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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.5 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.5

Question 1.
Find the modulus of the following complex numbers.
(i) \(\frac{2i}{3+4i}\)
Solution:

(ii) \(\frac{2-i}{1+i}+\frac{1-2 i}{1-i}\)
Solution:

Modulus of z = |z| = \(\sqrt{4+4}\)
= √8
= 2√2

(iii) |(1 – i)¹⁰| = (|1 – i|)¹⁰
= \((\sqrt{1+1})^{10}=(\sqrt{2})^{10}=2^{5}=32\)
(iv) |2i(3 – 4i) (4 – 3i)|
= |2i| |3 – 4i| |4 – 3i|
= \(2 \sqrt{9+16} \sqrt{16+9}\)
= 2 × 5 × 5
= 50

Question 2.
For any two complex numbers z₁ and z₂, such that |z₁| = |z₂| = 1 and z₁ z₂ ≠ -1, then show that \(\frac{z_{1}+z_{2}}{1+z_{1} z_{2}}\) is real number.
Solution:
Given |z₁| = |z₂| = 1 and z₁ z₂ ≠ 1
|z₁|² = 1 |z₂|² = 1
z₁ \(\bar{z}_{1}\) = 1 similarly z₂ \(\bar{z}_{2}\) = 1

Since z = \(\bar{z}\), it is a real number.

Question 3.
Which one of the points 10 – 8i, 11 + 6i is closest to 1 + i.
Solution:
A (1 + i), B (10 – 8i), C (11 + 6i)
|AB| = |(10 – 8i) – (1 + i)|
= |10 – 8i – 1 – i|
= |9 – 9i|
= \(\sqrt{81+81}\)
= \(\sqrt{162}\)
= 9(1.414)
= 12.726
CA = |(11 + 6i) – (1 + i)|
= |11 + 6i – 1 – i|
= |10 + 5i|
= \(\sqrt{100+25}\)
= \(\sqrt{125}\)
C (11 + 6i) is closest to the point A (1 + i)

Question 4.
If |z| = 3, show that 7 ≤ |z + 6 – 8i| ≤ 13.
Solution:
given |z| = 3
|z + 6 – 8i| ≤ |z| + |6 – 8i|
= 3 + \(\sqrt{6^2+8^2}\)
= 3 + \(\sqrt{100}\)
= 3 + 10 = 13
∴ |z + 6 – 8i| ≤ 13 ……….. (1)
|z + 6 – 8i| ≥ ||z| – |-6 + 8i||
= |3 – 10|
= |-7| = 7
∴ |z + 6 – 8i| ≥ 7 ………… (2)
from 1 and 2
we get 7 ≤ |z + 6 – 8i| ≤ 13
hence proved.

Question 5.
If |z| = 1, show that 2 ≤ |z² – 3| ≤ 4.
Solution:
|z| = 1 ⇒ |z|² = 1
||z₁| – |z₂|| ≤ |z₁ + z₂| ≤ |z₁| + |z₂|
||z|² – |-3|| ≤ |z² – 3| ≤ |z|² + |-3|
|1 – 3| ≤ |z² – 3| ≤ 1 + 3
2 ≤ |z² – 3| ≤ 4

Question 6.
If |z| = 2 show that the 8 ≤ |z + 6 + 8i| ≤ 12
Solution:
Given |z| = 2
|z + 6 + 8i| = |z| + |6 + 8i|
= 2 + \(\sqrt{6^2+8^2}\)
= 2 + \(\sqrt{100}\)
= 2 + 10
= 12
∴ |z + 6 + 8i| ≤ 12 ……….. (1)
|z + 6 + 8i| ≥ ||z| – |-6 – 8i||
= |2 – 10|
= |-8|
= 8
|z + 6 + 8i| ≥ 8 ………… (2)
From 1 and 2 we get
8 ≤ |z + 6 + 8i| ≤ 12
Hence proved

Question 7.
If z₁ z₂ and z₃ are three complex numbers such that |z₁| = 1, |z₁| = 2, |z₃| = 3 and |z₁ + z₂ + z₃| = 1 show that |9z₁ z₂ + 4z₁ z₃ + z₂ z₃| = 6.
Solution:
|z₁| = 1, |z₁| = 2, |z₃| = 3
|z₁ + z₂ + z₃| = 1
Now |9z₁ z₂ + 4z₁ z₃ + z₂ z₃|

Hence proved.

Question 8.
If the area of the triangle formed by the vertices z, iz, and z + iz is 50 square units, find the value of |z|.
Solution:
The given vertices are z, iz, z + iz ⇒ z, iz are ⊥r to each other.
Area of triangle = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) bh = 50
⇒ \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) |z| |iz| = 50
⇒ \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) |z| |z| = 50
⇒ |z|² = 100
⇒ |z| = 10
Aliter:
Given the area of triangle = 50 sq. unit

x² + y² = 100
|z|² = 100
|z| = 10

Question 9.
Show that the equation z³ + 2 \(\bar {z}\) = 0 has five solutions.
Solution:
Given z³ + 2 \(\bar {z}\) = 0
z³ = -2 \(\bar {z}\)
|z³| = |-2| |\(\bar {z}\)|
|z|³ = 2|z| [∵ |z| = |\(\bar {z}\)|
|z|³ – 2 |z| = 0
|z| [|z|² – 2] = 0
|z| = 0 |z|² = 2
z\(\bar {z}\) = 2
z = \(\frac{2}{\bar {z}}\) = ± √2 [∵ \(\bar {z}\) = \(\frac{-z^3}{2}\) ]
z = \(\frac{2}{(\frac{z^3}{-2})}\)
z⁴ = 4
It has 4 non zero solutions.
∴ Including z = 0 we have 5 solutions.

Question 10.
Find the square roots of
(i) 4 + 3i
Solution:
|4 + 3i| = \(\sqrt {4^2+3^2}\) = \(\sqrt {16+9}\)
\(\sqrt {25}\) = 5
Let \(\sqrt {4+3i}\) = a + ib
squaring on both sides
4 + 3i = (a + ib)²
4 + 3i = (a² – b²) + 2 jab
Equating real and imaginary parts
a² – b² = 4, 2ab = 3
(a² + b²)² = (a² – b²)² + 4a² b²
= (4)² + (3)²
= 16 + 9 = 25
∴ a² + b² = 5
Solving a² – b² = 4 and a² + b² = 5.
we get a² = \(\frac {9}{2}\) , b² = \(\frac {1}{2}\)
a = ±\(\frac {3}{√2}\) and b = ±\(\frac {1}{√2}\)
∴ \(\sqrt {4 + 3i}\) = a + ib
= ±(\(\frac {3}{√2}\) + ±\(\frac {i}{√2}\))
Aliter:
Square root of 4 + 3i
formula method

(ii) -6 + 8i
Solution:
Let \(\sqrt {-6 + 8i}\) = a + ib
Squaring on both sides
-6 + 8i = (a + ib)²
-6 + 8i = a² – b² + 2iab
Equating real and imaginary parts
a² – b² = -6 and 2ab = 8
Now (a² + b²)² = (a² – b²)² + 4a²b²
= (-6)² + (8)²
= 36 + 64 = 100
∴ a + b² = 10
Solving a² – b² = -6 and a² + b² = 10
we get 2a² = 4, b² = 8
a² = 2, b² = ±2√2
a = ±√2
∴ \(\sqrt {-6 + 8i}\) = ±√2 ± i 2√2
= ±(√2 + i 2√2)
Aliter:
square root of -6 + 8i
let a + ib = -6 + 8i
a = -6, b = 8

(iii) -5 – 12i
Solution:
Let \(\sqrt{-5-12 i}\) = a + ib
Squaring on both sides
-5 – 12i = (a+ib)²
-5 – 12i = a² – b² + 2iab
Equating real and imaginary parts
a² – b² = -5, 2ab = -12
(a² + b²)² = (a² – b²)² + 4a²b²
= (-5)² + (-12)² = 169
∴ a² + b² = 13
Solving a²- b² = -5 and a² + b² = 13
we get a² = 4, b² = 9
a = ±2, b = ±3
Since 2ab = -12 < 0, a, b are of opposite signs.
∴ When a = ±2, b = ±3
Now \(\sqrt{-5-12 i}\) = ± (2 – 3i)
Aliter
Square root of -5 – 12i
Let a + ib = -5 – 12i
a = -5, b = -12

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
‘The Detroit of Asia’ is
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 2.
Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in …………….
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharampuri
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 3.
Tuticorin is known as:
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
……………… are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 5.
Tiruppur is known for:
(a) Leather tanning
(b) Lock making
(c) Knitwear
(d) Aigo-processing
Answer:
(c) Knitwear

Question 6.
Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi ………….. is also a centre for leather goods exports.
(a) Chennai
(b) Sivakasi
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
IT means
(a) Indian Technology
(b) Information Technology
(c) Institute of Technology
(d) Initiative Technology
Answer:
(b) Information Technology

Question 8.
A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is ………………
(a) Hosur
(b) Dindigul
(c) Kovilpatti
(d) Thirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Hosur

Question 9.
SIPCOT was formed in the year:
(a) 1972
(b) 1976
(c) 1971
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 10.
Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TANSIDCO
(c) TIDCO
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. are very important in the modern economic activates of man.
2. ………….. are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common market and technologies.
3. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ………….. District inTamilNadu.
4. ………….. is fondly calls as ‘Little Japan’.
5. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in …………..
6. ………….. is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.

Answers:

1. Industrialisation
2. Industrial Clusters
3. Vellore
4. Sivakasi
5. April 2000
6. Entrepreneur

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the public.
(ii) They are not provide large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified persons and professionals.
(iii) Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income.
(iv) Entrepreneurs not promote country’s export trade.
(a) (i) and (iv) is correct
(b) (i) only correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iii) is correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iii) is correct

IV. Pick out odd one

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
(a) Ranipet
(b) Bharmapuri
(c) Ambur
(d) Vaniyambadi
Answer:
(b) Bharmapuri

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
(a) TIDCO
(b) SIDCO
(c) MEPG
(d) SIPCOT
Answer:
(c) MEPG

V. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

VI. Write Short Answer

Question 1.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:
As an economy grows and incomes increase, consumers tend to spend a lesser share of their income on products from the agricultural sector. There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land. Due to this, there is a need for an economy’s production and employment base to diversity away from agriculture.

Question 2.
Why are wages low in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
Labour productivity cannot increase in the agricultural sector as the marginal productivity of land goes on decreasing. Therefore wages remain low resulting in poverty.

Question 3.
What is meant by an industrial cluster?
Answer:
Industrial clusters are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common markets, technologies and skill requirements. An important aspect of clusters is the nature of inter-firm networks and interactions.

Question 4.
What are the routes for cluster formation?
Answer:

1. When artisans settle in one region and slowly spread their art in other regions.
2. When a large firm is established, to take care of its inputs and service requirements a cluster of firms may emerge.
3. Governments initiative to encourage Industrial sector using raw materials from a region.

Question 5.
Mention the 3 areas of policy-making that helped Tamil Nadu become one of the most industrialised states in the country.
Answer:
(a) Tamilnadu Industrial Policy – 2014
(b) Tamilnadu SEZs Policy
(c) Tamilnadu Biotechnology Policy – 2014

Question 6.
Mention any three-industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT – State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu.

To promote Industrial growth by setting up Industrial Estates.

TIIC – Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Cooperation Limited

To provide low – cost financial support for both setting up new firms and also to expand.

TIDCO – Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation.

To promote Industrial growth by setting up Industrial Estate

Question 7.
What are the problems of industrialization currently in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
To begin with, some clusters, especially chemicals, textiles and leather clusters, tend to generate a lot of polluting effluents that affect health. The effluents also pollute water bodies ‘ into which effluents are let into and also adjoining agricultural lands.

Second, employment generation potential has declined because of use of frontier technologies because of the need to compete globally. Quality of employment also has suffered in recent years as most workers are employed only temporarily. This issue too requires urgent attention among policymakers.

Question 8.
What is Meant by Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Entrepreneur is the person one who possess management skills, strong team building abilities and essential leadership qualities to manage a business.

Question 9.
What is Entrepreneurship?
Answer:
Entrepreneurship is a process of an action of an entrepreneur who undertakes to establish his entreprise. It is the ability to create and build something.

VII. Write brief Answer

Question 1.
What are the contributions of industrialization to development?
Answer:

1. Industries contribute by producing inputs such as fertilizers and tractors to agriculture thereby help them to increase productivity.
2. Services like Banking, transport and trade are dependent on the production of Industrial goods.
3. By using modem methods of production Industries contribute to better productivity and hence lower cost of production:
4. Industries helps to absorb the labour force coming out of agriculture.
5. By using modem technology, labour productivity increases, which help workers to get higher wages.
6. Increased income of the people lead to more demand for goods and services.
7. By producing more Industrial products, exports increases, thereby generate more foreign exchange.

Question 2.
Write a note on history of industrialisation in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Industrialisation in the Colonial Period

• The introduction of cotton cultivation in western and southern Tamil Nadu by the colonial government led to the emergence of a large-scale textile sector in these parts, which involved ginning, pressing, spinning and weaving operations.
• Introduction of railways also expanded the market for cotton yam and helped develop the sector.
• There was increase in trade during this period which led to industrial development. The two active ports in the region were Chennai and Tuticorin.
• In Western Tamil Nadu, the emergence of textiles industries also led to demand and starting
  of textile machinery industry in the region.

