Category: Class 11

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions, [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
I pulled myself together and handed over the card nonchalantly.
(a) indifferently
(b) carefully
(c) cautiously
(d) sentimentally
Answer:
(a) indifferently

Question 2.
The incident is clearly etched in my memory.
(a) erased
(b) melted
(c) imprinted
(d) refrained
Answer:
(c) imprinted

Question 3.
The libraries are a repository of knowledge.
{a) refractory
(b) refrigerator
(c) storeroom
(d) management
Answer:
(c) storeroom

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
It is important that even the mediocre are given due recognition.
(a) middling
(b) ordinary
(c) exceptional
(d) middleman
Answer:
(c) exceptional

Question 5.
I managed to solve the complex problem.
(a) intricate
(b) compound
(c) simple
(d) complicated
Answer:
(c) simple

Question 6.
It is compulsory to donate one day salary for the flood victims.
(a) obligation
(b) optional
(c) obeisance
(d) obstruction
Answer:
(b) optional

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of “hazardous and material”.
(a) hazardmat
(b) hazat
(c) hazmat
(d) mathaz
Answer:
(c) hazmat

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “etymology”.
(a) A person perceived to be either uncivilized or primitive
(b) A study about the history and origin of a word
(c) The hutnanistic study of language and literature
(d) The belief that all events in life are predetermined and inevitable
Answer:
(b) A study about the history and origin of a word

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘A penny for your thoughts’.
(a) Current issues spoken by many people
(b) To worsen an unfavourable situation
(c) Everything about the case
(d) Asking what someone is thinking
Answer:
(d) Asking what someone is thinking

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Our daughter is going to turn 5 next year, so we’ve been trying to find a good kindergarten for her.
(a) preschool
(b) children’s garden
(c) school material
(d) play school
Answer:
(b) children’s garden

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “while”.
(a) mean
(b) teach
(c) scene
(d) weather
Answer:
(a) mean

Question 12.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “qualified”.
(a) sur
(b) dis
(c) in
(d) mis
Answer:
(b) dis

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “FTCL”.
(a) Fellow Tribal Colleges of Linguistics
(b) Federal Trinity College of Libya
(c) Fellowship Trinity College of London
(d) Feminine Travellers Chambers of Ladies
Answer:
(c) Fellowship Trinity College of London

Question 14.
Use for dramatic works involving the downfall or destruction of the protagonist due to character flaws, catastrophe, or reversal of fortune.
(a) Comedy
(b) Monologue
(c) Tragedy
(d) Historical Plays
Answer:
(c) Tragedy

Question 15.
A passion for writing is known as ………..
(a) Animator
(b) Graphomania
(c) Sonettomania
(d) Eulogomania
Answer:
(b) Graphomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Latha laughed till the tears ran ……… her cheeks.
(a) down
(b) with
(c) on
(d) in
Answer:
(a) down

Question 17.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
Reading made him a complete man.
(a) SVOA
(b) SVOC
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVCA
Answer:
(b) SVOC

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Excuse me, driver. My mother needs use the toilet urgently.
(a) comfort stop
(b) nature calls
(c) rest room
(d) powder room
Answer:
(a) comfort stop

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
I don’t know where my book is. I have to look for it.
(a) retrieve
(b) look
(c) search
(d) find
Answer:
(c) search

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
They finally found the murderer, ………. was hiding in a small town.
(a) where
(b) which
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(c) who

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“And I have learned too
To laugh with only my teeth
And shake hands without my heart”
(a) Explain ‘To laugh with only my teeth’.
(b) Why is he shaking hands without heart?
Answer:
(a) Laughing with only teeth means laughing without genuine emotions of love, warmth and friendliness. It is fake.
(b) The heart is a symbol of genuine emotions. The poet recalls the time when people used to smile and shake hands with their hearts. Now, things have become different.

Question 22.
“For he’s a fiend in feline shape, a monster of depravity
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
(a) The poem is ‘Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ written by T.S. Eliot.
(b) Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked and all the time involved in doing something evil.

Question 23.
“We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones;
Never shall we fail in what we commit,
Shall nourish the ones that nourish the world.”
(a) What is the poet’s mission in life?
(b) Explain the last line.
Answer:
(a) The poet’s mission is to identify deserving people with natural talents and appreciate them.
(b) The poet claims that simple people like farmers, teachers and other noble professionals nourish those who nourish the world.

Question 24.
“As if this flesh which walls about our life
Were brass impregnable and, humour’d thus”
(а) What does the king realize?
(b) Explain the phrase ‘brass impregnable’.
Answer:
(a) The king realises that his mortal body also will come to an end like others.
(b) ‘Brass impregnable’ means someone that is unconquerable.

Question 25.
“I heard a thousand blended notes While in a grove I sate reclined,”
(a) What do you mean by‘blended notes’?
(b) What was the poet doing there?
Answer:
(a) The blended notes mean the combined music of birds which cohabit in the grove.
(b) The poet was relaxed and was listening to the music of the birds.

Question 26.
“My limp and bashful spirit feeds On other people’s heroic deeds”
(a) What does the poet say about his own temperament?
(b) How does the poet feed his love for games?
Answer:
(a) The poet agrees that he is weak, shy and reluctant.
(b) He derives vicarious pleasure watching others play heroically on the sports field.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Shilo : How are you Cathy? Please check mail regarding your travel arrangements to Muscat.
Cathy : Could you please send it again since I haven’t received any mail from you.
Answer:
Shilo asked Cathy how she was and to check mail regarding her travel arrangements to Muscat. Cathy requested Shilo to send it again as she hasn’t received any mail from him.

Question 28.
Change into active voice of the following sentence.
The work can be done by Shanthini.
Answer:
Shanthini can do the work.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If we’d bought that property, we would have been rich by now.
Answer:
Had we bought that property, we would have been rich by now.

Question 30.
The firefighters made several attempts. They could not save the drowning cub. (Change into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of making several attempts, the firefighters could not save the drowning cub.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
They do not ever in their dealings
Consider one another’s feelings…
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context: The poet says these words, while highlighting the callous indifference of players to the pain and injuries of fellow players.

Explanation: Every player considers the player in the opposite team as a deadly rival. He looks for an opportunity. We do find hockey players hitting good players on the ankle with the stick to prevent them from playing great shots. Bowlers try to hit the body of batsman with the ball. They don’t seem to notice cracking wrists and snapping knees as their focus is only on victory and glory. In short, the players do not have feelings for the fellow players.

Question 32.
The birds around me hopp’d and play ’d,
Their thoughts I cannot measure.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines’Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet was quite impressed with the beauty and peace that prevailed in the woodland. The birds were oblivious to the presence of the poet. They hopped and chirped around him in absolute bliss. The poet said these words while trying to fathom their thoughts.

Explanation: The poet was overwhelmed with delight in the company of birds, plant kingdom and the brook. He tried hard to understand the thoughts of the birds through the bird’s language. But he couldn’t succeed. He simply inferred that they were thrilled and enjoying the jocund company.

Question 33.
He’s the bafflement of Scotland Yard, the Flying Squad’s despair:
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, “ Macavity – the mystery cat, written by T.S., Eliot.

Context: The poet says these words while describing the criminal activities and how he eludes the detection by Scotland Yard Police.

Explanation: Scotland Yard Police is known world over for quick disposal of criminal cases. But Macavity is such a criminal that the Scotland Yard policemen are unable to produce evidence to arrest him. So, they are baffled. The flying squad is unable to pursue him soon after the crime is committed. So, they are desperate to nab him.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: {2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What does the author mean when he says the letter in his pocket leads an unadventurous life?
Answer:
The poet forgets the letters kept in his pocket. Whenever the friend enquires about the unposted letters, it embarrasses him. then he is forced to produce the evidence of his guilt (i.e.,) the unposted letters. This awkward humiliation is said to be unadventurous.

Question 35.
What is a tight corner? What happens when one finds oneself in a tight corner?
Answer:
Tight comer is a difficult situation. When one finds oneself in a tight comer, one worries and thinks seriously about the ways of getting out of it.

Question 36.
Why did the author’s concern over tobacco shift to his finger?
Answer:
When the author saw the racing tobacco box disgorging its content, he worried about the need to buy expensive tobacco in England. But when he saw his own bleeding finger that he had gashed while forcefully opening the jammed zip, he shifted his cry to his finger.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow:
The factors which affect health are given percentage-wise in the pie-chart.

Questions

1. What percent of diseases are caused due to pollution?
2. Fifty one percent of illnesses are caused by what factors?
3. What is the least percent of health affected by?

Answer:

1. Nineteen percent of diseases are caused due to pollution.
2. Fifty one percent of the causes of illness is jointly shared by lifestyle, smoking, obesity, stress and diet.
3. Lack of medical facilities.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between bank manager and a student who wants to open a bank account.
Answer:
Vanin : Sir, I want to open a savings account.
Bank Manager : Have you brought your aadhar card and two copies of photograph?
Varun : Yes, sir.
Bank Manager : Fill in this application and the challan and pay the initial amount in the 3rd counter.
Varun : Sir, the pass book.
Bank Manager : You can collect it tomorrow evening.
Varun : Thank you sir.

Question 39.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:
Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your campsite.
Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
Lay out the poles and assemble them.
Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
Pull the tent upright.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

1. Don’t blow your own ……….. (horn, trumpet, whistle)
2. Early ………. catches the worm, (man, hen, bird)
3. Empty bags cannot ………. upright, (stand, sit, lie)

Answer:

1. trumpet
2. bird
3. stand

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Why was Mary Kom named the “Queen of Boxing”?
Answer:
After Mary Korn’s first silver medal in Pennsylvania in 2001, there was no looking back. Her medal haul continued even after her marriage putting an end to the speculation of family and friends that her marriage may slow down her career progression. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Boxing Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005. She won her fourth gold also in 2006. She had won several golds for India from 2001 to 2004. She had won all the Senior Women’s Boxing Championships, Second Women’s Championship (2002), Second Asian Women’s Boxing Championship at Hisar (2003) and the Witch Cup Boxing Championship at Paes, Hungary.

There were a number of other International World Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam, Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her World title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania which was considered as Mary Korn’s greatest achievement in life. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media has rightly christened her, “Queen of Boxing”.

[OR]

Bill Bryson “ached to be suave”. Was he, successful in his mission? If not what are the reasons.
Answer:
Bill Bryson expresses his genuine desire to be “suave”. He would love just once in his life time to rise from the dinner table as if he had not experienced an “extremely localized seismic event, get into a car without leaving 14 inch coat outride, wear light-coloured trousers without ever discovering at the end of the day that he had at various times and places sat on chewing gum, ice-cream cough syrup and motor oil. No, Bill Bryson was not successful in his mission.

Twice he spilled his drinks on a sweet nun who happened to sit next to him. He tried to show off his wisdom to another attractive lady. As usual, he was sucking his pep. His shirt, teeth and gum carried the unscrubbable navy blue stain for many days. He always did “liquid mischief’. His clumsy behaviour in the aeroplane made the saintly nun use abusive language. To avoid unsuave ways, he gave up air-travel with his family members. His wife and children supported him yet failed to refine his manners.

Question 42.
How is it true that Macavity is indeed a mystery cat?
Answer:
Macavity is an elusive master criminal who leaves no evidence after he commits a crime. He baffles Scotland Yard police and the flying squad as he disappears before their arrival to the scene of crime. He is called a “Hidden paw“ because even Scotland Yard is unable to arrest him after he commits any crime. He does not leave his foot prints in the spot of crime. He defies law of gravity and his powers of levitation make the fakir stare with wonder.

Other cats are lazy and just stay in the kitchen and take the food offered by their master. But Macavity is agile and defies law of the land and laws of gravity. Despite doing all wicked things, he pretends to be innocent. So, the poet claims one can never come across such a cat of “Deceitfulness and suavity”. When he appears to be half-asleep with his half-closed eyes, he would be wide-awake. He is an enigma to everyone. Macavity is indeed a mystery.

[OR]

Trace the confessions of a born Spectator as listed out by Ogden Nash.
Answer:
This poem is about a bom spectator who confesses about his views on Sports and sportsmen. He says that they injure each other as they prance and feel happy on others heroic deeds. His limp and bashful spirit feeds on the heroism of other players. He has seen zealous athletes playing so rough that they never consider the feelings of fellow players. He watches with a palpitating heart when ‘A’ runs ninety yards to bag a medal. He watches with obvious alarm when ‘B’ knocks another boxer down cracking his vertebrae and spines.

They.are insensitive to the cracking wrist and snapping knees of fellow players. When his ego and prudence clashed, ego told him to seek glory in sports, but his prudence always ignored it. Thus common sense prevailed, he remained a cheerful life-time fan of successful athletes. He was contented as a spectator of all kinds of games and sports and world famous athletes. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph (150 words) by developing the following hints
“After Twenty Years,” – time -10 o’clock at night – depeopled the streets – only two men – on street – that night – policeman approaches – lurking man – light from his match – shows a pale face – keen eyes, a scar in eyebrow – a scarf pin – diamond – expensive watch – all hints as to the man’s past.
Answer:
The short story “After Twenty Years” takes place around 10 p.m. along a dark, windy New York City business avenue, mostly within the darkened doorway of a closed hardware store. This particular location had been a restaurant until five years ago. The plot begins with a policeman “on the beat” who discovers a man standing in the dark doorway. The man then proceeds to explain why he is there. He and his best friend, Jimmy Wells had parted exactly twenty years ago to make their fortunes and had promised to meet at that spot “After Twenty Years”. He had gone west and gotten rich and was sure his friend, Jimmy would meet him if he were alive. They talked a while and the policeman carried on. The man from the west wonders if his friend will come.

The drama increases in anticipation of the rendezvous. Twenty minutes later, another man, whom we assume is his long lost friend, greets him warmly and they walk arm in arm discussing careers until they come to a well-lit comer near a drug store. The man from the west gets a good look at his companion and discovers that he is not his friend, Jimmy. We are treated to several surprises for the man from the west is under arrest and secondly he is actually ‘Silky Bob’, a gangster from Chicago and finally the stranger is a plainclothes policeman. However, it seems that these three surprises are not enough. We get the “real” surprise when Jimmy Wells, the original policeman didn’t have the heart to arrest Bob, because he was his friend.

[OR]

Philip – travels – train – Brill Manor – meets Bertie – second son – left purse – four quids – needs money – requests Philip to lend him – two pounds -did not help – true . son – mistaken for a fraud.
Answer:
The young man who entered the coach gave out a smothered curse, he was engaged in searching something elusive angrily and uselessly. From time to time, he dug a six penny bit out of a waist coat pocket and stared at it sadly, then resumed his search. He voluntarily broke the silence. He exclaimed that Mr. Sletherby was going to Bill Manor. He introduced himself as Bertie, the younger son of Mrs. Saltpen-Jago. He admitted that he was away for about six months and had not seen his own mother.

Making use of the lucky coincidence that he was going to Brill Manor, he asked for a loan of three pounds as he had lost his sovereign purse and was desperately in need of help. He promised to meet him on the subsequent Monday. There is a dramatic irony when the son himself gives a different version of his mom’s appearance. This influences the decision of Mr. Sletherby in refusing to lend Bertie a loan of three pounds and mistaking the true son Bertie to be a fraud.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
The word procrastination comes from two Latin terms meaning to ‘put forward until tomorrow’. Standard dictionary definitions include the idea of postponement or delay. Steel, a psychologist who has reviewed hundreds of studies on the subject, states that to procrastinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”.

Another expert, Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between people who tend to put things off and “chronic” or “real” procrastinators for whom this is their life and who might even need therapy. Ferrari categorizes procrastinators into three types: (a) stimulation types that get a thrill from beating a deadline, (b) avoiders put off doing things that might make others think badly of them, and (c) decisional procrastinators who postpone making a decision until they have enough information to avoid making a wrong choice.

Chronic procrastinators tend to have low self-esteem and focus on the past more than the future. The Discounted Expectancy Theory illustrates with a student like Sam who puts off writing a paper. When the deadline is far off, the rewards for socializing now are greater than those for finishing a task not due until later. As the deadline looms, the rewards or consequences for finishing the paper becomes more important.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators on the average got lower grades and had higher levels of stress and illness. Chu and Choi however, say that not all procrastinators are lazy and undisciplined. “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and so less efficient. “Active procrastinators prefer to work under pressure” and “if something unexpectedly comes up, they will knowingly switch gears and engage in new tasks they perceive as more urgent.”
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 280
No. of words to be written in the summary: 280/3 = 93 ± 5

Rough Draft
procrastination is a Latin word. Hundreds of studies reviewed by Steel, a psychologist states that to procrasinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”. Another expert Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between “chronic” or “real” procrastinators into three types: stimulation types avoiders and decisional procrastinators. Chronic procrastinators self-esteem.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators get lower grades and have higher levels of stress. Chu and Choi, say that “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and so less efficient. “Active procrastinators prefer to work under pressure” and “if something unexpectedly comes up, they will knowingly switch gears and engage in new tasks they perceive as more urgent.

Fair Draft
Procrastination
Procrastination is a Latin word. Hundreds of studies reviewed by Steel, a psychologist states that to procrastinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”. Another expert, Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between “chronic” or “real” procrastinators. Ferrari categorizes procrastinators into three types: stimulation types avoiders and decisional procrastinators. Chronic procrastinators have low self-esteem.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators get lower grades and are stressed. Chu and Choi, say that “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and less efficient. “Active procrastinators” work under pressure and if something more urgent comes up they change their focus.

No. of words in the summary: 104

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Procrastination
Answer:
1. Intro A proctn
Origin – Latin
Meaning – Put fwd till tomorrow – Idea A postponement or delay Steel (psychologist) – voluntary delay – despite expecting to be worse-off

2. Categorⁿ
a. Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari
Stimln types – thrill 4m beating a deadline
Avoiders – avoid things // make others think badly A them
Decisional – postpone making a decsn (until enough information)
Real procs – way A life (might need therapy)
Chronic procs:
Low self esteem
Focus on past

b. Tice and Baumeister
Procs got lower grades
Higher levels A stress and illness

c. Chu and Choi
Passive procs – stressed, less efficient
Active procs – prefer to work under pressure, knowingly engage in new tasks

Conclusion: The word procrastination comes from two Latin terms meaning to ‘put forward until tomorrow’.
Abbreviations: Intro – Introduction; A – of; Proctn – procrastination; Fwd – forward; Stimln – stimulation; Categorⁿ – categorization; 4m – from; // – that; decsn – decision; procs – procrastinators

Question 45.
Write a letter to the Editor of a famous daily, Dindigul about the incidents of violence taking place with the aged living alone at home, drawing the attention of authorities towards the problem.
Answer:

22nd July 2020

From
Vinitha
Railway Colony
Dindigul

To
The Editor
Daily Thanthi
Dindigul
Respected Sir,
Sub: Violence against the aged living alone at home.
I wish to draw your attention towards the security of the aged people living alone at home in Dindigul. Almost every day we find the newspapers full of such incidents. The miscreants rob the people and then murder them. Many times the servants of the house are found involved in these incidents. The aged are the gullible people and are easily made target.

I hope after publishing this letter in your esteemed newspaper, the police will take some necessaiy actions for their safety.
Thanking you

Yours faithfully,
Vinitha
Address on the Envelope
To
The Editor
Indian Express
Chennai

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Where there is a will, there is a way.’
Answer:
Where there is a will, there is a way
Where there is a will, there is a way is an old saying in English which teaches us about the most significant subject of getting success in life. Reaching a nice target becomes our maxim. However achieving a target needs strong determination and commitment. People without having will power never achieve the victory and they curse their destiny. This common saying simply means that if the person is strong-minded enough to get something done, he/ she always will find a way to do that. Fortitude is necessary to get completion in the task as it helps a person to fight with all difficulties and get success.

Without grit and will power, we generally tend to give up very easily in the initial stages as we become desperate facing small teething issues. To learn or achieve something in life, will power acts as a channel and enhances the speed of action. It needs a firm and incessant exercise to deeply learn things. We can pass the exam by reading the lessons just a night before the exam. However, we cannot be ranked first in the class, district or state without hard work for the entire year. One needs to be systematic, meticulous and focused to with a strong will power to pave way for success. So, it is good to have determination even to the smallest tasks in life and never yield to petty things easily.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) He was tall and thin and has giant features.
(b) The stories he read are all about adventure.
(c) In general mass media means various ways communication.
(d) This is due the various advancements and achievements in the field of communication.
(e) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi go to England for higher studies at the age of 19.
Answer:
(a) He was tall and thin and had giant features.
(b) The stories he read were all about adventure.
(c) In general mass media means various ways of communication.
(d) This is due to the various advancements and achievements in the field of communication.
(e) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi went to England for higher studies at the age of 19.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) I can ………. the bell from ……… (hear/here)
(b) I ………. swim quite well when I was younger. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) She ……….. spend more time for practice, (use semi-modal)
(d) England lost their test match against India ………… over confidence and less preparation. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) hear, here
(b) could
(c) ought to
(d) due to

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) As in January 2005, the rate of inflation came down to 3%.
(b) At the international level, global warming Has increased the anxiety of many nations.
(c) A new rocket launching station is commissioned in Andhra Pradesh.
(d) Your monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
(e) Mr. Venkatraghavan is one of the best umpires in the world.
(Science, Computer, Sports, Commerce, Environment)
Answer:
(a) Commerce
(b) Environriient
(c) Science
(d) Computer
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Today we don’t think of a cartoon as being associated with great art, but at one time it was. During the period of Italian Renaissance, the term ‘cartoon’ meant the first sketch in actual size of a large work of art, such as a mural (wall painting). When newspapers and magazines began to use drawings to illustrate news and editorial opinion and to provide amusement, these drawings came to be known as cartoons. In the days before the newspaper, artists like Hogarth, Daumier and Rawlandson made a series of drawings on a single theme. Sometimes such a series of drawings pictured and adventures of a single character. They were the ancestors of present-day cartoons and comic strips.

In the nineteen and early twentieth centuries, there were a number of magazines which specialised in cartoons. In Paris there was one called ‘Charivari’ and in London there was the famous ‘Punch’. Nowadays movies based on cartoons characters are also made. Movies featuring Tom and Jerry, Dennis the Menace, Tarzen, Mickey Mouse and Donald Duck are very popular with children.
Questions.

1. Identify the purposes for which cartoons were used in newspapers.
2. In what sense did the Italians use the term ‘cartoon’ during the Renaissance period?
3. Who were the ancestors of present-day cartoons and comic strips?
4. Name the two magazines mentioned in the passage which specialised in cartoons.
5. Name the famous cartoon character you are familiar with.

Answer:

1. Cartoons were associated with great art. It is a large work of art.
2. During the Renaissance period the term ‘cartoon’ was used to mean first sketch of a large work of art.
3. Artists like Hogarth, Daumier and Rawlandson were the ancestors of the present-day cartoon and comic strips.
4. Charivari and punch were the two magazines which specialised in cartoons.
5. Mickey mouse and Donald Duck are the famous cartoon characters I am familiar with.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
The face shone bright through the delicate shroud.
(a) linen
(b) veil
(c) fabric
(d) saree
Answer:
(b) veil

Question 2.
The basket of apples rolled across the concourse.
(a) carriage
(b) cavalry
(c) courtyard
(d) candour
Answer:
(c) courtyard

Question 3.
The ordinary man seldom forgets things.
(a) often
(b) rarely
(c) frequently
(d) random
Answer:
(b) rarely

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
We were so amused with the quick response from the three year old.
(a) annoyed
(b) pleased
(c) happy
(d) entertained
Answer:
(a) annoyed

Question 5.
I cherished the moist imprint as the last sign of physical presence.
(a) dry
(b) clammy
(c) sultry
(d) soggy
Answer:
(a) dry

Question 6.
Her lips moved in inaudible prayer.
(a) indistinct
(b) muted
(c) audible
(d) altered
Answer:
(c) audible

Question 7.
Choose the unclipped form of “lunch”.
(a) lunchtime
(b) luncher
(c) lunchent
(d) luncheon
Answer:
(d) luncheon

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “fratricide”.
(a) The fear of the future
(b) One who makes major changes in the education system
(c) Killing small babies
(d) The murder of your sibling
Answer:
(d) The murder of your sibling

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Add insult to injury’.
(a) Hear from the authoritative source
(b) Everything about the case
(c) To worsen an unfavourable situation
(d) To see that two agree on something
Answer:
(c) To worsen an unfavourable situation

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
I saw an old lady wearing a babushka walking down the street.
(a) gown or night dress
(b) scarf or head covering
(c) rain coat
(d) baboons dress
Answer:
(b) scarf or head covering

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “ran”.
(a) down
(b) floor
(c) sack
(d) town
Answer:
(c) sack

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word, “nourish”.
(a) ly
(b) ile
(c) ment
(d) ness
Answer:
(c) ment

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “CPWD”.
(a) Centralised Public Works Department
(b) Central Public Works Director
(c) Central Public Works Department
(d) Central Private Works Department
Answer:
(c) Central Public Works Department

Question 14.
The correct syllabification of the word “circumstance” is………..
(a) cir-cum-stan-ces
(b) cir-cum-stance
(c) cir-cu-m-stance
(d) circ-um-stance
Answer:
(b) cir-cum-stance

Question 15.
The fear of being in the dark is known as…………
(a) Nyctophobia
(b) Topophobia
(c) Chronophobia
(d) Acronymania
Answer:
(a) Nyctophobia

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Aijun saw the train moving ……….. the lady with a cell phone on the track.
(a) for
(b) beneath
(c) towards
(d) from
Answer:
(c) towards

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
I haven’t answered your questions, ……….. ?
(d) haven’t I
(b) have I
(c) will I
(d) shan’t I
Answer:
(b) have I

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
John is jobless at the moment so I don’t think he can afford to come on holiday with us.
(a) firing
(b) hiring
(c) after jobs
(d) between jobs
Answer:
(d) between jobs

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Monisha takes after her dad.
(a) follows
(b) receives
(c) resembles
(d) remembers
Answer:
(c) resembles

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
This is the stream ……….. was contaminated with plastics.
(a) which
(b) that
(c) what
(d) whose
Answer:
(a) which

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Cocktail face with all their conforming smiles
Like a fixed portrait smile”
(a) What is meant by ‘conforming smiles’?
(b) Mention the figure of speech employed in the first line.
Answer:
(a) The conforming smile symbolizes the artificial and stiff smile meant only for appearances or occasions.
(b) Metaphor

Question 22.
“I am just glad as glad can be
That I am not them, that they are not me.
With all my heart I do admire
Athletes who sweat for fun or hire”
(a) Who does he admire? Why?
(b) Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
(a) The poet admires athletes who play games and sweat for fun and money.
(b) ‘be, me’ and ‘admire, hire’ are the rhyming words.

Question 23.
“He’s outwardly respectable (They say he cheats at cards)
And his footprints are not found in any file of Scotland Yard’s”
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Whose footprints are not found in any file of Scotland Yard’s?
Answer:
(a) The poem is ‘Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ written by T.S. Eliot.
(b) Macavity’s footprints are not found in any file of Scotland Yard’s.

Question 24.
“Let’s choose executors and talk of wills.
And yet not so – for what can we bequeath
Save our deposed bodies to the ground?”
(a) What do you mean by ‘deposed bodies’?
(b) Why should they choose executors and talk about the wills?
Answer:
(a) It means dead bodies.
(b) As the king’s death is nearing the king wants to talk about executors and wills.

Question 25.
“Our pride springs from the way we live.”
(a) Under normal circumstances what makes one feel proud?
(b) What is unique about the pride mentioned above?
Answer:
(а) One’s material wealth, high social standing and popularity makes one feel proud.
(b) The sense of pride springs from the way the people live their lives and not from positions or possessions.

