Bhagya

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 2 Electricity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Electricity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The device which converts chemical energy into electrical energy is
(a) fan
(b) solar cell
(c) cell
(d) television
Answer:
(c) cell

Question 2.
Electricity is produced in
(a) transformer
(b) power station
(c) electric wire
(d) television
Answer:
(b) power station

Question 3.
Choose the symbol for battery

Answer:

Question 4.
In which among the following circuits does the bulb glow?

Answer:

Question 5.
_______ is a good conductor
(a) silver
(c) rubber
(b) wood
(d) plastic
Answer:
(a) silver

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………. are the materials which allow electric current to pass through them.
2. Flow of electricity through a closed circuit is …………
3. ……… is the device used to close or open an electric circuit.
4. The long perpendicular line in the electrical symbol represents its ………… terminal.
5. The combination of two or more cells is called a ………..

Answer:

1. Conductors
2. electric current
3. Key
4. positive
5. battery

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. In a parallel circuit, the electricity has more than one path.
2. To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the other cell.
3. The switch is used to close or open an electric circuit.
4. Pure water is a good conductor of electricity.
5. Secondary cell can be used only once.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – The negative terminal of one cell is connected to positive terminal of other cell.
3. True
4. False – Pure water is an insulator.
5. False – Secondary cells can be used many times.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – Battery
2. – Bulb does not glow
3. – Open key
4. – Bulb glows
5. – Cell

V. Arrange in Sequence

Answer:
A DEVICE THAT CONVERTS CHEMICAL ENERGY INTO ELECTRICAL ENERGY IS CALLED A CELL.

VI. Give Very Short Answers

Question 1.
In the given circuit diagram, which of the given switches) should be closed. So that only the bulb A glows.

Answer:
K₁ and K₂ should be connected to glow bulb A in the circuit

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : It is very easy for our body to receive electric shock.
Reason (R) : Human body is a good conductor of electricity.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is wrong but R is correct.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation for A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.

Question 3.
Can you produce electricity from a lemon?
Answer:

1. We can produce electricity from the lemon.
2. Take lemon as an electrolyte, copper plate as positive terminal, and small hairpin as the negative terminal. This setup will work as a cell.
3. If we connect the electric bulb with it bulb will glow.

Question 4.
Identify the conductor from the following figures.

Answer:
Metallic chain is a conductor.

Question 5.
What type of circuit is there in a torchlight?
Answer:
Simple circuit system is used in a torchlight.

Question 6.
Circle the odd one out. Give a reason for your choice.
Answer:
Switch, Bulb, Battery, Generator.
Generator is the source of electricity. Others are parts of a circuit.

VII. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
Draw the circuit diagram for the series connection.
Answer:

Question 2.
Can the cell used in the clock give us an electric shock? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. The cell used in the clock will not give us an electric shock because the voltage of that cell is very low nearly 1.5 v.
2. So it will not affect our body.

Question 3.
Silver is a good conductor but it is not preferred for making electric wires. Why?
Answer:

1. Silver is a costly metal.
2. So economically we can not use it in electric wires.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is the source of electricity? Explain the various power stations in India.
Answer:

1. In thermal power stations, thermal energy is generated by burning coal, diesel, or gas to produce steam.
2. Steam is used to rotate the turbine to generate electricity.
3. Here heat energy is converted into electric energy.

Hydel power stations:

1. In hydel power stations, the turbine is made to rotate by the flow of water from dams.
2. Here kinetic energy is converted into electric energy.

Atomic power station:

1. Here nuclear energy is used to boil water
2. The steam thus produced is used to rotate the turbine, as a result, electricity is produced.
3. Here nuclear energy is converted into mechanical energy.

Windmills:

1. In windmills, wind energy is used to rotate turbines to produce electricity.
2. Here kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy.

Question 2.
Tabulate the different components of an electric circuit and their respective symbols.
Answer:

Question 3.
Write short notes on conductors and insulators.
Answer:
Conductors:
The rate of flow of electric charges in a circuit is called electric current. The materials which allow electric charges to pass through them are called conductors.
Examples: Copper, iron, aluminum, impure water, earth, etc.,

Iniulaton (Non-Conductors):
The materials which do not allow electric charges to pass through them are called insulators or non-conductors.
Examples: plastic, glass, wood, rubber, china clay, ebonite, etc.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Rahul wants to make an electric circuit. He has a bulb, two wires, a safety pin, and a piece of copper. He does not have any electric cell or battery. Suddenly he gets some idea. He uses lemon instead of a battery and makes a circuit. Will the bulb glow?
Answer:
1. Yes, the bulb will glow.
2. Insert a piece of copper on one side of lemon, safety pin on another side. This system will work as a battery.
3. Copper rod – Positive terminal
Safety pin – Negative terminal, Lemon – Electrolyte
4. Connect the connecting wire in both the terminals and finally connect to the bulb.
5. The current produced is passed through the circuit and the bulb will glow.

X. Search ten words in the given word grid and classify them as conductors and insulators

Question 1.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Electricity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Here heat energy is converted into electric energy
(a) Thermal power station
(b) Atomic power station
(c) Hydel power station
(d) Windmills
Answer:
(a) Thermal power station

Question 2.
In atomic power station, ________ is used to rotate the turbine.
(a) water
(b) steam
(c) Air
(d) diesel
Answer:
(b) steam

Question 3.
Which one of the following is using secondary using cells?
(a) Hand watch
(b) Robo toy
(c) Laptop
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Laptop

Question 4.
If two or more ________ are connected in series in a circuit, then it is called a series circuit.
(a) keys
(b) cells
(c) connecting wires
(d) bulbs
Answer:
(d) bulbs

Question 5.
……….. fish is able to produce an electric current.
(a) Goldfish
(b) Electric Eel
(c) Katla
(d) Salamon fish
Answer:
(b) Electric Eel

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Any device from which electricity is produced is called ………..
2. The place in Kanyakumari district that has more windmills is ………..
3. ……….. have long economic lives and low operating cost.
4. A chemical solution that produces positive and negative ions is used as ………….
5. ……….. invented the electric bulb.

Answer:

1. Source of electricity
2. Aralvaimozhi
3. Hydel power stations
4. electrolyte
5. Thomas Alva Edison

III. Say True of False.

1. Atomic power stations convert nuclear energy into electric energy.
2. The cell can be used only once is called secondary cells.
3. We can produce electricity from potatoes.
4. An ammeter is connected in parallel in circuits.
5. The voltage of the torchlight battery is 1.5 v.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. 3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – iii
2. – i
3. – iv
4. – ii
5. – v

V. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Experiments with electricity should only be performed with torch or radio batteries.
Reason (R) : Household electric supply will have high voltage and dangerous
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is wrong but R is correct.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation
Answer:
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Primary cells can not be recharged, they can be used only once.
Reason (R) : In vehicles, we use primary cells.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
b. A is true but R is not correct.
c. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct reason for A
d. A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
b. A is true but R is not correct

VI. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the places in which atomic power stations located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Kalpakkam, Kanchipuram district.
2. Koodankulam, Tirunelveli district.

Question 2.
List out the parts required to make an electric circuit
Answer:
A key, connecting wires, dry cell or battery, and electric bulb.

Question 3.
How to connect the cells in torchlight to glow bulbs?
Answer:
1. Connect the positive terminal of one cell with the negative terminal of another cell.
2. The bulb will glow.

Question 4.
How electric current is produced in Thermal power stations?
Answer:
The thermal energy generated by burning coal is used to produced steam. The steam thus produced is used to rotate the turbine. While the turbine rotates, the coil of wire kept between the electromagnet rotates. Due to electromagnetic induction, electricity is produced.

Question 5.
What is meant by a battery or collection of cells?
Answer:
Two or more cells are combined together to make a battery or collection of cells.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is a cell? Explain the types of cells.
Answer:
A device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called a cell. Cells are classified, in two types. They are-

1. Primary cells,
2. Secondary cells.

1. Primary cells:

• They can not be recharged.
• They can be used only once.
• They are small in size.
• Eg. Cells used in clocks, watches, and toys, etc.

2. Secondary cells:

• A cell that can be recharged many times is called secondary cells.
• Depending upon usage size may vary.
• Eg. Secondary cells are used in mobile phones, laptops, emergency lamps, and vehicle batteries.

Question 2.
What are the safety measures to safeguard a person from electric shock?
Answer:
Safety measures to safeguard a person from electric shock:

1. Switch off the power supply.
2. Remove the connection from the switch.
3. Push him away using non-conducting materials.
4. Give him first aid and take him to the nearest health centre.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 1 Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
GNP equals:
(a) NNP adjusted for inflation
(b) GDP adjusted for inflation
(c) GDP plus net factor income from abroad
(d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
Answer:
(c) GDP plus net factor income from abroad

Question 2.
National Income is a measure of ……………
(a) Total value of money
(b) Total value of producer goods
(c) Total value of consumption goods
(d) Total value of goods and services
Answer:
(d) Total value of goods and services

Question 3.
Primary sector consist of:
(a) Agriculture
(b) Automobiles
(c) Trade
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 4.
……………… approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value-added approach
(c) income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value-added approach

Question 5.
Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
(a) Agricultural sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Service sector
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Agricultural sector

Question 6.
Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at …………… lakh crore in 2018-19.
(a) 91.06
(b) 92.26
(c) 80.07
(d) 98.29
Answer:
(b) 92.26

Question 7.
India is ……………. largest producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1^st
(b) 3^rd
(c) 4^th
(d) 2^nd
Answer:
(d) 2^nd

Question 8.
India’s life expectancy at birth is ………….. years.
(a) 65
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 55
Answer:
(a) 65

Question 9.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) land-reform policy
(d) wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Question 10.
Indian economy is ……………
(a) Developing Economy
(b) Emerging Economy
(c) Dual Economy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… sector is largest sector in India.
2. GDP is the indicator of ………………… economy.
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as …………………
4. ………………… sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
5. India is ………………… largest economy of the world.
6. India is ………………… fastest growing nation of the world.
7. ………………… policy envisages rapid industrialization with modernization for attaining rapid economic growth of GDP.

Answers:

1. Service
2. economic health
3. Industrial sector
4. Service
5. 6^th
6. fifth
7. Industrial

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
The rate of saving is low in India for the following reason
(i) Low per capita income.
(ii) Poor performance and less contribution of public sector.
(iii) Poor contribution of household sector.
(iv) Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Define National income
Answer:
National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy over a period of time, normally a year. National Income is also known as Gross National Product or GNP or National Dividend.

Question 2.
What is meant by Gross Domestic product?
Answer:
The Gross Domestic product is the market value of all the goods and services produced in the country during a time period.

Question 3.
Write the importance of Gross domestic product.
Answer:
The GDP is one of primary indicators used to measure the health of a country’s economy. It represents the total dollar value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period, often referred to as the size of the economy.

Question 4.
What is Per-Capita Income?
Answer:
Per-Capita Income is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country. It is also called as output per person of an economy.

Question 5.
Define the value added approach with example.
Answer:
In the value added approach, the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final goods. Take example of a cup of tea which is a final good. The goods used to produce it are – tea powder, milk and sugar. These things (goods) are ‘intermediate goods’ since they form a part of the final good, i.e., the cup of tea. Each intermediate good the tea powder, milk and sugar, adds value to the final output, the cup of tea.

Question 6.
Name the sectors contribute to the GDP with examples.
Answer:
The three sectors that contribute to the GDP are primary sector (or) Agricultural Sector, Secondary Sector (or) Industrial Sector, Tertiary Sector (or) Service Sector. Eg: Agricultural based allied activities. Farm, fishing

1. Mining and Foresty – Primary sector.
2. Major Industries and small scale Industries – Industrial sector.
3. Transport and Communication, Post and Telegraph, Banking, Education, Entertainment, Health care and Information Technology.

Question 7.
Write the sector wise Indian GDP composition in 2017.
Answer:

Question 8.
What are the factors supporting to develop the Indian economy?
Answer:
Factors supporting to develop the Indian economy :

• A fast growing population of working age.
• India has a strong legal system and many English language speakers
• Wage costs are low here.
• India’s economy has successfully developed highly advanced and attractive clusters of business in the technology space.

Question 9.
Write the name of economic policies in India.
Answer:
Agricultural Policy, Industrial Policy, New Economic Policy, Domestic Trade Policy, International Trade Policy, Employment Policy, Currency and Banking Policy, Fiscal and Monetary policy, Wage Policy, Population policy.

Question 10.
Write a short note:
1) Gross National Happiness (GNH)
2) Human Development Index (HDI)
Answer:
1) Gross National Happiness or GNH is a global indicator of progress, which measures both sustainable economy and social developments, while protecting the environment and culture:

2) The Human Development Index or HDI is a statistic composite index of life expectancy, education and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. A country scores a higher HDI when the lifespan is higher, the education level is higher and the gross national income or GNI per capital is higher.

