Bhagya

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant-pollinator
a. Duck
b. Parrot
c. Hummingbird
d. Dove
Answer:
c. Hummingbird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
(a) Nutmeg
(b) Bamboo
(c) Ginger
(d) Neem
Answer:
(d) Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
a. Potato
b. Carrot
c. Radish
d. Turnip
Answer:
a. Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anti-cancer properties?
(a) Amla
(b) Tulasi
(c) Turmeric
(d) Aloe
Answer:
(c) Turmeric

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
a. Neem tree
b. Jack tree
c. Banyan tree
d. Mango tree
Answer:
c. Banyan tree

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. In every year October ……….is celebrated as world food day.
2. ………… is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I ………… ?
4. The juice of the leaves of ……… plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called …………

Answer:

1. 16
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulsi
5. pulses

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as softwood.
2. Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
3. Cauliflower is used for ornamental purpose.
4. Cotton cloth is not suitable for summer season.
5. Sugarcane is used as biofuel.

Answer:

1. False – Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as ornamental plants.
2. True.
3. False – Cauliflower is used for edible purpose.
4. False – Cotton cloth is only suitable for summer season
5. False – Sugarcane is used to produce sugar.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

V. Analogy:

1. mango : fruit:: maize : ………….
2. coconut: fibre :: rose : …………
3. bees : pollinate insect:: earthworms : …………

Answer:

1. cereal
2. essence
3. vermicompost producer

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:
Any nutritious substance that people or animals eat or drink or that plants absorb in order to maintain life and growth is called Food.

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Some of the plants around us are good in healing our diseases. We call these plants as medicinal plants.

Question 3.
How hardwood differ from softwood?
Answer:

Question 4.
What is Spice?
Answer:
Spices are the aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour food. Bark, roots, leaves, flowers, or stems of certain plants primarily used for flavouring colouring or preserving food.
(Eg.) roots – vetiver,
leaves – curry leaves
seeds – fenugreek
flower bud – clove

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. A timer is used in the construction of buildings, making of furniture
2. It is used in making fibreboard, paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:

1. The relationship between animals and plants, benefiting both of them is known as a symbiotic relationship.
2. (Eg.) Silkworms – feeding on Mulberry leaves – produce silk fibres.
3. Honey bee – feed on pollen and honey of plants – Agents of cross-pollination and form vegetables and fruits along with honey.

Question 2.
Write the uses of Neem?
Answer:

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:

1. Carrot, Beetroot, and radish – Taproots
2. Potato, Ginger, Turmeric – Underground stem
3. Curry leaves, Coriander leaves – Leaves
4. Drum stick – Leaves, Unripe fruit, and bark.
5. Paddy, Wheat, Maize, and Ragi – Seeds

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write short notes on-Timber yielding plants.
Answer:
Wood is used commercially due to its features like durability, stylish finishing, and resistance to temperature changes.
Timbers can be classified into hardwoods and softwoods.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
The relationship between plants and animals, to get food and shelter etc.
This relationship which is economically significant benefits not only animals but also plants.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason.
Answer:

1. Most deserts get less than 10 inches of rainfall each year.
2. The evaporation rate is higher than the rainfall.
3. In the desert, there is little water available for plants (cactus-like) and other organisms.
4. Cactus like plants and animals living in such areas are adapted to save water and to endure drought.
   (Eg.) Cactus Camel etc.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement or not? Explain. Why?
Answer:
False. Because:

1. Even though they are tall, they produce only softwoods.
2. It is resilient and malleable can’t be used in heavy construction and other purposes.
3. So the wood is known as softwood.
4. Wood fibres are used for making hats and other things.

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions.
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria How?

Answer:
1. The droppings and shedding of leaves, fruits, and other dead parts of plants degrade in the soil by bacterial and fungal action to form humus-increase soil fertility.

2. Blue-green Algae and Bacteria are extensively used to fix Nitrogen in the soil and increase biofertilizer in the soil for agriculture.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants Why?

Answer:

1. Honey bees suck nectar from flowers and convert it into honey.
2. During this process, they carry pollen on their bodies and help plants to do cross-pollination and inturn form vegetables and fruits.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Which are the source of food and energy for all living organisms in the world.
(a) Plants only
(b) Plants and animals
(c) Animals only
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Plants only

Question 2.
Aloe ______ is used as a laxative
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Leaves

Question 3.
Leaf fibres are got from
(a) Aloe vera
(b) Agave
(c) Coconut
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Agave

Question 4.
We are planting shrubs such as ________ to decorate houses
(a) Mandara
(b) Mullai
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Allamanda
Answer:
(c) Hibiscus

Question 5.
Plants grown or maintained for its aesthetic features are known as
(a) Fibre plants
(b) Medicinal plants
(c) Plants as food
(d) Ornamental plants
Answer:
(d) Ornamental plants

Question 6.
Bio fuels are less _______ in nature.
(a) Toxic
(b) Economic
(c) Nutrients
(d) Metals
Answer:
(a) Toxic

II. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Give evidence for the fact that Rice, Wheat, and Millets were cultivated and utilised in the ancient days.
Answer:

1. The presence of charred grains in most of the excavation sites is proof of the above fact.
2. Also, ancient literature talks about the existence and usage of several crops of economic importance.

Question 2.
Classify plants on the basis of economic values and uses.
Answer:
They are classified into six varieties. They are:

1. Plants as food.
2. Spice yielding plants,
3. Medicinal plants.
4. Fibre yielding plants,
5. Timber yielding plants.
6. Ornamental plants.

Question 3.
Name the states in India with Jute cultivation?
Answer:
West Bengal, Assam, Orissa, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Tripura, and Meghalaya are the seven states producing jute.
Out of the above seven, West Bengal alone produces 50% jute of India.

Question 4.
Name some of the Indian spices.
Answer:
Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 5.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
The plants that have chemical compounds to destroy disease-causing germs are known as medicinal plants.

Question 6.
Identify the plant part and write about its use?

Answer:
The given diagram is that of cloves the flower buds used as a spice – to flavour food.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding plants based on use.
Answer:

1. Textile Fibres – Cotton.
2. Cordage Fibres – Coconut Fibre.
3. Filling Fibres – Silk cotton

Question 8.
Write the importance of rubber?
Answer:

1. Rubber is got from the stem latex of the rubber plant.
2. Vehicle tyres, wire insulating covers, and many toys and others are produced out of natural rubber.
3. It satisfies 80% rubber demand of the world.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Identify the freshwater ecosystem.
a. Pond
b. Lake
c. River
d. All of them
Answer:
d. All of them

Question 2.
Producers are ________
(a) Animals
(b) Birds
(c) Plants
(d) Snakes
Answer:
(c) Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
a. Plastic
b. Coconut Shell
c. Glass
d. Aluminium
Answer:
b. Coconut Shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
(a) Recycling
(b) Reuse
(c) Pollution
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(c) Pollution

Question 5.
Usage of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes ……… pollution.
a. Air pollution
b. Water pollution
c. Noise pollution
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Water pollution

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called ……….
2. Temperature, light and wind are ………… factors.
3. ………. is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread …………. and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, ………….. and Recycle.

Answer:

1. herbivores
2. physical
3. Recycle
4. diseases
5. reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. The pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
2. Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
3. Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
4. Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
5. In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.

Answer:

1. True.
2. True.
3. False – Human and animal wastes are examples of bio-degradable waste.
4. False – Excess use of pesticides leads to land pollution.
5. False – In schools waste management rules say that we should separate waste in three categories.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – c

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

1. Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake.
2. Human → Insect → Algae → Fish

Answer:

1. carrot → rabbit → snake → eagle.
2. Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living or biotic and non-living or a biotic things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
They are terrestrial (on land) and aquatic (in water).

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Examples:

1. Old clothes
2. Plastics

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution.

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Land (soil) pollution
4. Noise pollution

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
Food chain in aquatic ecosystem.
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → Fish.

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:
Pollutants:

1. Burning fossil fuel (petrol, coal, oil, etc).
2. Toxic gases, (Carbon monoxide).
3. Dust particles (ash, soot).

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?

1. Loud Speaker
2. Plastic

Answer:

1. Loud Speaker – Noise Pollution.
2. Plastic – Land Pollution.

VII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘Biodegradable’ is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of the sun, microorganisms, etc. (Eg.) Vegetable and fruit peel leftover food, grass, leaves, and twigs.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour leftover oil, old medicines or waste down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Reduce the use of detergents and bleach to wash clothes.
4. Do not litter or dump waste always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:

1. Learning about the food chain help us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. It also help us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem. This enable us to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
Examples of how we can Avoid waste:-
Avoid buying packaged foods. Refuse to buy ‘use-and-throw’ plastic products.

Examples of how we can reduce waste:-

1. Write on both sides of paper
2. Share newspaper and magazines with others.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution affects the environment. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
3. Noise pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
4. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears. Noise pollution also disturbs animals.
5. Birds have to communicate (talk) louder so that, they can hear each other in noisy areas.
6. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

Reduce noise pollution :

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Avoid fireworks.
3. Speak, do not shout.
4. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
5. Lower the volume when you watch TV (or) listen to music.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:
If an organism is removed from the food chain,

1. The food chain will fall apart.
2. The ecosystem will become imbalanced and collapse.
3. For example, Consider a food chain: Plants → grasshoppers → frogs → snakes → hawks.

If frogs were to die off in this chain, (due to disease/pollutants), then, there will be an increase in the number of grasshoppers. This will cause a major problem.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. The substances consist of plastic materials, metal scraps, aluminium cans, and bottles which cannot be broken down or decomposed into the soil by natural agents are labelled as non-biodegradable.
2. When it rains, some of the water never reaches the ground as it collects in the plastic garbage at the dump.
3. Little pools of water let mosquitoes breed and they can spread unwanted diseases like dengue and malaria.
4.  Aedes aegypti is the vector responsible for dengue transmission.
5. It breeds in solid waste mud pots and other junk materials.
6. We must know mosquitoes tend to breed in places which are dirty.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?

Answer:

1. We can see the mixed waste dumped in the open ground.
2. There is a fire in the open dump and the garbage is burning.
3. By the burning of plastic materials, pipes, leather, and garbage smoke and toxins are coming out and pollute the air.
4. The leftover ash from burning waste pollutes the soil.
5. When it rains some of the dangerous chemicals leaching into the soil and groundwater.
6. Thus the unhealthy chemicals from the garbage pollute the ecosystem.

Question 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
The following types of pollution are caused by open dumps:

1. Water pollution
2. Land pollution
3. Air pollution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
The ecosystem that originated without human intervention is called
(a) natural ecosystem
(b) artificial ecosystem
(c) aquarium
(d) terrarium
Answer:
(a) natural ecosystem

Question 2.
An example for artificial aquatic ecosystem is _______
(a) Forest
(b) Pond
(c) Garden
(d) Aquarium
Answer:
(d) Aquarium

Question 3.
Ecosystems created and maintained by humans are called?
(a) lake
(b) river
(c) artificial ecosystem
(d) natural ecosystem
Answer:
(c) artificial ecosystem

Question 4.
Plants are producers because they make their own food by _______
(a) Respiration
(b) Consumer
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Decomposing
Answer:
(c) Photosynthesis

Question 5.
The micro-organisms that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms is called
(a) consumers
(b) decomposers
(c) omnivores
(d) producers
Answer:
(b) decomposers

II. True or False. If False, Give the correct statement.

1. The abiotic factors are the non-living parts such as sunlight, air, water, and minerals in the soil.
2. A Zoo is a natural ecosystem.
3. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.
4. India produces 532 million kilos of solid waste every day.
5. Certain toxic gases from industries mix with raindrops and make rain unusually acidic.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – A Zoo is an artificial ecosystem.
3. True
4. True.
5. True.

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – e
4. – c
5. – b

IV. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence and form a food chain:

Question 1.
Grasshopper → Frog → Grass → Crow.
Answer:
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Crow

Question 2.
Peacock → Rat → Grains → Snake
Answer:
Grains → Rat → Snake → Peacock

V. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give two examples of artificial terrestrial ecosystems?
Answer:

1. Paddy fields
2. Garden

Question 2.
What are called producers?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food.
(Eg) Plants.

Question 3.
What do plants need in order to photosynthesis?
Answer:
Plants need chlorophyll, water, carbon-di-oxide, and sunlight.

Question 4.
What are the two major types of solid wastes?
Answer:

1. Biodegradable
2. Non-biodegradable.

Question 5.
What happens to the dead organisms of animals and plants?
Answer:

1. They are broken down into simple organic substances by decomposers.
2. These substances go into the soil and are used by plants.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when we do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when we watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak do not shout.

Question 2.
Differentiate the artificial ecosystem and natural ecosystem.
Answer:
Natural Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated without human intervention
2. Ex: Sea, River, Lake, Forest

Artificial Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated by human
2. Ex: Paddy field, garden, aquarium

VII. Questions based on higher-order thinking levels:

Question 1.
Are animal bones biodegradable?
Answer:

1. The microorganisms that break down tissues will also cause bones to decompose in a suitable aerated peaty soil.
2. In warm damp environments, bacteria and fungi attack the protein in the skeleton and it will break down in a matter of a decade or so.
3. But in a dry climate, it could take thousands of years
4. So bones do decay at a slower rate than other types of organic material and tissue.