Question 26.
“And much it grieved my heart to think
What Man has made of Man.”
(а) What grieves the poet?
(b) What is the significance of the second line?
Answer:
(a) Man’s greed to exploit natural resources and man’s moving away from nature gives ‘grief’ to the poet.
(b) The poet is unhappy with unnatural aspects of industrial revolution, the misery caused by wars, greedy and aggressive behaviour causing suffering in humans.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Paul : Do you know that Mrs. Kalpana was awarded the Best Teacher Trophy this year by the Rotary club?
Shanmugam : Is that so? I am glad. She is a deserving teacher.
Answer:
Paul asked Shanmugam if he knew that Mrs. Kalpana was awarded the Best Teacher Trophy that year by the Rotary club. Shanmugam enquired if that was so and that he was glad about it as she was a deserving teacher.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
He buys a portrait.
Answer:
A portrait is bought by him.

Question 29.
Priya did not start early. She was late to school. (Combine using ‘If’)
Answer:
If Priya had started early she wouldn’t have been late to school.

Question 30.
Convert the following complex sentence into a simple sentence.
This is the place where the meeting will be held.
Answer:
This is the venue of the meeting.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
There was a time indeed.
They used to shake hands with their hearts
But that’s gone, son
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet speaks about the falsity concealed behind smiles and the lack of innocence of childhood.

Explanation: The poet, Okara observes a marked change in the altitude of Africans. Those who were once so genuine, warm and sincere, have now suddenly turned cold and hostile towards him. He realizes that the early values like sincerity, good-naturedness, simplicity, whole-heartedness, hospitality, friendliness, originality and uniqueness have now drastically changed. The earlier warmth has gone.

Question 32.
We are proud of the position we
Hold; humble as we are
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet admits that he is proud of people’s humble positions because their pride springs not from positions or possessions but the way they live.

Explanation: The poet just doesn’t bother the height of the peak one reaches. It could even be a hillock. Their life knows no bending. What matters is how one reaches that spot. If merit and competence have paved the way for their success and positions, however humble they are, the poet admires them.

Question 33.
“For God’s sake let us sit upon the ground
And tell sad stories of the death of kings:”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “The Hollow Crown” by William Shakespeare. The poem is an excerpt from the play “Richard II”.

Context: This poem speaks of the vanity of life and how Death is the ultimate conqueror.

Explanation: King Richard started feeling distressed about his impending death. He realises his possessions will be reduced to a patch of land. His will bequeathing his wealth to his son will be treated like dust. He recalls how kings get slain in battlefield and cries on losing his belongings. The king feels he is also an ordinary mortal deceived by the jester ‘death’. He also needs to taste grief and needs the support of friends during distress.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What was Mary Kom’s first impression about America?
Answer:
America was cold and beautiful. What little she saw was very pleasing to her eyes. Americans were enormously nice too. She felt that this would be the place and event that would change her life.

Question 35.
What is the difference between a physical and mental tight corner?
Answer:
Physical tight comers are those situations which threaten the life of An individual. Mental tight comers are worries for which no solution is in sight. It upsets the individuals and confounds them.

Question 36.
How does Arignar Anna highlight the duties and responsibilities of graduates to the society?
Answer:
The graduates must acquire the means of a decent living. But it should be the only objective. As their education is funded by the tax from poor people, they have on obligation to pay back to the society if not in cash in terms of service. They must bring light into the dark alleys, sunshine into dingy places, solace into the affiliated hope unto the despondent and a new life into every one.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow:

Questions.

1. What percent of body weight constitutes of skin?
2. Forty percent of the body weight constitutes of ………..
3. Bones take up ……… percent of the body weight.

Answer:

1. Ten percent of the body weight constitutes of skin.
2. Hormones and enzymes
3. Twenty

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between a two friends.
Answer:
Mani : What’s wrong, Tarun? You look terrible!
Tarun : My car slid into a tree, because the roads were slippery.
Mani : Slippery roads and speed don’t mix Tarun. You should be careful.
Tarun : 1 know. But I have one more problem. I didn’t have my driver’s license with me.
Mani : Why were you driving without your license?
Tarun : Well, 1 lost my wallet some days ago, while I was travelling in the bus to work.

Question 39.
Describe the process of Assembling a piece of furniture.
Answer:

1. Arrange the pieces of furniture to be assembled on the floor neatly.
2. Follow the instructions given in the manual.
3. Take inventory of all of the parts and pieces of your new furniture before you start building it.
4. Keep aside the tools you required to fix the furniture.
5. Reread all instructions and double check your handiwork before you proceed to the next step in the instruction manual.
6. Screw in all the parts as seen in the manual tightly. Check for any loose contacts.
7. Many furniture companies have videos and FAQ’s on their sites that are useful.
8. Now the furniture is ready for use.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(a) Appearances can be ……….. (funny, deceptive, tricky)
(b) Better ……….. than never, (late, soon, forget)
(c) Don’t ………. the hand that feeds you. (admire, thank, bite)
Answer:
(a) deceptive
(b) late
(c) bite

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
“….But, when it’s my own – well, I think hysterics are fully justified’ – How?
Answer:
The author had planned to go to England with all his family members. He arrived at the Logan airport at Boston. When they were checking in, he suddenly remembered that he forgot to use his frequent flier card (British Airways). He also remembered how he had left it in a bag. He tried to open the bag. The zip was jammed. He tried to open it by force. After several attempts, it gave away spilling all the contents in a sprawling corridor in the airport. He ignored the flying documents, silver coins and even passport.

He worried about the tobacco box which was rolling away crazily disgorging its content on the way. He cried “My Tobacco” remembering how expensive it would be to buy tobacco for his pipe in England. Just then he realized that he was bleeding profusely. He had made a gash on his finger while trying to open the zip of his bag by force. He cried hysterically on seeing his own blood, “My finger” My finger”. In general, he was not comfortable flowing other’s blood. But when it came to spilling his own blood “hysterics” was really justified.

[OR]

How do Universities mould students apart from imparting academic education to them?
Answer:
Universities mould students by providing various opportunities to develop their soft skills and to develop values which would contribute to the process of nation building. They enable graduates to develop patience and perseverance. They help them develop faith in their own inherent ability to shoulder responsibilities. They are oriented to become citizens of democracy and repay to the society quality services which would reform the lives of the poor people.

They develop true spirit of democracy among young graduates. They enable appreciation of others point of view. The graduates are also provided opportunities to adjust with difference through amicable discussions. The universities, apart from imparting education mould the students’ character and personality too.

Question 42.
Give reasons to prove that the future generations remember easily the Victor more than the Vanquished with relevant references from King Richard’s speech.
Answer:
Unusually future generations remember victors. But there are rare instances of just rulers falling due to the conspiracy and greed of an aggressor. On such occasions, future generations remember the vanquished. A Shiva devotee king was very generous. His enemies entered his kingdom under the guise of Shiva devotees in saffron clothes and slew the king and captured his kingdom. Alexander, King Richard was a just ruler. He was loved by his subjects and loyal nobles.

He was defeated by his rebellious cousin simply because he wanted to be a king. When Richard was thinking about the welfare of his subjects, Bolingbroke was secretly raising an army to dethrone him. People who are mad after power resort to unjust means. So, British subjects respected and loved the vanquished but were helpless. Defeated Porus had fought so valiantly and wanted to be treated with respect befitting a king. Alexander himself respected him and returned his kingdom and sealed a life time friendship with him. From King Richard’s speech one understands that he was good at heart but in the strategy of war, he was not good.

Like a crooked end of a straight walking stick, a ruler has to have some secret deals with neighbouring countries to be protected during crisis. Bolingbroke turned out to be a more assertive and Shrewd king. But people would remember a just and noble person more even if defeated.

[OR]

When humanity fails to live in harmony with Nature, its effects are felt around the world. Justify.
Answer:
Man, the worst predator, kills for no reason. Man has to protect forests and live in harmony with nature. Instead man is callous. He kills elephants for their tusks, Rhinoceros for their horn, and polar bears for their fur. Huge trees, in Rainforests, which have been protecting lives of many species and insects, are being felled for timber and industrialization. Due to the increase in the denudation of forests, global warming has increased. Water levels in the ocean is increasing.

Heat waves are threatening the lives of people. Polar ice is melting. Scientists fear that if this persists, there will be hostility caused by water-sharing. Like Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, there will be political unrest and community conflicts demanding share in drinking water and water for irrigation purposes. In South Africa, zero water day is fast approaching. The scarcity of portable water is going to be a huge humanitarian crisis. As we have failed to protect the national resources, carbon foot print is expanding to alarming levels.

Delhi experiences difficulty as planes struggle to land or take off dufe to thick smog in and around Delhi. As toxic waste is released by Sterlyte and other industries people in Thoothukudi are becoming victims of cancer and other lung related disorders. Atomic power plants also retain potential hazards like radio-activity. Thus humanity’s failure to live in harmony with nature is threatening to wipe out human race.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph (150 words) by developing the following hints.
Miss Meadows – upset – remains gloomy – in class – taxes the students – sing sad – the girls sense her change – Basil – She thinks of the letter – called by headmistress – telegram – happy and returns to the class with vigour and good cheer.
Answer:
The Singing Lesson, written by Katherine Mansfield, is all about a surprising d&y of a music teacher’s life. Miss Meadows, a music teacher, receives a letter from her fiance which states quite plainly that Basil, her fiance, isn’t ready to marry her and feels that the marriage would fill him with disgust. Naturally she’s filled with despair, anger and sadness. Her usual calm and cheery demeanor turns gloomy and angry that day and this change doesn’t go unnoticed by her students.

During the lesson she’s rather harsh with her students. She tells them that today they would be practising a lament. Then she tells them that they must feel the despair, the pain and the sorrow in order to perform the piece perfectly. During the lesson she’s informed by another colleague that Basil, her fiance, has sent a telegram for her. Her first thought is that Basil has committed suicide! Yes, you read that right. It’s because the school has a rule; telegram can be sent to the workers during working hours only in case of death or emergency situation. But in the telegram Basil had asked her to ignore the first letter and that he had bought the hat-stand which they had been thinking of lately. In short, the marriage is happening.

The content of the telegram definitely lights up her mood. She returns and continues her class, now practicing a cheerful song, singing with expressions, more loudly and cheerfully than any of her students.

[OR]

Jack and Jill – call their house – a little nest – like birds make their nests – all collected free of cost – Jack and Jill – made their nest – right from villa – bought in instalment – take years to own.
Answer:
The Never Never Nest is a comic one-act play about a young couple who make full use of the buy-now-pay-later system. Jack and Jill were a young married couple who had a small baby. One day Aunt Jane visited them and was surprised to find that even though Jack’s salary was not high, they lived in a beautiful house with all comforts. She began to wonder whether, as a wedding gift she had given them 2000 pounds instead of 20 pounds. Otherwise how did Jack and Jill buy all these things? Then Jane understood that though they had everything, nothing really belonged to them. They bought everything on instalments.

Only a steering wheel of the car, a wheel and two cylinders had been paid for. The total amount to be paid towards instalments was more than their earnings. Aunt Jane was shocked at the way Jack and Jill ran their family. Before she left, she gave ten pounds to Jill and told them to make at least one article completely theirs, using that money. While Jack went with aunt Jane to the bus stop, Jill sent the money to Dr. Martin. Jack came back and said that he wanted to pay .two months instalments on the car using the aunt’s gift. But Jill said that by paying this money to Dr. Martin, their baby would become completely theirs.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
The interior maintenance of a house reflect the personality of the people who live in it. Attractive home furnishings set the stage for pleasant living. A home should have unity within each room and throughout the house. Each room should, harmonize with each other. The colour and styling of each room, particularly, should fit into the colour and styling of the rooms which run out of it. However, furnishings and surroundings expressive of just the right note of restfulness, or elegant simplicity are not often assembled by accident.

Most of the home decorators plan extensively by trying colour schemes, finding ingenious ways to make the best of what you have. They shop around to search out the right purchases at prices you can afford to pay. There is a keen pleasure in striving for the perfect result, and great satisfaction in achieving it.

A successful house and successful rooms will depend upon the proper relationship of each element used in it to the others and to the whole. Therefore, in selecting each piece it is well to consider the background, the usage, the ‘draperies, the floor covering, the upholstering materials, the woods, shapes, colour scheme, and the “feeling” you prefer for the room.

Work and plan to enjoy your house. Limit the expenditures of time, effort and money to the extent of your abilities. Elegance and delicate things may be a drain you can afford only in a limited way. If you can’t afford outside help, select a house and furnishings that require less care. Plan your activities so that tumult and upset are limited to a few rooms-an activity room or a bedroom, or a comer of the dining room.

You’ll get more pleasure out of a house if you have a hobby connected with it – collecting antiques or glass, gardening or indoor flower growing ceramics, art, cooking, decorating, flower arrangements, etc. And you’ll get more satisfaction and a great deal of help from studying household activities.

You can select a pleasing combination of colours from a wallpaper, a fabric, a flower or scene, or even a picture in a magazine. It is a good idea to make up a colour scheme. Let one colour predominate. Limit a colour scheme to two or three colours, with white or gray tones.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 369
No. of words to be written in the summary: 369/3 = 123 ±5
Rough Draft
The maintenance of the house reflects the personality of the people who live in that. So the distinctive decoration is as important as one attire in good clothes. A unity in the home can only be seen if the rooms in the house have a degree of harmony, colour and styling. Furniture is a working strategy for the pleasant living. If there is an expression of oneself then one will have a mental satisfaction every time one enter one’s home.

To attain such satisfaction one need to pore over plants, try colour schemes, window shopping to search the best thing for one’s home. Most of the home decorators plan extensively By trying colour schemes, finding ingenious ways to make the best of what you have. They shop around to search out the right purchases at prices you can afford to pay. There is a keen pleasure in striving for the perfect result, and great satisfaction in achieving it.

Fair Draft
Interior design of One’s Home
The interior furnishings of’ a house reflect the personality of the people who live in it. It is as important as one dresses in good clothes. A unity in the home can only be seen if the rooms in the house have a degree of harmony, colour and styling. Furniture also enhances one’s perception on pleasant living. One will have a mental satisfaction every time one enter one’s home.

To attain such satisfaction one need to plan extensively, try colour schemes, window shopping to search the best thing for one’s home within their budget. Home decorators helps one decide on these matters. One can get more pleasure out of a house if they have a hobby connected with it like collecting antiques, gardening, art, cooking, decorating, flower arrangements, etc.

No. of words in the summary: 129

[OR]

Notes
Title: Interior design of One’s Home
Answer:
Home reflects:

• personality of house-owner
• unity & harmony bet. rooms
• colour & styling sh’d be uniform

Elements of decoration:

• selection of colour schemes
• draperies, rugs, upholstery, woods

Plan to enjoy the House:

• limit time, effort & money
• select furnish’gs which require little care
• hobby connected with house-great pleasure.

Choice of Colours:

• one colour sh’d predominate
• calm colours for restfulness; intense for liveliness
• colours sh’d harmonise with furniture, draperies, carpets

Abbreviations used: bet. – between; sh’d – should; fumish’gs – furnishings;

Question 45.
Read the following advertisement and prepare a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified.
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]
Wanted
Computer Operator – Diploma holder with computer knowledge, fluency in English and good communication skills, Minimum 3 Years Experience.
Apply with your bio-data to : Post Box No : 545
C/o. The Hindu
Trichy- 620001.
Answer:

25.09.XXXX

From
XXXX
YYYY

To
Post box No. 545
C/o The Hindu
Trichy – 620001

Sir,
Sub: Applying for the post of Computer Operator – Reg.
I hereby apply for the post of Computer Operator vacant in your esteemed concern. I have the necessary qualification. My particulars are furnished below for your kind consideration. Bio-data

Name: XXXX
Father’s Name : Mr. R. Karthick
Address: YYYY
Qualification : B.Sc. Computer Science, 1st class, Madurai Kamaraj University
Technical Qualification : Tally, C++, PGDCA
Experience : Seven years of service in Aircel
Age: 28
Languages known : Tamil, English
Joining date : Can join immediately
Reference : My previous employer
Mr. Raj (9876543210)
I look forward to receiving your call letter. I shall offer my services to the best of my superiors’ satisfaction sir.

Yours sincerely
XXXX
Address on the Envelope
To
Post box No. 545
C/o. The Hindu
Trichy-620001

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Cyber safety’.
Answer:
Cyber safety
Every child needs to be taught the basics of cyber safety. All of us are aware of the fact that ‘Blue Whale’ game cost lives of many young ones across the globe. Children who are befriended through social websites reveal personal information unwittingly and are exploited by persons who have access to their personal details. Children must be advised to refrain from sharing things with total strangers. Even adults are exploited through social websites and their budding lives are at stake. So, students must not evince keen interest in making friends with strangers online. If children do not do anything that is shameful to admit to parents, cyber crimes will be reduced to minimum.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) There is nothing much selfish you can do than come to work sick.
(b) Elimination for child labour is undoubtedly one of the biggest challenge of our country.
(c) Today democracy is often assume to be a liberal form of governance.
(d) In the traditional sense prayer means communicating on God Almighty.
(e) Some of them have been converted into museums but libraries.
Answer:
(a) There is nothing more selfish you can do than come to work sick.
(b) Elimination of child labour is undoubtedly one of the biggest challenge of our country.
(c) Today democracy is often assumed to be a liberal form of governance.
(d) In the traditional sense prayer means communicating with God Almighty.
(e) Some of them have been converted into museums and libraries.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) The Police tried ……….. to information from the boot leggar who used to sell ………. liqour. (illicit/ elicit)
(b) All citizens ………. obey the laws of the land. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) We ……….. go grocery shopping, (use semi-modal)
(d) ………. he is rich, he lives in a small house. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) elicit, illicit
(b) must
(c) need to
(d) Although

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) The board has decided to give the shareholders a dividend of 25 percent.
(b) A salaried employee in the highest slab pays income tax at 33.66 percent.
(c) For programming, people use the binary system.
(d) Every plant organ has a definite form and structure and performs certain specific functions.
(e) “My goal is winning a Grand Slam”, says Sania Mirza.
(Botany, Sports, Taxation, Business, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Business
(b) Taxation
(c) Computer
(d) Botany
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Once upon a time a frog croaked in Bingle Bog all the night beginning from dusk to dawn. All the creatures hated his loud and unpleasant voice but still they did not have any other option. The voice came out from the sumac tree where every night the frog sang till morning.

He was so determined and also shameless that neither stones, prayers or sticks nor the insults or complaints could divert him from singing. One night, a nightingale started casting her melody in the moonlight to which both the frog and the other creatures were left dumbstruck. The whole bog remained, rapt and admired her voice and applauded her when she ended. The frog was obviously jealous of his rival and had finally decided to eliminate her.

So, the next night when the nightingale was again preparing to sing, the frog’s croak disturbed her. On being asked about himself by the nightingale he answered that he owned the sumac tree and he had been known for his splendid voice. Also he said that he had written a number of songs for the Bog Trumpet. The nightingale asked him whether he liked her song or not.

The frog said that the song wasn’t bad but too long and it lacked some force. The nightingale was greatly impressed that such a critic had discussed her song. She said that she was happy that the song was her own creation. To this the frog said that she needed a proper training to obtain a strong voice otherwise she would remain a beginner only. He also said that he would train her but would charge some fee.

Now, the nightingale was flushed with confidence and was a huge sensation, attracting animals from miles away and the frog with a great accuracy charged all of them admission fee. The frog began her vocal training despite of the bad and rainy weather where even the nightingale had first refused to sing. But the frog forced her to sing for six hours continuously till she was shivering and her voice had become rough and unclear. But, somehow her neck got clear the next day and she was able to sing again collecting a breathless crowd including rich ladies kings queens etc. To all this, the frog had both sweet and bitter feelings. Sweet because he was earning lots of money and bitter because of jealously as his rival was earning name and fame.

Every day, the frog scolded her to practice even longer finding out her little mistakes like nervousness not laying more trills and frills etc. He reminded her that she still owed him sixty shillings and that’s why the crowd should increase. But the condition of nightingale was getting worse. Her tired and uninspired song could no longer attract the crowd. She could not resist this as she had become used to applause and thus had become miserable too.

The heartless frog scolded her even then calling her a brainless bird. She trembled, puffed up, burst a vein and died. The frog said that he had tried to teach her but she was foolish, nervous and tensed and moreover much prone to influence. Then, once again the frog’s fog horn started blearing unrivalled in the bog.

The moral of the poem is that being inspired and influenced by someone much unknown and strange is indeed a foolish work. The nightingale could have very well, judged that how could the frog with such a harsh voice be music maestro and she had to suffer for her misjudgement. Many people in the human society also try to take advantage of the innocence or ignorance of the people.
Questions.

1. How do you know that the frog was of a determined nature?
2. A bog is a
3. What did the nightingale become?
4. Pick out one word from the passage which means ‘genius’.
5. What is the moral of the story?

Answer:

1. He was so determined and also shameless that neither stones, prayers or sticks nor the insults or complaints could divert him from singing.
2. quagmire.
3. The nightingale became a huge sensation.
4. Maestro’ is the word which means genius.
5. The moral of the story is that being inspired and influenced by someone much unknown and strange is indeed a foolish work.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
A peaceful pallor spread on his face.
(a) paleness
(b) rosiness
(c) ruddy
(d) rejuvenation
Answer:
(a) paleness

Question 2.
It was indeed a sensational bid.
(a) astounded
(b) ordinary
(c) sensitive
(d) exciting
Answer:
(a) astounded

Question 3.
I had a sumptuous meal to sate my hunger.
(a) sadden
(b) suppress
(c) satisfy
(d) struggle
Answer:
(c) satisfy

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
The vessels dropped and scattered all over.
(a) speckled
(b) sprinkled
(c) gathered
(d) grew
Answer:
(c) gathered

Question 5.
There a curious smothering noise from my friend.
(a) suppressed
(b) expressed
(c) smoothened
(d) suffocated
Answer:
(b) expressed

Question 6.
Her face was wrinkled and weird.
(a) smooth
(b) creased
(c) lined
(d) crippled
Answer:
(a) smooth

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “percolate”.
(a) perk
(b) per
(c) perc
(d) colate
Answer:
(a) perk

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “plagiarist”.
(a) A student of bees
(b) One who accumulates; one who collects
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief
(d) One who is tenacious of a strict adherence to official formalities
Answer:
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Beat around the bush’.
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue
(b) Do or say something exactly right
(c) To go to bed
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly
Answer:
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
I’d like to learn taekwondo though it might not be the best option for me.
(a) Japanese language
(b) Chinese preparation
(c) Floor dancing
(d) Kick fist martial art
Answer:
(d) Kick fist martial art

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “goat”.
(a) male
(b) female
(c) scape
(d) major
Answer:
(c) scape

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word, “hero”?
(a) ity
(b) ism
(c) ness
(d) ish
Answer:
(b) ism

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “NSC”.
(a) National Savings Certificate
(b) National Service Certificate
(c) National Savings Career
(d) National Service Certificate
Answer:
(a) National Savings Certificate

Question 14.
The correct syllabification of the word “psychology” is…………..
(a) psych-ol-ogy
(b) psy-chol-ogy
(c) ps-ycho-logy
(d) psy-chol-o-gy
Answer:
(d) psy-chol-o-gy

Question 15.
A craze for establishing banks is known as …………..
(a) Etymology
(b) Stampomania
(c) Eulogomania
(d) bancomania
Answer:
(d) bancomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Ramesh went……….. Tom’s place to settle the bills.
(a) to
(b) on
(c) in
(d) from
Answer:
(a) to

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
He never fails in his duty,………..?
(a) isn’t he
(b) won’t-he
(c) will he
(d) does he
Answer:
(d) does he

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Sagar’s cat had to be killed because it had cancer.
(a) put in
(b) put down
(c) put up
(d) put out
Answer:
(b) put down

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
However hard she tried, she could not figure out the meaning of the proverb.
(a) appreciate
(b) condemn
(c) understand
(d) faint
Answer:
(c) understand

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
The children ……… shouted in the street are not from our school.
(a) which
(b) whose
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(c) who

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“I have learned to wear many faces like dresses”
(а) State the figure of speech in the above line.
(b) Who does the term ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
(a) Simile
(b) 1 refers to the poet, Gabriel Okara.

Question 22.
“ When swollen eye meets gnarled fist
When snaps the knee, and cracks the wrist”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the second line.
(b) Why are the eyes swollen?
Answer:
(a) Onomatopoeia
(b) The eyes are swollen as they were injured by the opponent.

Question 23.
“Or the greenhouse glass is broken, and the trellis past repair
Ay, there’s the wonder of the thing! Macavity’s not there!”
(a) What is a greenhouse and a trellis?
(b) What is a wonder after the greenhouse glass is broken?
Answer:
(a) Greenhouse is a glass building in which plants that need protection from cold weather are grown. Trellis is a framework of light wooden or metal bars used as a support for fruit trees or creeper.
(b) Macavity is to be found nowhere when one finds out that the greenhouse glass is broken.

Question 24.
“Let’s talk of graves, of worms, and epitaphs,
Make dust our paper, and with rainy eyes
Write sorrow on the bosom of the earth.”
(a) What do you understand by rainy eyes?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the first line.
Answer:
(a) Eyes shedding tears is said to be rainy eyes.
(b) Metaphor

Question 25.
“And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there…”
(a) What did the poet notice about the twigs?
(b) What was the poet’s thought about then?
Answer:
(a) The budding twigs spread out their fan to catch the breezy air.
(b) The poet thought the twigs were experiencing the j oy of their contact with the breezy air.

Question 26.
“The height you reach is not that we care;”
(a) How different is the poet’s perception of success?
(b) How does the poet use the word ‘height’?
Answer:
(a) Those who reach great heights in terms of scholarship, wealth and positions are not deemed great. Those who have competence and merit alone are respected.
(b) In terms of mountain climbing, climbing Everest is said to be the highest achievement.
But even scaling a small hillock is an achievement. Every human effort to succeed needs to be appreciated.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Kiran : Will you exchange the defective torch I had bought from you yesterday?
Shopkeeper : Do you have the receipt with you?
Answer:
Kiran asked the shopkeeper if he would exchange the defective torch he had bought from him the day before. The shopkeeper enquired if Kiran had the receipt with him.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
She had already cooked the food.
Answer:
The food had already been cooked by her.

Question 29.
Convert the following complex sentence to a compound sentence.
I called for Arjun who came at once.
Answer:
I called for Aijun and he came at once.

Question 30.
Hurry up. You will miss the flight. (Combine using ‘Unless’)
Answer:
Unless you hurry up, you will miss the flight.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
“Have I not reason to lament What Man has made of Man?”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: Amidst happy nature, William Wordsworth couldn’t help feeling sad. At that occasion, he said these words.

Explanation: The mixed feelings of happiness and sadness is well brought out in these lines. He was inspired by a small woodland grove, a landscape of beauty. He came upon this spot when walking near Alford village. While sensing the blissful mood and happiness of birds, plants, creepers and the murmuring brook, he juxtaposed what humans did to their kind in Napoleonic wars.

Question 32.
“I am just glad as glad can he
That I am not them, that they are not me. ”
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context: While discussing about the athletes he admires, the poet says these words.

Explanation: The poet was a bom spectator. Right from his boyhood, he had seen boys aspire for sports championships. He had wondered at their ability to specialize in horse riding, to play hockey or basketball. He had seen young ones trying to play center in the football or be a tackle or offender in a game like kabaddi. But he has been absolutely glad that he is not them and they are not him.

Question 33.
We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words highlighting the virtues of unsung heroes.

Explanation: The unsung heroes adhere to their ethical principles in life. Even if they have not reached great heights. They consider it their duty and mission to identify deserving people with natural talents and appreciate them.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why was the author left with his grandmother in the village?
Answer:
The author was left with his grandmother in the village because his parents had to go to the city for work.

Question 35.
What difficulty did Mary Kom experience while eating Chinese preparation?
Answer:
Once Mary Kom and her team mates were given chopsticks to eat their food in China. Other friends, asked for spoons and managed. But Mary Kom ended up using both her hands to hold the chopsticks to pick up the food and push it into her mouth. She managed the complex work and satisfied her hunger.

