
a. Foetal RBCs
b. Foetus suffers from atherosclerosis
c. Foetal WBCs
d. Foetus suffers from mianmata
Answer:
a. Foetal RBCs

Question 9.
Dub sound of heart is caused by
a. Closure of atrio-ventricular valves
b. Opening of semi-lunar valves
c. Closure of semi-lunar values
d. Opening of atrio-ventricular valves.
Answer:

Question 10.
Why is the velocity of blood flow the lowest in the capillaries?
a. The systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle.
b. Capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases.
c. The total surface area of the capillaries is larger than the total surface area of the arterioles.
d. The capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells.
e. The diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate.
Answer:
c. The total surface area of the capillaries is larger than the total surface area of the arterioles.

Question 11.
An unconscious patient is rushed into the emergency room and needs a fast blood transfusion. Because there is no time to check her medical history or determine her blood type, which type of blood should you as her doctor, give her?
a. A
b. AB
c.  Q^+ve
d. O ^–ve
Answer:
d. O ^–ve

Question 12.
Which of these functions could or could not be carried out by a red blood cell?
a. Protein synthesis
b. Cell division
c. Lipid synthesis
d. Active transport
a. Protein synthesis – Red blood cells have no DNA.
b. Cell division – Red blood cells have no nucleus. So do not undergo any mitosis and mesiosis.
c. Lipid synthesis – Red blood contains none of the cellular orgakelles.
d. Active transport – Yes, RBC transport O₂ and CO₂ with in the cell.
Answer:
d. Active transport – Yes, RBC transport O₂ and CO₂ with in the cell.

Question 13.
At the venous end of the capillary bed, the osmotic pressure is
a. Greater than the hydrostatic pressure
b. Result in net outflow of fluids
c. Results in net absorption of fluids
d. No change occurs.
Answer:
a. Greater than the hydrostatic pressure

Question 14.
A patient’s chart reveals that he has a cardiac output of 75G0mL per minute and a stroke volume of 50 mL. What is his pulse rate (in beats/min)
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d.400
Answer:
c. 150

Question 15.
At any given time there is more blood in the venous system than that of the arterial system. Which of the following features of the veins allows this?
a. relative lack of smooth muscles
b. presence of valves
c. proximity of the veins to lymphatic’s
d. thin endothelial lining
Answer:
b. presence of valves

Question 16.
Distinguish between arteries and veins.
Answer:

Arteries	Veins
1. They carry blood away from the heart	They carry blood from the parts of the body towards the heart.
2. They lie deep inside the body.	They lie on the surface beneath the skin.
3. The walls are thick and non-collapsible	They have thinner walls.
4. There are no valves.	They have valves.
5. Except for the pulmonary artery all the arteries carry oxygenated blood.	Except for the pulmonary vein, all the veins carry deoxygenated blood.
6. Blood pressure is high in the arteries	Blood pressure is low in the veins.
7. A small sphincter lies at the junction between the arterioles and capillaries to regulate the blood supply.	There is no sphincter muscles

Question 17.
Distinguish between open and closed circulation
Answer:

Open circulation	Closed circulation
1. The blood pumps from the heart pass into the coelom through blood vessels.	The body cavity is known as haemocoel. The blood pumps from the heart push into the blood vessels.
2. (Eg.) Arthropoda Mollusca	(Eg.) Annelida vertebrates

Question 18.
Distinguish between the mitral valve and semilunar valve.
Answer:

Mitral valve	Semilunar valve
1. It guards the opening between the left atrium and left ventricle	It guards the opening of the pulmonary artery and aorta.
2. It allows the blood to flow from auricle to ventricle	It allows the blood to flow from the ventricle to the pulmonary artery and aorta.
3. It prevents the backflow of blood	It prevents the backflow of blood.
4. The mitral valve closes during contraction of heart and produces a sound lub.	The dub sound is produced due to the closure of lunar valves on dialation of heart
5. The chordae tendinae is not connected to this valve.	The chordae tendinae is connected to this valve.

Question 19.
The right ventricular wall is thinner than the left ventricular wall. Why?
Answer:
The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood, to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. The left ventricle pumps the oxygenated blood to all parts of the body through the aorta. Hence, the left ventricle has to exert more pressure. Hence the right ventricular wall is thinner but the left ventricular walls are thicker.

Question 20.
What might be the effect on a person whose diet has less iron content?
Answer:

• The number of red blood cells decreases.
• Due to the depletion of haemoglobin he finds it difficult to breath.
• Due to the deficiency of iron anaemia may develop.
• Due to the deficiency of iron, the oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin reduces.

Question 21.
Describe the mechanism by which the human heartbeat is initiated and controlled.
Answer:

• The human heart is myogenic in nature.
• The heartbeat is originated from a pacemaker. The total rate of heartbeat is decided by this node.
• This pacemaker is situated in the right sinuatrial node.
• On the left side of the right atrium is a node called auricula ventricular node.
• Two special cardiac muscle fibres originate from the auriculo ventricular node and are called the bundle of His which runs down into the interventricular septum and the fibres spread into the ventricle called Purkinje fibres.

Origin of heartbeat:

• Pacemaker cells produce excitation through depolarisation of their cell membrane. The j excitation is spread in to the auricle. Then this is passed on to bundle of His through auriculo ventricular node.
• The purkinje fibres cause ventricular contraction.

Regulation:

• The pacemaker cells produce excitation through depolarisation of their cell membrane. Each polarisation is slow taken place by sodium influx and reduction in potassium efflux.
• Minimal potential is required to activate voltage gated calcium (Ca+) channels that causes rapid depolarisation which results in action potential.
• The pacemaker cells repolarise slowly via K+ efflux.

Question 22.
What is lymph? Write its function.
Answer:
About 90% of the fluid that leaks from capillaries eventually seep back into the capillaries and the remaining 10% is collected and returned to the blood system by me of a series of tubules known as lymph vessels or lymphatics.

The fluid inside the lymphatics is called lymph. The lymphatic system consists of a complex network of thin-walled ducts (lymphatic vessels), filtering bodies (lymph nodes), and a large number of lymphocytic cell concentrations in the various lymphoid organisms.

The lymphatic vessels have smooth walls that run parallel to the blood vessels, in the skin, along the respiratory and digestive tracts. These vessels serve as return ducts for the fluids that are continually diffusing out of the blood capillaries into the body tissues.

Lymph fluid must pass through the lymph nodes before it is returned to the blood. The lymph nodes that filter the fluid from the lymphatic vessels of the skin are highly concentrated in the neck, inguinal, axillaries, respiratory and digestive tracts.

The lymph fluid flowing out of the lymph nodes flows into large collecting duct which finally drains into larger veins that run beneath the collar bone, the subclavian vein, and is emptied into the bloodstream. The narrow passages in the lymph nodes are the sinusoids that are lined with macrophages.

The lymph nodes successfully prevent the invading microorganisms from reaching the bloodstream. Cells found in the lymphatics are lymphocytes. Lymphocytes collected in the lymphatic fluid are carried via the arterial blood and are recycled back to the lymph. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the villi of the intestinal wall.

Question 23.
What are the heart sounds? When and how are these sounds produced?
Answer:
Rhythmic contraction and expansion of the heart are called heartbeat. The contraction of the heart is called systole and the relaxation of the heart is called diastole. The heart normally beats 70-72 times per minute in a human adult. During each cardiac cycle, two sounds are produced that can be heard through a stethoscope.

The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves whereas the Second heart sound (dub) is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves. These sounds are of clinical diagnostic significance. An increased heart rate is called tachycardia and decreased heart rate is called bradycardia.

Question 24.
Select the correct biological term.
Lymphocytes, red cells, leukocytes, plasma, erythrocytes, white cells, hemoglobin, phagocyte, platelets, blood clot.
Answer:

a. Disc-shaped cells which are concave on both sides.	Red cells
b. Most of these have a large bilobed nucleus	Leucocytes
c. Enable red cells to transport blood.	Haemoglobin
d. The liquid part of the blood	Plasma
e. Most of them move and change shape like an amoeba	Leucocytes
f. Consists of water and important dissolved substances.	Plasma
g. Destroyed in the liver and spleen after circulating in the blood for four months.	Red cells
h. The substances which give red cells their colour	Haemoglobin
i. Another name for red cells	Erythrocytes
j. Blood that has been changing to jelly	Blood clot
k. A word that means cell eater	Phagocytes
l. Cells without nucleus	Red cells
m. White cells made in the lymphatic tissue	Lymphocytes
n. Blocks wound and prevents excessive bleeding.	Blood clot
o. Fragment of cells which are made in the bone marrows	Platelets
p. Another name for white blood cells.	Leucocytes
q. Slowly releases oxygen to blood cells.	Haemoglobin
r. Their function is to help blood clots in wounds.	Platelets

Question 25.
Select the correct biological term. Cardiac muscle, atria, tricuspid systole, auricles, arteries, diastole, ventricles, bicuspid valve, pulmonary artery, cardiac cycle, semilunar valve, veins, pulmonary vein, capillaries, vena cava, aorta.
Answer:

a. The main artery’ of the blood.	Dorsal aorta
b. Valves between the left atrium and ventricle.	Bicuspid valve
c. Technical name for relaxation of the heart.	Diastole
d. Another name for atria.	Auricle
e. The main vein.	Vena cava
f. Vessels which carry blood away from the heart.	Aorta
g.Two names for the upper chambers of the heart.	Auricle
h. Thick-walled chambers of the heart.	Ventricle
I. Carries blood from the heart to the lungs.	Pulmonary artery
j. Takes about 0.8 sec to complete.	Cardiac cycle
k. Valves situated at the point where blood flows out of the heart.	Semilunar valve
l. Vessels which carry blood towards the heart.	Vein
m. Carries blood from the lungs to the heart.	Pulmonary vein
n. The two lower chambers of the heart.	Ventricle
o. Prevent blood from re-entering the ventricles after entering the aorta.	Semilunar valve
P. Technical name for one heartbeat.	Cardiac cycle
q. Valves between right atrium and ventricles.	Tricuspid valve
r. The technical name for the contraction of the heart.	Systole
s. Very narrow blood vessels.	Capillaries

Question 26.
Name and Label the given diagrams to show A, B, C, D, E, F, and G.
Answer:

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Body Fluids and Circulation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
How much time is taken by the 1ml blood passes from the heart to reach upto the feet and returns to the heart again.
a. 60 seconds
b. 62 seconds
c. 72 seconds
d. 80 seconds
Answer:
a. 60 seconds

Question 2.
Find out the wrong statement.
a. The density of protein in tissue fluid is lesser than plasma
b. Blood is a fluid connective tissue
c. The amount of blood present in the 70 kg man is 5 litre
d. The plasma protein albumin provided immunity.
Answer:
d. The plasma protein albumin provided immunity.

Question 3.
Where is urea synthesised in a man?
a. Spleen
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Pan crease
Answer:
c. Liver

Question 4.
Which of the following is rich in urea?
a. Hepatic vein
b. Splenic vein
c. Pancreatic vein
d. Pulmonary vein
Answer:
a. Hepatic vein

Question 5.
Which is considered to be the graveyard of RBCs?
a. Liver
b.Spleen
c. Kidney
d. Bone marrow
Answer:
b.Spleen

Question 6.
Which is a heterophil?
a. Neutrophils
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocytes
Answer:
a. Neutrophils

Question 7.
Name the white cell which is bilobed?
a. Monocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophils
Answer:
c. Eosinophil

Question 8.
Name the blood cell-secreted by megakaryocytes?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Platelets
d. None of the above
a. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
b. I – a, II – d, III – b, IV – c
c. I – a, II – d, III – b, IV – c
d. I – d, II – c, III – a, IV – b
Answer:
c. I – a, II – d, III – b, IV – c

Question 10.
Name the protein which is similar to the protein present in the red blood cells of Rhesus Monkey.
a. D – antigen
b. A – antigen
c. B – antigen
d. A, B – antigen
Answer:
a. D – antigen

Question 11.
Confirm A: Red blood cell contains more hemoglobin
Reason B: There are no cell organelles in the red blood cells.
a. A – True, B – False
b. A – True, B – True
c. A – False, B – True
d. A – False, B – False
Answer:
b. A – True, B – True

Question 12.
Name the substance that prevents coagulation in the small blood vessels.
a. Serum
b. Heparin
c. Serotonin
d. Histamines
Answer:
b. Heparin

Question 13.
Name the white blood cells present in lymph?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Monocytes
c. Neutrophils
d. Basophils
Answer:
a. Lymphocytes

Question 14.
Name the layer which is not seen in capillaries
a. Tunica intima
b. Tunica media
c. Tunica external
d. Tunica internal
Answer:
b. Tunica media

Question 15.
How much time is taken for a single cardiac cycle?
a. 0.7 secs
b. 0.8 secs
c. 0.6 secs
d. 10.9 secs
Answer:
b. 0.8 secs

Question 16.
Find out the wrong pair?
a. Time duration of ‘P’ wave – 0.08 – 0.1 secs
b. Time duration of ‘PQ’ wave – 0.12 – 0.28 secs
c. Time duration of ‘QRS’ wave – 0.06 – 0.09 secs
d. Time duration of T wave – 0.02 – 0.4 secs
Answer:
b. Time duration of ‘PQ’ wave – 0.12 – 0.28 secs

Question 17.
The slow excitation of the ‘QRS’ wave indicates ………………………….. defect.
a. Inflammation of ventricle
b. Defects in bicuspid valve
c. Block in the coronary artery
d. Defects in the atrioventricular node
Answer:
a. Inflammation of ventricle

Question 18.
Who has explained first about blood circulation?
a. Raymond deviessens
b. William Harvey
c. Robert William
d. James Elam
Answer:
b. William Harvey

Question 19.
What is the normal blood pressure of a man?
a. 120/90 mm Hg
b. 120/80 mm Hg
c. 120 /80 mm Hg
d. 130/80 mm Hg
Answer:
c. 120 /80 mm Hg

Question 20.
Which of the following is the cause of a stroke?
a. Rupture of blood vessels in the brain
b. A clot in the blood vessels of brain
c. Deposition in the blood vessels of the brain
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 21.
Does ischemic heart disease indicate?
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Rheumatoid heart disease
c. Angino pectoralis
d. Stroke
Answer:
a. Myocardial infarction

Question 22.
Which one of the following is correct in relation to rheumatoid heart disease?
a. Fibrous nodules on the mitral valve
b. Fibrosis
c. Accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 23.
Match the following and find the correct answer?
I. Erythropoietin – a. Agglutinization
II. Haematocrit – b. It takes an important role in the inflammation of body tissues
III. Heparin – c. Finding the ratio between blood plasma and red blood cells.
IV. Antigen – d. It stimulates the synthesis of RBCs in the bone marrow.
a. I-d, II-c, III – b, IV-a
b. I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
c. I – a, II – c, III – d, IV – b
d. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
Answer:
a. I-d, II-c, III – b, IV-a

Question 24.
Note the given diagram and find out the correct answers.
a. T wave represents the repolarisation of auricle
b. The ‘P’ wave represents the functions of auricle
c. Te ‘Q’ wave represents the depolarization of ventricular septum
d. ‘R’ and ‘S’ wave represents depolarization of auricle

Answer:
b. The ‘P’ wave represents the functions of the auricle

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
What are the types of body fluids?
Answer:

• Intracellular fluid – present inside the cells.
• Extracellular fluid – present outside the cells.

Question 2.
What is meant by interstitial fluid or tissue fluid?
Answer:
A fluid that surrounds the cell is known as interstitial fluid.
(Eg.) Plasma, Lymph

Question 3.
Give short notes on blood?
Answer:

• Blood is the most common body fluid that | transports substances from one part of the body j to the other. It is known as fluid connective; tissue.
• The plasma constitutes 55% of total blood volume.
• The average blood volume is about 5000 mZ (51) is an adult weighing 70 kg.

Question 4.
What are the components of blood?
Answer:

1. Red blood cells
2. White blood cells.
3. Platelets

Question 5.
Why is spleen considered as a graveyard of red blood cells?
Answer:

• The average life span of red cells is 120 days.
• After 120 days the red cells are destroyed in the spleen. Hence the spleen said to be a graveyard of RBCs.

Question 6.
What is hematocrit?
Answer:
The ratio of red blood cells to blood plasma is expressed as hematocrit (packed cell volume).

Question 7.
What are the types of lymphocytes? What are its uses?
Answer:

• B – lymphocytes – Produces antibodies
• T – lymphocytes – Involves in cell-mediated immunity.

Question 8.
Classify the monocytes based on its location?
Answer:

Location	Name
1. Central nervous system	Microglia
2. Liver sinuses	Kupffer cells
3. Lungs	Macrophages of alveolei

Question 9.
What are the types of ‘ABO’ blood groups?
Answer:

• A -blood group
• B – blood group
• AB – blood group
• O- blood group

Question 10.
What is meant by alleleic genes?
Answer:
The gene that regulates the synthesis of A, B and O blood groups in ‘ABO’ type.

Question 11.
What are agglutinogens? What is it’s composition?
Answer:
Antigens present on the surface of RBCs are called agglutinogens.

Composition:
Sucrose, D – galactose, N – acetyl glucosamine, 11 terminal amino acids

 

Question 12.
What are the steps to be taken to prevent erythroblastosis f oetalis?
Answer:
After the first delivery if the first child is the Rh^+ve, we should give anti D – antibodies -Rhocum to the
Rh^-ve mother.

Question 13.
What is serum?
Answer:
Plasma without fibrinogen is called serum.

Question 14.
What is an anticoagulant substance ? Where is it synthesized?
Answer:
Heparin is an anti coagulant substance. It is synthesized in the mast cells.

Question 15.
What are the layers of blood vessels
Answer:

1. Tunica externa – Outer layer
2. Tunica media – Mid layer
3. Tunica indima – Inner layer

Question 16.
Give notes on capillaries.
Answer:

• There is no tunica media in the capillaries
• It is the site for the exchange of materials between blood and tissues.
• The blood volume is high but the flow of blood is low.
• The walls of the capillaries are guarded by semilunar valves.
• The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is present in the capillaries.

Question 17.
What is meant by single circulation?
Answer:

• Single circulation is seen in fishes. There is only one auricle and ventricle in the heart of fishes.
• The blood flows from heart to gills there it gets oxygenated and supplies to the organ and then returns to the heart.

Question 18.
What is meant by incomplete double circulation?
Answer:
Reptiles have incompletely divided ventricle. The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is mixed here. Hence it is known as incomplete double circulation.

Question 19.
What is meant by complete double circulation?
Answer:

• There are well divided 2 auricle and 2 ventricles in the heart of birds, crocodiles and mammals.
• The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is completely separated.
• The pulmonary and systemic circulation is well defined.

Question 20.
Differentiate the tachycardia and bradycardia?
Answer:

Tachycardia

1. The rate of heartbeat increases

Bradycardia

The rate of heartbeat decreases.

Question 21.
What is meant by cardiac output?
Answer:
The amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute is called the cardiac output.

Question 22.
What is meant by pulse or pulse rate?
Answer:
The rate of heartbeat per minute is called a pulse.

Question 23.
What is meant by pulse pressure?
Answer:
Pulse pressure: Systolic pressure -diastolic pressure.

Question 24.
What is meant by stroke volume?
Answer:
Stroke volume is the volume of blood pumped out by one ventricle with each beat.
CO = HR x SV

Question 25.
When will the stroke volume double?
Answer:

• During vigorous exercise, SV may double as a result of venous return.
• The amount of blood pumps out of the ventricle is also increased.

Question 26.
What is meant by mean arterial pressure?
Answer:
Mean arterial pressure is a function of cardiac output and resistance in the arterioles.

Question 27.
What is the baroreceptor reflex?
Answer:
The primary reflex pathway for homeostatic control of mean arterial pressure is the baroreceptor reflex.

Question 28.
What is meant by orthostatic hypotension?
Answer:
When we are lying flat the gravitational force is evenly distributed. When you stand up gravity causes blood to pool in the lower extremities. The decrease in blood pressure upon standing is known as orthostatic hypotension.

Question 29.
What is myogenic heart ?
Answer:
The heart beat of man is originated from the cardiac muscles. Hence human heart is a myogonic heart.

Question 30.
Tabulate the cardiac diseases?
Answer:

Diseases	Defects
1. Coronary heart disease	When the coronary arteries are blocked the amount of blood goes to heart muscles decreases leads to oxygen and nutrient deficiency.
2. Vascular diseases	Infection in the arteries veins and lymphatic glands
3. Aorta disease	The wall of the aorta weekened and bulges to form a balloon like sacor aneurysm.
4. Pericarditis	Inflammation in the layers of pericardium
5. Cardio myopathy	An abnormally thick heart muscle causing the heart to pump weaker than normal and leads to heart failure.
6. Heart valve disease	One or more of the heart valves does not work.
7. Heart failure	The heart cannot pump as powerfully as it need to in order to supply like body with 0, and nutrients carrying heart muscles to overwork and weaker.
8. Arrhythmia	The heart beats irregularly

Question 31.
What is edema?
Answer:
The concentration of proteins in the blood becomes much lower than usual leads to the accumulation of fluid.

Question 32.
The walls of arteries nearer to the heart are more elastic than the arteries away from the heart? Why?
Answer:

• When the heart contracts the blood is pushed into the artery hence the pressure in the arteries increases.
• To withstand the pressure the artery walls nearer to the heart are more elastic and hence they relax and reduce the pressure.

Question 33.
How is the blood needed for the skeletal muscle during exercise compensated?
Answer:

• During exercise, more blood is needed for skeletal muscle.
• Hence the blood is diverted from the digestive system to skeletal muscle.

Question 34.
Define Laplace law? What do you infer from this?
Answer:

• It states that the tension in the walls of the blood vessel is proportional to the blood pressure and vessel radius.
• This law is used to understand the structure and function of blood vessels and the heart.

Question 35.
When blood volume drops down abruptly? What happens to the stroke volume?
Answer:
When there is a drop in blood volume the blood flows to the heart decreases hence the blood coming out of the heart during contraction decreases. (Stroke volume decreases)

(3 marks)

III. Short Questions

Question 1.
List the characteristics of the circulatory system?
Answer:

• Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the luiìgs and tissues.
• Nutrients are taken from the digestive system and are carried to the liver and through blood taken to all parts of the body.
• Wastes from the tissues are carried by the blood and finally removed by the kidneys.
• The hormones are transported to their target organs.
• Circulatory system helps to maintain the homeostasis of the body fluids and body temperature.

Question 2.
Give notes on plasma?
Answer:

• Plasma mainly consists of water. It consists of 80 – 92% of water, 0.9 % plasma protein, 0.1 % organic constituents, and respiratory gases.
• It consists of proteins like prothrombin fibrinogen albumin and globulin.
• Albumin maintains the osmotic pressure of the blood.
• Globulin facilitates the transport of ions hormones and lipids.
• Prothrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting.
• Organic constituents include urea amino acid glucose vitamins and fat.
• Inorganic constituents include chlorides carbonates phosphate and potassium.

Question 3.
Describe about red blood cells?
Answer:

1. Red blood cells are abundant than other blood cells. There are about 5 – 5.5 million RBC mm of blood in a healthy man and 4.5 – 5 million RBC mm” in healthy women.
2. The red colour of the RBC is due to the respiratory pigment haemoglobin and it involves in the transport of respiratory gases.
3. The biconcave-shaped RBC s increase the surface area.
4. The RBCs are devoid of nucleus mitochondria ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum.
5. The average life span of RBC is about 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen.
6. RBCs are synthesized in the bone marrow.

Question 4.
Give notes on platelets?

• Platelets are known as thrombocytes.
• They are synthesised by the megakaryocytes of bone marrow.
• They are devoid of a nucleus.
• Blood normally contains 150000 -350000 platelets mm”3 of blood.
• They are involved in blood coagulation.
• The reduction in platelet number can lead to clotting disorders leads to excessive loss of blood from the body.

Question 5.
Arrange the blood groups, their antigens and antibodies and tabulate them.
Answer:

Blood group	Agglutiongens (antigens) on the RBC	Agglutinin antibodies in the plasma
A	A	Anti B
B	B	Anti A
AB	AB	No antibodies
O	No antigens	Anti A and Anti B

Question 6.
What is anastomoses?
Answer:

• These are connections of one blood vessel with another blood vessel.
• They provide an alternate route of blood flow if the original blood vessel is blocked.
• Arteries in the joints contain numerous anastomoses. This allows blood to flow freely even if one of the arteries closes during bending of the joints.

Question 7.
Write notes on coronary blood vessels.
Answer:

• Blood vessels that supply blood to the cardiac muscles with all nutrients and remove wastes are the coronary artries and veins.
• Heart muscle is supplied by two arteries namely the right and left coronary arteries.
• These arteries are the first branch of the aorta.
• These arteries usually surround the heart in the manner of a crown hence called the coronary artery.
• Right ventricle and posterior portion of the left ventricle are supplied by the right coronary artery.
• Anterior and lateral part of the left ventricle is supplied by the left coronary arteries.

Question 8.
Give notes on the heartbeat.
Answer:
1. Rhythmic contraction and expansion of heart is called heartbeat. The contraction of the heart is called systole and the relaxation of the heart is called diastole.

2. The heart normally beats 70 – 72 times per min in a normal adult. Lub and dub sound is produced. These are heart sounds.

3. The sound lub is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid and the dub sound is associated with the closure of the semi lunar valves.

4. The heart sounds can be heard through a stethoscope.

5. These sounds are of clinical diagnostic significance.

6. An increased heart rate is called tachycardia and decreased heart rate is called bradycardia.

Question 9.
What is blood pressure?
Answer:

• Blood pressure is the pressure exerted on the surface of blood vessels by the blood.
• This pressure circulates the blood through arteries veins and capillaries.
• There are 2 types of pressure the systolic pressure and diastolic pressure.
• Systolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries as the chambers of the heart contract.
• Diastolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries when the heart chambers relax
• Blood pressure is measured using a sphygmomanometer.
• Normal blood pressure in man is about 120 / 80 mm Hg.

Question 10.
What is single circulation and what is double circulation?
Answer:
Single circulation:

• The blood circulates once through heart and supplies blood to all the parts of the body. This is single circulation.
• There is systemic and pulmonary circulation. (Eg.) The two-chambered heart of fishes.

Double circulation:
There are two types of circulation.
Systemic circulation:

• The oxygenated blood entering the aorta from the left ventricle is carried by a network of arteries to the tissues.
• The deoxygenated blood from the tissue is collected and emptied into the right atrium.

Pulmonary circulation:
The blood from right ventricle is taken to the lungs by the pulmonary artery and the oxygenated blood from the lungs is emptied into the left auricle by the pulmonary vein.

Question 11.
Why the pressure in the blood vessels nearer to the alveolei of lung is low and the pressure of arteries nearer to the heart is high?
Answer:

• The alveoli are very thin. Hence exchange of gases are taking place easily.
• If the pressure of the blood vessels of alveoli increases the blood vessels will damage and there is collection of tissue fluid

Question 12.
Explain about heart failure or myocardial infarction?
Answer:

• This heart failure is due to decrease in cardiac muscle contractility.
• When blood supply to the heart muscle is remarkably reduced it leads to death of the muscle fibres.
• The blood clot or thrombosis blocks the blood supply to the heart and weakens the muscle fibres.
• It is also called Ischemic heart disease due to lack of oxygen supply to the heart muscles.
• If this persists it leads to chest pain or angina.
• Prolonged angina leads to death of the heart muscle resulting in heart failure.

Question 13.
What is cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
Answer:
1. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is a life-saving procedure that is done at the time of emergency conditions such as when a person’s breath on heartbeat has stopped abruptly in case of drowning electric shock or heart attack.

2. CPR includes rescue of breath which is achieved by mouth to mouth breathing to deliver oxygen to the victim’s lungs by external chest compression which helps to circulate blood to the vital organs.

3. CPR must be performed within 4 to 6 minutes. Brief electric shock is given to the heart to recover the function of the heart (defibrillation).

Question 14.
What is meant by varicose veins?
Answer:

• The veins are so dilated that the valves prevent the backflow of blood.
• The veins lose their elasticity and become congested.
• Common sites are legs rectal anal regions, and spermatic cords.

15. What is embolism?

• It is the obstruction of the blood vessel.
• It is due to the abnormal mass of materials such as fragment of the blood clot.
• If embolus occurs in the lungs coronary artery or liver that leads to death.

Question 16.
Write notes on Rheumatoid heart disease?
Answer:

• Rheumatic fever is an auto immense disease.
• It is due to the streptococcal infection in the throat.
• The fever occurs 2-4 weeks after the infection.
• The antibodies developed to combat the infection cause damage to the heart.
• The symptoms include fibrous nodules on the mitral valve. Fibrosis of the connective tissue and accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity.

Question 17.
Write notes on stroke and Angina pectoris?
Answer:
Stroke:
Stroke is a condition when the blood vessels in the brain bursts or when there is a block in the artery that supplies the brain. The part of the brain tissue that is supplied by this damaged artery dies due to lack of oxygen, (cerebral infarction)

Angina Pectoris:
If Atheroma may partially block the coronary artery and reduce the blood supply to the heart. As a result, there is tightness or choking with difficulty in breathing.
This leads to angina or chest pain. It lasts for a short duration of time.
reduces the blood flow.

Question 19.
Give short notes on heart transplantation?
Answer:

• The first heart transplantation surgery was performed by South African professor – Christian Bernard in the year 1959.
• He has done heart transplantation operation in December 3rd 1967 Inkrute shour hospital at Capetown.
• In India, in 1994 at AIMS hospital on August 3rd Dr. Anangipalli Venu Gopal has performed the heart transplantation surgery.

Question 20.
What is an aneurysm?
Answer:

• The weekened regions of the wall of the artery orvein bulge to forma baloon like sac. This is called aneurysm.
• Unruptured aneurysm may exert pressure on the adjacent tissues or may burst causing massive hemorrhage.