Question 2.
Are all types of clothes biodegradable?
Answer:

1. Not all fabrics are safely biodegradable as they are made with artificial and chemical components.
2. It depends on what fibres or fabric is made from.
3. And also the more chemicals used the longer it takes to biodegrade.
4. Polyester has been introduced since 1951 created not by the textile industry but by American Chemical Company Dupont went on sale.
5. Polyester is a polymer or a long chain of repeating molecular units.
6. That basically means that our clothes are increasingly made of plastic.
7. In theory cotton, silk hemp is biodegradable and polyester is not.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Soaps were originally made from ………
a. proteins
b. animal fats and vegetable oils
c. chemicals extracted from the soil
d. foam booster
Answer:
b. animal fats and vegetable oils.

Question 2.
The saponification of a fat or oil is done using _______ solution for hot process.
(a) Potassium hydroxide
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Sodium chloride
Answer:
(b) Sodium hydroxide

Question 3.
Gypsum is added to the cement for ………..
a. fast setting
b. delayed setting
c. hardening
d. making paste
Answer:
b. delayed setting

Question 4.
Phenol is ……..
a. carbolic acid
b. acetic acid
c. benzoic acid
d. hydrochloric acid
Answer:
a. carbolic acid

Question 5.
Natural adhesives are made from ………..
a. Protein
b. fat
c. starch
d. vitamins
Answer:
c. starch

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………… gas causes tears in our eyes while cutting onions.
2. Water, coconut oil and ……….. are necessary for soap preparation.
3. ………..is called a farmer’s best friend.
4. …………. fertilizer is ecofriendly.
5. ………… is an example for natural adhesive.

Answer:

1. Propane Thiol Oxide
2. NaOH
3. Earthworm
4. Artificial
5. Starch

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Concentrated phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. Gypsum is largely used in medical industries.
3. Plaster of Paris is obtained from heating gypsum.
4. Adhesives are the substances used to separate the components.
5. NPK are the primary nutrients for plants.

Answer:

1. False. – Low concentrated Phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. False – Epsum is largely used in medical industry.
3. True.
4. False – Adhesives are substances that are used to join two (or) more components.
5. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer
1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – b
5. – a

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence:

1. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
4. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
5. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.
6. Cover your work area with old newspaper.

Answer:

1. Cover your work area with old newspaper.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
4. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
5. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
6. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.

VI. Analogy:

1. Urea : Inorganic fertilizer :: Vermi Compost: …………
2. ……….. : Natural Adhesives :: Cello tape : Artificial Adhesives

Answer:

1. Natural Fertilizer
2. Starch

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the three main constituents of soap?
Answer:
The three main constituents of soap are Lye (Sodium hydroxide), coconut oil, and water.

Question 2.
What are the two different types of molecules found in the soap?
Answer:
The two types of molecules found in the soap are

1. water-loving
2. water-hating.

Question 3.
Give an example of inorganic fertilizer.
Answer:
The Inorganic fertilizers are Urea, Ammonium sulphate, and Superphosphate.

Question 4.
Mention any three physical properties of phenol.
Answer:
Phenol properties:

1. It is a weak acid.
2. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
3. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.

Question 5.
Explain the uses of plaster of Paris.
Answer:
Uses of plaster of pairs:

1. In making blackboard chalks.
2. In surgery for setting fractured bones.
3. For making casts for statues and toys etc.
4. In the construction industry.

Question 6.
What are the ingredients of the cement?
Answer:
The ingredients of the cement are lime, clay, and gypsum.

Question 7.
Why gypsum is used in cement production?
Answer:
Gypsum is added to control the setting of cement.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Why earthworm is called a farmer’s friend?
Answer:

1. Earthworms take organic wastes as food and produce compost castings.
2. They provide a multitude of services to improve soil health and consequently plant health.
3. So earthworm is called a farmer’s friend.

Question 2.
Explain the process of manufacturing cement.
Answer:
The cement is manufactured by crushing naturally occurring minerals such as limestone, clay, and gypsum through a milling process.

Question 3.
What are the uses of Gypsum?
Answer:

1. Used as fertilizers
2. Used in the process of making cement and plaster of Paris.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
How are detergents manufactured?
Answer:
Manufacture of Detergents:
Materials used:
Acid slurry, Soda ash (or) Sodium Carbonate, Trisodium phosphate (TSP), sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour perfume and brightner.

Preparation:

1. Acid slurry is first neutralised.
2. Then neutralised Acid Slurry is mixed with Soda ash and kept for one hour for completion of reaction.
3. Other ingredients such as Trisodium phosphate (TSP), Sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour, perfume, brightner are then blended to the neutralised Acid Slurry with continuous mixing.
4. Then the mixture is dried.
5. Now we get detergent powder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Ravi is a farmer; he rears many cattle in his farm. His field has many biowastes. Advise Ravi on how to change this biowaste to compost by using vermicomposting techniques. Explain the benefits of vermi castings?
Answer:

1. Make a pit of 30 cm or take a wooden box.
2. Place a thin net on the base of the pit or wooden box.
3. Fill it with sand for about 1-2 cm.
4. Spread some plant wastes (like a dry leaf, flower) and biodegradable wastes on it.
5. Sprinkle some water.
6. Add some earthworms to these substances and cover them with an old cloth or dried coconut leaf.
7. We can find that vermicompost is formed after four weeks.
8. Use this vermicompost as manure for plants and conserve soil fertility.

Advantages of using vermicompost:

1. Vermicompost is an excellent organic manure for sustainable agro-practices.
2. Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients.
3. In improves soil structure texture, aeration, and water holding capacity and prevents soil erosion.
4. Vermicompost is rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment to the soil for farming and terrace gardening.
5. It enhances seed germination and ensures good plant growth.
6. Vermicompost can be prepared easily.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
………. to remove strong strains on the clothes.
(a) Detergents soap
(b) Bathing soap
(c) Bleaching powder
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Bleaching powder

Question 2.
_______ are the substances which can undergo chemical changes to produce certain materials.
(a) Soaps
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Plastics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
If 50 kg of Superphosphate is added to the soil, how much phosphorus would the soil get?
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg
(b) 8 – 9 kg
(c) 12 – 13 kg
(d) 16 – 18 kg
Answer:
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg

Question 4.
All the plants get their _______ from the soil.
(a) Nutrients
(b) Water
(c) Nitrogen
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Nutrients

Question 5.
The molecular formula of Epsom is _______
(a) CaSO₄1/2H₂O
(b) C₆H₅OH
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O
(d) CaSO₄.2H₂O
Answer:
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……… is a natural indicator.
2. ……….. molecules goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth.
3. Fertilizer facilitates the growth of ………….
4. ………….. is used to fix bone fractures.
5. Epsom salt is ………….

Answer:

1. turmeric powder
2. Water hating molecules
3. plants
4. Plaster of Paris
5. Magnesium Sulphate Hydrate

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

IV. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence:

1. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
2. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
3. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
4. Finally, the cloth is clean.
5. The detergent molecules have two sides.
6. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.

Answer:

1. The detergent molecules have two sides.
2. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
3. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.
4. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
5. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
6. Finally, the cloth is clean.

V. Analogy:

1. Black board chalks : ………….. : : Plant growth : Epsum
2. …………. : Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate : : Plaster of Paris : Calcium Sulphate Hemihvdrate
3. ………. : Mortar : : Construction of bridges : Concrete

Answer:

1. Plaster of Paris
2. Gypsum
3. Construction of house walls.

VI. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What are the principal nutrients?
Answer:
Principal nutrients are NPK

1. Nitrogen (N)
2. Phosphorus (P)
3. Potassium (K)

Question 2.
What are fertilizers?
Answer:
Fertilizers are organic (or) inorganic materials that we add to the soil to provide one (or) more nutrients to the soil.

Question 3.
Give two examples of organic fertilizers?
Answer:

1. Compost
2. Vermicompost

Question 4.
Why is called inorganic fertilizers?
Answer:
The fertilizers prepared by using natural elements by making them undergo chemical changes in the laboratories are called inorganic fertilizers.

Question 5.
Why is called Portland cement?
Answer:
It was named “Portland” cement because it resembled the high-quality building stones found in Portland, England.

VII. Answer in details:

Question 1.
What is Epsum? Mention it’s used.
Answer:
Epsum:

1. Epsum salt is magnesium Sulphate Hydrate.
2. Its molecular formula – MgSO₄. 7H₂O

Uses:

1. Eases stress and relaxes the body.
2. Helps muscles and nerves to function properly.
3. Medicine for skin problems.
4. Improving plant growth in agriculture.

Question 2.
Write about the Phenol and its uses.
Answer:
Phenol:

1. Phenol is a Carbolic acid of an organic compound.
2. It’s molecular formula C₆H₅OH
3. It is a weak acid.
4. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
5. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.
6. It irritates when exposed to human skin.

Uses:

1. It’s used industrial.
2. Low concentration of Phenol is used in mouth wash, disinfectant in household cleaners.
3. It is used as a surgical antiseptic since it kills microorganisms.

Question 3.
Tabulate the nutrients present in inorganic fertilizers.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 2 Water Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Around 97% of water available on earth is water.
a. fresh
b. pure
c. salty
d. polluted
Answer:
c. salty

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of the water cycle?
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) rain
(d) distillation
Answer:
(d) distillation

Question 3.
Which of the following processes add water vapour to the atmosphere?
i. Transpiration
ii. Precipitation
iii. Condensation
iv. Evaporation
a. ii and iii
b. ii and iv
c. i and iv
d. i and ii
Answer:
c. i and iv

Question 4.
About 30% of the freshwater is found in?
(a) glaciers
(b) groundwater
(c) other sources of water
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(b) groundwater

Question 5.
Using R.O. plant at home eliminates lot of non-potable water. The best way to effectively use the expelled water of R.O. plant is ……….
a. make the expelled water go and seep near the bore well
b. use it for watering plants
c. to drink the expelled water after boiling and cooling
d. to use for cooking as the water is full of many nutrients
Answer:
b. use it for watering plants

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Only ……… percent of natural water is available for human consumption.
2. The process of changing water into its vapour is called ………..
3. ……….. is built on rivers to regulate water flow and distribute water.
4. Water levels in rivers increase greatly during …………
5. Water cycle is also called as ………..

Answer:

1. 3%
2. Evaporation
3. Dam
4. Rainy days
5. hydrological cycle

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is unfit for use by human beings.
2. Seas are formed when the water table meets the land surface.
3. The evaporation of water takes place only in sunlight.
4. Condensation results in the formation of dew on grass.
5. Seawater can be used for irrigation as such.

Answer:

1. False – Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is fit for use by human beings.
2. True
3. False – The evaporation of water takes place in any source of heat.
4. True
5. False – Sea water can not be used for irrigation as such.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c
5. – d

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence

1. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
2. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
3. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
4. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.
5. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
8. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.

Answer:

1. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
2. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
3. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.
4. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
5. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
6. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
7. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
8. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.

VI. Analogy:

Question 1.
Population explosion : Water scarcity : : Recycle : ………..
Answer:
Water management

Question 2.
Groundwater : ……….. : : Surface-water : Lakes
Answer:
Wells

VII. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Name four different sources of water.
Answer:
Rivers, wells, lakes, glaciers, ponds, etc.

Question 2.
How do people in cities and rural areas get water for various purposes?
Answer:
People get water from wells, canals, tanks, ponds, rivers, water tanks, hand pipes for various purposes.

Question 3.
Take out of cooled bottle of water from refrigerator and keep it on a table. After some time you notice a puddle of water around it. Why?
Answer:
The cooled surface of the bottle cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses. So after some time, a puddle of water can be noticed around the bottle.

Question 4.
We could see clouds almost every day. Why doesn’t it rain daily?
Answer:
When the air around the clouds is cool the clouds then only rain comes. That is the reason why we can’t get rain daily.

Question 5.
Name the places where water is found as ice.
Answer:
Polar ice-caps, Ice sheets, and glaciers in Artie region arid Antarctica.

Question 6.
How do aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
Floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat and does not permit heat to escape from water. So aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic circle.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

1. Collecting water from where it falls.
2. Collecting rainwater by constructing bunds.

VIII. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Differentiate between surface water and groundwater.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a few slogans of your own on the topic “Save Water”.
Answer:

1. “To a thirsty man, a drop of water is worth more than a sack of gold”.
2. “Water covers 2/3 of the surface of the earth. But only 0.002% is drinkable. Save water”
3. “Save water to secure your future”
4. “Don’t make nature cry, keep your water clean”
5. “Store water for dry days”.

Question 3.
About 71% of earth’s surface is covered with water, then why do we face scarcity of water?
Answer:
71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water. The freshwater will be only 3%. It remains the same. But the water useful for plants, animals, and men is increasing day by day. So we face water scarcity.

Question 4.
Give reason for the following statement – Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
Answer:
Sewage contains harmful and toxic chemicals. They can disturb the ecosystem of the living animals, in the rivers or oceans. So it should be treated effectually before disposing into rivers or oceans.

