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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 8 Vector Algebra – I Ex 8.4 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Vector Algebra – I Ex 8.4

Question 1.
Find the magnitude of \(\vec{a}\) × \(\vec{b}\) if \(\vec{a}\) = 2î + ĵ + 3k̂ and \(\vec{b}\) = 3î + 5ĵ – 2k̂
Answer:
The given vectors are \(\vec{a}\) = 2î + ĵ + 3k̂
\(\vec{b}\) = 3î + 5ĵ – 2k̂

Question 2.
Show that

Answer:

Question 3.
Find the vectors of magnitude 10√3 that are perpendicular to the plane which contains
î + 2ĵ + k̂ and î + 3ĵ + 4k̂
Answer:
Let the given vectors be \(\vec{a}\) = î + 2ĵ + k̂
\(\vec{b}\) = î + 3ĵ + 4k̂

Question 4.
Find the unit vectors perpendicular to each of the vectors \(\vec{a}\) + \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{a}\) – \(\vec{b}\), where \(\vec{a}\) = î + ĵ + k̂ and \(\vec{b}\) = î + 2ĵ + 3k̂
Answer:

Question 5.
Find the area of the parallelogram whose two adjacent sides are determined by the vectors î + 2ĵ + 3k̂ and 3î – 2ĵ + k̂
Answer:

Question 6.
Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are A(3, -1, 2), B(1, -1, -3), and C(4, -3, 1)
Answer:
The given vertices of the triangle ABC are
A(3, -1, 2), B(1, -1, -3) and C(4, -3, 1)

Question 7.

Answer:

Question 8.
For any vector \(\vec{a}\) prove that

Answer:

Question 9.

Answer:

Question 10.
Find the angle between the vector 2î + ĵ – k̂ and î + 2ĵ + k̂ using vector product.
Answer:
Let the given vector be \(\vec{a}\) = 2î + ĵ – k̂ and \(\vec{b}\) = 2î + ĵ – k̂

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 8 Vector Algebra – I Ex 8.5 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Vector Algebra – I Ex 8.5

Choose the correct or the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives:

Question 1.
The value of \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A B}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B C}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{D A}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{C D}}\) is
(1) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A D}}\)
(2) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{C A}}\)
(3) \(\overrightarrow{0}\)
(4) \(-\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A D}}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\overrightarrow{0}\)

Explaination:

Question 2.
If \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}+2 \overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}\) and \(3 \overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}+\mathbf{m} \overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}\) are parallel, then the value of m is
(1) 3
(2) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(3) 6
(4) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
(3) 6

Explaination:

Question 3.
The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors î + ĵ – k̂ and î – 2ĵ + k̂ is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer:
(4)

Explaination:

Question 4.
A vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{O P}}\) makes 60° and 45° with the positive direction of the x and y axes respectively. Then the angle between \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{O P}}\) and the z – axis is
(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 30°
Answer:
(2) 60°

Explaination:
Given the angle made by \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{O P}}\) with x – axis and y – axis are 60° and 45° respectively. Let the angle made by \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{O P}}\) with the positive direction of z – axis be θ. Then

Question 5.
If \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B A}}\) = 3î + 2ĵ + k̂ and the position vector of B is î + 3ĵ – k̂ then the position vector A is
(1) 4î + 2ĵ + k̂
(2) 4î + 5ĵ
(3) 4î
(4) – 4î
Answer:
(2) 4î + 5ĵ

Explaination:

Question 6.
A vector makes equal angle with the positive direction of the coordinate axes . Then each angle is equal to
(1) cos^-1\(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)\)
(2) cos^-1\(\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)\)
(3) cos^-1\(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)
(4) cos^-1\(\left(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)
Answer:
(3) cos^-1\(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)

Explaination:
Let the angles made by a vector with the coordinate axes be α, α, α. Then
cos² α + cos² α + cos² α = 1
[If α, β, γ are the angles made by a vector with coordinate axes respectively, then
cos² α + cos² β + cos² γ = 1]
3 cos² α = 1

Question 7.
The vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}-\overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}, \overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}-\overrightarrow{\mathbf{c}}, \overrightarrow{\mathbf{c}}-\overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}\) are
(1) parallel to each other
(2) unit vectors
(3) mutually perpendicular vectors
(4) coplanar vectors
Answer:
(4) coplanar vectors

Explaination:

[The condition for the three vectors \(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{b}\), \(\vec{c}\) to be coplanar is \(\vec{a}\) = λ\(\vec{a}\) + μ\(\vec{b}\) where λ, μ are scalars. That is one vector is a Linear combination of the other two vectors.]

Question 8.
If ABCD is a parallelogram, then \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A B}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A D}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{C B}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{C D}}\) is equal to
(1) 2 \((\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A B}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A D}})\)
(2) 4 \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A C}}\)
(3) 4 \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B D}}\)
(4) \(\overrightarrow{0}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\overrightarrow{0}\)

Explaination:

Question 9.
One of the diagonals of parallelogram ABCD with \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) as adjacent sides is \(\vec{a}\) + \(\vec{b}\). The other diagonal BD is
(1) \(\vec{a}\) – \(\vec{b}\)
(2) \(\vec{b}\) – \(\vec{a}\)
(3) \(\vec{a}\) + \(\vec{b}\)
(4) \(\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}}{2}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\vec{b}\) – \(\vec{a}\)

Explaination:

Question 10.
If \(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{b}\) are the vectors A and B, then which one o the following points whose position vector lies on AB, is
(1) \(\vec{a}\) + \(\vec{b}\)
(2) \(\frac{2 \vec{a}-\vec{b}}{2}\)
(3) \(\frac{2 \vec{a}+\vec{b}}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{\vec{a}-\vec{b}}{3}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{2 \vec{a}+\vec{b}}{3}\)

Explaination:

Question 11.
If \(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{b}\), \(\vec{c}\) are the position vectors of three collinear points, then which of the following is true?
(1) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}=\overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{c}}\)
(2) \(2 \overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}=\overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{c}}\)
(3) \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}=\overrightarrow{\mathbf{c}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}\)
(4) \(4 \overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{c}}=0\)
Answer:
(2) \(2 \overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}=\overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{c}}\)

Explaination:

Question 12.
If \(\vec{r}\) = \(\frac{9 \vec{a}+7 \vec{b}}{16}\), then the point p whose position vector \(\vec{r}\) divides the line joining the points with position vectors \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) in the ratio
(1) 7 : 9 internally
(2) 9 : 7 internally
(3) 9 : 7 externally
(4) 7 : 9 externally
Answer:
(1) 7 : 9 internally

Explaination:

Question 13.
If λî + 2λĵ + 2λk̂ is a unit vector, then the value of λ is
(1) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(3) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Explaination:

Question 14.
Two vertices of a triangle have position vectors 3î + 4ĵ – 4k̂ and 2î + 3ĵ + 4k̂. If the position vector of the centroid is î + 2ĵ + 3k̂, then the position vector of the third vertex is
(1) – 2î – ĵ + 9k̂
(2) – 2î – ĵ – 6k̂
(3) 2î – ĵ + 6k̂
(4) – 2î + ĵ + 6k̂
Answer:
(1) – 2î – ĵ + 9k̂

Explaination:
Let ABC be a triangle with centroid G. Given that

Question 15.

(1) 42
(2) 12
(3) 22
(4) 32
Answer:
(3) 22

Explaination:

Question 16.
If \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) having same magnitude and angle between them is 60° and their scalar product \(\frac{1}{2}\) is then |\(\vec{a}\)| is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 1
Answer:
(4) 1

Explaination:

Question 17.
The value of θ ∈ (0, \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) for which the vectors \(\vec{a}\) = (sin θ) î + (cos θ) ĵ and \(\vec{b}\) = î – √3ĵ + 2k̂ are perpendicular is equal to
(1) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(2) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
(3) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(4) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)

Explaination:

Question 18.

(1) 15
(2) 35
(3) 45
(4) 25
Answer:
(4) 25

Explaination:

Question 19.

(1) 225
(2) 275
(3) 325
(4) 300
Answer:
(4) 300

Explaination:

Question 20.
If \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) are two vectors of magnitude 2 and inclined at an angle 60°, then the angle between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{a}\) + \(\vec{b}\) is
(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°
Answer:
(1) 30°

Explaination:

Question 21.
If the projection of 5î – ĵ – 3k̂ on the vector î + 3ĵ + λk̂ is same as the projection of î + 3ĵ + λk̂ on 5î – ĵ – 3k̂, then λ is equal to
(1) ± 4
(2) ± 3
(3) ± 5
(4) ± 1
Answer:
(3) ± 5

Explaination:

Question 22.
If (1, 2, 4) and (2, – 3λ – 3) are the initial and terminal points of the vector î + 5ĵ – 7k̂ then the value of λ is equal to
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(-\frac{7}{3}\)
(3) \(-\frac{5}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{7}{3}\)

Explaination:


Equating the like terms
5 = – 3λ – 2
3λ = – 5 – 2 = – 7
λ = \(-\frac{7}{3}\)

Question 23.
If the points whose position vectors 10î + 3ĵ, 12î – 5ĵ and aî + 11ĵ are collinear then a is equal to
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 8
Answer:
(4) 8

Explaination:
The position vectors of the three points are

The condition for the three points A, B, C are collinear is the area of the triangle formed by these points is zero.

Question 24.

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 26
(4) 10
Answer:
(3) 26

Explaination:


(4x + 1) – 7 – (2 + x) = 70
4x + 1 – 7 – 2 – x = 70
3x – 8 = 70
3x = 70 + 8
3x = 78
x = \(\frac{78}{3}\) = 26

Question 25.
If \(\vec{a}\) = î + 2ĵ + 2k̂, |\(\vec{b}\)| = 5 and the angle between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) is \(\frac{\pi}{6}\), then the area of the triangle formed by these two vectors as two sides, is
(1) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
(2) \(\frac{15}{4}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
(4) \(\frac{17}{4}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{15}{4}\)

Explaination:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture

12th Bio Botany Guide Plant Tissue Culture Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer from the given option:

Question 1.
Totipotency refers to.
a) capacity to generate genetically identical plants.
b) capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell/explant.
c) capacity to generate hybrid protoplasts.
d) recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants.
Answer:
b) capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell / explant

Question 2.
Micro propagation involves
a) vegetative multiplication of plants by using micro – organisms.
b) vegetative multiplication of plants by using small explants.
c) vegetative multiplication of plants by using microspores.
d) Non – vegetative multiplication of plants by using microspores and megaspores.
Ans:
b) vegetative multiplication of plants by using small explants.

Question 3.
Match the following

Answer:
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Question 4.
The time duration for sterilization process by using autoclave is _____ minutes and the temperature is
a) 10 to 30 minutes and 1250 C
b) 15 to 30 minutes and 1210 C
c) 15 to 20 minutes and 1250 C
d) 10 to 20 minutes and 1210 C
Answer:
b) 15 to 30 minutes and 1210 C

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct.
a) Agar is not extracted from marine algae such as seaweeds.
b) Callus undergoes differentiation and produces somatic embryoids.
c) Surface sterilization of explants is done by using mercuric bromide
d) PH of the culture medium is 5.0 to 6.0
Answer:
b) Callus undergoes differentiation and produces somatic embryoids.

Question 6.
Select the incorrect statement from given statement
a) A tonic used for cardiac arrest is obtained from Digitalis purpuria
b) Medicine used to treat Rheumatic pain is extracted from Capsicum annum
c) An anti malarial drug is isolated from Cinchona officinalis.
d) Anti – carcinogenic property is not seen in Catharanthus roseus.
Answer:
d) Anti – carcinogenic property is not seen in Catharanthus roseus

Question 7.
Virus free plants are developed from
a) Organ culture
b) Meristem culture
c) Protoplast culture
d) Cell suspension culture
Answer:
b) Meristem culture

Question 8.
The prevention of large scale loss of biological interity.
a) Biopatent
b) Bioethics
c) Biosafety
d) Biofuel
Answer:
c) Biosafety

Question 9.
Cryopreservation means it is a process to preserve plant cells, tissues or organs
a) at very low temperature by using ether.
b) at very high temperature by using liquid nitrogen
c) at very low temperature of -196 by using liquid nitrogen
d) at very low temperature by using liquid nitrogen
Answer:
c) at very low temperature of -196 by using liquid nitrogen

Question 10.
Solidifying agent used in plant tissue culture is
a) Nicotinic acid
b) Cobaltous chloride
c) EDTA
d) Agar
Answer:
d) Agar

Question 11.
What is the name of the process given below? Write its 4 types.
Answer:

These are the basic steps in plat Tissue culture technology
The process is plant tissue culture. Based on the explants, plant tissue culture is classified as:

1. Organ culture
2. Meristem culture
3. Protoplast culture
4. Cell culture

Question 12.
How will you avoid the growth of microbes in the nutrient medium during the culture process? What are the techniques used to remove the microbes?
Answer:
The microbial growth in the culture medium can be overcome by autoclaving the medium at Plant Tissue Culture II 121°C (15 psi) for 15 to 30 minutes.

Chemical sterilization using chemicals, sterilizing using UV radiation. Alcoholic sterilization using ethanol, autoclaving and filtration, etc., are the various techniques used to remove microbes.

Question 13.
Write the various steps involved in cell suspension culture
Answer:
Definition: The culture of single cells or small aggregate of cells invitro in liquid medium is called cells suspension culture.

Preparation steps:

Production of Secondary Metabolites:

• Alkaloids, flavonoids, terpenoids, phenolic compounds, and recombinant proteins.
• secondary metabolites are chemical compounds that are not required by the plant for normal growth and development.
• The process of production of secondary metabolites can be scaled up and automated using bio-reactors for commercial production.
• Many strategies such as biotransformation, elicitation, and immobilization have been used to make cell suspension cultures more efficient in the production of secondary metabolites.

Question 14.
What do you mean Embryoids? Write its application.
Answer:
Somatic embryogenesis is the formation of embryos from the callus tissue directly and these embryos are called Embryoids or from the in vitro cells directly form pre-embryonic cells which differentiate into embryoids.
Applications:

1. Somatic embryogenesis provides potential plantlets which after the hardening period can establish into plants.
2. Somatic embryoids can be used for the production of synthetic seeds.
3. Somatic embryogenesis is now reported in many plants such as Allium sativum, Hordeum vulgare, Oryza sativa, Zea mays and this is possible in any plant.

Question 15.
Give examples of micropropagation performed in plants.
Answer:
Micropropagations are performed in many plants.
Examples:

1. Pineapple
2. banana
3. strawberry
4. Potato, etc

Question 16.
Explain the basic concepts involved in plant tissue culture.
Answer:
Basic concepts of plant tissue culture are totipotency, differentiation, differentiation, and redifferentiation.

1. Totipotency: The property of live plant cells that they have the genetic potential when cultured in a nutrient medium to give rise to a complete individual plant.

2. Differentiation: The process of biochemical and structural changes by which cells become specialized in form and function.

3. Redifferentiation: The further differentiation of already differentiated cell into another type of cell. For example, when the component cells of callus have the ability to form a whole plant in a nutrient medium, the phenomenon is called redifferentiation.

4. Dedifferentiation: The phenomenon of the reversion of mature cells to the meristematic state leading to the formation of callus is called dedifferentiation. These two phenomena of redifferentiation and dedifferentiation are the inherent capacities of living plant cells or tissue. This is described as totipotency.

Question 17.
Based on the material used, how will you classify culture technology? Explain it.
Answer:
Based on the explants some other plant tissue culture types are:
1. The culture of embryos

• anthers
• ovaries
• roots
• shoots etc
  

2. Meristem culture
The culture of any plant meristematic tissue on culture media.

3. Protoplast culture

• Protoplasts (cells without a cell wall, but plasma membrane) are used to regenerate whole plants from single-cell protoplasts of 2 different plants fused into hybrids – later by PTC – develop into many plantlets.
• This process of formation of somatic hybrids into somatic hybridization.

4. Cell culture

• The formation of cell suspension from the callus
• The cells are separated from the callus tissue and used for cell suspension culture

Question 18.
Give an account on Cryopreservation. The parts such as,
Answer:
Cryopreservation, also known as Cryo-conservation, is a process by which protoplasts, cells, tissues, organelles, organs, extracellular matrix, enzymes or any other biological materials are subjected to preservation by cooling to a very low-temperature of-196°C using liquid nitrogen. At this extremely low temperature, any enzymatic or chemical activity of the biological material will be totally stopped and this leads to the preservation of material in dormant status.

Later these materials can be activated by bringing to room temperature slowly for any experimental work. Protective agents like dimethyl sulphoxide, glycerol, or sucrose are added before the cryopreservation process. These protective agents are called cryoprotectants since they protect the cells, or tissues from the stress of freezing temperature.

Question 19.
What do you know about Germplasm conservation? Describe it. Definition
Answer:
Living genetic resources such as pollen, seeds, or plant tissue materials are preserved in living conditions for future use for many hybridization crop improvement research works. Eg. Pollen banks, Seedbanks

Purpose

• To maintain viability and Fertility for future use
• Gene bank, DNA bank of elite plants are maintained to keep
  • biological diversity
  • food security

Question 20.
Write the protocol for artificial seed preparation
Answer:
Later these seeds are grown in vitro medium and converted into plantlets. These plantlets require a hardening period (either greenhouse or hardening chamber) and then shifted to normal environmental conditions.

12th Bio Botany Guide Plant Tissue Culture Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Invitro means.
a) In a test tube.
b) inside the body
c) inside the cell
d) in a laboratory
Answer:
a) In a test tube

Question 2.
The concept of Totipotency was proposed by.
a) Hildbrandt
b) Haberlandt
c) Chilton
d) Takebe et-al
Answer:
b) Haberlandt

Question 3.
The scientist developed root cultures, used Knop’s solution along with 3 vitamins is.
a) Murashige & Skoog
b) P.R. White
c) Kanta et-al
d) E.C. Steward
Answer:
b) P.R. White

Question 4.
Virus-free Dahlia and Potato plants are produced by.
a) Morel
b) Martin
c) Morel & Martin
d) E.C steward
Answer:
c) Morel & Martin

Question 5.
The Indian scientists developed in vitro production of haploid embryos from
a) ovule of Nicotiana
b) anthers of Datura
c) gametes of Dahlia
d) Zygote of Carrot
Answer:
b) anthers of Datura

Question 6.
Melchers & Co workers produced
a) Somatic hybrid of Nicotiana species
b) Intergeneric hybrid between potato & tomato
c) Interspecific hybrid of Nicotiana glauca and Nicotiana longs dorffii
d) test tube fertilization in flowering plants
Answer:
b) Intergeneric hybrid between potato & tomato

Question 7.
The growth hormones added in MS – medium are
a) Auxin & Gibberellins
b) IAA & Kinetin
c) Gaibberelline & cytokinin
d) Auxin & ABA
Answer:
b) IAA & Kinetin

Question 8.
Somatic embryogenes is not applied in
a) Oryza sativa
b) Hordeum vulgare
c) Ficus bengaliensis
d) Avena sativa
Answer:
c) Ficus bengaliensis

Question 9.
Which one of the following is a correct set?
a) Vincristine Cinchona officinalis Anti carcinogen
b) Capsacin catharanthus roseus – Antimalarial
c) Digoxin Digitalis purpuria Cardiac tonic
d) Codeine Capsicum annum Analgesic
Answer:
c) Digoxin Digitalis purpuria Cardiac tonic

Question 10.
Germ plasm conservation does not include
a) DNA bank
b) Seed bank
c) SWISS bank
d) pollen bank
Answer:
c) SWISS bank

Question 11.
This is not of the strategies used to make cell suspension
a) biotrans formation
b) elicitation
c) immobilization
d) filtration
Answer:
d) filtration

Question 12.
Choose the odd man out with regard to protoplasmic fusion
a) somatic hybridization
b) Protoplasmic fusion
c) Embryoids
d) Polyethylene Glycol
Answer:
c) Embryoids

Question 13.
This is not a technique in PTC?
a) organ culture
b) Meristem culture
c) Cell culture
d) M.S. culture
Ans:Answer:d) M.S. culture

Question 14.
Which one of the following is the correct steps in the direct embryogenesis?

Answer:
b

Question 15.
Protoplasts are transferred to sucrose solution to
a) retain osmotic pressure
b)retain viability
c) restore solubility
d) sterilize the protoplast
Answer:
b) retain viability

Question 16.
Plants those can’not be subjected to hybridization technique can be raised by?
a) somatic embryogenesis
b) PTC
c) somatic hybridization
d) meristem culture
Answer:
c) somatic hybridization

Question 17.
Indole alkaloids used as bio medicine is got from
a) phyllanthus amaras
b) Acalypha indica
c) Catharanthus roseue
d) Avena sativa
Answer:
c) Catharanthus roseus

Question 18.
Virus is free in
a) cell culture
d) cambial culture
b) protoplasm culture
c) Apical meristem culture
Answer:
c) Apical meristem culture

Question 19.
From the following secondary metabolites which one is used as cardioc tonic
a) capsaicin
b) Quinine
c) Codeine
d) Digoxin
Answer:
d) Digoxin

II. Match the following

Question 20.

A) a-2, b-1, c-5, d-3, e-4
B) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
C) a-5, b-4, c-3, d-2, e-1
D) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1, e-5
Answer:
a) a-2, b-1, c-5, d-3, e-4

Question 21.

A) a -1, b – 2, c-3, d-4, e-5
B) a – 4, b-3, c-5, d-1, e-2
C) a – 5, b – 4, c-3, d-2, e-1
D) a – 3, b-1 c-2, d-5, e-4 .
Answer:
b) a – 4, b-3, c-5, d-1, e-2

Question 22.

A) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
B) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
C) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
D) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
Answer:
C) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

III. Choose the incorrect Statement

Question 23.
a) The plant material used in tissue culture should be surface sterilized
b) Callus is a mass of unorganized growth of plant cells or tissues in invivo culture
c) The fusion product of protoplasts without a nucleus of different cells is called cybrid
d) Bioreactors are used for the production of secondary metabolites in a commercial way
Answer:
b) Callus is a mass of unorganized growth of plant cells or tissues in invivo culture

Question 24.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding IPR?
a) The discoverer has the full rights on his / her property
b) IPR – includes only the process of the product, not trade secrets.
c) IPR is not protected by laws formed by the country.
d) The discoverer can use his discovery for his own company but can not sell it to others.
Answer:
a) The discoverer has the full rights on his/her property.

