Category: Class 11

Subject Matter Experts at SamacheerKalvi.Guide have created Tamil Nadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths and Statistics Book Answers Solutions Guide Pdf Free Download of Volume 1 and Volume 2 in English Medium and Tamil Medium are part of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Books Solutions.

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Book Back Answers Solutions Guide Volume 1 and Volume 2.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Book Volume 1 Solutions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants

• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1
• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.2
• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3
• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4
• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5

11th Business Maths Book Back Answers Chapter 2 Algebra

• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.1
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.2
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.3
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.4
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.5
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.6
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.7

11th Business Maths Solution Book Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry

• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.1
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.2
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.3
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.4
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.5
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.6
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.7

11th Samacheer Business Maths Book Chapter 4 Trigonometry

• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.1
• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.2
• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.3
• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.4
• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.5

11th Business Maths Guide Volume 1 Chapter 5 Differential Calculus

• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.1
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.2
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.3
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.4
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.5
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.6
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.7
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.8
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.9
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.10

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Book Volume 2 Solutions

11th Business Maths Guide Volume 2 Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation

• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.1
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.2
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.3
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.4
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.5
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.6

TN 11th Business Maths Solution Book Chapter 7 Financial Mathematics

• Chapter 7 Financial Mathematics Ex 7.1
• Chapter 7 Financial Mathematics Ex 7.2
• Chapter 7 Financial Mathematics Ex 7.3

11th Std Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 8 Descriptive Statistics and Probability

• Chapter 8 Descriptive Statistics and Probability Ex 8.1
• Chapter 8 Descriptive Statistics and Probability Ex 8.2
• Chapter 8 Descriptive Statistics and Probability Ex 8.3

11th Business Maths Book Answer Key Chapter 9 Correlation and Regression Analysis

• Chapter 9 Correlation and Regression Analysis Ex 9.1
• Chapter 9 Correlation and Regression Analysis Ex 9.2
• Chapter 9 Correlation and Regression Analysis Ex 9.3

11th Business Maths Book Pdf Chapter 10 Operations Research

• Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.1
• Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.2
• Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.3

We hope these Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi Class 11th Business Maths Book Solutions Answers Guide Volume 1 and Volume 2 Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Tamil Medium will help you get through your subjective questions in the exam.

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Students can download 11th Business Maths Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The technology matrix of an economic system of two industries is \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0.50 & 0.30 \\
0.41 & 0.33
\end{array}\right]\). Test whether the system is viable as per Hawkins Simon conditions.
Solution:
Technology matrix B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0.50 & 0.30 \\
0.41 & 0.33
\end{array}\right]\)
I – B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]-\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0.50 & 0.30 \\
0.41 & 0.33
\end{array}\right]\)
= \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
0.50 & -0.30 \\
-0.41 & 0.67
\end{array}\right]\), the main diagonal elements are positive.
|I – B| = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
0.50 & -0.30 \\
-0.41 & 0.67
\end{array}\right]\)
= 0.335 – 0.123
= 0.212, positive
Since the main diagonal elements of I – B are positive and |I – B| is positive, Hawkins-Simon conditions are satisfied. Therefore, the given system is viable.

Question 2.
The technology matrix of ah economic system of two industries is \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
0.6 & 0.9 \\
0.20 & 0.80
\end{array}\right]\). Test whether the system is viable as per Hawkins-Simon conditions.
Solution:
Technology matrix B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0.60 & 0.9 \\
0.20 & 0.80
\end{array}\right]\)
I – B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]-\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0.60 & 0.9 \\
0.20 & 0.80
\end{array}\right]\)
= \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
0.4 & -0.9 \\
-0.20 & 0.20
\end{array}\right]\), the main diagonal elements are positive.
|I – B| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
0.4 & -0.9 \\
-0.20 & 0.20
\end{array}\right|\)
= 0.4 × 0.20 – (-0.20) × (-0.9)
= 0.08 – 0.18
= -0.1, negative
Since |I – B| is negative one of the Hawkins-Simon condition is not satisfied. Therefore, the given system is not viable.

Question 3.
The technology matrix of an economic system of two industries is \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0.50 & 0.25 \\
0.40 & 0.67
\end{array}\right]\). Test whether the system is viable as per Hawkins-Simon conditions.
Solution:
Technology matrix B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0.50 & 0.25 \\
0.40 & 0.67
\end{array}\right]\)
I – B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]-\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0.50 & 0.25 \\
0.40 & 0.67
\end{array}\right]\)
= \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
0.50 & -0.25 \\
-0.40 & 0.33
\end{array}\right]\), the main diagonal elements are positive.
|I – B| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
0.50 & -0.25 \\
-0.40 & 0.33
\end{array}\right|\)
= (0.50) (0.33) – (-0.40) (-0.25)
= 0.165 – 0.1
= 0.065 (positive)
Since the main diagonal elements of I – B are positive and |I – B| is positive, Hawkins-Simon conditions are satisfied. Therefore, the given system is viable.

Question 4.
Two commodities A and B are produced such that 0.4 tonne of A and 0.7 tonnes of B are required to produce a tonnes of A. Similarly 0.1 tonne of A and 0.7 tonne of B are needed to produce a tonnes of B. Write down the technology matrix. If 6.8 tonnes of A and 10.2 tones of B are required, find the gross production of both of them.
Solution:
Here the technology matrix is given under

The technology matrix is B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0.4 & 0.1 \\
0.7 & 0.7
\end{array}\right]\)
I – B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]-\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0.4 & 0.1 \\
0.7 & 0.7
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
0.6 & -0.1 \\
-0.7 & 0.3
\end{array}\right]\)
|I – B| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
0.6 & -0.1 \\
-0.7 & 0.3
\end{array}\right|\)
= (0.6) (0.3) – (-0.1) (-0.7)
= 0.18 – 0.07
= 0.11
Since the main diagonal elements of I – B are positive and the value of |I – B| is positive, the system is viable.

Production of A is 27.82 tonnes and the production of B is 98.91 tonnes.

Question 5.
Suppose the inter-industry flow of the product of two industries is given as under.

Determine the technology matrix and test Hawkin’s-Simon conditions for the viability of the system. If the domestic changes to 80 and 40 units respectively, what should be the gross output of each sector in order to meet the new demands.
Solution:


The technology matrix B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
\frac{1}{4} & \frac{2}{3} \\
\frac{1}{6} & \frac{1}{6}
\end{array}\right]\)
I – B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]-\left[\begin{array}{ll}
\frac{1}{4} & \frac{2}{3} \\
\frac{1}{6} & \frac{1}{6}
\end{array}\right]\)
= \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
\frac{3}{4} & -\frac{2}{3} \\
-\frac{1}{6} & \frac{5}{6}
\end{array}\right]\), elements of main diagonal are positive.

The main diagonal elements of I – B are positive and |I – B| is positive. Therefore the system is viable.

The output of industry X should be 181.62 and Y should be 84.32.

Question 6.
You are given the following transaction matrix for a two-sector economy.

(i) Write the technology matrix?
(ii) Determine the output when the final demand for the output sector 1 alone increases to 23 units.
Solution:


The main diagonal elements are positive and |I – B| is positive. Therefore the system is viable.

X = (I – B)^-1D, where

The output of sector 1 should be 34.16 and sector 2 should be 17.31.

Question 7.
Suppose the inter-industry flow of the product of two Sectors X and Y are given as under.

Find the gross output when the domestic demand changes to 12 for X and 18 for Y.
Solution:


Since the main diagonal elements of I – B are positive and |I – B| is positive the problem has a solution.

Students can download 11th Business Maths Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Solve by matrix inversion method: 2x + 3y – 5 = 0; x – 2y + 1 = 0.
Solution:
2x + 3y = 5
x – 2y = -1
The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
5 \\
-1
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{r}
5 \\
-1
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right|\) = -4 – 3 = -7 ≠ 0
∴ A^-1 Exists.

∴ x = 1, y = 1

Question 2.
Solve by matrix inversion method:
(i) 3x – y + 2z = 13; 2x + y – z = 3; x + 3y – 5z = -8
(ii) x – y + 2z = 3; 2x + z = 1; 3x + 2y + z = 4
(iii) 2x – z = 0; 5x + y = 4; y + 3z = 5
Solution:
(i) The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & 3 & -5
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
13 \\
3 \\
-8
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
Where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & 3 & -5
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{r}
13 \\
3 \\
-8
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & 3 & -5
\end{array}\right|\)
= 3(-5 + 3) – (-1) (-10 + 1) + 2 (6 – 1)
= 3(-2) + 1(-9) + 2(5)
= -6 – 9 + 10
= -5




\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
3 \\
-2 \\
1
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ x = 3, y = -2, z = 1.

(ii) The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
3 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
3 \\
1 \\
4
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
3 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
3 \\
1 \\
4
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
3 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right|\)
= 1(0 – 2) – (-1)(2 – 3) + 2(4 – 0)
= -2 – (-1)(-1) + 2(4)
= -2 – 1 + 8
= 5



\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
-1 \\
2 \\
3
\end{array}\right]\)
x = -1, y = 2, z = 3.

(iii) The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 0 & -1 \\
5 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
0 \\
4 \\
5
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
Where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 0 & -1 \\
5 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
0 \\
4 \\
5
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 0 & -1 \\
5 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
= 2(3 – 0) – 0(15 – 0) – 1(5 – 0)
= 2(3) – 0(15) – 1(5)
= 6 – 0 – 5
= 1


∴ x = 1, y = -1, z = 2.

Question 3.
A salesperson Ravi has the following record of sales for the month of January, February, and March 2009 for three products A, B, and C. He has been paid a commission at a fixed rate per unit but at varying rates for products A, B and C.

Find the rate of commission payable on A, B and C per unit sold using matrix inversion method.
Solution:
Let x, y and z be the rate of commission for the three products A, B and C respectively.
9x + 10y + 2z = 800
15x + 5y + 4z = 900
6x + 10y + 3z = 850
The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
9 & 10 & 2 \\
15 & 5 & 4 \\
6 & 10 & 3
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
800 \\
900 \\
850
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
Where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
9 & 10 & 2 \\
15 & 5 & 4 \\
6 & 10 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
800 \\
900 \\
850
\end{array}\right]\)
Now, |A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
9 & 10 & 2 \\
15 & 5 & 4 \\
6 & 10 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
= \(9\left|\begin{array}{rr}
5 & 4 \\
10 & 3
\end{array}\right|-10\left|\begin{array}{rr}
15 & 4 \\
6 & 3
\end{array}\right|+2\left|\begin{array}{rr}
15 & 5 \\
6 & 10
\end{array}\right|\)
= 9[15 – 40] – 10(45 – 24) + 2(150 – 30)
= 9[-25] – 10[21] + 2[120]
= -225 – 210 + 240
= -195


\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
17.948 \\
43.0769 \\
103.846
\end{array}\right]\)
\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
17.95 \\
43.08 \\
103.85
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ x = 17.95, y = 43.08, z = 103.85
The rate of commission of A, B and C are 17.95, 43.08 and 103.85 respectively.

Question 4.
The prices of three commodities A, B, and C are ₹ x, y, and z per unit respectively. P purchases 4 units of C and sells 3 units of A and 5 units of B. Q purchases 3 units of B and sells 2 units of A and 1 unit of C. R purchases 1 unit of A and sells 4 units of B and 6 units of C. In the process P, Q and R earn ₹ 6,000, ₹ 5,000 and ₹ 13,000 respectively. By using the matrix inversion method, find the prices per unit of A, B, and C.
Solution:
Take selling the units js positive earning and buying the units is negative earning.
Given that
3x + 5y – 4z = 6000
2x – 3y + z = 5000
-1x + 4y + 6z = 13000

The given statement can be written as
\(\left(\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & 5 & -4 \\
2 & -3 & 1 \\
-1 & 4 & 6
\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{r}
6000 \\
5000 \\
13000
\end{array}\right)\)
AX = B
Where A = \(\left(\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & 5 & -4 \\
2 & -3 & 1 \\
-1 & 4 & 6
\end{array}\right)\), X = \(\left(\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right)\) and B = \(\left(\begin{array}{r}
6000 \\
5000 \\
13000
\end{array}\right)\)
X = A^-1B
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & 5 & -4 \\
2 & -3 & 1 \\
-1 & 4 & 6
\end{array}\right|\)
= 3(-18 – 4) – 5(12 + 1) – 4(8 – 3)
= 3(-22) – 5(13) – 4(5)
= -66 – 65 – 20
= -151


\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
3000 \\
1000 \\
2000
\end{array}\right]\)
The prices per unit of A, B and C are ₹ 3000, ₹ 1000 and ₹ 2000.

Question 5.
The sum of three numbers is 20. If we multiply the first by 2 and add the second number and subtract the third we get 23. If we multiply the first by 3 and add second and third to it, we get 46. By using the matrix inversion method find the numbers.
Solution:
Let the three numbers be x, y, and z.
x + y + z = 20
2x + y – z = 23
3x + y + z = 46
The given system can be written as




The numbers are 13, 2, and 5.

Question 6.
Weekly expenditure in an office for three weeks is given as follows. Assuming that the salary in all three weeks of different categories of staff did not vary, calculate the salary for each type of staff, using the matrix inversion method.

Solution:
Let ₹ x, ₹ y, ₹ z be the salary for each type of staff A, B and C.
4x + 2y + 3z = 4900
3x + 3y + 2z = 4500
4x + 3y + 4z = 5800
The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
4 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & 3 & 2 \\
4 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
4900 \\
4500 \\
5800
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
4 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & 3 & 2 \\
4 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{c}
4900 \\
4500 \\
5800
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
4 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & 3 & 2 \\
4 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right|\)
= 4(12 – 6) – 2(12 – 8) + 3(9 – 12)
= 4(6) – 2(4) + 3(-3)
= 24 – 8 – 9
= 7




\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
700 \\
600 \\
300
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ Salary for each type of staff A, B and C are ₹ 700, ₹ 600 and ₹ 300.