Question 5.
The freshwater available on earth is only 3%. We cannot increase the amount of water. In that case, how can sustain the water level?
Answer:

1. The sewage water treatment is to be adopted.
2. Decrease the usage of pesticides, insecticides, and fertilizers in agriculture.
3. Protect forest and trees.
4. Adopt drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.
5. Rainwater harvesting should be implemented in every building.
6. Create awareness about the impact of throwing wastes into the water bodies.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What is potable water? List down its characteristics.
Answer:
The water which is fit for drinking by human beings is called potable water, characteristics

1. It is transparent.
2. It is odourless and colourless.
3. It is harmless or free from disease-causing bacteria.

Question 2.
Who is known as waterman of India? Browse the net and find the details about the award, the waterman received for water management. State the findings by drafting a report.
Answer:
The ‘Waterman of India’ is Dr. Rajendra Singh. He is a well-known water conservationist and environmentalist from Alwar district, Rajasthan.

Awards:

1. He gets the Ramon Magsaysay award for community leadership in 2001.
2. In 2005, he got the Jamnalal Bajaj Award for Science and Technology for rural development.
3. In 2008, The Guardian named him amongst its list of 50 people who could save the planet.
4. In 2015, he won the Stockholm Water Prize. He runs an NGO called ‘Tarun Bharat Sangh’ (TBS), which was founded in 1975.
5. In 2016, he was bestowed with Ahimsa Award by the Institute of Jainology based in UK.

Question 3.
What is rainwater harvesting? Explain in a few sentences how it can be used in houses.
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting:
Direct collection and use of rainwater are called rainwater harvesting.

There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

(a) Collecting water from where it falls.
Example: Collecting water from the rooftops of the houses or buildings (Roof water harvesting).

(b) Collecting flowing rainwater.
Example: Collecting rainwater by constructing ponds with bund.

X. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
When there is no pond or lake in an area, will there be the formation of clouds possible in that area?
Answer:
When there is no pond or lake in an area formation of clouds will be possible. Transpiration from the aerial parts of all plants and trees will evaporate water and it will form clouds.

Question 2.
To clean the spectacles, people often breathe out on glasses to make them wet. Explain why do the glasses become wet.
Answer:
When we breathe out, the hot air comes out from our mouth which gets condensed and changed into tiny water droplets, and glasses become wet.

XI. Crossword

Down:
1. A method of water conservation.
2. Process of getting water vapour from seawater.
6. Water stored in dams is used for the generation of ………..

Across:
3. ………. is a large body of non -potable water found in nature.
4. In summer, the body loses water as ……..
5. Plants undergo ………….. and contribute to the water cycle.

Answer:

XII. Observe the given graph carefully and answer the questions.

Question 1.

1. What percentage of water is seen in fish?
2. Name the food item that has the maximum amount of water in its content.
3. Name the food item that has a minimum amount of water in its content.
4. The human body consists of about ………. percentage of water.
5. Specify the food item that can be consumed by a person when he / she is suffering from dehydration.

Answer:

1. Fish – 70%
2. Watermelon
3. Fish
4. 60%
5. watermelon, pineapple

Question 2.
Look at the map of Tamilnadu showing annual rainfall and answer the questions given below

a. Identify the districts that get only low annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
northwest zone (Coimbatore, Erode, Namakkal, Karur)

b. Identify the districts that get a medium annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Pudhukottai, Virthunagar, Sivagangai, Salem, Dindigul, Theni, Vellore.

c. State the districts that enjoy high annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Chennai, Vizhupuram, Thiruvallur, Kadalur, Nagapattinam

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
If the total water on earth be 100% the percentage of freshwater is ………..
(a) 97%
(b) 93%
(c) 3%
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(c) 3%

Question 2.
_______ is a transparent, tasteless, odourless, chemical substance.
(a) Petrol
(b) Wax
(c) Water
(d) Kerosene
Ans:
(c) Water

Question 3.
Which one is not an example of groundwater?
(a) hand pump
(b) borewell
(c) wetland water
(d) well
Answer:
(c) wetland water

Question 4.
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds, and rivers evaporates due to the heat of _______
(a) Sun
(b) Pressure
(c) Atmosphere
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Sun

Question 5.
………. are wetlands where water bodies meet the sea.
(a) lake
(b) well
(c) estuary
(d) glacier
Answer:
(c) estuary

II. True or False.

1. Maximum surface water is stored in lakes.
2. The oceanic volcanoes add salts to the sea.
3. Water is a non-transparent chemical.
4. Transpiration takes place in rivers and lakes.
5. Nitrogen is used for the treatment of drinking water.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – v.
2. – iv.
3. – i.
4. – ii.
5. – iii.

IV. Analogy:

1. Low rainfall: Water scarcity : : Recycling Water : ………..
2. Frozen Water : Glaciers : : Surface Water : ………..
3. Evaporation : Sea : : …………. : Trees
4. Filtering : Sand : : ………….. : Ammonia
5. Solid State : ………… : : Gaseous State : Vapour

Answer:

1. Water Management
2. River
3. Transpiration
4. Disinfection
5. Ice

V. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the composition of water?
Answer:

1. Water is composed of two atoms of hydrogen combining with one atom of oxygen gas.
2. The molecular formula of water is H₂O.

Question 2.
What is water?
Answer:
Water is a transparent, tasteless, odourless and nearly colourless chemical substance.

Question 3.
What is saltwater?
Answer:
Water which has more than 3% salt is called saltwater. We can not drink and use this water.

Question 4.
What are the three stages in the water cycle?
Answer:
Evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 5.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
It is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant in vapour form is called transpiration.

VI. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the three stages of the water cycle.
Answer:

1. Water cycle is a continuous process.
2. It is also called the hydrological cycle.
3. The stages are

1. Evaporation :
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds and rivers evaporates due to the heat of the Sun.

2. Condensation:
Water vapour which enters into the atmosphere by evaporation moves upward with air, gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form clouds in the sky.

3. Precipitation:
Millions of tiny droplets collide with each other to form large droplets. The air around the clouds is cool these drops of a waterfall in the form of snow or rain.

Question 2.
How water is conserved by water management method?
Answer:
Water management consists of the following factors:

1. Bringing awareness about the bad effects of throwing wastes into the water bodies.
2. Recycling of water by separating pollutants.
3. Minimizing the use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture. It reduces the pollution of underground water.
4. Controlling deforestation.
5. Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture. In this way, a lesser amount of water can be used for irrigation.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Food Security and Nutrition Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Food Security and Nutrition

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Food Security and Nutrition Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………….. of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
(a) Availability of food
(b) Access to food
(c) Absorption of food
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Availability of food

Question 2.
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the ……………
(a) FCI
(b) Consumer Cooperatives
(c) ICICI
(d) IFCI
Answer:
(a) FCI

Question 3.
Which is correct?
(i) HYV-High Yielding Varieties
(ii) MSP-Minimum Support Price
(iii) PDS-Public Distribution System
(iv) FGi-Food Corporation of India
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 4.
…………… extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Singapore
(d) UK
Answer:
(a) United States of America

Question 5.
……………….. revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
(a) Blue Revolution
(b) White Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Grey Revolution
Answer:
(c) Green Revolution

Question 6.
………….. is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
……………….. is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
(a) Health
(b) Nutrition
(c) Sanitation
(d) Security
Answer:
(b) Nutrition

Question 8.
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in …………..
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 9.
……………….. status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources development.
(a) Health
(b) Nutritional
(c) Economic
(d) Wealth
Answer:
(a) Health

Question 10.
Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ……….. service at free of cost.
(a) 106 ambulance
(b) 108 ambulance
(c) 107 ambulance
(d) 105 ambulance
Answer:
(b) 108 ambulance

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.
2. ……………… is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
3. In the year ……………… National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
4. ……………… play an important role in the supply of quality goods at reasonable rates to common people.
5. ……………… is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services that one unit of money can buy.

Answers:

1. Ford
2. Underweight
3. 2013
4. Consumer co-operatives
5. Purchasing Power

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing power is affected.
(a) A is correct, R is false
(b) Both A and R are false statements
(c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer in Short

Question 1.
Define food security according to FAO.
Answer:
The United Nation’s Food and Agriculture Organisation defines food security as follows:
“Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.” (FAO, 2009)

Question 2.
what are the basic components of food and nutrition security?
Answer:
The hasic components of food and nutrition security are

1. Availability of food
2. Access to food
3. Absorption of food

Question 3.
Explain ‘ship to mouth’ phenomenon.
Answer:
United States of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 (PL 480) scheme to India during early 1960s. This situation was popularly known as ‘Ship to Mouth’ existence.

Question 4.
What is the role of FCl in Green Revolution?
Answer:
The Food Corporation of India helped the State to procure the harvested grains at the beginning of the cropping season. The FCI built huge storage godowns and built buffer stocks of food grain during the harvest season to be distributed throughout the year.

Question 5.
What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

1. It increase the production and cultivation
2. It increase the productivity
3. Changes in cropping system
4. Industrial development

Question 6.
Write a note on Differential Universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
Answer:

1. Under Universal Public Distribution System all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.
2. Under Targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving the others.
3. Tamil Nadu is following Universal PDS.

Question 7.
Write a short note on purchasing power.
Answer:
Purchasing power is the value of a currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods or services that one unit of money can buy. Price increases purchasing power declines and vice versa.

Question 8.
What are the main reasons for the New Agricultural Policy?
Answer:

1. To raise agricultural production and productivity.
2. To remove export restrictions such as export duty, export ban and quota restriction on organic and processed agricultural products.
3. All round development of the agriculture sector.

Question 9.
Write short note on multi-dimensional nature of poverty.
Answer:
Multi-dimensional poverty measures can be used to create a more comprehensive picture. They reveal who is poor, how they are poor and the range of disadvantages they experience. As well as providing a headline measure of poverty, multi-dimensional measures can be broken down to reveal the poverty level in different areas of a country, and among different subgroups of people.

Question 10.
Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS), Mid-Day Meals Scheme, Reproductive and child Health Programmes (RHP) and National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutritious Meal Programme (PTMGRNMP), Mid day meal programme.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.
Answer:

1. For a country’s overall development process food security of people is one of the key determining factor.
2. After independence, even though India focused on Agriculture, industrialization was also given priority.
3. But the problem of drought experienced in India forced her to be dependent on imports of food grains.
4. Therefore India had to plead for food grains from richer countries at concessional rates.
5. United states of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 to India. This situation was popularly known as ship to mouth existence.
6. An American Organisation Ford Foundation formulated a plan to increase food production in the country by introducing High Yielding varieties of wheat and rice.
7. When the results was very good in India, the idea of Green Revolution also bom in India.

Question 2.
Explain Minimum Support Price.
Answer:
Minimum Support Price is a price fixed by an expert group for a particular crop by considering various costs involved in the cultivation of that crop. After announcing the MSP, the State will open procurement centres in places where these crops are widely grown. However, the farmers are free to sell in the open market if they get a better price for their crop produce. On the other hand, if the open market price is lower than the MSP, the farmers would get an assured price (the MSP) by selling their produce to the FCI. Thus, with the implementation of MSP farmers are certain about the price they would get at the end of the crop season. Further, farmers also get insulated against any price crash during the harvest season.

Question 3.
Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. Public Distribution system refers to the Ration Shops.
2. The step taken by the Government to distribute food grains at subsidised rates is through this Public Distribution System.
3. The nature, scope and functioning of PDS varies from State to State.
4. There are two types of Public Distribution System.
5. They are universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
6. Under universal PDS, all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.
7. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria, leaving others.
8. Tamil Nadu continues to have the universal system of PDS and supplies rice at free of cost to all card holders.
9. Both the Union and the State Governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS.
10. The National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2013.
11. According to this Act 50% of urban households and 75% of the rural households are known as priority households based on a set of criteria.
12. They are supplied rice at ₹3 per kg, and wheat at ₹2 per kg, and millets at ₹1 per kg.
13. The Government of Tamil Nadu has declared that SMART family cards in lieu of existing family cards.

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting the purchasing power and explain them.
Answer:
• Over population: The population growth rate in India is high as 1.7 per 1000. Large population leads to increasing demand, but supply was not equal to the demand. So, the normal price level will be going an higher. So it affect purchasing power, especially in rural population.

• Increasing prices of essential goods: Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods. The continuous rise in the prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affect the poor people. During 2015-16 an average rate of 2% flood inflation, the prices of pulses rose by about 40%.

• Demand for goods: When demand for goods increases, the price of goods increases then the purchasing power is affected.

• Price of goods affect the value of currency: When the price increases the purchasing power decreases and finally the value of currency decreases and vice versa.

• Production and supply of goods: The production and supply of goods decline, the price of goods increases, then the purchasing power is affected.

• Poverty and inequality: There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy. The proportion of income and assets owned by the top 10% of Indian goes on increasing. This has led to an increase in the poverty level in society. Generally purchasing power is affected by poverty and unequal distribution of wealth also.

Purchasing power affects every aspect of economics, from consumers buying goods to investors and stock prices to a country’s economic prosperity. As such, a country’s government institutes policies and regulations to protect a currency’s purchasing power and keep an economy healthy. One method to monitor purchasing power is through the Consumer Price Index.