IV. Choose the correct Statement

Question 25.
a) The HGP was founded in 2010 as an integral part of ELSI
b) GEAC is an apex body under the UNO
c) GMOs-GEMs & Trans genie plants approval are not coming under the scanning of GEAC
d) The release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment need at least three levels of field trials such as BRL -1, BRLII & BRL III
Answer:
d) The release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment need at least three levels of field trials such as BRL -1, BRL II & BRL III

Question 26.
a) ‘Takepe’ regenerated tobacco plants from isolated mesophyll protoplasts.
b) Morel & Martin formulated Bioethics.
c) The photoperiod needs for Tissue culture is 12-18 hours of light.
d) The PH medium for Tissue culture should be below 5
Answer:
a) Takepe’ regenerated tobacco plants from isolated mesophyll protoplasts

V. In each of the following questions, two statements are given – one as Assertion (A) and the other one is Reason (R) Mark the correct answer as

Question 27.
Assertion: High yielding plants can be raised in large number by Micropropagation.
Reason: Micropropagation maintain high standards of homogeneity
a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A
b) It both A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A
c) It A is true but ‘R’ is false d) If both A & R are false
Answer:
a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A

Question 28.
Assertion: A major advantage of tissue culture is protoplast fusion.
Reason: It produces a genetically uniform population.
a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R1 are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A
b) It both A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A
c) It A is true but ‘R’ is false
d) If both A & R are false
Answer:
c) It A is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 29.
Assertion(A): The explants are sterilized by mercuric chloride
Reason(R): Sterilization prevents the growth of other microorganisms in the Culture medium
a) (A) correct; (R) wrong
b) (A) wrong: (R) correct
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct; but (R) is not the explanation to (A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct; (R) is the explanation of (A)
Answer:
b) (A) wrong: (R) correct

VI. Two Marks

Question 1.
What are the contributions of Haberlandt to PTC?
Answer:

• He did the in-vitro culture of plant cells
• He used Knop’s salt solution as a culture medium
• He only proposed the concept – Totipotency

Question 2.
What is the special contribution of Murashige and Skoog?
Answer:

• They formulated a tissue culture medium
• A landmark in PTC, because it is the most frequently medium for all kinds of tissue culture work.

Question 3.
Who developed first interspecific somatic hybrid?
Answer:
Carlson & co-worker obtained protoplast fusion between Nicotiana glauca & Nicotiana longdorffii, and developed the first interspecific somatic hybrid in 1971

Question 4.
Define Totipotency?
Answer:

• The inherent genetic potential of any living plant cell, when cultured in the nutrient medium can develop into a complete individual plant.
• One of the basic concepts exploited in tissue culture.

Question 5.
What are the components of Knop’s solution?
Answer:
I. It contains various salts dissolved in Sucrose solution

• Calcium Chloride: 3.0 gm
• Potassium Nitrate: 1.0 gm
• Magnesium Sulphate: 1.0 gm
• Dibasic Potassium Phosphate: 1.0 gm

II. Sucrose: 50 gm(optimal)
III. Deionized Water: 1000ml

Question 6.
Distinguish between Redifferentiation and Dedifferentiation.
Answer:
Redifferentiation :
The ability of callus tissue to develop into shoot & root (embryoid)

Dedifferentiation :
Reversion of mature tissue into meristematic state leading to the formation of callus.

Question 7.
Notes on PEG.
Answer:

• PEG is Poly Ethylene Glycol.
• It is the fusogenic agent that facilitates the fusion of 2 different protoplasts coming together in somatic hybridization to produce cybrid.

Question 8.
What is Agar?
Answer:

• Agar is a mucilaginous polysaccharide obtained from marine algae (seaweeds)
• Gelladium, Gracilaria, Gellidiella.
• The Agar is a solidifying agent used in culture media preparation.

Question 9.
Notes on Autoclave.
Answer:

• An autoclave is a device used to do wet steam sterilization.
• Autoclaving at 15 psi (121°C) for 15-30 minutes.
• Glassware, forceps, scalpels, and all accessories are subjected to autoclaving for

Question 10.
What are the minor nutrients added in MS medium?
Answer:

• Sodium molybdate
• Cupric sulphate
• Cobaltous chloride.

Question 11.
Why do we subject plantlets to hardening?
Answer:
Hardening slowly steadily helps the plantlets from the conditions of readymade medium, light & temperature of the laboratory, to which they were used, to the conditions of light, temperature & soil in the natural environment.

Question 12.
What is cybrid?
Answer:
The fusion product of a protoplast without a nucleus of different cells is called a cybrid.

Question 13.
What are the various components of MS- Medium?
Answer:

• Macronutrients, Micronutrients, Minor nutrients
• Iron stock
• Vitamins.
• Growth Hormone all in specific measurement & along with these solidifying agent- Agar is also added.

Question 14.
How to remove the cell wall of a plant cell.
Answer:
The chosen leaf tissue is immersed in the following solutions.

• 0.5% macrozyme. 2% onozuka cellulose enzyme dissolved in 13% sorbitol or mannitol kept at pH 5.4 at 25°c incubated during the night.
• After a gentle teasing of the cells, the protoplasts are obtained.
• Then they are transferred to 20% sucrose solution to retain viability.
• Finally by centrifuging the protoplasts are isolated.

Question 15.
What is organogenesis?
Answer:

• The morphological changes in the callus leading to the formation of the shoot, root, and then plantlets. The plantlets formation has 2 steps
• Root formation is known as Rhizogenesis
• Shoot formation is known as Caulogenesis.

Question 16.
Distinguish between callus & clone
Answer:
Callus :
It is the mass of unorganized growth of plant cells or tissues in in-vitro -culture medium.

Clone :
The clone develops from callus – which gets differentiated into many plantlets known as clones (i.e) genetically uniform population.

Question 17.
What is meant by hardening?
Answer:

• Hardening is the gradual exposure of invitro developed plantlets in humid chambers in diffused light – or transferred to – greenhouse setup.
• This enables them to get acclimatized to grow under normal field conditions.

Question 18.
How are the syn seeds produced?
Answer:

• Somatic embryoids – can be used in the production of syn seeds.
• They are nothing but somatic embryoids encapsulated in Agarose gel or calcium alginate/sodium
  alginate.

Question 19.
Give the tabulation of a few secondary metabolites their plant sources.
Answer:

Question 20.
Give the IPR – aspects in India
Answer:

Question 21.
Expand the following.
PTC, HEPA, RCGM -, GE AC, ELSI, GMO
Answer:
PTA – Plant Tissue Culture
HEPA – High-Efficiency Particulate Air
RCGM – Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation
GEAC – Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
ELSI – Ethical Legal and Social Implications
GMO – Genetically Modified Organism
GEM – Genetically Engineered Micro Organism

Question 22.
Name the cryoprotectants used in Cryopreservation
Answer:

• Dimethyl sulphoxide, glycerol, or sucrose are added before cryopreservation process.
• They protect the cells and tissues from the stress of freezing temperature, So known as Cryo protectants.

Question 23.
How is ELSI research funded?
Answer:
A percentage of the HGP – budget at the National Institute of Health & the V S Department of Energy was devoted to ELSI – research.

Question 24.
What is Biosafety?
Answer:
Biosafety is the prevention of large – scale loss of biological integrity, focusing both on ecology and human health.

Question 25.
Differentiate of Organ culture and meristem culture
Answer:
Organ culture :
The culture of embryos anthers, ovaries, roots, shoots

Meristem culture :
The culture of plant meristematic tissue on culture media
Give the tabulation of few secondary metaboltes a their plant sources.

Question 26.
What is somatic Embryogenesis?
Answer:
Somatic embryogenesis is the formation of embryos from the callus tissue directly and these embryos are called Embryoids or from the pre-embryonic cells which differentiate into embryoids.

VII. Three Marks

Question 1.
Give the name of few culture media used in PTC & their nature.
Answer:

• M.S. Nutrient Medium (Muroshige & Skoog -1992)
  It has carbon sources, suitable vitamins & hormones
• B5 – Medium (Gamborg.et.al 1968)
• White Medium (White 1943)
• Nitsch’s Medium (Nitsch & Nitsch 1969)
  The medium may be solid or semisolid or liquid – For solidification, a gelling agent such as agar is added.

Question 2.
Explain the Induction of Callus.
Answer:
Steps
I) Inoculation: Sterile segment of leaf, stem, tuber or root or (explant) is transferred to the sterile nutrient medium (MS – medium – + Auxins)

II) Incubation: The inoculated medium + auxins are incubated at 25 °C ± 2°C in an alternate light & dark period of 12 hours.

III) Induction of Callus:
The cell division occurs & the upper surface of the explant develop into a callus.
Callus – is a mass of unorganized growth of plant cells/tissue in-vitro – culture medium

Question 3.
Write the flow chart of plant Regeneration pathway.
Answer:
Plant Regeneration Pathway
From the explants, plants can be regenerated by somatic embryogenesis or organogenesis.

Question 4.
What are the application of somatic embrogenesis
Answer:

• It provides potential → after hardening becomes plantlets
• Used for production of synthetic seeds
• Eg. Allium sativum, Hordeum Vulgare, Oryza – sativa, Zee mays etc.,

Question 5.
Distinguish between Somaclonal Variations & Gametoclonal variations (Invitro Condition)
Answer:
Somaclonal Variations :
Variation found in somatic parts such as

• Leaf, stem
• root, tuber
• propagule etc

Gametoclonal variations:
Variations found in plants regenerated in vitro by gametes & gametophytes

Question 6.
Why there is a need to produce Virus-free plants?
Answer:

• Chemicals can be used to control fungal and bacterial mycoplasma pathogens but not viruses generally.
• Viral pathogens also cause great economic loss to the crops.
• Shoot meristem culture – help to produce virus-free plants because shoot meristem is free of viruses.

Question 7.
What are the Advantages of Artificial seeds?
Answer:

• Number/ time / cost – Millions of seeds produced / at any time / cheaper cost.
• Method – Easy method to produce genetically engineered plants.
• Quality – Seeds with desirable traits are produced.
• Storage – can be stored for long time use by Cryopreservation method.
• Nature of plants – Plants – Produced are identical
• Period of dormancy – greatly reduced
• Growth & Lifespan – grow faster, plants have a shorter life span

Question 8.
What are the applications of plant tissue culture?
Answer:

• Somatic hybridization → Improve hybrids produced
• Somatic embryoids → develop into syn – seeds help to conserve biodiversity
• Meristem & Shoot tip culture → production of Disease Resistant Varieties
• Production of plants → Stress resistant → herbicide tolerant → Drought tolerant
• Micropropagation → Large number of plantlets produced in a short time & throughout the year of both
• crop plants & true species – Used in Forestry

Question 9.
Write down the protocol for the micropropagation of banana.
Answer:

Question 10.
Write down the protocol for virus-free meristem tip culture.
Answer:

Question 11.
Which is the best conventional method to introduce disease resistance capacity into a plant? Explain.
Answer:

• Plant tissue culture is the conventional method which is also known as micropropagation.
• In this method, we take the meristematic tissue of the plant, referred to as explant is cultured over the given conditions of temperature and humidity, which makes the plant disease resistant.

Question 12.
What are the 3 parts of a patent? Explain them.
Answer:
It has 3 parts

1. The grant
2. The specifications
3. The claim

The grant

• It is a signed document (actually agreement) that grants patent rights to the inventor.
• It is filled at the patent office, (not published)

The Specifications

• • It is a narrative describing the invention & how it was carried out.
• Specifications & their claims are published from the patent office.

The Claim
The scope of the invention to be protected by the patent, preventing others from practicing it.

Question 13.
Write down the – general steps in patenting
Answer:

Question 14.
What is IPR? Explain the various aspects of if.
Answer:

• It is a category of properly include products created through one’s knowledge, research & creativity.
• It includes v Copyrights v Patents & v Trademarks
• It also includes v trade secrets v publicity rights v moral rights v rights against unfair competitions
• It also includes – designs & geographical indications

Other Various aspects :
The above-mentioned property of the discovery should not be exploited by others without legal permission or by getting proper authorization.
Rights – must be protected by the enforcement of laws framed by a country.

Question 15.
What are the future prospects of Biotechnology?
Answer:

• It will bring in a great revolution like the computer revolution.
• It will lead to new scientific – revolutions that would change the lives & future of people.
• Major challenges will be met and major changes incomprehensible in many aspects of modern life.

Question 16.
What is the function of GEAC?
Answer:

• It regulates -manufacturing, use, import, export, and storage of hazardous microbes or genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and cells in the country.
• It approves – activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microbes and recombinants in research & Industrial production.
• It is responsible – for approval of proposals relating to the release of GEO and products into the environment including experimental field trials (Biosafety Research Level – trial – I and II are known as BRL – I and BRL – II)

Question 17.
Write short notes on Ethical issues in Genomic Research?
Answer:

• Privacy and fairness in the use of genetic information, including the potential for genetic discrimination in employment and insurance.
• The integration of new genetic technologies such as genetic testing, into the practice of clinical medicine.
• Ethical issues surrounding the design and conduct of genetic research with people, including the process of informed consent.

Question 18.
Which is Laboratory Facilities for PTC?
Answer:
Washing facility for glassware and ovens for drying glassware.
Medium preparation room with autoclave, electronic balance, and PH meter.

Culture facility:
Growing the plant inoculated into culture tubes at 22-280C with the illumination of light 2400 lux, with a photoperiod of 8 -16 hours and relative humidity of about 60%

VIII. Five Marks.

Question 1.
Give the milestones in PTC – (Any 5 only)
Answer:

• Haberlandt (1902) – In-vitro culture of plant cells – (using knop’s salt solution + glucose & peptone)
• He proposed the Totipotency concept.
• P.R.White (1934) – In Knop’s solution + 3 vitamins (Pyridine, thiamine & nicotinic acid → developed root culture)
• F.C.Steward (1948) – used coconut water → produced cell proliferates from carrot explants.
• Morel & Martin (1952, 55) – Produced virus-free plants by shoot meristem culture →  Eg. Dahlia, Potato.
• Murashige & Skoog (1962) – Most frequently used culture medium for all kinds of tissue culture work.
• Guha & Maheswari (1964) – developed in-vitro production of haploid embryos from another of Datura.
• Vasil & Hildbrandt (1965) – developed a tobacco plant by micropropagation.

Question 2.
List down the culture conditions PTC.
Answer:
PH :

• PH of medium – should lie between 5.6 to 6 – Temperature
• Incubation of culture normally at temperature 25°C ± 2°C for optimal growth.

Humidity & Light Intensity

• 50-60% relative humidity
• 16-hours of photo period by the illumination of cool white fluorescent tubes of approximately 1000 lux

Aeration :

• Provided by shaking of flasks or tubes of liquid culture of Automatic shaker
• Aeration of the medium bypassing with filter-sterilized air.

Question 3.
What are the needed Lab – facilities for PTC?
Answer:
Washing & drying facility (oven) for the glassware
Medium preparation room with

• autoclave
• electronic balance
• PH meter etc., Maintain aseptic condition in,

a) Laminar air flow bench a positive pressure ventilation, unit

• (High-Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filter to maintain the aseptic condition.
• Culture facility
• growing the ex-plant – inoculate into culture tube at 22 – 28°C with the illumination of light 2000 lux with 8-6 hours photoperiod, the relative humidity of about 60%

Question 4.
Explain various steps in Protoplast culture.
Answer:
Protoplasts are cells without a cell wall but with a cell membrane or plasma membrane.
1. Isolation of protoplast

2. Fusion of protoplast (Agglutination & Fusion)
Protoplast (A) + Protoplast (B) – fused in to one in the presence of Fusogenic agent PEG in 25 – 30% concentration (Poly Ethylene Glycol) with Ca++ ions.

3. Culture of protoplast:
Protoplast viability is tested with Fluorescein diacetate – before culture.
MS – Medium – used – (with some modifications) droplet, plating or Micro drop array technique.

a. Incubation: done in continuous light (1000 – 2000 lux) at 25°C.
The cell wall formation occurs within (24-48 hrs).
The first division of new cells occurs between 2-7 days of culture.

4. Selection of somatic hybrid cells:
The fusion product of protoplasts without a nucleus of different cells – (cybrid)
Cybrid is also known as Somatic hybrid the process is known as somatic hybridization

Question 5.
What is meant by biosafety? Explain.
Answer:

• It deals with the application of knowledge, techniques & equipment with strict guidelines in biological laboratories & related industries,
• to prevent large scale loss of
  • biological integrity
  • ecology
  • human health aspects
• to minimize human error and technical flaws & failures which contribute to unnecessary.
• exposures & disposal of – pathogenic microbes & hazardous chemicals, to regularise, risk management assessment and to set in best safeguard measures as per need.

Question 6.
Expand ELSI & What is meant by Bioethics.
Answer:

• ELSI – represents Ethical legal and social Implications.
• Advancements in biotechnology such as,
  • In Agriculture – Transgenic plants
  • In the pharmaceutical Industry – genotherapy
  • Advancements of medicine etc.,
• The biotechnological applications have raised controversies, hurting social beliefs, raising legal
  issues certain ecological principles & moral values.
• So it is high time to regularise legally the modern biotechnological applications & manipulation as Bioethics, for the welfare of humanity & other plant & animal communities of our world.

Question 7.
Write about Potential risks and consideration for safety aspects.
Answer:

• Pathogenicity – of living organisms & viruses natural or genetically modified to infect i) humans, ii) animals, iii) plants causing diseases
• Toxicity of allergy – associated with microbial production.
• Antibiotic-Resistant Microbes – increasing in number day by day.
• Disposal problem – regard to spent microbial biomass & purification of effluents.
• Safety aspects – regard to – i) contamination, ii) infection, iii) mutant strains
• regard to industrial use of microorganisms containing invitro recombinants.

Question 8.
List down organizations implementing Bio-safety guidelines.
Answer:
IBSCs – Institutional Bio-Safety Committees monitor the research activity at the institutional level.
RCGM – The Review Committee on Genetic manipulation, functioning in the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) monitors the risky research activities in the laboratories.
GEAC – Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
– (Ministry of Environment and Forest)
– has the power to use GMO at a commercial level and open field trials of transgenic

• crops
• industrial product
• health care products

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Guide Pdf Poem 1 Once Upon A Time Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Solutions Poem 1 Once Upon A Time

11th English Guide Once Upon A Time Text Book Back Questions and Answers

1. Based on your understanding of the poem answer the following questions in one or two sentences each:

Question i.
What do you associate with the title of the poem?
Answer:
The title of the poem is associated with fables of the past when good prevailed not only in society but in the hearts of people.

Question ii.
What is the relationship between the narrator and the listener?
Answer:
The narrator is the father and the listener is his son.

Question iii.
What happens to the poet when he visits someone for the third time?
Answer:
The third time the poet visits someone, the door is shut on his face.

Question iv.
Pick out the expressions that indicate conflicting ideas.
Answer:

• To say “Goodbye” when one means “Good-riddance”
• To say “Glad to meet you” without being glad
• To say “It’s been nice talking to you” after being bored.

Question v.
How does the poet compare his face with dresses?
Answer:
One keeps changing the dresses every day according to fashion and season; Likewise, the author keeps changing his faces. He has a different face for office, home, friends, party, and street.

Question vi.
What does the poet mean when he says “goodbye”?
Answer:
He means “good-riddance” when he says “goodbye”.

Question vii.
What pleasantries does the poet use to fake cordiality?
Answer:
The poet says “glad to meet you” when the poet means the visit is disturbing him. When one’s talk is boring, The poet says, “It’s nice talking to you”. He says “Goodbye” when he actually wants to say “good riddance”. The poet says the above to fake cordiality.

Question viii.
What does he desire to unlearn and relearn?
Answer:
He desires to unlearn muting things and relearn real qualities of childhood.

Question ix.
How is the poet’s laugh reflected in the mirror?
Answer:
The poet’s laugh in the mirror shows only his teeth, not his heart or human warmth. The teeth appear like a snake’s fangs. The false laughter could conceal enough poison to kill a person.

Question x.
What does the poet long for?
Answer:
The poet longs for his childhood days that are innocent and happy.

Question xi.
Mention the qualities the child in the poem symbolizes.
Answer:
A child is guileless. He /she is innocent. He multiplies his joy and halves his sorrow by sharing them with friends. A child does not have lasting anger and is quick to forgive and forget wrongs done to him. His friendship is genuine and laughter natural and spontaneous.

2) Fill in the blanks choosing the words from the box given and complete the summary of the poem:

Question 1.
The poet Okara in this narrative monologue painfully condemns the (a) ______ displayed by adults, both in their words and actions. Here, a father laments to his son about the negative changes that creep into the attitude and behaviour of humans, when they grow into (b) ______. He says that people used to be (c)_______ when they laugh and the honesty would be reflected in their eyes. But, people of modern times laugh (d) ______. Their handshakes used to be warm and happy conveying a sense of togetherness, but nowadays the handshakes have become a mere (e) ______. He warns his son that people are not trust-worthy and have become so selfish that they are concerned only about their own (f)________ benefits.

People utter words of welcome and exchange (g) ______, but those words come only from the tip of their tongues and not from the depth of their hearts. Humans have learned the art of changing their (h) ______ expressions according to situations merely to ensure social acceptance. They wear (i) ______ and exhibit multiple faces. The narrator admits that he has also changed into a hypocrite. However, he tells his son that though he (j)_______ his expressions, he does all these against his will. He says he wants to become a (k) ______ again and laugh genuinely.

He wants to (l)______ the unreal things and (m) how to laugh as he had done once upon a time. When he laughs before the (n) ______, he sees no expression. His teeth are bare like that of the (o)_______ of a snake. So, he asks his son to show him how to laugh the way he used to laugh when he was a kid like him.

Answer:
a) Duplicity
b) adults
c) genuine
d) superficially
e) falsity
f) personal
g) pleasantries
h) facial
i) masks
j) fakes
k) child
l) unlearn
m) relearn
n) mirror
o) fangs

3a) Interpret each of the expressions used in the poem in one or two lines:

Question i.
Laugh with their eyes.
Answer:
Eyes are the windows of the soul, so when one laughs heartily and with true feelings, it gets reflected in their eyes.

