Bhagya

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When an object is heated, the molecules that make up the object
(a) begin to move faster
(b) lose energy
(c) become heavier
(d) become lighter
Answer:
(a) begin to move faster

Question 2.
The unit of heat is
(a) newton
(b) joule
(c) volt
(d) Celsius
Answer:
(b) joule

Question 3.
One litre of water at 30°C is mixed with one litre of water at 50°C. The temperature of the mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) More than 50°C but less than 80°C
(c) 20°C
(d) around 40°C
Answer:
(d) around 40° C

Question 4.
An iron ball at 50°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 50°C. The heat will
(a) flow from iron ball to water.
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
(c) flow from water to iron ball.
(d) increase the temperature of both.
Answer:
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Heat flows from a ……….. body to a ………… body.
2. The hotness of the object is determined by its ………..
3. The SI unit of temperature is …………
4. Solids ……….. on heating and ………… on cooling.
5. Two bodies are said to be in the state of thermal ………… if there is no transfer of heat taking place.

Answer:

1. hot, cold
2. temperature
3. Kelvin
4. expand, contract
5. equilibrium

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. Heat is a kind of energy that flows from a hot body to a cold body.
2. Steam is formed when heat is released from water.
3. Thermal expansion is always a nuisance.
4. Borosilicate glass do not expand much on being heated.
5. The unit of heat and temperature are the same.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Steam is formed when the heat is absorbed from the water.
3. False – Thermal expansion is always not a nuisance.
4. True
5. False – Unit of heat and temperature are different.

IV. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
An ordinary glass bottle cracks when boiling water is poured into it, but a borosilicate glass bottle does not.
Answer:
The reason is that the borosilicate glass does not expand much on being heated and therefore they do not crack.

Question 2.
The electric wire which sag in summer become straight in winter.
Answer:

1. During summer thermal expansion takes place in electric wire.
2. In winter it contracts so it becomes straight.

Question 3.
Rivet is heated before fixing in the hole to join two metal plates.
Answer:

1. When we heat rivet expansion takes place and becomes soft.
2. One end of the rivet is hammered to form a new head.
3. When cooled, the rivet will contract and hold tightly.

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – c
3. – d
4. – a
5. – b

VI. Analogy

1. Heat: Joule :: Temperature : ………
2. Ice cube : 0°C :: Boiling water : ………..
3. Total Kinetic Energy of molecules: Heat:: Average Kinetic Energy : …………….

Answer:

1. Kelvin
2. 100° C
3. Temperature

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Make a list of electrical types of equipment at home from which we get heat.
Answer:
Water heater, Iron box, Electric kettle, Micro oven.

Question 2.
What is the temperature?
Answer:
The measurement of the warmness or coldness of a substance is known as its temperature.

Question 3.
What is thermal expansion?
Answer:
The expansion of a substance on heating is called thermal expansion.

Question 4.
What do you understand by thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
When two objects in thermal contact, no longer affect each other’s temperature, there exists Thermal equilibrium.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What difference do you think heating the solid will make in their molecules?
Answer:

1. When we heat solids the vibrations and movement of molecules will increase.
2. The temperature of the object increases.
3. The distance between molecules will increase.

Question 2.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain thermal expansion with suitable examples.
Answer:
Thermal expansion: The expansion of a substance on heating is called, the thermal expansion of that substance.

Fitting the iron rim on the wooden wheel:

1. The diameter of the iron ring is slightly less than that of the wooden wheel.
2. So, it cannot be easily slipped on from the rim of a wooden wheel.
3. The iron ring is, therefore, first heated to a higher temperature so that it expands in size and the hot ring is then easily slipped over to the rim of the wooden wheel.
4. Coldwater is now poured on the iron ring so that it contracts in size and holds the wooden wheel tightly.

Rivetting:

1. Rivets are used to join two steel plates together.
2. Hot rivet is driven through the hole in the plates.
3. One end of the rivet is hammered to form a new rivet head.
4. When cooled, the rivet will contract and hold the two plates tightly together.

Cracking of a thick glass tumbler:

1. Glass is a poor conductor of heat.
2. When hot liquid is poured into the tumbler, the inner surface of the tumbler becomes hot and expands while the outer surface remains at room temperature and does not expand.
3. Due to this unequal expansion, the tumbler cracks.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
When a window is accidentally left open on a winter night, will you feel uncomfortable because the cold is getting in, or because the heat is escaping from the room?
Answer:

1. When a window is left open on a winter night I will feel uncomfortable because the heat is escaping from the room.
2. The heat will transfer from high temperature to low temperature.
3. During winter cold air enters the room, so room temperature will decrease.

Question 2.
Suppose your normal body temperature was lower than what it is. How would the sensation of hot and cold change?
Answer:

1. When our body temperature is lower than normal temperature, We feel hot from the surrounding.
2. Because the surrounding temperature will be high compare to our body.

Question 3.
If you heat a circular disk with a hole, what change do you expect in the diameter of the hole? Remember that the effect of heating increases the separation between any pair of particles.
Answer:
Many of us “expect” that the diameter of the hole will decrease because the circular disk is free to expand in all directions as well. Note that expansion of metal due to heating is not like gas spreading out wherever space is available. The correct way to think about it is as follows: Hole size is irrelevant in this case. So we can think that hole is very large.

If we carve a hole so large that its radius is slightly less than that of the circular disk itself, then we will have a ring. It is obvious that the radius of the ring will increase, as atoms have more energy so their oscillation amplitude will increase. As the diameter of the ring increases, the diameter of the hole will also increase.

For example, if you want to insert one hallow pipe inside another hollow pipe of the same diameter, just heat anyone and insert the second one into the heated pipe. This explains the answer in an easy way. So it says that diameter will increase with increasing temperature.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
When an electric current is passing through the conductor …………… energy is produced.
(a) Electric
(b) Heat
(c) Chemical
(d) Kinetic energy
Answer:
(b) Heat

Question 2.
One day in 1922, the air temperature was measured at 59°C in the shade in Libya ________
(a) America
(b) Africa
(c) Antarctica
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

Question 3.
The temperature of boiling water is …………..
(a) 0° C
(b) 32° C
(c) 100° C
(d) 110° C
Answer:
(c) 100°C

Question 4.
The temperature determines the direction flow of _______
(a) heat energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) potential energy
(d) light energy
Answer:
(a) heat energy

Question 5.
When we cool the liquid it will become …………..
(a) Gas
(b) Solid
(c) Vapour
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Solid

II. Say True or False.

1. Heat is measured in Celsius or centigrade.
2. Temperature in the form of energy.
3. The normal temperature of our body is 37°C.
4. Two objects are said to be in thermal contact if they can exchange heat energy.
5. When the vibrations move from one molecule to another molecule heat will flow.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

III. Match the Following:

Answer
1. – iv
2. – i
3. – ii
4. – v
5. – iii

IV. Analogy

1. Summer : Sag :: Winter : …………
2. Evaporation : 100°C :: Freezing : …………

Answer:

1. contract
2. 0°C

V. Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Gaps are left in between rails while laying a railway track.
Answer:
Reason: During summer thermal expansion takes place.

Question 2.
Hot metal ball of 80° C is dipped into water of 80°C. The ball will not contract.
Answer:
Reason: Both are in same temperature.

VI. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the sources of heat?
Answer:

1. The main source of heat is Sun.
2. Other sources are combustion, friction and electricity.

Question 2.
Define – heat.
Answer:
Heat is an energy that raises the temperature of a thing by causing the molecules in that thing to move faster.

Question 3.
How will you identify two objects are said to be in thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
Two objects in thermal contact have same temperature they are said to be in thermal equilibrium.

Question 4.
What are the measuring unit of temperature?
Answer:
SI unit of temperature is kelvin. Celsius and Fahrenheit are the other units used.

Question 5.
What will determine the direction of flow of heat from one object to another?
Answer:
Temperature will determine the direction of the flow of heat.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain linear expansion with an experiment.
Answer:

1. The expansion in length is called linear expansion.
2. Take a bulb, dry cell, candle, cycle spoke, coin, and two wooden boxes.
3. Place one end of the cycle spoke on a wooden block and connect an electric wire to it. Put a stone over the spoke to hold it.
4. The other one of the cycle spoke is placed on another wooden block.
5. Wrap some electric wire around the coin and place it on the block. Put a stone over the coin to hold it in place.
6. Connect bulb and dry cell to the free ends of wires connected to the coin and the spoke and make the circuit.
7. When we heat the cycle spoke with a candle the length will expand and touches the coin.
8. So the circuit completes, the bulb will glow.
9. When we cool the spoke it contracts and does not touch the coin. So the circuit will disconnect, the bulb will not glow.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Computer – An Introduction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who is the father of computer?
a. Martin Luther King
b. Graham Bell
c. Charlie Chaplin
d. Charles Babbage
Answer:
d. Charles Babbage

Question 2.
Which of the following is another form of computer?
(a) Blackboard
(b) Mobile
(c) Radio
(d) Book
Answer:
(b) Mobile

Question 3.
When was the first computer introduced?
a. 1980
b. 1947
c. 1946
d. 1985
Answer:
c. 1946

Question 4.
Who is the computer’s first programmer?
(a) Lady Wellington
(b) Augusta ado Lovelace
(c) Mary Curie
(d) Mary Comb
Answer:
(b) Augusta ado Lovelace

Question 5.
Pick out the odd one?
a. Calculator
b. Abacus
c. Flash Card
d. Laptop
Answer:
c. Flash Card

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Data is ………… Information.
2. World’s first general purpose computer is ……….
3. Information is ……… data
4. Fifth generation computer has ………. Intelligence.
5. ………… is the device that uses Index number.

Answer:

1. Processed
2. Electronic Numerical Integrator and computer
3. a form of processed
4. Artificial
5. Analog Computer

III. State True or false.

1. The computer is an Electronic device.
2. Sir Isaac Newton invented the Computer.
3. The computer can do calculations fast.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – e
5. – a

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is a Computer?
Answer:
Computer is an electronic device that processes data and information according to our needs.

Question 2.
Who are the pioneers/forerunners of computers?
Answer:
1. Charles Babbage: a professor in mathematics has designed an analog computer. He is known as the father of computers.
2. Augusta Ada Lovelace: the first programmer as she developed essential commands for mathematical operations.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Data.
Answer:

1. Data is the information that has to be processed.
2. They are in the form of numbers, alphabets, and images.

Question 4.
Name any four input devices.
Answer:
Keyboard, Mouse, Bar code reader, Digital camera, etc.

Question 5.
Differentiate Hardware and Software.
Answer:
Hardware: The parts that are available on the computer that helps the software to work.
Software: The commands or programs that are used on a computer.