Question 5.
Write briefly some of the important objectives of India’s agricultural policy.
Answer:
The New Agricultural Policy was announced by the Government of India in 2018. The main objectives of the policy are:

1. Raising the productivity of inputs: Inputs for the growth of crops of such as HYV seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation projects should be improved.
2. Raising value – added per hectare: The policy aims at increasing the value addition per hectare by raising the productivity in small and marginal holding instead of raising physical output in general.
3. Protecting the interest of the poor farmers: The policy help the poor and marginal farmers by abolishing intermediaries, extended credit support and land reforms,
4. Modernising Agriculture sector: Introduction of modem technology in agricultural operations and application of improved agricultural inputs like HYV seeds, fertilizers etc.
5. Environmental Degradation: One of the objective of the agricultural policy is to check the environmental degradation of natural base.
6. Removing bureaucracy: Bureaucratic obstacles on the farmers co-operative societies and self – help institutions is to be removed so that farmers can work freely.

Question 6.
Discuss about the Multi-dimentional Poverty Index India and Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 report prepared by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative makes the following observations about India.
India has reduced its poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28% in 10 years, with 271 million people moving out of poverty between 2005-06 and 2015-16.

• India still had 364 million poor people in 2015-16, the largest for any country, although it is down from 635 million in 2005-06.

• Of the 364 million people who were MPI poor in 2015-16,156 million were children whereas in 2005-06 there were 292 million poor children in India. This represents a 47% decrease or 136 million fewer children growing up in multi-dimensional poverty.

• 80% of people belonging to ST were poor in 2005-06 and 50% of them were still poor in 2015-16.

• Bihar with more than half its population in poverty was the poorest state in 2015-16.

• The four poorest states Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh were still home to 196 million MPI poor people, which was over half of all the MPI poor people in India.

• Kerala, one of the least poor regions in 2006, reduced its MPI by around 92%.

Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 Report in Tamil Nadu:
Over the last decades, Tamil Nadu has made a significant progress in poverty reduction. The districts in Tamil Nadu are classified into three categories, namely high-poverty districts (more than 40% of the population living below poverty line), moderately poor districts (30% to 40%) and low level poverty districts (below 30%).

After 1994, poverty has declined steadily in both rural and urban areas of Tamil Nadu and the state has a smaller share of India’s poor relative to its-population. After 2005, the poverty reduction in this state has been faster than in many other states in India. Tamil Nadu leads in the poverty alleviation programmes during 2014-2017. Government of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate poverty.
These policies and programmes, if continued, will completely eradicate the poverty in the state. In future, Tamil Nadu can become a model of development in India.

Question 7.
Briefly explain the nutritional and health status of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Nutrition plays a crucial role in human health and well being.
2. Tamil Nadu has played a pioneering role in bringing about significant changes in the health and nutrition status.
3. Children below six years of age, pregnant women, lactating mothers and adolescent girls are mainly taken care of.
4. Tamil Nadu’s budget allocation for health and nutrition is the highest in the country.
5. The performance of the Integrated Child Development Services, and the Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutritious Meal Programme (PTMGRNMP) are considered one of the best in the country.
6. In Tamil Nadu, ICDs is being implemented through 54,439 child centres, that is 49,499 Anganwadi centres and 4,940 mini Anganwadi centres.
7. There are 434 Child Development Blocks in which 385 in rural areas, 47 urban areas and 2 in tribal areas.
8. The Government of Tamil Nadu’s policy for “A Malnutrition free Tamil Nadu” guides the State’s long term Multi – sectoral strategy for eliminating malnutrition,
9. Amartya Sen, Noble prize winning Economist stated that he sees a political will and commitment in the state of Tamil Nadu to tackle these issues to achieve the status of a “Malnutrition” “Free state”.

VII. Activity and Projects

Question 1.
Visit nearby “Uzhavar Sandhai” and collect the information about the functions of market.
Answer:
Uzhavar Sandhai is a scheme of the Government of Tamil Nadu to promote direct contact between farmers and consumers in Tamil Nadu.

Functions of Uzhavar Sandhai:

1. Uzhavar Sandhai also called as Farmer’s market was started at Madurai in 1999 to help the farmers to sell their produce at reasonable rate without the interference of the middlemen.
2. Uzhavar Sandhai starts its functioning from early morning.
3. It facilitates direct contact between farmers and the public.
4. It provides fresh vegetables and fruits at reasonable price daily without any interference from the middlemen.
5. Prices are listed down in the blackboards in every shop.
6. It provides correct measurement to the consumers with the price lesser than the retail price in the market.
7. It also acts as a technical training centre to the farmers.
8. Some of the Uzhavar Sandhai’s also sell seeds and other inputs to the farmers.
9. Farmers those who produce less can also sell in these farmer’s market and benefit themselves.

Question 2.
Collect information about health centre functioning nearby your location.
Answer:
Health centres provide continuous and comprehensive care to the patients. It helps in making the patients available with the social welfare and pubilc health services initiated by the Governing bodies.

Functions of Health Centre:

1. Provision of medical care.
2. Education about health.
3. Prevention and control of locally epedemic diseases.
4. Safe water supply and basic sanitation.
5. Maternal – child health including family planning.
6. Clinical Services.
7. Aged and disability care.
8. Child care.
9. Overall Health Promotion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Food Security and Nutrition Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The minimum support price is the price announced by the Government at the ……………… of the cropping season.
(a) end
(b) beginning
(c) harvest
(d) none
Answer:
(b) beginning

Question 2.
………… The programme was implemented in selected districts where irrigation was assured.
(a) FCI
(b) HYV
(c) MSD
Answer:
(b) HYV

Question 3.
The nature, scope and functioning of the ……………… varies from State to State.
(a) FCI
(b) PDS
(c) IRDP
(d) None
Answer:
(b) PDS

Question 4.
Buffer stock scheme purpose is …………..
(a) To save food grains from pest attack
(b) To deliver food
(c) To stop price fluctuations
Answer:
(c) To stop price fluctuations

Question 5.
Around 94% of the fair – price shops are run by ……………… in Tamil Nadu.
(a) banks
(b) government
(c) co-operatives
(d) local heads
Answer:
(c) co-operatives

Question 6.
It has been proposed to open new fair price shops so that, no cardholder walks more than ……………… km.
(a) 4
(b) 3.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 1.5
Answer:
(d) 1.5

Question 7.
……………… is a method of monitoring purchasing power.
(a) Purchasing power parity
(b) Whole sale price Index
(c) Consumer price index
(d) Inflation
Answer:
(c) Consumer price index

Question 8.
In general, purchasing power is affected by :
(a) Poverty
(b) Unequal distribution of wealth
(c) Price of the goods
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
……………… is the largest economy in terms of PPP – GDP in 2019.
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) India
Answer:
(b) China

Question 10.
……………… are the factors that constitute the Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index.
(a) Quality of work
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 11.
……………… district tops in Multi-dimensional index in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Virudunagar
Answer:
(b) Kancheepuram

Question 12.
The status of ……………… in urban and Rural areas are traced with the help of the National Family Health Survey.
(a) Poverty
(b) Health
(c) Nutrition
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Nutrition

Question 13.
……………… is considered to be one of the world’s largest programme of its kind for the holistic development of the child.
(a) ICDS
(b) RCH
(c) NRHM
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) ICDS

Question 14.
Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme gives financial assistance to poor pregnant women upto :
(a) ₹ 25,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) ₹ 50,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 12,000

Question 15.
Better medical care leads to ……………… population.
(a) stable
(b) healthy
(c) disease less
(d) growth of active
Answer:
(b) healthy

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) India has reduced the poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28 % in the past 10 years.
(ii) Multidimensional poverty index reveals who is poor, how they are poor, and the disadvantages they experience.
(iii) A substantial number of Indian women and children are underweight, anaemic and deficient in micro-nutrient.
(iv) Though India has achieved self – sufficiency in food production, yet to attain food security to all.
(a) (i), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 2.
(i) Raising the productivity of inputs and modernising agricultural is one of the aim of PMGYS.
(ii) Amartya Sen is an leading nobel laureate in agricultural science.
(iii) Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition programme is assisted financially by the world bank.
(iv) The National Food Security Act was implemented in Tamil Nadu in 2016.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) only (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (iv) are wrong
(d) (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) only (iv) is correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The New Agricultural policy was announced by the Government of India in 2018.
Reason (R): The Government decided to remove export restrictions on most organic and processed agricultural products.
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.
(b) A and R are wrong.
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Government of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate poverty in India.
Reason (R): These policies if continued, Tamil Nadu can become a model of development in India in future.
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.
(b) A is wrong R is correct.
(c) A is correct but R is the correct explanation to A.
(d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.

V. Answer in Short

Question 1.
Write about the National Food Security Act in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
On 1 November 2016, Tamil Nadu became the last state in the country to implement the National Food Security Act after holding out for three years. In a government order issued on 27 October, the state specified that while it was enforcing the law, it would be modifying its provisions.

Question 2.
Define Nutrition Security.
Answer:
According to eminent agricultural scientist M.S.Swaminathan, Nutrition security is, “Physical, Economic and social access to a balanced diet, safe drinking water, environmental hygiene, primary health care and primary education.

Question 3.
What is the purchasing power parity?
Answer:
• PPP is an economic theory that estimates the amount that needs to be adjusted to the price of an item, given exchange rates of the two countries, in order for the exchange to match each currency’s purchasing power.

• PPP can be used to compare countries income levels and other relevant economics data concerning the cost of living, or possible rates of inflation and deflation.

Question 4.
What does availability of food depend upon?
Answer:
The Availability of food depends upon the domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.

Question 5.
Name the three-tier structure of consumer cooperative societies in India?
Answer:

1. Primary consumer cooperative societies
2. Central consumer cooperative stores.
3. State-level consumer federation.

Question 6.
Write a note on National Food Security Act in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2013. On Nov 1, 2016 Tamil Nadu became a last state in the country to implement the Act. On 27th October, the State specified that while enforcing the law, it would modify the provisions.

Question 7.
What is meant by Buffer stock?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains namely wheat and rice procured by the Government through the Food Corporation of India.

Question 8.
How does the Buffer stock scheme help the people?
Answer:
The Buffer stock helps to resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.

Question 9.
What is meant by Issue Price?
Answer:
Buffer stock is done to distribute food grains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of the society at a price lower than the market price also known as the Issue Price.

Question 10.
What are the three major dimensions of poverty?
Answer:
Health, Education and living standard are the major dimensions of poverty.

Question 11.
What is Padhumaiyar Kuzhu?
Answer:
Empowering adolescent girls and making them participate in the peer group services and activities as a group. This would enable them to gain confidence and became a catalyst of change.

Question 12.
What is PPP?
Answer:
PPP refers to the Purchasing Power Parity. It is an economic theory that estimates the amount that needs to be adjusted to the price of the item, given the exchange rate of the two countries.

Question 13.
What are the uses of PPP?
Answer:
PPP is used to compare countries income levels, and other relevant economic data concerning the cost of living, (or) possible rates of Inflation or deflation.

Question 14.
What is meant by Agricultural policy?
Answer:
Agricultural policy of a country is designed for increasing the agricultural production and productivity thereby raising the level of income and standard of living of the farmers within a particular period of time.

Question 15.
What are the ten indicators of Multi – Dimensional poverty index.
Answer:

1. Nutrition and child mortality under health.
2. Years of schooling and school attendance under education.
3. Cooking fuel, sanitation, water, Electricity, floor, assets under living standards.

Question 16.
Write a note on The Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Health Insurance scheme.
Answer:

1. It was launched in 2011 – 12.
2. Aims to provide free medical and surgical treatment in Government and private hospital to any family whose annual income is less than ? 72,000
3. To reach the goal of Universal Health Care to All.

Question 17.
When does Food security exists?
Answer:
Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.

Question 18.
Write a note a Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme.
Answer:

1. Gives financial assistance upto ₹ 12,000 to poor pregnant women on nutritious diet in 3 instalments.
2. This helps to avoid low birth weight of new bom babies.
3. These women can avail ante – natal care delivering and immunising the baby bom on Government hospitals.

Question 19.
What was the aim of the National leprosy Eradication Programme?
Answer:
Its aim is to detect and to provide sustained regular treatment to all leprosy patients in the State.

Question 20.
Write the names of the four poorest states of India.
Answer:
Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarpradesh and Madhyapradesh are the four states with more number of poor people live.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the role of consumer co-operation in food security of India.
Answer:

1. Consumer co-operatives play an important role in the supply of quality goods at reasonable rates to common people.
2. It has a three tier structure.
3. They are Primary Consumer Co-operative Society, Central Consumer Co-operative Stores, State Level Consumer Federations.
4. More than 50,000 village level societies are engaged in the distribution of consumer goods in rural areas.
5. There are other benefits from consumer co-operatives such as Health Care, Insurance, Housing etc.,
6. Consumer co-operatives play a very important role in Tamil Nadu can be well witnessed as to around 94% of fair price shops are being run by co-operatives.

Question 2.
Name and explain the two components of food security system in India:
Answer:
The two components of food security system in India are Buffer stock and Public distribution system.
(i) Buffer Stock:
It is the stock of food grains (wheat and rice) procured by the government through Food Corporation of India (FCI). It is used to distribute food grain in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price. This , stock is also used during among natural calamity such as drought or earthquake.