Question ii.
Shake hands without hearts.
Answer:
It is a handshake that does not show warmth but a routine formality.

Question iii.
Like a fixed portrait smile.
Answer:
A smile that remains fixed and does not change with personal feelings and moods.

Question iv.
Hands search my empty pockets.
Answer:
In society at present relationships are measured in terms of how much money/power one has.

Question v.
To unlearn all these muting things.
Answer:
Getting rid of falseness in one’s behavior makes one laugh unpleasant.

3b) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any form of the following:

i) But now they only laugh with their teeth
While their ice-block- cold eyes

Question a.
Who are they?
Answer:
They refer to the people of modern times.

Question b.
Explain ice-block – cold – eyes
Answer:
It means modern people greet each other with a laugh, which does not reach the eyes. In short, the eyes lack a feeling of warmth.

Question c.
Identify the figure of speech used here.
Answer:
The figure of speech used here is a metaphor.

ii) Most of all, I want to relearn
How to laugh, for my laugh in the mirror Shows only my teeth like a Snake’s bare fangs !’

Question a.
Why does the poet want to relearn how to laugh?
Answer:
The poet wants to get rid of falseness in his behaviour. So he wants to relearn how to behave in a natural way.

Question b.
Whom does the poet want to relearn from?
Answer:
The poet wants to relearn from his son.

Question c.
Mention figure of speech used here.
Answer:
The figure of speech used here is Simile.

Additional Appreciation Questions:

(i) Once upon a time, son
They used to laugh with their hearts And laugh with their eyes:

Question a.
Who does ‘they’ refer to?
Answer:
They refer to the people of the present world.

Question b.
How did they laugh?
Answer:
They laugh with their hearts and eyes.

(ii) There was a time indeed
They used to shake hands with their hearts.
But that’s gone, son
Now they shake hands without hearts
Write their hands search
My empty pockets.

Question a.
When did people shake their hands with hearts?
Answer:
People shook hands with their hearts before the arrival of modernism.

Question b.
What does the phrase ‘Search my empty pockets’ mean?
Answer:
Search my empty pockets means evaluating a poet’s worth.

(iii) “I have learned to wear many faces”
And I have learned too
To laugh with only my teeth.
And shake hands without my heart.

Question a.
What did the poet learn to wear?
Answer:
The poet learned to wear many faces.

Question b.
Find out the alliterated words
Answer:
hands-heart

(iv) So, show me, son
How to laugh; show me how used to laugh and smile.

Question a.
Whom does the poet ask to show?
Answer:
The poet asks his son to show how to laugh.

Question b.
What does he want to learn from his son?
Answer:
He wants to learn how to laugh.

Figure of Speech:

C. Explain the following with reference to the context:

i) Once upon a time, son
They used to laugh with their eyes:

Reference:
These lines are taken from Poem – “Once upon a time”, poet – “Gabriel Okara”.
Context:
The poet says these words while explaining the behaviour of the people in the past.
Explanation:
The poet tells his son about the behaviour of people in the olden days. He remembers a time when people had true feelings for one another. They would laugh from the heart which reaches their eyes with the same warm feeling. They meet one another with genuine feeling.

ii) There will be no thrice

Reference:
These lines are taken from Poem – “Once upon a time”, poet – “Gabriel Okara”.
Context:
The poet brings out the sarcastic feeling through this line.
Explanation:
The poet says that today in the modern world people receive their guests and say come again and ask them to feel at home. But those words do not come from their heart. When the guests visit them once or twice they will be given a warm welcome. When it continues for the third time the doors of the people remain shut for the guest.

iii) I have learned to wear my faces
Like dresses ……………

Reference:
These lines are taken from Poem – “Once upon a time”, poet – “Gabriel Okara”.
Context:
Here the poet talks about the innate changes in him.
Explanation:
The poet changes his behaviour according to the situation which prevails at that time and slowly disappears his natural behaviour. In this context, he compares his change of behaviour with that of changing dresses suitable for different occasions.

iv) I want to be what I used to be.

Reference:
These lines are taken from Poem – “Once upon a time”, poet – “Gabriel Okara”.
Context:
The poet said these words while expressing his longing desire for his childhood days.
Explanation:
The poet has a deep desire to go back to the innocence of childhood. He is dissatisfied with his own changed self. He wants to relearn how to behave in a natural way and wants to get rid of his fake behaviour. In this context, he uttered the above words.

4. Answer the following questions in about 100-150 words each:

Question I.
Explain the things the poet has learned when he grew into an adult.
Answer:
The poet has learned many fake attitudes and behaviour when he grew into an adult. As he has to thrive in society, he is forced to wear a face mask. The poet feels that he behaves differently in different situations. He behaves differently in the office compared to the way he behaves at a party, or on the street. In this context, he feels that he changes his face like that of changing dresses on different occasions. This fact gets conveyed through the lines

I have learned to wear many faces Like dresses

The poet is sure that the different face that he puts on is not his real face. He also learned to have an artificial smile on all occasions. He learned to say things that he doesn’t really mean because they are the correct things to say in that situation.

For example, He sometimes politely greets a person by saying “Glad to meet you” even though he may not be interested in meeting him or her. He also learned to laugh only with teeth which is expressionless and shake hands without his heart which makes it a routine formality. He feels sad that like other adults in today’s world he has forgotten how to be a natural person.

Question II.
This poem is nothing but criticism of modern life. Justify this statement.
Answer:
The poem ‘Once Upon A Time’ is for sure considered a criticism of modern life. Throughout the poem, the poet laments about the fake behaviour of the people in the present day. They do not laugh wholeheartedly and their hands shake has no warmth in it. Everything seems to be a mere formality.

In society at present relationships are measured in terms of how much money one has. People utter Words of welcome and exchange pleasantries but those words come only from the tip of their tongues and not from the tip of their hearts. They have also learned the art of changing their facial expressions according to situations merely to ensure social acceptance.

Moreover, their smiles are “Like a fixed portrait smile” which has no specific expressions in it. They are not trust-worthy and have become so selfish that they are concerned only about their own personal benefits. Even when they utter words of a good deed they mean something else in their mind which clearly gets conveyed from the lines.

To say Glad to meet you without being glad;
Thus it is made clear that the poem is just a criticism of modern life.

Question III.
“Face is the index of the mind” Does this adage concur with the views of the poet?
Answer:
The face is described as the index of mind since it evidently reflects the inner feelings of an individual. It produces sentiments, thoughts, and emotional feelings in a very strong way as compared to other parts of the body. Some scholars see the face as an advertisement of real occurrences deep in the mind.

In this poem ‘Once Upon A Time,’ the poet brings forth the falsity of the people who does not get revealed in their face in any way. They change their facial expressions according to situations merely to ensure social acceptance. They wear masks and exhibit multiple faces. The lines – home face, office face, street face, host face, the cocktail face reveals the above fact.

Even when they utter words of pleasantries they have something else in their mind which does not get revealed in their face. They say “It’s been nice talking to you”, after being bored. Thus the above facts clearly reveal that the adage “ Face is the index of the mind” does not concur with the views of the poet.

கவிஞரைப் பற்றி:

கேப்ரியேல் ஒக்காரா (Gabriel Okara) 1921 ம் ஆண்டு பிறந்த நைஜீரிய கவிஞரும், புதின எழுத்தாளரும் ஆவார். இவருடைய கவிதைகள் அதிகமான மொழிகளில் மொழிபெயர்க்கப்பட்டுள்ளன. The call of the river nun என்ற இவரது கவிதை நூல் நைஜீரிய இலக்கிய விழாவில் சிறந்த இலக்கிய விருதை 1953 ல் பெற்றுள்ளது.

இவரின் சில கவிதைகள் Black Orpheus என்ற புத்தகத்தில் வெளிவந்ததன் மூலம் 1960ல் தலைச்சிறந்த எழுத்தாளராக உருவாக்கிக் கொண்டவர்.ஆகவே இவருக்கு Commonwealth கவிஞர் விருதும் வழங்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.

ஒக்காராவின் கவிதைகள் மக்களின் எதார்த்த வாழ்வைப்பற்றி தொடங்கி, மகிழ்ச்சியான தருணங்களை சொல்லி மீண்டும் எதார்த்த வாழ்க்கைக்கு இட்டுச் செல்வதாக அமைந்திருக்கும். ஒக்காரா தன்னுடைய கவிதையிலும், உரை நடையிலும் ஆப்ரிக்காவின் சிந்தனைகள், கிராமிய வழக்கு ஆகியவற்றை எடுத்துயம்புவதாக உருவாக்கியிருக்கிறார்.

The voice இவரின் மிகச்சிறந்த படைப்பு. The Fisherman’s invocation (1978), Little snake and Little frog (1981) An adventure to Juju Island (1992) ஆகியவை இவரின் சிறந்த படைப்புகள்.

கவிதையைப் பற்றி:

இக்கவிதை ஒரு தந்தை தன் மகனிடம் பேசுவதாக ஒக்காரா அமைந்திருக்கிறார். கவிதையாளர் தான் சிறுவயதாக இருக்கும் போது கற்றுக் கொண்ட நல்ல பழக்க வழக்கத்தையும், சிறு குழந்தைகளின் நல்ல உள்ளத்தையும் அதிகமாக நேசிப்பதாகவும், தானும் அந்த சிறுவயதான குழந்தைபோல் மகிழ வேண்டுமென்றும், இப்போது உள்ள உலக மாயையை வெருப்பதாகவும் தன் எளிய நடையில் தன் மகனிடம் கூறுகிறார்.

Once Upon a Time Summary in Tamil

மகனே, முன்னொரு காலத்தில்
இனிமையான இதயத்தோடும்
நேரிய அன்பு பார்வையோடும் புன்னகைத்தார்கள்
ஆனால் இப்போதோ வெறும் உதட்டளவில் புன்னகைக்கிறார்கள்,

அவர்களது நேசமில்லா கண்கள்
உள்ளொன்று வைத்து புறமொன்று பேசுகின்றன.
உண்மையில் ஒரு காலம் இருந்தது
அவர்கள் தங்கள் இதய அன்போடு கைகுலுக்கிக் கொண்டார்கள்

ஆனால் மகனே அவை தற்போது இல்லை
தற்போது மனம் இல்லாமல் கைகுலுக்கிக் கொள்கிறார்கள்
அவர்கள் இடது கைகள்
காலியாக உள்ள என் பைகளை துழாவுகின்றன.

உங்கள் வீடாக கருதுங்கள், மறுபடியும் வாருங்கள்
மனிதர்கள் சொல்கிறார்கள், நானும் வரும்போதெல்லாம் என் வீடாக கருதினேன்
திரும்பவும் சென்றேன், வீட்டைப் போல்
உணர்ந்தேன், முதல் முறை, இரண்டாம்முறை

ஆனால் மூன்றாவது முறை
அவர்கள் எனக்கு கதவுகளை மூடிக்கொண்டார்கள்.
அதனால் நான் பலபாடங்களை கற்றுக்கொண்டேன், மகனே
நான் ஆடைகள் போன்று பல முகங்களை

அணிய கற்றுக்கொண்டேன் – வீட்டின் முகம்,
அலுவலக முகம், தெரு முகம், தொகுப்பாளர் முகம்
கவலை உணர்ச்சிகளை காட்டும் முகம், நிலையான உருவப்பட புன்னகைப்போல்
அப்புன்னகை நிலையான ஏமாற்றமும் செயற்கையாக இருந்தது.

நானும் கற்றக்கொண்டேன்
செயற்கையாக சிரித்துக்கொள்ள கற்றுக்கொண்டேன்
மனம்மில்லாமல் கைகுலுக்கிக் கொண்டேன்
“பிரியாவிடை (good bye) சொல்ல கற்றுக்கொண்டேன்

“ஒழிந்தது நல்லதே” என நினைக்கும் இடத்தில்:
”சந்தித்ததில் மகிழ்ச்சி என சொல்ல வேண்டியிருந்தது
மகிழ்ச்சியாக இல்லாமல் அவர்களிடம் “உங்களோடு
பேசுவதில் மகிழ்ச்சி அடைகிறேன் என சலிப்புடன் பொய் கூறினேன்.

சந்தித்தது மகிழ்ச்சியாக உள்ளது” என சலித்து பொய் கூறினர்
ஆனால் நம்பு மகனே
நான் உன்னைப்போல் இருக்கும்போது
நான் எனக்கு பிடித்ததை செய்வேன்

எல்லாவற்றையும் மிகைப்படுத்திக் கூறும் செயல்களை
கற்காமல் இருக்க, நான் திரும்பவும்
சிரிக்க கற்றுக்கொண்டேன், கண்ணாடியில் சிரிக்க,
உதட்டளவில் பாம்பின் விஷம் கொண்ட பற்கள் போல.

மகனே என்னிடம் காட்டு
எப்படி மகிழ (சிரிக்க) வேண்டும் என்று; என்னிடம் வெளிப்படுத்து
நான் எவ்வாறு புன்னகைத்தேன் என்று
அன்றோரு காலம் நான் மகிழ்ந்தது போல்.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Principles and Processes of Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 4 Principles and Processes of Biotechnology

12th Bio Botany Guide Principles and Processes of Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer from the given option:

Question 1.
Restriction enzymes are.
a) Not always required in genetic engineering
b) Essential tools in genetic engineering.
c) Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites,
d) both b and c.
Answer:
d) both b and c

Question 2.
Plasmids are
a) circular protein molecules
b) required by bacteria.
c) tiny bacteria.
d) confer resistance to antibiotics.
Answer:
d) confer resistance to antibiotics

Question 3.
EcoRI cleaves DNA at.
a) AGGGTT
b) GTATATC.
c) GAATTC
d) TATAGC.
Answer:
c) GAATTC

Question 4.
Genetic engineering is
a) making artificial genes
b) hybridization of DNA of one organism to that of the others
c) production of alcohol by using micro organisms
d) making artificial limbs, diagnostic instruments such as ECG, EEC, etc.,
Answer:
b) hybridization of DNA of one organism to that of the others

Question 5.
Consider the following statements:
I) Recombinant DNA tecimology is popularly known as genetic engineering is a stream of biotechnology which deals with manipulation of genetic materials by man invitro.
II) pBR322 is the first artificial cloning vector developed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez from E.coli plasmid.
III) Restriction enzymes belongs to a class of enzymes called nucleases.
Choose the correct option regarding above statements
a) I & II.
b) I & III.
c) II & III
d) I, II, & III
Answer:
d) I, II & III

Question 6.
The process of recombinant DNA technology has the following steps
I) Amplication of the gene
II) Insertion of recombinant DNA into host cells
III) Cutting of DNA at specific location using restriction enzyme
IV) Isolation of genetic material(DNA)
Pick out the correct sequence of step for recombinant DNA technology,
a) II, III, IV, I
b) IV, II, III, I
c) I, II, III, IV
d) IV, III, I, II
Answer:
d) IV, III, I, II

Question 7.
Which one of the following palindromic base sequence in DNA can be easily cut about the middle by some particular restriction enzymes?
a) 5’ CGTTCG 3′ 3′ ATCGTA 5!
b) 5’ GATATG3′ 3′ CTACTA 5’
c) 5′ GAAHC 3′ 3′ CTTAAG 5′
d) 5′ CACGTA 3′ 3′ CTCAGT 5′
Answer:
c) 5′ GAAHC 3′ 3′ CTTAAG 5′

Question 8.
pBR 322, BR stands for
a) Plasmid Bacterial Recombination
b) Plasmid Bacterial Replication
c) Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez
d) Plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez
Answer:
c) Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez

Question 9.
Which of the following one is used as a Biosensors?
a) Electrophoresis
b) Bioreactors
c) Vectors
d) Electroporation
Answer:
Correct Answer: enzymes

Question 10.
Match the following

Answer:
b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

Question 11.
In which techniques Ethidium Bromide is used?
a) Southern Blotting Techniques
b) Western Blotting Techniques.
c) Polymerase Chain Reaction.
d) Agrose Gel Electroporosis.
Answer:
d) Agrose Gel Electroporosis

Question 12.
Assertion : Agrobacterium tumifaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this bacterium is associated with the root nodules of all cereals and pulse crops.
Reason : A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically transferred to the cross with which bacterium is associated.
a) Both assertion and reason are true. But reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true. But reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
e) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
e) Both assertion and reason are false

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not correct statement.
a) Ti plasmid causes the bunchy top disease.
b) Multiple cloning site is known as Polylinker.
c) Non viral method tranfection of Nucleic acid in cell
d) Polyactic acid is a kind of biodegradable and bioactive thermoplastic
Answer:
a) Ti plasmid causes the bunchy top disease

Question 14.
An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridisation technique does not use
a) Electrophoresis .
b) Blotting
c) Autoradiography
d) Polymerase Chain Reaction
Answer:
d) Polymerase Chain Reaction

Question 15.
An antibiotic gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of.
a) Competent cells.
b) Transformed cells
c) Recombinant cells
d) None of the above
Answer:
b) Transformed cells

Question 16.
Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are
a) Long fibre and resistant to aphids
b) Medium yield, long fibre and resistant to beetle pests
c) high yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
d) High yield and resistance to ball worms.
Answer:
d) High yield and resistance to bollworms

Question 17.
How do you use biotechnology in modern practice?
Answer:
Today biotechnology is a billion-dollar business around the world, applies biotechnological tools for their product improvement.

• Pharmaceutical companies.
• Breweries.
• Agro Industries & others.
• Modern biotechnology – include all methods, rDNA technology, cell fusion technology, etc.,
• Major focus of Biotechnology (see the tabulation)

Question 18.
What are the materials used to grow microorganisms like Spirulina?
Answer:
Spirulina can be grown easily on materials like waste water from potato processing plants (containing starch), straw, molasses, animal manure and even sewage, to produce large quantities.

Question 19.
You are working in a biotechnology lab with a bacterium namely E.Coli. How will you cut the nucleotide sequence? Explain it.
Answer:

• The exact kind of cleavage produced by a v restriction enzyme is important in the • design of a gene cloning experiment.
• Some cleave both strands of DNA through the centre resulting in blunt or flush end known as symmetric cuts.
• Some restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA, a little away from the centre of palindrome sites, between the same two bases on the opposite strands, protruding and recessed ends known as sticky or cohesive end, cuts known as asymmetric cut or
  staggered cuts.
• It is necessary that the vector and the source DNA are cut with the same restriction enzyme, so that the resultant DNA fragments have the same sticky ends facilitating the action of DNA ligase to join them.

Question 20.
What are the enzymes you can used to cut terminal end and internal phosphodiester bond of nucleotide sequence?
Answer:
Restriction exonuclease are the restriction enzyme used to cut nucleotides from the terminal end of DNA. Whereas, restriction endonucleases cut the internal phosphodiester bond with DNA molecule.

Question 21.
Name the chemicals used in gene transfer.
Answer:
Director vector less Gene transfer is possible through several mediators

Chemical mediated gene transfer:
Certain chemicals like Poly Ethylene Glycol(PEG) and Dextran Sulphate.
These chemicals induce the uptake of DNA into plant protoplasts.

Question 22.
What do you know about the word pBR332?
Answer:
pBR332 – It is a reconstructed plasmid and most widely used as cloning vector.

• It contains 4361 base pairs.
• P denotes Plasmid .
• B&R – The names of Boliver and Rodriguez, the scientists developed this plasmid.
• 322 – The number of plasmid developed from their lab.
• It contains ampR & tet^R – 2 different antibiotic resistant genes & the recognition sites for several restriction enzymes (Hindlll, ECoRI, Bam H-I, Sal I, Pvu II, Pst I, Cla I) ori & antibiotic resistance genes.
• Rop – Codes for the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid.

Question 23.
Mention the application of Biotechnology.
Answer:
Introduction: Most important applied interdisciplinary sciences of the 21 st century
It has promise for the benefits of Human Being.

Production of secondary metabolites – Biofertilizers, Biopesticides & Enzymes
Biomass Energy, Biofuel, Biorernediation phvtoremediation for environmental biotechnology.

Question 24.
What is the restriction enzymes? Mention their type with a role in Biotechnology.
Answer:
Restriction enzymes are the enzymes of bacterial origin which cleaves DNA into fragments at or near specific recognition sites within DNA molecules. This principle is used in biotechnology to cut and insert the desired gene (gene of interest) thereby generating an rDNA with desirable characters.

a) Exonucleases – remove nucleotides one at a time from the end of DNA.
Eg: Bal 31, Exonuclease III

b) Endonucleases – break the internal phosphodiester bonds with in a DNA.
Eg: Hind II, EcoRI, Pvul, Bam HI, Taql.

Three classes of Restriction endonuclease

• Type 1, II & III – which differ slightly by their mode of action
• Type II – preferred in rDNA technology as they cut DNA with in a specific sequence consisting of 4 – 8 bp.
• Hind II – cut DNA at a point of specific sequence of 6 base pairs (recognition
  sequence).
• From 200 strains 900 restriction enzymes isolated from over 230 strains of bacteria with different recognition sequences.
• Restriction endonucleases are named by a standard procedure.
• The first letter of the enzymes indicates the genus name, followed by the first two letters of the species, then comes the strain of the organism and finally a roman numeral indicating the order of discovery.
• For example ECORI is from Escherichia (E) coli (co) strain Ry 13 (R) and first endonuclease (I) to be discovered .
• It contains 2 different antibiotic resistance genes and recognition site for several restriction enzymes.
  This sequence is referred to as a restriction site and is generally – palindromic which means that the sequence in both DNA strands at this site read same in 5′ – 3′ direction and in the 3′ – 5′ direction.

Question 25.
Are there any possibilities to transfer a suitable desirable gene to host plant without vector? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes, it is possible to transfer a suitable desired gene to a host plant using certain chemicals, microinjection method, electroporation or by biolistics.

a. Chemical mediated gene transfer:
Chemicals Poly Ethylene Glycol (PEG) & Dextran sulphate – induce DNA uptake into plant protoplasts.

b. Microinjection:
With a fine-tipped glass needle, DNA is directly injected into the nucleus.
The protoplasts are immobilized on solid support (agarose on a microscopic slide)

c. Electroporation method of gene transferJjjJU Protoplasts, cells or tissues subjected to a pulse of high voltage electric power to make transient pores in the plasma membrane, through which uptake of foreign DNA occurs.

d. Liposome – mediated methods of gene transfer
The gene or DNA is transferred in an encapsulated form from Liposome ( the artificial phospholipid vesicles) into the vacuole of plant cells.

e. Biolistics:
The DNA particle with gold or tungsten particle (1.3 gm) coating are bombarded into the target tissue by gene gun or microprojectile gun/shotgun The bombarded cells/tissues are cultured to regenerate plants from transformed cells.