VI. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Explain in detail the Applications of the computer.
Answer:

1. The computer is used in textile shops for billing purposes.
2. It is used in the railway station for issuing tickets.
3. It is used in the banks for multi-purpose.
4. It is used in ATMs.
5. It is used in the Post office.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Our body needs for muscle-building
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) Protein
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) Protein

Question 2.
Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of _______
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin C

Question 3.
Calcium is an example of a
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) Protein
(d) minerals
Answer:
(d) minerals

Question 4.
We should include fruits and vegetables in our diet, because _______
(a) They are the best source of Carbohydrates
(b) They are the best source of Proteins
(c) They are rich in minerals and Vitamins
(d) They have high water content
Ans:
(c) They are rich in minerals and Vitamins

Question 5.
Bacteria are very small microorganism.
(a) Prokaryotic
(b) Eukaryotic
(c) Protozoa Acellular
(d) Acellular
Answer:
(a) prokaryotic

II. True or False

1. There are three main nutrients present in food.
2. Fats are used as an energy store by our body.
3. All bacteria have flagella.
4. Iron helps in the formation of haemoglobin.
5. Virus can grow and multiply outside host.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Malnutrition leads to …………
2. Iodine deficiency leads to ……… in adults.
3. Vitamin D deficiency causes ………..
4. Typhoid is transmitted due to contamination of ……….. and water.
5. Influenza is a ………. disease.

Answer:

1. Deficiency diseases
2. Goitre
3. Rickets and water.
4. Food
5. Viral

IV. Complete the Analogy

1. Rice: Carbohydrate : : Pulses: …………
2. Vitamin D: Rickets : : Vitamin C: …………..
3. Iodine: Goitre : : Iron: ……………
4. Cholera: Bacteria : : Smallpox: ………….

Answer:

1. Protein
2. Scurvy
3. Anemia
4. Virus

V. Match the Following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – c

VI. Complete the Diagram

Answer:

VII. Write a Short Answer.

Question 1.
Write two examples for each of the following.
(a) Food items rich in fat.
(b) Vitamin deficiency diseases.
Answer:
(a) Food items rich in fat: Meat, fish, egg yolk, milk.
(b) Vitamin deficiency diseases: Night blindness, Beriberi, Scurvy, Rickets.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Carbohydrate and Protein.
Answer:
Carbohydrate:

1. Energy giving component of the food.
2. The sources of carbohydrates are nuts, fruits, rice, and maize.

Protein:

1. It is body building foods.
2. The sources of proteins are pulses, soybean, nuts, egg, and fish.

Question 3.
Define the term “Balanced diet”.
Answer:
A diet which contains a sufficient amount of various nutrients to ensure good health is called a Balanced diet.

Question 4.
Why should the fruits and vegetables not to be washed after cutting? Vitamins are of two types.
Answer:
We should not wash the fruits and vegetables after cutting, because the minerals and protein in the fruits and vegetables will also be washed away.

Question 5.
Write any two viral diseases.
Answer:
Common cold, smallpox, polio are viral diseases.

Question 6.
What are the main features of a microorganism?
Answer:
Microorganism will be seen with the help of a microscope. They are very small in size.

VIII. Long Answers.

Question 1.
Tabulate the vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best options

Question 1.
Name the sunshine Vitamin
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) K
Answer:
(b) D

Question 2.
_______ is a highly rich source of protein.
(a) Nut
(b) Gram
(c) Chicken
(d) Soya bean
Answer:
(d) Soya bean

Question 3.
The minerals are called by this name:
(a) Energy Food
(b) Balance diet
(c) Food for growth
(d) protective food
Answer:
(d) protective food

Question 4.
Ben Ben is caused due to the deficiency of _______
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin B
Ans:
(d) Vitamin B

Question 5.
How much water is needed for a man in a day?
(a) 2L
(b) 3L
(c) 1.5L
(d) 1L
Answer:
(a) 2 lr

II. Matching

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

III. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Define Nutrients.
Answers:
Chemical constituents of food which give us energy, help to build our body, and protect us from diseases are called Nutrients.

Question 2.
List the six important nutrition.
Answer:

1. Carbohydrate
2. Vitamins
3. Protein
4. Minerals
5. Fat
6. Water.

Question 3.
List out the types of vitamins.
Solution:
Vitamins are classified into six major types. They are Vitamin A, B, C, D, E, and K. In the type,
Vitamin B and C are water-soluble Vitamins
Vitamin A, D, E, K are Fat-soluble vitamins.

Question 4.
Differentiate between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor:
Stunted growth.
Swelling of face and limbs diarrhea.

Marasmus:
Skinny appearance.
slow body growth.

Question 5.
What are food items contain minerals?
Answer:
Green leafy vegetables like spinach, pulses, eggs, milk, fish, and fruits are food items that contain minerals.

IV. Give detailed Answers

Question 1.
Fill ABCDE in this tabular column.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the uses of exercise?
Answer:

1. It improves growth and development.
2. It delays aging.
3. It strengthens muscles and blood circulation.
4. It develops athletic skills and reduces weight.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The study of living things or organisms is called
a. Psychology
b. Biology
c. Zoology
d. Botany
Answer:
b. Biology

Question 2.
Which of the following are characteristics of living beings?
(i) Respiration
(ii) Reproduction
(iii) Adaptation
(iv) Excretion
Choose the correct sequence
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv)only
(d) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (I), (iv), (il) and (iii)

Question 3.
Lizards breathe through their
a. Skin
b. Gills
c. Lungs
d. Trachea
Answer:
c. Lungs

Question 4.
All animals need _______
(a) Food and water only
(b) Water only
(c) Air, food and water
(d) Food only
Answer:
(c) Air, food and water

Question 5.
Which animal has the special organs of breathing called gills
a. Earthworm
b. fox
c. Fish
d. frog
Answer:
c. Fish

Question 6.
Choose the set that represents only biotic components of a habitat.
(a) Tiger, Deer, Grass, Soil
(b) Rocks, Soil, Plants, Air
(c) Sand, Turtle, Crab, Rocks
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects
Answer:
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects

Question 7.
Which of the following cannot be called as a habitat?
a. A desert with camels
b. A pond with fish and snails
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle
d. A jungle with wild animals
Answer:
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle

Question 8.
Birds fly in the air with the help of _______
(a) heavy and strong Bones
(b) Soft and thick Bones
(c) Hollow and light Bones
(d) Flat and thick Bones
Answer:
(c) Hollow and light Bones

Question 9.
Paramecium moves from one place to other with the help of
a. Pseudopodia
b. flagella
c. Foot
d. cilia
Answer:
d. Cilia

Question 10.
Kangaroo rat lives In _______
(a) Aquatic habitat
(b) Desert habitat
(c) Grass land habitat
(d) Mountain habitat
Answer:
(b) Desert habitat

II. Multiple Choice Questions Complete the following with appropriate word(s).

1. Aquatic, deserts, mountains are called ……….
2. Based on the number of cells present animals are classified into ………. and ………..
3. Tail of a bird acts as a rudder which helps to ………..
4. Amoeba moves with the help of …………

Answer:

1. Habitat
2. Unicellular, multicellular
3. control the direction of the movement
4. Pseudopodium.

III. True or False, If False gives the correct answer.

1. A habitat is a living or dwelling place of an organism.
2. The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth remain the same from one place to another.
3. Amoeba is a unicellular organism and moves with pseudopodia.
4. Birds can see only one object at a time.
5. Paramecium is a multicellular organism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth do not remain the same from one place to another.
3. True
4. True
5. False – Paramecium is a unicellular organism.

IV. Complete the following

1. Tropical rain forests, grasslands, and deserts are known as ………..
2. Some living things are made of a single cell, they are called a……….. organism
3. The breathing organ of a fish is known as ………..
4. The lizard ……….. on the ground with its claw on its feet.
5. Camel stores ………… in its hump.

Answer:

1. habitat
2. unicellular
3. gills
4. walk and run
5. fat

V. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How do the birds catch their prey?
Answer:

• The prey-catching process depends on their types.
• The aquatic birds with the help of their beaks get their prey sliding upside down into the water.
• The birds of paddy fields get small insects with the help of sharp claws of their limbs.

Question 2.
Where can we see camels in India?
Answer:
We can see camels in the state of Rajasthan:

1. The dwelling places of camels
2. Jodhpur
3. Pushkar
4. Pikanur
5. Jaisalmer.

Question 3.
Name the locomotory organs of an Amoeba.
Answer:
Amoeba with the help of a finger-like projection called pseudopodia moves from place to place.

Question 4.
What are the body parts of the snake?
Answer:
Snake’s body is divided into-

1. Head
2. body
3. tail
4. Organs on the head-Two eyes, Two nostrils mouth.

Question 5.
Which structure helps the bird to change its direction while flying in the air?
Answer:
The tail helps the bird to change its direction while flying in air.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate between unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the adaptive features of polar bears and penguins.
Answer:
Polar bear:

1. They have short limbs.
2. They have limited body surface to reduce the body temperature
3. They have thick skin.
4. A polar bear has thick skin for protection against the cold climate.
5. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
6. They eat food rich in fat.

Penguin:

1. They have a boat-shaped body
2. Their feathers absorb sunlight
3. They have thick skin.
4. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
5. They have short wings to fly above the water and paddle for swimming.

Question 3.
Mention the feature that helps a bird to fly in the air?
Answer:

1. The streamlined body shape.
2. Their forelimbs are modified into wings.
3. They have hollow and light bones for easy flying.
4. The body of the birds is covered with feathers.

Question 4.
What are the different types of invertebrates?
Answer:

1. Protozoa ( unicellular)
2. Porifera
3. Coelenterata
4. Platyhelminthes
5. Aschelminthes
6. Annelida
7. Arthropoda
8. Mollusca
9. Echinodermata

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the various features which help Camel dwell well in the desert.
Answer:

1. The long leg of the camel helps to keep its body away from the desert.
2. Camel will drink a large amount of water and store it in the body.
3. Camel produces only a small quantity of urine.
4. The stored fat in the hump can break down for nourishment
5. A camel has large and flat padded feet which help in walking easily on soft sand.
6. The long eyelashes and hairs protect its eyes and ears from flowing dust.
7. It can keep its nostrils closed to avoid dust.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a unicellular organism
(a) Fish
(b) frog
(c) Euglena
(d) Lizard
Answer:
(c) Euglena

Question 2.
Polar bear and Penguins dwell in _______
(a) Cold region
(b) Hot region
(c) Cold and Hot region
(d) Forest region
Answer:
(a) Cold region

Question 3.
The animal lives in water and on land.
(a) Frog
(b) fish
(c) pigeon
(d) camel
Answer:
(a) Frog

Question 4.
Euglena moves with the help of
(a) Flagellum
(b) Cilia
(c) Pseudopods
(d) Legs
Answer:
(a) flagellum

Question 5.
Among the following, which Bird Sanctuary located in Tamilnadu?
(a) Kadalundi
(b) Bharatpur
(c) Vedanthangal
(d) Sultanpur
Answer:
(c) edanthangal

II. True or false. If it is wrong correct it and write.

1. Unicellular organisms grow by mitotic division.
2. The streamlined body of fish helps in swimming.
3. The tail of the bird helps it to control the direction of the movement and balance.
4. The hind limbs of birds are modified into wings
5. The tail of birds help in controlling the direction of the movement

Answer:

1. False – In unicellular organisms, the size of the cell increases as it grows
2. True
3. True
4. False – The forelimbs of birds are modified as wings.
5. True

III. Name the parts in a diagram.

Question 1.
In the given diagram name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. Pseudopodia
B. Nucleus

Question 2.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. cilia
B. Contractile Vacuoles.