( 5 marks)

V. Essay Questions

Question 1.
Describe about white blood cells.
Answer:

• White blood cells are colourless amoeboid nucleated cells devoid of hemoglobin and hence colourless.
• 6000 – 8000 per cubic mm of WBC s are seen in the blood. WBCs are synthesized in the bone marrow these are of two types.
• Granulocytes and agranolocytes.

I Granulocytes:
a) Neutrophils:

• They are also called heterophils. Hence the nucleus has 3-4 lobes they are called polymorphonuclear.
• This constitutes about 60 – 65 % of the total WBC.

b) Eosinophils:

• They have a bilobed nucleus.
  Eosinophils Basophils Neutrophils
• It constitutes about 2 – 3 % of total WBCs.
• Their number increases during allergic reactions.

c) Basophils:

• They are less numerous than any other type of WBCs constituting 0.5 % -1 % of total WBCs.
• The nucleus is large and has granules in the cytoplasm.
• They secrete heparin serotonin and histamines.

II A granulocytes:
a) Lymphocytes:

• They are secreted in the lymph gland and spleen.
• Lymphocytes constitute 28% of WBCs. They have large nucleus and small amount of cytoplasm.
• The two types of lymphocytes are B and T cells.
• B cells produce antibodies to neutralize the harmful effects of foreign substances. T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity.

b) Monocytes:

• They are phagocytic cells. They have kidney-shaped nucleus. They constitute 1 – 3 % of the total WBCs.
• The macrophages of the central nervous system are the microglia and in the liver they are called “Kupffer cells” and in the pulmonary region they are the alveolar macrophages.

Question 2.
Give notes of Rh factor?
Answer:

• Rh factor is a protein (D antigen) present on the surface of the red blood cells.
• This protein is similar to the protein present in Rhesus monkey hence the term ‘Rh’
• If people have antigen D on the surface of red blood cells are Rh positive (Rh ) and the people who do not carry antigen D ar Rh negative (Rh )
• Rh factor compatibility is also checked before blood transfusion.
• When a pregnant women is R1T and the foetus is Rh+ incompatibility is observed.
• During the first pregnancy the Rh antigens of the foetus does not get exposed to the mother’s blood.
• However small amount of the foetal antigen becomes exposed to the mother’s blood during the birth of the first child.
• Mother blood starts to synthesize D antibodies.
• But during second pregnancies the Rh antibodies from the mother enters the foetal circulation and destroys the foetal RBCs. The foetus dies. This condition is known as erythroblastosis foetalis.
• This can be avoided by giving anti D antibodies (Rhocum) to the mother immediately after the first child birth.

Question 3.
What is coagulation of blood?
Answer:
The mechanism by which excessive blood loss is prevented by the formation of clot is called blood coagulation.

• The clotting process begins when the endothelium of the blood vessel is damaged and the connective tissue in its wall is exposed to the blood.
• Platelets adhere to collagen fibres in the connective tissue and releases blood clotting factors.
• The blood clotting factors with platelets form the platelet plug which provides emergency protection against blood loss.
• Clotting factors released from the clumbed platelet mix with clotting factors in the plasma.
• The inactivated prothrombin is converted into active thrombin in the presence of calcium and vitamin K.

Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin in plasma Fibrinogen Thrombin Fibrin

The threads of fibrins become interlinked into a patch that traps blood cell and seals the injured vessel and prevent blood loss.

Question 4.
Give an account of composition of lymph and explains about its significances?
Answer:

• About 90% of fluid that leaks from capillaries seeps back into the capillaries and the remaining 10% is collected and returned to blood system by means of lymphvessel.
• The fluid inside the lymphatics is called lymph.

Lymphatic system:

• The lymphatic system consists of a complex network of thin walled ducts having group of immune response cells.
• The lymphatic vessels have smooth walls that run parallel to the blood vessels in the skin along the respiratory and digestive tracts.
• These vessels serve as return d ucts for the fluids that are continually diffusing out of the blood capillaries into the body tissues.
• The lymphatic nodes arc concentrated in the neck ingunial axillaries respiratory and digestive tracts.
• The lymph fluid flowing out of the lymph nodes flow into large collecting ducts which finally drains into larger veins thats runs beneath the collar bone the subclavian vein and is emptied in to the blood stream.
• The lymph nodes contain macrophage cells and they prevent the invading microorganisms from reaching the blood stream. Cells found in the lymphatics are the lymphocytes.
• Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the villi of the intestinal wall

Question 5.
Describe the structure of heart with a diagram?
Answer:

• The structure of human heart was described byRaymond deviessens in 1706.
• It is situated in the thoracic cavity and its apex portion is slightly tilted towards left. It weighs about 300 g in a adult. The size of our heart is roughly equal to a closed fist.
• Heart is divided into four chambers upper two auricles and lower two ventricles.
• The walls of the ventricles are thicker than the auricle.
• The heart is covered with pericardium. The pericardial space is filled with pericardial fluid.
• The heart wall is made up of three layers. The outer epicardium middle myocardium the inner endo cardium.
• The two auricles are separated by inter auricular septum and the two ventricles are separated by inter ventricular septum.
• Tricuspid valve is present in between the opening of right auricle and right ventricle and bicuspid valve is present in between the opening of left auricle and left ventricle.
• From the right ventricle arises pulmonary artery and from the left ventricle arises dorsal aorta.
• The semilunar valve is present at the beginning of these arteries.
• The deoxygenated blood from all the parts of body reaches left auricle through superior and inferior venacava.
• The oxygenated blood reaches the left auricle through four pulmonary vein.

Question 6.
Describe the functioning of heart with a diagram or Describe about the cardiac cycle?
Answer:

The events that occur at the beginning of heart beat and lasts until the beginning of next beat is called cardiac cycle. It lasts for 0.8 seconds.

Phase I:
Ventricular diastole – During this phase the blood pressure increases AV valves are opened and the semi lunar valves are closed. Blood flows from the auricles into the ventricles passively.

Phase II:
During atrial systole the ventricle is in relaxed position. The contraction of the auricles pushes maximum volume of blood to the ventricles.
The end diastolic volume is related to the length of the cardiac muscle fibre. More the muscle is stretched greater the EDV and the stroke volume.

Phase III:
Ventricular systole – During this phase the ventricular pressure increases and the AV value closes.
The blood is pumped from the ventricles into the aorta.

Phase IV:
Ventricular systole – During this phase the ventricular pressure increases that forces semi lunar valve to open.
Blood is ejected out of the ventricles without back flow of blood.
This point is the end of systolic volume.

Phase V:
Ventricular diastole – The ventricles begins to relax pressure in the arteries exceeds ventricular pressure resulting in the closure of semilunar valves.
The heart returns to phase I of the cardiac cycle.

Question 7.
How is regulation of cardiac activity taking place?
Answer:

• The human heart is myogenic hence the heart beat originated from the heart muscles.
• This activity is controlled through autonomic nervous system that includes sympathetic and para

sympathetic nerves
Sympathetic nervous system:
The epinephrine releases from adrenal medulla and nor-epinephrine releases from sympathetic neurons bind to B – adrenergic receptors and increase the heart rate.
Para sympathetic nervous system:
The acetylcholine secreted by this binds with muscarinic receptors decreases the heart beat.
Vaso pressin and angio tension II involved in the regulation of the Kidneys causes vaso constriction.
Natriuretic peptide promotes vasodialation.
Vagus nerve is a parasympathetic nerve that supplies the atrium especially the SA and AV node.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Respiration Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 6 Respiration

11th Bio Zoology Guide Respiration Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
Breathing is controlled by
a) cerebrum
b) medulla oblongata
c) cerebellum
d) pons
Answer:
b) medulla oblongata

Question 2.
Intercostal muscles are found between the
a) vertebral column
b) sternum
c) ribs
d) glottis
Answer:
c) ribs

Question 3.
The respiratory structures of insects are
a) tracheal tubes
b) gills
c) green glands
d) lungs
Answer:
a) tracheal tubes

Question 4.
Asthma is caused due to
a) inflammation of bronchus and bronchioles
b) inflammation of branchiole
c) damage of diaphragm
d) infection of lungs
Answer:
a) inflammation of bronchus and bronchioles

Question 5.
The Oxygen Dissociation Curve is
a) sigmoid
b) straight line
c) curved
d) rectangular hyperbola
Answer:
a) sigmoid

Question 6.
The Tidal Volume of a normal person is
a) 800 mL
b) 1000-1200 mL
c) 500 mL
d) 1100-1200 mL
Answer:
c) 500 mL

Question 7.
During inspiration, the diaphragm
a) expands
b) unchanged
c) relaxes to become domed-shaped
d) contracts and flattens
Answer:
d) contracts and flattens

Question 8.
CO₂ is transported through blood to lungs as
a) carbonic acid
b) oxyhaemoglobin
c) carbamino haemoglobin
d) carboxy haemoglobin
Answer:
c) carbamino haemoglobin

Question 9.
When 1500 mL air is in the lungs, it is called
a) vital capacity
b) tidal volume
c) residual volume
d) inspiratory reserve volume
Answer:
c) residual volume

Question 10.
Vital capacity is
a) TV + IRV
b) TV + ERV
c) RV + ERV
d) TV + IRV + ERV
Answer:
d) TV + IRV + ERV

Question 11.
After a long deep breath, we do not respire for some seconds due to
a) more CO₂ in the blood
b) more O₂ in the blood
c) less CO₂ in the blood
d) less O₂ in the blood
Answer:
b) more O₂ in the blood

Question 12.
Which of the following substances in tobacco smoke damage the gas exchange system?
a) carbon monoxide and carcinogens
b) carbon monoxide and nicotine
c) carcinogens and tar
d) nicotine and tar
Answer:
b) carbon monoxide and nicotine

Question 13.
Column I represents diseases and column II represents their symptoms Choose the correctly paired option.

Column I	Column II
P. Asthma	i) Recurring of bronchitis
Q. Emphysema	ii) Accumulation of W.B.C in alveolus
R. Pneumonia	iii) Allergy

a) P – iii, Q – ii, R – i
b) P – iii, Q – i, R – ii
c) P – ii, Q – iii, R – i
d) P – ii, Q – i, R -iii
Answer:
a) P – iii, Q – ii, R – i

Question 14.
Which of the following best describes the process of gas exchange in the lungs?
a) Air moves in and out of the alveoli during breathing.
b) Carbon dioxide diffuses from deoxygenated blood in capillaries into the alveolar air
c) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse down their concentration gradients between blood and alveolar air
d) Oxygen diffuses from alveolar air into deoxygenated blood.
Answer:
c/d

Question 15.
Make the correct pairs.

Column I	Column II
PIC	i) maximum volume of air breathe in after forced
QEC	ii) Volume of air present after expiration in lungs
RVC	iii) Volume of air inhaled after expiration
SFRC	iv) Volume of air exhaled after inspiration

a) P – i, Q – ii, R – iii, S – iv
b) P – ii, Q – iii R – iv, S – i
c) P – ii, Q – iii, R – i, S – iv
d) P – iii, Q – iv, R – i, S – ii
Answer:
d) P – iii, Q – iv, R – i, S – ii

Question 16.
Make the correct pairs.

Column I	Column II
P. Tidal volume	i) 1000 to 1100 ml
Q. Residual volume	ii) 500 ml
R. Expiratory reserve volume	iii) 2500 to 3000 ml
S. Inspiratory reserve volume	iv) 1100 to 1200 ml

a) P – ii, Q – iv, R – i, S – iii
b) P – iii, Q – ii R – iv, S – i
c) P – ii, Q – iv, R – iii, S – i
d) P – iii, Q – iv, R – i, S – ii
Answer:
a) P – ii, Q – iv, R – i, S – iii

Question 17.
Name the respiratory organs of flatworm earthworm, fish, prawn, cockroach, and cat.
Answer:
Flatworm – Body surface
Earthworm – Moist skin
Fish – Gills
Prawn – Gills
Cockroach – Trachea
Cat – Lungs

Question 18.
Name the enzyme that catalyses the bicarbonate formation in RBCs.
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase

Question 19.
Air moving from the nose to the trachea passes through a number of structures. List in order of the structures.
Answer:
External nostrils, Nasal cavity, pharynx Larynx, trachea, the bronchi bronchioles, and the lungs (alveoli)

Question 20.
Which structures seal the Larynx when we swallow?
Answer:
Epiglottis.

Question 21.
Resistance in the airways is typically low why? Give two reasons.
Answer:
The airway resistance is low because:

• The diameter of most airways is relatively large.
• For smaller airways there are many in parallel, making their combined diameter large.
• Air has a low viscosity.

Question 22.
How the body makes long-term adjustments when living in high altitude?
Answer:

• When a person travels from sea level to elevations where the atmospheric pressure and partial pressure of O₂ lowered there is a poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin leads to acute mountain sickness.
• When the person lives there for a long time the kidney synthesizes the erythropoietin which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs

Question 23.
Why is pneumonia considered a dangerous disease?
Answer:
Inflammation of the lungs due to infection caused by bacteria or viruses is called pneumonia. The symptoms are sputum production, nasal congestion, shortness of breath, sore throat, etc. The alveoli get filled with fluid or pus, making it difficult to breathe (lung abscesses).

Question 24.
Diffusion of gases occurs in the alveolar region and only not in any other part of the respiratory system discuss.
Answer:

• The other parts of the respiratory system do the work of passing the air into the lungs only.
• Real respiration takes place between alveoli and blood capillaries.

The diffusion membrane of the alveolus is made up of three layers.

1. The thin squamous epithelial cells.
2. The endothelium of the alveolar capillaries.
3. The basement substance found in between them.

The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli provide space for gaseous exchange

Question 25.
Sketch a flow chart to show the pathway of airflow during respiration.
Answer:

Question 26.
Explain the conditions which create problems in oxygen transport?
Answer:

When a person travels quickly from sea level to elevations above 8000 ft, where the atmospheric pressure and partial pressure of oxygen are lowered, the individual responds with symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS)- headache, shortness of breath, nausea, and dizziness due to poor binding of O₂ with hemoglobin. When the person moves on a long-term basis to mountains from sea level his body begins to make respiratory and hematopoietic adjustments.

To overcome this situation kidneys accelerate the production of the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs. When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume.

This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs. This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation.

This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis. When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while still in the blood-forming bubbles. Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings.

Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems including a stroke. The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers. During carbon-dioxide poisoning, the demand for oxygen increases. As the O₂ level in the blood decreases it leads to suffocation and the skin turns bluish-black.

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Respiration Additional Important Questions and Answers

(1 Mark)

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
What are the respiratory organs of the Limulus?
a) Trachea
b) Gills
c) Bookgills
d) Green glands
Answer:
c) Bookgills

Question 2.
The failure of tissues for any reason to receive an adequate supply of oxygen.
a) apnoea
b) Dyspnoea
c) Hypoxia
d) Opnia
Answer:
c) Hypoxia

Question 3.
These are mucous-secreting cells.
a) Oxynctic cells
b) Chief cells
c) Goblet cells
d) Parietal cells
Answer:
c) Goblet cells

Question 4.
These are the respiratory surfaces.
a) brunchioles
b) Terminal bronchiole
c) alveoli
d) small bronchi
Answer:
c) alveoli

Question 5.
What is the average rate of respiration of a healthy man?
a) 12-16 times
b) 8-10 times
c) 5-10 times
d) 15 – 30 times
Answer:
a) 12-16 times

Question 6.
Match:
1) Residual volume i) 6000 ml
2) Expiratory reserve volume ii) 2500 – 3000 ml
3) Inspiratory reserve volume iii) 1000 -1100 ml
4) Total lung capacity iv) 1100 -1200 ml
1) i – iv; 2 – i; 3 – ii; 4 – iii
b) i – i; 2 – ii; 3 – iii; 4 – iv
c) i – iii; 2 – i; 3 – iv; 4 – ii
d) i – iv; 2 – iii; 3 – ii; 4 – i
Answer:
d) i – iv; 2 – iii; 3 – ii; 4 – i

Question 7.
1) Atmospheric air i) Partial pressure of O₂ -104
2) Alveoli ii) Partial pressure of O₂ – 40
3) Tissues iii) Partial pressure of O₂ – 95
4) Oxygenated iv) Partial pressure of O₂ – blood 159
a) i – i; 2 – ii; 3 – iii; 4 – iv
b) i – ii; 2 – iii; 3 – i; 4 – iv
c) i – iv; 2 – iii; 3 – ii; 4 – i
d) i – iv; 2 – i; 3 – ii; 4 – iii
Answer:
d) i – iv; 2 – i; 3 – ii; 4 – iii

Question 8.
Find out the correct statement and assertion:
Assertion: The high partial pressure of CO₂ provides essential space for the dissociation of O₂ from oxyhemoglobin
Reason: Haemoglobin takes a maximum of 4 molecules of CO₂
a) Assertion and reason are correct
b) Assertion wrong reason wrong
c) Assertion correct reason correct. The reason explains the assertion.
d) Assertion correct Reason wrong
Answer:
d) Assertion correct Reason wrong

Question 9.
Assertion: The CO₂ when enters into the blood combines with water to form carbonic acid
Reason: Carbonic anhydrase enzyme acts as a catalyst for this reaction
a) Assertion correct Reason wrong
b) Assertion wrong Reason correct
c) Assertion and reason are wrong
d) Assertion and reason are correct
Answer:
d) Assertion and reason are correct

Question 10.
Find out the causative agent of Tuberculosis.
a) Mycobacterium tuberculate
b) Salmonella tubercular
c) Mycobacterium calaracea.
d) Mycobacterium entries
Answer:
a) Mycobacterium tuberculate

Question 11.
What is the cause of pleurisy?
a) embolism
b) constriction of airways
c) alveolei is damaged
d) Pleura becomes inflammed
Answer:
d) Pleura becomes inflammed

Question 12.
People workes in the sand grinding mills may have this disease?
a) asbestosis
b) Fibrosis
c) Silicosis
d) Nephrosis
Answer:
c) Silicosis

Question 13.
What is the cause of the disease bend?
a) Fibrosis
b) Necrosis
c) Narcosis
d) Silicosis
Answer:
c) Narcosis

Question 14.
Find the wrong pair.

a) Larynx	Epiglottis prevents the food from entering into the larynx
b) C-shaped cartilage	Ensures that the air passage does not collapse or burst.
c) The rigidity of bronchioles	Prevent them from collapsing
d) Fine respiratory brochioler	Terminate into air sacs

Question 15.
Read the following statement and find whether they are correct or wrong.
1) The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli are composed of Type-I and the gases can diffuse rapidly through them
2) Type-II cells are thin. The gaseous exchange takes place through diffusion.
3) The spirometer is used to find the volume of air
4) A healthy man respires 10-15 times per minute
a) 1 – True; 2 – False; 3 – True; 4 – False
b) 1 – True; 2 – True; 3 – False; 4 – True
c) 1 – False; 2 – True; 3 – False; 4 – True
d) 1 – True; 2 – False; 3 – True; 4 – False
Answer:
a) 1 – True; 2 – False; 3 – True; 4 – False

Question 16.
Amount of air inspired or expired with each normal breath.
a) 600 ml
b) 500 ml
c) 700 ml
d) 800 ml
Answer:
b) 500 ml

Question 17.
A normal human adult can inspire or expire approximately.
a) 5000-8000 ml
b) 6000 – 7000 ml
c) 6000-8000 ml
d) 5000 – 9000 ml
Answer:
c) 6000-8000 ml

Question 18.
During vigorous exercise, the tidal volume is about
a) 4 -10 times
b) 4 – 7 times
c) 4 – 6 times
d) 4 – 9 times
Answer:
a) 4 -10 times

Question 19.
Match the following.
i) Inspiratory reserve volume i) 6000 ml
ii) Expiratory reserve volume ii) 1100-1200 ml
iii) Residual volume iii) 1000-31100 ml
iv) Total lung capacity iv) 2500 – 43000 ml
a) i – 2; ii – 3; iii – 4; iv – 2
b) i – 1; ii – 2; iii – 3 ; iv – 4
c) i – 4; ii – 2; iii – 2; iv -1
d) i – 3; ii – 2; iii -1; iv – 4
Answer:
c) i – 4; ii – 2; iii – 2; iv -1

Question 20.
The amount of air that moves into the respiratory passage in a minute.
a) 7000ml
b) 8000 ml
c) 9000 ml
d) 6000 ml
Answer:

Question 21.
The amount of air that is not involved in gaseous exchange.
a) 200 ml
b) 150 ml
c) 300 ml
d) 250 ml
Answer:
d) 250 ml

Question 22.
Total lung capacity is ………….
a) VC+RC
b) TV+IRV
c) ERV+TV+IRV
d) TV+ERV
Answer:
a) VC+RC

Question 23.
What is the solubility of carbon dioxide in tissues?
a) 30 – 35 times
b) 20 – 30 times
c) 20 – 25 times
d) 20 – 22 times
Answer:
c) 20 – 25 times

Question 24.
Vital Capacity is:
a) TV+IRV+ERV
b) RV+ERV
c) TV+IRV
d) TV+ERV
Answer:
a) TV+IRV+ERV

Question 25.
In what form oxygen is transported in blood.
a) HbO4
b) HbO6
c) HbO₂
d) HbO3
Answer:
c) HbO₂

Question 26.
How many molecules of oxygen are accepted by haemoglobin?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Answer:
a) 4

Question 27.
How much O₂ is delivered in 100ml of blood in normal physiological conductions?
a) 6 ml
b) 5 ml
c) 7 ml
d) 8 ml
Answer:
b) 5 ml

Question 28.
Find out the wrong pair.

a) Dissolved CO2 in blood Plasma	7- 10%
b) The transport of O2 in blood in the dissolved state	7%
c) The dissolved CO2 in haemoglobin	20-25%
d) Emphysema	Smoking

Answer:
b) The transport of O₂ in blood in the dissolved state – 7%

Question 29.
Where is the respiratory regulatory center present in the brain?
a) Pons Varoli
b) Pons
c) Medulla oblongata
d) cerebellum
Answer:
a) Pons Varoli

Question 30.
In which altitude the symptoms of a cute mountain sickness appear?
a) 1000 feet
b) 9000 feet
c) 8000 feet
d) 7000 feet
Answer:
c) 8000 feet

Question 31.
Find out the wrong pair

a) Erythropoietin	Increases the red blood cell synthesis
b) Nitrogen	narcosis decompression sickness
c) Carbonic anhydrase	Synthesis of carbonic acid
d) Normal ferrous	Methaemoglobin

Answer:
d) Normal ferrous – Methaemoglobin

Question 32.
Find the wrong pair.

a) Level of O2 in the blood is low	Skin turns bluish-black
b) Sigmoid curve	Percentage Saturation of haemoglobin
c) Haemoglobin	HbO4
d) Emphysema	Smoking

Answer:
c) Haemoglobin – HbO4

Question 33.
Whether the following statements are True or False. If so arrange them in order
i) tuberculosis is caused by mycobacterium tubercular
ii) The lungs are affected due to the bacterial infection and pneumonia fever
iii) bronchitis causes mucous accumulation in the lungs
iv) Asthma is caused by virus Sequence
a) i – True, ii – False, iii – True, iv – False
b) i – False, ii – False, iii – True, iv – False
c) i – True, ii – True, iii – True, iv – False
d) i – True, ii – True, iii – False, iv – True
Answer:
a) i – True, ii – False, iii – True, iv – False

Question 34.
Confirm:
Assertion (A): Workers working in grinding industries wear protective masks
Reason (B): People working in grinding industries suffers from silicosis
a) A – True, B – True
b) A-False, B-True
c) The assertion A is wrong
d) assertion A is wrong. The reason B is True
Answer:
a) A – True, B – True

Question 35.
Confirm:
Part – A: The tar present in the nicotine damages the gaseous exchange.
Part – B: The blood vessels get narrower and the blood pressure increases due to smoking Ans:
a) Part A – False, Part B – Ture
b) Part A- True, Part B-True
c) Part A – True, Part B – is not correct explanation
d) Part A – It is a correct statement. Part B is not a correct statement
Answer:
b) Part A- True, Part B-True

Question 36.
Match and find the correct sequence
i) Pleurisy A) Constriction of alveoli
ii) Atelectasis B) Widening of alveoli
iii) Emphysema c) Accumulation of fluid in the air spaces
iv) Pulmonary edema D) Pleura becomes inflamed
a) I – D, II-A, III – B, IV – C
b) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
c) I – D, II – C, III – B, IV – A
d) I – A, II – C, III-A, IV – B
Answer:
a) I – D, II-A, III – B, IV – C

Question 37.
Match and find the correct sequence
i) Tuberculosis A) Alveolei will be affected
ii) Pneumonia B) Inflamation of bronchioles
iii) Asthma Q Mycobacterium
iv) Bronchitis D) Mucous secretion
a) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
b) I – C, II-A, III – D, IV – D
c) I – A, II – C, III – B, IV – D
d) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C
Answer:
b) I – C, II-A, III – D, IV – D

Question 38.
The world tuberculosis day
a) March 20th
b) March 21st
c) March 23rd
d) March 24th
Answer:
d) March 24th

Question 39.
What is the surface area of the lungs?
a) 500 square feet
b) 525 square feet
c) 550 square feet
d) 600 square feet
Answer:
b) 525 square feet

Question 40.
What is the speed of sneeze?
a) 165 km/hr
b) 200 km/hr
c) 250 km / hr
d) 225 km/ hr
Answer:
a) 165 km/hr

Question 41.
The adult respires ………………….. time and newborn child respires …………………. times.
a) 12-16;30-60
b) 12-14;30-50
c) 12-20; 30-70
d) 12-30;30-70
Answer:
a) 12-16;30-60

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
What is excretion?
Answer:
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the environment and cells of our body, where organic nutrients are broken down oxygenatically to release energy.

Question 2.
How much air can be respired by a normal human adult?
Answer:
A normal adult can respire approximately 6000 to 8000 ml of air per minute. During vigorous exercise, the tidal volume is about 4-10 times higher.

Question 3.
The rate of breathing in aquatic animals is faster than the of terrestrial animals. Give reason.
Answer:
The amount of dissolved oxygen is very low in water compared to the amount of oxygen in the air. Hence the rate of breathing in aquatic animals is faster than the terrestrial animals.

Question 4.
What is residual volume?
Answer:

• The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration.
• Ex.: 1100-1200ml.

Question 5.
What is the function of epiglottis?
Answer:
Epiglottis is a thin elastic flap at the junction of the nasopharynx and larynx. It prevents the food from entering into the larynx and avoids choking on food.

Question 6.
What is meant by inspiratory capacity?
Answer:
The total volume of air a person can inhale after normal expiration. It includes tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume.
IC = TV + IRV

Question 7.
What is expiratory capacity?
Answer:
The total volume of air a person can exhale after a normal inspiration. It includes tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume.
EC = TV + ERV

Question 8.
How are lungs protected?
Answer:
The lungs are light spongy tissues enclosed in the thoracic cavity surrounded by an air-tight space. It is bound dorsally by the vertebral column and ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs, and on the lower side by the dome-shaped diaphragm.

Question 9.
What is meant by minute respiratory volume?
Answer:

• The amount of air that moves into the respiratory passage per minute is called minute respiratory volume.
  Normal TV = 500 ml
• Normal respiratory rate = 12 times / minute Therefore the minute respiratory volume – 6 litre / minute

Question 10.
What are the characteristic features of the respiratory surface?
Answer:
The surface area of the respiratory surface is large and richly supplied with blood vessels.

• It is extremely thin and kept moist.
• It is in direct contact with the environment.
• It is permeable to respiratory gases.

Question 11.
Give short notes on a ‘C’ shaped cartilage of bronchi?
Answer:
Bronchi have ‘c’ shaped cartilage plates to ensure that the air passage does not collapse or burst as the air pressure changes during breathing.

Question 12.
What should be the characteristic features of the respiratory surface?
Answer:

• The surface area must be very large and richly supplied with blood vessels.
• Should be extremely thin and kept moist.
• Should be in direct contact with the environment.
• Should be permeable to the respiratory gases.

Question 13.
What is meant by breathing?
Answer:
The movement of air between the atmosphere and the lungs is known as breathing.

Question 14.
Name the muscle that helps in respiration?
Answer:

• Diaphragm
• Intercostal muscle
• External and internal intercostal muscle.

Question 15.
What is meant by expiratory reserve volume?
Answer:

• The additional volume of air a person can forcefully exhale by forcefully expiration is called expiratory reserve volume.
• The normal value is 1000-1100 ml.

Question 16.
What is the cause for the reduction in the elasticity of the lungs?
Answer:

• Healthy lungs contain large amounts of elastic connective tissue around the alveoli containing elastin which makes the lung tissue elastic.
• People with emphysema and bronchitis have difficulty in exhaling because the enzyme elastase destroys the elastin around the alveoli and reduces the elasticity of the lungs.

Question 17.
Give notes on Asthma.
Answer:

• Allergy is caused by allergens, it may be due to dust, pollens some seafood.
• Allergens provoke an inflammatory response. The allergens affect our respiratory tracts and we immediately start sneezing and coughing.

Question 18.
Why do some people snore?
Answer:
Breathing with a hoarse sound during sleep is caused by the vibration of the soft palate.
Snoring is caused by a partially closed upper airway (nose and throat) which becomes too narrow for enough air to travel through the lungs. This makes the surrounding tissues vibrate and produces the snoring sound.

Question 19.
Why we should not laugh loudly during eating.
Answer:

• The oesophagus and trachea lies in the pharynx During swallowing a thin elastic flap called epiglottis prevent the food from entering in to the larynx.
• If we talk or laugh during swallowing the closing of trachea becomes disturbed and hence the food may enter in to trachea.

Question 20.
Breathing through the nose is healthy than through the mouth? why?
Answer:

• There are more dust and microbes in the air. If we breathe through the mouth there is a possibility of entering these microbes and dust in to the stomach through oesophagus.
• When we breathe through the nose the dust will be filtered by the bristles. The dust particular is trapped by the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity.

Question 21.
Write the structure of the alveoli.
Answer:

• The diffusion membrane of the alveolus is made up of three layers. The thin squamous epithelial cells.
• The endothelium of the alveolar capillaries
• The basement substance found in between them. The thin requamous epithelial cells of alveoli are composed of Type-I and Type-II cells.
• The Type-I cells are very thin so that gases can diffuse rapidly through them. Type-II cells are thicker synthesize and secrete a substance called surfactant.

