Class 12 – Page 3 – Samacheer Kalvi

Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

November 8, 2023

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Nine
(d) Two
Answer:
(d) Two

Question 2.
pBR 322, BR stands for ________.
(a) Plasmid Bacterial Recombination
(b) Plasmid Bacterial Replication
(c) Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez
(d) Plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez
Answer:
(c) Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez

Question 3.
Which of the given plant produces cardiac glycosides?
(a) Calotropis
(b) Acacia
(c) Nepenthes
(d) Utricularia
Answer:
(a) Calotropis

Question 4.
Methane is _______ times as effective as CO₂ at trapping heat.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 100
Answer:
(c) 20

Question 5.
Statement 1: Arachis hypogea belongs to Fabaceae
Statement 2: It is a native of Brazil.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
(c) Both the Statements are correct
(d) Both the Statements are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both the Statements are correct

Question 6.
Which of the following scientist developed world’s first cotton hybrid?
(a) Dr. B.P. Pal
(b) C.T. Patel
(c) Dr. K. Ramiah
(d) N.G.P. Rao
Answer:
(b) C.T. Patel

Question 7.
Ecosystem is the structural and functional unit of ecology. This statement was given by _______.
(a) Tansley
(b) Odum
(c) Charles Elton
(d) Edwin
Answer:
(b) Odum

Question 8.
Name the scientist(s) who rediscovered the Mendelian work? .
(i) Hugo de Vries (ii) Carl Correns (iii) Tschermak (iv) T.H. Morgan
(a) (i), (ii)and (iv) (b) (i), (ii)and (iii) (iii) ii, iii, iv (d) i, iii and iv
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii)and (iii)

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Detached leaf of Bryophyllum produces new plants. How?
Answer:
In Bryophyllum, the leaf is succulent and notched on its margin. Adventious buds develop at these notches and are called epiphyllous buds. They develop into new plants forming a root system and become independent plants when the leaf gets decayed.

Question 10.
Crossing over occurs only in germinal cells. Yes or No? Support your answer.
Answer:
No. Though crossing over is a common process in germinal cells rarely it also occurs in somatic cells during mitosis. Such crossing over is called mitotic crossing over or somatic crossing over.

Question 11.
Why do we use cryoprotectants in conservation process? Name any two cryoprotectant.
Answer:
Cryoprotectants are the protective agents that are used to protect the cells or tissues from the stress of freezing temperature. E.g: Sucrose, dimethyl sulphoxide.

Question 12.
What is Eltonian pyramid?
Answer:
Eltonian pyramid or Ecological pyramid is a graphic representation of the trophic structure and function at successive trophic levels of an ecosystem.

Question 13.
What do you understand by the term good ozone and bad ozone?
Answer:
The ozone layer of troposphere is called bad ozone.
The ozone layer of stratosphere is called good ozone because the layer acts as an shield for absorbing UV rays coming from sun which is harmful for living organisms causing ONA damage.

Question 14.
A person got irritation while applying chemical dye. What would be your suggestion for alternative?
Answer:
If a grey haired person is allergic on using chemical dyes then he can go for natural dyes like Henna. Henna is an organic dye obtained from leaves and young shoots of Lawsonia inermis. The principal colouring matter is Tacosone’ which is harmless and causes no irritation on skin.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Differentiate between incomplete dominance and codominance.
Answer:
Incomplete Dominance:

In incomplete dominance, neither of the allele is not completely dominant to another allele rather combine and produce new trait.
New phenotype is formed due to character blending (not alleles)
Example : Pink flowers of Mirabilis Jalapa

Co-dominance:

In co-dominance, both the alleles in heterozygote are dominant and the traits are equally expressed (joint expression)
No formation of new phenotype rather both dominant traits are expressed, conjointly.
Example : Red and white flowers of camellia.

Question 16.
What are the features that a vector must possess to facilitate cloning?
Answer:
The following are the features that are required to facilitate cloning into a vector.

Origin of replication (ori): This is a sequence from where replication starts and piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells.
Selectable marker: In addition to ori the vector requires a selectable marker, which helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants.
Cloning sites: In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have very few, preferably single, recognition sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes.

Question 17.
Define somatic embryogenesis? Give any two of its applications.
Answer:
Somatic embryogenesis is the formation of embryos from the callus tissue directly and these embryos are called Embryoids.

Applications:

Somatic embryogenesis provides potential plantlets which after hardening period can establish into plants.
Somatic embryoids can be used for the production of synthetic seeds.

Question 18.
What is TSM? How it is classified and what does it focuses on?
Answer:
TSM stands for Traditional Systems of Medicines India has a rich medicinal heritage. A number of Traditional Systems of Medicine (TSM) are practiced in India some of which come from outside India. TSM in India can be broadly classified into institutionalized or documented and non-institutionalized or oral traditions. Institutionalized Indian systems include Siddha and Ayurveda which are practiced for about two thousand years.

These systems have prescribed texts in which the symptoms, disease diagnosis, drugs to cure, preparation of drugs, dosage and diet regimes, daily and seasonal regimens. Non-institutional systems, whereas, do not have such records and or practiced by rural and tribal peoples across India. The knowledge is mostly held in oral form. The TSM focus on healthy lifestyle and healthy diet for maintaining good health and disease reversal

Question 19.
How do sacred groves help in the conservation of biodiversity?
Answer:
These are the patches or grove of cultivated trees which are community protected and are based on strong religious belief systems which usually have a significant religious connotation for protecting community. Each grove is an abode of a deity mostly village God Or Goddesses like Aiyanar or Amman. 448 grooves were documented throughout Tamil Nadu, of which 6 groves (Banagudi shola, Thirukurungudi and Udaiyankudikadu, Sittannnavasal, Puthupet and Devadanam) were taken up for detailed floristic and faunistic studies.

These groves provide a number of ecosystem services to the neighbourhood like protecting watershed, fodder, medicinal plants and micro climate control.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) Draw a flow chart depicting the various types of ploidy.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 1

[OR]

(b) Mention the application of biotechnology.
Answer:

Biotechnology is one of the most important applied interdisciplinary sciences of the 21st century. It is the trusted area that enables us to find the beneficial way of life.
Biotechnology has wide applications in various sectors like agriculture, medicine, environment and commercial industries.
This science has an invaluable outcome like transgenic varieties of plants e.g. transgenic cotton (Bt-cotton), rice, tomato, tobacco, cauliflower, potato and banana.
The development of transgenics as pesticide resistant, stress resistant and disease resistant varieties of agricultural crops is the immense outcome of biotechnology.
The synthesis of human insulin and blood protein in E.coli and utilized for insulin deficiency disorder in human is a breakthrough in biotech industries in medicine.
The synthesis of vaccines, enzymes, antibiotics, dairy products and beverages are the products of biotech industries.
Biochip based biological computer is one of the successes of biotechnology.
Genetic engineering involves genetic manipulation, tissue culture involves aseptic cultivation of totipotent plant cell into plant clones under controlled atmospheric conditions.
Single cell protein from Spirulina is utilized in food industries.
Production of secondary metabolites, biofertilizers, biopesticides and enzymes.
Biomass energy, biofuel, bioremediation and phytoremediation for environmental biotechnology.

Question 21.
(a) Differentiate Primary succession and Secondary succession.
Answer:
Primary succession:

Developing in an barren area.
Initiated due to a biological or any other external factors.
No soil, while primary succession starts
Pioneer species come from outside environment.
It takes more time to complete.

Secondary succession:

Developing in disturbed area.
Starts due to external factors only.
It starts where soil covers is already present.
Pioneer species develop from existing environment.
It takes comparatively less time to complete.

(b) Enumerate the characters of anemophilous flowers
Answer:
Anemophilous plants have the following characteristic features:

The flowers are produced in pendulous, catkin-like or spike inflorescence.
The axis of inflorescence elongates so that the flowers are brought well above the leaves.
The perianth is absent or highly reduced.
The flowers are small, inconspicuous, colourless, not scented, do not secrete nectar.
The stamens are numerous, filaments are long, exerted and versatile.
Anthers produce enormous quantities of pollen grains compared to number of ovules available for pollination. They are minute, light and dry so that they can be carried to long distances by wind.
In some plants anthers burst violently and release the pollen into the air. Example: Urtica.
Stigmas are comparatively large, protruding, sometimes branched and feathery, adapted to catch the pollen grains. Generally single ovule is present.
Plant produces flowers before the new leaves appear, so the pollen can be carried without hindrance of leaves.

Bio-Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria only?
(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea and candidiasis
(b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis and gonorrhoea
(c) Syphilis, gonorrhoea and trichomoniasis
(d) Syphilis, trichomoniasis and pediculosis
Answer:
(b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis and gonorrhoea

Question 2.
ABO blood group in man is controlled by __________.
(a) Multiple alleles
(b) Lethal genes
(c) Sex linked genes
(d) Y-linked genes
Answer:
(a) Multiple alleles

Question 3.
Hershey and Chase experiment with bacteriophage showed that ____________.
(a) Protein gets into the bacterial cells
(b) DNA is the genetic material
(c) DNA contains radioactive sulphur
(d) Viruses undergo transformation
Answer:
(b) DNA is the genetic material

Question 4.
Modern man belongs to which period?
(a) Quaternary
(b) Cretaceous
(c) Silurian
(d) Cambrian
Answer:
(a) Quaternary

Question 5.
Allergy involves _______.
(a) IgE
(b) IgG
(c) IgA
(d) IgM
Answer:
(a) IgE

Question 6.
Recombinant Factor VIII is produced in the ______ of the Chinese Hamster.
(a) Liver cells
(b) blood cells
(c) ovarian cells
(d) brain cells
Answer:
(c) ovarian cells

Question 7.
Match with correct pair
Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 2
(a) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
(b) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv
(d) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(d) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii
Answer:
(b) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Snake is a stenotherm.
Reason (R): Organism can tolerate narrow temperature fluctuations.
(a) Both A and R are correct R explain A
(b) A is correct R is incorrect
(c) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct R explain A

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Mention the differences between spermiogenesis and spermatogenesis.
Answer:
Spermiogenesis:
Transformation of spermatids into mature sperm.

Spermatogenesis:
Spermatogenesis is the sequence of events in the seminiferous tubules of testes that produces male gametes, the sperms.

Question 10.
Draw and label a gemmule of sponge.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 3

Question 11.
State Wiener’s Hypothesis on Rh-factor.
Answer:
Wiener proposed the existence of eight alleles (R¹, R², R⁰, R^Z, r, r¹, r¹¹, r^y) at a single Rh locus. All genotypes carrying a dominant ‘R allele’ (R¹, R², R⁰, R^z) will produce ‘Rh-positive’ phenotype and double recessive genotypes (rr, rr¹, rr¹¹, rr^y) will give rise to Rh-negative phenotype.

Question 12.
Why t-RNA is called an adapter molecule?
Answer:
The transfer RNA (t-RNA) molecule of a cell acts as a vehicle that picks up the amino acids scattered through the cytoplasm and also reads specific codes of mRNA molecules. Hence it is called as adapter molecule. This term was postulated by Francis Crick.

Question 13.
Why Red list is prepared periodically?
Answer:
The purpose of preparation of Red List are:

To create awareness on the degree of threat to biodiversity
Identification and documentation of species at high risk of extinction
Provide global index on declining biodiversity .
Preparing conservation priorities and help in conservation of action
Information on international agreements on conservation of biological diversity

Question 14.
Write notes on (a) Eutrophication (b) Algal Bloom
Answer:
Eutrophication refers to the nutrient enrichment in water bodies leading to lack of oxygen and will end up in the death of aquatic organisms.
Algal Bloom is an excess growth of algae due to abundant excess nutrients imparting distinct color to water.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Explain Foetal-ejection reflex.
Answer:
As the pregnancy progresses, increase in the oestrogen concentration promotes uterine contractions. These uterine contractions facilitate moulding of the foetus and downward movement of the foetus. The descent of the foetus causes dilation of cervix of the uterus and vaginal canal resulting in a neurohumoral reflex called Foetal ejection reflex or Ferguson reflex.

This initiates the secretion of oxytocin from the neurohypophysis which in turn brings about the powerful contraction of the uterine muscles and leads to the expulsion of the baby through the birth canal.

Question 16.
Role of Y- chromosome is crucial for maleness – Justify.
Answer:
Current analysis of Y chromosomes has revealed numerous genes and regions with potential genetic function; some genes with or without homologous counterparts are seen on the X. Present at both ends of the Y chromosome are the pseudoautosomal regions (PARs) that are similar with regions on the X chromosome which synapse and recombine during meiosis. The remaining 95% of the Y chromosome is referred as the Non-combining Region of the Y (NRY).

The NRY is divided equally into functional genes (euchromatic) and non-functional genes (heterochromatic). Within the euchromatin regions, is a gene called Sex determining region Y (SRY). In humans, absence of Y chromosome inevitably leads to female development and this SRY gene is absent in X chromosome. The gene product of SRY is the testes determining factor (TDF) present in the adult male testis.

Question 17.
State immunological surveillance theory.
Answer:
The concept of immunological surveillance postulates that the primary function of the immune system is to “seek and destroy” malignant cells that arise by somatic mutation. The efficiency of the surveillance mechanism reduces either as a result of ageing or due to congenital or acquired immuno deficiencies, leads to increased incidence of cancer. Thus, if immunological surveillance is effective, cancer should not occur. The development of tumour represents a lapse in surveillance.

Question 18.
Write a short note on Pathaneer.
Answer:
In some parts of South India, a traditional drink called pathaneer is obtained from fermenting sap of palms and coconut trees. A common source is tapping of unopened spadices of coconut. It is a refreshing drink, which on boiling produces jaggery or palm sugar. When pathaneer is left undisturbed for few hours it gets fermented to form toddy with the help of naturally occurring yeast, to form a beverage that contains 4 percent alcohol. After 24 hours toddy becomes unpalatable and is used for the production of vinegar.

Question 19.
Elucidate the methodology of ELISA test.
Answer:
During diagnosis the sample suspected to contain the antigen is immobilized on the surface of an ELISA plate. The antibody specific to this antigen is added and allowed to react with the immobilized antigen. The anti-antibody is linked to an appropriate enzyme like peroxidase.

The unreacted anti-antibody is washed away and the substrate of the enzyme (hydrogen peroxidase) is added with certain reagents such as 4-chloronaphthol. The activity of the enzyme yields a coloured product indicating the presence of the antigen.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) What are IUD’s? Explain its way of functioning. Also describe their types.
Answer:
Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) are inserted by medical experts in the uterus through the vagina. These devices are available as copper releasing IUDs, hormone releasing IUDs and nonmedicated IUDs. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus. IUDs are the ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy. It is one of the popular methods of contraception in India and has a success rate of 95 to 99%.

Copper releasing IUDs differ from each other by the amount of copper. Copper IUDs such as Cu T-380 A, Nova T, Cu 7, Cu T 380 Ag, Multiload 375, etc. release free copper and copper salts into the uterus and suppress sperm motility. They can remain in the uterus for five to ten years.

Hormone-releasing IUDs such as Progestasert and LNG – 20 are often called as intrauterine systems (IUS). They increase the viscosity of the cervical mucus and thereby prevent sperms from entering the cervix.

Non-medicated IUDs are made of plastic or stainless steel. Lippes loop is a double S-shaped plastic device.

[OR]

(b) Explain how Urey – Miller’s experiment supports the origin of life?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium 4
Urey and Miller (1953), paved way for understanding the possible synthesis of organic compounds that led to the appearance of living organisms is depicted in the Figure In their experiment, a mixture of gases was allowed to circulate over electric discharge from an tungsten electrode.

A small flask was kept boiling and the steam emanating from it was made to mix with the mixture of gases (ammonia, methane and hydrogen) in the large chamber that was connected to the boiling water. The steam condensed to form water which ran down the ‘U’ Diagrammatic representation of Urey-Miller’s experiment tube. Experiment was conducted continuously for a week and the liquid was analysed. Glycine, alanine, beta alanine and aspartic acid were identified.

Thus Miller’s experiments had an insight as to the possibility of abiogenetic synthesis of large amount of variety of organic compounds in nature from a mixture of sample gases in which the only source of carbon was methane. Later in similar experiments, formation of all types of amino acids, and nitrogen bases were noticed.

Question 21.
(a) Discuss any two Allosomal abnormalities in human beings.
Answer:
Allosomal abnormalities in human beings:
Mitotic or meiotic non-disjunction of sex chromosomes causes allosomal abnormalities.
Several sex chromosomal abnormalities have been detected. E.g. Klinefelter’s syndrome and
Turner’s syndrome.

1. Klinefelter’s Syndrome (XXY Males):
This genetic disorder is due to the presence of an additional copy of the X chromosome resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY. Persons with this syndrome have 47 chromosomes (44AA+XXY). They are usually sterile males, tall, obese, with long limbs, high pitched voice, under developed genetalia and have feeble breast (gynaecomastia) development.

2. Turner’s Syndrome (XO Females):
This genetic disorder is due to the loss of a X chromosome resulting in a karyotype of 45 ,X. Persons with this syndrome have 45 chromosomes (44 autosomes and one X chromosome) (44AA+XO) and are sterile females. Low stature, webbed neck, under developed breast, rudimentary gonads lack of menstrual cycle during puberty, are the main symptoms of this syndrome:

[OR]

(b) Explain in detail about various types of extinctions.
Answer:
There are three types of Extinctions
1. Natural extinction: It is a slow process of replacement of existing species with better adapted species due to changes in environmental conditions, evolutionary changes, predators and diseases. A small population can get extinct sooner than the large population due to inbreeding depression (less adaptivity and variation)

2. Mass extinction: The Earth has experienced quite a few mass extinctions due to environmental catastrophes. A mass extinction occurred about 225 million years ago during the Permian, where 90% of shallow water marine invertebrates disappeared.

3. Anthropogenic extinctions: These are abetted by human activities like hunting, habitat destruction, over exploitation, urbanization and industrialization. Some examples of extinctions are Dodo of Mauritius and Steller’s sea cow of Russia. Amphibians seem to be at higher risk of extinction because of habitat destruction.

The most serious aspect of the loss of biodiversity is the extinction of species. The unique information contained in its genetic material (DNA) and the niche it possesses are lost forever.

Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

November 8, 2023

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

நேரம்: 2.30 மணி
மதிப்பெண்கள் : 90

குறிப்புகள்:

இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.
பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
வினா எண் 1 முதல் 14 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.
ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதவும்.
வினா எண் 15 முதல் 30 வரை பகுதி-பால் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.
வினா எண் 31 முதல் 43 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் நான்கு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.
வினா எண் 44 முதல் 46 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஆறு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
வினா எண் 47-ல் பகுதி-Vல் மனப்பாடப்பகுதி தரப்பட்டுள்ளன.

பகுதி – I

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடை தருக. [14 × 1 = 14]

(விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன)

Question 1.
சாபவிமோசனம், அகலிகை கதைகளில் தொன்மங்களைப் பயன்படுத்திய எழுத்தாளர்…………………
(அ) டாக்டர் உதயமூர்த்தி
(ஆ) கல்கி
(இ) புதுமைப்பித்தன்
(ஈ) புலமைப்பித்தன்
Answer:
(இ) புதுமைப்பித்தன்

Question 2.
‘முருகு உறழ் முன்பொடு’ என்ற தொன்மம் விளக்கும் பாடல் …………… நூலில் இடம் பெற்றுள்ளது. (அ) நற்றிணை
(ஆ) நல்ல குறுந்தொகை
(இ) நன்னூல்
(ஈ) தண்டியலங்காரம்
Answer:
(அ) நற்றிணை

Question 3.
பல சிற்றுறுப்புகளின் தொகுதியாக உள்ள பேருறுப்பைக் குறிப்பது ………………….
(அ) காதை
(ஆ) சருக்கம்
(இ) காண்டம்
(ஈ) படலம்
Answer:
(இ) காண்டம்

Question 4.
வள்ளலார் சமரச சன்மார்க்க சபையை நிறுவிய இடம். ………….
(அ) வண்டலூர்
(ஆ) வடக்கூர்
(இ) வண்டியூர்
(ஈ) வடலூர்
Answer:
(ஈ) வடலூர்

Question 5.
…………… ஆண்டின் மக்கள் தொகைக் கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி சென்னை நகரின் மக்கட்தொகை 1900
ஆகும்.
(அ) 1646
(ஆ) 1746
(இ) 1846
(ஈ) 1846
Answer:
(அ) 1646

Question 6.
ஓதற்பிரிவிற்கு உரிய காலம் ………… ஆண்டுகள்.
(அ) இரண்டு
(ஆ) மூன்று
(இ) நான்கு
(ஈ) ஐந்து
Answer:
(ஆ) மூன்று

Question 7.
கவிஞர் நகுலனின் இயற்பெயர் ……….
(அ) பாலசந்திரன்
(ஆ) இந்திரன்
(இ) சாமிக்கண்ணு
(ஈ) துரைச்சாமி
Answer:
(ஈ) துரைச்சாமி

Question 8.
………….. நூலுக்கு இளம்பூரணர்தான் முழுமையான உரை தந்துள்ளார்.
(அ) தொல்காப்பியம்
(ஆ) நன்னூல்
(இ) மாறனலங்காரம்
(ஈ) தண்டியலங்காரம்
Answer:
(அ) தொல்காப்பியம்

Question 9.
தமிழ்ச் சமூகம், பண்பாடு சார்ந்த மானிடவியல் ஆய்வுகளை முன்னெடுத்து………………… வருபவர் ….
(அ) தாராபாரதி
(ஆ) பக்தவத்சல பாரதி
(இ) பாரதி சண்முகம்
(ஈ) சுத்தானந்த பாரதி
Answer:
(ஆ) பக்தவத்சல பாரதி

Question 10.
‘கூடி வாழ்தல்’ என்ற பொருளில் வருவது……………………
(அ) குடும்பு
ஆ) கடும்பு
(இ) குடம்பை
(ஈ) கடம்பை
Answer:
(அ) குடும்பு

Question 11.
தேடலை விரிவாக்குவது என்பர்…………………
(அ) புகழ்
(ஆ) செல்வம்
(இ) கல்வி
(ஈ) உறவு
Answer:
(இ) கல்வி

Question 12.
அகநானூற்றின் களிற்றியானை நிரையில் உள்ள பாடலின் எண்ணிக்கை ………….. ஆகும்.
(அ) 100
(ஆ) 120
(இ) 180
(ஈ) 110
Answer:
(ஆ) 120

Question 13.
புனவன் என்பது……………………….. ஐக் குறித்தது.
(அ) மீனவன்
(ஆ) பாடகன்
(இ) நூலகன்
(ஈ) கானவன்
Answer:
(ஈ) கானவன்

Question 14.
ஓட்டுநர் உரிமம் இன்றி ஊர்தியை இயக்கினால் சிறைத்தண்டனையோ அல்லது……… அபராதமோ
விதிக்கப்படும்.
(அ) ரூ. 2000
(ஆ) ரூ. 3000
(இ) ரூ. 40000
(ஈ) ரூ. 5000
Answer:
(ஈ) ரூ. 5000

பகுதி – II

இரண்டு அல்லது மூன்று வரிகளில் விடை தருக.[12 x 2 = 24]

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் மூன்றனுக்கு விடை தருக.

Question 15.
வாகைத் திணை என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
வெற்றி பெற்ற அரசனும் அவனது வீரர்களும் வெற்றியின் அடையாளமாக வாகைப்பூவைச் சூடி
வெற்றியைக் கொண்டாடுவது வாகைத் திணையாகும்.

Question 16.
நும் பாடப்பகுதியில் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள அகநானூற்று பாடலில் உள்ளுறைப் பொருளை எழுதுக.
Answer:

வண்டியை இழுக்கும் எருதுகளின் துன்பத்தைத் தந்தை போக்கியது.
தலைவியைக் கண்டதனால் எனக்கேற்பட்ட துன்பத்தை நீ போக்குதற்கு உரியவன் என்று தலைவன் பாங்கனிடம் உள்ளுறுத்துக் கூறினான்.
எருதைத் தலைவனுக்கும் தந்தையைப் பாங்கனுக்கும் உப்பின் எடையால் எருது வருந்தும் நிலையைக் காதல் வருத்தத்திற்கும் உள்ளுறையாக வைத்துப் பாடல் புனையப்பட்டுள்ளது.

Question 17.
முகம் முகவரியற்றுப் போனதற்கு, சுகந்தி சுப்ரமணியன் கூறும் காரணத்தை எழுதுக.
Answer:
பல முகங்களோடு முகம் காணும் போது எனது முகம் காணவில்லை. எனக்குள்ளே என்னைத் தொலைத்த பின் எனது முகம் முகவரியற்றுப் போனது இன்னும் என்னைத் தேடிக்
கொண்டிருக்கிறேன்.

Question 18.
மொழியின் இயல்பு வழக்குகளை கலையின் வழக்குகளாக மாற்றுபவை எவை?
Answer:
மொழியின் இயல்பு வழக்குகளைக் கலையியல் வழக்குகளாக மாற்றுபவை.

உவமம்
உருவகம்
எச்சம்
குறிப்பு
உள்ளுறை
இறைச்சி

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டனுக்கு விடை தருக

Question 19.
வரியெழுத்தின் உறுப்புகள் யாவை?
Answer:

புள்ளி
கால்
கொம்பு
விலங்கு

முதலியவை வரியெழுத்தின் உறுப்புகள் ஆகும்.