(ii) Public Distribution System:
The food produced by the FCI is distributed through government-regulated ration shops among the poorer section of the society. This is called the Public Distribution System.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 1 Magnetism Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Magnetism

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
An object that is attracted by a magnet.
a. wooden piece
b. plain pins
c. eraser
d. a piece of paper
Answer:
b. Plain pins

Question 2.
People who made mariner’s compass for the first time.
(a) Indians
(b) Europeans
(c) Chinese
(d) Egyptians
Answer:
(c) Chinese

Question 3.
A freely suspended magnet always comes to rest in the direction
a. North-east
b. South-west
c. East-west
d. North-south
Answer:
d. North-South

Question 4.
Magnets lose their properties when they are
(a) used
(b) stored
(c) hit with a hammer
(d) cleaned
Answer:
(c) hit with a hammer

Question 5.
Mariner’s compass is used to find the
a. speed
b. displacement
c. direction
d. motion.
Answer:
c. direction

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Artificial magnets are made in different shapes such as ……….., ………… and ………..
2. The Materials which are attracted towards the magnet are called ………..
3. Paper is not a ……….. material.
4. In olden days, sailors used to find direction by suspending a piece of ………..
5. A magnet always has ………. poles.

Answer:

1. Oval shape, Disc Shape, cylindrical shape
2. magnetic materials
3. magnetic
4. lodestone
5. Two

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. A cylindrical magnet has only one pole.
2. Similar poles of a magnet repel each other.
3. Maximum iron filings stick in the middle of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
4. A compass can be used to find East-West direction at any place.
5. Rubber is a magnetic material.

Answer:

1. False – A cylindrical magnet has two poles.
2. True
3. False – Maximum iron fillings stick in the poles of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
4. False – A. compass can be used to find north-south direction at any place.
5. False – Rubber is a non-magnetic material.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

V. Circle the odd ones and give reasons

Question 1.
Iron, nail, pins, rubber tube, needle
Answer:
Iron, nail, pins,  needle
Rubber tube is a non-magnetic substance.

Question 2.
Lift, escalator, electromagnetic train, electric bulb
Answer:
Lift, escalator, electromagnetic train,
Electromagnet is not used in an electric bulb.

Question 3.
Attraction, repulsion, pointing direction, illumination
Answer:
Attraction, repulsion, pointing direction,
Illumination is not a magnetic property.

VI. The following diagrams show two magnets near one another. Use the words, ‘Attract, Repel,Turn around’ to describe what happens in each case:

Answer:
(a) Attract. Opposite poles S – N attracts each other.
(b) Repel. Like poles S – S repel each other.
(c) Attract. Opposite poles N – S attract each other.
(d) Turn around.
(e) Repel. Like poles N – N repel each other.
(f) Turn around.

VII. Write down the names of substances.

Answer:

VIII. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Explain the attraction and repulsion between magnetic poles.
Answer:

1. Like poles (N – N, S – S) repel each other.
2. Unlike poles (N – S, S – N) attract each other.

Question 2.
A student who checked some magnets in the school laboratory found out that their magnetic force is worn out. Give three reasons for that?
Answer:
Magnets lose their properties if they are heated or dropped from a height or hit with a hammer.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
You are provided with an iron needle. How will you magnetize it?
Answer:

1. Place the iron needle on the table.
2. Take a bar magnet and place one of its poles near one edge of the iron needle.
3. Rub from one end to another without changing the direction of the pole of the magnet.
4. Repeat the process 30 to 40 times. The needle will be magnetized.
5. If it will not attract pin or iron fillings continue the same process for some more time.

Question 2.
How does electromagnetic train work?
Answer:

1. Electromagnets are used in electromagnetic trains.
2. Electromagnets are magnetised when current flows through them. When the direction of the current is changed, poles will be changed.
3. Magnets are attached at the bottom of the train and rail tracks.
4. The train is lifted from track up to 10 cm height by the property of the same poles repel each other.
5. By using attraction and repulsion at the same time between the magnets in tracks and bottom of train move forward.
6. The magnets are controlled by electricity.
7. There is no friction. So the train can easily attain a speed of 300 km/ h.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
You are provided with iron filings and a bar magnet without labelling the poles of the magnet. Using this ……….

a. How will you identify the poles of the magnet?
Answer:

1. When we place the bar magnet in iron fillings a large number of iron fillings stick on the two ends of the bar magnet. These ends are poles of the magnet.
2. Poles will attract more iron filings. Because poles have high magnetic strength.

b. Which part of the bar magnet attracts more iron filings? Why?
Answer:
The more iron filings are attracted by the poles of the magnet because the poles have more concentrated magnetic power.

Question 2.
Two bar magnets are given in figure A and B. By the property of attraction, identify the North pole and the South pole in the bar magnet (B)

Answer:
Opposite poles attract each other. The second pole of magnet A is N (north pole). So magnet B has S – N poles. Then only they will attract.

Question 3.
Take a glass of water with a few pins inside. How will you take out the pins without dipping your hands into the water?
Answer:

1. Take a bar magnet.
2. Tie it in a thread.
3. Dip the tied magnet into the glass of water.
4. The pins are attracted by the magnet.
5. Now take out the magnet from the glass of water.
6. Collect the pins from the magnet.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Which is not attracted by a magnet?
(a) Iron
(b) Cobolt
(c) Nickel
(d) Rubber
Answer:
(d) Rubber

Question 2.
Among the following which one is a magnetic substance?
(a) Nickel
(b) Sodium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) Nickel

Question 3.
Who invented leading stone?
(a) Indians
(b) Europians
(c) Chinese
(d) Americans
Answer:
(c) Chinese

Question 4.
Magnets lose their properties if they are _______
(a) dipped in water
(b) dipped in oil
(c) heated
(d) in freezer
Answer:
(c) heated

Question 5.
The maximum speed of electromagnetic train is
(a) 380 km/hr
(b) 600 km/h
(c) 480 km/h
(d) 690 km/h
Answer:
(b) 600 km/h

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Magnets are used to find directions. So they are called as ………..
2. ……….. is the ore with attracting property.
3. Ever silver spoon is a ……….. material.
4. ……….. is used to seperate iron from wastages.
5. The attractive force of magnet is high near …………

Answer:

1. leading stem
2. Magnetite
3. non-magnetic
4. electromagnet
5. Poles

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – v.
2. – iii.
3. – i.
4. – ii.
5. – iv.

IV. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are artificial magnets?
Answer:
Man-made magnets are called artificial magnets.
(Eg.) bar-magnets, horseshoe magnets.

Question 2.
What are the different types of artificial magnets?
Answer:

1. Bar-magnet, Horseshoe magnet, Ring magnet and Needle magnet are generally used artificial magnets.
2. Oval-shape, Disc shape and cylindrical shape magnets are also available.

Question 3.
What are magnetic substances?
Answer:
Substances which are attracted by magnets are called magnetic substances. (Eg.) Iron, Cobolt, Nickel

Question 4.
What are non-magnetic substances?
Answer:
Substances which are not attracted by magnets are called non-magnetic substances. (Eg.) Paper, Plastic etc.

Question 5.
What are the uses of magnets?
Answer:

1. We use various equipment with magnets in day to day life.
2. We use magnets in speakers, small electric motors, some door locks, bags, some toys, compass, pencil boxes, phone covers, pin holders and magnetic crane.

V. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the storage methods of magnets?
Answer:

1. Improper storage can also cause magnets to lose their properties.
2. To keep them safe, bar magnets should be kept in pairs with their unlike poles on the same side.
3. They must be seperated by a piece of wood and two pieces of soft iron should be placed across their ends.
4. For a horse shoe magnet a single piece of soft iron can be used as a magnetic keeper across the poles.

Question 2.
How to find directions with a magnet?
Answer:

1. Tie a piece of thread to the centre of a bar magnet and suspend it freely.
2. Note the direction in which the magnet stops.
3. Draw a line on a cardboard sheet along the direction in which the bar magnet stops, (ie., a line parallel to the bar magnet)
4. Turn the magnet gently and let it come to stop again.
5. Repeat it three or four times. The magnet always comes to rest in north-south direction.

VI. Questions based on higher-order thinking skills:

Question 1.
When iron needle is rubbed with bar magnet the needle get magnetized. But rubber piece is rubbed with magnet it will not get magnetized. Why?
Answer:
Because rubber is a non-magnetic substance.

Question 2.
What will happen when we place magnets near cell phone, computer and DVD?
Answer:

1. Magnets will lose their property.
2. These objects also will get affected.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Globalization and Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
(a) Ministerial conference
(b) Director General
(c) Deputy Director General
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Director General

Question 2.
How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
(a) 159
(b) 164
(c) 148
(d) 128
Answer:
(b) 164

Question 3.
Colonial advent in India:
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French
(b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
(c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English
(d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
Answer:
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French

Question 4.
Who first came to India for trading purpose?
(a) Roman Empire
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Danish
Answer:
(b) Portuguese

Question 5.
When did Portuguese colonize India?
(a) 1600 BC
(b) 1602 BC
(c) 1498 BC
(d) 1616 BC
Answer:
(c) 1498 BC

Question 6.
GATT’s first round held in
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(d) Geneva

Question 7.
India signed the Dunket proposal in:
(a) 1984
(b) 1976
(c) 1950
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 8.
Who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632?
(a) Jahangir
(b) Sultan of Golconda
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(b) Sultan of Golconda

Question 9.
Foreign investment policy (FIR) announced in
(a) June 1991
(b) July 1991
(c) July-Aug-1991
(d) Aug 1991
Answer:
(c) July-Aug-1991

Question 10.
Indian government was introduced in …………. 1991.
(a) Globalization
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) New Economic Policy
(d) none
Answer:
(c) New Economic Policy

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Dutch captured Pondicherry in ………………
2. A better economy Introduce rapid development of the ………………
3. The East india Company built fortified factory in Madras which known as ………………
4. WTO agreement came into force from ………………
5. The term globalization Invented by ………………
6. French East India company established second factory at ………………

Answer:

1. 1693
2. Capital market
3. Fort St. George
4. January 1, 1995
5. Prof. Theodore Levitt
6. Pondicherry

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The East Indian Company especially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade and later added cotton, silk, indigo.
(ii) Merchants cf the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut
(iii) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (in) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is the process of integrating various economies of the world without creating any barriers in the free flow of goods and services, technology, capital and even labour or human capital.

Question 2.
Write the types of globalization?
Answer:
The types of Globalization are:

1. Economic Globalization: Countries integrating economically
2. Social: Information and ideas integration socially all over the world.
3. Political: Political co-operation between countries.

Question 3.
Write short note on Multinational corporation.
Answer:
Multinational corporation is a corporate organisation which owns or controls production of . goods or services in at least one country other than its home country. MNCs are also called Transnational corporation (TNG) or Multinational Enterprise (MNE). Most of the MNCs at present belong to the lour major exporting countries – USA. UK. France and Germany.

Question 4.
Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Answer:
Dutch East India company was formed in 1602. Dutch established factories at Masulipatnam, Pettapoli, Devanampattinam and with the help of King of Chandragiri Pulicut factory also. The commodities exported by the Dutch were Indigo, Saltpeter, Bengal raw silk. They captured Nagapatnam from Portuguese in 1659.

Question 5.
What are the reforms made to adopt globalization?
Answer:
The following reforms were made-to adapt globalization in India.

1. Abolition of industrial licensing, except for a few industries.
2. Reduction in the number of industries reserved for public sector.
3. Fixation of a realistic exchange rate of rupee to exchange exports of Indian goods.
4. Foreign exchange regulations were suitably amended.
5. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) was reduced to increase lending by RBI.

Question 6.
What is fair trade?
Answer:
Fair trade is a way of doing business that ultimately aims to keep small farmers an active part of the world market and aims to empower consumer to make purchases that support their values.

Question 7.
Write any five principles of Fair Trade Practices.
Answer:
Five principles of Fair trade practices:

1. Creating opportunities for economically disadvantaged producers.
2. Transforming and accountability.
3. Fair trading practices and payment of fair price.
4. Ensuring no child labour and forced labour.
5. Respect for the environment.

Question 8.
What is the main objective of WTO?
Answer:
The main objective of WTO (World Trade Organisation) is to enforce rules for International trade, to resolve trade disputes and to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring trade.

Question 9.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
TRIPs – Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights – is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). It sets down minimum standards for the regulation by national Governments of many fonns of intellectual property as applied to nationals of other WTO member nations. TRIPs was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) between 1989 and 1990 and is administered by the WTO.

TRIMS – Trade Related Investment Measures – The Uruguay Round Agreement on TRIMs referes to certain conditions or restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries to develop.

Question 10.
Write the positive impact of Globalization.
Answer:

• A better economy introduces rapid development of the capital market
• Standard of living has increased
• Better trade, therefore more employment
• Introduction of new technologies
• New scientific research patterns .
• Increases GDP of a country
• Increase free flow of goods and
• Increase FDI – Foreign Direct Investment

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write briefly the history of Globalization.
Answer:
The term Globalization was introduced by Prof. Theodore Levitt. The history of Globalization can be explained in three stages namely

1. Archaic globalization
2. Proto Globalization
3. Modem Globalization

Archaic Globalization: An early form of globalized economies and culture is known as Archaic Globalization existed during the Hellenistic Age. The trade links of the earlier days can be summarised as

1. Between Sumerian and Indus Valley Civilisation
2. Greek culture stretched from India to Spain
3. Between Roman empire, Parthian empire and the Hans dynasty.
4. The advent of Mongol empire greatly facilitated travel along the silk road.