Students can download 11th Business Maths Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.2 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.2 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the adjoint of the matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 3 \\
1 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
Solution:
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 3 \\
1 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
Adj A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
4 & -3 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 2.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 3 & 3 \\
1 & 4 & 3 \\
1 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) then verify that A(adj A) = |A| I and also find A^-1.
Solution:
Given A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 3 & 3 \\
1 & 4 & 3 \\
1 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 3 & 3 \\
1 & 4 & 3 \\
1 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right|\)
= \(1\left|\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 3 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right|-3\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 3 \\
1 & 4
\end{array}\right|+3\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 4 \\
1 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
= 1[16 – 9] – 3[4 – 3] + 3[3 – 4]
= 1(7) – 3(1) + 3(-1)
= 7 – 3 – 3
= 1



From (1) and (2), A(Adj A) = |A| I

Question 3.
Find the inverse of each of the following matrices:
(i) \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
1 & -1 \\
2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
(ii) \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 1 \\
-1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
(iii) \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
0 & 2 & 4 \\
0 & 0 & 5
\end{array}\right]\)
(iv) \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-3 & -5 & 4 \\
-2 & 3 & -1 \\
1 & -4 & -6
\end{array}\right]\)
Solution:
(i) \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
1 & -1 \\
2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)

(ii) \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 1 \\
-1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)

(iii) \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
0 & 2 & 4 \\
0 & 0 & 5
\end{array}\right]\)

(iv) \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-3 & -5 & 4 \\
-2 & 3 & -1 \\
1 & -4 & -6
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 4.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -6
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
-1 & 4 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\), then verify adj(AB) = (adj B) (adj A).
Solution:


From (1) and (2), adj (AB) = (adj B) (adj A)

Question 5.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & -2 & 2 \\
2 & 3 & 0 \\
9 & 1 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) then, show that (adj A) A = O.
Solution:

Question 6.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-1 & 2 & -2 \\
4 & -3 & 4 \\
4 & -4 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) then, show that the inverse of A is A itself.
Solution:


∴ A^-1 = A
Hence proved.

Question 7.
If A^-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 0 & 3 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & -1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) then, find A.
Solution:
Given A^-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 0 & 3 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & -1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
We know that (A^-1)^-1 = A
So we have to find inverse of A^-1

Question 8.
Show that the matrices A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
2 & 2 & 1 \\
1 & 3 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
\frac{4}{5} & \frac{-2}{5} & \frac{-1}{5} \\
\frac{-1}{5} & \frac{3}{5} & \frac{-1}{5} \\
\frac{-1}{5} & \frac{-2}{5} & \frac{4}{5}
\end{array}\right]\) are inverses of each other.
Solution:
To prove that A and B are inverses of each other.
We have to prove that AB = BA = I.


Thus AB = BA = I
Hence A and B are inverses of each other.

Question 9.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 7 \\
2 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
6 & 8 \\
7 & 9
\end{array}\right]\), then verify that (AB)^-1 = B^-1A^-1
Solution:

Now we will find B^-1A^-1


From (1) and (2), (AB)^-1 = B^-1A^-1

Question 10.
Find λ if the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 1 & 3 \\
2 & \lambda & 4 \\
9 & 7 & 11
\end{array}\right]\) has no inverse.
Solution:

1[11λ – 28] – 1[22 – 36] + 3[14 – 9λ] = 0
11λ – 28 + 14 + 42 – 27λ = 0
-16λ + 28 = 0
-16λ = -28
λ = \(\frac{-28}{-16}=\frac{7}{4}\)

Question 11.
If X = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
8 & -1 & -3 \\
-5 & 1 & 2 \\
10 & -1 & -4
\end{array}\right]\) and Y = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 1 & -1 \\
0 & 2 & 1 \\
5 & p & q
\end{array}\right]\) then, find p, q if Y = X^-1
Solution:
Given that Y is the inverse of X.
∴ XY = I

6 – 3p = 0 and -9 – 3q = 0
6 = 3p and -9 = 3q
∴ p = 2; q = -3

Students can download 11th Business Maths Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the minors and cofactors of all the elements of the following determinants.
(i) \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
5 & 20 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}\right|\)
(ii) \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -3 & 2 \\
4 & -1 & 2 \\
3 & 5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\)
Solution:
(i) \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
5 & 20 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}\right|\)
Minor of 5 = M₁₁ = -1
Minor of 20 = M₁₂ = 0
Minor of 0 = M₂₁ = 20
Minor of -1 = M₂₂ = 5
Cofactor of 5 = A₁₁ = (-1)¹⁺¹ M₁₁ = 1 × -1 = -1
Cofactor of 20 = A₁₂ = (-1)¹⁺² M₁₂ = -1 × 0 = 0
Cofactor of 0 = A₂₁ = (-1)²⁺¹ M₂₁ = -1 × 20 = -20
Cofactor of -1 = A₂₂ = (-1)²⁺² M₂₂ = 1 × 5 = 5

(ii) \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -3 & 2 \\
4 & -1 & 2 \\
3 & 5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\)
Minor of 1 is M₁₁ = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
-1 & 2 \\
5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = -2 – 10 = -12
Minor of -3 is M₁₂ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 2 \\
3 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = 8 – 6 = 2
Minor of 2 is M₁₃ = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
4 & -1 \\
3 & 5
\end{array}\right|\) = 20 + 3 = 23
Minor of 4 is M₂₁ = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
-3 & 2 \\
5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = -6 – 10 = -16
Minor of -1 is M₂₂ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 2 \\
3 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = 2 – 6 = -4
Minor of 2 is M₂₃ = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
1 & -3 \\
3 & 5
\end{array}\right|\) = 5 + 9 = 14
Minor of 3 is M₃₁ = \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
-3 & 2 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = -6 + 2 = -4
Minor of 5 is M₃₂ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 2 \\
4 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = 2 – 8 = -6
Minor of 2 is M₃₃ = \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -3 \\
4 & -1
\end{array}\right|\) = -1 + 12 = 11
Cofactor of 1 is A₁₁ = (-1)¹⁺¹ M₁₁ = -12
Cofactor of -3 is A₁₂ = (-1)¹⁺² M₁₂ = -2
Cofactor of 2 is A₁₃ = (-1)¹⁺³ M₁₃ = 23
Cofactor of 4 is A₂₁ = (-1)²⁺¹ M₂₁ = -1 × -16 = 16
Cofactor of -1 is A₂₂ = (-1)²⁺² M₂₂ = -4
Cofactor of 2 is A₂₃ = (-1)²⁺³ M₂₃ = -14
Cofactor of 3 is A₃₁ = (-1)³⁺¹ M₃₁ = -4
Cofactor of 5 is A₃₂ = (-1)³⁺² M₃₂ = -1 × -6 = 6
Cofactor of 2 is A₃₃ = (-1)³⁺³ M₃₃ = 11

Question 2.
Evaluate \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -2 & 4 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
Solution:

= 3(0 – 2) + 2(6 – 1) + 4(4 – 0)
= -6 + 10 + 16
= 20

Question 3.
Solve: \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
2 & x & 3 \\
4 & 1 & 6 \\
1 & 2 & 7
\end{array}\right|=0\)
Solution:

2(7 – 12) – x(28 – 6) + 3(8 – 1) = 0
2(-5) – x(22) + 3(7) = 0
-10 – 22x + 21 = 0
-22x + 11 = 0
-22x = -11
x = \(\frac{-11}{-22}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 4.
Find |AB| if A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & -1 \\
2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 0 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\)
Solution:

∴ |AB| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
8 & 2 \\
7 & -2
\end{array}\right|\) = -16 – 14 = -30

Question 5.
Solve: \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
7 & 4 & 11 \\
-3 & 5 & x \\
-x & 3 & 1
\end{array}\right|=0\)
Solution:

7(5 – 3x) – 4(-3 + x²) + 11(-9 + 5x) = 0
35 – 21x + 12 – 4x² – 99 + 55x = 0
-4x² – 21x + 55x + 35 + 12 – 99 = 0
-4x² + 34x – 52 = 0

Divide throughout by -2 we get
2x² – 17x + 26 = 0
(2x – 13) (x – 2) = 0
2x – 13 = 0 (or) x – 2 = 0
x = \(\frac{13}{2}\) (or) x = 2
∴ x = \(\frac{13}{2}\), x = 2

Question 6.
Evaluate: \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & a & a^{2}-b c \\
1 & b & b^{2}-c a \\
1 & c & c^{2}-a b
\end{array}\right|\)
Solution:
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & a & a^{2}-b c \\
1 & b & b^{2}-c a \\
1 & c & c^{2}-a b
\end{array}\right|\)

Question 7.
Prove that \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
\frac{1}{a} & b c & b+c \\
\frac{1}{b} & c a & c+a \\
\frac{1}{c} & a b & a+b
\end{array}\right|=0\)
Solution:
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
\frac{1}{a} & b c & b+c \\
\frac{1}{b} & c a & c+a \\
\frac{1}{c} & a b & a+b
\end{array}\right|\)

Hence proved.

Question 8.
Prove that \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
-a^{2} & a b & a c \\
a b & -b^{2} & b c \\
a c & b c & -c^{2}
\end{array}\right|=4 a^{2} b^{2} c^{2}\)
Solution:
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
-a^{2} & a b & a c \\
a b & -b^{2} & b c \\
a c & b c & -c^{2}
\end{array}\right|\)

= a²b²c² [-(0 – 4) + 0 + 0]
= 4a²b²c²

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 12 Mathematical Methods for Economics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Mathematical Methods for Economics

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Mathematical Methods for Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Mathematical Economics is the integration of ………………………
(a) Mathematics and Economics
(b) Economics and Statistics
(c) Economics and Equations
(d) Graphs and Economics
Answer:
(a) Mathematics and Economics

Question 2.
The construction of demand line or supply line is the result of using ……………………..
(a) Matrices
(b) Calculus
(c) Algebra
(d) Analytical Geometry
Answer:
(d) Analytical Geometry

Question 3.
The first person used the mathematics in Economics is ……………………..
(a) Sir William Petty
(b) Giovanni Ceva
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Irving Fisher
Answer:
(b) Giovanni Ceva

Question 4.
Function with single independent variable is known as ……………………..
(a) Multivariate Function
(b) Bivariate Function
(c) Univariate Function
(d) Polynomial Function
Answer:
(c) Univariate Function

Question 5.
A statement of equality between two quantities is called ………………………
(a) Inequality
(b) Equality
(c) Equations
(d) Functions
Answer:
(c) Equations

Question 6.
An incremental change in dependent variable with respect to change in independent variable is known as ………………………
(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Variant
(d) Constant
Answer:
(a) Slope

Question 7.
(y – y₁) = m(x-x₁) gives the ……………………….
(a) Slope
(b) Straight line
(c) Constant
(d) Curve
Answer:
(b) Straight line

Question 8.
Suppose D = 50 – 5P. When D is zero then ………………………….
(a) P is 10
(b) P is 20
(c) P is 5
(d) P is -10
Answer:
(a) P is 10

Question 9.
Suppose D = 150 – 5P. Then, the slope is ………………………
(a) -5
(b) 50
(c) 5
(d) -50
Answer:
(d) -50

Question 10.
Suppose determinant of a matrix ∆ = 0, then the solution ……………………..
(a) Exists
(b) Does not exist
(c) Is infinity
(d) Is zero
Answer:
(b) Does not exist

Question 11.
State of rest is a point termed as ………………………
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Non – Equilibrium
(c) Minimum Point
(d) Maximum Point
Answer:
(a) Equilibrium

Question 12.
Differentiation of constant term gives ……………………..
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Infinity
(d) Non-infinity
Answer:
(b) Zero

Question 13.
Differentiation of xⁿ is ………………………
(a) nx^(n-1)
(b) nx⁽ⁿ⁺¹⁾
(c) Zero
(d) One
Answer:
(a) nx^(n-1)

Question 14.
Fixed Cost is the ……………………. term in cost function represented in mathematical form.
(a) Middle
(b) Price
(c) Quantity
(d) Constant
Answer:
(d) Constant

Question 15.
The first differentiation of Total Revenue function gives ………………………..
(a) Average Revenue
(b) Profit
(c) Marginal Revenue
(d) Zero
Answer:
(c) Marginal Revenue

Question 16.
The elasticity of demand is the ratio of ……………………….
(a) Marginal demand function and Revenue function
(b) Marginal demand function to Average demand function
(c) Fixed and variable revenues
(d) Marginal Demand function and Total demand function
Answer:
(b) Marginal demand function to Average demand function

Question 17.
If x + y = 5 and x – y = 3 then, Value of x ………………………
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 16
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 18.
Integration is the reverse process of ……………………….
(a) Difference
(b) Mixing
(c) Amalgamation
(d) Differentiation
Answer:
(d) Differentiation

Question 19.
Data processing is done by ……………………….
(a) PC alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both PC and Calculator
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Both PC and Calculator

Question 20.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for ………………………
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) Getting new slide
(d) Deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) Getting new slide

PART – B

Answer the following Questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
1f 62 = 34 + 4x what is x?
Answer:
62 – 34 = 4x
⇒ 28 = 4x
28 ÷ 4 = x
∴ x = 7

Question 2.
Given the demand function q = 150 – 3p, derive a function for MR?
Answer:
Demand function q = 150 – 3p
\(\frac{dq}{dp}\) = -3

Question 3.
Find the average cost function where TC = 60+ 10x + 15x²
Answer:
TC = 60 + 10x +15x²
Average Cost = \(\frac { TC }{ x }\)
= \(\frac{60+10 x+15 x^{2}}{x}\)
= \(\frac { 60 }{ x }\) + \(\frac { 10x }{ x }\) + \(\frac{15 x^{2}}{x}\)
AC = \(\frac { 60 }{ x }\) + 10 + 15x

Question 4.
The demand function is given by x = 20 – 2p – p² where p and x are the prices and the quantity respectively. Find the elasticity of demand for p = 2.5?
Answer:
e_d = \(\frac{p}{x}\) \(\frac{dx}{dp}\)
\(\frac{dx}{dp}\) = -2-2p

Question 5.
Suppose the price p and quantity q of a commodity are related by the equation q = 30 – 4p – p² find
(I) e_d at p = 2
(II) MR
Answer:
(I)

(II) MR – [Marginal Revenue]
MR = \(\frac{dq}{dp}\)
Given q = 30 – 4p – p²
\(\frac{dq}{dp}\) = 0 – 4(1) – 2p^2-1
\(\frac{dq}{dp}\) = -4 – 2p

Question 6.
What is the formula for the elasticity of supply if you know the supply function?
Answer:
Elasticity of supply = \(\frac{dq}{dp}\)

Question 7.
What are the main menus of MS word?
Answer:

Ms Word is a word processor, which helps to create, edit, print, and save documents for future retrieval and reference.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph:

Question 1.
Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics?
Answer:
Uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics:

1. Mathematical methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
2. Mathematical methods help to explain economic concepts.
3. Mathematical methods help to use a large number of variables in economic analyses.
4. Mathematical methods help to quantify the impact or effect of any economic activity implemented by the government or anybody.