Post-Independence to early 1990s:

• After independence, several large enterprises were set up by both the central and state governments.
• The Integral Coach Factory in Chennai made railway coaches and the Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) in Tiruchirapalli manufactured boilers and turbines.
• Ashok Motors and Standard Motors together helped form an automobile cluster in the Chennai region.
• The 1970s and 1980s saw the setting up of emergence of power loom weaving clusters in the Coimbatore region as well as expansion of cotton knitwear cluster in Timppur and home furnishings cluster in Kamr.
• The Hosur industrial cluster is a successful case of how such policy efforts to promote industrial estates helped develop industries in a backward region.

Industrialization in Tamil Nadu – Liberalization Phase:

• The final phase of industrialisation is the post-reforms period since the early 1990s.
• Because of trade liberalisation measures, exports of textiles, home furnishings and leather products began to grow rapidly.
• Efforts to attract investments led to entry of leading multinational firms (MNCs) into the state, especially in the automobile sector.
• Chennai region also emerged as a hub for electronics industry with MNCs such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung and Flextronics opening plants on the city’s outskirts.
• A significant share of these investments has come up in special economic zones in the districts bordering Chennai.
• The major industries are automobiles, autocomponents, light and heavy engineering, machinery, cotton, etc.
• This diffused process of industrialisation and corresponding urbanisation has paved the way for better rural-urban linkages in Tamil Nadu than in most other states.

Question 3.
What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters? .
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.

1. Geographical proximity of Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs)
2. Sectoral specialisation
3. Close inter firm collaboration
4. Inter – firm competition based on innovation
5. A Socio – Cultural Identity which facilitates trust.
6. Multi – skilled workforce
7. Active self – help organisations and
8. Supportive regional and municipal governments.
9. Through Competition, they are forced to become more efficient.

Question 4.
Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Textile Clusters:
Tamil Nadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country. Because of the development of cotton textile industry since the colonial period, Coimbatore often referred as the “Manchester of South India”. At present, most of the spinning mills have moved to the smaller towns and villages at a radius over 100 to 150 km around the Coimbatore city. Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yam in the country.

Palladam and Somanur, small towns near Coimbatore and the villages near these towns, are home to a dynamic powerloom weaving cluster as well. Powerloom is however more widespread with Erode and Salem region too having a large number of power loom units.

Tiruppur is famous for clustering of a large number of firms producing cotton knitwear. It accounts for nearly 80% of the country’s cotton knitwear exports and generates employment in the range of over three lakh people since the late 1980s. It is also a major producer for the domestic market. Because of its success in the global market, it is seen as one of the most dynamic clusters in the Global South. While initially most firms were run by local entrepreneurs, at present, some of the leading garment exporters in India have set up factories here.

Apart from body building, Karur is a major centre of exports of home furnishings like table cloth, curtains, bed covers and towels. Bhavani and Kumrapalayam are again major centres of production of carpets, both for the domestic and the global markets.

Apart from such modem clusters, there are also traditional artisanal clusters such as Madurai and Kanchipuram that are famous for silk and cotton handloom sarees. Even these clusters have witnessed a degree of modernisation with use of powerlooms in several units.

Question 5.
Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to industrialise.
Answer:
The type of policies that are adopted by the Tamil Nadu Government to Industrialise are:- Education, Infrastructure, and Industrial promotion.

(i) Education: Industries require skilled human resources. Therefore, labourers are given technical knowledge apart from basic skills to enrich themselves. Many engineering colleges, polytechnics and Industrial training centres are opened in the country.

(ii) Infrastructure: Excellent infrastructure facilities has contributed to the spread of Industrialisation in smaller towns and villages in the state. Rural electrification, transport and especially minor roads that connect rural parts of the State enabled vast Industrialisation.

(iii) Industrial Promotion: Policies to promote specific sectors like automobile, auto components, bio – technology and information and communication sectors have been formulated to promote Industries of the state.

Question 6.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Role of an Entrepreneur:
Entrepreneurs play a most important role in the economic growth and development of a country’s economy.

1. They promote development of industries and help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.
2. They help the country to increase the GDP and Per Capita Income.
3. They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.
4. They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and country’s export trade.
5. Entrepreneurs provide large-scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals and work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.
6. They enable the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices, which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

VIII. Case studies

Question 1.
Choose a cluster in Tamil Nadu based on online research and write a note on it.
Answer:
An example of a cluster in Tamil Nadu is given below. Students can do online research on their own and write details using this as a sample.

Example case study of a pulp and paper industry in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newprint and papers Limited (http:// www.tnpl.co.in/)

The company: TNPL was formed by the Government of India in 1979 as a public limited company under the provisions of the companies Act of 1956. Objective: The primary objective of the company is to produce newsprint and printing and writing paper using bagasse, a sugarcane residue as the primary raw material.

Assistance: The only paper will in India assisted by the World Bank.

Machinery: The state of art machines were built in flexibility for manufacturing both newsprint and printing and writing papers in the same machine.

Capacity: The latest upgraded capacity enhanced to 2,30,000 tpa in April 2003 through upgradation of the paper machines which is considered as the largest production capacity in India at a single location.

Marketing: The products are being marketed throughout the country and also exported to 20 countries around the world.

Location: The factory is situated at Kagithapuram in Kanir district in Tamil Nadu.

IX. Activity and Project

Question 1.
Write a note on a cluster or a firm near your school/home based on your observations.
Answer:
Here is an sample of a cluster of firm observed in an area is given. This is to help students gain a basic idea about how to undertake this activity. Students can select their location, observe and write findings and do this activity.

Name of the Village: Neikkarapatti, Salem

Industrial cluster: Good quality and high production of Jaggery. The area in around almost all the houses, small or big make it a point to involve themselves in the production of Jaggery.

Type: It is one of the prominent Cottage Industry in the area.

Reason: Most of the farmers in the region cultivate sugarcane and own a jaggery making unit.

Labour: It is a manual jaggery making traditional work, unmindful of the challenges.

Process: The whole process takes about five hours with different names locally as Vellam and Mandai Vellam based on the shape of the mould.

X. Life Skills

Question 1.
Teacher and Students discuss about the entrepreneurs and their activities and Write an a essay in the topic of “If you are like a Entrepreneur”.
Answer:
Note: Students should imagine themselves as entrepreneurs and write an essay on the topic. This is sample essay given as a guideline for the students.

(A stationery shop – business)

Entrepreneurs are business owners. If I am a entrepreneur, first of all, I should start my business in the line of my interest and in part with the demand of the locality and their needs. This would help me to earn profit from it.

I prefer do my entrepreneurial task by staring it at a small level with less financial investment (approx. 10,000) from my uncle who is also an entrepreneur who supports and motivates me.

I purchase my products for sale from the whole saler. The items I purchase are not perishable stationery items. It is easy for me to store it in my house itself. I get bulk orders from nearby shops. Sometimes, latest arrivals of designed erasers, pencil sharpeners will be a attractive one.

As an entrepreneur, I am ready to face risk factors, price hike, less demand, poor quality, seasonal changes and so on. But, I enjoy my work as a businessman and earn profit that gives my career a spark to continue in the same line of business.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The conversion of raw materials into usable materials is called as
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Industry
(c) Exports
(d) Clusters
Answer:
(b) Industry

Question 2.
Wind energy is a form of …………… energy.
(a) Solar
(b) Petrol
(c) Hydel
Answer:
(a) Solar

Question 3.
SMESare:
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises
(b) Small, Medium, Export Services
(c) Small and Medium Export Services
(d) Salem Metal Export Services.
Answer:
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises

Question 4.
TIDCo is another government agency to establish ………………. estates.
(a) Industrial
(b) tea
(c) Real
Answer:
(a) Industrial

Question 5.
The Namakkal -Tiruchengode belt in Western Tamil Nadu is known for its ………………. building industry.
(a) Textile
(b) Truck body
(c) Coach
(d) Steel
Answer:
(b) Truck body

Question 6.
MEPZ is a special Economic zone in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Trichy
(c) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
TANS! was formed in the year:
(a) 1945
(b) 1955
(c) 1965
(d) 1975
Answer:
(c) 1965

Question 8.
………………. is an innovator of new ideas in business.
(a) Agriculturalist
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Entrepreneur

Question 9.
There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the ………………. marginal productivity of land.
(a) Increasing
(b) Decreasing
(c) Steady
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Decreasing

Question 10.
Health care and educational services are diffused across major cities of:
(a) Chennai
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Tiruppur
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 11.
Nanguneri SEZ is situated at:
(a) Tiruvallur
(b) Vayalur
(c) Thirunelveli
(d) Tambaram
Answer:
(c) Thirunelveli

Question 12.
………………. is intended to provide low – cost financial support for both setting up of new units and for expansion of existing units.
(a) TIDCO
(b) TANSI
(c) TIIC
(d) MEPZ
Answer:
(c) TIIC

Question 13.
When Government decide to encourage manufacturing using raw material from a region. It may lead to emergence of:
(a) Industrial clusters
(b) More taxation
(c) Subsidy
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Industrial clusters

Question 14.
The notion of an “Industrial district” was developed by Prof:
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Samuelson
(d) Pigou
Answer:
(b) Marshall

Question 15.
Heavy vechicles factory was set up to manufacture tanks in:
(a) Peramber
(b) Avadi
(c) Tiruchy
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(b) Avadi

Question 16.
Dindigul, Vellore and Amber area are famous for products.
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Leather
(d) Marine
Answer:
(c) Leather

Question 17.
The Avadi Industrial Estate was set up in the year:
(a) 1950
(b) 1960
(c) 1970
(d) 1980
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 18.
IT (Information Technology) Specific Special Economic Zones are located in ………………. locations in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 19.
The agencies that is formed to promote Industrial growth in the state by setting up Industrial estates are:
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TIDCO
(c) TIIC
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
Over the last ten years a few software firms have moved from Chennai to:
(a) Madurai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Coimbatore
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Coimbatore

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Stand up India scheme was launched in India in the year
2. ………….. is the ability to create and built something.
3. The Industries that produce raw materials for other Industries are called ………….. Industries.
4. If the output is consumed by another producer then, it is called as ………….. goods.
5. Geographical proximity of small and medium enterprise is a chief characteristic of a ………….. cluster.
6. ………….. policies have contributed to the decline of the handloom weaving industry.
7. The Salem steel plant was set up in the year …………..
8. Home Furnishings cluster is located at …………..
9. Integral Coach Factory (ICF) makes …………..
10. MNC means …………..
11. There are ………….. clusters in 13 districts of Tamil Nadu.
12. Transportation and poultry clusters are located in …………..
13. ………….. located in Trichy manufactures Boilers and Turbines.
14. The ………….. district is the top exporter of finished leather goods in the country.
15. SIPGOT was formed in the year …………..
16. MEPZ was established in the year to promote foreign direct investment.
17. A policy was set up in the year ………….. for setting up special Economic zone.
18. TANSI was formed in the year …………..
19. The poison control centre is associated with ………….. SEZ.
20. ………….. is the first Industrial cooperation operating in the domain of small enterprises.
21. There are ………….. export processing zones in the country set up by the Central Government.
22. ………….. schemes provides financial help specifically to SC and ST borrower and woman borrower.
23. Start up India scheme was launched to generate ………….. and creating …………..

Answers:

1. 5^th April 2016
2. Entrepreneur
3. Basic goods
4. capital
5. successful
6. Colonial
7. 1973
8. Karur
9. Railway coaches
10. Multi – National Companies
11. 27
12. Namakkal
13. BHEL
14. Vellore
15. 1971
16. 1984
17. 2000
18. 1965
19. Bio – pharmaceuticals
20. TANSI
21. Seven
22. Standup India
23. employment, wealth

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The development of Industries in India can be studied under colonial phase, post independent phase and liberalisation phase.
(ii) Services sector contributes a major share in employment generation.
(iii) Karur is expertised in bus body building and home furnishing.
(iv) Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yarn in the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 2.
(i) Only after the economic reforms in 1990 the state has been the entry of hardware and electronic manufacture centres.
(ii) Bhavani and Kumarapalayan are major centres of production of carpets locally and globally.
(iii) Sivakasi region has now become a major centre for printing and fireworks in the country.
(iv) Dindigul and Erode are major employment generators in Knitwear industry.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) only (ii) and (iv) correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct

V. Pick out odd one

Question 1.
Which is not a export processing zone?
(a) MEPZ
(b) SEZ
(c) TIDCO
(d) ELCOT
Answer:
(c) TIDCO

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu’s Textile clusters does not include
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Padalam
(c) Somanur
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(d) Dindigul

Question 3.
Which of the following is not under IT cluster?
(a) Nokia
(b) Foxconn
(c) Infosys
(d) MEPZ
Answer:
(d) MEPZ

VI. Write Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the industry?
Answer:
“Any human activity which is engaged in the conversion of raw materials into readily usable materials is called an industry”.

Question 2.
Why is small scale sectors considered important?
Answer:
The small scale sector is seen as important for two reasons.

1. To generate more employment than the large – scale sector.
2. The small scale sectors allows for a larger number of entrepreneurs to emerge from less privileged groups.

Question 3.
What is MEPZ?
Answer:
MEPZ is a special Economic Zone in Chennai and it is one of the seven export processing zones in the country set up by the central government. It was established in 1984. The MPEZ head-quarters is located on GST Road in Tambaram, Chennai.

Question 4.
Write the names of MNCs in Chennai region.
Answer:
MNCs such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung and Flextronics.

Question 5.
Write about Bus Body Building Industry clusters.
Answer:
The Namakkal-Tiruchengode belt in western Tamil Nadu is known for its truck body building industry. About 150 of the 250 units in this sector are located in this cluster including 12 large-sized body building houses. Karur is another major hub with more than 50 units. Many entrepreneurs were previous employees in a big firm involved in body building who came out . to set up their own units.