VI. Write in detail answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of National Income.
Answer:
(i) Gross National Product (GNP): It is the total value of goods and services produced and income received by the domestic residents of a country. It includes profit earned from capital invested abroad.
GNP = C + I + G + (X – M) + NFIA

(ii) Gross Domestic Product (GDP): It is the value of output of goods and service produced by the factors of production within the Geographical boundaries of a country.
GDP = GNP – NFIA

(iii) Net National Product (NNP): It is arrived by deducting Depreciation value from the Gross National Product.
NNP = GNP – Depreciation

(iv) Net Domestic Product ( NDP): It is arrived by deducting the value of depreciation from the Gross Domestic Product.
NDP = GDP – Depreciation

(v) Per-Capita Income: It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
PCI = N.I / population
In the above context,
C – Consumption expenditure
I – Investment expenditure
G – Government expenditure
NFIA – Net Factor Income earned from Abroad
Depreciation – Wear and Tear expenses

(vi) Personal Income: It is the total money income received by all the individual of a country from all possible sources before direct taxes.
PI = NI Corporate Income Taxes – Undistributed Corpo – rate profit – social security Contribution + Transfer payment

(vii) Disposable Income (DI): It means the actual income which can be spent on consumption by the people of the country.
DI = PI – Direct taxes

Question 2.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
Methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product or GDP:

1. Expenditure Approach – In this method, the GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specified period.
2. Income Approach – This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women who are involved in producing the goods and services.
3. Value-added Approach – In the value – added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the fiscal good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in productions gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the economy.

Question 3.
Write about the composition of GDP in India.
Answer:
The composition of GDP in India include three sectors which are listed as
(i) Agricultural Sector
(ii) Industrial Sector
(iii) Service Sector.

(i) Agricultural Sector: It is also known as primary sector. Agricultural activities, Agricultural based allied activities, cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry, mining are all included in this sector. Their total production is the pirimary sector contribution to India’s GDP.

(ii) Industrial Sector: It is also known as secondary sector. Production of goods using raw materials in the form of either Small Scale Industries, or Large Scale Industries like Iron and steel, Automobiles etc., are included in this sector. Their total production is the secondary sector contribution to India’s GDP.

(iii) Service Sector: It is also known as Tertiary sector. It includes Government, transport and communications, Scientific Research, Post and telegraph, trade, Banking, Education, Entertainment, Health care and Information Technology’ in this sector. Their total production is the service sector contribution to India’s GDP.

Sector-wise contribution of GDP (2018 – 19)
Agricultural Sector – 14.39 %
Industrial Sector – 31.46%
Sen/ice Sector – 54.15%

Question 4.
Write the differences between the growth and the development.
Answer:

Question 5.
Explain the Developmental path based on GDP and employment.
Answer:
Developmental path based on GDP and employment

1. In the development path of India, at first undertook the policy of closed trade. It means that trade and interaction with the outside world remained limited.
2. In 1991, India finally decided to open its borders to free trade and liberalised its economy by allowing foreign companied to enter the Indian economy.
3. A thrust was given to employment generation under the Five Year Plans. Rural development was also given importance in India.
4. The public sector was given significant importance. Private companies and industries were subject to strict regulations and standards. It was believed that the Government was the sole protector of the people and would work towards social welfare.
5. India has sustained rapid growth of GDP for most of the last two decades leading to rising per capita income and a reduction in absolute poverty. Per capital incomes have doubled in 12 years.

Question 6.
Explain the following policies.
Answer:
Agricultural Policy: It means a set of decisions and actions taken by the government relating to domestic agriculture and imports of agricultural products.

The policy mainly focus on the following areas:

(a) Risk Management and Adjustment
(b) Economic Stability
(c) Natural Resources
(d) Environmental Sustainability
(e) Research and Development
(f) Market for domestic agricultural commodities

In general, the agricultural policy includes Price policy, Land Reform policy, Green Revolution, Irrigation policy, Food policy, Labour policy and co operative policy.

Industrial policy: It means a set of decisions taken by the government relating to industrial sector, domestic production, trade, self-sufficiency and modernisation.

The policy mainly focus on the following areas:

1. Employment generation
2. Utilisation of Natural resources
3. Boosting the other sector development
4. Research and Development
5. Modernisation
6. Environmental protection
7. Trade
8. Development of small scale industries.

In general, the Industrial policy include Textile Industry policy, Sugar industry policy, Price policy, Small scale industries policy, Industrial Labour policy.

New Economic Policy: The New Economic Policy was introduced in 1991 which includes LPG. LPG refers to Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation. Therefore the policy is called LPG model.

The main objective of this model was to make the economy of India, the fastest developing economy of the world to become equal to the biggest economies of the world. Definitely, this model had influenced India’s Economic growth and development.

VII. Activity and Project

Question 1.
Students are collect the Gross Domestic Product datas of Tamilnadu and compare the other state of Karnataka and Kerala’s GDP.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala GDP are called SGDP- State Gross Domestic Product. This comparison help us to understand, the performance of each state and comparatively which state has performed better. Given here, is a sample of the activity and students should elaborate it and make it as perfect project.

[For refer Table – 12 CSO – Central Statistical Organisation, New Delhi ]

Question 2.
Students are collect the details of Employment growth of Tamilnadu.
Answer:

1. The Employment Growth of Tamil Nadu refers to the rate of growth of work force or labour force of the state. The students should understand that this can be compared between the two Census (2001 and 2011).
2. The state of TamilNadu total population grew from 62.41 million in 2001 to 72.15 million in 2011.
3. Between these two Censuses, the total number of workers in the slate increased by 1.18% that is from 27.88 million to 32.88 million.
4. Among the districts work participation is the lowest at 36.3% in Kanyakumari despite the fact it has high literacy level. It is nigh in Erode with 53.1% as per 2011 Census.
5. Taking the above given sample information, students should, do activity considering the labour force participation men. women ratio scpaiaiciy.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
‘Your mother is cooking’- In this statement, cooking is …………………
(a) Good
(b) Service
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Service

Question 2.
‘Economic growth is one aspect of economic development’. Who said it?
(a) Amarthya Sen
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Mehabub ul Haq
(d) Ramachandra Guha
Answer:
(a) Amarthya Sen

Question 3.
Goods and Service has a market …………………
(a) value
(b) price
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) to fix a price
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not an example of tertiary sector?
(a) Communication
(b) Banking
(c) Transport
(d) Forestry
Answer:
(d) Forestry

Question 5.
The intermediate Goods value are indirectly included in the measurement of …………………
(a) GDP
(b) GNP
(c) SGDP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(a) GDP

Question 6.
GDP of a country can be calculated by ……………..
(a) 2 Approach
(b) 3 Approach
(c) 4 Approach
Answer:
(b) 3 Approach

Question 7.
The ………………… value is derived from the price at which the Goods and Services are sold in the market.
(a) currency
(b) frequency
(c) Nation’s
(d) Trade
Answer:
(a) currency

Question 8.
National Income is otherwise called as ……………..
(a) Real Income
(b) Money Income
(c) Gross National Product
Answer:
(c) Gross National Product

Question 9.
Imagine your father knows book binding technique and after you get new books for this year, he bounded and gave you. Whether binding charges are included on the GDP?
(a) Included
(b) Partially Included
(c) Not included
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Not included

Question 10.
The method by which we arrive at National Income in India is …………..
(a) Product method
(b) Expenditure method
(c) Product and Income method
Answer:
(c) Product and Income method

Question 11.
If the ………………… goods are included in the GDP, it will result in Double counting.
(a) Final
(b) Intermediate
(c) Import
(d) Export
Answer:
(b) Intermediate

Question 12.
Commonly, National Income is called as …………………
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) PCI
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 13.
………………… is also called as National Dividend.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NFIA
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 14.
GNP ………………… net factor from abroad.
(a) Excludes
(b) includes
(c) Sums up
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a) and (c)

Question 15.
GDP ………………… net factor income from abroad.
(a) Excludes
(b) includes
(c) Sums up
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Excludes

Question 16.
GNP minus depreciation gives …………………
(a) NDP
(b) NNP
(c) GDP
(d) NFIA
Answer:
(b) NNP

Question 17.
NDP is the value of depreciation excluded from …………………
(a) GDP
(b) NNP
(c) NFIA
(d) (X-M)
Answer:
(a) GDP

Question 18.
………………… denotes the standard of living of the people.
(a) NNP
(b) NDP
(c) PCI
(d) NFIA
Answer:
(c) PCI

Question 19.
………………… represents all sources of income excluding direct taxes.
(a) GNP
(b) PCI
(c) PI
(d) DI
Answer:
(c) PI

Question 20.
Personal income minus direct taxes will give …………………
(a) DI
(b) DPI
(c) PI
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 21.
The quarterly GDP estimates for the ………………… quarter includes months January, February and March.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(d) fourth

Question 22.
The quarterly GDP estimates of the month July, August and September includes ………………… quarter.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(b) second

Question 23.
The first quarter of the GDP estimates includes the months …………………
(a) Jan, Feb, March
(b) July, Aug, Sep
(c) April, May, June
(d) Oct, Nov, Dec.
Answer:
(c) April, May, June

Question 24.
October, November, December, months are included in ………………… quarter estimates of GDP.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(c) third

Question 25.
The modern concept of GDP was first developed by Simon Kuznets in the year …………………
(a) 1930
(b) 1932
(c) 1933
(d) 1934
Answer:
(d) 1934

Question 26.
There are ………………… methods to calculate GDP.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 27.
The prices paid to the factors of production are included in the ………………… approach
(a) Income
(b) Expenditure
(c) Value added
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Income

Question 28.
………………… helps in the estimation of purchasing power.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NDP
(d) NNP
Answer:
(b) GDP

Question 29.
Adding up all the expenditures incurred in a country during a specific period of time is called ………………… method.
(a) Income
(b) Expenditure
(c) Value added
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Expenditure

Question 30.
GDP measures only the quantity but not …………………
(a) quality
(b) price
(c) market value
(d) trade
Answer:
(a) quality

Question 31.
There are ………………… sectors in an economy.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Question 32.
India is the ………………… largest producer of agricultural products.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(b) second

Question 33.
Amartya Sen is an ………………… Economist.
(a) American
(b) Australian
(c) Indian
(d) Pakistani
Answer:
(c) Indian

Question 34.
The key parameters of economic growth of an economy are its GDP and ………………… which helps in measuring the actual size of the economy.
(a) GNP
(b) NFIA
(c) Depreciation
(d) PCI
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 35.
The GDP of India is ………………… million United States dollars.
(a) 19.3
(b) 2.8
(c) 3.6
(d) 7.8
Answer:
(b) 2.8

Question 36.
The GDP of United States is ………………… million.
(a) 19.3
(b) 2.8
(c) 3.6
(d) 7.9
Answer:
(a) 19.3

Question 37.
India is ranked ………………… in Globe as regard to GDP.
(a) fourth
(b) fifth
(c) sixth
(d) third
Answer:
(c) sixth

Question 38.
United States is ranked ………………… in Globe as regard to GDP.
(a) third
(b) fourth
(c) second
(d) first
Answer:
(d) first

Question 39.
Economic Growth is ………………… in nature.
(a) quantitative
(b) qualitative
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) peculiar
Answer:
(a) quantitative

Question 40.
Economic ………………… is a broader concept.
(a) Development
(b) Growth
(c) Project
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Development

Question 41.
………………… helps to measure the real development of an economy.
(a) GDP
(b) HDI
(c) GNHI
(d) NNP
Answer:
(b) HDI

Question 42.
The concept of Economic development is mainly applicable to ………………… economies.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Under developed
(d) Less developed
Answer:
(b) Developing

Question 43.
The concept of Economic Growth is mainly applicable to ………………… economies.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Less developed
(d) Under developed
Answer:
(a) Developed

Question 44.
The concept of Human Development Index was put forward by …………………
(a) Amartya Sen
(b) Mahbub-ul-Haq
(c) Wangehuck
(d) Simon Kuznets
Answer:
(b) Mahbub-ul-Haq

Question 45.
The concept of HDI was first introduced at the …………………
(a) United Nations
(b) United Stated
(c) United Kingdom
(d) UAE
Answer:
(a) United Nations

Question 46.
The concept of HDI was introduced in the year
(a) 1960
(b) 1970
(c) 1990
(d) 1980
Answer:
(c) 1990

Question 47.
India lies in ………………… Human Development Index Category.
(a) High
(b) Low
(c) Medium
(d) Very Low
Answer:
(c) Medium

Question 48.
India’s HDI value for 2017 is …………………
(a) 0.001
(b) 0.540
(c) 0.640
(d) 0.340
Answer:
(c) 0.640

Question 49.
When a country’s HDI increases, it removes the country from …………………
(a) Development
(b) Poverty
(c) Trade disputes
(d) Stagnation
Answer:
(b) Poverty

Question 50.
GNHI is a philosophy that guides the government of …………………
(a) America
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) India
Answer:
(c) Bhutan

Question 51.
Co-operative policy is a part of ………………… policy.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) NEP
(d) Wage
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 52.
The city ………………… has emerged as a hub for global software business today.
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Bangalore
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(c) Bangalore

Question 53.
The structural reforms brought in India recently are …………………
(a) GST
(b) Demonetisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 54.
The measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry (or) sector of the economy is called …………………
(a) GDP
(b) GNP
(c) GVA
(d) NDP
Answer:
(c) GVA