Question 2.
Solve for x quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x?
Answer:
16x – 4 = 68 + 7x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = \(\frac{72}{9}\) = 8
∴ x = 8

Question 3.
A firm has the revenue function R = 600q – 0.03q² and the cost function is C = 150q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced. Find AR, AC, MR and MC?
Answer:
R = 600q – 0.03q²
C = 150q + 60000

(i) AR = \(\frac { R }{ q }\)
= \(\frac{600 q-0.03 q^{2}}{q}\)
= \(\frac { 600q }{ q }\) – \(\frac{0.03 \mathrm{q}^{2}}{\mathrm{q}}\)
= AR = 600 – 0.0.q

(ii) AC = \(\frac { c }{ q }\)
= \(\frac { 150q + 60000 }{ q }\)
= \(\frac { 150q }{ q }\) + \(\frac { 60000 }{ q }\)
AC = 150 + (\(\frac { 60000 }{ q }\))

(iii) MR = \(\frac { dr }{ dq }\)
R = 600q – 0.03q
\(\frac { dR }{ dq }\) = 600 (1) – 0.03 (2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(iv) MC = \(\frac { dc }{ dq }\)
C = 150q + 60000
\(\frac { dc }{ dq }\) = 150 (1) + 0
MC = 150

Question 4.
Solve the following linear equations by using Cramer’s rule?
x₁ – x₂ + x₃ = 2;
x₁ + x₂ – x₃ = 0;
– x₁ – x₂ – x₃ = -6
Answer:
x₁ – x₂ + x₃ = 2
x₁ + x₂ – x₃ = 0
– x₁ – x₂ – x₃ = -6
AX = B

Question 5.
If a firm faces the total cost function TC = 5 + x² where x is output, what is TC when x is 10?
Answer:
TC = 5 + x²
TC = 5 + 10²
TC = 5 + 100
∴TC = 105

Question 6.
If TC = 2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function?
Answer:
\(\frac{dc}{dq}\) = MC
AC = \(\frac{TC}{q}\)
\(\frac{dc}{dq}\) = 2.5(3)q² – [13 × 2]q + 50
MC = 7.5q² – 26q + 50
AC = \(\frac { 2.5q^{ 3 }-13q^{ 2 }+50q+12 }{ q } \)
∴ AC = 2.5q² – 13q + 50 + \(\frac{12}{q}\)

Question 7.
What are the steps involved in executing a MS Excel sheet?
Answer:

1. MS – Excel is used in data analysis by using formulas.
2. A spreadsheet is a large sheet of paper that contains rows and columns.
3. The intersection of rows and columns is termed a cell.
4. MS – Excel 2007 version supports up to 1 million rows and 16 thousand columns per worksheet.

MS Excel Start From Various Options:

(I) Click Start → Program → Micro Soft Excel
(II) Double click the MS Excel Icon from the Desktop

Worksheet:
MS – Excel worksheet is a table like a document containing rows and columns with data and formula

There are four kinds of calculation operators. They are:

1. Arithmetic
2. Comparison
3. Text Concatenation [link together]
4. Reference

MS – Excel helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs, diagrams, area charts, line chart etc.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page:

Question 1.
A Research scholar researching the market for fresh cow milk assumes that Qt = f (Pt, Y, A, N, Pc) where Qt is the quantity of milk demanded, Pt is the price of fresh cow milk, Y is average household income, A is advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk, N is population and Pc is the price of processed pocket milk.
Answer:

1. What does Qt = f (Pt, Y, A,N, Pc) mean in words?
2. Identify the independent variables.
3. Make up a specific form for this function.

(Use your knowledge of Economics to deduce whether the coefficients of the different independent variables should be positive or negative.)

1. Qt is the function of Pt, Y, A, N, Pc
Pt – Price of fresh cow milk
Y = Average household income
A = Advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk
N = Population
Pc = Price of processed pocket milk

2. Identify the Independent variables.
“Y” = Average household income
“N” = Population [“N” are Independent Variables]
Pc = Price of processed pocket milk
“Pc” = depending “Pt”
= Pc depending “A”
“A” = depending “N”
∴ Pc depending “Pt”, “A”, and “N”.

3. Make up specific form for this function [use your knowledge of Economics to deduce whether the co-efficient of the different independent variables should be positive or negative]

• “Pc ” = Price of processed pocket milk
  When the price of processed milk increases and the quantity demanded of fresh milk decreases.
• “N” = Population
  When the population increases and the quantity of milk demanded Increases.
• “A” = Advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk
  When advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk increases the quantity of milk demanded. Increases.

“Y” – Average household Income
When average household income Increases and the quantity of milk demanded Increases.
“Pt” – Price of fresh cow milk
When the price of fresh cow milk Increases the quantity of milk demanded decreases.
∴ Qt = (-Pt) (+Y) (+A) (+N) (- Pc)
(-) means decreases; (+) means Increases
∴ Qt = [- Pt + Y + A +N – Pc]

Question 2.
Calculate the elasticity of demand for the demand schedule by using differential calculus method P = 60 – 0.2Q where price is –

1. Zero
2. ₹20
3. ₹40

Answer:

Question 3.
The demand and supply functions are P_d = 1600 – x⁴ and P_s = 2x² + 400 respectively. Find the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus at the equilibrium point?
Answer:
P_d = 1600 – x²
P_s = 2x² + 400
P_d = P_s
1600 – xc = 2x² + 400
⇒ 1600 – x² – 2x² – 400 = 0
⇒ -3x² + 1200 = 0
x² = \(\frac{1200}{3}\) = \(\frac{400}{1}\)
x = ±\(\sqrt{400}\)
x = 20

When x = 20
P_d = 1600 – x²
= 1600 – (20)²
= 1600 – 400 = 1200
P^d = 1200
P^s = 2x² + 400
= 2(20)² + 400 = 2(400) + 400
P^s = 1200
Consumer’s Surplus (CS):

Producers Surplus(PS):

Question 4.
What are the ideas of Information and communication technology used in economics?
Answer:
Introduction: Information and Communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate. The following table gives an idea of the range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT.

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:
They are evaluation in:

1. Computer
2. PC – Personal Computer
3. Microprocessor
4. Internet
5. Wireless links

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for:

1. Data Compiling
2. Editing
3. Manipulating
4. Presenting the results

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Mathematical Methods for Economics Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The point of intersection of demand line and supply line is known as ……………………
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Intersect
(c) Midpoint
(d) Equal
Answer:
(a) Equilibrium

Question 2.
…………………… is a rectangular array of numbers systematically arranged in rows and columns within brackets.
(a) Maths
(b) Geometry
(c) Graph
(d) Matrix
Answer:
(d) Matrix

Question 3.
……………………. means a change in the dependent variable with respect to a small change in the independent variable.
(a) Differential
(b) Differentiation
(c) Differentiating
(d) Derivative
Answer:
(a) Differential

Question 4.
……………………….. is an addition to the total cost caused by producing one more unit of output.
(a) Marginal Cost
(b) Marginal Product
(c) Marginal Concepts
(d) Marginal Revenue
Answer:
(a) Marginal Cost

Question 5.
Consumer’s surplus theory was developed by the ………………………….
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Lionel Robbinson
(d) Malthus
Answer:
(a) Alfred Marshall

Question 6.
……………………… is a word processor.
(a) MS Word
(b) Microprocessor
(c) Scanner
(d) Personal computer
Answer:
(a) MS Word

Question 7.
……………………. is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate.
(a) Information and Communication Technology
(b) Information and Computer Technology
(c) Information and Connection Technology
(d) Information and Communication Technology
Answer:
(d) Information and Communication Technology

Question 8.
…………………… is used in data analysis by using formula.
(a) MS Word
(b) Microsoft
(c) Word processer
(d) Microprocessor
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

Question 9.
……………………. is a table like a document containing rows and columns with data and formula.
(a) Work Excel
(b) Work Microsoft
(c) Work Processor
(d) Work Sheet
Answer:
(d) Work Sheet

Question 10.
……………………… helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs.
(a) MS Excel
(b) Microsoft
(c) Start Excel
(d) Microprocessor
Answer:
(a) MS Excel

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
The petrol consumption of your car is 16 Kilometers per litre. Let x be the distance you travel in Kilometers and p the price per litre of petrol in Rupees. Write expressions for the demand for Petrol?
Answer:
x – Total distance in Km.
p – Price per litre in rupees.
Equation of demand function joining two data points (16, 1) and (8, 2) respectively.

– 8y + 8 = x – 16
x – 16 – 8 + 8y = 0
x + 8y – 24 = 0
x = 24 – 8y
y = p
∴ The demand function x = 24 – 8p
Demand ∝ \(\frac{1}{Price}\)

Question 2.
Make up your own demand function and then derive the corresponding MR function and find the output level which corresponds to zero marginal revenue?

Question 3.
Use an Excel spreadsheet to calculate values for Quantity of demand at various prices for the function Q = 100 – 10P then plot these values on a graph?

Question 4.
Open MS – Word and put the title as PRESENT AND ABSENT OF STUDENTS and insert the table and collect the data for all classes of your school and find the class of highest absentees in a month. Justify with the reason for the absentees in a paragraph by using MS Word?

Activity 2, 3, and 4 can be done by the students individually.

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Tamil Nadu Economy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
In health index, Tamil Nadu is ahead of ……………………
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Gujarat

Question 2.
In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks …………………….
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(c) Third

Question 3.
Tamil Nadu is rich in ………………………
(a) Forest resource
(b) Human resource
(c) Mineral resource
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Human resource

Question 4.
The main source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu is ………………………..
(a) River
(b) Tank
(c) Well
(d) Canals
Answer:
(c) Well

Question 5.
Knitted gannent production is concentrated in ………………………..
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(b) Tiruppur

Question 6.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
(b) Home textile city – Erode
(c) Steel city – Salem
(d) Pump city – Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Home textile city – Erode

Question 7.
Which of the following cities does not have international airport?
(a) Madurai
(b) Tiruchirappalli
(c) Paramakudi
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(c) Paramakudi

Question 8.
TN tops in the production of the following crops except ……………………..
(a) Banana
(b) Coconut
(c) Plantation crops
(d) Cardamom
Answer:
(d) Cardamom

Question 9.
Largest area of land is used in the cultivation of …………………….
(a) Paddy
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Groundnut
(d) Coconut
Answer:
(a) Paddy

Question 10.
In literacy rate, TN ranks …………………………..
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Eighth
Answer:
(d) Eighth

Question 11.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks …………………………
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) I

Question 12.
Which district in TN has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Nagapattinam
(b) Nilgiris
(c) Tiruchirappalli
(d) Thanjavur
Answer:
(b) Nilgiris

Question 13.
Which district has the lowest child sex ratio?
(a) Madurai
(b) Theni
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Cuddalore
Answer:
(c) Ariyalur

Question 14.
Which Union Territory has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Lakshadeep
(d) Andaman Nicobar
Answer:
(b) Pondicherry

Question 15.
The largest contribution to GSDP in Tamil Nadu comes from …………………………
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Mining
(d) Services
Answer:
(d) Services

Question 16.
In human development index, TN is ranked …………………………
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh
Answer:
(d) Seventh

Question 17.
SPIC is located in ……………………
(a) Chennai
(b) Madurai
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Pudukkottai
Answer:
(c) Tuticorin

Question 18.
The TICEL park is ……………………..
(a) Rubber Park
(b) Textile park
(c) Food park
(d) Bio park
Answer:
(d) Bio park

Question 19.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks ………………………..
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
Answer:
(a) Third

Question 20.
The Headquarters of Southern Railway is a ………………………
(a) Tiruchirappalli
(b) Chennai
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Chennai

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
State any two districts with favourable sex ratio. Indicate the ratios?
Answer:
Population Growth in Tamil Nadu: At a glance (2011 census)

1. Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with highest:
The Nilgiris (1041 females) Thanjavur (1031 females) Nagapattinam (1025 females)

2. Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with Lowest:
Theni (900 females) Dharmapuri (946 females)

Question 22.
Define GSDP?
Answer:

1. The Gross State Domestic Product refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
2. Tamil Nadu is the second-largest economy in India with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016 – 2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.

Question 23.
Mention any four food crops which are favourable to Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Rice: Tamil Nadu is India’s second-biggest producer of rice.
2. Banana and Coconut: Tamil Nadu ranks first in the production of Banana and coconut.
3. Cashewnut: Tamil Nadu ranks second in the production of cashew nut.
4. Pepper: Tamil Nadu ranks third in the production of pepper.
5. Sugarcane: Tamil Nadu ranks fourth in the production of Sugarcane.

Question 24.
What are the major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Tuticorin as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
3. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 25.
What is heritage tourism?
Answer:
Heritage tourism is travelling to experience the places and activities that authentically represent the stories and people of the past.

Question 26.
What are the nuclear power plants in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Question 27.
Define Micro industry?
Answer:
The enterprises with a capital investment not exceeding 25 lakhs.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Write a note on mineral resources in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite, and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led the development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in the Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, fertilizers, and Carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in Iron Ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri and is the only source in the country.

Question 29.
Explain GSDP in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
GSDP in Tamil Nadu:

1. GSDP refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
2. According to Tamil Nadu’s Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu is the second-largest economy in India with a GSDP of $207.8 billion in 2016 -17
3. The GSDP of Tamil Nadu is equal to the GDP of Kuwait on nominal terms and the GDP of UAE on PPP terms.
4. Sectoral contribution of GSDP of Tamil Nadu
   • Tertiary sector – 63. 70%
   • Secondary sector – 28.5%
   • Primary sector – 7.76%

Question 30.
Describe the development of the textile industry in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Textile industry in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India.
2. Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
3. The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35 million people and thereby contributing 4% of GDP and. 35% of gross export earnings.
4. The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
5. From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
6. About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is in Tamil Nadu.
7. The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul, and Karur has the majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam, and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, etc.,
8. Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.
9. Tirupur is known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
10. Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings, etc.,) and export hub in India.
11. Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready-mades.