Question 26.
How will you identify vectors?
Answer:

Question 27.
Compare the various types of Blotting techniques.
Answer:

Question 28.
Write the advantages of herbicide-tolerant crops.
Answer:

Question 29.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of Bt cotton.
Answer:

Question 30.
What is bioremediation? Give some examples of bioremediation.
Answer:
Bioremediation:
It is defined as the use of microorganisms or plants to clean up the environmental pollution. It is an approach used to treat wastes including wastewater, industrial waste, and solid waste. The bioremediation process is applied to the removal of oil, petrochemical residues, pesticides, or heavy metals from soil or groundwater.

In many cases, bioremediation is less expensive and more sustainable than other physical and chemical methods of remediation. The bioremediation process is a cheaper and eco-friendly approach and can deal with lower concentrations of contaminants more effectively. The strategies for bioremediation in soil and water can be as follows:

1. Use of indigenous microbial population as indicator species for the bioremediation process.
2. Bioremediation with the addition of adapted or designed microbial inoculants.
3. Use of plants for bioremediation – green technology.

Question 31.
Write the benefits and risks of Genetically Modified Foods.
Answer:

12th Bio Botany Guide Principles and Processes of Biotechnology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a secondary metabolite? IWriiWJ
a. Ethanol
b. Acetic acid
c. Citric acid
d. Toxic pigments
Answer:
d) Toxic pigments

Question 2.
Bio-Technology was coined by.
a. Weisner
b. Karl Prantl
c. Sanger & Gilbert
d. KarlEreky
Answer:
d) Karl Ereky

Question 3.
Traditional Bio-Technology is also known as.
a. Fermentation Biology
b. Kitchen Technology
c. Hybridization Biology
d. Transgenic Biology
Answer:
b) Kitchen Technology

Question 4.
The study of Drugs or medicines used in medical treatment is known as.
a. Pharmaceuticals
b. Biomedical Engineering
c. Chemical Engineering
d. Tissue Engineering
Answer:
a) Pharmaceuticals

Question 5.
Which of the following can be Bio Technological products?
a. Antibiotics
b. Vaccines
c. Enzymes
d. All the above.
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 6.
Multiplication of Alien DNA in organisms required
a. ROP
b. ORI
c. Stop codon
d. TATA box
Answer:
b) ORI

Question 7.
Tools of Biotechnology is used for effluent treatment, water cycling is known as
a. Process Engineering
b. Production Engineering
c. Mechanical Engineering
d. Microbial Engineering
Answer:
a) Process Engineering

Question 8.
The scientist who use a first viral vaccine to inoculate a child from smallpox is
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Edward Jenner
c. Sanger and Gilbert.
d. Arber and Nathans
Answer:
b) Edward Jenner

Question 9.
The enzyme used for making artificial sweeteners is
a. Lactose
b. Galactose
c. Invertase
d. Reductase
Answer:
c) Invertase

Question 10.
Development of Artificial gene functioning within living cells was done by
a. H.G.Khorana
b. Ian Wilmet
c. Sir Robert
d. G. Edwards
Answer:
a) H.G.Khorana

Question 11.
rDNA is also known as
a. Hybrid DNA-RNA
b. Recombinant of vector DNA and desired genes
c. Chimeric DNA
d. Bothb&c
Answer:
d) Both b & c

Question 12.
Plasmids are
a. ss DNA
b. ds DNA(linear)
c.rDNA
d. Vector DNA
Answer:
d) Vector DNA

Question 13.
pBR322 is most extensively studied
a. Foreign gene
b. r DNA
c. done
d. Plasmid DNA of Ecoli.
Answer:
d) Plasmid DNA of Ecoli

Question 14.
Restriction enzymes recognize specific
a. Palindromic region,
b. Exons
c. Introns
d. None of these
Answer:
a) Palindromic region

Question 15.
Restriction enzymes of Ecoli are
a. Hind III
b. Bam III
c. EcoRI I & EcoRI II
d. All of these.
Answer:
c) EcoRI I & EcoRI II

Question 16.
The best cloning organism for biotechnology is
a. Agrobacterium
b. Pseudomonas
c. Lambda phage
d. E. Coli
Answer:
d) E.Coli

Question 17.
The ability to form tumours is found in the plasmids of
a. E.coli
b. Pseudomonas
c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
d. Pneumococcus
Answer:
c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 18.
Engineered bacterium carries
a. Plasmids
b. rDNA
c. c DNA
d. ssDNA
Answer:
b) rDNA

Question 19.
Electrophoresis and southern blotting techniques are used in
a. DNA fingerprinting
b. Gene Synthesis
c. gene cloning
d. All of these.
Answer:
a) DNA fingerprinting

Question 20.
In biosesnsors Green Fluorescent protein is used which is isolated from A and spliced
a. A Chlamydomonas – B Ecoli
b. A Gelidium – B Bacillus subtilis
c. A Aequorea victoria – B Arabidopsis thaliana
d. A Asoaragus – B Accacia melanoxylon
Answer:
c. A Aequorea victoria – B Arabidopsis thaliana

Question 21.
Bacteria protects themselves from viral attack by producing
a. Exonuclease
b. Endonuclease
c.DNAligase
d. Gy ase
Answer:
b) Endonuclease

Question 22.
Molecular scissor is
a. Urease
b. Helicase
c. Peptidase
d. Restriction Endonuclease
Answer:
d) Restriction Endonuclease

Question 23.
Which one of the following is used in transfer of foreign DNA to crop plants?
a. Penicillum Expansum
b. TrichodermaHarzianum
c. Meloidogyne Incognita
d. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer:
d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 24.
E coli is the mostly used organism for gene cloning, because
a. It is easy to handle
b. It is growing easily under optimal condition
c. It is the safe organism d. All the above.
Answer:
d) All the above.

Question 25.
Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
a. 5′ CGTTCG3’3′ ATGGTA 5′
b. 5′ GATATG 3′ 3′ CTACTA 5′
c. 5′ GAATTC 3′ 3’CTTAAG 5′
d. 5′ CACGTA3’3′ CTCAGT 5′
Answer:
c. 5′ GAATTC 3′ 3’CTTAAG 5′

Question 26.
Biolistics (gene gun) is suitable for
a. Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
b. DNA finger printing
c. Disease resistant genes
d. Transformation of plant cells
Answer:
d) Transformation of plant cells

Question 27.
For transformation micro particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
a. Silver or Platinum
b. Platinum or Zinc
c. Silicon or Platinum
d. Gold or Tungsten
Answer:
d) Gold or Tungsten

Question 28.
Rising of dough is due to
a. Multiplication of Yeast
b. Production of CO₂
c. Emulsification
d. Hydrolysis of wheat flour starch in to sugar
Answer:
b) Production of CO₂

Question 29.
All the process after the fermentation process is known as
a. upstream process
b. downstream process
c. forward process
d. backward process
Answer:
b) downstream process

Question 30.
For making GMO, the three basic steps that are required are
a. Identification of DNA with desirable gene
b. Introduction of identified DNA into the host
c. Maintenance of introduced DNA in to the host and transfer of DNS to its progeny
d. All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 31.
Zymology is the study of
a. Fermentation & its practical use
b. Name of Bioreactors
c. Upstream pro^ss
d. Downstream process
Answer:
a) Fermentation & its practical use

Question 32.
ECORI – R stands for
a. Genus
b. Species
c. Strains
d. Group
Answer:
a) Genus

Question 33.
Which is suitable for transferring an alien DNA into a plant cell?
a. CaCl₂
b. Biolistics or gene gun method
c. Micro infection
d. Heat shock
Answer:
b) Biolistics or gene gun method

Question 34.
The group of degradable biopolymers are
a. CrylAc and DMH-11
b. PHAsandPHB
c. GFPandPGA
d. DMH and HT
Answer:
b) PHAs and PHB

Question 35.
Genetically engineered human insulin is
a. Haematiri
b. Pro insulin
c. Hybridin
d. Humulin
Answer:
d) Humulin

Question 36.
Probiotics are
a. Food Allergens
b. safe antibiotics
c, Carcinogenic microbes
d. Live microbial food supplements
Answer:
d) Live microbial food supplement

Question 37.
Bt Brinjal is produced by using A and is having resistance against B.
a. A Ecoli – B Virus
b. A Virus – B Bacteria
c. A Agrobacterium – B Bacillus
d. A Agrobacterium – B Lepidopteron
Answer:
d. A Agrobacterium – B Lepidopteron

Question 38.
PCR refers to
a. A common laboratory technique of making millions of copies of a particular region of DNA
b. A biotechnological procedure of replicating DNA strands
c. Hybridization of DNA molecules in to several fragments
d. It is a test for tracing genetic defects.
Answer:
a) A common laboratory technique of making millions of copies of a particular region of DNA

Question 39.
The test used in the diagnosis of AIDS are
a. ELISA and Southern blot
b. Northern blot and ELISA
c. Western blot and ELISA
d. ELISA and Widal test
Answer:
c) Western blot and ELISA

Question 40.
The characteristics of molecular probe are
a. very long molecule
b. double stranded
c. DNAorRNA
d. complementary to a part of desired gene options
I. a & b
II. b & c
III. a & d
IV. c & d
Answer:
iv) c & d

Question 41.
Use of biology in industrial process and for improving quality of life is called
a. Biotechnology
b. Genetic engineering
c. Eugenics
d. Microbiology
Answer:
c) Eugenics

Question 42.
Somoclonal variations occur in plants subjected to
a. r DNA technology
b. Exposed to gamma rays
c. Tissue culture
d. Highly polluted environmrnt
Answer:
c) Tissue culture

Question 43.
DNA elements with ability to change positions is called
a. intron
b. transposon
c. exon
d. recon
Answer:
b) transposon

Question 44.
The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to
a. viruses
b. Nematodes
c. Fungi
d. Insect pests
Answer:
b) Nematodes

Question 45.
A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is
a. Bt Soyabean
b. Star link Maize
c. Golden rice
d. FlavrSavr Tomato
Answer:
c) Golden rice

Question 46.
LacZ is a reporter gene used in
a. Antibiotic resistant markers
b. Replica Plating Technique
c. Vector mediated gene transfer
d. Insertional Inactivation (Blue white colony selection method)
Answer:
d) Insertional Inactivation (Blue white colony selection method)

Question 47.
PTA – 6
a. GMF
b. Circular protein
c. GFP
d. PLA
Answer:
c) GFP

Question 48.
The introduction of foreign nucleic acids ito cells by non viral methods is known as
a. Transduction
b. Transfection
c.Inoculatin
d.Transformation
Answer:
b) Transfection

Question 49.
The CO₂ and Ethyl alcohol of fermentation are used respectively in
a. Bakery and Brewery
b. Brewery and Sugar Refining
c. Refinery and Brewery
d. Sewage treatment plants & Alcoholic beverage factories
Answer:
a) Bakery and Brewery

Question 50.
This enzyme is purified from bacteria and calf intestine is
a. DNAligase
b. Alkaline Phosphatase
c. Exo nuclease
d. Endo nuclease
Answer:
b) Alkaline Phosphatase

Question 51.
The use of transposon is well studied in
a. Arabidopsis thaliana & Escherichia coli
b. Escherichia coli & Yeast cell
c. Salmonella typhi & Pisum Sativum
d. None of the above
Answer:
a) Arabidopsis thaliana & Escherichia coli

Question 52.
Curd milk, cheese and butter are produced with the help of
a. penicillium
b. streptomyces
c. saccharomyces
d. none of the above
Answer:
d. none of the above

Question 53.
Basta herbicide tolerant gene PPT was isolat ed from
a. Medicago sativa
b. Ginkgo biloba
c. Mentha viridis
d. None of the above
Answer:
a) Medicago sativa

Question 54.
The number of Bt Toxin produced by strains of Bacillus thurigiensis is
a. 200
b.400
c. 2600
d, 2400
Answer:
a) 200

Question 55.
The name & source organism of the gene crylAc and its target pest are
a. Meloidegyne incognita – root borer
b. Bacillus thuringiensis – cotton bollworm
c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens – stem borer
d. Manducta sexta – horn worm
Answer:
b) Bacillus thuringiensis – cotton bollworm

Question 56.
Which was the first plants to be used to demonstrate the feasibility of CRISPR – mediated targeted mutagenesis and gene replacement
a. Wheat
b. Rice
c. Maize
d. Arabidiopsis
Answer:
b) Rice

Question 57.
Which one of the following selection method takes longer time in bringing about desired
a. Clonal selection
b. Mass selection
c. Pure line selection
d. Natural selection
Answer:
d) Natural selection

Question 58.
EPSPSisa
a. Hydrolysins substance
b. Round up Enzyme
c. Bio Pesticide
d. Fertilizer
Answer:
b) Round up Enzyme

Question 59.
Match the following

Answer:
1. b. ds- circular gene
2. c. Has one, ori & inc genes
3. d. most widely used as cloning vector
4. a. Jumping gene

Question 60.
Match
1. Fermentation – Kohler
2. Monoclonal antibodies – Francis cirde
3. Viral Vaccine – Louis pasteur
4. Double helix structure . of DNA – Edward jenner
a) i-III, ii) I, iii) IV, iv) II
a) i-II, ii) III, iii) IV, iv) I
a) i-IV, ii) III, iii) I, iv) IV
a) i-II, ii) III, iii) I, iv) IV
Answer:
a) i-III, ii) I, iii) IV, iv) II

Question 61.
Choose the odd man out
With regard to the strategies of Bio remediation
a. Use of indigenous microbial population as indicator species
b. The addition of adapted or designed microbial inoculants
c. Use of plants to clean up pollutants
d. Molecular pharming to produce transgenic organisms.
Answer:
d. Molecular pharming to produce transgenic organisms.

Question 62.
With regard to SCP – Choose the odd man out.
a. Chlorella
b. Spirulina
c. Chlamydomonas
d. Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer:
d) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 63.
With regard to secondary metabolites choose the odd man out
a. Antibiotics
b. Terpenoids
c. Rubber
d. Lactic acid
Answer:
d) Lactic acid

Question 64.
Choose the incorrect pair

Answer:
c) ROP – Protein involved in the replication of the plasmid

Question 65.

Answer:
a) DMH -11 – Herbicide tolerant Pea

Question 66.
Which is the set of fragments obtained by the action of Hae III restriction enzymes on
\(\left\{\begin{array}{l}
5^{\prime} \mathrm{GGCC}^{\prime} \\
3^{\prime} \mathrm{CCGG} 5^{\prime}
\end{array}\right\}=?\)

Answer:

Question 67.
With regard to transgenic organism & the processes

Answer:
b. Mycoremediation – use of bacteria to bring about environmental remediation

II. Assertion and Reason

In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion (A) and the other one is reason(R) Mark the correct answer as
a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A
b) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A
c) It A is true but’R’is false
d) If both A&R are false

Question 68.
Assertion : Stirred tank fermenters help in obtaining the foreign gene product Reason : They allow the large scale growth of the biomass that leads to a higher yield of desired proteins
Answer:
a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A

Question 69.
Assertion: PCR is used inrDNA technology. Reason : Special fast multiplying vectors are produced using PCR method.
Answer:
b) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A

Question 70.
Assertion : In EcoRI, the letter R is derived from the genus of bacteria.
Reason :
EcoRI, the name of palindromic nucleotide sequences.
Answer:
d) If both A & R are false

Question 71.
Assertion : Assertion:Micro injection technique is used to inject rDNA directly into the nucleus of an animal cell
Reason: Genegun is used to transfer rDNA into plant cells
Answer:
b) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A

Question 72.
Assertion : In bio reactors, the transforming cells are maintained in their physiologically most active phase..
Reason : A large biomass using higher yields of desired protein is got by it.
Answer:
a) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A

Question 73.
Assertion: n rDNA technology, the restriction enzymes, those produce sticky ends are commonly used.
Reason : Sticky ends facilitates the action of enzyme DNA ligase.
Answer:
a) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A

Question 74.
Assertion : Cloning vector should have selectable marker.
Reason : Selectable marker helps in identifying and eliminating non – trnsformants and selectively permitting the growth of transformants.
Answer:
a) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 75.
The bio reactor is a Fermentor – vessel in which the following factors are controlled.
a. Nutrient, temperature and microorganism
b. Aeration, agitation, temperature and pH
c. Aeration, Activation, Agarose gel & hormones.
d. Hormones, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide & not trade secrets.
Answer:
b. Aeration, agitation, temperature and pH

Question 76.
Which one of the following statement is true regarding IPR?
a. The discoverer has the full rights on his/her property.
b. IPR includes only the process of the product
c. IPR is not protected by laws framed by the country.
d. The discoverer can use his discovery for his own company but can not sell it to others.
Answer:
a) The discoverer has the full rights on his/her property.

Question 77.
a. Most of Bt toxins are insecticidal to the larvae of Honeybees, Butterflies & Lepidoptera.
b. Bt – Brinjal is developed to give resistant against viral attacks.
c. Flavr – Savr is a variety of corn produced by Agrobacterium mediated genetic engineering technique
d. Goldenrice has been genetically altered so that the endosperm now accumulates Beta – Carotene
Answer:
d) Goldenrice has been genetically altered so that the endosperm now accumulates Beta -Carotene

Question 78.
a.Cosmids are hybrid vectors derived from plasmids.
b. YAC plasmid vector does not behave like a yeast chromosome.
c. BAC vector is not used inrDNA technology.
d. The shuttle vectors are plasmids present in most of the Prokaryotes.
Answer:
a.Cosmids are hybrid vectors derived from plasmids.

IV. Choose the incorrect statements

Question 79.
a. ELISA is a diagnostic tool in the identification of pathogen species by using antibodies
b. In plant pathology ELISA is used to weed out virus infected plants.
c. ELISA test is one of the tests in the diagnosis of AIDS.
d. The presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is also traced by ELISA test.
Answer:
d) The presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is also traced by ELISA test.

Question 80.
a. DNA probes are used in the identification of viruses and other pathogen.
b. RNA probes are used in the identification of bacteria as pathogens.
c. Northern Blotting can also be used in the «identification of pathogenecity of viruses.
d. Southern Blotting help as a tool to identify virus and other pathogens.
Answer:
b) RNA probes are used in the identification of bacteria as pathogens

IV. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. The method that involved the growth of tissues & cells in a suitable new medium and away from the parent plant is known as…………………….
Answer:
Tissue culture

2. The range of insects killed by Bt. Toxins are…………………….
Answer:
Lepitopteron

3. The genes that code for Bt toxins are commercially called…………………….
Answer:
Cry genes

4. The first company to produce insulin by rDNA technology is…………………….
Answer:
Eli Lilly

5. The Indian scientist who was the innovator of ELISA in India is…………………….
Answer:
Usha M.Joshi

6. PCR is usually used to detect the……………………. in a suspected …………………….patient.
Answer:
HIV & AIDS

7. Are present in increased quantities in glutelin is…………………….
Answer:
rice

8. Protein encoded by cry Ab control…………………….
Answer:
Cotton borer

9. Use of microorganism in solution to recover toxic metal pollutants from contaminated sites is…………………….
Answer:
Bioleaching

10. The endosperm of normal rice doesnot contain…………………….
Answer:
Beta carotene

V. Two Marks

Question 1.
What are the tools for genetic engineering?
Answer:

• Enzymes (1) restriction endonuclease (2) DNA ligase
• Vectors
• Host organisms

Question 2.
What is PCR?
Answer:
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction is common laboratory technique used to make copies (millions) of a particular region of DNA

Question 3.
Differtiate between Exonuclease & Endonuclease
Exonuclease

1. It remove nucleotides one at a time from the end of a DNA molecule
2. May also cut RNA Eg;Exonuclease

Exonuclease :

1. It break the internal internal phosphodiester bonds with in a DNA molecule
2. They do not cut RNA | Eg:Hind II -ecoRI Pvul, Bam HI, Taq I

Question 4.
What is the role of Restriction endonuclease in the life of bacteria?
Answer:

• They exist in many bacteria, where they function as a part of their defence mechanism called restriction-modification system
• It helps the bacteria to cut the genetic material of the virus that attack it and render them harmless. EgiE.coli

Question 5.
How do DNA ligases join the DNA fragments?
Answer:
DNA ligase,joins the sugar and phosphate molecule of double stranded DNA (ds.DNA) with 5’po₄ and 3′-OH in an ATP -dependent reaction

Question 6.
What are the two types of vectors?
Answer:
Cloning vector
It is used for cloning of DNA,insert inside the suitable host cell

Expression vector
It is used to express the DNA insert for producing specific protein inside the host

Question 7.
What is meant by ori?
Answer:
Origin replication (ori) is a sequence from
where replication starts and piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells

Question 8.
What is the main function of a selectable marker?
Answer:

• Selectable marker , which helps in identifying and eliminating nontransformants
• It will selectively permit the growth to the transformants

Question 9.
What is known as Walking genes or jumping genes or Transposons?
Answer:
The DNA sequence able to insert itself at a new location in the – Genome without having any sequence relationship with the target locus -,hence known as walking or jumping genes-or Transposons

Question 10.
Differentiate between BAG &Y AC vector
BAC vector:

1. It is a shuttle plasmid vector
2. Most useful cloning vector in r DNAtechnology
3. Can clone DNA inserts of up to 300 kb
4. Stable & more user friendly

YAC vector :

1. Behave like a yeast chromosome
2. It occur in 2 forms i) circular ii) linear
   I. Circular YAC- multiplies in bacteria
   II. Linear YAC-multiplies in yeast cells

Question 11.
Differentiate between plasmid DNA & chromosomal DNA
Answer:
Plasmid DNA

1. Extra chromosomal DNA
2. Mostly circular double stranded (ds)
3. Not associated with histones
4. Show autonomous replication with in a suitable host
5. Do not act as genetic factor
6. Don’t have introns

Chromosomal DNA :

1. Chromosomal DNA
2. Associated with histone proteins
3. They replicate with the genome
4. Can be linear/circular ss or ds
5. They act as genetic factor
6. Have both introns & exons

Question 12
Ecoli is the most widely used organism as genetic material in Biotechnological studies-justify
Answer:

• E.coli genetic makeup has been extensively studied
• It is easy to handle & grow in short time
• It can accept a range of vectors & also been studied for safety
• Under optimal growing conditions the cells divide every 20 minutes

Question 13.
What is Biolistics method/ gene gun/ shot gun/method of DNA introduction ? Give any one practical application of this method of gene transfer
Answer:

• It is a method of transfecting cells by bombarding them with microprojectiles coated with DNA
• It is most useful for inserting genes(such as pesticide/ herbicide resistance genes) into plant cells
• The bombarded cells or tissues are cultured on selected medium to regenerate plants from the transformed cells

Question 14.
Biotechnologists refer to Agrobacterium tumifaciens as a natural genetic engineer of plants. Give reasons to support then statement
Answer:
Yes – because the T1 plasmid of this bacterium is very large sized one known as(Tumour inducing) and a portion of it is referred as T-DNA (transfer DNA).Since upon infection of the cells at wound site the bacterium has the natural ability to transfer T- DNA region of its plasmid in to plant genome it is also known as Natural genetic engineer of plants

Question 15.
What is ‘Gene knock out’ . Name the two types of vectors used for ‘Gene knock out’
Answer:

• In gene targeting experiments the nuclei has been targeted. This is known as gene knock out
• Two types of vectors are used for it. They are insertion vectors & the replacement vectors

Question 16.
What is Genome project?
Answer:
In this project the whole – genome of plant is analysed using sequence analysis & sequence homology with other plants.
Eg: Chlamydomonas(Algae), Arabidopsis thaliana, Rice & Maize

Question 17.
What is biofortification?
Answer:

• A process in biotechnology by which the nuitritive quantity of food material is increased by gene transfer technology .It is also known as Biofortification
• The nutritive protein, carbohydrate, Vitamins can be enriched by this process.
• Eg: Golden rice with vitamin A

Question 18.
What are the advantages of Herbicide tolerant crops
Answer:

• Weed control, improves higher crop yields
• Reduces usage of herbicides
• Reduces competition between crop & weed
• Use of low toxicity compounds ( not remain active in soil)
• Conservation of soil structure and soil microbes

Question 19.
How is the Bacillus thuringiensis bacterium protected from BT. toxin and how it is effective in insect body?
Answer:
BT.toxin is present in its inactive form called protoxin in bacillus thuringiensis
When the bacterium is ingested by the insect, the alkaline PH of the- alimentary canal of insect is activated .The toxin which binds to the epithelial cells of midgut forming pores -leading to swelling & lysis of the cells -leading to death of the insects

Question 20.
Distinguish between cry & cry III Ab
Answer:

• Gene for BT.toxin is written as cry and the prote in as cry III At
• The first letter of protein symbol is always written capital form and written as cry III Ab.