Question 55.
According to IMF, India is ………………… fastest growing nation of the World.
(a) 3^rd
(b) 2^nd
(c) 4^th
(d) 5^th
Answer:
(d) 5^th

II. Fill in the blanks

1. In order to know the performance of India, one should know the ………………. of our country.
2. Goods are difference from ……………….
3. Services are ……………….
4. The GDP is the ………………. value of final goods and services produced in the country.
5. The price at which the goods are sold in the market is called ……………….
6. The GDP is measured in terms of ………………. value of our country.
7. “The final goods and services will not be a part of other goods and Services”, said by ……………….
8. The goods that are used in the production of other goods are called as ………………. goods.
9. If the intermediate goods are included in the GDP, then it will result in ……………….
10. Commonly National Income is called as ……………….
11. National Income (or) GNP is also called as ……………….
12. Profits earned from abroad is ………………. with GDP to get GNP.
13. If the total value of goods and services are calculated within the geographical boundary of a country it is called
14. The process of loosing the value of anything is called as ……………….
15. The Income of individuals from all sources before payment of taxes is called as ……………….
16. Personal income minus Direct taxes will give ……………….
17. ………………. used the term Per Capita Income for the first time in 1867-68.
18. ………………. is the name of the book written by Dadabhai Navroji.
19. GDP minus depreciation gives ……………….
20. GNP minus depreciation gives ……………….
21. ………………. is the indicator of standard of living of people in a country.
22. The formulae to calculate PCI is ……………….
23. The cost of saree brought by your brother to your mother ………………. from China will be from India’s GDP.
24. My uncle sends money to his family in India from Dubai. It is included in India’s ……………….
25. GDP is measured both annually and ……………….
26. There are ………………. quarters with which GDP is measured.
27. January, February, March refers to the ………………. quarter of the measurement of GDP.
28. April to June measured as the ………………. quarter in measurement of GDP.
29. The path of development of India in recent years is moving from agricultural sector to ………………. sector.
30. Wage costs are ………………. in India.
31. GNHf is a philosophy instituted as the goal of government of ……………….
32. India is now experiencing a period of ……………….
33. As per HDI, India is in the ………………. human development category.
34. In ………………. India, opened up to free trade policy.
35. Economic development is a ………………. preocess.
36. In India, ………………. city is considered as a hub for global software businesses.
37. The new model of economic reforms put forward in 1991 by India is called as ………………. model.
38. According to IMF, GDP growth rate of India in 2018 is projected at ……………….
39. According to World economic outlook, India is ………………. fastest growing nation of the World.
40. According to IMF World Economic Outlook ………………. is in the rank as a fastest growing nation of the world.

Answers:

1. GDP
2. Services
3. Intangible
4. Market
5. Market value
6. Rupee
7. Tyler Cowen and Alex Tabarrok
8. Intermediate
9. Double counting
10. Gross National Product
11. National Dividend
12. Included
13. GDP
14. Depreciation
15. Personal income
16. Disposable income
17. Dadabhai Navroji
18. Poverty and Unemployment
19. NDP
20. NNP
21. Per Capita Income
22. N.I. / population
23. Excluded
24. GNP
25. Quarterly
26. Four
27. Fourth
28. First
29. Service
30. Low
31. Bhutan
32. Demographic transition
33. Medium
34. 1991
35. Continuous
36. Bangalore
37. LPG
38. 7.3%
39. Fifth
40. Bangladesh

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Only the final goods are included in the GDP.
(ii) If the value of the Intermediate goods are included,, it will result in double counting,
(iii) The rupee values are desired from the prices at which the goods and services are sold in the market.
(iv) There is no sensible way to add the quantities of goods produced with those of the services produced.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Personal income minus direct taxes gives the disposable income.
(ii) GDP of India includes the market value of all the goods and services produced in the global level.
(iii) Disposable Income minus Transfer payments plus subsidies gives personal income.
(iv) The Quantum of wear and tear expenses are called Depreciation.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) income methods sums up all forms of income earned by individuals who are involved in the production of goods and services.
(ii) There are several methods to calculate National income or GDP.
(iii) The Modern concept of GDP was first developed by Simon Kuznets in 1934.
(iv) The annual GDP of financial year 2017-18 will include only the goods and services produced during that financial year.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct

Question 4.
(i) GDP measures only quantity but not quality.
(ii) CSO conducts annual survey based on Indexes like Index on Industrial Production (llP) and Consumer Price Index (CPl).
(iii) High level of Per Capita real GDP will lead to low level of pollution and low suicidal rate.
(iv) India is the largest producer of agricultural products in the world.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Economic Growth is one aspect of Economic Development-Said by Economist Amartya Sen.
(ii) HDl is apt tool to measure the real development in an economy.
(iii) United States of America ranks top in the globe in terms of its GDP.
(iv) Economic development is quantitative in nature.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) Poverty alleviation came as a corollary of rural development.
(ii) In 2011, The UN Genera! Assembly passed Resolution Happiness towards a Holistic approach to development.
(iii) There are nine domains in GNHI
(iv) There are two structural reforms recently brought in India- demonetisation and Goods and Services Tax.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Economic Development is a broader concept.
Reason (R): It is long-term in nature and includes variables like removal of poverty, Rise in life expectancy rate etc.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct.
(d) A is wrong and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are two major structural reforms brought in India recently. They are demonetization and Goods and Services Tax.
Reason (R): India economy is the 5th fastest growing nation of the World.
(a) A is correct, and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct.
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Intermediate goods are not counted in calculating the GDP.
Reason (R): Their value is already included in the final goods.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Economic Growth is a quantitative measure.
Reason (R): It considers the increase in the output produced in an economy in a particular period of time.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

VI. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
What is Gross Value Added?
Answer:
Gross Value Added or GVA is the measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry of sector of an economy. In national accounts GVA is output minus intermediate consumption; it is a balancing item of the national accounts’ production account.

Question 2.
Distinguish between goods and services.
Answer:

Goods	Services
Goods are tangible	Services are intangible
Goods can be separated from its owner	Services cannot be separated from its owner
Eg: Table, chair, Apple etc.,	Service of a teacher, Lawyer, cook in a hotel etc.,
Goods are products	Services are activities

Question 3.
In what two ways is the GDP measured in India?
Answer:
In India GDP is measured both annualy and quarterly. The annual GDP is for a financial year which is from April 1 of one year, for example 2017 to March 31 of the next year, for example 2018.
This is written as 2017-18.
The quarterly GDP estimates are for each of the four quarters into which India’s financial year is divided.
First quarter, denoted Q1 : April, May and June .
Second Quarter – Q2 : July, August and September
Third Quarter – Q3 : October, November and December
Fourth Quarter – Q4 : January, February and March

Question 4.
What is meant by Intermediate good? Give example.
Answer:
The goods which will be used for the production of other goods are called Intermediate goods. Eg: Sugar.

Question 5.
How do you arrive at NNP?
Answer:
We arrive at the NNP by deducting the value of depreciation from Gross National Products. NNP = GNP (-) Depreciation.

Question 6.
What is meant by GVA?
Answer:
Gross Value Added is called as GVA. It is the measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area (or) sector of an economy.
GVA = GDP + Subsidies – Taxes.

Question 7.
Give examples for tertiary sector.
Answer:
Tertiary sector include Trade, Hotel industry, Transport, Storage, Communication, Finance, Insurance, Real estate, Social services, Postal and Telegraph, Banking, Education, Entertainment, Health care and Information Technology, etc.

Question 8.
What is the financial year of India?
Answer:
The financial year is the year of the calculation of GDP. In India it starts from April 1^st and ends on March 31^st.

Question 9.
What is Depreciation?
Answer:
Decline in the value of capital assets (machineries) due to tear and wear is measured as depreciation.

Question 10.
Write few parameters to measure economic growth?
Answer:
Human Resources, Natural Resources, Advancement in technology, Capital formation, Political and social economic factors are few parameters to measure economic growth.

Question 11.
What is Disposable Income (DI)?
Answer:
Disposable Income means actual income which can be spent on consumption by individuals and families, thus, it can be expressed as DPI = PI – Direct Taxes.

VII. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the limitations of GDP.
Answer:
(i) Non – Marketed items are left out of GDP: GDP includes only the goods and services that are sold in the market, Non-Marketed items are not included. Eg: Services provided by parents to their children, clean air has no market value (or) price. Hence it is left out of GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity not quality: At times, we can see some products which are available at large quantities in the product, at a very low price. Only the quantity sold and its price is measured in GDP. Quality of the product is not taken care of.

(iii) Income Distribution: The GDP of a country may be growing rapidly. But income may not be distributed equally. This brings a lot of unequal distribution of income and wealth. GDP actually do not suggest on income distribution.

(iv) Way of life of the people: A high level of Per-Capita real GDP, may lead to a very low health condition of the people, an undemocratic political system, High pollution, High suicidal rate.

Question 2.
How are three sectors of an economy are interdependent?
Answer:
There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector.
The secondary sector covers activity in which the natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary.

The third category of activities falls under tertiary sector. These activities help in the development of the primary- and secondaiy sectors. These activities by themselves, do not produce goods but they are an aid or a support for the production process, for example, transport and communication, etc.

Thus, we can clearly say tiiat the three sectors of an economy are highly interdependent.

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 4 Air Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Air

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Air Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
……… is the percentage of nitrogen in the air.
(a) 78%
(b) 21%
(c) 0.03%
(d) l%
Answer:
(a) 78%

Question 2.
Gas exchange takes place in plants using _______
(a) Stomata
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Leaves
(d) Flowers
Answer:
(a) Stomata

Question 3.
The constituent of air that supports combustion is ……….
(a) Nitrogen
(b) carbon-di-oxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) water vapour
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

Question 4.
Nitrogen is used in the food packaging industry because it _______
(a) provides colour to the food
(b) provides oxygen to the food
(c) adds proteins and minerals to the food
(d) keeps the food fresh
Answer:
(d) keeps the food fresh

Question 5.
……… and ………… are the two gases, which when taken together, make up about 99 percentage of air.
I. Nitrogen
II. carbon-di-oxide
III. Noble gases
IV. Oxygen
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) I and IV
Answer:
(d) I and IV

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………. is the active component of air.
2. The gas given out during photosynthesis is ………..
3. ………. gas is given to the patients having breathing problems.
4. ………. can be seen moving in a beam of sunlight in a dark room.
5. …………. gas turns lime water milky.

Answer:

1. Oxygen(O₂)
2. Oxygen(O₂)
3. Oxygen (O₂)
4. Tiny dust particles
5. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement

1. Inhaled air contains a large amount of carbon-di-oxide
2. Planting trees help in decreasing global warming
3. The composition of air is always exactly the same.
4. Whales come up to the water surface to breathe in oxygen.
5. The balance of oxygen in the atmosphere is maintained through photosynthesis in animals and respiration in plants.

Answer:

1. False – (Inhaled air contains a large amount of oxygen)
2. True
3. False – (The composition of air changes slightly from place to place & also from season to season)
4. True
5. False – (The balance of oxygen in the atmosphere is maintained through Photosynthesis in plants & respiration in animals)

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – b
3. – d
4. – e
5. – a

V. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence

1. Plants manufacture food by a process called photosynthesis.
2. Plants require energy for their growth.
3. Plants take in oxygen and release carbon-di-oxide just as animals.
4. Plants take carbon-di-oxide from the atmosphere, use chlorophyll in the presence of sunlight and prepare food.
5. Such oxygen is available to animals and human beings for breathing.
6. During this process, oxygen is released by plants.
Answer:
2. Plants require energy for their growth.
1. Plants manufacture food by a process called photosynthesis.
6. During this process, oxygen is released by plants.
3. Plants take in oxygen and release carbon-di-oxide just as animals.
5. Such oxygen is available to animals and human beings for breathing.
4. Plants take carbon-di-oxide from the atmosphere, use chlorophyll in the presence of sunlight and prepare food.

VI. Analogy

Question 1.
Photosynthesis: ……….. ::
Respiration : Oxygen
Answer:
CO₂

Question 2.
78% of air : Does not support combustion ::
……… : Supports combustion
Answer:
21% of air

VII. Observe the given figure carefully and answer the questions.

Question 1.
What will happen if we remove plants from the aquarium?
Answer:

1. The production of O₂ and absorption of CO₂ and NH₃ will you reduced.
2. Plants provide shelter to fish, so, they feel insecure.
3. Algae growth will increase.

Question 2.
What will happen if we remove the fish from the aquarium and keep it (with green plants) in a dark place?

Answer:

1. Most of the fishes require both periods of light and darkness.
2. In a dark place, they will loose their sight and pigmentation.

VIII. Give a very short Answer

Question 1.
What is the atmosphere? Name the five layers of the atmosphere.
Answer:
Our earth is surrounded by a huge envelope of air called the atmosphere.
The atmosphere is made of five different layers – the Troposphere, the Stratosphere, the Mesosphere, the Ionosphere, and the Exosphere.