Question 3.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts

Answer:
A. Flagella
B. Nucleus.

IV. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
Give some examples of a unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:
Unicellular: Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena
Multicellular: Fish, Frog, Lizard, Birds, Man

Question 2.
What is meant by migration?
Answer:
When an animal moves from its location as the season changes it is called migration.

Question 3.
Define Adaptation.
Answer:
The presence of specific body features, for certain habits, which enable a plant or an animal to live in a particular habitat is called adaptation.

Question 4.
What is hibernation?
Answer:
Spending winters in a dormant condition is called hibernation, (eg) Turtle.

Question 5.
Which part protects the body of fish?
Answer:
Most of the fishes have slippery scales all over the body. It protects the body of fish.

Question 6.
Name any three bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Vedanthangal, Kodiyakkarai, and Koondhankulam are the bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.

V. Detailed answer:

Question 1.
Give an account of adaptations of birds.
Answer:

1. Birds body is covered with feathers that are helpful in flying with reduced weight.
2. The mouth is converted into beaks.
3. They respire through the lungs.
4. Their forelimbs are modified as wings.
5. They have hollow bones.
6. With the help of a pair of clawed feet, birds can hop move, and run.

Question 2.
Describe various adaptive features of fishes.
Answer:

1. The head, trunk, and tail of a fish merge to form a streamlined shape.
2. It helps the fish to move through the water easily.
3. Gill is a special respiratory organ. It is adapted to breathe in water.
4. Most of the fishes have slippery scales. It protects the body.
5. It has fins for swimming.
6. It has a strong tail. It acts as a rudder to change direction and keeps its body balance in the water.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 2.
The Panchsheel Treaty has been signed between ……………..
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 3.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 4.
Apartheid is ………………
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A policy of racial discrimination

Question 5.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to:
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence

Question 6.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 7.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 8.
Find the odd one ………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.
Non-Alliance means:
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarisation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(d) none of the above

Question 10.
Non-military issues are
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India conducted its first nuclear test at ……………..
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate …………….. for domestic growth and development.
3. …………….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. …………….. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice ……………..

Answer:

1. Pokhran
2. Inward Investment Business Technology
3. Diplomacy
4. Non – Alignment
5. disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 2.
Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance.
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) only

Question 3.
Write true or false against each of the statement.
(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer:
(a) – True
(b) – False
(c) – True

Question 4.
Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(R): This began with a disastrous Indo -China war of 1962.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations. Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A

Question 6.
Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from:
(a) acute poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is foreign policy?
Answer:
Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs, in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:

1. India’s nuclear policy is based on two themes:
   • (a) No first use
   • (b) Credible minimum deterrence.
2. India has decided not to use nuclear power for offensive purposes.

Question 3.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, as opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 4.
Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy.
Answer:
Domestic Policy:

1. Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.
2. It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.

Foreign Policy:

1. Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
2. Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

• Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
• Mutual non-interference
• Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence.

Question 6.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

1. Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers (America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
2. So he choose the path of Non – Alignment in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war and tried to form a third bloc of nations in international affairs.

Question 7.
In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?
Answer:
India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.
List out the member countries of SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.
Name the architects of the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

Question 10.
Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Answer:
The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
Answer:

1. The team “Non – Alignment” was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at the United Nationsin 1953.
2. Non – Alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
3. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.
4. It was the largest political grouping of countries in a multilateral fora.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.
6. It has transformed from a political movement to an economical movement.

The founding fathers of Non – Aligned Movement: Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

The Non – Alignment roots did not prevent India from entering into an alignment with the Soviet Union by the Indo – Soviet treaty of 1971 (20 – year pact of ‘peace, friendship and co operation’)

Then India embarked on a substantial programme of military modernisation. In 1974, India also conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran under Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project, in response to China’s nuclear test in 1964 at Lop Nor.

Question 2.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:

• Geographical position and size of the territory
• Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis
• Natural resources
• The compulsion of economic development
• Political stability and structure of government
• The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
• Military strength
• International milieu

Question 3.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:
Prioritising an integrated Neighbourhood first policy:

1. India’s foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalities.
2. India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.
3. Greater connectivity and integration is provided so as to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy, capital and information.

Bridging diplomacy and development:

1. One of the major objectives India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This includes improving technological access, sourcing capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

A gradual transition from “Look East” to “Act East” Policy:

1. South East Asia begins with North East India.
2. Myanmar is our land bridge to the countries of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).
3. The purpose is to ensure a stable and multipolar balance of power in the Indo – Pacific and to become an integral part of Asia.
4. This policy emphasises a more priductive role for ASEAN ans EAST Asian countries.

Economic development:

1. Currently India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
2. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.
3. Accelerated, balanced and inclusive economic development to achieves this by ensuring peace and security, and by leveraging the nation’s international partnership.

India as a leading power:

1. India is a member of the G20, the East Asia Summit and the BRICS coalition atestament to its status as a large country with a fast growing economy.
2. India aspires for permanent membership of this UN Security Council.
3. India now has an increasing range of interests, which are anchored in different parts of the world and which stem from a wide range of factors (energy, natural resources, investment, trade etc.,)

New challenges forced India to adjust to new realities. Even then, basic framework of its foreign policy remained more (or) less the same.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and to change if you were the decision maker.
Answer:
India’s Foreign Policy focus on the following:

1. Preservation of national interest
2. Achievement of world peace
3. Disarmament
4. Maintaining cordial relationship with other countries
5. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

If I imagine myself as a decision maker of India’s foreign policy, I would like to retain the following two aspects of foreign policy.

1. Maintaining world peace, Disarmament.
2. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

The two aspects of foreign policy that I would like to change are:

1. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries. We can maintain cordial relationship with all countries, but if they tries to attract us, we should be ready to defend ourselves.
2. Equality in conducting International relations. We can maintain an equality in International relations along with the improvement in scientific economic aspects.

So, it can be enhancement in scientific and economic aspects in relation with other countries.

Note: The answer given is purely a sample answer, students should understand the answer, analyse, and think to give their personal views on the activity and submit to their teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which policy seeks to secure the best interest of the people? (territory and economy of the country).
(a) Panchsheel
(b) Imperialism
(c) Foreign Policy
(d) Non-co-operation
Answer:
(c) Foreign Policy

Question 2.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s five principles of peace are named as …………
(a) Swadesh
(b) New Deal
(c) Panchsheel
Answer:
(c) Panchsheel

Question 3.
An objective and goal oriented foreign policy has the potential to achieve:
(a) improved relation with other Nation.
(b) To accelerate growth
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
India is called by the name of ………..
(a) Superpower
(b) Terrorist
(c) A great peacemaker
Answer:
(c) A great peacemaker

Question 5.
Which Institute provides training for officers of Indian Foreign Services (IFS)?
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute
(b) An international association
(c) Ministry of external affairs of India
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute

Question 6.
China became a Republic in ………..
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 7.
………………… principles were incorporated in the Bandung Declaration.
(a) Non – Aligned Movement
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Trade and commerce
(d) Racial discrimination
Answer:
(b) Panchsheel

Question 8.
Bangladesh got freedom due to the efforts of ………….
(a) Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Indira Gandhi

Question 9.
What is the main aim of India’s foreign policy in the following?
(a) World co – operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by ………….
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Abul Ashar
(c) Jinnah
Answer:
(a) V. Krishna Menon

Question 11.
Whose vote against Iran at the’lnternational Atomic Energy agency?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) India

Question 12.
The foremost task of india’s foreign policy:
(a) Domestic transformation
(b) Inward investment
(c) Business and technology
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
India’s global security concerns:
(a) Military modernisation
(b) Nuclear policies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 14.
Mention the basic concepts of India’s Foreign Policy.
(a) Disarmament
(b) Colonisation
(c) Imperialism
(d) Racism
Answer:
(a) Disarmament

Question 15.
How many member countries in SAARC organisation?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 16.
Which of the following country is a member of the SAARC?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) Egypt
(d) Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 17.
………………… policies aim to promote welfare economics and collective self-reliance among the countries (South Asia)
(a) SAARC
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Non – Alignment
(d) none
Answer:
(a) SAARC

Question 18.
………………… is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.
(a) Diplomacy
(b) Disarmament
(c) Racism
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Diplomacy

Question 19.
Who supported UN disarmament programme?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Srilanka
(c) China
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 20.
………………… is the world’s second most populous country.
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(b) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Foreign Service Training Institute was established in ………………….
2. The Afro – Asian conference held in ………………….
3. …………………. has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
4. The founding father of NAM …………………. of India.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of …………………. countries and …………………. international organisation.
6. India embarked on a substantial programme of ………………
7. The ……………… is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
8. The ……………… stance of India was supporting the cause of decolonisation.
9. India supported UN ……………… programme.
10. ……………… is an organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in ………………
11. SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at ………………
12. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by ………………
13. The SAARC policies aim to accelerate ……………… development in the region.
14. ……………… is the nations plan for dealing with other nations.
15. India aspires for permanent membership on the ………………
16. ……………… forced India to adjust new realities.
17. Indo – US civilian ……………… marks significant progress in India’s foreign policy.
18. India provides ……………… with support as needed in the form of resources and training.
19. Since ……………… global non – proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
20. Indian ……………… in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Answers:

1. 1986
2. Indonesia
3. Non – Alignment
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
5. 120, 10
6. Military modernisation
7. Non – Aligned Movement
8. foreign policy
9. disarmament
10. SAARC, South Asia
11. New Delhi
12. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
13. Socio-cultural
14. Foreign Policy
15. UN Security Council
16. New Challenges
17. Nuclear deal
18. neighbours
19. Independence
20. Nuclear Programme

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not about SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)?
(i) SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in south Asia.
(ii) SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economics and to accelerate socio-cultural development in the region.
(iii) SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at Mumbai.
(iv) SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by (ISRO).
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Ministry of External Affairs of India also known as Foreign Ministry comes under Government of India.
Reason (R): It is responsible for the conduct of foreign relations of India.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): During Cold, War India tried to form a third block of Nations in international affairs.
Reason (R); The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was world cooperation world peace racial equality and non – alignment.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Which of the following is about NAM?
(i) Non – alignment has been regarded most important feature if India’s Foreign Policy.
(ii) NAM was formed with 180 member countries.
(iii) NAM is establishing economic cooperation among under developed countries.
(iv) It was the largest political groping countries in a multilateral fora.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (ii),(iv)
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): : Since Independence global Non – proliferation has been dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
Reason (R): So India’s supported U.N Disarmament programme.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column ll.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is Diplomacy?
Answer:
Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.

Question 2.
What is meant by G – 20 global group of countries?
Answer:
G – 20 refers to the largest established and emerging economies of the world. India is also a member of G – 20 countries.

Question 3.
Write a note on the policy of Apartheid.
Answer:

1. In South Africa the whites, did not give equal rights to the Native Africans.
2. India raised this issue for the first time in the UN General Assembly in 1946.
3. It was due to the constant moral support of India and the continuous struggle of Dr. Nelson Mandela, the policy of Apartheid was abolished in 1990.

Question 4.
List out the basic concept of India’s of foreign policy?
Answer:

1. Preservation of National interest.
2. Achievement of world peace.
3. Disarmament
4. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
5. Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
6. Equality in conducting international relations.
7. Anti – colonialism anti – imperialism anti – racism.