Question 20.
“வெள்ளையர் நகரம்” “கருப்பர் நகரம்”- விளக்குக.
Answer:

செயின்ட் ஜார்ஜ் கோட்டைக்கு உள்ளே வீடுகள் இருந்த பகுதி ‘வெள்ளையர் நகரம்’ என்று அழைக்கப்பட்டது.
கோட்டைக்குள் இருப்பவர்களின் தேவைகளை நிறைவேற்றும் பணியாளர்கள் வணிகர்கள் போன்றோருக்காக வெளியே அமைத்த குடியிருப்புகள் உள்ள பகுதி ‘கருப்பர் நகரம்’ என அழைக்கப்பட்டது.

Question 21.
முப்பரிமாணக் கலை என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:

திரைப்படத்தில், நடிப்பவரை முன் பின் மேல் என்று பல கோணங்களில் படப்பிடிப்புக் கருவியால் இடம் மாற்றி மாற்றிப் படம் பிடித்துத் திரையில் காட்ட முடியும்.
திரைப்படத்தை முப்பரிமாணக் கலை என வகைப்படுத்துகிறோம்.
ஒருவன் ஓடிவருவதைக் காட்டிவிட்டு அதைப் பார்ப்பவன் ஏன் இப்படி ஓடி வருகிறீர்கள் என்று
கேட்கவேண்டியதில்லை. என்னாச்சு? என்று கேட்டால் போதும்.
இது காட்சிமொழியின் தன்மை. உணர்ச்சிகளைக் காண்பிக்க முகத்தை மட்டுமே காண்பித்தால் போதும்.

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் ஏழனுக்கு விடை தருக.

Question 22.
ஏதேனும் ஒன்றனுக்கு மட்டும் பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம் தருக.
(அ) களைந்து (ஆ) வந்தனர்
Answer:
(அ) களைந்து = களை + த் (ந்) + த் + உ
களை – பகுதி
த் – சந்தி ; ந் – விகாரம்
த் – இறந்தகால இடைநிலை
உ – வினையெச்ச விகுதி

(ஆ) வந்தனர் = வா (வந்) + த் + அன் + அர்
வா – பகுதி ; (வந்) – விகாரம்
த் – இறந்தகால இடைநிலை
அன் – சாரியை
அர் – பல்பால் வினைமுற்று விகுதி

Question 23.
ஏதேனும் ஒன்றனுக்கு மட்டும் இலக்கணக்குறிப்பு தருக.
(அ) கருந்தடம்
(ஆ) உன்ன லிர்
Answer:
(அ) பண்புத்தொகை
(ஆ) முன்னிலைப் பன்மை வினைமுற்று

Question 24.
மரபுப்பிழை நீக்குக.
வண்டுகள் பாட குயில்கள் கத்த மயில்கள் கூவின.
Answer:
வண்டுகள் முரல் குயில்கள் கூவிட மயில்கள் அகவின.

Question 25.
ஏதேனும் ஒன்றனுக்குப் பிரித்துப் புணர்ச்சி விதி தருக.
அ) நன்மொழி
(ஆ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
Answer:
(அ) நன்மொழி = நன்மை + மொழி
விதி : ஈறுபோதல்

(ஆ) பத்துப்பாட்டு = பத்து + பாட்டு
விதி : இயல்பினும் விதியினும் நின்ற உயிர்முன் கசதப மிகும்.

Question 26.
தனித்தமிழில் எழுதுக.
விவாகத்திற்கு பந்து மித்திரர்களுடன் வருக.
Answer:
திருமணத்திற்கு உறவினர்களுடனும், நண்பர்களுடனும் வருக.

Question 27.
மயங்கொலிப் பிழையின்றி பொருள் வேறுபட ஒரே தொடரில் விடையளி.
உன் — உண்
Answer:
உணவு இடைவேளையில் காலம் தாழ்த்தாமல் உன் சாப்பாட்டைத் தவறாமல் உண்.

Question 28.
கொச்சை நீக்கிச் சரியாக எழுது.
இன்னக்கி சாயுங்காலம் தங்கச்சி வரும்.
Answer:
இன்று மாலை தங்கை வருவாள்.

Question 29.
தனித்தமிழில் எழுதுக.
போலீஸ் ஸ்டேஷன் போய் கம்ளைண்ட் கொடு.
Answer:
காவல் நிலையம் சென்று புகார் கொடு.

Question 30.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினா எழுதுக.
பொதுத்தேர்வுக்கான வினாக்கள் பாடப்பகுதியின் உட்பகுதியிலிருந்துதான் வருகின்றன.
Answer:
பொதுத்தேர்வுக்கான வினாக்கள் பாடப்பகுதியின் எப்பகுதியிலிருந்து வருகின்றன?

பகுதி – III

ஐந்து அல்லது ஆறு வரிகளில் விடை தருக. [7 x 4 = 28]

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டனுக்கு மட்டும் விடை தருக.

Question 31.
‘செம்பரிதி மலைமேட்டில் தலையைச் சாய்ப்பான் செந்நிறத்துப் பூக்காடாம் வான மெல்லாம்’ தொடர் வெளிப்படுத்தும் காட்சி நயத்தை விளக்குக.
Answer:

செம்பரிதி மலைமேட்டில் தலையைச் சாய்ப்பான் – செம்மையான சூரியன் அதாவது மாலைப் பொழுதில் தோன்றும் சிவப்பு நிற சூரியன் மலைகளின் மேடு அதாவது மலையின் உச்சியில் சென்று மறைந்து போவான்.
செந்நிறத்துப் பூக்காடாம் வானமெல்லாம் – செம்மையான நிறம் கொண்ட பூக்கள் போல அத்தருணத்தில் வானம் எல்லாம் சிவப்பு வண்ணமாய் அந்த மாலைப் பொழுதில் நிறம் மாறி நிற்கும்.

Question 32.
சுரதா குறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:

உவமைக் கவிஞர் என்று சிறப்பிக்கப்படும் சுரதாவின் இயற்பெயர் இராசகோபாலன்.
அப்பெயரைப் பாரதிதாசன்மீது கொண்ட பற்றுதலால் சுப்புரத்தினதாசன் என்று மாற்றி, அதன் சுருக்கமான சுரதா என்னும் பெயரில் மரபுக் கவிதைகள் எழுதினார்.
முழுக்க முழுக்கக் கவிதைகளையே கொண்ட காவியம் என்ற இதழை நடத்தியதோடு இலக்கியம், விண்மீன், ஊர்வலம் போன்ற இலக்கிய ஏடுகளையும் நடத்தியுள்ளார்.
தேன்மழை, துறைமுகம், மங்கையர்க்கரசி, அமுதும் தேனும் உள்ளிட்ட பல நூல்களைப் படைத்துள்ளார்.
இவர் தமிழக அரசின் கலைமாமணி விருது, பாரதிதாசன் விருது, தஞ்சைத் தமிழ்ப் பல்கலைக்கழக்தின் இராசராசன் விருது உள்ளிட்ட பல விருதுகளைப் பெற்றவர்.

Question 33.
சூதும் கள்ளும் கேடு தரும் – திருக்குறள் வழி விவரிக்க.
Answer:
“களித்தானைக் காரணம் காட்டுதல் கீழ்நீர்க்
குளித்தானைத் தீத்துரீஇ யற்று”

கள்ளுண்டு மயங்கியவனிடம் நல்லன சொல்லித் திருத்த முயல்வது, நீரில் மூழ்கிய ஒருவரைத் தீப்பந்தம் கொண்டு தேடுவது போன்றது.

“சிறுமை பலசெய்து சீர்அழிக்கும் சூதின்
வறுமை தருவது ஒன்று இல்”

ஒருவருக்குத் துன்பம் பலவற்றையும் உண்டாக்கி அவருடைய புகழையும் கெடுக்கின்ற சூதைப்போல் வறுமை தருவது வேறொன்றும் இல்லை.

Question 34.
தலைக்கோல் என்றால் என்ன? அவற்றின் சிறப்பு யாது?
Answer:

அரங்கேற்றத்தை வெற்றிகரமாக முடிக்கும் ஆடல் மகளுக்குத் தலைக்கோல் அளித்துச் சிறப்பிப்பர்.
தலைக்கோல் என்பது, பெரும்புகழ் கொண்ட பகை மன்னனுடன் நிகழ்த்திய போரில், தோற்றுப் புறங்காட்டிய அவனிடமிருந்து பறிக்கப்பட்ட அழகுமிக்க வெண்கொற்றக் குடையின் காம்பில் செய்யப்படுவது.
அக்காம்பின் கணுக்கள் முழுவதும் நவமணிகளை இழைத்து அக்கணுக்களுக்கு இடைப்பட்ட பகுதிகளில் சாம்பூந்தம் எனும் பொன் தகட்டை வலம்புரியாகவும், இடம்புரியாகவும் சுற்றிக்கட்டி அதனை ஒரு கோலாக்குவர்.
வெண்கொற்றக் குடையுடன் உலகாளும் மன்னனின் அரண்மனையில் அதனை வைத்து இந்திரன் மகன் சயந்தன் என அக்கோலை நினைத்து மந்திர விதியாலே வழிபாடு செய்வர்.
அத்தலைக்கோலைப் புண்ணிய நதிகளிலிருந்து பொற்குடங்களில் முகந்து வந்த நன்னீரால் நீராட்டுவர்.
மாலைகளை அணிவித்துப் பொருத்தமான ஒரு நல்ல நாளிலே பொன்னாலான பூணினையும் முகப்படாத்தையும் கொண்டிருக்கிற பட்டத்து யானையின் கையில் வாழ்த்தித் தருவர்.
முரசுகள் முழங்கப் பல்வேறு வாத்தியங்கள் ஒலிக்க அரசரும் அவரின் ஐம்பெருங்குழுவினரும் சூழ்ந்து வரப்பட்டத்து யானை, தேரை வலம் வந்து அதன் மேல் உள்ள கவிஞனிடம் அத்தலைக்கோலைக் கொடுக்கும்.
அனைவரும் ஊர்வலமாக அரங்கிற்கு வந்தபின், அத்தலைக்கோலைக் கவிஞன் ஆடலரங்கில்
வைப்பான்.
மாதவியின் ஆடலரங்கில் தலைக்கோல் வைக்கப்பட்டது.

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டனுக்கு மட்டும் விடை தருக.

Question 35.
மயிலை சீனி. வேங்கடசாமியின் படைப்புகள் குறித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

ஆசிரியர் பயிற்சி பெற்றுத் தொடக்கப் பள்ளியில் 25 ஆண்டுகள் ஆசிரியராகப் பணியாற்றினார். பாடம் கற்பிக்கும் நேரத்தைத் தவிர மற்ற நேரங்களில் அவர் வளாகம் சாராத ஆய்வாளராகத் தம்மை உருவாக்கிக் கொண்டார்.
கட்டுரையோ, நூலோ எழுதும் முன் தரவுகளைச் சேகரித்துத் தமது ஆய்வுக்கு ஏற்றதை ஒப்பிட்டு ஐயமிருப்பின் மற்றவர்களைக் கேட்டுத் தெளிந்த பிறகே வெளியிடுவார்.
மயிலை சீனி. ஒரு தமிழ்த் தேனீ. அறிவின் வாயில்களை நோக்கியே அவர் கால்கள் நடந்தன. நூலகங்களே அவரது தாயகங்களாயின. அறிவை விரிவு செய்து அல்லும் பகலும் ஆய்வில் மூழ்கிக் கருத்து முத்துகளைத் தமிழ்நாட்டிற்கு வழங்கினார்.
புதிய செய்தி தருதல், புது விளக்கமளித்தல், இருண்ட பக்கங்களுக்கு ஒளியூட்டுதல், தவறுகளை மறுத்து உண்மையை எடுத்துரைத்தல் என்பவற்றை ஆய்வு அணுகு முறைகளாகக் கொண்டார்.

மயிலை சீனி. வேங்கடசாமியின் படைப்புகள்:

விபுலானந்த அடிகள்…. இதழ்களில் வெளியாகின.
பௌத்தமும் தமிழும், சமணமும் தமிழும்
களப்பிரர் ஆட்சியில் தமிழகம்
தமிழர் வளர்த்த அழகுக் கலைகள்
தமிழ்நாட்டு வரலாறு
சாசனச் செய்யுள் மஞ்சரி
மறைந்து போன தமிழ் நூல்கள்

Question 36.
பெருங்காப்பியத்தில் இடம் பெற வேண்டிய சிறப்புகள் யாவை?
Answer:

வாழ்த்துதல், தெய்வத்தை வணங்குதல், வருபொருள் உரைத்தல் என்ற மூன்றில் ஒன்றினைத் தொடக்கத்தில் பெற்று வரும். அவற்றுள் இரண்டோ மூன்றோ வரலாம்.
அறம், பொருள், இன்பம், வீடு ஆகிய நான்கும் பெருங்காப்பியத்தின் திரண்ட பொருளாக அமைந்திருக்க வேண்டும். எனினும் இவற்றுள் பாவிகத்திற்கு ஏற்றவண்ணம் ஒன்றும் பலவும் சிறப்பாக அமைந்திருக்க வேண்டும்.
தன்னிகர் இல்லாத் தன்மை உடையவனைக் காப்பியத் தலைவனாகக் கொண்டிருத்தல் வேண்டும்.
மலை (1), கடல் (2), நாடு (3), நகர் (4), சிறுபொழுது (5-10), பெரும்பொழுது (11-16), கதிரவன் தோற்றம் (17), சந்திரனின் தோற்றம் (18) ஆகிய பதினெட்டு உறுப்புகளும் இயற்கை வருணனைகளாக அமைதல் வேண்டும்.
திருமணம் புரிதல், மக்களைப் பெற்றெடுத்தல், முடிசூடல் முதலான நிகழ்வுகளைக் கொண்டிருக்க வேண்டும்.
அமைச்சர்களுடன் கலந்துரையாடல், தூது செல்லல், போர்ப் புரிய படைகள் அணிவகுத்தல், போர்நிகழ்ச்சி, வெற்றி பெறுதல் போன்ற நிகழ்வுகளும் இடம் பெறுதல் வேண்டும்.
சந்தி எனப்படும் கதைப்போக்கு (தொடக்கம், வளர்ச்சி, விளைவு, முடிவு என்பவை) வரிசைப்படி அமைந்திருக்க வேண்டும்.
அமைப்பு முறையில் பெருங்காப்பிய உட்பிரிவுகளுள், சருக்கம், இலம்பகம், பரிச்சேதம் என்ற பெயர்களில் ஒன்றைப் பெற்றிருத்தல் வேண்டும்.
எண்வகைச் சுவையும் மெய்ப்பாட்டுக் குறிப்புகளும் கேட்போர் விரும்பும் வண்ணம் அமைக்கப்பட்டிருக்க வேண்டும்.

Question 37.
மாணக்கர் அக்காலத்தில் சுவடிகளை எவ்வாறு அமைத்தனர்?
Answer:

இளம்பிள்ளைகளுக்கு உபாத்தியாயர் ஓலையை வாரி ஒழுங்காக நறுக்கித் துளையிட்டுக் கயிறு கோர்த்துத் தருவார்.
ஒரு துளையிடுவதும் இரண்டு துளையிடுவதும் உண்டு. மற்ற பிள்ளைகள் தாங்களே செய்து
கொள்ளுவார்கள். பனையேடு, சீதாள பத்திரம் முதலியவற்றில் எழுதுவது வழக்கம்.
மேலே சட்டமாகப் பனைமட்டையின் காம்பை நறுக்கிக் கோர்ப்பார்கள். மரச்சட்டங்களையும் அமைப்பார்கள்.
செப்புத் தகட்டாலும் சட்டஞ் செய்து கோர்ப்பார்கள். அந்தச் சட்டங்களின் மேல் வர்ண மையினாற் பல வகையான சித்திரங்கள் எழுதுவதுண்டு.
இரட்டைத் துளையுள்ள ஏடுகளில் ஒரு துளையில் செப்புக் கம்பி அல்லது மூங்கிற் குச்சியைச் – செருகிக் கட்டுவார்கள். அதற்கு நாராசம் என்று பெயர்.
சுவடியைக் கோக்கும் கயிற்றின் ஒரு தலைப்பில் டையாக, பனையோலையை ஈர்க்கோடு கிளிமூக்குப் போலக் கத்தரித்து அமைப்பார்கள். அதற்குக் கிளிமூக்கென்று பெயர்.
இப்போது அச்சுப் புத்தகங்களின் அளவில் எவ்வளவு வேறுபாடுகள் உண்டோ அவ்வளவு பனையோலைச் சுவடிகளிலும் உண்டு.

Question 38.
தென்னிந்திய சினிமாத் தொழில் வளர காரணமானவர் யாவர்?
Answer:

படங்காட்டுதல் மூலம்தான் முதன்முதலாகத் தென்னிந்திய சினிமாத் தொழில் தோன்றியது.
மனைவியின் வைரமாலையை விற்று சாமிக்கண்ணு வின்சென்ட், பிரெஞ்சுக்கார் டுபான் என்பவரிடமிருந்து 2500 ரூபாய்க்கு ஒரு புரொஜக்டரையும் சில துண்டுப்படங்களையும் வாங்கினார். • திருச்சியில் ஒரு கூடாரத்தில் படங்காட்ட ஆரம்பித்த அவர், பின்னர் திருவனந்தபுரம், மதுரை
நகர்களில் முகாமிட்டு, மதராசுக்கு வந்து காட்சிகள் நடத்தினார்.
அங்கிருந்து வடக்கே சென்று பெஷாவர், லாகூர் பின்னர் லக்னோ நகரங்களில் படக்காட்சிகள் நடத்திவிட்டு 1909 இல் மதராஸ் திரும்பினார்.
அங்கே எஸ்பிளனேட்டில் (இன்றைய பாரிஸ் அருகே) கூடாரம் போட்டுச் சலனப்படங்களைத் திரையிட்டார்.
சென்னையிலிருக்கும் போது சினிமாத்தொழிலை இங்கு நிறுவ ஒரு முக்கியமான அடியெடுத்து வைத்தார்.
புரொஜக்டர்களை இறக்குமதி செய்து விற்க ஆரம்பித்தார். இதனால் புதிய திரையரங்குகள் வர ஏதுவாயிற்று.

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் மூன்றனுக்கு விடை தருக

Question 39.
குறிஞ்சித்திணை அல்லது நெய்தல்திணையை விவரி.
Answer:
குறிஞ்சித்திணை :
அகத்திணைகள் ஐந்து, அவற்றுள் ஒன்று குறிஞ்சித்திணை.

முதற்பொருள் :
நீலம் – மலையும் மலை சார்ந்த இடமும்
பொழுது – சிறுபொழுது – யாமம்
பெரும்பொழுது – கூதிர், முன்பனி

கருப்பொருள்:
தெய்வம் – முருகன்
மக்கள் – சிலம்பன், வெற்பன், பொருப்பன், கொடிச்சி, குறத்தி, குறவர், குறத்தியர் கானவர்
பறவை – கிளி, மயில்
விலங்கு – புலி, கரடி, யானை, சிங்கம்
பூ – காந்தள், குறிஞ்சி, வேங்கை
தொழில் – தேனெடுத்தல், கிழங்கு அகழ்தல், வெறியாடல், தினைகாத்தல்
உணவு – தினை, மலைநெல், மூங்கிலரிசி
ஊர் – சிறுகுடி

உரிப்பொருள்:
புணர்தலும் புணர்தல் நிமித்தமும்

சான்று:
ஒழுகுநீ ராரல் பார்க்கும்
குருகு முண்டுதான் மணந்த ஞான்றே

விளக்கம்:
தலைவன் நெடுங்காலம் தலைவியைத் திருமணம் செய்து கொள்ளாமல் காலந்தாழ்த்த அதனால் வருந்திய தலைவி “தலைவர் கருணைகொண்டு என்னைத் திருமணம் செய்து கொண்டாலன்றி எனக்கு உதவியாகச் சான்று கூறுவார் வேறு ஒருவரும் இலர்” என்று தோழியிடம் கூறியது.

(அல்லது)

நெய்தல் திணை:
Answer:
முதற்பொருள்
நிலம் – கடலும், கடல் சார்ந்த இடமும்.
பொழுது – சிறுபொழுது – எற்பாடு
பெரும்பொழுது – முன்பனி, பின்பனி, இளவேனில், முதுவேனில். கூதிர்

கருப்பொருள்
தெய்வம் – வருணன்
மக்கள் – பரதவர், பரத்தியர், நுளையர்
பறவை – நீர்க்காக்கை
விலங்கு – சுறா
ஊர் – பட்டினம், பாக்கம்
நீர் – உவர்நீர்க்கேணி, உவர்க்கழி
உணவு – மீனும், உப்பும் விற்றால் பெறும் பொருள்
தொழில் – மீன் பிடித்தல், உப்பு விற்றல்

உரிப்பொருள்
‘இரங்கலும், இரங்கல் நிமித்தமும்’

சான்று:
இறவுப்புறத் தன்ன பிணர்படு தடவுமுதற்
சுறவுக்கோட் டன்ன முள்ளிலைத் தாழை

என்ற நற்றிணைப் பாடல் நெய்தல் திணைக்குச் சான்றாகும்.

துறை:
இது புணர்ந்து நீங்கிய தலைவனைத் தோழி வரைவு கடாயது.

விளக்கம்:
பகற்குறியில் தலைவன் தலைவியைச் சந்தித்துச் செல்கின்றான். அப்பொழுது தோழி தலைவனை நோக்கி “இவ்வாறு செல்வாயானால் மீண்டும் நீ வருவதற்குள் தலைவி இறந்து விடுவாள். ஆதலால் அதற்கு ஏற்றது செய்”, என வரைவு (மணஞ்செய்து கொள்வது) தோன்றக்
கூறுவது வரைவு கடாதலாகும்.

Question 40.
உருவக அணி அல்லது பிறிது மொழிதல் அணியை சான்றுடன் விவரி.
Answer:
உருவக அணி:
அணி விளக்கம்:
உவமானமும், உவமேயமும் வேறு வேறு பொருள் எனத் தோன்றாமல் ஒன்றுபோல் காட்டி, உவமானத்தின் தன்மை முழுவதும் உவமேயத்தில் மறைந்து நிற்கும்படிக் கூறுவது ‘உருவக அணி’ எனப்படும்.

(எ.கா.) முகத்தாமரை

விளக்கம்
முகமானது தாமரையாக உருவகப்படுத்தப்பட்டுள்ளது. நாம் கூறும் பொருள் ‘உவமேயம்’ எனப்படும். ஒப்புமையாகக் காட்டும் பொருள் ‘உவமை’ எனப்படும்.

(அல்லது)

பிறிது மொழிதல் அணி:
Answer:
அணி விளக்கம் :
புலவர் தாம் கூறக் கருதியதை வெளிப்படையாகக் கூறாமல், அதனோடு தொடர்புடைய வேறொன்றின் மீது ஏற்றிக் கூறி, அதன்மூலம் தாம் கருதியதைப் பெற வைத்தல் ‘பிறிது மொழிதல் அணி’யாகும்.

(எ.கா.) பீலிபெய் சாகாடும் அச்சிறும் அப்பண்டம்
சால மிகுத்துப் பெயின்.

விளக்கம்:
மயிலிறகு மென்மையானது என்றாலும், அதனையே அளவுக்கு மேல் வண்டியில் ஏற்றினால், வண்டியானது பளு தாங்காமல் அச்சு முறிந்துவிடும் என்பது இக்குறளின் பொருள். ஆனால், வள்ளுவர் இக்கருத்தை உணர்த்த இந்தக் குறளைக் கூறவில்லை.

எதிரிகள் வலிமையற்றவர்களாக இருந்தாலும், அவர்கள் எண்ணிக்கையில் அதிகமாக இருந்து, வலிமையுடைய வனைத் தாக்கினால் அவன் நிலைகுலைந்து போவான். இக்கருத்தை வலியுறுத்தவே வள்ளுவர் இக்குறளை எழுதியுள்ளார். எனவே, இது ‘பிறிது மொழிதல் அணி’ ஆகும். (பிறிது – வேறொன்று; மொழிதல் – கூறுதல்))

Question 41.
கீழ்க்காணும் பாடலைப் படித்தறிந்து ஏதேனும் 5 நயங்களை மட்டும் எழுதுக.
Answer:
தாயென அன்பு செய்து
தந்தைபோல் பரிந்து, சொந்தச்
சேயென அணைத்துப் பேசி
செவ்விய அறிவு கூறி
தூயநன் னடத்தை கற்கத்
துணையென நடந்து காட்டும்
ஆயநற் குணமுள் ளோனே
ஆசானென் றழைக்கத் தக்கோன். (- நாமக்கல் கவிஞர்)

ஆசிரியர் குறிப்பு:

இயற்பெயர் : வெ. இராமலிங்கம்
பிறப்பு : 29 அக்டோபர், 1888
ஊர் : மோகனூர் – நாமக்கல் மாவட்டம்
சிறப்பு பெயர் : காந்தியக் கவிஞர்
படைப்பு : மலைக்கள்ளன், நாமக்கல் கவிஞர் பாடல்கள்
இறப்பு : 24 ஆகஸ்டு 1972)

திரண்ட கருத்து:
ஒரு நல்ல ஆசிரியன் என்பவன் தாயைப் போல அன்பு செய்தும், தந்தையைப் போல பரிவுடனும், பெற்ற குழந்தையைப் போல அணைத்து பேசியும் நல்ல அறிவுரைகளை கூறுதல் வேண்டும். தூய நன்னடத்தைகளைக் கற்க துணையைப் போல நடந்துகாட்ட வேண்டும். இவ்வகையான தூய்மையான நல்ல குணங்கள் உள்ளவனே நல்ல ஆசான் ஆவார்.

மையக் கருத்து:
ஒரு நல்ல ஆசான் தாய், தந்தை, குழந்தை, துணையை போல இருக்க வேண்டும் என கூறுகிறார்.