Question 22.
Give the passage of breathing.
Answer:
External nostrils → Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → bronchi → bronchioles → Alveolei → Lungs.

(3 marks)

III. Short Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by dead space?
Answer:
Some of the inspired air never reaches the gas exchange areas but fill, the respiratory passages where exchange of gases does not occur.
This air in called dead space. This air does not involve in respiration it amounts to 150 ml.

Question 2.
Give an account of the structures of haemoglobin?
Answer:

• Hemoglobin belongs to the class of conjugated protein.
• The iron-containing pigment portion haem constitutes only 4% and the rest colourless protein of the histone class globin.
• The molecular weight of Hb is 68000
• These four Iron atoms can combine with a molecule of oxygen.

Question 3.
What is meant by methaemoglobin?
Answer:
If the iron component of the haem is in ferric state in stead of normal ferrous state it is called methaemoglobin. Methaeglobin does not bind with O₂.

Question 4.
What Are Surfactants?
Answer:
They are the thin non-cellular films made of protein and phospholipids covering the alveolar membrane.

Question 5.
What are the significances of surfactants?
Answer:
The surfactant lowers the surface tension in the alveoli and prevents the lungs from collapsing.
It also prevents pulmonary oedema.

Question 6.
What is new born respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)?
Answer:
Premature Babies have low levels of surfactant in the alveoli may develop the new bom respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS) because the synthesis of surfactants begins only afer the 25th week of gestation.

Question 7.
What is the reason for yawning?
Answer:
When there is a shortage of O₂, it is sensed by our brain and sends a message to CNS to correct the imbalance for O₂ demand and trigger us to yawn. Yawning helps us to breath more oxygen to the lungs.

Question 8.
Why are hiccups occured?
Answer:
Hiccups are due to eating too fast or having occasional spasms of the diaphragm.

Question 9.
What is the need of respiration?
Answer:
For all the activities of our body energy is needed. This we receive from the food. Oxygen is utilized by the organisms to break down the biomolecules the glucose and to derive energy. Hence Respiration is necessary.

Question 10.
Why the rate of respiration in aquatic animals is high?
Answer:
The amount of dissolved oxygen is very low in water compared to the amount of oxygen in the air. So the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than land animals.

Question 11.
What is the importance of mucus in the respiratory tract?
Answer:
The goblet cells present in the mucus membrane secrete mucus, a slimy material rich in glycoprotein. Microorganisms and dust particles attach to the mucus films and are carried upwards to pass down the gullet during swallowing.

Question 12.
What is dead space?
Answer:
Some of the inspired air never reaches the gas exchange areas but fills the respiratory passages where the exchange of gases does not occur. This air is called dead space. Dead space is not involved in gaseous exchange. It amounts to approximately 150mL.

Question 13.
Why should we avoid breathing with our mouths?
Answer:
Breathing through mouth results in bladder shrinkage and creates an urge to urinate in the middle of the night.

IV. Competitive Exam Corner

Question 1.
Sarojini’s father has congestion of the lungs. His doctor advised him to take bed rest and prescribed him an inhaler. What disease is he suffering from? List the symptoms of the disease.
Answer:
He is suffering from pneumonia.
Symptoms of pneumonia:

1. Sputum Production,
2. Nasal congestion,
3. Shortness of breath,
4. Sore throat

Question 2.
A villager who came to the city was affected by severe respiratory illness due to the inhalation of particulate pollutants. Suggest the reason for his illness and how do particulate pollutants affect him.
Answer:
He is suffering from a dust allergy. As he entered in a polluted area he started sneezing and coughing. The allergens in that place affecting his respiratory tracts and provoked inflammatory response prolonged allergy leads to Asthma.

Question 3.
Kumar’s mother works in a stone grinding factory. Suddenly she faints and taken to the hospital. The doctor notices fibers in the lungs. What kind of disease is she affected with? How can it be rectified?
Answer:
Long exposure to sand particles can give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis. She must be hospitalized and have to give medication like anti-coagulation the imatinib. that fight against the disease.

(5 marks)

V. Essay Questions

Question 1.
List the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Answer:

• It helps in exchange of O₂ and CO₂ between the atmosphere and the blood.
• It maintains homeostatic regulation of body pH.
• It protects us from inhaled pathogens and pollutants.
• It maintains the vocal cords for normal communication.
• It removes the heat produced during cellular respiration through breathing.

Question 2.
Describe the structure of trachea with a diagram.
Answer:

• The trachea is semiflexible tube supported by cartilaginous rings.
• It starts from the pharynx and ends in the lungs there it divides into right and left primary bronchi.
• With in the lungs the bronchi divided repeatedly into secondary and tertiary bronchi.
• That further divides into terminal bronchioles and respiratory bronchioles.
• Bronchi have ‘c’ shaped curved cartilage plates.
• This plate helps in preventing collapsing as the air pressure changes during breathing.
• There is no cartilaginous stingray the brarichioles,
• The rigidity of the bronchioles prevents them from collapsing.

Question 3.
Describe the process of inspiration & expiration with a diagram?
Answer:
Inspiration occurs if the pressure inside the lungs is less than the atmospheric pressure.

Inspiration:

• There is a contraction of diaphragm muscles and external intercostal muscles which pulls the ribs and sternum upwards and downwards and increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorsoventral axis.
• Hence the pulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure.
• This forces the fresh air from outside to enter the air passages into the lungs to equalize the pressure.

Expiration:

• Expiration takes place when the pressure within the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure.
• Relaxation of the diaphragm leads to its original dome-shaped nature.
• The internal intercostal muscles contract pulling the ribs downward reducing the thoracic volume and pulmonary volume.
• Thin results in an increase in the intrapulmonary pressure slightly above the atmospheric pressure causing the expulsion of air from the lungs.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of lung with a diagram.
Answer:

• The lungs are light spongy tissue.
• It is enclosed inthe thoracic cavity surrounded by an air-tight space.
• The thoracic cavity is bound dorsally by the ventral column and ventrally by the sternum. laterally by the ribs and on the lower side by the dome-shaped diaphragm.
• The lungs are covered by a double walled pleural membrane and the plural cavity is filled with pleural fluid which reduces friction.
• The trachea is a semi-flexible tube supported by cartilaginous rings which extends upto the 5th thoracic vertebra.
• It divides into right and left bronchi and enters in to the lungs. There it divides further many times and ends in alveoli.

Question 5.
Describe the process of transport of oxygen.
Answer:

1. Molecular oxygen is carried in blood in two ways. bound to haemoglobin within the red blood cells and dissolved in plasma.
2. 3% of O₂ is transported in the dissolved form.
3. 97% of O₂ binds with haemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin.
4. Each haemoglobin carries four molecules of O₂
5. The high PO₂ in the alveoli low PCO₂ low temperature and less H⁺ concentration favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
6. The low PO₂ high PCO₂ high H and high temperature favours the dissociation of O₂ from oxyhaemoglobin.
7. Every 100ml of oxygenated blood can deliver about 5ml of O₂ to the tissues.

Question 6.
Give the tabulated column of partial pressure of O₂ and CO₂ in comparison to the gases in the atmosphere.
Answer:

Question 7.
Describe the process of CO₂ transport.
Answer:

• 7-10% of CO₂ is transported in a dissolved form in the plasma.
• 20-25% of dissolved CO₂ is bound and carried in the RBCs as carbamino haemoglobin.
  CO₂ + H6  ⇌ H6 CO₂
• About 70% of CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate ions.
• At the tisoues the PCO₂ is high due to catabolism and diffuses in the blood to form HCO^–3 and H⁺
• When CO₂ diffuses into RBCs it combines with water forming carbonic acid catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase.
• Carbonic acid is dissociated into hydrogen and bicarbonate.
  
• Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers 4ml CO₂ to the alveoli for elimination.

Question 8.
Describe the process of regulation of respriation.
Answer:

• Medulla oblongata is a repiratory regulation centre.
• The pneumotaxic centre present in the pons varoli is the respiratory rhythm centre.
• The chemosensitive area found close to the rhythm centre is highly sensitive to CO₂ and H⁺
• H⁺ are eliminated out by respiratory process.
• Receptiors associated with the aortic arch and carotid artery send signals to the rhythm centre for remedial action.

Question 9.
Write an essay on respiratory disorders.
Answer:
The respiratory system is affected by environmental occupational personal and social factors.
Following are some of the respiratory disorders:

Asthma: It is characterized by narrowing and inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles and difficulty in breathing.

Causes: Allergens like dust drugs pollen grains, certain food items like fish.

Emphysema: It is chronic breathlessness. It is caused by gradual breakdown of the thin wall of the alveoli decreasing the total surface area of a gaseous exchange.

Causes: The widening of the alveoli is called Emphysema.
Cigarette smoking reduces the respiratory surface of the alveolar walls.

Bronchitis: It is the inflammation of the bronchi.

Causes: Pollution smoke ciagratte smoking.

Symptoms: Cough shortness of breath sputum in the lungs.

Pneumonia: It is the inflammation of the lungs.

Causes: Bacteria and virus

Symptoms

• Sputum production Nasal congestion, Shortness of breath sore throat.
• Tuberculosis

Causes

• Tuberculosis is caused by mycobacterium tubercular.
• Infection mainly occurs in the lungs and bones.

Symptoms
Collection of fluid between the lungs and the chest wall is the main complication of this

Question 10.
List the ill effects of smoking
Answer:

• It increases the heart beat rate.
• It narrows the blood vessels results in raised blood pressure and leads to coronary heart diseases.
• Smoking can cause lung diseases by damaging the airways and alveoli and results in emphysema and chronic bronchitis.

Question 11.
Tabulate the organism. respiratary organs and the
Answer:

ORGANISMS	RESPIRATORY ORGANS
1. Sponges, Coelenterates	Body surface
2. Earth worm	The moist skin
3. Insects	Trachea
4. Aquatic Arthropods mollusca	Gills
5. Fishes	Gills
6. Amphibians, Reptiles Aves mammals	Lungs
7. Frog	Lungs, Moist skin

Question 12.
What are the steps involved in the respiratory process?
Answer:
Steps involved in respiration are

1. The exchange of air between the atmosphere and the lungs.
2. The exchange of O₂ and CO₂ between the lungs and the blood.
3. Transport of O₂ and CO₂ by the blood.
4. Exchange of gases between the blood and the cells.
5. Intake of O₂ by the cells for various activities and release of CO₂

Question 13.
Tabulate the disorders of respiratory system.
Answer:

Disorders	Symptoms
1. Pulmonary Embolism	Blood clot occurs in the lung
2. Bronchitis	Inflammation of the lining of your bronchial tubes
3. Asthma	Swelling and narrowing of air ways and there is excess secretion of mucus.
4. Lung cancer	Smoking causes cancer
5. Pneumonia	Inflammation of lungs affecting alveoli
6. Pulmonary edema	fluid accumulation of the tissue and air spaces of lung.
7. Emphysema	Shortness of breath due to widening of alveoli
8. Atelectasis	Alveoliand lungs get deflated
9. Tuberculosis	It affects lungs and bones and effasion (fluid accumulation in the lungs)
10. Pleurisy	Pleura becomes inflammed

Question 14.
List the problems in oxygen transport.
Answer:

• When a person travels from sea level to elevations above 8000 ft there is a poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin.
• There is a symptom of headache shortness of breath nausea and dizziness develop. (Acute mountain sickness)
• To overcome this situation kidneys accelerate the production of the hormone erythropoietin which stimulates the synthesis of RBCs.

II. Inthedeepsea

• When a person descends deep in to the sea the pressure in the water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume.
• There is an increased nitrogen level in the blood lead to nitrogen narcosis.
• When the diver ascends to the surface a condition called decompression sickness occurs. As nitrogen comes out of solution while still in the blood-forming bubbles.
• The large bubbles can block the blood flowor can press on the nerve ending. This also causes pain in joints, muscles and causes neurological problems.

Question 15.
List the toxic substances present in tobacco. What are the ill-effects of smoking.
Answer:
a) Toxic substances present in tobacco.
Nicotine tar, carbon monoxide ammonia, arsenic and sulphur dioxide.

b) ill effects

• Carbon monoxide and Nicotine damaged the cardie vascular system.
• The tar damages the gaseous exchange system.
• Nicotine stimulate the heart to beat faster and narrowing the blood vessels results in raised blood pressure and coronary heart diseases.
• Carbon monoxide reduces O₂ Supply.
• Smoking causes lung, stomach, and pancreases and bladder cancer.
• It lowers sperm count in men.

Question 16.
What is meant by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Answer:

• Smoking can cause lung diseases by damaging the airways and alveoli and results in emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
• These two diseases along with asthma are referred to as a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• When a preson smokes 85% of the smoke released is inhaled by the smoker himself and others in the vicinity called passive smokers are also affected indirectly.

Question 17.
List the events in inspiration and expiration.
Answer:

Question 18.
Describe the relationship between partial pressure of O₂ and the nature of O₂ dissolving the haemoglobin.
Answer:

• In the alveoli high PO₂ low PCO₃ Low temperature and less H⁺ Concentration favours the formation of oxyhemoglobin wjiere as in the tissues low PO₂ high PCO₂ high H and high-temperature favoures the dissocation of O₂ from oxyhemoglobin.
• A sigmoid curve is obtained when the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O₂ is plotted against PO₂.
• This S, Shaped curve has a steep slope for PO₂ valuer between 10 and 50 mm Hg and then flattens between 70 and 100 mm Hg.
• Under normal physiological conditions, every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver about 5 ml of O₂ to the tissues.

Question 19.
List the PO₂ and PCO₂ during inspiration expiration and in lungs and blood vessels.
Answer:

Location	Partial Pressures of Oxygen PO2	The partial pressure of CO2 PCO2
Inspiration	159 mm. Hg	0.3 mm. Hg
Expiration	120 mm. Hg	127 mm. Hg
Alveoli	104 mm. Hg	40 mm. Hg
Pulmonary artery	40 mm. Hg	45 mm.Hg
Pulmonary vein	95 mm. Hg	40 mm. Hg
Oxygenated blood	95 mm. Hg	40 mm. Hg
Deoxygenated blood	40 mm. Hg	45 mm. Hg

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

11th Bio Zoology Guide Digestion and Absorption Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
Choose the incorrect sentence from the following:
a. Bile juice emulsifies the fat
b. Chyme is a digestive acidic food in stomach
c. Pancreatic juice converts lipid into fatty acid and glycerol
d. Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice
Answer:
d. Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice

Question 2.
What is chyme?
a. The process of conversion of fat into small droplets.
b. The process of conversion of micelles substances of glycerol into fatty droplet.
c. The process of preparation of incompletely digested acidic food through gastric juice.
d. The process of preparation of completely digested liquid food in midgut.
Answer:
d. The process of preparation of completely digested liquid food in midgut.

Question 3.
Which of the following hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
a. Angiotensin and epinephrine
b. Gastrin ¿md insulin
c. Cholecystokinin and secretin
d. Insulin and glucagon
Answer:
c. Cholecystokinin and secretin

Question 4.
The sphincter of Oddi guards
a. Hepatopanci’eatic duct
b. Common bile duct
c. Pancreatic duct
d. Cystic duct
Answer:
a. Hepatopanci’eatic duct

Question 5.
In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of
a. Glucose
b. Amino acids
c. Na⁺
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 6.
Which one is incorrectly matched?
a. Pepsin – stomach
b. Renin – liver
c. Trypsin – intestine
d. Ptyalin – mouth
Answer:
b. Renin – liver

Question 7.
Absorption of glycerol, fatty acid and monoglycerides takes place by
a. Lymph vessels within villi
b. Walls of stomach
c. Colon
d. Capillaries within villi
Answer:
a. Lymph vessels within villi

Question 8.
First step in digestion of fat is
a. Emulsification
b. Enzyme action
c. Absorption by lacteals
d. Storage in adipose tissue
Answer:
a. Emulsification

Question 9.
Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of
a. Pepsinogen into pepsin
b. Trypsinogen into trypsin
c. Protein into polypetide
d. Caseinogen into casein
Answer:
b. Trypsinogen into trypsin

Question 10.
Which of the following combinations are not matched?

Column – I	Column – II
a. Bilirubin and biliverdin	(i) Intestinal juice
b. Hydrolysis of starch	(ii) Amylases
c. Digestion of fat	(iii) Lipases d Salivary gland
d. salivary gland	(iv) Parotid

Answer:
a. Bilirubin and biliverdin – (i) Intestinal juice

Question 11.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column – I	Column -II
P. Small intestine	i. Largest factory
Q. Pancreas	ii. Absorption of water
R. Liver	iii. Carrying electrolytic solution
S. Colon	iv. Digestion and absorption

a. (P-iv) (Q-iii) (R-i) (S-ii)
b. (P- iii) (Q-ii) (R-i) (S-iv)
c. (P-iv) (Q-iii) (R-ii) (S-i)
d. (P-ii) (Q-iv) (R-iii) (S-i)
Answer:
a. (P-iv) (Q-iii) (R-i) (S-ii)

Question 12.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column – I	Column -II
P. Small intestine	i. 23 cm
Q. Large intestine	ii. 4 meter
R. Oesophagus	iii. 12.5 cm
S. Pharynx	iv. 1.5 meter

a. (P-iv) (Q- ii) (R- i) (S-iii)
b. (P- ii) (Q- iv) (R- i) (S-iii)
c. (P-i) (Q-iii) (R-ii) (S-iv)
d. (P-iii) (Q-i) (R-ii) (S-iv)
Answer:
b. (P- ii) (Q- iv) (R- i) (S-iii)

Question 13.
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column – I	Column -II
P. Lipase	i) Starch
Q. Pepsin	ii) Cassein
R. Renin	iii) Protein
S. Ptyalin	iv) Lipid

a. (P-iv) (Q-ii) (R-i) (S- iii)
b. (P- iii) (Q- iv) (R- ii) (S- i)
c. (P- iv) (Q- iii) (R-ii) (S- i)
d. (P- iii) (Q- ii) (R- iv) (S- i)
Answer:
c. (P- iv) (Q- iii) (R-ii) (S- i)

Question 14.
Which of the following is not the function of the liver?
a. Production of insulin
b. Detoxification
c. Storage of glucogen
d. Production of bile
Answer:
a. Production of insulin

Question 15.
Assertion (A): Large intestine also shows the presence of a villi-like small intestine.
Reason (B): Absorption of water takes place in the large intestine
a. Both A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and B are true but B is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but B is false
d. A is false but B is true
Answer:
a. Both A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A

Question 16.
Which of the following is not true regarding intestinal villi?
a. They possess microvilli
b. They increase the surface area
c. They are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels
d. They only participate in the digestion of fats
Answer:
d. They only participate in the digestion of fats

Question 17.
Which of the following combinations are not matched?
a. Vitamin D – Rickets
b. Thiamine – Beriberi
c. Vitamin K – Sterlity
d. Miacin – Pellagea.
Answer:
c. Vitamin K – Sterility

Question 18.
Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
Answer:
In the small intestine, digestion gets completed and the absorption of digested food materials like glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, and glycerol takes place. The food materials are to be retained in the intestine by increasing the surface area. Hence villi are present in the intestine. The stomach is the temporary storing organ of food. In the stomach, HCl, pepsin, renin, and lipase are secreted. These are concerned with digestion. Hence villi are not present in the stomach.

Question 19.
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes. yet it is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:

• The pile contains bile pigments (Bilirubin and biliverdin)
• The pile pigments are broken down products of heamoglobin of dead RBC’s
• Bile salts, cholesterol, and phospho lipids.
• Bile has no enzyme.
• Bile helps in the emulsification of fats.
• Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules.
• Bile also activates lipase to digest lipids.

Question 20.
List the chemical changes that starch molecule undergoes from the time it reaches the small intestine.
Answer:

Question 21.
How do proteins differ from fats in their energy value and their role in the body?
Answer:

Protein	Lipid
1. The caloric value 5.65 Kcal/ gram	The caloric value 9.45 Kcal/gram
Q- Physiological fuel value 4 Kcal/gram	Physiological fuel value 9 Kcal/ gram

Question 22.
Digestive secretions are secreted only when needed discuss.
Answer:

• The saliva is secreted by the salivary gland in the mouth Saliva
• The saliva contains water.
• Electrolytes – Na⁺, K⁺ , Cl^–, HCo₃^–
• Salivary amylase (ptyalin)
• Mucus (a glycoprotein)
• Polysaccharides, starch is hydrolyzed by the salivary amylase enzyme into disaccharides (maltose)

Stomach

• The gastric j uice contains HCI and proenzymes
• Proenzyme pepsinogen on exposure to HCI gets converted into active enzyme pepsin.

• The HCI provides an acidic medium (pH=1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrification.
• Proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of Infants is rennin helps in the digestion of milk protein caseinogen to casein in the presence of calcium.

Small Intestine

Pancreatic juice:
Enzymes: Trypsinogen, Chymotrypsinogen, Carboxypeptidases, Pancreatic, Amalyse, Pancreatic Lipase, and Nucleases.

Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the enzyme chymotrypsinogen in the pancreatic juice.

Bile Juice:
The bile contains bile pigment (Bilirubin, and biliverdin) as the breakdown product of heamoglobin of dead RBCs, Bile salts, Cholesterol, and phospholipids. But has no enzymes. Bile helps in the emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules, bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Pancreatic juice action:
Trypsin hydrolyses protein into polypeptides and peptones. While chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids.

Succus enterius:
The secretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus.
Enzymes: Maltase, lactase, sucrase (invertase), dipeptidases, lipases, nucleosidases.

Bicarbonate ions from the Pancreas provide an alkaline medium (pH=7.8) for the enzymatic action.
All macromolecules → Micromolecules
Carbohydrate → Monosaccharides
Protein → Aminoacid
Lipids → Fatty acids and Glycerol

Question 23.
Label the given diagram.
Answer:

A – Right hepatic duct of the liver
B – Common bile duct
C – Pancreatic duct (duct of wirsung)
D – Hepatopancreatic duct
E – Cystic duct

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Digestion and Absorption Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Option.

Question 1.
……………………… litres of digestive juice is poured into the alimentary canal and are reabsorbed each day.
a) 6 – 7 lit
b) 0 – 7 lit
c) 5-7 lit
d) 3 – 7 lit
Answer:
b) 0 – 7 lit

Question 2.
The Hard chewing surface of the teeth is made of ………………………… and helps in mastication of food.
a) Enamel
b) Crown
c) Denton
d) Plague
Answer:
a) Enamel

Question 3.
Which is the correct statement?
a) Tongue is a freely movable muscular organ attached at the anterior end by the frenulum to the floor of the buccal cavity.
b) Tongue is a freely movable muscular organ not attached at the posterior end by the frenulum to the floor of the buccal cavity.
c) Tongue is a freely movable muscular organ attached at the posterior end by the frenulum to the floor of the buccal cavity.
d) Tongue is a freely movable muscular organ attached at the anterior, posterior end by the frenulum to the floor of the buccal cavity.
Answer:
c) Tongue is a freely movable muscular organ attached at the posterior end by the frenulum to the floor of the buccal cavity.

Question 4.
Which is the correct sequence?
a) Gullet → Glottis → Epiglottis
b) Epiglottis → Glottis → Gullet
c) Glottis → Gullet → Epiglottis
d) Gullet → Epiglottis → Glottis
Answer:
a) Gullet → Glottis → Epiglottis

Question 5.
Which is a false statement?
a) Stomach divided into three region
b) Cardiac, fundic, pyloric regions
c) Pyloric region found between duodenum and jejunum
d) Cardiac region has a sphincter
Answer:
c) Pyloric region found between duodenum and jejunum

Question 6.
Find out the incorrect pair.
a) Starch – Amylase
b) Protein – Pepsin
c) Casein – Trypsin
d) Lipid – Lipase
Answer:
c) Casein – Trypsin

Question 7.
Find out the correct pair
a) Duodenum – 25 m
b) Jejunum – 2.4 m
c) Ileum – 3.7 m
d) Oesophagus – 10 m
Answer:
b) Jejunum – 2.4 m

Question 8.
Which is a wrong statement
a) Brunner’s gland doesn’t secrete mucus and enzymes
b) Brunner’s gland secretes mucus and enzymes
c) It is found in duodenum
d) It is theopenningofcaecum
Answer:
a) Brunner’s gland doesn’t secrete mucus and enzymes

Question 9.
Where is crypts of Leiberkuhn seen?
a) Small Intestine
b) Oesophages
c) Stomach
d) Rectum
Answer:
a) Small Intestine

Question 10.
The anal column may get enlarged and causes
a) Haemoralds
b) Haemorhoids
c) Elaemorods
d) Elaemorals
Answer:
b) Haemorhoids

Question 11.
Find the correct statement
a) Serosa – The outer layer formed of connective tissue
b) Serosa – Connective tissue, epithelial tissue
c) Serosa – Connective tissue, striated cells
d) Serosa – Connective tissue, thin squanmous epithelium
Answer:
d) Serosa – Connective tissue, thin squanmous epithelium

Question 12.
Match the following
1. Parotid gland – i) Pepsin
2. Sub maxillary gland – ii) Stenson’s duct
3. Sublingual gland – iii) Wharton’s duct
4. Stomach – iv) Duct of Rivinis
a) (1-ii) (2-iii) (3-iv) (4-i)
b) (1-i) (2-ii) (3-iii) (4-iv)
c) (1-ii) (2-iii) (3-i) (4-iv)
d) (1-iii) (2-ii) (3-iv) (4-i)
Answer:
a) (1-ii) (2-iii) (3-iv) (4-i)

Question 13.
Where is castle intrinsic factor secreted?
a) Intestine
b) Digestive passage
c) Stomach
d) Large intestine
Answer:
c) Stomach

Question 14.
The hepatic lobules are covered by …………………….. a thin connective tissue sheath.
a) Glisson’s capsule
b) Cardiac membrane
c) Renal membrane
d) Cystic membrane
Answer:
a) Glisson’s capsule

Question 15.
Find the correct statement. The differentiation of Liver
a) 4-5 week
b) 3-4 week
c) 4-7 week
d) 12-3 week
Answer:
b) 3-4 week

Question 16.
Find the wrong statement
a) Saliva – Ptyalin
b) Digestive tract – Mucous membrane
c) Stomach – Pepsin
d) Small intestine – Glucokinase
Answer:
d) Small intestine – Glucokinase

Question 17.
What is pH of food at the time of absorption?
a) 7.3
b) 7.5
c) 7.8
d) 7.7
Answer:
c) 7.8

Question 18.
True or false
a) Carbohydrate – Glucose
b) Protein – Aminoacid
c) Fat – Fatty acid
d) Bile – Pepsin

Answer:-
a) True
b) True
c) False
d) False

Question 19.
Find x-part the diagram

a) Common bile duct
b) Pancreatic duct
c) Jejunum
d) Gall bladder
Answer:
b) Pancreatic duct

Question 20.
Find the correct pair.
a) Carbohydrate -50% -400-500 gm
b) Fat-15%65-75 gm
c) Carbohydrate -51 % 400 -450 gm
d) Fat-15% -70-75 gm
Answer:
a) Carbohydrate -50% -400-500 gm

Question 21.
Name the vitamin synthesized by bacteria of the large intestine
a) D
b) K
c) C
d) E
Answer:
b) K

Question 22.
Find the correct statement.
a) Unused protein – stored in the liver
b) Unused protein – stored in the muscle
c) Unused protein – excretes as nitrogen
d) Unused protein – excretes through faeces
Answer:
c) Unused protein – excretes as nitrogen

Question 23.
What is the nature of food in the stomach?
a) Chyme
b) Fermented
c) Solid
d) Semisolid
answer:
a) Chyme

Question 24.
Which is the longest part of the digestive system?
a) Large intestine
b) Small intestine
c) Oesophages
d) Stomach
Answer:
b) Small intestine

Question 25.
Where is pyloric muscle present?
a) Junction between oesophagus and stomach
b) Junction between the large intestine and small intestine
c) Junction between small intestine and stomach
d) Junction between large intestine and rectum
Answer:
c) Junction between small intestine and stomach

Question 26.
How much protein is needed for a day?
a) 1 gm per kg
b) 2 gm per kg
c) 1.5gmperkg
d) 2.5gmperkg
Answer:
a) 1 gm per kg

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
What are the uses of food?
Answer:
The food we eat provides energy and organic substances for growth and the replacement of worn-out and damaged tissues. It regulates and coordinates the various activities that take place in the body.

Question 2.
What are the special features that help in absorbing digested food?
Answer:

• There is an increase in the small intestine surface area.
• The villi are present in the inner walls of the intestine.
• The villi is the absorbtive unit
• The microvilli present in the villi increase the absorptive surface.

Question 3.
Why do we need a digestive system?
Answer:
The food that we eat is macromolecules, and inabsorbable. These are to be broken down into smaller macro-molecules in absorbable forms. This is done by the digestive system.

Question 4.
How is fat and other nutrients of bile helped in digestion?
Answer:
It helps in emulsifying fat. The bile salt decreases the surface tension of fat molecules and converting it to chilo micron.

Question 5.
What is the function of the digestive system?
Answer:
The function of the digestive system is to bring the nutrients, water, and electrolytes from the external environment into every cell in the body through the circulatory system.

Question 6.
What happens when there is no secretion of HCI in the stomach?
Answer:

• The HCI in the stomach coverts the inactivated pepsinogen into active pepsin.
• The activated pepsin acts on protein and converts them into proteases and peptones
• HCI provides an acidic medium which is optimum for pepsin action.

Question 7.
List out the processes starting from the ingestion of protein and storning in the muscle cells and converting them in to the parts of cytoplasm?
Answer:
Stomach:
The gastric juice contains pepsin. This is the first enzyme that works on protein.

• Rennin is present in the gastric juice of infants
• It helps in the digestion of caesinogen and converts into casein.

Pancreas:

• Trypsin hydrolyses proteins in to polypeptides and peptones.
• Chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids.