Question 31.
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Answer:
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India:

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non-food crops among the States in India.

Productivity position of Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oilseeds, and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower, and jowar.

Question 32.
Explain the prospect for the development of Tourism?
Answer:
Prospect for development of tourism:

1. Tamil Nadu has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
2. Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
3. The state currently ranks the highest among Indian states with about 25 crore arrivals.
4. The annual growth rate of this industry stood at 16 percent.
5. Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the state.

Question 33.
What are the renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the southern States as seen in the following table.
2.  Installed capacity of power utilities in States in the southern region.
3. Tamil Nadu is at the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity.
4. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.
5. Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram, and Udumalaipettai.
6. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Thermal Power:

• In Tamil Nadu, the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu [North Chennai] Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli, and Thoothukudi.
• The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

• There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
• The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley, etc.

Solar Energy:

• Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in the following table:
• Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

• Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
• The State has a very high quality offshore wind energy potential of the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 34.
Describe the performance of Tamil Nadu Economy in health?
Answer:
Health:

1. Tamil Nadu has a three-tier health infrastructure comprising hospitals, primary health centres, health units, community health centres, and sub-centers.
2. As of March 2015, the State had 34 district hospitals, 229 sub-divisional hospitals, 1,254 primary health centres, 7,555 sub-centers, and 313 community health centres.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
Describe the qualitative aspects of the population?
Answer:

1. Population: Tamil Nadu stands sixth in population with 7.21 crore.
2. Density: Tamil Nadu ranks 12th in density with 555 people per sq. km.
3. Urban population: Tamil Nadu is one of the most urbanized states with 48.4% of the urban population.
4. Sex ratio: Balanced sex ratio implies improvement in the quality of life of the female population. The sex ratio of Tamil Nadu is nearing balance with 995 which stands third next to Kerala and Puducherry.
5. Infant mortality rate: According to NITI AAYOG, the IMR is 17 for Tamil Nadu which is just half of the national average of 34 as of 2016.
6. Maternal mortality rate: Tamil Nadu has a good record of controlling MMR, ranking third with 79 against the national average of 159.
7. Literacy:
   • The literacy rate of Tamil Nadu is higher than in many states.
   • Tamil Nadu has the highest Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education.

Question 36.
Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table.
Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW is the 1^st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is at the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram, and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

• In Tamil Nadu, the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli, and Thoothukudi.
• The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

• There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
• The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley, etc.,

Solar Energy:

• Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in the following table
• Southern Tamil Nadu is considered one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

• Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
• The State has a very high-quality offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 37.
Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a well-established transportation system that connects all parts of the state. This is partly responsible for the investment in the state.

Road transport:

• There are 28 national highways in the state, covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
• The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km.
• It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects.

Rail transport:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, headquartered in Chennai.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 KM and there are 690 railway stations in the state.
• The system connects it with most major cities in India.
• Chennai developed a metro system, which came into operation in May 2017.

Air transport:

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
• Chennai, Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli, and Madurai International airports.
• It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Tamil Nadu Economy Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu is the geographically largest state of India.
(a) 5^th
(b) 7^th
(c) 9^th
(d) 11^th
Answer:
(d) 11^th

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu lies in the part of India.
(a) North East
(b) South West
(c) South East
(d) northwest
Answer:
(c) South East

Question 3.
TNPL is the ……………………. largest eco-friendly paper mill.
(a) Asia’s
(b) America’s
(c) Europe’s
(d) Australia’s
Answer:
(a) Asia’s

Question 4.
………………………. known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments.
(a) Tiruppur
(b) Thirunelveli
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(a) Tiruppur

Question 5.
……………………….. nicknamed as “The Detroit of Asia” is home to a large number of auto component industries.
(a) Thiruvallur
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Thoothukudi
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(d) Chennai

Question 6.
SAIL has a steel plant in ……………………
(a) Salem
(b) Karur
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(a) Salem

Question 7.
The Kalpakkam nuclear power plant and the Kudankulam nuclear power plant are the major …………………. plants for the energy grid.
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Hydel energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Wind energy
Answer:
(a) Nuclear energy

Question 8.
The district which has the lowest density of population is ……………………….
(a) Sivagangai
(b) Nilgiris
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Thiruvallur
Answer:
(a) Sivagangai

Question 9.
Tamil Nadu Newsprint Paper Limited (TNPL) is a ……………………….. Industry in Tamil Nadu
(a) Joint sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Co-operative sector
Answer:
(c) Public sector

Question 10.
SPIC is the largest producer of …………………….. in India.
(a) Chemical
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Petrol
(d) Fisheries
Answer:
(b) Fertilizers

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Write a note on “water resources”?
Answer:

1. There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu.
2. The main rivers are Palar, Cheyyar, Ponnaiyar, Cauvery, Bhavani, Vaigai, Chittar, Tamiraparani, Vellar, Noyyal, Siruvani, Gundar, Vaipar, Valparai, etc.
3. North-East monsoon is the major source of rainfall followed by the southwest monsoon.
4. Wells are the largest source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu (56%).

Question 2.
Write a note on “Urbanisation in Tamil Nadu”?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state with 48.4% of the urban population against 31.5% for India as a whole. The State accounts for 9.61% of total urbanites in India against a 6% share of the total population.

Question 3.
Explain Per capita income in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. The Per capita GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product) of Tamil Nadu also ($ 2,200) which is higher than that of many other States in India.
2. Per capita, the GSDP of Tamil Nadu is nearly 1.75 times higher than the national average, as per 2018 data.
3. In terms of rupees, the per capita income in Tamil Nadu was ₹1,03,600 in 2010 – 2011 and it has increased to ₹1,88, 492 in 2017 – 2018 as per the Budget.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Write a note on “Educational Loans”?
Answer:

1. Educational loans disbursed by Public Sector Banks under priority sector are concerned, 20.8% of the total amount was disbursed in Tamil Nadu between 2013-14 and 2015-16.
2. Andhra Pradesh was second with 11.2% of the total loan amount followed by Maharashtra [10.2%]
3. The total amount of educational loans disbursed by Private Banks during the same period, Kerala accounted for 37.8% followed by Tamil Nadu with 24.8%.

Question 2.
Describe the “Unemployment and Poverty”?
Answer:

1. The national average unemployment rate stands at 50 and Tamil Nadu ranks 22nd with an unemployment rate of 42 per 1000.
2. There are different kinds of unemployment with different economic implications.
3. All those aspects need to be studied to fully understand the employment situation.
4. Tamil Nadu is one of India’s richest states since 1994, the state has seen a steady decline in poverty.
5. Tamil Nadu has lower levels of poverty than most other states in the country.
6. After 2005, Tamil Nadu was among India’s fastest-growing states, with growth being driven mainly by services.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 1.
Explain the highlights of the Tamil Nadu Economy?
Answer:
Highlights of Tamil Nadu Economy:

1. The growth of SGDP in Tamil Nadu has been among the fastest in India since 2005.
2. Poverty reduction in Tamil Nadu has been faster than that in many other States.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks 3^rd in terms of invested capital (₹ 2.92 lakh crore) and the value of total industrial output (₹ 6.19 lakh crore).
4. Tamil Nadu ranks first among the states in terms of the number of factories with 17% share and industrial workers (16% share) of the country.
5. Tamil Nadu is placed third in the health index as per the NITIAAYOG report.
6. Tamil Nadu has the highest Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education.
7. Tamil Nadu has the largest number of engineering colleges.
8. Tamil Nadu has emerged as a major hub for renewable energy.
9. Tamil Nadu has the highest credit Deposit Ratio in commercial and cooperative banks.
10. Tamil Nadu has the highest ranks first on investment proposals filed by MSMEs.

Question 2.
Describe the “MSMEs”?
Answer:

1. The Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises are defined under the MSMED Act 2006.
2. The enterprises are classified as Manufacturing and Service enterprises based on the investment in plant and machinery and equipment (excluding land and building).
3. Tamil Nadu accounts for 15.07% of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the country (the highest among all States) with 6.89 lakhs registered MSMEs.
4. Producing over 8000 varieties of products for a total investment of more than ₹32,008 crores.
5. MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
6. The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel paper, matches, textiles, hosiery, and garments sector.
7. Around 15.61 lakh entrepreneurs have registered, providing employment opportunities to about 99.7 lakhs persons with a total investment of Rs. 1,68,331 crore.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Visit your nearby village and make an on-the-spot study about crops production, source of irrigation, and living conditions of farmers?
Answer:
Crop Production:

1. Crop Production includes all the feed sources that are required to maintain the dairy herd and the resource inputs used to produce the crops.
2. The type of feed depends on animal management. System – conventional or organic.
3. Feeds may include mainly corn-silage, corn – grain, alfalfa – hay and alfalfa-silage, soybeans, soybean meal, wheat, oats, distiller’s grains solids, with grasses, forage, and hay and dietary supplements such as minerals.
4. The inventory would include the production of all feed crops raised on the farm, purchased from a vendor or other farm, or sold to another farm.
5. In the United States, larger farms purchase feed while smaller farms grow their own feed. [USDA ECONOMIC RESEARCH SERVICE, 2007] USDA – United States Development Association.
6. A separate analysis would be conducted for the feed milling operations to account for its resource inputs such as fuel used in transportation and electricity.
7. Inputs in crop production include fuel for tractors and other equipment, water, machinery, fertilizer, pesticides.
8. Manure nutrients are a resource input if used in crop production.

Important sources of irrigation available in Indian villages are as follows:
There are three major sources of irrigation in India.
They are:-

1. Canals
2. Wells and Tube – wells
3. Tanks
   • Wells and Tube wells are the major sources of irrigation.
   • Canals rank second.
   • Tanks rank third.

Canal irrigation: Canal irrigation has its maximum development in the Great Plains and in the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna deltas in the eastern coastal plains.

Wells and Tube – wells: Wells and Tube – wells are popular in the alluvial plains.
The living condition of farmers:

1. Smallholder farmers already face numerous risks to agricultural production.
2. Climate change is expected to disproportionately affect smallholder farmers and make their livelihoods even more precarious.
3. Farmers crop with risks and explore what strategies are needed to help them adapt to climate change.
4. Agricultural system owing to their high dependence on agriculture for their livelihood, chronic food insecurity, physical, isolation and lack of access to formal safety nets.
5. Farmers are frequently exposed to pest and disease outbreaks and extreme weather events particularly cyclones.
6. Farmers use a variety of risk cropping strategies.
7. To prevent them from remaining food insecure.
8. Few farmers have adjusted their farming strategies in response to climate change, owing to limited resources and capacity.
9. Technical, Financial, and Institutional support is needed to improve agricultural production and food security.
10. Farmers and make their livelihoods resilient to climate change.

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 10 Rural Economy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Rural Economy

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Rural Economy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is considered as the basic unit for rural areas?
(a) Panchayat
(b) Village
(c) Town
(d) Municipality
Answer:
(b) Village

Question 2.
Which feature is identified with rural areas?
(a) Low population density
(b) High population density
(c) Low natural resources
(d) Low human resources
Answer:
(a) Low population density

Question 3.
Identity the feature of rural economy?
(a) Dependence on agriculture
(b) High population density
(c) Low level of population
(d) Low level of inequality
Answer:
(a) Dependence on agriculture

Question 4.
What percentage of the total population live in rural area, as per 2011 censes?
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 70
Answer:
(c) 60

Question 5.
How do you term people employed in excess over and above the requirements?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Underemployment or Disguised Unemployment
(c) Full employment
(d) Self – employment
Answer:
(b) Underemployment or Disguised Unemployment

Question 6.
What is the term used to denote the coexistence of two different features in an economy?
(a) Technology
(b) Dependency
(c) Dualism
(d) Inequality
Answer:
(c) Dualism

Question 7.
The process of improving the rural areas, rural people and rural living is defined as ………………………….
(a) Rural economy
(b) Rural economics
(c) Rural employment
(d) Rural development
Answer:
(d) Rural development

Question 8.
Identify the agriculture related problem of rural economy.
(a) Poor communication
(b) Small size of landholding
(c) Rural poverty
(d) Poor banking network
Answer:
(b) Small size of landholding

Question 9.
The recommended nutritional intake per person in rural areas.
(a) 2100 calories
(b) 2200 calories
(c) 2300 calories
(d) 2400 calories
Answer:
(d) 2400 calories

Question 10.
Indicate the cause for rural poverty.
(a) Lack of non-farm employment
(b) High employment
(c) Low inflation rate
(d) High investment
Answer:
(a) Lack of non-farm employment

Question 11.
What is the other name for concealed unemployment?
(a) Open
(b) Disguised
(c) Seasonal
(d) Rural
Answer:
(b) Disguised

Question 12.
How do you term the employment occurring only on a particular season?
(a) Open
(b) Disguised
(c) Seasonal
(d) Rural
Answer:
(c) Seasonal

Question 13.
Identify an example for rural industries?
(a) Sugar factory
(b) Mat making industry
(c) Cement industry
(d) Paper industry
Answer:
(b) Mat making industry

Question 14.
How much share of rural families in India is in debt?
(a) Half
(b) One fourth
(c) Two third
(d) Three fourth
Answer:
(d) Three fourth

Question 15.
Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in India.
(a) Poverty
(b) High population
(c) High productivity
(d) Full employment
Answer:
(a) Poverty

Question 16.
In which year, Regional Rural Banks came into existence?
(a) 1965
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1980
Answer:
(c) 1975

Question 17.
Identify the year of launch of MUDRA Bank?
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(d) 2015

Question 18.
Identify the year in which National Rural Health Mission was launched.
(a) 2000
(b) 2005
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(b) 2005

Question 19.
Identify the advantages of rural roads.
(a) Rural marketing
(b) Rural employment
(c) Rural development
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 20.
“An Indian farmer is bom in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt”-who said this?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Gandhi
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling
Answer:
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define Rural Economy?
Answer:
Rural economy refers to villages. Rural economics deals with the application of economic principles in understanding and developing rural areas.

Question 22.
What do you mean by Rural Development?
Answer:

1. Rural Development is defined as an overall improvement in the economies and social well being of villagers and the institutional and physical environments in which they live.
2. According to the World Bank “Rural Development is a strategy designed to improve the economic and social life of a specific group of people – rural poor.
3. Rural Development is a process of improving the rural areas, rural people, and rural living.