These Pre-modem phases of global exchange are called Archaic Globalization.

Proto Globalization: It arose because of the rise of maritime European empires in the 16^th and 17^th Centuries, the Portuguese, Spanish, Dutch and British empires. In the 17^th century, the British East India company is described as the first Multinational Company and the Dutch East India company were established.

Modern Globalization: It is witnessed between 19^th and 20^th century. In the 19^th century – Global trade and capital investment. In the 20^th century, higher share of trade in merchant production, Global trade in services, Rise in production and trade by MNCs and Technological changes. Agreements of trade contracts like the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and World Trade Organisation (WTO). Technological changes lowered the cost of transport charges.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the evolution of MNC and its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Multinational companies first started their activities in the extractive industries and controlled raw materials in the host countries during 1920s and then entered the manufacturing and service sectors after 1950s. Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries i.e., USA, UK, France and Germany. However, the largest is America. In 1971, the American Corporations held 52% of the total world stock of foreign direct inverstment. Great Britain held 14.5% followed by France 5% and Federal Republic of Germany 4.4% and Japan 2.7%.
Advantages of MNCs:

• MNCs produce the same quality of goods at lower cost and without transaction cost.
• They reduce prices and increase the purchasing power of consumers world wide.
• They are able to take advantage of tax variation.
• They spur job growth in the local economy.

Disadvantages of MNCs:

• They have led to the downfall of smaller, local business.
• With more companies transferring offices and centering operations in other countries, jobs for the people living in developed countries are threatened.
• MNCs often invest in developing countries where they can take advantage of cheaper labour. Some MNCs prefer to put up branches in these parts of the world where there are no stringent policies in labour and where people need jobs because these MNCs can demand for cheaper labour and lesser healthcare benefits.

Question 3.
Explain the trade and traders in South India.
Answer:

1. South India trade guilds were formed by merchants inorder to organise and expand their trading activities.
2. South India trade was dominated by the Cholas and it w’as replaced by the Pallavas.
3. Several trade guilds operated in medieval southern India such as the Gatrigas, Nakaras, Mummuridandas, Settis, Birudas, Gavaras etc.
4. In the early trade, the Kalinga traders brought red coloured stone decorative objects for trade and also cotton textile to south east Asia.
5. The discovery of a new all sea route from Europe to India via Cape of Good Hope by Vasco-do-Gama helped to flourish trade in India.
6. India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the Europeans.
7. Therefore it was due to the trading activities European companies came to India.

Question 4.
Write about the World Trade Organisation.
Answer:
The World Trade Organisation or WTO is the only global international organisation dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trending nations and satisfied in their Parliaments. The WTO began operations on January 1, 1995 after the completion of the Uruguay Round (1986-94) of Multi lateral trade negotiations.
WTO has six key objectives

1. To set and enforce for international trade.
2. To provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalisation.
3. To resolve trade disputes.
4. To increase the transparency of decision making.
5. To corporate with other major international economic institutions involved in global economic management.
6. To help developing countries benefit fully from the global trading system.

Question 5.
Write the challenges of Globalization.
Answer:

1. Globalization means the integration of the home economy with the world Economy
2. There is a general belief that the benefits of globalization extends to all countries. But that will not happen automatically.
3. There is a constant fear the globalization leads to instability in the developing world.
4. Due to globalization, the industrial world has increased global competition.
5. This leads to race in low level, labour right and employment practices among the industrial world.
6. It may led to global imbalance.
7. It may result to activities like child labour, slavery.
8. It may also affect health as consumers are tempted to use more attracti ve junk foods.
9. It may affect environment .Because more of use and throw products and packed items may affect nature and our survival.

VII. Activity and Project

Question 2.
Students are collect the images regarded to the globalization and make the album, (south Indian trade and traders images, and silk route map, spice route map, and kalinga trade map, etc).
Answer:
Students should collect pictures of South Indian

(a) Traders and make it as an album: Student can access to google and search by typing” ancient South Indian Traders” images and collect the relevant information.

Silk route map: The silk route was an ancient network of trade routes that connected the East and the West connecting Asia, Europe and Africa. It was mainly used to transport silk.

Spice route map: Spice route is the name as spices were traded with a way of sea route. Spices such as cinnamon, ginger, pepper, turmeric etc. Traded between Asia, Europe and Africa.

Kalinga route map: Trade routes of Kalinga sailors. They used to trade along their South West voyage along the East Coast of India. Their boats used to sail from Mahanadhi to Bali and right upto Nagapattinam in Cauvery delta. Also they sail along the East coast of Srilanka.

Question 3.
Students are collect the picture of various Multinational corporation companies in India and its products pictures.
Answer:
Students can collect the pictures of various Multinational corporation companies (list is given in the text book itself) and paste the pictures and make an album.

Multinational corporation in India	Products
Microsoft Corporation India	Software products
IBM – International Business Machines Corporation	Business consulting, storage solutions.
Nestle	Food products
Proctor and Gamble (P & G)	Beauty care, Grooming, healthcare and house hold care
Citi group	Banking operations
Sony corporation	Electronic products and entertainment products.
Hewlett-Packar (hp)	Laptops, monitors, desktop and Printers
Coco-cola	Non-Alcoholic beverages
Pepsico	Snacks and beverages
Apple inc	Laptop, phone, software, online services.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Globalization and Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The supporting pillars of NEP, 1991 of India is …………………
(a) LPG
(b) WTO
(c) IMF
(d) None
Answer:
(a) LPG

Question 2.
The Dames sold all their Indian settlements to ……………
(a) the British
(b) the French
(c) the Portuguese
(d) none
Answer:
(a) the British

Question 3.
The term ………………… refers to the integration of the domestic economy with the rest of the world.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalization
(d) World trade
Answer:
(c) Globalization

Question 4.
Which among the following was the largest MNC in India in 2018?
(a) Pepsi Company
(b) Tata Group
(c) Microsoft Corporation
(d) Sony Corporation
Answer:
(d) Sony Corporation

Question 5.
The term Globalization was introduced by …………………
(a) Simon Kuznets
(b) Theodore Levitt
(c) Marshall
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(b) Theodore Levitt

Question 6.
A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is called ………………
(a) Foreign Company
(b) Multinational Company
(c) Local Company
Answer:
(b) Multinational Company

Question 7.
Archaic Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not an MNC?
(a) Reebok shoes
(b) SAIL
(c) Infosys
Answer:
(b) SAIL

Question 9.
Proto Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

Question 10.
WTO is dominated by countries like …………….
(a) US and UK
(b) China and France
(c) India and Japan
Answer:
(a) US and UK

Question 11.
The 17^th century Globalization became ………………… business phenomenon.
(a) Government
(b) Private
(c) Domestic
(d) Foreign
Answer:
(b) Private

Question 12.
………………… is an example for a multinational trade agreement.
(a) GATT
(b) WTO
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) MNC
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
South India trade ………………… were formed by merchants in order to organize and expand their trade activities.
(a) routes
(b) guilds
(c) organisation
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) guilds

Question 14.
The olden days Kalinga is the present day …………………
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Orissa
(c) M.P.
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Orissa

Question 15.
Chettiars in Tamil Nadu are examples of early …………………
(a) people
(b) Traders
(c) nationalists
(d) Bankers
Answer:
(b) Traders

Question 16.
The arrival of Alvarez cabral in India in 1500 A.D. led to the establishment of trading station at …………………
(a) Cochin
(b) Calcutta
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 17.
………………… was the headquarters of the Dutch in India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) Arabia
(d) Pulicut
Answer:
(d) Pulicut

Question 18.
The Sultan of Golconda granted the English the “Golden Fireman” in …………………
(a) 1634
(b) 1632
(c) 1631
(d) 1630
Answer:
(b) 1632

Question 19.
In 1639, English build a fortified factory in Madras which was known as …………………
(a) Fort Pulicut
(b) Fort St. George
(c) Fort Masulipatnam
(d) Fort Pettapoli
Answer:
(b) Fort St. George

Question 20.
The first French factory in India was established in ………………… by obtaining permission from the Sultan of Golconda.
(a) 1634
(b) 1668
(c) 1693
(d) 1642
Answer:
(b) 1668

Question 21.
Pondicherry was the headquarters of the
(a) British
(b) Spanish
(c) French
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(c) French

Question 22.
Initially Pondicherry was captured by the ………………… and later handed over to the French.
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) Spaniards
(d) Sultan of Golconda
Answer:
(b) Dutch

Question 23.
Pondicherry became the headquarters of the France in the year …………………
(a) 1664
(b) 1693
(c) 1700
(d) 1701
Answer:
(d) 1701

Question 24.
India signed the Dunkel draft in the year …………………
(a) 1664
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1893
Answer:
(c) 1994

Question 25.
One of the reform made to adopt Globalization was …………………
(a) Abolition of Industrial licensing
(b) Reduction of Public Sector
(c) Foreign exchange regulations
(d) All the industries above
Answer:
(d) All the industries above

Question 26.
Multinational corporations are also called as …………………
(a) Transnational corporation
(b) Multi-national Enterprise
(c) MNCs
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 27.
………………… country has the largest multinational companies in the world.
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 28.
Of the below given choices, find out, which is a multinational corporation.
(a) Tata Group
(b) Nettle
(c) IBM
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 29.
GATT was established in …………………
(a) 1946
(b) 1945
(c) 1947
(d) 1948
Answer:
(c) 1947

Question 30.
Eighth round of GATT was known as ………………… Round.
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(b) Uruguay

Question 31.
………………… countries participated in the eighth round of GATT.
(a) 127
(b) 117
(c) 167
(d) 107
Answer:
(b) 117

Question 32.
The eighth round of Talks of GATT took place in the year …………………
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
Answer:
(d) 1986

Question 33.
Uruguay Round final Act was signed by the member nations in the year …………………
(a) 1986
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 34.
The Headquarters of WTO is in …………………
(a) Geneva
(b) Scotland
(c) America
(d) Holland
Answer:
(a) Geneva

Question 35.
G7 countries means ………………… countries of the world.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Under developed
(d) Less developed
Answer:
(a) Developed

Question 36.
GATT was signed by ………………… countries in 1947.
(a) 22
(b) 23
(c) 21
(d) 117
Answer:
(b) 23

Question 37.
TRIPS include the following areas of …………………
(a) Trade Secrets
(b) Copy rights
(c) patents
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 38.
Globalization increases GDP of a country by free flow of goods and also to increase …………………
(a) FDI
(b) GNP
(c) Technological improvement
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 39.
TRIMs refers to certain ………………… imposed by the government in respect of foreign investment of a country.
(a) Conditions
(b) Control
(c) Restrictions
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 40.
………………… sometimes may lead to Child labour and slavery.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalization
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Globalization

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. LPG is the supporting pillar of India’s ………………..
2. means integration of the international market for goods and services.
3. The term Globalization was introduced by Prof ………………..
4. The History of Globalization can be studied under ……………….. stages.
5. The first stage of the history of Globalization is called ……………….. Globalization.
6. The third stage of the history of Globalization is called ……………….. Globalization.
7. The Proto Globalization is the ……………….. stage of the history of Globalization.
8. The Archaic Globalization existed during the ……………….. Age.
9. The Dutch East India Company was founded in the year ………………..
10. The expansion of GATT is ………………..
11. The ……………….. is the expansion for WTO
12. South Indian trade was dominated by the ……………….. and replaced by the ………………..
13. Kalinga traders brought ……………….. coloured stone decorative objects for trade.
14. India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the ………………..
15. The Portuguese under the leadership of Vasco do Gama landed at Calicut in ………………..
16. ……………….. was the early capital of Portuguese in India.
17. The Sultan of Golconda granted the English the ……………….. in 1632.
18. In 1639, English build a fortified factory in Madras which is known as ………………..
19. ……………….. was the headquarters of Danes in India
20. The first French factory was established in ………………..
21. The first French factory was established with the permission from the Sultan of ………………..
22. ……………….. was the headquarters of the French.
23. Pondicherry became the headquarters of the French in the year ………………..
24. Recently the Government of India has set up ……………….. to boost exports.
25. India signed the Dunkel Draft in the year ………………..
26. When India was in crisis in 1990’s India mortgaged 40 tons of gold to the Bank of ………………..
27. The New Economic Policy was put forth in the year ………………..
28. The ……………….. is a corporate organisation operates in many countries other than home country.
29. Multinational Corporations are also called as ………………..
30. Of the MNC ……………….. is the largest, holding a major share of the FDI
31. India announced the Foreign Investment policy in the year ………………..
32. The growth of MNC may lead to the downfall of smaller local ……………….. of the host country.
33. The expansion of FCRA is ………………..
34. GATT was signed in the year ………………..
35. Initially, GATT was signed by ……………….. countries.
36. In the seventh round of GATT ……………….. countries participated.
37. GATT’s primary purpose was to increase International Trade by reducing ………………..
38. The headquarters of GATT is in ………………..
39. The Eighth round of GATT is called as ………………..
40. The signing of GATT in 1994 paved the way for the setting up of ………………..
41. Intellectual property right may be defined as ………………..
42. The expansion of TRIPs is ………………..
43. The expansion of TRIMs is ………………..
44. One of the negative effect of ……………….. is that it may lead to slavery and Child labour.
45. The Trade Secret is an agreement covered under ………………..