Succus Entricus
The peptidases present in the intestinal juice convert the di and polypeptides to amino acids.

The end product of digestion the amino acids that are absorbed by the villi and reach the blood.

Question 8.
What is diphyodont dentition?
Answer:
Human beings and many mammals form two sets of teeth during their lifetime, a set of 20 temporary milk teeth which gets replaced by a set of 32 permanent teeth. This type of dentition is called diphyodont dentition.

Question 9.
Why the food prepared in the house is better than the food which is prepared by causing preservative and artificial enhancers?
Answer:
The food prepared by using artificial enhancers and preservatives creates so many diseases.
Diseases

• Heart problems
• Hypertension
• Sterility
• Stomach disorders
• Attainment of early puberty in girl children.

Question 10.
What is known as the dental formula of human beings?
Answer:
The arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and lower jaw in the order of I, C, P, and M can be represented by the dental formula. The dental formula of man is 2123 / 2123.

Question 11.
What are the steps to be taken to care for our alimentary tract?
Answer:

• We have to take healthy foods.
• We have to take plenty of water.
• We have to regulate our stress.
• We have to take probiotics daily.
• We have to do exercise daily.

Question 12.
What are the functions of soluble and insoluble fibres?
Answer:
The food contain two types of fibres.
Soluble fibre: It soaks up toxins and waste in the digestive system.
Insoluble fibre: Roughage. It moves bulk through the intestine to help with regular bowel movements.
This upper surface of the tongue has small projections called Papillae.

Question 13.
What is the function of the tongue?
Answer:
The tongue helps in the intake of food, chew and mix food with saliva, swallow food, and also speak. The upper surface of the tongue has small projections called papillae with taste buds.

Question 14.
What are Oesophages?
Answer:
Oesophages connect the buccal cavity and stomach.

Question 15.
What is gastro oesophagus reflux disorder?
Answer:
If the cardiac sphincter does not contract properly during the churning action of the stomach the gastric juice with acid may flow back into the oesophagus and cause heart bum, resulting in GERD (Gastro Oesophagus Reflex Disorder).

Question 16.
How larger food molecules are converted into small molecules?
Answer:

Large Molecules	Small Molecules
1. Carbohydrate	Monosaccharides – Glucose fructose Galactose
2. Protein	Amino acids
3. Fat	Amino acids

Question 17.
What are gastric rugae?
Answer:
The inner wall of the stomach has many folds called gastric rugae which unfold to accommodate a large meal.

Question 18.
What is meant by colities?
Answer:

• The bacterial infection may cause inflammation of the innerlining of colon called colitis.
• The most common symptoms of colitis are rectal bleeding abdominal cramps and diarrhoea.

Question 19.
What is indigestion?
Answer:

• It is a digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of stomach.
• It may be due to in adequate enzyme secretion anxiety food poisoning overeating and spicy food.

Question 20.
Give notes on vomiting?
Answer:
It is reverse peristalsis. Harmful substances are ejected through the mouth. This action is controlled by the vomit centre located in the medulla oblongate a feeling of nausea precedes vomiting.

Question 21.
What is meant by digestion? What is the different processes of digestion?
Answer:
The break down of the macromolecules of food in to the micro molecules of food is known as digestion.
Stages

1. Ingestion
2. Digestion
3. Absorption
4. Assimilation
5. Elimination of undigested substances digestion

Question 22.
What is Frenulum?
answer:
The tongue is attached at the posterior end to the floor of the buccal cavity by the structure frenulum and the tongue is free in the front.

Question 23.
What is meant by GERD – GASTERO oesophagus reflex disorder?
Answer:

• There are two sphincter muscles namely cardiac sphincter and pyloric sphincter present in the stomach.
• If the sphineter does not contract properly during the churning action of the stomach of the gastric juice with acid may flow back in to the oesophagus and cause heart bum resulting in GERD.

Question 24.
How is piles or haemorrhoides formed?
Answer:

• The anal mucosa is folded into several vertical folds contains arteries and veins called anal columns.
• if these anal columns get enlarged and causes piles or haemorrhoides.

Question 25.
Name the enzyme which converts the inactivated enzymes into the active enzyme.
Answer:
1. Enterokinase:
It converts the inactivated Trypsinogen in to Trypsin.

2. Trypsin:
The inactive chymotrypsinogen is converted into chymotrypsin

Question 26.
What are the food components needed for a person for healthy living?
Answer:

• Carbohydrates
• Proteins
• Lipids
• Vitamin
• Minerals
• Fibre
• Water

Question 27.
Define Thecodont?
Answer:
Each tooth is embedded in a socket in the jaw bone; this type of attachment is called thecodont.

Question 28.
What is meant by assimilation?
answer:
All the body tissues utilize the absorbed substances for their activities and incorporate in to their protoplasm this process is called assimilation.

Question 29.
Define Plaque.
Answer:
Minerals salts like Calcium and Magnesium are deposited on the teeth and form a hard layer of tartar or calculus called plaque.

Question 30.
What is Papillae?
Answer:
This upper surface of the tongue has small projections called Papillae.

Question 31.
What are the parts of Stomach?
Answer:

• A cardiac portion
• A fundic portion
• A pyloric portion

Question 32.
What is the portion of small intestine?
Answer:
Duod enum – 25Cm
Jejunum-2.4m
Ileum-3.5m

Question 33.
What is Gastric rugae?
Answer:
The inner wall of the stomach has much folds called gastric rugae which unfolds to accommodate a large meal.

Question 34.
What are the parts of large Intestine?
Answer:

• Caecum
• Colon
• Rectum

Question 35.
What are the regions of colon.
Answer:
The colon is divided into four region.

1. An ascending region
2. A Transverse region
3. A Descending region
4. A Sigmoid region

Question 36.
What are the layers found in the alimentary canal?
Answer:

• Serosa
• Muscularis
• Sub – mucosa
• Mucosa

Question 37.
What are the elements found in Saliva?
Answer:

• Water
• Electrolytes (Na⁺, K⁺, Cl^–, HCO₃^–₎
• Salivary Amylase (Ptyalin)
• Anti bacterial agent Lysozyme
• Lubricating agent mucus (glycoprotein).

Question 38.
What are the components present in bile?
Answer:

• Bilirubin
• Biliverdin
• Bile Salts
• Cholesterol
• Phospholipids

Question 39.
Name the gastric juices found in the stomach.
Answer:

• Hydrochloric acid (PH 1.8)
• Proenzyme – Pepsinogen
• Pepsin Rennin

Question 40.
What is the function of Pyloric Sphincter?
Answer:

• The opening of the stomach into the duodenum is guarded by the Pyloric Sphincter.
• It periodically allows partially digested food to enter the duodenum and also prevents regurgitation of food.

Question 41.
What is the Calorific value of carbohydrates?
Answer:

• The caloric value of Carbohydrates is 4.1 calories /gram.
• The physiological fuel value is 4 Kcal / gram.

Question 42.
A person is suffering from a digestion problem. What may be the reason?
Answer:
This person may be suffering from constipation.
Constipation:
The faeces are retained within the rectum, because of irregular bowel movement due to poor intake of fibre in the diet and lack of physical activities.

Question 43.
What is oral hydration therapy?
Answer:
If there is more loss of water due to diarrhea dehydration may occur. Treatment is known as oral hydration therapy.
This involves drinking plenty of fluids sipping small amounts of water at a time interval to rehydrate the body.

Question 44.
Define Obesity.
Answer:
It is caused due to the storage of excess of body fat in adipose tissue.
It may induce hypertension, atherosclerotic heart disease and diabetes.

Question 45.
What is BMI Calculation?
Answer:
BMI is calculated as body weight in Kg, divided by the square of height in meter.
\(\mathrm{BMI}=\frac{\text { Body Weight in } \mathrm{Kg}}{\text { (Body Height) }^{2} \text { in meter }}\)
For example :
A person Weight = 50 Kg
Height = 1.6m
\(=50 / 1.6^{2}\)
BMI = 19.5

(3 marks)

III. Short Questions

Question 1.
Define Gingivitis?
Answer:
The plaque formed on teeth is not removed regularly, it would spread down the tooth into the narrow gap between the gums and enamel and cause inflammation, called gingivitis.
Symptoms;
It leads to redness and bleeding of gums and leads to bad smell.

Question 2.
What is Heterodont?
Answer:
The permanent teeth are of four different types (heterodont).
Incisors – Chisel like cutting teeth
Caniues – Dogger shaped tearing teeth
Premolar -Grinding Molar – Grinding and Crushing
\(\frac{2123}{2123} \times 2=\frac{16}{16}\)
Upper Jaw – 16 teeth
Lower Jaw – 16 teeth

Question 3.
What are the signifance of Liver?
Answer:
1. Destroy aging and defective bloodcells.
2. Stored glucose in the form of glycogen or disperses glucose into the blood stream with the help of pancreatic hormones.
3. Stores fat soluble vitamins and iron.
4. Detoxifies toxic substances.
5. Involves in the synthesis of non – essential aminoacids and urea.

Question 4.
Explain about the protein deficiency disease.
Answer:
Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM):

• Marasmus
• Kwarshiorkor Marasmus:
• Children are suffering from diarrhoea Body becomes lean and weak
• Reduced fat and muscle tissue with thin and folded skin.

Kwashiorkor:

• Dry skin
• Potbelly
• Edema in the legs and face
• Stunted growth
• Changes in hair colour
• Weakness and irritability

Question 5.
Name the digestive secretions.
Answer:

• Salivary glands
• Bile juice
• Pancreatic juice Gastric juice Small Intestinal juice.

Question 6.
What are the types of Salivary glands and their ducts?
Answer:

Gland	Location	Ducts
1.Parotids	Cheeks	Stenson’s duct
2. Submandibular	Lower Jaw	Wharton’s duct
3. Sublingual	Beneath the tonguç	Bartholin’s duet (or) ducts of Rivinis
The daily secretion of Saliva from Saliva glands ranges from 1000 to 1500ml.

Question 7.
What are the cells of gastric gland and their Secretions?
Answer:

Gastric cells of glands	Secretion
1. Chief cells (or) Peptic cells (or) Zymogen cells	Gastric enzymes
2. Goblet cells	Mucus
3. Parietal (or) Oxyntic cells	HCI an intrinsic factor responsible for the absorption of vitamin B12 is called castle’s intrinsic factor.

Question 8.
Draw and label the layers of the alimentary canal.
Answer:

A – Microvilli
B – Circular muscle
C – Mucous
D – Muscular layer

Question 9.
Explain the protein deficiency diseases.
Answer:
Growing children require more amount of protein for their growth and development. Protein deficient diet during the early stage of children may lead to protein-energy malnutrition such as Marasmus and Kwashiorkor. Symptoms are dry skin, pot-belly, oedema in the legs and face, stunted growth, changes in hair colour, weakness, and irritability.

Marasmus is an acute form of protein malnutrition. This condition is due to a diet with inadequate carbohydrates and protein. Such children are suffering from diarrhea, the body becomes lean and weak (emaciated) with reduced-fat and muscle tissue with thin and folded skin.

Question 10.
What are the ill effects of adulteration of food?
Answer:

• Food adulteration causes harmful effects in the form of head ache palpitations allergies, cancers.
• It reduces the food quality common adulteration are addict onto citric acid to lemon juice.
• Papaya seeds to pepper melamine to milk.

Question 11.
A person has diet control in particular time, he takes large amount of rice, curd, buttermilk and onion why? and write about it?
Answer:
Yes the person is suffering from Jaundice.
Jaundice:

• It is the condition in which liver is affected and the defective liver fails to break down haemoglobulin and to remove bile pigments from the blood.
• Deposition of these pigments changes the colour of eyes and skin yellow.
• Jaundice is caused due to hepatitis Viral Infection

Question 12.
What is the effects of crystallized cholesterol?
Answer:
The effects of crystallized cholesterol is Gall Stones.

Gall Stones:

• Any alteration in the composition of the bile can cause the formation of stones in the gall bladder.
• The stones are mostly formed of crystallized cholesterol in the bile.
• The gall stone causes obstruction in the cystic duct, hepatic duct and also hepatopancreatic duct, causing pain, Jaundice and pancreatitis.

Question 13.
What is indigestion?
Answer:
It is a digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of stomach. It may be due to inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, overeating and spicy food.

Question 14.
Writes notes on Peptic Ulcer.
Answer:

• It refers to an eroded area of the tissue lining (Mucosa) in the stomach or duodenum.
• A duodenal ulcer occurs in people in the age group of 25-45 years.
• Gastric ulcer is more common in person above the age of 5üyears.
• Ulcer mostly due to infections caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylon.
• It may be due to uncontrolled usage of aspirin or certain anti-inflammatory drugs.
• It is caused due to smoking, alcohol, caffeine, and psychological stress.

Question 15.
What is a hiatus hernia or diaphragmatic hernia?
Answer:
It is a structural abnormality in which the superior part of the stomach protrudes slightly above the diaphragm. The exact cause of hiatus hernias is not known. In some people, injury or other damage may weaken muscle tissue, by applying too much pressure (repeatedly) on the muscles around the stomach while coughing, vomiting, and straining during bowel movement and lifting heavy objects.

Question 16.
Give notes on the stomach.
Answer:

• Stomach functions as the temporary storage organ for food.
• It consists of three parts cardiac fundic and pyloric stomach.
• The oesophagus opens into a cardiac stomach and guarded by cardiac sphincter.
• The pyloric stomach opens into duodenum and is guarded by the pyloric sphincter.

• It allows partially digested food to enter the duodenum and prevents regurgitation of food.
• The inner walls of stomach has many folds which unfolds to accommodate a large meal.

Question 17.
Give short notes on intestinal villi?
Answer:

• The ileal mucosa has numerous vascular projections called villi which are involved in the process of absorption.
• The cells lining the villi produce numerous microscopic projections called microvilli giving a brush border appearance and increase the surface area enormously.
• Along with villi the clear mucosa contain mucous secreting goblet cell and peyer patches which produce lymphocytes.
• The wall of the small intestine bears crypts between the base of villi called crypts of leiberkuhn.

Question 18.
Write a paragraph on peptic ulcers.
Answer:
It refers to an eroded area of the tissue lining (mucosa) in the stomach or duodenum. A duodenal ulcer occurs in people in the age group of 25 – 45 years. Gastric ulcer is more common in persons above the age of 50 years. An ulcer is mostly due to infections caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. It may also be caused due to uncontrolled usage of aspirin or certain anti-inflammatory drugs. An ulcer may also be caused due to smoking, alcohol, caffeine, and psychological stress.

Question 19.
Give an account of the Pancreas.
Answer:

• The Pancreatic is the second-largest gland in the digestive system which is a yellow coloured compound organ.
• It consists of exocrine and endocrine cells.
• It is situated between the limbs of the ‘U’ shaped duodenum.
• The exocrine portion secretes trypsin, pancreatic lipase, amylase.
• The islets of Langerhans cells of the pancreas secrete insulin and glucogen hormone.

Question 20.
Name the alimentary canal parts and the absorptive substance.
Answer:

Organ	Substances tube absorbed
1. Mouth	Water Simple Sugar
2. Stomach	Alcohol, Medicine, Simple Sugar
3. Intestine	Simple Sugar, Amino acids, Fatty Acids, Glycerol
4. Colon	More Water, Minerals, Vitamins, Medicines

(5 marks)

IV. Essay Questions

Question 1.
Describe the structure of the large intestine with a diagram.
Answer:

1. The Caecum:

• It is a small blind pouch-like structure that opens into the colon and it possesses a narrow finger-like tubular projection called vermi form appendix.
• Caecumand vermiform appendix is large in herbivorous animals and act as an important site for cellulose digestion with the help of symbiotic bacteria.

2. The Colon:
The colon is divided in to four regions an ascending transverse a descending part and a sigmoid Colon. The Colon is lined by dilations called haustra.

3. Sigmoid Colon:

• ‘S’ shaped sigmoid colon opensinto the rectum.
• The anus is guarded by two anal sphincter muscles. The anal mucosa is folded in to several vertical folds and contains arteries and veins called anal column.
• Anal colomn may get enlarged and causes piles.

Question 2.
Describe the structure of liver with a diagram.
Answer:

• The liver is the largest gland in our body.
• It is situated below the diaphragm.
• The liver consists of two major left and right lobes and two minor lobes.
• Each lobe has many hepatic lobules called a functional unit of liver and is covered by a thin connective sheath called Glissons capsule.
• Liver cells secrete and is stored in gall bladder. The duct of gall bladder and the hepatic duct form the common bile duct.
• The bile duct and the pancreatic duct joined to gether formed a common duct and opens into duodenum and is guarded by a sphincter of oddi.
• Liver has high power of regeneration and liver cells are replaced by new ones every 3-4 weeks.

Question 3.
Describe the process of digestion in the mouth.
Answer:

• The smell the sight and taste as well as the mechanical stimulation of food in the mouth trigger a reflex action that results in the secretion of saliva.
• The mechanical digestion starts in the mouth by grinding and chewing of good.
• The saliva contains water electrolytes like Na, K, C1, HCO3 salivary amylase or ptyalin antibacterial agent lysozyme and a lubrication agent mucus.
• The saliva moistening lubricating and adhering the masticated food into a bolus.
• The ptyalin in the saliva hydrolyzes 30% of the poly saccharide into disaccharides.
• The bolus is passed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition.
• The bolus reaches the stomach by successive waves of muscular contraction called peristalsis.

Question 4.
Describe the process of digestion in the stomach
Answer:

• The secretion of gastric juice begins when the food is in the mouth.
• The gastric juice contains HCI pepsinogen renin etc.
• The HCI changes the pepsinogen into pepsin.

• Pepsin acts on protein and converts into proteoses and peptones.

 

• The HCI provides an acidic medium which is optimum for pepsin kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrefaction.
• The mucous and bicarbonates protect the stomach from acidic HCl.
• The rennin converts the milk protein caesinogen to casein in the presence of calcium ions.

Question 5.
Describe the process of digestion in the small intestine.
Answer:

The bile pancreatic juice and intestinal juice the secretions released into the small intestine.

Bile:

• The bile contains bile pigments bilirubin and biliverdin as the break down products of haemoglobin of  dead RBCs bile salts.
• Bile helps in emulsification of fats Bile salts reduce the surface tension of the fat droplets and break them into small globules.
• Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Pancreas:

• The pancreatic juice contains enzymes such as trypsinogen, Chymotrypsinogen.
• Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme enterokinase into active trypsin.
• Trypsin activate the chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin.
• Trypsin hydrolyses protein into polypeptides and peptones.

Chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific aminoacids.
The amylase converts glycogen and starch into maltose.
Lipase acts on tri glycerides and hydrolyes them into free fatty acid and mono glycerides.

Succtts entricus:

Question 6.
What is meant by absorption? How is digested food absorbed in the digestive system?
Answer:
Absorption is a process by which the end product of digestion passes through the intestinal mucosa in to the blood and lymph.
Process of absorption:

1. Simple Diffusion:
Small amounts of glucose amino acids and chloride ions are absorbed by simple diffusion.

2. Facilitated Transport:
Fructose arc absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like Na.

3. Active Transport:
Aminoacids, Glucose and Sodium are absorbed by active transport.

4. Passive Transport:
Fatty acid are absorbed by the Lacteals of Villi.

Question 7.
What is the caloric value of carbohydrates, proteins and fats?
Answer:
We obtain 50% of energy from carbohydrates 35 % from fats and 15 % from proteins.
We require about 400 – 500 gm of carbohydrates. 60 – 70 gm of fat 65 to 75 gm of proteins per day.

Carbohydrate:
The caloric valve of Carbohydrate is 4.1 calories gram and its physiological fuel value is 4 Kcal per gram.

Lipid:
Fat hasa caloric valve of 9.45 KCal and a physiological fuel value of 9 KCal per gram.

Protein:
The caloric and physiological fuel value of one gram of protein are 5.65 Kcal and 4 KCal respectively.

Question 8.
What is meant by Hiatus hernia or Oesophagus Hernia

• It is a structural abnormality in which superior part of the stomach protrudes slightly above the diaphragm.
• Applying toomuch pressure on the muscles around the stomach while coughing, vomiting and straining during bowel movement and lifting heavy object it may weaken the muscle tissues of stomach.
• In some people injury or the damage may weaken muscle tissue.
• Heart burn is common in this disease.
• The stomach contents travel back into the oesophagus or even into oral cavity and causes pain in the centre of the chest due to the eroding nature of acidity.

Question 9.
Obesity – Explain.
Answer:

• It is caused due to the storage of excess of body fat in adipose tissue.
• Obesity may be genetic or due to excess intake of food endocrine and metabolic disorders.
• Degree of obesity is assessed by body mass index (BMI).
• A Normal BMI range for adult is 19 – 25 above 25 is obese.
• BMI is calculated as body weight in Kg divided by the square of body height in metres.
• For example a 50 Kg person with a height of 160 Cms would have a BMI of 19.5.
• That is BMI \(=50 / 1.6^{2}\) = 19.5

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals

11th Bio Zoology Guide Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
The clitellum is a distinct part in the body of earthworm Lampito mauritii, it is found in?
a. Segments 13-14
b. Segments 14-17
c. Segments 12 -13
d. Segments 14-16
Answer:
b. Segments 14-17

Question 2.
Sexually, earthworms are
a. Sexes are separate
b. Hermaphroditic but not self – fertilizing
c. Hermaphroditic and self – fertilizing
d. Parthenogenic
Answer:
b. Hermaphroditic but not self – fertilizing

Question 3.
To sustain themselves, earthworms must guide their way through the soil using their powerful muscles. They gather nutrients by ingesting organic matter and soil, absorbing what they need into their bodies. Say whether the statement is True or False: The two ends of the earthworm can equally ingest soil.
Answer:
a. True
b. False

Question 4.
The head region of Cockroach ……………….. pairs of …………….. and …………….. shaped eyes occur.
a. One pair, sessile compound and kidney shaped
b. Two pairs, stalked compound and round shaped
c. Many pairs, sessile simple and kidney shaped
d. Many pairs, stalked compound and kidney shaped
Answer:
a. One pair, sessile compound and kidney shaped

Question 5.
The location and numbers of malpighian tubules in Periplaneta.
a. At the junction of midgut and hindgut, about 150.
b. At the junction of foregut and midgut, about 150.
c. Surrounding gizzard, eight.
d. At the junction of colon and rectum, eight.
Answer:
a. At the junction of midgut and hindgut, about 150.

Question 6.
The type of vision in Cockroach is
a. Three dimensional
b. Two dimensional
c. Mosaic
d. Cockroachdonot have vision
Answer:
c. Mosaic

Question 7.
How many abdominal segments are present in male and female Cockroaches?
a. 10,10
b. 9,10
c. 8,10
d. 9,9
Answer:
d. 9,9

Question 8.
Which of the following have an open circulatory system?
a. Frog
b. Earthworm
c. Pigeon
d. Cockroach
Answer:
d. Cockroach

Question 9.
Buccopharyngeal respiration in frog
a. is increased when nostrils are closed
b. Stops when there is pulmonary respiration
c. is increased when it is catching fly
d. stops when mouth is opened.
Answer:
b. Stops when there is pulmonary respiration

Question 10.
Kidney of frog is
a. Archinephros
b. Pronephros
c. Mesonephros
d. Metanephros
Answer:
c. Mesonephros

Question 11.
Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
a. fishes were amphibious in the past
b. fishes involved from frog -like ancestors
c. frogs will have gills in future
d. frogs evolved from gilled ancestor
Answer:
d. frogs evolved from a gilled ancestor

Question 12.
Choose the wrong statement among the following:
a. In earthworm, a pair of male genital pore is present.
b. Setae help in the locomotion of earthworms.
c. Muscular layer in the body wall of an earthworm is made up of circular muscles and longitudinal muscles
d. Typhlosole is part of the intestine of earthworms.
Answer:
d. Typhlosole is part of the intestine of earthworm.

Question 13.
Which of the following are the sense organs of Cockroach?
a. Antennae, compound eyes, maxillary palps, anal cerci
b. Antennae, compound eye, maxillary palps and tegmina
c. Antennae, ommatidia, maxillary palps, sternum and anal style.
d. Antennae, eyes, maxillary palps, and tarsus of walking legs and coxa
Answer:
a. Antennae, compound eyes, maxillary palps, anal cerci

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 14.
What characteristics are used to identify the earthworms?
Answer:
In gardens, earthworms can be traced by their fecal deposits known as worm castings on the soil surface.
The earthworms can be identified using the following characteristics:

• Long and cylindrical narrow body.
• Bilateral symmetry
• It is light brown in colour with a purple tinge at the anterior end.
• The division of the body into many segments or metameres.
• The dorsal surface of the body is marked by a dark mid-dorsal line.
• In mature worms, segments 14-17 may be found swollen with a glandular thickening of the skin called the clitellum.

Question 15.
What are earthworm casts?
Answer:
The undigested particles along with soil are passed out through the anus as worm castings or vermicasts.

Question 16.
How do earthworms breathe?
Answer:

• There are no lungs and gills.
• They respire through the body surface.
• The surface blood vessel helps in gaseous exchange.

Question 17.
Why do you call cockroaches a pest?
Answer:
Cockroaches destroy food and contaminate it with their offensive odour. They are carriers of a number of bacterial diseases. The cockroach allergen can cause asthma in sensitive people.

Question 18.
Comment on the functions of alary muscles?
Answer:
The triangular muscles that are present on both side of the heart are responsible for blood circulation.

Question 19.
Name the visual units of the compound eyes of cockroach.
Answer:

• The photoreceptors of the cockroach consist of a pair of compound eye on the dorsal surface of the head.
• Each eye is formed of about 2000 simple eyes called the ommatidia.

Question 20.
How does the male frog attract the female for mating?
Answer:

• The male frog has a pair of vocal sacs and a copulatory or nuptial pad on the ventral side of the first digit of each forelimb.
• Vocal sacs produce croaking sound to attract females and nuptial pad is also helpful in mating.

Question 21.
Write the types of respiration seen in frogs.
Answer:
Frog respires on land and in the water by two different methods. In water, the skin acts as an aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration). Dissolved oxygen in the water gets exchanged through the skin by diffusion. On land, the buccal cavity, skin, and lungs act as the respiratory organs. In buccal respiration on land, the mouth remains permanently closed while the nostrils remain open.

The floor of the buccal cavity is alternately raised and lowered, so air is drawn into and expelled out of the buccal cavity repeatedly through the open nostrils. Respiration by the lungs is called pulmonary respiration. The lungs are a pair of elongated, pink-colored sac-like structures present in the upper part of the trunk region (thorax). Air enters through the nostrils into the buccal cavity and then to the lungs. During aestivation and hibernation, gaseous exchange takes place through the skin.

Question 22.
Differentiate between peristomium and prostomium in earthworms.
Answer:

Peristomium	Prostomium
1. The mouth is present in the centre of the first segment of the body called peristomium	Overhanging the mouth is a small flap called the upperlip or prostomium.

Question 23
Give the location of clitellum and spermathecal openings in Lampito mauritii.
Answer:

• Clitellum -14 -17 segment.
• Spermatheca – There are three pairs of spermathecae lying in segments 6/ 7,7/ 8,8/9

Question 24.
Differentiate between tergum and a sternum.
Answer:

Tergum

1.The scierites of dorsal side of cockroach Sternum

Sternum

The sclerites of ventral side of cockroach

Question 25.
Head of cockroach is called hypognathous. Why?
Answer:
The mouth parts of cockroach are directed downwards. The head is small, triangular lies at a right angle to the longitudinal body axis. Hence it is called hypognathous.

Question 26.
What are the components of blood in frogs?
Answer:
1. Plasma-60%
2. Red blood cells, white blood cells platelets 40 %

Question 27.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of the digestives system of frog.
Answer:

Question 28.
Explain the reproductive system of frog
1. Male reproductive organ:

• There are pair of testes. Each test is attached with kidney and dorsal body wall with the peritoneal membrane mesorchium.
• The vasa efferentia arises from each test is opened into the bladder canal and it communicates with the urinogenital duct that comes out of kidneys and opens into the cloaca.

2. Female reproductive system:

• It consists of paired ovaries attached to the kidney and dorsal body wall by folds of peritoneum called mesovarium.
• Each oviduct opens into the body cavity at the anterior end by a funnel like opening called ostia and posteriority the oviducts dilated to form ovisac before they open into cloaca.

• Fertilization is external.
• The eggs hatch into tadpoles.
• Tadpole develops three pairs of gills.
• The tadpole grows into an air-breathing carnivorous adult frog through a process metamorphosis.

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
We can locate the earth worm’s living area through ……………………….
a. Small hole in the ground
b. Worm costings
c. Debris
d. Excreta of cattle.
Answer:
b. Worm costings

Question 2.
The region between 14 – 17 segments in earthworm is called as …………………
a. Pygidium
b. Prostomium
c. Clitellum
d. Peristomium
Answer:
c. Clitellum

Question 3.
What is the shape of the setae?
a. ‘S’ shaped
b. C shaped
c. Round shaped
d. Curved shaped
Answer:
a. ‘S’ shaped

Question 4.
Find the correct pair.
a. First segment -Clitellum
b. Last segment – Peristomium
c. 14-17 -Pygidium
d. Vascular fold -Typhlosole
Answer:
d. Vascular fold -Typhlosole

Question 5.
In which segment the lateral hearts are situated?
a. 7-13
b. 6-13
c. 6-15
d. 7-15
Answer:
b. 6-13

Question 6.
Find out the correct statement
a. In male cockroach the reproductive sac lie anteriorily.
b. In female cockroaches chitinous plates gonapophyses are present around the female genital aperature.
c. In male cockroach the sternum of 10th segment have pair of anal cerci.
d. In the 12th segment anal styes are seen.
Answer:
b. In female cockroaches chitinous plates gonapophyses are present around the female genital aperature.