Question 36.
What were the contents of Bryson’s bag?
Answer:
The contents of the bag were frequent flyer card, newspaper cuttings, loose papers, tobacco pipe, magazines, passport, English money and film.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. pillars/there/human life/man/of/woman/and/are/two
2. uppermost/soil layer/is/earth/the/of/the
3. it/palnts/which/supports/food/provide/all/living things/to/planet/on/this

Answer:

1. There are two pillars of human life – man and woman.
2. Soil is the uppermost layer of the earth.
3. It supports plants which provide food to all living things on this planet.

Question 38.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:

1. Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your camp site. Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
2. Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
3. Lay out the poles and assemble them.
4. Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
5. Pull the tent upright.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

1. Scientists Develop Synthetic Cornea.
2. World Leaders Meet at Geneva.
3. ATMs Without Security Guards to Close.

Answer:

1. A newly developed implant made of plastic may soon offer patients the chance to see again as Scientists from Germany have developed synthetic corneas.
2. German Chancellor Angela Merkel and US President Donald Trump will converge upon the snowy Swiss town of Davos this week for the World Economic Forum’s Annual Meeting.
3. The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has requested all ATM’S without proper security to be closed down.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

1. A stitch in ………. saves nine, (tear, time, line)
2. A thing begun is ……….. done, (half, full, not)
3. Beauty is in the ………… of the beholder, (imagination, mind, eye)

Answer:

1. time
2. half
3. eye

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Describe Mary Kom’s personal experiences during her first International Championship match from the time of selection to winning the medal.
Answer:
Mary Kom flew to Pennsylvania, USA to compete under 48 kg World Women’s Boxing Championship in 2001. On landing, she rushed to the sports arena and weighed. She was lucky as she could rest enough to face her opponent the following day. As soon as she won her opponent in the first match, she gained enormous confidence. Her fear of facing new opponents in the ring vanished completely. While her team-mates went on losing one after another, she went on to reach the finals.

She was even hopeful of winning gold. She had defeated Nadia Hokmi of Poland by RSC. She also defeated Jamie Behai of Canada by 21-9. The greatest disadvantage just before finals was that she lost her appetite. She was not accustomed to American food. However hard she tried, she could not eat. She lost her weight. She was just 46 kg before the finals. This cost her, her long cherished dream of gold medal and she lost to Hula Sahin of Turkey 13-5. She won her silver but was very sad. But the biggest thing she took home from Pennsylvania was not the medal but the conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world.

[OR]

Trace the thoughts that went on in the mind of the narrator when picture after picture was put up and sold at the auction.
Answer:
The author was enthusiastically participating in the bid at Christie with very little money on him. He sailed smooth for a long time raising the stakes on many paintings and carefully staying behind other competitors. It was fun watching till he got trapped in a net, set by his own tongue. When one particular painting was offered for 4000 guineas, the bidders maintained an uncomfortable silence when the author heard himself foolishly saying “and fifty”. The auctioneer banged the hammer finalizing the deal in the narrator’s favour.

It was then the narrator realized with alarm that he had no money on him. Suddenly he lost interest in fun- bidding. He started thinking fast for a way out of the tight comer he had created for himself. Many small and big paintings were offered and sold out fast. The Barbizon pictures were selling fast like hot cakes for 2000 to 3000 guineas. The author was running over the names of friends, relatives and even money lenders who might bail him out of the tight comer. He even speculated on the possibility of confessing his poverty to the staff of Christie and request them to put up the picture again for sale. Such a genuine mistake could have been rectified at the early stages of auction.

As he had enthusiastically participated in the bid for many paintings, the auctioneers wouldn’t buy his justification for the “genuine mistake”. As bidders stood in a queue to hand in their cheques/cash to collect their paintings, the narrator stood deliberately at the end. He never felt such a fool or had colder feet all his life.

Question 42.
According to the poet what contributes most to the injuries sustained by the athletes?
Answer:
According to the poet, zealous athletes play so rough that they do not even consider one another’s feelings in their dealings with other players. The players are mostly goaded by prize money or glory from the media’s light on them. They maim each other as they romp. Cracking vertebrae and spines don’t stop the rough players. Most of the players don’t have sportsmanship.

They don’t treat success and failure equally. In order to get the light of fame on their face, they are ready to permanently disable a rival player too. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists. In short, the poet believes the apathy of zealous players and obvious indifference to the pain and debilitating injury contribute most to the injuries sustained by athletes.

[OR]

Explain how ‘Lines Written in Early Spring’ stresses the fact that Nature is meant for Man’s joy and pleasure to be preserved by Man.
Answer:
Nature’s holy plan is to offer joy and peace to all forms of life on earth. He firmly believes that man is meant to spend his days blissfully taking part in the vitality and joy surrounding him. The poet believes that the harmonious, peaceful and happy co-existence of birds, plants, trees and brooks soothes the troubled mind of man. But he remembered the depravity of man which was evident in Napoleonic wars. He was fed up with man’s capacity to destroy innocent lives and property.

The poet is unhappy with unnatural aspects of industrial revolution, the misery caused by wars, greedy and aggressive behaviour causing suffering in humans. Man has lost his sensitivity to listen to the joyful lessons of nature and has gone to the extent of denuding the forest which really sustains life on earth. The poet stands to reason that nature functions on God’s plan but the man changes the holy plan wrecking the natural joy of human life.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
C.V. Burgess-master craftsman-reveals-few names-first patient Joe-wife Emily- surgical room-Emily apprehensive-two children-Dorothea-Dentist hospital becomes play area-snobbish woman-whole play resolves-dramatic irony of patients’ guess- the dentists’ room -opening the tool cabinet-The groaning noise-vexation of Emily- Joe add to the dramatic irony-nurse moves about-feigned seriousness-the fact of the misplacement of key-which adds comic.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a’few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos. The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened.

The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would’be used in dental surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

[OR]

Narrator – wants – photograph – photographer wait for an hour – comments – angry – called on Saturday – proof – Narrator shocked – photograph – not like him – worthless bauble.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins, to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance. It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong.

What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator. How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday. He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made. The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself.

The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Goa is a vibrant, living entity and more than just a geographical sunspot on the western coast of India. Famous for its silver sands and mesmeric sunsets, its recorded history datesback to the 3rd century B.C. It is blessed with marvelous weather, fabulous beaches, picturesque hill-top forts, gracious people and awe inspiring cathedrals. Arombol, 50 km north of Panaji, is a unique beach, which is both rocky and sandy.

It was a sweet water pond right near the seashore that’s very pleasant to bask in. Goa not only has almost 120 km long silver beaches but also offers long, wide and picturesque rivers and scenic lakes. Aqua sports hold great attraction for tourists to Goa. Some of the most popular aqua sports are swift rides on water scooters and speedboats at the Bay of Doha Paula. The best time to visit Goa, the ideal Serene Beach Resort is during the relatively cool winter months between late September and mid-March.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 160
No. of words to be written in the summary: 160/3 = 51 ± 5
Rough Draft
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and eathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

Fair Draft
Goa
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

No. of words in the summary: 67

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Goa
Answer:
Location:
western coast of India

Tourist attraction:
silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals Arombol beach – sweet water pond Aqua sports held at at the Bay of Dona Paula

Best time to visit:
between late September and mid-March

Question 45.
Read the following advertisement and respond to it with a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified:
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]
Wanted:
Applications are invited for the post of a Typist in a reputed school of Madurai. The . candidate must have at least 5 years of experience. The applicant must have a pleasant personality. He/she should be good in English. Attractive salary. Interested candidates should apply to The Principal, AKS International, Indirapuram, Madurai within 10 days with detailed resume.

14th January, 2020

From
Savitha
2, Gandhi street
Madurai
To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai
Respected Sir/Madam,
Sub: Application for the post of a Typist
With reference to your advertisement dated 8th January 2019,1 hereby wish to apply for the post of a typist. I have rich experience and can communicate well with a pleasing personality. If given an opportunity, I will satisfy my superiors to the best of my ability.
Please find enclosed my resume for your kind perusal.

Yours sincerely,
Savitha
Address on the Envelope To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai

Resume:
Name : Savitha Rajeev
Date Of Birth : 8th May, 1991
Marital Status : Married
Husband’s Name : Mr. Rajeev
Address For Communication : Yyy
Contact Number – Mobile: 9988776655
Residence : 22445566
Mother Tongue : Tamil
Language Known : English and Tamil
Educational Background:

Professional Experience:

Hobbies : Photograph, Gardening, Reading, Travelling.
Expected Salary : 27,000/ per month
Salary Drawn : 23,000/ per month
Reference : 1. Mr. Ravi (Manager -no. 9998887777
2. Mrs. Rani (Manager-Raj Enterprises) 9900000222

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to my knowledge.
Station: YYY
Date. 14.01.2020

Savitha
Signature of the Applicant

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Convincing the public not to discriminate against those with AIDS’.
Answer:
Abolish discrimination against those with AIDS
People living with HIV infection and AIDS should have the same basic rights and responsibilities as those which apply to all citizens of the country. They have the same rights to liberty and autonomy, security of the person and to freedom of movement as the rest of the population. No restrictions should be placed on the free movement of HIV-infected people, and they may not be segregated, isolated or quarantined in prisons, schools, hospitals or elsewhere merely because of their HIV-positive status.

Only a sexual relationship without proper precautions will be a risk factor. Therefore they should be accepted whole heartedly without any discrimination. People with HIV infection or AIDS are entitled to the right to make their own decisions about any matter that affects marriage and child-bearing – although counselling about the consequences of their decisions should be provided. Due to the fear of isolation, ignorance, denial, and discrimination, people will allow HIV to develop into AIDS, further decreasing life expectancy, since the body’s immune system function will have been significantly lowered.

Along with family bonds and intimate relationships, a spiritual relationship is also strained. Fear and vulnerability included fear of punishment from God, fear of being discovered as HIV/ AIDS-positive and fear of the future and death. They should be given the love, warmth, psycho-social and emotional support.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There is many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigating the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes is rising.
(e) The opening ceremony for the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracan stadium.
Answer:
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There are many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigate the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes are rising.
(e) The opening ceremony of the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracana stadium.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) They could ……….. untie the ………. (knot / not)
(.b) The world ………….. avoid war in the larger interest of human race. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) Every student …………. respect the national symbols, (use semi-modal)
(d) ……….. you have the hall ticket you can enter the examination hall. (Use a suitable link word).
Answer:
(a) not, knot
(b) should
(c) must
(d) If

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) The flight was cancelled due to fog.
(b) Spicy food can cause acidity in the stomach.
(c) Meena stumbled upon a chance to practice running a race.
(d) The company has recommended a dividend of 75 percent.
(e) The monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
(Sports, Weather, Commerce, Nutrition and Dietetics, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Weather
(b) Nutrition and Dietetics
(c) Sports
(d) Commerce
(e) Computer

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
For millions of people in India, river Ganga is the most sacred river. It is considered as mother and goddess. It is also a lifeline to millions of Indians who live along its course and depend on it for their daily needs. River Ganga is the third largest river in the world by the amount of water that flows through it. It is the longest river in India. The river water of Ganga is used for irrigation, transportation and fishing. The Gangetic plain formed by river Ganga is one of the most fertile lands on earth.

This is why almost 10% of the world population lives here and earns its livelihood. The Ganga, in India is the most worshipped body of water. The irony here is that in spite of being the most worshipped river, it is also the dirtiest one. It carries some metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities. All this has made river Ganga the fifth most polluted river in the world. Another major reason that adds to the Ganga river pollution is the coal based power plants on its banks which burn tons of coal every year and produce tons of fly ash. This ash mixed with domestic waste water is released, in the river.

This bad situation calls for an urgent need to make efforts to reduce pollution and revive river Ganga. To achieve these objectives, Government of India has started a programme named “Namami Ganga Programme”. The main pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness. The importance of the success of ‘Namami Gange Programme’ can be seen through the following lines; “If Ganga dies, India dies. If Ganga thrives, India thrives. No Ganga, No India.”
Questions.

1. For whom is river Ganga a lifeline?
2. For what purpose is the Ganga river water used?
3. Most people in India consider the Gan^a as
4. What are the pollutants that make the river dirty?
5. Write any two pillars of the “Namami Gange”?

Answer:

1. River Ganga is a lifeline for millions of Indians.
2. The Ganga river water used for irrigation, transportation and fishing.
3. Goddess
4. Metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities makes the river dirty.
5. The pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Marginal revenue is the addition made to the …………………….
(a) Total sales
(b) Total revenue
(c) Total production
(d) Total cost
Answer:
(b) Total revenue

Question 2.
Function with single independent variable is known as ………………………
(a) Multivariate Function
(b) Bivariate Function
(c) Univariate Function
(d) Polynomial Function
Answer:
(c) Univariate Function

Question 3.
There is no opportunity cost in ……………………..
(a) Floating cost
(b) Prime cost
(c) Sunk cost
(d) social cost
Answer:
(c) Sunk cost

Question 4.
Density of population is rural areas are ……………………..
(a) Very high
(b) Very low
(c) Moderate
(d) Constant
Answer:
(b) Very low

Question 5.
Amartya Kumara Sen received the Nobel prize in Economics in the year ……………………..
(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 2008
(d) 2010
Answer:
(a) 1998

Question 6.
The transfer of ownership from public sector to private sector is known as ……………………..
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) Nationalization
Answer:
(c) Privatization

Question 7.
The gateway of privatization ………………………..
(a) Denationalization
(b) Disinvestment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 8.
Equilibrium condition of a firm is …………………….
(a) MC = MR
(b) MC > MR
(c) MC < MR
(d) MR = price
Answer:
(a) MC = MR

Question 9.
The reward given for the use of capital ………………………..
(a) Rent
(b) Wage
(c) Interest
(d) Profit
Answer:
(c) Interest

Question 10.
SPIC is located in ……………………
(a) Chennai
(b) Madurai
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Pudukkottai
Answer:
(c) Tuticorin

Question 11.
The advocate of democratic socialism was ……………………..
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) P.C. Mahalanobis
(c) Dr. Rajendra prasad
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 12.
Which is considered as the basic unit for rural areas?
(a) Panchayat
(b) Village
(c) Town
(d) Municipality
Answer:
(b) Village

Question 13.
The objective of the Industrial policy 1956 was ……………………
(a) Develop heavy Industries
(b) Develop agricultural sector only
(c) Develop private sector only
(d) Develop cottage Industries only
Answer:
(a) Develop heavy Industries

Question 14.
The long – run production function is explained by ………………………
(a) Law of demand
(b) Law of supply
(c) Return to scale
(d) Law of variable proportions
Answer:
(c) Return to scale

Question 15.
How many commercial banks were nationalised in 1969?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 14

Question 16.
Expansion of FDI ……………………
(a) Foreign Private Investment
(b) Foreign Portfolio
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) Forex Private Investment
Answer:
(c) Foreign Direct Investment

Question 17.
Thiruvalluvar Economic ideas mainly dealt with ………………………..
(a) Wealth
(b) Poverty is the curse in the society
(c) Agriculture
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
State of rest is a point termed as ………………………….
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Non – Equilibrium
(c) Minimum Point
(d) Maximum Point
Answer:
(a) Equilibrium

Question 19.
An incremental change independent variable with respect to change independent variable is known as ………………………….
(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Variant
(d) Constant
Answer:
(a) Slope

Question 20.
In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks ……………………..
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(c) Third

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define Micro industry?
Answer:

1. Micro, small and medium Enterprises are MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
2. The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel, paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.

Question 22.
Find the average cost function where TC = 60 + 10x + 15x²
Answer:

1. Formula = \(\frac{TC}{x}\)
2. Average cost function = \(\frac{60}{x}\) + \(\frac{10x}{x}\) + \(\frac { 15x^{ 2 } }{ x } \)
3. Average cost = \(\frac{60}{x}\) + 10 + 15x

Question 23.
What is the formula for elasticity of supply if you know the supply function?
Answer:
Elasticity of supply = \(\frac{dq}{dp}\)

Question 24.
Define Marginal product of a factor?
Answer:
It is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed . In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as
Where, MP = ∆TP/∆N
Where, MP = Marginal Product
∆TP = Change in total product
∆N = Change in units of input
It is also expressed as
MP = TP[n] – TP [n – 1]
MP = Marginal product
TP [n] = Total product of employing nth unit of a factor.
TP [n – 1] = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, [n – 1]^th unit of a factor.

Question 25.
Define Rural economy?
Answer:

1. Rural Economics deals with the application of economic principles in understanding and developing rural areas.
2. Rural areas are geographical areas located outside towns and cities.
3. Rural Economy refers to villages and rural community refers to people living in villages.

Question 26.
What are goods?
Answer:
Goods are also called:

1. Products
2. Commodities
3. Things
4. In Economics, the term ‘goods’ implies the term ‘services’.

Question 27.
Mention the types of distribution?
Answer:
Personal Distribution:
Personal Distribution is the distribution of national income among the individuals.

Functional Distribution:
Functional Distribution means the distribution of income among the four factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization for their services in production process.

Question 28.
State the features that distinguish a land tenure system from other system?
Answer:
(I) Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management.

(II) The features that distinguish a land tenure system from the others relate to the following:

• Who owns the land;
• Who cultivate the land;
• Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.

(III) Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence.

Question 29.
What is meant by Sunk cost?
Answer:
A cost incurred in the past and cannot be recovered in future is called as Sunk Cost. This is historical but irrelevant for future business decisions. It is called as sunk because; they are unalterable, unrecoverable and if once invested it should be treated as drowned or disappeared.

Question 30.
Point out the essential features of pure competition?
Answer:

1. Large number of Buyers and sellers.
2. Homogeneous Product and Uniform price.
3. Free Entry and exit.
4. Absence of Transport cost.
5. Perfect mobility of factors of production.
6. Perfect knowledge of the market.
7. No Government Intervention.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Answer:
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India:

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non – food crops among the states in India.

Productivity position of Tamil Nadu in India

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oil seeds and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower and Jowar.

Question 32.
How do you justify the merits of privatization?
Answer:

1. Privatisation is transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from public sector to private sector.
2. Denationalization, disinvestment and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Question 33.
State and explain the elasticity of supply?
Answer:

1. Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
2. It is Mathematically expressed as,

Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply/Proportionate change in price
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ Q_{ S } } \)/\(\frac { \Delta P }{ P } \)
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ \Delta P } \) × \(\frac{P}{Qs}\)
Where Q_s represents the supply, P presents price, ∆ denotes a change.

Question 34.
What are the functions of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Functions of an Entrepreneur:
1. Initiation:
An organizer is the initiator of the business, by considering the situation and availability of resources and planning the entire process of business of production.

2. Innovation:
A successful entrepreneur is always an innovator. He introduces new methods in the production process.

3. Co – ordination:
An organizer applies a particular combination of the factor of production, to start and run the business or production.

4. Control, Direction and Supervision:
An organiser controls so that nothing prevents the organisation from achieving its goal. He directs the factors to get better results and supeiVises for the efficient functioning of all the factors involved in the process of production.

5. Risk – taking and uncertainty – bearing:
There are risk – taking and uncertainty-bearing obstacles. Risks may be insured but uncertainties cannot be insured. They reduce the profit.

Question 35.
List out the kinds of wages?
Answer:
Wages are divided into four types.

1. Nominal Wages or Money Wages:
Nominal wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.

2. Real Wages:
Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services. Hence, real wages are the purchasing power of money wages.

3. Piece Wages:
Wages that are paid on the basis of quantum of work done.

4. Time Wages:
Wages that are paid on the basis of the amount of time that the worker works.

Question 36.
Give short note on Cold Storage?

1. India is the largest producer of fruits and second largest producer of vegetables in the world.
2. Inspite of that per capita availability of fruits and vegetables is quite low because of post – harvest losses which account for about 25% to 30% of production.
3. Besides, quality of a sizable quantity of produce also deteriorates by the time it reaches the consumer.
4. Most of the problems relating to the marketing of fruits and vegetables can be traced to their perishability.
5. Perishability is responsible for high marketing costs, market gluts, price fluctuations and other similar problems.
6. In order to overcome this constraint, the Government of India and the Ministry of Agriculture promulgated an order known as “cold storage order, 1964” under section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act., 1955.

Question 37.
Compare positive economics and normative economics?
Answer:

Positive Economics	Normative Economics
1. An increase in money supply implies a price – rise is an economy.	1. Inflation is better than deflation.
2. As the irrigation facilities and application of chemical fertilizers expand, the production of food grains increases.	2. More production of luxury goods is not good for a less developed country.
3. An increase in the birth rate and a decrease in the death rate reflect the rate of growth of population.	Inequalities in the distribution of wealth and incomes should be reduced.

Question 38.
Describe the development of textile Industry in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India.
2. Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
3. The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35 million people, and thereby contributing 4% of GDP and 35% of gross export earnings.
4. The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
5. From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
6. About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is in Tamil Nadu.
7. The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul and Karur has the majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharastra etc.,
8. Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.,
9. Tirupur known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
10. Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings etc.,) and export hub in India.
11. Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready – mades.

Question 39.
What are the important features of utility?
Answer:
The important features of utility are:

1. Utility is psychological. It depends on the consumer’s mental attitude. For example, a vegetarian derives no utility from mutton.
2. Utility is not equivalent to usefulness. For example, a smoker derives utility from a cigarette; but, his health gets affected.
3. Utility is not the same a pleasure. A sick person derives utility from taking a medicine, but definitely it is not providing pleasure.
4. Utility is personal and relative. An individual obtains varied utility from one and the same good in different situations and places.
5. Utility is the function of the intensity of human want. An individual consumer faces a tendency of diminishing utility.
6. Utility cannot be measured objectively. It is a subjective concept and it cannot be measured numerically.
7. Utility has no ethical or moral significance. For example, a cook derives utility from a knife using which he cuts some vegetables, and a killer wants to stab his enemy by that knife. In economics, a commodity has utility if it satisfies a human want.

Question 40.
Mention the features of SHGs?
Answer:
Major features of SHGs [Self Help Groups]

1. SHG is generally an economically homogeneous group formed through a process of self – selection based upon the affinity of its members.
2. Most SHGs are women’s groups with membership ranging between 10 and 20.
3. SHGs have well – defined rules and by – laws, hold regular meetings and maintain records and savings and credit discipline.
4. SHGs are self managed institutions characterized by participatory and collective decision making.

PART- IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
A firm has the revenue function R = 600q – 0.03q² and the cost function is
C = 150q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced. Find AR, AC, MR and MC?
Answer:
(I) Average Revenue = \(\frac{R}{q}\)
\(\frac { 600q-0.03q^{ 2 } }{ q } \) = \(\frac{600q}{q}\) – \(\frac { 0.03q^{ 2 } }{ q } \)
AR = 600 – 0.03q

(II) Average Cost = \(\frac{C}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q+60000}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q}{q}\) + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)
AC = 150 + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)

(III) Marginal Revenue = \(\frac{dR}{dq}\)
R = 600q – 0.03q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)(2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(IV) Marginal Cost = \(\frac{dC}{dq}\)
C = 150q + 60000
MC = 50

[OR]

(b) What are the steps involved in executing a MS Excel sheet?
Answer:

1. MS – excel is used in data analysis bý using formula.
2. A spread sheet is a large sheet of paper which contains rows and columns.
3. The intersection of rows and columns is termed as cell.
4. MS – Excel 2007 version supports upto I million rows and 16 thousand columns per work sheet.

MS Excel Start From Various Options:

1. Click Start → Program → Micro Soft Excel
2. Double click the MS Excel Icon from thè Desktop

Worksheet:
MS – Excel work sheet is a table like document containing rows and columns with data and formula.

There are four kinds of calculation operators. They are:

1. Arithmetic
2. Comparison
3. Text Concatenation [link together]
4. Reference

MS – Excel helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs, diagrams, area chart, line chart etc.

Question 42 (a).
Illustrate the concept of producer’s equilibrium?
Answer:
Producer equilibrium implies the situation where producer maximizes his output. It is also known as optimum combination of the factors of production. In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with ‘least cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Optimum Combination of Factors implies either:
There is output maximisation for given inputs or there is cost minimisation for the given output.

Conditions for Producer Equilibrium:
The two conditions that are to be fulfilled for the attainment of producer equilibrium are:
The iso – cost line must be tangent to iso – quant curve. At point of tangency, the iso-quant curve must be convex to the origin or MRTSLk must be declining.

[OR]

(b) State the relationship between AC and MC?
Answer:
There is a unique relationship between the AC and MC curves as shown in diagram.

1. When AC is falling, MC lies below AC.
2. When AC becomes constant, MC also becomes equal to it.
3. When AC starts increasing, MC lies above the AC.
4. MC curve always cuts AC at its minimum point from below.

Question 43 (a).
Explain various divisions of Economics?
Answer:
Economics sub divisions are:

(I) Consumption:

• Human wants coming under consumption is the starting point of economic activity.
• In this section the characteristics of human wants based on the behaviour of the consumer, the diminishing marginal utility and consumer’s surplus are dealt with.

(II) Production:

• Production is the process of transformation of inputs into output.
• This division covers the characteristics and role of the factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization.

(III) Exchange:

• Exchange is concerned with price determination in different market forms.
• This division covers trade and commerce.
• Consumption is possible only if the produced commodity is placed in the hands of the consumer.

(IV) Distribution:

• Production is the result of the coordination of factors of production.
• Since a commodity is produced with the efforts of land, labour, capital and organization, the produced wealth has to be distributed among the cooperating factors.
• The reward for factors of production is studied in this division under rent, wages, interest and profit.
• Distribution studies about the pricing of factors of production.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of demand and its exceptions?
Answer:
Definitions:
The Law of Demand says as “the quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price”. – Marshall
“The Law of Demand states that people will buy more at lower price and buy less at ‘ higher prices, other things remaining the same”. – Samuelson

Assumptions of Law of Demand:

1. The income of the consumer remains constant.
2. The taste, habit and preference of the consumer remain the same.
3. The prices of other related goods should not change.
4. There should be no substitutes for the commodity in study.
5. The demand for the commodity must be continuous.
6. There should not be any change in the quality of the commodity.

Given these assumptions, the law of demand operates. If there is change even in one of these assumptions, the law will not operate.

Explanation:
The law of demand explains the relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded of it. This law states that quantity demanded of a commodity expands with a fall in price and contracts with a rise in price.

In other words, a rise in price of a commodity is followed by a contraction demand and a fall in price is followed by extension in demand. Therefore, the law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded of a commodity.

Exceptions to the law of demand:
Normally, the demand curve slopes downwards from left to right. But there are some unusual demand curves which do not obey the law and the reverse occurs. A fall in price brings about a contraction of demand and a rise in price results in an extension of demand. Therefore the demand curve slopes upwards from left to right.

It is known as exceptional demand curve. In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which slopes upwards from left to right. It shows that when price is OP₁, OQ₁, is the demand and when the price rises to OP₂, demand also extends to OQ₂.

Question 44 (a).
How price and output are determined under the perfect competition?
Answer:
Perfect Competition: Firm’s Equilibrium in the Short Run

In the short run, at least a few factors of production are fixed. The firms under Perfect Competition take the price (10) from the industry and start adjusting their quantities produced. For example Q_d = 100 – 5P and Q_s = 5P.

At equilibrium Q_d = Q_s
Therefore 100 – 5P = 5P
100 = 10P; 100/10 = P; Qd = demand
P = 10; P = Price
Qd = 100 – 5(10); Q_s = Supply
100 – 50 = 50
Q_s = 5 (10) = 50
Therefore 50 = 50

This diagram consists of three panels. The equilibrium of an industry is explained in the first panel. The demand and supply forces of all the firms interact and the price is fixed as 10. The equilibrium of an industry is obtained at 50 units of output.

In the second part of the diagram, AC curve is lower than the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved where MC = MR. Its equilibrium quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, ₹ 10 it experiences super normal profit. AC = ₹ 8, AR = ₹ 10.

Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 8 = 400. Therefore, its total profit is 500 – 400 = 100.

In the third part of the diagram, firm’s cost curve is above the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved at point where MR = MC. Its quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, it experiences loss. (AC > AR). Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 12 = 600. Therefore, its total loss is 600 – 500 = 100.