Question 5.
Write short notes on Article-51.
Answer:
Lays down the Directive Principles of India’s foreign policy.
The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote international peace and security
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for international law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Question 6.
What is the major objectives of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

1. one of the major objectives of India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This include improving technological access source of capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

Question 7.
What are the elements in our eastern policy?
Answer:
The three big elements in our eastern policy are stronger emphasis on physical connectivity commercial and security related.

Question 8.
Non – Alignement defined by Nehru?
Answer:
“Broudly, non – alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocks. It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not form the military point of view, though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly relations with all countries”.
– Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
Mention few basic determinants of a foreign policy.
Answer:

1. Geographical position and size of territory.
2. Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.
3. Natural resources
4. Political stability and structure of Government.

Question 10.
What do you mean by NAM?
Answer:
NAM means Non – Aligned Movement.

1. The NAM is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
2. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not , jointing any military alliance.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain about the shifts in India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The shifts in India’s policy manifested in various ways such as:

1. Better relations with China – The look East policy (1992).
2. The second nuclear test at Pokhran (1998) in Rajasthan.
3. Defence procurement relationship with Israel.
4. Energy diplomacy with Arab countries and Iran.
5. Agreeing to US nuclear missile defence programme and
6. India’s vote against Iran at the International Automatic Energy Agency.

Question 2.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

(i) India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
(ii) SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
(iii) Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary-general of SAARC.
(iv) The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.

(v) On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting Afghanistan become its 8th member.

(vi) 18th SAARC summit took place on 26th and 27th of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.

(vii) The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 3.
How India accelerated balanced and inclusive economic development?
Answer:

1. India achieved economic development by ensuring peace and security.
2. By leveraging the nations international partnership, to obtain all that is needed to fuel economic development.
3. Economic development in the filed of markets, investment, fair global governance and a stable and fair environment conducive for growth.
4. Currently’ India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
5. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.

Question 4.
Explain about the principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Lays down directive principles of India’s foreign policy.

The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote International Peace and Security.
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for International law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration.

Question 5.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

1. SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia.
2. The SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economies, collective self – reliance and to accelerate socio – cultural development in the region.
3. SAARC Disaster Management Center was set up at New Delhi.
4. This centre working on various dimensions of disaster risk reduction and management,
5. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication-cum-meteorology satellite by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the SAARC region.
6. The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, and SriLanka.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The pond is an example of ………
(a) Marine habitat
(b) Freshwater habitat
(c) Deserts
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(b) Freshwater habitat

Question 2.
The important function of stomata is ______
(a) Conduction
(b) Transpiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Absorption
Answer:
(b) Transpiration

Question 3.
Organs of absorption are ………
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Root

Question 4.
The habitat of water hyacinth is ______
(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Desert
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(a) Aquatic

II. True or False – If false give the correct answer.

1. Plants can live without water.
2. All plants have chlorophyll.
3. Plants have three parts; the root, the stem, and the leaves.
4. Mountain is an example of a freshwater habitat.
5. Root is modified into spines.
6. Green plants need sunlight.

Answer:

1. False – They need water to carry out various functions.
2. False – Only green plants have chlorophyll.
3. True
4. False – Mountain is an example of Terrestrial habitat.
5. False – Spines are usually modifications of leaves.
6. True

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. Earth’s surface is covered by ……….. % of water.
2. The driest places on earth are ……….
3. Fixation and absorption are the main functions of ……….
4. Primary organs of photosynthesis are ………..
5. Taproot system present in ……….. plants.

Answer:

1. 70%
2. Deserts
3. roots
4. leave
5. dicot.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
(i) – d
(ii) – c
(iii) – b
(iv) – e
(v) – a

V. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Leaf – Stem – Root – Flower
Answer:
root – stem – leaf – flower

Question 2.
Transpiration – Conduction – Absorption – Fixation.
Answer:
Fixation, Absorption, Conduction, Transpiration.

VI. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Classify plants on the basis of their habitat.
Answer:
Terrestrial and Aquatic are the 2 habitats

Question 2.
Identify the desert plant from the following – Cactus, Hydrilla, Mango, and Rose.
Answer:
Cactus plants – grow in deserts, and are able to store water in their stem.

Question 3.
Define the term habitat.
Answer:
Each and every organism needs a place to live and reproduce known as habitat.
The dwelling place of any organism is its habitat. Eg. Aquatic habitat

Question 4.
Relate the terms leaves and photosynthesis.
Answer:
Leaves are green in colour, they have chlorophyll and do photosynthesis.

VII. Short answer.

Question 1.
Why do you call Jasmine plants a twiner?
Answer:
Weak plant, cannot stand on its own, must climb on any support to survive.

Question 2.
Compare the taproot and fibrous root systems.
Answer:
Taproot system:

1. Consists of a single root.
2. it grows straight down in the ground
3. Seen in misogynous plants.

Fibrous root system:

1. Consists cluster of roots.
2. It is thin and uniform in size.
3. Seen in monocotyledonous plants.

Question 3.
Distinguish between terrestrial and aquatic habitats.
Answer:

Question 4.
List out the plants present in your school garden.
Answer:
Mango tree, Neem tree, Water lily, Clitoria, Hibiscus

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Make a list of functions of root & stem.
Answer:
Functions of root:
The root,

• Fixes the plant to the soil.
• Absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
• Stores food in some plants like carrots and beetroot.

Functions of stem:
The stem,

• Supports the branches, leaves, flowers, and fruits.
• Transports water and minerals from roots to upper aerial plant parts.
• Transports the prepared food from leaves to other parts.
• Stores food as in the case of sugarcane.

Question 2.
Study the given concept map. Connect them correcting by drawing arrow marks. Complete the map by filling in the blanks.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Maize has ……….
(a) taproot
(b) fibrous root
(c) Adventitious root
(d) Fasciculate root
Answer:
(b) fibrous root

Question 2.
The underground part of the main axis of a plant is known as ______
(a) shoot
(b) node
(c) root
(d) leaf
Answer:
(c) root

Question 3.
The stalk of the leaf is known
(a) peduncle
(b) rachis
(c) pedicel
d) petiole
Answer:
(d) petiole

Question 4.
On the lower side of the leaf, there are tiny pores or openings known as ______
(a) Leaf base
(b) midrib
(c) petiole
(d) stomata
Answer:
(d) stomata

Question 5.
The diameter of the leaf of Victoria amazonica is
(a) 2 meters
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 3 meters
(d) 1 meter
Answer:
(c) 3 meters

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Special features in plants which help them to survive in the habitats they live are known as ……….
2. The Great Indian Desert is an arid region of rolling sandhills on the Indian sub continent is known as ……….
3. ………. is the main vein of the lamina of the leaf.
4. A change in an organism caused by environmental factors is known as ………

Answer:

1. Adaptations
2. Thar desert
3. Midrib
4. Modification

III. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Sea – Lake – River – Pond
Answer:
Pond – Lake – River – Pond.

Question 2.
Internode – Node – Axillary Bud – Terminal Bud
Answer:
Terminal Bud – Axillary Bud – Node – Internodes.

IV. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Draw the structure of a leaf and neatly label the parts.
Answer:

Question 2.
List the main part of a flowering plant.
Answer:
The flowering plant consists of two main parts. They are

1. Root system
2. Shoot system

Question 3.
Differentiate between Gymnosperm and Angiosperm.
Answer:
Both groups produces seeds.
Gymnosperms – Non flowering but produce naked seeds Eg. Pinus, Cycas.
Angiosperms – Flowering and produce closed seeds Eg. Mango – Rose

Question 4.
Give some examples of monocotyledonous plants and dicotyledonous plants.
Answer:
Monocotyledonous plant – Grass, Paddy, Maize
Dicotyledonous plant – Bean, Mango, Neem

Question 5.
Notes on Thorns or Spines.
Answer:
Some plants leave – modified into sharp structures known as Thorns or Spines help to reduce water loss.
Eg – Agave – (leaf apex & margin modified into spines).

V. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Explain Tendril climber.
Answer:
Tendril a twining climbing organ of some weak stemmed plants.
It coils around support and helps the plant to climb.

1. Sweet peas – Here leaflets are modified into tendrils.
2. Bitter gourd – Axillary buds of plant-modified into tendril, help climb up.

Question 2.
Write about Desert Habitat.
Answer:

1. Dry places on earth
2. Less rainfall – less than 25 cm annually.
3. Deserts cover 20% of the earth’s surface.
4. Plants – Adapted to withstand severe heat.

Thick leaves help them to store water and minerals. Eg. Aloe

1. Stems modified to store water. Eg. Cactus
2. Leaves – modified into spines – Opuntia.

Question 3.
Study was given concept map. Connect them by drawing marks- for example, the map by filling the blanks.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
………. is not made of matter
(a) Gold ring
(b) iron nail
(c) light ray
(d) oil drop
Answer:
(a) light ray

Question 2.
200 ml of water is poured into a bowl of 400ml capacity. The volume of water now will be _____
(a) 400 ml
(b) 600 ml
(c) 200 ml
(d) 800 ml
Answer:
(c) 200 ml

Question 3.
Seeds from water-melon can be removed by method.
(a) Hand-picking
(b) filtration
(c) magnetic separation
(d) decantation
Answer:
(c) Hand picking

Question 4.
Lighter impurities like dust, when mixed with rice or pulses, can be removed by _____
(a) filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) decantation
(d) winnowing
Answer:
(d) winnowing

Question 5.
………… of is essential to perform winnowing activity
(a) Rain
(b) Soil
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Question 6.
Filtration method is effective in separating _____ mixture.
(a) solid – solid
(b) solid – liquid
(c) liquid – liquid
(d) liquid – gas
Answer:
(b) solid – liquid

Question 7.
From the following ………. is not a mixture
(a) Coffee with milk
(b) lemon juice
(c) Water
(d) ice cream embedded with nuts.
Answer:
(c) Water

II. State whether the following statements are True or False. If false give the correct statement

1. Air is not compressible.
2. Liquids have no fixed volume but have fixed shape.
3. Particles in solids are free to move.
4. Then pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of filtration.
5. Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a liquid from solid
6. Grain and husk can be separated by winnowing
7. Air is a pure substance
8. Butter from curds is separated by sedimentation.

Answer:

1. False. Air is Compressible.
2. False. Liquids have no fixed shape but have fixed volume.
3. False Particles in solids are not free to move.
4. False. When pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of Decantation.
5. False. Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a solid from liquid.
6. True.
7. False. Air is a mixture. (Or) Air is not a pure substance.
8. False. Butter from curds is separated by churning.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
1. – d
2. – e
3. – b
4. – c
5. – a

Question 2.