Question 2.
How do the roots of land plants get oxygen for breathing?
Answer:
Oxygen is present in the air spaces of soil. This O₂ is taken by root hairs through diffusion to the rest of the plant.

Question 3.
What should be done if the clothes of a person catch fire accidentally? Why?
Answer:

1. Cover the person in a rug or blanket and Roll him on the floor.
2. This will cut off the air and put out the flames.
3. A suitable fire extinguisher can also be chosen.

Question 4.
What will happen if you breathe through your mouth?
Answer:
Several health conditions and risk factors can lead to mouth breathing.

1. Snoring
2. dry mouth
3. daytime tired
4. Poor dental health

IX. Give a short answer

Question 1.
Biscuits kept open on a plate during monsoon days lose their crispness. Why?
Answer:
During monsoon days, Water vapour from the atmosphere is absorbed in the biscuits. So the biscuits lose its crispness.

Question 2.
Why do traffic assistants wear a mask on duty?
Answer:
Traffic assistants are continually exposed to smoke emitted out from the vehicles. Inhaling the pollutants in the smoke may cause breathing and lung problems. So they wear a mask on duty.

X. Answer in detail

Question 1.
How do plants and animals maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon-di¬oxide in air?
Answer:

1. plants in forests release oxygen through the process of photosynthesis and help in providing oxygen to animals for respiration.
2. Plants consume carbon dioxide released by the animals. In this way, plants help in maintaining a balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Question 2.
Why is the atmosphere essential for life on earth?
Answer:

The atmosphere is essential for life because it maintains an appropriate climate for the maintenance of life by carrying out the following activities:

1. The atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the Earth fairly constant during the day time.
2. It prevents a sudden increase in temperature during the day time.
3. It also slows down the escape of heat from the surface of the Earth into outer space during the night time.

XI. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
Can you guess why fire extinguishers throw a stream of carbon-di-oxide while putting – off fire?
Answer:
It is because carbon-di-oxide (CO₂) does not support combustion. When sprayed on burning object it stops the supply of oxygen and controls the fire.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Air Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the appropriate answer

Question 1.
A layer consisted of water vapour which is responsible for making clouds is.
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Exosphere
Answer:
(c) Troposphere

Question 2.
_______ is responsible for making clouds.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Water vapour
(d) Carbon-di-oxide
Answer:
(c) Water vapour

Question 3.
A process without emitting flame is called as …………
(a) Combustion
(b) Burning
(c) Cherring
(d) Melting
Answer:
(a) Combustion

Question 4.
_______ was able to identify highly reactive gas called oxygen.
(a) Lavoisier
(b) Ingenhousz
(c) Rutherford
(d) Joseph Priestley
Answer:
(d) Joseph Priestley

Question 5.
Which is used in refrigerating meat and fish?
(a) Liquid Ammonia
(b) Liquid Nitrogen
(c) Solid CO₂
(d) Helium
Answer:
(c) solid CO₂

II. True or False. If False, give the correct statement

1. Oxygen is used for the synthesis of protein and fertilizers.
2. CO₂ turns calcium hydroxide solution to a milky white solution.
3. The air in coastal areas have more oxygen.
4. The role of chlorophyll is to absorb light from the sun.
5. When cooled to -57°C, gaseous carbon-di-oxide becomes a liquid.

Answer:

1. False – (Nitrogen is used for the synthesis of protein and fertilizers)
2. True
3. False – (The air in coastal areas have more water vapour)
4. True
5. False – (When cooled to -57°C, gaseous carbon-di-oxide becomes a solid)

III. Match the following

Answer:
i. – c
ii. – d
iii. – a
iv. – b

IV. Give very short answer

Question 1.
Where does Ozone layer lie?
Answer:
Ozone layer is present in stratosphere lies above the troposphere.

Question 2.
“Air is not an elementary substance, but a composition”. Why?
Answer:
Air is a composite mixture of many gases like N₂, O₂, CO₂ and others.

Question 3.
Mention the percentage composition of Air.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is Burning?
Answer:
The process of firing of a substance in the presence of O₂ and releasing a large amount of light and heat.

Question 5.
Define – Combustion. Give an example.
Answer:
The process of firing which does not emit flame is called combustion (fire without flame). Ex: Rocket propellants (fuel with oxygen).

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Briefly explain the process of ‘Photo Synthesis’.
Answer:

1. Plants manufacture their food by ‘Photo Synthesis’.
2. CO₂ from the air and water from the solid react in the presence of sunlight to produce food.
   
3. Chlorophyll absorbs light from the sun.
4. The liberated O₂ during photosynthesis is much more than the O₂ consumed by the plants for respiration.

Question 2.
Mention the uses of Air.
Answer:

1. For breathing by plants and Animals.
2. For burning fuels like wood, coal, kerosene, LPG etc.,.
3. Compressed air is used to fill tyres of vehicles.
4. Maintaining the water cycle in nature. Because this air did not have O₂ and CO₂.
5. O₂ gas is used by patients in Hospitals, Climbers in mountains, Divers in Deepsea.

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 3 Changes Around Us Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Changes Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Changes Around Us Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
When ice melts to form water, change occurs in its
(a) position
(b) colour
(c) state
(d) composition
Answer:
(c) State

Question 2.
Drying of wet clothes in air is an example of
(a) Chemical change
(b) Undesirable change
(c) irreversible change
(d) physical change
Answer:
(d) Physical change

Question 3.
Drying of wet clothes in air Is an example of
(a) Chemical change
(b) Undesirable change
(c) irreversible change
(d) physical change
Answer:
(d) physical change

Question 4.
Out of the following an example of a desirable change ¡s
(a) rusting
(b) change of seasons
(c) earthquake
(d) flooding
Answer:
(b) change of seasons

Question 5.
Air pollution leading to Acid rain is a
(a) reversible change
(b) fast change
(c) natural change
(d) human made change
Answer:
(d) human made change

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Magnet attracts iron needle. This is ……… change, (a reversible / an irreversible)
2. Boiling of egg results in ………… change, (a reversible / an irreversible)
3. Changes that are harmful to us are ………… (desirable / undesirable)
4. Plants convert Carbon-di-oxide and water into starch. This is an example of ………. change, (natural / human made)
5. Bursting of fire crackers is a ……….. change whereas germination of seeds is a ………. change, (slow / fast)

Answer:

1. a reversible
2. an irreversible
3. undesirable
4. Natural
5. fast; slow

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement

1. Growing of teeth in an infant is slow change.
2. Burning of match stick is a reversible change.
3. Change of New moon to Full moon is human made.
4. Digestion of food is a physical change.
5. In a solution of salt in water, water is the solute.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – It is an irreversible change
3. False – It is a Natural change
4. False – It is a Chemical change
5. False – Water is the solvent

IV. Analogy

Question 1.
Curdling of milk : irreversible change ::
Formation of clouds : ……….. change
Answer:
reversible

Question 2.
Photosynthesis : ……….. change ::
burning of coal : Human – made change
Answer:
Natural

Question 3.
Dissolving of glucose: reversible change ::
Digestion of food : ………… change
Answer:
Irreversible

Question 4.
Cooking of food : desirable change ::
decaying of food : ………… change
Answer: undesirable

Question 5.
Burning of matchstick: ………… change ::
Rotation of the Earth : Slow change
Answer:
Fast

V. Circle the odd one out. Give reason for your choice

Question 1.
Growth of a child, Blinking of eye, Rusting, Germination of a seed.
Answer:
Blinking of eye (a fast change)

Question 2.
Glowing of a bulb, lighting of a Candle, breaking of a coffee mug, curdling of milk.
Answer:
Curdling of milk (a chemical change)

Question 3.
Rotting of an egg, condensation of water vapour, trimming of hair, Ripening of fruit.
Answer:
Trimming of hair (Man-made change)

Question 4.
Inflating a balloon, popping a balloon, fading of wall paint, burning of kerosene
Answer:
Burning of Kerosene (Chemical change)

VI. Give a very short answer

Question 1.
What kind of change is associated with the decaying of plants?
Answer:
Decaying of plants is associated with slow change and chemical change.

Question 2.
You are given some candle wax. Can you make a candle doll from it? What kind of change is this?
Answer:
Yes, I can make a doll from the candle. The kind of change is a physical change.

Question 3.
Define a slow change.
Answer:
Changes which take place over a long period of time (hours/days/months/years) are known as slow changes.

Question 4.
What happens when cane sugar is strongly heated? Mention any two changes in it.
Answer:
When Cane sugar is strongly heated, it will initially melt and after that start to decompose. It will turn brown and then black and give off fumes.
The changes involved are:

1. Physical change
2. irreversible change

Question 5.
What is the solution?
Answer:
When a solute is dissolved in a solvent, it forms a solution.
Solute + solvent → solution.

VII. Give a short answer

Question 1.
What happens when the paper is burnt? Explain.
Answer:
When the paper is burnt, oxygen from the air combines with carbon in the paper turning into carbon dioxide and water vapor which float away, leaving solid ash. The action of burning paper can’t be reversed. So, it is an irreversible change. Also, it is a Chemical change and a Fast change.

Question 2.
Can deforestation be considered a desirable change? Explain.
Answer:

1. Deforestation cannot be considered a desirable change.
2. Because it is harmful to our environment and not desired by us are known as Undesirable changes.

Question 3.
What type of changes is associated with the germination of a seed? Explain.
Answer:

1. Germination of seed is a slow change.
2. Changes which take place over a long period of time (days) are known as Slow changes.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Give one example in each case that happens around you.
(a) Slow and fast change
(b) Reversible and irreversible change
(c) Physical and chemical change
(d) Natural and man-made change
(e) Desirable and undesirable change
Answer:

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
When a candle is lit the following changes are observed.
Answer:

1. Wax melts.
2. Candle keeps burning.
3. The size of the candle decreases.
4. The molten wax solidifies

Question 2.
Which of the changes can be reversed? Justify your answer.
Answer:
When the candle is burning, the heat of the flame melts the solid wax to liquid wax. This signifies reversible (or) Physical changes. Also, as the wax melts, the size of candle decreases. If then molten wax solidifies and takes a different shape.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Changes Around Us Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Water changes into ice on cooling are called as
(a) Melting
(b) Vaporisation
(c) Condensation
(d) Freezing
Answer:
(d) freezing

Question 2.
_______ is the process in which something becomes different from what it was earlier.
(a) Classification
(b) Composition
(c) Position
(d) Change
Answer:
(d) Change

Question 3.
Evaporation of water from lakes and river
(a) Slow change
(b) Fast change
(c) Natural change
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
_______ change is a temporary change
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Undesirable
(d) slow
Answer:
(a) Physical

Question 5.
The blackening of the Silver anklet is a (an)
(a) Irreversible change
(b) Temporary change
(c) Short term change
(d) Periodical change
Answer:
(a) Irreversible change

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A change in which a new substance is formed is called ………….
2. Formation of coal is a …………
3. An example of natural as well as an undesirable change is ………..
4. ……… is the Universal Solvent.
5. Eco-friendly changes are ………

Answer:

1. Chemical Change
2. Slow Change
3. Earthquake
4. Water
5. Desirable changes

III. Match the following

Answer
i. – d
ii. – a
iii. – b
iv. – c

IV. Analogy

Question 1.
Rusting of Iron : undesirable change : : Dead plants turn into manure : …………..
Answer:
Desirable change

Question 2.
Touch me not plant: ………… : : digestion of food : Irreversible change
Answer:
Reversible change

Question 3.
Change of seasons : slow change : : Breaking of glass : …………..
Answer:
fast change

Question 4.
Earth quake : undesirable change : : Heartbeat: ………….
Answer:
desirable change

Question 5.
Silver articles turning black : ………… : : Boiling of H₂O : physical change
Answer:
Chemical change

V. Very short answer

Question 1.
What is the change?
Answer:
Change is the observable difference between the initial state and the final state of any substance.

Question 2.
What is a reversible change?
Answer:
Changes which can be reversed (to get back to the original state) are known as reversible changes.

Question 3.
What is melting? Give example.
Answer:
The conversion of a solid into a liquid by heating is called melting. Ex.: Ice into water.

Question 4.
Water is the universal solvent. Why?
Answer:
Water is known as the universal solvent. It dissolves a wide range of substances.

VI. Long answer

Question 1.
Distinguish between the physical and chemical changes.
Answer:

Question 2.
Tabulate some changes taking place in our body system with its type.
Answer:

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
McMahon Line is a border between
(a) Burma and India
(b) India and nepal
(c) India and China
(d) India and Bhutan
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 2.
India is not a member of which of the following …………..
1. G20
2. ASEAN
3. SAARC
4. BRICS
Select the correct option
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 1
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer:
2 only

Question 3.
OPEC is:
(a) An international insurance Co.
(b) An international sports club
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
(d) An international company
Answer:
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries

Question 4.
With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 5.
Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.