As profit prevails in the market, new firms will enter the industry, thus increasing the supply of the product. This means a decline in the price of the product and increase the cost of production. Thus, the abnormal profit will be wiped out; loss will be incurved. When loss prevails in the market, the existing loss making firms will exit the industry, thus decreasing the supply of the product.

This means a rise in the price of the product and reduction in the cost of production. So the loss will vanish; Profit will emerge. Consequent upon the entry and exit of new firms into the industry, firms always earn ‘normal profit’ in the long run as shown in diagram.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the Loanable funds Theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. The Loanable Funds Theory, also known as the “Neo – Classical Theory,” was developed by Swedish economists like Wicksell, Bertil, Ohlin, Viner, Gunnar Myrdal and others.
2. According to this theory, interest is the price paid for the use of loanable funds.
3. The rate of interest is determined by the equilibrium between demand for and supply of ‘ loanable funds in the credit market.

Demand for loanable funds
The demand for loanable funds depends upon the following:

(I) Demand for Investment [I]

• The most important factor responsible for the loanable funds is the demand for investment.
• Bulk of the demand for loanable funds comes from business firms which borrow money for purchasing capital goods.

(II) Demand for consumption [C]
The demand for loanable funds comes from individuals who borrow money for consumption purposes also.

(III) Demand for Hoarding [H]

• The next demand for loanable funds comes from hoarders. Demand for hoarding money arises because of people’s preference for liquidity, idle cash balances and so on.
• The demand for C, I and H varies inversely with interest rate.

Supply of Loanable funds:
The supply of loanable funds depends upon the following four sources:

1. Savings [S]:
Loanable funds comes from savings. According to this theory, savings may be of two types, namely,

• Savings planned by individuals are called “ex-ante-savings ”.
• The unplanned savings are called ‘ex-post savings”.

2. Bank Credit [BC]:
The bank credit is another source of loanable funds. Commercial banks create credit and supply loanable funds to the investors.

3. Dishoarding [DH]:
Dishoarding means bringing out the hoarded money into use and thus it constitutes a source of supply of loanable funds.

4. Disinvestment: [DI]:
Disinvestment is the opposite of investment. Disinvestment means not providing sufficient funds for depreciation of equipment.

It gives rise to the supply of loanable funds. All the four sources of supply of loanable funds vary directly with the interest rate.

Question 45 (a).
The features of Rural Economy are peculiar’Argue?
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:

(I) Village is an Institution:
The village is a Primary Institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.

Dependence on Agriculture:
The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupation in rural areas.

Life of Rural people:
Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable.

The standards of living of majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization and political mobilization, rural sector is extremely backward and weak.

Population Density:
Population density, measured by number of persons living per sq.km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.

Employment:
There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and under employment in rural areas.

Poverty:
Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing and shelter are not being met.

Indebtedness:
People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non – farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network etc.

Rural Income:
The Income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them.

Dependency:
Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.

Dualism:
Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features like developed and under developed. These characteristics are very common in rural areas. Inequality: The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.

Migration:
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

[OR]

(b) Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table. Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW in 1st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity.

Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work. Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

1. In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
2. The generation of power under various sources is given here.

Hydel Energy:

1. There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
2. The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley etc.,

Solar Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in the table here:
2. Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as pne of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
2. The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 46 (a).
What are the methods of measuring Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
There are three methods of measuring price elasticity of demand.

1. The Percentage method:
e_p = \(\frac { \Delta Q }{ \Delta P } \), \(\frac{P}{Q}\)
It is also known as ratio method, when we measure the ratio as:
e_p = \(\frac { %\Delta Q }{ %\Delta P } \) where,
% ∆Q = Percentage change in demand
% ∆P = Percentage change in price

2. Total Outlay Method:
Marshall suggested that the simplest way to decide whether demand is elastic or inelastic is to examine the change in total outlay of the consumer or total revenue of the firm Total Revenue = (Price × Quantity Sold)
TR = ( P × Q)

Where there is inverse relation between Price and Total Outlay, demand is elastic. Direct relation means inelastic. Elasticity is unity when Total Outlay is constant.

3. Point or Geometrical Elasticity:
When the demand curve is a straight line, it is said to be linear. Graphically, the point elasticity of a linear demand curve is shown by the ratio of the segments of the line to the right and to the left of the particular point.
Lower segment of the demand curve
Point Elasticity =

e_p = \(\frac{L}{U}\)
Where ‘e_p’ stands for point elasticity, ‘L’ stands for the lower segment and ‘U’ for the upper segment.

[OR]

(b) Explain the VKRV Rao’s National Income Methodology and Industrialization?
Answer:
(a) Rao’s National Income Methodology:

1. Rao’s name is remembered for his pioneering work on the enumeration of national income of India.
2. He attempted
   • To develop the national income concepts suited to India and developing countries.
   • To analyze the concepts of investment, saving and the multipliers is an underdeveloped economy.
   • To study the compatibility of the national incomes of Industrialized and underdeveloped countries.
3. Rao’s paper on “Full Employment and Economic Development” was one of the earliest contributions in the field of development towards employment.

(b) Rao’s views on Industrialization:
Rao gave the following reasons for low per capita income and low levels of per capita nutrition in India.

1. Uneconomic holdings with sub-divisions and fragmentation.
2. Low levels of water availability for crops.
3. Excess population pressure on agriculture due to the absence of a large industrial sector.
4. Absence of capital.
5. Absence of autonomy in currency policy, and in general in monetary matters encouraging holding of gold.

Question 47 (a).
Compare and contrast various definitions of economics?
Answer:
1. Adam Smith’s wealth definition:

• Adam Smith [1723 – 1790] in his book “An Inquiry into Nature and Cause of Wealth of Nations” [1776] defines “Economics as the science of wealth”
• He explains how a nation’s wealth is created and increased.
• He considers that the individual in the society wants to promote his own gain and in this process, he is guided and led by an “invisible hand”
• Adam Smith favours the introduction of “division of labour” to increase the quantum of output.
• Severe competition in factories and society helps in bettering the product.
• Supply force is very active and a commodity is made available to the consumers at the lowest price.

2. Alfred Marshall welfare definition: .

• Alfred Marshall [1842-1924] in his book “Principles of Economics” [1890] defines economics thus “Political Economy” or Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life.
• It examines that part of individual and social action which is most closely connected with the attainment and with the use of the material requisites of well being.
• Thus , it is on one side a study of wealth and on the other and more important side, a part of the study of man”.

The important features of Marshall’s definition are:

• Economics does not treat wealth as’the be-all and end-all of economic activities.
• Man promotes primarily welfare and not wealth.
• The science of economics contains the concerns of ordinary people who are moved by love and not merely guided or directed by the desire to get maximum monetary benefit.
• Economics is a social science. It studies people in the society who influence one another.

3. Lionel Robbins – Scarcity definition:

• Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” in 1932.
• According to him, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

The major features of Robbins’ definition:

• Ends refer to human wants, human beings have unlimited number of wants.
• On the other hand, resources or means that go to satisfy the unlimited human wants are limited or scarce in supply.
• The scarce means are capable of having alternative uses.
• An individual grades his wants and satisfies first his most urgent want.
• Economics, according to Robbins, is a science of choice. •

4. Samuelson’s – growth definition:

• Paul Samuelson defines economics as “the study of how men and society choose, with or without the use of money, to employ scarce productive resources which could have alternative uses to produce various. commodities over time, and distribute them for consumption, now and in the future among various people and groups of society”.
  The major implications of this definition are as follows:
• Samuelson’s makes his definition dynamic by including the element of time in it.
• Samuelson’s definition is applicable also in a barter economy.
• His definition covers various aspects like production, distribution and consumption.
• Samuelson treats economics as a social science.
• Samuelson appears to be the most satisfactory.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of Equi – marginal utility?
Answer:
The law of the Equi-marginal utility:

1. The law of diminishing marginal utility is applicable only to the want of a single commodity.
2. The law of equi – marginal utility explains the behavior of a consumer when he consumer more than one commodity.
3. Wants are unlimited but the income which is available are limited.
4. This law explains how the consumer spends his limited income on various commodities to get maximum satisfaction.
5. Law of Equi-Marginal Utility is also known as the law of substitution.
6. “The law of consumer’s equilibrium ”
7. “Gossen’s second law ” and “ The law of maximum satisfaction”.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as, “If a person has a thing which he can put to several uses, he will distribute it among these uses in such a way that it has the same marginal utility in all. For, if it had a greater marginal utility in one use than another he would gain by taking away some of it from the second use and applying it to first”.

Assumption:

1. The consumer is rational in the sense that he wants to get maximum satisfaction.
2. The utility of each commodity is measurable in cardinal numbers.
3. The marginal utility of money remains constant.
4. The income of the consumer is given. ‘
5. There is perfect competition in the market.
6. The prices of the commodities are given.
7. The law of diminishing marginal utility operates.

Illustration:
This law can be illustrated with the help of table. Let us assume that the consumer has a given income of ₹ 11. He wants to spend this entire income [i.e. ₹ 11] on Apple and Orange. The price of an Apple and the price of an orange is ₹ 1 each.

If the consumer wants to attain maximum utility, he should buy 6 units of apples and 5 units of oranges, so that she can get [92 + 58] = 150 units. No other combination of Apple and Orange can give higher than 150 utilities.

Diagrammatic Illustration:
In the diagram, X – axis represents the amount of money spent and Y axis represents the marginal utilities of Apple and Orange respectively.

If the consumer spends ₹ 6 on Apple and ₹ 5 on Orange, the marginal utilities of both are equal, i.e. AA₁ = BB₁ [4 = 4], Hence, he gets maximum utility.

Criticisms:

1. In practice, utility cannot be measured, only be felt.
2. This law cannot be applied to durable goods.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The cost incurred by producing one more unit of output is ……………………. cost.
(a) Variable
(b) Fixed
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 2.
Ordinal utility can be measured by ……………………
(a) Ranking
(b) Numbering
(c) Wording
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Ranking

Question 3.
A production function measures the relation between ……………………..
(a) Input prices and output prices
(b) Input prices and the quantity of output
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output
(d) The quantity of inputs and input prices
Answer:
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output

Question 4.
If average product is decreasing, then marginal product ……………………
(a) Must be greater than average product
(b) Must be less than average product
(c) Must be increasing
(d) Both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(b) Must be less than average product

Question 5.
Price discrimination will always lead to ………………………
(a) Increase in output
(b) Increase in profit
(c) Different prices
(d) (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (b) and (c)

Question 6.
Which of the following is a micro – economics statement?
(a) The real domestic output increased by 2.5 percent last year.
(b) Unemployment was 9.8 percent of the labour force last year.
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand
(d) The general price level increased by 4 percent last year.
Answer:
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand

Question 7.
The marginal productivity theory was developed by ……………………
(a) Clark
(b) Wickseed
(c) Walras
(d) All
Answer:
(c) Walras

Question 8.
The chief exponent of the cardinal utility approach was …………………..
(a) J.R. Hicks
(b) R.G. D. Allen
(c) Marshall
(d) Stigler
Answer:
(c) Marshall

Question 9.
Keynesian Theory of interest is popularly known as ……………………
(a) Abstinence theory
(b) Liquidity preference theory
(c) Loanable funds theory
(d) Agio theory
Answer:
(b) Liquidity preference theory

Question 10.
Total revenue is equal to total output sold multiplied by ………………….
(a) Price
(b) Total cost
(c) Marginal revenue
(d) Marginal cost
Answer:
(a) Price

Question 11.
In which of the following is not a type of market structure price will be very high?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 12.
The Father of Green Revolution in India was ……………………..
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Gandhi
(c) Visweswaraiah
(d) N.R. Viswanathan
Answer:
(a) M.S. Swaminathan

Question 13.
A Statement of equality between two quantities is called ……………………
(a) Inequality
(b) Equality
(c) Equations
(d) Functions
Answer:
(c) Equations

Question 14.
Product obtained from additional factors of production is terms as ………………….
(a) Marginal product
(b) Total product
(c) Average product
(d) Annual product
Answer:
(a) Marginal product

Question 15.
Rent is the reward for the use of ……………………..
(a) Capital
(b) Labour
(c) Land
(d) Organization
Answer:
(c) Land

Question 16.
Revenue received from the sale of additional unit is termed as …………………….. revenue.
(a) Profit
(b) Average
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 17.
Tamil Nadu is rich in ……………………
(a) Forest resource
(b) Human resource
(c) Mineral resource
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
The New foreign trade policy was announced in the year ……………………….
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(a) 2000

Question 19.
The PQLI was developed by ……………………..
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Nehru
(c) Morris
(d) Morrisd.Biswajeet
Answer:
(c) Morris

Question 20.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks ……………………….
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
Answer:
(a) Third

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of privatization?
Answer:
Privatization means transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from public sector to private sector.

Question 22.
What are the reasons for upward sloping supply curve?
Answer:

1. A supply curve represents the data given in the supply schedule. As the price of the commodity increases, the quantum supplied of the commodity also increases. Thus the supply curve has a positive slope from left to right.
2. The quantum supplied of commodity x is represented on X axis. And the price of the commodity is represented on the Y axis. The points such as e, d, c, b and a on the supply curve SS’, represent various quantities at different prices.

Question 23.
Give a short note on Sen’s “choice of Technique”?
Answer:
Sen’s “Choice of Technique” was a research work where he argued that in a labour surplus economy; generation of employment cannot be increased at the initial stage by the adaptation of capital – intensive technique.

Question 24.
What are major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Thoothukudi as well as one intermediate port in Nagpattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
3. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 25.
Define cost function?
Answer:
The function relationship between cost and output is expressed as ‘Cost Function’.
A Cost Function may be written as
C = f(Q)
Eg. TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12
Where, C = Cost and Q = Quantity of output. Cost functions are derived functions because they are derived from Production Functions.

Question 26.
What are the main menus of MS word?
Answer:

Where, C = Cost and Q = Quantity of output. Cost functions are derived functions because they are derived from Production Functions.

Question 27.
If 62 = 34 + 4 x what is x?
Answer:
62 – 34 = 4x ⇒ 28 = 4x
28 ÷ 5 – 4 = 1x
∴ x = 7

Question 28.
Define‘Rent’?
Answer:
Rent is the price or reward given for the use of land or house or a machine to the owner. But, in Economics, “Rent” or “Economic Rent” refers to that part of payment made by a tenant to his land lords for the use of land only.

Question 29.
What are conditions for producer’s equilibrium?
Answer:

1. Producer equilibrium implies the situation where producer maximizes his output.
2. It is also known as optimum combination of the factors of production.
3. In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with ‘least cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Question 30.
Write three policy initiative introduced in 1991 – 92 to correct the fiscal imbalance?
Answer:
The important policy initiatives introduced in the budget for the year 1991 – 92 for correcting the fiscal imbalance were:

1. Reduction in fertilizer subsidy.
2. Abolition of subsidy on sugar.
3. Disinvestment of a part of the government’s equity holdings in select public sector undertakings.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Describe the performance of Tamil Nadu economy in health?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has a three – tier health infrastructure comprising hospitals, primary health centres, health units, community health centres and sub – centres.
2. As of March 2015, the State had 34 district hospitals, 229 sub – divisional hospitals, 1,254 primary health centres, 7,555 sub – centres and 313 community health centres.

Question 32.
Explain the difference between internal and external economies?
Answer:

Internal Economies of Scale	External Economies of Scale
1. Expansion of the firm itself.	1. Expansion of the industry.
2. Lower long run average cost.	2. Benefits most all firms.
3. Efficiencies from larger scale production.	3. Agglomeration economies are important.
4. Range of economies (e.g.,) Technical and Financial.	4. Helps to explain the rapid growth of many cities.

Question 33.
State and explain the elasticity of supply?
Answer:

1. Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
2. It is Mathematically expressed as,

Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply / Proportionate change in price
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ Qs } \)/\(\frac { \Delta P }{ P } \)
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ \Delta P } \) × \(\frac { P }{ Q_{ S } } \)
Where Q_s represents the supply, P represents price, ∆ denotes a change.

Question 34.
Write a note on mineral resources in TamilNadu?
Answer:
Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in iron ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri, and is the only source in the country.

Question 35.
What are the motives of demand for money?
Answer:
Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preference. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive :

• The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions.
• The amount saved under this motive depends on the level of income. M_t = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive:

• The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire and theft.
• The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of income. M_p – f(r)

3. The Speculative Motive:
The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. The amount saved for this motive depends on the rate of interest.

M_S = f(i). There is inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Question 36.
State Ambedkar’s Economic Ideas on agricultural economics?
Answer:
In the 1918, Ambedkar published a paper “Small Holding in India and their Remedies”. Citing Adam Smith’s “Wealth of Nations”, he made a fine distinction between “Consolidation of Holdings” and Enlargement of Holdings”.

Question 37.
What are the functions of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Functions of an Entrepreneur:

1. Initiation: An organizer is the initiator of the business, by considering the situation and availability of resources and planning the entire process of business of production.
2. Innovation: A successful entrepreneur is always an innovator. He introduces new methods in the production process.
3. Co – ordination: An organizer applies a particular combination of the factor of production to start and run the business or production.
4. Control, Direction and Supervision: An organiser controls so that nothing prevents the organisation from achieving its goal. He directs the factors to get better results and supervises for the efficient functioning of all the factors involved in the process of production.
5. Risk – taking and uncertainty – bearing: There are risk – taking and uncertainty-bearing obstacles. Risks may be insured but uncertainties cannot be insured. They reduce the profit.

Question 38.
Explain GSDP in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
2. Tamil nadu is the second largest economy in India with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016 – 2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.
3. The GSDP of Tamil Nadu is equal to the GDP of Kuwait on nominal term and GDP of UAE on PPP terms. Per capita GSDP would be better for intercountry or interstate comparisons.
4. Tamil Nadu GSDP = $207.8 billion in 2016 – 17.

Question 39.
Briefly explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium?
Answer:
The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve. T is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC3 the upper IC which implies maximum possible level of satisfaction.

At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_XY and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to ratio of price of X to price of Y i.e. P_x / P_y . Therefore MRS_x,y = P_x / P_y.

Question 40.
List out the kinds of wages:
Answer:
Wages are divided into four types.

1. Nominal Wages or Money Wages: Nominal wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.
2. Real Wages: Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services. Hence, real wages are the purchasing power of money wages.
3. Piece Wages: Wages that are paid on the basis of quantum of work done.
4. Time Wages: Wages that are paid on the basis of the amount of time that the worker works.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas?
Answer:
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. Gandhi wrote “ Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore , Sinful”. Gandhi repeated the same belief “ that economy is untrue which ignores or disregards moral values”.

Salient features of Gandhian Economic Thought:

(I) Village Republics:

• India lives in villages.
• He was interested in developing the villages as self – sufficient units.
• He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

(II) On Machinery:

• Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils”.
• It is necessary to realize that machinery is bad.
• Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil.
• It would ultimately cease.

(III) Industrialism:

• Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind.
• He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

(IV) Decentralization:
Gandhi advocated a decentralized economy i. e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

(V) Village Sarvodaya:

• According to Gandhi, “ Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities”.
• He suggested, self – dependent villages.

(VI) Bread Labour:

• Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour.
• He believed that God created man to eat his bread by the sweat of his brow.
• Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

(VII) The Doctrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one.

(VIII) On the Food Problem:

• Gandhi was against any sort of food controls.
• Once India was begging for food grain, but now India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

(IX) On Population:

• Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
• He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self – control.
• He considered self – control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of Over population.

(X) On Prohibition:

• Gandhi regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice.
• He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards.
• Many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

[OR]

(b) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:

(I) Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(II) Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

(III) Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

(IV) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

Question 42 (a).
Explain various divisions of Economics?
Answer:
Economics sub divisions are:

(I) Consumption:

• Human wants coming under consumption is the starting point of economic activity.
• In this section the characteristics of human wants based on the behaviour of the consumer, the diminishing marginal utility and consumer’s surplus are dealt with.

(II) Production:

• Production is the process of transformation of inputs into output.
• This division covers the characteristics and role of the factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization.

(III) Exchange:

• Exchange is concerned with price determination in different market forms.
• This division covers trade and commerce.
• Consumption is possible only if the produced commodity is placed in the hands of the consumer.

(IV) Distribution:

• Production is the result of the coordination of factors of production.
• Since a commodity is produced with the efforts of land, labour, capital and organization, the produced wealth has to be distributed among the cooperating factors.
• The reward for factors of production is studied in this division under rent, wages, interest and profit.
• Distribution studies about the pricing of factors of production.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of demand and its exceptions?
Answer:
Definitions:
The Law of Demand says as “the quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price”. – Marshall
“The Law of Demand states that people will buy more at lower price and buy less at higher prices, other things remaining the same”. – Samuelson Assumptions of Law of Demand:

1. The income of the consumer remains constant.
2. The taste, habit and preference of the consumer remain the same.
3. The prices of other related goods should not change.
4. There should be no substitutes for the commodity in study.
5. The demand for the commodity must be continuous.
6. There should not be any change in the quality of the commodity.

Given these assumptions, the law of demand operates. If there is change even in one of these assumptions, the law will not operate.

Explanation:
The law of demand explains the relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded of it. This law states that quantity demanded of a commodity expands with a fall in price and contracts with a rise in price.

In other words, a rise in price of a commodity is followed by a contraction demand and a fall in price is followed by extension in demand. Therefore, the law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded of a commodity.

Exceptions to the law of demand:
Normally, the demand curve slopes downwards from left to right. But there are some unusual demand curves which do not obey the law and the reverse occurs.

A fall in price brings about a contraction of demand and a rise in price results in an extension of demand. Therefore the demand curve slopes upwards from left to right. It is known as exceptional demand curve.

In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which slopes upwards from left to right. It shows that when price is OP₁,, OQ₁, is the demand and when the price rises to OP₂, demand also extends to OQ₂.

Question 43 (a).
Describe the degree of price discrimination?
Answer:
Degrees of Price Discrimination:
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C.Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

(I) First degree price discrimination:
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called as perfect price discrimination. This price wipes out the entire consumer’s surplus. This is maximum exploitation of consumers. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

(II) Second degree price discrimination:
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called as imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. For example, in cinema theatres, prices are charged for same film show from viewers of different classes. In a theatre the difference between the first row of first class and the last row in the second class is smaller as compared to the differences in charges.

(III) Third degree price discrimination:
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub – market and charges different price in each sub – market. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex and location. For example, railways charge lower fares from senior citizens. Students get discounts in museums, and exhibitions.

[OR]

(b) Write a short note on Total Revenue?
Answer:
Total revenue is the amount of income received by the firm from the sale of its products. It is obtained by multiplying the price of the commodity by the number of units sold.

where, TR denotes Total Revenue, P denotes Price and Q denotes Quantity sold.
For example, a cell – phone company sold 100 cell – phones at the price of ₹500 each.
TR is ₹50,000. (TR = 500 × 100 = 50,000).

When price is constant, the behaviour of TR is shown in the above table and diagram, assuming P = 5. When P = 5; TR = PQ

When price is declining with increase in quantity sold. (Eg. Imperfect Competition on the goods market) the behaviour of TR is shown in the following table and diagram. TR can be obtained from Demand fuction: If Q = 11 – P,
When P = 1, Q = 10

TR = PQ = 1 × 10 = 10
When P = 3, Q = 8, TR = 24
When P = 0, Q = 1, TR = 10

Question 44 (a).
Discuss the problems of Rural Economy?
Answer:
Rural areas are facing number of problems relating to,

1. People
2. Agriculture
3. Infrastructure
4. Economy
5. Society and Culture
6. Leadership and
7. Administration.

(I) People Related Problems:
The problems related to individuals and their standard of living consist of illiteracy, lack of technical know how, low level of confidence, dependence on sentiments and beliefs etc.

(II) Agriculture Related Problems:
The problems related to agriculture include as follows,

• Lack of expected awareness, knowledge, skill and attitude.
• Unavailability of inputs.
• Poor marketing facility.

(III) Infrastructural Related problems:
Poor infrastructure facilities like, water, electricity, transport, educational institutions, communication, health, employment, storage facility, banking and insurance are found in rural areas.

(IV) Economics related problems:
The economic problems related to rural areas are,

• Inability to adopt high cost technology
• High cost of inputs
• Under privileged rural industries.
• Low income
• Indebtedness
• Existence of inequality in land holdings and assets

(V) Leadership Related Problems:
The Specific leadership related problems found in rural areas are:

• Leadership among the hands of inactive and incompetent people
• Self – interest of leaders
• Biased political will
• Less bargaining power
• Negation skills and dominance of political leaders

(VI) Administrative Problems:
The rural administrative problems are,

• Political interference
• Lack of motivation and interest
• Low wages in villages
• Improper utilization of budget
• Absence of monitoring
• Implementation of rural development programme.

[OR]

(b) Mention the causes for Rural poverty?
Answer:
Causes for Rural Poverty:
1. Unequal distribution of Land:
The distribution of land is highly skewed in rural areas. Therefore, majority of rural people work as hired labour to support their families.

2. Lack of Non – Farm Employment:
Non – farm employment opportunities do not match the increasing labour force. The excess supply of labour in rural areas reduces the wages and increases the incidence of poverty.

3. Lack of public sector Investment:
The root cause of rural poverty in our country is lack of public sector investment on human resource development.

4. Inflation:
Steady increase in prices affects the purchasing power of the rural poor leading to rural poverty.

5. Low productivity:
Low productivity of rural labour and farm activities is a cause as well as the effect of poverty.

6. Unequal Benefit of Growth:
Major gains of economic development are enjoyed by the urban rich people leading to concentration of wealth. Due to defective economic structure and policies, gains of growth are not reaching the poor and the contributions of poor people are not accounted properly.

7. Low Rate of Economic Growth:
The rate of growth of India is always below the target and it has benefited the rich. The poor are always denied of the benefits of the achieved growth and development of the country.

8. More Emphasis on Large Industries:
Huge investment in large industries catering to the needs of middle and upper classes in urban areas are made in India. Such industries are capital-intensive and do not generate more employment opportunities. Therefore, poor are not in a position to get employed and to come out from the poverty in villages.

9. Social evils:
Social evils prevalent in the society like custom, beliefs, etc., increase unproductive expenditure.

Question 45 (a).
Bring out the relationship between TR, AR, MR and Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
Relationship among TR, AR and MR Curves:
When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue rises, when MR is zero the total revenue becomes maximum. When marginal revenue becomes negative total revenue starts falling. When AR and MR both are falling, then MR falls at a faster rate than AR.

TR, AR, MR and Elasticity of demand:

1. The relationship among AR, MR and elasticity of demand (e) is stated as follows.
   MR = AR (e – 1/e)
2. The relationship between The AR curve and MR curve depends upon the elasticity of AR curve [AR = DD = Price]

• When price elasticity of demand is greater than one, MR is positive and TR is increasing.
• When price elasticity of demand is less than one, MR is negative and TR is decreasing.
• When price elasticity of demand is equal to one, MR is equal to Zero and TR is maximum and constant.

It is to be noted that, the output range of 1 to 5 units, the price elasticity of demand is greater than one according to total outlay method. Hence, TR is increasing and MR is positive.
TR, AR, MR & Elasticity

At the output range of 5 to 6 units, the price elasticity of demand is equal to one. Hence, TR is maximum and MR is equals to zero. At the output range of 6 units to 10 units, the price elasticity of demand is less than unity. Hence, TR is decreasing and MR is negative.

[OR]

(b) Explain the monetary and financial sector reforms?
Answer:
Monetary reforms aimed at doing away with interest rate distortions and rationalizing the structure of lending rates. The new policy tried in many ways to make the banking system more efficient. Some of the measures undertaken were:

(I) Reserve Requirements:

• Reduction in Statutory liquidity ratio [SLR] and the cash reserve ratio [CRR] were the recommendations by the Narasimham Committee Report, 1991.
• It was proposed to cut down the SLR from 38.5 percent to 25 percent within a time span of three years.