Question 7.
What is the length of lampito mauritii.
a. 80-210 mm
b. 85-350 mm
c. 80 – 220 mm
d. 80 – 200 mm
Answer:
a. 80-210 mm

Question 8.
The pale brown the purplish tinge colour of earthworm is due to the pigment
a. Haemolymph
b. Porphyrin
c. Choloroquin
d. Flaemoglobin
Answer:
b. Porphyrin

Question 9.
In which segments the spermatheca are situated
a. 6-7 segments, 7-8 segments 8-9 segments
b. 6-7 segments, 8-9 segments 9-10 segments
c. 8-9 segments, 9-10 segments 10-11 segments
d. 7-8 segments, 8-9 segments 9-10 segments
Answer:
a. 6-7 segments, 7-8 segments 8-9 segments

Question 10.
Find out the wrong statement?
a. The wall of earthworm is thin and moist.
b. There are cuticle and epithelial layer.
c. The body cavity which lies between the digestive system and body wall does not act as a fluid-filled structure.
d. The coelomic fluid is alkaline and milky in nature.
Answer:
c. The body cavity which lies between the digestive system and body wall does not act as a fluid-filled structure.

Question 11.
Whether the following statement is correct or wrong. Justify.
a. In earthworm the digestive tract runs from the mouth to anus.
b. In earthworm the mouth is seen in the first segment.
c. In the second segment lies buccal cavity.
d. In the 3 – 4th segment lies the pharynx.
a. True, False, False, True
b. True, True, True, True
c. False, False, False, True
d. True, False, True, False
Answer:
b. True, True, True, True

Question 12.
The large complex molecules which consist of organic-rich soil eaten by earthworm with the help of digestive enzymes is converted into the simple absorptive unit is
a. Intestinal digestion
b. Digestion
c. Rectal digestion
d. Enzymatic digestion
Answer:
b. Digestion

Question 13.
Find the odd one out.
The earthworm receptors are
a. Photoreceptors
b. Vision receptors
c. Taste receptors
d. Gustatory receptors
Answer:
b. Vision receptors

Question 14.
Which of the following is true with an excretory system of earthworm.
a. Nephridia
b. Nephron minute tubules
c. Nephridia – minute coiled tubules
d. Nephron – coiled tubule
Answer:
c. Nephridia – minute coiled tubules

Question 15.
Apart from nephridia, there is specialised cell present in the intestinal walls.
a. Chlorogogen
b. Chloricgen
c. Chlorajan
d. Chlorojin
Answer:
a. Chlorogogen

Question 16.
What is the other name for the seminal funnel?
a. Ciliary
b. Ciliary rosettes
c. Ciliary flagella
d. Ciliary antennae
Answer:
b. Ciliary rosettes

Question 17.
How many days are taken by the earthworm to complete its life cycle?
a. 70 days
b. 65 days
c. 69 days
d. 60 days
Answer:
d. 60 days

Question 18.
What is the fluid manure of earthworm consist of?
a. Vermicomposting
b. Vermiculture
c. Vermiwash
d. Earthworm manure
Answer:
c. Vermiwash

Question 19.
Find out the unrelated one
a. Vermi compose
b. Vermin
c. Vermiculture
d. Vermi wash
Answer:
b. Vermin

Question 20.
Match and find out correct
I. Coxa – a. Thick
II. Trochanter – b. Long
III. Femur – c. Small
IV. Tibia – d. Large
a. I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
b. I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
c. I-a, II-c , III-d ,IV-b
d. I – b, II – a, III – c, IV – d
Answer:
b. I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a

Question 21.
Find out the wrong pair of cockroaches.
a. Tarsus – Podomeres
b. Genital opening Sclerites – Parametabolus
c. Sclerites of the dorsal side – Tergites
d. Sclerites of the ventral side – Sternites
Answer:
b. Genital opening Sclerites – Parametabolus

Question 22.
Find out the wrong pair of cockroaches.
a. Spiracles – Stigmata
b. Ostia – Colourless coelomic fluid
c. Ostia – Digestive system cockroach
d. Supra oesophageal ganglion – Brain
Answer:
c. Ostia – Digestive system cockroach

Question 23.
Which is the ancient organism of insect?
a. Cockroach
b. Cricket
c. Grasshopper
d. Scorpion
Answer:
a. Cockroach

Question 24.
Cockroach belongs to …………………………………………… period about 320 million years ago.
a. Devonian
b. Carboniferous
c. Missisipian
d. Pensylvanian.
Answer:
b. Carboniferous

Question 25.
One of the fastest moving land insect is the cockroach. What is it’s speed?
a. 6.4 km/hr
b. 5.0 km/hr
c. 5.4 km/hr
d. 6.5 km/hr
Answer:
c. 5.4 km/hr

Question 26.
Which makes the wings of insect?
a. Chitin
b. Pecten
c. Cellulose
d. Hemicellulose
Answer:
a. Chitin

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
Name the earthworms of India.
Answer:

• Lampito mauritii (Megascolex mauritii)
• Perioynx excavatus
• Metaphire posthuma (Pheretima Posthuma)

Question 2.
What are the regions of clitellum?
Answer:

• Preclitellar region (1st – 13th segments)
• Clitellar region (14th – 17th segment)
• Post – Clitellar region (after 17th segment)

Question 3.
Name the structure that helps in locomotion where is it seen?
Answer:
Locomotion is effected through setae. In all the segments of the body except the first last and clitellum there is a ring of chitinous body setae.

Question 4.
What is the composition of the coelom of earthworms?
Answer:
The coelomic fluid is milky and alkaline. It consists of granulocytes or eleocytes amoebocytes, mucocytes and leucocytes.

Question 5.
Classify earthworms based on their ecological strategies.
Answer:

• Earthworms are classified as epigeics, anecics and endogeics based on their ecological strategies.
• Epigeics are the surface dwellers e.g., Perionyx excavaus and Eudrilus eugeniae.
• Anecics are found in the upper layers of the soil e.g., Lampiro mauritii, Lumbricus terrestris.
• Endogeics are found in deeper layers of the soil e.g., Octochaetona thursoni.

Question 6.
What are the mouthparts of the cockroach?
Answer:

• Labrum (i) pair of mandibles Labrum (ii) pair of maxillae
• Labium and hypopharynx or tongue.

Question 7.
Give notes on sclerites?
Answer:
In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened plates called sclerites, which are joined together by a delicate and elastic articular membrane or arthrodial membrane.

Question 8.
When is cockroach evolved?
Answer:
The cockroaches are ancient among all groups of insects dating back to the carboniferous period about 320 million years ago.

Question 9.
Name the five segments of the leg of the cockroach?
Answer:

1. Coxa -Large
2. Trochanter-Small
3. Femur -Long and broad
4. Tibia – Long and thick
5. Tarsus -has five movable joints

Question 10.
Where are hepatic caeca seen in cockroaches?
Answer:
At the junctional region of the gizzard are eight finger-like tubular blind processes called hepatic caecae.

Question 11.
Trace the air paths of respiration.
Answer:
Spiracle trachea tracheoles Tissues.

Question 12.
Write a note on coelom of earthworm.
Answer;
A spacious body cavity called the coelom is seen between the alimentary canal and the body wall. The coelom contains the coelomic fluid and serves as a hydrostatic skeleton, in which the coelomocytes are known to play a major role in regeneration. immunity and wound healing. The coelomic fluid of the earthworm is milky and alkaline, which consists of granulocytes or cicocytes. amoebocytes, mucocytes and leucocytes.

Question 13.
What are the structures that is not present in frog?
Answer:
In frog there is no external ear neck and tail.

Question 14.
Give notes on chyme?
Answer:
Digestion of food takes place by the action of hydrochloric acid and gastric juices secreted from the walls of the stomach. This partially digested food is called as chyme.

Question 15.
What are the regions of nervous system?
Answer:
Central nervous system peripheral nervous system autonomous nervous system.

Question 16.
A cockroach produces nutritionally dense milk to feed their young ones. It may be considered as a superfood of the future. How?
Answer:

1. It contains crystalline milk.
2. It is synthesised by diploptera punctata.

Question 17.
What are the economic importance of frog?
Answer:

• Frogs feed on insects and helps in reducing insect pest population.
• Frogs are used in traditional medicine for controlling blood pressure and for antiaging properties.

Question 18.
What are the types of cockroach?
Answer:

• American cockroach
• Brown – banded cockroach
• German cockroach
• Oriental cockroach
• Viviparous cockroach

Question 19.
Name the cells that helps in excretion of cockroach?
Answer:

• Fat bodies
• Nephrocytes
• Cuticle
• Urecose glands

Question 20.
Define uricotelic organism.
Answer:
The nitrogenous wastes are eliminated through uric acid. (Eg.) Hence cockroach excretes uric acid as a waste it is said to be uricotelic.

Question 21.
What is typhiosole?
Answer:

• The dorsal wall of the intestine of earthworm is folded into the cavity as the typhiosole.
• This fold contains blood vessels and increases the absorptive area of the intestine.

Question 22.
What are the glands seen in male reproductive system ?
Answer:

• Mushroom-shaped gland
• conglobate gland.

Question 23.
What is clitellum?
Answer:
In mature worms 14 – 17 segments may be found swollen with a glandular thickening of the skin called the clitellum. This helps in the formation of cocoon.

Question 24.
Where is spermathecal openings seen in the earthworm?
Answer:
They are lying inter segmentally between the grooves of the segments 6/7,7/S and 8/9.

Question 25.
Where is genital openings seen in the earthworm?
Answer:

• The female genital aperture lies on the ventral side in the 14th segment.
• A pair of male genital apertures are situated latero-ventrally in the 18th segment.

Question 26.
Name the body muscles of earthworm.
Answer:

• Cuticle
• Epidermis
• Coelomic epithelium

Question 27.
Name the cells t at makes the epidermis?
Answer:

• Supportive cells
• Glandular cells
• Basal cells
• Sensory cells

Question 28.
What is the functions of coelomocytes of earthworm?
Answer:
Uses of coelomocytes

1. Regeneration
2. Immunity
3. Woundhealing

Question 29.
Name the cells of coelom of earthworm
Answer:

• Granulocytes or eleocytes
• Amoebocytes
• Mucocytes
• Leucocytes

Question 30.
What are lateral hearts ?
Answer:
In the anterior part of body of earthworm the dorsal vessel is connected with the ventral vessel by eight pairs of commissural vessels or lateral hearts lying in the 6th – 13th segment.

Question 31.
Give notes on nephrostome.
Answer:
The mega nephridium of earthworm has an internal funnel like opening called the nephrostome which is fully ciliated.

Question 32.
What is chloragogen cell?
Answer:
Besides nephridia special cells on the coelomic wall of the intestine called chloragogen cells are present. They excrete nitrogenous wastes in the blood.

Question 33.
Whatisprotandrous?
Answer:

• The two sex organs of earthworm mature at different times and hence self fertilisation is prevented.
• The sperm develops earlier than the production of ova. This process is known as protandrous.
  It transmits the diseases like cholera, dysentery and tuberculosis hence it is known as vectors.

Question 38.
Whatishypognathous?
Answer:
The mouth parts of cockroach are directed downwards so its is hypognathous.

Question 39.
What is compound eyes?
Answer:
The head of cockroach bears a pair of large sessile and reniform compound eyes. Each eye is formed of about 2000 simple eyes called the ommatidia and the vision caused by the ommatidia is mosaic vision.

Question 40.
Name the segments of the legs of cockroach?
Answer:
There are five segments in the legs of cockroach.

1. Coxa
2. Trochanter
3. Femur
4. Tibia
5. Tarsus

Question 41.
What is podomeres?
Answer:
The last segment of the leg tarsus has five movable joints called podomeres or tarsomeres.

Question 42.
Give notes on wings of cockroach?
Answer:
Cockroach has two pairs of wing. The first pair of wings protects the hind wings when rest is called elytra or tegmina. The second pair of wings used in flight.

Question 43.
Name the plates of the abdomen of cockroach?
Answer:
There are 10 segments in the abdomen. The sclerites of the dorsal side are called tergites.
The sclerites on the ventral side are called sternites and the sclerites on the lateral sides are called pleurites.

Question 44.
What are the sensory receptors seen in cockroach?
Answer:

• Antenna
• Compound eyes
• Labrum
• Mandibles
• Labialpalps
• Analcerci

Question 45.
Name the fat bodies of cockroach?
Answer:
Nephrocytes, Cuticle, Urecose glands.

Question 46.
What are the glands seen in the male cockroach?
Answer:

• Mushroom shaped gland
• Conglobate gland.

Question 47.
What is meant by paurometabolus?
Answer:

• In cockroach the embryonic development occurs in the ootheca for 5-13 weeks.
• The development of cockroach is gradual through nymphal stages. Hence it is called as paurometabolus.

Question 48.
What are pokilotherms?
Answer:
The organisms which change its temperature according to the temperature of the environment is known as pokilotherms.

Question 49.
What is nictitating membrane?
Answer:
The third eyelid of frog is nictitating membrane. It protects the eye.

Question 50.
What is cloaca?
Answer:
As the digestive excretory reproductive system opens commonly through a aperture this is called as cloaca.

Question 51.
What is spiracle?
Answer:
In cockroach the trachea open through 10 pairs of small holes called spiracles.

Question 52.
What is meant by chordotonal receptor?
Answer:
Chordotonal receptor is found on the anal cerci which are receptive to vibrations in air and land.

Question 53.
How can a earthwom senses its burrow?
Answer:
In the prostomium of earthworm there are thermal and chemical receptors with the help of this they can find it’s habitat.

Question 54.
Compare the respiration of human with the respiration of cockroach?
Answer:
In the respiratory system of cockroach there are spiracles and trachea. Each spiracles can open and close. During inspiration spiracles open. This oxygen enters into the haemocoel through spiracles and exchange of gases taking place.

Question 55.
List the very special features of cockroach.
Answer:

• Cockroach can survive being submerged under water upto 45 minutes.
• They hold their breath often to help regulate loss of water.

Question 56.
Cockroach can live without ahead? How?
Answer:
A cockroach can live for a week without its head. There is no connection between head and respiration. There is no nostrils and lungs.
The abdomen has 10 pairs of spiracles. These spiracles are communicated with the tracheoles and haemolymph and exchange of gases taking place.

Question 57.
Why is mosaic vision with less resolution in cockroaches ?
Answer:
The unit of compound eye is ommatidium. There are hundreds of ommatidia. Each ommatidium forms a image. Each image formed in all the ommatidia forms a vision. This image is a mosaic vision.

Question 58.
List the charcteristic features of order Aneura?
Answer:
Frogs and Toads have elongated hindlimbs. This helps in jumping, Frogs can live in water and on trees. Parental care is seen in few species.

Question 59.
Differentiate the compound eyes from simple eye.
Answer:

Compound eye	Simple eye
1. Formed of hundreds of small units	Single eye
2. Each ommatidium contains lens cornea retina and optic nerve	Only one lens cornea retina and optic nerve
3. Each ommatidium forms a separate image and forms a unclear mosaic vision	A single image informed. The image is clear

Question 60.
Why three chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as the four chambered heart of birds and mammals?
Answer:

• The heart of birds and mammals have four chambers. The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is carried by separate blood vessels and transports to body parts and the purifying organ.
• The frog has three chambered heart. The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mixeshere. This mixed blood is reaching all the parts.

Question 61.
What is meant by cloaca a Common digestive and excretary opening ?
Answer:

• In the elasmobranhs amphibians, reptiles egg laying mammals the faeces and urine pass through this opening.
• This passage is also a genital passage for the deposition of sperm. This is called cloacal aperature.

Question 62.
Give notes on setae of earthworm?
Answer:

• Earthworm have setae which are small hair like bristles. They are not composed of the same material as human hair.
• They will be helpful in feeding mating and locomotion.

Question 63.
Give notes on intestinal caeca of earthworm?
Answer:
In 26th segment of metaphire posthuma a pair of cone shaped bulging is seen. It is known as intestinal caecum. This secretes amylolytic enzymes. This helps in starch digestion.

( 3 marks)

III. Short Questions

Question 1.
Based on their ecological strategies classify the earthworms?
Answer:

Ecological strata	Earthworm type
1. Epigeics – up on the earth	Perionyx excavatus
2. Anecics – out of the earth	Lampito mauritii
3. Endogeics – with in the earth	Octohaetona thurstoni

Question 2.
Where is longest earthworm seen?
Answer:

• Micro chaetus rappi is an African giant earthworm can reach a length of 6.7 meter (22 feet)
• Drawida nilamburansis is a species of earthworm in Kerala reaches a maximum length upto 1 meter (3 feet).

Question 3.
What is the significance of coelomic fluid of earthworm?
Answer:

• In the coelomic fluid coelomocytes are present.
• It helps in regeneration.
• It helps in immunity and healing of wounds.

Question 4.
What are the sensory receptors seen in the earthworm?
Answer:

• Photo receptors – Found on the dorsal surface of the body.
• Gustatory – Sense of taste are found in the buccal cavity.
• Tactile receptors Sense of touch
• Chemo receptors Seen in the prostomium and the bodywall.
• Thermo receptors

Question 5.
Draw the diagram of nephridia of earthworm and name the parts.
Answer:

Question 6.
What are the other name for sclerites ?
Answer:
On the basis of their location they gets their name.

• Dorsal sclerites – Tergites
• Ventral sclerites – Stemites
• Lateral sclerites – Plurites

Question 7.
The cockroach can survive with out the head. Whether the statement is correct or wrong if it is so give reason?
Answer:
This statement is correct.
Reason:

• A cockroach can live for a week without its head.
• Due to their open circulatory system they breath through little holes on each of their body segment hence they are not dependent on the mouth or head to breath.

Question 8.
What are the parts of the nervous system ?
Answer:
Supraoesophagial nerve ganglion or brain sub- oesophagial ganglion – circum oesophageal connectives double ventral nerve cord.

Question 9.
What are the significance of nervous system.
Answer:

• Brain or supra oesophageal ganglion or brain.
• It acts as a sensory and an endocrine centre.
• Sub – oesophageal ganglion
• It acts as a motor centre controls the movements of the mouthparts legs and wings.

Question 10.
Give notes on ommatidia?
Answer:

• The photo receptors of the cockroach consists of a pair of compound eyes at the dorsal surface of the head.
• Each eye is formed of about 2000 simple eyes called ommatidia.

Question 11.
Give notes on ‘Mosaic vision’?
Answer:

• The cockroach perceives the vision through each ommatidia. This vision is mosaic vision.
• Though there is sensitivity but the vision is not a clear one.

Question 12.
Why is sexual dimorphism exhibited clearly during breeding season in frog?
Answer:

• During breeding the sexual dimorphism is seen clearly.
• The male frog has a pair of vocal sac and a ; nuptial pad on the ventral side of the first digit i of each fore limb.
• Vocal sacs assist in amplifying the croaking sound of frog.

Question 13.
How will you classify the earthworm based on their living in relation to ecological strata?
Answer:

1. Epigeics – Surface living (Eg.) Eudrilus eugeniae
2. Anecics-Found in upper layers of the soil. (Eg.) Lampito mauritii.
3. Endogeics – Found in deeper layers of the soil. (Eg.) Octochaetona thurstoni.

Question 14.
Give an account of respiratory system of earthworm?
Answer:

• Earthworm has no special respiratory organ like lungs or gills.
• Respiration takes place through the body wall.
• The outer surface of the skin is richly supplied with blood capillaries which helps in the diffusion of gases.
• Oxygen diffuses through the skin into the blood.
• Carbondi-oxide from the blood diffuses out.
• The skin is kept moist by mucous and coelomic j fluid and facilitates exchange of gases.

Question 15.
Give an account of nervous system of earthworm?
Answer:

• The brain composed of bilobed mass of supra- pharyngeal ganglia. On the third segment j supra-pharyngeal nerve ganglion and on the 4th segment sub-pharyngeal nerve ganglion is seen.
• The brain and the sub-pharyngeal ganglia are connected by a pair of cirum-pharyngeal connectives.
• The double ventral nerve cord runs backward from the sub-pharyngeal ganglion.

Question 16.
What is the excretory organ of earthworm? What are its type?
Answer:
The nephridia is the excretory organ of earthworm
They are three types.

1. Pharyngeal or tufted nephridia seen in 5-9 segments
2. Micro nephridia or Integumentary nephridia seen 14 – 19th -segment.
3. Mega nephridia or septal nephridia seen from 19th – last segment.

Question 17.
Give notes on vermiwash.
Answer:

• Vermi wash is a liquid manure or plant tonic obtained from earthworm.
• It is used as a foliar spray and helps to induce plant growth.
• It is a collection of excretory products, mucus secretion micro nutrients from the soil organic molecules.

Question 18.
What is wormery or wormbin?
Answer:
Earth worm can be used for recycling of waste food leaf litter and biomass to prepare a good fertilizer in container is known as wormery or wormbin. It makes superior compost.

Question 19.
Give the systematic classification of earthworm?
Answer:

• Phylum – Annelida
• Class – Oligocheata
• Order – Haplotaxida
• Genus – Lampito
• Species – Mauriitii

Question 20.
In which part of the cockroach’s body the sensory receptors are seen?
Answer:

Receptors	Organs
1. Thigmo receptor	Antenna, maxillary paips and anal cerci
2. Olfactory	Antennae
3. Gustatory	Maxillary paips labium
4. Thermo receptors	Tarsal segments on the legs.
5. Chordotonal which responds to air or earth borne vibrations	Anal cerci

Question 21.
Give the systematic classification of frog?
Answer:

• Phylum – Chordata
• Class – Amphibia
• Order – Aneura
• Genus – Rana
• Species – Hexatacdyla

Question 22.
Give the systematic classification of cockroach?
Answer:

• Phylum – Arthropoda
• Class – Insecta
• Order – Orthroptera
• Genus – Periplanata
• Species – Americana

Question 23.
Give an account of exo skeleton of cockroach?
Answer:

• The entire body is covered by a hard chitinous exoskeleton.
• In each segment exoskeleton has hardened plates called sclerites which are joined together by a delicate and elastic articular membrane.
• The sclerites of the dorsal side are called tergites. Ventral side are called sternites lateral side are called pleurites.

Question 24.
Give an account of mouth parts of cockroach?
Answer:

• The appendages form the mouth parts which are of biting and chewing type.
• These are mandibulate or orthopterus.

Mouth parts

1. Labrum – Upperlip
2. A pair of mandibles
3. Pair of maxillae.
4. Labium-Lower lip
5. Tongue – Hypopharynx.

Question 25.
Name the digestive glands of cockroach.
Answer:

• Salivary glands.
• Hepatic caeca or entericcaeca

Question 26.
Draw the male frog with vocal sac and nuptial pad and marks the parts.
Answer:

Question 27.
Give an account of buccal cavity of frog.
Answer:

• The wide mouth opens into the buccal cavity.
• On the floor of the buccal cavity lies a large muscular sticky tongue.
• The tongue is attached in front and free behind.
• The free edge of the tongue is forked.
• A row of small and maxillary teeth is found on the inner region of the upper jaw.
• Vomerine teeth are present one on each side of the internal nosteils.

Question 28.
Give an account of blood of frog ?
Answer:
60% of frog’s blood is plasma and 40% is red blood cells. The blood cells composed of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.
White blood cells

1. Neutrophil
2. Basophil
3. Eosinophils
4. Lymphocytes
5. Monocytes

 ( 5 marks)

IV. Essay Questions

Question 1.
Describe the external features of the earthworm?
Answer:

• Earthworm has along and cylindrical body.
• It is 80-210 mm in length. It is light brown in colour.
• The body is encircled by a large number of grooves which divides it into a number of compartments called segments ormetameres.
• The mouth is found in the centre of the first segment of the body called the peristomium.
• Overhanging the mouth is a small flab called prostomium.

• The 14 – 17th segments become swollen called clitellum.
• There are pair of female genital opening in the 14th segment and pair of male genital opening in the 18th segment.
• In the segments 6/7, 7/8, 8/9 lies the spermatheca.
• In all the segments of the body except the first last and clitellum there is ring of chitinous body setae. They all involved in locomotion.
• The last segments bear anus.

Question 2.
Give an account of digestive system of earthworm?
Answer:
1. The alimentary canal runs as a straight tube throughout the length of the body from the mouth to anus.
2. The mouth opens into the buccal cavity which occupies the 1st and 2nd segments.
3.  The thick muscular pharynx lies in the 3rd and 4th segment and is surrounded by the pharyngeal glands.
4. A small narrow oesophagus lies in the 5th segment and 6th segment contains muscular gizzardes. Which helps in grinding the soil and decaying leaves.
5. The intestine starts from the 7th segment and ’ continues upto the last segment.
6. The dorsal wall of the intestine is folded into the vascular cavity called typhlosole.

Question 3.
Describe the structure of circulatory system of earthworm?
Answer:

• In earthworm closed type of blood vascular system is seen which contains blood vessels, capillaries and lateral hearts.
• Two median longitudinal vessels run above and below the alimentary canal as dorsal and ventral vessels of the earthworm.
• There are paired valves in the dorsal vessels which prevent the backward flow of the blood.
• From 6 to 13 segments with the 8 pairs of commissural vessels which connects the dorsal and the ventral vessel called lateral hearts.
• The blood is pumped from the dorsal vessel to the ventral vessel.

The blood glands present in the anterior segments of the earthworm produce blood cells and haemoglobin and gives red colour to the blood.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of reproductive system of earthworm ?
Answer:

Earth worm is a hermaphrodite organism the male and female reproductive organs are found in the same individual.

Male reproductive system:

• Two pairs of testes are present in the 10th and 11th segments. The testes give rise to the germ cellor spermatogonia.
• Two pairs of seminal funnels called ciliary rosettes are situated in the same segments as the testes. Three pairs of spermathecalies in the 7,8,9 segments.
• The vas deferens arise from the ciliary rosettes run upto the 18th segment and open exterior through the male genital aperture which contains two pairs of penial setae.
• A pair of prostate glands lie in the 18th and 19th segments.
• The secretion of prostate cement the spermatozoa into a bundles of spermatophores.

Female reproductive system:

• A pair of ovaries lying in the 13th segment. Ovarian funnels are present beneath the ovaries continue as a oviduct and opens in the 14th segment as a female genital opening. There are three pairs of spermathecae lie in the 7th, 8th and 9th segment.
• They receive spermatozoa during copulation.
• The two earthworm mate juxta position opposite gonadal openings and exchanging sperms mature egg cells in the nutritive fluid are deposited in the cocoons produced by the glands cells of the citellum which also collects the partner’s sperm from the spermathecae.
• Fertilization and developments occurs in the cocoon.
• After 3 weeks baby earthworm are released.

Question 5.
Give an account of locomotion of earthworm?
Answer:

• The earthworm normally crawls with the help of their body muscles setae and buccal chamber. The outer circular and inner longitudinal muscle layers lies below the epidermis of the body wall.
• The contraction of circular muscles make the body long and narrow while the longitudinal muscles make the body short and broad and hence due to the contraction of longitudinal muscle the earthworm moves.
• The alternate waves of extensions and contractions are aided by the leverage afforded by the buccal chamber and setae.

Question 6.
Describe the morphological features of cockroach?
Answer:

• Cockroach is a bilaterally symmetrical segmented animal which is divisible into head thorax and abdomen.
• The entire body is covered with chitinous exo-skeleton.
• Each segment consists of sclerites. The head is small and triangular and the mouth parts are directed downwards hence known as hypognathous. The head bears a pair of compound eye. Each compound eye is composed of unit of ommatidia.
• The mouth parts are of mandibulatetype. It consists of labrum pair of mandibles a pair of maxillae labium and tongue.
• The thorax consists of prothorax mesothorax and metathorax. Each thoracic segment bears a pair of walking legs.
• Due to the presence of 3 pairs of leg they are called as hexapoda. Each leg consists of five segments they are coxa, trochanter femur tibia and tarsus.
• It has two pairs of wings. It is called as tegmina or elytra. The wings arise from the mesothorax protects the hind wings when at rest. The second pair of wings arise from metathoraxa and used inflight.

Question 7.
Draw the diagram of mouth parts of cockroach ?
Answer:

Question 8.
Describe the structure of digestive system of cockroach with a diagram ?
Answer:

The alimentary canal is divided into three regions namely foregut midgut and hindgut.

Foregut:

• It includes pre-oral cavity mouth pharynx oesophagus and the posterior region contains crop.
• The food is stored in the crop. The crop is followed by gizzard which have chitinous teeth helps in the grinding of the food particles.

Midgut:

• At the junctional region of the gizzard are eight finger like tubular blind processes called the hepatic caecae or enteric caecae.
• At the junction of midgut and hind gut lies 100 – 150 yellow coloured malphigian tubules. It excretes the nitrogenous wastes from the haemolymph.

Hindgut:

• The hind gut is broader than the midgut.
• It consists of ileum colon andrectum. The rectum opens out through anus.
  Digestive glands
  Salivary glands
  Hepatic caeca

Question 9.
Describe the structure of circulatory system of cockroach ?
Answer:

Cockroach has an open type of circulatory system.
The coelom is filled with haemolymph. Heart is an elongated tube with muscular wall lying mid dorsally beneath the thorax.
The heart consists of 13 chambers with ostia on either side.
The blood from the sinuses enter the heart through the ostia and is pumped anteriorilly to sinuses again. In each segment there is triangular muscle called alary muscles are seen. It is responsible for blood circulation.
There is a pulsatile vesicle lies at the base of each antenna also pumps blood.

Question 10.
Give an account of excretory system of cockroach?
Answer:

• The malphighian tubules are the main excretory organs of cockroach which help in eliminating the nitrogenous wastes from the body in the form of uric acid. Excretion is uricotelic.
• In addition fat body, nephrocytes cuticle and urecose glands are also excretory in function. The malpighian tubules are attached at the junction of midgut and hindgut. There are about 100-150 in number present in 6 – 9 bundles.
• Each tubule is lined by glandular and ciliated cells and the waste is excreted out through the hindgut.
• The glandular cells of malpighian tubules absorb water salts and nitrogenous wastes. The cells of the tubules reabsorb water and inorganic salts.
• By the contraction of the tubules nitrogenous waste is pushed in to the ileum. The remaining waste with solid uric acid is exceeded along with the faecal matter.