மோனை:
மோனை – சீர்தோறும் முதல் எழுத்து ஒன்றி வருவது
அன்பு – அறிவு
ஆயநற்குணம் – ஆசானெள்

எதுகை:
அடிதோறும் இரண்டாவது எழுத்து ஒன்றி வருவது அடி எதுகை.
தாயென – சேசெயன
தூயறள் – ஆயநள்

அணி:
உவமையணி

Question 42.
தமிழாக்கம் தருக.
1. Walls have ears.
2. Wealth is best known by want.
3. While in rome, be a roman.
4. Think every – body alike.
Answer:
1. பகலில் பக்கம் பார்த்துப் பேசு.
2. நிழலின் அருமை வெயிலில் தெரியும்.
3. ஊருடன் ஒத்துவாழ்.
4 தன்னைப்போலப் பிறரை நினை.

Question 43.
பின்வரும் தலைப்புகளில் ஏதேனும் ஒன்றில் 8 வரிகளில் கவிதை புனைக.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Tamil Model Question Paper 4 - 1

வான்மழை :

வரவேற்பேன் வரவேற்பேன்
வான்மழையே நீ வந்துவிடு
உன்னை அழைக்கத்தான்
உவந்துநான் மரம் வளர்த்தேன்
மாமயில்கள் அகவி ஆடுவதும்
மாமழை உன்னை வரவேற்கத்தான்
வாடிடும் பயிர்கள் காக்க
வாஞ்சையுடன் நீ வருவாயே!

பகுதி – IV

பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு இரு பக்கங்களுக்கு மிகாமல் விடை தருக.[3 x 6 = 18]

Question 44.
(அ) நெடுநல்வாடையில் நக்கீரர் காட்டும் மழைக்கால வருணனையைச் சொல்லில் வடிக்க.
Answer:

“ஐப்பசி அடை மழை! கார்த்திகை கனமழை!” என்பது சொலவடை, ஓராண்டை ஆறு பருவங்களாக வகைப்படுத்திய பழந்தமிழர் ஜப்பசி, கார்த்திகை மாதங்களைக் கூதிர்ப்பருவம் என்று அழைத்தனர்.
பருவ மாற்றங்களால் உயிரனங்களின் இயல்பு வாழ்க்கை , மாற்றம் பெறுகிறது.
முல்லை நில மக்கள், பறவைகள், விலங்குகள் இவற்றின் வாழ்வில் மழையும் குளிரும் ஏற்படுத்தும் மாற்றத்தைச் சங்க இலக்கியம் பதிவு செய்துள்ளது.
தான் தங்கியிருந்த மலையை வலப்பக்கமாகச் சூழ்ந்து எழுந்த மேகமானது உலகம் குளிருமாறு புதிய மழையைப் பொழிந்தது.
தாழ்வான பகுதிகளில் பெருகிய வெள்ளத்தை வெறுத்த, வளைந்த கோலையுடைய ஆயர் எருமை, பசு, ஆடு ஆகிய நிரைகளை வேறு மேடான நிலங்களில் மேய விட்டனர்.
தாம் பழகிய நிலத்தை விட்டுப் பெயரும் நிலையால் வருத்தம் அடைந்தனர்.
அவர்கள் தலையில் சூடியிருந்த நீண்ட இதழ்களையுடைய காந்தள் மாலை கசங்கியது.
பலருடன் சேர்ந்து கொள்ளி நெருப்பினால் கைகளுக்குச் சூடேற்றிய போதிலும் அவர்களது பற்கள் நடுங்கின.
விலங்குகள் குளிர்மிகுதியால் மேய்ச்சலை மறந்தன. குரங்குகள் நடுங்கின.
மரங்களில் தங்கியிருந்த பறவைகள் நிலத்தில் வீழ்ந்தன.
பசுக்கள் பாலுண்ண வந்த கன்றுகளைத் தவிர்த்தன. மலையையே குளிரச் செய்வது போன்றிருந்தது அக்குளிர்கால நள்ளிரவு என மழைக்காலத்தை வருணிக்கிறார் நக்கீரர்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) நாட்டியக் கலைஞருக்குத் தமிழர் உரிய சிறப்பு அளித்தனர் என்பதைச் சிலப்பதிகாரப் பாடற்பகுதி கொண்டு நிறுவுக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
சிலப்பதிகாரத்திலுள்ள அரங்கேற்று காதையின் ஒருபகுதி பாடமாக வைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. தமிழரின் கலை, நாகரிகம், பண்பாடு முதலானவற்றை உள்ளடக்கிய கருவூலமாகச் சிலப்பதிகாரம் திகழ்கிறது. அரசகுடி அல்லாதவர்களைக் காப்பியத்தின் தலைமக்களாக வைத்துப் பாடியதால் இது ‘குடிமக்கள் காப்பியம்’ எனப்படுகிறது. புகார், மதுரை, வஞ்சிக் காண்டங்கள் முறையே சோழ, பாண்டிய, சேர மன்னர்களைப் பற்றியவை என்பதால் ‘மூவேந்தர் காப்பியம்’ எனவும் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.

மாதவியின் நாட்டியப் பயிற்சி:
மாதவி, அழகிய தோள்களை உடையவள்; தேனும் தாதுவும் நிறைந்த பூக்களை அணிந்த சுருண்ட கூந்தலை உடையவள். ஆடல், பாடல், அழகு என்னும் இம்மூன்றில் ஒன்றும் குறைபடாமல் (ஐந்தாண்டில் ஆடல் கற்பதற்கான சடங்குகளைச் செய்து) ஏழு ஆண்டுவரை ஆடல் கலையைப் பயின்றாள். அவள் தனது பன்னிரண்டாவது வயதில் ஆடலை அரங்கேற்ற விரும்பினாள், (வீரக் கழல் பூண்ட சோழ மன்னனது அரசவைக்கு வந்தாள் அவளுடன் ஆடல், ஆசான், இசை ஆசான், கவிஞன், தண்ணுமை ஆசான், குழல் ஆசான், யாழ் ஆசான் ஆகியோரும் வந்திருந்தனர்.)

நாட்டிய அரங்கின் அமைப்பு:
திறம்படக் கற்றுணர்ந்த சிற்ப நூலாசிரியரால் சொல்லப்பட்ட இயல்புகளிலிருந்து மாறுபடாத நன்னிலத்தை, ஆடல் அரங்கிற்காகத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்தனர். பொதிகை மலை போன்ற மலைகளிலே நீண்டு வளர்ந்த மூங்கில்களிலே, ஒன்றுக்கொன்று இடையே ஒரு சாண் அளவு கணுக்களைக் கொண்ட மூங்கிலைக் கொண்டு வந்தனர். நூல்களில் கூறப்பட்ட முறையாலே அரங்கம் அமைந்தனர். தம் கைப்பெருவிரலில் இருபத்து நான்கு அளவினைக் கொண்டதாக அம்மூங்கிலை வெட்டினர். அதை அரங்கம் அமைக்கும் கோலாகக் கொண்டு அதில் ஏழுகோல் அகலமும் எட்டுக்கோல் நீளமும் ஒரு கோல் உயரமும் உடையதாக நாட்டிய அரங்கத்தை அமைத்தனர்.

தலைக்கோல் :
அரங்கேற்றத்தை வெற்றிகரமாக முடிக்கும் ஆடல்மகளுக்குத் தலைக்கோல் அளித்துச் சிறப்பிப்பர். தலைக்கோல் என்பது. பெரும்புகழ் கொண்ட பகை மன்னனுடன் நிகழ்த்திய போரில், தோற்றுப் புறங்காட்டிய அவனிடமிருந்து பறிக்கப்பட்ட அழகுமிக்க வெண்கொற்றக் குடையின் காம்பில் செய்யப்படுவது. அக்காம்பின் கணுக்கள் முழுவதும் நவமணிகளை இழைத்து அக்கணுக்களுக்கு இடைப்பட்ட பகுதிகளில் சாம்பூந்தம் எனும் பொன் தகட்டை வலம்புரியாகவும், இடம்புரியாகவும் சுற்றிக்கட்டி அதனை ஒரு கோலாக்குவர். வெண்கொற்றக் குடையுடன் உலகாளும் மன்னனின் அரண்மனையில் அதனை வைத்து இந்திரன் மகன் சயந்தன் என அக்கோலை நினைத்து மந்திர விதியாலே வழிபாடு செய்வர். அத்தலைக்கோலைப் புண்ணிய நதிகளிலிருந்து பொற்குடங்களில் முகந்து வந்த நன்னீரால் நீராட்டுவர்.

மாலைகளை அணிவித்துப் பொருத்தமான ஒரு நல்ல நாளிலே பொன்னாலான பூணினையும் முகபடாத்தையும் கொண்டிருக்கிற பட்டத்து யானையின் கையில் வாழ்த்தித் தருவர். முரசுகள் முழங்கப் பல்வேறு வாத்தியங்கள் ஒலிக்க அரசரும் அவரின் ஐம்பெருங்குழுவினரும் சூழ்ந்து வரப்பட்டத்து யானை, தேரை வலம் வந்து அதன் மேல் உள்ள கவிஞனிடம் அத்தலைக்கோலைக் கொடுக்கும். அனைவரும் ஊர்வலமாக அரங்கிற்கு வந்தபின், அத்தலைக்கோலைக் கவிஞன் ஆடலரங்கில் வைப்பான். மாதவியின் ஆடலரங்கில் தலைக்கோல் வைக்கப்பட்டது.

மாதவி மன்னனிடம் பரிசு பெறுதல்:
பொன்னால் செய்யப்பட்ட ஒரு பூங்கொடி வந்து நடனமாடியது போல மாதவி அரங்கில் தோன்றி நாட்டிய நூலில் சொல்லப்பட்ட முறைமை தவறாது பாவம், அபிநயம் இவற்றைச் சரியாகக் கடைப்பிடித்து அனைவரும் கண்டுகளிக்கும்படி அழகுற ஆடினாள். மாதவி கூத்துக்கு உரிய இயல்பினிலிருந்து சற்றும் வழுவாது ஆடினாள். ஆடலைக் கண்டு அகமகிழ்ந்த மன்னனிடமிருந்து ‘தலைக்கோலி’ என்னும் பட்டமும் பெற்றாள். அரங்கேற்றம் செய்யும் நாடகக் கணிகையர்க்குப் ‘பரிசு இவ்வளவு ‘ என நூல் விதித்த முறைப்படி ‘ஆயிரத்தெட்டுக் கழஞ்சுப் பொன் மாலையை’ மன்னனிடமிருந்து பரிசாகப் பெற்றாள்.

மாதவியின் நாட்டியம்:
அரசன் முதலானோர் யாவரும் தத்தம் தகுதிக்கு ஏற்ப அமைக்கப்பட்ட இருக்கையில் அமர்ந்தனர். அதனருகே இசைக் கருவிகளை வாசிப்போர், நிற்க வேண்டிய முறைப்படி அவரவர்க்கு உரிய இடத்தில் நின்றனர். அரங்கேற்றம் செய்ய வேண்டிய நாடகக் கணிகையாகிய மாதவி அரங்கில் வலக்காலை முன்வைத்து ஏறி, பொருமுக எழினிக்கு நிலையிடனான வலத்தூண் அருகே போய் நிற்க வேண்டியது மரபு என்பதால் அங்குப் போய் நின்றாள். ஆடலில் தேர்ச்சிபெற்று அரங்கேறிய தோரியமகளிரும் தொன்றுதொட்டு வரும் முறைப்படி ஒருமுக எழினிக்கு நிலையிடனான இடப்பக்கத்தூணின் அருகே போய் நின்றனர்.

முடிவுரை:
தமிழர்கள் வீரத்திற்கு முக்கியத்துவம் கொடுத்து தன் வெற்றியை போற்றி தலைக்கோலை பாதுகாத்தனர். அத்தகைய தலைக்கோலையே நாட்டியத்திற்காக பரிசு வழங்குகையில் அவர்கள்
நாட்டியக் கலைக்கு எத்தகைய முக்கியத்துவம் அளித்தனர் என்பதனை உணர்ந்து கொள்ள முடிகிறது.

Question 45.
(அ) மயிலையார் ஓர் “ஆராய்ச்சிப் பேரறிஞர்” என்னும் கூற்றினைச் சான்றுகளுடன்
கட்டுரைக்க.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:

ஒவ்வொரு தேசிய இனமும் தன்னுடைய கடந்தகால வரலாற்றை அறிந்திருந்தால் மட்டுமே ‘ எதிர்கால இலக்குகளை அடைய முடியும்.
அத்தகைய இன வரலாற்றை இலக்கியம், தொல்லியல், கல்வெட்டு, பண்பாடு ஆகியவற்றின் அடிப்படையில் தரவுகளைத் தேடி எழுதிய ஆளுமைகளில் முக்கியமானவர் மயிலை சீனி. வேங்கடசாமி.
இதழ் ஆசிரியராக வாழ்க்கையைத் தொடங்கிய அவர், பள்ளி ஆசிரியராகப் பணியாற்றியபடியே எழுதி முடித்த புத்தகங்களே, தமிழர் தம் பழம்பெருமையை உணர, உதவும் புதையலாக விளங்குகிறது.

தொடக்ககால ஆய்வுகள்:

1934 இல் தெ. பொ. மீனாட்சி சுந்தரனார் சிந்தாதிரிப்பேட்டை உயர்நிலைப் பள்ளியில் நடத்திய தமிழ் ஆராய்ச்சி மாநாட்டில் ச.த. சற்குணர், கிறித்துவமும் தமிழும் என்ற பொருள் குறித்து உரையாற்றினார்.
அவ்வுரையைக் கேட்டுப் பெற்ற ஆர்வத்தினால் ‘கிறித்துவமும் தமிழும்’ என்னும் நூலை மயிலையார் எழுதினார். இதுவே அவருடைய முதல் நூலாகும்.
தமிழின் தொல் இலக்கியம், தொல் கலை, தொல்லெழுத்து ஆகியவற்றில் கொண்ட ஈடுபாடு
காரணமாக, ‘பௌத்தமும் தமிழும்’, ‘சமணமும் தமிழும்’ ஆகிய நூல்களை அவர் இயற்றினார்.
சமயம், மானுடவியல், தமிழக வரலாறு, தொல்பொருள் ஆய்வு, கலை வரலாறு, மொழியாய்வு முதலான பல துறைகளிலும் இவர் கவனம் செலுத்தினார்.
குறிப்பாக, கல்வெட்டு ஆய்வில் இவருக்குப் பயிற்சி அதிகம். தமிழ் எழுத்தியலின் வளர்ச்சியை நன்குணர்ந்தவர். வட்டெழுத்து, கோலெழுத்து. தமிழ் பிராமி ஆகியவற்றில் புலமை பெற்றிருந்த காரணத்தால் சாசனங்களை அவரால் எளிதாக வாசிக்க முடிந்தது.
வரலாறு, இலக்கியம், கலையியல், சமயம் எனப் பல துறைகளிலும் நூல்களை எழுதியிருப்பது வேங்கடசாமியின் பன்முக அறிவை விளக்குகிறது.

வரலாற்று ஆய்வு :

மகேந்திரவர்மன், நரசிம்மவர்மன் ஆகியோர் குறித்த நூல்களைத் தொடர்ந்து மூன்றாம்
நந்திவர்மன் என்னும் பல்லவ மன்னனைப் பற்றியும் அவர் எழுதினார்.
தமிழில் அம்மன்னனைப் பற்றி எழுதப்பட்ட முதல் நூல் என்னும் பெருமையைப் பெற்றது.
சங்க கால மூவேந்தர்கள், கொங்குநாட்டு மன்னர்கள், துளு நாட்டு மன்னர்கள், களப்பிரர் மற்றும் இலங்கை குறித்த வரலாறு ஆகியவற்றையும் எழுதியுள்ளார்.
சங்க காலத்துக்குப் பிற்பட்ட காலத்தில் தமிழகத்தைக் களப்பிரர்கள் என்ற மன்னர்கள் ஆட்சி புரிந்தனர். இக்காலம் தமிழர்களின் வரலாற்றில் இருண்ட காலம் என்று மரபுவழிப்பட்ட வரலாற்று ஆசிரியர்கள் குறித்தனர்.
இம்மன்னர்கள் குறித்த ஆய்வை வேங்கடசாமி விரிவாக ஆராய்ந்து களப்பிரர் குறித்த புதிய கண்ணோட்டத்தைக் ‘களப்பிரர் ஆட்சியில் தமிழகம்’ என்னும் நூல் மூலம் வெளிப்படுத்தினார்.

கலையியல் ஆய்வு:

கலையியல் சார்ந்து தமிழில் வெளியான பல நூல்களுக்கும் வேங்கடசாமியே வழிகாட்டியாக விளங்கினார்.
தமிழரது கலைத்திறனை எடுத்தோதும் ‘தமிழர் வளர்த்த அழகுக்கலைகள்’ என்னும் நூல், கவின் கலைகள் குறித்துத் தமிழில் வெளிவந்த முழுமையான முதல் நூல் ஆகும்.
இந்நூல் தமிழக அரசின் முதற்பரிசைப் பெற்றது. இறைவன் ஆடிய எழுவகைத் தாண்டவம். நுண்கலைகள், இசைவாணர் கதைகள் ஆகியவை கலை பற்றிய இவருடைய பிற நூல்கள் ஆகும். • தமது நூல்களின் படங்களைத் தானே வரைந்து வெளியிட்டது இவரது கலைத்திறனுக்குச் சான்றாகும்.

கல்வெட்டு ஆய்வுகள்:

சங்ககாலத் தமிழக வரலாற்றில் சில செய்திகள், பழங்காலத் தமிழர் வணிகம், களப்பிரர் ஆட்சியில் தமிழகம், கொங்கு நாட்டு வரலாறு, தமிழ்நாட்டு வரலாறு – சங்க காலம் (அரசியல்) ஆகிய நூல்களையும் எழுதினார்.
ஆய்வுலகில் மயிலை சீனி. வேங்கடசாமியின் குறிப்பிடத்தக்க பங்களிப்பைக் கூற வேண்டுமானால் தமிழக வரலாற்றினைப் பல கோணங்களில் மீட்டுருவாக்கம் செய்ததைக் குறிப்பிடலாம். தமிழ்நாட்டு வரலாறு என்னும் நூல் இவருடைய மீட்டுருவாக்க முயற்சிக்குச் சரியான சான்றாகும்.
தமிழியலுக்குத் தேவையான பல்வேறு ஆவணங்களையும் தொகுத்து ஆய்வு செய்யும் பணியை இவர் மேற்கொண்டார். இப்பணியின் விளைவாக, சாசனச் செய்யுள் மஞ்சரி, மறைந்துபோன தமிழ்நூல்கள் ஆகிய நூல்களை எழுதினார்.

பன்மொழிப் புலமை:

தமிழ் ஆய்வு மரபில், சொல் ஆய்வுகளை மேற்கொள்ளாத ஆய்வாளர் இல்லை. நீண்ட வரலாறு கொண்ட மொழியின் சொற்களில் இவ்வகையான ஆய்வுக்குரிய ஏதுக்கள் மிகுதியாகும். வேங்கடசாமி தொடர்ச்சியாக இத்தகைய சொல்லாய்வுப் பணியை மேற்கொண்டு வந்துள்ளார். ‘செந்தமிழ்ச் செல்வி’ என்னும் இதழில் அவர் எழுதிய சொல்லாய்வுக் கட்டுரைகள் ‘அஞ்சிறைத் தும்பி’ என்ற தொகுப்பாக வெளியிடப்பட்டது.
மகேந்திரவர்மன் இயற்றிய ‘மத்த விலாசம்’ என்ற நாடக நூலை ஆங்கிலம் வழியாகத் தமிழாக்கியுள்ளார்.
தமிழ்ப் பண்பாட்டிலும் தமிழர் வரலாற்றிலும் ஆழ்ந்த அக்கறை கொண்ட மயிலை சீனி. அவர்கள் தமிழர் பண்பாட்டின் தனித்தன்மையை நிறுவுவதில் உறுதியான பார்வை கொண்டவர்.

ஆராய்ச்சிப் பேரறிஞர்:

மயிலை சீனியாரால் பல ஆய்வுகள் தமிழுலகுக்கு முதன்முதலாக வழங்கப்பட்டவை. இவரது ஆய்வுகள் அறிஞருக்கு மட்டுமன்றிப் பொதுமக்களுக்கும் அறிவு விருந்தோம்பியவை.
பல ஆய்வுகள் கிளைவிடுவதற்கு அடிமரமாக இருந்தவை. இவரது ஆய்வுகள், வேண்டாத நூலிது என்றோ நூலில் வேண்டாத பகுதி என்றோ ஒதுக்க முடியாத வகையில் இவரது எழுத்தாளுமை திகழ்ந்தது.

முடிவுரை:

தமிழக வரலாற்றுக் கழகத்திலும் தமிழகப் புலவர் குழுவிலும் உறுப்பினராக இருந்து பெருந்தொண்டாற்றிய வேங்கடசாமிக்கு 1962இல் தமிழ் எழுத்தாளர் சங்கம் பாராட்டிக் கேடயம் வழங்கியது.
மதுரைக் காமராசர் பல்கலைக்கழகம் தமிழ்ப் பேரவைச் செம்மல்’ என்ற விருதினை அளித்தது.
தமது ஓயாத தேடலினாலும் கடுமையான உழைப்பாலும் அரிய ஆய்வு முடிவுகளைக் கொணர்ந்த இம்மாமனிதருக்கு அறிஞர்கள் கூடிச் சென்னை கோகலே மண்டபத்தில் மணிவிழா எடுத்து ஆராய்ச்சிப் பேரறிஞர்’ என்ற பட்டத்தை வழங்கினார்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) குடும்பம் என்னும் சிறிய அமைப்பிலிருந்தே மனித சமூகம் என்னும் பரந்த அமைப்பு
கட்டமைக்கப்படுகிறது – எவ்வாறு? விளக்குக.
Answer:

குடும்பம் எனும் சிறிய அமைப்பிலிருந்தே மனித சமூகம் எனும் பரந்த அமைப்பு கட்டமைக்கப்படுகிறது. குடும்பம் தொடங்கிக் குலம், கூட்டம், பெருங்குழு, சமூகம் என்ற அமைப்புவரை விரிவு பெறுகிறது.
குடும்பமே மனித சமூகத்தின் அடிப்படை அலகாக உள்ளது. வாழுங்காலம் முழுவதும் தொடர்ந்து வேறு எந்த நிறுவனமும் இந்த அளவுக்கு மனிதனைச் சமூகவயப்படுத்தும் பணியைச் செய்ததில்லை.

குடும்பம்:
குடும்பம் எனும் அமைப்பு ஏற்படுவதற்கு அடிப்படை திருமணமே, குடும்பம், திருமணம் இரண்டும் ஒன்றையொன்று சார்ந்தே செயல்படுகின்றன – நாணயத்தின் இரண்டு பக்கங்களைப் போல, இன்று நாம் வழங்கும் ‘திருமணம்’, குடும்பம் ஆகிய இரண்டு சொற்களும் தொல்காப்பியத்திலும் சங்க இலக்கியங்களிலும் எங்கும் இடம்பெறவில்லை . குடும்பம் எனும் சொல் முதன் முதலில் திருக்குறளில்தான் (1029) வருகிறது.

வாழிடம்:
மருதத்திணைப் பாடல் ஒன்றில் மகளிர் ‘தம்மனை’, ‘நும்மனை’ என மனைவியின் இல்லத்தையும் கணவனின் இல்லத்தையும் பிரித்துப் பேசும் போக்கினைக் காண முடிகிறது. இன்னும் சில இடங்களில் தற்காலிகத் தங்குமிடம் புக்கில் எனவும், திருமணத்திற்குப்பின் கணவனும் மனைவியும் பெற்றோரிடமிருந்து பிரிந்து, தனியாக வாழுமிடம் ‘தன்மனை’ எனவும் வழங்கப்பெற்றுள்ளன.

மணந்தகம்:
குடும்பமும் உயிரிகளைப் போன்றே தோன்றுகிறது; வளர்கிறது, பல கட்டங்களைக் கடக்கிறது. அதன் வாழ்க்கைச் சுழற்சியில் பல வடிவங்களில் நிலைமாற்றம் பெறுகிறது. இத்தகைய நீண்ட பாதையில் குடும்பத்தின் தொடக்கம் திருமணமே. மணம்புரிந்த கணவனும் மனைவியும் சேர்ந்து இல்லற வாழ்வில் ஈடுபடக்கூடிய தொடக்கக் கட்டமே ‘மணந்தகம்’ எனப்படுகிறது. முதல் குழந்தை பிறக்கும்வரை உள்ள காலகட்டத்தை இந்நிலை குறிக்கிறது. தனிக்குடும்ப உருவாக்கத்தின் தொடக்க நிலையாக இது அமைகிறது.

தாய்வழிக் குடும்பம்:
சங்ககாலத்தில் கண சமூகத்துக்குத் தாயே தலைமை ஏற்றிருந்தாள். தாய்வழியாகவே குலத்தொடர்ச்சி குறிக்கப்பட்டது. பதிற்றுப்பத்து கூறும் சேரநாட்டு மருமக்கள் தாய முறை இதற்குச் சிறந்த எடுத்துக்காட்டாகும்.

சிறுவர்தாயே பேரிற் பெண்டே
செம்முது பெண்டின் காதலஞ்சிறா அன்
வானரைக் கூந்தல் முதியோள் சிறுவன்
முளரிமருங்கின் முதியோள் சிறுவன்
என்மகள் ஒருத்தியும் பிறள்மகன் ஒருவனும்

முதலான தொடர்களில் ‘ இவளது மகன்’ என்றே கூறப்பட்டது. இவனது மகன் எனக் கூறப்படவில்லை என்பது நோக்கத்தக்கது. இவை அனைத்தும் சங்ககாலத்தில் காணப்பட்ட தாய்வழிச் சமூகத்தின் நிலையைக் காட்டுகின்றன.