(a) 3 14 2
(b) 3 12 4
(c) 3 4 12
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(a) 3 14 2

Question 6.
How many countries share its border with India?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 7.
Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island
(b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
(c) Maldieves and Nicobar island
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
Answer:
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves

Question 8.
Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
Answer:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh and (d) Sikkim

Question 9.
How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(a) Five

Question 10.
Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
(c) Clement Atlee
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ……………….
3. ………………. is a buffer country between India and China.
4. A strip of land ………………. belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
5. ………………. is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by ……………….

Answer:

1. Bhutan
2. Myanmar
3. Nepal
4. Teen Bigha Corridor
5. Bhutan
6. Palk strait

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of transport?
1. Roads
2. Railways
3. Shipping
4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 1,3 and 4 only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1: ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2: Myanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3: Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4: Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4
Answer:
(c) 1, 3 and 4

Question 4.
Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial production.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both are correct

IV. Match the following

A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:

• India is a vast country with Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north-west
• China, Nepal, Bhutan to the north
• Bangladesh to the east
• Myanmar to the far east
• Sri Lanka (from south-east) and Maldives (from south-west) are two countries that lie close to India separated by the Indian Ocean.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Strategic partnership Agreement (SPA).
Answer:

1. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the strategic partnership , agreement.
2. SPA provide assistance to rebuild Afghan’s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture, water, education, health and providing duty – free access to the Indian market.

Question 3.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:

• Brazil
• Russia
• India
• China
• South Africa

Question 4.
What do you know about Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport?
Answer:

1. India is building the kaladan multi – model transit transport, a road-river- port cargo transport project to link kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar.
2. A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho chi minh city on the south sea for the formation of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam and work on the first phase connecting Guwahati with Mandalay is currently underway.

Question 5.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:
A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan . and Iran, which has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port. This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 6.
List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
Answer:
IBSA, BCIM, MGC, BBIN, and SCO.

Question 7.
What is the role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM)?
Answer:
In the manufacturing sector Japan announced its co-operation of training 30,000 Indian people in the Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to ‘Make in India’ and ‘Skill India’ initiatives. In 2017, the first four JIMs were started in the states of Gujarat, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Highlight India and International organisation with special reference to any three India’s global groupings.
Answer:

1. India is a potential superpower and has a growing international influence all around the world.
2. India has is a member of formal groupings like UNO, NAM, SAARC, G20 and the commonwealth.
3. India is an activity engaged in general economic diplomacy, which is evident in the country being part of several economic coalitions, as listed in the table below.

Question 2.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.
Objectives of BRICS

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 3.
Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries?
Answer:
OPEC’S Mission:

1. To coordinate oil policies in its member countries.
2. Help stabilise oil markets.
3. To secure fair and stable income to petroleum producers.
4. An efficient, economic and regular supply of oil to consuming nations.
5. A fair return on capital to those investing in the petroleum industry.

How does OPEC help other countries?

1. The OPEC, fund for International Development (OPID) is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
2. It also provides grants to social and humanitarian projects..
3. OPEC has an information centre with over 20,000 volumes including books reports, maps and conference, proceedings related to petroleum energy and the oil markets.
4. The information centre is open to the public and is often used by researchers and students.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to collect information from newspapers about India’s relation with world countries.
Answer:
Students should find any article from Tamil (or) English newspaper about India’s relation with world countries.

Eg: Foreign Minister’s visit to India.

[OR]

Indian Prime Minister or President’s visit to foreign countries. After finding the information, cut down the article with its date and year of publication and the name of the newspaper. A minimum of five such news articles can be collected and can be pasted in a notebook to prepare an album to submit as project to the subject teacher.

A sample news taken from the English newspaper.

Times of India
Date: Sep. 17,2019

AGARTALA: Bangladesh Information Minister Hasan Mahmud said ties between India and Bangladesh is becoming better by the day under the leadership of Narendra Modi and Sheikh Hasina.

Inaugurating a 3 – day film festival here, the Minister said Bangladesh believes in having good relations with its neighbours and films play a great role in that. The film festival will feature 20 films made on the Bangladesh Liberation war.

Question 2.
Group project involving students to prepare an album with pictures on India’s latest projects with its neighboring countries.
Answer:
India’s latest project with its neighbouring countries: The Government of India gives high importance to strengthen the friendly relations and to promote understanding with neighbouring countries. As part of this policy, the Government has undertaken several development projects with our neighbouring countries. Details of projects (a sample) is given below.

Note: Students should find and collect information (or) pictures related to the project of Gol (Government of India) with its neighbouring countries taking the sample few projects given here (or) other projects also. Students should paste the pictures in a note book underlining the project, prepare it as an album, submit to the subject teacher.

Projects

Bhutan: Projects completed in Bhutan with GOI assistance include Paro airport, Bhutan broadcasting station, major highways, and construction of Mini – Hydel projects. Penden cement plant with 300 tonnes capacity was completed in 1982 with GOI assistance.

Bangladesh: India is gifting 10 ambulances to Bangladesh.

Maldives: The 200 – bed Indira Gandhi Memorial Hospital (IGMH) was set up in Maldives in 1995 at a cost of about ₹40 crores.

Nepal: The recently completed projects include 22 bridges on the East – West Highway. Setting up of trauma – center at Bir hospital in Kathmandu.

Sri Lanka: GOI has committed US $ 7.5 million to set up an India cancer centre in Colombo.

The above mentioned are only guidelines that could help a student to find what type of projects are generally undertaken.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Independent India has been consistently fostering.
(a) World peace
(b) International co-operation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
………… development of nations can be achieved only through world peace.
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Political
Answer:
(a) Economic

Question 3.
How many kilometre that Pipeline between Siliguri in West Bengal and ‘ Parbatipur (Bangladesh).
(a) 130
(b) 150
(c) 170
(d) 190
Answer:
(a) 130

Question 4.
China became republic in ……………
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c)1950
Answer:
(b) 1949

Question 5.
How many hydro electric projects the Government of India has constricted in Bhutan.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
…………….. is located South of Lakshadweep islands in the Indian ocean.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Myanmar
(c) Maldives
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Maldives

Question 7.
India’s second-largest border is shared with:
(a) Maldives
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(b) Myanmar

Question 8.
In …………… a 25 years treaty of friendship, co-operation and peace was signed by India and Bangladesh at …………..
(a) 1971, New Delhi
(b) 1972, Dacca
(c) 1982, Lahore
Answer:
(b) 1972, Dacca

Question 9.
The 204 – kilometre long Mahendra Raj marg to link …………….. and India
(a) Kathmandu
(b) Kalandan
(c) Sittwe
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Kathmandu

Question 10.
In which agreement India tried to bring positive change in the relationship of Pakistan.
(a) Strategic Partnership Agreement
(b) Shimla Agreement
(c) International Agreement
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Shimla Agreement

Question 11.
Which king had sent his son and daughter to ceylon (Sri Lanka) for the propagation of Buddhism.
(a) Chandra Gupta Mourya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Kanishka
(d) none
Answer:
(b) Ashoka

Question 12.
The cease fire line determined in ……………………….. was called the LOC.
(a) 1947
(b) 1945
(c) 1949
(d) 1943
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 13.
……………… gives India access to advance communication technology used in U.S defence equipment.
(a) COMCASA
(b) AVSINDEX
(c) JIM
(d) MAHSR
Answer:
(a) COMCASA

Question 14.
India and France launched the international ……………… between Tropic of cancer and Tropic of capricorn.
(a) Solar Alliance
(b) Railway
(c) domestic development
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Solar Alliance

Question 15.
Which country decided to introduce the Japan’s Shikansen system.
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) West Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) India

Question 16.
Which institute providing manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry (Make in India).
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) MAHSR
(d) COMCASA
Answer:
(a) JIM

Question 17.
Which course was introduced in engineering colleges was established in Andhrapradesh.
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(b) JEC

Question 18.
Which port is seen as golden gate way for India?
(a) Chabahar
(b) Kandla
(c) Gwadar
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Chabahar

Question 19.
Mention the C of the BRICS:
(a) China
(b) Vienna
(c) Japan
(d) Europe
Answer:
(a) China

Question 20.
Which economist was coined BRICS?
(a) British
(b) French
(c) German
(d) Russian
Answer:
(a) British

Question 21.
NDB gives priority to projects aimed at developing ……………… sources.
(a) Renewable
(b) Non – Renewable
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Renewable

Question 22.
The contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) for providing protection against ……………… pressures.
(a) liquidity
(b) currency issues
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Trade
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 23.
Which centre has cover 20,000 volumes including books, maps related to petroleum.
(a) Information centre (OPEC)
(b) Research Centre (OPEC)
(c) Universities (OPEC)
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Information centre (OPEC)

Question 24.
……………… is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
(a) Nepal
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) India

Question 25.
India strongly focuses on production.
(a) Agriculture
(b) industrial
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) rural
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 26.
India extend its support to the in all her efforts.
(a) U.N.O
(b) W. T. O
(c) world bank
(d) none
Answer:
(a) U.N.O

Question 27.
Who is an active member of BRICS.
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(c) India

Question 28.
Which bank is lending for infrastructure project?
(a) The New Development Bank
(b) Contingent Reserve Arrangement
(c) global liquidity currency
(d) none
Answer:
(a) The New Development Bank

Question 29.
How many seats per year to Indian national for a master’s degree in university of Japan.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 20

Question 30.
Who is a super power and has a growing international influence all around the world.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Pakistan
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. has always been known as a peace – loving country.
2. India’s position is ……………….. in its neighbourhood.
3. ……………….. is surrounded by many neighbouring countries.
4. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the ………………..
5. ……………….. of Baluchistan active supporter of the Indian National congress.
6. ……………….. has built kandahar international cricket stadium.
7. India and ……………….. share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint River commission is working to maximise benefits.
8. ……………….. has initiated a Tajore chair in university of Dhaka (Scholarship).
9. ……………….. is India’s gate way to Western countries.
10.  ……………….. one of the partner in Nalanda university project of India.
11.  ……………….. represents one of the main indicators of bilateral co-operation between India and Bhutan.
12. India declared the bilateral trade relation known as ………………..
13. China being the ……………….. of the world.
14. ……………….. is a small land locked country.
15. Nepali and Indian people visit each other’s country for religions ………………..
16. India included ……………….. in the VIII schedule of the constitution.
17. There are a number of ……………….. along Indo- Nepal border.
18. A joint hydropower project is being built on the ……………….. River.
19. The Government of India and Nepal have signed ……………….. agreements.
20. ……………….. remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
21. The cross-border firing between India and ………………..
22. ……………….. is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
23. ……………….. is a major irritant.
24. India and Pakistan under the ……………….. of 1972.
25. Sri Lankan investments in India include ……………….. (garment city)
26. COMCASA is valid for a period of ………………..
27. French space launch pads are used by ………………..
28. ……………….. broadens the relationship raising awareness and promoting exchanges between two countries.
29. ……………….. is one of most successful examples of Japanese co-operation.
30. JIM providing training for Indian-people in ………………..
31. Trade relations were established between civilisation of Mesopotemia and ………………..
32. ……………….. gateway to land locked and energy rich
33. In trading routes ran from ancient Sumeria to the Indus civilisation called ………………..
34. The acronym BRICS was coined by ……………….. a famous British economist.
35. ……………….. is a multilateral development Bank.
36. ……………….. are defining changes to have huge geo – economic and geo – political impact.
37. ……………….. mission to co-ordinate oil policies in its member countries.
38. ……………….. is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
39. ……………….. doesn’t have enough oil reserves.
40. India – Japan join laboratories in the area of ………………..

Answers:

1. India
2. unique
3. India
4. Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA)
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
6. India
7. Bangladesh
8. Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)
9. Myanmar
10. Sri Lanka
11. Hydel power sector
12. Bharat to Bhutan B2B
13. Manufacturing hub
14. Nepal
15. Pilgrimage
16. Nepalese language
17. Tiger reserves
18. Sharda
19. Three-sister-city
20. Terrorism
21. Pakistan
22. Kashmir
23. Cross border terrorism
24. Shimla Agreement
25. Brandix
26. 10 years
27. ISRO
28. The Australia India council
29. Delhi metro
30. Manufacturing sector
31. The Indus valley
32. West Asia, Central Asia
33. Meluna
34. Jim O’Neill
35. NDB (New Development Bank)
36. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA)
37. OPEC 38. OPID
38. India
39. Information and communication Technology

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Farakka accord on sharing of Ganga waters signed in 1977 is a historic agreement.
Reason (R): India and Bangladesh share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint river commission is working to maximise benefits.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are false?
Statement 1: India’s position is unique in its neighbourhood.
Statement 2: Myanmar is a land locked nations.
Statement 3: The cross border firing between India and Nepal.
Statement 4: Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
(a) 1,2, and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(d) 2 and 3

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Maldives is located South of Lakshadweep Islands in the Indian oceans.
Reason (R): The relationship with Maldives is important for India given its strategic location and geo – graphical proximity.
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): McMahon line is the boundary line between India and China.
Reason (R): The secretary of state for India (in British cabinet) Arthur Henry McMahon represented British India at the conference.
(a) A is correct and explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the role of India as a Great Helper?
Answer:
India is basically against colonization and wants to see all the countries of the world free from foreign domination. It played a great role in freeing Indonesia from the domination of Holland. In the same way, it has supported the freedom movements started by Egypt, Sudan, Indo-China, Ghana, Morocco and Bangladesh.