(II) Interest Rate Liberalisation:
RBI controlled:

• The interest rates payable on deposits. The interest rate which could be charged for bank loans.
• Greater competition among public sector, private sector and foreign banks and elimination of administrative constraints.
• Liberalisation of bank branch licensing policy in order to rationalize the existing branch network.
• Banks were given freedom to relocate branches and open specialized branches.
• Guidelines for opening new private sector banks.
• New accounting norms regarding classification of. assets and provisions of bad debt were introduced in tune with the Narasimham Committee Report.

Question 46 (a).
Examine the law of variable proportions with the help of a diagram?
Answer:
The law states that if all other factors are fixed and one input is varied in the short run, the total output will increase at an increasing rate at first instance^ be constant at a point and then eventually decrease. Marginal product will become negative at last.

According to G.Stigler, “As equal increments of one input are added, the inputs of other productive services being held constant, beyond a certain point, the resulting increments of product will decrease, i.e., the marginal product will diminish”.

Assumptions:
The Law of Variable Proportions is based on the following assumptions.

• Only one factor is variable while others are held constant.
• All units of the variable factor are homogeneous.
• The product is measured in physical units.
• There is no change in the state of technology.
• There is no change in the price of the product.

Total Product (TP)
Total product refers to the total amount of commodity produced by the combination of all inputs in a given period of time.

Summation of marginal products, i.e.
TP = ΣMP
where, TP = Total Product,
MP = Marginal Product

Average Product (AP)
Average Product is the result of the total product divided by the total units of the input employed. In other words, it refers to the output per unit of the input.
Mathematically, AP = TP/N
Where, AP = Average Product
TP = Total Product
N = Total units of inputs employed

Marginal Product (MP)
Marginal Product is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed. In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as
MP = ∆TP/∆N

where,
MP = Marginal Product
∆TP = Change in total product
∆N = Change in units of input It is also expressed as
MP = TP(n) – TP (n – 1)
Where, MP = Marginal Product
TP(n) = Total product of employing n^th unit of a factor.
TP(n – 1) = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, (n – 1)^th unit of a factor.
The Law of Variable Proportions is explained with the help of the following schedule and diagram:

In above table, units of variable factor (labour) are employed along with other fixed factors of production. The table illustrates that there are three stages of production. Though total product increases steadily at first instant, constant at the maximum point and then diminishes, it is always positive forever.

While total product increases, marginal product increases up to a point and then decreases. Total product increases up to the point where the marginal product is zero. When total product tends to diminish marginal product becomes negative.

In diagram, the number of workers is measured on X axis while TP_L, AP_L and MP_L are denoted on Y axis. The diagram explains the three stages of production as given in the above table.

Stage I:
In the first stage MP_L increases up to third labourer and it is higher than the average product, so that total product is increasing at an increasing rate. The tendency of total product to increase at an increasing rate stops at the point A and it begins to increase at a decreasing rate. This point is known as ‘Point of Inflexion’.

Stage II:
In the second stage, MP_L decreases up to sixth unit of labour where MP_L curve intersects the X – axis. At fourth unit of labor MP_L = AP_L. After this, MP_L curve is lower than the AP_L. TP_L increases at a decreasing rate.

Stage III:
Third stage of production shows that the sixth unit of labour is marked by negative MP_L, the AP_L continues to fall but remains positive. After the sixth unit, TP_L declines with the employment of more units of variable factor, labour.

[OR]

(b) What are the types of elasticity of supply?
Answer:
There are five types of elasticity of supply

1. Relatively Elastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elastic supply is greater than 1 [E_S > 1], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes more than one percent change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

2. Unitary Elastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elastic supply is equal to 1 [E_g = 1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an equal [one percent ] change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

3. Relatively Inelastic Supply:
The co-efficient of elasticity is less than one [ES < 1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes and less than one percent change in the quantity supply supplied of the commodity.

4. Perfectly Inelastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elasticity is equal to zero [E_S = 0], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes no change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

5. Perfectly Elastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elasticity of supply is infinity [E_S = 3]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an infinite change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

Question 47 (a).
Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:
(I) Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(II) Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

(III) Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

(IV) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

[OR]

(b) Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Transport:
Tamil Nadu has a well established transportation system that connects all parts of the State. This is partly responsible for the investment in the State.

Tamil Nadu is served by an extensive road network in terms of its spread and quality, providing links between urban centres, agricultural market-places and rural habitations in the countryside. However, there is scope for improvement.

Road Transport:

1. There are 28 national highways in the State covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
2. The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, of which 60,628 km are maintained by Highways Department.

Rail Transport:

1. Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Head quartered at Chennai.
2. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State.
3. Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
4. Chennai has a well – established suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport system and is currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

Air Transport:

1. Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
2. Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India.
3. Other international Airports in Tamil Nadu include Coimbatore International Airports, Madurai International Airport and Tiruchirapalli International Airport.
4. It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.
5. Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement which has been growing at over 18% per year.

Ports:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin, as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. The ports are currently capable of handling over 73 million metric tonnes of cargo annually (24 % share of India).
3. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
4. This is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
5. It is currently being upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,000 vehicles.
6. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Knitted garment production is concentrated in …………………..
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(b) Tiruppur

Question 2.
The recommendation of Narashimham Committee Report was admitted in the year ………………….
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 2000
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 3.
In literacy rate, TN ranks …………………
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Eighth
Answer:
(d) Eighth

Question 4.
The average revenue curve under monopolistic competition will be ………………….
(a) Perfectly inelastic
(b) Perfectly elastic
(c) Relatively
(d) Unitary elastic
Answer:
(c) Relatively

Question 5.
The main theme of the Twelfth Five Year Plan …………………..
(a) Faster and more inclusive growth
(b) Growth with social Justice
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
Answer:
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

Question 6.
The Oldest large scale industry in India …………………
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Steel
(d) Cement
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 7.
The main gold mine region in kamataka is ………………..
(a) Kolar
(b) Ramgiri
(c) Anantpur
(d) Cochin
Answer:
(a) Kolar

Question 8.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for …………………..
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) Getting new slide
(d) Deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) Getting new slide

Question 9.
Theory of distribution is popularly known as ………………………
(a) Theory of product pricing
(b) Theory of factor pricing
(c) Theory of wages
(d) Theory of Interest
Answer:
(b) Theory of factor pricing

Question 10.
Identify the formuld of estimating average cost ………………………
(a) AVC/Q
(b) TC/Q
(c) TVC/Q
(d) AFC/Q
Answer:
(b) TC/Q

Question 11.
The cost per unit of output is denoted by …………………. cost.
(a) Average
(b) Marginal
(c) Variable
(d) Total
Answer:
(a) Average

Question 12.
Revenue received from the sale of additional unit is turned as …………………. revenue.
(a) Profit
(b) Average
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 13.
The Headquarters of Southern Railway is at ……………………
(a) Tiruchirappalli
(b) Chennai
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 14.
Financial sector reforms mainly related to …………………….
(a) Insurance sector
(b) Banking sector
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Transport sector
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

Question 15.
Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in India.
(a) Poverty
(b) High population
(c) High productivity
(d) Full employment
Answer:
(a) Poverty

Question 16.
Differentiation of constant term gives …………………..
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Infinity
(d) Non – infinity
Answer:
(b) Zero

Question 17.
The recommended nutritional intake per person in rural areas …………………
(a) 2100 calories
(b) 2200 calories
(c) 2300 calories
(d) 2400 calories
Answer:
(d) 2400 calories

Question 18.
Perfect competition assumes …………………….
(a) Luxury goods
(b) Producer goods
(c) Differentiated goods
(d) Homogeneous goods
Answer:
(d) Homogeneous goods

Question 19.
The concept of ‘Quasi – Rent’ is associated with ……………………
(a) Ricardo
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) Walker
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Question 20.
In Economics, distribution of income is among the ………………….
(a) Factors of production
(b) Individual
(c) Firms
(d) Traders
Answer:
(a) Factors of production

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of liquidity preference?
Answer:

1. Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
2. “Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an equal amount of cash rather than of claims against other”.

Question 22.
State the various components of central sector schemes under post – harvest measures?
Answer:

1. Mega food parks, Integrated cold chain, Value Addition Preservation, Infrastructure and modernization of slaughter house.
2. Scheme for quality Assurance, Codex Standards, Research and Development and other promotional activities.

Question 23.
What are the nuclear power plants in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Question 24.
Give the meaning of deductive method?
Answer:

1. Deductive method is also named as analytical or abstract method.
2. It consists in deriving conclusions from general truths,
3. It takes few general principles and applies them to draw conclusions.
4. The classical and neo – classical school of economists notably, Ricardo, JS Mill, Malthus Marshall, Pigou applied the deductive method in their economic investigations.

Question 25.
Give a short note on Sen’s ‘Choice of Technique’?
Answer:
Sen’s ‘Choice of Technique’ was a research work where he argued that in a labour surplus economy, generation of employment cannot be increased at the initial stage by the adaptation of capital – intensive technique.

Question 26.
Give the meaning of non – renewable energy?
Answer:
Non – renewable energy sources:

1. The sources of energy which cannot be renewed or re – used are called non – renewable energy sources.
2. Basically these are the energy sources which will get exhausted over a period of time.
3. Some of the examples of this kind of resources are coal, oil, gas etc.

Question 27.
Distinguish goods from services?
Answer:

Goods	Services
1. Free and Economic goods. Ex: air and sunshine	1. Intangible Ex: brand image 1 pen drive
2. Consumer goods. Ex: TV, Furniture, Automobile, etc.	2. Heterogeneous Ex: Music, Consulting physicians etc.
3. Capital goods also called producer goods. Ex: Machines	3. Inseparable from their makers Ex: Labour and Labourer
4. Perishable goods Ex: Fish, Fruits, Flower.	4. Perishable. Ex: A ticket for a cricket match once the match is over.
5. Durable Goods Ex: table, chair.	5.           –

Question 28.
Write the meaning of Economic Growth?
Answer:

1. Economic growth is usually measured by National Income, indicated by cross domestic product. [GDP].
2. The GDP is the total monetary value of the goods and services produced by that country over a specific period of time, usually one year.
3. On the basis of the level of economic development, nations are classified as developed and developing economies.

Question 29.
Name the basic approaches to consumer behaviour?
Answer:
There are two basic approaches, namely:

1. Utility approach

1. The utility approach involves the use of measurable (cardinal) utility to study consumer behaviour.
2. Marshall is the chief exponent of the utility approach to the theory of demand. It is known cardinal utility analysis or marginal utility analysis or marshallian utility analysis.

2. Indifference curve approach
The indifference curve approach was the idea of comparable utility [ordinal utility] J.R. Hicks and R.G.D. Allen introduced the indifference curve approach.

Question 30.
What do you mean by fixed cost?
Answer:

1. Fixed Cost does not change with the change in the quality of output.
2. Fixed Cost is also called as “Supplementary Cost “or Overhead Cost”.
3. All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as Total Fixed Cost.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write the formula of consumers surplus?
Answer:
Consumer’s Surplus = Total utility [Actual price × Units of commodity]
= TU – [P × Q]
20 – [2 × 5] = 20 – 10 =10
Total utility = 20
Actual price = 2
Quantity = 5

Question 32.
Mention any two type of price discrimination?
Answer:

1. Personal: Different prices are charged for different individuals. For example, the railways give tickets at concessional rate to the ‘Senior citizens’ for the same journey.
2. Geographical: Different prices are charged at different places for the same product. For example, a book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign countiy at lower price.

Question 33.
Explain different types of economic activities?
Answer:
The seven types of economic activities are:

1. Micro Economics: Micro Economics is the study of the economic actions of individuals say households, firms or industries.
Micro economics covers:-

1. Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
2. Theory of economic welfare.

2. Macro – Economics:

1. Macro economics is the obverse of micro economics.
2. The general theory of employment, Interest and money published by Keynes is the basis of modem macro economics.

3. International Economics:

1. In the modem world, no country can grow in isolation.
2. Every country is having links with the other countries through foreign capital, investment [foreign direct investment] and international trade.

4. Public Economics:

1. Public finance is concerned with the income or revenue raising and expenditure incurring activities.
2. The scope of public finance covers public expenditure, public revenue, public debt and financial administration.

5. Developmental Economics:
The development economics, deals with features of developed nations, obstacles for development, .economic and non- economic factors influencing development, various growth models and strategies.

6. Health Economics:

1. Health economics is an area of applied economics.
2. It covers health indicators , preventive and curative measures medical research and education, rural health mission, drug price control, neo – natal care, maternity and child health, budgetary allocation for health.

7. Environmental Economics:

1. Depletion of natural resources stock and pollution result from rapid economic development.
2. Environmental economics is a study of inter disciplinary tools for the problems of ecology, economy and environment.

Question 34.
Write a note on Risk – bearing theory of profit?
Answer:

1. Risk bearing theory of profit was propounded by the American economist F.B. Hawley in 1907.
2. According to him, profit is the reward of risk taking in business.
3. Risk taking is an essential function of the entrepreneur and is the basis of profits.
4. It is a well know fact that every business involves some risks.
5. Since the entrepreneur undertakes the risks, he receives profit.
6. If the entrepreneur does not receive the reward, he will not be prepared to undertake the risks.
7. Every entrepreneur products goods in anticipation of demand.
8. It is the profit that induces the entrepreneurs to undertake such risks.

Question 35.
Distinguish between Fixed cost and Variable cost?
Answer:

Fixed Cost	Variable Cost
1. Fixed cost does not change with the change in the quantity of output.	1. Variable cost vary with the level of output.
2. Fixed cost is also called as “Supplementary Cost” or “over head cost”.	2. Variable cost is also called as “ Prime cost”, “Special cost” or Direct cost.
3. For example: Watchman’s wages, Permanent worker’s Salary, machines Insurance Premium deposite for power Licence fee, etc.	3. For example: Temporary workers, cost of raw materials, fuel cost, electricity charges, etc.

Question 36.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

1. Land is a primary factor of production
2. Land is a passive factor of production
3. Land is the free gift of nature
4. Land has no cost of production
5. Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
6. Land is permanent
7. Land is immovable
8. Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
9. Land has alternative uses
10. Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 37.
What are the factors governing elasticity of supply?
Answer:
1. Nature of the commodity:
Durable goods can be stored for a long time. So, the producers can wait until they get a high price. Once they get higher price, larger supply is possible. The elasticity of supply of durable goods is high. But perishables are to be sold immediately. So perishables have low elasticity of supply.

2. Cost of production:
When production is subject to either constant or increasing returns, additional production and therefore increased supply is possible. So elasticity of supply is greater. Under diminishing returns, increase in output leads to high cost. So elasticity of supply is less.

3. Technical condition:
In large scale production with huge capital investment, supply cannot be adjusted easily. So elasticity of supply is lesser. Where capital equipment is less and technology simple, the supply is more elastic.

4. Time factor:
During very short period when supply cannot be adjusted, elasticity of demand is very low. In short period, variable factors can be added and so supply can be adjusted to some extent. So elasticity of supply is more. In long period, even the fixed factors can be added and hence supply is highly elastic.

Question 38.
Mention the similarities between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?
Answer:

Perfect Competition	Monopolistic Competition
1. Large number of buyers and sellers	1. Large number of buyers and many sellers
2. Homogeneous product & uniform price	2. Close substitute commodity
3. Free Entry and exit	3. Free Entry and exit
4. Very small size of market for each firm	4. Small size of market
5. It has no monopoly power	5. Limited power
6. Uniform power (or) low price	6. Moderate power
7. Price policy price taker	7. Low control elasticity of demand
8. Price elasticity – infinite	8. Some control over price depending on consumers brand loyalty

Question 39.
Write any three objectives of Industrial Policy 1991?
Answer:

1. Economic development of a country particularly depends on the process of Industrialisation.
2. At the time of Independence, India inherited a weak and shallow Industrial base.
3. Therefore dining the post-Independence period, the Government of India took special emphasis on the development of a solid Industrial base.

Question 40.
Enumerate the remedial measures to rural poverty?
Answer:
Remedial measures:

1. Since rural unemployment and rural poverty are interrelated, creation of employment opportunities would support elimination of poverty.
2. Poverty alleviation schemes and programmes have been implemented, modified, consolidated, expanded and improved over time.
3. However, unemployment, begging, rag-picking and slumming continues.
4. Unless employment is given to all the people poverty cannot be eliminated.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Explain the objectives of nationalization of commercial banks?
Answer:
The Government of India nationalized the commercial banks to achieve the following objectives:

1. The main objective of nationalization was to attain Social Welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
2. Nationalisation of banks helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
3. In India, nearly 70% of population lived in rural areas. Therefore it was needed to encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
4. Nationalisation of banks was required to reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
5. Before Independence, the numbers of banks were certainly inadequate. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas.
6. Banks created credit facilities mainly to the agriculture sector and its allied activities after nationalization.
   After New Economic Policy 1991, the Indian banking Industry has been facing the new horizons of competitions, efficiency and productivity.

[OR]

(b) Describe the Salient features of EXIM policy [2015 – 2020]?
Answer:
The new EXIM policy has been formulated focusing on increasing in exports Scenario, boosting production and supporting the concepts like Make in India and Digital India.
Salient Features:

1. Reduce export obligations by 25% and give boost to domestic manufacturing supporting the “Make in India” concept.
2. As a step to Digital India concept, online procedure to upload digitally signed document by CA /CS / Cost Accountant are developed and further mobile app for filing tax, stamp duty has been developed.
3. Repeated submission of physical copies of documents available on Exporter Importer Profile is not required.
4. Export obligation period for export items related to defence, military store, aerospace and nuclear energy to be 24 months.
5. EXIM policy 2015 – 2020 is expected to double the share of India in World Trade from present level of 3% by the year 2020. This appears to be too ambitions.

Question 42 (a).
Describe the wastes of monopolistic competition?
Answer:
Wastes of Monopolistic Competition:
Generally there are five kinds of wastages under monopolistic competition.

(I) Idle capacity:

1. Un – utilized capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm.
2. In the long run, a monopolistic firm produces delibourately output which is less than the optimum output that is the output corresponding to the minimum average cost.
3. This leads to excess capacity which is actually as waste in monopolistic competition.

(II) Unemployment:

1. Under monopolistic competition, the firms produce less than optimum output.
2. As a result, the productive capacity is not used to the fullest extent.
3. This will lead to unemployment of human resources also.

(III) Advertisement:

1. There is a lot of waste in competitive advertisements under monopolistic competition.
2. The wasteful and competitive advertisements lead to high cost to consumers.

(IV) Too many varieties of Goods:

• The goods differ in size, shape, style and colour. A reasonable number of varieties would be sufficient.

(v) Inefficient firms:
Under monopolistic competition, inefficient firms charge prices higher than their marginal cost. Efficient firms cannot drive out the inefficient firms.

[OR]

(b) Illustrate the Ricardian Theory of Rent?
Answer:

1. The Classical theory of Rent is called “ Ricardian Theory of Rent.”
2. “ Rent is that portion of the produce of the earth which is paid to the landlord for the use of the original and indestructible powers of the soil” – David Ricardo

Ricardian theory of rent assumes the following:

1. Land differs in fertility.
2. The law of diminishing returns operates in agriculture.
3. Rent depends upon fertility and location of land.
4. Theory assumes perfect competition.
5. It is based on the assumption of long period.
6. There is existence of marginal land or no – rent land.
7. Land has certain “Original and indestructible powers”.
8. Land is used for cultivation only.
9. Most fertile lands are cultivated first.

Question 43 (a).
State the differences between money cost and real cost?
Answer:

Money cost	Real cost
1. Production cost expressed in money terms is called as money cost.	1. Real cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production.
2. Money cost includes the expenditures such as cost of raw materials, payment of wages and salaries, payment of rent, Interest on capital, expenses on fuel and power, expenses on transportation and other types of production related costs.	2. Real cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of. land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers, in foregoing leisure.
3. Money costs are considered as out of pocket expenses.	3. Real cost are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as real cost of production.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Keynesian Theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. Keynes Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest or The monetary Theory of Interest
2. Keynes propounded the Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest in his famous book,
   “ The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money “ in 1936.
3. According to Keynes, interest is purely a monetary phenomenon because the rate of interest is calculated in terms of money.
4. “Interest is the reward for parting with liquidity for a specified period of time”.

Meaning of Liquidity Preference:

1. Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
2. “ Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an amount of cash rather than of claims against others” – Meyer.

Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preferences. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive:
The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions [ or-day-to-day expenses ] M( = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive:

1. The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire and theft.
2. The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of Income Mp = f(y)..

3. The Speculative Motive:

1. The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take
   advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. M – f(i)
2. There is inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Question 44 (a).
Illustrate price and output determination under monopoly?
Answer:
Price & output Determination under Monopoly:
A monopoly is a one firm – industry. Therefore, a firm under monopoly faces a downward sloping demand curve (or AR curve). Since, under monopoly AR falls, as more units of output are sold, the MR lies below the AR curve (MR < AR). The monopolist will continue to sell his product as long as his MR > MC. He attains equilibrium at the level of output when its MC is equal to MR. Beyond this point, the producer will experience loss and hence will stop selling. Let us take the following hypothetical example of Total Revenue Function and Total cost function.

TR = 100Q – 4Q² and
TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12
Therefore AR = 100 – 4Q;
MR = 100 – XQ;
AC = Q² – 18Q + 91 + 12/Q;
MC = 3Q² – 36Q + 91;
When Q = 3,
AR = 100 – 4(3) = 88,
AC = 3² – 8(3) + 91 + 12/3
9 – 54 + 91 + 4 = 50;
MR = 100 – 8(3) = 76;
MC = 3(3)² – 36(3) + 91
= 27 – 108 + 91 = 10

From this diagram, till he sells 3 units output, MR is greater than MC, and when he exceeds this output level, MR is less than MC. The monopoly firm will be in equilibrium at the level of output where MR is equal to MC. The price is 88.

To checkup how much profit the monopolist is making at the equilibrium output, the average revenue curves and the average cost curves are used. At equilibrium level of output is 3; the average revenue is 88 and the average cost is 50. Therefore (88 – 50 = 38) is the profit per unit.
Total profit = (Average Revenue – Average Cost) Total output = (88 – 50) × 3
= 38 × 3 = 114

[OR]

(b) Write a note on Risk – bearing theory of profit?
Answer:

1. Risk bearing theory of profit was propounded by the American economist F.B. Hawley in 1907.
2. According to him, profit is the reward of risk taking in business.
3. Risk taking is an essential function of the entrepreneur and is the basis of profits.
4. It is a well know fact that every business involves some risks.
5. Since the entrepreneur undertakes the risks, he receives profit.
6. If the entrepreneur does not receive the reward, he will not be prepared to undertake the risks.
7. Every entrepreneur products goods in anticipation of demand.
8. It is the profit that induces the entrepreneurs to undertake such risks.

Question 45 (a).
What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in economics? Introduction: Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate?
Answer:
The following table gives an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

Information	Technologies
1. Creation	Personal computers, Digital Camera, Scanner, Smart Phone
2. Processing	Calculator, PC – Personal Computer, Smart Phone
3. Storage	CD, DVD, Pen Drive, Microchip, Cloud
4. Display	PC – Personal computer, TV – Television, Projector, Smart Phone
5. Transmission	Internet, Teleconference, Video, Conferencing, Mobile, Technology, Radio
6. Exchange	E – mail, Cell Phone

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:
They are evaluation in:

1. Computer
2. PC – Personal Computer
3. Micro Processor
4. Internet
5. Wireless links

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for:

1. Data Compiling
2. Editing
3. Manipulating
4. Presenting the results

[OR]

(b) Raja purchased 6 pens and 5 pencils spending ?49, Rani purchased 3 pens and 4 pencils spending ₹42. What is the price of a pen and pencil?
Answer:
\(\begin{bmatrix} 6 & 5 \\ 3 & 4 \end{bmatrix}\) \([\begin{matrix} x_{ 1 } \\ x_{ 2 } \end{matrix}]\) = \([\begin{matrix} 49 \\ 32 \end{matrix}]\) = \(\begin{vmatrix} 6 & 5 \\ 3 & 4 \end{vmatrix}\)
= 24 – 15 = 9
x = \(\begin{vmatrix} 49 & 5 \\ 32 & 4 \end{vmatrix}\) = 196 – 160 = 36
y = \(\begin{vmatrix} 6 & 49 \\ 3 & 32 \end{vmatrix}\) = 192 – 47 = 45
x = \(\frac{36}{9}\) = 4
y = \(\frac{45}{9}\) = 5
The cost of pen = ₹4
The cost of pencil = ₹5

Question 46 (a).
Explain the weakness of Indian Economy?
Answer:
(I) Large Population:

1. India stands second in terms of size of population next to China and our country is likely to overtake China in near future.
2. Population growth rate of India is very high and this is always a hurdle to growth rate.

(II) Inequality and poverty:

1. There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy.
2. The proportion of income and assets owned by top 10% of Indians goes on increasing.
3. Increase in the poverty level in the society and still Below Poverty Line [BPL] a higher percentage of individuals are living.
4. As a result of unequal distribution of the rich becomes richer and poor becomes poorer.

(III) Increasing Prices of Essential Goods:

1. Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods.
2. The continuous rise in prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affects the poor people, whose income is not protected.

(IV) Weak Infrastructure:

1. A gradual improvement in the infrastructural development.
2. There is still a scarcity of the basic infrastructure like power, transport, storage etc.

(V) Inadequate Employment generation:

1. Growing youth population, there is a huge need of the employment opportunities.
2. The growth in production is not accompanied by creation of job.
3. The Indian economy is characterized by “ Jobless growth”.

(VI) Outdated technology:
The level of technology in agriculture and small scale Industries is still outdated and obsolete.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the problems of Rural Economy?
Answer:
Rural areas are facing number of problems relating to,

1. People
2. Agriculture
3. Infrastructure
4. Economy
5. Society and Culture
6. Leadership and
7. Administration.

(I) People Related Problems:
The problems related to individuals and their standard of living consist of illiteracy, lack of technical know how, low level of confidence, dependence on sentiments and beliefs etc.

(II) Agriculture Related Problems:
The problems related to agriculture include as follows,

1. Lack of expected awareness, knowledge, skill and attitude.
2. Unavailability of inputs.
3. Poor marketing facility.

(III) Infrastructural Related problems:
Poor infrastructure facilities like, water, electricity, transport, educational institutions, communication, health, employment, storage facility, banking and insurance are found in rural areas.

(IV) Economics related problems:
The economic problems related to rural areas are,

1. Inability to adopt high cost technology.
2. High cost of inputs.
3. Under privileged rural industries.
4. Low income
5. Indebtedness
6. Existence of inequality in land holdings and assets.

(V) Leadership Related Problems:
The Specific leadership related problems found in rural areas are,

1. Leadership among the hands of inactive and incompetent people
2. Self – interest of leaders
3. Biased political will
4. Less bargaining power
5. Negation skills and dominance of political leaders

(VI) Administrative Problems:
The rural administrative problems are,

1. Political interference
2. Lack of motivation and interest
3. Low wages in villages
4. Improper utilization of budget
5. Absence of monitoring
6. Implementation of rural development programme.

Question 47 (a).
Explain the role of SSIs in Economic development?
Answer:
1. Provide Employment

1. SSIs use labour intensive techniques. Hence, they provide employment opportunities to a large number of people. Thus, they reduce the unemployment problem to a great extent.
2. SSIs provide employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals, people engaged in traditional arts, people in villages and unorganized sectors.
3. The employment-capital ratio is high for the SSIs.

2. Bring Balanced Regional Development

1. SSIs promote decentralized development of industries as most of the SSIs are set up in backward and rural areas.
2. They remove regional disparities by industrializing rural and backward areas and bring balanced regional development.
3. They help to reduce the problems of congestion, slums, sanitation and pollution in cities. They are mostly found in outside city limits.
4. They help in improving the standard of living of people residing in suburban and rural areas in India.
5. The entrepreneurial talent is tapped in different regions and the income is also distributed instead of being concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or business families.