Question 6.
List down the names of the agencies that have played an important role in the Industrialisation of a state.
Answer:

1. SIPCOT – State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu.
2. TANSIDCO – Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development Corporation.
3. TIDCO – Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation
4. TIIC – Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Limited.
5. TANSI – Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Limited.

Question 7.
What is meant by SEZ?
Answer:
SEZ means Special Economic Zone in the country with a view to improve free environment for exports.

Question 8.
What do you understand by Stand up India Scheme?
Answer:
It is a scheme launched by the Indian Government with the primary objective of generation employment and wealth creation.

Question 9.
What do you understand by standup India scheme?
Answer:
It is a scheme launched by the Indian Government to facilitate bank loans between ₹ 10 lakh and ₹ 1 crore to atleast one scheduled caste (or) scheduled Tribe borrower and one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise.

Question 10.
How do entrepreneurs promote formation?
Answer:
Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and increasing country’s exports.

VII. Write Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write in detail about the types of industries on the basis of its use, raw ‘ material, ownership, and size.
Answer:
Types of Industries:

On the basis of

Uses:
Consumer goods Industries ⇒ output to the final consumer
Capital goods Industries ⇒ output consumed by another producer.
Basic goods Industries ⇒ output as the raw material for other Industries.

Raw material:
Agricultural sector
Industrial sector
Agro based sector
Leather Industries

Ownership:
Public owned ⇒ Government owned
Private owned ⇒ Private owned Co-operative owned

Size:
Large scale Industries
Small scale Industries
Medium scale Industries
Micro (or) tiny

Question 2.
Name some industrial development agencies and explain them.
Answer:
The following are some agencies that have played a key role in industrialization in the state. SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971 It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.

TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of TN established in the year 1970 to promote small- scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.

TIDCO (Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965:
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

TIIC (Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd.), 1949:
TIIC is intended to provide low-cost financial support for both setting up new units and also for expansion of existing units. Though it is meant to meet the requirements of all types of firms, 90% of support goes to micro, small and medium enterprises.

TANSI (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd.), 1965:
TANSI was formed in 1965 to take over the small scale-units that were set up and run by the Department of Industries and Commerce. It is supposed to be the first industrial corporation operating in the domain for small enterprises.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.4 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.4

Question 1.
Write the following in the rectangular form:
(i) \(\overline { (5+9i)+(2-4i) } \)
Solution:
\(\overline { (5+9i)+(2-4i) } \)
= \(\overline {(5+9i)} \) + \(\overline {(2-4i)} \)
= 5 – 9i + 2 + 4i
= 7 – 5i

(ii) \(\frac {10-5i}{6+2i} \)
Solution:

(iii) \(\overline {3i} + \frac{2}{2-i}\)
Solution:

Question 2.
If z = x + iy, find the following in rectangular form.
(i) Re(\(\frac {1}{z} \))
Answer:

(ii) Re(i\(\bar{z}\)) = Re[i(\(\overline{x+i y}\))]
= Re(ix + y)
= y
(iii) Im(3z + 4\(\bar{z}\) – 4i)
= Im (3(x + iy) + 4(x – iy) – 4i)
= Im (3x + 3iy + 4x – 4iy – 4i)
= Im (3x + 4 + i (3y – 4y – 4)
= Im (3x + 4x + i(-y – 4))
= Im [7x + i(-y – 4)]
= -y – 4
= -(y + 4)

Question 3.
If z₁ = 2 – i and z₂ = -4 + 3i, find the inverse of z₁, z₂ and \(\frac {z_1}{z_2} \)
Solution:
z₁ = 2 – i, z₂ = -4 + 3i
z₁ z₂ = (2 – i) (-4 + 3i)
= -8 + 3 + 4i + 6i
= -5 + 10i

Question 4.
The complex numbers u, v, and w are related by \(\frac {1}{u}\) = \(\frac {1}{v}\) + \(\frac {1}{w}\). If v = 3 – 4i and w = 4 + 3i, find u in rectangular form.
Solution:
v = 3 – 4i, w = 4 + 3i

Question 5.
Prove the following properties:
(i) z is real if and only if z = \(\overline {z}\)
Solution:
z is real iff z = \(\bar{z}\)
Let z = x + iy
z = \(\bar{z}\)
⇒ x + iy = x – iy
⇒ 2iy = 0
⇒ y = 0
⇒ z is real.
z is real iff z = \(\bar{z}\)

(ii) Re(z) = \(\frac{z+\bar{z}}{2}\) and Im(z) = \(\frac{z-\bar{z}}{2i}\)
Solution:
let z = x + iy
\(\overline {z}\) = x – iy

Hence proved

Question 6.
Find the least value of the positive integer n for which (√3 + i)ⁿ (i) real, (ii) purely imaginary.
Solution:
Given (√3 + i)ⁿ
= (√3)² + 2i √3 + (i)²
= 3 + 2i √3 – 1
= 2 + 2i √3
= 2(1 + i√3)
put n = 3 or 4 or 5
then real part is not possible

which is purely real ∴ n = 6

(ii) (√3 + i)ⁿ

which is purely imaginary
∴ n = 3

Question 7.
Show that
(i) (2 + i√3)¹⁰ – (2 – i√3)¹⁰ is purely imaginary.
Solution:
Let z = (2 + i√3)¹⁰ – (2 – i√3)¹⁰
Let Z

= (2 – i√3)¹⁰ – (2 + i√3)¹⁰
= -[(z + i√3)¹⁰ – (2 – i√3)¹⁰]
= -z
(2 + i√3)¹⁰ – (2 – i√3)¹⁰ is purely imaginary

(ii) \(\left(\frac{19-7 i}{9+i}\right)^{12}\) + \(\left(\frac{20-5 i}{7-6 i}\right)^{12}\) is real
Solution:

∴ z is real.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Find out the part that is not found in the CPU?
a. MotherBoard
b. SMPS
c. RAM
d. Mouse
Answer:
d. Mouse

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Free and Open source
(b) Free and Traditional software
(c) passive and Open source
(d) Passive and Traditional source
Answer:
(a) Free and Open source

Question 3.
LINUX is a
a. Paid Software
b. Licensed Software
c. Free and Proprietary software
d. Free and Open-source software
Answer:
d. Free and Open-source software

Question 4.
Find out Paid and Proprietary software from the given list
(a) Windows
(b) MAC OS
(c) Adobe Photoshop
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
……….. is an Operating System
a. Android
b. Chrome
c. Internet
d. Pendrive
Answer:
a. Android

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – e
3. – d
4. – c
5. – a

III. Short answer:

Question 1.
What are Hardware and Software?
Answer:
Hardware:

1. Hardware is the parts of the computer which we can touch and feel.
2. Hardware includes input and output devices, Cabinet, Hard disk, Mother Board, SMPS, CPU, RAM, CD Drive, and Graphics card.

Software :

1. Software is programmed and coded application to process the input information.
2. The software processes the data by converting the input information into coding or programmed language.
3. Touching and feeling is not possible. But, we can see the functions of the software in the form of output.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Operating System? How does it work?
Answer:

1. System software (operating system is software that makes the hardware devices process the data inputted by the user and to display the result on the output devices like a monitor. Without the operating system, the computer cannot function on its own. Popular OS are Linux, Windows, Mac, Android, etc.

Question 3.
What is Free and Open Source Software? Give any two examples?
Answer:

1. Free and open software is available free of cost and can be shared with many end-users.
2. Free software is editable and customizable by the user and this leads to the update or development of new software.
3. Examples: 1. Linux, 2. Geogebra.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Email existed before the
(a) Google
(b) Chrome
(c) World Wide Web
(d) Whatsapp
Answer:
(c) World Wide Web

Question 2.
A _____ device helps to enter input information.
(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Monitor
(d) Modem
Answer:
(a) Hardware

Question 3.
Completes one or more than two works of the end-user?
(a) System software
(b) Operating system
(c) Free software
(d) Application software
Answer:
(d) Application software

Question 4.
The _____ can be installed in the hard disk for the usage on a particular computer.
(a) Opening system
(b) Translator
(c) Application program
(d) Image editor
Answer:
(c) Application Program

Question 5.
___________ is an operating system
(a) Linux
(b) Chrome
(c) Google
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(a) Linux

II. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

III. Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the types of software?
Answer:
Software is divided into two types based on the process. They are:

1. System Software (Operating System).
2. Application software.

Question 2.
What is Application software?
Answer:
It is a program or a group of programs designed for the benefit of end-user to work on computers. The application programs can be installed in the hard disk for the usage on a particular computer. This type of application program completes one or more than two works of the end-user.

Question 3.
Give some examples of Application Software.
Answer:
The following are the examples of the application program: Video player, Audio player, Word processing software, Drawing tools, Editing software, etc.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Government and Taxes Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The three levels of governments in India are:
(a) Union, State and local
(b) Central, State and village
(c) Union, Municipality and Panchayat
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Union, State and local

Question 2.
In India, taxes are including ……………..
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Indirect taxes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 3.
Which is the role of government and development policies?
(a) Defence
(b) Foreign policy
(c) Regulate the economy
(d) all of above
Answer:
(d) all of above

Question 4.
The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is ……………..
(a) Service tax
(b) Excise duty
(c) Income tax
(d) Central sales tax
Answer:
(c) Income tax

Question 5.
Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured:
(a) Value added tax (VAT)
(b) Income tax
(c) Goods and service tax
(d) Sales tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and service tax

Question 6.
Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year ……………
(a) 1860
(b) 1870
(c) 1880
(d) 1850
Answer:
(a) 1860

Question 7.
…………………….. tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Corporate tax
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(b) Wealth tax

Question 8.
What are identified as causes of black money?
(a) Shortage of goods
(b) High tax rate
(c) Smuggling
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 9.
Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by:
(a) Individuals
(b) Corporations
(c) Trusts
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 10.
Payments are ………….
(a) Fees and fines
(b) Penalties and forfeitures
(c) None of the above
(d) a and b

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………………. is levied by Government for the development of the state’s economy.
2. The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word ………………….
3. The burden of the …………………. tax cannot be shifted to others.
4. tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders.
5. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on ………………….
6. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called ………………….

Answers:

1. Tax
2. taxation
3. direct
4. Corporate tax
5. 1^st July 2017
6. Black Money

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State Governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

Question 2.
Choose the incorrect statements.
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iv)

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Define tax.
Answer:
Tax is levied by the government for the development of the state’s economy. The revenue of the government depends on direct and indirect taxes.

Question 2.
Why we pay tax to the government?
Answer:
We pay tax to the Government because the country have to carryout many functions like building infrastructure like transportation, sanitation, public , safety, education, healthcare, military, public works etc.,

Question 3.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:
Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have a tax system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. All countries use a variety of taxes. There are some characteristics of tax system that economists think should be followed while designing a tax system. These characteristics are called as canons of taxation.

Question 4.
What are the types of tax? Give examples.
Answer:
Direct taxes – Eg: Income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.
Indirect taxes – Eg: Stamp duty, Entertainment tax and Excise duty, Goods and services tax.

Question 5.
Write short note on Goods and Service Tax.
Answer:
Goods and Service Tax is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service. That aims to replace all indirect taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and state governments. GST would eliminative the cascading effect of taxes on the production and distribution of goods and services. It is also a “one-point tax” unlike value-added tax (VAT), which was a multipoint tax.

Question 6.
What is progressive tax?
Answer:
Progressive tax is the tax in which the rate of taxation increases as the tax base increases. When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.

Question 7.
What is meant by black money?
Answer:
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.

Question 8.
What is tax evasion?
Answer:
The illegal non – payment of taxes is generally called as tax evasion, either by individuals corporations and trusts.

Question 9.
Write some causes of tax evasion.
Answer:
Tax evasion resulting in black money prevents the resource mobilisation efforts of the Union government. Shortage of funds distorts the implementation of developmental plans and forces the government to resort to deficit financing in case public expenditure is inelastic.

Tax evasion interferes with the declared economic policies of the government by distorting saving and investment patterns and availability of resources for various sectors of the economy.

Question 10.
What is the difference between tax and payments?
Answer:
Tax is a compulsory payment whereas payment is voluntary. Payment for getting any service gives direct benefits whereas payments for tax will not give any direct benefit.

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain the role of government in development policies.
Answer:
In India, there are three levels of Governments. They are Union Government, State Government and Local Government. They carryout functions for the benefit of people and society. The role of Government can be studied under the following heads.

(i) Defence: To create and maintain defence forces in the country as an essential security function to protect our country from enemies. (Army, Navy and Air Force)

(ii) Foreign policy: India is committed to world peace. We maintain friendly economic relationship to all the countries of the world.

(iii) Conduct of periodic elections: India is a democratic country. We elect our representatives to parliament and State Assemblies.

(iv) Law and order: To settle disputes, the Union Government consists of strong judicial system with court at the National, State and Lower levels. The State Governments takes responsibility to maintain law and order with responsibility from police department.

(v) Public administration and provision of public goods: The public administration is done by the Government with the help of departments for revenue, health, education, rural development etc. Also, it provides public goods like rural roads, drainage, drinking water etc.

(vi) Redistribution of Income and Abolision of poverty: The Government spends money in such a way that the poorer are given basic necessities of life like food, clothing, shelter, education, health care, etc. Thereby the redistribution of income should eradicate poverty in the country.

(vii) Regulate the Economy: The Central Government with the help of the Reserve Bank of India, controls supply of money in the economy and the Interest rate, inflation and foreign exchange. The various agencies like securities Exchange Board of India and competition commission if India are also a tool for the Government to control the economy.