Question 21.
What is bio remediation?
Answer:
It is an approach in which genetically engineered Micro organism (GEMS) or green plants etc., can be used to treat nonbiodegradable/toxic wastes suches
oil,petrochemical residues,pesticides or heavy metals in
i) Soil ii) Ground water iii) Marine environment and to make environment more sustainable.

Question 22.
What are the limitations of Bioremediation?
Answer:

• Only biodegradable contaminants can be degraded
• The process must be specific to the contaminated site
• Small scale tests to be conducted before carrying out on a pilot scale
• It is a costly affair also need more research in these areas.

Question 23.
What is Algal bio-fuel-Explain
Answer:

• The use of Algae as a source of energy
• It is an alternative to i) Fossil fuels, ii) Fuel from corn, iii) Sugar cane
• It is also used for making bio-fuel or bio-iesal
• Land unsuitable for Agriculture can be utilised for (farming algae) algal culture. Eg.Botryococcus braunii

Question 24.
Write the chemistry of biological hydrogen production by algae?
Answer:

• The Technology is photo biological water splitting
• When thenormal condition of photosynthesis was altered, or when it is deprived of sulfur it switches to the production of Hydrogen and the electrons are transported to ferredoxins
• [Fe]-hydrogenase enzymes combine them into the production of Hydrogen gas, an alternative fuel for the next generation

Question 25.
Write the principle of electrophoresis?
Answer:

• Electrophoresis is a separating technique used to separate different biomolecules with positive and negative charges.
• By applying electricity (DC) the molecules migrate according to the type of charges they have.
• The electrical charges on different molecules are variable.
• +ve charged cation will move towards -ve cathod.
• -ve charged anions will move towards +ve anode.

Question 26.
What is screening?
Answer:

• After the introduction of r-DNA into a suitable host cell
• It is essential to identify those cells which have received the r-DNA molecule.
• This process is called screening

Question 27.
Name the two types of gene transfer methods in plants?
Answer:

• Direct or vector less gene transfer
• Indirect or vector mediated gene transfer

Question 28.
Define Zymology?
Answer:
The study of termentation, its practical uses is called zymology.

VI. Three Marks.

Question 1.
Give the two main features of modern biotechnology that differentiated it from conventional technology
Answer:

• Ability to change the -genetic material for getting new products according to the requirement through r DNA technology
• Ownership of the newly developed technology and its social impact

Question 2.
What is a bioreactor?
Answer:
It is a vessal or container , designed,

A. To provide an optimum environment, in which microorganism or their enzymes interact with a subtract to produce a product
B. It provide a controlled condition, aeration, agitation, temperature and PH.
C. It has 2 processes i) upstream ii) down stream

Question 3.
Differentiate between upstream & downstream process
Answer:
Upstream process :

1. 1st part
2. All the process-of preparation before the starting the process >
3. Includes sterilization of the bioreactor, preparation & sterilization of culture medium and growth of the suitable inoculum

Downstream process :

1. Follows upstream
2. All the process after the fermentation process
3. Includes distillation centrifuging, filteration & solvent extraction Mostly- involves the purification of the desired product

Question 4.
Explain the role of Agrobacterium as a vector in gene transfer.
Answer:
Ti plasmid :

• Ti plasmid is found in Agrobacterium tumefaciens a bacteria responsible for inducing tumours in several dicot plants.
• It plasmid carries transfer (tra) gene which help to transfer T-DNA from one bacterium to other bacterial or plant cell.
• It has one gene for oncogonecity, ori gene for origin for replication and inc gene for incompatibility.
• T-DNA of Ti-plasmid is stably integrated with plant DNA
• Agrobacterium plasmids have been used for introduction of genes of desirable traits in to plants.

Question 5.
Write down the various Applications of SCP. SCP is used in various ways
Answer:

• Protein supplement
• Cosmetic product for healthy hair & skin
• Poultry industry as excellent source of proteinacious food.
• In food industry – canbe carrier in production of aroma, tic compounds vitamin, emulsifying agent  improve the nutritive value of baked products & ready to serve meals.
• In the processing of paper & leather as foam stabilizers.

Question 6.
What is Barcode in genetic term?
Answer:

• It is genetic form refer to the identify of the taxon based on its genetic makeup.
• It is an optical machine readable representation of data which describes about A the characters of any plants / objects.

Question 7.
Define Genome or Gene editing.
Answer:

• A group of technologies that has the ability to change an organism’s DNA.
• Genetic material can be added, removed or altered at particular locations in the genome – known as genome or gene editing.
• Eg. GRISPR – mediated gene replacement – Rice can be switched from sexual to an asexual mode.

Question 8.
What are the (believed to be) Risks of GM Food
Answer:

• Affect Liver, Kidney functioning
• Carcinogenic (cause cancer)
• Hormonal imbalance & Physical disorder
• Anaphylactic shocks (sudden hypersensitive reaction) & Allergies
• Adverse effects on immune system – due to interference of bacterial protein
• Loss of viability of seeds, (shown in terminator seed technology of GM crops).

Question 9.
What is Northern to Blot & differentiate it from western Blot?.
Answer:

• Alwin et al. (1979) devised a special technique Northern Blot hybridization to
  transfer RNA bands.
• Amino Benzyloxymethyl paper is the filter paper used, which can be prepared from what man 540 paper.

Western Blot

• It is electrophoretic transfer of protein to blotting papers.
• Nitrocellulose filter paper can be used.
• A particular protein is then identified by probing the blot with a radio-labelled antibody – binds on the specific protein to which the – antibody was prepared.

Question 10.
How are the flavr-savr type of Tomatoes formed?.
Answer:

• The native genes in Tomato produce enzyme Polygalacturonase and this leads to ripening follow by senescence & fruits get spoit.
• When Anitsense RNA genes inserted into Tomato plant via Agrobacterium mediated gene transfer the gene interfere with the production of Polygalacturonase, there by delay ripening, softening and further spoiling (shelf life of fruits increased).
• Transgenic tomatos can be transported to long distance with out getting spoilt.

Question 11.
Western blot test is more perfect than ELISA. How?
Answer:
Both ELISA and Western Blotting are indirect tests – to measure he immune system’s response to an infections agent rather than looking for the components of the agent itself.

VII. Five marks

Question 1.
Upstream process, fermentation process & downstream process are the 3 steps.
Answer:

1. Up-stream proces (Preparation)
It include,

• Sterilization of the fermenter
• Sterilization of the culture medium
• Growth of the suitable inoculum

2. Fermentation process

3. Down stream process (Purification)
It include,

• Distillation
• Centrifuging
• filtration &
• solvent extraction.

So; for fermentation process to occur the preparation process(upstream process) is essential. If no inoculum we can’t produce culture. Also without sterilization contami-nation occur leading to spoilage of the culture by the harmful microbes.

Question 2.
Antibiotic resistant maker is a useful selective marker – Explain.
Answer:

• Antibiotic Resistant Marker (ARM) is – a gene when introduced into bacterial cells – (Recombinant) produce – a protein that provide resistance to antibiotics.
• Recombinants (A) may grow well in a medium with antibiotics (such as ampicillin, chioramphenicol, teiracycline or kanamycinetc)
• Non recombinants (B) may not be able to grow in these media with these antibiotics.
• Thus Antibiotic resistant marker is a useful selectable marker in distinguishing the two.

Question 3.
How will you select the transformed cells using Replica plating technique?
Answer:
Technique:
Pattern of colonies growing on a culture plate can be copied.

Procedure:

• A culture plate with growing bacterial colonies is taken (A) – infected.
• A sterile filter plate (B) – is pressed against culture plate (A) – infected.
• The filter (B) got infected and then it is pressed against a sterile culture plate (C)
• New plate (C) got infected with same relative positions as colonies in the original.

The study can be repeated on different conditions.

(i) with an Antibiotic
(ii) with a growth factor etc.,

Question 4.
Explain the separation & Isolation of DNA using GEL Electrophoresis.
Answer:

• Agarose GEL Electrophoresis is a,medium used to separate DNA fragements of larger sizes (few 100S to 20,000 bp)
• Polycrylamide is a medium used to separate DNA fragments of smaller sizes.
• Agarose GEL provides – a three dimensional matrix & DNA molecules migrates through the – gel and DNA bands can be readily detected at highter sensitivity.
• Energy – The electric field provide energy
• Technique – DNA are negatively charged and migrate towards the positive pole (anode)
• (The marker DNA fragments of known size which allow accurate size determination of an unknown DNA molecule by interpolation)
• The bands of DNA can be stained by a dye Ethium bromide and can be detected as visible orange fluorescence under UV light and can also be photographed.

Question 6.
Explain RNA or RNA-Interf erence or RNA mediated gene silencing
Answer:
Definition:
RNAi (is a phenomena in which ds RNA molecules targetedly select m RNA – molecule and inactive or inhabit or neutralise its gene expression into protein (Translation)

Question 7.
Explain Herbicide tolerant – Basta or Notes on PPT & PAT with reference to Herbicide
resistance.
Answer:
1. Basta refers to nonselective herbicide with chemical compoumd Phosphinothricin – which inhibit, the enzyme glutamine synthetase involved in ammonia assimilation.
Steps:

2. Like wise PAT – similer FPT was extracted
to get Herbicide resistant transgenic plant:

Question 8.
Give a tabulation of some transgenic plants & their applications.
Answer:

Question 9.
Distinguish between the bio polymers PHB, PHA & PLA.
Answer:

Question 10.
Give the protocol for the herbicide glyphosate tolerant potato plant.
Answer:

Explain the development of transgenic brinjal
Steps:

Question 11.
How do the Bt.cotton – plant resist pests?
Answer:
Bt.cotton is a transgenic plant
Bacillus thuringiensis produces 200 different Bt. toxins
Most of the toxins are effective against moths, Butterflies, Beeltes, cotton bollworms & gatflies

Cry genes produce crytoxins, when dissolved in the alkaline PH of gut of insect the toxins become active , form pores on the epithelial cells , there by sufficient regulation of potassium ions are lost resulting in the death of the epithelial cells leading to death of the larves.

Question 12.
What is GFP? What are its properties?
Answer:
Nature:

• Green Fluorescent protein (GFF) – contain aminoacid residues of 26.9 KD a that exhibits bright green fluorescence when exposed to blue UV range (395 nm)

Properties:

• This protein is 1st isolated from a Jelly fish Aequorea victoria
• It has the ability to form internal chromophore without any co factor except molecular oxygen Uses:
• GFP is used as a reporter of expression
• It is used in modified forms to make biosensors

Question 13.
Explain the Bio piracy attempt on Neem & Turmeric.
Answer:

Question 14.
Explain the Biopiracy of ‘Basmati’s, and how India fought back its rights?
Answer:

Question 15.
What are the applications of Biotechnology?
Answer:
It has wide applications in various sectors

I. Agriculture – Transgenic plants
Bt.cotton, Bt.brinjal, Golden rice, Flavr Savr tomato, Cauliflower, Potato, and Banana – are
the outcome of Biotechnology Resistant varieties They are Resistant to pest, stress, disease, etc.,

II. Medicine:

• Insulin – is produced by r DNA technology is a breakthrough in medicine
• Vaccines, enzymes, antibiotics, dairy products & beverages are also products of biotechnology

III. Biochip:
Bio chip-based biological computer

IV. Genetic engineering:
It involves

• gene manipulation
• Tissue culture
• Single-cell protein (food industry) SCP
• secondary metabolites & etc.,
• biofertilizers – biopesticides etc.,

V. Environmental aspects Include

• Bio mass-energy
• Biofuel
• Bio & phytoremediation
• Environmental biotechnology etc.,

Question 16.
Give the explanation in a single or two sentences
Answer:

1. Bio-pesticide: pesticide derived from plants bacteria, animals, etc.,
2. Bio-fertilizer: all nutrient outputs of biological origin include plants, animals & microbes
3. Bio venting: The process that increases oxygen to accelerate the degradation of environmental pollutants
4. Bio leaching: Microbes in solution, used to recover poisonous metal pollutants in the soil
5. Bioprospecting: The process of commercialization of new products of based on biological resources
6. Bio – pharming: use of genetically engineered plants/microbes to produce molecular pharming: pharmaceutical products
7. BioFuel: plant/microbes/algae used as an alternative fuel source
8. Biofortification: Breeding crops to enrich the nutritional value either by conventional or gene by genetic engineering
9. Bioremediation: use plants/microbes to clean up environmental pollutants
10. Biopiracy: exploiting the traditional knowledge/invention of poor countries by MNC or developed countries without approval or proper compensation
11. Bio patency: The legal exclusive right for the inventor and thereby excluding others from exploiting the knowledge/invention.
12. Bio chip: microchip designed intended to function in a biological environment or inside the body of an organism

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 6 The Accidental Tourist Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Solutions Prose Chapter 6 The Accidental Tourist

11th English Guide The Accidental Tourist Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Give a few instances of Bryson’s confusing acts.
Answer:
Whenever he went looking for the lavatory in a cinema he used to stand in an alley on the wrong side of a self-locking door. For getting his room number while staying in a hotel, he often visited the hotel desks.

Question 2.
What were the contents of the bag?
Answer:
The contents of the bag were a frequent flyer cards, newspaper cuttings, loose papers, tobacco pipes, magazines, passports, English money, and film.

Question 3.
Describe the fluttery cascade of things tumbling from the bag.
Answer:
Documents came raining down, coins bounced to a variety of noisy oblivions, and the lidless
tobacco rolled crazily disgorging its contents.

Question 4.
Why did the author’s concern over tobacco shift to his finger?
Answer:
When the author saw the racing tobacco box disgorging its content, he worried about the need to buy expensive tobacco in England. But when he saw his own bleeding finger that he had gashed while forcefully opening the jammed zip, he shifted his cry to his finger.

Question 5.
What happened to Bryson when he leaned to tie his shoelace?
Answer:
When he learned to tie his shoelace someone in the seat ahead of him threw his seat back to relax and he found himself pinned in the crash position.

Question 6.
How did Bryson free himself from the crash position?
Answer:
Bryson was able to disentangle himself only by clawing the leg of the man sitting next to him.

Question 7.
Give a brief account of the embarrassing situation of Bryson when he knocked down the drink.
Answer:
Bryson knocked down twice the soft drink onto the lap of a sweet little lady sitting beside him twice. He didn’t know how it happened repeatedly.

Question 8.
What was Bryson’s worst accident on a plane?
Answer:
During one of the flights, the author was jotting down his thoughts on a notebook. The important thoughts reflected how well he behaves in public places. His recorded thoughts were, “buy socks”, “clutch drinks carefully”. He was sucking the pen thoughtfully. He was oblivious of the fact that the pen was leaking. The leaked ink had left scrub-resistant navy blue on his mouth, gum, chin, tongue, and teeth for several days.

Question 9.
What did Bryson wish to avoid in his life?
Answer:
Bryson wished to avoid seismic event while rising from a dining table, leaving 14 inches of coat outside while getting into a car and dirtying light-colored trousers.

Question 10.
How would stay away from liquid mischief benefit Bryson?
Answer:
Staying away from liquid mischief would naturally reduce the expense on laundry bills.

B. Answer in about three to four sentences:

Question 1.
Why doesn’t Bryson seem to be able to do easily what others seem to? Give a few reasons.
Answer:
Bryson does not seem to do what others do easily because he gets confused very easily. He is also a man of forgetfulness.

Question 2.
What was the reaction of Bryson’s wife to his antics?
Answer:
Mrs. Bryson saw the quixotic behaviour of her husband. She was neither angry nor exasperated. But she just expressed her deep sense of wonder. She said, ‘I can’t believe you do this for a living”.

Question 3.
Briefly describe the ‘accidents’ encountered on the flight by Bryson.
Answer:
Once when he leaned over to tie a shoelace, he was pinned helplessly in the crash position when someone in the seat ahead of him threw his seat back to relax. The most embarrassing situation was when he knocked down a soft drink onto the lap of a lady repeatedly. The worst experience was sucking his pen thoughtfully without knowing that it was leaking and that his mouth, chin, tongue, teeth, and gums remained navy blue for several days.

C. Based on your understanding of the text, answer the following questions in a paragraph of about 100-150 words:

Question 1.
‘To this day, I don’t know how I did it’ – What does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
Once, the author knocked a soft drink onto the lap of a sweet little lady sitting beside him. The flight attendant came and cleaned her up and brought him a replacement drink. Instantly he knocked ‘it’ onto the woman again. To this day, the author does not remember how he spilled the drink twice on the same lady passenger seated next to him in the aeroplane.

He just remembers reaching out for the new drink and watch helplessly as his arm, like some cheap prop in one of those 1950 horror movies with a name swept the drink from its perch and onto her lap. The sweet lady was an mm. She looked at him with a stupefied expression. She uttered an oath that started with oh! and ended with sake. In between, she used some words the author had never heard before in public.

“I don’t know what is messier, my room, or my life.”

Question 2.
‘But, when it’s my own-well, I think hysterics are fully justified’- How?
Answer:
It is a general fact that we human beings never worry much when something disastrous happens to others. At the same time, it hurts us a lot when the same situation is being faced by us. The same is the feeling of Bill Bryson when there was a cut on his finger. When he was about to open his carry-on bag for taking out the card, the zip got jammed. He enforced his utmost effort to open it.

Because of this incident, there was a deep cut on his finger out of which blood started shedding out in a lavish manner. He never bothered about the flow of blood when it was for others. But now he was there in panic mode and felt like crying in an uncontrollable manner. This clearly justifies the statement But, when it’s my own – well, I think hysterics are fully justified’.

Question 3.
Bring out the pun in the title “The Accidental Tourist”.
Answer:
The title “accidental tourist” implies that a man travels a lot and is always confused. He gets into trouble because of his unintentional acts and clumsiness. He does not happen to travel by accident because he should buy a ticket, go to the airport, and board the aircraft with a careful plan. But during his travel, he does meet with numerable accidents.

The latter interpretation is very apt for the author. The story depicts many humorous travel experiences like being pinned in a crash position in his own seat by a fellow passenger, spilling a drink on a co-passenger, making his own teeth, gum, chin and tongue scrub-resistant navy blue by his unwise mannerism of sucking the pen, while thinking. The author accidentally gets into trouble often. Hence the pun in the use of “accidental” is pertinent.

“Fill your life with adventures, not things Have stories to tell, not stuff to show.”

Question 4.
Can a clumsy person train himself/herself to overcome shortcomings? How this could be done.
Answer:
No man is perfect in this world. There may be shortcomings in their life in one way or the other. There is no use feeling worried about it. On the other hand, one must think of some fruitful ideas to overcome those shortcomings. In this story, we come to know that Bryson often forgets the room number of his stay. A person like him can tackle such a situation by noting down the important dates, numbers, and their schedule in their diary.

A person like him gets confused just because of nervousness. It is their over-excitement that makes them do everything in a haphazard way. This can be controlled if they practice doing meditation regularly Nothing is difficult. Everything lies in the hands of the clumsy person who likes to come out of it ‘Practice makes a man perfect’ .If he practices doing the above-said ideas, naturally he can overcome his shortcomings to a great extend.