Question 23.
Rural Poverty – Define?
Answer:
Rural poverty refers to the existence of poverty in rural areas. Poverty in India is the situation in which an individual fails to earn sufficient income to buy the basic minimum of subsistence.

Question 24.
Define Open Unemployment?
Answer:

1. Open Unemployment: Unemployed persons are identified as they remain without work.
2. This type of unemployment is found among agricultural labourers, rural artisans, and literate persons.

Question 25.
What is meant by Disguised Unemployment?
Answer:

1. Many are employed below their productive capacity and even if they are withdrawn from work the output will not diminish. It is also called Disguised Unemployment or Underemployment. This type of unemployment is found among small and marginal farmers, livestock rearers, and rural artisans.
2. Disguised unemployment in rural India is 25 percent to 30 percent.

Question 26.
Define Cottage Industry?
Answer:

1. Cottage Industries are generally associated with agriculture and provide both part-time and full-time jobs are in rural areas.
2. Cottage Industries are mat, coir and basket making industries.
3. The principal cottage industries of India are hand-loom weaving [Cotton, Silk, Jute, etc.] pottery, washing soap making, conch shell, handmade paper, horn button, mother of pearl button, Cutlery, lock, and key making industries. These are almost similar to the cottage industries.

Question 27.
What do you mean by Micro Finance?
Answer:
Microfinance is a financial service that offers loans, savings, and insurance to entrepreneurs and small business owners.

Question 28.
State any two causes of the housing problem in rural areas?
Answer:

1. House is one of the basic needs of every family. The provision of better housing facilities increases the productivity of labour. The housing problem is getting aggravated due to the rapid adaptation of nuclear families.
2. Housing does not mean the provision of a house alone but also proper water supply, good sanitation, proper disposal of sewage, etc.

Question 29.
Define Rural Electrification?
Answer:

1. Rural Electrification refers to providing electrical power to rural areas.
2. The main aims of rural electrification are to provide electricity to agricultural operations and to enhance agricultural productivity.
3. To increase cropped area, to promote rural industries, and to lighting the villages.
4. In order to improve this facility, the supply of electricity is almost free for agricultural purposes in many states, and the electricity tariff is charged in rural areas is kept very low.

Question 30.
State any two factors hindering Rural Electrification in India?
Answer:
The factors hindering the progress of rural electrification in India are:

1. Lack of Funds: The generation and transmission of power involve huge expenditure and the fund allocation is low.
2. Inter-State Disputes: As there are inter-state disputes in managing power projects, power distribution is affected.
3. Uneven Terrain: As rural topography is uneven without proper connection, developing new lines are costlier and difficult.
4. High Transmission Loss: Transmission loss in power distribution is almost 25 percent in rural areas.
5. Power Theft: Unauthorized use and diversion of power are evil practices adopted by affluent people that hinder the rural electrification process.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in about a paragraph.

Question 31.
State the importance of Rural Development?
Answer:

1. India cannot be developed by retaining rural as backward
2. As the rural economy supports the urban sector, the backwardness of the rural sector would be a major impediment to the overall progress of the economy.
3. Improvements in education, health, and sanitation in villages can help avoid many urban problems.
4. To provide gainful employment and improve food production.
5. The evils of brain drain and rural-urban migration can be reduced.
6. For the better utilization of resources.
7. To minimize the gap between rural and urban areas.

Question 32.
Explain the causes for Rural Backwardness?
Answer:

1. The evils of brain-drain and rural-urban migration can be reduced if rural areas are developed.
2. In order to better utilize the unused and under-utilized resources, there is a need to develop the rural economy.
3. Rural Development should minimize the gap between rural and urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
4. In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of economic indicators like,
   • Human Development Index [HDI]
   • Woman Empowerment Index [WEI]
   • Gender Disparity Index [GDI]
   • Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI] and
   • Gross National Happiness Index [GNHI] should be given due attention.

Question 33.
Enumerate the remedial measures of Rural poverty?
Answer:
The creation of employment opportunities would support the elimination of poverty. The poverty eradication schemes implemented in India are

1. 20 point programme.
2. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
3. Training Rural Youths for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
4. Food for Work Programme (FWP)
5. National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
6. RLEGP, JRY and MGN REGS

Question 34.
What are the remedial measures for Rural unemployment?
Answer:
Remedial measures for Rural unemployment:
In order to reduce rural unemployment in the country, there is a need to take integrated and coordinated efforts from various levels. A few remedial measures are listed below: Subsidiary

Occupation:
To reduce seasonal unemployment rural people should be encouraged to adopt subsidiary occupations. Loans should be granted and proper arrangements should be made for marketing their products.

Rural Works Programme:
Rural Works Programme such as construction and maintenance of roads, digging of drains, canals, etc., should be planned during the off-season to provide gainful employment to the unemployed.

Irrigation Facilities:
Since rainfall is uncertain irrigation facilities should be expanded to enable the farmers to adopt multiple cropping.

Rural Industrialization:
To provide employment new industries should be set up in rural areas. Technical Education: Employment oriented courses should be introduced in schools and colleges to enable the literate youth to start their own units.

Question 35.
Write a note on Regional Rural Banks?
Answer:
Regional rural banks came into existence in 1975. RRBs are recommended with a view to developing the rural economy by providing credit and other facilities to the small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, artisans, and small entrepreneurs.

RRBs are set up by the joint efforts of the center and state governments and commercial banks. At present, there are 64 RRBs in India. RRBs confine their lending only to the weaker sections and their lending rates are at par with the prevailing rate of cooperative societies.

Question 36.
Mention the features of SHGs?
Answer:
Major features of SHGs [Self Help Groups]

1. SHG is generally an economically homogeneous group formed through a process of self-selection based upon the affinity of its members.
2. Most SHGs are women’s groups with membership ranging between 10 and 20.
3. SHGs have well-defined rules and by-laws, hold regular meetings and maintain records and savings and credit discipline.
4. SHGs are self-managed institutions characterized by participatory and collective decision making.

Question 37.
List out the objectives of MUDRA Bank?
Answer:

1. Regulate the lender and the borrower of microfinance and bring stability to the microfinance system.
2. Extend finance and credit support to microfinance institutions.
3. Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the last time.
4. Offer a credit guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro-businesses.
5. Introduce appropriate technologies to assist in the process of efficient lending, borrowing, and monitoring of distributed capital.

PART – D

Answer for each question in about a page.

Question 38.
‘The features of Rural Economy are peculiar’- Argue?
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:
1. Village is an Institution:
The villagers a primary institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.

2. Dependence on Agriculture:
The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupations in rural areas.

3. Life of Rural people:
Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads, and markets are limited and unavailable.

The standards of living of the majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization, and political mobilization, the rural sector is extremely backward and weak.

4. Population Density:
Population density, measured by the number of persons living per sq. km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.

5. Employment:
There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment, and underemployment in rural areas.

6. Poverty:
Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing, and shelter are not being met.

7. Indebtedness:
People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non-farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network, etc.

8. Rural Income:
The income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide for them.

9. Dependency:
Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.

10. Dualism:
Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features like developed and underdeveloped. These characteristics are very common in rural areas.

11. Inequality:
The distributions of income, wealth, and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.

12. Migration:
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

Question 39.
Discuss the problems of the Rural Economy?
Answer:
The problems of the rural economy are.
1. People related problems: The problem consists of illiteracy, lack of technical know-how, low level of confidence, dependence on sentiments and beliefs, etc.

2. Agriculture related problems: This include lack of awareness, knowledge, skill, and attitude, unavailability of inputs, poor marketing facility, an insufficient extension of staff and services, small size of landholding, absence of infrastructure, primitive technology, reduced public investment, and absence of a role for farmers in fixing the prices for their own products.

3. Infrastructural-related problems: Poor infrastructure facilities like water, electricity, transport, educational institutions communication, health, employment are found in rural areas.

4. Economics related problems: Inability to adopt high-cost technology, high cost of inputs, underprivileged rural industries, low income, indebtedness, and existence of inequality in landholdings and assets.

5. Leadership related problems: Leadership among the hands of inactive and incompetent people, the self-interest of leaders, biased political will, less bargaining power, and negotiation skills, and dominance of political leaders.

6. Administrative problems: Political interference, lack of motivation and interest, low wages in villages, improper utilization of budget, and absence of monitoring and implementation of the rural development programme.

Question 40.
Analyze the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:
1. Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt, and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

2. Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

3. Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

4. Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:

• The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuating indebtedness of the farmer.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Rural Economy in India Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Educated and skilled persons who may not accept casual work. This is called unemployment ………………………
(a) Closed
(b) Open
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Open

Question 2.
The existence of a joint family system in India promotes ……………………….. unemployment.
(a) Open
(b) Weekly status
(c) Daily status
(d) Disguised
Answer:
(b) Weekly status

Question 3.
………………………… based poverty lines are used in many countries.
(a) Food
(b) Income
(c) Nutrition
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Nutrition

Question 4.
IRDP means
(a) Internal Rural Development Programme
(b) Indian Rural Development Programme
(c) International Rural Development Programme
(d) Integrated Rural Development Programme
Answer:
(d) Integrated Rural Development Programme

Question 5.
The problem of rural unemployment can be solved only by …………………….. agriculture.
(a) Cost production
(b) Green Revolution
(c) Innovative
(d) Modernising
Answer:
(d) Modernising

Question 6.
In which year the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme was set up?
(a) 1982
(b) 1983
(c) 1984
(d) 1985
Answer:
(b) 1983

Question 7.
…………………….. legislation has been passed by the State governments, which aim at improving the economic conditions of agricultural landless labourers.
(a) Green Revolution
(b) Ceiling of landholding
(c) Land Reforms
(d) Zamindari System
Answer:
(c) Land Reforms

Question 8.
Agriculture in India offers ………………………. employment.
(a) Seasonal
(b) Under
(c) Sub
(d) Partly
Answer:
(a) Seasonal

Question 9.
The farmers are poor for long then we call it ………………………. poverty.
(a) Urban
(b) Rural
(c) Primary
(d) Chronic (or) Structural
Answer:
(d) Chronic (or) Structural

Question 10.
……………………….. poverty means people work for few months and get low wages.
(a) Urban
(b) Rural
(c) Primary
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Rural

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Define “Migration”?
Answer:

1. Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.
2. This character of the development gives rise to the formation of cities.
3. Enmity and lack of basic amenities in rural areas also push the people to migrate to urban areas.

Question 2.
What do you mean by features of Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:

1. Nearly three fourth of rural families in the country is in debt.
2. The amount of debt is heavier in the case of small farmers.
3. Cultivators are more indebted than the non-cultivators.
4. Most of the debts taken are short term and of unproductive nature.
5. The proportion of debts having higher rates of interest is relatively high.
6. Most of the villagers are indebted to private agencies particularly money lenders.

Question 3.
Mention the major advantages of Micro Finance?
Answer:
Microfinance offers loans, savings, and insurance to entrepreneurs and small business owners. Who does not have access to traditional sources of capital, like banks or investors?

PART – C

Answer the following questions in about a paragraph.

Question 1.
Mention the causes for Rural Poverty?
Answer:
Causes for Rural Poverty:

• Unequal distribution of Land: The distribution of land is highly skewed in rural areas. Therefore, the majority of rural people work as hired labour to support their families.
• Lack of Non-farm employment: Non-farm employment opportunities do not match the increasing labour force. The excess supply of labour in rural areas reduces the wages and increases the incidence of poverty.
• Lack of public sector Investment: The root cause of rural poverty in our country is the lack of public sector investment in human resource development.
• Inflation: Steady increase in prices affects the purchasing power of the rural poor leading to rural poverty.
• Low productivity: Low productivity of rural labour and farm activities is a cause as well as the effect of poverty.
• Unequal Benefit of Growth: Major gains of economic development are enjoyed by the urban rich people leading to a concentration of wealth. Due to defective economic structure and policies, gains of growth are not reaching the poor and the contributions of poor people are not accounted for properly.
• Low Rate of Economic Growth: The fate of the growth of India is always below the target and it has benefited the rich. The poor are always denied the benefits of the achieved growth and development of the country.
• More Emphasis on Large Industries: Huge investment in large industries catering to the needs of middle and upper classes in urban areas are made in India. Such industries are capital-intensive and do not generate more employment opportunities. Therefore, the poor are not in a position to get employed and to come out of poverty in villages.
• Social evils: Social evils prevalent in the society like custom, believes, etc. increase unproductive expenditure.

Question 2.
Explain the causes for Rural Unemployment?
Answer:
Causes for Rural Unemployment:

• Absence of skill development and employment generation: Lack of Government initiatives to give required training and then to generate employment opportunities.
• Seasonal Nature of Agriculture: Agricultural operations are seasonal in nature and depend much on nature and rainfall. Therefore, the demand for labour becomes negligible during the offseason. So, non-farm employment opportunities must be created.
• Lack of subsidiary occupation: Rural people are not able to start subsidiary occupations such as poultry, rope making, piggery, etc. Due to shortages of funds for investment and lack of proper marketing arrangements.
• Mechanization of Agriculture: The landlords are the principal source of employment to the farm labour. Mechanization of agricultural operations like ploughing, irrigation, harvesting, threshing, etc. reduces employment opportunities for farm labour.
• Capital-Intensive Technology: The expanding private industrial sector is largely found in urban areas and not creating additional employment opportunities due to the application of capital intensive technologies. The government must establish firms to absorb surplus labor-power.
• Defective System of Education: The present system of education has also aggravated the rural unemployment problem. A large number of degree-producing institutions have come in recent years. Students also want to get degrees only, not any skill. Degrees should be awarded only on the basis of skills acquired. The unemployed youth should get sufficient facilities to update their skills.

Question 3.
Mention the Important characteristics of cottage Industries?
Answer:
Characteristics of Cottage Industries:

1. These Industries are carried out by artisans in their own homes at their own risk and for their own benefits.
2. Artisans may combine this work with another regular job.
3. Little outside labour is employed. Normally, the members of the household provide the necessary labour.
4. These industries are generally hereditary and traditional in character.
5. Little power is used.
6. These industries usually serve the local market and generally work on the orders placed by other Industries.
7. The principal cottage industries of India are hand-loom weaving (cotton, silk, jute, etc.) pottery, washing soap making, conch shell, handmade paper, horn button, mother-of-pearl button, cutlery, lock and key making industries.