Question 11.
Describe the structure of reproductive system of male cockroach?
Answer:

• The male reproductive system consists of a pair of testes vasa deferentia an ejaculatory duct utricular gland phallic gland and the external genitalia.
• A pair of 3 lobed testes lies on the 4th and 6th abdominal segments. The vas deferens opens into the male gonopore which lies ventral to anus.
• The mushroom shaped gland is a large reproductive gland which opens into the anterior part of the ejaculatory duet.
• The sperms are stored in the seminal vesicles as bundles of spermatophores. Surrounding the male genital opening are few chitinous structures called phallomeres or gonopophyses which help in copulation.

Question 12.
Describe the structure of female reproductive system of cockroach?
Answer:

• The female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries vagina genital pouch collaterial glands speromthecae and the external genitalia.
• A pair of ovaries lie in the segmetn of 2nd and 6th abdominal segment. Each ovary is formed of eight ovarian tubules. Oviducts of each ovary unite into a common oviduct known as vagina which opens into the genital chamber.
• A pair of spermathecae is present in the 6th segment and opens in to the genital pouch.
• During copulation the ova descend to the genital chamber and fertilised by the sperm. The collateral gland secreta a hard case called ootheeca around the egg.
• The ootheca is dropped to a crack or crevice of high relative humidity near a food source. The nymphs are released from this ootheca and they grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form.

Question 13.
Describe the morphological features of frog?
Answer:

The body of frog is streamlined to help in swimming. Body is divided into head and trunk.

Head:

• The head is triangular and has an apex which forms the snout.
• The mouth is at the anterior end on the head contains pair of external nostrils, pair of eyes with unmovable upper eyelid movable lower eye lid which protects the eye.
• The nictitating membrane protects the eye when the frog is underwater.
• A pair of ear drum lies behind the eyes. There is no external ear neck and tail.

Trunk:

• It bears a pair of fore limbs and a pair of hind limbs. The hind limbs are longer than the forelimbs. At the posterior end between the hind limbs is the cloacal aperture.
• Fore limbs help to bear the weight of the body. It consists of upper arm fore arm and a hand. The hind limbs consist of thigh shank and foot.
• Foot bears five long webbed toes and one small spot called the sixth toe cloacal aperture.
• Fore limbs help to bear the weight of the body. It consists of upper arm fore arm anda hand.
• The hind limbs consist of thigh shank and foot. Foot bears five long webbed toes and one small spot called the sixth toe.

Question 14.
Describe about the digestive system of frog?
Answer:
The digestive system extends from mouth to the cloaca.
Digestive tract organs:

• The alimentary canal consists of the buccal cavity pharynx oesophagus duodenum ileum and the rectum which opens outside by the cloacal aperture.
• The mouth opens into the buccal cavity.

Tongue:

• On the floor of the buccal cavity lies a large muscular sticky tongue. The tongue is attached in front and free behind.
• The free edge of tongue is forked.

Teeth:

• A row of small and pointed maxillary teeth is found on the inner region of the upper jaw. Vomerine teeth are also present as two groups. One on each side of the internal nostrils.
• The lower jaw is devoid of teeth. The mouth opens into the buccal cavity and then to esophagus through pharynx. Oesophagus opens into stomach
• Stomach opens in to intestine then to rectum and finally to the cloaca. Liver, Pancresa are the structures of digestive system.

Question 15.
Describe the structure of the heart of frog ?
Answer:

• The heart consists of three chamber. Two auricle and one ventricle. Heart is covered by pericardium. On the dorsal side of the heart is a triangular chamber called sinus venosus.
• Truncus arteriosus is a thick walled structure which is obliquely placed on the ventral surface of the heart.
• It divides into right and left aortic trunk. Each divides into carotid systemic and pulmocutaneous arteries.
• The systemic trunk of each side is joined posteriorly to form the dorsal aorta. They supply blood to the posterior part of the body. The pulmo-cutaneous trunk supplies blood to lungs and skin.
• The sinus venosus receives the deoxygenated blood from the pre and post venacava and delivers the blood to the right auricle.
• The left auricle receives oxygenated blood through pulmonary vein.

Question 16.
Describe the structure of the respiratory system of frog?
Answer:

• Frog respires on land and in the water by two different methods. In water the dissolved oxygen in the water gets exchanged through the skin by diffusion.
• On land the buccal cavity skin and lungs act as the respiratory organ.

Buccal respiration:

• Mouth remains permanently closed while the nostrils remain open. The floor of the buccal cavity is raised and lowered so air drawn into and expelled out of the buccal cavity repeatedly through the open nostrils.
• A pair of elongated pink coloured sac like lungs are present in the upper part of the trunk.
• Air enters through the nostrils into the buccal cavity and then to the lungs.

Question 17.
Describe the structure of the nervous system
Answer:

• The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system, peripheral nervous system and the autonomous nervous system.
• Peripheral nervous system consists of 10 pairs of cranial nerves and 10 pairs of spinal nerves. The autonomous nervous system is divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
• CNS consists of brain and spinal cord. Brain is covered with pia mater and dura mater. The brain is divided into forebrain mid brain and hind brain
• Fore brain Consists of a pair of olfactory lobes and cerebral hemisphere and diencephalon. The olfactory lobes contain a small cavity called olfactory ventricle.
• The midbrain includes two large optic lobes and has cavities called optic ventricles.
• Hind brain consists of cerebellum and medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata passes out through the foramen magnum and continues as spinal cord.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram of buccal cavity of frog and name the parts?
Answer:

Question 19.
Describe the locomotion of earthworm?
Answer:

• The earthworm normally crawl with the help of their body muscles setae and buccal chamber.
• The outer circular and inner longitudinal muscle layers lies below the epidermis of the body wall.
• The contraction of circular muscles make the body long and narrow while the longitudinal muscle make the body short and broad and hence due to the contraction of longitudinal muscle the earthworm moves.
• The alternate waves of extensions and contractions are aided by the leverage afforded by the buccal chamber and setae.

Question 20.
Tabulate the morphological differences between lampito mauritii and metaphire posthuma.
Answer:

Characters	Lampito mauritii	Metaphire posthuma
1. Shape and size	Cylindrical 80 mm – 210 mm in length 3.5mm – 5.0 mm in width	Cylindrical 115 – 130 mm in length 5 mm in width
2. Colouration	Light Brown	Dark Brown
3. Segmentation	165-190 Segments	About 140 Segments
4. Clitellum	14th – 17th Segments (4)	14th – 16th Segments (3)
5. Intestinal caeca	Absent	Present in 26th segment
6. Male genital pore	18th segment	18th segment
7. Female genital pore	14th segment	14th segment

Question 21.
Tabulate anatomical differences between lampitomaritii and metaphire posthuma
Answer:

Characters	Lampito mauritii	Metaphire posthuma
1. Sperma thecal opening	Three pairs 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9	Four pairs 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9
2. Pharynx	3rd – 4th segment	Runs up to 4th Segment
3. Oesophagus	5th segment	8th segment
4. Gizzard	6th segment	8th – 9th segment
5. Intestine	7th segment to anus	15th segment to anus
6. Lateral hearts	8 pairs from 6th  to 13th segments	3 pairs from 7th to 9th segments
7. Pharyngeal  nephridia	5th _ 9th segment	4th – 6th segment
8. Micronephridia	14th to last segment	7th to last segment
9. Meganephridia	19th to last segment	15th to last segment

Question 22.
Differentiate the male cockroach from female cockroach.
Answer:

Characters	Male cockroach	Female cockroach
1. Abdomen	Long and narrow	Short and broad
2. Segments	In the abdomen, nine segments are visible	In the abdomen, seven segments are visible
3. Anal styles	Present	Absent
4. Terga	7th ter gum covers 8 th tergum	7th ter gum covers 8 th and 9th terga
5. Brood pouch	Absent	Present
6. Antenna	Longer in length	Shorter in length
7. Wings	Extends beyond the tip of abdomen	Extends up to the end of abdomen

23. Draw the life cycle of lampito mauritii.
Answer:

Question 24.
Differentiate the frog from toad.
Answer:

Characters	Frog	Toad
1. Family	Ranidae	Buforudae
2. Body shape	Slender	More Bulky
3. Legs	Longer	Shorter
4. Webbed feet	present	Absent
5. Skin	Smooth and moist skin	Dry skin covered with wart like glands
6. Teeth	Maxillary and vomerine teeth.	Teeth absent
7. Egg formation	Lays eggs in clusters	Lays eggs in strings

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Tissue Level of Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Guide Chapter 3 Tissue Level of Organisation

11th Bio Zoology Guide Tissue Level of Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose The Best Options.

Question 1.
The main function of the cuboidal epithelium is
a. Protection
b. Secretion
c. Absorption
d. Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
d. Both (b) and (c)

Question 2.
The ciliated epithelium lines the
a. Skin
b. Digestive tract
c. Gall bladder
d. Trachea
Answer:
d. Trachea

Question 3.
What type of fibres are found in connective tissue matrix?
a. Collagen
b. Areolar
c. Cartilage
d. Tubular
Answer:
a. Collagen

Question 4.
Prevention of substances from leaking across the tissue is provided by
a. Tight junction
b. Adhering junction
c. Gap junction
d. Elastic junction
Answer:
a. Tight junction

Question 5.
Non-shivering thermogenesis in neonates produces heat through
a. White fat
b. Brown fat
c. Yellow fat
d. Colourless fat
Answer:
b. Brown fat

Question 6.
Some epithelia are pseudostratified. What does this mean?
Answer:
Pseudostratified epithelial cells are columnar but unequal in size. Although the epithelium is single-layered yet it appears to be multilayered due to the fact that nuclei lie at different levels in different cells.

Question 7.
Differentiate white adipose tissue from brown adipose tissue
Answer:

White adipose tissue	Brown adipose tissue
1. They have less number of Mitochondria.	They have more numbers of mitochondria.
2. They store nutrients	It is used to heat the bloodstream to warm the body.

Question 8.
Why blood is considered as a typical connective tissue?
Answer:
Blood is considered a typical connective tissue because it is the fluid connective tissue containing plasma, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets. It functions as the transport medium for the cardiovascular system carrying nutrients, nitrogenous wastes, and respiratory gases throughout the body.

Question 9.
Differentiate between elastic fibres and elastic connective tissue.
Answer:

Elastic Fibres	Elastic connective tissue
1. It is found in the skin as the leathery dermis and forms fibrous capsules of organs such as kidneys bones and cartilages.	This is present in tendons that attach skeletal muscles to bones and ligaments.
2. It allows recoil of tissues following stretching.	It attaches one bone to another.
3. It maintains the pulsative flow of blood through the arteries and the passive recoil of lungs following inspiration.	It is able to with stand tension exerted in many directions and provides structural strength.

Question 10.
Name any four important functions of epithelial tissue and provide at least one example of a tissue that exemplifies each function.
Answer:

Functions	Tissues
1. Protection	Squamous epithelium. In heart lungs and blood vessels as a protective covering.
2. Absorption	Columnar epithelium. (It lines the digestive track)
3. Secretion	Cuboidal and columnar epithelium. Salivary gland endocrine glands.
4. Filteration	Squamous epithelium glomerulus.

Question 11.
Write the classification of connective tissue and their functions.
Answer:

Question 12.
What is an epithelium? Enumerate the characteristic features of different epithelia. Epithelial tissue is a sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity.
Answer:

Types of epithelium	Characters
1. Squamous epithelium	Made up of single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
2. Cuboidal epithelium	Made up of single layer of cube-like cells.
3. Columnar epithelium	Made up of a single layer of tall cells with round to oval nuclei at the base.
4. Ciliated epithelium	It bears cilia on their free surfaces.
5. Nonciliated epithelium	There is no cilia on the free surfaces of columnar epithelium
6. Pseudostratified epithelium	Columnar but unequal in size
7. Compound epithelium	Made up of more than one layer of cells.

Part II

11th Bio Zoology Guide Tissue Level of Organisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Options

Question 1.
What are the types of epithelium
a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified epithelium
Answer:
a. Simple squamous epithelium

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not the functions of the epithelium.
a. Protection
b. Absorption
c. Reproduction
d. Excretion
Answer:
c. Reproduction

Question 3.
Find out the epithelium with irregular boundaries
a. Ciliated epithelium
b. Squamous epithelium
c. Columnar epithelium
d. Pseudostratified epithelium
Answer:
b. Squamous epithelium

Question 4.
Name the epithelium which helps in protection, absorption and secretion.
a. Pseudostratified epithelium
b. Compound epithelium
c. Cuboidal epithelium
d. Columnar epithelium
Answer:
a. Pseudostratified epithelium

Question 5.
Name the tissue which have numerous mitochondria ?
a. Brown adipose tissue
b. White adipose tissue
c. Dense connective tissue
d. Loose connective tissue
Answer:
a. Brown adipose tissue

Question 6.
Match and find the correct answers
I. Ciliated epithelium – a. Outer skin
II. Ciliated epithelium – b. Heart
III. Squamous epithelium – c. Gall bladder
IV. Compound epithelium – d. Ureter
a. I – c, II – b, III – d, IV – a
b. I – b, II – c, III – d, IV – a
c. I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
d. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
Answer:
d. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair.
a. Exocrine glands – Saliva
b. Endocrine glands – Hormones
c. Ants – Adipocytes
d. Blood – Fluid connective tissue
Answer:
c. Ants – Adipocytes

Question 8.
Name the tissues present in osteocytes
a. Connective tissue
b. Bone tissue
c. Blood
d. Adipose
Answer:
b. Bone tissue

Question 9.
What are myofibrils?
a. Minute fibrils of muscle fibres
b. Fibers of epithelial tissues
c. The end of nerve tissue
d. In cardiac muscles
Answer:
a. Minute fibrils of muscle fibres

Question 10.
Match and find the correct answer
I. Simple squamous epithelium – a. Respiratory tract
11. Simple Cuboidal epithelium – b. Intestine
III. Simple columnar epithelium – c. Kidney
IV. Ciliated epithelium – d. Alveoli
a. I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
b. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
c. I – c, II – d, III – a, IV – b
d. I – a, II – c, III – b, IV – d
Answer:
b. I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a

(2 marks)

II. Very Short Questions

Question 1.
Define tissues.
Answer:
Group of cells that are similar in structure and perform common or related functions are called tissues.

Question 2.
Define organ system?
Answer:
If two or more organs perform common physical and chemical functions they are called “organ systems”.

Question 3.
What are the four types of tissues?
Answer:
Simple epithelium:

• It consists of a simple layer.
• It helps in protection, absorption, filtration, excretion, secretion, and sensory reception.

Compound epithelium:

• It is multilayered.
• It provides protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.

Question 4.
What is epithelial tissue? What are its types?
Answer:
It is a sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity.
Types:

1. Simple epithelium
2. Compound epithelium

Question 5.
What are the functions of epithelial tissues?
Answer:

• Outer covering
• Protection
• Absorption
• Excretion
• Secretion

Question 6.
What is unicellular glandular epithelium?
Answer:
It consists of isolated glandular cells.
(Eg.) Goblet cells of the alimentary canal.

Question 7.
Based on the secretion how are exocrine glands classify?
Answer:

1. Merocrine
2. Holocrine
3. Apocrine

Question 8.
Where are connective tissues originated from?
Answer:
Connective tissues originated from Mesoderm.
Types of connective tissue: Bones and blood, Cartilage.

Question 9.
What are the functions of connective tissue?
Answer:

• Binding
• Support
• Protection
• Insulation
• Transportation

Question 10.
What are the fibres present in the connective tissues?
Answer:

• Collagen
• Elastic
• Reticular

Question 11.
What is meant by myofibrils?
Answer:
Each muscle is made of many long cylindrical fibers arranged in parallel arrays known as myofibrils.

Question 12.
What are involuntary muscles?
Answer:
Smooth muscles are involuntary as their functions cannot be directly controlled. (Eg.) Blood vessels, Stomach intestine

Question 13.
What is the unit of nervous system and name the tissues which made the nervous system?
Answer:
The unit of nervous system is neuron. Cells:

• Excitable cells
• Neuroglial cells.

Question 14.
What is the function of compound stratified epithelium and where is it seen?
Answer:
Uses:
Protection, secretion and absorption.

Site of occurrence:
Ciliated epithelium — Respiratory tract. Nonciliated epithelium – Epididymis urethra of male.

Question 15.
What is meant by tissue fluid? What is its composition?
Answer:
The areolar connective tissue acts as a reservoir of water and salts for the surrounding body tissue. Hence it is called tissue fluid.
Composition:

• Fibroblasts
• Macrophages
• Mast cells

Question 16.
What is Ehler’s Danlos syndrome?
Answer:
Defect in the synthesis of collagen in the joints heart values organ walls and arterial walls.

Question 17.
What is stickler syndrome?
Answer:
It is a defect which affects collagen and results in facial abnormalities.

Question 18.
What is Rhabdo Myo sarcoma?
Answer:
It is a life-threatening soft tissue tumour of head neck and urinogenital tract.

Question 19.
What is Rheumatoid arthritis?
Answer:
The immune cell attack and inflame the membranes around the joints.

Question 20.
What is Sjogren’s syndrome?
Answer:
It is a disease in which progressive inability to secrete saliva and tears.

Question 21.
What is Palmaris muscle?
Answer:
It is a long narrow muscle run from the elbow to the wrist and is important for hanging and climbing in primates.

Question 22.
What is Parkinson’s disease?
Answer:
It is a degenerative disorder of the nervous system that affects movement often including tremors.

Question 23.
What is Alzheimer’s disease?
Answer:
It is a chronic neurodegenerative disease which includes the symptoms of difficulty in remembering recent events.

Question 24.
What is Biopsy?
Answer:
It is an examination of tissue or liquid removed from a living body to discover presence cause or extent of a disease.

Question 25.
What is an autopsy?
Answer:
It is a dissection of a dead body (Post – mortem) examination to discover the cause of death or the extent of disease.

Question 26.
What is Forensic science?
Answer:
It is the field of science that effectively uses histological techniques to trace out crimes.

Question 27.
The multicellular epithelium helps protect and prevent friction. What is special about the unicellular epithelium
Answer:
The unicellular epithelium is made up of a single layer of cells. These are seen in the organs which do the functions of absorption secretion and filtration.

Question 28.
What is acinus?
Answer:
It is the unit of secretion.

Question 29.
What are adipocytes?
Answer:
This is composed of big adipose tissue in the centre and the cytoplasm is seen as a thin covering layer.

Question 30.
What is the substrate of bone tissue?
Answer:
The mineral hydroxyapatite is a substrate of bone tissue.

(3 marks)

III. Short Questions 

Question 1.
Explain the types of simple epithelium.
Answer:
Simple epithelium is a simple layered sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity.
Types:
1. Squamous epithelium:
It is made of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. It is found in glomeruli, air sacs of lungs, the lining of heart, blood vessels.

2. Cuboidal epithelium:
It is made of cube-like cells. It is found in kidney tubules, ducts, and glands. It is important for secretion and absorption.

3. Columnar epithelium:
It is made of column-like cells. It lines the digestive tract. It is important for secretion and absorption.

4. Ciliated epithelium:
It has cilia at the free end. It is found in bronchi, uterine tubes. It is helpful in propelling materials.

5. Glandular epithelium:
Cuboidal or columnar epithelium specialized for secretion is called the glandular epithelium. E.g., goblet cells and salivary gland.

Question 2.
Compare dense regular connective tissue with dense irregular connective tissues?
Answer:

Dense regular connective tissue	Dense irregular connective tissue
1.Collagen fibres are present.	Collagen fibres are present.
2. Fibroblast cells are present.	Fibroblast cells are present.
3. it connects the bone with skeletal muscles,	It is able to withstand tension exerted in many direction and provides structural strength.

Question 3.
Classify the muscles and their location?
Answer:
Muscles are of three types.

1. Skeletal muscles
2. Smooth muscles
3. Cardiac muscles.

1. Skeletal muscles:
These muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion.
Location: They are closely attached to skeletal
bones.

2. Smooth muscles:
These fibres are tapered at both ends and do not show striations.
Location: Blood vessels stomach intestine.

3. Cardiac Muscles:
In this muscles, cell junction fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac muscle cells and make them stick together.
Location: Heart.

Question 4.
Explain compound epithelium.
Answer:

• The compound epithelium is made up of multilayered cells.
• These protect organs against chemical and mechanical stresses.
• These cover the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of the buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands, and pancreatic ducts.

(5 marks)

IV. Essay Questions

Question 1.
What is glandular epithelium? Describe its types?
Answer:
Some of the epithelial cells get specialized for secretion they are called the glandular epithelium.
I. Based on cellular structure
They are classified as Unicellular (Eg.) Goblet cells of the alimentary canal. Multicellular (Eg.) Salivary gland

II. Based on mode of pouring
Exocrine glands – The products are released through ducts. (Eg.) Mucus secreting glands, Saliva secreting glands.
Endocrine glands – They do not have ducts. Their secretions directly secreted into the fluid bathing the glands.
(Eg.) Pituitary gland.

a) Exocrine glands based on cellular nature

•  Unicellular
• Multicellular

b) Exocrine based on the structure

•  Simple
• Compound glands

c) Based on their secretary units

• tubular
• alveolar
• tubulo alveolar

d) Based on their mode of secretion

• Merocrine
• Holocrine
• Apocrine.

Question 2.
What is meant by compound gland? What are its uses and its types?
Answer:
It is made up of more than one layer of cells.

Uses:
It helps in providing protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.

Location:
Buccal cavity, Pharynx salivary glands, Pancreatic ducts

Types:

• Stratified squamous epithelium. It is present in the dry epidermis of the skin,
• Keratinized type-Mouth and vagina.
• Non – Keratinized type
• Stratified cuboidal epithelium – Sweat glands, Mammary gland
• Columnar epithelium-Pharynx urethra
• Transitional epithelium – Ureters, urinary bladder.

Question 3.
Explain the types of muscle.
Answer:
Each muscle is made of long, cylindrical fibres. They are composed of fine fibrils called myofibrils. Muscle fibres contract and relax. Skeletal muscle is attached to skeletal bones. It is striped or striated. It is a voluntary muscle. The smooth muscle fibres are fusiform and do not have striations. It is an involuntary muscle. Cardiac muscle tissue is present in the heart. It is striated and branched and involuntary.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 9 Solutions Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Solutions

11th Chemistry Guide Solutions Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textbook Evaluation:

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The molality of a solution containing 1.8 g of glucose dissolved in 250 g of water is
a) 0.2 M
b) 0.01 M
c) 0.02 M
d) 0.04 M
Answer:
d) 0.04 M

Question 2.
Which of the following concentration terms is / are independent of temperature
a) molality
b) molarity
c) mole fraction
d) a and b
Answer:
d) a and b

Question 3.
Stomach acid, a dilute solution of HCl can be neutralized by reaction with aluminium hydroxide Al(OH)₃ + 3HCl (aq) -> AlCl₃ + 3H₂O. How many milliliters of 0.1 M Al(OH)₃ solution is needed to neutralize 21 ml of 0.1 M HCl?
a) 14 mL
b) 7 mL
c) 21 mL
d) none of these
Answer:
b) 7 mL

Question 4.
The partial pressure of nitrogen in air is 0.76 atm and its Henry’s law constant is 7.6 × 10⁴ atm at 300 K. What is the mole fraction of nitrogen gas in the solution obtained when air is bubbled through water at 300 K ?
a) 1 × 10^-4
b) 1 × 10⁴
c) 2 × 10^-5
d) 1 × 10^-5
Answer:
d) 1 × 10^-5

Question 5.
The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of Nitrogen gas in water at 350 K is 8 × 10⁴ atm. The mole fraction of nitrogen in air is 0.5. The number of moles of Nitrogen from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 350 K and 4 atm pressure is
a) 4 × 10^-4
b) 4 × 10⁴
c) 2 × 10^-2
d) 2.5 × 10^-4
Answer:
d) 2.5 × 10^-4

Question 6.
Which one of the following is incorrect for an ideal solution?
a) ∆H_mix = 0
b) ∆U_mix =0
c) ∆P = P_observed – P_{calculated by Raoults law} = 0
d) ∆G_mix = 0
Answer:
d) ∆G_mix = 0

Question 7.
Which one of the following gases has the lowest value of Henry’s law constant?
a) N₂
b) He
c) CO₂
d) H₂
Answer:
c) CO₂

Question 8.
P₁ and P₂ are the vapour pressures of pure liquid components, 1 and 2 respectively of an ideal binary solution If x₁ represents the mole fraction of component 1, the total pressure of the solution formed by 1 and 2 will be
a) P₁ + x₁ (P₂ – P₁)
b) P₂ – x₁ (P₂ + P₁)
c) P₁ – x₂(P₁ – P₂)
d) P₁ + x₂(P₁ – P₂)
Answer:
c) P₁ – x₂(P₁ – P₂)

Question 9.
Osomotic pressure (π) of a solution is given by the relation
a) π = nRT
b) πV = nRT
c) πRT = n
d) none of these
Answer:
b) πV = nRT

Question 10.
Which one of the following binary liquid mixtures exhibits positive deviation from Raoults law?
a) acetone + chloroform
b) water + nitric acid
c) HCl + water
d) ethanol + water
Answer:
d) ethanol + water

Question 11.
The Henry’s law constants for two gases A and B are x and y respectively. The ratio of mole fractions of A to B 0.2. The ratio of mole fraction of B and A dissolved in water will be
a) \(\frac{2 x}{y}\)

b) \(\frac{y}{0.2 x}\)

c) \(\frac{0.2 x}{y}\)

d) \(\frac{5 x}{y}\)
Answer:
d) \(\frac{5 x}{y}\)

Question 12.
At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution containing 6.5g a solute in 100g water is 732 mm. If K_b = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be
a) 102°C
b) 100°C
c) 101°C
d) 100.52°C
Answer:
c) 101°C

Question 13.
According to Raoults law, the relative lowering of vapour pressure for a solution is equal to
a) mole fraction of solvent
b) mole fraction of solute
c) number of moles of solute
d) number of moles of solvent
Answer:
b) mole fraction of solute

Question 14.
At same temperature, which pair of the following solutions are isotonic?
a) 0.2 M BaCl₂ and 0.2 M urea
b) 0.1 M glucose and 0.2 M urea
c) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M K₂SO₄
d) 0.1 M Ba(NO₃)₂ and 0.1 M Na₂SO₄
Answer:
d) 0.1 M Ba(NO₃)₂ and 0.1 M Na₂SO₄

Question 15.
The empirical formula of a non – electrolyte (X) is CH₂O. A solution containing six grams of X exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.025 M glucose solution at the same temperature. The molecular formula of X is
a) C₂H₄O₂
b) C₈H₁₆O₈
c) C₄H₈O₄
d) CH₂O
Answer:
b) C₈H₁₆O₈

Question 16.
The K_H for the solution of oxygen dissolved in water is 4 × 10⁴ atm at a given temperature. If the partial pressure of oxygen in air is 0.4 atm, the mole fraction of oxygen in solution is
a) 4.6 × 10³
b) 1.6 × 10⁴
c) 1 × 10^-5
d) 1 × 10⁵
Answer:
c) 1 × 10^-5

Question 17.
Normality of 1.25 M sulphuric acid is
a) 1.25 N
b) 3.75 N
c) 2.5 N
d) 2.25 N
Answer:
c) 2.5 N

Question 18.
Two liquids X and Y on mixing gives a warm solution. The solution is
a) ideal
b) non-ideal and shows positive deviation from Raoults law
c) ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law
d) non-ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law
Answer:
d) non-ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law

Question 19.
The relative lowering of vapour pressure of a sugar solution in water is 2.5 × 10^-3. The mole fraction of water in that solution is
a) 0.0035
b) 0.35
c) 0.0035/18
d) 0.9965
Answer:
d) 0.9965

Question 20.
The mass of a non – volatile solute (molar mass 80 g mol^-1) which should be dissolved in 92g of toluene to reduce its vapour pressure to 90%
a) 10 g
b) 20 g
c) 9.2 g
d) 8 g
Answer:
d) 8 g

Question 21.
For a solution, the plot of osmotic pressure (π) versus the concentration (c in mol L^-1) gives a straight line with slope 310 R where ‘R’ is the gas constant. The temperature at which osmotic pressure measured is
a) 310 × 0.082 K
b) 310° C
c) 37°C
d) \(\frac{310}{0.082}\) K
Answer:
c) 37°C

Question 22.
200 ml of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.26 g of protein. At 300 K, the osmotic pressure of this solution is found to be 2.52 × 10^-3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar mol^-1 K^-1}
a) 62.22 kg mol^-1
b) 12444 g mol^-1
c) 300 g mol^-1
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 62.22 kg mol^-1

Question 23.
The Van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer:
d) 3

Question 24.
Which is the molality of a 10% w/w aqueous sodium hydroxide solution?
a) 2.778
b) 2.5
c) 10
d) 0.4
Answer:
b) 2.5

Question 25.
The correct equation for the degree of an associating solute, ‘n’ molecules of which undergoes association in solution, is
a) α = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{i}-1)}{\mathrm{n}-1}\)

b) α² = \(\frac{n(1-i)}{(n-1)}\)

c) α = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{i}-1)}{1-\mathrm{n}}\)

d) α = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(1-\mathrm{i})}{\mathrm{n}(1-\mathrm{i})}\)
Answer:
c) α = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{i}-1)}{1-\mathrm{n}}\)

Question 26.
Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point?
a) 0.1 M KNO₃
b) 0.1 M Na₃PO₄
c) 0.1 M BaCl₂
d) 0.1 M K₂SO₄
Answer:
b) 0.1 M Na₃PO₄

Question 27.
The freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86° K Kg mol^-1. If 5 g Na₂SO₄ is dissolved in 45 g water, the depression in freezing point is 3.64°C. The Vant Hoff factor for Na₂SO₄ is
a) 2.57
b) 2.63
c) 3.64
d) 5.50
Answer:
a) 2.57

Question 28.
Equimolal aqueous solutions of NaCl and KCl are prepared,. If the freezing point of NaCl is -2°C, the freezing point of KCl solution is expected to be
a) -2°C
b) -4°C
c) -1°C
d) 0°C
Answer:
a) -2°C

Question 29.
Phenol dimerises in benzene having van’t Hoff factor 0.54. What is the degree of association?
a) 0.46
b) 92
c) 46
d) 0.92
Answer:
d) 0.92

Question 30.
Assertion:
An ideal solution obeys Raoults Law.
Reason:
In an ideal solution, solvent – solvent as well as solute – solute interactions are similar to solute-solvent interactions.
a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) assertion is true but reason is false
d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

II. Write brief answer to the following questions:

Question 31.
Define:
(i) Molality
(ii) Normality
Answer:
(i)Molality :
Molality (m) is defined as the number of moles of the solute dissolved in one kilogram (Kg) of the solvent. The units of molality are moles per kilogram, i.e., mole kg^-1. The molality is preferred over molarity if volume of the solution is either expanding or contracting with temperature.
molality (m) = \(\frac{\text { Number of mole of solute }}{\text { mess of solvent in } \mathrm{kg}}\)

ii) Normality:
Normality (N) of a solution is defined as the number of gram equivalents of the solute present in one liter of the solution. Normality is used in acid-based redox titrations.
Normality (N) = \(\frac{\text { Number of gram equivalents of solute }}{\text { Volume of solution in litre }}\)

Question 32.
a) What is a vapour pressure of liquid?
Answer:
“The pressure exerted by the vapors above the liquid surface which is in equilibrium with the liquid at a given temperature is called vapor pressure”.

b) What is a relative lowering of vapour pressure?
Answer:
The relative lowering of vapour pressure is defined as the ratio of lowering of vapour pressure to the vapour pressure
of pure solvent (P₀) RLVP = \(\frac{p^{0}-P}{P^{0}}\)

Question 33.
State and explain Henry’s law.
Answer:
“The partial pressure of the gas in vapor phase (vapour pressure of the solute) is directly proportional to the mole fraction (x) of the gaseous solute in the solution at low concentrations”. This statement is known as Henry’s law.
Henry’s law can be expressed as,
P_solute α x_{solute in solution}
P_solute = K_H x_{solute solution}
Here, P_solute represents the partial pressure of the gas in vapour state which is commonly called as vapour pressure. X_solute in solution represents the mole fraction of solute in the solution. K_H is a empirical constant with the dimensions of pressure.