Question 2.
Explain some direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:
Types of Taxes:
Direct Taxes: A tax imposed on an individual or organisation, which is paid directly, is a direct tax. The burden of a direct tax cannot be shifted to others. J.S. Mill defines a direct tax as “one which is demanded from the very persons who it is intended or desired should pay it.” Some direct taxes are income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.

Income tax: Income tax is the most common and most important tax levied on an individual in India. It is charged directly based on the income of a person. The rate at which it is charged varies, depending on the level of income.

Corporate tax: This tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities fronl their shareholders. It is charged on royalties, interest gains from sale of capital assets located in India and fees for a technical services and dividends. Foreign companies are taxed on income that arises or is deemed to arise in India.

Wealth tax: Wealth tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership. The same property will be taxed every year on its current market value. The tax is levied on the individuals and companies alike.

Indirect Taxes: If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, it is an indirect tax. The impact is on one person while the incidence is on the another person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer. Some indirect taxes are stamp duty, entertainment tax, excise duty and goods and service tax (GST).

Stamp duty: Stamp duty is a tax that is paid on official documents like marriage registration or documents related to a property and in some contractual agreements.

Entertainment tax: Entertainment tax is a duty that is charged by the government on any source of entertainment provided. This tax can be charged on movie tickets, tickets to amusement parks, exhibitions and even sports events.

Excise duty: An excise tax is any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of manufacture, rather than at sale. Excise is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.

Question 3.
Write the structure of GST.
Answer:
Structure of GST
SGST (State Goods and Services Tax):
Levied Intra-state (or) within the state

Eg:

1. VAT / sales tax, purchase tax
2. Entertainment tax, luxury tax
3. Lottery tax
4. State surcharges and cesses.

Payable to state Government.

CGST (Central Goods and Service Tax):
Levied Intra state (or) within the state.

Eg:

1. Central Excise Duty, services tax
2. Customs duty, surcharges
3. Education and sec. Hr. sec. cess.

Payable to Central Government.

IGST (Integrated Goods and Services Tax)

Levied Inter State (or) between States.
Payable to Central Government.
Four major GST rates are
5%, 12%, 18%, 28%

Question 4.
What is black money? Write the causes of black money.
Answer:
Black Money
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.
Causes of Black Money:
Shortage of goods: Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money. Controls are often introduced to check black money.

Licensing proceeding: It is firmly believed that the system of controls permits, quotes and licences are associated with maldistribution of commodities in short supply, which results in the generation of black money.

Contribution of the industrial sector: Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money. For example, the Controller of Public Limited Companies tries to buy commodities at low prices and get them billed at high amounts and pockets the difference personally.

Smuggling: Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money. When India had rigid system of exchange controls, precious metals like gold and silver, textiles and electronics goods were levied a heavy excise duty. Bringing these goods by evading the authorities is smuggling.

Tax structure: When the tax rate is high, more black money is generated.

Question 5.
Explain the role of taxation in economic development.
Answer:
Resources Mobilisation:

1. The Government is able to mobilise resources and earn revenue from tax.
2. They utilise this revenue for the welfare of the people.

Reduction in Inequalities of Income:

1. Taxation follows the principal of equity.
2. When the nature of taxes are progressive that is when income increases, the tax rate also increases. .
3. So, poor will not be taxed much when their income is less.

Social welfare: Higher taxes are levied on undesirable products like alcoholic products thereby promoting social welfare.

Foreign Exchange: Taxation encourages exports and restricts imports. When there is no tax on export items, country earn more foreign exchange. Regional development: Generally, when industries are set up in backward regions, to motivate such business firms, tax incentives (or) tax hoildays are given to encourage development.

Control of Inflation: Through Taxation Government can control inflation of reducing the tax on the commodities.

VII. Activity and Projects

Question 1.
Collect information about the local taxes (water, electricity and house tax etc).
Water Tax: (with respect to the city Chennai)
Answer:

1. The rate of water tax is fixed at the 1.5% of the assessed annual value.
2. The administration is related to water tax in the city of Chennai is vested with (CMWS and SB) Chennai Metro Water Supply and Sewage Board.
3. Water tax is levied on private individuals and businesses on tap water.
4. Payment for water tax can be done online receipts will be generated within 24 hours of payment.
5. The time line of payment will be specified in the demand notice.
6. Failing to make the payment even after demanding legal proceedings added with fine and other charges are made.

Electricity Tax:

1. Electricity tax is an excise duty that is charged on the supplies of electricity made on or after 1st October 2008.
2. The tax is charged on the final supply of electricity to the consumer.
3. The liability of payments arises at the time the electricity is supplied.
4. The tax at a rate of 5% of the consumption charges.

House Tax / Property Tax:

1. A property tax or a house tax is a tax on the value of a property like house, office building etc.
2. This tax is levied by the governing authority of the area in.which the property is located.

Question 2.
Students purchase some goods on the shop. The teacher and students discuss those goods, maximum retail price, purchasing price or GST.
Answer:

Question 3.
Students are asked to search a Income Tax website and know the Income Tax Slab for current year.
Answer:
Website: www.apnaplan.com
New Income Tax Slabs and rates for financial year 2019-20

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Government mobilises its …………………. resources by levying taxes.
(a) financial
(b) physical
(c) material
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) financial

Question 2.
……………. tax is levied on companies that exist as seperate entities from their shareholders.
(a) direct
(b) Income
(c) Corporate
Answer:
(c) Corporate

Question 3.
Tax system should be designed in such a way that the people automatically pay more tax revenue with increase in income :
(a) Canon of equity
(b) Canon of elasticity
(c) Canon of certainty
(d) Canon of Economy
Answer:
(b) Canon of elasticity

Question 4.
In India almost all the direct taxes are collected by the ……………..
(a) Union Government
(b) State Government
(c) local bodies
Answer:
(a) Union Government

Question 5.
Energy, water and waste management systems are common public :
(a) utilities
(b) properties
(c) systems
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 6.
……………… has been the major contributor to black money.
(a) Agriculture sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Tax sectors
Answer:
(b) Industrial sector

Question 7.
An …………………. tax is a duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of manufacture.
(a) Sales
(b) Excise
(c) Stamp duty
(d) Entertainment
Answer:
(b) Excise

Question 8.
The major Indirect taxes in India are …………………. and GST.
(a) Customs duty
(b) Sales tax
(c) Excise duty
(d) Stamp duty
Answer:
(a) Customs duty

Question 9.
The structure of GST in India consists of …………………. forms.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 10.
Sales tax is an example of …………………. taxation.
(a) Progressive
(b) Proportional
(c) Regressive
(d) Degressive
Answer:
(c) Regressive

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India is committed to …………………..
2. The origin of the word tax is from taxation which means …………………..
3. The symbol PIB means …………………..
4. Goods and services tax is one of the …………………..
5. ………………….. was the first country to implement GST.
6. ………………….. was a multi-point tax.
7. France introduced GST in the year …………………..
8. Indian tax system adheres to Canon of ………………….. more than anything else.
9. The ticket to amusement park is an example for ………………….. tax.
10. SIT means …………………..
11. ………………….. is the payment for getting any service.
12. Taxation follows the principal of …………………..

Answer:

1. World peace
2. Estimate
3. Press Information Bureau
4. Indirect taxes
5. France
6. VAT
7. 1954
8. Certainty
9. Entertainment
10. Special Investigation Team
11. Fee
12. equity

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Black money refers to the unaccounted money.
(ii) Taxation should be used as an instrument for controlling inflation.
(iii) Tax payer does not expect any direct benefit from direct taxes.
(iv) Unreporting income is a form of tax evasion.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct.
Answer:
(d) All are correct.

Question 2.
(i) Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act is a recent legislation to curb black money in India.
(ii) Tax evasion is the illegal way of evading taxes by individuals only.
(iii) Overstating deductions is a form of generating black money.
(iv) Tax evasion penalties can be harsh depending on the severity of the crime.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Tax evasion undermines the equity attribute of the tax system.
(ii) Each Canons of taxation has its own unique characteristics.
(iii) GST is a form of direct tax.
(iv) GST came into force from 8th Nov – 2018.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iv) are correct
(d) only (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Write a note on Law and Order:
Answer:
Both the Union and state governments enact numerous laws to protect our rights, properties and to regulate our economy and society. To settle disputes, the Union government has a vibrant judicial system consisting of courts at the national state and lower levels and the state government take the responsibility for administrating the police force in respective states.

Question 2.
What are the types of taxes?
Answer:
Taxes are of two types

1. Direct taxes
2. Indirect taxes

Direct taxes are levied on the income of the persons and the indirect taxes are levied on goods and services.

Question 3.
What is wealth tax?
Answer:
It is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership. The same property will be taxed every year on its current market value. The tax is levied on the individuals and companies alike.

Question 4.
What are the forms of tax evasion?
Answer:
The tax evasion activities include:

1. Under reporting income
2. Inflating deductions (or) expenses
3. Hiding money
4. Hiding interest in off-shore accounts
5. Dishonest tax reporting
6. Overstating deductions.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Excise duty.
Answer:
An excise tax is any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movements of manufacture, rather than at sale. Excise is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.

Question 6.
State the reason”ln the case of Indirect taxes, the taxpayer is not the tax bearer why?
Answer:
In the case of Indirect taxes, the tax can be shifted to the others. That is the impact is on one person while the incidence is on the other person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer.

Question 7.
What is the main purpose of taxation?
Answer:
The main purpose of taxation is to accumulate funds for the functioning of the Government.

Question 8.
How are taxes levied in India?
Answer:
Taxes is levied in three ways

1. Progressive taxation
2. Proportionate taxation
3. Regressive taxation

Question 9.
Which Canon of tax system does Indian tax system adhere to?
Answer:
Indian tax system adheres to Canon of Certainty Government of India announce in advance the tax system so that every tax payer is able to calculate how much tax they have to pay.

Question 10.
When was the system of income tax introduced in India? and why?
Answer:
Income tax was introduced for the first time in India by Sir James Wilson in 1860 to meet the losses for the Government because of the sepoy mutiny of 1857.

Question 11.
What is meant by canon of equity?
Answer:
The canon of equity states that the rich should pay more tax revenue to the Government than the poor, thereby we can eliminate economic differences between them.

Question 12.
What is canon of certainty?
Answer:
The canon of certainty states that the Government should announce the tax system in advance and should not change it frequently.

Question 13.
What is canon of convenience?
Answer:
Tax should be collected from a person at the time he gets enough money to pay the tax. This is called canon of convenience.

Question 14.
What is canon of Economy?
Answer:
As tax payers, people may incur cost to process their accounts, In the same way, the Government also pay salary to its taxmen to run institution. The expenditure on all this should be economised or minimised.

Question 15.
What is canon of productivity?
Answer:
When the Government levies tax that can fetch more tax revenue to them then, it is called canon of productivity.

Question 16.
What is canon of Elasticity?
Answer:
The tax system should be designed in such a way that people automatically pay more tax revenue if their income grow. This is called canon of elasticity.

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write about the different canons of taxation.
Answer:
(i) Canon of Equity:
Since tax is a compulsory payment, all economists agree that equity is the cardinal principle in designing the tax system. The equity principal says that the rich should pay more tax revenue to government than the poor, because rich has more ability than the poor to pay the tax.

(ii) Canon of certainty:
Government should announce in advance the tax system so that every tax payer will be able to calculate how much tax amount one may have to pay during a year to the government.

(iii) Canons of Economy and Convenience:
These two canons are related. As tax payers we incur a cost to process our accounts and pay the tax, for example, salary paid to accountants and auditors.

Similarly government also pays salary to its taxmen and run huge institutions. If the tax is simple, then the cost of collecting taxes (tax payer cost + tax collector cost) will be very low.

Further, tax should be collected from a person at the time he gets enough money to pay the ‘ tax. This is called canon of convenience. A convenient tax reduces the cost of collecting tax.

(iv) Canons of Productivity and Elasticity:
Government should choose the taxes that can get enough tax revenue to it. Tax is paid by the people out their incomes. Therefore the tax system should be designed in such a way that the people automatically pay more tax revenue if their incomes grow. This is called canon of elasticity.

Question 2.
What are the penalties for a tax evader?
Answer:

1. If a person evade tax, he may be imprisoned upto to five years and had to pay a huge amount as fine.
2. The tax evader may also be ordered to pay for the costs of prosecution.
3. Other tax evasion penalties include community service, probation and restitution depending on the circumstances of the case.
4. If the crime of tax evader is very severe, the penalty can be harsh also.

Question 3.
What are the main differences between tax and other payments.
Answer:
Tax:

1. It is a compulsory payment to the Government.
2. Tax payer cannot expect direct benefit after paying taxes.
3. Tax payer has to pay the tax once it is imposed. Otherwise he/she will be penalised.
4. The purpose of levying tax is general. Money is used for the welfare of the people.
5. Eg: Income tax, gift box, wealth tax etc.,

Payments:

1. It is voluntary payment for getting any service.
2. Once payment is done, the person can expert direct benefit from it.
3. Payment need not be paid if the service is not necessary for a person.
4. The purpose of making payments is to enjoy certain special benefits.
5. Eg: Driving license, stamp fee, fee for Government Registration etc.,

Question 4.
What are the recent legislative measures to curb black money in India.
Answer:

1. SIT – Special Investigation Team on black money under Chairman and (Vice – Chairman of two former judges of the Supreme Court.)
2. The black money (undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of,tax Act – 2015.
3. MAG – Constitution of Multi Agency Group.
4. DTAAS – Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.
5. FATCA – Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act.
6. Money Laundering Act.
7. Enactment of the Benami Transaction Amendment Act.
8. Launching of Operation clean money.
9. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act.
10. The Real Estate Regulation and Development Act of 2016.