PART – D

Answer for each question in about a page.

Question 1.
Discuss the requirements for Rural Industries?
Answer:
Requirements for Rural Development:
Rural industries embrace all industries which are run by rural people in rural areas. These industries are based primarily on the utilization of locally available raw materials, skills, and a small amount of capital. The rural industries can be broadly classified into a) cottage industries, b) village industries, c) small industries, d) tiny industries and e) agro-based industries.

Cottage Industries:

1. Cottage industries are generally associated with agriculture and provide both part-time and full-time jobs in rural areas.
2. Little outside labour is employed. Normally, the members of the household provide the necessary labour.
3. These industries are generally hereditary and traditional in character.
4. Little power is used.
5. These industries usually serve the local market and generally work on the orders placed by other industries.
6. Examples of cottage industries are mat, coir and basket making industries. The principal cottage industries of India are hand-loom weaving (cotton, silk, jute, etc.) pottery, washing soap making, conch shell, handmade paper, horn button, mother-of-pearl button, cutlery, lock and key making industries.

Village Industries:
1. Village industries are traditional in nature and depend on local raw-material. They cater to the needs of the local population. Examples of village industries are gur and khandsari, cane and bamboo baskets, shoemaking, pottery, and leather tanning. These are almost similar to the cottage industries.

2. Small Scale Industries (SSIs):
Most small scale industries are located near urban centers. They produce goods for local as well as foreign markets. Examples of such small-scale industries are the manufacture of sports goods, soaps, electric fans, footwear, sewing machines and handloom weaving.

SSIs are also known as Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). They are defined and categorized by the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006. The Act categorizes different scale of industries on the basis of investment in plant and machinery in case of manufacturing industries and on the basis of investment in equipment in case of service sector industries.

3. Agro-based Industries:
These industries are based on the processing of agricultural produce. Agro-based industries may be organized on a cottage-scale, small-scale, and large-scale. These industries tend to develop household settlements around them as they employ more labour on a regular basis. Examples are textile, sugar, paper, vegetable oil, tea, and coffee industries.

Question 2.
Mention the Rural Roads and Rural Market?
Answer:

1. Road Market refers to the infrastructure created to buy and sell the products produced in rural areas and also to purchase the needed products and farm inputs produced in urban and other regions.
2. Rural marketing is still defective as farmers lack bargaining power, a long chain of middlemen, lack of organization, insufficient storage facilities, poor transport facilities, absence of grading, inadequate information, and poor marketing arrangements.
3. Road transport is an important constituent of the transport system.
4. Rural Roads constitute the very lifeline of the rural economy.
5. A well-constructed road network in rural areas would bring several benefits including the linking of remote villages with urban centers, reduction in the cost of transportation of agricultural inputs, and promotion of marketing for rural produces.
6. It helps the farmers to bring their produce to the urban markets and to have access to distant markets and other services.

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 9 Development Experiences in India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Development Experiences in India

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Development Experiences in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of the following is the way of Privatisation?
(a) Disinvestment
(b) Denationalization
(c) Franchising
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Countries today are to be …………………… for their growth.
(a) Dependent
(b) Interdependent
(c) Free trade
(d) Capitalist
Answer:
(b) Interdependent

Question 3.
The Arguments against LPG is ……………………….
(a) Economic growth
(b) More investment
(c) Disparities among people and regions
(d) Modernization
Answer:
(c) Disparities among people and regions

Question 4.
Expansion of FDI ……………………….
(a) Foreign Private Investment
(b) Foreign Portfolio
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) Forex Private Investment
Answer:
(c) Foreign Direct Investment

Question 5.
India is the largest producer of ……………………. in the world.
(a) Fruits
(b) Gold
(c) Petrol
(d) Diesel
Answer:
(a) Fruits

Question 6.
Foreign investment includes …………………………
(a) FDI only
(b) FPI and FFI
(c) FDI and FPI
(d) FDI and FFI
Answer:
(c) FDI and FPI

Question 7.
The Special Economic Zones policy was announced in ………………………..
(a) April 2000
(b) July 1990
(c) April 1980
(d) July 1970
Answer:
(a) April 2000

Question 8.
Agricultural Produce Market Committee is a ………………………….
(a) Advisory body
(b) Statutory body
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these above
Answer:
(b) Statutory body

Question 9.
Goods and Services Tax is ………………………..
(a) A multi point tax
(b) Having cascading effects
(c) Like Value Added Tax
(d) A single point tax with no cascading effects.
Answer:
(d) A single point tax with no cascading effects.

Question 10.
The New Foreign Trade Policy was announced in the year ……………………….
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(d) 2015

Question 11.
Financial Sector reforms is mainly related to ………………………..
(a) Insurance Sector
(b) Banking Sector
(c) Both a and b
(d) Transport Sector
Answer:
(c) Both a and b

Question 12.
The Goods and Services Tax Act came into effect on ……………………..
(a) 1^st July 2017
(b) 1^st July 2016
(c) 1^st January 2017
(d) 1^st January 2016
Answer:
(a) 1^st July 2017

Question 13.
The new economic policy is concerned with the following
(a) Foreign investment
(b) Foreign technology
(c) Foreign trade
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 14.
The recommendation of Narashimham Committee Report was submitted in the year ………………………
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 2000
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 15.
The farmers have access to credit under Kisan credit card scheme through the following except ……………………….
(a) Co – operative banks
(b) RRBs
(c) Public sector banks
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Co – operative banks

Question 16.
The Raja Chelliah Committee on Trade Policy Reforms suggested the peak rate on import duties at ……………………….
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 100%
Answer:
(b) 50%

Question 17.
The first ever SEZ in India was set up at ………………………….
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Kandla
(d) Cochin
Answer:
(c) Kandla

Question 18.
‘The Hindu Rate of Growth’ coined by Raj Krishna refers to ………………………
(a) Low rate of economic growth
(b) High proportion of Hindu population
(c) Stable GDP
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Low rate of economic growth

Question 19.
The highest rate of tax under GST is ………………………. (as on July1, 2017).
(a) 18%
(b) 24%
(c) 28%
(d) 32%
Answer:
(c) 28%

Question 20.
The transfer of ownership from public sector to private sector is known as ……………………..
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) Nationalization
Answer:
(c) Privatization

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Why was structural reform implemented in the Indian Economy?
Answer:
Indian economy introduced structural reforms to face the economic crisis in the form of the balance of payments problem in 1991.

Question 22.
State the reasons for implementing LPG?
Answer:
Liberalization:

• Liberalization refers to the removal of the relaxation of governmental restrictions in all stages of the industry.
• De-licensing, decontrol, deregulation, subsidies (incentives), and a greater role for financial institutions are the various facets of liberalization.

Privatization:

• Privatization means the transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from the public sector to the private sector.
• Denationalization, disinvestment, and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to the private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Globalization:

• Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic (Indian) economy with the rest of the world. Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non-tariff barriers, opening the doors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 23.
State the meaning of Privatization?
Answer:
Privatization means the transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from the public sector to the private sector.

Question 24.
Define disinvestment?
Answer:
Disinvestment means selling of government securities of Public Sector Undertakings [PSUs] to other PSUs or private sectors or banks. This process has not been fully implemented.

Question 25.
Write three policy initiatives introduced in 1991 – 92 to correct the fiscal imbalance?
Answer:

1. Reduction in fertilizer subsidy.
2. Abolition of subsidy on sugar.
3. Disinvestment of a part of the government’s equity holdings in select public sector undertakings.
4. Expenditures on welfare measures were reduced.

Question 26.
State the meaning of Special Economic Zones?
Answer:

1. The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] policy was announced in April 2000.
2. As per the Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.
3. The SEZ deprives the farmers of their land and livelihood, it is harmful to agriculture.
4. To promote export and Industrial growth in line with globalization the SEZ was introduced in many countries.

Question 27.
State the various components of Central government schemes under post-harvest measures?
Answer:

1. Mega food parks, Integrated cold chain, value addition preservation infrastructure, modernization of slaughterhouse.
2. Scheme for quality-assurance, codex standards, research and development, and other promotional activities.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
How do you justify the merits of Privatization?
Answer:

1. Privatization means the transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from the public sector to the private sector.
2. Denationalization, disinvestment, and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to the private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Question 29.
What are the measures taken towards Globalization?
Answer:
Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic economy with the rest of the world. Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non-tariff barriers, opening the doors to foreign direct investment and foreign portfolio investment are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 30.
Write a note on Foreign investment policy?
Answer:

1. Foreign Investment Policy measure has enhanced the Industrial competition and improved the business environment in the country.
2. Foreign investments including FDI and FPI were allowed.
3. The government announced a specified list of high-technology and high-investment priority industries.
4. Automatic permission was granted for Foreign Direct Investment [FDI] upto 51 % foreign equity.
5. The limit was raised to 74% and subsequently to 100% for many of these industries.
6. Foreign Investment Promotion Board [FIPB] has been set up to negotiate with international firms and approve foreign direct investment.

Question 31.
Give a short note on Cold Storage?
Answer:
Problems relating to the marketing of fruits and vegetables is related to their perishability. Perishability is responsible for high marketing costs, market gluts, price fluctuations, and other similar problems.

In order to overcome this constraint, the Government of India and the ministry of agriculture promulgated “Cold Storage Order 1964” under section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. However, the cold storage facility is still very poor and highly inadequate.

Question 32.
Mention the Functions of APMC?
Answer:
The Agriculture Produce Market Committee [APMC] is a statutory body constituted by State Government in order to trade in agricultural or horticultural or livestock products.

Functions of APMC:

1. To promote public private partnership in the ambit of agricultural markets.
2. To provide market led extension services to farmer.
3. To bring transparency in pricing system and transactions taking place in market in a transparent manner.
4. To ensure payments to the farmers for the sale of agricultural produce on the same day.
5. To promote agricultural activities.
6. To display data on arrivals and rates of agricultural produce from time to time into the market.

Question 33.
List out the features of the new trade policy?
Answer:
The trade policy of 1 April 1992 freed imports of almost all intermediate and capital goods. Only 71 items remained restricted. This would affect the domestic industries. Rationalization of tariff structure and removal of quantitative restrictions.

Question 34.
What is GST? Write its advantages?
Answer:

1. GST (Goods and Services Tax) is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service.
2. Removing cascading tax effect
3. Single point tax
4. Higher threshold for registration
5. Composition scheme for small business
6. The online simpler procedure under GST
7. Defined treatment for e-commerce
8. Increased efficiency in logistics
9. Regulating the unorganized sector

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
Discuss the important initiatives taken by the Government of India towards Industrial Policy?
Answer:
The Special Economic Zones (SEZs) policy was announced in April 2000.
The major objectives of SEZs are:

1. To enhance foreign investment especially to attract foreign direct investment (FDI) and thereby increasing GDP.
2. To increase shares in global export.
3. To generate additional economic activity.
4. To create employment opportunities.
5. To develop infrastructure facilities.
6. To exchange technology in the global market.

Main characteristics of SEZs:
The geographically demarked area with physical security.

1. Administrated by a single body/authority.
2. Streamlined procedures.
3. Having a separate custom area
4. Governed by more liberal economic laws.
5. Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

Question 36.
Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs?
Answer:

1. The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
2. The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

1. Major objectives of SEZs:

• To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
• To increase shares in Global Export (International Business).
• To generate additional economic activity.
• To create employment opportunities.
• To develop infrastructure facilities.
• To exchange technology in the global market.

2. Main Characteristics of SEZ:

• The geographically demarked area with physical security.
• Administrated by single body authority.
• Streamlined procedures.
• Having separate custom area.
• Governed by more liberal economic laws.
• Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

Question 37.
Describe the Salient features of EXIM policy [2015 – 2020]?
Answer:
The new EXIM policy has been formulated focusing on increasing in exports scenario, boosting production, and supporting the concepts like Make in India and Digital India.

1. Reduce export obligations by 25% and give a boost to domestic manufacturing supporting the “Make in India” concept.
2. As a step to the Digital India concept, the online procedure to upload digitally signed documents, and a mobile app for filing tax, stamp duty has been developed.
3. Repeated submission of physical copies of documents is not required.
4. Export obligation period for export items related to defense, military store, aerospace, and nuclear energy to be 24 months.
5. EXIM policy 2015 – 2020 is expected to double the share of India in World Trade from the present level of 3% by the year 2020. This appears to the too ambitious.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Development Experiences in India Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which organization established EXIM bank?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Central Bank
(c) State Bank
(d) ICICI bank.
Answer:
(a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 2.
……………………… records all the visible and invisible items.
(a) Balance of payments
(b) Exports
(c) Imports
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Balance of payments

Question 3.
The new export and import policy was announced in the year ………………………..
(a) 1970
(b) 1980
(c) 1991
(d) 2002
Answer:
(c) 1991

Question 4.
The foreign investment policy can be broadly classified into …………………….. categories.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(c) Four

Question 5.
Globalization means …………………………
(a) Integration of the economy with the world economy
(b) Increasing degrees of openness in respect of international trade.
(c) process of transformation of the world into a single economic unit.
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
The term …………………… means the integration of the economy of each country with the world economy.
(a) Globalization
(b) Privatization
(c) Liberalization
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Globalization

Question 7.
Major policy measures have been launched as a part of the programmes ………………………….
(a) LPG
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) Globalization
Answer:
(a) LPG

Question 8.
……………………. is the major function of WTO.
(a) Administering WTO trade agreements
(b) Forum for trade negotiations
(c) Handling trade disputes
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
Foreign trade creates that facilities of …………………………
(a) Imports of capital goods
(b) Flow of technology
(c) Better allocation of resources
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
………………………. trade refers to the trade or exchange of goods and services between two or more countries.
(a) Internal
(b) International
(c) Domestic
(d) None
Answer:
(b) International

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Define “Raja – J. Chelliah Committee”?
Answer:

1. The Chelliah Committee’s Report had suggested a drastic reduction in import duties.
2. It had suggested a peak rate of 50 percent.
3. As a first step towards a gradual reduction in the tariffs, the 1991-92 budget had reduced the peak rate of import duty from more than 300 percent to 150 percent.
4. The process of lowering the customs tariffs was carried further in successive budgets.