Answer:

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. Matter is made up of ………
2. In solids, the space between the particles is less than in ……….
3. Grains can be separated from their stalks by ……….
4. Chillies are removed from ‘upma’ by ……… method.
5. The method employed to separate clay particles from water is ……….
6. Among the following items: Safety pins, pencil and rubber band, ………. will get attracted to a magnet.
7. Water obtained from tube wells is usually ………. water

Answer:

1. Atoms
2. An Liquids
3. Threshlng
4. Hand picking
5. Filtration
6. Safety pins
7. Impure

V. Complete the given analogy

1. Solid: rigidity :: gas: …………
2. Large Inter-particle space: gas:: ………. : solid
3. Solid : definite shape :: ……… : shape of the vessel.
4. Husk-grains: winnowing:: Sawdust-chalk piece: ………..
5. Murukku from hot oil: ………. :: coffee powder residue from decoction
6. Iron-sulphur mixture: ……….. :: Mustard seeds from Urad-dhal: Rolling

Answer:

1. Compressibility
2. Little inter-particle space
3. Liquids
4. Sedimentation and Decantaium
5. Hand picking; Filtralion.
6. Magnetic Separation.

VI. Very short answer

Question 1.
Define the term matter.
Answer:
The matter is defined as anything that has mass and takes up space. The matter is found in solid, liquid, and gas.

Question 2.
How can husk or fine dust particles be separated from rice before cooking?
Answer:
Before cooking, the husk or fine dust particles in rice are being separated by ‘Sedimentation’. The lighter impurities float while heavier rice grains sink to the bottom.

Question 3.
Why do we separate mixtures?
Answer:
A mixture is an impure substance and contains more than one kind of particles. So, we have to separate mixtures.

Question 4.
Give an example for mixture and justify your answer with reason.
Answer:
An example of a mixture is 22 Carat Gold. This is composed of Gold and Copper (or) Gold and Cadmium.

Question 5.
Define Sedimentation.
Answer:
Sedimentation is the deposition process of setting down of heavy solids in a mixture of liquid and an insoluble solid.

Question 6.
Give the main difference between a pure substance and an impure substance.
Answer:
Pure Substance :
Made up of only one kind of particles.
Cannot be separated by physical means.

Impure Substance :
Has particles of other Substance mixed in it.
Can be separated by physical means.

VII. Short Answer.

Question 1.
A rubber ball changes its shape on pressing. Can it be called a solid?
Answer:
Yes. A solid has a certain shape and size. The shape of a rubber ball changes only if we squeeze it.

Question 2.
Why do gases not have fixed shape?
Answer:
Gases do not have a fixed shape due to the weak forces of attraction between the gaseous particles. Hence, they can flow and take shape of the container.

Question 3.
What method will you employ to separate cheese (paneer) from milk? Explain.
Answer:
“Churning followed by Coagulation” is employed to separate cheese (Paneer) from milk. There are six important steps in making cheese (Paneer) from milk:

1. Acidification
2. coagulation
3. separating curds and whey
4. Salting
5. shaping
6. ripening

Question 4.
Look at the picture given below and explain the method of separation illustrated.

Answer:
The given picture shows the ‘Sieving’ method of separation. It is used to separate the solid particles of different sizes. Example: Bran from flour; Sand from gravel.

Question 5.
How can you separate a mixture of a large number of tiny bits of paper mixed with pulses/dal?
Answer:
We can separate the mixture of a large number of tiny bits of paper and pulses/dal by “Winnowing”. The lighter papers will be carried by wind and heavier pulses/dais will fall closer and form a separate heap.

Question 6.
What is meant by food adulteration?
Answer:
The process of mixing harmful and unwanted substances with the foodstuffs that we buy in the market is called food adulteration

Question 7.
Mr. Raghu returns home on a hot summer day and wants to have buttermilk. Mrs. Raghu has only curds. What can she do to get buttermilk? Explain.
Answer:
Mrs. Raghu has to take half a cup of curd, add half a cup of water to it, and mix well. Now, she can serve buttermilk.

VIII. Answer In Detail.

Question 1.
Distinguish between properties of solid, liquid, gas. Draw a suitable diagram.
Answer:

Question 2.
Using a suitable apparatus from your laboratory, separate the mixture of chalk powder, mustard oil, water, and coins. Draw a flow chart to show the separation process.
Answer:

HOTS

Question 1.
Malar’s mother was preparing to cook dinner. She accidentally mixed ground nuts with urad-dhal. Suggest a suitable method to separate the two substances so that Malar can have ground nuts to eat.
Answer:
The groundnuts shall be separated by hand-picking method because they are in a different size When compared with urad-dhal.

Question 2.
In a glass containing some water, tamarind juice and sugar is added and stirred well. Is this a mixture-can you tell why? Will this solution be sweet? Or sour? Or both sweet and sour?
Answer:

1. A glass containing some water, Tamarind juice, and sugar is a mixture.
2. Because it is made up of two or more ingredients that are physically separable.
3. This mixture is both sweet and sour.

Question 3.
Justify your answer.
An arrangement of particles in three different phases of matter is shown above.

(a) Which state is represented by fig. I?
Answer:
Figure 1 represents a gas.

(b) In which will be the interparticle attraction maximum?
Answer:
Inter Particle attraction is maximum in solids (fig. 3)

(c) Which one of them cannot be contained in an open vessel?
Answer:
A gas (fig. 1) cannot be contained in an open vessel.

(d) Which one can take the shape of its container?
Answer:
Liquid (fig.2) can take the shape of its container.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following are homogeneous in nature?
(i) ice
(ii) wood
(iii) soil
(iv) Air
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 2.
A standard sheet of paper is about atoms thick.
(a) Thousands
(b) Crores
(c) Lakhs
(d) Million
Answer:
(d) Million

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a matter?
(a) Electron
(b) Blood
(c) Moonrock
(d) Humidity
Answer:
(a) Electron

Question 4.
One dot that you make with your pen has more than ______ lakh molecules.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Three
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 5.
Pure rava, when adultered with wheat flour, is separated by
(a) Sieving
(b) Filtration
(c) Winnowing
(d) Threshing
Answer:
(a) Sieving

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – a
4. – c

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……… particles are tightly packed into a definite shape.
2. The tendency of particles to spread out in order to occupy the available space is ………..
3. The purest form of gold is denoted by ………..
4. Milk is a ………..
5. The principle of ………. is used in washing machines.

Answer:

1. Solid
2. diffusion
3. 24 carat
4. mixture
5. centrifugation

IV. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Name the two microscopes which are used to identify the structure of the atom.
Answer:

1. SEM – Scanning Electron Microscope
2. TEM – Tunnelling Electron Microscope

Question 2.
What type of matter glass is?
Answer:
Glass is looking like a solid, but not. It is actually a very slow-moving liquid.

Question 3.
Give two examples of diffusion.
Answer:

1. Spread of a drop of ink in a glass of water.
2. Spread of the smell of an incense stick.

Question 4.
Mention the method of separation of Bran from flour. Explain.
Answer:
Bran from flour is separated by ‘sieving’.
Solid particles of different sizes can be separated by sieving.

Question 5.
Define the term ‘Liquefaction of gases’.
Answer:
The process by which substances in their gaseous state are converted to the liquid state is called Liquefaction of gases.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What are the similarities between a gas and a liquid?
Answer:

1. Neither gas nor a liquid has a definite shape.
2. The particles of gases and liquids can move. We call this movement diffusion.
3. Liquids can evaporate into gases and the gases can condense into liquids.
4. They can have the property of compressibility to some extent.

Question 2.
How do decantation and filtration differ and which is faster?
Answer:

Note: Normally filtration will give a better separation than decantation.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 3 State Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 State Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Governor of the State is appointed by the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 2.
The Speaker of a State is a ……………
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of government
(c) President’s agent
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative
(b) Executive
(c) Judicial
(d) Diplomatic
Answer:
(d) Diplomatic

Question 4.
Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Speaker of State legislature
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 5.
The Governor does not appoint:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Judges of the High Court
Answer:
(d) Judges of the High Court

Question 6.
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by …………….
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Governor
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 7.
The State Council of Ministers is headed by:
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Governor
(c) The Speaker
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The Chief Minister

Question 8.
The Legislative Council ………….
(a) has a term of five years
(b) has a term of six years
(c) is a permanent house
(d) has a term of four years
Answer:
(c) is a permanent house

Question 9.
The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is:
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Answer:
(c) 30 years

Question 10.
The members of the Legislative Council are ……………
(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly
(b) Mostly nominated
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.
(d) Directly elected by the people
Answer:
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.

Question 11.
Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
The High Courts in India were first started at ………………….
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
(b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras
(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
Answer:
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

Question 13.
Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Punjab and Haryana

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to ………………..
2. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the ………………..
3. ……………….. is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
4. ……………….. acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
5. The Seventh Amendment Act of ……………….. authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states.
6. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the ………………..

Answers:

1. The President
2. people
3. Mrs.Fathima Beevi
4. The Governor
5. 1956
6. President

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Only some states in India have Legislative Councils.
(ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
(iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
(iv) Some members are elected by Local bodies.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and iv are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State
Legislature only with the President’s approval.
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

V. Answer in brief questions

Question 1.
How the state of Jammu and Kashmir differ from the other states of India?
Answer:
(i) The Constitution of India grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian States, and it is the only state in India to have a separate Constitution.

(ii) The Directive Principles of the State Policy and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

(iii) Rights to property, which is denied as a Fundamental Right to rest of India is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state executive.
2. The administration of a state is carried on in the name of the governor.
3. The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature. But he is not a member in the legislature.
4. He has the right to summon, prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the Assembly.
5. Under Article 213 he can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.

Question 3.
What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
Answer:
Qualifications of the Governor is given below

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He must have completed 35 years of age.
3. He should not be a member of Parliament or any State legislature.
4. He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 4.
What is the original Jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:

1. Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court the High Courts have original Jurisdiction.
2. The presidency High Courts ( Bombay, Calcutta and Madras) have original Jurisdiction in which the amount involved is more than 2000 and the criminal cases which are committed to them by the presidency magistrates.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High Court?
Answer:
As courts of appeal, all High Courts hear appeals in both civil and criminal cases against the divisions of the subordinate courts and can review their judgements.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:

1. The leader of the majority’ party or majority group in the state Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
2. The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.

The Powers and Functions of the Chief Minister:

1. Relating to the council of Ministers
2. Relating to the Governor
3. Relating to the State Legislature
4. Other functions and powers

Relating to the Council of Ministers:

1. The Chief Minister recommends a person who can be appointed as Minister by the Governor.
2. He allocates the port folios to the Ministers
3. He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry
4. He presides over the cabinet meetings and influences its decisions,
5. In case of difference of opinion he can ask a minister to resign or advices the Governor to dismiss him,
6. If the Chief Minister resigns the council of Ministers are also should resign.
7. He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the Ministers.

Relating to the Governor:

1. The Chief Minister is the link between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
2. He advices the Governor in relation to the appointment of Advocate general of the state, State Election Commissioner, Chairman and members of the State Planning Commission, State Public Service Commission and the State Finance Commission.

Relating to State Legislature:

1. On the advice of the Chief Minister Governor officially summons & prorogues the sessions of the state legislature.
2. He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
3. He can introduce the bills in the Legislative Assembly.
4. Recommend for the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the Governor any time.

Other function and powers:

1. As the leader of the party he has to control the party and develop the disciplines.
2. To consider the demands of the different sections of the people.
3. As the political head supervise control and co-ordinate the secretaries of various departments in the state level.
4. For the smooth functioning of the state he has to develop a good rapport with the Central (Union) Government for good Centre-State relation.