[OR]

(b) Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs?
Answer:

1. The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
2. The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

Major objectives of SEZs:

1. To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
2. To increase shares in Global Export. (International Business)
3. To generate additional economic activity.
4. To create employment opportunities.
5. To develop infrastructure facilities.
6. To exchange technology in the global market.

Main Characteristics of SEZ:

1. Geographically demarked area with physical security.
2. Administrated by single body authority.
3. Streamlined procedures.
4. Having separate custom area.
5. Governed by more liberal economic laws.
6. Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
In the first five year plan, the top priority was given to ………………. sector?
(a) Service
(b) Industrial
(c) Agriculture
(d) Bank
Answer:
(b) Industrial

Question 2.
Which union Territory has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Andaman & Nicobar
Answer:
(b) Pondicherry

Question 3.
Data processing is done by ………………..
(a) PC alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both PC and Calculator
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Both PC and Calculator

Question 4.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks …………………
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
Answer:
(a) Third

Question 5.
Wage is an example for …………. cost of the production.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Marginal
(d) Opportunity
Answer:
(b) Variable

Question 6.
Innovation Theory of profit was given by ………………
(a) Hawley
(b) Schumpeter
(c) Keynes
(d) Knight
Answer:
(b) Schumpeter

Question 7.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
(b) Home textile city – Erode
(c) Steel city – Salem
(d) Pump city – Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Home textile city – Erode

Question 8.
VKRV Rao was a student of ……………
(a) JM Keynes
(b) Colin Clark
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Alfred Marshal
Answer:
(a) JM Keynes

Question 9.
Group equilibrium is analysed in ………………….
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Pure competition
Answer:
(a) Monopolistic competition

Question 10.
………………… have exchange value and their ownership rights can be established and exchanged.
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Markets
(d) Revenue
Answer:
(a) Goods

Question 11.
Which feature is identified with mral areas?
(a) Low population density
(b) High population density
(c) Low natural resources
(d) Low human resources
Answer:
(a) Low population density

Question 12.
The number of births per thousand population is called as ………….
(a) Crude death rate
(b) Mortality rate
(c) Morbidity rate
(d) Crude Birth Rate
Answer:
(d) Crude Birth Rate

Question 13.
“Wages as a sum of money are paid under contract by an employer to a worker for services rendered.” Who said this?
(a) Benham
(b) Marshall
(c) Walker
(d) J. S. Mill
Answer:
(a) Benham

Question 14.
Identify the formula of estimating average variable cost ……………
(a) TC/Q
(b) TVC/Q
(c) TFC/Q
(d) TAC/Q
Answer:
(b) TVC/Q

Question 15.
Data processing is done by …………..
(a) Pc alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both pc and calculator
(d) Penen drive
Answer:
(c) Both pc and calculator

Question 16.
HDI was constructed based on …………..
(a) Life expectancy index
(b) Education index
(c) GDP per capita
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 17.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for ……………….
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) Getting new slide
(d) Deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) Getting new slide

Question 18.
Ryotwari System was initially introduced in ……………….
(a) Kerala
(b) Bengal
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 19.
Loanable funds theory of interest is called ………….
(a) Classical theory
(b) Modern theory
(c) Traditional theory
(d) Neo – classical theory
Answer:
(d) Neo – classical theory

Question 20.
The main theme of the Twelth Five year plan ………………..
(a) Faster and more inclusive, growth
(b) Growth with social justice
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
Answer:
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define disinvestment?
Answer:
Disinvestment means selling of government securities of Public Sector Undertakings [PSUs] to other PSUs or Private Sectors or banks. This process has not been fully implemented.

Question 22.
Give the definition for “Real cost”?
Answer:
Real Cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production. Real Cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers in foregoing leisure. Real cost are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as real cost of production.

Question 23.
Define Labour?
Answer:

1. Labour is the active factor of production.
2. In common parlance, labour means manual labour or unskilled work. But in Economics the term ‘labour’ has a wider meaning.
3. It refers to any work undertaken for securing an income or reward. Such work may be manual or intellectual. For example, the work done by an agricultural worker or a cook dr rickshaw puller or a mason is manual.
4. The work of a doctor or teacher or an engineer is intellectual.
5. In short, labour in economics refers to any type of work performed by a labourer for earning an income.

Question 24.
What is the difference between HDI and PQLI?
Answer:

HDI	PQLI
1. The Inclusion of Income.	1. The exclusion of Income.
2. Both Physical and financial attributes of development	2. Only the physical aspects of life.

Question 25.
Classify the factors of production?
Answer:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital and
4. Organisation

1. Land:
In Economics, land means all gifts of Nature owned and controlled by human beings which yield an income.

2. Labour:
Labour means manual labour or unskilled work.

3. Capital:
“Capital consists of all kinds of wealth other than free gifts of nature, which yield income”. Bohm – Bawerk defines it as ‘a produced means of production’.

4. Organisation:
The man behind organizing the business is called as ‘Organizer’ or ‘Entrepreneur’.

Question 26.
State the meaning of Indifference curves?
Answer:

1. The Consumer is rational and his aim is to derive maximum satisfaction.
2. Utility cannot be cardinally measured, but can be ranked or compared or ordered by ordinal number. Such as I, II, III and so on.
3. Indifference curve approach is based on the concept “Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution”.
4. The consumer is consistent this assumption is called as the assumption of transitivity.

Question 27.
Define micro economics?
Answer:

1. Micro economics is the study of the economic actions of individual units say households, firms or industries.
2. It studies how business firms operate under different market conditions.
3. The combined actions of buyers and sellers determine prices.
4. Micro economics covers:
   • Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
   • Theory of economic welfare.

Question 28.
Define Rent?
Answer:
Rent is the price or reward given for the use of land or house or a machine to the owner. But, in Economics, “Rent” or “Economic Rent” refers to that part of payment made by a tenant to his land lords for the use of land only.

Question 29.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

1. Land is a primary factor of production
2. Land is a passive factor of production
3. Land is the free gift of nature
4. Land has no cost of production
5. Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
6. Land is permanent
7. Land is immovable
8. Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
9. Land has alternative uses
10. Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 30.
Give the meaning of deductive method?
Answer:

1. Deductive method is also named as analytical or abstract method.
2. It consists in deriving conclusions from general truths.
3. It takes few general principles and applies them to draw conclusions.
4. The classical and neo – classical school of economists notably, Ricardo, JS Mill, Malthus Marshall, Pigou applied the deductive method in their economic investigations

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the features of a market?
Answer:
A market has the following characteristic features:

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service.
2. A commodity to be bought and sold.
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller.
4. Direct or indirect exchange.

Question 32.
Write a note on Mineral resources in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in iron ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri, and is the only source in the country.

Question 33.
State the features of duopoly?
Answer:

1. Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
2. Both sellers may collude, (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of the commodity).
3. They may enter into cut – throat competition.
4. There is no perfect differentiation.
5. They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.

Question 34.
Mention the relationship between marginal utility and total utility?
Answer:

Marginal utility	Total utility
1. Marginal utility goes on diminishing.	1. Total utility goes on Increasing.
2. Marginal utility becomes zero’	2. Total utility maximum.
3. Marginal utility becomes negative.	3. Total utility diminishes.

Question 35.
Explain different types of economic activities?
Answer:
The seven types of economic activities are:

1. Micro Economics:
Micro Economics is the study of the economic actions of individuals . say households, firms or industries.

Micro economics covers:

1. Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
2. Theory of economic welfare.

2. Macro – Economics:

1. Macro economics is the obverse of micro economics.
2. The general theory of employment, Interest and money published by Keynes is the basis of modem macro economics.

3. International Economics:

1. In the modem world, no country can grow in isolation.
2. Every country is having links with the other countries through foreign capital, investment [foreign direct investment] and international trade.

4. Public Economics:

1. Public finance is concerned with the income or revenue raising and expenditure incurring activities.
2. The scope of public finance covers public expenditure, public revenue, public debt and financial administration.

5. Developmental Economics:
The development economics deals with features of developed nations, obstacles for development, economic and non- economic factors influencing development, various growth models and strategies.

6. Health Economics:

1. Health economics is an area of applied economics.
2. It covers health indicators , preventive and curative measures, medical research and education, rural health mission, drug price control, neo -natal care, maternity and child health, budgetary allocation for health.

7. Environmental Economics:

1. Depletion of natural resources stock and pollution result from rapid economic development.
2. Environmental economics is a study of inter disciplinary tools for the problems of ecology, economy and environment.

Question 36.
Discuss the long run cost curves with suitable diagram?
Answer:
1. In the long run all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.

2. LAC is given in diagram.

3. Long run average cost (LAC) is equal to long run total costs divided by the level of output.
LAC = LTC/Q

4. where, LAC denotes Long – Run Average Cost, LTC denotes Long – run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. The LAC curve is derived from short – run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called as ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Question 37.
Elucidate different features of services?
Answer:
Along with goods, services, are produced and consumed. They are generally, possess the following:

(I) Intangible:

1. Intangible things are not physical obj ects but exist in connection to other things for example, brand image, good will etc.
2. The intangible things are converted and stored into tangible items such as recording a music piece into a pen – drive.

(II) Heterogeneous:

1. Services vary across regions or cultural backgrounds.
2. A single type service yields multiple experiences, e.g., music, consulting physicians etc.

(III) Inseparable from their makers:
Services are inextricably connected to their makes. For example, labour and labourers are inseparable.

(IV) Perishable:

1. Services cannot be stored as inventories like assets.
2. For example it is useless to possess a ticket for a cricket match once the match is over.
3. It cannot be stored and it has no value in exchange.

Question 38.
State the Dynamic Theory of Profit?
Answer:
Dynamic Theory of Profit:

1. This theory was propounded by the American economist J.B.Clark in 1900.
2. Profit is the reward for dynamic changes in society.
3. Static society is one where everything is stationary or stagnant and there is no change at all.
4. There is no role for an entrepreneur in a static society.
5. According to Clark, the following five main changes are taking place in a dynamic society.
   • Population is increasing
   •  Volume of Capital is increasing
   • Methods of production are improving
   • Forms of industrial organization are changing
   • The wants of consumer are multiplying

Question 39.
State the reasons for nationalization of commercial banks?
Answer:

1. After Independence, the Government of India adopted planned economic development.
2. Five year plans came into existence since 1951.
3. The main objective of the economic planning aimed at social welfare.
4. Before Independence commercial banks were in the private sector.
5. These commercial banks failed in helping the Government to achieve social objectives of planning.
6. Therefore, the government decided to nationalize 14 major commercial banks on 19 July 1969.
7. In 1980, again the government took over another 6 commercial banks.

Question 40.
Write a short note on Welfare Economics given by Amartya Sen?
Answer:

1. Amartya Kumar Sen. has included the concept of entitlement items like nutrition, food, medical and health care, employment, security of food supply in times of famine etc.
2. He considered famine as arising out of the failure of establishing a system of entitlements.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Briefly explain the subsistence theory of wages?
Answer:
The subsistence theory of wages:

1. Subsistence theory of wages is one of the oldest theories of wages.
2. According to this theory, wage must be equal to the subsistence level of the labourer and his family.
3. Subsistence means the minimum amount of food, clothing and shelter which workers and their family require for existence.
4. If workers are paid higher wages than the subsistence level, the workers would be better off and they will have large families.
5. Hence, the population would increase.
6. When the population increases, the supply of labourer would increase and therefore, wages will come down.
7. If wages are lower than the subsistence level, there would be a reduction in population and thereby the supply of labour falls and wages increase to the subsistence level.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the loanable funds theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. The Loanable Funds Theory, also known as the “Neo – Classical Theory,” was developed by Swedish economists like Wicksell, Bertil, Ohlin,.Viner, Gunnar Myrdal and others.
2. According to this theory, interest is the price paid for the use of loanable funds.
3. The rate of interest is determined by the equilibrium between demand for and supply of loanable funds in the credit market.

Demand for loanable funds:
The demand for loanable funds depends upon the following:

(I) Demand for Investment [I]

1. The most important factor responsible for the loanable funds is the demand for investment.
2. Bulk of the demand for loanable funds comes from business firms which borrow money for purchasing capital goods.

(II) Demand for consumption [C]
The demand for loanable funds comes from individuals who borrow money for consumption purposes also.

(III) Demand for Hoarding [H]

1. The next demand for loanable funds comes from hoarders. Demand for hoarding money arises because of people’s preference for liquidity, idle cash balances and so on.
2. The demand for C, I and H varies inversely with interest rate.

Supply of Loanable funds:
The supply of loanable funds depends upon the following four sources:

1. Savings [S]:
Loanable funds comes from savings. According to this theory, savings may be of two types, namely,

1. Savings planned by individuals are called “ex – ante – savings
2. The unplanned savings are called ‘ex-post savings”.

2. Bank Credit [BC]:
The bank credit is another source of loanable funds. Commercial banks create credit and supply loanable funds to the investors.

3. Dishoarding [DH]:
Dishoarding means bringing out the hoarded money into use and thus it constitutes a source of supply of loanable funds.

4. Disinvestment [DI]:
Disinvestment is the opposite of investment. Disinvestment means not providing sufficient funds for depreciation of equipment.

It gives rise to the supply of loanable funds. All the four sources of supply of loanable funds vary directly with the interest rate.

Question 42 (a).
Illustrate the uncertainty Bearing Theory of profit?
Answer:
Uncertainty theory was propounded by the American economist Frank H.Knight. Profit is the reward for “ uncertainty bearing”. He distinguishes between “ Insurable” and “non – insurable” risks.

Insurable Risks:

1. Certain risks are measurable or calculable.
2. Some of the examples of these risks are the risk of fire, theft and natural disasters.
3. Such risks are compensated by the Insurance companies.

Non – Insurable Risks:

1. There are some risks which are immeasurable or incalculable.
2. The examples of these risks are competition, market condition, technology change and public policy.
3. No Insurance Company can undertake these risks.
4. The term “risks” covers the first type of events (measurable – insurable)
5. The term “uncertainty” covers the second type of events (unforeseeable or incalculable or not measurable or non-insurable).
6. According to Knight, profit does not arise.
7. On account of risk-taking, because the entrepreneur can guard himself against a risk by taking a suitable insurance policy.
8. Uncertain events cannot be guarded against in that way.
9. An entrepreneur takes himself the burden of facing an uncertain event, he secures remuneration.
10. That remuneration is “profit”.

[OR]

(b) Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas?
Answer:
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. Gandhi wrote “ Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore , Sinful”. Gandhi repeated the same belief “ that economy is untrue which ignores or disregards moral values”.

Salient features of Gandhian Economic Thought:

(I) Village Republics:

1. India lives in villages.
2. He was interested in developing the villages as self – sufficient units.
3. He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

(II) On Machinery:

1. Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils”.
2. It is necessary to realize that machinery is bad.
3. Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil.
4. It would ultimately cease.

(III) Industrialism:

1. Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind.
2. He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

(IV) Decentralization:
Gandhi advocated a decentralized economy i.e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

(V) Village Sarvodaya:

1. According to Gandhi, “Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities”.
2. He suggested, self – dependent villages.

(VI) Bread Labour:

1. Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour.
2. He believed that God created man to eat his bread by the sweat of his brow.
3. Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

(VII) The Doctrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one.

(VIII) On the Food Problem:

1. Gandhi was against any sort of food controls.
2. Once India was begging for food grain, but now India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

(IX) On Population:

1. Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
2. He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self – control.
3. He considered self – control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of over population,

(X) On Prohibition:

1. Gandhi regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice.
2. He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards.
3. Many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table.

Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW in 1^st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

1. In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
2. The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

1. There are about 20 hydro – electric units in Tamil Nadu.
2. The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakaiidy, Parson Valley etc.

Solar Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as’seen in following table
2. Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
2. The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

[OR]

(b) A firm has the revenue function. R = 600 q – 0.03 q² and the cost function is C = 150 q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced, find AR, AC, MR and MC?
Answer:
(I) Average Revenue = \(\frac{R}{q}\)
\(\frac { 600q-0.03{ q }^{ 2 } }{ q } \) = \(\frac{600q}{q}\) – \(\frac { 0.03{ q }^{ 2 } }{ q } \)
AR = 600 – 0.03q

(II) Average cost = \(\frac{C}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q+60000}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q}{q}\) + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)
AC = 150 + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)

(III) Marginal Revenue = \(\frac{dR}{dq}\)
R = 600q – 0.03q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)(2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(IV) Marginal Cost = \(\frac{dC}{dq}\)
C = 150q + 60000
MC = 150

Question 44 (a).
Explain the causes for Rural Backwardness?
Answer:

1. The evils of brain – drain and rural – urban migration can be reduced if rural areas are developed.
2. In order to better utilise the unused and under – utilised resources there is a need to develop the rural economy.
3. Rural Development should minimise the gap between rural and. urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called as PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
4. In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of the economic indicators like,
   • Human Development Index [HDI]
   • Woman Empowerment Index [WEI]
   • Gender Disparity Index [GDI]
   • Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI] and
   • Gross National Happiness Index [GNHI] should be given due attention.

[OR]

(b) The features of Rural Economy are peculiar. Argue?
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:

(I) Village is an Institution:
The village is a Primary Institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.

(II) Dependence on Agriculture:
The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupation in rural areas.

(III) Life of Rural people:
Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable. The standards of living of majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization and political mobilization, rural sector is extremely backward and weak.

(IV) Population Density:
Population density, measured by number of persons living per sq.km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.

(V) Employment:
There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and under employment in rural areas.

(VI) Poverty:
Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing and shelter are not being met.

(VII) Indebtedness:
People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non – farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network etc.

(VIII) Rural Income:
The Income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them.

(IX) Dependency:
Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.

(X) Dualism:
Dualism means the co – existence of two extremely different features like developed and under developed. These characteristics are very common in rural areas.

(XI) Inequality:
The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.

(XII) Migration:
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

Question 45 (a).
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Answer:
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non-food crops among the states in India.

Productivity position of Tamil Nadu in India

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oil seeds and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower and Jowar.

[OR]

(b) Describe the “MSMES”?
Answer:

• The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises are defined under the MSMED Act 2006.
• The enterprises are classified as Manufacturing and Service enterprises based on the investment in plant and machinery and equipment (excluding land and building).
• Tamil Nadu accounts of 15.07% Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the country (the highest among all States) with 6.89 lakhs registered MSMEs.
• Producing over 8000 varieties of product for a total investment of more than ₹32,008 crore.
• MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
• The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.
• Around 15.61 lakh entrepreneurs have registered, providing employment opportunities to about 99.7 lakhs persons with total investment of Rs. 1,68,331 crore.

Question 46 (a).
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue?
Answer:

1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.
2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.
3. MR = ∆TR/AQ where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes change in total quantity.
4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TR_n – TR_n – 1 (or) TR_n+1 – TR_n
Where, MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TR denotes total revenue of n^th item,
TR_n-1 denotes Total Revenue of n – 1^th item and
TR_n+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1^th item.
If TR = PQ , MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

[OR]

(b) Describe the degrees of price discrimination?
Answer:
Degrees of Price Discrimination:
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C.Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

(I) First degree price discrimination:
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called as perfect price discrimination. This price wipes out the entire consumer’s surplus. This is maximum exploitation of consumers. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

(II) Second degree price discrimination:
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called as imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. For example, in cinema theatres, prices are charged for same film show from viewers of different classes. In a theatre the difference between the first row of first class and the last row in the second class is smaller as compared to the differences in charges..

(III) Third degree price discrimination:
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub – market and charges different price in each sub – market. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex and location. For example, railways charge lower fares from senior citizens. Students get discounts in museums, and exhibitions.

Question 47 (a).
Elaborate the nature and scope of Economics?
Answer:
Economics nature:

1. The nature of a subject refers to its contents and how and why they find a place in the subject.
2. This nature is understood by studying the various definitions given by the notable economists.
3. The existence of multiplicity of the definitions makes some scholars comment that a search for a clear definition of economics is an exercise in futility.
4. “Political economy is said to have strangled itself with definitions.”
5. Their presence makes studying a subject interesting, exciting, enjoyable or worthwhile.
6. In fact their presence in a social science subject is a clear sign of the growth of the science.
7. It indicates that there exists freedom for people associated with such as science to formulate fresh definitions.

Scope of economics:

1. The scope of the subject of economics refers to on the subject matter of economics.
2. It throws light on whether it is an art or science and if science, whether it is a positive science or a normative science.

Economics subject matter:

1. Economics focuses on the behaviour and interactions among economic agents, individuals and group belonging to an economic system.
2. Economics studies the ways in which people use the available resources to satisfy their multiplicity of wants.
3. The activities of rational or normal human beings are the subject-matter of economics.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Internal and external economics of scale?
Answer:
Internal Economics of Scale:

1. Internal Economies of scale refers to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity.
2. For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, an improvement in managerial skill etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types:

(a) Technical Economies:

1. When the size of the firm is large, large amount of capital can be used.
2. There is a possibility to introduce up – to – date technologies this improves productivity of the firm.
3. Research and development strategies can be applied easily.

(b) Financial Economies:
Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market.

(c) Managerial Economies:
Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.

(d) Labour Economies:

1. Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour.
2. This leads to specialization which enhances the quality.
3. This increases the productivity of the firm.

(e) Marketing Economies:

1. In the context of large scale production, the producers can both buy raw-materials in bulk at cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
2. They enjoy a huge bargaining power.

(f) Economies of survival:

1. Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production.
2. This reduces the risk in production.
3. Even if the market for one product collapses, market for other commodities offsets it.

External Economies of Scale:

1. External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process.
2. This can take place in the case of industry also.
3. These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in industry due to the structural growth.
4. Important external economies of scale are listed below :
   • Increased transport facilities
   • Banking facilities
   • Development of townships
   • Development of information and communication.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The construction of demand line or supply line is the result of using ………………………
(a) Matrices
(b) Calculus
(c) Algebra
(d) Analytical geometry
Answer:
(d) Analytical geometry

Question 2.
“Economics is the study of mankind in the ordinary business of life”. It is the statement of ………………………….
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Lionel Robbins
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) Samuelson
Answer:
(c) Alfred Marshall

Question 3.
The Industry which was de – reserved in 1993?
(a) Railways
(b) Mining of copper and zinc
(c) Atomic energy
(d) Atomic minerals
Answer:
(b) Mining of copper and zinc

Question 4.
A production function measures the relation between ……………………….
(a) Input prices and output prices
(b) Input prices and the quantity of output
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output
(d) The quantity of inputs and input prices
Answer:
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output

Question 5.
Mathematical Economics is the integration of ………………………..
(a) Mathematics and Economics
(b) Economics and Statistics
(c) Economics and Equations
(d) Graphs and Economics
Answer:
(a) Mathematics and Economics

Question 6.
Mixed economy means ……………………………..
(a) Private sectors and banks
(b) Co – existence of public and private sectors
(c) Public sectors and banks
(d) Public sectors only
Answer:
(b) Co-existence of public and private sectors

Question 7.
Who is the Father of Economics?
(a) Max Muller
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

Question 8.
Annual plans formed in the year ………………………….
(a) 1989 – 1991
(b) 1990 – 1992
(c) 2000 – 2001
(d) 1981 – 1983
Answer:
(b) 1990 – 1992

Question 9.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks ………………………..
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(b) II

Question 10.
Which of the following is the way of Privatisation?
(a) Disinvestment
(b) Denationalization
(c) Franchising
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Disinvestment

Question 11.
Cost refer to ………………………..
(a) Price
(b) Value
(c) Fixed cost
(d) Cost of production
Answer:
(d) Cost of production

Question 12.
Petrol and gold is the example of ………………………. market.
(a) Local
(b) Provincial
(c) National
(d) International
Answer:
(d) International

Question 13.
Money cost is also known as …………………………. cost.
(a) Explicit
(b) Implicit
(c) Social
(d) Real
Answer:
(a) Explicit

Question 14.
Which of the following involves maximum exploitation of consumers?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 15.
How do you term people employed in excess over and above the requirements?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Under employment (or) Disguised unemployment
(c) Full employment
(d) Self employment
Answer:
(b) Under employment (or) Disguised unemployment

Question 16.
The main objective of nationalisation of banks was ……………………….
(a) Private Social welfare
(b) Social Welfare
(c) To earn
(d) Industries monopoly
Answer:
(b) Social Welfare

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of land?
(a) Its limited supply
(b) It is mobile
(c) Heterogeneous
(d) Gift of Nature
Answer:
(b) It is mobile

Question 18.
Quasi – rent arises in ………………………..
(a) Man – made appliances
(b) Home made items
(c) Imported items
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Man – made appliances

Question 19.
The recommended nutritiofaal intake per person in rural areas.
(a) 2100 calories
(b) 2200 calories
(c) 2300 calories
(d) 2400 calories
Answer:
(d) 2400 calories

Question 20.
The highest rate of tax under GST is ……………………….. (as on July 1,2017).
(a) 18%
(b) 24%
(c) 28%
(d) 32%
Answer:
(c) 28%

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by distribution?
Answer:
Distribution means division of income among the four factors of production in terms of rent to landlords, wage to labourer, interest to capital and profit to entrepreneurs. The theory of functional distribution deals with how the relative prices of these factors of production are determined. The theory of factor prices is popularly known as the theory of distribution.

Question 22.
State the reasons for implementing LPG?
Answer:
Liberalization:

1. Liberalization refers to removal of relaxation of governmental restrictions in all stages of industry.
2. De-licensing, decontrol, deregulation, subsidies (incentives) and greater role for financial institutions are the various facets of liberalization.

Privatization:

1. Privatization means transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from public sector to private sector.
2. Denationalization, disinvestment and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Globalization:
Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic (Indian) economy with the rest of the world. Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non – tariffbarriers, opening the doors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 23.
Why was structural reform implemented in Indian Economy?
Answer:

1. Indian Economy responded to the crisis by introducing a set of policies known as Structural Reforms.
2. These policies were aimed at correcting the weaknesses and rigidities in the various sectors of the economy such as industry, trade, fiscal and agriculture.

Question 24.
What is selling costs?
Answer:

1. Selling Cost is the discussion of “ Product differentiation”.
2. We can infer that the producer under monopolistic competition has to incur expenses to popularize his brand.
3. This involved in selling the product is called selling cost.
4. According to Prof. Chamberlin, selling cost is “ The cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product”.

Question 25.
What are major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Thoothkudi as well as one intermediate port in Nagpattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. All the minor portsare managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
3. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 26.
Mention any four food crops which are favourable to Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Rice: Tamil Nadu is the India’s second biggest producer of rice.
2. Banana and Coconut: Tamil Nadu ranks first in production of Banana and coconut.
3. Cashewnut: Tamil Nadu ranks second in production of cashewnut.
4. Pepper: Tamil Nadu ranks third in production of pepper.
5. Sugarcane: Tamil Nadu ranks fourth in production of Sugarcane.

Question 27.
What is Selling cost?
Answer:

1. Selling Cost is the discussion of “ Product differentiation”.
2. We can infer that the producer under monopolistic competition has to incur expenses to popularize his brand.
3. This involved in selling the product is called selling cost.
4. According to Prof. Chamberlin, selling cost is “The cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product”.

Question 28.
What do you mean by Rural Development?
Answer:

1. Rural Development is defined as an overall improvement in the economies and social well being of villagers and the institutional and physical environments in which they live.
2. According to the World Bank “Rural Development is a strategy designed to improve the economic and social life of a specific group of people – rural poor.
3. Rural Development is a process of improving the rural areas, rural people and rural living.

Question 29.
Define Rural economy?
Answer:

1. Rural areas are geographical areas located outside towns and cities.
2. Rural Economy refers to villages and rural community refers to people living in villages.

Question 30.
Give the definition for ‘Real Cost’ ?
Answer:
Real Cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production. Real Cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers in foregoing, leisure. Real cost are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as real cost of production.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Enumerate the remedial measures to Rural poverty?
Answer:
Remedial measures:

1. Since rural unemployment and rural poverty are interrelated, creation of employment opportunities would support elimination of poverty.
2. Poverty alleviation schemes and programmes have been implemented, modified, consolidated, expanded and improved over time.
3. However, unemployment, begging, rag-picking and slumming continues.
4. Unless employment is given to all the people poverty cannot be eliminated.