Question 34.
State Raoult law and obtain expression for lowering of vapour pressure when nonvolatile solute is dissolved In solvent.
Answer:
In an ideal solution, the vapour pressure of the solution is decreased when a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a solvent. The magnitude of decrease in the vapour pressure of the solution depends on the amount of solute added.
Let us consider the solution with the following features.
Mole fraction of the solvent = x_A
Mole fraction of the solute = x_B
Vapour pressure of the pure solvent = P°_A
Vapour pressure of solution = P
As the solute is nonvolatile, the vapour pressure of the solution is only due to the solvent. Therefore, the vapour pressure of the solution (P) will be equal to the vapour pressure of the solvent (P_A) over the solution.
i.e., P = P_A
According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure of solvent over the solution is equal to the product or its vapour pressure in a pure state and its mole fraction.
P_A = P°_A x_A or
P = P°_A x_A

Question 35.
What is molal depression constant? Does it depend on nature of the solute?
Answer:
If m = 1 then ∆T_f = K_f
“Then K_f is equal to the depression in freezing point for 1 molal solution”. No, it does not depends on nature of the solute.

Question 36.
What is osmosis?
Answer:
“The phenomenon of the flow of solvent through a semipermeable membrane from pure solvent to the solution is called osmosis”. Osmosis can also be defined as “the excess pressure which must be applied to a solution to prevent the passage of solvent into it through the semipermeable membrane”. Osmotic pressure is the pressure applied to the solution to prevent osmosis.

Question 37.
Define the term ‘isotonic solution’.
Answer:
Two solutions having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic solutions.

Question 38.
You are provided with a solid. ‘A’ and three solutions of A dissolved in water – one saturated, one unsaturated, and one supersaturated. How would you determine which solution is which?
Answer:
(A) Unsaturated solution:
It can dissolve salt an additional to it.
(B) Saturated solution:
Further solubility of salt does not takes place but solubility can takes place on heating.
(c) Supersaturated solution:
Solubility of salt do not takes place on even an further heating.

Question 39.
Explain the effect of pressure on the solubility.
Answer:
Generally, the change in pressure does not have any significant effect in the solubility of solids and liquids as they are not compressible. However, the solubility of gases generally increases with increase of pressure.

Consider a saturated solution of a gaseous solute dissolved in a liquid solvent in a closed container. In such a system, the following equilibrium exists.
Gas                      ⇌     Gas
(in gaseous state) (in solution)

According to Le-Chatelier principle, the increase in pressure will shift the equilibrium in the direction which will reduce the pressure. Therefore, more number of gaseous molecules dissolves in the solvent and the solubility increases.

Question 40.
A sample of 12 M Concentrated hydrochloric acid has a density 1.2 M gL^-1 calculate the molality.
Solution:
Given:
Molarity = 12 M HCl
density of solution = 1.2 g L^-1
In 12 M HCl solution, there are 12 moles of HCl in 1 litre of the solution.
Molality = \(\frac{\text { no of moles of solute }}{\text { mass of solvent (in } \mathrm{kg} \text { ) }}\)
Calculate mass of water(solvent)
mass of 1 litre HCl solution = density × volume
= 1.2 × gmL^-1 × 1000 mL = 1200 g
mass of HCl = no. of moles of HCl × molar mass of HCl
= 12 mol × 36.5 g mol^-1
= 438 g.
mass of water = mass of HCl solution – mass of HCl
mass of water = 1200 – 438 = 762 g
molality(m) = \(\frac{12}{0.762}\) = 15.75 m

Question 41.
A 0.25 M glucose solution, at 370.28 K has approximately the pressure as blood does what is the osmotic pressure of blood?
Solution:
C = 0.25 M
T = 370.28 K
(π)_glucose = CRT
(π) = 0.25 mol L^-1 × 0.082L atm K^-1mol^-1 × 370.28K
= 7.59 atm

Question 42.
Calculate the molality of a solution containing 7.5 g glycine(NH₂-CH₂-COOH) dissolved in 500g of water.
Solution:

Question 43.
Which solution has the lower freezing point? 10 g of methanol (CH₃OH) in 100g g of water (or) 20 g of ethanol (C₂H₅OH) in 200 g of water.
Solution:
∆T_f = K_f i.e
∆T_f α m
m_CH3-OH = \(\frac{\left(\frac{10}{32}\right)}{0.1}\)
= 3.125 m

m_C2H5-OH = \(\frac{\left(\frac{20}{46}\right)}{0.2}\)
= 2.174 m

∴ Depression in freezing point is more in methanol solution and it will have lower freezing point.

Question 44.
How many moles of solute particles are present in one liter of 10^-4 M potassium sulphate?
Answer:
In 10^-4 M K₂SO₄ solution, there are 10^-4 moles of potassium sulphate.
K₂SO₄ molecule contains 3 ions (2K+ and 1 SO₄^2-)
1 mole of K₂SO₄ molecule contains 3 × 6.023 × 10²³ ions
10^-4 mole of K₂SO₄ contains 3 × 6.023 × 10²³ × 10^-4 ions
= 18. 069 × 10¹⁹

Question 45.
Henry’s law constant for solubility of methane in benzene is 4.2 × 10^-5 mm Hg at a particular constant temperature. At this temperature calculate the solubility of methane at
i) 750 mm Hg
ii) 840 mm Hg.
Solution:
(K_H)_benzene = 4.2 × 10^-5 mm
Solubility of methane =?
P = 750 mm Hg P = 840 mm Hg
According to Henrys Law,
P = K_H X_{in solution}
750 mm Hg = 4.2 × 10^-5 mm Hg. X_{in solution}
⇒ X_{in solution} = \(\frac{750}{4.2 \times 10^{-5}}\)

i. e solubility = 178. 5 × 10⁵
similarly at P = 840 mm Hg
solubility = \(\frac{840}{4.2 \times 10^{-5}}\) = 200 × 10^-5

Question 46.
The observed depression in freezing point of water for a particular solution is 0.093°C calculate the concentration of the solution in molality. Given that molal depression constant for water is 1.86 K Kg mol^-1.
Solution:
∆T_f = 0.093°C = 0.093 K, m = ?
K_f = 1.86 K Kg mol^-1
∆T_f = K_f.m
∴ m = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{f}}}{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{f}}}=\frac{0.093 \mathrm{~K}}{1.86 \mathrm{~K} \mathrm{Kg} \mathrm{mol}^{-1}}\)
= 0.05 mol Kg^-1 = 0.05 m

Question 47.
The vapour pressure of pure benzene (C₆H₆) at a given temperature is 640 mm Hg. 2.2 g of non – volatile solute is added to 40 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the solution is 600 mm Hg. Calculate the molar mass of the solute?
Solution:
P°C₆H₆ = 640 mm Hg
W₂ = 2.2 g (non volatile solute)
W₁ = 40 g (benzene)
P_solution = 600 mm Hg
M₂ =?

11th Chemistry Guide Solutions Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
6.02 × 10²⁰ molecules of urea ate present in 200 ml of its solution, The concentration of urea solution is (N₀ = 6.02 × 10²³ mol^-1)
a) 0.001 M
b) 0.01M
c) 0.02 M
d) 0.10 M
Answer:
c) 0.02 M

Question 2.
Calculate the molarity and normality of a solution containing 0.5 g of NaOH dissolved in 500 ml solution
a) 0.0025 M, 0.025 N
b) 0.025 M, 0.025 N
c) 0.25 M, 0.25 N
d) 0.025M, 0.0025 N
Answer:
b) 0.025 M, 0.025 N

Question 3.
5 ml of N HCl, 20 ml of N/2 H₂SO₄ and 30 ml of N/3 HNO₃ are mixed together and volume made to one liter. The normality of the resulting solution is
a) \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{40}\)

b) \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{10}\)

c) \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{20}\)

d) \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{5}\)
Answer:
a) \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{40}\)

Question 4.
At 25°C, the density of 15 M H₂SO₄ is 1.8 g cm^-3. Thus, mass percentage of H₂SO₄ in aqueous solution is
a) 2%
b) 81.6%
c) 18%
d) 1.8%
Answer:
b) 81.6%

Question 5.
Mole fraction of C₃H₅(OH)₃ in a solution of 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is :
a) 0.46
b) 0.36
c) 0.20
d) 0.40
Answer:
c) 0.20

Question 6.
The molality of a urea solution in which 0.0100 g of urea, [(NH₂)₂CO] is added to 0.3000 dm³ of water at STP is
a) 0.555 m
b) 5.55 × 10^-4
c) 33.3 m
d) 3.33 × 10^-2 m
Answer:
b) 5.55 × 10^-4

Question 7.
15 grams of methyl alcohol is dissolved in 35 grams of water. What is the mass percentage of methyl alcohol in solution?
a) 30%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 75%
Answer:
a) 30%

Question 8.
A 3.5 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol (CH₃OH) is supplied. What is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol in the solution?
a) 0.100
b) 0.059
c) 0.086
d) 0.050
Answer:
b) 0.059

Question 9.
In which mode of expression of concentration of a solution remains independent of temperature?
a) Molarity
b) Normality
c) Formality
d) Molality
Answer:
d) Molality

Question 10.
Calculate the molarity of pure water (d = 1 g/L)
a) 555 M
b) 5.55 M
c) 55. 5 M
d) None
Answer:
c) 55. 5 M

Question 11.
Calculate the quantity of sodium carbonate (anhydrous) required to prepare 250 ml solution
a) 2.65 grams
b) 4.95 grams
c) 6.25 grams
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 2.65 grams

Question 12.
Find the molality of H₂SO₄ solution whose specific gravity is 1.98 g ml^-1 and 95 % by volume H₂SO₄
a) 7.412
b) 8.412
c) 9.412
d) 10.412
Answer:
c) 9.412

Question 13.
Calculate molality of 1 liter solution of 93 % H₂SO₄ by volume. The density of solution is 1.84 g ml^-1
a) 9.42
b) 10.42
c) 11.42
d) 12.42
Answer:
b) 10.42

Question 14.
Calculate the molality and mole fraction of the solute in aqueous solution containing 3.0 g of urea per 250 gm of water (Mol.wt. of urea = 60).
a) 0.2 m, 0.00357
b) 0.4 m, 0.00357
c) 0.5 m, 0.00357
d) 0.7 m, 0.00357
Answer:
a) 0.2 m, 0.00357

Question 15.
Calculate normality of the mixture obtained by mixing 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl and 50 ml of 0.25 N NaOH solution.
a) 0.0467 N
b) 0.0367 N
c) 0.0267 N
d) 0.0167 N
Answer:
d) 0.0167 N

Question 16.
300 ml 0.1 M HCl and 200 ml of 0.03 M H₂SO₄ are mixed. Calculate the normality of the resulting mixture
a) 0.084 N
b) 0.84 N
c) 2.04 N
d) 2.84 N
Answer:
a) 0.084 N

Question 17.
What weight of oxalic acid (H₂C₂O₄.2H₂O) is required to prepare, 1000mL of N/10 solution?
a) 9.0 g
b) 12.6 g
c) 6.3 g
d) 4.5 g
Answer:
c) 6.3 g

Question 18.
Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
a) Mole fraction
b) Parts per million
c) Mass percentage
d) Molality
Answer:
a) Mole fraction

Question 19.
The pressure under which liquid and vapour can co-exist at equilibrium is called the
a) Limiting vapour pressure
b) Real vapour pressure
c) Normal vapour pressure
d) Saturated vapour pressure
Answer:
b) Real vapour pressure

Question 20.
CO(g) is dissolved in H₂O at 30°C and 0.020 atm. Henry’s law constant for this system is 6.20 × 10⁴ atm. Thus, mole fraction of CO(g) is
a) 1.72 × 10^-7
b) 3.22 × 10^-7
c) 0.99
d) 0.01
Answer:
b) 3.22 × 10^-7

Question 21.
H₂S gas is used in qualitative analysis of inorganic cations. Its solubility in water at STP is 0.195 mol kg^-1. Thus, Henry’s law constant ( in atm raolaT1) for H₂S is
a) 2.628 × 10^-4
b) 5.128
c) 0.185
d) 3.826 × 10³
Answer:
b) 5.128

Question 22.
Which of the following is correct for a solution showing positive deviations from Raoult’s law?
a) ∆V = +ve, ∆H = + ve
b) ∆V = -ve, ∆H = – ve
c) ∆V = + ve, ∆H = -ve
d) ∆V = – ve, ∆H = +ve
Answer:
a) ∆V = +ve, ∆H = + ve

Question 23.
If liquids A and B form an ideal solution
a) The entropy of mixing is zero
b) The Gibbs free energy is zero
c) The Gibbs free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each zero
d) The enthalpy of mixing is zero
Answer:
d) The enthalpy of mixing is zero

Question 24.
Water and ethanol form non – ideal solution with positive deviation from Raoult’s law. This solution, will have vapour pressure
a) equal to vapour pressure of pure water
b) less than vapour pressure of pure water
c) more than vapour pressure of pure water
d) less than vapour pressure of pure ethanol
Answer:
c) more than vapour pressure of pure water

Question 25.
Which of the following is less than zero for ideal solutions?
a) ∆H_mix
b) ∆V
c) ∆G_mix
d) ∆S_mix
Answer:
c) ∆G_mix

Question 26.
Which of the following shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
a) CHCl₃ and CH₃COCH₃
b) CHCl₃ and C₂H₅OH
c) C₆H₅CH₃ and C₆H₆
d) C₆H₆ and CCl₄
Answer:
a) CHCl₃ and CH₃COCH₃

Question 27.
Given at 350 K, P°_A = 300 torr and P°_B = 800 torr, the composition of the mixture having a normal boiling point of 350 K is :
a) X_A = 0.08
b) X_A = 0.06
c) X_A = 0.04
d) X_A = 0.02
Answer:
a) X_A = 0.08

Question 28.
In mixture A and B, components show – ve deviation as :
a) ∆V_mix is + ve
b) A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and B – B interaction
c) ∆H_mix is + ve
d) A – B interaction is stronger than A – A and B – B interaction
Answer:
d) A – B interaction is stronger than A – A and B – B interaction

Question 29.
If liquid A and B form ideal solution, then:
a) ∆V_mix is = 0
b) ∆V_mix = 0
c) ∆G_mix =0, ∆S_mix = 0
d) ∆S_mix = 0
Answer:
b) ∆V_mix = 0

Question 30.
Which liquid pair shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law ?
a) Acetone – chloroform
b) Benzene – methanol
c) Water – nitric acid
d) Water – hydrochloric acid
Answer:
b) Benzene – methanol

Question 31.
For A and B to form an ideal solution which of the following conditions should be satisfied ?
a) ∆H_mixing =0
b) ∆V_mixing =0
c) ∆S_mixing =0
d) All three conditions mentioned above
Answer:
d) All three conditions mentioned above

Question 32.
Two liquids are mixed together to form a mixture which boils at same temperature, and their boiling point is higher than the boiling point of either of them so they shows.
a) no deviation from Raoult’s law
b) positive, deviation from Raoult’s law
c) negative-deviation from Raoult’s law
d) positive or negative deviation from Raoult’s law depending upon the composition
Answer:
c) negative-deviation from Raoult’s law

Question 33.
Molal elevation constant of liquid is:
a) the elevation in b.p. which would be produced by dissolving one mole of solute in 1oo g of solvent
b) the elevation of b.p. which would be produced by dissolving 1 mole solute in 10 g of solvent
c) elevation in b.p. which would be produced by dissolving 1 mole of solute in 1000g of solvent
d) none of the above
Answer:
c) elevation in b.p. which would be produced by dissolving 1 mole of solute in 1000g of solvent

Question 34.
The vapour pressure of pure liquid solvent is 0.50 atm. When a non – volatile solute B is added to the solvent, its vapour pressure drops to 0.30 atm. Thus, mole fraction of the component B is
a) 0.6
b) 0.25
c) 0.45
d) 0.75
Answer:
a) 0.6

Question 35.
The mass of a non – volatile solute (molecular mass = 40) which should be dissolved in 114 g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80 % will be
a) 20 g
b) 30 g
c) 10 g
d) 40 g
Answer:
c) 10 g

Question 36.
The vapour pressure of pure liquid solvent A is 0.80 atm. When a non – volatile substance B is added to the solvent, its vapour pressure drops to 0.60 atm. Mole fraction of the component B in the solution is:
a) 0.50
b) 0.25
c) 0.75
d) 0.40
Answer:
b) 0.25

Question 37.
18 g of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) is added to 178.2 g of water. The vapour pressure of water for this aqueous solution at 100°C is :
a) 752.40 torr
b) 759.00 torr
c) 7.60 torr
d) 76.00 torr
Answer:
a) 752.40 torr

Question 38.
Calculate the vapour pressure of a solution at 100°C containing 3 g of cane sugar in 33 g of water, (at wt. C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)
a) 760 mm
b) 756.90 mm
c) 758.30 mm
d) None of these
Answer:
b) 756.90 mm

Question 39.
Lowering of vapour pressure due to a solute in 1 molal aqueous solution at 100°C is
a) 13.44 mm Hg
b) 14.12 mm Hg
c) 31.2 mm Hg
d) 35.2 mm Hg
Answer:
a) 13.44 mm Hg

Question 40.
The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mm Hg at 373 K. The mole fraction of the solute is
a) \(\frac{1}{76}\)

b) \(\frac{1}{7.6}\)

c) \(\frac{1}{38}\)

d) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
Answer:
a) \(\frac{1}{76}\)

Question 41.
When 3 g of a nonvolatile solute is dissolved in 50 g of water, the relative lowering of vapour pressure observed is 0.018 Nm^-2. Molecular weight of the substance is
a) 60
b) 30
c) 40
d) 120
Answer:
a) 60

Question 42.
Elevation in boiling point of a molar (1M) glucose solution (d = 1.2 gmL^-1) is
a) 1.34 K_b
b) 0.98 K_b
c) 2.40 K_b
d) K_b
Answer:
b) 0.98 K_b

Question 43.
Given, H₂O (l) ⇌ H₂O (g) at 373 K, ∆H° = 8.31 kcal mol^-1. Thus, boiling point of 0.1 molal sucrose solution is
a) 373. 52 K
b) 373.052 K
c) 373.06 K
d) 374.52 K
Answer:
c) 373.06 K

Question 44.
A solution of 0.450 g of urea (mol. Wt. 60) in 22.5 g of water showed 0.170°C of elevation in boiling point. Calculate the molal elevation constant of water.
a) 0.17°C
b) 0.45°C
c) 0.51°C
d) 0.30°C
Answer:
c) 0.51°C

Question 45.
At higher altitudes, water boils at temperature < 100°C because
a) temperature of higher altitudes is low
b) atmospheric pressure is low
c) the proportion of heavy water increases
d) atmospheric pressure becomes more
Answer:
b) atmospheric pressure is low

Question 46.
Which aqueous solution exhibits highest boiling point?
a) 0.015 M glucose
b) 0.01 M KNO₃
c) 0.015 M urea
d) 0.01 M Na₂SO₄
Answer:
d) 0.01 M Na₂SO₄

Question 47.
A solution of urea in water has boiling point of 100.15°C. Calculate the freezing point of the same solution if K_f and K_b for water are 1.87 K kg mol^-1 and 0.52 K kg mol^-1 respectively
a) – 0.54°C
b) – 0.44°C
c) – 0.64°C
d) – 0.34°C
Answer:
a) – 0.54°C

Question 48.
Which will have largest ∆T_b?
a) 180 g glucose in 1 kg water
b) 342 g sucrose in 1,000 g water
c) 18 g glucose in 100 g water
d) 65 g urea in 1kg water
Answer:
d) 65 g urea in 1kg water

Question 49.
An aqueous solution of glucose boils at 100.01°C. The molal elevation constant for water is 0.5 K mol^-1 kg. The number of molecules of glucose in the solution containing 100 g of water is
a) 6.023 × 10²³
b) 12.046 × 10²²
c) 12.046 × 10²⁰
d) 12.046 × 10²³
Answer:
c) 12.046 × 10²⁰

Question 50.
The latent heat of vaporization of water is 9700 cal/mole and if the b.p. is 100°C, ebullioscopic constant of water is
a) 0.513°C
b) 1.026°C
c.) 10.26°C
d) 1.832°C
Answer:
a) 0.513°C

Question 51.
If for a sucrose solution elevation in boiling point is 0.1 °C then what will be the boiling point of NaCl solution for same molal concentration
a) 0.1°
b) 0.2°C
c) 0.08°C
d) 0.01°C
Answer:
b) 0.2°C

Question 52.
The molal boiling point constant for water is 0.513°C kg mol^-1. When 0.1 mole of sugar is dissolved in 200 ml of water, the solution boils under a pressure of one atmosphere at
a) 100.513°C
b) 100.0513°C
c) 100.256°C
d) 101.025°C
Answer:
c) 100.256°C

Question 53.
The boiling point of 0.1 m K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is expected to be (K_b for water = 0.52 K kg mol’1)
a) 100.52°C
b) 100.10°C
c) 100.26°C
d) 102.6°C
Answer:
c) 100.26°C

Question 54.
The value of K_f for the water is 1.86K Kg mole^-1, calculated from glucose solution. The value of K_f for water calculated for NaCl solution will be :
a) = 1.86
b) < 1.86
c) > 1.86
d) zero
Answer:
a) = 1.86

Question 55.
The amount of urea to be dissolved in 500 cc of water (K_f = 1.86) to produce a depression of 0.186°C in the freezing point is :
a) 9 g
b) 6 g
c) 3 g
d) 0.3 g
Answer:
c) 3 g

Question 56.
Freezing point of an aqueous solution is – 0.186°C. Elevation of boiling point of the same solution is if K_b = 0.512 K molality^-1 and K_f= 1.86 K molality^-1
a) 0.186°C
b) 0.0512°C
c) 0.092°C
d) 0.237°C
Answer:
b) 0.0512°C

Question 57.
What should be the freezing point of aqueous solution containing 17 g of C₂H₅OH in 1000 g of water (K_f for water = 1.86 deg kg mol^-1)?
a) – 0.69°C
b) 0.34°C
c) 0.0°C
d) – 0.34°C
Answer:
a) – 0.69°C

Question 58.
The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution will be highest for:
a) C₆H₅NH₃Cl
b) Ca(NO₃)₂
c) La(NO₃)₂
d) C₆H₁₂O₆
Answer:
d) C₆H₁₂O₆

Question 59.
Cryoscopic constant of a liquid
a) is the decrease in freezing point when 1 g of solute is dissolved per kg of the solvent
b) is the decrease in the freezing point when 1 mole of solute is dissolved per kg of the solvent
c) is the elevation for 1 molar solution
d) is a factor used for calculation of depression in freezing point
Answer:
b) is the decrease in the freezing point when 1 mole of solute is dissolved per kg of the solvent

Question 60.
Which of the following solution will have highest freezing point?
a) 2 M NaCl solution
b) 1.5 M AlCl₃ solution
c) 1 M Al₂(SO₄)₃ solution
d) 3 M Urea solution
Answer:
d) 3 M Urea solution

Question 61.
0.48 g of a substance is dissolved in 10.6 g of C₆H₆. The freezing point of benzene is lowered by 1.8°C. what will be the mol.wt. of the substance (K_f for benzene = 5)
a) 250.2
b) 90.8
c) 125.79
d) 102.5
Answer:
c) 125.79

Question 62.
Which of the following aqueous molal solution have highest freezing point?
a) Urea
b) Barium chloride
c) Potassium bromide
d) Aluminium sulphate
Answer:
a) Urea

Question 63.
What weight of NaCl is added to one liter of water so that ∆T_f/K_f = 1?
a) 5.85 g
b) 0.585 g
c) 0.0585 g
d) 0.0855 g
Answer:
c) 0.0585 g

Question 64.
A solution of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) is isotonic With 4 g of urea (NH₂ – CO – NH₂) per liter of solution. The concentration of glucose is :
a) 4 g/L
b) 8 g/L
c) 12 g/L
d) 14 g/L
Answer:
c) 12 g/L

Question 65.
A 5% solution of cane sugar (molar mass = 342) is isotonic with 1% of a solution of unknown solute. The molar mass of unknown solute in g/mol is
a) 136.2
b) 171.2
c) 68.4
d) 34.2
Answer:
c) 68.4

Question 66.
The weight of urea dissolved in 100 ml solution which produce an osmotic pressure of 20.4 atm, will be
a) 5 g
b) 4 g
c) 3 g
d) 6 g
Answer:
a) 5 g

Question 67.
In the phenomenon of osmosis, the membrane allow passage of _________.
a) Solute only
b) Solvent only
c) Both solute and solvent
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Solvent only

Question 68.
A 5.8% (wt./vol.) NaCl solution will exert an osmotic pressure closest to which one of the following:
a) 5.8% (wt./vol.) sucrose solution
b) 5.8% (wt./vol.) glucose solution
c) 2 molal sucrose solution
d) 1 molal glucose solution
Answer:
c) 2 molal sucrose solution

Question 69.
Osmotic pressure of a sugar solution at 24°C is 2.5 atmospheres. Determine the concentration of the solution in gram mole per liter.
a) 0.0821 moles/liter
b) 1.082 moles/liter
c) 0.1025 moles/liter
d) 0.0827moles/liter
Answer:
c) 0.1025 moles/liter

Question 70.
What is the freezing point of a solution that contains 10.0g of glucose C₆H₁₂O6 in 100 g of H₂O? K_f = 1.86° C/m.
a) – 0.186°C
b) + 0.186°C
c) – 0.10°C
d) – 1.03°C
Answer:
d) – 1.03°C

Question 71.
The order of osmotic pressure of equimolar solutions of BaCl2, NaCl and glucose will be:
a) BaCl₂ > NaCl > glucose
b) NaCl > BaCl₂ > glucose
c) glucose > BaCl₂ > NaCl
d) glucose > NaCl > BaCl₂
Answer:
a) BaCl₂ > NaCl > glucose

Question 72.
The wt. of urea dissolved in 100 ml solution which produce an osmotic pressure of 20.4 atm, will be
a) 5 g
b) 4 g
c) 3 g
d) 6 g
Answer:
a) 5 g

Question 73.
A compound MX₂ has observed and normal molar masses 65.6 and 164 respectively. Calculate the apparent degree of ionization of MX₂:
a) 75%
b) 85%
c) 65%
d) 25%
Answer:
a) 75%

Question 74.
The freezing point of 0.2 molal K₂SO₄ is – 1.1°C. Calculate van’t Hoff facor and percentage degree of dissociation of K₂SO₄. K_f for water is 1.86°
a) 97.5
b) 90.75
c) 105.5
d) 85.75
Answer:
a) 97.5

Question 75.
For 0.1M solution, the colligative property will follow the order
a) NaCl > Na₂SO₄ > Na₃PO₄
b) NaCl > Na₂SO₄ ≈ Na₃PO₄
c) NaCl < Na₂SO₄ < Na₃PO₄
d) NaCl < Na₂SO₄ = Na₃PO₄
Answer:
c) NaCl < Na₂SO₄ < Na₃PO₄

Question 76.
P_H of a 0.1M monobasic acid is found to be 2. Hence its osmotic pressure at a given temp. T K is
a) 0.1 RT
b) 0.11 RT
c) 1.1 RT
d) 0.01 RT
Answer:
b) 0.11 RT

Question 77.
Which has the highest boiling point?
a) 0.1 m Na₂SO₄
b) 0.1 m Al(NO₃)₃
c) 0.1 m MgCl₂
d) 0.1 m C₆H₁₂O₆ (glucose)
Answer:
b) 0.1 m Al(NO₃)₃

Question 78.
Aluminium phosphate is 100% ionized in 0.01 molal aqueous solution. Hence ∆T_b/ K_b is:
a) 0.01
b) 0.015
c) 0.0175
d) 0.02
Answer:
d) 0.02

Question 79.
1.0 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte X₃Y₂ is 25% ionized. The boiling point of the solution is (K_b for H₂O = 0.52 K kg/mol)
a) 373.5 K
b) 374.04 K
c) 377.12 K
d) 373.25 K
Answer:
b) 374.04 K