Question 5.
How are taxes leevied in India.
Answer:
Taxes is levied by the Government progressively, proportionately as well as Regressively.

Progressive Tax: Progressive Tax rate is one in which the rate of taxation increase as the tax base increases. When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.

Proportional Tax: Tax levied on goods and services in fixed portion is known as proportionate taxes. Tax amount varies in the same proportion to that of Income.

Regressive Tax: It implies that higher the rate of tax, lower the income groups than in the case of higher income groups.

That is, tax is levied uniformly at a flat percentage regardless who the purchaser or owner Eg: Sales Tax, Property Tax.

Question 6.
As per the Interim budget for the financial year 2019 – 20, State the areas from where money / rupee is earned and spend hy Government of India (GOI).
Answer:
Earning money through:

1. Income Tax, Corporation tax
2. Customs
3. Union excise duties
4. GST
5. Borrowing and other liabilities
6. Non – dept capital assets
7. Non – Tax Revenues

Money goes to:

1. Interest payments
2. Central sector schemes
3. Centrally sponsored scheme
4. Pension and other expenditure
5. State share of duties and taxes
6. Defence
7. Subsidies
8. Finance commission and
9. Other transfers.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant-pollinator
a. Duck
b. Parrot
c. Hummingbird
d. Dove
Answer:
c. Hummingbird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
(a) Nutmeg
(b) Bamboo
(c) Ginger
(d) Neem
Answer:
(d) Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
a. Potato
b. Carrot
c. Radish
d. Turnip
Answer:
a. Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anti-cancer properties?
(a) Amla
(b) Tulasi
(c) Turmeric
(d) Aloe
Answer:
(c) Turmeric

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
a. Neem tree
b. Jack tree
c. Banyan tree
d. Mango tree
Answer:
c. Banyan tree

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. In every year October ……….is celebrated as world food day.
2. ………… is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I ………… ?
4. The juice of the leaves of ……… plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called …………

Answer:

1. 16
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulsi
5. pulses

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as softwood.
2. Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
3. Cauliflower is used for ornamental purpose.
4. Cotton cloth is not suitable for summer season.
5. Sugarcane is used as biofuel.

Answer:

1. False – Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as ornamental plants.
2. True.
3. False – Cauliflower is used for edible purpose.
4. False – Cotton cloth is only suitable for summer season
5. False – Sugarcane is used to produce sugar.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

V. Analogy:

1. mango : fruit:: maize : ………….
2. coconut: fibre :: rose : …………
3. bees : pollinate insect:: earthworms : …………

Answer:

1. cereal
2. essence
3. vermicompost producer

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:
Any nutritious substance that people or animals eat or drink or that plants absorb in order to maintain life and growth is called Food.

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Some of the plants around us are good in healing our diseases. We call these plants as medicinal plants.

Question 3.
How hardwood differ from softwood?
Answer:

Question 4.
What is Spice?
Answer:
Spices are the aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour food. Bark, roots, leaves, flowers, or stems of certain plants primarily used for flavouring colouring or preserving food.
(Eg.) roots – vetiver,
leaves – curry leaves
seeds – fenugreek
flower bud – clove

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. A timer is used in the construction of buildings, making of furniture
2. It is used in making fibreboard, paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:

1. The relationship between animals and plants, benefiting both of them is known as a symbiotic relationship.
2. (Eg.) Silkworms – feeding on Mulberry leaves – produce silk fibres.
3. Honey bee – feed on pollen and honey of plants – Agents of cross-pollination and form vegetables and fruits along with honey.

Question 2.
Write the uses of Neem?
Answer:

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:

1. Carrot, Beetroot, and radish – Taproots
2. Potato, Ginger, Turmeric – Underground stem
3. Curry leaves, Coriander leaves – Leaves
4. Drum stick – Leaves, Unripe fruit, and bark.
5. Paddy, Wheat, Maize, and Ragi – Seeds

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write short notes on-Timber yielding plants.
Answer:
Wood is used commercially due to its features like durability, stylish finishing, and resistance to temperature changes.
Timbers can be classified into hardwoods and softwoods.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
The relationship between plants and animals, to get food and shelter etc.
This relationship which is economically significant benefits not only animals but also plants.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason.
Answer:

1. Most deserts get less than 10 inches of rainfall each year.
2. The evaporation rate is higher than the rainfall.
3. In the desert, there is little water available for plants (cactus-like) and other organisms.
4. Cactus like plants and animals living in such areas are adapted to save water and to endure drought.
   (Eg.) Cactus Camel etc.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement or not? Explain. Why?
Answer:
False. Because:

1. Even though they are tall, they produce only softwoods.
2. It is resilient and malleable can’t be used in heavy construction and other purposes.
3. So the wood is known as softwood.
4. Wood fibres are used for making hats and other things.

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions.
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria How?

Answer:
1. The droppings and shedding of leaves, fruits, and other dead parts of plants degrade in the soil by bacterial and fungal action to form humus-increase soil fertility.

2. Blue-green Algae and Bacteria are extensively used to fix Nitrogen in the soil and increase biofertilizer in the soil for agriculture.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants Why?

Answer:

1. Honey bees suck nectar from flowers and convert it into honey.
2. During this process, they carry pollen on their bodies and help plants to do cross-pollination and inturn form vegetables and fruits.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Which are the source of food and energy for all living organisms in the world.
(a) Plants only
(b) Plants and animals
(c) Animals only
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Plants only

Question 2.
Aloe ______ is used as a laxative
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Leaves

Question 3.
Leaf fibres are got from
(a) Aloe vera
(b) Agave
(c) Coconut
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Agave

Question 4.
We are planting shrubs such as ________ to decorate houses
(a) Mandara
(b) Mullai
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Allamanda
Answer:
(c) Hibiscus

Question 5.
Plants grown or maintained for its aesthetic features are known as
(a) Fibre plants
(b) Medicinal plants
(c) Plants as food
(d) Ornamental plants
Answer:
(d) Ornamental plants

Question 6.
Bio fuels are less _______ in nature.
(a) Toxic
(b) Economic
(c) Nutrients
(d) Metals
Answer:
(a) Toxic

II. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Give evidence for the fact that Rice, Wheat, and Millets were cultivated and utilised in the ancient days.
Answer:

1. The presence of charred grains in most of the excavation sites is proof of the above fact.
2. Also, ancient literature talks about the existence and usage of several crops of economic importance.

Question 2.
Classify plants on the basis of economic values and uses.
Answer:
They are classified into six varieties. They are:

1. Plants as food.
2. Spice yielding plants,
3. Medicinal plants.
4. Fibre yielding plants,
5. Timber yielding plants.
6. Ornamental plants.

Question 3.
Name the states in India with Jute cultivation?
Answer:
West Bengal, Assam, Orissa, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Tripura, and Meghalaya are the seven states producing jute.
Out of the above seven, West Bengal alone produces 50% jute of India.

Question 4.
Name some of the Indian spices.
Answer:
Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 5.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
The plants that have chemical compounds to destroy disease-causing germs are known as medicinal plants.

Question 6.
Identify the plant part and write about its use?

Answer:
The given diagram is that of cloves the flower buds used as a spice – to flavour food.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding plants based on use.
Answer:

1. Textile Fibres – Cotton.
2. Cordage Fibres – Coconut Fibre.
3. Filling Fibres – Silk cotton

Question 8.
Write the importance of rubber?
Answer:

1. Rubber is got from the stem latex of the rubber plant.
2. Vehicle tyres, wire insulating covers, and many toys and others are produced out of natural rubber.
3. It satisfies 80% rubber demand of the world.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Identify the freshwater ecosystem.
a. Pond
b. Lake
c. River
d. All of them
Answer:
d. All of them

Question 2.
Producers are ________
(a) Animals
(b) Birds
(c) Plants
(d) Snakes
Answer:
(c) Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
a. Plastic
b. Coconut Shell
c. Glass
d. Aluminium
Answer:
b. Coconut Shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
(a) Recycling
(b) Reuse
(c) Pollution
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(c) Pollution

Question 5.
Usage of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes ……… pollution.
a. Air pollution
b. Water pollution
c. Noise pollution
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Water pollution

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called ……….
2. Temperature, light and wind are ………… factors.
3. ………. is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread …………. and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, ………….. and Recycle.

Answer:

1. herbivores
2. physical
3. Recycle
4. diseases
5. reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. The pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
2. Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
3. Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
4. Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
5. In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.

Answer:

1. True.
2. True.
3. False – Human and animal wastes are examples of bio-degradable waste.
4. False – Excess use of pesticides leads to land pollution.
5. False – In schools waste management rules say that we should separate waste in three categories.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – c

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

1. Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake.
2. Human → Insect → Algae → Fish

Answer:

1. carrot → rabbit → snake → eagle.
2. Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living or biotic and non-living or a biotic things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
They are terrestrial (on land) and aquatic (in water).

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Examples:

1. Old clothes
2. Plastics

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution.

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Land (soil) pollution
4. Noise pollution

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
Food chain in aquatic ecosystem.
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → Fish.

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:
Pollutants:

1. Burning fossil fuel (petrol, coal, oil, etc).
2. Toxic gases, (Carbon monoxide).
3. Dust particles (ash, soot).

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?

1. Loud Speaker
2. Plastic

Answer:

1. Loud Speaker – Noise Pollution.
2. Plastic – Land Pollution.

VII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘Biodegradable’ is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of the sun, microorganisms, etc. (Eg.) Vegetable and fruit peel leftover food, grass, leaves, and twigs.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour leftover oil, old medicines or waste down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Reduce the use of detergents and bleach to wash clothes.
4. Do not litter or dump waste always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:

1. Learning about the food chain help us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. It also help us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem. This enable us to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
Examples of how we can Avoid waste:-
Avoid buying packaged foods. Refuse to buy ‘use-and-throw’ plastic products.

Examples of how we can reduce waste:-

1. Write on both sides of paper
2. Share newspaper and magazines with others.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution affects the environment. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
3. Noise pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
4. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears. Noise pollution also disturbs animals.
5. Birds have to communicate (talk) louder so that, they can hear each other in noisy areas.
6. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

Reduce noise pollution :

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Avoid fireworks.
3. Speak, do not shout.
4. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
5. Lower the volume when you watch TV (or) listen to music.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:
If an organism is removed from the food chain,

1. The food chain will fall apart.
2. The ecosystem will become imbalanced and collapse.
3. For example, Consider a food chain: Plants → grasshoppers → frogs → snakes → hawks.

If frogs were to die off in this chain, (due to disease/pollutants), then, there will be an increase in the number of grasshoppers. This will cause a major problem.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. The substances consist of plastic materials, metal scraps, aluminium cans, and bottles which cannot be broken down or decomposed into the soil by natural agents are labelled as non-biodegradable.
2. When it rains, some of the water never reaches the ground as it collects in the plastic garbage at the dump.
3. Little pools of water let mosquitoes breed and they can spread unwanted diseases like dengue and malaria.
4.  Aedes aegypti is the vector responsible for dengue transmission.
5. It breeds in solid waste mud pots and other junk materials.
6. We must know mosquitoes tend to breed in places which are dirty.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?

Answer:

1. We can see the mixed waste dumped in the open ground.
2. There is a fire in the open dump and the garbage is burning.
3. By the burning of plastic materials, pipes, leather, and garbage smoke and toxins are coming out and pollute the air.
4. The leftover ash from burning waste pollutes the soil.
5. When it rains some of the dangerous chemicals leaching into the soil and groundwater.
6. Thus the unhealthy chemicals from the garbage pollute the ecosystem.

Question 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
The following types of pollution are caused by open dumps:

1. Water pollution
2. Land pollution
3. Air pollution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
The ecosystem that originated without human intervention is called
(a) natural ecosystem
(b) artificial ecosystem
(c) aquarium
(d) terrarium
Answer:
(a) natural ecosystem

Question 2.
An example for artificial aquatic ecosystem is _______
(a) Forest
(b) Pond
(c) Garden
(d) Aquarium
Answer:
(d) Aquarium

Question 3.
Ecosystems created and maintained by humans are called?
(a) lake
(b) river
(c) artificial ecosystem
(d) natural ecosystem
Answer:
(c) artificial ecosystem

Question 4.
Plants are producers because they make their own food by _______
(a) Respiration
(b) Consumer
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Decomposing
Answer:
(c) Photosynthesis

Question 5.
The micro-organisms that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms is called
(a) consumers
(b) decomposers
(c) omnivores
(d) producers
Answer:
(b) decomposers

II. True or False. If False, Give the correct statement.

1. The abiotic factors are the non-living parts such as sunlight, air, water, and minerals in the soil.
2. A Zoo is a natural ecosystem.
3. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.
4. India produces 532 million kilos of solid waste every day.
5. Certain toxic gases from industries mix with raindrops and make rain unusually acidic.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – A Zoo is an artificial ecosystem.
3. True
4. True.
5. True.

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – e
4. – c
5. – b

IV. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence and form a food chain:

Question 1.
Grasshopper → Frog → Grass → Crow.
Answer:
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Crow

Question 2.
Peacock → Rat → Grains → Snake
Answer:
Grains → Rat → Snake → Peacock

V. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give two examples of artificial terrestrial ecosystems?
Answer:

1. Paddy fields
2. Garden

Question 2.
What are called producers?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food.
(Eg) Plants.

Question 3.
What do plants need in order to photosynthesis?
Answer:
Plants need chlorophyll, water, carbon-di-oxide, and sunlight.