Question 2.
Name the formal groups in which India is a member.
Answer:
India is a member of formal groupings like U.N.O, NAM, SAARC, G-20 and the common wealth.

Question 3.
Explain India’s relationship with Pakistan.
Answer:
Inspite of part conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 10th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

Question 4.
Mention the India’s relationship with OPEC.
Answer:

1. India is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
2. OPEC obviously has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
3. We import 86% of crude oil, 70% natural gas, 35% of cooking gas from OPEC countries.
4. India has been identified as a greater partner for OPEC mainly because of its high oil demand.

Question 5.
‘The relationship between India and Sri Lanka is smooth’-Justify.
Answer:
Sri Lanka is a Buddist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Sri Lanka India always support Sri Lanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Sri Lanka is very smooth. It will be continued forever.

Question 6.
Write about Khan Abdual Ghaffar Khan.
Answer:
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan of Baluchistan (a border province in 10 day’s Pakistan) was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and active supporter of the Indian national congress.

Question 7.
Why Buddhist saint went to Bhutan from India?
Answer:
Gur Padmasambhava, a Buddhist saint who want to Bhutan from India, played an influential role in spreading Buddhism and Cementing traditional ties between people of both nations.

Question 8.
List out the Indian states have their boundary with Nepal.
Answer:
Sikkim, west Bengal, Bihar, Uttarpradesh and Uttarakhand.

Question 9.
In what way JIM providing training to Indian people?
Answer:
The Japan India Institute of manufacturing(JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to “Make in India” and “skill India” initiatives.

Question 10.
Write a short note on a joint hydro power project.
Answer:

1. A joint hydropower project is being built on the Sharda river.
2. This power plant helps both India and Nepal with respect to electricity production and irrigation facilities.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the relationship of India with her neighbouring countries.
Answer:
India and Pakistan:
Insipite of port conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 16^th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

India and China:
When China became republic in 1949, India was the first country to recognize it. Both the countries have successfully attempted to restore the economic lines. China has formally declared that she will back India’s claim for becoming a permenent member of United Nation’s Security Council.

India and Srilanka:
Srilanka is a Buddhist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddhism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Srilanka. India always support Srilanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Srilanka is very smooth. It will be continued for ever.

India and Bangladesh:
It is due to the effort and support of Smt. Indira Gandhi, the Prime Minister of India, Bangladesh got freedom from Pakistan in 1971. In 1972, a 25 years treaty of friendship, co operation and peace was signed in Dacca by India and Bangladesh. The farakka Barrage issue regarding the distribution of Ganga water was settled amicably. Thus India is a very good friend of Bangladesh. Our friendship with Bangladesh will go on forever.

Question 2.
Write about India and Pakistan relationship?
Answer:

1. Since the bifurcation of territory which demarcated India and Pakistan in 1947.
2. The two nations have had strained relations due to disagreements over a number of key issues.
3. Terrorism remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
4. But India has made extreme efforts to improve and stabilise relations with Pakistan.
5. The cross – border firing between India and Pakistan and the terrorist attacks combined have taken its toll on the Kashmiri’s who have suffered poor living standards and an erosion of human rights.
6. Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan, which has brought the two countries into open clash many times.
7. Cross-border-terrorism is a major irritant.
8. India tried bring a positive change in the relationship of the two countries through bilateral agreements such as Shimla Agreement and Lahore Declaration.

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When an object is heated, the molecules that make up the object
(a) begin to move faster
(b) lose energy
(c) become heavier
(d) become lighter
Answer:
(a) begin to move faster

Question 2.
The unit of heat is
(a) newton
(b) joule
(c) volt
(d) Celsius
Answer:
(b) joule

Question 3.
One litre of water at 30°C is mixed with one litre of water at 50°C. The temperature of the mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) More than 50°C but less than 80°C
(c) 20°C
(d) around 40°C
Answer:
(d) around 40° C

Question 4.
An iron ball at 50°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 50°C. The heat will
(a) flow from iron ball to water.
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
(c) flow from water to iron ball.
(d) increase the temperature of both.
Answer:
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Heat flows from a ……….. body to a ………… body.
2. The hotness of the object is determined by its ………..
3. The SI unit of temperature is …………
4. Solids ……….. on heating and ………… on cooling.
5. Two bodies are said to be in the state of thermal ………… if there is no transfer of heat taking place.

Answer:

1. hot, cold
2. temperature
3. Kelvin
4. expand, contract
5. equilibrium

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. Heat is a kind of energy that flows from a hot body to a cold body.
2. Steam is formed when heat is released from water.
3. Thermal expansion is always a nuisance.
4. Borosilicate glass do not expand much on being heated.
5. The unit of heat and temperature are the same.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Steam is formed when the heat is absorbed from the water.
3. False – Thermal expansion is always not a nuisance.
4. True
5. False – Unit of heat and temperature are different.

IV. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
An ordinary glass bottle cracks when boiling water is poured into it, but a borosilicate glass bottle does not.
Answer:
The reason is that the borosilicate glass does not expand much on being heated and therefore they do not crack.

Question 2.
The electric wire which sag in summer become straight in winter.
Answer:

1. During summer thermal expansion takes place in electric wire.
2. In winter it contracts so it becomes straight.

Question 3.
Rivet is heated before fixing in the hole to join two metal plates.
Answer:

1. When we heat rivet expansion takes place and becomes soft.
2. One end of the rivet is hammered to form a new head.
3. When cooled, the rivet will contract and hold tightly.

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – c
3. – d
4. – a
5. – b

VI. Analogy

1. Heat: Joule :: Temperature : ………
2. Ice cube : 0°C :: Boiling water : ………..
3. Total Kinetic Energy of molecules: Heat:: Average Kinetic Energy : …………….

Answer:

1. Kelvin
2. 100° C
3. Temperature

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Make a list of electrical types of equipment at home from which we get heat.
Answer:
Water heater, Iron box, Electric kettle, Micro oven.

Question 2.
What is the temperature?
Answer:
The measurement of the warmness or coldness of a substance is known as its temperature.

Question 3.
What is thermal expansion?
Answer:
The expansion of a substance on heating is called thermal expansion.

Question 4.
What do you understand by thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
When two objects in thermal contact, no longer affect each other’s temperature, there exists Thermal equilibrium.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What difference do you think heating the solid will make in their molecules?
Answer:

1. When we heat solids the vibrations and movement of molecules will increase.
2. The temperature of the object increases.
3. The distance between molecules will increase.

Question 2.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain thermal expansion with suitable examples.
Answer:
Thermal expansion: The expansion of a substance on heating is called, the thermal expansion of that substance.

Fitting the iron rim on the wooden wheel:

1. The diameter of the iron ring is slightly less than that of the wooden wheel.
2. So, it cannot be easily slipped on from the rim of a wooden wheel.
3. The iron ring is, therefore, first heated to a higher temperature so that it expands in size and the hot ring is then easily slipped over to the rim of the wooden wheel.
4. Coldwater is now poured on the iron ring so that it contracts in size and holds the wooden wheel tightly.

Rivetting:

1. Rivets are used to join two steel plates together.
2. Hot rivet is driven through the hole in the plates.
3. One end of the rivet is hammered to form a new rivet head.
4. When cooled, the rivet will contract and hold the two plates tightly together.

Cracking of a thick glass tumbler:

1. Glass is a poor conductor of heat.
2. When hot liquid is poured into the tumbler, the inner surface of the tumbler becomes hot and expands while the outer surface remains at room temperature and does not expand.
3. Due to this unequal expansion, the tumbler cracks.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
When a window is accidentally left open on a winter night, will you feel uncomfortable because the cold is getting in, or because the heat is escaping from the room?
Answer:

1. When a window is left open on a winter night I will feel uncomfortable because the heat is escaping from the room.
2. The heat will transfer from high temperature to low temperature.
3. During winter cold air enters the room, so room temperature will decrease.

Question 2.
Suppose your normal body temperature was lower than what it is. How would the sensation of hot and cold change?
Answer:

1. When our body temperature is lower than normal temperature, We feel hot from the surrounding.
2. Because the surrounding temperature will be high compare to our body.

Question 3.
If you heat a circular disk with a hole, what change do you expect in the diameter of the hole? Remember that the effect of heating increases the separation between any pair of particles.
Answer:
Many of us “expect” that the diameter of the hole will decrease because the circular disk is free to expand in all directions as well. Note that expansion of metal due to heating is not like gas spreading out wherever space is available. The correct way to think about it is as follows: Hole size is irrelevant in this case. So we can think that hole is very large.

If we carve a hole so large that its radius is slightly less than that of the circular disk itself, then we will have a ring. It is obvious that the radius of the ring will increase, as atoms have more energy so their oscillation amplitude will increase. As the diameter of the ring increases, the diameter of the hole will also increase.

For example, if you want to insert one hallow pipe inside another hollow pipe of the same diameter, just heat anyone and insert the second one into the heated pipe. This explains the answer in an easy way. So it says that diameter will increase with increasing temperature.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
When an electric current is passing through the conductor …………… energy is produced.
(a) Electric
(b) Heat
(c) Chemical
(d) Kinetic energy
Answer:
(b) Heat

Question 2.
One day in 1922, the air temperature was measured at 59°C in the shade in Libya ________
(a) America
(b) Africa
(c) Antarctica
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

Question 3.
The temperature of boiling water is …………..
(a) 0° C
(b) 32° C
(c) 100° C
(d) 110° C
Answer:
(c) 100°C

Question 4.
The temperature determines the direction flow of _______
(a) heat energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) potential energy
(d) light energy
Answer:
(a) heat energy

Question 5.
When we cool the liquid it will become …………..
(a) Gas
(b) Solid
(c) Vapour
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Solid

II. Say True or False.

1. Heat is measured in Celsius or centigrade.
2. Temperature in the form of energy.
3. The normal temperature of our body is 37°C.
4. Two objects are said to be in thermal contact if they can exchange heat energy.
5. When the vibrations move from one molecule to another molecule heat will flow.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

III. Match the Following:

Answer
1. – iv
2. – i
3. – ii
4. – v
5. – iii

IV. Analogy

1. Summer : Sag :: Winter : …………
2. Evaporation : 100°C :: Freezing : …………

Answer:

1. contract
2. 0°C

V. Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Gaps are left in between rails while laying a railway track.
Answer:
Reason: During summer thermal expansion takes place.

Question 2.
Hot metal ball of 80° C is dipped into water of 80°C. The ball will not contract.
Answer:
Reason: Both are in same temperature.

VI. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the sources of heat?
Answer:

1. The main source of heat is Sun.
2. Other sources are combustion, friction and electricity.

Question 2.
Define – heat.
Answer:
Heat is an energy that raises the temperature of a thing by causing the molecules in that thing to move faster.

Question 3.
How will you identify two objects are said to be in thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
Two objects in thermal contact have same temperature they are said to be in thermal equilibrium.

Question 4.
What are the measuring unit of temperature?
Answer:
SI unit of temperature is kelvin. Celsius and Fahrenheit are the other units used.

Question 5.
What will determine the direction of flow of heat from one object to another?
Answer:
Temperature will determine the direction of the flow of heat.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain linear expansion with an experiment.
Answer:

1. The expansion in length is called linear expansion.
2. Take a bulb, dry cell, candle, cycle spoke, coin, and two wooden boxes.
3. Place one end of the cycle spoke on a wooden block and connect an electric wire to it. Put a stone over the spoke to hold it.
4. The other one of the cycle spoke is placed on another wooden block.
5. Wrap some electric wire around the coin and place it on the block. Put a stone over the coin to hold it in place.
6. Connect bulb and dry cell to the free ends of wires connected to the coin and the spoke and make the circuit.
7. When we heat the cycle spoke with a candle the length will expand and touches the coin.
8. So the circuit completes, the bulb will glow.
9. When we cool the spoke it contracts and does not touch the coin. So the circuit will disconnect, the bulb will not glow.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Computer – An Introduction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who is the father of computer?
a. Martin Luther King
b. Graham Bell
c. Charlie Chaplin
d. Charles Babbage
Answer:
d. Charles Babbage

Question 2.
Which of the following is another form of computer?
(a) Blackboard
(b) Mobile
(c) Radio
(d) Book
Answer:
(b) Mobile

Question 3.
When was the first computer introduced?
a. 1980
b. 1947
c. 1946
d. 1985
Answer:
c. 1946

Question 4.
Who is the computer’s first programmer?
(a) Lady Wellington
(b) Augusta ado Lovelace
(c) Mary Curie
(d) Mary Comb
Answer:
(b) Augusta ado Lovelace

Question 5.
Pick out the odd one?
a. Calculator
b. Abacus
c. Flash Card
d. Laptop
Answer:
c. Flash Card

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Data is ………… Information.
2. World’s first general purpose computer is ……….
3. Information is ……… data
4. Fifth generation computer has ………. Intelligence.
5. ………… is the device that uses Index number.