Question 32.
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue?
Answer:
1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.

2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.

3. MR = ∆TR/∆Q where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes change in total quantity.

4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TR_n – TR_n-1 (or) TR_n+1 – TR_n
Where, MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TR_n denotes total revenue of n^th item,
TR_n-1, denotes Total Revenue of n – 1^th item and
TR_n+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1^th item.
If TR = PQ , MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

Question 33.
Define opportunity cost and provide an example?
Answer:

1. Opportunity cost refers to the cost of next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
2. For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in a farm land.
3. If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up.
4. Opportunity Cost is also called as “Alternative Cost” or Transfer cost.

Question 34.
Explain the theory of “consumer’s surplus”?
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines consumer’s surplus as “the excess of price which a person would be willing to pay a thing rather than go without the thing, over that which he actually does pay is the economic measure of this surplus satisfaction. This may be called consumers surplus”.

Question 35.
List out the objectives of MUDRA Bank?
Answer:

1. Regulate the lender and the borrower of microfinance and bring stability to the microfinance system.
2. Extend finance and credit support to Micro Finance Institutions [MFI] and agencies that lend money to small businesses, retailers, self-help groups and individuals.
3. Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the first time.
4. Offer a Credit Guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro businesses.
5. Introduce appropriate technologies to assist in the process of efficient lending, borrowing and monitoring of distributed capital.

Question 36.
Explain about the period of Merchant capital?
Answer:
Period of Merchant Capital:

1. The period of merchant capital was from 1757 to 1813.
2. The only aim of the East India Company was to earn profit by establishing monopoly trade in the goods with India and the East India’s.
3. During this period, India had been considered as the best hunting ground for capital by the East Indian company to develop industrial capitalism is Britain.
4. When Bengal and South India came under political shake of the East India company in 1750s and 1760s, the objective of monopoly trade was fulfilled.
5. The company administration succeeded in generating huge surpluses which were repatriated . to England, and the Indian leaders linked this problem of land revenue with that of the drain.
6. Above all, the officers of the company were unscrupulous and corrupt.

Question 37.
Distinguish between rent and quasi – rent?
Answer:

Rent	Quasi – Rent
1. Rent accrues to land.	1. Quasi – rent accrues to man – made appliance.
2. The supply of land is fixed forever.	2. The supply of man made appliances is fixed for a short period only.
3. It enters into price.	3. It does not enter into price.

Question 38.
Explain the causes for Rural backwardness?

1. The evils of brain-drain and rural-urban migration can be reduced if rural areas are developed.
2. In order to better utilise the unused and under – utilised resources there is a need to develop the rural economy.
3. Rural Development should minimise the gap between rural and urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called as PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
4. In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of the economic indicators like,
   • Human Development Index [HDI]
   • Woman Empowerment Index [WEI]
   • Gender Disparity Index [GDI]
   • Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI] and
   • Gross National Happiness Index [GNHI] should be given due attention.

Question 39.
Discuss the long run cost curves with suitable diagram?
Answer:

1. In the long run all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.

2. LAG is given in diagram.

3. Long run average cost (LAC) is equal to long run total costs divided by the level of output.

LAC = LTC/Q

4. where, LAC denotes Long-Run Average Cost, LTC denotes Long-run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. The LAC curve is derived from short-run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called as ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Question 40.
State the importance of Rural Development?
Answer:
1. A major share of population lives in rural areas, and their development and contributions are very much supportive for the nation building activities. India cannot be developed by retaining rural as backward.

2. The rural economy Supports the urban sectors by way of supplying drinking water, milk, food and raw materials. Hence, the backwardness of the rural sector would be a major impediment to the overall progress of the economy.

3. Improvements in education, health and sanitation in villages can help avoid many urban problems namely, begging, rag-picking and road side slumming.

4. Development of agriculture and allied activities are necessary for providing gainful employment in rural areas and improving overall food production.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Bring out Jawaharlal Nehru’s contribution to the idea of economic development?
Answer:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru, one of the chief builders of Modem India, was the first Prime Minister of Independent India.
2. He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman.

(I) Democracy and Secularism:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy.
2. He believed in free speech civil liberty, adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy.
3. Secularism, is another signal contribution of Nehru to India.

(II) Planning:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
3. Nehru Spoke on the theme of planning.
4. He said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
5. “Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with Industrialization and eventual self¬reliance for the country’s economic growth on an self – accelerating growth.
6. Nehru carried through this basis strategy of planned development.
7. Nehru’s contribution to the advancement of science, research, technology and industrial development cannot be forgotten.
8. It was dining is period, many IITs and Research Institutions were established.
9. Nehru always in insited on “ scientific temper”.

[OR]

(b) Describe the Salient features of EXIM policy [2015 – 2020]
Answer:
The new EXIM policy has been formulated focusing on increasing in exports Scenario, boosting production and supporting the concepts like Make in India and Digital India.

Salient Features:

1. Reduce export obligations by 25% and give boost to domestic manufacturing supporting the “Make in India” concept.
2. As a step to Digital India concept, online procedure to upload digitally signed document by CA /CS / Cost Accountant are developed and further mobile app for filing tax, stamp duty has been developed.
3. Repeated submission of physical copies of documents available on Exporter Importer Profile is not required.
4. Export obligation period for export items related to defence, military store, aerospace and nuclear energy to be 24 months.
5. EXIM policy 2015 – 2020 is expected to double the share of India in World Trade from present level of 3% by the year 2020. This appears to be too ambitions.

Question 42 (a).
Explain basic problems of the economy with the help of production possibility curve?
Answer:
1. The problem of choice between relatively scarce commodities due to limited productive resources with the society can be illustrated with the help of a geometric device, is known as production possibility curve.

Production possibility curve shows the menu of choice along which a society can choose to substitute one good for another, assuming a given , state of technology and given total resources.

2. The explanation and analysis of production possibility curve is based upon certain assumptions, some of them are following:

1. The time period does not change. It remains the same throughout the curve.
2. Techniques of production are fixed.
3. There is full employment in the economy.
4. Only two goods can be produced from the given resources.
5. Resources of production are fully mobile.
6. The factors of production are given in quantity and quality.
7. The low of diminishing returns operates in production.
8. Every production possibility curve is based upon these assumptions. If some of these assumptions changes or negelected, then it affects the nature of production possibility curve.
9. To draw this curve we take the help of production possibilities schedule, as shown below.

Production possibilities schedule:
1. The schedule suggests that if all resources are thrown into the production of food, a maximum of 500 tons of food can be produced, given the existing technology. If on the other hand, all resources are instead used for producing cars, 25 cars can be produced. In between these two extreme possibilities exist. If we are willing to give up some food, we can have some cars.

2. We can obtain a production possibility curve by drawing production possibilities schedule graphically. The quantity of food is shown on x – axis and the number of cars is shown on y – axis, the different six production possibilities are. being shown as point P₁ P₂ P₃ P₄ P₅ & P₆.

Problems of the economy:

1. The problem of choice:
The problem of choice arise because of the given limited resources and unlimited wants, may relate to the allocation of resources between the goods for the higher income group and the lower income group and the goods for the defense and the civilians. Since PPC is the locus of the combination of the goods the problem of choice will not arises when we choose any point on PPC.

2. Solution of central problems:
The central problems of an economy can be explained with the help of PPC. The solution of problem of what to produce involves the decision regarding the choice of location on the production possibility carves. A production combination represented by any point inside the PPC indicates that the economy is using inefficient methods of production and inefficient combination of resources.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the law of diminishing marginal utility with diagram?
Answer:
Introduction:
H.H.Gossen, an Austrian Economist was the first to formulate this law in Economics in 1854. Therefore Jevons called this law as “ Gossen’s First Law of Consumption”. But credit goes to Marshall, because he perfected this law on the basis of Cardinal Analysis. This law is based on the characteristics of human wants, i.e. wants are satiable.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as “ the additional benefit which a person derives from a given increase of his stock of a thing, diminishes with every increase in the stock that he already has”.

Assumptions:

1. Utility can be measured by cardinal numbers such as 1, 2, 3 and so on.
2. The marginal utility of money of the consumer remains constant.
3. The consumer should be a rational consumer and his aim is to attain maximum satisfaction with minimum expenditure.
4. The units of the commodity consumed must be reasonable in size.
5. The commodity consumed should be homogeneous or uniform in charcter like weight, quality, taste, colour etc.
6. The consumption of goods must take place continuously at a given period of time.
7. There should be no change in the taste, habits preferences, fashions, income and character of the consumer during the process of consumption.

Explanation:
The Law of Diminishing Marginal utility states that if a consumer continues to consume more and more units of the same commodity, its marginal utility diminishes. This means that the more we have of a thing, the less is the satisfaction or utility that we derive from the additional unit of it.

The Law of Diminishing Marginal utility:

1. In this table, we find that the total utility goes on increasing but at a diminishing rate.
2. The law can be explained with a simple illustration.
3. Consumer wants to consume 7 apples one after another.
4. The utility from the first apple is 20.
5. But the utility from the second apple will be less than that of the first [say 15].
6. The third less than that of the second [say 10] and so on.
7. Finally, the utility from the fifth apple becomes zero and the utilities from sixth and seventh apples are negative for disutility or disliking.
8. This tendency is called the “ The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility”.
9. In this table we find on the other hand, marginal utility goes on diminishing.
10. When marginal utility becomes zero, the total utility is maximum and when marginal utility becomes negative, the total utility diminishes.

X – axis represents number of apples consumed
Y – axis represents total utility and marginal utility
TU – represents total utility
MU- represents marginal utility

Criticisms:

1. Utility cannot be measured numerically, because utility is subjective.
2. This law is based on the unrealistic assumptions.
3. This law is not applicable to indivisible commodities.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the objectives of nationalization of commercial bank?
Answer:
The Government of India nationalized the commercial banks to achieve the following objectives:

1. The main objective of nationalization was to attain Social Welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
2. Nationalisation of banks helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
3. In India, nearly 70% of population lived in rural areas. Therefore it was needed to encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
4. Nationalisation of banks was required to reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
5. Before Independence, the numbers of banks were certainly inadequate. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas.
6. Banks created credit facilities mainly to the agriculture sector and its allied activities after nationalization.
   After New Economic Policy 1991, the Indian banking Industry has been facing the new horizons of competitions, efficiency and productivity.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Agrarian crisis after reforms?
Answer:
(I) High input costs:

1. The biggest input for farmers is seeds.
2. Before liberalisation, farmers across the country had access to seeds from state government institutions.
3. The institutions produced own seeds and were responsible for their quality and price.
4. India’s seed market was opened up to global agri-businesses.
5. The deregulation of many state government institutions were closed down in 2003.
6. Seed prices shot up and fake seeds made an appearance in a big way.

(II) Cutback in agricultural subsidies:

1. Farmers were encouraged to shift from growing a mixture of traditional crops to export oriented “cash crops” like chilli, cotton and tobacco.
2. Liberalisation policies reduced the subsides on pesticide and fertilizer and elasticity.
3. As a result prices have increased by 300%.

(III) Reduction of import duties:

1. With a view to open India’s markets, the liberalization reforms also withdrew tariffs and duties on imports.
2. By 2001, India completely removed restrictions on imports of almost 1500 items including food.

(IV) Paucity of credit facilities:

1. The lending pattern of commercial banks, including nationalised bank, drastically changed. As a result, loan was not easily adequate.
2. This has forced the farmers to. rely on moneylenders who charge exorbitant rate of interest.

Question 44 (a).
Explain strong features of Indian economy?
Answer:
Strengths of Indian Economy:

1. India has a mixed economy:

1. Indian economy is a typical example of mixed economy.
2. This means both private and public sectors co-exist and function smoothly.
3. The fundamental and heavy industrial units are being operated under the public sector.
4. The liberalization of the economy, the private sector has gained importance.
5. This makes it a perfect model for public – private partnership.

2. Agriculture plays the key role:

1. Agriculture being the maximum pursued occupation in India.
2. It plays an important role in its economy as well.
3. Around 60% of the people in India depend upon agriculture for their livelihood.
4. In fact, about 17% of our GDP today is contributed by the agriculture sector.
5. Green revolution, ever green revolution and inventions is bio technology have made agriculture self sufficient and also surplus production.
6. The export of agriculture products such as fruits, vegetables, spices, vegetable oils, tobacco, animal skin, etc. also add to forex earning through international trading.

3. An emerging market:

1. Indian has emerged as vibrant economy sustaining stable GDP growth rate even in the midst of global downtrend.
2. This has attracted significant foreign capital through FDI and FII.
3. India has a high potential for prospective growth.
4. This also makes it an emerging market for the world.

4. Emerging Economy:

1. Emerging as a top economic giant among the world economy.
2. India bags the seventh position in terms of nominal Gross Domestic Product [GDP] and third in terms of Purchasing Power Parity [PPP].
3. As a result of rapid economic growth,. Indian economy has a place among the G20 countries.

5. Fat Growing Economy:

1. Indias economy is well known for high and sustained growth.
2. The world’s fastest growing economy in the year 2016-17 with the growth rate of 7.1% in GDP.

6. Fast Growing Service Sector:

1. The service sector, contributes a lion’s share of the GDP in India.
2. There has been a high rise growth in the technical sectors like information technology.

7. Large Domestic Consumption:

1. With the faster growth rate in the economy the standard of living has improved a lot.
2. The standard of living has considerably improved and life style has changed.

8. Rapid Growth of Urban Areas:

1. Urbanization is a key ingredient of the growth of any economy.
2. Improved connectivity is transport and communication, education and health have speeded up the pace of urbanization.

9. Stable Macro Economy:

1. The Indian economy has been projected and considered as one of the most stable economies of the world.
2. The current year’s Economic survey represents the Indian economy to be a “heaven of macroeconomic stability, resilience and optimism”.

10. Demographic dividend:

1. This means that India is a pride owner of the maximum percentage of youth.
2. The young population is not only motivated but skilled and trained enough to maximize the growth.
3. Thus human capital plays a key role in maximizing the growth prospects is the country.
4. This has invited foreign investments to the country and outsourcing opportunities too.

[OR]

(b) Explain the role of SSIs in economic development?
Answer:
1. Provide Employment:

1. SSI’s use labour intensive techniques. Hence, they provide employment opportunities to a large number of people. Thus, they reduce the unemployment problem to a great extent.
2. SSI’s provide employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals, people engaged in traditional arts, people in villages and unorganized sectors.
3. The employment-capital ratio is high for the SSI’s.

2. Bring Balanced Regional Development:

1. SSI’s promote decentralized development of industries as most of the SSI’s are set up in backward and rural areas.
2. They remove regional disparities by industrializing rural and backward areas and bring balanced regional development.
3. They help to reduce the problems of congestion, slums, sanitation and pollution in cities. They are mostly found in outside city limits.
4. They help in improving the standard of living of people residing in suburban and rural areas in India.
5. The entrepreneurial talent is tapped in different regions and the income is also distributed instead of being concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or business families.

3. Help in Mobilization of Local Resources:

1. SSI’s help to mobilize and utilize local resources like small savings, entrepreneurial talent etc., of the entrepreneurs, which might otherwise remain idle and unutilized.
2. They pave way for promoting traditional family skills and handicrafts. There is a great demand for handicraft goods in developed countries.
3. They help to improve the growth of local entrepreneurs and self-employed professionals in small towns and villages in India

4. Pave for Optimisation of Capital:

1. SSI’s require less capital per unit of output. They provide quick return on investment due to shorter gestation period. The payback period is quite short in SSI’s.
2. SSI’s function as a stabilizing force by providing high output – capital ratio as well as high employment – capital ratio.
3. They encourage the people living in rural areas and small towns to mobilize savings and channelize them into industrial activities.

5. Promote Exports:

1. SSIs do not require sophisticated machinery. Hence, import the machines from abroad is not necessary. On the other hand, there is a great demand for goods produced by SSIs. Thus they reduce the pressure on the country’s balance of payments. However, with recent past large scale industries are able to borrow large funds with low interest rate and spend large sums on advertisements. Hence SSSs are gradually vanishing.

2. SSI’s earn valuable foreign exchange through exports from India.

6. Complement Large Scale Industries:

1. SSI’s play a complementary role to large scale sector and support the large scale industries.
2. SSI’s provide parts, components, accessories to large scale industries and meet the requirements of large scale industries through setting up units near the large scale units.
3. SSI’s serve as ancillaries to large scale units.

7. Meet Consumer Demands:

1. SSI’s produce wide range of products required by consumers in India.
2. Hence, they serves as an anti-inflationary force by providing goods of daily use.

8. Develop Entrepreneurship:

1. SSI’s help to develop a class of entrepreneurs in the society. They help the job seekers to become job givers.
2. They promote self-employment and spirit of self-reliance in the society.
3. SSI’s help to increase the per capita income of India in various ways.
4. They facilitate development of backward areas and weaker sections of the society.
5. SSI’s are adept in distributing national income in more efficient and equitable manner among the various participants of the society.

Question 45 (a).
Elucidate the Laws of Returns to scale. Illustrate?
Answer:
Laws of Returns To Scale:
In the long – run, there is no fixed factor; all factors are variable. The laws of returns to scale explain the relationship between output and the scale of inputs in the long – run when all the inputs are increased in the same proportion.

Assumptions:
Laws of Returns to Scale are based on the following assumptions.

1. All the factors of production, [such as land, labour and capital] are variable but organization is fixed.
2. There is no change in technology.
3. There is perfect competition in the market.
4. Outputs or returns are measured in physical quantities.

Three Phases of Returns to Scale:

1. Increasing Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increase by more than one percent.
2. Constant Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases exactly by one percent.
3. Diminishing Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases by less than one percent.

The three laws of returns to scale can be explained with the help of the diagram below.

Diagramatic Illustration:

In the figure, the movement from point a to point b represents increasing returns to scale. Because, between these two points output has doubled, but output has tripled. The law of constant returns to scale is implied by the movement from the point b to point c.

Because, between these two points inputs have doubled and output also has doubled. Decreasing returns to scale are denoted by the movement from the point c to point d since doubling the factors from 4 units to 8 units product less than the increase in inputs, that is by 33.33%.

[OR]

(b) Explain the internal and external economies of scale?
Answer:
Internal Economics of Scale:

1. Internal Economies of scale refers to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity.
2. For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, an improvement in managerial skill etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types:

(a) Technical Economies:

1. When the size of the firm is large, large amount of capital can be used.
2. There is a possibility to introduce up – to – date technologies; this improves productivity of the firm.
3. Research and development strategies can be applied easily.

(b) Financial Economies:
Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market.

(c) Managerial Economies:
Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.

(d) Labour Economies:

1. Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour.
2. This leads to specialization which enhances the quality.
3. This increases the productivity of the firm.

(e) Marketing Economies:

1. In the context of large scale production, the producers can both buy raw – materials in bulk at cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
2. They enjoy a huge bargaining power.

(f) Economies of survival:

1. Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production.
2. This reduces the risk in production.
3. Even if the market for one product collapses, market for other commodities offsets it.

External Economies of Scale:

1. External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process.
2. This can take place in the case of industry also.
3. These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in industry due to the structural growth.
4. Important external economies of scale are listed below :
   • Increased transport facilities
   • Banking facilities
   • Development of townships
   • Development of information and communication.

Question 46 (a).
Explain the Rail Transport System in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has a well – developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Headquartered at Chennai.
2. The present Southern Railway network extends over a large area of India’s Southern Peninsula, covering the States of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, minor portions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
3. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State. The system connects it with most major cities in India.
4. Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
5. Chennai has a well – established Suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport System and is currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

[OR]

(b) Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics?
Answer:
Uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics:

1. Mathematical Methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
2. Mathematical Methods help to explain economic concepts.
3. Mathematical Methods help to use a largl number of variables in economic analyses.
4. Mathematical Methods help to quantity the impact or effect of any economic activity implemented by Government or anybody. There are of course many other uses.

Question 47 (a).
If TC = 2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function?

\(\frac{dc}{dq}\) = MC
AC = \(\frac{TC}{q}\)
\(\frac{dc}{dq}\) = 2.5(3)q² – [13 × 2]q + 50
MC = 7.5 q² – 26q + 50
AC = \(\frac { 2.5q^{ 3 }-13q^{ 2 }+50q+12 }{ q } \)
∴ AC = 2.5q³ – 13q + 50 + \(\frac{12}{q}\)

[OR]

(b) What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in Economics?
Answer:
Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate.
The following table gives an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:
They are evaluation in:

1. Computer
2. PC – Personal Computer
3. Micro Processor
4. Internet
5. Wireless links

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for:

1. 1. Data Compiling
   2. Editing
   3. Manipulating
   4. Presenting the results

Question 48 (a).
Discuss the important initiatives taken by the Government of India towards Industrial Policy?
Answer:
Important initiatives by the Government towards Industrial Policy:
The policy has brought changes in the following aspects of industrial regulation.

1. Industrial de – licensing.
2. De – reservation of the Industrial Sector.
3. Public sector policy, (de – reservation and reform of PSE_S)
4. Abolition of MRTP Act.
5. Foreign Investment policy and foreign technology policy.

Industrial delicensing policy:

1. The most important part of the new Industrial policy of 1991 was the end of the Industrial licensing or the license raj or red tapism.
2. The Industrial licensing policies, private sector firms had to secure licenses to start an Industry.

De – reservation of the Industrial Sector:

1. The public sector was given reservation especially in the capital goods and key Industries.
2. Industrial deregulation, most of the Industrial Sectors were opened to the private sector as well.
3. The new Industrial policy, only three sectors atomic energy, mining and railways will continue as reserved for public sector.

Reforms related to the Public Sector enterprises:

1. Reforms in the public sector were aimed at enhancing efficiency and competitiveness of the sector.
2. The government identified strategic and priority areas for the public sector concentrate.

Abolition of MRTP Act:

1. The New Industrial Policy of 1991 has abolished the Monopoly and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1969.
2. In 2010, the Competition Commission has emerged as the watch dog in monitoring competitive practices in the economy.

Eoreign Investment Policy:

1. Foreign investment including FDI and FPI were allowed.
2. In 1991, the government announced a specified list of high technology and high investment priority Industries.
3. Foreign direct investment upto 51 percent foreign equity.
4. Foreign Investment Promotion Board has been set up to negotiate with International firms and approve direct Foreign Investment.

[OR]

(b) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:

(I) Poverty of Farmers:

1. The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
2. Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(II) Failure of Monsoon:

1. Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
2. Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

(III) Litigation:

1. Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
2. Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away . their savings and resources.

(IV) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
The term bacterium was coined by ………………………
(a) Stanley
(b) Ehrenberg
(c) Gram
(d) Koch
Answer:
(b) Ehrenberg

Question 2.
Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nuclear membrane
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) Glycocalyx
Answer:
(d) Glycocalyx

Question 3.
Number of floral parts per whorl is called ……………………
(a) Curosity
(b) Atrocity
(c) Merosity
(d) Porosity
Answer:
(c) Merosity

Question 4.
“The evolution and classification of flowering plants” – book was written by ………………..
(a) Engler & Prantl
(b) Bentham & Hooker
(c) Cronquist
(d) Theophrasthus
Answer:
(c) Cronquist

Question 5.
Lainpbrush chromosomes occur at ………………….. stage of meiotic Prophase I.
(a) Leptotene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Zygotene
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(b) Diplotene

Question 6.
Who is called as father of plant physiology?
(a) J.C. Bose
(b) Stephen Hales
(c) Dixon
(d) Unger
Answer:
(b) Stephen Hales

Question 7.
Pitcher plant is the common name for ……………………..
(a) Drosera
(b) Nepenthes
(c) Utricularia
(d) Dionaea
Answer:
(b) Nepenthes

Question 8.
Chemiosmotic theory was proposed by ………………………
(a) Mitchell
(b) Hatch & Slack
(c) Calvin
(d) Priestley
Answer:
(a) Mitchell

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is mycorrhiza?
Answer:
The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as mycorrhiza.

Question 10.
Why do roots modify their structure? Name the types of root modification?
Answer:
Roots modify their structure to perform secondary functions. The two types of root modification are tap root modification and fibrous root modification.

Question 11.
Name any 4 sub classes of Liliopsida?
Answer:

1. Alismatidae
2. Arecidae
3. Commelinidae
4. Zingiberidae

Question 12.
How vacuoles helps to maintain the structure of a plant cell?
Answer:
The major function of plant vacuole is to maintain water pressure known as turgor pressure, which maintains the plant structure.

Question 13.
Compare Active transport with Passive transport?
Answer:

Question 14.
How will you define Quantasomes?
Answer:
Quantasomes are the morphological expression of physiological photosynthetic units, located on the inner membrane of thylakoid lamellae.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Classify lichens based on morphology?
Answer:

1. Leprose – Absence of distinct fungal layer
2. Crustose – Crust – like
3. Foliose – Leaf – like
4. Fruticose – Branched pendulous shrub – like

Question 16.
“Roots perform photosynthesis”-Justify with example?
Answer:
Roots of some climbing or epiphytic plants develop chlorophyll and turn green which help in photosynthesis. These roots are called as photosynthetic roots, e.g,,Tinospora.

Question 17.
Differentiate Apocarpous and Syncarpous ovary?
Answer:

1. Apocarpous: A pistil contains two or more distinct carpels. Example: Annona
2. Syncarpous: A pistil contains two or more carpels which are connate. Example: Citrus and Tomato

Question 18.
Draw & label the ground plan of T.S. of Dicot root?
Answer:

Question 19.
What do you mean by Respiratory substrate? Give example?
Answer:
Respiration is a biological process in which oxidation of various food substances like carbohydrates, proteins and fats take place and as a result of this, energy is produced where O₂ is taken in and CO₂ is liberated. The organic substances which are oxidised during respiration are called respiratory substrates.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Define phyllotaxy. Explain its type?
Answer:
The mode of arrangement of leaves on the stem is known as phyllotaxy (Greek. Phyllon = leaf; taxis = arrangement). Phyllotaxy is to avoid over crowding of leaves and expose the leaves maximum to the sunlight for photosynthesis. The four main types of phyllotaxy are:

1. Alternate
2. Opposite
3. Temate and
4. Whorled.

1. Alternate phyllotaxy:
In this type there is only one leaf per node and the leaves on the successive nodes are arranged alternate to each other. Spiral arrangement of leaves show vertical rows are called orthostichies. They are two types:

• Alternate spiral: In which the leaves are arranged alternatively in a spiral manner. e.g., Hibiscus and Ficus.
• Alternate distichous or Bifarious: In which the leaves are organized alternatively in two rows on either side of the stem, e.g., Monoon longifolium (.Polyalthia longifolia).

2. Opposite phyllotaxy:
In this type each node possess two leaves opposite to each other. They are organized in two different types:

(I) Opposite superposed:
The pair of leaves arranged in succession are in the same direction, that is two opposite leaves at a node lie exactly above those at the lower node, e.g., Psidium (Guava), Eugenia jambolana (Jamun) and Quisqualis (Rangoon creeper).

(II) Opposite decussate:
In this type of phyllotaxy one pair of leaves is placed at right angles to the next upper or lower pair of leaves, e.g., Calotropis, Zinnia and Ocimum

3. Ternate phyllotaxy:
In this type there are three leaves attached at each node, e.g., Nerium.

4. Whorled (verticillate) type of phyllotaxy:
In this type more than three leaves are present in a whorl at each node forming a circle or whorl, e.g., Allamanda and Alstonia scholaris.

[OR]

Distinguish between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
Answer:

Question 21.
Explain the insectivorous mode of nutrition in angiosperms?
Answer:
Insectivorous mode of nutrition:
Plants which are growing in nitrogen deficient areas develop insectivorous habit to resolve nitrogen deficiency.

1. Nepenthes (Pitcher plant):
Pitcher is a modified leaf and contains digestive enzymes. Rim of the pitcher is provided with nectar glands and acts as an attractive lid. When insect is trapped, proteolytic enzymes will digest the insect.