Question 4.
What are the two major types of solid wastes?
Answer:

1. Biodegradable
2. Non-biodegradable.

Question 5.
What happens to the dead organisms of animals and plants?
Answer:

1. They are broken down into simple organic substances by decomposers.
2. These substances go into the soil and are used by plants.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when we do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when we watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak do not shout.

Question 2.
Differentiate the artificial ecosystem and natural ecosystem.
Answer:
Natural Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated without human intervention
2. Ex: Sea, River, Lake, Forest

Artificial Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated by human
2. Ex: Paddy field, garden, aquarium

VII. Questions based on higher-order thinking levels:

Question 1.
Are animal bones biodegradable?
Answer:

1. The microorganisms that break down tissues will also cause bones to decompose in a suitable aerated peaty soil.
2. In warm damp environments, bacteria and fungi attack the protein in the skeleton and it will break down in a matter of a decade or so.
3. But in a dry climate, it could take thousands of years
4. So bones do decay at a slower rate than other types of organic material and tissue.

Question 2.
Are all types of clothes biodegradable?
Answer:

1. Not all fabrics are safely biodegradable as they are made with artificial and chemical components.
2. It depends on what fibres or fabric is made from.
3. And also the more chemicals used the longer it takes to biodegrade.
4. Polyester has been introduced since 1951 created not by the textile industry but by American Chemical Company Dupont went on sale.
5. Polyester is a polymer or a long chain of repeating molecular units.
6. That basically means that our clothes are increasingly made of plastic.
7. In theory cotton, silk hemp is biodegradable and polyester is not.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Soaps were originally made from ………
a. proteins
b. animal fats and vegetable oils
c. chemicals extracted from the soil
d. foam booster
Answer:
b. animal fats and vegetable oils.

Question 2.
The saponification of a fat or oil is done using _______ solution for hot process.
(a) Potassium hydroxide
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Sodium chloride
Answer:
(b) Sodium hydroxide

Question 3.
Gypsum is added to the cement for ………..
a. fast setting
b. delayed setting
c. hardening
d. making paste
Answer:
b. delayed setting

Question 4.
Phenol is ……..
a. carbolic acid
b. acetic acid
c. benzoic acid
d. hydrochloric acid
Answer:
a. carbolic acid

Question 5.
Natural adhesives are made from ………..
a. Protein
b. fat
c. starch
d. vitamins
Answer:
c. starch

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………… gas causes tears in our eyes while cutting onions.
2. Water, coconut oil and ……….. are necessary for soap preparation.
3. ………..is called a farmer’s best friend.
4. …………. fertilizer is ecofriendly.
5. ………… is an example for natural adhesive.

Answer:

1. Propane Thiol Oxide
2. NaOH
3. Earthworm
4. Artificial
5. Starch

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Concentrated phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. Gypsum is largely used in medical industries.
3. Plaster of Paris is obtained from heating gypsum.
4. Adhesives are the substances used to separate the components.
5. NPK are the primary nutrients for plants.

Answer:

1. False. – Low concentrated Phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. False – Epsum is largely used in medical industry.
3. True.
4. False – Adhesives are substances that are used to join two (or) more components.
5. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer
1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – b
5. – a

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence:

1. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
4. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
5. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.
6. Cover your work area with old newspaper.

Answer:

1. Cover your work area with old newspaper.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
4. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
5. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
6. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.

VI. Analogy:

1. Urea : Inorganic fertilizer :: Vermi Compost: …………
2. ……….. : Natural Adhesives :: Cello tape : Artificial Adhesives

Answer:

1. Natural Fertilizer
2. Starch

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the three main constituents of soap?
Answer:
The three main constituents of soap are Lye (Sodium hydroxide), coconut oil, and water.

Question 2.
What are the two different types of molecules found in the soap?
Answer:
The two types of molecules found in the soap are

1. water-loving
2. water-hating.

Question 3.
Give an example of inorganic fertilizer.
Answer:
The Inorganic fertilizers are Urea, Ammonium sulphate, and Superphosphate.

Question 4.
Mention any three physical properties of phenol.
Answer:
Phenol properties:

1. It is a weak acid.
2. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
3. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.

Question 5.
Explain the uses of plaster of Paris.
Answer:
Uses of plaster of pairs:

1. In making blackboard chalks.
2. In surgery for setting fractured bones.
3. For making casts for statues and toys etc.
4. In the construction industry.

Question 6.
What are the ingredients of the cement?
Answer:
The ingredients of the cement are lime, clay, and gypsum.

Question 7.
Why gypsum is used in cement production?
Answer:
Gypsum is added to control the setting of cement.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Why earthworm is called a farmer’s friend?
Answer:

1. Earthworms take organic wastes as food and produce compost castings.
2. They provide a multitude of services to improve soil health and consequently plant health.
3. So earthworm is called a farmer’s friend.

Question 2.
Explain the process of manufacturing cement.
Answer:
The cement is manufactured by crushing naturally occurring minerals such as limestone, clay, and gypsum through a milling process.

Question 3.
What are the uses of Gypsum?
Answer:

1. Used as fertilizers
2. Used in the process of making cement and plaster of Paris.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
How are detergents manufactured?
Answer:
Manufacture of Detergents:
Materials used:
Acid slurry, Soda ash (or) Sodium Carbonate, Trisodium phosphate (TSP), sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour perfume and brightner.

Preparation:

1. Acid slurry is first neutralised.
2. Then neutralised Acid Slurry is mixed with Soda ash and kept for one hour for completion of reaction.
3. Other ingredients such as Trisodium phosphate (TSP), Sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour, perfume, brightner are then blended to the neutralised Acid Slurry with continuous mixing.
4. Then the mixture is dried.
5. Now we get detergent powder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Ravi is a farmer; he rears many cattle in his farm. His field has many biowastes. Advise Ravi on how to change this biowaste to compost by using vermicomposting techniques. Explain the benefits of vermi castings?
Answer:

1. Make a pit of 30 cm or take a wooden box.
2. Place a thin net on the base of the pit or wooden box.
3. Fill it with sand for about 1-2 cm.
4. Spread some plant wastes (like a dry leaf, flower) and biodegradable wastes on it.
5. Sprinkle some water.
6. Add some earthworms to these substances and cover them with an old cloth or dried coconut leaf.
7. We can find that vermicompost is formed after four weeks.
8. Use this vermicompost as manure for plants and conserve soil fertility.

Advantages of using vermicompost:

1. Vermicompost is an excellent organic manure for sustainable agro-practices.
2. Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients.
3. In improves soil structure texture, aeration, and water holding capacity and prevents soil erosion.
4. Vermicompost is rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment to the soil for farming and terrace gardening.
5. It enhances seed germination and ensures good plant growth.
6. Vermicompost can be prepared easily.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
………. to remove strong strains on the clothes.
(a) Detergents soap
(b) Bathing soap
(c) Bleaching powder
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Bleaching powder

Question 2.
_______ are the substances which can undergo chemical changes to produce certain materials.
(a) Soaps
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Plastics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
If 50 kg of Superphosphate is added to the soil, how much phosphorus would the soil get?
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg
(b) 8 – 9 kg
(c) 12 – 13 kg
(d) 16 – 18 kg
Answer:
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg

Question 4.
All the plants get their _______ from the soil.
(a) Nutrients
(b) Water
(c) Nitrogen
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Nutrients

Question 5.
The molecular formula of Epsom is _______
(a) CaSO₄1/2H₂O
(b) C₆H₅OH
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O
(d) CaSO₄.2H₂O
Answer:
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……… is a natural indicator.
2. ……….. molecules goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth.
3. Fertilizer facilitates the growth of ………….
4. ………….. is used to fix bone fractures.
5. Epsom salt is ………….

Answer:

1. turmeric powder
2. Water hating molecules
3. plants
4. Plaster of Paris
5. Magnesium Sulphate Hydrate

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

IV. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence:

1. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
2. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
3. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
4. Finally, the cloth is clean.
5. The detergent molecules have two sides.
6. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.

Answer:

1. The detergent molecules have two sides.
2. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
3. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.
4. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
5. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
6. Finally, the cloth is clean.

V. Analogy:

1. Black board chalks : ………….. : : Plant growth : Epsum
2. …………. : Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate : : Plaster of Paris : Calcium Sulphate Hemihvdrate
3. ………. : Mortar : : Construction of bridges : Concrete

Answer:

1. Plaster of Paris
2. Gypsum
3. Construction of house walls.

VI. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What are the principal nutrients?
Answer:
Principal nutrients are NPK

1. Nitrogen (N)
2. Phosphorus (P)
3. Potassium (K)

Question 2.
What are fertilizers?
Answer:
Fertilizers are organic (or) inorganic materials that we add to the soil to provide one (or) more nutrients to the soil.

Question 3.
Give two examples of organic fertilizers?
Answer:

1. Compost
2. Vermicompost

Question 4.
Why is called inorganic fertilizers?
Answer:
The fertilizers prepared by using natural elements by making them undergo chemical changes in the laboratories are called inorganic fertilizers.

Question 5.
Why is called Portland cement?
Answer:
It was named “Portland” cement because it resembled the high-quality building stones found in Portland, England.

VII. Answer in details:

Question 1.
What is Epsum? Mention it’s used.
Answer:
Epsum:

1. Epsum salt is magnesium Sulphate Hydrate.
2. Its molecular formula – MgSO₄. 7H₂O

Uses:

1. Eases stress and relaxes the body.
2. Helps muscles and nerves to function properly.
3. Medicine for skin problems.
4. Improving plant growth in agriculture.

Question 2.
Write about the Phenol and its uses.
Answer:
Phenol:

1. Phenol is a Carbolic acid of an organic compound.
2. It’s molecular formula C₆H₅OH
3. It is a weak acid.
4. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
5. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.
6. It irritates when exposed to human skin.

Uses:

1. It’s used industrial.
2. Low concentration of Phenol is used in mouth wash, disinfectant in household cleaners.
3. It is used as a surgical antiseptic since it kills microorganisms.

Question 3.
Tabulate the nutrients present in inorganic fertilizers.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 2 Water Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Around 97% of water available on earth is water.
a. fresh
b. pure
c. salty
d. polluted
Answer:
c. salty

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of the water cycle?
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) rain
(d) distillation
Answer:
(d) distillation

Question 3.
Which of the following processes add water vapour to the atmosphere?
i. Transpiration
ii. Precipitation
iii. Condensation
iv. Evaporation
a. ii and iii
b. ii and iv
c. i and iv
d. i and ii
Answer:
c. i and iv

Question 4.
About 30% of the freshwater is found in?
(a) glaciers
(b) groundwater
(c) other sources of water
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(b) groundwater

Question 5.
Using R.O. plant at home eliminates lot of non-potable water. The best way to effectively use the expelled water of R.O. plant is ……….
a. make the expelled water go and seep near the bore well
b. use it for watering plants
c. to drink the expelled water after boiling and cooling
d. to use for cooking as the water is full of many nutrients
Answer:
b. use it for watering plants

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Only ……… percent of natural water is available for human consumption.
2. The process of changing water into its vapour is called ………..
3. ……….. is built on rivers to regulate water flow and distribute water.
4. Water levels in rivers increase greatly during …………
5. Water cycle is also called as ………..

Answer:

1. 3%
2. Evaporation
3. Dam
4. Rainy days
5. hydrological cycle

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is unfit for use by human beings.
2. Seas are formed when the water table meets the land surface.
3. The evaporation of water takes place only in sunlight.
4. Condensation results in the formation of dew on grass.
5. Seawater can be used for irrigation as such.

Answer:

1. False – Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is fit for use by human beings.
2. True
3. False – The evaporation of water takes place in any source of heat.
4. True
5. False – Sea water can not be used for irrigation as such.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c
5. – d

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence

1. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
2. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
3. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
4. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.
5. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
8. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.

Answer:

1. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
2. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
3. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.
4. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
5. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
6. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
7. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
8. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.

VI. Analogy:

Question 1.
Population explosion : Water scarcity : : Recycle : ………..
Answer:
Water management

Question 2.
Groundwater : ……….. : : Surface-water : Lakes
Answer:
Wells

VII. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Name four different sources of water.
Answer:
Rivers, wells, lakes, glaciers, ponds, etc.

Question 2.
How do people in cities and rural areas get water for various purposes?
Answer:
People get water from wells, canals, tanks, ponds, rivers, water tanks, hand pipes for various purposes.

Question 3.
Take out of cooled bottle of water from refrigerator and keep it on a table. After some time you notice a puddle of water around it. Why?
Answer:
The cooled surface of the bottle cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses. So after some time, a puddle of water can be noticed around the bottle.

Question 4.
We could see clouds almost every day. Why doesn’t it rain daily?
Answer:
When the air around the clouds is cool the clouds then only rain comes. That is the reason why we can’t get rain daily.

Question 5.
Name the places where water is found as ice.
Answer:
Polar ice-caps, Ice sheets, and glaciers in Artie region arid Antarctica.

Question 6.
How do aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
Floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat and does not permit heat to escape from water. So aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic circle.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

1. Collecting water from where it falls.
2. Collecting rainwater by constructing bunds.

VIII. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Differentiate between surface water and groundwater.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a few slogans of your own on the topic “Save Water”.
Answer:

1. “To a thirsty man, a drop of water is worth more than a sack of gold”.
2. “Water covers 2/3 of the surface of the earth. But only 0.002% is drinkable. Save water”
3. “Save water to secure your future”
4. “Don’t make nature cry, keep your water clean”
5. “Store water for dry days”.