சங்ககாலத்தில் பெண் திருமணம் செய்த பின்னரும் தன் இல்லத்திலேயே தொடர்ந்து வாழ்க்கை நடத்தும் தாய முறை இருந்துள்ளது. திருமணத்திற்குப்பின் மனைவியின் இல்லத்துக்குச் சென்று கணவன் வாழ்வதே நடைமுறையாக இருந்துள்ளது.

தந்தைவழிக் குடும்பம்:
மனித குலத்தில் ஆதியில் தோன்றி வளர்ந்த தாய்வழி முறையானது தமிழர்களிடம் இருந்ததைச் சங்க இலக்கியங்களின் வழி அறிய முடிந்தாலும், சங்க காலத்திலேயே ஆண் மையச் சமூக முறை வலுவாக வேர் ஊன்றிப் பரவலாகி விட்டதையும் காணமுடிகிறது.

ஆண் மையச் சமூகத்தில் பெண் திருமணத்திற்குப்பின் தன் கணவனுடைய தந்தையகத்தில் வாழ வேண்டும். மணமானபின் தலைவன் தலைவியை அவனுடைய இல்லத்திற்கு அழைத்து வந்தபோது அவனுடைய தாய் அவளுக்குச் சிலம்புகழி நோன்பு செய்திருக்கிறாள்.

தனிக்குடும்பம் :
தனிக்குடும்பம் தோன்றுவதற்கான தொடக்கநிலைக் குடும்பங்கள் பற்றிச் சங்க இலக்கியங்கள் மிகுதியாகப் பேசியிருக்கின்றன. இளமகவுநிலைக் குடும்பங்களின் காட்சிகளை ஐங்குறுநூறு தெளிவுபடுத்துகிறது. “மறியிடைப் படுத்த மான்பிணை போல்” மகனை நடுவணாகக்கொண்டு தலைவனும் தலைவியும் வாழ்ந்திருக்கின்றனர். தாய், தந்தை, குழந்தை மூவருமுள்ள தனிக்குடும்பம் மிகவும் நெருக்கமானது என்பதால் இது தொடக்கநிலை / எளிய நெருக்கமான குடும்பம் எனப்படும்.

விரிந்த குடும்பம்:
சங்க காலத்தில் தனிக்குடும்ப அமைப்பு விரிவுபெற்று இவர்களுடன் பெற்றோர் ஒருவரின் தந்தையும் உடன் வாழும் “விரிந்த குடும்ப முறையையும் காண முடிகிறது. கணவன், மனைவி, மகன் ஆகியோருடன் தந்தை சேர்த்து வாழ்ந்த நேர்வழி விரிந்த குடும்ப முறையை ஒக்கூர் மாசாத்தியாரின் புறநானூற்றுப் பாடல் கூறுகிறது.

இவ்வாறு குடும்பம் என்னும் சிறிய அமைப்பு மனித சமூகம் என்னும் பரந்த அமைப்பாக கட்டமைக்கப்படுகிறது.

Question 46.
(அ) பொறுப்புணர்ச்சியின்றி இருந்த ஊரைத் தன் பொறுப்புணர்வால் மாற்றிய மருதனின்
பண்பு நலத்தை விவரிக்க.
Answer:
மருதன் கண்ட காட்சி:
“ஐப்பசி மாதம் அடைமழை காலம்” கண்ணுக்கெட்டிய தூரம் வரை பச்சைப் பசேல் என்று விரிந்து கிடந்த வயல்வெளிகள். வயல்வெளியெங்கும் நடவு முடிந்து ஒரு வாரம் பத்து நாளான பச்சை பிடிக்கத் தொடங்கியிருந்த இளம்பயிர். நான்கு நாள் அடைமழையில் எல்லா வாய்க்கால்களும் பொங்கி வழிந்து வரப்பு எது, வயல் எது என்று அடையாளம் தெரியாமல் இப்பொழுதோ சற்றுப் பொறுத்தோ நீருக்குள் மூழ்கிவிடும் ஆபத்தில் இருந்தது.

மருதனின் சிந்தனைகள்:
எந்த மழையின் உதவியில் நட்டார்களோ, அதே மழையின் ‘அபரிமித அன்பினால்’ இப்போது பயிர் தெப்பலாடுகிறது. ஒரு நாள் மூழ்கினால் போதும். முழுவதும் அழுகிவிடும். மறுபடி புதிதாக நாற்றுவிட்டு…. புதிய சாகுபடிதான். அதற்கு யாரால் முடியும்…? இதற்கே அங்கே வாங்கி, இங்கே பிடுங்கி என்று ஏகப்பட்ட அல்லாடல்கள். மறுபடியும் என்றால் …. தரிசுதான். சோற்றுக்கு லாட்டரிதான். வேறு என்ன செய்ய? என்ன செய்யலாம் என்று மருதனுக்கும் ஆயிரம் யோசனைகள்.

மருதனுக்கு தோன்றிய யோசனை:
கரைவழியே நடந்தான். உபரித் தண்ணீர் வடிய வேண்டிய வடிகால் மதகை எட்டிப் பார்த்தான். மதகின் கீழ்க்குமிழி மட்டுமல்ல. ஊரைச்சுற்றி வளைந்து ஓடிவரும் மூன்றுமைல் நீள வடிவாய்க்கால் முழுவதுமே சுவர் வைத்துத் தடுத்ததைப் போல் காடாய் மண்டிக் கிடந்த நெய்வேலி காட்டாமணக்குச் செடிகளின் அசுரத்தனமான ஆக்கிரமிப்பு. பயிர்கள் மூழ்காமல் மொத்தத் கிராமமும் தப்பித்துக்கொள்ள வழி கண்டுபிடித்து விட்ட சந்தோஷம் மருதனுக்கு. இந்த பேய்ச் செடிகளைப் பிடுங்கி எறிந்தால் போதும். ஒரே நாளில் உபரி நீர் முழுவதும் வடிந்துவிடும்.

மருதனுக்கு ஏற்பட்ட சந்தேகம்:
சரி இவ்வளவு நீளம் மண்டிக்கிடக்கும் செடிகளை அரித்து எறிவது லேசான காரியமா? இந்த மலைப்பிற்கும் ஒரு சில நிமிட யோசனைக்குப் பிறகு வழி தெரிந்தது. உற்சாகமாக நடக்கத் தொடங்கினான்.

மருதன் மாரியப்பனிடம் கூறினான்:
மருதனைக் கண்ட மாரியப்பன் ஊர்க்காரங்க எல்லோரும் ஒண்ணு சேந்தோம்னு வச்சுக்க. ஆளுக்கொரு செடின்னாகூட ஒரே நாள்லே வாய்க்காலும் சுத்தமாயிடும். தண்ணியும் கடகடன்னு வடிஞ்சிடும். இப்படிச் சொன்ன மருதனை ஏற இறங்கப் பார்த்தான். பார்த்ததோடு சரி. காதில் கேட்காதவாறு மாரி அவன் வேலையைச் செய்ய ஆரம்பித்தான் பொறுமையிழந்த மருதன் “ஏண்டா மாரி, நான் சொன்னது உங்கிட்டதான். நீ சாஞ்சுகிட்டிருந்த பனைமரத்துக்கிட்டேயில்லை.” “தெரியுது … ஏதாவது நடக்கிற காரியமா இருந்தா பதில் சொல்லலாம். நீயோ போகாத ஊருக்கு வழி கேக்கிற …. நானென்ன சொல்ல முடியும்?” “ச்சே… நீயெல்லாம் ஒரு மனுஷன் ….. முதமுத உங்கட்ட வந்து கேட்டேன் பாரு… என்னைச் சொல்லணும்..” கோபம் மாறாமல் கீழே இறங்கினான் மருதன்.

மருதன் காளியப்பனின் உதவியை நாடினான்:
வடக்கேயிருக்கும் எட்டூரு தண்ணியும் நம்மூரு வழியாத்தானே வடிஞ்சாகனும். மேற்கொண்டு மழை பேயணும் கூட அவசியமில்லை…… ராத்திரிக்குள்ளே எல்லாத் தண்ணியும் இங்கே வந்திறங்கிடுச்சின்னா…. அவ்வளவுதான் … இப்பவே எல்லாப் பயிரும் தோகையாடுது. எல்லாமே அப்புறம் தண்ணிக்குள்ளதான். ராத்திரி நம்ம ஊர்க்காரர்களை ஒண்ணு கூட்டி ஒரு வார்த்தை சொன்னீங்கன்னா போதும். கிழவரின் புருவம் ஏறி இறங்கியது. ஏன்டா மருதா … உனக்கு விவரம் தெரிஞ்சு நம்ப ஊரு பயலுவ எந்த நல்ல காரியத்துக்காகவாவது ஒண்ணு கூடியிருக்கானுவளா? மூலைக்கு ஒருத்தனா முறுக்கிக்கிட்டுல்லே போவானுங்க.

சொல்ற விதத்திலே சொன்னா எல்லாருமே கேப்பாங்க …. அதிலும் உங்க சொல்லுக்க மதிப்பு ஜாஸ்தி. யோசிக்காதீங்க பெரியப்பா …. ஒருநாள் தாமதிச்சாலும் ஊரே பாழாப் போயிடும்…… மருதனின் கவலையும், பதைப்பும் கிழவரை என்னவோ செய்தது. இருந்தாலும் கண்மூடி யோசித்தார். நாளைக்குக் காலையிலேயே பலபலன்னு விடியறப்ப வானமா தேவியிலே கட்டிக் கொடுத்திருக்கிற எம்மக வீட்லே இருந்தாகணும். குடும்பத்தோட வில் வண்டியிலே போறோம். அங்கே பேத்திக்குத் தலை சுத்துறாங்க திரும்ப வர மூணு நாளாகும். கிழவரின் சாதுரியம் மருதனுக்குப் புரிந்துவிட்டது.

மருதன் பட்டதாரி பிரேம்குமாரை சந்தித்தல் :
பிரேம்குமார் கிராமத்தின் முதல் பட்டதாரி. “நாகூர்பிச்சை” என்று அப்பா, அம்மா வைத்த பெயரை ”பிரேம்குமார்” என்று மாற்றி வைத்துக்கொண்டு “மன்றம் ” அது இது வென்று என்னவென்னவோ சதா சர்வகாலமும் செய்து கொண்டிருப்பவன். நாம நினைக்கிற காரியத்துக்கு இவன்தான் பொருத்தமானவன். முகம் மலர பிரேம்குமாரை வழி மறித்தான். “என்னண்ணே …” சிரித்தபடி பிரேம்குமார். கடகடவென்று எல்லாவற்றையும் சொல்லி முடித்தான் மருதன். ஆனால் அவன் எதிர்பார்த்தபடி, பிரேமிடமிருந்து சட்டென்று எந்தப் பதிலும் வரவில்லை. சிறிது நேர யோசிப்புக்குப் பிறகு மருதனை ஏறிட்டான்.

மருதண்ணே… நீங்க சொல்ற வேலையைச் செய்றதுக்குன்னே பிடபின்யூ டின்னு கவர்மெண்ட்லே ஒரு டிபார்ட்மெண்ட் இருக்கு. நாளைக் காலையிலே அவங்களைப் பார்த்து ஒரு ‘பெட்டிஷன்’ கொடுத்தீங்கன்னா செஞ்சுட்டுப் போறாங்க என்று கூறிவிட்டு மருதனின் பதிலை எதிர்பார்க்காமல் அவ்ன் போய்க்கொண்டே இருந்தான்.

மருதனின் புலம்பல்:
மருதனால் சும்மா இருக்க முடியவில்லை. ஒருத்தர் பாக்கி இல்லாமல் ஊர்க்காரர்களிடம் சொல்லிச் சொல்லிப் புலம்பினான். அத்தனை பேரும் அவன் சொன்னதை ஒப்புக்கொண்டார்கள். ஆனால் அதென்ன அதிசயமோ தெரியவில்லை. ஒவ்வொருவருக்கும் ஒவ்வொரு வேலை இருந்தது. அதுவும் தள்ளிப்போட முடியாத அவசர வேலை.

மருதன் தன் மனைவி அல்லியிடம் கூறுதல்.
தன் மனைவி அல்லியிடம் மருதன் நடந்ததைக் கூறினான். அதனைக் கேட்ட அல்லி இந்த ஊர்ல இருக்கிற மொத்தம் அறுபது வேலி நிலத்திலே நமக்குன்னு ஒரு “சக்கரைக்குழி” நிலம் கூட இல்லே. எந்த நிலம் எப்படிப்போனா நமக்கென்ன… நமக்குன்னு சொந்தம் கொண்டாட இருக்கிறது நம்ம கையும் காலும்தான். இந்த ஊரு இல்லேன்னா … இன்னொரு ஊரு …. வேலையைப் பாப்பியா ….. ஆவேசமாய்க் கொட்டி முழக்கிவிட்டு உள்ளே போனாள்.

மருதனின் முயற்சி:
தளும்புகின்ற வடி வாய்க்காலில் ஜில்லென்ற இடுப்பளவு தண்ணீரில் தன்னந்தனியே நின்றபடி மண்டிக்கிடந்த காட்டாமணக்குச் செடிகளை “சரக் சரக்” கென்று அறுத்து மேலே எறிந்து கொண்டிருந்தான் மருதன். அப்படியே திகைத்துப் போய் நின்றுவிட்டாள் அல்லி. அவளையறியாமலேயே புடவையை வரிந்து கட்டிக்கொண்டு வாய்க்காலுக்குள் இறங்கிவிட்டாள். “நீ சொல்றது” நிஜம்தான் மாமா. ஊரு நல்லா இருந்தாதான் நாமளும் நல்லாயிருக்கலாம். அதுக்காக இவ்ளோ நீளமான வாய்க்காலை நீயும் நானும் மட்டுமே சுத்தம் பண்ணிட முடியுமா? ஆற்றாமையுடன் கேட்டவளைத் திரும்பிப் பார்க்காமலே பதில் தந்தான். “முதல்லே நம்மாலே முடிஞ்சதை நாம செய்வோம்…”!

மருதன் முயற்சியால் ஏற்பட்ட மாற்றம்:
மருதன் மற்றும் அல்லி செய்து கொண்டிருந்த வேலையைக் கண்டு மாரியும் வேலையில் ஈடுபட்டான். இவர்கள் மூவரையும் கண்ட காளியப்பன் வண்டியில் இருந்து இறங்கி அவரும் செய்தார். இதனை வண்டிக்காரர் மூலம் அறிந்த ஊர்மக்கள் ஒவ்வொருவரும் வந்து செய்ய ஆரம்பித்தனர். “ஊர் கூடித் தேர் இழுக்கும் போதும்“ வேர்வடத்தைப் பிடிக்கும் முதல் கரமாக இருந்தது மருதனின் கரம்.

முடிவுரை:
“ஆக்கமும் அழிவும் நம்மாலே” என்னும் பழமொழிக்கு இணங்க மருதனின் பொறுப்புணர்வால் அவனுக்கும் ஊருதிடும் நன்மை ஏற்பட்டது. மருதனின் பண்பு பாராட்டிற்கு உரியது.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) ‘கிராமங்கள் தங்கள் முகவரியை இழந்து வருகின்றன’ – தலைக்குளம் கதையின்றி உங்கள் கருத்தை விவரிக்க.
Answer:
குளத்துக்கரை விநாயகரும், அரசமரமும், சுத்தமான காற்றும், காதிற்கினிய குயில் ஓசையும் கோடிக்கணக்கான பணம் கொடுத்தாலும் கிடைக்காத சந்தோசம் தரும் இடமாக கிராமங்கள் திகழ்கின்றன.

எந்தத் தொழில் முறை மாறினாலும் அழிந்தாலும் உலகம் இயங்குவது பாதிக்காது. ஆனால் உயிர் கொடுக்கும் உழவுத்தொழில் அழிந்தால் உலகம் இருக்கும். ஆனால் உயிர்கள் இருக்காது. அப்படிப்பட்ட உழவுத்தொழில் செய்யும் கிராமங்கள் நகரை நோக்கித் திரும்பிச் செல்வது காலத்தின் கட்டாயம் என்றாலும், கஷ்டகாலம் நம்மை நோக்கி வருகிறது என்பதும் நம் அறிய வேண்டியதும் கட்டாயம். நம் கிராமங்கள் அழிந்து வருவதை நாம் கண்கூடாகப் பார்த்து வருகின்றோம்.

நகரத்திற்கு வரும் கிராமத்தினர் பட்டியலில் இந்திய அளவில் தமிழகம் 3 வது இடத்தில் உள்ள மொத்த மக்கள் தொகையில் 14.5% பேர் கிராமங்களை காலி செய்துவிட்டு நகருக்குள் வந்துவிட்டனர். மொத்தமுள்ள மக்களின் 48.40% பேர் நகரங்களில் வசிப்பது உணவு உற்பத்திக்கு விடப்பட்ட அபாய எச்சரிக்கை. ஏற்கனவே கேரளா, கர்நாடகா, ஆந்திராவிடம் தண்ணீருக்காகப் போராடிவரும் நாம், இனிவரும் காலங்களில் உணவுக்கு அண்டை மாநிலத்தை நம்பி இருக்க வேண்டிய காலம் வெகு தொலைவில் இல்லை.

கிராமங்களுக்கு என சில அடையாளங்கள் உண்டு. வயல்வெளி, திண்ணைவீடுகள், மரத்தடி கோயில், குளம் இவற்றுடன் மண் மணக்கும் விளையாட்டுகள் – கபடி தமிழகக் கிராமங்களுக்கே உரிய அடையாளம். ஒரு காலத்தில் ஊருக்கு ஊர் கேட்ட சடு … குடு சப்தங்களை இப்போது கேட்க முடியவில்லை. எங்கே செல்கிறோம் நாம் என்றே புரியவில்லை.

“ஆற்றங்கரை ஓரம் அமைந்த வீடுகள்
பச்சை கம்பளம் விரித்தாற் போல
பசுமை நிறைந்த வயல் வெளிகள்
குடும்பத்தோடு அகம் மகிழும்
திண்ணை அமர்வு”

என அனைத்தையும் தொலைத்துவிட்டு ஆன்ராய்ட் அலைபேசியின் தொடு திரையில் அழகிய படங்களைத் தேடுதலால் மட்டுமே தொலைந்த நம் கிராமத்தைத் திருப்பி விட முடியாது. இயன்ற வரை இயற்கையைப் போற்றி வாழ்வோம்.
கிராமத்தை அழிவிலிருந்து மீட்போம் !

பகுதி – V

அடிமாறாமல் செய்யுள் வடிவில் எழுதுக.

Question 47.
(அ) சுரதாவின் விண்வேறு என்று துவங்கும் பாடலை எழுதுக.[1 x 4 = 4]
Answer:
விண்வேறு; விண்வெளியில் இயங்கு கின்ற
வெண்மதியும் செங்கதிரும் முகிலும் வேறு;
மண்வேறு; மண்ணோடு கலந்தி ருக்கும்
மணல்வேறு; பனித்துளியும் மழையும் வேறு;
புண்வேறு; வீரர்களின் விழுப்புண் வேறு;
புகழ்வேறு; செல்வாக்கு வேறு;
காணும் கண்வேறு; கல்விக்கண் வேறு; கற்றார்
கவிநடையும் உரைநடையும் வேறு வேறு. (சுரதா)

(ஆ) ‘சினம்’ என முடியும் குறள் வெண்பாவை எழுதுக.[1 x 2 = 2]
Answer:
தன்னைத்தான் காக்கின் சினம்காக்க; காவாக்கால்
தன்னையே கொல்லும் சினம்.( – திருவள்ளுவர்)

Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers 2020-2021 English Tamil Medium

November 7, 2023

Subject Matter Experts at SamacheerKalvi.Guide have created Samacheer Kalvi Tamil Nadu State Board Syllabus New Paper Pattern 12th Maths Model Question Papers 2020-2021 with Answers Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Tamil Medium of TN 12th Standard Maths Public Exam Question Papers Answer Key, New Paper Pattern of HSC 12th Class Maths Previous Year Question Papers, Plus Two +2 Maths Model Sample Papers are part of Tamil Nadu 12th Model Question Papers.

Let us look at these Government of Tamil Nadu State Board 12th Maths Model Question Papers Tamil Medium with Answers 2020-21 Pdf. Students can view or download the Class 12th Maths New Model Question Papers 2021 Tamil Nadu English Medium Pdf for their upcoming Tamil Nadu HSC Board Exams. Students can also read Tamilnadu Samcheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Papers 2020 2021 English Tamil Medium

Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers English Medium 2020-2021

Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers Tamil Medium 2020-2021

Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 1 Tamil Medium
Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 2 Tamil Medium
Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 3 Tamil Medium
Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 4 Tamil Medium
Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 Tamil Medium

12th Maths Model Question Paper Design 2020-2021 Tamil Nadu

Types of Questions	Marks	No. of Questions to be Answered	Total Marks
Part-I Objective Type	1	20	20
Part-II Very Short Answers (Totally 10 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)	2	7	14
Part-Ill Short Answers (Totally 10 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)	3	7	27
Part-IV Essay Type	5	7	35
Total			90
Internal Assesment			10
Total Marks			100

Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper Weightage of Marks

Purpose	Weightage
1. Knowledge	30%
2. Understanding	40%
3. Application	20%
4. Skill/Creativity	10%

It is necessary that students will understand the new pattern and style of Model Question Papers of 12th Standard Maths Tamilnadu State Board Syllabus according to the latest exam pattern. These Tamil Nadu Plus Two 12th Maths Model Question Papers State Board Tamil Medium and English Medium are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for TN HSLC Board Exams and Score More marks.

We hope the given Samacheer Kalvi Tamil Nadu State Board Syllabus New Paper Pattern Class 12th Maths Model Question Papers 2020 2021 with Answers Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Tamil Medium will help you get through your subjective questions in the exam.

Let us know if you have any concerns regarding the Tamil Nadu Government 12th Maths State Board Model Question Papers with Answers 2020 21, TN 12th Std Maths Public Exam Question Papers with Answer Key, New Paper Pattern of HSC Class 12th Maths Previous Year Question Papers, Plus Two +2 Maths Model Sample Papers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

November 7, 2023

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
A marketable document of title to a time deposit for a specified period may be referred to as a ……………
(a) Treasury Bill
(b) Certificate of Deposit
(c) Commercial Bill
(d) Government Securities
Answer:
(b) Certificate of Deposit

Question 2.
The rules and regulations of Stock exchange is framed by………….. guidelines.
(a) RBI
(b) Central Government
(c) SEBI
(d) BSE
Answer:
(c) SEBI

Question 3.
……….. was the first company to trade its shares in Demat form.
(a) Tata Industries
(b) Reliance Industries
(c) Infosys
(d) Birla Industries
Answer:
(b) Reliance Industries

Question 4.
The purpose of an application blank is to gather information about the
(a) Company
(b) Candidate
(c) Questionnaire or Interview Schedule
(d) Competitors
Answer:
(a) Company

Question 5.
Training methods can be classified into training.
(a) Job rotation and Job enrichment
(b) On the Job and Off the Job
(c) Job analysis and Job design
(d) Physical and mental
Answer:
(b) On the Job and Off the Job

Question 6.
Green Shelter concept was introduced by group:
(a) ACME
(b) Tata
(c) Reliance
(d) ICI
Answer:
(a) ACME

Question 7.
Any person who buys any goods or avails services for personal use, for consideration is called as …………..
(a) Customer
(b) Consumer
(c) Buyer
(d) User
Answer:
(b) Consumer

Question 8.
It is the responsibility of a consumer that he must obtain …………. as a proof for the purchase of goods.
(a) Cash receipt
(b) Warranty card
(c) Invoice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Invoice

Question 9.
The International Organisation of Consumers Unions (IOCU) was first established in …………..
(a) 1960
(b) 1965
(c) 1967
(d) 1987
Answer:
(a) 1960

Question 10.
Unpaid seller can exercise his right of lien over the goods, where he is in possession of the goods as ……………
(a) Owner of goods
(b) Agent of buyer
(c) Bailee for buyer
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
Which endorsement relieves the endorser from incurring liability in the event of dishonour?
(a) Restrictive
(b) Facultative
(c) Sans recourse
(d) Conditional
Answer:
(b) Facultative

Question 12
…………….. Entrepreneur Supply Services Unlike.
(a) Hoteliers
(b) Banking
(c) Airlines
(d) Livestock
Answer:
(d) Livestock

Question 13.
Who can issue stock? ‘
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) One Person
(d) Small
Answer:
(a) Public

Question 14.
A Public Company having a paid up Share Capital of ₹ ……… or more may have a Director, elected by such small shareholders.
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer:
(c) Five

Question 15.
Who is not entitled to speak at the annual general meeting of the company?
(a) Auditor
(b) Shareholder
(c) Proxy
(d) Directors
Answer:
(c) Proxy

Question 16.
Treasury Bills commands ………………
(a) High Liquidity
(b) Low Liquidity
(c) Medium Liquidity
(d) Limited Liquidity
Answer:
(a) High Liquidity

Question 17
………….. enables small investors to participate in the investment on share capital of large companies.
(a) Mutual Funds
(b) Shares
(c) Debentures
(d) Fixed deposits
Answer:
(a) Mutual Funds

Question 18.
……………… e-recruitment is possible only through facility.
(a) Computer
(b) internet
(c) Broadband
(d) 4G
Answer:
(b) internet

Question 19.
Identify the test that acts as an instrument to discover the inherent ability of a candidate.
(a) Aptitude Test
(b) Attitude Test
(c) Proficiency Test
(d) Physical Test
Answer:
(a) Aptitude Test

Question 20.
Case study method is type of trainee.
(a) Only theoretical training
(b) Both theory and practical training
(c) Hands on training
(d) Observation Training
Answer:
(b) Both theory and practical training

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by innovation?
Answer:
Innovation refers to the preparation of personnel and organisation to face the changes made in the business world. Continuous changes are being made in the business. Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, new design of a product and cost reduction.