Answers:

1. New Economic Policy
2. Globalization
3. Theodore Levitt
4. Three
5. Archaic
6. Modem
7. Second
8. Hellenistic
9. 1602
10. General Agreement on Tariffs and
11. World Trade Organisation
12. Cholas, Pallavas
13. Red
14. Europeans
15. 1498
16. Cochin
17. Golden Fireman
18. Fort St.George
19. Triangular
20. 1668
21. Golconda
22. Pondicherry
23. 1701
24. Special Economic Zones
25. 1994
26. England
27. 1991
28. MNC
29. Multinational Enterprise
30. America
31. 1991
32. Business
33. Foreign Contribution Regulation Act
34. 1947
35. 23
36. 99
37. various tariffs
38. Geneva
39. Uruguay Round
40. WTO
41. Information with a commercial value
42. Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights
43. Trade Related Investment Measures
44. Globalization
45. TRIPs

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Globalization has led to environmental degradation.
(ii) GATT was signed by 73 countries in 1949
(iii) TRIPs and TRIMs are a part of WTO
(iv) It takes only a few hours to transport goods between continents today.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii) is correct
(d) (ii), (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct

Question 2.
(i) Proto Globalization was characterized by the rise of maritime European Empires.
(ii) The pre-modern phase of global exchange are sometimes known as Proto Globalization.
(iii) The Kalinga traders brought Red coloured stone decorative objects for trade
(iv) The Danes formed an East India Company and arrive in India in 1616.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii)is correct
(d) (iii), (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct

Question 3.
(i) The MNC first started their activities in controlling the industries of the host countries.
(ii) Indian Government mortgaged 40 tons of gold to the Bank of England prior to 1991.
(iii) To boost exports, recently, the Government of India announced Demonetisation and Goods and Services Tax.
(iv) The French failed in India and in 1845, they were forced to sell all their Indian settlements to the British.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) is correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) is correct

Question 4.
(i) The main reason for the growth of MNC is on the account of technological superiorities.
(ii) An MNC is able to take advantage of tax variation.
(iii) WTO provides a forum for negotiating and monitoring trade liberalisation.
(iv) The agreement of the final act of Uruguay Round was agreed by 104 member countries.
(a) (i),(ii),(iii) are correct
(b) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(d) (i) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): After 1991, there was a spurt of foreign collaborations in India and increase flow of FDI-Foreign Direct Investment.
Reason (R): The liberalized Foreign Investment Policy (FIP) was announced in India in July-August 1991.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A

Question 2.
Assertion (A); The introduction of MNC into a host country’s economy may lead to the downfall of small, local business.
Reason (R): Spurring job growth in the local economies.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the Europeans.
Reason (R): Trade guilds were channels through which Indian Culture was exported to other lands.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (vi)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

VI. Give Short answers

Question 1.
What is the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010?
Answer”
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act or FCRA, 2010 has been enacted the Parliament to consolidate the law to regulate the acceptance and utilisation of Foreign contributions or foreign hospitality by certain individuals or associations or companies and to prohibit acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality for any activities detrimental to national interest and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Question 2.
How did India’s NEP emerged?
Answer:
When India was facing a down grading economic crisis situation, the government presented a budget in July 1991 for 1991-92 with a series of policy changes which underlined liberalization, privatization and globalization. This has come to be called as India’s New Economic policy.

Question 3.
What came to be known as India’s new economic policy? How was this policy strengthened?
Answer:
With the downgrading of India’s credit rating by some international agencies, these was heavy flight of capital out of India. The Government has to mortgage 40 tons of gold to the Bank of England. Under these circumstances, the Government for 1991-92 presented its budget in July 1991 with a series of policy changes which underlined globalization, liberalisation and privatisation. This has come to be called as India’s new economic policy.

Question 4.
Write a note on SEZ?
Answer:
SEZ means Special Economic Zones . Recently the Government of India has set up special Economic Zones in southern states of especially in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala with a view to boost exports. Few SEZ in Tamil Nadu are Nanguneri SEZ, Ennore SEZ, Coimbatore SEZ.

Question 5.
How are producers beneficiaries of fair trade?
Answer:
For producers fair trade is unique in offering four important benefits.

• Stable prices that cover the costs of sustainable production.
• Market access That enables buyers to trade with producers who would otherwise be excluded from market.
• Partnerships (producers are involved) in decisions that affect their future.

Question 6.
Write any type of subsidies the WTO offers to its member countries?
Answer:

1. Tax concessions such as exemptions , credits (or) deferrals.
2. Cash subsidies such as the grants.

Question 7.
What was the idea behind developing SEZ in India?
Answer:
To attract foreign companies to invest in India.

VII. Brief Answer

Question 1.
What is fair trade? Who are the beneficiaries of fair trade practices? How?
Answer:
Fair trade is an industrial arrangement designed to help producers in developing countries achieve better trading conditions. Fair trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for fanners and workers.
With fair trade, everyone is the beneficiary. Take examples of consumers, traders and producers.
(i) Consumers – Fair trade relationship provide the basis for connecting producers with consumer and for informing consumers of the need for social justice and the opportunities for change. Consumer support enables fair trade organisation to be advocates and campaigners for wider reform of international trading rules, to achieve the ultimate goal of a just and equitable global trading system. Shoppers can buy products in line with their values and principles. They can choose from an ever growing range of great products.

(ii) Traders / Companies – Since its launch in 2002, the fair trade mark has become the most widely, recognised social and development label in the world. Fair trade offers companies a credible way to ensure that their trade has a positive impact for the people at the end of the chain.

(iii) Producers – For producers fair trade is unique in offering important benefits:
(a) stable prices that cover the costs of sustainable production,
(b) market access that enables buyers to trade with producers who would otherwise be excluded from market,
(c) partnership
(d) empowerment of farmers and workers.

Question 2.
Write a note on the beneficiaries of Fair Trade practices.
Answer:
Fair Trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for farmers and workers.

Beneficiaries of Fair Trade practices:

Consumers:

1. Consumers are the main beneficiaries.
2. This is because they can advocate and compare for wide reform of International trading rules.
3. They can choose from growing range of great products.
4. Consumers support producers by buying fair trade labelled products who are struggling to improve their lives.

Traders (or) companies:

1. Fair Trade offer companies a credible way to ensure that they have a positive impact.
2. Launched in 2002, Fair Trade mark has become the most widely, recognized social and development label in the world.

Producers:

1. It gives the farmers / producers a kind of empowerment.
2. Stable prices cover the cost of sustainable production.
3. Buyers easily access the market and trade with producers, which in turn boost production.

Question 3.
What are the factors that multinational companies take into account before setting up a factory in different countries?
Answer:
Before setting up a company or a factory, an MNC takes into account the following things:
(i) Availability of cheap labour and other resources:
MNC’s setup offices and factories for production in various regions of the world, where cheap labour and other resources are available in order to earn greater profit.

(ii) Partnership with local companies:
MNC’s setup partnership with local companies, by a closely competing with local companies or buying local companies for supply. As a result, production in these widely dispersed locations gets interlinked.

(iii) Favourable Government Policy:
If the Government Policies are favourable, it helps MNC’s. For example: Flexibility of labour laws will reduce cost of production. MNC’s are able to hire worker on casual and contractual wages for a short period instead of a regular basis. This reduces the cost of labour for the company and increases its margin of profit.

Question 4.
What are the reasons for the growth of MNC?
Answer:
Expansion of Market: For a large size firm, when its activities expand more and more , it goes beyond their country’s boundary and move to other countries market.

Marketing superiorities:

1. A MNC enjoys market reputation easily .
2. It faces loss difficulty in selling the products .
3. It can adopt very effective advertisement tactics.
4. All these help in their sales promotion.

High level of financial resources:

1. A MNC has high level of financial resources which helps them in high level of fund utilisation.
2. Easy access to external capital market.
3. Can raise more International resources to improve their production at any cost.

Advancement in Technology:

1. The High level of technology of the MNCs attract them to participate in Industrial development.
2. It helps them to offer products at a low price.

Product Innovation:

1. They can develop new products.
2. New Designs of existing products.
3. Designs that help the new generations to apply their knowledge.

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 7 Parts of Computer Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 7 Parts of Computer

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is an output device?
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Speaker
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Speaker

Question 2.
Name the cable that connects CPU to the Monitor
(a) Ethernet
(b) VGA cable
(c) HDMI
(d) USB
Answer:
(b) VGA cable

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an input device?
(a) Speaker
(b) Keyboard
(c) Monitor
(d) Printer
Answer:
(b) Keyboard

Question 4.
Which one of the following is an example for wireless connections?
(a) Wi-Fi
(b) Electric wires
(c) VGA
(d) USB
Answer:
(a) Wi-Fi

Question 5.
Pen drive is ……… device.
(a) Output
(b) Input
(c) Storage
(d) Connecting cable
Answer:
(c) Storage

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – Connecting Cable
2. – wireless connection
3. – Output device
4. – Input device
5. – LDMI

III. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Name the parts of a computer.
Answer:
The computer has three parts like,
1. Input unit
2. Central Processing Unit
3. Output

Question 2.
Answer:

Activity

Look at the magic of connecting cables to desktop computer with 4,3,2,1 formula, start from 4 proceed till 1. Now your computer is ready to use.

By connecting the various parts of a computer we can assemble a computer. For the construction activity, students have to use 4-3-2-1 formula.

A system consist of mouse, key board, monitor, CPU, power cables, and connecting cables Students has to connect the four parts of a computer in row 4, using the cables in row 3, through the power cables in row 2 to construct a system.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not important part of computer?
(a) Input device
(b) Output device
(c) Mouse
(d) Central Processing Unit
Answer:
(c) Mouse

Question 2.
The page on the monitor can be moved up and down using the _______
(a) Right button
(b) Scroll ball
(c) Left button
(d) Number key
Answer:
(b) Scroll ball

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an example for wireless connection.
(a) USB
(b) power cord
(c) HDMI
(d) wi-fi
Answer:
(d) wi-fi

Question 4.
The data is measured in units which is called as _______
(a) micron
(b) meter
(c) millimeter
(d) Bit
Answer:
(d) Bit

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………, ……….. plays a role of data in computer.
2. …….. controls the functions of all parts of the computer.
3. Memory unit divided into ………. types.
4. The data is measured in units which is called as ………..
5. Mouse is connected with the computer using ………..

Answer:

1. Numbers and alphabets
2. control unit
3. 2
4. Bit
5. USB cord or cable

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 6 Human Organ Systems Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 6 Human Organ Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Human Organ Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The circulatory system transports these throughout the body
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nutrient
(c) Hormones
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 2.
Main organ of respiration in human body is
(a) Stomach
(b) Spleen
(c) Heart
(d) Lungs
Answer:
(d) Lungs

Question 3.
Breakdown of food into smaller molecules in our body is known as
(a) Muscle contraction
(b) Respiration
(c) Digestion
(d) Excretion
Answer:
(a) Digestion

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. A group of organs together make up an ………. system.
2. The part of the skeleton that protects the brain is …………
3. The process by which the body removes waste is ………..
4. The ………. is the largest sense organ in our body.
5. The endocrine glands produce chemical substances called …………

Answer:

1. Organ
2. Skull
3. Excretion
4. Skin
5. hormones

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. Blood is produced in the bone marrow.
2. All the waste products of the body are excreted through the circulatory system.
3. The other name of the food pipe is an alimentary canal.
4. Thin tube-like structures which are the component of the circulatory system are called blood vessels.
5. The brain, the spinal cord, and nerves form the nervous system.

Answer:

1. False – RBC’s are produced in the bone marrow.
2. False – All the waste products are transported through the circulatory system.
3. False – The other name of the digestive tract is an alimentary canal.
4. True
5. True

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – e
3. – b
4. – a
5. – d

V. Arrange in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Stomach → Large intestine → Oesophagus → Pharynx → Mouth → Small Intestine → Rectum → Anus
Answer:
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Rectum

Question 2.
Urethra → Ureter → Urinary Bladder → Kidney
Answer:
Kidney → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra

VI. Analogy

1. Arteries : Carry blood from the heart:: ……….. : Carry blood to the heart.
2. Lungs : Respiratory system :: ……….. : Circulatory system.
3. Enzymes : Digestive glands :: ………… : Endocrine glands

Answer:

1. Veins
2. Heart
3. Hormones

VII. Give a Very short answer:

Question 1.
Describe the skeletal system.
Answer:

1. The skeletal system consists of bones, cartilages and joints.
2. Bones provide a framework for the body.
3. Bones along with muscles help in movements such as walking, running, chewing and dancing etc.

Question 2.
Write the functions of epiglottis?
Answer:

1. It prevents the entry of food into the windpipe.
2. It opens when the air enters the windpipe.

Question 3.
What are the three types of blood vessels?
Answer:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Capillaries

Question 4.
Define the term “Trachea”
Answer:

1. The trachea commonly called “Windpipe” is a tube supported by cartilaginous rings.
2. It connects the pharynx and larynx to the lungs.
3. Allowing the passage of air.