Question 5.
As a fellow passenger of Bill Bryson on the flight, make a diary entry describing his clumsy behaviour during the trip and the inconveniences caused to others as a result of his nervousness.
Answer:
On that fateful day, I was standing in front of the check-in counter just behind a crazy man. He was making odd movements with his hands. It appeared that he was trying to open something. He had yanked the zip of his bag open. It spilled ejecting all the important contents. The funny thing was, the funnyman was running behind a tin of tobacco which had already disgorged its content. Then he suddenly cried, “My finger”. Maybe he had hurt his finger. The funniest side of the whole episode was that he ignored his passport, currency, coins, and other fluttering travel documents. I had my sincere sympathy with the man but I couldn’t help laughing noiselessly because the fellow was really eccentric.

He did not have a sense of proportion. He gave importance to trifles and ignored the major things lying down fluttering in the corridor of the airport. During his flight, he disgorged/spilled the contents of his drink and profusely tendered his apology to the lady next to him. He appeared as real as a buffoon when he appeared sheepish with navy blue ink smeared on his gum, teeth, chin, and tongue. It reminded me of a lion-faced monkey.

Reading:

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Caesar, the Hero of Mumbai on 26/11:

1. Mumbai: Caesar, the last surviving hero of his kind, died of a heart attack on Thursday. Caesar, a Labrador Retriever, was covered with tri-colour and given an emotional farewell from the city Police Force. The Mumbai Police Commissioner too marked the passing of the hero with a tweet.

2. Caesar, who was 11 years old was the sole survivor among the dogs of Mumbai Police who took part in bomb detection operations during the terrorist attack on Mumbai that began on November 26, 2008. He died of a heart attack at a farm in Virar where he and his three canine buddies had been sent after retirement. During the terror attack in Mumbai, Caesar saved several lives when he sniffed out the hand grenades left by the terrorists at the busy CST railway station.

3. Caesar was also a part of the search team at Nariman House, where terrorists were holed up for three days. Earlier he was also pressed into service for bomb search operation after the 2006 serial train blasts and July 2017 blast in Mumbai. The Mumbai police officials also tweeted their grief saying, “Services of retired members of Dog Squad during 26/11 will be unforgettable. We will remember our heroes forever:’’

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Labrador retriever was covered with tri-colour. What does this signify?
Answer:
It signifies that Caesar was given due respect by the government during its funeral Ceremony.

Question 2.
How did Caesar save several lives at the CST railway station?
Answer:
He saved several lives by sniffing out the busy CST railway station.

Question 3.
Which word in the passage (paragraph 3) means the same as ‘force’.
Answer:
The word which means the same as ‘forced’ is pressed.

Question 4.
“Services of retired members of Dog Squad during 26/11 will be unforgettable”. Mention three services rendered by Caesar.
Answer:
Caesar took part in bomb detection operations during the terrorist attack on Mumbai in 2008. He sniffed out the hand grenades and saved the lives of many people at CST railway station.

Question 5.
Caesar is a Labrador breed of dogs. Name a few other native breeds that are used by the Police force.
Answer:
He was also a part of the search team at Nariman house where terrorists were hold up for 3 days.

Question 6.
Try to rewrite the news item in your mother tongue without losing the spirit and flavour of the text. Give a suitable title to your translated version.
Answer:
German Shepherd, Belgian Malinois, Boxers, Doberman Pinscher, Blood hound and Giant Schnauzer.

ஆசிரியரைப் பற்றி:

அமேரிக்காவில், அயோவா மாகாணத்தில், 1951ல் பிறந்த இவர் ஒரு ஆங்கிலோ அமேரிக்கா இனத்தவர் ஆவார். இவரது தாய் ஐரிஷ் இனத்தவர். இவர் பெரும்பாலான காலத்தை இங்கிலாந்திலேயே கழித்துள்ளார்.

இவர் ஐரோப்பாவை சுற்றிப்பார்த்து அதன் அனுபவங்களை வைத்துக்கொண்டு, புத்தகங்கள் எழுதியுள்ளார். அமேரிக்காவில் உள்ள ட்ரேக் பல்கலைகழகத்தின் வேந்தராக பணியாற்றியுள்ளார். Notes from a small Island neither here nor there, Travels in Europe போன்றவை இவரின் படைப்புகள் ஆகும்.

பாடத்தைப் பற்றி:

நம்மில் ஒருசிலர் நம்முடைய சிறு தவறுகளால் சிக்களில் மாட்டிக் கொள்கிறோம். இது நாமே தேடிக் கொள்வது. பெரும்பாலும் நம்மில் சிலர், தங்களின் ஞாபக மறதியின் காரணமாக நமக்கு துன்பத்தை தேடிக்கொள்கிறோம்.

இதனால் நாம் அடையும் துன்பங்களை இந்த கட்டுரையின் ஆசிரியர் பில் பிரைசன் நகைச்சுவையுடன் விளக்குகிறார். தனது விமானப்பயணங்களின் போது, தான் சந்திக்கும் சிறு நெருக்கடிகளை தனக்கே உரித்தான நகைச்சுவையுடன் அவர் விளக்குவது இக்கட்டுரையின் தனிச்சிறப்பு.

The Accidental Tourist Summary in Tamil

எல்லாவற்றிலும் நான் மிகவும் சிறந்தவன் அல்ல, உண்மையான உலகத்தில் வாழ்வது மிகவும் சிறந்தது. சில மக்கள் தெளிவாக சிரமம்மின்றி செய்வதை நினைத்து நான் ஆச்சரியப்படுகிறேன். அது எனக்கு நன்றாக உள்ளது.

உதாரணமாக, நான் தியேட்டரில் கழிப்பறை தேடி செல்லும் போது கடைசியில் ஒரு சந்தில் (Alley) தானியங்கி கதவின் முன் நின்றிருப்பேன், நான் தினமும் மூன்று அல்லது நான்கு முறை ஹோட்டல் மேசைக்கு திரும்பி வந்து எனது அறை எண்ணை கேட்டு செல்வேன். நான் குட்டையாக (குள்ளமாக) இருப்பதால் எளிதில் குழம்பிவிடுவேன்.

நான் கடைசியாக எனது குடும்பத்துடன் பெரிய ஒரு சுற்றுலா பயணத்திற்கு சென்றதை நினைத்துக் கொண்டிருந்தேன். அது (Easter) காலம், ஒரு வார காலம் நாங்கள் இங்கிலாந்து சென்றோம். நாங்கள் Bostonல் உள்ள (logan) விமான நிலையத்தில் டிக்கெட் சரிபார்த்து கொண்டிருந்தோம்.

அப்போது திடீரென பிரிட்டிஸ் விமானப்படையின் flyer திட்டத்தில் சேர்ந்தது நினைவுக்கு வந்தது. அதன் அட்டையில் (card) என் பையில் வைத்திருப்பது ஞாபகம் வந்தது. அது என் கழுத்தை சுற்றி இருந்ததும் நினைவில் வந்தது. அங்கு தான் பிரச்சனை தொடங்கியது.

என் பையின் ஜிப்பை திறக்கமுடியவில்லை . ஆதலால், அதை அதிக அழுத்தம் (jerk) (yanked) கொண்டு இழுத்தேன். அதை சில மணித்துளிகள் அழுத்தம் கொடுத்து இழுத்தேன். ஆனால் அதை திறக்கமுடியவில்லை. ஆதலால் மிக கடினமாக மிகுந்த உறுமல்லுடன் இழுத்தேன்.

திடீரென அந்த ஜிப் வழிவிட்டது. ஒரு வழியில் அந்த பையில் இருந்தது. செய்தித்தாள் துண்டுகள் மற்றும் இதர காகிதங்கள், 14 ounce குழாய், புகையிலை டின், பத்திரிக்கைகள் பாஸ்போர்ட், ஆங்கில ரூபாய்கள், படம் – ஆடம்பரமான டென்னிஸ் கோர்ட் ஆகிய அனைத்தும் வெளியே வந்தது.

நூறு வரிசைப்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆவணங்கள் கவனமான (fluttery) நீர் வீழ்ச்சி (cascade) போல் கீழே இறைச்சலோடு இயங்குவதை (dumb struck) கண்டேன். நாணயங்கள் பல்வேறு சப்தங்களை எழுப்பியது புகையிலை டப்பாவின் தகரம் நீண்டு வழியிலேயே (concourse) சிதறப்போயிருந்தது. அதன் உள்பொருளை வெளியே பரப்பிவிட்டு வெறுமையாக்கியது.

”எனது புகையிலை” என வருந்தினேன், நான் புகையிலைக்கு இங்கிலாந்தில் அதிகமாக செலவழிக்க வேண்டுமே? என மனதில் வந்து சென்றது. பிறகு “என் விரல்! என் விரல்! எனது விரல் பையின் ஜிப்பில் பட்டு ஆழமாக கீரல் விழுந்ததால் கத்தினேன். அது விலைமதிப்பற்ற இரத்தத்தை வெளியிட்டது. (அதாவது நான் இரத்தத்தை சிந்துவதில் நல்லவன் அல்ல, ஆனால் அது என்னுடையது.

வளிப்பு நோய் (Hysterics) உள்ளோர் இதை நியாயப்படுத்துவார்கள் என நினைக்கிறேன். இந்த நேரத்தில் எனது மனைவி பதற்றத்துடன் – கோபம், எரிச்சல் இல்லாமல் ஆனால் சிறிய திகைப்புடன் “நீங்கள் வாழ்வதற்கு இப்படிச் செய்வீர்கள் என நான் நம்பவில்லை,” என்று சொன்னாள்.

ஆனால், நான் கொஞ்சம் பயந்தேன். எதிர்பாராத (catastrophes) நிகழ்வுகள் பயணத்தின் போது நிகழும். ஒரு முறை விமானத்தில், நான் கீழே குனிந்து எனது shoe lace யை மாட்டிக்கொண்டிருந்தேன், சற்று நேரத்தில் எனது முன் இருக்கையில் இருந்தவர் பின்னாக முழுவதுமாக சாய்ந்தார்.

எனது அருகே இருந்தவர் கால்களை இருபக்கமும் போட்டுக் கொண்டார். நானும் அவரிடம் இருந்து விடுதலை பெற நினைத்தேன். எனது விமான பயணத்தில் இது மட்டுமே எனது மோசமான அனுபவங்கள் அல்ல.

எனது முக்கியமான எண்ணங்களை நான் புத்தகங்களில் எழுதுவதே எனது மோசமான தருணங்கள். (சாக்ஸ் வாங்க கிளட்ச் பானங்கள் கவனமாக….) யோசித்துக்கொண்டு பேனா நுனியை வாயில் வைத்து உறிஞ்சினேன். எனது அருகே உள்ள சிறுவயது பெண்மணியின் உரையாடலில் மூழ்கினேன்.

20 நிமிடங்கள் அவளை தொடர்ந்து பார்த்துக் கொண்டிருந்தேன். பின்னர் கழிப்பறை நோக்கி சென்றான். அப்போது தான் நான் பார்த்தேன் பேனாவின் மை என் வாய், கண்ணம், நாக்கு, பல் மற்றும் ஈறுகள் அனைத்திலும் தெரிந்தது. Navy blue, பல நாட்களாய் என் வாயிலிருந்து போகாமல் இருந்தது.

நான் சிறந்த பண்பாளனாய் (suave) இருக்க எவ்வளவு சிரமப்படுகிறேன் என நீங்கள் உணர்ந்திருப்பீர்கள் என நான் நம்புகிறேன். டைனிங் டேபிள் இருந்து பார்க்காமல் ஒரு Besimicevent செய்தேனே என முயற்சி செய்து பார்க்க வேண்டும்.

எனது 14 இன்ச் கோர்ட்டை மறவாமல் எடுத்துவந்து காரில் ஏறி ஜன்னலை சாத்த வேண்டும். மெல்லிய நிறங்களைக் கொண்ட ஆடைகள் அணிந்து அந்த நாள் இறுதிவரை, நான் முன்பு செய்தது போல் chewing Gum, Ice cream, cough syrup and motor oil செய்யக்கூடாது. ஆனால், அது அவ்வாறு நடக்காது.

இப்போது விமானத்தில் உணவு உபசரிக்கப்படுகிறது. “அப்பாவின் சாப்பாட்டு மூடியை திறங்கள்” அல்லது “உங்கள் தலைகளை மூடுங்கள் குழந்தைகளே அப்பா தற்போது அவரது உணவை சாப்பிட போகிறார்.

என என் மனைவி கூறுகிறாள் “ஆம், நான் என் குடும்பத்துடன் பறக்கும் போது நடப்பது. நான் தனியாக செல்லும் போது சாப்பிட, குடிக்க எனது shoe lace கட்ட முயற்சிக்க மாட்டேன்.

எனது வாயின் அருகே பேனாவை கொண்டு செல்ல மாட்டேன். நான் மிகமிக அமைதியாக இருப்பேன். சிலநேரம் என்கையில் இருந்து வடியும் நீரே எனக்கு பிரச்சனையைக் கொடுக்கும். இது சிரிப்பிற்குரிய விஷயம் அல்ல, ஆனால் இவையனைத்தும் எனது லாண்டரி பில்லில் சேர்க்கப்படும்.

என்னுடைய அன்றாட flyer milesயை நான் இன்னும் பெறவில்லை. நான் செய்தது இல்லை. எனது கார்டை-நேரத்திற்கு என்னால் பெற முடியாது. எனக்கு தெரிந்த அனைவரும் – Bali-க்கு முதல் வகுப்பு ஏர் மைல்ஸ் செல்கின்றனர். என்னால் எதையும் பெறமுடியவில்லை . நான் வருடத்தில் 100,000 மைல்கள் பறப்பேன், ஆனால் 23 ஏர் லைன்கள் மூலம் மொத்தம் 212 air miles உள்ளன.

இது எனது கவன கோளாறு. நான் ஞாபகம் செய்தும் அது பதிவு செய்யப்படவில்லை . எழுத்தரிடம் கேட்டபோது அவர் எனக்கு இதில் உரிமை இல்லை என்றும் தெரிவித்தார். ஜனவரி, ஆஸ்திரேலியா விமானத்தில் இந்த விமானத்தில் zillion air miles பெறப்போகிறது – நான் எனது கார்டை எழுத்தரிடம் கொடுக்கும்போது அவள் தலை நிமிர்ந்து பார்த்து இதில் “யாருக்கும் உரிமை இல்லை,” என்றாள்.

“ஏன்”?
இந்த டிக்கெட் B. Bryzon பேரிலும் அந்த கார்டு W. Bryzon பேரில் உள்ளது.

நான் அவளிடம் விவரித்து Bill மற்றும் William பற்றிய மதிப்புகளை (value) பற்றி எடுத்துக் கூறினேன், ஆனால் அவள் அதை ஏற்கவில்லை.

அதனால் எனது air miles யை பெற வில்லை , முதல் வகுப்பில் என்னால் Bali-க்கு பயணம் செல்ல முடியவில்லை. இருந்தாலும் நல்லதுதான், இவ்வளவு தூரம் என்னால் சாப்பிடாமல் இருக்க முடியாது.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Guide Pdf Prose Chapter 5 The Convocation Address Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 The Convocation Address

11th English Guide The Convocation Address Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textual Inside Questions:

Question 1.
What does the speaker try to covey in the beginning of his speech?
Answer:
The speaker tries to convey that he is going to repeat some of the key principles spoken by some eminent personalities in the past years.

Question 2.
How can a university trim and train guide and lead a person to function better in society?
Answer:
A university can trim and train a person by making him realize his duty as a citizen of a democracy. It has to fashion out of him an individual fitted and equipped for the task of making democracy fruitful and effective.

Question 3.
According to Dr. S. Radhakrishnan universities ensure the democratic way of life for future generations how?
Answer:
Universities ensure the democratic way of life by mere appreciation of others points of view and adjustment of differences through discussions. It is kept healthy by individual responsibility. Universities make a person recall the struggles of the past and realize the dangers and challenges of the present.

Question 4.
List the contributions of the educated youth to society.
Answer:
Educated youth must render their service in toning up the society, in bringing light into the dark alleys, sunshine into dingy places, solace into the afflicted, hope into the despondent and a new life unto everyone.

A. Answer the following questions briefly in a sentence or two:

Question 1.
Who does the speaker claim to represent?
Answer:
The speaker claims to represent the common man.

Question 2.
Why are universities necessary for a society?
Answer:
Universities are necessary because they impart wisdom and service to an individual and equip him for the task of bettering society in all its age.

Question 3.
What was the role of scholars and poets in olden days?
Answer:
In olden days scholars and poets adorn the chambers of royalty or the gilded mansions of lords. Their wisdom was meant for high society people not for common man.

Question 4.
In what ways have universities improved society?
Answer:
Universities are the repositories of knowledge and the nursing ground for emissaries of thought, wisdom, and service. They equip individuals in the task of bettering society. Universities have in fact eschewed monarchy and autocracy and have initiated the era of democracy. Thus universities have helped society.

Question 5.
Universities develop broad-mindedness. How does Dr. Radha Krishnan drive home this idea?
Answer:
Universities develop the true spirit of democracy. It develops good qualities such as appreci¬ating others points of view and having healthy discussions etc.

Question 6.
What should the youngsters aim in life after graduation?
Answer:
The immediate aim is to acquire the means for a decent living but they are highly indebted to the community which they should replenish richly.

Question 7.
How can a graduate give back to his/her society?
Answer:
A graduate can give back in terms of service like toning up society, bringing light into the dark alleys sunshine into dingy places, and solace into the afflicted.

B. Answer in three or four sentences:

Question 1.
‘Wisdom was meant for the mansion, not for the market place’ What does this statement signify?
Answer:
This statement signifies that knowledge, in the olden days was meant only for high society peo¬ple and not for the common or downtrodden ones.

Question 2.
According to the speaker, how should universities mould the students of the present day?
Answer:
The universities mould the students by putting a task before them which demands patience and perseverance, faith in himself and others, and confidence in his inherent ability to shoul¬der the responsibilities.

Question 3.
How does Arignar Anna highlight the duties and responsibilities of graduates to society?
Answer:
The graduates must perform their duties in terms of service like toning up society, bringing light into dark alleys, sunshine into dingy places, solace into the afflicted, and new life to everyone.

Question 4.
Students are instilled with some of the essential values and skills by the universities that Enumerate them.
Answer:
The universities train and guide the students in many ways. They induce in students patience and perseverance faith in himself and others and confidence in his inherent ability to shoulder the responsibilities.

Question 5.
What are the hindrances a graduate faces in his/her way?
Answer:
The main hindrance is the influence of the environment which disturbs an individual’s hope and determination. Apart from this unpleasant sight of practices and tyranny of all sorts dis¬courage even the people with robust optimism.

C. Answer the following questions, based on your understanding of the speech of Dr.Annadurai:

Question 1.
How do universities mould students apart from imparting academic education to them?
Answer:
The role of University today is not confined as in the past. Its functions have been enlarged and play a vital role in moulding students. It trains and guides the students before they are asked to do their duty as a citizen of a democracy.

It provides tasks to the Students which inher¬its patience and perseverance, faith in himself and in others, and confidence in his inherent ability to shoulder the responsibilities. In fact, the main responsibility of the universities is to fashion out of a student on individual fitted and equipped for the task of making democracy fruitful and effective.

It also induces in him the quality of appreciating other’s points of view and adjustment of differences through discussions. In short, it moulds the student in such a way that he can face any challenges of the present in an optimistic way.

Question 2.
The common men contribute to the maintenance of institutions of higher education Explain this statement.
Answer:
The younger generation of the present age is deeply indebted to their community or society for getting the privilege to enjoy a university education. Most of the money needed for maintaining institutions of higher education come from the revenues collected from the community through the state.

Naturally, a good proportion of that revenue comes from the tillers and the toilers. These are the common men who were not provided with an opportunity to enter university. They are the one who willingly submits themselves to their discomfort. They don’t like their next generation to have the same discomfort.

Instead, they want them to lead a better life. This thought of the common men is to be really appreciated. Thus the younger generation has got the responsibility to repay this society in terms of their service. That is the best way in which they can pay their tribute to the common men who indirectly help them in their university education.

Question 3.
How does the speaker highlight the importance of giving back to society?
Answer:
The graduates must realize the contribution made by common men towards their higher ed¬ucation. They can aptly repay it only in terms of their service to humanity. It is not an easy task. They have to overcome many hindrances to perform their service successfully. They may have to face the unpleasant sight of practices, tyranny of all sorts which will discourage them.

But they must realize that a continuous stream of men and women endowed with the spirit of service has been carrying on the crusade successfully and have conferred rich benefits on humanity. The Tamilians have been holding this ideal for more than two thousand years as expressed in Purananuru. It celebrates the selfless spirit and courage of people who served society by sharing everything with their fellow men. So as inheritors of that rich legacy the graduates must overcome their hindrances and serve society to the best of their abilities.

You were one of the fresh graduates at the convocation function of the University. You had the rare privilege of listening to the enlightening speech of Dr. Arignar Anna. Write a letter to your friend describing the core ideas of his speech and the impact of the speech on you.

5/20, II street,
Trichy.

DearAyush,

I am very delighted to share my experience at the convocation function of my university. I had the great privilege to listen to the speech of Dr. Anna Durai which imparts a great impact on me. I would like to share my experience with you. He started his speech by saying universities which are the repositories of knowledge play a vital role in the life of an individual.

I come to know that universities in olden age train scholars, who in turn render their service only to the royal society and not to the common men. But now the function of university has been enlarged which moulds an individual in all ways and equips him for the task of making democracy fruitful It is the duty of the graduate to repay the society in terms of service in the path of which he has to overcome many obstacles.

We are expected to follow the ideals expressed in Purananuru and serve society to the best of our abilities. His speech was really very impressive and enlightening It kindles the spirit in me to serve society. His enlightened speech indulges an optimistic outlook in my view. I even took an oath of serving this society to my fullest.

Reading:

The following is a letter by Nobel Laureate Rabindranath Tagore to Mahatma Gandhi. Follow the diction, fluency, and style of the great Indian writer who has contributed excellent writings to Indian Literature. You can improve your vocabulary by familiarising some of the words used in the letter using a dictionary.
Gandhi Letter 23A: From Rabindranath Tagore.

Shanti Niketan,
April 12, 1919.