Question 2.
Mention the “Basic Economic Problems”?
Answer:
The Basic Economic Problems such as

1. Poverty
2. Unemployment
3. Discrimination
4. Social exclusion
5. Deprivation
6. Poor health care
7. Rising inflation
8. Agricultural stagnation
9. Food insecurity and
10. Labour migration

Question 3.
Give a short note on “Abolition of MRTP Act”?
Answer:

1. The New Industrial policy of 1991 has abolished the Monopoly and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1969.
2. In 2010, the Competition Commission has emerged as the watchdog in monitoring competitive practices in the economy.
3. The policy caused big changes including the emergence of a strong and competitive private sector and a sizable number of foreign companies in India.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Define “Kisan Credit Card Scheme”?
Answer:

1. A Kisan Credit Card [KCC] is a credit delivery mechanism that is aimed at enabling farmers to have quick and timely access to affordable credit.
2. It was launched in 1998 by the Reserve Bank of India and NABARD.
3. The Scheme aims to reduce farmer dependence on the informal banking sector for credit – which can be very expensive and suck them into a debt spiral.
4. The card is offered by co-operative banks, regional rural banks, and public sector banks.
5. The working of the KCC, the government has advised banks to convert the KCC into a smart card cum debit card.

Question 2.
Mention how the Indian economy liberalization policy helped in the recovery?
Answer:
The liberalization policy helped in the recovery of the Indian Economy:
There was enormous and regular flow of foreign direct investment [FDI]

1. Foreign exchange reserves started rising.
2. There was rapid Industrialization.
3. The pattern of consumption started improving.
4. Infrastructure facilities such as express highways, metro rails, flyovers, and airports started expanding.
5. The benefits of this growth in some sectors have not reached the marginalized sections of the community.
6. The process of development has generated serious social, economic, political, demographic, and ecological issues and challenges.

Question 3.
Explain the impact of LPG on the Indian economy?
Answer:

1. According to International Monetary Fund, World Economic Outlook, the GDP (nominal) of India in 2016 at current prices is $2,251 billion.
2. India contributed 2.99% of the total world’s GDP on an exchange rate basis.
3. India shared 17.5 percent of the total world population and 2.4 percent of the world Surface area.
4. India was now the 7^th largest economy in the world.
5. India was in 3^rd position after China and Japan among Asian countries. India shared 8.50% of total Asia’s GDP (nominal) in 2016.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 1.
Explain the Monetary and Financial Sector Reforms?
Answer:
Monetary reforms aimed at doing away with interest rate distortions and rationalizing the structure of lending rates. The new policy tried in many ways to make the banking system more efficient.

Some of the measures undertaken were:
1. Reserve Requirements:

• Reduction in Statutory liquidity ratio [SLR] and the cash reserve ratio [CRR] was recommended by the Narasimham Committee Report, 1991.
• It was proposed to cut down the SLR from 38.5 percent to 25 percent within a time span of three years.

2. Interest Rate Liberalisation:
RBI controlled:

• The interest rates are payable on deposits.
• The interest rate could be charged for bank loans.
• Greater competition among public sector, private sector, and foreign banks and elimination of administrative constraints.
• Liberalization of bank branch licensing policy in order to rationalize the existing branch network.
• Banks were given the freedom to relocate branches and open specialized branches.
• Guidelines for opening new private sector banks.
• New accounting norms regarding the classification of assets and provisions of bad debt were introduced in tune with the Narasimham Committee Report.

Question 2.
Explain the Agrarian crisis after reforms?
Answer:
1. High input Costs:

• The biggest input for farmers is seeds.
• Before liberalization, farmers across the country had access to seeds from state government institutions.
• The institutions produced their own seeds and were responsible for their quality and price.
• India’s seed market was opened up to global agribusinesses.
• The deregulation of many state government institutions were closed down in 2003.
• Seed prices shot up and fake seeds made an appearance in a big way.

2. Cutback in agricultural subsidies:

• Farmers were encouraged to shift from growing a mixture of traditional crops to export-oriented “cash crops” like chili, cotton, and tobacco.
• Liberalization policies reduced the subsides on pesticide and fertilizer and elasticity.
• As a result, prices have increased by 300%.

3. Reduction of import duties:

• With a view to open India’s markets, the liberalization reforms also withdrew tariffs and duties on imports.
• By 2001, India completely removed restrictions on imports of almost 1,500 items including food.

4. Paucity of credit facilities:

• The lending pattern of commercial banks, including nationalized banks, drastically changed.
• As a result, the loan was not easily adequate.
• This has forced the farmers to rely on moneylenders who charge exorbitant rates of interest.

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 8 Indian Economy Before and After Independence Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 8 Indian Economy Before and After Independence

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Indian Economy Before and After Independence Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India ………………………
(a) 1498
(b) 1948
(c) 1689
(d) 1849
Answer:
(a) 1498

Question 2.
In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from ……………………
(a) Akbar
(b) Shajahan
(c) Jahangir
(d) Noorjahan
Answer:
(c) Jahangir

Question 3.
The power for governance of India was transferred from the East India Company (EIC) to the British crown in ………………………..
(a) 1758
(b) 1858
(c) 1958
(d) 1658
Answer:
(b) 1858

Question 4.
Ryotwari system was initially introduced in …………………….
(a) Kerala
(b) Bengal
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 5.
First World War started in the year ……………………..
(a) 1914
(b) 1814
(c) 1941
(d) 1841
Answer:
(a) 1914

Question 6.
When did the Government of India declared its first Industrial Policy?
(a) 1956
(b) 1991
(c) 1948
(d) 2000
Answer:
(c) 1948

Question 7.
The objective of the Industrial Policy 1956 was ………………………..
(a) Develop heavy industries
(b) Develop agricultural sector only
(c) Develop private sector only
(d) Develop cottage industries only
Answer:
(a) Develop heavy industries

Question 8.
The industry which was de-reserved in 1993.
(a) Railways
(b) Mining of copper and zinc
(c) Atomic energy
(d) Atomic minerals
Answer:
(b) Mining of copper and zinc

Question 9.
The father of Green Revolution in India was
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Gandhi
(c) Visweswaraiah
(d) N.R. Viswanathan
Answer:
(a) M.S. Swaminathan

Question 10.
How many commercial banks were nationalised in 1969?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 14

Question 11.
The main objective of nationalisation of banks was …………………………
(a) Private social welfare
(b) Social welfare
(c) To earn
(d) Industries monopoly
Answer:
(b) Social welfare

Question 12.
The Planning Commission was setup in the year ………………………….
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
(d) 1952
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 13.
In the first five year plan, The top priority was given to ……………………… Sector.
(a) Service
(b) Industrial
(c) Agriculture
(d) Bank
Answer:
(c) Agriculture

Question 14.
Tenth Five year plan period was ……………………….
(a) 1992 – 1997
(b) 2002 – 2007
(c) 2007 – 2012
(d) 1997 – 2002
Answer:
(b) 2002 – 2007

Question 15.
According to HDR (2016), India ranked …………………….. out of 188 coutries.
(a) 130
(b) 131
(c) 135
(d) 145
Answer:
(b) 131

Question 16.
Annual Plans formed in the year ………………………
(a) 1989 – 1991
(b) 1990 – 1992
(c) 2000 – 2001
(d) 1981 – 1983
Answer:
(b) 1990 – 1992

Question 17.
The Oldest large scale industry in India ………………………
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Steel
(d) Cement
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 18.
Human Development Index (HDI) was developed by …………………………
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) M.K. Gandhi
(c) Amartiya Sen
(d) Tagore
Answer:
(c) Amartiya Sen

Question 19.
The main theme of the Twelth Five Year Plan ………………………..
(a) Faster and more inclusive growth
(b) Growth with social Justice
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Taster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
Answer:
(d) Taster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

Question 20.
The PQLI was developed by ……………………….
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Nehru
(c) Morris
(d) Morrisd.Biswajeet
Answer:
(c) Morris

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
What are the Phases of colonial exploitation of India?
Answer:
The period of merchant capital, the period of industrial capital, the period of finance capital.

Question 22.
Name out the different types of land tenure that existed in India before independence?
Answer:
The three different types of land tenure existed in India before independence. They were:

1. Zamindari System (or) Landlord-Tenant System
2. Mahalwari System (or) Communal System of farming
3. Ryotwari System (or) the Owner-Cultivator System

Question 23.
State the features that distinguish a land tenure system from another system?
Answer:
The land tenure system differs as

1. Who owns the land?
2. Who cultivates the land?
3. Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government?

Question 24.
List out the weaknesses of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Weaknesses of the Green Revolution:

1. Indian Agriculture was still a gamble of the monsoons.
2. This strategy needed heavy investment in seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and water.
3. The income gap between large, marginal, and small farmers had increased.
4. The gap between irrigated and rain-fed areas had widened.
5. Except in Punjab, and to some extent in Haryana, Farm mechanization had created widespread unemployment among agricultural labourers in the rural areas.
6. Larger chemical use and inorganic materials reduced the soil fertility and spoiled human health. Now organic farming is encouraged.

Question 25.
What are the objectives of the Tenth Five Year plan?
Answer:

1. Double the per capita income in the next 10 years.
2. Aimed to reduce the poverty ratio to 15% by 2012.
3. The growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Question 26.
What is the difference between HDI and PQLI?
Answer:

HDI	PQLI
1. The Inclusion of Income.	The exclusion of Income
2. Both Physical and financial attributes of development	Only the physical aspects of life.

Question 27.
Mention the indicators which are used to calculate HDI?
Answer:

1. Life expectancy index.
2. Educational index.
3. GDP per capita.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph:

Question 28.
Explain the Period of Merchant Capital?
Answer:

1. The period of merchant capital was from 1757 to 1813.
2. The only aim of the East India Company was to earn profit by establishing monopoly trade in the goods with India and East India.
3. During this period, India had been considered as the best hunting ground for capital by the East Indian company to develop industrial capitalism is Britain.
4. When Bengal and South India came under the political shake of the East India company in 1750s and 1760s, the objective of monopoly trade was fulfilled.
5. The company administration succeeded in generating huge surpluses which were repatriated to England, and the Indian leaders linked this problem of land revenue with that of the drain.
6. Above all, the officers of the company were unscrupulous and corrupt.

Question 29.
The Handicrafts declined in India in British Period. Why?
Answer:

1. Through discriminatory tariff policy, the British Government purposefully destroyed the handicrafts.
2. With the disappearance of Nawabs and Kings, there was no one to protect Indian handicrafts.
3. Indian products could not compete with machine-made products.
4. The introduction of railways in India increased the domestic market for British goods.

Question 30.
Elucidate the different types of land tenure systems in colonial India?
Answer:
Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management. The features that distinguish a land tenure system from the others relate to the following:

• Who owns the land
• Who cultivates the land.
• Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.

Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence. They were:

• Zamindari System or the Landlord-Tenant System.
• Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming.
• Ryotwari System or the Owner-Cultivator System.

Zamindari System or the Landlord-Tenant System:

• This system was created by the British East India Company when in 1793, Lord Cornwallis introduced the ‘Permanent Settlement Act’.
• Under this system, the landlord or the Zamindars were declared as the owners of the land and they were responsible to pay the land revenue to the government.
• The share of the government in total rent collected was fixed as 10/11th, the balance going to the Zamindars as remuneration.

Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming:

• After the introduction of this system, it was later extended to Madhya Pradesh and Punjab.
• The ownership of the land was maintained by the collective body usually the villagers which served as a unit of management.
• They distributed land among the peasants and collected revenue from them and pay it to the state.

Ryotwari System (or) the Owner-Cultivator System:

• This system was initially introduced in Tamil Nadu and later extended to Maharashtra, Gujarat, Assam, Coorg, East Punjab, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Under this system, the ownership rights of use and control of land were held by the tiller himself.
• There was a direct relationship between owners and tillers. This system was the least oppressive system before Independence.

Question 31.
State the reasons for the nationalization of commercial banks?
Answer:

1. The main objective of economic planning aimed at social welfare.
2. Before independence commercial banks were in the private sector.
3. These commercial banks failed in helping the government to achieve social objectives of planning.
4. Therefore, the government decided to nationalize 14 major commercial banks in 1969.

Question 32.
Write any three objectives of Industrial Policy 1991?
Answer:

1. The economic development of a country particularly depends on the process of Industrialisation.
2. At the time of Independence, India inherited a weak and shallow Industrial base.
3. Therefore during the post-Independence period, the Government of India took the special emphasis on the development of a solid Industrial base.

Question 33.
Give a note on Twelfth Five Year Plan?
Answer:
Twelfth Five Year Plan [2012 – 2017]

1. Twelfth five-year plan (2012 – 17).
2. Its main theme is “Faster more inclusive and sustainable growth”
3. Its growth rate target is 8%

Question 34.
What is PQLI?
Answer:

1. “PQLI” – means Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI].
   Morris D Morris developed the Physical Quality of life Index ( PQLI).
2. The PQLI is a measure to calculate the quality of life (well being of a country) Three indicators are:
   • Life expectancy
   • Infant mortality rate
   • Literacy rate
3. A scale of each indicator ranges from the number 1 to 100.
4. Number 1 represents the worst performance by any country.
5. 100 is the best performance.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
Discuss the Indian economy during the British Period?
Answer:
Britain had exploited India over a period of two centuries of its colonial rule. On the basis of the form of colonial exploitation, economic historians have divided the whole period into three phases namely the period of merchant capital, the period of industrial capital, and the period of finance capital.

1. Period of merchant capital (1757 to 1813):
The only aim of the East India company was to earn profit by establishing monopoly trade. India was considered as the best hunting ground for capital. By attaining political power the objective of monopoly trade was fulfilled. The company administration succeeded in generating huge surpluses which were repatriated to England.

2. Period of industrial capital (1813 to 1858):
India had become a market for British textiles. Indians were exploited by fixing low prices for exports and high price for imports. India’s traditional handicrafts were thrown out of gear.

3. Period of financial capital (Late 19th century – 1947) : Finance imperialism began to entrench. Britain decided to make massive investments in various fields by plundering Indian capital.

4. The land tenure system in India: Land tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management.
The Zamindari system, the Mahalwari system and the Ryotwari system were the systems of land tenure introduced by British.

5. Problems of British rule : Their profit motives led to drain of resources from India. The handicraft industries were collapsed.
The British rule stunted the growth of Indian enterprise. Capital formation in India was retarded.