Question 80.
The freezing point of 0,05 m solutions of a non – electrolyte in water is
a) -1.86 °C
b) -0.93°C
c)-0.093°C
d) 0.93°C
Answer:
c)-0.093°C

Question 81.
For an ideal solution containing a non – volatile solute, which of the following expression is correctly represented?
a) ∆T_b = K_b × m
b) ∆T_b = K_b × M
c) ∆T_b = K_b × 2m
d) ∆T_b = K_b × 2M
Where m is the molality of the solution and K_b is molal elevation constant.
Answer:
a) ∆T_b = K_b × m

Question 82.
If 5.85 g of NaCl are dissolved in 90 g of water, the mole fraction of NaCl is
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
d) 0.0196
Answer:
d) 0.0196

Question 83.
What will be the molarity of a solution containing 5g of sodium hydroxide in 250 ml solution?
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 2.0
d) 0.1
Answer:
a) 0.5

Question 84.
If 5.85 g of NaCl (molecular weight 58.5) is dissolved in water and the solution is made up to 0.5 liter, the molarity of the solution will be
a) 0.2
b) 0.4
c) 1.0
d) 0.1
Answer:
a) 0.2

Question 85.
To prepare a solution of concentration of 0.03 g/ml of AgNO₃, what amount of AgNO₃ should be added in 60ml of solution
a) 1.8
b) 0.8
c) 0.18
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 1.8

Question 86.
How many g of dibasic acid (mol.wt. 200) should be present in 100ml of its aqueous solution to give decinormal strength?
a) 1 g
b) 2 g
c) 10 g
d) 20 g
Answer:
a) 1 g

Question 87.
The molarity of a solution of Na₂CO₃ having 10.6 g/500 ml of solution is
a) 0.2 M
b) 2 M
c) 20 M
d) 0.02 M
Answer:
a) 0.2 M

Question 88.
Molecular weight of glucose is 180, A solution of glucose which contains 18 g per liter is
a) 2 molal
b) 1 molal
c) 0.1 molal
d) 18 molal
Answer:
c) 0.1 molal

Question 89.
0.5 M of H₂SO₄ is diluted from lliter to 10 liters, normality of resulting solution is
a) 1 N
b) 0.1 N
c) 10 N
d) 11 N
Answer:
b) 0.1 N

Question 90.
An aqueous solution of glucose is 10% in strength. The volume in which 1 g mole of it is dissolved will be
a) 18 liters
b) 9 liters
c) 0.9 liters
d) 1.8 liters
Answer:
d) 1.8 liters

Question 91.
When 1.80 g glucose dissolved in 90 g of H₂O, the mole fraction of glucose is
a) 0.00399
b) 0.00199
c) 0.0199
d) 0.998
Answer:
b) 0.00199

Question 92.
A 5 molar solution of H₂SO₄ is diluted from 1 liter to 10 liters. What is the normality of the solution?
a) 0.25 N
b) 1 N
c) 2N
d) 7 N
Answer:
b) 1 N

Question 93.
Normality of 2 M sulphuric acid is
a) 2 N
b) 4 N
c) N/2
d) N/4
Answer:
b) 4 N

Question 94.
What is the molarity of H₂SO₄ solution, that has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and Contains solute 98% by weight
a) 4.18 M
b) 8.14 M
c) 18.4 M
d) 18 M
Answer:
c) 18.4 M

Question 95.
Which of the following is a colligative property?
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Boiling point
c) Vapour pressure
d) Freezing point
Answer:
a) Osmotic pressure

Question 96.
The vapour pressure of benzene at a certain temperature is 640 mm of Eg. A non – volatile and non – electrolyte solid weighing 2.175 g is added to 39.08 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the solution is 600 mm of Hg. What is the molecular weight of solid substance?
a) 49.50
b) 59.6
c) 69.5
d) 79.8
Answer:
c) 69.5

Question 97.
The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37°C. What is the concentration of an aqueous NaCl solution that could be used in the Mood stream?
a) 0.16 mol/L
b) 0.32 mol/L
c) 0.60 mol/L
d) 0.45 mol/L
Answer:
b) 0.32 mol/L

Question 98.
The osmotic pressure in atmospheres of 10% solution of cane sugar at 69°C is
a) 724
b) 824
c) 8.21
d) 7.21
Answer:
c) 8.21

Question 99.
The molal boiling point constant for water is 0.513°C kg mol^-1. When 0.1 mole of sugar is dissolved in 200 ml of water, the solution boils under a pressure of one atmosphere at
a) 100.513°C
b) 100.0513°C
c) 100.256°C
d) 101.025°C
Answer:
c) 100.256°C

Question 100.
The freezing point of a solution prepared from 1.25 g of a non – electrolyte and 20 g of water is 271.9 K. If molar depression constant is 1.8 K mole^-1 then molar mass of the solute will be
a) 105.7
b) 106.7
c) 115.3
d) 93.9
Answer:
a) 105.7

Question 101.
Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M solution of NaCl and Na₂SO₄ will be
a) same
b) osmotic pressure of NaCl solution will be more than Na₂SO₄ solution
c) osmotic pressure of Na₂SO₄ solution will be more than NaCl
d) osmotic pressure of NaSO₄ will be less than that of NaCl solution
Answer:
c) osmotic pressure of Na₂SO₄ solution will be more than NaCl

Question 102.
At 25 °C the highest osmotic pressure is exhibited by 0.1 M solution of
a) CaCl₂
b) KCl
c) Glucose
d) Urea
Answer:
a) CaCl₂

Question 103.
Azeotropic mixture of HCl and water has
a) 84% HCl
b) 22.2% HCl
c) 63 % HCl
d) 20.2 HCl
Answer:
d) 20.2 HCl

Question 104.
The boiling point of water (100°C) becomes 100.25°C, if 3 grams of a nonvolatile solute is dissolved in 200 ml of water. The molecular weight of solute is (K_b for water is 0.6 K Kg mol^-1)
a) 12.2 g mol^-1
b) 15.4 g mol
c) 17.3 g mol^-1
d) 20.4 g mol
Answer:
c) 17.3 g mol^-1

II. Very short question and answer(2 Marks):

Question 1.
Define solution.
Answer:
A solution is homogeneous mixture of two or more substances, consisting of atom, ions or molecules. The constituent of the homogeneous mixture present in a lower amount is called the solute, and the one present in larger amount is called the solvent. For example, when a small amount of NaCl dissolved in water.

Question 2.
What is saturated solution?
Answer:
A saturated solution is one that contains the maximum amount of a solute that can dissolve in a solvent at a specific temperature.
For example, the solubility of NaCl in 100 g of water at 20°C is 36 g but at other temperatures, or in other solvents, is different.

Question 3.
What is unsaturated solution?
Answer:
An unsaturated solution is the one that contains less amount of solute than its capacity to dissolve.

Question 4.
What is Supersaturated solution?
Answer:
A super saturated solution is one that contains more dissolved solute than the saturated solution. It is generally not stable and eventually the dissolved solute will separate as crystals.

Question 5.
What is mass percentage?
Answer:
The mass percentage of a component in a solution is the mass of the component present in 100 g of the solution.
Mass percentage of component = \(\frac{\text { Mass of the component in the solution } \times 100}{\text { Total mass of the solution }}\)

Question 6.
What is parts per million (ppm)?
Answer:
If the amount of solute in solution is very much less, then the concentration is expressed as parts per million (ppm).
Parts per million (ppm) = \(\frac{\text { Mass of the solute }(\mathrm{mg})}{\text { Mass of the solvent }} \times 10^{6}\)

Question 7.
What is Molarity?
Answer:
Molarity (symbol M) is defined as the number of moles of solute present in a liter of solution. The units of molarity are moles per liter (mol L^-1) or moles per cubic decimeter (mol dm^-3)
Molarity(m) = \(\frac{\text { Number of ntoles of solute }}{\text { Volume of solution in liter }}\)

Question 8.
What is Non – ideal solution?
Answer:
The solutions which do not obey Raoult’s law over the entire range of concentration, are called non – ideal solutions. For a non – ideal solution, there is a change in the volume and enthalpy upon mixing, i.e.
∆H_mixing ≠ 0 & ∆V_mixing ≠ 0.

Question 9.
State Raoult’s law.
Answer:
According to Raoult’s law, the vapor pressure of solvent over the solution is equal to the product of its vapor pressure in pure state and its mole fraction.
P_A = P°_A X_A or
P = P°_AX_A

Question 10.
Define boiling point.
Answer:
The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapour pressure becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure (1 atm).

Question 11.
Define freezing point.
Answer:
Freezing point is defined as “the temperature at which the solid and the liquid states of the substance have the same vapour pressure”.

Question 12.
What is Osmotic pressure?
Answer:
Osmotic pressure can be defined as “the pressure that must be applied to the solution to stop the influx of the solvent (to stop osmosis) through the semi permeable membrane”.

Question 13.
State Dalton’s law.
Answer:
According to Dalton’s law of partial pressure the total pressure in a closed vessel will be equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual components.

Question 14.
What is elevation of boiling point? Give it.
Answer:
The temperature difference between the solution and pure solvent is called elevation of boiling point,
∆T_b = T – T°
Unit of ∆T_b is K Kg mole^-1.

III. Short Question and answers(3 Marks):

Question 1.
What is mole fraction?
Answer:
Mole fraction, x, of solute is defined as the ratio of the number of moles of the components divided by the total number of the moles of all the component present in the solution.
Mole fraction of the solute x_solvent = \(\frac{\text { Moles of the component }}{\text { total number of moles of all the component in solution }}\)

Question 2.
What is volume percentage?
Answer:
It is defined as the volume of the component present in 100mL of the solution. If V_a is a volume of solute and V_b is volume of solvent, then
Vollume percentage of solute = \(\frac{V_{a} \times 100}{V_{a}+V_{b}}\)

Question 3.
What are the advantages of using standard solution?
Answer:

1. The error due to weighing the solute can be minimized by using concentrated stock solution that requires large quantity of solute.
2. We can prepare working standards of different concentrations by diluting the stock solution, which is more efficient since consistency is maintained.
3. Some of the concentrated solutions are more stable and are less likely to support microbial growth than working standards used in the experiments.

Question 4.
Limitations of Henry’s law.
Answer:
Henry’s law is applicable at moderate temperature and pressure only. Only the less soluble gases obeys Henry’s law. The gases reacting with the solvent do not obey Henry’s law.
Example:
Ammonia or HCl reacts with water and hence does not obey this law.
NH₃ + H₂O ⇌ NH₄⁺ + OH^–

Question 5.
What is Van’t Hoff factor?
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of the actual molar mass to the abnormal (calculated) molar mass of the solute. Here, the abnormal molar mass is the molar mass calculated using the experimentally determined colligative property.
i = \(\frac{\text { Normal (actual) molar mass }}{\text { obseved (abnormal) molar mass }}\)

Question 6.
What is ideal solution?
Answer:
An ideal solution is a solution in which each component i.e. the solute as well as the solvent obeys the Raoult’s law over the entire range of concentration.
For an ideal solution,

1. There is no change in the volume on mixing the two components (solute & solvents) (∆V_mixing =0).
2. There is no exchange of heat when the solute is dissolved in solvent (∆H_mixing =0).
3. escaping tendency of the solute and the solvent present in it should be same as in pure liquids.
   Example:
   benzene & toluene; h-hexane & n-heptane; ethyl bromide & ethyl iodide; chlorobenzene & bromobenzene.

Question 7.
What are colligative properties?
Answer:
“ The properties of the solutions which depend only on the number of solute particles but not on the nature of the solute are called colligative properties”. The following four colligative properties are very important.

1. Relative lowering of vapor pressure (∆P)
2. Elevation of boiling point (∆T_b)
3. Depression of freezing point (∆T_b)
4. Osmotic pressure (π)

Question 8.
What are the significances of Osmotic pressure?
Answer:
Unlike elevation of boiling point (for 1 molal solution the elevation in boiling point is 0.512°C for water) and the depression in freezing point (for 1 molal solution the depression in freezing point is 1.86°C for water), the magnitude of osmotic pressure is large.

The osmotic pressure can be measured at room temperature enables to determine the molecular mass of bio molecules which are unstable at higher temperatures. Even for a very dilute solution the osmotic pressure is large.

Question 9.
0.24 g of a gas dissolves in 1L of water at 1.5 atm pressure. Calculate the amount of dissolved gas when the pressure is raised to 6.0 atm at constant temperature?
Solution:
P_solute = K_H X_{solute in solution}
At pressure 1.5 atm,
P₁ = K_HX₁ …………..(1)
At pressure 6.0 atm,
p₂ = K_HX₂ …………….(2)
Dividing equation (1) by (2)
From equation = \(\frac{P_{1}}{P_{2}}=\frac{X_{1}}{X_{2}}\)

\(\frac{1.5}{6.0}=\frac{0.24}{x^{2}}\)

There fore
\(\frac{0.24 \times 6.0}{1.5}\) = 0.96 g/L

Question 10.
Why the carbonated drinks are stored in a pressurized container?
Answer:
The carbonated beverages contain carbon dioxide dissolved in them. To dissolve the carbon dioxide in these drinks, the CO₂ gas is bubbled through them under high pressure. These containers are sealed to maintain the pressure. When we open these containers at atmospheric pressure, the pressure of the CO₂ drops to the atmospheric level and hence bubbles of CO₂ rapidly escape from the solution and show effervescence. The burst of bubbles is even more noticeable, if the soda bottle in warm condition.

Question 11.
An aqueous solution of 2% non volatile solute exerts a pressure of 1.004 bar at the boiling point of the solvent. What is the molar mass of the solute when P°_A is 1.013 bar?
Solution:
\(\frac{\Delta P}{P_{A}^{0}}=\frac{W_{B} \times M_{B}}{M_{B} \times W_{A}}\)

In a 2 % solution weight of the solute is 2 g and solvent is 98g
∆P = P_solution – P°_A = 1.013 – 1.004 bar
= 0.009 bar
M_B = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}^{0} \times \mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{B}} \times \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\Delta \mathrm{P} \times \mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

M_B = 2 × 18 × 1.013/(98 × 0.009) = 41.3 g mol^-1

Question 12.
Ethylene glycol (C₂H₆O₂) can be at used as an antifreeze in the radiator of a car. Calculate the temperature when ice will begin to separate from a mixture with 20 mass percent of glycol in water used in the car radiator. K_f for water = 1.86K Kg mol^-1 and molar mass of ethylene glycol is 62 g mol^-1.
Solution:
Weight of solute (W₂) = 20 mass percent of solution means 20 g of ethylene glycol
Weight of solvent (water) W₁ = 100 – 20 = 80 g
∆T_f = K_f m
= \(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{f}} \times \mathrm{W}_{2} \times 1000}{\mathrm{M}_{2} \times \mathrm{W}_{1}}=\frac{1.86 \times 20 \times 1000}{62 \times 80}\)
= 7.5 K
The temperature at which the ice will begin to separate is the freezing of water after the addition of solute i.e 7.5 K lower than the normal freezing point of water (273 – 7.5 K) = 265.5 K

Question 13.
At 400 K 1.5 g of an unknown substance is dissolved in solvent and the solution is made to 1.5 L. Its osmotic pressure is found to be 0.3 bar. Calculated the molar mass of the unknown substance.
Solution :

Question 14.
The depression in freezing point is 0.24 K obtained by dissolving 1 g NaCl in 200g water. Calculate van’t – Hoff factor. The molar depression constant in 1.86 K Kg mol^-1
Solution :
Molar mass of solute = \(\frac{1000 \times K_{f} \times \text { mass of } N a C l}{\Delta T_{f} \times \text { mass of solvent }}\)

= \(\frac{1000 \times 1.86 \times 1}{0.24 \times 200}\)
= 38.75 g mol^-1

Theoretical molar mass of NaCl is = 58.5 g mol^-1

i = \(\frac{\text { Theoretical molar mass }}{\text { Experimental molar mass }}\)
= \(\frac{58.5}{38.75}\) = 1.50

IV. Long question and answers(5 Marks):

Question 1.
Explain the factors including the solubility of solute?
Answer:
Factors influencing the solute:
The solubility of a solute generally depends on the nature of the solute and the solvent in which it is dissolved. It also depends on the temperature and pressure of the solution.

Nature of solute and solvent:
Sodium-chloride, an ionic compound, dissolves readily iff a polar solvent such as water, but it does not dissolve in non polar-organic solvents such as benzene or toluene. Many organic compounds dissolve -readily in organic solvents and do not dissolve in water. Different gases dissolve in water to different extents: for example, ammonia is more soluble than oxygen in water.

Effect of temperature:

Solid solute in liquid solvent:
Generally, the solubility of a solid solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature. When the temperature is increased, the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the solute and the solvent increases. The increase in kinetic energy facilitates the solvent molecules to break the intermolecular attractive forces that keep the solute molecules together and hence the solubility increases.

When a solid is added to a solvent, it begins to dissolve. i.e. the solute leaves from the solid state (dissolution). After some time, some of the dissolved solute returns back to the solid state (recrystallisation). If there is excess of solid present, the rate of both these processes becomes equal at a particular stage. At this stage an equilibrium is established between the solid solute molecules and dissolved solute molecules.

Solute(solid) ⇌ Solute(dissolved)

According to Le-Chatelier principle, if the dissolution process is endothermic, the increase in temperature will shift the equilibrium towards left i.e solubility increases, for an exothermic reaction, the increase in temperature decreases the solubility. The solubilities, of ammonium nitrate, calcium Chloride, ceric sulphate nano-hydrate, and sodium chloride in water at different temperatures are given in the following graph.

Plot of solubility versus temperature for selective compounds

The following conclusions are drawn from the above graph:

1. The solubility of sodium chloride does not vary appreciably as the maximum solubility is achieved at normal temperature. In fact, there is only 10 % increase in solubility between 0° to 100 °C.
2. the dissolution process of ammonium nitrate is endothermic, the solubility increases steeply with increase in temperature.
3. In the case of ceric sulphate, the dissolution is exothermic and the solubility decreases with increase in temperature.
4. Even though the dissolution of calcium chloride is exothermic, the solubility increases moderately with increase in temperature. Here, the entropy factor also plays a significant role in deciding the position of the equilibrium.

Gaseous solute in liquid solvent:
In the case of gaseous solute in liquid solvent, the solubility decreases with increase in temperature. When a gaseous solute dissolves in a liquid solvent, its molecules interact with solvent molecules with weak intermolecular forces. When the temperature increases, the average kinetic energy of the molecules present in the solution also increases.

The increase in kinetic energy breaks the weak intermolecular forces between the gaseous solute and liquid solvent which results in the release of the dissolved gas molecules to the gaseous state. Moreover, the dissolution of most of the gases in liquid solvents is an exothermic process, and in such processes, the increase in temperature decreases the dissolution of gaseous molecules.

Question 2.
Explain vapour pressure of liquid in liquids binary solution?
Answer:
Now, let us consider a binary liquid solution formed by dissolving a liquid solute ‘A’ in a pure solvent B in a closed vessel. Both the components A and B present in the solution would evaporate and an equilibrium will be established between the liquid and vapour phases of the components A and B.

The French chemist Raoult, proposed a quantitative relationship between the partial pressures and the mole fractions of two components A & B, which is known as Raoult’s Law. This law states that “in the case of a solution of volatile liquids, the partial vapour pressure of each component (A & B) of the solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction”.
According to Raoult’s law,
P_A ∝ x_A
P_A = k x_A
when x_A = 1, k = P°_A
where p°A is the vapour pressure of pure component A’ at the same temperature. Therefore,
P_A = P°_A x_A
Similarly, for component ‘B’
P_B =P°_B x_B
x_A and x_B are the mole fraction of the components A and B respectively.

According to Dalton’s law of partial pressure the total pressure in a closed vessel will be equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual components.
Hence,
P_total = P_A + P_B
Substituting the values of P_A and P_B from equations in the above equation,
P_total = X_A P°_A + X_BP°_B
We know that X_A + X_B = 1 or X_A = 1 – X_B
Therefore,
P_total = (1 – X_B)P°_A + X_BP°_B
P_total = P°_A + X_B(P°_B – P°_A)
The above equation is of the straight¬line equation form y = mx + c. The plot of P_totalversus x_B will give a straight line with (P°_B – P_A) as slope and P°_A as the y intercept.

Let us consider the liquid solution containing toluene (solute) in benzene (solvent).

The variation of vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene with its mole fraction is given in the graph.

Solution of benzene in toluene obeying Raoult’s law

The vapour pressures of pure toluene and pure benzene are 22.3 and 74.7 mmHg, respectively. The above graph shows, the partial vapour pressure of the pure components increases linearly with the increase in the mole fraction of the respective components. The total pressure at any composition of the solute and solvent is given by the following straight line (represented as red line) equation.
P_Solution = P°_toluene + X_benzene(P_benzene – P_toluene)

Question 3.
Explain Raoult’s law for the binary solution of Non-volatile solutes in liquids?
Answer:
When a nonvolatile salute js dissolved in a pure solvent, the vapour pressure of the pure solvent will decrease. In such solutions, the vapour pressure of the -Solution will depend only on the solvent ‘molecules as the solute is nonvolatile.

For example, when sodium chloride is added to the water, the vapor pressure of the salt solution is lowered. The vapour pressure of the solution is determined by the number of molecules of the solvent present in the surface at any time and is proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent.

Rate of vapourization reduced by presence of nonvolatile solute.

P_solution ∝ X_A
Where X_A is the mole fraction of the solvent
P_solution = kX_A
When X_A = 1, k = P°_solvent
(P°_solvent is the partial pressure of pure solvent)
P_Solution = P°_Solvent
\(\frac{P_{\text {solution }}}{P_{\text {solvent}}^{a}}\) = X_A

1 – \(\frac{p_{\text {Solution }}}{p_{\text {Solvent }}^{0}}\) = 1 – X_A

\(\frac{p_{\text {Solvent }}^{o}-p_{\text {Solurion }}}{P_{\text {Solvent }}^{0}}\) = X_B
Where X_B is the fraction of the solute
(∴ x_A + x_B = 1, X_B = 1 – X_A)

The above expression gives the relative lowering of vapour pressure. Based on this expression, Raoult’s Law can also be stated as “the relative lowering of vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing the nonvolatile solute is equal to the mole fraction of the solute at a given temperature”.

Question 4.
What is ideal solution? Write special features and characters of ideal solution.
Answer:
An ideal solution is a solution in which each component i.e. the solute as well as the solvent obeys the Raoult’s law over the entire range of concentration. Practically no solution is ideal over the entire range of concentration. However, when the concentration of solute is very low, the dilute solution behaves ideally.

If the two components present in the solution (A and B) are identical in size, structure, and having almost similar intermolecular attractive forces between them (i.e. between A-A, B-B, and B-A) and then the solution tends to behave like an ideal solution.

For an ideal solution:
(i) there is no change in the volume on mixing the two components, (solute & solvents). (∆V_mixing = 0)
(ii) there is no exchange of heat when the solute is dissolved in solvent (∆H_mixing = 0).
(iii) escaping tendency of the solute arid the solvent present in it should be same as in pure liquids.
Example:
benzene & toulene; n-hexane & n-heptane; ethyl bromide & ethyl iodide; chlorobenzene & bromobenzene.

Question 5.
Explain Non – ideal solution with strong positive deviation.
Answer:
The solutions which do not Raoult’s law over the entire range, of concentration, are called non-ideal solutions. For a non-ideal solution, there is a change in the volume and enthalpy upon mixing, i.e.
∆H_mixing ≠ 0 &, ∆V_mixing ≠ 0. The deviation of the non-ideal solutions from the Raoult’s law can either be positive or negative.

Non-ideal solutions – positive deviation from Rauolt’s Law:
The nature of the deviation from the Rauolt’s law can be explained in terms ©f the intermolecular interactions between solute and solvent (B). Consider a case in which the intermolecular attractive forces between A and B are weaker than those between the molecules of A (A-A) and molecules of B (B-B).

The molecules present in such a solution have a greater tendency to escape from the solution when compared to the ideal solution formed by A and B, in which the intermolecular attractive forces (A-A, B-B, A-B) are almost similar. Consequently, the vapour pressure of such non-ideal solution increases and it is greater than the sum of the vapour pressure of A and B as predicted by the Raoult’s law. This type of deviation is called positive deviation.

Here, P_A > p°_A X_A and p_B > P°_B X_B
Hence P_total > p°_A X_A + P_B X_B

Let us understand the positive deviation by considering a solution of ethyl alcohol and water. In this solution the hydrogen bonding interaction between ethanol and water is weaker than those hydrogen bonding interactions amongst themselves (ethyl alcohol-ethyl alcohol and water-water interactions).

This results in the increased evaporation of both components from the aqueous solution of ethanol. Consequently, the vapour pressure of the solution is greater than the vapour pressure predicted by Raoults law. Here, the mixing process is endothermic i.e. ∆H_mixing > 0 and there will be slight increase in volume(∆V_mixing > 0).

Example:
Ethyl alcohol cyclohexane, Benzene & acetone, Carbon tetrachloride & chloroform, Acetone & ethyl alcohol, Ethyl alcohol & water.

Question 6.
Explain Non – ideal solution with strong negative deviation.
Answer:
Let us consider a case where the attractive forces between solute (A) and solvent t (B) are stronger – thtSSar intermolecular attractive forces between the individual components (A – A & B – B). Here, the escaping tendency of A and B will be lower when compared with an ideal solution formed by A and B. Hence, the vapour pressure of such solutions will be lower than the sum of the vapour pressure of A and B. This type of deviation is called negative deviation. For the negative deviation,
P_A < P°_A X_A and P_B < P°_B X_B.

Let us consider a solution of phenol and aniline. Both phenol and aniline form hydrogen bonding interactions amongst themselves. However, when mixed with aniline, the phenol molecule forms hydrogen bonding interactions with aniline, which are stronger than the hydrogen bonds formed amongst themselves.

Formation of new hydrogen bonds considerably reduce the escaping tendency of phenol and aniline from the solution. As a result, the vapour pressure of the solution is less and there is a slight decrease in volume (∆V_mixing < 0) on mixing. During this process evolution of heat takes place i.e. ∆H_mixing < 0 (exothermic)

Example:
Acetone + chloroform, Chloroform + diethyl ether, Acetone + aniline, Chloroform + Benzene.

Question 7.
Explain the factors responsible for deviation from Raoult’s law.
Answer:
Factors responsible for deviation from Raoult’s law:
The deviation of solution from ideal behavior is attributed to the following factors.

i) Solute-solvent interactions:
For an ideal solution, the interaction between the solvent molecules (A-A), the solute molecules (B-B) and between the solvent & solute molecules (A-B) are expected to be similar. If these interactions are dissimilar, then there will be a deviation from ideal behavior.

ii) Dissociation of solute:
When a solute present in a solution dissociates to give its constituent ions, the resultant ions interact strongly with the
solvent and cause deviation from Raoult’s law.
For example, a solution of potassium chloride in water deviates from ideal behavior because the solute dissociates to give K and Cl ion which form strong ion-dipole interaction with water molecules.
KCl(s) + H₂O (l) → K⁺(aq)+ Cl^–(aq)

iii) Association of solute:
Association of solute molecules can also cause deviation from ideal behaviour. For example, in solution, acetic acid exists as a dimer by forming intermolecular hydrogen bonds, and hence deviates from Raoult’s law.

iv) Temperature:
An increase in temperature of the solution increases the average kinetic energy of the molecules present in the solution which causes decrease in the attractive force between them. As result, the solution deviates from ideal behaviour.

v) Pressure:
At high pressure the molecules tend to stay close to each other and therefore there will be an increase in their intermolecular attraction. Thus, a solution deviates from Raoult’s law at high pressure.

vi) Concentration:
If a solution is sufficiently dilute there is no pronounced solvent-solute interaction because the number of solute molecules are very low compared to the solvent. When the concentration is increased by adding solute, the solvent-solute interaction becomes significant. This causes deviation from the Raoult’s law.

Question 8.
How would you determine the molar mass of solute from Tb?
Answer:
The elevation of boiling point is directly proportional to the concentration of the solute particles.
∆T_b ∝ m
m is the concentration of solution expressed in molality.
∆T_b = K_bm
Where
K_b = molal boiling point elevation constant or Ebullioscopic constant.
∆T_b = \(\frac{K_{b} \times W_{B} \times 1000}{M_{B} \times W_{A}}\)

M_b = \(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{b}}}{\Delta \mathrm{Tb}} \times \frac{\mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{B}} \times 1000}{\mathrm{~W}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

Question 9.
How would you determine the molar mass of solute from T?
Answer:
1f the solution is prepared by dissolving
W_B g of solute in W_B g of solvent, then the molality is,

m = \(\frac{\text { Number of moles of solute } \times 1000}{\text { weight of solvent in grams }}\)

Number of moles of solute = \(\frac{W_{B}}{M_{B}}\)
Where, M_B = molar mass of the solute
Therefore,

m = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{B}} \times 1000}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}} \times \mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

∆T_f = \(\frac{K_{f} \times W_{B} \times 1000}{M_{B} \times W_{A}}\)

Molar mass can be calculated using

M_B = \(\frac{\mathrm{Kb} \times \mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{B}} \times 1000}{\Delta \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{b}} \times \mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

Question 10.
How would you determine the molar mass of solute form A?
Answer:
According to van’t Hoff equation π = cRT
c = \(\frac{n}{V}\)
Here, n = number of moles of solute dissolved in ‘V’ liter of the solution.
Therefore,
π = \(\frac{n}{V}\)RT
πV = nRT
If the solution is prepared by dissolving W_Bg of nonvolatile solute in W_A g of solvent,
then the number of moles ‘n’ is,
n = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}\)
since, M_B = molar mass of the solute
Substituting the ‘n’ value, we get,
π = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{V}} \frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}}}\)

M_B = \(\frac{W_{B}}{V} \frac{R T}{\pi}\)
From the above equation molar mass of the solute can be calculated.