2. Drosera (Sundew):
It consists of long club shaped tentacles which secrete sticky digestive fluid which looks like a sundew.

3. Utricularia (Bladder wort):
Submerged plant in which leaf is modified into a bladder to collect insect in water.

4. Dionaea (Venus fly trap):
Leaf of this plant modified into a colourful trap. Two folds of lamina consist of sensitive trigger hairs and when insects touch the hairs it will close.

[OR]

List out the physiological effects of Abscissic acid?
Answer:

1. It helps in reducing transpiration rate by closing stomata. It inhibits K⁺ uptake by guard cells and promotes the leakage of malic acid. It results in closure of stomata.
2. It spoils chlorophylls, proteins and nucleic acids of leaves making them yellow.
3. Inhibition of cell division and cell elongation.
4. ABA is a powerful growth inhibitor. It causes 50% inhibition of growth in Oat coleoptile.
5. It induces bud and seed dormancy.
6. It promotes the abscission of leaves, flowers and fruits by forming abscission layers.
7. ABA plays an important role in plants during water stress and during drought conditions. It results in loss of turgor and closure of stomata.
8. It has anti – auxin and anti – gibberellin property.
9. Abscisic acid promotes senescence in leaves by causing loss of chlorophyll pigment decreasing the rate of photosynthesis and changing the rate of proteins and nucleic acid synthesis.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Cladogram consists the following characters …………………….
(a) Physiological and Biochemical
(b) Evolutionary and Phylogenetic
(c) Taxonomic and systematic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Evolutionary and Phylogenetic

Question 2.
The limbless amphibian is ………………………
(a) Hyla
(b) Rana
(c) Icthyophis
(d) Salamander
Answer:
(c) Icthyophis

Question 3.
ECG stands for …………………….
(a) Electro Cardiogram
(b) Electro Caplaris gram
(c) Electro Carrying gram
(d) Electro ensephalo gram
Answer:
(a) Electro Cardiogram

Question 4.
Match the List – I and List – II

List – I	List – II
1. Tidal Volume	(i) 1100 to 1200 ml
2. Residual Volume	(ii) 500 ml
3. Expiratory reserve Volume	(iii) 2500 to 3000 ml
4. Inspiratory reserve Volume	(iv) 1000 to 1100 ml

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (i), 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 5.
Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) All the reptiles have a three chambered heart.
(b) All mammals are viviparous.
(c) All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fin.
(d) All pisces have gills covered by a operculum.
Answer:
(c) All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fin.

Question 6.
Which of the following is incorrect statement with regard to peripheral neural system ?
(a) Its pathways innervate skeletal muscles.
(b) Its pathways are usually voluntary.
(c) Its pathways always involve four neurons.
(d) Some of its pathways are referred to as reflex arcs.
Answer:
(c) Its pathways always involve four neurons.

Question 7.
Centers for sense of smell are located …………………..
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Midbrain
(c) Olfactory lobes
(d) Cerebrum
Answer:
(c) Olfactory lobes

Question 8.
Excess secretion of cortisol leads to ………………………
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Grave’s disease
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) Gull’s disease
Answer:
(c) Cushing’s syndrome

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Write about the classification of Lampito maurittii?
Answer:
Classification:

1. Phylum: Annelida
2. Class: Oligochaeta
3. Order: Haplotaxida
4. Genus: Lampito
5. Species: mauritii

Question 10.
Define indigestion?
Answer:
Indigestion is the digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of stomach.

Question 11.
Write about muscle fatigue?
Answer:
Muscle fatigue is the inability of a muscle to contract after repeated muscle contractions. This is due to lack of ATP ancl accumulation of lactic acid by anaerobic breakdown of glucose.

Question 12.
Difference between neutrophils and esinophils?
Answer:

Neutrophils	Eosinophils
1. Neutrophils are polymorphonuclear cells with 3-4 lobes of nucleus connected with delicate threads.	1. Eosinophils have distinctly bilobed nucleus and the lobes are joined by thin strands.
2. Neutrophils constitute about 60%-65% of the total WBCs.	2. Eosinophils constitute about 2-3% of the total WBCs.

Question 13.
Draw and label the parts of LS of kidney?
Answer:

Question 14.
What are the functions of glucagon?
Answer:
Glucagon is a polypeptide hormone. It is a potent hyperglycaemic hormone that acts on the liver and promotes the breakdown of glycogen to glucose (Glycogenolysis), synthesis of glucose from lactic acid and from non-carbohydrate molecules (gluconeogenesis).

Releases glucose from the liver cells, increasing the blood glucose levels. Since glucagon reduces the cellular uptake and utilisation of glucose it is called a hyperglycemic hormone. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to the disorder called diabetes mellitus.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Bioluminence is advantageous to ctenophores?
Answer:
Ctenophores are exclusively marine. They emit light. It helps the animals in finding food, mate and excape from the predators.

Question 16.
How do earthworms breathe?
Answer:
In earthworms, respiration takes place through the body wall by the moist skin diffusion, oxygen diffuses through the skin into the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood diffuse out.

Question 17.
What is Vermicompost?
Answer:
Vermicompost is the compost produced by the action of earthworms in association with all other organisms in the compost unit.

Question 18.
Differentiate between elastic fibres and elastic connective tissue?
Answer:

S.No	Elastic fibres	Elastic connective tissue
1.	It contains elastin and other proteins and glycoproteins.	It contains high proportion of elastic fibres.
2.	It attaches muscles and bones and one bone to another bone.	It is found in the walls of large arteries, ligaments associated with vertebral column and within the walls of the bronchial tubes.
3.	It withstands tensile stress when pulling force is applied in one direction or in many direction.	It allows recoil of tissues after stretching.

Question 19.
Draw the graph of a normal ECG?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Distinguish between chordates and non – chordates?
Answer:

Chordates	Non – chordates
1. Notochord is present	1. Absence of notochord
2. Dorsal, hollow and single nerve cord	2. Double ventral solid nerve cord
3. Pharynx perforated by gill slits	3. Gill slits absent
4. Heart is ventrally placed .	4. Heart is dorsal or laterally placed or absent
5. A post anal tail is present	5. Post anal tail is absent
6. Alimentary canal placed ventral to the nerve cord	6. Alimentary canal is placed dorsal to the nerve cord

[OR]

Write an essay on digestion of food and role of digestive enzymes?
Answer:
The process of digestion converts the solid food into absorbable and assimilable forms. This is accomplished by mechanical and chemical processes.

Digestion in the buccal cavity:
The smell, sight and taste as well as the mechanical stimulation of food in the mouth, triggers a reflex action which results in the secretion of saliva. The mecnanical digestion starts in the mouth by grinding and chewing of food.

It is called mastication. The saliva contain water, electrolytes (Na⁺, K⁺, Cl^– , HCO₂), salivary amylase (ptyalin), antibacterial agent lysozyme and a lubricating agent mucus (a glycoprotein).

The mucus in saliva prepares the food for swallowing by moistening, softening, lubricating and adhering the masticated food into a bolus. About 30 percent of polysaccharide, starch is hydrolyzed by the salivary amylase enzyme into disaccharides (maltose).

The bolus is then passed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus to the stomach by successive Waves of muscular contraction called peristalsis. The gastro oesphageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach.

Digestion in the stomach:
Food remains in the stomach for 4 to 5 hours, the rhythmic peristaltic movement churns and mixes the food with gastric juice and make it into a creamy liquid called chyme. The gastric secretion is partly controlled by autonomic reflexes. The secretion of gastric juice begins when the food is in the mouth.

The gastric juice contains HCl and proefizymes. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides). The HCl provides an acidic medium (pH 1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrifaction.

The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from the eroding nature of the highly acidic HCl. Another proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants is rennin helps in the digestion of milk protein, caseinogen to casein in the presence of calcium ions.

This enzyme secretion gradually reduces with aging. Digestion in the small intestine: The bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice are the secretions released into the small intestine. Movements generated by the muscularis layer of the small intestine helps in the thorough mixing of the food with various secretions in the intestine and thereby facilitate digestion.

The pancreatic juice contains enzymes such as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, carboxypeptidases, pancreatic amalyses, pancreatic lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the enzyme chymotrypsinogen in the pancreatic juice.

The hile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) as the break down products of hemoglobin of dead RBCs, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but has no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Proteins and partially digested proteins in the chyme on reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice. Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and peptones, while chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids.

The pancreatic amylase converts glycogen and starch into maltose. Lipase acts on emulsified fat (triglycerides) and hydrolyses them into free fatty acid and monoglycerides. Monoglycerides are further hydrolysed to fatty acid and glycerol. Nucleases in the pancreatic juice break the nucleic acid into nucleotides and nucleosides.

The secretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus. The enzymes in the intestinal juice such as maltase, lactase, sucrase (invertase), dipeptidases, lipases, nucleosidases act on the breakdown products of bile and pancreatic digestion.

The mucus along with the bicarbonate ions from the pancreas provides an alkaline medium (pH 7.8) for the enzymatic action. As a result of digestion, all macromolecules of food are converted into their corresponding monomeric units.

• Carbohydrates → monosaccharides
  (glucose, fructose, galactose)
• Proteins → amino acids
• Lipids → fatty acids and glycerol

The simple substances thus formed are absorbed in the jejunum and ileum region of the small intestine. The undigested and unabsorbed substances are propelled into the large intestine.

The activities of the gastro – intestinal tract are carried out by the neural and hormonal control for proper coordination of different parts. Gastric and intestinal secretions are stimulated by neural signals. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by local hormones produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa.

Question 21.
Explain the types of movement?
Answer:
The different types of movements that occur in the cells of our body are amoeboid, ciliary, flagellar and muscular movement.

Amoeboid movement:
Cells such as macrophages exhibit amoeboid movement for engulfing pathogens by pseudopodia formed by the streaming movement of the cytoplasm. Ciliary movement – This type of movement occurs in the respiratory passages and genital tracts which are lined by ciliated epithelial cells.

Flagellar movement:
This type of movement occurs in the cells which are having flagella or whip – like motile organelle. The sperm cells show flagellar movement.

Muscular movement:
The movement of hands, legs, jaws, tongue are caused by the contraction and relaxation of the muscle which is termed as the muscular movement.

[OR]

What are the major hypothalamic hormones and also explain their functions?
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Number of domains of life are there according to Carl Woese
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 2.
Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?
(a) Polio virus
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus
(c) Measles virus
(d) Retrovirus
Answer:
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus

Question 3.
Talipot palm, Bamboo and Agave are examples of …………………….
(a) Polycarpic geophytes
(b) Therophytes
(c) Monocarpic geophytes
(d) Biennial
Answer:
(c) Monocarpic geophytes

Question 4.
The type of inflorescence seen in Caesalpinia is ………………………
(a) Corymb
(b) Compound corymb
(c) Capitulum
(d) Umbel
Answer:
(a) Corymb

Question 5.
Which one of the following organism is correctly matched with its three characteristics?
(a) Pea: C₃ pathway, Endospermic seed,Vexillary aestivation
(b) Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation
(d) Maize: C₃ pathway, Closed vascular bundles, scutellum
Answer:
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

Question 6.
Protoplasm is made of ……………………. water.
(a) 80 – 90%
(b) 85 – 90%
(c) 60 – 80%
(d) 75 – 85%
Answer:
(c) 60 – 80%

Question 7.
The term soilless culture refers to …………………….
(a) Aeroponics
(b) Aqua culture
(c) Hydroponics
(d) Drip irrigation
Answer:
(c) Hydroponics

Question 8.
Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding cyclic photophosphorylation?
(a) The primary electron acceptor is FRS
(b) It produces only ATP molecules
(c) It produces only NADPH + H⁺ molecules
(d) Electrons ejected from PSI again cycled back to PSI
Answer:
(c) It produces only NADPH + H⁺ molecules

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Name few plant disease caused by mycoplasma?
Answer:
Little leaf of brinjal, witches broom of legumes, phyllody of cloves and sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma.

Question 10.
Which leaf part acts a bridge between leaf & stem? Define?
Answer:
Petiole is the bridge between leaf and stem. Petiole or leaf stalk is a cylindrical or subcylindrical or flattened structure of a leaf which joins the lamina with the stem.

Question 11.
Mention any two morphological differences between Dicot & Monocots?
Answer:

S.No	Dicot	Monocots
1.	Leaves show reticulate venation	Leaves show parallel venation
2.	Flowers are tetramerous or pentamerous	Flowers are trimerous

Question 12.
What is the cell wall composition of the following organism?

1. Fungi
2. Bacteria
3. Algae

Answer:

1. Fungi – Chitin and fungal cellulose
2. Bacteria – Peptidoglycan
3. Algae – Cellulose, mannan and galactan

Question 13.
How imbibition is important for plants?
Significance of imbibition:
Answer:

1. During germination of seeds, imbibition increases the volume of seed enormously and leads to bursting of the seed coat.
2. It helps in the absorption of water by roots at the initial level.

Question 14.
How does nitrogen fixation occurs non – biologically?
Non – Biological nitrogen fixation:
Answer:

1. Nitrogen fixation by chemical process in industry.
2. Natural electrical discharge during lightening fixes atmospheric nitrogen.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Name few fungal diseases in Humans?
Answer:

Question 16.
List out any 3 significances of seed?
Answer:

1. The seed encloses and protects the embryo for next generation.
2. Seeds of various plants are used as food, both for animals and human.
3. Seeds are the products of sexual reproduction so they provide genetic variations and recombination in a plant.

Question 17.
Write a note on endosymbiont theory?
Answer:
Two eukaryotic organelles believed to be the descendants of the endosymbiotic prokaryotes. The ancestors of the eukaryotic cell engulfed a bacterium and the bacteria continued to function inside the host cell.

Question 18.
What are sieve tubes? Explain?
Answer:
Sieve Elements:
Sieve elements are the conducting elements of the phloem. They are of two types, namely sieve cells and sieve tubes.

Sieve Cells:
These are primitive type of conducting elements found in Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms. Sieve cdlls have sieve areas on their lateral walls only. They are not associated with companion cells.

Sieve Tubes:
Sieve tubes are long tube like conducting elements in the phloem. These are formed from a series of cells called sieve tube elements. The sieve tube elements are arranged one above the other and form vertical sieve tube.

The end wall contains a number of pores and it looks like a sieve. So it is called as sieve plate. The sieve elements show nacreous thickenings on their lateral walls.

They may possess simple or compound sieve plates. The function of sieve tubes are believed to be controlled by campanion cells. In mature sieve tube, Nucleus is absent. It contains a lining layer of cytoplasm.

A special protein (P. Protein = Phloem Protein) called slime body is seen in it. In mature sieve tubes, the pores in the sieve plate arc blocked by a substance called callosc (callose plug).

The conduction of food material takes place Different types of phloem elements through cytoplasmic strands. Sieve tubes occur only in Angiosperms.

Question 19.
Draw and label the structure of lentical?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
List out the salient features of cyanobacteria?
Answer:

• The members of this group are prokaryotes and lack motile reproductive structures.
• The thallus is unicellular in Chroococcus, colonial in Gloeocapsa and filamentous trichome in Nostoc.
• Gliding movement is noticed in some species (Oscillatorid).
• The protoplasm is differentiated into central region called centroplasm and peripheral region bearing chromatophore called chromoplasm.
• The photosynthetic pigments include c – phydcyanin and c – phycoerythrin along with myxoxanthin and myxoxanthophyll.
• The reserve food material is cyanophycean starch.
• In some forms a large colourless cell is found in the terminal or intercalary position called heterocysts. They are involved in nitrogen fixation.
• They reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce akinetes (thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell), hormogonia (a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division), fission and endospores.
• The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of this group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae.
• Sexual reproduction is absent.
• Microcystis aeruginosa and Anabaena flos – aquae cause water blooms and release toxins and affect the aquatic organism. Most of them fix atmospheric nitrogen and are used as biofertilizers (Example: Nostoc and Anabaena). Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

[OR]

Differentiate between Mitosis and Meiosis?
Answer:

Mitosis	Meiosis
1. One division	1. Two divisions
2. Number of chromosomes remains the same	2. Number of chromosomes is halved
3. Homologous chromosomes line up separately on the metaphase plate	3. Homologous chromosomes line up in pairs at the metaphase plate
4. Homologous chromosome do not pair up	4. Homologous chromosome pairup to form bivalent
5. Chiasmata do not form and crossing over never occurs	5. Chiasmata form and crossingover occurs
6. Daughter cells are genetically identical	6. Daughter cells are genetically different from the parent cells
7. Two daughter cells are formed	7. Four daughter cells are formed

Question 21.
Write in detail about Passive Absorption of minerals salts?
Answer:
Ion-Exchange:
Ions of external soil solution were exchanged with same charged (anion for anion or cation for cation) ions of the root cells. There are two theories explaining this process of ion exchange namely:

1. Contact exchange and
2. Carbonic acid exchange.

1. Contact Exchange Theory:
According to this theory, the ions adsorbed on the surface of root cells and clay particles (or clay micelles) are not held tightly but oscillate within a small volume of space called oscillation volume. Due to small space, both ions overlap each other’s oscillation volume and exchange takes place.

2. Carbonic Acid Exchange Theory:
According to this theory, soil solution plays an important role by acting as a medium for ion exchange. The CO₂ released during respiration of root cells combines with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).

Carbonic acid dissociates into H⁺ and HCO_32^– in the soil solution. These H⁺ ions exchange with cations adsorbed on clay particles and the catipns from micelles get released into soil solution and gets adsorbed on root cells.

[OR]

Give an detail account on different types of senescence?
Answer:
1. Overall senescence:
This kind of senescence occurs in annual plants when entire plant gets affected and dies.
Example: Wheat and Soybean. It also occurs in few perennials also. Example: Agave and Bamboo.

2. Top senescence:
It occurs in aerial parts of plants. It is common in perennials, underground and root system remains viable.
Example: Banana and Gladiolus.

3. Deciduous senescence:
It is common in deciduous plants and occurs only in leaves of plants, bulk of the stem and root system remains alive.
Example: Elm and Maple.

4. Progressive senescence:
This kind of senescence is gradual. First it occurs in old leaves followed by new leaves then stem and finally root system. It is common in annuals.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
True species are …………………….
(a) Inter breeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding on the same food
Answer:
(c) Reproductively isolated

Question 2.
Collar cells are found in ……………………
(a) Aschelminthes
(b) Sponges
(c) Cnidaria
(d) Arthropoda
Answer:
(b) Sponges

Question 3.
Match the List – I and List – II.

List –  I	List – II
1. Adenohypopysis	(i) Epinephrine
2. Adrenal medulla	(ii) Somatotropin
3. Parathyroid gland	(iii) Thymosin
4. Thymus gland	(iv) Calcitonin

Answer:
(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)

Question 4.
BMR stands for ……………………….
(a) Body matabolic rate
(b) Basal matabolic rate
(c) Body mass rate
(d) Basal mass rate
Answer:
(b) Basal matabolic rate

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct ………………………….
(a) Testosterone is produced by leyding cells under the influence Luteinizing hormone.
(b) Progesterorie is secreted by corpus luteum.
(c) Oestrogen is secreted by Sertolic cells.
(d) Progesterone produced by Corpus Luteum is biologically different from the one produced by placenta.
Answer:
(a) Testosterone is produced by leyding cells under the influence Luteinizing hormone.

Question 6.
Which of the following pair statement is incorrect?
(a) Humans – ureotelic
(b) Birds – uricotelic
(c) Lizards – uricotelic
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic
Answer:
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic

Question 7.
Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called as ………………………..
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(b) Gout
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Osteomalacia
Answer:
(b) Gout

Question 8.
The olfactory umpulses are transmitted to the ………………………. lobe of brain.
(a) Parietal
(b) Temporal
(c) Occipital
(d) Frontal
Answer:
(d) Frontal

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Regeneration?
Answer:
The ability to regrow the lost parts is called regeneration eg. planaria.

Question 10.
What are the functions of Tapetum lucidum?
Answer:
A reflective layer of tissue called tapetum lucidum, enhances night time vision in most of the animals like cat.

Question 11.
Give an example for longest species of earthworm?
Answer:
Microchaetus rappi is an African giant earthworm, can reach a length of 6.7 meter (22 feet). Drawida nilamburansis is a south Indian (Kerala) species of earthworm and can reach a maximum length up to f meter (3 feet).

Question 12.
Differences between frog and toad?
Answer:

Question 13.
Brief notes on spinal nerves?
Answer:
Spinal nerves:
31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge out from the spinal cord through spaces called the intervertebral foramina found between the adjacent vertebrae. The spinal nerves are named according to the region of vertebral column from which they originate

1. Cervical nerves (8 pairs)
2. Thoracic nerves (12 pairs)
3. Lumbar nerves (5 pairs)
4. Sacral nerves (5 pairs)
5. Coccygeal nerves (1 pair)

Each spinal nerve is a mixed nerve containing both afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) fibres. It originates as two roots:

1. A posterior dorsal root with a ganglion outside the spinal cord and
2. An anterior ventral root with no external ganglion.

Question 14.
Draw the structure of Nephron?
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is phylogenetic classification or cladistics?
Answer:
The classification of organisms based on evolutionary and genetic relationship among them is known as phylogenetic classification.

Question 16.
Compare Schizocoelom with Enterocoelom?
Answer:

Schizocoelom	Enterocoelom
1. The coelom which is formed by splitting of mesoderm is called Schizocoelom.	1. The coelom which is formed from the mesodermal pouches of archenteron is called entercoelom.
2. It is found in lower vertebrates like annelids, arthopods, molluscs.	2. It is found in echinodermis, hemichordates and chordates.

Question 17.
Head of cockroach is called hypognathous. why?
Answer:
The mouth parts of cockroach are directed downwards. The head is small, triangular lies at right angle to the longitudinal body axis. Hence it is called hypognatus.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram and label the parts of micro villi?
Answer:

Question 19.
What are the advantages of artificial insemination?
Answer:

1. It increases the rate of conception
2. It avoids genital diseases
3. Semen can be collected from injured bulls which have desirable traits
4. Superior animals located apart can be bred successfully

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write brief notes on Diploblastic and Triploblastic organisation with example?
Answer:
During embryonic development, the tissues and organs of animals originate from two or three embryonic germ layers. On the basis of the origin and development, animals are classified into two categories: Diploblastic and Triploblastic.

Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the external ectoderm, and internal endoderm are called diploblastic animals. In these animals the ectoderm gives rise to the epidermis (the outer layer of the body wall) and endoderm gives rise to gastrodermis (tissue lining the gut cavity). An undifferentiated layer present between the ectoderm and endoderm is the mesoglea. (Corals, Jellyfish, Sea anemone)

Animals in which the developing embryo has three germinal layers are called triploblastic animals and consists of outer ectoderm (skin, hair, neuron, nail, teeth, etc), inner endoderm (gut, lung, liver) and middle mesoderm (muscle, bone, heart). Most of the triploblastic animals show organ system level of organisation (Flat worms to Chordates).

[OR]

Explain the reproductive system of frog?
Answer:
Reproductive system:
The male frog has a pair of testes which are attached to the kidney and the dorsal body wall by folds of peritonium called mesorchium. Vasa efferentia arise from each testis. They enter the kidneys on both side and open into the bladder canal. Finally, it communicates with the urinogenital duct that comes out of kidneys and opens into the cloaca.

Female reproductive system consists of paired ovaries, attached to the kidneys, and dorsal body wall by folds of peritoneum called mesovarium. There is a pair of coiled oviducts lying on the sides of the kidney. Each oviduct opens into the body-cavity at the anterior end by a funnel like opening called ostia.

Unlike the male frog, the female frog has separate genital ducts distinct from ureters. Posteriorly the oviducts dilated to form ovisacs before they open into cloaca. Ovisacs store the eggs temporarily before they are sent out through the cloaca. Fertilization is external.

Within few days of fertilization, the eggs hatch into tadpoles. A newly hatched tadpole lives off the yolk stored in its body. It gradually grows larger and develops three pairs of gills.

The tadpole grows and metamorphosis into an air – breathing carnivorous adult frog. Legs grow from the body, and the tail and gills disappear. The mouth broadens, developing teeth and jaws, and the lungs become functional.

Question 21.
What are the disorders related to the excretory system?
Answer:
Urinary tract infection:
Female’s urethra is very short and its external opening is close to the anal opening, hence improper toilet habits can easily carry faecal bacteria into the urethra. The urethral mucosa is continuous with the urinary tract and the inflammation of the urethra (urethritis) can ascend the tract to cause bladder inflammation (cystitis) or even renal inflammation (pyelitis or pyelonephritis).

Symptoms include dysuria (painful urination), urinary urgency, fever and sometimes cloudy or blood tinged urine. When the kidneys are inflammed, back pain and severe headache often occur. Most urinary tract infections can be treated by antibiotics.

Renal Failure (Kidney Failure):
Failure of the kidneys to excrete wastes may lead to accumulation of urea with marked reduction in the urine output. Renal failure are of two types, Acute and chronic renal failure.

In acute renal failure the kidney stops its function abruptly, but there are chances for recovery of kidney functions. In chronic renal failure there is a progressive loss of function of the nephrons which gradually decreases the function of kidneys.

Uremia:
Uremia is characterized by increase in urea and other non – protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine in blood. Normal urea level in human blood is about 17 – 30mg/100mL of blood. The urea concentration rises as 10 times of normal levels during chronic renal failure.

Renal calculi:
Renal calculi, also called renal stone or kidney stone or nephrolithiasis, is the formation of hard stone like masses in the renal tubules of renal pelvis.

It is mainly due to the accumulation of soluble crystals of salts of sodium oxalates and certain phosphates. This result in severe pain called “renal colic pain” and can cause scars in the kidneys. Renal stones can be removed by techniques like pyleothotomy or lithotripsy.

Glomerulonephritis:
It is also called Bright’s disease and is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli of both kidneys and is usually due to post-streptococcal infection that occurs in children. Symptoms are haematuria, proteinuria, salt and water retention, oligouria, hypertension and pulmonary oedema.

[OR]

Describe the life cycle of Bombyx mori?
Answer:
Life cycle of Bombyx mori:
The adult of Bombyx mori is about 2.5 cm in length and pale creamy white in colour. Due to heavy body and feeble wings, flight is not possible by the female moth.

This moth is unisexual in nature and does not feed during its very short life period of 2 – 3 days. Just after emergence, male moth copulates with female for about 2 – 3 hours and if not separated, they may die after few hours of copulating with female.

Just after copulation, female starts egg laying which is completed in 1-24 hours. A single female moth lays 400 to 500 eggs depending upon the climatic conditions.

Two types of eggs are generally found namely diapause type and non-diapause type. The diapause type is laid by silkworms inhabiting the temperate regions, whereas silkworms belonging to subtropical regions like India lay non – diapause type of eggs.

The eggs after ten days of incubation hatch into larva called as caterpillar. The newly hatched caterpillar is about 3 mm in length and is pale, yellowish-white in colour. The caterpillars are provided with well developed mandibulate type of mouth-parts adapted to feed easily on the mulberry leaves.

After 1^st, 2^2nd, 3^rd and 4^th moultings caterpillars get transformed into 2^nd, 3^rd, 4^th and 5^th instars respectively. It takes about 21 to 25 days after hatching. The fully grown caterpillar is 7.5 cm in length. It develops salivary glands, stops feeding and undergoes pupation.

The caterpillars stop feeding and move towards the comer among the leaves and secretes a sticky fluid through their silk gland. The secreted fluid comes out through spinneret (a narrow pore situated on the hypopharynx) and takes the form of long fine thread of silk which hardens on exposure to air and is wrapped around the body of caterpillar in the forms of a covering called as cocoon.

It is the white coloured bed of the pupa whose outer threads are irregular while the inner threads are regular. The length of continuous thread secreted by a caterpillar for the formation of cocoon is about 1000 – 1200 metres which requires 3 days to complete. The pupal period lasts for 10 to 12 days and the pupae cut through the cocoon and emerge into adult moth.