Answer:

1. Processed
2. Electronic Numerical Integrator and computer
3. a form of processed
4. Artificial
5. Analog Computer

III. State True or false.

1. The computer is an Electronic device.
2. Sir Isaac Newton invented the Computer.
3. The computer can do calculations fast.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – e
5. – a

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is a Computer?
Answer:
Computer is an electronic device that processes data and information according to our needs.

Question 2.
Who are the pioneers/forerunners of computers?
Answer:
1. Charles Babbage: a professor in mathematics has designed an analog computer. He is known as the father of computers.
2. Augusta Ada Lovelace: the first programmer as she developed essential commands for mathematical operations.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Data.
Answer:

1. Data is the information that has to be processed.
2. They are in the form of numbers, alphabets, and images.

Question 4.
Name any four input devices.
Answer:
Keyboard, Mouse, Bar code reader, Digital camera, etc.

Question 5.
Differentiate Hardware and Software.
Answer:
Hardware: The parts that are available on the computer that helps the software to work.
Software: The commands or programs that are used on a computer.

VI. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Explain in detail the Applications of the computer.
Answer:

1. The computer is used in textile shops for billing purposes.
2. It is used in the railway station for issuing tickets.
3. It is used in the banks for multi-purpose.
4. It is used in ATMs.
5. It is used in the Post office.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Our body needs for muscle-building
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) Protein
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) Protein

Question 2.
Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of _______
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin C

Question 3.
Calcium is an example of a
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) Protein
(d) minerals
Answer:
(d) minerals

Question 4.
We should include fruits and vegetables in our diet, because _______
(a) They are the best source of Carbohydrates
(b) They are the best source of Proteins
(c) They are rich in minerals and Vitamins
(d) They have high water content
Ans:
(c) They are rich in minerals and Vitamins

Question 5.
Bacteria are very small microorganism.
(a) Prokaryotic
(b) Eukaryotic
(c) Protozoa Acellular
(d) Acellular
Answer:
(a) prokaryotic

II. True or False

1. There are three main nutrients present in food.
2. Fats are used as an energy store by our body.
3. All bacteria have flagella.
4. Iron helps in the formation of haemoglobin.
5. Virus can grow and multiply outside host.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Malnutrition leads to …………
2. Iodine deficiency leads to ……… in adults.
3. Vitamin D deficiency causes ………..
4. Typhoid is transmitted due to contamination of ……….. and water.
5. Influenza is a ………. disease.

Answer:

1. Deficiency diseases
2. Goitre
3. Rickets and water.
4. Food
5. Viral

IV. Complete the Analogy

1. Rice: Carbohydrate : : Pulses: …………
2. Vitamin D: Rickets : : Vitamin C: …………..
3. Iodine: Goitre : : Iron: ……………
4. Cholera: Bacteria : : Smallpox: ………….

Answer:

1. Protein
2. Scurvy
3. Anemia
4. Virus

V. Match the Following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – c

VI. Complete the Diagram

Answer:

VII. Write a Short Answer.

Question 1.
Write two examples for each of the following.
(a) Food items rich in fat.
(b) Vitamin deficiency diseases.
Answer:
(a) Food items rich in fat: Meat, fish, egg yolk, milk.
(b) Vitamin deficiency diseases: Night blindness, Beriberi, Scurvy, Rickets.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Carbohydrate and Protein.
Answer:
Carbohydrate:

1. Energy giving component of the food.
2. The sources of carbohydrates are nuts, fruits, rice, and maize.

Protein:

1. It is body building foods.
2. The sources of proteins are pulses, soybean, nuts, egg, and fish.

Question 3.
Define the term “Balanced diet”.
Answer:
A diet which contains a sufficient amount of various nutrients to ensure good health is called a Balanced diet.

Question 4.
Why should the fruits and vegetables not to be washed after cutting? Vitamins are of two types.
Answer:
We should not wash the fruits and vegetables after cutting, because the minerals and protein in the fruits and vegetables will also be washed away.

Question 5.
Write any two viral diseases.
Answer:
Common cold, smallpox, polio are viral diseases.

Question 6.
What are the main features of a microorganism?
Answer:
Microorganism will be seen with the help of a microscope. They are very small in size.

VIII. Long Answers.

Question 1.
Tabulate the vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best options

Question 1.
Name the sunshine Vitamin
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) K
Answer:
(b) D

Question 2.
_______ is a highly rich source of protein.
(a) Nut
(b) Gram
(c) Chicken
(d) Soya bean
Answer:
(d) Soya bean

Question 3.
The minerals are called by this name:
(a) Energy Food
(b) Balance diet
(c) Food for growth
(d) protective food
Answer:
(d) protective food

Question 4.
Ben Ben is caused due to the deficiency of _______
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin B
Ans:
(d) Vitamin B

Question 5.
How much water is needed for a man in a day?
(a) 2L
(b) 3L
(c) 1.5L
(d) 1L
Answer:
(a) 2 lr

II. Matching

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

III. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Define Nutrients.
Answers:
Chemical constituents of food which give us energy, help to build our body, and protect us from diseases are called Nutrients.

Question 2.
List the six important nutrition.
Answer:

1. Carbohydrate
2. Vitamins
3. Protein
4. Minerals
5. Fat
6. Water.

Question 3.
List out the types of vitamins.
Solution:
Vitamins are classified into six major types. They are Vitamin A, B, C, D, E, and K. In the type,
Vitamin B and C are water-soluble Vitamins
Vitamin A, D, E, K are Fat-soluble vitamins.

Question 4.
Differentiate between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor:
Stunted growth.
Swelling of face and limbs diarrhea.

Marasmus:
Skinny appearance.
slow body growth.

Question 5.
What are food items contain minerals?
Answer:
Green leafy vegetables like spinach, pulses, eggs, milk, fish, and fruits are food items that contain minerals.

IV. Give detailed Answers

Question 1.
Fill ABCDE in this tabular column.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the uses of exercise?
Answer:

1. It improves growth and development.
2. It delays aging.
3. It strengthens muscles and blood circulation.
4. It develops athletic skills and reduces weight.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The study of living things or organisms is called
a. Psychology
b. Biology
c. Zoology
d. Botany
Answer:
b. Biology

Question 2.
Which of the following are characteristics of living beings?
(i) Respiration
(ii) Reproduction
(iii) Adaptation
(iv) Excretion
Choose the correct sequence
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv)only
(d) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (I), (iv), (il) and (iii)

Question 3.
Lizards breathe through their
a. Skin
b. Gills
c. Lungs
d. Trachea
Answer:
c. Lungs

Question 4.
All animals need _______
(a) Food and water only
(b) Water only
(c) Air, food and water
(d) Food only
Answer:
(c) Air, food and water

Question 5.
Which animal has the special organs of breathing called gills
a. Earthworm
b. fox
c. Fish
d. frog
Answer:
c. Fish

Question 6.
Choose the set that represents only biotic components of a habitat.
(a) Tiger, Deer, Grass, Soil
(b) Rocks, Soil, Plants, Air
(c) Sand, Turtle, Crab, Rocks
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects
Answer:
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects

Question 7.
Which of the following cannot be called as a habitat?
a. A desert with camels
b. A pond with fish and snails
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle
d. A jungle with wild animals
Answer:
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle

Question 8.
Birds fly in the air with the help of _______
(a) heavy and strong Bones
(b) Soft and thick Bones
(c) Hollow and light Bones
(d) Flat and thick Bones
Answer:
(c) Hollow and light Bones

Question 9.
Paramecium moves from one place to other with the help of
a. Pseudopodia
b. flagella
c. Foot
d. cilia
Answer:
d. Cilia

Question 10.
Kangaroo rat lives In _______
(a) Aquatic habitat
(b) Desert habitat
(c) Grass land habitat
(d) Mountain habitat
Answer:
(b) Desert habitat

II. Multiple Choice Questions Complete the following with appropriate word(s).

1. Aquatic, deserts, mountains are called ……….
2. Based on the number of cells present animals are classified into ………. and ………..
3. Tail of a bird acts as a rudder which helps to ………..
4. Amoeba moves with the help of …………

Answer:

1. Habitat
2. Unicellular, multicellular
3. control the direction of the movement
4. Pseudopodium.

III. True or False, If False gives the correct answer.

1. A habitat is a living or dwelling place of an organism.
2. The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth remain the same from one place to another.
3. Amoeba is a unicellular organism and moves with pseudopodia.
4. Birds can see only one object at a time.
5. Paramecium is a multicellular organism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth do not remain the same from one place to another.
3. True
4. True
5. False – Paramecium is a unicellular organism.

IV. Complete the following

1. Tropical rain forests, grasslands, and deserts are known as ………..
2. Some living things are made of a single cell, they are called a……….. organism
3. The breathing organ of a fish is known as ………..
4. The lizard ……….. on the ground with its claw on its feet.
5. Camel stores ………… in its hump.

Answer:

1. habitat
2. unicellular
3. gills
4. walk and run
5. fat

V. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How do the birds catch their prey?
Answer:

• The prey-catching process depends on their types.
• The aquatic birds with the help of their beaks get their prey sliding upside down into the water.
• The birds of paddy fields get small insects with the help of sharp claws of their limbs.

Question 2.
Where can we see camels in India?
Answer:
We can see camels in the state of Rajasthan:

1. The dwelling places of camels
2. Jodhpur
3. Pushkar
4. Pikanur
5. Jaisalmer.

Question 3.
Name the locomotory organs of an Amoeba.
Answer:
Amoeba with the help of a finger-like projection called pseudopodia moves from place to place.

Question 4.
What are the body parts of the snake?
Answer:
Snake’s body is divided into-

1. Head
2. body
3. tail
4. Organs on the head-Two eyes, Two nostrils mouth.

Question 5.
Which structure helps the bird to change its direction while flying in the air?
Answer:
The tail helps the bird to change its direction while flying in air.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate between unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the adaptive features of polar bears and penguins.
Answer:
Polar bear:

1. They have short limbs.
2. They have limited body surface to reduce the body temperature
3. They have thick skin.
4. A polar bear has thick skin for protection against the cold climate.
5. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
6. They eat food rich in fat.

Penguin:

1. They have a boat-shaped body
2. Their feathers absorb sunlight
3. They have thick skin.
4. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
5. They have short wings to fly above the water and paddle for swimming.

Question 3.
Mention the feature that helps a bird to fly in the air?
Answer:

1. The streamlined body shape.
2. Their forelimbs are modified into wings.
3. They have hollow and light bones for easy flying.
4. The body of the birds is covered with feathers.

Question 4.
What are the different types of invertebrates?
Answer:

1. Protozoa ( unicellular)
2. Porifera
3. Coelenterata
4. Platyhelminthes
5. Aschelminthes
6. Annelida
7. Arthropoda
8. Mollusca
9. Echinodermata

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the various features which help Camel dwell well in the desert.
Answer:

1. The long leg of the camel helps to keep its body away from the desert.
2. Camel will drink a large amount of water and store it in the body.
3. Camel produces only a small quantity of urine.
4. The stored fat in the hump can break down for nourishment
5. A camel has large and flat padded feet which help in walking easily on soft sand.
6. The long eyelashes and hairs protect its eyes and ears from flowing dust.
7. It can keep its nostrils closed to avoid dust.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a unicellular organism
(a) Fish
(b) frog
(c) Euglena
(d) Lizard
Answer:
(c) Euglena

Question 2.
Polar bear and Penguins dwell in _______
(a) Cold region
(b) Hot region
(c) Cold and Hot region
(d) Forest region
Answer:
(a) Cold region

Question 3.
The animal lives in water and on land.
(a) Frog
(b) fish
(c) pigeon
(d) camel
Answer:
(a) Frog

Question 4.
Euglena moves with the help of
(a) Flagellum
(b) Cilia
(c) Pseudopods
(d) Legs
Answer:
(a) flagellum

Question 5.
Among the following, which Bird Sanctuary located in Tamilnadu?
(a) Kadalundi
(b) Bharatpur
(c) Vedanthangal
(d) Sultanpur
Answer:
(c) edanthangal

II. True or false. If it is wrong correct it and write.

1. Unicellular organisms grow by mitotic division.
2. The streamlined body of fish helps in swimming.
3. The tail of the bird helps it to control the direction of the movement and balance.
4. The hind limbs of birds are modified into wings
5. The tail of birds help in controlling the direction of the movement

Answer:

1. False – In unicellular organisms, the size of the cell increases as it grows
2. True
3. True
4. False – The forelimbs of birds are modified as wings.
5. True

III. Name the parts in a diagram.

Question 1.
In the given diagram name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. Pseudopodia
B. Nucleus

Question 2.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. cilia
B. Contractile Vacuoles.

Question 3.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts

Answer:
A. Flagella
B. Nucleus.

IV. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
Give some examples of a unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:
Unicellular: Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena
Multicellular: Fish, Frog, Lizard, Birds, Man

Question 2.
What is meant by migration?
Answer:
When an animal moves from its location as the season changes it is called migration.

Question 3.
Define Adaptation.
Answer:
The presence of specific body features, for certain habits, which enable a plant or an animal to live in a particular habitat is called adaptation.