Question 3.
About 71% of earth’s surface is covered with water, then why do we face scarcity of water?
Answer:
71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water. The freshwater will be only 3%. It remains the same. But the water useful for plants, animals, and men is increasing day by day. So we face water scarcity.

Question 4.
Give reason for the following statement – Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
Answer:
Sewage contains harmful and toxic chemicals. They can disturb the ecosystem of the living animals, in the rivers or oceans. So it should be treated effectually before disposing into rivers or oceans.

Question 5.
The freshwater available on earth is only 3%. We cannot increase the amount of water. In that case, how can sustain the water level?
Answer:

1. The sewage water treatment is to be adopted.
2. Decrease the usage of pesticides, insecticides, and fertilizers in agriculture.
3. Protect forest and trees.
4. Adopt drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.
5. Rainwater harvesting should be implemented in every building.
6. Create awareness about the impact of throwing wastes into the water bodies.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What is potable water? List down its characteristics.
Answer:
The water which is fit for drinking by human beings is called potable water, characteristics

1. It is transparent.
2. It is odourless and colourless.
3. It is harmless or free from disease-causing bacteria.

Question 2.
Who is known as waterman of India? Browse the net and find the details about the award, the waterman received for water management. State the findings by drafting a report.
Answer:
The ‘Waterman of India’ is Dr. Rajendra Singh. He is a well-known water conservationist and environmentalist from Alwar district, Rajasthan.

Awards:

1. He gets the Ramon Magsaysay award for community leadership in 2001.
2. In 2005, he got the Jamnalal Bajaj Award for Science and Technology for rural development.
3. In 2008, The Guardian named him amongst its list of 50 people who could save the planet.
4. In 2015, he won the Stockholm Water Prize. He runs an NGO called ‘Tarun Bharat Sangh’ (TBS), which was founded in 1975.
5. In 2016, he was bestowed with Ahimsa Award by the Institute of Jainology based in UK.

Question 3.
What is rainwater harvesting? Explain in a few sentences how it can be used in houses.
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting:
Direct collection and use of rainwater are called rainwater harvesting.

There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

(a) Collecting water from where it falls.
Example: Collecting water from the rooftops of the houses or buildings (Roof water harvesting).

(b) Collecting flowing rainwater.
Example: Collecting rainwater by constructing ponds with bund.

X. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
When there is no pond or lake in an area, will there be the formation of clouds possible in that area?
Answer:
When there is no pond or lake in an area formation of clouds will be possible. Transpiration from the aerial parts of all plants and trees will evaporate water and it will form clouds.

Question 2.
To clean the spectacles, people often breathe out on glasses to make them wet. Explain why do the glasses become wet.
Answer:
When we breathe out, the hot air comes out from our mouth which gets condensed and changed into tiny water droplets, and glasses become wet.

XI. Crossword

Down:
1. A method of water conservation.
2. Process of getting water vapour from seawater.
6. Water stored in dams is used for the generation of ………..

Across:
3. ………. is a large body of non -potable water found in nature.
4. In summer, the body loses water as ……..
5. Plants undergo ………….. and contribute to the water cycle.

Answer:

XII. Observe the given graph carefully and answer the questions.

Question 1.

1. What percentage of water is seen in fish?
2. Name the food item that has the maximum amount of water in its content.
3. Name the food item that has a minimum amount of water in its content.
4. The human body consists of about ………. percentage of water.
5. Specify the food item that can be consumed by a person when he / she is suffering from dehydration.

Answer:

1. Fish – 70%
2. Watermelon
3. Fish
4. 60%
5. watermelon, pineapple

Question 2.
Look at the map of Tamilnadu showing annual rainfall and answer the questions given below

a. Identify the districts that get only low annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
northwest zone (Coimbatore, Erode, Namakkal, Karur)

b. Identify the districts that get a medium annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Pudhukottai, Virthunagar, Sivagangai, Salem, Dindigul, Theni, Vellore.

c. State the districts that enjoy high annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Chennai, Vizhupuram, Thiruvallur, Kadalur, Nagapattinam

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
If the total water on earth be 100% the percentage of freshwater is ………..
(a) 97%
(b) 93%
(c) 3%
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(c) 3%

Question 2.
_______ is a transparent, tasteless, odourless, chemical substance.
(a) Petrol
(b) Wax
(c) Water
(d) Kerosene
Ans:
(c) Water

Question 3.
Which one is not an example of groundwater?
(a) hand pump
(b) borewell
(c) wetland water
(d) well
Answer:
(c) wetland water

Question 4.
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds, and rivers evaporates due to the heat of _______
(a) Sun
(b) Pressure
(c) Atmosphere
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Sun

Question 5.
………. are wetlands where water bodies meet the sea.
(a) lake
(b) well
(c) estuary
(d) glacier
Answer:
(c) estuary

II. True or False.

1. Maximum surface water is stored in lakes.
2. The oceanic volcanoes add salts to the sea.
3. Water is a non-transparent chemical.
4. Transpiration takes place in rivers and lakes.
5. Nitrogen is used for the treatment of drinking water.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – v.
2. – iv.
3. – i.
4. – ii.
5. – iii.

IV. Analogy:

1. Low rainfall: Water scarcity : : Recycling Water : ………..
2. Frozen Water : Glaciers : : Surface Water : ………..
3. Evaporation : Sea : : …………. : Trees
4. Filtering : Sand : : ………….. : Ammonia
5. Solid State : ………… : : Gaseous State : Vapour

Answer:

1. Water Management
2. River
3. Transpiration
4. Disinfection
5. Ice

V. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the composition of water?
Answer:

1. Water is composed of two atoms of hydrogen combining with one atom of oxygen gas.
2. The molecular formula of water is H₂O.

Question 2.
What is water?
Answer:
Water is a transparent, tasteless, odourless and nearly colourless chemical substance.

Question 3.
What is saltwater?
Answer:
Water which has more than 3% salt is called saltwater. We can not drink and use this water.

Question 4.
What are the three stages in the water cycle?
Answer:
Evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 5.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
It is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant in vapour form is called transpiration.

VI. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the three stages of the water cycle.
Answer:

1. Water cycle is a continuous process.
2. It is also called the hydrological cycle.
3. The stages are

1. Evaporation :
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds and rivers evaporates due to the heat of the Sun.

2. Condensation:
Water vapour which enters into the atmosphere by evaporation moves upward with air, gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form clouds in the sky.

3. Precipitation:
Millions of tiny droplets collide with each other to form large droplets. The air around the clouds is cool these drops of a waterfall in the form of snow or rain.

Question 2.
How water is conserved by water management method?
Answer:
Water management consists of the following factors:

1. Bringing awareness about the bad effects of throwing wastes into the water bodies.
2. Recycling of water by separating pollutants.
3. Minimizing the use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture. It reduces the pollution of underground water.
4. Controlling deforestation.
5. Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture. In this way, a lesser amount of water can be used for irrigation.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Food Security and Nutrition Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Food Security and Nutrition

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Food Security and Nutrition Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………….. of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
(a) Availability of food
(b) Access to food
(c) Absorption of food
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Availability of food

Question 2.
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the ……………
(a) FCI
(b) Consumer Cooperatives
(c) ICICI
(d) IFCI
Answer:
(a) FCI

Question 3.
Which is correct?
(i) HYV-High Yielding Varieties
(ii) MSP-Minimum Support Price
(iii) PDS-Public Distribution System
(iv) FGi-Food Corporation of India
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 4.
…………… extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Singapore
(d) UK
Answer:
(a) United States of America

Question 5.
……………….. revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
(a) Blue Revolution
(b) White Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Grey Revolution
Answer:
(c) Green Revolution

Question 6.
………….. is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
……………….. is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
(a) Health
(b) Nutrition
(c) Sanitation
(d) Security
Answer:
(b) Nutrition

Question 8.
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in …………..
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 9.
……………….. status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources development.
(a) Health
(b) Nutritional
(c) Economic
(d) Wealth
Answer:
(a) Health

Question 10.
Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ……….. service at free of cost.
(a) 106 ambulance
(b) 108 ambulance
(c) 107 ambulance
(d) 105 ambulance
Answer:
(b) 108 ambulance

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.
2. ……………… is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
3. In the year ……………… National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
4. ……………… play an important role in the supply of quality goods at reasonable rates to common people.
5. ……………… is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services that one unit of money can buy.

Answers:

1. Ford
2. Underweight
3. 2013
4. Consumer co-operatives
5. Purchasing Power

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing power is affected.
(a) A is correct, R is false
(b) Both A and R are false statements
(c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer in Short

Question 1.
Define food security according to FAO.
Answer:
The United Nation’s Food and Agriculture Organisation defines food security as follows:
“Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.” (FAO, 2009)

Question 2.
what are the basic components of food and nutrition security?
Answer:
The hasic components of food and nutrition security are

1. Availability of food
2. Access to food
3. Absorption of food

Question 3.
Explain ‘ship to mouth’ phenomenon.
Answer:
United States of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 (PL 480) scheme to India during early 1960s. This situation was popularly known as ‘Ship to Mouth’ existence.

Question 4.
What is the role of FCl in Green Revolution?
Answer:
The Food Corporation of India helped the State to procure the harvested grains at the beginning of the cropping season. The FCI built huge storage godowns and built buffer stocks of food grain during the harvest season to be distributed throughout the year.

Question 5.
What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

1. It increase the production and cultivation
2. It increase the productivity
3. Changes in cropping system
4. Industrial development

Question 6.
Write a note on Differential Universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
Answer:

1. Under Universal Public Distribution System all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.
2. Under Targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving the others.
3. Tamil Nadu is following Universal PDS.

Question 7.
Write a short note on purchasing power.
Answer:
Purchasing power is the value of a currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods or services that one unit of money can buy. Price increases purchasing power declines and vice versa.

Question 8.
What are the main reasons for the New Agricultural Policy?
Answer:

1. To raise agricultural production and productivity.
2. To remove export restrictions such as export duty, export ban and quota restriction on organic and processed agricultural products.
3. All round development of the agriculture sector.

Question 9.
Write short note on multi-dimensional nature of poverty.
Answer:
Multi-dimensional poverty measures can be used to create a more comprehensive picture. They reveal who is poor, how they are poor and the range of disadvantages they experience. As well as providing a headline measure of poverty, multi-dimensional measures can be broken down to reveal the poverty level in different areas of a country, and among different subgroups of people.

Question 10.
Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS), Mid-Day Meals Scheme, Reproductive and child Health Programmes (RHP) and National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutritious Meal Programme (PTMGRNMP), Mid day meal programme.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.
Answer:

1. For a country’s overall development process food security of people is one of the key determining factor.
2. After independence, even though India focused on Agriculture, industrialization was also given priority.
3. But the problem of drought experienced in India forced her to be dependent on imports of food grains.
4. Therefore India had to plead for food grains from richer countries at concessional rates.
5. United states of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 to India. This situation was popularly known as ship to mouth existence.
6. An American Organisation Ford Foundation formulated a plan to increase food production in the country by introducing High Yielding varieties of wheat and rice.
7. When the results was very good in India, the idea of Green Revolution also bom in India.

Question 2.
Explain Minimum Support Price.
Answer:
Minimum Support Price is a price fixed by an expert group for a particular crop by considering various costs involved in the cultivation of that crop. After announcing the MSP, the State will open procurement centres in places where these crops are widely grown. However, the farmers are free to sell in the open market if they get a better price for their crop produce. On the other hand, if the open market price is lower than the MSP, the farmers would get an assured price (the MSP) by selling their produce to the FCI. Thus, with the implementation of MSP farmers are certain about the price they would get at the end of the crop season. Further, farmers also get insulated against any price crash during the harvest season.

Question 3.
Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. Public Distribution system refers to the Ration Shops.
2. The step taken by the Government to distribute food grains at subsidised rates is through this Public Distribution System.
3. The nature, scope and functioning of PDS varies from State to State.
4. There are two types of Public Distribution System.
5. They are universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
6. Under universal PDS, all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.
7. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria, leaving others.
8. Tamil Nadu continues to have the universal system of PDS and supplies rice at free of cost to all card holders.
9. Both the Union and the State Governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS.
10. The National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2013.
11. According to this Act 50% of urban households and 75% of the rural households are known as priority households based on a set of criteria.
12. They are supplied rice at ₹3 per kg, and wheat at ₹2 per kg, and millets at ₹1 per kg.
13. The Government of Tamil Nadu has declared that SMART family cards in lieu of existing family cards.

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting the purchasing power and explain them.
Answer:
• Over population: The population growth rate in India is high as 1.7 per 1000. Large population leads to increasing demand, but supply was not equal to the demand. So, the normal price level will be going an higher. So it affect purchasing power, especially in rural population.

• Increasing prices of essential goods: Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods. The continuous rise in the prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affect the poor people. During 2015-16 an average rate of 2% flood inflation, the prices of pulses rose by about 40%.

• Demand for goods: When demand for goods increases, the price of goods increases then the purchasing power is affected.

• Price of goods affect the value of currency: When the price increases the purchasing power decreases and finally the value of currency decreases and vice versa.

• Production and supply of goods: The production and supply of goods decline, the price of goods increases, then the purchasing power is affected.

• Poverty and inequality: There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy. The proportion of income and assets owned by the top 10% of Indian goes on increasing. This has led to an increase in the poverty level in society. Generally purchasing power is affected by poverty and unequal distribution of wealth also.

Purchasing power affects every aspect of economics, from consumers buying goods to investors and stock prices to a country’s economic prosperity. As such, a country’s government institutes policies and regulations to protect a currency’s purchasing power and keep an economy healthy. One method to monitor purchasing power is through the Consumer Price Index.