Question 2.
Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the Governor are:
(i) The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State. All the administration is carried on in his name.

(ii) He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister of the State. He appoints other members of the council of Ministers on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.

(iii) He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission, the State Election Commissioner, the Attorney General of the State etc.

(iv) He has the right to summon, prorogue the State Legislature and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.

(v) The Money Bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the prior recommendation of the Governor.

(vi) He constitutes a Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats and the municipalities.

Question 3.
Briefly discuss the Functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Legislative powers:

1. As per the constitution can pass laws on all subjects mentioned in the State List.
2. The passing of Bill into law follows the same procedure as in the union Parliament.
3. The state can make laws on concurrent subject also. The state made law will become inoperative when the Centre also passes law on the same subject.
4. The Bill passed in the State legislature will become law after Governor’s assent.

Financial powers:

1. Money bills can be introduced only in the Lower House or Assembly
2. No new tax can be levied without the sanction and permission of the Assembly.
3. The Legislature controls the finances of the State.

Control over the Executive:

1. The Legislature controls over the Executive.
2. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Assembly.
3. They can be removed from the power if the Assembly passes “No confidence motion” against the Ministry.

Question 4.
Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions and powers of the Council of Ministers –

1. It formulates and decides the policies of the State and implements them effectively.
2. It decides the legislative programmes of the Legislative Assembly and sponsors all important bills.
3. It controls the financial policy and decides the tax structure for the public welfare of the State.
4. It chalks out programmes and schemes for the socio-economic changes so that the State makes headway in various inter-related fields,
5. It makes the important appointments of the heads of departments.
6. The Annual Financial Statement called as the Budget is finalised by the Council of Ministers.
7. It advises the Governor on the appointment of judges of the subordinate courts.

Question 5.
Describe the powers and functions of the High Court
Answer:
High Court is the highest court in the state. Every High Court consists of a Chief Justice and other judges appointed by the President. The High Court enjoys the following Jurisdiction.

(i) Original Jurisdiction: The High Court can hear the cases like such as matters of admiralty, probate and matrimonial, contempt of court and in criminal cases.

(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: As courts of appeal all High Courts appeals in civil and criminal cases and also cases of their own.

(iii) Writ Jurisdiction: Writs are issued by the High Court not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also where an ordinary legal rights has been infringed.

Kinds of Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition ,Quo Warranto, Certiorari.

(iv) Supervisory Jurisdiction:

(a) High Court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals, (except military courts)
(b) High Court has an administrative powers.
(c) Its law is binding on all subordinate courts functioning within its territorial jurisdiction.
(d) It is consulted by the governor in the matters of appointment , posting and promotion, grant of leave, transfers and discipline court of Record.
(e) All the decisions and decrees issued by the High Court are printed and kept as a record for future needs.

Judicial Review: To examine the constitutionality of Legislative enactments and executive orders of both the central and the State Governments.

VII. Project & Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a flow chart showing the State Government’s Administrative setup.
Answer:

Question 2.
Students to list out the names of the Tamil Nadu Governor, Chief Minister, Ministers and the Governors and Chief Ministers of the neighbouring States.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The State of ……………… has a separate constitution.
(a) Punjab & Haryana
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kerala & Karnataka
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.
Who is not appointed by the Governor?
(a) The Advocate General of the State
(b) The State Election Commissioner
(c) The Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court
Answer:
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Question 3.
The administration of the State is carried on in the name of the:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Speaker
(d) Governor
Answer:
(d) Governor

Question 4.
How many High Courts are there for all 29 States?
(a) 29
(b) 27
(c) 25
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 5.
The ……………… has the power to summon, prorogue the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of the Legislative Council
Answer:
(b) Governor

Question 6.
The State Government consists of …………… branches.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 7.
Under Article ……………… the Governor can pass ordinance when the State Assembly is not in session.
(a) 311
(b) 312
(c) 213
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 213

Question 8.
The ……………. provides a legislature for every state.
(a) Constitution
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan
Answer:
(a) Constitution

Question 9.
The total strength of Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu is:
(aj 231
(b) 240
(c) 245
(d) 235
Answer:
(d) 235

Question 10.
……………… can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Advocate general
(c) Chief Minister
Answer:
(c) Chief Minister

Question 11.
The institution of High Court originated in India in:
(a) 1826
(b) 1816
(c) 1862
(d) 1870
Answer:
(c) 1862

Question 12.
The Statue of ……………… has been kept in front of the High Court building.
(a) Rajaraja Cholan
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)
(c) Karikal Cholan
(d) Rajendra Cholan
Answer:
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Article 226 and 227 confer the power of ……………….. on a high court.
2. The ……………….. is the real centre of power in the State.
3. The Legislature of s State or a High Court has no power in the removal of ………………..
4. The present Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
5. The present Governor of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
6. The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly must not below ………………..
7. The Standing committee of the Cabinet is ………………..
8. The ……………….. is removed from the office by a resolution of the Assembly after giving a 14 days notice.
9. The Legislative Council is the ……………….. of the State legislature.
10. Article ……………….. deals with the creation or abolition of Legislative Council.

Answers:

1. Judicial review
2. Legislative Assembly
3. Governor
4. Thiru Edappadi K. Palaniswami
5. Thiru Banvarilal Purohit
6. Sixty
7. Permanent
8. Speaker
9. Upper House
10. 169

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed.
Reason (R): He may remain as the Chief Minister as long as he enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(b) (A) is false (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The number of judges varies from State to State.
Reason (R): The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President. .
(a) (A) is false (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A
(c) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A
(d) (A) is true (R) is false
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A

Question 3.
(i) High Courts are given power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
(ii) The jurisdiction is limited only to the fundamental rights.
(iii) Writs are issued by the High Court when an ordinary legal right has been fringed.
(iv) Article 32 empowered to issue such writs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Council of Ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
(ii) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the State Assembly.
(iii) The State ministry will be in power after the resignation of the Chief Minister.
(iv) Councils of Ministers do not aid and advice the Governor.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on cabinet and cabinet committees.
Answer:
The Cabinet is the nucleus of the Council of Ministers. It consists of only the Cabinet Ministers. It is the real centre of authority in the State Government.
The cabinet works through various committees called Cabinet Committees. They are of two types – standing and ad hoc – the former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature.

Question 2.
How the Governor is appointed to a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President.
2. Generally, the Governor does not belongs to the state where he is appointed.
3. He also be transferred from one State to another.
4. If situation warrants so, the same person may be appointed as the Governor of two or more States.
5. Usually the term of office is five years but he may be appointed as a Governor any number of terms during the pleasure of the President.

Question 3.
Throw light on the emergency powers of the Governor.
Answer:
If the Governor is convinced that the Government of the State is not carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, he may recommend to the President to impose Present Rule in that State. As soon as the President Rule is imposed, the administration of the State is carried on by the Governor as the representative of the President.

Question 4.
What is the strength of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu according to the strength of legislative Assembly (234 +1) . 234 members are directly elected by the people from the constituencies on the basis of adult franchise and one member is nominated by the Governor from Anglo-Indian community.

Question 5.
How are the members of the Legislative Council elected?
Answer:
The members of the Legislative Council or the Upper House are elected in the following ways.

• 1/3 of the members are elected by local bodies. .
• 1/12 of the members are elected by graduates of the universities in the State.
• 1/12 of the members are elected by the graduate teachers.
• 1/3 of the members are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.
• 1/6 is nominated by the Governor who is eminent in the field of literary excellence, art, social or cooperates.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the High Court of Madras?
Answer:

1. The High Court of Madras is the one of the three High Courts in India, established in the three presidency Towns of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras by letters patent granted by Queen Victoria dated 26th June 1862.
2. The High Court building is the second largest Judicial complex in the world after London.

Question 7.
Where were High Courts first established and when?
Answer:
High Courts were first established in the three Presidency cities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1862.

Question 8.
How many High Courts are there in our country and who decides the number of judges to each High court?
Answer:

1. At present there are 25 High courts for 29 states (including New Andhra Pradesh High court established in 1st January 2019 at Amaravati) and seven union territories.
2. The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President.

Question 9.
What do you mean by appellate system?
Answer:
It means that a person can appeal to a higher Court if they are not satisfied with the judgement of the lower Court.

Question 10.
Which Amendment abolished the power of Judicial Review by the state High Court? And by which amendment it was restored?
Answer:

1. The 42nd amendment of 1976 curtailed the power of Judicial Review by the High Court.
2. It debarred the constitutional validity of any central law.
3. The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are all the privileges enjoyed by the Governor?
Answer:

1. Article 361 (1) provides the following privileges to the Governor.
2. The Governor of the state, is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
3. No criminal proceedings what so ever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a state, in any court during his term of office.
4. No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the Governor of a state shall issue from any court during his term of office.
5. No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the Governor of the state.

Question 2.
How does a High Court keep control over the subordinate courts?
Answer:
A High, fourt has an administrative control over the subordinate Courts.
(i) It is consulted by the Governor in the matters of appointment, posting and promotions of District Judges and in appointments of persons to the judicial service of the State.

(ii) It deals with the matters of posting, promoting, grant of leave, transfers and discipline of . the members of the judicial services of the State.

(iii) It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law that requires the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either dispose of the case itself or determines the questions of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement.

(iv) Its law is binding on all subordinate Courts functioning with its territorial jurisdiction in the same sense as the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all Courts in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Writs issued by the High Court?
Answer:
Under Article 226 of the constitution the High Courts are given powers of issuing writs. They are:

Habeas Corpus: It is issued to a detaining authority ordering the detainer to produce the detained person in the issuing court, along with the cause of his or her detention.

If the detention is found to be illegal, the court issues an order to set the person free.

Mandamus: It is issued to a Subordinate Court, an office or Government, or a Corporation or other Institution commanding the performance of certain acts or duties.

Prohibition: The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court prohibiting it from taking up a case because it is not under the jurisdiction of the lower court. Thus the higher court transfers the case to it. Quo Warranto: It is issued against a person the legality of holding a public office. Through this writ the court inquires “by what authority”? The person supports his / her claim.

Certiorari: This writ is issued to lower court directing that the record of a case be sent up for review, together with all supporting files, evidence and documents. It is one of the mechanism by which the fundamental rights of the citizens are upheld.

Question 4.
What are the works done by the High Court under supervisory Jurisdiction?
Answer:
The High Court has the power of superintendence over all Courts and Tribunals functioning in its Territorial Jurisdiction ( except the Military Courts or Tribunals).