Dear Mahatmaji,

Power in all its forms is irrational it is like the horse that drags the carriage blindfolded. The moral element in it is only represented in the man who drives the horse. Passive resistance, a force which is not necessarily moral in itself, can be used against truth as well as for it.

The danger inherent in all force grows stronger when it is likely to gain success, for then it becomes a temptation. I know your teaching is to fight against evil with the help of the good. But such a fight is for heroes and not for men led by impulses of the moment.

Evil on one side naturally begets evil on the other, injustice leading to violence and insult to vengefulness. Unfortunately, such a force has already been started, and either through panic or through wrath our authorities have shown us the claws whose sure effect is to drive some of us into the secret path of resentment and others into utter demoralization.

In this crisis, you, as a great leader of men, have stood among us to proclaim your faith in the ideal which you know to be that of India, the ideal which is both against the cowardliness of hidden revenge and the cowed submissiveness of the terror-stricken…

I have always felt, and said accordingly, that the great gift of freedom can never come to a people through charity. We must win it before we can own it. And India’s opportunity for winning it will come to her when she can prove that she is morally superior to the people who rule her by their right of conquest.

Armed with her utter faith in goodness she must stand unabashed before the arrogance that scoffs at the power of the spirit. And you have come to your motherland in the time of her need to remind her of her mission, to lead her in the true path of conquest, to purge her present-day politics of its feebleness which imagines that it has gained its purpose when it struts in the borrowed feathers of diplomatic dishonesty.

This is why I pray most fervently that nothing that tends to weaken our spiritual freedom may intrude into your marching line, that martyrdom for the cause of truth may never degenerate into fanaticism for mere verbal forms, descending into the self-deception that hides behind sacred names.

With these few words for an introduction allow me to offer the following as a poet’s contribution to your noble work:

Give me the supreme courage of love,
this is my prayer,
the courage to speak,
to do, to suffer at thy will,
to leave all things or be left alone.

Give me the supreme faith of love,
this is my prayer,
the faith of life in death,
of the victory in defeat,
of the power hidden in the frailness of beauty,
of the dignity of pain that accepts hurt,
but disdains to return it.

Very sincerely yours,
Rabindranath Tagore.

A. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Who according to Gandhi, can fight against evil and how?
Answer:
According to Gandhi, a person who follows nonviolent methods can fight against evil.

Question 2.
What is Gandhiji’s ideal?
Answer:
Gandhiji’s ideal is against the cowardliness of hidden revenge and the cowed submissiveness of the terror-stricken.

Question 3.
According to Tagore, when will India get the opportunity to win the gift of freedom?
Answer:
India will get the opportunity to win the gift of freedom when she can prove that she is morally superior to the people who rule her by their right of conquest.

Question 4.
How does Tagore acknowledge Gandhi s noble work?
Answer:
Tagore acknowledges Gandhiji’s noble work by offering or dedicating a poem to him.

Question 5.
Find words from the passage which mean the same as the following:

Question a.
a malevolent desire for revenge (para 1)
Answer:
Vengefulness

Question b.
tactful (para 2)
Answer:
diplomatic

Question c.
despise (para 3)
Answer:
disdain

Question 6.
Find words from the passage which are antonyms of the following:

Question a.
artificially (para 1)
Answer:
naturally

Question b.
strength (para 2)
Answer:
weaken

ஆசிரியரைப் பற்றி:

முனைவர் காஞ்சிபுரம் நடராஜன் அண்ணாதுரை (15 Sep 1909 – 3 Feb 1969) அறிஞர் அண்ணாதுரை என்றும் அழைக்கப்படுவார். அரசியல்வாதியான இவர் 1967 முதல் 1969 வரை தமிழ் நாட்டின் முதலமைச்சராக இருந்தார். நாடக ஆசிரியர், நாடக நடிகர், எழுத்தாளர், விமர்சகர், சொற்பொழிவாளர், அரசியல் நிர்வாகி, கதாசிரியர் என்ற பன்முக தன்மை கொண்டவர்.

சமூக அரசியல், இலக்கிய புத்தகங்கள் பலவற்றை எழுதியுள்ளார். அமேரிக்காவின் யேல் பல்கலைகழகத்தால் சப் ஃபெல்லோஷிப் விருது வழங்கி கௌரவிக்கப்பட்டார். இது அமேரிக்கர் அல்லாத ஒருவருக்கு வழங்கப்பட்ட முதல் கொளரவமாகும். இதே சமயம் அண்ணாமலைப் பல்கலைக்கழகத்தில் கௌரவ முனைவர் பட்டம் வழங்கி கௌரவிக்கப்பட்டார்.

பாடத்தைப் பற்றி:

1967 ஆம் ஆண்டு நவம்பர் 18ம் தேதி அண்ணாமலை பல்கலைகழகத்தில் நடைபெற்ற பட்டமளிப்பு விழாவில் முன்னாள் தமிழக முதல்வர் C.N.அண்ணாதுரை அவர்கள் மாணவர்களுக்கு ஆற்றிய உரையின் ஒரு பகுதி இப்பாடமாகும்.

இறுதி ஆண்டு பயின்று முடித்த மாணவர்கள் சமூகத்தை எதிர்கொள்ள வேண்டிய, சமூகத்திற்கு செய்ய வேண்டிய பணிகள் கடமைகளை பற்றி இப்பாடத்தில் விரிவாக காண்போம்.

The Convocation Address Summary in Tamil

நம்மை சுற்றி வருவது, போவது என்ன?

சமூகத்தில் நடைபெறும் செயல்கள், கட்டமைப்பின் வளர்ச்சி, கல்வி, உடல் நலம் etc…. அனைத்து எல்லா வகையிலும் தேவையான வளங்கள் ஆகும். அனைத்து வகையான வளங்களும் மனித முயற்சியால் கொண்டு – வரப்பட்டவை. சமூகத்தில் பலதரப்பட்ட பகுதியில் இருந்து இந்த முயற்சி கொண்டுவரப்பட்டது. இன்று நாம் சுவைக்கும் வளர்ச்சியின் கனிகள் பாடப்படாத பல ஹீரோக்களின் முயற்சியின் மூலமாக வந்தவை.

நாம் பெற்றதை சமூக வளர்ச்சிக்காக திரும்பக் கொடுப்பது நமது கடமை. துன்பமிக்க மாணவன்/மாணவி தனது பணியில் ஜொலித்தால் அவன்/அவள் சேவை அங்கத்தின் ஊக்கமாக கருதப்படுவர். இந்த சமூகம் ஒவ்வொரு பட்டதாரியையும் கவனமாக பேணிக்காக்கின்றது. அவன்/அவள் மலர்ந்து தன் சிறகை விரித்து பறக்க நாம் சமூகத்தில் இருந்து பெற்றதை திரும்பி கொடுப்பதற்கு பட்டமளிப்போ (graduation) சிறந்த நேரம் ஆகும்.

இந்த நிறுவனத்தில் எனக்குவழங்கப்பட்ட தனிப்பட்ட மரியாதைக்காக நான் நன்றி செலுத்துகிறேன். இந்த பெருமைமிகு அவைக்கு முன்னால் இன்று நான் பட்டமளிப்பு முகவுரை வழங்கப்போகிறேன். இந்த மகிழ்ச்சியான தருணத்தில் இங்கே இருப்பது எனக்கு மகிழ்வைத் தருகிறது. இந்த ஆண்டு பட்டம் பெரும் பட்டதாரிகள் அனைவருக்கும் நல்ல பொழிவான எதிர்காலம் அமைய வாழ்த்துகிறேன். சரியான வழிகாட்டுதல் அவர்களுக்கு அமைவது சுலபமானது அல்ல.

உண்மை என்னவென்றால் என் கட்டுபாட்டு வரம்புகளை நான் அறிந்திருக்கிறேன் என்பது எனக்கு நிம்மதி தருகிறது, நான் என் கருத்துக்களை அல்லது கோட்பாடுகளை ஒரு சிறப்பு முத்திரையாக வழங்க முயற்சிக்க மாட்டேன்.

ஆனால் கடந்த ஆண்டுகளில் எனக்கு அறிவுரை வழங்கிய அனைவருக்கும் நான் திரும்பவும் (reiterate) சில கொள்கைகளை தெளிவாக சொல்லப்போகிறேன்.

(enunciated) ஆங்காங்கே மேற்கோள்கள் வைத்து, கல்வியுடன் தொடரப்பட்ட பல்வேறு துறைகளில் நிபுணர்களின் கண்டுபிடிப்பிற்காக சாதாரணமனிதக் கண்ணோட்டத்தை சுமந்து கொண்டு வர வேண்டும்.

இது சாதாரண மனிதனின் காலம் – சிலர் பலவகை வேதனைகள் பெற்றிருக்கலாம் – அவனுடைய பார்வைக்கு அது பெரிதாக தெரியும். நான் அவரை அனைத்து வலிமை பிரதிநிதித்துடன் கருதுவேன்.

பள்ளிகளின் அமைப்பு முறை எண்ணங்கள், தத்துவம் மற்றும் அரசியல், அறநெறி மற்றும் பொருளாதாரம் அனைத்தும் அவனுக்காக அமைய வேண்டும். பல்கலைக்கழகங்கள் அறிவின் களஞ்சியங்கள் (repositories) மற்றும் பிரதிநிதிகள் (emissaries) எண்ண த்திற்கு (Nursing ground) போலவும், மெய்யளிவு மற்றும் சேவை தனிச்சிறப்பை முக்கியத்துவம் பெற்று தினமும் வளர்ச்சி அடைகிறது.

எல்லா வயதிலும் சமூகத்தை முன்னேற்றும் பொருட்டு மேலும் மேலும் தனிநபர் (eschewed) இந்த வேலை செய்கின்றான். நாம் பெற்று தவிர்த்த முடியாட்சி மற்றும் சர்வாதிகாரம் (Autocracy) ஜனநாயகம் காலத்தைத் தோற்றுவிக்கும்.

முடியாட்சி அல்லது நிலப்பிரதித்துவ நாட்களில் பல்கலைக் கழகங்கள் அறிஞர்களுக்கும், கவிஞர்களுக்கும் பயிற்சி அளித்தது. வசதியான வாழ்க்கை வாழவும் மற்றும் lords, noblesக்கு அரண்மனைகளில் பயிற்சி வழங்கப்பட்டது. அவர்களின் மெய்யறிவு மாளிகைக்கு பயன்படுத்தப்பட்டது. சந்தை வெளியில் பயன்படுத்தப்படவில்லை.

அந்த நாளில் நாட்கள் கணக்கிடப்படுவதில்லை. மக்களை ஆக்கிரமிக்கும் (confronting) பிரச்சினைகளை எதிர் கொள்வதற்கு பிரத்தியேக அறிஞர்கள் இருந்தார்கள். அவர்கள் தனியாக இடத்தில் வேலை செய்வார்கள். தத்துவ கவிதைகளின் விலையுயர்ந்த நூழிலையை ஆடையாக உடுத்தி சாதாரண மக்களின் சத்தம் கேட்காத இடத்தில் வாழ்ந்தார்கள்.

பழங்காலத்தில் இருந்ததை விட இப்போது பல்கலைகழகத்தில் கட்டுப்படுத்த படுவதில்லை (cloistered). அதன் செயல்பாடு அதன் அடிப்படையில் அல்ல. ஆனால் அதன் களம் விரிவுப்படுத்தப்பட்டுள்ளது. அது பொதுவாக எடுத்துக் கொள்ளப்படுகிறது. ஆனால் செதுக்கி, பக்குவப்படுத்தி, வழிகாட்டி, நடத்தி செல்லும் முன்பு அவன் குடிமகனாக ஜனநாயகத்து கடமையைச் செய்ய வேண்டும்.

இந்த திட்டம் நமக்கு நம்பிக்கை தந்தாலும் இவை நமக்கு பொறுமை, விடாமுயற்சி (Preseverance) அவனிடம் உள்ள நம்பிக்கை , அவனுடன் பிறந்த (inherent) செயல்கள் முக்கியத் – துவத்திற்கு தோல் கொடுக்கின்றனர்.

பொது மனிதன் ஒரு சாத்தியமான ஆட்சியாளர் கடமையில் இருந்து தோன்றுகிறார். இன்று பல்கலைகழகத்தின் பொறுப்பானது, ஜனநாயகம் பயனளிக்கும் திறனுடன் செயல்படுவதற்காக பயனுள்ள ஒரு தனிநபரை உருவாக்குவதாகும்.

Brussels பல்கலைக்கழகத்தில் நமது முன்னால் குடியரசுத் தலைவர் Dr. S. Radhakrishnan உரையாற்றிய போது, அவர் இவ்வாறு கூறினார், அரசு தன்மைகள் விட ஜனநாயகம், முறையான செயல்பாடாக கருதப்படுகிறது. நாம் பல்கலைக்கழகத்தின் ஜனநாயகத்தின் உண்மை உணர்வுகளை வளர்க்க வேண்டும்.

உரையாடலில் மேற்கொள்ளும் வித்தியாசங்களுக்கும் அடுத்தவர் கூறும் செய்திகளுக்கும் செவி சாய்க்க வேண்டும். அவனை திடமாகவும் சுகமாகவும் வைப்பது தனிமனிதனின் பொறுப்பு மற்றும் அனுசரிப்புமாகும். பல்கலைக்கழகத்தில் பழங்காலத்தில் நடந்த பிரச்சினைகளை நினைத்து தற்போதைய நிலைமைகள், வாய்ப்புகள், சவால்கள் மற்றும் அனைத்தையும் எதிர் கொள்ள வேண்டும்.

இந்த வருடத்தின் பட்டதாரிகளே, நல்ல எதிர்காலம் அமைய உங்களை வாழ்த்துகிறேன். அடுத்து, ஒவ்வொருவருக்கும் நான் தெரிவிக்க நினைப்பது, பட்டதாரிகள், மனித செயல்பாடு பெறுவதற்கான அடிதளம். மனித செயல்பாட்டின் முதல் ஊக்குவித்தல் இதுதான். யாரும் இதை நிராகரிக்க முடியாது.

ஆனால் ஒரே குறிக்கோள் அல்ல. தனித்தனி பொருள் முன்னேற்றத்தைக் காட்டிலும் உயர்ந்த மற்றும் உன்னதமான ஒன்று நீங்கள் எதிர்பார்க்கப்படுவது இந்த பல்கலைகழகத்தின் கல்வி மகிழ்ந்து பெருமைப்பட கூடியதே, நீங்கள் வாழ்ந்த இந்த சமூகத்திற்கு இந்த கல்வியை திரும்ப கொடுக்க வேண்டும்.

மேல்நிலை கல்வி நிலையங்கள் அமைக்க மாநிலம் முழுவதிலிருந்து வருவாய் பெறப்படுகிறது. இந்த வருவாய் அனைத்தும் உணவை விளைவிப்பவர் (tillers) தினக் கூலிகள், கல்வியை அனுபவிக்க முடியாதவர்களிடமிருந்து பெறப்படுகிறது. இதையெல்லாம் அனுபவிக்க முடியாதவர்கள்.

அவர்கள் தங்களின் சுகத்தை இழந்து அடுத்து தலைமுறையின் நல்வாழ்விற்கு உழைக்கிறார்கள். பட்டதாரிகளே, நான் உங்களிடம் கேட்கிறேன், என்னகைமாறுசெய்ய போகிறீர்கள்? சமூகத்திற்கு உங்கள் பங்களிப்பு என்ன? நீங்கள் நிரப்பாத வரையில் வரவிருக்கும் தலை முறையினர் ஒரு வெற்றிடத்தை மட்டுமே காண முடியும். உனது உயர்கல்வி சமூகத்தின் பொறுப்புணர்வை மேம்படுத்தும்.

உனது தனிப்பட்ட முன்னேற்றம், உங்களிடமிருந்து போதுமான வருமானத்தை சமுதாயம் எதிர்பார்பதற்கு உரிமை உண்டு. சமுதாயத்தை உயர்த்துவது, பணங்களில் இல்லை , உனது கடமையில் இருக்கிறது. இருளுள்ள இடத்தில் வெளிச்சம் கொண்டு வர, பாதிக்கப்பட்டோருக்கான ஆறுதல் அழிக்க ஒவ்வொருவரும் மனச்சோர்வின்றி (despondent) உழைக்க புதிய வாழ்க்கையை எதிர்பார்க்கிறேன்.

சேவை முடிவடையும் வரை, சொற்பொழிவுகள் இனிப்பு நாகரிகமாக மாறும். Jefferson கூறுவது போல் ”வாய்ப்புகள் ஜனநாயகத்தில் இருந்து எழும் சாதனைகள் ஒரு பிரதிநிதித்துவத்தை கனவு கண்டாக வேண்டும்”.

நான் சமுதாயத்தைச் சேவிக்கும் மிகச் சிறந்த பணியில் உங்கள் உதவியையும் ஒத்துழைப்பையும் தேடும் போது, தயவுசெய்து கண் சிமிட்டி சிரிக்காமல் சொல்லுங்கள், அது சொல்வதற்கு மிகவும் இனிமையானது. என்வழியில் ஆகியோரின் துன்பங்கள் பற்றி தெரியாது, உன் சூழலில் உள்ள செல்வாக்கை ஒதுக்கி தூக்கி போடுகிறேன்.

உன் பயணம் தொடங்கி போகும் இந்த உலகத்தில் உன் நம்பிக்கை இருளாக இருக்கலாம். உங்கள் உறுதியை தொந்தரவாக செய்யலாம். உங்களிடம் உள்ள கோட்பாடுகளிலிருந்து பரவலாக வேறுபடுகின்ற பழக்கவழக்கங்களுடனான நேர்மையான பார்வையை நீங்கள் எதிர்கொள்ள நேரிடலாம்.

நீங்கள் சுயநல வாதிகள், சித்திரவதைகள், மற்றும் நோயாளி தொழிலாளி துரோகம் காணலாம். கொடுமை உன்னை நேரிட்டு பார்க்கலாம். உனது ஒவ்வொரு அடியும் உனக்கு பிரச்சனை தரும். வலுவான நம்பிக்கையுடன் கூடிய மக்கள் உங்களுக்கு ஊக்கமளிப்பார்கள்” என்று நான் கருதுகிறேன். நிச்சயமாக அவர்கள் உனக்கு எளிதாகவும், ஆறுதலாகவும் இருப்பர்.

முழு முயற்சியுடன், முழு உத்வேகத்துடன் ஆண்களும் பெண்களும் சமுகத்திற்காக உழைத்தால் நம் சமூகத்தை வெற்றிகரமான சமூகமாக மாற்ற முடியும் என்பதை நாம் உணர்ந்து கொள்ள வேண்டும்.

தமிழாகிய நாம் இரண்டு ஆயிரம் ஆண்டுகளாக நமது புறநானூறு (182)ற்றை தூக்கிநிற்கிறோம். நீ தான் உன் சிறந்த ஆற்றலிலிருந்து இந்த சூழ்நிலைகளை எதிர்கொண்டு சமூக சேவை செய்யவேண்டும்.

இந்த அகண்ட உலகத்தில் உன்னை நம்பிக்கையுடன் அனுப்புகிறேன். இதைவைத்து நீ வெற்றி பெற வேண்டும். இந்நிறுவனம் உனக்கு அளித்த உணர்வுகள் மற்றும் மனநிலை கொண்டு உனது வாழ்க்கை பிரகாசமாக அமையட்டும். உங்கள் மிளிர்வு இந்த இடத்தை பிரகாச மாக்கட்டும். என்னுடைய வாழ்த்துக்களை ஏற்றுக் கொண்டு முன்னேறி செல்லுங்கள். புன்னகை தேசத்திற்கு …..

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 8 Vector Algebra – I Ex 8.2 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Vector Algebra – I Ex 8.2

Question 1.
Verify whether the following ratios are direction cosines of some vector or not.
(i) \(\frac{1}{5}, \frac{3}{5}, \frac{4}{5}\)
(ii) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\)
(iii) \(\frac{4}{3}, 0, \frac{3}{4}\)
Answer:
(i) \(\frac{1}{5}, \frac{3}{5}, \frac{4}{5}\)


[If l, m, n are direction cosines of a vector then l² + m² + n² = 1]
∴ The given ratio \(\frac{1}{5}, \quad \frac{3}{5}, \quad \frac{4}{5}\) do not form the direction cosines of a vector.

(ii) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\)

[If l, m, n are direction cosines of a vector then l² + m² + n² = 1]
∴ The given ratio form the direction cosines of a vector.

(iii) \(\frac{4}{3}, 0, \frac{3}{4}\)

[If l, m, n are direction cosines of a vector then l² + m² + n² = 1]
∴ The given ratio do not form the direction cosines of a vector.

Question 2.
Find the direction cosines of a vector whose direction ratios are
(i) 1, 2, 3
(ii) 3, -1 , 3
(iii) 0, 0, 7
Answer:
(i) 1, 2, 3
The given direction ratios are a = 1, b = 2 , c = 3

(ii) 3, – 1, 3
The given direction ratios are a = 3, b = – 1 , c = 3

(iii) 0, 0, 7
The given direction ratios are a = 0, b = 0, c = 7

Question 3.
Find the direction cosines and direction ratios for the following vectors.
(i) 3î – 4ĵ + 8k̂
Answer:

(ii) 3î + ĵ + k̂
Answer:

(iii) ĵ
Answer:
ĵ = 0î + ĵ + 0k̂
The direction ratios of the vector ĵ are (0, 1, 0)
The direction cosines of the vector ĵ are

(0, 1, 0)
Direction ratios = (0, 1, 0)
Direction cosines = (0, 1, 0)

(iv) 5î – 3ĵ – 48k̂
Answer:

(v) 3î – 3k̂ + 4ĵ
Answer:

(vi) î – k̂
Answer:

Question 4.
A triangle is formed by joining the points (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0) and (0, 0, 1). Find the direction cosines of the medians.
Answer:
Let ABC be the triangle and D, E, F is the midpoints of the sides BC, CA, AB respectively. Then AD, BE, CF are the medians of ∆ ABC.
Given that the vertices of the triangle are A (1, 0, 0) , B (0, 1, 0 ) and C (0, 0, 1).