Question 36.
Explain the role of SSIs in economic development?
Answer:
1. Provide Employment:

• SSIs use labor-intensive techniques. Hence, they provide employment opportunities to a large number of people. Thus, they reduce the unemployment problem to a great extent.
• SSIs provide employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals, people engaged in traditional arts, people in villages and unorganized sectors.
• The employment-capital ratio is high for the SSIs.

2. Bring Balanced Regional Development:

• SSIs promote decentralized development of industries as most of the SSIs are set up in backward and rural areas.
• They remove regional disparities by industrializing rural and backward areas and bring balanced regional development.
• They help to reduce the problems of congestion, slums, sanitation and pollution in cities. They are mostly found in outside city limits.
• They help in improving the standard of living of people residing in suburban and rural areas in India.
• The entrepreneurial talent is tapped in different regions and the income is also distributed instead of being concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or business families.

3. Help in Mobilization of Local Resources:

• SSIs help to mobilize and utilize local resources like small savings, entrepreneurial talent etc., of the entrepreneurs, which might otherwise remain idle and unutilized.
• They pave way for promoting traditional family skills and handicrafts. There is a great demand for handicraft goods in developed countries.
• They help to improve the growth of local entrepreneurs and self-employed professionals in small towns and villages in India

4. Pave for Optimisation of Capital:

• SSIs require less capital per unit of output. They provide quick return on investment due to shorter gestation period. The payback period is quite short in SSIs.
• SSIs function as a stabilizing force by providing high output-capital ratio as well as high employment – capital ratio.
• They encourage the people living in rural areas and small towns to mobilize savings and channelize them into industrial activities.

5. Promote Exports:

• SSIs do not require sophisticated machinery. Hence, import the machines from abroad is not necessary. On the other hand, there is a great demand for goods produced by SSIs.
• Thus they reduce the pressure on the country’s balance of payments. However, in the recent past large scale industries are able to borrow large funds with a low-interest rates and spend large sums on advertisements. Hence SSSs are gradually vanishing.
• SSIs earn valuable foreign exchange through exports from India.

6. Complement Large Scale Industries:

• SSIs play a complementary role to large scale sector and support large scale industries.
• SSIs provide parts, components, accessories to large scale industries and meet the requirements of large scale industries through setting up units near the large scale units.
• SSIs serve as ancillaries to large scale units.

7. Meet Consumer Demands:

• SSIs produce a wide range of products required by consumers in India.
• Hence, they serve as an anti-inflationary force by providing goods of daily use.

8. Develop Entrepreneurship:

• SSIs, help to develop a class of entrepreneurs in society. They help the job seekers to become job givers.
• They promote self-employment and a spirit of self-reliance in society.
• SSIs, help to increase the per capita income of India in various ways.
• They facilitate the development of backward areas and weaker sections of the society.
• SSIs are adept in distributing national income in a more efficient and equitable manner among the various participants of the society.

Question 37.
Explain the objectives of the nationalization of a commercial bank?
Answer:

1. The main objective of nationalization was to attain social welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
2. It helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
3. To encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
4. To reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
5. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas, and they created credit facilities mainly for the agriculture sector and its allied activities.

Question 38.
Describe the performance of the 12^th Five Year Plans in India?
Answer:
First Five Year Plan – [1951 – 1956]

• It was based on the Harrod-Domar Model.
• Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved a GDP growth rate of 3.6%. [more than its target]

Second Five Year Plan – [1956 -1961]

• It was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model.
• Its main focus was on the industrial development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved a growth rate of 4.1%

Third Five Year Plan – [1961- 1966]

• This plan was called ‘Gadgil Yojana’.
• The main target of this plan was to make the economy independent and to reach self-prepared position or take off.
• Due to the Indo-China war, this plan could not achieve its growth target of 5.6%. Indian Economy Before and After Independence 137

Fourth Five Year Plan – [1969 – 1974]

• There are two main objectives of this plan (i.e) growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance.
• This plan failed and could achieve a growth rate of 3.3% only against the target of 5.7%.

Fifth Five Year Plan – [1974 – 1979]

• In this plan top priority was given to agriculture, next came industry and mines.
• This plan achieved a growth rate of 4.8% against the target of 4.4%.

Sixth Five Year Plan – [1980 -1985]

• The basic objective of this plan was poverty eradication and technological self-reliance. GARIBI-HATAO was the motto. It was based on investment yojana.
• Its growth target was 5.2% but it achieved 5.7%

Seventh Five Year Plan – [1985 – 1990]

• This plan included the establishment of a self-sufficient economy, opportunities for productive employment.
• For the first time, due to the pressure from the private sector, the private sector got priority over the public sector.
• Its growth target was 5.0% but it achieved 6.0%

Eighth Five Year Plan – [1992- 1997]

• In this plan, the top priority was given to the development of human resources (i.e) employment, education, and public health.
• During this plan, the New Economic Policy of India was introduced.
• This plan was successful and got an annual growth rate of 6.8% against the target of 5.6%.

Ninth Five Year Plan – [1997 – 2002]

• The main focus of this plan was “growth with justice and equity”.
• This plan failed to achieve the growth target of 7% and the Indian economy grew only at the rate of 5.6%.

Tenth Five Year Plan – [2002 – 2007]

• This plan aimed to double the per capita income of India in the next 10 years.
• It aimed to reduce the poverty ratio by 15% by 2012.
• Its growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Eleventh Five Year Plan – [2007 – 2012]

• Its main theme was “faster and more inclusive growth”.
• Its growth rate target was 8.1% but it achieved only 7.9%

Twelfth Five Year Plan – [2012 – 2017]

• Its main theme is “faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth”.
• Its growth rate target is 8%
• Since the Indian Independence, the five-year plans of India played a very prominent role in the economic development of the country.

These plans had guided the Government as to how it should utilize scarce resources so that maximum benefits can be gained. It is worthy to mention here that Indian Government adopted the concept of five-year plans from Russia.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Indian Economy Before and After Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
……………………… is the backbone of our economic system.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Service
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 2.
Disguised unemployment is related to the sector.
(a) Industry
(b) Service
(c) Agriculture
(d) Insurance
Answer:
(c) Agriculture

Question 3.
India’s major ……………………. crops are sugarcane, jute, cotton, tea, coffee, etc.
(a) Food
(b) Cash
(c) Marketing
(d) Commercial
Answer:
(b) Cash

Question 4.
Most modem and rich countries have well developed through their early ………………………… revolution.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industrial
(c) French
(d) Green
Answer:
(b) Industrial

Question 5.
The income elasticity of Industrial goods is very higher than that of ………………………… goods.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Industrial
(d) Manufacturing.
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 6.
Which of the following is called as an important agro-based industry?
(a) Steel
(b) Cement
(c) Sugar
(d) Jute
Answer:
(c) Sugar

Question 7.
……………………… Industries normally do not use power.
(a) Small scale
(b) Large scale
(c) Cottage
(d) Manufacturing
Answer:
(c) Cottage

Question 8.
Planning is India is ……………………..
(a) Centralized planning
(b) Democratic planning
(c) Partial planning
(d) Indicative planning
Answer:
(b) Democratic planning

Question 9.
The rate of ………………………. formation indicates its rate of improvement.
(a) Human capital
(b) Money capital
(c) Physical capital
(d) Monetary capital
Answer:
(a) Human capital

Question 10.
Nowadays investment in ……………………… capital is very important.
(a) Money
(b) Physical
(c) Monetary
(d) Human
Answer:
(d) Human

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Define “Green Revolution”?
Answer:

1. The term Green Revolution refers to the technological breakthrough in agricultural practices.
2. During the 1960s the traditional agricultural practices were gradually replaced by modem technology and agricultural practices in India.
3. Initially, the new technology was tried in 1960 – 1961 as a pilot project in Seven districts.
4. It was called the High Yielding Varieties Programme [HYVP].

Question 2.
Define “Silk Industry”?
Answer:

1. India is the second-largest [first being China] country in the world in producing natural silk.
2. At present, India produces about 16% of the silk of the world.
3. India enjoys the distinction of being the only country producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk viz Mulberry, Tropical Tussar, Oak Tussar, Eri, and Muga.

Question 3.
When did the petroleum and the natural gas commission was established?
Answer:

1. The first successful oil well was dug in India in 1889 at Digboi, Assam.
2. At present, a number of regions with oil reserves have been identified and oil is being extracted in these regions.
3. For exploration purposes, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission [ONGC] was established in 1956 at Dehradun, Uttarkhand.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the Micro, Small, and Medium manufacturing Enterprises?
Answer:

1. Micro Manufacturing Enterprises: The investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ₹25 lakhs.
2. Small Manufacturing Enterprises: The investment in plant and machinery is more than twenty-five lakh rupees but does not exceed ₹5 crores.
3. Medium Manufacturing Enterprises: The investment in plant and machinery is more than ₹5 crores but not exceeding ₹10 crores.

Question 2.
Describe the Micro, Small, and medium service enterprises?
Answer:

1. Micro Service Enterprises: The investment in equipment does not exceed ₹10 lakhs.
2. Small Service Industries: The investment in equipment is more than ₹10 lakhs but does not exceed ₹2 crores.
3. Medium Service Enterprise: The investment in equipment is more than ₹2 crores but does not exceed ₹5 crores.

Question 3.
Explain the Iron and Steel Industry?
Answer:
Iron and Steel Industry:

1. First Steel Industry at Kulti, near Jharia, West Bengal – Bengal ironworks company in 1870.
2. First large-scale steel plant TISCO at Jamshedpur in 1907 followed by IISCO at Bumper in 1919. Both belonged to the private sector.
3. The first public sector unit was “Vishveshvaraya Iron and Steel Works” at Bhadrawati. All these are managed by SAIL (at present all-important steel plants except TISCO, are under the public sector).
4. Steel Authority of India Ltd. [SAIL] was established in 1974 and was made responsible for the development of the steel industry.
5. Presently India is the eighth largest steel producing country in the world.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 1.
Describe the Achievement of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Achievement of the Green Revolution:

1. The major achievement of the new strategy was to boost the production of major cereals viz., wheat and rice.
2. The Green Revolution was confined only to High Yielding Varieties [HYV-] cereals, mainly rice, wheat, maize, and jowar.
3. This strategy was mainly directed to increase the production of commercial crops or cash crops such as sugarcane, cotton, jute oilseeds, and potatoes.
4. Per hectare productivity of all crops had increased due to better seeds.
5. Green Revolution had a positive effect on the development of Industries, which manufactured agricultural tools like tractors, engines, thrashers, and pumping sets.
6. Green Revolution had bought prosperity to rural people.
7. Increased production had generated employment opportunities for rural masses.
8. Due to this, their standard of living had increased.
9. Due to multiple cropping and more use of chemical fertilizers, the demand for labour increased.
10. Financial resources were provided by banks and co-operative societies.
11. These banks provided loans to farmers on easy terms.

Question 2.
Explain the problems of British Rule?
Answer:
Problems of British Rule

1. The British rule stunted the growth of Indian enterprise.
2. The economic policies of the British checked and retarded capital formation in India.
3. The drain of wealth financed capital development in Britain.
4. Indian agricultural sector became stagnant and deteriorated even when a large section of the Indian population was dependent on agriculture for subsistence.
5. The British rule in India led to the collapse of handicraft industries without making any significant contribution to the development of any modem industrial base.
6. Some efforts by the colonial British regime in developing the plantations, mines, jute mills, banking, and shipping, mainly promoted a system of capitalist firms that were managed by foreigners. These profit motives led to a further drain of resources from India.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
To know the value of freedom, students can collect pictures of Places like Jallianwala Bagh, Meerut, Thandi, and photos of freedom fighters?
Answer:
The Jallianwalabagh Massacre in Amritsar

1. Jallianwala Bagh is one of the main tourist attractions around Amritsar.
2. The tourists, as well as the neighboring people, visited here.
3. Jallianwala bagh is situated at a throwaway distance from the Golden temple, a famous tourist spot in the Amritsar.
4. Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar is a good looking garden and contains a Sikh spiritual shrine.
5. Jallianwala Bagh history was a well-liked ground for holding meetings and protests during the freedom movement in India.
6. The massacre memorial one of the monuments in India was inaugurated on 13th April in 1961.
7. Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the president of India, inaugurated the memorial in the Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar at that time.
8. The Bagh has a well that is also fine cosseted by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre memorial.
9. Jallianwala Bagh is connected with the most tragic day in the history of Indian Freedom.
10. Jallianwala Bagh is a large garden like space extended over to an area of 6.5 acres and the most noticeable structure in this place is the memorial of the 1919 massacre victims.
11. One can also witness the wall with gunshot marks.
12. Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial Trust administrates the activities of this place.

The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre:

1. Jallianwala Bagh reminds us about the great tragedy and it evokes a nationalistic feeling in every Indian.
2. It is the place where the crudest massacre in the history of Indian freedom fight took place in the year 1919.
3. To offer tribute to the innocent people who died in the massacre, this place was built at the spot of the horrible event.
4. On 13th April 1919, a large crowd gathered to protect the take into custody of two Indian Freedom leaders.
5. The crowd was defenseless and included women as well as children.
6. The British General, Edward Dyer ordered his soldiers to fire on the unarmed and helpless crowd.
7. The continuous firing went on targeting the crowd while the people were trapped inside the Jallianwala Bagh, which had only one narrow gate.

Question 2.
Display the demonstration effect of present Indians in culture, dressing, and lifestyle to emphasize the Swadhesi?
Answer:
Swadeshi Movement was a popular strategy for eradicating British rule and for improving the economic conditions of the country.

Mahatma Gandhi:

1. The concept of swadeshi, as per Mahatma Gandhi was to attain self-sufficiency which included the employment of unemployed people by encouraging village Industries and towards building a non-violent society.
2. The main policies of the swadeshi movement included boycotting all types of British products and the restoration of all domestic products.

Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin chandra pal. [Bal, Lai, Pal].

1. The chief forerunners of the swadeshi movement were Bal, Lai. Pal.
2. The writings and speeches of Bal Gangadhar Tilak and his associates paved the initial way.
3. Tilak reaches out to the masses through popular festivals.
4. He transformed the traditional Ganapathi Utsav into a public celebration where patriotic ideas could be spread.
5. Later he inaugurated a Shivaji festival for the same purpose.
6. In 1906, Bengal honoured the great Maratha as a national hero.