Thus it may

1. Call for returns from them.
2. Make an issue, general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of them.
3. Prescribe forms in which books, entries and accounts are to be kept by them and
4. Settle the fee payable to the sheriff, clerks, officers and legal practitioners of them.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Unit of speed is
a. m
b. s
c. kg
d. m/s
Answer:
d. m/s

Question 2.
Oscillatory motion among the following is
(a) Rotation of the earth about its axis
(b) Revolution of the moon about the earth
(c) To and fro movement of a vibrating string
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) To and fro movement of a vibrating string

Question 3.
The correct relation among the following is
a. speed = distance × time
b. Speed = distance / time,
c. speed = time / distance
d. Speed = 1 / (distance × time)
Answer:
b. Speed = distance / time

Question 4.
Gita rides with her father’s bike to her uncle’s house which is 40 km away from her home. She takes 40 minutes to reach there.
Statement 1 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/minute.
Statement 2 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/hour
(a) Statement 1 alone is correct.
(b) Statement 2 alone is correct.
(c) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 alone is correct

II. Find whether the following statements are true or false. – if false give the correct Answer.

1. To and fro motion is called oscillatory motion.
2. Vibratory motion and rotatory motion are periodic motions.
3. Vehicles moving with varying speeds are said to be in uniform motion.
4. Robots will replace human in future.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. Non-uniform.
4. False, Robots can never be conscious.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. A bike moving on a straight road is an example of ……… motion.
2. Gravitational force is a ………… force.
3. Motion of a potter’s wheel is an example of ………… motion.
4. When an object covers equal distances in equal interval of time, it is said to be in ……….. motion.

Answer:

1. Linear
2. non-contact
3. Rotatory
4. Uniform

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – e

V. Analogy:

1. Kicking a ball: contact force :: falling of leaf : …………
2. Distance : metre :: Speed : ………….
3. circulatory motion : a spinning top oscillatory motion : …………

Answer:

1. non contact forces
2. m/s
3. Pendulum

VI. Given below is the distance – travelled by an elephant across a forest with uniform speed. 

Complete the data of the table given below with the idea of uniform speed.

Answer:

VII. Complete the web chart.

Answer:

VIII. Give one word for the following statements.

Question 1.
The force which acts on an object without Physical contact with it.
Answer:
Non-contact force.

Question 2.
A change in the position of an object with time.
Answer:
Motion.

Question 3.
The motion which repeats itself after a fixed interval of time.
Answer:
Oscillatory motion.

Question 4.
The motion of an object travels equal distances in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
Uniform motion.

Question 5.
A machine capable of carrying out a complex series of actions automatically.
Answer:
Robots.

IX. Answer the following in a sentence or two:

Question 1.
Define force.
Answer:
Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.

Question 2.
Name different types of motion based on the path.
Answer:

1. Linear motion.
2. Curvilinear motion.
3. Circular motion.
4. Rotatory motion.
5. Oscillatory motion.
6. Zigzag (irregular) motion.

Question 3.
If you are sitting in a moving car will you be at rest or motion with respect to your friend sitting next to you?
Answer:
I am at rest with respect to my friend, sitting inside the car.

Question 4.
The rotation of the earth is a periodic motion. Justify.
Answer:
Motion repeated in equal intervals of time is called periodic motion. The earth rotates on its axis once in 24 hours. The duration of time is fixed as 24 hours. Therefore the rotation of the earth is a periodic motion.

Question 5.
Differentiate between rotational and curvilinear motion
Answer:

Rotational motion:

1. A body moves along a circular path.
2. Without changing its position, about its own (fixed) axis.
3. Eg. Rotation of a spinning top.

Curvilinear motion:

1. A body moves along a curved path.
2. Changes its position with motion.
3. Eg. Throwing paper airplanes or paper darts.

X. Calculate.

Question 1.
A vehicle covers a distance of 400 km in 5 hours calculate its average speed.
Answer:
Average speed = \(\frac{distence}{time}\)
= \(\frac{400}{5}\) = 80 km per hour

XI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is motion? classify different types of motion with examples.
Answer:
Motion: The change of position of an object with respect to time is known as motion.

1. Based on Path:

• Linear motion. – Ex.: Parade of the soldiers.
• Curvilinear motion. – Ex.: Paper flight moving.
• Circular motion. – Ex.: Swirling stone tied to the rope.
• Rotatory motion. – Ex.: Rotating top.
• Oscillatory motion. – Ex.: Clock pendulum.
• Zigzag (irregular) motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bee.

2. Based on Duration :

• Periodic motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bob of simple Pendulum.
• Non-periodic motion. – Ex.: Swaying of the branches of a tree.

3. Based on Speed:

• Uniform motion. – Ex.: Hour hand of a clock.
• Non – uniform motion. – Ex.: Motion of a train, as it leaves a station.

XII. Fill with Examples

Answer:
Linear motion – A man walking in a straight road
Curvilinear motion – motion of paper Aeroplane
Self rotatory motion – Motion of wheel in a cart
Circular motion – Motion of moon a round earth.
Oscillatory motion – Motion of pendulum
Irregular motion – Motion of honey bee.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
How earth revolves?
(a) From west to east
(b) east to west
(c) From north to south
(d) south to west.
Answer:
(a) From west to east

Question 2.
People walking in a crowded street is an example of _______ motion.
(a) linear
(b) circular
(c) rotatory
(d) zigzag
Answer:
(d) zigzag

Question 3.
What is the unit of average speed in SI system?
(a) metre / second
(b) kilometre/ seconds
(c) kilometre/ time
(d) Metre/ Time.
Answer:
(a) metre / second

Question 4.
Usain Bolt crossed 100 metre in _______ seconds and made a world record.
(a) 9.58
(b) 9.83
(c) 9.85
(d) 9.38
Answer:
(a) 9.58

Question 5.
The motion of the moon which revolves around the earth is
(a) Oscillatory motion
(b) Periodic motion
(c) curvilinear
(d) b and c
Answer:
(b) Periodic motion

II. Correct Answer: If it is wrong give the correct answer.

1. Change of position of an object with respect to time is motion
2. Swirling stone tied to the rope is an example of rotatory motion.
3. The children flying in a swing is a periodic motion.
4. All the oscillatory movements are periodic motions.
5. The SI unit of speed is kilometer

Answer:

1. correct
2. wrong.
   A swirling stone tied to the rope is an example of circular motion.
3. correct
4. correct
5. wrong, The SI unit of speed is meter.

III. Fill up the blanks:

1. People walking in a crowded street is ……….. type of motion.
2. Object moves not at a constant speed then the motion is ………..
3. If Priya in her cycle travels 40 km in 2 hours then what is her average speed?
4. Motion is of ………… types.
5. The movement of a body about its own axis is ………….

Answer:

1. Irregular
2. on- uniform motion
3. 20 km /hr
4. four
5. Rotatory motion

IV. Matching

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – a
4. – c

V. Fill up the blanks in accordance with their relation:

1. The Motion of train – uniform motion. The motion of vehicles ………..
2. Periodic motion – The motion of the moon revolves around the earth. Oscillatory motion ………..

Answer:

1. non – uniform motion.
2. Motion of simple pendulum.

VI. Fill up the missing statement.

VII. Fill up the blanks with the help of examples:

1. The motion of the needle of a clock.
2. The motion of an athlete of 100 m race
3. The motion of flag wagging
4. The motion of a car that goes in a circular path.
5. The motion of a needle in a sewing machine.

Answer:

1. Oscillatory motion.
2. Linear motion.
3. Non- periodic motion
4. circular motion
5. periodic motion or uniform motion.

VIII. Two Mark Questions: Short answers:

Question 1.
Define motion.
Answer:
When there is a change of position of an object with respect to time, then it is called motion.

Question 2.
What are the types of Force?
Answer:

1. Contact Force;
2. Non-Contact Force

Question 3.
List out the types of forces on the basis of contact.
Answer:
There are two types:

1. Contact force,
2. Non-contact force.

Question 4.
What is the average speed of the object?
Answer:
The distance travelled by an object in unit time is called the average speed of the object.

Question 5.
Define non-periodic motion.
Answer:
When a motion is not in uniform interval, then such motion is called non-periodic motion.

IX. Give Detailed Answers:

Question 1.
What is a force? What are its types?
Answer:
Forces: Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.
Types of Forces:

1. Contact forces;
2. Non – Contact forces.

1. Contact forces: The force that is executed by touching the body is a contact force Eg. Kicking the football
2. Non – Contact forces: The force is applied. Without touching the object then it is called noncontact force.
Forces can
(i) Change the states of the body from rest to motion or motion to rest.
(ii) Either change the speed or direction or both of the body.
(iii) Change the shape of the body.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Central Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Central Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Constitutional Head of the Union is:
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 2.
Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
(a) Army
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) The Prime Minister

Question 3.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President
(b) Attorney General
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 4.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the ……………
(a) The President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(c) The Prime Minister

Question 5.
The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of Parliament
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The President of India
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Question 6.
What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 Years
(b) 21 Years
(c) 25 Years
(d) 30 Years
Answer:
(c) 25 Years

Question 7.
The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) State Government
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(d) Parliament

Question 8.
Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(b) Article 360

Question 9.
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
(a) The President
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Governor
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 10.
Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under …………….
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Original Jurisdiction

Question 11.
If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister.
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
2. ………………… is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
3. ………………… is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the ………………… community to the Lok Sabha.
5. ………………… has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
6. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ………………… years.
7. ………………… is the Guardian of the Constitution.
8. At present, the Supreme Court consists of ………………… judges including the Chief Justice.

Answers:

1. Money
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice-President
4. Anglo-Indian
5. Attorney General
6. 65
7. Supreme Court
8. 28

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service.
(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
(a) (A) is false but R is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
How is President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Electoral college consists of the elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and the elected members of the States and elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

Question 2.
What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
Answer:
The ministers are classified under three different categories.

1. Cabinet Ministers: An informal body of senior ministers who form the nucleus of administration.
2. Ministers of State: They are also incharge of ministries or departments.
3. Deputy Ministers: They assist either the Ministers of Cabinet or State.

Question 3.
What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Qualification of the Supreme Court Judges are

1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for at least 5 years.
3. He should have worked as an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years.
4. He is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:

1. Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha who is elected by its members.
2. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of theTwo Houses of Parliament.
3. He has the power to decide whether a Bill is a money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.

Question 5.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:
Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lok Sabha which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending of money, such as tax laws, prevention of black money etc.

Question 6.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:

1. Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.
2. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament (or) their joint sitting but without a right to vote.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the President of India are given below:
(i) He appoints the Prime Minister and the others members of the Council of Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(ii) He appoints Governors of States, the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Attorney General, the Chief Election Commissioner, Ambassadors and High Commissioners to other countries.

(iii) He inaugurates tire session of the Parliament by addressing it after the general elections and also at the beginning of the first session each year.

(iv) Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliaments only with his prior recommendation. Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented before the Lok Sabha by the Union Finance Minister only with the permission of the President.

(v) The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment, or to commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence.

(vi) He is the supreme commander of the defence force of the country. He has been empowered to proclaim Emergency in the country.

Question 2.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court is the Apex court in the Country.

It is the guardian of our Constitution. The following are the functions of the Supreme Court.

Original Jurisdiction:

1. Cases which are brought directly in the first instance come under original Jurisdiction.*
2. Dispute between two states or more
3. Dispute between the Centre and the State.
4. Writs issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Appellate Jurisdiction:

1. The Supreme Court hears the appeals against the decisions of High court in “Civil, Criminal and Constitutional” cases.
2. With a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme, Court is the final appellate court in the country.