Question 22.
Bring out the meaning of MBE.
Answer:
Management By Exception is an important principle of managerial control suggested by the classical writers on management. It is based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. Management by exception is a style of business management that focuses on identifying and handling cases that deviate from the norm.

Question 23.
Who are the participants in a Capital Market?
Answer:
There are many players in the capital market. The participants of the capital market include individuals, corporate sectors, Govt., banks and other financial institutions.

Question 24.
Explain the two oldest money markets.
Answer:

Treasury Bills- These are very popular and enjoy a higher degree of liquidity since they
are issued by the Government.
Commercial Bills- It is an instrument drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods.

Question 25.
What is meant by Commodity Exchange?
Answer:
A commodity exchange is an exchange where commodities are purchased and sold. Commodities are listed here: Metals (e.g. gold, silver, copper); Energy (e.g. crude oil, natural gas); Agricultural (e.g. rice, wheat, cocoa); Livestock and meat.

Question 26.
What are the various ID proofs?
Answer:
Proof of identity: PAN card, voter’s ID, passport, driver’s license, bank attestation, IT returns, electricity bill, telephone bill, ID cards with applicant’s photo issued by the central or state government are the ID proofs.

Question 27.
State two features of HRM.
Answer:
Features of Human Resource Management:

Universally relevant: Human Resource Management has universal relevance.
Goal oriented: The accomplishment of organisational goals is made possible through best utilisation of human resource in an organisation.

Question 28.
What is promotion?
Answer:
Based on seniority and merits of the employees they are given opportunity to move up in the organisational hierarchy. This is called promotion.

Question 29.
What do you mean by test?
Answer:
Several tests are conducted in the selection process to ensure whether the candidate possesses the necessary qualification to fit into various positions in the organization.

Question 30.
State e-learning method.
Answer:
E-leaming is the use of technological process to access of a traditional classroom or office. It is also often referred to as online learning or web based training.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the types of market on the basis of time.
Answer:

Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables, etc., are called as very short period market. There is no change in the supply of goods.
Short Period Market: In certain goods, supply is adjusted to meet the demand. The demand is greater than supply. Such markets are known as Short Period Market.
Long Period Market: This type of market deals in durable goods, where the goods and services are dealt for longer period usages.

Question 32.
What are the factors affecting Price of Product?
Answer:
Factors affecting Price of product/service:
(a) Internal Factors:

Marketing Objectives
Marketing Mix Strategy
Organizational considerations
Costs
Organization Objectives

(b) External Factors:

The market and demand
Competition
Customers
Suppliers
Legal factors
Regulatory factors.

Question 33.
Elucidate how E-Commerce differs from E-Business.
Answer:
E-commerce simply refers to the buying and selling of products and services through online but E-business goes away beyond the simple buying and selling, of goods and service and much wider range of business processes, such as supply chain management, electronic order processing and customer relationship management.

Question 34.
Define “Consumer Rights”
Answer:
Consumer Right is interpreted as “the right to have information about the quality, potency, quantity, purity, price, and standard of goods or services”.

Question 35.
What is the Pecuniary Jurisdiction of the State Commission?
Answer:
The Jurisdiction of the State Commission is as follows:

The State Commission can entertain complaints within the territory of entire state and the compensation, if any claimed exceed Rs. 20 lakhs and below Rupees One Crore.
The State Commission also has the jurisdiction to entertain appeals against the orders of any District Forum within the State.

Question 36.
Write a note on future environment of business.
Answer:

The future environment of business in this age of rapid technological advancement has been captured aptly.
It is now important for every business to meet the challenges posed by the environment in order to remain competitive.
The presence of complex variables impacting business should be understood and alternative measures for solving the issues should be developed.

Question 37.
State any three impacts of Globalization.
Answer:
Impacts of Globalization:

Corporations got a competitive advantage from lower operating costs, and access to new raw materials and additional markets.
Multinational corporations (MNCs) can manufacture, buy and sell goods worldwide.
Globalization has led to a boom in consumer products market.

Question 38.
Discuss in detail the rights of an unpaid seller against the buyer personally.
Answer:
Where the Property in the Goods does not pass to the Buyer. Right of an Unpaid Seller against the Buyer Personally:

Suit for price
Suit for Damages for Non-acceptance .
Suit for Cancellation of the Contract before the Due Date- Where the buyer cancels the contract before the date of delivery, the seller may either treat the contract as continuing or wait till the due date.
Suit for Interest

Question 39.
Explain the commercial functions of entrepreneur.
Answer:
(i) Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development, product design, etc.

(ii) Marketing: Entrepreneur has to carry out following functions pertaining to marketing
aspect namely consumer research, product planning and development, standardisation, packaging, pricing, warehousing, distribution, promotion, etc.

(iii) Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business at a particular day. Besides, cash flow and fund flow statements are prepared to ensure the adequacy of funds and cash for meeting various working capital needs of the business.

(iv) Finance: An entrepreneur has to take decisions like choosing the right type of financing, framing the best dividend policy, acquiring of funds, efficiently managing fixed and current assets, maximising shareholders wealth and investing of funds efficiently and effectively.

(v) Human Resource Management: Entrepreneur has to estimate the manpower needs of the enterprise and accordingly organise for recruitment procedure, selecting manpower, induction and training, determining compensation structure and incentives, designing motivation programmes, structuring wellbeing measures for employees, putting in place safety mechanism at workplace, performance evaluation and career advancement and structuring social security programmes.

Question 40.
Explain about the agricultural entrepreneur.
Answer:
Agricultural entrepreneurs are those entrepreneurs who raise farm products and market them. They use the various inputs like labour, fertilizer, insecticide, water technology, etc., to raise the products and market their products either directly or through co-operative entities or through brokers or through tie up with large retailers.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
What are the duties of a director?
Answer:
Directors act as agents of the shareholders and act as trustees of shareholders. The following are the duties of directors:
Collective Duties of Directors: Directors as a part of Board perform certain duties collectively. The duties are as follows:

Approval of annual accounts and authentication of annual accounts
Appointment of First Auditors
Passing of resolutions at board meetings
Directors report to shareholders highlighting the performance of the company.

General duties of Directors:

Delegating power to any committee
Issuing instructions to employees for implementation of policy
Appointing their subordinates like Managing director, Manager, Secretary and other employees
Act in Good faith in order to promote the objectives of the company

[OR]

(b) How market information is helpful to invention of new product in the market?
Answer:
According to Clark and Clark, market information means “all the facts, estimates, opinions and other information used in marketing of goods”.
From the above definition the details about the market may be obtained from conducting market research and other inventory methods. Market research is solely concerned with the collection of information about the market.
The following information may be collected:

Goods needed by the customers.
Time and want of the goods
Quality wanted
Size of the market
Means of transport

Use to Invent New product: Adequate and accurate information help in the formulation of policies. Based on the taste and preferences, demand and supply of the products, the company can introduce new product. Also the company has to increase the quality and number of products depending upon the information available.

Question 42.
(a) State the powers of the directors.
Answer:
Powers of Directors: The directors must have powers to carry on objectives of the company.
The powers may be of four types:

Statutory Powers of Directors
Managerial Powers of Directors
Powers only with a resolution
Other Powers

Statutory Powers: The following powers must be used in the Board meeting:

Power to make calls on shareholders in respect of money unpaid on their shares
Power to issue debentures
Power to borrow money other than on debentures
Power to invest the funds of the company
Power to approve financial statement and Board report

Managerial Powers:

Power to allot, forfeit or transfer shares of company
Power to decide the terms and conditions to issue debentures
Power to appoint Managing Director, Manager and Secretary of the company.

Powers only with a resolution:

To sell or lease any asset of the company
To issue bonus shares
To allow time to the director for repayment of the loan

Other Powers:

Power to fill casual vacancy
Power to appoint the first auditor of the company
Power to appoint alternative directors, additional directors
Power to remove key managerial personnel

[OR]

(b) Write about the contribution of Drucker to management.
Answer:
“Management is a multipurpose organ that manages a business and manages manager, and manages worker and work.”— Peter F. Drucker: The Practice of Management.
Drucker stresses three jobs of management:

Managing a business;
Managing manager; and
Managing workers and work.

Even if one is omitted, It would not have management anymore and it also would’not have a business enterprise or an industrial society. According to P. Drucker, the manager has to balance and integrate three major jobs of a business enterprise as mentioned above. Hence, a manager is a dynamic and life-giving element in every business. Without efficient management it cannot be possible to secure the best allocation and utilisation of human, material and financial resources.

Question 43.
(a) Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market.
Answer:

Basis For Comparison	New Issue Market	Secondary Market
Meaning	The market place for new shares is called primary market. (Initial Issues Market)	The place where formerly issued securities are traded is known as Secondary Market. (Resale Market)
Buying	Direct	Indirect
Financing	It supplies funds to budding enterprises and also to existing companies for expansion and diversification.	It does not provide funding to companies.
How can securities be sold?	Only once	Multiple times
Buying and Selling between	Company and Investors	Investors
Gained person	Company	Investors
Intermediary	Underwriters	Brokers
Price	Fixed price “	Fluctuates, depends on the demand and supply force.
Organizational difference	Not rooted to any specific spot or geographical location. .	It has physical existence.

[OR]

(b) Explain the functions of Stock Exchange. (Any 5)
Answer:

Ready and Continuous Market: Stock exchange helps the investors to sell his securities easily. And also he can convert his cash into securities.
Correct Evaluation of Securities: The prices at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and informed to the public. These prices are called “market quotations”.
Protection to Investors: All dealings in a stock exchange are in accordance with well-defined rules and regulations. Any malpractice will be severely punished.
Proper Channelisation of Capital: People like to invest in the shares of companies which yield good profits. Also people invest in the companies which are giving good dividends.
Facilities for Speculation: Speculation is an integral part of stock exchange operations. As a result of speculation, demand for and supply of securities are equalized.

Question 44.
(a) Explain the different methods of recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment means selecting the right person for the right job. There are basically two ways by which an organisation can recruit its employees – Internal and External sources. External sources can further be classified into Direct and Indirect sources.

Internal Sources:
Transfer, Upgrading, Promotion, Demotion, Recommendation by existing Employees, Job rotation, Retired employees, Dependants, Previous applicants, Acquisitions and Mergers.

External Sources:

Direct – Advertisements, Unsolicited applicants, Walk-ins, Campus Recruitment, Recruitment at Factory gate, Rival firms, e-Recruitment.
Indirect – Employee referral, Govemment/Public Employment Exchanges, Employment Agencies, Employment Consultancies, Professional Associations, Deputation, Word of mouth, Labour Contractors, Job Portals, Outsourcing, Poaching.

[OR]

(b) State the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

Goods produced may be stored till the time of demand. Hence the goods are stored in warehouses.
Also the goods are stored till the goods have good quality.
Warehouses create time utility by storing the goods throughout the year and release them as and when they are needed.

Several types of warehouses are used for storing of goods.
They are as follows:

Public warehouse
Private warehouse
Bonded warehouse

Question 45.
(a) Explain the duties of consumers.
Answer:
Apart from rights, there are certain duties imposed on the consumer. The following are the
duties of consumers:

Buying Quality Products at Reasonable Price: It is the duty of a consumer to purchase a product after gaining a thorough knowledge of its price, quality and other terms and conditions.
Ensure the Weights and Measurement before Purchase: The consumer should ensure that he/she is getting the product of exact weight and measure.
Reading the Label Carefully: It is the duty of the consumer to read the label of the product thoroughly.
Beware of False and Attractive Advertisements: It is the prime duty of the consumer about the genuineness of the advertisement, before purchasing the product.
Ensuring the Receipt of Cash Bill: It is a legitimate duty of consumers to get the cash receipt and warranty card supplied along with the bill.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the role of macro environment of business.
Answer:
This is the general or overall environment in which the business operates. The success of a business is dependent on its ability to adapt to the macro environment.

Role of Macro-environment:

The business is an integral part of the economic system prevalent in a nation.
Business is a part of the society. Social environment refers to the sum total of factors of the society in which the business is located.
The success of a business lies in its ability to adapt and sustain to political and legal changes. The legislative, executive and judiciary are the three political institutions which directs and influences a business.
The natural, geographical and ecological factors have a bearing on the business.

Question 46.
(a) Distinguish between sale and agreement to sell.
Answer:

Basis for Comparison	Sale	Agreement to Sell
1. Ownership	The property (ownership or title) in the goods passes from the seller to the buyer immediately.	The property (ownership or title) in the goods has to pass at a future time or after the fulfilment of certain conditions.
2. Risk of Loss	Where the goods sold under the contract of sale are destroyed, the loss falls fully on the buyer as the ownership has already passed.	Where the goods under the agreement to sell are destroyed, the loss falls fully on the seller as the ownership is still vested with seller.
3. Consequences of violating the contract	Where the buyer fails to pay the price, the seller cannot seize the goods.	Where the buyer violates the contract, the seller can repossess the goods from the former.
4. Nature of contract	It is an executed contract.	It is an executory contract, i.e., contract yet to be performed.
5. Insolvency of the Buyer	In a sale, if a buyer becomes insolvent before he pays for the goods even though the goods sold are under the possession of the seller, the latter has to return them to the Official Receiver..	If the buyer becomes insolvent before the payment of the price, the seller can retain the goods if they are under his possession.

[OR]

(b) Explain the different kinds of endorsements.
Answer:
When the person signs on the back of the instrument to transfer his interest, it is known as endorsement. The endorsements are of various types:

Blank or general endorsement : When the endorser puts his mere signature on the back of an instrument without mentioning the name of the person to whom the endorsement is made, it is called Blank Endorsement
Endorsement in full or special endorsement : If the endorser, in addition to his signature, mentions the name of the person to whom it is endorsed, is known as endorsement in full or special endorsement.
Conditional endorsement : When the endorser of a negotiable instrument makes his liability dependent upon the happening of an event which may or may not happen, it is called conditional endorsement.
Restrictive endorsement : When an endorsement restricts or prohibits further negotiability of the instrument, it is called Restrictive Endorsement.
Partial Endorsement : Where the endorsement seeks to transfer only a part of the amount payable under the instrument, the endorsement is called Partial Endorsement.

Question 47.
(a) How do you classify entrepreneurs?
Answer:
Entrepreneurs are now broadly classified into three groups namely risk bearer, organiser and innovator.
(i) Entrepreneur as a risk bearer: Entrepreneurs acts as an agent combining all factors of production to produce a product or service in order to sell at uncertain price in future.

(ii) Entrepreneur as an organiser: Entrepreneur is one who brings together various factors of production and creates an entity to produce product or service and supervise and coordinates several functions in the process.

(iii) Entrepreneur as an innovator: According to Joseph A. Schumpeter in the year 1934 used innovation as a criterion to define an individual as entrepreneui.
According to him, entrepreneur is one who-

Introduces a brand new product in the market.
Institutes new technology to produce a new product.
Discovers new course of supply of raw materials.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the nature of functional entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Nature of functional entrepreneurs:

Innovative Entrepreneur: He is a person who introduces new project. They observe the environment regarding information to the new venture.
Imitative Entrepreneur: He refers to the person who simply imitates existing knowledge or technology already in advance countries. Redesigning of products suited to the local conditions.
Fabian Entrepreneur: These are said to be conservatives and sceptical about any changes in their organisation. They are of risk-averse.
Drone Entrepreneur: Drone entrepreneurs are those who are totally opposed to changes in the environment. They used to operate in the niche market.

Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

November 6, 2023

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?
(a) Only one time
(b) Two times
(c) Three times
(d) Multiple times
Answer:
(d) Multiple times

Question 2.
Money market Institutions are ………………
(a) Investment Houses
(b) Mortgage Banks
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses
Answer:
(d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses

Question 3.
Risk in the Money Market is ………………
(a) High
(b) Market Risk
(c) Low credit and Market Risk
(d) Medium Risk
Answer:
(c) Low credit and Market Risk

Question 4.
A pessimistic speculator is ………………
(a) Stag
(b) Bear
(c) Bull
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(b) Bear

Question 5.
An optimistic speculator is ……………
(a) Bull
(b) Bear
(c) stag
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(a) Bull

Question 6.
SEBI is empowered by the Finance Ministry nominate ……………. mumbers on the governing body of every stock exchange.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 7.
The process of converting physical shares into electronic from is called from is called …………..
(a) Dematerialisation
(b) Delisting
(c) Materialisation
(d) Debarring
Answer:
(a) Dematerialisation

Question 8.
Labour turnover is the rate at which employees the organisation.
(a) enter
(b) leave
(c) salary
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) leave

Question 9.
Which of the following test is used to measure the various characteristics of the candidate?
(a) physical Test
(b) psychological Test
(c) attitude Test
(d) proficiency Tests
Answer:
(b) psychological Test

Question 10.
When trainees are trained by supervisor or by superior at the job is called …………..
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Refresher training
(c) Role Pay
(d) Apprenticeship training
Answer:
(d) Apprenticeship training

Question 11.
Stock Exchange Market is also called …………..
(a) Spot Market
(b) Local Market
(c) Security Market
(d) National Market
Answer:
(c) Security Market

Question 12.
Marketing mix means a marketing program that is offered by a firm to to its target ………….. to earn profits through satisfaction of their wants.
(a) Wholesaler
(b) Retailer
(c) Consumer
(d) Seller
Answer:
(c) Consumer

Question 13.
Effective use of Social media marketing increase conversion rates of ……………..
(a) Customer to buyers
(b) Retailer to customers
(c) One buyer to another buyer’s
(d) Direct contact of marketer
Answer:
(a) Customer to buyers

Question 14.
The Consumer protection Act came into force with effect from ……………
(a) 1.1. 1986
(b) 1.4.1986
(c) 15.4. 1987
(d) 15.4.1990
Answer:
(c) 15.4. 1987

Question 15.
Which of the following is not consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right’to consume
(d) Right to he informed
Answer:
(a) Right to safety

Question 16.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of goods/services complained against and the compensation, if any, claimed is………………..
(a) Exceeding ₹ 1 crore
(b) Exceeding ₹ 10 lakhs
(c) Exceeding ₹ 5 lakhs
(d) Exceeding ₹ 12 lakhs
Answer:
(a) Exceeding ₹ 1 crore

Question 17.
New Economic Policy was introduced in the year
(a) 1980
(b) 1991
(c) 2013
(d) 2015
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 18.
In which of the following types, the ownership is immediately transferred to buyer?
(a) When goods are ascertained
(b) When goods are appropriate
(c) Delivery to the carrier
(d) Sale or return basis
Answer:
(c) Delivery to the carrier

Question 19.
………………. cannot be a bearer instrument.
(a) Cheque
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Bills of exchange
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Cheque

Question 20.
Which of the below is not classified into managerial functions?
(a) Planning
(b) Marketing
(c) Organising
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Organising

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by Span of Management?
Answer
The Span of Management refers to the number of subordinates who can be managed efficiently by a superior. Simply, the manager having the group of subordinates who report him directly is called as the span of management.

Question 22.
What is Mutual Fund?
Answer
Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of small investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’. A mutual fund company invests the funds pooled from shareholders and gives them the benefit of diversified investment portfolio and a reasonable return.

Question 23.
Who is called a Broker?
Answer
Broker is a commission agent. He acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers of securities. He charges a commission for his services from both the parties.

Question 24.
What is Mentoring training method?
Answer
Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee. The focus in this training is on the development of attitude of trainees. It is mostly used for managerial employees.

Question 25.
Define E-Marketing.
Answer
“E-Marketing is achieving marketing objectives through use of digital technologies like Internet, world wide web, e-mail, wireless media, and management of digital customer data and electronic customer management systems.

Question 26.
What is caveat Venditor?
Answer
Today, most sales in the U.S. fall under the principle of caveat venditor, which means “let the seller beware,” by which goods are covered by an implied warranty of merchantability.

Question 27.
What is Privatisation.
Answer
Privatization is the incidence or process of transferring ownership of a business enterprise, agency or public service from the government to the private sector.

Question 28.
List three characteristics of a promissory Note.
Answer
Characteristics of a Promissory Note:

A promissory note must be in writing.
The promise to pay must be unconditional.
It must be signed by the maker.

Question 29.
List down the promotional functions of entrepreneurs.
Answer

Discovery of Idea
Determining the business objectives
Detailed Investigation
Choice of form of enterprise
Fulfilment of the formalities
Preparation of Business Plan
Mobilisation of funds
Procurement of Machines and Materials

Question 30.
Name the companies required to appoint KMP?
Answer
Following Companies are required to appoint KMP:
Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium 1

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What determines the span of management?
Answer:
The Span of Management has two implications:

Influences the complexities of the individual manager’s job.
Determine the shape or configuration of the organisation.
There is a wide and a narrow span of management.

Question 32.
Bring out the scope of financial market in India.
Answer:
The financial market provides financial assistance to individuals, agricultural sectors, industrial sectors, service sectors, financial institutions like banks, insurance sectors, provident funds and the government as a whole. With the help of the financial market all the above stated individuals, institutions and the Government can get their required funds in time. Through the financial market the institutions get their short term as well as long term financial assistance. It leads to overall economic development.

Question 33.
Explain the types of Treasury Bills?
Answer:
Treasury Bills are issued to the public and other financial institutions for meeting the short-term financial requirements of the Central Government. Treasury Bills may be classified into three. They are:

91 days Treasury Bills
182 days Treasury Bills and
64 days Treasury Bills 34.

Question 34.
Explain National Stock Exchange. (NSE)
Answer:
National Stock Exchange was incorporated in November, 1992. It uses satellite link to spread trading throughout the country. Through computer network, members’ orders for buying and selling within prescribed price are matched by central computer.

Question 35.
Name the types of Selection Test.
Answer:
Selection tests are of two types:

Ability Tests and Personality Tests. Ability tests can further be divided into: aptitude test, achievement test, intelligence test, and judgement test.
Personality tests can further be divided into: interest test, personality inventory test, projective test or thematic appreciation test, and attitude test.

Question 36.
Write the importance of Consumerism.
Answer:
Importance of consumerism lies in

Awakening and uniting consumers
Discouraging unfair trade practices
Protecting against exploitation
Awakening the government.
Effective implementation of consumer protection laws
Providing complete and latest information
Discouraging anti-social activities

Question 37.
What are the advantages of disinvestment?
Answer:
Disinvestment in PSUs: The Govt, has started the process of disinvestment in those PSUs which had been running into loss. It means that Govt, has been selling out these industries to private sector. So disinvestment is a system of privatizing government enterprises.

Question 38.
Explain the promotional functions of entrepreneur.
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Determining the business objectives: Entrepreneur has to develop business objectives in the backdrop of nature of business and type of business activity i.e. nature of business, manufacturing or trading, type of business organisation chosen so that he/she can organise the venture in accordance with the objectives determined by him/her.

(iii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iv) Choice of form of enterprise: Entrepreneur has to choose the appropriate form of organisation suited to implement the venture. There are various forms of organisation namely sole proprietor, partnership, company and co-operatives etc. which are in existence.

(v) Fulfilment of the formalities: Having chosen the appropriate type of organisation, entrepreneur has to take necessary steps to establish the form of organisation chosen. As regards sole trader, the formalities are barest minimum. In the case of partnership firm, entrepreneur has to arrange for partnership deed and he has to get the deed registered.

(vi) Preparation of Business Plan: Entrepreneur has to prepare a business plan or project report
of the venture that he is proposing to take up.

(vii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(viii) Procurement of Machines and Materials: Entrepreneur has to locate the various sources of supply of machineries, equipments and materials.

Question 39.
What is Causal Vacancy?
Answer:
If a director is absent from India, for a period which is not less than three months, then it is called casual vacancy. It may be filled by the appointment of alternate director. The appointment must be authorised by the articles of association by passing a resolution in the meeting.

Question 40.
Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
Answer:
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority, i.e. if the members of votes cast by members, entitled to vote in favour of the resolution is more than the votes cast against the resolution.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

To change or rectify the name of the company
To alter the share capital of the company
To redeem the debentures

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41
(a) Explain Lombard Street and Wall Street.
Answer:
Lombard Street
Lombard Street is in London. It is a street notable for its connections with the merchants, banking and insurance industries of London. From bank junction, where nine streets converge by the bank of England, Lombard Street runs southeast for a short distance.

Wall Street
Wall Street is a street in New York. It is the original home of the New York Stock exchange.
Also it is the historic headquarters of the largest U.S. brokerages and investment banks.
Wall Street is also used as a collective name for the financial and investment community.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Operating functions of HRM.
Answer:
Operating functions of HRM:

Procurement: Acquisition deals with job analysis, human resource planning, recruitment, selection, placement and promotion.
Development: It includes performance appraisal, training, executive development, and organisational development.
Compensation: It deals with job evaluation, wage and salary administration, incentives, bonus schemes.
Retention: This is made possible through health and safety, social security, job satisfaction and quality of work life.
Maintenance: This encourages employees to work with job satisfaction, reducing labour turnover, for human resource.