Question 5.
If \(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\), a are the direction cosines of some vector, then find a.
Answer:
Given \(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\), a are the direction cosines of some vector, then


[If l, m, n are direction cosines of a vector then l² + m² + n² = 1]

Question 6.
If (a, a + b , a + b + c)is one set of direction ratios of the line joining (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 0), then find a set of values of a, b, c.
Answer:
Let A be the point (1, 0, 0) and B be the point (0, 1, 0) (i.e.,) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}=\hat{i}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OB}}=\hat{j}\)
Then \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OB}}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}=\hat{j}-\hat{i}=-\hat{i}+\hat{j}\)
= (-1, 1, 0)
= (a, a + b, a + b + c)
⇒ a = -1, a + b = 1 and a + b + c = 0
Now a = -1 ⇒ -1 + b = 1 ;a + b + c = 0
⇒ b = 2; -1 + 2 + c = 0 ⇒ c + 1 = 0
⇒ c = -1
∴ a = -1; b = 2; c = -1.
Note: If we taken \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{BA}}\) then we get a = 1, b = -2 and c = 1.

Question 7.
Show that the vectors 2î – ĵ + k̂ , 3î – 4ĵ – 4k̂, î – 3ĵ – 5k̂ form a right angled triangle.
Answer:

Question 8.
Find the value of λ for which the vector \(\vec{a}\) = 3î + 2ĵ + 9k̂ and \(\vec{b}\) = î + λĵ + 3k̂ are parallel.
Answer:

Question 9.
Show that the following vectors are coplanar
(i) î – 2ĵ + 3k̂, – 2î + 3ĵ – 4k̂, – ĵ + 2k̂
Answer:

(ii) 5î + 6ĵ + 7k̂, 7î – 8ĵ + 9k̂, 3î + 20ĵ + 5k̂
Answer:

Question 10.
Show that the points whose position vectors 4î + 5ĵ + k̂, – ĵ – k̂, 3î + 9ĵ + 4k̂ and -4î + 4ĵ + 4k̂ are coplanar.
Answer:
Let the given position vectors of the points A, B, C, D be


Equating the like terms on both sides
-4 = 3s – 7t ………… (1)
-6 = 10s – 5t ……….. (2)
-2 = 5s …………. (3)
(3) ⇒ s = \(-\frac{2}{5}\)
Substituting in equation (2) , we have
-6 = 10 × \(-\frac{2}{5}\) – 5t
-6 = -4 – 5t
-6 + 4 = -5t
⇒ -5t = -2
⇒ t = \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Substituting for s and t in equation (1), we have

Question 11.
If \(\vec{a}\) = 2î + 3ĵ – 4k̂ , \(\vec{b}\) = 3î – 4ĵ – 5k̂ and \(\vec{c}\) = – 3î + 2ĵ + 3k̂ , find the magnitude and direction cosines of
(i) \(\vec{a}\) + \(\vec{b}\) + \(\vec{c}\)
(ii) 3\(\vec{a}\) – 2\(\vec{b}\) + 5\(\vec{c}\)
Answer:
The given vectors are \(\vec{a}\) = 2î + 3ĵ – 4k̂ , \(\vec{b}\) = 3î – 4ĵ – 5k̂ \(\vec{c}\) = – 3î + 2ĵ + 3k̂
(i) \(\vec{a}\) + \(\vec{b}\) + \(\vec{c}\)

(ii) 3\(\vec{a}\) – 2\(\vec{b}\) + 5\(\vec{c}\)

Question 12.
The position vectors of the vertices of a triangle are î + 2ĵ + 3k̂ ; 3î – 4ĵ + 5k̂ and – 2î + 3ĵ – 7k̂. Find the perimeter of the triangle.
Answer:
Let A, B, C be the vertices of a triangle ABC.
Given the position vectors of the vertices A, B, C are given by


∴ The required perimeter of the triangle ABC is given by AB + BC + AC = \(\sqrt{44}+\sqrt{218}+\sqrt{110}\)

Question 13.
Find the unit vector parallel to

Answer:

Question 14.
The position vectors \(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{b}\), \(\vec{c}\) of three points satisfy the relation 2 \(\vec{a}\) + 7\(\vec{b}\) + 5\(\vec{c}\) = \(\vec{0}\). Are these points collinear?
Answer:

Question 15.
The position vector of the points P, Q, R, S are î + ĵ + k̂, 2î + 5ĵ, 3î + 2ĵ – 3k̂ and î – 6ĵ – k̂ respectively. Prove that the line and PQ and RS are parallel.
Answer:
Given that the position vector of the given points P, Q, R, S are

Question 16.
Find the value or values of m for which m (î + ĵ + k̂) is a unit vector.
Answer:
The given vector is m (î + ĵ + k̂)
Given that it is a unit vector.
∴ |m (i + j + k)| = 1
|m (i + j + k)| = 1
m (± \(\sqrt{1^{2}+1^{2}+1^{2}}\)) = 1
m = ± \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 17.
Show that points A (1, 1, 1), B (1, 2, 3), and C (2, -1, 1 ) are vertices of an isosceles triangle.
Answer:
The given vertices of a triangle are
A(1, 1, 1) ,B(1 , 2, 3) and C (2, – 1, 1)
Position vector of A is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}\) = î + ĵ + k̂
Position vector of B is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OB}}\) = î + 2ĵ + 3k̂
Position vector of C is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OC}}\) = 2î – ĵ + k̂


∴ A, B, C are not collinear.
Hence A, B, C form a triangle.
AB = CA = √5
∴ ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 8 Vector Algebra – I Ex 8.1 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Vector Algebra – I Ex 8.1

Question 1.
Represent graphically the displacement of
(i) 45cm, 30° north of east
(ii) 80 km, 60° south of west
Answer:
(i) 45cm, 30° north of east

(ii) 80 km, 60° south of west

Question 2.
Prove that the relation R defined on the set V of all vectors by ‘\(\vec{a}\) R \(\vec{b}\) if \(\vec{a}\) = \(\vec{b}\)’ is an equivalence relation on V.
Answer:

Question 3.
Let \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) be the position vectors of the points A and B. Prove that the position vectors of the points which trisects the line segment AB are \(\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}+2 \overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}}{3}\) and \(\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}+2 \overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}}{3}\).
Answer:

Question 4.
If D and E are the midpoints of the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC, prove that \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{D C}}\) = \(\frac{3}{2} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{BC}}\)
Answer:

Question 5.
Prove that the line segment joining the midpoints of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third side whose length is half of the length of the third side.
Answer:
ABC be the triangle and D, E, F is the midpoints of the sides AB, BC, and AC respectively.
Let O be the origin and let \(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\) are the position vectors of the points A, B and C respectively.

∴ \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{D E}}\) is parallel to \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B C}}\) and length of DE is half the length of BC. Similarly we can prove \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E F}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{EF}}\)
parallel to \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A B}}\) and length of E is half the length of AB.
Also \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{D F}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{AC}}\)

\(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{D F}}\) is parallel to \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A C}}\) and length of DF is half the length of AC . Thus, the line segment joining the mid points of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third side whose length is half of the length of the third side.

Question 6.
Prove that the line segments joining the midpoints of the adjacent sides of a quadrilateral form a parallelogram.
Answer:
Let ABCD be any quadrilateral D, E, F, G are the midpoints of the sides AB, BC, CD, AD respectively.





∴ EF and DG are parallel and equal.
∴ In the quadrilateral, DEFG’s opposite sides are parallel and equal. Therefore, DEFG is a parallelogram.

Question 7.
If \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) represent a side and a diagonal of a parallelogram , find the other sides and the other diagonal.
Answer:

Let ABCD be a parallelogram
Let \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A B}}\) = \(\vec{a}\)
\(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A C}}\) = \(\vec{b}\)
Since ABCD is a parallelogram , we have

Question 8.
If \(\overline{\mathbf{P O}}+\overline{\mathbf{O Q}}\) = \(\overline{\mathbf{Q O}}+\overline{\mathbf{O R}}\), prove that the points P , Q , R are collinear.
Answer:

Let P, Q , R be the given points . Let O be the origin. Then the position vectors of
P, Q, R are \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\), \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OQ}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OR}}\).

∴ P, Q, R lie on a straight line.
Hence, P, Q, R are collinear.

Question 9.
If D is the midpoint of the aide BC of i triangle ABC , prove that \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A B}}\) + \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A C}}\) = 2 \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A D}}\)
Answer:
Given D is the mid point of the side BC of a triangle ABC

Question 10.
If G is the centroid of a triangle ABC, prove that \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{G A}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{G B}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{G C}}=\overrightarrow{\mathbf{0}}\)
Answer:

Let ABC be the triangle with centroid G. Let \(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\) be the position vectors of the vertices A, B and C respectively with respect to the origin O. Then

Question 11.
Let A, B, and C be the vertices of a triangle. Let D, E, and F be the midpoints of the sides BC, CA, and AB respectively. Show that \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A D}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B E}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{C F}}=\overrightarrow{\mathbf{0}}\)
Answer:

Let ABC be the triangle. D, E, F are the mid points of the sides BC , CA , AB respectively . Let \(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\) be the position vectors of the vertices A, B, C respectively. Then

Question 12.
If ABCD is a quadrilateral and E and F are the midpoints of AC and BD respectively, then Prove that \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A B}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A D}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{C B}}+\overrightarrow{\mathbf{C D}}=4 \overrightarrow{\mathbf{E F}}\)
Answer:

Given that ABCD is a quadrilateral. E and F are the midpoints of AC and BD.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.5 Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.5

Choose the correct or the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

Question 1.
If a_ij = \(\) (3i – 2j) and A = [a_ij]_{3 × 2} is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer:
(2)

Explaination:

Question 2.
What must be the matrix X, if

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer:
(1)

Explaination:

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not true about the matrix \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{matrix} \right] \) ?.
(1) a scalar matrix
(2) a diagonal matrix
(3) an upper triangular matrix
(4) a lower triangular matrix
Answer:
(1) a scalar matrix

Explaination:
Let A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(1) a scalar matrix – not true
(2) a diagonal matrix – true
(3) an upper triangular matrix – true
(4) a lower triangular matrix – true

[(1) A square matrix A = [a_ij]_{m × n} is called a diagonal matrix if a_ij = 0 whenever i ≠ j
(2) A diagonal matrix whose entries along the principle diagonal are equal is called a scalar matrix.
(3) A square matrix is said to be an upper triangular matrix if all the elements below the main diagonal are zero.
(4) A square matrix is said to be a lower triangular matrix if all the elements above the main diagonal are zero.]

Question 4.
If A and B are two matrices such that A + B and AB are both defined, then
(1) A and B are two matrices not necessarily of same order
(2) A and B are square matrices of same order
(3) Number of columns of A is equal to the number of rows of B
(4) A = B
Answer:
(2) A and B are square matrices of same order

Explaination:
Given A and B are two matrices such that A + B and AB are both defined.
A + B defined means A and B are same order.
AB defined means , Number of columns of A equal to Number of rows of B.
A + B and AB are simultaneously defined.
Therefore A and B are of same order.

Question 5.
If A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} λ & 1 \\ -1 & -λ \end{matrix} \right] \), then for what value of λ, A² = 0 ?
(1) 0
(2) ± 1
(3) – 1
(4) 1
Answer:
(2) ± 1

Explaination:

Question 6.
If A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & -1 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right]\), B = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} a & 1 \\ b & -1 \end{matrix} \right]\) and (A + B)² = A² + B², then the values of a and b are
(1) a = 4, b = 1
(2) a = 1, b = 4
(3) a = 0, b = 4
(4) a = 2, b = 4
Answer:
(2) a = 1, b = 4

Explaination:




L .2
Equating the like entrices
(a – 1)² = a² + b – 1 ………. (3)
o = a – 1 ………. (4)
2a+ 2 + ab + b = ab – b ………. (5)
4 = b ………. (6)
a = 1, b = 4

Question 7.
If A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 & 2 \\ 2 & 1 & -2 \\ a & 2 & b \end{matrix} \right] \)
the equation AA^T = 9I, where I is 3 × 3 identity matrix, then the ordered pair (a, b)
is equal to
(1) (2, -1)
(2) (- 2, 1)
(3) (2, 1)
(4) (- 2, – 1)
Answer:
(4) (- 2, – 1)

Explaination:


Equating the like entries
a + 2b + 4 = 0 …………. (1)
2a – 2b + 2 = 0
a – b + 1 = 0 …………. (2)
a² + b² + 4 = 9 …………. (3)

3b = – 3 ⇒ b = -1
Substituting in equation (1) we get
a + 2 × – 1 + 4 = 0
a – 2 + 4 = 0
a = – 2
Substituting the values a = – 2 , b = – 1 in equation (3)
we have
(- 2)² + (-1)² + 4 = 9
4 + 1 + 4 = 9
9 = 9
∴ The required value of the ordered pair (a, b) is
(a, b) = (- 2, – 1)

Question 8.
If A is a square matrix, then which of the following is not symmetric?
(1) A + A^T
(2) AA^T
(3) A^TA
(4) AA^T
Answer:
(4) AA^T

Explaination:
Given A is a square matrix.
A square matrix A is symmetric if A^T = A

(1) A + A^T
(A + A^T)^T = A^T + (A^T)^T
= A^T + A = A + A^T
∴ A + A^T is symmetric.

(2) AA^T
(AA^T)^T = (A^T)^TA^T
= AA^T
∴ AA^T is symmetric.

(3) A^TA
(A^TA)^T = A^T(A^T)^T
= A^TA
∴ A^TA is symmetric.

(4) A – A^T
(A – A^T)^T = A^T – (A^T)^T
= A^TA
∴ A – A^T is not symmetric.

Question 9.
If A and B are symmetric matrices of order n , where (A ≠ B) , then
(1) A + B is skew – symmetric
(2) A + B is symmetric
(3) A + B is a diagonal matrix
(4) A + B is a zero matrix
Answer:
(2) A + B is symmetric

Explaination:
Given A and B are symmetric matrices of order n.
∴ A^T = A and B^T = B
A matrix A is skew symmetric if A^T = – A
(1)(A + B)^T = A^T + B^T = A + B
A + B is not skew symmetric.
(2)(A + B)^T = A^T+B^T = A + B
∴ A + B is symmetric.
(3) A + B is a diagonal matrix is incorrect.
(4) A + B is a zero matrix is incorrect.

Question 10.
If A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} a & x \\ y & a \end{matrix} \right] \) and if xy = 1, then det (AA^T) is equal to
(1) (a – 1)²
(2) (a² + 1)²
(3) a² – 1
(4) (a² – 1)²
Answer:
(4) (a² – 1)²

Explaination:

= (a² + x²) (y² + a²) – (ax + ay) (ax + ay)
= a² y² + a⁴ + x² y² + a² x² – ((ax)² + (ay)² + 2 (ax)(ay))
= a² x² + a² y² + a⁴ + (xy)² – a² x² – a² y² – 2a² xy
= a⁴ + (1)² – 2a²(1)
= a⁴ – 2a² + 1
|AA^T| = (a² – 1)²

Question 11.
The value of x, for which the matrix A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} { e }^{ x-2 } & { e }^{ 7+x } \\ { e }^{ 2+x } & { e }^{ 2x+3 } \end{matrix} \right] \) is singular
(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 7
(4) 6
Answer:
(2) 8

Explaination:

Question 12.
If the points (x, – 2), (5, 2), (8, 8) are collinear , then x is equal to
(1) – 3
(2) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(3) 1
(4) 3
Answer:
(4) 3

Explaination:
Let the given points be (x₁, y₁) = (x, – 2) ,
(x₂, y₂) = (5, 2) and (x₃, y₃) = (8, 8)
The condition for the three points (x₁, y₁), (x₂, y₂) and (x₃, y₃) to be collinear is

\(\frac{1}{2}\) [x(2 – 8) + 2(5 – 8) + 1(40 – 16)] = 0
x × – 6 + 2 × – 3 + 1 × 24 = 0
– 6x – 6 + 24 = 0
– 6x + 18 = 0
6x = 18 ⇒ x = \(\frac{18}{6}\) = 3
x = 3

Question 13.
If \(\left| \begin{matrix} 2a & { x }_{ 1 } & { y }_{ 1 } \\ 2b & { x }_{ 2 } & { y }_{ 2 } \\ 2c & { x }_{ 3 } & { y }_{ 3 } \end{matrix} \right| \) = \(\frac{\text { abc }}{2}\) ≠ 0, then the area of the triangle whose vertices are

(1) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{4}\)abc
(3) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{8}\)abc
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{1}{8}\)

Explaination:

Question 14.
If the square of the matrix \(\left[ \begin{matrix} α & β \\ γ & -α \end{matrix} \right] \) is the unit matrix of order 2, then α, β, and γ should
(1) 1 + α² + βγ = 0
(2) 1 – α² – βγ = 0
(3) 1 – α² + βγ = 0
(4) 1 + α² – βγ = 0
Answer:
(1) 1 + α² + βγ = 0

Explaination:

– α² – βγ = 1
α² + βγ + 1 = 0

Question 15.

(1) Δ
(2) kΔ
(3) 3 kΔ
(4) k³ Δ
Answer:
(4) k³ Δ

Explaination:

Question 16.
A root of the equation \(\left| \begin{matrix} 3-x & -6 & 3 \\ -6 & 3-x & 3 \\ 3 & 3 & -6-x \end{matrix} \right| \) = 0 is
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 0
(4) -6
Answer:
(3) 0

Explaination:


0 = 0
x = 0 satisfies the given equation.
Hence the root of the given equation is x = 0.

Question 17.
The value of the determinant of A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 0 & a & -b \\ -a & 0 & c \\ b & -c & 0 \end{matrix} \right] \) is
(1) -2 abc
(2) abc
(3) 0
(4) a² + b² + c²
Answer:
(3) 0

Explaination:

= 0 – a(0 – bc) – b (ac – 0)
= abc – abc = 0

Question 18.
If x₁, x₂, x₃ as well as y₁, y₂, y₃ are in geometric progression with the same common ratio, then the points (x₁, y₁), (x₂, y₂), (x₃, y₃) are
(1) vertices of an equilateral triangle
(2) vertices of a right angled triangle
(3) vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle
(4) collinear
Answer:
(4) collinear

Explaination:
Given x₁, x₂ , x₃, as well as y₁, y₂, y₃, are in geometric progression with the same common ratio.
∴ x₁ = a, x₂ = ar, x₃ = ar² ,
y₁ = b, y₂ = br, y₃ = br²
(x₁, y₁) = (a, b),
(x₂, y₂) = (ar ,br)
and (x₃, y₃) = (ar², br²)
Area of the triangle whose vertices are
(x₁, y₁),(x₂, y₂) and (x₃ y₃) is

= \(\frac{1}{2}\)ab[1(r – r²) – 1 (r – r²) + 1 (r³ – r³)]
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)ab[r – r² – r + r² + 0]
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)ab × 0 = 0
∴ The points (x₁, y₁),(x₂, y₂) and (x₃ y₃) are collinear.

Question 19.
If denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to the real number under consideration and – 1 ≤ x< 0, 0 ≤ y < 1, 1 ≤ z < 2 , then the value of the determinant

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer:
(1)

Explaination:

Question 20.
If a ≠ b, b, c satisfy \(\left| \begin{matrix} a & 2b & 2c \\ 3 & b & c \\ 4 & a & b \end{matrix} \right| \) = 0 then abc =
(1) a + b + c
(2) 0
(3) b³
(4) ab + bc
Answer:
(3) b³

Explaination:

(a – 6) (b² – ac) = 0
Since a ≠ 6 , we have a – 6 ≠ 0
∴ b² – ac = 0
b² = ac
b³ = abc

Question 21.
If A = \(\left| \begin{matrix} -1 & 2 & 4 \\ 3 & 1 & 0 \\ -2 & 4 & 2 \end{matrix} \right| \) and B = \(\left| \begin{matrix} -2 & 4 & 2 \\ 6 & 2 & 0 \\ -2 & 4 & 8 \end{matrix} \right| \), then B is given by
(1) B = 4A
(2) B = – 4A
(3) B = – A
(4) B = 6A
Answer:
(2) B = – 4A

Explaination:

Question 22.
IfA skew-symmetric of order n and C is a column matrix of order n × 1, then C_T AC is
(1) an identity matrix of order n
(2) an identity matrix of order I
(3) a zero matrix of order 1
(4) an identity matrix of order 2
Answer:
(3) a zero matrix of order 1

Explaination:
Given A is a skew symmetric matrix of order n.
∴ A^T = – A
C is a column matrix of order n × 1
C^Tis of order 1 × n
∴ C^T A is of order (1 × n) × (n × n) = (1 × n)
C^TAC is of order (1 × n) × (n × 1) = (1 × 1)
Since A is a skew – symmetric matrix, we have
A^T = -A
(C^T AC)^T= C^T A^T (C^T)^T = C^T (-A) C
= -C^T AC
∴ C^TAC is a skew – symmetric matrix.
A matrix of order 1 is skew – symmetric if A is zero matrix.
Since C^TAC is a skew – symmetric and its order is 1.
∴ C^TAC is a zero matrix.

Question 23.
The matrix A satisfying the equation

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer:
(3)

Explaination:

x + 3z = 1 ——– (1)
y + 3t = 1 ——- (2)
z = 0
t = – 1
(1) ⇒ x + 3 × 0 = 1 ⇒ x = 1
(2) ⇒ y + 3 × – 1 = 1 ⇒ y = 4
∴ A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 4 \\ 0 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 24.
If A + 1 = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 3 & -2 \\ 4 & 1 \end{matrix} \right]\), then (A + I) (A – I) is equal to
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer:
(1)

Explaination:

Question 25.
Let A and B be two symmetrh matrices of same order. ^Then which one of the following statement is not true?
(1) A + B is a symmetric matrix
(2) AB is a symmetric matrix
(3) AB = (BA)^T
(4) A^TB = MI^T
Answer:
(2) AB is a symmetric matrix

Explaination:
Given A and B are two symmetric matrices of the same order.
A = A^T , B = B^T
(1)(A+B)^T = A^T + B^T = A + B
A + B is symmetric.

(2) (AB)^T = B^T A^T BA
Thus (AB)^T ≠ AB
Hence , AB is not symmetric.

(3) AB = (BA)^T
= A^T B^T = AB
Statement is true.

(4) A^T B = AB^T Since A^T = A
B = B^T
Statement is true.