Advisory Jurisdiction:

1. President can refer to the Supreme Court if any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of Public importance miscellaneous Jurisdiction.
2. The Supreme Court has the complete control over its own establishment.
3. With the approval of the President the supreme court is authorized to make rules for regulatory, generally the practice and procedure of the court.
4. The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Judicial Review:

The power of the Judiciary to declare ‘a law as un-constitutional’ is known as Judicial Review.

Individual Review power with regard to

1. Protecting the fundamental right.
2. The laws passed by the legislature which are not in accordance with the Constitutional.
3. Dispute between the Centre and the States.

Question 3.
What are the Duties and Functions of Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 4.
Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
Answer:

1. Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union Government.
2. Article 79 to 122 in part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges of the Parliament.
3. The President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are the three parts of the Parliament.
4. It is bicameral legislature.

Functions of the Parliament:

1. Legislation, passing of budget, ventilation of public grievances, over seeing of administration discussion of various subjects like developments plans, International relations and internal policies.
2. After passing of the bill in both the houses it is forwarded to the President for his assent.
3. If the President send back the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration and the bill is passed in both the houses without any amendment the President has to give his assent.

A bill has to pass three stages in the Parliament before it becomes an Act.

Parliament is also vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor – General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

Two-third majority from both the houses of the Parliament is needed in support for the impeachment.

The Parliament exercises control over the executive through asking questions and supplementary, questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions, discussing and pushing motion or vote of no¬confidence.

The first hour when the Parliament is in session is allotted for question hour.

The members can put forth questions to the concerned Ministry and pertain to get answers.

The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.

By Fifth Amendment under Article 3 of our Constitution the Parliament is empowered to the formation of new states, alteration of areas and boundaries or change the name of the existing state.

A government bill should get passed in the Parliament with majority vote in this regard.

Question 5.
List out the functions of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Functions of Lok Sabha

1. The Lok Sabha is the lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. Any Bill including Money Bill can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha.
2. It has equal power as the Rajya Sabha in passing any Bill for constitutional amendment.
3. Lok Sabha members have the power to elect the President and Vice-President.
4. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. If it is passed then the Prime Minister and other councils of ministers need to resign from their post.

Functions of the Rajya Sabha

1. Any bill (except the money bills) needs to be approved by Rajya Sabha
2. It has the same power as Lok Sabha for passing any Bill for a constitutional amendment?
3. The members of Rajya Sabha have the electoral power for selection for President and Vice – President.
4. It has power in the impeachment procedure of the President and judge of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Organise a mock Parliament in your class. Discuss the role of President,Prime Minister and Ministers.
Answer:
Mock Parliament:
Role of President
Role of Prime Minister and Ministers.
(mock Parliament video in you tube)

1. 14th National youth Parliament.
2. Mock Parliament session Anan kids Jim 26th 2018.
3. Mock Parliament in village school-Final Rehearsal of youth.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi intends to organise a mock Parliament in Delhi with representation from every district.

Key points:

1. Each class should prepare a list of activities.
2. This enables them to prepare themselves for the discussions in the House.

It is of two types:

1. Government Business (the member of the Cabinet rank) and
2. Private members business – the other members of the Parliament who is not in Minister rank.

Question 2.
Bring out the differences and similarities between the US and Indian President’s.
Answer:

1. Both the US President and the Indian President are elected through election by voting.
2. The President of US and the President of India both are the Head of the Union and the first citizen.
3. Election to the US President is direct.
4. Election to the Indian President is indirect.
5. The President of US is the Real Executive of the government.
6. The President of India is only the Nominal Head.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Articles 52 to 78 in Part V deals with the:
(a) Judiciary
(b) Union Executive
(c) State Legislature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Union Executive

Question 2.
Who is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) Vice – President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The …………….. is the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Council of Minister
Answer:
(a) President

Question 4.
Who occupies the second highest office in the country?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Attorney General
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Vice President

Question 5.
Article …………….. lays down that the Supreme command of the Defense Force of the Union shall be vested in the President.
(a) 53(1)
(b) 53 (2)
(c) 53(3)
(d) 51(A)
Answer:
(b) 53 (2)

Question 6.
The eligible age to be appointed as the President of India is ……………..
(a) 25 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 35 years

Question 7.
The Vice-President can act as the President for a maximum period of …………….. months.
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 8.
The council of Rajya Sabha consists of …………… members
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
Answer:
(a) 250

Question 9.
If the office of the President and Vice President lie vacant …………….. of India works as President.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Deputy Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice

Question 10.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are ……………
(a) elected indirectly
(b) mostly nominated
(c) elected directly as well as indirectly
Answer:
(a) elected indirectly

Question 11.
The …………….. is instrumental in moving amendments to the Constitution.
(a) Cabinet
(b) Council of States
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(a) Cabinet

Question 12.
The …………….. is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Electoral College
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 13.
The Supreme Court of India, New Delhi was inaugurated on January 28 ……………..
(a) 1935
(b) 1940
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 14.
In …………….. jurisdiction the Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court.
(a) Original
(b) Appellate
(c) Advisory
(d) Judicial Review
Answer:
(b) Appellate

Question 15.
The law declared by the …………….. is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) District Court
(d) Revenue Court
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The legislature in Central Government is known as ……………….
2. The President of India apart from Rashtrapathi Bhavan conducts office at least once a year in ………………. Hyderabad.
3. Once elected as the President, he has to take an oath of office before the ……………….
4. The present President of India is ……………….
5. The President summons Parliament at least ………………. a year.
6. President can make advances out of the ………………. of India to meet any unexpected expenditure.
7. ………………. emergency is declared by the President if there is a threat to financial stability or the credit of India.
8. The President may be removed from office for violation of Constitution by
9. At least a minimum of ………………. days notice should be given for the resolution for the removal of Vice President from his office.
10. When there is a tie of voting on Bill in Rajya Sabha the ………………. can cast his vote for or against using his discretion power.
11. The post of ………………. of India has adopted the West Minister (England) model of the Constitutional democracy.
12. The ………………. is an informal body of senior ministers who forms the nucleus of administration.
13. The ………………. belong to the second category of ministers in the council who are also incharge of ministries or departments.
14. The council of state or Rajya Sabha consists of ………………. members.
15. Any biii except money bill needs to be approved by ……………….

Answers:

1. Parliament
2. ‘Rashtrapati Nilayam’
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Thiru, Ramnath Govind
5. twice
6. contingency fund
7. Financial
8. impeachment
9. fourteen
10. Vice-President
11. Prime Minister
12. Cabinet
13. Ministers of State
14. Rajya Sabha
15. 250

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Cabinet forms the nucleus of administration
Reason (R): All important decisions of the government are taken by the cabinet such as defence, finance, external affairs and home affairs.
(a) (A) is false, but R is true.
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.

Question 2.
(i) The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.
(ii) Parliament exercises control over the executive.
(iii) Parliament is an independent organ.
(iv) ft is a bicameral legislature
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Article 74 (1) says there shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advice the President.
(ii) The Prime Minister has no power to decide the dates and agenda of the Cabinet meeting.
(iii) The Prime Minister decides th’e rank of his ministers and distributes various departments,
(iv) The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokes person of the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are true
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) and (iv) are true
Answer:
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true

Question 4.
(i) Lok Sabha as of today has 552 members.
(ii) The President generally nominates 2 persons from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
(iii) It is the house of the people.
(iv) It is the permanent house of the Parliament.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Under Article 352 President has the power to proclaim National Emergency on the grounds of War.
(ii) Due to Constitutional failure in the State President can declare an Emergency under Article 356.
(iii) Article 61 deals with the removal of the President by impeachment.
(iv) The President is answerable to the court of law.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column If.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (vi)
E. (i)
F. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the diplomatic powers of the President.
Answer:

• The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats posted to India.
• The ambassador-designate becomes ambassador after calling on the President and presenting his credentials.
• All treaties and agreements with foreign states are entered into in the name of the President.

Question 2.
“Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences”- Explain.
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the Nation and chief spokes person of the country.

As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences like the Common Wealth Summit of Non aligned Nations and SAARC.

Question 3.
What is meant by integrated judicial system?
Answer:
Integrated judiciary means that the judicial system is hierarchical one. At the top there is the Supreme Court and its decisions aie bonding precedent for low er subordinate Courts.

Question 4.
What are the qualification to become the member of Lok Sabha?
Answer:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should not be less than 25 years of age.
3. He should have his name in the electoral rolls in some part of the country.
4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or State Government.
5. He should be mentally sound and economically solvent.

Question 5.
Throw light on the compositions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Lok Sabha is the Lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. It contains elected representatives of the people. The maximum number of members can be elected for the Lok Sabha is 552. Presently, the Lok Sabha has 543 elected members. Out of these, 530 members are elected members from different States and 13 members from the Union Territories. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the Anglo – Indian community. At present, the total strength of the Lok Sabha is 545.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:

1. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court in India is appointed by the President of India.
2. The other judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the collegiums with Chief Justice Head.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Union Executive?
Answer:
The President is the nominal executive authority in the Parliamentary systems of Government. He is also the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.

Question 8.
What do you know about motion of no confidence?
Answer:

1. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
2. When it is passed then the Prime Minister and other Council of Ministers need to resign from their post.

Question 9.
What is the qualification of President of Indi?
Answer:
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a Presidential candidate:

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed the age of thirty-five years.
• He must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or local government.
• He should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He/her name should be proposed by at least ten electors and seconded by another ten electors of the Electoral college which elects the President.

Question 10.
What makes the Indian Parliament powerful?
Answer:
The representative of the people makes the Parliament powerful.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Write about the composition location and term of the judges of the Supreme court.
Answer:
In the beginning in 1950 our Supreme Court consisted of 8 judges including the Chief justice. As passage of time in need at present the Supreme Court consists of 28 judges including Chief justice.

The Constitution also provides appointment of judges to the supreme court on ad – hoc (temporary) basis.

1. The Chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court can hold office up to the age of 65 yearn.
2. The judges of the Supreme Court can resign before their term by giving their resignation in writing to the President.
3. The Parliament also has power to remove the judges by invoking impeachment provisions for their proven misbehaviour.
4. The Supreme Court sits at New Delhi. It may also sit any other place in India which may be decided by the Chief Justice of India with the approval of the President.

Question 2.
Describe the duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.
Answer:
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country. He is appointed by the President.
Duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.

1. To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters which are referred to him by the President.
2. To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to him by the President and discharge the functions conferred on him by the constitution are any other law.
3. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
4. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
5. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the Vice-President? How he can be removed?
Answer:
Functions of the Vice-President: The Vice-President is Ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
As the chairman of the house

1. He regulates the proceeding of the House.
2. He decides the order of the house.
3. He decides the admissibility of a resolution or questions.
4. He suspends or adjourns the house in case of a grave disorder.
5. He issues directions to various committees on matters relating to their functions.

Removal of the Vice-President:

1. The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of states passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the people.
2. A resolution for this purpose may be moved only after a notice of atleast a minimum of 14 days has been given of such an intention.

Question 4.
What is the role of the Vice President in the absence of the President?
Answer:

1. When the President is unable to discharge his duties due to illness or absence from the country he attends to the functions of the President.
2. When the President is unable to do his duties due to sickness or when the post of the President becomes vacant due to resignation, death or removal by impeachment etc., the Vice President can act as the President for a maximum period of six months.