Question 42.
(a) Differentiate Recruitment and Selection.
Answer:

Basis for comparison	Recruitment	Selection
1. Meaning	It means searching candidates for the right job.	It refers to the process of selecting the suitable candidates and offering them job.
2. Objective	Inviting large number of candidates to apply for the vacant post.	Picking up the most suitable candidates.
3. Method	It is an economical method.	It is an expensive method.
4. Contractual relation	It involves the communication of vacancies. There is no contractual relation.	It creates contractual relation between employer and employee.
5. Process	Recruitment process is very simple.	Selection process is very complex and complicated.
6. Time	Requires less time since it involves merely identifying vacancies and advertising them.	It is more time-consuming because each and every candidate has to be tested on various aspects before finally being selected.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of placement.
Answer:
The following are the principles of placement:

Job First, Man Next: Man should be placed on the job according to the requirements
of the job.
Job Offer: The job should be offered to the man based on his qualification.
Terms and conditions: The employee should be informed about the terms and conditions of the organisation.
Aware about the Penalties: The employee should also be made aware of the penalties if he / she commits a mistake.
Loyalty and Co-operation: When placing a person in a new job, an effort should be made to develop a sense of loyalty and co-operation in him.

Question 43.
(a) What is Marketing?
Answer:

Marketing is the performance of buying activities that facilitate to more flow of goods and services. It is one of the oldest profession in the world.
Objective: The traditional objective of marketing had been to make the goods available at places where they are needed.
Later on this idea was changed from ‘exchange’ to “Satisfaction of human wants”. Marketing is linking the consumer and the producer. Also marketing helps to maintain economic stability and economic development.

[OR]

(b) What are the salient features of the Consumer Protection Act 1986?
Answer:
Salient features of The Indian Consumer Protection Act, 1986:

Protecting consumers against products and services which are harmful to the health of the consumers.
Ensuring consumers with supply of goods at fair quality.
Ensuring the availability of goods in correct quantity and right size.
Protecting the consumers against pollution of various kinds.
Ensuring that consumers are charged fair price.
Protecting the consumers against unfair trade practices of unscrupulous trader.

Question 44.
(a) What are the responsibilities of consumers?
Answer:
Rights and responsibilities are two sides of the same coin. The responsibilities of consumers are listed below:

The consumer must pay the price of the goods according to the terms and conditions.
The consumer has the responsibility to make the seller to deliver the goods in time.
The consumer has to bear any loss, which may arise to the seller, due to delay in taking delivery.
The consumer has to follow the instructions and precautions while using the product.
The consumer must collect the cash receipt as a proof of goods purchased from the seller.
The consumer must file a complaint with the seller about the defects in products or deficiency in service.

[OR]

(b) Discuss in detail the rights of an unpaid seller against the goods.
Answer
A seller is deemed to be an unpaid seller when :
(a) the whole of the price has not been paid or
(b) a bill of exchange or other negotiable instrument given to him has been dishonoured. Rights of an Unpaid Seller against the Goods: Where the Property in the Goods has Passed to the Buyer:
Right of Lien: An unpaid seller has a right to retain the goods till he receives the price. But to exercise this lien-
(i) He must be in possession of goods
(ii) The goods must have been sold without any condition.

Right of Stoppage in Transit: Where the seller has delivered the goods to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer, but the buyer has not acquired them, then the seller can stop the goods.
Right of Resale: The unpaid seller can resell the goods

(iii) Where they are of a perishable nature or
(iv) Where the seller has expressly reserved the right of resale in the contract itself.

Question 45.
(a) Discuss the problems faced by Women Entrepreneurs?
Answer:
There is a tremendous growth in the women entrepreneurship in India. But there are certain problems met by women entrepreneurs. They are as follows
(i) Problem of Finance: The external sources of funds for the women is limited because they do not generally own properties in their own name. They are depending on their own savings and loan from friends and relatives.
(ii) Lack of Education: Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs face difficulties in respect of accounts, money matters, marketing and day-to-day operations

(iii) Lack of Network Support: The success of business depends on the support of family members, friends and relatives. But it is reported that the women entrepreneurs get very limited support in times of crisis.
(iv) Stiff Competition: They have to face acute competition for their goods from organised sector and from their male counterparts.
(v) Lack of Information: The lack of knowledge or limited knowledge about subsidies, concessions and incentives given by Government will affect the business.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Preparation of a project report.
Answer:
An entrepreneur can get the report prepared by technical consultancy organisations or by auditors or by government agencies. The report should include the following:
(i) Technical feasibility: It should contain the description of product, raw materials, quality control measures, water, power and transport.
(it) Economic viability: It involves compilation of demand for domestic and export market.
(iii) Financial viability: It should cover the aspects like: Non-recurring expenses like cost of land, and building. Recurring expenses like wages and salaries.
(iv) Managerial competency: Entrepreneurs has to include the mechanism for managing the venture in the project report.

(v) Provisional registration certificate: He has to apply for provisional registration certificate. It will be issued after certain conditions for a period of one year.
(vi) Permanent registration certificate: If the venture has commenced production, or is ready to commence production, it is eligible to get permanent registration certificate.
(vii) Statutory licence: He should obtain Municipal Licence from the authority concerned.
(viii) Power connection: He has to make application to Assistant Divisional Engineer of Electricity Board for power connection.
(ix) Arrangement of finance: Entrepreneur requires two types of finance namely Long term and Short term.

Question 46.
(a) Explain how director of a company can be removed from the office?
Answer:
A Director of Company can be removed from his Office before the expiry of his term by

the Shareholders
the Central Government
the Company Law Board

(i) Removal by shareholders (Sec- 169): A company may, by giving a special notice and passing an ordinary resolution, remove a director before the expiry of his period of office.
(ii) Removal by the Central Government: The Central Government has been empowered to remove managerial personnel from office on the recommendation of the Company Law Board under the following situations:

Where a person concerned in the conduct and management of the affairs of a company has been guilty of fraud and negligence.
If the business is managed by a person without sound business principles.
Where the business of a company has been managed by such a person, who likes to cause injury or damage to the business.

(iii) Removal by the Company Law Board: If an application has been made to the Company Law Board against the oppression and mismanagement of the company’s affairs by a director, then the Company Law Board may order to terminate the director.

[OR]

(b) Describe the different types of resolutions which company may pass in the suitable matters required for each type of resolution.
Answer:
A motion, with or without the amendments which is put to vote at a meeting and passed with the required quorum becomes resolution. Resolution may be classified into three types. They are: Ordinary resolution, Special resolution and resolution requiring special notice.

(i) Ordinary Resolution: An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

To change or rectify the name of the company
To alter the share capital of the company
To redeem the debentures
To declare the dividends
To appoint the directors

(ii) Special Resolution: A special resolution is the one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority.
Special Resolution is required for the following matters:

To change the registered office of the company
To alter the Articles of Association
To commence any new business
To appoint the auditor for the company

(iii) Resolution requiring Special Notice: There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting.

The following matters require special notice:

To remove a director before the expiry of his period
To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

Question 47.
(a) Discuss the significance of understanding business environment and the internal factors affecting business.
Answer:
A business in order to remain successful and competitive has to adapt to the constantly changing environment. The significance of understanding the business environment is as follows:

Helps in formulating strategy and future planning.
The analysis of business environment helps a business to identify new opportunities.
Environment scanning helps the firms to identify threats which affect the business.

Internal factors of environment:

Value system: The success of an organisation depends upon the sharing of value system by all members.
Vision and objectives: The vision and objectives of a business guides its operations and strategic decisions.
Management structure: The structure of management/board and their style of functioning, the composition of the board.
Internal power relations: This refers to the internal power relations that exist in an organisation. The relations among board members, and the CEO and employees, shareholders are the factors affecting in taking decisions.

[OR]

(b) What is Voluntary Consumer Organisations? Explain its Functions.
Answer:
Voluntary consumer organisations refer to the organisation formed voluntarily by the consumers to protect their rights and interests.
Functions:

Collecting Data on Different Products: These organizations collect samples of different products from time to time and test them.
Filing Suit on Behalf of Consumers: If a consumer is not able to protest regarding his complaints, these organisations file case in the court, on behalf of a consumer.
Protests against Adulteration: The consumer organisations play a significant role in eliminating the evil of adulteration, hoarding, black-marketing.
Helping Educational Institutions: These organizations advice the educational institutions the way to prepare courses of study.
Extending Support to Government: Consumer organisations keep informing the government agencies about adulteration, artificial scarcity, inferior quality products.

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Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

November 6, 2023

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TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
How many times security can be sold in a secondary market?
(a) Only one time
(b) Two times
(c) Three times
(d) Multiple times
Answer:
(d) Multiple times

Question 2.
Debt Instruments are issued by Corporate Houses are raising short-term financial resources
from the money market are called ………………
(a) Treasury Bills
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Government Securities
Answer:
(b) Commercial Paper

Question 3.
The market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills of Exchange is known as a ……………
(a) Commercial Paper Market
(b) Treasury Bill Market
(c) Commercial Bill Market
(d) Capital Market
Answer:
(c) Commercial Bill Market

Question 4.
A bull operator believes in …………….
(a) Increase in Prices
(b) Decrease in Prices
(c) Stability in Prices
(d) No change in Prices
Answer:
(a) Increase in Prices

Question 5
means the price at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and made public…………….
(a) Market Quotations
(b) Trade Quotations
(c) Business Quotations
(d) Buyers Quotations
Answer:
(a) Market Quotations

Question 6.
Trading is dematerialized shares commenced on the NSE is ……………….
(a) January 1996
(b) June 1998
(c) December 1996
(d) December 1998.
Answer:
(c) December 1996

Question 7.
Transfer is an source of recruitment……………
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Outsourcing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Internal

Question 8.
Which of the following orders is followed in a typical selection process.
(а) Application form test and or interview, reference check and physical examination
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination
(c) Reference check, application form, test and interview and physical examination
(d) Physical examination test and interview application term and reference check
Answer:
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination

Question 9
…………….. is useful to prevent skill obsolescence of employees.
(a) Training
(b) Job Analysis
(c) Selection
(d) Recruitment
Answer:
(a) Training

Question 10.
Which one is the example of Intangible product?
(a) Education
(b) Mobiles
(c) Garments
(d) Vehicles
Answer:
(a) Education

Question 11.
A company’s products and prices is visually represented by ……………
(a) Shopping Cart
(b) Web portal
(c) Electronic catalogue
(d) Revenue model
Answer:
(c) Electronic catalogue

Question 12.
………….. of every year is declared as a consumer protection Day to educate the public about their rights and responsibilities.
(a) August 15
(b) April 15
(c) March 15
(d) September 15
Answer:
(c) March 15

Question 13.
It is the responsibility of a consumer that he must obtain ……………. as a proof for the purchase of goods.
(a) Cash receipt
(b) Warranty card
(c) Invoice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Invoice

Question 14.
The District Forum can entertain complaints where the value of goods or services and the compensation if any claimed is less than …………….
(a) Below ₹ 10,00,000
(b) Below ₹ 20,00,000
(c) Below ₹ 40,00,000
(d) Below ₹ 50,00,000
Answer:
(b) Below ₹ 20,00,000

Question 15.
……………. is a stipulation which is collateral to main purpose of contract.
(a) Warranty
(b) Condition
(c) Right
(d) Agreement
Answer:
(a) Warranty

Question 16.
When crossing restrict further negotiation ……………
(a) Not negotiable crossing
(b) General Crossing
(c) A/c payee crossing
(d) Special crossing
Answer:
(a) Not negotiable crossing

Question 17.
Which of the below is a commercial function?
(a) Accounting
(b) Coordination
(c) Discovery of idea
(d) Planning
Answer:
(a) Accounting

Question 18.
Poultry, Flowers, Fruits etc are called allied products of entrepreneur.
(a) Corporate
(b) Retail
(c) Trading
(d) Agricultural
Answer:
(d) Agricultural

Question 19.
…………… has to include the mechanism for managing venture in the project report.
(a) Banker
(b) Government
(c) Lending Institutions
(d) Entrepreneur
Answer:
(d) Entrepreneur

Question 20.
Specify the type of resolution to be passed to choose the location of Registered Office of the company within the town or village or city.
(a) Ordinary
(b) Special
(c) Either Ordinary or Special
(d) Board
Answer:
(d) Board

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
How do you co-ordinate your class room with peace?
Answer:
All the activities are divided groupwise or sectionwise under organising function. Now, such grouped activities are co-ordinated towards the accomplishment of objectives of a classroom. With the function of co-ordination the classroom must be peaceful and calm.

Question 22.
What are the instruments of Money Market?
Answer:

Treasury Bills in the Treasury Market
Money at Call and Short Notice in the Call Loan Market
Commercial Bills and Promissory Notes in the Bill Market

Now in addition to the above, the following new instruments come into existence:

Commercial Papers
Certificate of Deposits
Inter-Bank participation Certificates
Repo Instruments

Question 23.
What are the types of Speculators?
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types. They are named on the basis of animals behaviour. They are

Bull
Bear
Stag
Lame duck

Question 24.
Mention the headquarters of SEBI.
Answer:
SEBI has its headquarters at the business district of BandraKurla Complex in Mumbai, and has Northern, Eastern, Southern and Western Regional Offices in New Delhi,. Kolkata, Chennai and Ahmedabad, respectively.

Question 25.
What is Role Play?
Answer:
Under this method trainees are explained the situation and assigned roles. They have to act out the roles assigned to them without any rehearsal.

Question 26.
What is meant by Regulated Market?
Answer:
Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables etc., are called as very short period market.

Question 27.
What is Social Marketing?
Answer:
Social marketing is a new marketing tool. It is the systematic application of marketing philosophy and techniques to achieve specific behavioural goals which ensure social good. For example- not to smoke in public areas.

Question 28.
What is mixed Economy?
Answer:
Mixed economy is a combination of both state owned and private sector ownership.

Question 29.
What is a Contingent Goods?
Answer:
Contingent goods are the goods, the acquisition of which by the seller depends upon a . contingency (an event which may or may not happen). Contingent goods are a part of future goods.

Question 30.
Define Intrapreneur.
Answer:
Intrapreneur is one who thinks and acts like an entrepreneur for the firm’s development during the course of employment in an organisation.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
State the importance of Motivation.
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader. The workers expect, favourable climate conditions to work, fair treatment, monetary or non-monetary incentive, effective communication and gentleman approach.

Question 32.
Write a note on National Clearance and Depository System (NCDS).
Answer:
Under the scripless trading system, settlement of transactions relating to securities takes place through a book entry. The entire scripless trading system comprises the following three segments:

National Trade Comparison and Reporting System which prescribes the terms and conditions of contract for the securities market.
National Clearing System which aims at determining the net cash and stock liability of each broker on a settlement date.
National Depository System which arranges to provide for the transfer of ownership of securities in exchange on payment by book entry on electronic ledgers without any physical movement of transfer deed.

Question 33.
What is the power of SEBI under securities Contract Act?
Answer:

For effective regulation of stock exchange, the Ministry of Finance issued a Notification on 13 September, 1994 delegating several of its powers under the Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act to SEBI.
SEBI is also empowered by the Finance Ministry to nominate three members on the Governing Body of every stock exchange.

Question 34.
What are the features of internal source of recruitment?
Answer:
The main features of internal source of recruitment are:

Quick process.
Cheaper than the external recruitment process.
Works as a tool of motivation for the staff.
The company’s choice is limited to existing employees of the company.

Question 35.
Why Customer support is needed to Market?
Answer:
Customer or the consumer is the king and is considered to be a guest to your shop. Without the customer there is no business. To develop the market the number of customer is to be increased. So customer support is necessary to increase the sales and gain more profit.

Question 36.
What is the role of Government in Consumer Protection?
Answer:
Since most of consumers including academically educated are illiterate about their rights and hence passive. Government should assure an active role in safeguarding the consumers. Government both the central and the state have brought out a number of legislations to protect the interest of consumers across the country. Law enforcement authorities should see that penal clause is not mere paper jaws-they should sting the offenders mercilessly.

Question 37.
What are the functions of the GST Council?
Answer:
The functions of GST Council:

The GST council can recommend to the Central and State Government on issues relating to GST.
The Goods and Services that may be subjected to or exempted from the Goods and Services Tax.
Model GST laws, principles of levy are framed by the GST council.
The rates including floor rates with bands of Goods and Services Tax.

Question 38.
Discuss the two different types of Crossing.
Answer:
(i) General Crossing
(ii) Special Crossing

General Crossing: “Where a cheque bears across its face an addition of the words “ an company” or any abbreviation there of, between to parallel transverse lines or of two parallel transverse line simply either with or without the words “Not negotiable” that addition shall be deemed a crossing and the cheque shall be deemed to be crossed generally”.
Special Crossing: “ Where a cheque bears across its face an addition of the name of a banker with or without the words “Not Negotiable”, that addition shall be deemed a crossing and the cheque shall be deemed to be crossed specially and to be crossed to that banker”.

Question 39.
How does a professional entrepreneur operate?
Answer:
Professional entrepreneur is one who is having a rich expertise in starting a venture but lack interest in continuing the venture as a manager or as a owner. He/she simply sells out the venture started by him to someone else after its successful take-off.

Question 40.
What resolution is requires special notice?
Answer:
There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting. The intention to propose any resolution must be notified to the company. The following matters require special notice before they are discussed in the meeting:-

To appoint an auditor, a person other than a retiring auditor
To provide expressly that a retiring Auditor shall not be reappointed
To remove a director before the expiry of his period of office
To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the various types of Financial markets?
Answer:
Financial assets can be classified differently under different circumstances. One such classification is:
(i) Marketable assets
(ii) Non-marketable assets
(i) Marketable Assets: Marketable assets are those which can be easily transferred from one person to another without much hindrance. Example: Shares of Listed Companies, Government Securities, Bonds of Public Sector Undertakings etc.

(ii) Non-Marketable Assets: On the other hand, if the assets cannot be transferred easily, they come under this category. Example: Bank Deposits, Provident Funds, Pension Funds, National Savings Certificates, Insurance Policies etc.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the importance of Recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of having the right person, in the right place, at the right time. It is crucial to organisational performance. Recruitment is the first step in an organisation’s Human Resource Planning. It fulfills the organisation’s need of a set of competitive, motivated and flexible employees who work towards achieving the organisation’s objectives.

Competent Human Resources at the right positions are crucial for the organisation and constitute core competency. Recruitment helps in creating a pool of prospective employees for the organisation, so that the right candidates for the right jobs can be selected from this pool. It establishes a link between the job seekers and employers.

Proper recruitment enables the organisation to appoint talented persons for various activities, thereby leading to improved productivity and profitability of the organisation. Unless a company adopts a suitable recruitment policy, it may not be possible for a company to have right candidates for right job.

Question 42.
(a) State the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

Goods produced may be stored till the time of demand. Hence the goods are stored in warehouses.
Also the goods are stored till the goods have good quality.
Warehouses create time utility by storing the goods throughout the year and release them as and when they are needed.

Several types of warehouses are used for storing of goods. They are as follows:

Public warehouse
Private warehouse
Bonded warehouse.

[OR]

(b) What are the objectives of United Nations guidelines for consumer protection?
Answer:
The General Assembly of the United Nations passed a Resolution on April 9, 1985 adopting a set of guidelines for consumer protection to persuade the member countries.
Objectives of United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection:

To assist countries in achieving or maintaining protection to consumers.
To facilitate production and distribution patterns responsive to the needs and desires of consumers.
To encourage high levels of ethical conduct for production and distribution of goods and services to consumers.
To facilitate the developing of independent consumer groups.
To encourage the development of market conditions which provide consumers with greater choice at lower prices.

Question 43.
(a) How to create Consumer awareness?
Answer:
The first priority of a consumer organisation is to increase consumer awareness towards their rights. The following are the points for awareness:

To publish brochures, journals and monographs.
To arrange conferences, seminars and workshops.
To educate consumers to help themselves.
To provide special education to women about consumerism.

(b) Explain in detail the various functions of an entrepreneur?
Answer:
The functions of an entrepreneur is divided into
(a) Promotional functions
(b) Managerial functions and
(c) Commercial functions.

(a) Promotional functions
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(b) Managerial functions

Planning: In this function, the entrepreneur has to lay down the objectives, goals, vision, mission, policies, procedures, programmes, budget, schedules etc., for enabling the venture to proceed towards established destinations.

Directing: In this function, the entrepreneur has to motivate, lead, guide and communicate with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.

Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development.

Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business.

Question 44.
(a) What is the maximum limit for the Managerial remuneration?
Answer:
Managerial Remuneration: The Managerial remuneration is payable to a person’s appointed u/s 196 of the Act. The Term remuneration means any money or its equivalent given for their services.

Adequate profits: A Public Company can pay remuneration to its directors including Managing Director and Whole-time Directors, and its managers which shall not exceed 11% of the net profit. Maximum Remuneration Payable by a Company to its Managerial Personnel – No adequate Profits:

Remuneration Payable by a company in case where there is no profit or inadequacy of profit and remuneration payable is detailed below:

	Where Effective Capital is	Limit of yearly Remuneration payable shall not exceed (Rupees)
(i)	less than ₹ 5 Crore	₹ 30 lakh
(ii)	Above ₹ 5 Crore and less than ₹ 100 Crore	₹ 42 lakh
(iii)	₹ 5 Crore and above but less than ₹ 100 Crore	₹ 60 lakh
(iv)	₹ 250 Crore and above	₹ 60 lakh plus 9.91% of the effective capital in excess of ₹ 250 Crore

[OR]

(b) Explain different types of open and secret types of voting.
Answer:
The word ‘Vote’ originated from Latin word ‘Votum’ indicating one’s wishes or desire. He can vote formally by expressing his opinion or wish in favour or against a proposal.
Types of Voting: There are two methods of voting viz, open and secret procedures.
(i) Open Voting: This type of voting has no secrecy as all the members assembled can see voting. There are two types of open voting namely voice voting and voting by show of hands.

By Voice: Voice voting is a popular type of voting in which the chairman allows the members to raise their voice in favour or against an issue ‘Yes’ for approval and ‘No’ for rejection.
By Show of Hands: Under this method, the chairman requests the members to raise
their hands for the proposal.

(ii) Secret Procedure: Secret procedure is adopted to decide certain vital issues. It may be of two types:

By Ballot: Under this system, ballot paper bearing serial number is given to the members to record their opinion by marking with the symbol.
Postal Ballot: Big companies or big associations having members scattered all over the country follow this method of voting. Under this method, the members or voters fill in the ballot papers sent by the company and return them in sealed covers.

Question 45.
(a) Distinguish between the rural and Urban entrepreneur?
Answer:

S. No.	Rural Entrepreneur	Urban Entrepreneur
1.	It refers to the person who starts business in rural areas.	It refers to the person who commences business in urban areas.
2.	These entrepreneurs start doing business in the villages and small towns.	They will do their business in state capital, towns, district headquarters, municipalities, etc.
3.	They may be agricultural and trading entrepreneurs.	They may be industrial or corporate entrepreneur.
4.	The availability of material and labour is easy. So the cost of operation tends to be low.	The availability of material and labour may be difficult. So the cost of operation may be high.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of modern management.
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr.Henry Fayol, and according to him there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organisation.

(i) Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks. This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.

(ii) Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.

(iii) Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc.
It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organizations.

(iv) Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.

(v) Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.

(vi) Subordination of Individual Interest to Mutual Interest: The management must put aside personal considerations and put company objectives firstly.

(vii) Remuneration: Workers must be paid sufficiently as this is a chief motivation of employees and therefore greatly influences productivity.

(viii) The Degree of Centralization: The amount of power wielded with the central management depends on company size.

(ix) Line of Authority/Scalar Chain: This refers to the chain of superiors ranging from top management to the lowest rank.

(x) Order: Social order ensures the fluid operation of a company through authoritative procedure.

(xi) Equity: Employees must be treated kindly, and justice must be enacted to ensure a just
workplace.

(xii) Stability of Tenure of Personnel: Stability of tenure of personnel is a principle stating that in order for an organisation to run smoothly, personnel (especially managerial personnel) must not frequently enter and exit the organisation.

(xiii) Initiative: Using the initiative of employees can add strength and new ideas to an organisation.

(xiv) Esprit de Corps/Team Spirit: This refers to the need of managers to ensure and develop morale in the workplace; individually and communally.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the characteristics of Money Market?
Answer:
(i) Short-term Funds: It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.
(ii) Maturity Period: It deals with financial assets having a maturity period upto one year only.
(iii) Conversion of Cash: It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost.
(iv) No Formal Place: Generally, transactions take place through phone, i.e., oral communication. Relevant documents and written communications can be exchanged subsequently.
(v) Sub-markets: It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises of several sub-markets ‘ each specialising in a particular type of financing.
(vi) Role of Market: The components of a money market are the Central Bank, Commercial Banks. Commercial banks generally play a dominant role in this market.
(vii) Highly Organized Banking System: The Commercial Banks are the nerve centre of the whole money market. They are the principal suppliers of short-term funds.

(viii) Existence of Secondary Market: There should be an active secondary market for these instruments. (be) Demand and Supply of Funds: There should be a large demand and supply of short-term funds.
(ix) Wholesale Market: It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the market is very large.
(xi) Flexibility: Due to greater flexibility in the regulatory framework, there are constant endeavours for introducing new instruments.
(xii) Presence of a Central Bank: The central bank keeps their cash reserves and provides them financial accommodation in difficulties by discounting their eligible securities.