Question 4.
What is hibernation?
Answer:
Spending winters in a dormant condition is called hibernation, (eg) Turtle.

Question 5.
Which part protects the body of fish?
Answer:
Most of the fishes have slippery scales all over the body. It protects the body of fish.

Question 6.
Name any three bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Vedanthangal, Kodiyakkarai, and Koondhankulam are the bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.

V. Detailed answer:

Question 1.
Give an account of adaptations of birds.
Answer:

1. Birds body is covered with feathers that are helpful in flying with reduced weight.
2. The mouth is converted into beaks.
3. They respire through the lungs.
4. Their forelimbs are modified as wings.
5. They have hollow bones.
6. With the help of a pair of clawed feet, birds can hop move, and run.

Question 2.
Describe various adaptive features of fishes.
Answer:

1. The head, trunk, and tail of a fish merge to form a streamlined shape.
2. It helps the fish to move through the water easily.
3. Gill is a special respiratory organ. It is adapted to breathe in water.
4. Most of the fishes have slippery scales. It protects the body.
5. It has fins for swimming.
6. It has a strong tail. It acts as a rudder to change direction and keeps its body balance in the water.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 2.
The Panchsheel Treaty has been signed between ……………..
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 3.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 4.
Apartheid is ………………
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A policy of racial discrimination

Question 5.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to:
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence

Question 6.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 7.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 8.
Find the odd one ………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.
Non-Alliance means:
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarisation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(d) none of the above

Question 10.
Non-military issues are
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India conducted its first nuclear test at ……………..
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate …………….. for domestic growth and development.
3. …………….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. …………….. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice ……………..

Answer:

1. Pokhran
2. Inward Investment Business Technology
3. Diplomacy
4. Non – Alignment
5. disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 2.
Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance.
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) only

Question 3.
Write true or false against each of the statement.
(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer:
(a) – True
(b) – False
(c) – True

Question 4.
Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(R): This began with a disastrous Indo -China war of 1962.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations. Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A

Question 6.
Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from:
(a) acute poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is foreign policy?
Answer:
Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs, in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:

1. India’s nuclear policy is based on two themes:
   • (a) No first use
   • (b) Credible minimum deterrence.
2. India has decided not to use nuclear power for offensive purposes.

Question 3.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, as opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 4.
Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy.
Answer:
Domestic Policy:

1. Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.
2. It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.

Foreign Policy:

1. Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
2. Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

• Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
• Mutual non-interference
• Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence.

Question 6.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

1. Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers (America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
2. So he choose the path of Non – Alignment in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war and tried to form a third bloc of nations in international affairs.

Question 7.
In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?
Answer:
India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.
List out the member countries of SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.
Name the architects of the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

Question 10.
Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Answer:
The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
Answer:

1. The team “Non – Alignment” was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at the United Nationsin 1953.
2. Non – Alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
3. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.
4. It was the largest political grouping of countries in a multilateral fora.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.
6. It has transformed from a political movement to an economical movement.

The founding fathers of Non – Aligned Movement: Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

The Non – Alignment roots did not prevent India from entering into an alignment with the Soviet Union by the Indo – Soviet treaty of 1971 (20 – year pact of ‘peace, friendship and co operation’)

Then India embarked on a substantial programme of military modernisation. In 1974, India also conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran under Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project, in response to China’s nuclear test in 1964 at Lop Nor.

Question 2.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:

• Geographical position and size of the territory
• Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis
• Natural resources
• The compulsion of economic development
• Political stability and structure of government
• The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
• Military strength
• International milieu

Question 3.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:
Prioritising an integrated Neighbourhood first policy:

1. India’s foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalities.
2. India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.
3. Greater connectivity and integration is provided so as to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy, capital and information.

Bridging diplomacy and development:

1. One of the major objectives India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This includes improving technological access, sourcing capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

A gradual transition from “Look East” to “Act East” Policy:

1. South East Asia begins with North East India.
2. Myanmar is our land bridge to the countries of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).
3. The purpose is to ensure a stable and multipolar balance of power in the Indo – Pacific and to become an integral part of Asia.
4. This policy emphasises a more priductive role for ASEAN ans EAST Asian countries.

Economic development:

1. Currently India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
2. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.
3. Accelerated, balanced and inclusive economic development to achieves this by ensuring peace and security, and by leveraging the nation’s international partnership.

India as a leading power:

1. India is a member of the G20, the East Asia Summit and the BRICS coalition atestament to its status as a large country with a fast growing economy.
2. India aspires for permanent membership of this UN Security Council.
3. India now has an increasing range of interests, which are anchored in different parts of the world and which stem from a wide range of factors (energy, natural resources, investment, trade etc.,)

New challenges forced India to adjust to new realities. Even then, basic framework of its foreign policy remained more (or) less the same.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and to change if you were the decision maker.
Answer:
India’s Foreign Policy focus on the following:

1. Preservation of national interest
2. Achievement of world peace
3. Disarmament
4. Maintaining cordial relationship with other countries
5. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

If I imagine myself as a decision maker of India’s foreign policy, I would like to retain the following two aspects of foreign policy.

1. Maintaining world peace, Disarmament.
2. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

The two aspects of foreign policy that I would like to change are:

1. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries. We can maintain cordial relationship with all countries, but if they tries to attract us, we should be ready to defend ourselves.
2. Equality in conducting International relations. We can maintain an equality in International relations along with the improvement in scientific economic aspects.

So, it can be enhancement in scientific and economic aspects in relation with other countries.

Note: The answer given is purely a sample answer, students should understand the answer, analyse, and think to give their personal views on the activity and submit to their teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which policy seeks to secure the best interest of the people? (territory and economy of the country).
(a) Panchsheel
(b) Imperialism
(c) Foreign Policy
(d) Non-co-operation
Answer:
(c) Foreign Policy

Question 2.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s five principles of peace are named as …………
(a) Swadesh
(b) New Deal
(c) Panchsheel
Answer:
(c) Panchsheel

Question 3.
An objective and goal oriented foreign policy has the potential to achieve:
(a) improved relation with other Nation.
(b) To accelerate growth
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
India is called by the name of ………..
(a) Superpower
(b) Terrorist
(c) A great peacemaker
Answer:
(c) A great peacemaker

Question 5.
Which Institute provides training for officers of Indian Foreign Services (IFS)?
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute
(b) An international association
(c) Ministry of external affairs of India
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute

Question 6.
China became a Republic in ………..
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 7.
………………… principles were incorporated in the Bandung Declaration.
(a) Non – Aligned Movement
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Trade and commerce
(d) Racial discrimination
Answer:
(b) Panchsheel

Question 8.
Bangladesh got freedom due to the efforts of ………….
(a) Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Indira Gandhi

Question 9.
What is the main aim of India’s foreign policy in the following?
(a) World co – operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by ………….
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Abul Ashar
(c) Jinnah
Answer:
(a) V. Krishna Menon

Question 11.
Whose vote against Iran at the’lnternational Atomic Energy agency?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) India

Question 12.
The foremost task of india’s foreign policy:
(a) Domestic transformation
(b) Inward investment
(c) Business and technology
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
India’s global security concerns:
(a) Military modernisation
(b) Nuclear policies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 14.
Mention the basic concepts of India’s Foreign Policy.
(a) Disarmament
(b) Colonisation
(c) Imperialism
(d) Racism
Answer:
(a) Disarmament

Question 15.
How many member countries in SAARC organisation?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 16.
Which of the following country is a member of the SAARC?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) Egypt
(d) Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 17.
………………… policies aim to promote welfare economics and collective self-reliance among the countries (South Asia)
(a) SAARC
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Non – Alignment
(d) none
Answer:
(a) SAARC

Question 18.
………………… is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.
(a) Diplomacy
(b) Disarmament
(c) Racism
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Diplomacy

Question 19.
Who supported UN disarmament programme?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Srilanka
(c) China
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 20.
………………… is the world’s second most populous country.
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(b) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Foreign Service Training Institute was established in ………………….
2. The Afro – Asian conference held in ………………….
3. …………………. has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
4. The founding father of NAM …………………. of India.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of …………………. countries and …………………. international organisation.
6. India embarked on a substantial programme of ………………
7. The ……………… is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
8. The ……………… stance of India was supporting the cause of decolonisation.
9. India supported UN ……………… programme.
10. ……………… is an organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in ………………
11. SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at ………………
12. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by ………………
13. The SAARC policies aim to accelerate ……………… development in the region.
14. ……………… is the nations plan for dealing with other nations.
15. India aspires for permanent membership on the ………………
16. ……………… forced India to adjust new realities.
17. Indo – US civilian ……………… marks significant progress in India’s foreign policy.
18. India provides ……………… with support as needed in the form of resources and training.
19. Since ……………… global non – proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
20. Indian ……………… in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Answers:

1. 1986
2. Indonesia
3. Non – Alignment
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
5. 120, 10
6. Military modernisation
7. Non – Aligned Movement
8. foreign policy
9. disarmament
10. SAARC, South Asia
11. New Delhi
12. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
13. Socio-cultural
14. Foreign Policy
15. UN Security Council
16. New Challenges
17. Nuclear deal
18. neighbours
19. Independence
20. Nuclear Programme

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not about SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)?
(i) SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in south Asia.
(ii) SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economics and to accelerate socio-cultural development in the region.
(iii) SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at Mumbai.
(iv) SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by (ISRO).
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Ministry of External Affairs of India also known as Foreign Ministry comes under Government of India.
Reason (R): It is responsible for the conduct of foreign relations of India.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): During Cold, War India tried to form a third block of Nations in international affairs.
Reason (R); The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was world cooperation world peace racial equality and non – alignment.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Which of the following is about NAM?
(i) Non – alignment has been regarded most important feature if India’s Foreign Policy.
(ii) NAM was formed with 180 member countries.
(iii) NAM is establishing economic cooperation among under developed countries.
(iv) It was the largest political groping countries in a multilateral fora.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (ii),(iv)
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): : Since Independence global Non – proliferation has been dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
Reason (R): So India’s supported U.N Disarmament programme.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column ll.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is Diplomacy?
Answer:
Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.

Question 2.
What is meant by G – 20 global group of countries?
Answer:
G – 20 refers to the largest established and emerging economies of the world. India is also a member of G – 20 countries.

Question 3.
Write a note on the policy of Apartheid.
Answer:

1. In South Africa the whites, did not give equal rights to the Native Africans.
2. India raised this issue for the first time in the UN General Assembly in 1946.
3. It was due to the constant moral support of India and the continuous struggle of Dr. Nelson Mandela, the policy of Apartheid was abolished in 1990.

Question 4.
List out the basic concept of India’s of foreign policy?
Answer:

1. Preservation of National interest.
2. Achievement of world peace.
3. Disarmament
4. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
5. Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
6. Equality in conducting international relations.
7. Anti – colonialism anti – imperialism anti – racism.

Question 5.
Write short notes on Article-51.
Answer:
Lays down the Directive Principles of India’s foreign policy.
The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote international peace and security
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for international law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Question 6.
What is the major objectives of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

1. one of the major objectives of India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This include improving technological access source of capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

Question 7.
What are the elements in our eastern policy?
Answer:
The three big elements in our eastern policy are stronger emphasis on physical connectivity commercial and security related.

Question 8.
Non – Alignement defined by Nehru?
Answer:
“Broudly, non – alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocks. It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not form the military point of view, though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly relations with all countries”.
– Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
Mention few basic determinants of a foreign policy.
Answer:

1. Geographical position and size of territory.
2. Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.
3. Natural resources
4. Political stability and structure of Government.

Question 10.
What do you mean by NAM?
Answer:
NAM means Non – Aligned Movement.

1. The NAM is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
2. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not , jointing any military alliance.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain about the shifts in India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The shifts in India’s policy manifested in various ways such as:

1. Better relations with China – The look East policy (1992).
2. The second nuclear test at Pokhran (1998) in Rajasthan.
3. Defence procurement relationship with Israel.
4. Energy diplomacy with Arab countries and Iran.
5. Agreeing to US nuclear missile defence programme and
6. India’s vote against Iran at the International Automatic Energy Agency.

Question 2.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

(i) India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
(ii) SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
(iii) Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary-general of SAARC.
(iv) The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.

(v) On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting Afghanistan become its 8th member.

(vi) 18th SAARC summit took place on 26th and 27th of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.

(vii) The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 3.
How India accelerated balanced and inclusive economic development?
Answer:

1. India achieved economic development by ensuring peace and security.
2. By leveraging the nations international partnership, to obtain all that is needed to fuel economic development.
3. Economic development in the filed of markets, investment, fair global governance and a stable and fair environment conducive for growth.
4. Currently’ India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
5. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.

Question 4.
Explain about the principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Lays down directive principles of India’s foreign policy.

The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote International Peace and Security.
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for International law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration.

Question 5.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

1. SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia.
2. The SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economies, collective self – reliance and to accelerate socio – cultural development in the region.
3. SAARC Disaster Management Center was set up at New Delhi.
4. This centre working on various dimensions of disaster risk reduction and management,
5. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication-cum-meteorology satellite by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the SAARC region.
6. The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, and SriLanka.