Question 5.
Write any two functions of the digestive system.
Answer:

1. The digestive system is involved in the conversion of complex food substances into simple forms.
2. Absorption of digested food.

Question 6.
Name the important parts of the eye?
Three main parts.
Answer:

1. Cornea
2. Iris
3. Pupil

Question 7.
Name the five important sense organs.
Answer:

1. Eyes
2. Ears
3. Nose
4. Tongue
5. Skin

VIII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
Write a short note on the rib cage.
Answer:

1. The rib cage is made up of 12 pairs of curved, flat rib bones.
2. It protects the delicate vital organs such as the heart and lungs.

Question 2.
List out the functions of the human skeleton.
Answer:

1. The skeletal system gives shape to the body.
2. Bones provide a framework for the body.
3. Bones along with muscles help in movements such as walking, running, chewing and dancing, etc.
4. It protects the soft internal organs.

Question 3.
Differentiate between the voluntary muscles and involuntary muscles.
Answer:

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
List out the functions of the Endocrine system and Nervous system.
Answer:

1. Endocrine system regulates various functions of the body and maintains the internal environment.
2. Endocrine glands produce chemical substances called “Hormones’ which control various activities of the body.
   Eg. Growth hormone controls growth, the Adrenalin hormone acts at the time of fear stress, etc.

Functions of the nervous system:

1. Sensory input: The conduction of signals from sensory receptors.
2. Integration: The interpretation of the sensory signals and the formulation of responses.
3. Motor output: The conduction of signals from the brain and spinal card to effectors such as muscle and gland cells.

Question 2.
Label the diagram given below to show the four main parts of the urinary system and answer the following questions.

a. Which organ removes extra salts and water from the blood?
b. Where is the urine stored?
c. What is the tube through which urine is excreted out of the body?
d. What are the tubes that transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder called?
Answer:
a. The functional units of the kidney are called Nephrons which filter the blood and form the urine.
b. Urine is stored in the urinary bladder.
c. Urine is expelled out through the urethra.
d. The ureters that transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What will happen if the diaphragm shows no movement?
Answer:

1. The diaphragm is the primary organ of breathing.
2. The movement of the diaphragm expands the lungs and creates a vacuum.
3. Due to this, the air is sucked in.
4. If the diaphragm does not move the lungs do not expand or contract and breathing stops.
5. The person will die.

Question 2.
Why is the heart divided into two halves by a thick muscular wall?
Answer:

1. The ventricles of the heart have thicker muscular walls than the atria.
2. The left ventricle also has a thicker muscular wall than the right ventricle.
3. This is due to the higher forces needed to pump blood through the systemic circuit compared to the pulmonary circuit.

Question 3.
Why do we sweat more in summer?
Answer:

1. Sweating plays an important health role as it helps to maintain constant body temperature by cooling us down.
2. When it is hot and we sweat that moisture evaporates and cools us immediately.
3. This is why we sweat more when the summer is very hot.

Question 4.
Why do we hiccup and cough sometimes when we swallow food?
Answer:
Reasons for hiccup and cough :

1. Eating too – quickly and swallowing air along with foods.
2. Eating too – many fatty or spicy foods in particular.
3. Drinking too much-carbonated beverages or alcohol can distend the stomach and irritate the diaphragm which can cause hiccups.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Human Organ Systems Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
A newborn baby has ……….. bones.
(a) 206
(b) More than 200
(c) More than 300
(d) 210
Answer:
(c) More than 300

Question 2.
_______ connect bone to muscle.
(a) Skeleton
(b) Tendons
(c) Cartilages
(d) Ligaments
Answer:
(b) Tendons

Question 3.
The walls of the heart is made up of
(a) Voluntary muscles
(b) Cardiae muscles
(c) Involuntary muscles
(d) Biceps muscle
Answer:
(b) Cardiac muscles

Question 4.
_______ muscles are found in the walls of the digestive tract, urinary bladder arteries, and other internal organs.
(a) Bone
(b) Smooth
(c) Cardiac
(d) triceps
Answer:
(b) Smooth

Question 5.
The bronchi divide further and end in small air sacs called
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Thymus
(c) Alveoli
(d) Pinna
Answer:
(c) Alveoli

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The adult human skeletal system consists of 206 bones and a few ………., ……… and ………..
2. The brain is covered by a three-layered tissue covering called………..
3. When we are walking, running or climbing the balance of the body is maintained by ………….
4. The endocrine gland present in the chest is …………..
5. The ………. brings blood containing oxygen and urea from the aorta to the kidneys.
6. connects the brain to a different part of the body through nerves.

Answer:

1. cartilages, ligaments, and tendons
2. meninges
3. Ears
4. Thymus Gland
5. renal artery
6. spinal cord

III. Match the Following:

Answer
1. – iii.
2. – i.
3. – iv.
4. – v.
5. – ii.

IV. Arrange in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Trachea → Bronchi → Pharynx → Lungs → Larynx → Nasal cavity → Nostrils → Bronchiole → Alveolus
Answer:
Nostrils → Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchiole → Alveolus

Question 2.
Middle ear → Pinna → Outer ear → Inner ear
Answer:
Pinna → Outer ear → Middle ear → Inner ear.

V. Analogy

1. Skull: Made up of cranial bones and facial bones :: ………… : Made up of 12 pairs of curved flat rib bones
2. Biceps : Bends the arm at the elbow :: ……….. : Straightens the elbow

Answer:

1. Ribcage
2. Triceps

VI. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the two major divisions of the skeletal system?
Answer:
The two major divisions of the skeletal system are.

1. Axial skeleton
2. Appendicular skeleton.

Question 2.
Name the auditory ossicles.
Answer:

1. Malleus
2. Incus
3. Stapes

Question 3.
Which is the longest bone in our body?
Answer:
The thigh bone (femur) is the longest bone.

Question 4.
What is the name of the muscles in the heart?
Answer:
Cardiac muscle.

Question 5.
What is the length of the Alimentary canal?
Answer:
9 metres.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Tabulate the differences between arteries and veins.
Answer:
Arteries:

1. Carry blood from the heart to all parts of the body.
2. Carry oxygenated blood (Except pulmonary artery).
3. They have thick elastic muscular walls.
4. Valves are absent.
5. Blood flows under high pressure.

Veins:

1. Carry blood from all parts of the body back to the heart.
2. Carry deoxygenated blood (Except pulmonary vein).
3. They have thin non-elastic valves.
4. Valves are present to prevent the backward flow of blood.
5. Blood flows under low pressure.

Question 2.
Differentiate arteries from a vein and tabulate your answer.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The unit of measurement used for expressing dimension (size) of cell is
(a) centimeter
(b) millimeter
(c) micrometer
(d) meter
Answer:
(c) micrometer

Question 2.
Under the microscope, Priya observes a cell that has a cell wall and a distinct nucleus. The cell that she observed is
(a) a plant cell
(b) an animal cell
(c) a nerve cell
(d) a bacteria cell
Answer:
(d) a bacteria cell

Question 3.
A ‘control centre’ of the eukaryotic cell is
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nucleus
(c) Vacuoles
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(b) Nucleus

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not a unicellular organism?
(a) Yeast
(b) Amoeba
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(c) Spirogyra

Question 5.
Most organelles in a eukaryotic cell are found in the
(a) Cell wall
(b) cytoplasm
(c) nucleus
(d) Vacuole
Answer:
(b) cytoplasm

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The instrument used to observe the cell is ………..
2. I control the food production of a cell. Who am I? ………..
3. I am like a policeman. Who am I ………?
4. The Term “cell” was coined by ………..
5. The egg of an Ostrich is the ……….. single cell.

Answer:

1. Microscope
2. Chloroplast
3. Cell membrane
4. Robert Hooke
5. Largest

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. A cell is the smallest unit of life.
2. Nerve cell is the longest cell
3. Prokaryotes were the first form of life on earth.
4. The organelles of both plants and animals are made up of cells. (Organelles – Found inside the cell)
5. New cells are produced from existing cells.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – b

V. Arrange in a correct sequence

Question 1.
Elephant, Cow, Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant.
Answer:
Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant, Cow, Elephant.

Question 2.
Hen Egg, Ostrich egg, Insect egg.
Answer:
Insect egg, Hen egg, Ostrich egg

VI. Analogy

1. Prokaryote : Bacteria :: Eukaryote : ………..
2. Spirogyra : Plant cell :: Amoeba : ………….
3. Food producer : Chloroplasts :: Power house : …………

Answer:

1. Plants, Animals
2. Animal cell
3. Mitochondria

VII. Give a Very short answer:

Question 1.
Who discovered the cell in 1665?
Answer:
The English scientist Robert Hooke discovered the cell in 1665 from cork slices kept under a microscope.

Question 2.
What type of cells do we have?
Answer:
We have a Eukaryotic type of cells.

Question 3.
What are the essential components of a cell?
Answer:
A typical cell consists of three major parts.

1. An outer cell membrane
2. A liquid cytoplasm
3. Nucleus

Question 4.
What are the organelles found only in plant cells?
Answer:

1. Cell wall
2. Chloroplast

Question 5.
Give any three examples of eukaryotic cells.
Answer:

1. Plant cells
2. Animal cells
3. Most of fungi and Algae

Question 6.
Which one is called as “Area of movement”?
Answer:
The cytoplasm is a watery, gel-like material in which cell parts move. So it is known as an “Area of movement”.

Question 7.
Shiva said, “Bigger onion has larger cells when compared to the cells of the smaller onion”! Do you agree with his statement or not? Explain why?
Answer:
No, the big onion and small onion both of them have plant cell and the size of every cell remains the same whether it is of a small onion or big one. The shape is larger means that the number of cells is more in bigger onion.

VIII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
Why cells are called building blocks of life?
Answer:
A brick is a basic building block of a wall, likewise, the cells are the basic structural and functional unit of every living organism. So the cells are called as building blocks of life.

Question 2.
Identify any four parts of the plant cell?

Answer:
A – Cell Wall,
B – Cytoplasm,
C – Nucleus,
D – Mitochondria

Question 3.
Distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Answer:

Question 4.
Make sketches of animal and plant cells which you observe under the microscope.
Answer:

Cell Wall & Chloroplasts – Absent in Animal Cells
Centrioles – Absent in Plant Cells

Question 5.
Write about the contribution of Robert Hooke in cell biology
Answer:
Robert Hooke was a scientist and inventor. He improved the microscope and built a compound microscope. One day he made thin sections of the cork and observed many small identical chambers through his microscope. They were hexagonal in shape. Based on these observations Hooke published a book named Micrographia in the year 1665, where he first used the term Cell. He describes the structure of tissue using the term cell.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Tabulate any five cell organelles and their function.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.
Answer:

X. Project (For Students)

Question 1.
Use your imagination and create a 3-D model of a plant cell?

Question 2.
You can use numerous food materials such as jelly and some cake to make a cell body. Cell organelles can be made using nuts and dry fruits. You can display the model in your classroom and invite teachers or students from other classes to rise questions on the project and try to give answers.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
The first cell formed in the earth
(a) Eukaryotic cell
(b) Algal cell
(c) Fungal cell
(d) Prokaryotic cell
Answer:
(d) Prokaryotic cell

Question 2.
Robert Hooke published a book named ______ in the year 1665.
(a) Cellula
(b) Micrographia
(c) Cell biology
(d) Organelles
Answer:
(b) Micrographia

Question 3.
The pigment present in leaf to absorb light is
(a) chlorophyll
(b) chloroplast
(c) chromoplast
(d) leucoplast
Answer:
(a) chlorophyll

Question 4.
The largest cell is the egg of an ______ with 170-millimeter width.
(a) Ostrich
(b) viper
(c) tortoise
(d) Hen
Answer:
(a) Ostrich

II. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Chloroplast is a cell organelle
Reason (R) : An organelle is a distinct part of the cell which has a particular structure and Function.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R – true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A True but R False
(d) A False but R True
Answer:
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Mitochondria is an important organ cell of the cell
Reason (R) : Mitochondria is involved in food preparation
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R – true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A True but R False
(d) A False but R True
Answer:
(c) A True but R False

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – B
2. – D
3. – E
4. – C

IV. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Arrange the following cells in the order of their size.
(a) Bacteria cell
(b) Frogs egg
(c) Hen’s egg
(d) Human egg.
Answer:
(a) Bacterial cell
(b) Human egg
(c) Frogs egg
(d) Hen’s egg

Question 2.
How do you distinguish between living and dead cells?
Answer:
Living cells have a nucleus (Eg.) Onion peel cells.
Non-Living cells don’t have a nucleus (Eg.) Cork ceils.

Question 3.
Name the largest Angiosperm cell
Answer:
The largest Angiosperm cell is citrus reticulata (clearly visible in orange pulp) & citrus maxima.

Question 4.
Name the organelle without membrane.
Answer:
Ribosomes are the cell organelle in which the membrane is absent.

Question 5.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C, D

Answer:
The diagram is the structure of the chloroplast
A – outer membrane
B – inner membrane
C – Thylakoid
D – stroma

Question 6.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C

Answer:
A – Outer Membrane
B – Cristae
C – Matrix

Question 7.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C

Answer:
Structure of Nucleus
A – Nuclear membrane
B – Nuclear pore
C – Nucleolus
D – Chromatin reticulum