[OR]

(b) What are the difference between on the job training and off the job training?
Answer:

	Basis for comparison	On the Job Training	Off the Job Training
1.	Meaning	The employee learns the job in the actual work environment.	The training of employees is done outside the actual work place.
2.	Cost	It is cheapest to carry out.	It is costly due to the expenses like separate training room, specialist, etc.
3.	Suitable for	Suitable for manufacturing related jobs.	It is suitable for managerial jobs.
4.	Approach	Practical approach	Theoretical approach
5.	Carried out	Provided by the experienced employee	Provided by the experts
6.	Methods	Coaching, mentoring, apprenticeship, job rotation	Seminar, lectures, vestibule, field trip, e-leaming

Question 47.
(a) How the market can be classified? On the basis of different approaches markets can be classified as follows:
Answer:
On the basis of Geographical Area:

Family Market
Local Market
National Market
International Market or World Market

On the Basis of Commodities / Goods:
(a) Commodity Market:

Produce Exchange Market
Manufactured Goods Market
Bullion Market

(b) Capital Market:

Money Market
Foreign Exchange Market
The Stock Market

On the Basis of Economics:

Perfect Market
Imperfect Market

On the Basis of Transaction:

Spot Market
Future market

On the Basis of Regulation:

Regulated Market
Unregulated Market

On the Basis of Time:

Very Short Period Market
Short Period Market
Long Period Market

On the Basis of Volume of Business:

Wholesale Market
Retail Market

On the Basis of Importance:

Primary Market
Secondary Market
Terminal Market

[OR]

(b) Explain the role of consumers in consumer protection.
Answer:
Consumers have to be vigilant and organise themselves into a movement for concerned action.
Activation of Consumer Action Councils:

Consumer action councils established at village levels should educate consumers.
Consumer protection agencies should take necessary steps to investigate consumer complaints and grievances.
Voluntary consumer groups should provide information so as to educate consumers.
Consumer cooperatives need to be strengthened.
Consumer groups should contact the legislators to raise the consumer issue in Assembly and Parliament.
There should be testing laboratories at each district to test the purity of goods.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 2

November 5, 2023

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 2

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
I scraped the ice off the gauges.
(a) applied (b) saw (c) scratched (d) melted
Answer:
(c) scratched

Question 2.
We hoisted our oxygen gear on to our backs.
(a) dropped (b) swayed (c) hauled (d) hooked up
Answer:
(c) hauled

Question 3.
Liberty is a social contract.
(a) contact (b) confront (c) encounter (d) agreement
Answer:
(d) agreement

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
There was a curious smothering noise from my friend.
(a) expressed (b) smoothened (c) smoothened (d) suffocated
Answer:
(a) expressed

Question 5.
The serenity was much admired.
(a) calmness (b) tranquillity (c) surrender (d) bustle
Answer:
(d) bustle

Question 6.
One can swallow considerable quantities without ill-effects.
(a) significant (b) sizeable (c) partly (d) large
Answer:
(c) partly

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘Tax payer’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Noun (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Noun

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of IMP.
(a) Indian Maritime Department (b) India Meteorological Device (c) Indian Meteorological Department (d) India Meteorological Department
Answer:
(d) India Meteorological Department

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
At the meeting, the professors were schmoozing with the president of the club.
(a) talking in a friendly manner (b) brainstorming (c) gossiping (d) fighting
Answer:
(a) talking in a friendly manner

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word Interpol.
(a) Inter + Pol (b) India + Police (c) International + Police (d) Inter + Pal
Answer:
(c) International + Police

Question 11.
Choose die clipped word for gymnasium.
(a) gymum (b) gymna (c) gin (d) gym
Answer:
(d) gym

Question 12.
A strong desire to pen poetry is known as ……………….. .
(a) calligraphy (b) metromania (c) melodrama (d) decathlon
Answer:
(b) metromania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word ‘suspecting’.
(a) re- (b) im- (c) un- (d) mis-
Answer:
(c) un-

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
It was Ausable …………………….. closed the door behind him.
(a) who (b) whose (c) whom (d) which
Answer:
(a) who

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
There was a delay before we went ………………………. the tunnel.
(a) across (b) above (c) into (d) through
Answer:
(d) through

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement. It’s not hot today ………………………..?
(a) is it (b) was it (c) will it (d) won’t it
Answer:
(a) is it

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
Hari had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples and oranges.
(a) similar (b) cannot be compared (c) comparing with fruits (d) was hungry
Answer:
(b) cannot be compared

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative. Surya was lazy.
(a) motivational (b) emotional (c) motivationally deficient (d) sensitive
Answer:
(c) motivationally deficient

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence. He smiled uncomfortably.
(a) SVO (b) SVIODO (c) SVCA (d) SVA
Answer:
(d) SVA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb. The lorry was going slowly, blocking our way, but we managed to ……………………….
(a) pull ahead (b) pull through (c) pull towards (d) pull behind
Answer:
(a) pull ahead

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Oh then our maze of tunneled stone ‘
Grew thin and treacherous as air”
(a) What is the figure of speech in the first line?
(b) Mention the poetic device employed in the second line.
Answer:
(a) The figure of speech in the first line is metaphor.
(b) Simile is the poetic device employed in the second line.

Question 22.
“One equal temper of heroic hearts,
Made weak by time and fate, but strong in will To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield”
(а) Though made weak by time and fate, the hearts are heroic. Explain.
(b) Pick out the words in alliteration in the above lines.
Answer:
(a) Ulysses and his compatriots might have become old and may not have the same strength they had in youth. But they still share the thirst for travel and pursuit of knowledge in the unexplored world. Their bravery and spiritual strength are intact. .
(b) Strive, seek, heroic, hearts are the words that alliterate.

Question 23.
“Atfirst the infant,
Mewling and puking in the nurse’s arms.”
(а) What does man do in the first stage of life?
(b) Explain, ‘Mewling and pucking’.
Answer:
(a) In the first stage of life man plays the role of an infant. He is always crying and vomiting in the nurse’s arms.
(b) It means crying and vomiting.

Question 24.
“ What is that dirge-like murmur that I hear Like the sea breaking on a shingle-beach?
It is the tree’s lament, an eerie speech,”
(а) What do you mean by dirge?
(b) Why does the tree lament?
Answer:
(a) ‘Dirge’ means a lament for the dead.
(b) The tree laments the absence of the poet.

Question 25.
“The Chief’s eye flashed; his plans Soared up again like fire.”
(а) Who is described as the chief?
(b) Identify the figure of speech employed.
Answer:
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte is described as the chief.
(b) Simile.

Question 26.
“and guide him among sudden betrayals and tighten him for slack moments
(a) What could guide the son among unexpected betrayals?
(b) What could happen to the boy during slack moments?
Answer:
(a) Rock/steel-like would guide the son among betrayals.
(b) During slack moments, the boy may be betrayed by his trusted friends.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Padma : Did you see the dentist last week?
Devi : No, I will be seeing the dentist next week.
Padma asked Devi if she had seen the dentist the previous week. Devi said that she had not and that she would be seeing the dentist the following week.

Question 28.
She must buy a ticket. Otherwise she will not be allowed to watch the programme, (combine using if)
Answer:
If she does not buy a ticket, she will not be allowed to watch the programme.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If I had been there, this problem wouldn’t have happened.
Answer:
Had I been there, this problem wouldn’t have happened.

Question 30.
Though Andrew has an unconventional swing, he manages to drive the ball farther than some professional golfers. (Change the following into a compound sentence)
Answer:
Andrew has an unconventional swing but he manages to drive the ball farther than some professional golfers.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Our only enemy was gold
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.

Context: The helpless soldier says this while being surprised by the enemies who bribed the wicked wicket gate keeper.

Explanation: The soldier was initially proud of their fortified castle, brave and loyal soldiers and pile of arms and the well-stocked granary to last a siege. There was vigil behind the turret wall. But he was not aware of the enemy within the human soul: the greed. Gold was their enemy for which they had no weapon. The wizened warder had let the enemy in through the wicket gate by taking “gold”. The weakness of the gatekeeper for gold made the strong castle weak.

Question 32.
How dull it is to pause, to make an end,
To rust unburnished, not to shine in use!
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.

Context: The poet says these words while discussing the mental agony of Ulysses who is unable to settle down with his ageing wife Penelope and son Telemachus.

Explanation: Ulysses finds doling out justice to a savage people as ‘boring’. He does not want to settle down and die in Ithaca. He compares himself to a sword which may rust if left unused. He wants to lead an active and adventurous life till his death.

Question 33.
“‘I’m killed, Sire! ’And, his Chief beside,
Smiling, the boy fell dead.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Contex: The poet says these words while explaining the hurt reaction of the boy-soldier.

Explanation: Instead of being carried away for first aid, he hurried on horse back to communicate the news of conquest of Ratisbon despite his chest being split into two. When emperor Napoleon expressed his grief on his wounded status, the boy soldier said, “Nay I’m killed sire.”

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What made the boys join the resistance movement against the Germans?
Answer:
The boys hated the Germans who had destroyed their town and killed their father. So, they joined the resistance movement against the Germans.

Question 35.
Elucidate the author’s ideas about teapots.
Answer:
The teapot should be made of China or earthen ware. Silver or Britannia ware teapot produce inferior quality tea. Enamel pots are worse. Though curiously enough a pewter teapot, a rarity nowadays, is not so bad.

Question 36.
How were the achievers welcomed by fellow climbers?
Answer:
Two figures came towards them a couple of hundred feet about their camp. They were George Lowe and Wilfrid Noyce, and it was thoughtful of them because Hillary’s oxygen ran out just then.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow. Expenditure in book Publishing
(a) For what does the publisher spend the maximum while publishing a book?
(b) How much expenditure is incurred on printing?
(c) How much percent royalty goes to the author?
Answer:
(a) A publisher spends the maximum in binding the books.
(b) Twenty five percent of the expenditure is incurred on printing.
(c) The royalty for the author is 15%.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a Teacher and a student.
Answer:
Teacher : Why are you late today?
Student: I went to hospital with my mother.
Teacher : Who is sick?
Student: My mother is down with a viral infection.
Teacher : Couldn’t your father accompany her to the hospital?
Student: I am afraid that there wasn’t any alternative as my father was out of station.

Question 39.
Describe the process of making bricks.
Answer:

In the first stage, the raw material clay is dug from the soil by a digger and lumps of clay are placed on a metal grid and broken into smaller pieces, which fall through a roller.
They are later mixed with sand and water to make a uniform mixture.
Brick-shaped pieces are subsequently formed either by using a mould or by cutting the clay mix with a wire cutter.
The raw bricks are then hardened, stacked in a drying oven and left for one or two days. The dried bricks are finally heated in a kiln, first to a moderate temperature and then to a high temperature.
They are finally transferred to a chamber to cool and harden slowly over two to three days before being transported to customers.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) When in Rome as Romans do. (do, act, behave)
(b) A leopard can’t change its (tail, nature, spots)
(c) A burnt child fire, (fears, dreads, hates)
Answer:
(a) do (b) spots (c) dreads

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Adversity brings out the best as well as the worst in people. Elucidate this statement with reference to the story, ‘Two Gentlemen of Verona’.
Answer:
Whenever confronted by an adversity, there is a psychological reaction among most of us. Either fight or flee from it. Even adults run away from crisis and seek asylum or support of others. We find hordes of people, when living becomes difficult, migrate to other places to survive. In the face of adversity, even educated people turn to evil ways. They worked hard from dawn to midnight. They did any job that came their way. They shined shoes, hawked newspapers, sold wild fruits and took the people round the city.

They spent very little on their food and clothes. Every week they cycled to Poleta and paid Lucia’s medical bill systematically. In this story, the nurse of the private hospital reveals the bitter truth about the economy of Verona. Jobs are scarce. There is inflation. It is difficult to buy food with limited money. When the hospital laid the condition that the little boys Nicola and Jacopo should pay the weekly medical bill for their sister Lucia’s treatment for tuberculosis, they did not back off or give up. Their best qualities came out during adversity. Like tea leaves, they gave their best while in hot waters.

[OR]

‘There is no height, no depth that the spirit of man, guided by higher Spirit cannot attain’. Discuss the above statement in the context of the achievement of Edmund Hillary and Tenzing.
Answer:
Man is naturally endowed with an indomitable spirit. Guided by powers above, man reaches great height. The grit and persistence of both Hillary and Tenzing stand testimony to the above maxim. The conditions were really overwhelming. Hillary slipped many times. Once he even sought the advisability of continuing the climb under such conditions. But Tenzing and Hillary resolved to persist and conquer the peak. As a reward to 400 feet climb near the south summit, they got two bottles of oxygen which in fact kept them alive almost up to their base camp.

Both pick up the pieces of hopes only when they come into contact with firmer rock-like ice as they moved up. Though they had to inch their way up clearing snow with the ice-axe and making a path to haul themselves up ridge after ridge in the elusive terrain, they did not give up. As Hillary’s ice-axe bit into the first steep slop of the ridge, his hopes were realized. The snow was crystalline and firm. With just two or three blows, Hillary could make a step large enough for their oversized high altitude boots.

They could create comfortable belays and trudge forward with confidence. As the humps were continuously seen, their original zest started declining. It was at this point Hillary saw a narrow ridge up to a snowy summit. With a few more whacks of the ice-axe in the form of snow, they reached the top.

Question 42.
Why did the narrator say that their “only enemy was gold”?
Answer:
The narrator was very proud of the awe-inspiring castle. The soldiers were least bothered about the enemy who was just half a mile away. They had a well -guarded, tall, smooth and insurmountable fort. They were led by a brave captain. The soldiers were loyal and ready to lay down their lives for protecting the castle and the trusting citizens of their country. There was constant vigil from the turret wall to shoot down the enemy at sight.

They were proud that only a bird could have the temerity to scale over the fortified castle. They were even prepared for a siege as they had well-stocked granaries. In the event of the outbreak of a war, allies were ready to rush with their assured forces in support of them. But the soldiers were unaware of the truth, “the strength of the strongest chain lies in its weakest link”. An aged warder of a wicked wicket gate had a cancerous growth of greed.

As the enemy was hidden within the soul of their own citizen, they had no weapon to fight it. Gold was ultimately their enemy. The wicked gate keeper betrayed his country for a bag full of gold. The great citadel fell without even a groan of protest and without shedding “a jot of blood.”

[OR]

Napoleon was a great source of inspiration to his army Justify.
Answer:
Napoleon was a powerful orator and was able to muster the support of young soldiers who could gladly throw away their lives for the glory of France and for fulfilling the ambitious plans of territorial expansion of Napoleon Bonaparte. He inspired unprecedented courage among the soldiers.

They never worried about the strength of the enemy army or their pile of armaments. They faced the battles with the single minded determination to ‘do or die’ or do and die. They kissed death for the glorification of France and for making Napoleon proud of their heroism, sacrifices and patriotism.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Martha and John – grudge – underpaid two decades – punishment – condemned the bribe – abusive language – one hundred thousand dollars – changed attitude – testify – three words – corrupt practices.
Answer:
Martha and John cherished a grudge against Gresham for having underpaid Baldwin for about two decades. They openly said that he deserved punishment. Initially Gresham condemned the bribe claimed as a difference in salary paid. Had he been made a similar offer he claimed he would have asked him to go to the devil. Baldwin said that having been a friend he couldn’t use such an abusive language. Casually John asked how much he offered.

Baldwin said that it was one hundred thousand dollars. Suddenly Martha and John changed their attitude towards Gresham. John viewed a shame if Gresham got indicted because he shared his name. Martha also desperately tried to convince him not to testify against Gresham. John even suggested that he could say those three words “I don’t remember” as the depositor would not lose a cent. Baldwin felt miserable because the family members who he wanted to feel proud of his uprightness wanted him to crossover to the side of corrupt practices because of the generous offer made by Gresham.

[OR]

Atisable, private detective-automatic gun – Berlin – nice story – balcony – displeasure – hotel management – Ausable’s room – times of danger – pre-ordered drinks – blatant – lie – Max jumped – suicidal jump – outwitted the spy.
Answer:
Ausable was a shrewd private detective. He did not become panicky on seeing Max with an automatic gun in his room. Even if he were, he did not show it off. Instead, he expressed surprise that he expected him to be in Berlin. He cooked up a nice story that it was the second time someone had broken into his room through the balcony of the neighbouring apartment which reaches down under his window.

He expressed his displeasure that he would raise hell with the hotel management for not blocking that balcony. This gave a strong suggestion to Max, that he could have used the balcony instead of the pass key to enter Ausable’s room. Being a criminal or spy, a person always looks for various routes of escape in times of danger. Very rarely he starts direct encounter risking his life. When Henry, the waiter who arrived with the pre-ordered drinks, knocked, Mr. Ausable simply smiled.

When Max asked who it was, he told a blatant lie that it was the police who had come for his extra protection and wouldn’t hesitate to fire as the door wasn’t locked but just closed. Max, assuming that there is a balcony extending below Ausable’s window, jumped. He never knew that it was a suicidal jump from the sixth floor. Thus, Ausable outwitted the spy, Max.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
Residents of the Bhirung Raut Ki Gali, where Ustad Bishmillah Khan was bom on March 21,1916, were in a state of shock. His cousin, 94-year -old Mohd Idrish Khan had tears welled up in his eyes. Shubhan Khan, the care-taker of Bismillah’s land, recalled “Whenever in Dumaraon, he would give rupees two to the boys and rupees five to the girls of the locality”. He was very keen to play Shehnai again in the local Bihariji’s Temple where he had started playing Shehnai with his father, Bachai Khan, at the age of six.

His original name was Quamaruddin and became Bishmillah only after he became famous as a Shehnai player in Varanasi. His father Bachai Khan was the official Shehnai player of Keshav Prasad Singh, the Maharaja of the erstwhile Dumaraon estate, Bismillah used to accompany him. For Bismillah Khan, the connection to music began at a very early age. By his teens, he had already become a master of the Shehnai. On the day India got freedom, Bismillah Khan, then a sprightly young man of 31 years old, had the rare honour of playing from Red Fort.

But Bishmillah Khan won’t just be remembered for elevating the Shehnai from an installment heard only in weddings and Naubatkhanas to one that was appreciated in concert halls globally across the world. His life was a witness to the plurality that is India. A practicing Muslim, he would take a daily dip in River Ganges in his younger days after a bout of kusti in Benia Baga Akhada. Every morning, Bismillah Khan would do riyaaz at the Balaji temple on the banks of the river. Even during his final hours in a Varanasi hospital, music didn’t desert Bismillah Khan.

A few hours before he left this worldly home early on Monday, the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri to show that he was feeling better. This was typical of a man for whom life revolved around music. Throughout his life, he abided by the principle that all religions are one and the same. What marked Bismillah Khan was his simplicity and disregard for the riches that come with musical fame. Till the very end, he used a cycle rickshaw to travel around Varanasi. But the pressure of providing for some 60 family members took its toll during his later years.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 388
No. of words to be written in the summary: 388/3 = 129 ± 5

Rough Draft
Residents of the Bhirung Raut Ki Gali were shocked, where Ustad Bismillah Khan was born on March 21, 1916. Subhan Khan recalled that in Dumaraon, he would give Rs.2/- and 5/- to boys and girls respectively. He wanted to play Shehnai in Bihariji’s Temple to recall his childhood days withhls-Tather, Bachai Khan. His original name was Quamaruddin and became Bishmillah as a Shehnai player in varanasi. His father was the official Shehnai player of the Maharaja of Dumaraon estate. On the day India got freedom, 31 year old Bismillah, had the rare honour of playing from Red Fort.

He was appreciated globally. His life was a witness to the plurality that is India. A few hours before he died the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri, typical of a man whose life revolved around music. Throughout his life, he abided by the principle that all religions are one and the same. His simplicity and disregard for the riches in spite of being famous was seen in his cycle rickshaw rides.

Fair Draft: Bismillah Khan – A Legend
Residents were shocked about Bishmillah Khan’s demise. Tears welled in an aged cousin. Shubhan recalled his generosity to children. Quamaruddin became Bishmillah as a Shehnai player and wanted to play in Bihariji’s Temple to recall his childhood days with his father, the official Shehnai player of Dumaraon. Bismillahmastered it during teenage. On the day of Independence, young Bismillah, played from Red Fort and appreciated globally.

He was a witness to the plurality in India. Being Muslim, he would dip in River Ganges and do riyaaz at the Balaji temple. During his final hours, the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri, typical of a man whose life revolved around music. Throughout he believed that all religions were same. His disregard for riches was seen in his cycle rickshaw rides but providing for his family took its toll.

No. of words in the summary: 133

[OR]
Notes
Title: Bismillah Khan – A Legend
1. Shocked Death

cousin Khan in tears
caretaker of Dumaraon recalls
Boys – Rs. 21- to boys ; Girls – Rs. 5/-

2. Early Years

org. name Quamaruddin
played shehnai with father at temp.
got famous as Bismillah at Varanasi.

3. Music, a family heritage

father: Dumarao’s court poet
played Shehnai from 6 yrs.
played Shehnai at Red Fort in 1947, age 31

4. Routine in Vans.

dip in Ganges
riyaz at Balaji Temp.
Hummed thumri before his last breath.

5. Strong Belief in Secularism

Bismillah bel. in secularism
all religions are one and same
a plurality of life, India
Pract Islam

Abbreviations used: Rs – rupees; Org. – original; Temp. – temple; Yrs. – years; Fml. – family Mem. – member; Pract. – Practised; Bel. – believed.

Question 45.
You are Raja. You are upset about the bad influence of TY channels on the young children. Write a letter to the editor of a leading newspaper suggesting measures to upgrade the standard.
Answer:
20th Sept, 2020
From
XXX
YYY
zzz

To
The Mayor,
Municipal Corporation,
Chennai-600012.

Sir,
Sub: Provision for additional street lamps.
This is to bring to your notice that there is provision bf just one street light in every street on YYY Nagar in ZZZ locality. It is very scary to walk on the road as there are empty lands here and there with plants and bushes grown robustly. As a result, we have insects and snakes that come out of its shelter in search of food in the nights. There is also the problem of chain snatching. Additional lights will help us to walk safe in the locality.

We thereby request you to look into the matter, make provisions for additional lamp posts and also change the tube lights that aren’t working.

Thank you,

Yours faithfully,
XXX

Address on the envelope
To
The Mayor,
Municipal Corporation
Chennai- 600012

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Common Man’s Woes During Monsoon”.
Answer:
Common Man’s Woes During Monsoon

The much anticipated Monsoon brings relief from the sweltering heat. However Monsoon and madness visit us at the same time. Every year during the monsoons, pandemonium rules supreme. The roads are flooded; the sewage system falls; a huge loss of crops, fruits, life, and property is caused. Water logging and breeding of mosquitoes together becomes the reason for the rise of many diseases. Network connectivity gets weak.

Though we have benefitted from independence since 1947, the Indian Government has not been able to tackle the flood issues caused by monsoons. Recent floods have laid bare the emptiness of the claims of the civic authorities of their readiness. The poor had to bear the brunt of the problem.

One of the main causes behind this issue is the lack of stringent laws and accountability of the officials and the Ministries responsible for tackling the floods. The Government should formulate and pass strict laws regarding the projects launched to relieve people of their distress but there is hardly a sign of effective implementation of the scheme. There needs to be strict accountability.

When the Ministers will be accountable, they will ensure the officers, officials involved in the projects surely create better systems benefitting the public.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(а) Mr. Johnson with his wife and children were present at the show.
(b) The quality of goods produced here are not upto the international standard.
(c) The prices quoted for this commodity at different shops is different.
(d) Either Sanjay or Raja are responsible for this crime.
(e) Bread and butter are his lunch.
Answer:
(a) Mr. Johnson along with his wife and children were present at the show.
(b) The quality of goods produced here is not up to the international standard.
(c) The price quoted for this commodity at different shops is different.
(d) Either Sanjay or Raja is responsible for this crime.
(e) Bread and butter is his lunch.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) Her baby is ………………. in December when the ………………. on the grass will be a rare sight to see. (dew/due)
(b) When I was young, I ………………. eat tons of ice cream! (use a modal verb)
(c) I ………………. drink coffee when I was young, (use a semi-modal)
(d) We ………………. (eat) the lasagna here, (use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) due/dew
(b) could
(c) used to
(d) have eaten

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the field in the list given below, by understanding the word or words serving as the clue.
(a) Sometimes A-class facilities are extended to even those imprisoned.
(b) Did an asteroid hit south India millions of years ago?
(c) The investigations included megascopic and microscopic studies of rocks.
(d) Many foreigners come to watch Jallikatu at Madurai.
(e) The rapid depletion in indigenous aquatic plants would prove detrimental to wetlands.
[Astronomy; Law; Flora; Geology; Sports]
Answer:
(a) Law
(b) Astronomy
(c) Geology
(d) Sports
(e) Flora

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.
Answer:
The little boy of twelve will remember this day forever. It is not every day you get to see a world championship at Hyatt Regency on November 19, 20Question 13. The visit of the Children was the result of an initiative by the organizers of the tournament and the School education Department to get school Children by a part of the world championship. Many children from schools gathered to witness the ongoing world Championship and there was an overwhelming response.

Children got a chance to see Viswanathan Anand, Garry Kasparov, Magnus Carlsen and Vijayalakshmi. The entry being free, Children found it a rare and unforgettable opportunity. Student visitors were given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest. No wonder the visitors would be hailed heroes in their schools after their visit to the spot. Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby, thereby founding that the city of Chennai would produce many masters of chess dazzling with intelligence and talent.

Questions:
a. What made the day memorable for children?
b. Name any two celebrities mentioned in the passage.
c. Mention the purpose for which the visit of the children had been organized.
d. Which places were the student visitors permitted in to?
e. How did the children try to prove their powers and interest in the game?
Answers:
(a) World Championship at Hyatt made the day memorable for children.
(b) Children got a chance to see Viswanathan Anand and Garry Kasparov.
(c) The children from many schools were brought to witness the ongoing world Championship in Chess.
(d) The children were permitted into the Hyatt Regency lobby.
(e) Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby. Student visitors were also given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest.

Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1

November 5, 2023

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises of four parts.
You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
We may choose to be wise or ridiculous.
(a) funny (b) earnest (c) critical (d) serious
Answer:
(a) funny

Question 2.
Tenzing kicked steps in a long traverse.
(a) vertical movement (b) diving (c) jumping (d) crisscross
Answer:
(d) crisscross

Question 3.
Suffering ennobles you.
(a) destroys (b) dignifies (c) distresses (d) encourages
Answer:
(b) dignifies

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
Liberties of everybody must be curtailed.
(a) restricted (b) reduced (c) constrained (d) increased
Answer:
(d) increased

Question 5.
With effort I could muster my arms and shoulder.
(a) collect (b) give (c) lose (d) gather
Answer:
(c) lose

Question 6.
He was a walking horror.
(a) delight (b) shock (c) disgust (d) fear
Answer:
(a) delight

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘merciless’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Adjective (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Adjective

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of VAT.
(a) Value Added Task (b) Value Added Time, (c) Value Addictive Task (d) Value Added Tax
Answer:
(d) Value Added Tax

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
The guerrilla fighters took control of the capital of the country, which gave them control of the government.
(a) civil war (b) monkey war (c) little war (d) giant war
Answer:
(c) little war

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word adflation.
(a) ad + flation (b) advertisement + inflation (c) advt + elation (d) advt + flation
Answer:
(a) ad + flation

Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for influenza.
(a) flu (b) influ (c) inf (d) fluenz
Answer:
(a) flu

Question 12.
The craze for collecting postage stamps is known as ………………………
(a) Melomania (b) parricide (c) pragmatist (d) stampomania
Answer:
(d) stampomania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word ‘reconcile’.
(a) -ment (b) -ion (c) -able (d) -ly
Answer:
(a) -ment

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
The management is the one …………………….. promised to block it off.
(a) which (b) where (c) who (d) whose
Answer:
(a) which

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
I got ………………………. the horse.
(a) above (b) by (c) onto (d) from
Answer:
(c) onto

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement.
You met Seth yesterday, ………………………….?
(a) won’t you (b) didn’t you (c) will you (d) don’t you
Answer:
(b) didn’t you

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning for the idiom found in the following sentence.
Sasidharan was accusing us of stealing his phone until he found it, and now he’s trying to sweep it under the rug.
(a) hiding under the rug (b) pretend that the incident never happened (c) sweeping the floor (d) make up for his mistake
Answer:
(b) pretend that the incident never happened

Question 18.
Replace the underlined word with a euphemistic expression.
The Government bans ethnic cleansing of the disabled.
(a) infanticide (b) matricide (c) regicide (d) genocide
Answer:
(d) genocide

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence.
Their selfless action gave a promise for human society.
(a) SVIODO (b) SVOA (c) SVOC (d) SVO
Answer:
(b) SVOA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb.
The burglars had to ……………………… all the jewels and money that had gone missing.
(a) account to (b) account in (c) account for (d) account towards
Answer:
(c) account for

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“All through the summer at ease we lay,
And daily from the turret wall
We watched the mowers in the hay’”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to?
(b) How did the soldiers spend the summer days?
Answer:
(a) “We” refers to the brave and loyal soldiers in the castle.
(b) They spent the summer days gazing out of the castle. They were ready to shoot the enemy at sight who were at half-a kilometer distance. But none came near. So, they were relaxed.

Question 22.
“ Thro ’ scudding drifts the rainy Hyades Vext the dim sea: I am become a name;”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the above lines?
(b) What is Hyades?
Answer:
(a) Personification is the figure of speech employed in the above lines.
(b) Hyades is a group of stars in the constellation Taurus often associated with rain.

Question 23.
“Full-galloping: nor bridle drew Until he reached the mound.”
(a) Why was the rider in a hurry?
(b) Where did the soldier stop? Why?
Answer:
(a) The rider was carrying an urgent message to Napoleon Bonaparte.
(b) The soldier stopped at the mound. Napoleon Bonaparte was expecting news about the outcome of the battle at Ratisbon.

Question 24.
“Mine inner vision rose a form sublime,
Thy form, O Tree, as in my happy prime
I saw thee, in my own loved native clime.”
(a) What rose in the mind of the poet?
(b) What was found in the sublime inner vision?
Answer:
(a) A glorious inner vision rose in the mind of the poet.
(b) The tree’s youthful and handsome figure was found in the inner vision of the poet.

Question 25.
“Brutes have been gentled where lashes failed.”
(a) When does the Government or law use lashes?
(b) What can transform brutes?
Answer:
(a) When a brute has committed a crime, the law uses lashes to punish him.
(b) Gentleness can transform brutes.

Question 26.
“Then a soldier.
Full of strange oaths, and bearded like the pard,
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,”
(a) Describe the two traits of a soldier.
(b) What is the poetic device used in : ‘bearded like the pard’?
Answer:
(a) A soldier is always ready to swear and is full of oaths. He is ever ready to compete for honour and glory.
(b) The poet uses a simile for comparison.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Annette : I want to order a big pineapple cake for my husband’s birthday.
Confectioner : When is his birthday and at what time do you want it to be delivered?
Annette told the Confectioner that she wanted to order a big pineapple cake for her husband’s birthday. The confectioner asked Annette when his birthday was and at what time she wanted it to be delivered.

Question 28.
You must read the clause carefully. Otherwise you will not understand it. (combine using if)
Answer:
If you do not read the clause carefully, you will not understand it.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If they had arrived sooner, they could have prevented this tragedy!
Answer:
Had they arrived sooner, they could have prevented this tragedy!

Question 30.
Even though he suffered from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school. (Change the following into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of him suffering from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school.
Or
Despite suffering from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school.

Part-III
Section -1

III. Answer any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Sung darkling from our tree, while men repose.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Our Casuarina Tree” written by Torn Dutt.

Context: The poet says this while describing Casuarina and its inhabitants at night.

Explanation: The Casuarina Tree allows the birds and animals to abide in it. At night, the garden overflows with endless melodious song sung by the dark king from the Casuarina Tree. It is a kind of a lullaby to sleeping humans.

Question 32.
They have their exits and their entrances;
And one man in his time plays many parts,
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.

Context: The poet says this while hinting at the beginning and the end of life.

Explanation: The poet divides man’s life into seven stages. The first stage symbolises birth and the last stage death. So, he uses the words “entrances and exits”.

Question 33.
To see your flag-birdflap his vans Where I, to heart’s desire, Perched him!
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Context: The narrator says these through the boy-soldier while explaining his role in the final stages of storming of Ratisbon.

Explanation: The boy soldier flung himself in the midst of battle and risked his life. He did not bother about his death. He doggedly carried out the mission of hoisting French national flag. After announcing that the battle was won he proudly says that he himself hoisted French Flag to his heart’s content at the Market place in Ratisbon.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
How does George Orwell explode the myth about the harmfulness of tea leaves?
Answer:
In some countries, tea pots are fitted with little dangling baskets under the spout to catch the stray leaves which are supposed to be harmful. The author asserts that one can swallow tea leaves in considerable quantities without ill-effect. He claims that if the tea is not loose in the pot it never infuses properly with the hot beverage (i.e.) tea.

Question 35.
What did Tenzing and Edmund Hillary gift to the God of lofty Summit? How did they do it?
Answer:
A hole was made in the ice where Tenzing placed reverentially a bar of chocolate, a packet of biscuits, and a handfull of lollies. As Hillary remembered that his team head Col. Hunt had requested to place a crucifix after reaching the peak. So, he also made a hole in the snow and placed the crucifix beside Tenzing’s gift to the Gods. Devout Buddhists believed that at least a small token of gift should be left with Gods who have their homes in that lofty Everest.

Question 36.
What is ‘liberty’ according to the old lady?
Answer:
According to the Russian old lady, liberty is the right to walk in the middle of the road. She is liberty-drunk. She wasn’t aware that if the pedestrian chooses to walk down the middle of the road, then the end of such liberty would be a universal chaos.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow.
Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1 1
(a) What is the mode of transport preferred by most of the students?
(b) How many students prefer bus?
(c) What does the remaining students prefer?
Answer:
(a) Bicycle is preferred by most of the students.
(b) Thirty percent of students prefer to come by bus.
(c) The remaining students prefer to come by car or by walk to school.

Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a fresher and a company manager.
Answer:
Manager : Good Morning Vikram. please take your seat.
Vikram : Good morning Sir. Thank you.
Manager : I understand that you are a First class Engineering graduate. Tell us about yourself.
Vikram : Well, I hail from a village in Iddayangudi and my parents are fanners.
Manager : If given an opportunity, can you handle project presentations on your own?
Vikram : Yes certainly Sir as I am well versed in Computer and have done various presentations during my course of study.

Question 39.
Describe the process of how to knot a bow tie.
Answer:
Place the tie around the neck, with one end slightly longer than the other.
Then place the longer end over the other and pass it upwards and behind the point where the two ends cross.
Next, take the other end of the tie and bend it twice to form an ‘S’ shape.
Bring the longer end down and in front, so that it holds the ‘S’ curve in place.
Now comes the trickiest part of the process when you have to take the long end of the tie and form a similar ‘S’ shape before passing it through the narrow gap behind the other end.
This creates a knot and the bow should now be held securely in place.
Finally, adjust both sides of the bow to make it symmetrical.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) A bad ……………………….. makes a bad ending, (plan, beginning, plot)
(b) All roads lead to ……………………….. (Paris, London, Rome)
(c) ……………………….. have ears. (Walls, Floors, Windows)
Answer:
(a) beginning (b) Rome (c) Walls

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Summarise George Orwell’s distinctive ideas in “A Nice Cup of Tea”.
Answer:
Tea is one of the mainstays of civilizations of UK, New Zealand, Australia and Eire. But, it is not found in the recipes of cookeiy books. The nicest manner in which tea must be prepared has become a subject matter of violent disputes among tea loving persons even within a family. Indian tea fits in with the author’s description of “nicest cup of tea” as it rejuvenates the drinker with wisdom, stimulation, bravery and optimism. One cup of strong tea is equal to twenty weak ones.

Best tea is prepared by boiling tea leaves first and then adding milk to taste. Milk first schools and tea first schools still fight. Tea prepared in earthen pot or china ware is good. The real flavour of tea should never be imprisoned by strainers. Consuming tea leaves will not harm one’s health. Adding sugar to tea will naturally ruin its real flavour and taste.

The author advises misguided people who drink sweet tea to desist from the practice for a fortnight. He guarantees them that they would like the natural taste of tea and would never again add sugar to tea. Tea should be taken in a cylindrical or breakfast cup to enjoy it. Shallow and flat cups don’t retain wannth and taste for a long time.

Life is unjust and cruel to certain people. Do they all resign themselves to their fate? Can you think of some who have fought their disabilities heroically and remained a stellar example for others? (for e.g. the astrophysicist Stephen Hawking, a paraplegic). Give an account of one such person and his/her struggle to live a fruitful life.

Alexis Leon lives in Kakkanad, Kerala. He passed B.Tech from the university of Kerala with first rank. Then he did his M.Tech. He met with an accident in 1993 which left him paralysed from chest down and confined him to a wheel chair for the rest of his life. After a brief spell of dejection owing to a suspended marriage, he made up his mind to write books. He has written 50 books for Engineering graduates.

His notable work is ‘Internet for Everyone’ and ‘A Guide to Software Configuration Management’. He is also a mentor at International Mentoring Network Association. He offers software consultancy to international IT companies. He travels across the world and delivers lectures to graduates and Corporates. His indomitable will has made him strong. He has become a light house for many aspirants in the software industry.

Question 42.
Shakespeare has skilfully brought out the parallels between the life of man and actors on stage. Elaborate this statement with reference to the poem.
Answer:
Shakespeare has beautifully compared the growth of humans by stages with his emergent role during that stage. In the first stage man plays the role of an infant. As an infant, he does represent characterisation of mewling and puking. In the second Act, he does the role of a school boy with the characteristics of unwillingness to go to schools and innocence shining in his face. In the third Act, he performs the role of a lover head over heels in love with a beautiful lady. He composes woeful romantic ballads and sings serenades to impress his love. In the fourth act, he plays the impressive role of a short-tempered, honour pursuing soldier.

He is ready to put his mouth in the Cannon’s mouth for conquering the bubble like honour in order to defend the territory of his countiy. In the fifth Act, he performs the role of a mature and fair judge criticising the ways of the world often spicing up his conversations with wise remarks and wit. His pot belly and well-cut beard shows the social status he enjoys in life. In the sixth act, he is old. He performs the role of a thin old man wearing ill-fitting loose garments with a changed treble in his voice.

He is bespectacled and slow in walking. In the final act, he becomes a total invalid losing all senses of hearing, taste and sight. Then the performer leaves the stage (i.e.) the lonely planet.

[OR]

How according to the poet is it possible for his son to bring changes into a world that resents change?
The poet advises his son to introspect often and not feel ashamed of being called a fool especially when he pursues knowledge. He can examine himself and remove his follies. He must enjoy the advantages of solitude. Solitude would help him to be creative. He would invariably learn that final decisions are always taken in silent rooms. Being alone, he can identify his innate potential and talents. His free imagination will bring about changes even if the world resents them. The zest to bring about changes will elevate him to the level of Shakespeare, Pasteur, Wright Brothers, Pavlov and Michael Faraday. Thus he will be remembered as one of the great men who changed the world.

Question 43.
Develop the hints into a paragraph.
Aksionov, meek – fellow prisoners respect – prison authorities – old man unjustly punished – speaks truth – prison shelf dug – newcomer Semyonich – could be the culprit – suspicion – all prisoners summoned – denied – some quiet – betray – Governor – enormous trust in Aksionov – stayed quiet.
Answer:

Aksionov was a merchant who was condemned for a murder he had not committed. He waits for God’s justice. Meanwhile in prison he learnt to make boots and earned a little money. Aksionov was meek. Fellow prisoners, having realized that he was innocent, respected him and called him grandfather. The prison authorities also believed that the religious old man must have been unjustly punished. They knew Aksionov never told lies. The prison authorities found out that someone had been digging the prison shelf to escape. They doubted that newcomer Semyonich could be the culprit. But they could not nail him on the grounds of suspicion alone. All the prisoners were summoned and enquired including Semyonich. All denied any knowledge of it. Those who knew kept quiet because they knew Semyonich will get flogged if someone betrayed him. As no one was ready to tell the truth, the Governor, who had enormous trust in the nobility and honesty of Aksionov asked him to tell the truth. But Aksionov preferred to stay quiet.

[OR]

Richard Parker calmed Pi – irony of life – peace, purpose and wholeness – same boat – Pi’s personality – Parker’s presence – realized danger and peace – innate strength – tiger – less tormenting – loneliness and despair – chances of survival – middle of Pacific Ocean – optimistic, balanced and stoical – thanks to the presence of Parker.
Answer:
Pi was alone and orphaned. He was drifting in the middle of pacific ocean hanging on to the oar. The elements of nature which threatened his survival the previous night had calmed down. The life boat did not sink. It was Richard Parker who calmed down Pi. The irony of life is that the animal that scared him witless to start with was the same who brought him peace, purpose and even wholeness. They were literally and figuratively in the same boat. They had to live together.

A part of Pi’s personality was glad about Parker’s presence, who gave him the will to hang on to life under the toughest conditions. He realized danger and peace can co-exist when one is aware of one’s innate strength. He realizes the fact that staying with a tiger is less tormenting than living alone with despair. Loneliness and despair can easily kill a person.

He decided to focus on the chances of survival and shut off the tragic circumstances he was placed in a lonely boat in the middle of Pacific Ocean. In short, he became optimistic, balanced and stoical in his attitude to life. Thanks to the presence of Richard Parker.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
There is an enemy beneath our feet – an enemy more deadly for his complete neutrality. He recognizes no national frontiers, no political parties. Everyone in the world is endangered by him. The enemy is the earth itself. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles. The power of a quake is greater than anything man himself can produce.

But today scientists are directing a great deal of their effort into finding some way of battling earthquakes, and it is possible that at some time in the near future mankind will discover a means of protecting itself from earthquakes. An earthquake strikes without warning.

When it does, its power is immense. If it strikes a modem city, the damage is very immense. When gas cylinders burst, explosions are caused and fires start. Underground railways are wrecked. Buildings collapse, bridges fall, dams burst, and gaping crevices appear in busy streets. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland. If it strikes in mountain regions, avalanches roar down into the valley.

Consider the terrifying statistics from the past 1755: Lisbon, capital of Portugal – the city destroyed entirely and 450 were killed. 1970: Peru: 50,000 were killed. In 1968 an earthquake struck Alaska. As this is a relatively depopulated part, only a few people were killed. But it is likely that this was one of the most powerful quakes ever to have hit the world.

Geologists estimate that during the tremors, the whole of the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean. Imagine the power of something that can move an entire subcontinent!

This is the problem that the scientists face. They are dealing with forces so immense that man cannot hope to resist them. All that can be done is to try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike and work from there. At least some protective measures can then be taken to save lives and some of the property.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 326
No. of words to be written in the summary: 326/3 = 108 ± 5

Rough Draft
The enemy, Earth more deadly for neutrality, recognizes no national frontiers, no political parties Everyone is endangered by him. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles and is powerful. Today-scientists are finding ways of battling earthquakes which strikes without warning. In a modem city the damage is immense.

When gas cylinders burst, explosions trigger fires and damages occur. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland. Iin mountain regions, avalanches roar down the valley. Once Alaska escaped because it is thinly populated unlike other countries. Geologists estimate-fiiat the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean.

This is the problem that the scientists face. They are dealing with forces soAmnjense. We should try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike for some protective measured

Fair draft:
The enemy, Earth more deadly for neutrality, recognizes none and endangers all. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles. Scientists find ways to battle powerful earthquakes which strikes without warning. In modem cities, the damage is immense. When gas cylinders burst, explosions trigger fire. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland.

In mountain regions, avalanches roar down the valley. Once Alaska escaped because it is depopulated unlike others. Geologists estimate that the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean.

Scientists face such problems with forces so immense. We should try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike for some protective measures.

No. of words in the summary: 110
[OR]

Notes
Title : Earthquake – the deadly enemy of mankind.
Deadly Enemy of Mankind

strikes all without a distn. – national boundary/political affiliation
Power greater than man-made weap.
Scientists finding means to combat eq.; they will find ways to protect themselves from eq.

Damage Cause by an Earthquake in General

Strikes without warning.
Modem city when struck red. to a primitive village.

Damage Caused by an Earthquake in Particular

strikes plains, seas, mnts. – all round destm.
In 1755, Lisbon destyd, 450 killed.
In 1970, Peru struck, 50,000 killed.
In 1968, Alaska hit, subcontinent moved 80 feet into the Pacific Ocean.

Problems Scientists Face

cannot resist powerful eq.
can predict the place of origin
precaution can be taken to save man & property.

Abbreviations used: eq. – earthquakes; distn. – distinction; weap. – weapon; red. – reduced; mnts. -mountains; destm. -destruction; destyd.-destroyed;

Question 45.
Write a letter to the editor of the newspaper on the mindless felling of trees on the road side.
Answer:
12.11.2020
From
XXX
YYY

To
The Editor
The Hindu Anna Salai
Chennai-600 002.

Sir,
Sub: Frequent felling of Trees

I am the Secretary of the YYY Colony Association. Our locality was surely a haven to us in the past few years. The fruits of labour that we had sown about ten years ago is well nurtured and utilised.

Most of the roads in our locality was filled with greenery because of the Flame of the Forest trees that we had planted and taken care of. The roads had enough shade and was filled with beautiful flowers.

In the recent past, we have encountered the mindless felling of trees by the Corporation staff for various reasons. We kindly request you to publish the same in the newspapers to bring to notice the mindless felling of trees to the public and the authorities concerned.

We hope that such a scenario doesn’t take place in our locality again and looking forward to a positive change in this situation.

Thank you,

Yours sincerely,
XXX

Address on the envelope
To
The Editor The Hindu Anna Salai
Chennai-600 002

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “India-A Tourist’s Paradise”.
Answer:

India-A Tourist’s Paradise

India is a huge country with varied cultures and races. It is a land with primordial traditional heritage and rich history. India is the only country which has all the four seasons viz summer, autumn, winter and spring. It has beauty in all its places whether they are mountains, deserts, plains, seas or rivers. All these and the modem cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad and Bangalore as well as the places of pilgrimage make it one of the most sought-after tourist destinations in the world.

India is blessed with places that have natural beauty like Kashmir, Darjeeling, Matheran, Goa, Puri, Kerala, Valparai Ooty, Kodaikanal etc. All such beautiful places are often visited by people who try to combine spirituality with pleasure. India has a variety of beautiful locations to visit which makes it a tourist’s paradise.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) He spoke the English perfectly.
(b) I and she have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(c) My little sister is afraid for cockroaches.
(d) You can type quickly, won’t you?
(e) Though I had a cup of coffee yet I feel tired.
Answer:
(a) He spoke English perfectly.
(b) She and I have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(c) My little sister is afraid of cockroaches.
(d) You can type quickly, can’t you?
(e) Though I had a cup of coffee, I feel tired.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) When I was walking ……………………. foot outside my farm house, I saw a ……………………. under the grape vine, (bear/bare)
(b) I ……………………. arrive home late this evening. (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) He ……………………. buy a new car. (Use a semi-modal)
(d) ……………………. you ……………………. (see) my wallet and keys recently? (use proper tense)
Answer:
(a) bare/bear
(b) shall
(c) ought to
(d) Have, seen

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) The deliberate suppression of texts by organisations shrouds the subject.
(b) The study of stars and stellar evolution is fundamental to our understanding of the universe.
(c) This shift to farming may have occurred because of climate change.
(d) Sovereign power may be vested on an individual or it may be vested on a group.
(e) Some medicines may not be safe during pregnancy.
[Astronomy; Medicine; Politics; Literature; Agriculture]
Answer:
(a) Literature
(b) Astronomy
(c) Agriculture
(d) Politics
(e) Health

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer in your own words.
Answer:
The earth is losing its forests. Presently, trees cover about 30 percent of the earth’s surface, but they are being destroyed at an alarming rate, especially in the tropics. Timber harvesting is a major reason for the destruction of the forests. Trees are used for building houses, making furniture, and providing pulp for paper products, such as newspapers and magazines. At least 40 hectares of rainforest are being felled every minute, mostly in order to extract the valuable timber.

Another way that man is destroying the world’s forests is by burning them down. In the Amazon, for example, rainforests are being burnt down at a rate of 20 hectares a minute. The main reason of burning down the rainforests is to clear the land for farming. Farmers in rainforest countries are often poor and cannot afford to buy land. Instead, these farmers clear rainforest land to raise their animals or grow their crops.

Because tropical rainforest soil is so poor in nutrients, farmers cannot reuse the same land year after year. In the following years, farmers just clear more land, destroying the forest piece by piece. Already more than 30 tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction and one-time exporters of timber such as Nigeria and Thailand now have to import timber for their domestic needs.

Questions:
a. What is the major reason for the destruction of forests?
b. Mention any two uses of trees.
c. Why do some people burn down the rainforests?
d. How many tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction?
e. From where do Nigeria and Thailand get timber for their domestic needs?
Answers:
(a) Timber harvest is the major reason for the destruction of forests.
(b) Trees are cut and their logs are used for making furniture and building houses.
(c) Some people bum down rain forests to clear the land for farming.
(d) More than 30 tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction.
(e) Nigeria and Thailand get their timber from foreign countries.

Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers 2020-2021 English Tamil Medium

November 4, 2023

Subject Matter Experts at SamacheerKalvi.Guide have created Samacheer Kalvi Tamil Nadu State Board Syllabus New Paper Pattern 12th Commerce Model Question Papers 2020-2021 with Answers Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Tamil Medium of TN 12th Standard Commerce Public Exam Question Papers Answer Key, New Paper Pattern of HSC 12th Class Commerce Previous Year Question Papers, Plus Two +2 Commerce Model Sample Papers are part of Tamil Nadu 12th Model Question Papers.

Let us look at these Government of Tamil Nadu State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Papers Tamil Medium with Answers 2020-21 Pdf. Students can view or download the Class 12th Commerce New Model Question Papers 2021 Tamil Nadu English Medium Pdf for their upcoming Tamil Nadu HSC Board Exams. Students can also read Tamilnadu Samcheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Papers 2020 2021 English Tamil Medium

Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers English Medium 2020-2021

Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers Tamil Medium 2020-2021

Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 Tamil Medium
Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 Tamil Medium
Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 Tamil Medium
Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 Tamil Medium
Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 Tamil Medium

12th Commerce Model Question Paper Design 2020-2021 Tamil Nadu

Types of Questions	Marks	No. of Questions to be Answered	Total Marks
Part-I Objective Type	1	20	20
Part-II Very Short Answers (Totally 10 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)	2	7	14
Part-Ill Short Answers (Totally 10 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)	3	7	21
Part-IV Essay Type	5	7	35
Total Marks			90

Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper Weightage of Marks

Purpose	Weightage
1. Knowledge	30%
2. Understanding	40%
3. Application	20%
4. Skill/Creativity	10%

It is necessary that students will understand the new pattern and style of Model Question Papers of 12th Standard Commerce Tamilnadu State Board Syllabus according to the latest exam pattern. These Tamil Nadu Plus Two 12th Commerce Model Question Papers State Board Tamil Medium and English Medium are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for TN HSLC Board Exams and Score More marks.

We hope the given Samacheer Kalvi Tamil Nadu State Board Syllabus New Paper Pattern Class 12th Commerce Model Question Papers 2020 2021 with Answers Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Tamil Medium will help you get through your subjective questions in the exam.

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Category: Class 12

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