Question 5.
Write briefly some of the important objectives of India’s agricultural policy.
Answer:
The New Agricultural Policy was announced by the Government of India in 2018. The main objectives of the policy are:

1. Raising the productivity of inputs: Inputs for the growth of crops of such as HYV seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation projects should be improved.
2. Raising value – added per hectare: The policy aims at increasing the value addition per hectare by raising the productivity in small and marginal holding instead of raising physical output in general.
3. Protecting the interest of the poor farmers: The policy help the poor and marginal farmers by abolishing intermediaries, extended credit support and land reforms,
4. Modernising Agriculture sector: Introduction of modem technology in agricultural operations and application of improved agricultural inputs like HYV seeds, fertilizers etc.
5. Environmental Degradation: One of the objective of the agricultural policy is to check the environmental degradation of natural base.
6. Removing bureaucracy: Bureaucratic obstacles on the farmers co-operative societies and self – help institutions is to be removed so that farmers can work freely.

Question 6.
Discuss about the Multi-dimentional Poverty Index India and Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 report prepared by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative makes the following observations about India.
India has reduced its poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28% in 10 years, with 271 million people moving out of poverty between 2005-06 and 2015-16.

• India still had 364 million poor people in 2015-16, the largest for any country, although it is down from 635 million in 2005-06.

• Of the 364 million people who were MPI poor in 2015-16,156 million were children whereas in 2005-06 there were 292 million poor children in India. This represents a 47% decrease or 136 million fewer children growing up in multi-dimensional poverty.

• 80% of people belonging to ST were poor in 2005-06 and 50% of them were still poor in 2015-16.

• Bihar with more than half its population in poverty was the poorest state in 2015-16.

• The four poorest states Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh were still home to 196 million MPI poor people, which was over half of all the MPI poor people in India.

• Kerala, one of the least poor regions in 2006, reduced its MPI by around 92%.

Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 Report in Tamil Nadu:
Over the last decades, Tamil Nadu has made a significant progress in poverty reduction. The districts in Tamil Nadu are classified into three categories, namely high-poverty districts (more than 40% of the population living below poverty line), moderately poor districts (30% to 40%) and low level poverty districts (below 30%).

After 1994, poverty has declined steadily in both rural and urban areas of Tamil Nadu and the state has a smaller share of India’s poor relative to its-population. After 2005, the poverty reduction in this state has been faster than in many other states in India. Tamil Nadu leads in the poverty alleviation programmes during 2014-2017. Government of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate poverty.
These policies and programmes, if continued, will completely eradicate the poverty in the state. In future, Tamil Nadu can become a model of development in India.

Question 7.
Briefly explain the nutritional and health status of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Nutrition plays a crucial role in human health and well being.
2. Tamil Nadu has played a pioneering role in bringing about significant changes in the health and nutrition status.
3. Children below six years of age, pregnant women, lactating mothers and adolescent girls are mainly taken care of.
4. Tamil Nadu’s budget allocation for health and nutrition is the highest in the country.
5. The performance of the Integrated Child Development Services, and the Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutritious Meal Programme (PTMGRNMP) are considered one of the best in the country.
6. In Tamil Nadu, ICDs is being implemented through 54,439 child centres, that is 49,499 Anganwadi centres and 4,940 mini Anganwadi centres.
7. There are 434 Child Development Blocks in which 385 in rural areas, 47 urban areas and 2 in tribal areas.
8. The Government of Tamil Nadu’s policy for “A Malnutrition free Tamil Nadu” guides the State’s long term Multi – sectoral strategy for eliminating malnutrition,
9. Amartya Sen, Noble prize winning Economist stated that he sees a political will and commitment in the state of Tamil Nadu to tackle these issues to achieve the status of a “Malnutrition” “Free state”.

VII. Activity and Projects

Question 1.
Visit nearby “Uzhavar Sandhai” and collect the information about the functions of market.
Answer:
Uzhavar Sandhai is a scheme of the Government of Tamil Nadu to promote direct contact between farmers and consumers in Tamil Nadu.

Functions of Uzhavar Sandhai:

1. Uzhavar Sandhai also called as Farmer’s market was started at Madurai in 1999 to help the farmers to sell their produce at reasonable rate without the interference of the middlemen.
2. Uzhavar Sandhai starts its functioning from early morning.
3. It facilitates direct contact between farmers and the public.
4. It provides fresh vegetables and fruits at reasonable price daily without any interference from the middlemen.
5. Prices are listed down in the blackboards in every shop.
6. It provides correct measurement to the consumers with the price lesser than the retail price in the market.
7. It also acts as a technical training centre to the farmers.
8. Some of the Uzhavar Sandhai’s also sell seeds and other inputs to the farmers.
9. Farmers those who produce less can also sell in these farmer’s market and benefit themselves.

Question 2.
Collect information about health centre functioning nearby your location.
Answer:
Health centres provide continuous and comprehensive care to the patients. It helps in making the patients available with the social welfare and pubilc health services initiated by the Governing bodies.

Functions of Health Centre:

1. Provision of medical care.
2. Education about health.
3. Prevention and control of locally epedemic diseases.
4. Safe water supply and basic sanitation.
5. Maternal – child health including family planning.
6. Clinical Services.
7. Aged and disability care.
8. Child care.
9. Overall Health Promotion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Food Security and Nutrition Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The minimum support price is the price announced by the Government at the ……………… of the cropping season.
(a) end
(b) beginning
(c) harvest
(d) none
Answer:
(b) beginning

Question 2.
………… The programme was implemented in selected districts where irrigation was assured.
(a) FCI
(b) HYV
(c) MSD
Answer:
(b) HYV

Question 3.
The nature, scope and functioning of the ……………… varies from State to State.
(a) FCI
(b) PDS
(c) IRDP
(d) None
Answer:
(b) PDS

Question 4.
Buffer stock scheme purpose is …………..
(a) To save food grains from pest attack
(b) To deliver food
(c) To stop price fluctuations
Answer:
(c) To stop price fluctuations

Question 5.
Around 94% of the fair – price shops are run by ……………… in Tamil Nadu.
(a) banks
(b) government
(c) co-operatives
(d) local heads
Answer:
(c) co-operatives

Question 6.
It has been proposed to open new fair price shops so that, no cardholder walks more than ……………… km.
(a) 4
(b) 3.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 1.5
Answer:
(d) 1.5

Question 7.
……………… is a method of monitoring purchasing power.
(a) Purchasing power parity
(b) Whole sale price Index
(c) Consumer price index
(d) Inflation
Answer:
(c) Consumer price index

Question 8.
In general, purchasing power is affected by :
(a) Poverty
(b) Unequal distribution of wealth
(c) Price of the goods
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
……………… is the largest economy in terms of PPP – GDP in 2019.
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) India
Answer:
(b) China

Question 10.
……………… are the factors that constitute the Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index.
(a) Quality of work
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 11.
……………… district tops in Multi-dimensional index in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Virudunagar
Answer:
(b) Kancheepuram

Question 12.
The status of ……………… in urban and Rural areas are traced with the help of the National Family Health Survey.
(a) Poverty
(b) Health
(c) Nutrition
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Nutrition

Question 13.
……………… is considered to be one of the world’s largest programme of its kind for the holistic development of the child.
(a) ICDS
(b) RCH
(c) NRHM
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) ICDS

Question 14.
Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme gives financial assistance to poor pregnant women upto :
(a) ₹ 25,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) ₹ 50,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 12,000

Question 15.
Better medical care leads to ……………… population.
(a) stable
(b) healthy
(c) disease less
(d) growth of active
Answer:
(b) healthy

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) India has reduced the poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28 % in the past 10 years.
(ii) Multidimensional poverty index reveals who is poor, how they are poor, and the disadvantages they experience.
(iii) A substantial number of Indian women and children are underweight, anaemic and deficient in micro-nutrient.
(iv) Though India has achieved self – sufficiency in food production, yet to attain food security to all.
(a) (i), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 2.
(i) Raising the productivity of inputs and modernising agricultural is one of the aim of PMGYS.
(ii) Amartya Sen is an leading nobel laureate in agricultural science.
(iii) Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition programme is assisted financially by the world bank.
(iv) The National Food Security Act was implemented in Tamil Nadu in 2016.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) only (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (iv) are wrong
(d) (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) only (iv) is correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The New Agricultural policy was announced by the Government of India in 2018.
Reason (R): The Government decided to remove export restrictions on most organic and processed agricultural products.
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.
(b) A and R are wrong.
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Government of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate poverty in India.
Reason (R): These policies if continued, Tamil Nadu can become a model of development in India in future.
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.
(b) A is wrong R is correct.
(c) A is correct but R is the correct explanation to A.
(d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.

V. Answer in Short

Question 1.
Write about the National Food Security Act in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
On 1 November 2016, Tamil Nadu became the last state in the country to implement the National Food Security Act after holding out for three years. In a government order issued on 27 October, the state specified that while it was enforcing the law, it would be modifying its provisions.

Question 2.
Define Nutrition Security.
Answer:
According to eminent agricultural scientist M.S.Swaminathan, Nutrition security is, “Physical, Economic and social access to a balanced diet, safe drinking water, environmental hygiene, primary health care and primary education.

Question 3.
What is the purchasing power parity?
Answer:
• PPP is an economic theory that estimates the amount that needs to be adjusted to the price of an item, given exchange rates of the two countries, in order for the exchange to match each currency’s purchasing power.

• PPP can be used to compare countries income levels and other relevant economics data concerning the cost of living, or possible rates of inflation and deflation.

Question 4.
What does availability of food depend upon?
Answer:
The Availability of food depends upon the domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.

Question 5.
Name the three-tier structure of consumer cooperative societies in India?
Answer:

1. Primary consumer cooperative societies
2. Central consumer cooperative stores.
3. State-level consumer federation.

Question 6.
Write a note on National Food Security Act in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2013. On Nov 1, 2016 Tamil Nadu became a last state in the country to implement the Act. On 27th October, the State specified that while enforcing the law, it would modify the provisions.

Question 7.
What is meant by Buffer stock?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains namely wheat and rice procured by the Government through the Food Corporation of India.

Question 8.
How does the Buffer stock scheme help the people?
Answer:
The Buffer stock helps to resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.

Question 9.
What is meant by Issue Price?
Answer:
Buffer stock is done to distribute food grains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of the society at a price lower than the market price also known as the Issue Price.

Question 10.
What are the three major dimensions of poverty?
Answer:
Health, Education and living standard are the major dimensions of poverty.

Question 11.
What is Padhumaiyar Kuzhu?
Answer:
Empowering adolescent girls and making them participate in the peer group services and activities as a group. This would enable them to gain confidence and became a catalyst of change.

Question 12.
What is PPP?
Answer:
PPP refers to the Purchasing Power Parity. It is an economic theory that estimates the amount that needs to be adjusted to the price of the item, given the exchange rate of the two countries.

Question 13.
What are the uses of PPP?
Answer:
PPP is used to compare countries income levels, and other relevant economic data concerning the cost of living, (or) possible rates of Inflation or deflation.

Question 14.
What is meant by Agricultural policy?
Answer:
Agricultural policy of a country is designed for increasing the agricultural production and productivity thereby raising the level of income and standard of living of the farmers within a particular period of time.

Question 15.
What are the ten indicators of Multi – Dimensional poverty index.
Answer:

1. Nutrition and child mortality under health.
2. Years of schooling and school attendance under education.
3. Cooking fuel, sanitation, water, Electricity, floor, assets under living standards.

Question 16.
Write a note on The Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Health Insurance scheme.
Answer:

1. It was launched in 2011 – 12.
2. Aims to provide free medical and surgical treatment in Government and private hospital to any family whose annual income is less than ? 72,000
3. To reach the goal of Universal Health Care to All.

Question 17.
When does Food security exists?
Answer:
Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.

Question 18.
Write a note a Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme.
Answer:

1. Gives financial assistance upto ₹ 12,000 to poor pregnant women on nutritious diet in 3 instalments.
2. This helps to avoid low birth weight of new bom babies.
3. These women can avail ante – natal care delivering and immunising the baby bom on Government hospitals.

Question 19.
What was the aim of the National leprosy Eradication Programme?
Answer:
Its aim is to detect and to provide sustained regular treatment to all leprosy patients in the State.

Question 20.
Write the names of the four poorest states of India.
Answer:
Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarpradesh and Madhyapradesh are the four states with more number of poor people live.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the role of consumer co-operation in food security of India.
Answer:

1. Consumer co-operatives play an important role in the supply of quality goods at reasonable rates to common people.
2. It has a three tier structure.
3. They are Primary Consumer Co-operative Society, Central Consumer Co-operative Stores, State Level Consumer Federations.
4. More than 50,000 village level societies are engaged in the distribution of consumer goods in rural areas.
5. There are other benefits from consumer co-operatives such as Health Care, Insurance, Housing etc.,
6. Consumer co-operatives play a very important role in Tamil Nadu can be well witnessed as to around 94% of fair price shops are being run by co-operatives.

Question 2.
Name and explain the two components of food security system in India:
Answer:
The two components of food security system in India are Buffer stock and Public distribution system.
(i) Buffer Stock:
It is the stock of food grains (wheat and rice) procured by the government through Food Corporation of India (FCI). It is used to distribute food grain in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price. This , stock is also used during among natural calamity such as drought or earthquake.

(ii) Public Distribution System:
The food produced by the FCI is distributed through government-regulated ration shops among the poorer section of the society. This is called the Public Distribution System.